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Velammal College of Engineering and Technology

Department of Computer Science and Engineering
Principles of Management
Multiple Choice Questions

UNIT – I

1. How are principles of management are formed?

(A) By rule of thumb
(B) By observation and experimentation
(C) By experiences of customers
(D) By Experiments in science laboratory

2. --------------- focuses on improving decision making via the application of management

(A) Classical
(B) behavioral
(C) modern
(D) Quantitative

3. Management is a creative and ________ process.

(A) Continuous
(B) Technical
(C) Democratic
(D) None of the above

4. Which type of strategies do professional managers help organizations in chalking out?

(A) Multi-disciplinary
(B) Corporate
(C) Managerial
(D) All of the above

5. The summary of important trends in retailing are

(A) market concentration
(B) global players vs. local players
(C) non store retailing
(D) all of the above

6. Fedrick Winslow Taylor’s Mechanism of Scientific Management includes

(A) Scientific task setting
(B) planning the task
(C) standardization of tools and equipment
(D) All of the above

7. The heart of administration is the ___ function.

(A) Directing
(B) Organizing
(C) Controlling
(D) Cooperating

8. The old control technique(s) which was (were) used through years is (are)
(A) unity of policies
(B) break-even analysis
(C) budgetary control
(D) All of the above

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9. Management exists at the ___ level of the organization.

(A) Lower
(B) Middle
(C) Top
(D) All of the above

10. Management is said to be the combination of

(A) arts, science and profession
(B) arts, science and engineering
(C) arts, commerce and science
(D) arts, commerce and engineering

11. Costliness of the ________ is the overriding factor determining the extent of decentralization.
(A) Decision
(B) Staffing
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

12. The objective(s) in corporate governance is (are)

(A) shareholders value maximization
(B) growth
(C) stability
(D) all of the above

13. What articulates the long-term goals of an enterprise?

(A) Policies
(B) Vision statement
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

14. _____________ Management is the source of authority

(A) Top
(B) Middle
(C) Lower
(D) All the Above

15. Derivation of principles of management is a matter of I)--------- and their application is a matter of -----
-----------ii)

(A) i)art ii) Science

(B) i) science ii) art
(C) i)art ii)discipline
(D) i)discipline ii) science

16. Which of the following technique of scientific management has the objective to determine the number
of employed. Frame suitable incentive schemes and determine labour cost.
(A) Fatigue study
(B) Time Study
(C) Functional foremanship
(D) Simplification of work

17. --------------- involve a series of steps to be taken to accomplish desired goals. Principles are
guidelines to take decisions of actions while practicing

(A) Values
(B) Techniques
(C) Programmes
(D) Actions

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18. Limitations of control is are

(A) external factors
(B) fixing of responsibility
(C) variation and its causes
(D) All of the above

19. ___ is supposed to be immutable, unchanging and eternal.

(A) Policy
(B) Vision
(C) Mission
(D) All of the above

20. Direction is a ________ function performed by all the managers at all levels of the organization.
(A) Managerial
(B) Organizational
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

21. ___ is a tool for corporate governance.

(A) Training
(B) Recruitment
(C) Communication
(D) Consulting

22. The internal environment factor(s) that influence management is (are)

(A) Labor
(B) Machines
(C) Place
(D) All of the above

23. which of the following technique of scientific management is violation of unity of command.
(A) Motion study
(B) fatigue study
(C) functional foremanship
(D) Simplification of work

24. Fayol’s principle of division of work can be applied to following kind of work
(A) Technical
(B) Managerial
(C) Both
(D) None of these

25. The contribution of Fayol and Taylor are---------------- to each other

(A) Competitive
(B) Cooperative
(C) Complimentary
(D) Coordinated

26. Horizontal co-ordination takes place ___ .

(A) upwards
(B) downwards
(C) sideways
(D) any of the above

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27. Retailing category(ies) based on ownership arrangement would be

(A) Super Markets
(B) Consumer Durables Stores
(C) Departmental Stores
(D) All of the above

28. Which Management spent more time on organizational and directional functions

(A) Top
(B) Middle
(C) Lower
(D) All the Above

29. Henry Fayol and F.W.Taylor belongs to which of the following school of management
(A) Classical
(B) Modern
(C) Early perspective
(D) None of the Above

30. ---------------- among the following was the first to identify four functions of management.

