Dear colleagues, I had LOTS rqs!

I could say that most of them were from rqs some

literal other restated. The first day was the tougher, I had many drugs interaction and
MOA that I really don’t remember as pharma is my weakest area. The good thing is
that they always put generic and commercial names. They were concentrated in
hypertension, antidepressives, and a bit of corticosteroid, analgesics, anesthetics,
and antibiotics. All the endo were easy diagnostic ones, prosthesis, learn all the
movements. Many syndromes. Some ortho appliances. Good pictures and Rx so,
so. The second day was easier, 11 Cases, not hard and similar to some in the rqs
and master day 2 file. They were more common-sense situations. Some small cases
were only descriptions without pictures. My best advice is that when you are doing
rqs don’t just memorize them, try to know why that is the correct answer and which
could the be the possible questions to the other options because I had many
restated questions. Please confirm these answers. My sources were: Dentin, Dental
Mastery app, Mosby pt management, Tuff Pharma, Tuff Patho, Golden, Master Day
2, Kaplan, Unicorn, Mango, Rita, Andres Gomez, Laslo, DanMan, Dr.Strange, all
April-May rqs, youtube videos, google! And every night before going to sleep I was
reviewing questions posted here, believe me, guys you have here all the questions.
Pray for my pass and God bless you as well. Keep going, and we will get it.
Finally, I went through the files and collected those that I had and, added a few
details. I hope it helps.

1. Got that question that why male patients resist sometimes to take antihypertensive
medication
Sexual dysfunction was in options
2. Sparse hair can be due to a problem with which gland
● Adrenal
● Thyroid
● Parathyroid
● Pituitary
3. Amicar drug
 Aminocaproic acid works as an antifibrinolytic to treat severe bleeding cause by
clotting problems.
affects the blood clotting system.
4. You can prescribe a patient a drug without child proof container why?
Elders won’t be able to open bottle due to physical impairment
For physical barrier, (easy to open)
5. Mechanism of action of propranolol in angina pectoris
a. decrease preload
b. produce bradycardia
c. reduce HR and CO (related to afterload)
6. Syndrome of viral or bacterial origin?
Ramsay Hunt, pierre, crouzon
7. Gorlin syndrome: multiple OKC, bifid ribs, calcifications of falx cerebri, fibromas,
nevoid basal cell
carcinoma, mostly in mandible.
8. Treacher Collins no zygomatic bone
9. Cleidocranial displasia no clavicles (aka Cleidocranial Dysostosis)
10. Asthma must be known well
11. Beta agonist now well:
B1 – increase HR and CO
B2 – Bronchodilation and vasodilation, reduce renin secretion- so increase urine
putput
12. A patient diabetic that goes for minor surgery under sedation how to manage ?
Ans: For sedation its half dose and morning appointment
13. Similar to this → Antibiotic that concentrates more in crevicular fluid than plasma:
doxycycline
14. sweling fluctuant emergency management: incision and drainage and antibiotics
15. Benzodiazepine reversal: Flumazenil
16. Opioids reversal: Naloxane
17. In which receptor does epinephrine act to cause vasoconstriction? alpha1
18. Patient with acute asthma attack whats the best position to put him
● Straight , slightly lean forward
● Supine position with legs up
● On his left side with legs bended ( like fetal position)
● straight up position
19. Unconscious patient, you gave oxygen and nothing happened, what to do?
- Do nothing, patient will self-recover
- Other options-very confusing
20. Patient had pain when upper jaw molars when he/she changed position or lower his
head
a. Acute sinusitis
b. Pain in upper molars
21. nitrous oxide and risk “in a dental office who is at the least risk of inhaling nitrous
oxide
● Dentist
● Assistant (most)
● Hygienist
● Patient (least)
22. Herpes simplex is related to what disease
a. Measles
b. Mumps
c. Chichenpox
23. What test for what disease should the doctor perform every year
a. Tuberculosis
b. Hepatitis c
c. Hepatitis b
24. epinephrine action on thryoid
increases the uptake of iodine in thyroid
25. : primary drug for The treating oral candidiasis in patient with HIV is
a. Nystatin (Mycostatin)
b. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
 c. Penciclovir (Denavir)
d. Chlorhexidine (Peridex)
26. Bupivacaine is metabolized where ? liver
27. Difference in angina pain and MI pain? – no idea
-place
- length
- others
28. Nitroglycerine
29. SIMILAR- A patient on intravenously administered bisphosphonate therapy for 2
years has caious and non-restorable anterior teeth. Which is the best treatment
option?

