Physical Pharmacy

1. These are two factors that usually determine the state in which matter exists.
A. Intermolecular attraction and pressure
B. Temperature and pressure
C. Intermolecular forces and temperature
D. Fluidity and temperature
E. Both A and C

2. The general behavior of gasses with variations of pressure, volume and temperature can be given by the _____.
A. Boyle’s law equation
B. Charle’s law equation
C. Gat-Lucssac’s law equation
D. Ideal gas equation
E. Both A and B

3. It is value of R (gas constant) when P and V are expressed in dyne’s/cm2 and cm3 respectively.
A. 0.821 L.atm.mole-1 deg-1
B. 8.3214 x 107 ergs.mole-1deg-1
C. 83.214 x 105 ergs.mole-1deg-1
D. 08.21 L.atm.mole-1deg-1
E. None of the above

4. It is the temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied even if very high pressure is applied.
A. Critical temperature
B. Latent heat of vaporization
C. Latent heat fusion
D. Melting point
E. Either A or D

5. It is the pressure required to liquefy a gas at its critical temperature.

A. Critical pressure
B. Constant pressure
C. Equilibrium pressure
D. Polymorphic pressure
E. Both A and B
6. The critical temperature of water is ___.
A. Critical pressure
B. Constant pressure
C. Equilibrium pressure
D. Polymorphic pressure

7. The critical pressure of water is ____.

A. 200 atm.
B. 260 atm.
C. 218 atm.
D. 180 atm.
E. Both A and C

8. It is the most important property of the solid state.

A. The molecules of a solid are held together by weak bonds.
B. Solids have low melting point.
C. Solids have high degree of order.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

9. It is an example of solids which exists in tetragonal form.

A. Sodium chloride
B. Iodoform
C. Sucrose
D. Urea
E. All of the above
10. It is an example of solid which exists in triclinic form.
A. Urea
B. Boric acid
C. Iodine
D. Sucrose
E. All of the above

11. It is an example of solid which exists in rhombic form.

A. Iodine
B. Sodium chloride
C. Iodoform
D. Boric acid
E. All of the above

12. It is an example of solid which exists in monoclinic form.

A. Urea
B. Boric acid
C. odine
D. Sucrose
E. All of the above

13. It is an example of solid which exists in cubic form.

A. Iodine
B. Sodium chloride
C. Iodoform
B. Boric acid
E. All of the above

14. The following are example o amorphous solids except.

A. Glass
B. Woods
C. Plastics
D. Minerals
E. All of the above

15. The following are examples of crystalline solids except.

A. Metals
B. Glass
C. Rocks
D. Alloys
E. All of the above

16. It is the phenomenon where compounds exists in more than one crystalline and/or amorphous form.
A. Polymorph
B. Polymorphic form
C. Modification
D. Polymorphism
E. None of the above

17. The different crystalline/amorphous forms are known as _____.

A. Polymorphs
B. Polymorphic forms
C. Modification
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

18. The following are pharmacologically active polymorphic substance except.

A. sulfonamides
B. prednisone
C. chloramphenicol
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

19. Different polymorphic forms of a substance usually exhibit different.

A. X-ray diffraction patterns
B. Stability activity
C. Dissolution behavior
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

20. It is an organic compound which exhibits polymorphism.

A. Theobroma oil
B. Tristearin
C. Coconut oil
D. Both A or B
E. Neither A nor B

21. It is known as the liquid crystalline state of some asymmetric molecules.

A. Smectic
B. Mesophase
C. Nematic
D. Neither B nor C
E. None of the above

22. It is the third type of liquid crystals.

A. Nematic state
B. Smectic state
C. Cholesteric
D. Both A and C
E. None of the above

23. It is considered to be a non-conducting transparent solid which can neither be a typical liquid.
A. Plastic
B. Alloys
C. Cholesteric
D. Both A and C
E. All of the above

24. It is the process of the transformation of solids directly into the vapor phase without passing into the intermediate
liquid phase.
A. Evaporation
B. Condensation
C. Distillation
D. Sublimation
E. All of the above

25. It refers to the degree of molecular randomness of the materials.

A. Entropy
B. Enthalpy
C. Both A and B
D. Either A or B
E. None of the above

26. It is the heat which results in the change of matter without increasing the temperature.
A. Latent heat
B. Heat of fusion
C. Heat of vaporization
D. Heat of sublimation
E. Both A and B

27. It is the quantity of heat absorbed when a change of state from liquid to vapor occurs at its boiling point without
changing the temperature of the materials.
A. Latent heat of fusion
B. Latent heat of vaporization
C. Latent heat of evaporation
D. Latent heat of condensation
E. None of the above

28. This process occurs when a liquid is kept in a closed evacuated container and molecules from its surface
continuously leave and go into the free space above it.
A. Condensation
B. Evaporation
C. Vaporization
D. Distillation
E. None of the above

29. As the temperature is raised, the density of the vapor increases while that of liquid ______.
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Maintained
D. Critical
E. Both A and B

30. It is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the external or atmospheric pressure.
A. Boiling point
B. Melting point
C. Freezing point
D. Latent heat of vaporization
E. None of the above

31. It is the temperature at which a solid passes into liquid state under atmospheric pressure.
A. Latent heat
B. Freezing point
C. Melting point
D. Boiling point
E. Both A and B

32. The – log Ka is

A. pH
B. pOH
C. pKw
D. pKa
E. pKb

33. The following are substances that exhibit the phenomenon of sublimation except:
A. Camphor
B. Menthol
C. Naphthalene
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

34. The following are substances that when mixed in a particular proportion will tend to liquefy due to reduction in
their respective melting points except for:
A. Thymol
B. Phenol
C. Salol
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
35. It is the study of the fundamental and derived properties of individual as well as a collection of particles.
A. Micromeretics
B. Rheology
C. Kinetics
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
36. The physical properties of powder such as bulk density, porosity, and compressibility are dependent on the
_____:
A. Particle size
B. Particle shape
C. ize distribution
D. Both A and C
E. Both A and C
37. The following are factors that influence flow properties of powders except:

A. Particle size
B. Particle shape
C. Size distribution
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

38. Properties of drugs such as rate of absorption and hence the pharmacological activity depends on the ____:
A. Particle size
B. Particle shape
C. Size distribution
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

39. It is the diameter of a spherical powder particle having the same surface area as that of the asymmetric particle
in question.
A. Surface diameter
B. Volume diameter
C. Projected diameter
D. Stroke’s diameter
E. None of the above

40. It is the diameter of a spherical powder particle having the same volume as the asymmetric particle in question.
A. Surface diameter
B. Volume diameter
C. Projected diameter
D. Stroke’s diameter
E. None of the above
41. It is the diameter of a spherical powder particle having the same observed area as the asymmetric particle in
question when viewed normal to its most stable plain.
A. Surface diameter
B. Volume diameter
C. Projected diameter
D. Stroke’s diameter
E. None of the above

42. It refers to the diameter of a spherical powder particle with the same density as the asymmetric particle in
question and which undergoes sedimentation at the same rate as the asymmetric particle in a given fluid.
A. Surface diameter
B. Volume diameter
C. Projected diameter
D. Stroke’s diameter
E. None of the above

43. This method is used to quantify particle size distribution in a powder.

A. Microscopic technique
B. Sedimentation of sieving technique
C. Sieving technique
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

