1

Toppers Guidance Classes Guidance program 2013

Toppers Guidance Classes

Classes conducted by Toppers to make Toppers in M.D.S Entrance

COMEDK 2012

Time: 180 Minutes Questions: 180 Maximum: 180 Marks

Candidates Kindly Note

1. COMEDK Pattern
2. There are totally 180 questions in this booklet
3. Question No 151 to Question No 180 are case study based multiple choice questions
4. Choose only one best response for each question
5. No marks will be awarded for multiple marking
6. Each correct answer is awarded one mark
7. There will be no negative marking
8. The question paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer sheet are issued separately at the start of
the examination
9. Please ensure to fill in the following on your OMR answer sheet in the relevant boxes
a. Name
b. Question Booklet Version Code
c. Question Booklet Serial Number
d. Test Admission Ticket Number
10. Fill the appropriate circle completely for answering the particular question with BLACK/BLUE BALL
POINT PEN only. USE OF PENCIL FOR MARKING IS PROHIBITED
11. Candidates should not make any markings on the question booklet. This amounts to MALPRACTICE
and can result in expulsion
12. MARKS DISTRIBUTION: Anatomy, Biochemistry, Physiology, Microbiology, Pharmacology, Pathology,
Medicine, Surgery, Dental Anatomy, Dental Histology – 6 each. Dental Materials, Community Dentistry,
Oral Pathology, OMR, Pedodontics, Periodontics, OMFS, Prosthodontics, Orthodontics, Conservative
Dentistry with Endodontics – 12 each

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8. Hypoparathyroidism is seen in all of the

1. Inferior alveolar nerve and vessels course following EXCEPT
along a. DiGeorge syndrome
a. Mandibular canal b. Chronic renal failure
b. Myelohyoid groove c. Wilson’s disease
c. Sublingual fossa d. Haemochromatosis
d. Submandibular fossa
9. Mandibular fossa is a part of
2. Dimension stability of hydrocolloids may a. Mandible bone
be achieved by b. Maxilla bone
a. Optimizing W:P c. Sphenoid bone
b. Using cold water d. Temporal bone
c. Prolonged manipulation
d. Using humidor 10. Which one of the following enteric
organisms is anaerogenic and non motile?
3. Ferrier double bow separators work on the a. Shigella sonnei
principle of b. Salmonella typhi
a. Wedge c. Proteus mirabilis
b. Pulley d. Klebsiella pneumonia
c. Traction
d. Chemical means 11. Which is more dangerous after a
thyroidectomy resulting in acute
4. Veracity is respiratory distress?
a. Truthfulness a. Damage to external laryngeal
b. Beneficence nerve
c. Autonomy b. Unilateral complete damage to
d. Non maleficence recurrent laryngeal nerve
c. Unilateral partial damage to
5. Hb 1 AC or Glycohemoglobulin level of recurrent laryngeal nerve
>9% indicates d. Bilateral partial section of recurrent
a. Normal laryngeal nerve
b. Mild Diabetes control
c. Gestational Diabetes 12. Width of attached gingiva is narrower in
d. Poor Diabetes Control a. Maxillary premolars
b. Maxillary incisor
6. On application of very light forces to c. Mandibular premolars
teeth, the axis of rotation is located at d. Mandibular incisor
a. At Alveolar crest
b. At or close to Apex of root 13. The Fears that are produced by direct
c. At middle of crown physical stimulation of the sense organs
d. At Cemento enamel Junction are
a. Subjective Fears
7. The attachment of the Actinomyces b. Suggestive Fears
species to the tooth surface is facilitated c. Objective Fears
by d. Imitative Fears
a. Fimbriae
b. Cilia 14. The commonest reported oral malignancy
c. Flagella in HIV infection is
d. Pseudopodia a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Verrucous carcinoma
c. Multiple myeloma

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d. Kaposi’s sarcoma c. Oral ulceration

d. Increased calculus formation
15. Optimum pressure which should be used
is 22. An upper anterior inclined plane provides
a. 30 to 35 gms. / sq.cm a. Intra maxillary anchorage
b. 20 to 26 gms. / sq.cm b. Reinforced anchorage
c. 15 to 20 gms. / sq.cm c. Absolute anchorage
d. 26 to 36 gms. / sq.cm d. Reciprocal anchorage