A- Surgical extraction with primary closure

B- Endodontic therapy of retained roots

C- Discontinue bisphosphonates for 3 months before extraction

D- Surgical extraction, alveoloplasty, and primary closure

30. SIMILAR-Behcet disease has oral lesions which are most similar to which of the
following

A- Aphthous ulcers

B- Candidiasis

C- Herpangina

D- Herpes zoster

31. SEVERAL QUESTIONS WHERE ANY OF THESE WAS THE ANSWER --Which of
the following conditions is associated with hypodontia?
A- Ectodermal dysplasia
B- Cleidocranial dysplasia
C- Apert Syndrome
D- Gardner syndrome

32. Rubella embryopathy is an example of which of the following causes of mental

retardation?

A- Generic

B- Cultural

C- Acquired /genetic

D- Chromosomal

33. Similar- Which of the following analgesics has the greatest margin of safety for a
patient with renal disease?

A- Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

B- Flurbiprofen

C- Ibuprofen (Motrin)

D- Ketoprofen

E- Keterolac (Toradol)

34. How hyperbaric oxygen works?

35. Which of the following odontogenic lesions occurs most frequently

A- Ameloblastoma

B- Odontoma

C- Ameloblastic fibroma

D- Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

Less recurrence tumor

Compound odontoma
Ameloblastoma

36. Several with querubism, parathyroidism, thryroid, hypodontia

37. .INR safe to place implant:

● 2.5
● 3.5
● 4.5
●5
38. Another saying that the patient taking anticoagulants, which the minimal INR value
to do a surgery?
● 2.5
● 3.5
● 4.5
●5
The higher INR, the greater the anticoagulant effect (greater clotting).
INR value of 1: means normal prothrombin times of ~12sec; normal blood clotting
would be present.
• INR > 1: indicates an anticoagulant effect exists.
• Many patients taking anticoagulants have INR values of 2, 3, 4, 5, and even 6.
• For surgical procedures, an INR of 1-1.5 indicates a normal prothrombin time (~12-
18 seconds). This is within a safe range.

39. Morphodifferention → size and shape

40. Primary dentition calcification begins at
A- 2 months in utero
B- 4 months in utero
C- 8 months in utero
D- Birth
41. Advantage of NO- except
- Not need tell-show-do
- Time
- No need anesthesia
42. Base with sedative properties
● Caoh
● Gic
● Zinc oxide eugenol
43. Dog with high caries index is feed with high cariogenic food but thru his stomach
directly
● Increase caries rate
● Unaltered
● Decrease
44. Picture of a person with recession asking what is not the reason for that recesion
a. Heavy brushing
b. Caries (Patient was caries free)
45. Fluoride function → prevent enamel dissolution
46. Which type of fluor is associated with staining
a. Acidulated
b. Neutral
c. Stannous fluoride
47. At what age do you first prescribe fluoride? 6 months, 2 years
48. The characteristic of an impression material to change its viscosity when applied
tension ?
a. Thixotropic -true- thin to thick under sheer pressure
49. What happens if you leave stone cast 24 hours in water?
- Dissolve surface
- It breaks
- Expand
50. Why to bevel a CL III?
- Esthetic
 - Access
-
51. how to retain a class 2 amalgam: proximal groves
52. What makes a MO amalgam more retentive?
-covergent occlusal walls
- Dove tail
- Narrow isthmus

53. What avoid more fractures in a MO amalgam?

- Bevel or round axio-pulpal angle
54. A high risk caries patient has a class V on tooth # 6 what to restore with
● Amalgam
● Glass ionomer (for when caries)
● Glass mod resin
● Hybrid resin
55. Large mod with hard bite
Amalgam
● Glass ionomer (for when caries)
● Glass mod resin
● Hybrid resin
56. Main reason for changing an amalgam:
a. Ditch of margins
b. Corrosion
c. Recurrent caries

57. The decision to replace an existing amalgam restoration should be made as soon as
the restoration exhibits

A- Creep

B- Recurrent caries

C- Corrosion and tarnish

D- Ditching around occlusal margins

58. Main procedure to a class II amalgam prep to avoid fracture of the proximal box ( or
something like that) answer: is to prep a bevel or round axiopulpal angle to prevent
fracture
Other options were in the other of making it deeper and that kind of thing
59. Caries on a patient extends subgingival what would be the INITIAL approach
● Caries excavation
● Crown lengthening
● Extraction

60. A posterior tooth has a large carious lesion extending subgingivally. Which of the
following is the best initial treatment?

