Dental MCQs and Online Test Papers

1/11/13 Dent india | dentall mcqs | dental studies |dental studies in india | dental hospitals | dental classifieds |…
Welcome guest Home Study Online
TestPapers
To Post your questions here, Send it to : dent8844@gmail.com
AIIMS (Dec 1998)
AIIMS (Dec 1999)
AIIMS (Jun 1999)

Online TestPapers
AIIMS (Jun 2000)
AIIMS (May 2009) AIPG - 2007

AIPG - 2004
Click start button before answer the test paper
AIPG - 2007
START TEST>>
AIPG - 2008
AIPG - 2009
1. Mylohyoid nerve is a branch of
AIPGE 1 (200 Q)
1. Main trunk of mandibular nerve
AIPGE 2 (200 Q)
2. Ophthalmic nerve
AIPGE 3 (200 Q)
3. Maxillary nerve
AIPGE 4 (200 Q)
4. Inferior alveolar nerve
AP 2005
AP 2006
COMED K 2004 2. Which of the following is not a branch of trigeminal nerve
COMED K 2005 1. Maxillary
COMED K 2006 2. Mandibular
COMED K 2007 3. Ophthalmic

COMED K 2009 4. Carotid
COMED K 2010
KARNATAKA 2000
3. The orbitoaxial opening can be determined at any point with the help of
KARNATAKA 2001
1. Lateral pterygoid
KARNATAKA 2002
2. Medial pterygoid
KARNATAKA 2003
3. Masseter
KARNATAKA 2004
4. Temporalis
KARNATAKA 2005
KARNATAKA 2006
KARNATAKA 2007 4. Munsell system is used to
KARNATAKA 2008
1. Measures different colours quantitatively
KARNATAKA 2009
2. Colour accessability of tooth quantitatively
MOCK 12
3. To evaluate brittlencess of different alloys
Mock Test 1 (100 Q)
4. To grade the physical properties of gold alloys
Mock Test 10 (100 Q)
Mock test 11
5. Which of the following restorative materials demonstrate maximum water
Mock Test 2 (100 Q) solubility?
Mock Test 3 (100 Q) 1. Light cure GIC
Mock Test 4 (100 Q) 2. Microfilled composite
Mock Test 5 (100 Q) 3. Conventional composite
Mock Test 6 (100 Q) 4. Hybrid composite
Mock Test 7 (100 Q)
Mock Test 8 (100 Q) 6. All the following cells are of connective tissue origin, except
Mock Test 9 (100 Q)

1. Macrophages
Oral Medicine & Path (100)
2. Fibroblast
Ortho 1(100Q)
3. Melanocytes
Perio (100 Q)
4. Clara cells
www.dentindia.com/studyonline/Online_test.php?type=show&test_id=44 1/26
7. All of the following are sarcolemmal proteins except
1. Dystrophin B
2. Dystroglycan
3. Sarcoglycan
4. Dysmorphin
8. Tongue movement has its primary effect on
1. Palatoglossus arch
2. Facial musculature
3. Lips
4. Cheeks
9. Flow cytometry is best used in the measurement of
1. Serum levels of alkaline phosphatase
2. Complete lipid profile of a patient
3. T4 :T8 serum ratio in HIV infection
4. Protein content of urine
10. Most potent stimulator of naive T-cells are
1. Follicular dendritic cells
2. Mature dendritic cells
3. Mast cells
4. B-lymphocytes
11. Disappearance of nuclear chromatin is called as
1. Pyknosis
2. Karyolyaia
3. Karyorhexis
4. None
12. A extrahepatic cholestasis is association with
1. Increased bilirubin in urine
2. Increased urobilinogen in urine
3. Increased bilirubin and urobilinogen in serum
4. Increased bilirubin in serum
13. Extrahepatic cholestasis is seen in
1. Haemolytic anaemia
2. Obstructive jaundice
3. Pancreatic carcinoma
4. Viral hepatitis
14. Which is "MOISTURE ACTIVE" Adhesive?
1. Bis- GMa
2. Cyanoacrylate
3. Methyl methacrylate
4. None
15. Gonial angle at birth is
1. 110
2. 140
3. 175
4. 200
16. Common carotid artery bifurcates at
1. Upper border of thyroid cartilage
2. Upper border of cricoid cartilage
3. At the hyoid bone
4. At the sternal angle
17. Posterior cerebral artery is a branch of
1. Internal carotid
2. External carotid
3. Subclavian
4. Basilar artery
18. Number of fontanelle present at birth
1. 4
2. 6
3. 8
4. 10
19. Which of the following impression materials requires a hardener?
1. Agar
2. Alginate
3. Elastomers
4. Impression compound
20. Posterior 1/3rd of the tongue is innervated by
1. Vagus
2. Glossopharyngeal
3. Hypoglossal
4. Lingual
21. The major disadvantages of polysulphide impression material in clinical