16. Coating of bacteria particles with host 23. The head tilt procedure while dealing with
proteins to facilitate Phagocytosis is an unconscious patient in dental chair is
known as done to ensure
a. Chemotaxis a. Patent airway
b. Chemokine b. Blood circulation to the brain
c. Opsonization c. To clear the foreign body obstacle
d. Membrane attack complex d. To relive spasm of respiratory
muscles
17. ‘Hot Potato’ voice is characteristically seen
in 24. Which of the following statements
a. Pterygomandibular space infection regarding pulp stones are true?
b. Retropharyngeal space infection a. Pulp stones are due to Metastatic
c. Pre tracheal space infection calcification
d. Lateral pharyngeal space infection b. Pulp stones are due to dystrophic
calcification
18. Facial vein communicates with cavernous c. Pulp stones are usually of true
sinus through denticles type
a. Posterior facial vein d. Pulp stones are usually embedded
b. Common facial vein in dentine
c. Deep facial vein
d. Posterior auricular vein 25. Which is the best choice of heat source for
soldering, from the following fuel gases?
19. Non-caseating granulomas are a. Propane
characteristic of b. Acetylene
a. Tuberculosis c. Natural gas
b. Syphilis d. Hydrogen
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Actinomycosis 26. Over heating of impression compound
during softening will lead to leaching out
20. The most important factor associated with of more soluble constituents such as
causation of head and neck carcinomas is a. Rosin
a. Intravenous drug abuse b. Talc
b. Exposure to nickel c. Waxes
c. History of syphilis d. Stearic acid
d. Tobacco use
27. In the blood bank, platelets are stored at
a.
21. Most common oral change in patients on 18o C for 1 year
Calcium channel blockers is b. 20 to 24o C for 35 days
a. Dry mouth c. 20 to 24o C for 3 to 5 days
b. Gingival enlargement d. 2 to 4o C for 35 days
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b. PHASE-III
28. Local anesthetics block nerve conduction c. PHASE-I
by d. PHASE-IV
a. Depolarizing the nerve membrane
reducing threshold potential 35. Which of the following agents of gas
b. Decreasing the membrane gangrene is capsulated?
permeability to Na+ions there by a. Cl. Septicum
stabilizing nerve membrane b. Cl. novyi
c. Increasing the membrane c. Cl. perfingens
permeability to K+ions and by d. Cl. Histolyticum
depolarizing nerve membrane
d. None of the above 36. Fiber group which prevents the extrusion
of the tooth is
29. The dose of a drug required to produce a a. Alveolar crest group
specified effect in 50% of the population is b. Transseptal group
a. LD 50 c. Oblique group
b. TD 50 d. Horizontal group
c. MD 50
d. Ed 50 37. Shingles of geniculate ganglion with ear
eruption and facial paralysis is termed as
30. The file which has a non-cutting side is a. Peutz – Jegher Syndrome
a. K – files b. Melkersson – Rosenthal syndrome
b. Safety K – files c. Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
c. Hedstroem files d. Gardner’s Syndrome
d. Safety Hedstroem files
38. The major purpose of randomization is
31. All of the following canals open on the a. Facilitate double blinding
posterior wall of the pterygo palatine fossa b. Help ensure the study subjects are
EXCEPT representative of general
a. Greater palatine canal population
b. Foramen Rotundum c. Ensure the groups are comparable
c. Pterygoid canal to baseline characteristics
d. Palatovaginal canal d. Reduce selection bias in allocation
to treatment
32. When a drug creates an effect that is
unpredictable and unique it is termed as 39. The cortical plates are thickest in the
a. Side effect a. Premolar and molar region of the
b. Toxicity effect maxilla on the buccal side
c. Idiosyncratic effect b. Premolar and molar region of the
d. Drug-on Drug effect maxilla on the lingual side
c. Premolar and molar region of the
33. Fibrotomy to prevent rotational relapse mandible on the lingual side
was advocated first by d. Premolar and molar region of the
a. Edwards mandible on the buccal side
b. Peck and Peck
c. Ashley Howes 40. Increased spatulation of gypsum products
d. Carey a. Increase setting time
b. Decrease setting time
34. Human dose establishment study is the c. Does not interfere with setting time
focus of this phase of clinical trial d. Only produces more exothermic
a. PHASE-II heat

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48. A relatively mobile component of the