A- Endodontic therapy

B- Crown lengthening surgery

C- Caries excavation
D- Crown fabrication

61. Amalgam place and same day pain when biting

- Galvanism
- Trauma
-
62. When do you fill the tooth with CaOH
-when you have an incomplete root
63. Amalgam waste is regulated by = ADA or OSHA
64. A dentist has planned in-office-bleaching and porcelain laminate veneers for a
patient’s maxillary anterior teeth. What would be the best sequence of treatment?

A- Bleaching, 2 week delay, tooth preparation, bonding procedures

B- Bleaching and tooth preparation, 2-5 day delay, bonding procedures

C- Tooth preparation, 2 week delay, bleaching, and bonding procedures

D- Tooth preparation, 2 week delay, bonding, and then bleaching procedures

65. Smooth surface lesions resulting from object and the tooth structure are known as
which of the following?

A- Abrasion

B- Erosion

C- Abfraction

D- Attrition

66. : For the porcelain veneer preparation, the standard amount of tooth reduction in the
incisal one third of the facial surface is

A- 0.3 mm

B- 0.5 mm

C- 0.8 mm

D- 1.0 mm

67. Auxilliary resistance from features in fixed dental prostheses such as boxes and
grooves should ideally be located?

A- Facially

B- Lingually

C- Occlusally

D- Proximally

68. What is the indicated treatment for a primary molar with a carious pulp exposure and
a furcation radiolucency?

A- Formocresol pulpotomy
B- Indirect pulp cap

C- Extraction

D- Direct pulp cap

69. Similar - Adolescents undergoing orthodontic treatment often have problems with
home oral hygiene regimens. The MOST effective management plan is to

A- Educate the patient about the importance of oral hygiene when wearing braces

B- Develop a plan of contingent reinforcement for brushing and flossing

C- Refuse to continue treatment unless oral hygiene improves

D- Have parents remind adolescents to brush

E- Provide limited praise for small progress made at each visit

70. Most important factor in color selection

a. Value
71. definition of value
a. Value is shades of gray
72. Reason for elimination of caries at the floor of the tooth last
a. to avoid pulp exposure
73. 4 year old child had a traumatism that ended up in an intrusion of his right primary
central 6mm , what would be the treatment
Extraction
Surgically reposition
Observation
74. Which of the following is the best treatment for a traumatically intruded primary tooth
which in not impinging on the permanent tooth bud?
a. A- Extraction
b. B- Allow tooth to spontaneously re-erupt
c. C- Reposition tooth orthodontically
d. D- Reposition tooth surgically
75. Infections arising from the periapical region of the mandibular first premolars
perforate through the lingual cortex to the

A- Pterygomaxillary space

B- Submental space

C- Sublingual space

D- Submandibular space

76. Pain referred to the ear derives most often from which teeth?

A- Maxillary molars

B- Maxillary premolars

C- Mandibular molars

D- Mandibular premolars

77. SIMILAR-During a routing examination, the dentist sees a large radiolucency at the
apex of the maxillary right first premolar. The tooth is not painful, does not respond
to pulp testing, and has no evidence of a sinus tract. The most probable diagnosis is

A- Asymptomatic apical periodontitis

B- Symptomatic apical periodontitis

C- Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis

D- Chronic apical abscess

78. Patient had a root canal 2 years ago and now you see an apical lucency what to do
?
a. Six months recall to take xray and observe
b. Retreatment only if it becomes symptomatic
79. Apexification definition, they would put the definition in the question and in the
options
a. Apexogenesis
b. Apexification
c. Direct pulp cap
d. Indirect pulp cap
80. Microorganisms in apical third of necrotic root
- Anaerobic
- Aerobic
- Facultative

81. Worst material for definitive impresion of abutment teeth for a pfm bridge
a. Polyether
b. Polysulfide
c. Reversible colloid
d. Irreversible colloid
82. Material used for xray filtration
a. Aluminum
b. Tugsten
c. Molybdenum
d. Lead

83. Which of the following is used primarily as filter material in a dental X-ray machine?

A- Oil

B- Lead

C- Aluminum

D- Tungsten

E- Molybdenum
84. Collimation used for
a. Decrease the size of the x ray beam
b. Reduce intensity of xray
c. Reduce quantity of xray

85. Which of the images below can best be used to visualize the integrity of the
zygomatic arches?

A- Panoramic

B- Waters view

C- Lateral oblique

D- CT scan

86. A patient’s mandibular canal is positioned lingually to her mandibular third molar. In
what direction would the canal appear to move on a radiograph, if the X-ray tube
were moved inferiorly (i.e., if the x-ray beam were pointing superiorly)?

