Three Phase System: Origin of Soils and Classification

Sub: Geotechnical Engineering Topic : Three Phase System
MODULE-43C
Origin of soils, soil classification, three-phase system, fundamental definitions,
relationship and interrelationships,
_________________________________________________________________________
1. The void ratio and specific gravity of a soil are 0.65 and 2.72
respectively. The degree of saturation (in percent) corresponding
to water content of 20% is
(A) 65.3 (B) 20.9
(C) 83.7 (D) 54.4
Ans:
0.65
0.544
0.2*2.72
2.72 1
2. The avoid ratios at the densest, loosest and the natural states of a sand
deposit are 0.2, 0.6 and 0.4, respectively. The relative density of the
deposit is
(A) 100% (B) 75% (C) 50% (D) 25%
Ans:
3. The following data were obtained from a liquid limit lest conducted on
a soil sample.
Number 17 22 25 28 34
of blows
Water 68.3 63.1 61.9 60.6 60.5
content
(%)
The liquid limit of the soil is
(A) 63.1 % (B) 62.8 %
(C) 61.9 % (D) 60.6 %
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Ans:
The water content at 25 blows is called Liquid
limit. i.e. 61.9
4. Data from a sieve analysis conducted on a given sample of soil showed

that 67% of the particles passed through 75 micron IS sieve. The liquid
limit and plastic limit of the finer fraction was found to be 45 and 33
percents respectively. The group symbol of the given soil as per IS:
1498-1970 is
(A) SC (B) MI
(C) CH (D) MH
Ans:
As more than 50 % of the total soil is finer than 75 the given soil is
fine grained soil
CL CI CH
12 H
ML MI MH
20 35 50
on the A-line, =18.25

The soil is below A-line. So the soil is MI
5. The undrained cohesion of a remoulded clay soil is 10 kN/m2. If the

sensitivity of the clay is 20, the corresponding remoulded compressive
strength is
(a) 5 kN/m2 (b) 10 kN/m2
2
(c) 20 kN/m (d) 200 kN/m2
Ans:
Compressive strength = 2C =20 kN/m2
6. The ratio of saturated unit weight to dry unit weight of dry unit weight
is 1.25. If the specific gravity of solids (G s) is 2.65, the void ratio of the
soil is
(a) 0.625 (b) 0.663
(c) 0.944 (d) 1.325
Ans:
e e
2.65 1
e=0.663
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7. A soil mass contains 40% gravel, 50% sand and 10% silt. This soil can
be classified as
(a) silty sandy gravel having coefficient of uniformity less than
60.
(b) silty gravelly sand having coefficient of uniformity equal to
10.
(c) gravelly silty sand having coefficient of uniformity greater than
60.
(d) gravelly silty sand and its coefficient of uniformity cannot be
determined.
Ans:
Soil of higher proportion comes in last
3
8. A saturated soil mass has a total density 22kN/m and a water content
of 10%. The bulk density and dry density of this soil are
3 3
(a) 12 kN/m and 20 kN/m respectively.
3 3
(b) 22 kN/m and 20 kN/m respectively.
3 3
(c) 19.8kN/m and19.8 N/m respectively.
3 3
(d) 23.2kN/m and19.8kN/m respectively.
Ans:
The bulk density is equal to saturated density as the soil is in saturated
3
condition. i.e 22 kN/m .
9. Sieve analysis on a dry soil sample of mass 1000 g showed that 980 g
and 270 g of soil pass through 4.75 mm and 0.075 mm sieve,
respectively. The liquid limit and plastic limits of the soil fraction
passing through 425μ sieves are 40% and 18% respectively. The soil
may be classified as
(a) SC (b) MI (c) CI (d) SM
Ans:
As 270 gm out of 1000gm pass through 75 sieve, the soil should be
coarse grained. The remaining 730 gm of soil, the gravel is only 20 gm
and 710 gm is sand. The sand fraction is more than gravel. So the soil
should be sand. The percentage of fines is 27 %, which is more than 12
%. So we need to get information from A-line.
CL CI CH
H
22
ML MI MH
20 35 50

The soil is above A-line. So the soil is clayey.
The classification is SC
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10. The water content of a saturated soil and the specific gravity of soil
solids were found to be 30% and 2.70, respectively. Assuming the unit
weight of water to be 10 kN/m3, the saturated unit weight (kN/m3) and
the void ratio of the soil are
(a) 19.4, 0.81 (b) 18.5, 0.30
(c) 19.4, 0.45 (d) 18.5, 0.45
Ans:
0.3*27 e 0.81
27 1
11. Group symbols assigned to silty sand and clayey sand are respectively
(A) SS and CS (B) SM and CS
(C) SM and SC (D) MS and CS
Ans:
Main soil symbol comes first
12. The liquid limit (LL), plastic limit (PL) and shrinkage limit (SL) of a
cohesive soil satisfy the relation
(A) LL>PL<SL (B) LL>PL>SL
(C) LL<PL<SL (D) LL<PL>SL
Ans:
volume
Semi solid plastic liquid

solid
Water content
13. Deposit with flocculated structure is formed when

(A) Clay particles settle on sea bed
(B) Clay particles settle on fresh water lake bed
(C) Sand particles settle on river bed
(D) Sand particles settle on sea bed
Ans:
Deposit with flocculated structure is formed when sand particles settle
on river bed
14. The laboratory test results of a soil sample are given below:
Percentage finer than 4.75 mm = 60
Percentage finer than 0.075 mm = 30
Liquid Limit = 35%
Plastic Limit = 27%
The soil classification is
(A) GM (B) SM (C) GC (D) ML-MI
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Ans:
Coarse fraction =70
Fine fraction =30
As coarse fraction is more than fines, the soil is coarse grained.
Gravel=40 and sand =30.
So the soil is gravel.
As fines are more than 12%, we need to check A-line.
CL CI CH
H
ML MI MH
20 35 50

The soil is above A-line. So the soil is silt.
The classification is GM
15. In a compaction test, G, w, S and e represent the specific gravity, water

content, degree of saturation and void ratio of the soil sample,
respectively. If represents the unit weight of water and represents
the dry unit weight of the soil. the equation for zero air voids line is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Ans:
wG e wG
16. A fine grained soil has liquid limit of 60 and plastic limit of 20. As per
the plasticity chart. according to IS classification, the soil is represented
by the letter symbols
(A)CL (B)CI (C) CH (D) CL-ML
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Ans:
CL CI CH
40 H
ML MI MH
20 35 50

The soil is above A-line. So the soil is clayey.
The classification is CH
17. The results for sieve analysis carried out for three types of sand, P, Q
and R, are given in the adjoining figure. If the fineness modulus values
of the three sands are given as , it can be stated
that
(A) √
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans:
Area under the curve represents fineness modulus.
18. As per the Indian Standard soil classification system, a sample of silty
clay with liquid limit of 40% and plasticity index of 28% is classified as
(A) CH (B) CI (C) CL (D) CL-ML
Ans:
A line equation, =14.6
The soil is above A-line and it is intermediate compressibility. So it is
CI
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19. In its natural condition, a soil sample has a mass of 1.980 and a
volume of 0.001 . After being completely dried in an oven, the mass
of the sample is 1.800 . Specific gravity is 2.7. Unit weight of
water is 10 . The degree of saturation of the soil is:
(A) 0.65 (B) 0.70 (C) 0.54 (D) 0.61
Ans:
e
0.27
0.1*27
27 1
20. Match list-I (type of soil) with list-II (mode of transportation and
deposition) and select the correct answer using the codes given below
the lists:
List – I
A. Lacustrine soils
B. Alluvial soils
C. Aeolian soils
D. Marine soils
List-II
1. Transportation by wind
2. Transportation by running water
3. Deposited at the bottom of lakes
4. Deposited in sea water
Codes:
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 3 2 1 4
c. 3 2 4 1
d. 1 3 2 4
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Ans:
(b)
21. The liquid limit and plastic limit of samples are 65% and 29%
respectively. The percentage of soil fraction with grain size finger than
0.002 mm is 24. The activity ratio of the soil sample is
(a) 0.05 (b) 1.00 (c) 1.50 (d) 2.00
Ans:
22. A soil sample as shrinkage limit of 10% and specific gravity soils as
2.7. The porosity of the soil at shrinkage limit is
(a) 21.2% (b) 27% (c) 73% (d) 78.8%
Ans:
0.1*2.7 e=0.27
=0.212
23. In a wet soil mass, air occupies one-sixth of its volume and water
occupies one-third of its volume. The void ratio of the soil is
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.5 (c) 1.00 (d) 1.50
Ans:
1/6
1/3
0.5
24. Lacustrine soils are soils
(a) Transported by rivers and streams
(b) Transported by glaciers
(c) Deposited in sea beds
(d) Deposited in lake beds
Ans:
(d)
25. The standard plasticity chart to classify fine grained soils is shown in
the given figure
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The area marked X represents
a) Silt of low plasticity

b) Clay of high plasticity
c) Organic soil of medium plasticity
d) Clay of intermediate plasticity
Ans:
(d)
26. A soil sample is having a specific gravity of 2.60 and a void ratio of
0.78. The water content in percentage required to fully saturate the soil
at that void ratio would be
(a) 10 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 70
Ans:
0.78 e=0.78
= 0.3
27. A dry soil has mass specific gravity of 1.35. If the specific gravity of
solids is 2.7, Then the void ratio will be
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 1.5 (d) 2.0
Ans:
2.7 1
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28. A clay sample has a void ratio of 0.50 in dry state and specific gravity
of solids = 2.70. Its shrinkage limit will be
(a) 12% (b) 13.5% (c) 18.5% (d) 22%
Ans:
Shrinkage limit is nothing but water content at just saturated state.
0.5 e 0.5
2.7 1
29. A soil has liquid limit of 60% plastic limit of 35% and shrinkage limit
of 20% and it has a natural moisture content of 50%. The liquidity
index of soil is
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.25 (c) 0.60 (d) 0.40
Ans:
volume
Water content
30. Consider the following statement in relation to the given sketch
1. Soil is partially saturated at degree of saturation = 60%

2. Void ratio = 40%
3. Water content = 30%
4. Saturated unit weight=1.5 g/cc
Which of these statements is are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 4
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Ans:
1.5
31. A soil has a liquid limit of 45% and lies above the A-line when plotted
on a plasticity chart. The group symbol of the soil as per IS soil
classification is
(a) CH (b) CI (c) CL (d) MI
Ans:
(b)
32. The dry density of a soil is 1.5 g/cc. If the saturation water content were
50% then its saturated density and submerged density would,
respectively, be
(a) 1.5 g/cc and 1.0 g/cc
(b) 2.0 g/cc and 1.0 g/cc
(c) 2.25 g/cc and 1.25 g/cc
(d) 2.50 g/cc and 1.50 g/cc
Ans:
=1.5*(1+0.5)=2.25 g/cc
=2.25-1=1.25
33. A fill having a volume of 1,50,000 cum is to be constructed at a Void

ratio of 0.8. The borrow pit soil has a void ratio of 1.4. The volume of
soil required (in cubic meters) to be excavated from the borrow pit will
be
(a) 1,87,500 (b) 2,00,000
(c) 2,10,000 (d) 2,50,000
Ans:
Mass of solids of fill =
Volume of bowwow pit=
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34. The moisture content of a clayey soil is gradually decreased from a

large value. What will be the correct sequence of the occurrence of the
following limits?
1. Shrinkage limit
2.Plastic limit
3.Liquid limit
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1,2,3 (c) 1,3,2

(b) 3,2,1 (d) 3,1,2
Ans: (b)
35. Given the Plasticity Index (PI) of a local soil =15 and PI of sand=Zero,
for a described PI of 6, the percentage of sand in the mix should be
(a) 70 (b) 60 (c) 40 (d) 30
Ans:
36. Consider the following statements:
A Well-graded sand should have
1. Uniformity coefficient greater than 6

2. Coefficient curvature between 1 and 3
3. Effective size greater than 1mm
Which of the statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
37. A Clayey soil has Liquid limit = , Plastic limit = and natural
moisture content = . The consistency index of the soil is given by
–
(a) (b)
( – ) ( – )
(c) ) (d) )
Ans: (a)
38. A soil has mass unit weight , water content ‘w’ (as ratio). The specific
gravity of soil soilds = G, unit weight of water= ; ‘S’ is the degree of
saturation of the soil is given by
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(a) S =
(b) S =
(c) S =
(d) S =
Ans:
e
wG wG
G 1
39. The saturated and dry densities of a soil are respectively 2000kg/m³ and
1500 kg/m³. The water content (in percentage) of the soil in the
saturated state would be
(a) 25 (b) 33.33 (c) 50 (d) 66.66
Ans:
40. If a soil of sample weight 0.18kg having a volume of 10⁻⁴ m³ and dry
unit weight of 1600 kg/m³ is mixed with 0.02 kg of water then the water
content will be
(a) 30% (b) 25% (c) 20% (d) 15%
JH ACADEMY Page 13
Ans:
Mass of solids=1600*10⁻⁴=0.16 kg
Existing water=0.18-0.16=0.02 kg
Additional water =0.02 kg
Total water = 0.04kg
Water content=0.04/0.16=0.25
41. Match List-I (terms) with List-II (formulae) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below this list
List-I List-II
A. Void ratio 1.
B. Porosity 2.
C. Degree of saturation 3.
D. Water content 4.
5.
Codes
A B C D
(a) 4 3 5 1
(b) 5 4 3 1
(c) 4 1 5 2
(d) 5 1 3 2
Ans: (d)
42. If an unconfined compressive strength of 4 kg/cm² in the natural state of
clay reduces by four times in the remoulded state, then its sensivity will
be
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 8
Ans: (c)
43. If the proportion of soil passing 75 micron sieve is 50% and the liquid
limit and plastic limit are 40% and 20% respectively, then the group
index of the soil is
(a) 3.8 (b) 6.5 (c) 38 (d) 65
Ans: (b)
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44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the list List-I
A) Loess
B) Peat
C) Alluvial soil
D) Marl
List-II
1. Deposited from suspension in running water
2. deposits of marine origin
3. deposits of wind
4. organic soil
CODES:
A B C D
a) 3 4 2 1
b) 4 3 1 2
c) 4 3 2 1
d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (d)
45. Match List-I (soils) with List-II (group symbols) and select the correct
answer using codes given below the lists
List-I
A. Clayey gravel
B. Clayey sand
C. Organic clay
D. Silty sand
List-II
1. SM
2. OH
3. SC
4. GC
CODES:
A B C D
a) 3 4 2 1
b) 4 3 1 2
c) 4 3 2 1
d) 3 4 1 2
JH ACADEMY Page 15
Ans: (c)
46. The value of porosity of a soil sample in which the total volume of soil
grains is equal to twice the total volume of voids would be
a) 75% b) 66.66% c) 50% d) 33.33%
Ans: (c)
47. A soil has a liquid limit of 40% and plasticity index of 20% the plastic
limit of the soil will be
a) 20% b) 30% c) 40% d) 60%
Ans: (a)
48. A sample of saturated sand has a dry unit weight of 18 KN/m3 and a
specific gravity of 2.7. If density of water 10KN/m3, the void ratio of
the soil sample will be
a) 0.5 b) 0.6 c) 0.4 d) 0.9
Ans:
27 1
49. A dry soil sample has equal amounts of soils and voids of volume. Its
void ratio and porosity will be
Void ratio porosity (%)
a) 1.0 100%
b) 0.5 50%
c) 0.5 100%
d)1.0 50%
Ans: (d)
50. Based on grain distribution analysis, The D10, D30 and D60 values of a
given soil are 0.23mm, 0.3mm and 0.41mm respectively. As per IS
code, the soil classification will be
a) SW b) SP c) SM d) SC
JH ACADEMY Page 16
Ans:
The given soil is of size less than 4.75 mm and more than 75 . So the
soil is sand
As is less than 6 and is not in between 1 to 3, the soil is SP
51. The plasticity index and the percentage of grain size finer than 2
microns of a clay sample of 25 and 15 respectively. Its activity ratio is
a) 2.5 b) 1.67 c) 1.0 d) 0.6
Ans:
52. A soil sample having a void ratio of 1.3, water content of 50% and a
specific gravity 2.60 is in a state of
a) partial saturation b) full saturation
c) over saturation d) under saturation
Ans:
53. The natural void ratio of sand sample is 0.6 and its density index is 0.6.
If its void ratio in the loosest state is 0.9, then the void ratio in the
densest state will be
a) 0.2 b) 0.3 c) 0.4 d) 0.5
Ans:
54. Which one of the following phase diagrams represents a clay at its
shrinkage limit?
JH ACADEMY Page 17
Ans: (b)
55. Which one of the following correctly represents the dry unit weight of a
soil sample which has a bulk unit weight of at a moisture content of
w%?
a) c)
b) ] d)
Ans: (c)
56. Given that the coefficient of curvature = 1.4 D30 = 3mm, D10 = 0.6mm,
based on this information of particle size distribution for use as a sub
grade, this soil will be taken to be
a) Uniformly graded sand
b) Well-graded sand
c) Very fine sand
d) Poorly-graded sand
Ans:
57. Which one of the following represents relative density of saturated sand
deposit having moisture content of 25% if maximum and minimum
void ratio of sand are 0.95 and 0.45 respectively and specific gravity of
sand particles is 2.6?
a) 40% b) 50% c) 60% d) 70%
Ans:
0.65 0.65
2.6 1
58. In a soil specimen, 70% particles are passing through 4.75mm IS sieve
and 40% particles are passing through 75 μ IS sieve. Its uniformity
JH ACADEMY Page 18
coefficient is 8 and coefficient of curvature is 2. As per IS

classification, this soil is classified as
a) SP b) GP c ) SW d) GW
Ans: (c)
59. The correct sequence of plasticity of minerals in soil in an increasing

order is
a) silica, kaolinite, illite, montmorillonite
b) silica, kaolinite, montmorillonite, illite
c) kaolinite, silica, illite, montmorillonite
d) kaolinite,silica, montmorillonite, illite
Ans: (a)
60. The predominant mineral responsible for shrinkage and swelling in
black cotton soils is
a) illite b) kaolinite
c) mica d) montmorillonite
Ans: (d)
61. Consistency as applied to cohesive soils in an indicator of its
a) density b) moisture content
c) shear strength d) porosity
Ans: (b)
62. While computing the values of limits of consistency and consistency

indices , it is found that liquidity index, has a negative value
Consider the following comments on this value
1. Liquidity index cannot have a negative value and should be taken

as zero
2. Liquid index can have a negative value
3. The soil tested is in semi solid state and stiff
4. The soil tested in medium soft state.
Which of these statements are correct?
a) 1 and 4 b)1 and 3

b) 2 and 4 d) 2 and 3
JH ACADEMY Page 19
Ans:
volume
Water content
63. Two soil sample A and B have porosities =40% and =60%
respectively. What is the ratio of void ratios eA :eB?
a) 2:3 b) 3:2 c) 4:9 d) 9:4

Ans:
64. Match List-I (densities) with List-II (expressions) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
(Symbols G, e, γw and S stand for specific gravity of a soil grains ,
void ratio, unit weight of water and degree of saturation respectively)
List-I List-II
a) Dry density 1) γw (G+Se)/(1+e)
b) Moist density 2) γwG/(1+e)
c) Submerged density 3) γw(G+e)/(1+e)
d) Saturated density 4) γw(G-1)/(1+e)
A B C D
a) 2 1 4 3
b) 2 3 4 1
c) 4 1 2 3
d) 4 3 2 1
Ans: (a)
65. What are the respective values of void ratio , porosity ratio and
saturated density (in KN/m³) for a soil sample which has saturation
moisture content of 20% and specific gravity of grains has 2.6? ( taken
density of water has 10KN/ m³).
a) 0.52, 1.08, 18.07
b) 0.52, 0.34, 18.07
JH ACADEMY Page 20
c) 0.77, 1.08, 16.64
d) 0.52, 0.34, 20.16
Ans:
5.2 0.52
26 1
66. Embankment fill is to be compacted at density of 18 KN/ m³.The soil of

the barrow area is at a density of 15 KN/ m³. What is the estimated
number of trips of 6 m³ capacity truck for hauling the soil required for
compacting 100 m³ fill of the Embankment?(Assume that the soil in the
barrow area and that in the Embankment are at the moisture content?)
a) 14 b)18 c) 20 d) 23
Ans:
67. A clay sample has a void ratio 0.54 in dry state. the specific gravity of
soil solids is 2.7. what is the shrinkage limit of soil?
a) 8.5% b) 10.0% c) 17.0% d) 20.0%
Ans:
5.4 0. 54
2.7 1
Water content at just saturation is shrinkage limit.

