a.

Marketing Manager
b. Medical Information Specialist
Manufacturing Pharmacy c. Public Policy Specialist
1. Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (API) d. Regulatory Affairs Manager
or bulk drug substance may be e. Product Representative
discovered or obtained by;
I. Synthetic biotechnology 5. Phase of human clinical trial testing that
II. Isolation from natural sources assess dosing requirements:
III. Serendipitous new drug effect a. Phase II
discovery b. Phase IIA
a. I only c. Phase IIB
b. III only d. Phase III
c. I & II e. Phase IV
d. II & III
e. I, II & III 6. Particle size is a basic property of a
powder. Which of the following
2. Rx product life cycle phases that expression of diameter that describes
involves regulatory submission for the distance between pairs of parallel
additional dosage forms or new tangents to the projected outline of the
therapeutic indications; particle in some fixed direction?
a. Discovery a. Martin’s diameter, dm
b. Development b. Sieve diameter, da
c. Commercialization c. Perimeter diameter, dp
d. Termination d. Feret’s diameter, df
e. None of these e. Aerodynamic diameter, daero

3. Which of the following phases of human 7. Expression of diameter that represents

clinical testing match with their the particle size of a powder having the
prescription? length of a chord equally dividing the
I. Phase I – testing the product in projected outline of the particle in some
larger groups in patients with fixed direction;
the disorder or disease a. Martin’s diameter, dm
II. Phase II – testing may also take b. Feret’s diameter, df
place with special populations c. Stokes diameter, dst
such as renal or hepatic d. Equivalent volume diameter, dv
impairment, pediatrics or e. Sieve diameter, da
elderly subjects
III. Phase III – randomized, 8. This method is used to determine the
controlled testing on large diameter of a sphere having the same
patient populations to make volume (V) as the particle (Equivalent
definitive assessment of drug volume diameter, dv);
efficacy a. Sedimentation method
a. I only b. Anderson impactor method
b. III only c. Microscopic method
c. I & II d. Coulter counter method
d. II & III e. Light scattering method
e. I, II & III
9. Which method is widely used to
4. Practice of pharmacy that involved determine the crystallinity of a solid
primarily with government regulations powder?
and policies associated with all aspects a. X-ray diffraction (XRD)
of products: b. Angle of repose (a)
 c. Photo correlation spectroscopy a. Attribute defect
(PCS) b. Variable effect
d. None of these c. Performance defect
e. All of these d. Internal defect
e. Critical defect
10. If the % compresability of a powder is
23-35%, the powder flowability is ____ 15. The maximum percent defective of the
a. Extremely poor maximum number of defects per
b. Poor hundred units that for purposes of
c. Fair sampling inspection, can be considered
d. Good satisfactory as a process average;
e. Excellent a. Acceptable quality level
b. Risk of error
11. The function of Material Inspection c. Consumer’s risk
Section in a manufacturing plant is: d. Producer’s risk
I. To validate existing and e. None of these
tentative procedures of testing
II. To sample and examine all raw 16. The process of optimizing a drug
materials received through the determination and/or
III. To maintain periodic definiton of those physical and chemical
examination on the quality of properties considered important in the
inventories throughout all formulation of a stable, effective and
phases of storage, shipping and safe dosage form;
distribution a. Batch formula
a. I only b. Master formula
b. III only c. Formulation
c. I & II d. Preformulation
d. II & III e. None of these
e. I, II & III
17. Purified water, USP is water obtained
12. A classification of defect which may by;
affect the function of the object and I. Distillation
therefore, may render the product II. Ion-exchange treatment
useless (eg.,presence of a crack in a III. Reverse osmosis
bottle): a. I only
a. Internal defect b. III only
b. Major defect c. I & II
c. Minor defect d. II & III
d. Critical defect e. I, II & III
e. Variable defect
18. Which of the following may be added in
13. A classification of defect which is not syrup to retard crystallization of sucrose
seen although present: or to increase the solubility of added
a. Internal defect ingredients?
b. Major defect I. Glycerin
c. Minor defect II. Sorbitol
d. Performance defect III. Honey
e. Attributable defect a. I only
b. III only
14. A suppository that does not melt at body c. I & II
temperature, is an example of what d. II & III
defect? e. I, II & III
 e. Creep failure
19. Brady and whisky are example of spirits 24. The plastic processing method
that are prepared by: employed for pharmaceutical packaging
a. Distillation components that is being heated to a
b. Maceration melted or viscous state and forced
c. Chemical reaction under pressure through a die, resulting
d. Simple solution in a configuration of desired shape:
e. Admixture a. Blow molding
b. Injection molding
20. The emulsion is prepared by adding c. Compression molding
water and oil alternately to the d. Solvent casting
emulsifying agent. This method of e. Extrusion
preparation is:
I. Alternate addition method 25. The selection and approval of a polymer
II. English method type is as important as the need to
III. Soap method check it routinely against the criteria
a. I only used in its selection. Which of the
b. III only following basic areas of control and/or
c. I & II procedures are recommended?
d. II & III I. Tissue-cell toxicity testing
e. I, II & III II. Characterization analysis
III. Routinely inspect for
21. The equipment used in the preparation dimensional and attribute
of emulsion wherein the dispersion of variables
two liquids is achieved by forcing the a. I only
mixture through a small inlet orifice at b. III only
high pressures. c. I & II
a. Agitator or mechanical stirrers d. II & III
b. Homogenizers e. I, II & III
c. Ultrasonifiers
d. Colloid mills 26. Which of the following is to be added to
e. Both A and C make a flexible collodion?
I. Glycerin
22. A basic desirable property of a II. Camphor
suspension wherein the dispensed III. Castor oil
phase should settle slowly without a. I only
forming a hard cake: b. III only
a. Slow sedimentation rate c. I & II
b. Resuspendable or redispersible d. II & III
c. Pourable e. I, II & III
d. Chemical stable
e. Acceptable to the consumer 27. This refers to the quantity of dosage
form in the final packaging (excluding
23. Mechanical properties of plastic the shipping carton) of a drug product
packaging material that has the ability to bearing the required labeling
withstand shock-loading, where a information:
specimen receives a blow from a a. Pack size
swinging pendulum as an example: b. Net content
a. Tear strength c. Primary label
b. Flex resistance d. Lot number
c. Fatigue resistance e. Dosage strength
d. Impact strength
28. Which of the following is the appropriate a. I only
labeling format for products with multiple b. III only
API’s? c. I & II
I. d. II & III
Iron / Folic Acid e. I, II & III
Brand Name
32. A pharmaceutical form of an active
II. Iron + Folic Acid ingredient or placebo being tested or
Brand Name used as reference in a clinical trial:
a. Generic product
Iron b. Investigational product
Folic Acid c. Formulation
III. Brand Name d. Herbal products
e. Traditional products
a. I only
b. III only 33. For products that are intended for
c. I & II external use, the statement “For
d. II & III external use only” shall appear on all
e. I, II & III labeling materials. Which of the
following is the correct format?
29. Which of the following special labeling a. Capital letters against a red
instructions is/are correctly paired with background or printed in red font
their properties? b. Capital letters against a red
I. “Do not refrigerate or freeze” – background or printed in black font
cannot tolerate excessive heat c. Capitalized each word and printed in
II. “Store and transport not above red font
30ºC” – cannot tolerate freezing d. Capitalized each word against a
III. “Store in dry conditions” – black background and printed in
hygrodcopic white font
a. I only e. Capitalized each word and printed in
b. III only black font
c. I & II
d. II & III 34. Which of the following is extremely to
e. I, II & III the requisites provided by AO 2016-
0008?
30. Which of the following is/are correct I. Veterinary products
labeling format for product’s II. Drug products manufactured for
manufacturing and expiration date? export
a. 03 Jun 2007 III. Investigational products
b. June 2007 a. I only
c. 06/07 b. III only
d. Both A and B c. I & II
e. Both B and C d. II & III
e. I, II & III
31. The caution statement, “Food, Drugs,
Devices, and Cosmetics Act prohibits 35. Which of the following is/are mandatory
dispensing without prescription” shall information for blister packs/foil strips
always be included in the: packaging?
I. Primary label including blister I. Name and/or logo of the MAH
pack and foil strip on each unit for single API, or
II. Package insert every two (2) units for multiple
III. Unit carton APIs
 II. Name and address of the d. Picking
Manufacturer e. Mottling
a. I only 40. The unequal distribution of color on a
b. III only tablet, with light or dark areas standing
c. I & II out in an otherwise uniform surface;
d. II & III a. Capping
e. I, II & III b. Picking
c. Lamination
36. Erweka testes, Schleuniger tester, and d. Mottling
Strong-Cobb tester are example of e. Sticking
devices used to test:
a. Tablet weight variation 41. A term used to describe the surface
b. Tablet hardness material from a tablet that is sticking and
c. Tablet disintegration being removed from the tablet’s surface
d. Tablet dissolution by a punch:
e. Tablet content uniformity a. Lamination
b. Sticking
37. These are synthetic derivatives (eg., c. Picking
esters and amides) of drug molecules d. Capping
that may have intrinsic pharmacological e. Mottling
activity but usually must undergo some
transformation in vivo to liberate the 42. Tablet lamination or capping problems
active drug molecule: are often aliminated by:
a. Molecular optimization I. Addition of colloidal silica to the
b. Prodrug formula
c. Preformulation II. Slowing the tablet rate
d. Investigational new drug III. Reducing the final compression
e. None of these pressure
a. I only
38. Which of the following factors can b. III only
directly contribute to content uniformity c. I & II
problems in tablets? d. II & III
I. Segregation of the powder e. I, II & III
mixture or granulation during the
various manufacturing 43. To overcome the mottling problem, the
processes preventive measure is:
II. Non uniform distribution of the I. The formulator may change the
drug substance throughout the solvent system
powder mixture or granulation II. Change the binder system
III. Tablet weight variation III. Reduce the drying temperature
a. I only a. I only
b. III only b. III only
c. I & II c. I & II
d. II & III d. II & III
e. I, II & III e. I, II & III

39. The partial or complete separation of the 44. “Arching” or “bridging” and “rat-holing”
top or bottom crowns of a tablet form the are problems associated with weight
main body; variation of tablets, specifically:
a. Lamination a. Granule size and size distribution
b. Capping before compression
c. Sticking b. Poor flow
 c. Punch variation c. I & II
d. Hardness variation d. II & III
e. Double compression e. I, II & III

45. Granule density may influence the 50. Dipac is a sucrose-based diluent
following: containing __ sucrose plus __ modified
a. Compressibility dextrins:
b. Tablet porosity a. 7%, 10%
c. Surface tension b. 97%, 3%
d. Both a & b c. 95%, 4%
e. Both b & c d. 50%, 74%
e. 10%, 25%
46. When the initial blend of powders is
forced into the dies of a large-capacity 51. The following are used as tablet
tablet press and is compacted by means disintegrants, except:
of a flat-faced punches, the compacted a. Ethyl cellulose
masses are called: b. Starch, USP
a. Slugs c. Primogel
b. Compaction rolls d. Explotab
c. Tablet presses e. Ac-Di-Sol
d. Both a & b
e. Both a & c 52. Lubricants differs with anti-adherents
because lubricants are:
47. Which of the following tablet excipients a. Reducing the sticking of any of the
match with their example? tablet granulation or powder to the
I. Binders – gelatin faces of the punches or to the die
II. Disintegrants – PEG wall
III. Diluents – stearic acid b. Intended to promote flow of the
a. I only tablet granulation or powder
b. III only materials by reducing friction
c. I & II between the particles
d. II & III c. Intended to reduce the friction
e. I, II & III during tablet ejection between the
walls of the tablet and the walls of
48. Maillard reaction is: the die cavity in which the tablet
a. Low concentrations of unbound was formed
moisture d. Both a & b
b. Forming a eutectic mixture e. Both b &c
c. Form insoluble complexes and salts
d. Lead to browning and 53. Syloid and Aerosil are materials used
discoloration with certain drugs as;
e. Containing tightly bound water but a. Glidants
having a low remaining moisture b. Lubricants
demand c. Antiadherents
d. Flavors
49. Advantage of mannitol as a talet diluent: e. Sweeteners
I. It is widely used in chewable
tablets 54. The purpose of this type of tablet is to
II. Relatively non hygroscopic prevent the multiplication of bacteria in
III. Excellent flow characteristics the empty socket following a tooth
a. I only extraction by employing a slow-
b. III only
 releasing antibacterial compound or to
reduce bleeding: 60. The following are the general types of
a. Implantation tablets equipment used in most coating
b. Effervescent tablelts processes, except:
c. Troches a. The fluidized bed
d. Dental cones b. The standard coating pan
e. Lozenges c. The perforated coating pan
d. Day-Nauta processor
55. The purpose of this tablet is to provide e. Air suspension
prolonged drug effects, ranging from
one month to a year. 61. The basic sugar coating process
a. Sustained-release tablets involves steps, except:
b. Implantation tablets a. Syruping
c. Dental cones b. Polishing
d. Vaginal tablets c. Bending
e. Tablet triturates d. Subcoating
e. Sealing
56. Components of an effervescent tablets,
except: 62. The step in coating process that cover
a. Carbolic acid and fill in the imperfections in the tablet
b. Sodium bicarbonate caused by subcoating step:
c. Citric acid a. Polishing
d. Tartaric acid b. Syruping
e. None of these c. Subcoating
d. Bending
57. Vaginal tablets are also called ____ e. Sealing
a. Packets
b. Implants 63. The following are properties of an ideal
c. Inserts enteric coationg material, except:
d. Both a & b a. Ease of application without
e. Both b &c specialized equipment
b. Formation of a continuous film
58. The following type of tablets are rarely c. Resistance to gastric fluids
used today, except: d. Stability alone and in coating
a. Tablet triturates solutions
b. Dispensing tablets e. Inability to be applied to
c. Hypodermic tablets debossed tablets
d. Effervescent tablets
e. None of these 64. Which of the following plasticizers is
used primarily for organic-based coating
59. Objectives of tablet coating include: solutions?
I. To control the release of the I. Spans
drug from the tablet II. Castor oil
II. To mask the taste, odor, or color III. Propylene glycol
of the drug a. I only
III. To provide physical and b. III only
chemical protection for the drug c. I & II
a. I only d. II & III
b. III only e. I, II & III
c. I & II
d. II & III 65. A commercially available colorants of
e. I, II & III coating solution without additional
 milling equipment that gives opaquant narrows the monogram or bisect that is
color concentrate for sugar coating: caused by applying too much solution.
a. Opalux a. Hazing/Dull film
b. Opasparay b. Cracking
c. Opadry c. Blistering
d. Opagangnam d. Color variation
e. Opaquant-Extenders e. Bridging and filling

66. These are very fine inorganic powders 71. When coated tablets require further
used in the coating solution formulations drying in ovens, too rapid evaporation of
to provide more pastel colors and the solvent from the core and the effect
increase film coverage: of high temperature on the strength,
a. Opagangnam elasticity and adhesion of the film may
b. Opadry result this defect.
c. Opaquant-extenders a. Cracking
d. Opaspry b. Bridging and Filling
e. Opalux c. Roughness
d. Blistering
67. A film defect that caused by over wetting e. Color Variation
or excessive film tackiness causes
tablets to stick to each other or to the 72. This film defect is sometimes called
coating pan giving a “picked” bloom because it can occur when too
appearance to the tablet surface: high a processing temperature is used
a. Roughness for a particular formulation:
b. Blistering a. Blistering
c. Cracking b. Hazing/Dull film
d. Sticking and Picking c. Cracking
e. Orange-Peel Effects d. Orange-Peel Effects
e. Sticking and Picking
68. A film defect that has a gritty surface
often observed when the coating is 73. The film defect problem can be caused
applied by a spray: by processing conditions or the
a. Cracking formulation:
b. Sticking and picking a. Color variation
c. Roughness b. Bridging and Filling
d. Bridging and filling c. Cracking
e. Orange-Peel Effects d. Roughness
e. Blistering
69. A film defect that resulted from
inadequate spreading of the coating 74. This film defect occurs if internal
solution before drying causes a bumpy stresses in the film exceed the tensile
effect on the coating: strength of the film:
a. Orange-Peel Effects a. Cracking
b. Hazing/Dull film b. Color variation
c. Roughness c. Roughness
d. Blistering d. Blistering
e. Bridging and filling e. Orange-Peel Effects

70. During drying, this film defect may 75. The specialized coating is an efficient
shrink and pull away from the sharp method of applying coating to
corners of an intagliation or bisect and conductive substrates:
results in a thick film that fills and a. Vacuum Film Coating
 b. Dip Coating b. Heat-resistant
c. Electrostatic Coating c. Water-sensitive
d. Compression Coating d. Water-resistant
e. None of these e. Both a and d
76. This type of specialized coating requires 82. A maximum of ___ of soluble dye is the
a specialized tablet machine: “rule of the thumb” in concentration of
a. Vacuum film coating colorants to be used:
b. Dip coating a. 0.01%
c. Electrostatic coating b. 0.02%
d. Compression coating c. 0.03%
e. None of these d. 0.04%
e. 0.05%
77. This specialized coating is applied to the
tablet cores by dipping them into the 83. The dry method for preparing tablet
coating liquid: is/are composed of:
a. Vacuum film coating a. Direct Compression
b. Dip coating b. Granulation of Compression
c. Electrostatic coating c. Wet Granulation
d. Compression coating d. Both a and b
e. None of these e. Both b and c

78. This is a new specialized coating 84. A tablet processing problem that
procedure that employs a specially resulted from the removal of edges of
designed baffled pan: tablet:
a. Vacuum film coating a. Capping
b. Dip coating b. Lamination
c. Electrostatic coating c. Chipping
d. Compression coating d. Mottling
e. None of these e. Picking

79. This component is added to most tablet 85. A type of mechanical hardness tester
formulation to facilitate the breakup of that operates with the same principle as
the tablet when it comes in contact with applies:
water in the GIT: a. Eureka instrument
a. Lubricant b. Stokes Monsato
b. Disintegrants c. Strong Cobb
c. Binders d. Pfizer Hardness tester
d. Diluents e. None of these
e. Glidants
86. The USP limit for content uniformity:
80. Thia is tablet component that make up a. 70-100%
the major portion of the tablet: b. 65-95%
a. Binders c. 50-100%
b. Diluents d. 100-120%
c. Disintegrants e. 85-115%
d. Lubricants
e. Dyes 87. The general advantages of multilayered
tablets are, except:
81. PVP in alcohol, ethylcellulose, methyl a. Two incompatible drugs may be
cellulose in chloroform will bind what kept separate by interposing an inert
characterisics of drugs? substance between them
a. Heat-sensitive
 b. Each layer may have a separate I. Heat methods
color for identity II. Wet methods
c. Accurate control of the delayed III. Dry methods
action portion of tablets is possible a. I only
d. All of these b. III only
e. None of these c. I & II
88. The general method of preparing d. II & III
effervescent tablets: e. I, II & III
a. Wet fusion
b. Heat fusion 93. Component of film coating solution that
c. Cold fusion provides water permeability
d. Both a and b a. Cellulose acetate phthalate
e. Both c and d b. Polyethlylene glycol
c. Plasticizer
89. The sustained release tablets are d. Surfactant
intended to provide: e. Colorants
I. Absorption through the oral
mucosa for immediate release 94. Polyoxyethylenesorbitian is an example
of the medication of ___ that enhance spreadability of the
II. Immediate release of an amount film during application:
of drug that promptly produces a. Plasticizer
desired therapeutic effect b. Cellulose acetate phthalate
III. Gradual and continual release c. Colorants
of the other amounts of drug to d. PEG
maintain this level of effect e. Surfactant
a. I only
b. III only 95. The function of this component of
c. I & II coating solution is to form a smooth thin
d. II & III film under ordinary coating process:
e. I, II & III a. Surfactant
b. Polyethylene glycol
90. The essential property to be possessed c. Cellulose acetate phthalate
by tablet granulation is: d. Plasticizer
I. Fluidity e. Colorants
II. Compressibility
III. Plasticity 96. Castor oil is an example of ____ that
a. I only produce flexibility and elasticity of the
b. III only tablet coating:
c. I & II a. Plasticizer
d. II & III b. Colorants
e. I, II & III c. Cellulose acetate phthalate
d. Surfactant
91. This additive/s and component/s added e. PEG
to formulation of tablets:
a. Binders 97. These are added to film coating to make
b. Disintegrants the tablet elelgant and distinctive:
c. Diluents a. PEG
d. Lubricants b. Cellulose acetate phthalate
e. All of these c. Plasticizer
d. Colorants
92. Method of preparing components for e. Surfactant
tablet comprpession include:
98. According to USP, it is a state in which
any residue of the tablet, except the 104. Medium chain alcohol that
fragments of insoluble coating remains serves as cosurfactant in the
on the screen is a soft mass having no preparation of microemulsions
firm core: a. Hexanol
a. Friability b. Octanol
b. Weight variation tolerance c. Butanol
c. Content uniformity d. Ethanol
d. Disintegration time e. Pentanol
e. Tablet thickness
105. Type of compressed tablet that
99. Disintegration apparatus: produces CO2 upon the reaction of its
I. Constant heat components with water
II. Basket a. Effervescent tablets
III. A motor with lever b. Layered tablets
a. I only c. Press – coated tablets
b. III only d. Orally – disintegrating tablets
c. I & II e. Controlled – release tablets
d. II & III
e. I, II & III 106. Non uniformity of coloring in
tablets is generally referred to as ___
100. The equipment used in a. Frosting
spheronization: b. Twinning
a. Homogenizer c. Blushing
b. Agitator machine d. Mottling
c. Colloid mills e. Sticking
d. Marumerizer machine
e. Mechanical stirrer machine 107. A part of the tablet press
machine that determines the size and
101. Antioxidant of choice for shape of the tablet
parenterals: a. Punches
a. Thiourea b. Dies
b. Acetone c. Hopper
c. Sodium formaldehyde sulfoxylate d. Cams
d. Sodium bisulfite e. Feed shoe
e. Thioglycolic acid
108. A part of the tablet press
102. Walls: Concrete masonry unit: machine that guides the movement of
_____: Neoprene units the machine
a. Doors a. Punches
b. Ceilings b. Dies
c. Floors c. Hopper
d. Rooms d. Cams
e. Panels e. Fees shoe

103. Most widely used lubricant in 109. Substance that improves the
pharmaceutical products flow characteristics of a powder mixture
a. Polyethylene glycol a. Lubricant
b. Light mineral oil b. Glidant
c. Magnesium stearate c. Disintegrant
d. Sodium stearyl fumarate d. Diluent
e. Sodium benzoate e. Binder
 d. IV and V
110. It is a condition of emulsion e. All of these
wherein the dispersed phase floats out
and concentrates on top: 115. A class of liter aids that form a
a. Creaming fine surface deposit which screens out
b. Cracked or broken emulsion all solids. It is the most frequently
c. Sedimentation employed for clarification processes in
d. Oil in water emulsion pharmacy
e. Water in oil emulsion a. Kraft paper
b. Filter paper
111. Substance added in a c. Membrane filter media
suspension to overcome agglomeration d. Nylon
of the dispersed particles and to e. Filter cloth
increase the viscosity of the medium so
that the particles settles down slowly is 116. The addition of an excess of the
called: activities in an unstable drug preparation
a. Suspending agents to compensate for the loss during the
b. Glycerites manufacture of the product within
c. Inert substances clinically acceptable limits;
d. Oil a. Curing
e. Water b. Product adjustments
c. Product allowances
112. Type of solid dosage form d. Manufacturing overages
where the drug substance is not e. Co = solvency
released until a physical event has
occurred 117. Minimum duration under ICH
a. Dispersible tablet Accelerated Testing Condition
b. Soluble tablet a. 2 months
c. Immediate release tablet b. 12 months
d. Delayed release tablet c. 4 months
e. Chewable tablet d. 3 months
e. 6 months
113. What is the temperature and RH
set-ups for the revised Zone 4A (Hot 118. The overage limits for dry solid
and Humid) in long term stability test? dosage form such as tablets and
a. 30ºC and 75% capsules
b. 31ºC and 70% a. NMT 30% of the labelled potency
c. 30ºC and 65% b. NMT 25% of the labelled potency
d. 31ºC and 60% c. NMT 20% of the labelled potency
e. 24-31ºC and 70% d. NMT 15% of the labelled potency
e. NMT 10% of the labelled potency
114. Components of packaging 119. Which of the following is an
which undergo tests on stress cracking evidence of particulate contamination?
and corrosion; a. Unclean uniform
I. Bottles b. Improper dispensing of raw
II. Bottle caps materials
III. Rubber closures c. Environment
IV. Labels d. Sick personnel reporting to work
V. Unit boxes area
a. I and II e. Packaging machines not cleared out
b. II and III prior to a new product run
c. III and IV
120. This filter aid is not distorted b. Non – ionic
during pressure filtration. It requires no c. Cationic
pre – treatment and may be re – d. Anionic
sterilized by autoclaving or gas; e. Zwitterionic
a. Unglazed porcelain candles
b. Sintered glass discs 126. Which sequence shows the
c. Diatomaceous earth candles Cold Fill Method for aerosols?
d. Asbestos pads a. Purge – product fill – crimp
e. Cellulose ester membrane b. Product fill – crimp – pressure fill
121. A tablet coating procedure c. Product fill – crimp – equilibrate
which protects tablets containing d. Purge – crimp – one shoot fill
components sensitive to oxidation and e. Purge – product fill – pressure fill
in covering objectionable taste and
odour. 127. The elasticity and plasticity of
a. Film coating soft gelatin capsule is due to addition of:
b. Enteric coating I. Glycerin
c. Compression coating II. Fumaric acid
d. Sugar coating III. Denatured proteins
e. Sub sealing IV. Sorbitol
a. I and II
122. PEG and Glycerin are ____ that b. II and IV
are employed for the coating solutions c. I and III
to improve the quality of the film onto d. III and IV
tablet surface e. I and IV
a. Film – former
b. Plasticizer 128. The recommended flavours for
c. Humectant masking the salty taste sensation of the
d. Solvent drug:
e. Surfactant I. Raspberry
II. Maple syrup
123. How much moisture should III. Cinnamon
empty hard gelatin capsules contain, in IV. Lime
order to prevent brittleness and V. Coffee
shrinkage? a. I and II
a. Below 10% b. II and IV
b. 5-10% c. I and III
c. 13-16% d. III and IV
d. 12-15% e. I and IV
e. 15-20% 129. It involves the normal conditions
of temperature and moisture, which the
124. What zone of global product will typically encounter in the
assessment of stability Philippines is actual market place of the product;
classified to? a. Real time stability testing
a. Zone III b. Stress test
b. Zone IV c. Accelerated stability test
c. Zone IV A d. Both b and c
d. Zone IV B e. None of these
e. Zone IV C 130. Flavorant added in masking the
oily taste of cod liver oil:
125. SPANS and TWEENS belong to I. Cinnamon
which group of emulsifier? II. Vanilla
a. Amphoteric III. Peppermint
 IV. Glycyrrhizza
V. Strawberry 136. Fisrt insulin inhaler approved in
a. I and II the market
b. II and IV a. Proctofoam (Schwartz)
c. I and III b. Afrezza (Sanofi)
d. III and IV c. Brethancer (Novartis)
e. I and IV d. Inspirease (Key)
e. Brovana (Sepracor, Inc)
131. The dye component in FD&C 137. An area/room with a defined
Yellow no.5 which causes allergic type environmental control of particulate and
reactions in many people microbial combination; constructed to
a. Quinolone minimize the introduction, generation
b. Phyloxine and retention of contaminants within the
c. Tartrazine area.
d. Eosin a. Airlock room
e. Indigotine b. Controlled room
c. Sterile room
132. Chemically inert and ideal d. Clean room
material for collapsible tubes. e. Normal room
a. Aluminum
b. Tin 138. Retention period for drug
c. Lead records, should be at least how many
d. Antimony years after the completed distribution of
e. Platinum the last lot or batch?
a. 1 year
133. Valve assembly component that b. 2 years
prevents the leakage of formulation c. 3 years
when the valve is closed. d. 4 years
a. Actuator e. 5 years
b. Stem
c. Gasket 139. The preferred diluents for
d. Spring chewable tablet since it has pleasant
e. Dip tube cooling sensation, due to the negative
heat of solution
134. Valve assembly component that a. Mannitol
supports the actuator and delivers the b. Lactose
formulation in the proper form to the c. Calcium stearate
chamber of the actuator d. Ethyl cellulose
a. Housing e. Cellulose acetate phthalate
b. Mounting cup
c. Spring 140. What is the test schedule for
d. Stem stability of products within the second
e. Gasket year of study?
a. Every 1 year
135. Component of an aerosol b. Every two months
package capable of delivering the c. Every six months
content in the desired form. d. Every three months
a. Valve e. Every four months
b. Triplate container
c. Propellant 141. Quality standard and compendia
d. Product concentrate requirements test used to measure the
e. Gasket degree of force to break a tablet
 a. Tablet hardness a. 1:1
b. Tablet thickness / diameter b. 2:5
c. Tablet friability c. 1:10
d. Tablet weight variation d. 3:10
e. Tablet disintegration e. 4:10

142. The following are examples of 148. The pharmaceutical standard in

tamper – evident packaging, EXCEPT: filtration:
a. PET bottles a. Kraft paper
b. Film wrapper b. Nylon
c. Bottle seal c. Felt cloth
d. Shrink seal / band d. Cellulose ester membrane
e. Strip pack e. Teflon

143. Access of personnel to aseptic 149. Recommended filter media

corridors, dispensing and compounding where gelatinous solutions or fine
rooms is only throuogh: particulate matter are involved
a. Clean room a. Kraft paper
b. Sterile area b. Nylon
c. Aseptic area c. Felt cloth
d. Air – lock room d. Cellulose ester membrane
e. HEPA filter e. Teflon

144. Sweetening agent 150. Ampoule sealing method by

contraindicated to patient with melting enough glass at the tip of the
phenylketonuria neck of an ampoule to form a bead and
a. Acesulfame potassium close the opening
b. Cyclamate a. Pull seal
c. Aspartame b. Tip seal
d. Stevia powder c. Piston seal
e. Saccharin d. Both a and c
e. Both b and c
145. A reddish – orange natural food
dye made from the seed of achiote 151. The ability of a hot seal to
a. Alizarin remain intact as it cools down from its
b. Quercetin sealing temperature, thus preserving
c. Cudbear package integrity
d. Cochineal a. Blocking
e. Annatto b. Fatigue resistance
c. Abrasiveness
146. What preservative group works d. Hot tack
by the denaturation of enzymes by e. Flex resistance
combining with thiol (- SH) groups?
a. Acidic 152. Which type of glass container is
b. Alcohols composed of sodium and calcium oxide.
c. Mercurials a. Type I
d. Quaternary ammonium compounds b. Type II
e. Esters c. Type III
d. Type IV
147. The required proportion of e. Type NP
methyl and propylparabensused as
preservatives especially against fungi.
153. The most widely used e. None of these
multipurpose container material for
glass and has the disadvantage of being 158. Major factor in the preparation
transparent to light rays above 300 mu. of emulsion that is defined as the
a. Amber splitting of emulsion to tiny droplets.
b. Light resistance a. Cavitation
c. Flint b. Turbulence
d. Colorless c. Degree of shear
e. Both c and d d. Impact
e. None of these
154. Two most frequently used
method in filing of pharmaceutical 159. The following are characteristics
liquids. of Microemulsion:
I. Constant level method I. Transparent (appearance)
II. Gravimetric II. Thermodynamically unstable
III. Volumetric III. Titrimetric method of
IV. Vacuum preparation
a. I and II a. I only
b. II and III b. II only
c. III and IV c. III only
d. I, II and III d. I and II
e. I, III and IV e. I and III

