Tapasya Part Test 6-BPC - On 05-04-20

FIITJEE Chennai Centre
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 720
• You are not allowed to leave the examination hall before end of the test.
• This Question Paper contains 3 Sections. Section- I has 90 single Answer questions,
Section - II has 45 single answer questions, Section - III has 45 single answer questions.
• In each Section, all questions carry +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
• Write your Name and Enrollment No. in the space provided.
Any Student who indulges in Malpractice will be terminated immediately.

ZENITH TWO YEAR
USEFUL DATA
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY
Acceleration due to gravity : g = 10 m/s2 −1 −1
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K mol
−34
Planck constant : h = 6.6 × 10 J − s = 0.0821 Lit atm
−1 −1
Charge of electron : e = 1.6 × 10−19 C K mol
−31 = 1.987 ≈ 2 Cal
Mass of electron : me = 9.1 × 10 kg
−1 −1
−12 2 2 K mol
Permittivity of free space : ε 0 = 8.85 × 10 C /N −m
3 3 Avogadro’s Number Na = 6.023 × 1023
Density of water : ρwater = 10 kg / m
−34
5 2 Planck’s constant h = 6.625 ×10 J .s
Atmospheric pressure : Pa = 10 N / m −27
Gas constant : R = 8.314 J = 6.625 ×10 erg.s
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
K −1 mol −1 1 calorie = 4.2 joule
−27
1 amu = 1.66 ×10 kg
−19
1 eV = 1.6 × 10 J
Atomic No: H = 1, He = 2, Li = 3, Be = 4, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Ne = 10, Na = 11,
Mg = 12, Si = 14, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar = 18, K = 19, Ca = 20,
Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Zn = 30, As = 33, Br = 35,
Ag = 47, Sn = 50, I = 53, Xe = 54, Ba = 56, Pb = 82, U = 92.
Atomic masses: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, Be = 9, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23,

Mg = 24, Si = 28, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52,
Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Co= 59, Ni = 58.7, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80,
Ag = 108, Sn = 118.7, I = 127, Xe = 131, Ba = 137, Pb = 207, U = 238.
Name of the candidate:_________________________________________________

Batch :___________________ Date of Examination:__________
Enrollment Number : __________________________________________________
Regional Headquarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next to Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
NEET TAPASYA PART TEST – 6 - BPC P~1~ 5th April 2020
Biology Section – I
Part – A
Single Answer Questions
1. Which of the following

lowing is the most toxic waste mmatter?
(A) Urea (B) Uric acid (C) Ammonia (D) Hippuric acid
2. The following substances are the excretory products in animals. choose the least toxic form among them.
(A) Urea (B) Uric acid (C) Ammonia (D) Carbon dioxide
3. Conversion of ammonia to urea is done by

(A) ornithine cycle (B) arginine cycle (C) fumaric cycle (D)) citrulline cycle.
4. An advantage of excreting nitrogenous wastes in the form of uric acid is that

(A) Uric acid can be excreted in almost solid form
(B) The release of uric acid requires a great deal of energy
(C) Uric acid is the first metabolic breakdown product of acids
(D) Uric acid may be excreted through the lungs
5. Which of the following

wing pairs is incorrect?
(A) Uricotelic – Birds (B) Ammonotelic – Man
(C) Ammonotelic – Tadpole (D) Ureotelic – Elephant
6. Which one of the following statement is incorrect?

(A) Birds and land snails are uricotelic animals
(B) Mammals and frogs are ureotelic animals
(C) Aquatic amphibians and aquatic insects are ammonotelic animals
(D) Birds and reptiles are ureotelic
7. In annelids, excretory organs are

(A) Nephridia (B) Malpighian tubules
(C) Green glands (D) Kidneys
8. Which one of the statement

ent is false?
(A) Nephrons perform excretion through filtration, reabsorption and secretion
(B) Nephridia are accessory excretory organs in prawn
(C) Tapeworm have excretory flame cells
(D) Coxal glands are excretory organs in crustaceans
9. The position of kidneys is

(A) Interperitoneal (B) Retroperitoneal (C) Intraperitoneal (D) None of these
10. The retroperitoneal kidney is

(A) Kidney of fish
(B) Kidney covered by peritoneum on ventral side
(C) Kidney covered by peritoneum on dorsal side
(D) Kidney uncovered by peritoneum on either side
11. Part of the kidney through which the ureter, blood vessels and nerves enter into or emerge out, it is
(A) Renal cortex (B) Renal medulla (C) Hilum (D) Urethra
12. Parietal layer of Bowman’s capsule is lined by

(A) Ciliated cuboidal epithelium
(B) Squamous epithelium
(C) Non – ciliated cuboidal epithelium
(D) Non – ciliated columnar epithelium
13. Podocytes are the cells, which are present on

(A) Neck of nephron (B) The wall of Bowman’s capsule
(C) Outer wall of loop of Henle (D) Wall of glomerular capillaries
14. Which one of the four parts mentioned below does not constitute a part of a single uriniferous tubule?
(A) Bowman’s capsule (B) Distal convoluted tubule
(C) Loop of Henle (D) Collecting duct
15. Brush-border is characteristic of

