Mechanical Engineering Detailed Solution Set D

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
SET - D
Detailed Solution
1. The time taken to face a workpiece of 80 mm (b) It is accurate, economical, portable and
diameter for the spindle speed of 90 rpm and least time consuming while machining
cross feed of 0.3 mm/rev will be (c) Heavy workpieces can be machined in any
(a) 4.12 min (b) 3.24 min position without moving them
(c) 2.36 min (d) 1.48 min (d) Small workpieces can be machined and it
Ans. (d) can be used for mass production as well
Sol. Given diameter of workpiece, d = 80 mm Ans. (c)
TEER
Spindle speed, N = 90 rpm Sol. Advantages of radial drilling:
Cross feed, f = 0.3 mm/rev. 1. They are generally powerful and can turn a
R
large diameter drill.
Time taken to face the workpiece,
2. They allow a fixed positioning of the
L workpiece, and the drill can be easily moved
Tm = to the required position.
fN
ASST d
L=—
2 So, the correct answer is option (c).
80
L  40 mm 4. For the purpose of sampling inspection, the
2
Tool maximum percent def ective that can be
40 considered satisfactory as a process average is
Then, Tm =
MA
90  0.3 (a) Rejectable Quality Level (RQL)
Tm = 1.48 min (b) Acceptable Quality Level (AQL)
(c) Average Outgoing Quality Limit (AOQL)
S M
2. A feed f for the lathe operation is

(d) Lot Tolerance Percent Defective (LTPD)
N L Ans. (d)
(a) L  T mm / rev (b) N  T mm / rev
m m
Sol. Lot tolerance percent defective (LTPD):
Lot tolerance percent def ective (LTPD),
IE S
Tm Tm  L
(c) mm / rev (d) mm / rev expressed in percent defective, is the poorest
NL N
quality in an individual lot that should be
where: Tm = Machining time in min. accepted. The LTPD has a low probability of
E
N = Speed in rpm acceptance.

L = Length of cut in mm 5. Hard automation is also called
I
Ans. (b) (a) Selective automation

L (b) Total automation
Sol.  We know, machining time, Tm =
fN (c) Group technology
where, L = length of cut (d) Fixed position automation
f = feed Ans. (d)
N = rpm Sol. Fixed position Automation is also known as Hard
Automation.
L
f It refers to the use of special purpose equipment
N  Tm
to automate a fixed sequence of processing or
assemble operations.
3. The main advantage of the radial drilling
machine is that 6. The method of CNC programming which
(a) It is very compatible and handy for enables the programmer to describe part
machining geometry using variables is
F-126, Katwaria Sarai, New Delhi - 110 016 Ph: 011-41013406, Mobile: 8130909220, 9711853908
Web: www.iesmaster.org | E-mail: info@iesmaster.org
SET - D
Detailed Solution
(a) Computer assisted part programming Average idle time of the machine = Average
(b) Computer aided drafting programming time spent by the machine in the system.
(c) Conversational programming k 1  1 1

Ws = 2k        
(d) Parametric programming
Ans. (d)
5 1 2 5 1 5
Sol. Parametric programming: =   
2  5 12 12 12
2
R
It is an enhancement to the methods like manual 5
part programming, computer assisted part
programming & conversational programming. 1 5 5 20 5
=     hours
TE
It enables the programmer to describe part 2 2 12 12 3
geometry using variables.
= 100 minutes
Once described, entering specific values for the
variables that unique identify the part generates 9. A portion of the total float within which an activity
an actual tool path CNC program. can be delayed for start without affecting the
floats of preceding activities is called
AS
7. Revolving joint of the robot is referred to as
(a) Safety float (b) Free float
(a) L joint (b) O joint
(c) Independent float (d) Interfering float
(c) T joint (d) V joint
Ans. (c)
Ans. (d)
Sol. Independent float: It is that portion of the total
Sol. Revolving joint: Revolving joint is generally float within which an activity can be delayed for
M
known as V-joint. Here the output link axis is start without affecting the float of the preceding
perpendicular to the rotational axis and the activities.
input link is parallel to the rotational axis.
10. An oil engine manufacturer purchases lubricant
8. Repairing of a machine consists of 5 steps that cans at the rate of Rs 42 per piece from a
must be performed sequentially. Time taken to
S
vendor. The requirement of these lubricant cans

perform each of the 5 steps is found to have an is 1800 per year. If the cost per placement of
exponential distribution with a mean of 5 an order is Rs. 16 and inventory carrying
minutes and is independent of other steps. If
IE
charges per rupee per year is 20 paise, the

these machines break down in Poisson fashion order quantity per order will be
at an average rate of 2/hour and if there is only
one repairman, the average idle time for each (a) 91 cans (b) 83 cans
machine that has broken down will be (c) 75 cans (d) 67 cans
(a) 120 minutes (b) 110 minutes Ans. (b)
(c) 100 minutes (d) 90 minutes Sol. Given: Demand D = 1800 per year
Ans. (c) Ordering cost, Co = 16
Sol. Here, number of phases k = 5, Carrying cost Ch = 210 paise/rupee/year
service time per phase = 5 minutes.
2DCo
 Service time per unit = 5 × 5 = 25 minutes. EOQ   Ch  0.20  42
Ch
1
  = units / minute
25 2  1800  16
EOQ 
12 0.20  42
= units / hour
5
EOQ  6857.142857
 = 2 units/hour
SET - D
Detailed Solution
= 82.8078 13. Consider the situation where a microprocessor
EOQ = 83 gives an output of an 8-bit word. This is fed
through an 8-bit digital-to-analogue converter
11. Consider the following data regarding the to a control valve. The control valve requires
acceptance sampling process: 6.0 V being fully open. If the fully open state is
indicated by 11111111, the output to the valve
N = 10,000, n = 89, c = 2, P = 0.01 and for a change of 1-bit will be
Pa = 0.9397
(a) 0.061 V (b) 0.042 V
TEER
The Average Total Inspection (ATI) will be
(c) 0.023 V (d) 0.014 V
(a) 795 (b) 687
Ans. (c)
R
(c) 595 (d) 487
Sol. The full-scale output voltage of 6.0 V will be
Ans. (b) divided into 28 intervals. A change of 1 bit is
Sol. ATI = n + (1 – Pa) (N – n) thus a change in the output v oltage of
ASST
= 89 + (1 – 0.9397) × (10000 – 89) 6.0
= 0.023 V..
= 686.633 28
 687 14. W hich of the following factors are to be

considered while selecting a microcontroller?
12. The Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) technique
1. Memory requirements
MA
employed during inspection for castings of tubes
and pipes to check the overall strength of a 2. Processing speed required
casting in resistance to bursting under hydraulic
3. Number of input/output pins
pressure is
S M
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(a) Radiographic inspection
(b) Magnetic particle inspection (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Fluorescent penetrant Ans. (d)
(d) Pressure testing Sol. In selecting a microcontroller the following

IE S
factors need to be considered:

Ans. (d)
(1) Number of input/output pins:
Sol. Proof test is a kind of pressure test employed
E
for pipes in resistance to bursting under How many input-output pins are going to
hydraulic pressure. be needed for the task concerned?
In it hydrostatic pressure shall be applied to the (2) Interfaces required:

I
assembly. The actual test pressure prior to What interfaces are going to be required?
rupture must be at least equal to the computed For example, is PWM required? Many
proof test pressure defined below. microcontrollers have PWM outputs, e.g.
the PIC17C42 has two.
2st
P= (3) Memory requirements:
D
What size memory is required for the task?
P = Proof test pressure
(4) The number of interrupts required:
S = Actual tensile strength of run pipe
How many events will need interrupts?
t = Nominal run pipe wall thickness
(5) Processing speed required:
D = specified outside diameter of the run pipe
The microprocessor takes time to execute
Test is considered successful if the pipe instructions, this time being determined by
withstand rupture. and test pressure 150% is the processor clock.
applied.
SET - D
Detailed Solution
15. Which of the following statements regarding 17. The resolution of an encoder with 10 tracks will
interface circuit are correct? be nearly
1. Electrical buffering is needed when the (a) 0.15° (b) 0.25°
peripheral operates at a different voltage or (c) 0.35° (d) 0.45°
current to that on the microprocessor bus
system or there are different ground Ans. (c)
references. Sol. The resolution of an encoder with 10 track for
2. Timing control is needed when the data n track
R
transfer rates of the peripheral and the 360
microprocessor are different. Resolution =
2n
3. Changing the number of lines is needed 360
TE
=  0.35
when the codes used by the peripherals 210
differ from those used by the micro-
processor. 18. Which of the following features is/are relevant
to variable reluctance stepper motors?
1. Smaller rotor mass; more responsive
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
AS
2. Step size is small
Ans. (a)
3. More sluggish
Sol. (i) Electrical buffering is needed when the
peripheral operates at a different voltage or (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
current to that on the microprocessor bus (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
system or there are different ground
Ans. (a)
references.
M
Sol. A variable reluctance stepper motor has a

(ii) Timing control is needed when the data
ferromagnetic rotor than a permanent magnet
transfer rates of the peripheral and the
motor. Motion and holding result from the
microprocessor are different.
attraction of stator and poles to positions with
(iii) Code conversion is needed when the codes minimum magnetic reluctance that allow for
S
used by the peripherals differ from those maximum magnetic flux. A variable reluctance
used by microprocessor. motor has the advantage of a lower rotor inertia
and therefore a faster dynamic response.
IE
16. Alternative paths provided by vertical paths from

the main rung of a ladder diagram, that is, paths 19. Which of the following statements regarding
in parallel, represent hydraulic pumps are correct?
(a) Logical AND operations 1. The gear pump consists of two close-
(b) Logical OR operations meshing gear wheels which rotate in
opposite directions.
(c) Logical NOT operations
2. In vane pump, as the rotor rotates, the
(d) Logical NOR operations
vanes follow the contours of the casing.
Ans. (b)
3. This leakage is more in v ane pump
Sol. Alternative paths provided by vertical paths from compared to gear pump.
the main rung of a ladder diagram, that is, paths
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
is parallel, represents logical OR operations.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
An example of an OR gate control system is a
conveyer Belt transporting bottled products of Ans. (b)
packaging where a deflector plate is activated Sol. 1. The gear pump consists of two close-
to deflect bottles into a reject bin if either the meshing gear wheels which rotate in
weight is not within certain tolerances or there opposite directions.
is no cap on the bottle.
SET - D
Detailed Solution
2. In vane pump as the rotor rotates, the vane
BCBACBA 2C BA n1 CD 
follow the contours of the casing.  
The results in fluid becoming trapped is of rank m
between successive vanes and the casing
(d) The matrix
and transported round from the inlet port to
outlet port. BC ABC CA 2B CBn1 A  D 
 
3. The leakage is less in vane pump than with
the gear pump. is of rank n
TEER
where:
20. The selection of the right controller for the
R
application depends on x = State vector (n-vector)
1. The degree of control required by the u = Control vector (r-vector)
application. y = Output vector (m-vector)
2. The individual characteristics of the plants. A = n × n matrix
ASST
3. The desirable performance level including B = n × r matrix
required response, steady-state deviation
C = m × n matrix
and stability.
D = m × r matrix
Which of the above statements are correct?
Ans. (b)
MA
Sol. Consider the system described by

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d) x  Ax  Bu …(i)
S M
Sol. 1) The degree of control required by the y  Cx  Du …(ii)

application.
where x = state vector (n-vector)
2) The individual characteristics of the plant.
u = control vector (r-vector)
3) The desirable performance level including
y = output vector (m-vector)
IE S
response, steady-state deviation and

stability. A = n × n matrix
B = n × r matrix
21. Consider a system described by
E
C = m × n matrix
x  Ax  Bu
D = m × r matrix
y  Cx  Du
I
The system described by equation (i) and (ii) is

The system is completely output controllable if said to be completely output controllable if it is
and only if possible to construct an unconstrained control
vector u(t) that will transfer any given initial
(a) The matrix
output y (t0) to any final output y (t1) in a finite
CB CBA CB 2 A CBn1A D  time interval t 0  t  t1.
 
