Schools Division Office of Negros Oriental

Canlaon District 2
ST. JOSEPH COLLEGE OF CANLAON, INC.
Samaka Village, Mabigo, Canlaon City

PLACEMENT TEST

Name: _________________________________________________ Date: ______________

GENERAL DIRECTIONS:
On the following pages are passages and multiple-choice questions for Grade 7 Placement Test, a
practice to find out the student’s levels of comprehension. Each question will ask you to select an
answer from among four choices.
For all questions:
• Read each passage. Then answer each question carefully by choosing the best answer.
• Write your answers before the number for ALL of the questions. Remember only one of the
choices provided is the correct answer. (Note: WRITE YOUR ANSWERS IN A BOLD
LETTERS)

PART I- ENGLISH
_____1. Those dishes are made of glass and will break very ______________.
a. easy b. easier c. easiest d. easily
_____2. Our trip to the park was ________ because the weather was nice.
a. prepared b. pleasant c. handsome d. intelligent
_____3. Yesterday the weather was bright and ____________.
a. sun b. sunned c. sunny d. sunning
_____4. Many animals go to sleep when the temperature _______ below zero degrees.
a. falling b. fallen c. falls d. fall
_____5. It is ___________ to finish this work by tomorrow morning.
a. dispossible b. impossible c. mispossible d. unpossible
Question 6: Read the sentences below and answer the questions that follows.
(1) Some animals travel long distances to warmer climates before the winter.
(2) __________ animals spend the winter sleeping.
_____6. Choose the word that best begins sentence (2).
a. Another b. Either c. Neither d. Other
Question 7: Read the paragraph below and answer the questions that follows.
When I go to the beach, I love looking at the ocean. The light from the sun makes the water
sparkle brightly. When the waves come up on the sand, I can smell the salt from the water.
Sea shells of different sizes and colours sit on the sand. I can also see small fish swimming
close to the shore. __________________________.
_____7. Which sentence best ends the paragraph?
a. The water is warm and lovely to swim in.
b. I would really like to see some birds today.
c. There are many interesting things at the beach.
d. The water moves deeper onto the shore as the waves come in.
Questions 8: Read the paragraph below and answer the questions that follows.
(1) All around the world, people enjoy looking up at the night sky. (2) Studying the stars and
planets is a very popular hobby. (3) ________, it has become more difficult to see the stars at
night in recent years. (4) Some people say that humans cause “light pollution” with our brightly
lit buildings, airports, and roadways. (5) An orange glow appears over most cities. (6) The
orange glow hides the light from the stars. (7) Nowadays, someone ________ of the night sky
must travel to an unpopulated place like a desert.
_____8. Which is the best way to begin sentence (3)?
a. At once b. In other words c. Unfortunately d. Immediately
_____9. Which is the best way to join sentence (5) and sentence (6) together?
a. An orange glow appears over most cities because it hides the light from the stars.
b. An orange glow appears over most cities, hiding the light from the stars.
c. An orange glow appears hidden in the light of the stars over most cities.
d. An orange glow appears, but it hides the light of most cities over the stars.
 Questions 10-12: Read the text below and answer the questions that follows.

Dear Students,

Our school staff has decided to organise an event as a reward for your hard work and success.
The programme will include two days of both outdoor and indoor activities. It will be fun!
Indoors Activities:

Explore shared interests with your friends!

1- Drama Center: This center gives you the opportunity to design a play, including writing the
scripts and dressing in the costumes! Then, you can present it to your friends.
2- Art Center: Use paints, coloured pencils, markers, and paper to create your own picture and
display it in the school art gallery.
Outdoors Activities:
1- Nature walk: Experience nature and learn how to take care of the environment. We will walk
through the Mountain Forest and study the many animals and plants that live there.
2- Boating Trip: We will take a boat ride and explore the lake near the city. Each student will get
the opportunity to drive the boat!
It would be a good idea to take pictures with your friends and of the beautiful area.
For more information, please call Mr. Khalid Mohammed at 844222. We hope to see everyone
there!
Best Wishes,
Mr. Adel Hassan
Activities Advisor