practice is
1. Poor biocompatibility
2. Poor tear strength
3. It is radiolucent
4. It stains clothes & has unacceptable odour
22. Index used to measure acute ans chronic malnutrition is
1. Weight for height
2. Height for age
3. Weight for age
4. Body mass index
23. The most common primary bone tumour is
1. Osteosarcoma
2. Multiple myeloma
3. Ewing's sarcoma
4. Enchondroma
24. Sublingual salivary gland lies
1. Superior to mylohyoid
2. Inferior to mylohyoid
3. Deep to geniohyoid
4. In the vestibule
25. The joint with slight permissive movement and bony articulating surfaces
covered by a fibrocartilage or interosseous ligament is
1. Amphiarthrosis
2. Gomphosis
3. Synostosis
4. Synchondrosis
26. In paralleling technique, a long cone open ended cylinder or greater focal spot-
film distance is used in order to
1. Increase the apparent size of the focal spot
2. To prevent distortion of image
3. To prevent elongation of image
4. None of the above
27. Lack of differentiation is a feature of
1. Hyperplasia
2. Anaplasia
3. Metaplsia
4. Dysplasia
28. The cyst which is found within the bone at the junction of the globular, the
lateral nasal process and maxillary process is
1. Nasoalveolar cyst
2. Globulomaxillary cyst
3. Nasopalatine cyst
4. Mid palatine cyst
29. Ossifying fibroma manifests as
1. Unilocular radiolucency
2. Unilocular radiopacity
3. Multilocular radiolucency
4. Multilocular radiopacity
30. An ideal result of endodontic treatment is deposition of which of the following

at the apex
1. Bone
2. Cementum
3. Dentin
4. PDL fibres
31. Material of choice for root end closure is
1. Amalgam
2. GIC
3. ZOE
4. MTA
32. With age and irritation which form of dentin is laid down?
1. Secondary dentin
2. Reparative dentin
3. Sclerotic dentin
4. Eburnated dentin
33. Facial muscles are derived from
1. 1st branchial arch
2. 2nd branchial arch
3. 3rd branchial arch
4. 4th branchial arch
34. Which of the following organisms is associated with increased incidence of

caries?
1. S.sanguis
2. S.mitis
3. S.aureus
4. S.rattus
35. Which of the following oropharyngeal function is not involuntary?
1. Tongue position
2. Respiration
3. Gagging
4. Speech
36. After how many days following concussion should the tooth be checked again
for pulpal vitality tests?
1. 24 hr
2. 10-12 days
3. 1 month
4. 3-6 months
37. The most common cause of an anterior crossbite is
1. Premature exfoliation of primary tooth
2. Over retained anterior primary tooth
3. Habits
4. Supernumerary tooth
38. Tearing pf flap during endodontic surgery results mainly due to
1. Improper incision
2. Excessive tension in sutures
3. Injudicious use of retractors for tissue handling
4. Removal of bone
39. True about smear layer except
1. It interferes with sealing of gutta-percha
2. Can be removed with 37% EDTA
3. Ultrasonic removal damages canal wall
4. Smear layer is a combination of dentin, pulpal and bacterial debris
40. The cavosurface angle of amalgam cavity preparation should be
1. Beveled
2. Rounded
3. Right angle
4. None
41. During CPR, the chest compression should be
1. 2 inch/second
2. 1 inch/second
3. 2 inch/5 seconds
4. 1 inch/5 seconds
42. Which of the following is not a content of pterygomandibular space?
1. Long buccal nerve
2. Nerve to medial pterygoid
3. Nerve to mylohyoid
4. Lingual nerve
43. Dendritic cells located in the basal layer are
1. Merkel's cells
2. Basket cells
3. Melanocytes
4. Plasma cells
44. All of the following results in high radiation exposure and are injurious to
health, except
1. High kVp
2. Low kVp
3. Use of low speed films
4. Use of grids
45. Vertical angulation for a bitewing radiograph
1. 5 degree downwards
2. 5 degree upwards
3. 10 degree downwards
4. 10 degree upwards
46. All the following are features of Addison's disease, except
1. Hypoglycaemia
2. Hypocalcaemia
3. Hypotension
4. Hyponatraemia
47. The Raynaund's phenomena with photosensitive rash of face, generalized

