SOAL PRETEST

To answer test item, choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C, and D – to each question.
In 1939 American physicist Hans Bethe advanced the theory that solar energy is produced
by the fusion of four hydrogen atoms to form helium. In that process, some mass is converted to
energy according to the famous equation E=mc2 formulated by Einstein. Since the speed of light is
a very large number, very little mass is required to keep the Sun shining for billions of years.
Building on the work of Bethe, the American astronomer William Fowler, along with British
astronomers Sir Fred Hoyle and Geoffrey and Margaret Burbidge, showed in 1957 that the heavy
chemical elements, such as carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen, are made in stars as a result of nuclear
fusion processes. Astronomers thus discovered that all the heavy elements in the universe originated
in stars.
Understanding nuclear fusion within stars also enabled astronomers to obtain a better grasp
of a star’s evolution. Knowing the mass of a star, astronomers could calculate its stellar lifetime.
The Indian American astrophysicist Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar calculated the amount of mass,
known as the Chandrasekhar limit, that would determine a star’s fate. Star with masses less than 1.4
times the mass of the Sun when fusion ended could complete their evolution as white dwarf stars.
More massive stars would implode and end their live as either neutron stars or black holes. Rapidly
spinning neutron stars were later detected by British Radio astronomers Jocelyn Bell, who was then
a graduate student, and her adviser, Antony Hewish.
1. The text is about . . .
a. a recount about the production of energy
b. a description of Einstein’s famous equation
c. a report on the progress of star’s evolution
d. an argument concerning the origin of matter
2. According to Chandrasekhar, the fate of stars is mainly determined by . . .
a. the stellar lifespan
b. the mass of the sun
c. the amount of masses
d. the black holes.
3. It is implied in the text that astrophysics is . . .
a. a branch of astronomy
b. different from astronomy
c. another name of astronomy
d. the advancement of astronomy
4. That oxygen is made in stars was stated by these exerts EXCEPT . . .
a. Hans Bethe
b. William Fowler
c. Hoyle and Geoffrey
d. Margaret Burbidge

To answer test item, choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C, and D – to each question.
There are two main arguments against using standardized test to guarantee that students
reach at least a basic level of academic competency. The first is radical: These test are not
necessary. The second—less radical—is that, even if standardized testing were an efficient
benchmark of basic skills, (1) . . . . . .
 Standardized tests are unnecessary because they rarely show what we do not already know.
If we ask any teacher, they can tell you which students can read and write. That telling usually
comes in the form of letter grades or evaluation that break down progress on skills, (2) . . . . . . .
People will say: “That’s crazy! Schools will exaggerate results. Grade data means nothing
because teachers apply different standards with different values. Let’s give them all one reliable
test. “All true – except for the one test being reliable. Given high stakes and the accompanying
pressure, people will game a system. Also, it is all too true that grades vary widely. (3) . . . . . . . . At
a basic level of competency, a grade or an evaluative report would give us as much information as
we now get from standardized tests. Aside from its effectiveness, the tests consume a large amount
of resources, including financial ones.
(http://www.edweek.org/ew/articles/2014/07/09/36jouriles.h33.html)

5. (1) = . . . . . . .
a. the test efficiency is doubted by many.
b. the costs associated with it are too high.
c. the test has been administrated inefficiently.
d. the test development itself is not standardized.
6. (2) = . . . . . . .
a. So, the teachers need to be trusted.
b. Simply, classroom evaluation is better.
c. Thus, classroom evaluation is needed.
d. Briefly, teachers are reliable individuals.
7. (3) = . . . . . . .
a. Also, teachers must be able to interest student’s score correctly
b. But, people are already having a bet on standardized testing.
c. By contrast, the tests made by teachers are questionable.
d. As a consequence, by design standardized testing is immoral.