(A) Neck of nephron (B) Collecting tube
(C) Proximal convoluted tubule (D) All of the above
16. Proximal and distal convoluted tubules are parts of

(A) seminiferous tubules (B) nephron (C) oviduct (D)) vas deferens.
17. In humans, kidney is

(A) Pronephros (B) Mesonephros (C) Metanephros (D) None of these
18. Diameter of the renal afferent vessel is

(A) Same as that of efferent (B) Smaller than that of efferent
(C) Larger than that of efferent (D) There is no efferent vessel
19. Duct of Bellini is connected with

(A) Collecting duct (B) DCT (C) Ureter (D) Papilla
20. Vital morphological and physiological units of mammalian kidney are

(A) Ureters (B) Seminiferous tubules
(C) Uriniferous tubules (D) Nephridia
21. Homeostasis is
(A) Process of maintaining osmotic and ionic concentration of body fiuids
(B) Maintenance of a constant favourable internal environment of the body/cell
(C) Act, of maintaining a steady state in the body
(D) Both (b) and (c)
22. What is incorrect about kidney?

(A) Peripheral cortex and central medulla
(B) Blood enters into glomerulus through efferent arterioles
(C) Malpighian corpuscles occur in cortex
(D) Concave part of kidney is called hilus
23. The main function of pyramids of kidney is to

(A) Contain collecting tubules of kidney (B) Direct the urine to flow in ureter
(C) Support the openings of collecting canals (D) Store fats and protein
24. In nephrons, there is complete absorption of

(A) Urea (B) Salt (C) Glucose (D) Water
25. In nephron, water absorption is maximum in

(A) Proximal convoluted tubule (B) Descending loop of Henle
(C) Ascending loop of Henle (D) Distal convoluted tubule
26. Which one does not enter nephron?

(A) Water (B) Glucose (C) Plasma proteins (D) Urea
27. Main function of descending loop of Henl
Henle is
(A) Absorption of water (B) Absorption of sugar
(C) Absorption of sodium (D) Secretion of ions
28. In ornithine cycle, which of the following wastes are removed from the blood?
(A) CO2 and urea (B) ammonia and urea (C) CO2 and ammonia (D)) urea and urine.
29. End product of ornithine cycle is

(A) Uric acid (B) Carbon dioxide (C) ammonia (D) Urea
30. What is true for urea biosynthesis?

(A) Uric acid is starting point
(B) Urea is synthesised in lysosomes
(C) Urea cycle enzymes are located inside mitochonda
(D) Urea is synthesised in liver
31. Identify the statement, which is incorrect about ammonotelism?

(A) Ammonia is a highly toxic excretory product
(B) Ammonotelic animals live in freshwater
(C) Ammonia is excreted as ammonium ions
(D) Man is an Ammonotelic animal
32. The presence of arginase confirms that the

(A) Urea cycle is operating
(B) Urea cycle may be operating
(C) Arginine is being converted into ornithine
(D) Arginine is being converted into citrulline
33. In kidneys, urine is produced by three processes

(A) Dialysis, ultrafiltration and tubular secretion
(B) Ultrafiltration, dialysis
is and tubular secretion
(C) Ultrafiltration, tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion
(D) Dialysis, tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion
34. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by

(A) juxtaglomerular (JG) cells
(B) macula densa cells
(C)) endothelial cells (cells lining the blood vessels)
(D) liver cells
35. Ultrafiltration occurs in

(A) Urinary Bladder (B) Bowman’s capsule
(C) Malpighian tubule (D) Ureter
36. What is permeable for ascending loop of Henle?

(A) Creatinine (B) Hippuric acid (C) Sodium ions (D) Water
37. Na+ and Cl− are absorbed in kidney in the region of

(A) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop (B) Descending limb of Henle’s loop
(C) DCT (D) PCT
38. A deltoid ridge occurs in

(A) radius (B) ulna (C) femur (D)) humerus.
39. Glomerular filtrate is

(A) Blood minus blood corpuscles and plasma protein (B) Blood minus corpuscles
(C) Mixture of water, ammonia and corpuscles (D) Urine
40. What causes the liquid part of blood to filter out from the glomerulus into the renal tubule?
(A) Osmosis (B) High (hydrostatic) pressure
(C) Diapedesis (D) Dialysis
41. Reabsorption of water in PCT part of nephron?

(A) Passive, 80% (B) Active, 40% (C) Active, 80% (D) Passive, 40%
42. Nephron’s distal convoluted tubule is permeable to

-
(A) Cl ions (B) Na+ ions (C) H2O (D) All of these
43. Reabsorptionon of chloride ions from glomerular filtrate in kidney tubule occurs by
(A) Active transport (B) Diffusion (C) Osmosis (D) Brownian movement
44. Select the correct pathway for the passage of urine in humans.
(A) Renal vein → Ureter → Bladder → Urethra (B) Collecting tubule → Ureter → Bladder → Urethra
(C) Pelvis → medulla → Bladder → Urethra (D) Cortex → Mdulla → Bladder → Urethra
45. Amount of glomerular filtrate formed per day is

