ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING – Environmental pollution d.

Proteins
13. In circulation bed, recovery of solids from the gas phase of a fluidized
1. Controlled dumpsite are allowed only to exist for a period of _____ bed combustion reactor is followed by:
a. 1 yrs. a. Reinjection in the sand bed
b. 2 yrs. b. Introduction of catalyst
c. 3 yrs. c. Water treatment
d. 5 yrs. d. Removal of particulate matter
e. 6 yrs. 14. What are the sounds that are produced for short periods such as the
2. It is a motor vehicle pollution control device designed to reduce to ringing of a telephone or aircraft take-offs and landings?
reduce emissions such as oxides of nitrogen, hydrocarbons, and a. Fluctuating sounds
carbon monoxide. b. Impulse noise
a. Fuel cleaner c. Steady state
b. Catalytic converter d. Presbycusis
c. Emission reducer e. Intermittent sounds
d. Vapor condenser 15. Refers to the liquid produced when waste undergo decomposition, It
3. Compute the annual production of nitrogen oxide from 40,000 is contaminated liquid that contains dissolved suspended materials.
vehicles in Panay Island, if the nitrogen oxide emission rate is 3.0 a. Extract
grams per vehicle. Assume the annual travel is 15,000 kilometers per b. Substrate
vehicle. c. Catas
a. 180 tons nitrogen oxide d. Filtrate
b. 1800 tons nitrogen oxide e. Leachate
c. 150 tons nitrogen oxide 16. Ozone is an example of this pollutant that is formed in the
d. 1500 tons nitrogen oxide atmosphere by chemical reactions;
4. The depletion of the ozone layer has an adverse impact on the a. Natural pollutant
environment. The following are the impacts, except: b. Primary pollutant
a. Greater incidence of skin cancers c. Tertiary pollutant
b. Natural purification of water d. Secondary pollutant
c. Blindness due to the development of cataracts 17. The systematic administration of activities provided for the collection,
d. Greenhouse effect or increased global temperature source separation, storage, transportation, transfer, processing,
5. The vegetative upper layer of the soil is called: treatment, and disposal of solid waste.
a. Sandy loam a. Resource recovery
b. Clay soil b. Garbage collection
c. Humus c. Solid waste diversion
d. Organic top soil d. Solid waste management
6. The sampling for and measuring of pollutant present in the 18. The changing of liquid water from bare soil and vegetative surface
atmosphere is describe as: into water vapor is called ______.
a. Air monitoring a. Transpiration
b. Air evaluation b. Interception
c. Air sampling c. Evaporation
d. Air pollution abatement d. Condensation
7. It is referred to as the thermal destruction of waste by means of direct 19. Waste material capable of being broken down, usually by bacteria,
exposure to fire. into basic element
a. Open burning a. Biodegradable material
b. Inceneration b. Garbage
c. Pyrolysis c. Rubbish
d. Gasification d. Trash
8. The presence of a substance in concentration such as to be hazard to e. All of the above
public health or to cause significant deleterious ecological change is 20. The following belongs to the six major lakes in the Philippines except:
called: a. Naujan lake
a. Pollution b. Laguna de Bay
b. Contamination c. Bulusan lake
c. Eutrophication d. Manila Bay
d. Sanitize e. None of the above
9. In Metro Manila, the average solid waste being generated per person 21. A disruption or imbalance in any part of the food chain will result in
per day is: a. Food stoppage
a. 0.05 kg b. Food crisis
b. 0.5 kg c. Food web
c. 0.9 kg d. Eutrophication
d. 1 kg e. None of the above
10. What is referred to as the persistent sound in an enclosed apace as a 22. The breakdown of organic chemicals such as sugars and starches, by
result of repeated reflection or scattering after the source has ended? molecular oxygen. To fprm gaseous carbon dioxide is called:
a. Echo a. Digestion
b. Reverberation b. Aerobic respiration
c. Jangle c. Biodegradation
d. Resonance d. Anaerobic digestion
e. Glare e. None of the above
11. A natural phenomenon not caused by human beings. When 23. An acoustical environment which approximates a free sound fields
temperature, salinity and nutrients reach certain levels, a massive which includes free from echoes and reverberation is:
increase in karenene brevis algae occurs. a. Coherence
a. Oligotrophhy b. Diffuse sound field
b. Red tide c. Reverberation
c. DO depletion d. Resonance
d. Kareninism e. Unbound echo
12. Organic nutrients include the following except: 24. That which identifies waste that pose a fire hazard during routine
a. Fats management:
b. Carbohydrates a. Toxicity
c. Minerals b. Corrosivity
 c. Irritant e. Teratogens
d. Reactivity 36. An absolutely impermeable unit that will neither store nor transmit
e. Ignitability water
25. Ground contamination is largely due to the uncontrolled release of a. Aquifer
heavy metals and organic substances. Dioxin-contaminates soil can be b. Aquiclude
treated by: c. Aquitard
a. Destroying dioxin by controlled detonation d. Aquifuge
b. Storage of the contaminated soil in a safe place e. Phreatic Zone
c. Bioremediation 37. It is a protein produved by several microorganisms that enables the
d. Bio augmentation conversion of fibrinogen to fibrim
e. Thermal amplification a. Hemaglutination
26. Give the most common of the stable gases of the total atmosphere: b. Nitrogen
a. H2 and NH3 c. Coagulase
b. C and S d. Agar
c. CH4 and CO2 e. Amylase
d. N2 and O2 38. Which of the following is visible to the naked eye?
e. None of the above a. Magellanic cloud
27. It is breaking down of materials or substance by heat, chemical b. Andromeda Galaxy
reaction, electrolysis, decay, or other processes into parts or elements c. Triangulum Galaxy
or simpler compounds. d. Centaurus A
a. Decomposition e. All of the above
b. Combustion 39. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of endotoxin?
c. Reduction a. It is associated with Gram-negative bacteria, whether
d. Conversion pathogenic or not
e. Diversion b. Having relationship with meningococcemia
28. A generic term covering a family of chlorinated isomers of biphenyl c. They are heat stable
usually found in industrial and municipal solid wastes: d. The biological activity is associated with lipopolysaccharide
a. PBZN e. None of the above
b. PAN 40. What would be the relationship of focal length of convex lens in air
c. CFC and in water?
d. Aromatic Hydrocarbons a. Increase in water with respect to air
e. PCB b. Remains the same
29. It is the form of smoke, dust or soot and can aggravate respiratory c. Increase in air with respect to water
diseases. It has also aesthetic effects in the house. It is known as: d. Decrease with respect to air and water
a. Asphyxiant e. So not have relationship as to each other
b. Mist 41. The following statement are true refraction concept EXCEPT:
c. Smog a. Power of the lens is measured as equal to that of focal
d. Fiber length
e. Particulates b. If the lens is held in water in place of air, the focal length of
30. About 100 species of fungi are pathogenic to man and animal. The the water increases four times.
following are caused by fungi except: c. Due to atmospheric refraction image of sun appears 2
a. Lung infection minutes before sunrise and can be seen two minutes after
b. Skin infection sunset. Thus the length of the day increases by 4 minutes
c. Hair infection due to atmospheric refraction
d. Tooth decay d. The light from the stars reaches us after refraction through
e. None of the above layers of atmosphere
31. Viruses cannot be cultivated in e. None of the above
a. Tissue culture 42. The average sizr of inhalable dust particle:
b. Bird embryos a. 5-10 micrometer
c. Live mammals b. 10-15 micrometer
d. Blood agar c. 5-10 micrometer
e. All of the above d. 0.5-1.0 micrometer
32. Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point? e. None of the above
a. Nal 43. How is progression rating in LEED for Green Building being tracked?
b. NaBr a. Via online data base system
c. NaF b. By scoreboard
d. NaCl c. By the certificate of declarant
e. Vary depending on polarity d. By Green Building experts
33. Which of the following is not true with Staphylococcus aureus? e. None of the above
a. S. Aureus does not make coagulase 44. It is a geothermal feature of the earth where there is an opening in
b. S. Aureus causes Pneumonia the surface that superheated water that periodically erupts in a
c. S. Aureaus causes acute endocarditis shower of water and stream.
d. S. Aureus is related with inflammation a. Mantle
34. ______ are suspended liquid droplets generated by condensation b. Bedrock
from the gaseous to the liquid state or by breaking up of a liquid into a c. Glacier
dispersed statem such as by atomizing, foaming or splashing. d. Geyser
a. Febers e. None of the above
b. Mists 45. It is a long narrow inlet with steep sides or cliffs, created in a valley
c. Dusts carved by glacial activity.
d. Fumes a. Ria
e. Aerosols b. Crater
35. Thalidomide is a sedative drug used to trat morning sickness. It is c. Glaciers
considered as _____ d. Fjord
a. Asphyxiant e. Oxbow
b. Irritant 46. It is a U-shaped body of water formed when a wide meander from the
c. Mutagens main stem of a river is cut off to create a lake long, narrow inlet with
d. Carcinogens steeo sides or cliffs, created in a valley carved by glacial activity.
 a. Ria d. All of the above
b. Crater e. None of the above
c. Glacier 58. The required number of copies of EIA report to be submitted for
d. Fjrd Programmatic EIS:
e. Oxbow a. 10 hard copies + 1 CD
47. The ______ biome stretches across a large portion of Canada, Europe b. 7 hard + 1 CD
and Asia. It is the largest biome in the world. Winters are cold. c. 5 hard copies +1CD
Summer are warm. Lots of conifers grow here. d. 5 hard copies + 2CD
a. Rainforest e. 10 hard copies + 2CD
b. Tundra 59. It is the stage in the EIS system where information and project impact
c. Savanna assessment requirements are more definitely established and focused
d. Chaparral to provide the Proponent and the stakeholders the final scope of work
e. Taiga and terms of reference for the EIS.
48. Having the capacity to destroy specific cells a. Screening
a. Genotoxic b. Scoping
b. Promoter c. Feasibility Study
c. Cytotoxic d. Pre-feasibility
d. Lymphotoxic e. Pre-Assessment
e. None og the above 60. ______ - fund that a Proponent shall set up after an ECC is issued for
49. It is used to described the various activities associated with the its project or undertaking, to be used to support the activities of the
management of solid waste from the point of generation to final multi-partite monitoring team. It shall be immediately accessible and
disposal. easily disbursable.
a. Functional elements a. Environmental Guarantee Fund
b. System b. Environmental Monitoring Fund
c. Program c. Environmental Social Welfare Fund
d. Alternatives d. Gross Environmental Critical Fund
e. None of the above 61. The following statement is true EXCEPT:
50. _____ also known as fibrinolysins, are exoenzymes that dissolve clots. a. Haemophilus influenza will not grow in blood agar
a. Kinasws b. Chocolate agar is used to culture Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Coagulases c. Chocolate agar is considered to be more enriched than
c. Cytokines blood agar
d. Hemolysis d. Blood agar is both enriched and differential medium
e. Lecithinase e. None of the above
51. _____ are chemical mediators that are released from many different 62. Which of the following elements would you expect to have the
types of cells in the human body. They act as chemical messengers, highest boiling point?
enabling cells to communicate with each other. a. F2
a. Kinases b. Br2
b. Coagulases c. I2
c. Cytokines d. Cl2
d. Hemolysis e. All of the above
e. Lecithinase 63. Which of the following is NOT a/an RNA virus?
52. It is a medium sized blackish mosquito with four well-defined spot on a. Corona virus
its wings. It’s the most dangerous malaria carriers. b. Rubivirus
a. Anopheles freeborni c. Paremyxovirus
b. Anopheles quadrimaculatus d. Influenza Virus
c. Anopheles pipiens e. None of the above
d. Anotheles tarsalis 64. A major type of biomes characterized by extensive grasslands with
53. What is the most important vector of Chana’s desease? occasional or patches of tree:
a. Kissing bugs: Triatoma and related species a. Prairies
b. Housdefly: Musca domestica b. Steppes
c. Oriental rat flea: Xenopsylla cheopis c. Dessert
d. House-mouse mite: Allodermanyssus sanguineus LEP d. Chaparral
e. Mosquito: Anopheles species e. Savanna
54. Rickettsialpox: Ricketsia akari; Murine Typus:______ 65. According to Occupational Safety and Health Standards, DOLE,
a. Rickettsia rickettsi Amended 1990, the TLV for Carbon monoxide is ______ ppm
b. Rickettsia prowazeki a. 0.5
c. Rickettsia akari b. 5
d. Rickettsia typhi c. 25
55. Report type document prepares by Proponent required submitting to d. 15
the designated monitoring EMB office on a semi-annually frequency. e. 50
a. Self-Monitoring Report 66. Effectiveness of ozone destruction is enhance if ____ clouds are
b. Compliance Monitoring Report present. This occurs only in the great cold of the polar night when the
c. Compliance Monitoring and Validation Report temperature is below 200 *K.
d. Project Environmental Monitoring & Validation Report a. Tropospheric
56. Compliance Evaluation Report (CER) is the documentation by the EMB b. Stratospheric
of its evaluation findings for project with MMT. It shall be prepared c. Nimbus
_____ by the EMB Case Handler. d. Convective
a. Monthly e. Alto-cirrus
b. Quarterly 67. It is an area of flood plain land where filling & development may be
c. Semi-annually permitted subject to land use and building code regulations.
d. Annually a. Floodway
e. Every two years b. Flood fringe
57. Which of the following is NOT a major amendment os per PD 1586? c. Flood risk
a. Decrease in lend/project area per production capacity d. Flood use-plan
b. Increase in production capacity of auxiliary component of 68. National Water Crisis Act of 1995
the original project a. RA 907
c. Addition of new Product b. RA 8041
 c. RA 7900 f. 2 HDPE
d. RA 8550 80. Dao 1997-39-Chemical Control order for:
69. Air quality index standard color for Unhealthy for Sensitive groups a. PCB
a. Yellow-fair b. Asbestos
b. Orange c. Mercury and Hg compounds
c. Green-good d. Ozone Deoleting Substances
d. Red-unhealthy e. Cyanide
e. Maroon-hazardous 81. Treatment of wastes at the end of industrial production streams, or
f. Purple-very unhealthy for municipal effluents is often referred to as:
70. ____ process is one that take place with no addition of removal of a. End of pipe
heat and with sufficient slowness so the gas can be considered to be b. Preventive
in equilibrium at all times. c. Technology
a. Convection d. Ambient Regulation
b. Adiabatic e. A and B
c. Isobaric 82. Classification of worker belonging to 4 th classification
d. Enthalpy a. Managers
71. This Asian country is home to the world’s first transgenic glowing fish b. Farmers
and has successful brad c. Clerks
a. Taiwan d. Technicians and associates Professionals
b. Japan e. Professionals
c. China 83. The following are none ionizing radiation EXCEPT:
d. Philippines a. Infrared
e. Vietnam b. LASER
72. The simplest air pollution control device: c. Electromagnetic fields
a. Setting Chamber d. UV radiations
b. Fabric Filter 84. National Fire Protection Agency Diamond has color codes and numeric
c. Wet Scrubber rating system. Yellow is for:
d. Electrostatic Precipitator a. Reactivity
73. All of the following are true EXCEPT: b. Flammability-red
a. Atoms are made up of electrons, protons, neutrons and c. Health-blue
electrons. d. Special hazard information-white
b. All atoms of a given element contain the same number of e. All of the above
neutrons. 85. Lichens has a resemblance and properties of both algae and fingi,
c. Chemical combinations of atoms are called compounds Algae in lichen is called ______ while fungi is _____
d. The atomic number of an element indicates the number of a. Phycolobiont, Hypaebiont
protons in each atom of element. b. Hyphaebiont, Phycolobiont
74. Which of the following is a prediction of the theories of the “big bang” c. Photobiont, Mycobiont
and stellar nucleogenesis? d. Mycobiont, Photobiont
a. Universe comes from Carbon, Sulfur and Oxygen 86. Causative agent of Eastern equine encephalitis
b. The elements with even atomic numbers below that of a. Calcivirus
nickel are rare. b. Alphavirus
c. Lithium is the third most common element. c. Rubivirus
d. Elements with atomic numbers below that of nickel are d. Flavivirus
rare. e. Norwalk Virus
e. The principal elements of the universe are hydrogen and 87. Newest planet discovery named after a Filipino science teacher
helium a. Planet Biyo
75. _____ is a process that involves prediction and evaluating the likely b. Planet Lumba
impacts of a project (including cumulative impacts) on the c. Planet Lagdao
environment during construction, commissioning, operation and d. Planet Kintanar
abandonment. e. Planet Bilat
a. Environmental Impact Assessment 88. The Bio-fuel Act of 2006
b. Environmental Health Assessment a. RA 9637
c. Environmental Risk Assessment b. RA 9367
d. Environmental impact Statement c. RA 9147
76. Tooth shaped delta d. RA 9072
a. Arcuate e. RA 9412
b. Cuspate 89. The permissible noise exposure limit in a day for three (3) hours
c. Estuarine exposure is _____.