44. It is defined as the number of particles per unit weight of a powder.

A. Hatch – Choate’s number
B. Particle number
C. Edmunson’s number
D. Geometric mean number
E. All of the above

45. Optical microscopy is generally used for powder particle size measurement in the range of ____.
A. 0.2 nm to 100 nm
B. 0.2 µm to 100 µm
C. 0.2 mm to 100 mm
D. 0.2 cm to 100 cm
E. None of the above
46. This apparatus is generally used for the determination of particle size distribution by the sedimentation
technique.
A. Coulter counter
B. Poiseuille capillary
C. Andreaen pipette
D. Reynold’s cylinder
E. Either B or C

47. It is a popular instrument for measuring the powder particle volume.

A. Coulter counter
B. Poiseuille capillary
C. Andreasen pipette
D. Reynold’s cylinder
E. Either A or C

48. This method is used to determine the surface area of a powder directly.
A. Absorption method
B. Adsorption method
C. Air permeability method
D. Either B or C
E. Either A or C

49. This instrument is generally used for determination of surface area by gas absorption method.
A. Quantasorb
B. Fisher sizer
C. Ostwald’s U-tube capillary
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

50. This instrument is generally used for surface area determination by air permeability method.
A. Quantasorb
B. Fisher subsieve sizer
C. Ostwald’s U-tube capillary
D. Kozency Carman device
E. None of the above

51. It is defined as the ratio of the void volume to bulk volume of the powder packing.
A. True volume
B. Bulk density
C. Specific bulk volume
D. Porosity
E. All of the above

52. It is the method used to determine true density of a powder.

A. Liquid displacement method
B. Gas displacement method
C. Solid displacement method
D. Either A or C
E. Either B or C

53. It is the ratio of the mass of the granular powder and the volume occupied by the granular material together with
its intraparticle spaces.
A. True density
B. Granule density
C. Bulk density
D. Void density
E. Both B and C

54. It is defined as the ratio of the mass of the powder and its bulk volume.
A. True density
B. Granule density
C. Bulk density
D. Void density
E. Either B or C

55. The reciprocal of bulk density is known as the ____.

A. Bulk
B. Bulkiness
C. Specific bulk volume
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

56. It is defined as the maximum angle possible between the surface of a pile of powder and the horizontal plane.
A. Cosine of an angle
B. Cotangent of an angle
C. Sine of an angle
D. Angle of repose
E. Both A and C

57. The following statements are true about angle of repose of the powders except:
A. Angle of repose is a function of the surface roughness
B. As the particles become less and less spherical, the angle of repose increases and the bulk density and
flowability decreases.
C. The angle of repose increases with an increase in a particle size.
D. Addition of glidant decreases the angle of repose
E. None of the above

58. The following statements are true about angle of repose of the powders except:
A. Powders with angle of repose more than 50º have unsatisfactory flow properties
B. Powders with minimum angle close to 25 º correspond to very good flow properties.
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

59. It is used as a flow activator with a very high specific surface area which acts by reducing the bulk density of
tightly packed powders.
A. Magnesium stearate
B. Talc
C. Starch
D. Colloidal silicon dioxide
E. Both A and B

60. When one of the two phases of matter is a gas or vapor, the boundary between them is referred to as __.
A. Surface
B. Interface
C. Colloidal
D. Fluid
E. None of the above

61. It is defined as the surface area per unit volume or per unit weight.
A. Particle shape
B. Specific volume
C. Specific surface
D. Surface area
E. Both A and B

62. It is the force acting between two immiscible liquid phases.

A. Surface tension
B. Interfacial tension
C. Cohesional tension
D. Either A or b
E. Either A or C

63. There are forces which act between molecules of different phases.
A. Adhesional forces
B. Cohesional forces
C. Attractive forces
D. Either A or B
E. Neither A or C

64. This method is suitable for measuring the surface tension and not for interfacial tension.
A. Wilhelmy plate method
B. Ring detachment method
C. Capillary rise method
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

65. It occurs when the surface tension of the sublayer is greater than the sum of the surface tension of the
spreading liquid and the interfacial tension between the sublayer and the spreading liquid.
A. Cohesion
B. Adhesion
C. Spreading
D. Absorption
E. Both A and B

66. It is an alkyl sulfonate anionic surfactant:

A. Sodium lauryl sulfate
B. Triethanolamine lauryl sulfate
C. Potassium stearate
D. Disodium dioctyl sulfosuccinate
E. All of the above

67. It is cationic surfactant.

A. Cetrimide
B. Belzakonium chloride
C. Benzethonium chloride
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

68. N-dodecylalanine is an example of ___ surfactant.

A. Anionic
B. Cationic
C. Ampholytic
D. Nonionic
E. None of the above

69. Spans and tweens are examples of commonly used ___ surfactants.
A. Anionic
B. Cationic
C. Ampholytic
D. Nonionic
E. None of the above
]
70. Which of the following statements is/are true about surfactants with HBL values of between 3 and 6?
A. Hydrophilic
B. Form w/o emulsions
C. Form o/w emulsions
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above

71. Which of the following is /are true about surfactants with HBL values of 8 to 18?
A. Form o/w emulsions
B. Lipophilic
C. Form w/o emulsions
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

72. The following statements are true about ideal gas equation except:
A. The volume of gas is directly proportional to the pressure.
B. The volume of gas is directly proportional to the number of moles.
C. The volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure.
D. The volume of gas is directly proportional to the absolute temperature.
E. None of the above

73. It is a phenomena in which surfactants are use to the removal of foreign materials from solid surfaces.
A. CMC formation
B. Cloud point
C. Colligative effect
D. Detergency
E. Both A and B

74. The following are factors that affect critical micelleformation, except:
A. The molecular structure of the surface active agent
B. Effect of additives
C. Effect of temperature
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

75. An increase in the hydrocarbon chain length in the hydrophobic group of the surface active agent causes a
logarithmic ___ in the CMC at constant temperature.
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Equilibrium
D. None of the above

76. Increase in the number of hydrophilic groups increases the solubility of surface active agents causing a/an ___
in CMC.
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Equilibrium
D. None of the above

77. These are ions with charge opposite to that carried by the micelle.
A. Anions
B. Cations
C. Gegenions
D. Neutral ions
E. Either A or B

78. The CMC ___ on addition of simple electrolytes or salts.

A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains constant
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

79. The CMCs are ___ by the addition of alcohols.

A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Constant
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

80. Which non-ionic surfactants, an increase in the temperature causes a decrease In the CMC as the micellar size
is ___.
A. Increased
B. Decreases
C. Constant
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

81. It is an antimicrobial surfactant, chemically classified as quaternary ammonium compound.

A. Cetrimide
B. Benzalkonium chloride
C. either A or B
D. Neither A nor B

82. It is a naturally occuring surface active agent which is used as an emulsifying agent.
A. Acacia
B. Tragacanth
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

83. If a solid comes into can’t act with a gas or a liquid, there is an accumulation of the gas or liquid at the interface
rather than in the bulk of the solid. This phenomenon is known as ___.
A. Adsorption
B. Absorption
C. Interfacial tension
D. Surface tension
E. None of the above

