PART–C

Straight Objective Type 98. Identify A, B, C, and D in the diagram below

This section contains 90 multiple choice questions. Each showing ATP synthesis by chemiosmosis
question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer,
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
91. Which of the following feature is not associated
with mitochondria
(1) Circular nucleic acid
(2) Elementary particles in matrix
(3) 70S ribosome
(4) Division through fission
92. Transport proteins of______ are control points
where a plant adjusts the quantity and types of
solutes that reach the xylem
(1) Hypodermis (2) Endodermis
(3) Pith (4) Pericycle (1) A = Thylakoid, B = F0, C = Catalytic unit for
ATP formation, D = Facilitated diffusion
93. Find odd one w.r.t differentiation
Channel
(1) Loss of nucleus in sieve (2) A = Outer membrane of chloroplast, B =
(2) Death of protoplasm in tracheary elements Cytochrome b6 f, C= F0, D = F1
(3) Callus formation (3) A = Thylakoid, B= H-carrier, C= H+ pump,
(4) Lignification in vessels D = catalytic unit for the synthesis of ATP
94. A leaf of 20 cm2 grouse 5 cm2 per hour and B
(4) A = Single membrane bound structure,
leaf of 25 cm 2 grouse 5 cm2 per hour The B= Cytochrome b6f, C= Facilitated diffusion
relative growth rate leaf A and B respectively is channel, D=Catalytic unit for synthesis of
(1) 25% and 20 % (2) 20% and 25% energy currency
(3) 50% and 100% (4) 25% and 50%
95. Mobile electron carrier in ETS in mitochondrial 99. Gametophytic plant body is nonvascular in
membrane is (1) Algae and liverworts
(1) Complex I (2) cyt C (2) Mosses and ferns
(3) cyt a-a3 (4) cyt b-c1 (3) Gymnosperms and angiosperms
(4) All of the these
96. Which is incorrect statement
100. Read the following statements (i to v) and
(i) Each cell of sporogenous tissue in anther
answer the question.
is capable of giving rise to microspore
(i) Temperature progressively decreases from
tetrad
pole to equator.
(ii) The pollen grain represent male
(ii) Our intestine is a unique habitat for
gametophyte
hundreds of species of microbes.
(iii) Pollen grains are usually triangular and
(iii) Average temperature exceeds 100°C in
10-15 m in diameter
thermal springs and hydrothermal vents.
(iv) Sporopollenin is one of the most resistant
(iv) In polar areas and high altitudes
organic material which can be destroyed
temperature goes to 70°C.
only by strong acids and alkali
(v) Temperature goes to >50°C in tropical
(1) (i), (ii) are incorrect but (iii), (iv) are correct
desert in summer.
(2) (iii), (iv) are incorrect but (i), (ii) are correct
How many of the above statements are
(3) (i), (iii) are incorrect but (ii), (iv) are correct
incorrect?
(4) (ii), (iv) are correct but (i), (iii) are incorrect
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (i), (iv)
97. Match the enzymes given in column -I with its
(3) (ii), (iv), (v) (4) (iii), (iv)
function given in column -II and select the
correct option. 101. Consider the following statements regarding
Column-I Column-II gymnosperms and choose the correct option:
A. -galactosidase I. Joining A. In gymnosperms, the male and female
of DNA fragments gametophytes have an independent
existence
B. Permease II. peptide bond
B. The multicellular female gametophyte is
formation
retained within the Megasporangium
C. Ligase III. Hydrolysis
C. The gymnosperms are always
of lactose
heterosporous
D. Ribozyme IV. Increase
(1) A and B are true but C is false
permeability of
(2) Band C are false but A is true
galactosidase
(3) A and C are false but B is true
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) Band C are true but A is false
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
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102. Identify the missing characters (A, B, C, D) and 107. Which of the following statements (s) is/are
choose the correct option : correct about gemmae
Family Inflorescence Flower Stamens Gynoecium
(a) They are specialised structures by which
Liliaceae Solitary, Actinomorphic C Tricarpellary
cymose
asexual reproduction takes place in
mosses
Solanaceae Solitary, Actinomorphic 5 Bicarpellary
axillary or (b) They are green, multicellular, asexual buds
cymose
(c) They develop in small receptacles called
Fabaceae A B 10 D
gemma cups
(d) They detach from parent body and
(1) A = Racemose, B = Zygomorphic, C = 5, germinate to form new individuals
D = Bicarpellary (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(2) A = Cymose, B = Actinomorphic, C = 3 + 3, (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) All of these
D = Multicarpellary 108. Choose the correct option from the following
(3) A = Cymose, B = Zygomorphic, C = 5, statements
D = Tricarpellary (i) Apomixis is form of asexual reproduction
(4) A = Racemose, B = Zygomorphic, C = 3 + which mimics sexual reproduction
3, D = Monocarpellary (ii) In apomixis seeds develop either from
diploid egg cell or from cells of nucellus
103. Select a correct match (iii) Seeds collected from hybrids plant
(1) GA3– Early seed production in conifers maintain hybrid character for a longer time
(2) Cytokinin–Synchronise fruit set in (iv) In apomixis, there is segregation of
pineapples characters
(3) Auxin–Overcomes senescence (1) All are correct
(4) Ethylene–Seed maturation and (2) All are incorrect
development (3) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
(4) Only (ii), (iv) are correct
104. How many of the given members Belongs to 109. In the diagram given below, some of the algae
vascular embryophytes – have been labelled as 'A', 'B',.'C', 'D' and 'E'.