1. Mica is a clay mineral
2. Rock dust particles, even of clay size are non-plastic.
3. A particle of kaolinte is electrically changed.
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) only 1and 2
c) Only 2 and 3 d) Only 1 and 3
Ans: (d)
69. Which of the following relation gives the value of degree of saturation
S, in terms of unit Weight , water content w (as ratio) and specific
gravity of soil solids Gs is unit weight of the water?
JH ACADEMY Page 21
a) γ
b) γ
c)
γ
d)
γ
Ans: (c)
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Sub: Geotechnical Engineering Topic : Permeablity
MODULE- 44C
Permeability & Seepage
1. The coefficients permeability of a soil in horizontal and vertical

directions are 3.46 and 1.5 m/day respectively. The base length of a
concrete dam resting in this soil is 100 m. When the flow net is
developed for this soil with 1:25 scale factor in the vertical
direction, the reduced base length of the dam will be
(A) 2.63 m (B) 4.00 m
(C) 6.08 m (D) 5.43 m
Ans:
= x.√
As per scale = 100 √ = 2.63
2. In a falling head permeability test the initial head of 1.0m dropped

to 0.35 m in 3 hours, the diameter of the stand pipe being 5 mm.
The soil specimen was 200 mm long and of 100 mm diameter. The
coefficient of permeability of the soil is:
(A) 4.86 × cm/s
(B) 4.86 × cm/s
(C) 4.86 × cm/s
(D) 4.86 × cm/s
Ans:
= ( )
= 4.86 mm/s
= 4.86 cm/s
JH ACADEMY 1
Sub: Geotechnical Engineering
Topic : Permeablity
3. An unit volume of a mass of saturated soil is subjected to

horizontal seepage. The saturated unit weight is 22 kN/m3 and the
hydraulic gradient is 0.3. The resultant body force on the soil mass
is
(a) 1.98 kN (b) 6.6 kN
(c) 12.37 kN (d) 22.97 kN
Ans:
.i 12
=3
R=√ = 12.37 kN
4. The figure below shows two flow lines for seepage across an
interface between two soil media of different co-efficient of
permeability. If entrance angle a1=30 , the exit angle a2 will be
(a) 7.50 (b) 14.03

(c) 66.59 (d) 75.96
Ans:
=
= 66.
2
5. In a constant head permeameter with cross section area of 10 cm ,
when the flow was taking place under a hydraulic gradient of 0.5,
the amount of water collected in 60 seconds is 600 cc. The
permeability of the soil is
(a) 0.002 cm/s (b) 0.02 cm/s
(c) 0.2 cm/s (d) 2.0 cm/s
Ans:
a = k .A
= k.0.5 10 k = 2cm/s
6. Water is flowing through the permeability apparatus as shown in

the figure. The coefficient of permeability of the soil is k m/s and
the porosity of the soil sample is 0.50.
JH ACADEMY 2
Topic : Permeablity
The total head, elevation head and pressure head in metres of water
at the point R shown in the figure are
(a) 0.8, 0.4, 0.4 (b) 1.2, 0.4, 0.8
(c) 0.4, 0, 0.4 (d) 1.6, 0.4, 1.2
Ans:
Hydraulic gradient i=
Elevation head at R=0
Total head = 1.2 – (1.0) = 0.4
Presume head = 0.4 – 0 = 0.4
7. Water is flowing through the permeability apparatus as shown in

the figure. The coefficient of permeability of the soil is k m/s and
the porosity of the soil sample is 0.50.
What are discharge velocity and seepage velocity through the soil
sample?
(A) k, 2k (B) 2/3k, 4/3k
(C) 2k, k (D) 4/3k, 2/3k
Ans:
Discharge velocity = ki = k. = k
Seepage velocity = = = 2k
8. An open ended steel barrel of 1 m height and 1 m diameter is filled

with saturated fine sand having coefficient of permeability
of . The barrel stands on a saturated bed of gravel. The
time required for the water level in the barrel to drop by 0.75 m is
(A) 58.9 s (B) 75 s (C) 100s (D) 150s
Ans:
⁄
t=
JH ACADEMY 3
Topic : Permeablity
9. Two soil specimens with identical geometric dimensions were

subjected to falling head permeability tests in the laboratory under
identical conditions. The fall of water head was measured after an
identical time interval. The ratio of initial to final water heads for
the test involving the first specimen was 1.25. If the coefficient of
permeability of the second specimen is 5-times that of the first, the
ratio of initial to final water heads in the test involving the second
specimen is
(A) 3.05 (B) 3.80 (C) 4.00 (D) 6.25
Ans:
K=
k
( )
( )
10. The flow net around a sheet pile wall is shown in the sketch. The
properties of the soil are: permeability coefficient = 0.09 m/day
(isotropic), specific gravity = 2.70 and void ratio = 0.85. The sheet
pile wall and the bottom of the soil are impermeable.
The seepage loss (in m3 per day per unit length of the wall) of
water is
(A) 0.33 (B) 0.38 (C) 0.43 (D) 0.54
Ans
Q = Kh =0.09 ⁄
JH ACADEMY 4
Topic : Permeablity
11. The flow net around a sheet pile wall is shown in the sketch. The
properties of the soil are: permeability coefficient = 0.09 m/day
(isotropic), specific gravity = 2.70 and void ratio = 0.85. The sheet
pile wall and the bottom of the soil are impermeable.
The factor of safety against the occurrence of piping failure is

(A) 3.55 (B) 2.93 (C) 2.60 (D) 0.39
Ans:
( ) ( )
F=
⁄
( )
12. The ratio Nf/Nd is known as shape factor, where Nf is the number
of flow lines and Nd is the number of equipotential drops. Flow net
is always drawn with a constant b/a ratio, where b and a are
distances between two consecutive flow lines and equipotential
lines, respectively. Assuming that b/a ratio remains the same, the
shape factor of a flow net will change if the
(A) upstream and downstream heads are interchanged
(B) soil in the flow space is changed
(C) dimensions of the flow space are changed
(D) head difference causing the flow is changed
Ans: (c)
JH ACADEMY 5
Topic : Permeablity
13. The soil profile below a lake with water level at elevation = 0 m
and lake bottom at elevation = -10 m is shown in the figure, where
k is the permeability coefficient. A piezometer (stand pipe)
installed in the sand layer shows a reading of +10 m elevation.
Assume that the piezometric head is uniform in the sand layer. The
quantity of water (in ) flowing into the lake from the sand
layer through the silt layer per unit area of the lake bed is:
(A) 1.5 x (B) 2.0 x

(C) 1.0 x (D) 0.5 x
Ans:
Q=KiA
= =0.5 ⁄
14. A soil has a discharge velocity of 6 m/s and a void ratio of

0.5. its seepage velocity is
a) 18 m/s b) 12 m/s
c) 6 m/s d) 3 m/s
Ans:
E = 0.5
seepage velocity = ⁄
⁄
15. If during a permeability test on a soil sample with a falling head

permeameter, equal time intervals are noted for drop of head from
‘ ’ to ‘ ’ and again from ‘ ’ to ‘ ’. Then which one of the
following relations would hold good?
a) = b) =
c) = d) ( )=( )
Ans:
16. A flow net is drawn to obtain

a) Seepage, coefficient of permeability and uplift pressure.
b) Coefficient of permeability, uplift pressure and seepage
quantity
c) Exit gradient, uplift pressure and seepage quantity.
d) Exit gradient, seepage and coefficient of permeability.
JH ACADEMY 6
Topic : Permeablity
Ans: (c)
17. A bed of sand consists of three horizontal layers of equal thickness.

The value of
Darcy’s ‘k’ for upper and lower layers is 1x10-2cm/sec.and the
middle layer is 1x 10-1 cm/sec.The ratio of the permeability of the
bed in the horizontal direction to that in the vertical direction is
a) 10.0 to 1 b) 2.8 to 1
c) 2.0 to 1 d)1 to 10
Ans:
= 0.04
18. Due to rise in temperature, the viscosity and unit weight of

percolating fluid are reduced to 70% and 90% respectively. Other
things being constant, the change in coefficient of permeability
will be
a) 20.0% b)28.6%
c) 63.0% d) 77.8%
Ans:
=1.2857
=0.2857 ie 28.6%
JH ACADEMY 7
Topic : Permeablity
19. Match List –I (Flow type) with List –II (flow characteristics) and
select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I
A. Transient flow
B. Turbulent flow
C. Steady-state flow
D. Laminar flow
List-II
A. Seepage flow is a function of time
B. Hydraulic gradient varies with square of velocity
C. Flow at low velocity
D. Governing equation in 2-D is =0
Codes:
A B C D
a) 1 2 4 3
b) 3 2 1 4
c) 1 2 3 4
d) 2 1 4 3
Ans: ( A )
20. A flow net constructed to determine the seepage through an earth

dam which is homogenous but anisotropic, gave four flow channels
and sixteen equipotenital drops.
The coefficient of permeability in the horizontal and vertical
directions is 4.0 m/s and 1 m/s respectively. If the
storage head was 20m, then the seepage per unit length of dam (in
/s) would be
a) 5 b) 10
c) 20 d) 40
Ans:
q= √ h
=√
=10 ⁄
21. Assertion(A): Constant-head permeability test is not used for fine

– grained soils.
Reason (R): The lesser the permeability of the soil, lesser is the
discharge.
Codes:
a) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
JH ACADEMY 8
Topic : Permeablity
Ans: (A)
22. Assertion (A): Permeability continues to decrease with the

increase in dry density of a compacted soil.
Reason (R): Soil particles in water surroundings may be mutually
attracted or repulsed.
Codes:
a) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
Ans: (B)
23. The configuration of flow nets depends upon

a) The permeability of the soil
b) The difference in the head between upstream and downstream
sides
c) The boundary condition of flow
d) The amount of seepage that takes place
Ans: (C)
24. A flow net for an earth dam on impervious foundation consists of a

4 flow channels and 15 equipotential drops. The full reservoir
level is 15m above the downstream water level. Horizontal
permeability is 9 m/s and vertical permeability is 1
m/s, the quantity of seepage through the dam will be
a) 36ml/S/m b) 25 ml/s/m
c) 20 ml/s/m d) 12 ml/s/m
Ans:
q=√ =12
= 12
=12
25. In a two-layer soil system, the top soil and bottom soil are of same
thickness but the coefficient of permeability of the top soil is twice
that of the bottom soil of coefficient of permeability ‘k’. when
horizontal flow occurs, the equivalent coefficient of permeability of
the system will be
a) 2k b)1.5k
c) 1.25k d) 1.2k
Ans:
= 1.5 k
JH ACADEMY 9
Topic : Permeablity
26. A flow net of a coffer dam foundation has 6 flow channels and 18
equipotenital drops. The head of water lost during seepage is 6m. if
the coefficient of permeability of foundation is 4 m/min, then
the seepage loss per metre length of dam will be
a) 2.16 /day
b) 6.48 /day
c) 11.52 /day
d) 34.56 /day
Ans:
q=4
=11.52
27. The following data were obtained when a sample of medium sand
was tested in a constant head parameter :
Cross-section area of sample: 100
Hydraulic gradient : 10
Discharge collected : 10cc/s
The coefficient of permeability of the sand is
a) 0.1 m/s b) 0.01m/s
c) 1 m/s d) 1 m/s
Ans:
10 = k
k=0.01
28. A Stratified soil deposit has 3 layers of thickness: =4, =1, =2

units and the corresponding permeabilites of = 2, = 1, = 4
units, respectively. The average permeability perpendicular to the
bending planes will be
a) 4 b) 2
c) 8 d) 16
Ans:
JH ACADEMY 10
Topic : Permeablity
29. Match List-I(Soil description ) with List –II( Coefficient of

permeability mm/s) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Gravel 1. 1
B. Clay silt admixtures 2. to
C. Loess 3.
D. Homogeneous clays 4. to
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 1 3 2
b) 1 4 3 2
c) 4 1 2 3
d) 1 4 2 3
Ans: (d)

1. Coarse sand is more than a million times permeable than a
high plasticity clay.
2. The permeability depends on the nature of soil and not on
properties of liquid flowing through soil.
3. If a sample of sand and a sample of clay have the same void
ratio .both samples will exhibit the same permeability.
4. Permeability of soil decreases as the effective stress acting on
the soil increases.
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 4 d) 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
31. In a falling head permeability test on a soil, the time taken for at
the head to fall from to is t. the test is repeated with same
initial head , the final head is noted in time ⁄ . Which one of
the following equations gives the relation between , and ?
a) = ⁄ b) =√
c) = d) √
Ans: (c)
32. A soil deposit has three layers having same thickness each but
the permeabilities
of the layers are in ratio of 1:2:4 from top to bottom. What is
the ratio of average permeability in the horizontal direction to
that in the vertical direction?
a) 7:2 b) 14:6
c) 28:24 d) 49:36
JH ACADEMY 11
Topic : Permeablity
Ans:
⁄
=
⁄
33. A soil mass under seepage has a downward flow of water. Which
of the following statements are correct with regard to stresses at
any point in the soil mass?
1. Effective stress is decreased by an amount equal to the seepage
force
2. Effective stress is increased by an amount equal to the
seepage force
3. Total stress will change
4. Total stress will be unaltered
a) 1 and 3 b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4 d) 2 and 4
Ans: (d)
34. For a sheet pile wall constructed in a soil having

, the difference of the upstream and downstream water
levels is 3m. if the flow net drawn for the problem yields 2 as the
ratio of number of flow channels, then what is the discharge in
unit of /s/m length of sheet pile wall?
a) 3.0 b) 3.0
c) 1.5 d) 1.5
Ans:

1. Permeability of a soil decreases as the effective stress acting
on the soil increases.
2. The presence of organic matter in the soil increases its
permeability.
3. Entrapped air decreases the permeability of a soil.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3
Ans: (d)
JH ACADEMY 12
Topic : Permeablity
36. A homogeneous earth dam is 43m high with 3m as free board and
a 30m long horizontal filter at the downstream end.
a) 0.0004 /s b) 0.0036 /s
c) 0.0039 /s d) 20 /s
Ans:
Q=3

1. Void ratio of the soil.
2. Duration of flow.
3. Equivalent diameter of the soil grains.
4. Shape of the circle.
a) 1,2,3 and 4 b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only d) 3 and 4 only
Ans: (c)
38. A soil has a discharge velocity of 5 m/s and a void ratio of
0.50. its seepage velocity will be
a) 15 m/s b) 10 m/s
c) 20 m/s d) 30 m/s
Ans:
= 15 ⁄
⁄( )

1. The hydraulic head at a point in the soil includes piezometric
head as well as datum head
2. Piping in soil occurs when effective pressure becomes equal to
zero.
3. Piping in soil occurs when soil is highly porous.
a) 1,2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 2 only
Ans: (A)
40. Assertion (A): The possibility of piping failure in earth dams is

more if black cotton soil is the foundation material.
Reason (R): The highly expansive black cotton soils are the most
common soils whatever basalt rock is present.
Codes:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
JH ACADEMY 13
Topic : Permeablity
c) A is true but R is false

d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (b)
41. Assertion (A): Flow net is dependent on permeability of soil
through which flow is taking place.
Reason(R): The flow net is useful in finding the discharge.
Codes:
Ans: ( d )
42. A flow net for seepage under a sheet pile wall has =4, = 8
and the permeabilities of soil in the horizontal and vertical
directions are : = 8 m/sec and = 2 m/ sec. if the
head loss through the soil is 2m, the quantity of seepage per meter
length of the wall will be
a) 2 /sec
b) 4 /sec
c) 8 /sec
d) 16 /sec
Ans:
Q=√ =4 ⁄
43. Two observation wells penetrating into a confined aquifer are

located 1500m apart in the direction of flow. H eads of 50m
and 25m are indicated at these two observation wells. If the
coefficient of permeability for the aquifer is 30m/day and its
porosity is 0.25, the time of travel of an inert tracer from one well
to another is
a) 75 days b) 750d c) 1200d d)3000d
Ans:
I=
V = ki=30 ⁄
Time = = = 750days
44. If number of flow channels are 10, number of drops are 6, the total
hydraulic head difference is 4m, the length of dam is 50m and the
coefficient of permeability is 2 , the total loss of water
per day in is
a) 576 b) 5760 c) 57600 d) 576000
JH ACADEMY 14
Topic : Permeablity
Ans:
Q=2 ⁄
=0.6667 ⁄
45. A flow line makes angles and with the normal to the
interface of the soils having permeabilities 3 and
1 before and after deflection. According to the law of
deflection of flow lines at the interface of the dissimilar soils, the
is
a) b) c) d)
Ans:
46. The coefficient of permeability of a soil is 5 cm/sec for a

certain pore fluid. If the viscosity of the pore fluid is reduced to
half, the co-efficient of permeability will be
a) 5 cm/sec
b) 10 cm/sec
c) 2.5 cm/sec
d) 1.25 cm/sec
Ans:
k
if
47. According to Darcy’s law for flow through porous media, the
velocity is proportional to
a) Effective stress
b) Hydraulic gradient
c) Cohesion
d) Stability number
Ans: (b)
48. A homogeneous anisotropic earth dam which is 20m high
constructed on an impermeable foundation. m/s
and m/s. the water level on reservoir side is at
18m from the base of the dam. Downstream side is dry. It is seen
that there are 4 flow channels and 18 equi potential drop in a square
flow net drawn in the transformed dam section. Estimate the
quantity of seepage per unit length.
Ans:
Q=√
⁄
JH ACADEMY 15
Topic : Permeablity
49. The equation can be transformed to
by substituting
a)
b)
c) √
d) √
Ans (d)
50. For an anisotropic soil, permeabilities in and directions

are and respectively in a two dimensional flow. The effective
permeability for the soil is given by
(A) (B)
(C) ( ) (D) ( )
Ans: (d)
JH ACADEMY 16
SUB: GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING MODULE-45C
MODULE- 45C
Effective stress principle,

________________________________________________________
1) If the effective stress strength parameters of a soil are kPa

and = 30°, the shear strength on a plane within the saturated soil
mass at a point where the total normal stress is 300kPa and pore
water pressure is 150 kPa will be
(A) 90.5 kPa. (B) 96.6 kPa.
(C) 101.5 kPa (D) 105.5 kPa
Ans:
C = 10 KPa
S= c +
2) The specific gravity and insitu void ratio of a soil deposit are 2.71
and 0.85 respectively. The value of the critical hydraulic gradient is
(A) 0.82 (B) 0.85
(C) 0.92 (D) 0.95
Ans:
JH ACADEMY 1
SUB: GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING
MODULE-45C
3) For the soil strata shown in figure, the water table is lowered by
drainage by 2m and if the top 2m thick silty sand stratum remains
saturated by capillary action even after lowering of water table, the
increase in effective vertical pressure in kPa at mid-height of clay
layer will be
(a) 0.2 (b) 2

(c) 20 (d) 200
Ans:
Total stress at P = 22
Pore Pressure = (12+1)

̅
Total stress at p= 22
Pore pressure = (10+1)

̅
Increase = 173-153 = 20 KN/
4) A 10m thick clay layer is underlain by a sand layer of 20m depth

(see figure below). The water table is 5 m below the surface of clay
layer. The soil above the water table is capillary saturated. The
value of is 19kN/m3. The unit weight of water is . If now the
water table rises to the surface, the effective stress at a point P on
the interface will
(a) Increase by 5
(b) Remain unchanged
(c) Decrease by 5
(d) Decrease by 10
Ans:
̅ ̅
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
JH ACADEMY 2
MODULE-45C
5) Assuming that a river bed level does not change and the depth of
water in river was 10 m, 15 m and 8 m during months of February,
July and December respectively of a particular year. The average
bulk density of the soil is 20 kN/m3. The density of water is 110
kN/m3. The effective stress at a depth of 10 m below the river bed
during these months would be
(a) 300 kN/m2 in February, 350 kN/m2 July and 320 kN/m2 in
December
(b) 100 kN/m2 in February, 100 kN/m2 July and 100 kN/m2 in
December
(c) 200 kN/m2 in February, 250 kN/m2 July and 180 kN/m2 in
December.
(d) 300 kN/m2 in February, 350 kN/m2 July and 280 kN/m2 in
December.
Ans:
(b) Effective stress does not change if water level changes
6) The range of void ratio between which quick sand conditions

occurs in cohesion less granular soil deposits is
(a) 0.4-0.5 (b) 0.6-0.7

(c) 0.8-0.9 (d) 1.0-1.1
Ans:
=
7) Which of the following statement is NOT true in the context of

capillary pressure in soils?
(a) Water is under tension in capillary zone

(b) Pore water pressure is negative in capillary zone
(c) Effective stress increases due to capillary pressure
(d) Capillary pressure is more in coarse grained soils
Ans: (d)
JH ACADEMY 3
MODULE-45C
8) The ground conditions at a site are as shown in the figure. The
water table at the site which was initially at a depth of 5m below
the ground level got permanently lowered to a depth of 15m below
the ground level due to pumping of water over a few years. Assume
the following data
i. Unit weight of water = 10kN/m3
ii. Unit weight of sand above water table = 18kN/m3
iii. Unit weight of sand and clay below the water table = 20kN/m3
iv. Coefficient of volume compressibility = 0.25 /MN
What is the change in the effective stress in KN/m2 at mid-depth of

the clay layer due to the lowering of the water table?
(A) 0 (B) 20 (C) 80 (D) 100
Ans:
Before: ̅ = 18 = 265
After: ̅ = 18 = 345
80 increase
9) The ground conditions at a site are as shown in the figure. The

water table at the site which was initially at a depth of 5m below
the ground level got permanently lowered to a depth of 15m below
the ground level due to pumping of water over a few years. Assume
the following data
i. unit weight of water = 10kN/m3
ii. Unit weight of sand above water table = 18kN/m3
iii. Unit weight of sand and clay below the water table = 20kN/m3
iv. Coefficient of volume compressibility = 0.25 /MN
What is the compression of the clay layer in mm due to the

lowering of the water table?
(A) 125 (B) 100 (C) 25 (D) 0
Ans:
⁄
JH ACADEMY 4
MODULE-45C
10) The ground conditions at a site are shown in the figure below
The saturated unit weight of the sand (kN/m3) is
(A) 15 (B) 18 (C) 21 (D) 24
Ans:
11) The ground conditions at a site are shown in the figure below
The total stress, pore water pressure and effective stress (kN/m2) at
the point P are, respectively
(A) 75, 50 and 25 (B) 90, 50 and 40

(C) 105, 50 and 55 (D) 120, 50 and 70
Ans:
12) Quick sand condition occurs when

(A) The void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
(B) The upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero
(C) The upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to the
saturated unit weight of the soil
(D) The upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to the
submerged unit weight of the soil
Ans: (D)
13) For a saturated sand deposit, the void ratio and the specific gravity
of solids are 0.70 and 2.67, respectively. The critical (upward)
hydraulic gradient for the deposit would be
(A) 0.54 (B) 0.98 (C) 1.02 (D) 1.87
Ans:
JH ACADEMY 5
MODULE-45C
14) A sand layer found at sea floor under 20 m water depth is
characterized with relative density = 40 %, maximum void ratio =
1.0, minimum void ratio = 0.5, and specific gravity of soil solids =
2.67. Assume the specific gravity of sea water to be 1.03 and the
unit weight of fresh water to be 9.81
What would be the effective stress (rounded off to the nearest

integer value of kPa) at 30 m depth into the sand layer?
(A) 77 kPa (B) 273 kPa

(C) 268 kPa (D) 281 kPa
Ans:
0.4 =
= 769.39
u = 9.81 = 505.21
̅ = 264 ⁄
15) A sand layer found at sea floor under 20 m water depth is

characterized with relative density = 40 %, maximum void ratio =
1.0, minimum void ratio = 0.5, and specific gravity of soil solids =
2.67. Assume the specific gravity of sea water to be 1.03 and the
unit weight of fresh water to be 9.81
What would be the change in the effective stress (rounded off to

the nearest integer value of kPa at 30 m depth into the sand layer if
the sea water level permanently rises by 2 m?
(A) 19 kPa (B) 0 kPa