It can be proved that the condition for complete
is of rank n output controllability is as follows: The system
(b) The matrix described by equations (i) and (ii) is completely
output controllable if and only if the m × (n +1)r
CB CAB CA 2B  CA n 1 B D  matrix
 
is of rank m  CB CAB CA 2B  CA n1B D 
(c) The matrix is of rank m.
SET - D
Detailed Solution
22. Which one of the following symbols is used as
Sol. Given vector, V = 25iˆ  10ˆj  20kˆ
the notation for designating arm and body of a
robot with jointed arm configuration? Translation in x direction = 8
(a) TRL (b) TLL, LTL, LVL Translation in y-direction = 5
(c) LLL (d) TRR, VVR Translation in z-direction = 0
Ans. (d) 1 0 0 8 25 
Sol.    
0 1 0 5 10 
Translation vector = 
R
Robot configuration Symbol 0 0 1 0 20 
(Arm & Body)    
0 0 0 1  1 
Polar configuration  TRL
TE
33 
Cylindrical configuration  TLL, LTL, LVL  
15
Cartesian configuration  LLL =  
20 
Joint ed arm configuration  TRR, VVR  
 1 
23. A compliant motion control of robots can be
AS
understood by the problem of controlling of Directions: Each of the next six (06) items consists of
two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement (I)’ and the
(a) Position and velocity of joints
other labelled as ‘Statement (II)’. You are to examine
(b) Position and acceleration of the end-effector these two statements carefully and select the answers
(c) Manipulator motion and its force interactions to these items using the codes given below:
with the environment. Codes:
M
(d) Joint velocities of given end-effector velocity. (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
Ans. (c) individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I).
Sol. The role of a compliant motion scheme is to
control a robot manipulation in contract with its (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true, but Statement (II) is not
S
environment. By accommodating with the

interaction force. the correct explanation of Statement (I).
(c) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is
24. For the vector v = 25 i + 10 j + 20 k, perform
IE
false.
a translation by a distance of 8 in the x-direction,
5 in the y-direction and 0 in the z-direction. The (d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is
translated vector Hv will be true.
25. Statement (I) : The greater the chemical affinity

1 33 
 20  15  of two metals, the more restricted is their solid
    solubility and greater is the tendency of
(a) 33  (b)  20  formation of compound.
   
15  1
Statement (II) : Wider the separation of
elements in the periodic table, greater is their
15  1 chemical affinity.
33  15  Ans. (a)
   
(c)  1  (d)  20  Sol. The greater the chemical affinity of two metals
    the more restricted is their solid solubility and
 20  33 
the greater is the tendency towards compound
Ans. (b) formation.
SET - D
Detailed Solution
26. Statement (I) : The size of a memory unit is arrangements all on the same chip are called
specified in terms of the number of storage microcontrollers.
locations available; 1 K is 210 = 1024 locations The microcontroller is the integration of a
and thus a 4 K memory has 4096 locations. microprocessor with memory and input/output
Statement (II) : Erasable and programmable interfaces, and other peripherals such as timers,
ROM (EPROM) is a form of memory unit used on a single chip.
for ROMs that can be programmed and their 28. Statement (I) : Capacitive proximity sensor can
contents altered.
TEER
only be used for the detection of metal objects
Ans. (b) and is best with ferrous metals.
R
Sol. The size of the memory is determined by the
Statement (II) : One form of capacitive proximity
number of wires in the address bus. The
sensor consists of a single capacitor plate probe
memory elements in a unit consist
with the other plate being formed by the object,
essentially of large numbers of storage cells
which has to be metallic and earthed.
with each cell capable of storing either a 0
ASST
or a 1 bit. The storage cells are grouped in Ans. (d)
locations with each location capable of Sol. One form of capacitive proximity sensor consists
storing one word. In order to access the of a single capacitor metallic and earthed figure.
stored word, each location is identified by As the object approaches so the ‘plate
a unique address. Thus with a 4-bit address separation’ of the capacitor changes, becoming
MA
bus we can have 16 different addresses significant and detectable when the object is
with each, perhaps, capable of storing 1 close to the probe.
byte, i.e. a group of 8 bits.
Magnetic field proximity sensors are relatively
S M
The size of a memory unit is specified in simple and can be made using a permanent
terms of the number of storage locations magnet. The magnet can be made a part of
available; 1 K is 210 = 1024 locations and object being detected or can be part of the
thus a 4 K memory has 4096 locations. sensor device. It can only be used for the
The term erasable and programmable ROM detection of metal object and is best with ferrous
IE S
(EPROM) is used for ROMs that can be metal.

programmed and their contents altered.
29. Statement (I) : SCARA configuration provides
substantial rigidity for the robot in the vertical
E
27. Statement (I) : Microprocessors which have

memory and various input/output arrangements, direction, but compliance in the horizontal plane.
all on the same chip, are called microcontrollers.
Statement (II) : A special version of the
I
Statement (II) : The microcontroller is the Cartesian coordinate robot is the SCARA, which
integration of a microprocessor with RAM, ROM, has a very high lift capacity as it is designed for
EPROM, EEPROM and I/O interfaces, and high rigidity.
other peripherals such as timers, on a single Ans. (c)
chip.
Sol. A special version of the jointed arm robot is the
Ans. (a) SCARA stands for selective compliance
Sol. Systems using microprocessors basically have assembly robot arm, and this configuration
three parts: a central processing unit (CPU) to provides substantial rigidity of the robot in the
recognize and carry out program instructions vertical direction, but compliance in the
(this is the part which uses the microprocessor), horizontal plane. This makes it ideal for many
input and output interf aces to handle assembly tasks.
communications between the microprocessor
and the outside world (the term port is used for 30. Statement (I) : The stepper motor is a device
the interface), and memory to hold the program that produces rotation through equal angles,
instruction and data. Microprocessors which the so-called steps, for each digital pulse
hav e memory and v arious input/output supplied to its input.
SET - D
Detailed Solution
Statement (II) : Stepper motors can be used to   1.18 400
give controlled rotational steps but cannot give =
  1000 225
continuous rotation, as a result their applications
9810
are limited to step angles only.  w   1000 kg/m3
9.81
Ans. (c)
  = 2284
Sol. The stepper motor is a device that produces
rotation through equal angles, the so-called Relative density,
steps, for each digital pulse supplied to its input.
R
2284
Stepper motors can be used to give controlled  =  2.3
1000
rotational steps but also can give continuous
rotation with their rotational speed controlled 32. A flat plate 0.1 m2 area is pulled at 30 cm/s
TE
by controlling the rate at which pulses are relative to another plate located at a distance
applied to it to cause stepping. This gives a of 0.01 cm from it, the fluid separating them
very useful controlled variable speed motor being water with viscosity of 0.001 Ns/m2. The
which finds many applications. power required to maintain velocity will be
31. A stone weighs 400 N in air and when immersed (a) 0.05 W (b) 0.07 W
AS
in water it weighs 225 N. If the specific weight (c) 0.09 W (d) 0.11 W
of water is 9810 N/m3, the relative density of
the stone will be nearly Ans. (c)
(a) 5.9 (b) 4.7 dv v

(c) 3.5 (d) 2.3
Sol.  Shear stress,    dy   y
M
Ans. (d) Power required to maintain flow,

Sol. Let, Density of stone is  and volume V.. P =  A  v
Case 1: When stone is weighted in air.
 v 
=  y  A v
Weight, W = gV  a gV  
S
a gV is buoyancy force due to air.. v2

= A
y
IE
So, 400 = gV  a gV

Given:  = 0.001 N-s/m2
3
[  Density of air, a  1.18 kg/m ] y = 0.01 cm
v = 30 cm/s
400
   a = ...(i) A = 0.1 m2
gV
So, the putting the respective values,
Case 2: When stone is weighted in water
 30 2  102
225 = gV  w gV P = 0.001 0.1
0.01
w gV is buoyancy force due to water..
P  0.09 W
225 The correct answer is (c).
So,   w = ...(ii)
gV
33. When the pressure of liquid is increased from
Divide both equations, 3 MN/m2 to 6 MN/m2, its volume is decreased
  a 400 by 0.1%. The bulk modulus of elasticity of the
  w = 225 liquid will be
UPPSC
Assistant Engineer
Examination-2019
22 692
Departments... Posts
Batches Starts
11
February
Click here for more information
New Delhi
Email: info@iesmaster.org
H-21, Sector 63, Noida - 201305 | Call 0120 415 1100
Email: info.noida@iesmaster.org | Website: iesmaster.org
SET - D
Detailed Solution
(a) 3 × 1012 N/m2 (b) 3 × 109 N/m2 The power in the jet with respect to a datum at
(c) 3 × 108 N/m2 (d) 3 × 104 N/m2 the jet will be,
Ans. (b) 1
P=  2
mV   aV
m
Sol. 2
 Bulk modulus of elasticity, 1
=  aV  V 2
2
P
k=  V
TEER
V 1
= aV 3
2
Given: P = 6 – 3 = 3 MN/m2
R
1 1000    0.12 2
= 3 × 106 N/m2 =     40 3
2 1000 4
V 0.1 So, P = 361.91 kW
= –0.1% = 
ASST V 100  The closest option is (b) i.e. 360 kW
= –10–3 36. Which of the following applications regarding
6 Navier-Stokes equations are correct?
3  10
so, k= = 3 × 109 N/m2 1. Laminar unidirectional f low between
10 3
stationary parallel plates.
The correct answer is (b).
MA
2. Laminar unidirectional flow between parallel
34. A curve that is everywhere tangent to the plates having no relative motion.
instantaneous local velocity vector, is 3. Laminar flow in circular pipes.
S M
(a) Streak line (b) Path line 4. Laminar flow between concentric rotating
(c) Normal line (d) Streamline cylinders
Ans. (d) (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Sol. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
IE S
Streamlines are the lines drawn through the Ans. (a)

flow field in such a manner that the velocity Sol.
vector of the field at each and every point on
E
the streamline is tangent to the streamline at  Navier stokes theorem based on no slip
that instant. hypothesis.
 It can be applied for both steady and
I
so, A curve that is everywhere tangent to the

instantaneous local v elocity v ector is unsteady flow.
‘streamline’.  For flow between two concentric rotating
cylinder if Navier stokes theorem is applied
35. A 120 mm diameter jet of water is discharging then flow must be steady. For it if ones
from a nozzle into the air at a velocity of 40 m/ cylinders stand still, the solution in the limit
s. The power in the jet with respect to a datum
at the jet will be R2  R1
 0 reduces to the Couette flow..
(a) 380 kW (b) 360 kW R1
(c) 340 kW (d) 320 kW  So, in view of the above option 4 is wrong.
Ans. (b) 37. A crude oil having a specific gravity of
Sol. Given: 0.9 flows through a pipe of diameter 0.15 m at
Diameter, d = 120 mm = 0.12 m the rate of 8 lps. If the v alue of  is
0.3 Ns/m2, the Reynolds number will be nearly
Velocity, V = 40 m/s
SET - D
Detailed Solution
(a) 295 (b) 235 f 1 = f 2 = 0.006
(c) 205 (d) 165
Q = 250  / s  0.25 m3 /s
Ans. (c)
Pipes are in parallel so head loss is equal
Sol. Density of oil,  = 0.9 × 1000 = 900 kg/m 3
hf1 = hf2
Diameter, d = 0.15 m
Discharge, Q = 8 ps = 8 × 10–3 m3/s f1L1Q12 f2L2Q22
R
=
Viscosity,  = 0.3 Ns/m2 12 d15 12d52
5/2 2.5
Q1  d1   0.8 
Vd  = d  =   1.33 2.5 ...(i)
TE
Reynolds number, Re = Q2  2  0.6 