arthritis and autoimmune disorders is most commonly associated with
1. Scleroderma
2. SLE
3. Sjorgren's syndrome
4. Erythema multiforme
48. The first manifestation of shock is
1. Tachycardia
2. Bradycardia
3. Constriction of pupils
49. Antibodies are produced by
1. Plasma cells
2. T-cells
3. Mast cells
4. Langerhans cells
50. Reticulocytosis is seen in all except
1. Blood transfusion
2. Acute blood loss
3. Polycythaemia vera
4. Thrombocytopenic purpura
51. Pernicious anaemia is due to deficiency
1. Iron
2. Cobalamine
3. Folic acid
4. Niacin
52. Raised Leucocyte Alkaline Phosphatase (LAP) score is seen in
1. PHN
2. CML
3. Megaloblastic anaemia
4. Myelofibrosis
53. Which of the following general anaesthetic agents can be given intravenously?
1. Propofol
2. Sevoflurane
3. Naloxane
4. Flumigininl
54. Which of the following is associated with persistent neutropenia
1. Carmustine
2. Doxorubicin
3. Vinblastin
4. Cisplatin
55. All of the following are true about Yersinia pestis except
1. It is a gram+ve organism that forms lipopolysaccharide exotoxins

Grows at temperature 27 degree C and is easily destroyed by exposure to heat,
2.
sunlight and drying
3. It is nonmotile, nonsporing bacillus and shows pleomorphic appearance
4. Transmitted by bite of fleas
56. All of the following are secreted from the primary granules of neutrophil except
1. Lysozyme
2. Bacterial cell permeability protein
3. Lactoferrin
4. Defensins
57. Dark coloured urine and clay coloured stools are seen in
1. Neonatal jaundice
2. Haemolytic anaemia
3. Hepatocellular jaundice
4. Severe dehydration
58. All of the following methods are used to defect mutations except
1. Single stranded conformational polymorphism
2. Denaturating gradient gel electrophoresis
3. Gel electrophoresis
4. Northern blot analysis
59. Cytoplasmic Cytochrome C is associated with
1. Glycolysis
2. Apoptosis
3. Drug metabolization
4. All
60. Maximum shrinkage on firing of ceramic occurs during which stage
1. High bisque
2. Low bisque
3. Medium bisque stage
61. Which of the following components acts as an accelerator in ZONE impression

paste?
1. Zinc chloride & eugenol
2. Zinc sulphate & Zinc chloride
3. Zinc oxide and eugenol
4. Glycerin
62. One of the following cements has obtundant property
1. Zinc phosphate
2. GLC
3. Zinc polycarboxylate
4. Zinc oxide eugenol
63. The follow of impression compound at 37 degree c
1. 2%
2. 4%
3. 6%
4. 10%
64. The following acts as a gypsum hardener
1. 5% Nacl
2. 2% KCI
3. 2% K2 SO4
4. 1% AL2 SO3
65. Increase in lactate and pyruvate is seen in deficiency of
1. Pridoxine
2. Thiamine
3. Niacin
4. Retinoic acid
66. The lining of blood vessels in brain is by
1. Oligodendrocytes
2. Astrocytes
3. Ependymal cells
4. None
67. Which of the following is required for the conversion of prothrombin to

thrombin?
1. Stable factor
2. Labile factor
3. Fibrinogen
4. Factor VIII
68. The lymphatics from lower lip first enter the blood stream through
1. Inferior labial artery
2. Inferior labial vein
3. Brachiocephalic vein
4. Pterygoid plexus of veins
69. Anterior displacement of fracture condyle is mainly due to the muscle
1. Medial pterygoid
3. Masseter
4. Temporalis
70. Which of the following structures does nor pass through cavernous sinus
1. Middle cerebral artery
2. Internal carotid artery
3. Abducens nerve
4. Trochlear nerve
71. Middle constrictor or pharynx is attached to
1. Body of hyoid
2. Pterygomandibular raphae
3. Ramus of the mandible
4. Maxillary tuberosity
72. All of the following are true regarding duct of parotid except
1. It pierces masseter
2. It pierces the buccinator
3. It opens in buccal vestibule opposite lower 2nd molar
4. It can be palpated externally
73. Vit-K dependent clotting factors are
1. 2,7,9,10
2. 3,7,9,10
3. 7,9,10,12
4. 3,6,8,10
74. Difference between gelation & liquefaction temperature is called as
1. Imbibition
2. Syneresis
3. Hysteresis
4. Adsorption
75. The term condensation polymerization refers to
1. Only one functional group is repeated in polymerization
2. No-by product is formed
3. Elimination of small molecules as by-product occurs
4. Polymerization is accompanied by repeated elimination of small molecules
76. Dimensional stability of elastomeric impression material can be given in