41. The endodontic instrument number electron transporting respiratory chain is
indicates the a. Flavoprotein
a. Tip diameter b. Cytochrome C l
b. Length of the instrument c. Ubiquinone
c. Cutting length of the instrument d. Cytochrome A
d. Tip angle
49. Surgical approaches for open thymectomy
42. The stabbing nature of pain in trigeminal include all EXCEPT
neuralgia mimics pain caused by a. Transcervical thymectomy
a. A cracked tooth b. Median sternotomy
b. Acute reversible pulpitis c. Thoraco abdominal incision
c. Acute irreversible pulpitis d. Partial median sternotomy
d. Acute apical periodontitis
50. Hilton’s method is used for
43. Inorganic content of cementum is a. Drainage of space infection
a. 45% to 50% b. Drainage of cystic lesions
b. 50% to 55% c. Drainage of abscess
c. 55% to 60% d. Drainage of vascular lesions
d. 60% to 65%
51. Which of the following is known to arise
44. Otomycosis is caused by from the sunlight?
a. Aspergillus niger a. Basal cell carcinoma
b. Histoplasma capsulatum b. Ewing’s sarcoma
c. Rhinosporidium seeberi c. Squamous cell carcinoma of the lip
d. Cryptococcus neoformans d. Verruca vulgaris

45. Ghon complex of the lung usually 52. Length of junctional epithelium ranges
a. Undergoes cavitation from
b. Undergoes calcification a. 0.10 to 0.20 mm
c. Progresses to tuberculous b. 0.25 to 1.35 mm
pneumonia c. 1.35 to 1.75 mm
d. Progresses to military tuberculosis d. 1.75 to 2.00 mm

46. Most fungi of medical importance belong 53. The mechanism of action of afp is via
to following reaction products
a. Zygomycetes a. Fluoridated hydroxyapatite
b. Ascomycetes b. Stannous trifluorophosphate
c. Basidiomycetes c. Dicalcium phosphate dehydrate
d. Deuteromycetes (DCPD)
d. DCPD + calcium fluoride +
47. Injury to which nerve causes non-closure fluorapatite
of eyelids, sagging of mouth and dribbling
of saliva? 54. Which of the following is used to measure
a. Maxillary nerve pain intensity?
b. Occulomotor nerve a. Visual Analog Scale
c. Facial nerve b. Visual Aesthesia Score
d. Ophthalmic nerve c. Verifiable Assessment of Soreness
d. Visual Assessment of Soreness
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b. Within 10mm of the open end of

55. Bias arising because of different rates of the ring
admission to hospitals for people with c. Within the 1mm of the open end of
different diseases the ring
a. Confounding bias d. Within 2mm of opened of the ring
b. Berkesonian bias
c. Information bias 62. True Anodontia is considered to be a
d. Selection bias failure of
a. Initiation
56. Syndrome associated with increased risk b. Proliferation
of leukemia is c. Histodifferentiation
a. Plummer Vinson syndrome d. Morphodifferentiation
b. Klinefelter syndrome
c. Sturge Weber syndrome 63. Effective evaluation refers to
d. Multiple hamartoma syndrome a. Whether program results meet
predetermined objectives
57. Failure of descent of thyroid analage can b. The long term outcome of the
be seen in the tongue program
a. In anterior 2/3 of dorsal aspect c. Assess the extent to which
b. In posterior 1/3 of dorsal aspect program implementation complies
c. Near the base of tongue close to with the program plan
foramen caecum d. Whether program benefits exceeds
d. In anterior 2/3 of inferior surface the cost incurred

58. Lymph from the teeth drains into all of the 64. Second molars that get locked under the
following nodes EXCEPT distal cusps of First molars during eruption
a. Sub mandibular nodes are best
b. Deep cervical nodes a. Extracted and Third molars allowed
c. Retro pharyngeal nodes to erupt
d. Sub mental nodes b. Autogenously transplanted
c. Disimpacted with “disimpaction
59. Desorbtion is a term which is used to springs”
describe d. Guided with distal shoe space
a. Strain hardening maintainer
b. Process of removing the absorbed
impurities 65. Thyroid storm can be treated by all the
c. Recrystallization following drugs EXCEPT
d. Grain growth a. Propylthiouracil
b. Dexamethasone
60. Torsional force is c. Propranolol
a. Compression d. Aspirin
b. Tensile force
c. Shear 66. Hypokalemia is likely to be seen in
d. Transverse bending force a. Insulin therapy
b. Addison’s disease
61. The length of the sprue former should be c. Starvation ketosis
adjusted for gypsum bonded investment d. Hemolytic anemias
so that the top of the wax pattern is
a. Within 6mm of the open end of the 67. Which one of the following developmental
ring stages of Plasmodium is transmitted from
humans to anopheles mosquito?