Mycoplasma, Spirogyra, Sphagnum, Porphyra, These algae are respectively identified as:
Ferns, Fucus, Pinus, Selaginella, Marchantia,
Chlamydomonas, Sequoia
(1) One (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Two

105. Match the column–I (definition) with column–II

(Terms) and select the correct option from the
codes given below
Column –I Column –II (1) Dictyota, Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Fucus
(Definition) (Terms) Laminaria
(A) A Single trait I. Pleiotropy (2) Porphyra, Dictyota, Laminaria, Fucus
Controlled by three Polysiphonia
Or more than three Alleles (3) Dictyota, Polysiphonia, Porphyra,
(B) A Single trait controlled II. Multiple alleles Laminaria and Fucus
By three or more than (4) Fucus, Porphyra, Dictyota, Polysiphonia
and Laminaria
Three genes
(C) A single gene exhibits III. Polygenic 110. A predator
Multiple phenotypic (1) Is too efficient to overexploits its prey
Expression (2) Helps in maintaining species diversity by
(1) A-II; B-III; C-I (2) A-III; B-II; C-I increasing the intensity of competition
(3) A-I; B-II; C-III (4) A-II; B-I; C-III among prey species
(3) Acts as conduits for energy transfer across
106. Satellite DNA trophic leveles
(1) is classified in many categories such as (4) Shows (+,+) interaction with its prey
micro-satellites, mini satellites etc. on the
basis of base composition, length of 111. Carbon constitutes _____of dry weight of
segments and number of repetitive units. organism and _____ percentage is dissolved in
(2) Normally does not code for protein oceans out of total Global carbon
(3) Shows polymorphism (1) 49%, 71% (2) 71%, 49%
(4) All of the above (3) 49%, 49% (4) 71%, 71%

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112. Which of the following statement(s) is/are 120. Biotic potential is
correct? (1) Intrinsic rate of natural increase under
(i) Many plants belongs to family fabaceae environmental limited condition
are good ornamentals (Tulip, Gloriosa), (2) Intrinsic rate of natural increase under
source of medicine (Aloe) and vegetables environmental unlimited condition
(Asparagus) (3) Extrinsic rate of natural increase under
(ii) The plumule and radicle are enclosed in environmental limited condition
sheaths which are called coleorhiza and (4) Extrinsic rate of natural increase under
coleoptile respectively. environmental unlimited condition.
(iii) A flower having either only stamens or only
carpels is unisexual. 121. Himgiri developed by hybridisation and
(iv) Basal, alternate, linear, exstipulate with selection for disease resistant against rust
parallel venation types of leaves is found in pathogen is a variety of
the family liliaceae. (1) Chilli (2) Maize
(1) Only (i) (2) Both (i) and (ii) (3) Sugarcane (4) Wheat
(3) Both (iii) and (iv) (4) All of these
122. How many of the given features are associated
113. The ability of the plant to follow different metabolic with prokaryotic cell?
pathways and produce different structures in Gas vacuole, single envelope system,
response to environment is known as cytoskeleton, Non cellulosic cell wall,
(1) Heterophylly (2) Plasticity microfilaments, cytoplasmic streaming, lack of
(3) Efficiency index (4) Vernalisation any cell organelles
(1) Two (2) Four
114. Transported and storage form of nitrogen in (3) One (4) Three
plants are
(1) Amides (2) Polypeptides 123. Seat of Origin of lateral root and formation of
(3) Amino acids (4) -Ketoglutaric acid cork cambium are features related to
(1) Endodermis (2) Pericycle
115. Which is not true regarding active water (3) Hypodermis (4) Pith rays
absorption?
