SAINT LOUIS UNIVERSITY CHEMICAL ENGINEERING ACTIVITIES

SAINT LOUIS UNIVERSITY
SCHOOL OF ENGINEERING AND ARCHITECTURE
DEPARTMENT OF CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
Compilation of Activities and Problem Sets
In Partial Fulfillment
of the Requirements for the Degree
Bachelor of Science in Chemical Engineering
Submitted by:
Taguines, Cherry Rose F.
BSChE 5
2142596
Submitted to:
Engr. Jhay Inocencio
December 2018
1
TABLE OF CONTENTS
HANDBOOK EXERCISE 3
PRETEST DAY 2 8
CALCULATIONS 1 & 2 11
THERMODYNAMICS 28
FLUID MECHANICS 43
PARTICULATES 54
KINETICS 70
CPED, PLANT DESIGN AND ECONOMICS 82
HEAT TRANSFER 97
MASS TRANSFER 113
CHEMICAL PROCESS INDUSTRIES 124
198
221
242
261
277
293
2
317
301
Handbook Exercise
Page Table/Figure/Para Answer

Question graph/ Equation
1. Density of air at 800 K and 0.5 2-213 Table 2-187 0.0761 mol/dm3
MPa
2. Find for the heat capacity of 2-453 Table 2-323 2.48 kJ/kg-K
methanol in kJ/kg-K at 25 oC
3. Refers to the shear stress at 2-504 3rd paragraph, 2nd absolute viscosity
a point, divided by the velocity column
gradient at that point
4. Absorptivity of aluminum paint 5-19 Figure 5-10 0.270
at 2500 oR
5. What is the value of Stephen 5-18 3rd paragraph,1st 0.17123x10-8 BTU/ft2-h-oR4
Boltzman constant in BTU/ft2- column
h-oR4
6. Outside diameter of a 22 BWG 11-42 Table 11-12 1.289 inches
gage with thickness 0.028 in
7. The skeletal density of a 16-10 Equation 16-2 ρP
particle is given in terms of
ρ s=
1−ε p
internal porosity by the
equation ____________
8. It is defined as the ratio of 2-504 3rd paragraph 2nd kinematic viscosity
the absolute viscosity to column
density at the same
temperature and pressure
9. Value of KCl parts/100 parts 18-40 Figure 18-64 40 KCl parts/100 parts H2O
H2O at 100 oC in 20 parts
NaCl/100 parts H2O
10. The removal of a soluble 18-59 1st paragraph, 1st Leaching
fraction in the form of a column
solution, from an insoluble,
usually permeable, solid phase
with which it is associated
11. Melting point of acetic acid in 2-28 Table 2-2 16.7 oC
o
C
12. Process where media are 21-69 4th paragraph, 1st Autogenous Milling
replaced with large rocks of paragraph
the same material as the
product, becoming increasing
popular in the minerals
industry
3
13. Accepted formula for biomass 22-66 2nd Paragraph, 1st C60H87O23N12P
column
14. GAC stands for 22-76 1st paragraph, 1st granular activated carbon
column
15. A semi-quantitative 23-42 4th paragraph, 2nd What-if analysis
methodology for analyzing and column
assessing risk
16. It is the determination by 24-5 3rd Paragraph, 1st proximate analysis
prescribed methods of column
moisture, volatile matter,
fixed carbon and ash
17. API gravity of 3% sulfur with 24-9 Figure 24-1 34
total of 136000 BTU/gal at
constant volume
18. The height of packed bed 14-63 2nd Paragraph, 1st HETP
required to achieve a column Height Equivalent to the
theoretical stage Theoretical Plate
19. A dimensionless group used to 5-47 Sherwood Number
characterize the importance
of the speed of reaction
relative to diffusion rate
20. A unit operation in which 14-6 1st paragraph, 1st gas absorption
soluble components of a gas column
mixture are dissolved in a
liquid
21. Latent heat of water at 0 oC in 2-145 Table 2-147 [(1436 cal/mol)/18]x1.799
BTU/lb 143.5202 BTU/lb
22. Nominal composition of 25-40 Table 25-16 Ni or Co: Bal.
hastelloy C-276 of nickel Cr: 14.5 – 16.5%
Fe: 4 – 7%
Mo: 15 – 17%
C: 0.010%
W: 3.0 – 4.5%
23. Find the outside diameter of a 10-78 Table 10-22 1.315 inches
1-in 80S steel pipe
24. It is a protective response 8-49 1st paragraph, 1st interlock
initiated on the direction of a column
process hazard
25. Chemical formula of arcanite 2-22 Table 2-1 potassium sulfate
26. Determine the specific heat of 2-183 Table 2-162 0.86 cal/g-oC
37% C2H5OH at 23 oC
27. Surface roughness of a 6-10 Table 6-1 4.57 x 10-5 m
wrought iron in meters
28. The work done by moving solid 6-7 3rd Paragraph, 1st shaft work
boundaries also includes that column
by such surfaces as pump
impellers
4
29. The discipline of fluid 6-4 4th Paragraph, 1st rheology
mechanics which studies the column
relationship between fluid
deformation and stress
30. The path followed by a 6-5 3rd Paragraph, 2nd pathline
material element of fluid column
frL 21-95 Eq 21-113 Stoke’s number

31. The equation St = is known
V
as
32. Determine the drag 6-52 Figure 6-57 1.2
coefficient of a disk whose
Reynold’s number is 8000
33. The lowest temperature at 23-7 11th Paragraph, 2nd Flash Point
which a vapor above a liquid column
will continue to burn once
ignited
34. The corrosion rate above 25-4 10th Paragraph, galvanic corrosion
normal that is associated with 2nd column
the flow of current to a less
active metal in contact with a
more active metal in the same
environment
35. Sulfuric acid dew point, as a 2-85 Table 2-15 179.22°C
function of SO2 content per
80 ppmv with 4% H2O
36. The measure of economic loss 23-48 10th Paragraph, 1st risk
or human injury in terms of column
both incident likelihood and
magnitude of the loss or injury
37. Propagation of a flame in a 23-15 8th Paragraph, 1st explosion
premixture of combustible column
gases, suspended dusts,
combustible vapors, mists or
mixtures, thereof, in a gaseous
oxidant as air, in a closed or
substantially closed vessel
38. Equation of the modified 22-86 Eq. 22-29 kJ 1
Dulong Formula in SI units kg 8 ( )
=337C +1428 H − O + 95 S
39. Formation of seed granules 21-120 3rd Paragraph, 2nd nucleation
column
40. The science of treatment of 18-39 6th Paragraph, 2nd crystallography
the description and column
arrangement of the atomic
structure of crystals
41. Shape of an adsorbent 16-10 Table 16-5 G (granules)
phenolic amine
5
42. AA ASME B16.5, Class 1500 of 10-92 Table 10-30 4.25 inches
a ½ pipe size flanged fitting
43. Number of bolts for a ASME 10-85 Table 10-28 12
B16.5 Class 1500 flanges with
nominal pipe size of 8
44. The ratio of inertia forces to 6-4 1st Paragraph, 2nd viscosity
the viscous forces column
45. The type of pump most widely 10-32 7th Paragraph, 2nd centrifugal pump
used in the chemical industry column
for transferring liquids of all
types
46. The vertical distance 10-26 3rd Paragraph, 1st static suction head
measured from the free column
surface of the liquid source to
the pump centerline plus the
absolute pressure at the liquid
surface
47. A measure fluid density 8-61 4th paragraph, 2nd Direct mass measurement
simultaneously with mass flow column
rate
48. A reversed pitot tube 10-13 4th Paragraph, 1st pitometer
column
49. Kinematic viscosity of 10-7 Table 10-2 1076x106 ft2/s
lubricating oil at 104 oF
50. Emissivity of salt 2-463 Table 2-335 0.34
51. Thermal conductivity of silk at 2-459 Table 2-326 0.026 BTU/(h-ft2)(oF/ft)
100 oF in FPS
52. Watson’s Equation 4-14 Eq. 4-145 ∆ H lv2 1−T r 0.38
lv
∆ H1
=
( )
1−T r
2
53. It is the difference between 2-488 1 paragraph , 2

st nd
Enthalphy of Sublimation
the molar enthalpies of the collumn
equilibrium vapor and solid
along the sublimation curve
below the triple point
54. At what temperature and 2-478 2nd paragraph, 2nd 298.15K; 1atm
pressure is the standard state column
of an ideal gas Gibbs energy of
formation
55. Emissivity of oak at 70 oF 5-22 Table 5-4 0.895
56. Vapor viscosity of C6H6 in Pa.s 2-426 Table 2-312 5.76x10-6Pa⋅s
at 250 K
57. Density of aniline at 80 oC 2-452 Table 2-323 969 kg/m3
58. Diffusivity of n-octane at 30 2-455 Table 2-324 0.271 cm2/s
o
C in hydrogen gas
59. Defined as four times the 6-12 4th paragraph, 1st hydraulic diameter
channel cross-sectional area column
divided by the wetted
6
perimeter
60. What is the economic optimum 6-15 1st paragraph, 1st 9-40 m/s
velocity of a gas in ft/s column
61. It is the ratio of the mean 6-15 3rd paragraph, 1st Knudsen number
free path to the channel column
dimension
62. Drag coefficient for a cylinder 6-52 Figure 6-57 300
that has Re=0.01
63. The vapor pressure of water 2-60 Table 2-8 17.4132mmhg
at 293 K
64. The density of p-xylene at 2-102 Table 2-32 866.4516kg/m3
286.41 K is
65. The density of 65% formic 2-114 Table 2-108 1.1582g/L
acid solution at 14 oC
66. The viscosity of ethyl propyl 2-448 Table 2-318 0.46 cP
ether at 283 K 2-449 Figure 2-32
67. The viscosity if 24% sucrose 2-450 Table 2-319 1.357 cP
solution at 323 K
68. Diffusivity of iodine in 2-457 Table 2-325 1.49 x 10-5 sq cm/sec
mesityline at 25 oC
69. A pump delivers 40 gpm of 12-22 Eq. 12-14 0.6216
water with a total head of 40
ft. The efficiency of the pump
is 65%. What is its BHP?
70. What type of pump is 10-27 Figure 10-24 centrifugal-single stage
commonly used for a capacity
of 200 gal/min ad a head of
100 ft of water
71. What is the defining equation 6-45 Eq 6-207 ρ−ρv
σ=
of the Cavitation Number? ρV 2 /2
72. TRUE or FALSE: The 19-7 3rd paragraph, ast TRUE
disadvantage of CSTR over column
PFR is that it is not suitable
for very fast or very slow
reactions
73. What is the typical over-all 11-25 Table 11-3 25-50 BTU/(oF-ft2-h)
HTC I tubular HE where
kerosene flows in the shell and
water in the tube size
74. Estimate the BPR of a 10% 11-115 Figure 11-124 86 oF
aqueous KOH solution at 1 atm
75. Estimate the thermal 11-71 Figure 11-65 0.36 BTU-in/hr-ft2-oF
conductivity (BTU-in/hr-ft2-
o
F) of polystyrene at 100 oF
76. What is the thermal 11-28 Table 11-9 0.0047 sq. ft/hr
diffusivity of powdered coal
77. Estimate the terminal settling 6-55 Figure 6-61 0.85ft/s
7
velocity (ft/s) in water at 70
o
F of a particle with a specific
gravity of 2.0 and diameter if
100 microns
78. What is the fanning friction 6-10 Figure 6-9 0.0135
factor for a 20 mm ID
galvanized iron pipe if the N of
ethanol flowing is 3.0 x 104
79. Laboratory bioreactor that 7-35 5th Paragraph, 2nd Turbidostat
controls the biomass or cell column
concentration
80. Determine the enthalpy of 2-414 Table 2-305 17.582kJ/mol
steam in kJ/mole at 500 K and
5 Mpa. Is the steam
saturated?
LINKAGE PROBLEM for Nos. 1-2 10. It is the point at which the first drop of a liquid mixture begins to
Shown in Fig. 1-11b is a clevis. vaporize.
1. What would be the minimum bolt diameter to a. triple point b. flash point c. bubble point d. dew point
support a load of 14 kips without exceeding a 11. Mollier diagram is a plot of
shearing stress of 12 ksi and a bearing stress of a. temperature vs. enthalpy c. temperature vs. entropy
20 ksi. b. entropy vs. enthalpy d. temperature vs. internal energy
a. 0.8120 in c. 1.2015 in 12. Clapeyron equation deals with the
b. 1.4168 in d. 0.8618 in a. rate of change of vapor pressure with temperature
2. Calculate the minimum thickness of each yoke b. effect of an inert gas on vapor pressure
of the clevis. c. calculation of G for spontaneous phase change
a. 0.2086 in b. 0.4061 in c. 0.6189 in d. 1.8011 in d. temperature dependence of least of phase transition
3. Determine the relative corrosion rate of an amphoteric metal13. In an ideal cycle, we assume that the feedwater pump is isentropic.
(iron) having a pH of 5. Furthermore, the temperature of the water is 46 OC and it behaves as
a. 3.67 b. 3.10 c. 2.49 d. 2.15 an incompressible liquid, even at 15 Mpa. Calculate the work done by
4. The intermittent weld generally used to hold material in placethe pump to the surroundings.
temporarily. a. 15 kJ/kg b. 17 kJ/kg c. 21 kJ/kg d. 24 kJ/kg
a. double V b. tack c. lap d. butt 14. Dry ice is
5. Joint efficiency for a seamless pipe is a. moisture free ice c. solid helium
a. 0.5 b. 0.85 c. 1 d. 1.5 b. solid carbon dioxide d. carbon dioxide gas
6. Ratio of the number of moles of desired product formed to the 15. Heat of formation of an element in its standard state is
number of undesired product formed. a. 0 b. < 0 c. > 0 d. k
a. selectivity b. yield c. conversion d. AOTA 16. The Brayton cycle is composed of
7. Refers to the temperature at wìhich vapor pressure is equal to thea. two adiabatic processes and two isochoric processes
partial pressure of vapor b. two adiabatic processes and two isobaric processes
a. dew point b. dry bulb c. equilibrium temp d. wet bulb c. two adiabatic processes and two isothermal processes
8. A rock contains 0.5 mg of lead-206 for every milligram of uranium- c. two adiabatic processes only
238. The half-life of the decay of uranium-238 to lead-206 is 4.5 x 10 9 17. An ideal Rankine cycle with reheat operates the boiler at 3 Mpa,
years. How old is the rock? the reheater at 1 Mpa and the condenser at 50 kPa. The
a. 2.9603 x 109 years c. 1.9603 x 109 years temperature at the boiler and reheater outlets is 350 0C. The boiler
b. 3.9603 x 109 years d. 2.3901 x 109 years and reheater are fired with a fuel that releases 9000 kJ/kg of heat
9. A tank is being drained through a hole at the bottom. The volume as it is burned. What is the mass flow rate of the fuel for such a
remaining in the tank at a given time is defined by the equation: V = cycle when sized to produce 50 MW of network?
5(100 – t)2, where V is in liters and t in minutes. After 20 minutes, the a. 70 Mg/h b. 60 Mg/h c. 50 Mg/h d. 40 Mg/h
rate of draining in L/min 18. The food compartment of a refrigerator is maintained at 4 0C by
a. 400 b. 800 c. 3200 d. 6400 removing heat from it at a rate of360 kJ/min. If the required power
8
input to the refrigerator is 2 kW, determine the performance a. of
200 the
openings/cm2 c. 200 openings/inch
refrigerator. b. 200 openings/cm d. 200 openings/in2
a. 0.25 b. 0.33 c. 3 d. 439. Crushed rock salt is to be conveyed at the rate of 50 tons/h
19. Based from the preceding problem, determine the rate at of aheat
horizontal distance of 600 ft and raised a vertical distance
discharge (in kJ/min) to the room that houses the refrigerator. of 52 ft. An inclined belt conveyor has been proposed for this
a. 160 b. 240 c. 360 d. 480
service. Determine the belt width required.
20. In a reversible process a. 16 in b. 13 in c. 19 in d. 10 in
a. TdS – dW – dU > 0 c. dU – dW = TdS 40. Solid handling equipment used to handle large volumes over
b. TdS = dU + dW d. dW – dU = TdS long distances economically is a
21. A vessel with a volume of 1 cubic meter contains liquid water a. screw
and conveyor c. bucket elevator
water vapor in equilibrium at 600 kPa. Liquid water has a mass b. belt
of conveyor
1 d. pneumatic conveyor
kg. Calculate the mass (kg) of the water vapor. 41. Hydraulic radius of a 3 ft equilateral triangle channel below is
a. 1.57 b. 1.89 c. 2.54 d. 3.16 a. 0.65 ft
22. The most efficient thermodynamic cycle b. 0.51 ft
a. Carnot b. Brayton c. Rankine d. Otto c. 0.49 ft
23. If 1 lbm of steam at 14.7 psia, 63% quality is heated d. 0.38 ft
isentropically, at what pressure will it reach the saturated vapor
state?
a. 1852 psia b. 2585 psia c. 56 psia d. 313
42.psia
A pipe’s bursting pressure is directly proportional to its
24. What horsepower is required to isothermally compress 800 a. inside
ft diameter c. outside diameter
air per minute from 14.7 psia to 120 psia? b. schedule number d. length
a. 28 hP b. 108 hP c. 256 hP d. 13,900 hP 43. Which of the following is used to measure gage pressure?
25. Evaluate the ∆H for a mole of methane when it is heated a. from
pycnometer
25 b. manometer c. barometer d. piezometer
o
C to 550 oC at atmospheric pressure, kJ/mol. 44. For the preliminary breaking of hard rock, we use
a. 487 b. 26.46 c. 63.12 d. 57.69
a. gyratory crusher b. jaw crusher c. ball mill d. tube mill
26. Calculate for the ∆S for the previous problem in kJ/mol-K45. Given XF = 0.45, XP = 0.65, XR = 0.75, P = 9.33 tons/h. the
a. 0.063 b. 0.049 c. 0.027 d. 0.058 effectiveness of the screen is
27. For metallic copper at 300K, what is its Cv value in J/mol-K? a. 60.8% b. 55.6% c. 62.8% d. 52.8%
a. 69.2 b. 12.98 c. 87.08 d. 23.81
46. Accounts for the contributions of all effects on heat transfer
28. In the Tyler standard screen series, if the screen opening a. U of a b. h c. Q d. Rf
mesh is 0.351 mm and wire diameter is 0.01 in., then the 47.Mesh
Prandtl number of nitrogen at 200 K is
number is a. 0.821 b. 0.885 c. 0.901 d. 0.714
a. 42 b. 65 c. 32 d. 80
48. The average range of wavelengths of electromagnetic waves
29. In the rotary-drum filter, the controlling resistance is that is associated with thermal radiation is between
a. the filter medium resistance c. hindered settling zone a. 10-5 to 10-2- μm c. 100 to 10,000 μm
b. compression zone d. NOTA b. 0.1 to 100 μm d. 1 to 10 m
30. In a rotary-drum filter, the fractional submergence of 49.the
Two parallel gray planes which are very large have emissivities
drum in the slurry is about of ε1 = 0.8 and ε2 = 0.7 and surface 1 is at 593.5OC and surface 2 at
a. 0.03 b. 0.30 c. 0.50 d. 0.90
315.8OC. What is the net radiation from 1 to 2 in kW/m2?
31. What rotational speed, in revolutions per minute, would a. 14.98
you b. 7.34 c. 12.81 d. 6.25
recommend for a ball mill 1200 mm in diameter charged with50. 75Themm term hD/k is known as
balls? a. Nusselt No. b. Prandtl No. c. Peclet No. d. NOTA
a. 10 rpm b. 20 rpm c. 30 rpm d. 40
51.rpm
The standard ratio of shell passes to tube passes is
32. Hydraulic radius of 6” x 12” c/s is a. ½ b. 1 c. 2 d. 0
a. 2” b. 0.5” c. 1.5” d. 2.25” 52. What is the value of transmissivity for opaque materials?
33. Boiler feed pump is usually a a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 1.141
a. gear pump c. reciprocating pump 53. A certain reaction is first order in A. In 30 minutes, A
b. centrifugal pump d. multi-stage centrifugal pump decreases from 0.55 to 0.15 mol/L. Calculate the time it will take
34. The kinetic energy correction factor for velocity for A to decrease from 0.35 to 0.15 mol/L.
distribution of laminar flow is a. 320 s b. 19.5638 min c. 1850.1252 s d. 21.8910
a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 1.66 d. 2 min
35. Water at 60oF is flowing through a 3in diameter smooth 54. Diazonium salt decomposes as, C 6H5N+2Cl- → C6H5Cl + N2. At 0OC,
horizontal pipe. If the Reynolds number is 35,300, calculate the the evolution of N2 becomes two times faster when initial
maximum velocity to the average velocity. concentration of the salt is doubled. Thus, it is
a. 0.81 b. 1.05 c. 1.22 d. 1.72 a. a first order reaction b. a second order reaction
36. Cement clinker is reduced to fine size c. a third order reaction d. cannot be determined
a. roll crusher b. ball mill c. hammer mill d. tube mill 55. A liquid phase reaction A + B  P at 200C, suppose 40% conversion
37. Froth flotation is most suitable for treating of A is desired in steady state operation. The reaction is pseudo –
a. metal ore b. iron ore c. sulfide ore d. quartz first order with respect to A with k A = 0.0257/h at 20 0C. The total
38. 200 mesh screens means
9
volumetric flowrate is 1.8 m3/h. Determine the CSTR vessel 71. volume
There are 30 kg of solute in 100 liters of water, the weight of the
required if for safety, it can only be filled to 75% capacity. solute that will be extracted by 35 liters of ether if the distribution
a. 25.1 m3 b. 47.5 m3 c. 62.3 m3 d.coefficient,
74.8 m m =4 is
56. Pseudo-first order model was proposed by ____________ a. 2 kg to b. 3 kg c. 2.45 kg d. 3.45 kg
describe kinetic process of Liq-sol phase adsorption 72. When a 4.9827 g object with a density of 8.8937 g/cc is dropped
a. Zeldowitsch b. Lagergren c. Arrhenius d.into
Ho a liquid with a density of 0.7289 g/cc, what mass of liquid will it
57. He proposed the Elovich’s model to study kinetics of Chemisorption displace?
of gases onto heterogeneous solids. a. 0.4084g b. 4.9827g c. 0.5602g d. 0.0820g
a. Elovich b. Lagergren c. Zeldowitsch d.73.
Keinath
The upper plate is fixed, while the lower plate moves in the
58. Called a riser and / or a circulating bed reactor. positive x direction at 0.5 m/s. The plate separation is 0.001 m, the
a. backmix reactor b. CSTR c. batch reactor d. fluid
PFR viscosity is 0.7 cP and the velocity profile is linear. Calculate
59. The decomposition of pure A  X + Y + Z at 1.2 atm and the 650shear
0 stress in the moving fluid.
a space time of 2.7 min (based on entering feed condition) to a. 0.48 Pa
achieve b. 0.35 Pa c. 0.28 Pa d. 0.17 Pa
95% conversion in a backmix reactor. The size of the reactor 74.toWater
react flows through an orifice of 25 mm diameter situated in a
the 100 ft3/min pure A should be: 75 mm diameter pipe, at a rate of 300 cm 3/s. What will be the
a. 95 ft3 b. 100 ft3 c. 265 ft3 d.difference
270 ft in level on a water manometer connected across the
60. A sensor usually made of a semiconductor that utilizes the meter? The viscosity of water is 1 mN-s/m 2.
effect
of temperature on the resistance to current is a a. 76 mm H2O b. 64 mm H2O c. 51 mm H2O d. 47 mm H2O
a. thermocouple b. thermistor c. resistor d. 75. A wet material having a critical moisture content of 15% (d.b.)
capacitor
61. The Chinese lacquers were based on the milky sap of the andChinese
an equilibrium moisture content of 3% (d.b.) took 6 hours to dry
lacquer tree known as? from 45% (d.b.) to 10% moisture. The time it will take to dry to 15%
a. Red 170 c. Rhus Vhernicifera moisture dry bulb is
b. Linum Usitatissimum d. Aztecs a. 5 hrs b. 4.5 hrs c. 4 hrs d. 3.5 hrs
62. It measures how well the substance for a gasoline will 76. resist
The material is maintained suspended against gravity in an
combusting Tave w/o a helper ignition source. upward-flowing air stream. There may also be a horizontal air flow
a. cetane number c. ASTM D976 helping to convey the material through the dryer. Heat is
b. octane number d. ASTM 4737 transferred from the air to the material, mostly by convection.
63. (Mg, Ca)O.Al2O3.5SiO2.nH2O is the molecular formula of? pneumatic dryer c. tunnel dryer
a. montmorillonite b. kaolinite c. klite d. illiteb. fluidized bed dryer d. spray dryer
64. Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of an 77. Momentum transport has a driving force of _____________.
instrument? temperature gradient c. velocity gradient
a. high drift b. high fidelity c. high measuring lag d. concentration
NOTA gradient d. voltage gradient
65. Bureau of Labor Standards was enacted on December 1956 by Oilthe
with a viscosity of 30 cP and a density of 60 lb/ft 3 flows
virtue of _______________. through a ½ inch inside diameter pipe. Determine the velocity in ft/s
a. EO 26 b. EO 797 c. EO 218 d.below
RA 318 which flow will be laminar.
66. A thermocouple having a linear relationship between 0 0Ca. and 14.51350 b. 0.63 c. 16.90 d. 87.20
shows an emf of zero and 30.5 mV respectively at 79. The velocity
these two profile for turbulent flow thru a closed conduit is
temperatures. If the cold junction temperature is shifted from a. logarithmic
0 b. parabolic c. hyperbolic d. linear
30 C, then the emf correction in mV is
0 80. Stoke’s Law is valid when the particle Reynolds number is
a. 3.13 b. 2.92 c. 2.61 d.A. <1
2.02 b. <5 c. >1 d. 0
67. There are 30 kg of solute in 100 liters of water, the weight 81. Given
of theXF = 0.45, XP = 0.65, XR = 0.75, P = 9.33 tons/h. the
solute that will be extracted by 35 liters of ether if the effectivenessdistribution of the screen is
coefficient, m =4 is a. 62.8% b. 52.8% c. 60.8% d. 55.6%
a. 2 kg b. 3 kg c. 2.45 kg d. 3.45 kg 82. What is the work for sandstone?
68. A single stage extraction is performed in which 400 kg ofa.a2.68 b. 16.40 c. 11.53 d. 14.12
solution containing 35 wt% acetic acid in water is contracted 83. Darcy’s law is the transport of ________.
with 400 kg pure isopropyl ether. The % Hac in the extract a. mass b. volume c. momentum d. energy
layer is. 84. The US Standard Sieve series equivalent to a 24 mesh Tyler
a. 11% b. 86% c. 72% d. 3% Standard is ____ microns.
69. The diffusion rate of ammonia from an aqueous solution a. to606 b. 400 c. 707 d. 805
the gas phase is 10-3 kmol/m2-s. the interface equilibrium 85. The molar composition of a gas is 10% H2, 10% O2, 30% CO2 and
pressure of NH3 is 660 N/m2 and the concentration of ammonia the rest is water. If 50% of the water condenses, what is the final
in gas phase is 5%. If the total pressure is 101 N/m mole
2
, percent of the H2 in the gas on a dry basis?
temperature is 295K and diffusivity of NH 3 is 0.24 cm /s, the 2 a. 56 b. 70 c. 25 d. 20
gas film thickness is 86. A pump delivers 40 gpm of water with a total head of 40 ft. The
a. 6.4 um b. 23.5 um c. 1.2 um d. 27.9 um efficiency of the pump is 65%. What is its BHP?
70. The moisture of the solid in excess of the equilibrium moisture a. 0.62 b. 0.78 c. 2.0 d. 0.97
content corresponding to saturation humidity. 87. A cylindrical tank 1 ft in diameter discharges through a pipe
a. bound moisture c. unbound moisture connected to the base. Find the time needed for the water level in
b. free moisture d. critical moisture
10
the tank to drop from 4 ft to 2 ft above the pipe. The diameter of95. Shape factor for a cylinder whose length equals its diameter is
the pipe is 1 inch. a. 0 b. 2 c. 1 d. 1.5
a. 42s b. 30s c. 21s d.17s 96. Compressibility coefficient for an absolutely compressible cakeis
88. Standard pressure gauges are manufactured so that they cana. 1/3 b. ½ c. 1 d. 2/3
withstand a percent overpressure 97. The wire diameter of a 10 mesh screen whose aperture is 0.065”
a. 15 b. 25 c. 33 d. 75 a. 0.025” b. 0.035” c. 0.045” d. 0.055”
89. The density of p-Xylene at 286.41K is 98. What is the relative volatility of a n-pentane and n-hexane
a. 0.368 g/cc b. 0.789 g/cc c. 0.866 g/cc d. 0.697 g/ccmixture at 200C
90. A steel pipe has an inside diameter of 25 mm, is 20 m long, anda. 3.44 b. 3.21 c. 3.14 d. 3.18
carries 10oC water at a rate of 4.5 m 3/h. If the static pressure at99. A rectangular duct 4m x 1.5 m in cross section carries
the upstream is 70 kPa, what is the static pressure of the water atconditioned air, its equivalent diameter is
the downstream? a. 1.5 m b. 2.18 m c. 1.15 ft d. 2.18 ft
a. 2.6 kPa b. 5.3 kPa c. 53.2 kPa d. 19.9 kPa 100. Optimum ratio of operating speed to critical speed of trammel
91. When two centrifugal pumps are connected in series, thea. 0.33 – 0.45 b. 1.33 – 1.45 c. 0.5 – 2.0 d. 1.5 – 2.5
discharge changes by a factor of
a. ½ b. 1 c. 2 d. 1/3
92. What is the porosity of a solid if its bulk density is 1125 kg/m
and its true density is 1500 kg/m 3?
a. 0.25 b. 1/3 c. 2/3 d. ¼
93. In a plate and frame filter press, the rate of washing is equal to
the of the final filtration rate.
a. ¼ b. 4 c. ½ d. 8
94. When the impeller speed of an ideal centrifugal pump is doubled,
the volumetric flow rate of the discharge is increased by a factor of
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3/2 d. 2/3
Activity 1
Calculations 1 & 2
1. This is an operation whereby components of a homogeneous liquid mixture are separated by boiling
because of their differences in volatility
a. Gas absorption
b. Distillation
c. Drying
d. Crystallization
2. The ratio of partial pressure of vapor to the vapor pressure in equilibrium with the liquid.
a. Relative Humidity
b. Relative Saturation
a. Absolute saturation
b. Absolute Humidity
3. The material, which remains unchanged in the process.
a. Limiting reactant
b. By-product
c. Tie reactant
d. Feed
4. In this unit operation, a material dissolved in a liquid phase is transferred to a second phase.
a. Absorption
b. Crystallization
c. Leaching
d. Extraction
5. The purpose of recycling operations in chemical engineering is
a. To increase the overall conversion of an equilibrium reaction
11
b. To recover expensive catalyst and reagents
c. To enhance the yield and obtain enriched products
d. All of the above
6. A batch process is that in which material enters the system and ______. Which of the following
should fill the gap?
a. Leaves
b. Does not leave
c. Half of it leaves
d. None of the mentioned
7. A semi-batch process is that in which material enters the system and ____
which of the following should fill the gap?
a. Leaves
b. Does not leave
c. Half of it leaves
d. None of the mentioned
8. Coal that has only lost its moisture.
a. Coked coal
b. Uncoked coal
c. Charcoal
d. Antracite coal
9. The presence of ______ in a dry gaseous fuel does not contribute to its calorific value
a. Carbon
b. Hydrogen
c. Oxygen
d. Sulfur
10. It is the type of heat lost in the stack gas due to the presence of CO and H2 free in the stack
gas.
a. Heating value
b. Latent heat
c. Potential heat
d. Sensible heat
11. Which of the following constituent of coal is most important in the production of coke?
a. Ash
b. Carbon
c. Moisture
d. Net hydrogen
12. During combustion of gaseous fuels, deficiency of air …
a. Increase the flame temperature
b. Lengthens the flame
c. Tend to shorten the flame
d. Does not affect the length of flame
13. Which is not true about theoretical oxygen?
a. It is based on the oxygen required to burn all the fuel to CO2, H2O or SO2
b. It is based on the complete combustion of all fuel fed to the reactor
c. It is based in how much fuel was burned in the reactor
d. None of the above
12
14. Solutions which distill without change in composition are called
a. Azeotropic
b. Saturated
c. Supersaturated
d. Ideal
15. The ease or difficulty of spreading components by distillation is determined by
a. Relative volatility
b. Relative solubility
c. Vapor pressure
d. Viscosity
16. The rate of material _____ is zero in case of a steady state system.
a. Production
b. Accumulation
c. Reaction
d. Input
17. The basis of all mass balance calculations
a. Law of Mass Action
b. Law of Conservation of Mass
c. Degree of Completion
d. T and P Conditions
18. Temperature taken from the vapor-gas mixture using a thermometer with a wick which is wet with
the liquid form of the condensable gas where heat is transferred from the mixture to the bulb.
a. Dew point
b. Atmospheric temperature
c. Wet bulb temperature
d. Dry bulb temperature
19. In liquid extraction, the transfer of solute between two immiscible liquid is possible when there is
a difference in
a. Solubility
b. Specific gravity
c. Viscosity
d. Mass
20. It involves the reverse transfer whereby water vapor is transferred from the vapor state to the
liquid state.
a. Crystallization
b. Dehumidification
c. Absorption
d. Humidification
21. The term given to the two-phase mixture of mother liquor and crystals
a. Slurry
b. Magma
c. Bagasse
d. OATA
22. Refers to the temperature at which vapor pressure is equal to the parcial pressure of vapor
13
a. Dew point
b. Dry bulb
c. Equilibrium temp
d. Wet bulb
23. Define as the kilogram of water contained in kilogram of dry air
a. Relative humidity
b. Humid volume
c. Percent humidity
d. Humidity
24. The ratio of the partial pressure of a vapor to the vapor pressure in equilibrium with the liquid is
called
a. Relative saturation
b. Relative humidity
c. Absolute saturation
d. Absolute saturation
25. Process conditions are changing with time
a. Steady-state
b. Continuous
c. Unsteady-state
d. Batch
Linkage Problem (26-27)

