9/20/2020 MCQ QUESTIONS

AUTOMBILE ENGINEERING

TOUR2TECH
 UNIT 1: Introduction to automobiles

1. Which is not the type of automobile with respect to use?

a. Mopeds

b. Scooters

c. Motor cycle

d. Light weight vehicle

2. What are the types of automobiles with respect to transmission?

a. Conventional

b. Automatic

c. Semi-automatic

d. All of these

3. Which of these is not necessary for the description of an automobile

a) Type
b) Capacity
c) Colour
d) Model

4. Which of these is necessary for the description of an automobile

a) Make
b) Model
c) Capacity
d) All of the mentioned

5. Volkswagen Polo’ is a
a) Ultra-compact car
b) Sub-compact car
c) Compact car
d) Executive car
6. Which of these falls under LMV (Light Motor Vehicle) category based on capacity?
a) Motorbikes
b) Cars
c) Buses
d) Train

7. Abbreviation HEVs stands for what

a) Highly Efficient Vehicles
b) Hybrid Electric Vehicles
c) Highly Economic Vehicles
d) Highly Engineered Vehicles

8. The transmission system transmits _________ from engine to wheels.

a) Speed
b) Power
c) Current
d) Pressure

9. The loads supported by an automobile frame are

a) Weight of the body, passengers and cargo loads

b) Torque from engine and transmission
c) Sudden impacts from collisions
d) All of the mentioned

10. A transmission system consists of ____

a) Clutch
b) Gear box
c) Propeller
d) All of these
11. Which is used to carry the load of passengers or goods carried in the body?

a. Chassis

b. Gear box

c. Clutch
d. None of these

12. In which type of chassis, the engine is fitted front of driver seat?

a. Semi-forward chassis

b. Full-forward chassis

c. Bus chassis
d. None of these

13. In which type of chassis, the engine is fitted inside driver seat?

a) Semi-forward chassis

b) Full-forward chassis

c) Bus chassis
d) None of these

14. What are ‘Wings’ of a vehicle?

a. Spoilers at the front of a vehicle

b. Spoilers at the rear of a vehicle
c. Spoilers at the sides of a vehicle
d. Spoilers at the top of a vehicle

15. Which type of wheel drive has 50-50 % weight distribution?

a. Front engine front wheel drive

b. Front engine rear wheel drive

c. Both
d. None of these
16. In which type of wheel drive, we require use of propeller shaft?

a) Front engine front wheel drive

b) Front engine rear wheel drive

c) Both
d) None of these

17. In case of real wheel drive, real floor is flat because of presence of propeller shaft.

a. True

b. False

18. What are the purposes of chassis frame?

a. It forms a base for mounting engine and transmission system

b. It accommodates the suspension system

c. It takes engine and transmission thrust and torque stress.

d. All of these

19. In frameless construction, weight of vehicle increases.

a. True
b. False

20. Which type of construction having less impact resistance?

a. Frame construction

b. Frameless construction

c. Both

d. None of these
21. In which type of vehicle body, the ground clearance is more?
a) Conventional body
b) Unitary body
c) Both
d) None of these

22. Which type of vehicle body having higher centre of gravity?

a) Conventional body
b) Unitary body
c) Both
d) None of these

23. Which type of vehicle body having more wear and corrosion?

a) Conventional body

b) Unitary body

c) Both
d) None of these

24. What are the objectives of suspension system?

a. To prevent road shock being transmitted to the different automobile components.

b. To prevent and safeguard the occupants from road shocks.

c. To give stability to vehicle in pitching or rolling, while in motion.

d. All of these

25. Which one is the type of rear axle?

a. Semi-floating axle

b. Three quarter floating axle

c. Full floating axle

d. All of these
26. BMW is a leading German engine and automobile manufacturing company. Here BMW is an
abbreviation for

a. British Motor Works

b. Bayerische Motoren Werke
c. Bayerische Machine Werke
d. Bright Motor Works

27. Which one of these is a Sports car?

a) Honda S2000
b) Mercedes-Benz S-Class
c) Audi A6
d) Porsche 911

28. Which one is not in the list of stroke that cycle consists?

a. Suction stroke

b. Compression stroke

c. Exhaust stroke
d. Centre stroke

29. When the compression of charge takes place by return stroke of piston?

a. During suction stroke

b. During compression stroke

c. During exhaust stroke

d. None of these

30. Less current rated battery is required in LPG/CNG Engine.

a. True
b. False
31. Which is used to disconnect the engine the drive the engine to driving wheels?

