CE8394 Fluid Mechanics 01 - by LearnEngineering - in

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DHIRAJLAL GANDHI COLLEGE OF TECHNOLOGY

DEPARTMENT OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
Fluid Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
UNIT I FLUID PROPERTIES AND FLOW CHARACTERISTICS
1. The celerity (velocity) of a pressure wave in a fluid is given by (where K = Bulk modulus, and ρ =
Density of the fluid)
(A) K.ρ
(B) K/ρ
(C) ρ/K
(D) None of these
Correct Answer B
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2. A fluid having no viscosity is known as
(A) Real fluid
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(B) Ideal fluid
(C) Newtonian fluid
(D) Non-Newtonian fluid
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Correct Answer B
3. In order to avoid tendency of separation at throat in a Venturimeter, the ratio of the diameter at
throat to the diameter of pipe should be
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(A) 1/16 to 1/8
(B) 1/8 to 1/4
(C) 1/4 to 1/3
(D) 1/3 to 1/2
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Correct Answer D
4. Liquids transmit pressure equally in all the directions. This is according to

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(A) Boyle's law

(B) Archimedes principle
(C) Pascal's law
(D) Newton's formula
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Correct Answer C
5. The discharge over a triangular notch is

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(A) Inversely proportional to H3/2

(B) Directly proportional to H3/2
(C) Inversely proportional to H5/2
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(D) Directly proportional to H5/2

Correct Answer D
6. A flow whose streamline is represented by a straight line, is called __________ dimensional flow.
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Correct Answer A
7. The body will float if the force of buoyancy is __________ the weight of the liquid displaced.
(A) Equal to
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(B) Less than

(C) More than
(D) None of these
Correct Answer C
8. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3 at

(A) 0° C
(B) 0° K
(C) 4° C
(D) 20° C
Correct Answer C
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9. Bulk modulus of a fluid __________ as the pressure increases.
(A) Remain same
(B) Decreases
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(C) Increases
(D) None of these
Correct Answer C
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10. The coefficient of viscosity may be determined by
(A) Capillary tube method
(B) Orifice type viscometer
(C) Rotating cylinder method e
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(D) All of these
Correct Answer D
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11. According to Newton's law of viscosity, the shear stress on a layer of a fluid is __________ to
the rate of shear strain.
(A) Equal to
(B) Directly proportional
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(C) Inversely proportional

(D) None of these
Correct Answer B
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12. A vessel of 4 m3 contains oil which weighs 30 kN. The specific weight of the oil is
(A) 4.5 kN/m3
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(B) 6 kN/m3
(C) 7.5 kN/m3
(D) 10 kN/m3
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Correct Answer C
13. The increase of temperature results in
(A) Increase in viscosity of gas
(B) No changes in viscosity of liquid
(C) Decrease in viscosity of gas
(D) Decrease in viscosity of liquid
Correct Answer D
14. A manometer is used to measure

(A) Low pressure
(B) Moderate pressure
(C) High pressure
(D) Atmospheric pressure

Correct Answer C
15. Which of the following meters is not associated with viscosity?

(A) Red wood
(B) Say bolt
(C) Engler
(D) Orsat
Correct AnswerD
16. The specific weight of water in S.I. units is taken as

(A) 9.81 kN/m3
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(B) 9.81 × 103 N/m3
(C) 9.81 × 10-6 N/mm3
(D) Any one of these
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Correct Answer D
17. Manometer is used to measure
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(A) Pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(B) Atmospheric pressure
(C) Very low pressure
(D) Difference of pressure between two points
Correct Answer A e
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18. The flow in which conditions do not change with time at any point, is known as
(A) One dimensional flow
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(B) Uniform flow

(C) Steady flow
(D) Turbulent flow
Correct AnswerC
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19. A nozzle placed at the end of a water pipe line discharges water at a
(A) Low pressure
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(B) High pressure

(C) Low velocity
(D) High velocity
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Correct AnswerD
20. The pressure of fluid due to hammer blow is

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(A) Directly proportional to density of fluid

(B) Inversely proportional to density of fluid
(C) Directly proportional to (density)1/2 of fluid
(D) Inversely proportional to (density)1/2 of fluid
Correct Answer C
21. In order to measure the flow with a Venturimeter, it is installed in

(A) Horizontal line
(B) Inclined line with flow upwards
(C) Inclined line with flow downwards
(D) Any direction and in any location
Correct Answer D
22. If mercury in a barometer is replaced by water, the height of 3.75 cm of mercury will be
following cm of water
(A) 51 cm
(B) 50 cm
(C) 52 cm
(D) 52.2 cm
Correct Answer A
23. According to equation of continuity,

(A) w1a1 = w2a2
(B) w1v1 = w2v2
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(C) a1v1 = a2v2
(D) a1/v1 = a2/v2
Correct Answer C
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24. One poise is equal to
(A) 0.1 N-s/m2
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(B) 1 N-s/m2
(C) 10 N-s/m2
(D) 100 N-s/m2
Correct Answer A
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25. When a vertical wall is subjected to pressures due to liquid on both sides, the resultant pressure
is the __________ of the two pressures.
(A) Sum
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(B) Difference
(C) Arithmetic mean
(D) Geometric mean
Correct Answer B
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26. The mercury does not wet the glass. This is due to the property of the liquid known as
(A) Cohesion
(B) Adhesion
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(C) Viscosity
(D) Surface tension
Correct Answer D
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27. When the pressure intensity at a point is more than the local atmospheric pressure, then the
difference of these two pressures is called
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(A) Gauge pressure

(B) Absolute pressure
(C) Positive gauge pressure
(D) Vacuum pressure
Correct Answer C
28. A pipe of length more than double the diameter of orifice fitted externally or internally to the
orifice is called a
(A) Notch
(B) Weir
(C) Mouthpiece
(D) Nozzle
Correct Answer C
29. An open tank containing liquid is moving with an acceleration on an inclined plane. The
inclination of the free surface of the liquid will be __________ to the acceleration of the tank.
(A) Equal to
(B) Directly proportional
(C) Inversely proportional
(D) None of these
Correct Answer B
30. One stoke is equal to

(A) 10-2 m2/s
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(B) 10-3 m2/s
(C) 10-4 m2/s
(D) 10-6 m2/s
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Correct Answer C
31. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of
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(A) Surface tension of water
(B) Compressibility of water
(C) Capillarity of water
(D) Viscosity of water
Correct Answer A e
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32. The specific gravity of an oil whose specific weight is 7.85 kN/m3, is
(A) 0.8
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(B) 1
(C) 1.2
(D) 1.6
Correct Answer A
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33. The length of the divergent cone in a Venturimeter is __________ that of the convergent cone.
(A) Equal to
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(B) Double
(C) Three to four times
(D) Five to six times
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Correct Answer C
34. The stress-strain relation of the Newtonian fluid is

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(A) Linear
(B) Parabolic
(C) Hyperbolic
(D) Inverse type
Correct Answer A
35. The viscosity of a liquid __________ its rate of flow through a hole in a vessel.
(A) Effects
(B) Does not effect
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Correct Answer A
36. The unit of surface tension is

(A) N/m
(B) N/m2
(C) N/m3
(D) N-m
Correct Answer A
37. The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are

(A) Metres² per sec
(B) kg sec/meter
(C) Newton-sec per meter
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(D) Newton-sec² per meter
Correct Answer C
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38. A flow in which the volume of a fluid and its density does not change during the flow is called
_________ flow.
(A) Incompressible
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(B) Compressible
(C) Viscous
(D) None of these
Correct Answer A
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39. The weight per unit volume of a liquid at a standard temperature and pressure is called
(A) Specific weight
(B) Mass density
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(C) Specific gravity

(D) None of these
Correct Answer A
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40. The flow of water through the hole in the bottom of a wash basin is an example of
(A) Steady flow
(B) Uniform flow
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(C) Free vortex

(D) Forced vortex
Correct Answer C
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41. A flow in which the viscosity of fluid is dominating over the inertia force is called
(A) Steady flow
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(B) Unsteady flow

(C) Laminar flow
(D) Turbulent flow
Correct Answer C
42. A flow whose streamline is represented by a curve, is called

(A) One-dimensional flow
(B) Two-dimensional flow
(C) Three-dimensional flow
(D) Four-dimensional flow
Correct Answer B

43. The value of coefficient of discharge is __________ the value of coefficient of velocity.
(A) Less than
(B) Same as
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Correct Answer A
44. A fluid whose viscosity does not change with the rate of deformation or shear strain is known as
(A) Real fluid
(B) Ideal fluid
(C) Newtonian fluid
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Correct Answer B
45. Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is being opened is
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(A) Steady
(B) Unsteady
(C) Laminar
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(D) Vortex
Correct Answer B
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46. The water pressure per metre length on a vertical masonry wall of dam is (where w = Specific
weight of the liquid, and H = Height of the liquid)
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(A) wH/2
(B) wH
(C) wH2/2
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(D) wH2/4
Correct Answer C
47. Euler's equation in the differential form for the motion of liquids is given by
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(A) dp/ρ + g.dz + v.dv = 0

(B) dp/ρ - g.dz + v.dv = 0
(C) ρ.dp + g.dz + v.dv = 0
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(D) ρ.dp - g.dz + v.dv = 0

Correct Answer A
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48. An open tank containing liquid is made to move from rest with a uniform acceleration. The angle
0 which the free surface of liquid makes with the horizontal is such that (where a = Horizontal
acceleration of the tank, and g = Acceleration due to gravity)
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(A) tanθ = a/g

(B) tanθ = 2 a/g
(C) tanθ = a/2g
(D) tanθ = a2/2g
Correct Answer A
49. A point, in a compressible flow where the velocity of fluid is zero, is called
(A) Critical point
(B) Vena contracta
(C) Stagnation point
(D) None of these
Correct Answer C
50. For very great pressures, viscosity of moss gases and liquids
(A) Remain same
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) Shows erratic behavior
Correct Answer D
51. The angle of contact in case of a liquid depends upon

(A) The nature of the liquid and the solid
(B) The material which exists above the free surface of the liquid
(C) Both of die above
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(D) Any one of the above
Correct Answer C
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52. Water is _________ liquid.
(A) A compressible
(B) An incompressible
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(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Correct Answer B
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53. The unit of kinematic viscosity in S. I. units is
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(A) N-m/s
(B) N-s/m2
(C) m2/s
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(D) N-m
Correct Answer C
54. Bernoulli's equation is applied to

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(A) Venturimeter
(B) Orifice meter
(C) Pitot tube
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(D) All of these

Correct Answer D
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55. Rain drops are spherical because of

(A) Viscosity
(B) Air resistance
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(C) Surface tension forces

Correct Answer C
56. General energy equation holds for

(A) Steady flow
(B) Turbulent flow
(C) Laminar flow
(D) Non-uniform flow
Correct Answer D

57. With an increase in size of tube, the rise or depression of liquid in the tube due to surface
tension will
(A) Decrease
(B) Increase
(C) Remain unchanged
(D) Depend upon the characteristics of liquid
Correct Answer A
58. Gauge pressure at a point is equal to the absolute pressure __________ the atmospheric
pressure.
(A) Plus
(B) Minus
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(C) Divide
(D) Multiply
Correct Answer B
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59. The dynamic viscosity of gases __________ with rise in temperature.
(A) Remain unaffected
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(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Correct Answer B
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60. The pressure of liquid at throat in a Venturimeter is __________ than that at inlet.
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
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(C) Same
(D) None of these
Correct Answer B
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61. The flow in which the velocity vector is identical in magnitude and direction at every point, for
any given instant, is known as
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(B) Uniform flow

(C) Steady flow
(D) Turbulent flow
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Correct Answer B
62. The specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m3

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(A) At normal pressure of 760 mm

(B) At 4°C temperature
(C) At mean sea level
(D) All the above
Correct Answer D
63. If the depth of water in an open channel is greater than the critical depth, the flow is called
(A) Critical flow
(B) Turbulent flow
(C) Tranquil flow
(D) Torrential flow
Correct Answer C
64. The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2 m x 1 m with its top 2 m surface
being 0.5 m below the water level will be
(A) 500 kg
(B) 1000 kg
(C) 1500 kg
(D) 2000 kg
Correct Answer D
65. A glass tube of small diameter (d) is dipped in fluid. The height of rise or fall in the tube given by
(where w = Specific weight of liquid, α = Angle of contact of the liquid surface, and σ = Surface
tension)
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(A) 4wd/σ cosα
(B) σ cosα/4wd
(C) 4σ cosα/wd
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(D) wd/4σ cosα
Correct Answer C
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66. Two dimensional flows occurs when
(A) The direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(B) The velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of time
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(C) The magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
(D) The fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline patterns are identical in
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each plane
Correct Answer D
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67. The force per unit length is the unit of

(A) Surface tension
(B) Compressibility
(C) Capillarity
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(D) Viscosity
Correct Answer A
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68. One cubic metre of water weighs

(A) 100 liters
(B) 250 liters
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(C) 500 liters

(D) 1000 liters
Correct Answer D
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69. Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon

(A) Pressure
(B) Distance
(C) Density
(D) Flow
Correct Answer C
70. The Euler's equation for the motion of liquids is based upon the assumption that
(A) The fluid is non - viscous, homogeneous and incompressible
(B) The velocity of flow is uniform over the section
(C) The flow is continuous, steady and along the stream line
(D) All of the above

Correct Answer D
71. Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of a submarine moving in
deep sea?
(A) Venturimeter
(B) Orifice plate
(C) Hot wire anemometer
(D) Pitot tube
Correct Answer D
72. Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called
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(A) Adhesion
(B) Cohesion
(C) Viscosity
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(D) Compressibility
Correct Answer B
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73. Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity?
(A) Pascal
(B) Poise
(C) Stoke
(D) Faraday e
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Correct Answer C
74. Operation of McLeod gauge used for low pressure measurement is based on the principle of
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(A) Gas law

(B) Boyle's law
(C) Charles law
(D) Pascal's law
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75. A differential manometer is used to measure

(A) Atmospheric pressure
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(B) Pressure in pipes and channels

(C) Pressure in Venturimeter
(D) Difference of pressures between two points in a pipe
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Correct Answer D
76. In a venturi-flume, the flow takes place at

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(B) Gauge pressure
(C) Absolute pressure
(D) None of these
Correct Answer A
77. The normal stress is same in all directions at a point in a fluid

(A) Only when the fluid is frictionless
(B) Only when the fluid is incompressible and has zero viscosity
(C) When there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
(D) Irrespective of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
Correct Answer C
78. A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its sides. The total
pressure on the wall per unit length is (where w = Specific weight of liquid, and H = Height of liquid)
(A) wH
(B) wH/2
(C) wH2/2
(D) wH2/3
Correct Answer C
79. Which of the following manometer has highest sensitivity?

(A) U-tube with water
(B) Inclined U-tube
(C) U-tube with mercury
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(D) Micro-manometer with water
Correct Answer D
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80. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(A) A flow whose streamline is represented by a curve is called two dimensional flow.
(B) The total energy of a liquid particle is the sum of potential energy, kinetic energy and pressure
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energy.
(C) The length of divergent portion in a Venturimeter is equal to the convergent portion.
(D) A pitot tube is used to measure the velocity of flow at the required point in a pipe.
Correct Answer C
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81. Density of water is maximum at
(A) 0° C
(B) 0° K
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(C) 4° C
(D) 100° C
Correct Answer C
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82. The bulk modulus of elasticity

(A) Has the dimensions of 1/pressure
(B) Increases with pressure
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(C) Is large when fluid is more compressible

(D) Is independent of pressure and viscosity
Correct Answer B
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83. Kinematic viscosity is equal to

(A) Dynamic viscosity/density
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(B) Dynamic viscosity × density

(C) Density/dynamic viscosity
(D) 1/dynamic viscosity × density
Correct Answer A
84. The atmospheric pressure at sea level is

(A) 103 kN/m2
(B) 10.3 m of water
(C) 760 mm of mercury
(D) All of these
Correct Answer D

85. A glass tube of smaller diameter is used while performing an experiment for the capillary rise of
water because
(A) It is easier to see through the glass tube
(B) Glass tube is cheaper than a metallic tube
(C) It is not possible to conduct this experiment with any other tube
Correct Answer A
86. In an isothermal atmosphere, the pressure

(A) Decreases linearly with elevation
(B) Remain constant
(C) Varies in the same way as the density
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(D) Increases exponentially with elevation
Correct Answer C
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87. The pressure of a liquid measured with the help of a Piezometer tube is
(A) Vacuum pressure
(B) Gauge pressure
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Correct Answer B
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88. If the atmospheric pressure on the surface of an oil tank (sp. gr. 0.8) is 0.2 kg/cm", the
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pressure at a depth of 50 m below the oil surface will be
(A) 2 meters of water column
(B) 3 meters of water column
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(C) 5 meters of water column

(D) 6 meters of water Column
Correct Answer
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89. For a perfect incompressible liquid, flowing in a continuous stream, the total energy of a particle remains
the same, while the particle moves from one point to another. This statement is called
(A) Continuity equation
(B) Bernoulli's equation
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(C) Pascal's law

(D) Archimedes’s principle
Correct Answer B
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90. Uniform flow occurs when

(A) The direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
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(B) The velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of time
(C) The magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
(D) The fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline patterns are identical in
each pleasure
Correct Answer C
91. At the center line of a pipe flowing under pressure where the velocity gradient is zero, the shear
stress will be
(A) Minimum
(B) Maximum
(C) Zero
(D) Could be any value
Correct Answer D
92. Piezometer is used to measure

(A) Pressure in pipe, channels etc.
(C) Very low pressures
Correct Answer C
93. The pressure in the air space above an oil (sp. gr. 0.8) surface in a tank is 0.1 kg/cm". The
pressure at 2.5 m below the oil surface will be
(A) 2 metres of water column
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(B) 3 metres of water column
(C) 3.5 metres of water column
(D) 4 m of water column
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Correct Answer B
94. The flow which neglects changes in a transverse direction is known as
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(B) Uniform flow
(C) Steady flow
(D) Turbulent flow
Correct Answer A e
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95. A moving fluid mass may be brought to a static equilibrium position, by applying an imaginary
inertia force of the same magnitude as that of the accelerating force but in the opposite direction.
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This statement is called

(A) Pascal's law
(B) Archimedes’s principle
(C) D-Alembert's principle
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(D) None of these

Correct Answer C
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96. The mass per unit volume of a liquid at a standard temperature and pressure is called
(A) Specific weight
(B) Mass density
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(C) Specific gravity

(D) None of these
Correct Answer B
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97. The velocity of the liquid flowing through the divergent portion of a Venturimeter
(A) Remains constant
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) Depends upon mass of liquid
Correct Answer C
98. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is known as

(A) Volumetric strain
(B) Volumetric index
(C) Compressibility
(D) Adhesion
Correct Answer C
99. Choose the wrong statement

(A) Fluids are capable of flowing
(B) Fluids conform to the shape of the containing vessels
(C) When in equilibrium, fluids cannot sustain tangential forces
(D) When in equilibrium, fluids can sustain shear forces
Correct Answer D
100. An orifice is said to be large, if

(A) The size of orifice is large
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(B) The velocity of flow is large
(C) The available head of liquid is more than 5 times the height of orifice
(D) The available head of liquid is less than 5 times the height of orifice
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Correct Answer D
101. A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what
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fraction of it volume is under mercury?
(A) The metal piece will simply float over the mercury
(B) The metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half
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(C) Whole of the metal piece will be immersed with its top surface just at mercury level
(D) Metal piece will sink to the bottom
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Correct Answer C
102. Dynamic viscosity of most of the liquids with rise in temperature

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(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain unaffected
(D) Unpredictable
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Correct Answer B
103. Select the correct statement

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(A) Local atmospheric pressure depends upon elevation of locality only

(B) Standard atmospheric pressure is the mean local atmospheric pressure a* sea level
(C) Local atmospheric pressure is always below standard atmospheric pressure
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(D) A barometer reads the difference between local and standard atmospheric pressure
Correct Answer B
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104. The flow in which the particles of a fluid attain such velocities that varies from point to point in
magnitude and direction as well as from instant to instant, is known as
(B) Uniform flow
(C) Steady flow
(D) Turbulent flow
Correct Answer D
105. The specific weight of sea water is __________ that of pure water.
(A) Same as
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these

Correct Answer C
106. Which of the following instruments is used to measure flow on the application of Bernoulli's
theorem?
(A) Venturimeter
(B) Orifice plate
(C) Nozzle
Correct Answer D
107. An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy
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(A) Pascal law
(B) Newton's law of viscosity
(C) Boundary layer theory
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(D) Continuity equation
Correct Answer D
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108. The height of a water column equivalent to a pressure of 0.15 MPa is
(A) 15.3 m
(B) 25.3 m
(C) 35.3 m
(D) 45.3 m e
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Correct Answer A
109. The ratio of specific weight of a liquid to the specific weight of pure water at a standard
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temperature is called
(A) Density of liquid
(B) Specific gravity of liquid
(C) Compressibility of liquid
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(D) Surface tension of liquid

Correct Answer B
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110. A hydraulic press has a ram of 15 cm diameter and plunger of 1.5 cm. It is required to lift a
weight of 1 tonne. The force required on plunger is equal to
(A) 10 kg
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(B) 100 kg
(C) 1000 kg
(D) 1 kg
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Correct Answer A
111. The total head of a liquid particle in motion is equal to

(A) Pressure head + kinetic head + potential head
(B) Pressure head - (kinetic head + potential head)
(C) Potential head - (pressure head + kinetic head)
(D) Kinetic head - (pressure head + potential head)
Correct Answer A
112. The bulk modulus of elasticity with increase in pressure

(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain constant

(D) Increases first up to certain limit and then decreases
113. When the Venturimeter is inclined, then for a given flow it will show __________ reading.
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) None of these
Correct Answer A
114. Cavitation is caused by

(A) High velocity
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(B) High pressure
(C) Weak material
(D) Low pressure
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Correct Answer D
115. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill the following
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(A) Newton's law of motion
(B) Newton's law of viscosity
(C) Pascal' law
(D) Continuity equation
Correct Answer D e
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116. Surface tension
(A) Acts in the plane of the interface normal to any line in the surface
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(B) Is also known as capillarity

(C) Is a function of the curvature of the interface
(D) Decreases with fall in temperature
Correct Answer A
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117. Alcohol is used in manometers because

(A) It has low vapour pressure
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(B) It is clearly visible

(C) It has low surface tension
(D) It can provide longer column due to low density
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Correct Answer D
118. The discharge through a wholly drowned orifice is given by (where H1 = Height of water (on
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the upstream side) above the top of the orifice, H2 = Height of water (on the downstream side)
above the bottom of the orifice, and H = Difference between two water levels on either side of the
orifice)
(A) Q = Cd × bH₁ × √(2gh)
(B) Q = Cd × bH2 × √(2gh)
(C) Q = Cd × b (H2 - H1) × √(2gh)
(D) Q = Cd × bH × √(2gh)
Correct Answer C
119. If no resistance is encountered by displacement, such a substance is known as

(A) Fluid
(B) Water
(C) Gas
(D) Ideal fluid
Correct Answer D
120. The kinematic viscosity is the

(A) Ratio of absolute viscosity to the density of the liquid
(B) Ratio of density of the liquid to the absolute viscosity
(C) Product of absolute viscosity and density of the liquid
(D) Product of absolute viscosity and mass of the liquid
Correct Answer A
121. Choose the correct relationship
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(A) Specific gravity = gravity × density
(B) Dynamic viscosity = kinematic viscosity × density
(C) Gravity = specific gravity × density
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(D) Kinematic viscosity = dynamic viscosity × density
Correct Answer B
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122. The viscosity of water is __________ than that of mercury.
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
(C) Same as
(D) None of these e
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Correct Answer A
123. Surface energy per unit area of a surface is numerically equal to

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(B) Surface tension
(C) Force of adhesion
(D) Force of cohesion
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Correct Answer B
124. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to smallest possible area due
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to the
(A) Force of adhesion
(B) Force of cohesion
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(C) Force of friction

(D) Force of diffusion
Correct Answer B
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125. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) In a compressible flow, the volume of the flowing liquid changes during the flow
(B) A flow, in which the volume of the flowing liquid does not change, is called incompressible flow
(C) When the particles rotate about their own axes while flowing, the flow is said to be rotational
flow
Correct Answer D
126. Choose the wrong statement

(A) Viscosity of a fluid is that property which determines the amount of its resistance to a shearing
force
(B) Viscosity is due primarily to interaction between fluid molecules

(C) Viscosity of liquids decreases with increase in temperature
(D) Viscosity of liquids is appreciably affected by change in pressure
Correct Answer D
127. The unit of dynamic viscosity in S.I. units is

(A) N-m/s2
(B) N-s/m2
(C) Poise
(D) Stoke
Correct Answer B
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128. A perfect gas
(A) Has constant viscosity
(B) Has zero viscosity
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(C) Is in compressible
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer D
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129. In a static fluid
(A) Resistance to shear stress is small
(B) Fluid pressure is zero
(C) Linear deformation is small e
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(D) Only normal stresses can exist
Correct Answer D
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130. One liter of water occupies a volume of

(A) 100 cm3
(B) 250 cm3
(C) 500 cm3
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(D) 1000 cm3

Correct Answer D
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131. The maximum discharge over a broad crested weir is

(A) 0.384 Cd × L × H1/2
(B) 0.384 Cd × L × H3/2
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(C) 1.71 Cd × L × H1/2

(D) 1.71 Cd × L × H3/2
Correct Answer D
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132. The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass density is known as

(A) Specific viscosity
(B) Viscosity index
(C) Kinematic viscosity
(D) Coefficient of viscosity
Correct Answer C
133. Hot wire anemometer is used to measure

(A) Pressure in gases
(B) Liquid discharge
(C) Pressure in liquids
(D) Gas velocities

Correct Answer D
134. Venturimeter is used to

(A) Measure the velocity of a flowing liquid
(B) Measure the pressure of a flowing liquid
(C) Measure the discharge of liquid flowing in a pipe
(D) Measure the pressure difference of liquid flowing between two points in a pipe line
Correct Answer C
135. The kinematic viscosity of an oil (in stokes) whose specific gravity is 0.95 and viscosity 0.011
poise, is
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(A) 0.0116 stoke
(B) 0.116 stoke
(C) 0.0611 stoke
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(D) 0.611 stoke
Correct Answer A
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135. The pressure measured with the help of a pressure gauge is called
(B) Gauge pressure
(D) Mean pressure e
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Correct Answer B
136. In order to increase sensitivity of U-tube manometer, one leg is usually inclined by angle 'θ'.
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Sensitivity of inclined tube to sensitivity of U-tube is equal to

(A) Sinθ
(B) 1/Sinθ
(C) Cos θ
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(D) 1/Cosθ
Correct Answer B
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137. Capillary action is due to the

(A) Surface tension
(B) Cohesion of the liquid
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(C) Adhesion of the liquid molecules and the molecules on the surface of a solid
Correct Answer D
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138. The intensity of pressure on an immersed surface __________ with the increase in depth.
(A) Does not change
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Correct Answer B
139. Stoke is the unit of

(A) Kinematic viscosity in C. G. S. units
(B) Kinematic viscosity in M. K. S. units
(C) Dynamic viscosity in M. K. S. units
(D) Dynamic viscosity in S. I. units

Correct Answer A
140. The vapour pressure over the concave surface is

(A) Less man the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(B) Equal to the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(C) Greater than the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(D) Zero
Correct Answer A
141. Mercury is often used in barometer because

(A) It is the best liquid
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(B) The height of barometer will be less
(C) Its vapour pressure is so low that it may be neglected
(D) Both (B) and (C)
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Correct Answer D
142. Gradually varied flow is
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(A) Steady uniform
(B) Non-steady non-uniform
(C) Non-steady uniform
(D) Steady non-uniform
Correct Answer D e
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143. The viscosity of water at 20°C is
(A) One stoke
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(B) One centistoke

(C) One poise
(D) One centipoise
Correct Answer D
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144. According to Bernoulli's equation for steady ideal fluid flow

(A) Principle of conservation of mass holds
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(B) Velocity and pressure are inversely proportional

(C) Total energy is constant throughout
(D) The energy is constant along a streamline but may vary across streamlines
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Correct Answer D
145. Bernoulli equation deals with the law of conservation of

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(A) Mass
(B) Momentum
(C) Energy
(D) Work
Correct Answer C
146. If the surface of liquid is convex, men

(A) Cohesion pressure is negligible
(B) Cohesion pressure is decreased
(C) Cohesion pressure is increased
(D) There is no cohesion pressure
Correct Answer C
147. The atmospheric pressure with rise in altitude decreases

(A) Linearly
(B) First slowly and then steeply
(C) First steeply and then gradually
(D) Unpredictable
Correct Answer B
148. Dynamic viscosity of most of the gases with rise in temperature

(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain unaffected
(D) Unpredictable
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Correct Answer A
149. According to Bernoulli's equation
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(A) Z + p/w + v²/2g = constant
(B) Z + p/w - v²/2g = constant
(C) Z - p/w + v²/2g = constant
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(D) Z - p/w - v²/2g = constant
Correct Answer A
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150. For a body floating in a liquid the normal pressure exerted by the liquid acts at
(A) Bottom surface of the body
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(B) C.G. of the body
(C) Metacenter
(D) All points on the surface of the body
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Correct Answer D
151. Newton's law of viscosity is a relationship between

(A) Pressure, velocity and temperature
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(B) Shear stress and rate of shear strain

(C) Shear stress and velocity
(D) Rate of shear strain and temperature
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Correct Answer B
152. A fluid in equilibrium can't sustain

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(A) Tensile stress

(B) Compressive stress
(C) Shear stress
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(D) Bending stress

Correct Answer C
153. Liquids
(A) Cannot be compressed
(B) Occupy definite volume
(C) Are not affected by change in pressure and temperature
Correct Answer D
154. When a cylindrical vessel containing liquid is resolved, the surface of the liquid takes the shape
of
(A) A triangle
(B) A paraboloid
(C) An ellipse
(D) None of these
Correct Answer B
155. Fluid is a substance that

(A) Cannot be subjected to shear forces
(B) Always expands until it fills any container
(C) Has the same shear stress at a point regardless of its motion
(D) Cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force
Correct Answer D
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156. The property of a fluid which enables it to resist tensile stress is known as
(A) Compressibility
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(B) Surface tension
(C) Cohesion
(D) Adhesion
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Correct Answer C
157. The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature compared to that of water is
(A) More
(B) Less e
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(C) Same
(D) More or less depending on size of glass tube
Correct Answer A
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158. The unit of viscosity is

(A) Meters² per sec
(B) kg-sec/meter
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(C) Newton-sec per meter²

(D) Newton-sec per meter
Correct Answer B
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159. Choose the wrong statement. Alcohol is used in manometer, because

(A) Its vapour pressure is low
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(B) It provides suitable meniscus for the inclined tube

(C) Its density is less
(D) It provides longer length for a given pressure difference
ww
Correct Answer A
160. A fluid which obeys the Newton's law of viscosity is termed as

(A) Real fluid
(B) Ideal fluid
(C) Newtonian fluid
Correct Answer C
161. In order that flow takes place between two points in a pipeline, the differential pressure
between these points must be more than
(A) Frictional force
(B) Viscosity
(C) Surface friction
Correct Answer D
162. The value of coefficient of velocity for a sharp edged orifice __________ with the head of
water.
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Remain same
(D) None of these
Correct Answer B
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163. If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid and glass, then
the free level of fluid in a dipped glass tube will be
ng
(A) Higher than the surface of liquid
(B) The same as the surface of liquid
(C) Lower than the surface of liquid
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(D) Unpredictable
Correct Answer C
164. A one dimensional flow is one which

(A) Is uniform flow e
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(B) Is steady uniform flow
(C) Takes place in straight lines
(D) Involves zero transverse component of flow
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Correct Answer D
165. According to Manning's formula, the discharge through an open channel is (where M =
Manning's constant)
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(A) A × M × m1/2 × i2/3

(B) A × M × m2/3 × i1/2
(C) A1/2 × M2/3 × m × i
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(D) A2/3 × M1/3 × m × i

Correct Answer B
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166. The property of fluid by virtue of which it offers resistance to shear is called
(A) Surface tension
(B) Adhesion
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(C) Adhesion
(D) Viscosity
Correct Answer D
167. Coefficient of velocity is defined as the ratio of

(A) Actual velocity of jet at vena contracta to the theoretical velocity
(B) Area of jet at vena contracta to the area of orifice
(C) Actual discharge through an orifice to the theoretical discharge
Correct Answer A

168. A liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m3 at 50 kg/cm² and a volume of 0.039
m3 at 150 kg/cm². The bulk modulus of elasticity of liquid is
(A) 400 kg/cm²
(B) 4000 kg/cm²
(C) 40 × 10⁵ kg/cm²
(D) 40 × 10⁶ kg/cm²
Correct Answer B
169. The mass of 2.5 m3 of a certain liquid is 2 tonnes. Its mass density is
(A) 200 kg/m3
(B) 400 kg/m3
(C) 600 kg/m3
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(D) 800 kg/m3
Correct Answer D
ng
170. Manometer is used to measure
(A) Pressure in pipes, channels etc.
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(C) Very low pressure
Correct Answer A
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171. The flow in which conditions do not change with time at any point, is known as
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(B) Uniform flow
(C) Steady flow
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(D) Turbulent flow

Correct Answer C
172. Free surface of a liquid tends to contract to the smallest possible area due to force of
arn
(A) Surface tension

(B) Viscosity
(C) Friction
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(D) Cohesion
Correct Answer A
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173. When the pressure intensity at a point is more than the local atmospheric pressure, then the
difference of these two pressures is called
(A) Gauge pressure
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(B) Absolute pressure

(C) Positive gauge pressure
(D) Vacuum pressure
Correct Answer C
174. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of

(A) Surface tension of water
(B) Compressibility of water
(C) Capillarity of water
(D) Viscosity of water
Correct Answer A

175. The specific gravity of an oil whose specific weight is 7.85 kN/m3, is
(A) 0.8
(B) 1
(C) 1.2
(D) 1.6
Correct Answer A
176. The length of the divergent cone in a Venturimeter is __________ that of the convergent cone.
(A) Equal to
(B) Double
(C) Three to four times
(D) Five to six times
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Correct Answer C
177. Bulk modulus is the ratio of
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a. shear stress to volumetric strain
b. volumetric strain to shear stress
c. compressive stress to volumetric strain
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d. volumetric strain to compressive stress
Correct Answer: C compressive stress to volumetric strain
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178. When is a liquid said to be not in a boiling or vaporized state?
a. If the pressure on liquid is equal to its vapour pressure
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b. If the pressure on liquid is less than its vapour pressure
c. If the pressure on liquid is more than its vapour pressure
d. Unpredictable
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Correct Answer:C If the pressure on liquid is more than its vapour pressure
179. One litre of a certain fluid weighs 8N. What is its specific volume?
a. 2.03 x 10– 3 m3/kg
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b. 20.3 x 10– 3 m3/kg

c. 12.3 x 10– 3 m3/kg
d. 1.23 x 10– 3 m3/kg
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Correct Answer:D 1.23 x 10– 3 m3/kg
180. What is the correct formula for absolute pressure?

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a. Pabs = Patm – Pgauge

b. Pabs = Pvacuum – Patm
c. Pabs = Pvacuum + Patm
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d. Pabs = Patm+ Pgauge

Correct Answer:D Pabs = Patm+ Pgauge
181. According to Archimede’s principle, if a body is immersed partially or fully in a fluid then the
buoyancy force is _______ the weight of fluid displaced by the body.
a. equal to
b. less than
c. more than
d. unpredictable
Correct Answer:A equal to

UNIT 2 FLOW THROUGH PIPES

1. The velocity corresponding to Reynold number of 2000 is called
(A) Sub-sonic velocity
(B) Super-sonic velocity
(C) Lower critical velocity
(D) Higher critical velocity
Correct Answer C
2. The loss of head at entrance in a pipe is (where v = Velocity of liquid in the pipe)
(A) v²/2g
(B) 0.5v²/2g
(C) 0.375v²/2g
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(D) 0.75v²/2g
Correct Answer B
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3. Which of the following is an example of laminar flow?
(A) Underground flow
(B) Flow past tiny bodies
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(C) Flow of oil in measuring instruments
(D) All of these
Correct Answer D
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4. The discharge over a rectangular weir, considering the velocity of approach, is (whereH1 = H +
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Ha = Total height of water above the weir, H = Height of water over the crest of the weir, and Ha =
Height of water due to velocity of approach)
(A) (2/3) Cd × L.√2g [H1 - Ha]
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(B) (2/3) Cd × L. √2g [H13/2 - Ha3/2]

(C) (2/3) Cd × L.√2g [H12 - Ha2]
(D) (2/3) Cd × L. √2g [H15/2 - Ha5/2]
Correct Answer B
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5. The maximum efficiency of transmission through a pipe is

(A) 50 %
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(B) 56.7 %
(C) 66.67 %
(D) 76.66 %
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Correct Answer C
7. The efficiency of power transmission through pipe is (where H = Total supply head, and hf = Head
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lost due to friction in the pipe)

(A) (H - hf )/H
(B) H/(H - hf )
(C) (H + hf )/H
(D) H/(H + hf )
Correct Answer A
8. A flow in which the viscosity of fluid is dominating over the inertia force is called
(A) Steady flow
(B) Unsteady flow
(C) Laminar flow
(D) Turbulent flow
Correct Answer C
9. The hydraulic mean depth or the hydraulic radius is the ratio of

(A) Area of flow and wetted perimeter
(B) Wetted perimeter and diameter of pipe
(C) Velocity of flow and area of flow
(D) None of these
Correct Answer A
10. The hydraulic mean depth for a circular pipe of diameter (d) is
(A) d/6
(B) d/4
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(C) d/2
(D) d
Correct Answer B
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11. A flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path, and the paths of individual particles do
not cross each other, is called
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(A) Steady flow
(B) Uniform flow
(C) Streamline flow
(D) Turbulent flow
Correct Answer C e
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12. The Reynold's number of a ship is __________ to its velocity and length.
(A) Directly proportional
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(B) Inversely proportional

(C) Square root of velocity
(D) None of these
Correct Answer A
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13. The velocity at which the laminar flow stops, is known as

(A) Velocity of approach
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(B) Lower critical velocity

(C) Higher critical velocity
(D) None of these
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Correct Answer B
14. The velocity corresponding to Reynold number of 2800, is called

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(A) Sub-sonic velocity

(B) Super-sonic velocity
(C) Lower critical velocity
(D) Higher critical velocity
Correct Answer D
15. The total energy of a liquid particle in motion is equal to

(A) Pressure energy + kinetic energy + potential energy
(B) Pressure energy - (kinetic energy + potential energy)
(C) Potential energy - (pressure energy + kinetic energy
(D) Kinetic energy - (pressure energy + potential energy)
Correct Answer A
16. When a cylindrical vessel containing liquid is revolved about its vertical axis at a constant
angular velocity, the pressure
(A) Varies as the square of the radial distance
(B) Increases linearly as its radial distance
(C) Increases as the square of the radial distance
(D) Decreases as the square of the radial distance
Correct Answer A
17. The length AB of a pipe ABC in which the liquid is flowing has diameter (d1) and is suddenly
contracted to diameter (d2) at B which is constant for the length BC. The loss of head due to sudden
contraction, assuming coefficient of contraction as 0.62, is
(A) v₁²/2g
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(B) v₂²/2g
(C) 0.5 v₁²/2g
(D) 0.375 v₂²/2g
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Correct Answer D
18. A large Reynold number is indication of
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(A) Smooth and streamline flow
(B) Laminar flow
(C) Steady flow
(D) Highly turbulent flow
Correct Answer D e
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19. A tank of uniform cross-sectional area (A) containing liquid upto height (H1) has an orifice of
cross-sectional area (a) at its bottom. The time required to empty the tank completely will be
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(A) (2A√H₁)/(Cd × a√2g)

(B) (2AH₁)/(Cd × a√2g)
(C) (2AH₁3/2)/(Cd × a√2g)
(D) (2AH₁²)/(Cd × a√2g)
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Correct Answer A
20. The total pressure on the top of a closed cylindrical vessel completely filled up with a liquid is
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(A) Directly proportional to (radius)2

(B) Inversely proportional to (radius)2
(C) Directly proportional to (radius)4
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(D) Inversely proportional to (radius)4

Correct Answer C
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21. For pipes, turbulent flow occurs when Reynolds number is

(A) Less than 2000
(B) Between 2000 and 4000
(C) More than 4000
(D) Less than 4000
Correct Answer C
22. The discharge through a siphon spillway is

(A) Cd × a × √(2gH)
(B) Cd × a × √(2g) × H3/2
(C) Cd × a × √(2g) × H2
(D) Cd × a × √(2g) × H5/2
Correct Answer A
23. The shear stress-strain graph for a Newtonian fluid is a
(A) Straight line
(B) Parabolic curve
(C) Hyperbolic curve
(D) Elliptical
Correct Answer A
24. When a cylindrical vessel of radius (r) containing liquid is revolved about its vertical axis ω rad/s,
then depth of parabola which the liquid assumes is
(A) ω.r/2g
(B) ω².r²/2g
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(C) ω.r/4g
(D) ω².r²/4g
Correct Answer B
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25. The region between the separation streamline and the boundary surface of the solid body is
known as
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(A) Wake
(B) Drag
(C) Lift
(D) Boundary layer
Correct Answer A e
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26. The total pressure on the top of a closed cylindrical vessel of radius (r) completely filled up with
liquid of specific weight (w) and rotating at (ω) rad/s about its vertical axis, is
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(A) π w ω² r²/4g
(B) π w ω² r³/4g
(C) π w ω² r⁴/4g
(D) π w ω² r²/2g
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Correct Answer C
27. The diameter of the nozzle (d) for maximum transmission of power is given by (where D =
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Diameter of pipe, f = Darcy’s coefficient of friction for pipe, and l = Length of pipe)
(A) d = (D⁵/8fl)1/2
(B) d = (D⁵/8fl)1/3
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(C) d = (D⁵/8fl)1/4
(D) d = (D⁵/8fl)1/5
Correct Answer C
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28. The fluid forces considered in the Navier Stokes equation are
(A) Gravity, pressure and viscous
(B) Gravity, pressure and turbulent
(C) Pressure, viscous and turbulent
(D) Gravity, viscous and turbulent
Correct Answer A
29. Select the wrong statement

