‫معهد اإلسراء لمعادلة الشهاده‬

Q/ Select the best answer(s);

1. Which of the following approaches would not be suitable for improving drug solubility with an
aim of increasing the dissolution rate?

a. complexation b. micellar solubilisation c. salt form

d. hydrated form e. co-solvents

2. Which of the following statements is (are) correct? The dissolution rate from a solution depends
on the: a. wettability of the drug

b. surface area of the particles

c. hydrophobic lipophilic balance

3. Which of the following statements is (are) correct? A solution:

a. is a mixture of two or more components

b. is homogeneous down to molecular level

c. contains a disperse phase of solutes

d. has the largest phase as the solvent

4. Which of the following factors does not influence the bioavailability of drugs from aqueous
suspension dosage forms?

a. particle size b. crystal form of the drug

c. inclusion of surfactants as wetting and deflocculating agents

d. solubility of the drug e. none of the above

5. Which of the following surface active agents is (are) used as wetting agents for oral
administration?

a. polysorbates b. sorbitan esters c. sodium lauryl sulfate

6. Which of the following surface active agents is (are) used as wetting agents for parenteral
administration?

a. polysorbates b. sorbitan esters c. sodium lauryl sulfate

7. When a suspension is formulated, it has to be:

a. deflocculated (i.e. the dispersed particles remain as discrete units) and with controlled viscosity

b. deflocculated and without controlled viscosity

c. flocculated and without controlled viscosity

d. partially flocculated and with controlled viscosity

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e. none of the above

8. Surfactants suitable for use as wetting agents in the formulation of suspensions would possess
an HLB value in the range of:

a. 2–4 b. 5–6 c. 7–9 d. 10–13 e. 14–16

9. When a suspension is applied externally, the texture will feel gritty to patients if the particle size
(diameter, in µm) is greater than:

a.1 b.5 c.10 d.20 e.100

10. Which of the following is (are) used in the formulation of an oral emulsion?

a. liquid paraffin b. castor oil c. benzyl benzoate

11. Which of the following approaches does not improve the physical stability of emulsions?

A. production of an emulsion of small droplet size

b. increase in the viscosity of the continuous phase

c. increase in the density difference between the two phases

d. control of the disperse phase concentration

e. none of the above

12. Many of the oils and fats used in emulsions are susceptible to:

a. hydrolysis b. oxidation c. reduction d. pyrolysis e. thermal degradation

13. Which of the following statements about emulsions is incorrect?

a. emulsions with a droplet size of less than 1 mm could be transparent b. emulsions for intravenous
administration must be of the oil-in-water type c. water-in-oil emulsions are more suitable for hydrating
skin d. water-in-oil emulsions are more efficient cleansers e. none of the above

14. What is the HLB value of a combination of surfactants composed of 2 g Span 80 (HLB= 4.3) and 3
g Tween 80 (HLB= 15)?

a. 53.6 b. 19.3 c.18.9 d.10.7 e.11.5

15. What would be the amount (in g) of Span 80 in 5 g of a surfactant system composed of a
mixture of Span 80 (HLB= 4.3) and Tween 80 (HLB= 15) to produce a total HLB value of 13?

a. 0.54 b.0.93 c. 1.23 d. 1.52 e.3.26

16. Which of the following is not used as a preservative for emulsions?

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a. sorbic acid b. chlorocresol c. bronopol

d. parahydroxybenzoic acid esters e. chloral hydrate

17. For the preparation of an acacia emulsion, the proportion of the amounts of oil, water and
acacia in th e primary emulsion should be:

a. 4: 2: 1 b. 4: 4: 2 c. 4: 8: 4 d. 2: 4: 1 e. 4: 4: 1

18. Which of the following statements is not valid for gels?

a. gels are usually transparent and water based

b. in the preparation of gels, aqueous and non-aqueous phases should be heated to the same
temperature

c. syneresis is a form of instability in gels

d. polymer–solvent interaction provides the required three dimensional structure in gels

e. a gel cannot be formed below a critical concentration of polymer

19. Which of the following is not true with reference to the popularity of tablets?

a. being a unit dosage form, tablets offer accuracy of dose

b. the oral route is the most convenient and safe way of administering drugs

c. tablets are easy to produce on a bulk scale

d. tablets are usually costlier compared with oral liquid formulations

e. tablets offer better stability for most drugs compared with liquid dosage forms

20. The process of tablet formation involves three stages. Which of the following is the correct
sequence?

a. die filling>compression>ejection

b. compression>die filling>ejection

c. die filling>ejection>compression

d. ejection>die filling>compression

e. compression>ejection>die filling

21. A number of powder properties need to be optimised and controlled in the tabletting process.
Which of the following options best describes these properties? a. homogeneous mixing of powder with
minimal segregation

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b. compression characteristics

c. flow behaviour

d. adhesion and friction

22. Which of the following is not the correct pair of equipment and unit operation?

a. high shear mixer: mixing of powder

b. high shear mixer: agglomeration

c. fluidised-bed dryer: size reduction

d. hammer mill: size reduction

e. tablet press: tabletting

23. Which of the following is true regarding direct compression?

a. the process of direct compression is as complex as wet granulation

b. direct compression is cheaper than wet granulation and compression

c. there is no difference in stability between tablets produce by any method

d. any material can be directly compressed with modern tabletting equipment

e. direct compression cannot be used for potent drugs

24. Which of the following tablet excipients is not used as a filler?

a. lactose b. calcium carbonate c. dicalcium phosphate

d. sorbitol e. polyvinyl pyrrolidone

25. Which of the following is the most commonly used lubricant in tablet manufacturing?

a. polyethylene glycol b. liquid paraffin c. magnesium stearate

d. stearic acid e. sodium lauryl sulfate

26. Which of the following can be used as a dry binder?

a. gelatin b. sucrose c. starch

d. polyvinyl pyrrolidone e. sodium starch glycolate

27. Which of the following mechanisms can facilitate tablet disintegration?

a. swelling of disintegrants by sorption of water, leading to rupture of the tablet

b. promotion of penetration of liquid inside the tablets, such as that caused by surface active
agents

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c. evolution of gas such as carbon dioxide, in the presence of water

28. Which of the following is incorrect with reference to lubrication during tabletting?

a. glidants improve flowability during the tabletting process

b. colloidal silica is the most commonly used glidant

c. lubricants reduce the friction between tablet and die, helping with compression and ejection

d. lubricants also help with tablet disintegration and dissolution

e. magnesium stearate is an example of a commonly used lubricant

29. Which of the following types of tablet can be used for the sustained release of drugs?

a. disintegrating b. chewable c. effervescent d. buccal e. sublingual 30. Which of

the following is not true with reference to lozenges?

a. compressed lozenges are designed to dissolve slowly and release the drug in the saliva

b. lozenges are often coloured and f lavoured

c. similar to other tablets, lozenges contain gelatin as the disintegrating agent

d. glucose and sorbitol are commonly used as fillers in lozenges

e. lozenges are generally produced by compression at high pressure

31. Which of the following is (are) used as drug-release mechanisms in prolongedrelease tablets?

a. diffusion control b. dissolution control c. erosion control

32. Which of the following is not the correct pair of test parameter and method used for
assessment?

a. uniformity of content: assay of active ingredient

b. mechanical strength: hardness test

c. release profile: disintegration test

d. microbial load: sterility testing

e. mottling: surface appearance

33. Which of the following best describes the reasons for carrying out dissolution studies?

a. to estimate the likely in vivo behaviour, based on in vitro data

b. to act as a quality-control tool

c. to develop generic formulations for specific brands

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34. Which of the following oils is (are) used for intravenous administration in the formulation of an
emulsion?

a. cod liver

b. cottonseed

c. safflower

35. In 1913; -------- states rule that the type of emulsion is a function of the relative solubility of the
surfactant, the phase in which it is more soluble being the continuous phase.

a. Bancroft b. Boyd c. Beerbower, Nixon, and Hill d. Mullins and Becker

36. The smaller the pore size, the higher is the supersaturation of the solution required for the
crystals to grow. This can be shown using ------- equation as applied to a particle suspended in a
saturated solution.

a. stockes b. stockes velocity c. Kelvin d. Korysmer

37. In addition to particle aggregation, particle growth is also a destabilizing process resulting from
temperature fluctuations or -------- during storage

a. flocculation b. deflocculation c. sedimentation d. Ostwald ripening

38. The wettability of a powder can be ascertained easily by observing the contact angle (----) that
powder makes with the surface of the liquid.

a. 90º b.>90º c.<90º d. zero

39. The average particle diameter of calcium carbonate in aqueous suspension is 54 μm. The densities of
CaCO3 and water, respectively, are 2.7 and 0.997 g/cm3. The viscosity of water is 0.009 poise at 25°C.
The rate of fall v′ for CaCO3 samples at porosity of 0.95 and n value is 19.73 is

a. 0.13 cm/sec b. 0.12 cm/sec c. 0.11 cm/sec d. 0.1 cm/sec

40. Brownian movement of particle prevents sedimentation by keeping the dispersed material in
random motion and depends on the ------ of dispersed phase.

a. viscosity b. density c. volume d. number

41. ------------------------- is a ratio of the ultimate volume of sediment (Vu) to the original volume of
suspension (Vo) before settling

a. creaming rate b. sedimentation rate c. sedimentation height d. degree of

flocculation

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42. Controlled flocculation of particles is obtained by addition of ----------------- to reduce zeta potential
surrounding the solid particles

a. polymer b. salt c. complex d. non -ionic surfactant

43. Assume that the interfacial tension of a particle of drug in an aqueous vehicle is 100ergs/cm2, its
molecular weight is 200 g/mole, and the temperature of the solution is 30° C or 303 K. The radius, R, of
the particle is 5 μm, or 5 × 10-4 cm, and its density is 1.3 g/cm3. The supersaturation ratio, c/co required
for the crystal to grow is

a. 0.0024 b. 0042 c. 0.024 d. 0.042

44. Compute the sedimentation volume of a 5% w/v suspension of magnesium carbonate in water.
The initial volume is Vo = 100 mL and the final volume of the sediment is Vu =30 mL.

