MAT Class8 Part2

FIITJEE Chennai Centre
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 217

 Instructions:
A. General
 You are not allowed to leave the examination hall before end of the test.
 Section - I, has 30 Single answer questions, and section II, & III has 15 Single answer
questions, 1 comprehension with 3 questions, 1 Match the following. Section - IV has 10
single answer questions, 1 comprehension with 3 questions, 1 Match the following. Section – V
has 25 single answer questions, 2 comprehensions with 3 questions, 1 Match the following.
 In Section – I each +1 marks, and no negative marks II, III, IV & V single answer questions
carries +2 mark for correct answer and there is No negative marks for wrong answer.
Comprehension questions carry +3 marks for correct answer and there is No negative mark
for wrong answer. Match the following questions carries +3 mark for correct answer and
there is No negative marks for wrong answer.
--
 Write your Name and Enrollment No. in the space provided.

UDAYA TWO YEAR
Any Student who indulges in Malpractice will be terminated immediately.
USEFUL DATA
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY
Acceleration due to gravity : g = 10 m/s2 1 1
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K mol
Planck constant : h = 6.6  1034 J  s = 0.0821 Lit atm
19 1 1
Charge of electron : e = 1.6  10 C K mol
Mass of electron : me  9.1  10
31
kg
= 1.987  2 Cal
1 1
12 2 2 K mol
Permittivity of free space :  0  8.85  10 C /N m
Avogadro’s Number Na = 6.023  1023
Density of water : water 3
 10 kg / m
3
34
5 2 Planck’s constant h = 6.625 10 J .s
Atmospheric pressure : Pa  10 N / m 27
Gas constant : R = 8.314 J = 6.625 10 erg.s
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
K 1 mol 1 1 calorie = 4.2 joule
27
1 amu = 1.66 10 kg
19
1 eV = 1.6  10 J
Atomic No: H = 1, He = 2, Li = 3, Be = 4, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Ne = 10, Na = 11,
Mg = 12, Si = 14, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar = 18, K = 19, Ca = 20,
Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Zn = 30, As = 33, Br = 35,
Ag = 47, Sn = 50, I = 53, Xe = 54, Ba = 56, Pb = 82, U = 92.
Atomic masses: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, Be = 9, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23,

Mg = 24, Si = 28, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52,
Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Co= 59, Ni = 58.7, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80,
Ag = 108, Sn = 118.7, I = 127, Xe = 131, Ba = 137, Pb = 207, U = 238.
Name of the Candidate :

Enrollment Number :
Date of Examination : Centre :
Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
ADUS021X01 - PHASE- 6 -2- MAT PCMB 29th Nov, 2020
MAT Section – I
Part – A
Single Answer Questions
1. Which number replaces the question mark?
7 6 7
7
3 23 4 4 4 40 2 5 ? 4
5 8 7
(A) 27 (B) 29 (C) 31 (D) 33

5 6 5
7 3 2 10 5 ?
(A) 7 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 5

7 3 6 2
2 8 5 4
1 1 2 4
4 2 1 ?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 8
90
91 85
93
84 89
94
88
90
92 91 82
85 83
93
?
(A) 87 (B) 86 (C) 84 (D) 81
(A) 11 (B) 9 (C) 7 (D) 13


10
8 13
16 6
4 19
22 ?
(A) 11 (B) 2 (C) 17 (D) 3
19
14 13
11 18 11
12 11 17 ?
(A) 15 (B) 13 (C) 14 (D) 16
53
105
208
413
822
(A) 1627 (B) 1629 (C) 1639 (D) 1643
Directions (9 –11): Find the mirror image of given word.
9.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
10.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
11.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Directions (Q.Nos.12- 15) Find the water image of given words:
12.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
13.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
14.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
15.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
th th
16. On 9 Feb 1995 it was Wednesday. The day of the week on 9 Feb 1994 will be?
(A)Thursday (B) Wednesday (C) Tuesday (D) Monday
17. On what dates of Oct, 1994 did Wednesday fall?