(C) 21 kPa (D) 22 kPa
Ans: (B)
JH ACADEMY 6
MODULE-45C
16) Steady state seepage is taking place through a soil element at Q, 2
m below the ground surface immediately downstream of the toe of
an earthen dam as shown in the sketch. The water level in a
piezometer installed at P, 500 mm above Q, is at the ground
surface. The water level in a piezometer installed at R, 500 mm
below Q, is 100 mm above the ground surface. The bulk saturated
unit weight of the soil is 18 kN/m3 and the unit weight of water is
9.81 kN/m3. The vertical effective stress (in kPa) at Q is
(A) 14.42 (B) 15.89 (C) 16.38 (D) 18.34
Ans:
Seepage force =
= 9.81
Effective stress = (18-9.81) 2-0.45 =15.93
17) A uniform sand stratum 2.5m thick has specific gravity of 2.62 and
a natural void ratio of 0.62. The hydraulic head required to cause
quick sand condition in the sand stratum is
a) 0.5m b) 1.5m
c) 2.5m d) 3.5m
Ans:
18) If the saturated density of a given soil is 2.1t/ , then the total
stress (T in t/
And the effective stress (E in t/ ) of a saturated soil stratum at a
depth of a depth of 4m will be
T E
a) 4.4 2.4
b) 5.4 3.4
c) 7.4 4.0
d) 8.4 4.4
Ans: ( D )
JH ACADEMY 7
MODULE-45C
19) Assertion (A): At depth z below the surface of a submerged soil,

water pressure is z and it is the stress caused by the water which
is called the “neutral stress”.
Reason (R): The water pressure acts equally in all directions and
transmits the same fully in grain to grain contact causing
compression in the soil.
Codes:
Ans: (A)
20) Assertion (A): Quick sand is not a type of sand but it is a condition
arising in a sand mass.
Reason (R): when the upward seepage pressure becomes equal to
the pressure due to submerged weight of a soil, the effective
pressure becomes zero.
Codes:
Ans: (A)
21) An upward hydraulic gradient i of a certain magnitude will initiate

the phenomenon of boiling in granular soils. The magnitude of this
gradient is
a) 0 ≤ i ≤ 0.5 b) 0.5 ≤ i ≤ 1.0
c) i d) 1 < i ≤ 2
Ans: (C)
22) Which one of the following equations correctly gives the

relationship between the specific gravity of a soil grains (G) and
the hydraulic (i) to initiate „quick‟ condition in a sand having a
void ratio of 0.5?
a) G = 0.5 i+1 b) G = i + 0.5

c) G = 1.5 i-1 d) G = 1.5 i - 1
Ans:
i= i= i.5i+1=G
JH ACADEMY 8
MODULE-45C
23) A sand deposit has a porosity of 1/3 and its specific gravity is 2.5.
the critical hydraulic gradient to cause sand boiling in the stratum
will be
a) 1.5 b) 1.25
c) 1.0 d) 0.75
Ans:
𝝶=
24) A sand deposit has a porosity of 0.375 and a specific gravity of 2.6,
the critical hydraulic gradient for the sand deposit is
a) 2.975 b) 2.225
c) 1 d) 0.75
Ans:
25) A stratum of 3.5m thick fine sand has a void ratio of 0.7 and G of
2.7. for a quick sand condition to develop in this strata, the water
flowing in upward direction would require a head of
a) 7m b) 5.56m
c) 5m d) 3.5m
Ans:
26) Which one of the following soil types is most likely to be subjected
to liquefaction under seismic forces?
a) Soft saturated clays

b) Loose saturated sands
c) Murum
d) Fractured rocky strata.
Ans: (B)
JH ACADEMY 9
MODULE-45C
27) Assertion (A): The possibility of quicksand condition occurring is
more on the downstream of a weir on a permeable foundation.
Reason (R): Seepage lines are directed upwards at the
downstream of such a weir.
Codes:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of a

Ans: (a)
28) Assertion (A): Effective vertical stress at some depth below a river
bed is unaffected by the water depth in the river.
Reason (R): Equal amounts of increase in total stress and pore
pressure will not change the effective stress.
Codes:

Ans: (a)
29) Assertion (A): permanent lowering of GWT results in settlements.

Reason (R): Increases in effective stress results in settlement of
soils.
Codes:

Ans: (a)
30) The total, neutral and effective vertical stresses(in t/ ) at a depth

of 5m below the surface of a fully saturated soil deposit with a
saturated density of 2 t/ ) would, respectively, be
a) 5,5 and 10 b) 5,10 and 5
c) 10, 5 and 10 d) 10,5 and 5
Ans:(d)
JH ACADEMY 10
MODULE-45C
31) Consider the following statements:
1. Quick condition and liquefaction of saturated sands are based
on similar phenomenon.
2. Quick condition is associated with only earth dams.
3. Liquefaction is possible in dry sand.
4. Liquefaction is associated with increase in pore water pressure
due to vibrations.
a) 2 and 4 b) 1 and 4
c) 1 and 2 d) 1,3 and 4
Ans: (D)
32) On which of the following factors does the behavior of sand mass
to cause liquefaction during an earthquake depend largely?
1. The number of stress cycles
2. The frequency and amplitude of vibrations of the earthquake
shock
3. Angle of internal friction of sand
4. Relative density of sand.
a) 1,2,3 and 4 b) 2,3 and 4
c) 1 and 3 d) 4 only
Ans: (b)
33) Which one of the following different types of submerged soils is

susceptible to liquefaction under earthquake shocks?
a) Dense sand b) soft clay
c) Loose silt d) fissured clay
Ans: (c)
34) Consider the following statements:

Liquefaction is a phenomenon
1. Observed in fine sands
2. Associated with development of positive pore pressure.
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 or 2
Ans: (c)
JH ACADEMY 11
MODULE-45C
35) In a 6m thick stratum of fine sand having submerged density of
11KN/ , quicksand condition occurred at a depth of 4.2m of
excavation. What is the depth of lowering of groundwater table
required for making an excavation 5m deep? Take density of water
as 10KN/ .
a) 3.85m b) 1.68m
c) 1.1m d) 0.897m
Ans:
( - )1.8 - h=0
1.1 1.8 – 10h = 0
h = 1.98m
1.0 – 10 =0
= 1.1m
Water table lowering = 1.98+0.8 – 1.1 = 1.68 m
36) Liquefaction of foundation soil during an earthquake shall not be

the reason for cracking of
a) Only floors in the building

b) Walls and roof in the building
c) Beams and columns in the building
d) Only balcony in the building
Ans: (d)
37) The porosity of a certain soil sample was found to be 80% and its
specific gravity was 2.7; the critical hydraulic gradient will be
estimated as
a) 0.34 b) 0.92
c) 1.0 d) 1.5
Ans:
e= =4
= = =0.34
JH ACADEMY 12
MODULE-45C
38) Compute the total, effective and pore water pressure at a depth of
20m below the bottom of a lake 6m deep. The bottom of lake
consists of soft clay with a thickness of more than 20m. The
average water content of the clay is 35% and specific gravity of the
soil may be assumed as 2.65.
a) 171.2
b) 234.5
c) 321.3
d) 123.4
Ans:
=260 ⁄
=431.2-260=171.2 ⁄
JH ACADEMY 13
MODULE- 46C
Consolidation
1. The time for a clay layer to achieve 85% consolidation is 10 years.

If the layer was half as thick, 10 times more permeable and 4 times
more compressible then the time that would be required to achieve
the same degree of consolidation is
(A) 1 year
(B) 5 years
(C) 12 years
(D) 16 years
Ans:
= but =
= .
( )
[ ] 1 year
2. A double draining clay layer, 6m thick, settles by 30mm in three

years under the influence of a certain loads. Its final consolidation
settlement has been estimated to be 120 mm. If a thin layer of sand
having negligible thickness is introduced at a depth of 1.5m below
the top surface, the final consolidation settlement of clay layer will
be
(a) 60 mm (b) 120 mm

(c) 240 mm (d) None of these
Ans:
Final consolidation settlement does not change with drainage
conditions so it is 120mm
JH ACADEMY 1
MODULE-46C
3. At a reclamation site for which the soil strata is shown in figure, a
3m thick layer of a fill material is to be laid instantaneously on the
top surface. If the coefficient of volume compressibility, m v for
clay is 2.2 x 10-4 m2/kN, the consolidation settlement of the clay
layer due to placing of fill material will be
(a) 69.5 mm (b) 139 mm

(c) 228 mm (d) 278 mm
Ans:
̅ = 21 3 = 63 ⁄
̅̅̅ = 10 1 + 10 8 = 90 ⁄
= 2.2 =
̅
= 0.1386m = 139 mm
4. A 6m thick clay layer undergoes 90% consolidation four times

faster under two-way drainage as compared to one-drainage. In an
identical clay layer of 15 m thickness, two-way drainage will be
faster as compared to one-way drainage by
(a) 8 times (b) 4 times

(c) 2.5 times (d) 2 times
Ans: (B)
5. Root time method is used to determine
(a) T, time factor

(b) cv' coefficient of consolidation
(c) av' coefficient of compressibility
(d) mv' coefficient of volume compressibility
Ans: (A)
JH ACADEMY 2
MODULE-46C
6. The average effective overburden pressure on 10 m thick
homogeneous saturated clay layer is 150 kPa. Consolidation test on
undisturbed soil sample taken from the clay layer showed that the
void ratio decreased from 0.6 to 0.5 by increasing the stress
intensity from 100 kPa to 300 kPa. (G=2.65)
The initial void ratio of the clay layer is
(a) 0.209 (b) 0.563

(c) 0.746 (d) 1.000
Ans :
7. The average effective overburden pressure on 10 m thick

homogeneous saturated clay layer is 150 kPa. Consolidation test on
undisturbed soil sample taken from the clay layer showed that the
void ratio decreased from 0.6 to 0.5 by increasing the stress
intensity from 100 kPa to 300 kPa. (G=2.65)
The total consolidation settlement of the clay layer due to the
construction of a structure imposing an additional stress intensity of
200 kPa is
(a) 0.10 m (b) 0.25 m
(c) 0.35 m (d) 0.50 m
Ans :
=
8. A saturated clay stratum draining both at the top and bottom

undergoes 50 percent consolidation in 16 years under an applied
load. If an additional drainage layer were present at the middle of
the clay stratum, 50 percent consolidation would occur in
(A) 2 years (B) 4 years (C) 8 years
(D) 16 years
Ans :
= 4 years
JH ACADEMY 3
MODULE-46C
9. Identical surcharges are placed at ground surface at sites X and Y,
with soil conditions shown below and water table at ground
surface. The silty clay layers at X and Yare identical. The thin sand
layer at Y is continuous and free-draining with a very large
discharge capacity. If primary consolidation at X is estimated to
complete in 36 months, what would be the corresponding time for
completion of primaryconsolidation at Y?
(A) 2.25 months (B) 4.5 months

(C) 9 months (D) 36 months
Ans :
10. A layer of normally consolidated, saturated silty clay of 1 m

thickness is subjected to one dimensional consolidation under a
pressure increment of 20 kPa. The properties of the soil are:
specific gravity = 2.7, natural moisture content = 45%,
compression index = 0.45, and recompression index = 0.05. The
initial average effective stress within the layer is 100 kPa.
Assuming Terzaghi’s theory to be applicable, the primary
consolidation settlement (rounded off to the nearest mm) is
(A) 2 mm (B) 9 mm
(C) 14 mm (D) 16 mm
Ans:
= 0.45. ( )
=0.016 m=16mm
JH ACADEMY 4
MODULE-46C
11. The natural void ratio of a saturated clay strata, 3m thick is 0.90.
The final void ratio of the clay at the end of consolidation is
expected to be 0.71. The total consolidation settlement of the clay
strata is
(a)30 cm (b)25 cm
(c) 20 cm (d)15 cm
Ans :
= 0.3 m = 30cm
12. The identical clay samples of the same size, designated as A and B
subjected to consolidation test under identical loading conditions.
Drainage takes place through one face in sample A and through
both the faces in sample B. 50% consolidation of sample A occurs
in 10 minutes. The time required for 50% consolidation to occur in
sample B will be
(a) 40 minutes (b) 10 minutes

(b) 5 minutes (d) 2.5 minutes
Ans :
13. A clay layer 5 m thick in field takes 300 days to attain 50%
consolidation with condition of double drainage. If the same clay
layer is underlain by hard rock then the time taken to attain 50%
consolidation will be
(a) 300 days (b) 600 days (c) 900 days (d) 1200 days
Ans :
300
14. The change that take place during the process consolidation of a
saturated clay would include
(a) An increase in pore water pressure and an increase in effective

pressure
(b) An increase in pore water pressure and a decrease in effective
pressure
(c) A decrease in pore water pressure and a decrease in effective
pressure
(d) A decrease in pore water pressure and an increase in
effective pressure
Ans : ( D )
JH ACADEMY 5
MODULE-46C
15. Match List-I (Property) with List-II (Slope of the curve) and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
A. Coefficient of compressibility
B.Compressionindex
C. Coefficient of sub grade modulus
List-II
1. Stress- deformation
2. Stress-void ratio
3. Volume –pressure
4. Log stress-void ratio
Codes:
A B C
a) 4 2 1
b) 4 3 2
c) 2 4 1
d) 3 4 1
Ans : ( C )
16. The initial and final void ratios of a clay sample in a consolidation
test are 1 and 0.5, respectively. If initial thickness of the sample is
2.4 cm, then its final thickness will be
(a)1.3 cm (b)1.8 cm
(c)1.9 cm (d)2.2 cm
Ans :
17. Which one of the following soils has stress-strain response similar
to that of dense sand? (OCR stands for over consolidation ratio)
(a)Over consolidated clays having high OCR

(b) consolidated clays having low OCR
(c)Normally consolidated clays
(d)Unconsolidated clays
Ans:(A)
18. Terzaghi’s consolidation theory is applicable to one-dimensional

consolidation test
(a) For small load increment ratios

(b) For large load increment ratios
(c) For a load increment ration of nearly one
(d) In situations where there is no excess pore pressure
Ans: (A)
JH ACADEMY 6
MODULE-46C
1. The degree of a saturated soil mass subjected to pressure remains

unchanged during the process of consolidation.
2. Secondary consolidation is due to the plastic deformation of the
soil when the pore fluid is not subjected to any excess pressure.
3. Primary consolidation is independent of the coefficient of
permeability of the soil but depends on the decrease in void volume
due to air escape.
(a)1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1,2 and 3
Ans : ( A )
20. Assertion (A): For a fully saturated soil, the pore pressure
parameter is equal to zero.
Reason(R): The compressibility of water is much smaller than the
coefficient of volume compressibility.
Codes:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not a Correct explanation of A.
Ans : ( D)
21. Match List-IwithList-II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists (notations have their usual meaning):
List-I List-II
A. Coefficient of 1. mv
compressibility
B. Compression index 2. Cvt/H2
C. Time factor 3. aV
D. Coefficient of 4. Cc
volume compressibility
Codes:
A B C D
a) 3 2 4 1
b) 1 2 4 3
c) 1 4 2 3
d) 3 4 2 1
Ans : ( D)
JH ACADEMY 7
MODULE-46C
22. Reduction in volume of soil primary due to squeezing out of water
from the voids is called
(a) primary consolidation
(b) plastic flow

(c) creep
(d) secondary consolidation
Ans : ( A )
23. The settlement analysis for a clay layer draining from top and
bottom shows a settlement of 2.5 cm in 4 years and an ultimate
settlement of 10 cm. However detailed subsurface investigation
reveals that there is no drainage at the bottom. The ultimate
settlement in this condition will be
(a) 2.5 cm (b)5 cm

(c) 10 cm (d)20 cm
Ans : ( C )
24. In soil consolidation process, the following events take place after
loading:
1. Decrease in excess pore pressure.
2. Increase in total stress.
3. Development of excess pore pressure.
4. Increase in effective stress.
The correct sequence of these events is
(a)3, 2, 1, 4 (b)2, 3, 1, 4
(c)2, 3, 4, 1 (d)3, 2, 4, 1
Ans : ( B )
25. A saturated clay layer with double drainage takes 5 years to attain
90% degree of consolidation under a structure. If the same layer
were to be single drained, what would be the time(in years)
required to attain the same consolidation under the same loading
conditions?
(a)10 (b)15
(c)20 (d)25
Ans :
5 = 20
26. Which one of the following statements regarding coefficient of

consolidation CV is correct?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Ans : ( A )
JH ACADEMY 8
MODULE-46C
27. A wooden bridge in Assam failed and was observed to have arched
up in the middle after the earthquake. The right abutment settled 40
cm and left abutment 30 cm. The bridge was supported on wooden
piles, which floated up during the earthquake. The most probable
cause of failure is
(a) shear failure of soil below abutments.

(b) Excessive settlement below abutments due to increased forces.
(c) Liquefaction of foundation soil below abutments and piles.
(d) Failure of abutments due to dynamic earth pressure behind
abutments.
Ans : ( C )
28. Consider the following statements: Theory of consolidation

predicts settlement due to primary consolidation; it cannot include
settlement due to initial compression nor due to secondary
consolidation. This happens because of the following assumptions
made by the theory:
1. Soil grains and water are incompressible.
2. Soil is fully saturated.
3. Compression takes place in vertical direction only.
4. Time lag in consolidation is entirely due to low permeability of
soil.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4

Ans : ( D )
29. The one dimensional theory of consolidation proposed by Terzaghi

derives its name due to the fact that
(a) only vertical dimension of the soil sample is used for

consolidation test and lateral dimensions are neglected
(b) water in the soil sample in conventional consolidometer
escapes in the lateral directions resulting into settlements only
in vertical direction
(c) normal stress on the sample is applied in only in (vertical )
direction
(d) lateral movements of soil grains are not permitted across any
vertical settlements to account for the decrease in volume due
to escape of water from soil sample
Ans : ( D )
JH ACADEMY 9
MODULE-46C
30. For a certain loading condition, a saturated clay layer undergoes
40% consolidation in a period of 178 days. What would be the
additional time required for further 20% consolidation to occur?
(a) 89 days (b) 222.5 days
(c) 329.5 days (d) 400.5 days
Ans :
31. If the time required for 60% consolidation of a remoulded soil

sample of clay with single drainage is ‘t’, then what is the time
required to consolidate the same sample of clay with the same
degree of consolidation but with double drainage?
(a) 4t (b)2t (c)t/2 (d)t/4
Ans : ( D )
32. If is increment of pressure on a normally consolidated saturated

soil mass, as per Terzaghi’s theory at the instant of application of
pressure increment i.e., when time t = 0, what is the pore pressure
development in the soil mass?
(a)Zero (b)Very much less than
(c)Equal to (d)Greater than

Ans : ( C )
JH ACADEMY 10
MODULE-46C
33. Match List-I (Term) with List-II (Definition) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists (where ‘e’ is void
ratio, ‘p’ is effective vertical stress, ‘k’ is permeability and is
unit weight of water):
List-I
A. Compression index, Cc
B. Coefficient of compressibility, a v
C. Coefficient of volume change, mv
D. Coefficient of consolidation, Cv
List-II
1. Slope of the e-p curve defined as /

2. Slope of e- log p curve given by [- / (logp)]
3. Term defined as k/(mv, )
4. Slope of the e-p curve defined as - /
Codes:
A B C D
a) 2 1 4 3
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 2 3 4 1
d) 4 1 2 3
Ans : ( A )
34. A clay layer 3 m deep is sandwiched by a pervious material. The

soil reaches 90% consolidation in 3 years. At another site, the same
clay layer is bounded by impervious boundary at the bottom and
sand at the top. What is the time taken by this layer to reach 90%
settlement?
(a) 9 years (b) 12 years
(c) 15 years (d) 21 years0

Ans :
3
35. In a consolidation test void ratio decreased from 0.80 to 0.70 when
the load was changed from 40 KN/m2 to 80 KN/m2. What is the
compression index?
(a) 0.14 (b) 0.16
(c) 0.33 (d) 0.66

Ans :
= 0.33
JH ACADEMY 11
MODULE-46C
36. In a consolidation test the sample tested has height H; water
constant is W; specific gravity of solids G. After increasing the
loading by an increment , the height decrease is . Which one
of the following expresses the corresponding change in void
ratio ?
( )
(a) ( )
(b)
( )
(c) (d)
( )
Ans : ( B )

1. Coefficients of consolidation normally increases with decreasing
liquid limit of clay.
2. The larger the value of coefficient of consolidation, the longer it
takes for full consolidation to occur.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : ( A )
38. During the consolidation of a clay layer, if instead of double

drainage, the drainage is allowed at single face only, the rate of
compression will be
(a) 4 times slower (b) 4 times faster
(c) 2 times slower (d) 2 times faster

Ans : ( A )
39. A clay sample, originally 26 mm thick at a void ratio of 1.22, was

subjected to a compressive load. After the clay sample was
completely consolidated, its thickness was measured to be 24 mm.
What is the final void ratio?
(a)1.322 (b)1.421 (c)1.311 (d)1.050
Ans :
= e=1.050
40. A 1 m thick layer of saturated clay, drained at both faces by 10 cm

in one year. If a thin layer of pervious soil introduced in the middle
of this layer, then what will be the period during which the
settlement of 10 cm will be completed?
(a)4 years (b)0.5 years (c)0.25 years (d)2 years
Ans : ( C )
JH ACADEMY 12
MODULE-46C
41. Considerable loss of shear strength due to shock or disturbance is
exhibited by
(a) Under-consolidated clays (b)Normally consolidated clays

(c)Over-consolidated clays (d)Organic soil
Ans: (a)
42. During consolidation process of clayey soils, indicate the sequence

of occurrence of the following events in the order from first to last
1. Load being taken up by the pore-water 2. Load being taken up
by the soil grains 3. Drainage of water from the pores of the soil
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 1
(c) 1, 3 and 2 (d) 2, 1 and 3

Ans : ( C )
43. If, instead of single drainage, the number of drainage faces is

increased to two in responding soils, the rate of compression will
be
(a)4 times slower (b) 2 times slower
(c) 4 times faster (d) 2 times faster
Ans : ( C )
44. Settlement due to creep in soils is contingent on
(a)Primary consolidation
(b)Secondary consolidation
(c)Initial consolidation
(d)Compaction settlement
Ans : ( A )

1. mathematically speaking, the time taken for 100% consolidation
is infinite.
2. The time factor for a particular average degree of consolidation

depends upon the distribution of initial excess hydrostatic
pressure.
3. Secondary consolidation obeys Terzaghi’s one-dimensional

theory of consolidation.
(a)1, 2 and 3 (b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only (d)1 and 3 only

Ans : ( D )
JH ACADEMY 13
MODULE-46C
1.
Consolidation time increases with increasing compressibility.
2. Consolidation time decreases with increasing permeability.
3. Consolidation time is dependent on the magnitude of stress
increase.
(c)2 and 3 only (d)1 and 3 only