_____10. Why was this programme arranged for the students?

a. because the students have worked very hard
b. because the students wanted to surprise their teachers
c. because the students voted on different activities they could do
d. because the students did better than students at other schools
_____11. What does the school hope that students will learn from their nature walk?
a. how to live in the forest b. how to play in the water
c. how to take pictures of the plants d. how to take care of the environment
_____12. How are the activities organized in the programme?
a. the program lists the most interesting activities first
b. by whether the activity will be outdoors or indoors
c. the program lists the most difficult activities first
d. by order of the time the activity will take place
Questions 13-15: Analyze and identify the sound devices for each sentence.
_____13. It was cold I saw polar bears wearing jackets.
a. assonance b. hyperbole c. personification d. simile
_____14. The team leader moves as brave as a lion.
a. context clues b. simile c. personification d. onomatopoeia
_____15. The snow is a white blanket.
a. assonance b. alliteration c. hyperbole d. metaphor
Questions 16-18: Pluralized the underlined regular nouns in each sentences.
_____16. My mother sent me two sets of chocolate box.
a. boxx b. boxs c. boxes d. boxses
_____17. The pupils find the three line of the art paper.
a. linese b. lines c. liness d. linseed
_____18. Saint Peter holds the key of heaven’s door.
a. keys b. keyss c. keyz d. keyses
Questions 19-21: Read the following sentences and find the correct agreement
between the subject of the sentence and its verb.
_____19. Ma’am Aida Ramos (teach)_______ us how to solve mathematical equations.
a. teachs b. teaches c. teech d. teach
_____20. Santa Rosa City (lead) _________ the STCAA competition.
a. leds b. leeds c. leads d. leadses
_____21. Richard (bake) _______ some cakes for us.
a. bake b. beka c. bakeses d. bakes
Questions 22-24: Recall the concept of simile for you to be able to identify the word
being compared to the underlined word.
_____22. The music changes like prismatic glass, giving the world a glimpse of all the colors it
forgets.
a. changes b. colors c. prismatic glass d. world
_____23. The lowered lamps glow in the midnight air like mammoth orange-moths that flit and flare
through the dark tapestry of night.
a. air b. dark c. mammoth d. tapestry
_____24. I dream of silent verses where the rhyme glides noiseless as an oar.
a. dream b. glides c. silent d. oar
Questions 25-27: Infer the meaning of the underlined idiomatic expressions in each
sentence.
_____25. Jose Zavalla basketball team made a game plan at the drop of a hat.
a. badly b. earlier today c. for the win d. without hesitation
_____26. The policemen barked up the wrong tree in our village.
a. arrested the right person c. accusing the wrong person
b. accusing the right person d. arrested no one
_____27. The BMW car is truly costed an arm and leg.
a. very low price b. very intimidating c. very huge d. very expensive

Questions 28-29: Read the selection then answer the questions that follows.

Why Does a Cow Chewing When She Isn’t Eating?

A cow has a special stomach with four parts. When she eats grass, she chews it just enough to make
it wet. Then it goes into the first part of its stomach, where it becomes softer. From there it goes into
the second part, where it is made into little balls called “cuds”. Later, while the cow is resting, she
brings up each cud one at a time and chews it well. When she swallows it, the food goes into the third
part of her stomach. There the water squeezed out of it. Finally, the food goes to the fourth part of the
cow’s stomach and is broken down into very tiny pieces. Then the cow’s body can take what it needs
from the food to live and grow.