d. Oxbow a. 100 dBA
e. Bird foot b. 90 dBA
77. As per Chapter 7 of PD 856, establishments employing 400 workers: c. 95 dBA
a. Small scale industries d. 97 dBA
b. Medium sized industries 90. It refers to hearing loss due to aging process
c. Large Scale industries a. Presbycusis
d. Factory b. Imulse
78. As per Chapter & of PD 856, minimum required temperature (*C) for c. Intermittent
continuous and light workload: d. Cononuous
a. 40 e. None of the above
b. 34 91. _____ is declared as moth of Accident Prevention of Schools as per
c. 30 Proclamation No. 115-A
d. 27 a. June
79. Plastic code for polypropylene b. July
a. 1 PETE c. March
b. 3 PVC d. August
c. 4 LDPE e. May
d. 5 PP 92. There are ____ ECPs and _____ ECAs as per Philippine EIS system
e. 6 PS a. 5, 12
 b. 5, 10 d. Areas on which people are dependent for their livelihood
c. 10, 5 104. What is the best known remediation program in the US?
d. 12, 4 a. Superfund
e. 4, 12 b. SuperBass
93. It also referred as light microscope c. Superremediate
a. Digital Microscope d. Super-CERCLA
b. Compound Microscope e. Super recovery
c. Electron Microscope 105. Each LGU plan shall include an implementation schedule which shows
d. Fluorescence Microscope that within____ years after the affectivity of RA 9003; the LGU shall
e. Optical Microscope divert at least _____% of all solid wastes from waste disposal facilities
94. It shall include solid waste transfer station, drop-off center, a through re0use, recycling, and composting activities and other
composting facility, and a recycling facility. resource recovery activities.
a. Buy-back center a. 5,30
b. Materials Recovery Facility b. 10,25
c. Recovery Center c. 5,25
d. Opportunity to recycle d. 10,15
e. None of the above 106. Geosynthetic clay liner (GCL) when used as a vase liner system should
95. DNA ____ initiates the separation of the two strands of the DNA have a minimum thickness of _____ and a permeability of ______
molecule while DNA _____ connects newly synthesized DNA. a. 0.75 m; 1x10-6 cm/sec or less
a. Ligase, topoisomerase b. 01.5 mm; 1x10-14 cm/sec or less
b. Ligase, polymerase c. 0.75 m; 1x10-9 cm/sec or less
c. Topoisomerase, ligase d. 6.4 mm; 1x10-9 cm/sec or less
d. Topoisomerase, polymerase 107. Sanitary landfills should have a minimum distance of _____ from
96. It is the idea that chemoorganotrophic bacteria and cyanobacteria perennial stream, lake or rivers.
were stably incorporated into another cell type which gives rise to the a. 20 m
mitochondria and chloroplast of modern day eukaryotes. b. 50 m
a. Evolution c. 75 m
b. Speciation d. 5m
c. Endosymbiosis 108. The National Solid Waste Management Commission is established
d. Theory of abiogenesis under the _____
97. 5th state of matter a. Office of the President
a. Plasma b. DENR
b. Bose-Einstein condensation c. DILG
c. Femionoc condensation d. EMB
d. LASER 109. Plastic code for Polystyrene
98. All of the following are true about stable nuclides EXCEPT a. 1
a. The number of neutrons is always equal to the number of b. 3
neutrons. c. 4
b. In general, the greater the number of protons, the greater d. 5
the number of neutrons. e. 6
c. At high numbers of neutrons, the number of neutrons is 110. The needed document for co-located projects and with existing ECC
greater than the number of protons. but with proposal for modification on resumption of operation
d. At low numbers of neutrons, the number of neutrons is a. EPRMP
approximately equal to the number of protons. b. PERRMP
99. Ferrous sulfate c. EIS
a. FeSO4 d. PEIS
b. Fe(SO4)3 e. IEER
c. Fe(SO4)2 111. _____ infection is and infection not present upon admission to a
d. Fe(SO4)3 hospital but incurred while being treated there.
100. The rates of diffusion of gases are inversely proportional to the square a. Zoonosis
root of their density is referred to as ______ b. Nnsocomial
a. Gay Lussac’s Law c. Subclimical
b. Henry’s Law d. Focal
c. Raoult’s Law e. Passive
d. Dalton’s Law 112. Viruses cannot be cultivated in
e. Grahams’s Law a. Tissue culture
b. Bird embryos
c. Live mammals
d. Blood agar
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING – Environmental Pollution 113. Which of the following compound has the highest boiling point?
a. Nal
101. There are ______ ECAs and _____ ECPs as per Philippine EIS system b. NaBr
a. 5,12 c. NaF
b. 5,10 d. NaCl
c. 10,5 e. Vary depending on the polarity
d. 12,4 114. It occurs when an organism absorbs a toxic substance at a rate greater
102. _____ is so-located projects in either ECA or NECA than that at which the substance is lost. It occurs within an organism.
a. Group 1 a. Bioaccumulation
b. Group 2 b. Biomagnification
c. Group 3 c. Bio dilution
d. Group 4 d. Bioconcentration
e. Group 5 e. Biotechnology
103. The following condition/s will declare Mangrove areas as ECA except 115. Revised Fire Code of the Philippines (2008)
a. With primary pristine and dense young growth a. RA 6425
b. With 50% and above live coralline cover b. RA 9514
c. Near or adjacent to traditional productive fry or fishing c. PD 1144
grounds d. RA 7586
 e. PD 1586 126. _____ is the name given to the clear ice formed when supercooled
116. In radiation field, the measurement of far field wherein there are no droplets freeze on contact with solids surfaces.
reflecting surfaces is_______ measurement a. Hail
a. Free field b. Graupel
b. Reverberant field c. Snow
c. Directivity index d. Rime
d. Directivity factor e. Pellet
e. Near factor 127. It is an isolated clock of soil, in which grass or crops can be planted,
117. Color indicator for Unhealthy for sensitive groups air quality as per Air from which one can measure the percolation from the base.
Quality Index (AQI) a. Percometer
a. Maroon b. Lysimeter
b. Yellow c. Transpirator
c. Purple d. Evaporation pan
d. Red e. Geopercometer
e. Orange 128. The stage in the EIS where information and project impact assessment
118. It is used for high efficiency, dry collection of particles from hot gas requirements are more definitely established and focused to provide
streams and is usually constructed of alternating plates and wires. the Proponent and the stakeholders the final scope of work and terms
a. Fabric mat collectors of reference for the EIS
b. Inertial collectors a. screening
c. Electrostatic precipitators b. Procedural review
d. Gravitational settling chambers c. Delimitation
e. Reverse-air baghouse d. Scoping
119. It is a reddish brown highly reactive gas that plays a major role in a e. Social acceptance
tropospheric ozone formation. Its odor threshold is about 0.2 ppm. 129. A documentation of the actual cumulative environmental impacts and
Tobacco smoke has an average concentration of 5 ppm. effectiveness of current measures for single projects that are already
a. Nitrogen oxides operating but without ECCs
b. Smog a. PDR
c. PAN b. PEIS
d. Sulfur Oxides c. EIS
e. Lead d. PEPRMP
120. What chemotroph uses carbon to oxidize new compounds and cell? e. EPRMP
a. Chompprganotrophs 130. Ricketts that are common in rats and occasionally transmitted to
b. Chemoheterotrophs human by rat fleas
c. Chemolithotrophs a. Rickettsia akari
d. Chemoautotrophs b. Rickettsia ricketsii
121. Which of the following is not true with Staphylococcus aureus? c. Rickettsia felis
a. S. Aureus does not make coagulase d. Rickettsia prowezeki
b. S. Aureus causes Pneumonia e. Rickettsia typhi
c. S. Aureu causes acute endocarditis 131. A unique characteristic of many isolates of Pseudomonas useful in
d. S. Aureu is related with inflammation identification is
122. Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED) consists of a a. Facal odor
suite of rating systems for the design, construction and operation of b. Drug resistance
high performance green buildings, homes and neighborhoods. The c. Fluorescent green pigment
application and review is through d. Motility
a. Annually by sending a representative to International e. White pigments
Convention on World Wildlife Fund (WWF) 132. Complex macromolecular polymer w/c is main constituent of most
b. Identifying top 10 countries having the most number of bacterial sell walls. It is also known as murein.
Green Building built and selecting from these nominees. a. ATP
c. Application is submitted on-line to the website of the b. Peptidoglycan
United Nation c. Golgi complex
d. The application review and certification process is handled d. Mesosomes
in LEED Online, US Green Building Council web-based tool. e. Fibosomes
e. Submission is through WWF link account. Forming a third 133. An pseudocyst is found in _____, and a oocyst is found in ______
party committee that will evaluate the application. a. Human, cats
123. In _____, 60 to 90% of the light output is directed to the ceiling and b. Cats, humans
upper walls while dense diffusing glass allow some of the light to pass c. Feces, tissue
through directly downward. d. Tissue, feces
a. Direct lighting 134. A chemical is considered hazardous because of the following
b. direct-indirect characteristics except for
c. semidirect lighting a. Flammability
d. smi-indirect lighting b. Corrosivity
e. indirect lighting c. Asphyxiate
124. LD5= point at which _____ % of the subjects are killed or ______% d. Reactivity
remained e. Portability
a. 95,5 135. Thalidomides is a sedative drug used to treat morning sickness. Ot as
b. 5,95 considered as _____
c. 95,9.5 a. Asphyxiant
d. 0,5 b. Irritant
e. 5,9.5 c. Mutagents
125. _____ are suspended liquid droplets generated by condensation from d. Carcinogens
the gaseous to the liquid state or by breaking up of a liquid into a e. Teratogens
dispersed state, such as by atomizing, foaming or splashing. 136. Pasture lands are _____
a. Fibers a. Areas with elevation of more than 100 meters
b. Mists b. Lands with areas not less than one hectare and stocked
c. Dusts with trees
d. Fumes c. Lands with natural grass cover with few isolated trees
d. Small lands utilized for raising plants for domestic livestock
137. Under RA 8749, any imported new or locally-assembled new motor c. Heakth factor
vehicle shall not be registered unless or complies with the emission d. Vulnerability
standard set pursuant to this Act, as evidenced by a _____ issued by e. Loss
DENR 149. _____ is an idealized wind that is quite close to the real wind at all
a. ECC (environmental compliance certificate) heights from 600 to 1000m above the
b. COC (certificate of conformity) a. Monsoon wind
c. VCT (vehicle certificate of title) b. Geostrophic wind
d. ETCC (emission testing conformance certificate) c. Stratospheric wind
138. _____ is the fraction of the solar radiation that is reflected back. d. Easterly wind
a. Albedo e. Habagat wind
b. Bowen Ration 150. Which of the following is visible to the naked eye?
c. Radial Lapse Rate a. Magellanic cloud
d. Atmospheric curvature b. Andromeda galaxy
e. Modified Gama ray c. Triangulum galaxy
139. _____ is the main culprit of the Global Warming. d. Centaurus
a. CO2 e. All of the above
b. CH4 151. It is also referred a light microscope
c. PAN a. Digital microscope
d. NOX b. Compound microscope
e. CFC c. Electron microscope
140. Capacity of Sanitary Landfill Category 3 d. Fluorescence microscope
a. 75-200 tons/day e. Optical microscope
b. 50-75 tons/day 152. Minimum illumination for discrimination of extremely fine details is
c. 10-15 tons/day involved under conditions of poor contrasts for long periods of time.
d. 15-50 tons/day a. 50 ft-candles
e. Less than 10 tons/day b. 100 ft-candles
141. International conference on Ozone Depleting Substances c. 30 ft-candles
a. Montreal Protocol d. 1000 ft-candles
b. Kyoto Protocol 153. Minimum water facility-to –employee ratio as per Chapter 7 of PD 856
c. UN summit a. 1:20
d. Earth summit b. 1:50
e. Basel Convention c. 1:30
142. Northern coniferous forest or boreal forest, characterized by short, d. 1:60
cool summers and long winters. 154. Minimum bathing/washing facility-to-employee ratio as per Chapter &
a. Taiga of PD 856
b. Tundra a. 1:10
c. Savanna b. 1:25
d. Grasslands c. 1:30
e. Arctic d. 1:50
143. Lands primarily used for the production of forage plants, naturally or e. 1:60
artificially. 155. Head protection for fireman service as per Chapter 7 of PD 856
a. Grazing Lands a. Class E
b. Pasteur Lands b. Class D
c. Grasslands c. Class C
d. Open lands d. Class B
e. Tundra e. Class A
144. Smallest lake in the Philippines 156. Joint application of certain biological sciences and engineering
a. Lake Buhi techniques so as to ensure the optimum mutual adaptation of man
b. Lanao Lake and work.
c. Alligator lake a. Industrial hygiene
d. Naujan Lake b. Ergonomics
e. Lake Bababu c. Occupational health services
145. The following are methods for culturing microorganisms except d. Special function test
a. Inoculation e. Occupational hygiene
b. Insertion 157. Which if the following is NOT part of Dalton’s atomic theory?
c. Identification a. Matter is composed of atoms
d. inspection b. Atoms are infinitely small
e. Incubation c. Atoms combine in small whole numbers to form
146. _____ is the brightness of a surface emitting or reflecting 1 lumen/cm2 compounds
a. Luminous flux d. Atoms of different elements are different
b. Lambert e. None of the above
c. Lumen 158. It is well-known that alpha-particles are…
d. Foot-candle a. Electrically neutral
e. Intensity b. Negatively charged
147. These are substances are those that are innate in any organisms c. Made up of four protons
including humans. Their levels usually fall within a particular d. Heavier than beta-particles
concentration so that metabolism will normally proceed. e. Main cause of Zeta Potential
a. Xenobiotics 159. Which of the following is a consequence of Boyle’s law?
