Chemical Engineering Reviewer Edited PDF Free

CHEMICAL
ENGINEERING
REVIEWER
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING REVIEW
DIAGNOSTIC EXAM 2
Physical & Chemical Principles
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INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of
your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
1. The total number of electrons at the fourth energy level is

A. 2 B. 8 C. 18 D. 32
2. The halogen with the highest electronegativity is
A. fluorine B. chlorine C. bromine D. iodine
3. The geometry of the SO3 molecule is best described as
A. linear B. trigonal planar C. tetrahedral D. bent
4. Only two isotopes of copper are present in naturally occurring copper: 62 Cu (62.9298 u) and 65Cu (64.9278 u). Calculate the percent composition of naturally
occurring 62Cu using atomic mass of 63.546 u.
A. 69.17% B. 30.83% C. 46.65% D. 53.35%
5. If 5.0 E 10 barium (Ba) atoms could be arranged side by side, they would form a straight line measuring 22 m. What is the diameter of Ba in pm? In A?
A. 44 pm, 0.44 A B. 4.4. pm, 440 A C. 440 pm, 4.4. A D. 220 pm, 2.2. A
6. Maleic acid contains 41.4% carbon, 3.47% , and 55.1% oxygen by weight. A 0.050-mole sample of this sample of this compound weighs 5.80 g. What is the
molecular formula of maleic acid?
A. CHO B. C2H2O2 C. C3H3O D. C4H4O4
7. A special-purpose piece of laboratory glassware, called pycnometer, is used to measure liquid densities. It has a volume of 25 cc, and a mass of 17.24 g
when it is full of air. When filled with a liquid of unknown density, its mass = 45.0 g. What is the density of this liquid?
A. 1.11 g/mL B. 1.25 g/mL C. 1.42 g/mL D. 1.55 g/mL
8. An 8.24-gram sample of a hydrated salt is heated until it has a constant mass of 6.20 grams. What was the percent by mass of water contained in the
original container?
A. 14.1% B. 32.9% C. 24.8% D. 75.2%
9. Pure acetic acid, known as glacial acetic acid, is a liquid with a density of 1.049 g/mL at 25OC. Calculate the molarity of a solution of acetic acid made by
dissolving 10.0 mL of glacial acetic acid at 25OC in enough water to make 100 mL of solution.
A. 1.665 M B. 1.747 M C. 100.0 M D. 104.9 M
10. Calculate the molarity of a 5.00 ppm Ca(NO3)2 solution. Ca=40; N=14; 0=16
A. 2.56 E-6 M B. 2.56 E-5 M C. 3.05 E-5 M D. 3.05 E-6 M
11. How many milliliters of water must be added to 5 mL of 12 M HCl solution to make a 3 M HCl solution?
A. 10 mL B. 15 mL C. 20 mL D. 25 mL
12. What type of colloid is mayonnaise?
A. Aerosol B. emulsion C. solid foam D. sol
13. A current of 0.1000 ampere is passed through a copper sulphate solution for 10 minutes using platinum electrodes. Calculate the number of grams of copper
deposited at the cathode from CuSO4 solution.
A. 0.01975 g B. 0.0243 g C. 0.0385 g D. 0.0457 g
14. The wavelength of a beam is 24 micrometer. What is its wave number?
A. 380/cm B. 417/cm C. 440/cm D. 490/cm
15. A fossil fern containing 0.110 lbm of carbon is carbon dated to determine its age. The decay rate of C-14 in the fossil is 191 decays/min. How old is the fern?
(The half-life of C-14 is 5730 years, and the rate decay of C -14 in a living organism is 6800 decays/min-lbm C.)
A. 7290 yrs B. 11300 yrs C. 14100 yrs D. 23800 yrs
16. Consider the reaction Pb2+(aq) + 2Cl- (aq) PbCl2 (s) H= -22.53 kJ/mol. Calculate H when 0.230 mol of PbCl2 (s) is dissolved in water.
A. 5.18 kJ B. -5.18 kJ C. 22.5 kJ D. -22.5 kJ
17. At what temperature do the Celsius scale and Fahrenheit scale readings have the same numerical value?
A. 40 C or 40 F B. 32 C or 32 F C. -40 C or -40 F D. -100 C or 100 F
18. Two gas storage bulbs are at the same temperature. The 1 L bulb contains 0.50 atm of helium and the 2 L bulb contains 1 atm nitrogen. The valves
connecting the two bulbs are opened and they are connected through a negligible volume. The pressure in the bulbs after they have pressure equilibrated
and are at the initial temperature is
A. 1.50 atm B. 0.67 atm C. 0.50 atm D. 0.84 atm
19. A volume of dry gas measures 85 mL at 21OC and 758 mmHg. What volume would this gas occupy if collected over water at 755.5 mmHg at 25 OC?
A. 85 mL B. 86.5 mL C. 69 mL D. 83.2 mL
20. A mixture consisting of 0.100 mol N2, 0.05 mol O2, 0.20 mol CH4, and an unknown amount of CO2 occupied a volume of 9.6 L at 27OC and 1 atm pressure.
How many moles of CO2 are there in this sample?
A. 0.04 mol B. 0.05 mol C. 0.10 mol D. 0.39 mol
21. Helium and argon are monoatomic gases and their atomic weights are 4 and 40 respectively. Under identical conditions helium will diffuse through a
semipermeable membrane
A. 3.16 times as fast as argon C. 7.32 times as fast as argon
B. 1.58 times as fast as argon D. 10 times as fast as argon
22. At 20OC and one atmosphere, one liter of water will absorb 0.043 g of oxygen or 0.19 g of nitrogen. Atmospheric air is 20.9% oxygen by volume, and the
remainder is assumed to be nitrogen. What mass of oxygen will be absorbed by one liter of water exposed to 20OC air at one atmosphere?
A. 0.009 g B. 0.150 g C. 0.23 g D. 0.043 g
23. At 0OC the average velocity of methane molecules in air is 600 m/s. what is the total kinetic energy of 1.00 mol of methane molecules moving at this speed?
A. 4.78 E-21 J B. 2.88 E 3 J C. 5.76 E 3 J D. 1.80 E 5 J
24. The molecular diameter of CO is 3.19 x 10-6 cm, at 300 OK and pressure of 100 mmHg. What is the mean free path of the gas in cm?
A. 6.06 x 10-6 B. 6.86 x 105 C. 6.86 x 10-3 D. 2.86 x 10-4
25. What is the pH of a 0.30 M solution of benzoic acid, Ka = 6.6 E -5?
A. 0.52 B. 2.4 C. 4.7 D. 4.2
26. Calculate the pH of an aqueous buffer solution which contains 0.100 mol/L NH3 and 0.200 mol/L NH4Cl.
A. 9 B. 8.5 C. 7.0 D. 10
27. At equilibrium, a 1-liter reactor contains 0.3 mol of A, 0.1 mol of B and 0.6 mol 0f C, according to the equation: A + B C. If 0.4 mol of A was added, how
many moles of A was left under equilibrium was re-established?
A. 0.65 B. 0.05 C. 0.35 D. 0.70
28. The solubility of barium carbonate is 1.4 E-3 g/ 100 mL solution. Determine its Ksp.
A. 5 E-9 B. 4 E-7 C. 4.5 E-8 D. 5.6 E-10
29. Who discovered positron?
A. Anderson B. Pauli C. Heisenberg D. Bohr
30. An atomic face-centered cubic central crystal is 3.92 angstrom on an edge and has a density of 21.5 g/cm3. What is its atomic weight?
A. 195 B. 207 C. 48.8 D. 108
31. Magnesium is obtained from
A. Sea shells B. bentonite C. sea water D. corals
32. How many mililiters of 0.01000 N Ba(OH)2 are theoretically required to titrate 0.03000 g of H3AsO4 to the formation of Ba(H2AsO4)2?
A. 16.4 mL B. 17.6 mL C. 18.9 mL D. 21.14 mL
33. Ethers are formed from condensation reactions between
A. Alcohols and aldehydes C. aldehydes and acids
B. Others and acids D. alcohols and acids
34. What is the name of the following compound?
CH3
CH--CH2--CH3
CH3—CH2—CH—CH3
A. 3,4-dimethylhexene C. 3-methyl 4-ethylpentane

B. 3-butylbutane D. 3,5-octane
35. Which of the following aromatic hydrocarbons is consist of two benzene rings?
A. toluene B. naphthalene C. anthracene D. phenanthrene
36. Which of the following tests will distinguish 1-propanol from 2-propanol?
A. Fehling’s test B. Tollen’s test C. Benedict’s test D. Lucas test
37. A carboxylic acid which contributes to the strong odor of rancid butter and other fats.
A. caproic acid B. acetic acid C. lactic acid D. butyric acid
38. Which of the following is an acid found in milk?
A. lactic acid B. tartaric acid C. malic acid D. citric acid
39. Ascorbic acid is
A. vitamin C B. vitamin D C. tocopherol D. vitamin E
40. Retinal, retinol, and retinoic acid are stable form of
A. vitamin A B. vitamin C C. vitamin B D. vitamin D
41. Which of the following is a ketose?
A. fructose B. glucose C. sucrose D. maltose
42. The vitamin responsible for blood clotting is
A. A B. B C. K D. E
43. For an enzyme that displays Michaelis-Menten kinetics, the reaction velocity (as a fraction of Vmax) observed at [S]= 2 K M will be
A. 0.09 B. 0.33 C. 0.66 D. 0.91
44. In the Lineweaver-Burk double reciprocal plot the slope is equal to
A. 1/[S] B. 1/V C. Km/Vmax D. 1/Vmax
45. Which of the following amino acid is basic?
A. lysine B. aspartic acid C. tyrosine D. alanine
46. Which of the following amino acid is polar?
A. glutamine B. arginine C. Proline D. Valine
47. Which of the following amino acid is nonpolar?
A. glutamic acid B. leucine C. cysteine D. serine
48. Calculate the “exact” alkalinity (in milligrams per liter as CaCO3) of a water containing 120 mg/L of bicarbonate ion and 15 mg/L of carbonate ion, at a pH
of 9.43.
A. 110.5 mg/L B. 116.2 mg/L C. 123.4 mg/L D. 128.9 mg/L
49. A surface water primarily used for contact recreation such as bathing, etc.
A. Class A B. Class SA C. Class B D. Class AA
50. Also known as The Clean Air Act of the Philippines of 1999.
A. RA 8749 B. PD 984 C. RA 6969 D. PD 600
51. The ionic strength of 0.1 M solution of ferrous sulphate is
A. 0.75 B. 0.50 C. 1.50 D. 0.40
52. A sanitary landfill is 210,000 square meters in area and 2 m deep. The daily loading of garbage is 800 m 3/day. What is the life at the landfill in years if the
garbage is compacted in the landfill with twice its loading density.
A. 3 years B. 13.3 years C. 2.88 years D. 16.3 years
53. Glutamic acid (C 5H 9O4N) is used as one of the reagents for standard to check the BOD test. Determine the theoretical oxygen demand of 150 mg/L of
glutamic acid. Assume the following reactions apply:
C 5H 9O 4N + 4.5 O 2 5CO 2 +3H 2 O + NH 3
NH 3 + 2O 2 NO 3- + H + + H 2O
A. 180 mg/L B. 190 mg/L C. 198 mg/L D. 212 mg/L
54. If the five-day BOD of a waste is 220 mg/L and the ultimate BOD is 320 mg/L, what is the rate constant?
A. 0.142/day B. 0.178/day C. 0.210/day D. 0.233/day
55. A solution of an unknown non-volatile nonelectrolyte was prepared by dissolving 0.250 g of the substance in 40 g of carbon tetrachloride. The boiling point
of the resultant solution was 0.357OC higher than that of the pure solvent. Calculate the molar mass of the solute. Molal boiling point elevation constant for
carbon tetrachloride is 5.02 OC/ molal.
A. 64 B. 74 C. 68 D. 88
56. 184 grams of ethanol is mixed with 1 gmol glycerol. What is the vapour pressure of the resulting solution if the vapor pressure of ethanol at the working
temperature is 200 mmHg? Assume glycerol is non-volatile.
A. 176 mmHg B. 182 mmHg C. 160 mmHg D. none of these
57. If ethanol and methanol are mixed 50/50 by weight at 60OC, and the solution assumed ideal, the composition of the vapor above the solution is
A. 28% ethanol, 72% methanol C. 59% ethanol, 41% methanol
B. 72% ethanol, 28% ethanol D. 41% ethanol, 59% methanol
58. A solution with only 12 g of unknown polymer per liter of solution at 25OC has an osmotic pressure of 12.1 torr. What is the molar mass of the polymer?
A. 18,400 g/mol B. 24.2 g/mol C. 9,200 g/mol D. 1533 g/mol
59. Use the van der Waals equation of state to calculate the pressure exerted by exactly 1 mol of gaseous ammonia, NH3, held at a temperature of 1000 K in
a vessel of volume 2.50 dm3. The values of the van der Waals parameters for ammonia are a= 4.225 atm dm6 mol-2 and b= 3.71 x 10-2 dm3 mol-1.
A. 3.33 kPa B. 3.31 MPa C. 1970 Pa D. 224 kPa
60. 18.7 g of unknown acid is reacted with the zinc to produce 800 cc of the gas at STP. What is the equivalent weight of the acid?
A. 624 B. 173 C. 262 D. 131
61. Suppose you are given a gaseous compound for which the formula is C XH 2X-2 at the same temperature and pressure at which oxygen weighs 4.8 grams per
liter, the unknown gas weighs 8.10 g/L. What is the formula of the compound?
A. C2H2 B. C3H6 C. C4H6 D. C4H10
62. When evacuated or empty a gas density bulb weighs 29.3215 grams. First, CO 2 gas was used to fill the bulb at 40 deg C and 1.0 atm P and it weighed
30.0079. The bulb was then evacuated and filled with a mixture of CO and CO2 under the same temperature and pressure. With this mixture the bulb
weighed 29.9332. Determine the % of CO in the mixture.
A. 21 B. 29 C. 32 D. 15
63. PCl5 (g) dissociates into PCL3 (g) and Cl2 (g) when heated at 250OC and 1 atm. If the density of the gas mixture at equilibrium is 4.4 g/L, the fraction of PCl5
dissociated is
A. 0.103 B. 0.328 C. 0.725 D. 0.209
64. The alcohol in “gasohol” burns according to the following equation: C2H5OH + 3O2 2CO2 + 3H2O. How many grams of CO2 are produced when 3 g
of C2H5OH are burned in this way?
A. 6.00 g B. 44.0 g C. 0.130 g D. 5.74 g
65. Silicon carbide, SiC, is commonly known as carborundum. This hard substance, which is used commercially as an abrasive, is made by heating SiO2 and
C to high temperatures: SiO2 (s) + 3C (s) SiC (s) + 2CO (g). How many grams of SiC can form when 3.00 g of SiO2 and 4.50 of C are allowed to react?
A. 2.00 g B. 3.00 g C. 5.01 g D. 15.0 g
{66-67} Propane is a hydrocarbon with the formula C3H8 that is used as a bottled gas.
66. How many liters of oxygen are needed to burn 1 L of propane gas? Assume all volumes to be measured at the same temperature and pressure.
A. 5 L B. 6 L C. 3 L D. 2 L
67. How many liters of carbon dioxide are produced by the reaction? Assume all volumes to be measured at the same temperature and pressure.
A. 5 L B. 6 L C. 3 L D. 2 L
68. Dulong and Petit, French physicist, observed in 1819 that the product of specific heat, J/g-C, and atomic weight, g/mol/, is approximately equal to 26 J/mol-
C for many solid elements. A 135-g sample of a metal is heated to 80OC the immersed into a calorimeter containing 75 g of water at 22OC. The system
equilibrates and the temperature of the water rises to 25.1OC. What is the specific heat of the metal?
A. 0.0075 J/g-C B. 0.042 J/g-C C. 0.13 J/g-C D. 1.005 J/g-C
69. From the data in the problem #68, is the metal copper, gold, tin, or iron?
A. copper B. gold C. tin D. iron
70. A 1-kg iron bar [c=0.11 kcal/kg-OC] at 100OC is placed in 3.0 kg water at 15OC. The temperature of the water increases by
A. 0.7OC B. 3 OC C. 5 OC D. 18 OC
71. With the pressure approaching zero, compressibility factor approaches
A. Zero B. unity C. infinity D. constant
72. If an initial volume of an ideal gas is compressed to one-half its original volume and to twice its original temperature, the pressure ______.
A. Doubles B. halves C. quadruples D. triples
73. Consider the reaction: 4NH 3 + 7O 2 4NO 2 + 6H 2O. At a certain instant the initial rate of disappearance of the oxygen gas is X. What is the value of the
appearance of water at the same instant?
A. 1.2X B. 1.1X C. 0.86X D. 0.58X
74. For ammonia synthesis reaction, N 2 + 3H 2 2NH 3, if the rate of reaction with respect to N 2 is X, what is the rate with respect to H 2 in terms of x?
A. x/3 B. 2x C. 3x D. 2x/3
75. What is the reaction rate constant, K, for the third order reaction?
A. (L/mol)/s B. (L/mol)/s2 C. (L/mol)2/s D. (L/mol)3/s
76. What law governs the rate of reaction of a substance?
A. Law of conservation of mass C. law of mass action
B. Arrhenius Law D. Avogadro’s Law
77. If Ca is plotted versus time and a straight line is observed, the reaction is said to be
A. First order B. second order C. zero order D. fractional order
78. The overall order of reaction for the elementary reaction A + 2B C is
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
79. The reaction is known to be first order in A. A straight line will be obtained by plotting
A. log C A versus time C. C A versus time
B. log C A versus reciprocal time D. 1/C A versus time
80. If the reaction 2A B + C is second order, which of the following plots will give a straight line?
A. C A2 vs time B. 1/C A vs time C. log C A vs time D. C A vs time
81. Which statement about orbitals is false?
A. Orbitals are regions of space where electrons are found.
B. Orbitals may contain up to two electrons.
C. Orbitals are filled in order of decreasing energy.
D. Orbitals of equivalent energy are half filled before adding two electrons to any one of them.
82. Which fractions of petroleum distils are at the highest temperature?
A. Gasoline B. gases C. fuel oil D. kerosene
83. How many atoms are there in a molecule of naphthalene?
A. 10 B. 20 C. 18 D. 24
84. Plastic used for synthetic leather.
A. PVC B. PE C. PS D. PTFE
85. The least number of atoms in alkynes is
A. 4 B. 6 C. 5 D. 7
86. Ethylene glycol is
A. Triol B. ester C. diol D. phenol
87. Oxidation of a primary alcohol yields
A. Ketones B. ethers C. aldehydes D. esters
88. Which of the following represents an acceptable set of quantum number?
A. 2,2,-1,-1/2 B. 1,0,0,1/2 C. 5,-4,-3,1/2 D. 3,3,3,-1/2
89. Which one of the following is an impossible set of quantum number for an electron in an atom?
A. 2,2,-1,-1/2 B. 1,0,0,1/2 C. 5,-4,-3,1/2 D. 3,3,3,-1/2
90. Deuterium is an isotope of _______.
A. Hydrogen B. oxygen C. nitrogen D. helium
91. The nuclei of tritium atom would contain ____ neutrons.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
92. If the following reaction were at equilibrium in a closed vessel at a controlled temperature, what would be the effect of adding more CO2 to the reaction
vessel and permitting the reaction to approach equilibrium again?
CO + H2O CO2 + H2
A. The concentrations of CO, H2O, and H2 would all increase.
B. The concentrations of CO, H2O, and H2 would all decrease.
C. The concentrations of CO and H2O would decrease and the concentration of H2 would increase.
D. The concentrations of CO and H2O would increase and the concentration of H2 would decrease.
93. The following reactions are known to occur in the body: CO2 + H2O H2CO3 H + + HCO3-, if CO2 escapes from the system.
A. pH will decrease C. H2CO3 concentration will be unaltered
B. hydrogen ion concentration will diminish D. the forward reaction will be promoted
94. What type of covalent bonds link the amino acids in protein?
A. hydrogen bonds C. peptide bonds
B. ionic bonds D. glycosidic bonds
95. Which amino acid is very important for optimal immune function and exhibits a reduced plasma concentration during heavy training?
A. Glycine B. glutamine C. isoleucine D. leucine
96. In a Michaelis-Menten enzyme mechanism, what substrate concentrations (relative to Km) are needed for the reaction rate to be 0.9 times Vmax?
A. (1/9)Km B. (1/3)Km C. 1.0Km D. 9.0Km
97. Atoms of which element have the highest first ionization energy?
A. Calcium B. potassium C. sodium D. magnesium
98. Transition elements are found in the
A. d & f energy level B. s energy level C. d energy level D. p energy level
99. Which of the following is a metalloid?
A. Ge B. Al C. Be D. Zn
100. The mass defect in a particular nucleus is
A. the difference between the mass of the protons and the mass of the neutrons
B. the mass that has been converted into nuclear binding energy
C. the difference between the calculated and the exponential nuclear mass which is the mass that has been converted into nuclear binding energy
D. the experimental error in determining the nuclear mass
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GENERAL INORGANIC CHEMISTRY 1
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Atomic Theories
1. A species X contains 9 protons, 10 electrons, and 11 neutrons. Predict whether it is
A. A neutral atom B. an isotope C. An anion D. a cation
2. The nuclei of tritium would contain ____ neutrons.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
3. The total number of electrons at the L shell of an atom is
A. 2 B. 8 C. 18 D. 32
4. What is the maximum number of electrons in the O orbital?
A. 16 B. 8 C. 32 D. 50
5. How many electrons can have an / quantum number of 1 and an n quantum number of 2?
A. 5 B. 6 C. 10 D. 14
6. Which one of the following is an impossible set of quantum number for an electron in an atom?
A. 2,1,-1,-1/2 B. 1,0,0,1/2 C. 5,4,-3,1/2 D. 3,3,3,-1/2
Periodic Table of Elements
7. The noble gases are
A. Diatomic B. monoatomic C. triatomic D. monoclinic
8. Which of the following elements is a halogen?
A. He B. Na C. Kr D. Cl
9. Which of the following is an alkali metal?
A. O B. Ne C. K D. Mg
10. Arrange Ca, Be, and Mg according to increasing atomic size.
A. Ca<Mg<Be B. Ca<Be<Mg C. Be<Mg<Ca D. Mg<Be<Ca
11. Arrange Ca, Be, and Mg according to increasing ionization energy.
12. Arrange Ca, Be, and Mg according to increasing electron affinity.
13. The oxidation state of Cr in K 2CrO 4 is
A. +6 B. -6 C. -2 D. +7
14. The element with the electron configuration 1s2 2s22p4 is
A. O B. S C. Ne D. N
Atomic & Intermolecular Bonds
15. Which bond has the least strength?
A. Covalent bond B. electrovalent bond C. van der Waal’s D. ionic bond
16. An example of ionic compound would be
A. H 2 O B. HCl C. NH 3 D. NaCl
17. Which of the following compound would be covalent compound
A. SiO 2 B. NaCl C. LiF D. KBr
18. NO 2 is a molecule with a bent structure, the number of lone pairs in its central atom is
A. one B. two C. three D. four
19. Which of the following molecules have polar bonds and is described to be nonpolar?
A. H 2 O B. NH 3 C. CO 2 D. HCl
20. The structure of water can be described as
A. Polar and tetrahedral C. polar and bent
B. Polar and linear D. nonpolar and bent
21. Determine the shape and polarity of a COBr2 molecule.
A. Trigonal palnar, polar C. trigonal pyramidal, nonpolar
B. Tetrahedral, nonpolar D. bent, polar
Atoms, Molecules & Compounds
22. Magnesium has three naturally occurring isotopes with isotopic mass and relative abundance of 23.98 (78.60% ), 24.98 (10.11% ), and 25.98 (11.29% ). Find
the true mass of the isotopic mixture.
A. 22 B. 12 C. 24.31 D. 25.1
23. Only two isotopes of copper are present in naturally occurring copper: 62 Cu (62.9298 u) and 65CU (64.9278 u). Calculate the percent composition of naturally
occurring 62Cu using atomic mass of 63.646 u.
A. 69.17% B. 30.83% C. 46.65% D. 53.35%
24. How many molecules are present in 0.20 gram of hydrogen gas?
A. 1.2 E23 B. 1.2 E22 C. 6 E23 D. 6 E22
25. How many millimoles are there in 1.76 g of AgNO 3? Ag= 107.9; N=14;O=16
A. 25.0 B. 10.4 C. 15.8 D. 30.5
26. What is the weight percent of carbon in carbon monoxide?
A. 30.5% B. 34.6% C. 40.3% D. 42.8%
27. How many electrons are in 0.01 g of gold?
A. 3 E19 B. 2.4 E21 C. 5 E-5 D. 3.2 E24
28. The percent composition of an unknown element X in CH3X is 32% . Which of the following is element X?
A. H B. F C. Cl D. Li
29. A protein is known to bind one molecule of oxygen (O2) per molecule of protein. If 12.2 g of protein bind 9.8 mg O2, what is the molecular weight of the
protein?
A. 25,700 B. 79,600 C. 38,900 D. 39,800
Empirical & Molecular Formulas
30. What is the empirical formula for a compound that has the following composition by mass; 30% Si, 8.5% O and 61.2% F
A. SiOF4 B. Si2OF4 C. Si2OF6 D. Si3OF6
31. What is the empirical formula of a compound that contains 7.989 g of carbon and 2.011 g of hydrogen?
A. C2H5 B. C3H C. C8H2 D. CH3
32. A compound is found to contain by mass 22.69% C, 1.41% H and 75.9% Br. What is the molecular formula of the compound if its molecular weight is 422?
A. C7H8Br2 B. C8H6Br4 C. C6H6Br4 D. C8H8Br2
33. A compound containing only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen was analysed and found to contain 70.6% C, 5.9% H and 23.5% O by mass. The molecular
weight of the compound is 136 amu. What is the molecular formula?
A. C8H8O2 B. C8H4O C. C4H4O D. C5H6O2
DAILY TEST
1. What is similar about the electronic structure of Be, Mg, and Ca?
A. All the atoms contain a pair of s electrons in their outermost energy level
B. All the atoms contain a pair of p electrons in their outermost energy level
C. All are alkaline earth metals
D. All are in the same second group of the periodic table
2. He phenomenon in which a steel needle can, with proper care, be made to float on the surface of some water illustrates a property of liquid known as:
A. Compressibility B. polarizability C. surface tension D. triple point
3. Which of the following is different from the group?
A. B B. Mg C. As D. At
4. From what mineral is radium obtained?
A. Limestone B. rutile C. pitch blende D. hematite
5. Which one of the following is most likely to have ionic bonds?
A. HCl B. Na2O C. N 2 O D. NCl3
6. What is the shape of the molecular structure of NH 3?
A. Trigonal planar B. trigonal pyramidal C. tetrahedral D. octahedral
7. What is the molecular geometry of antimony pentafluoride?
A. Trigonal bipyramidal B. octahedral C. trigonal planar D. tetrahedral
8. When an excess of dry chlorine was passed over 1.12 g heated iron, 3.25 g of a chloride of iron was obtained. What is the empirical formula of the chloride?
A. Fe3Cl B. Fel2 C. FeCl3 D. Fe2Cl6
9. Mesitylene, a hydrocarbon that occurs in small amounts in crude oil, has an empirical formula of C 3H 4 . The experimentally determined molecular weight is
121 amu. What is the molecular formula of mesitylene?
A. C 9 H 12 B. C 3H 4 C. C 12H 16 D. C 6H 12
10. The mass of proton or neutron is approximately ______ times that of the electron.
A. 1,736 B. 1,900 C. 1,700 D. 1,836
BRINGHOME EXAM
“It’s having the right stuff in the right place at the right time--- and neither too much nor too little of it.“
Alan Sugar, British entrepreneur. Referring to his formula for success.
1. The total number of electrons at the fourth energy level is
A. 2 B. 8 C. 18 D. 32
2. Which of the following represents is an acceptable set of quantum number?
A. 2,2,-1,-1/2 B. 1,0,0,1/2 C. 5,-4,-3,1/2 D. 3,3,3,-1/2
3. For n=4 what are the possible values of l?
A. 3,2,1 B. 4,3,2,1 C. 3,2,1,0 D. 4,3,2,1,0
4. For l=2, what are the possible values of ml?
A. 1,0 B. 1,0,-1 C. 2,1,0 D. 2,1,0,-1,-2
5. What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy the subshell 3d?
A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 10
6. Which of the following Bohr orbits has the lowest energy?
A. n=2 B. n=3 C. n=4 D. n=5
7. For n=4, how many values of l are possible?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
8. The electronic configuration, 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s23p5 , is that of
A. An alkali metal C. an inert gas
B. A halogen D. a transition metal
9. Which of the following represents an alkaline earth metal?
A. 1s22s1 C. 1s22s2 2p6
B. 1s22s22p63s2 D. 1s22s2 2p63s3 3p6
10. Protium atom contains no
A. Electron B. proton C. neutron D. positron
11. Which of the following is the lightest?
A. Alpha particle B. beta particle C. proton D. hydrogen
12. The electrons in an incomplete outer shell are called
A. shell electron C. chemical electrons
B. kernel electron D. valence electron
13. The shape of ‘s’ orbital
A. Pyramidal C. spherical
B. Tetrahedral D. dumb-bell shaped
14. The chemical family of elements called the noble gases is found in what column of the periodic table?
A. IA B. IIA C. VIIA D. VIIIA
15. A particular element is located in column IVA of the periodic table. How many dots would be placed around the symbol of this element in its electron dot
notation?
A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 8
16. Atoms of which element have the highest ionization energy?
A. calcium B. potassium C. sodium D. magnesium
A. d & f energy level B. s energy level C. d energy level D. p energy level
18. Which of the following is a metalloid?
A. Ge B. Al C. Be D. Zn
19. Which of the following sequences of ionization energies is incorrect?
A. K>Na>Li B. K>Rb>Cs C. F>O>C D. O>S>Se
20. By referring only to the periodic table, arrange the following in order of increasing electronegativity: Ga, P, As, S, O, F.
A. Ga<P<As<S<O<F C. Ga<As<P<O<S<F
B. Ga<As<S<P<O<F D. Ga<As<P<S<O<F
21. In which of the following do we find a trigonal- pyramidal geometry?
A. BF3 B. SnCl2 C. PH3 D. TeCl4
22. Which identification of shape is incorrect?
A. SbCl5- trigonal bipyramidal C. ClF5- square pyramidal
B. SeCl4- seesaw D. ICl3- trigonal pyramidal
23. Which of following diatomic is most polar?
A. BeO B. BeS C. BeSe D. BeTe
24. Which one of the following is a polar molecule? (I) BF3 (II) CF4 (III) NF3 (IV) PCl5
A. II and IV B. I and III C. III D. I
25. The element zinc consist of five isotopes with masses 63.929, 65.926, 66.927, 67.925, and 69.925 amu. The relative abundance of these five isotopes are
48.89, 27.82, 4.110, 18.57, and 0.62 percent respectively. From these data calculate the average atomic mass of zinc.
A. 63.93 amu B. 66.93 amu C. 65.389 amu D. 65.39 amu
26. Calculate the number of molecules in a tablespoon of table sugar, C12H22O11, weighing 10.5 g.
A. 6.0E23 B. 6.29E24 C. 1.85E22 D. 1.13E23
27. Calculate the mass in grams of 0.0112 mol of β-sucrose, C6H12O6.
A. 0.0112 g B. 180 g C. 1.12 g D. 2.02 g
28. Calculate the number of molecules in 6.2 g of formaldehyde, CH2O.
A. 6.0E23 B. 3.7E24 C. 1.2E23 D. 2.4E23
29. One mole of CO 2 contains the same number of atoms as in
A. 0.5 mole of S 2O 3 C. 0.5 mole of H 2SO3
B. 0.5 mole of PCl3 D. 0.5 mole of H 3BO3
30. 60.0 g of a dry -cleaning fluid was analysed and found to contain 10.80 g C, 1.36 g H, and 47.84 g Cl. Determine its empirical formula.
A. C3H3Cl3 B. C2H3Cl3 C. C4H6Cl5 D. CH2Cl2
31. What is the empirical formula of a compound with the molecular formula C6H12O6?
A. C4H8O4 B. C3H6O3 C. C2H4O2 D. CH2O
32. A compound has the empirical formula CH and a molecular mass of 78. What is the molecular formula of the compound?
A. C2H2 B. C3H3 C. C4H4 D. C6H6
33. Determine the empirical formula of a compound that contains 52.9% aluminium and 47.1% oxygen.
A. AlO B. Al2O3 C. Al3O2 D. Al4O6
34. Give the empirical formula of the following compound if a sample contains 40% C, 6.7% H, and 53.3% O by mass.
A. C4HO5 B. CH2O C. C2H4O2 D. C3H6O3
35. What is the molecular formula of the following compound? Empirical formula CH, molar mass 78 g/mol.
A. CH B. C2H2 C. C3H3 D. C6H6
36. Give the empirical formula of the following compound if a sample contains 57.8% C, 3.6% H, and 38.6% O by mass.
A. C2HO B. C4H3O2 C. C8H6O4 D. C12H9O6
37. What is the molecular formula of the following compound? Empirical formula C2H3, molar mass 54 g/mol.
A. C2H3 B. C4H6 C. C6H9 D. C8H12
38. Which of the following does not exist as a gaseous diatomic molecule?
A. H2 B. O2 C. S2 D. F2
39. A bond in which an electron pair is equally shared by two atoms is
A. Ionic C. polar covalent
B. Nonpolar covalent D. coordinate covalent
40. The bonding in HCl is best characterized as
A. Non polar covalent B. coordinate covalent C. ionic D. polar
41. In which of the following is the angle between the covalent bonds greatest?
A. CO 2 B. CH 4 C. NH 3 D. H 2O
42. No two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of quantum numbers is a statement of
A. Hund’s Rule of Multiplicity C. Dalton’s Atomic Theory
B. Heisenberg’s Uncertainty D. Pauli’s Exclusion Principle
43. Isotopes have different
A. Period number B. group number C. number of nucleons D. atomic number
44. The azimuthal or secondary quantum number is related to the
A. Direction of turning C. orientation in space
B. Shape of electron cloud D. distance from the nucleus
45. The magnetic quantum number is related to the
A. Direction of turning C. orientation in space
B. Shape of the electron cloud D. distance from the nucleus
46. Which of the following elements has the largest first- ionization energy?
A. Rb B. Sr C. Ca D. K
47. Which of the following elements would have the largest second-ionization energy?
A. Sc B. Sr C. Ca D. K
48. Of the following choices, which element is the most metallic?
A. Calcium B. strontium C. magnesium D. barium
49. Which of the following is an inner f-block metal?
A. Zn B. Sc C. Ga D. U
50. Three sp2 hybrid orbitals lie in the same plane making with each other an angle of
A. 109O28” B. 60O C. 90O D. 120O
51. Which of the following is not a type of covalent bond?
A. Polar B. nonpolar C. coordinate D. metallic
52. When electrons are shared unequally between atoms or different elements, a _____ covalent bond occurs.
A. Polar B. nonpolar C. coordinate D. molecular
53. This covalent bond is most often formed in polyatomic molecules.
A. Polar B. nonpolar C. coordinate D. molecular
54. How many grams of iron oxide, Fe2O3, can be produced from 2.50 g of oxygen reacting with solid iron?
A. 12.5 g B. 8.32 g C. 2.50 g D. 11.2 g
55. An iron block weighs 5 Newtons and has a volume of 200 cubic centimeters. What is the density of the block in kg/m 3?
A. 800 B. 988 C. 1255 D. 2550
56. Hydrogen sulphide is removed from water by contacting the solution with warm air. The operation is
A. Distillation B. leaching C. absorption D. stripping
57. Sulphur is undesirable petroleum because
A. It causes engine knocking C. it increases the boiling point of the fuel
B. It poisons the catalyst in the refining process D. all that are mentioned
58. The geometry of the nitrate ion, NO 3-, is best described as a
A. Tetrahedron C. trigonal bipyramid
B. Square pyramid D. triangular planar structure
59. Very fine precipitates are most easily separated by
A. Distillation B. filtration C. centrifugation D. evaporation
60. The ion with the largest radius is
A. K + B. I - C. Cl- D. Na+
61. The colored gas most associated with smog is
A. An oxide of nitrogen C. an oxide of sulfur
B. On axide of hydrogen D. a chloride of sulfur
62. A protein is
A. A polysaccharide B. deoxyribonucleic acid E. a polyester
C. A polymer of amino acids D. soluble because of the carbonyl groups
63. The bonding in benzene molecule, C6H6, in any of its resonance structures, contains
A. 6 sigma bonds and 6 pi bonds C. 6 sigma bonds and 12 pi bonds
B. 12 sigma bonds and 6 pi bonds D. 12 sigma bonds and 3 pi bonds
64. When a pot of water boils on the stove, small bubbles form at the bottom of the pan and rise to the surface. What is inside these bubbles?
A. Steam B. hydrogen gas C. oxygen gas D. a vacuum
65. Diamond is classified as
A. A covalent crystal B. an ionic crystal C. an amorphous solid D. a metallic crystal
66. A liquid substance that exhibits low intermolecular attractions is expected to have
A. Low viscosity, low boiling point, and low heat of vaporization
B. High viscosity, low boiling point, and low heat of vaporization
C. Low viscosity, high boiling point
D. Low viscosity, low boiling point, and high heat of vaporization
67. How do you classify liquids that vaporized easily?
A. Ideal liquid B. saturated liquid C. volatile liquid D. osmotic liquid
68. The resistance of a layer of fluid to flow over the next layer is measured by
A. Viscosity B. friction factor C. surface tension D. density
69. A substance labelled hygroscopic
A. Reacts with atmospheric oxygen C. spontaneously combusts
B. Absorbs water from the atmosphere D. oxidizes easily
70. In the Bronsted system, an acid is defined as
A. An electron pair acceptor C. an electron pair donor
B. A hydroxide ion donor D. a proton donor
71. Elements that readily gain electros tend to have
A. High ionization energy and high electronegativity
B. High ionization energy and low electronegativity
C. low ionization energy and low electronegativity
D. low ionization energy and high electronegativity
72. Which of the following is heavy water?
A. hydrogen dioxide B. tritium oxide C. deuterium oxide D. dihydrogen oxide
73. Which one of the following is a homogeneous mixture
A. Air C. nitrogen
B. Iodine crystals D. blue-cheese salad dressing
74. Which of the following is a pure substance?
A. Air C. nitrogen
B. Concrete D. blue-cheese salad dressing
75. It is a yellowish gas.
A. Cl2 B. N 2 C. CO 2 D. H2
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Concentration of Solution
1. A volumetric analysis of a gaseous mixture is as follows: 12% CO 2, 4% O 2, 82% N 2 and 2% CO. what is the percentage of CO on mass basis?
A. 1% B. 1.2% C. 1.5% D. 1.9%
2. A solution is prepared by dissolving 22.4 g of MgCl2 in 0.200 L of water. Taking the density of pure water to be 1 g/cc and the density of the resulting solution
to be 1.089 g/cc, calculate the mole fraction of MgCl2 in the solution.
A. 0.0189 B. 0.0207 C. 0.0278 D. 0.0307
3. According to the label, a bottle of vodka has a 40% by volume concentration. This means the vodka contains 40 mL of pure alcohol
A. In each 140 mL of vodka C. to every 100 mL of water
B. To every 60 mL of vodka D. mixed with water to make 100 mL vodka
4. It is desired to make a 0.1 M solution by adding water to 5 grams of copper sulphate crystals, CuSO 4 .5H 2O. What must be the final volume of the solution?
A. 120 mL B. 140 mL C. 180 mL D. 200 mL
5. A solution is prepared by dissolving 22.4 g MgCl2 in 0.200 L of water. Taking the density of pure water to be 1 g/cc and the density of the resulting solution
to be 1.089 g/cc, calculate the molarity of the resulting solution.
A. 1.00 M B. 1.10 M C. 1.15 M D. 1.25 M
6. Calculate the molarity of a solution containing 38% HCl by weight and having a density of 1.19 g/mL solution.
A. 8.7 M B. 9.4 M C. 11.7 M D. 12.4 M
7. A solution is prepared by dissolving 22.4 g of MgCl2 in 0.200 L of water. Taking the density of pure water to be 1 g/cc and the density of the resulting solution
to be 1.089 g/cc, calculate the molality of the resulting solution.
A. 1.18 m B. 1.35 m C. 1.40 m D. 1.48 m
8. Suppose we have an aqueous solution of sulfuric acid whose density is 1.5091 g/cc and which contains 61% H2SO4 by weight. Calculate its molality.
A. 12.50 m B. 13.2 m C. 14.8 m D. 16.0 m
9. Calculate the molar concentration of NaBr solution which has a density of 1.167 g/mL and a molality of 2.28.
A. 2.16 M B. 2.80 M C. 3.12 M D. 3.40 M
10. What is the normality of a solution of H2SO4 if it has a specific gravity of 1.84 and contains 95.0% H2SO4 by weight?
A. 3.56 N B. 5.63 N C. 5.63 N D. 35.6 N
11. What is the normality of a solution made by diluting 50 mL of H2SO4 (sp.gr = 1.080, containing 11.6% H2SO4 by weight) to a liter of solution?
A. 0.24 B. 0.13 C. 0.65 D. 0.98
12. A solution is made by mixing 30.0 mL of 8.00 M HCl, 100 mL of 2.00 M HCl, and enough water to make 200 mL of solution. What is the molarity of HCl in
the final solution?
A. 0.455 M B. 1.00 M C. 1.20 M D. 2.20 M
13. How much 1.00 M HCl should be mixed with a certain volume of 0.250 M HCl in order to prepare 1.00 L of 0.500 M HCl?
A. 333 mL B. 667 mL C. 430 mL D. 570 mL
14. What is the concentration of chloride ion in percent in a solution that contains 35 ppm chloride?
A. 3.50 E -6% B. 3.50 E -5% C. 3.50 E -5% D. 3.50 E 2%
15. Calculate the molarity of a 5.00 ppm Ca(NO3)2 solution. Ca=40; N=14; O=16
A. 2.56 E -6 M B. 2.56 E -5 M C. 3.05 E -5 M D. 3.05 E -6 M
16. The maximum allowable chloride content according to the National Standard for Drinking Water is 0.2 ppm. What is the equivalent in mg/L?
A. 20 B. 1000 C. 0.2 D. 200
Electrochemistry
17. A number of electrons has a total charge of 1.1 x 10 -18 C. How many electrons are there?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 7
18. Two charges at +2.0 E -9 C that are 3.0 mm apart repel each other with a force of
A. 4 E -9 N B. 4 E -3 N C. 6 E 3 N D. 3.6 E 7 N
19. How many calories are developed in 1.0 min in an electric heater which draws 5.0 amperes when connected to a 100-volt line?
A. 4800 cal B. 5200 cal C. 6500 cal D. 7170 cal
20. What is the mass of aluminium produced in 1 hr in the electrolysis of molten Al2(SO 4)3 if the electrical current is 10 A?
A. 3.36 g B. 5.04 g C. 1.00 g D. 0.167 g
21. What current is required to produce two grams of metallic copper from copper sulphate solution in 1.5 hours?
A. 0.87 A B. 1.12 A C. 1.52 A D. 1.85
22. An aqueous solution of gold (III) nitrate is electrolyzed with a current of 0.555 ampere until 1.32 g Au has been deposited on the cathode. If the atomic
weight of Au is 197, determine the duration of the electrolysis.
A. 65.43 mins B. 23.67 min C. 58.28 mins D. 60 minutes
23. A current of electricity was passed through a series of cells containing AgNO3, CuSO4, and H2SO4 solutions for a period of 25 minutes. If the weight of
silver deposited was 0.5394 g, what would be the weight of the copper?
A. 0.159 g B. 1.59 g C. 15.9 g D. 159 g
24. One faraday of current was passed through the electrolytic cells placed in a series containing solutions of Ag+, Ni+2 , and Cr+3 respectively. The amount of
Ag (at. Wt. 108), Ni (at. Wt. 59) and Cr (at. Wt. 52) deposited will be:
A. 108 g Ag, 29.5 Ni, 17.5 g Cr C. 108 g Ag, 59 g Ni, 52 g Cr
B. 108 g Ag, 108 g Ni, 108 g Cr D. 108 g Ag, 117 g Ni, 166 g Cr
DAILY TEST
1. A number of electrons has a total charge of 1.1 x 10 -18 C. How many electrons are there?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 7
2. Two charges at +2.0 E -9 C that are 3.0 mm apart repel each other with a force of
A. 4 E -9 N B. 4 E -3 N C. 6 E 3 N D. 3.6 E 7 N
3. A kilogram of molecular hydrogen contains 3.01 x 10 exp 26 molecules, each consisting of two hydrogen atoms. If all the electrons were removed and placed
1.0 meter away from the protons, what would be the electrical force between them?
A. 8.35 E 26 N B. 8.35 E 25 N C. 8.35 E 28 N D. 8.35 E 23 N
4. A 6 V insulated battery delivers a 5 A current over a period of 20 min. Calculate the heat transfer that must occur to return the battery to its initial temperature.
A. 36 kJ B. 45 kJ C. -36 kJ D. -45 kJ
5. What mass of chromium could be deposited by electrolysis of an aqueous solution of Cr2(SO4)3 for 60.0 minutes using a constant current of 10.0 amperes?
A. 0.187 g B. 0.373 g C. 3.25 g D. 6.47 g
6. The number of electrons necessary to produce 1.00 gm of Cu from Cu2+ at the cathode of an electrolytic cell is
A. 1.89 x 1022 B. 3.04 x 103 C. 9.47 x 1021 D. 1.91 x 1025
7. What is the equivalent molar concentration of 0.273 m KCl? The solution has a density of 1.011 g/mL.
A. 4 B. 0.271 C. 0.421 D. 1.21
8. A 0.5 M solution of H2SO4 is the same as ______ H2SO4.
A. 2 N B. 1 N C. 0.5 N D. 0.1 N
9. Ten milliliters of 10 N H2SO4 is diluted to 80 mL. What is the molarity of the dilute acid solution?
A. 1.6 M B. 0.8 M C. 1.25 M D. 0.625 M
10. A 2.5-g sample of groundwater was found to contain 5.4 microgram of Zn2+. What is the concentration of Zn2+ in parts per million?
A. 1.5 B. 2.2 C. 3.0 D. 3.7
BRINGHOME EXAM
“The only place where success comes before work is a dictionary.”
Vidal Sassoon (1928- ) British hair stylist
1. Calculate the volume of concentrated sulfuric acid (density 1.84 g/mL), containing 98.0% H2SO4 by weight, that would contain 40 g of pure H2SO4.
A. 17.5 mL B. 19.0 mL C. 21.9 mL D. 22.2 mL
2. A solution of HCl has a specific gravity of 1.12 and contains 23.81% HCl by weight. How many grams of HCl are present in each millilitre of the solution?
A. 1.2 B. 12.6 C. 13.2 D. 0.27
3. A solution is made of 25.0 mL of 0.250 M of sulfuric acid and 15.0 mL of 0.500 M hydrochloric acid all diluted to 250 mL. what is the resulting of the hydrated
proton?
A. 80.0 M B. 0.08 M C. 0.0558 M D. 0.030M
4. How many milliliters of water must be added to 5 mL of 12 M HCl solution to make a 3 M HCl solution?
A. 10 mL B. 15 mL C. 20 mL D. 25 mL
5. A solution contains 10.6 mg of Na2CO3 per mL. To what volume should 100 mL of the solution be diluted to make it 0.01 N?
A. 1 L B. 1.5 L C. 2 L D. 2.5 L
6. Twenty grams of sulfuric acid crystals is dissolved in water to obtain 500 mL solution. What is the normality of the solution?
A. 0.012 N B. 0.816 N C. 0.408 N D. 0.204
7. The molality of a solution of ethyl alcohol in water is 1.54 mol/ kg. How many grams of alcohol are dissolved in 2.5 kg of water?
A. 177 B. 187 C. 192 D. 200
8. A solution is prepared by dissolving 4.21 g of glucose in 72.3 g of water. What is the molality of the glucose solution?
A. 5.5 B. 0.0234 C. 4.21 D. 0.323
9. A solution is made by dissolving 4.35 g glucose in 25 mL water. Calculate the molality of glucose in the solution.
A. 0.850 m B. 0.915 m C. 0.964 m D. 0.992
10. A solution of hydrochloric acid contains 36% HCl by mass. Calculate the molality of HCl in the solution.
A. 10 m B. 12 m C. 15 m D. 18 m
11. What will be the molarity of 56.5 g of silver nitrate in 3.5 liters of solution?
A. 0.946 M B. 9.46 M C. 0.0946 M D. 94.6 M
12. What will be the molarity of the phosphoric acid solution of specific gravity 1.426 and containing 98% by weight of pure phosphoric acid?
A. 1.426 M B. 2.15 M C. 14.26 M D. 3.12 M
13. What will be the molarity of 5.6 gm of KMnO4 in 30 mL of the solution?
A. 0.059 M B. 0.59 M C. 9 M D. 1.2 M
14. What weight in grams of KMnO4 is needed to form a 250 mL solution of 0.10 M?
A. 2.90 B. 3.45 C. 3.95 D. 4.211.09
15. The density of a solution that is 20.0% by weight HClO4 is 1.138 g/mL. Calculate the molarity of the HClO4.
A. 0.442 B. 1.99 C. 3.45 D. 2.26
16. How many grams of sodium hydroxide is necessary to prepare 250.0 mL of 0.50 M NaOH?
A. 5.0 B. 8.2 C. 6.5 D. 20.0
17. Twenty grams of sulfuric acid crystals is dissolved in water to obtain 500 mL solution. What is the molarity of the solution?
A. 0.012 M B. 0.816 M C. 0.408 M D. 0.204 M
18. Hydrogen peroxide solution of hair bleaching is usually prepared by mixing 5 g of hydrogen peroxide per 100 mL solution. What is the molarity of the
solution?
A. 1.0 M B. 1.95 M C. 1.5 M D. 1.8 M
19. Ten grams of NaCl is added in 90 grams water, what is the mole fraction of NaCl?
A. 0.964 B. 0.054 C. 0.872 D. 0.033
20. A solution contains 35% ethyl alcohol (molecular weight of 46 g/mol), 50% water (molecular weight 18 g/mol) and 15% acetic acid (molecular weight of 60
g/mol). Calculate the mole fraction of ethyl alcohol in the mixture.
A. 0.261 B. 0.201 C. 0.310 D. 0.691
21. Calculate the mole fraction of H3PO4 in 25% aq H3PO4 solution.
A. 0.105 B. 0.058 C. 0.218 D. 0.719
22. What is the mole fraction of ethyl alcohol in an aqueous solution that is 50% ethyl alcohol by mass?
A. 1.09 B. 0.259 C. 0.281 D. 0.719
23. A substance with a specific gravity of 0.5 is ______ times as dense as water.
A. One-half B. 2 C. 5 D. 3
24. A cube of plastic 1.5 cm on a side has a mass of 1.9 g. What is the density in g/cm 3 ?
A. 1.9 B. 0.56 C. 1.78 D. 3.4
25. The density of liquid bromine is 3.12 g/mL. What is the mass of 0.250 L of bromine?
A. 0.780 g B. 780 g C. 0.0801 g D. 80.1 g
26. The force between two charges of -3.0 E -9 C that are 50 mm apart is
A. 1.8 E-6 N B. 3.6 E-15 N C. 1.6 E-6 N D. 3.2 E-5 N
27. A 100-watt 110-volt incandescent lamp is connected in a series with an electrolytic cell containing cadmium sulphate solution. What weight of cadmium
should be deposited by the current flowing for 10 hours?
A. 17.2 g B. 19.1 C. 21.4 D. 23 g
28. How many grams of iron can be plated out at the cathode if a solution of Fe2+ is electrolyzed by a current of 1 ampere for 30 minutes?
A. 0.52 B. 1.04 C. 838 D. 16.6
29. A current of 0.75 ampere is passed to a copper (II) sulphate solution for 10 minutes. Calculate the grams of copper deposited.
A. 0.45 g B. 1.20 g C. 2.07 g D. 0.15 g
30. A chemical engineer wants to make chlorine from molten sodium chloride, if he uses a current of one ampere for 5 minutes, how many grams could be
produced?
A. 0.11 g B. 0.15 g C. 0.09 g D. 0.14 g
31. How many grams of iron (Fe) could be deposited by 8.5 E3 coulombs from a solution of FeCl2?
A. 2.46 B. 0.406 C. 4.48 D. 316.7
32. How many coulombs would it take to deposit 1 gram Ag from AgNO3 solution?
A. 800 B. 1000 C. 894 D. 940
33. What current strength in amperes will be required to liberate 10 grams of iodine from KI solution in one hour?
A. 0.021 B. 0.21 C. 2.1 D. 21
34. What is the electric current in amperes if 7.25 g Ag is deposited at the cathode in 2.00 hr in the electrolysis of AgNO3 (aq)?
A. 4.32 B. 54 C. 2.56 D. 1.32
35. How many calories are developed in 1.0 min in an electric heater which draws 5.0 amp when connected to a 110-volt line?
A. 4800 cal B. 5200 cal C. 6500 cal D. 7900 cal
36. Who determined that energy is radiated only when an electron falls from a higher energy level to a lower energy level?
A. Einstein B. Rutherford C. Heisenberg D. Bohr
37. Who determine the charge of an electron by means of oil droplet experiment?
A. Rutherford B. Heisenberg C. Millikan D. de Broglie
38. Who showed that electrons can be considered to have both particle character and wave character?
A. Thomson B. Moseley C. Heisenberg D. de Broglie
39. Who determined that no two electrons may have the same set of four quantum numbers?
A. Planck B. Pauli C. Hund D. Rutherford
40. The quantity of heat needed to raise the temperature of a substance 1OC is its
A. Heat capacity B. specific heat C. enthalpy D. calorimetry
41. The properties of a real gas are most likely to deviate from those properties predicted for an ideal gas when
A. The pressure is low
B. The temperature is high
C. The pressure is high and the temperature is low
D. The pressure is low and the temperature is high
42. From the thermal decomposition of a pure solid, we obtained a solid and a gas, each of which is a pure substance. From this information, we can conclude
with certainty that
A. The original solid is not an element C. at least one of the products is an element
B. Both products are elements D. the solid is a compound and the gas is an element
43. Which of the following is not an SI unit?
A. Meter B. kilogram C. angstrom D. pascal
44. The critical point for a mixture occurs for which of the following cases?
A. The vapor and the liquid have a single form C. the liquid has no absorbed gas
B. The vapor phase is stable D. the liquid is completely vaporized
45. Which of the following elements and compounds is unstable in its pure form?
A. Sodium B. helium C. carbon dioxide D. neon
46. A substance is oxidized when which of the following occurs?
A. It turns red. C. it becomes more negative
B. It loses electrons. D. it gives off heat
47. Which of the following affects most of the electrical and thermal properties of materials?
A. The atomic weight expressed in grams per gram-atom
B. The electrons, particularly the outermost ones.
C. The magnitude of the electrical charge of the protons
D. The weight of the atoms
48. The indicator used to determine the anti-knock characteristics of gasoline is
A. Aniline point B. octane number C. cetane number D. diesel index
49. It is the reactant which is present in least stoichiometric proportion.
A. Limiting reactant B. excess reactant C. catalyst D. inhibitor
50. The element present in complete fertilizers are
A. C,H,O B. C,H,N C. Ca,Mg,S D. N,P,K
51. Because water molecules are associated through hydrogen bonding, water has a high
A. Temperature B. density C. boiling point D. solubility
52. The only common liquid in Earth is
A. mercury B. water C. petroleum D. oxygen
53. Because oil slick do not dissolve in water, one might expect oil to be composed of ______ molecules.
A. Nonpolar B. polar C. subpolar D. arctic
54. Which of the following is not true?
A. Solubility of gases in water increases with increasing temperature
B. Solubility of gases in water increases with increasing pressure
C. Solubility of gases in water is important for fish populations
D. Solubility of both oxygen and nitrogen gas increases with pressure
55. A scientific statement, often mathematical in form, that summarizes experimental data is called a
A. Law B. theory C. hypothesis D. proposition
56. All samples of a pure substance
A. Contain no chemicals C. have the same composition
B. Have a variable composition D. are heterogeneous
57. Elements are placed in groups in the periodic table on the basis of
A. Alphabet listing C. similar chemical properties
B. Number of neutrons in the nucleus D. order of discovery
58. Isotopes have the same
A. Mass number B. atomic number C. atomic mass D. half-life
59. Which hydrogen isotope contains one neutron?
A. Protium B. deuterium C. tritium D. none of these
60. It is the scattering of light by colloidal particles.
A. Brownian movement B. Tyndall effect C. Corioles effect D. Messner effect
61. A type of colloid in which a liquid is dispersed in a liquid, example, milk.
A. Foam B. emulsion C. sol D. aerosol
62. A type of colloid in which a liquid/solid is dispersed in a gas example fog, smoke.
A. Aerosol B. foam C. emulsion D. sol
63. A type of colloid in which a gas is dispersed in a liquid, example whipped cream.
64. It refers to adherence to a surface.
A. Adsorption B. absorption C. desorption D. osmosis
65. Which of the following is an aluminium ore?
A. Sphalerite B. amalgam C. galena D. bauxite
66. Which of the following radioisotopes is used in treating cancer?
A. Cobalt-60 B. uranium-233 C. helium-4 D. uranium-238
67. A substance that is capable of acting as either an acid or a base.
A. Buffer B. amphoteric C. Lewis acid D. Lewis base
68. A substance (molecule or ion) that can transfer a proton to another substance.
A. Arrhenius acid B. Arrhenius base C. Bronsted acid D. Bronsted base
69. The acid found in vinegar is
A. Acetic acid B. lactic acid C. formic acid D. citric acid
70. The number of equivalents of solute in one Liter of solution is
A. Molarity B. formality C. normality D. molality
71. Two electrons can occupy the same orbital because they have different
A. Principal quantum number C. angular momentum quantum number
B. Magnetic quantum number D. spin quantum number
72. Two isotopes of the same element have
A. The same number of protons, electrons, and neutrons
B. The same number of protons and neutrons but different numbers of electrons
C. The same number of protons and electrons but different numbers of neutrons
D. The same number of electrons and neutrons but different numbers of protons
73. What is the color of nickel chloride?
A. White B. red C. yellow D. green
74. A physical characteristic of water caused by suspended impurities which makes it cloudy.
A. Turbidity B. alkalinity C. pH D. acidity
75. Which of the following parameter is a chemical characteristics of water?
A. Turbidity B. color C. hardness D. odor
------------------------------------------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Ideal Gases
1. A cylindrical oil-storage tank is 60 ft deep and contains an oil of density 55lbm/ft3. Its top is open to the atmosphere. What is the gauge pressure at the
bottom of the tank?
A. 140 kPa B. 152kPa C. 158kPa D. 168kPa
2. A pressure gage measures 50kPa vacuum in a system. What is the absolute pressure if the atmospheric pressure is 101 kPa?
A.151 kPa B. 51 kPa C. 85 k Pa D. 60 kPa
3. Calculate the gage pressure at a depth of 100 meters in sea water, for which 𝛾 = 10.1 kN/m3.
A.1010 kPa B. 1110 kPa C. 1210 k Pa D. 1240 kPa
4. A Fahrenheit and a centigrade thermometer are both immersed in a fluid and indicates a Fahrenheit reading that is numerically twice that of centigrade
reading. What is the temperature of the fluid expressed in as degrees Kelvin?
A. 223 B. 780 C. 433 D. 420
5. At what temperature do the Celsius scale and Fahrenheit scale readings have the same numerical value?
A. 40 C or 40 F B. 32 C or 32 F C. -40 C or -40 F D. 100 C or 100 F
6. The volume of the sample of gas is 600 mL at a pressure of 1.65 atm. The pressure of the same gas would exert at a constant temperature, when the
volume is changed to 500 mL, would be
7. If a gas with a pressure of 2 atm is raised in temperature from 100 K to 300 K, an the volume remains the same, its pressure
A. is decreased to 1 atm C. is decreased to 2/3 atm
B. is raised to 3 atm D. is raised to 6 atm
8. A bubble of air at 0.010 m3 in volume is formed at the bottom of the lake which is 30 m deep where the temperature is 8o C. the bubble rises to the surface
where the water temperature is 26oC and the pressure is atmospheric pressure. The volume of the bubble when it reaches the surface is
A. 0.020 m3 B. 0.036 m3 C. 0.042 m3 D. 0.029 m3
9. The density of an unknown element is the gaseous state is 1.6 g/L at 300K and 1 atm. Which of the following could be the element?
A.O2 B. A- C. He D. Ne
10. Give one molecule of CO2, what is the volume of the gas ta STP?
A.1.2 E-24 L B. 2.65 E-20 L C. 3.2 E-12 L D. 3.72 E-23 L
11. The relative rate of diffursion of a gas (mol. wt. = 98) as compared to hydrogen will be
A.1/7 B. 1/5 C. 2/5 D. 1
12. O2 gas effused to a pinhole in 5 sec. how long will it take an equivalent amount of CO2 to effuse under the same conditions?
A. 4.3 sec B. 5.9 sec C. 3.8 sec D. 0.23 sec
13. Under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, which gas will diffuse the slowest rate?
A. helium B. neon C. argon D. radon
14. Find the total pressure exerted by 2 grams of ethane and 3 grams of CO 2, in a 5-liter vessel at 50oC.
A. 740 mmHg B. 30.75 psia C. 98 kPa D. 30.715 atm
15. A gaseous mixture contains 20 g of N2, 83 g of O2 and 45 g of CO2 in a 5-liter vessel at 50oC.
A. 30.1 g/mol B. 34.2 g/mol C. 35.8 g/mol D. 36.3 g/mol
16. When evacuated or empty a gas density bulb 29.3125 grams. First, CO 2 gas was used to fill the bulb at 40 deg C and 1.0 atm P and it weighs 30.0079g.
The bulb was then evavuated and filled with a mixture of CO and CO 2 under the same temperature and pressure. With this mixure the bulb weighed 29.9332.
Determine the % CO in the mixture.
A. 21 B. 29 C. 32 D. 15
17. The density of a gas of O2 and N2 is 1.1705 g/L at 27oC and 750 mmHg. The % of N2 in the mixture is
A.70% B. 68% C. 30% D. 32%
18. Calculate the rms speed of a nitrogen molecule at 25oC.
A. 515 m/s B. 720 m/s C. 815 m/s D. 850 m/s
19. At 0oC the average velocity of methane molecule in air 600 m/s. What is the total kinetic energy of 1.00 mol of methane molecules moving at this speed?
A. 4.78 E-21 J B. 2.88 E3 J C. 5.76 E3J D. 1.80 E5J
20. The molecule diameter of CO is 3.19 x 10-8 cm, at 300 oK and pressure of 100 mmHg. What is the mean free path of the gas in cm?
A. 6.86 x 10-8 B. 6.86 x 10-5 C. 6.86 x 10-3 D. 6.86 x 10-4
Stoichiometry
21. Calculate the gravimetric factor for Fe in Fe2O 3.