124. Which of the following is correct?
(1) Require energy
(1) All slime moulds are haploid
(2) Occurs only when transpiration is slow
(2) Protozoans lack cell wall
(3) Living cells are essential
(3) Dino flagellates are non motile
(4) Force develops in shoot
(4) Pellicle is absent in Euglena
116. All the given tissues are formed as a result of
redifferentiation process, Except 125. In family papilionaceae, 5 petals form a unique
(1) Phellum association, In which 3 different elements
(2) Phelloderm participate, these are vexillum, alae & carina.
(3) Secondary xylem
What is the number of these elements-
(4) Interfascicular cambium
(1) 1, 2, 2 respectively
(2) 2, 1, 2 respectively
117. Which one of the following is not observed in
(3) 1, 1, 3 respectively
biodiversity hotspots (4) 2, 2,1 respectively
(1) Species richness
(2) Endemism 126. Polyadelphous stamens are found in
(3) Accelerated species loss (1) Cotton (2) Sunflower
(4) Lesser interspecific competition (3) Grain (4) Lemon
118. Which of the following statements is correct 127. How many components listed below are a part
regarding the C4 plants of cyclic ETS?
(1) The carbon fixation is catalysed by PEP P700, P680, NADP Reductase, Hydrogen carrier
carboxylase PS-I, Water splilting complex, PS-II
(2) Mesophyll cells lack the Rubisco enzyme (1) Two (2) Three
(3) Photorespiration is absent (3) Five (4) Four
(4) More than one option is correct
128. Select the incorrect option (w.r.t tissue culture)
119. In which of the following disorder's affected (1) Genetically identical – Somaclones
individual possess 47 chromosomes (2) Capacity to generate whole plant–
(1) Turner's syndrome Totipotency
(2) Klinefelter's syndrome (3) Plant cell without cell wall – Protoplast
(3) Down's syndrome (4) Virus free part of plant – flower
(4) Both (2) & (3)
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129. Mark the odd one (w.r.t ploidy level) 135. Difference between a red tide and red sea is
(1) Cotyledon – diploid (1) Red tide takes place in red sea
(2) Coleoptile – diploid (2) Associated with a protist and a
(3) Perisperm – haploid cyanobacteria respectively
(4) Primary Endosperm Cell – Triploid (3) One is by virus and other by bacteria
(4) Associated with Rhodophyceae and
130. Which of the following statement (s) is/are not diatoms respectively
correct?
(i) Calyx and corolla are reproductive organs 136. Which is the following harmones has no control
of a flower: over glucose metabolism?
(ii) Zygomorphic flower can be divided into (1) glucagon (2) insulin
two equal radial halves in any radial plane. (3) aldosterone (4) adrenaline
(iii) Flowers without bracts are termed as
bracteate. 137. Most abundant animal protein is found in the
(iv) Parthenocarpic fruit is formed after (1) extracellular matrix
fertilization of the ovary (2) cytoplasm
(v) In legumes, seed is non-endospermic. (3) nucleoplasm
(vi) Radical buds develop on roots. (4) hairs,nails,claws,horns
(1) (i) ,(ii), (iii) and (iv) (2) (i), (ii) and (v)
(3) (iii),(iv) and (vi) (3) (iv), (v) and (i) 138. Examine the diagram of the two cell types A
and B given below and select the correct
131. Which of the statement is incorrect option.
(1) Intine is the inner wall of pollen grain and
exhibit a fascinating array of patterns and
designs
(2) The mature pollen grains has two cells, the
bigger is vegetative cell and the smaller is
generative cell which floats in cytoplasm of
vegetative cell
(3) Carrot grass pollens causes pollen allergy
(4) Pollen grains of pea and rose maintain
viability for months
132. An angiospermic plant is having 24 (1) Cell A is the rod cell found evenly all over
chromosomes in its leaf cells. The number of retina
chromosomes present in synergid, pollen grain, (2) Cell A is the cone cell more concentrated
Nucellus and endosperm will be respectively in the fovea centralis
(1) 12, 12, 12, 72 (2) 8, 8, 12, 36 (3) Cell B is concerned with colour vision in
(3) 12, 12, 24, 36 (4) 12, 12, 12, 36 bright light
(4) Cell A is sensitive to low light intensities
133. Select the incorrect match
Class Member 139. Which one of the following is correct pairing of
(1) Phycomycetes – Albugo a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that
(2) Basidiomycetes – Claviceps moves it?