Q1 + Q2 = 0.25 ...(ii)
4Q From equation (i) and (ii),
 V=
 d2
Q1 = 0.17 m3/sec
and Q2 = 0.08 m3/sec  0.1 m3/sec
AS
4 Q
Re = Method (ii) Shortcut: Pipes are in parallel so
d  
flow rate through both pipe i.e. Q = Q1 + Q2
check options.
4  900  8  103
=
  0.15  0.3 39. A fluid of mass density 1790 kg/m3 and viscosity
2.1 Ns/m 2 f lows at a v elocity of
M
Re  205 3 m/s in a 6 cm diameter pipe. The head loss

over a length of 12 m pipe will be nearly
According to the given options, closest option
is (c). (a) 62.0 m (b) 54.0 m
(c) 46.5 m (d) 38.5 m
38. Two pipes of lengths 2500 m each and
S
diameters 80 cm and 60 cm respectively, are Ans. (d)

connected in parallel. The coefficient of friction Sol.
for each pipe is 0.006 and the total flow is 250
IE
litres/s. The rates of flow in the pipes are nearly L = 12 m

(a) 0.17 m3/s and 0.1 m3/s
(b) 0.23 m3/s and 0.1 m3/s
(c) 0.17 m3/s and 0.4 m3/s
 = 1790 kg/m3
(d) 0.23 m3/s and 0.4 m3/s
 = 2.1 Ns/m2
Ans. (a)
v = 3 m/s
Q1 d1=0.8m
d = 0.06 m
Head loss = ?
Sol.
Q fLV 2
Major head loss is frictional head loss =
2 gd
Q2 d2=0.6 m
32  V L
hf = [circular pipe]
L=2500 m gd2
SET - D
Detailed Solution
41. To maintain 0.08 m3/s flow of petrol with a
32  2.1 3  12
= specific gravity of 0.7, through a steel pipe of
1790  9.81 (0.06)2 0.3 m diameter and 800 m length, with
coefficient of friction of 0.0025 in the Darcy
32  12  21 3  1000 relation, the power required will be nearly
=
1790  9.81 36
(a) 0.6 kW (b) 1.0 kW
32  21 10 (c) 2.6 kW (d) 3.0 kW
=
Ans. (b)
TEER
180
Sol. Given:
224
R
=  38 Coefficient of friction, f = 0.0025
6
Discharge, Q = 0.08 m3/s
The closest option is (d).
length, l = 800 m
40.
ASST
Which of the following characteristics regarding Diameter, d = 0.3 m
fluid kinematics is/are correct?
Density,  = 0.7 × 1000 = 700 kg/m3
1. Streamline represents an imaginary curve
in the flow field so that the tangent to the (4f )lV 2
curve at any point represents the direction Head loss to friction in pipe, hf =
2dg
of instantaneous velocity at that point.
MA
Here, remember that friction factor is four times
2. Path lines, streamlines and streak lines are to that of coefficient of friction.
identical in steady flow.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 4Q d2
S M
 v = (for pipe, A = )
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 d2 4
Ans. (c) So, power required, P = gQh f
Sol. 1. Streamline is a line everywhere tangent to 2

gQ  (4f )l  16Q
the velocity vector at a given instant = 2 5
IE S
2   d g
2. Pathline is the actual path traversed by a
3
given fluid particle.   4f  l  8  Q
=
E
3. A streakline is the locus of particles that  2  d5

have earlier passed through a prescribed Putting the respective values,
point.
I
3
So, the statement 1 is correct. 700   4  0.0025   800  8  (0.08)
P= 2 5
For steady flow, streamlines, pathlines and   (0.3)  1000
streaklines are identical because
(1) For a steady flow, the velocity vector at any P  0.956  1 kW
point is invariant with time.
42. The diameter of a nozzle d for maximum
(2) The pathline of the particles with different
transmission of power through it, is
identities passing through a point will not
differ. 1 1
 D5  4  D5  2
(3) The pathline could coincide with one (a)   (b)  
another in a single curve which will indicate  8 fL   8 fL 
the streak line too. 1 1
So, both the statements are correct.  8D5  4  8D5  2
(c)   (d)  
 fL   fL 
SET - D
Detailed Solution
where : process for which pressure and volume are
D = Diameter of pipe related as given below:
f = Coefficient of friction p(kPa) 100 37.9 14.4

3
L = Length of pipe V (m ) 0.1 0.2 0.4
Ans. (a)
The work done by the system for n = 1.4 will
Sol. Maximum transmission of power, the condition be
R
H (a) 4.8 kJ (b) 6.8 kJ
is given by equation as, hf 
3 (c) 8.4 kJ (d) 10.6 kJ
Ans. (d)
4f  L  V 2
TE
But hf = Sol. Work done in polytropic process is given by,
D  2g
P1V1  P2 V2
4fLV 2 H 4fLV 2 W=
 = or H  3  n 1
D  2g 3 D  2g
Here, n = 1.4 (given)
AS
But H is also = total head at outlet of nozzle + Using, P1 = 100 kPa, V1 = 0.1 m3
losses
and P3 = 14.4 kPa, V3 = 0.4 m3
Equating the two values of H, we get
P1V1  P3 V3
4fLV 2  2 4fLV 2 12fLV 2 4fLV 2  2 So, work done, W =
3 =  or   n 1
D  2g 2g D  2g D  2g D  2g 2g
M
8fLV 2 2 100  0.1  14.4  0.4

or = =
D  2g 2g 1.4  1
a W  10.6 kJ
But from continuity, AV = a or V  
A
S
Substituting this value of V in equation (i), we 44. A domestic f ood f reezer maintains a
get temperature of –15°C. The ambient air
temperature is 30°C. If heat leaks into the
IE
8fL a2  2 2 8fL a2 freezer at the continuous rate of 1.75 kJ/s, the

 2 = or  1 least power necessary to pump this heat out
D  2g A 2g D A2
continuously will be nearly
 2  (a) 0.1 kW (b) 0.2 kW
 Divide by  ...(ii)
 2g  (c) 0.3 kW (d) 0.4 kW
2 Ans. (c)
 2
d
8fL  4  Sol.
or  1
D   2 2
 D  T2 = 303 K
4 
8fL d4 D5 W + QR
or  4  1 or d4 
D D 8fL
1/4 W H.R
 D5 
d=  
 8fL  QR = 1.75 kJ/s
43. A piston-cylinder device with air at an initial
temperature of 30°C undergoes an expansion T1 = 258 K
SET - D
Detailed Solution
Least power will be required when this
refrigeration cycle operates on reversed Carnot Sol. Source 800°C
cycle.
QH
T1 Q
so, (COP)ref. = T  T = R Heat
W
2 1 W Engine
258 1.75 QL
 =
TEER
303  258 W Sink 30°C
R
1.75  45
 W= Reversible heat engine cycle will reject least
258
rate of heat (QL) per kW net output (W) of
Power inputs, W  0.30 kW engine.
ASST For reversible condition,
45. An ideal gas is flowing through an insulated
QT
pipe at the rate of 3 kg/s. There is a 10%
pressure drop from an inlet to exit of the pipe. So,
The values of R = 0.287 kJ/kgK and To = 300
K. The rate of energy loss for the pressure QL TL 303
= T  T  770
MA
drop due to friction, will be nearly W H L
(a) 34 kW (b) 30 kW
= 0.393  0.4 kW
(c) 26 kW (d) 22 kW
S M
Ans. (c) 47. A fictitious pressure that, if it acted on the piston

Sol. Rate of entropy generation during the entire power stroke, would produce
the same amount of net work as that produced
S gen   P 
 mR
during the actual cycle is called
 P1 
IE S
(a) Quasi equivalent pressure

0.10P1 (b) Mean equivalent pressure
= 3  0.28  P1
 0.0861kw/K
(c) Mean effective pressure
E
Rate of exergy loss (Rate of energy loss for the (d) Quasi static pressure
pressure drop due to friction)
Ans. (c)
I
I  T0 S gen Sol. Mean effective pressure is defined as a

hypothetical pressure which is thought to be
= 300  0.0861  25.83  26 kW acting on the piston throughout the power
46. A cyclic heat engine operates between a source stroke, would produce the same amount of
temperature of 800°C and a sink temperature net work as that produce during the actual
of 30°C. The least rate of heat rejection per kW cycle.
net output of engine will be nearly 48. An ideal cycle based on the concept of
(a) 0.2 kW (b) 0.4 kW combination of two heat transfer processes,
(c) 0.6 kW (d) 0.8 kW one at constant volume and the other at
constant pressure, is called
Ans. (b)
(a) Otto cycle (b) Dual cycle
(c) Diesel cycle (d) Carnot cycle
Ans. (b)
SET - D
Detailed Solution
Sol. In a dual cycle a part of the heat is first supplied Ans. (a)
to the system at constant volume and then the Sol. For fully developed laminar pipe flow,
remaining part at constant pressure.
49. The ideal thermodynamic cycle f or the u

development of gas-turbine engine is r
umax
(a) Otto (b) Stirling
(c) Ericsson (d) Brayton u
R
Ans. (d) Velocity distribution:
Sol. The Joule or Brayton cycle is the most idealized
1  P  2 2
cycle for the simple gas turbine engine. u=    R  r 
TE
4  x 
50. If the pressure at exhaust from the turbine is
the saturation pressure corresponding to the 1  P  2
temperature desired in the process heater, such Maximum velocity, umax (r = 0) =   R
4  x 
a turbine is called
(a) Condensing turbine 1  P  2 umax
AS
Average velocity, u =   R 
(b) Extraction turbine 8  x  2
(c) Pass out turbine The average velocity is one-half of the maximum
(d) Back pressure turbine velocity.
Ans. (d) 53. The overall heat transfer coefficient due to

M
Sol. The pressure at exhaust from the turbine is the convection and radiation for a steam maintained
saturation pressure corresponding to the at 200°C running in a large room at 30°C is
temperature desired in the process heater, such 17.95 W/m2K. If the emissivity of the pipe
a turbine is called back pressure turbine. surface is 0.8; the value of  = 5.67 × 10–8 W/
m 2K 4; the heat transfer coefficient due to
51. The purpose of providing fins on heat transfer radiation will be nearly
S
surface is to increase (a) 17 W/m2K (b) 14 W/m2K

(a) Temperature gradient so as to enhance heat (c) 11 W/m2K (d) 8 W/m2K
IE
transfer by convection
Ans. (c)
(b) Effective surface area to promote rate of
heat transfer by convection Sol. Overall heat transfer coefficient,
(c) Turbulence in flow for enhancing heat h0 = hc + hr

transfer by convection Here, hc is heat transfer coefficient due to
(d) Pressure drop of the fluid radiation.
Ans. (b) hr is heat transfer coefficient due to convection.
Sol. The purpose of providing fins on heat transfer

surface is to increase effective surface area to
4

Now, Q = hr (To – Ti) =  To  Ti
4

promote rate of heat transfer by convection.
5.67  108  0.8  (4734  303 4 )
52. For fully developed laminar pipe flow, the hr =
(473  303)
average velocity is
= 11 W/m2K
(a) One-half of the maximum velocity
(b) One-third of the maximum velocity 54. Large heat transfer coefficients for vapour
condensation can be achieved by promoting
(c) One-fourth of the maximum velocity
(d) Two-third of the maximum velocity
SET - D
Detailed Solution
(a) Film condensation P
3
(b) Dropwise condensation
(c) Cloud condensation 4
2
(d) Dew condensation
Ans. (b) 1
Sol. Due to exposure of large surface area to the

V
vapours in drop wise condensation heat transfer
TEER
T2=650 K
coefficient is higher (by as much as ten times) P2=12.5 bar = 1250 kPa
than that in film condensation. R = 300 Nm/kgK = 0.3 kJ/kgK
R
55. Which one of the following valves is provided 
P2V2 = mRT2
for starting the engine manually, during cold
weather conditions? 60
1250 × V2 =  0.3  650
3600
ASST
(a) Starting jet valve
V2 = 2.6 × 10–3 m3/sec
(b) Compensating jet valve
(c) Choke valve ALNK
Swept volume, Vs = V1  V2 
(d) Auxiliary air valve 60  2
Ans. (d)
MA
 800  4
=   0.08 2  0.1
Sol. Auxiliary air valve is provided for cold starting 4 60  2
the engine manually, during cold weather
conditions. = 0.0134 m3/sec
S M
So V1 = 0.0134 + V2
56. A 4-cylinder, 4-stroke single acting petrol engine
consumes 6 kg of fuel per minute at 800 rpm = 0.016 m3/sec
when the air-fuel ratio of the mixture supplied
is 9 : 1. The temperature is 650 K and pressure V1
Compression ratio (r) = V
IE S
is 12.5 bar at the end of compression stroke. 2

