Quantum Harmonic Oscillator

with Ladder Operators

Kenneth Taliaferro
January 29, 2010

In Quantum Mecahnics, the state of a particle ∫is given by a complex

valued function Ψ of postion x and time t such that |Ψ(x, t)|2 dx = 1.
I’m looking for a solution Ψ to the Schrödinger Equation

∂Ψ p2 Ψ
ih̄ = +VΨ
∂t 2m
where h̄, k, and m are constants and
∂
p = −ih̄ (momentum operator)
∂x
1
V = kx2 (potential energy operator)
2

After separation of variables (Ψ(x, t) = ψ(x)ϕ(t)), this boils down to the

eigenvalue problem of finding twice differentiable functions ψ in L2 (R) such
that
Hψ = Eψ
where
1 2 mω 2 2
H= p + x (right side of Schrödinger equation)
2m
√ 2
k
ω=
m

1
 x is self adjoint because, for f, g ∈ D(x) ⊂ L2 (R),
∫
⟨xf, g⟩ = xf (x)g(x)dx
∫
= f (x)xg(x)dx
= ⟨f, xg⟩.

By integration by parts, p is self-adjoint. Moreover, by the product rule,

[x, p] := xp − px = ih̄.
Define the ladder operators
√ ( )
mω i
a+ = x− p (raising operator)
2h̄ mω
√ ( )
mω i
a− = x+ p (lowering operator)
2h̄ mω

Then a+ and a− are adjoints of each other. Using the fact that [x, p] = ih̄,
it is straightforward to show that

[a− , a+ ] = 1 (1)
h̄ω
H= (2a+ a− + 1) (2)
2
[H, a+ ] = h̄ωa+

Suppose that ψ is an eigenfunction of H with eigenvalue E. Then

Ha+ ψ = (Ha+ − a+ H + a+ H)ψ

= ([H, a+ ] + a+ H)ψ
= (h̄ωa+ + a+ E)ψ
= (h̄ω + E)a+ ψ

i.e. a+ ψ (if nonzero) is an eigenfunction with eigenvalue E + h̄ω. Similarly,

a− ψ (if nonzero) is an eigenfunction with eigenvalue E − h̄ω. This is why a+
and a− are called the raising and lowering operators.

Lemma 1: The only possible eigenvalues of H are h̄ω(n+ 12 ), n = 0, 1, 2, 3, ...

2
 Proof: Use the raising and lowering operators. See the last page of this
document or [3], page 594.

Let E0 be the smallest eigenvalue of H. Let ψ0 be a corresponding nor-

malized eigenfunction. Then
a− ψ0 = 0 (3)
because otherwise a− ψ0 would be an eigenfunction with eigenvalue E − h̄ω <
E0 . Thus, by (2),
0 = h̄ωa+ a− ψ0
( )
h̄ω
= H− ψ0
2
( )
h̄ω
= E0 − ψ0
2

so E0 = h̄ω
2
. An eigenfunction with eigenvalue En = (n + 12 )h̄ω is given by
a+ ψ0 (if a+ ψ0 ̸= 0). Let ψn be a corresponding normalized eigenfunction
n n

with eigenvalue En . Then, for some constant Cn+1 ,

ψn+1 = Cn+1 a+ ψn .
But,
1 = ⟨ψn+1 , ψn+1 ⟩
= |Cn+1 |2 ⟨a+ ψn , a+ ψn ⟩
= |Cn+1 |2 ⟨ψn , a− a+ ψn ⟩
( )
H 1
= |Cn+1 | ⟨ψn ,
2
+ ψn ⟩
h̄ω 2
( )
(n + 12 )h̄ω 1
= |Cn+1 | ⟨ψn ,
2
+ ψn ⟩
h̄ω 2

so
Cn+1 = (n + 1)−1/2 .
It follows that √
a+ ψn = n + 1ψn+1 . (4)
Similarly, √
a− ψn = nψn−1 . (5)

3
Therefore
1
ψn = √ an+ ψ0 . (6)
n!
This is sufficient for computing expectation values of powers of x and p
of the eigenfunctions because
√
h̄
x= (a+ + a− )
√2mω
h̄mω
p=i (a+ − a− )
2
For example, since eigenfunctions of a self-adjoint operator corresponding
to different eigenvalues are orthogonal and [a− , a+ ] = 1, the expectation value
of x2 on the state ψn is given by
( )
h̄
⟨ψn , x ψn ⟩ = ⟨ψn ,
2
(a+ + a− )(a+ + a− )ψn ⟩
2mω
h̄
= ⟨ψn , (a2+ + a2− + a+ a− + a− a+ )ψn ⟩
2mω
h̄
= ⟨ψn , (a2+ + a2− + a+ a− + (a+ a− − a+ a− ) + a− a+ )ψn ⟩
2mω
h̄
= ⟨ψn , (a2+ + a2− + 2a+ a− + 1)ψn ⟩
2mω
h̄
= ⟨ψn , (2n + 1)ψn ⟩
2mω
h̄
= (2n + 1)
2mω

√ ψ0 can be found explicitly by solving the separable ODE (3). Let α =

mω/h̄. In terms of the variable y = αx, (3) says
( )
d
y+ ψ0 (y) = 0
dy
For any constant N0 , a solution is

ψ0 (y) = N0 e−y
2 /2
.

i.e.
ψ0 (x) = N0 e−α
2 x2 /2
.

4
By (6),
( )1/2
α
e−α
2 x2 /2
ψn (x) = √ n Hn (αx)
π2 n!
where Hn is the Hermite polynomial of order n. By separation of variables,

Ψn (x, t) = e(−iEn /h̄)t ψn (x).

Since the position distribution |Ψn |2 doesn’t depend on time, these are called
stationary states.

References
[1] Agnolet, G. Physics 412 Lecture Notes.

[2] Bransden, B.H. and C.J. Joachain. Quantum Mechanics.

[3] Kreyszig, E. Introductory Functional Analysis with Applications.

5
 Proof of Lemma 1: As derived earlier,

[a− , a+ ] = 1 (7)
h̄ω
H= (2a+ a− + 1) (8)
2
[H, a+ ] = h̄ωa+

Suppose ψ is an eigenfunction of H with eigenvalue E. Let

E 1
Ẽ = − . (9)
h̄ω 2
Then, by (8),
a+ a− ψ = Ẽψ.
Applying a− to each side,

a− a+ (a− ψ) = Ẽ(a− ψ).

By (7), a− a+ = a+ a− + 1, so

a+ a− (a− ψ) = (Ẽ − 1)a− ψ.

Repeating the last two steps j − 1 times yields

a+ a− (aj− ψ) = (Ẽ − j)aj− ψ. (10)

Now aj− ψ = 0 for sufficiently large j; because, otherwise, by (10),

⟨aj+1
− ψ, a− ψ⟩ = ⟨a+ a− (a− ψ), a− ψ⟩
j+1 j j

= (Ẽ − j)⟨aj− ψ, aj− ψ⟩

i.e.
∥aj+1
− ψ∥
2
Ẽ − j = ≥0 (11)
∥aj− ψ∥2

− ψ = 0. By (11), Ẽ −n = 0.
for all j. Thus ∃n ∈ N such that an− ψ ̸= 0 but an+1
By (9), ( )
1
E = h̄ω n + for some n ∈ {0, 1, 2, 3, ...}.
2