(3) Ascomycetes – Penicillium (1) Iris–Involuntary smooth muscle
(4) Deuteromycetes – Trichoderma (2) Heart wall–Involuntary unstriated muscle
(3) Biceps of upper arm–Smooth muscle fibres
134. In the following human pedigree, the filled (4) Abdominal wall–Smooth muscle
symbols represent the affected individuals.
Identify the type of given pedigree 140. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of
total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The
result expected indicated
(1) High level of circulating FSH and LH in the
uterus to stimulate implantation of the
embryo
(2) High level of circulating hCG to stimulate
endometrial thickening
(3) High levels of FSH and LH in uterus to
(1) X-linked dominant stimulate endometrial thickening
(2) Autosomal recessive (4) High level of circulating hCG to stimulate
(3) Autosomal dominant estrogen and progesterone synthesis
(4) X-linked recessive
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141. Match the contents of columns I & II and pick
up the appropriate option.
Column-I Column-II
(P) Skull bones (i) Two curves
(Q) Vertebral column (ii) Second vertebra
(R) Carpals (iii) 22
(S) Axis (iv) 14
(T) Clavicle (v) four curves
(1) P–ii, Q–iv, R–ii, S–v, T–i
(2) P–ii, Q–iii, R–i, S–v, T–iv
(3) P–iii, Q–v, R–iv, S–ii, T–i
(4) P–v, Q–iii, R–ii, S–i, T–iv
142. Which one of the following groups of hormones
is related to kidney and adrenal gland ?
(1) Adrenalin, Cortisol, Rennin, ANF
(2) Thyroxine, Cortisol, Melatonin, Rennin
(3) Erythropoetin, Thymosin, ANF, Rennin
(4) Erythropoetin, Cortisol, Renin, Adrenalin
143. Hormones are called chemical signals that
stimulate specific target tissues. Their
specificity is due to the presence of signal
receiving ‘receptors’ in the respective target
tissues only. Where are these receptors
present in case of hormones of protein nature?
(1) Extra cellular matrix
(2) Cytosol
(3) Plasma membrane
(4) Nucleus
144. The inner ear of humans and most other
mammals, is sensitive to body position and
balance. What organ(s) is/are responsible for
this?
(1) Semicircular canals, utricle, and saccule
(2) Cochlea and basilar membrane
(3) Semicircular canals only
(4) Semicircular canals and cochlea
145. An action potential in neurons is characterized
by all of the following except that
(1) It is initiated by opening of voltage-gated
potassium channels
(2) It is characteristic of transmembrane
potential changes that occur in most axons
(3) It is regarded as an all-or-none response
(4) It does not reduce in magnitude with space
or time
146. Which of these statements about gastric
secretion of HCl is false?
(1) HCl is secreted by parietal cells
(2) HCl hydrolyzes peptide bonds
(3) HCl is needed for the conversion of
pepsinogen to pepsin
(4) HCl is needed for maximum activity of
pepsin
147. One of the common symptoms observed in
people infected with dengue fever is
(1) Significant decrease in RBC count
(2) Significant decrease in WBC count
(3) Significant decrease in platelet count
(4) Significant increase in platelet count
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148. Cardiac activity could be moderated by the
autonomous neural system. Tick the correct
answer
(1) The parasympathetic system stimulates
heart rate and stroke volume
(2) The sympathetic system stimulates heart
rate and stroke volume
(3) The parasympathetic system decreases
the heart rate but increase stroke volume
(4) The sympathetic system decreases the
heart rate but increase stroke volume
149. ECG depicts the depolarisation and
repolarisation processes during the cardiac
cycle. In the ECG of a normal healthy individual
one of the following waves is not represented.
(1) Depolarisation of atria
(2) Repolarisation of atria
(3) Depolarisation of ventricles
(4) Repolarisation of ventricles
150. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect
(1) The medullary zone of kidney is divided
into a few conical masses called medullary
pyramids projecting into the calyces.