155. Sample size for torque testing of 160. The following are ideal qualities
caps and closures of suspensions, EXCEPT:
a. 6 a. Does not pack into hard cake
b. 12 b. Particles should settle rapidly
c. 5 c. Resuspendable upon gentle shaking
d. 10 d. Easily poured from the container
e. 20 e. Does not support microbial growth

156. Equipment used in the 161. This equipment operate on the

preparation of emulsions to produce fine principle of high shear, used primarily
droplets by the escape of liquid radically for the comminution of solids and for the
past a flat disc that is held by a strong dispersion of suspensions containing
spring mechanism. poorly wetted solids.
a. Mechanical stirrer a. Homogenizers
b. Colloid mills b. Ultrasonifiers
c. Ultrasonifier c. Colloid mills
d. Homogenizers d. Electric mixer
e. Microfluidizers e. Mechanical stirrer

157. A room/area of defined 162. Emulsion theory which proposes

environmental condition with controlled that the surfactant forms monomolecular
particulate and microbial contamination; layers around the droplets of the internal
constructed, equipped and used to phase of the emulsion.
eliminate the introduction on generation a. Oriented wedge
or retention of contaminants. b. Surface tension
a. Clean room c. Interfacial film
b. Sterile room d. Stokes
c. Controlled room e. Griffin
d. Airlock area
163. Defined as either liquid or semi a. Spray drying
– liquid preparations that contain one or b. Spheronization
more active ingredients in an c. Crystallization
appropriate vehicle and are usually d. Slugging
applied without friction. e. Chillsonation
a. Magmas
b. Milk 169. A modified form of film coting
c. Liniment applied to small particles of solids or
d. Extracts droplets of liquids and dispersions.
e. Lotions a. Sugar coating
b. Microencapsulation
164. A form of maceration in which c. Macroencapsulation
gentle heat is used during the process d. Compression coating
of extraction. e. Specially coated beads
a. Maceration 170. Components of soaking and
b. Infusion storage solutions for hard contact
c. Decoction lenses:
d. Digestion I. Benzalkonium chloride
e. Percolation II. Edentate sodium
III. Hydroxyethyl methacrylate
165. White lotion, USP is prepared a. I only
by which method? b. II only
a. Organic solvent precipitation c. I and III
b. Dispersion method d. I and II
c. Precipitation effected by changing e. I, II and III
the pH 171. Largest size of capsules
d. Levigation available for use in veterinary medicine
e. Double decomposition method a. #5
b. #3
166. Best suited propellant for c. #1
Albuterol, Meclomethasone and d. #0
Fluticasone. e. #000
a. HFA 227
b. HFA 134A 172. A method of manufacture of soft
c. HFA 133B elastic, capsules that involve a set of
d. HFA 605 molds poured with gelatin sheets and
e. HFA 12 applied with pressure.
a. Plate
167. The required temperature of b. Rotary die
storage for Biologicals: c. Norton
a. 18ºC d. Accogel
b. Room temperature e. All of these
c. 2 – 8ºC
d. NMT 15ºC 173. The standard patented name for
e. 20 – 25ºC two – piece hard gelatin capsule;
a. Pullulan
168. A method of granulation b. Pulvules
compression wherein the combined c. Snap-fit
tablet powdered components are initially d. Coni-snap
compressed into large, flat, irregular e. Zydis
masses prior to final compressions is
achieved by;
174. Pharmaceutical excipient that member of PICS (Pharmaceutical
prevent tablet ingredients from sticking Inspection Cooperation Scheme);
to punches and dies during production. a. July 7, 2007
a. Tablet direct compression excipient b. June 1, 2009
b. Tablet glidant c. February 2, 2008
c. Tablet disintegrant d. August 18, 2008
d. Tablet anti-adherents e. May 12, 2007
e. Tablet lubricant
180. If a tablet formulation contains
175. The aqueous vehicle in KCl and NaCl salts, which method of
parenteral formulations should meet the granulation is applicable?
superior quality requirement as describe a. Direct compression
under; b. Wet granulation
a. Water, USP c. Spray drying
b. Bacteriostatic water for injection, d. Ultrasonification
USP e. Chilsonation
c. Sterile water for injection, USP
d. Purified water, USP 181. Which tablet granulated additive
e. None of these causes the powders to form granules?
a. Veegum
176. A tablet processing problem b. CMC
encountered during the monogramming c. Pregelatinized starch
stage causing tablets to stick together d. HPMC
and subsequently break apart; e. PEG
a. Capping
b. Picking 182. In sugar coating procedure,
c. Roughness smoothing solutions are usually
d. Mottling composed of;
e. Sticking a. Hard paraffin wax
b. Beeswax with 0.3% certified lakes
177. These are compressed tablets c. Calcium carbonate with alcohol
coated with substances that resist d. Simple syrup with 1 – 5% TiO2
solution in gastric fluid but disintegrate e. Alcohol with talc
in the intestine
a. Sugar coated tablets 183. The manufacturing overage
b. Enteric coated tablets limits for suppositories and aerosols
c. Multiple compressed tablets based on its % labelled potency;
d. Film coated tablets a. NMT 3%
e. Tablet triturates b. NMT 30%
c. NMT 15%
178. ISO Certificate of a d. NMT 20%
pharmaceutical manufacturer is e. NMT 25%
classified under this area of CGMP
inspection: 184. An oleaginous base composed
a. Reprocessing of a purified mixture of semisolid
b. Packaging and labeling hydrocarbon from petroleum that has
c. Production and control procedures been wholly decolorized.
d. Quality management system a. Petrolatum, USP
e. Buildings / premises b. White petrolatum, USP
c. Yellow ointment, USP
179. The date of submission of d. White ointment, USP
Philippines application to become a e. Hydrophilic petrolatum, USP
 c. Effervescent tablets
185. Method of preparation of d. Sublingual tablets
ointments, mostly containing anhydrous e. Buccal tablets
components;
a. Levigation 191. Fluidized bed coating process
b. Spatulation preferred when a taste – masking
c. Incorporation coating is being applied and suitable for
d. Fusion the application of hot – melt coatings.
e. Block and divide a. Rotor, Tangential Spray
b. Granulator Top Spray
186. Small, usually cylindrical, c. Wurster, Bottom Spray
molded or compressed tablets d. Vee Shell Bottom Spray
containing small amounts of potent e. Horizontal Ribbon Spray
drugs.
a. Hypodermic tablets 192. An incompletely sealed ampoule
b. Dispensing tablets is called a _____
c. Tablet triturates a. Pyrogen
d. Immediate – release tablets b. Sintered glass
e. Effervescent tablets c. Floater
d. Leaker
187. Flash-dose and WOW-tabs, are e. Reject
patented product of what type of tablet?
a. Osmotic pump tablets 193. An in vitro procedure based on
b. Fast disintegrating tablets the gelling development of a pyrogen –
c. Sustained release tablets contaminated injection, in the presence
d. Enteric coated tablets of lysate on Horshoe crab
e. Chewable tablets a. Elution test
b. Agar diffusion test
188. Most widely used apparatus to c. LAL method
measure tablet hardness or crushing d. Test tube inoculation method
strength e. Qualitative fever response in
a. Schleuniger Rabbits
b. Stokes – Monsanto
c. Strong – Cobb 194. Tablet processing problem
d. Roche characterized by the separation of a
e. Pfizer tablet into two or more distinct layers.
a. Lamination
189. It is also known as the b. Capping
Herberlein Tablet Hardness Tester; c. Picking
a. Schleuniger d. Mottling
b. Erweka e. Blooming
c. Van Kel
d. Stokes – Monsanto 195. Tablets prepared by
e. Strong – Cobb compressing tablets to a special tablet
machine and compressing another layer
190. Tablets that are prepared by around the performed tablet.
compressing granular effervescent salts a. Enteric coated tablets
or other materials having the capacity to b. Press coated tablets
release carbon dioxide gas when in c. Effervescent tablets
contact with water. d. Sublingual tablets
a. Enteric coated tablets e. Buccal tablets
b. Press coated tablets
196. Liquid preparations composed 201. A component of capsule added
of pyroxyllin dissolved in a solvent to prevent decomposition during
mixture equally composed of alcohol manufacture
and ether with or without added a. Gelatin
medicinal agents. b. Certified dyes
a. Glycerogelatin c. Sucrose
b. Paste d. Sulfur dioxide
c. Collodion e. Titanium dioxide
d. Ointment
e. Solution 202. Finishing method for capsules
where a polyurethane or cheese cloth
197. Drying equipment used for the liner is placed in the pen, and the liner is
removal of excess moisture and water used to trap the removed dust to impart
content in tablet granulation gloss of capsules.
a. Ultrasonifier a. Pan polishing
b. Hammer mill b. Cloth dusting
c. Vee shell blender c. Brushing
d. Horizontal ribbon mixer d. ROTOSORT
e. Fluidized bed dryer e. Erweka KEA
198. An alcohol – soluble protein
derivative from corn used as an effective 203. Oldest commercial method of
sealant in sugar coating of tablets. manufacture for soft gelatin capsules.
a. Shellac a. Accogel
b. Glycerin b. Microencapsulation
c. CMC c. Plate process
d. Zein d. Reciprocating die process
e. Mannitol e. Ion exchange resins
199. A type of specialized coating
method for tablets applied to conductive 204. Sweetening agent prepared by
substrates resulting to complete and the partial hydrolysis of startch with
uniform coating of corners and strong acid and contains dextrose with
intagliations on the substrates is smaller amounts of dextrins and
achieved. maltose.
a. Compression coating a. Saccharin
b. Electrostatic coating b. Acesulfame potassium
c. Dip coating c. Cyclamate
d. Vacuum film coating d. Liquid glucose
e. None of these e. Aspartame

200. Which is the correct sequence 205. Filling method accomplished by

for the pin method of production of hard
gelatin capsules?
a. Dip – Dry – Cut – Strip – Trim – Join
– Polish
b. Dip – Dry – Trim – Spin – Strip –
Polish – Join
c. Dip – Spin Dry – Trim – Join –
Strip
d. Dip – Cut – Spin – Trim – Polish –
Join
pumping liquid at a constant pressure
through an orifice of contact size for a
predetmined period of time.
a. Vacuum filling
b. Volumetric filling
c. Constant level filling
d. Pressure – vacuum filling
e. Foam filling
206. Ammonium carboxylates and 211. Vaginal suppositories oviform
phosphates are classified under what shape: Bougies ________shaped.
type of pharmaceutical emulsion. a. Globular
a. Anionic b. Conical
b. Cationic c. Torpedo
c. Amphoteric d. Pencil
d. Nonionic e. Spherical
e. Zwitterionic
212. Most widely used suppository
207. Acompletely hydrophilic base
molecule emulsifier has Hydrophilic – a. Theobroma oil
Lipophilic balance of? b. Glycerinated gelatin
a. 3.7 c. PEG polymers
b. 5.5 d. Lauric fat
c. 10.3 e. Tablets
d. 13.0
e. 20.0 213. Simplest method of preparing a
suppository by rolling the well – blended
208. Commonly used antioxidant/s suppository base containing the active
for cosmetic emulsions: ingredients into desired shape.
I- Butylated Hydroxyanisole a. Pour molding
II- Butylated Hydroxytoluene b. Compression molding
III- L- tocopherol c. Hand molding
IV- Alkyl gallates d. Debber molding
a. I only e. Deleede molding
b. I. II and III
c. II, III, IV 214. Flammability and Conbustibility
d. I, II, III and IV evaluation test of pharmaceutical
e. II and III aerosols determined by the use of the
standard Tag Open Cup Apparatus.
209. An emulsion stability factor that a. Leak Tesing
results in an interaction of relatively b. Spray Testing
weak droplets or particles whicj may c. Flame Projection
have sufficient emulsifier coverage. d. Flash point
a. Flocculation e. Vapor pressure
b. Phase intervention
c. Sedimentaion 215. This sterilization method kills
d. Coalescence spores as well as vegetative forms of
e. Caking microorganisms by oxidation with heat.
a. Coagulation
210. Semisolid systems in which a b. Dry heat
liqiud phase is constrained within a c. Inspissation
three – dimentional polymeric matrix in d. Fractional method
which a high degree of physical cross – e. Moist heat
linking has been introduced.
a. Ointments 216. It produces the most potent
b. Pastes pyrogenic substances.
c. Creams a. Fungi
d. Lotions b. Bacterial endospores
e. Gels c. Virus
d. Gram negative bacteria
e. Gram positive bacteria
217. The plastic material preferred 222. Plastic packaging property
for the squeezable feature of containers defined as the ability of a hot seal to
for ophthalmic solutions. remain intact as it cools down from its
a. PEG sealing temperature, thyus preserving
b. Polyvinyl chloride package integrity.
c. Polyethylene – LD a. Abrasion
d. Flint glass b. Hot Tack
e. Polyvinyldenochloride c. Creep failure
d. Fatigue Resistance
218. Which of the following e. Blocking
harmaceutical additives must be
included in the formulation of products 223. Thermoplastic formulation
packaged in multiple dose vials? additive used to retard or prevent
a. Solubilizers degradation of the polymer by heat and
b. Buffers light during manufacturing as well as to
c. Chelating agents improve its aging characteristics.
d. Antibacterial agents a. Lubricant
e. Hydrolysis inhibitors b. Antioxidants
c. Stabilizers
219. Determination of metal particles d. Plasticizers
is applicable to; e. Antistatic agents
a. Parenterals
b. Hpodermic tablets 224. The most commonly used
c. Lotions procedure for sterilizing plastic devices.
d. Ophthalmic ointments a. steam sterilization
e. Pellets b. Iradiation
c. Dry heat
220. The distance at which the d. Coagulation
tablets fall in each turn on the friabilator e. Gas sterilization
drum cylinder.
a. 3 inches 225. Hygroscopic and volatile drugs
b. 6 inches are best protected using what type of
c. 9 inches powder paper?
d. 10 inches a. Waxed paper
e. 12 inches b. Glassine
c. Vegetable parchment
221. Plaatic packaging material d. Bond paper
property defined as the measurement of e. None of these
ability to withstand shock – loading.
a. Coefficient of friction 226. Concentration range of
b. Stiffness humectants in mouthwash formulation.
c. Tear strength a. 0.1% - 0.5%
d. Impact strength b. 10% - 20%
e. Tensile strength c. 5% - 20%
d. 2% - 6%
e. 2% - 8%
227. These agents increase the 232. Minimum requirement for
viscosity of the preparation and provide efficiency of HEPA filters
a certain body or mouth feel to a. 99.00% effective against 0.9
mouthwashes. microns
a. Surfactants b. 99.33% effective against 0.3
b. Alcohol microns
c. Flavorants c. 93.00% effective against 0.3
d. Preservatives microns
e. Humectants d. 91.99% effective against 0.9
microns
228. Sucrose concentration in simple e. 99.99% effective against 0.3
syrup. microns
a. 75%
b. 85% 233. Limits for bacterial endotoxin of
c. 95% Water for Injection, USP
d. 80% a. NMT 0.25 USP endotoxin per
e. 90% 100mL
b. NMT 0.20 USP endotoxin per
229. Suitable preparation method for 100mL
syrups if the constituents are not volatile c. NMT 0.25 USP endotoxin per mL
or degraded by heat. d. NMT 0.20 endotoxin per mL
a. Solution with heat e. NMT 0.25 endotoxin per mL
b. Agitaion with heat
c. Additional of sucrose to a liquid 234. USP classification of glass
medication composed principally of silicon dioxide
d. Agitation without heat and boric oxide.
e. Addition of internal phase to a. Type I
external phase b. Type II
c. Type III
230. Liquid preparatins containg d. Type IV
pyroxylin applied to the skin by means e. Type NP
of a soft brush or other siutable
applicator. 235. Cold sterilization refers to the
a. Jellies removal of particulate matter down to
b. Elixirs the smallest size of?
c. Gels a. 1.0 microns
d. Collodions b. 0.1 microns
e. Embrocation c. 2.0 microns
d. 0.2 microns
231. Clean room classification for e. 0.5 microns
materials support areas in
pharmaceutical practice, 236. Metallic stearates are examples
a. Class A of what type of pharmaceutical
b. Class B excipient?
c. Class C a. Diluent
d. Class D b. Binders
e. Class NP c. Lubricants
d. Disintegrant
e. Superdisintegrant
237. The process of reducing 243. It serves as the “Chain of
substances to fine particles by rubbing Command” from to bottom of an
them in a mortar with a pestle. organizational structure.
a. Fusion a. Staff
b. Milling b. Management guide
c. Pulverization by intervention c. Organizational chart
d. Trituration d. Job description
e. Geometric dilution e. Line

238. What is the use of nitrogen in 244. Basic level of managemen that
the formulation of parenterals? represents and safeguards the interest
a. Buffers of the stockholders
b. Antioxidants a. Level I
c. Tonicity agents b. Level II
d. Cytoprotectants c. Level III
e. Lyoprotectants d. Level IV
e. Level V
239. Positive result for Bacterial
Endotoxin Test (BET). 245. Materials which are still subject
a. Formation of yellow colonies to QC tests and should not yet be used
b. Formation of gel in the production area.
c. Blue solution a. Approved
d. Formation of black precipitate b. Quarantined
e. Crystallization c. Rejected
d. All of these
240. Tool/s of organization e. None of these
a. Organizational chart
b. Chart 246. Consists of the products which
c. Obligation of duty have been filled in its immediate
d. Both A and B containers, but not yet labelled.
e. Both b and C a. Quality Control
b. Inventory Control
241. Which of the following is/are an c. In – process section
elements of an organization? d. Finished products
a. Delegation of authority e. Prduct recall
b. Division of responsibility
c. Interrealation among the functions 247. Department that takes charge in
of an organizational plan the repair, cleaning and maintaining the
d. All of these condition of all machines, instruments
e. None of these and apparatus used in all stages of
processing products.
242. Section in production control a. Engineering Department
division that closely monitors the flow of b. Production Department
materials in the warehouse c. Dispensing Department
a. Purchasing d. Utility Department
b. Inventory control e. Inventory Control
c. Planning and Scheduling
d. Quality control
e. In – process
248. The heart and soul of the 254. A laxative that exert an osmotic
manufactureing company. effect which increases the water content
a. Production and volume of stool.
b. Quality Control a. Stimulant
c. Quality assurance b. Saline
d. Dispensing c. Emollient
e. Marketing d. Hyperosmotic
e. Bulk – forming
249. Sticker color of approved for use
materials in production area. 255. Packaging problem pf plastic
a. Yellow materials permitting the volatile
b. Red constituents, water or specific drug
c. Orange molecules to migrate through the wall of
d. Blue the container to the coutside and
e. Green thereby be lost.
a. Leaching
250. It is placed at the side of cheek b. Water permeability
or betweek the lip gum, whicj contains c. Polymerization
drugs to be absorbed throug the oral d. Permeation
mucosa beacause they are destroyed in e. Sorption
the GIT
a. Enteric coated tablet 256. Transderm – Scop
b. Hypodermic tablet (Scopolamine) is classified uner what
c. Buccal tablet type of Transdermal patch system?
d. Subligual tablet a. Microreservoir
e. Tablet triturate b. Matrix – dispersion
c. Adhesive – dispersion
251. Specially formulated and d. Membrane – modulated
shaped tablets intended to be placed in e. None of these
thevagina by special inserters.
a. Vaginal tablet 257. What is the use of
b. Pessaries polyisobutylene in the preparation of
c. Bougies TDD?
d. Inserts a. Peet strip
e. Hypodermic tablets b. Membrane matrix
c. Backing layer
252. The following are processes of d. Adhesive
capsule production, except e. Packaging
a. Dipping
b. Homogenizing 258. Large volume parenterals are
c. Stripping prepared using what vehicle?
d. Pinning a. Sterile water for injection, USP
e. Drying b. Bacteriostatic water for injection,
USP
253. Docusate sodium is an example c. Water for injection, USP
of what type of laxative? d. Water for injection, USP
a. Lubricant e. Purified water, USP
b. Stimulant
c. Emollient 259. Intravenous fluids are packed
d. Saline with how much excess fili to allow
e. Hyperosmotic removal of air from the administration
 set and permit the labelled volume to be 265. If the parts of a solvent required
delivered from the container? for one part of solute is from 100 –
a. 0.1% 1000, the solute is said to be ____
b. 1% a. Insoluble
c. 2% b. Freely soluble
d. 5% c. Very slightly soluble
e. 10% d. Slightly soluble
e. Soluble
260. The term used for the property
of liquids that flow freely if recently 266. If the parts of a solvent required
stirred, but will turn to gel when left for one part of solute is from 1 – 10, the
undisturbed with no change in volume or solute is said to be ____
temperature. a. Insoluble
a. Rheopexy b. Freely soluble
b. Syneresis c. Very slightly soluble
c. Imbibition d. Slightly soluble
d. Swelling e. Soluble
e. Thixotropy
267. According to United States
261. Earliest colorants where Classification Clean room standard. The
prepared from a single colorless maximum number of particles/ft3 of >0.5
derivative of benzene called ____ micrometer for a class 100 is ____
a. Flavones a. 350
b. Red saunder b. 3,500
c. Alizarin c. 350,000
d. Beta – carotene d. 3,500,000
e. Aniline e. 35

262. Bougies is a term also referring 268. Oleaginous solutions and

to ____ suspensions are best administered in
a. Urethral suppositories what parenteral route of administration?
b. Rectal suppositories a. IV
c. Vaginal suppositories b. SC
d. All of these c. ID
e. None of these d. IM
e. Intraspinal
263. Type of contact lenses generally
prefabricated from polymethacylate 269. A general type of injectable
a. Hard material referred to as dry solids, that
b. Soft upon addition of suitable vehicles, yield
c. Flexible solutions conforming in all aspects to
d. All of these the requirements for injections.
e. None of these a. Injection
b. For injection
264. Policy employed in raw c. Injectable emulsion
materials and dispensing section where d. Injectable suspension
the oldest stock is used first. e. For injectable suspension
a. Last in – first out
b. First in – first out 270. A specific quantity of a drug of
c. Random sampling uniform specified quality produced
d. All of these according to a single manufacturing
e. None of these
 order during the same cycle of 275. Preservative frequently used for
manufacture. opthalmic preparations.
a. Batch I. Chlorobutanol
b. Lot II. Benzalkonium chloride
c. Bulk product III. Phenylmercuric acetate
d. Master seed lot a. I only
e. Lot number b. II only
c. III only
271. A designation in numbers or d. I and II
letters or combination that identifies the e. I, II and III
batch and permits the tracing of the
complete history of a batch. 276. Sample size for weight variation
a. Batch number of soft gelatin capsules
b. Control number a. 10
c. Lot number b. 12
d. All of these c. 15
e. None of these d. 20
e. 5
272. An area constructed, operated
and equipped with air – handling and 277. Excipient used in the
filtration system in order to prevent preaparation of sugar – free chewable
contamination of the external tablets.
environment by biological agents from a. Mannitol
within the area. b. Lactose
a. Airlock c. Xylitol
b. Clean room d. Sucrose
c. Contaminated area e. Maltose
d. Sterile room
e. Anteroom 278. It is a purified waxlike substance
from Ovis aries that has been cleaned,
273. The process of confirming by decolorized and deodorized.
reconized appropriate means or a. Petrolatum, USP
manner, that any material, process, b. White petrolatum, USP
procedure, activity, system, equipment c. Yellow ointment, USP
or mechanics used in production and d. Lanolin, USP
control constatly achieved the desired e. PEG, NF
result.
a. Certification 279. Composition of Lassar’s Plain
b. Compliance Zinc Paste
c. Validation I. Zinc oxide
d. Reprocessing II. Glycerin
e. Verified III. White petrolatum
IV. Starch
274. Edentate sodium is an example V. Water
of which type of pharmaceutical a. I, II and III
excipient? b. I, III and IV
a. Alkalinizing agent c. I, III and V
b. Aerosol propellant d. II, III and IV
c. Chelating agent e. I, II, III and V
d. Clarifying agent
e. Encapsulating agent 280. Percentage of gelatin in the
preparation of glycerogelatins
 a. 15% e. None of these
b. 20%
c. 25% 286. Commonly used fixed oils in
d. 30% injections.
e. 40% a. Corn oil
b. Cottonseed oil
281. The process applied to a bulk c. Peanut oil
product to obtain the finished product d. Sesame oil
a. Production e. All of these
b. In – process
c. Processing 287. The following are general
d. Packaging methods used to sterilize
e. Validation pharmaceutical products, except:
a. Gas
282. TDDS layer that protect the b. Dry heat
system from loss of drug from the c. Vaporization
system or moisture from the skin d. Filtration
a. Backing layer e. Steam
b. Drug reservoir
c. Release liner 288. An hermetic container holding a
d. Adhesive layer quantity of sterile drug intended for
e. Foil baseplate parenteral administration as a single
dose and cannot be resealed once
283. Common type of adhesive layer opened.
that covers the entire face of TDDS. a. PET bottles
a. Coverstrip b. Flint glass
b. Foil baseplate c. Sintered glass
c. Microporous tape d. Single dose container
d. Peripheral e. Multiple dose container
e. Face
289. This denotes the date after
284. Ringer’s injection, USP is which the product is not expected to
composed of retain its claim safely, efficacy and
I. Sodium chloride quality.
II. Magnesium chloride a. Lot number
III. Calcium chloride b. Batch number
IV. Potassium chloride c. Manufacturing date
a. I, II and III d. Control number
b. I and II e. Expiration date
c. I, III and IV
d. I, II and IV 290. Equipment used for
e. II and IV manufacture, processing, testing or
control must meet the following criteria,
285. USP labelling requirements except:
demand that the label state NOT FOR a. Non-reactive
USE IN NEONATES must be indicated b. Non additive
for parenterals with bacteriostatic c. Non adsorptive
excipient? d. Non operational
a. Glycerin e. None of these
b. Sodium chloride
c. Benzyl alcohol
d. All of these
291. Chemical component 297. Antioxidant which blocks an
responsible for the claimed therapeutic oxidative chain reaction in which they
effect of the product. are not usually consumed
a. API a. BHA
b. Lubricant b. BHT
c. Chemical name c. Thiourea
d. Disintegrant d. EDTA
e. Glidant e. Tartaric acid

292. The HLB system is used to 298. Opacifying agent for capsules
classify; a. Lactose
a. Flavoring agents b. Talc
b. Certified dyes c. Titanium dioxide
c. Surfactants d. Calcium oxide
d. Odorants e. Carbowax
e. Diluents
299. Acaia mucilage is a ___%
293. The following are methods of dispersion in water
determining the type of emulsion, a. 23
except; b. 16
a. Dilution test c. 35
b. Cryoscopic d. 70
c. Dye e. 50
d. Conductivity
e. None of these 300. The container of choice for
ointments
294. Practically insoluble ____ a. Glass
a. Less than 10,000 of the solvent b. Metals
b. Less than 1 part of solute c. Amber bottle
c. More than 10,000 of the solvent d. Collapsible tube
d. 100 – 1000 parts of solvent e. Wide mouth bottle
e. 30 – 100 parts of solute

295. The increase in mutual solubility

of two partially miscible solvent by
another agent is referred rto as:
a. Co – solvelency
b. Salting out
c. Complexation
d. Solvation
e. Flocculation

296. The following are gas sterilants,

except:
a. Formaldehyde
b. Beta propiolactone
c. Sulphur dioxide
d. Carbon dioxide
e. None of these
DRUG DELIVERY SYSTEM d. Irrigation solutions
e. Enemas

1. All of the following statements are true, 7. These are concentrated viscous, aqueous
EXCEPT? solutions of sugar or sugar substitute with or
without flavors and medical substances.
a. Mydriatics dilate the pupils
b. Drugs could be used to diagnose liver a. Syrups
malfunctions b. Honeys
c. Drugs could render the blood more or less c. Mucilages
coagulate d. Jellies
d. Cathartics increase urine output e. Elixirs
e. Emetics induce vomiting
8. A thick, viscid, adhesive liquid that is produced
2. New drugs may be derived from which of the by dispersing gum in water or by extracting the
following? mucilaginous principles from vegetables
substances in water.
a. Plant or animal sources
b. Through chemical synthesis a. Syrups
c. Biotechnology b. Honeys
d. As byproducts of microbial growth c. Mucilages
e. All of these d. Jellies
e. Elixirs
3. A term used to describe a compound that
requires metabolic biotransformation after 9. The component makes collection flexible
administration to produce the desired
pharmacologic effect. a. Pyroxylin
b. Camphor
a. Enzyme c. Castor oil
b. Prolonged release d. A and B
c. Prodrug e. B and C
d. New drug
e. New molecular entity 10. Which of the following statements is TRUE
regarding elixirs?
4. A clear, saturated, aqueous solution of violate
oils or other aromatic or volatile substances. I. Ethanol and water are main ingredients
II. Clear, pleasantly flavored, sweetened
a. Aromatic waters hydroalchoholic liquids for oral use
b. Gargles III. These are more fluid than syrups
c. Douches
d. Irrigation solutions a. I only
e. Enemas b. III only
c. I and II
5. An aqueous solution directed against a part or d. II and III
into a cavity of the body and functions as a e. I, II and III
cleansing or anti-septic agent.
11. These are propellant driven drug suspensions
a. Aromatic waters or solutions in liquefied gas propellant with or
b. Gargles without a co-solvent and are intended to deliver
c. Douches the drug into the respiratory tract.
d. Irrigation solutions
e. Enemas a. Inhalation solutions
b. Metered dose inhalers
6. An aqueous solution frequently containing c. Nebules
antiseptic, antibiotics, and or/ anesthetics used d. Nebulizers
for treating the pharnyx or nasopharynx by e. Inhalants
forcing air from the lungs through the gargle
held in the throat. 12. These are alcoholic or oil based solutions or
emulsions containing therapeutic agents
a. Aromatic waters intended for external application.
b. Gargles
c. Douches a. Irrigation solutions
 b. Liniments frequent agitation until all soluble matter is
c. Jellies dissolved.
d. Spirits
e. Elixirs a. Solution
b. Maceration
13. These preparations were once called c. Percolation
“embrocations” d. Digestion
e. Decoction
a. Irrigation solutions
b. Liniments 19. A form of maceration where gentle heat is
c. Jellies applied during the process of extraction.
d. Spirits
e. Elixirs a. Solution
b. Maceration
14. These are also known as “essences” c. Percolation
d. Digestion
a. Irrigation solutions e. Decoction
b. Liniments
c. Jellies 20. The process of extracting water soluble and
d. Spirits heat stable constituents from crude drugs by
e. Elixirs boiling in water for 15 minutes, cooling,
straining and passing sufficient cold water
15. Storage recommendation for spirits. through the drug to get the required volume.

a. Store in clear glass bottles that have light a. Solution

lids b. Maceration
b. Store in light, light resistant containers c. Percolation
c. Store in cool, dry place d. Digestion
d. A and B e. Decoction
e. B and C
21. These are alcoholic or hydro alcoholic solutions
16. An advantage of emulsions over other liquid prepared from vegetable materials or from
forms: chemical substances.

