ME8791 Mechatronics MCQ

Department of Mechanical Engineering MCQ for Regulations 2017
was a veritable explosion in Microprocessor

based products.
ME8791
2. A servo motor is a typical example of
Mechatronics
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_____
a) Electronics system
b) Mechanical system
Mechanical
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c) Computer system
d) Mechatronics system
Engineering -
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Answer: d
Seventh Semester Explanation: A servo motor is a typical
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example of a mechatronics system. It is a
motor with sensory feedback and it is used for
obtaining very complex and precise motions.
MCQ - R-17
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3. What is the function of an input signal
conditioning unit?
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a) To produce control signals
b) To amplify the signal and convert it into
digital form
UNIT I INTRODUCTION c) To perform mechanical work
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d) To produce electrical signals
TOPIC 1.1 INTRODUCTION TO
Answer: b
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MECHATRONICS - SYSTEMS - Explanation: Input signal conditioning

CONCEPTS OF devices amplify the signals, converts them
MECHATRONICS APPROACH - into digital form, and supplies the conditioned
NEED FOR MECHATRONICS - input signals to digital control. Control
.B
EMERGING AREAS OF signals are produced by digital control.

Mechanical actuators perform mechanical
MECHATRONICS - work. Electrical signals are produced by input
CLASSIFICATION OF
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sensors.
MECHATRONICS.
4. The main mechanical components of a
servo motor are stator and rotor.
1. Where and when was the word
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a) True
Mechatronics invented?
b) False
a) Japan(1960)
b) Japan(1980) Answer: a
c) Europe(1960)
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Explanation: The main mechanical

d) Europe(1980) components of a servo motor are stator and
rotor. The electrical components consist of
Answer: a
field windings and rotor windings, circuitry
Explanation: The word Mechatronics was
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for power transmission.

first used in Japan in the late 1960s, spread
through Europe and now commonly used in 5. The main function of Actuator is _____
all other parts of the world. In the 1980s there a) To produce motion
Downloaded From: https://cse-r17.blogspot.com 1

b) Detect input control or artificial intelligence. The example

c) Detect output of a Stand-alone system is washing machine
d) Detect the state of the system whereas wire aircraft and automated
inspection stations are examples of high level
Answer: a distributed sensor and large factory systems
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Explanation: The Actuators produce motion respectively.
and cause some actions whereas sensors
detect the state of system parameters, inputs 9. Where is the feedback generated by sensors
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and outputs. in a mechatronics system given?
a) Input sensors
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6. Example of ‘Stand-alonesystem’ is _____ b) Comparators
a) Machining centres c) Mechanical actuators
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b) Washing machine d) Output sensors
c) Robots for parts handling
d) Automated inspection stations Answer: b
Explanation: The feedback signal is given to
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Answer: b comparator, which compares the desired input
Explanation: The example of a stand-alone signal to the feedback signal to produce an
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system is the washing machine. Machining error signal. Input sensor detects the input
centres, robots for parts handling and signal. Output sensors produce the output.
automated inspection system are large factory
systems. 10. A Mechatronics system contains
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feedback.
7. Which among the following carry out the a) True
overall control of a system? b) False
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a) Graphical display
b) Sensors Answer: a
c) Actuators Explanation: Feedback signals are generated
d) Digital controls by sensors of mechatronics system, given to
.B
comparators to produce the error signal if any.

Answer: d
Explanation: The overall control of the
system is carried out by digital controls. TOPIC 1.2 SENSORS AND
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Graphical display provides visual feedback. TRANSDUCERS: STATIC AND

The actuators produce motion and cause some DYNAMIC CHARACTERISTICS
actions whereas sensors detect the state of OF SENSOR
system parameters,inputs and outputs.
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8. A humanoid robot is an example of _____ 1. Which error is also termed as measurement

a) Artificial intelligence error?
b) Stand-alone systems a) Static errors
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c) Large factory systems b) Dynamic errors

d) High level distributed sensor c) Systematic errors
microcontroller actuator d) Statical error
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Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: Humanoid robot is an example Explanation: Dynamic error is also termed as
of a system that incorporates intelligent measurement error under specified
conditions. Dynamic error is defined as the

difference between the actual or true value b) Thermoelectric transducer

with a quantity that changes with time. c) Strain gauge
d) Piezoelectric transducer
2. In retardation type measuring lag the
instrument responds after an unspecified dead Answer: c
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time lag. Explanation: Strain gauge is an example of
a) True passive transducer. Passive transducers are
b) False those types of transducers that bring change
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in passive electrical quantity usually with the
Answer: b help of external power source. Strain gauge is
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Explanation: In retardation type measuring a device that changes its resistance when
lag the instrument does not responds after an there is change in applied pressure.
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unspecified dead time lag. The instruments
respond immediately as soon as a change in 6. Fidelity is a static characteristic.
measured quantity is encountered. a) True
b) False
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3. Active transducers do not require power
source for operation. Answer: b
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a) True Explanation: Fidelity is not a static
b) False characteristic. It is a dynamic characteristic of
an instrument. Fidelity refers to the degree of
Answer: a exactness of a measured value with a
Explanation: Active transducers do not
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measured quantity that has been measured
require power source for operation. These without dynamic errors.
types of transducers convert one form of
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energy to another without any external power 7. Measuring lag is a dynamic characteristic.
source. Example:- Photovoltaic cells present a) True
in solar panels. b) False
4. Which among the following transducer is Answer: a

.B
an example of active transducer? Explanation: Measuring lag is a dynamic

a) LDR (Light dependant sensor) characteristic. Sensors, transducers or any
b) Strain gauge instrument do not respond immediately to the
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c) Hall effect sensor change in input. Measuring lag refers delay in

d) Photovoltaic cell response of an instrument to the change in
input.
Answer: d
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Explanation: Photovoltaic cell is an example 8. In time delay type measuring lag the
of active transducer. Active transducers are instrument responds immediately as soon as
those types of transducers that convert one the input is altered.
form of energy to another without any a) True
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external power source. Photovoltaic cells are b) False

present in solar panels that generates
electricity from sunlight. Answer: b
Explanation: In time delay type measuring
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5. Which among the following transducer is lag the instrument does not responds
an example of passive transducer? immediately as soon as the input is altered. In
a) Chemical transducer this type of time delay type measuring lag the

instrument responds after an unspecified dead observation among the predefined sets of
time lag. observations.
9. Which instrument can be used to measure 12. Which among the following is not a
time without any errors? dynamic characteristic?
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a) Analog Clock a) Response speed
b) Digital Clock b) Accuracy
c) Atomic clock c) Retardation type measuring lag
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d) Doomsday clock d) Time delay lag
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Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: Atomic clock is an instrument Explanation: Accuracy is not a dynamic
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can be used to measure time without any characteristic. It comes under static
static errors. These are the most accurate characteristic. Static characteristics are
instrument that can accurately measure time related to steady state response. Accuracy is
and frequency and are used as standard for the observation closest to the true value.
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different purpose such as for global
navigation satellite systems. 13. Which method can reduce dynamic error?
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a) By increasing stability
10. Which method can reduce dynamic error? b) By increasing tolerance
a) By increasing accuracy c) By increasing resolution
b) By increasing precession d) By increasing speed of response
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c) By reducing sensitivity
d) By reducing time lag Answer: d
Explanation: Dynamic error can be reduced
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Answer: d by increasing speed of response. Stability,

Explanation: Dynamic errorcan be reduced tolerance and resolution are static
by reducing time lag. Accuracy, precession characteristics. Dynamic errors are caused
and sensitivity are static characteristics. when the instruments do not respond
.B
Dynamic errors are caused when the immediately therefore increasing speed of
instruments do not respond immediately response will reduce dynamic error.
therefore reducing time lag will reduce
dynamic error. 14. Which among the following transducer is
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an example of passive transducer?

11. Which among the following is not a a) Photovoltaic cell
dynamic characteristic? b) Thermocouple
a) Precession c) Piezoelectric transducer
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b) Measuring lag d) Thermistor

c) Dynamic error
d) Fidelity Answer: d
Explanation: Thermistor is an example of
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Answer: a passive transducer. Passive transducers are

Explanation: Precession is not a dynamic those types of transducers that bring change
characteristic. It comes under static in passive electrical quantity usually with the
characteristic. Dynamic characteristics of any help of external power source. Thermistor is a
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sensor or transducer are determined by device that changes its resistance when there
observing criteria’s that vary rapidly with is change in temperature.
time. Precession is the closeness of a single

15. Which among the following transducer is 3. Galvanometer used should be calibrated
an example of active transducer? first.
a) LDR (Light dependant sensor) a) True
b) Thermocouple b) False
c) LVDT (linear variable differential
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transformer) Answer: b
d) Thermistor Explanation: Calibration of galvanometer is
not needed since its only purpose is to display
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Answer: b a null condition.
Explanation: Thermocouple is an example of
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active transducer. Active transducers are 4. Which of the following cannot be
those types of transducers that convert one measured using potentiometer?
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form of energy to another without any a) DC voltage
external power source. Thermocouple b) Temperature
consists of two rods made of different metal c) Resistance
welded at a junction. When it senses a d) None of the mentioned
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temperature difference it generates a voltage.
Answer: d
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Explanation: Potentiometer can be arranged
TOPIC 1.3 POTENTIOMETERS to measure different quantities like DC
voltage, resistance, and temperature (using
1. Standardization of potentiometer is used thermocouple potentiometer).
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for ________________
a) Accuracy 5. Which of the following is not possible?
b) Accuracy in measurement a) Constant current potentiometer
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c) Use of low voltage sources b) Constant resistance potentiometer

d) None of the mentioned c) Thermocouple potentiometer
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Answer: d
.B
Explanation: Standardization of
potentiometers are done for accuracy in Explanation: Constant current, constant
measurement, and it is carried out using resistance and thermocouple potentiometers
electrochemical cells of known potential. are different arrangements of potentiometers
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for measuring different parameters.

2. Which of the following device is used for
calibration of a potentiometer? 6. Galvanometer is used for
a) Electrochemical cell _________________
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b) Galvanometer a) Calibration of potentiometer

c) Variable dc source b) Indication of null position
d) All of the mentioned c) Providing stability
d) All of the mentioned
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Answer: a
Explanation: Electrochemical cell of known Answer: b
potential is used for calibration of a Explanation: Only use of galvanometer in
potentiometer, ammeter is also used for this potentiometer circuit is for the indication of
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purpose. null position.