Take R = 300 Nm/kg.K, diameter of cylinder as
8 cm, stroke of cylinder as 10 cm. The 0.016
E
=  6.153  6.2
compression ratio will be nearly 2.6  10 3
(a) 6.2 (b) 5.7
57. Ice is formed at 0°C from water at 20°C
I
(c) 5.2 (d) 4.6

temperature of the brine is –8°C. The
Ans. (a) refrigeration cycle used is perfect reversed
Sol. Given: Carnot cycle. Latent heat of ice = 335 kJ/kg,
and cpw = 4.18. The ice formed per kWh will be
 f   6 kg/min
Mass flow rate of fuel  m nearly
Note: Practically not possible due to small (a) 81.4 kg (b) 76.4 kg
size of cylinder. (c) 71.8 kg (d) 68.8 kg
So it should be in 6 kg/hr Ans. (a)
AFR = 9 : 1 Sol.
Mass flow rate of air  ma   9  6  54 kJ/hr Ice at 0°C Water at 0°C

Latent
Total rate of injection of air and fuel (m) = ma Heat
+ mf = 60 kg/hr
Water at 20°C
SET - D
Detailed Solution
Qref = 335 × m + 4.18 × (20 – 0) refrigeration plant used is one-third of an ideal
×m plant working between the same temperatures.
The power required to drive the plant will be
 The cycle is working between –8°C and
20°C. (a) 10 kW (b) 11 kW
(c) 12 kW (d) 13 kW
8  273 265
So, (COP)ideal =  Ans. (d)
20  ( 8) 28
Sol.
R
Qref
 COP = Power Input
T2 = 308 K
TE
265 335  m  4.18  20  m
 =
28 3600
265  3600 Pin H.R

 m=
28  (335  4.18  20)
AS
QR
= 81.39  81.4 kg
T1 = 268 K
58. A Freon 12 simple saturation cycle operates at
temperature of 35°C and –15°C f or the
condenser and evaporator. If the refrigeration
effect produced by the cycle is 111.5 kJ/kg and 1
(COP)actual = (COP)ideal
M
the work required by the compressor is 27.2 3

kJ/kg, the value of COP will be nearly
(a) 4.1 (b) 3.6 T1
 (COP)ideal for refrigeration = T  T
2 1
(c) 3.1 (d) 2.6
S
Ans. (a) QR 1  268 

 = 
Sol. 35°C Pin 3  308  268 
IE
QH
Pin = 12.98 kW
So, The power required to drive the plant, P =
Ref W = 27.2 kJ/kg
12.98  13 kW .
Q L=111.5 kJ/kg The closest option is (d).
–15°C
60. A single acting two-stage air compressor deals
Refrigeration effect produced with 4m3/min of air at 1.013 bar and 15°C with
COP = a speed of 250 rpm. The delivery pressure is
Work required
80 bar. If the inter cooling is complete, the
intermittent pressure after first stage will be
111.5 (a) 9 bar (b) 8 bar
=  4.1
27.2 (c) 7 bar (d) 6 bar
Ans. (a)
59. A cold storage is to be maintained at –5°C while
the surroundings are at 35°C. The heat leakage Sol. For minimum total work, the intermediate
from the surroundings into the cold storage is pressures are given by the stage pressure ratio,
estimated to be 29 kW. The actual COP of the
SET - D
Detailed Solution
1
Sol. L = 305 mm
P n  = 376 MPa
r=  k
 Po  E = 110 GPa
where, n is the number of stages. Elongation
In a two stage system, this gives a geometric L 276  305

mean value for the intermediate pressure L  
E 110  103
TEER
Pi = Pk Po
L  0.765 mm
R
= 80  1.013 L  0.8 mm
= 81.04 = 9 bar
63. A 1.25 cm diameter steel bar is subjected to a
61. Which of the following are the advantages of load of 2500 kg. The stress induced in the bar
ASST will be
Nano-composite materials?
1. Decreased thermal expansion coefficients (a) 200 MPa (b) 210 MPa
2. Higher residual stress (c) 220 MPa (d) 230 MPa
3. Reduced gas permeability Ans. (a)
MA
4. Increased solvent resistance Sol. Load M = 2500 kg
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only diameter d = 1.25 cm
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
S M
mg 2500  9.81
stress   
Ans. (b)  2  2
d  (12.5)
Sol. 4 4
 Nano composites are used at high
  199.85 MPa
temperature where thermal stability is
IE S
required. It is used with matrix of butyl

  200 MPa
rubber within which embedded thin platelets
of veumiculite is used.
E
64. The maximum energy which can be stored in a

 Nano composites materials size is of nano body up to the elastic limit is called
range which is comparable to gas molecules
sizes. So, gas permeability is less. (a) Proof resilience
I
Nano composites are resistant to solvent (b) Modulus of resilience


so, that they cannot dissolve in it. (c) Impact toughness
 They do not have residual stress as these (d) Endurance strength
materials giv e excellent mechanical Ans. (a)
strength, toughness etc.
Sol. Proof resilience is the maximum energy stored
62. A rod of copper originally 305 mm long is pulled in a body up to the elastic limit.
in tension with a stress of 276 MPa. if the
modulus of elasticity is 110 GPa and the 65. A cast iron bed plate for a pump has a crack
deformation is entirely elastic, the resultant length of 100 µm. If the Young’s modulus of
elongation will be nearly cast iron is 210 GN/m2 and the specific surface
energy is 10 J/m2, the fracture strength required
(a) 1.0 mm (b) 0.8 mm will be nearly
(c) 0.6 mm (d) 0.4 mm (a) 1.0 × 108 N/m2 (b) 1.2 × 108 N/m2
Ans. (b) (c) 1.4 × 108 N/m2 (d) 1.6 × 108 N/m2
SET - D
Detailed Solution
Ans. (b) (c) A square of an angular velocity of the link
Sol. and the distance between the two points
under consideration
Fracture strength for brittle material,
(d) An angular velocity of the link and the
2E distance between the two points under
 = consideration
c
Ans. (d)
where, E = Young’s modulus
Sol.
R
 = specific surface energy
c = crack length B VBO
TE
Given: E = 210 × 109 N/m2
 = 10 J/m2
A VAO VBA    AB
c = 100 m = 100 × 10–6 m

2  210  109  10
AS
 =
  100  10 6 o
= 1.15  108 N / m2
68. In a mechanism, the number of Instantaneous
  1.2 × 108 N/m2 centres (I-centres) N is
M
66. A 13 mm diameter tensile specimen has 50 mm n(n  1) n(2n  1)

(a) (b)
gauge length. If the load corresponding to the 2 2
0.2% offset of 6800 kg, the yield stress will be
nearly 2n(n  1) n(2n  1)
(c) (d)
(a) 31 kg/mm2 (b) 43 kg/mm2 3 3
S
(c) 51 kg/mm2 (d) 63 kg/mm2 where :

Ans. (c) n = Number of links
IE
Sol. 0.2% offset yield strength, Ans. (a)

Py Py Sol. No. of I-centres in a mechanism containing n
y =  links
Ao  2
d
4
n(n  1)
6800  4 N
= 2
  132
= 51.23 kg/mm2
69. In cycloidal motion of cam follower, the
67. The magnitude of the velocity of any point on maximum acceleration of follower motion f max
the kinematic link relative to the other point on 
at  
the same kinematic link is the product of 4
(a) A square root of an angular velocity of the 2 2
h 3h
link and the distance between the two points (a) 2 (b) 2
2 2
under consideration
2 2
(b) An angular velocity of the link and the 2h 3h
(c) 2 (d) 2
square of distance between the two points  
under consideration
SET - D
Detailed Solution
where: 71. A vibrating system consists of mass of 50 kg, a
h = Maximum follower displacement spring with a stiffness of 30 kN/m and a damper.
 = Angular velocity of cam If damping is 20% of the critical value, the
 = Angle f or the maximum f ollower natural frequency of damped vibrations will be
displacement for cam rotation (a) 16 rad/s (b) 20 rad/s
Ans. (c) (c) 24 rad/s (d) 28 rad/s
Sol. Ans. (c)
TEER
Acceleration, Sol. m = 50 kg, k = 30 kN/m
2h 2  2   = 0.20
R
f= 2
 sin  
   
k
 n =
at  = m
4
ASST
2h  2  2    30  103
f = f max = 2
 sin   = = 24.49 rad/s
  4  50
2h 2
fmax  d = 1 2  n
2
MA
70. A shaft of span 1 m and diameter 25 mm is = 1  0.202  24.49

simply supported at the end. It carriers a 1.5 kN = 24 rad/s
concentrated load at mid-span. If E is 200 GPa,
S M
its fundamental frequency will be nearly 72. A refrigerator unit having a mass of 35 kg is to
(a) 3.5 Hz (b) 4.2 Hz be supported on three springs, each having
spring stiffness s. The unit operates at 480 rpm.
(c) 4.8 Hz (d) 5.5 Hz
If only 10% of the shaking force is allowed to
Ans. (d) transmit to the supporting structure, the value
IE S
Sol. of stiffness will be nearly

(a) 2.7 N/mm (b) 3.2 N/mm

E
Fundamental frequency f = n (c) 3.7 N/mm (d) 4.2 N/mm

2
Ans. (a)
I
1 g Sol. m = 35 kg, N = 480 rpm

f =
2  Stiffness = s
2 N
1 g  PL3   =
= 2   for SSB 60
PL3  48E  
48E 2  480
=  50.27 rad/s
60
1 9810  48  200  103    254 Transmissibility, T = 0.10
=
2 1.5  103  10003  64
1
f  5.5 Hz =
(1  r 2 )
{when   0, Assume   0 }
SET - D
Detailed Solution
Consider –ive sign 75. In a reciprocating engine, the force along the
10 = –1 +r2 connecting rod FQ is
r2 = 11 FP FP
(a) 2 2 (b)
r= 11 n  sin  2 n  sin2 
2
 nFP nFP
n
= 3.317 (c) 2 2 (d)
2 n  sin  n  sin2 
2
R
50.27 where
n =
3.317 FP = Force on piston
seq
m
= 15.16
seq = 15.162 × 35 = 8043.89 N/m

TE n=
L
r
 = Angle of crank from IDC

Ans. (d)
AS
seq Sol.
s= = 2.68 × 103 N/m
3
r
s  2.7 N / mm FQ
  FP
73. In which one of the following tooth profiles, does
M
the pressure angle remain constant throughout FQ cos = FP

the engagement of teeth?
(a) Cycloidal (b) Involute FP
FQ =
(c) Conjugate (d) Epicycloid cos
S
Ans. (b)
sin   
Sol. In case of involute tooth profile pressure angle but sin =  where n  r 
remains constant. n 
IE
74. If the axes of the first and last wheels of a sin2  n2  sin2 
compound gear coincide, it is called cos = 1 =
n2 n
(a) Simple gear train
(b) Compound gear train nFP
so, FQ =
(c) Epicyclic gear train n2  sin2 
(d) Reverted gear train
76. A mass m1 attached to a shaft at radius r1
Ans. (d) rotating with angular velocity  rad/s, can be
Sol. balanced by another single mass m2 which is
attached to the opposite side of the shaft at
radius r2 in the same plane, if
(a) m1r2 = m2r1 (b) m1r1 = m2r2
(c) m1r1 1 = m2r2 2 (d) m1r2 1 = m2r1 2

Ans. (b)
Reverted gear train
SET - D
Detailed Solution
Sol. (a) A higher bow and lower stern
2
F1 = m1r1 (b) A lower bow and higher stern
(c) Turning towards left
m1 (d) No gyroscopic effect
Ans. (d)
r1
Sol.
TEER
r2 rolling axis
R
rotor or
m2 axis rolling
axis rotor axis
2
F2 = m2r2 Since both the axis are parallel.
ASST
For complete balancing F1 = F2 So, there is no gyroscopic effect
m1 r1  m2 r2 79. Coaxing is a process of