A tank initially holds 80 gal of a brine solution containing 1/8 lb salt per gallon. At t=0, another brine
solution containing 1ln of salt per gallon is poured into the tank at the rate of 4 gal/min while the well
stirred mixture leaves the tank at a rate of 8 gal/min.
26. Find the amount of salt in the tank when the tank contains exactly 40 gal of solution.
a. 30.8 lb
b. 12.9 lb
c. 17.5 lb
d. 22.5lb
1 lb
1
8
lb
+ salt
per
salt gal
per gal
V1= 80 gal at t = 0 Q2= 8 gal/min
Solution: Q1= 4 gal/min
14
V2
dV
∫ dt =¿ ¿Q – Q 1 2
V1
V2 – 80 = (4 – 8) t
V2 = 80 – 4t
dm 8 m2
(salt balance): =4 ( 1 )−
dt V2
dm 8 m2
=4 ( 1 )−
dt 80−4 t
dm 8 m2
+ =4
dt 80−4 t
∫ 8 dt 1
e 80−4 t = (20−t)2
dm 1 2 1
2
+
(20−t) dt (20−t) 20−t (2 )
M =4
[
( 20−t )2 ]
m 4
+ c=
(20−t) 2
20−t
At t = 0; m=(1 lb/8 gal) x 80 gal = 10 lb
10 4
+c=
(20−0) 2
20
7
c=
40
m 7 4
+ =
(20−t) 40 20−10
2
m = 22.50 lbs.
27. Determine when the tank will contain the most salt
a. 8.57 min
b. 20.2 min
c. 15.67 min
d. 25.4 min
dm
=0
dt
dm 7
=¿-4 – (2 )( 20−t ) (−1 )=0
dt 40
t = 8.57 mins.

The analysis of a flue gas from a fuel gas containing nitrogen is 4.62% CO2, 3.08% CO, 8.91% O2, and
83.38% N2. Calculate the following:
28. Moles of dry air supplied per mole of dry flue gas
a. 1.055
b. 1.210
c. 0.995
15
d. 1.195
Solution:
Basis: 100 DFG
CH4 4.62% CO2
83.39∗21
O2 supplied= =22.1670 C2H4 3.08% CO
79 8.91% O2
4.62∗1 3.08∗0.5 83.39% N2
O2 in DFG= + +8.91=15.07
1 1
3.08∗0.5
X’s O2= 8.91− =7.73
1 Air
83.39∗100
Air supplied= =105.5570
79
105.5570
Air supplied/ DFG= =1.055
100
29. Percent excess air
a. 12%
b. 23%
c. 41%
d. 50%
Solution:
7.37
%x’s air= ∗100=49.8074=50 %
22.1670−7.37
30. Ratio of the components of the fuel gas, that is, CH4:C2H4.
a. 12:88
b. 32:68
c. 65:35
d. 79:21
Solution:
CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O
3
CH4 + O2 CO + 2H2O
2
C2H4 + 3O2 2CO2 + 2H2O
C2H4 + 2O2 2CO + 2H2O
O2 disappearance = 22.1670 ̶ 15.07 = 7.097 mols O2
1H2
net H2 burnt = 7.097 O2
( 0.5 O2 )
= 14.194 mols H2
C balance:
x mols C2H4 ( 1C2CH )

2 4
+ y mols CH4 ( 1C1 CH )
4
= 4.62 CO2 ( 1C1 CO )
2
+ 3.08 CO
1C
( 1CO )
2x + y = 7.7 Equation 1
H2 balance:
2 H2 2 H2 1 H2
x mols C2H4
( 1C 2 H 4 )
+ y mols CH4
1C H 4 (
= 14.194 H2O
)
1 H2 O ( )
2x + 2y = 14.194 Equation 2
16
from Equations 1 and 2: x = 0.603 mols C2H4 (21%)
y = 6.494 mols CH4 (79%)
31. Heat lost per 100 mole of dry flue gas if the flue gas leaves at 700℉ and 1 atm.
a. 12,670,000 BTU
b. 1,183,000 BTU
c. 5,548,000 BTU
d. 10,990,000 BTU
Cp at Cp at
Cpave
n 700°F 77°F Q=n*Cpave
(BTU/
(lbmol) (BTU/ (BTU/ (BTU/°F)
lbmol-°F)
lbmol-°F) lbmol-°F)
CO2 4.62 0.26 0.2 0.23 1.0626
CO 3.08 0.26 0.25 0.255 0.7854
O2 8.91 0.24 0.22 0.23 2.0493
N2 83.39 0.26 0.25 0.255 21.2645
Total 100 25.1618
Qlost = (25.1618 BTU/°F) (700-77) °F = 1,183,000 BTU
32. A paper mill ships to a Texas distributor 12,208 lb of paper. A sample of carefully taken at the
mill is found by analysis to contain 4.28% moisture. A sample similarly taken at the distribution by
the distributor shows 7.88% moisture. What should be the weight of the shipment as received by
him?
a. 12,700 lb
b. 14,500 lb
c. 15,200 lb
d. 17,450 lb
Solution:
12208(0.0428) = 522.5024
12208-522.5024 = 11685.4976 (dry paper)
X(1-0.0788) = 11685.4976
X= 12685.08 = 12700 lbs

In order to calibrate an orifice, used for metering the flow of dry air in a 2-ft-I.D.-duct at 70 ℉ and
16.2 psi, anhydrous ammonia was bled into the center of the air stream at the rate of 0.251 lb/min. at
a distance downstream sufficient to ensure complete mixing of the ammonia and air, the air was
analyzed for ammonia content. A small stream of the air was bubbled through 100 mL of 0.0105 N
sulfuric acid in an efficient absorption ion device, and the rate of the flow of the sampling stream was
measured after absorbing the ammonia by passing the air through a drying tube and collecting the dry
air over mercury at 70℉ and 1 atm pressure. The volume of air collected was 0.202 cu ft, and the
amount of base (0.00995 N) required for the back titration of the 100 ml of acid was 80.5 mL.
calculate the following:
33. The flow rate of ir in the duct, expressed as pounds of air per minute.
a. 367
b. 589
17
c. 408
d. 670
Solution: Q = CDAo√ 2 gh
0.202 f t 3
√
π ft
() 2
Q = 0.61 4 (2 ft ) 2 32.174 s 2( )( π
(2 ft)2 ) ( 60 1seconds
min )
4
Q = 233.8833 ft3/min
lb
ρ=
(
1 atm 29
lbmol )
= 0.07498 lb/ft3
3
f t −atm
0.7302 (70+ 459.67)
lbmol−° R
mair = 0.07498 lb/ft3 (233.8833 ft3/min) = 408.2266 lb/min
mair = 408 lb/min
34. The air velocity in feet per second.

a. 26
b. 45
c. 32
d. 51
Solution:
uair =
( 408 lb/min ) ( 601 minsec ) = 26.2674 ft/s
π lb
( 2 ft )2 (0.07498 3 )
4 ft
uair = 26 ft/s
35. Calcium carbonate sludge is burned in a rotary kiln to regenerate lime in a countercurrent
operation. The flue gas is leaving the cold end of the kiln and the sludge entering the same end
have the following compositions:
Flue Gas % by Vol. Sludge % by Weight
CO 2 20.4 CaCO2 44.7
CO 0.4 H2O 49.0
N2 77.1 inerts 6.3
The kiln is fired with methane at 2,900 cubic feet/h (dry at 60 ℉ and 14.7 psia). Lime conversion
is 90% complete. What is the rate CaO production?
a. 4670 lbs/h
b. 5120 lbs/h
18
c. 3230 lbs/h
d. 8970 lbs/h
Solution: Basis: 100 lb sludge
% mass, n,
Sludge
wt lbs lbmol
CaCO3 44.7 44.7 0.447
Water 49 49 2.7222
inerts 6.3 6.3
mols CaO made= 0.90 (0.447 lbmols) = 0.4023 lbmols CaO
Assume z mols of flue gas per 100 lb of sludge:

Flue %n mols
Gas
CO2 20.4 0.204z
CO 0.4 0.004z
N2 77.1 0.771z
O2 2.1 0.021z
Total 100 z
lbmols O2 in air used for burning = 0.771z (21/79) = 0.2049z
lbmols O2 un air used for combustion = 0.2049z – 0.021z = 0.1839z
lbmols O2 used by CH4 to form CO2 = 2(0.204z – 0.4023) = 0.408z - 0.8046
lbmols O2 used by CH4 to form CO = 0.1839z – (0.408z-0.8046)
lbmols O2 used by CH4 to form CO = 0.8046 – 0.2241z
lbmols CO formed = 2/3(0.8046-0.2241z) = 0.5364 – 0.1494z = 0.004z ; z = 3.4967 lbmols
lbmols C from CH4 = (0.204z + 0.004z) – 0.4023
lbmols C from CH4 = [0.204 (3.4967) + 0.004 (3.4967)] – 0.4023
lbmols C from CH4 = 0.3250 lbmols
492 ° R mol
lbmols CH4 = 29000 ft3/hr ( )(
520 ° R 359 f t 3 )
= 76.4303 lbmols/hr
0.4023 mol CaO 56 lb CaO 100 lb sludge 76.4303 lbmols

CaO produced = (
100lb sludge )( )(
mol CaO 0.3250 mols C H 4 )( hr )
CaO produced = 5120 lbs/hr of CaO
36. MTBE is added to gasoline to increase the oxygen content of the gasoline. MTBE is soluble in
water to some extent and becomes a contaminant when the gasoline gets into surface or
underground water. The gasoline used by boats has an MTBE content of 10%. The boats operate in
a well-mixed flood control pond having dimensions 3 km long, 1 km wide, and 3 m deep on the
average. Suppose that each of the 25 boats on the pond spills 0.5 L of gasoline during 12 h of
daylight. The flow of water (that contains no MTBE) into the pond is 10 m3/h, but no water leaves
because the water level is well below the spillway of the pond. By how much will the concentration
of MTBE increase in the pond after the end of 12 h of boating? SG of gasoline is 0.72.
g MTBE
a. 1.0 x 10−10
g H 2O
19
g MTBE
b. 3.2 x 10−10
g H 2O
−10 g MTBE
c. 6.9 x 10
g H 2O
−10 g MTBE
d. 8.1 x 10
g H 2O
Solution:
1 boat= 10% MTBE
3000*1000*3m
25 boat spills = 0.5L gas @ t= 12h
Flow of water= 10 cu m/ h
SG= 0.72
V of pond at start= 9000000 cu m
V at the end= 9000000+10(12)= 9000120 cu m
MTBE= 25*0.5L*(1/100)*0.1= 0.00125 cu m
9000120*1000*1000= 9.00012*10^12g
0.0025*0.72*1000*1000= 900g
−10 g MTBE
900/9.00012*10^12= 1.0 x 10
g H 2O
A water solution contains 60% Na2 S2 O2together with 1% soluble impurity. Upon cooling to 10 ℃ ,
Na2 S2 O2 •5 H 2 O crystallizes out. The solubility of this hydrate is 1.4 Na2 S2 O2 •5 H 2 O lb/ lb free
water. The crystals removed carry as adhering solution 0.06ln solution/lb crystals. When dried to
remove the remaining water (but not the water of hydration), the final dry Na 2 S2 O 2 •5 H 2 O
crystals must not contain more than 0.1% impurity. To meet this specification, the original solution,
before cooling, is further diluted with water. On the basis of 100 lb of the original solution, Calculate:
37. The amount of water added before cooling.
a. 12.25 lb
b. 23.34 lb
c. 17.57 lb
d. 8.93 lb
38. The percentage recovery of Na 2 S2 O 2 •5 H 2 O in the dry hydrated crystals.
a. 53.2%
b. 78.3%
c. 44.6% W
d. 66.5% C
Solution: adhering sol’n: 0.06 lb
solution/lb C
S=
F = 100 lb 1 lbimpurity Dryer

60% Na2S2O2 0.001lb impurity
a.) lb M = ∗lbC = 60 lb M
1% impurity lb pure C
(39% water) 0.06 lb M P
60 – 1 = 59 lb M 0.1%
impurity
1.4 lb hydrate
lb hydrate = 59 lb M ( )
M = 34.4167 lb hydrate
2.4 lb solution
20
142 lb salt
lb of anhydrous salt = 34.4167 lb hydrate ( 232lb hydrate )
= 21.0654 lb anhydrous
salt
lb salt = (60 – 21.0.654) lb of salt = 38.9346 lb salt
232lb hydrate
lb C = 38.9346 lb salt (142 lb salt )
= 63.6115 lb C
lb of water added = (63.6115 lb C + 60 lb M) – 100 lb solution = 23.6115 lb H2O

lb of water added before cooling = 23.34 lb
60−21.0654
b.) % recovery = * 100% = 64.891 %
60
% recovery of Na2S2O2 • 5H2O in the dry hydrated crystals = 66.5%
Linkage Problem (39-40):

Sulfuric acid can be manufactured by the contact process according to the following reactions.
S + O2 → SO2
2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3
SO3 + H2O → H2SO4
You are asked as part of the preliminary design of a sulfuric acid plant with production capacity of
2000 tons/day at 66°Be (93.2% H2SO4 by weight) to calculate the following:
39. Tons of pure sulfur per day to run this plant
a. 1030
b. 996
c. 609
d. 477
Solution:
Given: capacity = 2000 T/d; 93.2% H2SO4
S + O2 → SO2
2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3
SO3 + H2O → H2SO4
200T ton mol H 2 S O 4 ton mol S O 3
tons S/day =
d
( 0.932 ) H2SO4 ( 98 T )(
tonmol H 2 S O 4 )
2 ton mol S O 2 ton mol S 32tons S
( )( )(
2ton mol S O 3 ton mol S O 2 tonmol S )
tons S/day = 608.6531 tons per day of pure S
tons S/day = 609 tons per day of pure S
40. Tons of water required per day for reaction 3.
a. 672.1
b. 342.6
c. 312.9
d. 589.2
Solution:
200T ton mol H 2 S O 4 ton mol H 2 O 18 tons H 2 O
T/d water =
d
( 0.932 ) H2SO4 ( 98 T )( ton mol H 2 S O 4 )( ton mol H 2 O )
21
T/d water = 342.3673 tons/day of water
T/d water = 342.6 tons/day of water
(41-43) Coal is charged to a furnace at the rate of 1200 lb/hr. Analysis of the coal and flue gas shows
the following:
Proximate Ultimate Stack Gas
Moisture 1.44% C 78.76% CO 2 10.8%
VCM 34.61% S 0.78% CO 0.2%
FC 57.77% N 1.30% O2 9.0%
Ash 6.18% Ash 6.18% N2 80.0%
The dry refuse contains 4% w VCM, 21% w FC and 75% ash. Air is supplied at 70℉, 65% saturated.
The barometer reading is 29.7 inHg. Pressure at the entrance of the stack is 0.5 in H 2 O . Calculate
the following:
41. Percent excess air
a. 99.2
b. 43.5
c. 67.6
d. 48.9
42. Cubic feet of air per minute

a. 2114
b. 3205
c. 4660
d. 7860
43. Cubic feet of flue gas per minute
a. 27,980
Stack Gas
b. 18,900 Pentrance = 0.5 in H2O
c. 6,098 10.8% CO2
d. 13,160 0.2% CO
Coal = 1200 lb/hr 9% O2
Prox. Anal: 80% N2
1.44% M
34.61% VCM
57.77% FC
6.18% ash Air
Refuse
T = 70°F
Ult. Anal: 4% VCM
65% RH
78.76 %C 21% FC
P = 29.7 inHg
0.78% N 75% ash
1.30% S
6.18% ash
Modified Ult. Ana: 78.76% C

1.44% M
7.2335% CW
4.3065 % net H
0.78% N
1.30% S
22
6.18 % ash
a.) Cgasified = C in coal – C in R
C in R = 1200 (0.0618) ( 2175 ) + 1200 (0.0618) ( 754 )[ 0.7876 (1200

1200 )−0.5777( 1200)
(0.3461) ]
C in R = 23.1635 lb
Cgasified = 1200 (0.7876) – 23.1635 = 921.9565 lb
Let: X = mol of DSG
921.9565lb
=0.108 X + 0.002 X
12lb /lbmol
X = 698.4519 lbmol DSG
4
VCM in R = 1200 (0.0618) ( )75
= 3.9552 lb VCM
3.9552
% VCM = % net H lost = ∗100 % = 0.95233% (9.5223 x 10-3)
1200(0.3461)
net H ∈R
9.5223 x 10-3 =
0.043065 (1200 )
net H in R = 0.4921 lb
O2 supplied = 0.80 (698.4519) (21/79) = 148.5315 lbmol O2
148.5315−91.6795
% excess air = ∗100 %=62.0117 %
91.6795
% excess air = 67.6%
n water 18.7147(0.65)
=
b.) 100 754.4118−18.7147
148.5315( )
21
nwater in air = 11.6949 lbmols
nair = 11.6949 + 148.5315 (100/21) = 718.9878 lbmol
0.7302 f t 3−atm
V=
718.9878lbmols ( lbmol−° R )
(70+ 459.67)° R
÷
1 hr
inHg∗0.0334211 atm 60 min
29.7
1inHg
3
V = 4561.3695 ft /min of air
1200 ( 0.0144 ) lb+1200 ( 0.072335 ) lb
c.) water in coal = = 5.7823 lbmol water
18 lb/lbmol
water of combination: net H in coal = net H burnt + unburnt H + net H in R
1200 ( 0.043065 )−49.2143 lb
net H burnt = = 2.4637 lbmol H
1lb/lbmol
1 H2 O
water of combustion = 2.4637 H ( 2H )
= 1.2319 lbmol
water in SG = (1.2319 + 5.7823 + 11.6949) lbmol = 18.7091 lbmol
mols of SG = (18.7091 + 698.4519) lbmol = 717.161 lbmol
23
0.7302 f t 3 −atm
VFG =
717.161lbmols ( lbmol −° R )
(70+ 459.67)° R
÷
1 hr
O∗0.00245586 atm 60 min
( 0.5∈H 2
1∈H 2 O )
VFG = 6098 ft3/min
g
44. A stream containing ethanol ( ρ=0.789 ) and water flows into a distillation column at 80
cm 3
kg/s. The vapor stream that leaves the column contains 80% ethanol by mass while the bottoms
product with a flow rate of 20 kg/s has an ethanol concentration of 3.5 M. The entrance stream is
a. 35.8% ethanol
b. 64.2% ethanol
c. 46.2% ethanol
d. 45.8% ethanol
TMB:
80 = D + 20 ; D = 60 Kg/s
46 g 1 1L
3.5 mol/L ×[ ] ×[ ] ×[ ] = 0.2041
mol 0.789 g /cc 1000 cc
80(X) = 60 (0.8) + 20(0.2141)
X = 0.6402
45. Humid air exits a dryer at atmospheric pressure, 75℃ and at a relative
humidity of 25%. Calculate the Absolute humidity of the air in kg water/kg air.
a. 0.066
b. 0.078
c. 0.088
d. 0.095
Given: Humid air @ 75℃; 25%