A. 0.6994 B. 0.5670 C. 0.7850 D. 0.2355
22. Calculate the grams of silver in 1.000 g of AgCl.
A. 0.35 g B. 0.75 g C. 0.45 g D. 0.80 g
23. Calculate the number of grams of MgCl2 necessary to precipitate 1.000 g of MgNH 4 PO4.
A. 0.6994 g B. 0.1540g C. 0.8905 g D. 0.3580 g
24. Ammonia is burned to for nitric oxide in the following reaction 4𝑁𝐻3 + 5𝑂2 → 4𝑁𝑂 + 6𝐻2𝑂. The mass of NO produced if 200 kg of O 2 react and reaction
proceeds to completion is:
A. 290 kg B. 150 kg C. 240 kg D. 120 kg
25. Suppose a reaction 𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 𝑧 + 3𝑤 → products there are 2 moles of x, and 1 mole for each y, z and w. What is the limiting reactant?
A. x B. y C. z D. w
26. Suppose the reaction 𝐶𝑎3(𝑃𝑂4 )2 + 3𝐻2𝑆𝑂4 → 3𝐶𝑎𝑆𝑂4 + 2𝐻3𝑃𝑂4 is carried out starting with 103 g of 𝐶𝑎3(𝑃𝑂4 )2 and 75g of 𝐻2𝑆𝑂4 . How much
𝐻3 𝑃𝑂4 will be produced? Ca=40; P=31; H=1; O=16; S=32 amu
A.74.9 g B. 50.0 g C. 112 g D. 32.5 g
27. The gas acetylene is produced according to the following reaction by treating calcium carbide with water:
𝐶𝑎𝐶2 + 2𝐻2𝑂 → 𝐶2𝐻2 + 𝐶𝑎𝑂𝐻2
Calculate the number of hours of service that can be derived from 1.0 lb of carbide in an acetylene lamp burning 2 cu ft. gas per hour at a temperature of
75oF and a pressure of 743 mmHg.
A. 3.11 hr B. 3.45 hr C. 2.87 hr D. 1.86 hr
{28-29} Propane is a hydrogen with the formula C 3 H 8 that is used as bottled gas.
28. How many liters of oxygen are needed to bum 1 L of propane gas? Assume all volumes to be measured at the same temperature and pressure.
A. 5 L B. 6 L C. 3 L D. 2 L
29. How many liters of carbon dioxide are produced by the reaction? Assume all volumes to be measured at the same temperature and pressure.
A. 5 L B. 6 L C. 3 L D. 2 L
30. PCl5(g) dissociates into PCl3(g) and Cl2(g) when heated at 250oC and 1 atm. If the density of the gas mixture equilibrium is 4.4 g/L, the fraction of PCl5(g)
dissociated is
A. 0.103 B. 0.328 C. 0.725 D. 0.209
DAILY TEST
1. One liter of oxygen is collected at 22o C. The temperature of the room rises to 25oC and then falls to 20oC. Calculate the contraction of the gas in ml as it
cools from 25oC to 20oC.
A. 0.17 ml B. 1.7 ml C. 17 ml D. 170 ml
2. Two gases occupy two containers, A and B. The gas in A, of volume 0.11 m 3, exerts a pressure of 1.38 MPa. The gas in B, of volume 0.16 m3, exerts a
pressure of 0.69 MPa. The two containers are united by a tube of negligible volume and the gases are allowed to intermingle. What is the final pressure in
the container if the temperature remains constant?
A. 0.78 MPa B. 0.83 MPa C. 0.92 MPa D. 0.97 MPa
3. An ideal gas ahs been placed in a tank at 40oC. The gauge pressure is initially 608 kPa. One-fourth of the gas is released from the tank and thermal
equilibrium is established. What will be the gauge pressure if the is 315oC? Take standard atmospheric pressure as 101 kPa.
A. 823 kPa B. 873 kPa C. 856 kPa D. 898 kPa
4. Estimate the number of molecules left in a volume of the size of a pin head about 1 cubic mm when air is pumped out to give a vacuum of 10-6 mmHg at
25oC.
A. 3.24 E7 B. 5.31 E24 C. 8.02 E23 D. 1.05 E10
5. Helium and argon monoatomic gases and their atomic weights are 4 and 40 respectively. Under identical conditions helium will diffuse through a
semipermeable membrane
A. 3.16 times as fast as argon C. 7.32 times as fast as argon
B. 1.58 times as fast as argon D. 10 times as fast as argon
6. A gas mixture contains 50 g of cyanogens, C2N2, and 50 g of CO2.if the total pressure is 2.56 atm, what is the partial pressure of cyanogens?
7. Calculate the root mean square speed of an oxygen molecule at 298 K.
A. 450 m/s B. 465 m/s C. 470 m/s D. 482 m/s
8. The fermentation of glucose, C6H12O6, preoduces ethyl alcohol,C2H5OH, and carbon dioxide.
𝐶6𝐻12𝑂6(𝑎𝑞) → 2𝐶2𝐻5𝑂𝐻(𝑎𝑞) + 2𝐶𝑂2(𝑎𝑞). How many grams of ethanol can be produced from 10 g of glucose?
A. 10.0 g B. 2.56 g C. 5.11 g D. 4.89 g
9. How many grams of carbon dioxide will be formed when 23 grams of C 2H 4 reacts with 3 grams of O 2?
A. 9.4 B. 6.2 C. 4.1 D. 2.8
10. Determine the molar volume in cm3 /g mol of n-butane at 460 K and 15 atm assuming ideal gas.
A. 1786 B. 1290 C. 2516 D. 2305
BRINGHOME EXAM
“My formula of success? Rise early, work late, strike oil.”
J. Paul Getty (1892 – 1976) US oil magnate.
1. Calculate the pressure at a depth of 100 meters in seawater, for which the specific weight is 10.1 kN/m 3.
2. Suppose Isaac Newton weighed 65 kg. calculate the pressure he has exerted on the ground when wearing boots with soles of total area 250 square
centimeters.
3. A solvent storage tank, 19.0 m high contains liquid styrene (sp. gr. 0.929). A pressure gage, which gives kPa reading, s fixed at the base of the tank to be
used to determine the level of styrene. Determine the gage pressure when the tank is full of styrene.
A. 173 B. 172000 C. 200.4 D. 17.7
4. Liquid nitrogen boils at 77 K. What is the boiling point on the Fahrenheit temperature scale?
A. -321 F B. -141 F C. -295 F D. 171 F
5. How many degrees Celsius is 100 degrees Farenheit?
A. 37.8 B. 2.667 C. 1.334 D. 13.34
6. The temperature known as room temperature is nearest to
A. 0 degree Celsius C. 20 degree Celsius
B. 60 degree Celsius D. 100 degree Celsius
7. The volume of a gas is 50ml when the pressure is 1520 mm and the temperature is 0o C. The volume becomes 25 ml when the temperature is raised to
546oC and the pressure is changed. Calculate the final pressure.
A. 9.120 mm B. 91.20 mm C. 912.0 mm D. 9120mm
8. A rubber balloon containing hydrogen has a volume of 3 liters. The temperature is 20o C and the pressure exerted by the hydrogen is 850 mm. The balloon
rises to the ceiling where it expands to 3200 ml and the pressure diminishes to 840 mm. Calculate the temperature near the ceiling;
A. 0.36oC B. 3.6oC C. 36oC D. 360o C
9. A sealed tank contains oxygen at 27oC and a pressure of 2 atm. If the temperature increases to 100 C, what will be the pressure inside the tank?
10. A volume of 400 cc of air is measured at a pressure of 740 mmHg abs and a temperature of 18 C. What will be the volume at 760 mmHg abs and 0 C?
A. 0.36oC B. 3.6oC C. 36oC D. 360o C
11. The volume of a sample of gas is 750 mL at a pressure of 1.60 atm. When the temperature is held constant, the volume of this same sample of gas at 2.0
atm would be
A. 800 mL B. 700 mL C. 650 mL D. 600 mL
12. An ideal gas is in a vessel of volume, V1, at 1 atm. The gas is released and allowed to expand into an evacuated 0.5 L bulb. Once equilibrium has been
reached, the temperature remains the same while the pressure is 500 mmHg. Find V1.
A. 0.853 L B. 0.961 L C. 1.069 L D. 1.077 L
13. Calculate the volume of one gram mole of helium at STP?
A. 5 L B. 6 L C. 3 L D. 2 L
14. At STP the density of chlorine is 3.22 kg/cubic meter. What weight of this gas is contained in a flask of 100 cubic centimeter at 24°C and 100 kPa?
A.0.563 g B. 0.292 g C. 0.420 g D.0.321 g
15. A 0.7m3 tank contains 4.5 kg of an ideal gas. The gas has a molecular weight of 44 and is at 21°C. What is the pressure of the gas?
A.289.6 kPa B.0.292 C. 3.26.7 kPa D. 357.2 kPa
16. A 287.5 cm3 of vapor at 100°C and 100 kPa has a mass of 0.725 gr. What is the molecular weight of the vapor?
A.77.94 B. 80.55 C. 326.7 kPa D. 85.44
17. The relative rate of diffusion of a gas (of molecular weight 128) as compared to oxygen.
A. 2 times B. 1/4 th C. 1/8 th D. 1/2
18. An unknown gas composed of homonuclear diatomic molecules effuses at a rate that is only 0.355 times that of O2 at the same temperature. What is the
identity of the unknown gas?
A.Cl2 B. F2 C. I2 D.Br2
19. At certain temperature the saturation humidity of air-water vapor system is found to be 0.065 kg of water kg of dry air at 101.3 kPa. What is the vapor
pressure of water at this temperature?
A.3.9 kPa B. 9.6 kPa C. 6.2 kPa D. 13.1 kPa
20. At 20°C (approximately room temperature) the average velocity of F2 molecules in air is 902 ml/hr. what is the total kinetic energy of 1 mol of F2 molecules
moving at this speed?
A.5.1 E-21 J B. 1.54 E 4 J C. 3.09 E 3 J D. 1.85 E 5 J
21. The molecules of a gas at 10°C would have twice as much average kinetic energy at
A. 20°C B. 293°C C. 556°C D. 859°C
22. What volume of 0.125 M H2SO4 is required to completely precipitate all of the barium in 10.00 mL of a 0.150 M barium nitrate solution?
A.12.0 mL B. 24.0 mL C. 6.00 mL D. 0.206 mL
23. What is the mass of the precipitate formed when 12.0 mL of 0.150 M NaCl is added to 25.0 mL of a 0.500 M AgNO3 solution?
A.258 g B. 0.258 g C. 179 g D. 0.179 g
24. A sample of vitamin A, C20H30O, contains 4.0E22 atoms of carbon. How many atoms of hydrogen and how many molecules of vitamin A does it contain?
A.6.0E22 atoms of H, 4.0E22 molecules of vitamin A
B. 4.0E22 atoms of H, 4.0E22 molecules of vitamin A
C.6E22 atoms of H, 2,0E21 molecules of vitamin A
D. 6.0E22 atoms of H, 8.0E23 molecules of vitamin A
25. Octane burns according to the following equation: 2𝐶8𝐻8 + 25𝑂2 → 16𝐶𝑂2 + 18𝐻20. How many grams of CO2 are produced when 5.0 grams of
C8H18 are burned?
A. 40.0 g B. 0.351 g C. 15.4 g D. 30.9 g
26. CO2 exhaled by astronauts is removed from the spaceship atmosphere by reaction with KOH: 𝐶𝑂2 + 2𝐾𝑂𝐻 → 𝐾2𝐶𝑂3 + 𝐻2𝑂. How many kg of CO2
can be removed with 1.00kg of KOH?
A. 0.0500 kg B. 0.786 kg C. 0.392 kg D. 1.57 kg
27. A byproduct of the reaction that inflates automotive airbags is very reactive sodium, which can ignite in air. Sodium produced during inflation process reacts
with another compound added to the airbag contents, KNO3, via the reaction 10𝑁𝑎 + 2𝐾𝑁𝑂3 → 𝐾2𝑂 + 5𝑁𝑎2𝑂 + 𝑁2. How many grams of KNO3
are required to remove 5.00 g of C8H18 are required to remove 5.00 g of Na?
A. 110 g B. 2.20 g C. 4.40 g D. 1.00 g
28. For the reaction 3𝑁𝑂2 + 𝐻2𝑂 → 2𝐻𝑁𝑂3 + 𝑁𝑂, how many grams of HNO3 can be form when 1.00 g of NO2 and 2.25 g of H2O are allowed to react?
A. 0.913 g B. 0.667 g C. 15.7 g D. 1.37 g
29. When 32 kg of methane is burned completely the theoretical oxygen required is
A. 16 kg B. 64 kg C. 128 kg D. 32 kg
30. Consider the equation shown below. If 3 g of oxygen produces 3.4 g of water, how many grams of water would be produced by 6 g of oxygen? 2𝐻2 +
𝑂2 → 2𝐻2𝑂
A. 3.4 g B. 6.8 g C. 6.4 g D. 5.3 g
31. Calcium hypochlorite, Ca(OCI)2, is used as a bleaching agent. It is produced from sodium hydroxide, calcium hydroxide, and chlorine gas in a solution-
phase reaction according to the overall equation
2𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 + 𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 + 2𝐶𝑙2 → 𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐶𝑙) 2 + 2𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + 2𝐻20
How many grams od calcium hypochlorite will be produced from 1067 g of Ca(OH)2?
A. 2042 g B. 1152 g C. 2059 g D. 2120 g
32. Sulfuric acid H2SO4, cam be formed from the chemical reaction 2𝑆𝑂 + 02 + 2𝐻2𝑂 → 2𝐻2𝑆𝑂4. Suppose 400 g of SO2; 175 g O2, and 125 g H2O are
mixed and the reaction proceeds until one of the reactants is used up. How many grams of H2SO4 is produced?
A. 612 g B. 620 g C. 622 g D. 630 g
33. How much calcium chloride can be made from a starting mixture containing 10 g Ca and 4 g of Cl?
A.26 g B. 20.3 g C. 12.1 g D. 6.3g
34. The weight of sulfuric acid and of sodium chloride that would be required to prepare 1 liter of hydrochloric acid, density 1.201 g/ml and 40.09% by weight
HCl, is __.
A.595.3 g B.646.8 g C. 6732 g D. 692.4 g
35. Some sulfuric acid spilled on a lab bench. It can be neutralized by sprinkling sodium bicarbonate on it and then mopping up the resultant solution. The
sodium bicarbonate reacts with sulfuric acid in the following way:
2𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3 (𝑠) + 𝐻2𝑆𝑂4(𝑎𝑞) → 𝑁𝑎2𝑆𝑂4(𝑎𝑞) + 2𝐶𝑂2 + 2𝐻2𝑂(𝑙)
Sodium bicarbonate is added until the fizzing due to the formation of CO2(g) stops. If 35ml of 6.0M H2SO4 was spilled, what is the minimum mass of
NaHCO3 that must be added to the spill to neutralize the acid?
A. 0.42 g B. 8.8 g C. 18 g D. 30.9 g
36. Energy flows spontaneously from areas of higher temperature to
A.areas of equilibrium B.areas of lower pressure
C.amounts of lower mass D.areas of lower temperature
37. Iodine, when heated passes from the solid phase directly to the gaseous phase. This is an example of
A.Charle’s Law B. sublimation C. vapor pressure D. heat of fusion
38. The study of chemistry does not include which one of the following?
A.the composition of particle B. the mechanics of particle motion
C.the structure of particles D. the properties of particles
39. Elements
A.Can be decomposed by chemical means B. cannot be decomposed by chemical means
C.contain two or more atoms cemically combined D. the properties of particles
40. Which of the following is NOT true of solids?

A.true solids have a crystalline structure B.they take the shape of the container
C.they have a boiling point D.they have a definite volume
41. Which of the following is NOT true of liquids

A.they gave no definite shape or volume B.they have a definite shape
C.they have a boiling point D.their heat of vaporization can be measured
42. The composition of a mixture
A.may vary B. remains constant
C.has a definite ratio throughout D. is easily calculated
43. The intrinsic energy in the particles of any pure substance is highest in the
A.solid phase B. liquid phase C. gaseous phase D. gel phase
44. Which of the following is not a pure substance?
A.water B. hydrogen C. milk D. oxygen
45. A(n)_____ is always composed of the same elements combined in a definite proportion by mass
A.isotope B. compound C. ion D. allotrope
46. Which of the following is true of our understanding of the nature of the atom?
A.It has undergone little, but significant change and is now complete
B. it has undergone change and will likely continue to do so
C. it is just as the ancients originally described it
D. it has undergone such major changes it is retuning to the ancient model
47. An example of a chemical change is
A.freezing water B. breaking a glass
C.sublimation of carbon dioxide D. digestion of food
48. Acetic acid is classified as weak acid because it
A.does not ionize in water B. does not neutralize bases
C. slightly ionize in water D. react rapidly with zinc to produce hydrogen
49. According to bronsted lowry theory, an acid is any substance that
A.donates a proton B. does not neutralize bases
C. donates an electron D. react rapidly with zinc to produce hydrogen
50. The hydronium ion is a complex ion composed of
A.an electron B. a neutron C. a proton D. a positron
51. The exact amount of solute dissolve in a given amount of solvent is
A.concentration B. unsaturated C. dilution of solution D. solubility of solute
52. The chaotic zigzag motion of particle in solution is describe by
A.electrical charge effect B. tyndall effect C.brownian movement D.osmosis
53. The temperature at which the vapor pressure is equal to the prevailing atmospheric pressure is
A.boiling point B. melting point C. freezing point D. critical point
54. Cathode rays are composed of
A.positrons B. protons C. electrons D. neutrons
55. The kind of bond formed between atoms of the same electronegativity will be
A.covalent B. polar covalent C. non-polar covalent D. ionic
56. One of the terms does not belong to the set, it is
A.lustrons B. malieable C. brittle D. ductile
57. One of the following elements do not belong to the group. It is
A.magnesium B. cesium C. calcium D. beryllium
58. A substance that is being dissolved in a solution is called the
A.electrolyte B. solvent C. solute D.colloid
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Chemical Equilibrium
1. For a chemical equilibrium, a decrease in temperature will
A. Favor the reaction that is exothermic C. have no effect on the system
B. Increase the equilibrium constant of the system D. favor the reaction that is endothermic
2. For the reaction 2 NO(g) + O 2(g) <=> 2 NO 2(g), ∆𝐻 = −14 kcal, which of the following will cause the formation of more product?
A. Decreased pressure C. increased temperature
B. Addition of oxygen D. addition of catalyst
3. For the reaction 𝐻2(𝑔) + 𝐼2(𝑔) → 𝐻𝐼(𝑔) equilibrium constant at 500°C is 62.5 if 5 moles of H2 and 5.0 moles of I2 are placed in 10 liter container at
500°C and allowed to come to equilibrium. Calculate the final concentration of H2.
A. 0.10 mcl/L B. 0.10 L/mol C. 0.20 mol/L D. 0.20l/mol
4. For the reaction𝐻2(𝑔) + 𝐼2(𝑔) → 𝐻𝐼(𝑔) equilibrium constant at 500°C is 62.5. if 5 moles of H2 and 5.0 moles of I2 are placed in a 10 liter container at
500°C and allowed to come to equilibrium. Calculate the final concentration of HI.
A. 0.15 mol/L B. 0.15 L/mol C. 0.10 mol/L D. 0.10L/mol
5. For the reaction 𝐻2(𝑔) + 𝐼2(𝑔) → 𝐻𝐼(𝑔)equilibrium constant at 500°C is 62.5. if 5 moles of H2 and 5.0 moles of I2 are placed in a 10 liter container at
500°C and allowed to come to equilibrium. Calculate the final concentration of HI.
A. 0.80 L/mol B. 0.80 mol/L C. 0.10 mol/L D. 0.10 L/mol
6. For the 2𝑁𝑂2 → 𝑁2𝑂4(𝑔). At a certain temperature one mole of NO2 is placed in a 10 liter container. After equilibrium is established, there are 0.20
mole of N2O4 present. Calculate the equilibrium constant at this temperature.
A. 55.6 mol/L B.5.56 mol/L C.5.56 L/mol D.55.6 L/mol
7. Given the formation of HI as an endothermic reaction, to favor the formation of more HI:
A. Increase pressure C. decrease pressure and temperature
B. Increase temperature D. add more HI
8. Consider the following reactions at equilibrium: 3𝐻2(𝑔) + 𝑁2(𝑔) ↔ 2𝑁𝐻3(𝑔) + 92 𝐾𝐽. Which single change in conditions will cause a shift in
equilibrium toward an increase in production of NH 3?
A. Addition of an inert gas C. removal of hydrogen gas
B. Increase in volume of the system D. increase in pressure on the system
9. At equilibrium a 1-liter reactor contains 0.3 mol of A, 0.1 mol of B and 0.6 mol of C, according to the equation: 𝐴 + 𝐵 → 𝐶. If 0.2 mol of C was added,
how many moles of C was left at equilibrium?
A. 0.80 B. 0.45 C. 0.94 D.0.76
10. At equilibrium a 1-liter reactor contains 0.3 mol of A, 0.1 mol of B, and 0.6 mol of C, according to the equation: 𝐴 + 𝐵 → 𝐶. if 0.4 mol of A was added,
how many moles of A was left after equilibrium was reestablished?
A.0.65 B. 0.05 C.0.35 D.0.70
11. A mixture of nitrogen and hydrogen was allowed to come to equilibrium at a given temperature. An analysis of the mixture at equilibrium contained 2.0
mol N2, 3.0 mol H2 and 1.5 mol NH3. How many moles of H2 were present at the beginning of the reaction?
A.3.0 B.4.0 C.4.5 D.5.3
12. At 500 K the equilibrium constant for the reaction 2 NO(g) + CI2(g) = 2 NOCI(g) is Kp= 52.0. An equilibrium mixture of the three gases has partial
pressures of 0.095 atm and 0.171 atm for NO and CI2, respectively. What is the partial pressure of NOCI in the mixture?
A.3.53 atm B. 8.02 E-2atm C.0.283 atm D.0.845 atm
13. At 300°C and 1 atm CO2 is 40% dissociated to CO and O2 according to the equation 2𝐶𝑂2 → 2𝐶𝑂 + 𝑂2 . Its percent dissociation when pressure is
increased to 2 atm is
A.0.350 B. 0.335 C. 0.425 D. 0.375
Colligative properties of Non-Electrolytes