To answer test item, choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C, and D – to each question.
Blended education. Hybrid learning. Flipping the classroom. Whatever one chooses to call
it, this method of learning-which combines classroom and online education—is going places and
making headlines along the way. (1) . . . . . . . education experts continue to debate the efficacy of
hybrid learning, its very existence has challenged them to re-evaluate not just technology’s place in
(and out of) the classroom, but also how to reach and teach students more effectively. That alone is
one of the major benefits of blended learning.
Indeed defining hybrid or blended education is a trickier task than one might think-opinion
vary wildly on the matter. (2) . . . . . . . in a report on the merits and potential of blended education,
the Sloan Consortium defined hybrid courses as those that “integrate online with traditional face-to-
face class activities in a planned, pedagogically valuable manner.” Educators probably disagree on
what qualifies as “pedagogically valuable.” (3) . . . . . . . the essence is clear: Hybrid education uses
online technology to not just supplement, but transform and improve the learning process.

8. (1) = . . . . . . .
a. Once
b. Since
c. While
d. When
9. (2) = . . . . . . .
a. In fact,
b. To specify,
c. For instance,
d. To clarify,
10. (3) = . . . . . . .
a. Furthermore,
b. Conversely,
c. Consequently,
d. Moreover,

To answer test item, choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C, and D – to each question.
Ingredients: 1 large green capsicum; 1 onion; 1 clove garlic; ½ cup of fresh coriander leaves; ½
cup of fresh flat-leaf parsley; 2 teaspoons of butter; 2 teaspoons of extra virgin olive oil; 1 cup of
long-grain white rice; 600 ml of boiling chicken stock; salt and pepper; springs of fresh coriander.
Preparation:
1) Put the capsicum, onion, garlic, coriander and parsley in a food processor and blend to a very
finely chopped paste. Alternatively finely chop them all together.
2) Heat the butter and oil in a large saucepan, add the rice and fry gently for 2-3 minutes, or until
the grains are translucent, remove from the heat and stir in the herb paste.
3) Return to the heat and cook for 2 minutes, stirring all the time.
4) Pour in the boiling stock, and season with salt and pepper to taste.
5) Bring to the boil, then reduce the heat, cover and cook very gently for 10-15 minutes, or until
the rice is tender and stock has been absorbed. Remove from the heat and leave to stand for 3-4
minutes.
6) Fork though to separate the grains.

11. How long does it take to make the stuff ready for serving?
A. More than 17 minutes.
B. Around 19 minutes.
C. Less than 20 minutes.
D. Approximately 24 minutes.
12. The best title of the text is “How to Make . . . “
A. Green Coriander Rice
B. Garnished Boiled Rice
C. Fresh Coriander Chicken
D. Pepper Seasoned Chicken
13. The essential steps of making the stuff are . . . .
A. Cook ingredients – stir them – mix with rice – cover it – serve it.
B. Chop ingredients – fry rice – season it – cook it – separate the grains
C. Blend ingredients – remove from heat – bring to the boil – fork through
D. Put ingredients in processor – heat it – season – remove from heat
14. The word “translucent” in the text can mean . . . .
A. having a glowing appearance
B. completely transparent
C. allowing light to enter
D. mild and absorbable
 Numerous studies show that there is a number of benefits children gain by taking part in
team sports. Benefits can range from higher grades and a desire and a desire to succeed in school to
the ability to develop strong, supportive relationships with others. Beyond that, though, (1)…...
Most importantly, team sports build a child’s self-esteem. This happens as the child sets small goals
on the court-such as perfecting a skill or scoring an additional point-and achieves them. (2)……
Good communication among team members is essential to sports. While playing in a sport, your
child will gain valuable communication skills that will last long after your child leaves the playing
field. (3)……. Plus, he will learn how to effectively convey when there is a problem and use a
variety of communication skills that include problem-solving abilities and brainstorming.