descending order as
1. Polysulphide>polyether>Condensation silicone>Addition silicone
2. Addition silicone >polyether>Polysulphide>Condensation silicone
3. (polyether>Condensation silicone>Polysulphide>Addition silicone
4. Addition silicone >Condensation silicone>Polysulphide>polyether
77. Rough surface of elastomeric impression results from
1. Inadequate mixing
2. Air bubbles
3. Too rapid polymerization
4. Incomplete polymerization caused by premature removal from mouth
78. Which of the following is a micro hardness test?
1. Rockwell hardness test
2. Brinell's hardness test
3. Vickers hardness test
4. None
79. Immediate transient permeability in cells is increased by
1. Direct injury and necrosis
2. Endothelial gaps by histamine
3. Endothelial gaps by serotonin
4. Leucocyte-mediated Endothelial injury
80. Blood spills in hospital are cleaned by
1. Absolute alocohol
2. Quaternary ammonium compound
3. Sodium hypochlorite
4. Cetavlon
81. Haemophilia A is characterized by increase in
1. PT
2. PTT
3. PT&PTT
4. None
82. In all of the following mRNA participates directly except
1. Post translational modification
2. Post transcriptional modification
3. DNA replication
4. Gene silencing
83. The occipital condyle is represented by the following cephalometric point
1. Bolton's point
2. Broadbent registration point
3. Basoin
4. Articulare
84. Alizarin red complexes with the following compound
1. Calcium
2. Magnesium
3. Fluoride
4. Sodium
85. The most commonly exposed pulp horn during cavity preparation of lower
deciduous molar is
1. Mesiobuccal
2. Distobuccal
3. Mesiolingual
4. Distolingual
86. The primary reason for aggressive behaviour of a 5-year-old child in a dental
office is
1. Fear
2. Separation from parents
3. Pain
4. Unknown
87. Post space can be prepared by
1. Peeso reamer
2. Small taper fissure bur
3. Gates-Glidden drill
4. Barbed broach
88. What is the disadvantages of using "winged" rubber dam retainer?
1. It does not provide extra retention of rubber dam
2. It interferes with the placement of matrix band
3. They do not allow attachment of the dam to retainer
89. The radiographic view of choice for diagnosing horizontally of condyle in a

condylar neck# is displaced anteriorly and medially is
1. OPG
2. Occlusal
3. Lateral oblique view
4. Transpharyngeal
90. Multiple punched out radiolucencies is a feature of
1. Multiple myeloma
2. Thalassaemia
3. Fibrous dysplsdis
4. Ewing's sarcoma
91. Mandibular tori are commonly found to be present in the folowinf
1. Molars
2. Premolars
3. Anteriors
4. None of the following
92. One of the following diagnostic technique is non-ionizing in nature
1. Chest X-ray
2. CT scan
3. MRI
4. OPG
93. All of the following are true about collimation except
1. Decreases the volume of irradiated
2. Rectangular PID is better as compared to a square PID
3. Decrease radiographic contrast
94. The greatest variation in the mass of crown of a tooth is demonstated by
1. Maxillary lateral incisor and 3rd molar
2. Mandibular lateral incisor and 3rd molar
3. Mandibular canine and maxillary canine
4. Maxillary canine
95. Majority of flora in the human oral cavity are
1. Facultative anaerobe streptococci
2. Obligate aerobic streptococci
3. Obligate anaerobic streptococci
4. Facultative aerobe streptococci
96. PHP index is used to
1. Performance of hygiene by patient before and after oral hygiene instructions
2. Measures oral hygiene and gingival bleeding
3. Study the depth and extent of the pulp involvement
97. The most common primary bone tumour is
1. Osteosarcoma
2. Multiple myeloma
3. Ewing's sarcoma
4. Enchondroma
98. Which of the following is the first marker of hepatitis B infection?
1. Anti HBs Ag
2. HBe Ag
3. HBc Ag
4. HBs Ag
99. In iron deficiency anaemia, which of the following are seen in peripheral blood
smear?
1. Decreased TIBC and decreased ferritin
2. Increased TIBC and decreased ferritin
3. Increased TIBC and increased ferritin
4. Decreased TIBC and increased ferritin
100.Leucocytosis is seen in
1. Megaloblastic Anaemia
2. Blood transfusion
3. Steroids
4. Dengue
101.Premature synostosis of coronal sutures along with basal sutures shows which
of the following features
1. Brachycephaly
2. Oxycephaly
3. Trigonocephaly
4. Plagiocephaly
102.The most abundant plasma protein is
1. Fibrinogen
2. Albumin
3. Titin
4. Globulin
103.Which of the following is inhibitory neurotransmitter?
1. Aspartate
2. GABA
3. Acetylvholine
4. Glutamate
104.During moderate level exercise, blood flow to brain
1. Remains constant
2. Increases
3. Decreases
4. No relation
105.The working time of elastomeric impression material is defined as
1. The time from the start of the mixing till the material is fully set
2. The time elapsed from beginning of mixing until curing has advanced
The time from start of mixing till just before the elastic properties have fully
3.
developed
106.The use of quartz in gypsum bonded investment is
1. Counteracts expansion
2. Provides strength
3. Is a retarder
107.Which of the following is characteristic feature of high copper amalgam alloy?
1. Electrochemical corrosion
2. Chemical corrosion
3. Penetrating corrosion
4. Corrosion does not occur at all
108.Insufficient closure of the flasks during packing of denture base resin can result
in
1. Poor colour stability
2. Less polymerization shrinkage
3. Increase in vertical dimension
109.Cross-B-pleated sheet conformation of amyloidosis is determined by
1. Electron microscopy
2. X-ray crystallography
3. Light microscopy
4. Congo red stain
110.Healing of wounds is retarded by
1. Proteins
2. Cortisol
3. UV light
4. Vitamin C
111.Lancefield grouping of streptococci is based on the presence of
1. M-protein
2. Carbohydrate antigen on cell-wall
3. Bile solubility
4. Sugar fermentation
112.Which of the following is the hallmark of chronic renal failure?
1. Metabolic acidosis
2. Hypercalcaemia
3. Hypokalaemia
4. Increased proneness to hypoxia
113.The concentration of NaF for daily mouth rinses should be
1. 0.05 %
2. 0.2%
3. 0.1%
4. 1%
114.Infectious mononucleosis is caused by
1. EBV
2. HSV
3. CMV
4. VZV
115.Radiographic contrast depends on
1. Subject density
2. Focal spot width
3. Collimation
4. None
116.The sudden appearance of a "Dumb-bell" swelling after the administration of