I. Poorly water soluble drugs may be a. Tinctures

incorporated b. Fluid extracts
II. The unpleasant odor or taste of oils c. Extracts
can be masked d. Percolate
III. Absorption may be enhanced by the e. Lotions
increased size of the internal phase
22. These are liquid preparations of vegetable
a. I only drugs, containing alcohol as solvent or as a
b. III only preservative or both, that each mL contains 1 g
c. I and II of the standard drug it represents.
d. II and III
e. I, II and III a. Tinctures
b. Fluid extracts
17. These are semisolid systems consisting of c. Extracts
either suspensions made up of small inorganic d. Percolate
particles or large organic molecules e. Lotions
interpenetrated by a liquid.
23. Also known as cataplasms, these represent
a. Spirits one of the most ancient of pharmaceutical
b. Suspension preparations.
c. Gels
d. Emulsions a. Pastes
e. Lotions b. Powders
c. Creams
18. The process of placing solid ingredients into a d. Poultices
stoppered container with 750 mL of the e. Plasters
prescribed solvent and allowed to stand for a
period of at least 3 days in a warm place with
 24. These are semisolid dosage forms that contain 30. Which of the following are reasons for enteric
one or more drug substances intended to be coating of tablets?
applied topically, EXCEPT

a. Pastes I. To protect the drug in the dosage form from

b. Powders the effects of gastric acid
c. Creams II. To minimize the initiating effects of certain
d. Poultices drugs on the gastric mucosa (e.g. NSAIDS)
e. Plasters III. To deliver the drug to the intestine in drug
concentration in the food.
25. These are also known as pessaries.
a. I only
a. Urethral suppositories b. III only
b. Vaginal douche c. I and II
c. Vaginal suppositories d. II and III
d. Suppository base e. I, II and III
e. None of these
31. Which of the following statements is TRUE
26. Which of the following is TRUE regarding regarding controlled release dosage terms?
suppository bases?

I. Nontoxic and nonirritating to the mucous I. The patient would have to take the
membranes medication more frequently
II. Melts or dissolves in rectal fluids II. The patient takes the drug less
III. Stable on storage frequently therefore improving drug
a. I only adherence
b. II only III. These reduce fluctuation in drug
c. I and II concentration in the blood
d. II and III
e. I, II and III a. I only
b. III only
27. These tablets contain sodium bicarbonate and c. I and II
an organic acid (i.e. tartaric or citric acid) in d. II and III
addition to the drug substance. e. I, II and III

a. Effervescent tablets 32. The passage of drug molecules through a

b. Sugar coated tablets membrane that does not actively participate in
c. Film coated tablets the process where the movement of molecules
d. Controlled release tablets is from the side with high concentration to the
e. Enteric coated tablets side with low concentration.

28. Compressed tablets that are coated with a a. Passive diffusion

substance resistant to gastric fluid and contain b. Facilitates transport
substances that are destroyed or inactivated in c. Active transport
the stomach. d. Drug dissolution
e. Drug distribution
a. Effervescent tablets
b. Sugar coated tablets 33. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
c. Film coated tablets
d. Controlled release tablets
e. Enteric coated tablets I. Some drugs are better absorbed in the
amorphous form as compared to the
29. These are flat, oral tablets designed to be crystalline form
dissolved under the tongue. II. Some drugs have better stability in the
crystalline form as compared to the
a. Buccal tablets amorphous form
b. Hypodermic tablets III. Drug stability and absorption profiles are not
c. Tablet triturates affected by their physical form, so it does not
d. Sublingual tablets matter whether the amorphous or crystalline
e. Molded tablets form is used.

a. I only
 b. II only e. Therapeutic alternatives
c. I and II
d. II and III 39. Which of the following statements are TRUE
regarding subcutaneous injections?
34. This is the property where a single chemical
substance may exist in more than one I. These are administered in relatively
crystalline form. small volumes of 2 mL or less
II. For patients receiving multiple
a. Polymorphism injections it is advisable to rotate
b. Crystallization injection sites
c. Gel formation III. Administering epinephrine prior to a
d. Suspension subcutaneous injection will reduce the
e. Amorphous form rate of absorption of the drug.

35. These are fillers used to prepare tablets of the a. I only

proper size and consistency. b. II only
c. I and II
a. Tablets d. II and III
b. Diluents e. I, II and III
c. Disintegrants
d. Film coating 40. Salicylates decrease the binding capacity of
e. Glidants thyroxine to proteins resulting to which of the
following?
36. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Increased effect of salicylates
I. The dissolution rate of a salt form a b. Salicylates become less protein bound
drug is generally quite different from c. No change in either drugs therapeutic
that of the parent compound effect
II. The state of hydration of a drug d. Decreased effect of thyroxine
molecule can affect its solubility and e. Increased effect of thyroxine
pattern of absorption
III. The various polymorphic form of the 41. Which of the following statements is TRUE
same chemical have the same physical regarding powders?
properties i.e same solubility and
dissolution profiles. I. The use of powdered
substances in the preparation of
a. I only other dosage forms is extensive
b. II only II. Powders are more stable that
c. I and II liquid dosage forms and are
d. II and III rapidly soluble
e. I, II and III III. Powders have a large surface
area that is exposed to
37. This term describes the rate and extent of atmospheric conditions requiring
absorption of an active drug ingredients or them to be dispensed in tight
therapeutic moiety from a drug product and containers.
becomes available at the site of action.
a. I only
a. Bioavailability b. III only
b. Bioequivalence c. I and II
c. Pharmacokinetics d. II and III
d. Pharmacodynamics e. I,II and III
e. Pharmaceutics
42. Which of the following is a characteristic of
38. These are pharmaceutical equivalents that topical powders?
provide essentially the same therapeutic effect
when administered to the same individuals in a. Uniform, small particles size that is non-
the same dosage regimens. irritating to the skin
b. Free flowing and impalpable
a. Bioequivalence c. Adheres to the skin
b. Pharmaceutical equivalents d. All of these
c. Therapeutic equivalents e. None of these
d. Pharmaceutical alternatives
43. A base or vehicle used in topical powders. e. B and C

a. Calcium stearate 50. Which of the following statements is TRUE

b. Aromatic material regarding blending powders?
c. Magnesium stearate
d. Talc I. It is best to reduce particle size of
e. Antimicrobial agent powders individually
II. Spatulation is an ideal method for
44. These are finely divided powders intended to blending powders containing
be applied into a body cavity. III. Spatulation is next to be used when
mixing powders that tend to form
a. Oral powder eutectic mixtures.
b. Topical powder
c. Insufflations a. I only
d. Nasal powders b. III only
e. Snuffs c. I and II
d. II and III
45. Powders of vegetable and animal origin drugs e. I, II and III
officially defined as “all particles pass through a
No. 80 sieve. There is no limit to greater 51. Which of the following is TRUE for both
fineness. deliquescent and hygroscopic powders?

a. Very coarse a. Both absorb moisture from the air

b. Very fine b. Both release moisture into the air
c. Coarse c. Both may liquefy when they absorb or
d. Fine release moisture
e. Moderately d. A and C
e. B and C
46. The following are methods for determining
particle size, EXCEPT 52. A disadvantage for using oral powders.

a. Sieving a. Undesirable smell of the drug

b. Microscopy b. Undesirable taste of the drug
c. Sedimentation rate c. Undesirable texture of the drug
d. Light energy d. Difficult to swallow
e. Dissolution e. Difficult to dispense

47. A term used to define grinding a drug 53. Which of the following inhalation powders is
substance in mortar to reduce particle size. administered using a Diskhaler?

a. Trituration a. Relenza rotadisk

b. Comminution b. Flovent rotadisk
c. Geometric dilution c. Advair diskus
d. A and B d. A and B
e. B and C e. B and C

48. Levigation is used to reduce particle size and 54. Which of the following statements are TRUE
grittiness of the added powders in the small- regarding bulk powders?
scale preparation of which of the following
dosage forms. I. Dispensing medicated powders in bulk
quantities is limited to non-potent
a. Capsules substances
b. Tablets II. Patients should be informed about the
c. Ointments proper handling, storage, measurement
d. Elixirs and preparation of bulk powder
e. Spirits prescription and non-prescription
preparations
49. Equipment used to facilitate levigation. III. Since bulk powders do not contain
a. Mortar and pestle potent substances there is no need to
b. Ointment title and spatula keep them away from children and
c. Sieve animals
d. A and B
 a. I
b. III a. Dosage form (tablet or capsule)
c. I and II b. Color
d. II and III c. Shape
e. I, II and III d. Score marks or other markings
e. All of these
55. This is a transparent waterproof paper used for
packaging divided powders that contain 60. Which of the following dosage forms must be
hygroscopic or deliquescent materials. left intact?

a. Glassine paper a. Enteric- coated tablets

b. Bond paper b. Sublingual tablets
c. Wax paper c. Buccal tablets
d. Vegetable parchment d. Extended release dosage forms
e. Plastic wrap e. All of these

56. This dosage form is composed of dry 61. Which of the following statements is TRUE
aggregates of powder particles that may regarding capsule shells?
contain one or more active ingredients with or
without other ingredients. I. Depending on their composition,
gelatin capsules shells may be hard or
a. Granules soft
b. Flakes II. The shell may be composed of two
c. Beads pieces a body and a cap
d. Capsules III. The capsule shell may be a single
e. Powders piece that is often referred to as a soft
gelation capsule
57. Which of the following statements regarding
granules is/are TRUE? a. I
b. III
I. Granules have better flowing c. I and II
characteristics compared to powders d. II and III
II. Granules are less likely to cake or e. I, II and III
harden upon standing as compared to
powders. 62. The desiccant material most commonly used
III. Granules are easily wetted by liquids when packaging capsules containing
as compared to certain light and fluffy hygroscopic agents.
powders.
a. Silica gel
a. I b. Clay
b. III c. Charcoal
c. I and II d. All of these
d. II and III e. None of these
e. I, II and III
63. The largest capsule size intended for human
58. A dosage form that is preferred by adults use.
especially by those who are on several
medications. a. 000
b. 00
a. Bulk powders c. 1
b. Tablets d. 4
c. Syrups e. 5
d. Suspensions
e. All of these 64. Commonly user diluents for hard shell
capsules.
59. A patient comes to the pharmacy asking for a
re-full for his blood pressure medication, the a. Starch
name of which he could not recall. Upon b. Lactose
checking his profile, there are two blood c. Talc
pressure medicines on file, what information d. A and B
would you ask the patient to help identify the e. B and C
needed medication?
 a. 15 seconds
65. This is added to capsule formulations to assist b. 15 minutes
the breakup and distribution of the capsule’s c. 25 seconds
contents in the stomach. d. 25 minutes
e. 20 seconds
a. Glidants
b. Lubricants 72. These are also known as lozenges
c. Disintegrants
d. Diluents a. Lollipops
e. None of these b. Troches
c. Pellets
66. Fumed silicon dioxide, magnesium stearate, d. Pills
calcium stearate, stearic acid or talc are e. Bolus tablets
examples of
73. Which of the following statements is TRUE
a. Glidants regarding modified release dosage forms?
b. Lubricants
c. Disintegrants I. An enteric coated tablet is an example
d. Diluents of a modified release tablet
e. None of these II. Modified release products provide a
delayed release tablet of the drug
67. A hard gelatin capsule may be filled with all of III. Modified release products provide an
the following, EXCEPT extended release of the drug

a. Powder of granules a. I
b. Pellet mixture b. III
c. A capsule c. I and II
d. A tablet d. II and III
e. Water immiscible non violate liquid e. I, II, and III

68. These are tablets that are prepared by molding 74. Extended release technology for solid dosage
resulting to very soft and soluble tablets that forms is baser on which of the following:
designed for rapid dissolution.
I. Modifying drug dissolution by
a. Compressed tablets controlling access of biologic fluids
b. Gel tablets through the use of coatings
c. Tablet triturates II. Controlling drug diffusion rates from
d. Effervescent tablets dosage forms
e. Molded tablets III. Chemical reaction or interaction
between the drug or pharmaceutical
69. These are small, usually cylindrical, molded or barrier and the site specific biologic
compressed tablets containing small amounts fluid.
of usually potent drugs
a. I
a. Compressed tablets b. III
b. Gel tablets c. I and II
c. Tablet triturates d. II and III
d. Effervescent tablets e. I, II and III
e. Molded tablets
75. Spansule (SmithKlineBeecham) is an example
70. A disadvantage of formulating rapidly of this type of dosage form
disintegrating or dissolving tablets
a. Multitablet system
a. Drug loading b. Coated beads, granules,
b. Taste making microspheres
c. Friability c. Hydrophilic matrix systems
d. Stability of the product d. Microencapsulated drug
e. All of these e. None of these

71. Rapidly disintegrating or dissolving tablets are

designed to dissolve in the mouth within
76. An example of a product using a hydrophilic d. II and III
matric base of HPMC for extended drug e. I, II and III
release
81. An example of an oleaginous ointment base.
a. Oramorph SR tablets (AllPharma)
b. Spansule capsules a. Petroleum USP
(SmithKlineBeecham) b. Hydrophilic petrolatum USP
c. Micro k extencaps (Wyeth) c. Aquaphor
d. Glucotrol XL ER tablets (Pfizer) d. Lanolin USP
e. ProcardianXL ER Tablets (Pfizer) e. Modified lanolin USP

77. This is composed of a core tablet surrounded 82. A water soluble ointment base
by a semipermeable membrane coating having
a 0.4 mm diameter hole produced by a laser a. Polyethylene glycol
beam b. White petroleum
c. Lanolin
a. Oral osmotic drug delivery system d. Hydrophilic ointment
b. Ion exchange resin e. Petrolatum
c. Gradumet (abbott)
d. Spansule 83. Method used for ointment preparation
e. Complex formation
a. Incorporation
78. A characteristic of a drug best suited for b. Fusion
incorporation into an extended release product c. Compression
d. A and B
I. Exhibits very slow or very fast e. B and C
absorption and excretion rates
II. Are uniformly absorbed from the GIT 84. The process of mixing the solid material in a
III. possess a good margin of safety vehicle where it is not soluble to make a
smooth dispersion.
a. I
b. III a. Trituration
c. I and II b. Geometric dilution
d. II and III c. Levigation
e. I, II and III d. Fusion
e. Pulverization by intervention
79. A counseling point when dispensing modified
release tablets and capsules 85. The process of dissolving the gummy material
in a solvent and then spread out on a pill tile to
a. Do not crush or chew allow the solvent to evaporate leaving a thin
b. It is normal to see empty shells from film of the material on which the other ointment
osmotic tablets in the stool ingredients are spread.
c. A modified release tablet may be
crushed and mixed with food for NGT a. Trituration
feeding b. Geometric dilution
d. A and B c. Levigation
e. B and C d. Fusion
e. Pulverization by intervention
80. Which of the following is TRUE?
86. The process of combining all or some of the
I. Tropical dermatological products are components of an ointment by melting together
designed to deliver drugs into the skin and then cooled with constant stirring until
to treat dermatological conditions. congealed.
II. Transdermal products are designed to
deliver drugs through the skin into the a. Incorporation
circulation for systemic effects. b. Geometric dilution
III. For transdermal products the drug is c. Spatulation
intended for skin d. Fusion
e. Pulverization by intervention
a. I
b. III 87. Recommended packaging for topical
c. I and II dermatologic products.
 b. III
a. Large mouth jars c. I and II
b. Plastic or metal tubes d. II and III
c. Syringes e. I, II and III
d. All of these
e. None of these 93. Counseling points when dispensing a
dermatologic product
88. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
I. Thoroughly clean the affected area with
I. Creams are easier to spread and remove soap and water and pat dry with a soft cloth
than ointments II. Apply if thin layer of medication on the
II. Pastes are semisolid preparations that are affected areas
stiffer than ointments. III. Cover the affected area with a bandage after
III. Because of the stiffness of pastes they are application of medication
effective in absorbing
a. I
a. I b. III
b. III c. I and II
c. I and II d. II and III
d. II and III e. I, II and III
e. I, II and III
94. When dispensing over the counter
89. Carbomer 934, carboxymethylcellulose, dermatologic products, the pharmacist must
tragacanth are example of ensure which of the following

a. Levigating agent a. The patient understands the proper

b. Gelling agent method of administration
c. Preservatives b. The patient knows how often to apply
d. Surfactants the medication and how long should it
e. Antimicrobial agents be used
c. Special warnings (in relation to
90. A gel mass consisting of floccules of small pregnancy or nursing)
distinct particles is termed a two phase system, d. All of these
often referred to as: e. None of these

a. Jelly beans 95. An important reminder to the patient when

b. Magma dispensing an ophthalmic ointment
c. Plaster
d. Emulsion a. The tip of the ointment tube must not
e. Solvent touch any surface including the eyes,
eyelid, or finger tip
91. Milk of magnesia is an example of a/an b. Blurring of vision after application in
cause for alarm
a. Gel c. It is okay to share ointment with your
b. Ointment spouse
c. Emulsion d. All of these
d. Gelatin e. None of these
e. Plaster
96. All of the following are advantages of utilizing
92. Which of the following statements is TRUE the rectal route for drug administration
regarding topical dermatological products? EXCEPT?

I. Oleaginous bases provide greater a. Breakdown of drugs susceptible to

occlusion and emollient of effects than gastric acid Is avoided
hydrophilic bases b. Larger doses of drugs could be
II. Water soluble are non- greasy and administered compared to oral
easy to remove administration
III. Ointments are better at absorbing c. Unpleasant smelling or tasting drugs
serious discharge as compared to with limited oral administration could be
pastes. administered

a. I
 d. Achievement of a rapid drug effect a. Wrapped in metallic foil
systematically as an alternate to b. White, opaque, plastic bottles
injection c. Tightly closed glass containers
e. None of these d. Separated in compartment boxes
e. All of these
97. Since first pass is partially avoided when
administering drugs rectally, what would be 102. A solvent used for liquid preparations
they are administered as suppositories.

a. There would be lower blood levels of the a. Ethyl alcohol

drug b. Purified water
b. There would be higher blood levels of c. Glycerine
the drug d. Propylene glycol
c. There would be no difference in the e. All of these
blood
d. There would be less effect of the drug 103. Which of the following statements is
e. None of these TRUE regarding solutions?

98. A distressed mother comes to the pharmacy for

a consultation because her 5 month old has
fever and does not want to take his
Paracetamol drops. She said the pediatrician
advised her to go to pharmacy and get the
suppository form of the drug. She has never
used a suppository before, how would you
counsel this patient?
I. Most solutions are prepared by simple
mixing of solutes with the solvent
II. Particle size reduction is one of the
techniques that may be used to hasten
dissolution of solutes in the solvent
III. Most pharmaceuticals solutions are
supersaturated with solute

a. Assure her that the suppository would

be a better option for her child right now a. I
since he could not take in oral b. II
medicines. c. I and II
b. Advise her to wash her hands before d. II and III
and after administering the suppository e. I, II and III
c. The drug should be unwrapped and
inserted into the rectum and hold it in 104. Which of the following statements about
place for a seconds antibiotic powders or granules for
d. All of these reconstruction is TRUE
e. None of these
I. Certain antibiotics are formulated as
99. All of the following are ideal characteristic of a powders or granules for reconstructions
suppository base, EXCEPT? because of insufficient stability in
aqueous solutions
a. Solid at room temperature II. The dry powder of granules contain the
b. Soften, melt or dissolve readily at body active drug. Favorant, colorant, buffers,
temperature etc which are mixed with a prescribed
c. Non irritating to the mucous membranes amount of purified water just before
d. Chemically and physiologically inert dispensing.
e. A pleasing appearance is not III. Once these are reconstructed the expiry
necessary. date is still the same as what the
manufacturer has indicated on the label
100. An example of fatty or oleaginous
suppository base.
a. I
a. Glycerinated gelatin
b. III
b. Cocoa butter
c. I and II
c. Wecobee bases
d. II and III
d. A and B
e. I, II and III
e. B and C

101. Recommended packaging for glycerine 105. When dispensing solutions, which of the
suppositories and glycerinated gelatin following may be requested from the
suppositories. pharmacist.
 a. A commercially prepared oral solution
b. Dilute the concentration of a solution for I. I. Sugar free syrup Is available for use
paediatric use for preparations intended for diabetic
c. Extemporaneously compound a syrup patients
from capsules if syrup form is needed II. II. Certain flavoured syrups may have an
but it not available acidic medium, white others may be
d. Reconstitute a dry powder mixture of an neutral or slightly basic
antibiotic III. III. Syrups contains sugar (sucrose) or
e. All of these sugar substitutes to provide sweetness
and viscosity
106. A patient reminder when dispensing oral
rehydration solutions a. I
b. III
a. Add the recommended amount of water c. I and II
for powders for reconstruction d. II and III
b. These should not be given or mixed with e. I, II and III
other electrolyte- containing liquids.
c. These could be given with other liquids 111. Which of the following statements
such as Gatorade regarding non-medicated syrups is TRUE?
d. A and B
e. B and C I. I. The larger the TDDS the more drug is
absorbed
107. Magnesium citrate also known as citrate II. II. TDDS provide extended therapy with
of magnesia is used as a a single application
III. III. There is poor compliance in patients
a. Saline cathartic on TDDS because the patch need to be
b. Emetic applied more frequently than when
c. Antiemetic talking oral dosage forms
d. Osmotic cathartic
e. Enema a. I
b. III
108. Which of the following statements c. I and II
regarding syrups is TRUE? d. II and III
e. I, II and III
I. I. Syrup could either be medicated or
non-medicated 112. The following statements regarding
II. II. Syrups provide a pleasant means of TDDS are true, EXCEPT?
administering a liquid form of a
disagreeable tasting drug a. TDDS may be applied to any part of
III. III. Any water soluble drug that is stable the body, depending on the patient
in aqueous solutions may be added to a preference
flavoured syrup b. Skin lotion should be avoided at the
application site
a. I c. TDDS should not be physically altered
b. III by cutting
c. I and II d. TDDS should be worn for the full period
d. II and III stated in the products instructions
e. I, II and III e. The patient of caregiver should be
instructed to wash hand thoroughly
109. All of the following are examples of non- before and after applying a TDDS
medicated syrups, EXCEPT?
113. A disadvantage of using elixirs

a. Cherry syrup a. Ease of dosage administrations

b. Orange syrup compared to solid dosage forms
c. Ora-sweet b. Contains colorants to enhance
d. Syrup appearance
e. None of these c. Alcoholic content is a concern
among children and adults who
110. Which of the following statements choose to avoid alcohol
regarding non-medicated syrups is TRUE? d. All of these
 e. None of these III. Liniments are not applied to skin areas
that are broken or bruised because this
114. Which of the following statements is could result to excessive irritations.
TRUE regarding liquid dosage forms?
a. I
I. Preferably, these medicines should be b. III
done measured using calibrated devices c. I and II
for administration d. II and III
II. The pharmacist should be careful when e. I, II and III
selecting a liquid product to dispense
and take into consideration the patients 119. The following preparations should have
current condition and medications taken the auxiliary label “SHAKE WELL”
III. For convenience, these medicines could
be measured could be measured using a. Milk of magnesia
a teaspoon or tablespoon depending on b. Liniments
the recommended dosage c. Nystatin suspension
d. All of these
a. I e. None of these
b. III
c. I and II 120. Desired feature/s in a suspensions
d. II and III
e. I, II and III a. Particle should settle slowly, and should
be readily dispersible upon gentle
115. An example of a medicated tincture shaking of the container.
taken only b. The suspensions should pour readily
and evenly from its container
a. Paregoic, USP c. The particle sizes are variable even
b. Benzoin tincture through long periods of undisturbed
c. Iodine tincture standing
d. Epivir oral solution d. A and B
e. Chloral hydrate solution e. B and C

116. The following are examples of solutions 121. The following preparations are package
applied to the skin, EXCEPT? in wide mouth containers, EXCEPT?

a. Ciprofloxacin oral suspension

a. Chlorhexidine gluconate (hibiclens) b. Milk of magnesia
b. Clotrimazole (lotrimin solution) c. Ointments
c. Ketoconazole (nizoral A-D) d. All of these
d. Diphenyhydramine (benadryl liquid e. None of these
solution)
e. Tolnaffate (tinactin solution) 122. Acacia, tragacanth and pectin are
examples of
117. An example of a topical oral solution
a. Capsule fillers
a. Benzocaine solution b. Emulsifying agents
b. Cetylpyridium chloride solution c. Colorants
c. Nystatin oral suspensions d. Levigating agents
d. All of these e. Buffers
e. None of these
123. The following are considered as
118. Which of the following statements colloidal dispersions, EXCEPT
regarding liniments is TRUE?
a. Gels
I. Liniments with an alcoholic or b. Magmas
hydroalcoholic vehicle is used primarily c. Oral solutions
when message is desired d. A and B
II. Oleaginous liniments are useful when e. B and C
rubefacient, counterirritant, or
penetrating action is desired 124. An example of a topical emulsions
 130. A topical gel that is used as a bleach for
a. Lotion hyper pigmented skin
b. Shampoos
c. Ointments a. Benzoyl peroxide topical gel
d. A and B b. Clindamycin and benzoyl peroxide
e. B and C topical gel
c. Hydroquinone gel
125. Which of the following statements d. Salicylic acid gel
regarding colloidal dispersions is TRUE? e. Augmented betamethasone
I. A colloidal dispersion has larger particle dipropionate topical gel
size of disperse phase as compares to
true solutions 131. The reason for allowing the mixture or
II. True solutions scatter light and appear bentonite and purified water to stand for 24
clear hours before it may be stirred
III. Colloidal dispersions do not scatter light
and appear opaque a. The standing period ensures
complete hydration and swelling of
a. I the bentonite
b. III b. The standing period allows the mixture
c. I and II to cool down
d. II and III c. The standing period would eliminate the
e. I, II and III need for preservatives
d. All of these
126. Characteristics of gels, EXCEPT: e. None of these

a. Swelling 132. This has been used as a topical vehicle

b. Imbibition and protectant
c. Thixotropy
d. Syneresis a. Bentonite magma
e. None of these b. Milk of magnesia
c. Aluminum hydroxide gel
127. The taking up of a certain amount of d. Starch glycerite
liquid by a gel without a measurable increase in e. None of these
volume is termed
133. Advantage/s of aerosol dosage forms
a. Imbibition
b. Swelling a. It is difficult to withdraw a portion of the
c. Thixotropy medication and doing so risks
d. Syneresis contamination of the whole product
e. None of these b. The aerosol container protects
medicinal agents adversely affected
128. The taking up of a liquid by a gel by atmospheric oxygen and moisture
increase in volume is termed c. Applying aerosol medications is a
messy process requiring cleanup after
each application
a. Imbibition
d. It is difficult to control dosage especially
b. Swelling
in inhalant aerosols
c. Thixotropy
e. All of these
d. Syneresis
e. None of these
134. Component/s of an aerosol formulation
129. This termed is used to describe
reversible gel-sol formation with no change in a. Product concentrate
volume or temperature. b. Propellant
c. Emulsifying agent
d. A and B
a. Imbibition
e. B and C
b. Swelling
c. Thixotropy
d. Syneresis 135. Which of the following statements is
e. None of these TRUE regarding metered dose inhalers?
I. Metering valves are employed when the a. I
formulation is a potent medication b. III
II. Each metered dose is delivered through the c. I and II
mouthpiece upon actuation of the aerosol d. II and III
units valve e. I, II and II
III. Metered dose inhalers indicates how many
actuations are left in the inhaler 140. Counselling points when dispensing
topical aerosols
I a. a. The affected should be gently
IIIb. cleaned and pat dry prior to
c.
I and II
application of the medication
d.
II and III b. When applying the drug, the nozzle
e.
I, II and II should be place directly on the skin
136. Advantage/s of pressure filling for c. Once the medication is applied the area
pharmaceutical aerosols should be covered with a bandage
d. A and B
a. There is more propellant lost in the e. B and C
process
b. There is less danger of moisture 141. These are class of gels in which the
contamination of the product structural coherent matrix contains a high
c. There is less propellant lost in the proportion of liquid, usually water
process
d. A and B a. Hydrogels
e. B and C b. Jellies
c. Organogels
137. Counselling points when dispensing d. Gelling agents
aerosols e. None of these

a. Remind patients not to puncture the 142. Conditions where the parenteral route is
containers employed over the other routes of
b. Avoid storing or using them near heat or administration.
an open flame
c. Shake the product well prior to use a. When rapid drug action is required
d. Detailed instructions on how to use b. When patient is uncooperative,
product
unconscious or unable to accept or
e. All of these tolerate oral medications
c. When the drug is ineffective when
138. The following are inhaled aerosols administered by any other route
EXCEPT? d. All of these
e. None of these
a. Proctofoam
b. Atrovent 143. A parenteral route where the drug is
c. Ventolin injected into the spinal fluid.
d. Serevent
e. Azmacort
a. Intraarticular
b. Intramuscular
139. Which of the following statements c. Intrathecal
regarding the use of pharmaceutical aerosols is d. Intraspinal
TRUE? e. Intrasynovial

I. These products are only effective when 144. A parenteral route where the drug is
properly used injected into the joint fluid area.
II. The pharmacist must demonstrate how
to assemble store, clean and use the a. Intraarticular
inhaler
b. Intramuscular
III. For patients having difficulty using an c. Intrathecal
inhaler, the pharmacist should d. Intraspinal
recommended of spacer with the e. Intrasynovial
inhaler
145. Intravenous route of drug administration.
 a. Drug absorption is not a factor because b. III
the drug is injected directly into the c. I and II
bloodstream d. II and III
b. Once a drug is administered e. I, II and II
intravenously, it could not be retrieved
c. IV doses are just about the same as oral
doses, they are interchangeable 150. In addition to the salts found in ringer’s
d. A and B injection this is a component of lactated ringer
e. B and C injection.