15. (1) = . . .
A. here are some crucial reasons why team sport are definitely worth a try.
B. the results will certainly be valuable to children’s emotion growth.
C. not many are really aware of the benefits of working in a team
D. children will grow well in several cooperative environments
16. (2) = . . .
A. Next, team sports enable children to be independent of others
B. In addition, children will get a number of benefits emotionally
C. Then, team sports can help improve communication skills
D. Communication in team sports is also needed by children

Climate scientists are telling us that the earth's average temperature is going to rise 2 to 3
degrees over the next 50 to 100 years. (1) …. does it really matter that temperatures will rise this
much? You might think that this rise tempertures only means that winters will be a little milder and
summers a little hotter, which does not sound like something to be bothered about. (2)….. , it is not
that simple. The effects you are most likely to experience is an increase in extreme weather. (3)….. ,
an increase in extreme heat-waves in summer, and at other times an increased likelihood of heavy
rain, hail, and high winds, that lead to flooding and wind damage. In higher latitudes heavier snow
falls are expected too, which might seem contradictory, but it is not.

17. (1) = . . . .
19. (3) = . . .
A. Then,
A. To some extent,
B. But,
C. Yet, B. For example,
D. So, C. As a result,
D. In detail,
18. (2) = . . . .
A. Unfortunately, c. Naturally,
B. Technically, d. Logically,

Three brothers in Ireland used to frequent a local pub. Then one moved to America and another
to Australia. The lone brother left still went to the pub, but now he ordered three beers, taking a sip
from each in turn. The patrons watched him go through this ritual for some time before one of them
asked why “one’s for my brother in America, one for my brother in Australia and one for me,” he
replied.
 After this explanation, the fellow didn’t show up at the pub for a month. Then he appeared again
and ordered two beers. He drank from one, then the other. One of the patrons went over and
extended his condolences for the man’s bereavement. “what bereavement?” the chap asked.
“well, the loss of one of your brothers, “the patron said.
“My brothers are alive, “the fellow corrected. He help up one glass. “this is for my brother in
America. “He help up the other. “This is for my brother in Australia. And I quit drinking.

1. The story tells us about . . . .

A. Three brothers and patron in a pub
B. A man and his two brothers in Ireland
C. Three brothers who used to visit a pub
D. A man who struggles to quit drinking
2. Why did the patron extend his sympathy for the man?
A. He thought the man’s two brothers had passed away.
B. He assumed the man had been left by his close friends.
C. He guessed the man had really stopped drinking
D. He was sure that the man had lost his friends.
3. It is implied in the text that . . . .
A. The man has totally quit drinking
B. The man drinks more than he used to
C. The man’s brothers have quit drinking
D. The patron was surprised to see the man
4. The man did not show up in the pub for a month because . . .
A. He tried to forget all of his brothers
B. He did not have any brother go with
C. He probably tried to give up drinking
D. He did not need anymore drink from the pub

The Aurora is an incredible light show caused by collisions between (1) electrically charged
particles released from the sun that enter the earth’s atmosphere and collide with gases such as
oxygen and nitrogen. The lights are seen around the magnetic poles of the northern and southern
hemispheres.
Auroras that occur in the northern hemisphere are called ‘Aurora Borealis’ or ‘northern lights’ and
auroras that occur in the southern hempishere are called ‘Aurora Australis’ or ‘southern lights’.
(2) Both Aurora’s can be seen in the northern or southern hemisphere, that take the form of (3)
an irregularly shaped oval centred over each magnetic pole. Scientists have learned that in most
instances northern and southern auroras are mirror-like images that occur at the same time, with
similar shapes and colors. Aurora displays can appear in many vivid colors, (4) although green is
the most common. Colors such as red, yellow, green, blue and violet are also seen occasionally.
The auroras can appear in many forms, from small patches of light that appear out of nowhere to
streamers, arcs, rippling curtains or shooting rays that (5) light up the sky with an incredible glow.