b. Endogenous substances a. The density if a gas increases when the pressure is
c. Dose increased
d. Toxoids b. The density if a gas decreases when the temperature is
e. POPs increased
148. It is defined as a factor or exposure that may adversely affect health c. The density if a gas increases when the molecular mass is
of certain individuals of the exposure is high enough and/or if other increased
conditions apply. d. The density if a gas increases when the temperature is
a. Risk increased
b. Haxzard
160. The Kelvin temperature scale was created from the Celsius scale, a. Rudolf Virchow (Biogenesis)
because b. Alexander Yersin (Bubonic Plague)
a. Kelvin invented a simpler more precise thermometer c. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b. Negative temperature on the Celsius scale has no physical d. Robert Hooke (cell)
meaning e. Robert Koch
c. It was found experimentally that all gases extrapolated to 173. A human diploid cells have _____ chromosomes
an apparent zero volume at minus 273.15 Celsius a. 12
d. The mathematics are easier if negative temperature are b. 23
not considered c. 46
e. It was found out by Kelvin that absolute temperature and d. 92
Curie temperature are equal 174. A Swedish scientist established binomial system of nomenclature in
161. The correct order of increasing frequency is: 18th century
a. X-ray, Ulraviolet, Microwave a. Rudolf Virchow
b. Ultraviolet, X-ray, microwave b. Robert Koch
c. Ultraviolet, microwave, X-ray c. Carolous con Linnaeus
d. Microwave, ultraviolet X-ray d. Robert Whittaker
162. When groundwater contributes to stream flow, the stream is called e. Carl Woese
a. Losing stream 175. It is a protein produced by several microorganisms that enables the
b. Equal stream conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
c. Base flow a. Hemaglutination
d. Gaining stream b. Nitrogen
163. An absolutely impermeable unit that will neither store nor transmit c. Coagulase
water d. Agar
a. Aquifer e. Amylase
b. Aqcuiclude 176. Referring to fungi imperfecti
c. Aquitard a. Phycomycetes
d. Aquifuge b. Chytridiomycotina
164. In an EIA reports, Pedology is a section under _____ sector c. Coagulase
a. Air d. Agar
b. People e. Amylase
c. Water 177. It is a synthetic matrix that enables a miniature chain like fence for
d. Land leachate collection in SLF
e. Children a. Geomembrane
165. Which of the following is not part of Great Lakes? b. Underdrain pipes
a. Lake Superior c. Geofabric
b. Lake Nuron d. Geonet
c. Lake Erie e. Passive system
d. Lake Ottawa 178. It is designed to remove drops of liquid carried over in the gas stream
166. First-formed and poorest quality of coal that leaves the scrubber.
a. Bituminous a. Wet collectors
b. Anthracite b. Fly ash
c. Peat c. Chemisorber
d. Lignite d. Demister
e. Tar sand e. Inertial collectors
167. The process that transforms sediments into hard rock by compaction 179. It is a good adsorbent for water vapor and other selected gases
and cementation a. SO3
a. Lithification b. Fly ash
b. Erosion c. Anthracite
c. Weathering d. Silica gel
d. Demineralization e. Pulse jet fabric
e. Metamorphism 180. It shall include solid waste transfer station or sorting station, drop-off
168. Are all living elements of an ecosystem or a given area center, a composting facility, and a recycling facility.
a. Biota a. Buy-back center
b. Biomes b. Materials recovery facility
c. Flora c. Recovery center
d. Fauna d. Opportunity to recycle
e. Niche 181. The collection of non-recyclable material and special waste shall be
169. It deals with the Physics and Chemistry of the lower atmosphere the responsibility of
a. Aeronomy a. City or Municipality
b. Meteorology b. National
c. Climatology c. Community
d. Atmospheric science d. Barangay
170. It is the actual vapor pressure divided by the saturation vapor 182. In Palawan, the Provincial SWM Board shall be chaired by the _____
pressure at the air temperature a. Palawan Governor
a. Dew point b. EMB-Palawan Director
b. Relative humidity c. Palawan Council for Sustainable Dev’t. Chairman
c. Specific humidity d. DENR Region 7 Director
d. Humidity mixing ration 183. Viruses that persist in the cell and causes recurrent disease are
e. Absolute humidity considered
171. It is the most recent age of glacial epochs (when ice and snow were a. Oncogenic
more widespread b. Cytophatic
a. Atlantic era c. Latent
b. Ice age 1 d. Resistant
c. Quaternary period e. Carcinogenic
d. Paleontrophic episode 184. A Japanese term pertaining to rat bite fever
e. Cryogenic Era a. Jampiongu
172. Father of Protozoology b. Kagyumo
 c. Micologu d. 2800
d. Sodoku 197. It means any identifiable source of pollution with specific point of
e. Araychudagaku discharge into a particular water body
185. The following are used for dechlorination except a. Pollutant
a. Sulfur dioxide b. Point source
b. Sodium dioxide c. Non-point source
c. Sodium metabisulfite d. Contaminant
d. Activated carbon e. Ambient source
186. Those parasites that live on the surface of their hosts 198. As per RA 9275, freshwater means water containing less than
a. Remora _____ppm dissolved common salt, sodium chloride, such as that in
b. Oredator groundwater, rivers, ponds and lakes.
c. Prey a. 100
d. Endoparasites b. 300
e. Ectoparasites c. 500
187. The ultimate source of phosphorous atoms d. 1000
a. Sea water 199. The following are photochemical oxidants except
b. Atmosphere a. PBxN
c. Sand b. PAN
d. Plant roots or legumes c. Aldehydes
188. The ____ biome is a shrub lands or heathland plant community found d. Nitrogen oxides
primarily in the U.S. state of California and in the northern portion of 200. Newest planet discovery named after a Filipino science teacher
the Baja California peninsula, Mexico. It is shaped by a Mediterranean a. Planet Korina
climate (mild, wet winters and hot dry summers) and wildlife, the b. Planet Lumba
featuring summer drought-tolerant plants. c. Planet Lagdao
a. Grassland d. Planed Kintanar
b. Savanna e. Planet Biyo
c. Tundra
d. Taiga
e. Chaparral
189. The process of changing from a gas directly into a solid
a. Deposition
b. Sublimation
c. Convection
d. Conduction
e. Condensation
190. The transfer of heat by the movement of air
a. Deposition
b. Humidity
c. Convection
d. Conduction
191. This is the spinning effect on storm systems caused by the rotation of
the earth
a. Anticyclone
b. Weather lapse
c. Coriolis effect
d. Wind chill effect
e. Seasonal change index
192. Another name for a spinning low pressure system?
a. Anticyclene
b. Fujita pressure
c. Conduction
d. Dry lapse
e. Pressure lapse
193. Skin disease caused by food contaminated by PCB
a. Kaneminyu-sho
b. Itai-itai
c. Minamata
d. Blackfoot disease
e. Vineyard sprayer’s lung
194. In the Northern Hemisphere, low pressure systems spin in this
direction?
a. Counter-clockwise
b. Clockwise
c. Rising from bottom to top
d. Depending on the prevailing humidity ratio
195. 5TH state of matter
a. Plasma
b. Bose-Einstein condensate
c. Fermionic cindensate
d. LASER
e. Sonic beam
196. As per RA 9275 (Clean Water Acts), the application for a wastewater
discharge permit, the applicant shall pay an annual permit fee for
> 10 m3/d – 30m3/d ay with heavy metals
a. 2000
b. 2600
c. 2200
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING – Environmental Pollution b. 10 years: 200m
c. 3 years : 100m
1. Each LGU plan shall include an implementation schedule which shows d. 10 years: 500m
that within _____ years after the affectivity of this Act: the LGU shall 13. Sanitary land fill should have a minimum distance of _____ from
divert at least ______ % of all solid waste from waste disposal facilities perennial stream, lake or river
through re-use, recycling, and composting activities and other a. 50 m
resource recovery activities. b. 75 m
a. 5,30 14. Geosynthetic membrane (geomembrabe) when used as a base liner
b. 10,25 system should have a minimum thickness of _____ and a permeability
c. 5,25 of _____
d. 10,15 a. 0.75 m: 1x10-6 cm/sec or less
2. Waste diversion goals shall be increased every ____ years after the b. 1.50 m: 1x10-14 cm/sec or less
affectivity of first waste diversion goal c. 6.40 m: 1x10-9 cm/sec or less
a. 3 d. 0.75 m: 1x10-9 cm/sec or less
b. 5 15. For sanitary landfills, final soil cover shall be completed within _____
c. 2 from the last receipt of waste and post closure care of _____
d. 6 a. 6 months; 15 years
3. According to the WACS conducted by ADB in 2003, majority of Metro b. 6 months; 10 years
Manila’s waste is c. 1 year; 15 years
a. Metals d. 1 year; 10 years
b. Residual 16. In operating sanitary landfill, treated leachate affluent discharge shall
c. Plastic be monitored for
d. Food and other organics a. pH
e. Paper b. BOD5
4. As per Health Care Management Act, the appropriate color of waste c. TSS
bin for noninfectious wet waste is d. All of the above
a. Black e. A and B only
b. Green f. B and C only
c. Yellow with block band 17. According to RA 9003 no controlled dumps shall be allowed _____
d. Yellow following the affectivity of this Act.
5. As per Health Care Waste Management Act, the appropriate color of a. 3 yrs.
waste bin for radioactive waste is b. 2 yrs.
a. Green c. 4 yrs.
b. Yellow d. 5 yrs.
c. Red 18. The term “solid waste” as used in RA 9003 shall not include
d. Yellow with black band a. Waste identified or listed as hazardous waste of a solid,
e. Orange liquid, contained gaseous or semisolid form which may
6. Section 37 of RA 9003 states the prohibitions against the use of open cause of irreversible bodily damage or acute/chronic effect
dumps thru converting open dumpsites into controlled dumpsites on the health of persons and other organisms
within _____ years after the affectivity of RA 9003 b. Infectious waste from hospitals such as equipment,
a. 6 instruments, utensils, and fomites of a disposable nature
b. 5 from patients who are suspected to have or have been
c. 4 diagnosed as having communicable diseases and must
d. 3 therefore b isolated as required bt public health agencies,
7. It refers to system of clay layers and/or geosynthetic membranes used laboratory wastes such as pathological specimens (i.e. all
to contain leachate tissues, specimens of bleed elements, excreta, and
a. Gas control recovery system secretions obtained from patients or laboratory animals),
b. Liners and disposable fomites that may harbor or transmit
c. Cover pathogenic organisms, and surgical operation room
d. None of the above pathologic specimens and disposable fomites attendant
8. Minimum daily cover (thickness) for controlled dumpsite thereto, and similar disposable materials from outpatient
a. 6 inches areas and emergency rooms.
b. 0.6 meters c. Waste resulting from mining activities, including
c. 8 inches contaminated soil and debris
d. None of the above d. All of the above
9. Post closure maintenance for controlled dumpsite e. None of the above
a. 5 years 19. Hazardous waste exhibit one ot the four characteristics except
b. 15 years a. Ignitability
c. 3 years b. Corrosivity
d. 10 years c. Reactivity
10. Sanitary landfill should be at least _____ from airport runaway and d. All of the above
_____ from Holocene fault or known recent active fault. e. None of the above
a. 2 km; 75 m 20. Which of the following is not a Solid Waste Management guiding
b. 2 km; 50 m Principle?
c. 2 m; 50 m a. When waste is thrown away, it will not disappear or get
d. 3 km; 75 m destroyed. It will only end up somewhere else, in one form
11. Geosynthetic clay liner (GCL) when used as a base liner system should or the other. There is really such thing as “throw away”
have a minimum thickness of _____ and a permeability of _____ material. When waste ends up where it is not supposed to
a. 0.75 m: 1x10-6 cm/sec or less be, it becomes useless, causes pollution and poses health
b. 1.50 m: 1x10-14 cm/sec or less risks. When it is used and put in the right place, it becomes
c. 6.40 m: 1x10-9 cm/sec or less a valuable resource.
d. 0.75 m: 1x10-9 cm/sec or less b. There is no single management and technological approach
12. Site for sanitary landfill should accommodate the community’s waste to solid waste. An integrated SWM system will best achieve
for a period of _____ or more. And the construction of any SWM goal
establishment _____ from open dumpsite or controlled or sanitary c. SWM should be approached within the context of resource
landfill is prohibited. conservation, environmental protection and health, and
a. 5 years: 200m sustainable development.
 d. All of the above d. Leachate
e. None of the above 32. It shall include solid waste transfer station or sorting station, drop-off
21. It shall refer to an enforceable sequence of actions or operations to be center, a composting facility and a recycling facility
accomplished within a stipulated time frame leading to compliance a. Buy-back center
with a limitation, prohibition, or standard set forth in the Act or any b. Materials recovery facility
rule or regulation issued pursuant thereto. c. Recovery center
a. Schedule of enforcement d. Opportunity to recycle
b. Schedule of agreement 33. It refers to special wastes that include worn-out, broken, and other
c. Schedule of compliance discarded items such as radios, stereos, and TV sets
d. None of the above a. Consumer electronics
22. It shall refer to the quality of being re-usable, biodegradable of b. Yard wastes
compostable, recyclable and not toxic or hazardous to the c. Bulky wastes
environment. d. Agricultural wastes
a. Environmentally acceptable 34. The fines in RA 9003, shall be increased by at least ____ every ____
b. Environmentally preferable years to compensate and maintain the deterrent function of such
c. Environmentally complying fines.
d. All of the above a. 10%; 5 years
23. Shall refer to the liquid produced when waste undergo b. 3%; 5 years
decomposition. It is a contaminated liquid that contains dissolved and c. 3%; 3 years
suspended materials d. 10%; 3 years
a. Leachent 35. As per RA 9003, the minimum separation between top liner system
b. Leachate and underlying groundwater is _____.