Solution:
Using Antoine’s:
1730.630
log (X) = 8.07131-
233.426+75
X= 288.4977 mmHg
VP water= 288.4977 (0.25)
= 72.1244 mmHg
From figure 12-2b
kg H 2 O
Absolute Humidity= 0.066
kg air
24
46. Seven hundred pounds per hour of iron pyrites containing 85% w Fe S2 and 15% w gangue are
charged to a burner. The cinder contains 1% S as SO 3. The burner gas analysis shows 10% SO 2 and
5% O 2. Air used for combustion is dry. How many cubic feet of total burner gases at 1 atm and 60℉
are produced per hour?
a. 24,600
b. 45,050
c. 31,700
d. 12,200
700 lbs/hr Iron pyrites P = 1 atm
85%w FeS2 T = 60 F
15%w gangue
FUEL
Cinder : 1% S as SO3
Burner : 10% SO2

5% O2
85% N2
Air
PV=nRT
700 lb(0.85) 11
Theo O2 (FeS2 to SO2) = [ ] ×[ ] = 13.6354 lbs
120lbs /lbmol 4
700 lb(0.85) 15
Theo O2 (FeS2 to SO3) = [ ] ×[ ] = 18.5938 lbs
120lbs /lbmol 4
Mat. Bal.
700(0.15) = (C)(99) ; C = 106.0606 lbs
4 FeS2 + 11 O2 8 SO2 + 2 Fe2O3
700 lb /hr 8 SO 2 1S
[ ] FeS2 ×[ ] ×[ ] = 11.6813 moles S
120lbs /lbmol 4 FeS 2 1 SO2
nRT
V=
P
11.6813
V = 44,354.36 lb/hr (0.7302)(60+ 460)
V= 0.1
1atm
47. Two hundred and fifty pounds per hour of 98% wt H 2SO4 entgers an absorption tower of a contact
sulfuric acid plant. If 20% oleum is produced in this tower, how many pounds per hour of SO 3 are
absorbed?
a. 80.5 20% oleum
b. 94.5 (20% SO3; 80%
c. 67.4 H2SO4)
d. 90.3
25
Solution:
1 H 2 S O4 1 S O3 80 lb S O 3
x + 250(0.98) lb H2SO4 ( 98lb )( 1 H 2 S O4 )( 1 S O3 ) =
(x+250)
[ ( 0.2lb SO 3 ) + ( 0.8 lb H 2 S O4 ) ( 1 H98SlbO )( 1 1HS OS O )( 801lbS OS O )]
2 4
2
3
4 3
3
x = 90.2778 lbs of SO3
250 lb/hr H2SO4

98%
48. Nitrogen from a cylinder is bubbled through acetone at 1.1 bar and 323K at the
m3
rate of 2×10−4 . The Nitrogen, saturated with acetone vapor leaves at 1.013 bar, 308K at the
min
m3
rate of 3.83×10−4 . What is the vapor pressure of acetone at 308K?
min
a. 0.465 bar
b. 0.273 bar
c. 0.834 bar
d. 0.662 bar
PVP = e(A + B/T + ClnT + DT^E)
From handbook: (@ 308K)
A = 69.006
B = -5599.6
C = 7.0985
D = 6.2237x10-6
E=2
VP = 46,201.7191 Pa
VP = 0.4620 bar

An evaporator is fed continuously with 25 kg/hr of a solution which contains 10% NaCl, 10% NaOH and
80% H2O. During evaporation, H2O is removed from the solution and NaCl precipitates as crystals
which is settled and removed. The concentrated liquor leaving the evaporator contains 50% NaOH, 2%
NaCl and 48% H2O. Calculate
49. Weight of salt precipitated per hour.
a. 2.9 kg/h
b. 3.4 kg/h
c. 2.4 kg/h
d. 1.8 kg/h
50. Weight of concentrated liquor leaving per hour.
a. 3.9 kg/h
b. 7.5 kg/h
c. 9.2 kg/h
d. 5.0 kg/h
26
F = 25 C
kg/hr
10%
NaOH
80% H2O
M
2% NaCl
50%
NaOH
48% H2O
Solution:
TMB: 25 = W + C + M Equation 1
CMB:
(water balance): 0.8 (25) = W + 0.48M Equation 2
(NaCl balance): 0.10 (25) = 0.02M + C Equation 3
From Equations 1, 2 and 3:
W = 17.6 kg/hr water
C = 2.4 kg/hr NaCl crystals
M = 5 kg/hr of concentrated liquor

A solution of ethyl alcohol containing 8.6% alcohol by weight is fed at the rate of 5000 kg/hr to a
continuous fractionating column operating at atmospheric pressure. The distillate which is the desired
product contains 95.4% alcohol by weight and the residue from the bottom of the column contains
0.1% alcohol by weight. Calculate the following:
51. The mass flow rates of the distillate and residue in kg/hr, respectively.
a. 446; 4554
b. 325; 4675
c. 623; 4377
d. 521; 4479
52. The percentage loss of alcohol.
a. 2.03
b. 1.06
c. 1.98
D
d. 0.65 95.4%
C2H5OH
F = 5000
kg/hr
8.6%
C2H5OH
R
0.1%
C2H5OH
Required: a. D and R
b. % loss of C2H5OH
Solution:
27
a.) TMB: 5000 = D + R
CMB:
(C2H5OH balance): 0.086(5000) = 0.954D + 0.001R
from TMB and CMB: D = 445.9601 kg/hr = 446 kg/hr
R = 4554.0399 kg/hr = 4554 kg/hr
D = 446 kg/hr and R = 4554 kg/hr
0.086 ( 5000 )−0.954 (445.9601)
a.) % loss = x 100 %
0.086(5000)
% loss of C2H5OH = 1.06 %
(53-54) The exhaust Diesel engine using a high-grade hydrocarbon fuel, shows 10.2% CO 2, 7.9% O 2
and the rest Nitrogen and inerts. The analysis was made with care in an Orsat using mercury as the
confining liquid in the measuring burette. Calculate the following:
53. Pounds of dry air used per pound of oil burnt in the engine.
a. 17.3
b. 21.9
c. 25.6
d. 34.2
54. Mols of exhaust gas discharged from the engine per pound of fuel oil burnt.
a. 0.890
b. 0.654
c. 0.556
d. 0.783 FUEL
10.2% CO 2 EXHAUST GAS
7.9% O 2
81.9% N 2 or Inerts
Pounds of dry air used per pound of oil burnt in the engine.
Basis: 100 lbmole FUEL
100 28.84
lbmol d.a= 81.9×[ ] ×[ ]= 2989.8684 lbmol d.a
79 1
X’s O2 = 7.9 lbmol O2
O2 dis. = O2 supp – O2 in DSG
21
O2 supp. = 81.9×[ ] = 21.77 lbmol O2
79
O2 DSG = 7.9 + 10.2 = 18.1 lbmol
O2 dis. = 3.67 lbmol O2
1 1/2
Theo O2 = 10.2 CO2×[ ] + 7.34 H2×[ ] = 13.87 lbmol O2
1 1
1
H2 in FUEL = 3.67×[ ] = 7.34 lbmol H2
1/2
FUEL = 10.2(12) + 7.34(2) = 137.08 lb
lb dry air 2989.7467
= 21.81 =
lb dry fuel gas 137.08
Mols of exhaust gas discharged from the engine per pound of fuel oil burnt.
28
mol EG 100 mol
= = 0.730
mol fuel 137.08
55. Air at 30℃ and 150 kPa in a closed container is compressed and cooled. It is found that the first
droplet of water condenses at 200 kPa and 15℃. Calculate the percent relative humidity of the
original air. The vapor pressures of water at 15℃ and 30℃ are 1.7051 kPa and 4.246 kPa
respectively.
a. 21%
b. 44%
c. 30%
d. 57%
Solution: At 15°C and 200 kPa → 100% humidity
Pwater ( P T −P water )
Therefore: 100 =
V P water ( P T −V Pwater )
VPwater (PT-VPwater) = Pwater (PT - Pwater)
Pwater V P water P water 1.7051
= =
P T −P water P T −V Pwater 150−Pwater 200−1.7051
Pwater = 1.2788 kPA
1.2788
RH = ∗100 %=30.1178 %
4.246
%RH = 30%
29
THERMODYNAMICS
1. A description of a process where the state of a substance may be recovered without loss or
absorption of energy from the surroundings, and by tracing its original path.
a. Closed c. Reversible
b. Open d. Phase change
2. The heat which is used to change the temperature of a substance.
a. Heat capacity c. Enthalpy

b. Sensible heat d. Internal energy
3. A system is said to be in this when its intensive property is uniform and have no tendency to
change with time.
a. Closed c. Reversible
b. Open d. equilibrium
4. It is the pressure above which a substance may not be distinguished between vapor and liquid. At
this point, the specific volumes for the liquid and vapor become equal.
a. Vapor pressure c. Partial pressure

b. Boiling point d. Critical pressure
5. It is the usable form of energy defined as the sum of the internal energy and PV work.
a. Entropy c. Enthalpy
b. Gibb’s free energy d. Total energy
6. It is a form of unusable energy or the measure of a materials disorder.
a. Gibb’s free energy c. Internal energy

b. Enthalpy d. Entropy
30
7. It is the energy possessed due to the configuration of its molecules. It is comprised mainly of
molecular kinetic and rotational energy.
a. Gibb’s free energy c. Internal energy

b. Enthalpy d. Entropy
8. It is the heat added to a substance to change its phase.
a. Latent heat c. Heat capacity

b. Sensible heat d. Internal energy
9. It is the indication of the separation between molecules of a substance.
a. Temperature c. Internal energy

b. Phase d. Entropy
10. This hypothesis states that equal volumes of the same pressure and temperature contain the same
number of gas molecules.
a. Graham c. Amagat
b. Avogadro d. Gibbs-Dalton
Note: Graham’s Law: √ Mass2 /Mass1
Avogadro’s Law: V =n
Amagat’s Law: V i= X i∗V T ; V T =V 1 +V 2
Gibbs-Dalton Law: PT =P1+ P 2
Gay-Lussac Law: P1 /T 1=P 2 /T 2
11. This law states that at the same temperature and pressure, the rates of diffusion of two gasses
are inversely proportional to the square root of their densities.
a. Graham c. Gay-Lussac
b. Avogadro d. Amagat
12. This law states that at some temperature and pressure, reacting gases combine with each other in
simple whole number of proportions of volume.
a. Amagat c. Gay-Lussac
13. This law states that the total volume of a mixture of gases which do not react with each other is
equal to the sum of partial volumes of the gases.
a. Amagat b. Avogadro
31
c. Gay-Lussac d. Gibbs-Dalton
14. This law states that the total pressure of a mixture of gases which do not react with each other
is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of each of the constant gases, all at the same T, P,
and V.
a. Graham c. Amagat
15. Which of the following is not the equation of state?
a. Van der Waals Equation c. Holborn equation

b. Charles equation d. Peng Robinson equation
Note: Charles equation: P=1 /V
16. Virial equation is a _________?
a. Arithmetic progression c. Harmonic progression

b. Geometric progression d. None of the above
Note: Geometric Progression: a, ar, ar2, ar3, …
Arithmetic Progression: a + ad, a + 2d, a + 3d, …
Harmonic Progression: the sequence a 1, a2, a3, is said to be an H.P. if the sequence
1/a1 , 1/a2 ,1/a 3 is an A.P.
17. Which of the following does both of the reversible and irreversible processes involve?
a. Increase molecular disorder c. Friction

b. Dissipative effects d. All of the above
18. If the Vander Waal equation has only one root, what is the relation between A and B?
a. 729a =pb2 c. 81a =pb2

b. 243a =pb2 d. 9a =pb2
19. A stone s thrown up with a velocity and comes down, what is the change in kinetic energy of stone?
a. Positive c. Zero
b. Negative d. Cannot say
20. How long would it take for an irreversible process to complete?
a. Instant c. Infinite
b. Finite d. Cannot say
21. The heat of formation of an element in its standard state is

32
a. 0 c. >0
b. < 0 d. K
22. Clapeyron equation deals with
a. rate of change of vapor c. calculation of G for

pressure with temperature spontaneous phase change
b. effect of an inert gas on vapor d. temperature dependence of
pressure least of phase transition
23. Coefficient of Performance (COP) of a refrigerator is the ratio of
a. Work required to refrigeration c. Lower to higher temperature

obtained d. Higher to lower temperature
b. Refrigeration obtained to the
work required
24. Mollier diagram is a plot of
a. Temperature vs. enthalpy d. Temperature vs. internal

b. Temperature vs. entropy energy
c. Entropy vs. enthalpy
25. The Brayton cycle is composed of
a. Two adiabatic processes and c. Two adiabatic processes and

two isochoric processes two isothermal processes
b. Two adiabatic processes and d. Two adiabatic processes only
two isobaric processes
26. What is the unit of ‘b’ in Peng Robinson equation?
a. Liter/mol2 c. Mole/Liter
b. Liter 2
d. Mole2/liter2
27. What is the unit λ in SRK equation?
a. Liter/mole c. Atm(liter/mole)
b. Mole/liter d. It is dimensionless
28. What is the unit ‘a’ in RK equation?
a. Liter/mole c. Atm(liter/mole)K0.5
b. Atm(liter/mole) d. Atm(liter/mole)K
29. A ball is thrown up and someone catches it on the cliff, what is the change in potential energy?
a. Positive b. Negative
33
c. Zero d. Cannot say
30. Domestic refrigerator usually works on ______________ cycle,
a. Vapor ejection refrigeration c. Absorption refrigeration

b. Refrigeration d. Carnot refrigeration
31. A container os filled with a gas at 10 atm with a molar volume 1 liter/mole, if B = -0.053 liter/mole,
c= 0.0026 liter2/mole2, what is the temperature of gas? (use virial equation, neglect higher terms.)
a. 128.2 K c. 198.5 K
b. 156.9 K d. 243.6 K
Given:
P = 10 atm
Vm = 1 L/mol
B = -0.53 L/mol
C = 0.0026 L2/mol2
Required: T
Solution: Use Virial Equation
32. An engine receives heat at 700 ° F and discharges at 180 ° F. What is the maximum possible
thermodynamic efficiency for these operating conditions?
a. 54 % c. 58 %
b. 44 % d. 48 %
Solution:
Linkage problem (33-34)

34
An insulated 10 ft3 compartmented tank contains an ideal (but unknown) corrosive gas. The starting
conditions are as follow:
Compartment 1 Compartment 2
Volume 9 ft3 1 ft3
Pressure 1 atm 6 atm
Temperature 200 °C 300 °C
The thin wall between the compartments suddenly dissolves.
33. What is the final pressure?

a. 8.6 atm
b. 9.2 atm
c. 7.8 atm
d. 6.4 atm
34. What is the final temperature?
a. 485.2 K
b. 479.4 K
c. 472.1 K
d. 466.7 K
35. A bicycle tire is initially pumped up with air to 100 psig. After a long ride the tire pressure is
105 psig. What is the internal energy change of the air in the tire? Assume air is an ideal gas with
Cp = 7 Btu/lbmol-F. In Btu.
a. 0.0233 c. 0.0113
b. 0.0157 d. 0.0327
Solution:
36. The equilibrium constant for a reaction is 10 at 25°C and 2000 at 927°C. What is the
equilibrium constant at 200°C?
a. 245.6 c.100.2
b.135.7 d. 620.4
Sol’n:
K 2 −ΔH 1 1
ln
K1
= (
−
R T 2 T1 )
2000 −ΔH 1 1
ln
10
= ( −
R 927+273.15 25+273.15 )
−ΔH
=−2101.85
R
35
K2 1 1
ln
10
= ( −
200+273.15 25+273.15 )
K2=135.7
37. What is the enthalpy change at 267°C at equilibrium? Cal/mol

a. 4173 c. 3327
b. 2377 d. 1129
38. An equimolar mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide is mixed with a stoichiometric
quantity of air in a closed insulated vessel. The total pressure is 5 atm and the temperature is
25°C. Ihe mixture is ignited by a spark plug. The oxidation of the reactants is assumed complete.
Assuming all gases are ideal, estimate: the maximum temperature °C
a. 1967 c. 3334
b. 2858 d. 4421
39. Assuming all gases are ideal, estimate the final pressure in atm.
a. 22.9 c. 44.8
b. 38.2 d. 51.9
40. Compute the Van Laar constants for the binary solution of hydrofluoric acid and water. An
azeotrope exists at 120 °C at 37% HF by weight. AHF
a. -2.336 c. –7.673
b. -4.009 d. -5.885
Sol’n:
Antoine’s H20: 0.0315 mmhg
A x22
lnγ= 2
A
( x +x
B 1 2 )
41. AH2O
a. -2.336 c. -8.333
b. -3.080 d. -7.058
A x22
lnγ= 2
A
( x +x
B 1 2 )
42. When a valve is open the atmospheric air at 27°C and 1 atm pass into a vacuum chamber and
flow until its pressure become 1 atm. The new temperature of air will be,in K
a. 320 c. 380
b. 420 d. 345
36
43.Ten kg of water at 375 K mixed adiabatically with 30 kg water at 275 K. What is the change in
entropy? Assume that the specific heat of water is t.2 kJ/kg and is independent of temperature.
In kJ/kg
a. 3.18 c. 1.59
b. 0.99 d. 2.87
Sol’n:
10(375-T)=30(T-275)
T= 300 K
S1=10(4.2)ln(300/375)
S1=-9.37 kJ/K
S2=30(4.2)ln(300/275)
S2=10.96 kJ/K
ΔS=-9.37 +10.96 = 1.59
44. Water enters the pump of a steam power plant as saturated liquid at 20 kPa at a rate of 45
kg/s and exits at 6 MPa. Neglecting the changes in kinetic and potential energies and assuming the
process to be reversible, determine the power input to the pump in kW
a. 329 c. 225
b. 274 d. 195
Given:
20 kPa
m3
Sv= 0.001017
kg
Sol’n:
˙
45 kg m3 1 kJ
W =m S v ( P2−P1 ) =
s (0.001017
kg )
(6000−20 ) kPa
(
1 kPa∙ m 3 )
=274 kW
45. Consider a well-insulated horizontal rigid cylinder that is divided into two compartments by a
piston that is free to move but does not allow either gas to leak into the other side. Initially, one
side of the piston contains1 m3 of N2 gas at 500 kPa and 80°C while the other side contains 1m3
of He gas at 500 kPa and 25°C. Now thermal equilibrium is established in the cylinder as a result
of heat transfer through the piston. Using constant specific heats at room temperature:
determine the final equilibrium temperature in the cylinder in °C.
a. 56 c. 27
b. 89 d.102
Given:
N2:
P=500kPa
T= 80°C
R=0.2968 kPa-m3/kg-K
Cv=0.743 kJ/kg-°C
37
He:
P=500kPa
T= 25°C
R=2.0769 kPa-m3/kg-K
Cv=3.1156 kJ/kg-°C
Sol’n:
ΔU=0
ΔUN2 + ΔUHe = 0
PV 500(1)
m N 2= = =4.7703 kg
RT 0.2968(80+ 273.15)
PV 500(1)
m He = = =0.8075 kg
RT 2.0769(25+ 273.15)
(4.7703)(0.743)(Tf – 80 – 273.15) + (0.8075)(3.1156)(Tf – 25 – 273.15) = 0
Tf = 57.1671 °C
46. The wasted work potential during this process. Take T0=25°C, in kJ.
a. 10 c. 9
b. 7 d. 6
47. Steam enters a turbine at 12 MPa, 550°C, and 60 m/s and leaves at 20 kPa and 130m/s with a
moisture content of 5%. The turbine is not adequately insulated and it is estimated that heat is
lost from the turbine at a rate of 150 kW. The power output of the turbine is 2.5 MW. Assuming
the surroundings to be at 25°C, determine the reversible power output of the turbine.
a. 3371kW c. 3891kW
b. 4501 kW d. 5023kW
Ti = 220 deg. C
pi = 12 Mpa
Vi = 60 m/s
Po = 20 kPa
Vo = 130 m/s
moisture content, 1 - xo = 5% --> xo = 95% = 0.95
Q = - 150 kW
W = 2.5 MW
To = 25 deg, C
38
Reversible power output, si = so
Energy balance for actual condition,
0 = Q - W + m_dot*[(hi-ho) + (Vi^2-Vo^2)/2]
m_dot = W - Q / [(hi-ho) + (Vi^2-Vo^2)/2]
hi = h(Ti,pi)
ho = h(xo,po)
Energy balance for reversible turbine at steady state,

dEcv/dt = 0 = Q - Wr + m_dot*[(hi-ho) + (Vi^2-Vo^2)/2]
Wr = Q + m_dot*[(hi-ho) + (Vi^2-Vo^2)/2]
hi = h(Ti,pi)
ho = h(po,si)
48. The second-law efficiency of the turbine.

a. 0.852 c. 0.663
b. 0.902 d. 0.742
Exergetic efiiciency
ε = W / [ (efi - efo) - (1-To/Tb)Q ], exergy accompany by heat transfer must be positive.
49. Estimate the possible increase in the power output of the turbine if the turbine were
perfectly insulated. In kW
a. 112.4 c.41.2
b. 53.8 d.89.7
Possible increase,
Energy balance,
W' = m_dot*[(hi-ho) + (Vi^2-Vo^2)/2]
W' = W - Q
with,
ho = h(po,xo)
Exergy destruction
Ed' = -W_max + m_dot(efi - efo), Q = 0
Ed' = m_dot(efi - efo) - W
Exergetic efficiency,
ε' = W_max / (efi - efo)
50. Steam enters a diffuser at 10 kPa and 50°C with a velocity of 300 m/s and exits as saturated
vapor at 50°C and 70 m/s. The exit area of the diffuser is 3m2. Determine the mass flow rate of
the steam in kg/s.
a. 16 c. 17.5
b. 19.2 d. 18.7
Given:
Entering steam:
39
P=10kPa
T= 50°C
v= 300 m/s
Exiting steam:
T= 50°C
v=70 m/s
A= 3 m2
Sol’n:
vA 70(3)
m=ρvA= = =17.0141 kg/s
V 1
222.16845( )
18
51. The wasted work potential in kW during this process. Assume the surroundings to be at 25°C.
a. 238.3 c. 389.1
b.332 d. 298.1
52. A vessel with a volume of 1 cubic meter contains liquid water and water vapor in equilibrium at
600 KPa. Liquid water has a mass of 1 kg. Calculate the mass (kg) of water vapor.
a. 1.57 c. 2.54
b. 1.89 d. 3.16
Given:
P = 600 KPa
VTotal = 1 m3
mass of liquid = 1 kg
Required:
a. mass of vapor
Solution:
@600 KPa
SVliquid = 1.1008 cm3/g
SVvapor = 315.6512 cm3/g
Vtotal=( mliquid × SVliquid ) +(mvapor × SVvapor)
cm 3 1000 g 1m3 cm3 1000 g 1m3
(
1 m3= 1 kg × 1.1008
g
×
1 kg
×
1000000 cm3 )
+(mvapor × 315.6512
g
×
1kg
×
1000000 cm3
)
Answer:
mvapor=3.1649 kg
53. Nitrogen at 100℃ and 600 kPa expands in such a way that it can be approximated by a
polytropic process with n= 1.2. Calculate the heat transfer if the final pressure is 100 kPa.
a. 142 kJ/kg c.74.5 kJ/kg
b.71.3 kJ/kg d. 600 kJ/kg
Solution:
T2 P2 n−1 T2 100 1.2−1
T1
=
( )
P1
n
; =
373.15 600 ( ) 1.2
; T2 =276.8162 K
U = mCv∆ T
U=5/2(8.314 J/mol.K) (373.15-276.8162)(1mol/28 g)(1000g/kg)
40
U= 71510.6440 J/kg
since constant volume, W= O
U= Q+ W; U=Q
54. What horse power is required to isothermally compress 800 ft^3 of Air per minute from 14.7
psia to 120 psia?
a. 28 hP c.256 hP
b. 108 hP d.256 hP
Given: V = 800 ft3
P1 = 14.7 psia
P2 = 120 psia
Required:HP
Solution
Formula: W= p1V1 ln (p1/p2)
Power = dW / dt
W =−14.7 ( 144 ) ( 800 ) ln ( 14.7

120 ) x
1 HP
33000 ( ft−lbf )
s
W = 100 Hp
55. A simple Brayton cycle uses helium as the working fluid, has a maximum temperature of 1000 K
and the pressure ratio of 4. At the start of the compression, the helium pressure and the
temperature are 50 kPa and 250 K. based upon cold-air standard analysis, the thermal efficiency
of the cycle is
a. 0.13 b. 0.23 c. 0.33 d. 0.43
Solution:
Using the given pressure ratio rp = 4; assume Cv = 3/2 & Cp = 5/2;

1
ɳ=1− γ −1
rp
[ ] γ
5
Cp 2
γ = = =1.6667
Cv 3
2
1
ɳ=1− 1.6667−1
=0.4257
4
[ 1.6667 ]
56. An ideal Rankine cycle with reheat operates the boiler at 3 MPa, the reheater at 1 MPa and
the condenser at 50 KPa. The temperature at the boiler and reheater outlets is 350 o C. The boiler
and reheaterare fired with a fuel that releases 9000 kJ/kg of heat as it is burned. What is the
mass flowrate of the fuel for such a cycle when sized to produce 50 MW of network?
a. 70 Mg/h b. 60 Mg/h
41
c. 50 Mg/h d. 40 Mg/h
Solution:
Wnet= 50 MW
Thermodynamics of water using Handbook:
Condition 1:
3Mpa SHS, Tsat= 506.8554 K
350 Co
H1MPa = 3160.9078 KJ/kg H3MPa = 3114.3190 KJ/ kg

