Biology National MDCAT FLP # 1

ENTRANCE TEST – 2020
NATIONAL MDCAT
(FLP-01)
BIOLOGY
Q.1 Middle lamella is formed of:
A) Calcium and magnesium salts of proteins
B) Calcium and sodium salts of proteins
C) Calcium and magnesium salts of carbohydrates
D) Calcium and sodium salts of carbohydrates
Explanation:
Middle lamella
Middle lamella is present between primary cell walls of adjacent cells which holds the cells
together. It is composed of sticky, gel-like magnesium and calcium salts (pectates) of proteins.
Q.2 Primary cell wall has:

A) Elasticity C) Semi permeability
B) Plasticity D) Fluidity
Explanation:
The primary cell wall is composed of cellulose microfibrils (bundles of cellulose chains),
running through the matrix of other polysaccharides like hemicelluloses and pectin. The
microfibrils show a crisscross arrangement in layers one above the others. This feature gives the
cell great strength. The primary cell wall is adapted to growth. The wall stretches plastically i.e.,
irreversibly. The cell wall is porous and allows free passage of water and dissolved material.
Q.3 There may be as many as _____________ grana per chloroplast:

A) 50-60 C) 40-50
B) 60-70 D) 40-60
Explanation:
Thus, each granum (plural: grana) is formed of a column of thylakoids. There may be as many
as 40-60 grana per chloroplast. Larger thylakoids connect the grana and are called stromal
lamellae.
Q.4 DNA of prokaryotic cell is coiled into:

A) Nucleus C) Chromatids
B) Nucleoid D) Chromosomes
Explanation:
Two kinds of structurally different cells have evolved overtime. Prokaryotic cells i.e., bacteria
and cyanobacteria, whereas all other forms of life are composed of eukaryotic cells. A
prokaryotic cell (Greek pro: before and karyon: kernel) lacks a nucleus, its DNA is coiled into a
nucleoid (nucleus like) region.
Q.5 Cell eats through:

A) Exocytosis C) Phagocytosis
B) Pinocytosis D) Endocytosis
NATIONAL MDCAT FLP # 01 Page 1 of 22

Explanation:
The process is known as phagocytosis (eating process of a cell). They are most abundant in those
animal cells which exhibit phagocytic activity.
Q.6 What prevents the water to be converted into ice and steam?
A) Solvent properties C) Hydrogen bonds
B) Tetravalency D) Ionization
Explanation:
The presence of hydrogen bonds among the water molecules cause water to remain liquid rather
than change to ice or steam. Without hydrogen bonds, water would boil at - 80 0C and would
freeze at - 100 0C. In such conditions life for living organisms would become impossible.
Q.7 Conjugation of organic biomolecules takes place in:

A) RER C) Golgi apparatus
B) SER D) Ribosomes
Explanation:
(transport vesicles) are pinched of at the Maturation Face of Golgi Apparatus. The arrows show
the direction of low of protein product systhesized on ribosomes. These proteins are converted
into glycoproteins in the Golgi Apparatus.
Q.8 The class of monosaccharides, with maximum number of carbon atoms is that of:
A) Octoses C) Hexoses
B) Pentoses D) Heptoses
Explanation:
In nature monosaccharides with 3 to 7 carbon atoms are found. They are called trioses (3C),
tetroses (4C), pentoses (5C), hexoses (6C), and heptoses (7C). They have general formula
(CH2O)n. where n is the whole number from three to seven thousands.
Q.9 Chemically _________ can be defined as esters of fatty acids and alcohol:
A) Acylglycerols C) Waxes
B) Phospholipids D) Terpenoids
Explanation:
Acylglycerols are composed of glycerol and fatty acids (Fig. 2.7). The most widely spread acyl
glycerol is triacyl glycerol, also called triglycerides or neutral lipids. Chemically, acylglycerols
can be defined as esters of fatty acids and alcohol. An ester is the compound produced as the
result of a chemical reaction of an alcohol with an acid and a water molecule is released as shown
below:
Q.10 By removing nitrogenous base from lecithin we get:

A) Phospholipid molecule C) Phosphatidylcholine
B) Phosphatidic acid D) Sphingolipid molecule
Explanation:
Phospholipids are derivatives of phosphatidic acid (Fig.2.9.), which are composed of glycerol,
fatty acids and phosphoric acid. Nitrogenous bases such as choline, ethanolamine and serine are
important components of phospholipids. They are widespread in bacteria, animal and plant cells

and are frequently associated with membranes. Phosphatidylcholine is one of the common
phospholipids.
Fig. 2.9.: Phosphatidic acid is composed of glycerol, 2 fatty acids (on Cl and C2), and a
phosphoric acid on C3 of glycerol. In phospholipid a nitrogenous base (e.g. choline) is attached
to phosphoric acid in phosphatidic acid.
Q.11 Which one of the following proteins is non-crystalline?

A) Hemoglobin C) Myosin
B) Antibodies D) Hormones
Explanation:
Fibrous proteins: They consist of molecules having one or more polypeptide chains in the form
of fibrils. Secondary structure is most important in them. They are insoluble in aqueous media.
They are non-crystalline and are elastic in nature. They perform structural roles in cells and
organisms. Examples are silk fiber (from silk worm, and spiders’ web) myosin (in muscle cells),
fibrin (of blood clot), and keratin (of nails and hair).
Globular proteins: These are spherical or ellipsoidal due to multiple folding of polypeptide
chains. Tertiary structure is most important in them. They are soluble in aqueous media such as
salt solution, solution of acids or bases, or aqueous alcohol. They can be crystallized. They
disorganize with changes in the physical and physiological environment. Examples are enzymes,
antibodies, hormones and hemoglobin.
Q.12 A cell may have at least _________ kinds of tRNA molecules:

A) 20 C) 40
B) 25 D) 45
Explanation:
Transfer RNA (tRNA): It comprises about 10 to 20% of the cellular RNA. Transfer RNA
molecules are small, each with a chain length of 75 to 90 nucleotides. It transfers amino acid
molecules to the site where peptide chains are being synthesized. There is one specific tRNA for
each amino acid. So the cell will have at least 20 kinds of tRNA molecules. Transfer RNA picks
up amino acids and transfers them to ribosomes, where they are linked to each other to form
proteins.
Q.13 Which one of the following characteristics of enzymes exhibits their efficiency?
A) They increase the rate of reaction without themselves being used up
B) Their presence does not affect the nature or properties of end products
C) Small amount of an enzyme can accelerate chemical reactions
D) They lower the activation energy of the reaction
Explanation:
CHARACTERISTICS OF ENZYMES
Enzymes, the biochemical catalysts possess the following important characteristics.
1. All enzymes are globular proteins.
2. They increase the rate of reaction without themselves being used up.
3. Their presence does not affect the nature or properties of end products.
4. Small amounts of an enzyme can accelerate chemical reactions.
5. They are very specific in their action; a single enzyme catalyzes only a single chemical
reaction or a group of related reactions.
6. They are sensitive to even a minor change in pH, temperature and substrate concentration.
7. Some enzymes require a co-factor for their proper functioning.
8. They lower the activation energy of the reactions.
Q.14 Optimum pH for pancreatic lipase is:

A) 9.70 C) 7.00
B) 9.00 D) 7.60
Explanation:
Enzyme Optimum pH
Pepsin 2.00
Sucrase 4.50
Enterokinase 5.50
Salivary amylase 6.80
Catalase 7.60
Chymotrypsin 7.00-8.00
Pancreatic lipase 9.00
Arginase 9.70
Q.15 Pick up the competitive inhibitor:

A) Cyanide C) Malonic acid
B) Antibiotics D) Succinic acid
Explanation:
Q.16 The substances that absorb light having 380 – 750 nm wavelength are called:
A) Chlorophylls C) Carotenes
B) Xanthophylls D) Pigments
Explanation:
Light can work in chloroplasts only if it is absorbed. Pigments are the substances that absorb
visible light (380-750 nm in wave length). Different pigments absorb light of different wave
lengths (colours), and the wave lengths that are absorbed disappear. An instrument called
Spectrophotometer is used to measure relative abilities of different pigments to absorb different
wavelengths of light. A graph plotting absorption of light of different wave lengths by a pigment
is called absorption spectrum of the pigment.
Q.17 The path of electrons through the two photosystems during non-cyclic
photophosphorylation is known as:
A) Cyclic phosphorylation C) Photophosphorylation
B) Non-cyclic phosphorylation D) Z-scheme
Explanation:
The primary electron acceptor of photosystem I passes the photoexcited electrons to a second
electron transport chain, which transmits them to ferredoxin (Fd), an iron containing protein.
An enzyme called NADP reductase then transfers the electrons from Fd to NADP. This is the
redox reaction that stores the high-energy electrons in NADPH. The NADPH molecule will
provide reducing power for the synthesis of sugar in the Calvin cycle.
The path of electrons through the two photosystems during non-cyclic photophosphorylation is
known as Z-scheme from its shape.
Q.18 During reduction phase of Calvin cycle, how many molecules of G3P are produced?
A) Three C) Twelve
B) Six D) One
Explanation:
Q.19 Earlier it was thought that the oxygen released in the process of photosynthesis, comes
from:
A) Carbon dioxide C) Atmosphere
B) Water D) Soil
Explanation:
Earlier it was through that the oxygen released in the process of photosynthesis comes from CO2.
In 1930, Van Neil hypothesized that plants split water to release oxygen as a by-product. The
idea of Neil was supported by Hill. In 1937, he observed that when isolated chloroplasts were
given light in complete absence of CO2 and some hydrogen acceptor was present oxygen is
release. Other scientists later confirmed Neil’s hypothesis when first use of an isotopic tracer
(O18) in biological research was made. Water and carbon dioxide containing heavy-oxygen
isotope O18 were prepared in the laboratory.
Q.20 During Krebs cycle oxaloacetate is regenerated from:

A) Citrate C) Malate
B) Succinate D) Fumarate
Explanation:
Q.21 Cells degrade mostly __________ to release energy:

A) Fats C) Proteins
B) Glucose D) Starch
Explanation:
Mitochondria play a part in cellular respiration by transferring the energy of the organic
molecules to the chemical bonds of ATP. A large “battery” of enzymes and coenzymes slowly
release energy from the glucose molecules. Thus mitochondria are the “Power houses” that
produce energy necessary for many cellular functions.
Q.22 A fine filter made up of porcelain can retain:

A) Bacteria C) Viroids
B) Prions D) Viruses
Explanation:
In 1884, one of Pasteur’s associates, Charles Chamberland, found that bacteria can not pass
through porcelain filters, while agent responsible for rabies (a disease which is transferred to
human by bites of rabid dogs, foxes, cats, bats and other animals) can pass through these filters.
As in those days the word virus was loosely used to describe any toxic substance that caused
disease, those unseen filterable agents of disease were described as filterable viruses. In 1892,
Ivanowski discovered that the agent which caused tobacco mosaic disease was filterable. He
obtained bacteria free filtrate from ground up infected plants and placed it on healthy leaves of
tobacco. He observed that filtrate produced the disease in healthy plants. After that, presence of
similar filter-passing, ultramicroscopic agents was seen in the victims of many diseases,
including foot and mouth disease (1898) and yellow fever (1901).
Q.23 Inside the host cell the original viral RNA is:
A) Degraded C) Incorporated
B) Replicated D) Conserved
Explanation:
Q.24 On the basis of host viruses are classified into:

A) Two categories C) Four categories
B) Three categories D) Five categories
Explanation:
Virus morphology and nucleic acid properties are most important for classifying plant, animal
and bacterial viruses. The genetic material may be DNA or RNA naked, enveloped or complex.
On the basis of morphology viruses are classified into rod shaped (T.M.V), spherical (poliovirus)
and tadpole like bacteriophage viruses etc. Fig. 3.5 and 5.4.
Q.25 Unlike plants and animals, protists do not develop from a:

A) Zygote C) Blastula
B) Diploid cell D) Spores

Explanation:
The protists are unicellular, colonial or simple multi cellular organisms that possess a eukaryotic
cell organization. Eukaryotic cells, the unifying feature of protists, are common to complex
multicellular organisms belonging to the three eukaryotic kingdoms (Fungi, Plantae and
Animalia) but clearly differentiate protists from members of the prokaryotic kingdom (Monera).
Unlike plants and animals, however, protists do not develop from a blastula or an embryo.
Q.26 Pick up the omnivorous fungus:

A) Pleurotus ostreatus C) Ustilago tritici
B) Morchella esculenta D) Aspergillus fumigatus
Explanation:
Some fungi are active predators. The oyster mushroom (Pleurotus ostreatus) is an omnivorous
(predatory) fungus. It paralyses the nematodes (that feed on this fungus), penetrate them, and
absorb their nutritional contents, primarily to fulfil its nitrogen requirements. It fulfills its glucose
requirements by breaking the wood. Some species of Arthrobotrys trap soil nematodes by
forming constricting ring, their hyphae invad and digest the unlucky victim. Other predators have
other adaptations, such as secretion of sticky substances.
Q.27 Female sex organ of bryophytes is called:

A) Megasporangium C) Archegonium
B) Antheridium D) Oogonium
Explanation:
A single antherozoid fuses with an egg (n) thus accomplishing fertilization which results in the
formation of the diploid zygote (2n). The zygote is retained within the female sex organ
(archegonium) for some time. After a resting period the zygote develops through mitotic
divisions into a diploid embryo. The embryo ultimately develops into a sporophyte which is also
diploid.
Q.28 Virtually all biologists agree that animals evolved from:

A) Protoctists C) Algae
B) Fungi D) Slime molds
Explanation:
Virtually all biologists agree that animals evolved from protoctists; however, which protoctists,
when, and in what sort of environments, are questions that are still actively debated.
Q.29 Vascular plants are included in:

A) Angiospermae C) Bryophyta
B) Gymnospermae D) Tracheophyta
Explanation:

Q.30 Least amount of water is transpired through:
A) Stomata C) Cuticle
B) Hydathodes D) Lenticels
Explanation:
The animal cells cannot withstand higher pressure potential as there is no cell wall around
protoplast. Thus the turgid cells burst in a solution of higher water potential. So the animals
employ the mechanism of osmoregulation to maintain the amount of water and salts in their cells
to constant or nearly constant levels.
Q.31 The normal pH of human blood is:

A) Slightly acidic C) Strongly acidic
B) Slightly alkaline D) Strongly alkaline
Explanation:
Inorganic ions or mineral ions. Together the inorganic ions and salts make up 0.9 per cent of the
plasma, of humans, by weight; more than two thirds of this amount is sodium chloride the
ordinary table salt. Even if the total concentration of dissolved substances remains the same,
shifts in the concentration of particular ion can create serious disturbances. The normal pH of
human blood is 7.4; and it is maintained between narrow limits, because the change in pH would
affect the chemical reactions of the body.
Q.32 In human body homeostatic thermostat is located in:

A) Spinal cord C) Mid brain
B) Hind brain D) Fore brain
Explanation:
The body temperature regulation in humans is based on complex homeostatic systems facilitated
by feedback mechanisms. The homeostatic thermostat is present in the hypothalamus, a brain
part. It responds to the changes in the temperature above and below a set point which is 37°C.
Q.33 Pick up the ureotelic animal:

A) Insects C) Amphibians
B) Snails D) Sponges
Explanation:
Term Description
Insects
Uricotelic
Snails
Sponges Ammoniotelic
Amphibians Ureotelic
Q.34 When a body suffers from hypothermia, following changes may occur, EXCEPT:
A) Shivering thermogenesis C) Vasoconstriction in skin
B) Non-shivering thermogenesis D) Vasodilation in skin
Explanation:
These regulate the rate' of metabolic heat production, balancing it with the rate at which they gain
or lose heat from the surroundings. The rate of heat production is increased by increased muscle
contraction by movements or shivering so called as shivering ·thermogenesis. Also hormones
trigger the heat production as do thyroid hormones and are termed as non-shivering
thermogenesis. Some mammals possess brown fat, which is specialized for rapid heat production.
In overproduction of heat it is dissipated thro ugh exposed surfaces by increasing blood flow or
the evaporative cooling. In mammals, it is observed that skin has been adapted as the organ of
thermoregulation.
Q.35 The collecting tubules open into:
A) Pelvis C) PCT
B) DCT D) Hilus
Explanation:
In each nephron inner end forms a cup-shaped swelling, called Bowman’s capsule and it is around
a ball of capillaries called glomerulus. Glomerulus circulates blood through capsule as it arrives
through afferent arteriole and leaves the capsule by efferent arteriole. The blood vessel subdivides
again into another network of capillaries, the peritubular capillaries. Bowman capsule continues
as extensively convoluted proximal tubule, loop of Henle and the distal tubule, which empties
into collecting tubules. The collecting tubules open into pelvis. The filtrate from glomerulus
passes through these structures and is processed ultimately for urine formation. The peritubular
capillaries intermingle with proximal and distal tubules of the nephron. In juxtamedullary
nephrons additional capillaries extend down to from a loop of vessels, vasa recta.
Q.36 The muscles that exhibit intermediate speed of contraction are called:
A) Smooth muscles C) Skeletal muscles
B) Cardiac muscles D) Circular muscles
Explanation:

Q.37 Generally each end of the entire skeletal muscle is attached to bone by:
A) Single collagen nonelastic fibre C) Single collagen elastic fibre
B) Bundle of collagen non-elastic fibre D) Bundle of collagen elastic fibres
Explanation:
The muscles that are attached to the skeleton and are associated with the movement of bones are
called skeletal muscles. The skeletal muscles are consciously controlled and therefore, are called
voluntary muscles. Skeletal muscles are also called striped or striated muscles because they show
alternate light and dark bands, e.g., triceps and biceps. Generally, each end of the entire muscle
is attached to bone by a bundle of collagen, non-elastic fibres, known as tendons.
Q.38 The skeletal muscles are also called as:

A) Striped muscles C) Simple muscles
B) Circular muscles D) Inexhaustable muscles
Explanation:
The muscles that are attached to the skeleton and are associated with the movement of bones are
called skeletal muscles. The skeletal muscles are consciously controlled and therefore, are called
voluntary muscles. Skeletal muscles are also called striped or striated muscles because they show
alternate light and dark bands, e.g., triceps and biceps. Generally, each end of the entire muscle
is attached to bone by a bundle of collagen, non-elastic ibres, known as tendons.
Q.39 The majority of synapses are:

A) Electrical C) Axo-axonic synapses
B) Chemical D) Dendro-dendritic synapses
Explanation:
The majority of synapses are chemical synapses where synaptic cleft has gap of more than 20
nm. Through these synapses, information of impulse from one neuron is transmitted to another
by means of chemical messengers, the neurotransmitters
Q.40 Following are different types of mechanoreceptors, EXCEPT:

A) Taste C) Pressure
B) Touch D) Hearing
Explanation:
(a) Chemoreceptors: These are for smell taste and for blood CO2 oxygen, glucose, amino acids
and fatty acid (e.g. receptors in the hypothalamus)
(b) Mechanoreceptors: These detect stimuli of touch pressure, hearing and equilibrium (eg. Free
nerve endings + expanded lip endings + stray endings).
Q.41 The passage of nerve impulse is associated with:

A) Increase in permeability of sodium C) Increase in permeability of potassium
B) Decrease in permeability of sodium D) Decrease in permeability of potassium
Explanation:
Na+ and K+ ions movement: The passage of nerve impulse is associated with increase in
permeability of Na+ ions moving inwards upsetting the potential momentarily, making the inside
more positive than outside. Neurophysiologists believe that the increased permeability is due to
the opening of specific pores in the membrane, termed “sodium gates”. When these gates open,
sodium ions rush into the neuron by diffusion. Some K+ moves out.

Q.42 Pick up the correct sequence of events by observing following figure:
A) Depolarization, recovery, repolarization C) Recovery, repolarization, depolarization

B) Depolarization, repolarization, recovery D) Repolarization, depolarization, recovery
Explanation:
Q.43 Production of testosterone is initiated during:

A) Embryonic development C) Adolescence
B) Post embryonic development D) Puberty
Explanation:
The testes consist of many coiled seminiferous tubules where the spermatozoa develop
and, between the tubules, regions of interstitial cells produce gonadal hormones called
testosterone and 17 b-hydroxytestosterone.
After the initiation of development, the sex organs in the foetus produce them, and their level
rises fairly consistently until puberty. After puberty the supply of LH (ICSH), and therefore, the
level of testosterone, remains constant. In the foetus, it initiates the development of the sex
organs. At puberty it brings about development of the male secondary characteristics and
promotes the sex drive. The castrated male fails to develop secondary sexual characteristics and
his body tends more towards the form of the immature female.
Q.44 Mendel’s law of independent assortment was based on:

A) Dihybrid cross C) Test cross
B) Monohybrid cross D) Back cross
Explanation:
After thoroughly studying each trait separately, Mendel decided to study the inheritance
of two simultaneously, e.g., seed shape and seed colour. Seed shape could be round or wrinkled.
Similarly, seed colour could be yellow or green. He crossed true breeding round and yellow seed
plants with true breeding wrinkled and green seed plants. All F1 dihybrid were round and yellow
seeded due to dominance. Then he made a dihybrid cross by allowing self-fertilization among F1
dihybrids. The results was quite surprising. Seeds produced as F2 progeny were ot only in the
two parental combination i.e., round yellow and wrinkled green, but also in two new phenotypic
combination i.e., round green and wrinkled yellow. A clear cut 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio was
found in F2. Appearance of these new recombinant phenotypes of F2 indicated that some sort of
shuffling of alleles had occurred during gamete formation. Mendel inferred the mechanism of
this shuffling as independent assortment of alleles into gametes. He concluded that the alleles for
seed shape and colour were not bound to remain in parental combination forever, i.e., ‘R’ with
‘Y’ and ‘r’ with ‘y’ ;rather these were free to assort independently . R could go with Y or y in
any gamete with equal change.
Q.45 In dihybrid cross Mendel got _________ % recombinants:

A) 25% C) 75%
B) 37% D) 63%
Explanation:
Q.46 Following are three different ways to get gene of interest, EXCEPT:
A) Isolation from the chromosome C) Synthesizing chemically
B) Getting through transcription D) Getting through reverse transcription

Explanation:
How to get a gene?
There are three possible ways to get the gene of interest.
(a) to isolate it from the chromosome
(b) to synthesize it chemically, and
(c) to make it from mRNA
Q.47 According to Darwin overproduction results in:

A) Evolution C) Struggle for existence
B) Natural selection D) Survival of the fittest
Explanation:
Production of more individuals than the environment can support, leads to a struggle for
existence among individuals of a population, with only a fraction of of spring surviving each
generation.
Q.48 First step of central dogma is:

A) Translation C) Replication
B) Transcription D) Reverse transcription
Explanation:
Q.49 A resistant body of bacteria vulnerable to heat is:

A) Mesosome C) Cyst
B) Spore D) Plasmid
Explanation:
Cysts
Cysts are dormant, thick-walled, desiccation resistant forms and develop during
differentiation of vegetative cells which can germinate under suitable condition. They are not
heat resistant.
Spores
Certain species of bacteria produce spores, either external to the vegetative cells
(exospores) or within the vegetative cells (endospores). They are metabolically dormant bodies
and are produced at a late-stage of cell growth. Spores are resistant to adverse physical
environmental conditions such as light, high temperature, desiccation, pH and chemical agents,
under favorable conditions they germinate and form vegetative cells.
Q.50 _______ very rarely have flagella:

A) Bacilli C) Spirillum
B) Cocci D) Spirilli
Explanation:
These are extremely thin, hair like appendages. They come out through cell wall and
originate from basal body, structure just beneath the cell membrane in the cytoplasm. They are
made up oil protein flagellin. On the basis of presence of flagella, pattern of attachment of flagella
and the number of flagella present bacteria are classified into different taxonomic groups.
Amphitrichous means bacteria are without any flagella. When single polar flagellum is present
then condition is known as monotrichous. If tuft of flagella is present only at one pole of bacteria
then these are lophotrichous flagella. Amphitrichous is a condition when tuft of flagella at each
of two poles is present. In peritrichous form, flagella surround the whole cell. Most of bacilli and
spiral shaped bacteria have flagella. Cocci very rarely have flagella.
Q.51 Dionaea muscipula is commonly called as:

A) Venus fly trap C) Pitcher plant
B) Sundew D) Dodder
Explanation:
Term Description
Venus fly trap Dionaea muscipula
Sundew Drosera intermedia
Pitcher plant Sarracenia pupurea
Dodder Cuscuta reflexa
Q.52 Following are the characteristics of passive immunization, EXCEPT:

A) It gives immediate protection C) Immune system is stimulated in it
B) Its impact is short lived D) Antibiotics are injected in it
Explanation:
Active Immunity: The use of vaccines, which stimulate the production of antibodies in
the body, and making a person immune against the disease or infection, is called active immunity.
But this active immunity has been achieved by artificially introducing, antigens in the body, so
it is called artificially induced active immunity.
But, when a person is exposed to an infection (antigen) - becomes ill, and in Antiserum
is a most cases survives then this immunity, developed against that disease is called serum
containing antibodies. naturally induced immunity or auto immune response.
Passive immunity: In contrast to active immunity, in which case antigens are introduced
to stimulate the production of antibodies, by artificial or natural method; antibodies are injected
in the form of antisera, to make a person immune against a disease. This is called passive
immunity.
Q.53 PCR amplification can be used to diagnose:

A) Viral infections C) Fungal infections
B) Bacterial infection D) Organ failure
Explanation:
PCR amplification and analysis can be used (1) to diagnose viral infections, genetic
disorders, and cancer (2) in forensic laboratories to identify criminals; and (3) to determine the
evolutionary history’ of human population. It has been possible to sequence DNA taken from a
76,000 years old mummified human brain and from a 17 to 20 million years old plant fossil
following PCR amplification.
Q.54 It is estimated that there are _________ stomata per square centimeter of leaf surface in
tobacco plant:
A) 2000 C) 20000
B) 10000 D) 12000
Explanation:
Stomata are largely present in the leaves and in young stem. In older stems, cork tissue is
present which is formed of dead cells. The cork tissue has special pores called lenticels which
are involved in gaseous exchange. Land plants get their oxygen directly from air which enters
through stomata. Enormous number of stomata are. present on the leaves. It is estimated that
there are 12000 stomata per square centimeter of leaf surface in Tobacco plant.
Q.55 Rh factor was first discovered in:

A) Human being C) Mouse
B) Monkey D) Elephant
Explanation:
ABO blood type is further differentiated by a + or - sign. This positive or negative sign
refers to the presence or absence of another blood group system antigen called Rh factor. Rh
blood group system is defined on the basis of Rh factor present on the surface of RBC. This
system is named Rh after Rhesus monkey, because its antigen was irst discovered in it by
Landsteiner in 1930s.
Q.56 Twenty third pair of chromosomes in human male is:

A) Homologous C) Heteromorphic
B) Isomorphic D) Autosomal
Explanation:
This pattern of sex determination is found in Drosophila, man and many other organisms.
Male is XY and female is XX. Male being heterogametic produces two types of sex-determining
sperms. Half the sperms carry X-chromosome and the other half carry Y - chromosome. Chances
for both types of sperms are equal.
Q.57 Chances for having son or daughter in humans are:

A) Indeterminate C) Never equal
B) Variable D) Equal
Explanation:

Q.58 All of the following are polygenic traits, EXCEPT:
A) Human height C) Human eye color
B) Human skin color D) ABO blood group
Explanation:
Environment also has a strong influence on height, intelligence and skin colour in
humans. Constant exposure to sun darkens skin. Poor nutrition prevents achieving genetically
determined height. Healthy and encouraging social environment promotes intelligence.
Q.59 Release of ovum from follicle is called:

A) Oogenesis C) Ovulation
B) Menstruation D) Fertilization
Explanation:
The release of a secondary oocyte (ovulation) is timed to coincide with the thickening of
the lining of the uterus. The uterine cycle in humans involves the preparation of the uterine wall
to receive the embryo if fertilization occurs. Knowing how these two cycles compare, it is
possible to determine when pregnancy is most likely to occur.
Q.60 Use of plant made antibiotics have following advantages, EXCEPT:

A) Low cost availability C) Long lasting defence
B) No fear of contamination D) Risk free method
Explanation:
Plants are being engineered to produce human hormones, clotting factors, and antibodies
in their seeds. One type of antibody made by com can deliver radio isotopes to tumor cells, and
another made by soybeans can be used as treatment for genital herpes. Plant-made antibodies are
inexpensive and there is little worry about contamination with pathogens that could infect people.
Clinical trials have begun.
Q.61 Menstrual cycle can be divided into:

A) Two phase C) Four phase
B) Three phase D) Five phase
Explanation:
In human females, the periodic reproductive cycle is completed in approximately 28 days
and involves changes in the structure and function of the whole reproductive system. It is called
the menstrual cycle and can be divided into four phases. The events of the menstrual cycle
involve the ovaries (ovarian cycle) and the uterus (uterine cycle) and these are regulated by
pituitary gonadotropins.
Q.62 Pick up the STD caused by spirochaete bacteria:

A) Gonorrhoa C) Genital Herpes
B) Syphilis D) AIDS
Explanation:
Gonorrhoa
It is caused by a gram positive bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae, mainly affecting the
mucous membrane of urinogenital tract. New born infants may acquire serious eye infections if
they pass through the infected birth canal. It is highly contagious through sexual contacts.
Syphilis
It is caused by a spirochaete, Treponema pallidum. It damages the reproductive organs,
eyes bones joints, central nervous system, heart and skin. Sexual contact is the major source of
its dissemination.

Genital Herpes
It is caused by a herpes simplex type 2 virus, most frequently transmitted by sexual
contact causing infection of the genitalia. It produces genital soreness and ulcers in the infected
areas. In infected pregnant woman, virus can be transmitted to infant during birth, causing
damage to eyes and CNS of the infant.
AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome)
You are already familiar with this dangerous disease. Sexual contact is one of the major
sources of its spread.
Control: The above dreadful sexual diseases can be controlled and prevented by avoiding sexual
contacts with carrier or diseased person and adopting the hygienic conditions. The treatment
involves medication for a long period except AIDS at present.
Q.63 Aspartame is a __________ sweetener:

A) Dipeptide C) Tetrapeptide
B) Tripeptide D) Pentapeptide
Explanation:
Organic chemicals are often synthesized by having catalysts act on precursor molecules or by
using bacteria to carry out the synthesis. Today, it is possible to go one step further and to
manipulate the genes that code for these enzymes. For instance, biochemists discovered a strain
of bacteria that is especially good at producing phenylalanine; an organic chemical needed to
make aspartame, the dipeptide sweetener better known as Nutrasweet. They isolated, altered and
formed a vector for the appropriate genes so that various bacteria could be genetically engineered
to produce phenylalanine. Many major mining companies already use bacteria to obtain various
metals. Genetic engineering may enhance the ability of bacteria to extract copper, uranium and
gold from low grade sources. Some mining companies are testing genetically engineered
organisms that have improved bioleaching capabilities.
Q.64 A plasmid after insertion of a desired gene is called:

A) Complementary DNA C) Template DNA
B) Recombinant DNA D) Extra chromosomal DNA
Explanation:
Unfortunately, the regeneration of cereal grains from protoplasts has been difficult. Com
and wheat protoplasts produce infertile plants. As a result, other methods are used to introduce
DNA into plant cells with intact cell wall. In one technique, foreign DNA is inserted into the
plasmid of the bacterium Agrobacterium, which normally infects the plant cells. A plasmid can
be used to produce’ recombinant DNA. Recombinant DNA contains genes from different
sources, namely those of plasmids and the foreign genes of interest. When the bacterium infects
the plant the recombinant plasmid is introduced into the plant cells (Fig.23.12). In 1987, John C
Sanford and Theodore M. Klein of Cornell University developed another method of introducing
DNA into a plant tissue culture callus.
Q.65 For making the bacterial cells more permeable for recombinant plasmid they are treated
with:
A) Silicon chloride C) Calcium bromide
B) Calcium chloride D) Barium chloride
Explanation:
A clone can be a large number of molecules (i.e. cloned genes) or cells (i.e. cloned
bacteria) or organisms that are identical to an original specimen. Fig. 23.3 compares the use of a
plasmid and a virus to clone a gene. Bacterial cells take up recombinant plasmid, especially, if
they are treated with calcium chloride to make them more permeable. Thereafter, as the cell
reproduces, a bacterial clone forms and each new cell contains at least one plasmid. Therefore,
each of the bacteria contains the gene of interest, which will express itself and make a product.
From this bacterial clone, the cloned gene can be isolated for further analysis, or protein product
can be separated (Fig 23.2). Besides plasmids, the DNA of bacterial viruses (for example, lambda
phage) can also be used as a vector. After lambda phage attaches to a host bacterium, recombinant
DNA is released from the virus and enters the bacterium. Here, it will direct the reproduction of
many more viruses. Each virus in bacteriophage clone contains a copy of the gene being cloned.
Q.66 Polymerase chain reaction was developed by:

A) Hamilton O Smith C) Maxim Gilbert
B) Kary B Mullis D) F – Sanger
Explanation:
Kary B. Mullis developed the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) in 1983. Earlier methods
of obtaining multiple copies of a specific sequence of DNA were time consuming and expensive.
In contrast, PCR can create millions of copies of a single gene or any specific piece of DNA
quickly in a test tube. PCR is very specific - the targeted DNA sequence can be less than one part
in a million of the total DNA sample. This means that a single gene or smaller piece of DNA,
among all the human genes can be amplified (copied) using PCR.
Q.67 Aphid is a:
A) Fluid feeder C) Scraper
B) Macrophagous D) Filter feeder
Explanation:
Q.68 The effect of calcitonin is antagonized by:

A) PTH C) FSH
B) LTH D) LH
Explanation:
All bodily and mental processes are retarded. High Ca+ ion concentration in the blood
causes stimulation of the synthesis and release of calcitonin; low levels of Ca++ ions suppress its
manufacture. Excess or deficiency leads to disturbance of calcium metabolism with its associated
effects on nerve, skeleton, muscle, blood etc. Calcitonin is antagonistic to parathormone
hormone.
Parathyroids
In man the glands are found embedded in the posterior part of the lateral lobes of the
thyroid. These produce a hormone called parathormone. Low levels of blood Ca++ ions stimulate
the parathyroid directly to increase parathormone production whereas high levels of Ca++ ions
suppress its release. Under-activity causes a drop in blood Ca++ ions which in turn leads to
muscular tetany. Over-activity would lead to a progressive demineralization of the bones similar
to rickets, as well as to the formation of massive kidney stones. Both conditions may be fatal.