A- Apically

B- Mesially

C- Distally

D- Occusally

87. Some related with face bow that I don’t remember… but could be similar to these:
88. Famous face bow plaster index was there we you see the real options is really
obvious that the
answer is to preserve the facebow registration
89. When you use a face bow , what reference point you use :
a. Left right condyles
b. Left right condyles , inferior portion of orbital rim

90. Similar- A protrusive jaw relation record is made in order to set the

A- Horizontal condylar inclination of the articulator

B- Anterior guide table of the articulator

C- Lateral condylar guidance of the articulator

D- Lateral translation of the articulator

91. SIMILAR-An articulating paper mark on the lingual incline of the buccal cusp of the
mandibular molar represents which type of interference?

A- Working

B- Non-working

C- Protrusive

D- Retrusive

92. A similar → A wear facet is seen on the mesio-buccal incline of the mesio-buccal
cusp of a mandibular first molar complete metal crown. This facet clould have been
formed during which jaw movements?

A- Working only

B- Protrusive or working

C- Protrusive or non-working
D- Non-working or retrusive

93. That question about the mayor conector characteristic on a rpd

94. Non working contact interference

95. More likely to damage tissue when making an acrylic resin temporary restoration for
a large MOD onlay preparation?
- Infringe tissue because of irregular border
- Monomers in contact with tissue
- No well finished

96. Similar- Sensitivity to cold and pressure 2 weeks after cementation of a posterior
crown is most likely related to

A- Occlusal trauma

B- Luting agent

C- Vertical root fracture

D- Food impaction

97. A patients with a large composite resin restoration placed 1 year ago reports
sensitivity in the tooth. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A- Trauma

B- Fracture of the restoration

C- Microleakage of the restoration

D- Pulpal reaction to the phosphoric acid

98. SIMILAR- Upon mastication, a patient has severe pain in a mandibular first molar.
Clinical examination reveals furcal bone loss, a sinus tract that is draining through
the sulcus, normal interproximal bone height, and no response to vitality testing. The
treatment of choice is

A- Root canal treatment only

B- Periodontal therapy only

C- Periodontal therapy first, then root canal treatment, should the lesion not resolve

D- Root canal treatment first, then periodontal therapy, should the lesion not resolve

99. Angioedema → rubber dam

100. Why leakage in rubber dam? Holes too apart, together
101. Most commonly ankylosed tooth: primary mandibular 2nd molar
102. Most likely cause of arch length discrepancy in adults: loss of primary 2nd molar
103. Exception question about CervicAl pull gear actions
104. How many milligram of fluoride in 1 ppm in 1 liter?
0.5mg (1ppm=1mg (.5 of sodium .5 of fluoride))
105. Space maintainer for a patient 8 years old with both primary 1st and 2nd molars
missing ?
● Band and loop-ans if mandibular ant teeth have Not erupted yet)
● Lingual arch- ans if mandibular ant teeth have already erupted)
● No treatment
106. In an skeletal class III patient what cephalometric value decreases as he gets
older
● Sna
● Snb-increases with age
● Anb- decreases with age
107. 40 years old patient bilateral posterior crossbite , what would be the way to
correct the problem?
 a. Hyrax
b. Osteotomy don't remember the name but it is (surgical aproach) → Lefort 1
c. Quad helix
108. Serial extraction to correct malocclusion are done when ?
● Class I malocclusion
● 10 mm or more crowding ( don't remember the words )
● Class I malocclusion with more or = to 10 mm discrepancy
109. finger spring- reciprocal anchorage
110. Headgear action:
● Cervical pull: extrude molars
● Protraction Headgear: protract maxilla (aka face mask-reverse pull headgear)

111. Rectangular wire function --?

112. Similar - In attempting to correct a single tooth anterior crossbite with a

removable appliance, Which of the following is the most important for the dentist to
consider? And which appliance will use