(A) Henry Fayol

(B) W.Taylor
(C) Max Weber
(D) Harold Koontz

31. Authority is undermined, discipline is in jeopardy, order disturbed, and stability threatened?
(A) Unity of direction
(B) Discipline
(C) Unity of Command
(D) Stability of Personnel

32. General theory of administration is the expression of

(A) W.Taylor
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) Max Weber
(D) F.L. Brech

33. Positive motivation makes people willing to do their work in the best way they can and improve their
________.
(A) Productivity
(B) Personality
(C) Performance
(D) All of the above

34.---------means every one should get order from superior only

(A) Unity of command
(B)Unity of direction
(C) Order
(D) Centralisation

35.Concentration of authority at one level is called

(A) Delegation
(B) Decentralisation
(C) Accountability
(D) Centralisation

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36.Which of the following is not a principle by Henry Fayol.

(A) Division of work
(B) Unity of command
(C) Discipline
(D) Harmony not discord

37.Management should find the best way to perform one task. Which technique of management is suitable
---------- to perform the task.
(A) Method Study
(B) Time Study
(C) Motion Study
(D) Fatigue study

38.Principle of management is significant because of

(A) Initiative
(B) Increase in Efficiency
(C)Optimum utilization of resources
(D) Adapting to changing Technology

39.Same battery can be used different mobile phones of a particular brand. This is an example of which of
the following techniques of Scientific Management?
(A) Standardisation
(B) simplification
(C) Method study
(D) Functional foremanship

40. Which of the following is an example of time study?

(A) To determine the number of workers to be employed
(B) To formulate suitable incentive schemes
(C) To calculate the labour costs
(D) All the above

41.Principle of division of work is applicable to a government office where there is a diary/dispatch clerk
whose job is to receive and send mail, a data entry operator whose task is to input data on the computer.
Division of work is also applicable to limited company where there are separate departments like
productions, finance , research and development etc

Which quality of Pom is highlighted above?

1. General Guidelines
2. Universal applicability
3. Flexible
4. Contigent

42. Employees deserve fair and just remuneration but what is just, and fair is determined by multiple factor.
They include contribution of the employee, paying capacity of the employer and prevailing wage rate for
the occupation under consideration.

Which quality of Pom is highlighted above?

1. General Guidelines
2. Universal applicability
3. Flexible
4. Contigent

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43. Management principles increase managerial efficiency as manager leave routine decision making to
his subordinates and deal with exceptional situations which require his expertise by following the principle
of delegation

1. adherence to these principles add to knowledge and understanding of managerial situations.

2. principles emphasis logic rather than blind faith
3.principles of management are at the core of the management theory
4. principles are guidelines that can be modified as per the changing environment

44. Even a small production activity like loading pigs of iron into boxcars can be scientifically planned and
managed.This can result in tremendous saving of human energy as well as wastage of time and materials

Which of the following pom emphasize on above situation?

1. harmony does not discord

2. science not rule of thumb
3. Initiative
4. Development of each person to his or her greatest efficiency and prosperity

45. Principles of management do not provide readymade solution to any problem but in dealing with a
situation of conflict between two department, a manager may emphasize the primacy of the organization
goal.
Which quality of Pom is highlighted above?

1. General Guidelines
2. Universal applicability
3. Flexible
4. Contigent

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UNIT – II

1.Planning involves............
(a) review of past performance
(b) setting objectives and determining course of action for achieving them
(c) analysis of policies
(d) All of these

2.Purpose of planning is ………..

(a) To manage by Objective
(b) To offset uncertainty and change
(c) To secure economy in operation
(d)All the above

3.Which of the planning is based on organization’s mission and is often carried out by top
management?
(a) Strategic planning
(b) Operational planning
(c) Tactical planning
(d) None of the above

4.Tactical planning involves

(a) Long time frame
(b) Activating a strategy & making it to work
(c) Involves single use or standing plans
(d) Not concerned about lower level units

5. Which plan is made once and retain their value over a period of years while undergoing periodic
revisions and updates?
(a) Operational plans
(b) Strategic plans
(c) Standing plans
(d) Single-use plans

6.According to knootz, which term is used to indicate end point of management programme?
(a) planning
(b) Strategy
(c) Policies
(d) Objective

7.MBO stands for

(a) Monitoring By Objective
(b) Management By Objective
(c) Monitoring By Organisation
(d) Management By Organization

8. Which is not a feature of MBO?

(a) Individual goal setting
(b) Makes way to attain maximum result
(c) Superior subordination participation
(d) Joint goal setting

9. Which serves as a guide for decision making in an organization?

(a) Strategy
(b) Objective
(c) Agreement
(d) Policies

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10.Purchase policy belongs to

(a) Functional policies
(b) Departmental Policies
(c) Middle management policies
(d) top management policy

11.Which policy applies to routine activities( work related matter)?