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a. Sporozoite c. Torque of the restoration

b. Gametocyte d. Retention of the restoration
c. Merozoite
d. Hypnozoite 74. In the body, metabolism of 10 g of protein
would produce approximately
68. Which among the following antibiotics a. 1 Kcal
should be avoided in pregnancy? b. 41 Kcal
a. Erythromycin c. 410 Kcal
b. Tetracycline d. 4100 Kcal
c. Cephalexin
d. Amoxicillin 75. Ethics and planning approvals are taken in
a. Public health practice
69. Increases in steroid hormones are b. Group practice
associated with significant increase in c. Individual practice
a. Actinomyces viscosus d. Solo practice
b. Prevotella intermedia
c. Streptococcus sanguis 76. The fibers of periodontal ligament which
d. Campylobacter rectus maintain the neighboring teeth in contact
a. Horizontal fibers
70. What is the chief disadvantage of a b. Oblique fibers
nonfunctional fixed space maintainer? c. Transseptal fibers
a. Prevent lateral jaw growth d. Interradicular fibers
b. Difficult to fabricate
c. Difficulty in maintaining proper oral 77. Mode of failure during dislodgement of
hygiene prosthesis cemented with zinc
d. Continued eruption of opposing polycarboxylate cement is usually seen at
tooth the
a. Cement tooth interface
71. All of the following are random sampling b. Cement prosthesis interface
methods EXCEPT c. Cleavage through the cement layer
a. Simple random d. Fracture of tooth or prosthesis
b. Cluster sampling
c. Stratified random 78. Ludwig’s angina is caused due to pus
d. Quota sampling collection in
a. Submandibular fascial space
72. Junctional epithelium b. Paravertebral space
a. Lined by orthokeratinised stratified c. Retromandibular space
squamous epithelium d. Parotid region
b. Derived from reduced enamel
epithelium 79. Stephen’s curve denotes the relationship
c. Has rete ridges between
d. Surface cells of junctional a. Sucrose intake and salivary PH
epithelium provide attachment of b. Plaque PH and glucose rinse
gingival to tooth tissue by c. Plaque PH and salivary PH
desmosomes d. Salivary flow rate and buffering
capacity
73. Pins effectively increase
a. Stability of the restoration
b. Support of the restoration
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80. Which medium of storage for avulsed c. Right superficial temporal artery
tooth is best for prolonged extra oral d. Right maxillary artery
periods?
a. Hank’s balanced salt solution 88. The use of electro surgery facilitate
b. Milk impression making by
c. Distilled water a. Reopening the gingival sulcus
d. Saliva b. Forcing the impression material
c. Enlarging the gingival sulcus and
81. Kussmaul’s respiration occurs in response control of hemorrhage
to d. Hemorrhage
a. Decrease in pH of blood
b. Increase in pH of blood 89. Which among the following anti-HIV drugs
c. Obstructive pulmonary disease is also used to treat viral hepatitis B?
d. Carbon monoxide poisoning a. Enfuvirtide
b. Lamivudine
82. An example of a preventive anti oxidant is c. Efavirenz
a. Catalase d. Ritonavir
b. Tocopherol
c. Superoxide dismutase 90. The predominant cell in an ‘Established
d. Urate Lesion’ is
a. PMNL
83. DiGeorge’s syndrome is due to b. T – Cell
a. Congenital Thymic aplasia c. Macrophage
b. Deficiency of complement factors d. Plasma cell
c. Inborn error of metabolism
d. Chromosomal anomaly 91. During the fabrication of band for band
and loop space maintainer, where should
84. Hardness test used for elastic materials be the band biter be placed for final
a. Brinnel’s hardness test positioning of the band?
b. Rock wells hardness test a. Distolingual aspect of the maxillary
c. Vickers hardness test teeth and distofacial aspect of the
d. Knoops hardness test mandibular teeth
b. Distofacial aspect of the maxillary
85. Bundle bone, due to its increased teeth and mesiofacial aspect of the
radiopacity is also called mandibular teeth
a. Lamina dura c. Mesiolingual aspect of the
b. Lamina limitans maxillary teeth and distolingual
c. Lamina lucia aspect of the mandibular teeth
d. Lamina propria d. Distofacial aspect of the maxillary
teeth and distolingual aspect of the
86. Mutation in the oxidative enzymes mandibular teeth
(peroxisomes) could lead to
a. Zellweger’s syndrome 92. A biological experiment in which one
b. Gaucher’s disease compares the effects of two preparations
c. Epidermolysis bullosa by means of common biological response
d. Leber’s neuropathy is known as
a. Biodegradable
87. Right anterior quadrant of the scalp is b. Bio – experiment
supplied by the following arteries EXCEPT c. Bio – assay
a. Right supra orbital artery d. Bio – stamen
b. Right supra trochlear artery