H5MPa = 3067. 7301 KJ/kg
S1MPa = 7.3043 KJ/kg K S3MPa = 6.8746 KJ/kg K
S5MPa = 6.4449 KJ/kg K
Condition 2:
P2= P3 = 1 MPa H2= 2190.4960 KK/kg
S1 = S2 = 6.8749 KJ/kg K
Condition 3:
T1 = T3 = 350 o C SHS H3 =3285.9911 KJ/kg
P2 = P3 = 1 MPa , Tsat = 184.3772 C o
S3 = 7.3043 KJ/kg K
Condition 4:
P4 =50 KPa Saturated SL (1.0869) < 7.3043 < SV (7.6065)
S3 = S4 = 7.3043 KJ/kg K
7.3043 = 1.0869(1-X) + 7.6065 X
X = 0.9536
HL = 339.1120 KJ/kg H4= 339.1120 (1-0.9536) + 2646.7031(0.9536)
HV = 2646.7031 KJ/kg H4 = 2539.6309 KJ/kg
1 x 10 6 W 1 KW 3600 s
50 MW x x x
1 MW 1000W 1 hr
Mass flowrate = = 70.8764 Mg/ hr ≈ 70 Mg/ hr
KJ 1 kg 1 x 10 6 g
2539.6309 x x
kg 1000 g 1 Mg
57. An adiabatic steady state steam turbine is being designed to serve as an energy source for a
small electrical generator .The inlet to the turbine will be steam at 600 ℃ and 10 bar with a
velocity of 100 m/s and a flowrate of 2.5 kg/s . The conditions at the turbine exit are 400 ℃ , 1
bar and gas velocity of 30 m/s. The rate at which work (Kw) can be obtained from this turbine is
a. -1060.6 c. -1422
b. 1060.6 d. 1422
Given: Turbine: steam ṁ = 2.5 kg/s
Inlet Outlet
T1 = 600⁰C T2 = 400⁰C
P1 = 10 bar P2 = 1 bar
u1 = 100 m/s u2 = 30 m/s
Required: Work in kW
Solution: using Table 2-305 (HB)
42
Inlet: @ 1 MPa
Tsat = 450.8728 K
T1>Tsat; Superheated steam
H1=3702.2834 KJ/kg
Outlet: @ 0.1 MPa

Tsat = 372.4703 K
T2>Tsat; Superheated steam
H1=3281.9153 KJ/kg
kg kJ
Work =2.5 ( 3281.9153−3702.2834 )
s kg
Work =−1050.9203 kW
58. Air as the working fluid is being utilized in an ideal Diesel cycle.The working fluid has a cut off
ratio and a compression ratuo of 2 and 18,respectively .For air, Cp=0.240 BTU/lbm.R, Cv=0.171
BTU/lbm.R. At the beginning of the compression process, the working fluid is at 14.7 psia, 80 F
and 117 in3. Calculate the thermal efficiency of the cycle.
a. 83.2% b.73.2 % c.63.2 % d. 53.2%
Given:
Cr = 2 cut off ratio
Cv = 18 Compression ratio
cp =0.240*R Btu/lbm R
cv=0.171*R Btu/lbm R
T1 = 80 oF
P1 =14.7 psi
V1 =117 in3
Required:
Efficiency using diesel cycle
Solution:
T1 = 80 oF = 299.8167 K
K = cp/cv = 0.240/0.171 = 1.4035
P2=P3
V4 = V1
V3 V1
Cr = =2 ; Cv = =18
V2 V2
T 2 V 1 k−1 V2 V3
=
T1 V 2 ( ) ; =
T 2 T3
T2 = 299.8167 K(18)1.4035 – 1 = 962.4059 K
V3
T3 = T2( ) ; T3 = 962.4059*2 = 1924.8118 K
V2
43
V2
∗V 3 V 3 1
V3 V1 ; = ∗2 = 1/9
= v 4 18
v4 V2
T 4 V 3 k−1 1 1.4035−1
( )
=
T3 V 4
; T 4=1924.8118
()
9
= 793.1429 K
Qout
n = 1-
Qin
c v (T 4−T 1)
n=1-
c P (T 3−T 2)
(793.1429−299.8167)
n =1 - = 0.6347
1.4035∗(1924.8118−962.4059)
n= 63.47%
59. The food compartment of a refrigerator is maintained at 4°C by removing heat from it at a
rate of 360 kJ/min. If the required power input to the refrigerator is 2 kW, determine the
performance of the refrigerator.
a.0.25 b. 0.33 c. 3 d. 4
GIVEN:
Qc= 360 kJ/min
W= 2 kW
Required:
Performance of the refrigerator, COPref
SOLUTION:
kJ
360
Qc min
COPref = = = 3
w 2 kJ x 60 s
s 1 min
60. Based on the preceding problem, determine the rate of heat discharge (in kJ/min) to the room
that houses the refrigerator.
a. 480 b.160 c.240 d.360
Given:
Power input = 2 kW
Rate = 360 kW
Required: Discharge
Solution:
QC = 360 kW +¿ 2(60)
QC = 480 kJ/min
44
FLUID MECHANICS
1. `The value of the compressibility of an C. proportional to the velocity in

ideal fluid is both laminar and turbulent flow
A. zero D. proportional to the square of
B. unity the velocity in both laminar and
C. infinity turbulent flow
D. more than that of a real fluid 6. The frictional resistance for fluids in
2. The value of the bulk modulus of an motion is
ideal fluid is A. dependent on the pressure for
A. zero both laminar and turbulent flow
B. unity B. independent of the pressure
C. infinity for both laminar and
D. more than that of a real fluid turbulent flows
3. The value of the viscosity of an ideal C. dependent on the pressure for
fluid is laminar flow and independent of
A. zero the pressure foe turbulent flow
B. unity D. independent of the pressure
C. infinity for laminar flow and dependent
D. more than that of a real fluid on the pressure for turbulent
4. Which property of the fluid accounts flow
for the major losses in pipes? 7. Which one of the following is a major
A. density loss?
B. specific gravity A. frictional loss
C. viscosity B. shock loss
D. compressibility C. entry loss
5. The frictional resistance for fluids in D. exit loss
motion is 8. The frictional resistance for fluids in
A. proportional to the velocity in motion is
laminar flow and to the A. inversely proportional to the
square of the velocity in square of the surface area of
turbulent flow contact
B. proportional to the square of B. inversely proportional to the
the velocity in laminar flow and surface area of contact
to the velocity in turbulent flow
45
C. proportional to the square of 13. Erosion and pits formation on the
the surface area of contact impeller of a centrifugal pump may due
D. proportional to the surface to this.
area A. Cavitation
9. The frictional resistance for fluids in B. Flashing
motion varies C. Boiling fluids due to low
A. slightly with temperature for pressure
both laminar and turbulent D. Lowering of liquid pressure
flows 14. Pressure level measured with respect
B. considerably with temperature to atmospheric pressure is called this.
for both laminar and turbulent A. Differential pressure
flows B. Vacuum pressure
C. slightly with temperature for C. Absolute pressure
laminar flow and considerably D. Gage pressure
with temperature for turbulent 15. Blood is an example of this type of
flow fluid.
D. considerably with temperature A. Bingham plastic
for laminar flow and slightly B. Pseudoplastic
with temperature for C. Newtonian
turbulent flow D. Dilatant
10. Which of the following denotes the 16. Which of the following fittings will
effect of compressibility in fluid flow? exhibit the highest pressure drop for
A. Reynolds number the same flow conditions?
B. Weber number A. 90º long radius elbow
C. Mach number B. 90º standard elbow
D. Peclet number C. Square corner elbow
11. The driving force that causes a fluid to
D. 45º standard elbow
move from one point to another is the
17. For the transport of a corrosive
difference in this 2 points
solution or thick slurry, this type of
A. Mass
pump is most recommended.
B. Temperature
A. Diaphragm
C. Velocity
B. Reciprocating
D. Pressure
C. Gear
12. Which of the following meters will
D. Centrifugal
have the highest permanent pressure
18. A pump operating under specific
loss
conditions delivers insufficient
A. Pitot tube
quantity of liquid. this may be set right
B. Venture meter
by
C. Orifice
A. decreasing the inlet pipe size
D. Rotameter
B. increasing the outlet pipe size
C. lowering the height of the
discharge tank
46
D. lowering the pump position D. f1=2f2
19. The path followed by a water jet 25. What is the hydraulic radius of a 3 ft.
emanating from the bottom of a water equilateral triangle channel?
tank will be a A. 0.38 ft
A. vertical straight line B. 0.49 ft
B. parabolic C. 0.51 ft
C. hyperbolic D. 0.65 ft
D. horizontal straight line
Given:
20. This event occurs when there is rapid
formation and collapse of vapor 2 ft 2 ft
pockets in a flowing liquid in regions of
very low pressure.
A. Water hammer
B. Flow separation 3 ft
Req’d: hydraulic radius
C. Evaporation
Solution:
D. Cavitation
area of triangle
21. A glycerin filled pressure gage will rH =
wetted perimeter
dampen the effect of this.
rH =
A. High temperature
(0.5)(3)(sin 60)(3)
B. Corrosive materials =0.4871 ft ≈ 0.49 ft
1+ 3+4
C. Pulsation
D. Steam applications
26. Which of the following quantities are
22. Priming is needed for this type of
computed using the hydraulic radius
pump.
for non-circular ducts?
A. Gear
A. Velocity and relative roughness
B. Centrifugal
B. Reynolds number, relative
23. Which of the following valves cannot
roughness and head loss
be used for throttling?
C. Head loss and velocity
A. Gate
D. Reynolds number and friction
B. Globe
factor
C. Butterfly
27. Volute type of casing is used in a
D. Ball
centrifugal pump for this purpose.
24. Consider two pipes of the same length
A. Convert pressure head to
and diameter through which water is
velocity head
passed at the same velocity. The
B. Convert velocity head to
friction factor for rough pipe is f1 and
pressure head
that for smooth pipe is f2. Which is
C. Reduce the discharge
the correct statement for this
fluctuation
situation?
D. Increase the discharge
A. f1<f2
28. When water is warm the height to
B. f1>f2
which it can be lifted by a pump
C. f1=f2
47
A. decreases due to reduced vapor dvρ
ℜ=
pressure µ
B. decreases due to increased Reµ
v=
frictional resistance ρd
C. decreases due to reduced lb
velocity v=
(
(2100 ) 0.0201168
ft −s )
D. none of the above
29. It offers physical explanations why
( 241 ft )(60 ftlb )
3
atmospheric pressure changes with v=16.898112 ft/s

altitude, why wood and oil float on ≈ 16.90 ft /s
water and why the surface of water is
always flat and horizontal whatever the
32. A bingham fluid of viscosity µ=10Pa.s
shape of the container?
and yield stress, τ̥ = 10kPa, is shared
A. Newton’s Law
between flat parallel plates separated
B. Bernoulli’s Equation
by a distance of 10−3 m. the top plate
C. Hydrostatic Principle
D. Fluid Mechanics is moving with a velocity of 1m/s. what
30. For a particle settling in water at its is the shear stress on the plate?
terminal velocity, which of the A. 20 kPa
following statement is true? B. 30 kPa
A. buoyancy = weight + drag C. 40 kPa
B. drag = buoyancy + weight D. 50 kPa
C. weight = buoyancy + drag τ 0 = 10KPa

Given: viscosity, µ = 10 Pa · s,
D. drag = weight
31. Oil with a viscosity of 30 cP and a distance, x = 10-3m, velocity, v =
density of 60 lb/ft3 flows through a 1m/s
0.5” diameter pipe. Determine the
Req’d: shear stress on the plate
velocity in ft/s below which flow will be
laminar. du
A. 0.63 Sol’n: τ =τ 0 + μ
dy
B. 13.10
C. 16.19 10 Pa 1 kPa
D. 87.20
τ =10 kPa+
( 10−3 m () 1000 Pa )
=20 kPa
Given: Oil 33. One of King Hero’s crowns was found to

µ = 30 cP = 0.0201168 lb/ft-s have a weight of 13N in air. What is its
ρ = 60 lb/ ft 3
specific gravity if Archimedes found it
d = ½ in = 1/24 ft weighing 11.5N in water?
Req’d: velocity in ft/s below which flow will A. 8.67
be laminar (Re = 2100) B. 10.83
Sol’n: C. 11.23
D. 12.43
48
Given: and the tension on the cable is 900N.
W in air = 13N Calculate the mass of the sphere.
W in H2O = 11.5N A. 158.750 kg
Req’d: SG B. 208.25 kg
Sol’n: C. 302.45 kg
Fb = 13N – 11.5N = 1.5N = D. 435.35 kg
1000(9.81)(Vb)
13 N Given: volume of sphere = 0.300 m3
/1.5 F = 900N
ρcrown = 9.81 N
9810 Req’d: mass of the sphere
ρcrown = 8666.66667 kg/m3 g N
Sol’n: F= m900 N=9.81
8666.6667 gc kg ( mass )
SG =
1000 m kg m
mass=91.7431 kg ρ= 1000 3 =
SG = 8.6667 v m 0.3 m3
mass=300 kg
34. A wooden cube that is 15cm on each ¿∗¿ mass=300 kg−91.7431 kg=208.2569 kg
side with a specific weight of
6300N/m3 is floating in fresh water 36. In a natural gas pipeline at station 1,
(γ=9810N/m3). What is the depth of the pipe diameter is 2 ft and the flow
the cube below the surface? conditions are 800 psi, 60 ºF and 50
A. 9.11 cm ft/s velocity. At station 2, the pipe
B. 9.63 cm diameter is 3 ft and flow conditions are
C. 10.12 cm 00 ps, 60 ºF. What is the mass
D. 12.38 cm flowrate in kg/s?
A. 165
Given:
B. 184
S = 15 cm
C. 198
6300 N 3 D. 204
γ cube =
m
γ sea =9810 N /m3 Given:
Condition 1: Condition 2:
Required: Depth of Cube Diameter: 2ft Diameter: 3ft
Solution: Pressure: 800 psia Pressure: 500 psia
Temperature = 60o F Temperature = 60o
0.15 m
( 6300m N )=x ( 9810m N )
3 3 Velocity:50 ft/s Velocity:?
Req’d: mass flowrate, kg/s

X = 0.0963m = 9.63 cm
35. A hollow plastic sphere is held below
Solution:
the surface of a fresh lake by a cable
solution 1:
anchored to the bottom of the lake.
The sphere has a volume of 0.300m3,
49
1 atm lb lb π ft
800 psia x x 16 m2 = 1.3911 3x
(3 ft 2) x 49.1645 x
14.7 psia lbmol ft 4 s
ρ= =
ft 3 atm 1 kg
0.7302 x 520 R = 219.3465 kg/s
lbmol K 2.204 lb
lb 160.4365+ 219.3465
2.2932 3 mave = kg/s =
ft 2
m1= m2 189.8915 kg/s ≈ 184 kg/s
m1= ρ 1 A1 V 1
lb π ft 37. A hose shoots water straight up a
m1= 2.2932 3 x
(2 ft 2 ) x 50 x
ft 4 s distance of 2.5m. The opening on the
1 kg hose has an area of 0.75 cm2. How
= 163.4369 kg/s
2.204 lb much water comes out in a minute?
solution 2: A. 15.5 L
ρ 1= B. 18.6 L
C. 25.4 L
1 atm lb
(800−14.7) psia x x 16 D. 31.5 L
14.7 psia lbmol
ft 3 atm Given:
0.7302 x 520 R
lbmol K
lb Z=2.5 m
= 2.2511 3
ft
ρ 2=
Req’d: volume of water coming out of the hose
1 atm lb
(500−14.7) psia x x 16
14.7 psia lbmol Sol’n:
ft 3 atm 1m 2
0.7302
lbmol K
x 520 R q=0.75 cm 2
100 cm ( ) √ 2(9.8 ms ) (2.5 m )
2
lb
= 1.3911 3 m 3 1000 L
ft q=5.25 ×10
−4
× ×60 s=31.5 L
Using Bernoulli equation:
s 1 m3
lbf lbf ft 2
( 800−14.7 ) x 144 ( 500−14.7 ) x 144 2
−V 2 is flowing in a pipe of varying
(5038. )Water
ft 2 ft 2 s
− + cross-sectional area and at all pints the
lb lb lbm ft
2.2511 1.3911 2 x 32.174
water completely fills the pipe. The
ft 3 ft 3 2
s lbf
=0 cross-sectional at point 1 is 0.80 m2,
ft and the velocity is 3.5 m/s. compute

V2 = 49.1645 the fluids velocity at point 2 where the
s
lb π ft cross-sectional area is 0.60 m2?
m1= 2.2511 3x
(2 ft 2 ) x 50 x A. 4.67 m/s
ft 4 s
1 kg B. 5.23 m/s
= 160.4365 kg/s C. 6.17 m/s
2.204 lb
D. 8.13 m/s
Given:
50
 @point 1: area= 0.8 m2, velocity = 3.5 v a2 P A v B2 PB
m/s Z a+ + =Z B + + +h f
2g γ 2g γ
 @point 2: area= 0.6 m2
PA PB
Required: Z a+ =Z B + +h f
γ γ
 Velocity @ point 2
Solution:
200 kPa−230 kPa
hf= +50 m−40=6.94 m≈ 22.77
MASS FLOWRATE @ 1 = MASSFLOWRATE @
9.81 m/s
2 40. A rectangular duct 4 m × 1.5 m in
V1P1S1 = V2P2S2 cross-section carries conditioned air.
V 1 S1 What is the equivalent diameter of the
V2 = duct?
S2
0.8∗3.5 A. 1.13 m
V2 = = 4.67
0.6 B. 1.27 m
m/s C. 1.78 m
39. A 60 cm water pipe carries a flow of D. 2.18 m
0.1 m3/s. at point A, the elevation is 50
Given: Area = 4m x 1.5 m
m and the pressure is 200 kPa. At point
Req’d: equivalent diameter
B, 1200 m downstream of A, the
4 ( 1.5 )
elevation is 40 m and the pressure is
230 kPa. What is the head loss
Sol’n: Deq =4
[ 2 ( 4 ) +2 ( 1.5 ) ]
D eq =2.1818 m
between A and B?
41. What is the hydraulic radius of a 4 ft
A. 5.12
equilateral triangle channel?
B. 22.77
A. 0.13 ft
C. 34.81
B. 0.65 ft
D. 45.33
C. 0.72 ft
Given: Diamter of pipe = 60 cm D. 0.98 ft
3
m
Velocity of water = 0.1 Given: 4 ft equilateral triangle
s
Req’d: hydraulic radius
At point A:
Sol’n:
Za = 50 m P = 200kPa
0.5(4 sin 60)(4)
rH = = 0.65 ft
4+ 2.667+2.667+1.333
At point B:
L = 1200 m downstream of A
42. A cast iron pipe of equilateral
Zb = 40 m P = 230 kPa
triangular cross-section with 20.75 in.
Req’d: head loss between A and B
has water flowing through it. The flow
Sol’n:
rate is 6000 gpm and the frictional
factor is 0.017. What is the pressure
drop in a 100 ft pipe section?
A. 187 lb/cubic ft
B. 704 lb/cubic ft
C. 567 lb/cubic ft
51
D. 677 lb/cubic ft π π 2 2 1
Given: sides of equilateral triangle = 20.75 inch

A= D2 =
4 4 12 ( )
ft =
144
π ft 2
1 lbm ft 2 ( ) 1
Flowrate = 6000 gpm
Friction factor = 0.017
FD=
2 (0.0753 3 100
ft )( sec ) (0.5
144 )
π ft 2 =4.106977
Req’d: pressure drop

lbm . ft
4.106977896
sec 2
FD= =0.1276 lbf
Sol’n:
lbm . ft
32.174
area 1 1 ft lbf . sec 2
Deq= 4( )= 4 (20.75)¿ ¿( 44. A venturi meter is to be installed in a
parameter 2 12∈¿ ¿
)= .9983 ft 100 mm line to measure the flow of
1 ft 2 water at 15℃. The maximum flowrate
A∆= 20.75 (17.97)(0.5)( )= 1.2947 ft2 is 75 m3/h. The manometer reading is
144∈¿ ¿
1 min 1.25m of Hg. What will be the power in
Q= 6000 gal/min ¿)( )= 13.3673 ft3/s
60 sec kW required to operate the meter at
13.3673 full load?
V= = 10.32 ft/s
1.2947 A. 0.22
2 ( 62.4 ) (.017)(100)(10.32)2 B. 0.32
∆ P= = 703.49
32.174(.9983) C. 1.23
lbf lbf D. 1.55
≈ 704
ft 2 ft 2
Given:
Density of water at 15°C = 998.1231
43. Air flows past a 2-inch diameter
kg/m3
sphere at 100 ft/sec. What is the drag
Q = 75 m3/hr
force experienced by the sphere given
P = 1.25 mHg
that it has a coefficient of drag of 0.5
Required: Power, kW
and that the density of the air is
Solution:
0.0753lb/ft^3?
Assume: permanent loss in pressure is
A. 0.127
10% of the venturi
B. 0.233
differential
C. 0.244
D. 0.354
N
Given: Dsphere = 2 in.

Power=1.25 mHg ( 10001mHg
mmHg
) ( 101325
m2
760 mmHg
)(
75
V = 100 ft/sec ¿ 0.3472 kW
CD = 0.5 45. A solution of specific gravity 1.84 is
Density of air = 0.0753 lbm / being discharged from a tank through
ft 3
an orifice to the atmosphere. Level of
Required: Drag force, FD the liquid in the tank is 20 ft above the
Solution: centerline of the exit pipe. Frictional
1 and contraction losses in the pipe
FD= ρ v2 C D A
2 amount to 12 ft head of solution. Under
52
these conditions, what is the discharge V
Vave= =0.4361
velocity in ft/s? 1+1.33 √ f
A. 13.8 Vmax
=1.2020
B. 22.7 Vave
C. 25.5
D. 28.8
47. If a centrifuge is 3 ft diameter and
Given: orifice rotate at 1000 rpm, at what speed
SG=1.84 (rpm) of a laboratory centrifuge of 6
inch diameter be run if it is to
Hliquid = is 20ft above the centerline of duplicate the plant conditions?
the exit pipe
A. 2000
Frictional + contraction losses = 12ft
B. 2449
Required: Discharge velocity, C. 2500
ft/s D. 2870
Given:
Sol’n: r1 = 3 ft
6889 ft N1 = 1000 rpm
v=√ 2 x 32.174 x(20−12)=22. ≈ 22.7 ft /s
s r2 = 6 inches
Reqd: N2
46. Water at 60℉ is flowing through a 3-
Soln:
inch diameter smooth horizontal pipe.
2 πN 1 2 2 πN 2 2
If the Reynolds number is 35,300, r1( ) = r2( )
60 60
calculate the ratio of the maximum
r1 N 12= r2 N 22
velocity to the average velocity.
3(1000)2 = 0.5 N 22
A. 0.35
N2 = 2449.4897 rpm
B. 0.81
C. 1.05
48. Engine oil with kinematic viscosity of
D. 1.22
0.00024 m2/s is flowing inside an
Given: annulus at 0.5 m/sec. The annulus is
Temp = 60 F o
made up of 3 in. Sch. 40 and 1 in. Sch
µ = 1129.2652 x 10 Pa-s
-6
40 concentric pipes that are 10 m long.
ρ = 998.0622 kg/m 3
What is the pressure drop expressed
Req’d: Vmax/Vave ratio in meters of oil?
Solution: A. 1.98
Dvρ B. 2.34
ℜ=
μ C. 4.56
μRe D. 6.87
Vmax=
ρD
Vmax=0.5242m/s Given:
Kinematic viscosity= 0.00024
Get f by Blasius equation:
m2/sec
F = (100 Re)-1/4 = 0.0231
53
Annulus: 3 in Sched 40 & 1 in 49. A perfect venturi with throat diameter
Sched 40 of 1.8 inches is placed horizontally in a
L=10 m pipe with a 5 in inside diameter. Eighty
pounds of water flow through the pipe
Req’d: Pressure drop
each second. What is the difference
Sol’n:
between the pipe and venture throat
3 in Sched 40 (OD 3.5 in, static pressure?
ID=3.068 in= 0.0779 m) A. 25.5 psi
1 in Sched 40 B. 29.9 psi
(OD=1.315=0.0334 m ID=0.133) C. 34.8 psi
Inner cross section are of the
D. 50.2 psi
larger pipe
= Given:
π ( ID )2 π ( 0.0779 )2 venturi throat diameter,D2=1.8 inches
= =4.7661 x 10−3
4 4 pipe inside diameter, D1=5 inches
Outer cross section are of the smaller pipe
mass flow rate,m= 80 lbs/s
=
Req’d:
π ( OD )2 π ( 0.0334 )2
= =8.7616 x 10−4 difference between the pipe and
4 4
Cross sectional area of the annulus venturi throat static pressure
= Inner –Outer=3.8899 x 10-3 Sol’n:
Inner circumference of the larger pipe m 80 lbs/s ft 3
= π ( ID )=π ( 0.0779 )=0.2447 m
Q= = =1.2821
ρ 62.4 lbs/ft 3 s
Outer circumference of the smaller pipe
= 4 Q ( 4 ) ( 1.2821 ) ft
v1 = = =9.4027
π (OD )=π ( 0.0334 )=0.1049 m π D1 2
5 2
s
Wetted perimeter = Cinner + Couter
(π)
12 ( )
= 0.2447 + 0.1049 = 0.3496 m
4 Q ( 4 ) ( 1.2821 ) ft
v 2= = =72.5520
π D2 2
1.8 2
s
Dh=
Area 3.8899 x 10−3
(π)
12 ( )
4x =4 x =0.0445m
P 1−P2 v 2−v 1 2 2
Wetted perimeter 0.3496 =
Flow velocity=0.5 m/sec ρ 2g
Relative roughness= 0.0457 ( P1−P2 ) ( 1728 ) ( 72.5520 )2−( 9.4027 )2 12
mm=4.57x10-5 m
( 62.4 )
= ( ( 2 )( 32.174 ) 1 )( )
Dh 0.5 x (0.0445) P1−P2=34.8521 psi 34.8 psi
Reynolds number= ( v )
u ( )
=
0.00024
=92.7083
Fanning friction factor
16 16 50. A 4m3/h pump delivers water to a
f= ℜ = =0.1726 pressure tank. At the start, the gauge
92.7083
2 2 reads 138 kPa until it reads 276 kPa
hf =2 f ( DhL ) x ( Vg )=2 ( 0.1726) ( 0.0445
10 0.5
) x ( 9.81 )=1.9769 m ≈ 1.98 m
and then the pump was shut off. The
volume of the tank is 150 L. At 276 kPa
the water occupied 2/3 of the tank
54
volume. Determine the volume of water D. 6.7 m
that can be taken out of until the
Given: pump rate = 10 m 3 /h point of
gauge reads 138 kPa.
discharge = 6m above the floor
A. 14.5 L
D = 40mm frictional loss =
B. 18.2 L
4 J/kg
C. 29.5 L
Pump work = 0.12 kW
D. 44.0 L
Req’d: height of water
3
4m Solution:
Given: V̇ =
h αV 2
2
P1=138 kPa z 1=z 2+ −nWp+ H L
2g
P2=276 kPa P3=138 kPa m3 1h
10 x
V tank =150 L h 3600 s m
V= =2.2105
@ P2=276 kPa : Π s
x 0.042 m2
2 4
V = (150 L )=100 L
3
@ Pair =276 kPa :
0.04 x 1000 x 2.2105
ℜ= =88420
0.001
1
V = (150 L )=50 L (Turbulent :α =1)
3
J
Req’d: volume of water removed 120
s
Sol’n: nWp= 3
=4.4037 m
m 1h kg N
P2 V 2=P1 V 1 10 x x 1000 3 x 9.81
h 3600 s m kg
(138 + 101.325)(V2) = (276 +101.325)(50
J
L) 4
kg 2.21052
V2 = 78.8311 L z 1=6 m−4.4037 m+ +
N 2 x 9.81
VH2O to be removed = 100 L – (150 - 9.81
kg
78.8311) L z 1=2.2510 m
= 28.8311 L ≈ 29.5 L 52. A cylindrical tank 1 ft in diameter
discharges through a nozzle connected
51. Water is pumped at a constant rate of to the base. Find the time needed for
10m^3/h from a large reservoir resting the water level in the tank to drop
on the floor to the open top of an from 6 ft to 3 ft above the nozzle. The
absorption tower. The point of diameter of the nozzle is 1 inch and its
discharges is 6m above the floor, and discharge maybe taken as unity.
the frictional losses in the 40 mm pipe A. 10 s
from the reservoir to the tower B. 21 s
amount to 4J/kg. At what height in the C. 55 s
reservoir must the water level be kept D. 108 s
if the pump can develop only 0.12 kW? D of cylinder tank = 1 ft
A. 1.6 m Given: D of nozzle = 1 in
B. 2.2 m
C. 4.6 m
55
6 ft
53. A cylinder 10 ft long and 2 ft diameter
is vertically suspended in air flowing at
8 ft/s. the drag coefficient of the
cylinder is 1.3. The drag (in lbf) on the
cylinder is?
A. 0.33
B. 1.89
C. 2.09
D. 10.55
Req’d: time needed for the water level in the Given: L = 10 ft

tank to drop from 6 ft to 3 ft D = 2 ft
Sol’n: CD = 13
0
−d d V = 8 ft/s
ρAV −0= ∫ ρdv ¿− [ ρ AT ( h+ x ) ]
dt cv dt Req’d: FD
ρAv=−ρ AT
dh
dt
∆ v=
− A T dh
A √ 2 gh
Sol’n: FD =
1.3 ( Π4 )(2 )( 8 )(0.0753)
2 2
2(32.174 )
−A T dh − A T = 0.31
dt= ¿
A √ 2 gh A √2 gh 54. Calculate the Reynolds number of
1 water at 20ºC flowing in an open
− AT −1
2
¿ dh ( h ) 2 t= −2 A T ( h ) + c channel at 200 gal/s. The channel has a
A √2 g √2 g A height of 4 ft and a width of 8 ft.
When:t=0,h=6ft A. 1×106
1 1 B. 1.2×106
c=
2
2 A T ( 6 ft )
t=
(
−2 A T 2.4495−h 2 ) C. 6×106
√2 g A √2 g A D. 8×106
When h=3 ft
Given: Q = 200 gal/s
π
t=2
4 ()
¿¿¿ H = 4 ft
W = 8 ft
ρ = 998.1568 kg/cubic
When:t=0,h=4ft
meter
1 1 μ = 1011.4996×10-6
c=
2
2 A T ( 6 ft )
t=
(
−2 A T 2−h 2 ) Req’d: Re
√2 g A √2g A Sol’n:
When h=2 ft 4∗4∗8
Dh =
( 2∗4 ) +(2∗8)
t=2 ( π4 ) ¿ ¿ ¿ = 5.33ft
¿ 21.0227 s ≈ 21 s 200
V=
7.481∗4∗8
= 0.84 ft/s
56
5.33∗0.84∗62.28 A. 28º
Re =
1.0115 ×10−4 B. 30º
= 6×106 C. 34º
D. 38º
55. Two water tanks are connected to each
other through a mercury manometer
Given:
with tubes, as shown in the figure
below. The pressure difference
between the two tanks is 20 kPa. What
is the value of θ?
PARTICULATES
1. Which of the following is an example of a deflocculant?