c. Wastewater a. 2 meters
d. Sewage b. 3 meters
24. According to a MOA _____ was given the right to extract, collect and c. 1.50 meters
process the biogas produced by the Quezon City sanitary Landfill d. 2.5 meters
(formerly QC Controlled Disposal) facility for a minimum of _____ 36. Shall refer to a disposal area wherein the solid wastes are
years to mitigate the pollution caused by the gas emissions indiscriminately thrown or disposed of without due planning and
a. Pangea, 20 years consideration for environmental and health standards
b. Pangea, 10 years a. Controlled dump
c. PNO, 10 years b. Sanitary landfill
d. MERALCO, 10 years c. Open dump
25. Pangea Green Energy is a private company originally based in what d. Disposal site
country? 37. Shall refer to activities which reduce or eliminate the amount of solid
a. Germany wastes from waste disposal facilities
b. Japan a. Waste diversion
c. Italy b. Segregation
d. France c. Source separation
26. The historical Payatas dumpsite tragedy happened on d. Ecological SWM
a. June 10, 2000 38. Approval of RA 9003
b. July 10, 2000 a. Dec 21,2001
c. June 10, 2001 b. January 26, 2000
d. July 10, 2001 c. February 16, 2001
27. The conversion of the Payatas landfill from an open dumpsite to a d. January 26, 2001
controlled dumpsite was made through the implementation of the ff. 39. Signing of the IRR of RA 9003
Technical operations except a. Dec 21,2001
a. Slope reprofiling-dumpsite slopes were re-profiled from b. January 26, 2000
50˚ - 70˚ to 23˚ to 25˚ steep range c. February 16, 2001
b. Soil capping – o.60 m daily soil covering d. January 26, 2001
c. Greening of slopes 40. The following are powers and functions of National SWM Commission
d. Perimeter fence except
e. All of the above a. Prepare the National Solid Waste Management
28. The Pangea Green Project- Payatas Landfill involves the extraction, Framework.
processing and flaring of biogas produced from the decomposition of b. Review and monitor the implementation of local solid
solid wastes. Currently, how much is being flared waste management plans
a. 80% c. Develop a model provincial, city and municipal SWM plan
b. 70% that will establish prototypes of the content and format
c. 60% that may use in meeting the requirements in NSWM
d. 90% Framework
29. The Pangea Green Project- Payates Landfill continues to get revenues d. Manage the SWM Fun
from CER sales CER means e. All of the above
a. Carbon emission reaction f. None of the above
b. Carbon extrapolation reduction 41. The National Ecology Center is headed by _____
c. Continuous emission reduction a. DENR Secretary
d. Carbon emission reduction b. EMB Director
30. Allegedly, the main culpit in the reduction in CER sales is the non- c. EPWMD Chairman
renewing members/countries of Kyoto Protocol is an international d. City Mayor/Provincial Governor
agreement on _____ 42. The Private Sector of Commission shall hold a term of office for _____
a. Oxygen depleting substances years.
b. Persistent organic pollutants a. 3
c. Hazardous wastes b. 4
d. Climate change c. 1
31. It shall refer to post-consumer material that has been recycled and d. 2
returned to the economy 43. The National Solid Waste Management Commission is established
a. Recycled material under the _____
b. Recyclable material a. Office of the President
c. Refused material b. DENR
 c. EMB b. National
DILG c. Community
d. SWM Board Commission d. Barangay
44. DENR, through the ____ shall provide secretariat support to the 48. The following are duties of the DENR Secretary except
National SWM Commission a. Chair the Commission created pursuant to RA 9003
a. National Ecology Center b. Prepare an annual National SWM Status report
b. PIA c. Prepare and distribute IEC materials on SWM
c. EMB d. Handle all administrative requisites of the Commission and
d. Private Sectors keep all records
45. _____ shall be responsible for the implementation and enforcement e. None of the above
of RA 9003 49. In Palawan, the Provincial SWM Board shall be chaired by the ______
a. LGU a. Palawan Governor
b. National Ecology Center b. Palawan Council for Sustainable Dev’t Chairman
c. Community c. DENR Region 7 director
d. Barangay d. None of the above
46. The collection of non-recyclable materials and special waste shall be 50. The following are part of SWM Plan except
the responsibility of a. Incentive Program
a. City of municipality b. General Safety and Health Inspection
b. National c. WACS
c. Community d. SW Facility and Final Disposal
d. Barangay e. None of the above
47. Segregation and collection of solid waste at the ____ level specifically
biodegradable, compostable and reusable waste
a. City of municipality
1. C
2. A
3. D
4. B
5. E
6. D
7. B
8. A
9. D
10. A
11. C
12. A
13. B
14. B
15. B
16. D
17. D
18. _
19. E
20. _
21. C
22. A
23. B
24. C
25. D
26. D
27. _
28. B
29. D
30. D
31. A
32. B
33. A
34. _
35. _
36. C
37. _
38. D
39. A
40. _
41. _
42. _
43. A
44. C
45. A
46. D
47. A
48. _
49. C
50. _
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING – c. MacConkey agar
Microbiology/Ecology/EIA/Environmental Pollution d. Both A and D
e. Both A and B
51. The time it takes for one cell to become two cell by binary fission is 62. Which of the following is considered as selective medium for
called the _____. N.gonorrhoeae?
a. Binary time a. MSA
b. Generation time b. Martin-Lewis agar
c. Replication time c. Thayer-Martin agar
d. Morphosis time d. Both b and c
e. None of the above e. Both a and b
52. Bacteria with long generation time are referred as slow growers. 63. MacConkey agar and MSA is considered as:
Which of the following is considered as slow growers? a. enriched medium
a. V. cholera b. selective medium
b. Staphylococcus spp. c. differential medium
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. both b and c
d. E. coli e. both a and b
e. Streptococcus spp. 64. Phenylethyl alcohol (PEA) agar and colistin-nalidix acid (CAN) agar is
53. Microorganisms that are difficult to grow in laboratory are said to be considered as
_____ a. enriched medium
a. Fastidious b. selective medium
b. Saprophytes c. differential medium
c. Complex d. both b and c
d. Enriched e. both a and b
e. None of the above 65. It refers to adding a specimen to some type of culture medium
54. A/An ____ medium is one in which all the ingredients are known; this a. induction
is because the medium was prepared in the laboratory by adding a b. incubation
certain number of grams of each of the components such as c. inoculation
carbohydrates, amino acid, salts, etc. d. infestation
a. Complex e. none of the above
b. Chemically defined 66. An arthropod vector that merely transports a pathogen from “point
c. Enriched A” to “point B”, and within which the pathogen neither multiplies nor
d. Selective matures
e. None of the above a. zoonosis
55. A/An _____ medium is one in which all the ingredients are known. It b. biological vector
contains ground up or digested extracts from animal organs, fish, c. mechanical vector
yeast, and plants, which provide necessary nutrients. d. fomites
a. Complex e. none of the above
b. Chemically defined 67. Prevention of a disease or a process that can lead to a disease.
c. Enriched Example is taking anti-malarial medication in a malarious area
d. Selective a. Prostration
e. None of the above b. Prophylaxis
56. Liquid media are also known as _____ c. Antagonism
a. Broth d. Statics
b. Agar e. First line defense
c. Enriched media 68. Epinephrine and cortisol are hormones whose production is triggered
d. Phenylethyl alcohol by _____
e. All of the above a. Stress
57. A/ An _____ medium is usually prepared by adding extra nutrients to b. Physical hazard
a medium called nutrient agar. c. Carcinogens
a. Complex d. Fumes
b. Chemically defined 69. Inspection for the purpose of safety determination of boilers, pressure
c. Enriched vessels, internal combustion engines, electrical installations, elevators,
d. Selective hoisting equipment and other mechanical equipment is ______
e. Differential a. Technical Safety Inspection
58. Blood agar is a nutrient agar plus ____ red blood cells b. Administrative Inspection
a. 40% bird c. Ocular Inspection
b. 25% rat d. General safety and health inspection
c. 15% chicken e. None of the above
d. 5% sheep 70. A per Proclamation No. 115-A, September is a/an _____ month
e. None of the above a. Vacation hazards
59. Referring to nutrient agar plus powdered hemoglobin b. Sea transportation
a. THIO broth c. Farm safety
b. Mannitol salt agar d. Health and sanitation
c. Chocolate agar e. None of the above
d. Strawberry agar 71. These are suspended liquid droplets generated by condensation from
60. A selective medium has added inhibitors that discourage the growth the gaseous to the liquid state or by breaking up of liquid into a
of certain organisms without inhibiting growth of organism being dispersed state, such as by atomizing, foaming or splashing.
sought. MacConkey agar inhibits growth of _____. a. Vapors
a. Aerobic bacteria b. Fibers
b. Gram-negative bacteria c. Mists
c. Gram-positive bacteria d. Fumes
d. Capnophilic bacteria e. None of the above
e. Microaerophiles 72. Acute effect results from _____ dose exposure with _____duration
61. Which of the following is considered as selective medium for Gram- development of disease
positive bacteria? a. High, short
a. Coliston-nalidix acid agar b. Low, short
b. PEA agar c. Low, long
 d. High, long e. Purple
e. None of the above f. Blue
73. Administered dose is the concentration to which the organism is 83. It is the standard color for signs used to indicate caution and for
exposed, while _____ is the actual amount of actual chemical marking physical hazards, such as striking against, stumbling failing
absorbed by the organism. and “caught in between”
a. Normality a. Green
b. Intake or uptake dose b. Red
c. Target or effective dose c. Yellow
d. Latency d. Orange
e. None of the above e. Purple
74. Effect on which an inactive substance enhances the action of the f. Blue
active one. 84. There are dusts that do not poison the body, although they may cause
a. Additive undesirable effects.
b. Synergestic a. Inert
c. Antagonism b. Irritating
d. Potentiation c. Toxic
e. None of the above d. All of the above
75. If the effect of the toxin/ toxicant is not permanent, it is said to be e. None of the above
______ 85. These are dusts that have an immediate and local effect. They include
a. Irreversible lime and other caustic, picric acid, soap powder, and some cereal
b. Reversible dusts.
c. Endpoint a. Inert
d. Lethal b. Irritating
e. Latent c. Toxic
76. Which of the following statement is/are example/s of isolation os a d. All of the above
means of environmental control? e. None of the above
a. Rescheduling of hazardous work from day shift with many 86. These are dusts that they result in remote or systematic poisoning
workers to night shirt with just a few or no workers present rather than immediate local effects.
b. Use of other materials, products, activities, process/ a. Inert
operation, methods, machines, and other equipment b. Irritating
instead of hazardous ones. c. Toxic
c. PPE d. All of the above
d. Provision of biological agents through prophylaxis and e. None of the above
immunization 87. The intensity of the illumination on a surface varies ______ of its
77. The ______ radiation from glowing glass can produce a condition distance from the light source.
known as Glass blower’s cataract. a. Inversely
a. Infrared b. Directly proportional
b. Non-ionizing c. Square
c. Beta d. Inversely as the square
d. Gamma e. Square root
e. Ultraviolet 88. The population of the Three Mile Island in 2000 was 43,128 and
f. None of the above increased to 55,105 in 2009. The 2006 population is _____ using the
78. The medical term for frostbite is _____. geometric method and _____ using the arithmetic method,
a. Cold stroke a. 50,781; 51,113
b. Congelation b. 51,113; 50,781
c. Hyperthermia c. 50,781; 53,118
d. Chill d. 53,118; 50,871
e. None of the above 89. The following statements are not true EXCEPT:
79. The most common cause of allergic contact dermatitis in many a. Many chemicals that are acutely toxic are not chronically
countries is _____. toxic and vice versa.
a. Nickel b. The most important factor that influences toxicity is the
b. Paraphenylenediamine dose, and it has been said that the dose makes the poison.
c. Kojic acid c. Lethal dose is used to quantify toxicity and TLVs have been
d. Hydroquinone developed as guidelines for lifetime exposure limits to
e. All of the above chemicals.
80. _____ is a disease of men inhaling the fibrous residue of sugarcane d. For chemicals that are both acutely and chronically toxic,
stalks after the juice has been extracted by crushing the mechanisms of toxicity for these two categories are
a. Suberosis often different
b. Bagassosis e. None of the above
c. Paprika splitters’ lung f. All of the above
d. Malt workers’ lung 90. Which of the following is not an example of non-ionizing radiation?
e. Byssinosis a. X rays
81. It is the standard color for signs designating safety. Examples of which b. Electromagnetic fields
are location of first-aid equipment. c. LASER
a. Green d. UV radiation
b. Red 91. Refers to bacteria which lose the initial stain of violet and are
c. Yellow decolorized and take the color of the final stain of red or brown
d. Orange a. Haloduricc
e. Purple b. Mesophilic
f. Blue c. Gram negative
82. It is the standard color for signs used to indicate alert or to designate d. Gram positive
dangerous parts of machines or energized equipment which may cut, e. None of the above
crush, shock or otherwise injure. 92. Minimum daily cover (thickness) for controlled dumpsite
a. Green a. 6 inches
b. Red b. 0.6 meter
c. Yellow c. 8 inches
d. Orange d. 6 meters
 e. None of the above e. All of the above
93. Post closure maintenance for controlled dumpsite is _____ 104. The geological risk are covered in the Engineering Geology and
a. 5 yrs. Geohazard Assessment Report (EGGAR) as required by submitted to
b. 15 yrs. a. MGB
c. 3 yrs. b. EMB
d. 10 yrs. c. NIPAS
94. Site for sanitary landfill should accommodate the community’s waste d. CENRO
for a period of _____ or more. And the construction of any e. None of the above
establishment _____ from open dumpsite or controlled or sanitary 105. _____ is a process that involves predicting and evaluating the likely
landfill is prohibited. impacts of a project (including cumulative impacts) on the
a. 5 years; 200m environment during constriction, commissioning, operation and
b. 10 years; 200m abandonment.
c. 3 years; 100m a. Environmental impact assessment
d. 10 years; 500m b. Environmental health assessment
95. The following statement is true EXCEPT: c. Environment risk assessment
a. Haemophilus influenza will grow in blood agar d. Environmental impact assessment
b. Chocolate agar is used to culture Neisseria gonorrhoeae 106. During _____ stage, a Proponent defines its range of actions and
c. Chocolate agar is considered to be more enriched than considers project alternatives, thus, the most ideal stage in the project
blood agar cycle wherein the EIA study will have most added values.
d. Blood agar is both enriched and differential medium a. Pre-feasibility study
e. None of the above b. Feasibility study
96. It shall refer to the quality of being re-usable, biodegradable or c. Detailed engineering design
compostable, recyclable and not toxic or hazardous to the d. Project conceptualization
environment e. None of the above
a. Environmentally acceptable 107. ______ Proclaming certain areas and types of projects as
b. Environmentally complying Environmentally Critical and within the scope of the Environmental
c. Environmentally preferable Impact Statement system established under PD 1586
d. All of the above a. P.N. 2146
97. For sanitary landfill, final soil cover shall be completed within _____ b. P.N. 2416
from the last receipt of waste and post closure care of _____. c. P.N. 803
a. 6 months; 15 years d. P,N. 2614
b. 6 months; 10 years e. None of the above
c. 1 year; 15 years 108. The following are not environmentally critical projects except.
d. 1 year; 10 years a. Iron steel mills
98. The National Ecology Center is headed by______. b. Smelting plants
a. DENR secretary c. Forestry projects
b. EMB Director d. Major dams
c. EPWMD chairman e. Golf course projects
d. City mayor/provincial governor f. All of the above
e. Palawan governor g. None of the above
99. It shall refer to and enforceable sequence of actions or operations to 109. Which of the following condition/s of water bodies will not consider it
be accomplished within a stipulated time frame leading to compliance as ECA?
with a limitation, prohibition, or standard set forth in the Act or any a. Tapped for domestic purposes
rule or regulation issued pursuant thereto b. Within the controlled and/or protected areas declared by
a. Schedule of enforcement appropriate authorities
b. Schedule of agreement c. Which support wildlife and fishery activities
c. Schedule of compliance d. A and C
d. None of the above e. None of the above
100. It refers to total amount of moisture that can be retained in a waste f. All of the above
sample subject to the downward pull of gravity 110. Golf course projects are considered as ECP under Proclamation No.
a. Field capacity _____
b. Particle size distribution a. 2416
c. Moisture content b. 2146
d. Hydraulic conductivity c. 802
e. None of the above d. 803
101. One of the global characteristics of municipal solid wastes is high e. None of the above
standard living generated high paper and plastic content but low in 111. There are _____ ECAs and _____ ECPs as per Philippines EIS system
_____ content a. 5,12
a. Garbage b. 5,10
b. Rubbish c. 10,5
c. Ashes and residues d. 12,4
d. All of the above 112. The following are ECPs except
e. None of the above a. Manila Bay Reclamation
102. Treatment of wastes at the end of industrial production streams, or b. Fishpond Development Project
for municipal effluents is often referred to as______ c. Water supply, Irrigation or Flooded Control Project
a. End of pipe d. All of the above
b. Preventive technology e. None of the above
c. Ambient regulation 113. The following are ECAs except
d. A and B a. Laguna lake
e. All of the above b. Tubattaha reef
f. None of the above c. Boracay island
103. Is the limit of the natural environment to withstand uses such as d. Baguio city
harvesting, extraction and waste disposal? e. All of the above
a. Carrying capacity f. None of the above
b. Environmental resistance 114. _____ is NECPs in NECAs
c. End of pipe a. Group 1
d. Preventive technology b. Group 2
 c. Group 3 c. Environmental health assessment
d. Group 4 d. Social impact assessment
e. Group 5 124. Which is the correct order of the stages of the Philippine EIA process?