(A) An equivalent pipe is treated as an ordinary pipe for all calculations
(B) The length of an equivalent pipe is equal to that of a compound pipe
(C) The discharge through an equivalent pipe is equal to that of a compound pipe
(D) The diameter of an equivalent pipe is equal to that of a compound pipe

Correct Answer D
30. A flow through a long pipe at constant rate is called

(A) Steady uniform flow
(B) Steady non-uniform flow
(C) Unsteady uniform flow
(D) Unsteady non-uniform flow
Correct Answer A
31. A balloon lifting in air follows the following principle

(A) Law of gravitation
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(B) Archimedes principle
(C) Principle of buoyancy
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33. The velocity at which the flow changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow is called
(A) Critical velocity
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(B) Velocity of approach
(C) Sub-sonic velocity
(D) Super-sonic velocity
Correct Answer A
e
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34. According to Darcy's formula, the loss of head due to friction in the pipe is (where f = Darcy's
coefficient, l = Length of pipe, v = Velocity of liquid in pipe, and d = Diameter of pipe)
(A) flv²/2gd
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(B) flv²/gd
(C) 3flv²/2gd
(D) 4flv²/2gd
Correct Answer D
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35. The loss of head due to viscosity for laminar flow in pipes is (where d = Diameter of pipe, l =
Length of pipe, v = Velocity of the liquid in the pipe, μ = Viscosity of the liquid, and w = Specific
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weight of the flowing liquid)

(A) 4μvl/wd²
(B) 8μvl/wd²
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(C) 16μvl/wd²
(D) 32μvl/wd²
Correct Answer D
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36. The loss of pressure head in case of laminar flow is proportional to

(A) Velocity
(B) (Velocity)2
(C) (Velocity)3
(D) (Velocity)4
Correct Answer A
37. During the opening of a valve in a pipe line, the flow is

(A) Steady
(B) Unsteady
(C) Uniform
(D) Laminar
Correct Answer B
38. The main property that affects a boundary layer is__________

a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) Viscosity
d) Surface tension
Answer: c
Explanation: A boundary layer is an important concept that refers to the layer of fluid. The fluid that
is in the immediate vicinity of a bounding surface. The main property that affects a boundary layer is
viscosity.
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39. The layer that is influenced by a planetary boundary is called______
a) Atmospheric boundary layer
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b) Lithosphere
c) Troposphere
d) Hydrosphere
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Answer: a
Explanation: The planetary boundary layer is also called as atmospheric boundary layer(ABL). It is
the lowest part of the atmosphere. The behaviour of ABL is directly influenced by its contact with the
planetary surface.
e
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40. What is the other name for Stoke’s boundary layer?
a) Momentum boundary layer
b) Atmospheric boundary layer
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c) Oscillatory boundary layer

d) Thermal boundary layer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stoke’s boundary layer is also called as Oscillatory boundary layer. It is a boundary
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layer that is close to a solid wall. It moves in an oscillatory motion. It arrested by a viscous force
acting in the opposite direction.
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41. Eddy viscosity is a turbulent transfer of_________

a) Fluid
b) Heat
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c) Momentum
d) Pressure
Answer: c
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Explanation: Eddy viscosity is a turbulent transfer of momentum by eddies. It gives rise to an

internal fluid friction. It is in analogous to the action of molecular viscosity in laminar fluid flow. Eddy
viscosity takes place on a large scale.
42. The laminar boundary layer is a _________

a) Smooth flow
b) Rough flow
c) Uniform flow
d) Random flow
Answer: a

Explanation: For a laminar boundary layer the fluid moves in a very smooth flow. The laminar flow
creates less skin friction drag. It is a less stable flow. The laminar boundary layer has got an
increase in its thickness.
43. The turbulent boundary layer is a _________

a) Non-uniform with swirls
b) Uniform
c) Less stable
d) Smooth
Answer: a
Explanation: For a turbulent boundary layer the fluid moves in different direction producing swirls. It
has more skin friction drag than that of laminar boundary layer. It is more stable when compared to
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laminar.
44. How do we measure the flow rate of liquid?
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a) Coriolis method
b) Dead weight method
c) Conveyor method
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d) Ionization method
Answer: a
Explanation: Coriolis concept of measurement of fluid takes place through the rotation with the
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reference frame. It is an application of the Newton’s Law. The device continuously records, regulates
and feeds large volume of bulk materials.
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45. How does a turbulent boundary layer produce swirls?
a) Due to random motion
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b) Collision of molecules
c) Due to eddies
d) Due to non-uniform cross section
Answer: c
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produces swirls due to the presence of eddies. The smooth laminar boundary layer flow breaks down
and transforms to a turbulent flow.
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46. Define Viscosity.

a) Resistance to flow of object
w.
b) Resistance to flow of air

c) Resistance to flow of fluid
d) Resistance to flow of heat
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Answer: c
Explanation: Viscosity is developed due to the relative motion between two surfaces of fluids at
different velocities. It happens due to the shear stress developed on the surface of the fluid.
47. The continuity equation of two- dimensional steady incompressible flow is_______
fluid-mechanics-questions-answers-turbulent-layer-plate-q10
Answer: a
Explanation: The continuity equation of two- dimensional steady incompressible flow is fluid-
mechanics-questions-answers-turbulent-layer-plate0q10-exp. It is in accordance with the Navier-
Stokes equations for a two- dimensional steady incompressible flow in cartesian coordinates.
48. Flow separation in a flow past a solid object is caused by

(A) A reduction of pressure to vapor pressure

(B) A negative pressure gradient
(C) A positive pressure gradient
(D) The boundary layer thickness reducing to zero GATE-ME-2002
(Ans B)
49. How can we determine whether the flow is laminar or turbulent?

a) Reynold’s number
b) Mach number
c) Froude number
d) Knudsen number
Answer: a
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Explanation: Reynold’s number is used to determine whether the flow is laminar or turbulent. If
Reynold’s number is less than 2000, it is a laminar flow. If Reynold’s number is greater than 2000,
then it is a turbulent flow.
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50. The flow separation occurs when the fluid travels away from the __________
a) Surface
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b) Fluid body
c) Adverse pressure gradient
d) Inter-molecular spaces
Answer: c
e
Explanation: Adverse pressure gradient takes place when the static pressure increases. It increases
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the direction of the flow. Adverse pressure gradient plays an important role in flow separation. Thus,
option c is correct.
En
51. The swirl caused due to eddies are called as ______

a) Vortices
b) Vertices
c) Volume
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d) Velocity
Answer: a
Explanation: Vortices are a region in a fluid. It takes place when the flow revolves around an axis
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line. Vortices can be straight or curved. They form shapes like smoke rings and whirlpools.

w.
a) Fluid
b) Heat
c) Momentum
ww
d) Pressure
Answer: c
53. Which among the following is a device that converts a laminar flow into a turbulent flow?
a) Dead Weight Gauge
b) Vacuum Gauge
c) Turbulator
d) Ionization Gauge
Answer: c
Explanation: Turbulator is a device that converts a laminar flow into a turbulent flow. The turbulent
flow can be desired parts of an aircraft or also in industrial applications. Turbulator is derived from
the word “turbulent”.
54. Boundary layer separation does not undergo detachment.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Boundary layer separation undergoes detachment from the surface into a broader
wake. It occurs mainly when the portion of the boundary layer is closest to the wall. It leads to
reverse in the flow direction.
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55. With the boundary layer separation, displacement thickness________
a) Increases
b) Decreases
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c) Remains Same
d) Independent
Answer: a
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Explanation: With the boundary layer separation, displacement thickness increases sharply. This
helps to modify the outside potential flow and its pressure field. Thus, option ‘a’ is the correct choice.
e
56. What is the instrument used for the automatic control scheme during the fluid flow?
a) Rotameters
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b) Pulley plates
c) Rotary Piston
d) Pilot Static Tube
En
Answer: d
Explanation: Pilot static tube is a system that uses an automatic control scheme to detect pressure.
It has several holes connected to one side of the device. These outside holes are called as a pressure
transducer, which controls the automatic scheme during fluid flow.
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57. What is D’Alembert’s Paradox?

a) Resistance= 0
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b) Drag force= 0
c) Temperature = 0
d) Pressure gradient= 0
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Answer: b
Explanation: D’Alembert’s Paradox states that for an incompressible and inviscid flow potential flow,
the drag force is equal to zero. The fluid is moving at a constant velocity with respect to its relative
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fluid.
58. The steady- state flow must satisfy ___________

a) Kirchhoff’s law
b) Newtons law
c) Rutherford’s experiment
d) Kepler’s law
Answer: a
Explanation: The steady state flow must satisfy Kirchhoff’s first and second law. The first law states
that the total flow into the junction equals the total flow away from the junction. Second law is called
as the law of conservation of mass. It states that between two junctions, the head loss is
independent of the path followed
59. What is the name of the equation?

Q = (πΔPr4) / (8µL)
a) Darcey equation
b) Poiseuille law
c) Reynolds equation
d) Sherwood law
Answer: b
Explanation: The Hagen–Poiseuille equation also called as the Hagen–Poiseuille law, is a physical law
that gives the pressure drop in an incompressible and Newtonian fluid which is flowing through a
long cylindrical pipe in laminar flow of constant cross section.
60. What is the name of the equation?
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h = (fvL) / (2Dg)
a) Darcey equation
b) Poiseuille law
ng
c) Reynolds equation
d) Sherwood law
Answer: a
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Explanation: It’s a constitutive equation that describes the flow of a fluid through a porous medium.
It’s based on the results of experiments on the flow of H2O through beds of sand, forming the basis
of hydrogeology, a branch of earth sciences.
61. Which one of the following is a major loss? e

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a) frictional loss
b) shock loss
c) entry loss
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d) exit loss
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The major loss for the flow through the pipes is due to the frictional resistance between
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adjacent fluid layers sliding over each other. All other losses are considered to be minor losses.
62. Which property of the fluid accounts for the major losses in pipes?
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a) density
b) specific gravity
c) viscosity
w.
d) compressibility
View Answer
Answer: c
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Explanation: The major loss for the flow through the pipes is due to the frictional resistance between
adjacent fluid layers sliding over each other. This resistance arises due to the presence of viscous
property of the fluid.
63. The frictional resistance for fluids in motion is

a) proportional to the velocity in laminar flow and to the square of the velocity in turbulent flow
b) proportional to the square of the velocity in laminar flow and to the velocity in turbulent flow
c) proportional to the velocity in both laminar flow and turbulent flow
d) proportional to the square of the velocity in both laminar flow and turbulent flow
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: According to the laws of fluid friction, rf / v (for steady streamline flow) and rf / v2(for
turbulent flow), where rf is the frictional resistance and v is the velocity of flow.

a) dependent on the pressure for both laminar and turbulent flows
b) independent of the pressure for both laminar and turbulent flows
c) dependent on the pressure for laminar flow and independent of the pressure for turbulent flow
d) independent of the pressure for laminar flow and dependent on the pressure for turbulent flow
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: According to the laws of fluid friction, the frictional resistance is independent of the
.in
pressure for both laminar and turbulent flows.
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a) inversely proportional to the square of the surface area of contact
b) inversely proportional to the surface area of contact
c) proportional to the square of the surface area of contact
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d) proportional to the surface area of contact
View Answer
Answer: d
e
Explanation: According to the laws of fluid friction, the frictional resistance is proportional to the
surface area of contact for both laminar and turbulent flows.
gin
66. The frictional resistance for fluids in motion varies
a) slightly with temperature for both laminar and turbulent flows
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b) considerably with temperature for both laminar and turbulent flows

c) slightly with temperature for laminar flow and considerably with temperature for turbulent flow
d) considerably with temperature for laminar flow and slightly with temperature for turbulent flow
View Answer
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Answer: d
Explanation: According to the laws of fluid friction, the frictional resistance for fluids in motion varies
considerably with temperature for laminar flow and slightly with temperature for turbulent flow.
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67. Which one of the follflowing is correct?

a) the frictional resistance depends on the nature of the surface area of contact
w.
b) the frictional resistance is independent of the nature of the surface area of contact
c) the frictional resistance depends on the nature of the surface area of contact for laminar flows but
is independent of the nature of the surface area of contact for turbulent flows
ww
d) the frictional resistance is independent of the nature of the surface area of contact for laminar
flows but depends on the nature of the surface area of contact for turbulent flows
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: According to the laws of fluid friction, the frictional resistance is independent of the
nature of the surface area of contact for laminar flows but depends on the nature of the surface area
of contact for turbulent flows.

a) the frictional resistance is always dependent on the nature of the surface area of contact
b) the frictional resistance is always independent of the nature of the surface area of contact
c) the frictional resistance is dependent on the nature of the surface area of contact when the liquid
flows at a velocity less than the critical velocity

d) the frictional resistance is independent of the nature of the surface area of contact when the liquid
flows at a velocity less than the critical velocity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Frictional resistance is dependent on the nature of the surface area of contact. But,
when the liquid flows at a velocity less than the critical velocity, a thin stationary film of the liquid is
formed on the supporting surface. Hence, the frictional resistance becomes independent of the
nature of the surface of contact.

a) Darcy-Weisbach’s formula is generally used for head loss in flow through both pipes and open
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channels
b) Chezy’s formula is generally used for head loss in flow through both pipes and open channels
c) Darcy-Weisbach’s formula is generally used for head loss in flow through both pipes and Chezy’s
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formula for open channels
d) Chezy’s formula is generally used for head loss in flow through both pipes and Darcy-Weisbach’s
formula for open channels
eri
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Darcy-Weisbach’s formula is generally used for head loss in flow through both pipes as
e
it takes into consideration the flow velocity whereas Chezy’s formula is used for open channels as it
considers the pressure difference.
gin
70. A liquid flows through pipes 1 and 2 with the same flow velocity. If the ratio of their pipe
diameters d1 : d2 be 3:2, what will be the ratio of the head loss in the two pipes?
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a) 3:2
b) 9:4
c) 2:3
d) 4:9
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View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to Darcy-Weisbach’s formula,
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wherehf is the head loss in the pipe, f is the co-efficient of friction, L is the length, D is the diameter
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and V is the flow velocity. Thus, hf1 : hf2 = D2 : D1 = 2 : 3.
71. A liquid flowss through two similar pipes 1 and 2. If the ratio of their flow velocities v1 : v2 be
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2:3, what will be the ratio of the head loss in the two pipes?
a) 3:2
b) 9:4
c) 2:3
d) 4:9
View Answer
Answer: d
where hf is the head loss in the pipe, f is the co-efficient of friction, L is the length, D is the diameter
and V is the flow velocity. Thus, hf1 : hf2 = v1 : v2 = 4 : 9.
72. A liquid flows with the same velocity through two pipes 1 and 2 having the same diameter. If the
length of the second pipe be twice that of the first pipe, what should be the ratio of the head loss in
the two pipes?
a) 1:2
b) 2:1
c) 1:4
d) 4:1
View Answer
Answer: a
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where hf is the head loss in the pipe, f is the co-efficient of friction, L is the length, D is the diameter
and V is the flow velocity. Thus, hf1 : hf2 = L1 : L2 = 1 : 2.
ng
73. The head loss at the entrance of the pipe is that at it’s exit
a) equal to
eri
b) half
c) twice
d) four times
View Answer
e
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Answer: b
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hi = o.5v2 / 2g and ho = v2 / 2g, where hi is the head loss at pipe entrance, h o is the head loss at
pipe exit and v is the flow velocity. Thus hi = 0.5ho.
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74. On which of the factors does the co-efficent of bend in a pipe depend?
a) angle of bend and radius of curvature of the bend
b) angle of bend and radius of the pipe
c) radius of curvature of the bend and pipe
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d) radius of curvature of the bend and pipe and angle of bend

View Answer
Answer: d
w.
Explanation: The co-efficent of bend in a pipe depends on all the three parameters – radius of
curvature of the bend, diameter (radius) of the pipe and angle of bend.
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76. The liquid flowing through a series of pipes can take up__________
a) Pipes of different diameters
b) Pipes of the same diameters only.
c) Single pipe only
d) Short pipes only
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When pipes of different diameters are connected at its ends to form a pipe, this pipe so
developed is called as pipes in series. They might not have to be of the same diameters. But, having
the same diameters are better as it avoids the losses so developed.

77. What is the total loss developed in a series of pipes?

a) Sum of losses in each pipe only
b) Sum of local losses only
c) Sum of local losses plus the losses in each pipe
d) Zero
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the pipes of different diameters are connected in series from end to end to form
a pipe line. The total loss so developed is equal to the sum of local losses plus the losses in each
pipe. The local losses are developed at the connection point.
78. The total head loss for the system is equal to_________
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a) Pipe length
b) Pipe diameter
c) Width of the reservoir
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d) Height difference of reservoirs
View Answer
Answer: d
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Explanation: Total head loss for a system is equal to the height difference of the reservoirs. Height
difference is denoted by the letter ‘H’. Total head loss can be equated by summing it up with all the
local losses and the losses at each pipe.
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79. Which among the following is not a loss that is developed in the pipe?
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a) Entry
b) Exit
c) Connection between two pipes
En
d) Liquid velocity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Liquid velocity in the pipe is the velocity with which the liquid travels through different
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cross sections of the pipe. It is a vector field which is used to describe the motion of a continuum.
The length of flow velocity vector is equal to the flow speed.
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80. Which among the following is the correct formula for head loss?
a) Z1-Z2
b) C
w.
c) T2-T1
d) S2-S1
View Answer
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Answer: a
local losses and the losses at each pipe. Here, the height difference between the reservoirs is Z 1-Z2.
81. If the two reservoirs are kept at the same level, the head loss is _______
a) Z1-Z2
b) Zero
c) T2-T1
d) S2-S1
View Answer

Answer: b
difference is denoted by the letter ‘H’. The height difference between the reservoirs is Z 1-Z2. Since
they are of the same level, Z1=Z2. Therefore, head loss is zero.
82. How do we determine the total discharge through parallel pipes?

a) Add them.
b) Subtract them
c) Multiply them
d) Divide them
View Answer
Answer: a
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Explanation: Total discharge in parallel pipes are determined by adding the discharges so developed
in individual pipes. If Q1 is the discharge through pipe 1 and Q2 is the discharge through pipe 2.
Then the total discharge through parallel pipes is equal to Q 1+Q2.
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83. The pipe diameter is ________
a) Directly proportional to fluid density
eri
b) Directly proportional to mass flow rate
c) Inversely proportional to mass flow rate
d) Directly proportional to fluid velocity
View Answer
Answer: b e
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Explanation: The pipe diameter is directly proportional to mass flow rate of fluid. Pipe diameter can
be calculated if volumetric flow rate and velocity are known. ‘D’ is inversely proportional to its
velocity.
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84. Coefficient of friction of a laminar flow is_________

a) Re/16
b) Re/64
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c) 16/Re
d) 64/Re
View Answer
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Answer: c
Explanation: Coefficient of friction is defined as the value that shows relationship between force and
the normal reaction. It is mainly used to find out an object’s normal force and frictional force. Thus,
w.
it is equal to 16/Re.
85. Shear stress in static fluid is

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a. always zero
b. always maximum
c. between zero to maximum
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: always zero
86. Which branch of fluid mechanics deals with translation, rotation and deformation of
the fluid element without considering the force and energy causing such
motion is called as
a. fluid dynamics
b. fluid kinematics
c. fluid kinetics
d. hydraulics
ANSWER: fluid kinematics
87. Inter molecular cohesive force in the fluids is

a. less than that of the solids
b. more than that of the solids
c. equal to that of the solids
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: less than that of the solids
88. The specific weight of the fluid depends upon

a. gravitational acceleration
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b. mass density of the fluid
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above
ng
ANSWER: both a. and b.
89. Which property of the fluid offers resistance to deformation under the action of shear force?
eri
a. density
b. viscosity
c. permeability
d. specific gravity
ANSWER: viscosity e
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90. In which method of describing fluid motion, the observer remains stationary and observes
changes in the fluid parameters at a particular point only?
En
a. Lagrangian method
b. Eulerian method
c. Stationary method
d. All of the above
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ANSWER: Eulerian method
91. The rate of increase of velocity with respect to change in the position of fluid particle in a flow
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field is called as
a. local acceleration
b. temporal acceleration
w.
c. convective acceleration
d. all of the above
ANSWER: convective acceleration
ww
92. The actual path followed by a fluid particle as it moves during a period of time, is called as a.
path line
b. streak line
c. filament line
d. stream line
ANSWER: path line
93. The imaginary line drawn in the fluid in such a way that the tangent to any point gives the
direction of motion at the point, is called as
a. path line
b. streak line
c. filament line
d. stream line
ANSWER: stream line
94. The study of force which produces motion in a fluid is called as

a. fluid statics
b. fluid dynamics
c. fluid kinematics
ANSWER: fluid dynamics
95. Which of the following forces generally act on fluid while considering fluid dynamics?
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1. Viscous force
2. Pressure force
3. Gravity force
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4. Turbulent force
96. Compressibility force
a. (1), (3), (4) and (5)
eri
b. (1), (2), (3) and (5)
c. (1), (2), (3) and (4)
d. (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5)
ANSWER: (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5)
e
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97. The net force of an ideal flow is equal to the sum of nonzero values of
a. pressure force and gravity force
b. viscous force and gravity force
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c. pressure force and viscous force

d. pressure force, viscous force and compressibility force
ANSWER: pressure force and gravity force
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98 When the net

force acting on a fluid is the sum of only gravity force, pressure
force and viscous force, the equation is called as
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a. Reynold’s equation of motion

b. Navier-stockes equation of motion
c. Euler’s equation of motion
w.

ANSWER: Navier-stockes equation of motion
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99 In a steady,
ideal flow of an incompressible fluid, total energy at any point of the
fluid is always constant. This theorem is known as
a. Euler’s theorem
b. Navier-stockes theorem
c. Reynold’s theorem
d. Bernoulli’s theorem
ANSWER: Bernoulli’s theorem
100 The flow of fluid will be laminar when,

a. Reynold’s number is less than 2000
b. the density of the fluid is low
c. both a. and b.
101. How should be the viscosity of the flowing fluid for laminar flow?
a. viscosity of the fluid should be as low as possible, for laminar flow
b. viscosity of the fluid should be as high as possible, for laminar flow
c. change in viscosity of the flowing fluid does not affect its flow
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: viscosity of the fluid should be as high as possible, for laminar flow
102. Below diagram shows the velocity distribution of fluid flow through a pipe. Flow is laminar.
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What is the ratio of maximum velocity to average velocity?
a. 1
b. 2
ng
c. 4
d. 3.14
ANSWER: 2
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103. Coefficient of friction for laminar flow is given as
Where,
Re = Reynold’s number
a. (Re / 32) e
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b. (32 / Re)
c. (Re / 16)
d. (16 / Re)
En
ANSWER: (16 / Re)
104. What is the ratio of maximum velocity to average velocity, when the fluid is passing through
two parallel plates and flow is laminar?
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a. 3/2
b. 2/3
c. 4/3
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d. 3/4
ANSWER: ¾
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105. The head loss through fluid flowing pipe due to friction is
a. the minor loss
b. the major loss
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c. both a. and b.
ANSWER: the major loss
106. What is Darcy-Weisbach formula for heat loss due to friction?

Where,
f = Darcy’s coefficient of friction
a. hf = (f l V2) / (g d)
b. hf = (f l V2) / (2 g d)
c. hf = (4 f l V2) / (2 g d)
d. hf = (16 f l V2) / (2 g d)
ANSWER: hf = (4 f l V2) / (2 g d)
107. Minor losses occur due to

a. sudden enlargement in pipe
b. sudden contraction in pipe
c. bends in pipe
d. all of the above
ANSWER: all of the above
107 Minor losses do not make any serious effect in

a. short pipes
b. long pipes
c. both the short as well as long pipes
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d. cannot say
ANSWER: long pipes
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108. What is the correct formula for loss at the exit of a pipe?
a. hL = 0.5 (V2 / 2g)
b. hL = (V2 / 2g)
eri
c. hL = (2 V2 / g)
d. hL = (4 V2 / g)
ANSWER: hL = (V2 / 2g)

e
gin
109. Shear stress in a turbulent flow is given by the formula
τ = η (du / dy)
Where η (eta) is,
En
a. eddy viscosity
b. apparent viscosity
c. virtual viscosity
d. all of the above
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110. Magnitude of eddy viscosity for laminar flow is

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a. less than zero

b. zero
c. greater than zero
w.
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: zero
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111. Kinematic eddy viscosity (ε) is the ratio of

a. eddy viscosity (η) to dynamic viscosity (μ)
b. eddy viscosity (η) to kinematic viscosity (ν)
c. kinematic viscosity to eddy viscosity (η)
d. eddy viscosity (η) to mass density (ρ)
ANSWER: eddy viscosity (η) to mass density (ρ)
112 Friction factor for laminar flow is given by

a. (Re /64)
b. (64 / Re)
c. (Re / 16)
d. (16 / Re)
ANSWER: (64 / Re)
113. What is temporal mean velocity?

a. The average of velocities at a point over a certain period of time
b. The average of velocities of a single particle over different locations in a fluid flow
c. None of the above
ANSWER: The average of velocities at a point over a certain period of time
114. The friction factor in fluid flowing through pipe depends upon
a. Reynold’s number
b. relative roughness of pipe surface
c. both a. and b.
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115. What is the effect of change in Reynold’s number on friction factor in turbulent flow?
a. As the Reynold’s number increases the friction factor increases in turbulent flow
b. As the Reynold’s number increases the friction factor decreases in turbulent flow
eri
c. change in Reynold’s number does not affect the friction factor in turbulent flow
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: As the Reynold’s number increases the friction factor decreases in turbulent flow
e
116. What is the formula for determining the size of equivalent pipe for two pipes of lengths L1, L2
gin
and diameters d1, d2 respectively?
Where,
L = L1 + L2
En
a. (L / d) = (L1 / d1) + (L2 / d2)

b. (L / d2 ) = (L1 / d12) + (L2 / d22)
c. (L / d3) = (L1 / d13 ) + (L2 / d23)
d. (L / d5) = (L1 / d15 ) + (L2 / d25)
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ANSWER: (L / d5) = (L1 / d15 ) + (L2 / d25)
117. What is a syphon?

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a. A long bend pipe used to carry water from a reservoir at a higher level to another reservoir at a
lower level when two reservoirs are separated by a hill
b. A long bend pipe used to carry water from a reservoir at a lower level to another reservoir at a
w.
higher level with some work input when two reservoirs are separated by a hill
c. A long bend pipe used to carry water from one reservoir to another reservoir when two reservoirs
are at same elevation
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d. Unpredictable
ANSWER:
A long bend pipe used to carry water from a reservoir at a higher level to another reservoir at a
lower level when two reservoirs are separated by a hill
118. The highest point of syphon is called as

a. syphon top
b. summit
c. reservoir
ANSWER: summit

118. The component of the total force exerted by fluid on a body in the direction parallel to the
direction of motion is called as
a. lift
b. drag
c. both a. and b.
ANSWER: drag
119. The sum of components of shear forces in the direction of flow of fluid is called as
a. shear drag
b. friction drag
c. skin drag
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d. all of the above
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120. Which type of body is an airfoil?
a. streamline body
b. wave body
eri
c. bluff body
d. induced body
ANSWER: streamline body
e
121. The liquid flowing through a series of pipes can take up__________
gin
a) Pipes of different diameters
b) Pipes of the same diameters only.
c) Single pipe only
En
d) Short pipes only

Answer: a
Explanation: When pipes of different diameters are connected at its ends to form a pipe, this pipe so
developed is called as pipes in series. They might not have to be of the same diameters. But, having
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the same diameters are better as it avoids the losses so developed.
122. What is the total loss developed in a series of pipes?

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a) Sum of losses in each pipe only

b) Sum of local losses only
c) Sum of local losses plus the losses in each pipe
w.
d) Zero
Answer: c
Explanation: When the pipes of different diameters are connected in series from end to end to form
ww
a pipe line. The total loss so developed is equal to the sum of local losses plus the losses in each
pipe. The local losses are developed at the connection point.
123. The total head loss for the system is equal to_________
a) Pipe length
b) Pipe diameter
c) Width of the reservoir
d) Height difference of reservoirs
Answer: d
local losses and the losses at each pipe.
124. Which among the following is not a loss that is developed in the pipe?
a) Entry
b) Exit
c) Connection between two pipes
d) Liquid velocity
Answer: d
Explanation: Liquid velocity in the pipe is the velocity with which the liquid travels through different
cross sections of the pipe. It is a vector field which is used to describe the motion of a continuum.
The length of flow velocity vector is equal to the flow speed.
125. Which among the following is the correct formula for head loss?
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a) Z1-Z2
b) C
c) T2-T1
ng
d) S2-S1
Answer: a
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local losses and the losses at each pipe. Here, the height difference between the reservoirs is Z1-Z2.
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126. If the two reservoirs are kept at the same level, the head loss is _______
a) Z1-Z2
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b) Zero
c) T2-T1
d) S2-S1
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Answer: b
difference is denoted by the letter ‘H’. The height difference between the reservoirs is Z1-Z2. Since
they are of the same level, Z1=Z2. Therefore, head loss is zero.
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127. How do we determine the total discharge through parallel pipes?

a) Add them.
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b) Subtract them
c) Multiply them
d) Divide them
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Answer: a
Explanation: Total discharge in parallel pipes are determined by adding the discharges so developed
in individual pipes. If Q1 is the discharge through pipe 1 and Q2 is the discharge through pipe 2.
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Then the total discharge through parallel pipes is equal to Q1+Q2.
128. The pipe diameter is ________

a) Directly proportional to fluid density
b) Directly proportional to mass flow rate
c) Inversely proportional to mass flow rate
d) Directly proportional to fluid velocity
Answer: b
Explanation: The pipe diameter is directly proportional to mass flow rate of fluid. Pipe diameter can
be calculated if volumetric flow rate and velocity are known. ‘D’ is inversely proportional to its
velocity.

129. Define Viscosity.

a) Resistance to flow of object
b) Resistance to flow of air
c) Resistance to flow of fluid
d) Resistance to flow of heat
Answer: c
Explanation: Viscosity is developed due to the relative motion between two surfaces of fluids at
different velocities. It happens due to the shear stress developed on the surface of the fluid.
130. Coefficient of friction of a laminar flow is_________

a) Re/16
b) Re/64
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c) 16/Re
d) 64/Re
Answer: c
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Explanation: Coefficient of friction is defined as the value that shows relationship between force and
the normal reaction. It is mainly used to find out an object’s normal force and frictional force. Thus,
it is equal to 16/Re
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131. Which among the following force is developed due to resistance of a fluid flow?
a) Viscous force
b) Inertial force
c) Gravity force e
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d) Pressure force
Answer: a
Explanation: Viscous force is the force that is developed due to resistance of a fluid flow. Viscous
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force is equal to the product of shear stress due to viscosity and surface area of the fluid. It acts in
the opposite direction to that of the acceleration.
132. Which among the following force is developed due to resistance in its state of motion?
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a) Viscous force
b) Inertial force
c) Gravity force
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d) Pressure force
Answer: b
Explanation: Inertial force is the force that has resistance to any physical object that undergoes a
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change in its state of motion. Inertial force is the product acceleration of fluid and its mass. It acts
opposite to the direction of acceleration.
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133. Which among the following is the correct formula for gravitational force?
a) F= Gm1m2/r2
b) F= Gm1m2
c) F= m1m2/r2
d) F= Gm1m2/r3
Answer: a
Explanation: Gravitational force was derived by Newton’s theory of gravitation. It is defined as the
product of mass and acceleration due to gravity of the fluid flow. It is mainly present in cases of
open surface fluid flow.
134. Which among the following is present in pipe flow?

a) Viscous force
b) Inertial force
c) Gravity force
d) Pressure force
Answer: d
Explanation: Pressure is a force that is applied perpendicular to the surface of an object over a unit
area of force. It is defined as the product of pressure intensity and cross-sectional area of the
flowing fluid. Pressure force is present in case of pipe flow.
135. A force that is caused due to attraction of particles in the layer of fluid bulk is called?
a) Viscous force
b) Inertial force
c) Surface tension force
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d) Pressure force
Answer: c
Explanation: Surface tension is caused due to the attraction of particles in the surface layer of the
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fluid in bulk quantities. Surface tension force is defined as the product of surface tension and length
of flowing fluid.
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136. A force that is needed to bring back the body to its original position is called as?
a) Viscous force
b) Elastic force
c) Gravity force
d) Pressure force e
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Answer: c
Explanation: Elastic force is the force that brings a body back to its original position. It is defined as
the product of elastic stress and the area of the flowing fluid.
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a) Coriolis method
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c) Conveyor method
Answer: a
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138. The three major fluid forces are Buoyancy, drag and lift.
a) True
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b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Buoyancy, drag and lift are the three major fluid forces. These forces have significant
importance in various applications. For example: Shotput, badminton, cricket, baseball, cycling,
swimming etc.
139. The drag force acts in _____ to the flow velocity.

a) Perpendicular direction
b) Same direction
c) Opposite direction
d) Different directions
Answer: c
Explanation: The drag force acts in the opposite direction to that of the relative flow velocity. It acts
in the opposite direction with respect to a surrounding fluid flow. Thus, option Opposite direction is
correct.
140. Drag force is affected by__________

a) Cross sectional area and smoothness
b) Rigidity and density
c) Pressure and temperature
d) Mass
Answer: a
Explanation: Drag force is affected by cross sectional area and smoothness. If it is affected by cross
sectional area, then it is called form drag. If it is affected by surface smoothness, then it is called as
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surface drag.
141. The lift force acts in _____ to the flow velocity.
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a) Perpendicular direction
b) Same direction
c) Opposite direction
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d) Different directions
Answer: a
Explanation: The lift force acts in the perpendicular direction to that of the relative flow velocity. It
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acts in the perpendicular direction with respect to a surrounding fluid flow. Thus, option
Perpendicular direction is correct.
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142. Which among the following is the correct formula for drag?
a) D = Cd * A * 0.5 * r * V2
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b) D = Cd * A * 0.5 * r * V*2
c) D = Cd * A * 0.5 * r * V/2
d) D = 0.5 * r * V
Answer: a
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Explanation: The drag force acts in the opposite direction to that of the relative flow velocity. It acts
in the opposite direction with respect to a surrounding fluid flow. Thus, the correct option is D = Cd
* A * 0.5 * r * V2.
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143. Which among the following is the correct formula for lift?
a) D = Cl * A * 0.5 * r * V2
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b) D = Cl * A * 0.5 * r * V*2
c) D = Cl * A * 0.5 * r * V/2
d) D = 0.5 * r * V
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Answer: a
Explanation: The lift force is a force that acts in the perpendicular direction to that of the relative
flow velocity. It acts in the perpendicular direction with respect to a surrounding fluid flow. Thus, the
correct option is D = Cl * A * 0.5 * r * V2.
144. The main property that affects a boundary layer is__________

a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) Viscosity
d) Surface tension
Answer: c

Explanation: A boundary layer is an important concept that refers to the layer of fluid. The fluid that
is in the immediate vicinity of a bounding surface. The main property that affects a boundary layer is
viscosity.
145. The layer that is influenced by a planetary boundary is called______

a) Atmospheric boundary layer
b) Lithosphere
c) Troposphere
d) Hydrosphere
Answer: a
Explanation: The planetary boundary layer is also called as atmospheric boundary layer(ABL). It is
the lowest part of the atmosphere. The behaviour of ABL is directly influenced by its contact with the
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planetary surface.
146. What is the other name for Stoke’s boundary layer?
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a) Momentum boundary layer
b) Atmospheric boundary layer
c) Oscillatory boundary layer
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d) Thermal boundary layer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stoke’s boundary layer is also called as Oscillatory boundary layer. It is a boundary
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layer that is close to a solid wall. It moves in an oscillatory motion. It arrested by a viscous force
acting in the opposite direction.
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a) Fluid
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b) Heat
c) Momentum
d) Pressure
Answer: c
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148. The laminar boundary layer is a _________

a) Smooth flow
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b) Rough flow
c) Uniform flow
d) Random flow
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Answer: a
Explanation: For a laminar boundary layer the fluid moves in a very smooth flow. The laminar flow
creates less skin friction drag. It is a less stable flow. The laminar boundary layer has got an
increase in its thickness.
149. The turbulent boundary layer is a _________

a) Non-uniform with swirls
b) Uniform
c) Less stable
d) Smooth
Answer: a

has more skin friction drag than that of laminar boundary layer. It is more stable when compared to
laminar.

a) Coriolis method
c) Conveyor method
Answer: a
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151. How does a turbulent boundary layer produce swirls?
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a) Due to random motion
b) Collision of molecules
c) Due to eddies
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d) Due to non-uniform cross section
Answer: c
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produces swirls due to the presence of eddies. The smooth laminar boundary layer flow breaks down
and transforms to a turbulent flow.
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w.
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UNIT III DIMENSIONAL ANALYSIS

1. When the Mach number is less than unity, the flow is called
(A) Sub-sonic flow
(B) Sonic flow
(C) Super-sonic flow
(D) Hyper-sonic flow
Correct Answer A
2. The product of mass and acceleration of flowing liquid is called

(A) Inertia force
(B) Viscous force
(C) Gravity force
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(D) Pressure force
Correct Answer A
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3. Ratio of inertia force to elastic force is known as
(A) Mach number
(B) Froude number
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(C) Reynolds number
(D) Weber's number
Correct Answer A
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4. Euler's number is the ratio of __________ force to pressure force.
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(A) Inertia
(B) Gravity
(C) Viscous
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(D) None of these

Correct Answer A
5. Ratio of inertia force to surface tension is known as

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(A) Mach number

(B) Froude number
(C) Reynolds’s number
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(D) Weber's number

Correct Answer D
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6. The force present in a moving liquid is

(A) Inertia force
(B) Viscous force
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(C) Gravity force

(D) All of these
Correct Answer D
7. A ship whose hull length is 100 m is to travel at 10 m/sec. For dynamic similarity, at what velocity
should a 1:25 model be towed through water?
(A) 10 m/sec
(B) 25 m/sec
(C) 2 m/sec
(D) 50 m/sec
Correct Answer C

8. When the Mach number is more than 6, the flow is called

(A) Sub-sonic flow
(B) Sonic flow
(C) Super-sonic flow
(D) Hyper-sonic flow
Correct Answer D
9. The ratio of the inertia force to the viscous force is called

(A) Reynold's number
(B) Froude's number
(C) Weber's number
(D) Euler's number
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Correct Answer A
10. Reynold's number is the ratio of the inertia force to the
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(A) Surface tension force
(B) Viscous force
(C) Gravity force
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(D) Elastic force
Correct Answer B
11. Froude number is significant in

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(A) Supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
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(B) Full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
(C) Simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of discontinuity, gravity forces,
and wave making effect, as with ship's hulls
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Correct Answer C
13. Reynold's number is the ratio of inertia force to

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(A) Pressure force

(B) Elastic force
(C) Gravity force
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(D) Viscous force

Correct Answer D
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14. Principle of similitude forms the basis of

(A) Comparing two identical equipments
(B) Designing models so that the result can be converted to prototypes
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(C) Comparing similarity between design and actual equipment

(D) Hydraulic designs
Correct Answer B
15. Select the correct statement

(A) Weber's number is the ratio of inertia force to elastic force
(B) Weber's number is the ratio of gravity force to surface tension force
(C) Weber's number is the ratio of viscous force to pressure force
(D) Weber's number is the ratio of inertia force to surface tension force
Correct Answer D

16. For similarity, in addition to models being geometrically similar to prototype, the following in
both cases should also be equal
(A) Ratio of inertial force to force due to viscosity
(B) Ratio of inertial force to force due to gravitation
(C) Ratio of inertial force to force due to surface tension
(D) All the four ratios of inertial force to force due to viscosity, gravitation, surface tension, and
elasticity
Correct Answer D
17. The ratio of the inertia force to the __________ is called Euler's number.
(A) Pressure force
(B) Elastic force
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(C) Surface tension force
(D) Viscous force
Correct Answer A
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18. Dimensions of surface tension are
(A) ML°T⁻²
(B) ML°T
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(C) ML r²
(D) ML²T²
Correct Answer A
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19. Match the following physical quantities in Group 1 with their dimensions in Group 2.
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1. Work done (Energy) (W) —————————– A. [M L 2 T – 3 ]
2. Power (P) ———————————————— B. [M L – 1 T – 1 ]
3. Momentum (M) —————————————- C. [M L 2 T – 2 ]
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4. Modulus of elasticity (E) —————————– D. [M L T – 1 ]

5. Dynamic viscosity (μ) ——————————— E. [M L – 1 T – 2 ]
a. 1-(C), 2-(A), 3-(D), 4-(E), 5-(B)
b. 1-(A), 2-(C), 3-(D), 4-(E), 5-(B)
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c. 1-(C), 2-(A), 3-(E), 4-(B), 5-(D)

d. 1-(D), 2-(E), 3-(B), 4-(A), 5-(C)
ANSWER: 1-(C), 2-(A), 3-(D), 4-(E), 5-(B)
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20. Which of the following equations is not dimensionally homogeneous?