Q.69 Tidal volume of air in human being is:
A) 5000 ml C) 1000 ml
B) 4.5 ml D) 500 ml
Explanation:
LUNG VOLUMES AND CAPACITIES
Lung volumes and lung capacities refer to the volume of air associated with different
phases of the respiratory cycle. The average adult human has a lung capacity of approximately 5
liters but only a small amount of this capacity is used during normal breathing.
 Tidal volume is the volume of air exchanged during one breath in and out in quiet
breathing. This is about 500 ml
 Residual volume is the volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible
expiration. This is about I .5 liter.
Q.70 Which of the following can best explain vestigial organs?

A) Lamarckism C) Mendel’s Laws
B) Darwinism D) Neo- Darwinism
Explanation:
INHERITANCE OF ACQUIRED CHARACTERISTICS
Toward the end of the eighteenth century, several naturalists suggested that life had
evolved along with the evolution of earth. But only one of Darwin’s predecessors developed a
comprehensive model that attempted to explain how life evolves. Jean Baptiste Lamarck (1744-
1829) published his theory of evolution in 1809, the year Darwin was born. Lamarck was in-
charge of invertebrate collection at the Natural History Museum in Paris. He presented a
mechanism to explain how specific adaptations evolve. Lamarck argued that those parts of the
body used extensively to cope with the environment become larger and stronger, while those that
are not used deteriorate. Among the examples Lamarck cited were the blacksmith developing a
bigger bicep in the arm that works the hammer and giraffe stretching its neck to new lengths in
pursuit of leaves to eat. The second idea Lamarck adopted, was called the inheritance of acquired
characteristics. In this concept of heredity, the modifications an organism acquires during its
lifetime can be passed along to its of spring’s e.g. the long neck of the giraffe, Lamarck reasoned,
evolved gradually as the cumulative product of a great many generations of ancestors stretching
higher and higher. However, now we know that acquired characteristics cannot be inherited.
Q.71 The example of molecular relation between all living beings is a common:
A) Skeletal framework C) Genetic code
B) Mode of locomotion D) Tissue types
Explanation:
Molecular Biology: Evolutionary relationships among species are reflected in their DNA
and proteins—in their genes and gene products. If two species have genes and proteins with
sequences of monomers that match closely, the sequences must have been copied from a common
ancestor. For example, a common genetic code brings evidence that all life is related. Molecular
biology has thus provided strong evidence in support of evolution as the basis for the unity and
diversity of life. Similarly, taxonomically remote organisms, such as humans and bacteria, have
some proteins in common. For instance, cytochrome c, a respiratory protein is found in all aerobic
species.
Q.72 In Drosophila will produce abnormal male:

A) XX C) XO
B) XY D) XXY
Explanation:
Q.73 UGA codon is normally a stop codon but in mitochondria it reads as:
A) Tyrosine C) Tryptophan
B) Isoleucine D) Methionine
Explanation:
The study of genetic code of mitochondrial DNA however, showed that genetic code is
not that universal. For example, UGA codon is normally a stop codon but, in mitochondria it
reads as tryptophan. Likewise, AUA was read as methionine instead of isoleucine and AG A and
AGG for termination of protein synthesis is instead of arginine. Thus, it appears that genetic code
is not quite universal.
Q.74 In __________ the newly synthesized mRNA is directly released into the cytoplasm:
A) Bacteria C) Animals
B) Fungi D) Plants
Explanation:
In bacteria the newly synthesized mRNA is directly released into the cytoplasm, when it
is converted into polypeptide chain. In eukaryotes however, it has to travel long distance from
inside the nucleus to ribosomes outside in the cytoplasm. The eukaryotic mRNA is therefore
modified in several ways to aid this journey. A cap and a tail is added so that the molecule may
remain stable during long journey to ribosome. The cap is in the form of 7 methyl GTP, which is
linked 5’ to 5’ with the first nucleotide, whereas tail is in the form of poly A tail linked to 3’ end
of the RNA. These caps and tails save the mRNA from variety of nucleases and phosphatases.
Q.75 Termination phase of replication is characterized by:

A) Replacement of primer C) Placement of primer
B) Formation of primer D) Replacement of cap
Explanation:
Termination phase is characterized by the replacement of primers by DNA nucleotides
and joining of Okazaki's fragments in lagging strand to form a continuous strand.
The replacement of primers by DNA nucleotides is carried out by DNA polymerase-I that
has dual function i.e. beside polymerase it also acts as exonuclease. It is attached to the 3' end of
Okazaki's fragment where it adds DNA nucleotide so that it can extend while on the other hand
it cleaves nucleotide from 5' end of primer. In this way primers are removed and each Okazaki's
fragment is extended up to the next Okazaki's fragment but they do not join together.
Q.76 Regulatory region of the gene which provides binding sites for RNA polymerase is called:
A) Terminator C) Cap
B) Tail D) Promoter
Explanation:
This is the process in which an mRNA copy of the DNA sequence encoding the gene is
produced with the help of an enzyme, RNA polymerase. Process of transcription is completed in
three phases: initiation, elongation and termination.
Initiation phase:
Transcription begins with the binding of RNA polymerase at promoter region. Promoter
is a regulatory region of the gene which provides binding sites for RNA polymerase.
Q.77 Transformation experiments were carried out by Fredrick Griffith on:

A) Goat C) Sheep
B) Mice D) Birds
Explanation:
DNA AS HEREDITARY MATERIAL
The first evidence of hereditary nature of DNA was provided by a British microbiologist
Frederick Griffith who made some unexpected observations while experimenting with
pathogenic bacteria. When he infected mice with a virulent strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae
bacteria (then known as Pneumococcus), the mice died of blood poisoning. However, when he
infected similar mice with a mutant strain of S. pneumoniae that lacked the virulent strains
polysaccharide coat, the mice showed no ill effects. The coat was apparently necessary for
virulence.
Q.78 Histones consist of:

A) Arginine and Lysine C) Glycine and Lysine
B) Arginine and Glycine D) Alanine and Lysine
Explanation:
How can this long DNA fibre coil so tightly? If we gently disrupt a eukaryotic nucleus
and examine the DNA with an electron microscope, we find that it resembles a string of beads
(Fig 20.5). Every 200 nucleotides, the DNA duplex is coiled around a core of eight histone
proteins forming a complex known as a nucleosome. Unlike most proteins, which have an overall
negative charge, histones are positively charged due to an abundance of the basic amino acids
arginine and lysine. They are thus strongly attracted to the negatively charged phosphate groups
of the DNA. The histone cores thus act as magnetic forms that promote and guide the coiling of
the DNA. Further coiling occurs when the string of nucleosomes wraps up into higher order coils
called supercoils.
Q.79 _______________were the first organisms to be modified in the laboratory, due to their
simple genetics:
A) Bacteria C) Fungi
B) Viruses D) Protozoans
Explanation:
Transgenic Bacteria:
Bacteria were the first organisms to be modified in the laboratory, due to their simple
genetics. The first example of this occurred in 1978 when Herbert Boyer working at a University
of California laboratory took a version of the human insulin gene and inserted into the bacterium
Escherichia coli to produce synthetic "human" insulin.
Q.80 Liposomes are used in gene therapy of:

A) Hyperglycemia C) Cystic fibrosis
B) Hypercholesterolemia D) Hemophilia
Explanation:
Cystic fibrosis patients lack a gene that codes for trans-membrane carrier of the chloride
ion. Patients often die due to numerous infections of the respiratory tract. And in vivo method of
treatment is being tried. Liposomes-microscopic vesicles that spontaneously form when
lipoproteins are put into a solution, have been coated with the gene needed to cure cystic fibrosis.
Then the solution is sprayed into patient’s nostrils. Due to limited gene transfer, this methodology
has not as yet been successful.

Biology National MDCAT FLP # 1

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ENTRANCE TEST – 2020

Q.2 Primary cell wall has:

Q.3 There may be as many as _____________ grana per chloroplast:

Q.4 DNA of prokaryotic cell is coiled into:

Q.5 Cell eats through:

NATIONAL MDCAT FLP # 01 Page 1 of 22

Q.7 Conjugation of organic biomolecules takes place in:

Q.10 By removing nitrogenous base from lecithin we get:

NATIONAL MDCAT FLP # 01 Page 2 of 22

Q.11 Which one of the following proteins is non-crystalline?

Q.12 A cell may have at least _________ kinds of tRNA molecules:

Q.14 Optimum pH for pancreatic lipase is:

Q.15 Pick up the competitive inhibitor:

Q.20 During Krebs cycle oxaloacetate is regenerated from:

Q.21 Cells degrade mostly __________ to release energy:

Q.22 A fine filter made up of porcelain can retain:

Q.24 On the basis of host viruses are classified into:

Q.25 Unlike plants and animals, protists do not develop from a:

NATIONAL MDCAT FLP # 01 Page 7 of 22

Q.26 Pick up the omnivorous fungus:

Q.27 Female sex organ of bryophytes is called:

Q.28 Virtually all biologists agree that animals evolved from:

Q.29 Vascular plants are included in:

NATIONAL MDCAT FLP # 01 Page 8 of 22

Q.31 The normal pH of human blood is:

Q.32 In human body homeostatic thermostat is located in:

Q.33 Pick up the ureotelic animal:

NATIONAL MDCAT FLP # 01 Page 10 of 22

Q.38 The skeletal muscles are also called as:

Q.39 The majority of synapses are:

Q.40 Following are different types of mechanoreceptors, EXCEPT:

Q.41 The passage of nerve impulse is associated with:

NATIONAL MDCAT FLP # 01 Page 11 of 22

A) Depolarization, recovery, repolarization C) Recovery, repolarization, depolarization

Q.43 Production of testosterone is initiated during:

Q.44 Mendel’s law of independent assortment was based on:

Q.45 In dihybrid cross Mendel got _________ % recombinants:

NATIONAL MDCAT FLP # 01 Page 13 of 22

Q.47 According to Darwin overproduction results in:

Q.48 First step of central dogma is:

Q.49 A resistant body of bacteria vulnerable to heat is:

Q.50 _______ very rarely have flagella:

Q.51 Dionaea muscipula is commonly called as:

Q.52 Following are the characteristics of passive immunization, EXCEPT:

Q.53 PCR amplification can be used to diagnose:

Q.55 Rh factor was first discovered in:

Q.56 Twenty third pair of chromosomes in human male is:

Q.57 Chances for having son or daughter in humans are:

NATIONAL MDCAT FLP # 01 Page 16 of 22

Q.59 Release of ovum from follicle is called:

Q.60 Use of plant made antibiotics have following advantages, EXCEPT:

Q.61 Menstrual cycle can be divided into:

Q.62 Pick up the STD caused by spirochaete bacteria:

NATIONAL MDCAT FLP # 01 Page 17 of 22

Q.63 Aspartame is a __________ sweetener:

Q.64 A plasmid after insertion of a desired gene is called:

Q.66 Polymerase chain reaction was developed by:

Q.68 The effect of calcitonin is antagonized by:

NATIONAL MDCAT FLP # 01 Page 19 of 22

Q.70 Which of the following can best explain vestigial organs?

Q.72 In Drosophila will produce abnormal male:

Q.75 Termination phase of replication is characterized by:

Q.77 Transformation experiments were carried out by Fredrick Griffith on: