Niño John A.

Jayme | BSEE - 4 October 22, 2020

EE42 - C(23374)
MW / 7:30-10:30

Questions:

43. Explain carefully, using Fig. 158. How a zero-lagging power-factor load current tends to
demagnetize the main field.

Answer: The zero power-factor lagging load current demagnetizes the main field by moving
the armatures mmf by 90 electrical degrees and cutting through the main field flux as
indicated by Fig. 158; thus current lags behind the voltage by 90 electrical degrees.

44. Referring to the vector diagram of Fig 159; explain how the armature-reaction voltage
subtracts directly from the no-load voltage when the load power factor is zero lagging.

Answer: As indicated in Fig. 159; lagging power-factor current I passes through the armature
winding, its mmf produces armature reaction flux; that develops the armature-reaction
voltage EAR. thus the terminal voltage V is the difference between the armature-reaction
voltage and the no-load voltage.

45. Explain carefully, using Fig. 160, how a leading power-factor current tends to aid the
main-field magnetization.

Answer: The flux created by the armature mmf adds directly to the main flux. The latter may
also be understood if the right hand rule is used for the conductors between n1 and n2,
assuming that the conductors form a spiral about point p. Thus the armature flux reacts with
the main-pole flux in such a manner as to increase the latter in proportion to the value of the
armature current if the iron is unsaturated.

Problem

10. The following is given in connection with an alternator: slots = 144; poles = 8; rpm = 900;
turns per coil = 6; ϕ = 1.8 x 106 ; coil span = slots 1 to 16; winding = whole-coiled three-phase;
winding connection = star. Calculate: (a)the voltage per phase; (b) the voltage between
terminals.

Solution

(a)the voltage per phase:

(8)(900)
f= =60 Hz
120
144
Coils per phase= =48
3
 48
n= =6
8
144
Slots per pole= =18
8

Turn per phase=N

N=( 48)(6)=288

16−1
p∘ = (18 0∘ )=15 0∘
18
∘ 18 0∘ ∘
d= =10
18
15 0∘
Kp=sin =0.966
2
(6)(10)
sin( )
2
Kd= =0.956
10
6 sin( )
2

Voltage per phase=Eg=4.44 fNϕKpKdx 1 0−8

Eg=4.44( 60)( 288)(1.8 x 10 6)(0.966)(0.956) x 1 0−8

Eg=1275.36 Volts per phase

the voltage between terminals=V L

V L= √3 V P

V L= √ 3( 1275.36)=2208.98Volts

12. What voltage would be generated between terminals in the alternator of Prob. 10 if the
winding is connected for six pole operation?

Solution:

(6)(900)
f= =45 Hz
120
144
Coils per phase= =48
3
48
n= =8
6
144
Slots per pole= =24
6
Turn per phase=N
N=( 48)(6)=288

16−1
p∘ = (18 0∘ )=112 .5∘
24
∘ 18 0∘ ∘
d= =7 .5
24
112 .5∘
Kp=sin =0.831
2
(8)(7.5)
sin( )
2
Kd= =0.955
7.5
8 sin( )
2

Voltage per phase=Eg=( 4.44)(f )( N )(ϕ)( Kp)(Kd)(1 0−8 )

Eg=4.44( 45)(288)(1.8 x 1 06 )(0.831)(0.95) x 1 0−8

Eg=821.98Volts per phase

the voltage between terminals=V L

V L= √3 V P

V L= √ 3( 821.98)=1423.75Volts Answer

27. A 25-kVA 220-volt three-phase alternator delivers rated kilovolt-amperes at a power

factor of 0.84. The effective a-c resistance between armature-winding terminals is 0.18 ohm.
The field takes 9.3 amp at 115 volts. If the friction and windage loss is 460 watts and the
core loss is 610 watts, calculate the percent efficiency.

Solution:

25 kVA
I FL =I a = =65.61 A
√3(220)
Pout =25 kVA (0.84)=21000Watt
R f 0.18 Ω
Ra = = =0.09 Ω
2 2

Pout
n %= x 100
Pout + Plosses
Plosses total =Pa + P f + Pfw + Pc

Pa=3(Ia2 )(Ra)
Pa=3(65.612)( 0.09)=1162.26 watts

Pf =V f I f
Pf =( 115)(9.3)=1069.5 watts

Pfw =460 watts

Pc =610 watts

Plosses total =1162.26 watts+1069.5 watts+460 watts+ 610 watts

Plosses total =3301.76 watts

21000 watts
n %= x 100
21000 watts+3301.76 watts

n %=86.41 % Answer