146. Propofol, USP is an example of this type a. Lactic acid

of injectable material b. Sodium lactate
c. Potassium lactate
d. Calcium lactate
a. Injectable suspensions e. Magnesium lactate
b. Injectable emulsion
c. For injection
d. For injectable suspensions 151. Characteristics of nonaqueous vehicles
e. Injections used in injections

a. Non imitating and non-sensitizing

147. Which of the following statement is b. Non-toxic in the amounts administered
TRUE regarding parenteral preparations? c. No pharmacological activity
d. Should not affect the activity of
medicinal agent
I. Solvents or vehicles must meet special e. All of these
standards of purity and safety
II. The use of coloring agents is strictly 152. A method of sterilization that is
prohibited conducted in an autoclave.
III. Parenteral products are always sterilized
must meet sterility standards and must not
exceed allowable endotoxin limits a. Steam sterilization
b. Dry heat sterilization
c. Filtration
a. I d. Gas sterilization
b. III e. Ionizing radiation
c. I and II
d. II and III 153. The mechanism of microbial destruction
e. I, II and II in dry heat

148. Sterile water for injection that contains
one or more suitable antimicrobial agents
a. Sterile water for injection, USP
b. Water for injection, USP
c. Bacteriostatic water for injection,
USP
d. Sodium chloride injection, USP
e. Bacteriostatic sodium chloride, USP
149. The components of ringer’s injection,
USP
a. By denaturation and coagulation of some of
the organism’s essential proteins
b. Destruction or disorientation of the vital
structures of the cell, or alteration of the
chemicals within or supporting the
microorganism to form deleterious new
chemicals capable of destroying the cell
c. Physical removal of the organism by
adsorption on the filter medium or sieving
mechanism
d. Interferes with the metabolism of the
bacterial cell
e. By dehydration of the microbial cell
followed by slow oxidation

154. Which of the following statements

I. Sodium chloride regarding large volume parenterals is TRUE?
II. Potassium chloride
III. Calcium chloride I. Used to replenish fluids or electrolytes
or to provide nutrition

a. I
 II. Usually administered in volumes 100ml a. Autoclaving
to 1L or more per day by slow IV b. Steam sterilization
infusion c. Filtration
III. These preparations contains d. Dry heat
bacteriostatic agents e. UV light exposure

a. I 160. Which of the following statements is

b. III TRUE regarding the use of preservatives in
c. I and II ophthalmic preparations?
d. II and III
e. I, II and III I. Antimicrobial preservatives must be
effective at the concentration employed
155. Because of the capacity of the eye to in the formulation
retain liquid and semisolid preparations is II. Preservative free preparations, packged
limited, which of the following is TRUE in single use containers are also
available
a. Topical applications are administered in III. A commonly employed antimicrobial
small amounts preservative at benzalkonium chloride
b. Liquid preparations are applied dropwise 0.0004% is effective against P.
c. Ointments are applied as a this ribbon to the aeruginosa
margin of the eyelid
d. All of these a. I
e. None of these b. III
c. I and II
156. Which of the following statements is d. II and III
TRUE regarding ophthalmic preparations? e. I, II and III

I. The retention time on the eye surface is 161. Characteristics of ophthalmic

short preparations
II. The amount of drug absorbed is only a
small fraction of the amount I. Drug particles in ophthalmic
administered suspensions must be micronized to
III. Some may necessitate more than once minimize irritation and scratching the
daily dosing cornea
II. Ophthalmic solutions must be sparkling
a. I clear and free of all particulate matter for
b. III comfort and safety
c. I and II III. The formulation of an ophthalmic
d. II and III suspension may be considered when
e. I, II and III the medicinal agent is insoluble or
unstable in an aqueous vehicle
157. All of the following are pharmacologic
categories of ophthalmic drugs EXCEPT a. I
b. III
a. Anesthetics c. I and II
b. Antibiotics d. II and III
c. Diuretics e. I, II and III
d. Astringent
e. Mydriatics 162. Which of the following statements is
TRUE?
158. An example of a mydriatic
I. Most nasal preparations contain
a. Timolol maleate adrenergic agents and are employed for
b. Tetracaine their decongestant activity
c. Bacitracin II. Most of these preparations are in
d. Atropine solution form and are administered as
e. Ketorolac nose drops or sprays
III. Nasal decongestants are for long term
159. Method for sterilizing ophthalmic use to manage rhinitis of the common
preparations containing heat-sensitive cold
ingredients
a. I
 b. III
c. I and II 169. The amount of radiation absorbed by
d. II and III body tissue in which a radioactive substance
e. I, II and III resides

163. The following are characteristics of amyl a. Radionuclide

nitrite EXCEPT b. Radiation dose
c. Radioactivity
a. Clear, yellowish liquid d. Reaction dose
b. Volatile e. Radioactive half-life
c. Acts as a vasodilator
d. Acts as a vasoconstrictor 170. TRUE regarding the activity of a
e. Administered via inhalation radiopharmaceutical

164. Also known as otic preparations a. All radioactivity increase with time
b. The larger the decay constant the faster the
a. Eye preparations decay
b. Ear preparations c. The faster the decays, the shorter the half-
c. Aural preparations life
d. A and B d. A and B
e. B and C e. B and C

165. Ear preparations are used for the 171. All of the following are uses of
following EXCEPT radiopharmaceuticals EXCEPT

a. Removal of excessive cerumen a. Diagnose disease

b. Management of pain b. Evaluate progression of disease after
c. Treatment of infection specific intervention
d. Management of rhinitis c. Evaluate drug induced toxicity
e. Treatment of inflammation d. Treat disease tissue
e. Determine gestational age
166. Radipharmaceuticals are used for
172. Radiopharmaceutical that is used for
a. Diagnosis thyroid imaging or assessment of thyroid
b. Treatment function
c. Prophylaxis
131
d. A and B a. I
e. B and C b. 99mTc

167. Which of the following statements c. 133Xe

regarding radiopharmaceuticals is TRUE? d. 89Sr

e. 90Y

I. Radiopharmaceuticals consist of a drug

component and a radioactive 173. Radiopharmaceutical that is used for
component bone pain palliation associated with primary
II. Most radionuclides contain a component bone tumors and metastatic bone lesions
that emits gamma rays
III. Radiopharmaceuticals are used for a. 131I

diagnostic or therapeutic procedures b. 99mTc

c. 133Xe
89
a. I d. Sr
b. III e. 90Y

c. I and II
d. II and III 174. This is used to treat patients from the
e. I, II and III harmful levels of 137Cs or thallium radiation
exposure and contamination
168. Which of the following is TRUE
a. Gentian violet
a. Unstable nuclides are radioactive b. Prussian blue
b. Stable nuclides are radioactive c. Malachite green
c. Stable nuclides release energy d. Methylene blue
d. A and B e. Tartrazine
e. B and C
175. The tracers used in PET imaging are b. Film
natural biochemical labeled with radionuclides c. Mucoadhesive system
of the following EXCEPT d. Lozenges
e. Pills
a. Carbon
b. Nitrogen 181. A DNA enzyme indicated for the
c. Oxygen treatment of cystic fibrosis
d. Fluorine
e. Potassium a. Dornase alfa
b. Recombivax HB
176. This is the application of genomic c. Imatinib masylate
technology to genetic variation in response to d. Recombinant tenecteplase
pharmaceutical compounds e. Omalizumab

a. Pharmacogenetics 182. A thrombolytic agent marketed with a

b. Pharmacogenomics needleless administration set and
c. Biotechnology recommended to be used within the first hours
d. Pharmacoeconomics of a heart attack
e. Bioinformatics
a. Dornase alfa
177. These are techniques used to produce b. Recombivax HB
biotechnology products EXCEPT c. Imatinib masylate
d. Recombinant tenecteplase
a. rDNA technology e. Omalizumab
b. MAb technology
c. Polymerase chain reaction 183. The first humanized therapeutic
d. Gene therapy antibody for the treatment of asthma and the
e. Gamma ray emission first approved therapy designed to target IgE in
the management of asthma
178. The following are considered novel drug
delivery systems EXCEPT a. Dornase alfa
b. Recombivax HB
a. Autoinjection systems c. Imatinib masylate
b. Gliadel wafer d. Recombinant tenecteplase
c. Ophthalmic ointment e. Omalizumab
d. Estring
e. Ophthalmic inserts 184. Monoclonal antibodies

179. Advantage/s of liposomes as drug I. These are purified antibodies produced

delivery systems by a single source of clone of cells
I. Liposome-encapsulated drugs are II. Specificity for the target antigen is the
delivered intact to various tissues primary characteristic for the MAb
and cells and can be released when III. When covalently linked with
the liposome is destroyed radioisotopes, contrast agents or
II. Liposomes can be used for both anticancer drugs, MAbs and be used to
hydrophilic and lipophilic drugs diagnose and treat malignant tumors
without chemical modification
III. Other tissues and cells of the body a. I
are protected from the drug until it is b. III
released from the liposome c. I and II
d. II and III
a. I e. I, II and III
b. III
c. I and II 185. Which of the following is TRUE
d. II and III regarding Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor
e. I, II and III (Filgrastim), a drug produced via rDNA
technology
180. This is a thin flexible sheet of materials
usually composed of a polymer material for oral a. This is administered via deep IM injection
administration in a rapidly dissolving form b. Care should be taken that the vial is not
shaken prior to withdrawal of the drug
a. Wafer c. This should be stored in the freezer
 d. If the patient will be travelling, dry ice should 191. The following routes of administration
be used to keep Filgrastim frozen for nitroglycerin demonstrate extremely rapid
e. Normal saline solution is the ideal diluent for onset of action. EXCEPT
Filgrastim
a. Oral
186. All of the following are classes of b. Intravenous
biotechnological drugs EXCEPT c. Buccal
d. Sublingual
a. Interferons e. All of these
b. MAbs
c. Tissue growth factors 192. A method where the potent drug is place
d. Ocular inserts with an equal volume of the diluent in a mortar
e. Hematopoietic factors and is mixed thoroughly by trituration. A second
volume of diluent equal to the mixture is added
187. Schilling test uses radiolabeled vitamin and the trituration is repeated. This process is
B12. What radionuclide is used to label vitamin continued until all of the diluent has been
B12? added

a. 99Tc a. Levigation
b. 18F b. Eutexia
57
c. Co c. Geometric dilution
d. 13N d. Allegation
e. 68Ga e. Aliquot

188. This has been employed to study 193. An example of solids that form a
cerebral physiology and is has found increased eutectic mixture when mixed
use in cancer diagnosis and management
a. Aspirin and lactose
a. Nuclear magnetic resonance b. Camphor and menthol
b. Positron emission tomography c. Salicylic acid and talc
c. Single-photon emission computed d. All of these
tomography e. None of these
d. Medical ultrasonography
e. Computerized tomography scan 194. A recommendation when dispensing
hygroscopic or deliquescent powders
189. Factors considered before a drug
substance is formulated into a dosage form a. Dispense powders in light resistant bottles
b. Dispense in tight containers and include
I. Physical and chemical characteristics of a desiccant packet or capsule
the drug c. Use an anhydrous salt form of the drug
II. Therapeutic situations for which the d. Dispense powder is a clear bottle
drug will be used (i.e. emergency e. All of these
situations nausea and vomiting etc)
III. Age of the intended patient 195. Desirable features of particles in
suspension includes
a. I
b. III I. Particles settle rapidly
c. I and II II. Readily redispersed upon gentle
d. II and III shaking
e. I, II and III III. Remains fairly constant

190. The most frequently encountered a. I

destructive processes for drug substances b. III
c. I and II
a. Metabolism d. II and III
b. Hydrolysis e. I, II and III
c. Oxidation
d. A and B 196. Which of the following suspensions is
e. B and C used as contrast medium to visualize the GIT
for diagnostic purposes

a. Cholestyramine
 b. Barium sulfate 202. The amount of bentonite present is
c. Mesalamine bentonite magma
d. Paroxetine
e. Sucralfate a. 10%
b. 1%
197. Which of the following statements c. 2%
regarding the types of emulsion is TRUE d. 5%
e. 0.5%
a. O/W emulsions have an oleaginous internal
phase and aqueous external phase 203. Which of the following preparations
b. W/O emulsions have an aqueous internal should not be frozen
phase and an oleaginous external phase
c. W/O emulsion have an oleaginous internal a. Aluminum hydroxide gel
phase and an aqueous external phase b. Simethicone emulsion
d. A and B c. Maalox suspension
e. B and C d. Influenza virus vaccine
e. All of these
198. Ratio between oil water and gum
components of an emulsion when the 204. A pharmacist dispenses an newly
continental or dry gum method is used reconstituted antibiotic product and counsels
the patient regarding the following
a. 4:2:1
b. 3:2:1 I. To shake the bottle well before
c. 1:2:3 withdrawing a dose
d. 1:2:4 II. To store the product in the refrigerator
e. 6:4:2 when indicated
III. To discard any remaining portion of the
199. A reminder when forming the primary product once therapy is completed
emulsion
a. I
a. Ensure that the mortar and pestle to be used b. III
are dry c. I and II
b. Wedgewood or porcelain mortar (with a d. II and III
rough inner surface) may be used e. I, II and III
c. A glass mortar and pestle is ideal
d. A and B 205. Aerosol products may be designed to
e. B and C expel their contents as

200. An indication that an emulsion is a. A fine mist

unstable b. A steady stream
c. A coarse, wet or dry spray
a. The internal phase form globules or d. A stable or fast breaking foam
aggregates upon standing e. All of these
b. All of the part of the liquid of the internal
phase separates forming a distinct layer on 206. Aerosol type that is used to provide an
top or bottom of the emulsion airborne mist
c. Presence of fungal growth
d. Large globules or aggregates float to the top a. Airborne spray
or settle at the bottom b. Surface spray
e. All of these c. Metered dose inhaler
d. Space spray
201. Which of the following should have an e. None of these
auxiliary label indicating “Shake well before
use”? 207. The following are examples of a space
spray EXCEPT
a. Amoxicillin for oral suspension
b. Serevent inhalation aerosol a. Room deodorizer
c. Proctofoam b. Cologne
d. Gaviscon liquid antacid c. Room disinfectant
e. All of these d. Insecticide sprays
e. None of these
208. Aerosols intended to carry the active surface due to failure of spray droplets to
ingredient to a surface coalesce

a. Airborne sprays a. Picking

b. Surface sprays b. Orange peel effect
c. Surface coatings c. Peeling
d. A and B d. Mottling
e. B and C e. Bridging

209. Hermetic container 215. Fentanyl actiq is an example of what

type of solid dosage form
I. Protects contents from light
II. Protects contents form atmospheric a. Tablet triturate
oxygen b. Lollipop
III. Protects contents from moisture c. Bolus tablet
d. Pill
a. I e. Pellet
b. III
c. I and II 216. A patient maintained on Metoprolol
d. II and III tartrate 50mg BID brings in a new prescription
e. I, II and III for Metoprolol succinate extended release
100mg QD. What would be an important
210. A disadvantage of using stainless steel counseling point for this patient?
as a container for aerosol preparations
a. Advice patient that this could be taken with
a. Has incompatibility issues or without food
b. High cost b. Ensure that the patient is aware of the
c. A chance of leakage change in dosage form and dosing
d. Affects the efficacy of the product frequency
e. Corrosion c. Advice patient that this could cause
dizziness
211. Sweetening agent used in the d. Advice patient to take the medication at the
manufacture of sugar-free chewable tablets same time everyday
e. Let the doctor know of any side effects
a. Sucrose encountered
b. Xylitol
c. Stevia 217. This is a local anti-infective agent
d. Sorbitol applied to the skin in general household first aid
e. Glucose
a. Compound benzoin tincture
212. An example of a plasticizer used in film b. Thimerosal tincture
coating of tablets c. Cetylpyridinium peroxide solution
d. Iodine tincture
a. Castor oil e. Eugenol
b. FD&C lakes
c. Vanillin 218. This is used to protect and toughen the
d. Cellulose acetate phthalate skin in the treatment of bedsores and ulcers
e. Beeswax
a. Compound benzoin tincture
213. A problem encountered in tablet film b. Thimerosal tincture
coating where there is uneven color distribution c. Cetylpyridinium peroxide solution
on the tablet surface d. Iodine tincture
e. Eugenol
a. Picking
b. Orange peel effect 219. Coal tar topical solution is also known
c. Peeling as
d. Mottling
e. Bridging I. Liquor carbonis detergens
II. Liquor picis carbonis
214. A problem encountered in tablets film III. Limewater
coating where there is a roughness of the tablet
a. I
 b. III b. It should not be altered by cutting
c. I and II c. It should not be on a site that could be
d. II and III rubbed by clothing
e. I, II and III d. Lotion should be avoided on the site of
application of the TDDS
220. Method for preparing spirits e. All of these

I. Simple solution 226. A patient asks you how to safely

II. Solution by maceration dispose of his Fentanyl patches. What would
III. Distillation you tell him?

a. I I. Fold the patch in half, sticky sides

b. III together
c. I and II II. Flush in the toilet
d. II and III III. Throw in the trashcan
e. I, II and III
a. I
221. The following are products that has an b. III
auxiliary label of “For external use only” c. I and II
EXCEPT d. II and III
e. I, II and III
a. Flexible collodion
b. Liniment 227. These are usually globular, oviform or
c. Phenobarbital elixir cone shaped and weigh about 5g when cocoa
d. Betadine solution butter is the base
e. Green soap tincture
a. Rectal suppositories
222. Components of a membrane-controlled b. Urethral suppositories
transdermal systems c. Bougies
d. Vaginal inserts
a. Drug reservoir usually in liquid or gel form e. All of these
b. A rate controlling membrane
c. Backing, adhesive and protective layer 228. A characteristic of medication sticks
d. All of these
e. None of these I. Cylindrical in shape with weights
ranging from 5 to 25 g
223. Recommended packaging for TDDS II. Packaged in an applicator tube for
topical application
a. Individual sealed packets III. Application can be adjusted to
b. Envelope type boxes continually expose new fresh sticks
c. Sealed packets containing two TDDS each inside the tube
d. Plastic boxes
e. None of these a. I
b. III
224. All of the following are desirable c. I and II
characteristics of the adhesive layer of TDDS. d. II and III
EXCEPT e. I, II and III

a. Nonirritating 229. The following are suppositories

b. Needs a lot of pressure to adhere to the administered for systemic effect EXCEPT
skin a. Ondansetron
c. Remains in place for the intended period of b. Prochlorperazine
rubbed off by clothing c. Indomethacin
d. Easy to peel off after use d. Glycerin
e. Compatible with all other components of the e. Morphine
system
230. The following are examples of
225. A patient reminder when dispensing sweetening agents EXCEPT
TDDS
a. Aspartame
a. It should be left on when bathing, showering b. Veegum
or swimming c. Mannitol
 d. Sorbitol e. I, II and III
e. Saccharin sodium
236. Biologic indicatiors
231. Which of the following statements is
TRUE about dispersed systems? I. A characterized preparation of specific
microorganisms resistant to a particular
I. The dispersed phase in colloidal sterilization process
dispersion is intermediate between the II. May be used to monitor a sterilization
particle size of true solutions and coarse cycle and or periodically to revalidate
dispersions the process
II. True solutions are clear and not scatter III. There is only one form of the indicator
light where the spores are added to identified
III. Colloidal dispersion like true solutions units of the product being sterilized and
also do not scatter light the process assessed based on these
samples
a. I
b. III a. I
c. I and II b. III
d. II and III c. I and II
e. I, II and III d. II and III
e. I, II and III
232. These substances like acacia are self-
dispersing upon addition to the dispersing 237. In dry heat sterilization the spores of
medium which organism is utilized as a biologic
indicator
a. Natural colloids
b. Ampiphilic colloids a. Bacillus subtilis
c. Lyophobic colloids b. Bacillus stearothemophilus
d. Artificial colloids c. Streptococcus
e. Lyophilic colloids d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Bacillus pumilus
233. The following are examples of hydrogels
EXCEPT 238. Endotoxins

a. Carbomer I. Toxic, potent and unstable

b. Pectin II. Water soluble and will pass through
c. Sodium CMC 0.2micron filters
d. Tragacanth III. Not destroyed by autoclaving
e. Silica
a. I
234. Items that could be sterilized using an b. III
autoclave EXCEPT c. I and II
d. II and III
a. Solutions in sealed containers like ampules e. I, II and III
b. Bulk solutions
c. Surgical instruments 239. Suitable glass packaging for injections
d. Sealed empty vials
e. Glasswares I. Clear or colorless glass
II. Light amber glass
235. Advantage/s of bacterial filtration III. Dark amber glass

I. Ability to sterilize thermolabile materials a. I

II. Relatively inexpensive equipment b. III
required c. I and II
III. Complete removal of living and dead d. II and III
microorganisms and other particulate e. I, II and III
matter from the solution
240. Among the different types of glass
a. I suitable for parenteral preparations which is the
b. III most resistant to chemical deterioration
c. I and II
d. II and III a. Type I
 b. Type II II. Maintenance therapy for patients who
c. Type III are unconscious and are unable to take
d. Type IV fluids, electrolytes and nutrition daily
e. Type V III. Replacement therapy for patients who
have suffered heavy losses of fluids and
241. The following are small volume electrolytes
injections EXCEPT
a. I
a. D5W b. III
b. Furosemide c. I and II
c. Botulinum toxin type A d. II and III
d. Insulin e. I, II and III
e. Heparin sodium
247. Special considerations associated with
242. A long acting basal insulin preparation parenteral therapy
intended for once daily SC administration at
bedtime a. Look-alike products
b. Adsorption of drugs to the container IV sets
a. Insulin glargine c. Absorption (sorption) of drugs on the
b. Insulin determir container, IV set, syringes, etc
c. Insulin aspart d. Handling and disposal of chemotherapeutic
d. Regular insulin agents for cancer
e. Isophane insulin suspension e. All of these

243. Counseling point for patient on insulin 248. Irrigation solution that contains NaCl
glargine and rapid acting insulin (8.6g/L), KCl (0.3g/L), and CaCl2 (0.33g/L) in
purified water is sterile and pyrogen free
I. Avoid mixing both insulin to avoid pH
changes that could result to clumping a. Acetic acid irrigation
II. Inject on separate sites b. Sodium chloride irrigation
III. Mix in one injection to minimize number c. Lactated ringer solution
if injection administered d. Ringer irrigation solution
. e. Sterile water for injection
a. I
b. III 249. Recommendation for handling and
c. I and II storing biologics
d. II and III
e. I, II and III I. The cold chain should be maintained
II. A refrigerator dedicated solely to
244. Insulin that could be administered biologics is preferred to minimize door
intravenously openings
III. Refrigerator and freezer temperature
a. Insulin glargine should be monitored daily
b. Regular insulin
c. Isophane insulin a. I
d. Insulin aspart b. III
e. Insulin lispro c. I and II
d. II and III
245. An intermediate acting insulin e. I, II and III

a. Regular insulin 250. Examples of animate media used for

b. Insulin glargine growing viral vaccines
c. Insulin aspart
d. Isophane (NPH) insulin a. Cell cultures of chick embryo
e. Insulin lispro b. Human diploid cell culture
c. Embryonic egg
246. Uses of large volume parenterals d. Skin of living calves
e. All of these
I. Maintenance therapy for patients
entering or recovering from surgery 251. Immune sera that could be administered
intravenously
 a. Tetanus immunoglobulin 257. Less than 1 part of solvent is required to
b. Immunoglobulin IV dissolve one part of solute
c. Cytomegalovirus immunoglobulin
d. A and B a. Very soluble
e. B and C b. Freely soluble
c. Very slightly soluble
252. The effect of hypertonic injection on d. Soluble
blood cells e. Insoluble

a. Crenation 258. More than 10,000 parts of solvent is

b. Hemolysis required to dissolve 1 part of solute
c. Dehydration
d. Swelling a. Very soluble
e. Drying b. Freely soluble
c. Very slightly soluble
253. Reasons for adjusting pH and adding d. Soluble
buffer to ophthalmic preparations e. Insoluble

I. For greater comfort to the eye 259. This process is also referred to as
II. To render the formulation more stable cross-flow or tangential flow membrane
III. To enhance the aqueous solubility of the filtration
drug
a. Distillation
a. I b. Ion exchange
b. III c. Percolation
c. I and II d. Reverse osmosis
d. II and III e. UV exposure
e. I, II and III
260. A common method for expressing the
254. Thickening agent used in ophthalmic concentration of pharmaceutical preparations
solutions
a. %w/v
I. Methylcellulose b. Ratio strength
II. PVA c. % v/v
III. Hydroxypropylmethylcellulose d. % w/w
e. All of these
a. I
b. III 261. A concern for oral solutions
c. I and II
d. II and III a. Color
e. I, II and III b. Flavor
c. Friability
255. Factors that may affect ocular d. A and B
bioavailability e. B and C

I. Drug protein binding 262. Sodium citrate and citric acid oral
II. Drug metabolism solution
III. Lacrimal drainage
I. Contains 100mg of sodium citrate and
a. I 67mg of citric acid in each ml of
b. III aqueous solution
c. I and II II. Administered orally in doses of 10 to 30
d. II and III ml for up to four times daily
e. I, II and III III. Used as a systemic alkalinizer

256. A decongestant ophthalmic solution a. I

a. Naphcon-A b. III
b. Opticrom ophthalmic solution c. I and II
c. Tobrex ophthalmic solution d. II and III
d. Sodium sulamyd ophthalmic solution e. I, II and III
e. None of these
263. Syrup NF
 I. Also known as simple syrup 269. A reason why lotions may be preferred
II. It is prepared by dissolving 85g of over other semisolid preparations
sucrose in enough purified water to
make 100ml of syrup a. Provides good occlusion
III. When properly prepared and maintained b. Easily washes off
it is resistant to microbial growth c. Absorbs serous discharges from lesions
d. Nongreasy and increased spreadability
a. I over large areas of skin
b. III e. Stiffer and less penetrating
c. I and II
d. II and III 270. This is an elliptical unit designed for
e. I, II and III continuous release of pilocarpine following
placement in the cul-de-sac of the eye
264. An example of syrup prepared by
percolation a. TDDS
b. Ocusert
a. Ferrous sulfate syrup c. Oramorph SR
b. Ipecac syrup d. Spansule
c. Acetaminophen syrup e. Troches
d. Dextromethorphan and guaifenesin
e. Chlophenamine maleate syrup 271. An example of proprietary product using
a hydrophilic matrix base of HPMC for
265. Percentage of alcohol present in self- extended drug release
preserving elixirs
a. Ocusert
a. More than 5%-10% b. Gradumet
b. More than 10%-12% c. OROS system
c. More than 1%-5% d. Oramorph SR
d. More than 25% e. Rynatan
e. More than 15%
272. These tablets release an initial dose
266. Digoxin elixir USP contain how much immediately and a second dose follows later
digoxin per 5ml?
a. Repeat action tablets
a. 0.25mg b. Compressed tablets
b. 0.125mg c. Tablet triturates
c. 0.75mg d. Microspheres
d. 0.5mg e. Microencapsulated drug
e. 1mg
273. Aquaphor is an example of what type of
267. Tinctures ointment base

I. Stored in tightly stoppered containers a. Absorption base

II. Must not be exposed to excessive b. Water-removable base
temperatures c. Water-soluble base
III. Many tinctures must be stored in light d. Oleaginous base
resistant containers e. None of these

a. I 274. Preservatives used in hydrophilic

b. III ointment USP
c. I and II
d. II and III a. Methylparaben
e. I, II and III b. Propylparaben
c. Stearyl alcohol
268. Also known as camphorated tincture of d. A and B
opium e. B and C
a. Paregoric
b. Opium tincture 275. This test for ointments involve the
c. Laudanum determination of the net weight or volume of
d. A and B contents of filled containers to ensure proper
e. B and C contents compared with the labeled amount
 281. The ideal molecular weight of a drug for
a. Minimum fill test transdermal drug delivery
b. Content uniformity
c. Viscosity a. 400 or less
d. Microbial content b. 1000
e. USP labeling requirements c. 500 or more
d. 100 to 200
276. Type of plastic that offers transparency e. All of these
and high degree of product chemical
compatibility 282. Transdermal patch for motion related
nausea and vomiting
a. HDPE
b. PP a. Scopolamine patch
c. LDPE b. Nitroglycerin patch
d. PET c. Nicotine patch
e. Plastic laminates d. Fentanyl patch
e. Testosterone patch
277. This type of plastic is soft and resilient
and provides a good moisture barrier 283. The vehicle used in Calamine lotion or
liniment
a. HDPE
b. PP a. Acetic acid solution
c. LDPE b. Olive oil
d. PET c. Glycerin
e. Plastic laminates d. Calcium hydroxide solution
e. Mineral oil
278. Common tube sizes for ointments,
creams and gels 284. This glass type is described as highly
resistant borosilicate glass
a. 1-,2-,3-g tubes
b. 2-,10-,20-g tubes a. Type I
c. 4-,8-,15-g tubes b. Type II
d. 5-, 15-, 30-g tubes c. Type III
e. 1lb tube d. NP
e. None of these
279. Factors affecting drug penetration to the
skin 285. This type is described as treated soda
lime glass
I. Physicochemical properties of the drug
II. Characteristics of the pharmaceutical a. Type I
vehicle b. Type II
III. Condition of the skin itself c. Type III
d. NP
a. I e. None of these
b. III
c. I and II 286. Problems encountered in the use of
d. II and III plastics in packaging
e. I, II and III
a. Permeability to atmospheric oxygen
280. USP test specific for ophthalmic b. Absorption of drugs from the contents to the
ointments container
c. Transmission of light through the container
I. Sterility tests d. Leaching of the constituents of the container
II. Test for metal particles to the internal contents
III. Minimum fill test e. All of these

a. I 287. The term used to describe the

b. III movement of components of a container into
c. I and II the contents
d. II and III
e. I, II and III a. Absorption
b. Leaching
 c. Sorption
d. Adsorption I. Greatly lipophilic
e. None of these II. Produce W/O emulsion
III. Greatly hydrophilic
288. Which of the following drugs is exempt
from child resistant packaging a. I
b. III
a. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets c. I and II
b. Amoxicillin antibiotic d. II and III
c. Glimepiride tablets e. I, II and III
d. Losartan tablets
e. Ibuprofen suspension 294. HLB of 7-9

289. This type of container protects the a. Antifoaming agents

contents from contamination be extraneous b. Emulsifiers (W/O)
liquid, solids or vapor from loss of the article c. Solubilizers
and from efflorescence, deliquescence, or d. Emulsifiers (O/W)
evaporation under the ordinary or customary e. Wetting agents
conditions of handling, shipment, storage and
distribution and is capable of tight reclosure 295. These substances reduce interfacial
tension between oil and water minimizing
a. Hermetic container surface energy through the formation of
b. Tight container globules
c. Single-dose container
d. Well-closed container a. Wetting agents
e. Sterile hermetic container b. Detergents
c. Solubilizing agents
290. Single dose container d. Emulsifying agents
e. None of these
I. Ampules
II. Prefilled syringes 296. Microemulsions
III. Insulin pens
I. Thermodynamically stable
a. I II. Optically transparent
b. III III. Stabilized by surfactants
c. I and II
d. II and III a. I
e. I, II and III b. III
c. I and II
291. Single unit packaging d. II and III
e. I, II and III
I. Patient cup
II. Blister pack 297. A dosage form suitable for delivering
III. Strip packaging drugs to the skin and consists of a drug that is
impregnated into a flexible, durable woven
a. I fabric or extruded synthetic materials that is
b. III coated with an adhesive agent
c. I and II
d. II and III a. Pastes
e. I, II and III b. Tapes
c. Plasters
292. A disadvantage of this emulsifier is that d. Creams
it produces an emulsion that is frequently too e. TDDS
fluid and becomes more fluid upon standing
298. An example of patch (not TDDS)
a. Microcrystalline cellulose
b. Gelatin a. Lidoderm patch
c. Sodium lauryl sulfate b. Scopolamine patch
d. Tragacanth c. Nicotine patch
e. Stearyl alcohol d. Nitroglycerin patch
e. Clonidine patch
293. HLB value of 3 to 6
299. True about patches and TDDS