a. 0.003 b. 0.03 c. 0.30 d. 3.00

.45 If the volume of sediment in a flocculated suspension equals the original volume of suspension,
then F = --------. Such a product is said to be in “flocculation equilibrium” and shows no clear supernatant
on standing.

a. 0.5 b. >1 c. <1 d. 1

.46 According to Hiestand, the initial rate of settling of flocculated particles is determined by the floc
size and the porosity of the aggregated mass. The term ------- is sometimes used to describe settling in
flocculated systems.

a. subsidence b. sediment c. sedimentation d. flocculation

.47 The addition of --------- may affect the degree of flocculation (or deflocculation) of the system,
thereby effectively changing the particle-size distribution.

a. diluent b. binder c. disintegrant d. lubricant

.48 The velocity of sedimentation of suspension is expressed by

a. Arrhenius law b. stocks law c. Ficks law d. Highish law

.49 The interfacial tension can be reduced by the addition of ----------- but cannot ordinarily be made
equal to zero.

a. polymer b. SAA c. electrolyte d. surfactant

.50 --------- often occurs by the growth and fusing together of crystals in the precipitates to produce
a solid aggregate.

a. coalescence b. floccules c. Ostwald ripening d. caking

.51 The particles in a liquid suspension therefore tend to flocculate, that is, to form light, fluffy
conglomerates that are held together by ------------ forces.

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a. ionic b. covalent c. hydrogen d. van der Waals

.52 The --------surface area of the particles that results from the comminution is associated with a
surface free energy that makes the system thermodynamically unstable.

a. small b. large c. same d. zero

.53 The requirements for content uniformity are met if the amount of active ingredient in each
dosage unit lies within the range of

a.75-100% b. 85-110% c. 85- 115% d.90-120%

.54 For category -----------an IVIVC may be expected if the dissolution rate is slower than the rate of
gastric emptying (the rate-limiting factor).

a. I b. II c. III d. IV

.55 A drug product is considered to be ----------- when ≥ 85% of the labeled amount of drug
substance dissolves within 30 minutes using USP apparatus Ι or ΙΙ in a volume of ≤ 900 mL buffer
solution.

a. highly soluble b. rapidly dissolving c. highly permeable d. saturable solution

.56 ---------------- is molded tablet prepared on a small scale to prepare solution for injection.

a. multilayered b. enteric coated c. hypodermic dispensing

.57 A force of about -------------kg is considered the minimum requirement for a satisfactory tablet to
disintegrate.

a.80 kg b.40 kg c.8 kg d.4 kg

.58 For category -----------an IVIVC may be little expected if the permeability is the rate- controlling
factor.

a. I b. II c. III d. IV

.59 -------------- Granulation may be unsuitable used for thermolabile drugs or drugs prone to
hydrolysis.

a. roller compaction b. Double compaction c. Wet d. Direct

.60 Tablet manufacturing method used mainly for highly compressible and flowable drugs but
cannot be used in cases of high doses or low doses, is

a. Dry b. Double compaction c. Slugging d. Direct

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.61 ------- which add the necessary bulk to a formulation to prepare tablets of the desired size.

a. Diluents b. fillers c. Binder d. Disintegrant

62. -------- which promote adhesion of the particles of the formulation, allowing a granulation to be
prepared and maintaining the integrity of the final tablet.

a. Diluents b. fillers c. Binder d. Adhesive

63. --------- which promote breakup of the tablets after administration to smaller particles for ready
drug availability

a. Diluents b. fillers c. Binder d. Disintegrant

64. ---------- which enhance the flow of the material into the tablet dies, minimize wear of the
punches and dies, prevent fill material from sticking to the punches and dies, and produce tablets with a
sheen.

a. Glidant b. Lubricant c. Antiadherent d. Disintegrant

65. ----------- tablets are designed to pass unchanged through the stomach to the intestines, where
the tablets disintegrate and allow drug dissolution and absorption and/or effect. a. Sugar coated
b. Film coated c. Enteric coated d. Gelatin coated

66. It is more durable, less bulky, and less time consuming to apply.

a. Sugar coated b. Film coated c. Enteric coated d. Gelatin coated

67. The gelcap, is a capsule shaped compressed tablet that allows the coated product to be about
one-third smaller than a capsule filled with an equivalent amount of powder.

a. Sugar coated b. Film coated c. Enteric coated d. Gelatin coated

68. Time-consuming, need high skill, increase in the weight of tablet by 50% and the disintegration
rate is delayed due to sealing; all are disadvantages of ----------- coating. a. Enteric b. Sustained
c. Sugar d. Film

69. An uneven distribution of color on the tablet surface is

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a. mottling b. picking c. peeling d. Bridging

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