(a) improving the fatigue properties, attained
77. For a single cylinder reciprocating engine speed by under-stressing and then raising the
is 500 rpm, stroke is 150 mm, mass of stress in small increments
MA
reciprocating parts is 21 kg; mass of revolving
(b) Decreasing the hardness by full annealing
parts is 15 kg at crank radius. If two-thirds of
reciprocating masses and all the revolving (c) Increasing the uniaxial tensile strength by
S M
masses are balanced, the mass at a radius of heating above recrystallization temperature
150 mm will be and quenching in oil media
(a) 7.5 kg (b) 10.5 kg (d) Maintaining the ductility of the material by
chemical treatment
(c) 12.5 kg (d) 14.5 kg
Ans. (a)
IE S
Ans. (d)
Sol. The fatigue resistance of some metals may be
Sol. N = 500 rpm, stroke = 150 mm
improved by understressing followed by a
r = 75 mm
E
process of gradually increasing the amplitude

mrec. = 21 kg of the alternating stress in small increments a
procedure ordinarily called ‘coaxing’.
mrev. = 15 kg
I
80. According to the distortion-energy theory, the

2
C= yield strength in shear is
3
(a) 0.277 times the yield stress
rb = 150 mm
(b) 0.377 times the maximum shear stress
 2  (c) 0.477 times the yield strength in tension
mbrb =  mrev.  mrec.   r
 3  (d) 0.577 times the yield strength in tension
Ans. (d)
 2 
mb × 150 =  15   21  75 Sol. According to the distortion - energy theory, the
 3 
yield strength in shear is 0.577 times the yield
strength in tension.
mb  14.5 kg
By
78. If the axes of the rolling of the ship and of the 2 2
2(Syt)2 =  1  2 2   2  3    3  1  
stabilizing rotor are parallel, it will result in
SET - D
Detailed Solution
1 =  S yt
FOS =   
2 = –  1 3
3 = 0 250
FOS =
120  30
2(Syt)2 = [(  +  )2 + (–  – 0)2 + (0 –  )2]
2(Syt)2 = [(4  2 +  2 +  2) FOS = 1.7
R
(Syt)2 = 3  2 83. For which one of the following loading conditions
is the standard endurance strength multiplied
Syt by a load factor, Ke = 0.9?
 =
3
TE
(a) Reversed beam bending loads
(b) Reversed axial loads with no bending
  0.577 Syt
(c) Reversed axial loads with intermediate
bending
81. For the prediction of ductile yielding, the theory
of failure utilized is (d) Reversed torsion loads
AS
(a) Maximum strain energy theory Ans. (b)
(b) Distortion energy theory Sol. The load factor, ke = 0.9 for reversed axial loads
with no bending.
(c) Maximum normal strain theory
For, reversed torsional/shear loads (brittle
(d) Mohr theory
material), ke = 0.8
Ans. (b)
M
and for compressive reversed or bending loads,

Sol. For the prediction of ductile yielding distortion ke = 1.
energy theory is used.
84. A 120 mm wide uniform plate is to be subjected
82. A steel specimen is subjected to the following to a tensile load that has a maximum value of
principal stresses: 120 MPa tensile, 60 MPa
S
250 kN and a minimum value of 100 kN. The

tensile and 30 MPa compressive. If the properties of the plate material are: endurance
proportionality limit for the steel specimen is limit stress is 225 MPa, yield point stress is
250 MPa; the factor of safety as per maximum 300 MPa. If the factor of safety based on yield
IE
shear stress theory will be nearly point is 1.5, the thickness of the plate will be
(a) 1.3 (b) 1.7 nearly
(c) 2.3 (d) 2.7 (a) 12 mm (b) 14 mm
Ans. (b) (c) 16 mm (d) 18 mm
Ans. (a)
Sol. 1 = 120 MPa
Sol.
2 = 60 MPa w = 120 mm
3 = – 30 MPa P1 = 250 kN
Syt = 250 MPa P2 = 100 kN
By maximum shear stress theory Syt = 300 MPa

Se = 225 MPa
S yt
= 1  3 FOS = 1.5
FOS
Let t is the thickness of plate
SET - D
Detailed Solution
(a) 20 mm (b) 23 mm
P1
max = (c) 26 mm (d) 29 mm
A
Ans. (c)
3
250  10 Sol. Se = KaKbKcKd (0.5 Sut)
= MPa
120  t
Kf = q(kt – 1) + 1
P2 100  103 Kf = 0.6 (1.5 – 1) + 1

min = = MPa
TEER
A 120 t Kf = 1.3
Mean stress, 1 1
R
Kd = K  1.3  0.77
f
max  min
m =
2 Se = 0.82 × 0.9 × 0.85 × 0.77 ×
0.5 × 1000
ASST 250  103  100  103
= Se = 241.51 MPa
2  120  t
Axial endurance stress
175  103 (Se)a = 0.8 × 241.51

= MPa
120 t (Se)a = 193.2 MPa
MA
Amplitude stress  Se a P
=
FOS  2
max  min d
S M
A = 4
2
4P  FOS
250  103  100  103 d2 =    S 
= e a
2  120t
IE S
75  103 4  50  103  2
= d=
120 t   193.2
E
By Goodman formula, d = 25.67 mm
m  A 1 d  26 mm
I

Syt Se = FOS
86. During crushing or bearing failure of riveted
joints
175  103 75  103 1
 = (a) The holes in the plates become oval shaped
120 t  300 120t  225 1.5
and joints become loose
t = 11.45 mm (b) There is tearing of the plate at an edge
 12 mm (c) The plates will crack in radial directions and
joints fail
85. A steel connecting rod having Sut = 1000 MN/
m 2, S yt = 900 MN/m 2 is subjected to a (d) The rivet heads will shear out by applied
completely reversed axial load of 50 kN. By stress
neglecting any column action, if the values of Ans. (a)
ke = 0.85, kb = 0.9, ka = 0.82, kt = 1.5, q = 0.6 Sol. During crushing failure of riveted joints the holes
and N = 2, the diameter of the rod will be nearly in the plates becomes oval shaped and joints
become loose.
SET - D
Detailed Solution
87. The double riveted joint with two cover plates = 3 and rotational factor is 1, the basic dynamic
for boiler shell is 1.5 m in diameter subjected to load rating of a bearing will be nearly
steam pressure of 1 MPa. If the joint efficiency (a) 65 kN (b) 75 kN
is 75%, allowable tensile stress in the plate is
83 MN/m2, compressive stress is 138 MN/m2 (c) 85 kN (d) 95 kN
and shear stress in the rivet is 55 MN/m2, the Ans. (a)
diameter of rivet hole will be nearly
Sol. Pe = XVFr  yFa
(a) 8 mm (b) 22 mm
R
Pe = 0.65 × 1 × 7000+3.5×2100 N
(c) 36 mm (d) 52 mm
Ans. (b) = 11900 N
TE
Sol. Given: k
C
Pressure, P = 1 MPa Lq0 =  
 Pe 
Diameter, d = 1.5 m
C = Pe × (Lq0)1/k
Joint efficiency,   0.75
C = 11900 × (160)1/3
AS
t = 83 MN/m2 C = 64603.14 N
C = 64.6 kN
c = 138 MN/m2
C  65 kN
c = 55 MN/m2
For boiler shell, 89. A solid cast iron disk, 1 m in diameter and 0.2
M
thickness of cylindrical shell, m thick, is used as a flywheel. It is rotating at

350 rpm. It is brought to rest in 1.5 s by means
PD of a brake. If the mass density of cast iron is
t = 2   CA 7200 kg/m3, the torque exerted by the brake
t
will be nearly
S
 Here, CA (corrosion allowance) (a) 3.5 kN m (b) 4.5 kN m

Putting the respective values, (c) 5.3 kN m (d) 6.3 kN m
IE
Ans. (a)
1 1.5  1000
t= 2
2  83  0.75 Sol. Mass of flywheel
= 14.048 mm  2
m =  d t
4
 t> B

So, using Unwin’s formula, = 7200   12  0.2
4
Diameter of rivet, d = 6 t = 1130.97 kg
Moment of inertia (I)
= 6 14.048
d = 22.48 mm MR2 1130.97   0.5 2

I= 
So, the closest option is (b). 2 2
= 141.37 kg-m2
88. A bearing supports a radial load of 7000 N and
a thrust load of 2100 N. The desired life of the  = 0   t
ball bearing is 160 × 106 revolution at 300 rpm.
If the load is uniform and steady, service factor 2  350
is 1, radial factor is 0.65, thrust factor is 3.5, k 0=    1.5
60
SET - D
Detailed Solution
92. If the atmospheric conditions are 20°C, 1.013
2  350
 =   24.43 rad/s2 bar and specific humidity of 0.0095 kg/kg of dry
60  1.5
air, the partial pressure of vapour will be nearly
Torque (T) = I (a) 0.076 bar (b) 0.056 bar
= 141.37 × 24.43 (c) 0.036 bar (d) 0.016 bar
= 3453.67 Nm Ans. (d)
= 3.45 kNm Sol.
TEER
Specific humidity,
T  3.5 kNm
R
0.622Pv
 = P  Pv
90. The torque transmitting capacity of friction
clutches can be increased by
Given that, P = 1.013 bar
(a) Use of friction material with a lower
ASST
coefficeint of friction  = 0.0095 kg/kg of dry air
(b) Decreasing the mean radius of the friction 0.622  Pv

disk 0.0095 = 1.013  P
v
(c) Increasing the mean radius of the friction
disk Pv = 0.016 bar
MA
(d) Decreasing the plate pressure 93. In air-conditioning systems, air may be cooled
Ans. (c) and dehumidified by
1. Spraying chilled water to air in the form of
S M
Sol. T = W Rm
fine mist
T  Rm 2. Circulating chilled water or brine in a tube
placed across the air flow.
So the torque transmitting capacity of friction
clutches can be increased by increasing the 3. Placing the evaporator coil across the air
IE S
mean radius of the friction disk. flow.

Which of the above statements are correct ?
91. The ideal gas-refrigeration cycle is the same
E
as the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) Brayton cycle (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (c)
I
(b) Reversed Brayton cycle

(c) Vapour compression refrigeration cycle In case of chilled water, it is very difficult to
maintain temperature of chilled water less than
(d) Vapour absorption refrigeration cycle DPT of entry air. Even if it is maintained, air
Ans. (b) carries water vapor along with it in the process
Sol. Reversed Brayton Cycle is used in gas- of heat exchange by which humidity will
refrigeration cycle. increase. Hence this process reduce
temperature but humidity goes up.
2 94. A duct of rectangular cross-section 600 mm ×
400 mm carries 90 m3/min of air having density
3 of 1.2 kg/m3. When the quantity of air in both
1
T cases is same, the equivalent diameter of a
4 circular duct will be nearly
(a) 0.86 m (b) 0.76 m
s (c) 0.64 m (d) 0.54 m
SET - D
Detailed Solution
Ans. (d)
Pv
Sol. There are two methods for finding out the Now,  =
Ps
equivalent diameter for a given cross-section.
(A) The rectangular duct carrying the same Pv
quantity of air as circular duct and the 0.75 =
3.169
pressure drop per unit length of duct in both
cases is same. Partial pressure of water vapor,
Pv = 2.37 kPa
R
1
 (ab)3  5 Now, Pt = Pa + Pv
 D = 1.265  
 (a  b)  100 = Pa + 2.37
TE
Partial pressure of dry air,
where a and b are the two sides of the
duct and D is the diameter of the circular Pa = 97.63 kPa
duct. 96. A measure of feeling warmth or coolness by
(B) The air velocity through rectangular duct is the human body in response to the air
same as circular and pressure drop per temperature, moisture content and air motion
AS
unit length of duct in both cases is same. is called
(a) Dry bulb temperature
2ab
D= (b) Effective temperature
ab
(c) Wet bulb temperature
Now, Using the following equation,
(d) Dew point temperature
M
1
 (ab) 3 5 Ans. (b)
D = 1.265  
 (a  b)  Sol. There is no proper method to measure the
feeling of comfort as it is controlled by number
1
 (60  40)3  5 of variables. Assuring that purity of the air is
S
= 1.265   maintained as required and proper air motion