______28. What happens to the grass when it goes to the first part?
a. The grass becomes harder. c. The grass becomes softer.
b. The grass liquify. d. The grass goes to the intestine
______29. In what part is the water squeezed out?
a. first b. fourth c. second d. third
______30. Wetlands are synonymous to________.
a. rivers b. swamps c. ponds d. seas
______31. What is the root word of the word rarity?
a. rar b. rare c. rarity d. –ity
______32. Which of these does not belong to land vegetation?
a. farms b. gardens c. orchards d. reefs
Questions 33-35: Use Greek and Latin roots as clues to the meanings of words. Encircle
the letter of the correct answer.
______33. A telephone is a machine that can carry the sound of someone's voice somewhere far
away. The root tele means far away. What does the root phon mean?
a. sound c. light
b. life d. heat
______34. Psychology is the study of human behavior and the mind. The root logy means the study
of something. What does the root psych mean?
a. life c. light
b. mind d. heat
______35. The root astro means star. What does the word astronomy mean?
a. the branch of science that studies the physics of light
b. the branch of science that studies sound and hearing
c. the branch of science that studies stars and other objects in space
d. the branch of science that studies moon and comets
 Questions 36-45: Write the letter of the most logical effect or cause of each situation on
the space provided.
______36. It was a very hot day. Everyone wanted __________.
a. some cold drinks c. a piece of sandwich
b. two bottles of hot water d. a cup of coffee
______37. After some days Paulo was absent because of sickness, Paulo was well again. He
regained his health.
a. He continued his vacation. c. He helped his mother at home.
b. He started attending his classes. d. He woke up early.
______38. Paulo had missed many lessons so he had to double his efforts.
a. He stayed awake till morning, studying his lessons.
b. He asked his mother to do his homework for him.
c. He requested his teacher to promote him to the next grade level.
d. He copied notes from his classmates and studied them at home.
______39. Paulo was very happy to see his classmates. He was so touched by their thoughtfulness.
He said ____.
a. “Oh, thank you so much”, but why did you come?
b. “Oh thank you very much for coming”, you’ve made me very happy.
c. “Oh, thank you very much. Did you bring something for me?”
d. “Oh, thank you”, what gifts did you bring?”
______40. In spite of his absences, Paulo got high grades.
a. That made his classmates believe he had super powers.
b. That led to his being elected president of the class.
c. That made his mother happy and proud of him.
d. That made his friends believed that they must get absent too, in class.
______41. Why did Kyoto frog and Osaka frog wanted to travel?
a. They want to go to different places
b. They want to live on different places
c. They want to see the differences of the other place
d. They want to look for beautiful places
______42. What made the frogs decide to go home?
a. They think that the other place was a copy of their place.
b. They were tired of traveling.
c. They have seen what they wanted to see.
d. None of the above
______43. Which of the following is the effect of water pollution?
a. People discharged waste into water bodies.
b. Fourteen billion pounds of garbage is dumped into the ocean.
c. Aquatic animals face an extinction rate of five times than terrestrial animals.
d. Lack of proper sanitation in water.
______44. What causes water pollution?
a. Billion pounds of garbage is dumped into the ocean.
b. People have no concern on keeping the cleanliness of water sources.
c. Oil spill cannot be prevented if accidents happen in the bodies of water.
d. All of the above
______45. According to UNICEF, more than 3,000 children die every day all over the world due to
consumption of contaminated drinking water. In this sentence, which is the effect?
a. according to UNICEF
b. more than 3,000 children die every day all over the world
c. due to consumption of contaminated drinking water
d. All of the above
Questions 46-50: Identify the kind of sentences (Declarative, Imperative, Interrogative
and Exclamatory)
________________________46. How well she sings!

________________________47. Did I say anything to make you angry?

________________________48. She is a successful writer.

________________________49. She does not eat meat or fish.

________________________50. Go at once.
PART II- SCIENCE

______1. A food chain is shown below.

Snake→ Hawk→ Mouse→ Grass
Which organism in the food chain is a producer?
a. Grass b. Mouse c. Snake d. Hawk

______2. Wind is considered a renewable resource because the energy that drives the wind originally
comes from
a. the sun. b. rain. c. the ocean. d. oxygen.

