RESEARCH METHODOLOGY

LESSON
1. What is a research design?
a. A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.
b. The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.
c. The style in which you present your research findings, e.g. a graph.
d. A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.
2. If a study is "reliable", this means that:
a. the methods are outlined in the methods discussion clearly enough for the research to
be replicated.
b. he measures devised for concepts are stable on different occasions.
c. the findings can be generalized to other social phenomena
d. it was conducted by a reputable researcher who can be trusted.

3. "Internal validity" refers to:

a. whether or not there is really a causal relationship between two variables.

b. whether or not the findings are relevant to the researchers' everyday lives.
c. the extent to which the researcher believes that this was a worthwhile project.
d. how accurately the measurements represent underlying concepts.
4. Who was the author of the book named "Methods in Social Research"?

a. Kerlinger

b. CR Kothari

c. Goode and Hatt

d. Wilkinson

5. Research design refers to the

a. Intent of the researcher.
b. justification for the study based on previous research.
c. statistical analysis of data.
d. plan and procedures for conducting a study.
6. The purpose of a research design is to
a. provide valid answers to research questions.
b. provide a summary of the results of the study.
c. indicate limitations of the results.
d. delineate the purpose of the study.
7. Most surveys are structured, which means that
a. there is a one-on-one relationship between the researcher and the respondent.
b. they use random selection to select respondents.
 c. the interviewer decides when, where, and how to ask the questions.
d. the same questions are asked in the same order for all respondents.
8. Analyses of data from the Constructing the Family Survey (CFS) indicate that it was
a(an)
a. descriptive survey.
b. explanatory survey.
c. both descriptive and explanatory.
d. neither descriptive nor explanatory.
9. Cross-sectional survey designs are to longitudinal survey designs as __________ is to
__________.
a. panel study; trend study
b. trend study; panel study
c. explanatory; descriptive
d. one survey; two or more surveys
10. A telephone interview survey tends to have a higher response rate than a __________
study and shorter answers to open-ended questions than a __________ study.
a. mailed questionnaire; mailed questionnaire
b. mailed questionnaire; face-to-face interview
c. face-to-face interview; face-to-face interview
d. face-to-face interview; mailed questionnaire
11. Suppose you are doing a survey in which sample quality and precision are of utmost
importance, and you need to ask some critical open-ended questions. Which survey
mode would work best?

a. face-to-face interview
b. telephone interview
c. mail questionnaire
d. mixed mode combining telephone interviews with a mailed questionnaire

12. Planning a survey involves two concurrent activities: construction of the survey
instrument and
a. selection of the sample.
b. selection of the survey mode.
c. coding of variables.
d. selection of the survey design.
13. What is the major wording problem with the following question: “On a typical weekday
how many hours do you watch television? [ ] 0-2 [ ] 3-5 [ ] 6-10 [ ] 10 or more”? (Box
8.2)
a. inappropriate vocabulary
b. leading question
c. lack of precision
d. double-barreled
14. What is the best placement for the following survey question: “What is your age?”?
a. opening question
b. toward the beginning
c. middle
d. end

15. When someone answers the telephone in a random-digit dialing survey, the
interviewers' first step is to

a. confirm that the person who answered the telephone is 18 years of age or older.
 b. randomly select a household member to interview.

c. read an informed consent statement and ask for permission to begin the
interview.

d. confirm that the interviewer has contacted the respondent included in the sample.

16. Compared with experiments, surveys generally are

a. less economical.

b. less susceptible to reactive measurement effects.

c. less effective in testing causal relationships.

d. lower in generalizability.

17. Which of the following is a problem associated with survey research?

a) The problem of objectivity

b) The problem of "going native"

c) The problem of omission

d) The problem of robustness

18. The key advantage of structured observation over survey research is that:

a) It does not rely on the researcher's ability to take notes

b) The researcher is immersed as a participant in the field they are studying

c) It does not impose any expectations of behaviour on the respondents

d) It allows you to observe people's behaviour directly

19. What is an observation schedule?

a) A set of explicit rules for assigning behaviour to categories

b) A timetable of days on which you plan to carry out your observation

c) A list of questions to ask your interviewees

d) A way of testing for measurement validity

20. LaPiere conducted a study of the way restaurant owners granted or refused access to a
Chinese couple. This is an example of observing behaviour in terms of:
 a) Individuals

b) Incidents

c) Short time periods

d) Long time periods

21. It may not be possible to use a probability sample to observe behaviour in public
places because:

a) The findings of such studies are not intended to have external validity

b) It is not feasible to construct a sampling frame of interactions

c) It is difficult to gain access to such social settings

d) Researchers prefer not to use random samples whenever possible

22. Which of the following is not a type of sampling used in structured observation?

a) Focal sampling

b) Scan sampling

c) Emotional sampling

d) Behaviour sampling
23. Cohen's kappa is a measure of:

a) Inter-surveyor consistency

b) Intra-observer validity

c) Intra-coder validity

d) Inter-observer consistency
24. What is meant by the term "reactive effect"?