Ans : ( B )
47. The coefficient of consolidation is used for
a) Establishing the duration of primary consolidation

b) Establishing the amount of settlement for a load increment
c) Determining the depth to which the soil is stressed when loads
are applied on the surface of a soil deposit
d) Determining the pre-consolidation pressure for soil deposits
known to be over-consolidated.
Ans : ( A )
48. A standard Oedometer test in the laboratory indicated that 0.02 m

thick clay specimen took 0.5 day to undergo 90% primary
consolidation. How many days will a 2m thick layer of identical
clay sandwiched between sand layers and subjected to an identical
stress increment take to undergo the same?
a) 5000 days
b) 4000 days
c) 3000 days
d) 2000 days
Ans :
=1 m
= =
JH ACADEMY 14
MODULE-46C
49. The slope of the e-log P curve for a soil mass gives
a) Co-efficient of permeability
b) Coefficient of consolidation
c) Compression index
d) Coefficient of volume compressibility
Ans : ( C )
50. In the laboratory test on a clay sample of thickness 25mm drained

at top only, 50% consolidation occurred in 11 minutes. Find the
time required for the corresponding clay layer in the field 3m thick
and drained at top and bottom, to undergo 70% consolidation.
Assume
a) 56.5 days
b) 60 days
c) 45 days
d) 34 days
Ans:
JH ACADEMY 15
MODULE-46C
51. A clay layer 8m thick is subjected to a pressure of 70 KN/ . If

the layer has a double drainage and undergoes 50% consolidation
( ) in one year. Determine the coefficient of
consolidation? If the K is 0.04 m/year find settlement in one year.
Use KN/
a) 0.125 m
b) 0.728 m
c) 1.728 m
d) 1.500 m
Ans :
0.196 = =3.316 ⁄
⁄
⁄
52. The time for a clay layer to achieve 90% consolidation is 15 years.
The time required to achieve 90% consolidation, if the layer were
twice as thick, 3 times more permeable and 4 times more
compressible would be
a) 70 years
b) 75 years
c) 80 years
d) 85 years
Ans :
=
= 80
53. Consolidation in soils

a) Is a function of effective stress
b) Does not depend on the present stress
c) Is a function of the pore water pressure
d) Is a function of the total stress
Ans: (a)
JH ACADEMY 16
MODULE-46C
54. A building is constructed on the ground surface beneath which

there is a 2m thick saturated clay layer sand witched between two
highly pervious layers. The building starts setting with time if
=2.5 cm/s. in how many days will the building reach half
of its final settlement?
a) 71.2 days
b) 67.7 days
c) 91.2 days
d) 45.2 days
Ans :
0.197 =
=91.2 days
55. In an Oedometer test, a specimen of saturated clay 19 mm reaches

50% consolidation in 20 minutes. How long it would take a layer of
this clay 5m thick to reach the same degree of consolidation under
the same stress and drainage conditions? How long would it take
for the clay layer to reach 30% consolidation?
a) 234 days
b) 346 days
c) 546 days
d) 123 days
Ans:
= 1385041 min
, =
JH ACADEMY 17
MODULE-46C
56. A normally consolidated clay layer settled by 20 mm when the
effective stress was increased from 25 KN/ to 50 KN/ . What
will be the settlement when the effective stress is increased from 50
KN/ to 100 KN/
a) 20 mm
b) 30 mm
c) 40 mm
d) 50 mm
Ans:
57. Certain clay has a thickness of 5 m. after 1 year when the clay was
50% consolidated, 8cm of settlement had occurred. For similar clay
and loading conditions, how much settlement would occur at the
end of 1 year and 4 years respectively, if the thickness of this new
layer were 25 m.
a) 40cm , 80 cm
b) 30cm , 80 cm
c) 20cm , 80 cm
d) 40cm , 70 cm
Ans :
=
Settlement at the end of 17 year

0.196 =
0.196
,
v = 0.999 = 1
JH ACADEMY 18
MODULE- 47C
Compaction
1. Compaction of an embankment is carried out in 500 mm thick

layers. The rammer used for compaction has a foot area of 0.05 sq.
m and the energy imparted in every drop of rammer is 400 Nm.
Assuming 50% more energy in each pass over the compacted area
due to overlap, the number of passes required to develop
compactive energy equivalent to Indian Standard light compaction
for each layer would be
(a) 10 (b) 16
(c) 20 (d) 26
Ans:
Volume =0.5
As per Indian standard light compact compaction effort
required is 593 ⁄
Energy required=0.025
Energy impacted = 400
No. of passes required =
2. A clayey soil has a maximum dry density of 16 kN/m3 and

optimum moisture content of 12%. A contractor during the
construction of core of an earth dam obtained the dry density 15.2
kN/m3 and water content 11%. This construction is acceptable
because.
(a) the density is less than the maximum dry density and water
content is on dry side of optimum.
(b) the compaction density is very low and water content is less
than 12%.
(c) the compaction is done on the dry side of the optimum.
(d) both the dry density and water content of the compacted soil
are within the desirable limits
Ans:(C)
JH ACADEMY 1
MODULE-47C
3. In a standard proctor test, 1.8 kg of moist soil was filling the mould
(volume = 944 cc) after compaction. A soil sample weighing 23 g
was taken from the mould and overdried for 24 hours at a
temperature of 1100C. Weight of the dry sample was found to be 20
g. Specific gravity of soil solids is G = 2.7. The theoretical
maximum value of the dry unit weight of the soil at that water
content is equal to
(a) 4.67 kN/m3 (b) 11.5 kN/m3

(c) 16.26 kN/m3 (d) 18.85 kN/m3
4. Compaction by vibratory roller is the best method of compaction in

case of
(A) Moist silty sand

(B) Well graded dry sand
(C) Clay of medium compressibility
(D) Silt of high compressibility
Ans:(B)
5. Two series of compaction tests were performed in the laboratory on

an inorganic clayey soil employing two different levels of
compaction energy per unit volume of soil. With regard to the
above tests, the following two statements are made. I The optimum
moisture content is expected to be more for the tests with higher
energy. II The maximum dry density is expected to be more for the
tests with higher energy. The CORRECT option evaluating the
above statements is
(A) Only I is TRUE

(B) Only II is TRUE
(C) Both I and II are TRUE
(D) Neither I nor II is TRUE
Ans: (B)
JH ACADEMY 2
MODULE-47C
6. Following statements are made on compacted soils, wherein DS

stands for the soils compacted on dry side of optimum moisture
content and WS stands for the soils compacted on wet side
ofoptimum moisture content. Identify the incorrect statement.
(A) Soil structure is flocculated onDS and dispersed on WS.

(B) Construction pore water pressure is low on DS and high on
WS.
(C) On drying, shrinkage is high on DS and low on WS.
(D) On access to water, swelling is high on DS and low on WS.
Ans:(C)
7. For conducting a Standard Proctor Compaction Test, the weight of

hammer (P in kg), the fall of hammer (Q in mm), the number of
blows per layer (R) and the number of layers(S) required are
respectively
P Q R S
(a) 5.89 550 50 3
(b) 4.89 450 25 3
(c) 3.60 310 35 4
(d) 2.60 310 25 3
Ans:(D)
8. Sheep-foot rollers are recommended for compacting
(a) Granular soils (b) Cohesive soils

(c) Hard rock (d) Any type of soil
Ans: (B)
9. Match List-I(Flow type) with List-II (Flow characteristics) and

select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I
A. Transient flow
B. Turbulent flow
C. Steady-state flow
D. Laminar flow
List-II
1. Seepage flow is a function of time
2. Hydraulic gradient with square of velocity
3. Flow at low velocity
4. Governing equation in 2-D is
Codes:
A B C D
a) 1 2 4 3
b) 3 2 1 4
c) 1 2 3 4
d) 2 1 4 3
Ans: (A)
JH ACADEMY 3
MODULE-47C
10. Match List-I (Roller type) with List-II (Soil type) and select the
List-I
A. Pneumatic roller
B. Smooth Wheeled roller
C. Sheep foot roller
D. Vibratory roller
List-II
1. Cohesive and granular soils

2. Plastic soils of moderate cohesion
3.Cohesionless soils
4.Silty soils of low plasticity
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 2 1 3
b) 3 1 2 4
c) 4 1 2 3
d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (C )
11. In a compaction test if the compacting effort is increased, it will

result in
(a) Increase in maximum dry density and OMC

(b) Increase in maximum dry density but OMC remains unchanged
(c) Increase in maximum dry density and decrease in OMC
(d) No change in maximum dry density but decrease in OMC
Ans: (A)
12. Match List-I (Equipment) with List-II(Use) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I
A. Vibratory rollers
B. Sheep foot rollers
C. Frog hammers
D. Vibrofloats
List-II
1. To compact soils in confined areas and at corners
2. To compact road and railway embankments of sandy soils
3. To densify sandy soils over a large area and to a larger depth
4. To compact clayey soil fills
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 2 1 3
b) 4 2 3 1
c) 2 4 1 3
d) 2 4 3 1
Ans: (C)
JH ACADEMY 4
MODULE-47C
13. Soil is compacted at which one of the following when a higher

compactive effort produces highest increase in dry density?
(a) Optimum water content

(b) Dry side of the optimum moisture content
(c) Wet side of the OMC.
(d) Saturation moisture content
Ans: (B)
14. Assertion (A)The clay core an earthdam is usually compacted on

the wet side of OMC.
Reason (R). Compaction on the wet side of OMC reduces
permeability and prevents cracking in core.
Codes:
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R in not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true nut r is false
(d)A is false but R is true
Ans: (A)
15. Match Lists-I (Equipment) with List-II (Purpose) and select the
List-I
A. Sheep foot rollers
B. Frog hammer
C. Vibratory roller
List-II
1. To densitycohesion less soils to relatively larger depths
2. To compact lumpy cohesive soil fills
3. To compact soils at corners and places which bigger rollers
cannot access
4. To compact cohesion less soils of shallow depth
Codes:
A B C
a) 4 1 2
b) 2 1 4
c) 4 3 2
d) 2 3 4
Ans: (B)
JH ACADEMY 5
MODULE-47C
16. Match List-IWith List-II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
List-I
A. Smooth wheel rollers
C. Pneumatic tyred rollers
D. Rammers
List-II
1. Most suitable for compacting cohesive soils
2. Most suited for compacting coarse grained soils
3.Used for compacting soils in continued places
4. Suitable for both cohesion-less soils of shallow depth
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 2 1 4 3
c) 4 1 2 3
d) 2 3 4 1
Ans: (B)
17. Match List-I (Type of soil) with List-II (Compaction equipment)

and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I
A. Wet clays and silts
B. Crushed rock
C. Fill soils
D. Sands
List-II
1. Smoothwheel rollers
2. Vibrators
3. Pneumatic tired rollers
4. Grid rollers
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 2 3 1
b) 3 1 4 2
c) 4 1 3 2
d) 3 2 4 1
Ans: (B)
18. The following soils are compacted at the same compactive effort in
the field. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the
increasing order of their maximum dry density?
a) Salty clay – Clay – Sand - Gravel sand clay mixture

b) Sand- Gravel sand clay mixture – Salty clay-Clay
c) Clay-Salty clay –Sand – Gravel sand clay mixture
d) Sand –Gravel sand clay mixture –Clay –Salty clay
Ans: (C )
JH ACADEMY 6
MODULE-47C
19. Consider the following statements: On addition of lime to a clay

soil, generally
1. MDD and strength both increase
2. MDD decreases but strength increases
3. MDD and OMC both increase
which of these statements is correct?
(a) 1 only (b)2 only

(c) 3 only (d)None of these
Ans: (a)
20. An increase in compaction effort will lead to which of the

following?
a) Decrease in both the optimum moisture content (OMC) and

maximum dry density
b) Decrease in the optimum moisture content (OMC) and
increase in the maximum dry density.
c) Increase in the optimum moisture content (OMC) and
decreases in the maximum dry density.
d) Increase in both optimum moisture content (OMC) and
maximum dry density.
Ans: (B)
21. In laboratory compaction tests, the optimum moisture content of

soil decreases
a) with increases of compaction energy and with decrease of

coarse grains in the soil
b) with decrease of compaction energy and with increase of
coarse grains in the soil
c) With increase of both compaction energy and coarse grains in
the soil
d) With decrease of both compaction energy and coarse grains in
the soil.
Ans: (C)
22. Consider the following: 1. Increase in shear strength and bearing

capacity2. Increase in slope stability
3. Decrease in settlement of soil
4. Decrease in permeability
which of the above with respect to compaction of soil is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (D)
JH ACADEMY 7
MODULE-47C
23. When the compaction energy increases the compaction of soils:
(a) Both of OMC and maximum dry density decrease

(b) Both of OMC and maximum dry density increase
(c) OMC decreases but maximum dry density increases
(d) OMC increases but maximum dry density decreases
Ans: (C)
24. Assertion (A): The efficiency of the sheep’s foot roller depends on
the weight of the roller and the number of ‘feet’ in contact with the
ground at a time.
Reason (R):Sheep’s foot rollers are considered most suitable for
compacting clayey soils.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (B)
25. Assertion (A): In a compaction test at and OMC, the degree

of saturation in never 100%.
Reason (R): It is not possible to expel all the air entrapped in soil
by compaction
Codes:

(c)A is true nut r is false
Ans: (A)
26. In a compaction test, as the compaction effort is increased, the

optimum moisture content
a) Decreases
b) Remain same
c) Increases
d) Increases first there after decreases
Ans: (A)
JH ACADEMY 8
MODULE-47C
27. In a compaction test, G, W, S, and e represent the specific gravity,

water content, degree of saturation and void ratio of the soil sample
respectively. If represents unit weight of water and
represents the dry unit weight of the soil, the equation for zero-air
voids line is
a)
b)
c) =
d)
Ans: (B)
28. A compaction of an embankment is carried out in 300mm thick

horizontal layers. The rammer used for compaction has the foot of
area 0.05 sq.m. The energy developed per drop of the hammer is 40
kg-m. Assuming 50% more energy I each pass due to overlap,
calculate the number of passes required to develop compactive
energy equivalent to Indian standard (light compaction for each
layer).
a) 16
b)
c)
d)
Ans:
Volume = 0.3
Energy required =0.015
Energy per pam =40
No of passess =
29. Match List-I (Equipment) with List-II(Use) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I
A. Vibratory rollers
C. Frog hammers
D. Vibrofloats
List-II
1. To compact soils in confined areas and at corners
2. To compact road and railway embankments of sandy soils
3. To densify sandy soils over a large area and to a larger depth
4. To compact clayey soil fills
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d ) 2 4 3 1
Ans: (C)
JH ACADEMY 9
MODULE- 48C
Shear Strength
1. In a drained tri-axial compression test, a saturated specimen of a

cohesion less sand fails under a deviator stress of 3 kgf/ when the
cell pressure is 1 kgf/ . The effective angle of shearing resistance of
sand is about
(A) 37° (B) 45° (C) 53° (D) 20°
Ans :
+3 =4 c = 0 for sand
2. In a tri-axial test carried out on cohesion-less soil sample with a cell

pressure of 20 kPa, the observed value of applied stress at the point of
failure was 40 kPa. The angle of internal friction of the soil is
(A) 10°
(B) 15°
(C) 25°
(D) 30°
Ans :
3. In an un-drained tri-axial test on a saturated clay, the Poisson's ratio

is
(a) ( )
(b) ( )
(c ) (d)
Ans :
⁄
Poisson’s ratio = ( )⁄ ( )
JH ACADEMY 1
MODULE-48C
4. For a tri-axial shear test conducted on a sand specimen at a confining

pressure of 100 kN/m2 under drained conditions, resulted in a deviator
stress (s1-s3) at failure of 100 kN/m2. The angle of shearing resistance of
the soil would be
(a) 18.43 (b) 19.47

(c) 26.56 (d) 30
Ans :
5. A sample of saturated cohesion-less soil tested in a drained tri-axial

compression test showed an angle of internal friction of 30 . The
deviatoric stress at failure for the sample at a confining pressure of 200
kPa is equal to
(a) 2000 kPa (b) 400kPa

(c) 600 kPa (d) 800 kPa
Ans:
( )⁄
0.5 =
6. A clay soil sample is tested in a tri-axial apparatus in consolidated-

drained conditions at a cell pressure of 100 . What will be the
pore water pressure at a deviator stress of 40 ?
(a) 0 kN/m2 (b) 20 kN/m2

(c) 40 kN/m2 (d) 60 kN/m2
Ans: (A)
Pore water pressure dissipates in CD test
7. A direct shear test was conducted on a cohesion-less soil (c=0)

specimen under a normal stress of 200kN/m2. The specimen failed at a
shear stress of 100kN/m2. The angle of internal friction of the soil
(degrees) is
(A) 26.6 (B) 29.5

(C) 30.0 (D) 32.6
Ans:
8. For a sample of dry, cohesion-less soil with friction angle, , the failure
plane will be inclined to the major principal plane by an angle equal to
(A) (B) 45 (C) 45 (D) 45
Ans: (C)
JH ACADEMY 2
MODULE-48C
9. A field vane shear testing instrument as shown was inserted completely

into a deposit of soft, saturated silty clay with the vane rod vertical such
that the top of the blades were 500 mm below the ground surface. Upon
application of a rapidly increasing torque about the vane rod, the soil
was found to fail when the torque reached 4.6 Nm. Assuming
mobilization of un-drained shear strength on all failure surfaces to be
uniform and the resistance mobilized on the surface of the vane rod to
be negligible, what would be the peak un-drained shear strength
(rounded off to the nearest integer value of kPa) of the soil?
(A) 5kPa (B)10 kPa (C) 15 kPaD) 20 kPa
Ans:
( )
4.6 * +c
C=1 ⁄
10. The effective stress friction angle of a saturated, cohesion-less soil is

38 . The ratio of shear stress tonormal effective stress on the failure
plane is
(A) 0.781 (B) 0.616 (C) 0.488 (D) 0.438
JH ACADEMY 3
MODULE-48C
11. In an unconfined compression test on a saturated clay, the un-drained

shear strength was found to be 6 t/m2. If a sample of the same soil is
tested in and un drained condition in tri axial compression at a cell
pressure of 20 t/m2, then the major principal stress at failure will be
(a) 48 t/m2 (b) 32 t/m2

(c) 24 t/m2 (d) 12 t/m2
Ans:
( )
12. A laboratory vane shear test apparatus is used to determine the shear
strength of a clay sample and only one end of the vane takes part in
shearing the soil. If T = applied torque, H = height of vane and D =
diameter of the vane, then shear strength of the clay is given by
(a) (b)
* + * +
(c) (d)
* + * +
Ans:
T =( )
* +
13. Which of the following laboratory tri axial test parameters should one
specify to be carried out in connection with the initial stability of
footing on saturated clay?
1.
2.
3.
(a)1 alone (b)2 alone
(c)1 and 3 (d)1, 2 and 3
Ans: ( A)
JH ACADEMY 4
MODULE-48C
14. In an unconfined compression test on stiff clay, if the failure plane

made an angle of 520 to the horizontal, what would be the angle of
shearing resistance?
(a)160 (b)140 (c)120 (d)130
Ans:
45+
( ) =
15. Which one of the following conditions is valid in case of unconfined

compression test in comparison to tri axial test?
(a) Minor principal stress = 0
(b)Minor principal stress = 0.5 X major principal stress
(c)Minor principal stress = major principal stress
(d)Major principal stress = 3 X minor principal stress
Ans: ( A )
16. Unconfined compression test is most suitable for determining the

1. Sensitivity of clays
2. Settlement of embankments
3. ‘Strength’ of partially saturated clay sample
4. ‘Strength’ of fully saturated clay sample
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d)1 and 4 only
Ans: ( D )
17. A shear test was conducted on a soil sample. At failure the ratio of
to is equal to unity. Which one of the following shear tests
represents this condition?
(a) Drained tri-axial compression test

(b) Un-drained tri-axial compression test
(c) Un-drained tri-axial compression test
(d) Unconfined compression test
Ans: ( D )
JH ACADEMY 5
MODULE-48C
18. In a tri axial test at failure, major principal stress was 180 kPa, minor
principal stress was 100 kPa, and pore pressure was 20 kPa. The tangent
of the angle of shearing resistance of the sandy soil tested is
(a)1/3 (b)2/7
(c)1/2/√ (d)1/6
Ans:
( )⁄
( )⁄
√
19. A soil sample tested in a tri axial compression apparatus failed when the
total maximum and minimum principal stresses were 100 kPa and 40
kPa, respectively. The pore pressure measured at failure was 10 kPa.
The effective principal stress ratio at failure is
(a)2.5 (b)3.0
(c)2.75 (d)2.0
Ans:
20. Assertion (A) Shear parameters ‘C’ and vary with drainage
conditions of shear test.
Reason (R): Shear parameter ‘C’ and
are dependent on water content of soil.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R in not a
correct explanation of A
(c) A is true nut R is false
Ans : ( A )
JH ACADEMY 6
MODULE-48C
21. A tri axial test was conducted on a granular soil. At failure = 4. The
effective minor principal stress at failure was 100 kPa. The values of
approximate and the principal stress difference at failure are,
respectively
(a)450 and 570 kPa (b)400 and 400 kPa
(c)370 and 300 kPa (d)300 and 200kPa
Ans :
( )⁄
22. A dry sand specimen is put through a tri axial test. The cell pressure is
50 kPa and the deviator stress at failure is 100 kPa, the angle of internal
friction for the sand specimen is
(a) 150 (b)300 (c)370 (d)450
Ans :
23. A soil fails under an axial vertical stress of 100 KN/m2 in unconfined
compression test. The failure plane makes an angle of 50 0 with the
horizontal. The shear parameters ‘c’ and ‘ ’ respectively will be
a) 41. 9 KN/m2, 00 b) 50.0 KN/m2, 00

c) 41.9 KN/m2, 100 d) 41. 9 KN/m2, 100
Ans:
JH ACADEMY 7
MODULE-48C
24. A clay soil specimen when tested in unconfined condition gave an

unconfined compressive strength of 100 KN/m2.A specimen of the
same clay with the same initial condition is subjected to a UU tri axial
test under a cell pressure of 100 KN/m2. Axial stress (in KN/m2) at
failure would be
(a)150 (b)200
(c)250 (d)300
Ans :(B)
25. If ‘S’ is the shear strength, ‘C’ and are shear strength parameters, and
‘ ’ is the normal stress at failure, then Coulomb’s equation for shear
strength of the soil can be represented by
(a) C = S + (b) C = S -
c) S = (d) S =
Ans :
S =C +
26. Assertion (A): Stress paths can be plotted for stress conditions during
tri axial test.
Reason (R): It is not possible to control
drainage in a tri axial test.
Codes:
Ans : (C)
27. What does the confining pressure used in tri axial compression tests on
an undisturbed soil sample represent?
a) The in-situ total normal stress

b) The in-situ lateral stress
c) The in-situ effective principal stress
d) The in-situ shear stress
Ans: (B)
JH ACADEMY 8
MODULE-48C
28. In the consolidated drained test on a saturated soil sample, pore water
pressure is zero during
(a) Consolidation stage only