______3. The length of time it takes Earth to rotate once on its axis is called a
a. season. b. month. c. year. d. day.

______4. Which hot and dry biome is home to large herds of herbivores that feed on the many kinds
of grasses?
a. tundra b. desert c. rain forest d. savannah

______5. Which set of objects best conducts electricity?

a. an iron washer and a metal fork b. a door key and a rubber ball
c. a copper pipe and a wooden spoon d. a rubber mallet and a glass measuring cup

______6. In a biotic response experiment, two plants with the same mass are placed in identical pots.
Both plants are given the same amount of water, soil, and sunlight. After one week, the test
plant is given one tablespoon of liquid fertilizer. Two weeks later, the data shows the test plant
has the greater mass. What is the independent variable in this biotic response experiment?
a. amount of sunlight b. soil temperature c. liquid fertilizer d. size of the pot

______7. Which is a biotic factor of an alpine forest?

a. elk b. rainfall c. soil d. mountains

______8. Early satellites were used to monitor weather. In which other area have satellites most
benefitted humans?

______9. Which occurs when the moon, the sun, and Earth are in a straight line?
a. first quarter moon b. third quarter moon c. neap tide d. spring tide

______10. How is soil fertility in a deciduous forest dependent on the trees?

a. Fallen leaves decay and make the soil rich with organic matter.
b. The trees shade the ground so small amounts of light get through to the soil.
c. Tree roots keep rocks from breaking and adding minerals to the soil.
d. Large rocks help break down smaller rocks and pebbles in forming soil.

______11. The following is a process that takes place in the atmosphere.

solar energy→warm air rises→air cools in upper atmosphere and sinks→air currents
This process can best be identified as
a. wind formation. b. cloud formation. c. precipitation runoff. d. static electricity.

______12. Which of these contains both abiotic and biotic elements in a desert environment?
a. rocks and sunlight b. water and pebbles
c. scorpions and sand d. roadrunners and snakes

______13. A rubber band is stretched between a person’s fingers and then released. This best
demonstrates
a. products and reactants. b. friction and air resistance.
c. physical and chemical changes. d. potential and kinetic energy.

______14. On a summer evening, a barometer reading shows a gradual increase in air pressure. The
humidity is 80%. The thermometer reading is slightly increasing. Based on these data, what
type of weather should be expected for the next day?
a. clear and sunny b. cool and rainy c. rainy and windy d. cloudy and cold
______15. A meteorologist used radar to analyze the wind during a storm in the central plains of the
United States. The winds were measured at 145 miles per hour and were moving in a
circular pattern. According to the data, which event was the meteorologist most likely
observing?
a. lightning storm b. tornado c. rainbow d. cloud formation

______16. Which type of energy is converted when fireworks release heat, light, and sound?
a. kinetic energy b. elastic potential energy
c. chemical potential energy d. electromagnetic energy

______17. Which type of energy is being converted into kinetic energy as a marble falls from a shelf?
a. electrical potential energy b. gravitational potential energy
c. elastic potential energy d. chemical potential energy

______18. A battery is designed to provide improved power supply in areas with extremely low
temperatures. Which test best determines if a prototype meets this goal?
a. Compare the power of the prototype to the power of other standard batteries under normal
conditions.
b. Compare the lifetime of the prototype to that of a standard battery in a wide range of climate
conditions.
c. Compare the power storage of the prototype to that of a standard battery at cold
temperatures.
d. Compare the cost of materials for the prototype to the cost of materials for a standard
battery.

______19. What type of energy transfer is taking place as the coils in a toaster heat?
a. chemical to thermal b. nuclear to electrical
c. thermal to mechanical d. electrical to radiant

______20. A company designed an electromagnetic tool that removes dents from metal plates. The
dented metal is placed between two magnets. A current is then supplied to the
electromagnets. The attraction between the two magnets forces the dented metal plate back
into place. How can engineers test to see if their design is successful?
a. compare the cost of operating the tool to other dent removal tools
b. compare the shape of the treated metal with the original shape of the metal
c. compare the type of metal plates treated by the company to those of other companies
d. compare the energy requirements of two similar dent removal tools

______21. When a button is pushed, a circuit is completed and a buzzer is activated. The buzzer
transferred electrical energy into
a. sound energy. b. chemical energy. c. light energy. d. nuclear energy.