a) If people know they are being observed, they may change their
behaviour
b) Research subjects may have a bad reaction to the drugs they are given

c) Researchers sometimes react to their informants' behaviour with horror

d) The categories on an observation schedule may not be mutually exclusive

25. What did Salancik mean by "field stimulations"?

a) Being immersed in the field can help to simulate the experience of your
informants
 b) Researchers can intervene in and manipulate a setting to observe the
effects

c) Surveys conducted in the field are more effective than structured observation

d) Some researchers find their projects so stimulating that they have to lie down
26. One of the criticisms often levelled at structured observation is that:

a) It does not allow us to impose any framework on the social setting

b) It only generates a small amount of data

c) It is unethical to observe people without an observation schedule

d) It does not allow us to understand the intentions behind behaviour

27. Personal interviews conducted in shopping malls are known as:

A. Mall interviews

B. Mall intercept interviews

C. Brief interviews

D. None of the given options

28. WATS lines provided by long distance telephone service at fixed rates. In this regard,
WATS is the abbreviation of:
a) West Africa Theological Seminary
b) Washtenaw Area Transportation Study
c) Wide Area Telecommunications Service
d) H. World Air Transport Statistics

29. -A list of questions which is handed over to the respondent, who reads the questions and
records the answers himself is known as the:
a. Interview schedule
b. Questionnaire
c. Interview guide
d. All of the given options
30. One of the most critical stages in the survey research process is:
 a. Research design
b. Questionnaire design
c. Interview design
d. Survey design
31. Question that consists of two or more questions joined together is called a:
a. Double barreled question
b. General question
c. Accurate question
d. Confusing question
32. The number of questionnaires returned or completed divided by the total number of eligible
people who were contacted or asked to participate in the survey is called the:
a. Response rate
b. Participation rate
c. Inflation rate
d. None of the given options
33. To obtain the freest opinion of the respondent, when we ask general question before a
specific question then this procedure is called as the:
a. Research technique
b. Qualitative technique
c. Funnel technique
d. Quantitative technique
34. A small scale trial run of a particular component is known as:
a. Pilot testing
b. Pre-testing
c. Lab experiments
d. Both A & B
35. Field testing of the questionnaire shows that:
a. Respondents are willing to co-operate
b. Respondents are not willing to co-operate
c. Respondents do not like any participation
d. All of the given options
 36. Service evaluation of hotels and restaurants can be done by the:
a. Self-administered questionnaires
b. Office assistant
c. Manager
d. None of the given options
37. ___________research is based on naturalism.
a. Field research
b. Descriptive research
c. Basic research
d. Applied research
38. Personal interviews conducted in shopping malls are known as_________
a. Mall interviews
b. Mall intercept interviews
c. Brief interviews
d. None of the given options
39. ____________is used to obtain the freest opinion of the respondent, by asking
general question before a specific question.
a. Research technique
b. Qualitative technique
c. Funnel technique
d. Quantitative technique
40. In, ____________the interviewer and members jointly control the pace and
direction of the interview.
a. Field interview
b. Telephonic interview
c. Both A and B
d. None of the given options
41. Randomization of test units is a part of ______________
a. Pretest
b. Posttest
c. Matching
d. Experiment
42. Which one of the following sets is the measure of central tendency?
a. Mean, standard deviation, mode
b. Mean, median, standard deviation
c. Arithmetic mean, median, mode
d. Standard deviation, internal validity, mode
43. Internal validity refers to .
a. Researcher’s degree of confidence.
