Chennai Centre

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 204

 You are not allowed to leave the examination hall before end of the test.

 This Question Paper contains 5 Sections. Section I, has 40 single answer questions,
Section II, has 30 single answer questions, 1 Comprehension with 2 questions,
Section III, IV, has 15 single answer questions, 1 Comprehension with 2 questions,
Section V has 10 single answer questions, 1 Comprehension with 2 questions.

 In Section – I single answer question carries +1 mark and there is no Negative

marks.
 In Section – II, III, IV & V single answer questions carries +2 mark and there is
no Negative marks, For Comprehension each question carries +3 mark and there is
no Negative mark for wrong answer questions
UDAYA TWO YEAR

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USEFUL DATA
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY
Acceleration due to gravity : g = 10 m/s2 1 1
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K mol
Planck constant : h = 6.6  1034 J  s = 0.0821 Lit atm
19 1 1
Charge of electron : e = 1.6  10 C K mol
Mass of electron : me  9.1  10
31
kg
= 1.987  2 Cal
1 1
12 2 2 K mol
Permittivity of free space :  0  8.85  10 C /N m
Avogadro’s Number Na = 6.023  1023
Density of water : water 3
 10 kg / m
3
34
5 2 Planck’s constant h = 6.625 10 J .s
Atmospheric pressure : Pa  10 N / m 27
Gas constant : R = 8.314 J = 6.625 10 erg .s
1 1 1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
K mol 1 calorie = 4.2 joule
27
1 amu = 1.66 10 kg
19
1 eV = 1.6  10 J
Atomic No: H = 1, He = 2, Li = 3, Be = 4, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Ne = 10, Na = 11,
Mg = 12, Si = 14, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar = 18, K = 19, Ca = 20,
Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Zn = 30, As = 33, Br = 35,
Ag = 47, Sn = 50, I = 53, Xe = 54, Ba = 56, Pb = 82, U = 92.

Atomic masses: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, Be = 9, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23,

Mg = 24, Si = 28, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52,
Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Co= 59, Ni = 58.7, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80,
Ag = 108, Sn = 118.7, I = 127, Xe = 131, Ba = 137, Pb = 207, U = 238.

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ADUS021X01 MID PHASE – 3/7 –P - 2 - MAT & PCBM 10th Jan 2021

MAT Section – I
Part – A
Single Answer Questions

1. The four different positions of a dice are giving

below: Which number is on the face opposite 6?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

2. How many dots are there on the dice face

opposite the one with three dots?
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6

3. What number is opposite 3, if four different

positions of a Dice are as shown below?
(A) 6 (B) 4
(C) 3 (D) 2

4. Which number is on the face opposite 4, if the

four different positions of a dice are a shown in
the figured given below.
(A) 5 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1

5. Show below are four different positions of the same dice.

Find the number on the face opposite the face showing 6.
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 5

6. A dice is thrown four times and its four different

positions are shown below. Find the number on the face
opposite the face showing 2.
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6

7. Two positions of a dice are shown. When 4 is at the

bottom, what number will be on the top?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 5 (D) 6

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8. If the total number of dots on opposite faces of a cubical

block is always 7, find the figure which is correct.
(A) a (B) b
(C) d (D) c

9. Amongst the following figures, find the correct one, if it is

known that number of dots on opposite faces of the cube
shown is always 7.
(A) b (B) a
(C) c (D) d

10. Four usual dice are thrown on the ground. The total of numbers on the top faces of these four dice is 13
As the top faces showed 4, 3, 1 and 5 respectively. What is the total of the faces touching the ground?
(A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 15 (D) cannot be determined

(Directions: Q No. 11 - 15)Answer the following questions which are based upon these figures.

Three different positions X, Y and Z of a dice are shown in the

figures given below

11. Which number lies at the bottom face in position X?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) cannot be determined

12. Which number lies at the bottom face in position Y?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) cannot be determined

13. Which number lies opposite 6?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5

14. Which numbers are hidden behind the numbers 6 and 5 in the position Z?
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 4 and 3 (D) 1 and 2

15. Which of the hidden numbers adjacent to 5 in position X is /are common to the hidden numbers adjacent
To 5 in position Z?
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) None

16. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

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17. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

18. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

19. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

20. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

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21. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

22. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

23. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

24. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is
folded at the dotted line.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

25. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is
folded at the dotted line.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

26. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is
folded at the dotted line.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
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27. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is
folded at the dotted line.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

28. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is
folded at the dotted line.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

29. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is
folded at the dotted line.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

30. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is
folded at the dotted line.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

31. Select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in Figure-X.

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

32. Select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in Figure-X.

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33. Select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in Figure-X.