a. Brake

b. Clutch
c. Propeller shaft
d. None of these

32. Which is used to provide the necessary variation to driving torque according to operating
conditions?

a) Brake

b) Gearbox

c) Propeller shaft
d) None of these

33. Control consists of ______

a. Steering system

b. Brake pedal

c. Clutch pedal

d. Accelerator pedal
e. All of these

34. Which of the following is not a part of the transmission system

a) Clutch
b) Axles
c) Wheels
d) Gear box
35. The loads supported by an automobile frame are

a) Weight of the body, passengers and cargo loads

b) Torque from engine and transmission

c) Sudden impacts from collisions
d) All of the mentioned

36. An automobile chassis does not include which one of the following parts
a) Shock absorbers

b) Steering system
c) Differential

d) Brakes

37. The electrical system of an automobile contains which of the following

a) Battery

b) Alternators
c) Lighting systems

d) All of the mentioned

38. Which of these were or are used in automobiles to provide suspension.

a) Leaf springs

b) Coil springs
c) Torsion bars

d) All of the mentioned

39. If there are 7 clutch plates in a multi-plate clutch, what is the number of pair of contact
surfaces?
a) 5

b) 4
c) 6
 d) 8

40. The clutch plate has 160 mm inside and 240 mm outside diameter. The total force provided by the
springs is 5 kN, when the clutch is new. The coefficient of friction is 0.4. What is the torque
transmitted?

a) 300 Nm

b) 350 Nm
c) 400 Nm

d) 450 Nm

41. Where is the clutch located?

a) Between transmission and engine

b) Between transmission and rear axle

c) Between transmission and propeller shaft

d) Between transmission and differential

42. Which of the following is the disadvantage of the cone clutch?

a) It becomes difficult to disengage the clutch when the cone angle is less than 20°
b) It is silent in operation

c) The normal force on the contact surface is larger than the axial force

d) Same torque can be transmitted for the same size as the plate clutch

43. Which of the following is the need of the gearbox?

a) To vary the speed of the vehicle

b) To vary the torque of the vehicle

c) To vary the power of the vehicle

d) To vary the acceleration of the vehicle

44. In which type of manual transmission the double-declutching is used?
a) Constant-mesh gearbox

b) Sliding mesh gearbox

c) Synchromesh gearbox

d) Epicyclical gearbox

45. In which of the gearbox all gears are always in contact?

a) Constant-mesh gearbox

b) Sliding mesh gearbox

c) Synchromesh gearbox

d) Epicyclical gearbox

46. In which of the gearbox sun and planet gear set is used?
a) Constant-mesh gearbox

b) Sliding mesh gearbox

c) Synchromesh gearbox

d) Epicyclical gearbox

47. Which of the following is not part of automatic transmission?

a) Epicyclic gearbox

b) Torque convertor
c) Multi-plate clutch

d) Sliding mesh gearbox

48. Increase of torque in a vehicle is obtained by decreasing power.

a) True

b) False
49. Form drag is also known as ______

a. Profile drag

b. Move drag

c. Side drag

d. None of these
50. When complete body of vehicle goes up and down, it is known as ____

a. Profile drag

b. Yawing movement

c. Side drag

d. None of these
51. _______ is a mixture of propane and butane.

a. CNG

b. LPG

c. Both

d. None of these
52. What is the full form of BEVs?

a. Battery Electric Vehicles

b. Balanced Electric Vehicle

c. Battery Electro magnetic vehicle

d. None of these
53. What is the full form of PHEVs?

a. Plugin Hybrid Electric Vehicles

b. Balanced Electric Vehicle
c. Battery Electro magnetic vehicle
d. None of these
 Topic: Automobile transmission system

1. Why are the helical gears used commonly in transmission over spur gears?

a) Low cost and high strength

b) Low noise level and high strength

c) Low noise level and economy

d) Low noise level and low cost

2. Where is the clutch located?

a) Between transmission and engine

b) Between transmission and rear axle

c) Between transmission and propeller shaft

d) Between transmission and differential

3. Which of the following is the coefficient of friction of the clutch plate?

a) 1.3

b) 0.8
c) 0.4

d) 0.1

4. Which of the following parts of the cover assembly that hold the pressure plate against the
clutch plate?
a) Springs

b) Thrust bearings
c) Struts

d) Lever
5. The following provides a smooth means of disengagement and engagement between the engine and
the remainder of transmission system

a) Clutch

b) Gearbox

c) Propeller shaft

d) Differential

6. Mechanical transmission can be of following class

a) Clutch, gearbox and live axle transmission

b) Clutch, gearbox and dead axle transmission

c) Clutch, gearbox and axle less transmission

d) All of the above

7. The live axle houses

a) Final drive

b) Differential

c) half shafts

d) All of the above

8. Which is not the situation when clutch is disengaged?

a) When the vehicle is moving

b) When starting the vehicle

c) When changing the gear

d) When stopping the vehicle when engine is idle.

