‫بسم اهلل الرحمن الرحيم‬

Omdurman Islamic university

Medical students association

OMSA-Academic Secretary

ENT best answer

Select the one best answer:-

1) Tympanoplasty is an operation aimed to:

A) Correction of hearing in perceptive deafness

B) eradication of infection & correction of hearing
C) Drainage of mastoid abscess
D) Correction of hearing in otosclerosissu

2) Surgical emphysema after tracheostomy is corrected by:

A) taking more stitches of the wound

B) cold compresses
C) widening of the wound by removal of some stitches
D) antihistaminic intake

3) Commonest cause of septal perforation is:

A) trauma
B) syphilis
C) lupus
D) blood disease

4) Stapedectomy is the operation of choice for:

A) otosclerosis
B) bell's palsy
C) Meniere’s disease
D) cholesteatoma

5) Saddle nose may be due to the following except:

A) over resection of septal cartilage

B) nasal trauma
C) septal abscess
D) rhinosceleroma

6) The best treatment of mild epistaxis from little s area is:

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 A) anterior nasal pack
B) cautery of the bleeding point
C) posterior nasal pack
D) blood transfusion

7) Referred otalgia may be due to the following except:

A) acute suppurative otitis media

B) quinsy
C) dental infection
D) maxillary sinusitis

8) 3 years old boy complained of sudden acute respiratory distress, with spasmodic cough, cyanosis & acting accessory
respiratory muscles is most probably due to :

A) acute follicular tonsillitis

B) foreign body inhalation
C) adenoid hypertrophy
D) vocal cord nodule

9) Proptosis may be due to the following except:

A) frontoethmoidecele
B) osteomata of the frontoethmoid
C) antrochoanal polyp
D) nasopharyngeal fibroma

10) The most serious complication after tonsillectomy:

A) respiratory obstruction
B) reactionary hemorrhage
C) incomplete removal
D) infection

11) Otoscopic manifestation of chronic secretory otitis media may include the following except:

A) perforation at pars flaceida

B) transverse handle of malleolus
C) absent cone of light
D) air bubbles behind the tympanic membrane

12) Tonsillectomy is absolutely contraindicated in:

A) chronic tonsillitis
B) quinsy
C) hemophilia
D) below five years

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13) A newly born infant with respiratory distress & different (difficult) feeding is more likely to be due to:

A) laryngeal web at the anterior half of vocal cords

B) bilateral posterior choanal atresia
C) congenital subglottic stenosis
D) congenital metal atresia

14) Unilateral offensive blood tinged purulent rhinorrhea in 3 years old is more likely due to:

A) rhinosceleroma
B) lupus
C) foreign body
D) adenoid

15) The following are manifestations of meinere's disease except:

A) vertigo
B) posterior reservoir sign
C) sensory hearing loss
D) tinnitus

16) Examination of the chest is more important in:

A) fixed right vocal cord

B) fixed left vocal cord
C) singer's nodules
D) laryngemalacia

17) Manifestations of otogenic facial nerve paralysis may include the following except:

A) deviation of the mouth to the same side of lesion

B) inability to show the teeth on whistle
C) inability to close the eye
D) inability to raise the eyebrow

18) Conservative septoplasty is:

A) surgical correction of deviated septum above 17 years

B) surgical correction of deviated septum below 17 years
C) closed reduction of fractured septum by ash's forceps

19)a 20 years old man c/o fever & increasing sore throat with drippling of saliva &trismus for only 2 days on examination( the
right tonsil pushed medially & forward ) no response to antibiotics ..Rapid relief can be obtained by:

A) short course of radiotherapy

B) assurance & rest
C) antidephtheric serum

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 D) incision & drainage

20) the most common cause of conductive deafness is:

A) otosclerosis
B) secretory otitis media
C) congenital ossicular fixation
D) collection of wax

21) Anosmia may be caused by:

A) peripheral neuritis
B) nasal obstruction
C) atrophic rhinitis
D) all of the above

22) Posterior nasal pack may be used in:

A) nasopharyngeal carcinoma
B) epistaxis from little's area
C) CSF rhinorrhea
D) post_ adenoidectomy bleeding

23) Ottitic barotraumas is characterized by:

A) attic perforation
B) middle ear effusion
C) mucopurulant discharge
D) central drum perforation

24) Otosclerosis mean:

A) congenital fixation of incus

B) fixation of stapes by fibrous tissue (correct answer is spongy bone)
C) ossicular disruption
D) none of the above

25) All of the followings are absolute contraindications for tonsillectomy except:

A) rheumatic fever
B) hemophilia
C) advanced renal disease
D) none of the above

26) Unilateral clear watery nasal discharge reducing Fehling’s solution is suggestive of:

A) CSF rhinorrhea
B) allergic rhinitis

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 C) viral rhinitis
D) nasal diphtheria

27) the most common cause of oriental fistula is:

A) acute sinusitis
B) car accident
C) dental extraction of upper second premolar tooth
D) radical antrum operation

28) Ear wash is indicated in the following conditions except:

A) wax
B) otomycosis
C) impacted F.B in the ear
D) caloric test

29) Post-tonsillectomy otalgia is mediated through:

A) vagus nerve
B) glossolaryngeal nerve
C) trigeminal nerve
D) second & third cervical nerve

30) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is managed by:

A) surgical resection
B) surgical resection followed by radiotherapy
C) radiotherapy
D) all above

31) Trotter’s triad includes the followings except:

A) otalgia
B) epistaxis
C) deafness
D) deviation of the septum

32) The medial wall of the middle ear shows all the following anatomical features except:

A) eustichian tube orifice

B) horizontal part of facial nerve
C) promontory
D) oval & round windows

33) the most common cause for posterior septal perforation is:

A) TB

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 B) syphilis
C) leprosy
D) scleroma

34) Moure’s sign is:

A) presence of laryngeal click

B) absence of laryngeal click
C) external neck swelling
D) internal pharyngeal swelling

35) Stridor is characteristic feature of the following diseases except:

A) laryngeal diphtheria
B) angioneurtic edema
C) adenoid hypertrophy
D) bilateral abductor vocal cord paralysis

36) Laryngeomalicia is a disease due to:

A) voice abuse
B) soft larynx
C) vocal cord nodule
D) acute laryngitis

37) Achalasia of the cardia is characterized by the followings except:

A) dysphagia is more marked for solids than fluids

B) dysphagia is more marked for fluid than solids
C) treated by cardiotomy
D) regurgition of undigested food

38) Subglottic stenosis may be caused by all the followings except:

A) laryngeoscleroma
B) high tracheostomy
C) post traumatic
D) unilateral recurrent laryngeal N paralysis

39) Quinsy is due to:

A) blood disease
B) peritonsillar infection
C) pharyngoscleroma
D) retropharyngeal suupuration

40) Retracted tympanic membrane is characterized by the following except:

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 A) prominent lateral process of malleus
B) fragmentation of cone of light
C) hyper mobility of tympanic membrane
D) accentuation of malleolar folds

41) The following symptoms are true of primary atrophic rhinitis except:

A) bad odour felt by the patient

B) bad odour felt by others
C) epistaxis
D) sense of nasal obstruction

42) Severe headache, vomiting, dysphagia, &visual field defects in a patient with cholesteatoma indicate:

A) secretory otitis media

B) otogenic facial paralysis
C) distant metastasis
D) temporal lobe abscess

43)Unilateral malignant tumor of the vocal cord with subglottic extension& lymph node metastasis is best treated by:

A) unilateral cordectomy
B) total laryngectomy with neck dissection
C) chemotherapy
D) tracheostomy only

44) The commenst presentation of laryngeascleroma is:

A) vocal cord paralysis

B) stridor &hoarseness
C) pain & night sweating
D) metastatic lymph node

45) The commenst nasal polyps are:

A) ethmoidal polyp
B) antrochoanal polyps
C) bleeding polyp
D) inverted papilloma

46)Ludwig’s angina is manifested by:

A) unilateral submandibular swellings

B) parotid abscess
C) parapharyngeal abscess
D) sublingual & submental cellulites

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47) Foreign body nose in a child is better extracted:

A) Under local anesthesia

B) Under spinal anesthesia
C) Withoutanesthesia
D) Under general anesthesia

48) The following are possible complications of ear wash except:

A) perforation of the tympanic membrane

B) Paralysis of facial nerve
C) Caloric reaction
D) Syncope

49) Suppurative labyrinthitis may complicate:

A) salicylate toxicity
B) streptomycin toxicity
C) cholesteatoma
D) otomycosis

50)The followings are common symptoms of nasopharyngeal carcinoma except:

A) nasal obstruction
B) cranial nerve paralysis
C) recurrent sever epistaxis
D) a mass in the neck

51) Rinne’s test positive means that:

A) Air conduction is better than bone conduction
B) Bone conduction is better than air conduction
C) Bone is equal to air conduction
D) Cholesteatoma

52) Greisinger’s sign means:

A) Pain over the tempromandibular joint
B) Pain in the eye
C) Pain and tenderness over the mastoid
D) Pain and tenderness over the auricle

53) Tonsillar artery is a branch from

A) Lingual artery
B) Maxillary artery
C) Facial artery
D) Occipital artery

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54) Bulla ethmoidalis is present in:
A) Inferior nasal meatus
B) Middle nasal meatus
C) Superior nasal meatus
D) Nasopharynx

55) Retracted drum is characterized by all the following except:

A) Disturbed cone of light
B) Prominent malleolar folds
C) Decreased drum mobility
D) Central drum perforation

56) Fistula sign may be positive in:

A) Central drum perforation
B) Atelactatic drum
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Otosclerosis

57) The best treatment of otosclerosis:

A) Grommet’s tube
B) Stapedectomy
C) Myringoplasty
D) Mastoidectomy
58) Early glottic carcinoma is best treated by:
A) Radiotherapy
B) Total laryngectomy
C) Antibiotics
D) Cryosurgery

59) On tracheostomy, apnea developed after incising the trachea is due to:
A) Sudden wash of CO2 in the trachea
B) Sudden release of the pressure in the trachea
C) Reflex vagal stimulation
D) None of the above

60) the most common cause of esophageal stricture in children is:

A) Esophageal carcinoma
B) Diphtheria
C) Achalasia of the cardia
D) Corrosive intake

61) Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is characterized by the following except:

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 A) Affects teenagers
B) Causes nasal obstructions
C) Very vascular tumor
D) Affects only females

62) Fossa of Rosenmullar is a common site for:

A) Angiofibroma
B) Lipoma
C) Adenoid
D) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

63) Early sign of nasopharyngeal carcinoma is:

A) Unilateral secretory otitis media
B) Trotter’s triad
C) Petrositis
D) Nasal obstruction

64) Stridor means:

A) Difficult expiration
B) Difficult inspiration
C) Both
D) Dyspnea

65) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is treated by:

A) Antibiotics
B) Surgery
C) Radiotherapy
D) None of the above (Radiochemotherapy)

66) Weber’s test in unilateral conductive deafness is lateralized to:

A) The sound ear
B) The diseased ear
C) Both ears
D) Zygoma

67) F.B bronchus is treated by:

A) Eosophagoscopy
B) Direct laryngoscopy
C) Tonsillectomy
D) Bronchoscopy

68) Inferior constrictor muscle of the pharynx takes origin from:

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 A) Hyoid bone
B) Mandible
C) Maxilla
D) Thyroid and cricoid cartilages

69) The pharyngeal pouch passes through:

A) Superior constrictor muscle
B) Killian dehiscence
C) Middle constrictor muscle
D) Hyoid bone

70) Beck’s triad occurs due to:

A) Quinsy
B) Retropharyngeal abscess
C) Parapharyngeal abscess
D) Vincent angina

71) The middle ear cleft includes all of the following except:
A) Mastoid air cells
B) Middle ear cavity
C) Eustachian tube
D) Vestibular aqueduct

72) Reactionary bleeding after adenoidectomy is treated by:

A) Removal of the remnants and posterior pack
B) Antibiotics
C) Anterior nasal pack
D) Ligation of the bleeding vessel

73) Secondary post – adenoidectomy bleeding is treated by:

A) Antibiotics and posterior nasal pack
B) Anterior nasal pack
C) External carotid artery ligation
D) Cautery of the little’s area

74) Tonsillectomy is absolutely contraindicated in:

A) Menstruation
B) Upper respiratory tract infection
C) Quinsy
D) Bleeding disorders

75) A patient with epistaxis showing a bleeding point in little’s area is best managed by:

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 A) Cautery
B) Anterior nasal pack
C) Posterior nasal pack
D) Coagulants

76) Primary atrophic rhinitis is characterized by all of the following except:

A) Recurrent epistaxis
B) Anosmia
C) Bad odor smelled by the neighbors
D) Affects male only

77) Functional endoscopic sinus surgery is the operation of choice in all of the following except:
A) Chronic sinusitis
B) Mucocele of the paranasal sinuses
C) Nasal polyposis
D) Twisted nose

78) Unilateral watery nasal discharge is most likely to suggest a diagnosis of:
A) Acute viral rhinitis
B) CSF rhinorrhea
C) Allergic rhinitis
D) Rhinoscleroma

79) The usual cause of reactionary post-tonsillectomy bleeding is:

A) Slipped ligature
B) Wound infection
C) Tonsillar remnant
D) Early extubation \

80) An adult presented with acute onset dysphagia, edema of the uvula and palate, medially pushed tonsil and trismus is most
likely to have:
A) Parapharyngeal abscess
B) Acute retropharyngeal
C) Quinsy
D) Chronic retropharyngeal abscess

81) The following are signs of chronic tonsillitis except:

A) Enlarged cervical lymph nodes
B) Inequality of the size of the tonsils
C) Pus in the tonsillar crypts
D) Edema of the uvula

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82) In multiple laryngeal papillomata, all of the following are true except:
A) Occurs in children
B) Affects only the glottic area
C) Recurrence is common
D) Best treated by laser surgery

83) T.B of the larynx mostly affects:

A) Posterior part of the larynx
B) Supraglottis
C) Anterior part of the larynx
D) Subglottis

84) Safe type of chronic suppurative otitis media is characterized by:

A) Scantly offensive ear discharge
B) Profuse mucopurulent ear discharge
C) Marginal perforation
D) All of the above

85) Absent laryngeal click may suspect:

A) Supraglottic carcinoma
B) Pyriform fossa tumor
C) Subglottic cancer
D) Post-cricoid carcinoma

86) The semicircular canals and vestibule are responsible for:

A) Hearing
B) Conduction of sound waves
C) Balance
D) Taste

87) In unilateral conductive hearing loss, Webber's test will lateralize to:
A) The diseased ear
B) The normal ear
C) Both ear
D) Non of the above

88) Myringotomy is indicated in:

A) Secretory otitis media
B) Acute otitis media with bulging drum
C) Otitic barotrauma
D) All of the above

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89) Antro-choanal polyp arises from:
A) Ethmoid sinus
B) Sphenoid sinus
C) Maxillary sinus
D) Middle turbinate

90) Unilateral offensive nasal discharge may suspect:

A) Acute rhinitis
B) Nasal polyposis
C) Epistaxis
D) Nose F.B

91) One of the predisposing factors for postcricoid carcinoma is:

A) Plummer Vinson syndrome
B) Vitamin E deficiency
C) Vitamin D deficiency
D) Chronic tonsillitis

92) Reactionary hemorrhage after tonsillectomy is caused by:

A) Incomplete removal
B) Slipped ligature
C) Extubation spasm
D) Nasal obstruction

93) The most serious complication following adenotonsillectomy is:

A) Reactionary hemorrhage
B) Respiratory obstruction
C) Respiratory infection
D) Non of the above

94) Trotter’s triad is a clinical diagnosis of:

A) Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
B) Nasopharyngeal cyst
C) Petrositis
D) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

95) All the following are signs of chronic tonsillitis except:

A) Inequality of size
B) Congested anterior pillars
C) Presence of crypts over the medial tonsillar surface
D) Enlarged cervical lymph nodes

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96) The following paranasal sinuses open in the middle meatus except:
A) Sphenoid sinus
B) Maxillary sinus
C) Frontal sinus
D) Anterior ethmoid air cells

97) Posterior nasal packing is indicated in all of the following situations except:
A) Severe posterior epistaxis
B) Antro-choanal polyp
C) Reactionary post-adenoidectomy bleeding
D) After removal of nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

98) Quinsy is suppuration in:

A) Parapharyngeal space
B) Peritonsillar space
C) Retropharyngeal space
D) Submandibular space

99) Laryngoscleroma is characterized by:

A) Subglottic stenosis
B) Vocal cord paralysis
C) Mouth ulceration
D) Cervical lymph node

100) Stridor in children can be caused by:

A) Chronic tonsillitis
B) Acute rhinitis
C) Deviated nasal septum
D) Inhaled foreign body

101) Shwartz’s sign may be positive in:

A) Chronic suppurative otitis media
B) Atelactatic middle ear
C) Meniere’s disease
D) Otosclerosis

102) Griessinger’s sign is positive in:

A) Acute petrositis
B) Acute sinusitis
C) Acute labyrinthitis
D) Lateral sinus thromophelbitis

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103) Recurrent laryngeal nerve is motor to all of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx except:
A) Vocalis muscle
B) Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle
C) Lateral cricoarytenoid muscle
D) Cricothyroid muscle

104) the only abductor muscle in the larynx is:

A) Sternothyroid muscle
B) Lateral cricoarynoid muscle
C) Cricothyroid muscle
D) Posterior cricoarynoid muscle

105) Secondary post-tonsillectomy bleeding is due to:

A) Incomplete removal
B) Foreign body aspiration
C) Sepsis
D) Posterior nasal packing

106) Pharyngeal diverticulum occurs through:

A) The superior constrictor muscle
B) The middle constrictor muscle
C) The inferior constrictor muscle
D) Palatopharyngus muscle

107) Unilateral vocal cords paralysis may occur due to:

A) Viral infection
B) Thyroidectomy
C) Mediastinal lesion
D) All of the above

108) Cortical mastoidectomy is indicated in:

A) acute mastoiditis not responding to medical treatment
B) Bezold’s abscess
C) mastoid abscess
D) all of the above

109) Stapedectomy is the operation of the choice in:

A) atelactatic middle ear
B) Meniere's disease
C) otosclerosis
D) secretory otitis media

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110) Ear wash is indicated in all of the following except:
A) dry central perforation
B) wax
C) otomycosis
D) caloric test

111) Facial nerve gives secretomotor supply to:

A) parotid gland
B) submandibular salivary gland
C) pituitary gland
D) thyroid gland

112) Anterior septal perforation may be caused by:

A) polypectomy
B) adenoidectomy
C) rhinoscleroma
D) bilateral cautery for epistaxis

113) All the following are possible complications of acute sinusitis except:
A) temporal lobe brain abscess
B) cavernous sinus thrombosis
C) orbital cellulitis
D) osteomylaitis

114) an infant with bilateral choanal atresia will present by:

A) conductive deafness
B) epistaxis
C) postnasal discharge
D) respiratory distress

115) In epistaxis, bleeding point in the little’s area is best controlled by:
A) cautery
B) anterior nasal pack
C) posterior nasal pack
D) coagulants

116) Positive Rinne’s test means:

A) bone conduction is better than air conduction
B) air conduction is better than bone conduction
C) air conduction is equal to bone conduction
D) dead ear

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117) One of the signs of otogenic cerebellar abscess is:
A) hemiplegia
B) hemianethesia
C) aphasia
D) dysdiodokokainesia

118) Radical mastoidectomy is indicated in:

A) adhesive otitis media
B) unsafe type of otitis media with dead ear
C) secretory otitis media
D) central dry perforation

119) Allergic rhinitis is characterized by all the following except:

A) attacks of sneezing
B) watery or mucoid rhinorrhea
C) antrochoanal polyp
D) pale or bluish nasal mucosa

120) Surgical treatment of Meniere’s disease may include:

A) myringoplasty
B) ossiculoplasty
C) radical mastoidectomy
D) vestibular nerve section

121) Acute pulmonary edema occurring on opening of the trachea during tracheostomy is due to:
A) sudden drop of pressure in the tracheobronchial tree and lungs
B) sudden wash of carbon dioxide (IF Acute pulmonary Apnea, it will be the answer)
C) injury of the esophagus
D) none of the above

122) Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is characterized by all the following except:

A) lower motor facial nerve paralysis
B) recurrent severe epistaxis
C) occurs in adolescent boys
D) may cause frog face deformity

123) the value of functional endoscopic sinus surgery is to:

A) restore sinonasal functions
B) preserve sinus drainage through natural ostia
C) avoid external scars
D) all of the above

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124) Septal heamtoma is treated by:
A) antibiotics
B) antihistaminc
C) drainage and pack
D) septal perforation

125) Nasal septal perforation is caused by all the following except:

A) bilateral cautery for epistaxis
B) allergic rhinitis
C) syphilis
D) T.B

126) Hump nose is managed by:

A) Reduction rhinoplasty
B) Augmentation rhinoplasty
C) Nasal tip reconstruction
D) All of the above

127) Unilateral nasal obstruction can be the result of the following except:
A) Unilateral choanal atresia
B) Antro-choanal polyp
C) Marked septal deviation
D) Septal perforation

128) Unilateral offensive nasal discharge may be due to:

A) Allergic polyp
B) Bleeding polypus
C) Neglected F.B nose
D) Nasal osteoma

129) Reservoir sign is positive in:

A) Acute petrositis
B) Chronic labyrinthitis
C) Acute mastoiditis
D) Cholesteatoma

130) The commonest cause of esophageal stenosis in children is:

A) Corrosive intake
B) Carcinoma
C) Achalasia of the cardia
D) Diphtheria

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131) Rhinoscleroma is treated by the following except:
A) Streptomycin
B) Rifampicin
C) Radiotherapy
D) Puncture and lavage

132) Schwarz sign may be positive in:

A) Atelactatic ear
B) Otitic barotrauma
C) Secretory otitis media
D) Otosclerosis

133) The most common cause of reactionary post- adenoidectomy bleeding is:
A) Adenoid remnant
B) Adenoid enlargement
C) Hypertension
D) Fever

134) Radical antrum operation is indicated in:

A) Acute sinusitis
B) Chronic frontal sinusitis
C) Oroantral fistula
D) Chronic sphenoiditis

135) Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is treated by:

A) Antibiotics
B) Nasal packing
C) Surgical excision
D) None of the above

136) In unilateral conductive deafness, Rinne’s test will be:

A) Positive
B) Negative
C) Reduced positive
D) False negative

137) Recurrent severe epistaxis in adolescent boy is most likely to be due to:
A) Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
B) Antro-choanal polyp
C) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D) Chronic sinusitis

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138) during flying otitis barotrauma occurs:

A) During ascent
B) During descent
C) During both
D) None of the above

139) the inferior constrictor muscle of the pharynx takes origin from:
A) Hyoid bone
B) Mandible
C) Maxilla
D) Thyroid and cricoid cartilages

140) Apnea immediately after tracheostomy is treated by:

A) Multiple skin incisions
B) Inhalation of oxygen
C) Temporary closure of the tracheostomy opening
D) Intubation

141) Multiple papillomata of the larynx is characterized by the following except:

A) Occurs in children
B) Affect only the glottic area
C) Recurrence is common
D) Best treated by laser

142) The most common cause of Bell’s palsy is:

A) Trauma to the temporal bone
B) Cholesteatoma
C) Glomus tympanicus
D) Idiopathic

143) Ear wash contraindicated in all except:

A) Wax
B) Central drum perforation
C) Otomycosis
D) Caloric test

144) The main arterial supply of the tonsil is derived from:

A) Sphenopalatine artery
B) Maxillary artery
C) Facial artery
D) Internal carotid artery

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145) The constrictor muscles of the pharynx are responsible for:
A) Deglutition
B) Aspiration
C) Glottic closure
D) Reflux disease

146) Tonsillectomy is contraindicated in:

A) Cervical lymphadenopathy
B) Meniere’s disease
C) Enlarged adenoid
D) Blood diseases

147) Kernig’s sign is present in:

A) Otitic meningitis
B) Otitic brain abscess
C) Otitic hydrocephalus
D) All of the above

148) The main site of ossicular necrosis in chronic suppurative otitis media is:
A) Incudomalleolar joint
B) Long process of incus
C) Stapedial arches
D) Handle of malleus

149) Radical mastoidectomy is indicated in all the following except:

A) Cholesteatoma with dead ear
B) Chronic specific otitis media
C) Cholesteatoma with brain abscess
D) Acute mastoiditis

150) Meniere’s disease is characterized by:

A) Fluctuating hearing loss
B) Tinnitus
C) Vertigo
D) All of the above

With best wishes

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