 (60  40)  is provided which will be just sufficient to break-
= 54.5 cm or 0.54 m away the film of air formed and vapour adjacent
IE
to the body, the comfort feeling mostly depends

95. A room having dimensions of 5 m × 5 m × 3 m upon the atmospheric conditions as dry bulb
contains air at 25°C and 100 kPa at a relative temperature and relative humidity. The American
humidity of 75%. The corresponding value of Society of Heating and Ventilating Engineers
ps is 3.169 kPa. The partial pressure of dry air has made exhaustive tests on different kinds of
will be nearly people subjected to wide v ariations of
(a) 106 kPa (b) 98 kPa combinations of temperature, relative humidity
and air motion.
(c) 86 kPa (d) 78 kPa
Effective Temperature: The eff ectiv e
Ans. (b)
temperature is a measure of feeling warmth or
Sol. cold to the human body in response to the air
Relative humidity, temperature, moistures content and air motion.
 = 75% or 0.75 97. While designing a Pelton wheel, the velocity of

wheel ‘u’ is
Total pressure,
Pt = 100 kPa (a) K u gH (b) 2K u gH
(c) K u 2gH (d) 2Ku 2gH
SET - D
Detailed Solution
where : Efficiency of pump,
Ku = Speed ratio
Pa
H = Net head on turbine  =  100%
Pm
g = Gravity
Ans. (c) 3.678
=  100%
5
Sol.
= 73.57%
TEER
Speed ratio,
u 100. An inward flow reaction turbine has an external
R
ku = diameter of 1 m and its breadth at inlet is 250
2gH
mm. If the velocity of flow at inlet is 2 m/s and
10% of the area of flow is blocked by blade
u = ku 2 gH thickness, the weight of water passing through
ASST
Here, H is net head on turbine and u is wheel the turbine will be nearly
velocity. (a) 10 kN/s (b) 14 kN/s
98. The turbines of the same shape will have the (c) 18 kN/s (d) 22 kN/s
same Ans. (b)
(a) Thomas number Sol. D1 = 1m: B1 = 0.25 m;
MA
(b) Reynolds number Vf1 = 2 m/s

(c) Specific speed Blade thickness coefficient (k) = 0.9
S M
(d) Rotational speed Q = k D1B1  Vf1

Ans. (c)
= 1.413 m3/s
Sol. The specific speed of any turbine is the speed
in r.p.m. of a turbine geometrically similar to Weight of water =  gQ
the actual turbine.
IE S
= 13.86 kN/s
101. The process of abstracting steam at a certain

99. A centrifugal pump is required to lift 0.0125 section of the turbine and subsequently using
E
m3/s of water from a well with depth 30 m. If it for heating feed water supplied to the boiler
rating of the pump motor is 5 kW, and the is called
density of water is 1000 kg/m3, the efficiency of
I
(a) Reheating
the pump will be nearly
(b) Regeneration
(a) 82% (b) 74%
(c) Bleeding
(c) 66% (d) 58%
(d) Binary vapour cycle
Ans. (b)
Ans. (b)
Sol. Q = 0.0125 m3/s
Sol. Bleeding is a process by which we extract the
H = 30 m steam f rom turbine which has v arious
Actual power, application in passout turbine regeneration etc.
In regeneration extracted steam is used to heat
Pa =  Q gH feed water to boiler.
= 1000 × 0.0125 × 9.81 × 30
102. When blade speed ratio is zero, no work is
= 3.678 kW done because the distance travelled by the
Pump motor power, blade is zero even if the torque on the blade
Pm = 5 kW
SET - D
Detailed Solution
(a) is minimum
2
(b) is zero 2  cos  90  1  
A/Q. 2
1
(c) is maximum 1   cos  90  1  
(d) remains the same
Ans. (c) 1 = 90°
Sol. In impulse steam turbine, the maximum 104. Which of the following are essential for a good
efficiency is cos2  and maximum work done combustion chamber of turbojet engine?
R
1. It should allow complete combustion of fuel.
per kg of steam is 2Vb2 when   cos  / 2.
2. It should maintain suff iciently high
TE
When   0, the work done becomes zero as temperature in the zone of combustion in
the distance travelled by the blade (Vb) is zero, addition to proper atomization of fuel thus
even though the torque on the blade is leading to continuous combustion.
maximum. 3. It should not have high rate of combustion.
When   1, the work done is zero as the torque 4. The pressure drop should be as small as
AS
possible
acting on the blades becomes zero even though
the distance travelled by the blade is maximum. (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
103. In an axial flow turbine, the utilization factor
has an absolute maximum value of unity, for Ans. (d)
any degree of reaction if the value of nozzle Sol. Because of turbine material limitations, only a
angle  is
M
limited amount of fuel can be burnt in the

(a) 270° (b) 180° combustion chamber. The exhaust products
downstream of the turbine still contain a
(c) 90° (d) 0°
considerable amount of excess oxygen.
Ans. (c) Additional thrust augmentation can be achieved
S
Sol. In axial flow gas turbine now a days blade from the turbojet engine by providing an after
angles is measured from axial, or flow direction. burner in which additional fuel can be burnt.
i.e. Hence angle is measured with respect axis. 105. If mf is the mass of fuel supplied per kg of air
IE
While in steam turbine it is with respect to tan- in one second, then the mass of gases leaving
gential and direction. the nozzle of turbojet will be
so, 1 = Angle of axial turbine 1

(a) 1  mf  kg / s (b) kg / s
1  mf 
 = Angle of steam turbine
1
then, 1 = 90   (c) 1  mf  kg / s (d) kg / s
1  mf 
Maximum utilization factor for steam turbine Ans. (c)
2cos 2  Sol.
= 2
1  cos  mf
So, for axial flow turbine it is
2
2  cos  90  1   ma (m a + m f)
= 2
1   cos  90  1  
[Leaving mass from Nozzle]
SET - D
Detailed Solution
As per question, =   a  Vr    a   V  u 
ma is unity  ma = 1.
Propulsive force exerted on the ship
So, ma + mf = (1 + mf) kg/s.
=   a   V  u   Vr  u
106. Which one of the following may be considered
as a single cylinder two-stroke reciprocating = a  V  u   v
engine running at 2400 rpm to 2700 rpm for
rapid chain of impulses? So, Thrust power =   a  V  u   V  u  TP
TEER
(a) Turbo jet (b) Pulse jet
TP
prop =
R
(c) Ram jet (d) Athodyd jet TP  K.E. loss
Ans. (a)
Sol. a(V  u) V  u 2Vu
= 2

a(V  u)(V  u)  V  u 2
 Athodyel is nothing but an aero- a  V  u  V  u 
ASST 2
thermodynamic duct.
 It is a straight duct type of engine without where  = density of fluid / water
a compressor and turbine wheels.
a = area of orifice
 The entire compression is obtained by a
ram, eliminating the need of turbine. 108. 0.8 kg of air flows through a compressor under
MA
steady state conditions. The properties of air at
 Ramjet and pulse jet are the type of it.
entry are : pressure 1 bar, velocity 10 m/s,
 Turbojet uses turbine and compressor. specific volume 0.95 m3/kg and internal energy
S M
30 kJ/kg. The corresponding values at exit are

107. In jet propulsion of ships, when the inlet orifices
8 bar, 6 m/s, 0.2 m 3/kg and 124 kJ/kg.
are at right angles to the direction of motion of
Neglecting change in potential energy, the
the ships, the efficiency of propulsion  is power input will be
2u2 2Vu (a) 117 kW (b) 127 kW
IE S
(a) (b) 2
V u  V  u (c) 137 kW (d) 147 kW
2u 2Vu Ans. (b)
(c) (d)
E
2
 V  u V  2u Sol. Ma = 0.8 kg
where : By steady flow energy equation
V = Absolute velocity of the issuing jet
I
2 2
u = Velocity of the moving ship c1 g
h1   2  qcv
Ans. (b) 2000 1000
Orifice 2 2
c2 g
= h2   2  wq
Sol. 2000 1000
Force
direction V 2 2
c1  c 2
of ship Wq  (h1  h2 ) 
2000
2 2
Vr = V + u 10  6
 (125  284) 
Mass of water / fluid issuing from orifice, back 2000
of the ship = –159 + 0.032
=   area of orifice  relative velocity W input = 159 kJ/kg
SET - D
Detailed Solution
Total power input = 159 kJ/kg × 0.8 Kg/s (d) Increases the plant efficiency and reduces
= 127 kW work ratio
1 Ans. (b)
2 Wnet WT  Wc
Sol. x 
Qs Qs
Increase in power input (wc ) will reduce

efficiency of cycle work ratio
R
2
Wnet WT  Wc
1 = 
WT WT
P1  1bar
C1  10 m/s
3
P2  8 bar
C2  6 m/s
v1  0.95 m /kg v 2  0.2 m /ms
u1  30 ms/kg
h1  u1  P1v1
u2  124 ms / mg
h2  u2  P2 V2
3
TE 111.
As power input increases, work ratio decreases.
For the same compression ratio, the Brayton

cycle efficiency is
(a) Same as the Diesel cycle efficiency
AS
(b) Equal to the Otto cycle efficiency
 30  (100  0.95)  124  800(0.2)
 125 ms/mg  284 ms/mg (c) More than the Diesel cycle efficiency
(d) Less than the Otto cycle efficiency
109. In a power plant, the efficiency of the electric
generator, turbine, boiler, cycle and the overall Ans. (b)
plant are 0.97, 0.95, 0.92, 0.42 and 0.33
M
1
respectively. In the generated electricity, the Sol. Efficiency of Brayton cycle = 1 
auxiliaries will consume nearly rP   1/ 
(a) 7.3% (b) 6.5%
1
(c) 5.7% (d) 4.9% = 1
r   1
S
Ans. (a)
Where r = compression ratio
Sol. plant  Boiler  Turbine(mech)  Generator
IE
 Cycle  Auxiliaries 1
Efficiency of otto cycle = 1 
r   1
0.33
 Auxiliaries  Hence for same compression ratio, brayton
0.97  0.95  0.92  0.42
= 0.9268 cycle efficiency is equal to otto cycle efficiency.
1 – 0.9268 = 0.0732 112. An economizer in a steam generator performs

or 7.32% of total electricity generated is the function of preheating the
consumed by the auxiliaries. (a) Combustion air
110. The higher power requirements for compression (b) Feed water
in a steam power plant working on Carnot (c) Input fuel
vapour cycle (d) Combustion air as well as input fuel
(a) Increases the plant efficiency as well as Ans. (b)
work ratio
Sol. Economizer heats the feed water supplied to
(b) Reduces the plant efficiency as well as work the boiler drum by utilizing heat of exhaust
ratio gases.
(c) Does not affect the plant efficiency as well
as work ratio
SET - D
Detailed Solution
113. Air enters the compressor of a gas turbine plant calcium is 6.81 × 3.0 = 20.44 kmol/h
operating on Brayton cycle at 1 bar and 27°C.
 Mass flow rate of CaCO3 required = 20.44
The pressure ratio in the cycle is 6. If the relation × 100
between the turbine work W T and compressor
= 2044 kg/h (since molecular weight of CaCO3
work W C is W T = 3W C and   1.4, the cycle
is 100)
efficiency will be nearly
 Mass flow of limestone = 2044/0.85 = 2404.7
(a) 40% (b) 50% kg/h which is about 40% of the coal burning
rate.
TEER
(c) 60% (d) 70%
Ans. (a) 115. In Orsat apparatus, when the percentage of
R
Sol. P1 = 1 bar; T1 = 27°C carbon dioxide, oxygen and carbon monoxide
are known, the remaining gas is assumed to
rP = 6
be
WT = 3 WC
(a) Hydrogen (b) Sulphur dioxide
ASST 3
T (c) Nitrogen (d) Air
2 Ans. (c)
4 Sol. An orsat gas analyzer is a laboratory equipment
used to analyse a gas sample for O2, CO2 and
1 CO directly. Nitrogen gas content is calculated
MA
indirectly.
S  Potassium hydroxide absorbs CO2
1
S M
Efficiency of Brayton cycle = 1  1/   Pyrogallic acid absorbs O2

rp   Copper chloride absorbs CO
1
= 1  0.40 or 40% Any left over gas is assumed to be nitrogen.
1.4 1
1.4
6 116. The partial vacuum created by the fan in the
IE S
114. A fluidized bed combustion system having an furnace and flues, draws the products of the
output of 35 MW at 80% efficiency when using combustion from the main flue and allows them
a coal of heating value 26 MJ/kg with a sulphur to pass up to the chimney. Such a draught is
E
content of 3.6% requires a particular limestone called

to be fed to it at a calcium-sulphur molar ratio (a) Balanced draught (b) Forced draught
of 3.0 so as to limit emissions of SO 2
I
(c) Induced draught (d) Artificial draught

adequately. The limestone used contains 85%
CaCO3. The required flow rate of limestone will Ans. (c)
be Sol.
(a) 2405 kg/h (b) 2805 kg/h
(c) 3205 kg/h (d) 3605 kg/h
Induced draught
Ans. (a)
35
Sol. Coal burning rate =  1.683kg/s
0.80  26
= 6057.7 kg/h
6057.7  0.036
 Flow rate of sulphur =
32
Furnance
= 6.81 kmol/h
For a Ca : S molar ratio of 3.0, the flow rate of Air
SET - D
Detailed Solution
Induced draught f ans discharge gases 250°C 100
essentially at atmospheric pressure and place Sol. 1
60
the system under negative gauge pressure in
upstream side. Hot gases
The
117. Which of the following are applied (used) ways
of compounding steam turbines? Tc e
1. Pressure compounding 50
Tci  4.186
R
60
2. Temperature compounding H2O
3. Velocity compounding By heat balancing in heat exchanger