9. What are the requirements of a clutch?

a. Torque transmission

b. Gradual engagement

c. Heat dissipation

d. Vibration dumping

e. All of these

10. Which is not a component of clutch?

a. Clutch plate

b. Clutch lining

c. Pressure plate

d. Filter paper

11. Which one is the type of friction material?

a. Millboard type

b. Molded type

c. Woven type

d. All of these

12. The torque transmissions depends upon _____

a. Size of clutch plate

b. Coefficient of friction

c. Spring pressure

d. All of these
13. Dry clutch has increased number of frictional as well as metal plates to transmit high torque.

a. True

b. False

14. Which type of clutch is used for high torque transmission?

a. Single plate clutch

b. Multi plate clutch

c. Both a & b

d. None of these

15. Which type of clutch exerts uniform pressure?

a. Single plate clutch

b. Multi plate clutch

c. Diaphragm clutch

d. None of these

16. Which type of clutch has tendency to distort in traverse direction at high speeds?

a. Single plate clutch

b. Diaphragm clutch

c. Coil spring clutch

d. None of these

17. Load deflection curve is linear in Diaphragm clutch.

a. True

b. false
18. Which type of clutch has non-linear deflection curve?

a. Diaphragm clutch

b. Coil spring clutch

c. Both

d. None of these

19. What could be the reason of a clutch slip?

a. Weak or broken clutch spring.

b. Incorrect linkage adjustment

c. Worn out facing.

d. Any of these

20. What is the formula for tractive resistance?

a. Tractive resistance = wind resistance + gradient resistance + rolling resistance

b. Tractive resistance = wind resistance - gradient resistance + rolling resistance

c. Tractive resistance = wind resistance * gradient resistance * rolling resistance

d. None of these

21. Live axle does not rotate with wheels, but the wheels rotate on it.

a. True

b. False

22. Fluid flywheel is also known as _____

a. Hydraulic coupling

b. Pneumatic coupling

c. Both

d. None of these
23. What is connected to the input shaft in the flying flywheel?

a. Turbine

b. Housing shell

c. Impeller

d. None of these

24. What we use to provide maximum torque at starting of vehicle from rest, and torque gradually
decreases as vehicle gains speed?

a. Impeller

b. Turbine

c. Torque convertor

d. None of these

25. Epicyclical gearbox consists of _____

a. Sun wheel

b. Planet gear

c. Planet carrier

d. All of these

26. What is used to transfer power from gearbox to rear axle through differential?

a. Impeller

b. Propeller shaft

c. Both a & b
d. Sun wheel
27. The metering valve is used to proportion the braking effect between the front and the rear axle.
a) True
b) False

28. Maximum intensity of pressure for multi plate clutch is given by ____
a) C/R

b) C/R2
c) C/r2

d) C/r1

29. Which types of joints are used when the shafts are inclined?
a) Universal joint

b) Hinge joint
c) Ball and socket joint

d) Pivot joint

30. The axes of the two shafts are intersecting and are at 25° to each other. These two shafts are
connected by Hook’s joint. At which position of the drives shaft velocity ratio will be maximum?
a) 90°, 270°

b) 0°, 180°
c) 180°, 270°

d) 90°, 180°

31. Which of the following is the disadvantage of the open differential? a) High in cost

b) Not reliable
c) Complex design

d) Sends most of the power to the wheel having less traction

32. Two-piece propeller shaft requires one universal joint.
a) True
b) False

33. ______ is used for a shaft that supports rotating elements like wheels, drums or rope sleaves.
a) Spindle

b) Axle
c) Shaft

d) None of the listed

34. Axle is frequently used in torque transmission.

a) True
b) False

35. Is it necessary for an axle to be ______ with respect to rotating element?

a) Stationary

b) Moving
c) Moving or stationary

d) None of the listed

36. Counter shaft is a secondary shaft.

a) True
b) False

37. Shafts are subjected to ______ forces.

a) Compressive

b) Tensile
c) Shear

d) None of the listed

 Topic: Automobile control system

1. _____ is the device used for slowing, stopping and controlling the vehicle.

a. Accelerator

b. Brake

c. Clutch

d. None of these

2. Which brakes are operated by foot pedal for regular operation?

a. Service brake

b. Emergency brake

c. Both

d. None of these

3. Which brakes are operated by hand liver while parking?

a) Service brake

b) Emergency brake

c) Both

d) None of these

4. Which factors affecting the ability of the brakes?

a. Radius of brake drum

b. Radius of tyre

c. Breaking effort

d. All of these
5. Which type of brakes is used for small and light cars?