7. Power consumption of unknown source

connected will be _____________ 1. Which of the following is not a
a) Very high characteristic of an ideal transducer?
b) Very low a) High dynamic range
c) Zero ideally b) Low linearity
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d) Always constant c) High repeatability
d) Low noise
Answer: c
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Explanation: Indication of null position in Answer: b
galvanometer means zero current is drawn be Explanation: An ideal transducer should
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connected source. show high linearity. A linear system should
produce exact output according to input.
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8. A potentiometer cannot be used for
calibration of ammeter. 2. A transducer converting ground movement
a) True or velocity to voltage is known as
b) False ________________
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a) Geophone
Answer: b b) Pickup
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Explanation: For the calibration of ammeter, c) Hydrophone
potentiometers can be used since it indicates d) Sonar transponder
current drawn by the externally connected
device. Answer: a
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Explanation: Geophone is a device used to
9. Which of the following devices cannot be convert ground movement to voltage, which
used potentiometer as calibrating device? is used in Remote ground sensors (RGS) and
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a) Watt meter also as a replacement for broadband

b) Energy meter seismometers.
c) Voltmeter
d) All of the mentioned 3. Which of the following represent active
.B
transducer?
Answer: d a) Strain gauge
Explanation: Watt meter, voltmeter and b) Thermistor
energy meter cannot use a potentiometer as c) LVDT
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calibrating device. d) Thermocouple

10. At null position, galvanometer reading Answer: d
will be _______________ Explanation: Active transducers are self-
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a) Maximum generating type, they don’t require external

b) Zero power to work while passive transducers
c) Unchanged for further reading require external power to work.
d) None
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4. Which transducer is known as ‘self-

Answer: b generating transducer’?
Explanation: Null position is in which a) Active transducer
current drawn will be zero and galvanometer b) Passive transducer
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shows zero reading. c) Secondary transducer

d) Analog transducer
TOPIC 1.4 LVDT

Answer: a a) Velocity
Explanation: The name self-generating b) Displacement
transducer is due to its property of working c) Force
without the use of external power. d) Sound
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5. What is the relation between scale factor Answer: c
and sensitivity of a transducer? Explanation: Piezo-electric crystals produces
a) Scale factor is double of sensitivity an electric signal when pressure applied.
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b) Scale factor is inverse of sensitivity Examples are quartz, Rochelle salt. That is, it
c) Sensitivity is inverse of scale factor converts force into electric signals.
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d) Sensitivity is equal to scale factor
9. Capacitive transducer is used for?
T.
Answer: b a) Static measurement
Explanation: Sensitivity is an important b) Dynamic measurement
property of transducer. Every transducer c) Transient measurement
should be sufficiently sensitive to provide d) Both static and dynamic
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some output that can be detected.
Answer: b
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6. Which of the following is an analog Explanation: Capacitive transducers convert
transducer? measurant into changes in capacitance.
a) Encoders Change in capacitance is caused by change in
b) Strain gauge dielectric or change in distance between
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c) Digital tachometers plates.
d) Limit switches
10. Which of the following is used in photo
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Answer: b conductive cell?

Explanation: Analog transducers convert a) Selenium
physical quantity to analog signals while b) Quartz
digital transducers convert physical quantity c) Rochelle salt
.B
to digital signals. Strain gauge is an example d) Lithium sulphate

of an Analog transducer.
Answer: a
7. What is the principle of operation of Explanation: Photo conductive action is the
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LVDT? property of reduction of resistance when

a) Mutual inductance exposed to light. Selenium shows
b) Self-inductance photoconductive action.
c) Permanence
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d) Reluctance
TOPIC 1.5 CAPACITANCE
Answer: a SENSORS
Explanation: Linear variable differential
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transformer (LVDT) is a type of transformer 1. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is

used for measuring displacement, and it has ________
the same principle of operation of a) C = A∈⁄d
transformer.
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b) C = ∈⁄d
8. Which of the following can be measured c) C = A⁄d
using Piezo-electric transducer?
d) C = A

Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: The capacitance of a parallel Explanation: Capacitance is varied in four
plate capacitor is given by the relation, ways. They are as follows:
C = A∈⁄d Change of distance
Change in dielectric
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where,
Change in common plate area
A is the area of cross section of the plates
Using quartz diaphragms.
d is the distance of separation between the
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plates 5. Capacitive pressure transducer uses
∈ is the permittivity of space. distance of separation for sensing the
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capacitance.
2. A capacitive transducer works on the a) True
principle of ________
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b) False
a) inductance
b) capacitance Answer: a
c) resistance Explanation: A capacitive pressure
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d) reluctance transducer is based on the principle of
distance of separation between the plates of
Answer: b
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the capacitor. Capacitance of a parallel plate
Explanation: A capacitive transducer works
capacitor varies when the distance between
on the principle of capacitance. The
the two parallel plates changes.
capacitance of a system depends on the
dielectric used as well as the properties of a
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6. Capacitive transducer displays ________
capacitive system. a) linear behaviour
b) non-linear behaviour
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3. Capacitance of a cylindrical capacitor is

c) exponential behaviour
given by which of the following relation?
d) tangential behaviour
a) C = ∈l
R
ln( )
r
b) C =
2 l π Answer: b
.B
Explanation: A capacitive transducer

R
ln( )
r
π
c) C =
2 ∈l
R
displays non-linear behaviour. This is due to
ln( )
π
r
stray electric fields. Guard rings are required
d) C = 2 ∈
to eliminate the edge effects and the parasitic

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R
ln( )
r
electric field effects.

Answer: c
Explanation: The capacitance of a cylindrical 7. Frequency response of capacitive
capacitor is given by the relation transducers is ________
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C= π 2 ∈l a) high
ln(
R
r
)
b) medium
where, l is the length of the cylinder c) low
R is the inner radius of the external cylinder
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d) zero
r is the outer radius of the inner cylinder.
Answer: c
4. Capacitance can be varied in ________ Explanation: In a capacitive transducer, long
a) 10 ways leads and cables are used. Due to loading
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b) 6 ways effect, frequency response is poor and the

c) 2 ways sensitivity reduces.
d) 4 ways

8. What is the relation between capacitance TOPIC 1.6 STRAIN GAUGES

and output impedance?
a) proportional to square
b) constant 1. Electrical strain gauge works on the
c) directly proportional principle of __________
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d) inversely proportional a) variation of resistance
b) variation of capacitance
Answer: d c) variation of inductance
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Explanation: When the capacitance is low in d) variation of area
the range of pico-farads, output impedance
C
tends to a high value. This leads to loading Answer: a
effect. Explanation: An electrical strain gauge
works on the basis of change in resistance as
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9. What is the relation between capacitance a function of strain. The wire resistance
and input impedance? increases with tension and reduces with
a) directly proportional compression.
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b) constant
c) proportional to square 2. The strain gauge is not bonded to the
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d) inversely proportional specimen.
a) True
Answer: a b) False
Explanation: Capacitive transducer has high
Answer: b
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input impedance. It also has a good frequency
response. The loading effects are minimum. Explanation: The gauge is under the same
strain as that the specimen under test. As a
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10. Composite capacitance consists of result the strain gauge is bonded to the
_________ specimen.
a) one dielectric medium
b) more than one dielectric medium 3. Bonding element in a strain gauge must
have __________
.B
c) five dielectric media

d) ten dielectric media a) zero insulation resistance
b) low insulation resistance
Answer: b c) high insulation resistance
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Explanation: In a composite capacitance, d) infinite insulation resistance

there is more than one dielectric medium. The
capacitance is given by Answer: c
Explanation: In a strain gauge, the bonding
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element must have a high value of insulation

resistance. It should be immune to effects of
moisture and must also have the ability to
transmit strain.
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where, d1, d2 and d3 are the thicknesses

∈1, ∈2 and ∈3 are the permittivities of the 4. Dynamic strain measurements use
three different media. __________
a) brass iron alloy
C
Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning b) iron aluminium alloy

Series – Electrical Measurements. c) nickel cadmium alloy
d) nickel chromium alloy

Answer: d a) S = ΔR/R
Explanation: Nickel chromium alloy is also

Δl
b) S = ΔR
known as a nichrome alloy. It contains 80 % Δl/l
of Nickel and 20 % of Chromium. Platinum is c) S = R
Δl/l
used for the temperature compensation of
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d) S = ΔR/R
nickel chromium alloys. Δl/l
5. Commonly used elements for wire strain Answer: d
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gauges are __________ Explanation: Gauge factor in a strain gauge
a) nickel and copper is given by the relation
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ΔR/R
b) nickel and gold S= Δl/l
c) gold and brass where, S is the gauge factor
T.
d) silver and aluminium R is the gauge wire resistance
∆R is the change in resistance
Answer: a l is the length of the wire in unstressed
Explanation: Nickel and copper are the most
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condition
commonly used elements for wire strain ∆l is the change in length of the wire.
gauges. They comprise of 45 % of Nickel and
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55 % of Copper. They exhibit a high value of 9. Poisson’s ratio is given by which of the
specific resistance. following relation?
a) µ = –
Δd/d
6. Cement is classified under __________ Δl/l
b) µ = –
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a) 4 types
Δd
Δl/l
b) 2 types c) µ = – d
c) 6 types Δl/l
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Δd/d
d) 8 types d) µ = – Δl
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: Cement can be divided into two Explanation: Poisson’s ratio is given by the
.B
broad categories. They are as follows: relation

i) Solvent setting cement µ=–
Δd/d
Δl/l
ii) Chemically reacting cement.
where, d is the diameter of the cross-section
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7. Proper functioning of a strain gauge of the wire

depends on __________ ∆d is the change in the diameter of cross-
a) strain section of the wire.
b) stress
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10. Proper bonding causes errors in strain

c) bonding
gauges.
d) length of wire
a) True
Answer: c b) False
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Explanation: A strain gauge works properly Answer: b

only if the bonding material used is durable Explanation: Strain gauge is fixed onto the
and keeps the gauge together to the surface of
specimen by means of a bonding element.
the material that is being tested.
C
Cement is a commonly used adhesive. It

8. Gauge factor is given by which of the transfers the strain from the specimen to the
following relation? gauge sensing element.

TOPIC 1.7 EDDY CURRENT Answer: a

Explanation: Alternating current in the coil is
SENSOR opposed by 2 factors. Namely ohmic
resistance R and inductive reactance.
1. What principle defines eddy current
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inspection (ECI)? 5. The density of eddy current ____________
a) Lenz law with distance from the surface in center.
a) Increase linearly
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b) Biot-Savart Law
c) Electromagnetic induction principle b) Increase exponentially
d) Faraday’s law c) Decrease linearly
C
d) Decrease exponentially
Answer: c
T.
Explanation: ECI is based on the principle of Answer: d
electromagnetic induction. In this eddy Explanation: The density of eddy current
currents are induced within metal as a coil decrease exponentially with distance from the
carrying AC is brought in proximity. surface in the center. It is known as the skin
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effect.
2. ECI is generally restricted to a depth below
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___________ 6. ECI is only used for ferromagnetic
a) 1µm materials.
b) 1mm a) True
c) 2mm b) False
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d) 6mm
Answer: b
Answer: d Explanation: ECI doesn’t require magnetic
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Explanation: Eddy current inspection is conduction. It is effective for both

generally restricted to a depth below 6mm. It ferromagnetic and non-magnetic materials.
is because of skin effect.
7. Standard penetration depth varies from
material to material.
.B
3. What is the reason for the limitation of

depth below 6mm in ECI? a) True
a) Surface coating b) False
b) Electron hole pair generation
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c) Skin effect Answer: a

d) Residual stresses Explanation: Standard penetration depth is
different for different materials. It is not even
Answer: c constant for a given material.
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Explanation: Eddy current causes skin effect.

It restricts to a depth below 6mm. Skin effect 8. What is acoustic impedance (in MPa s/m)
is the reason for the limitation of depth below of aluminum?
a) 1.58
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6mm in ECI.
b) 45.72
4. The total resistance of the coil of ECI is c) 16.77
known as __________ d) 41.08
a) Impedance
C
b) Inductance Answer: c
c) Reactance Explanation: Aluminum has acoustic
d) Capacitance

impedance 16.77 MPa s/m. It is greater than types. These are natural and artificial based
oil while less than steel and copper. on their source.
9. Which of the following is the poorest 13. The object under inspection must have
transmitter of sound? parallel surfaces.
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a) Oil a) True
b) Water b) False
c) Air
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d) Copper Answer: a
Explanation: The object under inspection
C
Answer: c must have parallel surfaces. It is a drawback
Explanation: Air is the poorest transmitter of of an ultrasonic method.
T.
sound. It has acoustic impedance 4.04 × 10-4
MPa s/m. 14. Ultrasonic testing is destructive testing?
a) True
10. Which of the following is the best b) False
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transmitter of sound?
a) Oil Answer: b
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b) Aluminum Explanation: Ultrasonic testing is non-
c) Steel destructive testing. It can be performed on
d) Copper finished and assembled materials.
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Answer: c TOPIC 1.8 HALL EFFECT
Explanation: Steel is the best transmitter of
sound among four. It has acoustic impedance
SENSOR
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45.72 MPa s/m.