A. Molybderite
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Dithiophosphate
D. Lignin sulfonate

2. The US Standard Sieve Series equivalent to a 24 mesh Tyler Standard is _____ microns.
A. 400
B. 606
C. 707
D. 805

3. Any operation in which one solid is separated from another by floating one of them at or on
the surface of a fluid.
A. Coagulation
B. Flotation
C. Centrifugation
D. Sedimentation

4. A conveyor auxiliary device used to cut out the driving force when a conveyor jams.
A. Cleaners
B. Holdback
C. Brake
D. Torque limiting

5. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
A. Rougher
B. Scavenger/recleaner
C. Cleaner
D. Classifier

6. A flotation modifier which assists in
selectivity or stop unwanted materials from
floating is
57
A. Activators
B. Promoters
C. Depressants
D. Regulators

7. This method is used to discharge a belt conveyor depends on whether or not the discharge is
from the end of the conveyor or at some intermediate point. Special devices are necessary for
discharge at discharge points. Which of the following device consists of a discharge and returns
pulleys and are so mounted that the belt is doubled back for a short distance.
A. Tipping idler
B. Scrapper
C. Shuttle conveyor
D. Tripper

8. Solid handling equipment used to handle large volumes over long distances economically is a
A. Screw conveyor
B. Bucket conveyor
C. Belt conveyor
D. Pneumatic conveyor

9. It is defined as the efficiency of technical grinding compared with that of laboratory crushing
experiment.
A. Grinding efficiency
B. Rittinger’s number
C. Bond work index
D. Practical energy efficiency

10. It states that the energy is proportional to the new surface produced.
A. Rittinger’s Law
B. Kick’s Law
C. Energy Law
D. Bond Law

11. The shape factor of pulverized coal dust is equal to
A. 0.65
B. 0.73
C. 0.89
D. 0.91

12. It is an auxiliary equipment of an elevating conveyor which prevents reversal of travel and
subsequent jamming when power is unexpectedly cut off.
A. Cleaners
B. Holdback
C. Check valve
D. Torque limiting

13. It is a type of conveyor consisting of one or two chains to which are attached cross bars,
usually of wood, which drag on a flat bottom trough.
58
A. Redler conveyor
B. Belt conveyor
C. Slat conveyor
D. Screw conveyor

14. A solid handling equipment used for moving powdered or granular materials to and from
storage or between reaction vessels as in moving bed catalytic.
A. Screw conveyor
B. Bucket elevator
C. Belt conveyor
D. Pneumatic conveyor

15. The most important and versatile flow assisters which are used to enlarge the storage bin by
opening and to cause flow by breaking up material bridges.
A. Idlers
B. Rollers
C. Striker skirt
D. Vibrating hoppers

16. Characterized by particles that flocculate during sedimentation.
A. Type 1 settling
B. Type II settling
C. Type III settling
D. Type IV settling

17. Device which a current of air separates particles with different sedimentation velocities.
A. Agitator
B. Air conveyor
C. Classifier
D. Air elutriator

18. It is a portable platform on which packaged materials can be handled and stored.
A. Pallets
B. Hopper trucks
C. Steel drums
D. Baler bags

19. What is the work index of sandstone?
A. 2.68
B. 11.53
C. 14.12
D. 16.40

20. Which of the following conveyors can be used in conveying materials up and down in an incline?
A. Screw conveyor
B. Bucket conveyor
C. Belt conveyor
D. Power shovel
59

21. In a plate and frame filter press, the rate of washing is equal to the ___ of the final
filtration rate.
A. ¼
B. ½
C. 1
D. 2

22. Sedimentation on commercial scale occurs in
A. Classifiers
B. Thickeners
C. Rotary drum filters
D. Cyclones

23. Which of the following cannot be recommended for transportation of abrasive materials?
A. Belt conveyor
B. Apron conveyor
C. Flight conveyor
D. Chain conveyor

24. As particle size is reduced
A. Screening becomes progressively more difficult
B. Screening becomes progressively easier
C. Capacity and effectiveness of the screen is increased
D. None of these

25. In froth flotation, the chemical agent added to cause air adherence is called...
A. Collector
B. Frother
C. Modifier
D. Promoter

26. This law states that the energy required for crushing is proportional to the length of the
initial and final diameters of the particle.
A. Rittinger’s Law
B. Kick’s Law
C. Energy Law
D. Bond Law

27. Drag is defined as the force exerted by …
A. The fluid on the solid in a direction opposite to flow
B. The fluid on the solid in the direction of flow
C. The solid on the liquid
D. None of these

28. A type of pneumatic conveying system characterized by a material moving in air stream or
pressure less than ambient.
A. Dilute phase
60
B. Vacuum
C. Pressure
D. Dense Phase

29. It is a portable platform on which packaged materials can be handled and stored.
A. Hopper trucks
B. Baler bags
C. Steel drums
D. Pallets

30. The flotation agent that prevents coalescence of air bubbles as they travel to the surface of
the water is/are
A. Collectors
B. Modifying agent
C. Frothing agent
D. Promoters
31. Calculate the surface-volume equivalent sphere diameter of a cuboid particle of side length
1x2x4 mm.
A. 1.14 mm
B. 1.71 mm
C. 2.48 mm
D. 3.50
Given:
V= 1x2x4mm
Required:
D sv
Solution:
D 3v
D sv = 2
Ds
6
Dv =
√
3
( V ) ; V p=LWH =1 mm ( 2 mm ) ( 4 mm )=8 mm3
π p
6
Dv =
√
3
π
( 8 mm3 ) =2.4814 mm
Sp
Ds =
√ π
; S p=2 LW +2 LH + 2WH =2 ( 1× 2 )+ 2 ( 1 × 4 ) +2 ( 2× 4 )=28 mm2
28 mm2
Ds =
√ π
=2.9854 mm
2.4814 mm3
D sv = =1.7143 mm
2.9854 mm2
61
A suspension in water of uniformly sized spheres of diameter 100 μm and density 1200 kg/m 3 has a
solids volume fraction of 0.2. The suspension settles to a bed of solids with volume fraction of 0.5.
The single particle terminal velocity of the spheres in water may be taken as 1.1 m/s.
32. Calculate the velocity at which the clear water/suspension interface settles.
A. 0.25 mm/s
B. 0.31 mm/s
C. 0.39 mm/s
D. 0.42 mm/s
Given:
D = 100µm
ρ = 1200 kg/m3
Solids concentration of initial suspension, CB= 0.20
ut = 1.1 mm/s
Required:
velocity at which the clear water/suspension interface settles
Solution:
U pA ( CA )−UpB (CB )
U∫ . AB= ; since CA=0 →Uint , AB=UpB
CA−CB
NOTE: UpB is the hindered settling velocity of particles relative to the vessel wall in batch
settling and is given by the equation:
Up = UTεn
Check whether Stoke’s Law applies or not by solving for the Reynold’s number (limiting value is
0.3):
Dvρ
Re = =0.11 → Stok e' s Law applies ,thus n=4.65
µ
Calculate for the voidage of the initial suspension:
εB = 1 – CB = 1 – 0.2 = 0.8
Up = UTεn = 1.1 x 10 -3
m/s (0.80)4.65
Up = 0.39 mm/s
33. Calculate the velocity at which the sediment/suspension interface exits.

62
A. 0.18 mm/s
B. 0.21 mm/s
C. 0.26 mm/s
D. 0.36 mm/s
Solution:
The velocity of the interface between initial suspension (B) and sediment (S) is Uint,
U (V initialsuspension ) ( Solid conc ' n at initial suspension ) − (V sediment )(solid con c ' nat sediment )
∫ ¿= '
Solid con c n at initial suspension −solidsconcentration at sediment
¿
velocity at initial suspension ( 0.20 ) −0

u at interface= =−0.6667 ¿
0.20−0.5
From No.3 velocity at initial suspension is 0.3897 mm/s.
Velocity at interface=( 0.3897)(−0.6667) = - 0.2598 mm/s

(Negative sign signifies that interface is moving upward)
ANS: 0.26 mm/s
Spherical particles of uniform diameter 40μm and particle density 2000 kg/m 3 form a suspension of
solids volume fraction 0.32 in a liquid of density 880 kg/m 3 and viscosity 0.0008 Pa-s. Assuming
Stoke’s Law applies…
34. Calculate the sedimentation velocity of the suspension

A. 0.203 mm/s
B. 0.033 mm/s
C. 0.30 mm/s
D. 0.345 mm/s
Given:
Dp = 40 µm ρp = 2000 kg/m3 vol. fraction = 0.32 ρL = 880 kg/m3
Required:
sedimentation velocity
Solution:
Assuming Stoke’s Law Applies
U U PA C A −U PB C B
∫ ¿= C A −C B
¿
C A=0;
U ∫ ¿=U n
=U T ε ¿
PB
63
g Dp2 ( ρ p− ρ)
U T −Stok e sLaw =
'
18 μ
2
9.81 ( 40 x 10−6 ) ( 2000−880 )
UT=
18 ( 0.0008 )
U T =1.2208 x 10−3 m/s

4.65
U PB=( 1.2208 x 10−3 ) ( 1−0.32 )
2.0315 x 10−4 m mm
U PB= =0.203 ans .
s s
35. Calculate the sedimentation volumetric flux

A. 0.065 mm/s
B. 0.076 mm/s
C. 0.087 mm/s
D. 0.093 mm/s
Solution:
Ups=Up(1−ε)
Up = 0.203 mm/s (FROM #5)
ε = 1-CB = 1 – 0.32 = 0.68
Ups = (0.203 mm/s)(1-0.68) = 0.0650 mm/s
36. A slurry with a density of 2000 kg/m 3, a yield stress of 0.5N/m 2, and a plastic viscosity 0f 0.3
Pa-s is flowing in a 1.0 cm diameter pipe which is 5m long. A pressure driving force of 4 kPa is
being used. Calculate the flow rate of the slurry.
A. 4.11 x 10-4 m/s
B. 5.60 x 10-4 m/s
C. 4.05 x 10-4 m/s
D. 4.37 x 10-4 m/s
Given:
ρs=2000kg/m3 yield stress=0.5N/m2 μ=0.3 Pa-s D=1.0 cm L=5m
F=4kPa
Solution:
RƮ 0 4 Ʈy 1 Ʈy 4
Uav= (1- + ( )
4 μp 3Ʈ 0 3 Ʈ 0
N
Ʈ0=
∆ PR
2L
= (
4000
m2
.005 )
=2.0 N /m 2
2 ( 5.0 )
.005 x 2.0 N /m2 4 (0.5) 1 0.5 4

Uav= (1- + ( ) = .0056 m/s
4 x 0.3 Nm 2 3(2.0) 3 2.0
64
π D2 π
Q= Uav = (.0056 m/s) ( (. 01 m¿¿¿ 2) = 4.37 x 10−7 m 3 /s
4 4
37. Calculate the frictional pressure drop across the bed when the volume flow rate of liquid is
1.44 m3/h. Use Ergun equation.
A. 6170 Pa
B. 6560 Pa
C. 6650 Pa
D. 7700 Pa
Given:
Q=1.44 m3/h
Required:
ΔP
Solution:
ε = 0.5
m3 hr
1.44 x m
U= hr 3600 s = 0.01
s
0.04 m2
m kg
0.001m x 0.01 x 800 3
Re = s m =4
0.002 pa s
{[ ]}
2 2
∆ P = h 150 ( u μ (1−ε)
2 3
∅ ε
+1.75
][
ρ u (1−ε )
) ε3 ∅
m2
{[ ]}
2
kg
) ][
m
∆ P =
1 m 150 ( 0.01
s
x 0.002 pa s x (1−0.5)
2
0.001m x 0.5 3
+ 1.75
800 3 x 0.01 (1−0.5)
m
3
s
0.5 x 0.001 m
∆ P = 6560 Pa
38. A packed bed of solid particles of density 2500 kg/m 3 occupies a depth of 1 meter in a vessel
of cross-sectional area of 0.04m 2. The mass of solids in the bed is 50 kg and the surface-
volume mean diameter of the particles is 1 mm. Liquid of density 800 kg/m 3 and viscosity of
0.002 Pa-s flows upward through the bed which is restrained at its upper surface. Calculate
the voidage of the bed.
A. 0.45
B. 0.50
C. 0.71
D. 0.80
Given:
ρs=2500kg/m3 μ=0.002 Pa-s h=1.0 m A=0.04m2
65
D=1mm ρL=800kg/m3
Required:
Voidage, ε
Solution:
50
ε =1− =0.5
2500 ( 0.04 ) ( 1 )
39. Blank
40. A mixture of quartz and galena of a size range from 0.015 mm to a 0.065 mm is to be
separated into two pure fractions using hindered settling process. What is the minimum
apparent density of the fluid that will give this separation? The density of the galena and
quartz are 7500 kg/m3 and 2650 kg/m3, respectively.
A. 2377 kg/m3
B. 1960 kg/m3
C. 1960 kg/m3
D. 3100 kg/m3
Given:
ρgalena = 7500 kg/m3 ρquartz = 2650 kg/m3
Size range = 0.015 mm – 0.065 mm
Required:
minimum apparent density of the fluid to give separation
Solution:
let A-galena; B-quartz
DpA ρB −ρfluid
DpB
=
√
ρA −ρfluid
 larger particles as heavier
0.065 2650−ρfluid
0.015
=
√
7500−ρfluid
ρ fluid=77772.8125 kg /m3
 smaller particles as heavier
0.065 7500−ρfluid
0.015
=
√
2650−ρfluid
ρ fluid=2377.1875 kg /m3
41. What is the capacity in tons/h of a flight conveyor of 10 by 24 inches traveling at 100 fpm and
handling crushed limestone?
A. 150
66
B. 250
C. 400
D. 550
Given:
D = 10 in B = 24 in S = 100 fpm
Required:
Capacity (T) in tons /hr
Solution:
Crushed limestone bulk density from 95 to 103 lb/ft 3 from table 2 -120 and 2-326
Pb = 995+103)/2 = 99 lb/ft3
BDS Pb
T=
6000
24∗10∗100∗99
T= = 396 tons/hr
6000
Final answer = 400 tons/hr
42. What is the horsepower requirement of a 45 ft length screw conveyor which will handle 20
tons/h of a material with average density of 50 lb/ft3?
A. 2.44
B. 2.98
C. 3.68
D. 11.2
Given:
Length= 45 ft Capacity=20 tons/hr ρ = 50 lb/ft3
Required:
Horsepower requirement
Solution:
lb
(coefficient )(capacity , )(length , ft)
HP= min
33,000
tons lbm 1 hr
(4)(20 x 2000 x )(45 ft)
HP= hr 1 ton 60 min
33,000
HP= 3.6364
67
43. Find the horsepower requirement for a continuous bucket elevator with loading leg which will
lift solids at a rate of 50 tons per hour at a vertical distance of 22 ft.
A. 1.5
B. 2.2
C. 5.6
D. 6.2
Given:
Ms=50 tons/hr vertical distance=22ft
Required:
Horsepower requirement
Solution:
2T ( ΔZ ) 2 ( 50 ) ( 22 )
HP= =
1000 1000
HP=2.2 hp
44. A glass sphere having a diameter of 1.555 x 10 -4 m in water at 293.2 K and the slurry contains
60 wt% solids. The density of the glass spheres is 2467 kg/m 3. The settling velocity of the
glass spheres in m/s.
A. 1.5 x 10-3
B. 3.1 x 10-4
C. 5.6 x 10-2
D. 7.9 x 10-5
Given:
D = 1.554 x 10-4 m T = 293.2K Density = 2467 kg/m3
Required:
Ut
Solution:
40
1000
∈= =0.622
40 60
+
1000 2467
1
φ p= 1.829(1−0.622) =0.205
10
2
9.81 ( 1.55× 10−4 ) (2467−1000)(0.6222 ×0.205) −3
ut = =1.525× 10 m/s
18(0.001)
45. What is the porosity of a solid if its bulk density is 1125 kg/m 3 and its true density is 1500
kg/m3?
A. 0.15
B. 0.25
C. 0.33
D. 0.75
Given:
ρs=1125kg/m3 ρT=1500kg/m3
68
Required:
porosity
Solution:
Bulk Desity
True Density =
( 1−Porosity )
1125
1500 kg/m3 =
(1− X )
Porosity,x=0.25
46. If the total percentage of particles larger than the screen opening in the feed, oversize and
undersize are 36%, 89%, and 3%, respectively, what is the effectiveness of the screen?
A. 0.65
B. 0.76
C. 0.89
D. 0.98
Given:
XF = 0.36 XP = 0.89 XR = 0.03
Required:
Effectiveness
Solution:
E=(Xp(Xf-Xr))/(Xf(Xp-Xr)) [((1-Xp)(Xf-Xr))/((1-Xf)(Xp-Xr))]
E=(.89(.36-.03))/(.36(.89-.03)) [((1-.89)(.36-.03))/((1-.36)(.89-.03))]
E =.8861
E = 0.89
47. The wire diameter of a 10-mesh screen whose aperture is 0.065 in.
A. 0.0175”
B. 0.035”
C. 0.0225”
D. 0.0065”
Given:
Mesh = 10 Aperture= 0.065 inch
Solution:
1 = Mesh (Aperture + Wire Diameter)
1 = 10(0.065 + Wd)
Wd = 0.035’’
48. What is the mesh number of a screen with aperture opening of 0.177 mm and wire diameter of
0.1405 mm?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 40
D. 80
Given:
Aperture= 0.177mm Diameter=0.1405 mm
Solution:
69
1 = Mesh (Aperture + Wire Diameter)
1=Mesh ¿
Mesh=80
49. A certain crusher accepts a feed of rock having a volume-surface mean diameter of 0.75 inch
and discharges a product of volume- surface mean diameter of 0.20. The power required to
crush 12 tons/h is 9.3 hp. What should be the power consumption if the capacity is reduced to
10 ton/h and the volume-surface mean diameter to 0.15 inch? The mechanical efficiency
remains unchanged.
A. 11.4 hp
B. 17.8 hp
C. 23.1 hp
D. 27.5 hp
Given:
1: P= 9.3 hp 2: P=?
M=12 tons/h M= 10 tons/hr
d1= 0.75 d1=0.75
d2=0.20 d2=0.15
Solution:
P 1 1
=( - )
M d2 d1
9.3 hp 1 1
@1: =( - ) equation 1
12tons/hr 0.20 0.75
P2 , hp 1 1
@2: =( - ) equation 2
10tons /hr 0.15 0.75
P2 =11.4 hp

1800 lbs of dolomite per hour is produced by crushing and then screening through a 14-inch mesh
screen. The screen analysis is as follows:
Tyler Mesh Feed to screen Undersize (product) Screen oversize
4 on 14.3 - 24
8 on 20 - 24
14 on 20 - 24
28 on 28.5 40 24
48 on 8.6 30 -
100 on 5.7 20 -
100 through 2.9 10 -
50. The total load (in lbs/h) to the crusher is

A. 6300
B. 6400
70
C. 6510
D. 6620
Given: xf=0.457; xr=0.24; xp=1; P=1800

Solution:
Let F=Feed, P=Product, R=Residue
TMB Balance: F= 1800 + R

CMB Balance: 0.457F = 1800 + 0.24R
F= 6304.1474 lb/h
R=4504.1474 lb/h
51. Based from the preceding problem, calculate the effectiveness of the screen.
A. 60%
B. 62.5%
C. 65%
D. 67.5%
Given: xf=0.457; xp=1; xr=0.24

Solution:
1(0.457−0.24) (1−1)(0.457−0.24)
Effectiveness= (1- )
0.457(1−0.24) (1−0.457)(1−0.24)
Effectiveness=62.5%
Ground lead ore is to be concentrated by a single flotation process using 1.5 oz of reagent per ton of
ore. The feed, concentrate and tailings have the following composition by weight on a dry basis:
FEED, % CONCENTRATE, % TAILINGS, %

PbS 30 90 0.9
ZnS 25 3 35.6
SiO2 45 7 63.5
Water is fed to the cell at the rate of 1000 gallons per ton of wet concentrate with 99% of the water
leaving with the tailings and 1% with the concentrate.
52. Calculate the mass of wet concentrate produced per hour when 10 tons of ore are fed to the
cell per 24 hours.
A. 3.4 tons
B. 4.6 tons
C. 10 tons
D. 14.23 tons
SOLUTION:
71
TMB Balance: 10 = C + T
CMB Balance: 10(0.3) = 0.96C + 0.97T
C =3.27 tons
T= 6.74 tons
1 ft 3 62.4 lbm
Tons of H20=1000 galx x =8341lbm
7.481 gal ft 3
lb of H2O in concentrated:
8341 ( 0.10 )=83.41lbm
Mass of net concentrate= 3.27 ton+ 83.41lbm ( 20001 tonlbm )=3.4 tons
53. Based on the preceding problem, calculate the total water required in pounds per hour.
A. 1150
B. 1186
C. 1232
D. 1285
Solution:
1
Total Water required, lb/hr=
( 3.424tons
hr )( 1000 gal H 2O
1 ton ) ( 231 x
1213
1 gal
)( 62.4 lbm
ft 3 )
lbm
¿ 1186
hr
54. A centrifugal bowl 300 mm ID is turning at 65 Hz. It contains a layer of organic compound 50
mm thick. If the density of the organic compound is 1002 kg/m 3 and the pressure at the liquid
surface is 750 mm Hg. What is the gauge pressure exerted on the wall of the bowl?
A. 5.5 atm
B. 11.3 atm
C. 13.9 atm
D. 14.5 atm
Solution:
1
Pfluid = ρ ω2 ( R2−r 2 ) + P surface
2
0.3 m
R= =0.15 m
2
0.3 m−2(0.05 m)
r= =0.1 m
2
72
1 kg 1 atm 1 atm
2 m (
Pfluid = (1002 3 ) ( 2 πx 65 )2 ( 0.15 2−0.102 ) ) (
101325 Pa
+ 750
760 mmhg )
Pfluid =11.30 atm
KINETICS
1. The reaction 2H2O2 →2H2O+O2, rate = k[H2O2]
A. Zero order reaction
B. Second order reaction
C. First order reaction
D. Third order reaction
2. A zero order reaction is one whose rate is independent of

A. Temperature of the reaction
B. Concentration of the products
C. Concentration of the reactants
D. Material of vessel in which the reaction is carried out
3. The rate or reaction is not influenced by

A. Concentration of reactants
B. Molecularity of the reaction
C. Nature of the reactants
D. Temperature
4. Half- Life period of second order reaction is