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93. The laminate impression technique utilizes d. Glandular odontogenic cycst

a combination of 2 impression materials
a. Light body & heavy body 100. Posterior mandible resorbs at a rate
b. PVS & Polyether approximately ------- times faster than
c. Polyether and polysulfide the anterior mandible
d. Alginate and Agar a. 2times
b. 4 times
94. The best fuel gas when used with oxygen c. 6times
is d. 8 times
a. Hydrogen
b. Natural gas 101. Gypsum bonded investments are used
c. Propane for
d. Acetylene a. Gold alloys
b. Bank metal alloys
95. Which of the following organs has the c. Silver Palladium alloys
most permeable capillaries? d. Porcelain casting
a. Brain
b. Posterior pituitary gland 102. Space maintainers are usually not
c. Liver necessary in which region?
d. Small intestine a. Mandibular Posterior
b. Mandibular Anterior
96. HLA – b27 histocompatibility antigen is c. Maxillary Posterior
seen in d. Maxillary Anterior
a. Sjogren’s disease
b. Ankylosing spondilitis 103. The activation of caspases is likely to
c. Felty’s syndrome lead to
d. Scleroderma a. Apoptotic cell death
b. Blood coagulation
97. For which of the following tissue systems, c. Mitotic cell division
Scammons’s curve show an ‘S’ shaped d. G1 to S phase of cell cycle
curve?
a. Lymphoid Tissue 104. Dr. Taggart is associated with
b. Neural tissues a. Discovery of Ceramics
c. Muscle & Bone tissues b. Lost wax technique
d. Genital tissues c. Acid etch technique
d. Bleaching procedures
98. Following test for judging the significance
of difference between the means of two 105. Most often used thickness of the
samples in case of small samples when matrix band is
population variance is NOT known a. 0.0015 cm
a. Z – test b. 0.0015 inch
b. T – test c. 0.015 inch
c. P – test d. 0.0028 mm
d. F – test
106. Benign tumor which shows
99. Cyst arising from dental lamina metastasis?
a. Radicular cyst a. Warthin’s tumor
b. Paradental cyst b. Ameloblastoma
c. Eruption cyst c. Keratoacanthoma
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d. Neurofibroma a. 28mm
b. 38mm
107. Characteristic thistle – tube – c. 48mm
shaped appearance of pulp chambers of d. 58mm
single rooted teeth are seen
a. Type I Dentinogenesis Imperfecta 114. The following is not a
b. Type II Dentinogenesis Imperfecta Communicative management technique
c. Type II Dentine dysplasia according to American Academy of
d. Type I Dentine dysplasia Pediatric dentistry’s Standards
a. Voice Control
108. Rate of activation with slow b. Positive reinforcement
expansion is c. Physical Restraint
a. 1 mm per day d. Distraction
b. 1 mm for 3 days
c. 1 mm for a month 115. The main disadvantage of Florida
d. 1 mm per week probe system is
a. Inconsistent probing force
109. A fractured mandibular condyle is b. Recording errors
displaced by the action of c. Non reproducibility
a. Temporalis d. Lack of tactile sensitivity
b. Masseter
c. Lateral pterygoid 116. Entry of Caldwell procedure is
d. Medial pterygoid made through-------------
a. Incisive Fossa
110. Following splenectomy in children, b. Canine fossa
which one of the following is c. Molar prominence
recommended? d. Tuberosity
a. Hepatitis B vaccination
b. Typhoid vaccination 117. Slow ESR is usually seen in
c. Pneumococcal vaccination a. Active myocardial infarction
d. Regular follow up b. Congestive heart failure
c. Oral contraceptives
111. Posterior ethmoidal air sinus opens into d. Chronic infections
a. Superior meatus
b. Middle meatus 118. Sodium metabisulfite used in LA
c. Inferior meatus solution acts as
d. Spheno-ethmoidal recess a. Anti-reducing agent for LA agent
b. Anti-oxidant for LA agent
112. Specificity is c. Anti –reducing agent for
a. Ability of a test of identify correctly vasoconstrictor
all those who have the disease d. Anti-oxidant for vasoconstrictor
b. Ability of a test to identify correctly
those who do not have the disease 119. When one primary canine is lost
c. Diagnostic power of a test prematurely, it is imperative to maintain
d. The amount of previously the
unrecognized disease that is a. Midline
diagnosed through screening b. Opposing canine
c. Vertical dimension
113. In the open position of the d. Canine guidance
mandible, the interincisal distance in
males is approximately

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120. What is the amount of time 126. Tooth loss that causes the patient
required by erupting premolar to move to bite in an abnormal relation of maxilla
through 1 mm of bone as measured on a to mandible, in order to obtain better
bite-wing radiograph? function during mastication is termed
a. 3-4 months a. Convenience bite
b. 4-5 months b. Dramatic bite
c. 5-6 months c. Temporary bite
d. 6-7 months d. Squashed bite