14. Calculate the boiling point of a solution of formed by dissolving 20 g of a nonvolatile non-electrolyte solute (MW=40) in1 kg water.
A.100.52°C B.100.26°C C.101.04°C D.101.12°C
15. A mixture of 0.660 grams of camphor and 0.050 gram of an organic solute freezes at 157°C. If the solute contains 10.5% H by w eight, determine the
molecular formula of the solute if the freezing point of camphor is 178.4°C and the value of K f is 38
A.C 10H 14 B. C 2 H 6 C.C 6 H 6 D.C 8H 16
16. Glycarin, C 3H 8O 3, is a nonvolatile nonelectrolyte with a density of 1.26 g/mL. at 25°C. Calculate the vapor pressure at 25°C of a solution made by adding
50 mL of glycerin to 500mL of water. The vapor pressure of pure water at 25°C is 23.8 torr.
A.21.5 torr B. 23.2 torr C. 24.0 torr D.24.6 torr
17. At 25°C the vapor pressure of pure benzene is 0.1252 atm. If we dissolve 6.40 g of an unknown hydrocarbon in 78 g of pure benzene, we observe that
the vapor pressure of the benzene in the solution is 0.1192 atm. What is the molar weight of the unknown solid?
A.120 B. 125 C. 128 D. 132
18. Components A and B form ideal solution. At 350 K, a liquid mixture containing 40% (by mole) A is in equilibrium with a vapor containing 70% (by mole)
A. if the vapor pressure of A at 350K is 70 kPa, what is the vapor pressure of B?
A.25 kPa B. 20kPa C. 40 kPa D. 12 kPa
19. The vapor pressure of pure ethyl alcohol at 30°C is 71.2 torr and that of pure carbon tetrachloride is 121.6 torr. Calculate the pressure above a solution
containing 20 g of ethyl alcohol and 60 g of carbon tetrachloride assuming ideal behavior
A.100 torr B. 97.8 torr C. 75.2 torr D. 95.0 torr
20. We dissolve 2.00 g of protein in 1 L water, the osmotic pressure is measured to be 0.021 atm at 25°C what is the approximate molar weight of the protein
A.20000 g/mol B. 21000 g/mol C. 22000 g/mol D. 23000 g/mol
21. Calculate the osmotic pressure of an aqueous solution of 1 gram of sucrose per 100 mL of solution at 0°C
A.1.2 atm B. 0.90 atm C. 0.655 atm D. 1.05 atm
22. The osmotic pressure of an aqueous solution of a certain protein was measured in order to determine its molar mass. The solution contained 3.50 mg of
protein dissolved in sufficient water to form 5 mL solution. The osmotic pressure of the solution at 25°C was found to be 1.54 torr. Calculate the molar
mass of protein.
A. 8450 B. 9000 C. 9500 D. 9820
Henry’s Law
23. At 20°C and one atmosphere, one liter of water will absorb 0.043 g of oxygen or 0.19 g of nitrogen. Atmospheric air is 20.9% oxygen by volume, and the
remainder is assumed to be nitrogen. What mass of oxygen will be absorbed by one liter of water exposed to 20°C air at one atmosphere?
A.0.009 g B. 0.150 g C. 0.23g D. 0.043 g
DAILY TEST
1. The reaction CO 2 + H 2 = CO + H 2O was investigated by passing mixtures of CO 2 and H2 over a catalyst at 900° at 1 atm pressure. The resulting gas was
chilled quickly to room temperature by passage through a capillary and was analyzed, In one experiment the partial pressures were as follows: CO 2=0.2142;
H 2=0.2549; CO=0.2654; H 2O=0.2654 atm. Calculate the number of moles of hydrogen present in another equilibrium mixture containing 22.72 moles of CO,
22.72 moles of H 2O, and 48.50 moles of CO 2
A.76.45 mole B.6.25 mole C.9.48 mole D.10.1 mole
2. From the following heats of reaction:
2𝐶(𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑝ℎ𝑖𝑡𝑒) + 2𝐻2(𝑔) + 𝑂2(𝑔) → 2𝐻2𝐶𝑂(𝑔) ∆𝐻 = −217 𝑘𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙
2𝐶(𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑝ℎ𝑖𝑡𝑒) + 2𝐻2(𝑔) + 2𝑂2(𝑔) → 2𝐻2𝐶𝑂2(𝐼) ∆𝐻 = −849 𝑘𝐽/𝑚𝑜l
Calculate the heat of the reaction 2𝐻2𝐶𝑂(𝑔) + 𝑂2(𝑔) → 2𝐻2𝐶𝑂2(𝑙)
A.-316 kJ/mol B.316 kJ/mol C. -632 kJ/mol D. 632 kJ/mol
3. The difference between heats reaction at constant pressure and constant volume for the reaction 2𝐶6𝐻6 (𝐼) + 15𝑂2(𝑔) → 12 𝐶𝑂2 (𝑔) +
6𝐻2𝑂 (𝐼) at 298°K in kJ is
A.-7.43 kJ B. 3.72 kJ C. -3.72 kJ D. 7.43 kJ
4. A 2-L flask is filed with 0.2 mol of HI, it is allowed to reach equilibrium at high temperature. If at equilibrium the flask was found to contain 0.078 M HI,
calculate Kp.
A.4.2E-6 B.4.2E-5 C.1.2E-7 D. 0.141
5. What is the osmotic pressure at 20°C of a 0.0020 M sucrose solution?
A.0.0486 atm B. 0.488 atm C.4.88 atm D. 48.8 atm
6. A solvent-water mixture is to be distilled at 95°C. the vapor pressure of the solvent at this temperature is 130mmHg and that of water is 640mmHg. The
solvent is immiscible in water and has a molecular weight of 150. The weight of the solvent in kilograms that will be carried over in the distillate with 200kg
of water is
A.358.73 B. 423.57 C. 338.54 D. 524.
7. 4.2 g of a non-ionizing solute was dissolved in 112 g of acetone (Kb=1.71°C /m, Tb=55.95°C). the boiling point of the solution increased to 56.7°C. what is
the approximate molecular weight of the solute?
A.85.8 g/mol B.92.7 g/mol C. 98.1 g/mol D. 102.7 g/mol
8. A certain amount of solute is added to water to form one molal solution. What is the freezing point of the solution?
A.-1.86°C B. 1.66°C C. 0.86°C D. -0.86°C
9. Calculate the boiling point at 760mmHg of a solution containing 5.00 grams urea in 75.00grams of water. The molecular weight of urea is 60.06.
A.95.8°C B. 100.05°C C. 100.6°C D.101.6°C
10. The concentration of carbon dioxide in water at 20°C is 1.o E-5 M. The henry’s constant for carbon dioxide dissolution in water is 3.91 E-@ M/stm. What is
the partial pressure of CO 2 in the air?
A.2.56 E -5 atm B. 2.56 E-4 atm C. 3.75 E-5 atm D.3.75 E- 5 atm
BRINGHOME EXAM
“Success is peace of mind, a direct of self-satisfaction inknowing that you did your best to become the best that you are capable of becoming, and not just in a physical way: seek ye first
the kingdom and His righteousness and all these things will be yours a well.” – John Wooden
1. The average osmotic pressure of blood is 7.7 atm at 25°C. What concentration of glucose will be isotonic with the blood?
A.0.25 M B. 0.31 M C. 0.36 M D. 0.42 M
2. The mass ratio of nitrogen to oxygen in air is
A.3.77 B. 3.12 C. 4.12 D. 3.29
3. The vapor pressure of bromobenzene, C 6H 8Br, above an ideal-dilute aqueous solution of molality 0.092 mol kg-1 is 23.6 kPa. Calculate the henry’s law
constant of bromobenzene.
A.256 kPa-kg/mol B. 2.17 kPa-kg/mol C. 120 kPa-kg/mol D.1.5 kPa-kg/mol
4. What is the osmotic pressure in atm produce by a 1.20 M glucose solution at 25°C?
A.36.0 B. 4.89 C. 27.2 D. 29.3
5. The osmotic pressure of a solution containing 0.10 gmol/1000 g water at 25°C is
6. An idea solution is formed from a mixture of the nonvolatile solute urea, CO(NH2)2, and methanol. The vapor pressure of pure methanol at 20°C is 59
mmHg. Calculate the mole fraction of urea that is obtained from mixing 6 g of urea with 32 g of methanol.
A.0.091 B. 0.10 C. 0.16 D. 0.84
7. A 4.266 grams compound is dissolved in 100 grams toluene. What is the molecular weight of the compound if the vapor pressure of the solution 28.209
mmHg. The vapor pressure of toluene at the working temperature is 26.829 mmHg. Assume that the compound is a nonvolatile, non- dissociating solute.
A.42.5 B. 46.1 C. 56.9 D. 178
8. Calculate the vapor pressure of a solution containing 800 g of table sugar in 100 g water at 25°C vapor pressure of water is 23.6 torr at 25°C.
A.20.5 torr B. 21.6 torr C. 22.1 torr D. 22.9 torr
9. The boiling point of the immiscible liquid system naphthalene – water is 98°C under a pressure of 733 mmHg. The vapor pressure of water at 96°C is 707
mmHg. Calculate the weight % of naphthalene in the distillate.
A.20.7% B.19.5% C. 18.6% D. 18.2
10. The vapor pressure of a solution containing 13 grams of a nonvolatile solute in 100 grams of water at 25°C is 27.371 mmHg. Calculate the molecular weight
of the solute, assuming that the solution is ideal. The vapor pressure of water at this temperature is 28.065 mmHg.
A.90.4 B.92.3 C.94.1 D.94.9
11. A solution of 1.25 g of a non-electrolyte solute in 20 g of water freezes at 271.94°K. find the molecular weight of the solute.
A.207.8 B.179.79 C.209.6 D. 109.6
12. What weight of glycerol would have to be added to 1000 g of water in order to lower its freezing point to -10°C?
A.579 g B. 495 g C. 954 g D. 594 g
13. Calculate the freezing point of a solution containing 4.27 g of sucrose in 50 g w ater.
A. -0.46°C B. -0.65°C C. -0.76°C D. -0.82°C
14. Calculate the boiling point of a solution containing 4.27 g of sucrose in 50 g water.
A. 101.71°C B. 101.12°C C. 100.87°C D. 100.13°C
{15-18} The following data refer to question 1 through 4. Trimellitic acid containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen has 51.44% C, 2.88% H, and 45.68% O. It can
be obtained by oxidation of coal with nitric acid. A 2.416-g sample of this compound was dissolved in 40.0 g of acetone, producing a solution that boils at 56.64°C,
Kb for acetone is 1.71°C/molal. Pure acetone has a boiling point of 56.20°C.
15. From the percentage composition, determine the empirical formula, what is the empirical weight of the C, H and O compound in grams per empirical unit?
A.29 B.41 C.70 D.82
16. What is the molality of the acetone solution using the change in boiling point?
A.0.06 B.0.26 C.0.42 D.0.86
17. What is the experimental molecular weight for trimellitic acid?
A.41 B.140 C.200 D.230
18. What is the molecular formula for the compound?
A.C2HO B. C3H2O2 C.C6H4O4 D. C9H6O6
19. For the reaction: 2𝐴 + 𝐵 ↔ 2𝐶 + 𝐷, the equilibrium concentrations of A, B, C, and D in mol/L are 2, 1.2, 3.0 and 0.6 respectively. What is the numerical
value of K eq?
A.0.889 B.1.33 C. 1.12 D. 4.32
20. If 1 mole of PCI3 and 1 mole of CI2 are placed in a 5-L container, the following equilibrium is reached PCI3 (g) + CI2 (g) = PCI5 (g) Kc=10 at the temperature
maintained. What is the equilibrium molar concentration of PCI3?
A.0.13 B. 0.11 C. 0.14 D. 0.10
21. Consider the reaction: 𝐻2(𝑔) + 𝐼2(𝑔) → 2𝐻𝐼(𝑔) Keq=25. Determine the number of moles of H2 remaining when 1 mole of both H2 and I2 are
equilibrated in a liter box.
A.1/6 mole B. 2/7 mole C. 5/7 mole D. 5/6 mole
22. Given the reaction 𝐴 + 𝐵 → 2𝐶; K=50. Determine the final concentration of C when 1 mole of both A and B are added to a 1 liter container containing
0.1 mole of C
A. 0.76 mole B. 0.88 mole C. 1.66 mole D. 1.85 mole
23. Given the following reaction:
𝑁2(𝑔) + 3𝐻2(𝑔) = 2𝑁𝐻3((𝑔) ∆𝐻 = −30 𝑘𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒
How will equilibrium of the following reaction be affected if the temperature is increased?
A. It will be shifted to the right C. It will be shifted to the left
B. it will be unaffected D. the equilibrium be shared
24. For the reaction 2𝐴(𝑔) + 𝐵(𝑔) ↔ 3𝐶(𝑔) + 𝐷(𝑔). The concentration at equilibrium are 0.30 M of A, 0.60 m of B, 0.20 M of C and 0.50 M of D. Find
the equilibrium constant.
A.0.074 B. 0.047 C. 0.74 D. 0.47
25. Methyl alcohol can be prepared commercially by the reaction of hydrogen with carbon monoxide CO + 2H 2 CH 3OH under equilibrium conditions at 700
K, [H 2 ]=0.072M, [CO]=0.020M, and [CH 3OH]=0.030M. what is the value of the equilibrium constant?
A.100 B. 290 C. 180 D.50
26. The equilibrium constant K p for the reaction CO + H 2O = CO 2 + H 2 is 10.0 at 690°K. the heat of the reaction ∆𝐻° is = 10,200 cal. Calculate the partial
pressure of CO in equilibrium mixture prepared by mixing 0.400 mole of CO and 0.200 mole of H 2O in a volume of 5 liters at 500°K.
27. A 1 liter vessel established equilibrium with the following reaction, 2 SO 2 + O 2 = 2 SO 3, has 0.11 mole SO 2, 0.05 mole O 2 and 0.12 mole SO 3. Another 1 liter
vessel is used and contains initially 96 g of SO 2 how much O 2 (in grams) must be added, if at equilibrium, one-half of SO 2 will be converted to SO 3.
A.6.04 B. 9.34 C. 13.34 D. 9.60
28. Ammonia is formed from a mixture of 3 moles of hydrogen and 1 mole of nitrogen at lower temperatures the yield is higher, but the time required for
equilibrium to be reached be too great to be practical except for the addition of catalyst. The pressure is kept as high and the temperature low as practical.
Under equilibrium conditions at 400° and 10 atm pressure, 3.85 mole percent of ammonia is obtained. Calculate K p for the reaction N2 + H2 = 2NH3. The
ration of 3 volumes of hydrogen to 1 volume of nitrogen is maintained, regardless of the amount of ammonia formed. Of the 96.15 percent by volume which
is not ammonia one-fourth is nitrogen and three- fourths is hydrogen.
A..000139 B. 0.000145 C. 0.000157 D. 0.000164
29. The value of Kc for the reaction 𝐶(𝑠) + 𝐶𝑂2 (𝑔) → 2𝐶𝑂(𝑔) is 1.6. What is the equilibrium concentration of CO if the equilibrium concentration of CO2
is 0.50 M?
A.0.75M B. 0.31 M C. 0.80 M D. 0.89 M
30. As the temperature of the reaction is increased, the rate of the reaction increases because the
A. reactant molecules collide less frequently
B. reactant molecules collide less frequently and with greater energy
C. activation energy is lowered
D. reactant molecule collide with greater energy
31. In a series of reactions, what is the rate determining step?
A. The main reaction involving the major reactant C. The Fastest reaction
B. The slowest reaction D. The reaction with the highest order
32. Which three factors affect the rate of a chemical reaction?
A. Temperature, pressure and humidity
B. Temperature, reactant concentration and container volume
C. Temperature, reactant concentration and pressure
D. Temperature, reactant concentration, and catalyst
33. A liquid property which permits an insect such as the water strider to “walk” on water.
A. Surface tension B. Diffusivity C. viscosity D. density
34. The rise of liquids up very narrow tubes is called
A. Surface tension B. capillarity action C. viscosity D. buoyant force
35. Sometimes as we remove heat from a liquid we can temporarily cool it below freezing point without forming a solid. This phenomenon is called
A. Fusion B. supercooling C. vaporization D. sublimation
36. In substances that sublime, the intermolecular forces of attraction are
A. Weak the vapor pressure is low C. weak and the vapor pressure is high
B. Strong and the vapor pressure is low D. strong and the vapor pressure is high
37. An element in the lower left corner of the periodic table
A. Is either a metalloid or a nonmetal C. is definitely a metal
B. Is either a metal or metalloid D. is definitely a metalloid
38. Water, no matter where it is found, consist of hydrogen and oxygen combined in a 1:8 ratio by mass. This is the statement of
A. The law of constant composition C. the law of multiple proportions
B. The law of conservation of energy D. the law of conservation of mass
39. Which dissolve fastest in coffee?
A. Lump sugar in hot coffee C. granular sugar in hot coffee
B. Granular sugar in cold coffee D. lump sugar in cold coffee
A. Anderson B. Pauli C. Heisenberg D. Borg
41. Which of the following is a qualitative way of expressing concentration?
A. Molarity B. saturated C. normality D. formality
42. The number of moles of solute per kilogram solvent is
A. Molality B. molarity C. normality D. formality
43. Properties which depend on the amount of the various substances that make up the solution.
A. Colligative B. extensive C. Intensive D. physical
44. A reaction in which the products that are formed react to form the original reactants.
A. Reversible B. Irreversible C. redox D. chemical
45. It states that if a stress is applied to a system at equilibrium, the system will shift, if possible in such a way as to reduce the stress.
A. Law of bass action B. Le Chateller’s principle
C. Rate law D. Pauli exclusion principle
46. In the compound KMnO 4 , what is the oxidation number of Mn?
A. +6 B. +7 C. +4 D. +3
47. In the reaction 𝑁𝑎 + 𝐶𝑙2 → 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙, what is the oxidizing agent?
A. NaCl B. Cl C. Na D. Cl2
48. All isotopes of a given element have?
A. All isotopes of a given element have B. the same number of protons
C. the same number of atomic mass units D. the same number of neutrons
49. Group I elements, is also known as
A. Alkaline earth metals B. halogens C. alkali metals D. chalcogen
50. One atomic mass unit is equivalent to _______ of the mass of a mole of carbon
A. 1/2 B. 1/18 C. 1/12 D. 1/8
51. The number that expresses the oxidation state of an atom of an element or groups of atoms is called the
A. Indicator B. valence C. Displacement factor D. electrolyte
52. An uneven sharing of electrons between two atoms indicate
A. Bonding B. coupling C. electronegativity D. polarity
53. Alka-seltzer is an example of
A. Bonding B. coupling C. electronegativity D. polarity
54. Brix scale is used for
A. sugar solutions B.LPG C. petroleum D. water
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ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY 1
pH & pOH
1. The pH of 10-4 gm hydrogen ion per liter of a solution is

A. 7 B. 8 C. 5 D. 4
2. A certain aqueous solution at 25ºC has [OH] = 6.2 E -5 M. Calculate the pH of the solution.
A. 4.21 B. 5.80 C. 8.20 D.9.79
3. Assuming complete ionization, the pH of 0.01 M HCl solution would be
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
4. The pH of a solution is 6.38. Find the concentration of hydrogen ion in moles per liter.
A. 4.17E-7 M B. 2.23E-7 M C. 1.22E-6 M D. 3.20E-6 M
5. The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution is a thousand times greater than the hydroxide ion concentration. Find the pH of the solution.
A. 8.5 B. 7.5 C. 5.5 D. 6.5
6. If the solution X has a pH of 6 and solution Y has a hydronium ion concentration twice that of solution X, the approximate pH of solution Y is
A. 12.0 B. 3.0 C. 5.7 D.9.0
Acid – Base Equilibria
7. Calculate the percent ionization of 0.05 M acetic acid. Ka = 1.8E-5

A. 6.7% B. 4.5% C. 2.4% D. 1.9%
8. A 0.01 M weak acid (contains one replaceable hydrogen) is 4.17% ionized. What is the ionization constant?
A. 1.8E-5 B. 1.2E-4 C. 3.6E-5 D. 1.2E-5
9. What is the concentration of an HCN solution which is 0.02% ionized? Ka = 4E-10.
A. 0.001 M B. 0.01 M C. 0.1 M D. 1 M
10. What is the pH of a 0.10 M solution of nitous acid (HNO 2 )? Ka = 7.2E-4
A. 1.43 B. 4.24 C. 2.09 D. 2.85
11. Calculate the pH of 0.10 M NH 3(aq). K = 1.8E-5
A. 2.9 B. 11.1 C. 3.4 D. 10.6
12. What is the pH of 7.0E- 8 M acetic acid?
A. 6.85 B. 4.76 C. 8.90 D. 5.76
Buffer Solution
13. A 0.1 M solution of HAc has been buffered by the addition of NaAc. The H + ion concentration is found to be 0.000025 M. What is the concentration of the
acetate ion?
A. 0.072 M B. 0.72 M C. 0.045 M D. 0.45 M
14. Find the hydrogen ion concentration in a liter of solution that contains 12.0 grams of acetic acid and 8.2 grams of sodium acetate.
A. 3.6 E-5 M B. 6.3 E-5 M C. 3.6 E-6 M D. 6.3 E-6 M
15. The pH of an acetic acid-sodium acetate buffer whose salt to acid ration is 2 is
A. 4.74 B. 5.05 C. 6.95 D. 8.95
16. Find the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution containing 0.1 mole of HOCN and 0.1 mole of NaOCN per liter of solution.
A. 2E-4 M B. 2E-5 M C. 1.5E-6 M D. 1.5E-3 M
17. If 100 mL of 0.1 M NH 4Cl solution is added to 150 mL of 0.1 M NH 4OH solution, what is the hydroxide ion concentration in the resulting solution? Kb(NH 4OH) =
1.8E-5.
A. 2.7 E-5 M B. 2.7 E-4 M C. 6.2 E-4 M D. 6.2 E-5 M
Ksp
18. Silver chromate, Ag2CrO 4, is soluble to the extent of 0.0259 mole per liter. Calculate the solubility product constant. (6.9E-5 M 3 )
A. 1.9E-12 B. 1.9E-11 C. 1.9E-10 D. 1.9E-9
19. Calculate the solubility of SrSO 4 in grams per 100 mL of solution from its solubility product constant, Ksp = 7.6 E-7.
A. 0.016 g/100mL B. 0.202 g/100mL C. 0.152 g/100mL D. 0.406 g/100mL
20. Calculate the solubility of Mg(OH)2 in grams per liter from the solubility product constant. Ksp = 8.9 E-12.
A. 0.0021 g/L B. 0.0076 g/L C. 0.187 g/L D. 0.561 g/L
DAILY TEST
1. To increase the solubility of sugar in water, you must
A. stir the solution vigorously
B. pulverize the sugar particles before adding them to the water
C. heat the solution
D. evaporate the water
2. A certain organic monoacidic base with an ionization constant of 2.0 E-8 serves as an indicator in a neutralization titration. An intermediate shade of color is
obtained at pH = 6. What percentage of the indicator has been converted to the ions at this point?
A. 67% B. 70% C. 60% D. 55%
3. A 0.1 M solution of sodium bicarbonate has a pH value of :
A. 7 B. 8.4 C. 5.6 D. 4.0
4. A certain organic base of the general formula ROH serves as an indicator in the neutralization titration. Its change of color is found to take place when it is one-
quarter converted to ionic form. At this point the pH value of the solution is 5.6. What is the ionization constant of the indicator?
A. 1.3 E-9 B. 1.3 E-8 C. 1.3 E-7 D. 1.3 E-6
5. Calculate the hydronium-ion concentration of an aqueous, 0.150 M acetic acid solution. The Ka for acetic acid is 1.76 E -5.
A. 1.62 E-3 M B. 1.62 E-2 M C. 2.45 E-2 M D. 2.45 E-3 M
6. What is the proof of a “wine cooler” that is 5% alcohol volume?
A. 2.5 proof B. 5 proof C. 10 proof D. 50 proof
7. What is the pH of a 1 E -8 M solution of HCl?
A. 6.98 B. 7.02 C. 5.76 D. 8.95
8. What is the ratio of the concentration of acetic acid to sodium acetate in a buffer whose pH is 5?
A. 0.56 B. 1.2 C. 1.8 D. 3.1
9. Calculate the solubility product constant of AgI solution if its solubility is 2.15 E-10 grams per 100 mL of solution.
A. 5.2 E-13 B. 8.4 E-17 C. 5.2 E-17 D. 8.4 E-13
10. What is the solubility product of barium fluoride if 1.3 grams of barium fluoride dissolve in a liter?
A. 1.2 E-6 B. 1.2 E-7 C.1.7 E-6 D.1.7 E-7
BRINGHOME EXAM
“If you want to succeed you should strike out on new paths rather than travel the worn paths of accepted success.” – John D. Rockefeller
1. The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution is 5 E-6 M. Find pH.

A. 2.1 B. 3.2 C. 4.5 D. 5.3
2. The acidity constant for acetic acid is 1.8 E-5. Find pKa.
A. 3.6 B.4.2 C.4.7 D. 5.4
3. The pH of a solution is 6.38. Find the concentration of hydroxide ion in moles per liter.
A. 1.2 E-6 B. 2.4 E-8 C. 2.4 E-6 D. 1.2 E-8
4. The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution is 5E-6 M. Find pOH.
A. 5.3 B. 8.7 C.4.8 D.9.2
5. What is the pH of 0.01 M solution HCl?
A. 3.5 B. 4.1 C. 3.9 D. 2.0
6. Calculate the pOH of a 0.020 M HCl solution.
A. 1.7 B.12.3 C. 2.8 D. 11.2
7. In a 0.1 molar solution, cyanic acid is 4.4 percent dissociated. Find Ka.
A. 2.0 E-4 B. 2.0 E-5 C. 2.0 E-6 D. 2.0 E-7
8. Calculate the OH - in 0.1 molar ammonium hydroxide solution. K b = 1.8 E-5
A. 1.34 E- 2 B. 1.34 E-3 C. 4.2 E-4 D. 4.2 E-2
9. If 0.1 mole of solid NaOH solution is added to 150 mL 0.2 M HAc solution. Calculate the final H + ion concentration.
A. 1.5 E-4 M B. 2.6 E-4 M C. 5.9 E-4 M D. 4.6 E-6 M
10. 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution is added to 150 mL of 0.2 M HAc solution. Calculate the final H + ion concentration.
A. 3.2 E-4 M B. 3.7 E-5 M C. 3.2 E-5 M D. 3.7 E-6 M
11. Calculate the ionization constant of HAc if 0.1 M HAc is 1.34% ionized.
A. 1.2 E-4 B. 1.8 E-5 C. 2.6 E-4 D. 2.6 E-5
12. What is the pH of 0.256 M NH 4 Cl? K b = 1.8 E-5
A. 2.64 B. 9.90 C. 11.36 D. 4.92
13. Phenol is monobasic acid with and ionization constant at 25ºC of 1.3 E-10. What is the pH value of a 1 M solution?
A. 1.2 B. 6.44 C. 3.45 D. 9.06
14. A 0.20 M solution of weak acid HA is 0.6% ionized. What is the value of ionization constant, Ka, for this acid?
A. 7.2 E-6 B. 7.2 E-7 C.7.9 E-6 D. 7 E-5
15. A 4.2% ionized 0.01 M ammonia solution is prepared from ammonium hydroxide. Calculate the pH.
A. 10.62 B. 3.38 C. 8.55 D. 5.45
16. The ionization constant for acetic acid is 1.82 E-5. What is the hydrogen ion concentration for a 0.2 M solution?
A. 2.2 E-4 M B. 7.7 E-5 M C. 7.9 E-6 M D. 7 E-5 M
17. Calculate the pH of an aqueous buffer solution which contains 0.100 mol/L NH 3 and 0.200 mol/L NH 4 Cl.
A. 9 B. 8.5 C. 7.0 D. 10
18. Five mL of 3 M HAc is added to 50 ml of 1 M NaAc solution. Find the hydrogen ion concentration.
A. 5.4 E-6 B. 6.7 E-4 C. 1.2 E-8 D. 1.8 E-5
19. What is the pH of a solution containing 0.01 M acetic acid and 0.01 M sodium acetate?
A. 9.26 B. 4.74 C. 3.25 D. 10.75
20. The solubility of barium sulfate is 0.0091 g/L at 25ºC. What is the value of the solubility product constant of barium sulfate? The molar weight if the barium
sulfate is 233 g/mol.
A. 1.52 E-9 mole2/L2 B. 8.63 E-7 mole2/L2 C. 4.24 E-8 mole2 /L2 D. 2.98 E-6 mole2 /L2
21. The solubility of PbCl2 in water is 1.6 E-2 mole/L. What is the Ksp of PbCl2?
A. 5 E-4 B.4.1 E-6 C. 3.1 E-7 D. 1.6 E-5
22. A saturated solutions of Ag2SO 4, is soluble to the extent of 0.0259 mole per liter. Calculate the solubility product constant.
A. 6.26 E-6 B. 6.25 E- 4 C. 1.5626 E- 6 D. 3.125 E-6
23. Silver chromate, Ag2CrO 4, is soluble to the extent of 0.0259 mole per liter. Calculate the solubility product constant.
A. 6.9 E-5 B. 6.9 E-6 C. 1.9 E-6 D. 1.9E-5
24. What is the concentration of the Ag+ ion in a saturated solution og AgCl? Ksp = 1.7 E-10
A. 1.7 E-10 M B. 3.4 E-10 M C. 1.3 E-5 M D. 2.6 E-5 M
25. The solubility of CaF2 is 2 E-4 mol/liter. Its solubility product is
A. 2.0 E- 4 B. 4.0 E-8 M C. 8.0 E-12 M D. 3.2 E- 11 M
26. What is the pH of buffer solution consisting of 0.20 M NH 3 and 0.10 M NH 4 NO3 at 25ºC K for ammonia is 1.8 E-5
A. 5.6 B. 7.9 C. 13.2 D. 9.5
27. Calculate the ionization constant for 0.1 M nitrous acid that is 6.5 % ionized.
A. 5.6 E-2 B. 1.8 E-5 C. 4.5 E-6 D. 1.8 E-5
28. Potassium hydroxide ionizes completely in water. What is the pH og 0.05 M KOH?
A. 1.3 B. 11.5 C. 2.5 D. 12.7
29. The pH of solution is 5.0. Its hydrogen ion concentration is decreased hundred times. Then the solution will be
A. more acidic B. neutral C. basic D. of the same acidity
30. Calculate the pH of a solution of 0.080 M HNO 3.
A. 8.0 B. 5.4 C. 3.2 D. 1.1
31. The solubility product constant of Mg(OH)2 in water is 1.2 E-11. If the Mg2+ concentration in an acid solution is 1.2 E-5 mol/L, what is the pH at which Mg(OH)2
just begins to precipitate?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 11 D. 12
32. A solution of acetic acid whose analytical concentration was 0.100 M was found to have a hydrogen-ion concentration of 1.32 E-3 M. Calculate the equilibrium
constant for the dissociation of this acid.
A. 1.76 E-5 B. 2.01 E-4 C. 2.01 E-5 D. 1.76 E-4
33. A chemical compound is made up of
A. a mixture of compounds
B. noble gases bonded together
C. atoms with complete valence shells which are then bonded to become incomplete
D. two or more atoms joined through bonding
34. When two hydrogen atoms are brought together
A. the electrons, which are negative, attract each other
B. the positive electron of each atom repels the other atom
C. the negative electron of each atom is attracted by the positive nucleus of the other atom
D. the negative electron of each atom is attracted by the neutral nucleus of the other atom
35. In HCl, the chlorine attracts the electrons more than the hydrogen does largely because
A. chlorine has more electrons than hydrogen
B. chlorine has more protons in its nucleus than hydrogen does
C. chlorine has more neutrons in its nucleus than hydrogen does
D. HCl is polar covalent molecule
36. Ions are formed when
A. one or more electrons are shared
B. at least two nonpolar bond are created
C. electrons are transferred from one atom to another
D. neutral atoms are created
37. When an atom loses on or more electrons during oxidation
A. a cation is formed
B. an anion is formed
C. the atom always becomes neutral
D. the atom undergoes reduction
38. An ionic bond
A. forms when two atoms gain or lose a pair of electrons
B. results from oxidation
C. forms when two nonmetals chemically combine
D. results from the attraction between cations and anions
39. When magnesium and chlorine reacts, they form
A. Mg2 Cl B. Mg3Cl2 C. Mg2 Cl3 D. MgCl2
40. Which statement about a compound is true?
A. it consist of two or more distinct substances
B. it has no definite composition
C. its components cannot be physically separated
D. the properties of the individual components are retained
41. During a chemical reaction, there is a
A. conversion of mass to energy
B. loss of energy
C. change of energy from one form to another
D. gain of energy because all reactions give off heat
42. When a state of equilibrium is reached
A. the rate of the forward reactions equals the rate of the reverse reaction
B. the forward and reverse reaction stops
C. the rate of the forward reaction is greater than the rate of the reverse reaction
D. the rate of the reverse reaction is greater than the rate of the forward reaction
43. Which of the following is true of our understanding of the nature of the atom?
A. it has undergone little, but significant change and is now complete
B. it has undergone change and will likely continue to do so
C. it is just as the ancients originally described it
D. it has undergone such major changes it is returning to the ancient model
44. Which of the following would not come from a radioactive source?
A. gamma rays B. laser beam C. alpha particles D. high-speed electrons from nuclear decay
45. Which of the following radiation will be stopped by a piece of paper?
A. alpha B. neutron C. gamma ray D. x-ray
46. Which rule or principle delineates the placement of additional electrons in the unfilled orbital of lowest energy?
A. Avogadro B. Aufbau C. Hund D. Pauli
47. Spectral lines are produced
A. when electrons are knocked out of their energy level
B. when electrons interact with protons
C. when electrons move up to higher energy levels
D. when electrons return to their energy level
48. Which of the following is not a source of the potential energy a substance has in a chemical reaction?
A. composition B. mass number C. structure D. bond type
49. When a chemical bond is broken,
A. energy is absorbed B. energy is released C. there is no energy change D. an exothermic reaction has occurred
50. Chemical change will occur if they lead to
A. bond formation B. endothermia C. exothermia D. lower energy condition
51. The transfer of electrons from one atom to another forms
A. isotopes B. allotropes C. ions D. molecules
52. Which of the following is not a way to express the formula of a compound
A. structural B. molecular C. empirical D. metallic
53. Which of the following compounds always end in –ide?
A. binary B. polyatomic C. covalent D. ionic
54. Van der waals forces accounts for the formation of
A. water molecules B. ionic solids C. conjugate bases D. liquid helium
55. The modern periodic table is based on
A. atomic radius B. atomic mass C. atomic number D. atomic charge
56. The properties of the atoms depend on their
A. mass B. number C. radius D. structure
57. The periods on the periodic table are represented by
A. columns B. rows C. metallic elements D. inert gas members
58. Metals tend to ____ electrons
A. lose B. gain C. share D. combine
59. Nonmetals tend to ____ electrons in combination with metals
A. lose B. gain C. share D. combine
60. Which if the following is not true of the metals?
A. have relative low ionization energies
B. usually have low electrical conductivity
C. are malleable
D. have high thermal conductivity
61. When an atom gains or loses electrons, it tends to
A. become chemically unstable
B. become neutral
C. increase its oxidation number
D. change its size
62. Nonmetals, in the solid phase, tend to
A. have the same size B. conduct electricity C. lack metallic luster D. all of the above
63. Nonmetals do not generally
A. possess high ionization energy
B. gain electrons
C. have high electronegativities
D. tend to be malleable
64. Metalloids tend to have characteristics of
A. metals B. nonmetals C. both metals and nonmetals D. inert gases
65. Elements within a group have
A. similar number of valence electron
B. the same number of energy levels
C. the same atomic radii
D. similar masses
66. In the “A” groups, as the atomic number increases,
A. the electronegativity increases
B. the same number of energy levels
C. the atomic radius decreases
D. the elements tend to have fewer metallic properties
67. In each period, as the atomic number increases,
A. the raiuds of the atom increases
B. ther is a transition from negative to positive oxidation states
C. the electronegativity increases
D. the ionization energy decreases
68. Sulfur is ____ oxygen
A. smaller than B. less reactive than C. equally as reactive as D. an ion of
69. The type of chemical bond form between carbon and hydrogen in polymers
A. ionic B. covalent C. metallic D. hydrogen
71. It is a substance that will slow down the speed of chemical reaction
A. catalyst B. inhibitor C. positive catalyst D. substrate
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY 2
Acid-Base Titration
1. A solution containing 25.3 mL of 0.1065 N HCl is added to one containing 92.2 mL of 0.2715 M H 2SO 4, and 50 mL of 1.00 N KOH are added. Is the solution
acid or alkaline?
A. alkaline B. cannot be determined C. acid D. none of the above
2. How many milliliters of 6 M H 2SO 4 would be required to neutralize 100 mL of 3 M NaOH solution?
A. 25 mL B. 40 mL C. 50 mL D. 75 mL
3. How many drops of 0.1 M HNO 3 solution are required to neutralize 15 drops of 0.2 M Ba(OH)2 solution?
A. 40 B. 50 C.60 D. 70
4. What volume of 0.125 M H 2SO 4 is required to neutralize 2.50 g of Ca(OH)2 ?
A. 0.270 mL B. 0.135 mL C. 135 mL D. 270 mL
5. A 0.5000 g sample of pure CaCO 3 is dissolved in water to which 50.00 mL of HCl solution have been added. The solution then requires 6.20 mL of NaOH
solution which 1.000 mL = 1.010 mL of the HCl. What is the normality of the HCl solutions?
A. 0.2307 B. 0.2284 C. 0.3125 D. 0.3540
6. What is the percentage of total acid expressed as acetic acid in sample of vinegar if 3.000 g of the vinegar require 20.50 mL of 0.1150 N KOH solution for an
end point with phenolphthalein indicator?
A. 3.21% B. 4.33% C. 4.72% D. 5.21%
7. In the analysis of a 2.00 g sample of lime by titration with H 2SO 4 , what must be the normality of the acid so that the percentage of Ca may be found by dividing
the net volume of the acid by 4?
A. 0.15 N B. 0.20 N C. 0.25 N D. 0.30 N
8. A mixture of Na2CO 3 and BaCO 3 weighing 0.2000 g requires 30.00 mL of 0.1000 N acid for complete neutralization. What is the percentage of Na2CO3 in the
sample?
A. 55.7% B. 44.3% C. 50.5% D. 49.5%
9. What weight of BaCO 3 should be added to 1.000 g of Li2 CO 3 so that the mixture will require the same volume of standard acid for neutralization as would the
same weight of CaCO 3?
A. 0.714 g B. 0.450 g C. 1.005 g D. 0.985 g
10. A sample consisting of Na2CO3 , NaOH and inert gas matter weighs 1.179 grams. It is titrated with 0.3000 N HCl with phenolphthalein as the indicator, and the
solution became colorless after the addition of 48.16 mL. Methyl orange is then added and 24.08 mL more of the acid are needed for the color change. What is
the percentage of Na2CO 3 in the sample?
A. 24.51% B. 64.95% C. 4.06% D. 76.15%
Gravimetric Analysis
11. Nicotine is a compound that contains carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen. If a 2.50 g of a sample of nicotine is burned in oxygen 6.78 g of CO 2, 1.94 g of H 2O and
0.432 g of N 2 are the products of combustion. What is the purity of the sample?
A. 99.87% B. 98.20% C. 95.2% D. 89.90%
12. A 5.82 g silver coin is dissolved in nitric acid. When sodium chloride is added to the solution, all the silver precipitated as AgCl. The A gCl precipitate weighs
7.20 g. Determine the percentage of silver in the coin.
A. 90.5% B. 91.2% C. 92.3% D. 93.1%
{13-16} A sample of an oxide of lead (oxide A) weighing 4.7840 g is heated to drive off oxygen to form oxide B weighing 4.5704 g. Further heating at high
temperature removes more oxygen to give oxide C weighing 4.4639 g and containing 92.8% of lead.
13. The empirical formula of oxide A is

A. PbO B. PbO 2 C. Pb2 O3 D.Pb3 O4
14. The empirical formula of oxide B is
15. The empirical formula of oxide C is
DAILY TEST
1. A mixture contains Na2CO 3, NaOH and inert matter. A sample weighing 1.500 g requires 28.85 mL of 0.5000 N HCl to reach a phenolphthalein end point,
and an additional 23.85 mL to reach methyl orange end point. What is the percentage of NaOH in the sample?
A. 84.27% B. 50.68% C.20.56% D. 6.67%
2. What volume of 0.125 M H 2SO4 solution is required to neutralize 25.21 mL of 0.540 M NaOH?
A. 109 mL B. 54.4 mL C. 5.84 mL D. 11.7 mL
3. In standardizing a solution of HCl, it is found that 47.26 mL of the acetic acid are equivalent to 1.216 g of pure Na2CO 3. What is the normality of the acid?
A. 0.4855 N B. 0.3540 N C. 0.5020 N D. 0.3902 N
{4-6} A metal with water the evolution of hydrogen and formation of its hydroxide. One gram atom of the metals was allowed to react completely with water. The
hydroxide solution was made up to one liter. One hundred milliliters of this solution required 110 mL of 0.9091 N hydrochloric acid for neutralization. The
chloride metal was found to contain 13.7% of chlorine.
4. The volume of hydrogen gas liberated at S.T.P is

A. 22.4 L B. 44.8 L C. 11.2 L D. 5.6 L
5. The atomic weight of the metals is
A. 297 B. 197 C. 224 D. 226
6. Since the solution of the hydroxide of the metal is normal, the valency of the metal is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
7. A 15.10 g sample of an unstable hydrated salt, Na2 SO4-xH2O, was found to contain 7.05 g of water. Determine the empirical formula of the salt.
A. Na2SO 4-3H 2O B. Na2SO4-4H 2O C. Na2SO 4-6H 2O D. Na2SO4-7H 2O
8. A taconite ore consisted of 35% Fe3O4 and the balance siliceous impurities. How many tons of the ore must be processed in order to recover one tone of metallic iron?
A. 3.75 B. 3.95 C. 4.15 D. 4.45
9. A sample of poly styrene prepared by heating styrerne with tribromobenzoyl peroxide in the absence of air has the formula Br 3C 6H3(C 8H8)N. the number n varies with the
conditions of preparation. One sample of polysty rene prepared in this manner was found to contain 10.46% bromine. What is the v alue of N?
A. 19 B. 18 C.17 D. 16
10. Calculate the percentage of CaO in CaCO3.
A. 42.7% B. 45.6% C. 52.0% D. 56.0%
BRINGHOME EXAM
“Planning is as natural to the process of success as its absence is to the process of failure.”
Robin Sieger, British business excutive
1. How many milliliters of 0.1000 N Ba(OH)2 are theoretically required to titrate 0.3000 g of H 3AsO 4 to the formation of Ba(H 2 AsO4 )2?
A. 16.4 mL B. 17.6 mL C. 18.9 mL D. 21.14 mL
2. What is the normality of a solution of KOH if 45.18 mL are required to neutralize 0.300 g of pure oxalic acid (H 2C 2O 4H2O)?
A. 0.1053 B. 0.1153 C. 0.2135 D. 0.3125
3. Calculate the alkaline strength of pearl ash(impure potassium carbonate) in terms of percent K 2O from the following date: Sample=0.3500 g; HCl
used=48.03 mL; NaOH used for back titration=2.02 mL; 1.000 mL HCl=0.005300 g Na2 CO3; 1.000 mL NaOH=0.02192 g KHC 2O 4 H 2O
A. 45.2% B. 54.0% C. 60.5% D. 65.8%
4. What weight of a sample of impure oxalic acid should be taken for titration by 0.5000 N NaOH so that the percentage of H 2C 2O 4 - 2H 2 O will be twice the
burette reading?
A. 1.576 g B. 1.892 g C. 2.007 g D. 2.280 g
5. What volume of a 1 M solution of hydrochloric acid is required to neutralize 80 mL of 0.5 M NaOH solution?
A. 320 mL B. 160 mL C. 80 mL D. 40 mL
6. How many mL of 0.200 M NaOH will completely neutralize 100 mL of 0.250 M H 2SO 4?
A. 125 B. 175 C. 225 D. 250
7. When 50 mL of a nitric acid solution was titrated with 0.334 M NaOH, it required 42.80 mL of the base to achieve the equivalence point. What is the
molarity of the nitric acid solution?
A. 0.286 B. 0.826 C. 0.682 D. 0.628
8. A 0.250 g sample of solid acid was dissolved in water and exactly neutralized by 40.0 mL of 0.125 N base. What is the equivalence weight of the acid?
A. 40 B. 44 C. 48 D. 50
9. A 48.4 mL sample of HCl solution requires 1.240 g of pure CaCO 3 for complete neutralization. Calculate the normality of the acid.
A. 0.512 B. 0.476 C. 0.412 D. 0.386
10. A 25 mL sample of 0.025 M HBr is mixed with 25.0 mL of 0.023 M KOH. What is the pH of the resulting mixture?
A. 1.00 B. 3.00 C. 7.00 D. 11.00
11. A student is titrating 50 mL of 0.2 N HCl solution with a solution of 0.2 N KOH. He accidentally adds one mL too much titrant. What is the pH of the
resulting solution?
A. 10.3 B. 11.3 C. 2.7 D. 7.3
12. A sample of impure sulfide ore contains 42.43% Zn. Find the percentage of the pure ZnS in the sample.
A. 67.10% B. 63.10% C. 56.05% D. 52.15%
13. A sample of impure cuprite Cu2O contains 66.6% copper. What is the percentage of pure Cu2O in the sample?
A. 45% B. 55% C. 65% D. 75%
14. The “roasting” of 100 g of a copper ore yielded 75.4 g of 89.5% pure copper. If the ore composed of Cu2S and CuS with 11.0% inert impurity, calculate the
percent of Cu2S in the ore.
A. 62% B. 38% C. 74% D. 28%
15. A 1.2048 g sample of impure NaCO 3 is dissolved and allowed to react with a solution of CaCl2. The resulting CaCO 3, after precipitation, filtration, and
drying, was found to weight 1.0362 g. Assuming that the impurities do not contribute to the weight of the precipitate, calculate the percent purity of the
Na2CO 3.
A. 86.2% B. 88.9% C. 91.1% D. 93.2%
16. Hydrogen peroxide maybe oxidized to O 2 or it may be reduced to H 2O. Which of the following represents the milliequivalent weight of H 2O2 as an oxidizing
agent and as a reducing agent?
A. 0.03402 B. 0.01134 C. 0.00851 D. 0.01701
{17-18} A solid metallic element burns in oxygen to produce an oxide which dissolves in water to give the hydroxide of the metal. The hydroxide obtained from 1
gram of metal neutralizes 111.2 mL of normal hydrochloric acid. The specific heat of the metal is 0.228 cal/g- ºC.
17. What is the valency of the metal?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
18. What is the equivalent weight of the metal?
A. 9.33 B. 8.992 C. 9.002 D. 9.005
19. Calculate the normality of NaOH if 10 mL of NaOH reacts with 20 mL of 0.4 M sulfuric acid.
A. 1.6 N B. 0.8 N C. 2.6 N D. 3.2 N
20. What weight of a sample of impure oxalic acid should be taken for titration by 0.5000 N NaOH so that the percentage of H 2C 2O 4 - 2H 2 O will be twice the
burette reading?
A. 1.576 g B. 1.892 g C. 2.007 g D. 2.280 g
21. What volume of a 1 M solution of hydrochloric acid is required to neutralize 80 mL of 0.5 M NaOH solution?
A. 320 mL B. 160 mL C. 80 mL D. 40 mL
22. What volume of 0.0224 N adipic acid solution would be used in the titration of 1.022 cm3 of 0.0317 N Ba(OH)2?
A. 1.20 mL B. 1.45 mL C. 2.05 mL D. 3.60 mL
23. What is the equivalent weight of an acid 1.243 g of which required 31.72 cm3 of 0.1923 N standard base for neutralization?
A. 180 B. 194 C. 204 D. 210
24. What volume of 0.115 M HClO 4 solution is required to neutralize 50.00 mL of 0.0875 M NaOH?
A. 0.115 mL B. 38.0 L C. 38.0 mL D. 50.0 mL
25. What volume of 0.128 M HCl is required to neutralize 2.87 g of Mg(OH)2?
A. 0.0126 L B. 0.385 L C. 0.769 L D. 22.4 L
26. Tartaric acid (H 2C 4 H 4O6), has two acidic hydrogens. The acid is often present in wines and precipitates from solution as the wine ages. A solution
containing an unknown concentration of the acid is titrated with NaOH. It requires 22.62 mL of 2.000 M NaOH solution to titrate both acidic protons in
40.00 mL of tartaric acid solution. Calculate the molarity of the tartaric acid.
A. 0.02262 M B. 0.04524 M C. 0.5655 M D. 1.131 M
27. Mayonnaise and milk are examples of
A. emulsion B. suspension C. colloid D. mixture
28. Which of the following units represents the largest amount of energy?
A. calorie B. joule C. erg D. electron-volt
29. Whose rule or principle delineates the placement of additional electron in the unfilled orbital of lowest energy?
A. Avogadro B. Aufbau C. Hund D. Pauli
30. An exothermic reaction is one which
A. takes place only on heating
B. is accompanied by absorption of heat
C. is accompanied by a flame
D. is accompanied by evolution of heat
31. An element obtained commercially from sea water and salt brines is
A. aluminum B. beryllium C. potassium D. magnesium
32. The major problem in exploiting nuclear fusion as an energy source is
A. the high radioactivity of reactants
B. the high radioactivity of the products
C. the lack of appropriate reactants
D. the high activation energy that is required for the reaction
33. Which of the following is not a normal characteristic of a metal?
A. conduction of electricity
B. low electron affinity
C. malleability
D. high ionization energy
34. An amphoteric substance
A. can be dissolved by an acid
B. reacts with both an acid and a base
C. can be neutralized by an acid
D. is insoluble in a base but dissolved in an acid
35. The electrolysis of water yields
A. equal volumes of hydrogen and oxygen
B. equal masses of hydrogen and oxygen
C. two volumes of hydrogen for each volume
D. twice the mass of hydrogen as of oxygen
36. The quantity known as specific heat is
A. any temperature reported on the more specific absolute temperature scale
B. the energy needed to increase the temperature of 1 gram of a substance by 1 degree Celsius
C. any temperature of a 1 kg sample reported in degrees Celsius
D. the heat needed to increase the temperature of any size sample by 1 degree Celsius
37. The heat transfer that takes place by energy moving directly from molecule is called
A. conduction B. convection C. radiation D. none of these
38. The heat transfer that does not require matter is
A. conduction B. convection C. radiation D. impossible, for matter is always required
39. Styrofoam is a good insulating material because
A. it is plastic material that conducts heat poorly
B. it contains many tiny pockets of air
C. of the structure of the molecules making up it
D. it is not very dense
40. The transfer of heat that takes place because of density difference in fluids is
A. conduction B. convection C. radiation D. none of these
41. When a solid, liquid, or gas changes from one physical state to another, the change is called
A. melting B. entropy C. a phase change D. sublimation
42. Latent heat is “hidden” because it
A. goes into or comes out of internal potential energy
B. is a fluid (caloric) that cannot be sensed
C. does not actually exist
D. is form of internal kinetic energy
43. As a solid undergoes a phase change to a liquid state, it
A. releases heat while remaining at a constant temperature
B. absorbs heat while remaining at constant temperature
C. releases heat as the temperature decreases
D. absorbs heat as the temperature increases
44. The condensation of water vapor actually
A. warms the surroundings
B. cools the surroundings
C. sometimes warms and sometimes cools the surroundings
D. neither warms nor cools the surroundings
45. A wave is
A. the movement of material from one place to another place
B. a travelling disturbance that carries energy
C. a wavy line that moves through materials
D. all of the above
46. A longitudinal mechanical wave causes particles of a material to move
A. back and forth in the same direction the wave is moving
B. perpendicular to the direction the wave is moving
C. in a circular motion in the direction the wave is moving
D. In a circular motion opposite the direction the wave is moving
47. A transverse mechanical wave causes particles of a material to move
A. back and forth in the same direction the wave is moving
B. perpendicular to the direction the wave is moving
C. in a circular motion in the direction the wave is moving
D. In a circular motion opposite the direction the wave is moving
48. Transverse mechanical waves will move only through
A. solids B. liquids C. gases D. all of these
49. Longitudinal mechanical waves will move only through
A. solids B. liquids C. gases D. all of these
50. The sky appears to be blue when the sun is in the sky because
A. blue is the color of air, water, and other fluids in large amounts
B. red light is scattered more than blue
C. blue light more than the other colors
D. none of the above
51. The photoelectric effect proved to be a problem for a wave model of light because
A. the number of electrons ejected varied directly with the intensity of light
B. the light intensity had no effect on the energy of the ejected electrons
C. the energy of the ejected electrons varied inversely with the intensity of light
D. the energy of the ejected electrons varied directly with the intensity of light
52. Max Planck made the revolutionary discovery that the energy of vibrating molecules involved in blackbody radiation existed only in
A. multiples of certain amounts
B. amounts that smoothly graded one into next
C. the same, constant amount of energy in all situations
D. amounts that were never consistent from one experiment to the next
53. Einstein applied Planck’s quantum discovery to light and found
A. a direct relationship between the energy and frequency of light
B. that the energy of a photon divided by the frequency of the photon always equaled a constant known as Planck’s constant
C. that the energy of a photon divided by the Planck’s constant always equaled the frequency
D. all of the above
54. Today, light is considered to be
A. tiny particles of matter that move through space, having no wave properties
B. electromagnetic waves only, with properties of particle
C. a small-scale phenomenon without a sharp distinction between particle and wave properties
D. something that is completely unknown
55. The electron was discovered through experiments with
A. radioactivity B. light C. matter waves D. electricity
56. Thomson was convinced that he had discovered a subatomic particle, the electron, from the evidence that
A. the charge-to-mass ratio was the same for all materials
B. cathode rays could move through a vacuum
C. electrons were attached towards a negatively charge plate
D. the charge was always 1.60 E-19 coulomb
57. The existence of a tiny, massive, and positively charged nucleus was deduced from the observation that
A. fast, massive and positively charged alpha particles all move straight through the metal foil
B. alpha particles were deflected by a magnetic field
C. some alpha particles were deflected by the metal foil
D. none of the above
58. According to the Rutherford’s calculations the volume of an atom is mostly
A. occupied by neutrons and protons
B. filled with electrons
C. occupied by tightly bound protons, electrons, and neutrons
D. empty space
59. The main problem with solar system model of the atom is that
A. electrons move in circular, not elliptical orbit
B. the electrons should lose energy since they are accelerating
C. opposite charges should attract one another
D. the mass ratio of the nucleus to the electron is wrong
60. The energy of a photon
A. varies inversely with the frequency
B. varies directly with velocity, not frequency
C. is directly proportional to the frequency
D. is inversely proportional to the velocity
61. The lines of color in a line spectrum from a given element

A. change colors with changes in the temperature
B. are always the same, with a regular spacing pattern
C. are randomly spaced, having no particular pattern
D. have the same colors, with a spacing pattern that varies with temperature
SNAP EXAM
Organic Chemistry
1. In benzene, what is the valence bond hybridization on each carbon atom?

