Dogar Publishers MDCAT MCQs PDF Guide PDF

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MCAT Fully Solved Dogar Sons MCQs Guide

Sr. No Subjects Page No’s
1 Biology 3
2 Physics 39
3 Chemistry 76
4 Computer 112
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Biology MCQs
Solved With
Answers
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1. Study of structure and functions of cells is termed as?
A. Genetics
B. Ecology
C. Embryology
D. Cell Biology (Answer)
2. The scientific study of livings is called?

A. Biology (Answer)
B. Anatomy
C. Ecology
D. Zoology
3. Bios means?
A. Study
B. Life
C. Fact
D. True
4. The scientific study of plants is termed as?

A. Zoology
B. Botany (Answer)
C. Ecology
D. Taxonomy
5. The scientific study animals is termed as?

A. Zoology (Answer)
B. Biology
C. Botany
D. All of the above
6. It is the branch of biology which deals with the study of for,structure ,shape and size of organism their parts seen with
eye or with a microscope?
A. Anatomy
B. Cell Biology
C. Ecology
D. Morphology (Answer)
7. It is the study of internal organs of organisms?

A. Anatomy (Answer)
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B. Physiology
C. Morphology
D. Cell Biology
8. The branch of biology which deals with the study of functions of different parts of an organism?
A. Physiology (Answer)
B. Ecology
C. Taxonomy
D. Evolution
9. Anopheles mosquito carries Plasmodium which causes malaria in?

A. Sparrows
B. Animals
C. Humans (Answer)
D. all of the above
10. Detail study of internal organs at level of tissue with the help of microscope is called?
A. Anatomy
B. Ecology
C. Histology (Answer)
D. Taxonomy.
11. It is the branch of biology which deals with the study of functions of different parts of an organism?
A. Physiology (Answer)
B. Ecology
C. Taxonomy
D. Evolution
12. It is the branch of biology which deals with the study of relationship between organisms and their environment?
A. Ecology (Answer)
B. Taxonomy
C. Evolution
D. Genetics
13. It is the study of fossils and their relationship to the evolution of life upon earth?
A. Palacontology (Answer)
B. Cell Biology
C. Microbiology
D. Morphology
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14. The study of fossils of plants is termed as?
A. Palacobatany (Answer)
B. Palaezoolgy
C. Palaeontology
D. Microbiology
15. The study of fossils of animals is termed as?

A. Palaeobatany
B. Palaezoology (Answer)
C. Palaeontology
D. Microbiology
16. It is the study of hereditary characters transmitted from parents to offspring?

A. Genetics (Answer)
B. Evolution
C. Embryology
D. Molecular Biology
17. It is the branch of biology which deals with naming and classification of organisms?
A. Genetics
B. Morphology
C. Ecology
D. Taxonomy (Answer)
18. it is the study of the development of an organism from a fertilized egg or a zygote.?
A. Taxonomy
B. Evolution
C. Embryology (Answer)
D. Microbiology
19. The study of microrganisms is termed as?

A. Evolution
B. Microbiology (Answer)
C. Zoology
D. Paleontology
20. It is the branch of biology which deals with the study of structure and functions of molecunds of the cells such as
proteins, nucleci acid ,hormones and etc?
A. Molecular Biology (Answer)
B. Compound Biology
C. Genetics
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D. Evolution
21. The study of forces and factors which create change or variations that lead to the formation of new species is termed
as?
A. Evolution (Answer)
B. Ecology
C. Palaeconotology
D. Genetics.
22. The study of nuclear cytology is known as?

A. Neurology
B. Mycology
C. Rlinology
D. Karyology (Answer)
23. The study of preservation of life or the study of organisms at low temperature is known as?
A. Kalology
B. Malacology
C. Crybiology (Answer)
D. Dermatology
24. The study of animal behavior is known as?

A. Ecology
B. Sociology
C. Ethology (Answer)
D. Anthropology
25. Science for the genetical improvement of human race is called?

A. Genetics.
B. Euthenics
C. Eugenology (Answer)
D. Genecology
26. The science of characters and distribution of race is known as?

A. Ethonology (Answer)
B. Anthropology
C. Sociology
D. Taxonomy
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27. An intelligent scientific guess which scientists make based on with the available with the available facts is known as?
A. Observation
B. Hypothesis (Answer)
C. Deduction
D. None of the above
28. Deduction is a logical consequence of?

A. Hypothesis
B. Observation (Answer)
C. Inference
D. Experiment
29. A statement about which a scientist think may be the answer to the problem under study is known as?
A. Law
B. Hypothesis (Answer)
C. Deduction
30. Romans believed that material is caused by?

A. Bad air (Answer)
B. Plasmodium
C. Dirty water
D. All of the above
31. Severe deficiency of Vitamin D results in __________. (Answer)

A. scurvy
B. rickets (Answer)
C. night blindness
D. osteomalacia
32. People living in high altitudes (like mountains) usually have a _________. (Answer)
A. smaller number of Red Blood Cells
B. larger number of Red Blood Cells (Answer)
C. smaller number of White Blood Cells
D. larger number of White Blood Cells
33. The average adult has a blood volume of about __________ liters. (Answer)
A. 5 (Answer)
B. 5.5
C. 6
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D. 6.5
34. The average internal temperature of human body is __________. (Answer)

A. 35 C
B. 36 °C
C. 37 C (Answer)
D. 38 °C
35. Vitamin __________ is needed for the formation of a light-sensitive pigment in the retina. (Answer)
A. A (Answer)
B. C
C. D
D. B complex
36. About __________ of the body weight of a mammal is water. (Answer)

A. 60%
B. 65%
C. 70% (Answer)
D. 75%
37. On wound __________ fight foreign particles, like bacteria. (Answer)

A. White Blood cells (Answer)
B. Red Blood Cells
C. Platelets
D. Plasma
38. Blood is carried towards the heart by __________. (Answer)

A. Arteries
B. Capillaries
C. Veins (Answer)
D. none of these
39. __________ is essential for the formation of haemoglobin. (Answer)

A. Calcium
B. Iron (Answer)
C. Water
D. Carbohydrates
40. ___________ are needed as a source of energy for the vital activities of the body. (Answer)
A. Calcium
B. Iron
C. Water
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D. Carbohydrates (Answer)
41. The study of forces and factors which create change or variations that lead to the formation of new species is termed
as (Answer)
A. Evolution. (Answer)
B. Ecology.
C. Palaeconotology.
D. Genetics.
42. The study of nuclear cytology is known as (Answer)

A. Neurology.
B. Mycology.
C. Rlinology.
D. Karyology (Answer)
43. The study of preservation of life or the study of organisms at low temperature is known as (Answer)
A. Kalology.
B. Malacology.
C. Crybiology. (Answer)
D. Dermatology.
44. The study of animal behaviour is known as (Answer)

A. Ecology.
B. Sociology.
C. Ethology. (Answer)
D. Anthropology.
45. Science for the genetical improvement of human race is called (Answer)
A. Genetics.
B. Euthenics.
C. Eugenology. (Answer)
D. Genecology.
46. The science of characters and distribution of race is known as ..... (Answer)
A. Ethonology. (Answer)
B. Anthropology.
C. Sociology.
D. Taxonomy.
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47. An intelligent scientific guess which scientists make based on with the available with the available facts is known as
(Answer)
A. Observation.
B. Hypothesis. (Answer)
C. Deduction.
D. None of the above.
48. Deduction is a logical consequence of (Answer)

A. Hypothesis.
B. Observation. (Answer)
C. Inference.
D. Experiment.
49. A statement about which a scientist think may be the answer to the problem under study is known a (Answer)
A. Law. (Answer)
B. Hypothesis
C. Deduction
50. Romans believed that material is caused by (Answer)

A. Bad air.
B. Plasmodium. (Answer)
C. Dirty water.
D. All of the above.
51. Which one of the following is the study of fossils (Answer)

A. Ecology
B. Physiology
C. Paleontology (Answer)
D. Evolution
52. The study of structures of organisms, their cells and their organelles at moelcular level is known as (Answer)
A. Molecular biology (Answer)
B. Environmental biology
C. Microbiology
D. Cell biology
53. Biology is the scientific study of (Answer)

A. Plants
B. Animals
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C. Bacteria
D. Living organisms (Answer)
54. Which one of the following is not the character of living organisms (Answer)
A. They can acquire and use energy
B. They can grow in size
C. They respond to stimuli
D. They do not adopt to the environment (Answer)
55. The study of animals is known as (Answer)

A. Geography
B. Topography
C. Zoology (Answer)
D. Botany
56. Biologists mainly deal with matters relating to (Answer)

A. Living part of nature
B. Non living things influencing living things
C. How life works
D. All three a b and c (Answer)
(Answer)
57. Which disease was one of man's important biological problems which ,like other diseases was associated with a large
number of biological problems?
A. Cholera
B. Small pox.
C. Malaria. (Answer)
D. Tetanus.
58. It is disease which used to exist in the past in most countries of old world. (Answer)
A. Small pox.
B. Malaria. (Answer)
C. Measals.
D. Cholera
59. Who first discovered plasmodium growing and multiplying in the blood of man ?
A. T.H .Morgan.
B. Ronald Ross. (Answer)
C. A.F.A.King.
D. Grass.
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60. Anatomy is the study of (Answer)
A. Environmental relations
B. Heredity
C. Functions of parts of organism
D. Internal gross structure (Answer)
61. Biology is the scientific study of (Answer)

A. Plants
B. Animals
C. Bacteria
D. Living organisms (Answer)
62. Which one of the following is not the character of living organisms (Answer)
A. They can acquire and use energy
B. They can grow in size
C. They respond to stimuli
D. They do not adopt to the environment (Answer)
63. The word Malaria means (Answer)

A. Good air .
B. Bad air. (Answer)
C. Sweet air.
64. Which disease killed more peoples than any other death causing factors including all other diseases,natural
calamities and wars?
A. Small Pox
B. Mjeasles.
C. Malaria. (Answer)
D. Tetanus
65. Malaria is more common in (Answer)

A. Tropical areas. (Answer)
B. Southern areas.
C. Eastern areas.
D. All over the word
66. Physician of Egypt,China,India, Italy and Greece described the malarial disease even about. (Answer)
A. One thousand year ago.
B. Two thousand years ago. (Answer)
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C. Three thousand years ago.
D. Four thousand years ago.
67. Which is the cause of malaria infection?

A. Bacteria.
B. Plasmodium. (Answer)
C. Algae.
D. Viruses.
68. In 1878, who observed the real cause of malaria i.e Plasmodium?
A. Laveran. (Answer)
B. Ronal Ross.
C. A.F.A.King.
D. Grassi.
69. In 1889 who studied the life cycle of Plasmodium in Anopheles mosquito and discovered the relationship between
mam,mosquito Plasmodium?
A. Grassi. (Answer)
B. Ronal Ross.
C. A.F.A. King .
70. In 1878,who discovered tiny creatures under the microscope in the red blood cells of a material patient?
A. Robert Hooke.
B. Laveran. (Answer)
C. Galilio.
D. A.F.A.King.
71. Who first discovered plasmodium growing and multiplying in the blood of man.?
A. T.H .Morgan.
B. Ronald Ross. (Answer)
C. A.F.A.King.
D. Grass.
72. Anopheles mosquito carries Plasmodium which causes malaria in.?

A. Humans. (Answer)
B. Animals.
C. Sparrows.
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73. Plasodium is a.?
A. Symbiont.
B. Parasite. (Answer)
C. Saprophyte.
74. During the severe attack, the temperature of a malarial victim may rise up to.?
A. 97%F.
B. 98%F.
C. 100%F.
D. 106%F. (Answer)
75. During the malarial attack the rate of heart beat and breathing may.?
A. Decrease.
B. Increase. (Answer)
C. Remains constant.
76. The life cycle of malarial parasite was first of all studied by Grassi in.?
A. 1800.
B. 1808. (Answer)
C. 1878
D. 1883.
77. In 1808 the life of cycle of malarial parasite was first of all studied by.?
A. Grassi. (Answer)
B. A.F.A.King.
C. Ronald Ross.
D. Laveran.
78. Who studied the life cycle of Plasmodium in female mosquito to discover relationship between man,mosquito and
Plasmodium.?
A. Ronald Ross.
B. Laveran.
C. A.F.A.King.
D. Grassi. (Answer)
79. The infected carrier female Anopheles injects malarial parasite in the form of.?
A. Sporozoites. (Answer)
B. Parasites.
C. Merozoites.
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D. Saprophytes.
80. The sporozoites (A form of Plasmodium ,A cause of Malarial) enter the liver through the.?
A. Blood. (Answer)
B. Lymph.
C. Oesophagus.
D. Small Intestine.
81. The theory which states that all animals and plants are composed of cells and cell products is known as.?
A. Cell Theory. (Answer)
B. Atomic Theory.
C. Bohr's Theory.
82. Which Of the following ,which of the most fundamental generalization in biology.?
A. Micor-biology.
B. Microscope.
C. Cell theory. (Answer)
D. Discovery of Cell.
83. The first phase of sexual reproduction of malarial parasite completes in the.?
A. Stomach of man.
B. Stomach of mosqutio. (Answer)
C. Liver of man.
D. Liver of mosquito.
84. In the liver of malarial patient,each aprozoite divides producing a large number of new cell called.?
A. Merozoites. (Answer)
B. Neurons.
C. Saprophytes.
D. all of the above.
85. The first useful microscope was invented shortly before.?

A. 1500.
B. 1600. (Answer)
C. 1700.
D. 1800.
86. In 1610, who made microscope and used it to observe very small animals.?
A. Robert Hooke.
B. Galilo. (Answer)
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C. Aristotle.
D. Laveran.
87. Who observed nucleus in the cells of orchids under the microscope.?
A. Robert Hook.
B. A.F.A.King.
C. Galilieo.
D. Henri Dutrochet. (Answer)
88. In 1831, Robert Brown discovered a title spherical body within a box like cells of living plant which he called the.?
A. Nucleus. (Answer)
B. Vacuole.
C. Golgi Bodies.
D. Centrosome.
89. In the cells of liver the sprozoites multiply for about how many days to produce large number of merozoites.?
A. 6 Days.
B. 12 Days. (Answer)
C. 18 Days.
D. 24 Days.
90. In which blood cells the sprozoites of saliva pass and multiply there for 12 days.?
A. RBCs. (Answer)
B. WBCs.
C. Platelets.
91. Which plant cells give support to plant body.?

A. Phloem cells.
B. Xylem cells.
C. Sclerenchymatous cells. (Answer)
D. Parenchyma cells.
92. Who formulated Cell theory.?

A. Schwan.
B. M.J.Schleiden.
C. Henri Dutrochet.
D. Both A & B (Answer)
93. The great contributing of Sch-wan was.?
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A. What he saw.
B. How interpreted what he saw. (Answer)
C. Cell discover.
94. The function of an organism is the result of sum of activities and interaction of the.?
A. Neurons.
B. Tissues.
C. Muscles.
D. Cell units. (Answer)
95. Which cell can contract and relax.?

A. Muscle cells. (Answer)
B. Excreterov cells.
C. Nervous cells.
D. Respitatory cells.
96. Which cells secrete harmones.?

A. Tissue cells..
B. Museles cells
C. Respiratory.
D. Glands. (Answer)
97. Which is the basic structural as well as functional unit for all organisms.?
A. Tissue.
B. Cell. (Answer)
C. Gland.
D. Atom.
98. Which of the following blood cells carry oxygen.?

A. W.B.Cs.
B. Platelets.
C. R.B.Cs. (Answer)
99. In plants and mineral salts from soil to the aerial parts of the plant are conducted through.?
A. Xylem vessels. (Answer)
B. Phloem vessels.
C. Vascular bundle.
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100. In plants which cells are concerned with transport of food.?
A. Phloem vessels. (Answer)
B. Xylem vessels.
C. Vascular bundle.
101. The movement of materials across the cell membrane with the help of biological energy provided by ATP is called.?
A. Passive Transport.
B. Endocytosis.
C. Active Transport. (Answer)
D. Fractionation.
102. It is the process in which the cell membrane helps to take in material by infolding in the form of vacuole.?
A. Electrolysis. (Answer)
B. Fractionation.
C. Endocytosis.
D. Active transport.
103. In plants which cells are concerned with transport of food.?

A. Phloem vessels. (Answer)
B. Xylem vessels.
C. Vascular bundle.
104. In plants ,which of the following cells are used to store surplus food.?
A. Chlorenchymatous cells.
B. Parenchymatous cells. (Answer)
C. Sclerenchymatous cells.
D. Golgi bodies.
105. The outermost layer in a plant cell is.?

A. Cell membrane.
B. Plasma membrane.
C. Nuclear membrane.
D. Cell wall. (Answer)
106. Chemically cell membrane is composed of closely associated molecules of.?

A. Proteins.
B. Proteins and lipids. (Answer)
C. lipids.
D. Carbohydrates.
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107. What is the percentage of lipid molecules in the cell membrane.?
A. 40-60%.
B. 60-80%.
C. 20-40%. (Answer)
A. 80-100%.
108. Which plant cells give support to plant body.?

A. Sclerenchymatous cells. (Answer)
B. Phloem cells.
C. Xylem cells.
D. Parenchyma cells.
109. In plants,which cells carry out photosynthesis. ?

A. Sclerenchymatous.
B. Paranchymatous.
C. Chlorenchymatous. (Answer)
110. In cell membrane in addition to proteins and lipid there is a small of quantity of.?
A. Carbohydrates. (Answer)
B. Fast.
C. Cellulose.
D. Mineral.
111. The content of reticulmn are separated from cytoplasmic material by.?
A. Cystole.
B. Cytosol.
C. Lipid molecules.
D. Cisternae. (Answer)
112. Ribosomes were first of all discovered by.?

A. Laveran
B. Grassi.
C. Palade. (Answer)
D. Robert Brown.
113. They are composed of almost an equal amount of RNA and protein.?
A. Pibosomes. (Answer)
B. Golgi Bodies.
C. Mitochondria.
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D. Centriotes.
114. It is the process in which the cell membrane helps to take in material by infolding in the form of vacuole.?
A. Electrolysis. (Answer)
B. Fractionation.
C. Endocytosis.
D. Active transport.
115. A cell wall composed of.?