(A) 6, 10, 15, 19 (B) 5,12,19, 26 (C)6, 13, 20, 27 (D) 4, 11, 13, 20, 27
18. Any date in March is the same day of the week as the corresponding date in Nov of that year. True or False?
(A) True (B) false (C) can’t say (D) None of these
19. What was the day of the week on 28th May, 2006?
(A) Thursday (B) Friday (C) Saturday (D) Sunday
rd
20. Today is 3 Nov, Mon. This is a leap year. What will be the day of the week on this date after 3yrs.
(A) Sunday (B) Saturday (C) Wednesday (D) Thursday
th
21. How many times does 29 day of the month occur in 400 consecutive yrs?
(A) 1215 (B) 4497 (C) 4496 (D) 4400
22. Calendar Year of 1989 is same as which year?

(A) 1995 (B) 1990 (C) 1994 (D) 1997
23. Today is Sunday after 32 days it will be?

(A)Thursday (B) Sunday (C) Tuesday (D) Friday
24. How many times in a day, are the hands of a clock in straight line but opposite in direction?
(A) 22 (B) 44 (C) 43 (D) 23
25. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 8.30, is
(A) 70 (B) 75 (C) 80 (D) 85
26. At 3.40, the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock form an angle of
(A) 120 (B) 125 (C) 130 (D) 135
27. At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 15 minutes past 5?
1 1 1
(A) 67 (B) 62 (C) 63 (D) 70
2 2 2
28. At what time between 5.30 and 6 will the hands of a clock be at right angles
7 7
(A) 44 minutes past 5 (B) 47 min past 5 (C) 43 min past 5 (D) None
11 11
29. At what time between 7 and 8 o'clock will the hands of a clock be in the same straight line but, not together?
3 1 5
(A) 5 minutes past 7 (B) 5 min past 7 (C) 5 min past 7 (D) 5 min past 7
11 11 11
30. A clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes past 5, the hour hand has turned through
(A) 155° (B) 145° (C) 152° (D)140°
Mathematics Section –II

Part – A
1. The minimum number of measurement requires to construct rectangle is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
2. Area of the trapezium A; parallel sides ‘a’ and ‘b’. The distance between the parallel sides ‘h’, then h=
2A A ab ab
(A) (B) (C) (D)
ab ab 2A A
3. The base of a parallelogram is 10 cms and the corresponding altitude between the parallel sides is 6 cm. Then
area of the parallelogram in cm2 .
(A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 32 (D) 60
4. The diagonal of a square is 12 cm then area of the square in cm 2 .

(A) 144 (B) 48 (C) 72 (D) 108
2
5. The diagonals of a rhombus are 2x, 2y cms. Then area of the rhombus.(in cm )
(A) 4 x 2  4 y 2 (B) 4x 2 y (C) 2xy (D) 4xy
6. The diagonal of a quadrilateral is 9 cms and the perpendiculars drawn to it from the opposite vertices are 4 cm
and 4.8 cm. Area of the quadrilateral (cm2 ).
(A) 80.2 (B) 79.2 (C) 39.6 (D) 9.6
7. A rectangular grassy plot is 112 m by 78 m. It has a gravel path 2.5 m wide all round it on the inside. Find the
cost of constructing a road to the path at Rs.2 per square metre?
(A) Rs.1850 (B) Rs.5100 (C) Rs.2500 (D) Rs.3400
8. The perimeter of a rhombus is 146 cm and one of its diagonal is 55 cm. Find the area of the rhombus.
(A) 2853 cm2 (B) 3992 cm2 (C) 1320 cm2 (D) 1450 cm2
o
9. A parallelogram with one angle being 90 becomes
(A)A kite (B) A trapezium (C) A square (D) A rectangle
10. If  is an impossible event, then P ( ) 

(A) 1 (B)1/4 (C) 0 (D) ½
11. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of getting a doublet (getting same number on both dice) is
_______
(A) 1/36 (B)1/3 (C)1/6 (D) 2/3
12. The measure of the angle between the coordinate axis is

(A) 0° (B) 180° (C) 90° (D) 360°
13. If p is the probability of an event A, then p satisfies

