NTSE (STAGE-II)

PRACTICE TEST # 1

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

Time : 120 Min. Max. Marks :100

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. The booklet given in the examination hall is the Question Paper.

2. A student has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of
HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

3. The question paper contains 100 questions, 40 Questions from Science (1-40), 20 Questions from
mathamtics (41-60), 40 Question from Social Science (61-100), each carries one mark.

4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic gadgets in any
form is not allowed.

5. Write your Name & Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.

6. There is no negative marking.

7. Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the answer sheet.

8. In case of any dispute, the answer sheet available with the institute shall be final.

Name : ................................................................ Roll No. : ..........................................................

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SAT PAPER
SCIENCE
1. A man 180 cm high stands in front of a plane mirror. His eyes are at a height of 170 cm from the floor.
Then the minimum length of plane mirror for him to see his full length image is-
(A) 90 cm (B) 180 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 360 cm

2. A plane glass slab is placed over various coloured letters. The letter which appears to be raised the least is:
(A) violet (B) yellow (C) red (D) green

3. Which of the following cannot be used to produce electricity ?

(A) Nuclear fission (B) Hydro energy (C) Geothermal energy (D) Nuclear fusion

4. The above graph represents :

(A) zero velocity (B) constant velocity

(C) increasing velocity (D) decreasing velocity

5. Find the equivalent resistance between X and Y :

X r r r

r r r to 

Y r r r

(A) (1 + 3 )r (B) ( 3 – 1)r (C)  (D) 50 r

6. Two nonideal batteries are connected in parallel. Consider the following statements
(I) The equivalent emf is smaller than either of the two emfs.
(II) The equivalent internal resistance is smaller than either of the two internal resistance.
(A) Both I and II are correct (B) I is correct but II is wrong
(C) II is correct but I is wrong (D) Each of I and II is wrong.

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7. A cube of side a is placed in a magnetic field B. The magnetic flux emerging out of the cube will be
D C
F
G

O A

H E
2 2
(A) Ba (B) –Ba (C) 2Ba2 (D) zero
8. A conducting square loop of side  and resistance R moves in its plane with a uniform velocity v perpendicu-
lar to one of its sides. A uniform and constant magnetic field B exists along the perpendicular to the plane of
the loop in fig. The current induced in the loop is -

(A) B/R clockwise (B) B/R anticlockwise

(C) 2B/R anticlockwise (D) zero
9. Where should an object be placed on the principal axis of a concave spherical mirror of radius of curvature
36 cm in order to form a real image having half its linear (lateral) dimensions
(A) – 54 cm (B) – 118 cm
(C) – 36 cm (D) None of the above

10.

In which of the above cells, the potential difference between the terminals of a cell exceeds its emf.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d

11. There are five resistances of 1 ohm each. If the initial three resistance are joined in parallel and rest two are
joined in series, then the final resistance is
(A) 3 ohm (B) 8 ohm (C) 7/3 ohm (D) 5 ohm

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12. A pair of stationary and infinitely long bent wires are placed in the xy plane as shown in figure. The wires carry
currents of i = 10 A each as shown. The segments L and M are along the x-axis. The segments P and Q are
parallel to the y-axis such that OS = OR = 0.02 m. Find the magnitude and direction of the magnetic
induction at the origin O. y


 L R M 
x
i P O S i

1250 1250 2500 2500

(A) (outword) (B) (inword) (C) (outword) (D) (inword)
   
13. An isosceles glass prism with angles 40º is clamped over a tray of water in a position such that the
base is just dipped in water. A ray of light incident normally on the inclined face suffers total internal
reflection at the base. If the refractive index of water is 1.33 then the condition imposed on the refractive
index µ of the glass is
(A) µ < 2.07 (B) µ > 2.07 (C) µ < 1.74 (D) µ > 1.74

14. In the radioactive change -

A A A4 A4
Z P 
 Z1 Q 
 Z1 R 
 Z1 S
The radiations emitted in sequence are -
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 

15. Windows of aeroplane are made up of -

(A) polyethene (B) polypropylene
(C) PVC (D) polymethylmethacrylate

16. Red phosphorus is less reactive than yellow phosphorus because -

(A) its colour is red (B) it is highly polymerised
(C) it is tetratomic (D) it is hard

17. Which pair of atomic number represents s-block elements?

(A) 7, 1 (B) 6, 1 (C) 1, 92 (D) 4, 12

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18. Select the correct pair–
Phase of meiosis Events that occurs
1. Prophase I Crossing over occurs
2. Metaphase I Sister chromatids migrate to opposite poles
3. Anaphase I Homologous chromosomes arrange in linear sequence.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false
(C) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false (D) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false

19. If 92X238 liberates an -particle then the number of neutrons present in daughter nuclei is -
(A) 144 (B) 146 (C) 92 (D) 143
20. Which of the following helps in the bleaching action by using bleaching powder ?
(A) H2 (B) O2 (C) [Cl] (D) [O]
21. Petroleum fraction of which of the following compositions can be used as a lubricating oil?
(A) C5 – C7 (B) C10 – C16 (C) C20 – C24 (D) C30 – C40
22. Which of the following changes takes place during the process of calcination of ore?
(A) Thermal decomposition of ore takes place (B) The mass become porous
(C) Moisture is removed (D) All the above
23. Identify the methods by which the individual components of mixture containing water, potassium nitrate,
sodium chloride, alcohol and carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) can be separated.
(A) Separating funnel, fractional distillation, fractional crystallisation, distillation.
(B) Fractional distillation, distillation, fractional crystallization.
(C) Separating funnel, fractional distillation, filtration, distillation:
(D) Separating funnel, fractional distillation, sedimentation and decantation.
24. The time taken for 80 g of uranium (t1/2 = 4.5 × 109 years) to decay to 10 g would be -
(A) 4.5 × 109 years (B) 9.0 × 109 years (C) 13.5 × 109 years (D) 18.0 × 109 years
25. Principle of generating electricity in hydroelectric power plants is :
(A) potential energy is converted into kinetic energy than to electric energy.
(B) kinetic energy of flowing water is directly converted into electricity.
(C) allowing the stored water to absorb more of solar energy.
(D) conversion of chemical energy into electrical energy.
26. If three electrons are lost by a metal ion, M3+, its final oxidation number would be -
(A) zero (B) + 6 (C) + 2 (D) + 4
27. Succus entericus is the name given to :
(A) Junction between ileum and large intestine (B) Intestinal juice
(C) Swelling in the gut (D) Appendix
28. The blood returning to the heart from lungs via pulmonary vein has more
(A) RBC per ml of blood (B) Haemoglobin per ml of blood
(C) Oxygen per ml of blood (D) Nutrient per ml of blood

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29. Which of the following term/s are true for pteridophytes?
(i) amphibians of plant kingdom (ii) non vascular cryptogams
(iii) Vascular cryptogams
(A) only (i) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) & (iii) (D) only (iii)

30. Match the enzyme with their respective substrate and choose the right one among options given
Column I Column II
A. Lipase i. Dipeptides
B. Nuclease ii. Fats
C. Carboxypeptidase iii. Nucleic acids
D. Dipeptidases iv. Proteins, peptones and proteoses.
Options :
(A) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv (B) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(C) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii (D) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

31. Which of the following properties of diamond is not attributed to its rigid giant polymeric tetrahedral structure?
(A) Good Thermal conductivity (B) Good abrasive conductivity
(C) Poor electrical conductivity (D) Both (A) and (B)

32. A water body has high BOD indicating that water is

(A) being contaminated with sewage (B) Being aerated
(C) Receiving minerals (D) Atrophic

33. Which of the following is not a part of hind brain ?

(A) Medulla (B) Pons (C) Thalamus (D) Cerebellum

34. Hot spots of biodiversity are areas with

(A) little biodiversity (B) maximum biodiviersity
(C) maximum conservation (D) Both (A) and (C)

35. The element with atomic numbner 117 is be placed in

(A) Noble gas family (B) Alkali family (C) Alkaline earth famil (D) Halogen family

36. If we take food rich in lime juice then

(A) Action of ptyalin on starch is enhanced (B) Action of plyalin on starch is reduced
(C) Action of plyalin on starch is unafected (D) Action of plyalin on starch is stopped.

37. Which of the following digestive juice have minimum pH

(A) Bile (B) Gastric juice (C) Saliva (D) Pancreatic juice

38. In mamals the digestion of starch starts from-

(A) Mouth (B) Stomach (C) Oesopagous (D) Duedonum

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39. Two which of the following family do folic acid & pantothenic acid belong ?
(A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin K (C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin B complex

40. Highly active scavenger cells are -

(A) Macrophages and Eosinophils (B) Macrophages and Basophils
(C) LymphOcytes and neutrophils (D) Neutrophils and monocytes

MATHEMATICS

41. If the roots of the quadratic equation x2 + px + q = 0 are tan 30º and tan 15º respectively, then the value of
2 + q – p is :
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

42. The remainder when x100 is divided by x2 – 3x + 2 is :

(A) (2100 –1) x + (–2100 + 2) (B) (2100 +1) x + (–2100 –2)
(C) (2100 –1) x + (–2100 – 2) (D) None

43. What is the sum of all two-digit numbers that give a remainder of 3 when they are divided by 7?
(A) 666 (B) 676 (C) 683 (D) 777

44. If a1 , a2 , a3 ..... an are in A.P. where a1 > 0 for all i, then the value of
1 1 1
  ........ 
a1  a 2 a2  a3 an 1  an is

n 1 n 1 n
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
a1  an a1  an a1  an

45. If x and y are two positive real numbers such that their sum is one, then the maximum value of x4y + xy4 is

1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 8 12 16

46. The value of

2( 2  6)
 2  3  2  3 is :
3 2 3

34 6 43 6 34 6 43 6

(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 4 3

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47. In the figure, the area of square ABCD is 4 cm2 and E any point on AB. F, G, H and K are the mid point of DE,
CF, DG, and CH respectively. The area of KDC is -
A E B

F
G
H K
D C

1 1 1 1
(A) cm2 (B) cm2 (C) cm2 (D) cm2
4 8 16 32

48. There are several human beings and several dogs in a room. One tenth of the humans have lost a leg. The
total numbers of feet are 77. Then the number of dogs is
(A) not determinable due to insufficient data (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6

49. Find a four-digit perfect square such that its first two digits are the same and its last two digits are the same.
(A) 7474 (B) 5600 (C) 4488 (D) 7744

50. Let logab = 4, logcd = 2 where a, b, c, d are natural numbers. Given that b – d = 7, the value of c – a is :
(A) 1 (B) – 1 (C) 2 (D) – 2

51. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 43 and their sum is 430.Total number of distinct pairs of two such
numbers is :
(A) 5 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) data insufficient

52. In a cell centre at New Delhi, it is observed that there is a call at a interval of every 10 minutes fromCalifornia,
at every 12 minutes from Texas, at the interval of 20 minutes from Washington DC and after every 25 minutes
it gets the call from London. If in the early morning at 5 : 00 a.m. it has received the calls simultaneously from
all the four destinations, then at which time it will receive the calls at a time from all the places on the same
day ?
(A) 10:00 a.m. (B) 3 : 00 a.m. (C) 5 : 00 p.m. (D) both (A) and (B)

53. If 3x3 + 2x2 – 3x + 4 = (Ax + B) (x–1) (x + 2) + C(x–1) + D for all values of x, then A + B + C + D is
(A) 0 (B) 14 (C) 10 (D) None of these

54. If the polynomial x6 + px5 + qx4 – x2 – x – 3 is divisible by x4 – 1, then the value of p2 + q2 is

(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 13

55. The remainder obtained when 52009 + 132009 is divided by 18 is

(A) 0 (B) –1 (C) 10 (D) None of these

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1 1 1
56. If a1, a2, a3,......an are in A.P., where ai > 0 for all i, then + + ....+ =
a1  a2 a2  a3 an1  an
1 n n 1 1
(A) a1  an (B) a1  a n (C) a1  an (D)
a1  an
57. If the A.M. between pth and qth terms of an A.P. be equal to the A.M. between rth and sth terms of the A.P.,
then p + q is
(A) r - s (B) r + s (C) rs (D) none of these
58. Tangents to a circle at points P and Q on the circle intersect at a point R. If PQ = 6 and PR = 5 then the
radius of the circle is
13 15 16
(A) (B) 4 (C) (D)
3 4 5
2 2
59. The sum of digits of the number 10 4n 8  1 , where 'n' is a positive integer, is :
 
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 11

60. If the roots of (p-q)2 x2 + 2 (p2 – q2)x + k = 0 are equal, then k =

(A) ( p+q )2 (B) ( p – q )2 (C) p2 – q2 (D) 0

SOCIAL SCIENCE
61. India can only use 20% of water of Indus due to one of following treaty :
(A) Chenab treaty, 1965 (B) Jhelum treaty, 1961
(C) Ravi treaty, 1972 (D) Indus water treaty, 1960
62. Acacias, palms, euphorbia and cacti are plants common in the :
(A) Thorn forest (B) Tropical deciduous forest.
(C) Mangrove forest (D) Montane forest
63. The summit of Rio de Janeiro was convened for addressing urgent problems of development concerning
(A) economic issues (B) political issues
(C) socio-economic issues (D) social issues
64. The increase in urbanization and industrialization has effected not only the quantity , but also the :
(A) salinity of water resources (B) quality of water resources
(C) accumulation of water resources (D) potential of water resources
65. Deepest landlocked port is located at :
(A) Kochi (B) Vishakapatnam (C) Bombay (D) Chennai
66. Read the following statement and choose the best possible choice. “Energy saved is energy produced”
(A) It’s about industrial energy planning
(B) It’s about consumption of energy
(C) It’s about sustainable energy
(D) It’s about conservation of energy resources

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67. The first successful textile mill was established in Mumbai in the year
(A) 1824 (B) 1854 (C) 1864 (D) 1884
68. Match the following :
Column I Column II (year 2000)
A. Buffer Stock (i) farmers paid a pre-snnounced price for their crops
B. Minimum Support Price (ii) stock of foodgrains procured by the government
C. Issue Price (iii) keep stock of foodgrains, sugar, kerosene oil for cooking
D. Fair Price Shop (iv) a price lower than the market price
(A) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii) (B) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(C) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) (D) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)

69. A large number of people represented with low income and productivity are counted as :
(A) unemployed (B) employed
(C) underemployed (D) seosanally unemployed

70. Surplus produce in the market is supplied by :

(A) small and landless farmers (B) small and medium farmers
(C) large and medium farmers (D) farmers having land holdings

71. It is not easy to gather evidence against the seller because in most purchases the :
(A) process is time-consuming (B) process is expensive
(C) cash memos are not issued (D) consumers buy from retailers

72. Net Attendance Ratio is the total number of children attending school of age group 6-10 as a percent
age of total number of children in the :
(A) same age group (B) age group of 8-10
(C) age group of 10-12 (D) age group of 12-14

73. The basic function of foreign trade is to :

(A) connect markets of two countries only.
(B) create an opportunity for buyers for foreign goods.
(C) connect markets of different countries.
(D) connect developed countries only.

74. Agreement in which the borrower lends money, goods and services in return for the promise of future pay-
ment is known as :
(A) credit (B) deposit (C) borrowing (D) withdrawl

75. National income is the total of the :

(A) Value of raw material. (C) Value of intermediate goods and services.
(B) Value of semi-finished goods. (D) Value of final goods and services.

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76. Mark the correct statement :
(A) Social divisions affect politics in democracy
(B) Social diversity is healthy and for democracy
(C) Social division lead to casteism and regionalism during elections.
(D) Politics is the root cause of social division

77. The statement that is true regarding the feminist movement is :

(A) It strengthens relationship between man and woman .
(B) It improves women’s role related to political mobilisation.
(C) It does not give much liberty to women in society.
(D) It does not provide equal opportunities for men and women.

78. Match List I to List II:

List I List II
A. Congress Party (i) NDA
B Bhartiya Janata Party (ii) State Party
C. Communist Party of India (iii) United Progressive Alliance
D. Telegu Desam party (iv) Left Front
(A) A-i; B-ii; C-iii; D-iv (B) A-iii; B-i; C-iv; D-ii
(C) A-iv; B-iii; C-ii; D-i (D) A-(i); B-iii; C-iv; D-ii

79. Match the List I to List II :

List I List II
A. BJP (i) Mayavati
B. BSP (ii) L.K. Advani
C. NCP (iii) Sharad Pawar
D. INC (iv) Sonia Gandhi
(A) A-ii; B-i; C-iii; D-iv (B) A-i; B-ii; C-iii; D-iv
(C) A-iii; B-ii; C-iv; D-i (D) A-iv; B-iii; C-ii; D-i

80. Democracy originated in the

(A) UK, after the signing of Magna Carta (B) France after the Revolution
(C) Ancient Greece (D) US after freeing itself from British tyranny

81. Choose the correct from the following.

1. Fresh water - Loktak, Pulicat, Bhimtal
2. Lagoon - Chilika, Pulicat, kolleru
3. Fresh water - Dal, Wular, Nainital
4. Man made - Hirakund, Sambhar, Rana Pratap Sagar
(A) 1, 3 (B) 2, 4 (C) 2, 3 (D) 1, 3, 4

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82. Assertion (A): There are pre monsoon showers common in Kerala & Karnataka known as mango showers.
Reasons (R) : They help in the early ripening of mangoes.
(A) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true & R is false
(D) A is false & R is true.
83. Assertion (A) : The wet spells of few days duration of monsoon are interspread with rainless intervals.
Reasons (R) : Breaks in rainfall are related to the cyclonic depressions formed at the head of the Bay of
Bengal.
(A) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true & R is false
(D) A is false & R is true.

84. ‘Singhali and Tamil’ languages are main languages of which country?
(A) Nepal (B) Maldives (C) Myanmar (D) Sri Lanka
85. Which of the following statements is/are correct.
(A) 1/3 of the India’s wet lands have drained out.
(B) 70% of the surface water bodies are polluted.
(C) 40% of the mangroves had wiped out.
(D) Richest five per cent of Indian society cause maximum ecological damage as compare to 25% poor.
(A) TFTF (B) FTTF (C) FTTT (D) TTTT

86. Assertion (A): Energy saved is energy produced.

Reason (R) : Citizen should use public transport, switch off lights when not in use, using power saving
devices & using non conventional sources of energy.
(A) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true & R is false
(D) A is false & R is true.

87. Which of the following reason is /are correct behind low production of iron and steel in India.
(1) High cost and limited availability of coking coal (2) Lower productivity of labour
(3) Irregular supply of labour (4) Poor infrastructure
(A) 1, 3, 4 (B) 2, 3, 4 (C) 1, 2, 4 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4
88. Assertion (A): The agro - industries in India have given a major - boost to agriculture by raising its productivity.
Reason (R): They sell irrigation pumps, fertilizers insecticides, pesticides, plastic & PVC pipes, machines
& tools etc to the farmers.
(A) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true & R is false
(D) A is false & R is true.

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89. Match the following
A B
(1) Chennai (a) deepest land locked
(2) Vishakhapatnam (b) inland riverine
(3) Kolkata (c) oldest artificial port
(4) Haldia (d) Subsidiary port
(A) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d (B) 1-a 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
(C) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d (D) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d

90. Assertion (A): The government of USA was unhappy with the Allende government & supported the military coup.
Reason (R): President Allende had taken policy measures to help the poor & the workers.
(A) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true & R is false
(D) A is false & R is true.

91. Which of the following statement is not true regarding the Jacobin club?
(i) The members of the Jacobin club belonged mainly to the less prosperous sections of society.
(ii) Their leader was Maxmilian Robespierre.
(iii) Jacobins came to be known as the Sans – Culottes, literally meaning ‘ those without knee –
breeches.
(iv) In the summer of 1791 the Jacobins planned on insurrection of a large of Parisians who were angered
by the short supplies and high prices of food.
(A) (i) & (iii) (B) (ii) & (iv) (C) Only (i) (D) Only (iv)

92. Assertion (A) : The period from 1793 to 1794 is referred to as the Reign of Terror
Reason (R) : Robespierre followed a policy of severe control and punishment.
(A) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, R is false
(D) R is true , A is false
93. Match the following:
A B
1. 1898 (i) Formation of Comintern
2. 1905 (ii) Abdication of the Tsar
3. 1917 (iii) Formation of the Russian Social Democratic workers Party
4. 1919 (iv) The Bloody Sunday
(A) 1- (ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4- (iii) (B) 1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
(C) 1-(iii), 2- (iv), 3-(ii), 4-(i) (D) 1-(iii) , 2-(ii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)

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94. Match the following
A B
1. Proletarianisation (i) Killing on large scale leading to destruction of large section of people
2. Synagogues (ii) Nazi youth groups for children below 14 years of age.
3. Jungvolk (iii) To become impoverished to the level of working class
4. Usurers (iv) Moneylenders charging excessive interest.
5. Genocidal (v) Place of worship for people of Jewish faith
(A) 1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(v), 4-(ii), 5-(iii) (B) 1-(iii), 2-(v), 3-(ii), 4-(iv), 5-(i)
(C) 1-(ii), 2-(v), 3-(i), 4-(iii), 5- (iv) (C) 1- (iv), 2-(iii), 3-(v), 4-(i), 5-(ii)

95. State true or false:

(i) Dhangars were an important pastoral community of Punjab.
(ii) In the deserts of Rajasthan lived the Raikas.
(iii) In 1817, the colonial government in India passed the Criminal Tribes Act.
(iv) The title Maasai derives from the word Maa.Maa-Sai means “ My People”.
(A) FTTT (B) FFTF (C) FTFT (D) TFTF

96. Assertion (A): From the late 19th century, there was a dramatic expansion of wheat production in the
USA.
Reason (B) : The urban population in the USA was growing and the export market was becoming even
bigger.
(A) A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, R is false
(D) A is false R is true.

97. Make right pairs of following rivers and their places of origin -
A. Satluj 1. Brahmgiri
B. Jhelum 2. Amarkantak
C. Kaveri 3. Rakshastal
D. Narmada 4. Verinag
(A) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (B) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(C) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (D) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

98. Social divisions become less threatening for a country when

(A) the government is willing to share power with the minority community
(B) the majority community is given more powers
(C) the government suppresses the powers of the minority community
(D) the power is divided between small political units

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99. Choose the incorrect pair:
(i) The fallen Germania :- Julius Hubner, 1850
(ii) The massacre at Chios :- Eugene Delacroix, 1824
(iii) The planting of tree of Liberty in Zweibrucken-Giussepe Mazzini, 1807
(iv) The Dream of Worldwide Democratic and Social Republics - the pact between Nations :- Frederic Sorrieu
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only (iii) (D) Only (iv)

100. State True and False:

(i) The Tonkin Free school was started in 1907 to provide a western – style education which included
classes in science, hygiene and French.
(ii) In the first decade of the 20th century, a Go - West movement became popular. In 1907 – 08 some 300
Vietnamese students went to US to acquire modern education.
(A) I & II are true (B) I & II are false
(C) I is true, II is false (D) I is false, II is true.

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