24. (1) = …
A. electrically released particles charged
B. Charged particles electrically released
C. Electrically released charged particles
D. Electrically charged particles released
 25. Another way of stating the underlined part in (2) ‘Both Aurora’s can be seen in the northern or
southern hemisphere’ is…
A. South and north poles are sightings for both auroras
B. People can observe both auroras in different poles
C. Both auroras are visible in south and north poles
D. Both auroras appear in south and north poles
26. (3) = …
A. an irregularly shaped oval centered
B. an oval shaped irregularly centered
C. an irregularly oval centered shaped
D. an oval centered irregularly shaped.
27. Another way of stating the underlined part in (4) ‘although green is the most common’ is …
A. while green dominates
B. nevertheless the color visible is green
C. though the green color appears clearly
D. albeit the skies look colorfully green all over
28. (5) = …
A. the sky light up colorfully
B. light colorfully the sky up
C. light up the sky colorfully
D. the colorfully sky light up

Rice is a delicious, versatile alternative to potatoes and pasta, and there are lots of varieties to
choose from. Here's a guide to the different types.
Rice is classified by the size of its grain into long, medium and short varieties and ranges from
fluffy to creamy to sticky in texture. Color varies from brown to white to red. The shape, size,
texture and other characteristics of the different varieties affect the way the rice is used in recipes,
what types of dish it is suitable for, and the way it is cooked.
Long-grain rice has grains that are long and slim. When cooked, the grains tend to remain separate,
and the finished result is usually fairly dry and firm. Most is in a polished white form, although
brown long-grain rice is also available. Patna rice comes from Asia; Carolina rice, which is slightly
chunkier in appearance, is from North America
With very long, slim grains, basmati rice has excellent cooking qualities and a full flavor. It is
grown only in northern India and Pakistan, and no other rice can be labelled as basmati. It also
comes in a wholegrain form, which tends to be lighter and quicker to cook than other brown rice.
Chinese black rice: An unrefined rice, this has a brownish-black skin and flattish, wide grains. It is
usually soaked and then steamed. In Asia it is also used to make a dessert with coconut milk and
palm sugar.
Also known as Thai fragrant rice, Jasmine rice is grown in eastern Asia. It has a slight perfume
and when cooked is slightly more sticky than other long-grain rice. It marries well with other Asian
foods and is the rice to use in Thai cookery.
29. Basmati rice is mainly characterized by it …
A. Size, shape, texture, label and quality
B. Size, shape, flavor, weight, and color
C. Origin, texture, quality, weight and color
D. Origin, variety, texture, label and weight
30. The main purpose of the text is to …
A. Argue about ways of treating rice
B. Explain the size and shape of rice
C. Describe different types of rice
D. Report the origin varieties
31. It is likely that Patna rice has grains that are …
A. Long, slim, brown, and chunky
B. Separate, long, chunky, and light
C. Separate, dry, firm, and white
D. Long, slim, brownish, and firm
32. The text is about …
A. The different uses of rice
B. The various type of rice
C. The origin of different rice
D. The names of rice in the world
33. The fact . . . Bali – the land of gods and goddess – has a vast natural and cultural attractions has
made it a popular spot of destinations to tourists.
A. Of
B. Is
C. That
D. Is that