1. Hall Effect is a/an _____________
11. What is the drawback of ultrasonic a) Electronic
testing? b) Magnetic
.B
a) Low depth c) Galvanic

b) High sensitivity d) Ionizing
c) Shape restriction
d) Higher errors Answer: c
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Explanation: Hall Effect is due to the

Answer: b interaction of the magnetic field and moving
Explanation: Ultrasonic testing can be electric charge which results in the
performed on any shape specimen. It has high development of forces that alter the motion of
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sensitivity. Higher depth can be tested. charge.
12. What is a type of piezoelectric crystal? 2. At equilibrium Lorentz forces will be

____________ of Hall Effect force.
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a) Natural
b) Normal a) Double
c) Angle b) Half
d) Transverse c) Equal
d) No proportionality
C
Answer: a
Explanation: Piezoelectric crystals are of two Answer: c
Explanation: At equilibrium condition,

Lorentz force and Hall Effect force balances Answer: a

each other and they will be equal in Explanation: Lorentz force is the force
magnitude. exerted by a magnetic field in Hall Effect
transducers. On equilibrium condition
3. Which of the following represents the Lorentz force balances Hall Effect force.
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correct expression of Lorentz force?
a) EH/b 7. Which of the following represents correct
expression for Lorentz force?
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b) eEH/b
a) BeV
c) eEH
b) BV
C
d) None of the mentioned c) eV
d) B
Answer: b
T.
Explanation: Magnitude of Lorentz force Answer: a
will be equal to the ratio of the product of Explanation: Lorentz force is the product of
electronic charge and Hall potential with magnetic flux density, electronic charge and
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width in meters. Velocity of charge.
4. Hall potential is inversely proportional to
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8. Which of the following represents the
magnetic flux density. output of Hall Effect transducer?
a) True a) Hall potential
b) False b) Emf
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c) Applied voltage
Answer: b
d) Lorentz Voltage
Explanation: Hall potential is always directly
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proportional to magnetic flux density. Answer: a

Expression is given as EH=BbV; where b is Explanation: Output of Hall Effect
the width and V represents velocity. transducer is called Hall potential and is
denoted by EH.
5. Hall Effect is clearly visible in
.B
_______________ 9. Hall Effect transducers attain equilibrium

a) Pure conductors instantaneously.
b) Semiconductors a) True
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c) Super conductors b) False

d) Metals
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: A time delay of 10-14 is
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Explanation: Hall coefficient depends on the required for a Hall Effect transducer to attain
number of free charge carriers and it is clearly equilibrium.
visible in semiconductors.
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10. Hall Effect transducer can be used to

6. Force exerted by magnetic field in Hall measure ___________
Effect transducers is ____________ a) Magnetic field
a) Lorentz force b) Angular displacement
b) Hall Effect force c) Linear displacement
C
c) Magnetic force d) All of the mentioned

d) Electric force

Answer: d c) Temperature sensor

Explanation: Hall Effect transducers can be d) Pressure sensor
used to measure linear and angular
displacement and magnetic field etc. Answer: a
Explanation: Monnit wireless temperature
M
sensor use a thermistor to accurately measure
TOPIC 1.9 TEMPERATURE temperature. These sensors are perfect for
SENSORS monitoring ambient temperatures around the
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sensors physical location.
1. What is ESP8266?
C
a) WIFI module 5. Which of the following is the Wireless
b) Sensor battery-free sensor?
T.
c) Board a) LM35
d) USB cable b) RFM3200
c) ESP8266
Answer: a d) DHT11
O
Explanation: The ESP8266 WIFI module is
used to make an IOT device that plots Answer: b
SP
temperature data on the web. Explanation: RFM3200 is a wireless battery-
free temperature sensor. This flexible sensor
2. which sensor is LM35? is designed to monitor the environment and
a) Pressure sensor material temperature in a wide range of
G
b) Humidity sensor settings.
c) Temperature sensor
d) Touch sensor 6. Which sensor is used for monitor electric
LO
distribution and switching equipment

Answer: c temperature?
Explanation: LM35 is a temperature sensor a) LM35
which has 3 legs(Vcc, Vout, GND). b) ESP8266
.B
c) DHT11
3. How many pins does temperature sensor d) RFM3200
have?
a) 5 legs Answer: d
17
b) 2 legs Explanation: It is a battery-free sensor. This

c) 4 legs lug mounted sensor is designed to monitor
d) 3 legs electric distribution and switching equipment
temperatures. Typical applications include
-R
Answer: d building power distributions, data centers, etc.

Explanation: The temperature sensor LM35
have 3 legs, the first leg is Vcc, you can 7. Electric motor protection has which
sensor?
SE
connect this to the 3.3V. The middle leg is

Vout, where the temperature is read from. a) Pressure sensor
b) Touch sensor
4. Monnit temperature sensor is used for c) Temperature sensor
what? d) Humidity sensor
C
a) Accurate results
b) To measure the temperature at high degree Answer: c
Explanation: Electric motor protection has a

temperature sensor in it to verify the Answer: a

temperature which is exceeding its limits or Explanation: A thermistor is a thermally
not. sensitive resistor that exhibits a large,
predictable, and precise change in resistance
8. What is DS18B20? correlated to variations in temperature.
M
a) Pressure sensor
b) Touch sensor 12. ________ measures temperature by
c) Humidity sensor correlating the resistance of the RTD with
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d) Temperature sensor temperature.
a) Thermistor
C
Answer: d b) Resistance Thermometer
Explanation: It measures temperature and c) Thermo couple
T.
sends an email if the temperature goes under d) Semiconductor based sensor
a threshold.
Answer: b
9. What is STSC1? Explanation: An RTD, measures temperature
O
a) Pressure sensor by correlating the resistance of the RTD with
b) Temperature sensor temperature. An RTD consists of a film or,
SP
c) Touch sensor for greater accuracy, a wire wrapped around a
d) Humidity sensor ceramic or glass core.
Answer: b 13. ________ consists of two different metals

Explanation: The STSC1 focuses on the
G
connected at two points.
application that requires very precise a) Thermistor
temperature measurement. It is suitable for b) Resistance Thermometer
LO
consumer electronics, Internet of Things and c) Thermocouple

smart home applications, as well as for data d) Semiconductor based sensor
loggers and thermostats.
Answer: c
10. Line of sight of wireless sensor tag is
.B
Explanation: Thermocouple consists of two

________ different metals connected at two points. The
a) 750ft varying voltage between these two points
b) 700ft reflects proportional changes in temperature.
17
c) 500ft
d) 550ft 14. Which type of temperature sensor is
placed in Integrated Circuits?
Answer: b a) Thermistor
-R
Explanation: Line of sight range up to 700 ft, b) Resistance Thermometer

requires Ethernet hub. Temperature logging c) Thermocouple
and notification with 0.02oC resolution is d) Semiconductor based sensor
SE
temperature sensor.
Answer: d
11. A ________ is thermally sensitive resistor Explanation: A semiconductor based
that exhibits a large change in resistance. temperature sensor is placed on Integrated
a) Thermistor Circuits. They are linear but have the lowest
C
b) Resistance Thermometer accuracy.

c) Thermo couple
d) Semiconductor based sensor

15. Which sensor is linear and low accuracy? a) True

a) Thermistor b) False
b) Resistance Thermometer
c) Thermocouple Answer: b
d) Semiconductor based sensor Explanation: Optical fiber sensors are
M
electrically passive and consequently immune
Answer: d to electromagnetic disturbances. They are
Explanation: A semiconductor based geometrically flexible and corrosion resistant.
O
temperature sensor is placed on Integrated They can be miniaturized and are most
Circuits. They are linear but have the lowest suitable for telemetry applications.
C
accuracy.
4. In which of the following optic fiber sensor
T.
the fiber is simply used to carry light to and
TOPIC 1.10 LIGHT SENSORS from an external optical device where the
sensing takes place?
1. Optical fiber sensors are electrically a) extrinsic fiber optic sensor
O
____________ b) energized fiber optic sensor
a) active c) all fibers are used to simply carry light to
SP
b) passive and from the external optical devices
c) active as well as passive d) intrinsic fiber optic sensor
d) cannot be determined
Answer: a
G
Answer: b Explanation: In an extrinsic fiber optic
Explanation: Optical fiber sensors are sensor fiber is simply used to carry light to
electrically passive and consequently immune and from an external optical device where the
LO
to electromagnetic disturbances. They are sensing takes place. In an intrinsic fiber optic
geometrically flexible and corrosion resistant. sensor, one or more of the physical properties
They can be miniaturized and are most of the fiber undergo a change.
suitable for telemetry applications.
.B
5. On the bases of application of optic fiber

2. Optical fibers are not immune to ________ sensor, which of the following is not
a) electronic disturbances considered to be the classification of fiber
b) magnetic disturbances optic sensor?
17
c) ambient light interference a) biomedical/photometric sensors

d) electromagnetic disturbances b) physical sensors
c) thermal sensors
Answer: c d) chemical sensors
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Explanation: Optical fibre sensors are non-

electrical and hence are free from electrical Answer: c
interference usually associated with Explanation: The variations in the returning
electronically based sensors. Ambient light
SE
light are sensed using a photodetector. Such

can interfere. Consequently, the sensor has to sensors monitor variations either in the
be applied in a dark environment or must be amplitude or frequency of the reflected light.
optically isolated. Two of the most important physical
parameters that can be advantageously
C
3. Optical fiber sensors are not immune to measured using fibre optics are temperature
electromagnetic disturbances. and pressure.