Consider standard symbols for quantities.
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a. (Force) F = m x a
b. (Head Loss due to friction) hf = (f L V2) / (2 g d)
c. (Torque) T = F x Distance
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d. None of the above

ANSWER: None of the above
21. Which of the following is a dimensionless equation?

a. Reynold’s equation
b. Euler’s equation
c. Weber’s equation
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
22. Which of the following number is applicable in open hydraulic structure such as spillways,
where gravitational force is predominant?
a. Reynold’s Number
b. Euler’s Number
c. Weber’s Number
d. Froude’s Number
ANSWER: Froude’s Number
23. Square root of the ratio of inertia force to elastic force is called as
a. Mach’s Number
b. Cauchy’s Number
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Both a. and b.
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24. Boundary layer thickness is the distance from the boundary to the point where velocity of the
fluid is
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a. equal to 10% of free stream velocity
b. equal to 50% of free stream velocity
c. equal to 90% of free stream velocity
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d. equal to 99% of free stream velocity
ANSWER: equal to 99% of free stream velocity
e
25. What is the mathematical technique used to predict physical parameters?
a) Combustion analysis
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b) Pressure analysis
c) Dimensional analysis
d) Temperature analysis
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Answer: c
Explanation: Dimensional analysis is a process which is used to determine physical parameters that
influence the fluid flow. The analysis is based on the fundamental units. The fundamental units are
mass, length and time.
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26. Which among the following method is used to find a functional relationship with respect to a
parameter?
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a) Rayleigh’s method
b) Rutherford’s method
c) Newton’s laws
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d) Doppler effect
Answer: a
Explanation: Rayleigh’s method is a basic method for finding the functional relationship. The
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functional relationship is found with respect to a physical parameter. It is illustrated using the MLT
system.
27. Which among the following is not the correct symbol?

a) Size- l
b) Velocity – v
c) Gravity – g
d) Viscosity – a
Answer: d
Explanation: The symbol used for viscosity is false. Viscosity is denoted by the symbol ‘µ’ (Mew). It
is defined as the resistance to flow of fluid. Resistance takes place as one layer of fluid slides over
the other.
28. Which among the following is the correct format for Rayleigh’s method?
a) D = f(l,ρ,μV,g)
b) D = (l,ρ,μV,g)
c) D = f
d) D = f(lpv)
Answer: a
Explanation: The correct format for Rayleigh’s method is D = f(l,ρ,μV,g). Where, D is the
dimensional analysis, ‘f’ is the function, and the variables inside the bracket are the physical
parameters to determine the function.
29. What does ‘C’ denote in D = ClaρbμcVdge?
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a) Function
b) Dimensions
c) Dimensionless constant
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d) Number of parameters
Answer: c
Explanation: ‘C’ in D = ClaρbμcVdge denotes dimensionless constant and a,b,c,d,e, are its
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exponents. This is the fundamental purpose of Rayleigh’s method.
30. Why does Rayleigh’s method have limitations?

a) To many variables
b) Format e
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c) Exponents in between variables
d) Many exponents
Answer: c
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Explanation: The main limitation of the Rayleigh’s method is that it has exponential relationship
between the variables. It makes it more complex for solving. Since, more variables with exponents
will lead to a confusion in the solving process.
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31. Which among the following is same as the Rayleigh’s method?

a) Buckingham method
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c) Conveyor method
Answer: a
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Explanation: Buckingham method is also called as the ‘pi’ theorem method. This method can be
illustrated by various moving components. It plays an important role in finding the drag of various
moving objects.
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32. Which among the following is not a dimensionless number?

a) Reynolds
b) Froude
c) Mach
d) Cartesian
Answer: d
Explanation: Dimensionless numbers are numbers with a dimension of one. It is a pure number. It
does not contain any physical unit. No change takes place due to altering of any variable.
33. What is a model analysis?

a) A small-scale replica
b) Actual structure
c) Theory structure.
d) Adopted structure
Answer: a
Explanation: Model analysis is defined as a small-scale replica of the actual structure. Model analysis
need not be smaller all the time. They can even be larger than the prototype.
34. What is a prototype?

a) A small-scale replica
b) Actual structure
c) Theory structure.
d) Adopted structure
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Answer: b
Explanation: Prototype is the actual structure that needs to be constructed. For a better
understanding of the model, we prepare a model analysis. They can even be larger than the
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prototype.
35. Advantage of a model analysis is_________
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a) Performance cannot be predicted
b) The relationships between the variable cannot be obtained
c) Shear stress to thermal diffusivity
d) Alternative designs can be predicted
Answer: d e
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Explanation: One of the major advantages of the model analysis is that we can predict the
alternative designs. It can also predict the performance of the machine in advance.
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36. Why do we need a model analysis?

a) For determining the dimensions
b) To provide a safe design
c) To check the shear stress
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d) To check the thermal diffusivity

Answer: b
Explanation: One of the major advantages of the model analysis is that we can predict the
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alternative designs. It provides the safest design in the most economical way.
37. The similarity between the motion of model and prototype is_________
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a) Dynamic similarity
b) Potential similarity
c) Kinematic similarity
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d) Design similarity
Answer: c
Explanation: Kinematic similarity is defined as the similarity between motion of the model and the
prototype. It exists in between the model and prototype. The points in the model and prototype are
of the same magnitude.
38. The similarity between the forces of model and prototype is ________
a) Dynamic similarity
b) Potential similarity
c) Kinematic similarity
d) Design similarity
Answer: a
Explanation: Dynamic similarity is defined as the similarity between forces of a model and the
prototype. It exists in between the model and prototype. The points in the model and prototype are
of the same magnitude.
39. Which among these forces does not act in a moving fluid?
a) Inertial force
b) Viscous force
c) Gravity force
d) Drag
Answer: d
Explanation: Drag does not take place in moving fluids. Moving fluids are restricted by a viscous
force and move along an inertial force. The gravitational force tends to act perpendicular to the fluid
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surface.
40. What is the formula for elastic force?
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a) Elastic stress/area
b) Elastic strain/area
c) Elastic stress*area
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d) Elastics stress* Elastic strain
Answer: c
Explanation: Elastic force is a force that is developed by a material to retain to its original position. It
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regains its shape after a period of time. When an elastic material is compressed or stretched, it
develops an elastic force.
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41. For a dynamic similarity between a model and a prototype, the ratio of their forces in the model
and the prototype must be equal.
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a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: For a dynamic similarity between a model and a prototype, the ratio of their forces in
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the model and the prototype must be equal. It means that the dynamic similarity between a model
and a prototype must be the same
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42. Similitude is a concept applicable to the testing of _________

a) Mathematical models
b) Physical models
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c) Engineering models
d) Chemical models
Answer: c
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Explanation: Similitude is an essential concept that is applicable to the testing of basic engineering
models. A model has a similitude with a real-time application. It shares the same geometry.
Similarity and similitude are interchangeable at times.
43. Which among the following is the main application for Similitude?
a) Ships
b) Cars
c) Hydraulics
d) Train
Answer: c

Explanation: Similitude plays an important role in various applications. One of the major applications
are hydraulics and aerospace engineering. Its main purpose is to test the fluid flow at different
conditions of scaled model.
44. Which among the following is not a criteria to achieve similitude?
a) Geometric similarity
b) Kinematic similarity
c) Dynamic similarity
d) Conditional similarity
Answer: d
Explanation: The criteria required to achieve similitude are geometric similarity, kinematic similarity
and dynamic similarity. All these similarities play a major role in regard with the real-time
applications. Similarity and similitude are interchangeable at times.
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45. A model of with same shape is__________
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Answer: a
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Explanation: Geometric similarity is a similarity that follows a real-time application. It is model that
has the same shape for any sort of application. It is measured in scaled quantities.
46. Which among the following have similar fluid streamlines?
b) Kinematic similarity e
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Answer: b
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Explanation: In kinematic similarity, fluid flow of model and real-time application takes place. Here,
the model and the real application must undergo similar time rates in motion changes. Thus, it has
similar fluid streamlines.
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47. Which among the following have the same forces acting on them?
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Answer: c
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Explanation: Dynamic similarities have the same forces acting on them. That means, the ratios of all
the forces acting on the fluid particles are constant. Also, the ratio of the forces acting on the
boundary surfaces are also a constant.
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48. All the parameters in a similitude are described using_________

a) Continuum mechanics
b) Solid mechanics
c) Diesel mechanics
d) Aircraft mechanics
Answer: a
Explanation: A branch of mechanics that deals with the analysis of mechanical behaviour of
materials and kinematics of materials. They are used for modelling purposes. It is modelled in
continuous mass.
49. Physical similitude has exactly the same geometric shape of the prototype.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Physical similitude is also called the similitude of shape. It is for modelling the same
geometric shape as that of its prototype. Which means, that the shape will have to be divided by a
scale factor.
50. Which among the following is a standard scale for a similitude?
a) 1:250
b) 1:50
c) 1:25
d) 1:100
Answer: c
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Explanation: To design a similitude with a specific dimension, we must fix a scale. The standard
system has fixed the scale as 1:25. This was fixed for an uniformity in dimensions.
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51. In similitude, Fapplication=Fmodel*3.44
a) True
b) False
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View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A model test was conducted to determine this relation. The force and velocity that were
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measured in the model are to be scaled. This helps to find the force that can be expected for a real-
time application.
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52. What is model testing?
a) Performance testing
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b) Partial testing
c) Function testing
d) Overall testing
Answer: a
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Explanation: The process in fluid mechanics that is used to study the complex fluid dynamics is
called as model testing. It is a performance testing. It helps to test models after a standard scaling.
Models are usually smaller than the final design.
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53. [ML-1T-2] is the dimensional formula of

(A) force
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(B) coefficient of friction

(C) modulus of elasticity
(D) energy
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Answer: C
54. The dimensional formula of coefficient of viscosity is

(A) [MLT-1]
(B) [M-1L2T-2]
(C) [ML-1T -1]
(D) none of these
Answer: C
55. On the basis of dimensional equation, the maximum number of unknown that can be found, is
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four
Answer: C
56. If v stands for velocity of sound, E is elasticity and d the density, then find x in the equation v =
(d/E)x
(A) 1
(B) ½
(C) 2
(D) -1/2
Answer: D
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57. The multiplication of 10.610 with 0.210 upto correct number of significant figure is
(A) 2.2281
(B) 2.228
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(C) 2.22
(D) 2.2
Answer: B
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58. The measurement of radius of a circle has error of 1%. The error in measurement of its area is
(A) 1%
(B) 2%
(C) 3% e
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(D) none of these Answer: B
59. Dimensional formula of latent heat

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(A) M0L2T-2
(B) MLT-2
(C) ML2T-2
(D) ML2T-2
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Answer: a
60. In case of measurement of ‘g’, if error in measurement of length of pendulum is 2%, the
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percentage error in time period is 1 %. The maximum error in measurement of g is

(A) 1 %
(B) 2 %
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(C) 4 %
(D) no error.
Answer: C
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61. If length of pendulum is increased by 2%. The time period will

(A) increases by 1%
(B) decreases by 1%
(C) increases by 2%
(D) decreases by 2%
Answer: A
62. If radian correction is not considered in specific heat measurement. The measured value of
specific heat will be
(A) more than its actual value.
(B) less than its actual value.
(C) remains same as actual value.

(D) none of these.
Answer: A
63. The S.I. unit of universal gas constant is

(A) Watt K-1mol-1
(B) N K-1mol-1
(C) JK-1mol-1
(D) erg K-1mol-1
Answer: c
64. The dimensional formula of couple
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(A) ML2T-2
(B)MLT-1
(C) ML-1T-1
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(D) M1L1T-2
Answer: a
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64. An experiment measures quantities a, b, c and x is calculated from x=ab2c3 . If the maximum
percentage error in a, b and c are 1%, 3% and 2% respectively, the maximum percentage error in x
will be
(A) 13%
(B) 17% e
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(C) 14%
(D) 11%
Answer: a
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65. Dimensional formula of thermal conductivity is

(A) ML2T -3θ-1
(B) ML2T -2θ-4
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(C) ML2T -2θ-1

(D) MLT -3θ-1
Answer: d
Le
66. Three measurements 7.1 J, 7.2 J and 6.7 J are made as experiment the result with correct
number of significant figures is
w.
(A) 7.1 J
(B) 7.06 J
(C) 7.0 J
ww
(D) 7J
Answer: c
67. If P represents radiation pressure, c represents speed of light and Q represents radiation energy
striking a unit area per second, then non-zero integers x, y and z, such that PxQycz is dimensionless,
may be
(A) x = 1, y =1, z = 1.
(B) x = 1, y =-1, z = 1.
(C) x = -1, y =1, z = 1.
(D) x = 1, y = 1, z = 1
Answer: b

68. A spherical ball of mass m and radius r is allowed to fall in a medium of viscosity η. The time in
which the velocity of the body increases from zero to 0.63 times the terminal velocity is called time
constant (τ). Dimensionally τ can be represented by
(A)mr26πη
(B)6πmrηg2
(C) m6πηr
(D) none of these.
Answer: c
69. Which of the following is a possible dimensionless quantity ?

(A) Velocity gradient
(B) Pressure gradient
.in
(C) Displacement gradient
(D) Force gradient
Answer: c
ng
70. In specific resistance measurement of a wire using a meter bridge, the key k in the main circuit
is kept open when we are not taking readings. The reason is
eri
(A) the emf of cell will decrease.
(B) the value of resistance will change due to joule heating effect.
(C) the galvanometer will stop working.
(D) none of these.
Answer: b e
gin
71. In the experiment of verification of Ohm’s law the error in the current measurement is 1%, while
that in the voltage measurement is 2%. The error in the resistance has a maximum value of
En
(A)1%
(B) 2%
(C) 3%
(D) none of these.
arn
Answer: c
72. If the unit of length is doubled, unit of time is halved and unit of momentum is quadrupled, the
Le
unit of work would change by . . . . . times.

a) 1/8
b) 1/16
w.
c)16
d) 8
soln: Let the original unit of work be W = ;W= [ ][ ][ ]
ww
But = Therefore W= – – – – – – – – – (1)

Let the new units of work, momentum, length and time be W’,p’,L’ and T’ respectively.
Given that p’=4 ; L’ = 2 and T’= (1/2)
The new unit of work W’ = ;
Substituting the values of p’,L’ and T’ in above equation we get W’ =
W’ = 16 = 16W .
73. If the unit of force were 20N,that of power were 1MW and that of time were 1 millisecond then
the unit of length would be
a) 20m
b)50m
c) 100m
d) 1000m
Soln: Given that unit of power P=[ ]= W; F= [ ]=20N;T= sec
P= =
Substitute the values of P,F and T in above equation = 20(L)
L= = 50m
74. If the unit of force is 10N,that of length is 2m and that of velocity is 100m/sec, then the unit of
mass is
a)0.002kg
b) 2kg
.in
c ) 20kg d)
0.2kg
Soln : Given that unit of F=10N = [ ]; unit of length L= 2m ; unit of velocity V=100m/sec=[
ng
The unit of F=[ ]=[ ][ ] [L]
F= ;M=
eri
M= = = 0.002 kg
e
75. A force 100N acts on a body.If the units of mass and length are doubled and unit of time is
gin
halved,then the force in the new system changes to
a)160N
b) 1.6 N
c) 16N
En
d) 1600N
Soln: Let the original unit of force F=100N=[ ]
Let the new unit of force,length,mass and time be F’, L’, M’ and T’ respectively.
arn
Given that units of mass and length are doubled i.e L’=2L and M’=2M and unit of time is halved
T’=T/2
The new unit of force F’=[ ]=[ = 16 [ ]=16F =1600N
Le
76 The unit of energy is 10J,if the unit of mass is tripled,unit of acceleration is doubled and the unit
of length is halved. What will be the new unit of energy.
a)15J
w.
b) 30J
c) 300J
d) 3J
ww
Soln: Original unit of power is E= =10J

E= = =
Let the new units of mass, acceleration and length be M’,a’ and L’ respectively
Given that L’= L/2 , a’=2a and M’=3M
The new unit of energy E = = =
E= =3 = 3E = 30J
77. The power of a moter is 150W.If the unit of force is doubled,unit of velocity is tripled what will
be the new unit of power.
a) 600W
b)750W
c) 900W
d) 300w
Soln: The original unit power of is P=150W=[ ]
The Unit of force F=[ ] and unit of velocity V=[ ]
P=[ ][ ]=FV
Let the new unit of power,force and velocity be P’,F’ and V’ respectively.
Given that F’ = 2F and V’ = 3V
P’ = [ ]= [ ]=F’V’
P’ = (2F)(3V) = 6FV = 6P =6(150) = 900W
78. The electric resistance of a conductor is 54 ohm.If the unit of mass amd length are tripled, units
of time and electric current are doubled.Then the value of new electric resistance.
.in
a)540 ohm
b) 1080 ohm
c) 1620 ohm
ng
d)1944 ohm
Soln: The origional unit of electric resistance R =[[ ]=54 ohm
Let the changed units of resistance,length,mass,time and current are R’,L’,M’,T’ and I’ respectively.
eri
Given that L’=3L , M’ =3M , T’ = 2T and I’=2I
R’ = [[ ] ; R’ =[[ ]
R’ = 36[[
e
] = 36R =36(54) = 1944 ohm.
gin
79.The unit of angular momentum is 25 . If the momentum is doubled and length is
quadrapled, what will be the new unit of angular momentum.
a)200units
En
b) 150 units
c) 400 units
d)600units
arn
Soln: let the angular momentum X = [ ] = 25

momentum p =[ ]
X =[[ ] ; X = p (L)
let the new Angular momentum, momentum and length be X’,p’ and L’ respectively.
Le
Given that p’ = 2p and L’ = 4L

X’ = [ ]=[ ]
X’ = p’ (L’) = (2p)(4L) = 8pL =8 X = 8(25) = 200 units
w.
80. The ratio of C.G.S unit of gravitational constant to S.I unit is

a)
ww
b)
c)
d)
Soln: Let the S.I unit of gravitational constant G =[ ] and C.G.S unit be G’ =[
];
=
M = 1000 M’ ; L= 100L’ and T = T’
Substituti0n these values in above equation we get =

= =

81. If the units of mass,length and time are doubled how does the unit of coefficient of linear
expansion will changes
a) becomes 8times
b) becomes 16 times
c) becomes 1/2
d) remains same
Soln: Coefficient of linear expansion =[ ] .From the dimensional formula it is clear
that it doen not depend on mass,length and time.even if the these physical quantities changes the
Coefficient of linear expansion will remain same.
82.Which of the following is dimensionally correct formula.
.in
a)V=ut + at
b) v+u = at
c) V/u =at
ng
d) vt = u -a
Soln: The dimensions of L and T are same in all the terms of V+u=at.Hence, according to priciple of
homogeneity it a dimensionally correct equation.)
eri
83. If R is resistance and L is the inductance,then the dimensions of will be same as the
dimensions of . . . .
a)time
b) speed
e
gin
c) frequency
d) acceleration
Soln: Dimensional formula of resistance R = and dimensional formula of Inductance is
L= .
En
= = which is the dimensional formula of frequency.
84. If the unit of power is 100 erg/minute,the unit of force is 100 dyne and the unit of time is 100
arn
seconds, the unit of length is

a) 5/3 cm
b) 2/3 cm
Le
c) 1/3 cm
d) none
Soln: P = = 100 erg/min =(100/60) erg/sec
w.
F= = 100dyne T= = 100 sec

P= =
L= = (100/60)(1/100)(100) =5/3
ww
85. If is the dimensional formula of Electric power, find the value of 5a+2b-6c.
a) 25
b) 27
c) 30
d)-9
Soln: Dimensional formula of Electric power = =
Comparing the powers of M,L and T we get a=1,b=2 and c=-3 .
Therefore 5a+2b-6c = 5(1)+2(2)-6(-3) =5+4+18 =27.
86. If is the dimensional formula of Magnetic moment, fine the value of a-2b+3c -d
a) 5 b) 7 c)3 d)-5
Soln: Dimensional formula of Magnetic moment is =

Comparing the powers of M,L,T and I we get a=0,b=2, c=0 and d=1 ;
Therefore a-2b+3c-d = 0-2(2)+3(0)-1 = -4-1 = -5.
87. If is the dimensional formula of magnetic pole strength, fine the value
5a+b+3c+2d
a) 3 b)2 c) -2 d)0
Soln:Dimensional formula of Magnetic pole strength is =
Comparing the powers of M,L,T and I we get 5a=0,b=1,3c=0 and 2d=1 ;
Therefore 5a+b+3c+2d = 0+1+0+1 = 2.
.in
ng
e eri
gin
En
arn
Le
w.
ww

UNIT IV PUMPS
1. When a cylindrical vessel, containing some liquid, is rotated about its vertical axis, the liquid
surface is depressed down at the axis of its rotation and rises up near the walls of the vessel on all
sides. This type of flow is known as
(A) Steady flow
(B) Turbulent flow
(C) Vortex flow
(D) Uniform flow
Correct Answer C
2. To avoid an interruption in the flow of a siphon, an air vessel is provided

(A) At the inlet
(B) At the outlet
(C) At the summit
.in
(D) At any point between inlet and outlet
Correct Answer C
3. Cavitation is caused by
ng
(A) High velocity
(B) High pressure
(C) Weak material
eri
(D) Low pressure
Correct Answer D
e
4. The rise of liquid along the walls of a revolving cylinder about the initial level is _________ the
depression of the liquid at the axis of rotation.
gin
(A) Same as
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
En
Correct Answer C
5. The velocity of jet of water traveling out of opening in a tank filled with water is proportional to
(A) Head of water (h)
arn
(B) h²
(C) V/T
(D) h/2
Correct Answer C
Le
6. An air vessel is provided at the summit in a siphon to

(A) Avoid interruption in the flow
(B) Increase discharge
w.
(C) Increase velocity

(D) Maintain pressure difference
Correct Answer A
ww
7. Centrifugal pump is a_________

a) Turbomachinery
b) Flow regulating device
c) Drafting device
d) Intercooling device
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery. Turbomachines are machines that transfer
energy between a rotor and a fluid, including both turbines and compressors. It is a mechanical
device.
8. Turbomachines work under ________

a) Newtons first law
b) Newtons second law

c) Newtons third law
d) Kepler’s law
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Turbomachines work under Newtons second law. Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery.
Turbomachines are machines that transfer energy between a rotor and a fluid, including both
turbines and compressors. It is a mechanical device.
9. The main function of nozzle is to __________

a) Varying temperatures
b) Pressure variations
c) Load variations
d) Heat variations
.in
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main function of nozzle is to vary the pressure of fluid passing through the nozzle.
It is done by opening and shutting the sets of nozzles. Thus, its main function is to regulate pressure
ng
of the fluid.
10. The main function of centrifugal pumps are to ________
eri
a) Transfer speed
b) Transfer pressure
c) Transfer temperature
d) Transfer energy
View Answer e
gin
Answer: d
Explanation: The primary objective of a centrifugal pump is to transfer energy. Centrifugal pump is a
turbomachinery. Turbomachines are machines that transfer energy between a rotor and a fluid,
including both turbines and compressors. It is a mechanical device.
En
11. Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from _______

a) Rotor to fluid
b) Fluid to rotor
arn
c) Draft to rotor
d) Rotor to draft
View Answer
Answer: a
Le
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from rotor to fluid. The primary objective of a
centrifugal pump is to transfer energy. Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery.
11. Which among the following control the flow rate?

w.
a) Valve
b) Pump
c) Head
ww
d) Tank pipe
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flow rate of the tank is controlled by the valve. The actuation of individual valve closes.
This corresponds to the set of nozzle thereby controlling the actual flow rate of the fluid passing
through the valve.
12. Turbines and compressors work with the gas, while centrifugal pump transfers energy.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Turbines and compressors work with the gas, while centrifugal pump transfers energy.

Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from rotor to fluid. The primary objective of a centrifugal pump is
to transfer energy. Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery.
13. The inlet passage of water entry is controlled by ________

a) Head race
b) Gate
c) Tail race
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The inlet passage of water entry is controlled by the gate opening. The gate opening is
an opening that sends only a percentage of fluid through the inlet passages for water to enter to the
turbine.
.in
14. Centrifugal pumps are a sub class of dynamic axisymmetric work absorbing turbomachinery.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
ng
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Centrifugal pumps are a sub class of dynamic axisymmetric work
absorbing turbomachinery. The main function of centrifugal pumps are to transfer energy.
eri
15. Centrifugal pumps are used to transport ________
a) Pressure
b) Speed
c) Power e
gin
d) Fluid
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps are used to transport fluids. They transport fluids by conversion of
En
energies. Centrifugal pumps are a sub class of dynamic axisymmetric work absorbing
turbomachinery.
16. Centrifugal pumps transport fluids by converting _________

arn
a) Kinetic energy to hydrodynamic energy

b) Hydrodynamic energy to kinetic energy
c) Mechanical energy to kinetic energy
d) Mechanical energy to Hydrodynamic energy
Le
View Answer
Answer: a
energies. Centrifugal pumps transport fluids by converting rotational Kinetic energy to hydrodynamic
w.
energy.
17. With the increase in load, Energy in the turbine________

ww
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When there is an increase in the load, the energy in the turbine is drained off. Thus, to
increase the energy, the by pass valve is opened to increase the amount of fresh steam entry. This
increases the energy in the turbine.
18. The rotational kinetic energy comes from ______

a) Engine motor
b) Pump
c) Tank
d) Draft tube
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps transport fluids by converting rotational Kinetic energy to
hydrodynamic energy. The rotational kinetic energy comes from engine or electrical motor.
19. When the balancing of the turbine is disturbed, we use ________

a) Throttle governing
b) Steam governing
c) Nozzle governing
d) Emergency governing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When the balancing of the turbine is disturbed, we use emergency governing. These
.in
governors come into action only when there are emergencies in the turbine.
20. The fluid coming into the centrifugal pump is accelerated by ________
a) Throttle
ng
b) Impeller
c) Nozzle
d) Governor
eri
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The fluid coming into the centrifugal pump is accelerated by an impeller. The fluid
e
enters the pump along a radially outward direction into the diffuser or a volute chamber
gin
21. A gear pump uses ___________
a) Petrochemical pumps
b) Meshing of gears
c) Froth pumps
En
d) Airlift pumps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A gear pump uses meshing of gears. This meshing is done to pump fluid by
arn
displacement. Gear pumps are widely used in chemical installations.
22. The fundamental significance of all the turbomachinery is _______

a) Conservation of momentum
Le
b) Conservation of mass
c) Conservation of heat
d) Conservation of speed
View Answer
w.
Answer: a
Explanation: The fundamental significance of all the turbomachinery is the conservation of
momentum. It plays an important role in various turbomachinery.
ww
23. The most common pump used for hydraulic fluid power application is __________
a) Centrifugal pumps
b) Gear pump
c) Froth pumps
d) Airlift pumps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The most common pump used for hydraulic fluid power application is gear pump. A
gear pump uses meshing of gears. This meshing is done to pump fluid by displacement. Gear pumps
are widely used in chemical installations.
24. The change of angular momentum in a pump is equal to the _________

a) Sum of speeds
b) Sum of individual momentum

c) Sum of temperatures
d) Sum of energy transferred from a body
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The change of angular momentum in a pump is equal to the sum of individual
momentum.
25. Conservation of angular momentum is described by _______

a) Newtons equation
b) Euler’s equation
c) Rutherford’s equation
d) Maxim equation
View Answer
.in
Answer: b
Explanation: Conservation of angular momentum is described by Euler’s equation. It states that the
change of angular momentum in a pump is equal to the sum of individual momentum.
ng
26. Gear pumps are mainly used in chemical installations because they pump ________
a) High viscosity fluids
b) High density fluids
eri
c) High pressure fluids
d) High temperature fluids
View Answer
Answer: a
e
Explanation: Gear pumps are mainly used in chemical installations because they pump high viscosity
gin
fluids. They use two external spur gears for this purpose.
27. Gear pumps convert rotational kinetic energy to hydrodynamic energy.

a) True
En
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gear pumps are used to transport fluids. They transport fluids by conversion of
arn
energies. Gear pumps transport fluids by converting rotational Kinetic energy to hydrodynamic
energy.
28. The inlet passage of centrifugal pump is controlled by ________

Le
a) Gate
b) Head race
c) Turbine
d) Pump
w.
View Answer
Answer: a
ww
turbine.
29. Absolute exit velocity in a pump is denoted as ______

a) c2
b) v2
c) p2
d) w2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Absolute exit velocity in a pump is denoted as ‘c2’.
30. Gear pumps are used to transport ________

a) Pressure
b) Speed
c) Power
d) Fluid
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Gear pumps are used to transport fluids. They transport fluids by conversion of
energies. A gear pump uses meshing of gears. This meshing is done to pump fluid by displacement.
Gear pumps are widely used in chemical installations.
31. Vertical Centrifugal pumps are also called as _________

a) Cantilever pumps
b) Hydrodynamic pump
c) Mechanical pump
d) Hydroelectric pump
.in
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Vertical Centrifugal pumps are also called as cantilever pumps.
ng
32. With the increase in load, Energy in the turbine________
a) Decreases
b) Increases
eri
c) Remains same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: a
e
Explanation: When there is an increase in the load, the energy in the turbine is drained off. Thus, to
gin
increase the energy, the by pass valve is opened to increase the amount of fresh steam entry. This
increases the energy in the turbine.
33. The rotational kinetic energy comes from ______

En
a) Engine motor
b) Pump
c) Tank
d) Draft tube
arn
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps transport fluids by converting rotational Kinetic energy to
hydrodynamic energy. The rotational kinetic energy comes from engine or electrical motor.
Le

b) Steam governing
w.
c) Nozzle governing
View Answer
ww
Answer: d
Explanation: When the balancing of the turbine is disturbed, we use emergency governing. These
governors come into action only when there are emergencies in the turbine.
35. Gear pumps are ___________

a) Tangential flow pumps
b) Positive displacement pumps
c) Negative displacement pumps
d) Radial pumps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gear pumps are positive displacement pumps or fixed displacement pumps. This means
that they pump at a constant amount of fluid each revolution.

36. The fluid gains _________ while passing through the impeller.
a) Velocity
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
d) Velocity and pressure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The fluid gains both velocity and pressure while passing through the impeller.
Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery. Turbomachines are machines that transfer energy between a
rotor and a fluid, including both turbines and compressors.
37. What is the shape of the diffuser in the centrifugal pump?

a) Round
b) Dough nut
.in
c) Rectangle
d) Cylindrical
View Answer
Answer: b
ng
Explanation: The shape of the diffuser passing present in the centrifugal pump is doughnut shaped.
It is made into that shape as it allows the device to scroll up and down. Due to this, the casing
decelerates the flow.
eri
38. When the casing in a centrifugal pump decelerates the flow, what increases?
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Volume e
gin
d) Flow rate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the casing in a centrifugal pump decelerates the flow, pressure in the turbine
En
increases. The diffuser helps this happen. The shape of the diffuser passing present in the centrifugal
pump is doughnut shaped.
39. The velocity imparted by the impeller is converted into _________

arn
a) Pressure energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Momentum
d) Potential energy
Le
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The velocity imparted by the impeller is converted into pressure energy. It is in
accordance with the Newtons second law.
w.
40. The consequence of Newtons second law is_________

a) Conservation of angular momentum
ww
c) Conservation of potential energy
d) Conservation of kinetic energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The consequence of Newtons second law is the conservation of angular momentum.
This, in accordance with newtons second law, provides the basic details to define parameters in the
centrifugal pump.
41. Change of angular momentum is equal to ________

a) Sum of external moments
b) Sum of their potential energies
c) Sum of their kinetic energies

d) Sum of their pressures

View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Change of angular momentum is equal to Sum of external moments. This is in
accordance with Newtons second law. The consequence of Newtons second law is the conservation
of angular momentum.
42. Euler developed the head pressure equation in centrifugal pumps.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
energies. Centrifugal pumps transport fluids by converting rotational Kinetic energy to hydrodynamic
.in
energy. Euler developed the head pressure equation in centrifugal pumps.
43. What is a major advantage of centrifugal pump?

a) Cost
ng
b) Simple in construction
c) Efficiency
d) Pump parameters
eri
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The major advantage of the centrifugal pump is that it has got a simple construction
e
when compared to other types of centrifugal pumps.
gin
44. ‘Ht’ means _______
a) Tangential head
b) Horizontally head
c) Theory head pressure
En
d) Radially head pressure

View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: ‘Ht’ in the context of centrifugal pump means theory head pressure. It is used in a
arn
centrifugal pump equation that was derived by Euler. Euler developed the head pressure equation in
centrifugal pumps.

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a) Pressure
b) Speed
c) Power
d) Fluid
w.
View Answer
Answer: d
ww
turbomachinery.
46. Different velocities in a centrifugal pump are determined by using ________

a) Velocity triangle
b) Reynolds number
c) Froude number
d) Overall efficiency
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Different velocities in a centrifugal pump are determined by using velocity triangle. This
is an important triangle that determines the way the pump works.

47. Due to its impeller action, centrifugal pumps can cover a wide range of fluid pump applications.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to its impeller action, centrifugal pumps can cover a wide range of fluid pump
applications. Thus, the impeller action plays an important role.
48. With the increase in the input power, efficiency _______

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
View Answer
.in
Answer: b
Explanation: With the increase in the input power, efficiency decreases. As the input power is
inversely proportional to the efficiency of the pump.
ng
49. What is unit of standard acceleration?
a) kg/m
b) kg/s
eri
c) kg/m3
d) N/m
View Answer
Answer: c
e
Explanation: The unit of standard acceleration of the centrifugal pump is kg/m 3. It is denoted as g. It
gin
is also called as the acceleration due to gravity.
50. What does PSP stand for?

a) Pump start procedure
En
b) Positive start pump

c) Pump start pointer
d) Positive start pointer
View Answer
arn
Answer: a
Explanation: PSP stands for Pump start procedure. It is the basic method to start the pump by lining
up the pump valves in a sequence by ensuring that the drain valve is closed
Le
51. What is the unit of flow rate?

a) kg.m
b) kg/m
c) m3/s
w.
d) /s
View Answer
Answer: c
ww
Explanation: The unit of flow rate in a centrifugal pump is m3/s. It is denoted as ‘Q’. It plays an
important role to determine the efficiency of the pump.
52. With the increase in the flow rate, efficiency ______

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: With the increase in the flow rate, efficiency increases. The unit of flow rate in a
centrifugal pump is m3/s. It is denoted as ‘Q’. It plays an important role to determine the efficiency
of the pump.

53. Pump efficiency is defined as the ratio of ___________

a) Pressure to temperature
b) Temperature to pressure
c) Water horsepower to pump horsepower
d) Pump horse power to water horse power
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pump efficiency is defined as the ratio of water horsepower to the pump horsepower.
The unit of flow rate in a centrifugal pump is m3/s. It is denoted as ‘Q’. It plays an important role to
determine the efficiency of the pump.
54. The difference in the total head of the pump is called _______
a) Manometric head
b) Euler head
.in
c) Pressure head
d) Shaft head
View Answer
Answer: a
ng
Explanation: The difference in the total head of the pump is called manometric head. Centrifugal
pump is a turbomachinery. Turbomachines are machines that transfer energy between a rotor and a
fluid, including both turbines and compressors.
eri
55. The ratio of manometric head to the work head is called _______
a) Manometric head
b) Euler head
c) Pressure head e
gin
d) Shaft head
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of manometric head to the work head is called Euler head. It is also called as
En
manometric efficiency.
56. What is the unit of energy head?

a) m
arn
b) m/s
c) m3/s
d) /s
View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: The unit of energy head is meter. The energy head is denoted as ‘H’. It plays an
important role to determine the efficiency of the pump.
w.
57. With the increase in energy head, efficiency ________

a) Decreases
b) Increases
ww
c) Remains same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: With the increase in energy head, efficiency increases. Since energy is directly
proportional to the efficiency of the turbine. The unit of energy head is meter. The energy head is
denoted as ‘H’. It plays an important role to determine the efficiency of the pump.
58. The head added by the pump is a sum of _________

a) Pressure
b) Static lift
c) Volume
d) Flow rate
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The head added by the pump is a sum of static lift. With the increase in energy head,
efficiency increases. Since energy is directly proportional to the efficiency of the turbine. The unit of
energy head is meter. The energy head is denoted as ‘H’. It plays an important role to determine the
efficiency of the pump.
59. Power is most commonly expressed as ________

a) m
b) kW
c) m3/s
d) /s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Power is most commonly expressed as kilo watts. One kilo watts is equal to 0.746
.in
horse power. It plays an important role in determining the efficiency of the turbine.
60. PHE stands for __________

a) Pump Hydraulic efficiency
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b) Pressure Hydraulic efficiency
c) Power Hydraulic efficiency
d) Pump hydraulic engine
eri
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: PHE stands for Pump hydraulic efficiency. Centrifugal pumps are used to transport
e
fluids. They transport fluids by conversion of energies.
gin
61. Vertical centrifugal pumps are also called as cantilever pumps.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
En
Answer: a
Explanation: Vertical centrifugal pumps are also called as cantilever pumps. Centrifugal pumps are
used to transport fluids. They transport fluids by conversion of energies. Centrifugal pumps are a
sub class of dynamic axisymmetric work absorbing turbomachinery.
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62. With increase in power, the efficiency_________

a) Decreases
b) Increases
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c) Remains same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: a
w.
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63. Vertical pumps utilize unique shaft and bearing support configuration.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Vertical pumps utilize unique shaft and bearing support configuration. It allows them to
hang in the sump while the bearings are outside the sump. Thus, it is a true.
64. Which among the following is used in mineral industries?

a) Vertical pumps
b) Horizontal pumps
c) Froth pumps
d) Multistage pumps
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the mineral industries, we use froth pumps to extract oil sand. Froth is generated to
separate rich minerals.
65. Vertical centrifugal pumps are also called as ________
a) Froth pumps
b) Multistage pumps
c) Cantilever pumps
d) Magnetic pumps
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Vertical centrifugal pumps are also called as cantilever pumps. They utilize a unique
shaft and bearing support for configuration. Thus, it is called as cantilever pumps.
66. Vertical pump uses _______
.in
a) Draft tube
b) Throttle bush
c) Stuffing box
d) Interlining
ng
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Vertical pumps use throttle bush. They do not use stuffing box. Vertical centrifugal
eri
pumps are also called as cantilever pumps. They utilize a unique shaft and bearing support for
configuration. Thus, it is called as cantilever pumps.
e
a) Pressure
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b) Temperature
c) Volume
d) Flow rate
View Answer
En
Answer: a
arn
68. The maximum volumetric efficiency of a pump(100cc) is ________

a) 60%
b) 70%
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c) 80%
d) 90%
View Answer
Answer: d
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turbomachinery. Turbomachines are machines that transfer energy between a rotor and a fluid,
including both turbines and compressors. It is a mechanical device.
ww
69. The most common application of vertical centrifugal pump is used in _______
a) Parts washer
b) Mineral industry
c) Paper plating
d) Jukebox
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The most application of the vertical centrifugal pump is used in parts washer. Vertical
pumps use throttle bush. They do not use stuffing box. Vertical centrifugal pumps are also called as
cantilever pumps.
70. What does BEP stand for?

a) Best efficiency point
b) Brake ejection point

c) Break effect point
d) Best effect point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: BEP stands for Best efficient point. It is a point at which Shut off and Run out point. It
helps to identify the pumps performance.
71. The height of a column in a pump is called as _______

a) Vertical head
b) Horizontal head
c) Static head
d) Multi head
View Answer
.in
Answer: c
Explanation: In a centrifugal pump, the height of the column is called as a static head. Static head
corresponds to the pressure depending on the weight.
ng
72. The centrifugal pump has varying flow depending on the _________
a) Pressure
b) Static lift
eri
c) Volume
d) Flow rate
View Answer
Answer: a
e
Explanation: Due to pressure variations there are changes that take place in the centrifugal pump.
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Thus, the flow keeps varying.
73. What is purpose of froth in froth pumps?

a) Separates rich minerals
En
b) Mixes rich minerals

c) Removes ores
d) Detects oil
View Answer
arn
Answer: a
Explanation: The main function of the froth in froth pumps is to separate rich minerals. It is also
used to separate bitumen from the sand and the clays.
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74. Froth contains air that blocks the pumps.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
w.
Answer: a
Explanation: Froth contains air that blocks the pumps. The main function of the froth in froth pumps
is to separate rich minerals. It is also used to separate bitumen from the sand and the clays.
ww
75. When froth blocks the pump, it leads to _______

a) Separation of rich minerals
b) Mixing of rich minerals
c) Removing of ores
d) Loss of prime
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When froth blocks the pump, it leads to loss of prime. The main function of the froth in
froth pumps is to separate rich minerals. It is also used to separate bitumen from the sand and the
clays.
76. What affects volumetric efficiency of the pump?

a) Complex interactions
b) Internal interactions
c) Retain flow
d) Air flow
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The volumetric efficiency of the centrifugal is affected due to complex interactions.
Thus, some engines use two intake manifolds.
77. The Positive Displacement Pump has more or less a constant flow regardless of the system
pressure or head.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
.in
Explanation: The Positive Displacement Pump has more or less a constant flow regardless of the
system pressure or head.
78. What is the purpose of inducer in a froth pump?
ng
a) It recirculates air
b) The pressurizes the air
c) Froths are generated
eri
d) It breaks the bubbles
View Answer
Answer: d
e
Explanation: The purpose of the inducer in a froth pump is to break the bubbles. The main function
of the froth in froth pumps is to separate rich minerals. It is also used to separate bitumen from the
gin
sand and the clays.
79. A multistage centrifugal pumps has more than two _______

a) Pumps
En
b) Impellers
c) Turbines
d) Magnetic pumps
View Answer
arn
Answer: b
Explanation: A multistage centrifugal pumps has more than two impellers. The multistage centrifugal
is similar to the centrifugal pumps working.
Le
80. The impeller is mounted on a ________

a) Draft tube
b) Throttle bush
c) Stuffing box
w.
d) Shaft
View Answer
Answer: d
ww
Explanation: The impeller is mounted on one shaft or different shaft. A multistage centrifugal pump
has more than two impellers. The multistage centrifugal is similar to the centrifugal pumps working.
81. At each stage the fluid is directed ________

a) Towards the centre
b) Away the centre
c) Towards the surface
d) Away from the centre
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: At each stage in the centrifugal pump, the fluid is directed to towards the centre. A
multistage centrifugal pump has more than two impellers. The multistage centrifugal is similar to the
centrifugal pumps working.