a. Manually operated brakes

b. Servo brakes

c. Power operated brakes

d. None of these

6. Which type of brakes is operated by compressed air?

a) Manually operated brakes

b) Servo brakes

c) Power operated brakes

d) None of these

7. Which one is the type of brake on the basis of application?

a. Vacuum brake

b. Air brake

c. Hydraulic brake

d. Service brake

8. Which one is not the type of brake on the basis of power employed?

a) Vacuum brake

b) Air brake

c) Hydraulic brake

d) Service brake
9. The hydraulic brake system consists of _____

a. Master cylinder

b. Brake cylinder

c. Brake drum

d. All of these

10. Which type of equipment is used to build the hydraulic pressure required to operate the system?

a) Master cylinder

b) Brake cylinder

c) Brake drum

d) All of these

11. What is used to maintain the constant pressure in the reservoir?

a. Master cylinder

b. Air compressor

c. Unloaded valve

d. Brake chamber

12. ______ speeds up the braking action and release of air from brake chamber.

a. Brake chamber

b. Relay valve

c. Quick release valve

d. None of these
13. Which one is a mechanical type brake?

a. Drum type brake

b. Disc type brake

c. Both a & b

d. None of these

14. Brake shoes is made of ____

a. Iron

b. Aluminium

c. Pressed steel

d. All of these

15. Generally which brakes are on the front wheels?

a. Drum brake
b. Disk brake
c. Shoe brake
d. Double shoe brake

16. When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is converted to

a. Mechanical energy

b. Heat energy

c. Electrical energy
17. In disc brake, the disc is attached to the

a) wheel

b) axle

c) suspension system

d) none of the above

18. Hydraulic brakes function on the principle of

a) Law of conservation of momentum

b) Law of conservation of energy

c) Pascal’s law

d) None of the above

19. The process of removing air from the brake system is known as

a) bleeding

b) self-energizing

c) servo action

d) energization

20. Pneumatic brakes are same as electrical brakes.

a) Yes both are concerned with electricity

b) No, one deals with pressure and other with electricity

c) Yes both deals with pressure

d) None of the listed

21. Internal shoe brakes are radial while external shoe brakes are axial brakes.
a) True
b) False
22. Disc brakes are radial brakes.
a) True
b) False

23. Mechanical brake is not as powerful as compare to pneumatic brakes.

a. True

b. False

24. In which type of brake, response is faster?

a. Mechanical brake
b. Pneumatic brake
c. Same in both
d. None of these

25. In which type of brake, does not require compressor for its operation?

a. Mechanical brake
b. Pneumatic brake
c. Same in both
d. None of these

26. The process of releasing and reapplying the brake in succession is called ____

a. Pressure modulation
b. Pressure modification
c. Motion stabilization
d. None of these
27. What is the full form of ECU?

a. Electromagnetic control unit

b. Electronic control unit

c. Electric common unit

d. None of these

28. What is the full form of HCU?

a. Hypertension control unit

b. Hypertension communication unit

c. Hydraulic control unit

d. None of these

29. What is the approx. steering ratio of any car?

a. 12:3

b. 12:1

c. 23:2

d. None of these

30. What is the approx. steering ratio of heavy vehicle?

a. 35:1

b. 12:5

c. 12:1

d. 54:5
31. In which type of steering, operating assembly is a part of steering gear?

a. Integral type

b. Linkage type

c. Both

d. None of these

32. In the steering gear, a gear sector or toothed roller is meshed with a
a) ball bearing

b) roller bearing
c) worm

d) steering wheel

33. The only service that a steering linkage normally requires is

a) tie-rod adjustment

b) lubrication
c) ball-joint replacement

d) none of the mentioned

34. Hard steering is a result of

a) very loose steering linkage

b) worn out steering linkage

c) too loose front wheel bearings

d) incorrect lubricant

35. What is the purpose of the reciprocating ball type steering gear?
a) To reduce the operating cost

b) To reduce the number of parts

c) To reduce the operating friction

d) To reduce the toe-out during the turns

36. What is the full form of KPI?

a. King Pin Inclination

b. Kinetic Pin Inclination

c. Key Position Inclination

d. All of these

37. Which of the following sign notify that the steering system is not so good?

a. Hard steering

b. Abnormal tyre wears

c. Poor recovery on turns

d. All of these

38. Which one is not the function of steering system?

a. To turn the vehicle at the will of the driver

b. To control direction of automotive vehicle.

c. To control the tear and wear of tyres.