(A) 50L (B) 180L (C) 250L (D) 1000L
46. The types of skeletal system are mainly

(A) Exoskeleton (B) Endoskeleton (C) Hydroskeleton (D) All of these
47. The major contractile proteins of muscles are

(A) Actin (B) Myosin (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Albumin
48. Total number of bones in each limb of a man is

(A) 24 (B) 30 (C) 14 (D) 21.
49. Each half of pelvic girdle is made up of

(A) Ischium (B) Ilium (C) Pubis (D) All of these
50. Muscle contraction of shortest duration occurs in

(A) Eye lids (B) Heart (C) Intestine (D) Jaws
51. In human beings, the second cervical vertebra helps in rotator movements of head through knob like process
called
(A) Prezygapophysis (B) Postzygapophysis
(C) Odontoid process (D) Metaphysis
52. Glenoid cavity is found in

(A) Pelvic girdle (B) Skull (C) Pectoral girdle (D) Sternum
53. Number of vertebrae in human skeleton is

(A) 30 (B) 32 (C) 33 (D) 35
54. Greater trochanter occurs in

(A) Humerus (B) Radius (C) Ulna (D) Femur
55. Comparative study of skull is

(A) Craniology (B) Conchology (C) Malacology (D) Osteology
56. Surface for attachment of tongue is

(A) Palatine (B) Sphenoid (C) Pterygoid (D) Hyoid apparatus
57. Zygomatic is a part of

(A) Pelvic girdle (B) Skull (C) Pectoral girdle (D) Vertebral column
58. Odontoid process occurs in

(A) Atlas (B) Sacral (C) Axis (D) None of these
59. Muscles immune to fatigue are

(A) Cardiac (B) Eye muscles (C) Unstriated (D) Skeletal
60. Fibrous joints are

(A) Amphiarthrous (B) Diarthrous (C) Synarthrous (D) None of these
61. Spinal cord passes through

(A) Foremen of Monro (B) Iter (C) Obturatorforamen (D)
D) Foramen of magnum
62. Anisotropic band is made of

(A) Myosin filaments (B) Actin filaments (C) Elastin filaments (D)
D) Both (A) and (B)
63. The number of tarsals per limb of human beings is

(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
64. The H-zone

zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to
(A) The central gap between myosin filaments in the A A-band
(B) The central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A-band
A
(C) Extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A
A-band
(D) The absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A
A-band
65. Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans

(A) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation condition called gout
(B) The vertebral column has 1 thoracic vertebrae
(C) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a Hinge joint
(D) The decreased level of Urea causes osteoporosis in old people
66. What is the name of joint between ribs and sternum?

(A) cartilaginous joint (B) angular joint (C) gliding joint (D)) fibrous joints.
67. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular skeletal system
(A) Muscular dystrophy – age related disease resulting in shortening of muscles
(B) Osteoporosis – decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractfractures
ures with advancing age
(C) Myasthenia gravis – bacterial disease which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
(D) Gout – inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium
68. Statements about the mechanism of muscle contraction are given below
i. Acetylcholine is released when the neural signal reaches the motor end plate
ii. Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by CNS via a sensory neuron
iii. During muscle activity there is no requirement of Calcium ions & ATPs
iv. Strenuous activation of the skeletal muscles can lead to lactic acid accumulation
Identify the correct statements
(A) (i) and (iv) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
69. Actin binding sites are located on

(A) troponin (B) tropomyosin (C) meromyosin (D) Both (B) and (C)
70. Scapula is a large triangular flat bone situated in the dorsal part of the thorax between the
(A) Second and fifth ribs (B) Second and seventh ribs
(C) Third and sixth ribs (D) Third and eight ribs
71. The coxa of the pelvic girdle is formed by the fusion of

(A) Ilium, ischium and pubis (B) Scapula and clavicle
(C) Ilium and scapula (D) Ilium, scapula and ischium
72. Chemical ions responsible for muscle contraction are

2+ + + + + 2+ 2+ 2+
(A) Ca and K (B) Na and K (C) Na and Ca (D) Ca and Mg
73. Volkmann’s canal occurs in

(A) Bone (B) cartilage (C) liver (D) internal ear
74. The joint of radio ulna with the upper arm is

(A) Hinge joint (B) Pivot joint (C) Socket joint (D) None of these
75. The clavicle

le articulates with ……… of scapula
(A) Acromion process (B) Glenoid cavity (C) Acetabulum cavity (D) Ball and socket joint
76. The sensation of fatigue in the muscles after prolonged strenuous physical work is caused by
(A) A decrease in the supply of oxygen (B) The depletion of glucose
(C) The accumulation of lactic acid (D) all of the above
77. Sternum is connected to ribs by

(A) bony matter (B) white fibrous cartilage
(C) hyaline cartilage (D) areolar tissue
78. What is the location of troponin in the process of muscles contraction?

(A) Attached to myosin filament (B) Attached to tropomyosin
sin
(C) Attached to myosin cross bridge (D) Attached to T – tubule
79. Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part of a normal h
human
uman skeleton?
(A) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined by fibrous joint
(B) First vertebra is axis, which articulates with the occipital condyles
th th
(C) The 7 and 10 pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs
(D) Glenoid cavityy is a depression to which the facial bone articulates
80. Elbow joint is an example of

(A) Pivot joint (B) Hinge joint
(C) Gliding joint (D) ball and socket joints
81. Pick out the correct match between bony structure & Number of bones that make that structure
A Sternum 14
B Coxa of pelvis 3
C Ribs 20
D Face 5
82. A cricket player is fast chasing a ball in the field. Which one of the following groups of bones are directly
contributing in this movement?
(A) Femur, malleus, tibia. Metatarsals (B) Pelvis, ulna, patella, tarsals
(C) Sternum, femur, tibia, fibula (D) Tarsals, femur, metatarsals, tibia
83. Given below is a diagram of the bones of the left human hind limb as
seen from front. It has certain mistakes in labeling. Two of the wrongly
labeled bones are:
(A) Tibia and tarsals

(B) Femur and fibula
(C) Fibula and phalanges
(D) Tarsals and femur
84. Pectoral girdle constitute

(A) Scapula and clavicle (B) Radius and ulna
(C) Ilium and ischium (D) Maxilla and mandible
85. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is

(A) Tropomyosin (B) Myosin
(C) α - actinin (D) Troponin
86. Which one of the following item gives its correct total number?
(A) Floating ribs in human – 4
(B) Amino
mino acids found in proteins – 6
(C) Types of diabetes – 1
(D) Cervical vertebrae in humans – 8
87. Muscles which bend the joint is

(A) Flexor (B) Extensor (C) Involution (D) Twitch
88. Acetabulum is a concave surface of

(A) Pelvis (B) Pectoral
(C) Foramen magnum (D) Foramen monro
89. Basic unit of muscle contraction is

(A) Collagen (B) Sarcomere (C) bands (D) Myofibrils
90. Sigmoid notch is present in

(A) Femur (B) Radio – ulna (C) Tibio – fibula (D) Humerus
Physics Section – II
Part – A
91. Two interfering waves have intensities in the ratio 9: 1, then the ratio of maximum to minimum intensity is
(A) 10: 8 (B) 4: 2 (C) 100: 64 (D) 16: 4
92. Two pulses in a stretched string whose centers are initially 8 cm apart are
moving towards each other as shown in the figure. The speed of each pulse is
2 cm/s. After 2 second, the total energy of the pulses will be:
(A) Zero (B) Purely kinetic 8 cm

(C) Purely potential (D) Partly kinetic and partly potential
93. In the figure the intensity of waves arriving at D from two coherent sources
4m D
. The wave length of the wave is . Resultant intensity at S1
D will be
3m
(A) 4l0 (B) l0
(C) 2l0 (D) Zero
S2
94. Standing waves are produced in 10 m long stretched string. If the string vibrates in 5 segments and wave
velocity is 20 m/s, its frequency is
(A) 5 Hz (B) 4 Hz (C) 2 Hz (D) 10 Hz
95. At the nodes of a longitudinal stationary wave:

(A) The amplitude of oscillation is maximum (B) The density variation is zero
(C) The pressure variation is maximum (D) The velocity amplitude is maximum
96. Two sound sources when sounded simultaneously produce four beats in 0.25 second. The difference in their
frequencies must be:
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 1
97. Two waves are propagating along a taut string that coincides with the x – axis. The first wave has the wave
function,
And the second wave has the wave function,
Then for:
(A) Constructive interference at x = 0, (B) Constructive interference at x = 0,
(C) Destructive interference at x = 0, (D) Destructive inference at x = 0,
98. A person is observing two trains one coming towards him and other leaving with the same velocity 4 m/s, if
their whistling frequencies are 240 Hz each, then the number of beats per second heard by the person will be
(nearly). Take speed of sound in air is 320 m/s.
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) Zero
99. Equations of motion of two waves present in the medium in the same direction are given by:
The amplitude of the medium particle will be:

(A) 2a cos θ (B) 2a cos θ (C) 4a cos θ / 2 (D) 2a cos θ / 2
100. Velocity of sound waves in air is 330 m/s. for a particular sound in air, a path difference of 40 cm is equivalent
to a phase difference of . The frequency of the wave is
(A) 165 Hz (B) 150 Hz (C) 660 Hz (D) 330
101. Two tuning forks P and Q when set vibrating, give 4 beats per second. If a prong of the fork P is filed,the
beats are reduced to 2 per sec. What is frequency of P, if that of Q is 250 Hz?
(A) 246 Hz (B) 250 Hz (C) 254 Hz (D) 252 Hz
102. An organ pipe closed at one end has fundamental frequency of 1500 Hz. The maximum number of overtones
generated by this pipe which a normal person can hear is
(A) 4 (B) 13 (C) 6 (D) 9
103. A string in a musical instrument is 50 cm long and its fundamental frequency is 800 Hz. If a frequency of 1000
Hz is to be produced, then require length of string is
(A) 62.5 cm (B) 40 cm (C) 50 cm (D) 37.5 cm
104. The speed of a wave on a string is 150m/s when the tension is 120N. The percentageincrease in the tension
in order to raise the wave speed by 20% is:
(A) 44% (B) 40% (C) 96% (D) None of these
105. The equation Y = 0.02 sin cos (4.5 x) represents

(A) Progressive wave of frequency 250 Hz along x-axis
(B) A stationary wave of wavelength nearly 1.4 m
(C) A transverse progressive wave of amplitude 0.02 m
(D) None of these
106. A thin plane membrane separates hydrogen at 7°C from hydrogen at 47°C, both being at the same pressure.
If a collimated sound beam travelling from the cooler gas makes an angle of incidence of 30° at the
membrane, the angle of refraction is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
107. A man sets his watch by a whistle that is 2km away. How much will his watch be in error (speed of sound in
air 330m/s)
(A) 3s fast (B) 3s slow (C) 6s fast (D) 6s slow
108. A source x of unknown frequency produces 8 beats with a source of 250 Hz and 12 beats with a source of
270 Hz. The frequency of source x is
(A) 258 Hz (B) 242 Hz (C) 262 Hz (D) 282 Hz
109. The temperature at which the speed of sound in air becomes double its value at 0°C is
(A) 1092°C (B) 819 K (C) 819°C (D) 546°C
110. Two wires (made with same material) of radii r and 2 r are welded together end to end. The combination is
used as a sonometre wire and is kept under a tension T. The welded point is midway between the bridges.
The ratio of the number of loops formed in the wires, such that the joint is a node when stationary vibrations
are set up in the wires, is
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/3 (C) 1/2 (D) 2/3
111. The rate of transfer of energy in a wave depends

(A) Directly on the square of the wave amplitude and square of the wave frequency
(B) Directly on the square of the wave amplitude and root of the wave frequency
(C) Directly on the wave amplitude and square of the wave frequency
(D) None of these
112. Two waves represented by and are superposed. The resultant

wave will have an amplitude
(A) 3a (B) 2a (C) 2a (D) None of these
113. The speed of sound waves having a frequency of 256 Hz compared with the speed of sound wave that has
frequency 512 Hz is :
(A) Half as great (B) The same (C) Twice as great (D) Four times as great
114. A whistle of frequency 500Hz tied to the end of a string of length L=1.2m revolves at 400rev/min. A listener
standing some distance D(>>L) away in the plane of rotation of whistle hears frequencies in the range (speed
of sound = 340m/s):
(A) 436 to 586 (B) 426 to 574 (C) 426 to 584 (D) 436 to 674
115. A train moves towards a stationary observer with speed 34m/s. The train sounds a whistle and its frequency
registered by the observer is . If the train’s speed is reduced to 17m/s, the frequency registered is . If the
speed of sound is 340m/s, then the ratio is
18 1 19
(A) (B) (C) 2 (D)
19 2 18
116. Sound wave of wavelength 60cm in a medium is refracted into air. If speed of sound in the medium is 5000
m/sec, wavelength of the wave in air is nearly: (take speed of soundair as 330 m/s)
(A) 4 cm (B) 2 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 1 cm
117. Two sources of sound placed close to each other, are emitting progressive waves given by y1 = 4 sin 600 πt
and y2 = 5 sin 608 πt: An observer located near these two sources of sound will hear
(A) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 81 : 1 between waxing and waning
(B) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 81 : 1 between waxing and waning
(C) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 25 : 16 between waxing and waning
(D) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 25 : 16 between waxing and waning
118. If the tension and diametre of a sonometre wire of fundamental frequency f are doubled and density is halved
then its fundamental frequency will become
(A) f/4 (B) (C) (D)
119. A motor cycle starts from rest and accelerates along a straight path at . At the starting point of the
motor cycle there is stationary electric siren. How far has the motor cycle gone the driver hears the frequency
of the siren at 94% of its value when the motor cycle was at rest (Speed of sound = )
(A) 49 m (B) 98 m (C) 147 m (D) 196 m
120. It is possible to recognize a person by hearing his voice even if he is hidden behind a solid wall. This is due to
the fact that his voice
(A) Has a definite pitch (B) Has a definite quality
(C) Has a definite loudness (D) Has penetrate the wall
121. Two tuning forks A and B vibrating simultaneously produce 5 beats. Frequency of B is 512Hz. It is seen that
one arm of A is filed, then the number of beats increases. Frequency of A will be in Hz.
(A) 502 (B) 507 (C) 517 (D) 522
122. Four wires of identical length, diameters and of the same material are stretched on a sonometer wire. If the
ratio of their tensions is 1 : 4 : 9 : 16 then the ratio of their fundamental frequencies are
(A) 16 : 9 : 4 : 1 (B) 4 : 3 : 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 4 : 2 : 16 (D) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4
123. Two vibrating stings of the same material but lengths L and 2L have radii 2r and r respectively. They are
stretched under the same tension. Both the stringsvibrate in their fundamental modes, the one of the length L
with frequency and the other will frequency . The ratio is given by
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 1
124. Transverse waves are generated in uniform steel wires and B by attaching their free ends to to a vibrating
source of frequency 500 Hz. The diameter of wire A is half that of wire B and the tension of wire A is half that
of the wire B. The velocities of waves in wires A and B are in theratio:
(A) 1:2 (B) 2:1 (C)1: (D)
125. A boat at anchor is rocked by waves whose crests are 100m apart and whose velocity is 25m/sec. These
waves strike the boat once in every.
(A) 2500 sec (B) 0.25 sec (C) 1500 sec (D) 4 sec
126. In the experiment for the determination of the speed of sound in air using the resonance column method. The
lengths of the air column that resonates in the fundamental mode, with a tuning fork is 0.1 m. When this
length is changed to 0.35 m, the same tuning fork resonates with the first overtone. The end correction is
(A) 0.012 m (B) 0.025 m (C) 0.05 m (D) 0.024 m
127. Two strings A and B made of same material, are stretched by same tension. The radius of string A is double
of the radius of B. A transverse wave travels on A with speed and on B with speed . Then ratio is
(A) 1/2 (B) 2 (C) 1/4 (D) 4
128. A source of sound waves of frequency 100 Hz and an observer are located at VS
some distance from each other is moving with a speed of 60m/s at an angle of
60° with the source observer lines as shown in the figure. The observer is at
rest the apparent frequency observed by the observer (velocity of sound in air
330 ms −1 is)
(A) 97 Hz (B) 100 Hz 60°

(C) 110 Hz (D) 106 Hz S O
129. A stone is dropped in a well which is 19.6m deep. Echo sound is heard after 2.06 sec (after dropping) then
the velocity of sound is (Take g=9.8 m/s^2)
(A) 332.6 m/sec (B) 326.7 m/sec (C) 300.4 m/sec (D) 29.5 m/sec
130. A string of length 0.4 m and mass is tightly clamped at its ends. The tension in the sting is 1.6 N.
Identical wave pulses are produced at one end at equal intervals of time which allows constructive
interference between successive pulses is
(A) 0.05 s (B) 0.10 s (C) 0.20 s (D) 0.40 s
131. A speeding motorcyclist sees traffic jam ahead of him. He slows down to 36km/hour. He finds that traffic has
eased and a car moving ahead of him at 18 km/hour is honking at a frequency of 1392 Hz. If the speed of
sound is 343 m/s, the frequency of the honk as heard by him will be:
(A) 1332 Hz (B) 1372 Hz (C) 1412 Hz (D) 1454 Hz
 2π 
132. The equation of a wave is given by y = 10 sin  t + α  . If the displacement is 5 cm at t = 0, then the total
 45 
phase at t = 7.5 s is
π π π
(A) π (B) (C) (D)
6 2 3
133. If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both ends, then the following statement is not true
(A) Open end will be antinode
(B) Odd harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated
(C) All harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated
(D) Pressure change will be maximum at both ends
134. A uniform wire of density kg / is stretched by under its proportional limit whose original length is L.
What is the lowest frequency of transverse vibrations set up in the wire assuming Young’s modulus of the
material to be Y N/ ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
135. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a glass tube. The length of the air column in this tube can be
adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of 27°C two successive resonances are produced at 20
cm and 73 cm of column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at
27°C is
(A) 330 m/s (B) 339 m/s (C) 350 m/s (D) 300 m/s
Chemistry Section – III

Part – A
136. Identify the wrong statement from the following

(A) Salicylic acid’s a monobasic acid
(B) Methyl salicylate is an ester
(C) Salicylic acid gives violet colour with neutral ferric chloride as well as brisk effervescence with sodium bicarbonate
(D) Methyl salicylate does not occur in natural oils
137. Which compound is known as oil of winter green

(A)Phenyl benzoate (B)Phenyl salicylate (C)Phenyl acetate (D)Methyl salicylate
138. Acetic acid is obtained when

(A)Methyl alcohol is oxidised with potassium permanganate
(B)Calcium acetate is distilled in the presence of calcium formate
(C)Acetaldehyde is oxidised with potassium dichromate and sulphuric acid
(D)Glycerol is heated with sulphuric acid
139. The product D of the reaction

KCN H 2O NH 3 ∆
CH 3 Cl  →( A)  →(B)  →(C ) →(D) is
(A) CH 3 CH 2 NH 2 (B) CH 3 CN (C) HCONH 2 (D) CH 3 CONH 2
140. The reaction

CO + H 2O
CH 3 CH = CH 3  +  → CH 3 − CH − CH 3
H |
COOH
is known as
(A)Wurtz reactions (B)Koch reaction
(C)Clemenson’s reduction (D)Kolbe’s reaction
141. Rearrangement of an oxime to an amide in the presence of strong acid is called

(A)Curtius rearrangement (B)Fries rearrangement
(C)Beckman rearrangement (D)Sandmeyer reaction
142. Which reaction is used for the preparation of α − Bromoacetic acid ?