6. The type of sensor that detects the analyte is probed and detected through the fibre optic.
species directly through their characteristic The optical property measured can be
spectral properties is called _____________ absorbance, reflectance or luminescence.
a) chemical sensor
b) thermal sensor
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c) light sensor
d) spectroscopic Sensors
UNIT II
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Answer: d
Explanation: Spectroscopic Sensors is the MICROPROCESSOR AND
C
one that detects the analyte species directly MICROCONTROLLER
through their characteristic spectral
T.
properties. In these sensors, the optical fibre
functions only as a light guide, conveying TOPIC 2.1 INTRODUCTION -
light from the source to the sampling area and ARCHITECTURE OF 8085 - PIN
from the sample to the detector. Here, the CONFIGURATION
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light interacts with the species being sensed.
1. The register that may be used as an
SP
7. How many coils are required to make
LVDT? operand register is
a) 4 a) Accumulator
b) 6 b) B register
c) Data register
G
c) 3
d) 2 d) Accumulator and B register
LO
Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: Total 3 coils are required in Explanation: In some instructions, the
LVDT. One centered coil which is the Accumulator and B register are used to store
energizing or primary coil connected to the the operands.
.B
sine wave oscillator. The other two coils are

2. The register that can be used as a scratch
the secondary coils so connected that their
pad is
outputs are equal in magnitude but opposite
a) Accumulator
in phase.
17
b) B register
8. A chemical transduction system is c) Data register
interfaced to the optical fibre at its end. This d) Accumulator and B register
type of sensor is called?
-R
a) chemical sensor Answer: b

Explanation: B register is used to store one
b) thermal sensor
of the operands for multiply and divide
c) photoelectric sensor
instructions. In other instructions, it may just
SE
d) light sensor
be used as a scratch pad.
Answer: a
Explanation: In the chemical sensors, a 3. The registers that contain the status
chemical transduction system is interfaced to information is
C
the optical fibre at its end. In operation, a) control registers

b) instruction registers
interaction with analyte leads to a change in
c) program status word
optical properties of the reagent phase, which
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: c buffers. The transmit buffer is a parallel-in

Explanation: The set of flags of program serial-out register and receive buffer is a
status word contains the status information parallel-in serial-out register.
and is considered as one of the special
function registers. 8. The register that provides control and
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status information about counters is
4. Which of the processor’s stack does not a) IP
contain the top-down data structure? b) TMOD
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a) 8086 c) TSCON
b) 80286 d) PCON
C
c) 8051
d) 80386 Answer: b
T.
Explanation: The registers, TMOD and
Answer: c TCON contain control and status information
Explanation: The 8051 stack is not a top- about timers/counters.
down data structure, like other Intel
O
processors. 9. The register that provides control and
status information about serial port is
SP
5. The architecture of 8051 consists of a) IP
a) 4 latches b) IE
b) 2 timer registers c) TSCON
c) 4 on-chip I/O ports d) PCON and SCON
G
Answer: d
Answer: d Explanation: The registers, PCON and
LO
Explanation: The architecture of 8051 SCON contain control and status information
consists of 4 latches and driver pairs are about serial port.
allotted to each of the four on-chip I/O ports.
It contains two 16-bit timer registers. 10. The device that generates the basic timing
clock signal for the operation of the circuit
.B
6. The transmit buffer of serial data buffer is a using crystal oscillator is

a) serial-in parallel-out register a) timing unit
b) parallel-in serial-out register b) timing and control unit
17
c) serial-in serial-out register c) oscillator

d) parallel-in parallel-out register d) clock generator
Answer: b Answer: c
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Explanation: The transmit buffer of serial Explanation: The oscillator circuit generates
data buffer is a parallel-in serial-out register. the basic timing clock signal for the operation
of the circuit using crystal oscillator.
7. The receive buffer of serial data buffer is a
SE
a) serial-in parallel-out register 11. The registers that are not accessible by the
b) parallel-in serial-out register user are
c) serial-in serial-out register a) Accumulator and B register
d) parallel-in parallel-out register b) IP and IE
C
c) Instruction registers
Answer: a d) TMP1 and TMP2
Explanation: The serial data register has two

Answer: d 4. In which of the following addressing mode,

Explanation: The arithmetic operations are the offset is obtained by adding displacement,
performed over the operands held by the with the contents of SI?
temporary registers, TMP1 and TMP2. Users a) direct mode
cannot access these temporary registers. b) register mode
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c) based mode
d) indexed mode
TOPIC 2.2 ADDRESSING
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MODES - SET, TIMING Answer: d
DIAGRAM OF 8085 Explanation: In an indexed mode, the offset
C
is obtained by adding displacement, with
1. In which of these modes, the immediate contents of an index register, either SI or DI.
T.
operand is included in the instruction itself?
5. The address of a location of the operand is
a) register operand mode
calculated by adding the contents of any of
b) immediate operand mode
the base registers, with the contents of any of
O
c) register and immediate operand mode
index registers in
d) none of the mentioned
a) based indexed mode with displacement
SP
Answer: b b) based indexed mode
Explanation: In immediate operand mode, c) based mode
the immediate operand is included in the d) indexed mode
instruction itself.
G
Answer: b
2. In register address mode, the operand is Explanation: In a based indexed mode, the
operand is stored at a location, whose address
LO
stored in
a) 8-bit general purpose register is calculated by adding the contents of any of
b) 16-bit general purpose register the base registers, with the contents of any of
c) si or di the index registers.
.B
6. Which of the following is not a data type of

Answer: d 80286?
Explanation: In register address mode, the a) Ordinal or unsigned
b) ASCII
17
operand is stored either in one of the 8-bit or

16-bit general purpose registers or in SI, DI, c) Packed BCD
BX or BP. d) None of the mentioned
3. In which of the following addressing mode, Answer: d

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the offset is obtained by adding displacement Explanation: The 80286 supports seven data
and contents of one of the base registers? types. They are
a) direct mode 1. integer
SE
b) register mode 2. Ordinal (unsigned)

c) based mode 3. pointer
d) indexed mode 4. string
5. ASCII
6. BCD
C
Answer: c
Explanation: In a based mode, the offset is 7. Packed BCD.
obtained by adding displacement and contents
of one of the base registers, either BX or BP.

7. The representation of 8-bit or 16-bit signed all the contents of the registers DI, SI, BP, SP,
binary operands using 2’s complement is a BX, DX, CX and AX from the stack in this
data type of sequence, that is exactly opposite to that of
a) Ordinal pushing.
b) ASCII
M
c) Packed BCD 11. The instruction that multiplies the content
d) integer of AL with a signed immediate operand is
a) MUL
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Answer: d b) SMUL
Explanation: In integer data type, 8-bit or 16- c) IMUL
C
bit signed binary operands are represented d) None of the mentioned
using 2’s complement.
T.
Answer: c
8. The instruction that pushes the general Explanation: The IMUL instruction
purpose registers, pointer and index registers multiplies the content of AL with a signed
on to the stack is immediate operand, and the signed 16-bit
O
a) POPF result is stored in AX.
b) PUSH Imd
SP
c) PUSH*A 12. The instruction that represents the ‘rotate
d) PUSHF source, count’ is
a) RCL
Answer: c b) RCR
G
Explanation: The PUSH*A instruction, c) ROR
pushes the general purpose registers, AX, d) All of the mentioned
CX, DX and BX, pointer and index registers,
LO
SP, BP, SI, DI, on to the stack. Answer: d

Explanation: The rotate source, count is a
9. While executing the PUSH*A instruction, group of four instructions containing RCL,
the stack pointer is decremented by RCR, ROL, ROR.
.B
a) 1 bit
b) 2 bits
c) 4 bits
TOPIC 2.3 CONCEPTS OF 8051
d) 16 bits MICROCONTROLLER - BLOCK
17
DIAGRAM,.
Answer: b
Explanation: The stack pointer is 1. 8051 microcontrollers are manufactured by
decremented by 16 (eight 2-byte registers). which of the following companies?
-R
a) Atmel
10. The statement that is true for the
b) Philips
instruction POP*A is
c) Intel
a) flags are unaffected
SE
d) All of the mentioned

b) no operands are required
c) exceptions generated are same as that of Answer: d
PUSH*A Explanation: 8051 microcontrollers are
C
manufactured by Intel, Atmel,

Philips/Signetics, Infineon, Dallas
Answer: d
Semi/Maxim.
Explanation: The POP*A instruction, pops

2. AT89C2051 has RAM of: instruction

a) 128 bytes MOV A,#9C
b) 256 bytes ADD A,#64H
c) 64 bytes a) CY=0,AC=0,P=0
d) 512 bytes b) CY=1,AC=1,P=0
M
c) CY=0,AC=1,P=0
Answer: a d) CY=1,AC=1,P=1
Explanation: It has 128 bytes of RAM in it.
O
Answer: b
3. 8051 series has how many 16 bit registers? Explanation: On adding 9C and 64, a carry is
C
a) 2 generated from D3 and from the D7 bit so CY
b) 3 and AC are set to 1. In the result, the number
T.
c) 1 of 1’s present are even so parity flag is set to
d) 0 zero.
Answer: a 7. How are the bits of the register PSW
O
Explanation: It has two 16 bit registers affected if we select Bank2 of 8051?
DPTR and PC. a) PSW.5=0 and PSW.4=1
SP
b) PSW.2=0 and PSW.3=1
4. When 8051 wakes up then 0x00 is loaded c) PSW.3=1 and PSW.4=1
to which register? d) PSW.3=0 and PSW.4=1
a) PSW
b) SP
G
Answer: d
c) PC Explanation: Bits of PSW register are CY,
d) None of the mentioned AC, F0, RS1, RS0, OV, -, P so for selecting
LO
bank2 RS1=1 and RS0=0 which are fourth

Answer: c and third bit of the register respectively.
Explanation: When 8051 wakes up, Program
Counter (PC) loaded with 0000H. Because of 8. If we push data onto the stack then the
this in 8051 first opcode is stored in ROM
.B
stack pointer
address at 0000H. a) increases with every push
b) decreases with every push
5. When the microcontroller executes some c) increases & decreases with every push
17
arithmetic operations, then the flag bits of d) none of the mentioned

which register are affected?
a) PSW Answer: a
b) SP Explanation: If we push elements onto the
-R
c) DPTR stack then the stack pointer increases with

d) PC every push of element.
Answer: a 9. On power up, the 8051 uses which RAM

SE
Explanation: It stands for program status locations for register R0- R7

word. It consists of carry, auxiliary carry, a) 00-2F
overflow, parity, register bank select bits etc b) 00-07
which are affected during such operations. c) 00-7F
C
d) 00-0F
6. How are the status of the carry, auxiliary
carry and parity flag affected if the write

Answer: b c) either input or output ports

Explanation: On power up register bank 0 is d) both input and output ports
selected which has memory address from
00H-07H. Answer: c
Explanation: Port C can function
M
10. How many bytes of bit addressable independently either as input or as output
memory is present in 8051 based ports.
microcontrollers?
O
a) 8 bytes 3. All the functions of the ports of 8255 are
b) 32 bytes achieved by programming the bits of an
C
c) 16 bytes internal register called
d) 128 bytes a) data bus control
T.
b) read logic control
Answer: c c) control word register
Explanation: 8051 microcontrollers have 16 d) none of the mentioned
bytes of bit addressable memory.
O
Answer: c
Explanation: By programming the bits of
SP
control word register, the operations of the
ports are specified.
UNIT III
4. The data bus buffer is controlled by
PROGRAMMABLE a) control word register
G
PERIPHERAL b) read/write control logic
c) data bus
INTERFACE
LO
d) none of the mentioned
TOPIC 3.1 INTRODUCTION - Answer: b

Explanation: The data bus buffer is
ARCHITECTURE OF 8255 controlled by read/write control logic.
.B
1. Programmable peripheral input-output port 5. The input provided by the microprocessor

is another name for to the read/write control logic is
17
a) serial input-output port a) RESET

b) parallel input-output port b) A1
c) serial input port c) WR(ACTIVE LOW)
d) parallel output port d) All of the mentioned
-R
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: The parallel input-output port Explanation: RD(ACTIVE LOW),
chip 8255 is also known as programmable WR(ACTIVE LOW), A1, A0, RESET are the
SE
peripheral input-output port. inputs provided by the microprocessor to the

read/write control logic of 8255.
2. Port C of 8255 can function independently
as 6. The device that receives or transmits data
C
a) input port upon the execution of input or output

b) output port instructions by the microprocessor is
a) control word register

b) read/write control logic 10. The pin that clears the control word
c) 3-state bidirectional buffer register of 8255 when enabled is
d) none of the mentioned a) CLEAR
b) SET
Answer: c c) RESET
M
Explanation: 3-state bidirectional buffer is d) CLK
used to receives or transmits data upon the
execution of input or output instructions by Answer: c
O
the microprocessor. Explanation: If reset pin is enabled then the
control word register is cleared.
C
7. The port that is used for the generation of
handshake lines in mode 1 or mode 2 is
TOPIC 3.2 KEYBOARD
T.
a) port A
b) port B INTERFACING
c) port C Lower
d) port C Upper 1. Which of the following steps detects the
O
key in a 4*4 keyboard matrix about the key
Answer: d that is being pressed?
SP
Explanation: Port C upper is used for the a) masking of bits
generation of handshake lines in mode 1 or b) ensuring that initially, all keys are open
mode 2. c) checking that whether the key is actually
pressed or not
8. If A1=0, A0=1 then the input read cycle is
G
performed from
a) port A to data bus Answer: d
LO
b) port B to data bus Explanation: For detecting that whether the

c) port C to data bus key is actually pressed or not, firstly this must
d) CWR to data bus be ensured that initially all the keys are
closed. Then we need to mask the bits
Answer: b
.B
individually to detect that which key is