84. It is also known as Van der Waals adsorption .

A. Physical adsorption
B. Chemical adsorption
C. Desorption
D. Chemisorptions
E. All of the above

85. This type of adsorption is characterized by low heats of adsorption, non-specific and reversible.
A. Chemical
B. Van der Waals
C. Physical
D. Both B and C
E. Both A and C
86. This type of adsorption involves a high heat of absorption highly specific and often irreversible.
A. Chemisorption
B. Chemical
C. Physical
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above

87. It is the opposite of adsorption.

A. Absorption
B. Porosity
C. Desorption
D. Either A or C
E. None of the above

88. Reduction of the particle size of adsorbent will result a/an ___ in the surface area and hence an increase in the
adsorption.
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Either A or B
D. Neither A nor B
E. All of the above

89. Most of the adsorption processes being exothermic, an increase in temperature will ___ the amount of
adsorption.
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. Either A or B
D. Neither A or B
E. Both A and B

90. It is defined as the science concerned with the deformation of matter under the influence of stress which may be
applied perpendicularly to the surface of a body.
A. Rheology
B. Newton’s law
C. Non-Newtonian
D. Fluidity
E. Both A and C
91. It is a spontaneous and reversible deformation.
A. Elastic
B. Plastic
C. Viscosity
D. Either B or C
E. None of the above

92. It is a permanent or irreversible deformation.

A. Elastic
B. Plastic
C. Either A or B
D. Neither A nor B
E. Both A and B

93. In Newton’s law of flow, this unit is defined as the shearing force required to maintain a relative velocity of 1
cm/sec. between two parallel planes, 1cm squared in area and 1cm apart.
A. Centipoise
B. Poise
C. Dyne.sec.cm -2
D. Both B and C
E. Both A and C

94. It is the reciprocal of viscosity.

A. Turbidity
B. Liquefied
C. Fluidity
D. Transparency
E. None of the above

95. The following solutions of suspending agents exhibit pseudoplastic flow, except
A. Gelatin
B Tragacanth
C. Carboxymethylcelluose
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

96. It is a phenomenon in which the material exhibits an increase in resistance to flow with increasing rate of shear.
A. Dilatancy
B. Thixotropy
C. Rheopexy
D. Hysteresis
E. None of the above

97. It is the process of reformation of the gel structure after it has been deformed which can be accelerated by
applying gentle and regular movements.
A. Hysteresis
B. Rheopexy
C. Thixotropy
D. Dilatancy
E. None of the above

98. Which of the following instruments is/are used for Newtonian Systems?
A. Capillary movements
B. Falling and rising body apparatus
C. Either A or B
D. Neither A nor B
E. All of the above

99. The following are examples of capillary viscometer, except:

A. Ostwald
B. Ubbelohde
C. Cannon-fenske
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

100. It is an example of the falling sphere viscometer.

A. Cup and Bob viscometer
B. Couette
C. Searle
D. Hoeppler ball
E. None of the above

101. It is an example of Searle type viscometer.

A. Stormer viscometer
B. Brookfield viscometer
C. MacMichael viscometer
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above

102. It is an example of Couette type viscometer.

A. Brookfield viscometer
B. MacMichael viscometer
C. Stormer viscometer
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above
103. It is an example of a rotational cone and plate viscometer.
A. Cup and Bob viscometer
B. Maxwell viscometer
C. Voigt viscometer
D. Ferranti-Shirley viscometer
E. None of the above

104. It is the property of materials wherein these exhibit both the viscous properties of liquids as well as the elastic
property of solids.
A. Fluidity
B. Elasticity
C. Plasticity
D. Viscoelasticity
E. All of the above

105. It is used to model a property of viscoelasticity known as stress relaxation which is the change in stress under a
constant strain as a function of time.
A. Maxwell element
B. Voigt element
C. Creep testing
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

106. It is useful in modeling the viscoelastic property known as Creep which is the change in strain under a constant
stress as a function of time.
A. Maxwell element
B. Voigt element
C. Creep testing
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

107. Which of the following gas laws relates volume and temperature at constant pressure?
A. Charle’s law
B. Boyle’s law
C. Newton’s law
D. Avogadro’s law
E. Ideal gas law

108. It is defined as a system in which the dispersed phase is distributed uniformly as particles throughout the
dispersion medium or continuous phase.
A. Colloidal dispersion
B. Coarse dispersion
C. Dispersed system
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above

109. The following are the different classifications of dispersed systems, except:
A. Molecular dispersions
B. Colloidal dispersions
C. Coarse dispersions
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

110. Which of the following is a type od colloidal dispersions?

A. Lyophilic colloids
B. Lyophobic colloids
C. Association colloids
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

111. These are the two general methods used in preparing lyophobic colloids.
A. Dispersion and condensation
B. Dispersion and evaporation
C. Dispersion and distillation
D. Dispersion and freezing
E. None of the above

112. It is a process of converting precipitates of large particle size to colloidal size by means of low concentration of
an electrolyte known as the peptizing agent.
A. Electrical dispersion
B. Ultrasonic dispersion
C. Peptization
D. Salting-out
E. None of the above

113. The following are general techniques applied for purification of colloids, except:
A. Electrodialysis
B. Ultrafiltration
C. Ultrasonic radiation
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

114. It is used in the technique of microelectrophoresis for measuring the particle charge.
A. Electron microscopy
B. Ultramicroscopy
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

115. It is a spontaneous process whereby solute molecules move from a region of higher concentration to one of
lower concentration until the concentration of the system becomes uniform throughout.
A. Brownian motion
B. Diffusion
C. Osmosis
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above

116. Which of the following substance most likely to exhibit London forces of attraction?
A. Carbon tetrachloride
B. Acetic acid
C. Salicylic acid
D. Alcohol
E. Calcium chloride

117. The following are examples of negatively charged colloidal particles, except:
A. Sulfur
B. Kaolin
C. Ferric oxide
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

118. The following are examples of positively charged colloidal particles, except:
A. Barium hydroxide
B. Ferric oxide
C. Arsenious sulfide
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

119. The particles in a colloid dispersion acquire charges from several sources mainly by _____.
A. Ionization
B. Adsorption
C. Absorption
D. Either A or B
E. Neither A nor B

120. It is the opposite of electrophoresis.

A. Electro-osmosis
B. Streaming potential
C. Sedimentation potential
D. Zeta potential
E. All of the above

121. This is the converse of electro-osmosis.

A. Electrophoresis
B. Steaming potential
C. Zeta potential
D. Sedimentation potential
E. None of the above

122. This is the potential difference set up between top to bottom of a suspension of solid particles in a liquid when
the particles settle under the influence of gravity.
A. Electrophoresis
B. Steaming potential
C. Zeta potential
D. Sedimentation potential
E. None of the above

123. These effects is due to the electrical gradient across the membrane and as a consequence, the charged drug
ions of the same charge as the macromolecules are driven to the opposite side of the membrane altering the
concentration of the ions.
A. Tyndall effects
B. Donnan effects
C. Coacervation effects
D. Brownian effects

124. When oppositely charged hydrophilic colloids are mixed, a colloids-rich layer separates which is called a
______.
A. Coacervation
B. Coacervate
C. Solvate
D. Precipitate
E. None of the above

125. The following are effects observed on mixing different colloids, except.
A. Coacervation formation
B. Sensitization
C. Mutual precipitation
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