(a) Functional policies
(b) Departmental Policies
(c) Implied policies
(d) verbal policies

12.A policy should be ………..

(a) Cover all reasonable anticipatable conditions
(b) definite, positive & clear
(c) Conform to economic principles & regulations.
(d) All the above.

13. ............... are goals established to guide the efforts of the company and each of its components
(a) objectives
(b) strategy
(c) policies
(d) procedure

14. Policy is an expression of intentions of

(a) lower level management
(b) top level management
(c) middle level management
(d) Individuals

15. Planning premises are made by taking into consideration ……………….

(a) past events
(b) future events
(c) present events
(d) both past and expected events

16. Which planning premises cannot be measured in factors?

(a) variable premises
(b) Intangible premises
(c) external premises
(d) non controllable premises

17…………….is a set of decision making rules for guidance of organizational behavior

(a) policies
(b) strategy
(c) procedure
(d) objectives

18.Which strategy helps in identifying the internal and external factors for achieving the objective?
(a) BCG Matrix
(b) Porter’s Five force model
(c) Gap Analysis
(d) SWOT analysis

19.Products under which quadrant of BCG matrix return more ROI?

(a) Star
(b) dog
(c) Cashcow
(d) Question mark

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20.Which strategy is frequently used to identify an industry's structure to determine corporate strategy?
(a) Gap Analysis
(b) Porter’s Five force model
(c) Balance score card
(d) BCG Matrix

21.Among the porter’s five forces ,which one is involved in how much of profit the competitors are earning?
(a) Power of suppliers
(b) Power of customers
(c) Threat of substitute products
(d) Potential of new entrants into the industry

22.Improvement gap ,performance gap and diversification gap comes under

(a) Performance gap
(b) Product or market gap
(c) Profit gap
(d) Manpower gap

23.SWOT Analysis is a strategic planning method used to evaluate

(a) Strength,Weakness,Oppurtunities,Threats
(b) Strength,Work,Oppurtunities,Threats
(c) Simple,Weakness,Oppurtunities,Threats
(d) Strength,Weakness,Oppurtunities,Testing
24. BCG matrix is also known as
(a) Marketing matrix
(b) Sales matrix
(c) Relative matrix
(d) Growth/Share matrix

25.Which of the following is a planning techniques used for strategic management ………..
(a) Poster,s 5 Forces Competitive model
(b) Gap Analysis
(c) Balanced Score Card
(d) All the above

26. …………………. Is a process of identifying oppurtunities

(a) Planning
(b) Strategy
(c) Decision Making
(d) All the above

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UNIT-III

1. Organizing refers to:

(a) planning,
(b) delegation of authority,
(c) training,
(d) selection

2. Organizing aims to serve:

(a) common purpose,
(b) corruption,
(c) authority structure,
(d) All of the above.

3. Organizing destroys:
(a) individual relationships,
(b) plans,
(c) simplicity in the organization,
(d) environment.

4. The principle of objective states:

(a) delegation of authority,
(b) existence for a purpose,
(c) formal organization,
(d) none of the above.
[Hint: An organization must exist for a purpose is the principle of objective.]

5. For effective organizing, an organization required:

(a) principle of balance,
(b) span of management,
(c) organization process,
(d) planning and forecasting.

6. The structure of organization includes:

(a) identification and classification of required activities,
(b) informal organization,
(c) establishing enterprise objectives,
(d) authority relationships.

7. The degree to which an organization relies on rules and procedures to direct the behaviour of
employees is:
(a) complexity,
(b) formalization,
(c) centralization,
(d) motivation.

8. In a formal organization, “power” is associated with:

(a) an individual,
(b) position,
(c) relationship,
(d) control

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9. Delegation is:
(a) a continuous process,
(b) unfolding talents,
(c) granting the right to command.
[Hint: Delegation is the act of granting of conferring something and the term authority means right to command.]