34. Select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in Figure-X.

35. Select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in Figure-X.

36. Select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in Figure-X.

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

37. Select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in Figure-X.

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

38. Select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in Figure-X.

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

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39. Select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in Figure-X.

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

40.

Mathematics Section – II
Part – A
Single Answer Questions

1 1
1. If x   2 then x 4  4 is
x x
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) – 2

2. If a  b  c  9 and ab  bc  ca  40 then a2  b2  c 2
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) can’t find

3. If a  b  6 and ab  20, then a3  b3

(A) 576 (B) 452 (C) 416 (D) 536

(0.75)3
4. The square root of  [0.75  (0.75)2  1] is
1  0.75
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

5. The square root of (7  3 5) (7  3 5) is

(A) 5 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 3 5

1 1
6. If x   2, then x 9  9
x x
(A) 512 (B) 256 (C) 2 (D) None of these

7. The value of 117 2  1082 is

(A) 55 (B) 45 (C) 35 (D) 65

8. If a  34, b  c  33 then the value of a3  b3  c 3  3abc is

(A) 0 (B) 111 (C) 50 (D) 100
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9. If a  b  5; a2  b2  13 then the value of (a  b) (where a  b is)

(A) 1 (B) – 2 (C) 2 (D) – 1

a2 b2 c 2
10. If a  b  c  0, then value of   is
bc ca ab
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) None of these

(x  1)2 (x  1)2
11. If x  7  4 3 then  
x2 x2
74 3 74 3
(A) (B) 28  4 3 (C) (D) 28  16 3
4 4

12. If P,Q,R and S are two monomials, then which of the following statements are true?
(A) P  (Q  R)  P  Q  P  R (B) (Q  R)  P  Q  P  R  P
(C) (P  Q)  (R  S)  P  R  P  S  Q  R  Q  S (D) All of the above

13. The degree of a zero polynomial is

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) not define

14. Multiply 6x 3  y  3x 2 y by x 2  y 2
(A) 6x5  3x 4 y  6x 3 y 2  2x 2 y 3  y 4 (B) 6x5  3x 4 y  6x 3 y 2  x 2 y  3x 2 y 3  y 3
(C) 6x 5  3x 4 y  6x 3 y 2  2x 2 y3  y5 (D) 6x 5  3x 4 y  6x 3 y 2  2x 2 y3  y5

24pq 25pr
15. The value of 
5p2 12q
10r
(A) 10 pqr (B) 10 r (C) 10 pr (D)
p
16. Remainder when 9x 2  3x  1 divided by 3x
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 3x (D) can’t find

17. The remainder when x 4  3 x 2  4 x  5 is divided by x 2  1  x is

(A) – 8 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 0

18. The LCM of polynomials 2x 2  3x  2 and x 3  4x 2  4x is

(A) x( x  2)2 (2 x  1) (B) x(x  2) (2x  1)2
(C) x(x  2) (2x  1) (D) x 2 (x  2)2 (2x  1)2

19. If selling price is doubled, the profit triples, then the profit percentage is
2 1
(A) 120% (B) 66 % (C) 100% (D) 103 %
3 3

20. If the cost price of 9 pens is equal to selling price of 11 pens. The gain or loss %
2 2 2 2
(A) 18 loss (B) 8 gain (C) 6 gain (D) 16 loss
11 11 7 7

21. A business man allows two successive discounts of 20% and 10%. If he gets Rs. 108 for an article then its
marked price is
(A) Rs. 124 (B) Rs. 140 (C) Rs. 150 (D) Rs. 170

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ADUS021X01 MID PHASE – 3/7 –P - 10 - MAT & PCBM 10th Jan 2021

1
22. Compound interest on Rs. 25000 at 20% p.a. for 2 years, if interest is compounded annually is
2
(A) Rs. 39600 (B) Rs.14600 (C) Rs. 37500 (D) Rs. 12500

1
23. Find the amount which Ram will get on Rs. 4096, if he gave it for 18 months at 12 % per annum, interest
2
being compounded half yearly
(A) Rs. 4913 (B) Rs. 4013 (C) Rs. 5913 (D) Rs. 4900

24. A sum of money doubles itself in 10 years at SI. The rate of interest is
(A) 20% (B) 15% (C) 10% (D) 25%

25. A man borrows Rs. 21000 at 10% compound interest. How much he has to pay equally at the end of each year,
to settle his loan in two years?
(A) Rs. 12000 (B) Rs. 12100 (C) Rs. 12200 (D) Rs. 12300

26. A bank gives compound interest on deposits at the rate of 5% for the first year, 6% for the second year and
10% for the third year; find the effective rate of interest for one year. Also find the initial deposit if the sum after
three years is Rs. 12243.
(A) 21.57%; Rs. 11000 (B) 21.22%; Rs. 13000 (C) 22%; Rs. 15000 (D) 22.43%; Rs. 10000