Funding for laughter and humor research is low-so low that when Mary Bannett, director of
the Western Kentucky University School of Nursing, wanted to look into the effect of laughter on
the immune system. “It’s really hard to get taken seriously when you say you study laughter,” she
says.
But her study of 33 healthy women , showed that those who laughed at a humorous movie
had higher levels of natural killer cell activity, which increased their ability to fight off disease.
However, the effect was seen only in the subjects who laughed out loud, not in those who quietly
watched the comedy. A study in Japan that also used laboratory finding found that laughter could
improve anti-inflammatory factory in the blood of people who have rheumatoid arthritis.
But some studies are contradictory. One study of 70 depressed elderly women found that laughter
yoga was just as effective as exercise therapy in improving mood as measured by self-Satisfaction
reports by subjects. Humor and laughter may improve muscle tone, though only when someone is
laughing, and some studies show that a good laugh can help reduce stress hormones.
When Bannett, who has spent much of her career poring over the research literature, is asked
whether laughter cures or prevents any disease, her quick answer is a simple “No” she adds, “if
you’re going through something like chemotherapy, anything you can do to help you stay sane…
will help”
1. The text is about … 3. It is implied in the text that laughter ….
A. a publication about the importance of A. is useless to help reduce tension
laughter B. is ineffective for preventing cancer
B. Bannett’s doubt about the use of laughter C. remains ineffective for curing
C. a study on the effects of laughter diseases
D. humorous research on laughter D. encourages patients to stay
optimistic
2. The term “poring ever” most nearly
means …. 4. The followings are the effects of
A. conducting research laughter EXCEPT its ability to……
B. looking at and studying A. improve anti-inflammatory factors
C. carefully implementing B. help reduce stress hormones
D. completely understanding C. fight against all types of diseases
D. enhance personal satisfaction

Choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C, and D – to each question.

As humans emit greenhouse gases into the atmosphere, it causes the Earth to warm; it also
causes other climate changes that are less obvious. In some instance, it makes areas wetter. This can
lead to increased flooding. In other instances, it speeds evaporation so that drought can set in more
quickly and deeply. While these affects would offset each other, more droughts or floods occur.
In some instances, areas are experiencing more severe droughts and more flooding as the
weather systems swing from dry to wet quickly. Added to this is the fact that ocean temperatures
have an enormous influence on weather.
As an example, an El Nino, which is the appearance of a warm water pool in the Pacific
Ocean, can influence weather across the globe. Human-caused warming of the oceans adds to the El
Nino cycles, which in turn affect the atmosphere. The real scientific question is, do human
greenhouse gases influence a specific flood or drought event? The answer to this questions is yes.
A paper published in Geophysical Research Letters looked at the May 2015 floods in Texas
and Oklahoma in the USA, which resulted from the wettest single month on record in both states.
The lead author, Dr. Wang from Utah State and his colleagues, examined the role of strengthened
El Nino teleconnections on the flood event.
In the Pacific Ocean, there is a water temperature oscillation that occurs every few years.
During one part of the oscillation, there is colder waters (called the La Nina phase) while in the
other part of the oscillation, the waters are warm (called El Nino). Many times, the water
temperatures are near normal.

The term “oscillation” in the text is used to mean…

A. a periodic fluctuation
B. a pattern of changes
C. a scale of invariability
D. a movement of water
The increasing amount of dioxide in the atmosphere causes the followings EXCEPT...
A. climate changes
B. flooding regions
C. extreme droughts
D. deep evaporation
 Rising from the depths of the Banda Beach, South east of the mainland of Sulawesi, the main
islands of Wangi, Kaledupa, Tomea, binongki - WaKaTobi - dish up large portions of all the
world’s reef types - fringing - atoll and barrier - and are served with (1) …… amazing crowds of
healthy corals and (2) …..
The reefs for Wakatobi diving are unlike others in the region because of the dry climate and
uplifted limestone or, in other words, (3) …... This means there is an exceptionally clean
environment due to lack of soil erosion.
Being a national park, fishing is strictly limited and the reefs are protected, meaning plenty of
action for you the scuba diver. These (4) superb reefs are supported and protected by the local
fishing communities who obtain a fair share of the income generated by Wakatobi dive tourism in
(5) exchange for adopting more sustainable practices, such as leaving large stretches of reef
completely untouched. Other contributions go towards education and (6) strengthening local
supports for the marine park.