 b. Generalizability
c. Operationalization
d. All of the above
44. How many times the students appear in the research class is the example of
_________.
a. Intensity
b. Space
c. Frequency
d. Direction
45. Time consumed in mall intercept interview is .
a. High
b. Moderate
c. Low
d. Nil
46. Departmental stores selected to test a new merchandising display system is
the example of .
a. Quota sampling
b. Convenience sampling
c. Judgmental sampling
d. Purposive sampling
47. In ___________, the researcher attempts to control and/ or manipulate the variables in
the study.
a. Experiment
b. Hypothesis
c. Theoretical framework
d. Research design
48. In an experimental research study, the primary goal is to isolate and identify the effect
produced by the ____.
a. Dependent variable
b. Extraneous variable
c. Independent variable
d. Confounding variable
49. A measure is reliable if it provides consistent ___________.
a. Hypothesis
b. Results
c. Procedure
d. Sensitivity
50. The interview in which questions are already prepared is called ________.
a. Telephonic interview
b. Personal interview
c. Unstructured interview
d. Structured interview
51. The numerical description that describe sample may be expected to differ from those
that describe population because of random fluctuations inherent in sampling process.
 a. Sampling design
b. Non-probability sampling
c. Sampling error
d. Probability sampling
52. In ______________ , each population element has a known and equal chance of
selection.
a. Purposive sampling
b. Quota sampling
c. Stratified sampling
d. Simple random sampling
53. ______ is the evidence that the instrument, techniques, or process used to measure
concept does indeed measure the intended concepts.
a. Reliability
b. Replicability
c. Scaling
d. Validity
54. A researcher is interested in studying why the “new math” of the 1960s failed. She
interviews several teachers who used the new math during the 1960s. These teachers are
considered as:
a. Primary sources
b. Secondary Sources
c. External critics
d. Internal critics
55. Which of the following is NOT true about stratified random sampling?
a. It involves a random selection process from identified subgroups
b. Proportions of groups in the sample must always match their population
proportions
c. Disproportional stratified random sampling is especially helpful for getting large enough
subgroup samples when subgroup comparisons are to be done
d. Proportional stratified random sampling yields a representative sample
56. Experimental design is the only appropriate design where_________ relationship can be
established.
a. Strong
b. Linear
c. Weak
d. Cause and Effect
57. All the persons involved in the collection of data and supervision of data collection process are
called
a. Fieldworkers
b. Researchers
c. Research assistants
d. None of the given options
58. While terminating the interview, the fieldworker should not do one of the following:
a. He should record all the responses made by the interviewee before leaving.
b. He should thank the interviewee.
 c. He should close the interview hastily.
d. He should answer all the questions the respondent asks concerning the nature and purpose of
the study.
59. Which one of these is a type of Interviewee bias?
a. The respondent does not tell his true income, age, or contact information.
b. The fieldworker fails to probe the interviewee properly.
c. The fieldworker contacted the wrong person for interview.
d. The fieldworker asks the questions in wrong order.
60. A magazine conducts a survey and asks its readers to cut the questionnaire from the
magazine, fill it and send it via mail. It is a type of
a. Purposive sampling
b. Snowball sampling
c. Sequential sampling
d. Convenience sampling
61. The height distribution of a few students in a school is an example of
a. Statistic
b. Population
c. Parameter
d. Element
62. A researcher wants to conduct a survey of the drug users. Which type of sampling technique will be
most appropriate here?
a. Sequential sampling
b. Snowball sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Convenience sampling