I. One or more patches and TDDS could

be applied at a time
II. Both patches and TDDS could be cut to
the desired size to cover the affected
area
III. Patient must wash hands before and
after handling patches and TDDS

a. I
b. III
c. I and II
d. II and III
e. I, II and III

300. This suppository base is a homogenous

blend of PEGs and polysorbate 80

a. Cocoa butter
b. Polybase
c. Witepsol H15
d. Fatty base
e. Wecobee
PHYSICAL PHARMACY C. Charles law
D. Dalton’s law
1. Which of the following is not a derived E. Gay-Lussac’s law
dimension
7. Exhibited by gases within a confined system
A. Volume which is due to the collision of gas particles with
B. Density one another and to the walls of the container
C. Velocity
D. Length A. Elasticity
E. Energy B. Pressure
C. Energy
2. Van der Waals force is responsible for the D. Temperature
following interactions EXCEPT E. Volume

A. Miscibility of HCl 8. Gases are liquefied at;

B. Formation of carbonic acid
C. Liquefaction of gases A. High pressure and low temperature
D. Preparation of NaCl solution B. Low pressure and high temperature
E. Formation of HCl C. Low pressure and low temperature
D. High pressure and high temperature
3. KI3 is formed when iodine crystals are mixed E. Zero pressure and zero temperature
with a solution of potassium iodide. The
interaction governing this principle is; 9. The resistance of the liquid to flow is termed as;

A. Keesom forces A. Bulkiness

B. Debye-induction forces B. Fluidity
C. London forces C. Liquidity
D. Ion-dipole force D. Porosity
E. Ion-induced dipole forces E. Viscosity

4. TRUE statements regarding hydrogen bonding 10. Expresses the relationship between the vapor
include; pressure and the absolute temperature of a
liquid
I. Attraction between nonpolar atoms and
water A. Clausius-Clapeyron equation
II. Can be intermolecular or intramolecular B. Van’t hoff equation
III. Between hydrogen atom and a strongly C. Ideal gas law
electronegative atom D. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
E. Strokes’ equation
A. I, II and III
B. I and II 11. True statements about the physical properties of
C. II and III the liquids include;
D. I and III
E. III only I. Exhibit flow properties
II. Surface tension decrease with an
5. Which of the following interactions is responsible increase in temperature
for the stability of the alpha-helix structure of III. Boiling point increases as pressure
proteins as well as other conformations of decreases
protein structure?
A. I, II and III
A. Covalent forces B. I and II
B. Electrovalent forces C. I and III
C. Hydrogen bonds D. II and III
D. Ionic bonds E. I only
E. Van der Waals forces
12. The physical property of liquid which is directly
6. Gas law which states that the 1 mole of gas at a proportional to temperature is;
fixed temperature, the product of pressure (p)
and volume (v) is constant. A. Boiling point
B. Heat of vaporization
A. Avogadro’s law C. Surface tension
B. Boyle’s law D. Vapor pressure
 E. Viscosity E. Theobroma oil is a polymorphic
crystalline solid
13. Which of the following statements about the
physical constant of water is NOT CORRECT? 19. The condition wherein substances can exist in
more than one crystalline form is known as
A. The boiling point of water is 100°C
B. The vapor pressure of water at room A. Anisotropicity
temperature is 218 atm B. Fusion
C. The heat of vaporization of water at boiling C. Polymorphism
▲Hv (water) BP = 9720 cal/mole D. Sublimation
D. The latent heat of fusion at 0 °C = 80 cal/g E. Transformation
E. The critical temperature of water is 374°C
20. The units that contribute to crystal structure can
14. Physical properties of Nitroglycerin include; be atoms, molecules or ions. Which of these
statements is CORRECT about molecular
I. Liquid at room temperature crystals?
II. Solidifies when cooled below 14°C
forming two polymorphs I. Have high melting point
III. Decomposes at 50°C II. Held together by Van der Waals forces
III. Naphthalene is an example
A. I, II and III are correct
B. I and II are correct A. I, II and III
C. I and III are correct B. I and II
D. II and III are correct C. I and III
E. Only I is correct D. II and III
E. I only
15. Which of the following crystals is held together
by covalent bonds? 21. Polymorphs differ in

A. Sodium chloride I. Solubility

B. HCl II. Melting point
C. Naphthalene III. X-ray diffraction pattern
D. Graphite
E. KI A. I, II and III
B. II and III
16. The geometric pattern exhibited by Iodine is C. I only
D. II only
A. Cubic E. III only
B. Hexagonal
C. Rhombic 22. A mesophase formed from gaseous state where
D. Triclinic the gas is held under combination of
E. Tetragonal temperatures and pressures that exceed the
critical point of a substance
17. Characteristics of amorphous solids include all
of the following EXCEPT A. Supercritical gas
B. Supercritical crystal
A. They tend to flow when subjected to C. Supercritical fluid
sufficient pressure over a period of time D. Liquid-gas
B. The do not have definite melting points E. Liquid-crystal
C. They exhibit isotropicity
D. They have randomly arranged molecule 23. TRUE statements about liquid crystal state
E. They exhibit polymorphism include;

18. Which of the following statements about I. Thermotropic liquid crystal are prepared by
crystalline solids is TRUE heating of solids
II. Nematic crystals are soap or grease-like
A. Diamond is an ionic crystal crystals
B. Molecules are not packed un a repeating III. Exhibit flow properties
long-range ordered fashion
C. Boric acid is a monoclinic crystal A. I, II and III
D. All crystalline solid exhibit isotropicity B. II and III
C. I and II
 D. I and III D. Gamma
E. III only E. Kappa

24. Supercritical fluid have properties intermediate 31. In a condensed system which of the following is
those of a two phase system

A. Solid and gas A. Ice-liquid water-vapor

B. Liquid and gas B. Water and phenol
C. Liquid and solid C. Alcohol and acetone
D. Amorphous and crystalline D. Ethyl alcohol and water
E. Nematic and smectic E. Camphor and salol

25. Which property of the mesophase is associated 32. In a mixture of 34% thymol in salol the system
with the crystalline state? occurs as one liquid phase at 13°C. this point in
the phase diagram is known as
A. Flow property
B. High density A. Absolute point
C. Permeability B. Critical point
D. Birefringence C. Eutectic point
E. Low density D. Melting point
E. Triple point
26. It is used in the decaffeination of coffee and tea
33. All combinations of phenol and water are
A. Nematic liquid crystal completely miscible at 66.8°C. this temperature
B. Smectic liquid crystal is termed as
C. Cholesteric liquid crystal
D. Supercritical CO2 A. Upper critical temperature
E. Supercritical O2 B. Upper consolute temperature
C. Conjugate temperature
27. A phenomenon that results to liquefaction when D. Critical temperature
two solids are combined due to the lowering of E. Transition temperature
their melting points
34. The spontaneous interaction of two or more
A. Eutexia substances to form a homogenous molecular
B. Polymorphism dispersion is
C. Salting out
D. Co-solvency A. Dissolution
E. Liquefaction B. Interaction
C. Solubility
28. The type of liquid crystal used in developing D. Molecular connectivity
display system is E. Solubility coefficient

A. Cholesteric 35. It deals with the quantitative relationship

B. Nematic between heat and other forms of energy
C. Pneumatic
D. Istropic A. Enthalpy
E. Smectic B. Entropy
C. Heat dynamics
29. Urea possesses this type of crystal formation D. Thermochemistry
E. Thermodynamics
A. Cubic
B. Hexagonal 36. Energy can be transformed from one form into
C. Rhombic another but cannot be lost, destroyed, or
D. Monoclinic created. This statement is the
E. Tetragonal
A. First law of thermodynamics
30. The most stable polymorphism of theobroma oil B. Second law of thermodynamics
that melts at approximately 35°C is C. Third law of thermodynamics
D. Fourth law of thermodynamics
A. Alpha E. Gibbs free energy
B. Beta
C. Delta
37. In the field the thermodynamics, physical 43. Non polar solvents can neither donate nor
properties of a system which are dependent of accept protons thus are called
the amount of the substance are known as
A. Adiabatic
A. Additive properties B. Aprotic
B. Colligative properties C. Semipolar
C. Constitutive properties D. Intermediate
D. Extensive properties E. Amphiphilic
E. Intensive properties
44. The solubility of most gases in liquids increases
38. Intensive properties include as

I. Volume A. Pressure increases and temperature

II. Surface tension decreases
III. Temperature B. Pressure decreases and temperature
increases
A. I, II and III C. Pressure and temperature increase
B. I and II D. Pressure and temperature decrease
C. I and III E. Pressure and temperature remain constant
D. II and III
E. III only 45. This law states that the weight of gas dissolved
by a given amount of a liquid at a given
39. It is used to measure the angle of rotation temperature is proportional to its pressure
caused by passing polarized light through an
optically active substance A. Arrhenius law
B. Debye-Huckel law
A. Oscillometer C. Henry’s law
B. Polarimeter D. Raoult’s law
C. Refractometer E. Stoke’s law
D. Spectrometer
E. Telemeter 46. A solution containing the dissolve solute in a
concentration below the necessary for complete
40. The passage of 96,500 coulombs of electricity saturation at a definite temperature is referred to
through a conductivity cell produces a chemical as
change of 1 gram equivalent weight of any
substance. This is known as A. Consaturated
B. Hypersaturated
A. Henry’s law C. Saturated
B. Coulombs law D. Supersaturated
C. Faraday’s law E. Unsaturated
D. Debye-Huckel law
E. Avogadro’s law 47. Water acts as a solvent due to which of the
following mechanisms?
41. A property of drug molecule expressed in Debye
units is A. High dielectric constant
B. Ability to break covalent bond of potentially
A. Absorbance strong electrolytes
B. Dielectric constant C. Through dipole interaction forces
C. Dipole moment D. A and B
D. Optical rotation E. All of these
E. Refractive index
48. Gases in liquids can be salted out by
42. A counterclockwise rotation in the planar light,
as observed by looking into the beam of A. Increasing the pressure
polarized light, defines a substance as B. Increasing the temperature
C. Addition of electrolytes
A. Dextrorotatory D. A and B
B. Levorotatory E. All of these
C. Non polar
D. Aprotic 49. Factors affecting miscibility of liquids in liquid
include
 I. Pressure D. Heat of combustion
II. Dielectric constant E. Heat loss
III. Influence of foreign substance
55. TRUE statement about semipolar solvent
A. I only includes
B. I and II A. I, II and III
C. I, II and III B. II and III
D. II and III C. I and II
E. III only D. III only
E. I only
50. When some liquids are mixed, two layers are
formed, each containing some of the other liquid 56. TRUE statement include
in dissolved state. This phenomenon is
observed in I. The dissociate species of the drug
molecule cannot cross biological
A. Alcohol-acetone membranes so are less absorbed
B. Benzene-CCl4 II. Ionization of weak acid is favorable at
C. Glycerin-alcohol low pH
D. Water-ether III. Salts of weak base precipitate at low pH
E. Water-mercury
A. I, II and III
51. The Debye forces have energy of attraction B. II and III
between 1-3 kcal/mole. In which of the following C. I and III
interactions this is TRUE D. I only
E. I and II
A. Na-Cl
B. H-O-H 57. Nematic crystals are
C. CH2-Cl2
D. HCl-H2O I. Soap or grease like crystals
E. All of these II. Used in developing display systems
III. Exhibit flow properties
52. When a solute is added to the pure solvent it will
alter the tendency of the molecules to escape A. I, II and III
the original liquid. What colligative property is B. I and III
described? C. I and II
D. II and III
A. Boiling point elevation E. None of these
B. Vapor pressure lowering
C. Freezing point depression 58. At 0.0098°C and 4.58mmHg, ice liquid water-
D. Change in osmotic pressure water vapor exist in equilibrium. This is referred
E. None of these to as

53. Which of the following statements is A. Degree of freedom

CORRECT? B. Triple point
C. Independent variables
A. Gases are liquefied at low temperature and D. Critical temperature
low pressure E. None of these
B. Gases are liquefied at high temperature and
high pressure 59. The measure of the drug’s lipid solubility is
C. Gases are liquefied at low temperature
and high pressure A. Kd
D. Gases are liquefied at high temperature and B. pHp
low pressure C. Ksp
E. None of these D. Ki
E. Ka
54. The heat (energy) absorbed when 1 g of a solid
melts of the heat liberated when it freezes is 60. The colligative properties of the solution are
termed as related to the

A. Heat of condensation A. Number of functional groups of molecules in

B. Heat of fusion solution
C. Heat of vaporization B. Number of atoms in the solution
 C. Total number of particles in the solution
D. Spatial arrangement of atoms in a solution A. pH = pka + log (salt/acid)
E. pH of the solution B. pH = pka + log (acid/salt)
C. pOH = pkw – pkb + log (acid/salt)
61. Species that can function either as an acid or a D. pkw = H+ + OH
base is E. none of these

A. An ampholyte 68. Blood is maintained at pH 7.4 by the biological

B. A polyprotric buffer systems. This included all of the following
C. A zwitterion EXCEPT
D. A monoprotic
E. Gegenions A. Hemoglobin/oxyhemoglobin
B. Carbonic acid/bicarbonate
62. The increase in mutual solubility of two partially C. Acid/alkali sodium salts of phosphoric acid
miscible solvents by another agent is referred to D. Boric acid/sodium borate
as E. None of these

A. Miscibility 69. A solution that resist changes in pH is

B. Blending
C. Association A. Isotonic
D. Salvation B. Hypotonic
E. None of these C. Hypertonic
D. Buffer
63. When a solution of AgCl is added with NaCl E. Tonic
precipitates. This known as
70. When water reacts with CO2 in air it forms
A. Solubility H2CO3. This results to a pH of water to become
B. Association
C. Salting-out A. 7.0
D. Common-ion effect B. Slightly greater than 7.0
E. Eutexia C. Slightly less tha 7.0
D. All of the above
64. The solubility of Penicillin sodium ___ as the pH E. None of these
is lowered
71. A hypertonic solution
A. Increases
B. Decreases A. Causes shrinking of the cell
C. Not affected B. Causes no swelling nor shrinking of the cell
D. Remains constant C. Will lead to hemolysis of the RBC
E. None of these D. Has a freezing point depression of 0.52°C
E. None of these
65. It is the pressure that must be applied to the
solution to prevent the flow of pure solvent into 72. A newly discovered weak acid was found to
the concentrated solution diffuse freely through the red blood cell
membrane. A 2.3% of this weak acid has the
A. Vapor pressure same freezing point as blood. The 2.3% us
B. Osmotic pressure
C. Partial pressure A. Isotonic
D. Atmospheric pressure B. Isosmotic
E. None of these C. Isosmotic and isotonic
D. Hypertonic
66. The equation PV=nRT is E. Hypotonic

A. The idea gas equation 73. When a volume of the 2.3% solution of the weak
B. The Clausius-Clapeyron equation acid (in previous number) is mixed with blood,
C. Raoult’s law red blood cells will
D. The Van’t Hoff equation for osmotic
pressure A. Retain their normal size and shape
E. None of these B. Shrink and become wrinkled
C. Swell and finally burst
67. The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation for weak D. Undergo crenation
acid and its salt is E. Become dehydrated
 B. Breaking
74. The characteristics of particles in a ideal C. Creaming
dispersion include D. Phase inversion
E. Sedimentation
80. Which of the following describes an O/W
I. Note uniformly sized emulsion
II. Exhibit Brownian motion
III. Do not interact I. Stabilized by surfactants with an HLB
value of 3-6
A. I, II and III II. Generally employed for oral
B. II and III administration
C. I and II III. Water is the external phase
D. III only
E. I only A. I, II and III
B. II and III
75. A suspension having a F value equal to 1 means C. I only
D. I and II
A. The formulation is flocculated E. I and III
B. The formulation is deflocculated
C. Both statements are correct 81. Which of the following is NOT correct about the
D. Both statements are wrong characteristics of emulsion?
E. None of these
A. O/W emulsions are miscible with water
76. A problem affecting the pharmaceutical B. O/W emulsions conduct electricity
elegance of emulsion that involves the complete C. W/O emulsions can be diluted with water
fusion of droplets followed by ultimate fusion of D. Mayonnaise is a W/O emulsion
two immiscible phase E. None of the above

A. Phase inversion 82. A phenomenon where the liquid in gel is pressed

B. Creaming out upon standing is referred to as
C. Flocculation
D. Breaking A. Syneresis
E. Sedimentation B. Swelling
C. Imbibition
77. TRUE statements regarding HLB system include D. Bleeding
E. Phase inversion
I. Surfactants with high HLB values are
hydrophilic 83. These are organic and inorganic ingredients that
II. Hydrophilic surfactants form W/O type of are colloidally dispersed or soluble in water
emulsion
III. Antifoaming agents has an HLB value of A. Alcogel
4-6 B. Organogel
C. Hydrogel
A. Only I is correct D. Xerogel
B. Only II is correct E. Jelly
C. I and II are correct
D. I and III are correct 84. The force per unit length existing at the interface
E. Only III is correct between two immiscible liquids is termed as

78. Surfactants with an HLB value of 7-9 are used A. Interfacial tension
as B. Surface active tension
C. Adhesion
A. Antifoaming agents D. Cohesion
B. Wetting agents E. Viscosity
C. Detergents
D. Solubilizing agents 85. The force per unit length that must be applied
E. W/O agents parallel to the surface so as to counterbalance
the net inward pull
79. The change of an emulsion type from W/O or
vice versa is termed as A. Shearing force
B. Surface force
A. Coalescence C. Viscosity
 D. Friction B. First-order
E. None of these C. Second-order
D. Third-order
86. Attapulgite and kaolin adsorb intestinal content. E. Fourth
This is adsorption at
93. A graph of log C vs t yielded a straight line. The
A. Solid-gas interface order of reaction is
B. Solid-solid interface
C. Solid-liquid interface A. Zero
D. Liquid-liquid interface B. First
E. Gas-liquid interface C. Second
D. Third
87. A complex process involving the removal of E. Fourth
foreign matter from surfaces
94. In first order reaction the half-life is
A. Wetting
B. Detergency A. Constant
C. Lavage B. Not constant
D. Foaming C. One
E. Evaporation D. Zero
E. 0.5
88. A surfactant used to lower the contact angle of
the powder and the liquid is 95. Second order reaction behaves like a first order
is called
A. Solubilizing agent
B. Wetting agent A. Apparent zero order
C. Detergent B. Pseudo-second order
D. Foaming agent C. Pseudo-first order
E. Spreading agent D. Apparent second order
E. Apparent first order
89. The angle between a liquid droplet and the
surface over which it spreads is known as 96. Which of the following equations is used to
determine the first order half life
A. Angle of repose
B. Tanθ A. T ½ = 0.963/k
C. Contact angle B. T ½ = 0.359/k
D. Spreading coefficient C. T ½ = 0.693/k
E. Surface angle D. T ½ = 0.5/k
E. T ½ = 0.5/0.693
90. Pharmaceutical products that follow a zero-order
kinetics for degradation are 97. The study of flow characteristics of powders,
fluids and semisolids is
A. Solution
B. Ointments A. Rheopexy
C. Suspensions B. Rheology
D. Elixirs C. Thixotropy
E. Syrups D. Syneresis
E. Imbibition
91. This refers to the time required for 50% of a drug
to decompose 98. A material whose viscosity is increased when
stress is removed exhibits what type of flow?
A. Half-life
B. Shelf-life A. Newtonian
C. T90 B. Dilatant
D. Both A and B C. Plastic
E. Both A and C D. Pseudoplastic
E. None of these
92. The rate of reaction (degradation) is
independent to the concentration of the 99. The passive diffusion of drugs is described by
reactants
A. Fick’s first law
A. Zero-order B. Fick’s second law
 C. Stoke’s law III. It is the ratio of the density of the
D. Henry’s law substance to the density of water
E. None of these
100. The pressure required to liquefy a gas at A. I, II and III
its critical temperature is termed as B. I and II
C. II and III
A. Standard pressure D. I and III
B. Atmospheric pressure E. I only
C. Vapor pressure
D. Critical pressure 106. It expresses the relationship between
E. Osmotic pressure the vapor pressure and the absolute
temperature of a liquid
101. The vapor pressure of the liquid is
influenced by A. STP
B. Ideal gas equation
A. Volume C. Kinetic molecular theory
B. Weight D. Clausius-Clapeyron equation
C. Temperature E. Joule-Thomson effect
D. All of the above
E. None of the above 107. If a noticeable increase in barometric
(atmospheric) pressure occurs, which biological
102. Which of the following is a characteristic properties will increase?
of crystalline solids?
A. PCO2 and PO2 in arterial blood
A. May exhibit polymorphism B. Vapor pressure of water in the body
B. No distinct melting points C. Oxygen bound to hemoglobin
C. Randomly arranged molecules D. All of these
D. Isotropic E. None of these
E. None of the above
108. Applications of solid-liquid adsorption
103. These solids have unlike light properties include all of the following EXCEPT
in different directions
A. Antidiarrheal action of kaolin
A. Monotropic B. Operation of gas mask
B. Isotropic C. Decolorizing solutions
C. Anisotropic D. Antidote property of activated charcoal
D. Enantiotropic E. None of these
E. None of the above
109. Application of surfactants include
104. The units that contribute crystal
structure can be atoms, molecules or ions. I. Solubilizing agent
Which of the following is made of molecules II. Emulsifying agent
III. Detergents
I. Diamond
II. Sodium chloride A. I and II
III. Paraffin B. II and III
C. I and III
A. I only D. I, II and III
B. III only E. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III 110. The quaternary ammonium compounds
E. I and III are surface active agents that possess

105. TRUE statements about specific gravity A. Anthelmintic activity

include B. Antibacterial property
C. Solubilizing property
I. Official temperature for specific gravity D. Detergent power
determination of alcohol is 25°C E. None of these
II. 25°/25° is the basis of expressing the
specific gravity on official 111. Molecules or ions that are absorbed at
pharmaceutical compendia interfaces are termed as
 A. Adsorbent
B. Ampholytes 118. An acid is a proton donor and a base is
C. Zwitterions proton acceptor. This is based on
D. Surface-active agents
E. None of these A. Arrhenius theory
B. Brownsted-Lowry theory
112. Spans are C. Lewis theory
D. Ideal gas law
I. Sorbitan esters E. Fick’s first law
II. Have low HLB values
III. Hydrophilic 119. A stable structure consisting of air
pockets enclosed within thin film of liquid is
A. I, II and III
B. II and III A. Foam
C. I and III B. Aerosol
D. I and II C. Detergent
E. II only D. Antifoam
E. None of these
113. Which of the following does NOT
describe adsorption 120. Reaction rates can be increased by

A. Added molecules are partitioned in favor of A. Increasing the temperature

the interface B. Presence of solvents
B. A surface effect C. Presence of catalysts
C. Taking up of water by a sponge D. All of these
D. Alkaloids concentrating on the surface of E. None of these
clay
E. None of these 121. One way of preventing oxidation is to
exclude air from the package by replacing
114. Ether, alcohol and castor oil are oxygen with inert gas like
examples of
I. Nitrogen
A. Antifoaming agents II. Carbon dioxide
B. Foaming agents III. Oxygen
C. Wetting agents
D. Detergents A. I, II and III
E. None of these B. I and II
C. II and III
115. Tween 20 is D. I only
E. II only
A. Glyceryl monostearate
B. Polyoxyethelene sorbitan monolaurate 122. Calculates estimates of shelf-life for a
C. Sorbitan tristearate product that may have been stored or is going to
D. Sorbitan monolaurate be stored under a different set of conditions
E. None of these
A. Q10 method
116. The following are surface active B. T90 method
ingredients EXCEPT C. Rate constant
D. Half-life
A. Benzalkonium chloride E. None of these
B. Sodium lauryl sulfate
C. Cholesterol 123. Correct statements regarding stability
D. Sodium sulfate include
E. None of these
I. Physical stability means the original
117. Phosphoric acid is physical properties, including the
appearance, palatability, uniformly,
A. Monoprotic dissolution and suspendability are
B. Diprotic retained
C. Triprotic II. Chemical stability is important in
D. Biprotic selecting the storage condition and
E. Amphiphilic proper container
 III. Antimicrobial agents in formulation either chemical decomposition or physical
maintain the toxicologic stability deterioration

A. I only A. Expiry date

B. I and II B. Shelf-life
C. II and III C. Half-life
D. I, II and III D. Degradation time
E. III only E. None of these

124. True statements regarding 130. Photodegradation can be prevented by

decomposition of pharmaceuticals include packaging drugs in a light resistant container.
Which of the following is NOT light resistant
I. More frequently encountered mode of
degradation are hydrolysis and oxidation A. Colorless bottle covered with aluminum foil
II. Esters, lactams and amides usually B. Amber colored container
undergo hydrolytic decomposition C. Plastic container
III. Oxidation is mediated by atmospheric D. Bottle covered with carbon paper
oxygen E. None of these

A. I, II and III 131. An additive that can improve stability of

B. I and II drugs by forming a less reactive compound is
C. II and III
D. I only A. Buffer
E. II only B. Surfactant
C. Solvent
125. A chemical reaction that involves the D. Complexing agent
loss of electron by an atom is called E. None of these

A. Decomposition 132. The instability of drug products may give

B. Electrolysis a rise to the following consequences
C. Oxidation
D. Polymerization I. Substantial loss of the active ingredient
E. None of these from the dosage form
II. Formation of a toxic product
126. The degradation reaction for aspiring III. Can cause decreased bioavailability
involves
A. I, II and III
A. Hydrolysis B. II and III
B. Oxidation C. I and II
C. Photolysis D. III only
D. Racemization E. II only
E. Decarboxylation
133. Factors affecting rheological properties
127. The following are signs of oxidative and measurement of viscosity of liquids and
decomposition EXCEPT semisolids include

A. Change in color I. Temperature

B. Rancidity of ointment II. Shear rate
C. Vinegar like odor of ASA tablet III. Time
D. Precipitation in solution
E. None of these A. I and III
B. I and II
128. The following are antioxidants EXCEPT C. II and III
D. I, II and III
A. BHA E. II only
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Sodium bisulfite 134. Glass or steel ball rolls down an almost
D. Benzoic acid vertical glass tube containing the test liquid at a
E. None of these known temperature. This is the principle used in

129. The amount of time that the product can A. Capillary viscometer
be stored before it becomes unfit for use through B. Falling sphere viscometer
 C. Cup and bob viscometer B. Thixotropy
D. Cone and plate C. Antithixotropy
E. All of these D. Dilatancy
E. None of these

135. This apparatus is used to determine the 141. True statements regarding passive
rheologic properties of material diffusion include

A. Hansen paddle equipment I. Drug molecule moves from an area of

B. Du Nouy tensiometer higher to lower concentration
C. Brookefield viscometer II. Lipid drug molecules are transported via
D. Andreasen pipet this mechanism
E. None of these III. It requires energy source to move
against the concentration gradient
136. It is the force per unit area required to
bring about the flow A. I, II and III
B. I and II
A. Poise C. II and III
B. Fluidity D. III only
C. Viscosity E. None of these
D. Shearing stress
E. Temperature 142. Active transport system proceeds from
regions of low concentration to high
137. Application of rheology to concentration. This mechanism requires
pharmaceutical products include
I. An energy source such as ATP
I. Mixing and flow of materials II. A biochemical carrier
II. Packaging into containers III. Lipid solubility of the drug to cross the
III. Removal of product from its container membrane
prior to use
A. I, II and III
A. I and II B. I and III
B. II and III C. II and III
C. I and III D. I and III
D. I, II and III E. II only
E. II only
143. Solute or a solvent can transverse a
138. Transformation of sol to gel where the physical or biologic membrane by
equilibrium state is gel is referred to as
I. Simple molecular diffusion
A. Thixotropy II. Diffusion through a solvent-filled pores
B. Antithixotropy III. Movement through and/or between the
C. Rheopexy fibrous membrane strands
D. Rheology
E. None of these A. I, II and III
B. I and II
139. The following statements regarding C. II and III
antithixotropy are correct EXCEPT D. I only
E. III only
A. Exhibit shear-thickening effect
B. The equilibrium state of the system is the 144. Drugs are absorbed through the spaces
gel between adjacent cells. This is referred to as
C. Exhibited by flocculated system with low
solid content A. Transcellular diffusion
D. Also known as negative thixotropy B. Endothelial diffusion
E. None of these C. Paracellular diffusion
D. Membrane transport
140. Gels and magmas form semisolids on E. None of these
standing and become fluid upon shaking. These
products exhibit what type of flow 145. Drug release is a multistep process that
involves
A. Rheopexy
 I. Diffusion 150. TRUE statements regarding
II. Disintegration and disaggregation ultrafiltration include
III. Dissolution
I. Used to separate colloidal particles
A. I, II and III II. Hydraulic pressure is used to force the
B. I and II solvent through the membrane
C. II and III III. Removes bacteria from injection, food
D. I only and drinking water
E. II only
A. I, II and III
146. A separation process based on unequal B. I and III
rates of passage of solutes and solvents through C. II and III
microporous membrane carried out in batch or D. I and II
continuous mode E. II only

A. Diffusion 151. Which of the following is a physiological

B. Reverse osmosis factor affecting drug dissolution?
C. Ultrafiltration
D. Dialysis A. Gastric emptying
E. None of these B. Particle size
C. Crystalline state
147. In the Fick’s law of diffusion the amount D. Drug complexes
of material crossing a unit area in time is the E. None of these

A. Concentration gradient. dc/dx 152. The dissolution of tablet depends on the

B. Surface area following excipients EXCEPT
C. Flux, J
D. Diffusion coefficient, D A. Diluent
E. None of these B. Binder
C. Base
148. Which of the following is characterized D. Lubricant
by multilayer diffusion? E. None of these

I. Diffusion across biologic barriers 153. TRUE statements about dissolution

II. Passage of gaseous or liquid solutes include
through the walls of the container and
plastic packaging materials I. The rate controlling step is the
III. Passage of a topically applied drug from bioabsorption of drugs of low solubility
its vehicle through the lipodal and lower II. The slowest process involved is the
hydrous layers of the skin release of drug from its dosage form
and passage into systemic circulation
A. I only III. Dissolution of tablets depends on
B. II only disintegration and deaggregation
C. III only
D. I, II and III A. I, II and III
E. II and III B. I and III
C. II and III
149. Drug absorption by means of diffusion is D. I only
governed by E. I and II

I. State of ionization of the drug 154. Which of the following statements is

II. Solubility and concentration in the NOT CORRECT
intestine
III. Membrane permeability A. USP dissolution apparatus 6 (rotating
cylinder) is used for testing the dissolution
A. I and II properties of transdermal patches
B. II and III B. Dissolution rate increases with ionization
C. I, II and III C. Dissolution of semisolid preparation
D. I and III depends on the base used
E. II only D. Percutaneous absorption involves active
transport mechanism
E. None of these
155. Which of the following conditions will A. Two like ligands are opposite each other
increase the rate of drug dissolution from a solid B. Vitamin B12 is a cis-isomer
dosage form such as tablet? C. Two like ligands are adjacent
A. Increase in the particle size of the drug D. Both A and B are correct
B. Increase in the surface area of the drug E. None of these
C. Increase in the disintegration time
D. Increase in the amount of excipients to dilute 162. TRUE statements about inclusion
the drug compounds include
E. None of these
I. Macromolecular compounds are
156. It is used to express the rate at which a commonly called molecular sieves
solid dissolve in a solvent II. Warfarin sodium is an example of
channel lattice type
A. Fick’s law III. A chelate is a cage like inclusion
B. Noyes-Whitney equation compound
C. Hixson-Crowell cube root law
D. Stoke’s law A. I, II and III
E. Gay-Lussac’s law B. I and III
C. II and III
157. Which of the following statements is D. I only
NOT TRUE E. III only