82. If the cylinder is filled with fuel or air it is said to be ___________

a) 100% efficient
b) Transfer efficient
c) Nil efficient
d) Flow effective
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the cylinder is filled with fuel or air, it is said to be 100 percent efficient. It plays a
major role in regulating the flow of fluid.
83. SOH in a pump stands for_______

a) Shut Off head
b) Shut off heat
c) Shut off hybrid
.in
d) Set off head
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SOH in a pump stands for Shut OFF head. The shut off head is located at the maximum
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head of the pipe.
84. At higher pressures, the impeller is connected in _______
eri
a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Equilibrium
d) Series and parallel
View Answer e
gin
Answer: a
Explanation: At higher pressures, the impeller is connected in series. The impeller is mounted on one
shaft or different shaft. A multistage centrifugal pump has more than two impellers. The multistage
centrifugal is similar to the centrifugal pumps working.
En
85. When the flow output is higher, impellers are connected in________
a) Series
b) Parallel
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c) Equilibrium
d) Series and parallel
View Answer
Answer: b
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Explanation: When the flow output is higher, impellers are connected in parallel. The impeller is
mounted on one shaft or different shaft. A multistage centrifugal pump has more than two impellers.
The multistage centrifugal is similar to the centrifugal pumps working.
w.
86. The point at which piping system controls the flow rate is called ______
a) Pressure point
b) Static lift
ww
c) Operating point
d) Flow point
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The point at which piping system controls the flow rate is called operating point of the
pump. It plays a major role in controlling the piping system before regulation.
87. What is the common application of multistage centrifugal pump?

a) Mineral industries
b) Boiler feed water pump
c) Removes ores
d) Detects oil
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The most common application of multistage centrifugal pump is boiler feed water
pump.
88. A multistage centrifugal pump produces a pressure of __________
a) 10 Pa
b) 100 MPa
c) 21 MPa
d) 150 MPa
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A multistage centrifugal pump produces a pressure of 21 MPa. A multistage centrifugal
pump has more than two impellers. The multistage centrifugal is similar to the centrifugal pumps
working.
.in
89. All energy that is transferred from the fluid is derived from ________
a) Electrical energy
b) Mechanical energy
c) Thermal energy
ng
d) Chemical energy
View Answer
Answer: b
eri
Explanation: All energy that is transferred from the fluid is derived from Mechanical energy. A
e
90. The point at which the centrifugal pump operates at maximum efficiency is called _______
gin
a) Duty point
b) Flow point
c) Static point
d) Operating point
En
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The point at which the centrifugal pump operates at maximum efficiency is called duty
point. It is determined by the flow rate of the pump.
arn
91. The energy transferred can be measured by isentropic compression.

a) True
b) False
Le
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The energy transferred in a centrifugal pump can be measured by isentropic
compression. The multistage centrifugal is similar to the centrifugal pumps working.
w.
92. What does TDH stand for?

a) Total dynamic head
ww
b) Total depth head

c) Tight drum head
d) Target dynamic head
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: TDH stands for total dynamic head. It is total height at which fluid is to be pumped for
maximum effiency.
93. The mechanical energy is developed by the impeller.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The mechanical energy is developed by the impeller. The energy transferred in a
centrifugal pump can be measured by isentropic compression. The multistage centrifugal is similar to
the centrifugal pumps working. Thus, it is true
94. The mechanical energy can be measured by ______
a) Adiabatic expansion
b) Isentropic compression
c) Adiabatic compression
d) Isentropic expansion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The mechanical energy in a centrifugal pump that is driven by the impeller mounted on
a shaft is measured by isentropic compression. Thus, the correct choice is isentropic compression.
95. How many impellers does a multistage centrifugal pump have?

a) Zero
.in
b) One
c) Exactly two
d) Two and more
View Answer
ng
Answer: d
Explanation: The centrifugal pump consists of two or more impellers. The impeller is mounted on
one shaft or different shaft. A multistage centrifugal pump has more than two impellers. The
eri
multistage centrifugal is similar to the centrifugal pumps working.
96. The energy usage in pumping installation is determined by _______

a) Friction characteristics
b) Pipe diameter e
gin
c) Surface tension
d) Thermal expansion
View Answer
Answer: a
En
Explanation: At each stage in the centrifugal pump, the fluid is directed to towards the centre. The
energy usage in pumping installation is determined by Friction characteristics. Thus, it is the most
suitable option.
arn
97. Which among the following is a friction factor?

a) Newtons factor
b) Darcy’s factor
Le
d) Heizenberg’s factor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: From the above, the factor that involves friction is determined by Darcy’s friction
w.
factor. The energy usage in pumping installation is determined by Friction characteristics. Thus, it is
used in energy calculations in a pump.
ww
98. What is the dimension for Darcy’s friction factor?

a) kg/m
b) N/mm
c) kg
d) Dimensionless
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Darcy’s friction factor is dimensionless. It is one of the major applications in Fluid
dynamics. The energy usage in pumping installation is determined by Friction characteristics. Thus,
it is dimensionless.
99. Formation of bubbles in an impeller is called ______

a) Cavities
b) Defects
c) Friction
d) Heat burn
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Formation of bubbles in an impeller is called as its as its cavities. These cavities
develop intense shockwaves in the impeller.
100. Centrifugal pump works by imparting _______

a) Potential energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Heat energy
d) Electrical energy
View Answer
Answer: b
.in
Explanation: Centrifugal pump works by imparting kinetic energy to the liquid for rotating the
impeller rotor.
101. What is the full form of NPSH in a pump?
ng
a) Net pressure suction head
b) Net positive suction head
c) Non-pressure suction head
eri
d) Net pressure super head
View Answer
Answer: b
e
Explanation: The full form of NPSH is Net positive suction head. The head added by the pump is a
sum of static lift. Thus, corresponds to the efficient working of the pump. Higher the NPSH, more
gin
efficient the pump is.
102. When the NPSH is low, it leads to ________

a) Breaking
En
b) Wear
c) Corrosion
d) Cavitation
View Answer
arn
Answer: d
Explanation: When the NPSH is low, it leads to cavitation. Cavitation is one of the major drawbacks
that are seen in a centrifugal pump. There are various other problems as well. But, cavitation is due
to low NPSH.
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103. Wear of impeller can be worsened by __________

a) Draft tube
b) Pump pressure
w.
c) Suspended solenoids
d) Turbine head
View Answer
ww
Answer: c
Explanation: Wear of impeller can be worsened by suspended solenoids. Wear and tear is one of the
major drawbacks that are seen in a centrifugal pump. It affects the working of the impeller, thus
resulting in an inefficient working.
104. Which pump is the most efficient centrifugal pump?

a) Electrical pump
b) Reciprocating pump
c) Heat pump
d) Pressure pump
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reciprocating pump is the most efficient centrifugal pump because as the pressure
increases, the flow rate remains constant.
105. Corrosion in the pump is developed due to _______

a) Pressure of air
b) Fluid properties
c) Draft tube
d) Tank dimensions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Corrosion in the pump is developed due to fluid properties. The flow of fluid plays a
major role in determining the corrosion developed. Fluid flow can broadly be classified into laminar
and turbulent depending on its Reynolds number.
106. Over heating is a major problem faced in a pump.

a) True
b) False
.in
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Over heating is a major problem faced in a pump. The temperature in a centrifugal
pump is increases mainly due to the presence of low flow. Thus, by heating the fluid, the velocity of
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fluid flow increases.
107. What is the effect of cavitation in boat propeller?
eri
a) It recirculates air
b) The pressurizes the air
c) It leads to fast spinning
d) It breaks the bubbles
View Answer e
gin
Answer: c
Explanation: Cavitation in a boat propeller or a ship propeller leads to fast spinning due to the
formation of bubbles.
En
108. Lack of prime is a problem faced in centrifugal pump.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
arn
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, Lack of prime is a problem faced in centrifugal pump. It means that the centrifugal
pump must be filled in order to operate in an effective way. The fluid must be filled in such a way so
that it can pump
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109. The energy usage of a pump is determined by _______

b) Power required
w.
View Answer
ww
Answer: b
Explanation: The energy usage of a pump is determined by power required. Thus, it plays an
important role in determining the amount of energy that a pump dissipates during its operation. It is
with respect to the length of time.
110. For an oil field to have solid control, it needs _______

a) Draft tubes
b) Throttle bush
c) Stuffing box
d) Centrifugal pumps
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For an oil field to have solid control, it needs centrifugal pumps. At each stage in the

centrifugal pump, the fluid is directed to towards the centre. This makes it more efficient in
operating a large oil field.
111. If we lower the temperature, the water pump cavitation ________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If we lower the temperature, the water pump cavitation decreases. This happens as the
NPSH value reaches a safety margin.
112. Which among the following is not a centrifugal pump?
.in
a) Sand pumps
b) Froth pumps
c) Slurry pumps
d) Energy pumps
ng
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: From the above, Energy pumps are not a type of centrifugal pump. At each stage in the
eri
centrifugal pump, the fluid is directed to towards the centre. The energy usage in pumping
installation is determined by Friction characteristics. Thus, it is not a suitable option.
e
113. Centrifugal pumps work under the same principle, but differ in their _______
a) Working
gin
b) Functions
c) Dimensions
d) Impeller
View Answer
En
Answer: b
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps work under the same principle, but differ in their functions. At each
stage in the centrifugal pump, the fluid is directed to towards the centre. The energy usage in
pumping installation is determined by Friction characteristics.
arn
114. If we raise the liquid level in the suction vessel, cavitation ______
a) Increases
b) Decreases
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c) Same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: b
w.
Explanation: If we raise the liquid level in the suction vessel, cavitation decreases. This happens as
the NPSH value reaches a safety margin.
ww
115. Magnetic coupled pumps are also called as _________

a) Series pumps
b) Parallel pumps
c) Froth pumps
d) Drive pumps
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Magnetic coupled pumps are also called a magnetic drive pumps. They show a lot of
difference in their traditional pumping style. It is connected by means of direct mechanical shaft.
116. Magnetic coupled pumps works via ________

a) Antiferromagnet
b) Drive magnet
c) Pump magnet
d) Ferromagnet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Magnetic coupled pumps works via drive magnet. Magnetic coupled pumps are also
called a magnetic drive pumps. They show a lot of difference in their traditional pumping style. It is
connected by means of direct mechanical shaft.
117. When we change the pump, the cavitation ______

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: b
.in
Explanation: By changing the pump we can decrease the cavitation in the pump by bringing the
NPSH value to a safety margin.
118. If we reduce the motor rpm in an impeller, cavitation _______
ng
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
eri
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: b
e
Explanation: If we reduce the motor rpm in an impeller, cavitation decreases. This can be done by
setting the NPSH value in the safety limit.
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119. Decreasing the diameter of the eye of the impeller, cavitation _________
a) Increases
b) Decreases
En
c) Same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: a
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Explanation: Decreasing the diameter of the eye of the impeller, cavitation increases due to
deviation from the safety limit.
120. No gland is needed for the centrifugal pump.

Le
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
w.
Explanation: No gland is needed for the centrifugal pump. This is because they have no direct
connection between the motor shaft and the impeller, so there is not a requirement of gland in
pumps.
ww
121. Pump is always supported by bearings.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pump shaft is not always supported by bearings. Since the pumps have no bearing
support. The pumps are provided with a housing. The inner walls of the pump are provided with
bushings.
122. If we use an impeller inducer, we can reduce the cavitation in a centrifugal pump.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, If we use an impeller inducer, we can reduce the cavitation in a centrifugal pump
by bringing the NPSH value to a safety limit.
123. There will be leakage only if there is ________

a) High pressure
b) High temperature
c) Froths are generated
d) Casing breakage
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pumps have a major problem called as leakage. This might lead to a lot of losses
during product manufacture. Thus, the leakage is mainly due to the breaking of the case. Thus, the
correct option is casing breakage.
.in
124. When a pump casing is filled with liquid before it is started, it is called as _________
b) Priming
ng
View Answer
eri
Answer: b
Explanation: When a pump casing is filled with liquid before it is started, it is called as priming. Most
of the centrifugal pumps are not self priming. At this stage, the pump will not be able to function.
e
125. The pump will become incapable of pumping in case of _______
gin
a) Gas bounding
b) Throttle bush
c) Stuffing box
d) Casing breakage
En
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For an oil field to have solid control, it needs centrifugal pumps. At each stage in the
centrifugal pump, the fluid is directed to towards the centre. This makes it more efficient in
arn
operating a large oil field.
126. Priming is needed when impeller cannot impart enough _________

a) Draft speed
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b) Energy
c) Pressure
d) Heat
View Answer
w.
Answer: b
Explanation: Priming is needed when impeller cannot impart enough energy. Therefore priming is
compulsory in this case.
ww
127. Priming performs response using ________

a) Stimulus
b) Froth
c) Slurry
d) Heat
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Priming performs response using a stimulus. It is an implicit method in which exposure
to flow of fluid takes place.
128. To avoid gas bounding, the pump is _________

a) Heated
b) Elevated
c) Primed
d) Charged
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps work under the same principle, but differ in their functions. At each
stage in the centrifugal pump, the fluid is directed to towards the centre. To avoid gas bounding, the
pump is primed.
129. Centrifugal pumps are located ________ the level of source

a) Below
b) Above
c) Parallel with
d) Series with
View Answer
.in
Answer: a
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps are located below the level of source. It is located in such way
because, it takes away the suction at a faster rate.
ng
130. A pump that can evacuate air is called as _________
a) Series pumps
b) Self priming pumps
eri
c) Froth pumps
d) Drive pumps
View Answer
Answer: b
e
Explanation: A pump that can evacuate air is called as self priming pumps. In normal conditions, it is
gin
difficult for centrifugal pumps to evacuate the air from the inlet line leading to a fluid level to a
different altitude.
131. What does CPO stand for?

En
a) Centrifugal pump operation

b) Centrifugal part operation
c) Centrifugal pump output
d) Centrifugal part output
arn
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: CPO stands for centrifugal pump operation. It has got a pump start off procedure and
pump shut down procedure.
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132. Self priming pumps overshadow the function of __________

a) Self auxiliary device
b) Wear rate
w.
c) Corrosion device
d) Cavitation device
View Answer
ww
Answer: a
Explanation: Self priming pumps overshadow the function of self auxiliary device. A pump that can
evacuate air is called as self priming pumps. In normal conditions, it is difficult for centrifugal pumps
to evacuate the air from the inlet line leading to a fluid level to a different altitude.
133. What is necessary for self priming to take place?

a) Draft tube
b) Pump casing
c) Suspended solenoids
d) Turbine head
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For self priming to take place, pump casing is necessary. This helps to evacuate air in
normal conditions.
134. Centrifugal pumps with an internal suction stage are called as _________
a) Series pumps
c) Froth pumps
d) Drive pumps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps with an internal suction stage are called as self priming pumps. A
pump that can evacuate air is called as self priming pumps. In normal conditions, it is difficult for
centrifugal pumps to evacuate the air from the inlet line leading to a fluid level to a different
altitude.
135. Two phase mixture is pumped unit the suction line is evacuated.
a) True
.in
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Two phase mixture is pumped unit the suction line is evacuated as the pump operates
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without a foot valve and without an evacuation device on the suction side. The pump has to be
primed for this purpose.
eri
136. During normal working operation, the pump works like __________
a) Centrifugal pumps
c) Froth pumps
d) Drive pumps e
gin
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pump shaft is not always supported by bearings. Since the pumps have no bearing
support. The pumps are provided with a housing. During normal working operation, the pump works
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like centrifugal pumps.
137. The pump function that works on rinsing is called as dialysis of pump.
a) True
arn
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, The pump function that works on rinsing is called as dialysis of pump.
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138. What is purpose of vent valve in a pump?

a) High pressure control
b) High temperature control
w.
c) Froths are generated can be minimized

d) To prevent siphon action
View Answer
ww
Answer: d
Explanation: The main function of a suction swindle valve or vent valve in a centrifugal pump is to
prevent any siphon action and ensure that the fluid remains in the casing when the pump has been
stopped.
139. In hydraulic head, NPSH is used for the analysis of __________

b) Priming
c) Wear
d) Cavitation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In hydraulic head, net positive circuit is used for the analysis of cavitation. It
determines the cavitation present in the centrifugal pump by different methods.
140. NPSH is the difference between _______

a) Suction pressure and vapour pressure
b) Vapour pressure and suction pressure
c) Suction pressure and heat
d) Shaft and head
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: NPSH is defined as the difference suction pressure and vapour pressure. It is called as
the net positive suction head.
141. What can NPSH be used to determine _______

a) Friction characteristics
b) Pipe diameter
c) Cavitation
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d) Thermal expansion
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: NPSH is used to determine the cavitation in pumps. NPSH is defined as the difference
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suction pressure and vapour pressure. It is called as the net positive suction head.
142. The measure of how close the fluid is to the given point is called _________
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a) Flashing
b) Darcy’s factor
d) Heizenberg’s factor
View Answer e
gin
Answer: a
Explanation: The measure of how close the fluid is to the given point is called flashing. It is one of
the major methods in the NPSH to determine the cavitation.
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143. What is the dimension for Darcy’s friction factor?

a) kg/m
b) N/mm
c) kg
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d) Dimensionless
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Darcy’s friction factor is dimensionless. It is one of the major applications in Fluid
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dynamics. The energy usage in pumping installation is determined by Friction characteristics. Thus,
it is dimensionless.
144. NPSH is relevant ________

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a) Outside the pumps

b) Inside the pumps
c) Away from the pumps
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d) Series and parallel with the pumps

View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: NPSH is relevant inside the pumps. hydraulic head, net positive circuit is used for the
analysis of cavitation. It determines the cavitation present in the centrifugal pump by different
methods.
145. With the increase in cavitation, the drag coefficient of the impeller ______
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: With the increase in cavitation, the drag coefficient of the impeller increases. When the
flow output is higher, impellers are connected in parallel. The impeller is mounted on one shaft or
different shaft.
146. What is the full form of NPSH in a pump?

a) Net pressure suction head
b) Net positive suction head
c) Non-pressure suction head
d) Net pressure super head
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The full form of NPSH is Net positive suction head. The head added by the pump is a
sum of static lift. Thus, corresponds to the efficient working of the pump. Higher the NPSH, more
.in
efficient the pump is.
147. When the NPSH is low, it leads to ________

a) Breaking
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b) Wear
c) Corrosion
d) Cavitation
eri
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When the NPSH is low, it leads to cavitation. Cavitation is one of the major drawbacks
e
that are seen in a centrifugal pump. There are various other problems as well. But, cavitation is due
to low NPSH.
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148. What is positive suction head?
a) Draft tube is above
b) Pump pressure is above
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c) Liquid level is above

d) Turbine head is above
View Answer
Answer: c
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Explanation: Positive suction head is defined as the point in which the liquid level is above the centre
line of the pump.
149. NPSHr is determined by using ______

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a) Pump pressure
b) PumpLinx
c) Heat transfer
d) Chemical energy
w.
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: NPSHr of a pump can be determined by using Pumplinx. The full form of NPSH is Net
ww
positive suction head. The head added by the pump is a sum of static lift.
150. Corrosion in the pump is developed due to _______

a) Pressure of air
b) Fluid properties
c) Draft tube
d) Tank dimensions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Corrosion in the pump is developed due to fluid properties. The flow of fluid plays a
major role in determining the corrosion developed. Fluid flow can broadly be classified into laminar
and turbulent depending on its Reynolds number.

151. Calculation of NPSH in a turbine is different from the calculation of NPSH in a pump.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Calculation of NPSH in a turbine is different from the calculation of NPSH in a pump. It
is mainly because the point at which the cavitation will first occur is in a different place.
152. If we use two lower capacity pumps in parallel, cavitation ________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
View Answer
.in
Answer: b
Explanation: If we use two lower capacity pumps in parallel, cavitation decreases. It happens when
the NPSh value is bought in its safety limit.
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153. Vapour pressure is strongly dependent on temperature in a pump.
a) True
b) False
eri
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, Vapour pressure is strongly dependent on temperature in a pump. It will thus
e
increase the net positive suction head of the centrifugal pump.
gin
154. The characteristic curves of a centrifugal pump, plots ______ required by the pump.
a) Velocity
b) Pressure
c) NPSH
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d) Velocity and pressure

View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The characteristic curves of a centrifugal pump, plots net positive suction head required
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by the pump. These curves play an important role in determining the efficiency of a centrifugal
pump.
155. What is the shape of the diffuser in the centrifugal pump?

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a) Round
b) Dough nut
c) Rectangle
d) Cylindrical
w.
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The shape of the diffuser passing present in the centrifugal pump is doughnut shaped.
ww
It is made into that shape as it allows the device to scroll up and down. Due to this, the casing
decelerates the flow.
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Volume
d) Flow rate
View Answer
Answer: a

157. Which among the following is not a characteristic curve for centrifugal pump?
a) Transfer speed vs Transfer pressure
b) Head vs Flow rate
c) Power input vs pump efficiency
d) Specific speed vs pump efficiency
View Answer
Answer: a
turbomachinery. Transfer speed vs Transfer pressure is not considered as a correct characteristic
curve.
158. The consequence of Newtons second law is _________

a) Conservation of angular momentum
.in
c) Conservation of potential energy
d) Conservation of kinetic energy
View Answer
Answer: a
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Explanation: The consequence of Newtons second law is the conservation of angular momentum.
This, in accordance with newtons second law, provides the basic details to define parameters in the
centrifugal pump.
eri
159. Which of the following is taken into account during a characteristic curve?
a) Flow rate
b) Cavitation
c) Tolerances e
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d) Casing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flow rate is an important parameter that is taken into account for a characteristic
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curve. These curves play an important role in determining the efficiency of a centrifugal pump.
160. The normal operating range of centrifugal pump is sufficient to plot the characteristic curve.
a) True
arn
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The normal operating range of centrifugal pump is sufficient to plot the characteristic
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curve. Centrifugal pumps are used to transport fluids. They transport fluids by conversion of
energies.

w.
a) Head race
b) Gate
c) Tail race
ww
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: b
turbine.
162. As the specific speed increases, the slope of HQ curve _______

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Independent
d) Remains the same
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: As the specific speed increases, the slope of HQ curve increases. It becomes steeper
with the corresponding increase in the specific speed.
163. The primary selection tool is called as _______
a) Pump curve
b) Speed curve
c) Power curve
d) Fluid curve
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The primary selection tool is called as pump curve. It plays an essential role in
determining efficiency.
164. In case of centrifugal turbines with low specific speed, the efficiency curve is _________
.in
a) Pointed
b) Small
c) Steep
d) Flat
ng
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In case of centrifugal turbines with low specific speed, the efficiency curve is relatively
eri
flat in the vertex. These curves play an essential role in determining the overall performance of the
turbine.
e
165. In case of centrifugal turbines with high specific speed, the efficiency curve is
a) Pointed
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b) Small
c) Steep
d) Flat
View Answer
En
Answer: a
Explanation: In case of centrifugal turbines with high specific speed, the efficiency curve is relatively
pointed in the vertex. These curves play an essential role in determining the overall performance of
the turbine.
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166. With the increase in the input power, efficiency _______

a) Increases
b) Decreases
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c) Same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: b
w.
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167. What is unit of standard acceleration?

a) kg/m
b) kg/s
c) kg/m3
d) N/m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The unit of standard acceleration of the centrifugal pump is kg/m 3. It is denoted as g. It
is also called as the acceleration due to gravity. Thus, the correct option is ‘c’.
168. The formation of vapour cavities is called _____

a) Static pressure drop
b) Cavitation
c) Isentropic expansion
d) Emulsion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The formation of vapour cavities is called cavitation. It is formed due to the presence of
small free liquids with different zones. These zones consists of different layers of forces acting on
them.
169. What is the degree of reaction denoted as?

a) D
b) R
c) r
d) d
View Answer
Answer: b
.in
Explanation: Degree of reaction is defined as the ratio of the static pressure drop in the rotor to the
static pressure drop in the stage. It can also be defined in the same way for enthalpy in different
stages. It is denoted by the letter ‘R’.
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170. Voids are created due to ______
a) Reaction ratio
b) Pressure ratio
eri
c) Liquid free layers
d) Volumetric layers
View Answer
Answer: c
e
Explanation: Voids in a turbine or pump is created due to the presence of liquid free layers. It is
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formed due to the presence of small free liquids with different zones. These zones consists of
different layers of forces acting on them.
171. Cavitation usually occurs due to the changes in ________

En
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Volume
d) Heat
arn
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cavitation usually occurs due to the changes in pressure. The pressure change is so
rapid that it leads to formation of liquid free layers or cavities that start to affect the overall
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performance.
172. Degree of reactions are most commonly used in ________

a) Turbomachinery
w.
b) Pressure drag
c) Aerodynamics
d) Automobiles
ww
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Degree of reaction is most commonly used in turbomachinery. Degree of reaction is
defined as the ratio of the static pressure drop in the rotor to the static pressure drop in the stage. It
can also be defined in the same way for enthalpy in different stages. It is denoted by the letter ‘R’.
173. At high pressure, the voids can generate ______

a) Drag force
b) Mass density
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: At high pressure, the voids can generate shock waves. Cavitation usually occurs due to
the changes in pressure. The pressure change is so rapid that it leads to formation of liquid free
layers or cavities that start to affect the overall performance.
174. Voids that implode near metal surface develops a_______

a) Drag force
b) Cyclic stress
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Voids that implode near metal surface develops a cyclic stress. This happens mainly
due to repeated implosion of voids.
175. Internal cavitation occurs due to __________
.in
a) Drag force
b) Cyclic stress
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
ng
View Answer
Answer: c
eri
e
176. Non- inertial cavitation is the one in which a bubble of fluid is forced to oscillate.
a) True
gin
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Non- inertial cavitation is the one in which a bubble of fluid is forced to oscillate. It
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oscillates in a different size or shape due to some form of energy called the acoustic field.
177. The efficiency of the vane is given by _________

a) 1-V22/ V12
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b) 1-(V22/ V12)
c) V22/ V12
d) 1- V12
View Answer
Le
Answer: a
Explanation: In a velocity triangle at the inlet and the outlet, the control volume is moving with a
uniform velocity. Therefore, the momentum theorem of the control volume is at a steady flow. Thus,
the efficiency of the vane is given by 1-(V22/ V12).
w.
178. The velocities of the blade angles can be found out using ________
a) Mach number
ww
b) Froude’s number
c) Velocity triangles
d) Reynolds number
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The velocity triangle represents various components. It mainly determines the
velocities of fluids that act in a turbomachinery. It can be drawn for both inlet and outlet triangles
with its angles.
179. Which among the following velocities cannot be found using the velocity triangle?
a) Tangential
b) Whirl
c) Relative

d) Parabolic
View Answer
Answer: d
velocities of fluids that act in a turbomachinery. It can be drawn for both inlet and outlet triangles
with its angles.
180. Hydrodynamic cavitation is due to the process of _________
a) Vaporisation
b) Sedimentation
c) Filtration
d) Excavation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrodynamic cavitation is due to the process of vaporisation. A bubble generation
.in
takes place in which implosion occurs during the flowing of liquid.
181. The process of bubble generation leads to __________

a) High temperatures
ng
b) High pressures
c) High energy densities
d) High volumetric ratio
eri
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The process of bubble generation leads to high energy densities. The local
e
temperatures and local pressures at this point last for a very short time.
gin
182. Super cavitation is the use of cavitation effect to create a bubble of steam inside a liquid.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
En
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, it is true. Super cavitation is the use of cavitation effect to create a bubble of
steam inside a liquid. It is large to encompass an object passing through the liquid to reduce skin
friction drag.
arn
183. Reciprocating pump is a ________

a) Negative displacement pump
b) Positive displacement pump
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c) Diaphragm pump
d) Emulsion pump
Answer: b
Explanation: Reciprocation pump is a type of positive displacement pump. It has a piston pump,
w.
plunger and diaphragm. Reciprocating pumps have a good life provided that they are not left
untouched.
ww
184. What happens to the reciprocating pump when left untouched?

a) Efficiency decreases
b) Wear and tear
c) Surface expansion
d) Pressure change
Answer: c
Explanation: When left untouched over a period of time, the reciprocating pump undergoes wear and
tear. Reciprocating pumps have a good life provided that they are not left untouched.
185. Reciprocating pumps operate by drawing ______ into the chamber

a) Liquid
b) Pressure
c) Heat
d) Electricity
Answer: a
Explanation: Reciprocating pumps operate by drawing liquid into the chamber or the cylinder with
the help of a piston.
186. The cylinder of reciprocating cylinder is made up of _______

a) Cast iron
b) Wrought iron
c) Aluminium
d) Copper
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The cylinder of reciprocating cylinder is made up of cast iron. Sometimes it is also
made of steel alloy. The movement of piston is obtained by a connecting rod which connects piston
and rotating crank inside the cylinder.
.in
187. The higher discharge valve line holds the discharge valve ________
a) Open
b) Closed
ng
c) Stop functioning
d) Automatic
View Answer
eri
Answer: b
Explanation: The higher discharge valve line holds the discharge valve closed. This helps in
maintaining the valve safely.
e
188. Reciprocating pumps are also called as __________
gin
a) Force pumps
b) Mass Pumps
c) Heat pumps
d) Speed pumps
En
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reciprocating pumps are also called as force pumps. It helps to lift the liquid by the
help of a pressure and thus it is called as a force pump.
arn
189. Reciprocating pumps are classified according to ___________

a) Drag force
b) Number of cylinders
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c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
View Answer
Answer: b
w.
Explanation: Reciprocating pumps are classified according to the number of cylinders. And also it
classified according to the number of piston sides.
ww
190. Simple hand operating pump is also called as ______

a) Froth pump
b) Bicycle pump
c) Multistage pumps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Simple hand operating pump is also called as bicycle pumps. It is the simplest pump
that is used to inflate bicycle tires and various sporting balls.
191. Internal cavitation in reciprocating pumps occurs due to __________

a) Drag force
b) Cyclic stress
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
View Answer
Answer: c
192. Bicycle pump generates more compression than volume displacement.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bicycle pump generates more compression than volume displacement. Simple hand
operating pump is also called as bicycle pumps. It is the simplest pump that is used to inflate bicycle
tires and various sporting balls.
.in
193. Power operated pump in which only one side engages the fluid displacement is called
_______
a) Froth pump
ng
b) Single acting
c) Double acting
d) Bicycle pump
eri
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Power operated pump in which only one side engages the fluid displacement is called as
e
single acting reciprocating pump. It consists of piston in only one side of the fluid being displaced.
gin
194. Operation of reciprocating motion is done by a ________ source
a) Power
b) Energy
c) Momentum
En
d) Inertia
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Operation of reciprocating motion is done by a power source. This power source
arn
consists of electric motor or IC engines. Power source gives rotary motion to crank.
195. An up and down back and forth relative linear motion is called __________
a) Reciprocation
Le
b) Rotation
c) Filtration
d) Excavation
View Answer
w.
Answer: a
Explanation: An up and down back and forth relative linear motion is called reciprocation. This is
how the piston in a reciprocating pump moves.
ww
196. 14. Power operated pump in which only both sides engage the fluid displacement is called
_____
a) Froth pump
b) Single acting
c) Double acting
d) Bicycle pump
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Power operated pump in which both the side engages the fluid displacement is called as
double acting reciprocating pump. It consists of piston in both the side of the fluid being displaced.
197. High pressure reciprocating pumps are generally from 1500 HP.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, it is true. High pressure reciprocating pumps are generally, from 1500 HP. They
have a pressure of 20000 PSI and flow rates up to 1000 GPM.
198. How many number of valves are required for the rotary pump?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are no valves required for a rotary pump. A rotary pump is the one in which the
.in
flow is continuous. Since, the flow is continuous, we do not require any valves.
199. Reciprocating pump is divided into how many types, based on its cylinders?
a) 0
ng
b) 5
c) 2
d) 3
eri
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on the number of cylinders, the reciprocating pump is divided into five types. It
e
is divided on the basis of cylinders as single, double, triple , duplex and quintuplex.
gin
200. At each stage the fluid is directed ________
a) Towards the centre
b) Away the centre
c) Towards the surface
En
d) Away from the centre

View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: At each stage in the centrifugal pump, the fluid is directed to towards the centre. A
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201. The maximum efficiency of the reciprocating pump is _________

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a) 20
b) 50
c) 70
d) 85
w.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Reciprocating pump is more favourable for small liquid quantities. As the chamber in
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the liquid is trapped, it has a stationary cylinder which contains a piston and a plunger. The
maximum efficiency of the reciprocating pump is 85 percent.
202. The two opposite motion that comprise a single reciprocation is called _________
a) Turbocharger
b) Stokes
c) Fluid motion
d) Auto motion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Degree of reaction is most commonly used in turbomachinery. Degree of reaction is
defined as the ratio of the static pressure drop in the rotor to the static pressure drop in the stage. It
can also be defined in the same way for enthalpy in different stages. It is denoted by the letter ‘R’.

203. Reciprocating pumps has ____ efficiency compared to centrifugal pumps

a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Equal
d) Exponential
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reciprocating pumps has lower efficiency compared to centrifugal pumps. They are
generally just used for discharges at higher heads. Their main purpose is to pump water in hilly
areas.
204. Reciprocating pumps works on the principle of __________

a) Drag force
b) Liquid flow push
.in
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
View Answer
Answer: b
ng
Explanation: Reciprocating pumps works on the principle of liquid flow push by a piston that
reciprocates in a closed fitting cylinder.
eri
205. Reciprocating pump is a type of ___________
a) Positive displacement pump
b) Bicycle pump
c) Multistage pumps
d) Centrifugal pumps e
gin
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reciprocating pump is a type of positive displacement pump. The positive displacement
pump includes piston pump, diaphragm and plunger pump.
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206. During the suction stroke the _______ moves left thus creating vacuum in the Cylinder.
a) Piston
b) Cylinder
arn
c) Valve
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: a
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Explanation: During the suction stroke the piston moves left. Thus, a vacuum is created in the
cylinder. This vacuum causes the suction valve to open and water enters the Cylinder.
207. In reciprocating pumps, the chamber in which the liquid is trapped is a stationary cylinder that
w.
contains piston or cylinder

a) True
b) False
ww
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In reciprocating pumps, the chamber in which the liquid is trapped is a stationary
cylinder that contains piston or cylinder.
208. Reciprocating pump works like a positive displacement pump.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reciprocating pump works like a positive displacement pump. In reciprocating pumps,
the chamber in which the liquid is trapped is a stationary cylinder that contains piston or cylinder.

209. When both the sources are effective it is called as __________

a) Double acting pump
b) Single acting pump
c) Triple acting pump
d) Normal pump
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When both the sources are effective it is called as double acting centrifugal pump. The
pumping unit consists of piston and cylinder.
210. A repetitive variation about the central value of equilibrium is called ________
a) Reciprocation
b) Oscillation
c) Filtration
.in
d) Excavation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A repetitive variation about the central value of equilibrium is called as oscillation. It
ng
need not be linear.
211. A linear wheel turning motion is called as a ________
eri
a) Reciprocation
b) Rotation
c) Oscillation
d) Bicycle pump
View Answer e
gin
Answer: b
Explanation: A linear wheel turning motion is called as a rotational motion. It is linear motion that
takes place along a circular section.
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212. A reciprocating pump that has 1200 crank is _________

a) Froth pump
b) Single acting
c) Double acting
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d) Triple acting
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A reciprocating pump that has 1200 crank is triple acting or triple cylinder pump. Each
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cylinder in a reciprocating pump has it suction and delivery pipes. Thus, has a crank of 1200.
213. In a positive displacement pump, what gets displaced?

a) Fluid
w.
b) Volume
c) Pressure
d) Temperature
ww
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reciprocation pump is a type of positive displacement pump. It has a piston pump,
plunger and diaphragm. Reciprocating pumps have a good life provided that they are not left
untouched. The fluid gets displaced in a positive displacement pump.
214. What happens to the reciprocating pump when left untouched?

a) Efficiency decreases
b) Wear and tear
c) Surface expansion
d) Pressure change
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: When left untouched over a period of time, the reciprocating pump undergoes wear and
tear. Reciprocating pumps have a good life provided that they are not left untouched.
215. Positive displacement pumps are capable of developing ______ pressures, in _______ suction
pressure.
a) High, low
b) Low, high
c) High, high
d) Low, low
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Positive displacement pumps are capable of developing high pressures, in low suction
pressure. Reciprocation pump is a type of positive displacement pump.
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216. When is a reciprocating pump used?
a) When quantity of liquid is small
b) When quantity of liquid is large
c) To pump high pressure
ng
d) To pump low pressure
View Answer
eri
Answer: a
the liquid is trapped, it has a stationary cylinder which contains a piston and a plunger.
e
217. Positive displacement pumps are also called as__________
a) Constant pressure pump
gin
b) Pressure drag pumps
c) Constant volume pumps
d) Constant head pumps
View Answer
En
Answer: c
Explanation: Positive displacement pumps are also called as constant volume pumps. Positive
displacement pumps are capable of developing high pressures, in low suction pressure.
arn
Reciprocation pump is a type of positive displacement pump.

a) Drag force
b) Mass density
Le
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
View Answer
w.
Answer: c
ww

219. In centrifugal pumps, their capacity is affected due to___________
a) Drag force
b) Cyclic stress
c) Shock waves
d) Pressure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In centrifugal pumps, their capacity is affected due to the presence of pressure that
works against the pump they operate.
220. A quantity of fluid that leaks from a higher pressure discharge to a lower pressure discharge is
called______
a) Slip
b) Heat
c) Friction
d) Enthalpy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Slip is defined as the quantity of fluid that leaks from a higher pressure discharge to a
lower pressure discharge.
221. Positive displacement pumps regulate the flow by varying its ________
a) Drag force
b) Cyclic stress
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
View Answer
.in
Answer: d
Explanation: Positive displacement pumps regulate the flow by varying its flow speed. This happens
by the pump or by the process of recycling. Positive displacement pumps are also called as constant
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volume pumps.
222. Positive displacement pumps are divided into two types.
a) True
eri
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
e
Explanation: Yes, Positive displacement pumps are divided into two types. The two types are
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reciprocating pumps and rotary pumps. Both these pumps differ in their working and construction.
223. Centrifugal pump is less efficient than a reciprocating pump because of its _______
a) Temperature
b) Speed
En
c) Heat
d) Cost
View Answer
arn
Answer: d
Explanation: Centrifugal pump is less efficient than a reciprocating pump because of its cost of
maintenance. Cost factor plays an important role in determining the efficiency.
224. Simplest example of single acting reciprocating pump is _______
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a) Mineral ores
b) Whirl wheels
c) Bicycle tires
d) Syringe
w.
View Answer
Answer: d
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Explanation: Simplest example of single acting reciprocating pump is a syringe. Power operated
pump in which only one side engages the fluid displacement is called as single acting reciprocating
pump. It consists of piston in only one side of the fluid being displaced.
225. Rotary pumps do not function well under _______
a) High Vaporisation
b) High Sedimentation
c) High viscosity
d) Excavation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rotary pumps do not function well under high viscosity fluid. Theses pumps are
normally limited to services during the increase of such parameters.
226. The parameter that disturbs the working of the rotary pump is______
a) High Vaporisation
b) High Sedimentation
c) Low flow rate
d) Excavation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The parameter that disturbs the working of the rotary pump is low flow rate and a high
viscosity. Theses pumps are normally limited to services during the increase of such parameters.
227. In a double acting reciprocating pump, the piston carries suction and expulsion at the same
time.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, it is true. In a double acting reciprocating pump, the piston carries suction and
expulsion at the same time. It consists of piston in both the side of the fluid being displaced.
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228. Rotary pumps are commonly used to circulate________
a) Lube oils
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b) Petroleum
c) Diesel
d) Water
View Answer
Answer: a e
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flow is continuous. Since, the flow is continuous, it circulates lube oils in different turbomachinery.
229. Reciprocating pump is divided into how many types, based on its cylinders?
En
a) 0
b) 5
c) 2
d) 3
arn
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on the number of cylinders, the reciprocating pump is divided into five types. It
is divided on the basis of cylinders as single, double, triple , duplex and quintuplex.
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230. How many number of valves are required for the rotary pump?
a) 0
b) 1
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c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
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Answer: a
flow is continuous. Since, the flow is continuous, we do not require any valves.
231. Capacity of a rotary pump is defined as _________

a) Total liquid displaced
b) Overall performance of pump
c) Maximum fluid flow
d) Minimum fluid flow
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Capacity of a rotary pump is defined as the total displacement of the pump with lesser
amount of slip. Thus, the correct option for the capacity of pump is ‘a’.