A. sp B. sp2 C. sp3 D. spd
2. Which of the following is called methyl chloride?
A. CH 3Cl B. CH 2Cl C. CHCl3 D. CCl4
3. Which of the following is propanone?
A. CH 3COCH3 B. CH 3CO2H C. CH 3CHO D. HCHO
4. What class of compounds is represented by the type formula ROR’?
A. esters B. ketones C. ethers D. aldehydes
5. Name the compound CH 3 (CH2)COOH.
A. benzoic acid B. carboxylic acid C. octanoic acid D. maleic acid
6. Name the compound (C 6 H 5)2O.
A. diethyl ether B. diphenyl ether C. diethyl amine D. benzyl alcohol
7. Which of the following is bromobenzene?
A. CH 3CH2NH2 B. CH 3CH2 CHO C. C 6H 5Br D. C 6 H 11 Br
8. Which of the following is an amide?
A. CH 3NH2 B. HCONH2 C. CH 2O D. CH 3 OH
9. Which of the following is an amine
A. CH 3NH2 B. HCONH2 C. CH 3F D. CH 3 COOH3
10. What continuous-chain hydrocarbon is isomeric with 2-methyl-3-ethylhexane?
A. octane B. nonane C. decane D. dodecane
11. Give a straight-chain hydrocarbon that is isomeric with 2,2,4-trinethylpentane
A. heptane B. octane C. nonane D. decane
12. How many isomers are there corresponding to the formula C 4 H 10 O?
A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7
13. How many structural isomers are possible for C 2H 4 Cl2?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
14. Which of the following compounds can exist as geometric isomers?
A. CH 2Cl2 B. CH 2Cl-CH2Cl C. CHBr=CHCl D.CH 2Cl-CH2Br
15. Which of the following molecules is a Bronsted base?
A. C 5H 5 N B. C 2 H 5OH C. C 6H 5OH D. C 2H 5OCH3
16. What kind of hybrid orbitals are formed on the carbon atoms in cyclopropane?
A. sp B. sp2 C. sp3 D.spd
17. Which of the following involve redox reactions?
A. evaporation of water C. reaction of H 2SO 4 with NaOH
B. production by lighting of ozone from CO 2 D. burning of gasoline
18. It is hard naturally occurring trans polyisoprene.
A. hevea rubber B. gutta percha C. ABS D. PPO
19. A polymer produced by the condensation of terephthaldehyde and methyl-1,4-phenelene diamine.
A. tupperware B. aramids C. Vectra D. polyazomethine
20. Which of the following structure represents that of vinyl chloride?
A. C 2H 3 Cl B. C 2 H 2Cl2 C. C 2H 2ClF D. C 2Cl4
21. It is obtained from milky secretion of various plants such as the tree Hevea braisiensis.
A. natural rubber B. PAI C. Xenoy D. collagen
22. Polymers which are capable of forming an ordered solution.
A. mesogenic B. hematic C. thermotropic D. lyotropic
23. Which of the following is a crystalline polymer which is used primarily as a film?
A. PVC B. PVF C. PTFE D. TFE
24. Polymer which are capable of forming an ordered melt.
25. A polymer composite used as food containers for ovenable dishes.
A. fiber glass polyester B. BMC polyester C. SMC D. PTFE
26. In chemical reactions involving alkenes, halogen atoms can replace hydrogen atoms. These reactions are called
A. combustion B. dehydrogenation C. substitution D. addition
27. Which of the following is the most acidic?
A. 1-butanol B. 2-butanol C. tert butanol D. phenol
28. Bonding between carbon atoms
A. electrovalent and strong B. electrovalent and weak C. covalent and strong D. covalent and weak
29. The formula of acrylonitrite
A. C 3H 4 N B. C 3 H 5N 2 C. C 3H 3N D. C 2 H 2N
30. Which of the following is not an aliphatic hydrocarbon?
A. n-octane B. n-tridecane C. propylene D. toluene
31. Which of the following compounds is incorrectly named:
A. p-chloroaniline B. ethyl benzene C. 3-methyl pentane D. 2-ethyl butane
32. An isomer of ethanol is
A. Methanol B. ethylene glycol C. dimethyl ether D. acetone
33. It is the attraction between like molecules.
A. absorption B. diffusion C. adhesion D. cohesion
34. The hydrate named as sodium carbonate decahydrate is commonly called
A. baking soda B. washing soda C. soda lime D. caustic soda
35. The energy needed to remove an electron from a neutral atom is
A. electron affinity B. electronegativity C. first ionization energy D. ductility
36. The electron configuration of phosphide ion is (atomic number = 15) is
A. [Ne]3s2 B. [Ne]3s23p2 C. [Ar] D. [Ne]3s23p3
37. Two electrons in the same atom that have identical values of the quantum numbers n,l and ml are said to be in:
A. the same shell & subshell but different orbital
B. the same shell, subshell & orbital
C. the same shell, but different subshell and orbitals
D. different shells, subshell and orbitals
38. Oxides that react with water to form acids or that are formed by the removal of water from acids, are known as
A. anhydride B. basic anhydride C. acid anhydride D. salt anhydride
39. The product obtained by the fermentation of wet cellulose is
A. ethane B. ethyne C. methane D. ethane
40. The high polymer of chloroprene is known as
A. 2-chlorobutadiene B. Narcylene C. Neoprene D. vinyl acetylene
41. One of the best fuel that detonates only at high temperature is
A. n-heptane B. iso-octane C. gasoline D. catane
42. Which of the following is known as Freon?
A. CCl2F2 B. CH 2F2 C. CHCl2F2 D. CF4
43. ClCH 2 CHCl2 is named as
A. 1,1,2 trichloro ethane B. 1,1,2,2 tetrachloro ethane
C. 1,1,1,2 tetrachloro ethane D. none is correct
44. In the SN 2 reaction mechanism, which one of the following is the most reactive?
A. C 6H 6 B. CH 3X C. CH 3OH D. RCH 2OH
45. Calcium carbide on interaction with water gives
A. acetylene B. propylene C. ethene D. ethyne
46. Methane reacts with N 2 in the presence of electric arc giving
A. methyl nitride B. nitro methane C. hydrocyanic acid D. none is correct
47. What happens when methane is passed through electric arc or subjected to high temperature obtained by partial combustion
A. acetylene and ethane are formed B. carbon and hydrogen are formed
C. CH 2 and H 2 is formed D. acetylene is formed
48. When methane is heated in the absence of air or O 2 it break up to give carbon and hydrogen. The process is named as
A. cracking B. polymerization C. pyrolysis D. decomposition
49. Methane on oxidation with ozone give
A. CO 2 + H 2 B. formaldehyde C. methyl alcohol D. methanal
50. Ethylene on interaction with alk. KMnO 4 (Baeyers reagent) gives
A. oxalic acid B. ethyl alcohol C. HCHO D. glycol
51. Dehydration of ethylene gives a product which on hydrolysis yields
A. CH 3OH B. C 2 H 5OH C. C 3H 7OH D. ester
52. Kerosene oil is used as an
A. alkanes B. alcohols C. aromatic acids D. aliphatic acids
53. The chemical process which occurs when water is added to cement is
A. oxidation B. Brownian movement C. plastic flow D. hydration
54. Which of the following organic chemicals is most soluble to water?
A. CH 3CH3 B. CH 3OH C. CCl4 D. CH 4
55. What structures to bothe aldehydes and ketones contains?
A. the carbonyl group B. the carboxyl group C. the hydroxyl group D. the amino group
56. Two major types of chemical bonds are observed in chemical bonding: ionic and covalent. Which of the following has a bond that is the least ionic in
character?
A. NaCl B. CH 4 C. H 2 D. H 2 O
57. Which of the following would not burn?
A. CH 4 B. CH 3OH C. CCl4 D. CH 3CH2OCH2CH3
58. Which of the following is chlorofluorocarbon?
A. CHCl3 B. CFCl3 C. C 3F8 D. CFCl3
59. Which of the following is chloroform?
A. CH 3Cl B. CH 2Cl2 C. CHCl3 D. CFCl3
60. The compound CH 3CH2Cl is named.
A. carbon dichloride B. methyl chloride C. methylene chloride D. ethyl chloride
61. Which alcohol is the least dangerous to drink?
A. methyl alcohol B. isopropyl alcohol C. ethyl alcohol D. all are equally dangerous
62. Isopropyl alcohol is
A. CH 3CHCH3 B. CH 3OH C. CH 3CH2OH D. CH 3CH2CH 2OH
l
OH
63. Grain alcohol in United States is made
A. from coal B. by fermenting starches and sugar
C. from vinegar D. by fermenting acetic acid
64. A combination of atoms that confers certain chemical physical properties on a compound is called a(n)
A. ether B. functional group C. hydrogen bond D. homolog
65. Which is an alcohol?
A. C 6H 6 B. CH 3-C-CH3 C. CH 3-O-CH3 D. CH 3CH2CH 2OH
ll
O
66. Which compound is an ether?
A. CH 3COCH3 B. CH 3CH2 OH C. CH 3OCH2CH3 D. CH 3CCH3
ll ll
O O
67. The correct name for CH 3 -O-CH3 is
A. dimethyl ether B. ethyl ether C. diethyl ether D. oxyethane
68. Vodka that is 90 proof contains what percent of alcohol?
A. 9 B. 45 C. 90 D. 180
69. Wood alcohol is the same as
A. methanol B. 2-propanol C. grain alcohol D. rubbing
70. Phenol is
A. C 6H 11 -OH B. CH 3CH2 CH2OH C. CH 3CH2CH 2CH2CH2OH D. C 6H 5 -OH
71. The formula for diethyl ether is
A. CH 3OCH3 B. C 2 H 5OH C. CH 3CH2CCH2CH3 D. CH 3 CH2OCH2CH3
ll
O
72. The alcohol present in alcoholic beverages is
A. methyl alcohol B. ethyl alcohol C. denatured alcohol D. wood alcohol
73. Denatured alcohol refers to
A. any alcohol not produced by fermentation
B. grain alcohol that is highly taxed
C. ethyl alcohol that has been treated with something to make it unfit to drink
D. methanol
74. The toxicity of methyl alcohol results from its oxidation by liver enzymes to
A. carbon dioxide B. formaldehyde C. grain alcohol D. methanol
75. When ingested, ethanol acts as a(n)
A. stimulant B. depressant C. antiseptic D. analgesic
76. Fermentation of carbohydrates leads to the formation of
A. methanol B. ethanol C. glucose D. formaldehyde
77. A group that aldehydes and ketones have in common is
A. –COOH B. –CHO C. –C - - D. –OH
ll
O
78. The name of the functional group of aldehydes and ketones is the
A. carbonyl group B. carboxyl group C. aldehyde group D. hydroxyl group
79. Which is not a mineral acid?
A. HNO 3 B. HCl C. HCOOH D. H 2SO 4
80. What acid is found in vinegar?
A. formic acid B. nitric acid C. propionic acid D. acetic acid
81. The product of the reaction between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid is known as a(n)
A. acid anhydride B. ester C. ether D. salt
82. Alkaloids can best be generally classified with the
A. alcohols B. acids C. amines D. amides
83. The small molecule starting materials from which polymers are constructed are called
A. hydrocarbons B. monomers C. segmers D. plasticizers
84. In chemical usage, a plastic is a substance that
A. will return to its original shape after being stretched
B. softens on heating and can be molded under pressure
C. hardens under the influence of heat and pressure
D. is a cheap imitation of natural materials
85. Which compound would not serve as a monomer for addition polymerization?
A. CH 2=CHCN B. CH 2=CHCl C. CH 2=CHCOOH D. HOCH 2COOH
86. Styrofoam picnic coolers are made from
A. CH 2=CH2 B. CH 2=CHCl C. CH 2=CHCN D. CH2=CH-C 6H5
87. The nonstick coating on cookware is made from
A. CH 2=CH2 B. CH 2=CHCl C. CH 2=CHCN D. CF2=CF2
88. Vinyl hardtops for automobiles are made from
A. CH 2=CH2 B. CH 2=CHCl C. CH 2=CHCN D. CF2=CF2
89. Plastic bags are usually made from
A. CH 2=CH2 B. CH 2=CHCl C. CH 2=CHCN D. CH2=CH-C 6H5
90. Natural rubber is
A. polyethylene B. neoprene C. polysoprene D. polyvinyl chloride
91. Which if any, are not true of the vulcanization process?
A. it results in sulfur bridges between polymer chains
B. it increases the hardness of natural rubber
C. it improves the elasticity of natural rubber
D. all of the above are true of the vulcanization process
92. Which does not apply to the polymer Bakelite?
A. it is a copolymer B. it is a condensation polymer
C. it is a cross-linked polymer D. it is an elastomer
93. The polymer formed from CH 2=C-CH3 is
l
Cl
A. [-CH 2 =C-] n B. [-CH 2=C-CH2 -] n C. Cl D. [CH 2-CH-] n
l l l l
CH 2 Cl Cl [-CH 2C-] n CH 2Cl
l
CH 3
94. If the monomer is CH 3-CH=CH-Cl, the polymer is
A. [-CH 2 -CH=CH-] n B. [-CH 2-CH2-CH-] n C. [-CH=C=CH-] n D. [-CH-CH-] n
l l l l l
Cl Cl Cl CH 3 Cl
95. Dacron is a
A. polyamide B. polyester C. polyolefin D. acrylic fibers
96. Nylons are
A. polyamide B. polyester C. polyolefin D. acrylic fibers
97. What is the functional group linking the segments of nylon?
A. amide B. ester C. C=C D. C=O
98. Plasticizers are
A. polymers that have elastic properties
B. polymers that soften on heating
C. molecules that confer pliability on otherwise brittle polymers
D. extremely toxic
99. Which compounds have not been used as plasticizers?
A. phthalate esters B. polychlorinated biphenyl C. vinyl chlorides D. camphor
100. Disposal of synthetic plastics is complicated by
A. the large volume of these materials that accumulate as trash
B. the non-biodegradable nature of most synthetic plastic
C. the toxicity of some gases produced when the materials are burned
D. all of the above are valid
101. The temperature at which a polymer changes from hard and brittle to rubbery and tough is called its
A. boiling point C. melting point
C. glass transition temperature D. thermosetting temperature
102. Burning polyacrylonitrite (Orlon) generates
A. O 2 B. HCl C. HCN D. N 2 O
103. Burning polyvinyl chloride generates
A. O 2 B. HCl C. HCN D. N 2 O
104. Carbon forms
A. 2 ionic bonds B. 2 covalent bonds C. 4 ionic bonds D. 4 covalent bonds
105. The methyl group is the simplest
A. alkyl group B. alkane C. alkene D. alkyne
106. The name for CH 3
l
CH 3-C-CH 2-CH3
l
CH 3
A. 2,2-methylbutane B. 2-2, methylbutane C. 2-2, dimethylbutane D. 2,2- dimethylbutane
107. The correct structural formula for 2-pentyne is
A. CHΞC-CH2 -CH2-CH 3 B. CH 3 -CΞC-CH2-CH3 C. CH 3-CHΞCH-CH2-CH3 D. CH 3-CH2-CH2 -CH2-CH3
108. When an alkane burns completely in air, it forms
A. carbon monoxide and water B. carbon dioxide and water
C. carbon and pentane D. carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide
109. A cycloalkane consist of
A. a straight chain of carbon atoms with two or three hydrogen atom attached to each carbon
B. a ring of carbon atoms with two hydrogen atoms connected to every carbon atom
C. a ring of carbon atoms with three hydrogen atoms connected to every carbon atom
D. a ring of alkane molecules joined together
110. Each bond in a benzene molecule is considered
A. more than double bond, less than a triple bond B. a double bond
C. a single bond D. more than a single bond, less than a double bond
111. Benzene undergoes substitution reactions rather than addition reactions because its ring structure is
A. extremely unstable B. saturated C. very stable D. unsaturated
112. Chlorobenzene forms when a halogen reacts in an
A. alkyl halide B. alkyne C. alkane D. aromatic hydrocarbon
113. All functional groups must combine with
A. only one hydrocarbon group B. more than three hydrocarbon group
C. one or more hydrocarbon group D. two or more hydrocarbon group
114. CH 3CH2CH2 OH is the formula for
A. propyl alcohol B. amyl alcohol C. butyl alcohol D. methyl alcohol
115. A patient would be most likely to be given a sponge bath with
A. ethyl alcohol B. methyl alcohol C. isopropyl alcohol D. menthol
116. The common name for CH 3-O-CH3 is
A. diethyl ether B. methyl ether C. ether D. divinyl ether
117. An aldehyde used as preservative and a germicide is
A. paraldehyde B. benzaldehyde C. acetaldehyde D. formaldehyde
118. CH 3CCH2CH3 represents
ll
O
A. methyl propyl ketone B. diethyl ketone C. dimethyl ketone D. ethyl methyl ketone
119. CH 3CH2C-OH is the structural formula of
ll
O
A. ethanoic acid B. propanoic acid C. butanoic acid D. methanoic acid
120. CH 3C-OCH2 CH2CH3 is the structural formula for
ll
O
A. methyl propionate B. ethyl formate C. ethyl acetate D. propyl acetate
121. The formation of disulfides through oxidation of two thiols is important for
A. producing disagreeable odors B. maintaining the structure of protein
C. producing red dyes D. testing kidney function
122. An amine consist of
A. a hydrocarbon in which halogens take the place of hydrogen atoms
B. a hydrocarbon which contains sulfur instead of oxygen
C. a carboxyl acid group combined with a halogen
D. an ammonia molecule in which one to three hydrogen are replaced by hydrocarbon groups
123. In a quaternary ammonium salt, nitrogen is surrounded by four
A. oxygen atoms B. sulfur atoms C. chlorine atoms D. carbon atoms
124. HCNH2 represents
ll
O
A. methanamide B. ethanamide C. propanamide D. methylacetamide
125. Which of the following is not an alkaloid?
A. procaine B. codeine C. cocaine D. morphine
126. Which of the following is true?
A. polymers are plastics B. plastics are polymers
C. a plastic is never a polymer D. a polymer is never a plastic
127. Which of the following is not an addition polymer?
A. Orlon B. Nylon C. polyethylene D. Teflon
128. Polyesters and polyamides are common
A. alkaloids B. ammonium salts C. condensation polymers D. purines
129. An organic compound is a compound that
A. contains carbon and was formed only by living organism
B. is a natural compound that has not been synthesized
C. contains carbon, whether it was formed by living thing or not
D. was formed by a plant
130. There are millions of organic compounds but only thousands of inorganic compounds because
A. organic compounds were formed by living things
B. there is more carbon on the Earth’s surface than any other element
C. atoms of elements other than carbon never combine with themselves
D. carbon atoms can combine with up to four other atoms including other carbon atoms
131. You know for sure that the compound named decane has
A. more than 10 isomers B. 10 carbon atoms in each molecule
C. only single bonds D. all of the above
132. An alkane with 4 carbon atoms would have how many hydrogen atoms in each molecule?
A. 4 B. 8 C. 10 D. 16
133. Isomers are compounds with the same
A. molecular formula with different structures
B. molecular formula with different atomic masses
C. atoms, but different molecular formulas
D. structures, but different formulas
134. Isomers have
A. the same chemical and physical properties
B. the same chemical but different physical properties
C. the same physical, but different chemical properties
D. the same physical, and chemical properties
135. The organic compound 2,2,4-trimethylpentane is an isomer of
A. propane B. pentane C. heptane D. octane
136. The hydrocarbons with a double covalent carbon-carbon bond are called
A. alkanes B. alkenes C. alkynes D. none of the above
137. According to their definitions, which of the following would not occur as unsaturated hydrocarbon?
A. alkanes B. alkenes C. alkynes D. none of the above is correct
138. Petroleum is believed to have formed mostly from the anaerobic decomposition of buried
A. dinosaurs B. fish C. pine trees D. plankton and algae
139. Hydrogen bonding may form by the attraction between
A. one hydrogen atom to another in water molecule
B. hydrogen and oxygen within a water molecule
C. the oxygen part of one water molecule to the hydrogen part of another water molecule
D. the hydrogen part of one water molecule to the hydrogen part of another water molecule
140. Because an alkene has a double bond it is considered
A. hydrated B. unsaturated C. saturated D. dehydrated
141. A polynuclear aromatic hydrocarbon is made by fusing together at least
A. two benzene rings B. two cycloalkanes C. three alkyl groups D. two alkynes
142. When an alcohol is dehydrated it forms
A. an aldehyde B. an acid C. an alkene D. a ketone
143. When an ether oxidizes, it forms
A. an aldehyde B. an acid C. an alkene D. an alcohol
144. If an aldehyde is placed in Benedict’s solution, it reacts to form
A. cuprous oxide and an acid B. cuprous oxide and a base
C. copper and carbon dioxide D. copper and an acid
145. A carboxylate group consist of
A. an oxygen atom double bonded to a hydrogen atom
B. a carbon atom double bonded to a hydroxyl group
C. the carboxyl group minus the hydrogen group
D. a hydrogen atom double bonded to a carbon atom
146. O
ll
CH 3COCH2CH2CH 3 is the structural formula for
A. methyl propionate B. ethyl formate C. ethyl acetate D. propyl acetate
147. When an ester is hydrolyzed, the end products are
A. water and a base B. an acid and water C. an acid and an alcohol D. an acid and a base
148. ______ is an example of an alkyl halide.
A. NaCl B. CHCl3 C. CF2=CF2 D. KCl
149. If “thio” appears on the name of a compound, you know that the compound contains a functional group based on
A. oxygen B. hydrogen C. a halogen D. sulfur
150. Amyl nitrite contains the following functional group
A. –NO2 B. –ONO C. –ONC 2 D. –CΞN
151. The largest carbohydrates are called
A. polysaccharides B. oligosaccharides C. monosaccharides D. disaccharides
152. A 3-carbon monosaccharide is a
A. triose B. tetrose C. hexose D. pentose
153. Most glucose molecules in solution exist in
A. the open form B. the closed beta form C. the closed alpha form D. equal amounts of the three forms
154. Which of the following pairs are epimers?
A. glucose and fructose B. glucose and sucrose C. galactose and fructose D. galactose and glucose
155. Invert sugar consist of fructose and
A. maltose B. lactose C. sucrose D. glucose
156. The most abundant organic substance found in nature is
A. starch B. glycogen C. cellulose D. dextran
157. Sugars in which the aldehyde group can be oxidized to a carboxylic acid group are called
A. glycosides B. glucosides C. reducing sugars D. phosphate esters
158. Natural monosaccharides have
A. the L configuration B. the D configuration
C. an equal mixture of the D and L configurations D. more of the L than D configuration
159. In most fatty acids, the carbons are arranged in a
A. ring
B. straight chain, with a carboxylic acid group in the middle
C. branched chains, with a carboxylic group at the center
D. straight chain, with a carboxylic acid group at one end
160. A soap molecule
A. is nonpolar B. is polar
C. has a nonpolar end and a polar end D. becomes nonpolar in solution
161. The wax used to make dental impressions is
A. beeswax B. cerumen C. lanolin D. camauba wax
162. Which characteristics is not true for oils?
A. mostly vegetable origin B. liquid at room temperature
C. saturated D. high iodine number
163. Saponification is a reaction in which a tricylglycerol reacts with a strong base to form
A. glycerol and three soap molecules B. glycerol and three water molecules
C. three fatty acid molecules and water D. oleic aicd and water
164. Which fuciton does fat not perform?
A. reserve supply of energy B. insulation against the cold
C. maintenance of stable pH in blood D. protection of organs
165. Phospolipids differ from triacyglycerols in that one of the hydroxyl groups of glycerol is esterified with
A. phosphorous B. phosphoric acid C. phosphoglyceride D. phosphatidyl choline
166. In active transport
A. no energy is expected
B. molecules are carried from a region of low concentration to one of greater concentration
C. only water molecules pass through the membrane
D. the process takes place as in diffusion
167. All halogens have similar reactivity because
A. they have the same number of protons
B. they have the same number of electrons
C. they have similar outer shell electron configurations
D. they have valence electrons with the same quantum numbers
168. Ethylene readily undergoes the following type of reaction
A. addition B. elimination C. substitution D. rearrangement
169. Which one of the following methods is used in the preparation of methane?
A. by the electrolysis of aluminum carbide
B. by heating aluminum carbide
C. by heating sodium acetate with soda lime
D. by the interaction of sodium acetate with water
170. Dehydration of Ethylene gives a product of which on hydrolysis yields
A. CH 3OH B. C 2 H 5OH C. C 3H 7OH D. ester
171. Which of the following structures represents that of vinyl chloride?
A. C 2H 3 Cl B . C 2 H 2Cl C. C 2H 2ClF D. C 2Cl4
172. Which of the following is a crystalline polymer which is used primarily as a film?
A. PVC B. PVF C. PTFE D. TFE
173. Polymers which are capable of forming an ordered melt
174. A compound produced by the reaction of cellulose and nitric acid
A. Kevlar B. A-glass C. celluloid D. cellulose nitrate
175. It refers to the number of reactive groups in a molecule
A. degree of polymerization B. functionality
C. molecularity D. reactivity
176. Aldehydes maybe prepared by oxidizing
A. primary alcohols B. secondary alcohols C. tertiary alcohols D. ketones
177. What type of isomerism is exhibited by the pairs CH 3COCH3 and CH 3CH2CHO?
A. skeletal isomers B. position isomers C. functional group isomers D. tautomers
178. The monomer unit in for Teflon is
A. styrene B. ethane C. tetraflouroethylene D. propene
179. In general isomer should have the same
A. boiling point B. number of carbon atoms C. molecular mass D. density
180. Fats and oil are more formed when fatty acids react with
A. ammonia B. phenol C. glycerol D. acetic acid
181. It is linear polymer which maybe reversibly softened by heat and solidified by cooling
A. thermosets B. thermoplastic C. polymer D. copolymer
182. The inventor of PF plastic (bakelite)
A. Patrick B. Carothers C. Baekeland D. Kienle
183. The general formula of PVC
A. (CH 2CH2)n B. (Cl2CCFCl)n C. (CH 2CHCl)n D. (CF2CF2 CF)n
184. A hard amorphous transparent, brittle material produced by the fusion of silicates with basic compounds, such as carbonate and/or limestone
A. cement B. clay C. glass D. granite
185. An instrument for determining the effect of polarized light as it passes through the material being
A. spectrophotometer B. polariscope C. gyroscope D. telescope
186. The temperature at which a glassy polymer becomes flexible as the temperature is increased.
A. melting point B. glass transition C. fusion point D. annealing point
187. The property of thermoplastic composite is ____ to the diameter of the fiber
A. independent of B. dependent of C. directly proportional D. inversely proportional
188. Secondary alcohol when undergoes oxidation forms
A. aldehydes B. acid C. ketone D. ester
189. A positive result in Schiff’s test means presence of
A. ketones B. aldehydes C. amine D. ether
190. Compounds with general formula (C 5H 8)n
A. alkanes B. terpenes C. elastomers D. enantiomers
191. An acid chloride forms an ester by which of the following reactions?
A. reduction B. oxidation C. hydrolysis D. alcoholysis
192. Which of the following is a primary alcohol?
H R R
A. R-C-OH B. R-C-OH C. R-C-OH
H H R
A. A, B, C B. A C. C D. B
193. Which of the following is not a derivative of carboxylic acid?
A. amine B. ester C. aldehyde D. alcohol
194. Which of the following is not a derivative of benzene?
A. naphthalene B. anthracene C. phenanthrene D. bromomethane
195. One ingredient present in all baking poweders
A. sodium citrate B. sodium metabisulfate C. sodium bicarbonate D. potassium tartrate
196. A copolymer of isobutylene with a small amount (5% ) of isoprene
A. butyl rubber B. Buna C. chloroprene D. elastomer
197. Finely divided amorphous carbon particles produced by the incomplete combustion of a hydrocarbon.
A. diamond B. fullerenes C. carbon black D. emulsion
198. In most fatty acids, the carbons are arranged in a

A. ring
B. straight chain, with a carboxylic acid group in the middle
C. branched chains, with a carboxylic group at the center
D. straight chain, with a carboxylic acid group at one end
199. A soap molecule
A. is nonpolar B. is polar
C. has a nonpolar end and a polar end D. becomes nonpolar in solution
200. It is a hydrocarbon chain which is composed of two or more different mer units
A. monopolymers B. polymers C. copolymers D. oligomers
201. A polymer molecular structure in which ther mer units are joined together end to end in single chains
A. linear B. branched C. crosslinked D. network
202. It denotes a situation in which the mer units are linked together in the same order (head-to-tail) but differ in their spatial arrangement
A. allotropy B. isomerism C. polymorphism D. stereoisomerism
203. A copolymer whose mer units are randomly dispersed along the chain
A. random copolymer B. alternating copolymer C. block copolymer D. graft copolymer
204. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
A. rubber B. cotton C. cement D. leather
205. Which of the following is not a forming operation?
A. forging B. drawing C. rolling D. welding
207. Name the compound HCO 2H
A. methyl formate B. acetone C. dimethyl ether D. formic acid
208. An example of water soluble is
A. vitamin C B. vitamin A C. vitamin E D. vitamin K
209. All halogens have similar reactivity because
A. they have the same number of protons
B. they have the same number of electrons
C. they have similar outer shell electron configurations
D. they have valence electrons with the same quantum numbers
210. sp2 hybridization will be found for carbon in
A. CH 4 B. C 2 H 4 C. C 2H 2 D. CH 3OH
211. Which of the following is responsible for the abnormally high boiling point of water?
A. covalent bonding B. ionic bonding C. high polarity D. large dielectric
212. ______ involves electron transfer from one atom to another
A. covalent bonding B. ionic bonding C. hydrogen bonding D. metallic bonding
213. Which of the following is most soluble in water?
A. hexanol B. benzene C. acetic acid D. acetylene
214. Which of the following has a dipole moment of zero?
A. CH 4 B. CH 3Cl C. H 2O D. HF
215. Which of the following is least polar?
A. H-I B. P-Br C. C-Cl D. C-I
216. The alkane containing a total of 20 hydrogen atoms must be an isomer of
A. cyclononane B. decane C. eicosane D. nonane
217. The molecular formula for 2-methyl hexane is
A. C 6H 12 B. C 6 H 14 C. C 7H 14 D. C 7 H 16
218. Which of the following is an isomer of pentane are there?
A. 3-ethylpentane B. 2-methyloctance C. 2-methylpentane D. methylcyclohexane
219. How many different isomers of pentane are there?
A. only one B. three C. four D. five
220. Which has the most number of carbon atoms; tricholormethane, dichloromethane, chloromethane?
A. trichloromethane B. dichloromethane C. chloromethane D. all the same
221. How many carbon atoms are there in 2-bromo-2-pentene?
A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3
222. How many halogens are there in period 3?
A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1
223. Reactions which occur in a single step
A. series reaction B. homogenous reaction C. parallel reaction D. elementary reaction
224. Which of the following is not an alphatic hydrocarbon?
A. n-octane B. n-tridecane C. propylene D. toluene
225. No carbonyl group is found in:
A. ether B. aldehyde C. ketone D. carboxylic acid
226. A compound which has a bond formed by the overlap of sp-sp3 hybrid orbital is:
A. HC=CH B. CH 3-CΞCH C. CH 3-CH=CH2 D. H 2 C=C=CH2
227. The Lucas test is used to determine the types of:
A. alcohols B. dehydrations C. acids D. amino acids
228. A reaction in which the elements of water are eliminated from a molecule
A. hydrolysis B. dehydration C. dehydrogenation D. hydrogenation
229. It is an addition reaction initiated by an electron-deficient species
A. electrophilic B. nucleophilic C. carbionic D. reversible
230. Which of the following is a saturated hydrocarbon
A. alkane B. alkene C. alkyne D. alkadiene
231. Which of the following has the highest boiling point?
A. hexane B. octane C. decane D. eicosane
232. In the fractional distillation of crude petroleum, gasoline is the fraction whose number of carbon in a molecule ranges from ____
A. C1-C4 B. C5-C10 C. C11-C18 D. C15-C18
233. What fraction of crude petroleum has 20 or more carbon atoms in a molecule?
A. kerosene B. gas-oil C. wax D. residue
234. A reaction in which atoms or groups are removed from adjacent atoms to form a double or triple bond
A. substitution B. elimination C. addition D. polymerization
235. It is a specie that has a nonbonding pair of outer-shell electrons that it can share in a chemical reaction
A. Lewis base B. Lewis acid C. Arrhenius acid D. Arrhenius base
236. It is a reaction in which the element of hydrogen are introduced into a molecule
A. halogenation B. polymerization C. hydrogenation D. alkylation
237. A process in which rubber is treated with sulfur to improve its properties
A. vulcanization B. polymerization C. condensation D. cross-linking
238. Which if the following aromatic compounds is the oil of wintergreen?
A. methyl salicylate B. cinnamaldehyde C. eugenol D. vanilla
239. Which if the following aromatic hydrocarbon is consist of two benzene rings?
A. toluene B. naphthalene C. anthracene D. phenanthrene
240. Name:
NH 2
A. xylene B. benzoic acid C. aniline D. toluene

241. Name:
OH
A. phenol B. toluene C. benzoic acid D. aniline

242. Which of the following is meta directing radical?
A. alkyl B. halogen C. amino D. cyano
243. Which of the following is an ortho-para directing radical?
A. aldehyde B. ketone C. amino D. hydroxyl
244. Isomers with the same bonding attachments of atoms but different spatial orientations
A. stereosimers B. geometric isomers C. conformational isomers D. optical isomers
245. Isomers that differ as a result of the degree of rotation around a carbon-carbon single bond
A. stereosimers B. geometric isomers C. conformational isomers D. optical isomers
246. What does the acronym DDT means?
A. dichlorodiphenyl trichloroethane B. difluorodiphenyltrimethyl ethane
C. difluoromethyl trichloro ethane D. dichlorodimethyl-trichloroethane
247. It is the stage in a polymerization at which cross-linking begins
A. gel point B. melting point C. annealing point D. softening point
248. Toilen’s test is test for presence of
A. alcohols B. phenols C. aldehydes D. primary amine
249. Bayer’s test is for
A. unsaturation B. alcohol C. aldehyde D. ketone
250. Polymers which are capable of forming an ordered solution
251. Polymers which are capable of forming an ordered melt
252. Compounds with general formula (C 5H 8)n
A. alkanes B. terpenes C. elastomers D enantiomers
253. The term hydrocarbon is used to denote compounds that
A. contain carbon and hydrogen B. contain nitrogen and carbon
C. contain oxygen and hydrogen D. contain hydrogen
254. The most characteristic reaction of alkenes are
A. condensation reactions B. addition reaction
C. substitution reactions D. none of these, alkenes are inert
255. What is the major structural unit of plants?
A. cellulose B. DNA C. RNA D. glycogen
256. Myoglobin is an example of a
A. fibrous protein B. globular protein C. DNA D. starch
257. Which of the following is a disaccharide?
A. fructose B. lactose C. cellulose D. glucose
258. How many aromatic isomers of dibromobenzene exist?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 8 D. 6
259. What is the general formula for an aldehyde?
A. R-CO-OH B. R-CO-H C. R-O-R D. R-OH
260. What is the general formula for an alcohol?
A. R-CO-OH B. R-CO-H C. R-O-R D. R-OH
261. Of the following, which are the most reactive?
A. alkanes? B. alkenes? C. cycloalkanes D. alkynes
262. Which of the following is not an alkane?
A. C 3H 8 B. C 7 H 16 C. C 5H 12 D. C 9 H 18
263. What is the IUPAC name for the following compound?
H H
l l
H 3C ---- C ----- C ---- C == CH 2
l l l
CH 3 H CH 3
A. 2,5-dimethylpentane B. 2,4-methylbutene C. 2,4-dimethyl-1-pentene D. 2,4-ethylbutene
264. The sequence of amino acids in a protein is the
A. primary structure B. secondary structure C. tertiary structure D. quaternary structure
265. Which of the following are monosaccharides? (I) glucose (II) fructose (II) lactose (IV) sucrose|
A. III and IV B. I and II C. I D. II
266. What is the distinguishing characteristic of carbohydrates?
A. carbonyl group B. two-C-OH groups C. Cx(H 2O)y formula D. six carbon atoms
267. What do you call hydrocarbons containing carbon to carbon triple bonds?
A. alkanes B. alkenes C. alkynes D. aromatics
268. What is the term used to describe hydrocarbons containing single bonds between carbon atoms?
A. alkanes B. alkenes C. alkynes D. esters
269. It is a mixture of fructose and glucose by the breakdown of sucrose
A. galactose B. invert sugar C. monosaccharides D. disaccharides
270. A carboxylic acid which contributes to the strong odor of rancid butter and other fats
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY 1
STRUCTURE AND PROPERTIES
1. What are the important differences between organic and inorganic compounds?
Ans: In general, organic compounds (1) react more slowly and require higher temperatures for reactions, (2) undergo more complex reactions and
produce more side products; (3) have lower melting and boiling points and are generally soluble in water; (4) are less stable and therefore often
decompose on heating to compounds of lower energy content; (5) are classified into families of compounds such as alcohols, which have similar reactive
groups and chemical properties; (6) are far more numerous than inorganic compounds.
2. What are the important classes of organic compounds?
Ans: Aliphatic(acyclic & cyclic); aromatic and heterocyclic
3. Define the following terms: (a) saturated hydrocarbon and (b) unsaturated hydrocarbon.
Ans: Saturated hydrocarbon are single bonded and unsaturated are double or triple bonded
4. What is a homologous series?
Ans: A series of compounds that can be represented by a general formula
5. Define a functional group.
Ans: A functional group is an atom or group of atoms in a compound that determines its chemical properties and in most cases is one of the sites of its
chemical reaction
BONDING AND MOLECULAR STRUCTURE
6. Define the terms (a) ground state and (b) excited state.
Ans: The lowest energy state of confined electron (or an atom or molecule) is called the ground state. All other higher energy state are called excited
state.
7. Define (a) electronegativity and (b) electron affinity
Ans: Electronegativity is the relativity tendency of a bonded atom in a molecule to attract electrons and electron affinity is the energy change that occurs
when an electron is added to a gaseous atom in its ground state, and its value be positive or negative.
8. Define the three types of intermolecular forces that can lead to interactions between neutral molecules, in order of decreasing the strength.
Ans: The strongest force of hydrogen bond, which consist of a bond between a H attached to a highly electronegative atom, X and an electronegative
atom bearing an unshared pair of electrons, either in another molecule or in a different part of the same molecule. It is considerably stronger than the
dipole-dipole interactions, which results from the attraction of the + end of one polar molecule for the – end of another polar molecule. Van der Waals
(London) forces are the weakest. They present to some extent between all molecules, but are important only in nonpolar molecules when the other two
forces are absent. They are a result a momentary imbalance in charge distribution in neighboring molecules, resulting in a weak net attractive force.
Molecules with high molecular weights engender greater Van der Waals attractive forces because they have greater number of electrons
9. Define the term dielectric constant.
Ans: The dielectric constant measures the ability of a solvent to separate oppositely charged ions. Solvents with high dielectric constant tend to be more
polar.
CHEMICAL REACTIVITY AND ORGANIC REACTIONS
10. What is the reaction mechanism and how does it differ from a balanced chemical equation?
Ans: A balanced equation provides the number of moles of both reactants and products but does not show how the reaction proceeds. A reaction
mechanism provides a detailed step by step description of a reaction.
11. What information is provided by a reaction mechanism?
Ans: 1. The bonds broken and formed. 2. The discrete steps in conversion of reactant (substrate) A to products D and E which may proceed through
several steps. 3. The reaction intermediates formed during intermediate steps. 4. The relative rates of the discrete steps, especially the slowest step.
12. Define the term inductive effect.
Ans: The inductive effect of a substituent affects the charge or electron density on thr carbon. Electronegative groups such as O, N and halogens tend to
withdraw electron density from carbon whereas electropositive groups such as alkyl groups tend to increase its electron density. This effect is transmitted
through the chain of sigma bonds and diminishes with increasing chain length.
13. Define the following general types of chemical reactions: (a) addition; (b) elimination; (c) displacement (substitution); (d) rearrangement; and (e) oxidation
– reduction (redox).
Ans: (a) Addition. Two triple reactants combine yields one product. Addition frequently occurs with organic compounds at double or triple bonds and
occasionally at small sized rings. (b) Elimination (decomposition). Elimination is the reversed of addition because two or more atoms or groups are
removed from one molecule. (i) β-elimination involves removal from adjacent atoms and always leads to an increase in multiple bonding. (ii) ∞-elimination
is the removal from the same atom and produces a carbine if this atom is carbon. (iii) If elimination is other from adjacent atoms or the same atom, a ring
results. (c) Displacement (substitution). This is the replacement of one group by another. When an H is displaced, the reaction is called substitution. (d)
Rearrangement. Bonds are scrambled to form an isomer. (e) Redox. This is involves transfer of electrons or change in oxidation number. Oxidation
number of a C is signaled by a decrease in the number of its bonded H’s or an increase in its number of bonds to other atoms such as C, N, O, Cl, Br, F
and S.
14. Define (i) a nucleophile or electron-donor and (ii) electrophile or electron acceptor.
Ans: Molecules having atoms with high electron density are called nucleophiles or electron donors while molecules having atoms with low electron density
are called electrophiles or electron acceptors.
ALKANES
15. Define an alkyl group.

Ans: An alkyl group is the structure remaining after one H is removed from and alkane.
16. Why are alkanes said to be hydrophobic?
Ans: Alkanes are nonpolar. They are very insoluble in water because they lack polar groups that can H -bond or participate in dipole-dipole interactions
with water molecules.
17. Define the term conformations.
Ans: Conformations are structures arising from rotation about single bonds ( or flipping rings).
18. What are all the possible organic products in the reaction of methane with chlorine?
Ans: The main products is CH 3Cl, but further reactions occurs, leading to CH 2Cl2, CHCl3 , and CCl4 .
19. Why is light or heat necessary to initiate the chlorination reaction?
Ans: The Cl-Cl bond must be broken to form Cl, radicals before the reaction with methane can commence. This hemolysis requires energy, which is
supplied either by heat or light.
20. (a) What is meant by “octane rating”? (b) Why does a high octane fuel have less tendency to knock in an automobile engine?
Ans: (a) The term octane rating is based upon the performance of n-heptane, which arbitrarily assigned an octane value of 0, and isooctane (2, 2, 4-
trimethylpentane), which is given a value of 100 when used as an automobile fuel. A mixture of 85% isooctane and 15% heptane has an octane number
85, as does any blend of gasoline with the same performance in the engine. (b) Branched chain hydrocarbon burn more smoothly because, when they
break down, they form more stable less reactive 3º radicals. These radicals react more slowly and smoothly than the 1º and 2º radicals which form from
breakdown of a straight chain hydrocarbon.
CYCLOALKANES
21. Give two general approaches to synthesis of cycloalkanes.

Ans: 1. Conversion of available naturally occurring cyclic compounds, often by hydrogenation (H 2 addition). 2. Formation of rings from open chain
compounds by either: (a) Intramolecular cyclization of acyclic (noncyclic) compounds. (b) Merging two or more acyclic compounds (cycloaddtitions).
22. (a) Define a pericyclic reactions that are used to prepare cyclic carbon compounds. (b) Give two general types of pericyclic reactions. (c) What are the
essential characteristics of these reactions?
Ans: (a) Pericyclic reactions are concerted, proceeding through cyclic transition states to form cyclic compounds. (b) Two general types of reactions are:
electrocyclic reactions in which a single molecule forms a ring and cycloaddition reactions where two or more molecules form a ring. (c) These reactions
are initiated either thermally or photochemically, without catalysis. Their transition states have no partial charges. They are highly stereospecific.
STEREOCHEMISTRY
23. What is stereochemistry?

Ans: Stereochemistry is the study of three-dimensional structure of molecules.
24. (a) How do structural (constitutional) isomers differ from stereoisomers? (b) What is meant by configuration?
Ans: (a) Structural isomers have the same molecular formula but the atoms joined in a different order. Stereoisomers have the same molecular formula,
their atoms are attached in the same order, but they are differently in space. (b) Configuration is the spatial arrangement of stereoisomers.
25. What is the difference between conformation and configuration in open-chain molecule?
Ans: Conformations differ by rotations about C-C bond. The energy barrier to this rotation is so small that the different conformations equilibrate rapidly
with each other and cannot be isolated, except in a few cases at very low temperatures, or when they have unusual structures. Configurations are
interchanged by breaking and forming chemical bonds. Since this process requires a high energy stereoisomers maintain their identity and are isolable.
26. Define (a) enantiomer and (b) diastereomer.
Ans: (a) Stereoisomers consist of enantiomers (optical isomers) and diastereomers. (a) Enantiomers are stereoisomers whose mirror images are not
identical, i.e., they are not superposable. (b) Diastereomers are stereoisomers which are not mirror images of each other, as for example cis-trans isomers
in cycloalkanes.
27. What is racemic mixture?
Ans: A racemic mixture, is an equimolar mixture of enantiomers.
28. (a) What is a chiral molecule? (b) How does it differ with achiral molecule?
Ans: (a) A chiral molecule is a sterisomers whose mirror image is not superposable. It lacks a plane or center of symmetry. (b) An achiral molecule has a
superposable mirror image.
29. Define (a) a plane and (b) a center (or point) of symmetry.
Ans: (a) A plane of symmetry bisects a molecule so that one half of the molecule is the mirror image of the other half. (b) The center of symmetry is
invariably a point in the center of an object (or molecule).
30. What is a chiral center?
Ans: A chiral center is an atom bonded tetrahedrally to four different atoms or groups of atoms, called ligands. A chiral center is usually a C atom, but may
be N, S, P, Si, etc. Chiral centers are indicated with an asterisk.
ALKENES
31. What is the importance of the double bond in alkanes?

Ans: The double bond is the site of most chemical reactions of alkenes and also affects their shape and energy.
32. Define degrees of unsaturation.
Ans: The number of pairs of H’s a molecular formula lacks to be an alkane is called the degree of unsaturation, sometimes called index of hydrogen
deficiency.
33. What is the major method for preparing alkenes by forming the double bond?
Ans: Elimination reactions whereby an atom or group is removed, with a net loss of 2 electrons, from each of two vicinal.
[34-35-36]
sp3 C’s so that a C-C becomes a C=C. Since the groups are eliminated from adjacents C’s, these are called β- or 1,2-elimination.
ALKYL HALIDES
Alkyl halides have the general formula RX, where R is an alkyl or substituted alkyl group and X is any halogen atom (F, Cl, B r or I)
36. Write the structural formulas and IUPAC names for all isomers of C 5 H 11 Br. Classify the isomers as to whether they are tertiary (3o ), secondary (2o), or primary
(1o). Ans : 1-Bromopentane (1o), 2-Bromopantene (2o ) & 3-Bromopentane (3o )
37. Give the product of the following reactions:
A. CH 3CH2CH2 OH + HI → Ans: CH 3CH2 CH2I + H 2O
B. H 2C=CH2 + Br2 →Ans: H 2CBrCH2Br
C. CH 3CH=C(CH3 )2 +HI → Ans: CH 3CH2Cl(CH3)2
38. On substitution of one H by Cl in the isomers of C 5H 12 , (a) which isomers give only a primary halide? (b) which isomers give secondary halides? (c) which isomer
gives a tertiary halide?
Ans: (a) 2.2-dimethylprpane (b) CH 3CH2CH2CH 2CH3 gives 2-chloropentane and 3-chloropentane. 2-methylbutane gives 2-chloro-3-methylbutane.
(c) 2-methylbutane gives 2-chloro-2-methylbutane.
39. Give structures of all alkenes fromed and underline the major product expected from E2 elimination of (a) 1-chloroprotane, (b) 2-chloropentane.
Ans: (a) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2Cl → CH3CH2CH2CH=CH2 a 1o alkyl halide, therefore one alkene.