PSA block is due to penetration in
1. Maxillary artery
2. Pterygoid plexus of veins
3. Greater palatine artery
4. Sphenopalatine artery
117.Chamfer finish line is used in
1. Labial side of all ceramic crown
2. Lingual of all ceram
3. Lingual of PFM
4. Labial of PFM
118.Amber line of the "war" line indicates
1. Corresponding to the occlusal plane

Denotes the alveolar bone covering the impacted tooth and portion not covered by
2.
bone
3. The depth of the tooth in the bone
4. None
119.The placement of pin should be
1. Parallel to each other
2. Parallel to the nearest external tooth surface
3. Perpendicular to the external tooth surface
4. Never beneath the cusp to be restored
120.If the centre of rotation is at the tip of the apex, then the orthodontic
movement which results is
1. Uncontrolled tipping
2. controlled tipping
3. Torquing
4. Rotation
121.The minimum incidence of cleft palate is seen in which of the following
1. Mongoloid
2. Afghans
3. Negroes
4. South Americans
122.The major consideration involved in performing pulpectomy in primary teeth is
1. Root resorption
2. Large pulp chamber
3. Tortuous course of the pulp canal
4. All of the above
123.Ellis Class III # of tooth involves
1. Enamel
2. Enamel and dentin
3. Enamel dentin and pulp
4. Crown and root
124.Which of the following bones are used for determination of growth pattern in an
individual?
1. Clavicle
2. Capitate
3. Cervical vertebrae
4. Mandible
125.If the center of rotation is present at the center of the bracket on the tooth
surface, orthodontic movement that results is:
1. Controlled tipping
2. UnControlled tipping
3. Torquing
4. Rotation
126.Eugenol free sealer is
1. Grossman's sealer
2. AH-26
3. Tubliseal
4. Wach's paste
127.Diamond particle sizes of 125-150 mm is categorized as
1. Fine
2. Coarse
3. Very fine
4. Medium
128.Bur used to assess preparation of PFM is
1. Diamond bur
2. Carbide bur
3. Diamond for ceramic and carbide for metal
4. None
129.Dontrix gauze is used to
1. Measure strength of wire
2. Measure force
3. Measure wire distortion
4. Measure wire deformation
130.Maximum available and effective concentration of LA for topical use is
1. 2%
2. 5%
3. 10%
4. 15%
131.Campbells lines are seen in
1. Transorbital
2. Transpharyngeal
3. Occipitomental
4. Transcranial
132.One of the following is incorrect about radiographic safety protection
Ideally position to stand while taking radiographs is an angle 90-135 and 6 feet
1.
away from patient
2. Lead lining of the walls is mandatory
3. Film badges should be checked every 1 month
133.Multiple unerupted, supernumerary teeth are characteristic feature of
1. Craniofacial dysostosis
2. Cleidocranial dysostosis
3. Down's syndrome
4. Treacher Collins syndrome
134.Cementosis is commonly seen in
1. Females, in maxilla
2. Females, in mandible
3. Male's , in maxilla
4. Males, in mandible
135.Oral mucosal and skin pigmentation are seen in all the following except
1. Addison's disease
2. Cushing's disease
3. Peutz Jeghers syndrome
4. Albright's syndrome
136.Urinalysis of patient associated with haematuria and glomerulonephrosis