232. The pump that converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy is called as _________
a) Turbomachinery
b) Centrifugal pump
c) Aerodynamics
d) Auto pump
View Answer
233. What type of flow does the reciprocating pump have?
a) Uniform
b) Continuous
c) Pulsating
d) Non-uniform
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The reciprocating pump has a continuous flow because of its constant discharge even
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with the variations in the delivery side.
234. What is the full form of PD?

a) Positive displacement
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b) Pump displacement
c) Plunger displacement
d) Plunger direct
eri
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: PD stands for positive displacement pump. Reciprocating pump is a positive
displacement.
e
gin
235. Why can’t rotary pumps non-lubricate water?
a) Because it has lesser viscosity
b) Because it contains abrasive particles
c) Multistage pumps are difficult to operate
En
d) Draft tube is thin

View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A rotary pump cannot non lubricate fluids such as water because water contains hard
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abrasive particles or hard substances.
236. The maximum speed of reciprocating pump is __________

a) 20m/min
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b) 30m/min
c) 40m/min
d) 50m/min
View Answer
w.
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum speed of reciprocating pump is only 30m/min. Reciprocating pump runs
at a very low speed. When they are connected to driving machines, speed reducing device is
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required.
237. Pumps require clearances because of machining tolerances or wear exhibits larger slip.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pumps require clearances because of machining tolerances or wear exhibits larger slip.
Reciprocating pump runs at a very low speed. When they are connected to driving machines, speed
reducing device is required.
238. The pump that uses a relatively smaller amount of liquid is called ________
a) Froth pump
b) Reciprocating pump
c) Double acting
d) Bicycle pump
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pump that uses a relatively smaller amount of liquid is called as reciprocating
pump. It is a positive displacement pump.
239. Sliding vanes in pumps are held by ________

a) Draft pins
b) Whirl wheels
c) Springs
d) Nails
View Answer
Answer: c
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Explanation: Sliding vanes is mounted on a rotor in which the vanes slide in and out of the rotor.
These sliding vanes are held by springs or sealer rings.
240. Air vessel accumulates excess quantity of ______
ng
a) Vapor
b) Water
c) Heat
eri
d) Pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
e
Explanation: Air vessel accumulates excess quantity of water flowing in the suction pipe or delivery
pipe.
gin
241. In which pump is the liquid in contact with both the sides of the plunger_____
a) Froth pump
b) Single acting
En
c) Double acting
d) Bicycle pump
View Answer
Answer: c
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Explanation: Power operated pump in which both the side engages the fluid displacement is called as
double acting reciprocating pump. It consists of piston in both the side of the fluid being displaced.
242. The sliding vane is capable of delivering medium capacity and heat.
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a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
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Explanation: The sliding vane is capable of delivering medium capacity and heat. Sliding vanes is
mounted on a rotor in which the vanes slide in and out of the rotor. These sliding vanes are held by
springs or sealer rings.
ww
243. When a cylinder has inlet and outlet ports at each end, then it is called as __________
a) Double acting
b) Air lift pumps
c) Reciprocating pumps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When a cylinder has inlet and outlet ports at each end, then it is called as double acting
pumps. It operates similar to the single acting pump with respect to its motion.
244. Turbomachines work under ________

a) Newtons first law
b) Newtons second law
c) Newtons third law

d) Kepler’s law
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Turbomachines work under Newtons second law. Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery.
Turbomachines are machines that transfer energy between a rotor and a fluid, including both
turbines and compressors. It is a mechanical device.
c) Load variations
d) Heat variations
View Answer
Answer: b
.in
Explanation: The main function of nozzle is to vary the pressure of fluid passing through the nozzle.
It is done by opening and shutting the sets of nozzles. Thus, its main function is to regulate pressure
of the fluid.
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246. When the piston moves forward, liquid is drawn ________
a) Into the cylinder
b) Away from the cylinder
eri
c) Into the draft tube
d) Away from the draft tube
View Answer
Answer: a
e
Explanation: When the piston moves forward, liquid is drawn into the cylinder head. When a cylinder
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has inlet and outlet ports at each end, then it is called as double acting pumps. It operates similar to
the single acting pump with respect to its motion.
247. In a reciprocating pump, with the change in discharge pressure, ________

En
a) The Volume delivered increases

b) The volume delivered decreases
c) Volume delivered remains the same
d) Volume delivered is independent
arn
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Irrespective of the change in the discharge pressure, the volume of the fluid delivered
remains the same in a reciprocating pump. Thus, it does even vary with the slight increase or
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decrease of the pump.
248. The amount of fluid that leaks internally is called ________

a) Head race
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b) Slip
c) Tail race
d) Internal friction
ww
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The amount of fluid that leaks internally is called as slip. The slip indicates the condition
of the pump to improve its overall efficiency.
249. Airlift pumps are widely used in aquaculture to pump.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Airlift pumps are widely used in aquaculture to pump. It also
circulates and aerates the water in a closed environment. This helps it to recirculate in system and
ponds.


a) Pressure
b) Speed
c) Power
d) Fluid
View Answer
Answer: d
turbomachinery.
251. For a good condition, slip should be________

a) Below 1 percent
b) 1 to 2 percent
.in
c) 3 to 4 percent
d) Above 5 percent
View Answer
Answer: a
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Explanation: For a good condition of the pump, the slip should be below 1 percent. The amount of
fluid that leaks internally is called as slip. The slip indicates the condition of the pump to improve its
overall efficiency.
eri
252. If the slip is above 5 percent, the pumps needs to be ______
a) Dragged
b) Overhauled
c) Retracted e
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d) Intermittent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the slip is above 5 percent, the pumps needs to be overhauled. The amount of fluid
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that leaks internally is called as slip. The slip indicates the condition of the pump to improve its
overall efficiency.
253. Slip in a pump depends on which of following parameters?

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a) Wear
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
d) Heat
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View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The slip on the pump remains a constant most of the time. The slip changes only when
the wear is not rapid. The amount of fluid that leaks internally is called as slip. The slip indicates the
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condition of the pump to improve its overall efficiency.
254. Internal breakage in a pump mainly takes place when ________

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a) Discharge pressure is increased

b) Temperature is increased
c) Heat leads to expansion
d) Corrosion takes place
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Internal breakage in a pump mainly takes place when the discharge pressure in the
pump is increased in between that of the piston rings and the cylinder liner or the leading internal
valves.
255. During internal breakage, output power ________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: During internal breakage, output power decreases. This is an important measure to
determine the volumetric efficiency of the pump.
256. The output that we get after an internal breakage can be classed as _________
a) An increase
b) A decrease
c) Constant
d) An independent variable
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The output that we get after an internal breakage can be classed as an independent
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variable. During internal breakage, output power decreases. This is an important measure to
determine the volumetric efficiency of the pump.
257. When the hydraulic fluid forms on only one side of the piston, it is called _______
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a) Single acting pump
b) Double acting pump
c) Froth pump
eri
d) Draft tube
View Answer
Answer: a
e
Explanation: When the hydraulic fluid forms on only one side of the piston, it is called a single acting
pump.
gin
258. The speed of the reciprocating pump is generally measured in ______
a) Stokes.min
b) Stokes/min
En
c) rps
d) rp/s
View Answer
Answer: b
arn
Explanation: The speed of the reciprocating pump is generally measured in stokes/min. This is the
number of times the piston moves backward and forth in one minute. It can also be measured in
rpm.
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259. A pump with two steams and two water cylinders is called ________
a) Single acting pump
b) Double acting pump
c) Froth pump
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d) Duplex pump
View Answer
Answer: d
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Explanation: A pump with two steams and two water cylinders is called duplex pumps. It consists of
a basic hydraulic system layout.
260. Reciprocating pumps can deliver fluid at high pressure.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reciprocating pumps can deliver fluid at high pressure. It can do it with its high
delivery head. This is one of the major advantage of reciprocating pumps.
261. When an external force is not available in a pump, we use a ________

a) Hydraulic cylinder
b) Slip gauge
c) Tail race
d) Heater
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When an external force is not available in a pump, we use a hydraulic cylinder attached
at the port end.
262. Piston pumps are self priming.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Piston pumps are self priming. They do not need cylinders to be
filled before the starting of the operation. This is one of the major advantage of the piston pumps.
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263. Reciprocating pumps give a ________ flow
a) Uniform
b) Non- uniform
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c) Pulsating
d) Sinusoidal
View Answer
eri
Answer: c
Explanation: Reciprocating pumps give a pulsating flow. Reciprocating pumps can deliver fluid at
high pressure. It can do it with its high delivery head. This is one of the major advantage of
reciprocating pumps.
e
gin
264. Suction stroke becomes difficult to pump ______
a) High temperature fluids
b) Viscous fluids
c) Fluids with abrasives
En
d) High velocity fluids

View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For a good condition of the pump, the slip should be below 1 percent. Suction stroke
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becomes difficult to pump when the fluid is of high viscosity.
265. Piston pumps are very _______

a) Expensive
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b) Cheap
c) Reasonable
d) Intricate
View Answer
w.
Answer: a
Explanation: The piston pumps are very expensive because of their accurate sizes of the cylinders
and their pistons. Also, they require a conversion of their gearing that involves extra equipment
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cost.
266. What is the full form of DAC?

a) Digital Acting pumps
b) Double acting pumps
c) Data acting pumps
d) Draft tube pumps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DAC stands for Double acting pumps. Suction stroke becomes difficult to pump when
the fluid is of high viscosity in a double acting pump.
267. Which among the following is not a multi-cylinder pump?

a) Double acting simplex
b) Single acting duplex

c) Double acting duplex
d) Single acting triplex
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Double acting simplex is not a multi-cylinder pump. It is a single cylinder pump. The
more the double acting cylinders in a pump, the smoother the operation is providing a better output.
268. As the motor rotates the flywheel, the eccentrically mounted connecting rod rotates with it.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the motor rotates the flywheel, the eccentrically mounted connecting rod rotates
.in
with it. The other end of the connecting rod is coupled to the slide assembly or the cross head gear.
269. A pressure vessel is used to hold _______

a) Air
ng
b) Gases
c) Molecules
d) Solids
eri
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pressure vessels in most turbomachinery are used to hold liquid and gasses at a
e
pressure that is different from an ambient pressure.
gin
270 Why do we need a maximum safe operating pressure?
a) Pressure vessel might explode
b) Temperature increase needs to be controlled
c) Heat transfer is rejected
En
d) Improve overall efficiency

View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure vessels need to be operated under low conditions as they might explode due
arn
to increase in pressure. The pressure vessels in most turbomachinery are used to hold liquid and
gasses at a pressure that is different from an ambient pressure.
271. When is a reciprocating pump used?

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a) When quantity of liquid is small

b) When quantity of liquid is large
c) To pump high pressure
d) To pump low pressure
w.
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reciprocating pump is used when the quantity of liquid is small. Because handling such
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small quantity liquids is difficult. Especially when the delivery pressure is quite large.
272. The maximum efficiency of the reciprocating pump is _________

a) 20
b) 50
c) 70
d) 85
View Answer
Answer: d
the liquid is trapped, it has a stationary cylinder which contains a piston and a plunger. The
maximum efficiency of the reciprocating pump is 85 percent.

273. A tank that is used to protect closed water heating systems is called ________
a) Pressure vessel
b) Expansion vessel
c) Heat vessel
d) Auto vessel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A tank that is used to protect closed water heating systems is called expansion vessel.
It is essential for heating process of water.
274. How is the construction of the vessel tested?

a) Uniform testing
b) Continuous testing
c) Pulsating test
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d) Non-destructive testing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pressure vessels are tested using non-destructive testing also called the NDT. It is a
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very essential method to determine the defects in the turbomachinery.
275. Where is the excess quantity of water from the pump accumulated?
eri
a) Froth tube
b) Draft tube
c) Air vessels
d) Bicycle pump
View Answer e
gin
Answer: c
Explanation: The excess quantity of water is accumulated in air vessels. Air vessels help to maintain
high temperature and pressure of fluid.
En
276. What is the shape of a pressure vessel?

a) Square
b) Spheres
c) Cones
arn
d) All the shapes

View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pressure vessel can be made of any shape. It is most commonly made up in spheres,
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cones , cylinders and cut into different sections with different cross sections.
277. Safety valve is used to ensure that the pressure in the vessels is not exceeded.
a) True
w.
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
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Explanation: Safety valve is used to ensure that the pressure in the vessels is not exceeded. Safety
valve is also called as the relief valve. It has an intricate design to serve this purpose.
278. Pressure vessel closures are used to _________

a) Avoid breakage
b) Avoid leakage
c) Retain structures
d) Maintain pressure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pressure vessel closures are used for retaining structures. It is designed in such a way
to provide quick access to pressure vessels, pipelines and filtration systems.

UNIT V TURBINE
1. A hydraulic turbine develops 1000kW power for a head of 40m. If the head is reduced to
20m, the power developed (in kW) is
A. 177
B. 354
C. 500
D. 707
Answer : Option B
2. Force exerted by a jet on a stationery plate happens in how many cases?
a) 3 cases
b) 2 cases
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c) 1 case
d) Nil
View Answer
ng
Answer: a
Explanation: Force exerted by a jet on a stationery plate happens in three cases. The three
cases are classified depending on their position. The three cases are when plate is vertical,
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plate is inclined and plate is curved with respect to the jet.
3. Force exerted by a jet on a moving plate happens in how many cases?
a) 3 cases
b) 2 cases
c) 1 case e
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d) Nil
View Answer
Answer: a
En
Explanation: Force exerted by a jet on a moving plate happens in three cases. The three
cases are classified depending on their position. The three cases are when the plate is
vertical, plate is inclined and plate is curved with respect to the jet.
4. In a stationery vertical plate, the jet after striking the plate will move _______
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a) In opposite direction
b) Along the plate
c) Perpendicular to the plate
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d) Parallel to the plate

View Answer
Answer: b
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Explanation: In a stationery vertical plate, the jet after striking the plate will move along the
plate. It moves with respect to the angles that are developed with the plate.
5. At what angle does the jet deflect after striking a stationery vertical plate?
ww
a) 30
b) 60
c) 90
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: c
plate. It moves with respect to the angles that are developed with the plate. Hence, after
striking the plate it will get deflected at an angle of 90 degrees.
6. The velocity component after striking the surface will be________
a) One
b) Zero
c) Infinity
d) Negative
View Answer
Answer: b
plate. It moves with respect to the angles that are developed with the plate. The velocity
component after striking the surface will be zero.
7. Which among the following is the formula for Force when it strikes the plate?
a) pav2
b) pav
c) pa
d) maE
.in
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rate of change of momentum in the direction of the force is given by the
ng
formula pav2. Where p = Density of the fluid flow, a = acceleration of the fluid particle and
v= velocity of the fluid flowing.
8. To derive pav2, we take final velocity minus the initial velocity.
eri
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
e
Explanation: The rate of change of momentum in the direction of the force is given by the
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formula pav2. Where p = Density of the fluid flow, a = acceleration of the fluid particle and
v= velocity of the fluid flowing. To derive pav 2, we take initial velocity minus the final
velocity.
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9. The mass of water per sec striking the plate is_________

a) pav2
b) pav
c) pa
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d) maE
View Answer
Answer: b
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Explanation: The mass of water per sec striking the plate is given by pav. Where p = Density
of the fluid flow, a = acceleration of the fluid particle and v = velocity of the fluid flowing.
Thus, the correct option is pav.
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10. Which among the following is formula for force when it acts along the direction of flow?
a) pav2Sin2θ
b) pav Sin2θ
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c) pa Sin2θ
d) maE Sin2θ
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When a force can be resolved into two components, one in the direction of the
jet and the other perpendicular to the jet. The formula for force when it acts along the
direction of flow is equal to pav2 Sin2θ.
11. Which among the following is a formula for force when it acts perpendicular to the direction of
flow?
a) pav2 SinθCosθ
b) pav Sin2θ
c) pa Sin2θ
d) maE Sin2θ
View Answer
Answer: a
jet and the other perpendicular to the jet. The formula for force when it acts perpendicular to
the direction of flow is equal to pav2 SinθCosθ.
12. A jet strikes a curved plate at its ______
a) Sides
b) Surface
c) Centre
d) Does not strike
View Answer
.in
Answer: c
Explanation: A jet strikes a curved plate at its center. Force exerted by a jet on a stationery
plate happens in three cases. The three cases are classified depending on their position. The
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three cases are when plate is vertical, plate is inclined and plate is curved with respect to the
jet.
13. During a weak jump, the value of Froude lies in between________
eri
a) 1 to 2.5
b) 2.5 to 3.5
c) Less than 1
d) Zero
View Answer e
gin
Answer: a
Explanation: Weak jump is a jump that takes place, when the Froude’s number lies in
between 1 to 2.5. The surfaces that result due to weak jump have a very little energy
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dissipated. Thus, option 1 to 2.5 is the correct one.

14. During an oscillating jump, the value of Froude lies in between________
a) 1 to 2.5
b) 2.5 to 4.5
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c) Less than 1
d) Zero
View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: An oscillating jump is a jump that takes place when the Froude’s number is in
between 2.5 to 4.5. During this jump, the jet water at the entrance of the jump fluctuates. It
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fluctuates from the bottom of the channel to the top of the channel.
15. A jet after striking a smooth plate comes out with a __________ velocity.
a) Increased
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b) Decreased
c) Same
d) Zero
View Answer
Answer: c
cases are classified depending on their position. After it strikes a smooth plate, its velocity
remains the same.
16. Component of velocity in direction of jet is -VCosθ
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Component of velocity in direction of jet is -VCosθ. The negative sign indicates
the that the taken velocity at the outlet is opposite to the jet of water coming out from the
nozzle. Thus, it is true.
17. Jet propulsion is a method of generating propulsive force by reaction of ________
a) Accelerating mass
b) Volume
c) Mass flow rate
d) Velocity
View Answer
Answer: a
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cases are classified depending on their position. Jet propulsion is a method of generating
propulsive force by reaction of accelerating mass.
18. The propulsive force drives the jet in the ________
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a) Backward direction
b) Forward direction
c) Perpendicular direction
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d) Parallel movement
View Answer
Answer: b
e
cases are classified depending on their position. The propulsive force drives the jet in the
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forward direction. A good example is the aircraft or a boat.
19. In a stationery vertical plate, the jet after striking the plate will move _______
a) In opposite direction
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b) Along the plate

c) Perpendicular to the plate
d) Parallel to the plate
View Answer
arn
Answer: b
plate. It moves with respect to the angles that are developed with the plate.
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20. Jet propulsion works on the principle of________

a) Newton’s first law
b) Newton’s second law
w.
c) Newton’s third law

d) Thermodynamic properties
View Answer
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Answer: c
Explanation: Jet propulsion works on the principle of Newton’s third law. Newton’s third law
states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. Thus, the correct option
is Newton’s third law.
21. What does Cv in jet propulsion equation stand for?
a) Area of orifice
b) Velocity
c) Temperature coefficient
d) Velocity coefficient
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In a jet propulsion, Cv stands for velocity coefficient. The main application in
which this equation is applied is for a jet propulsion in the tank with orifice. Thus, the correct
option is coefficient of velocity in the orifice.
22. Which among the following is the formula for Force when it strikes the plate?
a) pav2
b) pav
c) pa
d) maE
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rate of change of momentum in the direction of force is given by the
formula pav2. Where p= Density of the fluid flow, a = acceleration of the fluid particle and v
= velocity of the fluid flowing.
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23. The movement of ships and boats in water is due to __________
a) Water currents
b) Jet propulsion
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c) Mass flow rate
d) Volumetric changes
View Answer
eri
Answer: b
Explanation: The movement of ships and boats in water is due to Jet propulsion. This mainly
happens at the back of the ship or boat. It occurs as it exerts force on the ship and the boat.
Thus, the correct option is Jet propulsion.
e
24. The inlet orifices are at what angle with the motion of the ship?
gin
a) 0
b) 30
c) 60
En
d) 90
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The inlet orifices are at right angles with respect to the motion of the ship. The
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main purpose of the inlet orifice is to take water from the sea by the pump. Thus, the correct
angle at which it moves is 90 degress.
25. Through inlet orifices, which are facing the direction of motion of the ship, the water from the
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sea can be taken by the pump.

a) True
b) False
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View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Through inlet orifices, which are facing the direction of motion of the ship, the
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water from the sea can be taken by the pump. We can also take the sea water from the
pump when the inlet orifices are at right angles with respect to the motion of the ship.
26. Which among the following is a formula for force when it acts perpendicular to the direction
of flow?
a) pav2 SinθCosθ
b) pav Sin2 θ
c) pa Sin2 θ
d) maE Sin2 θ
View Answer
Answer: a

jet and the other perpendicular to the jet. The formula for force when it acts perpendicular to
the direction of flow is equal to pav2SinθCosθ.
a) Sides
b) Surface
c) Centre
d) Does not strike
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A jet strikes a curved plate at its centre. Force exerted by a jet on a stationery
.in
jet.
28. Which among the following is the formula for relative velocity?
a) V + u
ng
b) Vu
c) V – u
d) V/u
eri
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Absolute relative velocity of a fluid related to the jet propulsion of the ship when
e
the inlet orifices are at right angles to the direction of the motion of the ship is given by V+u.
29. What is the equation for efficiency of jet propulsion?
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a) 2u/(V-2u)
b) 2u/(V+2u)
c) 2u/v
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d) V/2u
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The efficiency of a jet propulsion of the ship when the inlet orifices are at right
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angles to the direction of the motion of the ship is given by 2u/(V+2u).

30. A jet after striking a smooth plate comes out with a __________ velocity.
a) Increased
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b) Decreased
c) Same
d) Zero
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View Answer
Answer: c
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cases are classified depending on their position. After it strikes a smooth plate, its velocity
remains the same.
31. Component of velocity in direction of jet is -VCosθ. What does ‘θ’ indicate?
a) Angle made by jet
b) Angle made by jet and outlet tip
c) Angle made by jet and inlet tip
d) Tangent angle
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Component of velocity in direction of jet is -VCosθ. The negative sign indicates
the that the taken velocity at the outlet is opposite to the jet of water coming out from the
nozzle. ‘θ’ indicates the angle made by jet and inlet tip of the curved plate.
33. Principle of fluid mechanics works on the utilization of________

b) Volume
c) Work
d) Velocity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Principle of fluid mechanics works on the utilization of useful work. The
working is based on the force exerted by a fluid jet striking the surface and moving over a
series of vanes about its axis.
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View Answer
Answer: b
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35. The force analysis on a curved vane is understood using______
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a) Velocity triangles
b) Angle of the plate
c) Vane angles
d) Plate dimensions
View Answer e
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Answer: a
Explanation: The force analysis on a curved vane is understood using clearly using the study
of velocity triangles. There are two types of velocity triangles, inlet velocity triangle and
outlet velocity triangle.
En

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View Answer
Answer: c
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37. How is absolute velocity at inlet denoted?
a) V
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b) V1
c) C
d) v
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View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a jet propulsion, V1 stands for absolute velocity at the inlet. The main
application in which this equation is applied is for a jet propulsion in the tank with orifice.
Thus, the correct option is ‘b’.
38. The relative velocity is obtained by the equation_________
a) u – V1
b) V1
c) u*V1
d) u/V1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The relative velocity of the jet is denoted as V r1. It is the relative velocity at the

inlet to the vane. Relative velocity of inlet to the vane is obtained by subtracting vectorially
the velocity of the vane with its absolute velocity.
39. If the friction is neglected, then_______
a) Vr1 > Vr2
b) Vr1 < Vr2
c) Vr1 = Vr2
d) Vr1 is a zero
View Answer
Answer: c
the velocity of the vane with its absolute velocity. It happens in the same way for V r2. Thus, If
the fricti1.
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40. Principle of fluid mechanics works on the utilization of________
b) Volume
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c) Work
d) Velocity
View Answer
eri
Answer: c
Explanation: The Principle of fluid mechanics works on the utilization of useful work. The
working is based on the force exerted by a fluid jet striking the surface and moving over a
series of vanes about its axis.
e
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View Answer
En
Answer: b
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42. The force analysis on a curved vane is understood using______
a) Velocity triangles
b) Angle of the plate
c) Vane angles
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d) Plate dimensions
View Answer
Answer: a
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Explanation: The force analysis on a curved vane is understood using clearly using the study
of velocity triangles. There are two types of velocity triangles, inlet velocity triangle and
outlet velocity triangle.
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View Answer
Answer: c
44. How is absolute velocity at inlet denoted?
a) V
b) V1
c) C
d) v
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a jet propulsion, V1 stands for absolute velocity at the inlet. The main
application in which this equation is applied is for a jet propulsion in the tank with orifice.
Thus, the correct option is ‘b’.
45. The relative velocity is obtained by the equation_________
a) u – V1
b) V1
c) u*V1
d) u/V1
View Answer
Answer: a
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the velocity of the vane with its absolute velocity.
46. If the friction is neglected, then_______
a) Vr1 > Vr2
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b) Vr1 < Vr2
c) Vr1 = Vr2
d) Vr1 is a zero
eri
View Answer
Answer: c
e
the velocity of the vane with its absolute velocity. It happens in the same way for Vr2. Thus, If
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the friction is neglected, then Vr1 = Vr2.
47. If the pressure remains a constant, then ________
a) Vr1 > Vr2
b) Vr1 < Vr2
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c) Vr1 = Vr2
d) Vr1 is a zero
View Answer
Answer: c
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Explanation: The relative velocity of the jet is denoted as Vr1. It is the relative velocity at the
the velocity of the vane with its absolute velocity. It happens in the same way for V r2. Thus, If
the pressure remains a constant, then Vr1 = Vr2.
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48. Through inlet orifices, which are facing the direction of motion of the ship, the water from the
sea can be taken by the pump.
a) True
b) False
w.
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Through inlet orifices, which are facing the direction of motion of the ship, the
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water from the sea can be taken by the pump. We can also take the sea water from the
pump when the inlet orifices are at right angles with respect to the motion of the ship.
49. The efficiency of the vane is given by_________
a) 1-V22/ V12
b) 1-(V22/ V12)
c) V22/ V12
d) 1- V12
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a velocity triangle at the inlet and the outlet, the control volume is moving
with a uniform velocity. Therefore, the momentum theorem of the control volume is at a
steady flow. Thus, the efficiency of the vane is given by 1-(V22/ V12).
a) Sides
b) Surface
c) Centre
d) Does not strike
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A jet strikes a curved plate at its centre. Force exerted by a jet on a stationery
jet.
51. Jet propulsion of ship is less efficient than screw propeller due to_______
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Frictional losses
d) Wear and tear
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View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Jet propulsion of ship is less efficient than screw propeller due to large amount
of frictional losses developed in the pump and the pipeline. Thus, it is rarely used in ships.
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52. Jet propulsion of ship in a very shallow water is needed to_________
a) Avoid sinking of the ship
b) Avoid damage of the propeller
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c) Avoid current directions
d) Avoid surface damage
View Answer
Answer: b
e
Explanation: Jet propulsion of ship in a very shallow water is needed to avoid damage of the
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propeller. Jet propulsion of ship is less efficient than screw propeller due to large amount of
frictional losses developed in the pump and the pipeline.
53. A turbojet does not consist of which of the following component?
a) Compressor
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b) Combustion chamber
c) Gas turbine
d) Air filter
View Answer
arn
Answer: d
Explanation: A turbojet consists of four major components for an efficient working. The four
components are compressor, combustion chamber, gas turbine and a nozzle. Air filter is not
used in a turbojet.
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54. Which among the following is not a type of jet engine?

a) Turbojet
b) Ramjet
c) Scramjet
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d) Propulsive jet
View Answer
Answer: d
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Explanation: A jet engine is broadly classified into four types of jet. The four types of jet are
turbojet, ramjet, scramjet, and pulse jet. There isn’t anything related to the propulsive jet
and thus cannot be the answer.
55. Hydraulic energy is converted into another form of energy by hydraulic machines. What form
of energy is that?
a) Mechanical Energy
b) Electrical Energy
c) Nuclear Energy
d) Elastic Energy
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Hydraulic machines firstly convert the energy possessed by water into
mechanical energy. Later it can be transformed into electrical energy.
56. In hydraulic turbines, inlet energy is greater than the outlet energy.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The operating member which receives energy at the inlet should be more
compared to energy at the outlet.
57. Which principle is used in Hydraulic Turbines?
a) Faraday law
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c) Charles law
d) Braggs law
ng
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A Hydraulic Machine uses the principle of momentum which states that a force is
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generated which is utilized in a turbine.
58. Buckets and blades used in a turbine are used to:
a) Alter the direction of water
b) Switch off the turbine
c) To regulate the wind speed e
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d) To regenerate the power
View Answer
Answer: a
En
Explanation: Turbines use blades and buckets to alter the direction of water. It is used to
change the momentum of water. As momentum changes, force is produced to rotate the
shaft of a hydraulic machine.
59. _______________is the electric power obtained from the energy of the water.
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a) Roto dynamic power

b) Thermal power
c) Nuclear power
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d) Hydroelectric power
View Answer
Answer: d
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Explanation: The energy from the energy of water is also called hydro power. The electric
power so obtained is known as hydroelectric power.
60. Which energy generated in a turbine is used to run electric power generator linked to the
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turbine shaft?
a) Mechanical Energy
b) Potential Energy
c) Elastic Energy
d) Kinetic Energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The kinetic and potential energies produced are converted to some useful
mechanical energy. This part of energy is available to the turbine shaft.
61. Hydraulic Machines fall under the category :
a) Pulverizers
b) Kinetic machinery
c) Condensers
d) Roto-dynamic machinery
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydraulic Machines use the principle of rotation of blades to alter the speed of
water. Hence fall under roto dynamic machinery.
62. Which kind of turbines changes the pressure of the water entered through it?
a) Reaction turbines
b) Impulse turbines
c) Reactive turbines
d) Kinetic turbines
View Answer
.in
Answer: a
Explanation: Reaction turbines which act on water try to change the pressure of the water
through its motion.
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63. Which type of turbine is used to change the velocity of the water through its flow?
a) Kinetic turbines
b) Axial flow turbines
eri
c) Impulse turbines
d) Reaction turbines
View Answer
Answer: c
e
Explanation: In Impulse turbines, potential energy is utilized to convert as kinetic energy
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thereby changing the velocity of the water through its process.
64. Which type of turbine is a Francis Turbine?
a) Impulse Turbine
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b) Screw Turbine
c) Reaction turbine
d) Turgo turbine
View Answer
arn
Answer: c
Explanation: Francis turbine is a reaction turbine as it changes the pressure of water through
its process. Hence it cannot be an impulse turbine.
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65. How many types of Reaction turbines are there?

a) 5
b) 4
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c) 3
d) 9
View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: There are five types of reaction turbines namely VLH, Francis, Kaplan, Tyson,
Gorolov helical turbine.
66. Turgo Turbine is an impulsive turbine.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a turgo turbine, velocity of water changes with due respect. Hence it is an
Impulse turbine.
67. Which kind of turbine is a Fourneyron Turbine?
a) Inward flow turbine
b) Outward flow turbine

c) Mixed flow turbine
d) Radial flow turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a Fourneyron turbine, the flow is centrifugal type. The flow is outwards from
the centre to the periphery.
68. Maximum Number of jets, generally, employed in an impulse turbine without jet interference
can be?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
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d) 6
View Answer
Answer: d
ng
Explanation: Equating equations of initial jet velocity and energy of a turbine, we get the
minimum number of jets to be 6.
69. The overall efficiency of a reaction turbine is the ratio of
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a) Actual work available at the turbine to the energy imparted to the wheel
b) Work done on the wheel to the energy (or head of water) actually supplied to the turbine
c) Power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by the turbine
e
d) Actual work available at the turbine to energy imparted to the wheel
View Answer
gin
Answer: a
Explanation: The overall efficiency of any turbine will be mechanical efficiency * hydraulic
efficiency.
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70. In a reaction turbine, the draft tube is used to _________

a) To increase the head of water by an amount that is equal to the height of the runner outlet
above the tail race
b) To prevent air to enter the turbine
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c) To increase pressure energy of water

d) To transport water to downstream
View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: A draft tube influences performance of a turbine. It is located below the runner
to decelerate flow velocity.
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71. In reaction turbine hydraulic efficiency is______________

a) Ratio of actual work at the turbine to the energy imparted to the wheel.
b) Ratio of work done on the wheel to energy that is supplied to the turbine.
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c) Ratio of power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by the turbine.
d) Ratio of Work done on the wheel to the energy (or head of water) actually supplied to the
turbine.
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In turbines, overall efficiency is the product of hydraulic and mechanical
efficiencies. Here the hydraulic efficiency is ratio of work done to head of water.
72. Consider an inward flow reaction turbine, here, water _______
a) Flows parallel to the axis of the wheel
b) Enters the wheel at the outer periphery and then flows towards the centre of the wheel
c) Flow is partly radial and partly axial

d) Enters at the centre of the wheel and then flows towards the outer periphery of the wheel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In any inward reaction flow turbine, water enters the outer periphery towards
the centre of the wheel.
73. The working of which of the following hydraulic units is based on Pascal’s law?
a) Air lift pump
b) Hydraulic coupling
c) Hydraulic press
d) Jet pump
View Answer
Answer: c
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Explanation: Pascal’s law can be described as the rate of flow of volume is constant.
Hydraulic press uses similar principle.
74. Which kind of turbine is a Pelton Wheel turbine?
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a) Tangential flow turbine.
b) Radial flow turbine
c) Outward flow turbine
eri
d) Inward flow turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
e
Explanation: Tangential turbine is one which water strikes runner in direction of the tangent
to wheel of the turbine.
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75. IN what type of turbine water enters in radial direction and leaves axial direction?
a) Tangential flow turbine
b) Axial flow turbine
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c) Outward flow turbine

d) Mixed flow turbine
View Answer
Answer: d
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Explanation: Only in a mixed flow turbine, water enters in radial direction and leaves axial
direction.
76. How many types of turbines can you classify on the basis of direction of flow through runner?
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a) 6
b) 3
c) 4
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d) 7
View Answer
Answer: c
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Explanation: There are 4 types of turbines, namely tangential, radial, axial , mixed flow
turbines.
77. Into how many types can you classify radial flow turbines?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 6
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: We can classify radial flow turbines into 2 types, namely inward radial flow and
outward radial flow.

78. Into how many types can you classify turbines on basis of head at inlet?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 6
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: We can classify turbines into 3 types on basis of head. Into high head, low head,
medium head discharged.
79. Among the following which turbine requires more head?
a) Pelton Turbine
b) Kaplan Turbine
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c) Francis turbine
d) Tube Turbine
View Answer
ng
Answer: a
Explanation: Except Pelton remaining are reaction turbines, in impulse pressure energy is
constant and only available energy is kinetic energy which is directly proportional to head.
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80. 2.Total head of turbines is_______
a) Pressure head + Static head
b) Kinetic head + Static head
c) Static head + Pressure head
e
d) Pressure head + Kinetic head + Static head
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View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Generally total is calculated as sum of pressure head, static head and kinetic
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head.
81. Head under which Kaplan turbine is operated______
a) 10-70 meters
b) 70 -100 meters
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c) 100-200 meters
d) Above 200 meters
View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: Kaplan turbine is reaction turbine and it operates at low head 10-70 meters and
output power is 5-200 MW.
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82. Head under which Francis turbine is operated

a) 10-70 meters
b) 70-100 meters
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c) 100-200 meters
d) 40 -600 meters
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Francis turbine is also reaction turbine but pressure energy is less when
compared with Kaplan turbine .hence head is between 40 and 600 meters.
83. The turbine is preferred for 0 to 25 m head of water?
a) Pelton wheel
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Tube turbine
d) Francis turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Kaplan is reaction turbine and its range of operation is between 10-70 meters
which has output range between 5-200 MW.
84. Under what head is Pelton turbine operated?
a) 20-50 meters
b) 15-2000 meters
c) 60-200 meters
d) 50-500 meters
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pelton turbine is an impulse turbine only energy available is kinetic energy which
is proportional to head, hence it requires high head. Theoretically there is no limit to max
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value of head.
85. _____________ is difference between head race and tail race
a) Gross head
ng
b) Net head
c) Net positive suction head
d) Manometric head
eri
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gross head is the difference in elevation of water levels of fore bay and tail race.
86. The head available at inlet of turbine
a) Net positive suction head e
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b) Gross head
c) Net head
d) Manometric head
En
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is the available effective head used for production. This is also called as static
gross head.
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87. Head lost due to friction is given by k*f*L*v*v/D*2g where f- friction coefficient, L- length of
pen stock, D- diameter of penstock and” k” is constant and its value is ____________
a) 2
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b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
w.
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The constant determined from the given formula is 4.
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88. The difference between gross head and friction losses is ____________
a) Net head
b) Gross head
c) Manometric head
d) Net positive suction head
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Net head is the effective head used to calculate power production. It includes
the elimination of frictional losses from the gross head
89. _____________ is defined as ratio between power delivered to runner and power supplied at
inlet of turbine.
a) Mechanical efficiency
b) Volumetric efficiency
c) Hydraulic efficiency
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydraulic efficiency is defined as ratio between power given by water to runner
of turbine and to the power supplied by water at inlet of the turbine.
90. Which among the following which is not an efficiency of turbine?
d) Electrical efficiency
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View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Electrical efficiency is ratio of work output and electrical power input to electrical
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machine but turbine is a hydraulic machine which consists of only mechanical, volumetric and
hydraulic efficiencies.
91. The ratio of power at the shaft of turbine and power delivered by water to runner is known
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as?
d) Overall efficiency e
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View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to mechanical losses, power available at shaft of turbine is less than power
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delivered to the runner of turbine. Hence ratio of power at the shaft of turbine and power
delivered by water to runner is known as mechanical efficiency.
92. The product of mechanical efficiency and hydraulic efficiency is known as?
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View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Overall efficiency is defined as ratio of power available at shaft of turbine to
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power supplied at the inlet of turbine which is also product of mechanical and hydraulic
efficiency.
93. Among the following which turbine has highest efficiency?
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a) Kaplan turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Pelton turbine
d) Propeller turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Kaplan is inward flow reaction turbine and is operated under head less than 60
meters. The vanes attached to hub are adjustable and Kaplan is mainly operated in location
where large quantity of water at low head is available.
94. _____________ is ratio of volume of water actually striking the runner and volume of water
supplied to turbine?
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Volumetric efficiency is ratio between volume of water actually striking the
runner of turbine and volume of water supplied to the turbine.
95. In the expression for overall efficiency of turbine, which is p/(k*g*q*h), where “k” is known
as
a) Density of liquid
b) Specific density of liquid
c) Volume of liquid
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d) Specific gravity of liquid
View Answer
Answer: a
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efficiency. Its expression is given by p/(k*g*q*h) where k is density of liquid.
eri
96. The expression for maximum hydraulic efficiency of pelton turbine is given by?
a) (1+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle
b) (2+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle
e
c) (3+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle
d) (4+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle
gin
View Answer
Answer: a
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of turbine and to the power supplied by water at inlet of the turbine. Its maximum value is
obtained by replacing u=v/2 and it is (1+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle.
97. To obtain maximum hydraulic efficiency of pelton turbine, blade velocity should be
___________ Times the inlet velocity of jet.
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a) Half
b) One quarter
c) Twice
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d) Thrice
View Answer
Answer: a
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of turbine and to the power supplied by water at inlet of the turbine. This efficiency will be
maximum when differentiating it with “u” and it is obtained as u=v/2.
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98. Among the following which turbine has least efficiency?

a) Pelton turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Francis turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pelton turbine is an impulse turbine, where there is no theoretical limit for head
due to high head there is loss due to friction when water passing through penstocks hence its
efficiency is less.
99. The ratio of volume available at shaft of turbine and power supplied at the inlet of the turbine
View Answer
Answer: d
efficiency.
100. A hydraulic coupling belongs to the category of________
a) Energy absorbing machines
b) Energy generating machines
c) Power absorbing machines
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d) Energy transfer machines
View Answer
Answer: d
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Explanation: Hydraulic coupling is a device used for transmitting rotation between shafts by
means of acceleration and deceleration of hydraulic fluid.
101. The electric power which is obtained from hydraulic energy____________
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a) Thermal power
b) Mechanical power
c) Solar power
d) Hydroelectric power
View Answer e
gin
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydroelectric power is generated by using hydraulic machines. Potential energy
of water is converted to mechanical energy which is connected to dynamo to generate
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electrical energy.
102. At present which is cheapest means of generating power_____________
a) Thermal power
b) Nuclear power
arn
c) Hydroelectric power
d) Electric Power
View Answer
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Answer: c
Explanation: Hydraulic energy is renewable source of energy in which Potential energy of
water is converted to mechanical energy which is connected to dynamo to generate electrical
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energy.
103. Pipes of largest diameter which carry water from reservoir to the turbines is known
as_____________
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a) Head stock
b) Tail race
c) Tail stock
d) Pen stock
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Penstocks are channels which transport water from reservoir to turbines which
are usually made up of cast iron or concrete.
104. Pen stocks are made up of_____________
a) Steel
b) Cast iron
c) Mild steel
d) Wrought iron
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Penstocks are channels which transport water from reservoir to turbines which
are usually made up of cast iron or concrete.
105. ____________is an inward radial flow reaction turbine?
a) Pelton turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Francis turbine
View Answer
Answer: c
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Explanation: Kaplan and propeller are outward axial flow reaction turbines but Francis is
outward radial flow reaction turbine.
106. The important type of axial flow reaction turbines are ______________
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a) Propeller and Pelton turbines
b) Kaplan and Francis turbines
c) Propeller and Francis turbines
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d) Propeller and Kaplan turbines
View Answer
Answer: d
e
Explanation: Axial flow turbine is a turbine in which water flows axially outwards and turbines
fall into this category are propeller and Kaplan turbines.
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107. ______________ is a axial flow reaction turbines, if vanes are fixed to hub of turbine
a) Propeller turbine
b) Francis turbine
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c) Kaplan turbine
d) Pelton turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
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Explanation: Axial flow turbine is a turbine in which water flows axially outwards, if vanes are
fixed to hub of turbine it is known as Propeller turbine but if vanes are free to move it is
known as Kaplan Turbine.
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108. Francis and Kaplan turbines are known as _______

a) Impulse turbine
b) Reaction turbine
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c) Axial flow turbine

View Answer
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Answer: b
Explanation: Francis and Kaplan are reaction turbines because pressure energy of water
changes when it enters the rotor.
109. Specific speed of reaction turbine is between?
a) 5 and 50
b) 10 and 100
c) 100 and 150
d) 150 and 300
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Specific turbines of reaction turbines such as Francis and Kaplan lie under the
range 10-100.
110. Impulse turbine is generally fitted at ______________

a) At the level of tail race
b) Above the tail race
c) Below the tail race
d) About 2.5mts above tail race to avoid cavitations.
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Impulse turbine is fitted above the tail race because in impulse turbines, the
pressure energy must convert into kinetic energy for usage.
111. Hydraulic turbines are classified based on ____________
a) Energy available at inlet of turbine
b) Direction of flow through vanes
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c) Head at inlet of turbine
d) Energy available, Direction of flow, Head at inlet.
View Answer
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Answer: d
Explanation: Hydraulic Turbines can be classified on any basis like energy supplied, direction
of flow, and head at inlet.
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112. Impulse turbine and reaction turbine are classified based on ?
a) Type of energy at inlet
b) Direction of flow through runner
d) Specific speed of turbine e
gin
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In impulse turbine, pressure energy firstly converts into kinetic energy but in
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reaction turbine pressure change of water is present only when it passes through the rotor of
the turbine.
113. Tangential flow, axial flow, radial flow turbines are classified based on?
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d) Specific speed of turbine
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View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Different types of flow of water classify turbines into tangential, axial, radial
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flow.
114. High head, low head and medium head turbines are classified based on
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View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Different heads of turbines classifies turbines based on their heads, namely
Kaplan, Francis, Pelton.
115. Low specific speed, high specific speed and medium specific speed are classified based
on

View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Different specific speed of turbines classifies turbines based on their heads,
namely Kaplan, Francis, Pelton.
116. If energy available at inlet of turbine is only kinetic energy then it is classified based
on
View Answer
.in
Answer: a
Explanation: When there is energy such as kinetic energy at inlet, turbines is classified based
on their energies at inlet. In this case, it is an impulse turbine.
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117. If water flows in radial direction at inlet of runner and leaves axially at outlet then
turbine is named as
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b) Axial flow turbine
c) Radial flow turbine
View Answer
Answer: d e
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Explanation: In a mixed flow turbine, water enters in radial direction and exits axially.
118. Pelton turbine is operated under_________
a) Low head and high discharge
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b) High head and low discharge

c) Medium head and high discharge
d) Medium head and medium discharge
View Answer
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Answer: b
Explanation: Based on heads and discharges, turbines are classified into Pelton, Francis or
Kaplan. Pelton has high head and low discharge.
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119. Kaplan turbine is operated under __________

a) Low head and high discharge
b) High head and low discharge
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c) Medium head and high discharge

d) Medium head and medium discharge
View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: Based on heads and discharges, turbines are classified into Pelton, Francis or
Kaplan. Kaplan has low head and high discharge.
120. Medium specific speed of turbine implies _____________
a) Pelton turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Francis turbine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Francis turbine is a widely used turbine. It has a medium specific speed.