A. The Middle Lamella.
B. The Secondary Wall.
C. The Primary Wall. (Answer)
(Answer)
116. Chemically the secondary wall is composed of.?
A. Inorginc salts.
B. Silica.
C. Waxes.
D. All of the above. (Answer)
117. Through cell membrane ,which substances can pass more easily than others.?
A. Peptides soluble.
B. Lipid soluble. (Answer)
C. Nucleic acids soluble.
D. Cellulose soluble.
118. In many animal cells the cell membrane helps to take in materials by infolding in the form of vacules .This type of
intake is termed as.?
A. Endocytosis. (Answer)
B. Ingestion.
C. Digestion.
D. Ejection.
119. In plants cells,which structure provides a definite shape to the cell and makes it right.?
A. Cell wall. (Answer)
B. Cell membrane.
C. Chitin.
D. Epidermis.
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120. It consists of an aqueous ground substance containing a variety of cell organelles and other inclusions such as
wastes and storage products.?
A. Actoplasm.
B. Endoplasm.
C. Cytoplasm. (Answer)
D. none of the above.
121. Simple sae likely structure containing acid phoshates and hydrolytic enzymes involved in the cellular digestion are
called.?
A. Lysosomes (Answer)
B. Ribosomes
C. Cytosomes
D. Endoplasmic Reticulum
122. The Lososomes are present in almost all.?

A. Problematic cell.
B. Bacterial cells.
C. Eucharistic cells (Answer)
123. Which organells are involved in the synthesis of Fats.?

A. Mitochondria
B. Golgi Bodies
C. Ribosomes (Answer)
124. When many ribosomes get attached to the same stretch of mRNA they form a structure called.?
A. Cytosol
B. Polysome (Answer)
C. Polysome
D. Lipdis
125. Ribosomes are produced in the.?

A. Vlcuole
B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
C. Cytoplasm
D. Nucleus (Answer)
126. Which are called the factory of protein synthesis.?
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A. Lysosmes
B. Golgi Bodies
C. Ribosomes (Answer)
D. Mitochondria
127. Which is called the factory of ribosome’s.?

A. Nucleus
B. Vacuole
C. Nucleous (Answer)
128. Ribosomes were first of all discovered by.?

A. Laveran
B. Grassi
C. Robert Brown
D. Palade (Answer)
129. Ribosome’s consists of two subunits. The large subunit sediments at 60S while smaller subunit sediments at.?
A. 30S
B. 40S (Answer)
C. 50S
D. 60S
130. Two subunits if ribosome on attachment with each other form.?

A. 60S
B. 70S
C. 80S (Answer)
D. 90S
131. In all arthropods,the body is covered with a chitinous cuticle which is secreted by the.?
A. Echinoderm
B. Mesophyll
C. Chitin
D. Epidermis (Answer)
132. All insects have how many parts of legs.?

A. 3 (Answer)
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
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133. Snails belong to.?
A. Cephalopodsxc
B. Gastropods (Answer)
C. Athropods
D. None of them
134. It is stiff rod of special cells surrounded by connective tissue present in the mid -dorsal region and appears in the
embryos of all chordates.?
A. Notochord (Answer)
B. Placenta
C. Cranianta
D. None of Them
135. They are considered to be the most primitive and are surely the first of the vertebrates.?
A. Frogs
B. Jawless fishes (Answer)
C. Reptiles
D. Amphibinas
136. The phylum chordate comprise about how many species.?

A. 10,000
B. 30,000
C. 50,000 (Answer)
D. None of them
137. In mouth cavity of many molluscs there is a rasping tongue like structure _______ provided with many horny
teeth.?
A. Ligule
B. Bivalves
C. Radula (Answer)
D. Muscle
138. Sub-phylum vertebrate is also known as.?

A. Craniata (Answer)
B. Pisces
C. Aves
D. Amphibia
139. In man which organisms cause abscesses on the skin of arms or legs.?
A. Suinea worm (Answer)
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B. Ascaris
C. Bacteria
D. None of Them
140. In many which phylum the body of an organisms is usually divided in there regions called head, thorax and
abdomen.?
A. Annelida
B. Arthropods (Answer)
C. Chordata
D. None of them
141. According to modern system of taxonomy, living organisms have been classified into?
A. Five Kingdoms (Answer)
B. Three Kingdoms
C. Two Kingdoms
D. Non of above
142. The Brisance is which organism's life cycle, mode of transmission and interaction with their hosts are studied is.?
A. Parastitolgy (Answer)
B. Anatomy
C. Physiology
D. Social biology
143. Kingdom fungi includes.?

A. A Cellular, eukaryotic organisms
B. Non-chlorophylls, Multicultural, thallophytic organisms (Answer)
C. Non-chlorophylls, mulicellular eukaryotic organisms
D. None of above
144. Earthworm is included in.?

A. Kingdom Planate
B. Kingdom Protoctista
C. Kingdom Animalia (Answer)
D. None of Above
145. The study of organisms inhabiting the sea & ocean and the physical & chemical characteristics of their environment
is.?
A. Marine Biology (Answer)
B. Social Biology
C. Micro Biology
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D. None of Above
146. The molecules of living matter that provide building blocks are mostly based on.?
A. Nitrogen
B. Hydrogen
C. Carbon (Answer)
D. None of above
147. The word "BIOLOGY" has been derived from _____ word.?
A. Greek (Answer)
B. Latin
C. English
D. None of above
148. Amman Human blood is an example of?

A. Inorganic Compounds (Answer)
B. Ogranclle
C. Tissues
D. Simple Molecules
149. The branch of Biology which deals with the use of data and techniques of engineering & technology concerning
living organisms is?
A. Human Biology
B. Environmental Biology
C. Bio-Technology (Answer)
D. None of above
150. Scolidon or dog fish belong to the group fo fishes called.?

A. Bony fishes
B. Running fishes
C. Cartilaginous fishes (Answer)
D. None of Them
151. Which of the following is an example of "molecule".?

A. Chloroplast
B. A Nerve Cell
C. Hydrogen
D. DNA (Answer)
152. On the basis of collected facts and figures, a scientist formulates a feutative statement called.?
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A. Hypothesis (Answer)
B. Observation
C. Research Word
D. None Of Above
153. Organelles are.?

A. Unicellular Structures
B. Multi Cellular Structures
C. Sub-Cellular Structures (Answer)
D. None of above
154. Various tissue types combine to make up.?

A. Cells
B. Organ System
C. Organelles
D. Organs (Answer)
155. Two or more populations of different species living and interacting in the same area from.?
A. Biosphere
B. Ecosystem
C. Community (Answer)
D. Population Systems
156. A Group of similar cells that perform a specific function is.?

A. Tissues (Answer)
B. Organ
C. Organelle
D. Organ Systems
157. A group of very similar inter breeding organisms conscious.?

A. Biosphere
B. Species (Answer)
C. Ecosystem
D. Community
158. Members of one species inhabiting the same area from.?

A. Species
B. Community
C. Population (Answer)
D. None of above
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159. Functional unit of DNA is.?
A. Genes (Answer)
B. Nucleus
C. Chromosomes
D. Nucleolus
160. With different chemical arrangements and formation of complex molecules, the life emerges on the level of the?
A. Tissues
B. Cells (Answer)
C. Organs
D. Oran Systems
161. Malaria is associated with.?

A. Culex Mosquito
B. Anopheles Mosquito (Answer)
C. Curliest Mosquito
D. None of above
162. Biologist 'Grassi' discovered the life cycle of plasmodium in.?

A. 1896
B. 1897
C. 1998 (Answer)
D. None of above
163. The first antibiotic to be sicovred was.?

A. Cephalosporin
B. Penicillin (Answer)
C. Amino glycosides
D. Erythromycin
164. Immunization by vaccinatino was first introduced.?

A. Edward Jenner in 1795 (Answer)
B. Fleming in 1945
C. Florey & Chain in 1975
D. None of above
165. The science of growing terrestrial plants in an aerated solutions is.?

A. Hydrodynamics
B. Hydroponics
C. Hydro topics
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D. None of them (Answer)
166. An educated guess is called.?

A. Accumulated Data
B. Observation
C. Hypothesis (Answer)
D. None of above
167. Dolly, the sheep was a highly successful clone form a somatic cell, reported back in.?
A. 1992
B. 1994
C. 1996 (Answer)
D. None of above
168. Crop rotation helps in.?

A. Growth of pathogens
B. Soil infertility
C. Slowing of crops growth
D. Eradication of disease (Answer)
169. The entire surface region of earth inhabited by living things is called.?
A. Catashpere
B. Biosphere (Answer)
C. Ecosphere
D. None of above
170. The first living forms are.?

A. Simple Unicellular Organisms
B. Complex Multicellular
C. Simple A cellular Organisms (Answer)
D. None of above
171. The science of growing terrestrial plants in an aerated solution is?

A. Hydrodynamics
B. Hydroponics
C. Hydro Topics
D. None of above (Answer)
172. Of the following ,which of the most fundamental generalization in biology?

A. Cell theory (Answer)
B. Micor-biology
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C. Discovery of Cell
D. Microscope
173. An educated guess is called?

A. Accumulated Data
B. Observation
C. Hypothesis (Answer)
D. Inference
174. Dolly, the sheep was a highly successful cone from a somatic cell, reported back in.?
A. 1992
B. 1993
C. 1996 (Answer)
D. 1997
175. Crop rotation helps in?

A. growth of pathogens
B. Soil infertility
C. Slowing of crops growth
D. Eradiation of disease (Answer)
176. Advantage of hydroponic farming is?

A. Spreads weeds and soil disease problem
B. Crops are inhiited to grow in arid parts of the world
C. Area required for cultivation is reduced (Answer)
D. None of above
177. The entire surface region of earht inhabited by living things is called?
A. Cat sphere
B. Ecosphere
C. Biosphere (Answer)
D. None of above
178. Chloroplast is?

A. Cell
B. Molecule
C. Organelle (Answer)
D. Atom
179. "Plasmodium" in the human blood comes from?

A. Saliva of mosquito (Answer)
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B. Urine of Mosquito
C. Tears of Mosquito
D. Blood of Mosquite
180. The theory which states that all animals and plants are composed of cells and cell products is known as.?
A. Cell Theory (Answer)
B. Atomic Theory
C. Bohr's Theory
181. Enzyme is a Greek word which means?

A. In Virus
B. In bacteria
C. In fungi
D. in yeast (Answer)
182. Who discovered that certain molecules of ribonucleic acid function as enzymes?
A. Friedrich Wilhelm Kuhn Only
B. Friedrich and Thomas Cech
C. Thomas Cech only
D. Sidny Altman & Thomas cech (Answer)
183. Molecule of ribonucleic acid which function as enzymes are called?

A. Ribozymes (Answer)
B. Ribozmes
C. Ribozames
D. Ribosomes
184. The Important roe play by enzymes during reaction is?

A. Increase energy of activation of reaction
B. Maintain energy of activation of reaction
C. Lower down energy of actiavtion of reaction (Answer)
D. No effect on energy of activation of reaction
185. Naturally, most of the enzymes are?

A. Proteins (Answer)
B. Lipids
C. Carbohydrates
D. Vitamins
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186. Regarding nature of enzymes, which one is correct?
A. The are inorganic catalyst
B. Large quantities are required to bring a change in large amount of substrate
C. The are non=specific in their nature but specific in their action
D. They are specific both in their naure and action (Answer)
187. Regarding enzyme moleucles?

A. Smaller in size than the substrate
B. Of same size as substrate
C. Greater in size than molecules (Answer)
D. No relation with substrate
188. Enzyme molecules are?

A. Heat sensitive but not pH sensitive
B. pH sensitive but not heat sensitive
C. Both A & B (Answer)
D. None of above
189. Fischer in 1898 proposed?

A. Induce Fit Theory
B. Enzyme Lock Theory
C. Catalyst Fit Theory
D. Key-Lock Theory (Answer)
190. Koshland in 1959 proposed?

A. Enzyme Lock Theory
B. induce Fit theory (Answer)
C. Catalyst Fit Theory
D. None of above
191. Compound Microscope was invented by Galileo in?

A. 1610 (Answer)
B. 1510
C. 1660
D. None of above
192. The nucleus in the cell was discovered by?

A. Robert Brown in 1831 (Answer)
B. Robert Hooke in 1665
C. Robert Brown in 1665
Page 32
D. Robert Hooke in 1831
193. Magnification of a microscope is calculated by?

A. Power of eye piece x magnifying power of it's objetive (Answer)
B. Power of eye piece - magnifying power of it's objetive
C. Power of eye piece + magnifying power of it's objetive
D. None of above
194. The term "CELL" was first used by?

A. Robert Brown in 1831
B. Robert Hooke in 1665 (Answer)
C. Robert Brown in 1665
195. Which scientist observed that the nucleus was surrounded by a fluid in the cell?
A. Robert Brown in 1831
B. Robert Hooke in 1665
C. Schwann in 1839 (Answer)
196. Cell Theory was proposed by?

A. Robert Hooke & Robert Brown
B. Robert Hooke & Schleiden
C. Schleiden & Schwann (Answer)
D. Robert Hooke & Schwann
197. According to Cell Theory?

A. Not all organism are composed of cells
B. There is no intreaction between different cell unit
C. Cell is "de novo" structure, could arise form non-cellular
D. Cell can arise only by division of pre-existing cell (Answer)
198. The microscope in which visible light is used as source of illumination is?
A. Light microscope (Answer)
B. X-ray microscope
C. Electron microscope
D. U-V ray microscope
199. The Electron microscope has been designed by?

A. Jensen & Hand of Holland
B. Schleiden & Schwann of Germany
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C. Knoll & Rusk of Germany (Answer)
D. None of above
200. Microscope unaffected by magnetic field is are?

A. Electron microscope
B. Transmission Elecron microscope
C. Scanning Electron Microscope
D. Light Microscope (Answer)
201. In man which organisms cause abscesses on the skin of arms or legs?
A. A.Ascaris
B. Bacteria
C. Ring worm
D. Suinea worm (Answer)
202. In many which phylum the body of an organisms is usually divided in there regions called head, thorax and
abdomen?
A. Annelida
B. Echinodermata (Answer)
C. Chordata
D. Arthropods
203. Which family consists of 600 genera and 10,000 species with world wide in distribution?
A. Poaceae (Answer)
B. Solanaceae
C. Fabaceae
D. Leguminoseae
204. Which family consists of 600 genera and 10,000 species which world wide in distribution?
A. Poaceae (Answer)
B. Solanaceae
C. Legminoseae
D. None of Above
205. Potato belongs to the family?

A. Cruciferae
B. Leguminosae
C. Gramineae
D. Solanaceae (Answer)
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206. Amoeab moves in water with the help of locomotory organs called?
A. Setae
B. Pseudopodia (Answer)
C. Tube feet
D. None of Above
207. In coelentrates mesderm give rise to?

A. Digestive System
B. Neverous System
C. Lining of the gut
D. Circulatory System (Answer)
208. Animals included in this phylum are called?

A. Flateworns and Tapeworns (Answer)
B. Tapeworns
C. Flateworns
D. Roundworns
209. In Planaria the locomotion is brought about by the beating of_______located on the ventral surface and the
contractions and relaxations of body muscles?
A. Setae
B. Pseudopdia
C. Cilia (Answer)
D. Flagella
210. Liver fluke is parasite in the liver of?

A. Sheep
B. Goat
C. Cattle
D. All of the above (Answer)
211. The minimum resolved distance is?

A. Magnification
B. Resolation
C. Resolvation
C. Resolution (Answer)
212. To distinguish one part of the cell from another, which one is important?
A. Magnification
B. Resolution
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C. Contrast (Answer)
D. Fractionation
213. Isolation of cellular components to determine their chemical composition is called?

A. Magnification
B. Resolution
C. Contrast
D. Fractionation (Answer)
214. Homogenizer is used for sedimentation in?

A. Magnification
B. Fractionation
C. Centrifugation (Answer)
D. None Of Above
215. Biochemical analysis of various cell fraction can be done by?

A. Magnification
B. Resolution
C. Contrast
D. Centrifugation (Answer)
216. Prokaryotes contain which of the following?

A. Mitochondria
B. Mesosomes (Answer)
C. Nucleous
D. Lysosomes
217. infoldings of plasma membrane found in prokaryotest are called?

A. Mesosomes (Answer)
B. Merosomes
C. Perisomes
D. None Of Above
218. Which one is the following is non-membrane bound organelle?

A. Mitochondria
B. Ribosomes (Answer)
C. Golgi-Apparatus
D. Lysosomes
219. Fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane was proposed by?

A. Jensen & Hans
Page 36
B. Knoll & Rusk
C. Singer & Nicolson (Answer)
D. None Of Above
220. The phospholipids molecules in the plasma membrane are arranged in?
A. Single Layer
B. Tow Parallel Layers (Answer)
C. Two Perpendicular Layers
D. None Of Above
221. Which family consists of 600 genera and 10,000 species with world wide in distribution?
A. Poaceae (Answer)
B. Solanaceae
C. Leguminoseae
D. Fabaceae
222. Which family consists of 600 genera and 10,000 species which world wide in distribution?
A. Solanaceae
B. Legminoseae
C. Fabaceae
D. Poaceae (Answer)
223. Which of these plants grow in an environment that is neither very wet nor very dry?
A. Sporophyte
B. Mesophytes (Answer)
C. Saprophytes
D. Tracheophytes
224. Such plants which are adapted to survival under conditions a limited supply of water in its habitat are known as.
(Answer)
A. Hydrophytes
B. Saprophytes
C. Xerophytes (Answer)
D. Pteridophytes
225. A class of xerophytes have developed in a manner by which they can store large amount food and water.This is
called?
A. Succulents (Answer)
B. Rhizomes
C. Hydrophytes
Page 37
D. Zooids
226. Which of these are perennial stems usually horizontal in position?

A. Rhizopus
B. Rhizoids
C. Rhizomes (Answer)
227. How many species of plants are known uptill now?

A. 50,000
B. 45,000
C. 545,000
D. 550,000 (Answer)
228. All living things except bacteria and blue green algae are termed as (Answer)
A. Eukaryotes (Answer)
B. Prokayotes
C. Lsosmes
229. Family solanaceae is large family with about how many genera?
A. 70 (Answer)
B. 80
C. 90
D. 100
230. Whihc Of the following which family consists of 600 genera and 10,000 species with world wide in distribution
(Answer)
A. Family Poaceae (Answer)
B. Family Solanceae
C. Family Leguminoseae
D. Family Fabaceae
Page 38
Physics MCQs
Solved With
Answers
Page 39
1. The branch of physics which deals the properties of matter and energy and their mutual relation is called.
A. Chemistry
B. Biology
C. Physics (Answer)
D. Astronomy.
2. The orange light emitted from krypton -86 is used to define

A. Kg
B. Mater (Answer)
C. CM
D. Second
3. The unit of force in British engineering system is

A. Newton
B. Dyne
C. Pound (Answer)
D. Kelvin
4. The unit of mass in foot-pound system is

A. Kg
B. Slug (Answer)
C. Ampere
D. Gram
5. The dimension formula of velocity is.

A. LT-2
B. M0LT-2
C. LT-1 (Answer)
D. LMT-1
6. The Dimension formula of acceleration is

A. LT-2
B. ML2T-2
C. LT-2 (Answer)
D. L0MT
Page 40
7. Cs- 133 is used to measure
A. Time (Answer)
B. Mass
C. Length
D. Force
8. One atton is equal to

A. 10 Femto
B. 100 Femto
C. 10-3 Femto (Answer)
D. 1000 Femto
9. One inch is equal to

A. 0.254 m
B. 0.254 cm
C. 2.54 cm (Answer)
D. 25.4 cm
10. The total number of significant figures in 0.0054

A. 1
B. 2 (Answer)
C. 3
D. 4
11. One meter is equal to

A. 1000 mm (Answer)
B. 100 mm
C. 0.01 mm
D. 0.001 mm
12. The unit of weight in M.K.S system is

A. Newton (Answer)
B. Dyne
C. Erg
D. None of These
13. Which of the following is a scalar quantity.

A. Energy (Answer)
B. Velocity
C. Force
D. Torque
Page 41
14. Which is the vector quantity.
A. Density
B. Charge
C. Impulse (Answer)
D. Work
15. A vector which has magnitude one is called

A. Null vector
B. Position vector
C. Unit vector (Answer)
D. None of these
16. The angle between two rectangular components of a vector is

A. 30’
B. 60’
C. 180’
D. 90’ (Answer)
17. A force of 6 N is acting along x-axis. Its y-Component is

A. 6 N
B. Zero (Answer)
C. 12 N
D. 3 N
18. Time is example of

A. Vector
B. Scalar (Answer)
C. Negative of a vector
D. Null vector
19. Torque is the product of

A. Mass and acceleration
B. Force and mass
C. Mass and velocity
D. Force and vertical distance of force from axis of rotation. (Answer)
20. One Revolution is equal to

A. 360 (Answer)
B. 180
C. 90
Page 42
D. 270
21. If we add all the 7 colours of rainbow (red, yellow, blue, green, orange, violet and indigo), the resultant colour would
be?
A. White (Answer)
B. Black
C. Maroon
D. Dark Blue
22. When white light passes through a prism, it splits into ---------- colours.
A. 5
B. 6 (Answer)
C. 7
D. 8
23. A camera uses a ---------- to form an image on a piece of film at the back.
A. convex lens (Answer)
B. concave lens
C. diverging lens
D. one of these
24. Short-sight defect could be corrected by a ----------.

A. convex lens
B. concave lens (Answer)
C. converging lens
D. none of these
25. Red + Green + Blue = ?

A. White (Answer)
B. Black
C. Maroon
D. Dark Blue
26. Ozone layer protects the Earth from ---------- radiations from the Sun.
A. microwaves
B. infrared
C. X-rays
D. ultraviolet (Answer)
27. The distance of Moon from the Earth is ---------- km.

A. 364,000
Page 43
B. 384,000 (Answer)
C. 464,000
D. 484,000
28. There are ---------- planets in orbit around the Sun.

A. 6
B. 7
C. 8 (Answer)
D. 9
29. Planets are kept in orbit by the?

A. Attraction among the Planets
B. Attraction among the Planets and the Sun
C. Radiations from the Sun
D. Gravitational pull of the Sun (Answer)
30. Which from the following is NOT a Renewable Energy?

A. Geothermal
B. Solar
C. Nuclear (Answer)
31. One pascal in SI is equal to (Answer)

A. One newton metre
B. One newton metre-1
C. One newton metre-2 (Answer)
D. One dyne cm2
32. One big advantage of the atomic standards of length and time is that (Answer)
A. They are of human size
B. They can be measured with simple equipment
C. They are natural units
D. They can be duplicated anywhere (Answer)
33. The correct unit of power is

A. Kilowatt (Answer)
B. Dynes
C. Joule
D. Kilowatt-hour
34. One Fermi is equal to (in SI) (Answer)

A. 10-6 farad (Answer)
Page 44
B. 10-6 Henry
C. 10 -12 metre
D. 10 -12 Angstrom
35. Out of the followings which is not a characteristic of the fundamental units?
A. They are well defined
B. They are easily reproductive
C. They are not related to each other (Answer)
D. They do not change with change of conditions as temperature, state of motion, pressure etc.
36. In S.I System, the correct unit of pressure is

A. Atmosphere
C. Pascal (Answer)
C. Dynes per square cm
D. Mm of mercury
37. Choose the physical quantity which is not defined in terms of force per unit area
A. Pressure
B. Stress
C. Strain (Answer)
D. young's modulus
38. A pressure of 106 dynes/cm2 in C.G.S. is equivalent to ... in M.K.S.

A. 105 N/m2 (Answer)
B. 104 N/m2
C. 106 N/m2
D. 103 N/m2
39. Given the density of wood is 0.5 gm per c.c. in the C.G.S. system of units. Its value in MKS units is given by
A. 500 (Answer)
B. 50
C. 0.5
D. 5,000
40. Which of the following is dimensionally correct?

A. Pressure = Energy per unit area
B. Pressure = Energy per unit volume (Answer)
C. Pressure = Force per unit volume
D. Pressure = momentum per unit volume per unit time
41. Which of the following pairs of physical quantities have identical dimensions?
Page 45
A. Moment of a force and Angular Momentum
B. work and Energy (Answer)
C. Torque and Energy
D. None of these
42. The quantity e 2/hc , where 'e' is the electronic charge 'h' is the Planck's constant and 'c' is the velocity of light
A. has the dimension of mass
B. has the dimension of length
C. has the dimension of time
D. is dimensionless (Answer)
43. If the velocity of light c, the constant of gravitation G and Planck's constant have chosen as fundamental units , the
dimensions of length in the new system is
A. C -13/2 G 1/2 h
B. C -1/2 G -1/2 h
C. C -5/2 h (Answer)
D. none of these
44. State the physical quantity represented by L 2 T2 0-1 where 0 is represents the unit temperature
A. Thermal capacity of the body
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Specific thermal capacity
D. specific latent heat of vaporization (Answer)
45. Correct unit of capacitance in SI system is

A. Nf
B. Pf
C. F (Answer)
D. Uf
46. The correct unit of inductance in SI system is

A. Lx
B. Lm
C. H (Answer)
D. Wb
47. The correct unit of magnetic flux in SI system is

A. Lumen
B. Tesla(T)
C. Henry(H)
D. Weber(wb) (Answer)
Page 46
48. The correct unit of illuinance in SI system is
A. Lumen
B. Candela
C. Lux (Answer)
D. Weber
49. In SI system the unit of specific heat capacity is

A. gm cm2 Sec-1
B. J.kg-1 .K -1 (Answer)
C. W.m-1 K-1
D. W.sr -1
50. In SI system the correct unit of mass is

A. Ton
B. Kg (Answer)
C. G
D. Mg
51. In SI system volt per meter is the unit of

A. Electric field
B. Electric field strength (Answer)
C. Potential
D. Potential difference
52. In SI system, Ohm is the unit of

A. Inductance
B. Electric resistance (Answer)
C. Resistivity
D. Conductance
53. The unit of energy is

A. J/s
B. Watt-day (Answer)
C. Kilowatt
D. None Of theme
53. A light year is the unit of

A. Speed
B. Energy
C. Time
Page 47
D. Distance (Answer)
54. M.K.S. unit of pressure

A. Atmosphere
B. Dynes per sq.com
C. Meter
D. Pascal (Answer)
55. Which one of the following is a scalar quantity?

A. Mass
B. Time
C. Volume
D. All the aboe (Answer)
56. Which one of the following is a vector quantity?

A. Velocity
B. Acceleration
C. Force
D. All the above (Answer)
57. The first law of motion supplies the definition of

A. Force
B. Velocity (Answer)
C. Acceleration
D. Momentum
58. A man is at rest in the middle of and on perfectly frictionless ice. He can get himself to the shore by taking the help
of Newton's
A. I law
B. II law
C. III law (Answer)
D. All the above
59. The action and reaction forces referred in Newton's third law of motion
A. Must act upon the same body
B. Must act upon different bodies (Answer)
C. Need not to be equal in magnitude but must have the same line of action
D. None of theme
60. A force of 100 dynes acts on a body of 5 gms for 10 secs. Find the change in momentum
A. 10 C.G.. Units
Page 48
B. 100 C.G.. Units
C. 1000 C.G.. Units (Answer)
D. 10000 C.G.. Units
61, A force of 100 dynes acts for 10 seconds on a body of mass 500g. What is the change in momentum?
A. 100 C.G.S. units
B. 10 C.G.S. units
C. 1000 C.G.S. units
D. 5000 C.G.S. units (Answer)
62. A rope attached to a post in the ground is pulled horizontally with a force of 80 kg. The pole pulls back with a force of
A. 1000 kg
B. 80 kg (Answer)
C. 40 kg
D. 160 kg
63. We can clean a dirty carpet by beating. This is in accordance with

A. Newton's first law (Answer)
B. Newton's second law
C. Newton's third law
64. A force of 100 dynes acts on a body of 5 gms for 10 secs. What is the velocity produced?
A. 2 fr/sec
B. 20 fr/sec
C. 200 fr/sec (Answer)
D. 2000 fr/sec
65. Swimming is possible because of which law of motion?

A. Second
B. First
C. Third (Answer)
66. A player caught a cricket ball of mass 150 gm. Moving at a rate of 20m/s. If the catching process be completed in 0.1
s. The force of the blow exerted by the ball on the hands is
A. 3000N
B. 300N
C. 30N (Answer)
D. 30,000N
Page 49
67. When a body is accelerated
A. Its velocity always changes (Answer)
B. Its direction always changes
C. Its speed always changes
D. Its falls towards the earth
68. A force of 150 dynes acts on a mass of 50 gms for 5 seconds. What is the acceleration produced?
A. 4 cms/sec2
B. 9 cms/sec2
C. 10c cms/sec2
D. None of these (Answer)
69. The action and reaction forces referred in Newton's third law of motion
D. Must be equal in magnitude bu tneed not have the same line of action
70. A force of 100 dynes acts on a body of 5 gms for 10 secs. Find the change in momentum.
A. 10 C.G.. Units
B. 100 C.G.. Units
C. 1000 C.G.. Units (Answer)
D. 10000 C.G.. Units
71. The direction of the velocity of a body cannot change, when its acceleration is constant. The statement is?
A. True
B. False (Answer)
C. Uncertain
72. What acceleration will a force of 5N impart to a mass of 5 kg.?

A. 5 N/kg
B. 5M/sec2
C. 1M/sec2 (Answer)
D. None Of the above
73. When a body is accelerated.?

A. Its velocity always changes (Answer)
B. Its direction always changes
C. Its speed always changes
D. Its falls towards the earth
Page 50
74. A force of 100 dynes acts for 10 seconds on a body of mass500g. What is the change in momentum.?
A. 100 C.G.S. units
B. 10 C.G.S. units
C. 1000 C.G.S. units
D. 5000 C.G.S. units (Answer)
75. We can clean a dirty carpet by beating. This is in accordance with.?

A. Newton's first law (Answer)
B. Newton's second law
C. Newton's third law
76. A force of 100 dynes acts on a body of 5 gms for 10 secs. What is the velocity produced.?
A. 2 fr/sec
B. 20 fr/sec
C. 200 fr/sec (Answer)
D. 2000 fr/sec
77. Swimming is possible because of which law of motion.?

A. Second
B. First
C. Third (Answer)
78. A force of 150 dynes acts on a mass of 50 gms for 5 seconds. What is the acceleration produced.?
A. 4 cms/sec2
B. 9 cms/sec2
C. 10c cms/sec2
D. None of these (Answer)
79. A player caught a cricket ball of mass 150 gm. Moving at a rate of 20m/s. If the catching process be completed in 0.1
s. The force of the blow exerted by the ball on the hands is.?
A. 3000N
B. 300N
C. 30N (Answer)
D. 30,000N
80. The action and reaction forces referred in Newton's third law of motion.?
Page 51
D. Must be equal in magnitude but need not have the same line of action
81. A body at rest may have

A. Speed
B. Momentum
C. Velocity
D. Energy (Answer)
82. The weight of a 10 kg block is

A. 98 N (Answer)
B. 9.8 N
C. 10 N
D. 0.98 N
83. Let a disc, a cylinder, a solid sphere, and a ring be rolled down in an inclined plane simultaneously. Which will reach
first?
A. Disc
B. Cylinder
C. Solid sphere (Answer)
D. Ring
84. Which kind of storage device can be carried around?

A. Floppy disk (Answer)
B. Hard disk
C. System cabinet
D. Hard disk derive
85. Forces of 3N, 4N and 12N act at a point in mutually perpendicular direction. The magnitude of the resultant force in
newton is
A. 13
B. 11 (Answer)
C. 5
D. Indeterminate from the information given
86. Which of the following is not necessary for work to be done?

A. An applied force
B. A force component along the displacement
C. A displacement
D. A constant speed (Answer)
Page 52
87. A fixed pulley is employed to
A. Do more work with the same force but without using pulley
B. Change the direction of force (Answer)
C. Same work
D. Have mechanical advantage greater than one
88. The static friction is

A. Always greater than the dynamic friction
B. Always less than the dynamic friction
C. Equal to the dynamic fiction
D. Sometimes greater and sometimes less than the dynamic friction
89. Which is the suitable method to decrease friction?

A. Polishing
B. Ball and roller bearings
C. Lubrication
D. All of the above (Answer)
90. The force of friction that comes into action after the motion has started is known as
A. Dynamic friction
B. Static friction
C. Friction only
D. Limiting friction (Answer)
91. The pressure at the bottom of a tank of liquid is not proportional to.?
A. The density of the liquid
B. The area of the liquid surface (Answer)
C. The height of the liquid
D. The acceleration
92. What is the shape of the liquid meniscus in a capillary tube placed in a liquid that wets the surface of the tube.?
A. Flat (Answer)
B. Concave downwards
C. Convex up
D. None of the above is correct
93. A piece of weighted wood just floats in water. When place3d in alcohol (of lower density) it will.?
A. Float lower (Answer)
B. Float higher
C. Stay as before
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D. Sink
94. A force of 100 dynes acts for 10 seconds on a body of mass 500g. What is the change in momentum.?
A. 10 C.G.S units
B. 100 C.G.S units
C. 1000 C.G.S units
D. 5000 C.G.S units (Answer)
95. A 40kg cart moving at 3 m/s makes a head a head-on collision with a 20 kg cart at rest, as illustrated in Fig. 1.If the
collision is completely inelastic, the speed with winch the carts leave the impact is approximately.?
A. 2 m/s (Answer)
B. 6 m/s
C. 20 m/s
D. 0.2 m/s
96. If the earth stopped rotating, the weight of objects at the equator would.?
A. Be greater (Answer)
B. Be the same as before
C. Be less
D. Very with latitude
97. A satellite travels in a circular orbit at a speed of 20,000 km/hr to stay at a constant altitude. To escape from the
earth, the speed would have to be increased to.?
A. 28,000 km/hr
B. 21,000 km/hr
C. 40,000 km/hr (Answer)
D. 64,000 km/hr
98. A projectile is fired at an angle of 37° with an initial speed of 100 m/s. What is the approximate versicle component
of its velocity after 2s.?
A. 80 m/s
B. 40 m/s (Answer)
C. 60 m/s
D. 100 m/s
99. Two pieces of wire of the same material have their lengths in the ratio of 1:2 and diameters in the ratio of 2:1. If they
are stretched by the equal force, elongation will be int he ration of.?
A. 1:2
B. 2:1
C. 1:8 (Answer)
D. 8:1
Page 54
100. With the help of dimensions method it can be proved that frequency of a stretched wire.?
A. Does not depend on the mass of the wire
B. Depends on the displacement of the wire
C. Depends on the mass of the wire (Answer)
D. None of these
101. Let a disc, a cylinder, a solid sphere, and a ring be rolled down in an inclined plane simultaneously. Which will reach
first.?
A. Disc
B. Solid sphere (Answer)
C. Cylinder
Dl. Ring
102. Assuming the pulley to be frictionless and mass less, the smallest coefficient of static friction is 0.33 to cause the
cylinder to roll. If for the cylinder M=70kg and radius of gyration 400 mm. Then.?
A. The cylinder will move up and the mass will descend
B. The cylinder will move up and the mass will also move up
C. The cylinder will roll down the plane and mass will ascend (Answer)
D. None is true
A. Does not depend on the mass of the wire
B. Depends on the mass of the wire (Answer)
C. Depends on the displacement of the wire
D. None of these
104. When a body undergoes an acceleration.?

A. Its velocity increases
B. A force acts upon it (Answer)
C. Its speed increases
D. It falls toward the earth
105. Which kind of storage device can be carried around.?

A. Hard disk
B. System cabinet
C. Hard disk derive
D. Floppy disk (Answer)
106. A body is said to be perfectly elastic if.?
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A. It can freely move
B. Its surface is perfectly smooth
C. It is not affected by external force
D. It recovers its original shape/size when the deforming force is removed
107. A 30 kg. Block lies on a frictionless table and is connected to a 10 kg block by a rope passing over a frictionless
pulley.?
A. The acceleration of the 10 kg block is 9.8 m/s2
B. Both the blocks move with the same velocity
C. Both the blocks are accelerated by the same magnitude (Answer)
D. The acceleration acting on 10 kg block is zero
108. Let us suppose that a block resting on an inclined plane just begins to slide down the plane when the angle of
inclination is gradually increased to 30, the coefficient of friction will be equal to.?
A. Cos 300
B. Cot 300
C. Tan 300 (Answer)
D. Sin 300
109. Which of the following pairs have identical dimensions.?

A. Momentum and force
B. Pressure and surface tension
C. Work and kinetic energy (Answer)
D. Momentum of force and angular mementum
110. The maximum value of static friction is called.?

A. Rolling friction
B.Normal reaction
C. Limiting friction (Answer)
D. Coefficient of friction
111. What is the shape of the liquid meniscus in a capillary tube placed in a liquid that wets the surface of the tube.?
A. Concave downwards
B. Convex up
C. Flat (Answer)
112. A piece of weighted wood just floats in water. When place3d in alcohol (of lower density) it will.?
A. Float higher
B. Stay as before
C. Float lower (Answer)
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D. Sink
113. A force of 100 dynes acts for 10 seconds on a body of mass 500g. What is the change in momentum.?
A. 10 C.G.S units
B. 100 C.G.S units
C. 1000 C.G.S units
D. 5000 C.G.S units (Answer)
114. A 40kg cart moving at 3 m/s makes a head a head-on collision with a 20 kg cart at rest, as illustrated in Fig. 1.If the
collision is completely inelastic, the speed with winch the carts leave the impact is approximately.?
A. 6 m/s
B. 2 m/s (Answer)
C. 20 m/s
D. 0.2 m/s
115. If the earth stopped rotating, the weight of objects at the equator would.?
A. Be the same as before
B. Be less
C. Be greater (Answer)
D. Very with latitude
A. Depends on the mass of the wire (Answer)
B. Does not depend on the mass of the wire
C. Depends on the displacement of the wire
D. None of these

B. A force acts upon it (Answer)
C. Its speed increases
D. It falls toward the earth
118. A satellite travels in a circular orbit at a speed of 20,000 km/hr to stay at a constant altitude. To escape from the
earth, the speed would have to be increased to.?
A. 40,000 km/hr (Answer)
B. 28,000 km/hr
C. 21,000 km/hr
D. 64,000 km/hr
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119. A projectile is fired at an angle of 37° with an initial speed of 100 m/s. What is the approximate versicle component
of its velocity after 2s.?
A. 80 m/s
B. 40 m/s (Answer)
C. 60 m/s
D. 100 m/s
120. The static friction is.?

A. Always greater than the dynamic friction
B. Always less than the dynamic friction
C. Equal to the dynamic friction
D. Sometimes greater and sometimes less than the dynamic friction (Answer)
121. An explosion blows a rocket into three parts. Two piece go off at right angles to each other, a 100 kg piece at 12
m/s and 200 kg piece at 8 m/s. Then mass of third piece which flies off at an angle of 53° is
A. 10 kg
B. 20 kg
C. 30 kg (Answer)
D. 40 kg
122. A tuning fork of frequency 512 produces 6 beats in 1 second, when vibrating along with a vibrating segment of a
monometer wire. The frequency of the vibration of sonometer wire is
A. 512
B. 506
C. 518
D. 506 and 518 (Answer)
123. A tuning fork of frequency 645 Hz, gives resonance for 0.5 m column of hydrogen gas enclosed in a pipe closed at
one end. The speed of sound in hydrogen will be equal to
A. 2580 m/s (Answer)
B. 322.5 m/s
C. 645 m/s
D. 1290 m/s
124. The pitch of a sound is determined by

A. Frequency (Answer)
B. Speed
C. Direction
D. Number of beats
125. At the mean position of vibration, the velocity of the vibrating particle is
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A. Zero
B. Infinity
C. Maximum (Answer)
126. A particle moving with S.H.M passes through two points A and B, with the same velocity, having occupied 2 seconds
in passing from A to B; after another 2 seconds it returns toB. The period is
A. 2 seconds
B. 4 seconds
C. 5 seconds
D. 8 seconds (Answer)
127. Energy is not transferred in a standing wave

A. False
B. Uncertain
C. True (Answer)
D. None of these
128. Two similar open organ pipes when sounded together produce 7 beats/sec. If their lengths are in the ration of 50:
51, then the ration of their frequencies will be
A. 357:350
B. 50:51
C. 51:50 (Answer)
D. 1:7
129. The Laplaces's correction in the expression for the velocity of sound given by Newton is needed because sound
waves
A. Are longitudinal
B. Propagate isothermally
C. Propagate adiabatically (Answer)
D. Are of long wavelengths
130. What is the shape of the liquid meniscus in a capillary tube placed in a liquid that wets the surface of the tube?
A. Flat (Answer)
B. Concave downwards
C. Convex up
131. A body falling freely under gravity travels half its path in the last one second. The total time of fall is
approximately.?
A. 4.4s
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B. 3.4s (Answer)
C. 2.4s
C. 2.0s
132. An astronomical telescope has an objective of focal length 80 cm and gives 8 × angular magnification. The focal
length of the eye piece is.?
A. 6.0 cm
B. 8.0 cm
C. 10.0 cm (Answer)
D. 12.0 cm
133. The points of units angular magnification in a lens assembly are.?

A. Nodal Points (Answer)
B. Principal Points
C. Focal Points
D. Contin Points
134. In He0Ne laser the most favorable ratio of Helium to Neon for satisfactory laser action is.?
A. 7:1 (Answer)
B. 1:4
C. 4:11
D. 1:7
135. The electric field at 20 cm from the centre of a uniformly charged dielectric sphere of radius 10 cm is E. Then at a
distance 5 cm from the centre it will be.?
A. 16 E
B. 4 E
C. 2 E
D. Zero (Answer)
136. Two pieces of wire of the same material have their lengths in the ratio of 1:2 and diameters in the ratio of 2:1. If
they are stretched by the equal force, elongation will be int he ration of.?
A. 1:2
B. 1:8 (Answer)
C. 2:1
D. 8:1
137. The pressure at the bottom of a tank of liquid is not proportional to.?
A. The density of the liquid
B. The height of the liquid
C. The acceleration
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D. The area of the liquid surface (Answer)
138. A body in equilibrium may not have.?

A. Acceleration (Answer)
B. Momentum
C. Velocity
D. Kinetic energy
139. If C is proportional to D, then.?

A. The product CD is constant
B. The ration C/D is constant
C. C is smaller than D
D. C is larger then D (Answer)
(Answer)
B. Its speed increases
C. It falls toward the earth
D. A force acts upon it (Answer)
141. The units of physical quantities accepted all over the world is.?
A. S.I Units (Answer)
B. System of Integral units
C. BTU system
D. CGS systems
142. There are ------ basic quantities in S.I unit system.?

A. 3
B. 1
C. 6
D. 7 (Answer)
143. The significant figure in 30200 is.?

A. 5
B. 2
C. 3 (Answer)
D. 4
144. The significant figure in 0.00203090 is.?
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A. 9
B. 8
C. 0
D. 6 (Answer)
145. Electromagnetic wave theory of light as proposed by.?
A. Faraday
B. Newton
C. James Clark Maxwell (Answer)
D. Coulomb
146. The Only Pakistani Scientist (Physicist) who received Nobel Prize in Physics is.?
A. Dr. Muneer Ahmad
B. Dr. Abdul Qadeer Khan
C. Dr. Muneeb Ahmad
D. Prof. Abdul Salam (Answer)
147. The Quantum Theory was introduced (in 1900) by.?

A. Hertz
B. Bohr
C. Planck (Answer)
D. Einstein
148. The Dimensions of weight are.?

A. MLT2
B. MLT2 (Answer)
C. LT2
D. ML2T
149. The dimensions of angular momentum are.?

A. ML2T2 (Answer)
B. MLT2
C. MLT2+
D. MLT
150. The Relationship between the mater and energy is studied under.?
A. Statistics
B. Chemistry
C. Cosmology
D. Physics (Answer)
151. The dimensions of frequency are.?
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A. I.T
B. Lt2
C. Mt2
D. T2 (Answer)
152. One giga is equal to.?

A. 1 * 103
B. 1 * 106
C. 1 * 10-9
D. 1 * 109 (Answer)
153. One micro meter is equal to.?

A. 10-3 m
B. 10-6 m (Answer)
C. 10-2 m
D. 10-3 m
154. Candela is the unit of.?

A. Electric flux
B. Magnetic induction
C. Luminous intensity of light
D. Loudness of sound
155. The unit of absolute temperature is.?

A. Fahrenheit
B. Centigrade
C. Kelvin (Answer)
D. None of above
156. The atomic bomb is based of the principle of.?

A. Radioactivity
B. Pair
C. Fission reaction (Answer)
D. None of above
157. The prefix Pico represents.?

A. 1012
B. 10-9
C. 109
D. 10-12 (Answer)
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158. Which of the following is dimensionless.?
A. Pressure
B. Angle (Answer)
C. Density
D. Momentum
159. The SI unit of angular displacement is.?

A. Meter
B. Foot
C. Radian (Answer)
D. Centimeter
160. Light year is a unit of.?

A. Time
B. Light
C. Velocity
D. Distance (Answer)
161. Following pairs of physical quantities have identical dimensions?

A. Moment of a force and Angular Momentum
B. Work and Energy (Answer)
C. Torque and Energy
D. None of these
162. In SI system the correct unit of luminous intensity is.?

A. Kelvin
B. Lumen
C. Candela (Answer)
D. Lux
163. In SI system the correct unit of amount of substance is.?

A. Mole (Answer)
B. Liter
C. Gram
D. Milliliter
164. Sun and the other stars are virtuously huge nuclear explosion chambers producing a large amount of head and light
yet, we do not hear any of the explosions because.?
A. Heat and light are electromagnetic
B. Sound waves get attenuated completely before they reach the earth
C. The outer space is an absolute vacuum (Answer)
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D. None of above
165. The advantage of AC over DC is that.?

A. its generation coats much less
B. it contain more electrical energy
C. it can be transmitted over long distances with minimum power loss it is free (Answer)
D. from voltage fluctuation
166. A man is at rest in the middle of and on perfectly frictionless ice. He can get himself to the shore by taking the help
of Newton's
A. I law
B. II law
C. III law (Answer)
D. None of above
167. Which one Air bubble in water shines because of the phenomenon of.?
A. Refraction
B. Dispersion
C. Diffraction
D. Total internal reflection (Answer)
168. The action and reaction forces referred in Newton's third law of motion.?
B. Need not to be equal in magnitude but must have the same line of action
C. Must act upon different bodies (Answer)
D. None of above
169. The quantity e 2/hc , where 'e' is the electronic charge 'h' is the Planck's constant and 'c' is the velocity of light.?
A. Has the dimension of mass
B. Is dimensionless (Answer)
C. Has the dimension of length
D. Has the dimension of time

A. It falls toward the earth
B. Its velocity increases
C. A force acts upon it (Answer)
D. Its speed increases
171. In Wilson cloud chamber radiations become visible reflection light from?
A. Ions
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B. Nuclear radiations
C. Droplets of fog (Answer)
D. Glass window
172. The track formed in the Wilson cloud chamber due to alpha particles is?
A. Thin and broken line
B. Thick continuous line (Answer)
C. Thick line track in random direction
D. None of above
173. The track formed the Wilson cloud chamber due to beta particles is?
A. Thin and broken line (Answer)
B. Thick continuous line
C. Whole region exposed to radiations
D. None of above
174. The spontaneous emissions of radiations from heavy nucleus ( A > 83 ) is called?
A. Nuclear fission
B. Nuclear Fusion
C. Radioactivity (Answer)
D. None of above
175. Alpha particles are?

A. Protons
B. Positrons
C. Negatively charged
D. Helium nuclei (Answer)
176. When a nucleus emit an Alpha particles its charge number decreases by?
A. 3
B. 2 (Answer)
C. 6
D. 5
177. Beta particles are?

A. Protons
B. Electrons (Answer)
C. Positrons
D. Neutrons
178. Beta particles, carries a charge?
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A. 2e
B. +2e
C. -e
None of above
179. When a nucleus emits an alpha particle its atomic mass decreases by?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 4 (Answer)
D. 3
180. Gamma rays carries a charge?

A. -e
B. +e
C. No charge (Answer)
D. None of above
181. The reciprocal of the square root of the product of the magnetic permeability of a medium and its dielectric
constant is?
A. The velocity of light (Answer)
B. Its reluctance
C. Its impedance
D. Its specific heat
182. The radius of the circular path of a charge particle moving at right angles to a uniform magnetic field is directly
proportional to the?
A. Flux density
B. Momentum of the particle (Answer)
C. Wave length of ht radiation
D. Charge on the particle
183. A person cannot see distinctly objects situated at a distance greater than 60 cm from the eye. The power (in
diopters) of the lens he must use for the spectacles to correct the defect is?
A. 1.67 D
B. -1.67 D
C. -50 D
D. +60 D (Answer)
184. When we decrease the diameter of the objective lens of a telescope, then the resolution of telescope?
A. Decreases
B. Remains the same
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C. Depends on the focal length of the lens
D. Increases (Answer)
185. A astrono0mical telescope has a magnifying power of 8 when focuses for parallel for parallel rays. If the length of
the telescope be 18 cm, the focal length of the objective is?
A. 16 cm
B. 10 cm (Answer)
C. 144 cm
D. 2.25 cm
186. The vibrations of an unpasteurized light are taking place?

A. In all planes (Answer)
B. In one plane
C. In no plane
D. All are true
187. The quantity of the charge that passes through a conductor while a current of 5.0. A flows through it for 100S (in
coulombs) is?
A. 1800
B. 1000
C. 500 (Answer)
D. None of these
188. Lenz's law in E.M.I follows from Law of Conservation of?

A. Energy (Answer)
B. Momentum
C. Mass
D. Charge
189. The longitudinal chromatic aberration for an incident parallel beam of light on a lens of unit focal length is
numerically equal to?
A. Reciprocal of its dispersive power
B. Its dispersive power
C. Its focal length (Answer)
D. None of these
190. A magnet makes 5 oscillations per minute in earth's magnetic field (H = 0.3 Gauss). By what amount the field should
be increased so that the magnet may make 10 oscillations per minute?
A. 0.3 Gauss
B. 0.6 Gauss
C. 0.9 Gauss (Answer)
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D. 1.2 Gauss
191. To allow the body to oscillate with a measurably large amplitude under the influence of an external periodic force ?
A. F/m should be small
B. M should be small and F should be large (Answer)
C. W should be very large compared to w0
D. M should be large and F should be small
192. An automobile sounding its horn is moving away from an observer. The pitch of the horn's sound relative to its
normal pitch is?
A. The same
B. Higher or lower depending upon the exact frequency
C. Lower (Answer)
D. Higher
193. Ultrasonic sound waves ?

A. Cannot be heard (Answer)
B. Can be heard with the help of microphone
C. Can be heard by a normal human ear
D. Can be heard with the help of hearing apparatus
194. In stationary wave?

A. All the particles between two adjacent nodes vibrate in phase
B. All the particles perform simple harmonic motion
C. Particles on opposite sides of a node vibrate with a phase difference of
D. The amplitude of particle vibration at an anti node is equal to that of either component wave (Answer)
195. Assertion (A): Diffraction of sound waves is more evident in daily experience than that of light waves. Reason (R):
Sound waves are longitudinal, while light waves are transverse?
A. Both A and R correct and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R correct but R is the correct explanation of A (Answer)
C. A is correct,but R is incorrect
D. A is incorrect but R is correct
196. A tuning fork when sounded together with a tuning fork of frequency 256 emits two beats. On loading the tuning
fork of frequency 256, the number of beats heard are 1 per second. The frequency of the tuning fork is?
A. 254 (Answer)
B. 256
C. 257
D. 258
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197. Two organ pipes of same dimensions are filled with hydrogen and oxygen respectively. If oxygen is 16 times heavier
than hydrogen the ratio of the fundamental frequencies of the two organ pipes (assuming the elasticities of gases to be
nearly equal)will be?
A. 16:1
B. 1:1
C. 4:1 (Answer)
D. 5:1
198. Assertion (A): Solids can transmit both longitudinal and transverse wave. Reason (R):They resist changes in volume
but not changes of shape?
A. A is incorrect, but R is correct (Answer)
B. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
C. Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
D. A is correct, but R is incorrect
199. In order to achieve good acoustic property, a hall should have ?

A. Small but non-zero (Answer)
B. Zero reverberation
C. Large reverberation
200. A point on the crest of a transverse wave shall reach the trough after time?
A. T/4 (Answer)
B. T/2
C. 3T/4
D. T
201. Air bubble in water shines because of the phenomenon of?

A. Dispersion
B. Total internal reflection (Answer)
C. Refraction
D. Diffraction
202. Ice floats on water because the density of Ice is less than that of water, Out of the following what part of giant
icebergs remains above water?
A. 1/10
B. 1/4 (Answer)
C. 1/2
D. ¾
203. Which one of the following coolers has the longest wavelength?
Page 70
A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Red (Answer)
204. Sun and the other stars are virtuously huge nuclear explosion chambers producing a large amount of head and light
yet, we do not hear any of the explosions because?
A. Heat and light are electromagnetic
B. The outer space is an absolute vacuum (Answer)
C. Sound waves get attenuated completely before they reach the earth
D. The process involved in the interior of the sun and the starts relate to atomic and subatomic particles and not
molecules and their vibration
205. The advantage of AC over DC is that?

A. it can be transmitted over long distances with minimum power los
B. It contain more electrical energy
C. it is free from voltage fluctuation
D. its generation coats much less
206. The spherical shape of a small drop of a rain is due to?

A. Viscosity
B. Surface tension
C. atmospheric pressure
D. gravity
207. The blue color of sky can be attributed to?

A. differential scattering of the sunlight by the atmosphere
B. Total internal reflection of the sunlight by the atmosphere
C. Absorption of sunlight
D. Refraction of sunlight by the atmosphere
208. Which one of the following sets of properties are relevant for an electrical fuse wire needed for normal application?
A. Thick wire, high melting point alloy, short length (Answer)
B. Short length, low melting point alloy, thin wire
C. Large length, low melting point alloy, thin wire
D. Thick wire, low melting point alloy, large length
209. Which of the following device is use to step down the voltage of alternating current?
A. induction cool
B. Transformers
C. Transistor
Page 71
D. Rectifier
210. Which one of the following can be used to focus sunlight?

A. Plan mirror
B. Concave lens
C. Concave mirror
D. Convex mirror
211. A mass of 20 kg is at rest. Its momentum is?

A. Zero (Answer)
B. 200 kg m/sec
C. 196 n.sec
D. 20 kg m/sec
212. As we go away from the surface of earth, the value of g?

A. Increases
B. Decreases (Answer)
C. Becomes zero
D. None of these
213. How many feet are in a yard?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three (Answer)
D. Four
214. S.I is also called?

A. M.K.S System (Answer)
B. C.G.S. System
C. F.P.S. System
D. None Of These
215. Motion of molecules of a body at absolute zero is?

A. Maximum
B. Minimum (Answer)
C. Zero
D. None of these
216. Newton is the unit of?

A. Work
B. Force (Answer)
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C. Energy
D. All of these
217. Force per unit area is called?

A. Density
B. Viscosity
C. Pressure (Answer)
D. Energy
218. Momentum is called?

A. Force
B. Pressure
C. Tension
D. Impulse (Answer)
219. A 5 kg mass is falling freely. Its weight will be?

A. 5 N
B. Zero (Answer)
C. 19.6
D. 49 n
220. Earth is an?

A. Inertial frame
B. Non-inertial frame (Answer)
C. Reference exist
D. Three dimension
221. Al - Beruni found out this of various metals:

A. Mass
B. Densities (Answer)
C. Atomic number
D. Atomic weight
222. Dr. Abdul Salam got a Noble prize in Physics in.

A. 1959
B. 1969
C. 1979 (Answer)
D. 1989
223. Yaqub Alkindi's most important work was in sound and.

A. Optic (Answer)
Page 73
B. Music
C. Nuclear physics
D. Thermodynamic
224. Al - Haitham wrote a book on optic called:

A. Qanoon-al-Masoodi
B. Kitabul Manazir (Answer)
C. Hujjatul Baligha
D. Al – Hikama
225. Dr. Abdul Qadeer was born in?

A. 1926
B. 1936 (Answer)
C. 1946
D. 1950
226. Al - Beruni wrote more than?

A. 150 Books (Answer)
B. 250 Books
C. 350 Books
D. 450 Books
227. Dr. Abdul Salam was born in.

A. Jhang (Answer)
B. Sialkot
C. Lahore
D. Karachi
228. In scientific work the most important thing is.

A. Experiment
B. Theory
C. Observation (Answer)
D. Hypothesis
229. A systematic error is due to:

A. Experiment
Page 74
B. Instrument (Answer)
C. Weather
D. System
230. The formula for the density is?

A. Mass/volume (Answer)
B. Weight/volume
C. Height/volume
D. None of above
Page 75
Chemistry MCQs
Solved With
Answers
Page 76
1. Chemistry is the study of?
A. Structures
B. Energy
C. Properties
D. Matter (Answer)
2. Matter is composed of?

A. Atoms (Answer)
B. Radicals
C. Ions
D. Molecules
3. Boiling point of a liquid is a?

A. Bonding property
B. Physical property (Answer)
C. Internal property
D. Chemical property
4. Atoms are the building blocks of?

A. Light
B. Nucleus
C. Energy
D. Matter (Answer)
5. A substance that is composed of more than one substances but not in fixed ratio is?
A. Compound
B. Product
C. Element
D. Mixture (Answer)
6. A substance that is constant in composition be weight of different elements is?

A. An element
B. Compound (Answer)
C. Mixture
D. Liquid
Page 77
7. Properties that distinguish a substance from other but does not tell about its reaction ability will be a?
A. Energetic property
B. Physical property (Answer)
C. Reacting property
8. Physical chemistry is the?

A. Actual branch
B. Small branch
C. Side branch
D. Main branch (Answer)
9. A sample of pure matter is also called?

A. Reactant
B. Product
C. Substance (Answer)
D. Element
10. A mixture which has substances in fixed ratio throughout is a?

A. Homogeneous (Answer)
B. Compound
C. Heterogeneous
D. Element
11. When breaking of chemical bonds occur in a reaction, new substances?

A. Change
B. Form (Answer)
C. Disappear
D. reappears
12. Matter exists in different state?

A. 3 (Answer)
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
13. Boiling point of a liquid is a?

A. Physical property (Answer)
B. Bonding property
C. Internal property
Page 78
14. Ice and water are forms of matter?

A. Like
B. Alike
C. Same (Answer)
D. Different
15. Ice and water are merely different states?

A. Solid
B. Chemical
C. Physical (Answer)
D. liquid
16. When ice melts, it is a?

A. Physical change (Answer)
B. Internal change
C. Chemical change
D. External change
17. If a property of a substance indicates its ability to react, it is?

A. Physical property
B. Reacting property
C. Reducing property
D. Chemical property (Answer)
18. If during reaction, chemical bonds of a substance break, its properties change are?
A. Chemical (Answer)
B. Physical
C. Internal
D. External
19. Melting point of a substance is a?

A. Chemical property
B. Internal property
C. Basic property
D. Physical property (Answer)
20. If a substance undergoes a chemical reaction, its properties change are?

A. Physical
B. Apparent
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C. Internal
D. Chemical (Answer)
21. Gases can be compressed by?

A. Increasing temperature
B. Changing conditions
C. Decreasing pressure
D. Increasing pressure (Answer)
22. On compressing the gas, molecules?

A. Come close (Answer)
B. Go away
C. Reduce their volume
D. Change their shape
23. Gases possess a volume which is?

A. Different
B. Fixed
C. Not fixed
D. In definite (Answer)
24. Gaseous state is a form of matter?

A. Solid
B. Complicated
C. Simple (Answer)
D. Liquid
25. Gases occupy volume?

A. Definitely
B. All available (Answer)
C. Indefinitely
D. Partially
26. Because gases adopt the shapes of the container, they have?
A. Different shapes
B. Fixed shapes
C. No fixed shapes (Answer)
D. Definite shapes
Page 80
27. If the molecules of different gases do not react chemically, they can?
A. Defuse (Answer)
B. Refuse
C. Escape
D. Trap
28. Volume of a gas changes with?

A. Nature of gas
B. Size of atoms
C. Nature of contained
D. Shape of molecules (Answer)
29. Burning is a process?

A. Chemical (Answer)
B. Physical
C. Nuclear
D. Biological
30. Molecular of gas can?

A. Move (Answer)
B. Repel
C. Attract
D. Cannot move
31. When gases are allowed to expand, suddenly they

A. Heat up
B. Collaspe
C. React
D. Cool (Answer)
32. The volume of a mixture of gases is related to the volume of individual ga

A. Directly (Answer)
B. Indirectly (Answer)
B. Independent (Answer)
D. Dependent (Answer)
33. Increasing the temperature of a gas increases its

A. Volume
B. Kinetic energy (Answer)
C. Pressure
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D. Repulsive
34. Pressure of the gas molecules per unit area is

A. A force (Answer)
B. Collision
C. Molecules
D. Volume
35. The total pressure of a mixture gases is that of individual gases

A. Sum of partial pressures (Answer)
B. Multiple of partial pressure
C. Deference in partial pressure
D. Independent of partial pressure
36. The Pascal meter square is equal to

A. Equivalent
B. Equal
C. Not equal
D. Different (Answer)
37. The SI unit for the measurement of pressure of gas is

A. Newton
B. Pascal (Answer)
C. Pound
D. Corelomb
38. Newton per meeter square is equal to

A. One Pascal (Answer)
B. One ton
C. One atmosphere
D. One PSI
39. The instrument to measure the pressure of gas is called

A. Viscometer
B. Stalagmometre
C. Barometer
D. Photometre (Answer)
40. The temperature scale showing the freezing point of water as 0° is called
A. Fahrenheit
B. Kelvin
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C. Absolute
D. Celcius (Answer)
41. When gases are allowed to expand, suddenly they

A. Heat up
B. Collapse
C. React
D. Cool (Answer)
42. The volume of a mixture of gases is related to the volume of individual gas
A. Directly
B. Indirectly
C. Independent (Answer)
D. Dependent
43. Increasing the temperature of a gas increases its

A. Volume
B. Kinetic energy (Answer)
C. Pressure
D. Repulsive
44. Pressure of the gas molecules per unit area is

A. A force (Answer)
B. Collision
C. Molecules
D. Volume
45. The total pressure of a mixture gases is that of individual gases

A. Sum of partial pressures (Answer)
B. Multiple of partial pressure
C. Deference in partial pressure
D. Independent of partial pressure
46. The Pascal meter square is equal to

A. Equivalent
B. Equal
C. Not equal
D. Different (Answer)
47. The SI unit for the measurement of pressure of gas is
Page 83
A. Newton
B. Pascal (Answer)
C. Pound
D. Corelomb
48. Newton per meeter square is equal to

A. One Pascal (Answer)
B. One ton
C. One atmosphere
D. One PSI
49. The instrument to measure the pressure of gas is called

A. Viscometer
B. Stalagmometre
C. Barometer (Answer)
D. Photometre
50. The temperature scale showing the freezing point of water as 0° is called
A. Fahrenheit
B. Kelvin
C. Absolute
D. Celcius (Answer)
51. When kinetic energy of molecules of liquid is decreased sufficiently, short range attractive forces cause
A. Solidification (Answer)
B. Evaporation
C. Crystallization
D. Liquification
52. The properties of liquid that depend mainly on the number of molecules and not on their nature are
A. Comparative
B. Constitutive (Answer)
C. Colligative
D. Additive
53. The properties of liquid that depend upon arrangement of atoms in the molecules are called properties
A. Comparative
B. Constitutive
C. Colligative
D. Additive (Answer)
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54. When due to cooling and increase in pressure on gas molecule approach each other, there occur
A. Evaporation
B. Condensation (Answer)
C. Crystallization
D. Solidification
55. On coiling the intermolecular forces over come the energy of molecules
A. Potential
B. Chemical
C. Internal
D. Kinetic (Answer)
56. As on condensation the empty spaces between the molecules are reduced the liquids and solid are almost
A. Compressible
B. Incompressible (Answer)
C. Comparable
D. Incomparable
57. Although intermolecular forces in liquids are sufficient enough, even then molecules can have motion
A. Vibrational
B. Ration
C. Complete
D. Translational (Answer)
58. As molecules in liquid can slide part each other, they have
A. Definite shape
B. Indefinite shapes (Answer)
C. Complete
D. Changing shape
59. As liquids are miscible with each other they are

A. Mixable
B. Diffuseable (Answer)
C. Soluable
D. Diffuseable
60. Solids can not diffuse in each other as their molecules are
A. Light
B. Heavy
C. Bonded by strong forces
Page 85
D. Bonded in lattice (Answer)
61. The properties which are sum of corresponding properties of individual components are called
A. Comparative
B. Constitutive
C. Colligative
62. Many physical properties of liquids and solids depends upon fores like
A. Intramolecular
B. Electrostatic
C. Electrovalent
D. Intermolecular (Answer)
63. The migration of gas molecules is hindered due to their

A. Close packing
B. Shape
C. Size (Answer)
D. Binding
64. Arrangement of fundamental particulars in an atom determines its properties

A. Chemical
B. Physical
C. Chemical and physical (Answer)
D. General
65. Atomic theory was particulate by

A. Dalton (Answer)
B. Newton
C. Bohr
D. Thompson
66. The ink and water diffuse in each other to form a solution
A. Dilute
B. Concentrated
C. Light
D. Uniform (Answer)
67. Physical properties of liquids can be predicted for a knwon

A. Density
Page 86
B. Structure (Answer)
C. Size
D. Volume
68. Colligative properties mainly depend upon molecular

A. Number (Answer)
B. Structure
C. Individual
D. Collective
69. The properties of liquid that depend mainly on the number of molecules and not on their nature are
A. Comparative
C. Colligative
D. Additive
70. The properties of liquid that depend upon arrangement of atoms in the molecules are called properties:
A. Comparative
B. Constitutive
C. Colligative
The forces that exist between individual particles of substance are relatively
A. Strong
B. Weak (Answer)
C. Minor
D. Very strong
71. Colligative properties mainly depend upon molecular.?

A. Number (Answer)
B. Structure
C. Individual
D. Collective
72. Arrangement of fundamental particulars in an atom determines its properties.?

A. Chemical
B. Physical
C. Chemical and physical (Answer)
D. General
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73. Atomic theory was particulate by.?
A. Dalton (Answer)
B. Newton
C. Bohr
D. Thompson
74. The properties which are sum of corresponding properties of individual components are called.?
A. Comparative
B. Constitutive
C. Colligative
75. Many physical properties of liquids and solids depends upon fores like.?
A. Intramolecular
B. Electrostatic
C. Electrovalent
D. Intermolecular (Answer)
76. The forces that exist between individual particles of substance are relatively.?
A. Strong
B. Weak (Answer)
C. Minor
D. Very strong
77. The diffusion of liquids is slow but it takes place at rate.?

A. Unmeasurable
B. Steady
C. Measurable (Answer)
D. Prolonged
78. The properties of liquid that depend mainly on the number of molecules and not on their nature are.?
A. Comparative
C. Colligative
D. Additive
79. The ink and water diffuse in each other to form a solution.?
A. Dilute
B. Concentrated
C. Light
D. Uniform (Answer)
Page 88
80. Physical properties of liquids can be predicted for a known.?
A. Density
B. Structure (Answer)
C. Size
D. Volume
81. The attractive force that holds atoms together in molecules is called
A. Bond
B. Chemical bond (Answer)
C. Force of attraction
D. Electrostatic force
82. During the process of chemical bonding, atoms try to attain

A. Noble gas configuration (Answer)
B. Stable configuration
C. Simple configuration
D. Unstable configuration
83. If an opaque object is placed in their path, cathode rays

A. Are unaffected
B. Are deflected
C. Are absorbed
D. Produce sharps shadow (Answer)
84. Application of external magnetic field causes the cathode rays to

A. Move in circular path (Answer)
B. Reflect
C. Re-bounce
D. Bend
85. Cathode rays are also called (Answer)

A. Charged particles
C. Protons
D. Neutrons
86. Electron was the name given to cathode rays particles by

A. Newton
B. Bohr
C. Stoney
Page 89
D. Planck (Answer)
87. Cathode rays always travel in a

A.,Circular path
B. Cured path
C. Zig zag path
D. Straight path (Answer)
88. Nature of cathode rays remains the same irrespective of the

A. Glass used
B. Gas used (Answer)
C. Electrode used
D. Potential used
89. By reducing the pressure of the gas in a discharge tube

A. Gas glows
B. Gas ionizes
C. Gas conducts electricity (Answer)
D. A discharge takes place
90. Using various gases and metals as electrode, the nature of rays produce in the discharge tube
A. Remains same
B. Becomes different
C. Does not change (Answer)
D. Remain almost same
91. During the process of chemical bonding, atoms try to attain.?

A. Noble gas configuration (Answer)
B. Stable configuration
C. Simple configuration
92. Using various gases and metals as electrode, the nature of rays produce in the discharge tube.?
A. Remains same
B. Becomes different
C. Does not change (Answer)
D. Remain almost same
93. Moving a pin-wheel placed in their path, indicates that cathode rays.?
A. Posses momentum (Answer)
Page 90
B. Have inertia
C. Potential energy
D. Are material in nature
94. Deflecting of cathode rays towards positively charged plats indicate it is.?
A. Negatively charged (Answer)
B. Neutral
C. Electromagnetic wave
D. Positively charged
95. By reducing the pressure of the gas in a discharge tube.?

A. Gas glows
B. Gas ionizes
C. Gas conducts electricity (Answer)
D. A discharge takes place
96. Cathode rays are also called.?

A. Charged particles
C. Protons
D. Neutrons
97. Electron was the name given to cathode rays particles by.?
A. Newton
B. Bohr
C. Stoney
D. Planck (Answer)
98. If an opaque object is placed in their path, cathode rays.?

A. Are unaffected
B. Are deflected
C. Are absorbed
D. Produce sharps shadow (Answer)
99. Cathode rays always travel in a.?

A. Circular path
B. Cured path
C. Zig zag path
D. Straight path (Answer)
100. Nature of cathode rays remains the same irrespective of the.?
Page 91
A. Glass used
B. Gas used (Answer)
C. Electrode used
D. Potential used
101. By a chemical reaction systems attain an energy state which is.?

A. Higher in energy
B. Lower in energy (Answer)
C. Equal in energy
D. Balanced in energy
102. The internuclear distance at which the energy of the two bonded atoms is at minimum is called.?
A. Bond length
B. Equilibrium bond distance (Answer)
C. Equilibrium distance
D. Bond distance
103. The potential energy of the approaching atoms increase if repulsive forces.?
A. Decrease
B. Increase (Answer)
C. Remain un-changed
D. Become zero
104. If a chemical bond in not formed, the potential energy of the atoms is.?
A. Remain same
B. Decreased
C. Increased (Answer)
D. Un-changend
105. When the potential energy of approaching atoms increases, repulsive forces also increase, the chemical bond is.?
A. Formed
B. Broken
C. Un-changed
D. Not formed (Answer)
106. When a chemical bond is formed the energy of two atoms will be.?
A. Maximum
B. Usual
C. Minimum (Answer)
D. Normal
Page 92
107. The attractive force that holds atoms together in molecules is called.?
A. Bond
B. Force of attraction
C. Chemical bond (Answer)
D. Electrostatic force
108. During the process of chemical bonding, atoms try to attain.?

A. Stable configuration
B. Simple configuration
C. Noble gas configuration (Answer)
109. The process of chemical reaction is due to involvement of.?

A. Outer electrons
B. Valance electrons (Answer)
C. Inner electrons
D. Deep electrons
110. When the potential energy of approaching atoms decreases, the attractive forces among atoms.?
A. Remain same
B. Decrease
C. Increase (Answer)
D. Are un-changed
111. The using of fuels is the basis that burning of carbon in oxygen produces.?
A. Energy
B. Heat (Answer)
C. Light
D. Electricity
112. The burning of methane in oxygen is used in.?

A. Kitchens (Answer)
B. Flames
B. Automobiles
D. Engines
113. In chemistry we usually deal with energy changes of reaction in terms of.?
Page 93
A. Heat
B. Electricity
C. Light (Answer)
D. Current
114. Under certain conditions, energy may appear int he form of light, electricity or mechanical work from a.?
A. Chemical system (Answer)
B. System
C. Reaction
D. Reactant
115. The energy changes of a chemical reaction are measured in.?

A. Kil0 joules (KJ)
B. Kilo calorie (Kcal)
C. Both of them (Answer)
D. None of them
116. One calorie is equal to.?

A. 1.065 J
B. 0.418 J
C. 2.013 J
D. 4.184 J (Answer)
117. Other units fro the measurement of heat energy are.?

A. Caloric
B. Kilowatt hours (kwh)
C. British thermal unit (BTU)
D. All of them (Answer)
118. The SI unit of energy is.?

A. Joule (Answer)
B. Caloric
C. Newton
D. Watt
119. When a force of one Newton acts over a distance of one metre, it is.?
A. One calorie
B. One watt
C. One joule (Answer)
D. One pound
Page 94
120. The natural cause of a chemical reaction is the tendency to attain.?
A. Lowest energy state (Answer)
B. Highest energy state
C. Perfection
D. Stability
121. Water placed in closed container at constant temperature has equilibrium of the type.?
A. Chemical
B. Dynamic (Answer)
C. Static
D. Physical
122. In a chemical equation, a double arrow indicates.?

A. Reversible reaction
B. Complete reaction
C. Incomplete reaction
D. Equilibrium (Answer)
123. Acetylene when burnt in oxygen produces heat and.?

A. Electricity
B. Current
C. Mechanical work
D. Light (Answer)
124. In the endothermic reactions, the heat is.?

A. Evolved
B. Generated
C. Absorbed (Answer)
D. Released
125. Water placed in closed container at constant temperature.?

A. Evaporates
B. Condenses
C. Is at equilibrium (Answer)
D. Reacts
(Answer)
126. The mechanical work obtained from automobile engines is due to.?
Page 95
A. Combustion process (Answer)
B. Oxidation process
C. Reduction process
D. Catalytic process
127. When a part of heat of reaction is used in generating electric current the device is called.?
A. Cell
B. Galvanic cell (Answer)
C. Electrolytic cell
D. Dry cell
128. The branch of chemistry that deals with thermal energy changes in chemical reactions is called.?
A. Thermo
B. Dynamics
C. Thermo chemistry (Answer)
D. Thermodynamics
129. The using of fuels is the basis that burning of carbon in oxygen produces.?
A. Energy
B. Light
C. Heat (Answer)
D. Electricity
130. The burning of methane in oxygen is used in.?

A. Kitchens (Answer)
B. Flames
C. Automobiles
D. Engines
131. The Minimum Amount Of Energy In Addition To The Average Energy, Which Is Just Sufficient To Convert Reactants
To Products, Is Called.?
A. Activation Energy (Answer)
B. Internal Energy
C. Dissipation Energy
D. None of Them
132. Similar Substance Can Have Different Reaction Rates Under.?

A. Same Conditions (Answer)
B. Different Conditions
C. Various Conditions
Page 96
D. None of Them
133. When The Products Are In Lower Energy State Than The Reactants, The Reaction Is.?
A. Stable
B. Exothermic (Answer)
C. Endothermic
D. Ergs
134. The Rate Constants Of Chemical Reactions Are Strongly Influenced By.?
A. Catalyst
B. Temperature
C. Nature And Concentration Of Reactants
D. By All Of Them (Answer)
135. In The Exothermic Reactions, The Products Are At Energy Level.?

A. Lower Than Reactant
B. Equal To Reactants
C. Higher Than Reactant (Answer)
D. None of Them
136. Activation Energy Is The Energy Barrier For The Formation Of.?
A. Products (Answer)
B. Activation Complex
C. Intermediates
D. A & B
137. Energy of Activation Is Usually Expressed In.?

A. Joules (Answer)
B. Calories
C. Ergs
D. None of them
138. The Nature Of The Reactant Effects The.?

A. Nature Of Product
B. Activation Energy
C. Rate Of Reaction (Answer)
D. Heat Of The Reaction
139. Generally Rise Of 10°C Of The Temperature Of A Reaction System, The Reaction Rate.?
A. Increases
B. Doubles (Answer)
Page 97
C. Subsides
D. Drops
140. Ire Respect Of The Fact That A Chemical Reaction Is Exeo Or Endo-Thermal, The Increase In Temperature, Increases
The.?
A. Reaction Rate (Answer)
B. Potential Energy
C. Collisions
D. Kinetic Energy
141. Which one is a separating technique.?

A. Deliquescent
B. Solvent extraction (Answer)
C. Fluorescence
D. Phosphorescence
142. Which one is used as stationary phase in paper chromatography.?

A. Piece of paper
B. Alcohol
C. Acetone
D. Water (Answer)
143. The stationary phase can be.?

A. Only solid
B. Only liquid
C. A solid or liquid (Answer)
D. None of above
144. The solvent is drawn up by the paper because of.?

A. The force of gravity
B. The water content of the paper
C. The capillary action (Answer)
D. All of above
145. The process of removing a substance form its aqueous solution (not often) by shaker with an organic solvent is
termed as.?
A. Solvent extortion (Answer)
B. Crystallization
C. Sublimate in
D. Filtration
Page 98
146. Which of the following is not a separation technique.?
A. Sublimation
B. Boiling (Answer)
C. Filtration
D. Solvent extortion
147. Which mixture can be speared by adding water, stirring and filtering.?
A. Barium chloride and sodium chloride
B. Copper and magnesium
C. Silver chloride and sodium nitrate (Answer)
D. None of above
148. Slow cooking.?

A. Bigger size crystals (Answer)
B. Animal charcoal
C. Vacuum dissector
D. None of above
149. Safe and reliable method of drying.?

A. Gooch crucible
B. Using charcoal
C. Vacuum desecrator (Answer)
D. None of above
150. Purple color of free iodine.?

A. Ether
B. H2o
C. Sublimation
D. None of above (Answer)
151. The simplest whole number ratio of atoms in the compound is called.?
A. Structural formula
B. Empirical Formula (Answer)
C. Molecular Formula
D. None of above
152. A chemical formula based on actual number of molecule is called formula.?

A. Structural
B. Molecular (Answer)
Page 99
C. Empirical
D. None of above
153. On the Fahrenheit scale, the freezing point of water is.?

A. 30F
B. 31F
C. 32F (Answer)
D. None of above
154. Very small and very large quantities are expressed in term of.?
A. Logarithm
B. Significant figures
C. Exponents (Answer)
D. None of above
155. Which of the following is a single pure compound.?

A. Air
B. Steam (Answer)
C. Brass
D. Sea Water
156. Which one of the following is not a compound.?

A. Air (Answer)
B. Lime
C. Sodium Carbonate
D. Water
157. Formula of Ferric sulphate is.?

A. FeSO4
B. Fe2(SO4)3 (Answer)
C. Fe2SO4
D. None of above
158. A Mixture whose composition in uniform throughout the mixture is called.?

A. Heterogeneous
B. Homogenous (Answer)
C. Photonuclear
D. None of above
159. The Number of Moles present in 6gms of carbon is.?

A. 2
Page 100
B. 0.5 (Answer)
C. 5
D. 1
160. Freezing point of water.?

A. 32F
B. 273K
C. 0C
D. All of These (Answer)
161. The change of concentrations of reactants and products with time is called.?
A. Rate of reaction (Answer)
B. Rate of equilibrium
C. Backward rate
D. Forward rate
162. The reaction which do not proceed to completion and after passage of some time contain both reactants and
products, are called.?
A. Reversible reaction (Answer)
B. Incomplete reaction
C. Complete reaction
D. Non-reversible reaction
163. In a chemical equation, a double arrow indicates.?

A. Reversible reaction
B. Equilibrium (Answer)
C. Complete reaction
D. None of above
164. As long as temperature remains constant and concentration of water vapours do not change in a closed system it
indicates a.?
A. Reversible process
B. Dynamic equilibrium (Answer)
C. Reversible equilibrium
D. None of above
165. The stage at which the reaction appears to stop under given conditions is called.?
A. Equilibrium stage (Answer)
B. Final stage
C. Completion stage
D. Initial stage
Page 101
166. Under the given set of conditions of temperature, pressure and concentration the point at which a reaction seems
to stop is always.?
A. Different
B. Changes
C. Readable
D. Same (Answer)
167. Under a given set of conditions at which any reaction seems to stop has a quantitative relation with reactant and
product.?
A. Nature
B. Type
C. Concentration (Answer)
D. None of above
168. Water placed in closed container at constant temperature has equilibrium of the type.?
A. Dynamic (Answer)
B. Chemical
C. Static
D. Physical
169. Which state of chemical equilibrium is that tat which all types of motions.?
A. Are available
B. Do not cease (Answer)
C. Not available
D. None of Them
171. Deflecting of cathode rays towards positively charged plats indicate it is

A. Neutral
B. Negatively charged (Answer)
C. Electromagnetic wave
D. Positively charged
171. The first member of alkene series is?

A. Methane
B. Ethane
C. Ethene (Answer)
D. Ethyne
Page 102
172. Isomerism in which the compounds possess the same molecular formula but different arrangement of carbon
atoms in the hydrocarbon chain is called?
A. Functional isomerism
B. Position isomerism
C. Chain isomerism (Answer)
D. None of above
173. Iso-butane possesses?

A. Position isomerism
B. Functional isomerism
C. Mesmerism
D. Chain isomerisy (Answer)
174. A process that breaks large molecules into smaller one is called?
A. Refining
B. Reforming
C. Cracking (Answer)
D. None of above
175. Compounds which contain only carbon and hydrogen elements are called?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Hydrocarbons (Answer)
C. Halides
D. None of above
176. The hydrocarbons which contain one more double or triple bonds are called?
A. Saturated hydrocarbons
B. Unsaturated hydrocarbons (Answer)
C. Paraffin
D. Halogens
177. The hydrocarbons in which carbon atoms are arranged in rings are called?
A. Aliphatic
B. Aromatic
C. Ali cyclic (Answer)
D. None of above
178. The quality of petrol is measured by?

A. Cracking
B. Reforming
C. Octane number (Answer)
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D. Decane number
179. The first member of Alkyne series is?

A. Methane
B. Ethane
C. Ethane
D. Acetylene (Answer)
180. The number of isomers in butane is?

A. 1
B. 2 (Answer)
C. 3
D. 4
181. At equilibrium the rate of disappearing of reactants and the rate of formation of products are?
A. Equal (Answer)
B. Different
C. Very different
D. Almost equal
182. The change of concentrations of reactants and products with time is called?
A. Rate of equilibrium
B. Forward rate
C. Rate of reaction (Answer)
D. Backward rate
183. When at equilibrium there is no motion what so ever, it is called?

A. Dynamic
B. Permanent
C. Dead
D. Static (Answer)
184. All types of chemical equilibra and equilibra between physical states are called?
A. Static
B. Dynamic (Answer)
C. Permanent
D. Temporary
185. At equilibrium, as long as the volume of the container and the temperature of the chemical system remains
unchanged, the concentrations of reactants and products?
Page 104
A. Changes
B. Keep on changing
C. Do not change (Answer)
D. Is fixed
186. At the beginning the concentrations of reactants and products change?

A. Sharply
B. Rapidly (Answer)
C. Slowly
D. Smoothly
187. The concentrations of the active masses of the reacting species and the rate of reaction are?
A. Related (Answer)
B. Interdependent
C. Independent
D. Not related
188. Law of mass action was put forward by?

A. Waage
B. Einstin
C. Guldberg (Answer)
D. Goldberg and wage
189. The rate at which a chemical reaction proceeds and the product of the active masses of the reacting substances
are?
A. Directly related (Answer)
B. Indirectly related
C. Related
D. Not related
190. A homogeneous mixture of two or more than two substance whose proportions can be varied within certain limits
is called?
A. Solution (Answer)
B. Mixture
C. Element
D. Compound
191. The active masses of the reacting species are related to rate of reaction?
A. Directly (Answer)
B. Log-normally
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C. Linearly
D. Indirectly
192. A bond formed between alkali metals and members of helogen family will be?
A. Metallic
B. Covalent
C. Ionic (Answer)
D. Coordinate
193. The amount of energy required to remove one electron from sodium isolated gaseous atom is?
A. 296 KJ/mol
B. 496 KJ/mol (Answer)
C. 596 KJ/mol
D. 696 KJ/mol
194. The amount of energy released when one electron is gained by isolated gaseous atom of chlorine is?
A. 249 KJ/mol
B. 349 KJ/mol (Answer)
C. 449 KJ/mol
D. 549 KJ/mol
195. When heat is absorbed or evolved in a chemical reaction with molar quantities of reactants and products, it is
called?
A. Heat of reaction (Answer)
B. Heat of reactant
C. Heat of product
D. Heat change
196. A negative sign is given if heat is?

A. Absorbed
B. Generated
C. Consumed
D. Evolved (Answer)
197. A positive sign is given if in a chemical reaction heat is?

A. Consumed
B. Absorbed (Answer)
C. Evolved
D. Generated
198. A substance under going a physical or chemical change is a?
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A. Body
B. Process
C. Unit
D. System (Answer)
199. When elements of low ionization energy combine with elements of high electron affinity, the of bond formed is?
A. Covalent
B. Coordinate
C. Metallic
D. Ionic (Answer)
200. The concentrations of reactants and product at equilibrium changes?

A. Rapidly
B. Sharply
C. Drastically
D. Very slowly (Answer)
201. Energy of activation is usually expressed in?

A. Joules (Answer)
B. Calories
C. Ergs
D. Newtons
202. When the products are in lower energy state than the reactants, the reaction is?
A. Stable
B. Endothermic
C. At equilibrium
D. Exothermic (Answer)
203. Two molecules with sufficient energy collide to form?

A. Activated complex (Answer)
B. Reactant
C. Product
D. Intermediate
204. The minimum amount of energy that a reaction system requires to attain transition state is called?
A. Internal energy
B. Deactivation
C. Reaction energy
D. Deactivation energy (Answer)
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205. The value of the activation energy is much greater than average kinetic energy of the?
A. Atoms
B. Molecules (Answer)
C. Reactants
D. Products
206. Once a reaction starts, heat released by activated complex provides heat to the remaining molecules for?
A. Reaction (Answer)
B. Activated complex
C. Product
D. Reactant
207. For a chemical reaction the number of molecules that become activated per unit time is indicate by?
A. Velocity of molecules (Answer)
B. Velocity of reaction
C. Kinetic energy
D. Potential energy
208. When molecules attain energy more than the average kinetic energy, they form?
A. Product
B. Reactant
C. Activated complex (Answer)
D. Biproduct
209. The activated complex dissociates into?

A. Reactants
B. Products (Answer)
C. Catalyst
D. Intermediates
210. Only an effective molecular collision can result in the formation of a?

A. Product (Answer)
B. Intermediate
C. Reactant
D. Activated complex
211. Swedish chemist J. Berzelius determined the?

A. Atomic Volume
B. Atomic No
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C. Atomic Mass (Answer)
D. Atomic Density
212. When an electron is added to a unipositive ion we get?

A. Cation
B. Anion
C. Molecule
D. Neutral Atom (Answer)
213. CO+ is an example of?

A. Free Radical
B. An Ionic Molecular Ion
C. Stable Molecule
D. ationic Molecular Ion (Answer)
214. Simplest formula that gives us information about the simple ratio of atoms in a compound is called?
A. Empirical Formula (Answer)
B. Structural Formula
C. Molecular Formula
C. Molar Ratio
215. Relative atomic mass is the mass of an atom of an element as compared to the mass of?
A. Carbon (Answer)
B. Oxygen
C. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
216. Isotopes are the sister atoms of the same element with similar chemical properties and different?
A. Atomic Number
B. Atomic Volume
C. Atomic Structure
D. Atomic Mass (Answer)
217. The number of atoms present in a molecule determine its?

A. Atomicity (Answer)
B. Basicity
C. Acidity
D. Molecularity
218. The instrument which is used to measure the exact masses of different isotopes of an element called?
A. Mass Spectrometer (Answer)
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B. I.R. Spectrophotometer
C. U.V. Spectrophotometer
D. Colourimeter
219. Mass spectrometer separates different positive isotopic ions on the basis of their?
A. Mass Value
B. E/M Value
D. Change Value
D. M/E Value (Answer)
220. Smallest particle of an element which may or may not have independent existence?
A. A Molecule
B. An Ion
C. An Electron
D. An Atom (Answer)
221. The theory which explains that gases consist of molecules, which are in rapid option known as.
A. Dalton's atomic theory
B. Bohr's theory
C. Rutherford's atomic theory
D. Kinetic molecular theory (Answer)
222. The law, which states that at constant temperature, the volume of a given mass gas in inversely proportional is
pressure, is known as.
A. Boyle's law (Answer)
B. Charles' law
C. Combine gas law
D/ Avogadro’s law
223. Standard conditions are. (Answer)

A. O°C and 14.7mm
B. 32°F and 76cm (Answer)
C. 273°C and 760mm
D. 4°C and 7.6m
224. When a gas is collected over water, the pressure is corrected by:
A. Adding the vapour pressure of water
B. Multiplying the vapour pressure of water
C. Subtracting the vapor pressure of water (Answer)
D. Subtracting the temperature of water from pressure
Page 110
225. Graham's law refers to.
A. Boiling point of water
B. Gaseous diffusion (Answer)
C. Gass compression
D. Volume changes of gasses
226. The state of matter that shows the uniformity of behavior.

A. Solid liquid (Answer)
B. Liquid
C. Gas
227. Cooling is caused by.

A. Compression of the gas
B. Expansion of the gas
228. For a given mass of a gas at constant pressure, the volume is directly proportional absolute temperature. This is
known as
A. Boyle's law
B. Charles' law (Answer)
C. Avogadro's law
D. Gay Lussa’s law
229. General gas equation is a combination of:

A. Boyle's law and Charles law (Answer)
B. Charles law and Dalton’s law
C. Boyle's law and graham’s law
D. Charles law and Avogadro’s law
230. Absolute zero refers to.

A. O°c
B. -100°c
C. -273°c - (Answer)
D. -373°c
Page 111
Computer MCQs
Solved With
Answers
Page 112
1. All physical components and other attached I/O devices of computer are called ------- ?
A. Software
B. Hardware (Answer)
C. Firmware
D. Liveware
2. Which of the following is the major innovation of Third Generation ?

A. Integrated Circuits (IC’s) (Answer)
B. LSIC
C. Vacuum Tube
D. Transistors
3. Which computer deals with continuously varying physical quantities ?

A. Digital compute (Answer)
B. Analog computer
C. Marco computer
D. Mini computer
4. -------- are close to human languages ?

A. High Level Languages (Answer)
B. Low Level Languages
C. Assembly language
D. None Of These
5. --------- translates one instruction at a time ?

A. Compiler
B. Interpreter (Answer)
C. Assembler
D. None Of These
6. The Main memory used in 1st Generation is ?

A. PROM
B. ROM and RAM
C. EPROM
D. Magnetic Drums (Answer)
Page 113
7. Punched car was invented By ?
A. Herman Hollerith (Answer)
B. Charles Babbage
C. Blake Pascal
D. John Mauchley
8. Computer can transmit all the information to transmission media as series of binary bits ?
A. 1’s and 0’s (Answer)
B. O’s and 3’s
C. 2’s and 2’s
D. 0’s and 2’s
9. Computer Means ?
A. To Operate
B. To Produce
C. To Calculate (Answer)
D. To Generate
10. Computer ear is divided into --------- ages ?

A. Two ages
B. Three ages (Answer)
C. Only one ages
D. Four ages
11. Bus is a set of --------- that is used as a communication path ?

A. Wires (Answer)
B.B. Processor
C. Register
D. None of These
12. 1K Byte = ---------- Bytes.

A. 1024 Bytes (Answer)
B. 8 Bytes
C. 1G Bytes
D. 1M Bytes
13. There are basically register ?

A. Fourteen (Answer)
B. Eight
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C. Sixty Five
D. None of These
14. A port or interface that can be used for communication , in which only 1 bit it transmitted at a time is called ?
A. Serial Port (Answer)
B. Parallel Port
C. Serial and parallel both transmit 1 bit
D. None of These
15. Which port is reliable ?

A.Serial (Answer)
B.Parallel
C.Both are equal reliable
D.None of These
16. Arithmetic, logic unit of a computer system perform ?

A. Logical decision
B. Atithmetic and Logical Functions (Answer)
C. Simple Mathematical Calculation
D.Arithmetic Calculations
17. The Type of memory, which is permanent and ratains data even the compute is turned off.
A.RAM
B. Primary Memory
C. ROM (Answer)
D. External Memory
18. CPU stands for ?

A. Controlling Power Unit
B. Central Processing Unit (Answer)
C. Central Processor Unit
D. None OF These
19. There are --------- typical component of CPU, namely -------- ?

A. Two, Arithmetic and logical unit and control unit (Answer)
B. Three, ALU, CU and External Storage
C. Two, Arithmetic and logical unit and memory.
D. None of These
20. There are --------- buses, namely ----------- ?

A. Two , Control bus, connecting bus
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B. Three, address bus, data bus a and control but
C. Three, Address bus, data bus and communication bus (Answer)
D. None of These
21. Printer resolution is usually measured in ?

A. Data par inch
B. Character par inch
C. Dots per inch (Answer)
D. None Of These
22. Standard keyboard has function keys ?

A. 10
B. 11
C. 12 (Answer)
D. 14
23. The Following are the input devices ?

A. Keyboard, Mouse, Scanner, Flatbed Scanner (Answer)
B. Keyboard, Mouse, Scanner, Flatbed Plotter
C. Han-Held Scanner, Drum Plotter, Mouse , Joystick
D. None Of These
24. Laser Printer and ink-jet printers are example of ?

A. Impact Printer
B. Line Printer
C. Drum Printer
D. None Of These (Answer)
25. Plotters can be generally divided into --------- categories namely -------- ?
A. Two, Pen Plotters and Electrostatic Plotters (Answer)
B. Two , Drum Plotters and Flatbed Plotters
C. Four , Pen , Electrostatic , Drum and Flatbed plotters
D. Three , Pen , Electrostatic and Flatbed Plotters
26. The purpose of input device is ?

A.Pass Information (Answer)
B.Filtraintion of information
C.Pass information directly to CPU
D.None of These
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27. Where engineering applications ar used and precision is mandatory, we use -------- for printing ?
A. Laser
B. Electrostatic Plotter
C. Pen Plotter (Answer)
D. None Of these
28. The Mouse is a primary input device but lack the ability to easily transmit ?
A. Graphical
B. Numerical
C. Alpha Numerical
D. Textual (Answer)
29. The CD-Writer performance is measured in ---------- unit ?

A. DPI
B. Y
C. Bytes
D. None Of These (Answer)
30. Screen Output is known as ?

A. Software
B. Livewire
C. Soft Copy (Answer)
D. Hard Copy
31. Ram is ------ Memory

A. Volatile (Answer)
B. Non Volatile
C. Permanent
D. None Of These
32. --------- Is a pre-programmed memory.

A. Static RAM
B. Dynamic RAM
C. SISS and DIMM both
D. None of These (Answer)
33. Irregular data can accessed on magnetictap

A. Randomly
B. Serially (Answer)
C. Use Dieting
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D. None Of These
34. LBA Stands for --------- ?

A. Logical Block Adress
B. Logical Buffer area
C. None Of These
35. Auxiliary Storage are --------- Memory ?

A. Primary
B. Non-Volatile (Answer)
C. Temporary
D. None Of These
36. The read/write heads of hard disk drive, floppy disk drive and tape drive contain electromagnets.
A. The statement is true.
B. The above statement needs little correction
C. the above statements is a false statements
D. Information’s is not sufficient (Answer)
37. Each byte is the combination of -------- small unit called bits ?
A. 16
B. 10
C. 8 (Answer)
D. 18
38. Smallest unit of the memoray is --------.

A. Nibble
B. Bit (Answer)
C. 0 or 1
D. Byte
39. Each box of memory has ------- address.

A. Alterable
B. Unique (Answer)
C. Two
D. None Of These
40. A Large Memory Can Further be installed , Known as ---------- ?

A.Conventional
B. Primary Memory
C.Expanded Memory (Answer)
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D. ROM
41. The main unit of computer is

A. CPU
B. Input Unit
C. Memory Unit
D. Output Unit
42. The device which provides display to users, is

A. CPU
B. TV
C. Memory Unit
D. Monitor (Answer)
43. Which one of the following is not a valid memory unit

A. MB
B. KB
C. Byte
D. XB (Answer)
44. The most common type of printer is

A. Scanner
B. Drum Printer
C. Dot-Matrix Printer
D. Inkjet Printer
45. The extension .exe represents

A. Examination File
B. Extra File
C. Executable File
D. Extension File
46. There are -------- different ways for creating a table in Microsoft access.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
47. We can create multi column document in Ms Word

A. True
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B. False
C. Situation Dependent
D. None Of These
48. WAN stands For

A. Wide Area Network
B. Wired Area Network
C. While Area Network
D. Whole Area Network
49. There are ------------- method(s) of Linux installation

A. 6
B. 2
C. 1
D. 7
50. MS Excel is a(an)

A. Application Software
B. Operating System
D. Editor
D. Package (Answer)
51. Which one is not a web browser ?

A. Google chrome
B. Mozilla fire fox
C. Adobe Photo Shop (Answer)
D. Internet Explorer
52. Which one is the brain of computer ?

A. CPU (Answer)
B. ALU
C. Memory Unit
D. None of thme
53. Which one Short key used to find in Ms Word ?

A. CTRL + G
B. CTRL + F3
C. CTRL + F (Answer)
D. None of Them
54. Windows is a ?
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A. Software
B. Application Software
C. System Software (Answer)
D. None of Theme
55. Which one is the output device ?

A. Joy Stick
B. Cd Writer
C. Printer (Answer)
D. None of them
56. Plator is a ?
A. Output Device (Answer)
B. Inpute Device
C. A & B
D. None of them
57. Hard Disk is a ?

A. Storage Device (Answer)
B. Input Device
C. Output Device
D. None of them
58. Which one short key is used to Close program ?

A. CRTL + F3
B. Windows + U
C. CTRL + Z
D. CTRL + F4 (Answer)
59. Ms Word is a ?
A. Application Software (Answer)
B. SystemSoftware
C. A & B
D. None of Them
60. MS Power Used For ?

A. Latter
B. Slide Presentations (Answer)
C. Database
D. None of them
Page 121
61. The main unit of computer is
A. CPU
B. Input Unit
C. Memory Unit
D. Output Unit
62. The device which provides display to users, is (Answer)

A. CPU
B. TV
C. Memory Unit
D. Monitor (Answer)

A. MB
B. KB
C. Byte
D. XB (Answer)
64. The most common type of printer is

A. Scanner
B. Drum Printer
C. Dot-Matrix Printer
D. Inkjet Printer
65. The extension .exe represents

A. Examination File
B. Extra File
C. Executable File
D. Extension File
66. There are -------- different ways for creating a table in Microsoft access.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
67. We can create multi column document in Ms Word

A. True
B. False
C. Situation Dependent
Page 122
D. None OfThem
68. WAN stands For (Answer)

A. Wide Area Network
B. Wired Area Network
C. While Area Network
D. Whole Area Network
69. There are ------------- method(s) of Linux installation

A. 6
B. 2
C. 1
D. 7
70. MS Excel is a(an) (Answer)

A. Application Software
B. Operating System
C. Editor
D. Package (Answer)
71. Which of the following is a visual display unit ?

A. Television
B. Monitor
C. VCD Player
D. None of these
72. There are ---------basic parts of CPU:

A. Four
B. Five
C. Three
D. Two (Answer)
73. Which of the following is Read Only Memory of Computer ?

A. Hard Disc
B. RAM
C. ROM (Answer)
D. Processor
74. Which of the following are the parts of CPU ?

A. ALU
B. Control Unit
Page 123
C. Processing Unit
D. ALU and Control Unit
75. Which unit of CPU is capable of performing arithmetic and logical operation ?
A. ALU
B. Control Unit
C. Processing Unit
D. None of theme
76. Which of the following is a primary memory ?

A. Hard Disc
B. Floppy Disc
C. ROM (Answer)
D. RAM
77. Which of the following devices are used to print a document ?

A. Monitor
B. Plotter
C. Printer
D. None of these
78. Which of the following devices is used to draw a map, building designs, and other big drawings ?
A. Printer
B. Scanner
C. Plotter
D. None of these
79. Which of the following is also called Cathode Ray Tube ?

A. Tube light
B. Vacuum Tube
C. Monitor
D. LCD
80. When you enter a data into a computer where does it go ?

A. Hard Disk
B. Ram (Answer)
C. Floppy Disk
D. None of theme
81. Which one is not a web browser ?

A. Google chrome
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B. Mozilla fire fox
C. Adobe Photo Shop (Answer)
D. Internet Explorer
82. Which one is the brain of computer ?

A. CPU (Answer)
B. ALU
C. Memory Unit
D. None of thme
83. Which one Short key used to find in Ms Word ?

A. CTRL + G
B. CTRL + F3
C. CTRL + F (Answer)
D. None of Them
84. Windows is a ?
A. Software
B. Application Software
C. System Software (Answer)
D. None of Theme
85. Which one is the output device ?

A. Joy Stick
B. Cd Writer
C. Printer (Answer)
D. None of them
86. Plator is a ?
A. Output Device (Answer)
B. Inpute Device
C. A & B
D. None of them
87. Hard Disk is a ?

A. Storage Device (Answer)
B. Input Device
C. Output Device
D. None of them
88. Which one short key is used to Close program ?
Page 125
A. CRTL + F3
B. Windows + U
C. CTRL + Z
D. CTRL + F4 (Answer)
89. Ms Word is a ?
A. Application Software (Answer)
B. SystemSoftware
C. A & B
D. None of Them
90. MS Power Used For ?

A. Latter
B. Slide Presentations (Answer)
C. Database
D. None of them
91. Which one used for internet browsing ?

A. Skype
B. Out look
C. Internet Explorer (Answer)
D. None of these
92. How many ways to create table in MS Word 2007 ?

A. 4 ways
B. 2 ways
C. 3 wasy (Answer)
D. 5 ways
93. Which shortcut key used to Close Document ?

A. Ctrl + F3
B. Ctrl + F4 (Answer)
C. Ctrl + S
D. None of These
94. Which one is the not a input device ?

A. Mouse
B. Keyboard
C. CD-Rom (Answer)
D. None of These
Page 126
95. Ms Excel used for ?
A. Spreadsheet (Answer)
B. Slid Presentation
C. For Database
D. None of These
96. Which one is a Hardware ?

A. Adobe Photoshop
B. Mouse (Answer)
C. Notepad
D. Windows
97. Which one is Storage device ?

A. DSL
B. Hard Disk (Answer)
C. Camera
D. None of These
98. Which short key is used to help in Windows ?

A. F12
B. F4
C. F1 (Answer)
D. None of these
99. Which one is smallest memory unit ?

A. Byte
B. Mega Byte
C. Bit (Answer)
D. Gega Byte
100. Monitor is a ?
A. Output (Answer)
B. Input
C. A &B
D. None of these
101. Hard disk is a -----------device (Answer)

A. Backing Storage
B. Storage
C. Temporary
D. Hardware
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102. Compact Disk (CD) is a --------------device
A. Storage
B. Backing
C. Hardware
D. None Of Theme
103. Maximum storage capacity of a floppy disk is

A. 720 KB
B. 1.2 MB
C. 2 MB
D. 1.44 MB
104. A floppy disk is available in---------------sizes

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
105. You can store maximum--------------amount of data in 5.25'' floppy disk

A. 720KB
B. 1.2KB
C. 2 MB
D. 1.44 MB
106. Which of the following is called unit of Computer memory

A. Bit
B. Nibble
C. Byte
D. Word
107. Sequence of 4 bits is called

A. Bit
B. Nibble
C. Byte
D. Word
108. Combination of 8 bits is called-------------

A. Bit
B. Nibble
Page 128
C. Byte
D. Word
109. Abbreviation of Binary Digit is

A. Bit
B. Nibble
C. Byte
D. Word
110. 1024 Bytes is equal to

A. 1024KB
B. 1 Mega Bytes
C. 1 Gega Bytes
D. 1 Kilo Bytes
111. The center processing unit of a computer consist 3 units namely ?

A. Arithmetic Logic Unit , Control Unit, Memory Unit (Answer)
B. High level unit, control unit, body unit
C. Arithmetic logic unit, body unit, memory unit
D. None of these
112. How many bits is a byte ?

A. 4
B. 8 (Answer)
C. 12
D. 16
113. Computers calculate number in what mode ?

A. Decimal
B. Octal
C. Binary (Answer)
D. None of these
114. What is the White book ?

A. Specifications for CD-R, CD-RW Disks
B. Specifications for digital Audio CD
C. Specifications for computer data cd
D. Specifications for VCD and photo CD (Answer)
115. In which year was ASCII formed ?
Page 129
A. 1963 (Answer)
B. 1973
C. 1983
D. 193
116. 1 KB is equal to ?
A. 1024 Bytes (Answer)
B. 1000 Bytes
C. 1256 Bytes
D. 1064 Bytes
117. Where is the headquarters of intel located ?

A. Santa Clara, California (Answer)
B. Redmond, Washington
C. Tucson, Arizona
D. Richmond, Virginia
118. Second largest search engine of the internet ?

A. Google
B. MSN
C. Yahoo (Answer)
D. Bing
119. What type of devices are computer speaker or headphones ?

A. Input
B. Output (Answer)
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
120. “INI” Extension refers usually to what kind of file ?

A. Image file
B. System file (Answer)
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
121. Where does most data go first within a computer memory hierarchy ?
A. Ram (Answer)
B. Rom
C. Both a and b
D. CPU
Page 130
122. What is the capacity of a standard pc floppy ?
A. 2 MB
B. 1.44 MB (Answer)
C. Both a & B
D. None of these
123. Which of the following is not a Unix or Linux variant ?

A. Debain
B. Dos (Answer)
C. Both a & b
D. None of thes
124. What is clock cycle ?

A. CPU processing speed (Answer)
B. The accuracy of a computer
C. A and b
125. Which media holds more information ?

A. DVD (Answer)
B. CD Rom
C. Floppy Disk
D. None of these
126. All computer must have ?

A. Operating system (Answer)
B. Word processing software
C. A and b
D. None of These
127. MPG extension refers usually to what kind of file ?

A. Image
B. Animation / Movi File (Answer)
C. A & B
D. None of these
128. Which part is the “brain” of the computer ?

A. Keyboard
B. Mouse
C. CPU (Answer)
Page 131
D. Ram
129. ROM is composed of ?

A. Micro processors (Answer)
B. Micro chromium
C. Micro chromium
D. None of these
130. Which of the following term is used to describe the starting point, or main page of a web site ?
A. First page
B. Links page
C. Initial page
D. Home page (Answer)
131. Which computer acts as a server for other computer on the network ?
A. Mainframe
B. Host (Answer)
C. Main server
C. Master
132. Who is known as father of computer ?

A. Charles Babbage (Answer)
B. Alan turing
C. Bill gates
D. Tim burners-lee
133. Internet mostly uses for purpose of ?

A. Entertainment
B. Business
C. E-mail (Answer)
D. Chat
134. What type of devices are cds or dvds ?

A. Output
B. Input
C. Electric
D. Storage (Answer)
135. Who created pretty good privacy ( pgp ) ?

A. Paul Zimmerman(Answer)
B. Ken thompson
Page 132
C. Bill gates
D. Tim burners
136. What kind of computer memory is both static and nonvolatile ?

A. Rom (Answer)
B. Ram
C. Ran
D. Nam
137. What type of device is a digital camera ?

A. Output
B. Input (Answer)
C. Electric
D. Mechanic
138. Which of the following is nont a network command ?

A. Ping
B. Netcfg (Answer)
C. Bill tim
D. Bmw
139. Which of the following is not an internet browser ?

A. Internet explorer
B. Google chrome
C. U torrent (Answer)
D. Mozilla
140. What is a cookie ?

A. Internet information file (Answer)
B. Hacker file
C. Customary file
D. None of these
141. The bar displayed at the bottom of the desktop is known as ?

A. Title bar
B. Menu bar
C. Tool bar
D. Task bar (Answer)
142. You can shut down, standby, restart the computer by using ?
A. Desktop
Page 133
B. Start button (Answer)
C. Menu bar
D. Task bar
143. The software that removes viruses form disk are known as ?
A. Virus killer
B. Remover
C. Destroyer
D. Anti virus (Answer)
144. Which component makes it easy to delete and un-delete files and folders ?
A. Windows explorer
B. My documents
C. Control pannel
D. Recycle bin (Answer)
145. The option that makes it easier for people with disabilities to operate a compute is ?
A. Accessibility (Answer)
B. Display
C. Settings
D. Fonts
146. The image or color set to the background of the desktop is ?

A. Screen sever
B. Picture
C. Monogram
D. Wallpaper (Answer)
147. The device that enables the computer to make a dial-up networking is ?
A. Mouse
B. Monitor
C. Keyboard
D. Modem (Answer)
148. Which component provides a tree like view of disks its files and folder ?
A. My computer
B. Control panel
C. Start menu
D. Windows explorer (Answer)
149. Which of the following lets you browser the contents of you computer ?
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A. My documents
B. Windows explorer
C. My network places
D. My computer (Answer)
150. A convenient place to store documents, graphics, or other files that you want to access quickly is ?
A. My documents (Answer)
B. Folder
C. My computer
D. My networks places
151. Which of the example of operating system ?

A. Windows
B. Mac OS
C. Unix
D. All of these (Answer)
152. Which of the following is not example of operating system ?

A. DOS
B, OS/2
C. Oracle (Answer)
D. XENIX
153. Which one is the first operating system that introduced the GUI ?
A. DOS
B. Mac OS (Answer)
C. Windows
D. All of These
154. MS-DOS was introduced by ?

A. Apple Corporation
B. IBM
C. Microsoft (Answer)
D. Sun Microsystems
155. The XP in Windows XP stand for ?

A. Extended processer
B. Xenix Processor
C. Experience (Answer)
D. Exceptional
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156. MS-DOS is an --------Operating system ?
A. Command line interface (Answer)
B. GUI
C. Network
D. Embedded
157. Which of the following is not an example of network operating systems ?

A. Windows NT Server
B. UNIX
C. Solaris
D. DOS (Answer)
158. ------ is a process that starts operating system when a user turns on the system ?
A. Booting (Answer)
B. Running
C. Starting
D. None of these
159. Windows XP is developed by ?

A. Sun Micro-systems
B. AT & T Lab
D. Soft Tech
D. Microsoft (Answer)
160. The term icon used in ?

A. Command-line interface
B. GUI (Answer)
C. Unix
D. None of these
161. System Tray is also known as ?

A. Notification tray
B. Status area
C. Notification area (Answer)
D. Active area
162. Which one Consists of Group of related commands ?

A. Icons
B. Dialog boxes
C. Windows
D. Menus (Answer)
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163. Which one isused to collects information from user before processing command ?
A. Dialog boxes (Answer)
B. Icons
C. Menus
D. Windows
164. Pressing and releasing the left mouse button is called ?

A. Right click
B. Center click
C. Left click (Answer)
D. Drag
165. Which of the following is not a mouse event ?

A. Center click (Answer)
B. Left click
C. Right click
D. Drag
166. Which of the following event of mouse is normally used to sect an object ?
A. Right click
B. Center click
C. Left click (Answer)
D. Drag
167. Which of the following events of mouse is used to select multiple items at a time or to move an items form one
location to another ?
A. Left click
B. Drag (Answer)
C. Right click
D. Center click
168. To open a document ?

A. Double click its icon (Answer)
B. Click its icon
C. Tight click its icon
D. Point its icon
169. The bar the bottom of Windows desktop is called ?

A. Title bar
B. Status bar
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C. Task bar (Answer)
D. Scroll bar
170. Which option of Start menu contain “Control Panel” command ?

A. Programs
B. Settings (Answer)
C. Run
D. None of these
171. Which one is used for switching between running programs ?

A. Desktop
B. Task bar (Answer)
C. Start menu
D. None of above
172. Which one does not exist on task bar ?

A. Desktop (Answer)
B. Quick Launch
C. Start button
D. Notification
173. Which one can be used to see computers connected to a network ?

A. My computer
B. Control Panel
C. My Document
D. My Network Places (Answer)
174. Which option of start menu can be used to see recently opened documents ?
A. Programs
B. Settings
C. My Recent Documents (Answer)
D. Search
175. Which one is not the option for Shut Down dialog box of Windows Xp ?
A. Turn Off
B. Log Off (Answer)
C. Restart
D. Stand by
176. A Shortcut on desktop can be created for ?

A. Application program
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B. Document
C. Folder or Drive
177. Which of the following is the entering point in Windows ?

A. My computer
B. Desktop (Answer)
C. My document
D. Windows Explorer
178. When a document is sent to printer for printing the printer icon appears in ?
A. System Tray
B. Notification Area
C. Start Menu
D. Both A & B (Answer)
179. System time is displayed on ?

A. System Tray (Answer)
B. Application Tray
C. Clock Tray
D. Desktop Tray
180. Which shortcut key is used for switching between opened application programs ?
A. Ctrl + Tab
B. Alt + Tab (Answer)
C. Shift+ Tab
D. Ctrl + Alt
181. Which shortcut is used to paste items form clipboard (copied using Ctrl+C ) to a specified location ?
A. Ctrl + C
B. Ctrl + X
C. Shift + V
D. Ctrl + V (Answer)
182. You can restore files/folders that deleted from ?

A. USB drive
B. CD-ROM
C. Floppy Disk
D. Hard Disk (Answer)
183. In windows, which sign in designated to floppy disk ?
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A. A: (Answer)
B. C:
C. D:
D. E:
184. To Show “Display Properties” dialog box ?

A. Right click on desktop empty area and select Properties Option
B. Select “Display” icon from control panel
D. None of above
185. What is default name given to the frit new folder ?

A. New Folder (Answer)
B. New Folder (1)
C. New Folder (2)
D. New Folder (3)
186. Which one is considered as the main system software ?

B. Utility program
C. Language translator
D. Word processing software
187. Which one is the main part of operating systems ?

A. File System
B. Kernel (Answer)
C. Drivers
D. Utility Program
188. --------- is a process that starts operating system when a user turns on the system.?
A. Starting
B. Booting (Answer)
C. Running
D. None of these
189. The process to restart the computer that is already powered on is called ?
A. Soft Boot
B. Cold Boot
C. Ward Boot (Answer)
D. Hot Boot
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190. Which of the following services provided by the operating system ?
A. Memory Management
B. User-Interface
C. File Management
191. A set on instructions in a computer language is called ?

A. Software
B. Computer program
C. Hardware
D. Both a & b (Answer)
192. A program or set of programs that is specially designed to control the computer system is called ?
A. Application software
B. System software (Answer)
C. Freeware
D. Shareware
193. Which of the following in an example of system software ?

A. Utility program Driver
B. Operating system
C. All of above (Answer)
D. None of above
194. Which of the following is not an example of system software ?

A. Word processor
B. Spreadsheet program
C. Game program
195. The software that is developed for a particular organization or customer is called ?
A. Custom-bulit software
B. Customized software
C. Game program
196. Which of the following is application software ?

A. Ms-Excel (Answer)
B. Language processors
C. Ms-DOS
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D. Unix
197. Which of the following is an example of packaged software ?

A. Oracle
B. Internet Explorer
C. Ms-Access
198. Which of the following is not an example of packaged software ?

A. Ms-Word
B. Ms-Power Point
C. MS-Access
D. Ms-Windows (Answer)
199. Which of the following is not an application software ?

A. Scientific software
B. Games
C. Device driver (Answer)
D. Multimedia software
200. Microsoft Excel is a ?

A. Word processing
B. Database Management Software
C. Spreadsheet software (Answer)
D. Presentations graphics software
201. PowerPoint is an example of ?

A. Word processing
B. Database Management Software
C. Spreadsheet software
D. Presentations graphics software (Answer)
202. Spreadsheet includes a -------- which is a sequence of keystrokes and instructions that are recorded and saved
A. Micro
B. Macro (Answer)
C. Key
D. None of above
203. Which performs maintenance type task usually related to computer, its device or its program ?
A. Utility program (Answer)
B. Communication software
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C. Application software
D. None of above
204. Software enables professional designer to design and produce sophisticated documents that contain text, graphics
and brilliant colors ?
A. Paint
B. World processing
C. Spreadsheet
D. Desktop Publishing (Answer)
205. Which utility program is used to make a duplicate copy of selected files/folders ?
A. Disk Defragmenter
B. Copy
C. Backup (Answer)
D. File compression
206. Which utility programs is used for file compression ?

A. WinZIp
B. PkZIP
C. Backup
D. Both A &B (Answer)
207. Which utility program is used to detect and to remove the physical as well as logical problems on the disk ?
A. Disk Scanner (Answer)
B. Disk Defragmenter
C. Diagnostic Utility Program
D. Anti Virus
208. Which one is the main part of Operating System ?

A. File System
B. Kernel (Answer)
C. Drivers
D. Utility programs
209. Which one is considered as the main system software ?

B. Utility programs
C. Language Translator
D. World Processing Software
210. Which one is the process the starts operating system when a user turns on the system ?
Page 143
A. Booting (Answer)
B. Running
C. Starting
D. None of these
211. A small, silicon object which contains microscopic circuitry is termed as ?

A. Processor
B. Microchip (Answer)
C. Transistor
D. Clipboard
212. What is cache memory ?

A. Faster than the main memory
B. Smaller than the main memory
C. Slower than the main memory
D. Both a and b (Answer)
213. The pictorial representation of the procedure proposed to solve a problem by a program ?
A. Interpreter
B. Binary coded
C. Decimal interchange
D. Flow Chare (Answer)
214. What is called a hardware item that can be attached to a computer to increase its functionality, such as a printer or
monitor ?
A. Additional devices
B. Accessory
C. Peripheral (Answer)
D. Devices
215. Name the term which is used for the connection on an IBM PC or compatible computer usually named LPT1, where
is plugged in a c able for a parallel printer ?
A. Common port
B. Com port
C. Serial port
D. Parallel port (Answer)
216. A program, document, utility that isn’t hardware on a computer is termed as ?

A. Software
B. Data
C. Extension
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D. File (Answer)
217. Which is the biggest company of computer software in the world ?

A. Google
B. Yahoo
C. Microsoft (Answer)
D. Oracle
218. Do you know about ALGOL, BASIC, COBAL, 4GL, 3GL, Java, PASCAL, C, C and VB ?
A. Computer companies
B. Computer websites
C. Computer language (Answer)
D. None of above
219. ROM is the acronym for ?

A. Read only memory (Answer)
B. Read over memory
C. Read of memory
D. None of above
220. RAM is the acronym for ?

A. Read after memory
B. Random access memory (Answer)
C. Read all memory
D. None of above
221. What is a URL ?

A. The address of a page on the world wide web.
B. The title of a web site
C. The title memory card
D. None of these
222. What is used in a computer to protect a networked server from damge by those who log in to it ?
A. Antivirus
B. Firewall (Answer)
C. Gateway
D. Flow control
223. A cathode ray tube is found in what ?

A. Monitor (Answer)
B. CPU
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C. Printer
D. None of Them
224. Which of the following is not an image file ?

A. Tmp (Answer)
B. Jpeg
B. Tif
D. None of above
225. Which on is not an output device ?

A. Keyboard (Answer)
B. Printer
C. Platter
D. None of Them
226. Which is the fastest type of computer memory ?

A. Cache (Answer)
B. Flash
C. Micro
D. Rom
227. What is the name of the professor who coined the name virus for self replicating programs ?
A. Tim burners-lee
B. Ken Thompson
C. Alan truing
D. Fred Cohen (Answer)
228. The capacity of computer bus depends upon ?

A. Capacity of CPU
B. Capacity of the microprocessor
C. The number of data lines it contains (Answer)
D. The system software
229. The interface between user and computer is ?

A. Programming (Answer)
B. Hardware
C. Memory
D. Processing
230. What type of device is a computer mouse ?

A. Output
Page 146
B. Input (Answer)
C. Storage Device
D. None of them
231. How do we call the part of the screen you can click on which displays a list of commands:
A. A Menu (Answer)
B. The Computer
C. Some Documents
D. None Of These
232. What do you call the space where the computer does its processing:
A. CPU
B. RAM (Answer)
C. OS
D. ROM
233. KB, MB, GB, is respectively:

A. Kilo Bytes, Mega Bytes, Giga Bytes (Answer)
B. Kilo Bits, Mega Bits, Giga Bits
C. Kelvin Bytes, Medium Bytes, Giga Bytes
D. None Of These
234. A set of 8 bits is called:

A. Byte (Answer)
B. Giga Byte
C. Mega Bytes
D. Birney
235. What is termed the portion of RAM set aside for temporarily holding information read from a disk:
A. Rom
B. Cache Memory
C. Bus
D. Disk Cache (Answer)
236. There is a modem which can handle FAX protocols and transmit data. What this data is called:
A. Fax Modem
B. Data Modem
C. Both A And B (Answer)
D. None Of These
Page 147
237. The capacity of a hard disk depends upon the:
A. High Speed Motor
B. Movement Of Read
C. Number Of Disk Platter Stacked (Answer)
D. None Of These
238. Which software controls basic I/O device:

A. Device Driver
B. Ant-Virus Tool Kit
C. Business Software
D. Operating System (Answer)
239. The medium is used by input dives light pen for graphical input is:
A. Interpreter
B. Binary Coded
C. CRT Screen (Answer)
D. Flow Chart
240. The translator program that translates each line of the source program as it run is called:
A. Interpreter (Answer)
B. Binary Coded
C. Decimal Interchange
D. Flow Chart
241. RAM stands for-----------?

A. Random origin money
B. Random only memory
C. Read only memory
D. Random access memory (Answer)
242. 1 Byte =-----------?

A. 8 bits (Answer)
B. 4 bits
C. 2 bits
D. 9 bits
243. The device used to carry digital data on analogue lines is called as---------?
A. Modem (Answer)
B. Multiplexer
C. Modulator
D. Demodulator
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244. BIOS stands for----------?
A. Basic Input Output system (Answer)
B. Binary Input output system
C. Basic Input Off system
D. all the above
245. Father of “C‘ programming language?

A. Dennis Ritchie (Answer)
B. Prof John Keenly
C. Thomas Kurtz
D. Bill Gates
246. The instructions that tell a computer how to carry out the processing tasks are referred to as computer-----------?
A. programs (Answer)
B. processors
C. input devices
D. memory modules
247. An area of a computer that temporarily holds data waiting to be processed is-----------?
A. CPU
B. Memory (Answer)
C. Storage
D. File
248. ----------- is the key to close a selected drop -down list; cancel a command and close a dialog box.
A. TAB
B. SHIFT
C. ESC (Answer)
D. F10
249. -----------is the key we use to run the selected command?

A. SHIFT
B. TAB
C. ENTER (Answer)
D. CTRL

A. MB B. KB C. Byte D. XB (Answer)
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MCAT Fully Solved Dogar Sons MCQs Guide

2. The scientific study of livings is called?

4. The scientific study of plants is termed as?

5. The scientific study animals is termed as?

7. It is the study of internal organs of organisms?

9. Anopheles mosquito carries Plasmodium which causes malaria in?

15. The study of fossils of animals is termed as?

16. It is the study of hereditary characters transmitted from parents to offspring?

19. The study of microrganisms is termed as?

22. The study of nuclear cytology is known as?

24. The study of animal behavior is known as?

25. Science for the genetical improvement of human race is called?

26. The science of characters and distribution of race is known as?

28. Deduction is a logical consequence of?

30. Romans believed that material is caused by?

31. Severe deficiency of Vitamin D results in __________. (Answer)

34. The average internal temperature of human body is __________. (Answer)

36. About __________ of the body weight of a mammal is water. (Answer)

37. On wound __________ fight foreign particles, like bacteria. (Answer)

38. Blood is carried towards the heart by __________. (Answer)

39. __________ is essential for the formation of haemoglobin. (Answer)

42. The study of nuclear cytology is known as (Answer)

44. The study of animal behaviour is known as (Answer)

48. Deduction is a logical consequence of (Answer)

50. Romans believed that material is caused by (Answer)

51. Which one of the following is the study of fossils (Answer)

53. Biology is the scientific study of (Answer)

55. The study of animals is known as (Answer)

56. Biologists mainly deal with matters relating to (Answer)

61. Biology is the scientific study of (Answer)

63. The word Malaria means (Answer)

65. Malaria is more common in (Answer)

67. Which is the cause of malaria infection?

72. Anopheles mosquito carries Plasmodium which causes malaria in.?

85. The first useful microscope was invented shortly before.?

91. Which plant cells give support to plant body.?

92. Who formulated Cell theory.?

93. The great contributing of Sch-wan was.?

95. Which cell can contract and relax.?

96. Which cells secrete harmones.?

98. Which of the following blood cells carry oxygen.?

103. In plants which cells are concerned with transport of food.?

105. The outermost layer in a plant cell is.?

106. Chemically cell membrane is composed of closely associated molecules of.?

108. Which plant cells give support to plant body.?

109. In plants,which cells carry out photosynthesis. ?

112. Ribosomes were first of all discovered by.?

115. A cell wall composed of.?

122. The Lososomes are present in almost all.?

123. Which organells are involved in the synthesis of Fats.?

125. Ribosomes are produced in the.?

126. Which are called the factory of protein synthesis.?

127. Which is called the factory of ribosome’s.?

128. Ribosomes were first of all discovered by.?

130. Two subunits if ribosome on attachment with each other form.?

132. All insects have how many parts of legs.?

136. The phylum chordate comprise about how many species.?

138. Sub-phylum vertebrate is also known as.?

143. Kingdom fungi includes.?

144. Earthworm is included in.?

148. Amman Human blood is an example of?

150. Scolidon or dog fish belong to the group fo fishes called.?