63. According to historical accounts, face-to-face methods have been used since the early years
of civilisation to collect population figures. Why were these records kept?
a. For religious purposes.
b. For taxation purposes.
c. For scientific purposes.
d. For historical purposes.
64. When did the telephone become an accepted tool for primary data collection in marketing
research?
a. 1930s.
b. 1950s.
c. 1970s.
d. 1990s.
65. If someone uses research as part of a sales effort, this is said to be:
a. syndicating.
 b. sugging.
c. satisficing.
d. surveying.
66. Which ONE of these is NOT an intrinsic factor?
a. The questionnaire style.
b. The interviewer's voice.
c. The interview situation.
d. The informant's memory.
67. Acquiescence response bias is usually:
a. disagreement with little consideration.
b. agreement with little consideration.
c. Over consideration.
d. something other than the options offered.
68. A primary data collection method that involves tracking behaviour over a period of time is
called:
a. browsing.
b. observation.
c. sampling.
d. testing.
69. Mystery shopping is a form of:
a. questionnaire.
b. observation.
c. analysis.
d. postal survey.
70. Which ONE of these methods is the fastest way to collect data?
a. Online.
b. Personal.
c. Phone.
d. Postal.
71. Which ONE of these methods is the most expensive way to collect data per respondent?
a. Online.
 b. Personal.
c. Phone.
d. Postal.
72. Which ONE of these methods has the highest response rate?
a. Online.
b. Personal.
c. Phone.
d. Postal.
73. What is a pilot study?
a. A small scale study.
b. A study involving pilots.
c. A study to test the tool of data collection.
d. A study that is the first of its type.
74. When planning to do social research, it is better to:
a. Approach the topic with an open mind
b. Do a pilot study before getting stuck into it
c. Be familiar with the literature on the topic
d. Forget about theory because this is a very practical undertaking
75. Which comes first, theory or research?
a) Theory, because otherwise you are working in the dark
b) Research, because that's the only way you can develop a theory
c) It depends on your point of view
d) The question is meaningless, because you can't have one without the other
76. We review the relevant literature to know:
a. What is already known about the topic
b. What concepts and theories have been applied to the topic
c. Who are the key contributors to the topic
d. All of the above
77. A deductive theory is one that:
a. Allows theory to emerge out of the data
b. Involves testing an explicitly defined hypothesis
 c. Allows for findings to feed back into the stock of knowledge
d. Uses qualitative methods whenever possible
78. Which of the following is not a type of research question?
a. Predicting an outcome
b. Evaluating a phenomenon
c. Developing good practice
d. A hypothesis
79. What does 'sampling cases' mean?
a.Sampling using a sampling frame
b. Identifying people who are suitable for research
c.Literally, the researcher's brief-case
d. Sampling people, newspapers, television programmes etc.
80. Which of the following is not a data-collection method?
a. Research questions
b. Unstructured interviewing
c. Postal survey questionnaires
d. Participant observation
81. Why is data analysis concerned with data reduction?
a) Because far too much data is collected than is required
b) Because we need to make sense of the data
c) Because of the repetitions in answers to questionnaires
d) Because the sample size has been exceeded
82. The core ingredients of a dissertation are:
a. Introduction; Data collection; Data analysis; Conclusions and
recommendations.
b. Executive summary; Literature review; Data gathered; Conclusions;
Bibliography.
c. Research plan; Research data; Analysis; References.
d. Introduction; Literature review; Research methods; Results;
Discussion; Conclusion.
83. Because of the number of things that can go wrong in research there is a need for:
 a) Flexibility and perseverance
b) Sympathetic supervisors
c) An emergency source of finance
d) Wisdom to know the right time to quit
84. it is a good idea to research companies in order to

a. prepare for your general job search.

b. learn about specific companies and industries.
c. prepare for interview questions.
d. All of the above
85. During the interview, the interviewer is assessing

a. taste in music.
b. what kind of vehicle you drive.
c. your ability to fit in to their organization.
d. your resume
86. When you research a particular company, why would you want to get competitor
information?
a. So you can mention this knowledge during the interview
b. So you can compare firms in the same field that may be future employers
c. So you can negotiate salary later on
d. So you can compare possible future benefits
87. What are the three basic types of interviews discussed in this chapter?
a. Referral, screening, and selection
b. Telephone, referral, and screening
c. Screening, referral, and networking
d. Referral, group, and screening
88. What type of interview will a department head or supervisor most likely conduct?
a. Screening
b. Referral
c. Telephone
 d. Selection
89. Which form of interviewing is used quite often today as a first interview?
a. Directed
b. Telephone
c. Unstructured
d. Stress
90. Which of the following is the most appropriate to wear to an interview
a. Business casual
b. Dressy
c. Bright coloured and modern style
d. Professional style
91. Good grooming for interviews includes
a. gold or silver jewellery.
b. perfume or cologne.
c. polished shoes.
d. a name tag.
92. Video conferencing interviews
a. are not used often.
b. are more expensive because of the equipment.
c. can be cost efficient for employers when interviewing out-of-town candidates.
d. are used in 90 percent of first interviews.
93. The group interview is
never used.
a growing trend.
used only by new companies.
All of the above
94. Panel interviews
a. are not used often.
b. are more expensive for the company.
c. are always used.
d. are challenging.
95. How many styles are used in a screening interview?
a. Two

b. Five

c. Three

d. Four

96. In which of these interviews, insults are common?

a. Screening interview
b. Stress interview
c. Behavioural interview
d. Group interview
97. Which of these is not a type of interview?
a. Screening interview

b. Stress interview

c. Music interview

d. Lunch interview
98. Which kind of interview includes a process in which the employability of the job
applicant is evaluated?

a. Stress interview

b. Screening interview

c. Group interview

d. Behavioural interview

99. Which of these is not a step in the preparation of an interview?

a. Analyzing yourself
b. Identifying your skills
c. Being negative
d. Revising your subject
100. Developing the interview file is the last step in the preparation of an interview.
 a. True

b. False
101. Which of the following offers the best definition of the theatrical concept of a chorus ?