10. Unity of command means:

(a) parity of authority and responsibility,
(b) flow of command from subordinate to superior,
(c) flow of command from superior to subordinate,
(d) parity in controlling.

11. Defective delegation:

(a) hampers coordination
(b) size of the organization,
(c) establish proper controls,
(d) establish sources of powers.

12. Indicate which of the following is NOT among the six main types of organization structure–
(a) Line organization
(b) Functional structure
(c) Committees
(d) Department

13. Organisattion structure is primarily concerned with and of tasks and authority.
(a) Allocation and Delegation
(b) Allocation and apportionment
(c) Reporting and delegating
(d) Setting standards and delegation

14. Line organization is also known as organization.

(a) Scalar
(b) Chain
(c) Matrix
(d) Project

15. An advantage of the matrix structure is said to be –

(a) Because product lines can be identified as cost centres,it facilitates financial control
(b) Top management has more time to devote to long term strategic issues
(c) It is easily understood by the people involved
(d) Improved lateral communications.

16. Organizational structure is made up of key elements. Which of the following is not one of these
elements?
(a) Centralisation
(b) Coordination
(c) Decentralisation
(d) Span of control
17. Staffing refers to:
(a) measuring performance,
(b) managing the positions,
(c) management in action,
(d) making strategic plans.
[Hint: Staffing refers to appointing the right person for the right job.]

18. Non-financial incentives have many things to do with:

(a) Directing,
(b) Motivation,
(c) Planning,
(d) organising.

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19. Staffing needs:

(a) man power planning,
(b) authority,
(c) communication,
(d) coordination.
[Hint: Staffing needs estimates of present and future needs of managerial man power and therefore it needs some pre-
thinking.]

20. HRD refers to:

(a) remuneration,
(b) development,
(c) controlling,
(d) planning

21. Recruitment covers:

(a) selection,
(b) job analysis,
(c) time,
(d) none of the above.
[Hint: Recruitment covers job analysis, job design and job descriptions.]

22. Training is the process of:

(a) motivation
(b) increasing knowledge and skill
(c) testing.
(d) employee recommendations.

23. Vestibule training provides the worker with:

(a) on the job training,
(b) off the job training,
(c) real life presentations off the job
(d) demonstration
[Hint: The worker is provided with a real life presentation but not on the job directly.]

24. What is the meaning of the acronym HRM?

(a) Humane Resource Management.
(b) Humanistic Resource Management.
(c) Human Resource Management.
(d) Human Relations Management.

25. Which of the following is not a function normally performed by the HR department?
(a) Recruitment and selection.
(b) Accounting.
(c) Training and development.
(d) Pay and reward.

26. Recruitment and selection must be effective to ensure it:

(a) Offsets high labour turnover
(b) Delivers the highest calibre of individuals at optimum most
(c) To have a surplus in case of sickness and absence
(d) Encourages new blood into the organization.

27. Which of the following is not a selection technique?

(a) Performance appraisal
(b) Ability test
(c) Psychometric testing
(d) Interviews

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28. The primary aim of recruitment and selection process is to

(a) Meet the high labour turnover
(b) Hire the best individuals at optimum cost
(c) Ensure the availability of surplus in case of sickness and absence
(d) None of the above.

29. Job evaluation is conducted to develop

(a) Compensation package
(b) Training modules
(c) Organisational grapevine
(d) Rules and policies.

30. Which of the following defines the process of recruitment?

(a) Forecasting the demand of human resources
(b) Forecasting the supply of human resources
(c) Discovering potential job candidates for a particular position
(d) Making a hire or no hire decision.

31. Which of the following is not a type of remuneration system under Time Rate System?
(a) High wage plan
(b) Measured day work
(c) Taylor System
(d) Differential time rate.

32. Which of the following functions or activities requires recruiting and placing qualified
personnel needed for the organization so that it may achieve its objectives and goals?
(a) Planning
(b) Staffing
(c) Organizing
(d) Controlling.

33. What sort of groups is defined by the organization’s structure?

(a) informal
(b) task
(c) friendship
(d) formal

34. When do informal groups appear?

(a) in response to the need for social contact
(b) in reaction to formal groups
(c) as a result of social needs
(d) most frequently in bureaucracies

35. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) All task groups are also command groups
(b) All command groups are also task groups
(c) All task groups are also friendship groups
(d) All command groups are also informal groups

36. As per Cartwright which of the following characteristics of a group is a means for overcoming
resistance to change
(a) Incentives
(b) Coercion
(c) Education
(d) Strong sense of belonging.