115. The needed document for co-located projects but with existing ECC a. Scoping, screening, EIA Study and Report Preparation, EIA
but with proposal for modification on resumption of operation. Report Review and evaluation, Decision making
a. EPRMP b. Screening, scoping, EIA Study and Report Preparation, EIA
b. PEPRMP Report Review and Evaluation, decision-making
c. EIS 125. Environmental factors that limit population are known collectively as
d. PEIS ______
e. IEER a. Environmental impacts
f. PDR b. Environmental carrying capacity
116. Which of the following may not be a document requirement for c. Environmental resistance
Projects considered as NECP in ECA for new application? d. Environmental persistence
a. EIS 126. In ECA determination, water bodies are to be classified by DENR-
b. IEER _____
c. IEEC a. LLDA
d. PDR b. LMB
e. EPRMP c. PAWB/CENRO/PENRO
f. None of the above d. MGB
117. The needed document for NECPs and NECs e. EMB
a. IEER 127. In ECA determination, areas of critical slope are to be classified by
b. IEEC DENR-_____
c. EIS a. LLDA
d. PDR b. LMB
e. EPRMP c. PAWB/CENRO/PENRO
f. None of the above d. MGB
118. The ECC automatically expires if a project has not been implemented e. EMB
within ______ from ECC issuance. 128. Which of the fallowing is FALSE for Unclassified Project?
a. 6 months a. Projects listed in any of the groups
b. 1 year b. Projects using new processes/technologies with uncertain
c. 3 months impacts
d. 3 years c. Projects which will eventually be classified into their
e. 5 years appropriate groups after EMB evaluation
f. 5 months d. All of the above
119. The maximum time to grant or deny a new application for ECPs in e. None of the above
ECAs _____ 129. It occurs when an organism absorbs a toxic substance at a rate greater
a. 30 calendar days than that at which the substance is lost. It occurs within an organism.
b. 30 working days a. Bioaccumulation
c. 15 calendar days b. Biomagnification
d. 15 working days c. Biodilution
e. 60 calendar days d. Bioconcentration
f. 60 working days e. Biotechnology
120. The maximum time to grant or deny a new application for ECPs in 130. Lands primarily used for the production of forage plants, naturally or
ECAs _____ artificially.
a. 90 calendar days a. Grazing lands
b. 90 working days b. Pasteur land
c. 180 working days c. Grasslands
d. 120 working days d. Open lands
e. 15 working days e. Tundra
f. 60 working days 131. Which of the following elements would you observed to have an
121. The assessment of impacts of the proposed project on the people that osidaiton state of +2?
may be affected by changes in the biophysical environmental and a. Ca
exposed to potential risks attributed to the project b. Be
a. Environmental impact assessment c. F
b. Environmental risk assessment d. Sn
c. Environmental health impact assessment e. All of the above
d. Social impact assessment 132. Which of the following elements would you expect to have the
e. Pedology highest boiling point?
122. The study phase of the EIA, in order, comprise the following: a. F2
a. Evaluation of the impacts and Proposed Alternatives, b. Br2
preparation of EIS, Site Characterization and Prediction of c. I2
Impacts d. Cl2
b. Preparation of EIS, Site characterization and prediction of e. All of the above
impacts, Post Auditing and Monitoring 133. Which of the following statements concerning many electron atoms
c. Identification and Assessment of Mitigating Measures, Site are true EXCEPT:
Characterization and Prediction of Impacts, preparation if a. As one goes across a row of the periodic table, ionization
EIS, and evaluation of the impacts and Proposed energy increases
Alternatives b. As one goes across a column of the periodic table, the
d. Site characterization and Prediction of Impacts, Evaluation election affinity decreases
of the impacts and Proposed Alternatives, Identification c. As one goes across a row of the periodic table, atomic size
and assessment of Mitigation Measures, and Preparation decreases
of EIS d. As one goes down the periodic table, the orbital energy of
123. The used of facts and assumptions to estimate the probability of harm the 1 s orbit increase (become more positive)
to human health or the environment that may result from exposure to e. None of the above
specific pollutants or toxic agents. 134. In the winter, it is warmer on a cloudy night than on a clear night
a. Environmental impact assessment because:
b. Environmental risk assessment a. Clouds occur when a warm front is approaching
 b. Cloud block the sunlight reflected by the moon a. Amictic lakes
c. Clouds absorb and reflect infrared light emitted by the b. Holomictic lakes
earth c. Monomictic lakes
d. Atmospheric CO reacts with water vapor in clouds to d. Meromuctic lakes
produce CO2 e. Polymictic laakes
e. None of the above 146. ______ are holomictic lakes that mix from top to bottom during one
135. In automobile engine exhaust nitric oxide (NO) id present because: mixing period each year. It may be subdivided into Cold and Warm
a. The combustion temperature at which gasoline is burned is types
far higher than 25˚C, allowing N2 and O2 to react. a. Amictic lakes
b. Nitrogen containing compounds are impurities in gasoline b. Holomictic lakes
c. Nitric oxide is naturally present in the reagent air that the c. Monomictic lakes
car engine uses for combustion d. Meromuctic lakes
d. At high temperature the CO2 made by combustion e. Polymictic laakes
sequentially reacts with N2 to make NO. 147. It is used for high efficiency, dry collection of particles from hot gas
e. All of the above streams and is usually constructed of alternating plates and wires.
136. The nucleic acid of a virus is ______ a. Fabric mat collectors
a. DNA only b. Inertial collectors
b. RNA only c. Electrostatic precipitators
c. Either DNA and RNA d. Gravitational settling chambers
d. Both DNA and RNA e. Reverse-air baghouse
137. In general, DNA viruses multiply in the cell _____, and the RNA viruses 148. _____ or fan-shaped delta. It has many active, short distributaries
multiply in the cell _____. taking sediment to their mouths. The receiving (ambient) waters are
a. Nucleus, cytoplasm rather shallow and have relatively even wave action arriving
b. Vesicles, ribosomes perpendicular to the shore with minimal long shore current. Popular
c. Endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus example is the Nile river.
d. Cytoplasm, nucleus a. Arcuate
138. Clear patches in cell cultures that indicate sites of virus infection are b. Brid-foot
called c. Cuspate
a. Colonies d. Estuarine
b. Prions e. All of the above
c. Pocks 149. _____ or to the-shaped delta. Usually has one distributary emptying
d. Plaques into a flat coastline with wave action hitting it head-on. This tends to
e. None of the above push the sediment back on both sides of the mouth, with a “tooth”
139. The type of geologic terrain underlain by carbonate rocks where growing out onto the shelf. Popular example is the Tibet River of Italy
significant solution of the rock has occurred due to flowing a. Arcuate
groundwater. b. Brid-foot
a. Anthracite c. Cuspate
b. Graphite d. Estuarine
c. Lime e. All of the above
d. Karst 150. DAO-2004-01 – Chemical Control order for:
140. Water entering he hydrologic cycle for the first time is called a. PCB
a. Juvenile water b. Asbestos
b. Prime water c. Mercury and Hg compounds
c. Pendular water d. Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS)
d. Dry adiabatic water e. Cyanide
e. Virgin water
141. Water that clings to the surfaces of mineral particles in the zone of
aeration
a. Juvenile water
b. Prime water
c. Pendular water
d. Dry adiabatic water
e. Virgin water
142. The upper part of the earth’s surface that has been altered by
weathering processes. It includes both soil and weathered bedrock
a. Pluton
b. Phreatic cave
c. Regolith
d. Saprolite
e. Horizon
143. _____ are lakes, which, at some time during the year, have a uniform
temperature and density from top to bottom. Allowing the lake
waters to completely mix.
a. Amictic lakes
b. Holomictic lakes
c. Monomictic lakes
d. Meromuctic lakes
e. Polymictic laakes
144. _____ has layers of water that so not intermix
a. Amictic lakes
b. Holomictic lakes
c. Monomictic lakes
d. Meromuctic lakes
e. Polymictic laakes
145. _____ are lakes that are permanently ice-covered and stratified. Due
to the permanent ice-covered these lakes never mix. They are
restricted to very cold climates (Arctic, Antarctic, and alpine)
1. B 78. A
2. C 79. A
3. A 80. A
4. B 81. C
5. A 82. C
6. A 83. D
7. C 84. C
8. D 85. A
9. C 86. C
10. C 87. A
11. E 88. D
12. D 89. D
13. D 90. A
14. E 91. C
15. C 92. C
16. C 93. B
17. B 94. D
18. A 95. A
19. A 96. C
20. D 97. C
21. C 98. A
22. A 99. C
23. B 100. A
24. D
25. B
26. B
27. A
28. B
29. A
30. B ENVIRONMENTAL POLLUTION
31. A
151. Legislation that presents the revised water usage and classification
32. D
a. DENR Administrative Order No. 34
33. C
b. DENR Administrative Order No. 35
34. A
c. Philippine Clear Water Act of 2004
35. B
d. Water Code of the Philippines
36. C
152. The part of the atmosphere where most of the photochemical
37. D
reactions take place
38. A
a. Stratosphere
39. F
b. Mesosphere
40. C
c. Ionosphere
41. A
d. Troposphere
42. D
153. The undesirable change in the physical, chemical or biological
43. D
characteristics of air, water or land
44. A
a. Environment
45. A
b. System
46. A
c. Ecology
47. A
d. Pollution
48. B
154. Most aquatic organisms can survive in a pH range of about
49. C
a. 3 to 7
50. A
b. 7 to 11
51. A
c. 6 to 9
52. A
d. 5 to 8
53. A
155. It is the part of the atmosphere where most of the photochemical
54. A
reactions take place
55. A
a. Stratosphere
56. B
b. Mesosphere
57. A
c. Ionosphere
58. F
d. Troposphere
59. E
156. Gas responsible for the rotten egg odor of wastewater
60. D
a. Ammonia
61. D
b. Amines
62. C
c. Mercaptans
63. F
d. Hydrogen sulfide
64. C
157. A chemical substance which was discovered in 1928 by Thomas
65. B
Midgley and is commonly known as Freon
66. E
a. Carbon monoxide
67. D
b. Peroxycetylnitrate
68. E
c. Chlorofluorocarbon
69. D
d. Nitrogen oxide
70. D
158. It is the highest layer of the atmosphere which is composed of ionized
71. D
gases
72. D
a. Stratosphere
73. B
b. Mesosphere
74. B
c. Ionosphere
75. C
d. Troposphere
76. E
77. D
159. Republic Act 8749 is also known as _____, which provides a c. Incineration
comprehensive pollution control policy d. Smelting or roasting
a. Philippine clean air act of 1999 172. Which of the following is NOT considered as a source of indoor air
b. Philippine clean water act of 2004 pollution?
c. Ecological solid waste management act of 2000 a. Radon
d. Toxic substances and hazardous and nuclear waste control b. Carbon dioxide
act of 1990 c. Formalin
160. Volcanic eruption spews out gas is into the atmosphere. Which of the d. Sulfur dioxide
following is NOT produced in this natural phenomenon? 173. The atmosphere is said to contain _____ of nitrogen gas by volume.
a. HF a. 97 %
b. CO2 b. 79 %
c. O3 c. 75 %
d. H2S d. 20 %
161. PAN is a powerful lachrymator or tear producer formed from 174. The main source of air pollution
unburned hydrocarbons, aldehydes, nitrogen oxide and oxygen. PAN a. Motor vehicles
stands for b. Power plants
a. Peroxyacetylnitrate c. Garbage depot
b. Peroxyallylnitrate d. Commercial establishments
c. Peroxyamlnaitrate 175. Which of the following is classifies as particulate pollutant?
d. Peroxyalkynitrate a. Dust
162. Which of the following is not a physical characteristic of wastewater? b. Mist
a. Odor c. Fume
b. Turbidity d. All of the above
c. Hardness 176. Among the natural pollution sources, which of the following releases
d. Color ultra-fine particles to the atmosphere?
163. The process whereby coarse matter (suspended or floating) of a a. Soil erosion
certain size can be strained out of flowing water with the aid of bars, b. Volcanic eruption
fine wires or rocks. c. Forest fire
a. Screening d. Photosynthesis
b. Flotation 177. It is described as the cloud of air trapped by thermal inversion
c. Sedimentation a. Chlorofluorocarbon
d. Flocculation b. Smog
164. Class of water intended for primary contact recreation such as c. Nitrogen oxide
bathing, swimming, skin diving, etc. d. Ozone
a. Class AA 178. A major component of acid deposition
b. Class A a. CaCO3
c. Class B b. H2SO4
d. Class D c. CaSO4
165. Removal of all settleable particles under the influence of gravity which d. All of the above
all particles heavier than water tend to settle down e. None of the above
a. Screening 179. A phenomenon where a cold layer of air becomes trapped by a layer
b. Flotation of warmer air above due to lack of wind circulation or the presence of
c. Sedimentation certain topographical features, such as mountains, resulting to air
d. Flocculation pollution being trapped in the lower, cooler layers of the troposphere.
166. Which of the following is NOT used for the disinfection of water? a. Global warming
a. Ozone b. Thermal inversion
b. Chlorine c. Greenhouse effect
c. Ultraviolet rays d. Solar radiation
d. Sulfuric acid 180. The following is a result of global warming
167. The phenomenon of increasing levels of a substance in the bodies of a. More rains during wet periods
higher-trophic level organisms b. Longer droughts
a. Biological amplification c. Severe flooding of coastal cities
b. Bioaccumulation d. All of the above
c. Thermal inversion e. None of the above
d. Eutrophication 181. One method of controlling pollution at source is source relocation.