121. High specific speed of turbine implies that it is___________

a) Francis turbine
b) Propeller turbine
c) Pelton turbine
d) Kaplan turbine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Kaplan turbines have high specific speeds compared to Francis and Pelton
turbines.
122. Velocity triangles are used to analyze ____________
a) Flow of water along blades of turbine
b) Measure discharge of flow
.in
c) Angle of deflection of jet
d) Flow of water, measure of discharge, angle of deflection.
View Answer
ng
Answer: d
Explanation: By using velocity triangles we can determine discharge of flow, angle of
deflection of jet and to measure relative velocity of jet with respect to speed of wheel.
eri
123. In which of following turbine inlet and outlet blade velocities of vanes are equal?
a) Francis turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Pelton turbine
d) Propeller turbine e
gin
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In Pelton turbine each blade has same angular velocity and same linear speed
En
unlike Francis and Kaplan turbines.

124. Tangential velocity of blade of Pelton wheel is proportional to ____________
a) Speed of wheel
b) Angular velocity of wheel
arn
c) Rpm of wheel
d) Speed, angular velocity, RPM of the wheel
View Answer
Le
Answer: a
Explanation: Usually velocity of blade is given by u=radius*angular velocity from which
velocity is proportional to speed of wheel.
w.
125. The value of coefficient of velocity is _____________

a) 0.98
b) 0.65
ww
c) 0.85
d) 0.33
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Coefficient of velocity is defined as ratio of actual velocity of jet at vena
contraction to theoretical velocity. Its value is approximate to 0.98.
126. In which of following turbine inlet whirl velocity and inlet jet velocity are equal in
magnitude?
a) Pelton turbine
b) Propeller turbine
c) Kaplan turbine

d) Francis turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Pelton turbine velocity of inlet is parallel to splitter and is parallel to x axis
which doesn’t have flow velocity.
127. In Pelton wheel, if outlet velocity angle of jet is “acute angled” then outlet whirl
velocity of jet is ______________
a) x- component of V(r2) – blade velocity
b) x- component of V (r2) + blade velocity
c) Blade velocity – x- component of V (r2)
d) Zero
View Answer
.in
Answer: a
Explanation: By constructing velocity triangle we come to know that whirl velocity of jet is
equal in magnitude to that of x- component of V r2 – blade velocity.
ng
128. In Pelton wheel, if outlet velocity angle of jet is “obtuseangled” then outlet whirl
velocity of jet is _____________
a) x- component of V (r2) – blade velocity
eri
d) Zero
View Answer
Answer: c e
gin
Explanation:By constructing velocity triangle we come to know that whirl velocity of jet is
equal in magnitude to that of Blade velocity – x- component of V (r2).
129. In Pelton wheel, if outlet velocity angle of jet is “right angled” then outlet whirl
En
velocity of jet is __________

a) x- component of V (r2) – blade velocity
arn
d) Zero
View Answer
Answer: d
Le
Explanation: By constructing velocity triangle we come to know that whirl velocity of jet is
equal to zero as x- component of V(r2)= blade velocity.
130. In Pelton wheel, relative inlet velocity of jet with respect to velocity of vane is
w.
_____________
a) Difference between inlet jet velocity and blade velocity
b) Sum of inlet jet velocity and blade velocity
ww
c) Inlet jet velocity

d) Blade velocity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Pelton turbine, inlet velocity of jet and velocity of vanes are in same direction
and of different magnitude hence relative velocity is found by calculating its difference.
131. In Pelton wheel if angle of deflection is not mentioned then we assume it
as______________
a) 150 degrees
b) 200 degrees
c) 165 degrees

d) 185 degrees
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is standard value for deflection of jet, which is found by performing several
experimental operations.
132. The work done per unit weight of water jet striking runner blades of Pelton turbine is
given by expression ______________
a) [Vw1+Vw2] u/g
b) Vw1*u/g
c) [Vw1+Vw2]/g
d) [Vw1+Vw2]u
View Answer
.in
Answer: a
Explanation: Generally work done is force times velocity and expression for it is PQ
[Vw1+Vw2] u/g and work done per unit weight gives [Vw1+Vw2]u/g.
ng
133. In Pelton turbine the energy available at inlet of runner that is at outlet of nozzle is
known as
a) Shaft power
eri
b) Runner power
c) Output power
d) Water power
View Answer
Answer: b e
gin
Explanation: In Pelton turbine the energy available at inlet of runner that is at outlet of nozzle
is known as runner power, the energy available in penstock is water energy.
134. In Pelton turbines the expression for power delivered at inlet to runner is given by
En
__________
a) W*[Vw1+Vw2]u/g
b) W*[Vw1-Vw2]u/g
c) W*[Vw1+Vw2]u/g, W*[Vw1-Vw2]u/g
arn
d) [Vw1+Vw2]u/g
View Answer
Answer: c
Le
Explanation: Generally work done is force times velocity and expression for it is PQ
[Vw1+Vw2] u/g and work done per unit weight gives [Vw1+Vw2]u/g.
135. In Pelton turbine runner power is more when compared with power available at exit of
w.
nozzle.
a) True
b) False
ww
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Runner power is less when compared with power available at exit of nozzle due
to frictional losses.
136. Kinetic energy of jet at inlet of turbine is given as __________________
a) 0.5(paV1)*V1
b) 0.5(paV1)*V1*V1
c) 0.5(aV1)*V1*V1
d) 0.5(pV1)*V1*V1
p= density of liquid, a= area of jet, V1= inlet jet velocity
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Expression for kinetic energy is product of half times mass and square of
velocity, mass can be written as density time volume.
137. The force exerted by a jet of water in the direction of jet of jet on a stationary curved
plates Fx is ____________
a) pav*v
b) pav
c) pav*v(1+cos k)
d) pav*v(1+sin k)
p=density, v= velocity of jet, k= blade angle
View Answer
Answer: c
.in
Explanation: Generally force is rate of change of momentum, in curved blade of angle k
change of momentum will be pav*v (1+cos k).
138. The force exerted by a jet of water in the direction of jet of jet on moving curved
ng
plates is ___________
a) pa(v-u)*(v-u)
b) pa(v-u)
eri
c) pav*(v-u)(1+cos k)
d) pa(v-u)*(v-u)(1+sin k)
p=density, v= velocity of jet, k= blade angle, u= blade velocity
View Answer
Answer: c e
gin
Explanation: Generally force is rate of change of momentum, in curved blade of angle k
change of momentum will bepav*(v-u)(1+cos k) here relative velocity is considered than
absolute.
En
139. Calculate work done by jet per second on the runner where, discharge=0.7cubic
meters/s, inlet and outlet whirl velocities be 23.77 and 2.94?
a) 200Kw
b) 150Kw
arn
c) 187Kw
d) 250Kw
View Answer
Le
Answer: c
Explanation: As we know the expression for work done per second is W*[Vw1+Vw2] u/g on
substituting the above given values we get it as 187Kw.
w.
140. The power supplied at inlet of turbine in S.I units is known as_____________
a) Shaft power
d) Runner power
ww
c) Water power
d) Total power
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The power supplied at inlet of turbine in S.I units is known as water energy,
which contain both kinetic energy and pressure energy.
141. 10.The expression for water power in Pelton wheel is ________________
a) (P*g*Q*H) Kw
b) (g*Q*H*a) Kw
c) (g*Q) Kw
d) (g*H) Kw
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Expression for water power of Pelton turbine is potential energy of water which
is converted into kinetic energy
can be written as (P*g*Q*H) Kw.
142. The hydraulic efficiency of Pelton turbine will be maximum when blade velocity is
equal to _______
a) V/2
b) V/3
c) V/4
d) V/5
View Answer
Answer: a
.in
of turbine and to the power supplied by water at inlet of the turbine. This efficiency will be
maximum when differentiating it with “u” and it is obtained as u=v/2.
ng
143. In Pelton turbine ___________ is defined as ratio between power delivered to runner
and power supplied at inlet of turbine
eri
View Answer
Answer: c e
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of turbine and to the power supplied by water at inlet of the turbine.
144. The maximum efficiency of Pelton turbine is _________
En
a) 80%
b) 70%
c) 50%
d) 88%
arn
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: We know that efficiency will be Maximumwhen blade velocity is equal to half of
Le
its jet velocity upon substitution we get efficiency as 50%.

145. In Pelton turbine product of mechanical efficiency and hydraulic efficiency is known as
_____________
w.
ww
View Answer
Answer: d
efficiency.
146. Among the following which turbine has least efficiency?
a) Pelton turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Francis turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pelton is impulse turbine and remaining are reaction turbine, efficiency of
reaction turbine is more compared to impulse turbine.
147. In Pelton ____________ is ratio of volume of water actually striking the runner and
volume of water supplied to turbine?
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Volumetric efficiency is ratio between volume of water actually striking the
.in
runner of turbine and volume of water supplied to the turbine.
148. In Pelton turbine the ratio of volume available at shaft of turbine and power supplied
at the inlet of the turbine is _______
ng
eri
View Answer
Answer: d
e
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efficiency.
149. The expression for maximum hydraulic efficiency of Pelto turbine is given by
______________
En
a) (1+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle

b) (2+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle
c) (3+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle
d) (4+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle
arn
View Answer
Answer: a
Le
of turbine and to the power supplied by water at inlet of the turbine. Its maximum value is
obtained by replacing u=v/2 and it is (1+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle.
150. In the expression for overall efficiency of turbine, which is p/ (k*g*q*h), where “k” is
w.
known as _______
a) Specific density of liquid
b) Density of liquid
ww
c) Specific gravity of liquid

d) Volume of liquid
View Answer
Answer: b
efficiency. Its expression is given by p/ (k*g*q*h) where k is density of liquid.
151. In Pelton turbine hydraulic efficiency is product of mechanical efficiency and overall
efficiency.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The above statement is false generally overall efficiency is product of
mechanical and hydraulic efficiency.
152. The expression for hydraulic efficiency is given by
a) 2(V1-u)[1+cos k]u/V1*V1
b) 2(V1+u)[1+cos k]u/V1*V1
c) 2(V1-u)[1-cos k]u/V1*V1
d) 2(V1+u)[1+cos k]u/V1*V1
Where, V1=inlet jet velocity, u=blade velocity, k=outlet blade angle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydraulic efficiency is ratio of power delivered to runner to power supplied at
.in
inlet of turbine upon substituting the mathematical terms we get expression as follows.
153. In Pelton turbine inlet velocity of jet is 85.83m/s, inlet and outlet whirl velocities be
85.83 and 0.143 and blade velocity be 38.62 then its hydraulic efficiency is ___________
ng
a) 90.14%
b) 80%
c) 70%
eri
d) 85%
View Answer
Answer: a
e
Explanation: Substitute the above given values in expression for hydraulic efficiency which is
given by expression 2[Vw1+Vw2] u/V1*V1 and we get it as 90.14%.
gin
154. Design of Pelton wheel means the following data is to be determined.
a) Width of buckets
b) Depth of buckets
En
c) Number of buckets
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
arn
Explanation: In design of Pelton wheel we determine diameter of jet, diameter of runner,

Width of buckets, Depth of buckets, Number of buckets on runner.
155. The width of buckets of Pelton wheel is _________________
Le
a) 2 times diameter of jet

b) 3 times diameter of jet
c) 4 times diameter of jet
w.
d) 5 times diameter of jet

View Answer
Answer: d
ww
Explanation: To obtain Pelton wheel of higher efficiency, width of buckets is specified as 5

times diameter of jet by considering several experimental observations.
156. The depth of buckets of Pelton wheel ____________
a) 1.2 times diameter of jet
b) 1.3 times diameter of jet
c) 1.4 times diameter of jet
d) 1.5 times diameter of jet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To obtain Pelton wheel of higher efficiency, depth of buckets is specified as 1.2

157. The ratio of pitch diameter of Pelton wheel to diameter of jet is known as
___________
a) Speed ratio
b) Jet ratio
c) Velocity ratio
d) Co-efficient of velocity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of pitch diameter of Pelton wheel to diameter of jet is known as jet
ratio.
158. Find the diameter of jet D, if jet ratio m and diameter of jet d are given as 10 and
125mm.
.in
a) 1.25 meters
b) 1.5 meters
c) 2 meters
ng
d) 1.2 meters
View Answer
Answer: a
eri
Explanation: Expression for jet ratio is m=D/d which is 10*0.125= 1.25 meters.
159. The number of buckets of Pelton wheel is 25 and diameter of runner is 1.5meters then
calculate diameter of jet is ___________
a) 80mm
b) 85mm e
gin
c) 90mm
d) 82mm
View Answer
En
Answer: b
Explanation: The expression for measuring number of buckets is 15 + diameter of runner/2
times diameter of jet by using this expression we get diameter of jet as 85mm.
160. In most of cases the value of jet ratio is _______________
arn
a) 10
b) 11
c) 12
Le
d) 13
View Answer
Answer: c
w.
Explanation: Jet ratio is 12 because in most of Pelton turbines diameter of runner is 12 times
the diameter of jet.
161. Number of buckets on runner of Pelton wheel is given by expression? (D-diameter of
ww
runner and d- diameter of jet)

a) 15 + D/2d
b) 15 + 3D/2d
c) 15 + D/d
d) 15 + 2D/d
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To obtain Pelton wheel of higher efficiency, number of buckets is specified as 15
+ D/2d by considering several experimental observations.
162. ____________ is obtained by dividing total rate of flow through the turbine by rate of
flow through single jet.
a) Number of jets
b) Diameter of jets
c) Velocity of jets
d) Speed ratio
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Total discharge is sum of individual discharges hence, by dividing total rate of
flow through the turbine by rate of flow through single jet we get number of jets.
163. If diameter of jet is 85mm and diameter of runner is 1.5 meter then calculate width of
buckets.
a) 400mm
b) 500mm
c) 420mm
.in
d) 425mm
View Answer
Answer: d
ng
Explanation: The expression for measuring width of buckets is 5*diameter of jet, which is
5*85=425mm.
164. If diameter of jet is 85mm and diameter of runner is 1.5 meter then depth of buckets
eri
is ___________
a) 100mm
b) 105mm
c) 106mm
d) 102mm e
gin
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The expression for measuring depth of buckets is 1.2*diameter of jet, which is
En
1.2*85=102mm.
165. If diameter of jet is 85mm and diameter of runner is 1.5 meter then calculate number
of buckets on Pelton wheel approximately
a) 20
arn
b) 22
c) 23
d) 25
Le
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The expression for measuring number of buckets is 15 + diameter of runner/2
w.
time’s diameter of jet, which are 15 + 1.5/2*0.085.

166. The width of Pelton wheel should be 5 times the diameter of jet?
a) True
ww
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To obtain Pelton wheel of higher efficiency, width of buckets is specified as 5
167. The ratio of diameter of jet to diameter of runner is _____________
a) 1:3
b) 1:6
c) 1:5
d) 3:4
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: To obtain Pelton wheel of higher efficiency, diameter of runner is 5 times
diameter of jet by considering several experimental observations.
168. Radial flow reaction turbines are those turbines in which water flows ____________
a) Radial direction
b) Axial direction
c) Tangential direction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The name itself indicates the type of flow that is radial direction but the thing
that is unknown is whether it is radially inward or outwards.
.in
169. Main parts of radial flow reaction turbines are ______________
a) Casing
b) Guide mechanism
ng
c) Draft tube
View Answer
eri
Answer: d
Explanation: The main parts in a radial turbine are tight casing to prevent spill of water,
runner, guide vanes, guide mechanism to regulate flow and draft to increase inlet pressure.
170.
e
Discharge through radial flow reaction turbine is ______________
a) P1*b1*Vf1
gin
b) P2*b2*Vf2
c) P1*b2*Vf2
d) Both P1*b1*Vf1 & P2*b2*Vf2
En
Where, P1= perimeter of runner at inlet, P2= perimeter of runner at outlet, b= thickness and
Vf= flow velocity
View Answer
Answer: d
arn
Explanation: Discharge of radial flow reaction turbine is product of perimeter of runner,

thickness, whirl velocity, at inlet as well as outlet runner vanes.
171. Radial flow reaction turbines contain spiral casing which area ____________
Le
a) Remains constant
b) Gradually decreases
c) Gradually increases
w.
d) Suddenly decreases
View Answer
Answer: b
ww
Explanation: Area of spiral structure gradually decreases because as discharge decreases

correspondingly area also decreases. So, runner will rotate with constant velocity.
172. ____________ consists of stationary circular wheel all around the runner of turbine
a) Casing
b) Guide mechanism
c) Runner
d) Drafting
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Guide vanes are placed around the runner to regulate the flow and to provide
shock less entry at inlet to runner.

173. The casing of radial flow reaction turbine is made of spiral shape, so that water may
enter the runner__________
a) Variable acceleration
b) Constant acceleration
c) Variable velocity
d) Constant velocity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Area of spiral structure gradually decreases because as discharge decreases
correspondingly area also decreases. So, runner will rotate with constant velocity.
174. _____________ allow the water to strike the vanes fixed on runner without shock at
inlet
.in
a) Casing
b) Guide vanes
c) Runner
ng
d) Draft tube
View Answer
Answer: b
eri
175. Runner blades are made up of _____________
a) Cast steel
b) Cast iron e
gin
c) Wrought iron
d) Steel
View Answer
En
Answer: a
Explanation: Runner blades are made up of cast steel because they are less corrosive and
highly durable.
176. The pressure at the exit of runner of reaction turbine is generally____________than
arn
atmospheric pressure
a) Greater
b) Lesser
Le
c) Constant
d) Equal
View Answer
w.
Answer: b
Explanation: In general, the exit of runner has a low pressure compared to the atmospheric
pressure.
ww
177. ___________is a pipe of gradually increasing area used for discharging water from
exit of the turbine to the tail race
a) Casing
b) Guide mechanism
c) Draft tube
d) Runner
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Draft is a pipe of gradually increasing area, as water leaving runner has less
pressure, draft tube will increase pressure energy of water by decreasing its velocity.
178. ____________and __________of radial flow reaction turbine are always full of water.
a) Casing and runner
b) Casing and penstocks

c) Runner and penstocks
d) Runner and draft tube
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Casing and runner are completely covered by water as it is a reaction turbine in
which pressure energy is predominant.
179. ____________governs the flow of water entering the runner blades.
a) Casing
b) Guide vanes
c) Draft tube
d) Runner
.in
View Answer
Answer: b
ng
180. Spiral casing of reaction turbine will regulate the flow?
a) True
eri
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
e
gin
181. Inward radial flow reaction turbine is a turbine in which water flows across the blades
of runner______________
a) Radial direction
En
b) Radially inward
c) Radially outward
d) Axial direction
View Answer
arn
Answer: b
Explanation: The name itself indicates that flow is in radial direction and flowing from outer
periphery towards center.
Le
182. Which of following is inward radial flow reaction turbine?

a) Pelton wheel
b) Francis turbine
w.
c) Axial turbine
d) Kaplan turbine
View Answer
ww
Answer: b
Explanation: Pelton is impulse a turbine, Kaplan is axial flow turbine and Francis is an inward
flow reaction turbine.
183. In Inward radial flow reaction turbine which is not required?
a) Runner
b) Air tight casing
c) Guide vanes
d) Breaking jet
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Here in inward flow reaction turbine, instead of jet water is passed into spiral
casing directly and breaking jet is not used for its halt instead of it guide vanes are used.
184. The main difference between reaction turbine and inward radial flow reaction turbine is
water flows___________
a) Radial direction
b) Radially inward
c) Radially outward
d) Axial direction
View Answer
Answer: b
185. In Inward radial flow reaction turbine the ratio of tangential wheel at inlet to given
velocity of jet is known as _______
.in
a) Speed ratio
b) Flow ratio
c) Discharge
ng
d) Radial discharge
View Answer
Answer: b
eri
Explanation: Flow ratio is known as ratio of tangential wheel at inlet to given velocity of jet
and it is scalar quantity.
186. In Inward radial flow reaction turbine the ratio of tangential velocity at inlet to the
given velocity ____________
a) Speed ratio e
gin
b) Flow ratio
c) Discharge
d) Radial discharge
En
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Speed ratio is ratio of tangential velocity at inlet to the given velocity and it is
scalar quantity because it is ratio of two speeds.
arn
187. The discharge through a reaction radial flow turbine is given by____________
a) P1*b1*Vf1
b) P2*b2*Vf2
Le
c) P1*b2*Vf2
d) Both a & b
Where, P1= perimeter of runner at inlet, P2= perimeter of runner at outlet, b= thickness and
w.
V f= flow velocity
View Answer
Answer: d
ww

thickness, whirl velocity, at inlet as well as outlet runner vanes.
188. In Inward radial flow reaction turbine if thickness is considered then discharge is
_________
a) (P1-n*t)*b1*Vf1
b) (P2-n*t)*b2*Vf2
c) (P1-n*t)*b2*Vf2
d) Both a & b
Where, P1= perimeter of runner at inlet, P2= perimeter of runner at outlet, b= width, Vf=
flow velocity, n= number of blades and t= thickness of blades
View Answer

Answer: d
thickness, whirl velocity, at inlet as well as outlet runner vanes. If n blades of thickness t is
considered then discharge is (P1-n*t)*b1*Vf1.
189. In Inward radial flow reaction turbine if angle made by absolute velocity with its
tangent is 90 degrees and component of whirl is zero at outlet is _____________
a) Radial inlet discharge
b) Radial outlet discharge
c) Flow ratio
d) Speed ratio
View Answer
Answer: b
.in
Explanation: If angle made by absolute velocity with its tangent is 90 degrees and component
of whirl is zero at outlet in radial flow reaction then total velocity will be flow velocity.
190. In which of following turbine whirl component is zero?
ng
a) Reaction turbine
b) Inward radial flow reaction turbine
c) Axial flow turbine
eri
d) Impulse turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
e
Explanation: If angle made by absolute velocity with its tangent is 90 degrees and component
of whirl is zero at outlet in radial flow reaction turbines then total velocity will be flow
gin
velocity.
191. Discharge in inward flow reaction turbine ____________
a) Increases
En
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Gradually decreases
View Answer
arn
Answer: b
Explanation: Discharge in inward flow reaction turbine decreases because area decreases as
fluid flows across spiral structure.
Le
192. Speed control of Outward flow reaction turbine is _________

a) Easy
b) Moderate
w.
c) Difficult
d) Very difficult
View Answer
ww
Answer: b
Explanation: In an outward reaction turbine, we can only partly control the speed.
193. Centrifugal head in inward flow reaction turbine __________
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Because centrifugal head is proportional to difference of outlet blade velocity
and inlet blade velocity.
Here, u2 < u1 so centrifugal head decreases.
194. Tendency of wheel to race is almost nil in ___________turbine

a) Inward flow reaction turbine
b) Outward flow reaction turbine
c) Impulse turbine
d) Axial flow turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In an inward reaction flow turbine, wheel moves with the constant speed.
195. Inward flow reaction turbine is used in practical applications __________
a) True
b) False
View Answer
.in
Answer: a
Explanations: Inward flow reaction turbine is used in practical applications that is “Francis
turbine”.
ng
196. The formation of vapour cavities is called _____
a) Static pressure drop
b) Cavitation
eri
c) Isentropic expansion
d) Emulsion
View Answer
Answer: b
e
Explanation: The formation of vapour cavities is called cavitation. It is formed due to the
gin
presence of small free liquids with different zones. These zones consists of different layers of
forces acting on them.
197. What is the degree of reaction denoted as?
En
a) D
b) R
c) r
d) d
arn
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Degree of reaction is defined as the ratio of the static pressure drop in the rotor
Le
to the static pressure drop in the stage. It can also be defined in the same way for enthalpy
in different stages. It is denoted by the letter ‘R’.
198. Voids are created due to______
w.
a) Reaction ratio
b) Pressure ratio
c) Liquid free layers
ww
d) Volumetric layers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Voids in a turbine or pump is created due to the presence of liquid free layers. It
is formed due to the presence of small free liquids with different zones. These zones consists
of different layers of forces acting on them.
199. Cavitation usually occurs due to the changes in ________
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Volume
d) Heat
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cavitation usually occurs due to the changes in pressure. The pressure change is
so rapid that it leads to formation of liquid free layers or cavities that start to affect the
overall performance.
200. Degree of reactions are most commonly used in________
a) Turbomachinery
b) Pressure drag
c) Aerodynamics
d) Automobiles
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Degree of reaction is most commonly used in turbomachinery. Degree of
.in
reaction is defined as the ratio of the static pressure drop in the rotor to the static pressure
drop in the stage. It can also be defined in the same way for enthalpy in different stages. It is
denoted by the letter ‘R’.
ng
a) Drag force
b) Mass density
eri
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
View Answer
Answer: c
e
Explanation: At high pressure, the voids can generate shock waves. Cavitation usually occurs
gin
due to the changes in pressure. The pressure change is so rapid that it leads to formation of
liquid free layers or cavities that start to affect the overall performance.
202. Voids that implode near metal surface develops a_______
En
a) Drag force
b) Cyclic stress
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
arn
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Voids that implode near metal surface develops a cyclic stress. This happens
Le
mainly due to repeated implosion of voids. Thus, option ‘b’ is correct.

203. In case of gas turbines and compressors, degree of reaction is ________
a) Static pressure drop in rotor/ static pressure drop in stage
w.
b) Static pressure drop in stage/ static pressure drop in rotor

c) Isentropic enthalpy drop in rotor/ isentropic enthalpy drop in stage
d) Static temperature drop in stage/ static temperature drop in rotor
ww
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Degree of reaction in terms of gas turbines and compressors is defined as the
ratio of isentropic enthalpic drop that is developed in the rotor such as the moving blades to
that of the isentropic heat drop in the fixed blades.
204. Non- inertial cavitation is the one in which a bubble of fluid is forced to oscillate.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Non- inertial cavitation is the one in which a bubble of fluid is forced to oscillate.
It oscillates in a different size or shape due to some form of energy called the acoustic field.
205. The efficiency of the vane is given by_________

a) 1-V22/ V12
b) 1-(V22/ V12)
c) V22/ V12
d) 1- V12
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a velocity triangle at the inlet and the outlet, the control volume is moving
with a uniform velocity. Therefore, the momentum theorem of the control volume is at a
steady flow. Thus, the efficiency of the vane is given by 1-(V22/ V12).
206. The velocities of the blade angles can be found out using________
a) Mach number
.in
b) Froude’s number
c) Velocity triangles
d) Reynolds number
ng
View Answer
Answer: c
eri
velocities of fluids that act in a turbomachinery. It can be drawn for both inlet and outlet
triangles with its angles.
207. Which among the following velocities cannot be found using the velocity triangle?
a) Tangential
b) Whirl e
gin
c) Relative
d) Parabolic
View Answer
En
Answer: d
velocities of fluids that act in a turbomachinery. It can be drawn for both inlet and outlet
triangles with its angles.
arn
208. Hydrodynamic cavitation is due to the process of _________

a) Vaporisation
b) Sedimentation
Le
c) Filtration
d) Excavation
View Answer
w.
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrodynamic cavitation is due to the process of vaporisation. A bubble
generation takes place in which implosion occurs during the flowing of liquid.
ww
209. The process of bubble generation leads to __________

a) High temperatures
b) High pressures
c) High energy densities
d) High volumetric ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The process of bubble generation leads to high energy densities. The local
temperatures and local pressures at this point last for a very short time. Thus, the option is
‘c’.
210. Super cavitation is the use of cavitation effect to create a bubble of steam inside a
liquid.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, it is true. Super cavitation is the use of cavitation effect to create a bubble
of steam inside a liquid. It is large to encompass an object passing through the liquid to
reduce skin friction drag.
211. Degree of reaction turbine is the ratio of?
a) Pressure energy to total energy
b) Kinetic energy to total energy
c) Potential energy to total energy
d) Kinetic energy to potential energy
.in
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Degree of reaction is defined to be the ratio of pressure and total energies inside
ng
the runner of a turbine.
212. Which of these options are best suited for the total energy change inside the runner
per unit weight?
eri
a) Degree of action
b) Degree of reaction
c) Turbulence
d) Efficiency of turbine
View Answer e
gin
Answer: b
Explanation: Degree of reaction is defined to be the ratio of pressure and total energies inside
the runner of a turbine.
En
213. Which of these ratios are termed to be hydraulic efficiency?

a) Water power to delivered power
b) Delivered power to input power
c) Power lost to power delivered
arn
d) Runner power to water power

View Answer
Answer: d
Le
Explanation: From the equation of hydrodynamic machines, we get hydraulic efficiency to be

the ratio of runner power and water power.
214. When a container containing a liquid is rotated, then due to centrifugal action, then
w.
which of these energies are changed?

a) Kinetic energy
b) Pressure energy
ww
c) Potential energy
d) Energy due to viscous force
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When a container containing a liquid is rotated, then due to centrifugal action
there is a change in pressure energy.
215. For an actual reaction turbine, what should be the angle beta, such that the loss of
kinetic energy at the outlet is to be minimum?
a) 90
b) 45
c) 60

d) 30
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Only when the angle beta is 90, V2 will be minimum so that loss of kinetic
energy is minimized.
216. Discharge through a reaction flow reaction turbine is given by, Q = ______
a) Pi*d*b*Vf1
b) Pi*d*d*b*Vf1
c) Pi*d*b*b*Vf2
d) Pi*b*b*Vf1
View Answer
Answer: a
.in
Explanation: The discharge in a radial flow reaction turbine is the product of diameter, width
and velocity of flow at inlet Vf1 with pi.
217. When the thicknesses of vanes are to be considered in the discharge of a turbine,
ng
what will be the area under consideration?
a) Pi*d – n*t
b) Pi*d – n*n*t
eri
c) Pi*d – t*t
d) Pi*d *d– n*t
View Answer
Answer: a
e
Explanation: When the thicknesses of vanes are to be considered in the discharge of a
gin
turbine, and n is the number of vanes, are is given by Pi*d – n*t.
218. The speed ratio is defined as u/(2gH)1/2
a) True
En
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The speed ratio is termed to be the ratio of tangential velocity at inlet to square
arn
root of 2gH.
219. Flow ratio is defined as Vf1/(2gH)1/2
a) False
Le
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
w.
Explanation: Flow ratio is the ratio between velocities of flow at inlet to square root of 2gH.
Here, H is the head of the turbine.
220. _________ means the angle made by absolute velocity with the tangent on the wheel
ww
is 90 degrees and the component of whirl velocity is zero.

a) Axial discharge
b) Tangential discharge
c) Turbulent discharge
d) Radial discharge
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Radial discharge is the angle made by absolute velocity with the tangent on the
wheel is 90 degrees and the component of whirl velocity is zero. Radial discharge at outlet
means the angle beta is 90.
221. In a Francis turbine, degree of reaction lies between _____
a) 0 and 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 0 and 0.5
d) 0.5 and 0.1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For a Francis turbine, theoretically and practically, 0< R< 1.
222. In an outward flow reaction turbine, water from casing enters guiding wheel.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Water enters the stationary guide wheel from the casing of the turbine in the
.in
outward radial flow reaction turbine.
223. The water from penstocks enters the _____ which is spiral in shape which the area of
cross section of casing goes on decreasing gradually
ng
a) guide wheel
b) draft tube
c) casing
eri
d) runner
View Answer
Answer: c
e
Explanation: The water from penstocks enters the casing which is spiral in shape in which the
area of cross section of casing decreases gradually.
gin
224. If the water flows from inwards to outwards, the turbine is known as _____________
b) Turbulent low inward flow
En
c) Inward flow turbine

d) Outward flow turbine
View Answer
Answer: d
arn
Explanation: If the water in the runner flows from inwards to outwards, then such type of
turbine is said to be outward radial flow turbine.
225. In general, reaction turbines consist of which types of energies?
Le
a) kinetic energy and potential energy

b) potential energy and pressure energy
c) kinetic energy and pressure energy
w.
d) gravitational energy and potential energy

View Answer
Answer: c
ww
Explanation: Reaction turbine is a kind of turbine in which the water at inlet of the turbine
possesses both kinetic energy and pressure energy.
226. ___________ is a circular wheel on which a series of smooth, radial curved vanes are
fixed.
a) Guide wheel
b) Runner
c) Casing
d) Draft tube
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The radial curved vanes are so shaped that water enters and leaves the runner

without shock .It is a circular type wheel on which a series of smooth, radial curved vanes are
fixed.
227. In outward radial flow reaction turbines, tangential velocity at inlet is less than that of
the outlet.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In outward radial flow reaction turbines, tangential velocity at inlet is less than
that of the outlet as the inlet of the runner is the inner diameter.
228. In an outward radial flow reaction turbine the ratio of tangential wheel at inlet to given
velocity of jet is known as ___________
.in
a) Speed ratio
b) Flow ratio
c) Discharge
ng
d) Radial discharge
View Answer
Answer: b
eri
229. In an outward radial flow reaction turbine the ratio of tangential velocity at inlet to the
given velocity is ______
a) Speed ratio e
gin
b) Flow ratio
c) Discharge
d) Radial discharge
En
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Speed ratio is ratio of tangential velocity at inlet to the given velocity and it is
scalar quantity because it is ratio of two speeds.
arn
230. Discharge in an outward flow reaction turbine ____________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
Le
c) Remains constant
View Answer
w.
Answer: a
Explanation: Discharge in an outward flow reaction turbine increases because area increases
as fluid flows across spiral structure in the turbine.
ww
231. An outward radial reaction turbine has ______

a) u1 < u2
b) u1 > u2
c) u1 = u2
d) u2 = u1 = 0
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For an outward flow reaction turbine, tangential velocity at inlet should be less
than the tangential velocity at outlet.
232. An outward flow reaction turbine, ________
a) D1 > D2
b) D1 < D2
c) D1 = D2
d) D1 = D2 = 0
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In an outward flow reaction turbine, to maintain flow of water, the inlet
diameter should be less than outlet diameter.
233. ___________is ratio of pressure energy change inside runner to total energy change
inside runner
a) Degree of reaction
b) Speed ratio
c) Flow ratio
d) Hydraulic efficiency
.in
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This is just a formula and it is scalar quantity because it is ratio of two changes
ng
of energies.
234. Degree of reaction for impulse turbine
a) 0
eri
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: a e
gin
Explanation: For pelton turbine u1=u2 and Vr1=Vr2 by substituting these values in degree of
reaction we get it as 0.
235. The formula for degree of reaction for hydraulic turbines is __________
En
a) 1- (V1*V1-V2*V2)/(V1*V1-V2*V2)*(u1*u1-u2*u2)*(Vr2*Vr2-Vr1*Vr1)
b) (V1*V1-V2*V2)/ (V1*V1-V2*V2)*(u1*u1-u2*u2)*(Vr2*Vr2-Vr1*Vr1)
c) 1+ (V1*V1-V2*V2)/ (V1*V1-V2*V2)*(u1*u1-u2*u2)*(Vr2*Vr2-Vr1*Vr1)
d) 1- (V2*V2-V1*V1)/ (V1*V1-V2*V2)*(u1*u1-u2*u2)*(Vr2*Vr2-Vr1*Vr1)
arn
Where, V= jet velocity, V r= relative velocity, u= blade velocity

View Answer
236. Degree of reaction for reaction turbine is _____________
Le
a) 1- cot x /2(cot x –cot y )

b) 1+ cot x /2(cot x –cot y )
c) 1- cot x /2(cot x +cot y )
w.
d) 1+ cot x /2(cot x +cot y )

View Answer
Answer: a
ww
Explanation: Because for reaction turbine Vw2=0 and V2=Vf2, there is also no much change
in velocity of flow implies that Vf1=Vf2 by substituting these values, we get it.
237. A turbine is a ________
a) Rotary mechanical device
b) Static pressure drop device
c) Electrical device
d) Static temperature device
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Turbine is a vortex related device. It means turbulence. Turbine is a rotary
mechanical device. The energy generated from the turbine can be used to generate electrical
power. It is used in jet engines.
238. Turbine converts _________

a) Work to energy
b) Energy to work
c) Work to Electricity
d) Work to pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Turbine extracts energy and converts it into useful work. Turbine is a vortex
related device. It means turbulence. Turbine is a rotary mechanical device. The energy
generated from the turbine can be used to generate electrical power. It is used in jet engines.
239. Turbine extracts energy from________
a) Reaction ratio
.in
b) Pressure ratio
c) Fluid flow
d) Volumetric ratio
ng
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Turbine extracts energy from fluid flow and converts it into useful work. Turbine
eri
is a vortex related device. It means turbulence. Turbine is a rotary mechanical device. The
energy generated from the turbine can be used to generate electrical power. It is used in jet
engines.
240.
e
Inward flow reaction turbine enter through ______
a) Outer periphery
gin
b) Blades
c) Inner periphery
d) Pressure angle
En
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Inward flow flow reaction turbine enter through outer periphery of the turbine.
It provides a force at the outer curvature of the blades to provide an inward flow.
arn
241. A turbine is a ________

a) Turbomachinery
b) Pressure drag
Le
c) Aerodynamics
d) Automobiles
View Answer
w.
Answer: a
Explanation: A turbine is a turbomachinery. Turbine extracts energy from fluid flow and
converts it into useful work. Turbine is a vortex related device. It means turbulence. Turbine
ww
is a rotary mechanical device.