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37. Organization structure deliberately created by the management for achieving the objectives
of the enterprise is called
(a) Product organization
(b) Functional organization
(c) Formal organization
(d) Informal organization

38. Grapevine is another term used to describe

(a) Formal organization
(b) Informal organization
(c) Product organization
(d) Project organization

39. The unofficial and social pattern of human interactions is observed in

(a) Formal organization
(b) Informal organization
(c) Product organization
(d) None of these
40. When departmentation is done based on production, sales, financing and personnel, it is
termed as
(a) Functional departmentation
(b) Product departmentation
(c) Composite departmentation
(d) Customer departmentation
(e)

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UNIT – IV

1. Direction refers to:

(a) planning,
(b) organizing,
(c) driving,
(d) staffing

2. Marry Follett pointed that reform was possible provided the following consideration were taken into
account:
(a) building up new attitudes,
(b) planning
(c) negative attitudes,
(d) None of the above.

3. The characteristics of direction include:

(a) guiding,
(b) motivating,
(c) planning,
(d) performance appraisal

4. Direction is a:
(a) discrete process,
(b) continuous process,
(c) circular process,
(d) supervisory process

5. The principles of direction do not include:

(a) to have a thorough knowledge about the terms to bind the employees and the organization,
(b) to remove the inefficient employees,
(c) labour turnover,
(d) to have an effective communication superior and his subordinates.

6. The techniques of direction excludes:

(a) an alternative device of communication,
(b) supervisory techniques,
(c) coordination,
(d) standard practices and procedures.
Hint: Coordination refers to the link between the different functions of management.

7. Communication is a:
(a) two-way process,
(b) one-way process,
(c) discrete process,
(d) circular process
[Hint: Communication is a transfer of information from one person to another and getting the feedback to check the
efficiency of the message communicated.]

8. What comprises the decoding stage of the communication model?

(a) Perception; retention.
(b) Attention; perception; retention
(c) Receiving; processing and storing information
(d) Short term memory; decoding; long term memory.

9. What is the first step to take during communications planning?

(a) Decide on means of communication
(b) Identify communication constraints
(c) Conduct a stakeholder analysis
(d) Develop a communications management plan

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10. Feedback is a listener's

(a) verbal critique of your message.
(b) verbal or nonverbal responses to a message.
(c) acceptance of a message.
(d) aversion to a message.

11. To decode a message is to

a) translate ideas into code.
b) reject a message.
c) evaluate a message.
d) interpret a message.
12. In the communication process, to encode means to
(a) translate ideas into a code.
(b) block a pathway between the sender and receiver of a message.
(c) speak to large groups of people.
(d) interpret a code.

13. A message is a signal that serves as

(a) noise reduction.
(b) stimuli for a speaker.
(c) stimuli for a mass audience.
(d) stimuli for a receiver.

14. Feedback can come in the form of

(a) nonverbal communication only.
(b) verbal communication only.
(c) environmental noise.
(d) verbal and nonverbal listener responses.

15. In the communication process, a receiver is

(a) message interference.
(b) the person who decodes a message.
(c) a message pathway.
(d) the person who encodes an idea.

16. Noise does the following:

(a) causes listeners to listen to messages more carefully.
(b) focuses wandering thoughts.
(c) distorts or interferes with a message.
(d) enhances a message.

17. An example of a communication channel is

(a) face-to-face conversation.
(b) noise.
(c) feedback.
(d) context.

18. Which of the three components are part of the human communication process?
(a) Message, noise, feedback
(b) Feedback, message, critiquing
(c) Noise, feedback, jargon
(d) Message, recording, feedback

19. Which of the following is an example of a nonverbal message?

(a) Eye contact
(b) Yelling
(c) Mumbling
(d) Jargon

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20. The ability to communicate effectively

(a) depends on the education level of those around you.
(b) can be learned.
(c) is a natural talent that cannot be learned.
(d) depends on not using technology to send messages.
21. A message can only be deemed effective when it is
(a) communicated face-to-face.
(b) understood by others and produces the intended results.
(c) repeated back as proof of understanding.
(d) delivered with confidence.