A. Facilitated diffusion is a carrier mediated 163. It is the number of bonds from the metal
transport system that does not require an ion to the ligand
energy source such as ATP
B. Basic drugs are greatly ionized in the A. Hydrogen bond
small intestine so can cross the barrier B. Charge transfer bond
C. Dissolution rate increases with ionization C. Coordination number
D. Lubricants in solid dosage forms decrease D. Complexation number
dissolution rate E. Numerical

158. The central metal ion in inorganic 164. A group which donates a pair of
complexes is known as electrons to form a coordinate covalent link
between itself and the central ion having an
A. Ligand incomplete shell is referred to as
B. Host
C. Guest A. Metal substrate
D. Substrate B. Chromopore
E. None of these C. Ligand
D. Chelate
159. A special type of complex having two or E. None of these
more donor groups to combine with a metal ion
is 165. The suppression of a property or
reaction of a metal without the removal of that
A. Clathrate metal from the system is referred to as
B. Chelate
C. Ligand A. Stabilization
D. Isomer B. Coordination
E. None of these C. Sequestration
D. Sensitization
160. The host molecule of a monomolecular E. None of these
inclusion compound is represented by
166. Type of complexation involved in
A. Zeolite Starch-Iodine complex
B. Clathrate
C. Quinhydrone A. Clathrate formulation
D. Cyclodextrin B. Monomolecular inclusion
E. All of these C. Channel lattice type
D. Chelation
161. Correct statement about cis-isomer form E. None of these
of a chelate
167. Type of complexation involved in Ca- III. Large particles are free flowing
EDTA is
A. I, II and III
A. Chelation B. I and III
B. Channel lattice type C. II and III
C. Clathrate formation D. III only
D. Monomolecular inclusion E. II only
E. Macromolecular inclusion
174. The reciprocal of bulk density is
168. Graphite is example of what type of
complex? A. Porosity
B. Bulkiness
A. Channel lattice type C. Compaction
B. Clathrate D. Angle of repose
C. Layer type E. True density
D. Monomolecular inclusion compound
E. Macromolecular inclusion compound 175. This instrument used in particle volume
measurement is
169. A cage like lattice which that
coordinating compound is entrapped is referred A. Quantasorb
to as B. Coulter counter
C. Andreasen pipet
A. Chelate D. Microscope
B. Channel E. Polarimeter
C. Clathrate
D. Cyclodextrin 176. The ingredient is added to tablet
E. Molecular sieve granulation to decrease the interparticle friction
and promote the flow of powder
170. The ratio of the void volume to the bulk
volume is A. Disintergrants
B. Excipients
A. Bulkiness C. Glidant
B. Specific volume D. Surfactant
C. Porosity E. Lubricant
D. Density
E. Granule volume 177. Which of the following statements is
TRUE
171. A system where particles are of
approximately uniform size is termed as A. Bulkiness increases with an increase in
particle size
A. Unidispersed B. The average particle size by volume can be
B. Monodispersed determined using gravity sedimentation
C. Polydispersed method
D. Multidispersed C. In optical microscopy the diameter of the
E. Superdispersed particles can be obtained from the length
breadth and depth of the particle
172. Volume of the solid material itself per D. Powders of large surface area are good
unit mass of powder is adsorbents
E. All of these
A. Bulk volume
B. Granule volume 178. The following are methods of
C. True volume determining particle size EXCEPT
D. Void volume
E. Specific volume A. Ultrafiltration
B. Optical microscopy
173. TRUE statements regarding the derived C. Sieving
properties of powders include D. Sedimentation
E. Particle volume measurement
I. Compaction is important in
pharmaceutical tablet production 179. The angle of repose is
II. Bulkiness is the reciprocal of bulk
density
 I. A measure of frictional forces in a loose B. Temperature
powder C. Pressure
II. A function of surface roughness D. Presence of other substance
III. Used to estimate the flow properties of E. None of these
powders
A. I, II and III are correct 186. Solid-in-liquid solution with a positive or
B. I and III are correct negative value for the heat of solution
C. II and III are correct
D. III only A. Ideal solution
E. II only B. Non-ideal solution
C. Saturated solution
180. Free-flowing powders are characterized D. Isotonic solution
by the following EXCEPT E. Buffer solution

A. Low angle of repose 187. It describes the solubility of slightly

B. High porosity soluble electrolytes to form a saturated solution
C. High density
D. Particle size of 250-2000 micrometer A. Solubility coefficient, σ
E. Spherical in shape B. Solubility product constant ksp
C. Co-solvency
181. The flow properties of powders is D. Solubility fraction
determined by E. Qualitative solubility

A. Contact angle 188. A dissolution process accompanied by

B. Spreading coefficient the absorption of heat is
C. Angle of repose
D. Glidant effect A. Endothermic
E. None of these B. Exothermic
C. Idiopathic
182. Powders with low repose angle is D. Amphoteric
E. Ideal
A. Having poor flow characteristics
B. Free flowing 189. Sodium chloride does not evolve nor
C. Sticky absorb heat when dissolved so the heat of
D. Coarse solution is approximately
E. Cohesive
A. Positive
183. The tablet excipients that improves the B. Negative
flow properties of powder granules is C. Zero
D. Either positive or negative
A. Diluent E. None of the these
B. Surfactant
C. Disintergrant 190. Solubility of solid is influenced by
D. Glidant particle size. Which of these is TRUE
E. Binder
A. Solubility increases with increased particle
184. Glidants include size
B. Solubility increases with decreased
I. Magnesium stearate particle size
II. Talc C. Solubility decreases with decreased particle
III. Starch size
D. Solubility is not affected by particle size
A. I, II and III E. None of these
B. II and III
C. I and III 191. If 0.5g of a drug sample dissolved in
D. I and II 25ml solvent the solubility is described as
E. I only
A. Very soluble
185. The following are factors affecting the B. Freely soluble
solubility of solids in liquid EXCEPT C. Soluble
D. Sparingly soluble
A. pH E. Insoluble
192. Diphenhydramine HCl + Ammonium 198. It is used to measure an index of
hydroxide will result to refraction

A. Decrease solubility of ammonium hydroxide A. Spectrometer

B. Increase solubility of ammoniums hydroxide B. Refractometer
C. Decrease solubility of diphenhydramine C. Oscillometer
HCl D. Polarimeter
D. Increase solubility of diphenhydramine HCl E. None of these
E. None of these
199. The vapor pressure of a solvent over a
193. Two organic compounds have the dilute solution is equal to the vapor pressure of
molecular weight but compound A has higher the pure solvent, multiplied by the mole fraction
heat of fusion than compound B. Which of these of solvent in solution. This is known as
best describe compound A?
A. Henry’s law
A. It is more soluble than compound B B. Debye-Huckel law
B. Its melting point is higher than C. Raoult’s law
compound B D. Solubility law
C. Its melting point is lower than compound B E. Clausius-Clapeyron equation
D. There is no difference between compound A
and B in terms of melting point and solubility 200. Which of the following is NOT a
E. None of these characteristic of colloidal particles

194. Acid-base reactions occur when an acid A. Can pass through filter paper but not
reacts with a base to form a new acid or a base. through a semi permeable membrane
This reaction is known as B. Detected under the ultramicroscope
C. Particle size less than 1nm
A. Amphiprotic reaction D. Exhibits Faraday’s-Tyndall effect
B. Proteolytic reaction E. Very slow diffusion
C. Hydrolytic reaction
D. Protolytic reaction 201. The sedimentation of colloidal particles
E. Protogenic reaction are accomplished through the use of

195. The following concentration of NaCl A. Ultrafilter

solutions are hypertonic EXCEPT B. Ultracentrifuge
C. Ultramicroscope
A. 2.5% D. Electron microscope
B. 1.5% E. Dialysis machine
C. 5.9%
D. 3% 202. TRUE regarding solubility of gases in
E. 0.9% liquids include

196. This states that a body immersed in a I. Solubility increases with pressure
fluid experience a buoyant force equal to the II. Solubility increases with an increase in
weight of the liquid it displaces temperature
III. Gases can be salted out with the
A. 1st law of thermodynamics addition of electrolytes
B. Archimedes principle
C. Fick’s law A. I, II and III
D. Law of definite proportion B. I and II
E. Law of independent assortment C. I and III
D. III only
197. The principle behind the use of E. II only
Westphal balance is specific gravity
determination is 203. Gases are liberated from solutions in
which they are dissolved by the introduction of
A. Gravity an electrolyte. This phenomenon is known as
B. Buoyancy
C. Flotation A. Solubility constant
D. Displacement B. Blending
E. Condensation C. Salting out
 D. Salting in 210. According to hemolytic method of
E. None of these measuring tonicity a solution that liberates
hemoglobin is
204. A colloid used in cancer is
A. Isotonic
A. Colloidal gold B. Hypotonic
B. Colloidal mercury C. Hypertonic
C. Colloidal silver D. Isosmotic
D. Colloidal copper E. Saturated
E. Colloidal iron
211. The basis of the V values by Sprowl’s is
205. Ammonia and ammonium buffer pair is
A. 0.3g of the drug in 100ml of the solution
A. Weak acid and its conjugate base B. 0.1g of the drug in 30ml of the solution
B. Weak base and its conjugate acid C. 0.1g of the drug in 100ml of the solution
C. Weak acid and strong base D. 0.3g of the drug in a 1 fl.oz of the solution
D. Strong acid and weak base E. None of these
E. Strong acid and a strong base
212. Particle size of coarse dispersion is
206. The freezing point depression of an
isotonic solution is A. Less than 1nm
B. Between 1nm to 0.5micrometer
A. -0.52°C C. Greater than 0.5micrometer
B. 0.52°C D. 100-1000micrometer
C. -0.58°C E. 250-100micrometer
D. 0.58°C
E. 0.25°C 213. In colloidal dispersion if the dispersed
phase interacts appreciably with the dispersion
207. Calculating the volume of water to make medium, it is referred to as
the solution isotonic is
A. Lyophobic
A. Class I method B. Lyophilic
B. Class II method C. Amphiphilic
C. Class III method D. Hydrophobic
D. Class IV method E. Thixotropic
E. Class V method
214. A type of colloidal system that has the
208. The E value of procaine HCl is 0.21. ability to increase the solubility of materials that
This means is normally insoluble is

A. 0.1g of procaine HCl is equal to 1g of NaCl A. Association colloids

B. 1g of NaCl is equal to 1 g of procaine HCl B. Lyophobic colloids
C. 1g of procaine HCl is equal to 0.21g of C. Lyophilic colloids
NaCl D. Organosol
D. 1g of NaCl is equal to 0.21g of procaine HCl E. Hydrophobic
E. None of these
215. Which of the following is NOT a
209. Class I method of adjusting tonicity hydrophilic colloid?
include
A. Gelatin
I. Sodium chloride equivalent method B. Acacia
II. Sprowl’s method C. Albumin
III. Cryoscopic method D. Rubber
E. None of these
A. I and II
B. II and III 216. Methods used to separate colloids from
C. I and III foreign substances include
D. II only
E. I, II and III I. Ultrafiltration
II. Dialysis
III. Ultramicroscope
 A. I only
B. I and II A. Viscosity of the medium
C. II and III B. Particle size
D. I, II and III C. Electric potential
E. III only D. All of these
E. None of these
217. If an electric potential is applied to a
colloid the charged colloidal particles moves 223. This apparatus examine light points
toward the oppositely charged electrode. What responsible for the tyndall cone in colloids
property of colloids is described?
A. Ordinary microscope
A. Adsorption B. Electron microscope
B. Brownian motion C. Ultramicroscope
C. Electrophoresis D. Ultracentrifuge
D. Tyndall effect E. Ultrafilter
E. Streaming potential
224. Subcolloidal particles form aggregates
218. That involves the movement of liquid of 50 monomers or more. There particles are
through a plug or membrane across in which a known as
potential is applied
A. Colloids
A. Electrophoresis B. Micelles
B. Eletroosmosis C. Suspensoids
C. Sedimentation potential D. Sols
D. Streaming potential E. Gels
E. Tyndall effect
225. The concentration of monomer at which
219. Colloidal drug delivery systems include micelles form is termed as

I. Liposomes A. Aggregation concentration

II. Nanoparticles B. Gegenions
III. Hydrogels C. Critical micelle concentration
D. Critical monomer concentration
A. I only E. None of these
B. I and II
C. II and III 226. The number of monomers that
D. I, II and III aggregate to form micelle is known as the
E. I and III
A. Aggregation number
220. When a beam of light is passed through B. Gegenion number
a colloidal sol, a visible cone is formed. This C. Coordination number
property is D. Association number
E. None of these
A. Brownian motion
B. Faraday-Tyndall effect 227. Sodium ions are attracted to the surface
C. Sedimentation of the micelle this reducing the overall negative
D. Electrophoresis charge. These bounds ions are
E. Electroosmosis
A. Gegenions
221. The random and erratic movement of B. Anions
colloidal particles which is due to the C. Cations
bombardment of particles by the molecules of D. Zwitterions
the dispersion medium is termed as E. None of these

A. Tyndall effect 228. The light scattering property of colloids

B. Viscosity is expressed in terms of
C. Brownian motion
D. Electrophoresis A. Fluidity
E. Sedimentation B. Transparency
C. Turbidity
222. The following are factors affecting D. Light rays
Brownian movement of particle EXCEPT E. All of these
 A. I, II and III
229. The protective property of colloids is B. I and III
expressed in terms of C. II and III
D. I and II
A. Silver number E. II only
B. Gold number
C. CMC 235. Interfacial property of suspended
D. Bronze number particles characterized by the growth and fusing
E. Coordination number together crystals in the precipitate to produce a
solid aggregates is referred to as
230. Protective colloids include
A. Creaming
I. Gelatin B. Flocculation
II. Albumin C. Aggregation
III. Sodium oleate D. Caking
E. Leaching
A. I and III
B. II and III 236. Upon settling of particles in this system
C. I, II and III a clear supernatant liquid is produced. This is a
D. I and II characteristic of
E. I only
A. Flocculated system
231. Factors influencing micellar B. Deflocculated system
solubilization include C. Concentrated system
D. Dilute suspension
I. Chemistry of the surfactants and the E. None of these
location of drugs in the micelles
II. pH 237. Particles of a deflocculated system
III. temperature exhibit the following properties EXCEPT

A. I only A. Do not settle rapidly

B. I and II B. Easily redispersed
C. II and III C. Form a hard cake
D. I, II and III D. Exist as individual entities
E. I and II E. None of these

232. The following pharmaceutical colloids 238. Based on Stoke’s law the rate of settling
are employed as germicides EXCEPT of the dispersed phase in the dispersion medium
is a function of
A. Colloidal silver chloride
B. Colloidal copper I. Particle size
C. Colloidal silver iodide II. Viscosity of the dispersion medium
D. Colloidal silver proteins III. Difference in density between the
E. None of these dispersed phase and dispersion medium

233. Correct statements about dispersed A. I only

systems EXCEPT B. I and III
C. II and III
A. Two phase system D. I, II and III
B. Particles exhibit Brownian motion E. II only
C. Inherently stable system
D. Particles are not uniform in size 239. Avoidance of particle-particle interaction
E. None of these can stabilize dispersion. Which of the following
is NOT a means of preventing the interaction of
234. TRUE statements regarding parenteral particles
suspensions
A. Particles have opposite charge
I. contain 0.5 to 30% solid particles B. Deflocculated
II. Are used is depot therapy C. Manipulation of densities
III. Viscosity and particle size affect the D. Increased viscosity of the dispersion
ease of injection medium
E. None of these
 III. Degree of flocculation (β)
240. The settling of particles in flocculated
system is termed as A. I, II and III
B. I and III
A. Sedimentation C. II and III
B. Caking D. I and II
C. Subsidence E. I only
D. Flocculation
E. Precipitation 246. How does the increase in the viscosity
of the liquid affect the rate of sedimentation in a
241. Particles of a flocculated system suspension? (assume that the density of the
particles is greater than the density of the
A. Are held together by weak Van der Waals dispersing liquid)
force
B. Settle rapidly A. The sedimentation rate will not change
C. Do not form a hard cake B. The sedimentation rate will be slower
D. All of these C. The sedimentation rate will be higher
E. None of these D. Particle sedimentation will not take place
E. None of these
242. Which of the following is CORRECT
247. Which of the following statement is
I. Stoke’s law describes the rate of settling TRUE for emulsion?
of particles
II. High particulate concentration renders I. Thermodynamically stable system
dispersion more stable II. Consist of at least two immiscible liquid
III. Upon settling of particles in a flocculated phases
system a clear supernatant liquid is III. It is stabilized by a surfactant
produced
A. I, II and III
A. I only B. II only
B. I and II C. I and II
C. II and III D. II and III
D. I, II and III E. I and III
E. III only
248. This agent prevents coalescence and
243. The initial stage in the preparation of maintains the integrity of the individual droplets
dispersion is in emulsion

A. Dissolution A. Flocculating agent

B. Flocculation B. Dispersing agent
C. Wetting C. Wetting agent
D. Aggregation D. Emulsifying agent
E. Diffusion E. Tonicity agent

244. Hydrophobic powders 249. This theory assumes monomolecular

layers of emulsifying agent curved around a
I. Have low contact angle droplet of the internal phase
II. Include sulfur and charcoal
III. Not easily wetted A. Surface tension theory
B. Oriented-wedge theory
A. III only C. Interfacial film theory
B. I and II D. Dissolution theory
C. II and III E. None of these
D. I, II and III
E. II only 250. Which of the following substances is
transformed directly into gaseous state without
245. Parameters used to evaluate a passing through the liquid state?
suspension formulation in terms of the amount
of flocculation include A. Amyl nitrite
B. Halothane
I. Critical micellar concentration (CMC) C. Camphor
II. Sedimentation volume (F) D. Ether
 E. All of these 256. The expansion of powders under the
influence of stress is referred to as
251. Which of the following solutions is
buffered and made isotonic A. Porosity
B. Bulkiness
A. Ophthalmic solution C. Dilatancy
B. Parenteral solution D. Density
C. Nasal solution E. None of these
D. All of these
E. None of these 257. Which of the following factors affect the
accuracy of sieving method in determining
252. Mixture of salts of sodium phosphate of particle size?
pH 6 to 8 and sodium chloride is added to make
it isotonic with body fluids I. Duration of agitation
II. Intensity of agitation
A. Gifford’s pharmaceutical buffer III. Sieve loading
B. Palitzsch, Hind and Goyan pharmaceutical
buffer A. I, II and III
C. Sorensen’s pharmaceutical buffer B. II and III
D. Clark-Lubs mixture C. I and II
E. Hemoglobin-oxyhemoglobin buffer D. I and III
E. II only
253. Which of the following exhibit “shear-
thinning” property? 258. The Ka of acetic acid is 1.74x10-5.
Calculate the pka.
A. Creams
B. Liquid dispersion of tragacanth A. 4.18 x 10-3
C. 50% starch solution B. -4.76
D. Elixir C. 3.45
E. Hydroalcoholic solution D. 4.76
E. 57142
254. The process of mass transfer of
individual molecules of a substance from a 259. Density of the powder particles together
region of higher to lower concentration is with their intraparticle pores
referred to as
A. True density
A. Dialysis B. Granule density
B. Diffusion C. Bulk density
C. Osmosis D. Void density
D. Absorption E. None of these
E. Disposition
260. Density of material as determined from
255. Correct statements regarding the bulk volume and weight of a dry powder
complexes or coordination compounds include
A. True density
I. Complexes result from a donor-acceptor B. Granule density
mechanism of Arrhenius acid-base C. Bulk density
reaction between two or more D. Void density
constituents E. None of these
II. Zeolite, dextrin, and silica gels are host
molecules for monomolecular inclusion 261. Real gases are of finite volume with
complexes attraction. Their behavior or characteristic is
III. Warfarin sodium USP is an example of governed by
clathrate
A. Van de Waals theory
A. I, II and III B. Kinetic molecular theory
B. I and III C. Gas laws
C. II and III D. Le Chatelier’s principle
D. III only E. None of these
E. I only
262. Plasma proteins important for binding of
drugs include
 C. Accepts an electron pair from another atom
I. Albumin D. Donates an electron pair to be shared with
II. Alpha-acid glycoprotein another atom
III. Collagen E. None of these

A. I, II and III 269. Ionization of a weak acid yields

B. II and III hydronium ion and
C. I and II A. Conjugate base of the acid
D. I only B. Hydroxyl ion
E. III only C. Conjugate acid of the base
D. Hydrogen ion
263. The molar gas constant is E. None of these

A. 6.0221 x 1023 mole-1 270. It is the number of moles of solute per

B. 0.08205 L-atm/mole-K kilogram of the solvent
C. 1.0133 x 106 dynes/cm2
D. 22,414 cm3 A. Normality
E. 1.2433 x 1012 mole-1 B. Molarity
C. Molality
264. Which of the following statements about D. Mole fraction
pharmaceutical gases is CORRECT E. None of these

A. Nitrous oxide is an antioxidant 271. The concentration of solution may be

B. Oxygen is used as aerosol propellant
C. Ethylene oxide is used to sterilize or
disinfect heat-labile objects
D. CO2 is used in making oral liquids palatable
E. Both C and D
265. The condensation of vapor to solid state
is known as
expressed in terms of Molarity. Molarity is the
A. Number of moles solute/L of solution
B. Moles of solute/moles of solute + moles of
solvent
C. G. eq wts. of solute/L of solution
D. Mg. Eq.wts of solute/L of solution
E. None of these

A. Vaporization 272. It is the number of gram equivalents in

B. Evaporation an acid or base that changes the pH of 1 L
C. Condensation buffer solution by 1 unit
D. Deposition
E. None of these A. Buffer action
B. Buffer capacity
266. Property of supercritical fluid that is gas C. Buffer effect
like is D. Buffer unit
E. None of these
A. Amorphous
B. Birefringence 273. When a strong base is buffered by
C. Flow property ammonium, it will result to the formation of a
D. Permeability
E. High density A. Weak acid
B. Strong acid
267. A plastic flow is C. Weak base
D. Strong base
A. A system which increases in volume when E. None of these
sheared
B. Exhibited by creams and ointments 274. This pharmaceutical buffer produces
C. A “shear-thinning” system irritation in the eyes when used outside pH 6.5
D. Semi-solid on standing and becomes liquid to 8
upon shaking
E. A Newtonian type of flow A. Gifford’s buffer
B. Sorensen’s phosphate buffer
268. Based on Arrhenius dissociation theory, C. Clark-Lubs mixture
an acid is a substance that D. Palitzsch, Hind and Goyan
E. Stark, Targaryen and Snow
A. Liberates H+ in aqueous solution
B. Liberates hydroxyl (OH-) in aqueous solution
275. TRUE statements regarding dilute 280. A system in which the liquid is removed
suspensions include and only the framework remains

I. Contains less than 2g/100ml A. Hydrogel

II. Free settling of particles occurs B. Organogel
III. Do not obey Stoke’s law C. Jellies
D. Xerogel
A. I only E. None of these
B. I and II
C. II and III 281. Which of the following is an inorganic
D. I, II and III hydrogel?
E. II only
A. Bentonite mucilage
276. Which of the following describes a B. Tragacanth mucilage
structured vehicle? C. Sodium alginate
D. Sodium CMC
I. Act by entrapping the particles so that E. None of these
no settling occurs
II. Maintain deflocculated particles in 282. Carbowaxes are
suspension
III. Pseudoplastic and plastic in nature I. Polar organogel
II. High MW PEG polymer
A. III only III. Soluble in water and completely
B. I and II washable
C. I and III
D. I, II and III A. I, II and III
E. II only B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
277. What is Bancroft’s rule E. II only

I. Determines whether the emulsion will be 283. This method is used in determining the
O/W or W/O surface tension but not interfacial tension
II. It states that the phase in which the
emulsifying agent is more soluble will be A. Du Nouy ring method
the external phase B. Capillary rise method
C. Both of these
A. Only I is correct D. None of these
B. Only II is correct
C. I and II are correct 284. Which of the following does not exhibit
D. I and II are wrong interfacial tension?

278. The described rheologic property of A. Alcohol and water

emulsion should be B. Oil and water
C. Chloroform and water
A. Newtonian D. Ether and water
B. Plastic E. Liquid paraffin and water
C. Pseudoplastic
D. Dilatant 285. Type of adsorption that is reversible
E. None of these
A. Chemisorption
279. A semisolid system consisting of at least B. Desorption
two constituents in which the coherent matrix is C. Van der Waals adsorption
rich in liquid D. Chemical adsorption
E. None of these
A. Xerogel
B. Alcogel
C. Jelly 286. In the removal of objectionable odors in
D. Gelatin rooms, charcoal is the
E. None of these
A. Adsorbent
B. Adsorbate
 C. Interface E. Fick’s rule
D. Desorbate
E. None of these 293. 1g of substance A required 650ml of
water to dissolve. Substance A is said to be
287. If 0.50g of a drug in the vapor state
occupies 100ml at 120°C and 1 atm pressure, A. Soluble
what is the approximate molecular weight? B. Practically insoluble
C. Sparingly soluble
A. 16.05g/mole D. Slightly soluble
B. 49g/mole E. Insoluble
C. 1.61g/mole
D. 161g/mole 294. TRUE statement regarding suspensions
E. 12.4g/mole
I. They are considered as coarse
288. Permanent dipoles is present in dispersion
II. They consist of two immiscible liquid
A. Water III. They are stabilized by suspending
B. Methylene chloride agents
C. Carbon tetrachloride
D. All of these A. I, II and III
E. None of these B. Only II
C. Only III
289. This component of aerosol system is D. I and III
liquid due to the high pressure inside the E. Only I
container
295. The extent which a product retains
A. Product concentrate within specified limits and throughout its period
B. Propellant of storage and use, the same properties and
C. Active ingredient characteristics that it possessed at the time of its
D. Foam manufacture
E. None of these
A. Expiry date
290. Which is TRUE regarding the kinetic B. Purity
molecular theory? C. Efficacy
D. Stability
I. Particle of gases attract one another E. All of these
II. Gases are composed of particles called
molecules 296. Which is TRUE regarding photolysis
III. These molecules exhibit perfect
elasticity I. It is the degradation of drug molecules
by normal sunlight or room light
A. Only I is correct II. Occurs upon exposure to light
B. I and II are correct wavelengths less than 400 nm
C. II and III are correct III. Can be prevented by storing drug in an
D. Only III is correct opaque container
E. Only II is correct
A. I only
291. Surfactants with a HLB range of 8-18 B. I, II and III
are considered as C. II and III
D. I and II
A. Antifoaming agents E. I and III
B. Water in oil emulsifier
C. Oil in water emulsifier 297. Ethanol exhibits _____ flow
D. Wetting agents
E. None of these A. Newtonian
B. Plastic
292. F=C – P + 2 is the equation known as C. Pseudoplastic
D. Dilatant
A. Phase rule E. Non-newtonian
B. Stoke’s law
C. Sprowl’s method
D. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
298. Powders of chemical drugs that pass
through sieve no. 40 but not more than 60% go
through sieve no. 60 are considered as

A. Moderately coarse
B. Coarse
C. Very coarse
D. Fine
E. Very fine

299. The study of small particles

A. Rheology
B. Thixotropy
C. Rheopexy
D. Micromeritics
E. None of these

300. What is USP dissolution apparatus

A. Reciprocating cylinder
B. Paddle
C. Rotating paddle
D. Rotating basket
E. None of these
PHARMACEUTICAL JURISPRUDENCE AND ETHICS
6. Responsible in granting a license to exploit a
patented invention, even without the
1. This is the proprietary name given by the agreement of the patent owner, in favor of
manufacturer to distinguish its product from any person who has shown the capability to
those of competitors exploit the invention.

a. Chemical name a. General Director of IPO

b. Generic name b. Director General PDEA
c. Brand name c. Director General NBI
d. Company name d. Director General of FDA
e. Scientific name e. Director General of DDB

2. An Act to ensure the safety and purity of 7. An Act regulating and modernizing the
foods and cosmetics, and the purity, safety, practice of pharmacy in the Philippines,
efficacy and quality of drugs and devices repealing R.A. 5921.
being made available to the public, vesting
the BFAD with authority to administer and a. R.A. 10912
enforce the laws pertaining thereto, & for b. R.A. 10981
other purposes. c. R.A. 10918
d. R.A. 10691
a. R.A. 3720 e. R.A. 10189
b. R.A. 6675
c. R.A. 9502 8. The Professional Regulation Commission
d. R.A. 9165 (PRC) is three men commission attached to
e. R.A. 8203 the:

3. An Act instituting the “Comprehensive a. Department of Health

Dangerous Act of 2002”, repealing R.A. b. Office of the President
6425,as amended, providing funds c. Food and Drug Administration
therefore, and for other purposes. d. Council of the Pharmaceutical
Education
a. R.A. 9165 e. Department of the Interior and Local
b. R.A. 8981 Government
c. R.A. 6675
d. R.A. 9211 9. Indigent Senior Citizens shall be entitled to a
e. R.A. 10354 monthly stipend amounting to ____ to
augment the daily subsistence and other
4. An Act to promote, requires, and ensures medical needs of Senior Citizens.
the production of an adequate supply,
distribution, use, and acceptance of drugs a. PhP 1000.00
and medicines identified by their generic b. PhP 2000.00
names. c. PhP 500.00
d. PhP 300.00
a. R.A. 3720 e. PhP 100.00
b. R.A. 9165
c. R.A. 5921 10. The head of the OSCA shall be assisted by
d. R.A. 9502 the City Social Welfare and Development
e. R.A. 6675 officer, in coordination with:

5. An Act providing for cheaper & quality a. Food and Drug Administration
medicines, amending for the purpose R.A. b. Social Welfare and Development
8293 or the Intellectual Property Code, Office
R.A. 6675 or the Generic Act of 1988, and c. Department of Health
R.A. 5921 or the Pharmacy Law, and for d. Philhealth
other purposes. e. City Mayor Office

a. R.A. 9165 11. The Professional Regulation Commission is

b. R.A. 9994 made up of ____ members.
c. R.A. 9257
d. R.A. 7876 a. 2
e. R.A. 9502 b. 3
 c. 4 c. 4 years
d. 5 d. 3 years
e. 6 e. 2 years

12. The following are qualifications of 17. Refer to persons who assist the pharmacists
Regulatory Board of Pharmacy, EXCEPT: in different aspects of pharmacy operation
based on established standard operating
a. Be a citizen of the Philippines and procedures and processes, with very
resident for at least 5 years minimum degree of independence or
b. A member of the faculty of any decision making and may have supervised
school interaction with patients
c. Preferably a holder of a master degree
in Pharmacy a. Pharmacy Aides
d. Be a member in good standing of the b. Pharmacy Assistants
APO for at least 5 years c. Pharmacy Technicians
e. None of these d. Pharmacist
e. Both A and B
13. An Act Modernizing the Professional
Regulation Commission, Repealing for the 18. The Bureau of Food and Drugs (BFAD) is
purpose P.D. 223, entitled, “Creating hereby renamed Food and Drugs
Regulation Commission and Prescribing its Adminisration (FDA).
Powers and Functions”, and for other
purposes. a. R.A. 9711
b. R.A. 3720
a. The PRC Modernization Act of 2000 c. R.A. 9257
b. Accredited Professional Organization d. R.A. 9502
Act e. R.A. 7581
c. The Tobacco Law
d. The Health Professional Law 19. This Act shall be known as the “Food and
e. Act for Salt Iodization Nationwide Drug Administration Act of 2009”.