shows
1. Isomorphic red cell
2. Red cell cast
3. WBC cast
4. Hyaline cast
137.A person is fully conscious of time, place and person: shows normal speech and
responds to verbal commands. In the case, the Glasgow comma scale would be
1. 3
2. 19
3. 14
4. 15
138.Which of the following is characteristic ONLY of viruses and not bacteria
1. They are intracellular organisms
2. They affect the production of interferon and are sensitive to it
3. They reproduce by binary fission
4. They can be grown on inanimate media
139.Acid phosphatase positivity is shown by
1. T lymphocutes
2. B lymphocutes
3. Myelocytes
4. Monocytes
140.Which of the following is mucostatic impression material?
1. Agar
2. Alginate
3. ZOE paste
4. Impression compound
141.In the investment for gold, the strength is provided by
1. Silica
2. Gypsus
3. Cristobalite
4. Carbon
142.Serum creatinine can be accurately measured by
1. Modified kinemaic Jaffe technique
2. Jaffe reaction
3. Enzyme assay
143.During moderate level exercise, blood flow to brain
1. Remains constant
2. Increases
3. Decreases
4. No relation
144.All of the following are mesodermal derivatives, except
1. Cementoblast
2. Odontoblast
3. Osteoblast
4. Paneth cells
145.Which of the following has the highest cholesterol content?
1. Coconut oil
2. Egg yolk
3. Hydrogenated fat
4. Ghee
146.Glass transition temperature of impression compound is
1. 37 degree C
2. 43.5 degree c
3. 65.degree c
4. 100 degree c
147.The function of 2%potassium sulphate in a gypsum product is
1. To regulate the setting expansion
2. Regulate setting time
3. Acts as retarder
4. None
148.One of the following cements is truly adhesive to tooth structure
1. GLC
2. ZOE
3. Calcium hydroxide
4. Zinc phosphate
149.The function of fluoride flux during soldering of stainless steel is
1. It forms a surface protective layer
2. It decrease the melting point
3. It dissolves chromic oxide layer
4. None
150.Which part of flame has maximum heat content?
1. Reducing zone
2. Combustion zone
3. Oxidizing zone
4. Central zone
151.C-ANCA is associated with
1. Protein-3
2. Myeloperoxidase
3. Alkaline phosphatase
4. Lactate dehydrogenase
152.Which of the following is responsible to cause myocardial depression
1. Isoflurane
2. Halothane
3. Desflurane
4. Sevoflurane
153.Single conical crown with single root is called as
1. Acrodont
2. Haplodont
3. Diphyodont
4. Polyphodont
154.The "Y" shaped occlusal pattern appears in
1. Mandibular 1st premolar
2. Maxillary 1st premolar
3. Maxillary 2nd premolar
4. Mandibular 2nd premolar
155.The most common organism involved in periapical granuloma
1. Anaerobic microorganism
2. Aerobic infection
3. Mixed infection
4. Sterile ans contains no microorganisms
156.Polydactyly, craniosynostosis, late closure of fontanelles is a feature of
1. Apert's syndrome
2. Crouzon's syndrome
3. Pierre Robin syndrome
4. Down's syndrome
157.Dentin islands are most commonly associated with
1. Maxillary canine and premolars
2. Maxillary premolars and Maxillary molars
3. Maxillary central incisor and Maxillary 1st molar
4. Maxillary central incisor and mandibular 2nd molar
158.A development anomaly, in which, two teeth are joined together only by
cementum is
1. Fusion
2. Gemination
3. Concrescence
4. Twinning
159.All of the following is true about dark room safe lighting, except
1. The bulb used is of a short wavelength