[A]. Members of the audience who comment on the play’s actions

[B]. Characters who remind the audience that the play is fictional
[C]. A group of characters who comment on the actions of the play while participating in
them
[D]. A group of characters who comment on the actions of the play while not
participating in them

102. Which of the following is a component of a gothic novel ?

[A]. An atmosphere of dread, fear, and darkness

[B]. An isolated protagonist
[C]. A hero or protagonist who is tempted by a villain
[D]. All of these

103. In Samuel Taylor Coleridge’s “Rime of the Ancient Mariner”, why does the Mariner kill
the albatross ?

[A]. For revenge

[B]. To change the weather
[C]. To bring forth life-in-death
[D]. It is never directly stated why he does so

104. Which of the following statements offers the best definition of “rhetoric” ?

[A]. Questions for which the answers are obvious

[B]. Persuasive writing and speaking
[C]. Writing that is complicated and scholarly
[D]. Logical writing and speaking

105. Which of the following are examples of literary interpretation ?

 [A]. Investigating the relationship between words and objective reality
[B]. Comparing the Bible to folk tales from other cultures
[C]. Researching an author’s biography for clues about how to understand his or her
writing
[D]. Researching what previous critics have said about a literary work

106. What form of verse is usually sung and details a dramatic or exciting episode ?

[A]. An ode
[B]. An elegy
[C]. An epitaph
[D]. A ballad

107. Which of the following assertions would William Wordsworth most likely agree with ?

[A]. Poetry should be written in the common language of ordinary people.

[B]. Poetry should focus on the lives and thoughts of elite people.
[C]. Poetry should never concern itself with the natural world.
[D]. Poetry should rhyme

108. Shakespeare’s “A Midsummer Night’s Dream” can be described as what kind of play ?

[A]. A comedic play

[B]. A tragic play
[C]. A modern play
[D]. A tragi-comedy

109. Which of the following concepts does Aristotle consider to be the most important
element of a Greek tragedy ?

[A]. Plot
[B]. Poetic diction
[C]. Song composition
[D]. Stage design

110. Which of the following poems can be described as a haiku ?

 [A]. Pound’s “In a Station of the Metro”
[B]. Bishop’s “One Art”
[C]. Auden’s “Paysage Moralisé”
[D]. William Shakespeare’s “Sonnet 18”

111. A statement made about a population for testing purpose is called?

a) Statistic
b) Hypothesis
c) Level of Significance
d) Test-Statistic
112. If the assumed hypothesis is tested for rejection considering it to be true is called?
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Statistical Hypothesis
c) Simple Hypothesis
d) Composite Hypothesis
113. A statement whose validity is tested on the basis of a sample is called?
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Statistical Hypothesis
c) Simple Hypothesis
d) Composite Hypothesis
114. A hypothesis which defines the population distribution is called?
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Statistical Hypothesis
c) Simple Hypothesis
d) Composite Hypothesis
115. If the null hypothesis is false then which of the following is accepted?
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Positive Hypothesis
c) Negative Hypothesis
d) Alternative Hypothesis.
116. The rejection probability of Null Hypothesis when it is true is called as?
a) Level of Confidence
 b) Level of Significance
c) Level of Margin
d) Level of Rejection
117. The point where the Null Hypothesis gets rejected is called as?
a) Significant Value
b) Rejection Value
c) Acceptance Value
d) Critical Value
118. The point where the Null Hypothesis gets rejected is called as?
a) Significant Value
b) Rejection Value
c) Acceptance Value
d) Critical Value
119. The type of test is defined by which of the following?
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Simple Hypothesis
c) Alternative Hypothesis
d) Composite Hypothesis
120. Which of the following is defined as the rule or formula to test a Null Hypothesis?
a) Test statistic
b) Population statistic
c) Variance statistic
d) Null statistic
121. Consider a hypothesis H0 where ϕ0 = 5 against H1 where ϕ1 > 5. The test is?
a) Right tailed
b) Left tailed
c) Center tailed
d) Cross tailed
122. Consider a hypothesis where H0 where ϕ0 = 23 against H1 where ϕ1 < 23. The test is?
a) Right tailed
b) Left tailed
 c) Center tailed
d) Cross tailed
123. Type 1 error occurs when?
a) We reject H0 if it is True
b) We reject H0 if it is False
c) We accept H0 if it is True
d) We accept H0 if it is False
124. The probability of Type 1 error is referred as?
a) 1-α
b) β
c) α
d) 1-β
125. Alternative Hypothesis is also called as?
a) Composite hypothesis
b) Research Hypothesis
c) Simple Hypothesis
d) Null Hypothesis