(2) Inside the kidney the cortical region
extends in between the medullary
pyramids as renal pelvis.
(3) Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule
is called the renal corpuscle.
(4) Renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted
tabule (PCT) and distal convoluted tubule
(DCT) of the nephron are situated in the
cortical region of kidney.
151. What will happen shortly after a person of
Kerala reaches Mount Everest?
(1) His breathing rate and heart beat will
increase
(2) His breathing rate and hearbeat will
decrease
(3) His breathing rate will increase but
heartbeat will decrease
(4) His breathing rate will decrease but
heartbeat will increase
152. Given below the following statements -
(a) In ECORI, the ‘I’ roman number indicates
the order in which the enzymes were isolated
from that strain of bacteria.
(b) Alien piece of DNA can independently
multiply itself in the progeny cells of the
organisms without using any recipient cell
component.
(c) In gel electrophoresis, the separated
bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose
gel and extracted from the gel piece that is
called elution.
(d) Genetic modification has increased
efficiency of mineral usage by plants.
How many above statements are correct.
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
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153. Identify the correct statement. 158. Following features belong to which phylum?
(1) In humans, the surface for ultrafiltration or I. Exclusively marine
respiratory gaseous exchange has 3 II. Radial symmetry
layers, two non-cellular & one cellular III. Diploblastic
(2) 99 % of filtrate is actively reabsorbed in the IV. Tissue level organization
renal tubule (1) Coelentrata (2) Porifera
(3) PCT actively absorbs, 80-90% HCO3– & (3) Ctenophora (4) Platyhelminthes
H2O
(4) PCT maintains pH & ionic balance by the 159. All of the following are incorrect except that the
selective secretion of H+ & NH3 by the a. Electric organs in Torpedo are capable of
reabsorption of HCO3– generating strong electric shock to
paralyse the prey.
154. In humans, heart valves occur between b. Bony fishes use pectoral, pelvic, dorsal,
(A) Pulmonary veins and left atrium anal and caudal fins for swimming.
(B) Right ventricle and pulmonary trunk c. Amphibian skin is moist and has thick
(C) Left ventricle and aortic trunk scales.
(D) Right atrium and left atrium d. Birds are poikilothermal animals.
(1) A, B, C (2) B, C e. An exclusive mammalian character is the
(3) B, C, D (4) A, B, C, D presence of mammary glands for
nourishing their young ones.
155. A and B are two 70 kg individuals with same (1) a, b and d
body water volume. Both of them had a snack (2) b, c and d
that had a high salt content, and B also drank a (3) a, b and c
glass of an alcoholic drink. Based on this (4) a, b and e
information, which one of following statements
is true? 160. Given below are a few statements related to
(1) A will have a lower circulating level of external fertilization. Choose the correct
antiduretic hormone (ADH) than that of B statements.
(2) B will have a lower circulating level of i. The male and female gametes are formed
antiduretic hormone (ADH) than that of A and released simultaneously
(3) Both of them will have the same level of ii. Only a few gametes are released into the
circulating ADH medium
(4) A will have less body water than that of B iii. Water is the medium in a majority of
organisms exhibiting external fertilization
156. How many of the following statements are true iv. Offspring formed as a result of external
for cockroach? fertilization have better chance of survival
I. The hind wings called tegmina are opaque, than those formed inside an organism
dark and leathery (1) iii and iv (2) i and iii
II. The hind wings are transparent, (3) ii and iv (4) i and iv
membranous and are used in flight
III. 2 pairs of thread like antennae arise from 161. Mature Graafian follicle is generally present in
membranous sockets lying in front of the the ovary of a healthy human female during
eyes (1) 5 – 8 days of menstrual cycle
IV. It exhibits paurometabolous (2) 11 – 17 days of menstrual cycle
metamorphosis (3) 18 – 23 days of menstrual cycle
V. Respiratory system in cockroach depends (4) 24 – 28 days of menstrual cycle
on circulatory system
(1) Two (2) Three 162. Match between the following representing parts
(3) Four (4) Five of the sperm and their functions and choose the
correct option.