______22. Which is the best example of an assistive bioengineered product?

a. a rosebush that is bred to have roses of a particular color
b. a computer program that helps a paralyzed person control a wheelchair
c. a pesticide produced from the compounds of a plant
d. a bacterium that generates oil byproducts in the presence of sunlight

______23 Which is the best example of chemical potential energy?

a. a book resting on a shelf b. a stretched rubber band
c. a fuel tank containing gasoline d. a pencil falling off a table

______24. Cold ocean currents are most likely to be located at deeper ocean depths than warm
water currents because
a. winds push the cold water down. b. ocean tides force cold water downward.
c. cold water is more dense and sinks. d. cold water has less salt to help it freeze and sink.

______25. What can happen when the moon passes between Earth and the sun?
a. The sun lights both sides of the moon.b. The moon blocks the light of the sun.
c. The sun blocks the view of the moon. d. The moon stops the sun from producing light.
______26. Which most likely causes the movement of warm surface ocean currents?
a. Sunlight heats air forming strong winds that push currents.
b. Low and high tides create energy for current movement.
c. Shifting ocean plates force water toward the poles.
d. Warm waters help in the melting of icebergs and glaciers.

______27. Inside a power plant, coal is burned to produce hot gases. What type of energy conversion
takes place as hot gases cause turbines to move?
a. thermal energy to chemical energy b. thermal energy to kinetic energy
c. electrical energy to kinetic energy d. kinetic energy to thermal energy

______28. The Arctic tundra provides a habitat for caribou and arctic hare. Which best describes the
climate in which these animals live?
a. cold and humid b. warm and dry c. cold and dry d. warm and humid

______29. Venus appears very bright in the night sky because it

a. has a gravitational field. b. is the largest planet.
c. is the closest planet to Earth. d. has a high surface temperature.

______30. The barometer reading on a local weather forecast was 29.80 mm Hg and falling. What
type of weather conditions are most likely about to occur?
a. clear and cool b. clear and warm c. fair skies d. cloudy skies

PART III- MATHEMATICS

______1. What is the value of the following expression when p = 9? 6p + 5

a. 49 b. 54 c. 59 d. 68

______2. If x = 3, what is the value of the following expression? 3x2 + 2

a. 17 b. 20 c. 29 d. 83

______3. If X = 6 what is the value of the expression below? (2 + X)2

a. 8 b. 12 c. 16 d. 64

______4. What is the value of the following expression when b = 5? b + (b2 · 3) – 5

a. 75 b. 80 c. 85 d. 90

1
______5. Chuck cut an entire length of rope into 28 pieces, each 1 feet (ft) long. What was the
2
length of the rope before Chuck cut it?
a. 14 ft b. 21 ft c. 32 ft d. 42 ft

1
______6. One winter in Enrique’s home state, it snowed 39 inches in 6 days. What is that rate in
2
inches of snow per day?
a. 4 inches per day b. 5 inches per day c. 6 inches per day d. 7 inches per day

______7. Justin prepared 987 ads for mailing. To prepare each ad, it took him about 7 seconds (sec)
to put each ad into an envelope and 8 seconds to seal, label, and stamp each envelope. Which
is closest to the total amount of time it took Justin to prepare the ads?
a. 1,200 sec b. 7,000 sec c. 8,500 sec d. 15,000 sec

______8. Nikki and four friends had lunch at their favorite restaurant. The total bill was $29.00, and
they wanted to leave a 15% tip. Which amount of money is closest to the 15% tip?
a. $3.00 b. $3.50 c. $4.00 d. $4.50
______9. What is the value of the expression shown below? 4 + 2(1 + 32) – 1

a. 17 b. 19 c. 23 d. 35
______10. What is the value of the expression shown below? 42 + (6 – 5)2 ÷ (4 + 4) – 7