d. All of these

39. Which one is not the type of ABS System?

a. Two wheel ABS system

b. Three wheel ABS system

c. Four wheel ABS system

d. None of these
 Topic: Automobile Suspension, wheels & Tyres

1. What are the sources of vibration?

a. Road imperfections

b. Variation in torque

c. Brake dip

d. All of these

2. What do we call a movement of the vehicle suspension upward?

a. Jounce

b. Rebound

c. Sprung weight

d. None of these

3. What do we call a movement of the vehicle suspension in the opposite direction of the jounce?

a) Jounce

b) Rebound

c) Sprung weight

d) None of these

4. ____ is the weight of the vehicle carried by the suspension ring.

a. Sprung weight

b. Unspring weight

c. Spring rate

d. None of these
5. ____ is the total weight of all components in a vehicle that are not dampened by the spring.

a) Sprung weight

b) Unsprung weight

c) Spring rate

d) None of these

6. Leaf spring is made up of ____

a. Chrome – vanadium steel

b. Silicon – manganese steel

c. Carbon steel

d. All of these

7. How to prevent the longitudinal displacement in leaf spring?

a. Leaves are cornered from each other

b. Leaves are bolted together by a centre bolt

c. Leaves bypasses each other

d. None of these

8. Leaf springs absorb shocks by

a) bending

b) twisting

c) compression

d) tension
9. Coil springs absorb shocks by

a) bending

b) twisting

c) compression

d) tension

10. The following is a type of leaf springs

a) three Quarter elliptic

b) semi elliptic

c) quarter elliptic

d) all of the above

11. The material used for making torsion bar is

a) Steel

b) Cast iron

c) High carbon steel

d) All of the above

12. Shackles are sort of

a) coupling

b) link
c) spring

d) none of the above

13. Spring shackles are used to join

a) chassis frame and spring

b) Spring and Axle

c) chassis frame and axle

d) all of the above

14. Drive (live) axles

a) are simply beams which supports the vehicle weight

b) are usually the front axles

c) contain differential

d) all of the above

15. Dead axles

a) are simply beams which supports the vehicle weight

b) are usually the rear axles

c) contain differential

d) all of the above

16. elescopic shock observer consists of

a) One chamber

b) two chambers

c) three chamber

d) four chambers

17. The coil spring in used in

a) Wishbone Arm system

b) Trailing Link system

c) Sliding Pillar system

d) all of the above

18. Un-sprung weight is

a) Weigh of vehicle

b) Weigh of chassis frame

c) Weight of wheels

d) Weight of wheels and axles

19. Sprung weight is

a) Weigh of vehicle minus unsprung weight

b) Weigh of chassis frame

c) Weight of wheels

d) Weight of wheels and axles

20. While in motion, the vehicle suspension is subjected to

a) bouncing

b) pitching

c) rolling

d) all of the above

21. Rear wheel independent suspension required more maintenance and increased bearing?

a) True

b) False

22. What is the use of spring?

a. To prevent the rusting from moist and air.

b. To cushion the vehicle and passengers from road shock.

c. Both

d. None of these
23. Which is used to control the quick bouncing of the wheels on the road for stability?

a. Spring

b. Shock absorber

c. Compressor

d. None of these

24. How much resistance is provided by a shock absorber?

a. Proportional to the square of motion of flow.

b. Proportional to the of motion of flow.

c. 30% of the total pressure exerted by the wheels

d. None of these

25. What are the functions of wheels?

a. The wheels support the whole load and weight of the vehicle.

b. It absorbs the road shocks and provides cushioning effect.

c. All the wheels withstand side thrust and resists braking stress.

d. All of these
26. Which wheels steer the vehicle?

a) Rear wheels

b) Front wheels

c) Both

d) None of these

27. Which type of wheels is generally used in sports cars?

a. Pressed steel disc wheel

b. Wire wheel

c. Light alloy cast wheel

d. None of these

28. Which types of wheels cannot be used with a tubeless tire?

a) Disc wheel

b) Light alloy wheel

c) Wire wheel

d) Composite wheel

29. In case of a wire wheel, the vehicle weight is supported by the wire in _________
a) Tension

b) Bending
c) Shear

d) Compression
30. What does the ‘ply rating’ refer to?
a) Aspect ratio

b) Rated strength
c) Recommended inflation pressure

d) The actual number of plies

31. Where will an underinflated tire wear the thread most?

a) Near centre

b) Near the edge

c) In the cross direction

d) In the lateral direction

32. Where will an overinflated tire wear the thread most?

a) Near center

b) Near the edge

c) In the cross direction

d) In the lateral direction

33. What do the permissible of mixing cross-ply and radial-ply automobile tires allow?
a) Cross-ply tires on left wheels

b) Cross-ply tires on right wheels

c) Cross-ply tires on front wheels

d) Cross-ply tires on rear wheels

34. In which type of tyre, piles are running diagonally opposite from bed to bed?

a. Cross-ply Tyre

b. Radial-ply tyre

c. Centre-ply tyre

d. None of these

35. In which type of tyre, piles are running radially straight from bed to bed?

a) Cross-ply Tyre

b) Radial-ply tyre

c) Centre-ply tyre

d) None of these

36. Air retaining liner is provided on conventional tyre.

a. True

b. False

37. In which type of tyre, tyre need to be removed. Plug is inserted in place of puncture?

a. Conventional tyre

b. Tubeless tyre

c. Radial tyre

d. None of these
 38. Which type of tyre is suitable for spoked wheels rims?