Explanation: If A1=0, A0=1 then the input pressed. Then we need to check that is the
read cycle is performed from port B to data key actually pressed or not, by checking that
bus.
17
whether the key pressed for a time more than

20 micro seconds.
9. The function, ‘data bus tristated’ is
performed when 2. What is described by this command: CJNE
a) CS(active low) = 1 A,#00001111b, ROW1
-R
b) CS(active low) = 0 a) it masks the bit and then jumps to the label
c) CS(active low) = 0, RD(active low) = 1, where ROW1 is written
WR(active low) = 1 b) it makes the value of the accumulator 0FH
d) CS(active low) = 1 OR CS(active low) = 0,
SE
and then jumps at the address where ROW1

RD(active low) = 1, WR(active low) = 1 label is written
c) it compares the value of the accumulator
Answer: d
with 0FH and jumps to the location where
Explanation: The data bus is tristated when
C
ROW1 label is there if the value becomes

chip select pin=1 or chip select pin=0 and
equal
read and write signals are high i.e 1.
d) it compares the value of the accumulator

with 0FH and jumps to the location where 6. To identify that which key is being pressed,
ROW1 label is there if the value is not equal we need to:
a) ground all the pins of the port at a time
Answer: d b) ground pins of the port one at a time
Explanation: This particular command CJNE c) connect all the pins of the port to the main
M
A,#00001111b, ROW1 compares the value of supply at a time
the accumulator with OFH and jumps to d) none of the mentioned
ROW1 address if the value is not equal.
O
Answer: b
3. To detect that in which column, the key is Explanation: To detect that which key is
C
placed? being pressed, we need to ground the pins one
a) we can mask the bits and then check it by one.
T.
b) we can rotate the bits and then check that
particular bit which is set or reset(according 7. Key press detection and Key identification
to the particular condition) are:
c) none of the mentioned a) the same processes
O
d) all of the mentioned b) two different works are done in Keyboard
Interfacing
SP
Answer: d c) none of the mentioned
Explanation: We can mask or we can even d) any of the mentioned
rotate the bits to check that particularly in
which column is the key placed. Answer: b
G
Explanation: They are two different works
4. In reading the columns of a matrix, if no that are involved in Keyboard Interfacing.
key is pressed we should get all in binary One is used for checking that which key is
LO
notation being actually pressed and the other is used to

a) 0 check that is the key actually pressed or not.
b) 1
c) F
TOPIC 3.3 LED DISPLAY
.B
d) 7
Answer: b 1. How many rows and columns are present

Explanation: If no key is pressed, then all the in a 16*2 alphanumeric LCD?
17
keys show 1 as they are all connected to a) rows=2, columns=32

power supply. b) rows=16, columns=2
c) rows=16, columns=16
5. If we need to operate a key of a keyboard d) rows=2, columns=16
-R
in an interrupt mode, then it will generate

what kind of interrupt? Answer: d
a) ES Explanation: 16*2 alphanumeric LCD has 2
b) EX0/EX1 rows and 16 columns.
SE
c) T0/T1
d) RESET 2. How many data lines are there in a 16*2
alphanumeric LCD?
Answer: b a) 16
C
Explanation: If a key is to operate in an b) 8

interrupt mode then it will generate an c) 1
external hardware interrupt. d) 0

Answer: b 7. Which of the following step/s is/are correct

Explanation: There are eight data lines from for sending data to an LCD?
pin no 7 to pin no 14 in an LCD. a) set the R/W bit
b) set the E bit
3. Which pin of the LCD is used for adjusting c) set the RS bit
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its contrast? d) all of the mentioned
a) pin no 1
b) pin no 2 Answer: d
O
c) pin no 3 Explanation: To send data to an LCD, RS pin
d) pin no 4 should be set so that LCD will come to know
C
that it will receive data which has to display
Answer: c on the screen. R/W pin should be reset as data
T.
Explanation: Pin no 3 is used for controlling has to be displayed (i.e. write to the LCD).
the contrast of the LCD. High to low pulse must be applied to the E
pin when data is supplied to data pins of the
4. For writing commands on an LCD, RS bit LCD.
O
is
a) set 8. Which of the following step/s is/are correct
SP
b) reset to perform reading operation from an LCD?
c) set & reset a) low to high pulse at E pin
d) none of the mentioned b) R/W pin is set high
c) low to high pulse at E pin & R/W pin is set
Answer: b
G
high
Explanation: For writing commands on an d) none of the mentioned
LCD, RS pin is reset.
LO
Answer: c
5. Which command of an LCD is used to shift Explanation: For reading operations, R/W
the entire display to the right? pin should be made high and added to it, a
a) 0x1C low to high pulse is also generated at the E
b) 0x18
.B
pin.
c) 0x05
d) 0x07 9. Which instruction is used to select the first
row first column of an LCD?
17
Answer: a a) 0x08
Explanation: 0x1C is used to shift the entire b) 0x0c
display to the right. c) 0x80
d) 0xc0
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6. Which command is used to select the 2

lines and 5*7 matrix of an LCD? Answer: c
a) 0x01 Explanation: 0x80 is used to select the first
b) 0x06
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row first column of an LCD.

c) 0x0e
d) 0x38 10. The RS pin is _________ for an LCD.
a) input
Answer: d b) output
C
Explanation: 0x38 is used to select the 2 c) input & output

lines and 5*7 matrix of an LCD. d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a form to another is called Transducer.

Explanation: The RS pin is an input pin for Examples: Sensor, Speaker, Microphone, etc.
an LCD.
4. What is signal conditioning?
a) to analyse any signal
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TOPIC 3.4 ADC AND DAC b) conversion or modification is referred to as
INTERFACE, TEMPERATURE conditioning
CONTROL c) conversion from analog to digital is signal
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conditioning
1. A thermistor is a __________ d) conversion from digital to analog is signal
C
a) sensor conditioning
b) adc
T.
Answer: b
c) transducer
Explanation: Signal Conditioning is referred
d) micro controller
to as the conversion of a signal from one form
to other, now this may be from analog to
O
Answer: c
Explanation: A thermistor is a device which digital conditioning or digital to analog
is used to convert the temperature into conditioning.
SP
electrical signals, so it acts as a transducer.
5. What steps have to be followed for
2. What is the difference between LM 34 and interfacing a sensor to a microcontroller
LM 35 sensors? 8051?
G
a) one is a sensor and the other is a transducer a) make the appropriate connections with the
b) one’s output voltage corresponds to the controller, ADC conversion, analyse the
results
LO
Fahrenheit temperature and the other

corresponds to the Celsius temperature b) interface sensor with ADC and ADC with
c) one is of low precision and the other is of 8051
higher precision c) interface sensor with the MAX232, send
d) one requires external calibration and the now to microcontroller, analyse the results
.B
other doesn’t require it d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: For interfacing a sensor with an
17
Explanation: LM 34’s output voltage

corresponds to the Fahrenheit temperature 8051 microcontroller, we need ADC in
and LM 35 corresponds to the Celsius between because output of sensor is analog
temperature. and microcontroller works on digital signals
only. So whatever signal generated by the
-R
3. An electronic device which converts sensor is converted into its digital equivalent
physical quantity or energy from one form to using ADC and equivalent digital signal is
another is called ______ given to the microcontroller for processing.
SE
a) Sensor
b) Transistor 6. LM35 has how many pins?
c) Transducer a) 2
d) Thyristor b) 1
c) 3
C
Answer: c d) 4
Explanation: An electronic device that
converts physical quantity or energy from one

Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: LM35 has 3 pins. Explanation: Pole pitch is defined as the
1.Power( +5 Volts ) number of armature slots to the pole pitch and
2.Output analog voltage here this has been converted into degrees.
3.Ground( 0 Volts )
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3. A stepper motor having a resolution of 300
7. Why Vref is set of ADC0848 to 2.56 V if steps/rev and running at 2400 rpm has a pulse
analog input is connected to the LM35? rate of- pps.
O
a) to set the step size of the sampled input a) 4000
b) to set the ground for the chip b) 8000
C
c) to provide supply to the chip c) 6000
d) all of the mentioned d) 10,000
T.
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: Vref is used to set the step size Explanation: Pulse per second is
of the ADC conversion, if it is selected to mathematically given as PPS = (Rpm/60)*
O
2.56 then the step size will be selected to (number of steps per minute).
10mV, so for every step increase of the
SP
analog voltage an increase of 10 mV will be 4. If a hybrid stepper motor has a rotor pitch
there. of 36º and a step angle of 9º, the number of
its phases must be
a) 4
TOPIC 3.5 STEPPER MOTOR
G
b) 2
CONTROL c) 3
d) 6
LO
1. A variable reluctance stepper motor is

constructed of ______________ material with Answer: a
salient poles. Explanation: Step angle is defined as =(Ns-
a) Paramagnetic Nr)/(Ns+Nr)*360.
.B
b) Ferromagnetic
c) Diamagnetic 5. The rotor of a stepper motor has no
d) Non-magnetic a) Windings
17
b) Commutator
Answer: b c) Brushes
Explanation: A variable reluctance stepper d) All of the mentioned
motor is the motor that has motion in steps
with respect to increase in time and Answer: d
-R
constructed of ferromagnetic material with Explanation: The rotor is the rotatory part of
salient poles. the motor of a stepper motor and has no
windings, commutator and brushes.
SE
2. In a three-stack 12/8-pole VR motor, the

rotor pole pitch is 6. A stepping motor is a ____________
a) 15º device.
b) 30º a) Mechanical
c) 45º b) Electrical
C
d) 60º c) Analogue
d) Incremental

Answer: d and 4 rotor poles?