(A) 0 < p < 1 (B) 0  p  1 (C)  p < 1 < 1 (D) 0 < p  1
14. Probability of a sure event is

(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 100 (D) 0.1
15. The distance to the point (4,7) from the x-axis is

(A) 4 (B) 7 (C) -4 (D) -7
16. The scale of a map is given as 1:30000000. The cities are 4 cm apart on the map. The actual distance between
them is ________.
(A) 1200 km (B) 1000 km (C) 900 km (D) 1300 km
Direction (17 to 19) Adjoining pie chart gives the expenditure (in percentage) on various items and savings
of a family during month
House Re nt (10%) EducationForChildren (15%)

 

Transport (5%)  
 
  

   
Food  25% 

Other (20%) 


  
Saving 15%  Clothes (10%)
17. Expenditure is maximum on

(A) Others (B) Education for children (C) Clothes (D) Food
18. The item on which expenditure is equal to the total savings of the family is
(A) Food (B) Other (C) Clothes (D) Education for children
19. If the monthly saving of the family is Rs 30000, then the monthly expenditure on clothes is
(A) Rs 1000 (B) Rs 20000 (C) Rs 3000 (D) Rs 4000
20. Each exterior angle of a regular polygon is 450 , then it is a

(A) Pentagon (B) Hexagon (C) Octagon (D) Decagon
21. What is abscissa of the point  5, 7 

(A) 7 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 5
22. The y – coordinate of every point on x  axis is

(A) One (B) Two (C) Zero (D) None of these
23. The point where the two axes intersected is called

(A) Origin (B) Co – ordinate (C) Initial point (D) None of these
24. The number of variables required to draw a graph is

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
25. In a simultaneous throw of two dice, what is the probability of getting a total of 7?
1 1 2 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 4 7 4
Comprehension - 1
If a card is drawn randomly from a pack of 52 cards, then the probability that the drawn card is
26. A red queen

1 1 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
26 13 13
27. An even Numbered card

7 5 7
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
52 13 26
28. A King or an Ace

1 1 2 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13 26 13 13
Comprehension - 2
The distance between any two points P(x1 ,y1 ) and Q(x 2 ,y 2 ) is given by PQ  (x2  x1 )2  (y2  y1 )2 units, then answer
the following questions.
29. What is the distance between the points (3, 6) and (2,6) ?
(A) 12 units (B) 14 units (C) 13 units (D) 15 units
30. The distance between (3,0) and (0,4) is

(A) 3 units (B) 5 units (C) 7 units (D) none of these
31. If the distance between the points (4,P) and (1,0) is 5, then P =
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 0 (D) 3
Match the following
32. In a parallelogram, If
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II
A Adjacent sides are equal P Square
B All angles are equal Q Rhombus
C All angles and all sides are equal R Rectangle
D Diagonals are equal S Kite

(A) A-R B-Q C-P D-R (B) A-Q B-P C-R D-R
(C) A-Q B-R C-P D-R (D) A-R B-R C-P D-Q
Physics Section – III

Part – A
1. The amplitude of a sound is doubled. Its pitch will

(A) Double (B) become four times (C) Remain same (D) none of these
2. The loudness of a sound depends upon its

(A) frequency (B) amplitude (C) pitch (D) none of these
3. The frequency of an oscillation is doubled. Its time-period will be

(A) doubled (B) halved (C) remain same (D) none of these
4. Sound cannot travel in

(A) solids (B) liquids (C) gases (D) vacuum
5. The vibrating part in a veena is

(A) stretched string (B) stretched membrane(C) Air-column (D) none of these
6. Sound can travel through

(A) a stretched string (B) a wooden block (C) water (D) all the above
7. As we shout, we tend to increase our

(A) amplitude (B) time period (C) frequency (D) all the above
8. Ultrasound is used for which of the following

(A) SONAR (B) to break Kidney stones
(C) to detect cracks in material (D) All of these
9. The distance between two adjacent points on a wave that are oscillating in same stage of oscillation is called
(A) Frequency (B) wavelength (C) amplitude (D) wave velocity
10. A man standing infront of a vertical cliff fires a gun. He hears the echo after 3 seconds. On moving closer to the
cliff by 82.5 m, he fires again. This time he hears the echo after 2.5 seconds. Calculate the distance of cliff from
the initial position of the man.
(A) 395 m (B) 550 m (C) 330 m (D) 495 m
11. A man stands in between two cliffs, such that he is at a distance of 133.6 m from nearer cliff. He fires a gun and
hears first echo after 0.8 sec and second echo after 1.8 sec. Calculate the distance between the cliffs.
(A) 434.2 m (B) 333.3 m (C) 540 m (D) 640 m
12. Which of the following parameters does speed of sound depends upon
(A) source producing the sound (B) density
(C) volume of the medium (D) none of these
13. For a wave motion, the maximum displacement of particles from mean position is called
(A) wavelength (B) amplitude (C) displacement (D) none of these
14. A sound of wavelength and velocity respectively in glass mediums are 0.8 m, 5600 ms−1. if the sound enters
−1
into the air medium, then the value of wavelength of sound is (Vair = 340 ms ) (note that frequency remains
same during refraction)
(A) 8 cm (B) 4.85 cm (C) 2.52 cm (D) 3.4 cm
8 −1
15. The wavelength of red light is 6500 Ǻ. If velocity of light is 3 × 10 ms , calculate time period of the wave.
14 −15 −15 14
(A) 4.61 × 10 sec. (B) 8.61 × 10 sec (C) 2.16 × 10 sec (D) 5.12 × 10 sec.
Comprehension - 1
−1
A sound wave of frequency 600 Hz travels in air with speed 300 ms . Now this sound wave refracts in a medium
where it’s speed becomes 900 ms−1.
16. Wavelength of wave in air

(A) 30 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 50 cm (D) None of these
17. Frequency of the wave in the medium

(A) 300 Hz (B) 600 Hz (C) 900 Hz (D) None of these
18. Wavelength of wave in medium

(A) 100 cm (B) 150 cm (C) 200 cm (D) None of these
19. Match the following

A Reciprocal of time period P Product of frequency and wavelength
B Velocity of wave Q Maximum displacement
C Amplitude R Wavelength
Distance between two successive trough
D S Frequency
(or) crest
(A) A – S B–Q C–P D–R
(B) A – S B–R C–Q D–P
(C) A – P B–S C–Q D–R
(D) A – S B–P C–Q D–R
Chemistry Section – IV
Part – A
1. Combustion is an
ADUS021X01 - PHASE- 6 - 10 - MAT PCMB 29th Nov, 2020
(a) Exothermic process (b) Endothermic process

(c) Both A and B (d) Can’t say
2. One of the conditions necessary for combustion is

(a) presence of hydrogen (b) Presence of nitrogen (c) Presence of oxygen (d) All of these
3. An ideal fuel should

(a) leave ash after burning
(b) have ignition temperature above room temperature
(c) produce poisonous and irritating fumes
(d) All of these
4. The products formed when a hydrocarbon undergoes complete combustion are

(a) Carbon dioxide + Heat + Light (b) Carbon monoxide + Heat + Light
(c) Carbon di oxide + Water + Heat + Light (d) Carbon dioxide
5. Which variety of coal has the highest calorific value?

(a) Peat (b) Lignite (c) Bituminous (d) Anthracite
6. The combustible substances A, B and C are given, which exist in solid, liquid and gaseous form respectively.
The lowest ignition temperature is of
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) All of these
7. A yellow sooty flame with lots of smoke is produced

(a) Kerosene burnt in gas stove (b) Paper burns insufficient amount of oxygen
(c) LPG in gas stove (d) Both A and B
8. Which of the following is used to put off fire caused by electrical short circuits?
(a) Sand (b) Water (c) CO2 (d) all of the above
9. Calorific value is measured in

(a) Kilo joule (b) Kilograms (c) Kilo joule per kg (d) milli grams
10. The burning of which fuel would reduce the build up of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?
(a) Ethanol (b) Diesel (c) Methane (d) Hydrogen
11. You are given a candle. Now break this candle into a number of pieces. Put these pieces in a china dish. Now
heat this China dish. The wax of broken candle melts by absorbing heat. This process involves
(a) Chemical change (b) Physical change (c) Evolution of light (d) All of these
12. The products formed after combustion of hydrogen fuel are

(a) Carbon dioxide + heat + light (b) Carbon dioxide + water + heat + light
(c) Water + heat + light (d) Carbon monoxide + water + heat + light
13. Which of the following is/are combustible?