a. Conventional tyre

b. Tubeless tyre

c. Radial tyre

d. Both a & c

39. In case SR radial tyres, what is the maximum speed limit?

a. 170km/hr

b. 210km/hr

c. 230km/hr

d. None of these

40. In case HR radial tyres, what is the maximum speed limit?

a) 170km/hr

b) 210km/hr

c) 230km/hr

d) None of these

41. In case VR radial tyres, what is the maximum speed limit?

a) 170km/hr

b) 210km/hr

c) More than 210

d) None of these
42. What could be the reason of incorrect inflation?

a. Tyre alignment

b. Tyre pressure

c. Steering mechanism

d. None of these

43. What could be the reason of bleeding of air in tyre?

a) Tyre alignment

b) Tyre pressure

c) Steering mechanism

d) Valve dis-functioning

44. _____ is the equal distribution of weight on each side of tyre centreline.

a. Centre balancing

b. Dynamic balancing

c. Static balancing

d. None of these

45. _____ is the equal distribution of weight around the wheels.

a) Centre balancing

b) Dynamic balancing

c) Static balancing

d) None of these
 46. What are the factors affecting the wheel and tyre balancing?

a. Lateral run out of wheel

b. Radial run out of tyre

c. Uneven weight distribution

d. All of these

e. None of these

47. What causes increased rolling resistance and increased fuel consumption?

a. Designations

b. Inflation

c. Casing pile

d. None of these

48. Which improved standard of ride comfort and noise reduction?

a. Air suspension

b. Shock absorber

c. Coil spring

d. None of these
 Topic: Automobile Electrical & Electronics System

1. Rate of flow of electric charge over a point or a region is called _____

a. Voltage

b. Current

c. Resistance

d. None of these

2. The potential difference in a charge between two points is called _____

a) Voltage

b) Current

c) Resistance

d) None of these

3. Opposition of flow of current through any material is called _____

a) Voltage

b) Current

c) Resistance

d) None of these

4. Define Ohm’s law.

a. V = IR

b. I = RV

c. R = IV

d. None of these
 5. _____ is a process in which a magnetic field is created by the flow of current.
a. Induction

b. Electromagnetism

c. Voltage

d. None of these

6. Which process is used to convert the alternating current into direct current?

a) Induction

b) Electromagnetism

c) Voltage

d) Rectification

7. Which device is used to regulate the voltage or current flow and acts as ca switch and amplifier?

a. Transistor

b. Rectifier

c. Resistor

d. None of these

8. Which component allows the flow of electric current only in one direction?

a. Transistor

b. Resistor

c. Diode

d. Rectifier
9. What are the functions of battery?

a. The battery supplies high value of current to starter motor and low current to ignition
system.

b. It supplies current to the electrical units when the total demands exceed the power
output of generator or alternator.

c. It stores electrical energy and controls the voltage of electrical system.

d. d. All of these

10. What is the colour of a positive plate of a lead-acid battery?

a) White

b) Grey
c) White

d) Brown

11. What gets deposited on the plates of a discharged lead-acid battery?

a) PbO2

b) Pb2O4
c) Pb

d) PbSO4

12. What is the twenty-minute rating of battery?

a) Rate of current for 20 minutes with a minimum cell voltage of 1.5 V

b) Time for which the battery can supply 25 A at 80℉ with minimum cell voltage
1.75 V

c) The current which the battery can supply continuously for 30 seconds with minimum cell voltage 1.2
V

d) Lasting power of a battery on a small load

13. What is the reserve capacity of battery?

a) Time for which the battery can supply 25 A at 80℉ with minimum cell voltage
1.75 V

b) The current which the battery can supply continuously for 30 seconds with minimum cell voltage 1.2
V

c) Lasting power of a battery on a small load

d) Rate of current for 20 minutes with a minimum cell voltage of 1.5 V

14. What is the cold rate of a battery?

a) Lasting power of a battery on a small load

b) Rate of current for 20 minutes with a minimum cell voltage of 1.5 V

c) The current which the battery can supply continuously for 30 seconds with minimum cell voltage 1.2
V

d) Time for which the battery can supply 25 A at 80℉ with minimum cell voltage
1.75V