A- Making periodic adjustments

B- Incorporating maximum retention

C- Patient’s overbite

D- Making sure there is adequate space

113. Best for osseointegration in general

● Ant mand
● Ant max
● Post max
● Post man
114. Then another question -Best for osseointegration on implants
● Ant mand
● Ant max
● Post max
● Post man
115. Contraindication of a sliding lateral flap
a. Inadequate donor tissue
b. Frenum insertion
c. Prominent teeth
116. Root amputation of the mesiobuccal max first molar : in what direction to cut the
root , at which
level:
a. apical
b. mid
c. coronal- options were longer, like cut from the furcation straight to the crown
117. Mid root fracture, what to do?
- Splint
- Extract
- Observe
- Endo
118. The most profound result of periodontal therapy would be on a patient with?
● Edematous gingival tissues
● Fibrous gingival tissues
● Chronic periodontitis
119. Best tx on gingival inflammation?
- Scaling
- Antibiotic
120. Most likely to leave gingival architecture altered?
- ANUG
- Hyperplasia
121. Periodontal maintenance following completion of active periodontal therapy

A- Should only be done by periodontist

B- Should be tailored to the needs of the individual patient

C- Is not a cost-effective approach for ongoing patient care

D- Requires strict adherence to a 6-month interval

122. The primary etiologic factor associated with periodontal attachment loss in a
furcation is the presence of

A- Occlusal trauma
B- Accessory root canals
C- Oral biofilm
D- Cervical enamel projections

123. 1 week after a gingival graft, it shows like a rubbery aspect

- Normal process
- Failure
-
124. First 24 hours after an tissue graft, who provides the nutrients?
- Donor
- Recipient
- Connective tissue

125. What is the most common form of wound healing after a periodontal flap
surgery?

A- Long junctional epithelium

B- New connective tissue attachment

C- Connective tissue adhesion

D- Regeneration of the new periodontal ligament, cementum and bone

ANS: A

Flap=LJE

Surgery =regeneration

Srp=new attachment

126. Which of the following best describes the outcome of and intrapulpal anesthetic
injection?

A- Provides anesthesia by back-pressure

B- Control intrapulpal hemorrhage

C- Does not create any period of discomfort during injection

D- Usually provides anesthesia after 30 seconds of depositing anesthetic

127. If inferior block anesthesia don’t work, what to do? Long Bucal?
128. A displaced fracture of the mandible courses from the angle to the third molar.
This fracture is potencially difficult to treat with a closed reduction because of

A- Injury to the neurovascular bundle

B- Malocclusion secondary to the injury

C- Compromise of the blood supply to the mandible

D- Distraction of the fracture segments by muscle pull

129. What is paraphrasing?

Paraphrasing is restating the patient’s views in one’s own words
130. Famous question about the dentist that gets angry with a difficult patient and he
tolerates it, but the assistant drops an instrument and he explode with her → there
was an option called Displacement
131. Patient sits in chair then starts crying because a friend has terminal disease:
what to do? Note that they also have said: because she is going thru a divorce
a. acknowledge and express concern
b. tell her that you have someone you can recommend to speak to
c. show empathy by rescheduling appointment
132. An office is owned by 3 dentists partners in equal parts , a hygienist injures a
patient , who is
responsible for the injury
a. Hygienist and supervising dentist
b. Hygienist and the three partners
c. the hygienist only
d. the dentist
133. Bundling and unbundling ..
Unbundling: easy related to ( fmx and charged as individual x rays ) ,and
Bundling: the dentist did 3 surface and the insurance bundled it into one
Same here →a doctors does a class 3 on two surfaces of one tooth and insurance
covers for 1 procedure:

134. Billing for a full-mouth series of radiographs as if they were a number of

individual radiographs is an example of

A- Non-rendering services

B- Upcoding

C- Unbunding

D- Mischaracterization

135. Low literate patient what to do except

- Open-end questions
 - Offer help filling the forms
- Give examples

136. The patient should sign the informed consent for surgery

A- At the time of filling out history and insurance forms

B- After medical history and physical examination

C- After formulation by dentist of a surgical treatment plan

D- After a full discussion of the surgical treatment plan

137. That question about what ada principal and conduct of ethics is not there
● Licensure
● Advertising
● Specialization
Discount / financial

138. Who make sure that health professional use safety?

- OSHA
- ADA
- EPA
139. What is the predominant method of financing dental care in Health Maintenance
Organizations (HMO)?