1 1
a. 1 b. 9 c. 17 d. 25
4 8

______11. Which choice gives the correct order of operations to evaluate the expression below?
10 + (8 – 3) ÷ 5 · 2
a. +, -, ·, ÷ b. ·, ÷, +, - c. -, ·, ÷, + d. -, ÷, ·, +

______12. According to the correct order of operations, which of these could be performed first to
simplify the following expression?
32 + 24 ÷ 6 · 2 + (10 + 62)
2
a. 3 + 24 b. 6 · 2 c. 62 d. 10 + 6

______13. The measure of angle B is 118°, and angle B is the supplement of angle C. Which
statement below is true about angle B and angle C?
a. They are both obtuse angles. b. The sum of their measures is 90. °
c. The sum of their measures equals 360. ° d. One angle is acute and one angle is obtuse.

______14. Which describes an example of congruent shapes?

a. The lengths of the sides of 2 triangles are equal.
b. The edges of one square are twice as long as the edges of a second square.
c. The height of one ice-cream cone is 4 inches, and the height of another icecream cone is 6
inches.
1
d. The length of a packing box is the length of a second packing box.
3

______15. Ted calculated the area of the top surface of his workbench to be 4320 square inches.
What is 4320 square inches converted to square feet (sq ft)?
a. 30 sq ft b. 40 sq ft c. 360 sq ft d. 432 sq ft

______16. Julie likes to in-line skate at River Park, which has a sidewalk that is 6.2 kilometers in
length. How many meters (m) long is the sidewalk?
a. 62 m b. 620 m c. 6,200 m d. 62,000 m

______17. Rosie weighed 7 pounds (lb) 11 ounces (oz) when she was born. Linda weighed 8 lb 10
oz when she was born. What is the total weight of these girls when they were born?
a. 15 lb 5 oz b. 16 lb 5 oz c. 16 lb 11 oz d. 17 lb 1 oz

______18. Monica is 11 years of age. Which is closest to her age in days?

a. 120 days b. 2,000 days c. 2,400 days d. 4,000 days

______19. Todd’s dog eats 15 ounces of dry dog food every day. Which is a reasonable number of
days it will take Todd’s dog to eat 40 pounds of dog food?
a. 25 days b. 40 days c. 50 days d. 65 days

______20. Dale used these steps to form a number pattern.

1. The first term is 3.
2. The second term is 5.
3. Each term after the second is the sum of the two terms just before it.
The first five terms in Dale’s pattern are the following.
3, 5, 8, 13, 21, . . .
What are the next 3 terms?

a. 27, 34, 42 b. 29, 37, 45 c. 34, 55, 89 d. 34, 55, 99

PART I- ENGLISH PART II- SCIENCE
1 D 1 A
2 B 2 A
3 C 3 D
4 C 4 D
5 B KEY TO5 CORRECTION
A
6 D 6 C
7 C 7 A
8 C 8 B
9 B 9 D PART III- MATH
10 A 10 A 1 C
11 D 11 A 2 C
12 B 12 C 3 D
13 C 13 D 4 A
14 B 14 A 5 D
15 D 15 B 6 C
16 C 16 C 7 D
17 B 17 B 8 D
18 A 18 C 9 C
19 B 19 D 10 B
20 C 20 B 11 D
21 D 21 A 12 C
22 C 22 B 13 D
23 C 23 C 14 A
24 D 24 C 15 A
25 D 25 B 16 C
26 C 26 A 17 B
27 D 27 B 18 D
28 C 28 C 19 B
29 D 29 C 20 C
30 B 30 D
31 B
32 D
33 A
34 B
35 C
36 A
37 B
38 D
39 B
40 C
41 C
42 A
43 C
44 D
45 B
46 EXCLAMATORY
47 INTERROGATIVE
48 DECLARATIVE
49 DECLARATIVE
50 IMPERATIVE