168. The photochemical smog or the combination of smoke and fog results Which of the following a factor for such remedy?
in the formation of the following EXCEPT a. Population
a. Ozone b. Wind patterns
b. PAN c. Topographical features
c. Unburned hydrocarbons d. All of the above
d. All of the above e. None of the above
e. None of the above 182. PD 1586 established the
169. Type of wastewater treatment that employs physical and chemical a. Practice of the profession of environmental planning in the
treatment methods to remove or reduce a high percentage of Philippines
suspended solids and toxic materials b. Environmental protection and management system in the
a. Primary treatment Philippine
b. Secondary treatment c. Environmental impact assessment system in the
c. Tertiary treatment Philippines
d. All of the above d. Environmental impact statement system in the Philippines
170. Which of the following is NOT considered as a primary pollutant? 183. The following are environmentally critical projects
a. NOx a. Manila Bay Reclamation
b. CO b. Fishpond Development Project
c. SO2 c. Intramuros
d. PAN d. All of the above
171. Which of the following is NOT a source of carbon dioxide? e. None of the above
a. Fermentation of sugar 184. The following are Environmentally Critical Areas EXCEPT
b. Volcanic activity a. Tubattahe Reef
 b. Boracay Island d. Site Characterization and Production of Impacts, Evaluation
c. Laguna Lake of Impacts and Proposed Alternatives, Identification and
d. University Belt Assessment of Mitigating Measures, Preparation of EIS
e. Baguio City 194. The post study phase of the EIA, in order, comprise the following;
185. Water bodies can be classified as ECAs if they have the following I. Impacts and Proposed alternatives
conditions: II. Review of the EIS
I. Utilized for water-based recreational activities III. Post auditing and monitoring
II. Tapped for domestic purposes IV. Identification and assessment of mitigating measures
III. Have underground caves a. I,II & V
IV. Within the controlled and/or protected areas b. II,V & III
declared by appropriate authorities c. IV,V,II & I
V. Support wildlife and fisheries activities d. I,II & IV
195. The major source of pollution in Metro Manila
a. I, II, III a. Industrial plants
b. II, III, IV b. Motor vehicles
c. II, IV & V c. House/domestic activities
d. I, IV & V d. Power plants
e. None of the above 196. The following emission may significantly contributes to global
186. Based on our common future, the 1987 Report of the World warming
Commission on Environment (also known as the Brundtland a. Sulfur dioxide
Commission), _____ is defined as “meeting the needs of the present b. Nitrogen oxides
generation without compromising the ability of the future generations c. Carbon dioxide
to meet their own needs”. d. All of the above
a. Equitable development 197. The environmental issues facing the urban areas include the following
b. Efficient development EXCEPT
c. Sustainable development a. Municipal waste disposal
d. Democratic development b. Hazardous and toxic waste disposal
187. The assessment of impacts of the proposed project on the people that c. Flooding
may be affected by changes in the biophysical environment and d. Slum areas
exposed to potential risks attributed to the project e. All of the above
a. Environmental impact assessment f. None of the above
b. Environmental risk assessment 198. The maximum number of working days for DENR to grant or deny ECC
c. Environmental heath impact assessment for submitted EIS for applications for new single projects classified as
d. Social impact assessment ECPs
188. Risks characterized by high probability, low consequence, continuing a. 180
exposure and chronic effects b. 120
a. Geological risks c. 90
b. Health risks d. 60
c. Safety risks 199. The EIA Report type required for operating co-located projects with
d. All of the above previous ECCs but planning or applying for modification/expansion or
e. None of the above restart of operations or for co-located projects operating without ECC
189. Risks characterized by low probability, high consequence, and acute a. EPRMP
effects. b. PEPRMP
a. Geological risks c. EIS
b. Health risks d. PEIS
c. Safety risks 200. The maximum number of working days for DENR to grant or deny an
d. All of the above EC for submitted EIS/IEER for applications for new single projects
e. None of the above classified as NECPs in ECAs
190. The essence of sustainable development is the harmonious a. 180
integration of the following: b. 120
a. Sound and viable economy, ecological integrity, and social c. 90
cohesion/harmony d. 60
b. Sound and viable economy and social cohesion/harmony
c. Ecological integrity and sound and viable economy
d. Ecological integrity and social cohesion/harmony
191. The key actor in sustainable development
a. Government
b. Business
c. Civil society
d. Non-governmental organization
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
192. Republic Acct 7279 is also known as _____.
a. Urban Development and Housing Act
b. National Integrated Protected Areas System Law
c. Philippine Environmental Impact Statement System
d. Local Government Code
193. The study phase of the EIA, in order, comprise the following:
a. Evaluation of Impacts and Proposed Alternatives,
Preparation of EIS, Site Characterization and Prediction of
Impacts
b. Preparation of EIS, Site Characterization and Prediction of
Impacts, Post Auditing and Monitoring
c. Identification and assessment of Mitigating Measures, Site
Characterization and Prediction of Impacts, Preparation of
EIS, Evaluation of Impacts and Proposed Alternatives
 51. A b. pH and precipitation
52. _ c. precipitation and temperature
53. D d. temperature and dissolved oxygen
54. C 203. The natural process of change of organisms in response to physical changes
55. _ of the environment
56. D a. natural selection
57. C b. evolution
58. C c. speciation
59. A d. all of the above
60. _ e. none of the above
61. A 204. These are very large terrestrial ecosystems that contain a number of
62. C smaller but related ecosystems within them.
63. A a. Biomes
64. C b. Niche
65. C c. Tundra
66. D d. Havanna
67. A 205. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
68. _ a. Organisms at higher trophic levels are fewer in number than
69. A those at lower trophic levels
70. D b. At each trophic level, the energy stored in an organism is one
71. A tenth that of the level below
72. _ c. Herbivores are producers that eat plants directly
73. B d. Omnivores are consumers that eat both plants and animals
74. A 206. Substance used by both autotrophs and heterotrophs to break down
75. D carbohydrates
76. A a. Solar energy
77. B b. Water
78. B c. Carbon dioxide
79. B d. Oxygen gas
80. D 207. It is the surface of the earth where living things exist
81. _ a. Habitat
82. D b. Biosphere
83. C c. Niche
84. D d. Environment
85. C 208. Which of the following is NOT needed to carry out photosynthesis?
86. C a. Oxygen gas
87. D b. Water
88. _ c. Energy
89. _ d. Carbon dioxide
90. A 209. It is the physical and biotic habitat which surrounds us, that which our
91. E senses can perceive
92. A a. Ecology
93. D b. Environment
94. _ c. Community
95. B d. Niche
96. C 210. Biomes are distinguished or identified by its
97. F a. Dominant plant life
98. B b. Climate
99. B c. Type of plants and animals
100. D d. Geographic level
211. It is defined as the role of the organisms in the community
a. Biotic factors
b. Biomes
c. Trophic level
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING – Microbiology/parasitology d. Niche
212. Consists of members of the same species living in one place at the same
201. Part of plants where photosynthesis takes place time
a. Stem a. Community
b. Roots b. Ecosystem
c. Bark c. Population
d. Leaves d. Organisms
202. Primary abiotic factors which have major impacts on the kind of climax 213. The ultimate source of all energy
community that develops a. Sun
a. Dissolved oxygen and pH b. Plants
 c. Animals e. None of the above
d. All of the above 225. The quantity of available nutrients _____ from the lower levels of the
214. The product of photosynthesis produced from the source of carbon dioxide, energy pyramid to the higher ones.
water and solar energy. a. Increases
a. Carbohydrate b. Decreases
b. Glucose c. Remains stable
c. Sugar d. Cycles
d. All of the above 226. Lands primarily used for the production of forage plants, naturally or
215. These organisms feed on the wastes of the ecosystem artificially.
a. Omnivores a. Grazing lands
b. Herbivores b. Grass lands
c. Carnivores c. Open lands
d. Detritivores d. Range lands
216. Organisms that have the capacity to carry out photosynthesis and making e. Pasture lands
food for themselves 227. Denuded forest lands, croplands and grazing lands that have been
a. Omnivores abandoned
b. Detritivores a. Grazing lands
c. Autotrophs b. Grass lands
d. Heterotrophs c. Open lands
217. Abiotic environment include the following EXCEP d. Range lands
a. Climate e. Pasture lands
b. Temperature 228. Small lands usually fenced mainly for raising forage plants for domestic
c. Precipitation livestock
d. None of the above a. Grazing lands
218. The physical location of a community is called b. Grass lands
a. Habitat c. Open lands
b. Biosphere d. Range lands
c. Niche e. Pasture lands
d. Environment 229. Lands with natural grass cover, devoid of trees or with very few isolated
219. Organisms that belong to the second trophic level trees
a. Omnivores a. Grazing lands
b. Herbivores b. Grass lands
c. Carnivores c. Open lands
d. Detritivores d. Range lands
220. Biomes which receives less than 25 cm of precipitation per year e. Pasture lands
a. Tropical rain forest 230. Large tracts of land naturally vegetated with native grasses, herbs or shrubs
b. Savanna of valuable forage
c. Grassland a. Grazing lands
d. Desert b. Grass lands
221. Nitrogen fixing bacteria commonly dwell on the soil and in the roots of the c. Open lands
following plants EXCEPT d. Range lands
a. Beans e. Pasture lands
b. Peas 231. The floating assemblage of microbes, plants and animals that drifts on or
c. Clover near the surface of large bodies of water is the ______ community
d. None of the above a. Abyssal
222. Photosynthetic organisms convert the energy of _____ into chemical b. Benthic
energy c. Littoral
a. Electrons d. Plankton
b. Protons 232. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
c. Photons a. The amount of salt is much less in freshwater than marine
d. Hydrogen atoms ecosystem
223. A symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits while the other is b. Organisms in freshwater ecosystems are the same as those in
not affected marine ecosystems
a. Predation c. Temperature of water can change greatly in freshwater
b. Competition ecosystem
c. Parasitism 233. The middle stratum of a lake with temperature ranging from 10 to 20˚C is
d. Commensalism called _____
e. Mutualism a. Epilimnion
224. A community wherein the organisms are those that can survive on bare b. Thermocline
rock surfaces or pure sand c. Hypolimnion
a. Primary d. Hyperlimnion
b. Transitional 234. Bridge between freshwater and marine ecosystems
c. Climax a. Estuaries
d. All of the above b. Swamps
 c. Marshes 245. All of the following are freshwater ecosystems EXCEPT
d. All of the above a. Manila Bay
e. None of the above b. Laguna de Bay
235. a/an _____ is defined as a collection of populations sharing a given habitat c. Pasig River
a. biosphere d. Marikina River
b. community 246. A relatively stable, long-lasting, more complex and interrelated community
c. biome of plants, animals, fungi and bacteria.
d. ecosystem a. Primary
236. all of the following are classified as autotrophic organisms EXCEPT b. Transitional
a. plants c. Climax
b. bacteria d. All of the above
c. animals e. None of the above
d. algae 247. An interaction which one organism lives in or on another from which it
237. Which of the following is NOT a major subdivision of the biosphere? derives nourishment
a. Hydrosphere a. Predation
b. Lithosphere b. Competition
c. Stratosphere c. Parasitism
d. Atmosphere d. Commensalism
238. Root nodules contain ____, which can _____ e. Mutualism
a. Azobacter, fix N2 248. Interaction of community and non-living environment
b. Nitrosomonas, nitrify NH 3 a. Ecosystem
c. Rhixobia, fix N2 b. Population
d. Bacillus, denitrify NO3 c. Organisms
239. Which of the following is a problem that beset our marginal lands? d. All of the above
a. Uncontrolled fires adding to soil degradation e. None of the above
b. Forest clearings that may contribute to the decrease or loss of 249. An organism interaction which occurs when one animal kills or eats another
genetic resources a. Predation
c. Decrease carrying capacity brought about by a marked b. Competition
imbalance between the number of animals and available forage c. Parasitism
lands d. Commensalism
d. All of the above e. Mutualism
e. None of the above 250. The portion of the lake that has rooted vegetation
240. The production of new species from the previously existing species a. Littoral zone
a. Natural selection b. Limnetic zone
b. Evolution c. Euphotic zone
c. Speciation d. Benthic zone
d. All of the above 251. Features the nuclear envelope include
e. None of the above a. Ribosomes
241. The process that causes organisms to adapt to their environment; the b. A double membrane structure
process of more successful individuals surviving and producing larger c. Pores that allow communication with the cytoplasm
numbers of offspring than those that are less successful d. B and c
a. Natural selection e. All of the above
b. Evolution 252. The cell wall is usually found in which eucaryotes?
c. Speciation a. Fungi
d. All of the above b. Algae
e. None of the above c. Protozoa
242. A symbiotic relationship that is beneficial to both species of organisms d. A and B
involved 253. Algae generally contain some type of
a. Predation a. Spore
b. Competition b. Chlorophyll
c. Parasitism c. Locomotor organelle
d. Commensalism d. Toxin
e. Mutualism 254. Which structure is not a component of all cells?
243. The quantity of available nutrients _____ from the lower levels of the a. Cell wall
energy pyramid to the higher ones. b. Cell membrane
a. Increases c. Genetic material
b. Decreases d. Ribosomes
c. Remains stable 255. Which of the following is not found in all bacterial cells?
d. Cycles a. Cell membrane
244. Biomes are distinguished or identified by its b. A nucleoid
a. Dominant plant life c. Ribosomes
b. Climate d. Actin cytoskeleton
c. Type of plants and animals 256. Which is the correct order of the taxonomic categories, from most specific
d. Geographic location to most general?
 a. Domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species b. Spread through major systems of the body
b. Division, domain, kingdom, class, family, genus, species c. Develop within the spleen
c. Species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom, domain d. Develop within the liver
d. Species, family, class, order, phylum, kingdom 269. Viruses are not considered living things because
257. The term culture refers to the _____ growth of microorganisms in _____ a. They are not cells
a. Rapid, an incubator b. They cannot reproduce by themselves
b. Macroscopic, media c. They lack metabolism
c. Microscopic, the body d. All of the above
d. Artificial, colonies e. None of the above
258. Entomoeba histolytica primarily invades the 270. The major difference between a spirochete and a spirillum is
a. Liver a. Presence of flagella
b. Large intestine b. The presence of twists
c. Small intestine c. The nature of motility
d. Lungs d. Size
259. Which of the following is NOT considered an insect vector 271. The types of archaea which require salt to grow and may have such a high
a. Flea salt tolerance that the can multiply in sodium chloride solutions that would
b. Mosquito destroy most cells
c. Tick a. Methanogens
d. Tsetse fly b. Hyperthermophiles
260. Hookworm diseases are spread by c. Psychropiles
a. The feces of humans d. Extreme halophiles
b. Mosquito bites 272. Which of the following are prokaryotic?
c. Contaminated food a. Bacteria
d. Microscopic invertebrates in drinking water b. Archea
261. Which of the following bacteria would be the most accurate indicator of c. Protists
fecal contamination? d. Both a & b
a. Entrobacter 273. Which of the following is NOT an optical microscope?