A. Proportional to initial concentration of reactants
B. Independent of initial concentration of reactants
C. Inversely proportional to initial concentration of reactants
D. Inversely proportional to square of initial concentration of reactants
73
5. If initial concentration of reactants in certain reaction is doubled, the half life period of
the reaction doubles. The order of reaction is
A. 0
B. 1st
C. 2nd
D. 3rd
6. The law which states that the rate of reaction is directly proportional to active masses or
concetration of the reactant is the law of
A. Constant composition
B. Temperature
C. Chemical equilibrium
D. Mass action
7. The rate of reaction A + B → P is givenby the equation r= k[A][B]. If B is taken in large

excess, the order of reaction would be
A. 0
B. 1st
C. 2nd
D. 3rd
8. Diazonium salt decomposes as C6H5N2Cl → C6H5Cl + N2. At 0°C, the evolution of N2becomes
two times faster when initial concentration of the salt is doubled. Thus, it is
A. A first order reaction
B. A second order reaction
C. Independent of square of initial concentration of reactant
D. Cannot be determined
9. The rate of reaction between A and B increases by a factor of 100, when the
concentration with respect to A is increased 10 fold. The order of the reaction with
respect to A is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 10
10. For a reaction of the type A + B → P, it is observed that doubling the concentration of A
causes the reaction rate to be four times as great, but daoubling the amount of B does not
affect the rate. The rate equation is
A. Rate = k[A][B]
B. Rate = k[A]2[B]0
C. Rate = k/4 [A]2
D. Rate = k[A]2[B]2
74
11. For the elementary step, (Ch3)3CBr(aq) → CH3C(aq) + Br(aq). The molecularity is
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Unpredictable
12. The term used to designate the number of molecules in an elementary reaction is
________ of reaction.
A. Order
B. Collision factor
C. Power
D. Molecularity
13. The rate of chemical reaction depends on the nature of chemical reaction because
A. Threshold energy level differs from one reaction to another
B. Some of the reactants are solid at room temp
C. Some of the reactants are inerts
D. All of the above
14. For the reaction H2(g)+Br2(g)→2HBr(g), the reaction rate =k[H2][Br2]1/2

A.The reaction is of 2nd order
B. Molecularity of the reaction is 3/2
C. The unit of k is sec-1
D.Molecularity of the reaction is 2
15. The threshold energy of a chemical reaction depends on

A. Nature of the reacting species
B. Concentration of species
C. Temperature
D. Collision
16. If concentration units are reduced by n times, then the value of the rate constant of first
order will
A. Increase by n times
B. Decrease by factor of n
C. Not change
D. No answer
17. Describe how the reaction environment is shaped by the geometry of the reactor, by
physical processes like fluid dynamics and heat and mass transport and by process
variables and conditions
A. Reactor model
B. Reaction kinetics
C. Reaction model
75
D. Kinetics model
18. Which statement is correct

A. Reactions with low activation energy are usually exothermic
B. The rate law for a reaction is an algebraic expression relating the forward reaction
rate to the product concentration
C. The rate law sometimes enables to deduce the mechanism of a reaction
D. Increase in the total pressure of a gas phase reaction increases the fraction of
collisions effective in producing reactions
19. The rate of chemical reaction depends on the nature of chemical reaction because
A. Threshold energy level differs from one reaction to another
B. Some of the reactions are solid at room temp
C. Some of the reactants are inerts
D. All of the above
20. Which of the following statement is correct for the reaction X + 2Y→ Products
A. The rate of disappearance of X = 2x disappearance of Y
B. The rate of disappearance of X = ½ x disappearance of products
C. The rate of appearance of products = ½ x rate of disappearance of Y.
D. The rate of appearance of products = ½ x rate of disappearance of X.
21. The term –dC/dt in the rate equation refers to the

A. Concentration of the reactant
B. Decrease in concentration of reactant with time
C. Rate constant of reaction
D. Velocity of reaction
22. States that the equilibrium is attained if for any possible change, the free energy of the
system increase
A. Thermodynamic equilibrium
B. Statistical mechanics equilibrium
C. Kinetic view of equilibrium
D. Non-chain reaction mechanism
23. States that the system is at equilibrium if the rates of change of all the forward and the
backward elementary reactions are equal
24. States that the equilibrium is the state of
76
the system consisting if the greatest number of equally likely molecular configuration
which are macroscopically indistinguishable and can be considered to be identical.
25. For the reaction 4A + B → 2C + D, which of the following statement is not correct
A. The rate of disappearance of B is one fourth of the disappearance of A
B. The rate of appearance of C is one half of disappearance of B
C. The rate of formation of D is one half of disappearance of B
D. The rate of formation of C and D are equal
26. The rate of the reaction 2NO + O2→ 2NO2, when the volume of the reaction vessel is
doubled.
A. Will increase 8 times of its initial rate
B. Reduce to one-eight of its initial rate
C. Will increase 4 times of its initial rate
D. Reduce to one-fourth of its initial rate
27. The rate constant for a reaction is 10.8 x 10^-5 mol/L.s the reaction is of _____ order.
A. 0
B. 1st
C. 2nd
D. 3rd
28. If the rate expression for a chemical reaction is rate = k[A][B] n Then the order of
reaction is
A. 1
B. n-1
C. n
D. n+1
29. For a reaction A → R, where R has

autocatalytic effect CA0 = 1.0 mol/L. The
maximum rate will occur at
A. CA = 0
B. CA = 1
C. CA = CR
D. CA = CR0
30. The rate expression rate = k[A][B] 2/3 has an

overall order of
A. 0
77
B. 1
C. 2/3
D. 5/3
LINKAGE PROBLEM (31-33)

Given a gaseous feed to a reactor CA0 = 100,
CB0 = 200, CR0 = 50, Cio = 250 (where I stands for an inert material). the the reactor, materials A
and B react according to the reaction: A+3B→R. In the exit stream CA= 80. Assuming ideal gas
behavior, constant temperature and pressure, find (in the exit stream)
31.CB
A. 120
B. 100
C.60
D. 45
32. XA
A. 1/3
B.1/2
C. 2/3
D. 3/4
33. XB
A. 1/3
B. 1/2
C. 2/3
D. 3/4

The reaction of nitric oxide with hydrogen at 12800C
Is: 2NO(g) + 2 H2 (g) → N2 (g) + 2H2O and the reaction data are as follows:
Run [NO]0 (M) [H2] (M) Initial rate

(M/min)
1 0. 0100 0. 0100 0.00600
2 0.0200 0.0300 0.144
3 0.0100 0.0200 0.0120
34. If therate law is Rate = k [NO] *[H2]Y are the values of a and y are:
A. x= 1 , y= 2
B. x= 2 , y= 1
C. x= 3 , y= 1
D. x= 2 , y= 3
35. Rate constant
A. 4 x 105 M-3 /min
78
B.5 x 105 M-3 /min
C. 6 x 105 M-3 /min
D. 7 x 105 M-3 /min
36. A certain reaction proceeds throught 1st order

kinetics. The half life of the reaction is 180s. What
percent of the initial concentration remains after
900 s?
A. 0.59%
B. 3.12%
C. 10.98%
D. 25.9%
37. the activation energy of a first order reaction is

50.2 kJ/mol at 250C. At what temperature will the
rate constant double?
A. 239 K
B. 269 K
C. 288 K
D. 308 K
38. A liquid phase reaction between cyclepentadiene (A) and benzoquinone (B) is conducted
in an isothermal batch reactor, producing a product C. the reaction is 18st order with respect to each
reactant with kA = 9.92 x 10-3 L/mol-s . Determine the reactor volume (L) required to produce 1875
mol/h of C, if the fractional conversion is 0.90. CA0 = CB0 =0.1885 mol/L. Downtime to between batches
is 30 minutes. The reaction is A + B → C
A. 1294
B. 1765
C. 2178
D. 2830

How much NOBr(g) → 2NO(g) + Br(g) is a second order reaction with respect to NOBr, k= 0.8180
M s at 100C. If [NOBr]0 = 7.5 x 106 M-3
-1 -1
39. How much NOBr will be left after 180 minutes?

A. 1.1 x 10-3 M
B. 1.6 x 10-3 M
C. 2.9 x 10-3 M
D. 3.2 x 10-3 M
40. What is the half life of this reaction?

A. 40 s
79
B. 80 s
C. 160 s
D 480 s
41. The reaction of ethylene chlorohydrin with sodium bicarbonate to produce ehtylene glycol is
ClCH2CH2OH + NaHCO3→ HOCH2CH2OH + NaCl + CO2 is a simple , second order , irreversible reaction
and that at 2000F, kc = 12850 gal/lbmol-hr. It is desired to design a pilot plant stirred continuous
overflow reactor to study the economic feasibility of producing ethylene glycol by this reaction. The
fees streams available are a 25% aqueous solution of ethylene chlorohydrin and pure dry sodium
bicarbonate. The design production rate is 180 lb/hr of ethylene glycol (assume 100% recovery) a
reaction temperature at 2000 F with 99% conversion. A 10% excess bicarbonate is used. Carbon
dioxide will evolve from the reacting solution as it is formed. The density of the reacting solution at
2000 F is 18.180 g/mL. What reactor volume is required?
A. 127 gal
B. 191 gal
C. 221 gal
D. 307 gal
42. The research department in your company has given you information on the reaction: E → 2G. Two
trial reactions were run for ten minutes. In both cases the initial concentration of E was 0.175
moles/L and the concentration of G was zero. The data given to you is: @ T= 70 OF, [G] = 0.022 mol/L
after 180 min. Assuming ist order kinetics, how long must a batch reactor be run at 170 OF to produce
a conversion of 80% of E with initial composition of 0.065 mol/L
A. 11.21 min
B. 15.67 min
C. 18.92 min
D. 25.66 min

The oxidation of nitric oxide according to the equation: 2NO + O 2 → 2NO2 is a third order
reaction. The rate constant is kc = 26500 L2/mol2-s at 300C. Assume the ideal gas law to apply. A
reactor is charged with a mixture containing 18.42% NO, 10.53% O2, and 71.05% N2. The initial
pressure is 760 mmhg. Assuming an isothermal batch reaction at 300C
43. How much time is required to reach 90%
conversion?
A. 1.19 s
B. 5.78 s
C. 17.89 s
D. 25.9 s
80
44. What is the total pressure and composition at
that point?
A. 10.4 gal
B. 31.8 gal
C. 98.6 gal
D. 123.4 gal

The statement is commonly made tgat the rate of
reaction is approximately doubled for each 100C rise
in temperature. Referring to the differential form of
the Arrhenius equation, derive a general relation
between absolute temperature and activation energy
which must hold if the above statement is to be true.
45. What is the activation energy at 3000C

A. 12.45kcal/mol-K
B. 39.8 kcal/mol-K
C. 5.12 kcal/mol-K
D. 22.7 kcal/mol-K
46. What is the activation energy at 6000C

A. 22.1 kcal/mol-K
B. 49.8 kcal/mol-K
C. 88.5 kcal/mol-K
D. 12.45 kcal/mol-K

A compound Q is produced according to the reaction 2P → Q + R. The reaction is second order
and irreversible. The rate constant for formation of Q is 0.2 L/mol-hr.
47. what volume batch reactor is required to

produce 100 mol of Q in one hour if the
concentration of P in the feed is 1.5 mol/L?
A. 325 L
B. 2900 L
C. 578 L
D. 112 L
48. If the above batch reactor was run as a contiuous

stirred tank reactor and produce the required 100
mols Q per hour. What must be the volumetric feed
rate?
81
A. 101 L/h
B. 893 L/h
C. 1123 L/h
D. 635 L/h

How does the rate coefficient of a chemical
reaction change with a 100C increase in temperature if the base temperature is 1000C
49. If E=10 kcal
A. 1.422 k
B. 1.667 k
C. 2.011 k
D. 2.322 k
50. If E=20 kcal?
A. 1.901 k
B. 2.0228 k
C. 2.421 k
D. 2.998 k
SOLUTIONS:
-rA=kCAxCBy
0.006=k [0.01] x [0.01] y

; y=1
0.012=k [0.01]x [0.02]y
0.144=k [0.02] x [0.03 ]y

x y ; Substituting y=1, therefore x=3
0.012=k [0.01] [0.02]
0.006=k [0.01]x [0.01]y ; Where x=3 and y=1
Therefore k=6 x 105 M-3 /min
ln 2
36. t1/2=180= ; k=3.8508 x 10-3 s-1
k
N
ln =3.8508 x 10−3 (900)(100%)
N0
N
ln =3.12%
N0
82
50.2 x 103 1 1
37.ln 2=
[ −
8.314 298.15 T 2 ]
T2= 308.7164 K
V C A0 xA
38. =
F −r A
V 0.9(1.5)
=
175 9.92 x 10 ( 1−0.9 )2 ( 0.072 ) (30 ) (3600)
−8
0.15
V=2830 L
LINKAGE PROVLEM (39-40)
1 1
− =0.810 (10 ) (60); CA= 1.6146 x 10-3M
C A 7.5 x 10−3
1 1
− =0.810 t 1 ; t1/2= 164.6091 s
0.5(7.5 x 10 ) 7.5 x 10−3
−3
2
41.
42.
d x A kC 2A 0 (1−x A )3
= 2
dt (1+∈ A x A )
0.9
d xA
t=
[ 2
1+(−0.5 x 0.1842 x 0.9) ∫
0 (1−x A )3
2
] =17.8952 s
1
26500
[
0.08205(30+273.15) ]
π−760
0.9= ; π=697.0036 mmHg
−0.5 x 0.1842 x 760
E 1 1 12.6573 kcal
ln 230= [ −
1.987 x 1000 10+273.15 300+273.15
; E=
mol−K ]
E 1 1 48.925 kcal
ln 230= [ −
1.987 x 1000 300+273.15 600+273.15
; E=
mol−K ]
83
C A 0−C A
kt =
CA 0C A
1.5−C A 1.1538
0.2 x 1= ; CA= =0.1731 mol/ L
1.5 C A 6
100
V= =572.7008 L
0.1731
C A=( 1.5−1.2081 ) ( 36 )=0.1460 mol/ L

100
V= =685.1662 L
0.1460
lnk 10 x 103 1 1
k0
= −[
1.987 373.15 383.15
=0.3520 ]
0.3520
k
=e =1.4219 k
k0
lnk 20 x 103 1 1
k0
= −[
1.987 373.15 383.15
=0.7040 ]
0.7040
k
=e =2.0217 k
k0
84
PLANT DESIGN AND ECONOMICS
CPED, Plant Design and Economics
1. This is a process to reduce residual stresses in metals by the application of heat to induce
redistribution of ductile stress.
A. Stress relieving
B. Normalizing
C. Quenching
D. Radiographing
2. It is the materials resistance to surface deformation of an external force.
A. Brittleness
B. Hardness
C. Elasticity
D. Ductility
3. The Rockwell number of a material is a measure of
A. Specific gravity
B. Specific heat
C. Density
D. Hardness
4. A suitable material of construction to use with fuming sulfuric acid is
A. Carbon steel
B. Nickel
C. Stainless steel type 304
D. Brass
5. Safety valves are provided in chemical equipment to guard against excessive
A. Temperature
B. Pressure/pressure fluctuations
C. Turbulence
D. Noise
6. Soil bearing capacity means
85
A. High water holding capacity
B. Good drying characteristics
C. High density
D. Capacity to hold weight
7. In last design implementation, soil testing is done to determine
A. pH
B. load bearing capacity
C. Porosity
D. Viscosity
8. Design based on conditions giving the least cost per unit time and maximum profit per unit
production.
A. Battery limit
B. Break-even point
C. Optimum economic design
D. Plant design
9. Common problem which is encountered in chemical process equipment is
A. Corrosion
B. Abrasion
C. Erosion
D. All of these
10. The ratio of shear stress to shear strain is called
A. Bulk modulus
B. Shear modulus
C. Modulus of rigidity
D. Modulus of elasticity
11. 4.25 percent cut segmental baffle means that the baffle
A. Height is 75% of the I.D. of the shell
B. Height is 25% of the I.D. of the shell
C. Spacing is 75% of its height
D. Width is 25% of its height
12. Liquid/petroleum fuel storage tanks are built underground (as in case of petrol pumps), when
the storage capacity is less than ________ kiloliters.
A. 20
B. 30
C. 45
D. 85
13. The stress developed in a material without any permanent set is called the
A. Ultimate stress
B. Yield stress
C. Elastic limit
D. Breaking stress
86
14. Which of the following is not a valid assumption in continuous binary distillation for calculating
the number of equilibrium stages by Mc-Cabe-Thiele’s method?
A. Sensible heat changes for vapour and liquid are negligibly small
B. Reflux is not a saturated liquid
C. Molar latent heat of the two components are equal
D. Heat of mixing of normal liquid is assumed to be zero
15. The value of fouling factor depends upon the
A. Characteristics of process fluid
B. Velocity of process fluid containing suspended solids
C. Suspended solids in the fluid
D. All A, B and C
16. A riveted joint does not fail by ______ of rivets.
A. Tearing
B. Shearing
C. Tearing of the plate across a row
D. None of these
17. Two iron pipes of the same nominal diameter but different schedule numbers will have the
same?
A. Inside diameter
B. Outside diameter
C. Wall thickness
D. None of these
18. Correct use of ‘factor of safety’ is very important in equipment design. It is defined as the
ratio of the
A. Ultimate stress to breaking stress
B. Ultimate stress to working stress
C. Working stress to ultimate stress
D. None of these
19. Wall thickness of schedule 40 pipe as compared to that of schedule 80 pipe is
A. More
B. Less
C. Same
D. Either A or B; depends upon the I.D. of the pipe
20. A stuffing box is used for
A. Absorbing the contraction/expansion of pipeline due to the temperature changes.
B. Prevention of fluid leakage around moving parts.
C. Facilitating smooth opening and closing of a valve.
D. Reducing the resistance of fluid flow.
21. Spherical shaped pressure vessel is considered to be the most ideal, because it can
A. Withstand higher pressure for a given metallic shell thickness
B. Be fabricated very easily
C. Be designed without wind load considerations
87
D. Be supported very easily
22. Generally, no corrosion allowance in wall thickness of a part is required, if the thickness is
more than _________ mm.
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 5
23. Optimum economic pipe diameter for fluid flow is determined by the
A. Viscosity of the fluid
B. Density of the fluid
C. Total cost considerations (pumping cost plus fixed cost of the pipe).
D. None of these
24. In hydrostatic testing of welded pipe (for leakage, strength etc.) the ratio of minimum
hydrostatic test pressure to internal design pressure is around
A. 0.5
B. 1.5
C. 2.5
D. 3.5
25. The ratio of lateral strain is termed as the
A. Poisson’s ratio
B. Bulk modulus
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Shear modulus
26. Scale up problem in design based on the similarity concept takes into account _______
similarity.
A. Geometrical
B. Kinematic
C. Dynamic
D. All A,B and C
27. ___________ closure is the weakest enclosure for cylindrical vessels.
A. Hemispherical
B. Torispherical
C. Conical or flat plate
D. Elliptical
28. The practice of designing products, system or processes to properly account for the
interaction between them and the people that uses them.
A. Ergonomics
B. Safety engineering
C. Plant design
D. Line balancing
29. It is the most popular form of business organization wherein shares of stock are issued to the
person as an evidence of ownership of the business.
88
A. Sole ownership
B. Partnership
C. Cooperatives
D. Corporation
30. A method wherein payment that is made, a portion of the payment is applied towards paying
the interest on the loan.
A. Depreciation
B. Annuity
C. Amortization
D. Pro-rated
31. The difference between the book value and the actual lower resale value is
A. Fixed Cost
B. Resale value
C. Salvage Cost
D. Sunk cost
32. An index of short paying ability is called
A. Current ratio
B. Profit margin ratio
C. Receivable ratio
D. Acid test ratio
33. A debit may signify
A. Increase in liability account
B. Increase in capital account
C. Decrease in asset account
D. Increase in asset account
34.Gross income less gross expense before deducting provision for income tax
A. Gross sales
B. Gross Profit
C. Gross Proceeds
D. Net income
35. The reduction in value and marketability due to competition from newer products/ models
89
A. Discount
B. Depreciation cost
C. Indirect cost
D. Obsolescence
36. The price at which a given product will be supplied and purchased is the price that will result in
the supply and demand being equal
A. Profit
B. Return on investment
C. Law of Supply and Demand
D. Obsolescence
37. The total value of a company’s assets that shareholders will receive if a company were liquidated.
A. Book value
B. Salvage value
C. Depreciation cost
D. Profit
38. Funds supplied by others which a fixed rate of interest must be paid and the debt be repaid at a
specific place and time
A. Discount
B. Borrowed capital
C. Working capital
D. Cash flow
39. The exclusive right of a company to provide a specific products/service in a given region of the
country.
A. Franchise
B. Branch
C. Extension
D. Outlet
40. A series of equal payments at equal intervals of time
A. Amortization
90
B. Annuity
C. Depreciation
D. Interest
41. How much would you need to deposit at 6 % in order to be able to withdraw Php 358,400 at the
end of each year for 7 years?
A. Php 225,000
B.Php 3,225,000
C.Php 2,120,770
D.Php 5,190,000
SOLUTION:
A=358,400 n= 7 i=6%
(1+i)n −1 (1+ 0.06)7−1

P=A ( ) = 358,400 ( )=Php 2,000,726
i(1+i)n 0.06 x(1+ 0.06)7
42. The owner of a small business borrowed $ 70,000 with an agreement to repay the loan with
quarterly payments over a five year time period. If the interest rate is 12% per year compounded
quarterly, his loan payment each quarter is nearest to:
A. $2,605
B. $4,705
C. $9,372
D. $19,419
SOLUTION:
P=$ 70,000 Quarterly
n= 5 yr i= 12% /yr
%70,000= A ¿) A=$4,705
43. A small manufacturing company expects to have replace its aging production line in five years with
new equipment. The current equipment has operating costs which are expected to be $5,000 this
year, $6,000 next year, with costs increasing by $1,000 per year through year five. The equipment
will have a salvage value of $30,000 at the end of year five. The new equipment is expected to cost
$150,000 and the company uses an interest rate of 16 % per year compounded quarterly on its
investments. The operating cost in year four will be:
91
A. $7,000
B. $8,000
C. $9,000
D. $10,000
SOLUTION:
n= 5 yrs. i= 0.16 compounded quarterly
Operating costs= $5,000 this year @ yr. 4 operating cost= $ 8,000
$6,000 next year Operating cost =5000 +1000 +1000
$1,000 increases/yr In n=4:
SV= $30,000 @ yr. 5 Operating cost= 5000 + 1000+

1000+1000=$8000
44. A municipal bond with a face value of $10,000 will mature 15 years from now. The bond interest
rate is 6% per year, payable quarterly. At an interest rate of 16 % per year compounded quarterly,
the present worth of the bond is closed to:
A. $4,175
B. $4,345
C. $5,227
D. $6,135
SOLUTION:
0.16 −15
1−(1+ ) x4
4
P=10000(0.06/4) x ( )+ 10000(1+0.16/4)^-15X4
0.16
4
P=4344.1275= 4345
45. If you deposit $1,000 now at an interest rate of 12 % per year compounded monthly, the amount
that will be in the savings account five years from now is closed to:
A. $1,600
B. $1,762
C. $1,817
D. $1,905
92
SOLUTION: F=P(1+r/m)nxm
P=$1000 F=1000(1+0.12/12)5x12
i= 12% F= 1816.6967
m=12 F= $1817
n=5
46. A company is considering two methods for obtaining a certain part. Method A will involve
purchasing a machine for $50,000 with a life of 5 years, a $2,000 salvage value and a fixed annual
operating cost of $10,000. Additionally, each part produced by the method will cost $10. Method B
will involve purchasing the part from a subcontractor for $25 per part. At an interest rate of 10% per
year, the number of parts per year required for the two methods to breakeven is
A.1, 333
B.1, 524
C.1, 850
D.2, 011
SOLUTION:
A B
CP = $50,000 CP = $25/part
n= 5 yrs. i= 10%
Cs = $2000 # parts/yr. =?
Cfc= $10000 (50,000+ 10,000)(0.1 x ¿ ¿) - 2000(0.1 x ¿ ¿) +
10P =25P
P= 1524
A plant is producing 10,000 T/yr. of a product. The overall yield is 70 %, on a mass basis(kg of product
per kg raw material). The raw material cost $10/ T, and the product sells for $35/T. A process
modification has been devised that will increase the yield to 75%.The additional investment required
is $35, 000 and the additional operating cost are negligible.
47. How much of the product could be saved with the 5% increase of the process yield?
A. 14,289t/y C.953 t/y
B.614 t/y D.1000 t/y
SOLUTION:
Production= 10,000 t/y
%yield =70% (mass basis kg P/kg RM)
CRM =$10/t
93
CP =$35/t
Process Modification %Yield =75%
Additional investment = $35,000
10,000
RM= =14,286
0.7
10,000
@75% = =13,333
0.75
Savings = 14286 – 13333 =953 t/y
48. What would be its rate of return having a saving product in (9)?
A. 13%
B.27%
C.31%
D.39%
SOLUTION:
Cost saving @ 10/t
=953(10) = 9530/yr
9530
ROR= ( 100 )=27.2286 %
35,000
49. As the annual savings are constant, what would be the pay-back time of the plant?
A.8 yrs.
B.5.4 yrs.
C.3.7 yrs.
D.3.1 yrs.
SOLUTION:
100
PBT = =3.7037 yrs.
27
=3.7 yrs.
50. The purchased cost of a shell and tube heat exchanger, carbon shell, 316 stainless steel tubes,
heat transfer area 500 m2, was $64,000 in January 2003; estimate the cost in January 2008.
94
Use the M&S Equipment Cost Index.
Index in 2003=1123.6;Index in 2005= 1244.5
A. $56,000
B.$81,000
C. $73,000
D.$86,000
SOLUTION:
Jan 2003= $64,000 I2