1. (1) = …. 4. (3) = ….
A. Nature A. Reefs spread in the fossilised seabed
B. Natural B. Fossilised reefs spread in the seabed
C. Naturally C. Seabed fossilised in the spread reefs
D. Natured D. The seabed fossilised in the reefs

2. The underline word in (6) is synonymous 5. (2) = ….

with A. Dense schools of various fish
A. Widening B. Various schools of dense fish
B. Supporting C. Dense fish of various schools
C. Establishing D. Various fish of dense schools
D. Safeguarding
6. The underlined word in (5) is best
3. The underline word in (4) is synonymous synonymous with
with A. Return
A. Attractive B. Charge
B. Fantastic C. Substitute
C. Amazed D. compensation
D. Vast

Soal No 14
Direction:
To answer test item, you will have to read short passage. Each one is followed by one or more
question. Choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C and D – to each question.
Below are strategies to keep the germs away and decrease the chances of catching a virus,
1. Put a box of tissue where ever people sit: place tissue boxes around the house, at work, and
in the car. You need tissues so that anyone who has to cough, sneeze, or blow their nose can
do so in the way least likely to spread germs.
2. Leave the windows open a crack in winter: not all of them, but one or two in the room in
which you spend the most time. Fresh air wonders for chasing out germs.
3. Add green tea and an apple to your morning break: recent research by food nutritionists at
Auckland University in New Zealand, found that eating food rich in flavonoids, a group of
an antioxidants, could lower of the risk of adults catching a cold. Flavonoids are found in
green tea, apple, blueberries, red wine and cocoa. Eating five servings of vegetables and two
servings of fruits each day is ideal to get enough flavonoid in your diet.
4. Use your knuckle to rub your eyes: the knuckle is less likely to contaminate with viruses
than your fingertip. The eye provides a perfect entry point for germs, making fingers
particularly good at transmitting germs.
The best title of the text is …
A. Methods of avoiding viruses
B. Strategies to get out of the cold
C. Protection of the body from germs
D. Procedure of being healthy
Beginning reading in English goes easily if young children already know the language they are
trying to read. Many children workout by themselves how to read in English if they have shared
picture book with adults or learned rhymes, (1) ……. Reading what they know by heart is an
important step in learning to read as it gives children opportunity to workout (2) …….. one children
built up a blank of words they can read, they really feel confident, and (3) ……
(2) = ……
A. where to focus on important information in the texts
B. how to make sense of simple words by themselves
C. which particularly reading skills and strategy to use
D. what the materials to read further in their interest.
(1) = …..
A. Before they begin to practice their writing skills
B. until after they learn how to identify all alphabets
C. so that they will relate sound and their related letters
D. As they are likely to have mastered aspects of the language
(3) = ……
A. reading skills and strategy to use need to be introduced
B. Teachers should select text based on their interest
C. they are than ready for more structured reading
D. Their further interest is of importance to consider

To answer test items, choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C, and D – to complete the
sentence.
After reading the new traditional recipe, ….
a. The making of the meals based on it was surely alluring
b. The meal made based on it by Dinuk was surely alluring
c. Dinuk’s meals that is made based on it was surely alluring
d. Dinuk thought making the meals based on it was surely alluring

To answer test items, you will have to read short passages. Each one is followed by one or
more questions. Choose the one best answer – marked A, B, C, and D to each question.
Bank Americard Cash RewardsTM Credit Card is a solit cash back option for people with good to
excellent credit. It offer 3% cash back on gas and 2% cash back at grocery stores for the first s1,500
in combined purchases each quarter. You can add 1% cash back on all other purchases, a s100
initial spending bonus after s500 in purchases in the first 90 days, 0% introductory APR on
purchases for 12 billing cycles on qualifying transfers to those perks.

It is implied in the text that APR stands for ….

a. Annual Percentage Rate
b. American Percentage Reward
c. Accountable Purchasing Reward
d. Applicable Purchasing Rate
The benefits of the card are the followings EXCEPT ……..
a. A number of discount
b. Purchasing bonus
c. Zero interest
d. Excellent credit