126. According to this rule “the higher the velocity of the ion, the greater is the precipitating power”.
A. Schulz-Hardy rule
B. Derijaguin-Landan rule
C. Venwey-Overbeek rule
D. Either B and C
E. None of the above

127. A type of forces of attraction which involves the dispersion of charges to induce polarity between non polar
molecules.
A. Ion-dipole forces
B. Debye forces
C. London forces
D. Keesom forces
E. Dipole induced-dipole

128. Select the correct set of hofmeister series in decreasing order of precipitating power.
A. Iodide, bromide, nitrate, chloride, acetate, sulfate, tartrate, and citrate
B. Nitrate, bromide, iodide, citrate, tartrate, sulfate, acetate, and chloride
C. Chloride, iodide, acetate, bromide, sulfate, nitrate, citrate, and tartrate
D. Citrate, tartrate, sulfate, acetate, chloride, nitrate, bromide, and iodide
E. None of the above

129. Colloidal mercury is effective for the treatment of _______.

A. Syphilis
B. Tetanus
C. Measles
D. UTI
E. None of the above

130. It is a colloidal dispersion and is used as plasma substitute.

A. Mannitol injection
B. Dextran injection
C. Either A or B
D. Neither A nor B

131. Suspensions and emulsions are two types of _____ dispersion.

A. Colloidal
B. Coarse
C. Either A or B
D. Neither A nor B

132. According to this law, the rate of sedimentation of particles in a suspension may be reduced by decreasing the
particle size provided the particles are deflocculated.
A. Stoke’s law
B. Fick’s law
C. Henderson-hasselbalch’s law
D. Helmholtz law
E. None of the above

133. It is the ratio of the sedimentation volume of the flocculation suspension to the sedimentation volume of the
suspension when deflocculated.
A. Sedimentation volume
B. Degree of flocculation
C. Sedimentation parameter
D. Sedimentation tare
E. All of the above

134. This is generally the first step during the formulation of suspension.
A. Wetting of particles
B. Controlled flocculation
C. Rheological alteration
D. Emulsification
E. None of the above

135. They act as flocculating agents by reducing the electric barrier between the particles as evidenced by a
decrease in the zeta potential and the formation of a bridge between adjacent particles so as to loosely connected
floc.
A. Non-electrolytes
B. Electrolytes
C. Organic solvents
D. Inorganic solvents
E. All of the above
136. These are generally surfactants which lower the contract angle between the hydrophobic powder and the
vehicle and may give particles a charge leading to a deflocculated dispersion.
A. Suspending agents
B. Emulsifying agents
C. Wetting agents
D. Clathrete-formers
E. None of the above

137. Which of the following thickening agents is generally added to form structured vehicles which slow down the
rate of sedimentation.
A. Carboxymethylcellulose
B. Tragacanth
C. Xanthan gum
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
]
138. It is a system in which oil is the dispersed or dispersed or discontinuous phase and water is continuous phase.
A. Water-in-Oil emulsion
B. Oil-in-Water emulsion
C. Either A or B
D. Neither A nor B

139. The following are the identification tests used to determine the type of emulsion, except.
A. Dilution test
B. Conductivity test
C. Dye solubility test
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

140. Which of the following is the function of an emulsifying agent?

A. It reduces the interfacial tensions between the two phases.
B. It forms a stable interfacial film between the two phases
C. Either A or B
D. Neither A nor B

141. Tweens with high HLB values are soluble in water and lead to the formation of a/an _____ emulsion.
A. o/w
C. w/o
C. either A or B
D. neither A nor B

142. This is the property of crystals which the mesophase also posses characterized as the ability to let light pass
through and divide into two components with different velocities and refractive index.
A. Refraction
B. Polymorphism
C. Isomerism
D. Birefringence
E. Isotropic

143. H-bond is the interaction between a molecule containing a hydrogen atom and a strong electronegative atom
such as fluorine, oxygen and nitrogen. This is/are true statement regarding H-bond.
I. Strong than ionic bonds
II. Responsible for the formation of water molecules
III. Can be both occurring as an intermolecular and intramolecular force of attraction
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. III only

144. If solids weights 84.26 g in air and 89.84 g when immersed in water, what will be the specific gravity of the
solids.
A. 0.937
B. 0.950
C. 15.10
D. 16.10
E. 17.10

145. Which of the following statement (s) describes an amorphous solid?

I. This are supercooled liquids
II. Have faster rate of dissolution than crystalline solids
III. They don’t have a definite melting point
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III

146. This was the first recorded type of liquid crystals that was derived through the application of heat.
A. Sodium chloride
B. Calcium stearate
C. Cholesteryl benzoate
D. Sodium benzoate
E. Potassium acetate

147. A solution of sucrose (MW=342) is prepared by dissolving 0.5 g in enough water to make 100 g of solution, the
concentration of the said solution in % by weight is:
A. 1.0 %
B. 0.498 %
C. 0.25 %
D. 2.0 %
E. 2.2 %

148. A solution was prepared by dissolving 2 moles of solute in 8 moles of solvent. What is the total number of
moles of solution?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
E. 6

149. The following are examples of antimicrobial preservatives used to preserve emulsified systems, except:
A. Parahydroxybenzoate esters
B. Organic acids
C. Organic mercurial
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

150. The following are some of the commonly used antioxidants for emulsified systems, except:
A. Alkyl gallates
B. Butylated hydroxyanisole
C. Butylated hydroxytoluene
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

151. It is the ability of certain solutions to resist change in their pH upon addition of an acid or a base.
A. Buffer solution
B. Buffer action
C. Common ion effect
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above
152. These are solutions of compounds or mixtures of compounds which resist changes in their pH upon addition of
small quantiteis of acid or alkali.
A. Ionizing solutions
B. Buffer solutions
C. Electrolytes
D. Either A or B
E. None of the above

153. They usually consist of a mixture of a weak acid and one of its salt or a weak base and one of its salts.
A. Weak electrolytes
B. Buffer solutions
C. Strong electrolytes
D. Solvates
E. None of the above

154. Buffer capacity is also known as_____.

A. Buffer index
B. Buffer efficiency
C. Buffer coefficient
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

155. The following are factors that affect pH of buffer solution, except:
A. Temperature effects
B. Dilution effects
C. Salt effects
D. salt effects
E. None of the above

156. These are widely used in the field of pharmacy as ingredients in pharmaceutical formulations either to adjust
the pH of the product to that required for maximum stability or for maintaining the pH of the product within the
optimal physiological pH range.
A. Electrolytes
B. Isotonic solutions
C. Buffers
D. Any of the above
E. None of the above

157. Which of the following is a method used to determine the tonicity of solutions?
A. Colligative method
B. Haemolytic method
C. Cryoscopic method
D. Either of the above
E. None of the above

158. Which of the following electrolytes is uni-divalent?

A. Sodium citrate
B. Atropine sulfate
C. Sodium phenobarbital
D. Zinc chloride
E. None of the above

159. Which of the following electrolytes is uni-trivalent?

A. Sodium citrate
B. Aluminum chloride
C. Sodium sulfate
D. Boric acid
E. All of the above

160. The following non- electrolytes, except:

A. Sucrose
B. Camphor
C. Urea
D. None of the above
E. all of the above

161. The following are weak electrolytes, execept:

A. Boric acid
B. Boric acid
C. Cocaine
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

162. Which of the following is a tri-univalent electrolytes?

A. Sodium phosphate
B. Potassium borate
C. Magnesium sulphate
D. Aluminum chloride
E. All of the Above

163. The following are some methods generally followed for adjustment of tonicity, except:
A. Freezing point depression
B. White-Vincent’s method
C. Sprowl’s method
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