C2 =C1 ( )
I1
1123.6
1425.85
2005=1244.5 =$64,000( )
1123.6
Req’d: Jan 2008
=$81,216
@2008 I=1425.85
51. The cost of constructing a 30,000 MTA acrolein plant was estimated as $80 MM on a 2006 U.S.
Golf Coast basis. What would be the cost in U.S dollars on a 2006 Germany basis?
2003 location factor for Germany is 1.11
Exchange rate in 2003 €1=$1.15
Exchange rate in 2006 €1=$1.35
A. $104 MM
B. $76 MM
C. $122 MM
D. $68 MM
SOLUTION:
C2006 US = $80 MM
C2006 Germany =?
C = 80 MM ( 1.35
1.15 )
x 1.11=104.2435 MM
95
52. Estimate the annual cost of providing refrigeration to a condenser with duty 1.2 MW operating at
-5 degrees Celsius. The refrigeration cycle rejects heat to cooling water that id available at 40
degrees Celsius and has an efficiency of 80 % of the Carnot cycle efficiency. The plant operates for
8,000hr/yr and electricity costs $0.06/kWh.
A. $110,000/y
B. $98,000/y
C. $150,000/y
D. $75,000/y
SOLUTION:
263.15
COP= =4.7841
318.15−263.15
COP actual = 4.7845 x0.8 =3.8276
Shaft work = 12/3.8276 = 0.3135 Kw
Annual OC = 313.5(8000)0.06
= $150,480/y
LINKAGE PROBLEM:
A particular cost estimation for a particular product is enlisted below:
Distribution and Marketing costs USD97,200
Direct Production costs USD 1,848,737.25
Fixed Charges USD 225,225.25
Plant Overhead Cost USD 575, 235.85
General Expenses USD 103,523.45
53. What is the total manufacturing cost?
A. USD 2,699,198.35
B.USD 2,699,148.35
C. USD 2,649,198.35
D.USD 2,649,198.85
96
SOLUTION:
Total manufacturing cost= Direct Production costs + Fixed Charges + Plant Overhead Cost
= USD 1,848,737.25 + USD 225,225.25 + USD 575, 235.85
= USD 2,649,198.35
54. What is the Total Product Cost?
A. USD 2,349,921.80
B. USD 2,399,921.80
C. USD 2,849,921.80
D. USD 2,899,921.80
SOLUTION:
TPC=TMC+GE
= USD 2,649,198.35+ USD 103,523.45+USD 97,200
= USD 2,849,921.80
55. If the production rate is 20,625, what is the breakeven point selling price?
A.USD 113.94
B.USD 138.18
C. USD 140.60
D.USD 123.2
SOLUTION:
BREAKEVEN POINT:
Sales=expenses
20,625 (selling price/product)= 97200 + USD 1,848,737.25+ USD 225,225.25+ USD 575, 235.85 +
USD 103,523.45
Selling price = USD 138.18
56. If the market price is USD 200, what is the breakeven point selling volume?
A.11, 749.61
B. 11,249.61
C.14, 249.61
97
D. 14,499.61
SOLUTION:
No. products (200) = 97200 + USD 1,848,737.25 + USD 225,225.25 + USD 575, 235.85 + USD
103,523.45
No. of products =14,249.61
57. A 6-inch rivet undergoes shear force of 875 lbs. The stress in the rivet in psi is
A.61.9
B.30.95
C.92.31
D.41.23
SOLUTION:
F 875lbs
=
Ʈ= A π =30.95 psi
¿
4∗¿ ¿ ¿
58. A steel wire is 6m long, hanging vertically supports a load of 2000 N. Neglecting the weight of the
wire, determine the required diameter if the stress is not to exceed 140 MPa and the total elongation
is not to exceed 4mm. E=200,000 MPa.
A.3.4 mm
B.4.26 mm
C.4.4 mm
D.5.4 mm
SOLUTION:
L= 6m
Load= 200 N
Ʈ =140 MPA
Elongation= 4mm
2000 N∗6 m
0.004 m = π 2 D= 4.37 mm
D ∗200000
4
98
59. A butt welded spherical storage tank for ammonia has an inside diameter for 30 ft. If the tank is
to be used at a working pressure of 50 psi, estimate the necessary wall thickness. Assuming no
corrosion allowance, tensile strength is 13,700 psi and joint efficiency is 80%.
A.1/2”
B.1/4”
C.7/16”
D.5/16”
30 12
50 x 1.1 x x
SOLUTION: t= 2 1 = 0.45 in or 7/16 ”
( 2 x 0.8 x 13700 )−(0.2 x 50 x 1.1)
60. What would be the minimum bolt diameter to support a load of 14 kips without exceeding a
shearing stress of 12 ksi and a bearing stress of 20 ksi.
A. 0.8120 in
B.1.2015 in
C.1.4168 in
D.0.8618 in
SOLUTION:
π
14 = 12x (2 x( )D2)
4
D=0.8618 in
HEAT TRANSFER
99
1. Also known as perfect emitter and absorber
A. Gray body
B. Black body
C. Opaque
D. Real body
A black body is an idealized physical body that absorbs all incident electromagnetic radiation,
regardless of frequency or angle of incidence. It is an ideal emitter: at every frequency, it emits as
much or more thermal radiative energy as any other body at the same temperature.
2. Fourier’s law applies to the heat transfer by

A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. None of the above
A temperature gradient within a homogenous substance results in an energy transfer rate within the
medium which can be calculated by the “FOURIER’S LAW” (See discussion for Fourier’s Law in 8 th
edition, pp. 5-3)
3. Account for the contribution of all effects on heat transfer

A. U
B. H
C. Rf
D. xw
Heat transfer coefficient is a quantitative characteristic of convective heat transfer between a

fluid medium (a fluid) and the surface (wall) flowed over by the fluid. (See discussion for Heat
transfer by convection in Perry 8th edition, pp. 5-7)
4. The average range of wavelength of electromagnetic waves is associated with the thermal
radiation is between
A. 10-5 to 10-2 µm
B. 0.1 to 100 µm
C. 100 to 10 000 µm
D. None of these
X-rays are electromagnetic waves with wavelengths in the range of 0.01 to 10 nanometers,
corresponding to frequencies in the range 30 petahertz to 30 exahertz (3×10 16 Hz to 3×1019 Hz) and
energies in the range 100 eV to 100 keV.
5. In using the design equation for heat transfer, q= UA∆Tlm the U and A may either be based in
inside or outside area of the pipe. For a system where air is flowing inside a pipe while being
heated by condensing steam outside the pipe, the proper U an A to be used is
100
A. Based on the inside area
B. Based in outside area
C. It does no matter
D. Based in the overall U
The fluid is flowing inside the pipe and the area contacted with the fluid is the inside area of the pipe.
6. This factor depends on operating temperature, fluid velocity and length of service of heat
exchanger.
A. U
B. H
C. Rf
D. xw
The fouling factor represents the theoretical resistance to heat flow due to a build-up of a layer of

dirt or other fouling substance on the tube surfaces of the heat exchanger, but they are often
overstated by the end user in an attempt to minimize the frequency of cleaning.
7. A real surface has a total emissive power higher than a black body
A. True
B. False
The total emissive power of a black body is 1 while for a real surface it ranges from 0.1 for polished
surfaces to 0.95 for blackboard.
8. The theoretical body where the absorptivity and emissivity is independent of the wavelength
over a spectral region of irradiation and the surface is called
A. Black body
B. Gray body
C. Opaque body
D. Transparent body
See the discussion of Blackbody radiation in 8th edition, pp. 5-16
9. Heat exchanger type most suitable for the construction and heat transfer in condensers and
cooling towers
A. Direct contact HE
B. Transfer type HE
C. Regenerators
D. None of these
A direct contact heat exchanger can be used for seawater desalination, heat recovery,

ocean thermal energy conversion, thermal energy storage systems, etc.
10. Radiation of a single wavelength is called

101
A. Radiosity
B. Irradiation
C. Emissive power
D. Monochromatic
Irradiation is the process by which an object is exposed to radiation. radiosity is the radiant flux
leaving (emitted, reflected and transmitted by) a surface per unit area, and spectral radiosity is the
radiosity of a surface per unit frequency or wavelength, depending on whether the spectrum is taken
as a function of frequency or of wavelength. At any prescribed temperature it has the highest
monochromatic emissive power at all wave lengths
11. commonly used to determine the sizing and rating of heat exchangers.
A. Overall heat transfer coefficient
B. LMTD
C. Effectiveness-NTU
D. All of these
For sizing a heat exchanger, calculating the LMTD, estimation of heat transfer, heating area and heat
exchanger dimensions are done.
12. If the viscosity of the fluid will increase, the heat transfer coefficient in a turbulent flow
system will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. Dramatically increase
For heat transfer in fluids, heat generated by internal friction and the corresponding rise in the
temperature affects the viscosity of the fluid, so that the fluid viscosity no longer be assumed
constant.
13. Commonly used heat exchanger in fermentation and HVAC systems..

A. Direct contact HE
B. Transfer type HE
C. Regenerators
D. None of these
In this, type heat transfers continuously from the hot fluid to the cold fluid through a dividing wall.
There is no direct mixing of the fluids because each fluid flows in separate fluid passages. It is also
known as recuperator.
14. The transfer of heat from a point to another within a fluid or between a fluid and solid or
another fluid, by movement of mixing of the fluid involve
A. Conduction
102
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Both A and B
Convection is heat transfer by mass motion of a fluid such as air or water when the heated fluid is
caused to move away from the source of heat, carrying energy with it.
15. The sum of the radiation emitted by a surface and the fraction of irradiation that is
reflected by the surface.
A. Radiosity
B. Irradiation
C. Emissive power
D. Monochromatic
Radiosity is a method of rendering based on an detailed analysis of light reflections off diffuse
surfaces.
16. Reduce the heat transfer by radiant heat exchange.

A. Ԑ
B. F12
C. F12
D. Shield
A radiation shield is a barrier wall of low emissivity placed between two surfaces which reduce
the radiation between the bodies.
17. The spectral distribution of a perfect emitter has a maximum value and that the
corresponding wavelength depends on temperature. The maximum spectral emissive power is
dispelled to shorter wavelength with increasing temperature. This theory is stated by
A. Stefan-Boltzmann law
B. Stefan-Boltzmann law
C. Wien’s law
D. Planck’s law
Wien's displacement law states that the black body radiation curve for different temperature peaks
at a wavelength that is inversely proportional to the temperature.
18. The total amount of incident radiation that strikes a surface is

A. Radiosity
B. Irradiation
C. Emissive power
D. Monochromatic
Irradiation refers to the exposure of a substance to radiation from a variety different sources.
19. Fraction of radiation leaving the surface 1 in all directions which is intercepted by surface 2.
103
A. Ԑ
B. F12
C. F12
D. Shield
The view factor is the degree to which heat carried by radiation can be passed between two
surfaces.
20. The heat transfer radially across an insulated pipe per unit area
A. Remains constant
B. Is inversely proportional to thermal conductivity
C. Decreases form pipe wall to the insulated surface
D. Increases from pipe wall to the insulated surface
Steady state heat transfer through pipes is in the normal direction to the wall surface (no significant
heat transfer occurs in other directions). Therefore, the heat transfer can be modeled as steady ‐
state and one‐dimensional, and the temperature of the pipe will depend only on the radial direction, T
= T (r).
21. Also known as double pipe heat exchanger

A. Tubular HE
B. Shell and tube HE
C. Finned type HE
D. Compact HE
The tubular heat exchanger is the simplest form of heat exchanger and consists of two concentric
(coaxial) tubes carrying the hot and cold fluids.
22. Also known as surface condensers due to its extensive use in heating cooling condensation
evaporation processes
A. Tubular HE
B. Shell and tube HE
C. Finned type HE
D. Compact HE
A shell and tube heat exchanger is a class of heat exchanger designs. It is the most common type of
heat exchanger in oil refineries and other large chemical processes, and is suited for higher-pressure
applications.
23. A measure of heat transfer surface area

A. NTU
B. U
C. LMTD
D. e
104
Number of transfer units required for a given separation is closely related to the number of
theoretical stages or plates required to carry out the same separation in a stage wise or plate type
apparatus. (See discussion for NTU (Number of Transfer Units) in 8th edition, pp. 5-61)
24. It is a method if developing the design for a heat exchanger wherein the engineer assure the
existence of an exchanger and makes calculation to determine if the exchanger would handle
the process requirements under reasonable conditions
A. Heat exchanger modeling
B. Rating of heat transfer
C. Heat exchanger calculation
D. Heat transfer performance evaluation
Performance evaluation criteria (PEC) for enhanced heat transfer surfaces enable evaluation of the

benefits of heat transfer augmentation relative to the increase in pressure drop as well as
maximization of a performance objective for a given set of constraints.
25. A material that absorbs all incident radiation of wavelength and direction
A. Perfect emitter
B. Perfect absorber
C. Monochromatic
Perfect Emitter emits, Perfect absorber absorbs, diffuse emitter only absorbs certain incident
radiation with value range.
Linkage problem 26-27
A furnace wall made up of 3 layer of brick. If the innermost layer consists of 9” thick fire brick
(k=0.72 BTU/(hr-ft-F)), the second layer is 5” of insulating brick (k= 0.08 BTU/(hr-ft-F)), and the
outer layer is 7.5” of red brick (k=0.5 BTU/(hr-ft-F)). The inner and outer temperature of the
composite wall are 1500 ˚F and 150 ˚F, respectively
26. Calculate the contact surface temperature between the fire brick and insulating brick
A. 1123 ˚F
B. 1312 ˚F
C. 1213 ˚F
D. 1321 ˚F
27. Calculate the contact surface temperature between the insulating brick and red brick
A. 375 ˚F Red brick Insulating Fire brick
B. 405 ˚F brick
C. 425 ˚F 7.5” 5” 9”
D. 455 ˚F
T4=150 F
( 1500−T 2 ) F T3
Q1= ¿ ¿ ¿ ¿ BTU/(hr-
9 left ( {1 ft} over {12
T2
ft-F)) T1=1500 F
105
k=0.5 BTU/(hr- k= 0.08 k=0.72
ft-F) BTU/(hr-ft- BTU/(hr-ft-F)
F)
( T 2−T 3 ) F
Q2= ¿ ¿ ¿ ¿ BTU/(hr-ft-F))
( T 3−150 ) F
Q3= ¿ ¿ ¿ ¿ BTU/(hr-ft-F))
7.5 left ( {1 ft} over {12
Q1=Q2=Q3
( 1500−T 2 ) F ( T 2−T 3 ) F
¿ ¿ ¿ ¿ BTU/(hr-ft-F))= ¿ ¿ ¿ ¿ BTU/(hr-ft-F))
9 left ( {1 ft} over {12 5 left ( {1 ft} over {12
450-0.3T2=0.06T2-0.06T3
1
T2= T3-1250
6
1
(( 6 ) )
T 3−1250 −T 3 F
¿¿¿¿
BTU/(hr-ft-F))=
( T 3−150 ) F
7.5 left ( {1 ft} over {12
¿ ¿ ¿ ¿ BTU/(hr-ft-F))
T3=375 ˚F
1
T2= (375)-1250
6
T2= 1312 ˚F
A double layered wall has an inner layer made of a 0.5 inch thick iron wall (k=30) and the outer layer
consisting of a 1.0 inch thick aluminum wall (k=118).
28. If there is no clearance between the layers of the wall, what is the thermal resistance of the
wall per ft2?
A. 0.003 hr- ˚F/BTU
B. 0.004 hr- ˚F/BTU
C. 0.005 hr- ˚F/BTU
D. 0.006 hr- ˚F/BTU
Iron wall Aluminum wall

k=30 k=118
106
0.5” 1”
0.5 } over {12}} over {30 left (1 right ) ft2} + {{1
1 ∆T interface L
Rc= = = = 12
hc Q/A kA
118 ( 1 ) ft 2
Rc = 0.00483 hr- ˚F/BTU
29. If a clearance of 0.0005” exists between the two layers, what is the thermal resistance of
the wall per ft2? The thermal conductivity of air may be taken as 0.015 BTU/(hr-ft-F).
A. 0.002 hr- ˚F/BTU
B. 0.003 hr- ˚F/BTU
C. 0.004 hr- ˚F/BTU
D. 0.005 hr- ˚F/BTU
0.5 } over {12}} over {30 left (1 right ) ft2} + {{1

Rc= 12
+ 0.0005} over {12(0.015) ¿
118 ( 1 ) ft 2
Rc=0.00209 hr- ˚F/BTU
30. Determine the rate of heat flow per unit area through a composite wall, as shown in the
figure. A 2 in layer of fire brick (k1= 1.0 but/hr-ft-F) is place between two 0.25 in thick steel
plates (k3=30 BTU/hr-ft-F). the surface of the brick face adjoining the steel plate is rough
and has only 30 percent of the brick area in contact with the steel plates. The average height
of the asperities is 1/32 inch. The temperature on the two outer steel plates are 200 F and
800 F respectively
A. 0.65 / ft2
B. 12.3 BTU/ft2
C. 29.2 BTU/ft2
D. 78.3 BTU/ft2
Answer: 3250 BTU / h-ft2
31. A 6” steam pipe (O.D= 6.63 in) insulated with magnesia is tested with thermocouples touching
itself and in the insulation at a distance of 3 in out from the first. If the first thermocouples
registers 350 F and the second 150 F, what is the heat loss per foot of length of pipe per
hour?
A. 61.9 BTU/hr-ft
107
B. 99.2 BTU/hr-ft
C. 78.3BTU/hr-ft
D. 150.6 BTU/hr-ft
6 3
r 1= ∈¿ ft
2 12
6 +6.63 6.315
r 2= ∈ ∈¿ ft
2 2 12
7.615
r 3= ∈¿
12
r2
ln
r1
R 1=
2 πk
6.312
12
ln
3
12
R 1=
2 π (0.045)
R1=2.6325
7.615
12
ln
6.315
12
R 2=
2 π (27.388)
R2=1.2215 x 10−3
Q 350−150
=
L 2.6325+1.2215 x 10−3
Q
=¿78.3BTU/hr-ft
L
A total of 10 000 lb/hr of hot water at 350 F, is to be discarded. It is desired to recover heat from
this stream by using it to preheat 10 000 lb/ht of distilled water from 70 F. the distilled water is to
be ultimately heater to 400 F.
108
32. What is the outlet distilled water temperature that could be reasonably obtained (assume 5 F
approach temperature) for a co current exchanger
Answer: 207.5 F
33. How much heat is recovered for above exchanger?

A. 1 375 000 BTU/hr
B. 1 563 000 BTU/hr
C. 1 603 000 BTU/hr
D. 1 775 000 BTU/hr
Q=mCp ∆ T
Btu
Q=10 000 1 ( hr )(207.5−70)
Q= 1 375 000 BTU/hr
34. What is the outlet distilled water temperature that could reasonably obtained (assume 10 F
approach temperature) for a countercurrent exchanger?
A. 2 300 000 BTU/hr
B. 2 700 000 BTU/hr
C. 2 950 000 BTU/hr
D. 3 100 000 BTU/hr
270 000 = 10 000 (1 ) (x-70)
X= 340˚F
A parallel wooded outer and inner walls of a building are 15ft long 10 ft high and 4 inches apart. The
outer surface of the inner wall is 70 F and the inner surface of the outer wall is 0 F. assume
emissivity 0.9 for wood and air properties at 35 F.
35. Calculate the heat loss in BTU/hr neglecting any leakage of air through the walls
A. 11 000 BTU/hr
B. 14 000 BTU/hr
C. 1 200 BTU/hr
D. 2 900 BTU/hr
36. If the air space is divided in half by a 0.001 inch aluminum foil, calculate the heat loss in
BTU/hr neglecting any leakage of air through the walls
A. 900 BTU/hr
B. 1 800 BTU/hr
C. 3 200 BTU/hr
D. 10 000 BTU/hr
109
0.5
0.001 Btu
k =0.025 Btu x = 4.4643
7 h−ft−F
2.5
Btu
4.4643 ( 70−0 )
h−ft−F
Q=
2
12
Q= 1875.006 Btu/hr
Linkage Problem 37-38
A thick steel pipe with ID of ¾ in is carrying saturated steam at 267 F at an ambient temperature of
80 F. The pipe outside diameter is 1.05 in. and is covered with 1.5 in. thick insulation. The mean
thermal conductivity of the steel is 26 BTU/hr-ft-F and of the insulation is 0.037 BTU/hr-ft-F. Used
inside and outside convective heat transfer coefficient as hi= 1 000 BTU/ hr-ft-F and ho= 2 BTU/hr-
ft-F.
37. Using resistance method, compute the rate of heat loss per unit length
A. 29.8 BTU/hr
B. 25.7 BTU/hr
C. 42.2 BTU/hr
D. 45.3 BTU/hr
( 267−80 ) F
Q=
1.05 1.5
+
1.05 12 24
ln ⁡( ) ln ⁡( )
1 0.75 1.05/24 1
+ + +
0.75 1.05 1.5
1000( π)( ) 26 (2 π ) 26 (2 π )(0.037) (2 π )( + )
12 x 2 24 12
Q= 29.8 BTU/hr
38. What is the overall heat transfer coefficient in BTU/hr-ft2-F?

A. 0.0692
B. 0.738
C. 0.0885
D. 0.943
1
U=
0.75
6.2752( )(49)
24
U= 0.738 BTU/hr-ft2-F
110
39. A liquid air storage steel tank has a 3 ft inside radius and 3.25 ft outer radius, having a
conductivity ka= 25 BTU/hr-f-F. The insulation layer (b) has a thickness of 1.5 ft and a
thermal conductivity kb= 0.048 BTU/hr-ft-F. The temperature on the Inside id -200 F and the
outside is at 70 F. determine the steady sate heat transfer rat through the tank to the liquid
air inside.
A. -1650 BTU/hr
B. -870 BTU/hr
C. 660 BTU/hr
D. 1868 BTU/hr
−200−70
q=
(3.25−3) 4.75−3.25
+
4 π (25 ) (3.25)(3) 4 π ( 0.048 ) (4.75)(3.25)
q=−1675.2537 BTU /hr
Steam (with a heat transfer coefficient of 6050 W/m2-K) is used to heat air (which has a much
smaller coefficient of 61 W/m2-K) within a heat exchanger. Determine the rate of heat transfer per
unit length of tube for the following arrangements (assume that the overall temperature difference is
maintained at 50 K and that the tube wall offer a negligible resistance) for the following conditions:
40. Air flows through the shell side while steam flows through the tube side. Take the outside
surface area to be 0.06 m2/m and the inside surface area to be 0.052 m2/m.
A. 12 W
B. 180 W
C. 590 W
D. 1700 W
1 1 1
= +
UA 6050 (0.052) 61(0.06)
UA=3.6179
Q=3.6170 (50)
Q= 180W
41. Fin are added to the set up above, giving a total outside surface area of 0.165 m 2/m
A. 21 W
B. 190 W
C. 490 W
D. 1100 W
1 1 1
= +
UA 6050 (0.52) 61(0.165)
UA=9.7530
Q=9.7530 (50)
Q= 490W
111
42. Steam flows through the shell side and air flows through the finned tubes.
A. 160 W
B. 300 W
C. 1180 W
D. 1670 W
1 1 1
= +
UA 61(0.052) 6050 (0.165)
UA=3.1620
Q=3.1620 (50)
Q= 160W
A single- pass double pipe heat exchanger is used to cool 800 lb/hr light oil (specific heat 0.4 BTU/lb-
F) form 150 C to 40 C. water at 20 C is used for cooling and the exchanger is operated in
countercurrent operation. The exit water temperature is 40 C. The pipes are 1 inch and 2 inch
schedule 40 steel construction. The film coefficient for water are 2 000 and 850 BTU/h-ft-F
respectively, in the center and the annulus. Those for oil are 90 and 41 on the same basis.
43. What is the Uo if oil is inside
Oil:
Tin = 150 °C = 302 °F
Tout = 40 °C = 104 °F
Water:
Tin = 20 °C = 68 °F
Tout =40 °C = 104 °F
ID = 1.049 in
OD = 1.315 in
1 1.315 1 1
=
U 1.049 90 ( )
+(
850
)
BTU
U = 66. 2029
h ft 2° F
A. 64 BTU/h-ft-F
B. 89 BTU/h-ft-F
C. 169 BTU/h-ft-F
D. 549 BTU/h-ft-F
44. What length of exchanger is required?
Q = m Cp∆ T
Q = (8,000)(0.4)(302-104)
Q = 633,600
112
Q = UA(LMTD)
( 150−104 )−(104−68)
LMTD = 150−104 = 95.0287
ln
104−68
1
633,600 = 64(3.141592)( )(L)(95.0287)
12
L = 302.6119 ft
A. 1.2 ft
B. 22 ft
C. 187 ft
D. 303 ft
45. What is the necessary safe thickness of a shield coating on a radioactive waste spherical ball
of 1 ft radius and temperature of 400 F to be dumped in the ocean with ambient water
temperature of 50 F? The waste ball gives off heat at the rate of 440 BTU/hr. The thermal
conductivity of the shielding material is k=0.02 BTU/hr-ft-F.
T 1−T 2
Q= r 2−r 1
2 ( 3.14159 ) ( k ) (r 1r 2)
400−50
440 = ( ( 1+2 t ) −1 )
2(3.14159)(0.02)(1)(1+ 2t)
t = 2.4995 in
A. 6 in
B. 4 in
C. 3 in
D. 2 in
Air at 2 atm and 200 C is flowing at a velocity of 10 m/s outside a tube with a diameter of 2.54 in. the
tube wall is maintained at a temperature 20 C higher than the air temperature all along the length of
the tube.
46. Compute the rate of heat transfer per unit length

A. 10.2 W/m
B. 77.6 W/m
C. 103.5 W/m
D. 221.8 W/m
PM
ρ=
RT
113
ρ=
2 ( 101325 Pa ) ( 29kmolkg )
kJ
8.314 ( 473.15 K )
kmol−K
ρ=1.4939 k g /m3
2.57 x 10−5 kg
µ=
m−s
Cp= 1.025 kJ/kg-˚C
k= .0386 w/m-˚C
ρvd
ℜ=
μ
10 m
1.4939 kg /m 3 ( )(0.0254 m)
s
ℜ=
2.57 x 10−5 kg
m−s
Re= 14764.6148
hd
Nu=
k
0.4
1.025 x 10−5
Nu=0.023( 14764.6148) 0.8
( 0.0386 )
Nu= 42. 7301
Nu( k)
h=
d
42.7301(0.0386)
h=
0.0254
h= 64.9363 W/m2-˚C
q
=πhd ( ∆ T )
L
q
=π (64.9363)(0.0254)( 10 )
L
q
=103.6337 w/m
L
114
47. Compute the bulk temperature increase over a tube length of 3 meters.
A. 20 C
B. 30 C
C. 40 C
D. 50 C
q=mCp ∆ Tb
π d2
m=ρv
4
π ( 0.0234)2
m=1.4939(10)
4
m=0.0076 kg/ s
0.0076 ( 1025 ) ∆ Tb=3 ( 103.6337 )

∆ Tb=39.9103=40 ˚ C
A total of 10 000 lb/hr of methanol vapor is to be condensed using a single pass condenser. Methanol
at the saturation temperature 160 F is introduced and is withdrawn as a liquid at 160 F. cooling water
is introduced at 70 F and removed at 115 F. Calculate the following:
48. Water flow required
BTU
Cp of liquid methanol = 0.605
lb •° R
BTU
Cp of water = 1
lb•° R
mCp∆ T = mCp∆ T
lb BTU BTU
10,000 (0.605 ) = x (1 )(115-70)
hr lb•° R lb •° R
lb
X = mass of water = 134.44
hr
A. 133 lb/hr
B. 221 lb/hr
C. 548 lb/hr
D. 1009 lb/hr
49. Heat transfer area required