(b) Shearing stage only
(c) Both consolidation and shearing stages
(d) Loading stage
Ans: (C)
29. In Mohr’s diagram, a point above Mohr’s envelope indicates
(a) Imaginary condition

(b) Safe condition
(c) Imminent failure condition
(d) Condition of maximum obliquity
Ans: (A)
30. Assertion (A): In the case; of unconfined compression test, Mohr’s

circle passes through the origin.
Reason (R): The major principal stress is
zero.
Codes:
a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b). Both A and R are true but R in not a correct explanation of A
c). A is true nut r is false
d). A is false but R is true
Ans :( C )
31. Shear failure of soils takes place when
a). The angle of obliquity is maximum

b).Maximum cohesion is reached in cohesive soils
c). reaches its maximum value in cohesion less soils
d). residual strength of the soil is exhausted
Ans:( A )
32. A CD tri axial test was conducted on a granular soil. At failure was
3.0. The effective minor principal stress of failure was 75 kPa. The
principal stress difference at failure will be
(a) 75 kPa (b) 150 kPa

(c) 225 kPa (d) 300 kPa
Ans:
=225
=150KPa
JH ACADEMY 9
MODULE-48C
33. In a direct shear test, the shear stress and normal stress on a dry sand
sample at failure are 0.6 kg/cm2 and 1 kg/cm2 respectively. The angle of
internal friction of the sand will be nearly
(a) 250 (b) 310

(c) 370 (d) 430
:
34. Laboratory vane shear test can also be used to determine
(a) Shear parameters of silty sand

(b) Shear parameters of sandy clay
(c) Liquid limit of silty clay
(d) Plastic limit of clayey silt
Ans: (B)
35. Which one of the following expressions represents the shear strength of
soil at point X? Angle of shear resistance of soil is and symbols
stand for unit weight of water, saturated soil,
submerged soil and dry soil respectively.
(a)
(b)[ ( ) ]
(c)
(d)( )
Ans: ( C )
36. Which one of the following is the appropriate tri axial test to assess the
immediate stability of an unloading problem, such as an excavation of a
clay slope?
(a) UU test (b) CU test

(c) CD test (d) Un-consolidated drained tests
Ans: ( B )
JH ACADEMY 10
MODULE-48C
37. Consider the following features of direct shear test:

1. Failure takes place on the predetermined plane.
2. It is a quick test.
3. Drainage conditions cannot be changed.
4. Failure of the sample is progressive.
Which of these are the disadvantages of direct shear test?
(a)1, 2 and 3 (b)1, 3 and 4
(c)1, 2 and 4 (d)3 and 4
Ans: (A)
38. A footing is resting on a fully saturated clayey strata. For checking the
initial stability, shear parameters are used from which one of the
following?
(a) Consolidation non-drained test

(b) Unconsolidated drained test
(c) Unconsolidated non-drained test
(d) Unconsolidated non-drained test with pore pressure measurement
Ans: (A)
39. For the determination of shear strength parameters, c and , of soil in

the laboratory, the test to be conducted will be
(a) Tri axial compression test

(b) Sieve analysis
(c) Compaction test
(d) Relative density test
Ans: (A)
40. In a consolidated drained tri axial test, a specimen of clay fails at a cell
pressure of 60 KN/ . The effective shear strength parameters are
KN/ and determine the compressive strength
KN/ .
a) 105.2 b) 29.5
c) 30.0 d) 32.6
Ans:
JH ACADEMY 11
MODULE-48C
41. A direct shear test was conducted on a cohesion less soil (c=0).
Specimen under a normal stress of 200KN/ . The specimen failed at a
shear stress of 100KN/ . The angle of internal friction of soil is
a) 26.6 b) 29.5
c) 30.0 d) 32.6
Ans:
42. If the principal stresses in a two dimensional case are -10 MPa and 20
MPa respectively, then maximum shear stress at the point is
a) 10 MPa
b) 15 MPa
c) 20 MPa
d) 30 MPa
Ans:
( )
43. If the effective stress parameters of a soil are =10 KPa and = ,
the shear strength on a plane within the saturated soil mass at a point
where the total normal stress is 300 KPa and pore water pressure is 150
KPa will be
a) 90.5 KPa
b) 96.6KPa
c) 101.5KPa
d) 105.5KPa
Ans:
10+150
44. In a drained tri axial compression test conducted on dry sand, failure
occurred when deviator stress was 218 KN at a confining pressure
of 61 KN . What is the effective angle of shearing resistance and
inclination of failure plane to major principle plane?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Ans:
JH ACADEMY 12
MODULE-48C
45. If an element of a stressed body is in a state of pure shear with a

magnitude of 80N/ , the magnitude of maximum principal stress at
that location is
a) 80 N/
b) 113.14 N/
c) 120 N/
d) 56.57N/
Ans:
12+ (295-120) N/
46. What is the shear strength in terms of effective stress on a plane within
a saturated soil mass at a point where the total normal stress is 295 KPa
and the pore water pressure 120KPa? The effective shear strength
parameters are 12 KPa and = .
a) 113 KPa
b) 65 KPa
c) 43 KPa
d) 12 KPa
Ans: (A)
47. Vane test is normally used for determining in situ shear strength of
a) Soft clays
b) Sand
c) Stiff clays
d) Gravel
Ans: (D)
48. The appropriate field test to determine the un-drained shear strength of
soft clay is
a) Plate load test

b) Static cone penetration test
c) Standard penetration test
d) Vane shear test
Ans: (d)
49. = KN/ and determine the compressive strength of

unconfined test
a) 42.84 KPa
b) 21.42 KPa
c) 45.76 KPa
d) 12.45 KPa
JH ACADEMY 13
MODULE-48C
Ans :
Compressive strength = 2 =82.84 KN/
JH ACADEMY 14
MODULE- 49C
Sub-surface investigations- scope, drilling bore holes, sampling, penetration
tests, and plate load test.
1. A plate load test was conducted in sand on a 300 mm diameter plate. If

the plate settlement was 5 mm at a pressure of 100 kPa, the settlement
(in mm) of a 5m × 8 m rectangular footing at the same pressure will be
(A) 9.4 (B) 18.6 (C) 12.7 (D) 17.8
Ans:
= [ ( )]
= * ( )+
= 17.8 mm
2. The observed value of the standard penetration number (N) at 10m

depth of a silty sand deposit is 13. The unit weight of the soil is 16
kN/ . The N value after correcting for the presence of fines will be
(A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 14 (D) 15
Ans: (B) no correction for presence of fines
3. In a plate load test conducted on cohesion-less soil, a 600 mm square

test plate settles by 15mm under a load intensity of 0.2 N/mm2. All
conditions remaining the same, settlement of a 1m square footing will
be
(a) Less than 15 mm (b) Greater than 25 mm
(c) 15.60 mm (d) 19.97 mm
Ans:
= [ ( )]
= * ( )+
= 19.97 mm
JH ACADEMY 1
MODULE-49C
4. Match the items of the two lists and select the correct answer.
List I (Boring Methods)

P Auger Boring
Q Wash Boring
R Percussion Drilling
S Rotary Drilling
List II (Field Conditions)
1. Below water table in all soil types except hard soils

and rocks
2. Large diameter boreholes over 150 mm in size
3. Explorations for shallow foundations and highways
4. Bouldery and gravelly strata
Codes:
P Q R S
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 3 1 2 4
Ans: (d)
5. Match the items of List-I with List-II and select the correct answer.
List I
P. Modulus of subgrade reaction
Q. Relative density and strength
R. Skin friction and point bearing resistance
S. Elastic constants
List II
1. Cyclic pile load test
2. Pressure meter test
3. Plate load test
4. Standard penetration test
5. Dynamic cone penetration test
Codes:
P Q R S
(a) 1 3 2 5
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 5 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans:
Plate load test : modules of sub grade reaction
SPT : Relative density and strength
Cyclic pile load test : Skin friction and point bearing
resistance.
Pressure meter test : Elastic constants
JH ACADEMY 2
MODULE-49C
6. In the context of collecting undisturbed soil samples of high quality

using a spoon sampler, following statements are made.
(I) Area ratio should be less than 10%.
(II) Clearance ratio should be less than 1%.
With reference to above statements, which of the following applies ?
(a) Both the statements are true

(b) Statement II is true but I is false
(c) Statement I is true but II is false
(d) Both the statement are false.
Ans: (a)
7. During the subsurface investigations for design of foundations, a

standard penetration test was conducted at 4.5m below the ground
surface. The record of number of blows is given below
Penetration depth (cm) No. of blows
0-7.5 3
7.5-15 3
15-22.5 6
22.5-30 6
30-37.5 8
37.5-45 7
Assuming the water table at ground level, soil as fine sand and
correction for overburden as 1.0, the corrected 'N' value for the soil
would be
(a) 18 (b) 19
(c) 21 (d) 33
Ans:
SPT value = number of blows for last 30 cm
= 6 + 6 + 8 + 7 = 27
Dilatancy correction = 15 + ½ (27 – 15)
= 15 + ½ 12 = 21
8. The number of blows observed in a Standard Penetration Test (SPT) for

different penetration depths are given as follows
Penetration of sampler Number of blows
0-150 mm 6
150-300 8
300-450 mm 10
The observed N value is
(a) 8 (b) 14 (c) 18 (d) 24
Ans: 8 + 10 = 18
JH ACADEMY 3
MODULE-49C
9. A test plate 30cm x 30cm resting on a sand deposit settles by 10mm

under a certain loading intensity. A footing 150cm x 200cm resting on
the same sand deposit and loaded to the same load intensity settles by
(A) 2.0mm (B) 27.8mm

(C) 3.02mm (D) 50.0mm
Ans :
= [ ( )]
= 10* ( )+
= 27.8 mm
10. Dilatancy correction is required when a strata is
(A) Cohesive and saturated and also has N Value of SPT > 15
(B) Saturated silt/fine sand and N value of SPT < 10 after the
overburden correction
(C) Saturated silt/fine sand and N value of SPT >15 after the
(D) Coarse sand under dry condition and N value of SPT < 10 after the
Ans: (C)
11. A plate load test is carried out on a 300mm× 300mm plate placed at 2 m
below the ground level to determine the bearing capacity of a 2m× 2m
footing placed at same depth of 2m on a homogeneous sand deposit
extending 10m below ground. The ground water table is 3m below the
ground level. Which of the following factors does not require a
correction to the bearing capacity determined based on the load test?
(A) Absence of the overburden pressure during the test
(B) Size of the plate is much smaller than the footing size
(C) Influence of the ground water table
(D) Settlement is recorded only over a limited period of one or two days
Ans: (C)
Because plate and foundation both are in same level.
12. Consider the following properties for a soil sampler:

1. Area ratio should be low.
2. Cutting edge should be thick.
3. Inside clearance should be high.
4. Outside clearance should be low.
The properties necessary for a good quality soil sampler would include
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
JH ACADEMY 4
MODULE-49C
13. Consider the following statements: In subsoil exploration programs the

term “significant depth of exploration” is up to
1. The width of foundation

2. Twice the width of foundation
3. The depth where the additional stress intensity is less than 20% of
overburden pressure
4. The depth where the additional stress intensity is less than 10% of the
overburden pressure
5. Hard rock level
which of these statements is/are correct?
(a)1, 3 and 5 (b)2, 3 and 5

(c)1 and 4 (d)2 and 4
Ans; (d)
14. If the actual observed value of standard penetration resistance, N, is

greater than 15 in a fine sand layer below water table, then the
equivalent penetration resistance will be
(a)15 + * + (b) 15 - * +
(c) 15 + * + (d) 15 + * +
Ans: (c)
15. Match List-I (Field test) with List-II (Parameters measured) and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I
A. Plate Load Test
B. Standard Penetration Test
C. Static Dutch Cone Penetration Test
D. Dynamic Penetration test
List-II
1. Total and frictional resistances
2. Load intensity and settlement values
3. NCD values
4. SPT values
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 4 2 1 3
Ans: (c)
JH ACADEMY 5
MODULE-49C
16. In standard penetration test, the split spoon sampler is penetrated into
the soil stratum by giving blows from a drop weight whose weight (in
kg) and free fall (in cm) are, respectively
(a) 30 and 60 (b) 60 to 30

(c) 65 to 75 (d) 75 to 65
Ans: (c)
17. Assertion (A): In the case of sand deposits with uniform density, N
values are found to increase with depth.
Reason (R): Overburden pressure increases with depth below ground
level.
Codes:
Ans: (a)
18. A good quality undisturbed soil sample is one which is obtained using a
sampling tube having an area ratio of
(a) 8% (b)16%
(c) 24% (d) 32%
Ans: (a)
19. Which one of the following tests CANNOT be done without

undisturbed sampling?
(a) Shear strength of sand

(b) Shear strength of clay
(c) Determination of compaction parameters
(d) Atterberg limits
Ans: (b)
JH ACADEMY 6
MODULE-49C

1. Dynamic cone penetration test for site investigation is based on the
principle that elastic shock waves travel in different materials at
different velocities.
2. Electrical resistivity method of subsurface investigation is capable of
detecting only the strata having different electrical resistivity
3. In-situ vane shear test is useful for determining the shear strength of
very soft soil and sensitive clays and is unsuitable for sandy soil.
(a)1 and 2 (b)1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 alone
Ans: (c)
21. The standard penetration resistance N of a granular deposit is found to

be 20. The soil can be classified approximately in terms of 𝜙 and
density index respectively as
(a) 200 and 10% for very loose condition

(b) 320 and 50% for medium condition
(c) 320 and 30% for loose condition
(d) 380 and 65% for dense condition
Ans: (d)
22. Match List-I (In-situ test) with List-II (Measurement) and select the
correct answer using codes given below the lists:
List-I
A. SPT test
B. Plate load test
C. Field vane shear test
D.CPT test
List-II
1. Penetration resistance (N value)
2. Load settlement data
3. Point resistance and skin friction
4. In situ shear strength
Codes:
A B C D
(a)1 2 4 3
(b)1 2 3 4
(c)2 1 3 4
(d)2 1 4 3
Ans: (a)
JH ACADEMY 7
MODULE-49C
23. A soil sampler has inner and outer radii of 25 mm and 30 mm,
respectively. The area ratio of the sampler is
(a) 24% (b) 34%

(c) 44% (d) 54%
Ans:
= 0.44 i.e 44%
24. The correct sequence of the increasing order of the disturbance to soil
samples obtained from chunk, piston, spilt spoon and remoulded
sampler is
(a) Piston sampler, chunk sampler, split spoon sampler, remoulded

sampler
(b) Chunk sampler, piston sampler, split spoon sampler, remoulded
sampler
(c) Piston sampler, chunk sampler, remoulded sampler, split spoon
sampler
(d) Chunk sampler, piston sampler, remoulded sampler, split spoon
sampler
Ans: (b)
25. Match List-I(Sampler) with List-II (Use) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List-I
A. Split spoon sampler
B. Stationary piston sampler
C. Rotary sampler
D. Compressed air sampler
List-II
1. To obtain representative samples in all types of soil
2. To obtain undisturbed samples of sands below water table
3. To obtain undisturbed samples in clay and silts
4. To obtain approximately undisturbed samples of hard cemented
cohesive soils Codes:
A B C D
a) 1 3 2 4
b) 3 1 4 2
c) 1 3 4 2
d) 3 1 2 4
Ans: (c)
JH ACADEMY 8
MODULE-49C

1.The standard penetration test is a reliable method for measuring the
relative density of granular soils.
2. For a sand having the same relative density, N-values remain the
same at all depths.
3. For a sand having the same relative density, N-values are different at
different depths.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2

(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (b)
27. Match List-I (Type of exploration) with List-II(Soil profile) and select
List-I
A. Diamond core drilling
B. Uncased wash boring
C. Open pit excavation
D. Cased boring
List-II
1. Medium strong cohesive soils
2. Rocky formation
3. Soft cohesive soils and cohesion less soils. Exploration up to
relatively large depths 4.Exploration up to a shallow depth below
ground level
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 2 1 4 3
c) 4 1 2 3
d) 2 3 4 1
Ans: (b)

1. A recovery ratio of less than 1 implies that the soil has compressed.
2. A recovery ratio greater than 1 implies that the soil has swelled.
3. A recovery ratio of less than 1 implies that the soil has swelled.
4. A recovery ratio greater than 1 implies that the soil has compressed.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 only

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 only
Ans: (a)
JH ACADEMY 9
MODULE-49C

1. Obtaining reliable properties of soil is very important in geotechnical
engineering. Chunk samples obtained from the field are the best for this
purpose. 2. Chunk
samples may easily be obtained at all depths below ground level and for
all types of soils.
3. Undisturbed soil samples are enclosed in rugged containers. As such,
they do not get disturbed easily during transportation and handling.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (d)
30. During a sampling operation, the drive sampler is advanced 600 mm

and the length of the sample recovered is 525 mm. What is the recovery
ratio of the sample?
(a) 0.125 (b) 0.140

(c) 0.875 (d) 0.143
Ans:
525/600=0.875
31. A sampling tube with a cutting edge is used for extracting the samples.
The sampling tube has the following dimensions:
Inner diameter of cutting edge= Dc
outer diameter of cutting edge = Dw
inner diameter of the sampling tube = Ds
Outer diameter of the sampling tube = Dt
What is the area ratio Ar of the sampling tube?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: (a)
JH ACADEMY 10
MODULE-49C
32. Assertion (A): Estimate of settlement of foundations on sandy soils can

be done by using SPT values.
Reason (R): Sampling in cohesion less soil without disturbing the
structure is difficult.
Codes:
Ans: (b)
33. Consider the following statements in respect of static cone penetration

test:
1. The cone used has an apex angle of 600 and base of 10 cm2.
2. This test give a continuous record of cone resistance. Which of these
statements is/are correct?
(a)1 only (b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
34. On which of the following soils is the standard penetration test useful?
1. Cohesion less soils
2. Medium clays
3. Gravelly soils
4.Very stiff clays
(a)1 only (b)1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
JH ACADEMY 11
MODULE-49C
35. If an SPT test gave the average blow count of 32 in fine sand below
water table, then what is the corrected value of blow count?
(a) 22.1 (b) 23.5
(c) 24.2 (d) 24.8
Ans:
15 + ½ (30 – 15)
= 15 + 1/2 17
= 15 + 8.5 = 23.5

1. The soil obtained from wash boring is a representative sample.
2. Recovery ratio will be high during drilling in sound rock.
3. Hollow stem augers are sometimes used to drill holes in silty sand.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
Ans: (c)
37. The standard penetration resistance value obtained in a deep deposit of

sand at a depth of 6.0 m was 28. The unit weight of sand is 18.0 KN/m2.
What is the corrected value of number of blows for overburden
pressure?
(a) 60 (b) 57
(c) 59 (d) 55
Ans:
= 28
= 55
JH ACADEMY 12
MODULE-49C
38. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code
List-I
A. Geophysical methods
B. SPT
C. DCPT
D. Piston-type sampler
List-II
1.Primarily for cohesive soils
2. Clays and silts
3.Reconnaissance covering large area and large depth
4. Suitable for sandy soils
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (d)
39. The observed N-value from a standard penetration test conducted in

saturated sandy strata is 30; the N-value corrected for Dilatancy may be
taken as
(a) 15 (b) 20
(c) 23 (d) 39
Ans:
15 + ½ (30 – 15)
= 15 + 7.5 = 22.5 say 23

1. Standard penetration test is commonly used for cohesion less soils.
2. Standard penetration test results in respect of cohesion less soil are
correlated to its density index and friction angle.
3.Use of N-value not corrected for overburden pressure leads to highly
conservative design of footings at shallow depths.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d)1 and 3 only
Ans: (a)
JH ACADEMY 13
MODULE- 50C
Earth pressure theories, effect of water table, layered soils.
_________________________________________________________________________
1. An unsupported excavation is made to the maximum possible depth
in a clay soil having = 18 kN/m3, c = 100 kN/m3, =30 . The
active earth pressure, according to Rankine's theory, at the base
level of the excavation is
(a) 115.47 kN/m2 (b) 54.36 kN/m2

(c) 27.18 kN/m2 (d) 13.kN/m2
Ans:
Maximum possible depth of unsupported excavation =
√
Ka = =
P = 18 ⁄
C = 100 ⁄
Z= = = 38.49
√ √ ⁄
= karH- 2C√
= 18 √ ⁄
2. A retaining wall of height 8 m retains dry sand. In the initial state,

the soil is loose and has a void ratio of 0.5, = 17.8
kN/m3 and = 30 . Subsequently, the backfill is compacted to a
state where void ratio is 0.4, =18.8 kN/m3 and = 35 . The
ratio of initial passive thrust to the final passive thrust, according to
Rankine's earth pressure theory, is
(a) 0.38 (b) 0.64

(c) 0.77 (d) 1.55
Ans:
Initial: = =3
Passive thrust =
=
Final =
Passive thrust =
Ratio =
JH ACADEMY 1
MODULE-50C
3. A 3 m high retaining wall is supporting a saturated sand (saturated

due to capillary action) of bulk density 18 kN/m3 and angle of
shearing resistance 30 . The change in magnitude of active earth
pressure at the base due to rise in ground water table from the base
of the footing to the ground surface shall ( =10 kN/m3)
(a) Increase by 20 kN/m2

(b) Decrease by 20 kN/m2
(c) Increase by 30 kN/m2
(d) Decrease by 30 kN/m2
Ans :
Initial ⁄
= ⁄ =18kN/m2
Final:
= ⁄ =38 kN/m2
4. Figure given below shows a smooth vertical gravity retaining wall

with cohesion-less soil backfill having an angle of internal
friction In the graphical representation of Rankine's active earth
pressure for the retaining wall shown in figure, length OP
represents
(a) Vertical stress at the base