164. It is the modification of the White-Vincent method which uses tables listing the
volume (V) of isotonic solution that can be prepared by mixing 0.3 g of a drug in water.
A. Sprowl’s method
B. Freezing point depression method
C. Sodium chloride equivalent method
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

165. What is the general term used to express the solubility of 1 part of a given solute in 100 to 1000 parts of
solvent?
A. Slightly soluble
B. Very slightly soluble
C. Sparingly soluble
D. Practically insoluble
E. None of the above

166. What is the general term used to express the solubility of

1 part of a given solute in 1000 to 10,000 parts of solvent?
A. Slightly soluble
B. Very slightly soluble
C. Sparingly soluble
D. Practically insoluble
E. all of the above

167. What is the general term used to express the solubility of 1 part of a given solute in 30 to 100 parts of solvent?
A. Soluble
B. Freely soluble
C. Slightly soluble
D. Sparingly soluble
E. None of the above

168. What is the general term

used to express the solubility od 1 part of a given solute in 10 to 30 parts of solvent?
A. Sparingly soluble
B. Slightly soluble
C. Soluble
D. Freely soluble
E. None of the above

169. It is defined as the number of moles of solute dissolved in 1000 grams of solvent.
A. Molarity
B. Molality
C. Normality
D. Formality
E. None the above
170. It is defined as the number
of moles of solute dissolved in 1 liter of solution.
A. Normality
B. Molarity
C. Formality
D. Molality
E. None of the above

171. This law states that in a dilute solution, the mass of a gas which dissolves in given volume of a liquid at a
constant temperature is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas.
A. Raoult’s law
B. Graham’s law
C. Henry’s law
D. Dalton’s law
E. None of the above

172. Simple technique use for estimating flowability of powder

A. Ion-exchange
B. Optical
C. Angle of repose
D. Sieving
E. Bulk density

173. This process occurs due to more affinity between the solvent and the electrolyte or non-electrolyte than
between the solvent and the gas.
A. Salting-in
B. Salting-out
C. Clathrate formation
D. Crystal formation
E. None of the above

174. Solubility of a gas in a solvent is generally _____ by the addition of electrolytes or non-electrolytes.
A. Increased
B. Reduced
C. Maintained
D. Constant
E. None of the above
175. The following are examples of pharmaceutical solutions containing a liquid dissolved in another liquid, except:
A. Hydroalcoholic solutions
B. Aromatic waters
C. Elixirs
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

176. According to this law, at a definite temperature, the partial pressure component in a liquid mixture is equal to
vapor pressure in the pure state multiplied by the mole fraction of the component in the solution.
A. Henry’s law
B. Dalton’s law
C. Raoult’s law
D. Stokes law
E. All of the above
177. Surfactants that are used as solubilizing agents for a number of poorly soluble drugs generally have HLB
values of____.
A. 3-6
B. 7-9
C. 8-16
D. 13-16
E. 16-18

178. The following surfactants are generally used as solubilizing agents for a number of poorly soluble drugs,
except:
A. Sodium lauryl sulfate
B. Polysorbate-80
C. PEG-40-Castor oil (Cremophor)
D. None of the above
E. all of the above

179. This law states that the rate of diffusion of a solute molecule through a barrier is proportional to the
concentration gradient.
A. Stoke’s law
B. Fick’s first law
C. Fick’s second law
D. Noyes-Whitney law
E. None of the above
180. This law states that the change in concentration with respect to time at a particular region is proportional to
the change in the concentration gradient at that point in the system.
A. Fick’s first law
B. Fick’s second law
C. Stroke’s law
D. Henry’s law
E. None of the above

181. It is defined as the time required for a diffusion establish a uniform grain. Within the membrane that
separates the donor and receptor compartments.
A. Steady state diffusion time
B. Time lag
C. Quasi-stationary time
D. Logarithmic time
E. None of the above

182. It is defined as the process by which a solid state enters into solution when added to an appropriate solvent.
A. Diffusion
B. Disintegration
C. Deaggregation
D. Dissolution
E. None of the above

183. It refers to the rate at which the solid dissolves in a solvent.

A. Noyes-Whitney reaction
B. Disintegration rate
C. Dissolution rate
D. Absorption
E. None of the above

184. The following are factors that influence the rate of drug transport, except:
A. The physicochemical properties of drugs
B. The nature of the menbrane
C. The concentration of the drug across the membrane
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

185. This hypothesis states that the rate of passive transport of the weak acid or base is related to the concentration
of the drug that exist in the unionized form at the site of absorption.
A. pH partition
B. Henderson-Hasselbalch
C. pKa partition
D. ionized/unionized partition
E. All of the above

186. A substance containing two or more donor groups may combined with a metal to form a special type of
complex known as:
A. Channel lattice
B. Clathrates
C. Occlusion
D. Chelate
E. Inclusion

187. It is defined as the sum of the internal energy and the product of the pressure and volume of the system.
A. Enthalpy
B. Heat content
C. Heat capacity
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C

188. It is defined as the heat required to raised the temperature of 1 mole of a substance by 1 degree.
A. Heat content
B. Molar heat capacity
C. Enthalpy
D. Entropy
E. All of the above

189. It is defined as the heat required to raise the temperature of 1 mole of a substance by 1 degree.
A. Enthalpy
B. Entropy
C. The third law of
thermodynamics
D. Either A or B
E. None of the above
190. According to this law of thermodynamics, the entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance is zero at absolute
zero because the crystal arrangement shows the greatest orderliness at this temperature.
A. First law of thermodynamics
B. Second law of thermodynamics
C. Third law of thermodynamics
D. Any of the above
E. None of the above

191. They generally result from a donor-acceptor mechanism or Lewis acid-base reaction between two or more
different chemical constituents forming coordination compounds.
A. Chelates
B. Olefins
C. Aromatic compounds
D. Complexes
E. None of the above

192. A substance containing two or more donor groups may combine with a metal ion to form a complex known
as____.
A. Complex
B. Chelate
C. Ligand
D. Dentate
E. all of the above

193. This chelating agent has six points for attachment for the metal ion.
A. EDTA
B. 8-hydroxyquinoline
C. Ferrocene
D. Quinhydrone
E. All of the above

194. These are inclusion compounds in which a molecule of a “guest” compound gets entrapped within the cage like
structure formed by the association of several molecules of a “host” compound.
A. Channel lattice complexes
B. Clathrates
C. Intercalation compound
D. Any of the above
E. None of the above
195. The following are methods of analysis for stoichiometric ratio of ligand to metal or donor to acceptor and for
determining a quantitative expression for the stability constant for the complex formation, except:
A. Job’s method of continuous variation
B. By using dielectric constant
C. By using absorbance
D. pH titration method
E. All of the above

196. The following are some experimental methods used for the determination of protein binding, except:
A. Equilibrium dialysis
B. Ultrafiltration
C. Electrophoresis
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