(b) CH3CH2CH2CH-CH3 → CH3CH2CH2CH=CH2 + CH3CH2CH=CHCH2
Cl
A 2o alkyl halide flanked by two R’s; therefore two alkenes are formed the more substituted alkene is the major product because of its greater stability.
ALKYNES & DIENES
Alkynes or acetylenes (C nH 2n-2) have a –C≡C- and are isometric with alkadienes, which have two double bonds. In IUPAC, a –C≡C- is indicated by the suffix –yne.
40. Name the following structures below by the IUPAC system:
(a) CH 3C≡CCH3 Ans: 2-butyne
(b) Ans. 2, 2, 5-Trimethyl-3-hexyne
(c) HC≡C-CH2CH=CH 2 Ans: 1-penten-4-yne
(d) CH 3CH=CH-C≡C-C≡CH Ans: 5-hepten-1, 3-yne
41. Supply structural formulas and IUPAC names for all alkynes with the molecular formula C5H8
Ans: 1-pentyne, 2-pentyne, 3-methyl-1-butyne
42. Name by the IUPAC method and classify cumulated, conjugated, or isolated:
A. H 2C=CH-CH=CHCH 3
B. CH 2 CH3H2C=CHCH2C=CHCH2CH 3
C.H 2C=C=CH 2
D.H 2C=CH-CH=CHCH=CH2
Ans: A. 1,3-Pentadiene. Conjugated diene since it has alternating doubvle and single bonds, i.e., C=C -C=C-.
B. 4- ethyl-1,4-heptadiene. Isolated diene since the double bonds are separated by at least one sp3-hybridized C C. 1,2-
propadiene (allene). Cumulated diene since 2 double bonds are on the same C, i.e., -C=C=C-
D. 1,3,5-hexatriene. Conjugated diene since it has alternating single and double bonds.
BENZENE & POLYNUCLEAR AROMATIC COMPOUNDS
Benzene, C 6H 6, is the prototype aromatic compounds, which are unsaturated compounds showing a low degree of reactivity. The Kekule structure for
benzene, has only one monosubstituted product (C 6H 5Y) since all six H’s are equivalent. There are three disubstituted benzenes – the 1,2-, 1,3-, and 1,4- position
isomers – designated as ortho, meta and para, respectively.
Huckel’s rule for planar species states that if the number of π electrons equal 2+_4n, where n equals zero or a whole number, the species is aromatic. The
rule was first appliedto carbon-containing monocyclics in which each C is capable of being sp2 – hybridized to provide a p orbital for extended π bonding; it has been
extended to unsaturated heterocy6clic compounds and fused-ring compounds. Note that benzene corresponds to n=1.
Some common names of benzene derivative are toluene (C 6H 5CH 3), xylene (C 6H 4(CH3)2 ), phenol (C 6H 5OH), aniline (C 6H 5 NH 5), benzeldehyde
(C 6H 5CHO), benzoic acid (C 6H 5COOH), benzene-sulfonic acid (C 6H 5 SO3 H), styrene (C 6 H 5CH=CH2), , mesityline (1,3,5-(CH 3)3 C 6H 3), , and anisole (C 6H 5OCH3).
Derived names combine the name of the substituent as a prefix with the word benzene. Examples are nitrobenzene (C 6H 5NO2), ethylbenzene
(C 6H 5CH2CH3) and flourobenzene (C 6H 5F).
Some aryl (Ar-) grouos are : C 6H 5- (phenyl), C 6 H 5 -C 6H4- (biphenyl), p-CH 3C 6 H 4- (p-tolyl) and (CH 3)2 C 6 H3- (xylyly). Some arylalkyl grouos are : C 6H 5CH2-
(benzyl), C 6 H 5CH- (benzal), C 6 H 5C≡ (benzo), (C 6 H 5)2CH- (benzhydryl), (C 6 H 5)3C- (trityl).
43. Name the following compounds:
A. Ans. p-aminobenzoic acid
B. Ans . m-nitrobenzenesulfonic a cid
44. Give the structural formulas for (a) 2,4,6-tribromoaniline, and (b) m-toluenesulfonic acid
Ans:
A. B.
SPECTROSCOPY & STRUCTURE
45. (a) Calculate the frequencies of violet and red light if their wavelengths are 400 and 750 nm, respectively. (b) Calculate and compare the energies of their
photons. Ans: (a) C=vλ, 750 THz & 400THz (b) E=hv, h=6.624E-34 J-s, 5E-19 J, 2.7E-19 J
46. Express 10 micrometers (a) in centimeters, (b) in angstrom (1 A=10-10m), (c) in nanometers, (d) as a wave number.
Ans: (a) 10-3cm (b) 105A (c) 104nm (d) 103cm-1

ALCOHOLS
ROH is an alcohol and ArOH is a phenol. Some alcohols have common names, usually made up of the the name of the alkyl group attached to the OH
and the word “alcohol”, e.g., ethyl alcohol, C 2H 5OH. More generally the IUPAC method is used. In which the suffix –ol replaces the –e of the alkane to indicate the
OH. The longest chain with the OH group is used as the parent, and the C bonded to the OH is called the carbinol carbon.
THIOLS
Also called mercaplans, these ncompounds, with the genetic formula RSH, are sulfur analogs of alcohols just as H 2O. the O atom of the OH has been
replacecd by an S atom, and the -- SH group is denominated sulfhydryl.
47. Give a common name for each of the following alcohols and classify them as 1°, 2°, or 3°.
(a) CH 3CH2CH2OH Ans: n-propyl alcohol, 1°
(b) Ans: sec-butyl alcohol, 2°
(c) Ans : i sobutyl a lcohol, 1°
(d) Ans : t-butyl a lcohol, 3°
ETHERS
Simple (symmetrical) eithers have the general formula R-O-R or Ar-O-Ar; mixed (unsymmetrical) either R-O-R’ of Ar-O-Ar’ or Ar-O-R. The derived system
names R and Ar as separate words and adds the word “ether”. In the IUPAC system, either (ROR) are named alkoxy - (RO-) substituted alkanes. Cyclic ethers have
at least one C in a ring.
EPOXIDES
Unique among cyclic ethers are those with three-membered rings, the epoxides or exiranes. Their large ring strains make them highly reactive.
THIOETHERS
Thioethers are the sulfur analogs of the ethers, with the genraic formula RSR. They are also known as sulfides.
48. Give a derived and IUPAC name for the following ethers: (a) CH 3 OCH2 CH2CH2CH3, (b) (CH 2 )2CHOCH(CH3 )CH2CH3, (c) C 6H 5OCH2CH3, (d) p-
NO2C 6H4OCH3, (e) CH 3 OCH2 CH2OCH3. Ans : (a) Methyl n-butyl ether, 1-mothoxybutane, (b) sec-butyl isopropyl ether, 2-isopropoxybutane, (c) Ethyl phenyl ether,
ethoxybenzene (commonly called phenetole), (d) Methyl p-nitrophenyl ether, 4- nitromethoxybenzen ( or p-nitroanisole), € 1,2-dimethoxyethane.
CARBONYL COMPOUNDS: ALDEHYDES & KETONES
Carbonyl compounds have only H,R, or AR groups attached to the carbonyl group (-C-). Aldehydes have at least one bonded to the carbonyl group;
ketones have only R’s or Ar’s.
ALDEHYDES
IUPAC names the longest continuous chain including the C of –CH=O and replaces –e of the alkane name by the suffix –al. The C of CHO is number 1.
For compounds with two –CHO groups, the suffix –dial is added to the alkane name. When other functional groups have naming priority, -CHO is called formyl.
Common names replace the suffix –ic (-cic or –oxylic) and the word acid of the corresponding carboxylic acids by aldehydes. Locations of substituents on
chains are designated by Greek letters: e.g.
εδ γ β α
-C-C-C-C-C-C=O
The terminal C of a long chain is designated ω (omega). The compound is named as an aldehyde (carbaldehyde) whenever –CHO is attached to a ring.
KETONES
Common names use the names of R or Ar as separate words, along with the word ketone. The IUPAC system replaces the –e of the name of the longest
chain by the suffix –one.
In molecules with functional groups, such as –COOH, that have a higher naming priority, the carbonyl group is indicated by the prefix keto-. Thus, CH 3-
CO-CH 2-COOH is 4-ketopentanoic acid. Groups like –CO-R(Ar) are called acyl groups: e.g. –CO-CH3 is the acetyl group. Phenyl ketones are aften named as the
ecyl group followed by the suffix –phenone.
PREPARATION
Aldehydes, RCHO and ketones, R2C=O, are made by oxidizing the corresponding 1° RCH 2OH and 2°R2CHOH, respectively, RCHO, but not R2C=O, can
also be prepared by reducing the corresponding RCOOH or its derivative RCOX.
49. Give the common and IUPAC names for (a) CH 3CHO, (b) (CH 3)2 CHCH2CHO, (c) CH 3CH2 CH2 CHClCHO, (d) (CH 3)2 CHCOCH3, (e) CH 3CH2COC6H5, (f)
H 2C=CHCOCH3 Ans: (a) Acetaldehyde (from acetic acid), ethanol (b) β-methylbutyraldehyde, 3-methylbutanal (c) α-chlorovaleraldehyde, 2-chloropentanal (d)
methyl isopropyl ketone, 3-methyl-2-butanone € ethyl phenyl ketone, 1-phenyl-1-propanone (propiophenone) (f) methyl vinyl ketone, 3-butene-2-one
CARBOXYLIC ACIDS & T HEIR DERIVATIVES
Carboxylic acids (RCOOH or ArCOOH) have the carboxylic group, -COOH, which is an acyl group, RCO-, bonded to OH.
Common names , sucj as formic (ant) and butyric (butter) acids, are based on the natural source of the acid. The position of substituent groups are shown by Greek
letters, α, β, γ, δ, etc. Some have names derived from acetic acid, e.g., (CH 3)3CCOOH and C 6 H 5 CH2COOH, are trimethylacetic acid and phenylacetic acid,
respectively. Occasionally they are named as carboxylic acids, e.g.
Is cyclohexanecarboxylic acid.
`For IUPAC names replace the –e of the corresponding alkane with –oic acid: thus, CH 3CH2COOH is propanic acid. The C’s are numbered; the C of the
COOH is numbered 1. C6h5cooh is benzoic acid. Dicarboxylic acids contain two COOH groups and are named by adding the suffix –dioic and the word acid to the
name of the longest chain with the two COOH’s.
50. Give a derived and IUPAC name for the following carboxylic acids. Note the common names. (a) CH 3(CH2 )4COOH (caproic acid) (b) (CH 3)3CCOOH (pivalic acid)
(c) HOOC(CH2)2COOH (succinic acid) Ans: (a) n-Butylacetic acid, Hexanoic acid (b) trimethylacetic acid, 2,2-dimethylpropanic acid (c) butanedioic acid.
51. Give the structural formulas for the following acid derivatives: (a) propionitrile (b) isopropyl-2-fluorobutanoate (c) 3-phenylhexanol chloride (d) 3-chloropropyl
benzoate Ans: (a) CH 3CH 2C≡N (b) CH 3CH2CHFCOOCH(CH3)2 (c) CH 3CH2CH2C(C6H5)HCH2COCl (d) C 6H 5COOCH2CH 2Cl
AMINES
Amines are alkyl derivatives of NH3. Replacing one, two, or three H’s of NH 3 gives primary (1°), secondary (2°) and tertiary (3°) mines, respectively.
Amines are named by adding the suffix –amine to the name of (a) the alkyl group attached to N or (B) the longest alkane chain. The terminal e in the
name of the parent alkane is dropped when “amine” follows but not when, for example, “diamine” follows. Amines, especially w ith other functional groups, are named
by considering amino, , N-alkylamino and N,N-dialkylamino as substituents on the parent molecule; N indicates substitution in nitrogen.
Aromatic and cyclic amines often have common names such as aniline (benzenamine), C 6H 5NH2; p-toludine, p-CH 3C 6H 4NH2 ; and piperidine.
52. Name and classify the following amines: (a) (CH 3)3CNH2 , (b) (CH 3)2NCH(CH3 )2 & (c) C 6H5N(CH3)2 Ans: (a) t-butylamine or 2-methyl-2-propanamine, 1°,
(b) dimethylisopropylamine, 3°, (c) N,N-dimethylaniline, 3°
General Inorganic Chemistry & Analytical Chemistry
1. Which of the following is a homogenous mixture?

I. water II. water and alcohol III. air
A. I, II and III B. II and III only C. I and II only D. I and III only
2. NH3 is
A. trigonal planar B. tetrahedral C. trigonal pyramid D. linear
3. PH3 is
A. trigonal planar B. tetrahedral C. trigonal pyramid D. linear
4. Water is a _____ molecule
A. diatomic B. triatomic C. monoatomic D. tetraatomic
A. d and f block B. p block C. s block D. d block
6. An atomic bond resulting from the formation of a molecular orbital by the head-on collision of atomic orbitals.
A. sigma bond B. ionic bond C. pi bond D. covalent bond
7. Which does not belong to the group?
A. Cu B. B C. Si D. As
8. The most abundant element in the solar system is
A. hydrogen B. nitrogen C. oxygen D. helium
𝑃1𝑉1 𝑃2𝑉2
9. = is
𝑇1 𝑇2
A. Charles law C. Combined Boyle's & Charles law
B. Ideal gas law D. Amagat's law
10. H+ is a an _____.
A. proton B. electron C. element D. neutron
11. In which of the following is the size of particles increasing?
A. colloids, solution, suspension C. solution, suspension, colloids
B. colloids, suspension, solution D. suspension, solution, colloids
12. Which of the following is the most polar bond?
A. N - O B. C - C C. C - H D. H - F
13. The pair of electrons which do not participate in the bonding is called
A. ione pair of non-bonding electrons C. covalent bond
B. ionic bond D. bonding electrons
14. A chemical reaction which requires heat to produce products.
A. reversible reaction C. exothermic reaction
B. irreversible reaction D. endothermic reaction
15. It is define as the tendency of an atom to attract electrons.
A. ionization energy C. exothermic reaction
B. electronegativity D. activation energy
16. Dispersion of solid or liquid particles of microscopic size in a gas media such as smoke is
A. a soot B. a vapor C. a mist D. an aerosol
17. It is a proton donor.
A. Arrhenius acid B. Lewis acid C. Bronsted acid D. Acetic acid
18. Which of the following has the greatest affinity to electrons?
A.Na B. Br C. Cl D. K
19. Elements in a given period have the same
A. atomic weight C. maximum azimuthal quantum number
B. maximum principal quantum number D. valence electron structure
20. Electron affinity is defined as
A. the change in energy when a gaseous atom in its ground state gains an electron
B. the pull an atom has on the electrons in chemical bond
C. the energy required to remove a valence electron from a neutral gaseous atom in its ground state
D. the energy difference between an electron in its ground and exited states
21. A triple bond consist of
A. 3 sigma bonds B. 1 pi & 2 sigma bonds C. 1 sigma & 2 pi bonds D. 3 pi bonds
22. Colligative properties depend on
A. number of solute particles C. nature of solute
B. temperature of solution D. nature of solvent
23. It is the Greek word for "salt forming"
A. actinides B. lanthanides C. halogen D. transition
24. Who discovered radium?
A. Marie Curie B. John Priestly C. Ernest Rutherford D. John Dalton
25. Aqua regia is a mixture of
A. hydrochloric & perchloric acid C. nitric & perchloric acid
B. hydrochloric, nitric & perchloric acid D. nitric & hydrochloric acid
26. Mayonnaise and milk are examples of
A. emusion B. suspension C. colloid D. mixture
27. Colloidal dispersion has ______ phase while a suspension has ______ phases.
A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 1 C. 2 and 1 D. 2 and 2
28. Which of the following has no definite stricture?
A. crystalline B. amorphous C. amphoteric D. allotroph
A. Rutherford B. Chadwick C. Goldstein D. Anderson
30. How many halogens are there in period three?
A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 1
31. It is a substance that yields hydronium ions in aqueous solution.
A. Arrhenius acid B. Lewis acid C. Bronsted acid D. Lewis acid
32. What expressions of concentration are independent of temperature?
A. molality and mole fraction
B. molarity and normality
C. molarity and mole fraction
D. molarity and J molarity
33. A yellowish gas.
A. chlorine B. carbon dioxide C. nitrogen D. hydrogen
34. Which of the following is the lightest?
A. alpha particle B. proton C. beta particle D. hydrogen
35. Group 1R elements are also known as
A. alkaline earth metals B. Halogen C. alkali metals D. chalcogen
36. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
I. Liquid water is denser than ice.
II. Ice is denser than liquid water.
III. Ice and liquid water have equal densities.
IV. Ice has a more open structure than liquid water due to the allignment of hydrogen molecules.
V. The molecules of liquid water are farther apart than the molecules of ice
A. III and IV only B. II and IV only C. I, IV and V only D. I and IV only
37. Atomic number is equal to the
A. mass number B. number of protons C. number of electrons D. number of neutrons
38. One atomic mass unit is equivalent to _____ of the atomic weight of carbon.
A. 12 times B. 1/12 C. 1/3 D.1/4
39. The energy needed to remove the most loosely bonded electron of an atom is the
A. ionization energy B. electron affnity C. electronegavity D. kinetic energy
40. Who stated that the properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic weights not atomic number?
A. Ernest Rutherford B. Henry Moseley C. Dmitri Mendeleev D. Neils Bohr
41. Calcuim carbonate is also known as
A. chalk B. feldspar C. charcoal D. silica
42. Which of the following has the least strength?
A. covalent bond B. electrovalent bond C. van der waals bond D. ionic bond
43. How many neutrons are there in platinum atom?
A. 78 B. 117 C. 195 D. 273
44. Two major types of chemical bonds are observed in chemical bonding: ionic covalent. Which of the following has the bond that is least ionic in character?
A. NaCl B. H 2O C. CH 4 D. H 2
45. The most abundant element in the solar system is
A. hydrogen B. Oxygen C. nitrogen D. argon
46. The number of electrons in an atom of an element is equal to
A. atomic weight B. atomic number C. equivalent weight D. electron affinity
47. According to Lewis definition, a base is that which
A. gives hydronium ions C. donates an electron
B. accepts an electron pair D. is protogenic
48. The composition of the nucleus of deuterium is
A. one electron, one proton C. one neutron, one electron
B. one protons, one neutron D. two protons, one electron
49. Which of the following is the most electronegative?
A. fluorine B. bromine C. chlorine D. iodine
50. What is the molecular weight of ammonium perchlorate?
51. An uneven sharing of electrons between two atoms indicate
A. bonding B. electronegativity C. coupling D. polarity
52. All of the following are colligative properties, except
A. solubility C. freezing point depression
B. vapor pressure lowering D. boiling point elevation
53. The number that expresses the oxidation state of an atom of an element or group is called the
A. indicator B. displacement factor C. valence D. electrolyte
54. A solution used principally to control the pH value of a solution to a point where selective precipitation can be made.
A. acid solution B. basic solution C. neutral solution D. buffer solution
55. Hydrogen is common to all
A. acids B. oxides C. salts D. metals
56. Defines an acid as a compound that dissolves in water to produce hydronium ions.
A. Arrhenius B. Bronsted-Lowry C. Lewis D. Rutherford
57. One gram mole of a spacie is weight of the spacie equivalent to its
A. molecular weight B. atomic number C. number of nuetrons D. atomic mass
58. Along a row in the periodic table of elements have the same
A. energy level B. configuration C. electronegativity D. size
59. The electrons of metals are free to move in solids. This explains why
A. metals are unstable C. metals can be easily molded
B. metals have high reflectivity D. metals have high conductivity
60. How many pi bonds are there in a double bond?
A. 0 B. 2 C. 1 D. 3
61. All isotopes of a given element have
A. equal number of protons and neutrons C. the same number of protons
B. the same number of atomic mass unit D. the same number of neurons
62. Used to express the ethanol concentration in beverages.
A. % ethanol B. years C. proof D. karat
63. The universal blood type donor is
A. type A B. type AB C. type B D. type O
64. Which will dissolve fastest in coffee?
A. lump sugar in hot coffee C. granular sugar in cold coffee
B. granular sugar in hot coffee D. lump sugar in cold coffee
65. As water boils at 1atm, the temperature
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant at 100°C until all is changed to vapor
D. varies
66. Saltwater at 1 atm boils at
A. slightly higher than 100°C C. less than 100°C
B. 100°C D. 98°C
67. The method of measuring the specific heat of liquids and solid is
A. entropy B. enthalpy C. thermometry D calorimetry
68. Which has the greatest rest mass?
A. alpha particle B. neuron C. proton D. electron
69. Which noble gas is 1% by volume in air
A. argon B. xenon C. krypton D. radon
70. Which of the following is also known as soda lye or caustic soda which is use in manufacture of soap?
A. sodium chloride B. sodium hydroxide C. sodium carbonate D. ammonia
71. A complete fertilizer contains
A. N, P and K B. N, P and C C. Na, P and K D. N, P and S
72. Prussic acid has a formula
A. HNO3 B. HCN C. C5H5OH D. H2SO4
73. An azeotropic mixture is
A. liquid mixture of two or more substances in which the vapor has the same composition as the liquid
B. a solution of two or more substances that cannot be made
C. a mixture of two or more substances where the boiling point cannot be determined
D. solution of two or more substances present in the same amounts in the liquid phase
74. Which of the following grades has the highest purity?
A. technical grade B. reagent grade C. primary standard D. USP grade
75. The temperature at which a polymer changes from hard and brittle to rubbery and tough is called
A. boiling point C. thermosetting temperature
B. glass transition temperature D. melting point
76. consider the following reaction

KMnO 4 + KCI + H 2SO4 → MnSO 4 + H 2O + Cl2
What is the reducing agent?
A. KMnO 4 B. Mn C. KCI D. CaCl2
77. In HAsO3 of the following is covalently bonded?
A. -5 B. -2 C. +6 D. +3
78. Which of the following is covalently bonded?
A. MgO B. NaCl C. KCI D. CaCl2
79. Discovered water by exploding hydrogen and oxygen.
A. Lewis B. Cavendish C. Lavoiser D. Huey
80. Buffer solution resists changes in acidity. If an acid is added to a buffer solution, the ______ remains the same
A. pH B. molality C. concentration D. mole fraction
81. Jellies and paints are examples of
A. gen B. emuision C. sol D. aerosol
82. Which of the following is a heavy ductile metal?
A. Mn B. Ni C. Mg D. Al
83. Optical pyrometer is used to
A. determine the voltage at the junction of dissimilar metal
B. measure temperature of solid objects at temperature above 700°C
C. determine the density of an ideal gas
D. measure turbidity of wastewater
84. Teratogens can cause
A. cancer
B. nervous system breakdown
C. child birth defects
D. skin allergies
85. Which of the following has the least polar bonding?
A. carbon dioxide B. oxygen C. nitrogen dioxide D. sulfur dioxide
86. The type of intermolecular bond present in water is
A. extended covalent B. ionic bond C. polar bond D. hydrogen bond
87. Which of the following is another allotropic form of graphite?
A. gold B. Silver C. diamond D. bronze
88. All are isoelectronic, expect
A. Mg2+ B. Na+ C. F D. Ne
A. energy B. force C. work D. heat
90. The poorest source of hydrogen is
A. protein, fat and carbohydrate C. fossil fuel
B. atmosphere D. water
91. When atoms collide, they do not lose energy. This is because
A. collision are elastic C. collisions are elastic
B. collisions are adiabatic D. Collisions are frictionless
92. Which is not common property to both hydrogen, oxy gen and nitrogen?
A. their densities are lighter than air C. tasteless, odorless and colorless gas
B. weak intermolecular forces D. slightly soluble in water
93. A hydrocarbon has an empirical formula of CH3. If the molecular weight of the hydrocarbon is 30 g/mol, what is the hydrocarbon?
A. C 2H 6 B. C 2H 2 C. C 4H10 D. C 6 H 12
94. The state at which the rate of forward reaction is equal to the rate of backward reaction.
A. eutectic acid B. equilibrium state C. reversible state D. ideal state
95. It is a substance that yields hydronium ions in aqueous solution.
A. Arrhenius acid B. Lewis acid C. Bronsted acid D. amphoteric
96. Two bodies are of temperature of 70°F and 200°F respectively. Calculate the difference in temperature in degrees Kelvin.
A. 72.22 B. 65.90 C. 60.25 D. 75.12
97. All these about redox are correct except
A. the total number of the electrons lost by the element reduces is equal to the total number of electrons gained by the element oxidized
B. the reducing agent oxidized
C. reduction is loss in positive valence
D. oxidation is loss of electrons
98. What is the color of commercially available nickel chloride?
A. white B. yellow C. red D. green
99. Defines a base as a compound that dissolves in water to produce hydroxide ions
A. another electrons goes from a low energy state to a high one
B.
100. When an electron goes from a high energy state to a low one, what occur?
A. another electron goes from a low energy state to a high one
B. the atom moves faster
C. light is given off
D. this process is not possible
101. Calculate percent oxygen in Fe2(SO4)3.
A. 37% B. 44% C. 40% D. 48%
102. A 0.5 M solution of a solute (MW = 57 g/mol) has a density of 2.5 g/mol. Calculate the percent by mass of the solute.
A. 0.75% B. 2.80% C. 1.14% D. 0.42%
103. A 0.5 M solution of a solute (MW = 57 g/mol) has a density of 2.5 g/mol. Calculate the percent by mole of the solute.
A. 0.18% B. 0.36% C. 0.25% D. o.42%
104. A 0.5 M solution of a solute (MW = 57 g/mol) has a density of 2.5 g/mol. Calculate the molality of the solution.
A. 0.20 B. 0.30 C. 0.25 D. 0.40
105. A compound has a molecular formula of X4O 10. If 1 g of X reacts with oxygen to yield 2.24 g of X4O10, find the element X.
A. S B. Mg C. Ca D. P
106. A 1.038 M sucrose solution has a density of 1.1 g/ml. Calculate the molarity of the solution.
A. 12.4 M B. 9.7 M C. 10.87 M D. 9.0 M
107. A 1.038 M sucrose solution has a density of 1.1 g/ml. Calculate the percent by mass sucrose (C 12 H 22 O11).
A. 30.82% B. 32.27% C. 31.15% D. 34.50%
108. A 1.038 M sucrose solution has a density of 1.1 g/ml. Calculate the percent by mole sucrose (C 12 H 22O11).
A. 2.45% B. 2.72% C. 2.60% D. 2.84%
109. A 1.038 M sucrose solution has a density of 1.1 g/ml. Calculate the molality of the solution.
A. 1.39 m B. 2.15 m C. 1.89 m D. 2.30 m
110. How many electrons are removed from an atom that changes its oxidation number from -3 to +5?
A. 2 B. 6 C. 8 D. 4
111. Calculate the molarity of NaOH solution if 5 ml of NaOH is titrated with 25 ml of 0.26 M HCI.
A. 1.0 M B. 1.5 M C. 1.3 M D. 1.7 M
112. The pH of an aqueous solution which has an analytical concentration of 1E-7 M of hydronium ion is
A. 6.0 B.6.79 C. 7.0 D. 6.69
113. What reacts with AgNO3 to form a silver mirror?
A. aldehydes B. Acids C. ketones D. esters
114. 18.7 g unknown acid is reacted with zinc to produce 800 cc of hydrogen gas at STP. What is the equivalent weight of the acid?
A. 624 B. 173 C. 262 D. 131
115. What weight of AgNO3 is required to precipitate the chlorides in a 750 mg solution of 14% BaCl2?
A. 256 mg B. 80 mg C. 342 mg D. 171 mg
116. Calculate the pH of a solution prepared by mixing 10 ml of 0.1 N NaOH and 25 ml of 0.1 N HAc.
A. 2.46 B. 12.96 C. 4.57 D. 8.72
A. 2.46 B. 12.96 C. 4.57 D. 8.72
A. 2.46 B. 12.96 C. 4.57 D. 8.72
119. What is the pH of natural water?
A. 5.6 - 6.2 B. 7.0 - 8.3 C. 4.2 - 4.4 D. 2.2 - 2.4
120.Asorbic acid (vitamin C ) contains 40.92 percent C, 4.58 percent H, and O by mass.
A. C 3H 4O3 B. C 3H3O3 C. C 3H 5O3 D. C 6H6 O3
121. How many grams of water are produced in the combustion of 1 g of glucose, C 6H 12 O6 :
C 6H 12O 6(S) + 6 O 2 (g) → 6 CO 2 (g) + 6 H 2O (I)
A. 0.5 B. 0.6 C. 0.7 D. 0.8
122. One commercial method used to peel potatoes is to soak them in a solution of NaOH for a short time, remove them from the NaOH, and spray off the peel. The
concertration of NaOH is normally in the rangeof 3 to 6M. The NaOH is analyzed periodically. In one such analysis, 45.7 ml of 9.5 M H 2SO4 is required to
neutralize a 20 ml sample of NaOH solution. What is the contration of the NaOH solution?
A. 1.52 M B. 1.75 M C. 2.05 M D. 2.28 M
123. A series of measurements are made in order to determine the molar mass of an unknown gas. First, a large flask is evacuated and found to weight 134.567 g. It
is then filled with the gas to a pressure of 735 torr at 310°C and reweighed; its mass is now 137.456 g. Finally, the flask filled with water at 31° and found to
weigh 1067.9 g. (The density of the water at this temperature is 0.977g/mL). Assuming that the ideal gas equation applies, calculated the molar mass of the
unknown gas.
124. 2320 g of tetra-methanol cyclopentane is denoted in the absence of air in a 1000 L closed bomb.
C 9H 12 N4O18 → 4CO 2 + 5CO + 5H 2O + H 2 +2N 2
The temperature in the bomb if the pressure rises to 300kPa is
A .425 K B. 365 K C. 285 K D.345 K
125. A gaseous mixture containing 50% mol H 2 and 50% mol acetaldehyde is initially contained in a rigid vessel at 1 atm. The formation of ethanol occurs, after a
time it was noted that the pressure drop 700 mmHg. Calculate the degree of completion of the reaction.
A. 15.8% B. 17.2% C. 7.8% D. 9.2%
126. If 1.588 g of nitrogen tetroxide (N2O4) gives a total pressure of 1.0133 bar when partially dissociated in a 500-cm3 glass vessel at 25°C, what is the extent of the
reaction?
A. 18.42% B. 27.81% C.38.91% D. 47.65%
{127-128} A solid metallic element burns in oxygen to produce an oxide which dissolves in water to give the hydroxide of the metal. The hydroxide obtained from 1
gram of metal neutralizes 111.2 ml of normal hydrochloric acid. The specific heat of the metal is 0.228 cal/g °C.
127. What is the valency of the metal?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
A. 9.33 B 8.992 C. 9.002 D. 9.005
129. A 6.30-mg sample of a newly discovered isotope was analyzed and found to contain only 4.75 mg after a period of 27.2 hours. What is the half-life (in hours) of
the isotope?
A. 27.2 B. 8.13 C. 92.3 D. 66.7
130. Consider the following reaction at equilibrium: N2O4(g)==2NO2(g). If a 5 L reaction vessel, held at constant temperature, is initially filled with 10 mol pure
N2O4(g), and if 3.5 mol NO2(g) are found in the vessel once equilibrium has been established, what is the value of the equilibrium constant, Kc, for this reaction
( at the temperature of the experiment)?
A. 0,297 M B. 1.48M C. 0.424 M D. 0.0594 M
131. The reaction of Br2(g) and Cl2(g) to form BrCl(g) has an equilibrium constant of 15 at a certain temperature. If 10 grams of BrCl is present in a 15-L reaction
vessel, initially, what will be the constant of BrCl at equilibrium?
A. 3.8E-3 mol/L B. 5.77 E-3 mol/L C. 1.97 E-3 mol/L D. 9.9 E-4 mol/L
132. Carbob dioxide decomposes at elevated temperature to carbon monoxide and oxygen:
` 2CO2(g) ↔ 2CO(g) + O2(g)
At 3000 K, 2 mol of CO2 is placed in a 1 L container and allowed to equilibrate. At equilibrium, 0.90 mol CO2 remains. What is the value for Kc at this
temperature?
A. 0.82 B. 1.88 C. 2.44 D. 3.12
133. If 1 mol of PCl3 and 1 mol of Cl2 are placed in a 5-L container, the following equilibrium is reached. PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) → PCl5(g) Kc= 10 at the t4emperature
maintained. What is the equilibrium molar concentration of PCl3?
A. 0.13 B. 0.11 C. 0.14 D. 0.10
134. Consider the reaction: H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g) Keq=25. Determine the number of moles of H2 remaining when 1 mole of both H2 and I2 are equilibrated in a liter
box.
A. 1/8 mole B. 2/7 mole C. 5/7 mole D. 5/6 mole
135. Given the reaction: A + B → 2C; K=50. Determine the final concentration of C when 1 mole of both A and B are added to a 1 liter container containing 0.1 mole
of C.
A. 0.78 mole B. 0.88 mole C. 1.66 mole D. 1.85 mole
136. For the reaction 2NO2(g) → N2O4(g). At a certain temperature one mole of NO2 is placed in a 1 liter container. After equilibrium is established, there are 0.20
mole of N2O4 present. Calculate the equilibrium constant at this temperature.
A. 55.6 mol/L B. 5.56 mol/L C. 5.56 L/mol D. 55.6 L/mol
137. For the reaction 2A(g) + B(g) ↔ 3C(g) + D(g). the concentration at equilibrium are 0.30 M of A, 0.60 M of B, 0.20 M of C and 0.50 M of D. Find the equilibrium
constant.
A. 0.074 B. 0.047 C. 0.74 D. 0.47
Organic Chemistry 2
1. A carboxylic acid which contributes to the strong odor of rancid butter and other fats.
2. An acid found in citrus fruits.
A. capric acid B. ethanoic acid C. citric acid D. oleic acid
3. An acid found in vinegar.
A. citric acid B. formic acid C. stearic acid D. acetic acid
4. It is reaction in which the element of hydrogen are introduced into a molecule.
A. halogenation B. hydration C. hydrogenation D. Alkylation
5. Name:
A. xylene B. benzoic acid C. aniline D. toluene

6. What is the name of the following alkane?
A. 2,3-dimethyl butane C.1,1,2-trmethyl propane
B. 1-isopropyl-1-methyl ethane D. 1,3-dimethyl butane
7. An alkyne contains at least one of each of the following carbon-carbon bonds?
A. double B. quadruple C. triple D. single
8. Carbonated water is made by dissolving CO2 in water at a
A. high temperature C. pressure lower than 1 atm
B. temperature which is gradually increased D. pressure greater than 1 atm
9. In benzene, what is the valence bond hybridization on each carbon atom?
10. What kind of hybrid orbitals are formed on the carbon atom in cyclopropane?
11. Three sp^2 hybrid orbitals are formed on the carbon atoms in cyclopropane?
A. 109°28” B. 60° C. 90° D. 120°
12. How many secondary carbon atoms does methylcylopropane have?
A. none B. one C. two D. three
13. Substances that absorb ultraviolet light and reemit it as visible light are called
A. bleaches C. optical brightness
B. fabric softeners D. water softeners
14. Hair is
A. protein B. fat C. carbohydrate D. cellulose
15. A continuous-chain hydrocarbon is isomeric with 2-methyl-3ethylhexane?
A. octane B. nonane C. decane D. dodecane
16. When an alcohol is dehydrated it forms
A. an aldehyde B. an acid C. an alkene D. a ketone
17. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2 one mole of this compound has a mass of 42 gm. Its molecular formula is
A. CH 2 B. C 2H 2 C. C 3H6 D. C 3H 3
18. How many carbon atoms are there in 2-bromo-2-pentene?
A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3
19. Which of the following is a shark liver oil?
A. menthol B. oil of cedar C. squalene D. oil of celery
20. The substance chiefly responsible for the bright orange color of carrots
A. vitamin K B. ascorbic acid C. β-carotene D. protein
21. The hydrocarbon fraction from petroleum whose size range of molecules is from C5 to C12.
A. kerosene, fuel oil B. gas C. straight-run gasoline D. lubricator
22. Which of the following describes a triple bond?
A. two sigma bonds and two pi bonds C. one sigma bond and two pi bonds
B. two sigma bonds and one pi bond D. one sigma bond and two pi bonds
23. Which of the following is closest to the C-O-C bond angle in CH3-O-CH3?
A. 180° B. 120° C. 109.5° D. 90°
24. Triethylamine [(CH3CH2)3N] is a molecule in which the nitrogen atom is ______ hybridized and the CNC bond angle is ________.
A. sp2; >109.5° B. sp2;< 109.5° C. sp3; >109.5° D. sp3; <109.5°
25. How should (CH 3)2C(OH)CH2 CH3 be classified?
A. primary alcohol C. secondary alcohol
B. tertiary alcohol D. quarternary alcohol
A. 4 B. 6 C. 5 D. 7
27. The chemical formula of pyruvic acid is:
A. OHC COOH C. CH 3COCOCH
B. CH 3 COOH D. CH 3COCOOH
28. A compound which has a bond formed by the overlap of sp-sp^3 hybrid orbital is:
A. HC≡ CH B. CH 3-C ≡CH C.CH 3-CH=CH2 D. H 2O=C=CH2
29. Williamson synthesis is a procedure for the production of:
A. Easters from acid chlorides C. Alkanes using sodium metal
B. Ethers from alkyl iodide D. Salicylic acid from phenol
30. The reaction of an alcohol and an aryl isocyanate.
A. urethane reaction B. esterification C. condensation D. hydrolysis
31. An ordered state which is stable at a temperature range between the solid state and an ordered fluid system.
A. suspension B. colloid C. liquid crystal D. composite
32. It is the mixture of fructose and glucose by the breakdown of sucrose.
A. galctose B. invert sugar C. monosaccharides D. disaccharides
33. Found exclusively in milk of mammals
A. lactose B. fructose C. glucose D.maitose
34. Which of the following involve redox reaction?
A. evaporation of water B. production by lightning of ozine from O2
C. reaction of H2SO4 and NaOH D. burning of gasoline
35. It is the attraction between molecules.
A. absorption B. diffusion C. adhesion D. cohesion
37. Which, if any, are not true of the vulcanization process?
A. it results in sulfur bridges between polymer chains
B. it increases the hardness of natural rubber
C. it improves the elasticity of natural rubber
D. All of the above are true of the vulcanization process
38. Saponification is a reaction is a reaction in which a tricylglycerol reacts with a strong base to form
A. glycerol and three soap molecules B. glycerol and three water molecules
C. three fatty acid molecules and water D. oleic acid and water
39. Steroids are derivatives of which lipid?
A. β-carotene B. cholesterol C. sphingosine D. vitamin D
40. An organic compound has an empirical formula of C3H6O. This formula can represent
A. three alcohols B. two alcohols and one ether C. one organic acid D. two ethers and one alcohol
41. Which compounds are isomers?
A. 1-prpanol and 2-propanol B. ethane and ethanol C. methanoic acid and ethanoic acid D. methanol and methanol
42. If each of the following is an alkane, which one must be cyclic?
A. C7H14 B. C22H46 C. C3H8 D.C12H26
43. If we add Cl2 to 1-buten, what is the product?
A. CH 3 CH2CCl2CH3 B. CH 3CH2CCl2 CHCl2 C. CH 3CH2CH 2CHCl2 D. CH 3CH2CHClCH2Cl
44. Which of the following are uses for oxygen
I. oxidizing agent
II. removing impurities from steel
III. bleaching pulp and paper
IV. welding
A. I only B. II and III C. III and IV D. all of these
45. Which of the following is not a disubstituted benzene?
A. o-xylene B. 1,3-diamonibenzene C. 2,4-dinitrotoluene D. p-dichlorobenzene
46. Which of the following is an unacceptable IUPAC name?
A. o-chlorotoluene B. 1,5,6-trinitrobenzene C. biphenyl D. 1,3,5-trimethylbenzene
47. What reacts with AgNO3 to form a silver mirror?
A. aldehydes B. acids C. ketones D. esters
48. Isopropyl alcohol is
A. a primary alcohol B. a tertiary alcohol C. a secondary alcohol D. a phenol
49. Identify the functional group,
A. ether B. hydroxyl C. carbonyl D. carboxyl
50. Oxygen double bonded with carbon is
A. hydroxyl B. carbonyl C. carboxyl D. alkyl
51. An alcohol in which the OH is bonded with carbon which is bonded to the other arbon.
A. primary alcohol B. tertiary alcohol C. secondary alcohol D. phenol
A. 4 B. 6 C.5 D.7
53. Ethylene glycol is
A. a triol B. ester C. diol D. phenol
54. Which is unsaturated?
A. alkenes and alkynes B. alkanes, alkenes and alkynes C. alkanes and alkenes D. alkanes and alkynes
55. Which of the following is needed to make a silicon rubber?
A. trihydroxymethyl silane B. dhydroxymethyl silane C. hydroxymethyl silane D. tetramethyl silane
56. Hybrid orbitals and the triple-bonded carbon of alkynes.
57. Which organic compound has the functional group –COOH?
A. ethers B. ketones C. aldehydes D. acids
58. A benzene ring with one hydrogen removed.
A. benzyl B. aryl C. alkyl D. phenyl
59. Hydrocarbons that contain one or more carbon triple bonds.
A. alkynes B. alkenes C. alkyl D. alkanes
60. How many atoms are there in a molecule of naphthalene?
A. 10 B. 20 C. 18 D. 24
61. Hybrid orbitals in alkynes.
A. sp3 B. sp C. sp2 D. spd
62. What structure to both aldehydes and ketones contains?
A. the carbonyl group B. the hydroxyl group C. the carboxyl group D. the amino group
63. Which one of the following statement regarding organic substances is false?
A. Organic matter is generally stable at high temperature.
B. All organic matter contain carbon.
C. Organic substances generally do not dissolve in water.
D. Organic substances generally dissolve in high concentrated acids.
64. The science dealing with the study of phenomena at very low temperature is known as
A. refrigenics B. cytogenics C. frozenics D. cryogenics
65. Which of the following contains 18 carbons?
A. palmitic acid B. stearic acid C. eleic acid D. linoleic acid E. linolenic acid
A. A, B, C, D, E B. C, D C. B, C, D, E D. B, D, E
66. What is the total number of carbon atoms in molecules of glycerol?
A. 1 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4
67. To be classified as a tertiary alcohol, the functional –OH group is bonded to a carbon atom that must be bonded to a total pf how many additional carbon atoms?
A. 1 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4
68. Primary alcohol can be derived from the reaction of Grignard reagent with?
A. methanol B. any ketone C. acetone D. ethylene
69. Deposits and films are a problem with soap but not detergent because of which property?
A. Soaps form soluble calcium salts C. Detergents form more stable micellies
B. Detergents do not form insoluble calcium salts D. Soap micellies are unstable in acid
70. Which statement about steroid is false?
I) The fusion of all rings is cis.
II) Sex hormones, adrenocorticoid hormones, bile acids and vitamin D are derived from cholesterol.
III) The biosynthesis of cholesterol produces several isomers.
IV) Steroids are tetracyclic ring systems.
A. I, III B. II, IV C. I, II D. III, IV
71. Which statement about vitamins are true?
I) Vitamin A, D, E and K are fat soluble.
II) Vitamin A, D, E and K are derived from cholesterol.
III) Vitamin A, D, E and K each contain 4 isoprene units.
IV) Vitamin A, D, E and K have distinct physiological activities.
A. II, III B. III, IV C. I, III D. I, IV
72. Carboxylic acids and amides have in general higher boiling points than esters and aldehydes because of which property?
A. dispersion forces B. resonance stabilization C. conjugated functional groups D. hydrogen bonding
73. Which terms are correct to their definitions?
I) Plastic – a long chain molecule synthesized by linking together many parts.
II) Polymer – can be molded when hot and retains shape when cold.
III) Thermoplastic – can be molded when hot and retains shape when cold.
IV) Thermosetting plastic – can be molded when first prepared, but hardens irreversibly when cooled.
A. III, IV B. II, III C. I, II D. I, IV
74. Which are reducing sugars?
I) lactose II) sucrose III) glucose IV) fructose V) galactose
A. I, II. III B. I, III, IV, V C. II, III, IV, V D. III, IV, V
75. Which are dissacharides?
I) sucrose II) glucose III) maltose IV) lactose V) galactose
A. II, IV, V B. I, II, III C. III, IV, VD. I, III, IV
76. Which sugars are monosaccharides?
I) mannose II) maltose III) ribose IV) lactose V) glucose
A. I, II, III B. II, III, IV C. II, IV V D. I, III, IV
77. Cellulose, starch, and glycogen are polusaccharides that contain which sugar?
A. sucrose B. glucose C. fructose D. lactose
78. Which sugars are reducing sugars?
I. sucrose II. maltose III. lactose IV. Fructose
A. I, II, III B. II, III, IV C. I, III, IV D. I, II, IV
79. What is the term for the process of forming ethane from ethane?
A. combustion B. thermal cracking C. fractional distillation D. catalytic reformation
80. Which molecule has the most negative heat of combustion in kcal/mol?
A. methane B. ethane C. propane D. butane
81. Which is the major product from acid catalyzed hydration of 2-methyl-2-pentane?
A. 2-methyl-3-pentanol B. 4-methyl-2-pentanol C. 2-methyl-2-pentanol D. 3-methyl-3-pentanol
82. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is an important agent in heredity. Its density is 1.1 g/cc and its molecular weight is 6 E 8 g/mol. Calculate the average volume, in cc,
per molecule, assuming no voids.
A. 7.65 E-17 B. 9.06 E-16 C. 8.31 E-17 D. 1.02 E-15
83. The saponification number of a triglyceride is 200. The average molecular weight of triglyceride is
A. 200 B. 600 C. 280 D. 840
84. The acid found in ants is
A. citric acid B. acetic acid C. formic acid D. oxalic acid
BIOCHEM I
1.A microorganism that grows well at 0 C and has an optinum growth temperature of 15 C or lower and a temperature maximum around 20 C.
A. mesophile B. thermophiles C. thermoacidophiles D. psychrophiles
2. The microbial decomposition of organic matter, especially the anaerobic breakdown of proteins, with the production of foul smelling compound such as hydrogen
sulfide and amines.
A. eutrophication B. putrefaction C. bioconversion D. Inflection
3. The deflection of a light ray from a straight path as it passes from one meduim to another.
A. reflection B. refraction C. diffraction D. inflection
4. The process in which an exact copy of parental DNA or RNA is made with the parental molecule serving as atemplate.
A. transcription B. translation C. replication D. transformation
5. An energy-yeilding process in which an electron donor is oxidized using an inorganic electron electron acceptor. The aceeptor may be either oxygen or another
inorganic acceptor.
A. aerobic respiration B. anaerobic respiration C. respiration D. digestion
6. A sequence of three nucleotides in mRNA that directs the incorporation of an amino acid during protein synthesis or signals the start or stop of translation
A. codon B. nucleotides C. DNA D. polymerase
7. It refers to a multinucleate cell or hypha formed by repeated nuclear divisions not accompanied by cell divisions.
A. allosteric B. coenocytic C. tissues D. organelles
8. A loosely bound cofactor that often dissociates from the enzyme active site after product has been formed.
A. coenzyme B. apoenzyme C. holoenzyme D. exoenzymes
9. A cluster or assemblage of microorganism growing on a solid surface such as the surface of an agar cultute medium; the assemblage is often ditectly visible, but
may be seen only microscopically.
A. seed B. strain C. culture D. colony
10. A large group of photosynthetic bacteria with oxygenic photosynthesis and a photosynthetic system like that present in eucaryotic photodynthetiv organism.
A. eubacteria B. cyanobacteria C. archeaebacteria D. bacteria
11. The phase of microbial growth in a batch culture when the viable microbial population declines.
A. lag phase B. exponential phase C. stationary phase D. death phase
12. The change in the shape of an enzyme that destroys its activity; the term is also applied to changes in nucleicacid shape.
A. denaturation C. metabolism
B. inhibition D. catalytic respression
13.The reduction of nirate to nitrogen gas during anaerobic respiration
A. nitrification B. denitrification C. nitration D. denitration
14. The nucluic acid that constitutes the genitic material of all cellular organisms.
A. mRNA B. tRNA C. rRNA D. DNA
15. A structure within or on a cell that perfirm specific functions is related to the cell that is simillar to that of an organ to a body.
A. nucleus mitochondria C. cytoplasm D. organelles
16. The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from a dilute solution to a more concentratef solution.
A. diffusion B. filtration C. reverse osmosis D. osmosis
17. The process of heating milk and other liquids to destroy microorganisms that can cause spoilage or disease.
A. sterilization B. disinfection C. pasteurization D. autoclaving
18. Organism that use light as their energy source.
A. lithotrophs B. chemotrophs C. phototrophs D. oligotrophs
19. Which sequence shoes the "central dogma" of molecular biolgy?
A. DNA→protein→amino acid B. RNA→DNA→protein
C. RNA→protein→DNA D. DNA→ RNA→protein
20. Which organ is especially sensitive to a victim deficiency?
A. skin B. liver C. heart D. lungs
21. The primary function of albumin in the blood plasma is
A. leukocye transport B. osmotic regulation C. formation of antibodies D. maintenance of pH level
22. A lab technician may present a blood sample from clotting by adding a compound that prevents ______ from entering the clotting process.
A. potassium citrate B. vitamin K C. soduim ion D. calcuim ion
23. The transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide is carried out by the
A. thrombocytes B. leukocytes C. evythrocytes D. plasma
24. The body digest nitrogen in the form of
A. N2 B. HNO3 C. ammonia D. amino acids
25. Amino acids that are transformed into one of the intermediates of the citric acid cycle are generally
A. glycogen B. ketogenic C. ketoglutaric D. acetic
26. The main fate of amino acids is the synthesis of
A. alkaloids B. coenzymes C. hormones D. protein
27. In the Lineweaver-Burk double reciprocal plot the is equal to
A. 1/[S] B.1/V C. Km/Vmax D. 1/Vmax
28. For an enzyme that display Michaelis-Menten kinetics, the reaction velocity ( as a fraction of Vmax) observed at [S] = 2 KM will be
A. 0.09 B. 0.33 C. 0.66 D. 0.91
29. I Michaelis-Menten enzyme mechanism, what substate concentrations (relative to Km) are needed for the reaction rate to be 0.25 times Vmax ?
A. (1/9) Km B. (1/3) Km C. 1.0 Km D. 9.0 Km
{30-32} A fictitious enzyme from betong saliva was isolated and purified, and the following ATP-hydrolysis rates were obtained at an enzyme concentration of 1 E-8
mol/L:
[ATP] (μmol/L) 5.0 1.7 1.0 0.7 0.56 0.56
Vo (μmol/L-min) 2.6 1.95 1.7 1.4 1.24 1.24
30. Estimate Km in μmol/L.