(a) Wood (b) Nitrogen (c) Hydrogen (d) Both A and C
14. Which of the following is not a fossil fuel

(a) Alcohol (b) Biogas (c) Producer gas (d) All of these
15. Which fraction of petroleum is used for making Vaseline?

(a) Gaso line (b) Paraffin wax (c) Asphalt (d) Lubricating oil
Comprehension – 1
Combustion is the process of burning any substances in the presence of excess of oxygen or limited supply of
oxygen. It is a very important for the survival of life on earth.
16. Which of the following is not an example of combustion ?

(a)respiration (b)Burning of petrol (c)Photosynthesis (d) Burning of candle
17. Digestion of food is an example of

(a) Incomplete combustion (b) Slow combustion
(c) Complete combustion (d) Rapid combustion
18. Which statement is correct

(a) Generally gaseous fuels produced least amount of harmful gases as compared to solid and liquid
(b) Combustion of fuel produce CO2
(c) Acid rain is also caused by combustion of fuel
(d) All are correct
Match the following
19.
A LPG P Fire extinguisher
B Kerosene Q Domestic fuel
C CO 2 R Power alcohol
D Ethanol + Petrol S Low ignition temperature

(A) A – Q B–S C–P D–R (B) A – R B–P C–S D–Q
(C) A – P B–Q C–R D–S (D) A – S B–R C–Q D–P
Biology Section – V
Part – A
1. Which human activity would have the most direct impact on the oxygen-carbon dioxide cycle?
(A) reducing the rate of ecological succession (B) decreasing the use of water
(C) destroying large forest areas (D) preventing the use of leaded petroleum
2. How is a migratory bird classified?

(A) A bird which travels long distances across the globe
(B) One which makes regular seasonal trips to set Geographic locations
(C) A bird that is caught halfway between life and death, such that its very essence quivers tenuously in and out
of recognition
(D) One that runs away when you meet it, so you have to chase it around the world map to catch it
3. Conservation of Wildlife includes

(A) Preventing poaching of animals (B) Construction of National parks, Sanctuaries
(C) Ban on trading endangered species (D) All of the above
4. Which of these is not a conservation category ?

(A) Extinct (B) Endangered (C) Endemic (D) Vulnerable
5. Soil erosion is prevented by

(A) Reduction of CFCs production (B) reforestation
(C) deforestation (D) proper watering of forest
6. For every ton of paper recycled, we save:

(A) 1 tree (B) 17 trees (C) 32 trees (D) 34 trees
7. Which of the following is not true about deforestation?

(A) Population explosion is one of the reasons for deforestation.
(B) Cleaning of forest for agriculture causes deforestation.
(C) Deforestation is taking place only in developing courtiers.
(D) Cash crop economy of third world is a cause of deforestation.
8. Recycling newspaper can save which natural resource?

(A) Rocks (B) trees (C) air (D) coal
9. Is afforestation different from reforestation?
(A) Yes, they have nothing in common (B) Yes, but both are involved in planting trees
(C) No, they are exactly the same (D) none of the above
10. Which term means, "a behavioral adaptation of travelling long distances to avoid a season that the animal
cannot survive in".
(A) Summer sleep (B) Mimicry (C) Migration (D) winter sleep
Comprehension – 1
Every day there is less and less space on earth for trash. Yet every day we make more and more
trash. What can we do? We can recycle some of our trash. Recycling ,means that the trash will be made into
something that can be used again.
Recycling helps the earth and it saves space in trash dumps. Half of everything that we put into
landfills could be recycled instead. In fact, most things made of paper, metal, aluminium, glass and plastic can
be recycled.Paper can be ground up and made into new paper. Steel and aluminium cans can be melted down
and made into new cans. The same is true of glass bottles. This can be done over and over again. Recycling
doesn’t take as much energy as making these things the first time. So we can use less of the earth’s fuel
resources. Plastic can be melted down too. Then it can be formed into park benches, fences, playgrounds and
lumber. Some people call plastic the “wood of the future”. Things made of plastic will last about 400 years –
even if they stay outside in the weather. No wood can do that.
11. The main idea is that