The safe lights are mounted in the work area on the wall behind the processing
2.
tanks
3. GBX-2 filter is recommended as a safe light in dark room
The safe light should be mounted at-least 4 feet above the surface where the films
4.
are handled
160.Moth-eaten appearance is characteristic radiographic feature of
1. Acute osteomyelitis
2. Chronic osteomyelitis
3. Fibrous dysplasia
4. Paget's disease
161.Unilateral vesicular eruptions along the course of the nerve in orofacial region
are
1. Herpes zoster
2. Herpes simplex
3. Molluscum contagiosum
4. Infections mononucleosis
162.Cotton wool appearance of bone is a radiographic feature
1. Fibrous cortical defect
2. Multiple myeloma
3. Fibrous dysplasia
4. Paget's disease
163.Plasma cells are present in which stage of gingivitis
1. Type I
2. Type II
3. Type III
4. Type Iv
164.All the following results in high radiation exposure and are injurious to health,
except
1. High kVp
2. Low kVp
3. Use of low speed films
4. Use of grids
165.Wiggly appearance of G-P cones on a X-ray results due to
1. Obstruction in apical 1/3rd of the canal
2. Too small cones for the preparation
3. Apical extrusion of the filling material
166.Width of attached gingiva is least on
1. Maxillary central incisor
2. Maxillary 1st premolar
3. Mandibular 1st premolar
4. Mandibular central incisor
167.Unit radioactivity is
1. Curie
2. Candle
3. Lux
4. Roentgen
168.Which of the following is associated with periodontal disease?
1. AIDS
2. Hypophosphatesia
3. Wegener's granulomatosis
4. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
169.In a patient with Le-Fort II,Le-Fort III,&naso-ethmoid #, what is the choice of

intubation?
1. Oral
2. Oral and nasal
3. Greater palatine artery
4. Sub mental
170.In a vasovagal syncope, this of the following does not occur
1. Hypotension and tachycardia
2. Constriction of pupil
3. Vomiting
4. Cold extremities
171.Lateral incisors alone cannot be used as an abutment due to
1. Unaesthetic
2. Insufficient pericemental area
3. Arch of rotation might be interfered
4. None
172.None anatomic teeth are indicated primarily in
1. Flat ridge
2. Sharp ridge
3. Poor muscular control
4. All the above
173.The radiographic view of choice for diagnosing horizontally

favourable/unfavourable # is
1. Reverse Towne's
2. PA view
3. True lateral
4. OPG
174.The muscle, under the influence of which, the superior fragment of condylar
neck # is displaced anteriorly and medially is
1. Medial pterygoid
3. Masseter
4. Temporalis
175.Treatment of localized pain 3-4days post extraction due to loss of clot is done
by
1. Irrigation of the socket and placement of sedative dressing
2. Curettage of the socket
3. Creation of new blood clot
4. Placement of analgesics and antibiotics in the socket
176.The most common trigger factor for bruxism is
1. TMJ dysfunction
2. Periocornitis
3. Discrepancy between centric occlusion and centric relation
4. Acute periodontal disease
177.The role of sodium bisulphate in a LA solution is
1. Reducing agent
2. Anaesthetic agent
3. Vasoconstrictor
4. Preservative
178.The minimum thickness of rubber dam is
1. 0.004 inches
2. 0.001 inches
3. 0.006 inches
4. 0.008 inches
179.The optimum ratio of the length of the pin into amalgam to that of dentin
should be
1. 1:1
2. 2:1
3. 3:1
4. 4:1
180.Antirust agent is
1. 2% sodium nitrite
3. 2% potassium nitrite
181.An artificial replacement of an absent body part of human body is called
1. Prosthesis
2. Appliance
3. Obturator
4. Artificial velum
182.All of the following are true for non active caries, except
1. Pain on excavation
2. Soft and cheesy
3. Dark and hard
4. Presence of dark pigmentation
183.New odontoblasts are differentiated from mesenchymal cells in
1. 24hr
2. 1 week
3. 15 days
4. 1 month
184.All of the following types of corrosion occur in high-copper amalgams except
1. Galvanic
2. Penetrating
3. Chemical
4. Electrochemical
185.Centre of ramus is indicated by which of the following cephalometric point
1. PM point
2. PTM
3. Xi point
4. Bolton's point
186.In a root canal treated tooth, which has failed the organism seen
predominantly is
1. Fusobacterium
2. Streptococci
3. Lactobacillus
4. E. faecalis
187.The most important criteria in using irrigating solution is
1. Volume of irrigant
2. Thickness of syringe used
3. Concentration or irrigant
4. None
188.An avulsed tooth before implantation should be treated with
1. Doxycycline
2. Dexamethsone
3. Leadermix
189.Dontrix gauze is used to
1. Measure strength of wire