22. Encoding is important because it

(a) guarantees that one's message will be decoded.
(b) encourages listener feedback.
(c) eliminates noise.
(d) Produces messages.

23. When a subordinate or a lower level manager passes information or offers suggestions to the
higher level management, they are using which level of communication?
(a) Upward communication
(b) Downward communication
(c) Lateral communication
(d) Diagonal communication.

24. Maslow in his hierarchy has not considered:

(a) psychological needs,
(b) security needs,
(c) wealthy needs,
(d) existence needs.

25. The features of leadership do not include:

(a) representation,
(b) initiation,
(c) planning,
(d) motivation

26. Leadership has a lot of characteristics and a leader must not maintain this trait in his
behaviour:
(a) coexistence,
(b) taking responsibility,
(c) avoiding responsibility,
(d) All of the above.

27. Which of the following statements about leadership is false?

(a) Leadership does not necessarily take place within a hierarchical structure of an organisation.
(b) Not every leader is a manager.
(c) When people operate as leaders their role is always clearly established and defined.
(d) All the above.

28. Contingency theories of leadership are based on the belief that:

(a) there is no single style of leadership appropriate to all situations.
(b) there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all managers.
(c) there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all situations.
(d) none of the above.

29. Another contingency model of leadership is the path-goal theory. This suggests that subordinates
will see leadership behaviour as a motivating influence if:
(a) path-goal relationships are clarified.
(b) their effective performance will satisfy their needs.
(c) the necessary direction, guidance, training and support is provided.
(d) all the above.

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30. When determining the most appropriate form of leadership, which of the following should be
considered?
(a) The manager.
(b) The work environment.
(c) The group.
(d) All the above.

31. The following phrase is used to describe a leader:

(a) relies on control strategies
(b) challenges status quo
(c) uses traditional influence
(d) acts with established culture
(e) maintains and allocates resources

32. The "means" of leadership involve

(a) getting results through others.
(b) the ability to build cohesive, goal-oriented teams.
(c) the process of influencing an organized group toward accomplishing its goals.
(d) an interpersonal relation in which others comply because they want to, not because they have to.

33. Which of the following is a leadership trait?

(a) Dominance
(b) Energy
(c) Cognitive ability
(d) All responses are leadership traits

34. Which of the following statements is false about the behavioral theories of leadership?
(a) Consideration is a people-oriented dimension of leadership behavior
(b) Production-centered leader behavior focuses on tasks and has little concern for people
(c) Leaders high in initiating structure do not set deadlines or make individual task assignments
(d) Employee-centered leader behavior focuses on people and the quality of the social system.

35. Maslow and Herzberg are two examples of theories of motivation.

(a) process
(b) content
(c) expectancy
(d) equity

36. Maslow suggests that human needs are arranged in a series of levels, a hierarchy of importance.
Which of the following statements are relevant to Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory?
(a) The hierarchy is not necessarily in a fixed order.
(b) A satisfied need is no longer a motivator.
(c) A need is not necessarily fully satisfied before a subsequent need arises.
(d) All of the above.

37. According to Herzberg, which of the following may be regarded as hygiene/maintenance factors?
(a) Sense of achievement.
(b) Recognition.
(c) Personal growth and advancement.
(d) None of the above.

38. Which of the following statements is true about the goal theory of motivation?
(a) People with easier goals will perform better than people with difficult goals.
(b) A person's level of commitment to a goal will not regulate the level of effort expended.
(c) People with difficult goals will perform better than people with easier goals.
(d) Research has shown that there is little support for the goal theory and its effects on motivation with
regard to the relationship between goal-setting and performance.

39. Douglas McGregor's view that suggests that employees will exercise self-direction and self-control
when they are committed to the objectives of the work is called:
(a) Theory B
(b) Theory X
(c) Theory Y
(d) Theory A

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40. Which step in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs Theory deals with achieving one's potential?
(a) Esteem
(b) Physiological
(c) Self-actualization
(d) Social

41. Which of the following would be classified by Herzberg as a hygiene factor?

(a) Achievement
(b) Promotion
(c) Responsibility
(d) Company policy

42. Who proposed that achievement, affiliation and power are three important needs that help explain
motivation in workplace situations?
(a) McClelland
(b) Herzberg
(c) Alderfer
(d) Maslow