15. What is a twenty-hour rate of a battery?

a) The current which the battery can supply continuously for 30 seconds with minimum cell voltage 1.2
V

b) Lasting power of a battery on a small load

c) Time for which the battery can supply 25 A at 80℉ with minimum cell voltage
1.75V

d) Rate of current for 20 minutes with a minimum cell voltage of 1.5 V

16. What should a fully-charged 6 cell automotive battery indicate?
a) 12 V

b) 12.6 V
c) The specific gravity of 1.29 at 32℃

d) 12.6 V and the specific gravity of 1.29 at 32℃

17. What is the number of positive plates in a battery cell?

a) One more than the negative plates

b) Two less than the negative plates

c) One less than the negative plates

d) Two more than the negative plates

18. What is a maintenance-free battery?

a) A battery having lead-antimony plate grid

b) A battery having lead-calcium plate grid

c) A battery does not contain acid

d) A battery does not contain water

19. Which of the following is the advantage of alkaline battery?

a) High energy density

b) Good discharge characteristics over a wide range of temperature

c) The specific gravity of electrolyte remains the same

d) Cheap raw materials are used

20. What is used as a electrolyte in lead acid battery?

a. Hydrochloric acid

b. Sulphuric acid

c. Nitric acid

d. None of these
21. What is the use of separators in battery?

a. To give the ignition to the battery.

b. To allow the flow of current.

c. To hold the plates apart.

d. None of these

22. How much of amount of sulphuric acid is used in electrolyte?

a. 30%

b. 50%

c. 40%

d. 70%

23. What is the specific gravity of a fully charged battery?

a. 1.220 to 1.230

b. 1.175 to 1.185

c. 1.100 to 1.110

d. None of these

24. What is the specific gravity of a 50% charged battery?

a) 1.220 to 1.230

b) 1.175 to 1.185

c) 1.100 to 1.110

d) None of these
25. What is the specific gravity of a fully discharged battery?

a) 1.220 to 1.230

b) 1.175 to 1.185

c) 1.100 to 1.110

d) None of these

26. What is the open circuit voltage of a fully charged battery?

a. 12.66 volts

b. 12.24 volts

c. 43.22 volts

d. None of these

27. What is the open circuit voltage of a 50% charged battery?

a) 12.66 volts

b) 12.24 volts

c) 43.22 volts

d) None of these

28. On which factors the capacity of battery depends?

a. Number of plates

b. Area of plates

c. Quantity of electrolyte

d. All of these
29. How to prevent the battery terminals from oxidation and corrosion?

a. Apply petroleum jelly and clean the battery

b. Make sure about the uniform voltage supply

c. Prevent it from the sunlight and moisture.

d. None of these

30. I.C engines are self-starting.

a. False

b. True

31. What are the components of a charging system?

a. Generator

b. Regulator

c. Ammeter

d. All of these

32. Which device indicates whether the system is operating or not?

a) Generator

b) Regulator

c) Ammeter

d) All of these
33. What is the full form of DC in respect to battery systems?

a. Directive communicator

b. Direct current

c. Direct communication

d. None of these

34. What is the full form of AC in respect to battery systems?

a. Alternating current

b. Alternative compressor

c. Axial cable

d. None of these

35. What is used to make the contact with slip rings?

a. Rectifier

b. Brushes

c. Pulley wheel

d. Outer case

36. What is used on vehicle to charge battery to operate the electrical circuits?

a. Rectifier

b. Alternator

c. Brushes

d. Compressor
37. Which ignition system is used in the medium and heavy SI engine?

a. Battery ignition system

b. Magneto ignition system

c. Electronic ignition system

d. None of these

38. The amount of induced e.m.f depends upon ___

a. The number of turns on the coil

b. The rate of change of flux

c. Amount of voltage

d. Both a & b

39. Which is used to provide high voltage electric arc at gap between the electrodes?

a. Alternator

b. Spark plug

c. Distributor

d. None of these

40. In magneto ignition system, which type of system in which armature is stationary and magnet
rotates?

a. Rotating magneto type

b. Rotating armature type

c. Polar type

d. None of these
41. In magneto ignition system, which type of system in which armature rotates between the poles of
magnet?

a) Rotating magneto type

b) Rotating armature type

c) Polar type

d) None of these

42. In magneto ignition system, which type of system in which armature and magnets are stationary and
the pole piece rotates?

a) Rotating magneto type

b) Rotating armature type

c) Polar type

d) None of these

43. What is the full form of TAC system?

a. Transistor assisted contact system

b. Transformer assisted contact system

c. Both are same

d. None of these

44. What is the full form of CDI system?

a. Capacity discharge ignition system

b. Compressor discharge ignition system

c. Both are same

d. None of these
45. Which is used to indicate the driver the fuel level?

a. Oil gauge

b. Fuel level gauge

c. Water temperature gauge

d. None of these

46. The device used to measure the clearance between the valve and tappet of an IC

Engine is

a) Feeler gauge

b) Snap gauge
c) Slip gauge

d) Micrometre
 Topic: Motor vehicle act, Road safety act and Garage practices

1. When motor vehicle act was established?

a. 1988

b. 1965

c. 1947

d. 1997

2. What are the purposes of motor vehicle act?

a. Licensing of the drivers

b. Registration of motors

c. Traffic regulations

d. All of these

3. How much penalty will have to pay if a person is driving without license?

a. 1000 INR

b. 500 INR

c. 700 INR

d. NIL.