2. Measure force
3. Measure wire distortion
4. Measure wire deformation
190.The point,which changes with orthodontic treatment, is
1. Gonion
2. Nasion
3. Point A
4. Porion
191.In theMinutes Left:

edge centroid relationship
1. Edge and centroid are in one plane

Related: Children's Dental Health
Search | General And Cosmetic Dentistry | Affordable Dental Plan | Bleeding Gums | Dental Coverage
2. Edge is behind centroid
3. Edge is in front of centroid
192.The most common type of epilepsy in children is
1. Grand mal epilepsy
2. Infantile spasm
3. Petit mal
193.The fear of a 6-years-old related to dentistry is primarily
1. Subjective
2. Objective
3. Subjective and Objective
4. Psychological
194.Best material for pulp capping is
1. Calcium hydroxide
2. Zinc phosphate cement

3. ZOE
4. Glass ionomer cement
195.Which of the following does not have calcified tissue
1. Enamel
2. Dentine
3. Pulp
4. Cementum
196.Dentinal tubule is wide at
1. Enamel end
2. Pulpal end
3. Cemental end
197.Trichuris trichiura is also known as
1. Round worm
2. Seat worm
3. Whip worm
4. Hook worm
198.Prothrombin time is used as diagnostic feature for
1. Anticoagulant therapy
2. Haemophilia
3. Clot retraction
4. Platet agglutination
199.Scientist who proposed mesial migration of molars
1. Graber
2. Moyer
3. Kingsley
4. Kesling
200.Zygoma (or) Key ridge corresponds to
1. Mesiobuccal root of upper 1st molar
2. Mesiobuccal root of upper IInd molar
3. Distobuccal cusp of upper 1st molar
4. Distobuccal cusp of upper IInd molar
Go

Dental MCQs and Online Test Papers

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Dental MCQs and Online Test Papers

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

1/11/13 Dent india | dentall mcqs | dental studies |dental studies in india | dental hospitals | dental classifieds |…

Welcome guest Home Study Online

AIIMS (Dec 1999)

AIIMS (Jun 1999)

AIIMS (May 2009) AIPG - 2007

COMED K 2004 2. Which of the following is not a branch of trigeminal nerve

COMED K 2005 1. Maxillary

COMED K 2006 2. Mandibular

COMED K 2007 3. Ophthalmic

KARNATAKA 2007 4. Munsell system is used to

Mock Test 3 (100 Q) 1. Light cure GIC

Mock Test 4 (100 Q) 2. Microfilled composite

Mock Test 5 (100 Q) 3. Conventional composite

Mock Test 6 (100 Q) 4. Hybrid composite

Mock Test 7 (100 Q)

Mock Test 9 (100 Q)

7. All of the following are sarcolemmal proteins except

8. Tongue movement has its primary effect on

9. Flow cytometry is best used in the measurement of

1. Serum levels of alkaline phosphatase

2. Complete lipid profile of a patient

3. T4 :T8 serum ratio in HIV infection

4. Protein content of urine

10. Most potent stimulator of naive T-cells are

1. Follicular dendritic cells

2. Mature dendritic cells

11. Disappearance of nuclear chromatin is called as

12. A extrahepatic cholestasis is association with

1. Increased bilirubin in urine

2. Increased urobilinogen in urine

3. Increased bilirubin and urobilinogen in serum

4. Increased bilirubin in serum

13. Extrahepatic cholestasis is seen in

14. Which is "MOISTURE ACTIVE" Adhesive?

15. Gonial angle at birth is

16. Common carotid artery bifurcates at

1. Upper border of thyroid cartilage

2. Upper border of cricoid cartilage

3. At the hyoid bone

4. At the sternal angle

17. Posterior cerebral artery is a branch of

18. Number of fontanelle present at birth

19. Which of the following impression materials requires a hardener?

20. Posterior 1/3rd of the tongue is innervated by

21. The major disadvantages of polysulphide impression material in clinical

2. Poor tear strength

4. It stains clothes & has unacceptable odour

22. Index used to measure acute ans chronic malnutrition is

1. Weight for height

2. Height for age

3. Weight for age

4. Body mass index

23. The most common primary bone tumour is

24. Sublingual salivary gland lies

2. To prevent distortion of image

3. To prevent elongation of image

4. None of the above

27. Lack of differentiation is a feature of

4. Mid palatine cyst

29. Ossifying fibroma manifests as

30. An ideal result of endodontic treatment is deposition of which of the following

31. Material of choice for root end closure is