14. Adult vaccines refer to cervical cancer, flu, a. R.A. 3720

pneumococcal, other pre-exposure b. R.A. 6675
prophylactic vaccines to be administered to c. R.A. 7394
patients aged ___ years and above. d. R.A. 8203
e. R.A. 9711
a. 6
b. 10 20. Refers to the process wherein a pharmacist
c. 15 provides consultation services and conducts
d. 18 preliminary assessment of symptoms and
e. 21 refers the patient to a physician or other
health care professional.
15. Refer to persons who assist the pharmacists
in the different aspects of pharmacy a. Referral
operation based on established standard b. Referral registr
operating procedures and processes, with c. Prescription filling
very minimal degree of independence o d. Patient counselling
decision making and without direct e. Prescription refilling
interaction with patients.
21. The senior citizens shall be entitled the grant
a. Pharmacy Aides of ___ discount for the consumption of
b. Pharmacy Assistants electricity, water and telephone by the senior
c. Pharmacy Technicians citizens center and residential care/group
d. Pharmacist homes that are non-stock, non-profit
e. Both A and B domestic corporation.

16. Chairman and the members of Professional a. 20 percent

Regulatory Board of Pharmacy shall hold b. 10 percent
office for c. 50 percent
d. 100 percent
a. 7 years e. 5 percent
b. 5 years
22. Drug test certificates issued by accredited National Plan to Combat Antimicrobial
drug testing centers shall be valid for ___ Resistance (AMR) in the Philippines.
period from the date of issue.
a. A.O. 42 s.2014 DOH
a. 2 years b. A.O. 42 s.2014 FDA
b. 1 year c. A.O. 56 s.2014
c. 6 months d. A.O. 64 s.2014 DOH
d. 3 months e. A.O. 56 s.2015
e. 24 hours
28. An Act Providing for the mandatory
23. The penalty for the possession of counterfeit PHILHEALTH coverage for all SC,
drug is: amending for the purpose R.A. 7432, as
amended by R.A. 9994, otherwise known as
a. Imprisonment of NLT 6 months and 1 the “Expanded Senior Citizens Act of
day but NMT 6 years 2010”.
b. Imprisonment of 6 years and 1 day but
NMT 10 years a. R.A. 10645
c. Imprisonment of 12 years but NMT 15 b. R.A. 10354
years c. R.A. 10640
d. Life imprisonment to death d. R.A. 10643
e. Death e. R.A. 10642

24. The penalty which shall be imposed for 29. An Act to further strengthen the anti-drug
counterfeiting drug intended for animals. campaign of the government, amending
section 21 of R.A. 9165, otherwise known as
a. Imprisonment of NLT 6 months and 1 the “Comprehensive Dangerous Acts of
day but NMT 6 years 2002”.
b. Imprisonment of 6 years and 1 day but
NMT 10 years a. R.A. 10645
c. Imprisonment of 12 years but NMT 15 b. R.A. 10354
years c. R.A. 10640
d. Imprisonment of 4 months and 1 day but d. R.A. 10643
NMT 6 years e. R.A. 10642
e. Life imprisonment to death
30. The Responsible Parenthood and
25. The following are health warning on Reproductive Health Act of 2012.
cigarette packages, EXCEPT:
a. R.A. 10645
a. “GOVERNMENT WARNING: Cigarette b. R.A. 10354
are Addictive” c. R.A. 10640
b. “GOVERNMENT WARNING: Tobacco d. R.A. 10643
can harm your children” e. R.A. 10642
c. “GOVERNMENT WARNING: Smoking
Kills” 31. An Act to effectively instill health
d. “GOVERNMENT WARNING: Cigarette consciousness through graphic health
smoking is dangerous to your health” warnings on tobacco products.
e. None of these
a. R.A. 10645
26. Food and Drug Administration and PPhA b. R.A. 10354
Mull Plan to Authorize Community c. R.A. 10640
Pharmacist to Administer Vaccines. d. R.A. 10643
e. R.A. 10642
a. FDA No. 2014-067
b. FDA No. 2014-068 32. One of the members of National
c. FDA No. 2015-067 Coordinating and Monitoring Board of R.A.
d. FDA No. 2015-068 9994.
e. FDA No. 2014-069
a. DOJ
b. FDA
27. Creating an Inter - Agency Committee for c. DILG
the Formulation and Implementation of the d. DSWD
e. DOST
 39. The “Price Act” is known as:
33. Prescription without specification on the
generic name of the prescribed product is a a. R.A. 7581
violation of: b. R.A. 7432
c. R.A. 7394
a. R.A. 9502 d. R.A. 8961
b. R.A. 6675 e. R.A. 8344
c. R.A. 5921
d. R.A. 8203 40. A certain drug is considered counterfeit if it
e. R.A. 9994 contains less than how many percent of
active ingredient it purports to possess?
34. It is the abnormal phenomenon where
consumers buy basic necessities and prime a. 10
commodities grossly in excess of their b. 30
normal requirement resulting in undue c. 50
shortages of such goods to the prejudice of d. 80
less privileged consumers. e. 100

a. Hoarding 41. The principal display panel comprises ___

b. Panic Buying percent of the total surface of the container.
c. Profiteering
d. Cartel a. 10
e. Buffering b. 20
c. 30
35. The penalty of cultivation of plants which are d. 40
sources of prohibited drugs is: e. 50

a. 6 months rehabilitation 42. The “Consumer Acct of the Phillipines” is

b. Life imprisonment to death known as:
c. 50 years imprisonment
d. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years a. R.A. 8344
e. A fine of Php 100,000.00 to PhP b. R.A. 7432
200,000.00 c. R.A. 7581
d. R.A. 8981
36. Applicable S tax for prescribers of e. R.A. 7394
dangerous drugs.
43. The “Intellectual Property Code of the
a. S-1 Philippines” is known as:
b. S-2
c. S-3 a. R.A. 7581
d. S-4 b. R.A. 7432
e. S - 5 -1 c. R.A. 7394
d. R.A. 8293
37. The “Special Law on Counterfeit Drugs” e. R.A. 9502
is known as:
44. The “Procurement Act” is known as:
a. R.A. 5921
b. R.A. 6675 a. R.A. 7876
c. R.A. 3720 b. R.A. 8172
d. R.A. 7581 c. R.A. 9184
e. R.A. 8203 d. R.A. 9211
e. R.A. 8423
38. The “Generics Act” of 1988 is known as:
45. An “Act for Salt Iodization Nationwide” or
a. R.A. 5921 “ASIN” is known as:
b. R.A. 6675
c. R.A. 3720 a. R.A. 8293
d. R.A. 7432 b. R.A. 9711
e. R.A. 7394 c. R.A. 7876
d. R.A. 8172
e. R.A. 8344
46. An Act penalizing the refusal of hospitals a. A.O. 55
and medical clinics to administer appropriate b. A.O. 63
initial medical treatment and support in c. A.O. 62
emergency or serious cases, amending for d. A.O. 64
the purpose of Batas Pambansa Bilang 702, e. A.O. 67
otherwise known as “An Act Prohibiting
the demand of deposits or advance 52. Amount of Methamphetamine subject to life
payments for the confinement or imprisonment to death and a fine ranging
treatment of patients in hospitals and from PhP 500,000 to PhP 10M.
medical clinics in certain cases” is known
as: a. 500 g
b. 50 g
a. R.A. 9994 c. 10
b. R.A. 10640 d. 1
c. R.A. 10645 e. Less than 1
d. R.A. 8344
e. R.A. 8420 53. Re-application of the LTO after revocation
maybe done within ___ years.
47. Directing the mandatory use of the .
Philippine National Drug Formulary (PNDF) a. 2
Volume 1 as the basis for Procurement of b. 3
Drug Products by the Government. c. 1
d. 4
a. A.O. 42 e. 5
b. E.O. 49
c. A.O. 51 54. Duration in the conduct of examination in
d. E.O. 90 determining the genuineness and
e. A.O. 163 authenticity of suspected counterfeit drug by
the Bureau is:
48. Amendment to A.O. 62 s 1989 Re: “Rules
and Regulations to Implement a. 10 working days
Prescribing Requirements”. b. 20 working days
c. 30 working days
a. A.O. 90 d. 16 working hours
b. A.O. 63 e. Within 24 hours
c. A.O. 49
d. A.O. 163 55. If the seized drug was found to be
e. A.O. 50 counterfeit, the business establishment must
be directed for preventive closure for a
49. Amount of marijuana subject to life period of ___.
imprisonment to death and a fine ranging
from Php 500,000.00 to PhP 10M. a. 10 days
b. 15 days
a. 500 g c. 30 days
b. 10 g d. 45 days
c. 5g e. 60 days
d. 50 g
e. 40 g 56. Revised rules and regulations to implement
prescribing requirements under the Generics
50. Drug registration of Herbal and/or Traditional Act of 1988.
Drugs (Local and Imported)
a. A.O. 55
a. A.O. 63 b. A.O. 63
b. A.O. 62 c. A.O. 62
c. A.O. 42 d. A.O. 56
d. A.O. 56 e. A.O. 90
e. A.O. 67
57. This contains the amendments of A.O 62.
51. Revised rules and regulations to implement
dispensing requirements under the Generic a. A.O. 55
Acts of 1988. b. A.O. 90
c. A.O. 42
 d. A.O. 64 c. CPD chairman
e. A.O. 67 d. Center
e. Professional board
58. The confiscated or seized dangerous drugs,
plant sources, controlled precursor, and 64. A wholesaler of narcotics must obtain ___.
essential chemical shall be submitted to the
PDEA Forensic Laboratory for a quantitative a. S-1
examination within ___ b. S-2
c. S-3
a. 12 hours d. S-4
b. 32 hours e. S–5–C
c. 15 hours
d. 24 hours 65. The license for bulk storage of specific
e. 48 hours dangerous drugs and their preparations.

59. The amount of Opium subject to life a. S–5–I

imprisonment to death and a fine ranging b. S–5–C
from Php 500,000.00 to PhP 10M. c. S–5–E
d. S–5–D
a. 500g e. S – 5 – IM
b. 50g
c. 40g 66. Unregistered imported pharmaceutical
d. 10g product not registered in FDA is considered
e. Less than 5g _____.

60. The amount of Morphine subject to life a. Violative prescription

imprisonment to death and a fine ranging b. Impossible prescription
from Php 500,000.00 to PhP 10M. c. Erroneous prescription
d. Counterfeit Drug
a. 500g e. Misbranded Drug
b. 50g
c. 40g 67. This agency monitors the presence of
d. 10g counterfeit drugs.
e. Less than 5g
a. DOH
61. Refers to the record book maintained by b. PDEA
pharmacists, listing the patients referred to c. PPhA
different health facilities for further d. FDA
diagnosis. e. DDB

a. Referral book 68. Requirements of labelling materials of

b. Referral journal Pharmaceutical products.
c. Referral registry
d. Pharm. Book of Referral a. A.O. 64
e. Referral compendium b. A.O. 42
c. A.O. 56
62. The Professional Regulatory Board of d. A.O. 55
Pharmacy is composed of a Chairman and e. A.O. 49
___ members.
69. Revised Rules and Regulations Governing
a. 6 the generic Labelling Requirements of Drug
b. 5 Products for Human Use.
c. 4
d. 3 a. A.O. 2016 – 0008
e. 2 b. A.O. 2016 – 0003
c. A.O. 2015 – 0053
63. The Professional Regulatory Board of d. 2015 – 0008
Pharmacy created in section 6 of R.A. e. 2015 – 0003
10918 is called ___
70. In addition to the documentary requirements
a. Board submitted during the application, the
b. APO
 following documents shall be verified during e. PRC Chairperson
inspection, EXCEPT:
77. The PRBOP shall be under the
a. Records/E-file administrative control and supervision of
b. Standard Operating Procedures ___.
c. Display Information
d. Application Form a. Office of the President
e. Relevant Display Materials b. PPhA
c. PRC
71. The “Expanded Senior Citizens Act of d. FDA
2010” is known as: e. DOH

a. R.A. 9994 78. In response to the request of prescribing

b. R.A. 9949 doctors to allow them to write the name of
c. R.A. 7432 more than one drug product on the same
d. R.A. 9257 page of a prescription form for a particular
e. R.A. 8344 patient is A.O. ___.

72. The “PRC Modernization Act” is known a. No. 78 s 1988

as: b. No. 76 s 1989
c. No. 79 s 1989
a. R.A. 7581 d. No. 90 s 1989
b. R.A. 8981 e. No. 99 s 1989
c. R.A. 8189
d. R.A. 8423 79. A license retail seller/handler of controlled
e. R.A. 7876 chemical may sell acetone in quantity not
exceeding ___.
73. The “Traditional and Alternative Act” is
known as: a. 1 Liter
b. 2 Liters
a. R.A. 8324 c. 3 Liters
b. R.A. 9502 d. 4 Liters
c. R.A. 8423 e. 5 Liters
d. R.A. 9211
e. R.A. 9257 80. Refers to mode of transportation servicing
the general population such as, but not
74. The “Senior Citizen Center Act” is known limited to, elevators, airplane, buses,
as: taxicabs, ships, jeepneys, light rail transits,
tricycles and similar vehicles.
a. R.A. 7876
b. R.A. 7687 a. Public conveyance
c. R.A. 7432 b. Public utility jeep
d. R.A. 9257 c. Public places
e. R.A. 9994 d. Public market
e. Public utility bus
75. The “Universally Accessible Cheaper and
Quality Medicines Act of 2008” is known 81. Smoking shall be absolutely prohibited in the
as: following places, EXCEPT:

a. R.A. 9257 a. Centers of youth activity such as

b. R.A. 9502 playschools
c. R.A. 8432 b. Elevator and stairwells
d. R.A. 8172 c. Food preparation areas
e. R.A. 9994 d. Designated smoking areas
e. Public conveyance
76. The Chairperson and the members of PRBP
will be appointed by 82. For radio advertisement, the warnings stated
after the advertisement shall be clearly and
a. President of the Philippines audibly voiced over in the last ___ seconds
b. President of the APO of the advertisement, regardless of its
c. FDA Director General duration.
d. DOH Secretary
 a. 3 seconds e. Storage condition
b. 5 seconds
c. 10 seconds 89. The FDA shall have the following functions,
d. 15 seconds powers and duties, EXCEPT:
e. 1 minute
a. To analyze and inspect health products
83. Those engaged in manual salt iodization b. To certify batches of antibiotics and
shall secure a Certificate of Training from antibiotics preparation
____ before they can provide with a LTO. c. To conduct appropriate tests on all
health products
a. FDA d. To obtain information from any office
b. DOH or office of the national or local
c. DTI government
d. DOST e. To administer the effective
e. DENR implementation of R.A. 9711

84. The term senior citizen shall mean any 90. The Field Regulatory Operation Office of
resident of the Philippines of at least ___ FDA shall include, EXCEPT:
years old.
a. Property and Logistics Management
a. 50 Division
b. 60 b. All field offices of FDA
c. 55 c. Regulatory Enforcement Units
d. 65 d. Satellite Laboratories
e. 70 e. Field Laboratories

85. The Rx symbol is required on the label of 91. The “Expanded Senior Citizens Act of
the following, EXCEPT: 2003” is known as:

a. Drugs under list A a. R.A. 9257

b. Drugs under list B b. R.A. 9502
c. Ethical Drugs c. R.A. 9165
d. Over-the-counter drugs d. R.A. 8981
e. Both A and B e. R.A. 7581

86. Relevant reference materials needed in 92. In R.A. 9711, the meaning of “DEVICE” is:
licensing of Retail Outlet for Non-
Prescription (RONPS), EXCEPT: a. Medical Devices
b. Radiation Devices
a. Republic Acts c. Health Related Devices
b. WHO GDP and GSP Guide d. In-vitro Diagnostic Devices
c. PNDF e. A, B and C
d. Standard practice Guidelines
e. USP/NF 93. Cosmetics means substances/preparations
intended to be placed in, EXCEPT:
87. The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs
Act of 2002” is known as: a. Contact with various external parts of
the human body
a. R.A. 9257 b. With the teeth
b. R.A. 9502 c. With the various mucous membranes of
c. R.A. 9165 the oral cavity
d. R.A. 9994 d. Articles intended for use as a
e. R.A. 9205 component of such article
e. Correcting body odor or keeping them in
88. Minimum Mandatory information that shall good condition
appear in the labelling materials
accompanying a drug product. 94. A company with minor deficiencies in GMP
is given the penalty of ____.
a. Product Name
b. Generic Name a. Closure establishment
c. Dosage form and strength b. Suspension of LTO
d. ADR Reporting c. Revocation of LTO
 d. Temporary closure of the establishment c. DOST
e. Suspension to practice the profession d. DTI
e. TLRC
95. Prescription for dangerous drugs are written
in ____. 101. The senior citizens shall be entitled the
grant of ___ discount in all purchases of
a. One copy only medicines.
b. Duplicate
c. Triplicate a. 20%
d. It depends on the physician b. 10%
e. It depends on the patient’s request c. 8%
d. 5%
96. The chairman of Dangerous Drug Board is e. 12%
the:
102. It has the power to reclassify, add or
a. Secretary of DDB remove from the list of dangerous drugs.
b. Secretary of DOH
c. Secretary of DOJ a. DDB
d. Director General of FDA b. PDEA
e. Undersecretary of PDEA c. FDA
d. DOH
97. An Act Mandating and Strengthening the e. Forensic Laboratory
Continuing Professional Development for all
Regulated Professions, creating Continuing 103. This refers to any person who pays for,
Professional Development Council and raises or supply money for illegal drug
Appropriating Funds Therefore, and for activities.
Other Regulated Purpose, Republic
Act_____ a. Financier
b. Drug Syndicate
a. 10640 c. Pusher
b. 10918 d. Coddler
c. 10990 e. Cultivator
d. 10981
e. 10912 104. It is a place where any dangerous drug
and/or controlled precursor and essential
98. PD which created the Professional chemical is administered, delivered, stored
Regulation Commission. for illegal purpose, distributed, sold or used
in any form.
a. P.D. 223
b. P.D. 1675 a. Clandestine laboratory
c. P.D. 1363 b. Den, Drive or Resort
d. P.D. 1926 c. Centers
e. P.D. 881 d. Private Laboratory
e. Manufacturing Laboratory
99. A UNIT CARTON shall contain the following
minimum information, EXCEPT: 105. Permanent consultant of DDB.

a. Pack size a. Secretary of Health

b. ADR Reporting Statement b. FDA Director General
c. Name and Address of marketing c. NBI
Authorization Letter d. PNP
d. Assay Procedure e. C and D
e. Storage Condition
106. The substances covered by R.A. 9165
100. Shall issue a License to Operate (LTO) include:
to iodized salt manufacturers and salt
importers/distributors upon their compliance a. Prescription Drugs
with prescribed documentary and technical b. Over-the-counter Drugs
requirements. c. Dangerous Drugs
d. Controlled Precursors and Essential
a. FDA Chemicals
b. DOH e. C and D
 c. 3
107. The law that was repealed by R.A. 9165 d. 4
is: e. 5

a. R.A. 8344 113. Grounds from suspension or removal

b. R.A. 7581 from office of the Chairperson and members
c. R.A. 6425 of the Board, EXCEPT:
d. R.A. 8981
e. R.A. 6675 a. Gross neglect, incompetence, or
dishonesty in the discharge of duty
108. The license to operate is secured from: b. Involvement in the manipulation,
tampering or rigging of the license
a. FDA examination
b. DOH c. Receiving compensation and
c. DTI allowances comparable to the
d. PRC compensation and allowances
e. SEC received by the members of the
other existing professional
109. One of the qualifications of the regulatory boards under the PRC
Chairperson and Members of the Board is to d. Conviction of an offense involving
be a member in good standing of the APO moral turpitude by a court of
for at least ___ years but not an officer or competent jurisdiction
trustee. e. All of these

a. 5 114. In the Philippine Pharmacy Act, in order

b. 7 to registered and licensed as a pharmacist,
c. 10 a candidate must obtain a ____.
d. 12
e. 6 a. Weighted average of 75% with no
rating lower than 50% in 2 subjects
110. Primary Label of Small containers shall b. Weighted average of 75% with no
contain the following minimum information, rating lower than 50% in any
EXCEPT: subjects
c. Weighted average of 75%
a. Product Name d. Weighted average of 65% with no
b. Net Content rating lower than 50% in 2 subjects
c. Registration Number e. Weighted average of 65% with no
d. Name and/or Logo of marketing rating lower than 50% in any
Authorization Holder subjects
e. Name and address of
Manufacturer 115. An applicant who failed in the licensure
examination for the 3rd time shall not be
111. Package insert shall contain the allowed to take the next succeeding
following minimum information. examinations and he/she will undergo
refresher program, and shall be conducted
a. Instructions and Special Precautions for a period not less than ____ focusing on
for Handling and Disposal the subjects prescribed in Sec. 15 of R.A.
b. Name and address of marketing 10918.
Authorization Holder
c. Date of first authorization/renewal of a. 1 year review in any review centers
the Authorization b. 1 year and 2 opportunities to take
d. ADR Reporting the examination
e. All of these c. 2 years only and 1 more chance
d. 2 years and 3 more chances
112. The Chairperson and Members of the e. 1 year and 3 opportunities to take
Board shall hold office for a term of ___ the examination
years from the date of appointment or until
their successors shall have been qualified 116. In addition to the minimum
and appointed. requirements, each individual dosage unit of
the Physician’s Samples shall include:
a. 1
b. 2 a. Batch
 b. Lot Numbers 122. The net content of the liquid dosage
c. Date of manufacture form must be expressed using:
d. Expiration date
e. All of these a. Arabic Numeral and Avoirdupois
system
117. The FDA shall have the following b. Metric Units
centers, EXCEPT: c. Becquerrel System International
d. Roman Numeral and Metric System
a. Food Regulation and Research e. Roman Numeral and Avoirdupois
b. Drug Regulation and Research
c. Device Regulation and Research 123. Refers to the classification of the
d. Cosmetics Regulation and product based on its therapeutic action
Research specified in the product registration.
e. Meal Regulation and Research
a. Dosage
118. It refers to a quantity of any drug or b. Dosage Form
device produced during a given cycle or c. Mode Administration
manufacture. d. Formulation
e. Pharmacologic category
a. Batch
b. Batch number 124. Refers to the statement regarding the
c. Lot conditions wherein the use of the product
d. Lot number may cause harm to the patient.
e. Code number
a. Contraindication
119. A food, drug, device or cosmetic b. Caution
intended for export shall not be deemed to c. Warning
be adulterated or misbranded if ____. d. Precaution
e. Indication
a. It conforms with the specification of
the local producing company 125. Refers to the distinctive combination of
b. It is not conflict with the Philippine letters and/or numbers, assigned to a
law particular batch herein defined as any
c. It is labelled outside of the product produced during a given cycle or
shipping package to show that it manufacture.
is intended for export
d. It is offered for sale in domestic a. Lot Number
commerce b. Batch Number
e. All of these c. Production Date
d. Date Manufacture
120. The Generic name of the drug product e. Expiry Date
must be ____.
126. The Penalty for Illegal Price
a. Enclosed by an outline circle Manipulation
b. Smaller font size than the Trade
name a. Imprisonment for a period of NLT
c. Bigger font size in Times New 5 years nor mt 15 years and fine
Roman of NLT PhP 5,000.00 nor mt PhP
d. The active moiety based on the 2M
INN b. Imprisonment for a period of NLT 1
e. Written after the Trade name year nor mt 10 years and fine of
NLT PhP 5,000.00 nor mt PhP 1M
121. The Board of Food and Drug inspection c. Imprisonment for a period of NLT 4
shall consist of the following, EXCEPT: years nor mt 10 years and fine of
NLT PhP 5,000.00 nor mt PhP
a. Representative of DOH 100,000.00
b. Representative of DENR d. Imprisonment for a period of NLT 6
c. President of PACOP months nor mt 5 years and fine of
d. President of PMA NLT PhP 2,000.00 nor mt PhP
e. President of PDA 5,000.00
 e. Imprisonment for a period of NLT 6 132. There shall be prima facie evidence of
months nor mt 12 years and fine of profiteering whenever a basic necessity or
NLT PhP 5,000.00 nor mt PhP 1M price commodity being sold.

127. The potency of the biological products a. Has no price

must be expressed in: b. Is misrepresented as to its weight or
measurement
a. Metric System c. Is adulterated or diluted
b. International Unit d. Offers for sale to general public by
c. Apothecary more than 10 percent
d. Avoirdupois e. All of these
e. A and D
133. The alcohol content must be expressed
128. The word “single use” must be included in ___.
in the label for ___.
a. Percentage strength
a. Biological Products b. Ratio strength
b. Individually Wrapped Products c. Proof strength
c. Small containers d. MI
d. Large Volume Injections e. Grams
e. Blister Pack Containers
134. Lack of pharmacist in a drugstore
129. Automatic price ceiling control. Unless warrants ___.
otherwise declared by the President, the
prices of basic necessities in an area shall a. Revocation of LTO
automatically be frozen at their prevailing b. Temporary closure
prices or placed under automatically price c. Suspension of LTO
control whenever, EXCEPT: d. Warning
e. No reprimand
a. Thant the area is proclaimed or
declared a disaster area/under state 135. These are drugs which has undergone
of calamity adequate clinical trial of Phase I, II and III
b. The area is declared under an but which need further Phase IV Clinical
emergency Pharmacology studies before it can be given
c. The privilege of the writ of habeas regular registration.
corpus in that area
d. The area is placed under martial law a. Investigational Drug
e. The area is declared to be in state b. New Drug
or rebellion c. Tried and Tested
d. Established Drug
e. Therapeutic Innovation
130. One of the members of Price
Coordinating Council. 136. These are drugs found in USP/NF and
is considered safe and efficient through long
a. Secretary of Environment and years of general use and can be found in
Natural Resources current official USP-NF and other
b. Director General of FDA internationally recognized pharmacopies.
c. Secretary of Department of
Education a. Investigational Drug
d. Secretary of DSWD b. New Drug
e. Secretary of Tourism c. Tried and Tested
d. Established Drug
131. What is the floor are requirement for e. Therapeutic Innovation
drug outlets?
137. One of the grounds for suspension of
a. NMT 15 sq. M. LTO is:
b. NLT 15 sq. M
c. NLT 20 sq. M. a. Sale of antibiotics without batch
d. NMT 20 sq. M. certification
e. NLT 30 sq. M. b. Refusal to allow entry of FDA
inspector
c. Selling misbranded drug
 d. Absence of Pharmacist on three
inspections by FDA inspector
e. Lack of pharmacist
138. Administrative designation assigned to
persons using narcotics in research,
analysis and instruction is:
143. Penalty imposed when the counterfeit
products are not life saving drugs and the
volume of the same products is not worth
more than PhP 100,000 but NMT PhP 1M or
the number of the drug products is more
than 3 brands or generic products.

a. S–1 a. Maximum Penalty

b. S–2 b. Minimum Penalty
c. S–3 c. Medium Penalty
d. S–5–1 d. Revocation of License
e. S–5 e. B and C

139. An Act granting additional benefits and 144. Any person engaged in the business of
privileges to SCS further amending R.A. no. selling consumer products directly to
7432, as amended, otherwise known as “An consumers.
Act to maximize the contribution of SCS to
nation building, grand benefits and special a. Supplier
privileges for other purposes.” b. Exporter
c. Importer
a. R.A. 9994 d. Telemarketing
b. R.A. 9257 e. Retailer
c. R.A. 7876
d. R.A. 10640 145. It means a set of condition to be fulfilled
e. R.A. 10645 to ensure quality and safety of a product.

140. Under category B where the a. Standard

professional services of duly registered b. Services
pharmacist and licensed pharmacist are c. Labor
required, the farthest establishments/outlets d. Repair or service
supervised by a single pharmacist must not e. Sale distributor
exceed ___ in distance
146. It includes rice, corn, bread, fish and
a. 15 Km drugs classified as essential by the
b. 10 Km Department of Health.
c. 40 Km
d. 25 Km a. Basic necessities
e. 30 Km b. Prime commodities
c. Primary needs
141. If the seized drug was found to be d. Merchandise
counterfeited, the business establishment e. Ordinary commodities
must be directed for preventive closure for a
period not exceeding ____. 147. It is contingent fund in the budget of the
implementing agency which shall not be
a. 10 days used in normal or regular operations
b. 15 days
c. 20 days a. Petty cash
d. 30 days b. Buffer fund
e. 45 days c. Cash on hand
d. Operating budget
142. Composition of the Commission (PRC), e. Cash refund
the Commission shall be headed by one full
time Chairperson and two full time 148. It is abnormal phenomenon where
Commissioners all to be appointed by the consumers buy basic necessities and prime
President for a term of ___. commodities grossly in excess of their
normal requirement resulting in undue
a. 3 years shortages of such goods to the prejudice of
b. 5 years less privileged consumers
c. 7 years
d. 10 years a. Hoarding
e. 6 years b. Panic Buying
 c. Cartel 154. Penalty imposed when the counterfeit
d. Profiteering products are not life saving drugs and the
e. Bulk buying volume is not worth PhP 100,000.00 or the
number of the drug product subject of the
149. It is the maximum price at which any case is not more than 3 brands or generic
basic necessities or prime commodities may products.
be sold to the general public.
a. Maximum Penalty
a. Prevailing price b. Medium Penalty
b. Price ceiling c. Minimum Penalty
c. Discriminatory pricing d. Revocation of License
d. Special event pricing e. Permanent Closure
e. Loss Leader Pricing
155. Any act of knowingly passing a
150. It is the undue accumulation by a person dangerous drug to another, personally or
or combination of persons of any basic otherwise, and by any means, with or
necessity or prime commodity beyond his or without consideration.
their normal inventory levels.
a. Cultivate
a. Hoarding b. Deliver
b. Panic buying c. Pusher
c. Cartel d. Culture
d. Profiteering e. Trading
e. Bulk buying
156. Any act of knowingly planting, growing,
151. The sale or offering for sale of any basic raising or permitting planting of any plant
necessity or prime commodity at a price which is the source of dangerous drugs.
grossly in excess of its true worth.
a. Cultivate
a. Hoarding b. Culture
b. Cartel c. Pusher
c. Panic buying d. Farmer
d. Profiteering e. Both A and B
e. Wholesale buying
157. The illegal cultivation, culture, delivery,
152. It is any combination of or agreement administration, dispensation, manufacture,
between two or more persons engaged in sale, trading, transportation, distribution,
the production, manufacture, processing, importation, and possession of any
storage, supply, distribution, marketing, sale dangerous drugs and/or controlled precursor
or disposition of any basic necessity or and essential chemical.
prime commodity designed artificially and
unreasonably increased or manipulate its a. Illegal trafficking
price. b. Illegal prescribing
c. Illegal selling
a. Hoarding d. Illegal possession
b. Panic buying e. Illegal dispensing
c. Cartel
d. Profiteering 158. Indian hemp is ____.
e. Discriminatory selling
a. Marijuana
153. An analytical test using a device, tool or b. Hashish
equipment with a different chemical or c. Bhang
physical principle that is more specific which d. Churrus
validate and confirm the result of the e. All of these
screening test.
159. What is the maximum penalty for
a. Screening Test counterfeiting drugs?
b. Drug Test
c. Drug Analysis a. PhP 100,000.00 to PhP 500,000.00
d. Confirmatory Test b. Revocation of License
e. Chemical Test c. Permanent Closure
d. Php 300,000.00 to PhP 500,000.00
 e. B, C and D 165. Which of the following is an example of
a Medical Device?
160. Under category B, the maximum
number of establishments/outlets allowed to a. Electrical apparatus
be supervised by a single pharmacist is b. Ionizing electromagnetic
____. c. Particulate radiation
d. Sonic, infrasonic and ultrasonic
a. 5 wave
b. 10 e. Implant or in-vitro reagents
c. 15
d. 20 166. Drugs intended for use for animals
e. 25 including any drug intended for use in
animal feeds but not including animal feeds
161. A pharmacist working in Category A within the contemplation of the implementing
establishment may be allowed to rules and regulations.
simultaneously work and successively
render pharmacy services in Category B a. Poison
establishments/outlets with a maximum of b. Antibiotics
___ establishments classified under c. New Drugs
Category B. d. Veterinary Drugs
e. New Veterinary Drugs
a. 1
b. 2 167. The name, strength, and reference
c. 3 monograph of all Active Pharmaceutical
d. 4 Ingredients (APIs) and/or excipients present
e. 5 in the drug product.