(A)Kolbe’s Reaction (B)Reimer-Tiemann Reaction
(C)HellvolhardZelinsky Reaction (D)Perkin’s Reation
143. When succinic acid is heated, product formed is

(A)Succinic anhydride (B)Acetic acid (C) CO 2 and methane (D)Propionic acid
144. When anisole is heated with HI, the product is

(A)Phenyl iodide and methyl iodide (B)Phenol and methanol
(C)Phenyl iodide and methanol (D)Methyl iodide and phenol
145. In the Gabriel's phthalimide synthesis, phthalimide is treated first with

(A) C 2 H 5 I / KOH (B)Ethanolic Na
(C)Ethanol and H 2 SO 4 (D)Ether and LiAlH4
146. The reaction of HCOOH with conc. H 2 SO 4 gives

(A) CO2 (B)CO
(C)Oxalic acid (D)Acetic acid
147. Mercuric chloride is reduced to mercurous chloride by :

(A) Acetic acid (B) Carbon tetrachloride
(C) Formic acid (D) Ammonia
148. Formaldehyde and formic acid can be distinguished using

(A)Tollen's reagent
(B)Fehling solution
(C)Ferric chloride
(D)Sodium bicarbonate
149. The reaction

C H ONa
2CH 3 − C − OC 2 H 5 25→
||
O
CH 3 − C − CH 2 − C − OC 2 H 5 + C 2 H 5 OH
|| ||
O O
is called
(A)Etard reaction
(B)Perkin’s reaction
(C) Claisen condensation
(D)Claisen Schmidt reaction
Cl2 / Fe Alcoholic
150. CH3 CH2 COOH  → X  →Y
KOH
Compound Y is
(A) CH 3 CH 2 OH (B) CH 3 CH 2 CN
(C) CH 2 = CHCOOH (D) CH 3 CHClCOOH
151. Which one of the following compound gives aspirin on reacting with acetic anhydride in presence of H 2 SO 4
CHO OH
(A) OH (B) COOH
CHO OH
COOH
(C) (D)
NH2
152. o-Toluic acid on reaction with Br2 + Fe, gives
CH2Br CH3
CO2H CO2H
(A) (B)
Br
CH3 CH3
COOH CO2H
(C) (D)
Br
Br
153. Hinsberg’s reagent is
(A) (B) SO 2 Cl
CONH 2
(C) (D)
CH 3 COCl COCl
154. 4-methyl benzene sulphonic acid reacts with sodium acetate to give
CH3 COONa
(A) ; CH3COOH (B) ; SO3
SO3Na CH3
SO2-O-COCH3
; SO3
(C) (D) ; NaOH
Br
CH3
155. Which of the following is an amphoteric acid
(A)Glycine (B)Salicylic acid (C)Benzoic acid (D)Citric acid
156. Colouration of Br2 / CCl 4 will be discharged by

(A) Cinnamic acid (B)Benzoic acid (C)o-phthalic acid (D)Acetophenone
157. Acetamide is treated separately with the following reagents. Which would give methyl amine
(A) PCl5 (B) NaOH + Br2 (C)Sodalime (D)Hot conc. H 2 SO 4
158. In the reaction

O
|| +
H 3O [H ]
R − C − OH ←   X → RCH 2 NH 2 ; 'X' is
(A)Isonitrile (B)Nitrile (C)Nitrite (D)Oxime
159. Carbylamine reaction is given by

(A) 1o amine (B) 3 o amine (C) 2 o amine (D)Quarternary salts
160. In the following reaction, X is
Brominatio n Boiling
NaNO + HCl
X  → Y 2
→ Z  → Tribromobe nzene
C 2 H 5 OH
(A)Benzoic acid (B)Salicylic acid (C)Phenol (D)Aniline

o
161. When aniline is treated with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid at 0 C, it gives
(A)Phenol and N 2 (B)Diazonium salt
(C)Hydrazo compound (D)No reaction takes place
NaNO 2 / HCl
162. In the series of reaction C 6 H 5 NH 2    HNO 2
→ X  → Y + N 2 + HCl X and Y are respectively
0 −5°C CH 2 O
(A) C 6 H 5 − N = N − C 6 H 5 , C 6 H 5 N 2⊕ Cl Θ (B) C 6 H 5 N 2⊕ Cl Θ , C 6 H 5 − N = N − C 6 H 5
(C) C 6 H 5 N 2⊕ Cl Θ , C 6 H 5 NO 2 (D) C 6 H 5 NO 2 , C 6 H 6
163. Aromatic nitriles (ArCN) are not prepared by reaction

(A)ArX + KCN (B) ArN 2+ + CuCN (C) ArCONH 2 + P2 O5 (D) ArCONH 2 + SOCl 2
164. The diazonium salts are the reaction products in presence of excess of mineral acid with nitrous acid and
(A)Primary aliphatic amine (B)Secondary aromatic amine
(C)Primary aromatic amine (D)Tertiary aliphatic amine
165. Nitrosobenzene can be isolated from nitrobenzene under

(A)Metal and acid (B)Zn dust and NH 4 Cl
(C)Alkaline sodium arsenite (D)Cannot be isolated
166. The product formed when benzene is nitrated by fuming nitric acid in presence of Conc. H2SO4 is
(A)m-dinitrobenzene (B)Nitrobenzene
(C)sym-trinitrobenzene (D)None of these
167. Chloroform when treated with aniline and alcoholic KOH gives
(A)Phenyl cyanide (B)Phenyl isocyanide (C)Chlorobenzene (D)Phenol
168. When chloroform reacts with ethyl amine in presence of alcoholic KOH, the compound formed is
(A)Ethyl cyanide (B) Ethyl isocyanide (C)Formic acid (D)An amide
169. When methyl cyanide is hydrolysed in presence of alkali, the product is