27. The ages of A and B are in the ratio of 3 : 1. 15 year hence the ratio will be 2:1. This present ages are
(A) 45 years, 15 years (B) 16 years, 20 years (C) 30 years, 10 years (D) 21 years, 7 years

28. A person saves 20% of his income every year. If his yearly increase in income is 10%, then his savings
increases every year by
(A) 10% (B) 6% (C) 5% (D) 4%

29. A man had Rs. 1200, part of which he lent at 5% and the remaining at 4%. He got Rs.106 as interest after 2
years. The amount lent 5% is
(A) Rs. 700 (B) Rs. 800 (C) Rs. 500 (D) Rs. 400

1
30. In what time will Rs. 72 become Rs. 81 at 6 % p.a S.I.?
4
1 1
(A) 1 years (B) 2 years (C) 2 years (D) none of these
2 2

Comprehension - I

The difference between C.I. and S.I. for 2 years is given by

PR 2
D
1002
Where P = principle
R = rate of interest

31. The difference between compound interest (compounded annually) and simple interest on a certain sum of
money at 10% per annum for 2 years is 40. The sum is
(A) Rs. 4000 (B) Rs. 3600 (C) Rs. 4200 (D) Rs. 3200

32. The difference between compound interest (compound annually) and simple interest on Rs. 600 of money at
certain rate for 2 years is Rs. 1.50. The rate of interest is
(A) 2% (B) 5% (C) 10% (D) 4%

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ADUS021X01 MID PHASE – 3/7 –P - 11 - MAT & PCBM 10th Jan 2021

Physics Section – III

Part – A
Single Answer Questions
1. The process of decomposition of an electrolyte with the help of electricity is called
(A) Electrolysis (B) Photosynthesis
(C) Ionization (D) None of these

2. Which is the method used for preventing rusting and corrosion?

(A) Electrolysis (B) electroplating
(C) Electrorefining (D) None of these

3. The electrodes connected to the positive terminal of the battery is called

(A) Anode (B) Cathode
(C) Can’t be said (D) None of these

4. Pick the correct sentence

(A) Resistance depends upon resistivity
(B) If resistance change, resistivity also changes
(C) If length of a conductor changes, resistance is not affected.
(D) None of these

5. A free positive charge moves from

(A) Region of higher potential to lower potential
(B) Region of lower potential to higher potential
(C) It in independent of the potential difference.
(D) None of these

6. Find the current flowing through the 4 resistor if the potential 4

drop across the point A and B is 8V
(A) 2A (B) 4A A B
(C) 1A (D) 8A
2

7. When an electrolyte is dissolved in water it produces

(A) Ions (B) Atoms (C) Molecules (D) None of these

8 What is the potential drop across the 4 resistor in the given

2 4
circuit?
(A) 2V (B) 4V
(C) 6V (D) 8V
12V

9. Material with zero resistance is called

(A) Conductor (B) under conduction (C) Super conductor (D) Insulator

10. Calculate the equivalent resistance of the circuit shown below 2 3

6 20
(A)  (B) 
5 3
10 40
(C)  (D)  10
3 7

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11. What will be the effective resistance between the points P and Q? 1
8 11 1
(A)  (B)  2
3 3
P Q
10 14
(C)  (D) 
3 3 2

12. The equivalent-resistance of the combination shown is 6 .

2 3
Find the value of R R
B
(A) 0 (B) 1 A
(C) 2 (D) 3

13. The equivalent-resistance across A and B in the combination R1

shown below is 4 . If R1 = 2R2, then the value of R1 and R2
are B
(A) 3 ,6 (B) 5 ,10 A
(C) 12 ,6 (D) 6 ,12 R2

14. Symbol of battery with two cells is

(A) (B)
A B

(C) (D)
A B

15. For the given circuit diagram, if the bulb A is fused, then E
(A) Only bulb B will glow
(B) Only bulb C will glow A
(C) Both bulb B and C will glow B
(D) It can’t be predicted
C

Comprehension – I

6 I
A 3 B

6

9V

16. Find the equivalent resistance between the points A and B

2 4 3
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 3
3 6 2

17. What is the value of the current I as shown in the figure

2 4 3
(A) A (B) A (C) A (D) 3 A
3 6 2

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ADUS021X01 MID PHASE – 3/7 –P - 13 - MAT & PCBM 10th Jan 2021

Chemistry Section – IV
Part – A
Single Answer Questions
1. When a material starts burning suddenly without an apparent cause, it is called
(A) Fire (B) Spontaneous combustion
(C) Rapid combustion (D) Slow process