43. Company policy, administration, supervision, interpersonal relations, working conditions, and
salary are characterized as:
(a) Achievement factors
(b) Growth factors
(c) Motivating factors
(d) Hygiene factors

44. An employee's experiences in a situation or position outside his or her current organization is a
referent comparison called:
(a) Self-outside
(b) Other-inside
(c) Other-outside
(d) Self-inside

45. Theory X suggests that employees:

(a) Like their manager
(b) Dislike work
(c) Dislike their manager
(d) Like work

46. What three words define motivation?

(a) Intensity, direction, persistence
(b) Fairness, equity, desire
(c) Desire, persistence, fairness
(d) Ambition, direction, intensity
(e) Persistence, fairness, ambition

47. According to Herzberg’s motivation hygiene theory, the opposite of satisfaction

is,
(a) Dissatisfaction
(b) No satisfaction
(c) No dissatisfaction
(d) All of the above
48. The concept of social assumption is based on ......................................... belief that people are motivated by

social needs.
(a) Kurt Lewin’s
(b) Douglas McGregor’s.
(c) Elton Mayo’s
(d) Chris Argyris’s

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49. proposed by Douglas McGregors has a positive, dynamic, flexible and optimistic

view of employees.
(a) Theory W
(b) Theory X
(c) Theory Y
(d) Theory Z

50. Which type of leaders gives complete freedom to their employees?

(a) Autocratic leaders

(b) Bureaucratic leaders
(c) Participative leaders
(d) Laissez faire leaders

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UNIT – V

1. What is the management function that involves monitoring activities to ensure that they’re being
accomplished as planned and correcting any significant deviations.
(a) Control
(b) Planning
(c) Organising
(d) Directing

2. Which of the following is not a type of control systems?

(a) Feed backward control
(b) Feedback control
(c) Concurrent control
(d)Feed forward control

3. Control process is a ………….. process

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

4. By starting the budget of each package from base zero, budgeters calculate costs afresh for each
budget period is called as ………………………..
(a) Cash Budget
(b) Variable Budget
(c) Captial Expenditure Budget
(d) Zero Based Budget

5. Important factors of non-budgetary controltechniques

(a) Statiscal data
(b) Break-even point analysis
(c) Operational audit
(d) All the above

6. ……………. Is classification of budget based on capacity?

(a) Basic Budget
(b) Current Budget
(c) Flexible Budget
(d) Master Budget

7. Expand MIS?
a) Management Interactive session
b) Management Information system
c) Message Information system
d) Managers Information system

8. Managers deal with information controls as

(e) Inventory control
(f) Message
(g) to speak to large groups of people.
(h) Organizational area

9. What other than software corporate tools improve management of departments?

(e) Debugging tools
(f) Internet and external computing tools
(g) Testing tools
(h) Snipping tool

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10. The use of MIS is to

(e) communication
(f) Track manager roles
(g) Transmit information
(h) provide information to managers

11. Application of MIS is used in,

(e) Marketing
(f) manufacturing
(g) logistics
(h) accounting
i. (a) &(b)
ii. (d)
iii. All the above
iv. None of the above

12. Productivity is the ratio between

(e) Output and input
(f) Work and time
(g) Quantity and quality
(h) Hard work and smart work

13. Memory utilization as a function of lines of code is an example of

(e) structural
(f) Economic
(g) Functional
(h) Physical

14. three common approaches defining productivity based on the model

(e) physical, functional, and economic
(f) direct, indirect and functional
(g) violent, social and scalar
(h) Coherent, cohesion and structural

15. Purchase of right quantity of materials avoids locking up of

(e) Employee
(f) Repetition in purchase
(g) working capital
(h) stocking

16. Which is the advantage of cost control

(e) depends on the education level of those around you.
(f) can be learned.
(g) is a natural talent that cannot be learned.
(h) depends on not using technology to send messages.

17. _________ refers to the technical process of gathering, examining, and analyzing the project
(e) Cost control
(f) Maintenance control
(g) Quality control
(h) Functional control

18. Maintenance department has to exercise effective

(e) Networking
(f) Feedback
(g) Noise control
(h) cost control

19. What should be made and the cost of reporting should commensurate with the expenditure
involved?
(e) Cost benefit analysis
(f) Flexibility
(g) Controllability
(h) Principle of exception

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20. What are the types of management reporting?

(e) Oral and written
(f) External and Internal
(g) Routine and special
(h) Control and information

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