197. When the rate of a reaction is directly proportional to the first power of the concentration of a single reactant,
the reaction is said to be of _____with respect to the single reactant.
A. Zero-order reaction
B. First-order reaction
C. Half-life
D. Any of the above
E. None of the above

198. Kb in the equation of colligative property is also known as:

A. Cryscopic constant
B. Dissociation constant
C. Ebbulioscopic constant
D. Freezing point constant
E. Tonicic constant

199. It is defined as a substance which increases or decreases the rate of a reaction without itself being altered
chemically.
A. Catalyst
B. Solvent
C. Surfactant
D. Antioxidant
E. None of the above
200. The following are drugs susceptible to ring hydrolysis, except:
A. Chlordiazepoxide
B. Cephalosporins
C. Nitrazepam
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

201. A buffer solution is composed of:

A. A strong acid and a strong base
B. A strong base and its salt
C. A strong acid and its salt
D. A weak acid and its salt
E. A weak base and a weak acid
202. This statement is true about the characteristic of semi-polar solvent.
A. Capable of solvating molecules and ions through dipole forces
B. May act as intermediate solvents to bring about miscibility
C. Unable to break covalent bonds and ionize weak electrolytes
D. Able to form hydrogen bridges
E. Can dissolve non polar solutes with similar internal pressures through induced dipole interactions.

203. A solution of sucrose (MW=342) is prepared by dissolving 0.5 grams in enough water to make 100 grams of
solution, the concentration of the said solution in % by weight is:
A. 1.0%
B. 0.498%
C. 0.25%
D. 2.0%
E. 3.0%

204. This can be defined as the magnitude of the resistance of a buffer to resist pH changes.
I. Buffer capacity
II. Buffer index
III. Buffer efficiency
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III
E. I,II, and III

205. Which of the given statement is/are the best description of crystalline solids?
I. They show definite and sharp melting points
II. They are made of structural units arranged in a loose
III. The crystalline solids are compressible unlike gases and liquids
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I, II, and III

206. How much NaCl is needed to adjust the folllowing prescription to isotonicity?
Rx
Zinc sulphate 1% E=0.15
NaCl
Purified water q.s. 60%
A. 0.60 g
B. 0.54 g
C. 0.75 g
D. 0.45 g
E. 0.50 g

207. A liquid whose viscosity is increase when stress is applied classified as which of the following materials?
A. Newtonian flow
B. Plastic
C. Dilatant
D. Pseudoplastic
E. Thixotrophy

208. An optical property of sols wherein there is a scattering of light in all direction in space.
A. Electrophoresis
B. Colloidal effect
C. Brownian movement
D. Eluatriation
E. Tyndall effect
209. What is the pH of a buffer solution containing 0.15 moles each of acetic acid and sodium acetate in a liter of the
buffer solution if the Ka of acetic acid is 1.75x 10.
A. 3.5
B. 4.76
C. 4.0
D. 3.6
E. 3.0

210. Sodium Chloride equivalent are used to estimated the amount of NaCl needed to render a solution isotonic.
The E may be defined as:
A. Amount of NaCl that is theoretically equivalent to1gm of specified chemical
B. Equivalent NaCl which is enough to make it a normal solution
C. Equivalent NaCl is enough to make an ophthalmic solution
D. Equivalent NaCl to resemble the isotonicity of blood
E. None of the above

211. The reaction that cause degradation of drug molecules by normal sunlight or room light is called…
A. Oxidation
B. Shelf-life
C. Reaction rate
D. Photolysis
E. Hydrolysis

212. The highest vapor pressure that liquid ca have which is also the for per unit area required to liquefy a gas at
critical temperature.
A. Viscosity
B. Surface tension
C. Critical pressure
D. Vapor pressure
E. Critical pressur

213. These are certain number of ions that are attracted to the surface of the micelle, reducing the overall negative
charge.
A. Anions
B. Cationic
C. Nonionic
D. Gegenions
E. Zwitterionic
214. The movement of a charged particle through a liquid under the influence of an applied potential difference.
A. Streaming potential
B. Electrophoresis
C. Sedimentation potential
D. Brownian movement
E. Tyndall-effect

215. These are submicroscopic colloidal drug carrier systems composed of an oily or an aqueous core surrounded
by a thin polymer membrane.
A. Micelles
B. Liposomes
C. Nanoparticles
D. Nanocrystals
E. Microemulsions

216. These are long-chain high-molecular-weight compounds containing active groups spaced along their length.
A. Polymer
B. Surfactants
C. Structured vehicles
D. Flocculated particles
E. Non of the above

217. The simplest type of non-Newtonian behavior in which the cure is linear only at values of F beyond its yielding
value.
A. Thixotropic
B. Plastic
C. Dilatant
D. Pseudoplastic
E. Rheograms

218. What is the pH of a buffer solution if 0.00035 moles of strong acid is added to a liter of the buffer solution?
A. 3.60
B. 3.52
C. 3.46
D. 3.35
E. 3.55
219. What is the pH of a weak acid that has a Ka=2.35x 10 -4 if the acid and the salt at equilibrium are 2.45x 10-4
and 1.24 x 10 -7 respectively?
A. 3.63
B. 0.334
C. 0.274
D. 6.93
E.0.36

220. What approximate ratio of acid and salt is required if one desires to adjust a solution to pH 8.8 by the use of a
boric acid-sodium borate buffer?
A. 1:0.36
B. 1:0.40
C. 1:36
D. 1:40

221. What is the pH of a solution containing 0.1 mole of ephedrine and 0.01 mole of ephedrine hydrochloride per
liter of solutions?
A. 11.36
B. 10.36
C. 9.39
D. 8.47
E. 7.59

222. What do you call those polyethylene crystallized from a thin film of melt of synthetic polymers often produces
polycrystalline aggregates?
A. Microcrystalline cellulose
B. Spherulites
C. Crystallites
D. Entropies
E. None of the above

223. This form of colloidal sols are unstable in the presence of even small concentrations of electrolytes, due
t0neutralization of the charge on the particles.
A. Lyophilic
B. Lyophobic
C. Amphiphilic
D. Assocation
E. Zwitterionic
224. It is considered as the most pharmaceutical significance structured of liquid crystal because it is this phase that
usually forms in ternary mixtures containing a surfactants.
A. Smectic mesophase
B. Nematic mesophase
C. Cholesteric mesophase
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

225. The highest vapor pressure that the liquid can have which is also the force per unit area required to liquefy a
gas at critical temperature.
A. Critical temperature
B. Critical pressure
C. Surface tension
D. Vapor pressure
E. Specific gravity
226. The first recorded observation of a thermotropic liquid crystal which was made by Reinitizer in 1888.
A. Chloroform
B. Sodium benzoate
C. Cholesteryl benzoate
D. Theobromine
E. Sodium chloride

227. A method that is typically performed as a potentiometric titration commonly used to determine the amount of
water associated with a solid material.
A. Thermomechanical analysis
B. Karl Fisher analysis
C. Thermogravimetric analysis
D. Titration analysis
E. All of the above

228. If the direction of change from one polymorpic form to another involves one direction, this is said to be…
A. Monotropic
B. Anisotropic
C. Isotropic
D. Enantiotropic
E. Polymorphic
229. Crystals showing different characteristics in various direction along the crystal lattice are said to be…
A. Monotropic
B. Anisotropic
C. Isotropic
D. Enantiotropic
E. Polymorphic