157. Match the following:
Column I Column II Column A Column B
A. Ascaris 1. Filarial worm
B. Wuchereria 2. Intestinal roundworm A. Head i. Enzymes
C. Ancylostoma 3. Earthworm
B. Middle piece ii. Sperm motility
D. Pheretima 4. Hookworm
E. Planaria 5. High power of
C. Acrosome iii. Energy
regeneration
(1) A -2, B - 4, C - 3, D - 1, E - 5 D. Tail iv. Genetic material
(2) A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4, E - 5
(3) A - 4, B - 4, C - 1, D - 5, E - 4 (1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii (2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
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 (3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii (4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv 171. Appearance of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is an
163. The progesterone, an important component of example of
oral contraceptive pills, prevents pregnancy by (1) adaptive radiation
(1) creating unfavourable chemical (2) transduction
environment for the sperms to survive in (3) pre-existing variation in the population
the female reproductive tract (4) divergent evolution
(2) preventing the formation of ova 172. The following are some of the well known fossils
(3) inhibiting ovulation in the evolution of modern man
(4) preventing the cleavage of fertilized egg 1. Neanderthal 2. Homo erectus
164. An example of competitive inhibition of an 3. Cro-Magnon 4. Australopithecus
enzyme is the inhibition of What is the correct chronological sequence in
(1) succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid which the above appeared?
(2) cytochrome oxidase by cyanide (1) 4-2-1-3 (2) 1-2-3-4
(3) hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate (3) 3-1-2-4 (4) 2-4-1-3
(4) carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide. 173. The chemical test that is used for diagnosis of
165. Identify the wrong statement from the following typhoid is
(1) High levels of estrogen triggers the (1) ELISA-Test (2) ESR – Test
ovulatory surge. (3) PCR - Test (4) Widal –Test
(2) Oogonial cells start to proliferate and give
rise to functional ova in regular cycles from 174. In malignant tumors, the cells proliferate, grow
puberty onwards. rapidly and move toother parts of the body to
(3) Sperms released from seminiferous form new tumors. This stage of disease iscalled
tubules are poorly motile / non-motile.
(4) Progesterone level is high during the post (1) metagenesis (2) metastasis
ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle. (3) teratogenesis (4) mitosis
166. In the absence of pregnancy, corpus luteum 175. 'Smack' is a drug obtained from the
(1) become active, secretes FSH and LH (1) latex of Papaver somniferum
(2) degenerates to form corpus albicans (2) leaves of Cannabis sativa
(3) is maintained by progesterone
(4) produces a lot of oxytocin and relaxin (3) flowers of Dhatura
167. Which one of the following statements with (4) fruits of Erythroxylon coca
regard to embryonic developments in humans 176. Wastewater treatment generates a large
is correct? quantity of sludge, which canbe treated by
(1) Cleavage divisions bring about (1) digesters (2) activated sludge
considerable increase in the mass of (3) chemicals (4) oxidation pond
protoplasm
(2) In the second cleavage division, one of the 177. The vitamin whose content increases, following
two blastomeres usually divides a little the conversion of milkinto curd, by lactic acid
sooner than the second bacteria, is
(3) With more cleavage divisions, the resultant (1) Vitamin C (2) Vitamin D
blastomeres become progressively larger (3) Vitamin B12 (4) Vitamin E
(4) Cleavage divisions result in the formation
178. Bt cotton shows resistance against.
of hollow ball of cells or morula
(1) Leaf hopper (2) Bollworm
168. Saheli, a new oral contraceptive for the human (3) Beetles (4) Stem borer
females developed by Indian scientists at
CDRI, Lucknow is a 179. In pBR 322, "rop" stands for–
(1) Steroidal hormonal preparation (1) Antibiotic resistant gene part
(2) Oral combined contraceptive preparation (2) Proteins that help in replication of plasmid
(3) Non-steroidal hormonal preparation (3) Protein that increases resistance against
(4) Toxic preparation to kill sperms pathogens
169. Animal husbandry and plant breeding (4) Proteins that provide protection from toxic
programmes are the examples of substances
(1) reverse evolution 180. Which of the following chemical is used for the
(2) artificial selection purification of A and B polypeptide chains of
(3) mutation insulin during R-DNA technology.
(4) natural selection (1) Ethidium bromide
(2) EDTA
170. (p+q)2 = P2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 represents an
(3) Cyanogen bromide
equation used in
(4) Colchicine
(1) population genetics (2) mendelian genetics
(3) biometrics (4) molecular genetics
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