121. The basic tools of measurement in 127. Hanging drop sign is best seen in
epidemiology are a. Water’s projection
a. Place, person, time b. Orthopantomogram
b. Determinants, frequency, c. Submentovertex
distribution of disease d. Upper occlusal view
c. Rate, ratio, proportion
d. Agent, host and environment 128. The half life of plasma Albumin is
approximately
122. Eruption fails in this bone disease, a. 7 days
as there is no bone resorption b. 20 days
a. Primary hyperparathyroidism c. 60 days
b. Phantom bone disease d. 90 days
c. Paget’s disease
d. Osteopetrosis 129. The dicrotic notch on the aortic
pressure curve is caused by
123. Condensation reaction of silicones a. Closure of the pulmonary valve
occur in presence of b. Rapid filling of the left ventricle
a. Lead – di-oxide c. Closure of the aortic valve
b. Titanium di-oxide d. Contraction of the atria
c. Stannous octate
d. Platinum slat 130. A 20 year Male complains of
recurrent attacks of sore throat since 2
124. Which of the following agents is years. The total leucocyte count was
used to prevent the formation of 1000/ul. A differential count revealed
deleterious oxides on gold foil? severe neutropenia. The diagnosis is
a. Methane a. Subleukemic leukemia
b. Ammonia b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Hydrogen peroxide c. Agranulocytosis
d. Carbon monoxide d. Leukoerythroblastic anemia

125. The procedure which slowly 131. While analyzing radiographic

develops behavior by reinforcing images of a lesion, the radiologist tries to
successive approximations of the desired match the present image with an image in
behavior until the desired behavior comes a favorite text book. This method is
to be is termed as known as
a. Behavior Management a. Mix and match method
b. Behavior Modification b. Aunt Minnie method
c. Behavior Shaping c. Text book correlation method
d. Behavior Control d. Kvaal’s method

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132. Which of the following infections a. Results in a 30o metal that is

can produce unilateral facial pain? burnishable
a. Herpes simplex b. Results in no benefits whatsoever
b. Herpes Zoster c. Results in open margin if casting
c. Chicken pox procedures are not accurate
d. Herpangina d. Results in difficulty in taking wax
patterns
133. Mannose 6 phosphate containing
freshly synthesized proteins are directed 139. In Fanconi Anemia, there is a
to a. Deficiency of copper
a. Nucleus b. Mutation in DNA repair gene
b. Lysosomes c. No increased risk of Sq cell cover
c. Mitochondria d. Purely a nutritional disorder
d. Golgi apparatus etiology

134. Bell’s palsy is characterized by 140. Tooth which is involved in the most
a. Bilateral involvement of the side of common cause of oro antral
the face communication is
b. Inability to whistle a. II premolar
c. No loss of muscular control b. I premolar
d. Closing of the eyes c. I molar
d. II molar
135. Current recommendation for
Systemic fluoride supplements for all 141. All of the following drugs may be
children residing in areas where the water effective against methicillin – resistant
fluoride deficient until they reach the age Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) EXCEPT
a. 12 a. Vancomycin
b. 14 b. Streptogramins
c. 16 c. Imipenem
d. 18 d. Linezolid

136. Xeroderma pigmentosum is 142. Anti-D (Rh) immuno globulin is

characterized by used for the prevention of
a. Autosomal dominant inheritance a. Paroxysmal haemoglobinuria
b. Inability to repair sunlight induced b. Sickle cell disease
damage to DNA c. Hemolytic disease of newborn
c. Irregular accumulation of melanin d. Emphysema lungs
in the basal cell layer
d. Acanthosis of epithelium with 143. A 3 year old child presented with
elongation of rete ridges progressive anemia, jaundice & failure to
thrive. O/E: Pallor, splenomegaly+.
137. The Resin bonded bridges have the Peripheral smear showed normoblasts and
advantages of small round intensely stained red cells.
a. Minimal tooth preparation The likely diagnosis is
b. Alignment correction a. Hereditary spherocytosis
c. Longevity b. Thalassemia
d. Long span bridges c. Sickle cell anemia
d. Vitamin B 12 deficiency anemia
138. The gingival cavo surface bevel for
a class II preparation to receive a cast
gold inlay