A. 110 ft2
B. 230 ft2
115
C. 760 ft2
D. 1130 ft2
50. What is the require thickness of insulation made of magnesia to restrict the heat loss to 5
BTU/hr- ft2 through the walls of a furnace having inside and ambient temperatures 1500 F
and 150 F, respectively? The furnace wall is ¼ in steel plate with 3 in refractory lining.
A. 3.32 in
B. 8.08 ft
C. 9.99 in
D. 2.25 ft
MASS TRANSFER
1. At the gas temperature, the liquid is in equilibrium with vapour for

A. Saturated gas
B. Unsaturated gas
C. Partially saturated gas
2. Dehumidification is done in
A. Adiabatic temperature
B. Adiabatic saturation temperature
C. Adiabatic unsaturated temperature
3. For the multi-stage counter-current gas dispersed operation, which of the following equipment
is better?
A. Agitated vessel
B. Sparged vessel
C. Tray tower
D. Wetted wall column
4. The higher difference in pressure inside the tray tower cause
A. Flooding
B. Loading
C. Weeping
D. Dumping
5. A system which require less solvent and produces a more concentrated extract phase, is
desired with a
A. Large distribution coefficients
B. Small distribution coefficients
C. Very small distribution coefficients
116
D. Constant distribution coefficients
6. For the liquid-liquid extraction operation, the selectivity should be
A. >1
B. <1
C. 1
D. Zero
7. What are the important properties of a good solvent for extraction processes?
A. The chosen solvent should be highly selective for the solute to allow high solubility. Its
density should be as different as possible from the one of the carrier solvent.
B. Since a lot of solvent is needed, it should be as cheap as possible.
C. Each solvent has its advantages and disadvantages. To choose the most suitable solvent,
the advantages should be higher than the disadvantages.
D. Both A and B
8. The phenomenon of concentrations of molecules of a gas or liquid at a solid surface is called
A. Absorption
B. Adsorption
C. Catalysis
D. None of these
9. The heat conduction in dry air is
A. Less rapid than in steam
B. More rapid than in steam
C. Similar to steam
10. Which drying is often used as an encapsulation technique in food and other industries?
A. Rotary vacuum
B. Drum
C. Freeze
D. Spray
11. Which is not an advantage of crystallization?
A. Low operating temperature
B. Low energy requirements
C. High purity in a single step
D. None of these
12. Nucleation and growth is expected in a saturated solution
A. True
B. False
13. The equilibrium characteristics of the solubility of gas in liquid helps to determine the
A. Rate
B. Concentration
C. Time
D. No existence of equilibrium characteristics
14. According to Raoult’s law, for a pure component solution the partial pressure is equal to
A. Total pressure
B. Vapour pressure
C. Atmospheric pressure
D. Mole fraction of respective phase
15. The equation helps us to find the number of trays in an absorber theoretically is
_____________
A. Fenske’s Equation
117
B. Rayleigh’s Equation
C. Kremser’s Equation
D. None of the mentioned
16. Packed towers are _____________
A. Absorption tower
B. Stripper
C. Absorber or Stripper
D. All of the mentioned
17. Packing height in the packed tower = NTU x ____________
A. HTU
B. HETP
C. NTU
D. HETP +HTU
18. Distillation is possible only if the solution components are ___________
A. Volatile
B. Non-volatile
C. Cryogenic
19. Crystallization exploits difference in which factors?
A. Specific heat
B. Boiling point
C. Melting point
D. Bubble point
20. Separation by polymer membrane exploits the
A. Difference in volatility
B. Difference in diffusivity
C. Difference in flowability
D. Difference in permeability
21. The size of equipment is determined by
A. Rate of mass transfer from one phase to another
B. Rate of heat transfer from one phase to another
C. The number of reactions taking place
D. The amount of by-product formed
22. The product of Reynold’s number and Prandtl number is known as
A. Stanton number
B. Biot number
C. Peclet number
D. Grashoff number
23. How can the DNA fragments be separated from DNA?
A. Crystallization
B. Electrophoresis
C. Distillation
D. Zone melting
24. Heat sensitive materials like certain pharmaceuticals and food stuffs can be dried in a/an
___________ dryer.
A. Indirect tray
B. Spray
C. Freeze
118
D. None of these
25. During the constant rate period of drying of a solid,
A. Increased air humidity decreases the rate of drying
B. Increasing the air temperature decreases the drying rate
C. Surface evaporation of unbound moisture occurs
D. None of these
26. With increase in temperature, the leaching rate increases due to
A. Decreased liquid viscosity
B. Increased diffusivity
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
27. The maximum amount of vapor that a gas can contain which is in equilibrium with the liquid at
a given temperature.
A. Absolute humidity
B. Percentage humidity
C. Relative humidity
D. Saturation humidity
28. Pertains to the solids with the solute and solvent it carries flowing from stage to stage
A. Underflow
B. Overflow
C. Retention
D. No answer
29. The method of solute transfer which involves rapid movement of large chunks of fluid in
turbulent motion
A. Molecular diffusion
B. Kinetic transport
C. Thermal diffusion
D. Eddy diffusion
30. In case of desorber (stripper)
A. Operating line always lies above the equilibrium curve
B. The operating line always lies below the equilibrium line
C. Temperature remains unaffected
D. Temperature always increases
31. Find the absorption tower height if:
Number of gas phase transfer units 4.09
Height of gas phase transfer units 1.5 meters
A. 2.72 meters
B. 0.36 meters
C. 6.135 meters
z T =4.09 ( 1.5 m) =6.135 m, C
32. If the gas phase composition of a component A is 0.65 and its relative volatility is 2. Find the
liquid phase composition.
A. 0.48
B. 0.58
C. 0.68
D. 0.78
119
2 ( x A)
0.65=
1+ ( 2−1 ) ( x A )
xA = 0.4815, A
33. Find the HTU if gas rate is 0.07 kmols/sq.m s and the Fg*a (F type mass transfer co-
efficient) is 0.06 kmol/cu.m s.
A. 1.167
B. 0.85
C. 0.042
Gm 0.07
HTU = = =1.1667 , A
Fga 0.06
34. According to the Fenske equation, what will be the minimum number of plates required in a
distillation column to separate an equimolar binary mixture of components A and B into an
overhead fraction containing 99 mol% A and a bottom fraction containing 98 mol% B? Assume
that relative volatility (αAB = 2) does not change appreciably in the column.
A. 5
B. 9
C. 12
D. 28
0.99(1−0.02)
N min =
log [ 0.02(1−0.99)]=12.2441, C
log (2)
35. Filtration leaf test results indicate that the filtration rate of a protein product is 100 dry
lbs/ft2.hr. What size filter would be required to obtain 100 dry lbs of filter cake/hr?
A. 1.54 ft2
B. 3.08 ft2
C. 65 ft2
D. 65 lbs/ ft2.hr
lb
100
hr
A= =1.54 ft 2
100 lb/ft 2. hr ( 0.65 )
36. It takes 6 hours to dry a wet solid from 50% moisture content of 15%. How much longer will
it take to dry the solid to 10% moisture content under the same drying conditions? (The
equilibrium moisture content of the solid is 5%.)
A. 15 min
B. 51 min
C. 71 min
D. 94 min
First condition:
X1= 0.5-0.05= 0.45
120
X2= 0.15-0.05= 0.1
Second condition:
X1= 0.10
X2= 0.10-0.05= 0.05
ms 6 hrs t
= =
ARc ( 0.45−0.1 ) ( 0.1−0.05 )
t= 0.8571x 60 mins = 71.4825
Problem 37-39
A single effect evaporator is to concentrate 20,000 lb/h of a 20% solution of NaOH to 50%
solid. The gauge pressure of the steam is to be 20 psig, the absolute pressure in the vapor space
is to be 100 mmHg. The overall coefficient is estimated to be 250 Btu/ft 2-h-°F. The feed
temperature is 100°F.
37. Calculate the steam consumption in lb/h.

A. 15400
B. 12500
C. 18000
D. 9800
TMB: mf= mv+m
20,000 lb/hr= mv+m
CMB: xfmf= xm
(0.20)(20,000)=(0.50)(m)
Solving simultaneously:
mv= 12,000 lb/hr; m= 8,000 lb/hr
BP rise= 92.5-50.98= 41.52°C
Hf(20% NaOH, 100°F)= 70 BTU/lbm
H(50% NaOH, 92.5°C)= 220 BTU/lbm
Hv= 1152.5936
q= 12,000(1152.5906) + 8,000(220) – 20,000(60)
q= 1.4391x107 BTU/hr
q 1.4391 x 107 lb
ms= = =15,400
λs 912.85 hr
121
38. Calculate the steam economy
A. 0.46
B. 0.65
C. 0.78
D. 0.92
mv 12,000
Economy= = =0.7792
ms 5,400
39. Calculate the heating area required in square foot

A. 900
B. 930
C. 970
D. 990
q 1.4391 x 107
A= = =930 ft 2
U ( Ts−T ) 250 ( 258.8648−199 )
Problem 40-42
A volatile fuel when spilled on a large flat surface quickly spreads over a depth ¼ in. and a
length of 7 ft. The fuel is at 60°F with a vapor pressure of 2 psia has the physical properties v =
10-5 ft/sec, ρ = 54 lbm/ft3 and DAB = 0.55 ft2/hr. The kinematic viscosity of air is 1.62 x 10 -4
ft2/sec. If a breeze at 75°F blows parallel to the fuel surface at 15 mph.
40. Determine the Schmidt number

A. 1.06
B. 2.06
C. 3.06
D. 4.06
ft 2 s
Sc=
(
1.62 x 10 −4
s )( 3600
hr)=1.0604 , A
2
ft
0.55
hr
41. Determine the Sherwood number

A. 970
B. 1370
C. 2370
D. 3370
1
N Sh=0.664 ℜ0.5 Pr 3 =1370
42. Determine the evaporation rate, lbm/hr.ft2
A. 4.77
122
B. 2.77
C. 1.77
D. 0.77
107.7 lbm
Na= ( 2−0 )( 144 )=0.774
76 ( 460+675 ) hr . ft 2
Problem 43-45
60 tons per day of oil-sand (25 mass % oil and 75 mass % sand) is to be extracted with 40
tons per day of naphtha in a counter-current extraction battery. The final extract from the
battery is to contain 40 mass % oil and 60 mass % naphtha and the underflow from each unit is
expected to consist of 35 mass % solution and 65 mass % sand.
43. Amount of raffinate

A. 45 tons
B. 69.2 tons
C. 30.8 tons
D. 75 tons
Solution:
Assume 1 day of steady state operation
0.75 ( 60 tons )
amt of raffinate= =69.2308 tons , B
0.65
44. Mass fraction of naphtha in raffinate

A. 0.311
B. 0.65
C. 0.039
D. 0.35
Solution:
TMB:
60+ 40=69.2308+ E
E=30.77 tons
CMB: naphtha
40 tons=( 30.77 tons )( 0.6 )+ ( 69.2308tons )∗x
x=0.3111 , A
45. Theoretical number of stages

A. 2
B. 3
123
C. 4
D. 5
N=ln ¿ ¿ ¿
46. It is desired to absorb 95% of acetone by water from a mixture of acetone and nitrogen
containing 1.5% of the component in a counter-current tray tower. Total gas input is 30
kmol/hr and water enters the tower at a rate of 90 kmol/hr. The tower operates at 27 °C and
1 atm. The equilibrium relation is Y = 2.53X. Determine the number of ideal stages necessary
for the separation
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Xa= 0
Yb= 0.615
Ya*= 2.53 Xa; Ya=0
Yb*= 0.012
0.05 ( 0.015 )
Ya= =7.4955 x 10−4
0.05 ( 0.015 )+ 0.9985
nacetone= 30(0.015)= 0.45 moles
nN2= 30-0.45= 24.55 moles
nacetone abs= 0.45(1-0.95)= 0.0225
PA ( xb)
0.015=
760
N=ln ¿ ¿ ¿
47. The charge to a simple batch still consists of an equimolar mixture of hexane and heptanes.
If the relative volatility of hexane and heptane is 2 and 50% hexane has vaporized, what is
the mole fraction of heptanes in the total distillate?
A. 0.37
B. 0.46
C. 0.52
D. 0.73
124
no-V= n; n= 100-50=50 moles
nA=0.50(50)= 25 moles
nA=xAn
25=XA(50); XA= 0.50
D=nA+nB
1
nB 25
=
50 50( ) 2
Total Distillate= 50-35.36= 14.64
14.64
mole fraction= =0.37
14.64+25
48. 100 moles of Benzene (A) and Toluene mixture containing 50% (mole) of Benzene is subjected
to a differential distillation at atmospheric pressure till the composition of benzene in the
residue is 33%. Calculate the total moles of the mixture distilled. Average relative volatility
may be assumed as 2.16.
A. 33.5
B. 40.54
C. 59.45
D. 66.5
nA= 0.67(50)= 33.5
1
nB 33.5
50
= ( )
50
2.16
nB= 41.54
no= 59.45
49. A slab of paper pulp, 5ft by 4ft by 1/4in, is to be dried from one side under constant drying
conditions, from 75% (wet basis) to 20% (dry basis). The critical free moisture content is 1.8
lb H2O/lb dry pulp. From previous test, it is known that a constant drying rate of 0.25
lb/ft2.hr may be expected under the conditions of the tests. Under these conditions, the
equilibrium moisture content is 5% (dry basis). The dry material in the slab is 6 lb. How long
does the drying process take?
A. 3.6 hrs
B. 5 hrs
C. 6.6 hrs
D. 8 hrs
Solution:
125
mw
0.75= ; m =18lb moisture
mw +6 lb dry slab w
18 lb water lb
X1= −0.05=2.95
6 lb dry slab lb
X 2 =0.2−0.05=0.15
X C =01.8−0.05=1.75
6 lb
t=
lb [) ( 2.95−1.75 ) +1.75 ln ( 1.75
0.15 ) ]
(
( 4 ft ) (5 ft ) 0.25 2
ft .hr
t=6.5991 hrs, C
50. A mixture of helium and nitrogen is contained in a pipe at 298 K and 1 atm total pressure
which is constant throughout. At one end of the pipe at point 1 the partial pressure P A,1 of He
is 0.60 atm and at the other 0.2 m, PA,2 = 0.20 atm. Calculate the flux of Helium (kmol/m2.s) at
steady state is DAB of the He and N2 is 0.687x10-4 m2/s.
A. 1.9 x 10-5
B. 3 x 10-4
C. 5.6 x 10-6
D. 2.7 x 10-6
Solution:
m2
−0.687 x 10−4
−Dv s
J He= ( P −P A 1 ) = ( 0.2−0.6 ) atm
RT BT A 2 atm. m3
( 0.08205
kmol . K )
( 298 K )( 0.2 m )
kmol
J He=5.6194 x 10−6 ,C
m2 . s
126
CHEMICAL PROCESS INDUSTRIES
1. All of the following terms are associated with the manufacture of gasoline except
A. Oligomerization B. Catalytic cracking
C. Leaching D. Catalytic reforming
2. Which of the following coal has the highest calorific value?

A. Lignite B. Sub-bituminous C. Anthracite D. Peat
3. Lanolin is widely used in cosmetics is derived from

A. Cottonseed B. Coconut oil C. Sheep’s wool D. Palm oil
4. Proximate analysis of coal determines

A. Moisture, ash, sulfur, volatile matter B. Moisture, volatile matter
C. Moisture, sulfur, nitrogen, fixed carbon D. Carbon. Hydrogen, ash
5. The major use of butadiene is

A. As a plasticizer for unsaturated polyester
B. In the manufacture of synthetic rubber
C. As an anti-skinning agent in paint
D. As corrosion inhibitor
6. Frasch process is for

A. making oxygen B. producing helium
C. mining sulfur D. making hydrogen
7. Inversion of sucrose produces

A. fructose B. sucrose C. galactose D. aldose
8. The most important component of pitchblende

A. sulfur B. uranium C. aluminum D. mercury
9. Catalysts used in the manufacture of sulfuric acid by chamber and contact process are,
respectively
A. V2O5 and Cr2O3
B. oxides of nitrogen and Cr2O3
C. V2O5 on a porous carrier and oxides of nitrogen
D. oxides of nitrogen and V2O5 on a porous carrier
10. In contact process, SO3 is absorbed in 97% H2SO4 and not in water because
A. SO3 is sparingly solute in water
B. water forms an acid mist which is difficult to absorb
C. the purity of the acid is affected
127
D. scale formation in absorber is to be avoided
11. Contact process

A. yields acid of higher concentration than chamber process
B. yields acid of lower concentration than chamber process
C. is obsolete
D. eliminates absorber
12. Raw materials for Solvay Process for manufacture of soda ash are
A. salt, limestone, ammonia, and coke oven gas
B. ammonia, salt, limestone
C. ammonia, limestone, and coke
D. ammonia and coke oven gas
13. Economics of Solvay Process depends upon the efficiency of

A. carbonating tower B. ammonia recovery
C. ammonia recovery and size of plant D. ammoniation of salt solution
14. Cement mainly contains

A. CaO, SiO2, Al2O3 B. MgO, SiO2, K2O
C. Al2O3, MgO, Fe2O3 D. CaO, MgO, K2O
15. Gypsum is
A. calcium chloride B. potassium sulfate
C. sodium sulfate D. calcium sulfate
16. Glauber’s salt is

A. calcium sulfate B. potassium sulfate
C. potassium chlorate D. sodium sulfate decahydrate
17. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of calcium and magnesium
A. bi-carbonates B. sulfates and chlorites
C. carbonates D. chlorides
18. Widely used method for conditioning of boiler feed water is

A. cold lime process B. coagulation
C. hot-lime soda process D. sequestration
19. Hydrazine is largely used

A. as a starting material for ‘hypo’ B. in photographic industry
C. as rocket fuel D. in printing industry
20. Trinitro-toluene is
A. used in glycerine manufacture B. an explosive
C. used in dye manufacture D. used in paint manufacture
128
21. Oil is
A. a mixture of glycerides
B. a mixture of glycerides of fatty acids
C. solid at normal temperature
D. ester of alcohols other than glycerine
22. Wax is
A. a mixture of glycerides
B. a mixture of esters of polyhedric alcohols except glycerine
C. liquid at room temperature
D. a mixture of glycerides of fatty acids
23. Unsaturated oils compared to saturated oils have

A. a lower melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen
B. higher melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen
C. lower melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen
D. higher melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen
24. Rancidity of oil can be reduced by

A. decoloration B. hydrogenation
C. oxidation D. purification
25. Solvent used for extraction of oil is

A. hexane B. methyl ethyl ketone
C. furfural D. benzene
26. Catalyst used in hydrogenation of oil is

A. nickel B. platinum C. iron D. alumina
27. Metallic soap is

A. sodium salt of fatty acids
B. potassium salt of fatty acids
C. both sodium and potassium salt of fatty acids
D. aluminum or calcium salt of fatty acids
28. Fat splitting catalyst

A. CaCO3 B. ZnO C. alumina D. iron
29. Free alkali in toilet soap

A. less than that in laundry soap B. more than that in laundry soap
C. same as that in laundry soap D. not present in laundry soap
30. Soap cannot be used in hard water because

129
A. hard water contains sulfate
B. they form insoluble calcium salts which precipitate
C. they attract back the removed dirt
D. they increase the surface tension
31. Builders are added to soap to

A. boost cleaning power B. act as anti-redeposition agent
C. act as a corrosion inhibitor D. acts as fabric brightener
32. Bio-degradable detergents

A. can be readily oxidized B. pose problem on sewage
C. have an isoparaffinic structure D. should not be used as it spoils the cloth
33. Which of the following is a detergent?

A. fatty alcohol B. alkyl benzyl sulfonate
C. fatty acids D. methyl chloride
34. Yellow glycerine is made white using

A. activated charcoal B. diatomaceous earth
C. bauxite D. bentonite
35. Essential oils are usually obtained using

A. steam distillation B. extractive distillation
C. solvent extraction D. leaching
36. Plasticizers are added to paints to

A. make it corrosion resistant
B. make glossy surface
C. give elasticity and prevent cracking of the film
D. increase atmospheric oxidation
37. Which oil is preferred for paint manufacture?

A. drying oil B. non-drying oil
C. semi-drying oil D. saturated oil
38. Function of a thinner in paint is to

A. accelerate the oxidation of oil
B. prevent gelling of the paint
C. suspend pigments and dissolve film-forming materials
D. form a protective film
39. Varnish does not contain

A. pigment B. thinner C. dryer D. anti-skinning
40. Gun powder, which is an explosive comprises of charcoal, sulfur, and

A. glycerine B. salt petre C. nitroglycerine D. dynamite
130
41. Starting raw material for the manufacture of alum is
A. alumina B. gypsum C. bauxite D. ammonium bicarbonate
42. Which of the following sugars is the sweetest?

A. glucose B. fructose C. sucrose D. lactose
43. Viscose rayon is chemically

A. cellulose nitrate B. regenerated cellulose nitrate
C. cellulose acetate D. regenerated cellulose acetate
44. All enzymes are made of

A. fats B. carbohydrates C. proteins D. amino acids
45. Styrene is produced form ethyl benzene by the process of

A. dehydrogenation B. oxidation
C. alkylation D. dehydration
46. Gelatine which is a nitrogenous organic protein is obtained by the hydrolysis of

A. collagen B. tannin C. molasses D. carbohydrate
47. The chamber process is

A. preffered over contact process for producing 98 to 100% H 2SO4 and various oleums
B. non-catalytic and operates only on pyrites
C. a batch process for directly producing high strength (98 to 100%) H 2SO4
D. none of these
48. Hemoglobin is a/an

A. amino acid B. biological catalyst
C. protein D. enzyme
49. Epoxy resin

A. is a good adhesive B. is an elastomer
C. cannot be used for surface coatings D. is a polyester
50. Which of the following is the most adverse factor challenging the choice of mercury electrolytic
cell process for the production of caustic soda?
A. high cost of mercury
B. high specific gravity of mercury
C. non-availability of high purity mercury
D. pollution of water stream by mercury
51. Esterification reaction produces

A. detergent B. Vanaspati C. soap D. mercaptans
52. Phosphate rock is a raw material for the manufacture of
A. phosphoric acid B. phosphorous
C. superphosphates D. all (a), (b), and (c)
53. Which of the following is not a raw material used for the manufacture of ordinary glass?
131
A. iron oxide B. soda ash C. limestone D. silica
54. Zeolite removes both temporary as well as permanent hardness of water by precipitating calcium
and magnesium present in water as insoluble zeolites. Used zeolite is regenerated by flushing with
solution of
A. calcium sulphate B. sodium chloride
C. sodium sulphate D. magnesium chloride
55. Pasteurization of milk means

A. removal of fatty and albuminous substance from it
B. killing of organisms present in it by heating it at controlled temperature without changing
its natural characteristics
C. inhibiting the growth of micro-organisms without killing them
D. none of these
56. Fusion of bauxite and produces high alumina cement.

A. alum B. limestone C. coke D. quartz
57. process is used for the manufacture of sodium carbonate by ammonia soda process.
A. Ostwald’s B. Bosch C. Solvay D. Haber’s
58. Polycaprolactum is commercially known as

A. nylon-6 B. nylon-66 C. dacron D. rayon
59. Pitch (a product of coal tar distillation) is always mixed with creosote oil, when it is to be burnt in
a burner, because
A. its calorific value is very less
B. tar neutralizes the residual acids present in pitch
C. it reduces viscosity and imparts fluidity for its transportation through pipelines at economic
pressure drop
D. all (a), (b), and (c)
60. Which is the main reducing agent during production of iron from iron ore in a blast furnace?
A. C B. CO C. CO2 D. H2
132

SAINT LOUIS UNIVERSITY CHEMICAL ENGINEERING ACTIVITIES

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SAINT LOUIS UNIVERSITY CHEMICAL ENGINEERING ACTIVITIES

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SAINT LOUIS UNIVERSITY

SCHOOL OF ENGINEERING AND ARCHITECTURE

DEPARTMENT OF CHEMICAL ENGINEERING

Compilation of Activities and Problem Sets

of the Requirements for the Degree

Bachelor of Science in Chemical Engineering

Taguines, Cherry Rose F.

Engr. Jhay Inocencio

CPED, PLANT DESIGN AND ECONOMICS 82

MASS TRANSFER 113

CHEMICAL PROCESS INDUSTRIES 124

Page Table/Figure/Para Answer

frL 21-95 Eq 21-113 Stoke’s number

53. It is the difference between 2-488 1 paragraph , 2

Linkage Problem (26-27)

Linkage Problem (28-31)

x mols C2H4 ( 1C2CH )

Linkage Problem (33-34)

34. The air velocity in feet per second.

CO 2 20.4 CaCO2 44.7

CO 0.4 H2O 49.0

N2 77.1 inerts 6.3

Assume z mols of flue gas per 100 lb of sludge:

0.4023 mol CaO 56 lb CaO 100 lb sludge 76.4303 lbmols

F = 100 lb 1 lbimpurity Dryer

lb of water added = (63.6115 lb C + 60 lb M) – 100 lb solution = 23.6115 lb H2O

Linkage Problem (39-40):

42. Cubic feet of air per minute

Modified Ult. Ana: 78.76% C

C in R = 1200 (0.0618) ( 2175 ) + 1200 (0.0618) ( 754 )[ 0.7876 (1200

80(X) = 60 (0.8) + 20(0.2141)

Given: Humid air @ 75℃; 25%

Burner : 10% SO2

x = 90.2778 lbs of SO3

250 lb/hr H2SO4

Linkage Problem (49-50):

Linkage Problem (51-52):

2. The heat which is used to change the temperature of a substance.

a. Heat capacity c. Enthalpy

a. Vapor pressure c. Partial pressure

6. It is a form of unusable energy or the measure of a materials disorder.

a. Gibb’s free energy c. Internal energy

a. Gibb’s free energy c. Internal energy

8. It is the heat added to a substance to change its phase.

a. Latent heat c. Heat capacity

9. It is the indication of the separation between molecules of a substance.

a. Temperature c. Internal energy

Note: Graham’s Law: √ Mass2 /Mass1

Amagat’s Law: V i= X i∗V T ; V T =V 1 +V 2

Gibbs-Dalton Law: PT =P1+ P 2

Gay-Lussac Law: P1 /T 1=P 2 /T 2

15. Which of the following is not the equation of state?

a. Van der Waals Equation c. Holborn equation

Note: Charles equation: P=1 /V

16. Virial equation is a _________?

a. Arithmetic progression c. Harmonic progression

Note: Geometric Progression: a, ar, ar2, ar3, …

Arithmetic Progression: a + ad, a + 2d, a + 3d, …

a. Increase molecular disorder c. Friction

a. 729a =pb2 c. 81a =pb2

20. How long would it take for an irreversible process to complete?

21. The heat of formation of an element in its standard state is

22. Clapeyron equation deals with