(b) Vertical stress at a height H/3 from the base
(c) Lateral earth pressure at the base
(d) Lateral earth pressure at a height H/3 from the base
Ans: ( A )
5. When a retaining wall moves away from the back-fill, the pressure
exerted on the wall is termed as
(A) Passive earth pressure

(B) Swelling pressure
(C) Pore pressure
(D) Active earth pressure
Ans: ( D )
JH ACADEMY 2
MODULE-50C
6. If . represents total horizontal stress, total

vertical stress, effective horizontal stress and effective vertical
stress on a soil element respectively, the coefficient of earth
pressure atrest is given by
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Ans: ( B )
7. A smooth rigid retaining wall moves as shown in the sketch

causing the backfill material to fail. The backfill material is
homogeneous and isotropic, and obeys the Mohr-Coulomb failure
criterion. The major principal stress is
(A) Parallel to the wall face and acting downwards

(B) Normal to the wall face
(C) Oblique to the wall face acting downwards
(D) Oblique to the wall face acting upwards
Ans: ( B )
JH ACADEMY 3
MODULE-50C
8. Two different soil types (Soil 1 and Soil 2) are used as backfill
behind a retaining wall as shown in the figure, where is total unit
weight, and c' and are effective cohesion and effective angle of
shearing resistance. The resultant active earth forceper unit length
(in kN/m) acting on the wall is:
(A) 31.7 (B) 35.2 (C) 51.8 (D) 57.0

Ans:
⁄ ⁄ =10
=6.522
[ ]
Total area of pressure distribution is total force:
F = [10 2] + ( ) 2 = 31.7 kN
9. A retaining wall retains a sand strata with 𝜙 = 300 up to its top. If a

uniform surcharge of 12 t/m2 is subsequently put on the sand strata,
then the increase in the lateral earth pressure intensity on the
retaining wall will be
(a) 1 t/m2 (b) 2 t/m2
(c) 4 t/m2 (d) 8 t/m2
Ans:
= 1/3
= 12 ⁄
Increase in lateral earth pressure due to surcharge
= .q = 1/3 12 = 4 ⁄
JH ACADEMY 4
MODULE-50C
10. Assertion (A): The safe height (2Z0) to which an unsupported

vertical cut in clay can be made is 4c/ .
Reason (R): Active earth pressure of cohesive backfill shows that
the negative pressure (tension) is developed at top level. This
tension decrease to zero at depth Z0 and total net pressure up to a
depth 2Z0 is zero.
Codes:
Ans: (A)
11. A retaining wall with vertical back retains a cohesion-less dry

backfill at an inclination of with the horizontal. The backfill has
an angle of internal friction 𝜙, unit weight and height of the wall
is H. The passive earth pressure on the wall is given by (where Pp =
Total passive earth pressure)
√
(a) Pp [ ]
√
√
(b)Pp [ ]
√
√
(c)Pp [ ]
√
√
(d)Pp [ ]
√
Ans: (C)
12. In a cohesion-less soil deposit having a unit weight of 1.5 t/m2 and
an angle of internal friction of 300, the active and passive lateral
earth pressure intensities (in t/m2) at a depth of 10 m will,
respectively, be
(a) 15 and 5 (b) 5 and 45

(c) 10 and 20 (d) 20 and 10
Ans:
= H =1/3 1.5 10 = 5 ⁄
= H=3 1.5 10 = 45 ⁄
JH ACADEMY 5
MODULE-50C
13. Given that for a soil deposit,

K0 = earth pressure coefficient at rest
Ka = active earth pressure coefficient
Kp = passive earth pressure coefficient
= Poisson’s ratio. The value of (1- )/ is given by
(a)Ka/Kp (b)K0/Ka
(c)Kp/Ka (d)1/K0
Ans:
K0 = /(1- )
(1- )/ =1/K0
14. Consider the following statements: Rankine’s theory and

Coulomb’s theory give same values of coefficients of active and
passive earth pressures when 1. The retaining wall has a vertical
back 2. The backfill is cohesion-less 3. Angle of slope of backfill is
equal to the angle of internal friction 4. Angle of slope of backfill
is 005. Angle of wall friction is 00
6. Angle of wall friction is equal to which of these statements
is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (b)1, 2, 4 and 5

(c) 2, 3 and 6 (d)1, 4 and 6
Ans : ( B )
15. Consider the following statements: 1. Coulomb’s earth pressure
theory does not take the roughness of wall into consideration. 2. In
case of non-cohesive soils, the coefficients of active earth pressure
and earth pressure at rest are equal. 3. Any movement of retaining
wall away from the fill corresponds to active earth pressure
condition. Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 alone (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 alone (d) 3 alone
Ans: ( D )
JH ACADEMY 6
MODULE-50C
16. Match List-I(Type of structure) with List-II(Type of pressure

exerted by sandy back fill) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists: List-IA. A masonry retaining wall
founded on compressible clay B. Pressure on the back of a
cantilever sheet pile wall near the embedded end C. A masonry
retaining wall founded on rockList-II
1. Active pressure
2. Earth pressure at rest
3. Passive earth pressure
Codes:
A B C
a) 1 3 2
b) 3 2 1
c) 3 1 2
d) 2 3 1
Ans: ( A )
17. Given that c= 2 t/m2, = 00 and = 2 t/m2 , the depth of tension

crack developing in a cohesive soil backfill would be
(a) 1 m (b) 2 m
(c) 3 m (d) 4 m
Ans:
√ √
18. The correct sequence of the given parameters in descending order

of earth pressure intensity is
(a) active, passive, at rest (b)passive, active, at rest

(c)passive, at rest, active (d)at rest, passive, active
Ans : ( C )
19. Depth of foundation depends upon
(a) scour depth, minimum grip length and Rankine depth

(b) scour depth, minimum grip length and depth of bearing
stratum
(c) scour depth, Rankine depth and depth of bearing stratum
(d) minimum grip length, Rankine depth and depth of bearing
stratum
Ans : ( C )
JH ACADEMY 7
MODULE-50C
20. The nature of earth pressure above dredge line behind a cantilever
sheet pile wall is
(a) active (b) passive

(c) at rest (d) active and passive
Ans : ( A )
21. An earth-retaining structure may be subjected to the following

lateral earth pressures:
1. Earth pressure at rest
2. Passive earth pressure
3. Active earth pressure
The correct sequence of the increasing order of the magnitudes of
these pressures is
(a) 3, 2, 1 (b) 1, 3, 2
(c) 1, 2, 3 (d) 3, 1, 2
Ans : ( D )
22. For a sand having an interval friction of 30 , the ratio of passive to

active lateral earth pressure will be
(a)1 (b)3 c)6 (d)9
Ans : ( D )
23. When movement of a wall under the earth pressure from the
backfill was prevented the coefficient of earth pressure was
recorded as 0.5. The ratio of the coefficient of passive and active
earth pressure of the backfill is
(a)1/3 (b)3 (c)1/9 (d)9
Ans :
1-
JH ACADEMY 8
MODULE-50C
24. Assertion (A): Passive earth pressure is always greater than the
earth pressure at rest and active earth pressure
Reason (R): In passive state the structure becomes the actuating
element and soil becomes the resisting element to maintain the
stability.
Codes:
Ans : ( A )
25. Assertion (A): Basement walls and bridge abutments are usually
designed for earth pressure at rest.
Reason (R): These are usually not restrained by the floor slab and
by the deck structure at their bases.
Codes:
Ans : ( C )
26. Assertion (A): The earth pressure at rest is greater than active
pressure but less than passive earth pressure.
Reason (R): When the wall moves away from backfill from the
rest condition, the mobilization of the internal resistance of soil
occurs; on the other hand, if the wall moves toward the fill, the
shearing resistance build up.
Codes:
Ans : ( A )

Assertion (A): The state of earth pressure at rest is the state of
equilibrium with zero strain condition.
Reason (R): In rest condition neither the wall nor the soil moves.
Of these statements
(a)both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c)A is true but R is false
Ans : ( A )
JH ACADEMY 9
MODULE-50C
28. If the coefficient of active earth pressure is 1/3, then what is the
value of the coefficient of passive earth pressure?
(a) 1/9 (b) 1/3 (c) 3(d) 1
Ans : ( A )
29. Why are weep holes provided at the back of retaining walls?
(a)To reduce the active earth pressure on the walls.

(b)To reduce the build-up of hydrostatic pressure.
(c)To provide better compaction.
(d)To increase the passive earth pressure
Ans: ( A )
30. What is the intensity of active earth pressure ata depth of 10.0 m in
dry sand with an angle of shearing resistance of 300 and unit weight
of 18 kN/m3?
(a) 50 kN/m2 (b) 60 kN/m2

(c) 70kN/m2 (d) 80 kN/m2
Ans :
=60 KN/m2
31. When a vertical face excavation was made in a clayey silt, having
density of 20 kN/m3, it failed at a depth of excavation of 4 m. What
is the cohesive strength (in kN/m2) of the soil, if its angle of
internal friction was 300?
(a)23.1 (b)20.0 (c)11.6 (d)10.2
Ans :
4=
√
JH ACADEMY 10
MODULE-50C
32. Consider the following statements: 1. The yield of a retaining

required to reach plastic equilibrium in active case is more than that
in positive case. 2. Culmann’s graphical method is simplified
version of the more general trial wedge method.
3. For a masonry gravity retaining wall coulomb’s theory of earth
pressure is preferred for designing.
(a)1, 2 and 3 (b)1 and 2 only (c)2 and 3 only (d)3 only
Ans: (c)
33. The lateral earth pressure coefficient of a soil, ka for active state, kp
for passive state and k0 for at-rest condition, compare as
(a)k0<ka<kp (b)ka<k0<k (c)ka<kp<k0 (d)kp<k0<ka
Ans : ( B )
34. A wall with smooth vertical back and 10 meters height retains
cohesion-less material with a horizontal surface. The cohesion-less
material weighs 4.91kN/m3 and has an angle of internal friction of
300. The total active earth pressure is
a). 81.585 kN/m length of wall

b). 91.585 kN/m length of wall
c). 40.743 kN/m2
d). 8.158 kN/m2
Ans :
H.H =
kN/m2
JH ACADEMY 11
MODULE- 51C
Stability of slopes-infinite slopes, finite slopes.

.
___________________________________________________________________________
1. A deep cut of 7m has to be made in a clay with unit weight 16

kN/ and a cohesion of 25 kN/ . What will be the factor of
safety if one has to have a slope angle of 30°? Stability number is
given to be 0.178 (from Taylor’s chart) for a depth factor of 3.
(A) 0.80 (B) 1.1
(C) 1.25 (D) 1.0
Ans:
0.178 =
2. The critical slip circle for a slope is shown below along with the
soil properties. The length of the arc of the slip circle is 15.6 m and
the area of within the slip circle is 82 . The radius of the slip circles
is 10.3 m. (c=30kN/ , = 20kN/ ). The factor of safety against
the slip circle failure is nearly equal to
(A) 1.05 (B) 1.22 (C) 0.78 (D) 1.28
Ans:
F=
JH ACADEMY 1
MODULE-51C
3. An infinite slope is to be constructed in a soil. The effective stress

strength parameters of the soil are = 0 and = 30°. The saturated
unit weight of the slope is 20 kN/ and the unit weight of water is
10 kN/ . Assuming that seepage is occurring parallel to the slope,
the maximum slope angle for a factor of safety of 1.5 would be
(A) 10.89° (B) 11.30°
(C) 12.48° (D) 14.73°
Ans:
F=
1.5 = I=
4. A granular soil possesses saturated density of 20 kN/m3. Its

effective angle friction is 35 degrees. If the desired factor of safety
is 1.5, the safe angle of slope for this soil, when seepage occurs at
and parallel to the surface, will be
(a) 25 (b) 23
(c) 20 (d) 13
Ans:
F=
1.5 = , i=
JH ACADEMY 2
MODULE-51C
5. A canal having side slopes 1:1 is proposed to be constructed in a

cohesive soil to a depth of 10 m below the ground surface. The soil
properties are: u=15 , =12 kPa, e = 1.0, Gs = 2.65.
If Taylor's Stability Number, is 0.08 and if the canal flows full,

the factor of safety with respect to cohesion against failure of the
canal bank slopes will be
(a) 3.7 (b) 1.85

(c) 1.0 (d) None of these
Ans:
9.81 e 1
26 1
6. A canal having side slopes 1:1 is proposed to be constructed in a

cohesive soil to a depth of 10 m below the ground surface. The soil
properties are: u=15 , =12 kPa, e = 1.0, Gs = 2.65.
If there is a sudden drawdown of water in the canal and if Taylor's

Stability Number for the reduced value of vis 0.126, the factor of
safety with respect to cohesion against the failure of bank slopes
will be
(a) 1.85 (b) 1.18
(c) 0.84 (d) 0.53
Ans:
9.81 e 1
26 1
0.126 = F =0.53
JH ACADEMY 3
MODULE-51C
7. An infinite soil slope with an inclination of 35 is subjected to

seepage parallel to its surface. The soil has = 100 kN/m2 and
=30 . Using the concept of mobilized cohesion and friction, at a
factor of safety of 1.5 with respect to shear strength, the mobilized
friction angle is
(a) 20.02 (b) 21.05

(c) 23.33 (d) 30.00
Ans:
F=
8. Using = 0 analysis and assuming planar failure as shown, the

minimum factor of safety against shear failure of a vertical cut of
height 4 m in a pure clay having cu=120 kN/m2 and = 20
kN/m3 is
(a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 10 (d) 20
Ans:
Failure plane angle =45+
Weight of wedge = =160KN
√ √ ⁄
T=160
√
= 6.0
9. For two infinite slopes (one in dry condition and other in

submerged condition) in a sand deposit having the angle of
shearing resistance 30 , factor of safety was determined as 1.5 (for
both slopes). The slope angles would have been
(a) 21.05 for dry slope and 21.05 for submerged slope.
(b) 19.47 for dry slope and 18.40 for submerged slope.
(c) 18.4 for dry slope and 21.05 for submerged slope.
(d) 22.6 for dry slope and 19.47 for submerged slope.
Ans:
F=
1.5=
i=
JH ACADEMY 4
MODULE-51C
10. The factor of safety of an infinite soil slope shown in the figure
having the properties c = 0, φ = , = 16 kN/ and =
20 is approximately equal to
(a) 0.70 (b) 0.80 (c) 1.00 (d) 1.20
Ans:
F=
=
11. The soil profile above the rock surface for a infinite slope is
shown in the figure, where the untrained is shear strength and
is total unit weight. The slip will occur at a depth of
(A) 8.83 m (B) 9.79 m (C) 7.83 m (D) 6.53 m

Ans:
If the failure occurs in top layer,
T=h
S =40
T>S
h
but h is maximum 5m only
T =[ ]
S =60
T=S
[ ]
H =3.83 m
From top the depth is 5+3.83=8.83 m
JH ACADEMY 5
MODULE-51C
12. Consider the following assumptions for slope stability analysis:

1. Friction is fully mobilized
2. Effective stress analysis is adopted
3. Total stress analysis is used
4. Resultant ‘R’ passes through the Centre of the circle.
5. Resultant ‘R’ is tangential to the friction circle.
The assumptions necessary for friction circle method of analysis
would include
(a)1, 3 and 4 (b)1, 3 and 5

(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 5
Ans. (d)
13. Consider the following statements associated with stability of

slope: 1. Stability number is inversely proportional to cohesion
and directly proportional to height.
2. Swedish method of analysis is based on circular failure surface.
3. The Cullman method assumes that rupture will occur in a plane.
(a)2 and 3 (b)1 and 3

(c)1 and 2 (d)1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
14. Taylor’s stability number Sn is given by which one of the following

expressions? (c is cohesion, Fc is factor of safety, is density of
soil and H, the height of the slope).
(a) (b)
(c) (d) ( )
Ans. (c)
15. Consider the following statements: Dewatering increases the slope

stability of cohesion less soil mainly because
1.It causes change in pH
2.It reduces pore water pressure
which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b)2 only
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
JH ACADEMY 6
MODULE-51C
16. Determine the factor of safety with respect to cohesion only for a
submerged embankment 25m high whose upstream face has an
inclination of . The soil has the following properties;
c=40KN/ , = , . The relavant stability
number is equal to 0.108. What is the factor of safety if the
embankment experience the effect of sudden drawdown? For
= and , the value of stability number is 0.136
(a) 1.85, 0.65 (b) 0.80, 1.9

(c) 1.00, 0.80 (d) 1.20, 0.90
Ans:
=
0.136 =
17. What inclination is required where a filling 12m high is to be

constructed having a factor of safety of 1.25? the soil has c=
20KN/ , = , =17.0KN/ the stability number for
= is equal to 0.063 when the slope is and 0.098 when the
slope is .
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ans:
F =1.25
For
JH ACADEMY 7
MODULE-51C
18. A cutting of depth of 10m is to be made in soil which has c=

30KN/ =19KN/ and =0. There is a hard stratum below the
original soil surface at a depth of 12m. Find the safe slope of
cutting if the factor of safety is 1.50. For =1.20, = 0.143 for
and, = 0.101 for .
(a) (b) (c) (d)

Ans:
X=
=
19. A vertical cut is to be made in clayey soil for which tests gave
c=30KN/ , =16KN/ and =0. Find the maximum height for
which the cut may be temporarily unsupported. For =0, and
, the value of stability number is 0.261
(a) 6.70 (b) 5.80 (c) 6.00 (d) 7.18

Ans:
0.261 =
20. What is the factor of safety for a slope 12m high in a clay
(c=50KN/ , =18KN/ and =0) having a rock stratum at a
depth of 12m below the toe? =1.0 and , the value of is
equal to 0.177.
(a) 0.70 (b) 0.80 (c) 1.30 (d) 1.20
Ans:
0.177=
JH ACADEMY 8
MODULE-51C
21. A long natural slope in an over consolidated clay ( ,

) is inclined at to the horizontal.
The water table is at the surface and the seepage is parallel to the
slope. If a plane slip had developed at a depth of 5m below the
surface, determine the factor of safety. Take
(a) 0.70 (b) 1.90 (c) 1.00 (d) 1.20

Ans:
F=
= =1.90
22. A cut of depth 10m is made in a cohesive soil deposit (c =

30KN/ , = 19 KN/ ). There is a hard stratum
under the cohesive soil at a depth of 12m below the original ground
surface. If the required factor of safety is 1.50, determine the
stability number. (for =0.105 and = 1.2, )
(a) (b) (c) (d)

Ans:
= 1.2, hence
23. Determine the factor of safety with respect to cohesion for a

submerged embankment 25m high and having a slope of (c =
40 KN/ , =18KN/ and = ). For = and
.
(a) 2.01 (b) 1.90 (c) 1.00 (d) 1.20

Ans:
0.097 =
JH ACADEMY 9
MODULE-51C
24. Determine the factor of safety with respect to cohesion for a

submersed embankment 25m high and having a slope of is
subjected to sudden drawdown (c= 40 KN/ , and
=18KN/ .) For and , =0.13.
(a) 0.701 (b) 1.904 (c) 1.000 (d) 0.684

Ans:
( )
Taking
25. A soil mass is resting on an inclined impermeable clay layer, as

shown in fig. Determine the factor of safety against wedge failure
along the interface. The soil has c= 6KN/ , and
=17KN/
(a) 0.70 (b) 2.16 (c) 1.00 (d) 1.20
Ans:
W= =60.8 KN
Length of sliding plane
x=
S=Shear strength=
5.91 =55.51 KN
T = sliding force = 60.8 KN
F= =
JH ACADEMY 10
MODULE-51C
26. An embankment is to be made of a soil which has the following

shear strength parameters under the existing conditions:
,
If It is assumed that different margins of safety are available for
cohesion component and friction component of shearing strength
and the mobilized values of cohesion and friction are: =
22KN/ , = , what is the factor of safety with respect to (a)
cohesion and (b) friction?
If the average value of normal effective stress on the failure surface
is 120KN/ , what is the value of (c) true factor of safety,
( ) when =1 and (e) and when =1?
(a) 1.36, 1.26, 1.31, 1.84, 1.95

(b) 1.26, 1.31, 1.84, 1.95, 1.36
(c) 1.84, 1.95, 1.36, 1.26, 1.31
(d) 1.95, 1.36, 1.26, 1.31, 1.84
Ans:
a)
b)
When ⁄
c)
d)
e)
=
JH ACADEMY 11
MODULE-51C
27. A granular soil has , . A slope has to be

made of this material. If a factor of safety of 1.3 is needed against
slope failure, determine the safe angle of the slope (a) when the
slope is dry or submerged without seepage, (b) if seepage occurs at
and parallel to the surface of the slope. If seepage occurs parallel to
the slope with the water table at a depth of 1.5m, what is the factor
of safety available on a slip plane parallel to the ground surface at a
depth of 4m? assume
(a) , , 0.89
(b) , , 1.89
(c) , , 2.89
(d) , , 3.89
Ans:
a) F=
1.3 =
i=
It is same for dry and submerged case
b) F =
( )
1.3 =
c)
W= [ ( )]
= = 28.11KN
T = 45.47 = 31.51
F= =
JH ACADEMY 12
MODULE-51C
28. A canal having side slopes 1 to 1 is proposed to be constructed in a

cohesive soil to a depth of 5m below ground surface. The soil
properties are given below:
=
=12KN/
=1.0
=2.65
Using Taylor’s stability number, find the factor of safety with
respect to cohesion against failure of the bank slopes,
(a) When the canal is full of water and (
)
(b) When there is a sudden drawdown of water in the canal.
( )
(A) 1.7, 2.06 (B) 3.7, 1.06

(C) 1.8, 3.06 (D) 0.6, 2.7
Ans:
9.81 e 1
26 1
= 17.9-9.81 =8.1 ⁄
a)
b) When there is a sudden draw down
JH ACADEMY 13
MODULE-51C
29. An infinite slope in a sandy soil is inclined at to the horizontal.