162. Division of FDA which shall be a. Net content

responsible for evaluating health products b. Formulation
and establishments for the purpose of c. Strength
issuance of authorization and conditions to d. Potency
be observed. e. Dose

a. Licensing and Registration 168. It refers to statements regarding the

Division occurrence of potential hazards and side
b. Product Research and Standards effects associated with the use of the
Development Division product and the limitation of its use.
c. Laboratory Support Division
d. Both A and B a. Pharmacologic category
e. Both B and C b. Warning
c. Contraindications
163. An article used for food or drink for man. d. Dosage Formulation
e. Precautions
a. Device
b. Drug 169. It refers to the FDA approved clinical
c. Food use of a drug product based on substantial
d. Poison and scientifically supported evidence of the
e. Cosmetic safety and efficacy of the drug in the given
dosage form.
164. The data placed on the label of a drug
product designating the time prior to which a a. Pharmacologic category
batch of the product is expected to remain b. Indication
within the approved shelf-life specification if c. Dosage
stored under defined conditions. d. Dosage Form
e. Dosage Formulation
a. Manufacturing date
b. Registration date 170. It refers to proprietary/trade name
c. Production date assign to the product by the Marketing
d. Expiration date Authorization Holder (MAH).
e. Both A and D
a. Product
b. Brand Name
 c. Generic Name 176. In opening and operation of retail
d. Non Proprietary Name pharmaceutical outlets, the following
e. Trade Name information/s is/are required to display in a
conspicuous space.
171. It refers to the instructions and special
care required in the use of the drug product a. Office hours and schedule of the
to avoid undesired effects to ensure the safe supervising pharmacist
and effective use. b. The operating schedule of drugstore
c. The name of registered pharmacy
a. Contraindications technician
b. Warning d. The number of prescription being
c. Precautions served
d. Indications e. The number of patients being
e. Cautions served

172. Penalty imposed when the counterfeit 177. It is a policy and program of the national
drugs are life saving regardless of the government to ensure that safe and effective
volume and/or the volume of the counterfeit drugs are made available to all Filipinos at
drug products is more than PhP 1 million. any time and place and at a reasonable and
affordable cost.
a. Maximum Penalty
b. Medium Penalty a. National Drug Policy
c. Minimum Penalty b. National Drug Formulary
d. Permanent Closure c. National Drug Committee
e. A and D d. Philippine National Drug Formulary
e. Hospital Formulary
173. A single pharmacist is allowed to
supervise multiple rounds provided the 178. It is composed of a core list of
following rules are met. medicines considered essential and a
complementary list of drugs considered
a. The pharmacist is required to useful is not essential
dedicate a minimum of two hours a
week of physical presence in a. National Drug Policy
RONPD b. National Drug Formulary
b. The location of each RONPD must c. National Drug Committee
be within the same provincial local d. Philippine National Drug Formulary
government unit. e. Hospital Formulary
c. The distance between the two
farthest ronpds must not exceed 179. It refers to either prohibited or regulated
25km in distance drugs which requires a special prescription
d. A maximum 15 ronpds is allowed to form.
be supervised by single pharmacist
e. All of these a. Ethical Drugs
b. OTC Drugs
174. What is the maximum penalty for c. Prescription Drugs
counterfeiting drugs? d. Traditional Drugs
e. Dangerous Drugs
a. Php 100,000.00 to PhP 500,000.00
b. Php 100,000.00 to PhP 300,000.00 180. Any person whether related to the
c. Revocation of LTO senior citizens or not who takes care of
d. Php 300,000.00 to PhP 500,000.00 him/her as a dependent.
e. Permanent Closure
a. Head of the family
175. It refers to drug products indicated for b. Benefactor
life threatening conditions. c. Beneficiary
d. Protector
a. Life saving drugs e. Nearest Surviving Relatives
b. Counterfeit drugs
c. Non-life saving drugs 181. It refers to the branch of medical
d. Drugs for limited use science devoted to the study of the
e. Drugs for restricted use biological and physical changes and the
diseases of old age.
 e. Clients
a. Pediatrics
b. Pharmacy 187. “Ecstacy” is also known as:
c. Geriatrics
d. Orthodontics a. Methylenedioxymethamphetamin
e. Elderly e
b. Methyldioxymethamphetamine
182. Refers to the provision of interventions, c. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
approaches, and strategies with the end d. MMDA
goal of ensuring effective reintegration of e. Ice
older persons discharged from residential
facilities. 188. “Shabu” is also known as:

a. After Care Services a. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine

b. Medical Services b. Methydioxymethamphetamine
c. Dental Services c. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
d. Home Health Care Services d. MMDA
e. Foster Care Services e. Guaza

183. It is a license issued by the Director 189. A rapid test performed to establish
General of the Intellectual Property Office to potential/presumptive positive result for
exploit a patented invention without the dangerous drugs.
permission of the patent holder, either by
manufacturer or through parallel importation. a. Confirmatory test
b. Screening test
a. Certificate of Product Registration c. Test analysis
b. Compulsory License d. Laboratory test
c. Batch Certificate e. Physical and Chemical test
d. Registration Certificate
e. License to Operate 190. Any person who is licensed physician,
dentist, chemist, medical technologist,
184. It refers to pharmaceutically equivalent nurse, midwife, veterinarian and pharmacist
or pharmaceutically alternative products that in the Philippines.
may or may not be therapeutically
equivalent. a. Practitioner
b. Coddler
a. Multisource pharmaceutical c. Protector
products d. Pusher
b. Multi-pharmaceutical products e. Financier
c. Source of pharmaceutical products
d. Pharmaceutical products 191. Any person who sells, trades,
e. Pharmaceutically equivalent administers, dispenses, delivers, or gives
away to another, on any terms whatsoever,
185. It refers to drugstore, pharmacies and or distributes, dispatches in transit or
other business establishments which sell transport dangerous drugs or who act as a
drugs and medicines. broker in any such transactions.

a. Drug Outlets a. Practitioner

b. Drug Establishments b. Coddler
c. Drug Laboratory c. Financier
d. Both B and C d. Pusher
e. Both A and C e. Protector

186. It means a natural person who is a 192. The term “Secretary” in R.A. 3720
purchaser, lessee or prospective purchaser means:
leaser or recipient of consumer products,
services or credit. a. Secretary of DOH
b. Secretary of DTI
a. Creditor c. Secretary of Education
b. Customer d. Secretary of DOJ
c. Consumer e. Secretary of DSWD
d. Owner
193. R.A. 3720 was amended by E.O. no e. Free
____.
199. Dangerous drug prescriptions shall be
a. E.O. 851 retained by the pharmacist for a period of
b. E.O. 174 ___.
c. E.O. 175
d. E.O. 881 a. 1 year
e. E.O. 119 b. 2 years
c. 3 years
194. Ordinary prescription shall be retained d. 4 years
by the pharmacist for a period of ___. e. 5 years

a. 1 year 200. It refers to the international agreement

b. 2 years administered by the WTO that sets down
c. 3 years minimum standards for many forms of
d. 4 years intellectual property regulations.
e. 5 years
a. TRIPS agreement
195. The “Pharmacy Law” is known as: b. WTO agreement
c. Agreement on Trade – Related
a. R.A. 5921 Aspects of Intellectual Property
b. R.A. 6675 Rights
c. R.A. 3720 d. Both A and B
d. R.A. 8203 e. Both A and C
e. R.A. 9502
201. It means any substance which contact
196. Which of the following guidelines is the with living tissues will cause destruction of
regulatory and technical requirement for tissue by chemical reaction
pharmacy based immunization services in
the Philippines – Pharmaceutical outlet? a. Corrosive
b. Poison
a. It should have a valid License to c. Antibiotics
Operate (LTO) issued by the FDA d. Biological
b. It should maintain patient e. Toxins
medication profile/record
c. As long as monitored by pharmacist 202. It means any card, plate, coupon books,
who knows how to vaccinate or other credit device existing for the
d. A and B purpose of obtaining money, property, labor
e. B and C or services on credit.

197. The test for alcohol content for a. Credit card

registration of herbal and/or traditional drug b. ATM card
should not be more than ___ percent. c. ID card
d. Value card
a. 10 e. None of these
b. 15
c. 20 203. An immunizing pharmacist should
d. 80 comply which of the following requirements?
e. 95
a. Certificate of Current employment in
198. The senior citizens shall be entitled the the pharmaceutical outlet
grant of ___ discount from all b. Certificate NC-3 by TESDA
establishments relative to the utilization of c. Valid certificate in basic life support
transportation services, restaurants, and training in vaccination issued by
purchase of medicines anywhere in the PRC-BOP
country, including funeral and burial services d. A and B
for the death of the senior citizens. e. A and C

a. 5% 204. The integrated and accredited

b. 10% professional organization (APO) of
c. 20% pharmacist is
d. 50%
 a. PAPPI e. Laboratory support division
b. DSAP
c. PACOP 210. The division of FDA which shall be
d. PPhA responsible for the conduct of research and
e. YPG appropriate tests and calibration, analyses
and trials of products including but not
205. The COR issued by PRC shall bear the limited to assays and others
following EXCEPT
a. Licensing and registration division
a. Registration number and the date of b. Product research and standards
its issuance development division
b. The signature of the chairperson of c. Laboratory support division
the PRC and the members of the d. Administration and finance division
board e. Legal service support division
c. Stamp of the official seals of the
PRC and of the board 211. The FDA shall be headed by a ___ with
d. The signature of the president of the rank of _____
the Philippines
e. None of these a. Director general – undersecretary
b. Director general – secretary
206. R.A. 9165 was signed into law on c. Deputy director – general
d. Director
a. June 7, 2002 e. Director general – asst. secretary
b. June 6, 2002
c. February 26, 2004 212. Each center of FDA shall be headed by
d. June 23, 1969 a ____
e. June 22, 1963
a. Director general
207. R.A. 9994 was signed into law on b. Director
c. Undersecretary
a. February 12, 2010 d. Asst. secretary
b. February 15, 2010 e. Deputy director
c. February 26, 2004
d. June 7, 2002 213. The board under R.A. 9165 shall be
e. February 10, 2010 composed of seventeen members, wherein
three of which are permanent and these are
208. The OSCA shall have the following
functions EXCEPT a. Director general of DDB and two
undersecretaries
a. To plane, implement and monitor b. Chief of PNP and NBI
yearly work programs in pursuance c. President of integrated bar of the
of the objective Philippines
b. To serve as a general information d. President of Non-government
and liaison center for senior citizens organization
c. To monitor compliance of the e. Both C and D
provisions particularly the grant of
special discounts and privileges to 214. Upon finding that the drugs are
senior citizens counterfeit the bureau shall file an
d. To conduct researches and study appropriate proceeding against the
in geriatric care, gerontology and pharmacist with the PRC for the ___ of
health needs of senior citizens professional license
e. To assist the senior citizen in filling
complaints a. Suspension
b. Revocation
209. This division of the FDA that provides c. Cancellation
assistance to person/establishment in d. Non-renewal
complying with FDA legal requirements e. Both A and B

a. Licensing and registration division 215. R.A. 9257 was signed into law on
b. Administration and finance office
c. Field regulatory operation office a. February 24, 2004
d. Legal services support center b. February 26, 2004
 c. February 14, 2003 e. Company pharmacist
d. February 14, 2004
e. February 10, 2003 222. The FDA must be notified of such
changes in the establishment
216. R.A. 3720 was signed into law on
a. Change of pharmacist-in-charge
a. June 22, 1969 b. Change of company manager
b. June 13, 1963 c. Change of product arrangement
c. June 23, 1963 d. Change of liaison officer
d. June 23, 1969 e. Change of supervisor
e. June 22, 1963
223. A professional identification card issued
217. Additional label to be attached to by PRC shall bear the following EXCEPT
poisons
a. Registration number
a. Warning: may be habit forming b. Date of its issuance
b. Warning: it is toxic c. Date of its expiry
c. Precaution d. Signature of PRC chairperson
d. For external use e. Signature of PRBOP chairperson
e. A vignette of skull and bones
224. Refers to a new chemical or structural
218. The designated person of a modification of a Tried and Tested or
manufacturing company who will transact established drug proposed to be used for a
officially with the FDA specific therapeutic indication

a. Company pharmacist a. New drug

b. Branch pharmacist b. Tried and tested
c. Detailman c. Established drug
d. Liaison officer d. Investigational drug
e. Professional sales representatives e. Therapeutic innovation

219. Authorized to established and initiate a 225. Documentary requirement in the

price monitoring and regulation system for application of LTO
drugs and medicines
a. Proof of business registration
a. Secretary of DOH b. Self-assessment kit
b. Secretary of DTI c. Risk management plan
c. Secretary of DENR d. Credentials of pharmacist and
d. Director general of FDA pharmacy assistant
e. Both A and B e. All of these

220. The one responsible in ensuring that all 226. Under transitory provisions existing
drugs authorized for marketing in the licensed establishments are required to
country conform to international standards submit
for the content purity and quality of
pharmaceutical products as established in a. Risk management plan
the international Pharmacopoeia b. Global poisoning system (GPS
Coordinates)
a. DOH c. Pharmacist credentials
b. DTI d. A and C only
c. DOJ e. All of these
d. FDA
e. DOST 227. R.A. 7394 was signed into law on

221. For products containing 3 or more active a. April 13, 1992

ingredients the official name for the b. February 13, 1992
combination shall be designated by c. February 7, 1992
d. February 13, 1992
a. DTI e. September 13, 1988
b. FDA
c. DOH
d. Manufacturer
228. This information will appear on the label e. December 13, 1988
of the immediate container outside of the
principal display panel 234. Executive order which is responsible in
reorganization of the former bureau (BFAD)
a. Name of the product
b. Formulation a. E.O. 175
c. Dosage form and strength b. E.O. 851
d. Net content c. E.O. 174
e. Pharmacologic category d. E.O. 223
e. E.O. 119
229. Heavy metals to be tested in the herbal
and/or traditional drugs EXCEPT 235. The source or circumstances of drug
production is/are
a. Pb
b. As a. Imported as finished
c. Hg b. Locally manufactured from imported
d. Cd materials
e. Cu c. Locally manufactured from local
materials
230. Violations of any provision of senior d. Both B and C
citizen is punishable by e. All of these

a. A fine not exceeding php 2,000.00 236. The PIC shall be renewed every 3 years
b. Imprisonment not exceeding 2 upon presentation of the certificate of good
months standing (COGS) from the APO and proof of
c. A fine of php 5,000.00 pesos but not completion of the CPD. How many units
exceeding php 10,000.00 required for renewl of PIC?
d. Imprisonment of NLT 2 years but
NMT 6 years for the first violation a. 15
e. Imprisonment of NLT 4 years and 1 b. 30
day but NMT 6 years c. 45
d. 60
231. Under R.A. 6675 what type of e. 120
prescription may be filled
237. The chairperson of the commissioner of
a. Violative PRC shall have at least ___ years of
b. Erroneous executive or management experience
c. Impossible
d. Marked prescription a. 10 years
e. Special prescription b. 7 years
232. How much is the compensation of the c. 6 years
members of the professional regulatory d. 5 years
board? e. 3 years

a. Two salary grades lower than the 238. Absence of pharmacist in a drugstore on
salary grade of the three inspection by FDA inspector is ground
commissioners for
b. Two step higher than the members
of the commission a. Cancellation of the professional
c. Equivalent to that of the department license of the said pharmacist
secretary b. Suspension of the LTO
d. Equivalent to that of the c. Revocation of LTO
undersecretary d. Temporary closure
e. They are being paid based on e. Both A and B
honoraria
239. A drug shall be deemed to be
233. R.A. 6675 was signed into law on adulterated if

a. September 13, 1988 a. It is a drug and its container is

b. October 13, 1988 composed in whole or in part of
c. June 13, 1988 any poisonous or deleterious
d. February 13, 1988 substance
 b. Its labeling is false or misleading in e. Rx symbol on each unit for single
particular API
c. If it is an imitation of another drug
d. If it is offered for sale under the 245. Any foreign citizen who has gained entry
name of another drug in the Philippines to perform professional
e. If it is a drug and its container is so services within the scope of the practice of
made, formed or filled as to be pharmacy include
misleading
a. Engaged or employed by a
240. Imprisonment term of any person who Filipino employer or
was involved in manipulation or rigging of establishment
licensure examination results b. Provides services in humanitarian
missions with pay
a. 6 month – 6 years c. Consultant in local-funded or
b. 2 years – 4 years assisted projects of the private
c. 4 years – 10 years organizations
d. 6 years and 1 day – 12 years d. Visiting faculty members in any field
e. 4 years and 1 day – 6 years e. All of these

241. The presidential decree which lead to 246. The board shall not register any
creation of PRC successful examinee who has been

a. P.D. 221 a. Convicted of an offensive involving

b. P.D. 223 moral turpitude by a court of
c. P.D. 881 competent jurisdiction
d. P.D. 1926 b. Found guilty of immoral or
e. P.D. 1363 dishonorable conduct by the board
c. Medically proven using drug or
242. First time minor offender in R.A. 9165 is alcohol prescribed or recommended
one who is by a physician
d. Both A and B
a. Over 15 years but NMT 18 years e. Both A and C
old
b. Not below 12 years but NMT 20 247. For products that are intended for
years old external use the statement “For external use
c. Not below 15 but NMT 20 years old only” shall appear on all labeling materials in
d. Not below 10 years but NMT 15
years old a. Capital letters
e. Not below 15 years but NMT 21 b. Capital letters against a red
years old background
c. Printed red font
243. Failure to properly record dangerous d. Capital letters in black ink
drugs as determined by the DDB is a drug e. B and C
outlet is a ground for
248. Which of the following activities in
a. Cancellation of professional license exclusive to pharmacists?
b. Suspension of LTO
c. Revocation of LTO a. Prepare, compound or manufacture,
d. Temporary closure preserve, store, distribute, procure,
e. Both A and B sell or dispense, or both any
pharmaceutical product or its raw
244. The standard blister pack/foil strip materials
packaging of a drug shall contain the b. Engage in teaching scientific,
following minimum information EXCEPT technical or professional pharmacy
courses in a school or college of
a. Batch number and expiration date pharmacy
on each unit for API c. Administer adult vaccines as
b. Dosage form and strength of API on approved by the Food and Drug
each unit for single API Administration (FDA) subject to the
c. Name of logo of the MAH training, certification and other
d. Product name on each unit for API requirements as provided in the IRR
or R.A. No. 10918
 d. A and B e. Plaster of Paris
e. A and C 255. The former president of the Philippines
who enunciated the National Drug Policy
249. A pharmaceutical product refilled in
containers bearing legitimate labels or a. Ferdinand E. Marcos
marks without authority b. Joseph E. Estrada
c. Gloria M. Arroyo
a. Adulterated products d. Corazon C. Aquino
b. Counterfeit pharmaceutical e. Fidel V. Ramos
products
c. Illegally imported products 256. Any person who shall violate R.A. 6675
d. Tampered products Sec 12 (a) for the first conviction shall suffer
e. Natural products the penalty of reprimand which shall be
officially recorded in the appropriate books
250. These are life-threatening situations of the ____
where a patient needs immediate medical
attention and treatment including the a. PRC
occurrence of epidemic or natural calamities b. BOP
c. DDB
a. Emergency cases d. DOH
b. Supernatural cases e. FDA
c. Crises
d. Urgent cases 257. Existing establishments that fail to file
e. Isolated cases an application for renewal after __ days from
the date of expiration shall be automatically
251. Patient information leaflet shall be cancelled and deleted from the list of
prepared and written in layman’s terms and licensed establishments without prejudice to
shall contain the following minimum their application
information EXCEPT
a. 180 days
a. Description of the product b. 120 days
b. What is the medicine c. 60 days
c. Strength of the medicine d. 30 days
d. Expiry date e. 15 days
e. ADR reporting
258. Example of Regulated drug listed under
252. The government agency which issues R.A. no. 9165
nation ID card and purchase slip booklet for
SCs a. LSD
b. Morphine
a. FDA c. Heroin
b. DOH d. Benzedrine
c. Mayor’s office e. Both B and D
d. DSWD
e. OSCA 259. Example of prohibited drug listed under
R.A. no 9165
253. Example of a medicinal device required
to be registered a. Dexedrine
b. Amobarbital
a. Cotton buds c. Phenobarbital
b. Toothbrushes d. Morphine
c. Tongue depressor e. Both A and D
d. Abdominal pads
e. Surgical caps (non-sterile) 260. In applying LTO for drugstore, the
credentials of identified pharmacist-in-
254. Example of diagnostic reagent required charge must be submitted. This include
to be registered
a. Valid PRC ID
a. Plaster bags for blood transfusion b. Certificate of attendance to
b. Skin traction kit appropriate FDA licensing seminar
c. Pregnancy test kits c. Registration letter of the pharmacist
d. Dental floss from previous employer (if any)
 d. A and C only b. Labeling material
e. All of these c. Brand name
261. Misrepresentation of any material fact in d. Product information
the application of LTO for a drug e. Label
establishment is a ground for 267. Pharmaceutical services of a duly
licensed pharmaceutical outlet done through
a. Cancellation of professional license the use of telephone, teleconferencing or
b. Suspension of LTO facsimile
c. Revocation of LTO
d. Temporary closure a. Pharmacoinformatics
e. Both A and C b. Telecommunication
c. E-counseling
262. Application requirements for renewal of d. Telepharmacy
LTO for drug manufacturer e. Patient counseling

a. Location plan 268. Violative prescription is one

b. Risk management plan
c. Site master plan
d. Copy of certification issued as a
result of LTO validation
e. Credentials of pharmacist
263. The FDA shall have the following
functions, powers, and duties EXCEPT
a. To analyzed and inspect health
products
b. To certify batches of antibiotics
c. To conduct appropriate test on all
health products
d. To issue cease and desist orders
motu propio or upon verified
complaint for health products
e. To obtain information from any
officer of the national or local
governments
a. Where generic name is not written
b. Where the brand names precedes
the generic name
c. Where the generic name is not
legible and a brand name which is
legible is written
d. Where the generic name is the one
in parenthesis
e. Both A and C
269. The component/s of NDP
a. Quality assurance of drugs
b. Rational use of drugs
c. National self-sufficiency in
pharmaceuticals
d. Rationalization of the DOH’s
procurement program
e. All of these

264. The ultimate objective of the PNDP is to 270. Erroneous prescription is

a. Ensure safe and effective drugs are a. With a phrase no substitution

made to available to all Filipinos b. Where generic name is not written
b. Provide high quality but expensive c. Where the brand name is not in
c. Provide reasonable and affordable parenthesis
cost of drugs d. Where the generic name is the one
d. Provide free consultation from the in parenthesis
physician e. Both C and D
e. Both A and C
271. Impossible prescription is
265. This is the S – license for physicians,
dentist and veterinarians a. When the drug product prescribed is
not registered with FDA
a. S–1 b. When only the generic name is
b. S–2 written but it is not legible
c. S–3 c. Where the brand name is not in
d. S–4 parenthesis
e. S–6 d. Where the generic name is the one
in parenthesis
266. A display of written, printed or graphic e. Both A and B
matter on the immediate container of any
article 272. The following subjects are classified as
Pharmaceutical sciences EXCEPT
a. Sticker
 a. Inorganic Pharm. Chem b. Professional Regulations
b. Pharmacognosy Commission
c. Legal pharmacy and ethics c. Philippine National Police
d. Microbiology d. Supreme Court
e. Physical pharmacy e. National Bureau of Investigation

273. The following establishments are
classified as Category A EXCEPT
a. Pharmaceutical laboratories
b. 3rd class municipal health units
c. St. Luke’s Medical center
d. 2nd class municipal health units
e. Non-traditional outlets
279. Which of the following is a ground for
reprimand, suspension or revocation of
registration certificate of pharmacist
a. Conviction by a court
b. Violation of the code of ethics
c. Fraud
d. Insanity
e. All of these

274. The following are the applicable “minor 280. Shall issue a license to operate (LTO) to
variations” to an approved LTO as drug iodized salt manufacturers and salt
distributor EXCEPT importers/distributors upon their compliance
with prescribed documentary and technical
a. Change of ownership requirements
b. Change of activity
c. Expansion of establishment a. FDA
d. Change of business name b. DOH
e. Zonal changes in address c. DTI
d. DENR
275. A retailer of narcotics much obtain S – e. DOST
license based on R.A. 9165
a. S – 1 281. One who produces, imports, trades
b. S – 2 and/or distributes salt ranging from more
c. S – 3 than two metric tons (2 MT) to three hundred
d. S – 4 metric tons (300 MT) per year
e. S – 5 – E
a. Small producers
276. The penalty of Illegal Chemical b. Subsistence producers
Diversion of Controlled Precursors and c. Medium producers
Essential Chemicals d. Large producers
e. None of these
a. Imprisonment of 12 years and 1 day
to 20 years 282. Which of the following persons is not
b. Life imprisonment to death practicing pharmacy?
c. Fine of php 500,000.00 to php 10M
d. Fine of php 100,000.00 to php a. Pharmaceutical marketing
500,000.00 b. Engage in teaching professional
e. A and D subjects of pharmacy
c. Preparation or manufacture of drugs
277. Accreditation of Drug Testing Centers d. Conduct pharmaceutical scientific
and Physicians under R.A. 9165 shall be research
done by e. None of these

a. DOH 283. A consumer product which present an

b. FDA unreasonable risk of death, serious illness or
c. DDB severe personal injury
d. PDEA
e. Forensic laboratory a. Immediate container
b. Imminently hazardous substance
278. If there is sufficient ground for a c. Irritant
reprimanding a pharmacist, administrative d. High toxic
investigations shall be conducted by the e. Hazardous substance
members of the
284. Mandated price ceiling may be imposed
a. Professional Regulatory Board of on any basic necessity or prime commodity
Pharmacy if any of the following condition so warrants
 290. R.A. 9994 indigent senior citizens refers
a. Impendency, existence, or effects of to any elderly who is
a calamity
b. The treat, existence or effect of an a. Frail
emergency b. Sickly
c. The supply available in the c. With disability
market d. Without pension or permanent
d. Impendency, existence or effects of source of income
a of any event that causes artificial e. All of these
and unreasonable increase in the
price of the basic necessity 291. DOH shall have the power to implement
e. The prevalence or widespread acts R.A. 9502. This includes
of illegal price manipulation a. Power to recommend the MRP of
drugs and medicines subject to
285. Drugs and medicines subject to price price regulation
regulation include b. Power to include other drugs and
medicines in the list subject to price
a. Vaccines regulation
b. Oral contraceptives c. Power to implement cost-
c. Anesthetics containment and other measures
d. Intravenous fluids d. Power to impose administrative
e. All of these fines and penalties
e. All of these
286. The national coordinating and
monitoring board of R.A. 9994 EXCEPT 292. Who shall take charge and have
custody of dangerous drugs confiscated or
a. DSWD seized?
b. NEDA
c. DILG a. DDB
d. DOJ b. DOJ
e. DOH c. FDA
d. PDEA
287. The vice chairperson of NCMB of R.A. e. DOH
no. 9994
293. This act shall be known as the
a. DSWD “Universally Accessible Cheaper and Quality
b. DILG Medicines Act of 2008”
c. DOJ
d. DOH a. R.A. 9502
e. DTI b. R.A. 9257
c. R.A. 6425
288. The chairman of price coordinating d. R.A. 9165
council of R.A. 7581 is the e. R.A. 7432

a. Secretary of trade and industry 294. Prohibited acts of R.A. no 8203

b. Secretary of agriculture EXCEPT
c. Secretary of health
d. Secretary of justice a. Possession of any such counterfeit
e. Secretary of local government drug
b. Forging, counterfeiting, simulating,
289. The OSCA shall be established in all representing without proper
cities and municipalities headed by a SC authority
who shall be appointed by the Mayor for the c. Photocopying, duplicating, altering,
term of transferring, removing approved
label
a. 3 years d. Marking, selling, distribution,
b. 5 years exporting, importing
c. 6 years pharmaceutical products
d. 7 years e. Availability of such counterfeit drugs
e. 9 years within the premises of any entity
engaged in sale, manufacture and
distributes drugs
 the referral registry and must be kept for a
295. A completion of refresher course is period of not less than _____
required when the examinee has failed __ in
the Pharmacists Licensure Examination a. 6 months
b. 12 months
a. One time c. 18 months
b. Two times d. 24 months
c. Three times e. 36 months
d. Four times
e. Five times

296. Possession of counterfeit drugs by

owners of trademark, trade names or
identity marks shall report in writing and turn
over the said counterfeit drugs to the FDA
within

a. 20 hours
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. 20 days
e. 16 hours

297. The penalty imposed upon any person

apprehended or arrested for the first time,
who is found to be positive for use of any
dangerous drug after a confirmatory test is

a. A minimum of 6 months
rehabilitation in a government
center
b. Imprisonment ranging from 6 years
and one day to twelve years
c. A fine of php 50,000 to php 200,00
d. A fine of php 500,000 to php 10M
e. Both B and C

298. In emergency cases where the services

of a registered pharmacist is not available
prescription drugs and pharmacist-only OTC
drugs may be dispensed, provided a report
to a supervising pharmacist shall be made
within ___ hrs.

a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 48
e. 56

299. Patients medication profiles must be

kept in the pharmacy for a period of not less
than

a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months
e. 36 months

300. Referrals undertaken by the

pharmaceutical outlets shall be recorded in