Explanation: A stepping motor is a motor in a) 60º
which the motion in the form of steps and is a b) 45º
incremental device i which as the time c) 30º
increases the steps are increased. d) 15º
M
7. The rotational speed of a given stepper Answer: b
motor is determined solely by the Explanation: Step angle is defined as =(Ns-
O
a) Shaft load Nr)/(Ns+Nr)*360 where Ns is the number of
b) Step pulse frequency stator poles and Nr is the number of rotor
C
c) Polarity of stator current poles.
d) Magnitude of stator current.
T.
Answer: b TOPIC 3.6 TRAFFIC CONTROL
Explanation: The stator part of a motor is the INTERFACE.
stationary part of the motor and rotational
O
speed of a given stepper motor is given by the 1. What is the first phase of traffic regulation?
step pulse frequency. a) Driver controls
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b) Vehicle controls
8. Which of the following phase switching c) Traffic flow regulations
sequence represents half-step operation of a d) General controls
VR stepper motor ?
G
a) A, B, C,A…….. Answer: a
b) A, C, B,A……. Explanation: The first phase of traffic
c) AB, BC, CA, AB…….. regulation is driver controls followed by
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d) A, AB, B, BC…….. vehicle control, traffic flow regulation and

general control.
Answer: d
Explanation: In the half step operation of a 2. The various regulations imposed through
.B
Variable reluctance motor physical step the traffic control devices do not include
resolution is multiplied by 2 and control __________
signals appear to be digital rather than analog. a) Clear visibility
b) Easy recognition
17
9. A stepper motor may be considered as a c) Sufficient time for driver

____________ converter. d) Traffic population
a) Dc to dc
b) Ac to ac Answer: d
-R
c) Dc to ac Explanation: The various regulations

d) Digital-to-analogue imposed through the traffic control devices do
not include as they are not related to control
Answer: d
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of traffic.
Explanation: A stepper motor is a motor in
which the motion is in steps and it is an 3. The minimum age for attaining a license
increemental device and may be considered for a geared vehicle is?
as a digital to analog converter. a) 16 years
C
b) 18 years
10. What is the step angle of a permanent- c) 20 years
magnet stepper motor having 8 stator poles d) 21 years

Answer: b c) More stream lined movement of vehicles

Explanation: Then minimum age for driving d) More chances of overtaking
a non-geared vehicle is 16 years, for geared
vehicle it is 18 years and for transport vehicle Answer: d
it is 21 years. Explanation: In one way traffic there are
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more chances of overtaking as there is traffic
4. The motor vehicle act was revised in only in one direction, there is a chance of
__________ overtaking.
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a) 1939
b) 1988 8. The total conflict points at a junction on
C
c) 1989 both two way roads are?
d) 1987 a) One
T.
b) Four
Answer: b c) five
Explanation: The motor vehicle act was d) six
passed in 1939, and it was revised in 1988.
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Answer: d
5. Traffic symbols are classified into how Explanation: The total number of conflict
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many categories? points is the sum of major and minor conflict
a) One points, major conflict points are 4 and minor
b) Two conflict points are 2, so total conflict points
c) Three are six.
G
d) Four
9. The maximum number of conflict points is
Answer: c formed in __________
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Explanation: The traffic symbols are a) One way regulation on one road
classified into three types they are b) One way regulation on two roads
informatory, cautionary and mandatory. c) Two way regulation on one road
d) Two way regulation on both roads
6. The symbol when violated which may lead
.B
to offense is? Answer: d

a) Cautionary Explanation: The maximum number of
b) Mandatory conflict points is formed in two ways
17
c) Informatary regulation on both roads is 24.

d) Both informatory and cautionary
10. The specifications for road signs are
Answer: b specified by __________
-R
Explanation: Mandatory symbol is a symbol a) IRC 6

which has to be followed at all times, if b) IRC 21
violated except for special cases, they may c) IRC 67
attract a penalty. d) IRC 97
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7. Which of the following is a disadvantage in Answer: c

one way traffic? Explanation: The specifications for road
a) Increase in average travel speed signs are specified by IRC 67-2010.
C
b) More effective coordination of signal

system 11. The diameter of the small size
information board is?

a) 600mm a) Red
b) 900mm b) Amber
c) 1200mm c) Green
d) 1500mm d) White
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Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: The diameter of the small size Explanation: The clearance time is indicated
information board is 600mm, for medium size by amber, in some places yellow and blue
O
is 900mm and the large size diameter is color also used.
1200mm.
C
12. Which type of board should be installed if
T.
the speed limit is 100kmph?
a) Small UNIT IV
b) Medium
c) Large
PROGRAMMABLE
O
d) Not required LOGIC CONTROLLER
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Answer: c
Explanation: Large sizes of boards are TOPIC 4.1 INTRODUCTION -
required when speed limit exceeds 100kmph, BASIC STRUCTURE - INPUT
for lesser speeds small and medium sized AND OUTPUT PROCESSING -
G
boards can be used.
PROGRAMMING -
13. Give way sign is of __________ MNEMONICS - TIMERS
LO
a) Triangular shape
b) Circular shape 1. __________ converts the programs written
c) Octagonal shape in assembly language into machine
d) Hexagonal shape instructions.
.B
a) Machine compiler
Answer: a b) Interpreter
Explanation: Give way sign is of triangular c) Assembler
shape and it is coloured with a red border and
17
d) Converter
white background.
Answer: c
14. STOP sign is having __________ Explanation: An assembler is a software
a) Octagonal shape used to convert the programs into machine
-R
b) Circular shape instructions.

c) Triangular shape
d) Any shape 2. The instructions like MOV or ADD are
SE
called as ______
Answer: a a) OP-Code
Explanation: STOP symbol is of octagonal b) Operators
shape and covered in red background and red c) Commands
border. d) None of the mentioned
C
15. The clearance time is indicated by Answer: a

__________ Explanation: This OP – codes tell the system

what operation to perform on the operands. c) To indicate the purpose of the code
d) To list the locations of all the registers used
3. The alternate way of writing the
instruction, ADD #5,R1 is ______ Answer: a
a) ADD [5],[R1]; Explanation: This does the function similar
M
b) ADDI 5,R1; to the main statement.
c) ADDIME 5,[R1];
d) There is no other way 7. The directive used to perform initialization
O
before the execution of the code is ______
Answer: b a) Reserve
C
Explanation: The ADDI instruction, means b) Store
the addition is in immediate addressing mode. c) Dataword
T.
d) EQU
4. Instructions which won’t appear in the
object program are called as _____ Answer: c
a) Redundant instructions Explanation: None.
O
b) Exceptions
c) Comments 8. _____ directive is used to specify and
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d) Assembler Directives assign the memory required for the block of
code.
Answer: d a) Allocate
Explanation: The directives help the program b) Assign
in getting compiled and hence won’t be there c) Set
G
in the object code. d) Reserve
LO
5. The assembler directive EQU, when used Answer: d

in the instruction: Sum EQU 200 does Explanation: This instruction is used to
________ allocate a block of memory and to store the
a) Finds the first occurrence of Sum and object code of the program there.
assigns value 200 to it
.B
b) Replaces every occurrence of Sum with 9. _____ directive specifies the end of
200 execution of a program.
c) Re-assigns the address of Sum by adding a) End
17
200 to its original address b) Return

d) Assigns 200 bytes of memory starting the c) Stop
location of Sum d) Terminate
-R
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: This basically is used to replace Explanation: This instruction directive is
the variable with a constant value. used to terminate the program execution.
SE
6. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is 10. The last statement of the source program
__________ should be _______
a) To indicate the starting position in memory, a) Stop
where the program block is to be stored b) Return
C
b) To indicate the starting of the computation c) OP

code d) End

Answer: d c) Extractor
Explanation: This enables the processor to d) Linker
load some other process.
Answer: a
11. When dealing with the branching code the Explanation: The program is used to load the
M
assembler ___________ program into memory.
a) Replaces the target with its address
b) Does not replace until the test condition is 15. To overcome the problems of the
O
satisfied assembler in dealing with branching code we
c) Finds the Branch offset and replaces the use _____
C
Branch target with it a) Interpreter
d) Replaces the target with the value specified b) Debugger
T.
by the DATAWORD directive c) Op-Assembler
d) Two-pass assembler
Answer: c
Explanation: When the assembler comes Answer: d
O
across the branch code, it immediately finds Explanation: This creates entries into the
the branch offset and replaces it with it. symbol table first and then creates the object
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code.
12. The assembler stores all the names and
their corresponding values in ______
a) Special purpose Register
TOPIC 4.2 COUNTERS AND
INTERNAL RELAYS - DATA
G
b) Symbol Table
c) Value map Set HANDLING
LO
1. A register is defined as ___________

Answer: b a) The group of latches for storing one bit of
Explanation: The table where the assembler information
stores the variable names along with their b) The group of latches for storing n-bit of
.B
corresponding memory locations and values. information

c) The group of flip-flops suitable for storing
13. The assembler stores the object code in
one bit of information
______
17
d) The group of flip-flops suitable for storing

a) Main memory
binary information
b) Cache
c) RAM Answer: d
d) Magnetic disk Explanation: A register is defined as the
-R
group of flip-flops suitable for storing binary

Answer: d
information. Each flip-flop is a binary cell
Explanation: After compiling the object
capable of storing one bit of information. The
code, the assembler stores it in the magnetic
SE
data in a register can be transferred from one

disk and waits for further execution.
flip-flop to another.
14. The utility program used to bring the
2. The register is a type of ___________
object code into memory for execution is
C
a) Sequential circuit
______
b) Combinational circuit
a) Loader
c) CPU
b) Fetcher
d) Latches

Answer: a 6. Registers capable of shifting in one

Explanation: Register’s output depends on direction is ___________
the past and present states of the inputs. The a) Universal shift register
device which follows these properties is b) Unidirectional shift register
termed as a sequential circuit. Whereas, c) Unipolar shift register
M
combinational circuits only depend on the d) Unique shift register
present values of inputs.
Answer: b
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3. How many types of registers are? Explanation: The register capable of shifting
a) 2 in one direction is unidirectional shift register.
C
b) 3 The register capable of shifting in both
c) 4 directions is known as a bidirectional shift
T.
d) 5 register.
Answer: c 7. A register that is used to store binary

Explanation: There are 4 types of shift information is called ___________
O
registers, viz., Serial-In/Serial-Out, Serial- a) Data register
In/Parallel-Out, Parallel-In/Serial-Out and b) Binary register
SP
Parallel-In/Parallel-Out. c) Shift register
d) D – Register
4. The main difference between a register and
a counter is ___________ Answer: b
G
a) A register has no specific sequence of Explanation: A register that is used to store
states binary information is called a binary register.
b) A counter has no specific sequence of A register in which data can be shifted is
LO
states called shift register.

c) A register has capability to store one bit of
information but counter has n-bit 8. A shift register is defined as ___________
d) A register counts data a) The register capable of shifting information
.B
to another register
Answer: a b) The register capable of shifting
Explanation: The main difference between a information either to the right or to the left
register and a counter is that a register has no c) The register capable of shifting information
17
specific sequence of states except in certain to the right only

specialised applications. d) The register capable of shifting
information to the left only
5. In D register, ‘D’ stands for ___________
-R
a) Delay Answer: b
b) Decrement Explanation: The register capable of shifting
c) Data information either to the right or to the left is
SE
d) Decay termed as shift register. A register in which

data can be shifted only in one direction is
Answer: c called unidirectional shift register, while if
Explanation: D stands for “data” in case of data can shifted in both directions, it is known
flip-flops and not delay. Registers are made of as a bidirectional shift register.
C
a group of flip-flops.
9. How many methods of shifting of data are
available?

a) 2 c) Data Column System

b) 3 d) Distributed Column System
c) 4
d) 5 Answer: a
Explanation: DCS is a Distributed Column
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Answer: a System. It has one database for the complete
Explanation: There are two types of shifting system. It has a separate database for the
of data are available and these are serial supervisory software and a separate database
O
shifting & parallel shifting. in the local controller. E.g. Emmerson Delta
V.
C
10. In serial shifting method, data shifting
occurs ____________ 3. What is SCADA?
T.
a) One bit at a time a) Software
b) simultaneously b) Process
c) Two bit at a time c) System
d) Four bit at a time d) Hardware
O
Answer: a Answer: b
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Explanation: As the name suggests serial Explanation: SCADA is a process that uses
shifting, it means that data shifting will take networked data communications, graphical
place one bit at a time for each clock pulse in user interface, and computers for high-level
a serial fashion. While in parallel shifting, process supervisory management. It uses
G
shifting will take place with all bits devices such as programmable logic
simultaneously for each clock pulse in a controller (PLU) and PID.
parallel fashion.
LO
4. The control in SCADA is _____________

a) Online control
TOPIC 4.3 SELECTION OF PLC. b) Direct control
c) Supervisory control
.B
1. What is the full form of SCADA? d) Automatic control

a) Supervisory Control and Document
Acquisition Answer: c
b) Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition Explanation: The control in SCADA is
17
c) Supervisory Column and Data Assessment Supervisory control because SCADA is

d) Supervisory Column and Data Assessment Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition. It
stores information from the remotely located
Answer: b data collection sensors and transducers to
-R
Explanation: SCADA is Supervisory Control support the control of equipment, devices,

and Data Acquisition. It is computer-based and automated functions.
monitoring and control system that collect,
display and store information to support the 5. When did the SCADA start?
SE
control of equipment, devices, and automated a) 1980s

functions. b) 1990s
c) 1970s
2. DCS is a __________________ d) 1960s
C
a) Distributed Control System

b) Data Control System Answer: d
Explanation: SCADA started in the 1960s.

