SEROLOGY-IMMUNOLOGY

11. The specific antigens expressed on Sheeps's RBC

SUMMATIVE EXAM: RATIONALIZATION membrane that are agglutinated by heterophile
antibodies
1. Acquired Immunity o Forsmann antigens
o Reactions caused by the invasion of a o Ags of serum sickness
certain foreign substance o IM antigens
o System mounts a unique reaction to every o All of the above
discrete antigen that it encounters
o Of slow onset 12. What is the particulate antigen in a viral
o All of the above hemagglutination test?
o Red blood cells
2. All of the ff are physiological barriers comprising
the natural defense mechanism 13. The protein part of the antigen that gives
o Coughing, sneezing molecule its required size
o Carrier
3. What type of immunity develops during
convalescence stage of an infection 14. The presence of various allelic forms of HLA-A,
o Natural active immunity HLA-B and HLA-C proteins characterizes the ____
• Convalescence stage = height of nature of MHC genes
infection o Polymorphic

4. They are highly charged srurface structures with 15. CD4+ T-cells recognize antigen peptide fragments
unique spatial arrangements of chemical group presented by APCs in association with
seen only on microbes o MHC Class II
o PAMP (Pathogen-Associated Molecular
Pattern) 16. Which of the ff comprise the chain structures of
MHC Class 1 molecules
5. Which immune cell is considered to be a bridge o Alpha chain and B2 microglobulin
between innate and adaptive immune system? • Same as hemoglobin
o Natural killer cells
17. HLA typing of this class allows detection of
6. A lymphokine is a diabetes mellitus
o Soluble mediator produced by o MHC Class II
lymphocytes
18. The MHC contains all of the ff except
7. A mature cytotoxic T cell expresses which o Genes that encode immunoglobulin
markers? • On the short arm of chromosome
o CD8, CD3, and CD2
• Keyword = CD8 19. A continuous slow rate cleavage of C3 in the
blood plasma, termed as the C3 tickover is a
8. Which of the ff are light chains of an antibody unique feature of early activation of which of the
molecule? ff complement pathway
o Kappa
o Alternative pathway
9. Which Ig isotype displays biologic activity against 20. Which of the ff describes the role of properdin in
helminthic infections? the alternative pathway?
o IgE o Stabilization of C3 convertase

10. Immunoglobulin idiotype are antibodies with 21. An example of a type III hypersensitivity
variations in the domains of which of the ff? o Rheumatoid arthritis
o VH & VL

22. To determine if a patient is allergic to peanuts, 33. Type II and Type III hypersensitivities differ from
grass pollen, the best test to perform is each other on the
o RAST o Nature of the allergen involved

23. Immune injury resulting from the localization of 34. A young women developed red, itchy papules on
immune complexes in blood vessels and tissues her wrist two days after wearing a new bracelet.
describes which hypersensitivity reaction? This reaction is caused by
o Type III o Cytokine induced inflammatory response
• Can lead to papules or erythema
24. Which of the ff immune mechanism is involved in
contact dermatitis? 35. The ff clinical conditions are classic examples of
o Sensitization of cytotoxic T cells Type III hypersensitivity reactions except
o Leprosy
25. Type II hypersensitivity could be involved in all of
the ff except 36. Which of the ff types of hypersensitivity reaction
o IgE cross-linking on the mast cell or would cause the destruction of host's surface
basophil antigens through ADCC
o Type II
26. Which of the ff serologic marker would be an
indicator of systemic lupus 37. A useful screening test to detect diseases
o Anti-DNP (deoxynucleoprotein antibody) associated with Type II hypersensitivity (AIHA)
o DAT
27. The "CREST" disease is associated with the
presence of which of the ff antibody? 38. Cell type involved in anaphylactic reactions
o Anti-centromere o Mast cells

28. In the slide agglutination for lupus, which of the ff 39. Which hypersensitivity type is mediated by
is detected? antibodies
o Anti-DNP o Type I & Type V Hypersensitivity
• For rapid testing only (card test)
40. The most common disease associated with IgE
29. Cow's milk, grass pollen, bee sting are some of the related hypersenstiviity?
allergens mostly associated with which type of o Allergic rhinitis
hypersensitivity reaction?
o Type I 41. Demonstrate a cell-mediated type of
hypersensitivity reaction
30. All of the ff types of hypersensitivity may be o Contact sensitivity & pulmonary
involved in drug, allergies, except tuberculosis
o Type IV
42. Type V Hypersensitivity in exemplified in
31. The immune mechanism involved in type III o Myasthenia gravis
hypersensitivity reaction
o Deposition of immune complexes occurs in 43. Detection of this antibody supports diagnosis of
antibody excess drug-induced lupus
o Anti-histone antibodies
32. An increase in the production of IgE is most • Drug induced and autoimmune SLE
associated with
o Activation of Th2 cells 44. Which autoimmune disease is related to the ff
• T-helper cells type 2 needed to recruit mechanisms or etiologies?
other factors such as histamine that o Rheumatoid arthritis - recognition of cryptic
will destroy the cells epitope
• Stopped by suppressor cells o Multiple sclerosis - epitope spreading
o SLE - loss of suppression
 o Insulin dependent DM - Molecular mimicry 54. Sensitive assay for detection of antibodies to
dsDNA that uses the hemoflagellate, Crithidia
45. In autoimmune diseases where autoantibodies luciliae as substrate
direct their action on antigens localized within the o Indirect IF
target organ is categorized as
o Organ specific 55. The risks for many of the autoimmune disease is
associated with the presence of particular HLA
46. What is the general definition for autoimmunity genes
o Loss of tolerance to self-antigens o True