230. This is used for relating the effect of the least number of independent variable (T,P and conc) upon various
phases that can exist in an equilibrium system containing a given number of components.
A. Newton’s Law
B. Le Chatellier’ principles
C. Avogadro’s principle
D. Gibb’s phase Rule
E. Dalton’s law

231. H-bond is the interaction between a molecule containing a hydrogen atom and a strongly electronegative atom
such as fluorine, oxygen and nitrogen. This is/are true statements regarding H-bond.
I. Can be both occuring as an intermolecular and intramolecular forces of attraction
II. Stronger than ionic bond
III. Responsible for the formation of water molecule
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. II and III only

232. Which of the following statement(s) describe an Amorphous solid?

I. Have faster rate of dissolution that crystalline solids
II. They are supercooled liquids
III. They don’t have a definite melting
point
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III only
E. I,II and III
233. These are forms of liquid crystals obtained from the application of sufficient heat on solids to form the
mesophase.
A. Nematic
B. Smectic
C. Cholesteric
D.Lyoptropic
E. Thermotropic

234. The units that constitute the crystal structure can be atoms, molecules odd ions which of the following
substance (s) is /are crystal formation made of atom?
I. Diamonds and graphite
II. Solid carbon dioxide and naphthalene
III. Sodium chloride
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. I,II, and III

235. The lowest possible temperature in melting cacao butter so as not to destroy the crystal nuclie of the stable
beta form.
A. 30 C
B. 32 C
C. 33 C
D. 35 C
E. 37 C

236. Sucrose possess this type of crystal formation.

A. Cubic
B. Hexagonal
C. Triclinic
D. Monoclinic
E. Rhombic

237. This represent the number of homogenous, physically district portion of a system that I separated from other
portion of the system by bounding surfaces.
A. Number of phases
B. Number of components
C. Number of intermediates
D. Number of degrees of freedom
E. None of the above

238. The least number of intensive variables that must be fixed to describe the system completely.
A. Number of phases
B. Number of components
C. Number of intermediates
D. Number of degrees of freedom
E. None of the above

239. What is the degree of freedom for a system containing water in equilibrium with it vapors.
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

240. What will be the degrees of freedom of the system? Assuming that we have a system wherein ice, water
vapor are in equilibrium.
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

241. This define as the mixture of two or more components that form a Homogenous molecular dispersion.
A. System
B. True solution
C. Binary solution
D. Phase
E. All of the above

242. This property of solution are dependent on the arrangement and to a lesser extent on the number and kind of
atoms within the molecules.
A. Additive
B. Constitutive
C. Colligative
D. Intensive
E. All of the above

243. Which of the following is/are the least properties of colligative.

I. Osmotic pressure elevation
II. Freezing point elevation
III. Vapor pressure lowering
A. I only
B. I only
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, and III

244. An aqueous solution of exsiccated ferrous sulfate was prepared by adding 41.50 g of FeSO4 to enough water
to marker 1000 mL of solution at 18 C. Molecular weight of ferrous sulphate is 151.9. Calculate is Molarity.
A. 0.302 M
B. 0.283 M
C. 0.273 M
D. 0.345 M
E. 0.367 M

245.Calculate the Molality of Ferrous sulfhate which are prepared by adding 41.50g of FeSO4 to enough water to
make 1000 mL of solution at 18 C. The density of the solution is 1.0375 and the molecular weight of ferrous
sulphate is 151.9
A. 0.2843 m
B. 0.2756 m
C. 0.2890 m
D. 0.2743
E. 0.2967 m

246.Process of reducing the particle size of a solid substances to a finer state of subdivision.
A. Comminution
B. Levigation
C. Blending
D. Sieving
E. Spatulation
247.Refers to the amount of solute that can be dissolved in a given amount of solvent to form a saturated solution at
a specific temperature.
A. Dissolution
B. Solubility
C. Upper Consolute temperature
D. Critical Solution temperature
E. Lower Consolute temperature

248. One gram of a solute required 25mL of a solvent. What is the approximate solubility of the solute in the given
solvent?
A. Freely soluble
B. Very soluble
C. Soluble
D. Sparingly soluble
E. slightly soluble
249. Defined as the ratio of the moles of one constituent of a solution to the total moles of all constituents.
A. Molarity
B. Normality
C. Molality
D. Mole fraction
E. Mole percent

250. The addition of a non-electrolytes solute to a pure solvent cause a/an:

A. Increase in vapor pressure
B. Lowering in the boiling point
C. Elevation of the freezing point
D. freezing point constant
E. All of the above

251. Kb in the equation of colligative property is also known as:

A. Cryoscopic constant
B. Dissociation constant
C. Ebbulioscopic constant
D. Freezing point constant
E. All of the above
252. These are weak acids and weak bases which act as buffers and exhibits color changes as their degree of
dissociation varies with pH.
A. Bases
B. Acids
C. Arrhenius acid
D. Indicators
E. Buffer capacity

253. What is the pH of a solution containing 0.10 mole of ephedrine and 0.01 mole of ephedrine hydrochloride per
liter of solution? The pka of ephedrine is 4.64.
A. 9.36
B. 8.75
C. 7.90
D. 10.36
E. 10.68

254 .What is the molar ratio of Salt/ acids, required to prepare an acetate buffer of pH 5.0? The pka value is 4.76.
A. 0.24
B. 1.24
C. 1.74
D. 1.80
E. 1.95

255. The mole fraction of salt in the salt-acid mixture is 1.74/1. Calculation the mole fraction of salt in percentage if
the pH is 5.0 and the pka value is 4.76.
A. 36.5%
B. 45.7%
C. 50.5%
D. 63.5%
E. 73.5%

256. The pkb of pilocarpine is 7.15 at 25 C. Compute the mole percent of free base present at 25 C and at a pH of
7.4.
A. 90%
B. 87%
C. 78%
D. 67%
E. 58%
257. Calculate the amount of water needed to make the solution isotonic:
Rx
Phenacaine hydrochloride 0.60g (E=0.20)
Boric acid 0.30g (E=0.50)
Distilled water enough to make 100.0mL
A. 30mL
B. 28mL
C. 18mL
D.12mL
E. 9mL

258. Which of the following solvents is/are the least consider as protophilic?
A. Acetone
B. Ether
C. Alcohol
D. Ammonia
E. All of the above

259. This is/are true generalization/s in the Gibbs’ phase rule for a single-component system:
I. The number of the degrees of freedom increases with the increase in the number of components
II. It is necessary to fix more variable as the system becomes more complex
III. The number of the degrees of freedom decreases with the increase in the number of particles.