242. Centrifugal flow is imparted when the__________
a) Reaction flow is negative
b) Reaction flow is positive
c) Efficiency is 100 percent
d) Reaction rate is negligible
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Centrifugal flow is imparted when the reaction flow is negative in its direction.
This happens when the centrifugal head loses its relative velocity with the flow of water.
243. Where is the turbine not used?
a) Solar power
b) Windmill
c) Water wheels
d) Gas plant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Turbine is not used in solar power plants. The source of energy in solar power
plants is the sunlight. It falls on the solar plates during the day, which stores the energy and
converts them into useful work.
244. In an inward flow reaction turbine the discharge _______
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
.in
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: b
ng
Explanation: In an inward flow reaction turbine the discharge of fluid decreases. Thus,
making it different from an outward flow reaction turbine.
245. A working fluid contains kinetic energy only.
eri
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
e
Explanation: A working fluid contains kinetic energy and potential energy. The fluid that flows
gin
and hits the turbine blades coverts kinetic energy into useful work. The flow can be either
compressible or incompressible.
246. In impulse turbines with moving blades, there is no _________ in blades of the
En
turbine.
a) Pressure change
b) Same pressure
c) Volumetric change
arn
d) Pressure independent
View Answer
Answer: a
Le
Explanation: In impulse turbines, there is no pressure change in blades of the turbine. There
is no pressure change that is developed in fluid or gas in the turbine blades. The turbine
blades are in moving condition.
w.
247. In impulse turbines with stationary blades, there is_________ in blades of the turbine.
a) Pressure change
b) Same pressure
ww
c) Volumetric change
d) Pressure independent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In impulse turbines, there is pressure change in blades of the turbine. There is
pressure change that is developed in fluid or gas in the turbine blades. The turbine blades are
in stationary condition.
248. In an outward flow reaction turbine the discharge _______
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same

d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In an outward flow reaction turbine the discharge of fluid increases. Thus,
making it different from an inward flow reaction turbine.
249. Before reaching the turbine, the acceleration of the fluid takes place through
the__________
a) Vane angle
b) Nozzle
c) Pump
d) Pipe
View Answer
.in
Answer: b
Explanation: Before the fluid reaches the turbine, the pressure head is converted into its
velocity head by accelerating the fluid with a nozzle. Nozzle increases the velocity and
ng
decreases the pressure.
250. The Pelton wheel extracts energy from________
a) Vane angle
eri
b) Moving fluid
c) Increase in temperature
d) Heat rejection
View Answer
Answer: b e
gin
Explanation: The Pelton wheel extracts energy from moving of fluid. When the fluid flows
through the Pelton wheel, a kinetic energy is developed. This kinetic energy is extracted from
the moving fluid.
En
251. Pelton wheel is a Reaction type water turbine.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
arn
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. The Pelton wheel is not a reaction type water turbine. It
is an impulse type water turbine. The Pelton wheel extracts energy from moving of fluid.
Le
When the fluid flows through the Pelton wheel, a kinetic energy is developed.
252. The outward radial flow reaction turbine is a turbine in which direction of water flow is
___________
w.
a) Radial direction
b) Radially inward
c) Radially outward
ww
d) Axial direction
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The name itself indicates that flow is in radial direction and flowing from center
towards outer periphery.
253. Outward flow reaction turbine is used in practical applications
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are several limitations of outward flow reaction turbine hence it is used in
practical applications.
254. The energy available at inlet for outward reaction flow turbine is ____________
a) Potential
b) Kinetic energy
c) Pressure energy
d) Pressure energy and Kinetic energy
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Since it is reaction turbine energy available at inlet consists of both pressure
energy and kinetic energy.
255. Centrifugal head in Outward flow reaction turbine _____________
a) Increases
b) Decreases
.in
c) Remains constant
View Answer
ng
Answer: a
Explanation: Because centrifugal head is proportional to difference of outlet blade velocity
and inlet blade velocity .
eri
Here, u1<u2 so centrifugal head increases.
256. Discharge in outward flow reaction turbine ____________
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant e
gin
View Answer
Answer: a
En
Explanation: Discharge in outward flow reaction turbine increase because area increases to
keep velocity constant.
257. Speed control of Outward flow reaction turbine is _____________
a) Easy
arn
b) Moderate
c) Difficult
d) Very difficult
Le
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
w.
258. Tendency of wheel to race is predominant in____________turbine

a) Inward flow reaction turbine
b) Outward flow reaction turbine
ww
c) Impulse turbine
d) Axial flow turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
259. Outward flow reaction turbine will quite suitable for_____________
a) High head
b) Medium head
c) Low head
d) Static head
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Since it is radial flow reaction turbine which is operated under medium head and
medium discharge.
260. In outward flow reaction turbine tangential velocity at inlet is always__________than
outlet velocity.
a) Equal
b) Less
c) More
d) Constant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Though runner has same angular velocity, diameter of outer periphery is large
.in
when compared to inner diameter.
261. In outward radial flow reaction turbine if angle made by absolute velocity with its
tangent is 90 degrees and component of whirl is zero at inlet is _______________
ng
a) Radial inlet discharge
b) Radial outlet discharge
c) Flow ratio
eri
d) Speed ratio
View Answer
Answer: a
e
Explanation: if angle made by absolute velocity with its tangent is 90 degrees and component
of whirl is zero at inlet in radial flow reaction then total velocity will be flow velocity.
gin
262. In outward radial flow reaction turbine if thickness is considered then discharge is
____________
a) (P1-n*t)*b1*Vf1
En
b) (P2-n*t)*b2*Vf2
c) (P1-n*t)*b2*Vf2
d) Both (P1-n*t)*b1*Vf1 & (P2-n*t)*b2*Vf2
Where, P1= perimeter of runner at inlet, P2= perimeter of runner at outlet, b= width, Vf=
arn
flow velocity, n= number of blades and t= thickness of blades

View Answer
Answer: d
Le

thickness, whirl velocity, at inlet as well as outlet runner vanes. If n blades of thickness t is
considered then discharge is (P1-n*t)*b1*Vf1 .
w.
263. The main difference between reaction turbine and outward radial flow reaction turbine
is water flows __________
a) Radial direction
ww
b) Radially inward
c) Radially outward
d) Axial direction
View Answer
Answer: b
264. In outward radial flow reaction turbine the ratio of tangential wheel at inlet to given
velocity of jet is known as ___________
a) Speed ratio
b) Flow ratio
c) Discharge
d) Radial discharge
View Answer
Answer: b
265. Conical diffuser draft tube is also called_______
a) Straight divergent tube
b) Simple elbow tube
c) Thermal tube
d) Elbow tube with varying cross section
View Answer
Answer: a
.in
Explanation: Conical diffuser draft tube is one of the most commonly used drafts tubes in the
Kaplan turbine. It works as an outlet at the Kaplan turbine. Conical diffuser draft tube is also
called straight divergent tube.
ng
266. Steam turbine converts energy into________
a) Electrical work
b) Mechanical work
eri
c) Chemical work
d) Thermal work
View Answer
267.
a) Motor e
Most common application of steam turbine is _______
gin
b) Generator
c) Pump
d) Filter
En
View Answer
268. Conical diffuser draft tube consists of conical diffuser with angles of______
a) 10 degrees
b) 20 degrees
arn
c) 30 degrees
d) 40 degrees
View Answer
Le
269. What is the purpose of a conical diffuser?

a) To prevent flow separation
b) To avoid Pressure drag
w.
c) To prevent rejection of heat

d) To increase efficiency
View Answer
ww
270. What is the efficiency of conical diffuser draft tube?

a) 30
b) 50
c) 70
d) 90
View Answer
271. The simple elbow draft tube is placed close to the_______
a) Head race
b) Tail race
c) Tank
d) Nozzle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The simple elbow draft tube is placed close to the tail race. It consists of an
extended elbow type tube. It is mainly used in the Kaplan turbine. It is placed close to the tail
race of the turbine.
272. Turbine that consists of moving nozzles and with fixed nozzles is called as__________
a) Impulse turbine
b) Curtis turbine
c) Rateau turbine
d) Reaction turbine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A turbine that consists of moving nozzles which are alternating with the fixed
.in
nozzles is called as a reaction turbine. When the steam hits the nozzle, the pressure is
decreased and the temperature is increased.
273. An example of reaction turbine is________
ng
a) Parsons turbine
b) Curtis turbine
c) Rateau turbine
eri
d) Pelton wheel
View Answer
Answer: a
e
gin
decreased and the temperature is increased. It is also called as Parson’s turbine.
274. When we arrange turbine blades in multiple stages it is called ________
a) Pressure change
En
b) Vane deviation
c) Compounding
d) Pressure ratio
View Answer
arn
Answer: c
Explanation: When we arrange turbine blades in multiple stages it is called as compounding.
Compounding plays an essential role in turbines. It has various plus points.
Le
275. Compounding is needed to ___________

a) Increase Pressure
b) Decrease temperature
w.
c) Change volume
d) Increase efficiency
View Answer
ww
Answer: d
Explanation: Compounding is needed to improve efficiencies at low speeds. When we arrange
turbine blades in multiple stages it is called as compounding. Compounding plays an essential
role in turbines.
276. Which among the following is not a type of compounding?
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Pressure velocity
d) Velocity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Temperature is not a type of compounding. The three important types of
compounding are pressure compounding, velocity compounding and pressure- velocity

compounding.
277. Newtons second law describes the transfer of energy through impulse turbines.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Before the fluid reaches the turbine, the pressure head is converted into its
velocity head by accelerating the fluid with a nozzle. Thus, Newtons second law describes the
transfer of energy through impulse turbines.
278. Inner radial flow extracts energy from _____
a) Turbine blades
.in
b) Moving fluid
c) Pressure change
d) Temperature increase
ng
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Inner radial flow extracts energy from moving fluid of a turbine. It also helps in
eri
determine the efficiency of the turbine blades.
279. Reaction turbines develop torque by reacting to the gas or fluids pressure or mass.
a) True
b) False
View Answer e
gin
Answer: a
Explanation: Reaction turbines develop torque by reacting to the gas or fluids pressure or
mass. The pressure or the gas of a fluid changes during this as it contains the working fluid
En
acts on the turbine stages.

280. What is the water flow direction in the runner in a Francis turbine?
a) Axial and then tangential
b) Tangential and then axial
arn
c) Radial and then axial

d) Axial and then radial
View Answer
Le
Answer: c
Explanation: Francis turbine is radial flow reaction turbine. Though the water enters the
turbine tangentially, it enters the runner radially inward and flows outward along the axis of
w.
the runner.
281. Which of the following is true in case of flow of water before it enters the runner of a
Francis Turbine?
ww
a) Available head is entirely converted to velocity head

b) Available head is entire converted to pressure head
c) Available head is neither converted to pressure head nor velocity head
d) Available head is partly converted to pressure head and partly to velocity head
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Since Francis Turbine is a reaction turbine, part of the available head is
converted to velocity head. It is not entirely converted to velocity head. The rest of the
available head is converted into pressure head.
282. Why does the cross sectional area of the Spiral casing gradually decrease along the
circumference of the Francis turbine from the entrance to the tip?
a) To ensure constant velocity of water during runner entry
b) To prevent loss of efficiency of the turbine due to impulsive forces caused by extra area
c) To prevent leakage from the turbine
d) To reduce material costs in order to make the turbine more economical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The primary purpose of the gradual decrease in area is so that the runner sees
constant velocity of water at each point of entry. Absence of this may lead to inefficiency. The
spiral casing is used to prevent leakage from the turbine but the gradual decrease in area is
not for that reason.
283. Which of the following profiles are used for guide vanes to ensure smooth flow without
separation?
a) Rectangular
.in
b) Bent Rectangular
c) Elliptical
d) Aerofoil
ng
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Smooth flow and flow without separation (eddiless flow) can be ensured when
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the cross sectional profile of the guide vanes are aerofoil in nature. Aerofoil shape is used in
airplane wings to ensure smooth flow too. Rectangular profiles are not effective in guiding the
water into the runner. Elliptical profiles will cause more drag, finally ending up with turbine
inefficiency.
284. e
In which of the following type of runners the velocity of whirl at inlet is greater than
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the blade velocity?
a) Such a case is practically impossible
b) Slow Runner
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c) Medium Runner
d) Fast Runner
View Answer
Answer: b
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Explanation: Considering the velocity diagram of Francis turbine at the inlet for a slow
runner, we notice that the whirl velocity exceeds the blade velocity along the same direction.
They are equal in case of a medium runner.
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285. Which of the following runner types will have the highest vane angle at inlet (β1
value)?
a) Slow Runner
w.
b) Medium Runner
c) Fast Runner
d) Vane angle is defined only for Kaplan Turbines and not Francis turbines
ww
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Considering the velocity diagram of Francis turbine at the inlet for a fast runner,
vane angle is an obtuse angle. Whereas, it is right angle for medium runner and an acute
angle for a slow runner.
286. In case of a Medium runner, tan (α1) CANNOT be given by (α1 = Guide vane angle at
inlet)?
a) Vf1 / Vw1
b) Vr1 / Vw1
c) Vr1 / u1
d) Vw1 / u1
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In medium runner, Vf1 = Vr1 & Vw1 = u1. Vw1 and u1 are along the same direction,
hence that cannot be written as tan (α1).
287. In the velocity diagrams for Francis turbine, which of the following velocity directions
is along the blade curvature?
a) Vr1
b) Vw1
c) V1
d) u1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Vr1 is the relative velocity of the water flow as seen from the blade. Thus,
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relative velocity is along the direction of the curvature of the blade.
288. In the figure shown below,which of the following angles replace the question mark?
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e eri
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a) Guide vane angle at inlet
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b) Blade angle at inlet

c) Vane angle at inlet
d) Blade angle at outlet
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View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The angle between V 1 and the blade velocity u1 is α1, which is the guide vane
angle at the inlet.
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289. In the figure shown below, which of the following type of runners has the blade
curvature as shown in the above figure (The arrow denotes direction of blade motion)?
w.
ww
a) Information insufficient to determine

b) Slow Runner
c) Medium Runner
d) Fast Runner
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fast runners have forward curved blades, where slow runners have backward

curved blades. The blades shown in the figure are backward curved blades of a runner, which
are used for slow runners.
290. Francis turbine is typically used for which of the following values of available heads?
a) 300 m
b) 100 m
c) 30 m
d) 5 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Francis Turbine is a medium head turbine, typically used for heads in the range
60 m to 240 m. Hence, only 100 m from the above options fit in that range.
291. Water flow velocity is given 10 m/s. The runner diameter is 3 m and the width of the
.in
wheel is 25 cm. Find the mass of water (kg) flowing across the runner per second.
a) 7500π
b) 50π
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c) 300π
d) RPM of the turbine needs to be given
View Answer
eri
Answer: a
Explanation: Area of the flow (A) = πDB = 0.75π m2. Mass flow rate = ρ.A.Vf =
1000*0.75π*10 = 7500π kg/s.
292.
a) True e
Work done per second by a Francis turbine can be given by ρAVf (Vw1u1 + Vw2u2).
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b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
En
Explanation: The work done per second is given by ρAVf (Vw1u1 – Vw2u2). Hence, the outlet
term is subtracted from the inlet term and not added to it.
293. Which of the following terms is considered to be zero while deriving the equation for
work done per second for Francis Turbine?
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a) Vr1
b) Vw2
c) Vf2
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d) Vr2
View Answer
Answer: b
w.
Explanation: Since the flow out of the runner of the Francis turbine is axial in nature, the
whirl velocity at outlet is zero. Hence, V w2 is ignored in the derivation of work done for Francis
Turbine.
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294. Power developed by Francis turbine are calculated for a certain set of conditions. Now,
the inlet whirl velocity is doubled, the blade velocity at inlet is doubled and the flow velocity is
quartered. The power developed:
a) Is 4 times the original value
b) Is 2 times the original value
c) Is ½ times the original value
d) Is same as the original value
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The power developed by a Francis Turbine is given by P = ρAV (Vw1.u1). Hence,
if inlet whirl velocity is doubled, the blade velocity at inlet is doubled and the flow velocity is
quartered, then the power developed will remain the same as its original value.
295. Volume flow rate of water in a Francis turbine runner is 25 m3/s. The flow velocity,
whirl velocity and blade velocity are 11 m/s, 10 m/s and 5 m/s respectively, all values given
at runner inlet. Find the power developed by the turbine.
a) 25 kW
b) 1.25 MW
c) 1.25 kW
d) 25 MW
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: P = ρQ (Vw1.u1te is directly given.
296. The flow rate of the water flow in a Francis turbine is increased by 50% keeping all the
other parameters same. The work done by the turbine changes by?
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a) 50% increase
b) 25% increase
c) 100% increase
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d) 150% increase
View Answer
Answer: a
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Explanation: The Power developed in a Francis turbine directly depends on the flow rate of
water. If flow rate is increased by 50%, i.e. made 1.5 times the original value, then the
power developed becomes 1.5 times its original value too. Hence, a 50% increase.
297.
e
A student performs an experiment with a Francis turbine. He accidently set the RPM of
Francis turbine to 1400 rpm instead of 700 rpm. He reported the power to be 1 MW. His
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teacher asks him to perform the same experiment using the correct RPM. The student
performs the same experiment again, but this time the erroneously doubled the flow velocity.
What does the student report the power to be?
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a) 0.5 MW
b) 0.25 MW
c) 2 MW
d) 1 MW
arn
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Power developed by the turbine varies directly with both flow velocity as
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well as the blade velocity (which in turn varies directly with RPM). So, if all parameters were
correct, the reported value should be 0.5 MW. But, flow velocity is again doubled, so the
student again reports 1 MW.
w.
298. Velocity of whirl at the runner inlet is given to be 10 m/s and blade velocity to be 5
m/s. The volume flow rate of water in Francis turbine is given to be 25 m 3/s. Find the power
generated by the turbine?
ww
a) 1700 HP
b) 800 HP
c) 3400 HP
d) 1000 HP
View Answer
299. The available head of a Francis Turbine is 100 m. Velocity of the flow at the runner
inlet is 15 m/s. Find the flow ratio.
a) 0.33
b) 0.45
c) 0.67
d) 0.89
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flow ratio is given by ψ = Vf1 / sqrt(2gH). Substituting the given values and
taking the value of g = 10 m/s2, we get ψ = 0.33.
300. How does the flow ratio (ψ) of a Francis turbine vary with available head (H)?
a) ψ α H
b) ψ α 1/H
c) ψ α sqrt (H)
d) ψ α 1/(sqrt (H))
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Flow ratio is given by ψ = Vf1 / sqrt(2gH). Hence, the flow ratio is inversely
proportional to the square root of available head.
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301. What is the typical value for flow ratio in a Francis turbine?
a) 0.05 – 0.1
b) 0.15 – 0.30
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c) 0.35 – 0.45
d) 0.50 – 0.60
View Answer
eri
Answer: b
Explanation: Flow ratio denoted by ψ is given by Vf1 / sqrt(2gH). Sqrt (2gH) is called the
spouting velocity. The practical values of the flow ratio for Francis turbine lie in the range of
0.15 – 0.3.
302. e
The available head of a Francis Turbine is 120 m. The blade velocity is given 35 m/s.
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Find the speed ratio of the turbine.
a) 0.56
b) 0.61
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c) 0.71
d) 0.81
View Answer
Answer: c
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Explanation: The speed ratio φ = U/ sqrt(2gH). Hence, substituting the given values into this
equation, we get φ = 0.71.
303. The speed ratio (φ) varies directly with which of the following parameters?
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a) Vw1
b) V1
c) N (RPM)
w.
d) H (Available head)
View Answer
Answer: c
ww
Explanation: The speed ratio is given by φ = U/ sqrt(2gH). Speed ratio directly depends upon
U which in turn depends directly upon RPM of the turbine (N).
304. The typical value range of speed ratio for a Francis turbine is:
a) 0.3 – 0.6
b) 0.5 – 0.6
c) 0.1 – 0.4
d) 0.6 – 0.9
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Speed ratio denoted by φ is given by U / sqrt(2gH). Sqrt (2gH) is called the
spouting velocity. The practical values of the speed ratio for Francis turbine lie in the range of
0.6 – 0.9.
305. Which of the following efficiencies for Francis Turbine is described as the ratio between
the power produced by runner to the power supplied by water at the inlet?
a) Hydraulic efficiency
c) Mechanical efficiency
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The definition of Hydraulic efficiency in a Francis turbine states that it is the
ratio between the Runner power to the shaft power. Hence, the correct option is Hydraulic
efficiency.
306. Which of the following efficiencies for Francis Turbine is described as the ratio between
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total quantity of water over runner blades to total quantity of water supplied to turbine?
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View Answer
eri
Answer: b
Explanation: The definition of volumetric efficiency in a Francis turbine states that it is the
ratio between the total volume of water flowing over the runner blades to the volume of
307. e
water entering the turbine. Hence, the correct option is volumetric efficiency.
Which of the following efficiencies for Francis Turbine is defined as the ratio between
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the power available at the shaft of the turbine to the power produced by the runner?
En
View Answer
Answer: c
arn
Explanation: The definition of Mechanical efficiency in a Francis turbine states that it is the
ratio between the Shaft power to the Runner power. Hence, the correct option is Mechanical
efficiency.
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308. Which of the following efficiencies for Francis Turbine is defined as the ratio between
the power available at the shaft to the power supplied by water at the inlet?
w.
ww
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The definition of Overall efficiency in a Francis turbine states that it is the ratio
between the Shaft power to the Water power. Hence, the correct option is Overall efficiency.
309. The whirl velocity at inlet of Francis turbine is given to be 20 m/s. The blade velocity is
given as 35 m/s. What is the hydraulic efficiency for a head of 100 m?
a) 80%
b) 90%
c) 70%
d) 98%
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The hydraulic efficiency of a Francis turbine is given by ηh = Vw1.u1/ gH.
Substituting the values of the given parameters in the equation, we get hydraulic efficiency =
70%.
310. The desired hydraulic efficiency of a turbine is 80% at a whirl velocity of 20 m/s and a
head of 100 m. What should be the blade velocity of the turbine at inlet in m/s?
a) 40
b) 60
c) 80
d) 25
View Answer
Answer: a
.in
Explanation: The hydraulic efficiency of a Francis turbine is given by ηh = Vw1.u1/ gH.
Substituting the values of the given parameters in the equation, we get blade velocity at the
inlet as 40 m/s.
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311. The input water power of the Francis turbine is 1.25 times the runner power. What
would be the hydraulic efficiency of the turbine (in %)?
a) 60
eri
b) 70
c) 80
d) 90
View Answer
Answer: c e
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Explanation: The definition of Hydraulic efficiency in a Francis turbine states that it is the
ratio between the Runner power to the shaft power. If input water power is 1.25 times the
runner power, the runner power is 1/1.25 = 0.8 Times the water power. Hence, hydraulic
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efficiency = 80%.
312. The volume flow rate into a Francis turbine is Q m3/s. 0.25Q m3/s volume of water do
not flow over the runner blades. What is the mechanical efficiency of the turbine (in %)?
a) 65
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b) 75
c) 80
d) Mechanical efficiency cannot be found out from the given information
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View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: With the given information, we can find the volumetric efficiency and not the
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mechanical efficiency. If you got this question wrong, its advised to read the question
carefully before answering.
313. The volumetric efficiency of a Francis turbine is given to be 90%. If the volume flow
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rate through the turbine is 25 m3/s. What is the flow rate of water over the runner blades (in
m3/s)?
a) 20
b) 25
c) 22.5
d) 21.5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The definition of volumetric efficiency in a Francis turbine states that it is the
water entering the turbine. Hence, if Q = 25 m3/s, the volume of water over runner blades =
0.9*25 = 22.5 m3/s.
314. The volumetric efficiency of a given turbine is 80%. If volume flow rate of water in
given to be 30 m3/s, find the volume of water (m3) NOT flowing over the runner blades per
second?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 10
d) 12
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The volume of water flowing over runner blades = 0.8*30 = 24 m 3/s. The
volume of water NOT flowing over the runner blades would then be 30 – 24 = 6 m3/s.
315. The power available at the shaft of a Francis turbine is 1 MW. The volume flow rate of
.in
water in 25 m3/s, whirl velocity at inlet is 10 m/s and blade velocity is 5 m/s. Find the
mechanical efficiency (in %)?
a) 65
ng
b) 75
c) 80
d) 90
eri
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mechanical efficiency is given by ηm = shaft power / ρQVw1u1. Substituting the
316. e
given values into this equation, we get mechanical efficiency = 80%.
The whirl velocity at inlet is 15 m/s and blade velocity is 10 m/s. The volume flow rate
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of water in 20 m3/s. Find the power output available at the shaft if the mechanical efficiency
is 95% (in MW)?
a) 2.85
En
b) 3.075
c) 6.55
d) 0.285
View Answer
arn
Answer: a
Explanation: Mechanical efficiency is given by ηm = shaft power / ρQV w1u1. Substituting the
given values into this equation, we get shaft power = 2.85 MW.
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317. The power output of the shaft is 5 MW. The volume flow rate of water in 10 m3/s at an
available head of 60 m. Find the overall efficiency of the turbine in % (g = 10 m/s 2)?
a) 80
w.
b) 82.5
c) 83.3
d) 85
ww
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The overall efficiency of a Francis turbine is given by ηo = shaft power/ ρQgH.
Substituting the given values in this equation, we get overall efficiency = 83.33 %.
318. The volume flow rate of water in 10 m3/s at an available head of 60 m (g = 10 m/s 3).
Find the shaft power (in MW) if the overall efficiency of the turbine is 90%.
a) 54
b) 5.4
c) 540
d) 0.54
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The overall efficiency of a Francis turbine is given by ηo = shaft power/ ρQgH.
Substituting the given values in this equation, we get shaft power = 5.4 MW.
319. The hydraulic efficiency of a Francis turbine is 90%, the mechanical efficiency is 95%
and the volumetric efficiency is assumed to be 100%. Fine the overall efficiency (in %)?
a) 80
b) 85.5
c) 87.5
d) 83.3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Overall efficiency is also given by ηo = ηh*ηm*ηv. So, ηo = 0.90*0.95*1 =
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0.855 = 85.5%.
320. In a Kaplan turbine, what is the direction of water flow?
a) Axial and then axial
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b) Radial and then axial
c) Tangential and then axial
d) Tangential and then radial
eri
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Kaplan turbine is an axial flow reaction turbine. The water inlet is axial and
the water outlet is axial too.
321. e
For which of the following values of available heads may Kaplan turbine be used?
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a) 250 m
b) 100 m
c) 80 m
En
d) 50 m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Kaplan turbine is said to be a Low head turbine. The low head ranges from
arn
0 to 60 m. Only 50 m falls in this range and hence, it’s the correct option.
322. In this type of low head turbine, the guide vanes are fixed to the hub of the turbine
and are not adjustable. What is this type of turbine called?
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a) Francis turbine
b) Kaplan Turbine
c) Propeller Turbine
w.
d) Pelton turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
ww
Explanation: In a Kaplan turbine, the guide vanes are adjustable and not fixed to the hub of
the turbine. Francis and Pelton turbines are not low head turbines. In a propeller turbine, the
guide vanes are fixed to the hub of the turbine.
323. The velocity of flow through a Kaplan turbine is 10 m/s. The outer diameter of the
runner is 4 m and the hub diameter is 2 m. Find the volume flow rate of the turbine in m3/s?
a) 95
b) 75
c) 85
d) 105
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The volume flow rate is given by Substituting the

3
given values in the above equation, we get Q = 95 m /s.
324. The velocity of the flow at the inlet of Kaplan turbine is V. In an experimental setup,
what could be the possible value of the velocity of the flow at the outlet of Kaplan turbine?
a) V
b) 0.8V
c) 1.2V
d) 2V
.in
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The flow velocity of turbine at the outlet of the Kaplan turbine will be lesser than
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that of the inlet due to effects of friction in the blade. Hence, practically a lower value would
be obtained. 0.8V is the only option lower than V.
325. Which of the following turbines will have the lowest number of blades in it?
eri
a) Pelton turbine
b) Steam turbine
c) Francis turbine
d) Kaplan turbine
e
gin
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As the head for Kaplan turbine is low, the discharge of water through the turbine
is high and hence, blade resistance should be low. That’s why Kaplan turbine will have the
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lowest number of blades.

326. The velocity of the flow through the Kaplan turbine is 25 m/s. The available head of
the turbine is 60 m. Find the flow ratio of the turbine (take g = 10 m/s 2).
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a) 0.65
b) 0.72
c) 0.69
d) 0.75
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View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Flow ratio is given by ψ = Vf1 / sqrt(2gH). The given of head and flow velocity
w.
must be substituted in this equation to obtain the flow ratio which comes out to be 0.72.
327. A Kaplan turbine requires a speed ratio of 2. The available head of the turbine is 5 m.
What should be the blade velocity of the turbine such that a speed ratio of 2 is maintained
ww
(take g = 10 m/s2)?
a) 75.75 m/s
b) 63.25 m/s
c) 23.35 m/s
d) 50.00 m/s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The speed ratio φ = U/ sqrt(2gH). Substitute the value for speed ratio and
available head in this equation and rearrange to find U = 63.25 m/s.
328. The flow ratio of a Kaplan turbine is given as 0.7. The available head is 30 m. The
outer diameter of the runner is 3.5 m and the hub diameter is 2 m. Find the volume of water
flowing through the turbine per second (m3/s)?
a) 90
b) 111
c) 125
d) 168
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: We know that We can write V as ψ*(sqrt(2gH)).

Now, substitute the values in the modified equation to find Q which comes out to be around
111 m3/s.
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329. In which of the following type of runners in a Kaplan turbine the velocity of whirl at
inlet is smaller than the blade velocity?
a) Such a case is practically impossible
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b) Slow Runner
c) Medium Runner
d) Fast Runner
eri
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Considering the velocity diagram of a Kaplan turbine at the inlet for a fast
e
runner, we notice that the whirl velocity is lower the blade velocity along the same direction.
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They are equal in case of a medium runner.
330. In the outlet velocity triangle of a Kaplan turbine, β 2 = 30o. Vf2 = 5 m/s. What is the
relative velocity of the flow at outlet?
a) 10 m/s
En
b) 5.77 m/s
c) 8.66 m/s
d) 2.88 m/s
arn
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the outlet velocity triangle, sin (β 2) = Vf2/ Vr2. Therefore, Vr2 = 5/sin(30) = 10
m/s.
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331. In the inlet velocity triangle of a Kaplan turbine, α1 = 45 o. The velocity of flow at inlet
= 10 m/s. Find the whirl velocity of water at the inlet of Kaplan turbine?
a) 5 m/s
w.
b) 10 m/s
c) 12.5 m/s
d) 15 m/s
ww
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the inlet velocity triangle, tan (α1) = V f1/ Vw1o, Vf1 = Vw1 = 10 m/s.
332. The whirl velocity of water at the inlet of the Kaplan turbine is 15 m/s. The velocity of
water at inlet of the turbine is 20 m/s. Find the guide vane angle at inlet (In degrees).
a) 53.13
b) 36.86
c) 45
d) 41.41
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: cos (α1) = Vw1/ V1o.
333. The relative velocity of water at the inlet of the Kaplan turbine is 7 m/s. β1 = 75o. The
whirl velocity of the water at inlet is 10 m/s. Find the blade velocity of the turbine?
a) 26.124 m/s
b) 40 m/s
c) 36.124 m/s
d) 60 m/s
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: cos (β1) = (u – Vw1)/ Vr1. Substituting the given values in the above equation
and rearranging to find the value of u, we get 36.124 m/s.
334. For the figure given below, find the missing terms in the order of (1), (2), (3) and (4).
.in
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a) Vr1, α1, β1, Vw1
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b) Vw1, β1, α1, Vr1
c) Vw1, α1, β1, Vr1
d) Vr1, β1, α1, Vw1
View Answer
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Answer: c
Explanation: Vw1 is along the direction of u. Hence (1) will be replaced by V w1. The angle
between V1 and u is α1, Hence α1 replaces (2). (4) will then be replaced by Vr1 and (3) will be
arn
replaced by β1, since β1 is the angle between Vr1 and u.

336. Kaplan turbine works on________
a) Electrical energy
b) Hydro energy
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c) Thermal energy
d) Chemical energy
View Answer
w.
Answer: c
Explanation: Turbine is a vortex related device. It means turbulence. Turbine is a rotary
mechanical device. Kaplan turbine is also called as a water turbine. It works when the blades
ww
are adjustable.
337. Kaplan turbine is an ______ reaction turbine
a) Inward flow
b) Outward flow
c) Radial
d) Axial
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Turbine extracts energy and converts it into useful work. Kaplan turbine is an
inward flow reaction turbine. It is one of the most efficient turbines to drive electricity.
338. The Kaplan Turbine is an evolution of ________
a) Francis turbine
b) Pelton wheel
c) Parsons turbine
d) Curtis turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Kaplan Turbine is an evolution of Francis turbine. It was invented for an
essential purpose. It allowed efficient power production in low head applications. Thus,
making it better than Francis.
339. What is the dimension of thermal efficiency of a Kaplan turbine?
a) kg
b) m
c) kg/m
.in
d) Dimensionless
View Answer
Answer: d
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Explanation: Thermal efficiency in thermodynamics is a dimensionless performance. It is a
device that is used to measure thermal energy. It is mainly used in internal combustion
engines.
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340. A Kaplan turbine is used in ________
a) Turbomachinery
b) Pressure drag
c) Aerodynamics
d) Automobiles e
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View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A Kaplan turbine is a turbomachinery. Turbine extracts energy from fluid flow
En
and converts it into useful work. Turbine is a vortex related device. It means turbulence.
Turbine is a rotary mechanical device.
341. The head of the Kaplan ranges from ______
a) 100 to 200 m
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b) 250 to 300 m
c) 10 to 70 m
d) 0 m
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View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The head of the Kaplan ranges from 10 meters to 70 meters. A Kaplan turbine is
w.
a turbomachinery. Turbine extracts energy from fluid flow and converts it into useful work.
Turbine is a vortex related device.
342. Nozzles in the Kaplan turbine move due to impact of ________
ww
a) Water
b) Steam
c) Blade
d) Another nozzle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Nozzle is moved due to the impact of steam. When the steam hits the nozzle,
the pressure is decreased and the temperature is increased.
343. The power output of Kaplan turbine ranges from__________
a) 5 to 200 MW
b) 1000 to 2000 MW
c) 2000 to 3000 MW
d) 5000 and above

View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The power output of Kaplan turbine ranges from 5 mega Watt to 200 mega
Watt. It has got runner diameters which ranges from 2 meters to 11 meters. It varies from
place to place.
344. Kaplan turbines rotates at a ________ rate
a) Increasing
b) Decreasing
c) Constant
d) Increasing and then decreasing
View Answer
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Answer: c
Explanation: Kaplan turbines rotates at a constant rate. A Kaplan turbine is a
turbomachinery. Turbine extracts energy from fluid flow and converts it into useful work.
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Turbine is a vortex related device.
345. What type of turbine is Kaplan?
a) Impulse
eri
b) Reaction
c) Energy
d) Hydro
View Answer
Answer: b e
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Explanation: Kaplan turbine is a reaction turbine. It extracts energy from fluid flow and
converts it into useful work. Kaplan turbine is a vortex related device.
346. Kaplan turbine is needed to improve ________
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b) Decrease temperature
c) Change volume
d) Increase efficiency
arn
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Kaplan turbine is needed to improve efficiencies at low speeds. When we
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arrange turbine blades in multiple stages. It plays an essential role in turbines.

347. Kaplan turbine is an ________ type turbine
a) Pressure
w.
b) Inward flow
c) Outward flow
d) Velocity
ww
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Kaplan turbine is an inward flow reaction turbine. It means that the working
fluid changes its pressure as it moves through the turbine and gives up its energy.
348. The turbine does not have to be at the lowest point of water flow as long as the water
in the draft tube is full.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The turbine does not have to be at the lowest point of water flow as long as the

water in the draft tube is full. A higher turbine located increases the suction and is imparted
on the turbine blades by the draft tube.
349. The outlet of the Kaplan turbine is through _______
a) Vane Blades
b) Moving pipeline
c) Draft tube
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The outlet of the Kaplan turbine is through draft tube. It is a specially shaped
tube that helps to decelerate the water and recover its kinetic energy. It happens at a faster
rate.
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350. Kaplan turbine is most commonly used in propeller turbines.
a) True
b) False
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View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Kaplan turbine is most commonly used in propeller turbines. Since, the Kaplan
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turbines have non-adjustable propeller vanes it is most commonly used. They are used in a
wide rage if flow and for other commercial products.
351. For a Kaplan turbine, the whirl velocity at inlet of the turbine is given to be 18 m/s.
e
The blade velocity is given as 25 m/s. What is the hydraulic efficiency for a head of 50 m.
Take g = 10 m/s2?
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a) 80%
b) 90%
c) 70%
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d) 98%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The hydraulic efficiency of a Kaplan turbine is given by ηh = V w1.u1/ gH.
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Substituting the values of the given parameters in the equation, we get hydraulic efficiency =
90%.
352. Which of the following efficiencies for Kaplan Turbine is described as the ratio between
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the power produced by runner to the power supplied by water at the inlet?
w.
View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: The definition of Hydraulic efficiency in a Kaplan turbine states that it is the ratio
between the Runner power to the shaft power. Hence, the correct option is Hydraulic
efficiency.
353. The desired hydraulic efficiency of a Kaplan turbine is 98% at a whirl velocity of 20
m/s and a head of 60 m. What should be the blade velocity of the turbine at inlet in m/s?
Take g = 10 m/s2.
a) 40
b) 60
c) 80
d) 30
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The hydraulic efficiency of a Kaplan turbine is given by ηh = V w1.u1/ gH.
Substituting the values of the given parameters in the equation, we get blade velocity at the
inlet as 29.4 m/s which can be roughly approximated to 30 m/s.
354. It is given that the input water power of the Kaplan turbine is 1.10 times the runner
power. What would be the hydraulic efficiency of the turbine (in %)?
a) 60.61
b) 70.71
c) 80.81
d) 90.91
View Answer
Answer: d
.in
Explanation: The definition of Hydraulic efficiency in a Kaplan turbine states that it is the ratio
between the Runner power to the shaft power. If input water power is 1.10 times the runner
power, the runner power is 1/1.10 = 0.90909 Times the water power. Hence, hydraulic
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efficiency = 90.91%.
355. Which of the following efficiencies for Kaplan Turbine is described as the ratio between
total quantity of water over runner blades to total quantity of water supplied to turbine?
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View Answer e
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Answer: b
Explanation: The definition of volumetric efficiency in a Kaplan turbine states that it is the
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water entering the turbine. Hence, the correct option is volumetric efficiency.
356. The volume flow rate into a Kaplan turbine is Q m 3/s. 0.10Q m3/s volume of water do
not flow over the runner blades. What further information is required to find the volumetric
efficiency (numerical value) of the Kaplan turbine?
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a) The numerical value of Q

b) The available head of the turbine
c) The RPM or the blade velocity of the turbine
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d) No further information is required

View Answer
Answer: d
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Explanation: The volumetric efficiency of the Kaplan turbine is given by Q – ΔQ/ Q. In this
problem, ΔQ = 0.1Q. Thus, Q – ΔQ = 0.9Q. Hence, we get volumetric efficiency as 90%. The
problem can be solved with the available information.
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357. A student reports the volumetric efficiency of a Kaplan turbine to be 95%. If he

measures the volume flow rate through the turbine is 40 m 3/s. What is the flow rate of water
over the runner blades (in m3/s)?
a) 38
b) 40
c) 42.11
d) 45
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The definition of volumetric efficiency in a Kaplan turbine states that it is the

water entering the turbine. Hence, if Q = 40 m3/s, the volume of water over runner blades =
0.95*40 = 38 m3/s.
358. In a Kaplan turbine experiment, the volumetric efficiency of a given turbine is 91%. If
volume flow rate of water in given to be 35 m 3/s, find the volume of water (m3) NOT flowing
over the runner blades per second?
a) 4.05
b) 3.15
c) 3.30
d) 2.55
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The volume of water flowing over runner blades = 0.91*35 = 31.85 m 3/s. The
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volume of water NOT flowing over the runner blades would then be 35 – 31.85 = 3.15 m3/s.
359. Which of the following efficiencies for Kaplan Turbine is defined as the ratio between
the power available at the shaft of the turbine to the power produced by the runner?
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eri
View Answer
Answer: c
e
Explanation: The definition of Mechanical efficiency in a Kaplan turbine states that it is the
ratio between the Shaft power to the Runner power. Hence, the correct option is Mechanical
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efficiency.
360. The power available at the shaft of a Kaplan turbine is 0.75 MW. The volume flow rate
of water in 15 m3/s, whirl velocity at inlet is 12 m/s and blade velocity is 5 m/s. Find the
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mechanical efficiency (in %)?

a) 66.66
b) 75.00
c) 83.33
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d) 91.33
View Answer
Answer: c
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Explanation: Mechanical efficiency of a Kaplan Turbine is given by η m = shaft power /

ρQVw1u1. Substituting the given values into this equation, we get mechanical efficiency =
83.33%.
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361. The whirl velocity at inlet of a Kaplan turbine is 7.5 m/s and blade velocity is 5 m/s.
The volume flow rate of water in 20 m3/s. Find the power output available at the shaft if the
mechanical efficiency is 93% (in MW)?
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a) 0.831
b) 0.697
c) 1.362
d) 0.298
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mechanical efficiency of a Kaplan Turbine is given by ηm = shaft power /
ρQVw1u1. Substituting the given values into this equation, we get shaft power = 697500 W
= 0.697 MW.
362. In a Kaplan Turbine experimental setup, the power output of the shaft is 4.325 MW.
The volume flow rate of water in 15 m3/s at an available head of 50 m. Find the overall
efficiency of the turbine in % (g = 10 m/s2)?
a) 57.66
b) 83.63
c) 81.33
d) 79.95
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The overall efficiency of a Kaplan turbine is given by ηo = shaft power/ ρQgH.
Substituting the given values in this equation, we get overall efficiency = 57.66 %.
363. The hydraulic efficiency of a Kaplan turbine is 95%, the mechanical efficiency is 93%
and the volumetric efficiency is assumed to be 100%. Fine the overall efficiency (in %)?
a) 80.05
b) 93.15
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c) 87.55
d) 88.35
View Answer
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Answer: d
Explanation: For a Kaplan Turbine, the overall efficiency is also given by ηo = ηh*ηm*ηv. So,
ηo = 0.95*0.93*1 = 0.8835 = 88.35%.
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364. Which of the following efficiencies for Kaplan Turbine is defined as the ratio between
the power available at the shaft to the power supplied by water at the inlet?
c) Mechanical efficiency e
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View Answer
Answer: d
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Explanation: The definition of Overall efficiency in a Kaplan turbine states that it is the ratio
between the Shaft power to the Water power. Hence, the correct option is Overall efficiency.
365. In Kaplan turbine apparatus, the volume flow rate of water in 15 m 3/s at an available
head of 55 m (g = 10 m/s2). Find the shaft power (in MW) if the overall efficiency of the
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turbine is 95%.
a) 78.3
b) 7.83
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c) 783
d) 0.783
View Answer
w.
Answer: b
Explanation: The overall efficiency of a Kaplan turbine is given by ηo = shaft power/ ρQgH.
Substituting the given values in this equation, we get shaft power = 7.83 x 106 W = 7.83
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MW.
366. Draft tube is also called_______
a) Straight divergent tube
b) Simple elbow tube
c) Thermal tube
d) Elbow tube with varying cross section
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Draft tube is one of the most commonly used in the Kaplan turbine. It works as an
outlet at the Kaplan turbine. Draft tube is also called straight divergent tube.
367. A draft tube helps in converting kinetic energy into________
a) Electrical work
b) Mechanical work
c) Chemical work
d) Thermal work
View Answer
Answer: b
related device. It means turbulence. Steam turbine converts energy into mechanical work by
extracting thermal energy from pressurized steam.
368. Most common application of the draft tube is ______
a) Rotor
b) Motor
c) Pump
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d) Filter
View Answer
Answer: c
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Explanation: Most common application of the draft tube is different types of pumps. It plays
an important role in the putlet of the pump and the turbine.
369. Draft tube consists of conical diffuser with angles of______
eri
a) 10 deg
b) 20 deg
c) 30 deg
d) 40 deg
View Answer e
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Answer: a
Explanation: Draft tube consists of conical diffuser with angles of 10 degrees with respect to
its position, Draft tubes are situated in the outlet of the turbine.
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370. What is the purpose of a Draft tube?

a) To prevent flow separation
b) To avoid Pressure drag
c) To prevent rejection of heat
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d) To increase efficiency
View Answer
Answer: a
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Explanation: Draft tube in a turbine and pumps helps to prevent flow separation in order to
increase the turbine efficiency and increase its performance.
371. What is the maximum value of efficiency in a draft tube?
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a) 100
b) 50
c) 90
ww
d) 40
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum value of efficiency in a draft tube is 90 percent. It cannot exceed
more than 90 percent because of the heat losses due to flow of fluid.
372. The simple elbow draft tube is placed close to the_______
a) Head race
b) Tail race
c) Tank
d) Nozzle
View Answer

Answer: b
373. Turbine that consists of draft tubes is called as__________
a) Impulse turbine
b) Curtis turbine
c) Rateau turbine
d) Reaction turbine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A turbine that consists of draft tubes is called as a reaction turbine. Reaction
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turbines make maximum use of the draft tubes for improving its performance characteristics.
374. Which of the following is a 50 percent reaction turbine?
a) Parsons turbine
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b) Curtis turbine
c) Rateau turbine
d) Pelton wheel
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View Answer
Answer: a
e
decreased and the temperature is increased. It is also called as Parson’s turbine.
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375. The simple elbow draft tube helps to cut down the cost of excavation.
a) True
b) False
En
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The simple elbow draft tube helps to cut down the cost of excavation. The
simple elbow draft tube is placed close to the tail race. It consists of an extended elbow type
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tube. It is mainly used in the Kaplan turbine. It is placed close to the tail race of the turbine.
376. The exit diameter for a simple elbow draft tube should be________
a) Large
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b) Small
c) Very small
d) Same
w.
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The exit diameter for a simple elbow draft tube should be large as possible. It
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helps to cut down the cutdown the cost and recover the kinetic energy at the outlet of
runner. The simple elbow draft tube is placed close to the tail race.
377. Properties that do not affect a draft tube is _______
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Pressure velocity
d) Velocity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Temperature does not affect the performance of the draft tube. With increase
and decrease of temperature of fluid in a draft tube, the draft tube remains the same.