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (d)
Sol.
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
There are three types of compoundings used

TE Qexchanged by Air (Hot) = Qexchanged by H2O
 w  c w   Tce  Tci 
Qexchanged by Hot air = m
=
50
60
 4.186  110  50 
AS
in steam turbines which are:
(1) Pressure compounding = 209.3 kJ/s = 12.558 MJ/min
(2) Velocity compounding  12.6 MJ/min
(3) Pressure-Velocity compounding
120. The phenomenon that enables cooling towers
118. A steam ejector which removes air and other to cool water to a temperature below the dry
M
non-condensable gases from the condenser is bulb temperature of air is termed as

known as (a) Chemical dehumidification
(a) Wet air pump (b) Dry air pump (b) Adiabatic evaporative cooling
(c) Centrifugal pump (d) Circulating pump (c) Cooling and dehumidification
S
118. (d) Sensible cooling
Ans. (b) Ans. (b)

IE
Sol. Air pumps are provided to maintain a desired Sol. The cooling tower utilizes the phenomenon of
vacuum in the condenser by extracting the air evaporative cooling to cool the warm water
and other non-condensable gases. Dry air pump below the DBT of air. However, water never
which removes air and non-condensable gases. reaches the minimum temperature i.e. WBT
Wet air pump which removes condensate and since an excessively large cooling tower would
gases. then be required.
119. In a heat exchanger, 50 kg of water is heated 121. The angle through which the Earth must turn to
per minute from 50°C to 110°C by hot gases bring the meridian of a point directly in line with
which enter the heat exchanger at 250°C. The the Sun’s rays is called
value of Cp for water is 4.186 kJ/kg.K and for (a) Altitude angle
air is 1 kJ/kg.K. If the flow rate of gases is 100 (b) Hour angle
kg/min, the net change of enthalpy of air will be
nearly (c) Solar azimuth angle
(a) 17.6 MJ/min (b) 15.0 MJ/min (d) Zenith angle
(c) 12.6 MJ/min (d) 10.0 MJ/min Ans. (b)
Ans. (c) Sol. Hour angle: The hour angle at any moment is
the angle through which the earth must turn to
bring the meridian of the observer directly in
SET - D
Detailed Solution
line with sun’s rays. 125. In a solar tower power system, each mirror is
mounted on a system called
122. In which type of collector is solar radiation
(a) Regenerator (b) Linear Fresnel
focused into the absorber from the top, rather
than from the bottom ? (c) Dish (d) Heliostat
(a) Fresnel lens Ans. (d)
(b) Paraboloidal Sol. A heliostat is composed of a reflective surface
(c) Concentrating mirror, mirror support structure, pedestal,
TEER
foundation and control and drive mechanisms.
(d) Compound parabolic
R
Ans. (a) 126. The ratio of PV cell’s actual maximum power
output to its theoretical power output is called
Sol. In linear Fresnel lens collector and circular
Fresnel lens concentrator solar radiation (a) Quantum factor
focused into the absorber from the top, rather (b) Fill factor
ASST
than from the bottom. (c) Quantum efficiency
123. A flat plate collector is 150 cm wide and 180 (d) PV factor
cm high and is oriented such that it is Ans. (b)
perpendicular to the sun rays. Its active area is
90% of the panel size. If it is in a location that Maximum power
MA
receives solar insolation of 1000 W/m2 peak, Sol. Fill factor =
Theoretical power
the peak power delivered to the area of the
collector will be  These power output of both the open circuit
voltage and short circuit current together.
S M
(a) 1.23 kW (b) 2.43 kW

 Fill factor measure the quality of the solar
(c) 4.46 kW (d) 6.26 kW
cell.
Ans. (b)
Sol. Area of the flat plate = 150 × 180 = 27000 cm 2 127. With respect to the wind turbine blades, TSR
means
IE S
= 27000 cm2
(a) Tip Swift Ratio (b) Tip Sharp Ratio
= 2.7 m2
(c) Tip Speed Ratio (d) Tip Swing Ratio
E
Solar insolation = 1000 W/m2

Ans. (c)
= 1000 × 2.7 × 0.90
Sol.
= 2700 × 0.90
I
TSR = Tip speed ratio

= 2.43 kW
blade tip speed
124. A surface having high absorptance for short- = wind speed
wave radiation (less than 2.5 m ) and a low
emittance of long-wave radiation (more than 2.5 128. For a wind turbine 10 m long running at 20 rpm
m ), is called in 12.9 kmph wind, the TSR will be nearly
(a) Absorber (b) Emitter (a) 3.6 (b) 5.8
(c) Selective (d) Black (c) 7.6 (d) 9.8
Ans. (c) Ans. (b)
Sol. A surface having high absorption for short-wave Sol. Given:
radiation and a low emittance of long-wave
radiation is called selective surface. 5
Wind speed = 12.9 kmph = 12.9  m/s
18
SET - D
Detailed Solution
3. Pure water and small amount of electricity
 DN
Blade tip speed =
60 4. Nitrogen gas
(a) 1 and 3 only
  (10  2)  20
= m/s (b) 2 and 4 only
60
(c) 1 and 2 only
blade tip speed (d) 3 and 4 only
TSR,  = wind speed
R
Ans. (c)
  20  20  18 Sol.
= Hydrogen fuel
60  12.9  5
129.
  5.8
Which one of the following is an enclosure or

housing for the generator, gear box and any
TE
other parts of the wind turbine that are on the
Anode
2H2  4H  4e 
Ion exchange membrane Load

4e–
AS
top of the tower? Cathode
(a) Turbine blade (b) Nacelle O 2  4H  4e   2H2 O
(c) Turbine head (d) Gear box
Ans. (b)
Oxygen Water
Sol. The nacelle houses the generator, the gear box,
M
with air
the hydraulic system and yawing of wind turbine Polymer electrolyte fuel cell
that are on the top of tower.
132. W hich of the following are the essential
130. The force required for producing tides in the functions of fuel cells?
ocean is
S
(a) 70% due to Moon and 30% due to Sun 1. The charging (or electrolyser) function in
which the chemical AB is decomposed to A
(b) 30% due to Moon and 70% due to Sun and B
IE
(c) 45% due to Moon and 55% due to Sun

2. The storage function in which A and B are
(d) 55% due to Moon and 45% due to Sun
held apart.
Ans. (a)
3. The charge function in which A and B are
Sol. The tides are caused by the combined attraction
charged with the simultaneous generation
of the sun and the moon on the water of the
of electricity.
revolving globe. The effect of moon is 2.6 times
more than that of sun, influencing the tides of (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
the ocean. (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
70 Ans. (c)
i.e.  2.3  2.6
30 Sol. (i) The charging (or electolyser) function in which
the chemical AB is decomposed to A and B.
131. Which of the following are related to the Proton
Exchange Membrane Fuel Cell (PEMFC)? (ii) The discharge (or fuel cell) function, in which
A and B are re-united, with the simultaneous
1. Polymer electrolyte generation of electricity.
2. Hydrogen fuel and oxygen 133. The position of centroid can be determined by
inspection, if an area has
SET - D
Detailed Solution
(a) Single axis of symmetry (a)   E  (b)   E 
(b) Two axes of symmetry
(c)   G  (d)   G 
(c) An irregular shape
Ans. (a)
(d) Centre axes of symmetry
Sol. According to Hooke’s law,
Ans. (b)
Stress  strain
Sol. If an area has two axes of symmetry, the

position of the centroid can be determined by
TEER
inspection.  E 
In case of center of symmetry, area is symmetric
R
where E = Young’s modulus of elasticity
about a point. It has no axes of symmetry but
there is a point such that every line drawn
A
through that point contacts the area in
asymmetrical manner.
ASST
134. W hich of the f ollowing statements of
D’Alembert’s principle are correct?
1. The net external force F actually acting on 0

the body and the inertia force Ft together
where A = proportional limit
MA
keep the body in a state of fictitious
equilibrium 136. A punch is used for making holes in steel plates
with thickness 8 mm. If the punch diameter is
2. The equation of motion may be written as
S M
20 mm and force required for creating a hole is

F + (ma) = 0 and the fictitious force (– ma)
110 kN, the average shear stress in the plate
is called an inertia force
will be nearly
3. It tends to give solution of a static problem (a) 139 MPa (b) 219 MPa
an appearance akin to that of a dynamic
(c) 336 MPa (d) 416 MPa
IE S
problem.
Ans. (b)
Sol. In punching operation,
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
E
Ans. (b)
Sol. D’Alembert principle involves statements:
I
1. The net external force F actually acting on

the body and the inertia force Ft together
keep the body in a state of fictitious d = 0.02 m
equilibrium.
force required = F =   t  L
2. It tends to given the solution procedure of
a dynamic problem an appearance akin to where L = length of shearing region
that of a static problem. t = thickness = 0.008 m
Hence, statement (3) given is incorrect. F = force = 110 kN
So, correct statement are 1 and 2 only.
F =   t  d
135. The linear relationship between stress and strain 3 3
for a bar in simple tension or compression is 110 × 103 =   (8  10 )    20  10
expressed with standard notations by the
3 6
equation 110  10  10
 = Pa
8    20
SET - D
Detailed Solution
Sol.
110  100
 = MPa  218.83 MPa
16  3.14
12 kN 5 kN 12 kN
137. A rod of length 2 m and diameter 50 mm is
elongated by 5 mm when an axial force of 400 A B
kN is applied. The modulus of elasticity of the C
material of the rod will be nearly RA RB
(a) 66 GPa (b) 72 GPa
R
0.6m 0.9m 0.9m 0.6m
(c) 82 GPa (d) 96 GPa
Ans. (c)  M
max   
TE
Z
P = 400 kN
d=50mm
Sol. To find reactions,  MA  0

12 × 0.6 + 5 × 1.5 + 12 × 2.4 – RB × 3 = 0
 2m   5mm
RB = 14.5 kN
AS
RA + RB = 29 kN  RA = RB = 14.5 kN
As we know, under axial load,
Bending moment is maximum at point C
PL because shear force changes its sign at point
Change in axial length = C.
AE
Mc = 14.5 × 1.5 – 12 × 0.9 = 10.95 kNm
PL 4
M
L = 10.95  10
3
10.95  10  6
3
d2  E max 12  10 
6

2 2
 bd  0.09  d
4PL  
E=  6 
 L     d2
d = 246.6 mm
S
4  400  103  2
= 139. A vertical hollow aluminium tube 2.5 m high
5  103  3.14  502  106
fixed at the lower end, must support a lateral
4  400  1000  2
IE
E= GPa load of 12 kN at its upper end. If the wall

