The document is a mock test paper for class 12 biology. It contains 5 sections with a total of 33 questions. Section A contains 16 multiple choice questions worth 1 mark each. Section B contains 5 questions worth 2 marks each. Section C contains 7 questions worth 3 marks each. Section D contains 2 case-based questions worth 4 marks each. Section E contains 3 questions worth 5 marks each. The test covers a range of biology topics and concepts through multiple choice, assertion-reason, case-based and descriptive questions.
The document is a mock test paper for class 12 biology. It contains 5 sections with a total of 33 questions. Section A contains 16 multiple choice questions worth 1 mark each. Section B contains 5 questions worth 2 marks each. Section C contains 7 questions worth 3 marks each. Section D contains 2 case-based questions worth 4 marks each. Section E contains 3 questions worth 5 marks each. The test covers a range of biology topics and concepts through multiple choice, assertion-reason, case-based and descriptive questions.
The document is a mock test paper for class 12 biology. It contains 5 sections with a total of 33 questions. Section A contains 16 multiple choice questions worth 1 mark each. Section B contains 5 questions worth 2 marks each. Section C contains 7 questions worth 3 marks each. Section D contains 2 case-based questions worth 4 marks each. Section E contains 3 questions worth 5 marks each. The test covers a range of biology topics and concepts through multiple choice, assertion-reason, case-based and descriptive questions.
Max. Time: 3.00 Hrs. XII BIOLOGY Max. Marks: 70 General Instructions: (i) All questions are compulsory. (ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory. (iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each. (iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions. (v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn. Q.No QUESTIONS MAR . SECTION A KS Choose the correct option: All of these plant tissues are nutritive. Which of these is different from others? 1 1 i) tapetam ii) nucellus iii) endosperm iv) perisperm Which of these is a component of semen? 2 a) fructose b) calcium c) boron d) glucose 1 i) only a and c ii) only a and b iii) only b and d iv) all of these
Following karyotype was prepared
and some abnormality was detected. Identify the disorder:
Which of the following exhibit convergent evolution?
a) wing of insect and wing of bird b) thorn of bougainvillia and tendril of cucurbits 4 1 c) potato and sweet potato d) forelimbs of vertebrates i) a only ii) only c iii) both b and c iv) a and c both Which of the following is not produced by bacteria? 5 1 i) citric acid ii) lactic acid iii) acetic acid iv) butyric acid Which of the following is not a bio fertilizer? 6 1 i) Rhizobium ii) Aspergillus iii) Mycorrhiza iv) Anabaena Curd is more nutritious than milk because it has – 7 1 i) Vitamin B12 ii) Vitamin B6 iii) Vitamin A iv) Vitamin D Which of the following does not help to transfer desired gene into a plant cell? 8 1 i) disarmed Ti plasmid ii) Gene gun iii) Micro injection iv) transposons 9 An example of competition is: 1 i) An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch ii) Visiting flamingoes and resident fishes in some shallow South American lakes. iii) Barnacles growing on the back of a whale. iv) Sea anemone that has stinging tentacles and the clown fish lives among them. Which of these is not true for hotspot? i) they show species richness 10 ii) they contain endemic species 1 iii) they are very hot tropical areas iv) these areas are threatened by human interference. Some cichlid fish species are being destroyed in Lake Victoria. This is due to: i) alien species invasion 11 ii) over exploitation 1 iii) co- extinction iv) habitat loss Choose the incorrect statement out of these: i) detritus food chain begins with deed organic matter. 12 ii) amount of energy decreases at success trophic levels. 1 iii) decomposition rate is higher if detritus is rich in chitin and lignin. iv) detritus serves as energy source for decomposers. ASSERTION – REASON Questions 13, 14, 15 and 16 have two statements– Assertion (A) and Reason (R). The different options are: (i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (iii) A is true but R is false. (iv) A is false but R is true. Answer the questions by selecting the appropriate option given. A: Pollen grains are preserved as fossils. 13 1 R: They are microscopic and produced in large numbers. A: DNA molecule is wrapped around a core of histone proteins. 14 1 R: DNA is positively charged while histone proteins are negatively charged. A: Restriction endonucleases were discovered in bacteria. 15 1 R: They help the bacteria to attack host. A: In a stable population, the pre - reproductive population is always more than that 16 of reproductive and post - reproductive populations. 1 R: They will replace reproductive population in future. SECTION B 17 Describe any two methods by which a bisexual flower prevents autogamy. 2 Haemophilia and sickle cell anaemia are two heredity blood disorders. Differentiate 18 2 between the two. “Flocs” are found in sewage treatment plants. What are these? State their 19 2 significance in STP. In the process of PCR, a special enzyme is used. Name this enzyme. Mention its 20 2 source and state its significance. All the predators of deer are removed from a forest. Explain the growth of their 21 2 population with the help of a graph. What will be the future of this population? SECTION C An infertile couple has opted for test tube baby program. Explain in detail about the 22 3 process and the two options available to them. Answer the following with the reference to figure depicting sperm entry into the ovum. i) Where is this event occurring? 23 ii) During which period of menstrual cycle can this 3 event occur? iii) Identify the membranes ‘X’ and ‘Y’. iv) Why sperms ‘b’ and ‘c’ do not enter?