During this time the mainframe computers wired and wireless media. A diverse range of
were used for the storage of data from energy wired and wireless media can be utilized by
plants, chemical plants, and other big the complex SCADA system.
industries.
9. Which of the following is not the
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6. When did Windows become the world component of a SCADA system?
standard operating system? a) Database server
a) 1980s b) I/O system
O
b) 1990s c) PLC controller
c) 1970s d) Sparger controller
C
d) 1960s
Answer: d
T.
Answer: b Explanation: The components of a SCADA
Explanation: During the 1990s, Microsoft based control system includes
Windows became the world standard operator/engineer station, database server,
operating system and the SCADA suppliers PLC controller, I/O system, sensors, and
O
adapted Microsoft Windows in the user actuators. These components need to
interface. The SCADA system became communicate with each other. The sparger
SP
increasingly moving from large industries to controller is a type of aeration and agitation
small laboratories or pilot scale companies. system.
7. Which of the following is an example of 10. Which of the following is used for
G
the SCADA system? centralized network databases?
a) Emerson Delta V a) RAID 2
b) Honeywell PlantScape b) RAID 5
LO
c) Yokogawa CENTUM c) RAID 1

d) PowerStudio Deluxe d) RAID 2
Answer: d Answer: b
.B
Explanation: PowerStudio SCADA Deluxe Explanation: RAID 5 is the best solution for
is an example of a SCADA application. It a centralized network database. It is used in
allows data integration in PowerStudio error correction and used to recover the lost
platform of other systems. Emmerson Delta data. It is the best solution for network drives.
17
V, Honeywell PlantScape/Experion, and the But it is expensive and slower than RAID 0
Yokogawa CENTUM CS3000 system are and RAID 1.
examples a DCS system.
11. The minimum number of disks in RAID
-R
8. How many levels are present in a complex level 2 is ________

SCADA system? a) 3
a) 3 – levels b) 4
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b) 5 – levels c) 2
c) 4 – levels d) 1
d) 6 – levels
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: The minimum number of disks
C
Explanation: There are four-levels in a in RAID level 2 is three. It is used in the error
complex SCADA system. In complex correction for old hard disks without built-in
SCADA architectures, there is a variety of

error correction. It has no practical Answer: a

application with modern hard disks. Explanation: RAID-1 is also called mirroring
as one disk is a safety back-up for the other
12. Which of the following is the heart of a disk. It is the main advantage of the RAID-1
SCADA system? level. All the data written to one disk is
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a) PLC copied continuously to the disk two. It is a
b) HMI simple and very effective way of protecting
c) Alarm task
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valuable data.
d) I/O task
C
Answer: d
Explanation: The heart of a SCADA system
UNIT V ACTUATORS AND
T.
is I/O tasks. The I/O system consists of
modules and racks that are directly connected
by multiconductor to the rack that contains MECHATRONIC SYSTEM
the PLC processor. DESIGN
O
13. Which of the following is also known as
TOPIC 5.1 TYPES OF STEPPER
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striping?
a) RAID 2 AND SERVO MOTORS -
b) RAID 0 CONSTRUCTION - WORKING
c) RAID 1
PRINCIPLE - ADVANTAGES
G
d) RAID 2
AND DISADVANTAGES.
Answer: b
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Explanation: RAID level 0 is also known as 1. A variable reluctance stepper motor is

striping. Its advantage is that multiple disks constructed of ______________ material with
are used in parallel for the transfer of data. salient poles.
One of its disadvantages is that if it crashes, a) Paramagnetic
.B
all data are lost and no disk will contain a b) Ferromagnetic

complete data file. c) Diamagnetic
d) Non-magnetic
14. The minimum number of disks in RAID
17
level 4 is five. Answer: b

a) True Explanation: A variable reluctance stepper
b) False motor is the motor that has motion in steps
with respect to increase in time and
-R
Answer: b constructed of ferromagnetic material with

Explanation: The minimum number of disks salient poles.
in RAID level 4 is three. Its disadvantage is
that it has slow data storage and its advantage
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2. In a three-stack 12/8-pole VR motor, the

is that it has the capability of error correction rotor pole pitch is
and is also used in the recovery of lost data. a) 15º
b) 30º
15. RAID-1 is also known as mirroring. c) 45º
C
a) True d) 60º
b) False

Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: Pole pitch is defined as the Explanation: A stepping motor is a motor in
number of armature slots to the pole pitch and which the motion in the form of steps and is a
here this has been converted into degrees. incremental device i which as the time
increases the steps are increased.
M
3. A stepper motor having a resolution of 300
steps/rev and running at 2400 rpm has a pulse 7. The rotational speed of a given stepper
rate of- pps. motor is determined solely by the
O
a) 4000 a) Shaft load
b) 8000 b) Step pulse frequency
C
c) 6000 c) Polarity of stator current
d) 10,000 d) Magnitude of stator current.
T.
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: Pulse per second is Explanation: The stator part of a motor is the
mathematically given as PPS = (Rpm/60)* stationary part of the motor and rotational
O
(number of steps per minute). speed of a given stepper motor is given by the
step pulse frequency.
SP
4. If a hybrid stepper motor has a rotor pitch
of 36º and a step angle of 9º, the number of 8. Which of the following phase switching
its phases must be sequence represents half-step operation of a
a) 4 VR stepper motor ?
G
b) 2 a) A, B, C,A……..
c) 3 b) A, C, B,A…….
d) 6 c) AB, BC, CA, AB……..
LO
d) A, AB, B, BC……..
Answer: a
Explanation: Step angle is defined as =(Ns- Answer: d
Nr)/(Ns+Nr)*360. Explanation: In the half step operation of a
.B
Variable reluctance motor physical step

5. The rotor of a stepper motor has no resolution is multiplied by 2 and control
a) Windings signals appear to be digital rather than analog.
17
b) Commutator
c) Brushes 9. A stepper motor may be considered as a
d) All of the mentioned ____________ converter.
a) Dc to dc
Answer: d b) Ac to ac
-R
Explanation: The rotor is the rotatory part of c) Dc to ac

the motor of a stepper motor and has no d) Digital-to-analogue
windings, commutator and brushes.
Answer: d
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6. A stepping motor is a ____________ Explanation: A stepper motor is a motor in

device. which the motion is in steps and it is an
a) Mechanical increemental device and may be considered
b) Electrical as a digital to analog converter.
C
c) Analogue
10. What is the step angle of a permanent-
d) Incremental
magnet stepper motor having 8 stator poles

and 4 rotor poles? Answer: a

a) 60º Explanation: Only statement one is true rest
b) 45º all are false. Analysis is at start of design,
c) 30º Product design resolution produces SRS.
d) 15º
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4. Which of these is not in sequence for
Answer: b generic problem solving strategy?
Explanation: Step angle is defined as =(Ns- a) Understand the problem
O
Nr)/(Ns+Nr)*360 where Ns is the number of b) Generate candidate solutions
stator poles and Nr is the number of rotor c) Iterate if no solution is adequate
C
poles. d) None of the mentioned
T.
Answer: c
TOPIC 5.2 DESIGN PROCESS- Explanation: Iteration is done at last stage.
STAGES OF DESIGN PROCESS
5. Which of these is not in sequence for
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1. Software Design consists of generic design process?
_____________ a) Analyze the Problem
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a) Software Product Design b) Evaluate candidate solutions
b) Software Engineering Design c) Finalize the Design
c) Software Product & Engineering Design d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
G
Answer: c Explanation: Evaluation is followed after
Explanation: Software design consists of Generation of candidate solutions.
LO
product and engineering design.

6. Why do you think iteration is important for
2. Which of the following is true? design?
a) Analysis – Solving problem a) To frequently reanalyze the problem
b) To generate and improve solutions only
.B
b) Design – Understanding problem

c) Analysis & Design once for better output
d) None of the mentioned c) All of the mentioned
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Answer: d
Explanation: Analysis- Understanding Answer: a
problem Resolution – Solving problem. Explanation: It has to follow both in order to
complete iteration process.
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3. Which of these are followed in case of

software design process? 7. What is true about generic software
a) Analysis occurs at start of product design product design process?
a) It begins with SRS
SE
with a product idea

b) Analysis occurs at the end of engineering b) It ends with Product Design Problem
design with the SRS c) Analysis is done and end product is project
c) Product design resolution produces the mission statement
design document d) None of the mentioned
C
d) Engineering design resolution produces the

SRS Answer: d
Explanation: It begins with product design

problem ends with SRS and starting point is CONCEPTS - CASE STUDIES OF
project mission statement, hence all choices MECHATRONICS SYSTEMS
are false.
8. Generic software engineering design 1. Which is the first aspect which needs to be
M
process defined by which of these steps? considered in the Mechatronics design
a) Generic software engineering design process?
process first job after analysis is detailed a) Hardware integration and simulation
O
design b) Conceptual design
b) Attention is turned later to architectural c) Mathematical modeling
C
design d) Modeling and simulation
c) Architectural design is not followed by
Answer: d
T.
Detailed design
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: Modeling and simulation
involve the representation of physical systems
Answer: d by suitable models for describing the
O
Explanation: Following procedure is behavior characteristics such as block
followed in engineering design process. diagram. Hardware design and simulation is a
SP
part of prototyping. Conceptual design and
9. Which of these is said to be true about mathematical modeling come under modeling
resolution process in generic software and simulation.
engineering design process?
2. In the level of integration of Mechatronics
G
a) Architectural design is low resolution
process system, an example of the first level is _____
b) Detailed design is high resolution process a) Fluid valves
LO
c) All of the mentioned b) Automatic machine tools

d) None of the mentioned c) Industrial robots
d) Microprocessors
Answer: d
Answer: a
.B
Explanation: Architectural design is high

resolution, detailed design is low resolution Explanation: First level of the mechatronic
system is a basic control system which
10. Which step among these follows the integrates electrical signal with mechanical
17
wrong sequence in software engineering action. An example of this level is a fluid

design process? valve. Automatic machine tools and industrial
a) Analyze problem robots come under the second level and the
b) Generate candidate architecture microprocessor in the third level respectively.
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c) Finalize design
d) Select detailed design 3. Interface design is an example of hardware
integration.
Answer: c a) True
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Explanation: Selection of design is followed b) False

first later design is finalized.
Answer: b
Explanation: Interface design is a part of
C
TOPIC 5.3 TRADITIONAL AND software integration which involves the

MECHATRONICS DESIGN Operating system. Hardware integration

involves process design and electronic design 7. Which phase of a mechatronics system
respectively. consists of hardware designing?
a) Prototyping
4. What is the role of the second level in the b) Modeling
mechatronics system design? c) Simulation
M
a) Integrates microelectronics into electrically d) Deployment
controlled devices
b) Integrates electrical signal with mechanical Answer: a
O
action Explanation: Hardware design and
c) Advanced control strategy level simulation is a part of Prototyping.
C
d) Providing artificial intelligence Conceptual design and mathematical
modeling come under modeling and
T.
Answer: a simulation.
Explanation: Role of the second level is to
integrate Microelectronics into electrically 8. What is the function of “analysis” in the
controlled devices. Integration of electrical modeling and simulation phase?
O
signal with mechanical action, Advanced a) Database for maintaining project
control strategy, and artificial intelligence information
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comes under the first, third and fourth level of b) Sub models for eventual reuse
mechatronics design respectively. c) Contains Numerical methods
d) To produce high-level source code
5. Microprocessor based electrical motors are
G
used for ____ Answer: c
a) Prediction of fault in the system Explanation: Analysis provides numerical
b) Correction before a fault occurs methods for frequency domain, time domain,
LO
c) Actuation purpose in robots and complex domain design. Database for

d) Providing intelligence maintaining project information, Sub-models
for eventual reuse are part of project
Answer: c management. High-level source codes are
.B
Explanation: Microprocessor based electrical produced by the code generator.

motors are used for actuation purpose in
robots. The other functions such as 9. Describing the behavior characteristics
Correction before a fault occurs, Providing through block diagram is done in ____
17
intelligence or prediction of fault in the a) Modeling and simulation

system is done using Artificial intelligence. b) Prototyping
c) Deployment
6. Deployment in mechatronics design is d) Design optimization
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associated with the final product.

a) True Answer: a
b) False Explanation: In Modeling and simulation,
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physical systems are represented by a suitable

Answer: a model for describing the behavior
Explanation: Deployment is the third main characteristics such as a block diagram.
step in the process of a mechatronics design Hardware design and simulation is a part of
process. It is associated with the final Prototyping. Deployment is associated with
C
product, Embedded software deployment, and the final product, Embedded software
life cycle. deployment, and life cycle.