A. 0.0004 B. 0.8 C. 120 D. 20
31. Estimate Vmax in μmol/L-min.
A. 0.0005 B. 0.02 C. 3.0 D. 57
32. Estimate Kcat is per minute.
A. 20 B. 120 C. 300 D. 750
{33-35} The following set of data is for the hydrolysis of methyl hydrocinnamate catalyzed by chymotrypsin:
Vx108 mmol/L-s 3 7 10 15
Sx10-3mmol/L 0.67 2.0 3.57 9.38
33. The value of Vmax in mmol/L-s is

A. 1.916 B. 7.2 E-8 C. 2.16 E-7 D. 4.63 E-6
34. The value of Km in kmol/L is
A. 0.339 B. 0.65 C. 8.9 E 10 D. 4.16 E-3
35. If the concentration of methyl hydrocinnamate is 0.05 mol/L, the rate of reaction in mol/L-s is
A. 2.14 E-7 B. 1.99 E-7 C. 0.1369 D. 9 E-8
36. The product obtained by the fermentation of wet cellulose is
A. ethane B. ethyne C. methane D. ethane
37. A gene is a segment of a molecule of
A. DNA B. mRNA C. tRNA D. protein
38. If a nucleic acid is completely hydrolyzed, which type of compound is not one of its products?
A. a base B. a phosphoric acid C. an amino acid D. a sugar
39. Which set of bases does not usually form a base pair usually found in nucleic acid?
A. adenine-thymine B. cytosine-guanine C. uracil-thymine D. adenine-uracil
40. Which contains the codon?
A. DNA B. mRNA C. tRNA D. the protein molecule
41. Which molecule carries the anticodon?
A. mRNA B. tRNA C. the ribosome D. the protein molecule
42. The gentic message is transcribed from DNA to
A. mRNA B. tRNA C. DNA D. rRNA
43. Base pairing is accompanied by
A. covalent bonding B. hydrogen bonds C. ionic bond D. phosphate linkage
44. When active protein synthesis is taking place in the cell, which material is not required at the ribosomes?
A. DNA B. mRNA C. tRNA D. growing protein chain
45. The largest carbohydrates are called
A. polysaccharides B. oligosaccharides C. monosaccharides D. disaccharides
46. A 3-carbon monosaccharide is
A. triose B. tetrose C. hexose D. pentose
47. The most abundant organic substance found in nature is
A. starch B. glycogen C. cellulose D. dextran
48. Sugar in which the aldehyde group can be oxidized to a carboxylic acid group are called
A. glycosides B. glucosides C. reducing sugars D. phosphate esters
A. vitamin C B. vitamin A C. vitamin E D. vitamin K
50. One mole of an alkane reacts with excess O 2 to give 7 mole of H 2 O. The alkane could be
A. isopentane B. isohexane C. pentane D. isoheptane
51. Also generated from the same alkane from #50 is ___ moles of CO 2.
A. 7.0 B. 6.0 C. 6.5 D. 7.5
52. DNA consist of alternating links of; (D=deoxyribose, R=ribose, and P=phosphate)
A. N bases and R B. N basses and D C. D and P D. R and P
53. The only base in the following that is not present is
A. pyridine B. adenine C. guanine D. cytosine
54. Information transfer from to genes to the ribosomes is the function of
55. The DNA base order AAA GCC corresponds to the RNA base order of
A. TTT CGG B. UUU CGG C. CCC GGG D. none of these
56. The dipeptide from the mRNA sequence UUU AGA is
A. Phe-Arg B. Arg-Phe C. Lys-Ala D. Ala-Lys
57. Amino acids are brought to ribosome surface by
A. mRNA B. rRNA C. DNA D. tRNA
58. All of the following have carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen atoms except
A. nucleotides B. sucrose C. nucleosides D. purines
59. Which of the following is a pyramidine?
A. cytosine B. cysteine C. adenine D. thymine
60. The amino acid Thr could correspond to which of the following DNA segments?
A. TGC B. ATA C. TAG D. CGA
61. Which of the following reactions will not be driven by ATP?
A. Peptide synthesis B. biosynthesis of maltose from glucose
C. synthesis of AMP from Adenosine D. ATP will drive all the reactions
62. What type of enzyme will catalyze the reaction: Galactose-6-P → Glucose-6-P
A. transferase B. isomerase C. kinase D. hydrase
63. An enzyme in snake venom is capable of causing the conversion of lecithins to lysolecithins. To which class does the enzy me belong?
A. ligases B. isomerases C. hydroiase D. synthetase
64. An enzyme is responsible for the conversion of an alcohol to a ketone. A possible coenzyme could be
A. NADH B. CoA C. pyredoxasepyrophosphate D. NADP +
65. With which vitamin do you associate the disease Pellagra?
A. niacin B. vitamin B12 C. vitamin K D. vitamin C
66. Which type compound is prothrombin?
A. enzyme B. holoenzyme C. zymogen D. vitamin
67. When an enzyme is inactived by a change in pH, this is known as
A. uncompetitive inhibition B. non-competitive
C. competitive inhibition D. non-specific inhibition
68. An inhibitor which has a chemical structure similar to that of an enzymes' normal substrate is likely to act as a
A. competitive inhibitor B. non-competitive imhibitor
C. non-specific inbihitor D. uncompetitive inbihitor
69. If an enzyme is inhibited non-competitively by the product of a reaction sequence in which the enzyme participates, the enzyme is
A. a zymogen B. allsteric C. competitively inhibited D. a modular
70. The starting material for the anabolic process gluconeogenesis is
A. acetic acid B. glycogen C. glucose D. acetyl CoA
71. The coenzye FAD, which is a hydrogen carrier in the electron-transport chain is a derivative of which vitamin?
A. niacin B. B2 C. B12 D. folic acid
72. How many molecules of ATP are produced from one molecule of glucose due to the intervention of FAD as a hydrogen carrier during the TCA cycle?
A. 2 B. 11 C. 4 D. 22
73. What is the strongest oxidizing agent in the electron-transport chain?
A. FADH B. NADH C. cytochroms C D. O 2
74. What compound is at the "branch point" in the metabolism of all foodstuffs?
A. acetyl B. pyruvic acid C. citric acid D. glucose
75. Muscle cramps are frequently experienced by runners, due to buildup of lactic acid in the muscle fibers. This due to
A. gluconeogenesis B. glycolysis C. glycogenesis D. aerobic respiration
76. Which enzyme would except to find in greater concentration in the stomach of a baby than in an aldult's stomach?
A. rennin B. pepsin C. chymotroypsin D. tryspin
77. What is the major structural unit of plants
A. cellulose B. DNA C. RNA D. glycogen
78. Myoglobin is an example of an
A. fibrous protein B. globular protein C. DNA D. starch
79. Which of the following form(s) a double helix
A. DNA B. cellulose C. a protein D. glycogen
80. A nucleotide contains
A. a nitrogen-containing organic base C. a sugar
B. a phisphoric acid D. all of these
81. Starch is
A. a form of cellulose B. a polysaccharide C. a monosaccharide D. an amino acid
82. Gluvose contain boyh
A. alcohol and aldehyde forms C. ester and aldehyde groups
B. a phosphoric acid D. ester and acid group
83. The overall shape of a protein molecule is called its
A. tertiary structure B. alpha-helix C. secondary structure D. primary structure
84. A peptide bond is form via
A. a substitution B. a combustion reaction C. a condensation D. none of the these
85. All amino acids contain
A. an amine group B. an ether group C. an aldehyde group D. an ester group
A. primary structure B. secondary structure C. tertiary structure D. quaternary structure
87. What is the distinguishing characteristic of a carbohydrate?
A. carbonly group B. two-C-OH groups C. Cx(H2O)y formula D. six carbon atoms
88. What is/are the difference(s) between RNA and DNA?
(I) DNA contains thymine and RNA contains uracil
(II) RNA contains five carbon sugar
(III) RNA contains nitrogen-containing organic bases
(IV) RNA is found in the cytoplasm, whereas DNA is found in the cell nucleus
A. I only B. II only C. III only D. IV only
89. What is the difference between alpha-glucose and beta-glucose?
A. there is no difference C. the number carbon atoms
B. the number of oxygen protein D. the location of the hydroxyl group
90. The secondaty structure of a protein describes
A. the sequence of amino acid C. the overall shape of the protein
B. the coiling or stretching of the protein D. none of these
91. The site of protein synthesis is the
A. chloroplast B. nucleus C. ribosome D. mitochondrion
92. Inability ti digest amino acids may indicate a deficiency in
A. vitamin B1 B. vitamin B6 C. vitamin B12 D. folic acid
93. Which monosaccharide is a part of the structure of DNA's?
A. 3-deoxyribose B. 4-deoxxyribose C. ribose D. 2-deoxyribose
94. Organism which require only CO2 to supply their carbon needs.
A. autotrophs B. heterotrophs C. chemotrophs D. lithotrophs
95. Organisms which requires organic compounds to supply their carbon needs.
96. Organisms which oxidize inorganic material for energy production.
97. The destruction of an enzyme's catalytic power by changing its molecular structure is
A. deactivation B. inhibition C. denaturation D. suppression
98. The rate of microbial growth is temperatutre dependent. Bacteria which grow over the temperature range of 7 to 45°C are called
A. thermophiles B. mesophiles C. psychrophiles D. endophiles
99. Bacteria which can grow at an optimum temperature range of 30 to 45°C are called
100. Bacteria which can grow at an optimum temperature range of 55 to 85°C are called
101. Biological compound which soluble in nonpolar solvent but insoluble in water.
A. carbohydrates B. lipids C. proteins D. vitamins
102. The fluid portion occupying the whole portion of the cell is called
A. ribosomes B. cytoplasm C. vacuole D. lysosome
103. Microorganisms made of small and simple cells are known as
A. prokaryotes B. eukaryotes C. algae D. protozoa
104. Which of the following enzymes give flavor to cheese?
A. lactose B. invertase C. lipase D. amylase
105. The unpleasant taste and odor which develops in fats caused by the presence of free acids and oxidization of the double bonds which first forms peroxides.
A. rancidity B. acidity C. foulness D. bitterness
106. We reduce our chance of getting cancer by eating a lot of
A. cabbage B. eggs C. peas D. potato chips
107. This is the early stage of growth where the organism adjust its new environment.
A. stationary phase B. logarithmic phase C. leg phase D. decline phase
108. Microorganisms which can grow in the presence or absence of oxygen are called
A. aerobes B. anaerobes C. facultative anaerobes D. microaerophiles
109. Which system shows the “central dogma” of molecular biology?
A. DNA→protein→amino acids B. RNA→DNA→protein C. RNA→protein→DNA D. DNA→RNA→protein
110. Which organ is especially sensitive to vitamin deficiency?
A. skin B. liver C. heart D. lungs
111. The primary function of albumin in the blood plasma is
A. leukocyte transport B. osmotic regulation C. formation of antibodies D. maintenance of pH level
112. Allergies, such as hay fever, result from
A. an abnormal immunity to a common substance B. the absence of specific antibodies
C. the delayed reaction of a specific antibody D. the absence of gamma globulins in the blood plasma
113. A lab technician may prevent a blood sample from clotting by adding a compound that prevents ____ from entering the clotting process.
A. potassium citrate B. vitamin K C. sodium ion D. calcium ion
114. The transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide is carried out by
A. thrombocytes B. leukocytes C. erythrocytes D. plasma
115. The body digest nitrogen in the form of
A. N2 B. HNO3 C. ammonia D. amino acids
116. Amino acids that are transformed into one of the intermediates of the citric acid cycle are generally
A. glycogenic B. ketogenic C. ketoglutaruc D. acetic
117. How many ATP molecules are needed for the urea cycle?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16
118. The main fate of amino acids is the synthesis of
A. alkaloids B. coenzymes C. hormones D. protein
119. A high energy molecule and serves as the cell’s major form of energy currency.
A. NADH B. ADP C. ATP D. DNA
120. A unicellular fungus that has a single nucleus and reproduces either asexually by budding or fission, or asexually through spore formation.
A. yeast B. molds C. bacteria D. algae
121. The filtrate of malted grains used as the substrate for the production of beer and ale by fermentation.
A. bagasse B. pulp C. wart D. wort
122. An organism that grows in the presence of atmospheric oxygen.
A. anaerobes B. facultative C. microaerophile D. aerobes
123. An organic compound required by organisms in minute quantities of growth and reproduction because it cannot be synthesize by organism; it often serves as
enzyme cofactors or part of cofactors.
A. biological catalyst B. hormones C. vitamin D, lipids
124. A virus that uses bacteria as its host
A. bacteriophage B. exoenzymes C. eubacteria D. genome
125. The movement of a piece of DNA around the chromosome
A. transcription B. transposition C. translation D. transformation
126. An infectious agent having a simple acellular organization with a protein coat and a single type of nucleic acid, lacking independent metabolism, and reproducing
only within living host cell.
A. bacteria B. protozoa C. fungi D. virus
127. An agent that kill bacteria
A. fungicide B. insecticide C. bactericide D. germicide
128. A metabolic process in which molecules, often organic, are oxidized with oxygen as the final electron acceptor.
A. anaerobic digestion B. aerobic digestion C. anaerobic respiration D. aerobic respiration
129. The cycle that oxidizes acetyl coenzyme A to CO2 and generates NADH and FADH2 for oxidation in the electron transport chain; the cycle also supplies carbon
skeletons for biosynthesis.
A. tricarboxylic acid B. glyoxalate acid C. polumerase chain reaction D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway
130. A complex sulfate polysaccharide, usually extracted from red algae,that is used as a solidifying agent in the preparation of culture media.
A. agar B. carragnen C. nata D. alga
131. A preparation of either killed microorganism: living, weekend (attenuated) microorganism: ot inactivated bacterial toxins (toxoids). It is administered to include
development of the immune response and protect the individual against a pathogen or a toxin.
A. vaccine B. disinfectant C. antibiotic D. analgesic
132. A continuous culture system equipped with a photocell that adjust the flow of medium through the culture vessel so as to maintain a constant cell density or
turbidity.
A. chemotat B. turbidostat C. biostat D. fermentor
133. A bacterial infection transmitted by contaminated food, water, milk, or shellfish. The causative organism Salmonella typhi, which is present in human faces.
A. yellow fever B. hay fever C. typhoid fever D. dengue fever
134. An enzyme whose activity is altered by the of a small effector or modulator molecule at a regulatory site; effector binding causes a conformational change in the
enzyme and its catalytic site, which leads to enzyme deactivation or inhibition.
A. oxidase B. reductase C. hydrolase D. allosteric
135. The phase of the microbial growth in a batch culture when population growth ceases and the growth curve levels off.
A. lag phase B. growth phase C. stationary phase D. death phase
136. Protein synthesis; the process by which the genetic message carried by mRNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides with the aid of ribosomes and other cell
constituents.
A. transcription B. transition C. transposition D. transformation
137. The process in which single-stranded RNA with a base sequence complementary to the template strand of DNA or RNA is synthesized.
A. transcription B. translation C. transposition D. transformation
138. The synthesis of complex molecules from simpler molecules with the input energy.
A. catabolism B. anabolism C. respiration D. digestion
139. The microbiological treatment of sewage wastes under anaerobic contains to produce methane.
A. aerobic digestion B. anaerobic digestion C. aerobic respiration D. anaerobic respiration
140. An oxygen-yielding process in which the electron transport chain acceptor is an inorganic molecule other than oxygen.
A. aerobic digestion B. anaerobic digestion C. aerobic respiration D. anaerobic respiration
141. A microbial product or its derivative that kills susceptible microorganism or inhibits their growth.
A. antipyretic B. antibiotic C. pyretic D. antiseptic
142. A glycoprotein produced in response to the introduction of an antigen; it has the ability to combine with the antigen that stimulated its production. Also known as
immunoglobulin.
A. antibiotic B. antibody C. hormone D. steroid
143. An agent that kills microorganisms or inhibit their growth.
A. antimicrobial agent B. antiseptic C. antigen D. antibiotic
144. Chemical agent applied to tissues to prevent infection by killing or inhibiting pathogens.
A. antitoxin B. antiseptic C. antimicrobial agent D. antibiotic
145. The process by which all living cells, viable spores, viruses and viriods are either destroyed or removed from an object or habitat.
A. sterilization B. pasteurization C. disinfection D. immobilization
146. The substance an enzyme acts upon.
A. subtrate B. strain C. disinfection D.immobilization
147. The science of biological classification; it consist of three parts: classification, nomenclature, and identification.
A. flora B. fauna C. taxonomy D. anatomy
148. The removal from sewage of inorganic nutrients, heavy metals, viruses, etc., by chwmical and biological means after microorganisms have degraded dissolved
organic matrial.
A. preminary treatment B. primary treatment C. secondary treatment D. tertiary treatment
149. A microbial product or component that can injure another cell or organism at low concentrations. Often the term refers to poisonous protein, but may be lipids or
other substances.
A. antigen B. toxin C. virus D. oxidants
150. The protein part of an enzyme that also has a nonprotein component.
A. holoenzyme B. apoenzyme C. exoenzymes D. endoenzymes
151. An apparatus for sterilizing objects by the use of steam under pressure.
A. boiler B. heater C. autoclave D. sterilizer
152. An organism that uses CO2 as its sole or principle source of carbon.
A. autotrophy B. phototroph C. heterotroph D. litotroph
153. A mulated prototroph that lacks the ability to synthesized an essential nutrient and therefore must obtain it or a precusor from its surrounding.
A. chemotroph B. auxotroph C. methylotroph D. prototroph
154. The organelle where protein synthesis occurs; the message encoded in mRNA is translated here.
A. cytoplasm B. golgi complex C. ribosomes D. lysozymes
155. The clear, fluid portion of blood lacking both blood cells and fibrinogen. It is the fluid remaining after coagulation of plasma, the noncellular liquid fraction of
blood.
A. WBC B. RBC C. hemoglobin D. serum
156. A basin used during water purification to chemically precipition out fine particles, microoganisms, and organic material by coagulation or flocculation.
A. catch basin B. setting basin C. lagoon D. neutralization tank
157. A genaral term for the precipitated solid matter produced during water and sewage treatment; solid particles composed of organic matter and microorganism
that are involved in aerobic sewage treatment.
A. residue B. ash C. sludge D. solid waste
158. A reproductive cell, usually unicellular, capable of developing into an adult without fusion with another cell or of acting as a gamete. It may produced asexually or
sexually and are of many types.
A. spore B. zygote C. bud D. titer
159. Microbial growth in which all cellular constituents are synthesized at constant rates relative to active to each othet.
A. unbalanced growth B. balance growth C. diauxic growth D. germination
160. A culture of microoganisms produced by inoculating a closed culture vessel containing a single batch of meduim.
B. continuous culture C. feed batch culture D. semi-continuous culture
161. Asexual reproduction in which a cell or an organism separates into two cells.
A. binary fission B. budding C. sporulation D. copulation
162. A vegetative outgrowth of yeast and some bacteria as a means of sexual reproduction; the daughter cell is smaller than the parent
A. binary fission B. budding C. sporulation D. copulation
163. Sludges produced in sewage treatment that do not settle properly, usually due to the development of filamentous microorganisms.
A. effluents B. sewage C. bulking sludge D. foam
164. The part of metabolism in which larger, more complex molecules are broken down into smaller, simpler molecules with the release of energy.
A. anabolism B. catabolism C. biodegradation D. disintegration
165. The strong layer or structure that lies outside the plasma membrane; it supports and protects the membrane and gives the cell shape.
A. plasmid B. cytoplasm C. cell wall D. nucleus
166. A continuous culture apparatus that feeds medium into the culture vessel at the same rate as medium containing microorganisms is removed; the medium
contains one essential nutrient in limiting quantities.
A. turbidostat B. biostat C. reactor D. chemostat
167. Organisms that obtain energy from the oxidization of chemical compounds.
A. litotrophs B. chemotrophs C. autotrophes D. phototrophes
168. The process in which water osmotically leaves a cell, which causes the cytoplasm to shrivel up and pull the plasma membrane away from the cell wall.
A. phagocytosis B. cytosis C. Iyasis D. plasmolysis
169. Cells lack a true, membrane enclosed nucleus; bacteria are prokaryotic and have their genetic material located in a nucleoid.
A. prokaryotes B. eucaryotes C. eubacteria D. archeabacteria
170. An enzyme that hydrolizes protein to their constituent amino acids.
A. foliose B. diastease C. protease D. lipase
171. A unicellular or acellular eukaryotic protists whose organilles have the functional role of organs and tissues in more complex form.
A. fungi B. virus C. protozoa D. lipase
172. A microorganism that grow at 0°C and has an optimum growth temperature of 15°C or lower and a temperature maximum around 20°C.
A. mesophile B. thermophiles C. thermoacidophiles D. psychrophiles
173. The microbial decomposition of organic matter, especially the anaerobic breakdown of proteins, with the production of foul-smelling compounds such as
hydrogen sulfide and amines.
A. eutrophication B. putrefaction C. bioconversion D. biodegradation
174. The process in which an exact copy of parental DNA or RNA is made with the parental molecule serving as a template.
A. transcription B. translation C. replication D. transformation
175. An energy-yielding process in which an electron donor is oxidized using an inorganic electron acceptor. The acceptor may be either oxygen or another inorganic
compound.
A. aerobic respiration B. anaerobic respiration C. respiration D. digestion
176. A sequence of three nucleotides in mRNA that directs the incorporation of an amino acid during protein synthesis or signals the start or stop of translation.
A. codon B. nucleotides C. DNA D. polymerase
177. It refers to a multinucleate cell or hypha formed by repeated nuclear divisions not accompanied by cell divisions.
A. allosteric B. coenocytic C. tissues D. organelles
178. A loosely bound cofactor that often dissociates from the enzyme active site after product has been formed.
A. coenzymes B. apoenzyme C. holoenzyme D. exoenzymes
179. A cluster or assemblage of microorganisms growing on a solid surface such as the surface of an agar culture medium; the assemblage is often directly visible,
but may be seen only microscopically.
A. seed B. strain C. culture D. colony
180. A large group of photosynthetic bacteria with oxygenic photosynthesis and a photosynthesis system like that present in eukaryotic photosynthetic organisms.
A. eubacteria B. cyanobacteria C. archeabacteria D. bacteria
181. The phase microbial growth in a batch culture when the viable microbial population declines.
A. lag phase B. exponential phase C. stationary phase D. death phase
182. The change in the shape of an enzyme that destroys the activity; the term is also applied to changes in nucleic-acid-shape.
A. denaturation B. metabolism C. inhibition D. catalytic repression
183. The reduction of nitrate to nitrogen gas during anaerobic respiration.
A. nitrification B. denitrification C. nitration D. denitration
184. The nucleic acid that constitutes the genetic material of all cellular organisms.
185. A structure within or on a cell that performs specific functions and is related to the cell in a way similar to that of an organ to the body.
A. nucleus B. mitochondria C. cytoplasm D. organelles
186. The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from a dilute solution to a more concentrated solution.
A. diffusion B. filtration C. reverse osmosis D. osmosis
187. The process of heating milk and other liquids to destroy microorganisms that can cause spoilage or disease.
A. sterilization B. disinfection C. pasteurization D. autoclaving
188. Organisms that use light as their energy source.
A. litotrophes B. chemotrophes C. phototrophes D. oligotrophs
189. Glucose is metabolized by
A. plants only B. plants and animals C. animals only D. monerans only
BIOCHEM I
"Biochemistry" - The feild that deals with chemistry af biological system
"Biological syatem" - Complicated and organized (low entrophy)
 Hierarchy of structure:
Atoms □ Molecules □ Macromolecular assemblies□ Organelles Cells
 NOTE: only at the level of cells do we have "Life" (atoms,molecules,macromolecular assesmblies and organelles are not considered
"living"
 Libing system require energy input to perform work and produce complex structures from simple molecules (reduction in entrophy)
 Living systems are able to self-replicate
 They have information-storage molecules (DNA/RNA). Often, these molecules are actively repaired.
 Riplication is not entirely precise, thus, vibration are introduced
 Life requires liquid water
 Life is carbon-bases
Living system utilize energy and simple nolecules from their surroundings to produce complex molecules and mollecular assemblies. These aasemblies have varied
functionalities, are lower in entropy than the raw materials from which they were produced, and can onlu be achieved with tjw input og energy from the surrondings:
 Cells are "open" thermodynamic system that excjange both energy and matter with their surroundings.
Living systems required molecules that have the ability to provide functionalities associated with:
 The utilization of outside energy sources to be applied towards work, heat regulation, and entropy reduction
 Replication and communication (both involved information, therefore, related to entropy reduction)
 Living system do not violate the laws of thermodynamics. But they do require the input of energy from their surroundings.
Living system make use of poly meric molecules
 Proteins are linear polymers of amino acids. There are 20 common amino acid monomer building blocks.
 Nucleic acids (deoxyribonucleic acid - DNA, and ribonucleic acid - RNA) are linear polymers of nucleotides. Their are 4 common DNA monomer acid
block.
 Polysaccharides are linear or branched polymers of carbohydrates
Biological polymers, principally proteins but also nucleic acids, can fold up into a unique three-dimensional structure
 Such three-dimensional structures are often called the "native" or "folded" conformation of polymer
 The "unfolded" conformation is like a piece of well-cooked spaghetti - it has no defined structure, and is best described by an ensemble of possible
conformation (an ensemble of random conformation)
 The "native" conformation is a single, unique conformation.
Organization and Structure of Cells
Prokaryotes - no nucleus (they do have genetic material, its just not present in seperate compartment within the cell!)
Eukaryotes - have nucleus, and other membrane-bound organelles within the cell.
Some differences between Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes
Prokaryotic Cell Eukaryotic Cell
 No nuclear membrane: chromosome(s) in direct contact with  Chromosomes are enclosed in a double layered nuclear membrane
cytoplasm  Complex chromosome structure; DNA associated with histone
 Simple chromosome structure proteins
 Cell division does not involve meiosis  Cell division involves mitosis and meiosis
 If present, cell walls contain peptidoglycan, no cellulose or chitin  If present, cell walls contain cellulose or chitin, never peptidoglycan
 No mitochondria or chloroplasts  Mitochondria usually present, chloroplasts in photosynthetic cells
 Cells contain ribosomes of only one size  Cells contains two types of ribosomes, one in cytoplasm smaller
 Flagella, if present, have a simple structure type in mitochondria
 Flagella, present, have complex structure
Viruses
 viruses are not cells, but rathee, are complex macromolecular assemblies that contain genetic material (i.e. polynucleotides)
 Another word for virus is "phage". A "bacteriophage" infects bacterial cells.
Biologicalsystems require energy to do work, to make complicated molecullar assemblies out ofvsimple building blocks, to rugulate temperature, etc.
 Although complicated, biological system obey the fundamental laws of thermodynamics
 A living cell would represent an "open" thermodynamic system
 A study of the folding or unfolding og a biological polymer in aqueous solution would repesent a "closed" system (i.e. no mass is exchanges in a sumple
phase transition)
The flow of energy in living systems:
ADP/ATP i s a very versatile molecule due to its intermediate phosphoryi ation energy bond(s)
 It ca n be phosphorylated by some of the higher energy phosphate molecules (which are s ynthesized i n the breakdown of fuel molecules)
i .e. It ca n be l oaded up with energy.
 It ca n s ubsequently phosphorylate s ome of the l ower energy acceptor molecules that a re involved in metabolic reactions. i.e. It ca n
rel ease energy.
Protei ns a re linear polymers whose monomeric b uilding blocks a re amino a cids:
Key s tructura l features:

 Centra l ca rbon (known a s the “alpha ca rbon” is tra nsferal a nd ohiral (i.e. each of the four functional groups are different)
 The “R” functional group is known as the amino a cid “side chain”. There a re 20 common different a mino acid chains. This i s what
di s tinguishes one amino acid from a nother. Amino a cids are a lso known as “residues”.
 There is a n a mino acid group and carboxylic group. At pH 7.0 these are both (oppositely) charged. Amino acids are therefore also
zwi tterions.
Ami no acid monomers a nd chemically l inked to form l inear to from l inear polymers known a s proteins:
Key s tructura l features:
 A “peptide bond” is formed by condensation reaction between the carboxylic a cid of one amino a cid with the a mino acid group of the
next a mino acid.
 The a mino acid R1, a t the “amino terminus” of polymer is the “first” a mino acid. The residue (R 3 is the a bove diagram) a t the carboxyl
termi nal i s known as the “l ast” a mino acid. These terminal define the directionality of the protein.
Common a mino acids
There a re 20 common amino a cids. They a re composed of C, H, O, N a nd S a toms. They a re s tructurally a nd chemically di fferent, a nd a lso differ i n
s i ze a nd volume. Some a re branched structures, s ome are linear, s ome have ri ng structures. One of the 20 common a mino acids is a ctually a n
a mi no acid. A typi cal grouping of their chemical nature is as follows:
 Nonpolar (hydrocarbons a nd one sulfur-containing a mino acid). Dispersion forces and hydrophobic effects predominate i n their
i nteractions. They ca nnot H-bond with water and these side chains have a characteristic hydrophobic effect on water.
 Pol a r uncharged. Contains functional groups that ca n H-bond with wa ter and other a mino acids. Includes C, H, O, N a nd S a toms.
 Aci di c. Contain a ca rboxyl ic acid functional group with a negative charge at neutral pH. Ca n H -bond with wa ter, can form i onic
i nteractions, a nd ca n also s erve as nucleophiles or participate in a cid base chemistry.
 Ba s ic. Nitrogen containing bases (e.g. guanidine, imidazole, or a mino groups) with a net positive charge a t neutral pH. Ca n s erve a s
proton donor i n chemical reactions, a nd form ionic interactions.
The a mino acids have a name, as well as a three letter or s ingle l etter mnemonic code:
Leuci ne (Leu or L), i soleucine (Ile or I), va line (Val or V), a lanine (Ala or A), methionine (Met or M) Phenylalanine (Phe or F), Trypto phan
(Trp or W), Prol i ne (Pro or P), gl yci ne (Gly or G s ometimes included i n polar group)
Pol a r Uncharged Amino Acids:
Seri ne (Ser or S), Asparagine (Asn or N), Gl utamine (Gln or Q), threonine (Thr or T), Cys teine (Cys or C), Tyros ine (Tyr or Y).
Aci di c Amino Acids:
As pa ritic a cid (Asp of D), Glutamic a cid (Glu or E)
Ba s ic amino Aci ds:
Lys i ne (Lys or K), Argi nine (Arg or R), Histidine (His or H)
Ami no acids a re the monomeric building blocks of protein molecules
 The chemical bond that joins two a mino acids involves a n a mide bond (also known as “peptide bond”) between the carbonyl group of the
fi rs t a mino acid a nd the a mino group of the s econd amino acid.
 Bond formation i nvolves the subsequent release of a water molecule
The joi ning of two a mino acids results i n the formation of a “dipeptide”
 The ca rbonyl group of the dipeptide (now known as the ca rbonyl terminus) is a vailable for fo rmation of a peptide bond with amino a cid
 Three a mino acids connected by peptide bonds is referred to as a “tripeptide”, next would come “tetrapeptide” a nd s o on. “Pol ypeptide”
or “Pepti de” is a general term for a ny s uch polymeric molecule of non-defined l ength, a nd become a protein. General, when people talk
a bout “Peptides” they mean short polymers of 2-50 a mino acids, and “Protein” would be l arger than 50 a mino a cids i n l ength.
The peptide bond (as drawn a bove) l ooks like i t is a single bond, a nd therefore, free to rotate. However, the peptide bond has a partial double bond
cha ra cter due to a resonance s tructure:
“Protei ns” ma y consist of a single polypeptide, or a complex of two or more polypeptides
 If two identical polypeptides associates, that complex is termed a "homo-dimer". If two different polypeptides associate, that complex is termed a "hetero-
dimer"
 A complex of three polypeptides is termed a "trimer", four a "tetremer", then "pentamer", "hexamer", etc.
 Greek letters are used to describe the composition of polypeptides in a complex assembly. (NOTE: this nomenclature says nothing about the structure of
the proteins)
There are three very general categories of protein in the body:
 Globular. These are water soluble, and the polypeptide chain folds in such a way as to place the hydrophobic residues within the core region and removed
from solvent exposure. As their name implies, they are more or less spherical in shape.
 Fibrous. Often long polymeric chains of simple repeating motifs of a snall set of amino acids. Often forming long, intertwined strands of such polypeptides
that result in high tensile strength (eg. silk). Generally insoluble. Function in a struvtural role in biological assemblies.
 Membrane. Found associated with lipid membranes (often bilayers of fatty acids). Solubility in non-polar membrane environment is achieved by folding up
so to expose non-polar residues on the surface of the protein. Thus, membrane proteins are insoluble in aqueous environment, and require detergent to
be solubilized in water.
Levels of Protein Structure
There are four "levels" of protein structure: primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary
 Primary. The primary sequence of a protein refers to the specific order of amino acid in the polypeptide chain. The amino terminal is the "start" and the
carboxyl terminal is the "end"
 Secondary. Although each amino acid is different, the "backbone" atoms of a polypeptide chain represent a repeating motif of identical peptide bonds
(excluding the amino acid profile)
 Tertiary structure. The unique three-dimensional conformation that a protein folds up into is called the tertiary structure. It determines the unique
functionally of the protein.
 Quaternary structure. Sometimes individual proteins associate together in a stable multi-protein complex. The specific arrangement of the proteins in
forming the complex is known as quarternary structure.
Carbohydrate Nomenclature
 Monosaccharides. "Simple sugars" with the formula (C □ H2O)n. The word carbohydrate refers to the fact that this class of molecules consist of hydrates
of carbon.
 Oligosaccharides. Polymeric molecule of sugar comprising 2-10 covalenty linked monosaccharide units. Often found conjugated to other classes of
biomolecules including lipids and proteins.
 Polysaccharides. Larger polymers of simple sugars. On the order of hundreds to thousands of monosaccharide units as linear or branched polymers.
Monosaccharides
 Most taste sweet
 Contain 3-7 carbon atoms
 Are either an aidose or a ketose
 Aldose contain an aldehyde functional group
 Ketose contain a ketone functional group
 The number of carbons, atoms and the functional group, are specified in the nomenclature for monosaccharides. The letters "ul" are sometimes inserted
into the same (rather than the word "keto") to indicate the monosaccharide is a ketose.
Oligosaccharides
The basic monomeric units are used to build up comolex oligosaccharides are essentially limited to:
 Hexose. Glucose, mannose, galactose (all aldoses), and fructose (ketose)
 Pentoses. Ribose, xylose (both aldoses)
Common disaccharides
 Lactose. This dissacharide is a dimer comprised of a galactose linked to glucose via a β-1-4 glycosidic bond. "Milk sugar" - it is the principle carbohydrate
of milk. Must be broken down into galactose and galactose by the enzyme lactase.
 Sucrose. This disaccharide is glucose (a)-1-2-fructose. "Table sugar". No free anomeric carbon, therefore, not a reducing sugar.
Sucrose
 Maltose. This disaccharide is glucose-a-1,4 glucose. "Grain sugar". Has a free anomeric carbon and is therefore a reducing sugar.
Lipids
General features of lipids:
 High content of hydrocarbons
 Low solubility in water
 Hydrocarbon is a highly -reduced form of Carbon. Oxidation to an alcohol or keto group releases energy (oxygen likes to grab two electrons and will take
these from carbon, releasing energy as it does)
 Great choice for an "energy -storage" molecule:
 Lots of energy released upon oxidation
 Physical properties (insolubility) provide an easy way to compartmentalize for storage in aqueous systems
Fatty Acids
Have a molecular organization consisting of a hydrocarbon "tail" and carboxyl group "head"
 The carboxyl group is ionized under normal conditions, giving a negative charge to one end of the molecule.
 Hydrocarbon tail usually contains an even number of carbons, with typical lengths of 14-24 carbons. Odd numbered hydrocarbon tails are found in some
marine organisms.
 If the hydrocarbon tail is composed exclusively with carbons having single bonds, it is saturated.
o Single bonds are free to rotate, and therefore, saturated fatty acids are quite flexible. Although they are free to adopt a variety of conformations,
the extended (trans-) conformation is the lowest energy.
o The trans conformation can pack side by side efficiently. This results in close-packing that is solid-like (i.e. not much space for movement)
 If there are double bonds present, then the tail is unsaturated. A mono-unsaturated fatty acid means there is one double bond
present. Polyunsaturated means there areseveral double bonds in the fatty acid tail.
o Double bonds are not free to rotate. Thus, the introduction of a double bond limits the conformational freedom of the fatty acid
o Double bond in unsaturated fatty acids nearly always in the cis (kinked) configuration. This precludes efficient side by side packing. Thus, there
is space for molecules to move around and the arrangement of unsaturated fatty acids is more fluid than with saturated fatty acids (even
though they are less-flexible molecules overall compared to saturated fatty acids!).
"Essential" fatty acids. Some fatty acids are essential for animal growth, but only plants can make them. So animals must consume plants that contain these fatty
acids (e.g. linoleic, andg-linoleic acid)
Steroids
The steroids are an important class of terpene-based lipids. The fundamental structural unit of steroids is described by three six -membered rings, and one five-
membered ring fused together. The functional properties of this basic class of molecules is extremely diverse.
 Cholesterol. The principle component of animal cell plasma membranes. Also a component of lipoprotein complexes in blood, and of plaques that form
on arterial walls in atherosclerosis.
 Steroid Hormones. Steroids derived from cholesterol in animals include five families:
 Androgens. Mediate development of sexual characteristics and function (e.g. testosterone, estradiol)
 Progestins. Regulate menstrual cycle (e.g. progesterone)
 Glucocorticoids. Regulate carbohydrate, protein and lipid metabolism (e.g. cortisol)
 Mineralocorticoids. Regulate salt balance in tissues
 Bile acids. Detergents secreted by gallblader that help solubilize lipids in diet (e.g. deoxycholic acid)
Bacteria have a variety of shapes:
 Rounded or spherical cells - cocci (singular: coccus)

 Elongated or rod-shaped cells - bacilli (singular: bacillus)
 Rigid spirals - spirilla (singular: spirillum)
 Flexible spirals - spirochetes (singular: spirochete)
These shapes are actually determined by the cell wall of the bacteria, which is composed primarily of polysaccharide.
 Bacteria that have had their cell wall removed are spherical (and called "spheroplasts"), regardless of their original shape.
There are two general categories of bacteria: Gram positive and Gram negative
 The reaction to the Gram stain (crystal violet & iodine) is a consequence of the structure of the peptidoglycan layer of the bacterial cell wall
Gram positive (e.g. Streptococcus, Bacillus [refers to species name, not shape], Mycobacterium)
 Have a thick cell wall (30-100nm) consisting of multiple layers of peptidoglycan that surrounds the plasma membrane
 This peptidoglycan consists of alternating N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) connected by b(1-4) linkages
Gram Negative (e.g. Escherichia coli, Salmonella)

 The cell surface of gram negative bacteria has a distinctly layered appearance. The peptidoglycan wall is a rigid framework around which is built an
elaborate membrane structure
The "Central Dogma":
Nitrogenous Bases
Nitrogenous bases found in nucleic acids are derivatives of either pyrimidines or purines:
Common pyrimidines
 The commonly occurring pyrimidines are Cytosine (C), Uracil (U), and Thymine (T)
 Cytosine and Thymine are found in DNA, whereas Cytosine and Uracil are found in RNA (RNA contains small amounts of other modified bases as well)
Common purines
 The common purines are Guanine (G) and Adenine (A). They are used in both DNA and RNA
The two major classes of nucleic acids are DNA and RNA
DNA
 Contains all the information necessary to make all biomolecules in the cell
 In simple organisms the DNA may be in the form of a single large molecule - the chromosome. This is often circular (the nucleic acid polymer is joined at
the ends).
o The E. coli genome is about 5 x 106 basepairs long
 In more complex organisms, the DNA is distributed among a small number of large molecules of DNA (i.e. a collection of chromosomes) - and
typically linear molecules. Eukaryotes typically have two copies of each chromosome (termed a diploid genome; as opposed to a haploid genome).
RNA
 Molecules that are inv olved in decoding the information contained in DNA (recall the "central dogma")
 Many copies of a given RNA are made, and there are various different types of RNA molecules, including:
o Messenger RNA
o Ribosomal RNA
o Transfer RNA
o Small nuclear RNA (in eukaryotes)
RNA
Messenger RNA (mRNA)

Carries the message encoded in DNA to locations within the cell where protein synthesis takes place.
Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

Ribosomes - the molecular machine that translates mRNA into protein - are approximately 65% rRNA.
Transfer RNA (tRNA)

tRNA's serve as carrier molecules for amino acids during protein synthesis.
Small Nuclear RNAs (snRNA)

100-200 nucleotides long and found in eukaryotic nuclei in complex with specific proteins, forming small nuclear ribonucleoprotein particles (snRNP's)
 Involved in processing of eukaryotic gene transcripts into mature mRNA for export from the nucleus to the cytoplasm
Enzymes are characterized by three distinctive features: catalytic power, specificity and regulation
Catalytic power
 Enzymes can increase reaction rates by up to 1014 times in comparison with the non-enzyme catalyzed rate
Specificity
 Perhaps not surprisingly, enzymes are highly specific for the reaction they catalyze. Often they will have no affect upon the reaction rates for reactions
involving closely related compounds (they are designed to catalyze the reaction of a specific reactant, orsubstrate). The location on the enzyme where
the substrate binds and reacts is called the active site of the enzyme
 Also, as part of this specificity, enzyme catalyzed reactions often do not involve production of any significant concentrations of by -products other than the
desired product
Enzyme nomenclature
The names of enzymes often end with "-ase" to indicate the protein is an enzyme. However, beyond this, the common names of enzymes may have no apparent
logical basis. In an effort to formally name enzymes, a nomenclature arose that uses a code of four numbers to identify an individual enzyme: X.X.X.X
 These four numbers refer to the class, subclass, sub-subclass, and individual entry number for each uniquely different enzyme
 This nomenclature is known as the Enzyme Commission nomenclature (i.e. the "E.C." nomenclature)
Class
There are six classes of enzymes in the E.C. nomenclature
1. Oxidoreductases (involved in redox reactions)

2. Transferases (involved in transfer of functional groups)
3. Hydrolases (involved in hydrolysis reactions)
4. Lyases (addition to double bonds)
5. Isomerases (isomerization reactions)
6. Ligases (formation of bonds with ATP cleavage)
Coenzymes
Many enzymes require an additional non-protein molecule to be catalytically active.
 Many coenzymes, cofactors, are actively involved in the chemical reactions that the enzyme catalyzes.
 Many cofactors fall under the category of vitamins
 Some cofactors are covalently bound to the enzyme, others interact in a non-covalent manner
 Enzymes with bound cofactor are called the holo-enzyme form. Enzymes with cofactors removed are called the apo-enzyme form
Enzyme specificity
The enzyme "active site" (or substrate binding site) is typically a pocket or cleft in the three-dimensional structure of the enzyme
 The active site, as a region, is small compared to the rest of the protein
 The active site is able to recognize and bind to the appropriate substrate molecule due to structural complementarity between the substrate and binding
site
 Attractive forces involved in the recognition and binding of substrate include all the non-covalent forces (van der Waals, hydrogen bonding, ionic
interactions)
o Even small substrates bind to an enzyme via a combination of non-covalent interactions
o Structural alterations (i.e. structural analogs) of the substrate, and the effects upon K m and kcat kinetic constants, can be used to identify
important interactions that stabilize binding
"Lock and Key" versus "Induced Fit" hypotheses of substrate binding
 The "Lock and Key" hypothesis of substrate binding was proposed by Emil Fischer. It describes the binding pocket as a rigid "lock" that is complementary
to the substrate (i.e. the "key"). In this hypothesis, there are no conformational changes upon substrate binding, and the protein enzyme is viewed as a
rigid structure.
 The "Induced Fit" hypothesis of substrate binding was proposed by Daniel Koshland. It views the binding of substrate as a structurally -interactive
process. In other words, the protein structure is not viewed as rigid, and the substrate binding site is not viewed as being exactly complementary to the
substrate. The binding of substrate slightly alters the active site structure, and likewise, the interaction with the active site slightly alters the substrate
structure.
o These structural changes may help to stabilize the transition state structure, and position catalytic groups in the binding pocket to
optimize the catalysis steps
"Metabolism"
 From the Greek work for "change"

 Sum of all the chemical reactions that convert nutrients into energy and complex molecules required for living systems
 Between nutrients (raw materials) and end products (complex bio-molecules) are many intermediate compounds. Thus, metabolism is also referred to
as intermediary metabolism
Metabolic maps are a means by which to illustrate the various interconnected chemical pathways in intermediary metabolism. They comprise dots and lines
 The dots represent unique chemical structures (i.e. "metabolic intermediates")