b. Thiobacillus a. Daek-field
c. Escherichia b. Confocal
d. Staphylococcus c. Atomic force
262. A microbicidal agent has what effect d. Fluorescent
a. Sterilizes 274. A food maintenance temperature that general will prevent food poisoning
b. Inhibits microorganisms is
c. Is toxic to human cells a. Below 4˚C
d. Destroys microorganisms b. Above 60˚C
263. Sanitization is a process by which c. Room temperature
a. The microbial load on objects is reduced d. Bath a and b
b. Objects are made sterile with chemicals 275. Milk is usually pasteurized by
c. Utensils are scrubbed a. The high-temperature short-time method
d. Skin is debrided b. Ultra pasteurization
264. The primary action of _____ heat is to _____ c. Batch method
a. Dry, to destroy cell wall d. Electrical currents
b. Moist, to kill vegetative cells 276. A prominent difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is the
c. Dry, to dissolve lipids a. Larger size of prokaryotes
d. Moist, denature proteins b. Lack of pigmentation in eukaryotes
265. High temperatures _____ and low temperatures _______. c. Presence of a nucleus in eukaryotes
a. Sterilize, disinfect d. Presence of a cell wall in prokaryotes
b. Kill cells, inhibit cell growth 277. Which is the correct order of the following items by size, from smallest to
c. Denature proteins, burst cells largest?
d. Speed up metabolism, slow down metabolism a. AIDS virus, atom, amoeba, coccus-shaped bacterium, rickettsia,
266. Yeasts are _____ fungi, and molds are _____ fungi. white blood cell
a. Macroscopic, microscopic b. Atom, AIDS virus, rickettsia, coccus-shaped bacterium, white
b. Unicellular, filamentous blood cell, ameba
c. Motile, nonmotile c. Ameba, atom, coccus-shaped bacterium, white blood cell, AIDS
d. Water, terrestrial virus, rickettsia
267. Parasitic helminthes reproduce with d. Coccus-shaped bacterium, ameba, atom AIDS virus, rickettsia,
a. Spores white blood cell
b. Eggs and sperms 278. By definition, organisms in the same _____ are more closely related than
c. Cysts are those in the same ______
d. All of the above a. Order, family
e. All of the above b. Class, phylum
f. None of the above c. Family, genus
268. Most helminth infections d. Phylum, division
a. Are localized to one site in the body 279. Which of the following is not one of the Five “I”s?
 a. Inspection b. Contains large amount of acidic substances
b. Identification c. Are neutral
c. Induction d. Have thick cell walls
d. Incubation 292. Which characteristic/s is/are not typical of protozoan cells?
e. Inoculation a. Locomotor organelle
280. Which of the following is not considered a microorganism? b. Cyst
a. Alga c. Spore
b. Bacterium d. Trophozoite
c. Protozoan 293. The process that most accounts for magnification is
d. Mushroom a. A condenser
281. How would you classify a virus? b. Refraction of light rays
a. Prokaryotic c. Illumination
b. Eukaryotic d. Resolution
c. Neither a nor b 294. Bacteria tend to stain more readily with cationic (positively charged) dyes
d. Both a & b because bacteria
282. Also known as the blue-green bacteria a. Contain large amounts of alkaline substances
a. Nanobacteria b. Contains large amount of acidic substances
b. Myxobacteria c. Are neutral
c. Thiomargarita Namibia d. Have thick cell walls
d. Cyanobacteria 295. The major locomotor structures in bacteria are
283. An example of glycocalyx is a. Flagella
a. A capsule b. Pili
b. Pili c. Fimbria
c. Outer membrane d. Cilia
d. A cell wall 296. Which stain is used to distinguish differences between the cell walls of
284. The first living cell on earth was probably? medically important bacteria?
a. A cyanobacterium a. Simple stain
b. An endospore former b. Acridine orange stain
c. Gram positive c. Gram stain
d. An archaea d. Negative stain
285. Mitochondria likely originated from 297. To which taxonomic group do cyanobacteria belong?
a. Archaea a. Domain archaea
b. Invaginations of the cell membrane b. Phylum antinobacteria
c. Purple bacteria c. Domain bacteria
d. Cyanobacteria d. Phylum fusobacteria
286. Human fungal infection involves and affects what areas of the human body? 298. The primary difference between a TEM and SEM is in
a. Skin a. Magnification capability
b. Mucous membrane b. Colored versus black-and-white images
c. Lungs c. Preparation of the specimen
d. All of the above d. Type of lenses
287. Bacterial endospores function in 299. Pili are tubular shafts in _____ bacteria that serve as a means of _____.
a. Reproduction a. Gram-positive, genetic exchange
b. Survival b. Gram-positive, attachment
c. Protein synthesis c. Gram-negattive, generic exchange
d. Storage d. Gram-negative, protection
288. Both flagella and cilia are found primarily in 300. All mature sporozoa are
a. Algae a. Parasitic
b. Protozoa b. Nonmotile
c. Fungi c. Carried by an arthropod vector
d. Both b and c d. Both a and b
289. An arrangement in packets of eight cells is described as a ______.
a. Micrococcus
b. Diplococcus
c. Tetrad
d. Sarcina
290. Human fungal infections involve and affect what areas of the human body?
a. Skin
b. Mucous membrane
c. Lungs
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
291. Bacteria tend to stain more readily with cationic (positively charged) dyes
because bacteria
a. Contain large amounts of alkaline substances
101. D 178. B
102. C 179. C
103. A 180. D
104. A 181. C
105. B 182. D
106. A 183. A
107. B 184. A
108. A 185. B
109. B 186. A
110. A 187. A
111. D 188. B
112. C 189. B
113. A 190. A
114. D 191. B
115. D 192. C
116. C 193. D
117. D 194. B
118. A 195. D
119. B 196. C
120. D 197. C
121. D 198. C
122. C 199. B
123. D 200. D
124. A
125. B
126. A
127. C
128. E
129. B
130. D
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING – Ecology
131. D
132. B
301. A virus is a tiny infectious _____
133. B
a. Cell
134. D
b. Particle
135. B
c. Nucleic acid
136. C
d. Living thing
137. C
302. The capsid is composed of protein subunits called _____
138. C
a. Spikes
139. D
b. Capsomeres
140. B
c. Protomers
141. A
d. Virions
142. E
e. Mitochondria
143. B
303. The envelope of an animal virus is derived from the _____ of its host
144. A
cell
145. A
a. Glycocalyx
146. C
b. Receptors
147. C
c. Cell wall
148. A
d. Cell membrane
149. A
e. Mitochondria
150. A
f. ATP
151. D
304. The nucleic acid of a virus is _____
152. D
a. RNA only
153. B
b. DNA only
154. A
c. Either DNA and RNA
155. B
d. Both DNA and RNA
156. C
305. The general steps in viral multiplication cycle are
157. B
a. Endocytosis, uncoating, replication, maturation, and
158. B
release
159. C
b. Adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, and
160. A
release
161. C
c. Adsorption, uncoating, duplication, assembly, and lysis
162. D
d. Endocytosis, penetration, replication, maturation, and
163. A
exocytosis
164. D
306. A prophage is an early atage in the development of a/an
165. B
a. Bacterial virus
166. B
b. Poxyvirus
167. B
c. Lytic virus
168. D
d. Enveloped virus
169. D
e. Both b and c
170. C
307. The nucleic acid of animal viruses enters the host cell through
171. D
a. Translocation
172. D
b. Fusion
173. D
c. Endocytosis
174. D
d. All of the above
175. A
308. In general, RNA viruses multiply in the _____, and the DNA viruses
176. C
multiply in the _____.
177. B
 a. Nucleus, cytoplasm b. Latent
b. Vesicles, ribosomes c. Dormant
c. Endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus d. Sequelae
d. Cytoplasm, nucleus e. B and c
309. Enveloped viruses carry surface receptors called _____ 321. Toxemia refers to toxins absorbed into the _____
a. Buds a. Glands
b. Fibers b. Tissue
c. Sheats c. Skin
d. Phage d. Blood
e. Spikes e. Lungs
310. Viruses that persist in the cell and cause recurrent disease are 322. ______ infection is an infection not present upon admission to a
considered hospital but incurred while being treated there.
a. Oncogenic a. Zoonosis
b. Cytophatic b. Nonsocomial
c. Latent c. Subclinical
d. Resistant d. Focal
e. Carcinogenic e. Passive
311. Example/s of cytophatic effects of viruses are 323. a/an _____ is a passive animal transporter of pathogens
a. Inclusion bodies a. biological vector
b. Giant cells b. mechanical vector
c. Multiple nuclei c. zoonosis
d. All of the above d. asymptomatic carrier
e. B and d e. portal of entry
f. A and c 324. an example of non-communicable infection is:
312. Viruses can cot be cultivated in a. tetanus
a. Tissue culture b. tuberculosis
b. Bird embryos c. leprosy
c. Live mammals d. measles
d. Blood agar e. all of the above
313. Clear patches in cell cultures that indicate sites of virus infection are 325. A _____ is an inanimate object contaminated with pathogens (public
called facilities, personal items, etc.)
a. Colonies a. chain of infection
b. Prions b. fomite
c. Pocks c. carrier
d. Plaques d. vector
e. None of the above 326. a/an _____ pathogen is hot highly virulent but can cause disease in
314. The best descriptive term for the resident flora is person whose host defenses compromised by predisposing conditions
a. Commensals such as age, genetic defects, medical procedures, and underly organic
b. Parasites diseases
c. Pathogens a. opportunistic
d. Mutualists b. true
e. None of the above c. compromisorial
315. Resident Flora is absent from the d. unvirulent
a. Pharynx 327. Which of the following is not a condition of Kech’s disease?
b. Hair follicles a. Test the effects of a pathogen on humans
c. Intestine b. Isolate the causative agent of a disease
d. Lungs c. Cultivate the microbe in a lab
e. All of the above d. Inoculate a test animal to observe the disease
f. None of the above 328. What is the usual habitat of endospore-forming bacteria that are
316. The specific action of hemolysins is to agents of disease?
a. Damage white blood cells a. Dust and soil
b. Cause fever b. Water
c. Cause leukocytosis c. Intestine of animal
d. Damage red blood cells d. Raw or uncooked meat
e. C and D e. All of the above
317. Virulence factors include 329. Most bacillus species are
a. Enzymes a. True pathogens
b. Toxins b. Opportunistic pathogens
c. Capsules c. Non-pathogens
d. All of the above d. Commensals
e. A and b e. Mutualists
318. A short period early in a disease that manifests with general malaise 330. The action of teranus exotoxin is on the
and achiness is the a. Neuromuscular junction
a. Period of incubation b. Spinal interneurons
b. Sequel c. Cerebral Cortex
c. Prodromium d. Sensory neurons
d. Period of invasion e. All of the above
e. None of the above 331. TB is spread by
319. The presence of a few bacteria in the blood is temed a. Contaminated fomites
a. Toemis b. Food
b. Septicemia c. Vectors
c. Bacteremia d. Respiratory droplets
d. A secondary infection e. All of the above
e. None of the above f. None of the above
320. Damaging effects that remains in organs and tissues after infection 332. Diagnosis of TB is by
are _____. a. X-ray
a. Infection b. Mantoux test
 c. Acid-fast stain 345. A Japanese term pertaining to rat bite fever
d. All of the above a. Jampiongu
e. B and C b. Kageyumo
333. Which infection/s would be categorized as a zoonosis c. Micologu
a. Anthrax d. Soduko
b. Gangrene e. Araychudagaku
c. Diphtheria 346. Q fever is a disease first described in Australia caused by rickettsial
334. A unique characteristics of many isolates of Pseudomonas useful in infection. It is initially dubbed Q for _____
identification is a. Queensland
a. Fecal odor b. Query
b. Drug resistance c. Quaternary
c. Fluorescent green pigment d. Quinolone
d. Motility e. Quiapo
e. White pigments 347. Who discovered the bacteria that cause plague?
f. None of the above a. Alexander Emile Jean Yersin
335. Human brucellosis is also known as b. Robert Hooke
a. Bang disease c. Robert Koch
b. Rabbit fever d. Louis Patuer
c. Malta fever e. Antoine Van Leeuwenhoek
d. Mad hatter’s disease 348. Study of algae
e. Undulant fever a. Algeometry
336. A classical symptom of pertussis is b. Cytology
a. Labored breathing c. Mycology
b. Convulsions d. Virology
c. Paroxysmal coughing e. Paleontology
d. Headache f. Phycology
e. Nose bleeding 349. _____ is also known as “packing plants” of cell where transformation
337. The bubo of bubonic plague is a/an of newly synthesized proteins into mature and functional ones are
a. Ulcer where the flea bite occurred completed
b. Granuloma in the skin a. Mitochondria
c. Enlarged lymph node b. Golgi complex
d. Infectious sebaceous gland c. Plastids
338. Giardia is a/an _____ that invades the _______ d. Endoplasmic reticulum
a. Ciliate, large intestine e. Peroxisomes
b. Ciliate, small intestine 350. Complex macromolecular polymer w/c is main constituent of most
c. Flagellate, large intestine bacterial cell walls. It is also known as murein.
d. Flagellate, small intestine a. ATP
e. Amoeba, large intestine b. Peptidoglycan
339. Plasmodium reproduces sexually in the ______ and sexually in the c. Golgi complex
______ d. Mesosomes
a. Human, cats e. Ribosomes
b. Mosquito, human f. Glycocalyx
c. Liver, red bllod cells 351. Bacteria with a tuft of flagella at one end
d. Red blood cells, liver a. Peritrichous
e. Mosquito, liver b. Amphitrichous
f. Liver, mosquito c. Atrichous
340. An oocyst is found in _____, and a pseudocyst is found in ______ d. Iophotrichous
a. Humans, cats e. Flagellin
b. Cats, humans 352. Is the assignment of names to the various taxa according to
c. Feces. Tissue international rules
d. Tissue, feces a. Nomenclature
e. Feces, throat b. Classification
f. Throat, feces c. Identification
341. All adult helminthes produces d. All of the above
a. Cysts and trophozoites 353. In binomial system, “spp”. Means
b. Scolex and proglottids a. Single species
c. Fertilized eggs and larvae b. Subspecific epithet
d. Hooks and cuticles c. Primary species
e. Tophozoites and larvae d. More than one species
342. Currently, the most common nematode infestation worldwide is e. Peculiar species
a. Pinworm 354. Is the phenomenon or ability of a bacteria to exist in a variety shapes
b. Trichinosis a. Morphology
c. Hookworm b. Morphism
d. Ascariasis c. Cytocolomism
e. Brucellosis d. Epixosome
343. Trichinosis can only be spread from human to human by e. Pleimorphism
a. Flies 355. Us the ability of molecule to ionize both acidic and basic groups
b. Raw pork a. Neutralization
c. Contaminated b. Alkalinity
d. Feces c. Bufferism
e. Cannibalism d. Amphoteric
344. The swelling of limbs typical of elephantiasis is due to e. Buffer
a. Glanuloma development due to inflammation by parasites 356. _____ grow best in environment rich in CO 2
b. Lymphatic circulation being blocked by filarial worm a. Halophiles
c. Allergic reaction to the filarial worm b. Capnophiles
d. Heart and liver failure due to infection c. Dioxicarbophiles
e. Localized and spreading of filarial eggs d. Piezophiles
357. Are remnants or collections of viruses often seen in infected cells and b. Unlike eukaryotic cells, the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells is
are as used as a diagnostic tool to identify certain viral diseases. not filled with internal membrane