10. Prototyping involves ____ Answer: d

a) Conceptual design Explanation: The important parameters in a
b) Replacing non-computer systems with gasoline engine that can be controlled are
actual hardware a) air-fuel ratio
c) Database for maintaining project b) mixture distribution between cylinders
M
information c) ignition timing
d) Sub models for eventual reuse d) injection timing of the fuel
O
e) idle speed.
Answer: b
Explanation: Prototyping involves replacing 3. Hall effect pickup use
C
non-computer systems with actual hardware. a) inductive transducers
Conceptual design and mathematical b) potentiometers
T.
modeling come under modeling and c) thermistors
simulation. Database for maintaining project d) semiconductors
information, Sub-models for eventual reuse
are part of project management. Answer: d
O
Explanation: Hall effect pickup is a
transducer that varies its output voltage in
TOPIC 5.4 PICK AND PLACE
SP
response to a magnetic field. Hall effect
ROBOT - ENGINE sensors are used for proximity switching,
MANAGEMENT SYSTEM positioning, speed detection, and current
sensing application and thus it uses
G
1. The main aims of an engine management semiconductor.
system is to achieve
4. LVDT is used to measure
LO
a) high reliability and durability with lowest

a) crank angle
possible initial cost
b) engine speed
b) high power output and torque
c) large displacements
c) low levels of gaseous and particulate
d) gas temperature
emissions
.B
d) all of the mentioned Answer: c

Explanation: To measure large
Answer: d
displacements, LVDT is used.
17
Explanation: The main aims of an engine

management system is to achieve 5. The disadvantage of the piezoelectric
a) high reliability and durability with lowest pressure pickup is that
possible initial cost a) it can only give pressure difference
-R
b) high power output and torque b) it can measure only low pressure
c) low levels of gaseous and particulate c) it is not suitable for dynamic measurement
emissions d) has too much sensitivity
d) low fuel consumption
SE
e) low noise levels and vibrations. Answer: a

Explanation: By using piezoelectric pressure
2. The important parameters in a gasoline pickup only the pressure difference can be
engine that can be controlled are measured and not the low pressure.
C
a) air-fuel ratio
b) mixture distribution between cylinders 6. Thermistors are desirable because of their
c) ignition timing a) linear output

b) large temperature coefficient Answer: c

c) suitability for high temperature Explanation: Only lambda sensors are used
d) none of the mentioned in catalytic converters to keep excess air ratio
within a range.
Answer: b
M
Explanation: Only thermistors have the
property to give large temperature TOPIC 5.5 AUTOMATIC CAR
coefficients. PARK BARRIER.
O
7. Seebeck effect is used in 1. The best type of interchange can be
C
a) thermistors provided with __________
b) thermocouples a) Rotary
T.
c) rtd b) Diamond
d) hot-wire sensor c) Partial cloverleaf
d) Full cloverleaf
Answer: b
O
Explanation: Seebeck effect is a property in Answer: d
thermocouples and not in thermistors and Explanation: Full clover leaf interchange
SP
RTD. provides all the required facilities for
interchange and it is the most convenient to
8. Hot-wire sensors are used for measurement use.
of
a) temperature
G
2. A grade intersection may be provided if the
b) pressure PCU exceeds __________
c) mass flow rate a) 5000
LO
d) smoke intensity b) 6000

c) 7000
Answer: c d) 10000
Explanation: Only mass flow rate is
measured by using hot-wire sensors.
.B
Answer: d
Explanation: If the PCU value exceeds
9. Knock sensors use 10000 then the grade separators may be used
a) thermistors as and when required.
17
b) thermocouples
c) piezoelectric pickup 3. The capacity of an uncontrolled
d) flap type sensors intersection is __________
a) 1000 to 1200 vehicles /hour
-R
Answer: c b) 1100 to 1200vehilces/hour

Explanation: In piezoelectric pickup knock c) 1200 to 1400 vehicles/hour
sensors are used while seebeck effect is used d) 1400 to 1600 vehicles/hour
in thermocouples.
SE
Answer: c
10. Catalytic converters use lambda sensors Explanation: The capacity of an uncontrolled
to keep intersection is 1200-1400 vehicles/hour if
a) exhaust temperature constant there is no traffic signal or police to control it.
C
b) exhaust pressure constant

c) excess air ratio within a range 4. The ramps in the grade separated
d) flow rate of air constant intersections do not include __________

a) Direct the vehicles are parked along the kerb is

b) Semi direct called kerb parking.
c) Indirect
d) Cloverleaf 8. Which type of parking facility is
convenient for all types of users?
M
Answer: d a) Kerb parking
Explanation: Clover leaf is a type of inter b) Off-street parking
change, it is not an intersection, whereas all c) Parallel parking
O
the remaining are a type of intersection. d) 90 degree parking
C
5. The product of fast moving vehicles and Answer: d
number of trains should exceed by how much Explanation: The 90 degree parking is most
T.
to justify the bypass road construction? convenient for users as it is easy to park and
a) 25000 easy to handle even for new users.
b) 5000
c) 50000 9. The maximum number of cars can be
O
d) 250000 parked in __________
a) Kerb parking
SP
Answer: a b) Off-street parking
Explanation: If the product of fast moving c) Parallel parking
vehicles and number of trains should exceed d) 90 degree parking
by 25000 then we have to justify the bypass
Answer: c
G
road construction and if it exceeds 50000 it is
mandatory. Explanation: The maximum number of
vehicles can be accommodated for same
LO
6. Parking facilities may be classified into length in parallel parking.

how many types?
a) One 10. The number of parking spaces for a kerb
b) Two of 59m and having the length of car as 5.0m
is?
.B
c) Three
d) Four a) 9
b) 10
Answer: b c) 11
17
Explanation: The parking facilities are d) 12

classified into two types, they are on street
and off street parking. Answer: b
Explanation: Number of parking spaces =
-R
7. The type of parking in which the vehicles 59/5.9

are parked along the kerb is called =10
__________ Here, extra width of 0.9m is considered,
a) Kerb parking because the vehicles cannot be parked very
SE
b) Off-street parking close.

c) Parallel parking
d) Angle parking 11. The first stage of the parking lot is
__________
C
Answer: a a) Entrance
Explanation: The type of parking in which b) Acceptance

c) Storage Answer: a
d) Delivery Explanation: Parking spaces in 90 degree
parking=25/2.5
Answer: a =10
Explanation: The first stage of parking lot is
M
entrance followed by acceptance, storage, 14. The place allotted particularly for only
delivery and exit. parking is called __________
a) Parking lot
O
12. The parking facility in which elevators are b) Parking space
required to change to a different level is c) Clover space
C
called __________ d) Traffic parking
a) Parking lot
T.
b) Multi storeyed building Answer: a
c) Clover leaf junction Explanation: The place allotted particularly
d) Ramp for only parking is called as parking lot.
O
Answer: b 15. The most inconvenient method for
Explanation: In multi storeyed buildings, parking is __________
SP
usually in tall buildings there is an elevator a) 30 degree parking
provided to change the level of parking. b) 45 degree parking
c) 90 degree parking
13. In 90 degree parking the length of kerb is d) Parallel parking
25m, the parking spaces are __________
G
a) 10 Answer: a
b) 11 Explanation: 30 degree parking is the most
LO
c) 12 inconvenient as everyone cannot turn in this

d) 13 angle. 90 degree parking is convenient and in
parallel most cars can be handled.
.B
17
-R
SE
C

ME8791 Mechatronics MCQ

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Department of Mechanical Engineering MCQ for Regulations 2017

was a veritable explosion in Microprocessor

MECHATRONICS - SYSTEMS - Explanation: Input signal conditioning

EMERGING AREAS OF signals are produced by digital control.

Explanation: The main mechanical

for power transmission.

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b) Detect input control or artificial intelligence. The example

comparators to produce the error signal if any.

Graphical display provides visual feedback. TRANSDUCERS: STATIC AND

8. A humanoid robot is an example of _____ 1. Which error is also termed as measurement

c) Large factory systems b) Dynamic errors

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difference between the actual or true value b) Thermoelectric transducer

4. Which among the following transducer is Answer: a

an example of active transducer? Explanation: Measuring lag is a dynamic

c) Hall effect sensor change in input. Measuring lag refers delay in

external power source. Photovoltaic cells are b) False

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Answer: d by increasing speed of response. Stability,

an example of passive transducer?

b) Measuring lag d) Thermistor

Answer: a passive transducer. Passive transducers are

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c) Use of low voltage sources b) Constant resistance potentiometer

for measuring different parameters.

b) Galvanometer a) Calibration of potentiometer

purpose. null position.

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7. Power consumption of unknown source

a) Watt meter also as a replacement for broadband

calibrating device. d) Thermocouple

a) Maximum generating type, they don’t require external

4. Which transducer is known as ‘self-

shows zero reading. c) Secondary transducer

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Answer: b conductive cell?

to digital signals. Strain gauge is an example d) Lithium sulphate

LVDT? property of reduction of resistance when

transformer (LVDT) is a type of transformer 1. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is

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3. Capacitance of a cylindrical capacitor is

Explanation: A capacitive transducer

to eliminate the edge effects and the parasitic

electric field effects.

b) 6 ways effect, frequency response is poor and the

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8. What is the relation between capacitance TOPIC 1.6 STRAIN GAUGES

c) five dielectric media

Explanation: In a composite capacitance, d) infinite insulation resistance

element must have a high value of insulation

where, d1, d2 and d3 are the thicknesses

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning b) iron aluminium alloy

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Explanation: Nickel chromium alloy is also

known as a nichrome alloy. It contains 80 % Δl/l

of Nickel and 20 % of Chromium. Platinum is c) S = R

used for the temperature compensation of

nickel chromium alloys. Δl/l

5. Commonly used elements for wire strain Answer: d

c) gold and brass where, S is the gauge factor

6. Cement is classified under __________ Δl/l

broad categories. They are as follows: relation