The properties of the soil are:
=0, =17KN/ =21KN/ .
A hard layer exists 5m below and parallel to the surface. What is
the factor of safety against slip when (a) the slope has negligible
water in it, (b) the slope is completely submerged with seepage
parallel to the surface and (c) the water table level is parallel to the
ground surface at 2.5m depth, seepage being parallel?
(a) 1.85, 0.987, 1.33
(b) 1.26, 1.31, 1.84
(c) 1.84, 1.95, 1.36
(d) 1.95, 1.36, 1.26
Ans:
(a) F = =
(b) F =
( )
= =0.987
30. An infinite slope ( ) is to be constructed of a clay soil. The

ground water level is at the ground surface itself, with seepage
parallel to the ground. The soil properties are:
=15KN/ , , =20KN/
What is the factor of safety against movement along a plane to the
ground surface at depths of 4m and 5.5m?
(a) 1.15, 0.99

(b) 1.26, 1.31
(c) 1.84, 1.95
(d) 1.95, 1.36
Ans:
( )
( )
JH ACADEMY 14
MODULE-51C
31. Find the critical angle of an infinite slope in a clay soil having
=20KN/ , , =2.72 and e=0.9 for the following cases:
H = 5m. Soil is dry and the slope is submerged with seepage
parallel to the surface.
(a) ,
(b) ,
(c) ,
(d) ,
Ans:
( )
JH ACADEMY 15
MODULE- 52C
Foundation, types-foundation, design requirements. Shallow foundations-bearing
capacity, effect of shape, water table and other factors
________________________________________________________________
1. The ultimate bearing capacity of a soil is 300 kN/ . The depth of
foundation is 1m and unit weight of soil is 20 kN/ . Choosing a factor
of safety of 2.5, the net safe bearing capacity is
(A) 100 kN/ (B) 112 kN/
(C) 80 kN/ (D) 100.5 kN/
Ans:
Net ultimate Bearing capacity =300-20X1
=280 kN/
Net Safe Bearing Capacity = 280/2.5
=112 kN/
2. Two footings, one circular and the other square are founded on the
surface of a purely cohesion-less soil. The diameter of the circular
footing is same as that of the side of the square footing. The ratio of
their ultimate bearing capacities is
(A) 3/4 (B) 4/3 (C) 1.0 (D) 1.3
Ans:
For circular footing,
For square footing,
As soil is cohesion-less and as footing

is resting on surface.
Ratio=0.3/0.4 = 3/4
JH ACADEMY 1
MODULE-52C
3. Figure shows the geometry of a strip footing supporting the load

bearing walls of a three storied building and the properties of clay layer.
If the pressure acting on

the footing is 40 kPa, the consolidation settlement of the footing
will be
(a) 0.89 mm (b) 8.9 mm
(c) 89.0 mm (d) None of these
Ans:
As the load dispersion is 1:2, and at the Centre of clay layer,

Area of spreading the load =1.2 +3=4.2
18 X1 +3X(20-9.81) = 48.57
0.31 m
JH ACADEMY 2
MODULE-52C
4. Figure shows the geometry of a strip footing supporting the load

bearing walls of a three storied building and the properties of clay layer.
If the elastic modulus and the Poisson's ratio of the clay layer are
respectively 50×103 Kpa and 0.4 and if the influence factor for the
strip footing is 1.75, the elastic settlement of the footing will
be
(a) 0.41 mm (b) 1.41 mm
(c) 14.1 mm (d) None of these
Ans:
5. Two circular footings of diameters D1 and D2 are resting on the surface

of the same purely cohesive soil. The ratio of their gross ultimate
bearing capacities is
(a) D1/D2 (b) 1.0
(c) (d) D2/D1
Ans:
For circular footing,
If c=0, and as the footings are resting on does not the

surface Therefore it depend on diameter. So the ratio
is 1
6. There are two footings resting on the ground surface. One footing is
square of dimension 'B'. The other is strip footing of width 'B'. Both of
them are subjected to a loading intensity of q. The pressure intensity at
any depth below the base of the footing along the centerline would be
(a) Equal in both footings

(b) Large for square footing and small for strip footing
(c) Large for strip footing and small or square footing
(d) More for strip footing at shallow depth (< B) and more for square
footing at large depth (>B)
Ans: (c)
JH ACADEMY 3
MODULE-52C
7. A strip footing (8m wide) is designed for a total settlement of 40mm.

The safe bearing capacity (shear) was 150 kN/m2 and safe allowable
soil pressure was 100 kN/m2. Due to importance of the structure, now
the footing is to be redesigned for total settlement of 25 mm. The new
width of footing will be
(a) 5m (b) 8 m
(c) 12 m (d) 12.8 m
Ans:
8X = 12.8 m
8. The bearing capacity of a rectangular footing of plan dimensions 1.5 m

x 3m resting on the surface of a sand deposit was estimated s 600
kN/ when the water table is far below the base of the footing. The
bearing capacities in kN/ when the water level rises to depths of 3m,
1.5 m and 0.5 m below the base of the footing are
(a) 600, 600, 400 (b) 600, 450, 350

(c) 600, 500, 250 (d) 600, 400, 250
Ans:
If water table is below the 1.5 m or at the 1.5 m from the base of
footing, the bearing capacity will be same.
Let us take , =40

Now water table is 0.5 m below the footing.
Then =0.5 X 20 + 1.0 X 10 = 20
9. A column is supported on a footing as shown in the figure below. The

water table is at a depth of 10m below the base of the footing.
The net ultimate bearing capacity (kN/m2) of the footing based on

Terzaghi's bearing capacity equation is
(A) 216 (B) 432 (C) 630 (D) 846
Ans:
= 18 X 1X 23 + 0.4 X 18 X 1.5 X 20
= 630
JH ACADEMY 4
MODULE-52C
10. A column is supported on a footing as shown in the figure below. The

water table is at a depth of 10m below the base of the footing.
The safe load (kN) that the footing can carry with a factor of safety
3 is
(A) 282 (B) 648 (C) 945 (D) 1269
Ans:
= 18 X 1X 23 + 0.4 X 18 X 1.5 X 20
= 630
= = = 210
P= 210 X 1.5 X 3 = 945 KN
11. The unconfined compressive strength of a saturated clay sample is 54

kPa. The value of cohesion for the day is
(A) zero (B) 13.5 kPa

(C) 27 kPa (D) 54 kPa
Ans: (C)
12. . If a square footing of size 4 m x 4 m is resting on the surface of a

deposit of the above clay. The ultimate bearing capacity of the footing
(as per Terzaghi's equalion) is
(A) 1600 kPa (B) 316kPa

(C) 200 kPa (D) 100 kPa
Ans:
Cohesion=27 KPa
1.3 X 5.7 X 27 = 200
13. Likelihood of general shear failure for an isolated footing in sand

decreases with
(A) Decreasing footing depth

(B) Decreasing inter-granular packing of the sand
(C) Increasing footing width
(D) Decreasing soil grain compressibility
Ans: (C)
JH ACADEMY 5
MODULE-52C
14. An embankment is to be constructed with a granular soil (bulk unit

weight = 20 kN/m3) on a saturated clayey silt deposit (un-drained shear
strength = 25 kPa). Assuming un-drained general shear failure and
bearing capacity factor of 5.7, the maximum height (in m) of the
embankment at the point of failure is
(A) 7.1 (B) 5.0 (C) 4.5 (D) 2.5
Ans:
15. Four columns of a building are to be located within a plot size of 10 m x

10 m. The expected load on each column is 4000 KN. Allowable
bearing capacity of the soil deposit is 100 . The type of
foundation best suited is
(A) isolated footing (B) raft foundation

(C) pile foundation (D)combined footing
Ans: (C)
16. Bearing capacity of a soil strata supporting a footing of size 3m

will not be affected by the presence of ground water table located at
a depth which is
a) 1.0m below the base of the footing

b) 1.5m below the base of the footing
c) 2.5m below the base of the footing
d) 3m below the base of the footing
Ans (d)
17. No tension should develop at the base of the rectangular well

foundation or at any horizontal section within the well. For no tension
at the base, the resultant of ( total active thrust) and W( weight of soil
and well above the base) must pass through middle
a) Half of the base

b) Third of the base
c) Quarter of the base
d) Edge of the base
Ans (b)
18. Consider the following statements associated with local shear failure of
soils:
1. Failure is sudden with well-defined ultimate load.
2. The failure occurs in highly compressible soils.
3. Failure is preceded by large settlement.
a) 1,2 and 3 b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3
Ans (c)
JH ACADEMY 6
MODULE-52C
19. Rafts resting on sands can be allowed double of the allowable soil
pressure when
a) Permissible settlement is doubled

b) Length is doubled
c) Depth factor is increased
d) Water table is lowered
Ans (b)
20. As per Terzaghi’s equation, the bearing capacity of strip footing resting
on cohesive soil (c =10 KN/ ) for unit depth and unit width (assume
as 5.7) is
a) 47 KN/ b) 57KN/
b) 67KN/ d) 77KN/
Ans:
21. A raft of 6m 9m is founded at a depth of 3m in a cohesive soil having

c=120KN/ . The net ultimate bearing capacity of the soil using the
Terzaghi’s theory will be nearly
a) 820 KN/ b) 920 KN/
c) 1036 KN/ d) 1067 KN/
Ans:
( )
( )
=820 KN/
22. Two circular footings of diameters and are resting on the surface
of a purely cohesive soil. The ratio =2. If the ultimate load
carrying capacity of the footing of diameter is 200 KN/ , then the
ultimate bearing capacity(in KN/ of the footing of diameter will
be
a) 100 b) 200
c) 314 d) 571
Ans: (b)
JH ACADEMY 7
MODULE-52C
23. The minimum bearing capacity of a soil under a given footing occurs
when the groundwater table at the location is at
a) The base of the footing

b) The ground level
c) A depth equal to one-half the width of footing
d) A depth equal to the width of footing
Ans: (b)
24. If two foundations, one narrow and other wide, are resting on a bed of
sand carrying the same intensity of load per unit area, then which one is
likely to fail early?
a) Narrow foundation
b) Wider foundation
c) Both will fail simultaneously
d) Difficult to judge since other conditions are unknown
Ans: (b)
25. The contact pressure distribution under a rigid footing on a cohesion

less soil would be
a) Uniform throughout
b) Zero at centre and maximum at edges
c) Zero at edges and maximum at centre
d) Maximum at edges and minimum at centre
Ans: (c)
26. A footing of 3m 3m size transmits a load of 1800KN. The angle of

load dispersion in soil 0.5 what is the stress created by the
footing load at a depth of 5m?
a) 26.12 KN/ b) 27.12 KN/

b) 28.12 KN/ d) 29.12 KN/
Ans:
At 5 m depth dispersion length is 3+5=8 m.
Stress = = 28.12 KN/
JH ACADEMY 8
MODULE-52C
27. When a load test was conducted by putting a 60cm square plate on top
of a sandy deposit, the ultimate bearing capacity was observed as
60KN/ . What is the ultimate bearing capacity for a strip footing of
1.2m width to be placed on the surface of the same soil?
a) 75KN/ b) 120KN/
c) 150KN/ d) 160KN/
Ans:
28. In case of footing on the surface or shallow depth in very dense sand
which one of the following types of failure is likely to occur?
a) Punching shear failure

b) Local shear failure
c) General shear failure
d) Any of the above three
Ans: (c)
29. The bearing capacity factors and are functions of
a) Width and depth of footing

b) Density of soil
c) Cohesion of soil
d) Angle of internal friction of soil
Ans: (c)
30. Match list-I (type of soil) with list-II (suitable foundation) and select
List-I
A. Strong soil in surface layer
B. Weak surface layer followed by rock at shallow depth below
ground
C. Swelling soil in surface layer extending up to a few meters
below ground level
D. Weak heterogeneous surface soil layer
List-II
1. Raft foundation
2. Isolated footing
3. End bearing pile
4. Under-reamed piles
Codes:
A B C D
a) 1 4 3 2
b) 2 3 4 1
c) 1 3 4 2
d) 2 4 3 1
Ans: (b)
JH ACADEMY 9
MODULE-52C
31. In which one of the following zones is a logarithmic spiral shape of

failure surface assumed in the case of bearing capacity analysis of c-
soils?
a) Active zone b) passive zone
c) Radial shear zone d) surcharge zone
Ans: (c)
32. The contact pressure distribution below rigid footing on the surface of a
clay soil is
a) Uniform for the full width

b) Maximum at the centre and minimum at the edges
c) Maximum at the edges and minimum at the centre
d) Of an irregular shape
Ans: (c)

1. The bearing capacity of a footing on clay does not significantly get
altered by the presence of water table.
2. The bearing capacity of a footing on saturated clay ( ) is a
function of its size.
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)

Criteria for satisfactory performance of footings are that the
1. Soil supporting the footing must be safe against shear failure
2. Footing must not settle more than a pre-specified value
3. Footing must be rigid
4. Footing should be above water table.
a) 3 and 4 b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3 d) 2 and 4
Ans: (b)
35. For a proposed building, raft foundation, isolated footings and

combined footings are being considered. These foundations are to be
listed in the decreasing order of preference in terms of performance.
Which one of the following is the correct order of listing?
a) Raft foundation-combined footings-isolated footings

b) Isolated footings-raft foundation-combined footings
c) Combined footings- raft foundation-isolated footings
d) Combined footings-isolated footings-raft foundation
Ans: (a)
JH ACADEMY 10
MODULE-52C
36. The net ultimate bearing capacity of a purely cohesive soil
a) Depends on the width of the footing and is independent of the

depth of the footing
b) Depends on the width as well as the depth of the footing
c) Depends on the depth, but is independent of the width, of the
footing
d) Is independent of both the width and the depth of the footing
Ans: (d)
37. A soil has a low allowable bearing capacity. The soil deposit contains
compressive loess. A foundation is to be provided for a structure
carrying a heavy load. Which one of the following foundation types is
to be adopted?
a) Strap footing
b) Continuous footing
c) Raft foundation
d) Combined spread foundation
Ans: (c)
38. Two footings, one circular and the other square, are founded on the
surface of a purely cohesion less soil. The diameter of the circular
footing is the same as that of the side of the square footing. The ratio
between their ultimate bearing capacities will be
a) 1.0 b) 1.3
c) 1.33 d) 0.75
Ans: (d)
JH ACADEMY 11
MODULE-52C
39. A multistory building with a basement to be constructed. The top 4m

consists of loose silt below which dense sand layer is present upto a
great depth. Ground water table is at the surface. The foundation
consists of the basement slab of 6m width which will rest on the top of
dense sand as shown fig. for dense sand, saturated unit= 20KN/ and
bearing capacity factors = 15 and =45. Effective cohesion is zero
for both the soils. = 10KN/ . Neglect shape factor and depth factor
average elastic modulus E & of depth sand =60 KN/ and 0.3
respectively. Using factor of safety =3, the net bearing capacity (in
KN/ ) for the foundation? The foundation slab is subjected to vertical
downward stresses equal to net safe bearing capacity derived in the
above question. Using influence factor =2.0 and neglecting
embedment depth and rigidity corrections, the immediate settlement of
the dense sand layer will be
a) 610, 111 b) 320 ,58

c) 983, 126 d) 693, 179
Ans:
JH ACADEMY 12
MODULE- 53C
Stress distribution, settlement analysis in sands & clays.
_________________________________________________________________________
1. A 25 kN point load acts on the surface of an infinite elastic
medium. The vertical pressure intensity in kN/m2 at a point 6.0 m
below and 4.0 m away from the load will be
(a) 132 (b) 13.2 (c) 1.32 (d) 0.132
Ans:
⁄
[ ]
( )
⁄
[ ] ⁄
( )
2. The figure given below represents the contact pressure

distribution underneath a
(a) Rigid footing on saturated clay

(b) Rigid footing on sand
(c) Flexible footing on saturated clay
(d) Flexible footing on sand
Ans: (a)
JH ACADEMY 1
MODULE-53C
3. The vertical stress at some depth below the corner of a 2m x 3m

rectangular footing due to a certain load intensity is 100 kN/m2.
What will be the vertical stress in kN/m2 below the centre of a 4m
x 6m rectangular footing at the same depth and same load
intensity?
(a) 25 (b) 100 (c) 200 (d) 400
Ans:
100 ⁄
4. A footing 2m x 1m exerts a uniform pressure of 150kN/mm2 on

the soil. Assuming a load dispersion of 2 vertical to 1 horizontal,
the average vertical stress (kN/m2) at 1.0m below the footing is
(A) 50 (B) 75
(C) 80 (D) 100
Ans:
150 ⁄
5. A saturated undisturbed sample from clay strata has moisture

content of 22.22% and specific weight of 2.7. Assuming =
10kN/m3, the void ratio and the saturated unit weight of the clay,
respectively are
(A) 0.6 and 16.875kN/m3

(B) 0.3 and 20.625kN/m3
(C) 0.6 and 20.625kN/m3
(D) 0.3 and 16.975kN/m3
Ans:
6 e 0.6
27 1
= = 20.625 ⁄
JH ACADEMY 2
MODULE-53C
6. Using the properties of the clay layer derived from the above
question, the consolidation settlement of the same clay layer under
a square footing (neglecting its self weight) with additional data
shown in the figure below (assume the stress distribution as
1H:2V from the edge of the footing and = 10kN/m3) is
(A) 32.78mm (B) 61.75mm

(C) 9.5mm (D) 131.13mm
Ans:
( ) ( )
( )
1000
7. The vef1ical stress at point due to the point load Q on the

ground surface as shown in figure is . According to Boussinesq'
s equation, the vertical stress al point shown in figure will be
(A) (B) (C) 2 (D) 4
Ans:
⁄
[ ]
( )
when is constant
JH ACADEMY 3
MODULE-53C
8. Two geometrically identical isolated footings, X (linear elastic)

and Y (rigid), are loaded identically (shown below). The soil
reactions will
(A) be uniformly distributed for Y but not for X

(B) be uniformly distributed for X but not for Y
(C) be uniformly distributed for both X and Y
(D) not be uniformly distributed for both X and Y
Ans: ( B )
9. A concentrated load of 50 t acts vertically at a point on the soil

surface. If Boussinesq’s equation is applied for computation of
stress, then the ratio of vertical stresses at depths of 3m and 5m
respectively vertically below the point of application of load will
be
a) 0.36 b) 0.60 c)1.66 d)2.77
Ans:
10. For a vertical concentrated load acting on the surface of a semi-

infinite elastic soil mass, the vertical normal stress at depth ‘z’ is
proportional to
a) Z b) 1/z c) d)
Ans: ( D )
11. With a vertical point load on the surface when considering the
vertical plane passing through the load, the stress gets reduced by
52.3% at a depth of
a) 0.25 of unit length

b) 0.5 of unit length
c) 0.75 of unit length
d) 1 of unit length
Ans:
(1-0.253)Q =
( )
JH ACADEMY 4
MODULE-53C
12. Influence factor for immediate settlement of footing depends on

its
a) Size and shape

b) Rigidity alone
c) Location and size
d) Size, shape, rigidity and location
Ans: ( D )
13. In a Newmark’s influence chart for stress distribution, there are 10

concentric circles and 50 radial lines. The influence factor of the
chart is
a) 0.0002 b) 0.002
b) 0.02 d) 0.2
Ans:
14. Is the vertical stress at a depth equal to Z in the soil mass due
to a surface point load Q. The vertical stress at depth equal to 2Z
will be
a) 0.25 b) 0.50
c) 1.0 d) 2.0
Ans:
( ) =
15. The change in the vertical stress in the soil mass estimated by
Boussinesq’s equation when Poison’s ratio of soil changes from
0.3 to 0.5 will be
a) Reduction by 30% b) increases by 50%

c) Reduction by 20% d) no change
Ans: ( D )
Boussinesq’s theory does not depends on Poisson’s ratio
JH ACADEMY 5
MODULE-53C
16. In a plate load test on sandy soil, the test plate of 60cm x 60cm
undergoes a settlement of 5mm at a pressure of 12 x N/ .
What will be the expected settlement of 3m x 3m footing under
same pressure?
a) 25mm b) 20mm
b) 15mm d) 9mm
Ans:
{ }
, -
17. Stresses obtained from Boussinesq’s theory are considered

reasonably satisfactory in foundation engineering because
a) They represent stress distribution in inhomogeneous soils

below loaded area
b) They account for anisotropy of soil property
c) They give due regard to plastic behavior of soils. Particularly
for settlement analysis
d) They consider elastic soil medium, and the intensity of
allowable stresses below foundations in most cases are quite
small and justify elastic solutions.
Ans: ( D )
18. Westergaard’s formula for vertical stress gives greater value of

stress than that by the Boussinesq’s formula, when r/z exceeds
a) 1.5 b) 2.5
c) 3.5 d) 4.0
Ans: ( A )
19. A point load of 650KN is applied on the surface of a thick layer of

clay. Using Boussinesq’s elastic analysis, what is approximate
value of the estimated vertical stress at a depth 2m and a radial
distance of 1.0m from the point of application of load?
a) 55KN/ b) 44KN/
c) 41KN/ d) 37KN/
Ans:
⁄
[ ]
( )
JH ACADEMY 6
MODULE-53C
20. A test plate 30cm square, settles by 12mm under a load of 4.5KN
in a sandy soil. By how much will a footing 2m 2m subjected to
a load of 200KN settle?
a) 36.3mm b) 20.87mm
c) 75.75mm d) 18.15mm
Ans:
* +
21. A line load of infinite length has an intensity q per unit length.
What is the vertical stress at a depth z below the earth at the
centre of the load?
a) = b) =
b) = d) =
Ans: ( B )
1. Westergaard’s theory of stress distribution is more appropriate
for soil deposits which exhibit large lateral strain.
2. Newmark’s influence chart can be used for the determination
of vertical stress under any shape of a loaded area.
a) 1 only b) 2 only
b) both 1 and 2 d) neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( B )
23. An isobar is a line which connects all points below the ground
surface at which
a) The local ground elevation is same

b) The settlement is same
c) The vertical stress is the same
d) The ground elevation is varying
Ans: ( C )
24. A measurement weighing 15MN is erected on the ground surface.

Considering the load as a concentrated one determine the vertical
pressure directly under the monument at a depth of 8m below the
surface
a) 111.9 b) 211.9
c) 311.9 d) 51.9
Ans:
KN/
JH ACADEMY 7
MODULE-53C
25. A concentrated load of 50KN acts on the surface of a

homogeneous soil mass of large extent. Determine the stress
intensity at a depth of 5m, directly under the load and at a
horizontal distance of 2.5m
a) 0.55, 0.955 b) 0.955, 0.55

c) 0.65, 0.955 d) 0.955, 0.65
Ans:
0.955KN/ , 0.55KN/
a) KN/
⁄
) [ ] KN/
( )
26. Two columns A and B are situated 6m apart. Column A transfers

a load of 500KN and column B, a load of 250KN. Determine the
resultant vertical stress on a horizontal plane 20m below the
ground surface at points A and B
a) 59.8, 29.9 b) 29.9, 59.8

c) 79.8, 39.9 d) 39.9, 79.8
Ans:
⁄
a) [ ] =59.77KN/
( )
⁄
b) [ ]
( )
27. A water tower has a circular foundation of 10m diameter. If the

total weight of the tower, including the foundation is KN,
calculate the vertical stress at a depth 2.5m below the foundation
level.
a) 111.9 b) 211.9
c) 231.9 d) 51.9
Ans:
( )
( ) KN/
28. The contact pressure for a square footing 2m 2m is 400KN/ .