A- Fee for service

B- Capitation mean every pt should buy from his own pocket

C- Usual, customary, and regular fee

D- Table of allowances

140. SIMILAR- Although the results of a diagnosis test are NOT necessarily accurate,
they are consistent. This test has high
A- Generalizability

B- Specificity

C- Reliability

D- Validity

141. A new test where 90% were wrong diagnostic?

a. - Generalizability
b. - Specificity
c. - Reliability
d. Validity

142. Dentist conducts a study about satisfaction of patients in the past 1 month. Which
study:
Cross-Sectional
143. Dentist wants to evaluate the effect on by pass surgery and nutrition? =
Clinical trial or Cohort

144. Three months ago, an epidemiologist conducted clinical examinations to assess

the dental caries experience of elementary school children. The study could best
described as

A- Retrospective

B- Case- control

C- Cross-sectional

D- Prospective

145. T- test → 2 means

146. Which will be the null hypothesis in a test comparing effect of drug A and B
 - A is better than B
- A is NOT better than B
- B is better than A
147. A person best exemplifies active listening by doing which of the following?

A- Rephrasing the listener’s understanding of the speaker’s communication

B- Using direct eye contact

C- Gathering pertinent information from the speaker quickly and succinctly

D- verifying that the speaker has heard what the listener has said

148. Cases/images
149. amalgam tatoo
150. melanotic macule on palate
151. Pano showing eagle syndrome: calcified stylohyoid
152. Pterigopalatine raphe:
Between sup contrictor and buccinator
From Pterygoid Hamulus to Lingula
153. PANO-Tooth #3 and 14 are extruded, you will do a PRP, why realign?
- Set occlusal plane
- Avoid occlusal interference
- others

154. SIMILAR- A 52-year-old female presents with red, glossy, and swollen gingival.
She has denuded and red areas on both buccal mucosae. The lesions have been
present for months and vary from time to time in severity. Which of the following
represents the most probable diagnosis?

A- Vitamin deficiency

B- Linear gingival erythema

 C- Erosive lichen planus

D- Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

155. Tongue lesion similar to Rhombocyst but it wasn’t an option

156. A 9 year old presents with acute gingival pain of four days duration. There are
small, round ulcers on the interproximal gingival and buccal mucosa. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?

A- Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

B- Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

C- Apthous stomatitis

D- Gingival abscess

157. SIMILAR-A 14-year-old female has gingival tissues that bleed easily on gentle
probing. The color of the gingiva ranges from light red to magenta. Probing depths
range from 1 - 3mm. Some of the interdental papillae are swollen. Which of the
following represents the most likely diagnosis?

A- Gingivitis

B- Localized aggressive periodontitis

C- Herpetic gingivostomatitis

D- Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

158. Picture with lingual varices

159. Fordycee granules are → sebaceous
160. A Patient who has been wearing a maxillary denture for 15 years notices
multiple, reddened, nodular lesions on his palate. The lesions are soft and painless.
The most likely diagnosis is

A- Torus palatinus

B- Epulis fissuratum
C- Nicotinic stomatitis

D- Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia

161. Smokeless tobacco has NOT been associated with which of the following?

A- Tooth abrasion

B- Gingival recession

C- Verrucous carcinoma

D- Nicotine stomatitis

E- Squamous cell carcinoma

162. SIMILAR- A patient with hypertension arrives for a scheduled crown preparation
appointment with a blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 90 bpm.
The initial response by the dentist should be to

A- Call the patient’s physician

B- Reschedule the patient

C- Have the patient take nitroglycerin

D- Wait 15 minutes to re-take vital signs

163. All 3 organisms in bacteria endocarditis

164. -Similar- A 65-year-old white male smokes 2 packs of cigarretes per day. He had
a heart attack six weeks ago and continues to have chest pains even while at rest.
He is transported to the office by wheelchair because be becomes extremely short of
breath with even mild exertion. The physical status that best describes the above
 patients is

A- P.S.I

B- P.S.II

C- P.S.III

D- P.S.IV

165. Most dents in dents cause → necrosis?

166. Implant platform ideal high in order to get best cervical profile, 2 questions, 1
related with the CEJ of the neighbor tooth, another in relation with the gingival
margin
167. Patient with high smile line, fracture crown 1 mm above crest, what to do?
- Ortho extruction
- Extract
- Crown length
168. What to do if you want to make tooth seen narrow?
- Horizontal lines
- Vertical lines in the middle
- Vertical lines in the marginal crests
169. A patient has only the mandibular anterior teeth remaining. The treatment plan
calls for a maxillary complete denture and mandibular removable partial denture.
Which of the following is desirable in the occlusal scheme?