47. Which pattern of fluorescence in ANA is most 56. The emergence of autoimmune diseases is a
closely associated with active SLE result of the breakdown of the immune system
o Rim or peripheral ability to discrimate between self and non-self
• Specific for SLE o True
• Crithidia luciliae
57. Classic procedure determining HLA phenotype
48. The most common liver autoimmune disease that such as the Class I HLAs
often affects female o Complement dependent cytotoxicity
o Primary biliary cirrhosis
• Women who gave birth 58. Graft-versus-host disease is most frequently
• Chronic liver disease associated with which transplant?
• Can lead to destruction of the biliary o Bone marrow
epithelial cells
59. Donor recipient compatibility is determine
49. Which autoimmune disease characterized by the through evaluation of all of the ff antigenic
formation of plaques in the white matter of the system, except
brain resulting to progessive destruction of myelin o MHC Class III antigens
sheath?
o Multiple sclerosis 60. Important uses of immunosuppresive drugs
o Maintenance of transplant
50. Which of the ff is not a common immunologic o Prolonged survival of graft
symptom shared by most autoimmune diseases o Reversal of established rejection
o Increased levels of serum complement o All of the above

51. What is the basis for distinguishing SLE from RA 61. The mainstay of immunosuppression therapy in
o Presence of anti ds-DNA antibodies transplantaion
• Nucleus are pushed in the peripheral o Corticosteroid
area (LE cells)
62. Heart valve transplant utilized in the treatment of
52. Death of granulocytes and macrophage triggers aortic and mitral valve defects is a common form
production of citrullinated proteins which when of
overexpressed provoke the formation of this o Xenograft
antibody?
o Anti-CCP 63. Which of the ff graft is most likely to be rejected
• Released with IgA by GVHD rejection
o A guinea pig's lower limb to a rabbit's
53. Rheumatoid factors seen in RA patients are forelimb
classified as ___ antibodies?
o IgM (penta) 64. Skin transplant is an example of
o A heterotrophic autograft
• Orthotopic syngraft - transplant with
bone/cartilage

65. The type of transplant utilized for hematologic 76. Which of the ff clinical applications of tumor
malignancies markers is used to identify cancer among
o HSC transplant asymptomatic individuals in a population
o o Screening test
66. GVHD is unique allogeneic response commonly 77. Immunologic basis of cancer therapy
observed in which of the ff graft? o Immune activation leading to destruction
o Liver graft of tumor cells
o Stem cell transplant o Treatment with antibodies against tumor
specific antigen
67. Antigen receptors on T lymphocytes bind MHC
Class II Antigen complexes with the aid of which 78. Which one of the ff immune cells destroy tumors
accessory molecules using ADCC as a recognition mode and perforin as
o CD3 an effector molecule?
o Natural killer cells
68. A 30 year old man was found to be a suitable
donor for a kidney transplant to his younger 79. All of the ff are humoral mediated processes
sister. This type of transplant is known as ____ important in preventing the growth of tumors,
o Allograft except
o Destruction by cytotoxic T cells
69. Type of allograft rejection characterized by • Humoral mediated processes
characterized by parenchymal and vascular injury § Opsonic antibodies
mediated by donor specific antibodies § Complement activating
o Acute humoral rejection antibodies
• CD8, CD4, macrophages are common
80. Which among the list of tumor markers would be
70. Which of the ff is not an immunologically very useful tool for
privileged site? o Denotes increased aggressiveness &
o Glomerulus of the kidney reduced survival rate in breast cancer
• Her2 / neu
71. A 6 year old boy receives bone marrow transplant o Screening for high risk population for liver
from his father during treatment for AML. Of cancer
primary concern of the clinician will be the • Alpha-fetoprotein
potential development of _____ o Considered the best marker for ovarian
o GVHD cancer
• CA-125
72. With no therapeutic intervention, the most likely
outcome for a transplanted skin graft obtained 81. Which of the ff cytokine is known to have anti-
from an unrelated donor who tumor activity
o Chronic rejection o Interferon gamma

73. Antigens unique to the tumor of an individual 82. Which innate cell of the IS is involved in the
patient or shared by a limited number of patients immune
with the same type of tumor o Natural killer cells
o Tumor specific antigen
83. Which of the following is/are oncofetal antigen?
74. Carcinoembryonic antigen is correlated with o CEA & AFP
o Colorectal cancer
84. Although best known as a "pregnancy hormone",
75. Which of the ff is not implicated in the -- incomplete question and no answer
development of tumors
o Psychological tumors 85. Factors that cause normal cells to become
• Psychosomatic malignant
o Overexpression of oncogenes

86. The best use of serum tumor markers
o Monitoring of patient undergoing CA
therapy
87. Which of the ff is an example of tumor specific
antigen
o BCR/ABL fusion protein

88. Innate immune defenses of the body against
tumors include
o NK cell mediated apoptosis

89. Which of the ff markers is used in
immunohistochemistry to identify tumors of
epithelial origin?
o Cytokeratin

90. Which of the ff pair of tumor antigen and
malignant disease denotes an incorrect match
o CEA - choriocarcinoma
• Breast, colorectal