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144. All of the following statements are b. High well rounded

true for zinc oxide eugenol cements c. Low well rounded
EXCEPT d. Depressed
a. Equal lengths of base paste and
accelerator paste are mixed 150. The vaccine currently used against
together until the mix has a Hepatitis B infection is
uniform color a. Killed pooled serum
b. Increase in temperature and b. Live attenuated
humidity shorten the setting time c. Recombinant
c. The mix appears thick at the start d. Synthetic vaccine
of mixing but after 30 seconds of
additional spatulation it becomes
more fluid Case Studies
d. Water accelerates but heat retards
the setting of zinc oxide eugenol For questions 151 to 154
cements
A 15 year old boy reports with a rapidly
145. Tip angle of endodontic hand growing swelling of the mandible with
instruments is intermittent pain. Patient gives history that
a.
65+15 o the swelling occurred after an episode of
b. 75+15 o trauma. Radiographs reveal formation of
c. 85+15 o layers of new subperiosteal bone producing
d. 95+15 o Onion Skin appearance. The patient also
has lip paraesthesia and elevated white
146. Secondary amyloidosis is seen blood cell count.
most commonly in
a. Actinomycosis 151. Based on the clinical and radiographic
b. Tuberculosis picture, one of the following conditions could be
c. Rabies considered in the provisional diagnosis
d. Secondary Syphilis a. Fracture of the jaw with cancellous
bone formation
147. Focal Epithelial hyperplasia caused b. Chronic suppurative osteomyelitis
by HPV / 3 and 32 is also termed c. Burkitt’s Lymphoma
a. Cowden’s disease d. Ewing’s sarcoma
b. Heck’s disease
c. Acanthosis migrans 152. One of the following conditions produces
d. Kerato acanthoma onion skin appearance of the jaws on radiographs
a. Eosinophilic Granuloma
148. The type of ultraviolet radiation b. Osteomyelitis with proliferative
(UV) that is known to induce skin cancer periosteitis
is c. Chronic diffuse sclerosing
a. UV – A osteomyelitis
b. UV – B d. Fibrous Dysplasia
c. UV – C
d. UV – D 153. There is considerable clinical and
histological overlap of Ewing’s sarcoma with one
149. Atwood’s classification Order IV of the following
corresponds to a. Primitive neuro ectodermal tumour
a. A knife edged ridge (PNET)
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14

Toppers Guidance Classes Guidance Program 2013

b. Osteosarcoma a. Inter proximal reduction of lower

c. Fibrosarcoma incisors
d. Chondrosarcoma b. Guided eruption
c. Incisor capping
154. One of the following statements is true for d. Lip pads
Ewing’s sarcoma
a. An episode of trauma often For questions 158 to 161
precedes development of Ewing’s
sarcoma 5 year old residential school child walks in
b. Trauma is the main etiology in the to your clinic with the habit of thumb
development of Ewing’s sarcoma sucking in association with bruxism
c. Relationship between trauma and
Ewing’s sarcoma has never been 158. What would be probable cause?
reported a. Food habits
d. Trauma can be considered as b. Nasal septal deviation
etiology for Ewing’s sarcoma c. Habitual
provided there is secondary d. Psychological
infection.
159. Usually sucking digit will be having
For questions 155 to 157 a. Fibrous roughened callus
b. Laceration of digit
A 12 year old boy reported with a class II c. Cut wound on digit
div 1 malocclusion with proclined upper d. Long finger bails
incisor and deep bite. Extra oral
examination revealed a bilaterally 160. Chemical approach for reminder therapy is
symmetrical face, convex profile, potentially a. Fem
competent lips with normal incisor display b. Femite
during rest and smile. Cephalometric c. Nail polish
finding showed that the patient had a d. Nail polish with flavor
horizontal growth direction with CVMI stage
III, increased overjet and normal lower 161. Following effects are seen on Maxilla
incisor inclination. EXCEPT
a. Increased S N to ANS – PNS angle
155. What would be the appliance of choice for b. Increased proclination
this patient? c. Increased Maxillary arch length
a. Twin block d. Increased SNA
b. Activator
c. Bionator For questions 162 to 165:
d. Supermarionator
A 58-year-old healthy man was evaluated
156. What is the right time to start deep bite for a toothache of 2 days’ duration. He was
correction with Twin Block Appliance? treated with oral penicillin and an opiate
a. 1 week analgesic and advised to have the affected
b. 2 week teeth pulled. He returned less than 24
c. 3 week hours later reporting severe swelling in the
d. 4 week neck, sore throat, chills, and chest pain. On
examination, the floor of his oral cavity was
157. What is the best method to prevent indurated and woody, and he had marked
proclination of lower incisors while treating a case tenderness and adenopathy throughout his
with Twin Block appliance? neck. He had erythema spreading from his