24 3
In the above figure of transcription unit:
i) Which strand - A or B, is the template strand and why? ii) Name the other strand. Why is it called so? iii) Write the mRNA produced from this DNA strand. In cross I, a pea plant bearing red flowers was crossed with another bearing white flowers. In cross II, a Snapdragon plant bearing red flowers was crossed with another, 25 3 bearing white flowers. But the results obtained in F1 and F2 were different in both cases. Workout both the crosses and highlight the differences in F1 and F2. Explain the following: i) Oil and grease stains can be removed by adding some chemical to the detergent. Name this chemical. ii) Bottled fruit juices are more clear than those produced at home. Why? iii) Name the compounds that are used to lower blood cholesterol. Name the organism from which it is derived. iv) Name the clot buster enzyme. Which type of patients would benefit from it? OR The flow chart depicts some stages in the life cycle of malarial parasite, Plasmodium. 26 3
i) Identify the cells 1 and 2 that are attacked by Plasmodium.
ii) Identify the stages ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the life cycle of Plasmodium. iii) Identify compound ‘X’. iv) Name one biocontrol agent fish. In the process of rDNA technology, the isolated DNA fragments need to be separated. The following figure depicts a gel plate after one round of gel electrophoresis. i) Name the material used to prepare the 27 gel plate, ‘Y’ and state its function. 3 ii) How can the DNA fragments be separated and viewed? iii) Why do DNA move towards positive pole? iv) Why no bands can be seen in row one? Give three reasons why more species diversity is observed in tropics than that 28 3 towards poles? SECTION D In an accident, a superfast train collided with a goods train. Many passengers lost their lives in the collision. Their bodies were beyond recognition. DNA fingerprinting was used to help to identify the mutilated bodies. i) Following are the steps of DNA fingerprinting. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words. (1) isolation of DNA, (2) digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases, 29 (3) separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis, 4 (4) transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes, such as -------‘a’----- or nylon, (5) -----‘b’----- using labelled VNTR probe, and (6) detection of hybridised DNA fragments by ----‘c’-------- ii) Expand VNTR. iii) How are VNTR useful in DNA fingerprinting? iv) Name another field of forensic science where this can be effectively used. Addiction to psychotropic drugs, smoking and alcohol have a great chance to begin in the adolescence when the child is no longer a child but is not yet considered mature and adult by the parents and society in general. The person faces many problems like accepting body changes, peer pressure and parents expectations to do 30 4 well. You are a class 12 student and you have been observing that your friend has succumbed to temptations. As a responsible friend, state the harmful effects of opioids, cannabinoids and cocaine drugs, smoking and drinking alcohol that you will warn your friend with. SECTION E Oogenesis is initiated before birth in the human ovary. Fill in the blanks with appropriate terms with reference to the above figure depicting T. S. of human ovary: ▪ Gamete mother cells or…….(a)….. start dividing and enter into prophase-I of the 31 meiotic division, get arrested at …..(i) ….. stage. 5 ▪ This is surrounded by granulosa cells to form ……..(b) …… Many degenerate, only 60,000 to 80,000 are left in each ovary. ▪ ‘b’ get surrounded by more layers of granulosa cells and a new theca and are called …(c)… which soon transforms into a ….(d)…. which is characterised by a fluid filled cavity called antrum and the theca layer is organised into an inner theca interna and an outer theca externa. ▪ At this stage, (i) grows in size and completes its first meiotic division. It is an unequal division resulting in the formation of a large haploid …(ii)… and a tiny first …(iii)…. ▪ (d) further changes into the mature follicle or …….(e) ……. ▪ ………(f) …. Is formed after ovulation and it secretes hormone ……….(iv)……… OR Explain the terms: i) Monosporic development ii) Free nuclear endosperm. Give one example iii) Emasculation iv) Xenogamy i) State two roles that ribosomes play in translation. ii) Name the adaptor molecule. Why is it called so? iii) Explain charging of tRNA (aminoacylation of tRNA). OR i) Name the scientist who proposed that DNA replication is semi conservative. ii) In providing experimental proof, Meselson and Stahl in 1958, cultured Escherichia 32 5 coli bacterium. Which isotope was used by them as a source of nitrogen? iii) Name the technique used in the experiment to separate heavy isotope from normal? iv) He obtained some results as a depicted in the figure. Which of the following represents mode of semi conservative replication? Explain with diagrams, why the other two are not semi conservative? Name the process or tool used in the following steps of rDNA technology: i) Isolation of genetic material from - a) fungal cell …… b) bacterial cell …. c) plant cell … ii) cutting the genetic material for desired gene of interest ….. iii) separation of desire gene ….. iv) making multiple copies of gene…. v) joining desire gene with vector ….. vi) inserting rDNA into 33 5 a) plant host ….. b) animal host ….. vii) obtaining desired product …… OR A person is born with a heredity disease with a weakened immune system due to deficiency of an enzyme. i) Identify the deficient enzyme and state its role. ii) Explain the techniques available to treat this condition. iii) How can rDNA technology help to cure. iv) Suggest a permanent cure for this disease,