a. Resident flora c. Prokaryotic cells possess more than one chromosomes
b. Mimiviruses d. Prokaryotic cells contains neither nucleoplasm nor nuclear
c. Oncogenic viruses membrane
d. Inclusion bodies e. None of the above
e. Viroids 369. Algae is lichen is called _____ while fungi is ______
f. Virions a. Phycolobiont, hypaebiont
358. Colonial alga b. Hypaebiont, phycolobiont
a. Spirogyra c. Photobiont, mycobiont
b. Euglena d. Mycobiont, photobiont
c. Desmids
d. Volvox
e. Diatoms
359. Referring to Mastigophora
a. Preudopods
b. Flagellates
c. Suctoria
d. Ciliates
e. Sorcodina
360. Referred as “power plants” or “power houses” of cell
a. Mitochondria
b. Golgi complex
c. Endoplasmic reticulum
d. Lysosmes
361. The prefix Staphulo- means bacterial arrangement in
a. Chain
b. Pockets of four
c. Pair
d. Clusters
e. No spatial arrangement
362. NH2Cl
a. Monochlaramine
b. Dichloramine
c. Ammonium chloride
d. Nitrogen trichloride
e. Ammonium hypochlorite
363. Mild form of schistosomiasis
a. Birharzia
b. Swimmers itch
c. Cercaria
d. Miricidia
e. Penetrataschisto
f. Parasitic ovalium
364. Which of the ff. is/are not true?
a. Theory of abiogenesis is the theory of spontaneous
generation
b. Theory of biogenesis states that life can only arise from
pre-existing life
c. Loius Pasteur developed vaccine for rabies
d. The two types of glycocalyx are slime layer and capsule
e. All of the above
f. A and d only
g. None of the above
365. Causative agent of Eastern equine encephalitis
a. Calcivirus
b. Alphavirus
c. Flavivirus
d. Norwalk virus
e. Filovirus
366. Which of the ff. is not under the family of DNA viruses?
a. Heroesviridae
b. Adenoviridae
c. Poxviridae
d. Flaviviridae
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
367. The following are RNA virus except
a. Enterovirus
b. Calcivirus
c. Influenza virus
d. Rhinovirus
e. Papillomavirus
368. All of the following are true about prokaryotic cell EXCEPT
a. Prokaryotic cells are about 10 times smaller than
eukaryotic cells
1. B ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING – Microbiology/Chemistry
2. _
3. _ 370. Refers to the quantity of the element in grams corresponding to the
4. C atomic weight
5. B a. Atomic weight
6. _ b. Gram atomic weight
7. _ c. Gram molecular weight
8. D d. Molarity
9. E 371. What is the equivalent weight of calcium?
10. _ a. 40
11. _ b. 20
12. _ c. 10
13. _ d. 30
14. _ e. 15
15. _ f. None of the above
16. D 372. Groupings of atoms acting together as a unit in a large no. of different
17. _ molecules
18. B a. Radicals
19. _ b. Isomers
20. _ c. Isotopes
21. D d. Bond
22. _ 373. What is the equivalent weight of carbonate?
23. _ a. 90
24. A b. 60
25. B c. 45
26. A d. 30
27. A e. 20
28. _ f. 10
29. _ 374. Solutions that contain less solute is _____
30. _ a. Saturated solution
31. _ b. Supersaturated solution
32. _ c. Unsaturated solution
33. A d. Stock solution
34. _ 375. It is the process of using a balanced chemical equation for making
35. E calculations
36. C a. Stoichemistry
37. C b. Stoichiometry
38. _ c. Stiochiogeiometry
39. _ d. Reduction-oxidation
40. _ e. Chemical balancing
41. _ 376. _____ is a substance having the tendency to lose or donate a proton
42. D (H+)
43. _ a. Acid
44. B b. Base
45. _ c. Oxidation
46. _ d. Solvent
47. A e. Reduction
48. F 377. ______ is a base having accepted a proton, is now, in position to
49. _ donate proton
50. _ a. Conjunction acid
51. D b. Conjugate acid
52. A c. Acid
53. _ d. Alkalinity
54. _ e. All of the above
55. _ f. None of the above
56. _ 378. Sates that the partial pressure of each gas is proportional to the
57. _ amount of gas in the mixture.
58. _ a. Gay Lussac’s Law
59. B b. Henry’s Law
60. _ c. Raoult’s Law
61. D d. Dalton’s Law
62. A e. Graham’s Law
63. B f. Charles Law
64. G 379. The rates of diffusion of gases are inversely proportional to the square
65. _ root of their density is referred as ______
66. _ a. Gay Lussac’s Law
67. E b. Henry’s Law
68. _ c. Raoult’s Law
69. C d. Dalton’s Law
e. Graham’s Law
f. Charles Law
380. 1 unit Turbidity = 1 mg/L ______
a. SO2
b. SiO2
c. CO2
d. PbO2
e. None of the above
381. _____ is an effective agent in water having pH greater than 4 a. Neutralizer
a. Carbon dioxide b. Buffer
b. Strong mineral acids c. Corrector
c. Bicarbonate d. Resistor
d. Methyl orange e. Indicator
e. Carbonate f. Titrant
f. Hydroxides 393. PV=nRT
382. The following are not type of indicators except: a. Gay Lussac’s Law
a. Acid-base b. Ideal Gas Law
b. Precipitation c. Raoult’s Law
c. Reduction-oxidation d. Henry’s Law
d. Adsorption e. Boyle’s Law
e. All of the above 394. It is also known as bioamplification. It is the increase in concentration
f. None of the above of a substance that occurs in food chain, whereby certain persistent
383. The following are principal cations causing hardness except substance moves up the food chain.
a. Ca a. Biomagnification
b. Fe b. Bioaccumulation
c. Sr c. Bioconcontration
d. Cl d. Biodilution
e. All of the above e. All of the above
f. None of the above 395. Indicator dye for hardness
384. The following are not type of hardness except a. EDTA
a. Calcium b. Eriochrome Black T
b. Magnesium c. Mehtyl Wine Red
c. Carbonate d. Sulfuric acid
d. Non-carbonate e. All of the above
e. All of the above f. None of the above except d
f. None of the above 396. Acceptable daily intake of magnesium
385. Ethane a. 350 mg
a. CH4 b. 700 mg
b. CH3CH c. 50 mg
c. CH3CH2CH3 d. 10 mg
d. CH3CH3 e. 1000 mg
e. CH3CH2CH2 397. Used for algae control
386. Propanol a. Copper sulfate
a. CH3CH2CH3 b. Sodium hexametaphosphate
b. CH3CHOH c. Calcium carbonate
c. CH3CH2OH d. Activated carbon
d. CH3CH2CH2OH e. Calcium oxide
e. CH2OH f. Calcium fluoride
f. None of the above 398. Gypsum
387. Compounds having similar molecular formula but different structural a. Calcium sulfate
formula b. Magnesium sulfate
a. Isotopes c. Calcium carbonate
b. Isomers d. Magnesium carbonate
c. Isobaric e. All of the above
d. Isentropic f. None of the above
e. Isomolals 399. A solution that contains one equivalent weight of a substance per liter
388. Glucose plus fructose of solution is _____ solution
a. Lactose a. Molar
b. Sucrose b. Molal
c. Monosaccharide c. Normal
d. Cellulose d. Saturated
e. Fats e. True
f. Alkenes f. All of the above
389. A residue resulting from the purification of cane sugar 400. Color comparison tubes
a. Malaloic sugamis a. Jackson turbidimeter
b. Bagasse b. Nessler tures
c. Blackstrap molasses c. Colorimeter
d. Fructose d. Olfactometer
e. Ketone e. None of the above
390. These are formed from hydrocarbons by replacing one or more f. All of the above
hydrogen atoms y hydroxyl groups 401. _____ Law describes the relationship between concentration and
a. Aldehydes absorbance.
b. Carboxylic acids a. Thin-film
c. Paraffins b. Freundlich
d. Alcohol c. Stoke’s
e. None of the above d. Beer-Lambert
391. Second mjor constituent of natural water e. Bagaporo’s
a. Bicarbonate f. None of the above
b. Carbonate 402. Is used for determination of metals. It is based on the phenomenon
c. Magnesium that the atom in the ground state absorbs the light of wavelengths
d. Calcium that are characteristic to each element
e. Sodium a. TGAS
f. Iron b. Cold Vapor Tachnique
392. _____ is a substance in solution that offers resistance to changes in pH c. AAS
when acidic or alkaline material is added to formed in the solution d. ISE
 e. ECD c. Calcium fluoride
f. FPD d. Sodium silicate
403. _____ is a separation method on the affinity difference between two e. Sodium hexametephosphate
phases, the stationary and mobile phases 414. Test measuring the effectiveness of chemical coagulation of water or
a. TAGS wastewater
b. AAS a. Gravimetric Test
c. FDP b. Jar Test
d. ECD c. Colorimetric
e. Chromatography d. Cold Vapor Technique
f. Mass spectrometry e. Chromatography
404. ICP means 415. This is the highest state of oxidation that an organic radial can achieve
a. Inductively conjugate plasma a. Alcohols
b. Ion conjugate plasmoid b. Hydrocarbons
c. Inductively couple plasma c. Aldehydes
d. Inductively conjugate plasmoid d. Carboxylic acid
e. Ion couple prism e. Ketones
f. None of the above 416. _____ is the removal of oxygen or addition of electrons
405. The following are used for dechlorination except a. Oxidation
a. Sulfur dioxide b. Reduction
b. Sodium sulfite c. Base
c. Sodium metabisulfite d. Acid
d. Activated carbon e. Conjugate
e. Sodium carbonate 417. Dimethyl ketone
f. None of the above a. Acetone
406. The following are disinfection mechanism to microorganism except b. Formaldehyde
a. Damage to cell wall c. Base
b. Alteration of cell permeability d. Formic
c. Promotion of enzyme activity e. Acetone
d. Alteration of the colloidal nature of protoplasm f. Valeric
e. None of the above 418. IUPAC name of Pentonoic
407. _____ is also known as perikinetic flocculation a. Caproic
a. Microflocculation b. Burytic
b. Macroflocculation c. Propanoic
c. Isomorphous replacement d. Formic
d. Preferential flocculation e. Acetone
e. Surface charge f. Valeric
408. _____ are defined as those reactions occurring in a single step where 419. Common name of Pentonoic
the stoichiometric equation represents not just a mass balance but a. Hexanoic
also what actually happens on a molecular scale b. Ehtanoic
a. Shifting equilibria c. Propanoic
b. Kinetic reactions d. Formic
c. Uniform reactions e. Acetone
d. Constant reaction f. Valeric
e. Order of reactions 420. Refers to a concentrated solution that will be diluted to some lower
f. Elementary reactions concentrated for actual use. It is used for procedures such as
409. _____ flame is also called safety flame, and the “coolest flame” titrations, where it is important that exact concentrations of solutions
a. Blue are used.
b. Yellow/orange a. Titrant
c. Red b. Stock solution
d. Roaring blue c. End point
e. Pink d. True solution
f. Purple e. Indicator
410. _____ is a type of fire extinguisher ideal for fires involving electrical f. Ideal solution
apparatus 421. Used to treat cholera
a. Water (Red) a. Ampicillin
b. Foam (Cream) b. Tetracyclines
c. CO2 (Black) c. Ketones
d. Dry powder (Blue) d. Sulfonamides
e. Halon (Green) e. Cercaria
f. Wet Chenical (Yellow) 422. According to PNSDW, the minimum frequency of sampling for
411. A special Hazard information for liquid nitrogen communal faucet system is _____
a. LQN a. Once a year
b. LHe b. Twice a year
c. LN2 c. Once in 3 months
d. W d. Before delivery
e. LN e. None of the above
f. N2L 423. As per PNSDW, minimum frequency of sampling for waterworks
412. Caustic soda system wherein population being served ranges from 5,000 to
a. MgSO4 100,000 is _____
b. MgCO3 a. 1 sample monthly
c. H2O2 b. Q sample per 100000 monthly
d. NaOH c. Once a year
e. CaSO4 d. 1 sample per 5000 monthly
f. Na2CO3 e. 20 samples plus 1 samples/5,000
413. _____ is used for corrosion control 424. As per PNSDW, water samples should be processed within _____ after
a. Sodium metabisulfate collection
b. Sodium thiosulfate a. 12 hours
 b. 5 minutes e. All of the above except B
c. 30 minutes f. A and D only
d. 24 hours g. All of the above
e. 6 hours 435. C10Cl12
f. 15 minutes a. Heptachlor
425. As per PNSDW, required sample volume for radiological quality b. Mirex
a. 100 mL c. DDT
b. 120 mL d. Aldrin
c. 500 mL e. Chlordane
d. 1 liter f. Endrin
e. 3 liters 436. C12H8Cl6
f. 5 liters a. Heptachlor
426. As per PNSDW, sampling frequency requirement for radiological b. Mirex
constituents for routine type. c. DDT
a. 4 consecutive quarters for 1 year d. Aldrin
b. 1 sample every 3 years e. Chlordane
c. 1 sample every 6 years f. Endrin
d. 8 consecutive quarters for 2 years 437. Soda ash
427. As per PNSDW 2007, allowable maximum Manganese concentration a. MgCO3
in water is _____ b. CaSO4
a. 0.05 c. FeSO4
b. 0.04 d. MgSO4
c. 250 e. Na2CO3
d. 0.4 f. H 2 O2
e. 10 438. All of the following are true about isotope EXCEPT
f. 5 a. Different isotopes of the same element have almost
428. As per PNSDW 2007, allowable maximum Hardness express as CaCO3 identical chemical behavior
in water is ______ b. The number given as a left superscript of an atomic symbol
a. 500 (for example 14 C) is the integer closest to the atomic mass
b. 50 c. Naturally occurring elements are always a mixture of
c. 250 isotopes
d. 300 d. Copper which is listed as having an atomic mass of 63.546,
e. 10 is a mixture of isotopes
f. 5 439. The name of the compound with the formula Li 2CO3
429. As per PNSDW 2007, allowable maximum NTU is _____ a. Lithium (II) carbide
a. 100 b. Lithium carbonite
b. 20 c. Lithium carbonate
c. 250 d. Lithium carbonium
d. 40
e. 10
f. 5
430. As per PNSDW 2007, allowable maximum chlorine concentration in
water is _______.
a. 250
b. 500
c. 300
d. 0.4
e. 10
f. 5
431. It is the amount of chlorine that must be added to reach a desired
level of residual
a. Chlorination
b. Chlorine residual
c. Chlorine dosage
d. Chlorine demand
e. Hypochlorite
432. NH2Cl
a. Monochloramine
b. Dichloramine
c. Ammonium chloride
d. Nitrogen trichloride
e. Ammonium hypochlorite
433. Mild form of schistosomiasis
a. Bilharzia
b. Swimmers itch
c. Cercarie
d. Miricidia
e. Penetratiaschisto
f. Parasitic ovalium
434. Which of the following is/are used to reduce excessive iron content in
water?
a. Oxidation by aeration, followed by sedimentation and
filtration
b. Used of ordinary zeolites
c. Use of lime or chlorine in a closed system ahead of
pressure filters
d. Coagulation at pH above 9.0