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Toppers Guidance Classes Guidance program 2013

neck down over his anterior chest wall d. Low birth weight
where his chest pain was localized.
168. The number of Streptococcus mutans
162. The patient is suffering from Colony forming units (CFU) per unit of saliva will
a. Quinsy be
b. Ludwig’s angina a. Negligible
c. Acute parotitis b. <100000
d. Angioneurotic edema c. 10000-10,00,000
d. >10,00,000
163. This condition is an emergency as it can
lead to For questions 169 to 172
a. Difficulty in swallowing
b. Aspiration pneumonia 40-year-old male patient reported with the
c. Air way obstruction chief complaint of missing back teeth in the
d. CSOM upper jaw, and desired replacement of the
same. On clinical examination revealed
164. The infection spreads to the missing 14,15,16,17,18,24,25,26,27 & 28.
a. Submental, sublingual, and
submandibular spaces 169. What is the kennedy’s classification for the
b. Parapharyngeal spaces given clinical scenario?
c. Nasopharyngeal area a. Class II
d. Sinusitis b. Class III
c. Class VI
165. The treatment of choice in such an acute d. Class I
condition would be
a. Antibiotic and antifungal therapy 170. Special design feature to be included in the
b. Removal of the offending tooth above given clinical situation is
c. Continue the penicillin in larger a. Broad occlusal table
doses b. Minimal extension of denture base
d. Surgical drainage, antibiotic and c. Indirect retainer
intensive care d. Tube teeth

For questions 166 to 168: 171. One of the special impression methods to
be employed for class – I situation is
A 4 year old presents with Labio lingual a. Closed mouth impression technique
caries affecting only maxillary incisors and b. Open mouth technique
involving molars. c. Corrected cast technique
d. Mucocompressive technique
166. The diagnosis would be
a. Type I ECC 172. Major connector of choice for the above
b. Type II ECC given clinical situation is
c. Type III ECC a. Palatal bar
d. Rampant caries b. Palatal strap
c. Horse shoe connector
167. The most probable cause of such a d. Complete palate
condition is
a. High salivary pH For questions 173 to 176
b. Consumption of cariogenic food
c. Inappropriate use of feeding bottle
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Toppers Guidance Classes Guidance Program 2013

An 18 years old male reported with chief lymphadenopathy. Plain radiography of the
complaint of sensitivity and deep, dull, chest showed bilateral hilar
radiating pain during chewing. Intra-oral lymphadenopathy. The serum calcium level
examination showed sparse plaque and was elevated at 16.2 mg per deciliter; serum
dental calculus deposits, distolabial parathyroid hormone is within normal
migration of the maxillary incisors with range.
diastema formation, mobility of maxillary
and mandibular incisors and first molars. 177. The probable diagnosis of the above
Prescribed radiographs showed an arc condition is
shaped loss of alveolar bone extending from a. Parathyroid carcinoma
the distal surface of the mandibular second b. Hyperthyroidism
premolar to the mesial surface of the second c. Squamous-cell lung cancer
molar. There was vertical bone loss in the d. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
maxillary incisor region.
178. Urgent treatment to be instituted for him
173. The most likely disease is would be
a. Chronic Periodontitis a. Intravenous administration of
b. Refractory Periodontitis normal saline and a
c. Localized Aggressive Periodontitis bisphosphonate
d. Necrotizing Ulcerative Periodontitis b. Oxygen 6L/m by mask
c. Antibiotics and anti-inflammatory
174. The bacterial etiology of this disease is drugs
a. A.actinomycetemcomitans d. Anti tussive and chest
b. A.viscosus physiotherapy
c. A.naeslundii
d. S.aureus 179. A diagnostic investigation was performed
on him
175. The antigens consistently associated with a. FNAC of the mediastinal lymph
this disease are node
a. HLA A9 and B15 b. Excisional biopsy of the axillary
b. HLA A0 and B30 node
c. HLA A15 and B 9 c. CT chest and abdomen
d. HLA A30 and B0 d. Core needle biopsy of the neck
node
176. The host modulation therapy that may be
used as adjunctive therapy for this disease is 180. The treatment regimen consists of
a. Subantimicrobial-dose clindamycin a. Chemotherapeutic regimen of
b. Subantimicrobial-dose doxorubicin, bleomycin,
metronidazole vinblastine, and dacarbazine
c. Subantimicrobial-dose doxycycline b. Anti tuberculosis regimen of INH,
d. Subantimicrobial-dose ciprofloxacin rifampicin, ethambutol and PAS
c. Linear radiation to the chest
For questions 177 to 180 d. Radical thyroidectomy and neck
node dissection
A 41-year-old man presented to the
emergency department with a 9-month
history of cough, exertional dyspnea,
nocturnal diaphoresis, and weight loss of 10
kg. the physical examination revealed
painless, massive, discrete, rubbery
cervical, supraclavicular and axillary

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