(A)Acetamide (B)Methane (C) CO 2 + H 2 O (D)Acetic acid
170. The compound which on reaction with aqueous nitrous acid at low temperature produces an oily nitrosoamine is
(A)Diethylamine (B)Ethylamine (C)Aniline (D)Methylamine
171. Identify the product Z in the series

Na + C H OH HNO K Cr O
CH 3 CN 25
→ X 
2
→ Y 2 2 
7
 →Z
H 2 SO 4
(A) CH 3 CHO (B) CH 3 CONH 2 (C) CH 3 COOH (D) CH 3 CH 2 NHOH
172. The end product of the reactions is

HNO 2 PCl 5 H . NH 2
C 2 H 5 NH 2  → A  → B  → C
(A)Ethyl cyanide (B)Ethyl amine (C)Methyl amine (D)Acetamide
173. Primary and secondary amines are distinguished by

(A) Br2 / KOH (B) HClO4 (C) HNO 2 (D) NH 3
174. What is formed, when nitrobenzene is reduced using zinc and alkali
(A)Phenol (B)Aniline (C)Nitrosobenzene (D)Hydrazobenzene
175. Which of the following is capable of forming a zwitterion

(A) C 6 H 5 − OH (B) C 6 H 4 (NH 2 ) 2 (C) CH 2 OH (D) H 2 N − CH 2 − COOH
|
CH 2 OH
176. Which of the following chemicals are used to manufacture methyl isocyanate that caused “Bhopal Tragedy”
(i) Methylamine (ii) Phosgene
(iii) Phosphine (iv) Dimethylamine
(A)(i) and (iii) (B)(iii) and (iv) (C)(i) and (ii) (D)(ii) and (iv)
177. Which one of the following methods is neither meant for the synthesis nor for separation of amines
(A)Hinsberg method (B)Hofmann method (C)Wurtz reaction (D)Curtius reaction
178. When acetamide reacts with Br2 and caustic soda, then we get
(A)Acetic acid (B)Bromoacetic acid (C)Methyl amine (D)Ethane
179. When primary amine is heated with CS 2 in presence of excess mercuric chloride, it gives isothiocyanate. This
reaction is called
(A)Hofmann bromide reaction (B) Hofmann mustard oil reaction
(C)Carbylamine reaction (D)Perkin reaction
180. Which of the following substance does not give iodoform test
(A) C6 H 5 CN (B) RNH 2 (C) CH 3 OH (D)All

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FIITJEE Chennai Centre

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 720

• Write your Name and Enrollment No. in the space provided.

Any Student who indulges in Malpractice will be terminated immediately.

Atomic masses: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, Be = 9, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23,

Name of the candidate:_________________________________________________

1. Which of the following

3. Conversion of ammonia to urea is done by

4. An advantage of excreting nitrogenous wastes in the form of uric acid is that

5. Which of the following

6. Which one of the following statement is incorrect?

7. In annelids, excretory organs are

8. Which one of the statement

9. The position of kidneys is

10. The retroperitoneal kidney is

12. Parietal layer of Bowman’s capsule is lined by

13. Podocytes are the cells, which are present on

15. Brush-border is characteristic of

16. Proximal and distal convoluted tubules are parts of

17. In humans, kidney is

18. Diameter of the renal afferent vessel is

19. Duct of Bellini is connected with

20. Vital morphological and physiological units of mammalian kidney are

22. What is incorrect about kidney?

23. The main function of pyramids of kidney is to

24. In nephrons, there is complete absorption of

25. In nephron, water absorption is maximum in

26. Which one does not enter nephron?

29. End product of ornithine cycle is

30. What is true for urea biosynthesis?

31. Identify the statement, which is incorrect about ammonotelism?

32. The presence of arginase confirms that the

33. In kidneys, urine is produced by three processes

34. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by

35. Ultrafiltration occurs in

36. What is permeable for ascending loop of Henle?

37. Na+ and Cl− are absorbed in kidney in the region of

38. A deltoid ridge occurs in

39. Glomerular filtrate is

41. Reabsorption of water in PCT part of nephron?

42. Nephron’s distal convoluted tubule is permeable to

45. Amount of glomerular filtrate formed per day is

46. The types of skeletal system are mainly

47. The major contractile proteins of muscles are

48. Total number of bones in each limb of a man is

49. Each half of pelvic girdle is made up of

50. Muscle contraction of shortest duration occurs in

52. Glenoid cavity is found in

53. Number of vertebrae in human skeleton is

54. Greater trochanter occurs in

55. Comparative study of skull is

56. Surface for attachment of tongue is

57. Zygomatic is a part of

58. Odontoid process occurs in

59. Muscles immune to fatigue are

60. Fibrous joints are

61. Spinal cord passes through

62. Anisotropic band is made of

63. The number of tarsals per limb of human beings is

64. The H-zone

65. Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans

66. What is the name of joint between ribs and sternum?