A- Bilateral simultaneous contact of anterior and posterior teeth in centric relation

position

B- Canine guidance with posterior disclusion during excursive movements

C- Bilateral balanced contact during excursive movements

D- Unilateral group function during excursive movements

170. How to treat 6mm oroantral communication → flap?

171. If tuberosity fractures
 - Remove loose bone
- Remove all

172. Similar- Each of the following would be included in a differential diagnosis of the
palatal pigmentation EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

A- Lentigo

B- Melanotic macula

C- Melanocytic nevus

D- Melanotic neuroectodermal tumor

173. Similar- Which of the following is related to reciprocal anchorage in orthodontic

therapy?

A- Tipping a tooth

B- Extraoral force

C- Equal and opposite forces

D- Bodily movement of a tooth

This cases came exactly the same… the other 10 were like a mixed of all others we
have seen.
1- The patient

A- Is at increased risk for bleeding

B- Is at increased risk for hepatocellular carcinoma

C- Is a potential carrier for hepatitis A

D- Had a disease that does not involve a bloodborne pathogen

2- Which side-effect of sertraline (Zoloft) has implications for the patient’s oral health?

A- Gingival inflammation

B- Salivary hypofunction

C- Tissue hyperplasia
D- Aphthous ulcers

3- The patient states that “all of my teeth are sensitive to hot and cold, and my gums
bleed whenever I brush my teeth”. The initial treatment should involve each of the
following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A- Full-mouth scalling and root planning

B- Prescription for a desensitizing toothpaste

C- 4 quadrants of periodontal surgery

D- Home care instruction, then follow up visit

4- The most likely cause of the V-shaped radiolucency between the roots of the teeth 2
and 4 would be

A- An idiopathic bone cavity

B- A maxillary sinus pseudocyst

C- Maxillary sinus

D- A radicular cyst

5- Which would NOT be included in a differential diagnosis of the right mandibular

radiolucency?

A- Keratocystic odontogenic tumor

B- Ameloblastoma

C- Periapical (radicular) cyst

D- Lateral periodontal cyst

6- Which side-effect of sertraline (Zoloft) has implications for the patient’s oral health?

A- Gingival inflammation

B- Salivary hypofunction

C- Tissue hyperplasia

D- Aphthous ulcers

7- The best initial management for the mandibular radiolucency would be

A- Radiographic follow-up in 6 months

B- Endodontic therapy on tooth 31

C- Incisional biopsy

D- Block resection

8- The technique to image the lingual opacity was

A- An occlusal radiograph

B- A modified panoramic image

C- An axial plane cone beam CT

D- A modified periapical radiograph

9- What is the Angle Classification of the molar relationships?

A- Left Class I, Right Class II

B- Left Class I, Right Class III

C- Left Class II, Right Class I

D- Left Class II, Right Class III

E- Left Class III, Right Class I

10- An exaggerated curve of the occlusal plane and loss of the image clarity of the roots
of the anterior teeth is indicative of a

A- Normal finding

B- Panoramic positioning error

C- Film processing error

D- Developmental disorder

11- Preventive oral health behavior is influenced by each of the following factors
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A- Public policy

B- Social context

C- Psychological factors

D- Access to preventive measures

12- What is the most likely cause of the chalky-white appearance of the enamel of this
patient’s teeth?

A- Fluorosis

B- Ectodermal dysplasia

C- Amelogenesis imperfecta

D- Dentinogenesis imperfecta
13- Which is true about the position of tooth 27?

A- Missing premolar on the mandibular left has allowed more space for the left canine

B- Mandibular incisors have shifted to the right blocking out the right canine

C- Posterior teeth have drifted mesially more on the mandibular right than the left

D- Right canine has ankylosed whereas the left canine has undergone normal eruption

14- The lesion between teeth 30 and 31 is treated by enucleation and curettage. Each
of the following are risks with this procedure EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

A- Devitalization of teeth 30 and 31

B- Damage to the lingual nerve

C- Post-operative infection

D- Damage to the inferior alveolar nerve

E- Lesion recurrence