378. The other name for elbow with varying cross section tube is called_____
a) Pressure tube
b) Bent draft tube
c) Velocity tube
d) Sink tube
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The other name for elbow with varying cross section tube is called bent draft
tube. It is so called because only the bent part is of varying cross section. Thus, the answer is
bent draft tube.
379. What is the efficiency of the simple elbow type draft tube?
a) 10
.in
b) 30
c) 60
d) 90
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View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The efficiency of the simple elbow type draft tube is 60 percent. The exit
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diameter for a simple elbow draft tube should be large as possible. It helps to cut down the
cutdown the cost and recover the kinetic energy at the outlet of runner. The simple elbow
draft tube is placed close to the tail race.
380.
e
The horizontal portion of the draft tube is usually bent to prevent entry of air from the
exit end.
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a) True
b) False
View Answer
En
Answer: a
Explanation: The horizontal portion of the draft tube is usually bent to prevent entry of air
from the exit end. This might lead to a mixing up of gases. In order to avoid this, it is
important to avoid air entry from exit.
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381. The efficiency of the draft tube is ratio of ________

a) Pressure energy by kinetic energy
b) Kinetic energy by Pressure energy
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c) Kinetic energy into mechanical energy

d) Pressure into mechanical
View Answer
w.
Answer: b
Explanation: The efficiency of the draft tube is defined as the ratio of actual conversion of
kinetic energy into the pressure energy. The pressure energy and kinetic energy is present at
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the inlet of the draft tube.

382. Draft tubes are not used in which of the following turbines?
a) Francis
b) Reaction
c) Kaplan
d) Pelton
View Answer
Answer: d
related device. Draft tubes are not used in Pelton wheels. Draft tube is a tube that is installed
in power turbines.

383. The draft tube at the exit of the nozzle increases the _______
a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) Volume of the flow
d) Density of flow
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The draft tube at the exit of the nozzle increases the pressure in the fluid. It
increases it at the expense of its velocity. This means that the turbine can reduce its pressure
without fear of back flow to the tail race.
384. Efficiency of a draft tube gives __________
a) Temperature difference
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b) Pressure difference
c) Kinetic energy difference
d) Density of flow
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View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The efficiency of the draft tube gives difference of the kinetic energy between
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the inlet and the outlet tube losses. The efficiency of the draft tube is defined as the ratio of
actual conversion of kinetic energy into the pressure energy.
385. Cavitation in a draft tube occurs when _______
b) Pressure drop e
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d) Density of flow
View Answer
En
Answer: b
Explanation: Cavitation in a draft tube occurs when pressure drop takes place. The absolute
pressure falls below the saturated vapour pressure of the water for the given temperature.
386. Which among the following is an important parameter to avoid cavitation?
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a) Tail race length

b) Head race length
c) Height of draft tube
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d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: c
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Explanation: Cavitation in a draft tube occurs when pressure drop takes place. The absolute
pressure falls below the saturated vapour pressure of the water for the given temperature.
Height of the draft tube is an important parameter to avoid cavitation.
ww
387. The draft tube is situated in the _______

a) Inlet
b) Outlet
c) Tank
d) Nozzle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The simple elbow draft tube is placed close to the inlet of the turbine. It consists
of an extended elbow type tube. It is mainly used in the Kaplan turbine. It is placed close to
the tail race of the turbine.
388. Which equation is applied to determine the flow?
a) Newtons equation
b) Rutherford’s equation
c) Bernoulli’s equation
d) Faradays equation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bernoulli’s equation is used to determine the flow of the fluid from inlet to the
outlet. It also helps in avoiding cavitation. Cavitation in a draft tube occurs when pressure
drop takes place.
389. Height of the draft tube is denoted by _____
a) H
b) h
c) z
.in
d) x
View Answer
Answer: c
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Explanation: Height of the draft tube is denoted by ‘z’. It is equated to z2, which is attached
at the outlet of the turbine. Thus, the universal symbol to denote height of the draft tube is
‘z’.
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390. Draft tube allows turbine to be placed above the tail race.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a e
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Explanation: The draft tube helps to cut down the cost of excavation. The draft tube is placed
close to the tail race. The turbine pressure head is increased by decreasing the velocity at the
draft tube. Draft tube allows turbine to be placed above the tail race.
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391. The efficiency of the draft tube depends on the ______

a) Heat
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
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d) Pressure and temperature

View Answer
Answer: d
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Explanation: The efficiency of the draft tube is defined as the ratio of actual conversion of
kinetic energy into the pressure energy. The pressure energy and kinetic energy is present at
the inlet of the draft tube.
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392. Draft tubes have _________ shafts

a) Horizontal
b) Vertical
ww
c) Circular
d) Cross sectional
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Draft tubes have vertical shafts. The pressure energy and kinetic energy is
present at the inlet of the draft tube.
393. Draft tubes are situated at the outlet in____________
a) Pelton
b) Reaction
c) Kaplan
d) Francis
View Answer
Answer: a
related device. Draft tubes are not used in Pelton wheels. Draft tube is a tube that is installed
in power turbines.
394. Efficiency of a draft tube is directly proportional to its __________
a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) Velocity
d) Density
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The efficiency of the draft tube gives difference of the kinetic energy between
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the inlet and the outlet tube losses. It is directly proportional to its velocity.
395. Z is a draft tube is _______
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b) Pressure drop
d) Datum head
eri
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Height of tail race which is referenced as datum line is equal to zero. It is
396. Draft tube operates at ______ e

denoted as ‘Z’. It plays an important role to determine its efficiency.
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a) Same efficiency
b) Different efficiency
c) Turbine
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d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Draft Tube allows turbine to be placed above the tail race and simultaneously
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allows it to operate at the same efficiency if it was placed at the tail race.
397. The draft tube is an ________
a) Interior tube
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b) Exterior tube
c) Tank depth alternator
d) Nozzle tube
w.
View Answer
Answer: b
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398. What type of pressure does the draft tube depend upon?
a) Gauge pressure
b) Atm pressure
c) Normal pressure
d) Normal and Atm pressure
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Draft tube is mainly used to determine the gauge pressure of the turbine and
pumps and is located at the inlet of the turbine.

399. Gauge pressure of the draft tube is denoted by _____

a) P
b) h
c) z
d) x
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gauge pressure of the draft tube is denoted by ‘P’. It helps to determine the
pressure of the fluid in the draft tube.
400. Draft tube allows turbine to be placed below the tail race.
a) True
b) False
.in
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The draft tube helps to cut down the cost of excavation. The draft tube is placed
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close to the tail race. The turbine pressure head is increased by decreasing the velocity at the
draft tube. Draft tube allows turbine to be placed above the tail race.
401. Specific speed is denoted by ________
eri
a) N
b) n
c) Ns
d) S
View Answer e
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Answer: c
Explanation: Specific speed is denoted by Ns. It is used to characterize speeds in turbo
machinery. Some of the main examples of turbomachinery are turbines. Specific speed plays
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an important role in the turbine.

402. Specific speeds are used in pumps to determine ________
a) Temperature
b) Reaction speed
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c) Suction specific speed

d) Wheel speed
View Answer
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Answer: c
Explanation: Specific speeds are used in pumps to determine. Specific speed is denoted by
Ns. It is used to characterize speeds in turbo machinery. Some of the main examples of
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turbomachinery are turbines. Specific speed plays an important role in the turbine.
403. The tube at the exit of the nozzle increases the _______
a) Temperature
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b) Pressure
d) Density of flow
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The draft tube at the exit of the nozzle increases the pressure in the fluid. It
increases it at the expense of its velocity. This means that the turbine can reduce its pressure
without fear of back flow to the tail race.
404. Specific speed is used to characterize _______
a) Turbomachinery speed
b) Flow speed
c) Energy flow
d) Heat generated
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Specific speed is used to characterize Turbomachinery speed. Specific speed is
denoted by Ns. It is used to characterize speeds in turbo machinery. Some of the main
examples of turbomachinery are turbines. Specific speed plays an important role in the
turbine.
405. Specific speed predicts the shape of a/an _________
a) Pump
b) Density head
c) Impeller
d) Motor
.in
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Specific speed predicts the shape of an impeller. Some of the main examples of
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406. What helps in categorizing the impellers?
a) Quasi static number
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b) Rotor
c) Height of draft tube
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: a e
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Explanation: The impellers are categorized using a quasi static non dimensional number. It
helps in determining the impellers time and proportional quantities.
407. Imperial units is defined as _________
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a) Temperature by pressure
b) Tail race and head race
c) Revolutions per minute
d) Turbine performance
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View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In Imperial units it is defined as the speed in revolutions per minute at which a
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geometrically similar impeller would operate if it were of such a size as to deliver one gallon
per minute against one foot of hydraulic head.
408. Ratio of pump or turbine with reference pump or turbine is called as _________
w.
a) Efficiency
b) Performance
c) Heat generated
ww
d) Relative velocity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ratio of pump or turbine with reference pump or turbine is called as the
performance of that particular turbine or pump.
409. Low specific speed in hydraulic head is developed due to _________
a) Mass flow rate
b) Increase in temperature
c) Centrifugal force
d) Increase in pressure
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Low specific speed with a radial flow in impellers are developed in hydraulic
head principally due to centrifugal force. Pumps having higher specific speed develop a head
that is partly by axial force.
410. Centrifugal pump impellers have speed ranging from ________
a) 500- 10000
b) 50- 100
c) 200-300
d) 0-50
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Centrifugal pump impellers have speed ranging from 500- 10000 English units.
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IT has got radial flow with pumps mixed with axial flow pumps.
411. What is the unit of specific speed in metric system?
a) m.s
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b) m/s
c) m3/s
d) m
eri
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The unit of specific speed in the metric system is given as m 3/s. Specific speed
412. e
is denoted by Ns. It is used to characterize speeds in turbo machinery.
Specific speed develop a hydraulic flow through the centrifugal pumps.
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a) True
b) False
View Answer
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Answer: a
Explanation: Specific speed develop a hydraulic flow through the centrifugal pumps. Specific
speed is denoted by Ns. It is used to characterize speeds in turbo machinery. With the
increase in specific speeds, diameter of the impellers increases.
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413. Net suction speed is used in problems with cavitation.

a) True
b) False
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View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Net suction speed is used in problems with cavitation during the pump’s
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operation on the suction side. It is defined by centrifugal and axial pump.

414. Low specific speed in hydraulic head is developed due to _________
a) Mass flow rate
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b) Increase in temperature
c) Centrifugal force
d) Increase in pressure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Low specific speed with a radial flow in impellers are developed in hydraulic
head principally due to centrifugal force. Pumps having higher specific speed develop a head
that is partly by axial force.
415. The runner diameter in a turbine is denoted as __________
a) A
b) Dr
c) Rr
d) De
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The runner diameter in a turbine is denoted as ‘De’. Its SI unit is meters. It
plays an essential role in improving the efficiency of the turbine. As the efficiency of the
turbine is related to its design and structure.
416. Specific speed is the speed of the turbine which is similar to its ________
b) Pressure difference
c) Aspect ratio
d) Speed of rotor
View Answer
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Answer: c
Explanation: Specific speed is the speed of the turbine which is similar to its aspect ratio.
Specific speed is denoted by Ns. It is used to characterize speeds in turbo machinery. Some
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of the main examples of turbomachinery are turbines. Specific speed plays an important role
in the turbine.
417. Specific speeds are used in pumps to determine ________
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a) Temperature
b) Reaction speed
c) Suction specific speed
d) Wheel speed
View Answer e
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Answer: c
Explanation: Specific speeds are used in pumps to determine. Specific speed is denoted by
Ns. It is used to characterize speeds in turbo machinery. Some of the main examples of
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418. Specific speed develops a unit power under a unit _______
a) Temperature
b) Pressure
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d) Head
View Answer
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Answer: d
Explanation: Specific speed develops a unit power under a unit head of the turbine. The unit
head of the turbine plays an important role in denoting the specific speed of the turbine.
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419. Impeller in a motor is used to _________

a) Change temperatures
b) Change Pressure
ww
c) Kinetic energy change

d) Change density
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Impellers that are present in motors are used to increase or decrease the
pressure of the fluid flow in the turbines. Thus, the correct option is ‘b’.
420. Hydraulic head is also called as _________
a) Pressure head
b) Density head
c) Kinetic head
d) Piezometric head
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydraulic head is also called a Piezometric head. It is a measurement of the
liquid pressure above the geodetic datum. Hydraulic head is usually measured as a liquid in
surface elevation.
421. Specific speed of a Pelton wheel with single jet is _______
a) 8.5 to 30
b) 30 to 51
c) 51 to 225
d) 230 to 500
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Specific speed of a Pelton wheel with a single jet is equal to 8.5 to 30. Specific
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speed is denoted by Ns. It is used to characterize speeds in turbo machinery. Some of the
main examples of turbomachinery are turbines. Specific speed plays an important role in the
turbine.
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422. Specific speed is an index used to predict _______
a) Head race distance
b) Tail race distance
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c) Tank dimensions
View Answer
Answer: d
e
Explanation: Specific speed of a turbine is used to predict its turbine performance. Specific
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speeds are used in pumps to determine. Specific speed is denoted by N s. It is used to
characterize speeds in turbo machinery.
423. Specific speed of a Pelton wheel with multiple jets is _______
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a) 8.5 to 30
b) 30 to 51
c) 51 to 225
d) 230 to 500
arn
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Specific speed of a Pelton wheel with multiple jets is equal to 30 to 51. Specific
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speed is denoted by Ns. It is used to characterize speeds in turbo machinery. Some of the
main examples of turbomachinery are turbines. Specific speed plays an important role in the
turbine.
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424. Specific speed of a Francis turbine is _______

a) 8.5 to 30
b) 30 to 51
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c) 51 to 225
d) 230 to 500
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Specific speed of a Francis turbine is equal to 51 to 225. Specific speed is
turbine.
425. Specific speed of a Kaplan turbine is _______
a) 8.5 to 30
b) 30 to 51
c) 51 to 225
d) 355 to 860
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Specific speed of a Kaplan turbine is equal to 51 to 225. Specific speed is
turbine.
426. Specific speed less than 500 are called _________
a) Positive displacement pumps
b) Negative displacement pumps
c) Draft tubes
d) Tanks
.in
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Specific speed less than 500 are called positive displacement pumps. Centrifugal
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pump impellers have speed ranging from 500- 10000 English units. IT has got radial flow
with pumps mixed with axial flow pumps.
427. With the increase in specific speeds, ________
eri
a) Head race distance increases
b) Tail race distance increases
c) Tank dimensions increases
d) Diameters of impeller increases
View Answer e
gin
Answer: d
speeds are used in pumps to determine. Specific speed is denoted by Ns. It is used to
En
characterize speeds in turbo machinery. With the increase in specific speeds, diameter of the
impellers increases.
428. Specific speed is used to predict desired pump or turbine performance.
a) True
arn
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Le
Explanation: Specific speed is used to predict desired pump or turbine performance. It

predicts the general shape of the impeller. Thus, it is a true statement.
429. Once we know the desired functions of the specific speed, it is easier to calculate its
w.
components units.
a) True
b) False
ww
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, Once we know the desired functions of the specific speed, it is easier to
calculate its components units. Specific speed is used to predict desired pump or turbine
performance. It predicts the general shape of the impeller.
430. Which among the following is not a unit quantity of turbine?
a) Unit speed
b) Unit discharge
c) Unit power
d) Unit temperature
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Unit discharge, unit speed and unit power the three basic functions of the
turbine. It plays an important role in determining the specific speeds and to increase the
overall output efficiency of the turbine.
431. What does DMU stand for?
a) Density matter usage
b) Direct material usage
c) Density material usage
d) Depth matter usage
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DMU in hydraulic machines and turbo machinery stands for Direct material
.in
usage. It plays an important role in specifying the unit quantities.
432. Unit speed is the speed of the turbine operating under________
a) One-meter head
ng
b) Pressure head
c) Volumetric head
d) Draft tube
eri
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Specific speed develops a unit power under a unit head of the turbine. The unit
e
head of the turbine plays an important role in denoting the specific speed of the turbine. Unit
speed is the speed of the turbine operating under one-meter head.
gin
433. One dyne is equal to ________ N.
a) 10
b) 100
En
c) 1000
d) 10-5
View Answer
Answer: d
arn
Explanation: One dyne is equal to 10-5 N. It is in accordance to the USCS ( United States
Customary units). Thus the correct option is ‘d’.
434. What is symbol for unit speed?
Le
a) S
b) N
c) Ns
w.
d) Nu
View Answer
Answer: d
ww
Explanation: The most commonly used symbol of unit speed is Nu. Unit speed is the speed of
the turbine operating under one-meter head. Thus, the option is ‘c’.
435. Unit speed of a single jet in a turbine is _______
a) 100 m/s
b) 300 m/s
c) 500 m/s
d) 800 m/s
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Unit speed of a single jet in a turbine is around 800 m/s. The most commonly
used symbol of unit speed is Nu. Unit speed is the speed of the turbine operating under one-
meter head. Thus, the option is ‘c’.
436. Unit speed is directly proportional to________

b) Specific speed
c) Pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
speeds are used in pumps to determine. Unit speed is directly proportional to its specific
speed. Specific is takes place at the inlet and the outlet of the turbines.
437. Unit discharge is the discharge through the turbine when the head of the turbine is
________
.in
a) High
b) Zero
c) Unity
ng
d) Low
View Answer
Answer: c
eri
Explanation: Unit discharge is the discharge through the turbine when the head of the turbine
is unity. Unit discharge is one of the major unit quantities that determine the overall
efficiency of the turbine.
438.
a) Du e
9 Unit discharge is denoted as _______
gin
b) Qu
c) Su
d) Nu
En
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The basic symbol of unit discharge is given as Q u. Unit discharge is the
discharge through the turbine when the head of the turbine is unity. Unit discharge is one of
arn
the major unit quantities that determine the overall efficiency of the turbine.
439. Unit discharge is directly proportional to _______
Le
b) Discharge of fluid in the turbine.

c) Pressure
w.
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unit discharge is directly proportional to the discharge of fluid in the turbine.
ww
Unit discharge is the discharge through the turbine when the head of the turbine is unity. Unit
discharge is one of the major unit quantities that determine the overall efficiency of the
turbine.
440. Unit quantities are physical quantities _________
a) With numerical variables
b) Without numerical variables
c) With different sets
d) With unit difference
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unit quantities are physical quantities without numerical variables. Unit is a way
to assign measurement to any dimensional quantity.
441. Dyne cm is a Torque measurement unit.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dyne cm is a Torque measurement unit. One dyne is equal to 10-5 N. It is in
accordance to the USCS (United States Customary units).
442. Unit quantities play an important role in determining the dimensional quantities.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
.in
Explanation: Yes, Unit quantities play an important role in determining the dimensional
quantities as they denote the unit quantities usage and also its dimensions.
443. Unit power is developed by the turbine when the head of the turbine is unity.
ng
a) True
b) False
View Answer
eri
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, Unit power is developed by the turbine when the head of the turbine is
unity. Unit power is one of the major quantities that influence the overall efficiency of the
turbine and thus, plays an important role.
444. e
Constant head curves are also called as _______
gin
a) Head race curves
b) Tail race curves
c) Main characteristic curves
En
d) Impeller curves
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Constant head curves are also called as main characteristic curves. It helps in
arn
determining the overall efficiency of the turbine by drawing curves with different set of
parameters that play a major role in determining the performance of the turbine.
445. The speed of the turbine in a constant head curve is varied by __________
Le
a) Temperature change
b) Reaction speed change
c) Changing the gate opening
w.
d) Wheel speed change

View Answer
Answer: c
ww
Explanation: The speed of the turbine in a constant head curve is varied by maintaining a
constant head. When we maintain a constant head, the speed of the turbine is varied by
regulating the flow of fluid through a sluice gate.
446. Constant speed curves travel at constant speed when the value is equal to _______
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Constant speed curves detect the performance at different conditions.
Characteristic curves of a turbine play an important role. It helps in determining the overall
efficiency of the turbine by drawing curves with different set of parameters that play a major
role in determining the performance of the turbine.
447. Power of a turbine is measured ______
a) Mechanically
b) Electrically
c) Chemically
d) Thermally
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Power of a turbine is measured mechanically by adjusting the flow of fluid using
the percentage variations in a sluice gate. It helps in determining the overall efficiency of the
turbine.
.in
448. Which among the following is not a parameter to determine the efficiency of the
turbine?
a) Unit speed
ng
b) Unit power
c) Unit volume
d) Unit discharge
eri
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Unit volume is not a parameter to determine the efficiency of the turbine. Power
e
of a turbine is measured mechanically by adjusting the flow of fluid using the percentage
variations in a sluice gate. It helps in determining the overall efficiency of the turbine.
gin
449. Which among the following is not an important parameter to determine the
performance of the turbine?
a) Speed
En
b) Discharge
c) Head
d) Volume of tank
View Answer
arn
Answer: d
Explanation: Volume of tank is not an important parameter to determine the efficiency of the
turbine. These are not drawn in the curves pertaining its efficiency.
Le
450. Which among the following is not a type of curve?

a) Logarithimic curve
b) Straight curve
w.
c) Pressure vs power
d) Efficiency vs speed
View Answer
ww
Answer: c
Explanation: Pressure vs power is not a characteristic curve that determines the overall
efficiency of the turbine. This relation does not exist.
a) Head race
b) Gate
c) Tail race
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The inlet passage of water entry is controlled by the gate opening. The gate

opening is an opening that sends only a percentage of fluid through the inlet passages for
water to enter to the turbine.
452. Overall efficiency vs what is drawn to determine the turbine performance?
a) Unit Discharge
b) Unit speed
c) Unit power
d) Unit pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: One of the graphs to determine the performance of the turbine is overall
efficiency vs the unit speed of the turbine. Unit speed is a speed of the fluid flow from inlet to
the outlet of the turbine.
.in
453. Constant discharge takes place due to _______
a) Unit Discharge
b) Unit speed
ng
c) Unit power
d) Unit pressure
View Answer
eri
Answer: b
Explanation: Unit discharge is directly proportional to the discharge of fluid in the turbine.
Unit discharge is the discharge through the turbine when the head of the turbine is unity. Unit
e
discharge is one of the major unit quantities that determine the overall efficiency of the
turbine.
gin
454. All the characteristic curves are drawn with respect to __________
a) Unit Discharge
b) Unit speed
En
c) Unit power
d) Unit pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
arn
Explanation: All the characteristic curves that specify different parameters in a turbine are
drawn with respect to its unit speed. Unit discharge, unit power and overall efficiency vs the
unit speed is drawn.
Le
455. Constant head curves are also called as _______

a) Head race curves
b) Tail race curves
w.

d) Impeller curves
View Answer
ww
Answer: c
Explanation: Constant head curves are also called as main characteristic curves. It helps in
456. In constant speed curves, the speed is kept a constant varying its head.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Constant speed curves are also called as operating characteristic curves. It helps
in determining the overall efficiency of the turbine by drawing curves with different set of
457. In all the characteristic curves, the overall efficiency is aimed at the maximum value.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, In all the characteristic curves, the overall efficiency is aimed at the
maximum value. It helps in determining the overall efficiency of the turbine by drawing
curves with different set of parameters that play a major role in determining the performance
of the turbine.
458. Constant efficiency curves are plotted using _______
a) Constant head curves
b) Constant speed curves
.in
d) Constant speed and constant head
View Answer
ng
Answer: d
Explanation: Constant efficiency curves are plotted using both Constant speed and constant
head. Constant efficiency curves are also called as Muschel curves. It helps in determining
eri
the overall efficiency of the turbine by drawing curves with different set of parameters that
play a major role in determining the performance of the turbine.
459. Constant speed curves are also called as _______
a) Main characteristic curves
b) Turbine curves e
gin
c) Tail race curves
d) Impeller curves
View Answer
En
Answer: c
Explanation: Constant speed curves are also called as main characteristic curves. It helps in
arn
460. Constant speed curve is denoted as _____

a) T
b) V
Le
c) c
d) V
View Answer
w.
Answer: c
Explanation: The constant speed curve is denoted as ‘c’. It is also called as called as the main
characteristic curve. It plays an important role in determining the performance of the turbine.
ww
461. Constant speed curves are ________

a) Scalar quantities
b) Vector quantities
c) Constant quantities
d) Different conditions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Constant speed curves detect the performance at different conditions. Constant
speed curves are vector quantities.
462. Constant speed is measured _________
a) Mechanically
b) Electrically
c) Chemically
d) Thermally
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Constant speed is measured is measured mechanically by adjusting the flow of
fluid using the percentage variations in a sluice gate. It helps in determining the overall
efficiency of the turbine.
463. Constant speed curves are determined by the _________
a) Arc length
b) Power
c) Heat
d) Temperature
.in
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Constant speed curves are determined by the unit arc length. Constant speed is
ng
measured is measured mechanically by adjusting the flow of fluid using the percentage
464. Which component is necessary for writing the velocity equation?
eri
a) Cos component
b) Sine Component
c) Cos and sine component
d) Independent
View Answer e
gin
Answer: c
Explanation: Both the cosine and sine component are necessary for determining and writing
down the equation for the velocity. It also helps to determine the characteristic curves using
En
the equation.
465. Which among the following is not a shape for a curve?
a) Logarithmic curve
b) Helix curve
arn
c) Straight curve
d) Speed curve
View Answer
Le
Answer: d
Explanation: Speed curve is not a shape of a characteristic curve. Constant speed is
measured is measured mechanically by adjusting the flow of fluid using the percentage
w.
466. How do we plot points in a curve?
a) Analytical approach
ww
b) General approach
c) Tail approach
d) Head approach
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The plotting of curves take place in an analytical approach. It is very essential
for the plotting of the characteristic points.
467. Plotting sine curve will take place along the _________
a) y axis
b) x axis
c) z axis

d) x and z
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Plotting sine curve will take place along the x axis. It is the motion of the x-y
plane that will occur in space.
468. In analytical approach, dp= __________
a) vdt
b) v
c) dt
d) dx
View Answer
Answer: a
.in
Explanation: In any sort of analytical approach, the equation for dp = vdt. It takes place
when the sine component and cosine components equal to one.
469. The equation is general approach is called as central difference.
ng
a) True
b) False
View Answer
eri
Answer: a
Explanation: The equation is general approach is called as central difference. All the
characteristic curves that specify different parameters in a turbine are drawn with respect to
its unit speed.
470. e
The approximate value of the constant speed curve is given by ratio of ________
gin
a) dy/dp
b) dx/dp
c) dt/dx
En
d) dt/dy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The approximate value of the constant speed curve is given by ratio of dy/dp. It
arn
helps in determining the overall efficiency of the turbine by drawing curves with different set
of parameters that play a major role in determining the performance of the turbine.
471. In constant speed curves, the velocity is kept a constant varying its head.
Le
a) True
b) False
View Answer
w.
Answer: b
Explanation: Constant speed curves are also called as operating characteristic curves. It helps
in determining the overall efficiency of the turbine by drawing curves with different set of
ww
472. The performance of a characteristic curve is kept at a high value.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, In all the characteristic curves, the performance is aimed at the maximum
value. It helps in determining the overall efficiency of the turbine by drawing curves with
different set of parameters that play a major role in determining the performance of the
turbine.
473. In nozzle governing, the flow rate of steam is regulated by _________
a) Nozzles
b) Pumping
c) Drafting
d) Intercooling
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The process of controlling the flow rate of a substance is called as governing. It
is done by maintaining the speed of rotation at a constant rate. In nozzle governing, the flow
rate of steam is regulated by nozzles.
474. The flow rate of steam is controlled by regulating the _________
a) Steam
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
.in
d) Speed
View Answer
Answer: b
ng
Explanation: The process of controlling the flow rate is called as governing. It is done to
maintain its speed at a constant rate during rotation of the turbine rotor. The flow rate of
steam is controlled by regulating the pressure.
eri
c) Load variations
d) Heat variations e
gin
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main function of nozzle is to vary the pressure of fluid passing through the
En
nozzle. It is done by opening and shutting the sets of nozzles. Thus, its main function is to
regulate pressure of the fluid.
476. What is primary objective of steam turbine governing?
a) Maintain constant speed
arn
b) Maintain constant pressure

c) Maintain constant temperature
d) Maintain constant expansion
Le
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The primary objective of steam turbine governing is to maintain a constant
w.
speed at varying loads. That means, irrespective of the load that is developed in the turbine,
the speed remains a constant.
477. What is the purpose of a steam turbine governing?
ww
a) Controls speed
b) Controls flow rate
c) Controls volume
d) Controls discharge
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main purpose of the steam turbine governing is to control the flow rate of
steam in the turbine. It also helps in regulating the load that is developed.
a) Valve
b) Pump
c) Head
d) Tank pipe
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flow rate of the tank is controlled by the valve. The actuation of individual valve
closes. This corresponds to the set of nozzle thereby controlling the actual flow rate of the
fluid passing through the valve.
479. The advantage of nozzle governing is that no regulating pressure is applied.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The advantage of nozzle governing is that no regulating pressure is applied. The
.in
actuation of individual valve closes the corresponding set of nozzle. Thus, controlling the flow
rate.
480. During the steam turbine governing, what remains a constant?
ng
a) Speed of rotation
b) Flow rate
c) Pump head
eri
d) Volume of fluid
View Answer
Answer: a
e
Explanation: During the steam turbine governing the speed of rotation remains a constant.
The main purpose of the steam turbine governing is to control the flow rate of steam in the
gin
turbine. It also helps in regulating the load that is developed.
481. When do we apply by pass governing?
a) When turbine is overloaded
En
b) When Unit speed decreases

c) When Unit power increases
d) When Unit pressure decreases
View Answer
arn
Answer: a
Explanation: The main purpose of by pass governing is taken into full action when the turbine
is overloaded for short durations. This happens occasionally in the working of the turbine.
Le
During this, a bypass valve is used.

482. When bypass valve is opened to _______
w.
b) Increase Unit speed

c) Increase Unit power
d) Increase the amount of fresh steam
ww
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When a by pass valve is opened, a fresh steam is introduced into the turbine,
thereby increasing the amount of fresh steam. The main purpose of by pass governing is
taken into full action when the turbine is overloaded for short durations.
483. What is the unit of steam rate?
a) kg
b) kg/m
c) kg/kWh
d) N/m
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The unit of stream is equal to kg/kWh. In the process of throttle governing, it is
denoted by the symbol ‘a’. The variation of the steam consumption rate with the turbine load
during governing is linear.
484. With the increase in load, Energy in the turbine ________
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When there is an increase in the load, the energy in the turbine is drained off.
.in
Thus, to increase the energy, the by pass valve is opened to increase the amount of fresh
steam entry. This increases the energy in the turbine.
485. Combination governing involves usage of two or more governing.
ng
a) True
b) False
View Answer
eri
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, Combination governing involves usage of two or more governing. Most
usage is the by pass and the nozzle governing as they tend to match the load on the turbine.
Thus, increasing its efficiency.
486. e
When the mechanical speed of the shaft increases beyond 110 percent, we use
gin
_________
b) Steam governing
En
c) Nozzle governing
View Answer
Answer: d
arn
Explanation: When the mechanical speed of the shaft increases beyond 110 percent, we use
emergency governing. These governors come into action only when there are emergencies in
the turbine.
Le

b) Steam governing
w.
c) Nozzle governing
View Answer
ww
Answer: d
Explanation: When the balancing of the turbine is disturbed, we use emergency governing.
These governors come into action only when there are emergencies in the turbine.
488. In nozzle governing, the flow rate of steam is regulated by _________
a) Nozzles
b) Pumping
c) Drafting
d) Intercooling
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The process of controlling the flow rate of a substance is called as governing. It

is done by maintaining the speed of rotation at a constant rate. In nozzle governing, the flow
rate of steam is regulated by nozzles.
489. The flow rate of steam is controlled by regulating the_________
a) Steam
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
d) Speed
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The process of controlling the flow rate is called as governing. It is done to
maintain its speed at a constant rate during rotation of the turbine rotor. The flow rate of
steam is controlled by regulating the pressure.
.in
ng
c) Load variations
d) Heat variations
View Answer
eri
Answer: b
Explanation: The main function of nozzle is to vary the pressure of fluid passing through the
nozzle. It is done by opening and shutting the sets of nozzles. Thus, its main function is to
regulate pressure of the fluid.
491. e
What is primary objective of steam turbine governing?
gin
a) Maintain constant speed
b) Maintain constant pressure
c) Maintain constant temperature
En
d) Maintain constant expansion

View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The primary objective of steam turbine governing is to maintain a constant
arn
speed at varying loads. That means, irrespective of the load that is developed in the turbine,
the speed remains a constant.
492. Which among the following is not a parameter to determine the efficiency of the
Le
turbine?
a) Unit speed
b) Unit power
w.
c) Unit volume
d) Unit discharge
View Answer
ww
Answer: c
Explanation: Unit volume is not a parameter to determine the efficiency of the turbine. Power
of a turbine is measured mechanically by adjusting the flow of fluid using the percentage
a) Valve
b) Pump
c) Head
d) Tank pipe
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flow rate of the tank is controlled by the valve. The actuation of individual valve
closes. This corresponds to the set of nozzle thereby controlling the actual flow rate of the
fluid passing through the valve.
494. The advantage of nozzle governing is that no regulating pressure is applied.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The advantage of nozzle governing is that no regulating pressure is applied. The
actuation of individual valve closes the corresponding set of nozzle. Thus, controlling the flow
rate.
a) Head race
.in
b) Gate
c) Tail race
d) Pump
ng
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The inlet passage of water entry is controlled by the gate opening. The gate
eri
opening is an opening that sends only a percentage of fluid through the inlet passages for
water to enter to the turbine.
496. When do we apply by pass governing?
a) When turbine is overloaded
b) When Unit speed decreases e
gin
c) When Unit power increases
d) When Unit pressure decreases
View Answer
En
Answer: a
Explanation: The main purpose of by pass governing is taken into full action when the turbine
is overloaded for short durations. This happens occasionally in the working of the turbine.
During this, a bypass valve is used.
arn
497. When bypass valve is opened to _______

b) Increase Unit speed
Le
c) Increase Unit power

d) Increase the amount of fresh steam
View Answer
w.
Answer: d
Explanation: When a by pass valve is opened, a fresh steam is introduced into the turbine,
thereby increasing the amount of fresh steam. The main purpose of by pass governing is
ww
taken into full action when the turbine is overloaded for short durations.
498. What is the unit of steam rate?
a) kg
b) kg/m
c) kg/kWh
d) N/m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The unit of stream is equal to kg/kWh. In the process of throttle governing, it is
denoted by the symbol ‘a’. The variation of the steam consumption rate with the turbine load
during governing is linear.

499. With the increase in load, Energy in the turbine ________

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When there is an increase in the load, the energy in the turbine is drained off.
Thus, to increase the energy, the by pass valve is opened to increase the amount of fresh
steam entry. This increases the energy in the turbine.
500. Combination governing involves usage of two or more governing.
a) True
.in
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
ng
Explanation: Yes, Combination governing involves usage of two or more governing. Most
usage is the by pass and the nozzle governing as they tend to match the load on the turbine.
Thus, increasing its efficiency.
eri
501. When the mechanical speed of the shaft increases beyond 110 percent, we use
_________
b) Steam governing
c) Nozzle governing e
gin
View Answer
Answer: d
En
Explanation: When the mechanical speed of the shaft increases beyond 110 percent, we use
emergency governing. These governors come into action only when there are emergencies in
the turbine.
arn
b) Steam governing
c) Nozzle governing
Le
View Answer
Answer: d
w.
Explanation: When the balancing of the turbine is disturbed, we use emergency governing.
These governors come into action only when there are emergencies in the turbine.
503. The purpose of a surge tank is
ww
a. To control the pressure variations due to rapid changes in the pipe line flow
b. To eliminate water hammer possibilities
c. To regulate flow of water to turbines by providing necessary retarding head of water
d. All of the above
Correct Answer D

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DHIRAJLAL GANDHI COLLEGE OF TECHNOLOGY

UNIT I FLUID PROPERTIES AND FLOW CHARACTERISTICS

4. Liquids transmit pressure equally in all the directions. This is according to

(A) Boyle's law

5. The discharge over a triangular notch is

(A) Inversely proportional to H3/2

(D) Directly proportional to H5/2

(B) Less than

8. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3 at

(C) Inversely proportional

14. A manometer is used to measure

(D) Atmospheric pressure

15. Which of the following meters is not associated with viscosity?

16. The specific weight of water in S.I. units is taken as

17. Manometer is used to measure

(B) Uniform flow

(B) High pressure

20. The pressure of fluid due to hammer blow is

(A) Directly proportional to density of fluid

21. In order to measure the flow with a Venturimeter, it is installed in

23. According to equation of continuity,

(A) Gauge pressure

30. One stoke is equal to

31. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of

34. The stress-strain relation of the Newtonian fluid is

36. The unit of surface tension is

37. The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are

(C) Specific gravity

(C) Free vortex

(B) Unsteady flow

42. A flow whose streamline is represented by a curve, is called

For More Visit : www.LearnEngineering.in

45. Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is being opened is

(A) dp/ρ + g.dz + v.dv = 0

(D) ρ.dp - g.dz + v.dv = 0

(A) tanθ = a/g

51. The angle of contact in case of a liquid depends upon

54. Bernoulli's equation is applied to

(D) All of these

55. Rain drops are spherical because of

(C) Surface tension forces

56. General energy equation holds for

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(B) Uniform flow

62. The specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m3

(A) At normal pressure of 760 mm

67. The force per unit length is the unit of

68. One cubic metre of water weighs

(C) 500 liters

69. Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon

(D) All of the above

(A) Gas law

75. A differential manometer is used to measure

(B) Pressure in pipes and channels

76. In a venturi-flume, the flow takes place at

(A) Atmospheric pressure

77. The normal stress is same in all directions at a point in a fluid

79. Which of the following manometer has highest sensitivity?

82. The bulk modulus of elasticity

(C) Is large when fluid is more compressible

83. Kinematic viscosity is equal to

(B) Dynamic viscosity × density