5  2500  3.14
1
E  81.48 GPa  82 GPa thickness is th of the outer diameter and the
8
allowable bending stress is 50 MPa, the inner
138. A beam of span 3 m and width 90 mm is loaded diameter will be nearly
as shown in the figure. If the allowable bending
stress is 12 MPa, the minimum depth required (a) 186 mm (b) 176 mm
for the beam will be (c) 166 mm (d) 156 mm
Ans. (d)
12 kN 5 kN 12 kN Sol.
P
0.6m 0.9m 0.9m 0.6m d
L=2.5m
(a) 218 mm (b) 246 mm
D
(c) 318 mm (d) 346 mm
Ans. (b)
SET - D
Detailed Solution
D Mmax
t= max =
8 Z
 Allow = 50 Mpa Mmax = P × 0.5 = MC = MD = ME
d = D – 2t
BH2
Z=
2  D 3D 6
d = D 
84 4
TEER
6 P  0.5  6
max = 11 10 
d 3  0.1 0.15 2
k= 
R
D 4
P  8.25 kN
Mmax = P × L
M 32  P  L 141. Which of the following statements regarding thin

ASST max = Z  and thick cylinders, subjected to internal
D3 1  k 4 
pressure only, is/are correct?
32  12  103  2.5 1. A cylinder is considered thin when the ratio

max =   3  of its inner diameter to the wall thickness is
D 1   0.75 4 
less than 15.
MA
= 50 × 106 2. In thick cylinders, tangential stress has
D = 0.207 m highest magnitude at the inner surface of
the cylinder and gradually decreases
S M
d = Di = 0.207 × 0.75
towards the outer surface
= 0.15525  156 mm (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
140. A wooden beam AB supporting two (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor
concentrated loads P has a rectangular cross- Ans. (b)
IE S
section of width = 100 mm and height = 150 Sol. A cylinder is considered as thin when ratio of
mm. The distance from each end of the beam diameter and thickness is greater than 20.
to the nearest load is 0.5 m. If the allowable
E
stress in bending is 11 MPa and the beam d

weight is negligible, the maximum permissible  20
t
load will be nearly
I
(a) 5.8 kN (b) 6.6 kN Hence, statement (1) is wrong.

(c) 7.4 kN (d) 8.2 kN Hoop stress is tangential
Ans. (d) b
Sol. h = a
r2
B=100 mm
P P
b
A B H=150 mm   h m ax . at r Ri = a
C D E Ri2
R A 0.5 0.5 RB
m
max = 11 MPa h
By symmetry,
RA = RB = P
SET - D
Detailed Solution
As shown in the stress profile, tangential stress P = 3.603 MPa  3.6 MPa
is maximum at inner radius and decreases
towards outer radius. 143. A compressed air spherical tank having an inner
Hence, statement 2 is only correct. diameter of 450 mm and a wall thickness of 7
mm is formed by welding. If the allowable shear
142. A cylindrical storage tank has an inner diameter stress is 40 MPa, the maximum permissible air
of 600 mm and a wall thickness of 18 mm. The pressure in the tank will be nearly
transverse and longitudinal strains induced are
(a) 3 MPa (b) 5 MPa
255 × 10-6 mm/mm and 60 × 10-6 mm/mm, and
R
if G is 77 GPa, the gauge pressure inside the (c) 7 MPa (d) 9 MPa
tank will be Ans. (b)
TE
(a) 2.4 MPa (b) 2.8 MPa Sol. Given: di = 450 mm, t = 7 mm
(c) 3.2 MPa (d) 3.6 MPa Spherical tank
Ans. (d)
Sol. t
Pi
di
AS
d D
Pd
i i
( for spherical tank)
 hoop   longitudinal 
4t
Given: d = 600 mm, t = 18 mm hoop pi di
Maximum shear stress  max   
M
2 8t
 = 60 × 10–6 mm/mm
Pi  450
40 
hoop =  transverse 87
Pi  4.977 MPa  5MPa
= 255 × 10–6 mm/mm
S
We know that, 144. A solid bar of circular cross-section having a

diameter of 40 mm and length of 1.3 m is
Pd subjected to torque of 340 N.m. If the shear
IE
 = 4t E (1  2 ) ...(i)
modulus of elasticity is 80 GPa, the angle of
twist between the ends will be
Pd (a) 1.26° (b) 1.32°
hoop = (2  ) ...(ii)
4 tE
(c) 1.38° (d) 1.44°
Dividing equation (i) by equation (ii), Ans. (a)
 Sol. Given: d = 40 mm
(1  2 ) 60
=  l = 1.3 m = 1300 mm
hoop (2   ) 255
G = 80 GPa = 80 × 103 N/mm2
  = 0.3
T
E = 2G(1  )
= 2 × 77 × (1.3) = 200.2 GPa d
Putting the respective values in equation (i),
T = Torque = 340Nm
l 3
P  600 = 340 × 10 N-mm
60 × 10–6 =  (1  2  0.3)
4  18  200.2  103 Torsion equation is given by
SET - D
Detailed Solution
 T G Applying lever rule at temp. 723°C i.e. Along
  line ACB
Ro J L
AC
T G TL Mass-fraction of pearlite =  100
  AB
J L GJ
 4  WC  WA   0.5  0.08 
where J = d = W W   100   0.8  0.08   100
32  B A   
3
TEER
340  10  1300
  0.21983 rad 42
 Mass-friction of pearlite =  100  58.37%
80  10 3   (40)4 72
R
32
  1.2595   1.26 147. In the study of phase diagrams, the rule which
helps to calculate the relative proportions of
145. Which of the following statements regarding liquid and solid material present in the mixture
ASST
screw dislocation is correct? at any given temperature is known as
(a) It lies parallel to its Burgers vector (a) Hume-Rothery rule (b) Lever rule
(b) It moves in the direction parallel to its (c) Gibb’s phase rule (d) Empirical rule
Burgers vector.
Ans. (b)
(c) It initially requires very less force to move. Sol.
MA
Liquid
(d) It moves very fast as compared to edge
dislocation
Ans. (a)
S M
Sol. Temp.
Solid
Relation with burger vector
Dislocation Position Direction of
movement
IE S
Edge Perpendicular Parallel A mliq mc msolid B

Screw Parallel Perpendicular
wt % of B
E
146. The percentage of pearlite in a slowly cooled By Lever Rule

melt of 0.5% of carbon steel is
 ms  mc 
% liquid =  m  m   100
I
(a) 48.5% (b) 52.5%

 s  
(c) 58.5% (d) 62.5% Similarly
Ans. (c)
 mc  mliquid 
Sol. Fe – c diagram % solid =  m  m   100
 s  
910°C
148. The phenomenon that artificially increases the

dielectric constant of plastics containing fillers
Temp. B is known as
A C
723°C (a) Gamma polarization
Pearlite (b) Interfacial polarization
-ferrite (c) Post-forming drawing

(d) Reinforcement drawing
0.08 0.5 0.8
Ans. (b)
%C
SET - D
Detailed Solution
Sol. Interfacial polarization is phenomenon that Ans. (a)
artificially increases the dielectric strength of
plastics containing fillers. Mass
Sol. We know that,  
In it under the application of applied field some volume
of defects may migrate through the material Mass
towards two electrode that has opposite polarity Volume =
Density
to their charge. If they reach the electrode and
area able to discharge. Vf
% volume of fibre = ...(i)
R
Vepoxy  Vfibre
149. The addition of alloying element nickel to cast
iron will primarily improve Ve
% volume of epoxy = V
TE
(a) Wear resistance epoxy  Vfibre
(b) Toughness From equation (i) and (ii)
(c) Carbide formation
% volume of fibre Vf m f / f
(d) Machinability = V  m /
% volume of epoxy e e e
Ans. (b)
AS
Sol. The purpose of Nickel in the engineering 0.65 mf / 1.48
cast irons is to control the structure by = m / 1.2
0.35 e
retarding austenite transf ormation,
stabilizing pearlite and maintaining mf
combined carbon at the eutectoid quantity. me = 2.2904 ...(iii)
Nickel lowers the critical temperature so and mf + me = 100 ...(iv)

M
pearlite forms at lower temperature so From equation (iii) and (iv)

pearlite is finer and tougher in this case.
Nickel also reduces the carbon content. mf
These factor increases toughness, plasticity mf  = 100
2.2904
and fatigue resistance
S
mf = 69.609  70
150. A unidirectional fibre-epoxy composite contains
65% by volume fibre and 35% epoxy resin. If mf = 70%
IE
the relative density of the fibre is 1.48 and of

the resin is 1.2, the percentage weight of fibre
will be nearly
(a) 70% (b) 75%
(c) 80% (d) 85%

Mechanical Engineering Detailed Solution Set D

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Mechanical Engineering Detailed Solution Set D

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

Sol. Given diameter of workpiece, d = 80 mm Ans. (c)

2. A feed f for the lathe operation is

N = Speed in rpm acceptance.

Ans. (b) (a) Selective automation

(c) Conversational programming k 1  1 1

vendor. The requirement of these lubricant cans

charges per rupee per year is 20 paise, the

 687 14. W hich of the following factors are to be

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) Fluorescent penetrant Ans. (d)

(d) Pressure testing Sol. In selecting a microcontroller the following

factors need to be considered:

In it hydrostatic pressure shall be applied to the (2) Interfaces required:

Sol. A variable reluctance stepper motor has a

16. Alternative paths provided by vertical paths from

Sol. Consider the system described by

Sol. 1) The degree of control required by the y  Cx  Du …(ii)

response, steady-state deviation and

The system described by equation (i) and (ii) is

environment. By accommodating with the

25. Statement (I) : The greater the chemical affinity

(EPROM) is used for ROMs that can be metal.

27. Statement (I) : Microprocessors which have

(a) 5.9 (b) 4.7 dv v

Ans. (d) Power required to maintain flow,

a gV is buoyancy force due to air.. v2

So, 400 = gV  a gV

Streamlines are the lines drawn through the Ans. (a)

so, A curve that is everywhere tangent to the

Discharge, Q = 8 ps = 8 × 10–3 m3/s f1L1Q12 f2L2Q22

Re  205 3 m/s in a 6 cm diameter pipe. The head loss

diameters 80 cm and 60 cm respectively, are Ans. (d)

litres/s. The rates of flow in the pipes are nearly L = 12 m

Ans. (c) So, power required, P = gQh f

Sol. 1. Streamline is a line everywhere tangent to 2

3. A streakline is the locus of particles that  2  d5

f = Coefficient of friction p(kPa) 100 37.9 14.4

8fLV 2 2 100  0.1  14.4  0.4

8fL a2  2 2 8fL a2 freezer at the continuous rate of 1.75 kJ/s, the

Ans. (c) 47. A fictitious pressure that, if it acted on the piston

(a) Quasi equivalent pressure

I  T0 S gen Sol. Mean effective pressure is defined as a

49. The ideal thermodynamic cycle f or the u

Ans. (d) 53. The overall heat transfer coefficient due to

surface is to increase (a) 17 W/m2K (b) 14 W/m2K

(c) Turbulence in flow for enhancing heat h0 = hc + hr

Ans. (b) hr is heat transfer coefficient due to convection.

Sol. The purpose of providing fins on heat transfer

Sol. Due to exposure of large surface area to the

is 12.5 bar at the end of compression stroke. 2

(c) 5.2 (d) 4.6

Mass flow rate of air  ma   9  6  54 kJ/hr Ice at 0°C Water at 0°C

265  3600 Pin H.R

the work required by the compressor is 27.2 3

Ans. (a) QR 1  268 

where, n is the number of stages. Elongation

In a two stage system, this gives a geometric L 276  305

required. It is used with matrix of butyl

64. The maximum energy which can be stored in a

Nano composites are resistant to solvent (b) Modulus of resilience

66. A 13 mm diameter tensile specimen has 50 mm n(n  1) n(2n  1)

(c) 51 kg/mm2 (d) 63 kg/mm2 where :

Sol. 0.2% offset yield strength, Ans. (a)