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III

260. These are systems where in only the solid and liquid states are considered and the vapor state is ignored.
A. Conservative system
B. Condensed system
C. Solid-Liquid system
D. Binary system
E. Bivariant system

261. These are solutions of the same osmotic pressure.

A. Isotonic
B. Isosmotic
C. Hypertonic
D. Hypotonic
E. Cryoscopic

262. These are surfactants that are use for the removal of dirt.
A. Anti-foaming
B. Detergent
C. Wetting agents
D. w/o agents
E. o/w agents

263. A colloidal system composed of inorganic particles.

A. Lyophilic
B. Lyophobic
C. Amphiphiles
D. Association
E. None of the above

264. Surfactants having an HLB value of 3-6.

A. o/w agents
B. w/o agents
C. wetting agents
D. Solubilizing agents
E. Detergents

265. Process of forming a light, fluffy conglomerates that are held together by weak Van der Waals forces.
A. Coalescence
B. Flocculation
C. Floc
D. Coalesce
E. All of the above

266. Which of the following given is the least exhibit by the liquid substance with high vapor pressure?
A. Low viscosity
B. Capillary action
C. Low boiling point
D. Low freezing point
E. High boiling point

267. A type of forces of attraction which involves the dispersion of charges to induce polarity between non-polar
molecules.
A. Debye forces
B. London forces
C. Keesom forces
D. Ion-induce dipole forces
E. Ion dipole forces

268. Crystal showing different characteristic in various direction along the lattice are said to be:
A. Monotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Enantiotropic
D. Anisotropic
E. None of the above

269. The temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the external or atmospheric pressure is
said to be:
A. Boiling point
B. Freezing point
C. Surface tension
D. Viscosity
E. Fluidity

270. The vapor pressure of a liquid:

A. Is equal to atmospheric pressure at liquid boiling point
B. Decreases with an increase in temperature
C. Is independent of temperature
D. Increase when a solute is added to the liquid
E. All of the above

271. Which of the following is the least application in liquefying gases?

A. Apply pressure
B. Increase the temperature
C. Condensation
D. Lowering temperature
E. all of the above

272. These are compounds which are also known as pseudopolymorphs

A. Solvates
B. Amorphous solid
C. Isomers
D. Lattices
E. Liquid crystals

273. What is the crystal lattice formation of NaCl?

A. Cubic
B. Hexagonal
C. Rhombic
D. Triclinic
E. Liquid crystals

274. Which of the following Statement/s describe the fourth state of matter?
I . Properties of which are intermediate between liquid and solid state
II. It will flow if sufficient pressure is applied
III. They are also known as the mesophases
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. I and III
E. I, II, and III

275. Pharmacy official temperature for specific gravity determination.

A. 100 C
B. 30 C
C. 25 C
D. 4C
E. 0C

276. Standard condition refer to:

A.T=25 C, P=760mmHg.
B. T=0 K, P= 1atm
C. T=273 C, P=1 atm
D. T=100C,P= 760mgHg
E. T=100C

277. Which of the following statement is the least exhibit by liquid substances with high vapor pressure?
A. Low boiling point
B. Capillary action attraction between its molecules
C. Low Viscosity
D. Weak intermolecular forces of attraction between its molecules
E. None of the above

278. The following substances contain alcohol which has the least melting point?
A. n-butyl alcohol
B. Isobutyl alcohol
C. Sec-butyl alcohol
D. Tert-butyl alcohol
E. Butyl alcohol

279. A solution was prepared by dissolving 2 moles of solute in 8 moles of solvent. What is the total number of
moles of solution?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 10
D. Can’t be determined
E. None of the above

280. Amount by which substance decrease the electrostatic force between two charge bodies.
A. Aprotic
B. Protic
C. Dipole moment
D. Dielectric constant
E. Amphiprotic
281. Liberation of gases from solution in which they are dissolved upon addition of an electrolytes or non-
electrolytes.
A. Salting-in
B. Salting-out
C. Branching out
D. Hydrogen bonding
E. Ionization
282. This is also known as the magnitude of the resistance of a buffer to resist pH changes.
I. Buffer capacity
II. Buffer index
III. Buffer efficiency
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III

283. The most influential factor that explain the solubility of solute in water.
A. Ability
B. Polarity
C. Contain high dielectric constant
D. Ability to form hydrogen bonding
E. High dipole moment

284 .An example of a tetragonal crystal system is:

A. Iodine
B. Iodoform
C. Sodium chloride
D. Urea
E. Boric acid

285. Process of separating colloidal particles and macromolecules is known as:

A. Microfiltration
B. Diffusion
C. Dialysis
D. Osmosis
E. Ultrafiltration

286. Surfactants are characterized by:

A. Water solubilizing group
B. Fat and water solubilizing group
C. Positive charges
D. Fat Solubilizing group
E. Negative charges

287. Which of the following given is least consider as surfactant?

A. Mr. Clean
B. Tide
C. NaOH
D. Breeze
E. Tween 20

288. Which of the following substances is the least use as chelating agent?
A. EDTA
B. Ammonia
C. Tartrates
D. Citric acid
E. None of the above

289. A liquid whose viscosity is increase when stress is applied, classified as which of the following:
A. Newtonian flow
B. Dilatant flow
C. Plastic Flow
D. Pseudoplastic flow
E. Non-Newtonian flow

290. The upward movement of dispersed droplets relative to the continuous phase.
A. Sedimentation
B. Aggregation
C. Creaming
D. Coalescene
E. Setting
291. The nature shrinking of gel caused by coarsening of the matrix.
A. Bleeding
B. Swelling
C. Imbibition
D. Syneresis
E. Inhibition

292. The taking up of the liquid by a gel without the significant change in its volume.
A. Bleeding
B. Swelling
C. Imbibition
D. Syneresis
E. Inhibition

293. The liberation of oil or water from ointment base resulting from a deficient gel structure.
A. Bleeding
B. Swelling
C. Imbibition
D. Syneresis
E. Inhibition

294. These are cyclic oligomers of glucose that can form water –soluble inclusion complexes with small molecules
and portion of large compounds.
A. Polymer complexes
B. Quinhydrone complexes
C. Cyclodextrins
D. Picric acid complexes
E. Olefins complexes

295. A test is used for drug product to assess the effect of severe conditions on the drug product.
A. Accelerated stability testing
B. Stress testing
C. Shelf-life testing
D. Photodegradation testing
E. None of the above
296. A hydrogen ion concentration of 1.75x10 -5 (pH-4.76), what is the capacity of a Buffer containing 0.10 mole
each of acetic acid and sodium acetate per liter of solution? The total concentration, C=[acid]+[Salt].Is 0.20 mole/
liter, and to dissociation constant is 1.75x10 -5.
A. 0.130
B. 0.120
C. 0.115
D. 0.090
E. 0.760

297. Calculate the final vapor pressure when 0.5 mole of sucrose is added to 1000g of water at 20 C. The vapor
pressure of water at 20 C is 17.54 mm. The vapor pressure lowering of the solution is 0.16 mm.
A. 0.16mm
B. 0.20mm
C. 11.22mm
D. 15.64mm
E. 17.38mm

298. These are structures similar to liposomes, but do not have an inner compartment and can be used as water –
soluble biocompatible microcontainers for the delivery of poorly soluble hydrophobic pharmaceuticals.
A. Nanoparticles
B. Nanocrystals
C. Liposomes
D. Micles
E. Microparticles
299. An electrokinetic phenomena that involved the application of a potential cause a charged particles to move
relative to the liquid, which is stationary. It is also used for obtaining the zeta potential by determining the rate of
flow of liquid through the plug under standard conditions.
A. Sedementation potential
B. Electroosmosis
C. Electrophoresis
D. Streaming potential
E. Creaming potential
300. A force per unit length exiting at the interface between two immiscible liquid phases and has a units of
dynes/cm.
A. Surface tension
B. Interfacilitasion
C. Interfaces
D. Plastic tension
E. None of the above