2. Which of the following have highest calorific value?

(A) Hydrogen (B) LPG (C) Biogas (D) Coal

3. Calorific value of coal is ____________KJ / Kg

(A) 3300 (B) 33000 (C) 1,50,000 (D) 15000

4. Calorific value of hydrogen is _________ KJ / Kg

(A) 3300 (B) 33000 (C) 150000 (D) 1500

5. Which of these have lowest calorific value?

(A) Hydrogen (B) LPG (C) Biogas (D) Coal

6. Fuel is source of _________ energy for domestic and industrial purposes.

(A) Heat (B) Electrical (C) Mechanical (D) None of the above

7. LPG stands for ___________

(A) Liquified petroleum gas (B) Natural gas
(C) Least pressurized gas (D) None of the above

8. Compressed natural gas is also known as ________

(A) CIL (B) LIC (C) LPG (D) CNG

9. Unit of calorific value is ________

(A) KJ / Kg (B) Moles / Litre (C) Moles (D) KJ

10. LPG has a calorific value of ________ KJ / Kg

(A) 5,500 (B) 55,000 (C) 550 (D) 55

11. The gas which is responsible for causing acid rain among the following is
(A) CO (B) CO2 (C) NO2 (D) P2O5

12. Which of these is a fuel?

(A) Stone (B) Kerosene (C) Sand (D) All of these

13. Value of X in following Reaction, 2 C2H6  XO2  4 CO2  6H2 O  746 Kcal / mole, is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 7

14. A fuel releases 50, 000 KJ of energy by burning 5 kg of it. What is the calorific value of fuel.
(A) 50000 kJ/Kg (B) 1000 KJ/Kg (C) 10,000KJ/Kg (D) 5000 KJ/Kg

15. Bursting of fire crackers is an example of

(A) Rapid combustion (B) Spontaneous combustion
(C) Explosion (D) None of these

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Comprehension – I

There’s a lot of chemistry and physics behind the beauty and light of a candle flame. In fact, scientists have been
fascinated by candles for hundreds of years.

In 1860, Michael Faraday gave his now-famous lecture series on the Chemical History of a Candle,
demonstrating dozens of scientific principles through his careful observations of a burning candle.
In the late 1990s, NASA took candle research to new heights, conducting space shuttle experiments to learn
about the behavior of candle flames in microgravity.

16. The non-luminous zone of a flame is:

(A) The least hot part of the flame (B) The hottest part of the flame
(C) Moderately hot zone (D) The black zone

17. Which part of the flame does Goldsmith use for melting of gold?
(A) Inner most part (B) Middle zone
(C) Outer most zone (D) All of these

Biology Section – V
Part – A
Single Answer Questions
1. Centrosomes are found only in animal cells. The number of cell membranes on the surface of centrosome are/is
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) None

2. Which one of the following cell do not have fixed shape.

(A) RBC (B) Amoeba (C) Euglena (D) All of these

3. The nucleus is absent in one of the following cells.

(A) Mycoplasma (B) RBC (C) Sieve cell (D) All of these

4. The prokaryotic cell contain organelles which is not bound by membranes. This organelle is
(A) ER (B) Ribosomes (C) Mitochondria (D) None of these

5. Eukaryotic cells have following characteristics

(A) They have well defined nucleus (B) They have internal organelles
(C) They have many chromosomes (D) All of these

6. In cell theory there are two statements. The first statement says all living things are made of cells. Other
statement of cell theory is
(A) All cell all arise from pre existing cells. (B) Every cell posses nucleus
(C) Cells interacts between them (D) All of these

7. Credit of discovering live cell goes to which of the following scientists.

(A) Robert Hooke (B) Robert Koch (C) Leeuwen Hook (D) Purkinje

8. Plant cell have two cell envelope including plasma membrane while animal cell have only one which is cell
membrane. The additional envelope of plant cell is
(A) Cell wall (B) Pellicle (C) Cell membrane (D) None of these

9. The size of the object seen by compound microscope can be as small as

(A) 103 m (B) 106 m (C) 109 m (D) 10 10 m

10. Cell membrane is composed of one of the following major component substances
(A) Lipid + Protein (B) Carbohydrate (C) Protein (D) Vitamin

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ADUS021X01 MID PHASE – 3/7 –P - 15 - MAT & PCBM 10th Jan 2021

Comprehension – I

Centrioles are capable of replication centriole replication is coordinated in animal cells with cell division. It occurs
in S – phase A centriole possesses a whorl of nine peripheral fibrils. Fibrils are absent in centre. Each fibrils is
made up of three subfibres.

11. Centrioles are found in one of the following cell type. It is

(A) Plant (B) Animal (C) Bacteria (D) None

12. Which of the following structure develop from centriole

(A) Nucleus (B) Cilia (C) Flagella (D) Both B & C

*****

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