4. under which section, a person will have to pay the penalty of driving without license?

a. Under section 3 r/w 181

b. Under section 133(3) r/w 177

c. Under section 133 r/w 177

d. None of these
5. Under which section, a person will have to pay the penalty of not carrying all the required
documents?

a) Under section 3 r/w 181

b) Under section 133(3) r/w 177

c) Under section 133 r/w 177

d) None of these

6. Under which section, a person will have to pay the penalty for driving without a valid insurance?

a) Under section 3 r/w 181

b) Under section 133(3) r/w 177

c) Under section 133 r/w 177

d) None of these

7. How much a person will have to pay for not having a valid insurance?

a. 500 INR

b. 1000INR

c. 100 INR

d. 700 INR

8. Motor vehicle act 1988, come into force on date …………………….

a. 1st july, 1988

b. 1st may, 1988

c. 1st july 1989

d. 1st may, 1989

9. Regulatory signs are also called as ___

a. Permanent sign

b. Temporary sign

c. Mandatory sign

d. None of these

10. Under which rule, a trade certificate is given?

a. Under rule 54

b. Under rule 35

c. Under rule 33

d. None of these

11. What is the full form of LGV?

a. Light ground vehicle

b. Light good vehicle

c. Large good vehicle

d. Both b & c

12. What are the major functions of RTO?

a. To enforce the provisions of various motor acts.

b. To ensure co-ordinate development of road transport.

c. To charge and collect tax as per the provisions of the motor vehicle act.

d. d. All of these
13. What is the full form of AMVI?

a. Assistant Motor Vehicle Inspector

b. Assistant Motor Vehicle In charge

c. Both a & b

d. None of these

14. What are the features of an airbag?

a. Inflate in front of windows to provide passengers better head and neck protection.

b. It should be more efficient at tipping and side impacts.

c. It should reduce HIC up to 85%.

d. All of these

15. What is the full form of HIC w.r.t airbag?

a. Head Injury Criterion

b. Head Intermediate Criterion

c. Hydraulic Injection Criteria

d. None of these

16. Which is used to retain people in their seats and to prevent or reduce injuries suffered in a
crash?

a. Airbag

b. Seat belt

c. Steering column

d. None of these
17. Which one is not a category of garage?

a. Three spanner sign garages

b. Break down truck garages

c. One spanner sign garages

d. Middle spanner sign garages

18. In which type of garage, the staff is well trained and qualified?

a) Three spanner sign garages

b) Break down truck garages

c) One spanner sign garages

d) Middle spanner sign garage

19. The minimum age for attaining a license for a geared vehicle is?
a) 16 years
b) 18 years
c) 20 years
d) 21

20. The motor vehicle act was revised in __________

a) 1939

b) 1988
c) 1989

d) 1987

21. The symbol when violated which may lead to offense is?
a) Cautionary

b) Mandatory
c) Informatary

d) Both informatory and cautionary

22. Which of the following is a disadvantage in one way traffic? a) Increase in average travel
speed

b) More effective coordination of signal system

c) More stream lined movement of vehicles

d) More chances of overtaking

23. The total conflict points at a junction on both two way roads are?
a) One

b) Four
c) five

d) six

24. The maximum number of conflict points is formed in __________

a) One way regulation on one road

b) One way regulation on two roads

c) Two way regulation on one road

d) Two way regulation on both roads

25. The specifications for road signs are specified by __________

a) IRC 6

b) IRC 21
c) IRC 67

d) IRC 97

26. STOP sign is having __________

a) Octagonal shape

b) Circular shape
c) Triangular shape

d) Any shape
MCQ QUESTIONS

27. The clearance time is indicated by __________

a) Red

b) Amber
c) Green

d) White

MCQ QUESTIONS I TOU2TECH

MCQ QUESTIONS

NOTE & TIPS

1] All these MCQ Question are for practice and have taken from syllabus.
2] don’t byheart, understand
3] Understand the basic concept.
4] Do more and more practice

MCQ QUESTIONS I TOU2TECH