(A) We should recycle everything that we can (B) We can build benches that last 400 years.
(C) Old news papers can be reused. (D) Cans should be melted.
12. What will happen if people begin to recycle all that they can?
(A) More of the earth’s resources will be used up. (B) Things will cost less money.
(C) Trash dumps will fill up faster. (D) Trash dumps won’t fill up so fast.
13. Picture a dump. What do you see that cannot be recycled?
(A) A plastic milk jug (B) a glass baby food jar
(C) An old sofa (D) a magazine with a torn cover
14. Match the following
Column - A Column - B
1 Caron dioxide A Biosphere reserve
2 Endangered species B Global warming
3 National park C Asiatic Lion
4 Urbanization D Flood and soil erosion

5 Deforestation E Loss of biodiversity
(A) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-E (B) 1-E, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B, 5-A
(C) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-E, 5-D (D) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A, 5-E
*****

MAT Class8 Part2

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FIITJEE Chennai Centre

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 217

 Write your Name and Enrollment No. in the space provided.

Any Student who indulges in Malpractice will be terminated immediately.

Atomic masses: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, Be = 9, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23,

Name of the Candidate :

(A) 27 (B) 29 (C) 31 (D) 33

2. Which number replaces the question mark?

3. Which number replaces the question mark?

4. Which number replaces the question mark?

(A) 87 (B) 86 (C) 84 (D) 81

5. Which number replaces the question mark?

(A) 11 (B) 9 (C) 7 (D) 13

6. Which number replaces the question mark?

(A) 11 (B) 2 (C) 17 (D) 3

7. Which number replaces the question mark?

(A) 15 (B) 13 (C) 14 (D) 16

8. Which number replaces the question mark?

(A) 1627 (B) 1629 (C) 1639 (D) 1643

Directions (9 –11): Find the mirror image of given word.

Directions (Q.Nos.12- 15) Find the water image of given words:

17. On what dates of Oct, 1994 did Wednesday fall?

22. Calendar Year of 1989 is same as which year?

23. Today is Sunday after 32 days it will be?

Mathematics Section –II

4. The diagonal of a square is 12 cm then area of the square in cm 2 .

10. If  is an impossible event, then P ( ) 

12. The measure of the angle between the coordinate axis is

13. If p is the probability of an event A, then p satisfies

14. Probability of a sure event is

15. The distance to the point (4,7) from the x-axis is

House Re nt (10%) EducationForChildren (15%)

Saving 15%  Clothes (10%)

17. Expenditure is maximum on

20. Each exterior angle of a regular polygon is 450 , then it is a

21. What is abscissa of the point  5, 7 

22. The y – coordinate of every point on x  axis is

23. The point where the two axes intersected is called

24. The number of variables required to draw a graph is

26. A red queen

27. An even Numbered card

28. A King or an Ace

30. The distance between (3,0) and (0,4) is

Match the following

A Adjacent sides are equal P Square

B All angles are equal Q Rhombus

C All angles and all sides are equal R Rectangle

D Diagonals are equal S Kite

Physics Section – III

1. The amplitude of a sound is doubled. Its pitch will

2. The loudness of a sound depends upon its

3. The frequency of an oscillation is doubled. Its time-period will be

4. Sound cannot travel in

5. The vibrating part in a veena is

6. Sound can travel through

7. As we shout, we tend to increase our

8. Ultrasound is used for which of the following

16. Wavelength of wave in air

17. Frequency of the wave in the medium

18. Wavelength of wave in medium

19. Match the following

A Reciprocal of time period P Product of frequency and wavelength

B Velocity of wave Q Maximum displacement