Using 1:2 distribution, determine the depth at which contact
pressure is 100KN/ .
a) 3 b) 1
c) 4 d) 2
Ans:
Pressure is reduced by 4 times means area should be

increased by 4 times. ie. 2
JH ACADEMY 8
MODULE-53C
29. A elevated structure with a total weight of 10,000 KN is supported

on a tower with 4 legs. The legs rests on piers located at the
corners of a square 6m on a side. What is the vertical stress
increment due to this loading at a point 7m beneath the centre of
the structure?
a) 111.9 b) 211.9
c) 44.57 d) 51.9
Ans:
⁄
[ [ ] ]
√
( )
KN/
30. Find intensity of vertical pressure at point 3m directly below

25KN point load acting on a horizontal ground surface? What will
be the vertical pressure at a point 2m horizontally away from the
axis of loading and at same depth of 3m
a) 0.53, 1.53 b) 1.33, 1.53

c) 1.33, 2.53 d) 1.33, 0.53
Ans:
a) = 1.33KN/
⁄
b) [ ] KN/
( )
31. A line load of 100KN/m run extends to a long distance. Determine

the intensity of vertical stress at a point 2m below the surface for
the falling two cases directly under the line load, at a distance 2m
perpendicular to the line load
a) 31.83, 7.96 b) 7.96, 31.83

c) 79.8, 39.9 d) 39.9, 79.8
Ans:
[ ]
( )
) [ ]
( )
b) [ ] = 7.96KN/
( )
JH ACADEMY 9
MODULE-53C
32. A strip footing 2m wide is loaded on the ground surface with a

pressure of 150KN/ . A 4m thick soft clay layer exists at a
depth of 10m below the foundation. Find the average increase in
vertical stress at the centre of day layer below the centre line and
at the edge of footing.
a) 59.8, 29.9 b) 29.9, 59.8

c) 15.83, 15.72 d) 15.72, 15.83
Ans:
2 ( ) =0.166
a) ( )
( ) 15.83KN/
As
( )
( ) 15.59KN/
33. A circular area 6m in diameter, carries udl of 10KN/ .

Determine the vertical stress at a depth of 2m, 4m and 8m.
a) 8.29, 1.79, 4.88 b) 4.88, 1.79, 8.29

c) 1.79, 4.88, 8.29 d) 8.29, 4.88, 1.79
Ans:
)
√
[ ]
[ ] = 8.29 KN/
)
√
[ ] 4.88KN/
)
√
[ ] KN/
34. Three parallel strip footings 3m wide each and 5m apart centre
transmit contact pressure of 200, 150 and 100KN/ respectively.
Calculate the vertical stress due to combined loads beneath the
centers of each footing at a depth of 3m below the base. Assume
the footings are placed at a depth of 2m below ground surface.
Use Boussinesq’s method for line loads.
a) 45, 36.3, 23.74 b) 36.3, 45, 8.29

c) 45, 36.3, 8.29 d) 36, 45, 1.79
JH ACADEMY 10
MODULE-53C
Ans:
[ ]
( )
[ ] [ ] [ ]
( ) ( ) ( )
[ ] [ ] [ ]
( ) ( ) ( )
35. For a vertical concentrated load acting on the surface of semi

infinite elastic soil mass, the vertical normal stress at a depth is
proportional to
a) b) c) d)
Ans:( D )
36. With a vertical point load on the surface when considering the
vertical plane passing through the load, the stress gets reduced by
52.3% at a depth of
a) 0.25 of unit length

b) 0.5 of unit length
c) 0.75 of unit length
d) 1 of unit length
Ans:( D )
37. In a Newmark’s influence chart for stress distribution there are 10

concentric circles and 50 radial lines the influence factor of the
chart is
a) 0.0002 b) 0.002
c) 0.02 d) 0.2
Ans:( B )
38. The change in the vertical stress in the soil mass estimated by
Boussinesq’s equation when Poisson’s ratio of soil changes from
0.3 to 0.5 will be
a) Reduction by 30%
b) Increased by 50%
c) Reduction by 20%
d) No change
Ans:( D )
JH ACADEMY 11
MODULE-53C
39. In a Newmark’s chart for stress distribution there are 10

concentric circles and 20 radial lines. The influence factor for the
chart would be
a) 0.1 b) 0.05 c) 0.01 d) 0.005

Ans:( D )
40. A footing 3m 3m size transmits a load of 1800KN. The angle of

load dispersion in soil = . What is the stress created by
the footing load at a depth of 5m?
a) 26.12KN/
b) 27.12KN/
c) 28.12KN/
d) 29.12KN/
Ans:
KN/
41. The contact pressure for a rigid footing resting on clay at the
centre and the edges are respectively
a) Maximum and zero

b) Maximum and minimum
c) Zero and maximum
d) Minimum and maximum
Ans: (d)
JH ACADEMY 12
MODULE- 54C
Deep foundations–pile types, dynamic &static formulae, load capacity of piles in
sands &clays, negative skin friction.
______________________________________________________________________________________
1. For the (3 × 3) pile group shown in the figure, the settlement of pile group, in a normally consolidated
clay stratum having properties as shown in the figure, will be
(a) 13.2 mm (b) 12.775 mm (c) 7.345 mm (d) none of these
Ans:
Area = * ( ⁄ )+
P = 500 KN
̅ ⁄
̅̅̅
( )
JH ACADEMY Page 1
2. A group of 16 piles of 10 m length and 0.5 diameter is installed in a 10 m thick stiff clay layer
underlain by rock. The pile-soil adhesion factor is 0.4; average shear strength of soil on the side on the
sides is 100 kPa; undrained shear strength of the soil at the base is also 100 kPa. The base resistance of
single pile is
(a) 40.00 kN (b) 88.35 kN

(c) 100.00 kN (d) 176.71 kN
Ans:
= 100
3. A group of 16 piles of 10 m length and 0.5 diameter is installed in a 10 m thick stiff clay layer
underlain by rock. The pile-soil adhesion factor is 0.4; average shear strength of soil on the side on the
sides is 100 kPa; undrained shear strength of the soil at the base is also 100 kPa. Assuming 100%
efficiency, the group side resistance is
(a) 4795.0 kN (b) 10000.0 kN

(c) 10053.1 kN (d) 20106.0 kN
Ans:
16[ ]
Let S be the side of Square

S= 3a + 0.5
4[ ] ( )
=12880
4[ ] = 4795 KN
4. Negative skin friction in a soil is considered when the pile is constructed through a
(a) Fill material

(b) Dense coarse sand
(c) Over consolidated stiff clay
(d) Dense fine sand
Ans: (A)
JH ACADEMY Page 2
5. For the soil profile shown in figure below, the minimum number of precast concrete piles of 300 mm
diameter required to safety carry the load for a given factor of safety of 2.5 (assuming 100% efficiency
for the pile group) is equal to
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25
Ans:
Q=
No. of Piles =
6. What is the ultimate capacity in kN of the pile group sown in the figure assuming the group to fail asa
single block ?
(a) 921.6 (b) 1177.6 (c) 2438.6 (d) 3481.6
Ans:
( ) ( ) KN
7. A pile of 0.50m diameter and length 10m is embedded in a deposit of clay. The undrained strength
parameters of the clay are cohesion = 60kN/m2 and the angle in internal friction = 0. The skin friction
capacity (kN) of the pile for an adhesion factor of 0.6, is
(A) 671 (B) 565

(C) 283 (D) 106
Ans:
JH ACADEMY Page 3
8. A precast concrete pile is driven with a 50kN hammer falling through a height of 1.0m with an
efficiency of 0.6. The set value observed is 4mm per blow and the combined temporary compression of
the pile, cushion and the ground is 6mm. As per Modified Hiley Formula, the ultimate resistance of the
pile is
(A) 3000kN (B) 4285.7kN

(C) 8.333kN (D) 11905kN
Ans:
9. Examine the test arrangement and the soil properties given below
The maximum pressure that can be applied with a factor of safety of 3 through the concrete block,
ensuring no bearing capacity failure in soil using Terzaghi's bearing capacity equation without
considering the shape factor, depth factor and inclination factor is
(A) 26.67kPa (B) 60kPa

(C) 90kPa (D) 120kPa
Ans:
=
Wt. of Block = 1.5
= 21.6 KN
JH ACADEMY Page 4
10. Examine the test arrangement and the soil properties given below
The maximum resistance offered by the soil through skin friction while pulling out the pile from the
ground is
(A) 104.9kN (B) 209.8kN

(C) 236kN (D) 472kN
Ans:
= 0.5
= 236 kN
11. The ultimate load capacity of a 10 m long concrete pile of square cross section 500 mm x 500 mm
driven into a homogeneous clay layer having undrained cohesion value of 40 kPa is 700 kN. If the
cross section of the pile is reduced to 250 mm X 250 mm and the length of the pile is increased to20 m,
the ultimate load capacity will be
(A) 350 kN (B) 632.5 kN

(C) 722.5 kN (D) 1400kN
Ans:
700 =
700 =
Q=
= 610+0.25
= 632.5 KN
JH ACADEMY Page 5
12. A singly under-reamed, 8-m long, RCC pile (shown in the adjoining figure) weighing 20 kN with 350
mm shaft diameter and 750 mm under-ream diameter is installed within stiff, saturated silty clay
(undrained shear strength is 50 kPa, adhesion factor is 0.3, and the applicable bearing capacity factor is
9) to counteract the impact of soil swelling on a structure constructed above. Neglecting suction and the
contribution of the under-ream to the adhesive shaft capacity, what would be the estimated ultimate
tensile capacity (rounded off to the nearest integer value of kN) of the pile?
(A) 132 kN (B) 156 kN

(C) 287 kN (D) 301 kN
Ans:
20+ ( )
= 300.86 301 KN
13. Consider the following statements regarding negative skin friction in piles:
1) It is developed when the pile is driven through a recently deposited clay layer.
2) It is developed when the pile is driven through a layer of dense sand.
3) It is developed due to a sudden drawn down of the water table.
a) 1 alone b) 2 alone
c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3
Ans: (A)
JH ACADEMY Page 6
14. Match List-I(soil property measured) with List-II(in-situ test) and select the correct answer using the
List-I
A. Modulus of sub grade reaction
B. Relative density and strength
C. Skin friction and point bearing
D. Elastic constants
List-II
1. Cyclic pile load test
2. Pressure meter test
3. Plate load test
4. Standard penetration test
Codes:
A B C D
a) 1 3 2 4
b) 1 2 4 3
c) 2 4 1 3
d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (D)
15. Assertion (A): bearing capacity of an under-reamed pile is less than that of a straight bored pile of the
same diameter.
Reason(R): under-reamed piles have enlarged bulbs.
Codes:
Ans: (D)
16. Assertion (A): negative skin friction will act on piles in filled up soils, which should be considered in
design of pile foundations.
Reason(R): the filled up soils start consolidating and develop a drag force on the pile.
Codes:
Ans: (A)
JH ACADEMY Page 7
17. A 30cm diameter friction pile is embedded 10m into a homogeneous consolidated deposit. Unit
adhesion developed between clay and pile shaft is 4 t/ and adhesion factor is 0.7. the safe load for
factor of safety 2.5 will be
a) 21.50t b) 11.57t
c) 10.55t d) 6.35t
Ans:
= 10.55t
18. Consider the following statements regarding under reamed piles:

1. They are used in expansive soils.
2. They are of precast reinforced concrete.
3. The ratio of bulb to shaft diameter is usually 2 to 3.
4. Minimum spacing between the piles should not be less than 1.5 times the bulb diameter.
a) 1,2 and 3 b) 1,3 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (B)
19. Minimum center to center spacing of friction piles of diameter (D) as per BIS code is
a) 1.5D b) 2D
c) 2.5D d) 3D
Ans: (c)
20. In the engineering news record formula for determining the safe load carrying capacity of a pile, the
factor of safety used is
a) 2.5 b) 3
c) 4 d) 6
Ans: (D)
21. In the case of a pile foundation, negative skin friction may occur at a load which is
a) Lower than the designed load

b) Higher than the designed load
c) Equal to the designed load
d) Of any magnitude
Ans: (D)
22. In under-reamed pile construction, the ratio of shaft diameter to bulb diameter is
a) 1/1.5 b) 1/2 c) 1/ 2.5 d) 1/ 4
Ans: (C)
JH ACADEMY Page 8
23. Match List-I (field test) with List-II (property) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List-I
A. Pumping test
B. Plate load test
C. Pile load test
List-II
1. Bearing capacity
2. Load carrying capacity
3. Permeability
Codes:
A B C
a) 1 2 3
b) 3 1 2
c) 2 3 1
d) 3 2 1
Ans: (B)
24. A single pile, 50cm in diameter and 15m long is driven in clay having an average unconfined
compressive strength of 100KN/ . The ultimate bearing capacity of the pile, neglecting end bearing,
if any, and assuming shear mobilization factor of 0.8 around the pile is
a) 942KN b) 1884KN
c) 1177.5KN d) 1334.5KN
Ans:
= 942kN
25. Match List-I ( method of estimating pile capacity) with List-II ( parameter to be estimated) and select
List-I
A. Dynamic formulae
B. Static formulae
C. Pile load test
D. Cyclic pile load test
List-II
1. Bearing capacity of cast-in-situ concrete pile
2. Separating end-bearing and friction powers of a pile
3. Bearing capacity of a timber pile
4. Settlement of a friction bearing pile
Codes:
A B C D
a) 3 1 4 2
b) 4 2 3 1
c) 3 2 4 1
d) 4 1 3 2
Ans: (A)
JH ACADEMY Page 9
26. For designing end bearing piles of square cross-section in clays having average confined compressive
strength of 6t/ , the net ultimate bearing capacity may be taken as
a) 15 t/ b) 18 t//
c) 20 t/ d) 27 t/
Ans:
9 3 = 27
27. Skin frictional capacities of a 40cm diameter driven concrete pile for the portions A, B and C are
17KN. 63KN and 503KN respectively, and point load capacity is 11000KN/ total pile load capacity
will be
a) 3743KN b) 2864KN
c) 1965KN d) 1529KN
Ans:
17+63+503+11000 = 1965 KN
28. Match List-I (type of foundation) with List-II ( type of soil) and select the correct answer using the
List-I
A. Floating piles
B. Micro piles
C. Combined footing
D. Under-reamed piles
List-II
1. Closed spaced columns resting on compressible soil
2. Expansive soils
3. Deep soft clays
4. Loose sands
Codes:
A B C D
a) 2 1 4 3
b) 2 4 1 3
c) 3 1 4 2
d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (D)
29. A square pile of section 30cm 30cm and length 10m penetrates a deposit of clay having C=5KN/
and the mobilizing factor m=0.8. What is the load carried by the pile by skin friction only?
a) 192KN b) 75KN
c) 60KN d) 48KN
Ans:
0.3 = 48 kN
JH ACADEMY Page 10

1. Pile foundations are usually provided when loads coming on the foundation are quite large. Such
piles may often extend up to large depth below ground level.
2. Precast piles inserted into the holes bored at the site do not get damaged while they are driven into
the ground.
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) both 1 and 2 d) neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (B)
31. Match List-I (type of foundation) with List-II (use of the foundation) and select the correct answer
List-I
A. Point bearing piles
B. Sheet piles
C. Compaction piles
D. Batter piles
List-II
1. To retain soil refilling
2. To transfer heavy loads to strong stratum below a weak stratum
3. To resist lateral loads
4. To density loose soils
Codes:
A B C D
a) 3 1 4 2
b) 3 4 1 2
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 2 4 1 3
Ans: (C)
32. The load carrying capacity of an individual friction pile is 200KN. What is the total load carrying
capacity of a group of 9 such piles with group efficiency factor of 0.8?
a) 1800KN b) 1640KN
c) 1440KN d) 900KN
Ans:
200
JH ACADEMY Page 11
33. Match List-I (type of pile) with List-II (situation for use) and select the correct answer using the codes
List-I
A. End bearing pile
B. Pedestal pile
C. Friction pile
D. Sand piles
List-II
1. When weak foundation soil is to be compacted
2. When foundation is granular
3. When foundation soil is relatively weak
4. When hard formation or rock is at a shallow depth
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 2 3 1
b) 1 3 2 4
c) 4 3 2 1
d) 1 2 3 4
Ans: (A)
34. While driving a large number of piles in loose sand

a) It is advantageous to follow a sequence of pile driving such that the inner piles are driven first and
then proceed outwards
b) It is advantageous to follow a sequence of pile driving such that the piles near the periphery are
driven first and inner piles are driven later
c) It is advantageous to follow a sequence of pile driving such that alternately inner and outer piles
are driven
d) Driving of piles can be done in any random order
Ans: (B)

1. Initial load tests and routine tests are carried out on test piles and working piles, respectively
2. A cyclic load test is performed to determine a pile’s skin resistance and base resistance separately
3. In a pile load test, the safe load is taken as half the final load at which the settlement equals 10% of
pile-diameter
a) 1,2 and 3 b) only 1 and 2
c) Only 2 and 3 d) only 1 and 3
Ans: (A)
36. Which of the following types of piles is likely to have the highest load capacity in compression?
a) Driven pre-cast concrete pile
b) Pre-cast pile placed in a pre-drilled bore
c) Driven steel pipe pile
d) Steel pipe pile placed in a pre-drilled bore
Ans: (A)
JH ACADEMY Page 12
37. Match List-I (foundation) with List-II (demanding situation) and select the correct answer using the
List-I
A. Under-reamed piles
B. Floating rafts
C. Combined footing
D. Strap footing
List-II
1. To restrict settlement of soft clays/silts
2. To transfer the moment in between two adjacent footings
3. To restrict damages due to volume changes of swelling soils
4. When columns are very close to the property line
Codes:
A B C D
a) 3 2 4 1
b) 4 1 3 2
c) 4 2 3 1
d) 3 1 4 2
Ans: (d)
38. Match List-I (method) with List-II (suitability) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List-I
A. Static formulae
B. Dynamic formulae
C. Static pile load test
D. Cyclic pile load test
List-II
1. To estimate allowable load for permissible settlement for a pile
2. To separate point bearing and friction bearing capacities of a pile
3. To estimate allowable load for driven piles in granular soils
4. To estimate allowable load for bored piles in clays
Codes:
ABCD
a) 4 2 1 3
b) 1 3 4 2
c) 4 3 1 2
d) 1 2 4 3
Ans: (c)

1. Piles are provided in groups, which are connected together by a pile cap. The structure rests on top
of the pile cap.The pile cap is situated below the ground level.
2. For situations where pile is subjected to upward pull, pedestal piles or under-reamed piles are more
suitable type of foundations.
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) both 1 and 2 d) neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
JH ACADEMY Page 13

1. Under-reamed piles are designed as bearing piles
2. In multi-bulb under reamed piles, the bulbs are spaced at 1.5 to 2.0 times the diameter of the under
ream, the centre of the first under ream being at a minimum depth of 1.75m.
3. The length of traditional under-reamed pile ranges from 3m to 4m.
a) 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2
c) 2 only d) 1 and 3
Ans: (b)

1. Friction piles are also called floating piles
2. Minimum number of piles to quality as a pile group is three
3. The group efficiency of a pile group may be either less than 100% or more than 100%
a) 1,2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (a)
JH ACADEMY Page 14

Three Phase System: Origin of Soils and Classification

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Sub: Geotechnical Engineering Topic : Three Phase System

(A) 65.3 (B) 20.9

(C) 83.7 (D) 54.4

(A) 100% (B) 75% (C) 50% (D) 25%

The liquid limit of the soil is

(A) 63.1 % (B) 62.8 %

(C) 61.9 % (D) 60.6 %

4. Data from a sieve analysis conducted on a given sample of soil showed

on the A-line, =18.25

5. The undrained cohesion of a remoulded clay soil is 10 kN/m2. If the

Compressive strength = 2C =20 kN/m2

on the A-line, =14.6

Semi solid plastic liquid

13. Deposit with flocculated structure is formed when

on the A-line, =10.95

15. In a compaction test, G, w, S and e represent the specific gravity, water

on the A-line, =29.2

(a) 21.2% (b) 27% (c) 73% (d) 78.8%

(a) 0.25 (b) 0.5 (c) 1.00 (d) 1.50

24. Lacustrine soils are soils

(a) Transported by rivers and streams

(b) Transported by glaciers

(c) Deposited in sea beds

(d) Deposited in lake beds

The area marked X represents

a) Silt of low plasticity

(a) 10 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 70

(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 1.5 (d) 2.0

(a) 12% (b) 13.5% (c) 18.5% (d) 22%

(a) 1.5 (b) 1.25 (c) 0.60 (d) 0.40

30. Consider the following statement in relation to the given sketch

1. Soil is partially saturated at degree of saturation = 60%

Which of these statements is are correct?

(a) CH (b) CI (c) CL (d) MI

(a) 1.5 g/cc and 1.0 g/cc

(b) 2.0 g/cc and 1.0 g/cc

(c) 2.25 g/cc and 1.25 g/cc

(d) 2.50 g/cc and 1.50 g/cc

33. A fill having a volume of 1,50,000 cum is to be constructed at a Void

(a) 1,87,500 (b) 2,00,000

(c) 2,10,000 (d) 2,50,000

Volume of bowwow pit=

34. The moisture content of a clayey soil is gradually decreased from a

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1,2,3 (c) 1,3,2

(a) 70 (b) 60 (c) 40 (d) 30

36. Consider the following statements:

A Well-graded sand should have

1. Uniformity coefficient greater than 6

Which of the statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2

(a) 25 (b) 33.33 (c) 50 (d) 66.66

(a) 30% (b) 25% (c) 20% (d) 15%

Additional water =0.02 kg

Total water = 0.04kg

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 8

(a) 3.8 (b) 6.5 (c) 38 (d) 65

a) 75% b) 66.66% c) 50% d) 33.33%

a) 20% b) 30% c) 40% d) 60%

a) 0.5 b) 0.6 c) 0.4 d) 0.9

Void ratio porosity (%)

As is less than 6 and is not in between 1 to 3, the soil is SP

a) 2.5 b) 1.67 c) 1.0 d) 0.6