 The lines represent the chemical reactions, mediated by a specific enzyme, that converts one metabolic intermediate into another
 Metabolic maps are quite complex, but are generally organized in such a way as to show the metabolic steps related to energy production, and the
major classes of biological molecules (i.e. carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids)
All organisms essentially share the same set of metabolic pathways
 Glycolysis (the metabolic pathway by which energy is released from glucose and stored in ATP under anaerobic conditions) is virtually identical in
every cell in every living organism on Earth. This suggests that all life forms on Earth evolved and diverged from a common ancient prokaryote. The
ancient Earth atmosphere is believed to have initially been oxygen-poor (subsequently enriched by the action of green plants). Thus, anaerobic glycolysis
is an ancient metabolic pathway.
 In addition to shared common metabolic pathway s, different organisms exhibit uniquely different metabolic pathways
Classification based on Carbon requirements:

 Autotrophs: are able to utilize carbon dioxide as sole source of carbon for metabolism
 Heterotrophs: require an organic form of carbon (i.e. produced by some other living system) such as glucose for their metabolism
Classification based on Energy source:
 Phototrophs: are photosynthetic organisms that use light as a source of energy

 Chemotrophs: use organic compounds (e.g. glucose) or oxidizable inorganic substances (e.g. elemental sulfur, Fe2+, or NH 4+).Energy is typically
extracted using
redox reactions.
The resulting four

categories of
organisms based
upon carbon and
energy source:
The role of O2 in
metabolism
Another distinction
is whether
organisms can
utilize O 2 as an
electron acceptor in energy-producing reactions.
 Aerobes: can utilize O 2 as an electron acceptor

o Obligate aerobes: O2 is an absolute necessity
o Facultative anaerobes: normally use O 2 but can adapt to anaerobic conditions by using other compounds as an electron acceptor
 Anaerobes: can perform oxidation reactions to release energy without using O 2 as an electron acceptor
o Obligate anaerobe: must have anaerobic conditions (oxygen is a poison)
Energy, the oxygen cycle and the carbon cycle:
 Solar energy is converted as chemical energy within organic molecules (reduced carbon compounds) by photoautotrophs.
 Chemoheterotrophs release this energy by oxidation (by O 2) to produce oxidized forms of carbon (ultimately, CO 2)
Metabolism consists of catabolism (degradative pathways) and anabolism (biosynthetic pathways)
The two general functions of metabolism:

 Generation of energy to do work, reduce entropy, and maintain temperature
 Synthesis of biological molecules
Catabolic pathways are primarily energy-releasing, anabolic pathways are energy-requiring
General features of catabolism
 Oxidation of complex nutrients produces simpler oxidized compounds

 This is an energy releasing process that is coupled to generation of ATP
 Oxidation also results in the generation of high energy electrons. These are released in coupled reactions that drive the reduction of NAD + to NADH. The
NADH so produced can be used to produce ATP from ADP.
 Catabolism results in increased entropy (lots of tiny molecules released from an initial large molecule. Therefore, some of the free energy released is in
the form of entropy, and is not stored as energy in ATP (this is a subtle point that means that the energy obtained from catabolism in the form of ATP is
actually not enough to drive the process in reverse)
General features of anabolism
 Anabolism is biosynthesis of
complex compounds from simpler
(oxidized) molecules
 Energy requirement provided by hydrolysis of ATP
 Electrons for reduction provided by oxidation of NADPH to NADP +
 Entropy is decreasing, energy input also required to overcome this energetically unfavorable situation
Kinetics of Enzyme-catalyzed Reactions

In a simple unimolecular reaction A ® B, the
reaction rate is linearly proportional to the concentration of reactant A. In a similar reaction that is catalyzed by an enzyme, the rate will be faster, but w ill follow the
linear relationship only at low concentrations of reactant.
 The enzyme catalyzed reaction relies upon the enzyme being available
 At high reactant concentrations, the enzyme may become saturated
 Under saturating conditions, the enzyme is working as fast as it can, and the reaction rate will not increase even if more reactant is added
Michaelis-Menten Kinetics
The minimal equation to describe a simple one-substrate, one-product reaction catalyzed by an enzyme is:
 One assumption is that the reverse reaction of enzyme combining with product to form the ES complex is negligible and can be ignored (this is certainly
the case at the start of the reaction where the concentration of product is zero).
With regard to the following:

by definition the enzyme is unchanged after the reaction, and so this is an example of a simple first-order reaction:
 The reaction rate (i.e. reaction velocity V) will be determined solely by the concentration of ES (i.e. [ES]) and the rate constant k2
In principle, if we could measure V and [ES] we could determine k2
 It is usually not possible to accurately determine [ES]

 It is possible to measure substrate concentration (i.e. [S]), as well as product concentration (i.e. [P]), and the total enzyme concentration
[E total] = [E free ] + [ES]
How can we express the reaction velocity V in terms of substrate concentration [S] and the total enzyme concentration [Etotal]?
This is accomplished using the Michaelis-Menten equation for simple enzyme kinetics
Michaelis-Menten Derivation
 Consider the case where k2 is a low slower than k-1
 In this situation, the equilibrium condition can exist for the ES complex formation from E and S
However, most of the time this assumption is not applicable, and [E], [S] and [ES] are not in true equilibrium.
The Briggs/Haldane model (1925)

At the start of the reaction (i.e. at T0) there is essentially no ES complex present
 k-1 and k2 reactions are insignificant

 As the reaction proceeds, [ES] increases rapidly
 As the [ES] increases the k-1 and k2 reactions increase and act to either dissociate the complex, or to produce product. Both reactions therefore decrease
the [ES]
Therefore, a steady state situation develops with regard to [ES] and remains until almost all of the substrate is used up
This steady state condition with regard to [ES] can be described using the rate constants and concentrations as follows:
 This equation can be rearranged to give the concentration of [ES] as a function of rate constants and [E] and [S]:
 The term for the three rate constants can be more conveniently referenced by a single rate constant, K m (note the inversion of the constants)
 This allows for the calculation of [ES] in terms of free enzyme [E] and substrate [S]:
K m [ES] = [E][S]
Free enzyme [E] may be hard to measure, but we can put [E] in terms of total enzyme concentration [E total] (which we know)
[E total] = [E] + [ES]
or
[E] = [E total] - [ES]

 Therefore:
K m [ES] = ([E total] - [ES]) [S]
or
K m [ES] = [E total] [S] - [ES] [S]
 Solving for [ES]:
K m [ES] + [ES] [S] = [E total] [S]
[ES]( K m + [S]) = [E total] [S]
This gives us [ES] in terms of [E total] and [S].
 Since V = k2 [ES]
We now have an equation relating the various rate constants to quantities we can accurately determine: V (rate of formation of product), [E total] and [S]
This equation is known as the Michaelis-Menten equation, and K m is known as the Michaelis constant
 Since reaction constants take on characteristic values for a given enzyme/substrate reaction, K m also is a characteristic value
 K m has units of concentration
K m [ES] = [E][S]
Saturating [S] and the Michaelis-Menten equation
Under high [S] we force all enzyme molecules to become bound with substrate
 All enzyme molecules are in the ES complex, i.e. [ES] = [E total]

 Under this condition we have the maximum reaction velocity occuring:
V = k2 [ES] therefore, V max= k2 [E total]

[S] equal to K m and the Michaelis-Menten equation
A special situation occurs when the substrate concentration, [S] is equal to the Michaelis constant, K m
V = 1/2 V max
 At [S] = Km, the reaction velocity is 1/2 the maximum
An enzyme with a high Km requires a higher substrate concentration to achieve a given reaction velocity than an enzyme with a low K m
The Michaelis-Menten equation for multi-step reactions
Sometimes the steps in an enzyme reaction are more complicated:
 In this case, we can still use the Michaelis-Menten equation, but k2 must be replaced with a more general constant which includes all rate constants
involved in going from ES to P
 This constant is referred to as kcat
 Since kcat includes k2 as a special case, we can use the following general form of the Michaelis-Menten equation in all cases
kcat gives a direct measure of the catalytic production of product under optimum conditions (i.e. fully saturated enzyme)
 The units of kcat are s-1

 This is the number of substrate molecules turned over per enzyme molecule per second
 The reciprocal of kcat can be thought of as a time value - the time required to "turn over" one substrate molecule
 For this reason, kcat is often referred to as the enzyme "turnover number"
The kcat/K m ratio
Consider the condition at very low substrate concentrations:
 [S] << K m
 Thus, kcat /K m is a (second order) rate constant which relates the rate of formation of product under conditions when all enzyme sites are available
 It provides a direct measures of enzyme efficiency and specificity, often referred to as the "catalytic efficiency"
kcat/K m as a rate, has a maximum theoretical value
 If every collision between substrate and enzyme results in formation of an enzyme/substrate complex, diffusion theory predicts that kcat/K m will approach a
value of about 108 to 109 (mol/L)-1 s-1 (the so-called diffusion limit)
 This means that the maximum possible rate attainable by an enzyme is the limit of substrate diffusing into the active site and product diffusing out. In this
case, diffusion limits the reaction rate and not the speed of the enzyme.
Determination of kinetic constants from experimental data
Experimental data usually involves determination of initial reaction veloicities at different substrate concentrations (ie. v vs. [S] data)
 The Michaelis-Menten equation can be rearranged to more easily derive the experimentally determined values of K m and kcat
Lineweaver-Burke (the "double reciprocal" plot)
 The Michaelis-Menten equation can be rearranged by taking the reciprocal, to yield:
 If X = 1/[S] and Y=1/V then this is a linear equation with a slope of K m/V max and a Y intercept of 1/V max
 Since the plot of 1/[S] versus 1/v data should be a straight line, it is easier to fit a linear function to the data in this form, and Vmax and K m can be readily
determined from the plot
BRINGHOME EXAM
“Every success is built on the ability to do better than good enough” – Anonymous
A. (1/9)Km B. (1/3)Km C. 1.0Km D. 9.0Km
2. In a Michaelis-Menten enzyme mechanism, what substrate concentrations (relative to Km) are needed for the reaction rate to be 0.5 times Vmax ?
A. (1/9)Km B. (1/3)Km C. 1.0Km D. 9.0Km
A.(1/9)Km B. (1/3)Km C. 1.0Km D. 9.0Km
4. Hydrogen peroxide (H 2O 2) is a toxic by-product of cellular metabolism in aerobic organisms. The reaction below occurs within the cell to prevent the
accumulation of Hydrogen peroxide. In this reaction catalase functions as an:
A. enzyme in the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide

B. emulsifier in the digestion of hydrogen peroxide
C. enzyme in the synthesis of hydrogen perox ide
D. indicator in the detection of hydrogen peroxide
5. Given the following information, coupled: 𝐴 → 𝐵 𝐾𝑒𝑞 = 103
Uncoupled: 𝐴𝑇𝑃 + 𝐴 → 𝐵 + 𝐴𝐷𝑃 + 𝑃𝑖 𝐾𝑒𝑞 = 200
By what approximate factor will the equilibrium ratio of B/A be increased in the coupled reaction when the phosphorylation potential in the cell
([ATP]/[ADP][Pi]) is 5000?
A. 1E9 B. 1E8 C. 1E6 D. 2E5

6. Ethanol is produced in a 100,000 L continuous stirred tank fermenter at a rate of 10,000 L/hr. The dilution rate will be
A. 0.1hr B. 0.1/hr C. 10hr D. 10/hr
7. A plant cell differs from an animal cell because it has:
A. Nucleus B. cellulose cell wall C. definite shape D. vacuoles
8. A constant amount of enzymes was added to series of reaction mixtures containing different substrate concentrations. The initial reaction rates were measured
from the initial slopes of progress curves of product formation. The data below were obtained.
Steady-State Enzyme Kinetic Data
[S]o (𝜇𝑚𝑜𝑙⁄𝐿 ) vo (𝜇𝑚𝑜𝑙⁄𝐿 ∗ 𝑚𝑖𝑛)
0.1 0.27
2.0 5.0
10.0 20
20.0 40
40.0 64
60.0 80
100.0 100
200.0 120
What is the Vmax (𝑖𝑛 𝜇𝑚𝑜𝑙⁄𝐿 ∗ 𝑚𝑖𝑛) for this enzyme in the reaction mixture?
1000.0 150
A. 20 B. 40 C. 160
2000.0 155 D. 250
9. From the data in problem 8, what is Km (𝑖𝑛 𝜇𝑚𝑜𝑙⁄𝑚𝑖𝑛) of the enzyme for the substrate?
A. 4.0 B. 60 C. 100 D. 140
10. A high energy molecule and serves as the cell’s major form of energy currency
A. NADH B. ADP C. ATP D. DNA
11. A unicellular fungus that has a single nucleus and reproduces either asexually by budding or fission, or sexually through spore formation.
A. Yeast B. molds C. bacteria D. algae
12. The filtrate of malted grains used as the substrate for the production of beer and ale by fermentation.
A. Bagasse B. pulp C. wart D. wort
13. An organism that grows in the presence of atmospheric oxygen
A. Anaerobes B. facultative C. microaerophites D. aerobes
14. An organic compound required by organisms in minute quantities for growth and reproduction because it cannot be synthesized by the organism, it often serve
as enzyme cofactors or part of cofactors
A. Biological catalyst B. hormones C. vitamin D. lipids
15. A virus that uses bacteria as its host
A. Bacteriophage B. exoenzymes C. eubacteria D. genome
16. The movement of a piece of DNA around the chromosome
A. Transcription B. transportation C. translation D. transformation
17. An infectious agent having a simple acellular organization with a protein coat and a single type of nucleic acid, lacking independent metabolism, and
reproducing only within living host cells.
A. Bacteria B. protozoa C. fungi D. virus
18. An agent that kills bacteria
A. Fungicide B. insecticide C. bactericide D. germicide
19. A metabolic process in which molecules, often organic, are oxidized with oxygen as the final electron acceptor
A. Anaerobic digestion C. Aerobic digestion
B. Anaerobic respiration D. Aerobic respiration
20. The cycle that oxidizes acetyl coenzyme A to CO 2 and generates NADH and FADH2 for oxidation in the electron transport chain; the cycle that also supplies
carbon skeletons for biosynthesis.
A. Tricarboxylic acid cycle C. Polymerase chain reaction
B. Glyoxylate cycle D. Embden-Meyyerhof pathway
21. A complex sulfated polysaccharide, usually extracted from red algae, that is used as solidifying agent in the preparation of culture media.
A. Agar B. carrageenan C. nata D. alga
22. A preparation of either killed microorganisms, living, weakened (attenuated) microorganisms; of inactivated bacterial toxins (toxoids). It is administered to induce
development of the immune response and protect the individual against a pathogen or a toxin.
A. Vaccine B. disinfectant C. antibiotic D. analgesic
23. A continuous culture system equipped with photocell that adjust the flow of medium through the culture vessel so as to maintain a constant density or turbidity.
A. Chemostat B. turbidostat C. biostat D. fermentor
24. A bacterial infection transmitted by contaminated food, water, milk, or shellfish. The caussive organism is Salmonella typhi, which is present in human feces.
A. Yellow fever B. hay fever C. typhoid fever D. dengue fever
25. An enzyme whose activity is altered by the binding of a small effector or modulator molecule at a regulatory site separate from the catalytic site: effector binding
causes a conformational change in the enzyme and its catalytic state, which lead to enzyme deactivation or inhibition.
A. Oxidase B. reductase C. hydrolase D. allosteric
26. The phase of microbial growth in batch culture when population growth ceases and the growth curve levels off.
A. Lag phase B. growth phase C. stationary phase D. death phase
27. Protein synthesis; the process by which the genetic message carried by mRNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides with the aid of ribosome and other cell
constituents.
A. Transcription B. translation C. transportation D. transformation
28. A process in which single-stranded RNA with a base sequence complementary to the template strand of DNA or RNA is synthesizes.
A. Transcription B. translation C. transposition D. transformation
29. The synthesis of complex molecules from simpler molecule with the input energy.
A. Catabolism B. anabolism C. respiration D. digestion
30. The microbiological treatment of sewage wastes under anaerobic conditions to produce methane.
A. Aerobic digestion C. anaerobic digestion
B. Aerobic respiration D. anaerobic respiration
31. An energy-yielding process in which the electron transport chain acceptor is an inorganic molecule other than oxygen.
A. Aerobic digestion C. anaerobic digestion
B. Aerobic respiration D. anaerobic respiration
32. A microbial product or its derivative that kills susceptible microorganisms or inhibits their growth.
A. Antipyretic B. antibiotic C. pyretic D. antiseptic
33. A glycoprotein produced in response to the introduction of an antigen; it has the ability to combine with the antigen that stimulated its production. Also known as
immunoglobulin.
A. Antibiotic B. antibody C. hormone D. steroid
34. An agent that kills microorganisms to inhibit their growth.
A. Antimicrobial agent B. antiseptic C. antigen D. antibiotic
35. Chemical agents applied to tissue to prevent infection by killing or inhibiting pathogens.
A. Antitoxin B. antiseptic C. antimicrobial agent D. antibiotic
36. The process which all living cells, viable spores, viruses and viroids are either destroyed or removed from an object or habitat.
A. Sterilization B. pasteurization C. disinfection D. immobilization
37. The substance an enzyme acts upon.
A. Substrate B. strain C. reactants D. proteins
38. The science of biological classification; it consist of three parts: classification, nomenclature, and identification.
A. Flora B. fauna C. taxonomy D. anatomy
39. The removal from sewage of inorganic nutrients, heavy metals, viruses, etc, by chemical and biological means after microorganisms have degraded dissolved
organic material.
A. Preliminary treatment C. primary treatment
B. Secondary treatment D. tertiary treatment
40. A microbial product or component that can injure another cell or organism at low concentrations. Often the team refers to poisonous protein, but may be lipids or
other substances.
A. Antigen B. toxin C. virus D. oxidants
41. The protein part of an enzyme that also has a nonprotein component.
A. Holoenzyme B. apoenzyme C. exoenzyme D. endoenzyme
42. An apparatus for sterilizing objects by the use of steam under pressure.
A. Boiler B. healer C. autoclave D. sterilizer
43. An organism that uses CO 2 as its sole principal source of carbon.
A. Autotrophy B. phototroph C. heterotroph D. lithitroph
44. A mutated prototroph that lacks the ability to synthesize the essential nutrient and therefore must obtain it or a precursor from its surrounding.
A. Chemototroph B. auxotroph C. methylotroph D. prototroph
45. The organelle where protein synthesis occurs; the message encoded in mRNA is translated here.
A. Cytoplasm B. golgi complex C. ribosomes D. lysozomes
46. The clear, fluid portion of blood lacking both blood cells and fibrinogen. It is the fluid remaining after coagulation of plasma, the noncellular liquid fraction of
blood.
A. WBC B. RBC C. hemoglobin D. serum
47. A basin used during water purification to chemically precipitate out fine particles, microorganisms, and organic materials by coagulation or flocculation.
A. Catch basin C. settling basin
B. Lagoon D. neutralization tank
48. A general term for the precipitated solid matter produced during water and sewage treatment; solid particles composed of organic matter and microorganisms
that are involved in aerobic sewage treatment.
A. Residue B. ash C. sludge D. solid waste
49. A reproductive cell, usually unicellular, capable of developing into an adult without fusion with another cell or of acting as a gamete. It may be produced
asexually or sexually and are of many types.
A. Spore B. zygote C. bud D. titer
50. Microbial growth in which all cellular constituents are synthesized at constant rates relative to each other.
A. Unbalanced growth B. balanced growth C. diauxic growth D. germination
51. A culture of microorganisms produced by inoculating a closed culture vessel containing a single batch of medium.
A. Batch culture C. continuous culture
B. Feed batch culture D. semi-continuous culture
52. Asexual reproduction in which a cell or an organism separates into two cells.
A. Binary fission B. budding C. sporulation D. copulation
53. The amount of oxygen used by organisms in water under certain standard conditions; it provides an index of the amount of microbially oxidizable organic matter
present.
A. COD B. BOD C. TOC D. TDS
54. A vegetative outgrowth of yeast and some bacteria as a means of asexual reproduction; the daughter cell is smaller than the parent.
A. Binary fission B. budding C. sporulation D. copulation
55. Sludges produced in sewage treatment that do not settle properly, usually due to the development of filamentous microorganism.
A. Effluents B. sewage C. bulking sludge D. foam
56. The part of metabolism in which larger, more complex molecules are broken down into smaller, simpler molecules with release of energy.
A. Anabolism B. catabolism C. biodegradation D. disintegration
57. The strong layer or structure that lies outside the plasma membrane; it supports and protects the membrane and gives the cell shape.
A. Plasmid B. cytoplasm C. cell wall D. nucleus
58. The amount of chemical oxidation required to convert organic matter in water and wastewater to CO 2 .
A. BOD B. DO C. COD D. TOC
59. A continuous culture apparatus that feeds medium into the culture vessel at the same rate as medium containing microorganisms is removed; the medium
contains one essential nutrient in limiting quantities.
A. Turbidostat B. biostat C. reactor D. chemostat
60. Organisms that obtain energy from the oxidation of chemical compounds.
A. Lithotrophs B. chemotrophs C. autotrophs D. phototrophs
61. The process in which water osmotically leaves a cell, which causes the cytoplasm to shrivel up and pull the plasma membrane away from the cell wall.
A. Phagocytosis B. cytosis C. lyasis D. plasmolysis
62. The first step of sewage treatment, in which physical settling and screening are used to remove particulate materials.
A. Primary treatment C. Secondary treatment
B. Tertiary treatment D. Advanced treatment
63. A cell that lack a true, membrane-enclosed nucleus; bacteria are prokaryotic and have their genetic material located in the nucleoid.
A. Prokaryotes B. eucaryotes C. eubacteria D. archeabacteria
64. An enzyme that hydrolyzes proteins to their constituent amino acids.
A. Foliose B. diastase C. protease D. lipase
65. A unicellular or acellular eukaryotic protists whose organelles have the functional role of organs and tissues in more complex forms.
A. Fungi B. Virus C. Protozoa D. Bacteria
SNAP EXAM
BIOCHEM
1. The decomposition of an organic molecule through the action of acetic acid or acetic anhydride.
A. Acetolysis B. acidolysis C. protolysis D. hetolysis
2. A type of reaction of unsaturated hydrocarbons with hydrogen, halogens, halogen acids, and other reagents, so that no change in valency is observed and the
organic compound forms a more complex one.
A. Addition B. substitution C. decomposition D. displacement
3. A speculative chemical system having as its central aims the transmutation of base metals to gold and the discovery of the philosopher’s stone.
A. Metallurgy B. alchemy C. stoichiometry D. radioactivity
4. An enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of asparagine to asparginic acid and ammonia.
A. Asparaginase B. aspartase C. amylase D. protease
5. A bacterial enzyme that catalyzes the determination of aspartic acid to fumaric acid and ammonia.
A. Asparaginase B. aspartase C. amylase D. protease
6. An enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of amino compounds, removing the amino group.
A. Aspartase B. amylase C. aminase D. deaminase
7. An enzyme which removes hydrogen atoms from a substrate and transfers it to an acceptor other than oxygen.
A. Hydrogenase B. asparaginase C. dehydrogenase D. deaminase
8. An enzyme which is located on the external surface of a cell.
A. Apoenzyme B. holoenzyme C. coenzyme D. ectoenzyme
9. Chemical reactions usually take place on an organic compound at the site of (a)
A. Double bond B. lone pair of electrons C. functional group D. any of the above
10. A protein is a polymer formed from the linking of many
A. Glucose units C. DNA molecules
B. Amino acid molecules D. monosaccharides
11. Which of the following is not converted to blood sugar by the human body?
A. Lactose B. dextrose C. cellulose D. glycogen
12. Fats from animals and oils from plants have the general structure of a/an
A. Aldehyde B. ester C. amine D. ketone
13. Liquid oils from plants can be converted to solid by adding what to the molecule?
A. Metal ions B. carbon C. polyatomic ions D. hydrogen
14. The average microscope having a high power objective marked 43x, and an ocular marked 10x gives a magnification of
A. 43x B. 53x C. 100x D. 430x
15. The nucleus contains all of the following except
A. Mitochondria B. chromatin C. genes D. nucleolus
16. The most abundant substance in protoplasm is

A. Protein B. fat C. carbohydrates D. water
17. A cell obtains energy during the process of
A. Ingestion B. respiration C. excretion D. secretion
18. Animal cells do not posses
A. Cell membrane B. cell wall C. cytoplasm D. nucleus
19. ATP is a chemical that is essential for
A. Digestion B. absorption C. oxidation D. assimilation
20. The life activity concerned with the taking of food in known as
A. Ingestion B. digestion C. secretion D. excretion
21. The life activity concerned with the stability of the organism’s chemical make-up under its constantly changing environment is
A. Respiration B. reproduction C. regulation D. photosynthesis
22. DNA is found in the cell’s
A. Vacuole B. nucleolus C. nucleus D. ribosomes
23. Stomates are largely found in a
A. Leaf B. stem C. root D. root hair
24. A by-product of photosynthesis is
A. Carbon dioxide B. water C. carbon monoxide D. oxygen
25. The substance produced as the direct result of photosynthesis is
A. Glucose B. protein C. fat D. vitamin A
26. The source of oxygen in photosynthesis is
A. CO2 B. glucose C. ATP D. water
27. An autotroph makes food from
A. Organic molecules B. inorganic molecules C. glucose D. proteins
28. The evaporation of water from a leaf is known as
A. Conduction B. circulation C. transportation D. transformation
29. An inherited disease in which blood does not clot is
A. Thrombosis B. hemophilia C. heparin D. anemia
30. Which one of the following correctly pairs amino acid with a valid chemical characteristic?
A. Glutamine: contains a hydroxyl group in its side chain
B. Serine: can form disulfide bonds
C. Cysteine: contains the smallest side chain
D. Isoleucine: is nearly always found buried in the center of proteins
E. Glycine: contains an amide group in its side chain
31. Which one of the following statements concerning glutamine is correct?
A. Contains three titratable groups
B. Is classified as an acidic amino acid
C. Contains an amide group
D. Has E as its one-letter symbol
E. Migrates to the cathode (negative electrode) during electrophoresis at pH 7.0
32. A peptide bond
A. Has a partial double-bond character
B. Is ionized at physiological pH
C. Is cleaved by agents that denature proteins such as organic solvents and high concentrations of urea
D. Is stable to heating in strong acids
E. Occurs most commonly in the cis configuration
33. A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme
A. Increases Km without affecting Vmax D. decreases Km without affecting Vmax
B. Increases Vmax without affecting Km E. decreases Vmax without affecting Km
C. Decreases both Vmax and Km
34. The Michaelis constant Km is:
A. Numerically equal to 0.5 Vmax
B. Dependent on the enzyme concentration
C. Independent of pH
D. Numerically equal to the substrate concentration that gives half-maximal velocity
E. Increases in the presence of a noncompetitive inhibitor
35. Computer disks, video tapes, and audio tapes uses common a chemical which is
A. Rust, Fe2O3 B. Teflon C. sand, SiO 2 D. diamond, C
E. aluminum
36. The strongest acid below is
A. HClO 2 B. HSrO 3 C. HClO 3 D. H 2 SO3
E. H 2SeO 3
37. Which of the following cannot be used to determine molar mass.

A. Osmotic pressure B. percent composition C. vapor pressure D. gas density E. freezing point depression
38. A substance labeled hygroscopic
A. Reacts with atmospheric oxygen D. spontaneously combusts
B. Absorbs water from the atmosphere E. oxidizes readily
C. Spontaneously combusts in contact with organic matter
39. Very fine precipitates are most easily separated by
A. Distillation B. filtration C. centrifugation D. evaporation E. vacuum filtration
40. The ion with the largest radius is
A. K + B. I- C. Cl- D. Na+ E. Ba2+
41. The colored gas most associated with smog is
A. An oxide of nitrogen B. an oxide of sulfur C. an oxide of hydrogen
D. a chloride of sulfur E. a nitrate of nitrogen
42. A protein is
A. A polysaccharide B. deoxyribonucleic acid C. a polymer of amino acids
D. soluble because of the carbonyl groups E. a polyester
43. The bonding in the benzene molecule, C 6H 6 , in any of its resonance structures, contains
A. 6 sigma bonds and 6 pi bonds D. 6 sigma bonds and 12 pi bonds
B. 12 sigma bonds and 6 pi bonds E. only sigma bonds
C. 12 sigma bonds and 3 pi bonds
44. Which of the following is most likely to form hydrogen bonds?

A. An alkyne B. an alcohol C. an aldehyde
D. a ketone E. an ether
45. The following compounds have the same number of carbon atoms. Which is expected to have the lowest boiling point?
A. An alkyne B. an alcohol C. an aldehyde
D. a ketone E. an ether
46. Which of the following always have a constant percentage of carbon in all of their compounds?
A. Alkenes B. alcohols C. aldehydes
D. ketones E. esters
47. CH 2O is the empirical formula for

A. Amino acids B. proteins C. carbohydrates (sugar)
D. aldehydes E. DNA and RNA
48. Modern automobiles use a catalytic converter to

A. Increase horsepower by burning more gasoline D. absorb pollutants from the exhaust
B. Complete the combustion of unburned gasses E. cool the exhaust gasses
C. Convert pollutants into water
49. A graph of the reciprocal of reactant concentration versus time will give a straight line for
A. A zero-order reaction B. a first-order reaction C. a second-order reaction
D. both A and C E. A, B, and C
50. A reaction in which the rate and the rate constant have the same units is
A. A radioactive decay B. a second-order reaction C. a reaction with one-step mechanism
D. a first-order reaction E. a zero-order reaction

51. A student observed that a small amount of acetone sprayed on the back of the hand felt very cool compared to a similar amount of water. Your explanation of
this phenomena be that
A. All organic compound do this
B. Acetone has a lower viscosity and transfers heat quanta better
C. Water has a higher heat capacity than acetone, therefore retaining more heat
D. The higher vapor pressure of acetone results in more rapid evaporation and heat loss
E. The observed effect is not real and is only imagined
52. When a pot of water bois on the stove, small bubbles form at the bottom of the pan and rise to the surface. What is inside these bubbles?
A. Steam B. hydrogen gas C. oxygen gas
D. a vacuum E. air
53. Diamond is classified ass

A. A covalent crystal B. an ionic crystal C. an amorphous solid
D. a metallic crystal E. a molecular crystal
54. A liquid compound that exhibits low intermolecular attraction is expected to have
A. Low viscosity, low boiling point, and low heat of vaporization
B. High viscosity, low boiling point, and low heat of vaporization
C. Low viscosity, high boiling point
D. Low viscosity, low boiling point, and high heat of vaporization
E. high viscosity, high boiling point, and high heat of vaporization
55. if gastric juice is tested with a pH meter, its pH would most likely be about
A. 2 B. 6 C. 7 D.8
56. The blood type known as the universal donor is
A. A B. B C. AB D. O
57. A process in which fuel is mixed with the ore and burned on the grate.
A. Sintering B. annealing C. cold working D. heat hardening
58. Organisms which used only simple inorganic compounds as nutrients.
A. Chemotroph B. phototroph C. heterotroph D. autotroph
59. For any closed system formed initially from given masses of prescribed chemical species, the equilibrium state is completely determined by any two proteins of
the system, provided only that these two properties are independently variable in the equilibrium state.
A. Phase rule B. Lewis-Randall rule C. Duhem’s theorem D. Henry’s law
60. It is a nonporous rock containing organic kerogen.
A. Tar sands C. oil shale
B. Natural gas D. coil-oil mixtures (COM)
61. It is the nonagglomerated, nonfusible residue from the thermal treatment of solid carbonaceous material.
A. Charcoal B. tanbank C. bagasse D. char
62. It is produced by the decay of vegetable matter, was early identified as combustible “swamp gas”
A. Producer gas B. furnace gas C. hydrogen D. methane
63. Calcium carbonate is also known as
A. Chalk B. charcoal C. feldspar D. silica
64. If the partial pressure of the vapor in a gas-vapor mixture is for any reason less than the equilibrium vapor pressure of the liquid at the same temperature, the
gas mixture is
A. Saturated B. unsaturated C. supersaturated D. none of these
65. Of the following elements the one that always has the oxidation number 1- in its compound is
A. Hydrogen B. sodium C. fluorine D. oxygen
66. If an element is at its lowest oxidation state, under appropriate circumstances, it can act as
A. A reducing agent
B. An oxidizing agent
C. Either an oxidizing agent or a reducing agent depending upon whether its oxidizing number is negative or positive
D. Neither an oxidizing agent nor a reducing agent
67. The atom with high electronegativity value
A. A small tendency to attract electrons
B. No tendency to attract electrons
C. A large tendency to attract electron
D. The attraction for electron does not depend upon electronegativity but upon electron affinity
68. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time because_________.
A. The heat is more evenly distributed B. the higher pressure tenderizes the food
C. The boiling point is elevated D. a large flame must be used
69. It is the science of flow and deformation of fluids

A. Transportation phenomena B. rheology C. fluid dynamics D. fluid statics
70. Who determined that energy is radiated only when an electron falls from a higher energy level to a lower energy level?
A. Einstein B. Rutherford C. Heisenberg D. Bohr
71. Who determined the charge of an electron by means of the oil droplet experiment?
A. Rutherford B. Heisenberg C. Millikan D. de Broglie
72. Who showed that electrons can be considered to have both particle character and wave character?
A. Thomson B. Moseley C. Heisenberg D. de Broglie
73. Who determined that no two electrons may have the same set of four quantum numbers?
A. Planck B. Pauli C. Hund D. Rutherford
74. Which of the following is a nonviscoelastic material?
A. Plastic B. metal C. rubber D. glass
75. In molecules of the same composition, what are the variations of atomic arrangements known as?
A. Polymers B. monomers C. crystal systems D. isomers
76. The only common liquid on the earth is
A. Mercury B. water C. petroleum D. oxygen
77. Because oil slick do not dissolve in water, one might expect oit to be composed of ____ molecules.
A. Nonpolar B. polar C. subpolar D. arctic
78. The main source of water pollution is
A. Industry B. domestic sewage C. chemical plants D. fertilizer funoff
79. The most commonly used agent for killing bacteria in treated wastewater is
A. Chlorine B. ozone C. gamma radiation D. phosphates
80. Which stage of wastewater treatment is most adversely affected by low temperature?
A. Primary B. secondary C. advanced D. disinfection
81. Which substance has polar covalent bonds?
A. CaF2 B. F2 C. HF D. H 2
82. The water molecule is
A. Bent B. linear C. pyramidal D. tetrahedral
83. In nearly all molecules, carbon forms _____ bonds.
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
84. A chemical bond formed by the equal sharing of electrons is called
A. Ionic B. nonpolar covalent C. polar covalent D. coordinate
85. The weight percent of SiO 3 in coal ash ranges from
A. 20-60 B. 10-35 C. 5-35 D. 1-20
86. A method used for landfilling dry areas when the terrain is unsuitable for the excavation of trenches in which to place the solid wastes.
A. Trench method B. depression method C. area method D. topsoil method
87. Biological catalyst which expedite reactions by lowering the amount of activation required.
A. Enzymes B. positive catalyst C. inhibitor D. depressants
88. The rate equation for the decomposition of H 2O2 in the presence of I - is rate = k [H 2O2] [I-] what are the units of the rate constant, k?
A. Mol/ L-time B. L-time/ mol C. L2/ mol2 -time D. L/ mol-time
89. As the temperature of the reaction is increased, the rate of the reaction increases because the
A. Reactant molecules collide less frequently
B. Reactant molecules collide less frequently and with greater energy
C. Activation energy is lowered
D. Reactant molecules collide with greater energy
90. Which of the following would have the lowest vapor pressure at 0o C?
A. CH 3OH B. CH 4 C. H 2O D. CH 2Cl2
91. The reason that some insects can walk on water is due to
A. Surface tension B. adhesive forces C. vaporization D. capillary action
92. Which would have the lowest freezing point?
A. H 2O B. N 2 C. CO 2 D. H 2
93. What is the significance of a line in a phase diagram?
A. Only one phase is present C. two phases are in equilibrium
B. Three phases are in equilibrium D. the distinction between two phases
94. List the three states of matter in order of increasing molecular disorder.
A. Gas < liquid < solid C. gas < solid < liquid
B. Solid < liquid < gas D. solid < gas < liquid
95. First ionization energy refers to
A. Removal of an electron from a gas atom C. energy to form the most probable ion
B. Trapping an ion in a lattice structure D. formation of a 1- anion
96. The tripe point of water is
A. 0o, 1 atm C. 0.0098o C, 4.58 torr
B. 374.4o C, 217.7 atm D. 56.4o C, 5.11 atm
97. It is a substance that exhibits one or more ordered phases at a temperature above the melting point of the solid.
A. Thermoplastic B. plastics C. liquid crystal D. biomaterials
98. Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin?
A. vitamin A B. vitamin C C. vitamin D D. vitamin E
99. A substance that can accept a proton or a proton acceptor.
A. Arrhenius acid C. Arrhenius base
B. Bronsted acid D. Bronsted base
100. A hydrocarbon derivative in which one or more hydrogen or a parent hydrocarbon have been replaced by a hydroxyl functional group, OH.
A. Carboxylic acid B. esters C. alcohols D. ethers
101. It is a product of the fermentation of carbohydrates such as sugar and starch.
A. Methanol B. ethanol C. dimethyl ether D. ethanoic acid
102. Compounds in which two hydrocarbon groups are bonded to one oxygen are called
A. Ethers B. esters C. phenols D. amines
103. Which of the following has no carbonyl group?
A. Aldehydes B. ketones C. carboxylic acid D. ethers
104. It is the scattering of light by colloidal effect.
A. Brownian movement B. Tyndall effect C. Coriolis effect D. Meissner effect
105. A type of colloid in which a liquid is dispersed in a liquid, example, milk.
A. Foam B. emulsion C. sol D. aerosol
106. A type of colloid in which a liquid/solid is dispersed in a gas, example, fog, smoke.
107. A type of colloid in which a gas is dispersed in a liquid, example, whipped cream.
108. It refers to the adherence to a surface.
A. Adsorption B. Absorption C. desorption D. osmosis
109. It consists of O-Si-O chains in which the remaining bonding positions on each silicon are occupied by organic groups as CH 3.
A. Boranes B. silicones C. sulfide D. nitrides
110. Which of the following is an aluminum ore?
A. Sphalenite B. amalgam C. galena D. bauxite
111. Which of the following radioisotopes is used in treating cancer?
A. Cobalt-60 B. uranium-233 C. helium-4 D. uranium-238
112. Iodine, when heated, passes from the solid phase directly to the gaseous phase. This is an example of
A. Charle’s law B. sublimation C. vapor pressure D. heat of fusion
113. The study of chemistry does not include which one of the following?
A. The composition of particles C. the structure of particles
B. The mechanics of particle motion D. the properties of particle
114. Aluminum hydroxide is an amphoteric compound. This means that aluminum hydroxide
A. Is highly colored B. is used as a reducing agent
C. insoluble I string base D. can act as a weak acid or weak base
115. Acetic acid is classified as weak acid because it

A. Does not ionize in water B. does not neutralize bases
C. slightly ionize in water D. react rapidly with zinc to produce hydrogen
116. According to Bronsted lowry theory, an acid is any substance that

A. Donates a proton B. donates an electron pair
B. C. donates an electron D. accepts an electron pair
117. The hydronium ion is a complex ion composed of
A. An electron B. a neutron C. a proton D. a positron
118. The chaotic zigzag motion of particle in solution is described by
A. Electrical charge effect B. Tyndall effect C. Brownian movement D. osmosis
119. The temperature at which the vapor pressure is equal to the prevailing atmospheric pressure is
A. Boiling point B. melting point C. freezing point D. critical point
120. The indicator which turns to yellow in basic solution is
A. Phenolphthalein B. blue litmus C. methyl orange D. red litmus
121. A base is an electron pair donor as defined by
A. Arrhenius B. Lewis C. Democritus D. Bronsted Lowry
122. Elements are composed of extremely small particles called atoms. All atoms of the same element are alike, and atoms of different elements are different. This is
an expression of the
A. Quantum theory B. kinetic theory C. Dalton’s theory D. Bohr theory
123. The magnetic quantum number is related to the
A. Direction of turning B. orientation in space
C. shape of the electron cloud D. distance from the nucleus
124. The maximum numbers of electron that can stay in a d-orbital is
A. 10 B. 8 C. 6 D. 2
125. Deuterium or heavy hydrogen has an atomic number of 1 and a mass of
A. 3 B. 2 C. 1 D. 4
126. A chemical change in which a substance loses electrons and thus increases in oxidation number
A. Oxidation B. reduction C. combination D. decomposition
127. A reaction in which the products that are formed react to form the original reactants
A. Reversible B. irreversible C. redox D. chemical
128. It states that if a stress is applied to a system at equilibrium, the system will shift, if possible, in such a way as to reduce the stress.
A. Law of mass action B. Le Chatelier’s principle
B. C. rate law D. Pauli exclusion principle
129. In the reaction Na + Cl2 NaCl, what is the ox idizing agent?
A. NaCl B. Cl C. Na D. Cl2
130. The rise of liquids up very narrow tube is called
A. Surface tension B. capillarity action C. viscosity D. buoyant force
131. Sometimes as we remove heat from a liquid we can temporarily cool it below its freezing point without forming a solid. This phenomenon is called
A. Fusion B. supercooling C. vaporization D. sublimation
132. It is a particle that has the same mass as an electron but an opposite charge.
A. Beta particle B. neutrino C. positron D. nucleon
133. Which of the following indicators us yellow in acidic solution and blue in basic solution?
A. HpH B. thymol blue C. bromothymol blue D. methyl orange
134. On heating glucose with Fehling’s solution we get a precipitate whose color is
A. Yellow B. red C. black D. white
135. The action on nitrous acid on ethyl amine gives
A. Ethane B. ammonia C. ethyl alcohol D. nitroethane
136. If formaldehyde and KOH are heated we get
A. Acetylene B. methane C. methanol D. ethyl acetate
137. Which of the following is formed when urea is heated?
A. Ammonium cyanate B. ammonia C. carbon dioxide D. formic acid
138. The migration of colloidal particles under the influence of electric field is called
A. Electrodialysis B. electrodispersion C. electrophoresis D. electroosmosis
139. Which fluid is involved in maintaining a heat balance in the body?
A. Interstitial fluid B. lymph C. saliva D. sweat
140. The number of major amino acids found in protein is
A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 40
141. The special region of an enzyme where the substrate molecules fits is called the
A. Activation energy B. substrate bond C. active site D. catalyst
142. Enzymes which catalyze the breaking or making of double bonds are called
A. Transferases B. ligases C. isomerases D. lyases
143. Bacteria which converts alcoholic solution to vinegar are
A. Coli B. acetobacters C. bacilli D. proteins
144. Ethylene readily undergoes the following type of reaction
A. Addition B. elimination C. substitution D. rearrangement
145. A functional group on the principal polymer chain
A. Radical group B. peridant group C. aromatic group D. chain group
146. Ring compounds consisting of carbon and other atoms.
A. Aromatic B. heterocyclic C. terpolymer D. copolymer
147. If an atom has a diameter of 426 pm, what is the volume of 100 atoms?
A. 4.11 x 10-29 m3 B. 3.28 x 10-7 m3 C. 4.11 x 10-27 m3 D. 4.11 x 10-8 m3
148. How many valence electrons are involved in writing the Lewis structure of AsF 3?
A. 5 B. 21 C. 26 D. 8
149. 1000 gal/min of water is cascading down a height of 50 feet from a reservoir. If half of the energy is converted to electrical energy, how many 100-watts bulb
can be lighted in 30 seconds?
A. 54 B. 56 C. 47 D. 60
150. If the velocity of a reaction doubles every ten degree rise in temperature, how much faster would the reaction proceed at 100o C than 20o C?
A. 64 times faster C. 120 times faster
B. 256 times faster D. 512 times faster
151. The accounting device of a “barrel of oil” is defined to hold how many US gallons of petroleum?
A. 24 B. 42 C. 55 D. 100
152. The specific heat of soil is 0.20 kcal/ kg 0 C and the specific heat of water is 1.00 kcal/ kg 0C. This means that if 1 kg of soil and 1 kg of water each receive 1 kcal
of energy ideally
A. The water will be warmer than the soil by 0.8o C
B. The soil will warm by 5o C
C. The water will warm by 5o C
D. The water will warm by 1o C, and the soil will warm by 0.2o C
153. What is the mass of aluminum produced in 1hr in the electrolysis of molten Al2(SO 4)3 if the electrical current is 10 A.
A. 3.36g B. 5.04g C. 1.00g D. 0.167g
154. The density of a gas mixture of O 2 and N 2 is 1.1705 g/L at 27o C and 750 mmHg. The % of N 2 in the mixture is
A. 70% B. 68% C. 30% D. 32%
155. How much oil at 200o C must be added to 50 grams of the same oil at 20o C to heat it to 70o C?
A. 12.39 g B. 29.12 g C. 19.23 g D. 23.91 g
156. A compound contains 54.45% carbon, 9.09% hydrogen and 36.36% oxygen. What is the empirical formula?
A. C 4H 6O 2 B. C 2 H 4O C. CH 2O + D. C 2 H 4O3
157. Calculate the pH of a solution prepared by mixing 10 mL of 0.1 N NaOH and 25 mL of 0.1 N HAc.
A. 2.46 B. 12.96 C. 4.57 D. 8.72
158. What is the pH of natural rain water?
A. 5.6 - 6.2 B. 7.0 - 8.3 C. 4.2 – 4.4 D. 2.2 – 2.4
159. The concentration of a chemical degrades in water according to first-order kinetics. The degradation constant is 0.2/day. If the initial concentration is 100 mg/ L,
how many days are required for the concentration to reach 0.14 mg/L?
A. 24.8 days B. 26.2 days C. 30.7 days D. 32.9 days
160. What is the pH of water that contains 120 mg/L of bicarbonate ion and 15 mg/L of carbonate ion?
A. 9.43 B. 8.76 C. 8.01 D. 7.65
161. Of the following gasses, _____________ will have the greatest rate of effusion at a given temperature.
A. NH 3 B. CH 4 C. Ar D. HBr
162. What weight of Epsom salts, MgSO 4 ∙7H 2O is required to prepare 300 mL of 2 M solution of magnesium sulfate?
A. 148 g B. 120 g C. 87 g D. 75 g
163. A sample of hydrogen occupies a volume of 2.50 liters at atmospheric pressure and a temperature of 25.0o C. if the gas is cooled at constant pressure to -200o
C, what will the volume be?
A. 0.512 L B. 0.548 L C. 0.613 L D. 0.670 L
164. When an ester is hydrolyzed, the end products are
A. Water and base C. an acid and water
B. An acid and an alcohol D. an acid and a base
165. Which of the following are nonelectrolytes in water?
I) HF II) ethanol III) CH 3CH3 IV) KCIO 3 V) Cu(NO 3 )2
A. II and III only B. I, II and II only C. I, IV and V only D. II only
166. By referring only to the periodic table, arrange the following in order of increasing electronegativity: Ga, P, As, S, O, and F.
A. Ga< P < As < S < O < F C. Ga< As < P < O < S < F
B. Ga < As < S < P < O < F D. Ga < As < P < S < O < F
{167-168} A solid metallic element burns in oxygen to produce an oxide which dissolves in water to give the hydroxide of the metal. The hydroxide obtained
from 1 gram of metal neutralizes 111.2 ml of normal hydrochloric acid. The specific heat of the metal is 0.228 cal/g- o C.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
168. What is the equivalent wright of the metal?
A. 9.33 B. 8.992 C. 9.002 D. 4
169. The following equilibrium was obtained when some NO gas was placed into a 2-L container until the pressure was 0.650 atm: 2NO (g) = N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) the
equilibrium pressure of N 2 was found to be 5.25 E -2 atm. What is the Kp for this reaction?
A. 198 B. 153 C. 6.52E -3 D. 9.28 E – 3
170. What H + is needed to dissolve completely 0.0010 mole of AgCN in 1 liter solution? K HCN =4E -10 and K sp of AgCN = 1.6E -14
A. 0.00026 M B. 0.026 M C. 0.000026 M D. 0.26 M
171. A 25 ml sample of 0.025 M HBr is mixed with 25.0 ml of 0.023 M KOH. What is the pH of the resulting mixture?
A. 1.00 B. 3.00 C. 7.00 D. 11.00
172. A student is titrating 50 ml of 0.2 N HCl solution with a solution of 0.2 N KOH. He accidentally adds one ml too much titrant. What is the pH of the resulting
solution?
A. 10.3 B. 11.3 C. 2.7 D. 7.3

ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
SANITARY LANDFILL
1. A sanitary landfill is 210,000 square meters in area and 2 m deep. The daily loading of garbage is 800m3/day. What is the life at the landfill in years if the
garbage is compacted in the landfill with twice its loading density?
IONIC STRENGTH
2. The ionic strength of 0.1 M solution of ferrous sulfate is
A. 0.75 B. 0.50 C. 1.50 D. 0.40 M
ALKALINITY
2. Determine the equivalent weight of the following: Ca2+, CO 32— and CaCO 3
A. 20, 30 and 50 g/equi C. 20, 30 and 60 g/equi
B. 20, 40 and 50 g/equi D. 20, 40 and 60 g/equi
3. How many milligrams per liter as CaCO3 is equivalent to 83 mg/L as Ca2+?
A. 200 mg/L B. 156 mg/L C. 168 mg/L D. 95.3 mg/L
4. How many milligrams per liter as CaCO3 is equivalent to 220 mg/L as HCO 3-?
5. Water from city well is analyzed and is found to contain 20 mg/L as substance of HCO3- and 40 mg/L as substance CO3-2. What is the alkalinity of this water in
mg/L as CaCO3?
A. 75.7 B. 83.2 C. 89.7 D. 150 mg/L
6. A water contains 100 mg/L CO 3 and 75 mg/L HCO 3 at a pH of 10 (T=25ᴼC). Calculate the exact alkalinity (as mg CaCO 3 /L). Approximate the alkalinity by
ignoring the appropriate chemical species.
WATER & WASTEWATER

7. Glutamic acid (C 5H 9O4N) is used as one of the reagents for a standard to check the BOD test. Determine the theoretical oxygen demand of 150 mg/L of
glutamic acid. Assume the following reaction apply
C 5H 9 O4 N + 4.5O 2  5CO 2 + 3H 2 O + NH 3
NH 3 + 2O 2  NO 3- + H + +H 2O
8. A 10mL sample of sewage mixed with enough water to fill a 300-mL bottle has an initial DO of 9 mg/L. To help assure an accurate test, it is desirable to have at
least a 2 mg/L drop in DO during the five-day run, and the final DO should be at least 2 mg/L. for what range of BODs would this dilution produce the desired
results? (unseeded five-day BOD test)
A. 60-210 mg/L B. 100-200 mg/L C. 60-150 mg/L D. 120-210 mg/L
9. A test bottle containing just seeded dilution water has its DO level rop by 1.0 mg/L in a five-day test. A 300-mL BOD bottle filled with 15 mL of wastewater and
the rest seeded dilution water (sometimes expressed as a dilution of 1:20) experiences a drop of 7.2 mg/L in the same time period. What is the five day BOD of
the waste? (a seeded BOD test)
10. If the five-day BOD of a waste is 220 mg/L and the ultimate BOD is 320 mg/L, what is the rate constant?
A. 0.142/day B. 0.178/day C. 0.210/day D. 0.233/day
11. A sample of municipal sewage is diluted to 1% by volume prior to running a five-day BOD test. After 5 days, the oxygen consumption is determined to be 2
mg/L. what is the five-day BOD of the sewage?
12. If the 3-day BOD(BOD2) of a waste is 75 mg/L and the BOD decay constant, k1 is 0.345/day, what is the ultimate BOD?
13. Calculate the length of a chlorinating pipe line with diameter of 0.6 m require to kill 95% of the bacteria in waste water flowing at 0.05 cu. m/s. Tests shows that
95.33% kill is obtained in 5 minutes when treated with 5 mg/L Chlorine. Chlorine disinfection kinetics is given by the equation:dC/dt = kCt1.5 where C = a number
of bacteria. Assume that the same concentration of chlorine is used in actual treatment operation.
A. 25.36 m B. 32.5 m C. 52.63 m D. 56.23 m
DAILY TEST
1. A surface water primarily for contact recreation such as bathing, etc.
A. Class A B. Class SA C. Class B D. Class AA
2. The gas from sludge digestion tanks is mainly composed of
A. Nitrogen B. carbon monoxide C. hydrogen sulfide D. methane
3. A 6 mL wastewater sample is diluted by 294 ml water. If the initial dissolved oxygen is 9.1 mg/L and after 5 days is 2.8 mg/L, calculate its BOD.
4. A 5 ml wastewater sample was analyzed for its BOD content using the standard BOD test. Initial and fifth day dissolved oxygen was measured as 7.5 mg/L and
2.5 mg/L respectively. What is the BOD of this sample?
A. 30 B. 210 C. 150 D. 800
5. Compute the theoretical oxygen demand (ThOD) of 108.75 mg/L of glucose?
A. 116 mg/L B. 125 mg/L C. 174 mg/L D.150 mg/L
6. Alum, a coagulant of water, is
A. aluminum sulfate C. ferrous sulfate
B. sodium hydroxide D. magnesium sulfate
7. Ozone, O 3, filters out large amount of the ultraviolet and other dangerous radiations from the sun. It is found in the
A. troposphere B. stratosphere C. thermosphere D. lithosphere
8. Which of the following are major components of photochemical smog?
A. NOx and hydrocarbon C. ozone and oxygen
B. Sox and hydrocarbon D. NOx, Sox and hydrocarbon
9. A wastewater contains 10 ppm of chloride ions, how many mg/L is it?
A. 10 B. 14 C. 30 D. 20
10. The mass ratio of nitrogen to oxygen in air is
A. 3.77 B. 3.12 C. 4.12 D. 3.29
11. In the National Standard of Drinking Water, the maximum allowable chlorine content is 0.2 ppm. What is the equivalent concentration in mg/L?
A. 20 B. 0.2 C. 100 D. 200
12. What is found in hard water?
A. calcium, phosphorus and magnesium C. phosphorus and magnesium
B. calcium and magnesium D. calcium and phosphorus
BRINGHOME EXAM
“The road to success is never easy, you have to make sacrifices along the way.”
1. Calculate the “exact” alkalinity (in milligrams per liter as CaCO 3) of water containing 120 mg/L of bicarbonate ion and 15 mg/L of carbonate ion, at a
pH of 9.43.
A. 110.5 mg/L B. 116.2mg/L C. 123.4 mg/L D. 128.9 mg/L
2. It is the term used to describe the over-abundance in the growth of algae in water due to the presence of excess nutrients.
A. eutrophication B. biodegradation C. stabilization D. decomposition
3. A type microorganism used for monitoring the pathogenic property of water.
A. Acidity C. hardness
B. Coliform D. dissolved oxygen
4. This phenomenon is described by the separation of hot and cold regions in a given stream.
A. Eutrophication B. digestion C. thermal stratification D. decomposition
5. The hardness of water is expressed as g/L of?
A. CaO B. MgO C. CaCO 3 D. MgCO 3
6. Which compound gives a foul (rotten egg) odor?
A. Hydrogen sulfide B. carbon monoxide C. methane D. carbon dioxide
7. How many milligrams per liter as CaCO 3 is equivalent to 48 mg/L as CO 2?
8. A 5-mL wastewater sample was analyzed for its BOD content using the standard BOD test. Initial and fifth day dissolved oxygen was measured as 7.5
and 4 respectively. What is the BOD of this sample?
A. 30 B. 150 C. 210 D. 300
9. A 5-mL wastewater sample was analyzed for its BOD content using the standard BOD test. Initial and fifth day dissolved oxygen was measured as 7.5
and 2.5 respectively. What is the BOD of this sample?
B. 30 B. 150 C. 210 D. 300
10. The BOD rate constant is 0.233/day for a municipal wastewater. The BOD5, was measured to be 250 mg/L. What is the ultimate BO D?
A. 320 mg/L B. 345 mg/L C.357 mg/L D. 363 mg/L
11. Which of the following is a toxic heavy metal discharge from industrial operations involving plating and metal finishing?
A. Hexavalent chromium B. spent acids C. septic waste D. scrap metals
12. A sanitary landfill has available space of 16.2 ha at an average depth of 10 m. Seven hundred sixty five m3 of solid waste is dumped at the site 5 days
a week. This waste is compacted to twice its delivered density. Estimate the expected life of the landfill in years.
A. 15 yrs B. 16.25 yrs C. 17.10 yrs D. 17.80 yrs
13. The ionic strength of 0.1 M solution of ferric sulfate is
A. 0.75 B. 0.50 C. 1.50 D. 0.25
14. A wastewater had an ultimate BOD of 300 m/L. At 20ºC, five-day BOD was 200 mg/L and the reaction rate constant was 0.22/day. What would be the
five-day BOD of this waste be at 25 ºC?
15. Water softener are used
A. To remove te impurities of water C. to remove the hardness of water
B. To increases ductility D. to decrease conductivity
16. Finely divided amorphous carbon particles produced by the incomplete combustion of hydrocarbon.
A. Diamond B. fullerenes C. carbon black D. emulsion
17. Permanent hardness of is due to the presence of
A. Sulfates and chlorides of sodium and potassium
B. Calcium bicarbonate
C. Sulfates and chlorides of calcium and magnesium
D. Nitrates of Na and K
18. The dilution factor P for an unseeded mixture of waste and water is 0.030. The DO of the mixture is initially 9.0 mg/L, and after five days it has dropped
to 3.0 mg/L. The reaction rate constant k has been found to be 0.22/day. What is the five-day BOD of the waste?
to 3.0 mg/L. The reaction rate constant k has been found to be 0.22/day. What would be the ultimate carbonaceous BOD?
B. 250 mg/L B. 300 mg/L C. 280 mg/L D. 310 mg/L
to 3.0 mg/L. The reaction rate constant k has been found to be 0.22/day. What would be the ultimate carbonaceous BOD?
21. The biological decomposition of organic matter accompanied by the production of foul smelling products in an anaerobic condition is
A. Pollution B. dissolution C. stabilization D. putrefaction
22. How many milligrams per liter as CaCO 3 is equivalent to 27 mg/L as Mg2+?
23. How many milligrams per liter as CaCO 3 is equivalent to 15 mg/L as CO 32-?
A. 10 B. 14 C. 30 D. 20
25. A sanitary landfill is 21 hectares and 10 m deep. The daily loading of garbage is 850m3/day. What is the life of the landfill in years if the garbage is
compacted in the landfill with twice its loading density?
26. Calculate the “exact” alkalinity of water that contains 0.658 mg/L of bicarbonate, as the ion, at a pH of 5.66?
27. Ozone is important to mankind because it
A. Releases hydrogen in the atmosphere
B. Creates a protective coverage against ultraviolet rays
C. Maintains the temperature of the earth
D. Releases oxygen in the air
28. Ozone is all of the following except
A. Bleaching agent C. less soluble in water than oxygen
B. Oxidizing agent D. disinfectant
29. What is found in hard water?
A. calcium, phosphorus and magnesium C. phosphorus and magnesium
B. calcium and magnesium D. calcium and phosphorus
30. The gas from the sludge digestion tanks is mainly composed of
A. Nitrogen B. carbon monoxide C. hydrogen sulfide D. methane
31. A criteria pollutant responsible for the reddish brown color of smog.
A. NO 2 B. particulates C. CO D. SO 2
32. A waste treatment process by which biologically active growths are continuously circulated with incoming biodegradable waste in the presence of
oxygen is
A. Activated sludge process C. stabilization process
B. Agitation process D. trickling filter process
33. What class of freshwater supply requires complete treatment ( coagulation, sedimentation, filtration, disinfection ) in order to meet the National Standard
for Drinking Water.
A. Class AA B. Class A C. Class B D. Class C
34. Which of the following is a physical method of water treatment?
A. Sedimentation B. activated sludge process C. precipitation D. chlorination
35. Trace metal that causes the Minamata disease.
A. Hg B. Cd C. Pb D. Cu
36. Japanese word meaning “ouch ouch” and is caused by exposure to Cadmium.
A. Chicken pox B. itay-itay C. mud cow disease D. SARS
37. The biological decomposition of organic matter accompanied by the production of foul smelling products in an anaerobic condition is
A. Pollution B. dissolution C. stabilization D. putrefaction
38. Tertiary treatment of wastewater include the following, except
A. Adsorption B. reverse osmosis C. ion exchange D. filtration
39. The source that gives the highest % CO and NOx emission to the atmosphere.
A. Transportation facilities
B. Stationary source
C. Industrial plant excluding stationary source
D. Natural sources such as fire and volcanic eruptions
A. NO 2 B. particulates C. CO D. SO 2
41. A waste treatment process by which biologically active growths are continuously circulated with incoming biodegradable waste in the presence of
oxygen is
A. Activated sludge process C. stabilization process
B. Agitation process D. trickling filter process
42. It is the total uptake of chemicals by an organism from food items (benthos, fish prey, sediment ingestion, etc...) as well as mass transport of dissolved
chemicals through the gills and epithelium.
A. Bioaccumulation B. biomagnification C. bioconcentration D. partition
43. Unlike the other pollutants, the photochemical oxidants result entirely from atmospheric reactions and are not direct emissions from either people or
nature; thus, they are called .
A. Primary pollutants C. stationary source
B. Secondary pollutants D. tertiary pollutants
44. Which of the following is a hydrate?
A. Na2SO4∙7H 2O B. Na2 SO4 + 5H 2O C. CaSO 4, anhydrous D. 7H 2O
45. “Hard” water can be soften by
A. Letting the calcium or magnesium ions settle out C. chlorination
B. Passing it through an ion exchanger D. filtration
46. What effect can the presence of a large amount of biodegradable organic materials in water have?
A. It decomposes endothermically, causing the temperature of the water to decrease below the limits within which most aquatic organisms
can live
B. It causes oxygen depletion in the water
C. It rises to the surface and absorbs light from the wavelengths needed by the aquatic plants
D. It causes the death of bottom-dwelling organisms because it agglutinates and settles to the bottom, poisoning the bottom-dwelling organisms
47. Which one of the following substances found in the atmosphere will absorb radiation in the infrared portion of the spectrum?
A. O2 B. Ar C. N 2 D. CO 2
48. Which of the following does not result in the formation of acid rain?
A. Nitrogen dioxide B. nitrogen monoxide C. carbon dioxide D. methane
49. If you add 30 g of calcite (CaCO 3 ) to a 1 L volumetric flask and brin the final volume to 1 L, what would be concentration of calcium (Ca2+) in solution?
Assume the calcium in the solution is in equilibrium with CaCO 3 (s) and the temperature of the solution is 25ºC. The pKs for calcite is 8.48.
A. 5.75 E-5 M B. 5.75 E-6 C. 2.10 E-4 D. 2.10 E-6
50. A waste is being discharged into a river that has a temperature of 10ºC. What fraction of the maximum oxygen consumption has occurred in 4 days if
the Bod rate constant, k, determined in the laboratory under standard conditions is 0.115/day? (Note: all rates constant are base e.)
A. 0.06 B. 0.12 C. 0.32 D. 0.73
51. The BOD of a wastewater sample is estimated to be 180 mg/L. What volume of undiluted sample should be added to a 300-ml bottle? Assume that 4
mg/L BOD can be consumed in the BOD bottle.
A. 6.7 ml B. 9.2 ml C. 12.1 ml D. 15.1 ml
52. Of the following substances, which one requires the shortest wavelength for photoionization?
A. O2 B. O C. N 2 D. NO
53. Which of the following accurately describes the atmosphere?
A. Temperature decreases in a regular way with increasing altitude
B. Temperature increases in a regular way with increasing altitude
C. Pressure increases in a regular way with increasing altitude
D. Pressure decreases in a regular way with increasing altitude
54. Why is rainwater acidic even when there is no sulfur trioxide present?
A. Dissolved hydrocarbons cause the acidity
B. Dissolved carbon dioxide causes the acidity
C. Water always is acidic
D. Automobile emissions cause the increase in acidity
55. Which ions lead to hard water?
A. Mg2+ B. Ca2+ C. Mg2+ and Ca2+ D. OH -
56. The destruction of an enzymes catalytic power by changing its molecular structure is
A. Hydrolysis B. sypsis C. lyasis D. denaturation
57. An enzyme present in soybeans which converts urea quantitatively into ammonium carbonate.
A. Diastase B. zymase C. maltase D. urease
58. Which of the following enzymes gives flavor in cheese?
A. Lactose B. lipase C. invertase D. amylase
59. Bacteria which converts alcoholic solution to vinegar is
A. Coli B. bacilli C. acetobacters D. proteins
60. Which of the following is a biological catalyst and it is a protein?
A. Hormones B. enzymes C. vitamins D. nucleotides
61. An enzyme is a
A. Deoxyribose B. lipid C. protein D. ribose
62. The storehouse of energy in the cell is
A. ATP B. nucleus C. cell membrane D. DNA
63. During fermentation, the final products formed are CO 2, and either lactic acid or
A. Water B. glucose C. alcohol D. riboflavin
64. A hormones that enables the cells to utilize glucose is
A. Gastrin B. insulin C. testosterone D. cortisone
65. Tobacco smoke contains
A. Caffeine B. nicotine C. niacin D. morphine
66. Rod-shaped bacteria are called
A. Bacilli B. spirilla C. cocci D. streptococci
67. Bacteria may survive unfavorable conditions by
A. Splitting in half B. forming spores C. forming bacteriophage D. forming flagella
68. Penicillin was discovered by
A. Ehrlich B. Fleming C. Waksman D. Koch
69. What is the total number of carbon atoms in molecule of glycerol?
A. 1 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4
70. Codons provide the code for synthesizing
A. Proteins B. DNA C. tRNA D. rRNA
71. Gelatin came from
A. Carbohydrates B. tannin C. molasses D. collagen
72. Which of the following is the other name of vitamin C?
A. Prussic acid B. ascorbic acid C. riboflavin D. folic acid
73. Steroids which plays an important role in biological reactions is a/an
A. Enzyme B. catalyst C. hormone D. protein
your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. U se pencil no. 2 only.
1. Ozone is important to mankind because it
A. Releases hydrogen in the atmosphere C. maintains the temperature of the earth
B. Creates a protective coverage against ultraviolet rays D. releases oxygen in the air
2. Ozone is all of the following except
A. Bleaching agent C. less soluble in water than oxygen
B. Oxidizing agent D. disinfectant
3. The hardness of water is expressed as g/L of ?
A. CaO B. MgO C. CaCO 3 D. MgCO 3
4. The international Standards on Quality Management and Quality Service is
A. ISO 9000 B. ISO 18000 C. ISO 14000 D. ISO 100
5. A coastal and marine water primary used for commercial and sustenance fishing
A. Class A B. Class SA C. Class SB D. Class SC
6. A surface water intended for waters having watersheds which are uninhabited and protected
A. Class AA B. Class A C. Class B D. Class C
7. A coastal water for coral reef packs and reserves as designated by law and concerned authorities.
A. Class AA B. Class SA C. Class SB D. Class
8. In the Deacon process for the manufacture of chlorine, HCl and O 2 react to form Cl2 and water. Sufficient air is fed to provide 25% excess O 2, and the
fractional conversion of HCl is 70% . On the basis of 100 moles of HCl fed, the amount of air in moles fed into process is
A. 53.12 B. 136.78 C. 200 D. 149
9. From the data in problem #8, the mole fraction of Cl2 gas in the product stream is
A. 0.214 B. 0.127 C. 0.151 D. 0.172
10. Alcoholic fermentation is caused by the interaction of
A. Sugar and acids C. sugar and yeasts
B. Sugar and carbon dioxide D. yeast and pectin
11. The part of a cell that contains the chromosome is the
A. Polysomes B. nucleolus C. mitochondrion D. nucleus
12. Enzymes which catalyze the breaking or making of double bonds are called
A. Transferases B. ligases C. isomerases D. lyases
13. A plant cell differs from an animal cell because it has
A. Nucleus B. vacuoles C. cellulose cell wall D. definite shape
14. Vitamin E is also known as
A. Calciferol B. axerophthol C. ascorbic acid D. tocopherol
15. The complementary strand of m-RNA formed over the single stranded DNA of sequence 5’ – A – T – C – A – G – T – 3’ is
A. 5’ – T – G – A – C – T – A – 3’ C. 5’ – A – C – T – G – A – T – 3’
B. 5’ – A – C – U – G – A – U – 3’ D. 5’ – U – A – G – U – C – A – 3’
16. A study was made to evaluate the constants so that the Michaelis-Menten relationship could be used to describe waste utilization by bacteria. It was that
one gram of bacteria could decompose the waste at a maximum rate of 20 grams per day when the waste concentration was high. A lso, it was found that
this same quantity of bacteria would decompose waste at a rate of 10 gram per day when the waste concentration surrounding the bacteria is 15 mg/L. The
rate of waste decomposition by 2 grams of bacteria if the waste concentration were maintained at 5 mg/L is
A. 10 g/day B. 20 g/day C. 5 g/day D.15 g/day
17. Matter has .
A. No mass but occupies space C. mass but occupies no space
B. Mass and occupies space D, no mass and occupies no space
18. In gases, particles vibrate .
A. About their mean position C. about a vertical axis
B. About a horizontal axis D. in any direction
19. A property not possessed by a fluid is .
A. It can flow C. it has mass
B. It has a definite shape D. can be perceived by our senses
20. A solid the sublimes on heating is .
A. Sodium chloride B. copper sulphate C. ammonium chloride D. lead sulphate
21. Temperature is a measure of:
A. Total kinetic energy of molecules C. average kinetic energy of the molecules
B. Total potential energy of molecules D. average potential energy of the molecules
22. Carbon-12 atom has:
A. 6 electrons, 6 protons,6 neutrons C. 6 electrons, 12 protons,6 neutrons
B. 12 electrons, 6 protons,6 neutrons D. 18 electrons, 6 protons,6 neutrons
23. Formation of lead and bromide from lead bromide is an example of:
A. Decomposition reaction C. synthesis reaction
B. Displacement reaction D. neutralization reaction
24. The main cause of rancidity in foods is:
A. Bacteria C. Proteins
B. Antioxidants D. Oxidation of fatty acid molecules
25. Which of the following statements is not applicable to carbon compounds?
A. They have low melting and boiling points C. They are ionic in nature
B. They are generally soluble in organic solvents D. They form homologous series
26. Micelles are .
A. Aggregates of amino acids
B. Drops of oil or dirt that surrounds the molecule
C. A tadpole shaped fatty acid
D. Cluster of soap molecules surrounding the dirt particle
27. A diamond does not conduct electricity because:
A. Its structure is very compact C. there are no free electrons
B. Only carbon atoms are present in its structure D. it is crystalline in nature
A. Alkali dissolve in water to form solutions with pH greater than 7
B. Not all alkali solution are soluble in water
C. The products of neutralization are water and salt
D. When an alkali solution is neutral, there are equal numbers of hydroxide and hydronium ions
29. Which of the following is not an organic compound?
A. Vinegar B. Quick lime C. Petrol D. Wood
30. Artificial silk is produced from-
A. Ethanoic acid B. Propanoic acid C. Methanoic acid D. Butyric acid
31. Vacuoles (in plant cells) .
A. Produce energy for the cell C. synthesize proteins
B. Defend the cell D. provide turgidity and rigidity to plant cells
32. The organelle not present in animal cells is .
A. Plastid B. centrosome C. nucleus D. mitochondria
33. Exchange of gases in higher plants takes place through .
A. Lenticels B. roots C. stomata D. stem
34. Photosynthesis is .
A. A catabolic reaction C. an anabolic reaction
B. An energy releasing reaction D. none of the above
35. Auxins are:
A. Vitamins B. enzymes C. proteins D. hormones
36. Lack of magnesium in plants .
A. Causes young leaves to wilt C. cause leaves to turn dark green
B. Increases starch production D. reduces chlorophyll formation
37. The part of the digestive system where no digestion takes place is .
A. Mouth B. esophagus C. ileum D. stomach
38. Cramps are caused by heavy exercise resulting in the accumulation of .
A. Carbon dioxide B. lactic acid C. ethanol D. heat
39. Which of the following are the stages of respiration in the correct order?
A. Gaseous transport, breathing, tissue respiration and cellular respiration
B. Breathing, gaseous transport, tissue respiration and cellular respiration
C. Breathing, gaseous transport, cellular respiration and tissue respiration
D. Breathing, tissue respiration, cellular respiration and gaseous transport
40. Adrenaline increases .
A. Heart rate C. blood pressure
B. Amount of glucose in blood D. all the above
41. All the energy that passes along a food chain comes originally from:
A. Oxygen B. carbon dioxide C. glucose D. light
42. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?
A. Hydroelectric power B. tidal power C. coal D. wave power
43. Which gas is responsible for the depletion of ozone layer?
A. SO2 B. CFC C. CO D. NH3
44. In which stage of the cell division the chromosomes move from centre to pole of the spindle?
A. Metaphase B. Anaphase C. Telophase D. Pro-metaphase
45. How many pairs of autosomes are present in human body?
A. 23 pairs B. 22 pairs C. One pair D. 24 pairs
46. Which of the following is made of protein and nucleic acid only?
A. Bacterium B. Fern C. Virus D. Algae
47. Where does electron transport chain takes place?
A. Golgi apparatus B. Cytoplasm C. Mitochondria D. Chloroplast
48. Which of the following is not a phytohormone?
A. Abscisic acid B. Ethanol C. Dormin D. Auxin
49. Which of the following is a disaccharide?
A. Cellulose B. Galactose C. Maltose D. Fructose
50. Which of the followings is storage-food in animal cell?
A. Glucose B. Starch C. Glycogen D. Cellulose
51. The finger like projections found in small intestine is called-
A. Villi B. Rugae C. Alveoli D. Ligament
52. Insulin is synthesized in .
A. Liver B, Pancreas C. Small intestine D. Stomach
53. Which of the followings is a water-soluble vitamin?
A. Vitamin-A B. Vitamin-E C. Vitamin-D D. Vitamin-C
54. Which of the followings is the major energy fuel for the brain?
A. Acetate B. lactate C. glucose D. glycine
55. Human genome contains base pairs.
A. 2.2 billion B. 3.2 billion C. 4.2 billion D. 5.2 billion
56. Which of the following statements is false?
A. Mutation may delete a portion of DNA
B. A mutated gene may produce functional protein
C. Mutation may cause change in the base pairs of DNA
D. Mutation can never be a reversible process
57. Matured red blood cells (RBC) do not contain-
A. Golgi apparatus B. Glycophorin C C. Nucleus D. Hemoglobin
58. Which virus is responsible for tumor?
A. T2 phage B. Dengue virus C. Influenza virus D. Papilloma
59. The most dangerous ultraviolet ray is-
A. UV-B B. UV-C C.UV-A D. UV-D
60. How many red blood cells are there in an av erage 70-kg person?
A. 26 trillion B. 26 billion C. 26 million D. 26 thousand
61. When a liquid is in dynamic equilibrium with its vapor at a given temperature, the following conditions could exist:
(I) There is no transfer of molecules between liquid and vapor
(II) The vapor pressure has a unique value
(III) The opposing processes, (liquid to vapor) and (vapor to liquid), proceed at equal rates
(IV) The concentration of vapor is dependent on time
Which of the above choices are applicable?
A. I B. II and III C. I, II, and III D. II and IV
62. Which of the following acids is the stronger, (a) boric acid, pKa=9.0 or (b) acetic acid, pKa=4.6?
A. Boric acid B. acetic acid C. needs more data D. equal strength
63. A sample of acetic acid (1 mol) was completely oxidized to CO2 and H2O in a constant-volume adiabatic calorimeter, at 298K. The heat released in the
oxidation was 874 kJ. Calculate ∆H for the oxidation of acetic acid.
A. 810 kJ B. 750 kJ C. 874 kJ D. 940 kJ
64. Most of the bacteria in sewage are
A. Parasitic B. pathogenic C. saprophytic D. anaerobic
65. The percent of total solids in most domestic sewage is
A. 0.01 B. 1.0 C. 0.1 D. 10
66. In the troposphere ozone is produced during the daylight and consumed during the darkness. Determine the half-life of ozone if it is depleted to 10% of its
initial value after 10 hours of darkness.
A. 3 hrs B. 3.5 hrs C. 4 hrs D. 4.5 hrs
67. Express the concentration of a 3% by weight CaSO4 solution in water in terms of ppm.
A. 20000 B. 25000 C. 30000 D. 35000
68. If the BOD = 300 mg/l for a Mgd (million gallon daily) sewage plant, determine the number of pounds of organic load present in the water per day.
A. 2600 lb/day B. 2501 lb/day C. 3000 lb/day D. 5000 lb/day
69. The concentration of a chemical degrades in water according to first-order kinetics. The degradation constant is 0.2/day. If the initial concentration is 100
mg/L, how many days are required for the concentration to reach 0.14 mg/L?
70. What is the “exact” alkalinity of water (in mg/L as CaCO3) that contains 0.6580 mg/L of bicarbonate, as the ion, at a pH of 5.66?
A. 0.398 B. 0.430 C. 0.490 D. 0.524
A. 9.43 B. 8.76 C. 8.01 D. 7.65
72. What volume would one mole of an ideal gas occupy at 25ºC and 101,325 kPa?
A. 24.46 L B. 25.65 L C. 26.70 L D. 27.20 L
73. Which molecules are polar? I. NH3, II. CO2, III. H2O, IV. CH4, V. Br2
A. I, IV B. III C.II, III, IV D.III, IV, V
74. What is the formal charge of the C attached to Na in the molecule NaC≡CH?
A. -2 B. -1 C. 0 D. +1
75. Which of the following compounds are secondary halides?
I) Isobutyl bromide II) 2-iodobutane III) isopropyl fluoride IV) neopentyl chloride
A. I, II B. III, IV C. II, III D. I, IV
76. What is the major product from an elimination reaction starting with 2-bromopentane?
A. 1-pentene C. cis-2-pentene
B. Trans-2-pentene D. a mixture of cis and trans-2-pentene
77. Which is the index of hydrogen deficiency for a compound having molecular formula C7H5Cl2NO?
A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7
78. Which is the index of hydrogen deficiency for a compound having molecular formula C12H13Br2NO2?
A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8
79. Which describe the isoelectric point of an amino acid?
A. The degree of ionization of the amino acid at pH 7
B. The pH at which there no net charge for the amino acid
C. The pH at which the ionized form predominates
D. The pH at which the amino acid is present as the dipolar ion
80. Tyrosine has an isoelectric point of 5.63. What charge does tyrosine have at pH 7 and which electrode does it migrate to during electrophoresis?
A. Negative, anode B. positive, cathode C. negative, cathode D. positive, anode
81. Lysine has an isoelectric point of 9.74. What charge does tyrosine have at pH 7 and which electrode does it migrate to during electrophoresis?
A. Negative, anode B. positive, cathode C. negative, cathode D. positive, anode
82. At which pH would the predominate form of aspartic acid in solution migrate the negative electrode during electrophoresis?
A. 1.8 B. 2.98 C. 4 D. 7
83. Arginine has an isoelectric point of 10.76. At which pH would the predominate form of arginine in solution migrate toward the positive terminal during
electrophoresis?
A. 5 B. 7 C. 10.76 D. 12
84. The secondary structure of proteins depends primarily on which property of amino acids?
A. Disulfide bonds B. hydrogen bonds C. polar side chains D. amide bonds
85. The tertiary structure of proteins depends primarily on which property of amino acids?
I) Disulfide bonds II) hydrogen bonds III) amide bonds IV) polar side chains
A. III, IV B. I, IV C. II, III D. I, II
86. How do DNA and RNA differ?
I) The position of attachment of phosphate groups
II) The position of attachment of base group
III) The sugar structure at C-2’
IV) Structure of bases
A. I, II B. II, III C. III, IV D. II, IV
87. Which are the correct pairings of bases in the structure of DNA?
I) A-C, II) G-T, III) A-G, IV) G-C, V) A-T, VI) C-T
A. I, II B. III, V C. III, IV D. IV, V
88. Where does protein synthesis occur?
A. Chromatin B. ribosome C. codon D. histones
89. Which are types of RNA?
I) ribosomal, II) histonal, III) helix, IV) transfer
A. I, II B. I, III C. II, IV D. I, IV
90. How many moles of ethanol and CO2 are produced in the glycolysis and fermentation of sucrose?
A. 2 moles ethanol, 2 moles CO2 C. 2 moles ethanol, 4 moles CO2
B. 4 moles ethanol, 4 moles CO2 D. 4 moles ethanol, 4 moles CO2
91. Which of the following is not a derivative of benzene?
A. Naphthalene B. phenanthrene C. anthracene D. bromomethane
92. Steroids which plays an important role in biological reaction is a/an
A. Enzyme B. catalyst C. hormone D. protein
93. Butyric acid is found mainly on
A. Rancid butter B. citrus fruits C. animal fats D. cellulose
94. Which of the following compounds would have the highest boiling point?
A. CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 B. CH 3NH2 C. CH 3OH D. CH 2F2
95. What is the total number of sigma bonds found in the following compound?
CH3− CH ═ C ═ CH – C ≡ C – H
A. 8 B. 10 C. 11 D. 15
96. What is the total number of pi bonds found in the following? H -C≡C-CH2-NO2
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
97. How many dichlorinated isomers can be formed by the halogenation of CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 3 with Cl2 in the presence of light?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 6
98. The major reason that phenol is a better Brønsted acid than cyclohexanol is…
A. It is a better proton donor.
B. The cyclohexyl group is an electron donating group by induction, which destabilizes the anion formed in the reaction.
C. Phenol is able to stabilize the anion formed in the reaction by resonance.
D. The phenyl group is an electron withdrawing group by induction, which stabilizes the anion formed in the reaction.
99. The Earth does not directly provide which of man’s basic needs?
A. Water B. Air C. Food D. Shelter
100. Which of these is not released from burning fossil fuels?
A. Carbon dioxide B. Sulphur dioxide C. Copper oxide D. Nitrogen oxides
101. Dissolved pollutant gasses can form:
A. Ozone B. Acid rain C. Alkalii snow D. Neutral hail
102. Which of these reactions in the atmosphere leads to acid rain?
A. Magnesium + oxygen → magnesium dioxide C. Sulphur + oxygen → sulphur dioxide
B. Carbon dioxide + hydrogen → hydrogen carbonate D. Sulphur dioxide + water → sulphuric acid
103. Acid rain does not cause:
A. Lakes with a very low pH C. Erosion of limestone and marble
B. Damage to trees D. Global warming
104. Sulphur dioxide levels can be reduced by using:
A. Catalytic converters C. Low sulphur fuels
B. Static electricity to attract it in factory chimneys D. More efficient car engines
105. Which of these atmospheric pollutants is not released by car exhausts?
A. Carbon monoxide B. Carbon dioxide C. Magnesium oxide D. Lead oxide
106. Unleaded paint and petrol were introduced because:
A. European Parliament told us to
B. Lead was proven to affect the brain and cause mental impairment
C. It was cheaper to produce than leaded products
D. Unleaded petrol made cars go faster
107. Which of these is not caused/aggravated by atmospheric pollution?
A. Asthma B. Nice sunsets C. Hayfever D. Global Warming
108. The greenhouse effect is where:
A. Heat energy is trapped by the atmosphere C. Too many buildings are built from glass
B. Solar panels are attached to the roof of houses D. You take gardening too seriously
109. The greenhouse effect is thought to be the cause of:
A. Huge tomatoes C. An increase in asthma sufferers
B. Skin cancer D. An increase in global temperature
110. Global warming will not result in:
A. Melting of the ice caps C. Increasing sea levels
B. Increasing the size of the hole of the ozone layer D. Unpredictable climate patterns
111. Which of these was an attempt by the world governments to specifically address the problem of global warming?
A. A CITES Treaty B. The Kyoto Agreement C. The Geneva convention D. Agenda 21
112. Carbon dioxide and oxygen levels are maintained by:
A. Perspiration C. Photosynthesis
B. Respiration D. Photosynthesis and respiration
113. The balance of carbon dioxide and oxygen has been upset by:
A. Excessive burning of fossil fuels C. Large scale deforestation
B. Burning fossil fuels and deforestation D. Increasing human population
114. Deforestation is responsible for:
A. Desertification B. Eutrophication C. Diversification D. Salinisation
115. Carbon dioxide in the oceans can be used by:
A. Fish B. Phytoplankton C. Zooplankton D. Deep sea drivers
116. The ozone layer found high in the stratosphere:
A. Protects against the suns harmful UV rays
B. Can react with atmospheric pollutants to form smog
C. Is toxic to plants
D. Is capable of disintegrating fabric and rubber
117. Holes in the ozone layer are thought to have been caused by:
A. Space exploration B. CFC’s C. Methane D. Carbon dioxide
118. All proteins contain the
A. Same 20 amino acids C. Different amino acids
B. 300 Amino acids occurring in nature D. Only a few amino acids
119. The optically inactive amino acid is
A. Glycine B. Serine C. Threonine D. Valine
120. At neutral pH, a mixture of amino acids in solution would be predominantly:
A. Dipolar ions B. Nonpolar molecules C. Positive and monovalent D. Hydrophobic
121. The true statement about solutions of amino acids at physiological pH is
A. All amino acids contains both positive and negative charges
B. All amino acids contain positively charged side chains
C. Some amino acids contain only positive charge
D. All amino acids contain negatively charged side chains
122. pH (isoelectric pH) of alanine is
A. 6.02 B. 6.6 C. 6.8 D. 7.2
123. Sulphur containing amino acid is
A. Methionine B. Leucine C. Valine D. Asparagine
124. An example of sulphur containing amino acid is
A. 2-Amino-3-mercaptopropanoic C. 2-Amino-3-methylbutanoic acid
B. 2-Amino-3-hydroxypropanoic acid D. Amino acetic acid
125. All the following are sulphur containing amino acids found in proteins except
A. Cysteine B. Cystine C. Methionine D. Threonine
126. An aromatic amino acid is
A. Lysine B. Tyrosine C. Taurine D. Arginine
127. The functions of plasma albumin are
A. Osmosis B. Transport C. Immunity D. both A and B
128. Amino acid with side chain containing basic groups is
A. 2-Amino-5-guanidovaleric acid C. 2-Pyrrolidine carboxylic acid
B. 2-Amino-3-mercaptopropanoic acid D. 2-Amino propanoic acid
129. An example of α-amino acid not present in proteins but essential in mammalian metabolism is
A. 3-Amino-3-hydroxypropanoic acid C. 2-Amino-3-hydroxybutanoic acid
B. 2-Amino-4-mercaptobutanoic acid D. 2-Amino-3-mercaptopropanoic acid
130. An essential amino acid in man is
A. Aspartate B. Tyrosine C. Methionine D. Serine
131. Non-essential amino acids
A. Are not components of tissue proteins
B. May be synthesized in the body from essential amino acids
C. Have no role in the metabolism
D. May be synthesized in the body in diseased states
132. Which one of the following is semiessential amino acid for humans?
A. Valine B. Arginine C. Lysine D. Tyrosine
133. An example of polar amino acid is
A. Alanine B. Leucine C. Arginine D. Valine
134. The amino acid with a nonpolar side chain is
A. Serine B. Valine C. Asparagine D. Threonine
135. A ketogenic amino acid is
A. Valine B. Cysteine C. Leucine D. Threonine
136. An amino acid that does not form an α-helix is
A. Valine B. Proline C. Tyrosine D. Tryptophan
137. An amino acid not found in proteins is
A. 3-Alanine B. Proline C. Lysine D. Histidine
138. In mammalian tissues serine can be a biosynthetic precursor of
A. Methionine B. Glycine C. Tryptophan D. Phenylalanine
139. Which of the following alkanes is gas at room temperature?
A. Octane B. propane C. eicosane D. undecane
140. The protein present in hair is
A. Keratin B. Elastin C. Myosin D. Tropocollagen
141. The amino acid from which synthesis of the protein of hair keratin takes place is
A. Alanine B. Methionine C. Proline D. Hydroxyproline
142. In one molecule of albumin the number of amino acids is
A. 510 B. 590 C. 610 D. 650
143. Plasma proteins which contain more than 4% hexosamine are
A. Microglobulins B. Glycoproteins C. Mucoproteins D. Orosomucoids
144. After releasing O2 at the tissues, hemoglobin transports
A. CO2 and protons to the lungs C. O2 to the lungs
B. CO2 and protons to the tissue D. Nutrients
145. Which of the following groups is the most acidic?
A. ROH B. NH3 C. HOH D. RCOOH
146. This structure is known as a(n)
CH3−C−O−C−CH3
║ ║
O O
A. Carboxylic acid C. carboxylic acid anhydride

B. Acid chloride D. ester
147. A plant cell differs from an animal cell because it has
A. Nucleus B. vacuoles C. cellulose cell wall D. definite shape
148. The most malleable metal is
A. Platinum B. silver C. iron D. gold
149. The black image on an exposed and developed photographic film is composed of
A. Ag B. AgBr C. Ag2O D. Ag(S2O3)23-
150. On heatin glucose with Fehlling’s solution we get a precipitate whose color is
A. Yellow B. red C. black D. white
151. Which is the sweetest of all the sugar?
A. Fructose B. glucose C. lactose D. sucrose
152. Calculate the hardness of water with the following analysis:
𝑚𝑔 𝑚𝑔 𝑚𝑔 𝑚𝑔
Na+ = 20 ; Ca2+ = 15 ; Mg2+ = 10 ; Sr2+ = 2
𝐿 𝐿 𝐿 𝐿
𝑚𝑔 𝑚𝑔 𝑚𝑔 𝑚𝑔
Cl- = 40 ; SO42- = 16 ; NO3- =1 , Alkalinity = 50
𝐿 𝐿 𝐿 𝐿
A. 80.8 mg/L as CaCO3 C. 120.5 mg/L as CaCO3
B. 93.2 mg/L as CaCO3 D. 108.7 mg/L as CaCO3
153. Which of the following is a unit of radiation exposure?
A. Grays B. roentgen C. curie D. rads
154. A device commonly used to create, measure, and photograph emission spectra.
A. Tachometer B. spectrometer C. manometer D. hydrometer
155. It is an elementary particle that has no charge, has zero (or near zero) rest mass, and travels at the speed of light.
A. Positron B. beta particle C. neutrino D. neutron
156. The radioactive isotope used to locate brain tumors is
A. 1D2 B. 16S 31 C. 53I131 D. 92 U 232
157. The black precipitate formed hypo is added with silver nitrate solution is
A. Ag2S B. Na3 [Ag(S 2 O3 )2] C. S D. Na2S
158. The boiling temperature of ethylbenzene is 136ºC. Use Trouton’s rule to eliminate the enthalpy of vaporization of ethylbenzene at this temperature.
A. 35 kJ/mol B. 12 kJ/mol C. -14 kJ/mol D. -24 kJ/mol
159. The vapour pressure p of liquid sulfur trioxide, SO 3, may be calculated for different temperatures T using the expression
Log ( p / kPa ) = A – B / T
Where, for the temperature range 24 to 48ºC, A = 9.147 and B = 1771 K. What is the vapour pressure
of sulfur trioxide at 32ºC?
A. 0.82 MPa B. 1.12 MPa C. 1.87 MPa D. 2.20 MPa
160. The vapour pressure of toluene is 6.811 kPa at 310 K and 24.15 kPa at 340 K. Assuming that the variation of the vapour pressure p with temperature T may
be described by the expression
Log ( p / kPa ) = A – B / T
What are the values of A and B?
A. A = 7.059, B = 1930 K C. A = 5.307, B = 1930 K
B. A = 7.059, B = 2100 K D. A = 5.307, B = 2100 K
161. The vapour pressure of bromobenzene, C 6H 5 Br, above an ideal-dilute aqueous solution of molality 0.092 mol kg-1 is 23.6 kPa. Calculate the Henry’s law
constant of bromobenzene.
A. 256 kPa-kg/mol B. 2.17 kPa-kg/mol C. 120 kPa-kg/mol D. 1.5 kPa-kg/mol
162. The equilibrium constant for the reaction PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) ↔ PCl5 (g) is K = 3.29 x 106 at 298 K. Calculate the value of K c, the equilibrium constant expressed
in terms of concentrations.
A. 3.44 E 2 B. 8.15 E 4 C. 8.15 E 6 D. 3.44 E 4
163. Calculate the pH of an aqueous solution of hydrocyanic acid of concentration 0.088 mol dm-3. The acidity constant of hydrocyanic acid is 4.9 x 10-10
A. 10.2 B. 8.82 C. 5.18 D. 3.48
164. In a titration, 2.7 cm3 of 0.100 mol dm-3 sodium hydroxide, NaOH, solution is added to 25.0 cm3 of 0.125 mol dm-3 benzoic acid, C 6H 5COOH, solution.
Calculate the pH of the resultin solution given that the pK a of benzoic acid is 4.19.
A. 3.13 B. 4.12 C. 7.45 D. 9.12
165. Calculate the ionic strength of a solution of iron (III)carbonate, Fe2(CO 3)3 of concentration 0.020 mol dm-3
A. 0.25 B. 0.30 C. 0.40 D. 0.50
166. A liquid that has percolated through solid waste and has extracted dissolved or suspended materials from it
A. Permeate B. leachate C. filtrate D. seepage
167. Corundum is
A. Aluminum oxide B. iron oxide C. magnesium oxide D. calcium oxide
168. Calcite is
A. Potassium carbonate B. calcium carbonate C. sodium hydroxide D. calcium hydroxide
169. Which of wastewater treatment is most adversely affected by low temperature?
A. Primary B. secondary C. advanced D.disinfection
A. Solubility of gases in water increases with increasing temperature
B. Solubility of gases in water increases with increasing pressure
C. Solubility of gases in water is important for fish population
D. Solubility of both oxygen and nitrogen gas increases with pressure
171. In the activated sludge process for treating wastewater, the most important step is
A. Chemical precipitation B. biological decomposition C. chlorination D. reverse osmosis
172. Activated charcoal is used in water treatment primarily for
A. Pathogen removal C. inorganic salt removal
B. Organic materials removed D. filtering sediments
173. To remove nitrates and phosphates from water requires
A. Aeration C. advanced treatments
B. Secondary treatments D. an activated sludge process
174. Pentane and isopentane are what type of isomers?
A. Aldehydes B. chiral C. structural D. enantiomers
175. Which of the following is false concerning protein?
A. They are present in most living cells C. they are made up of amino acids
B. They are major structural components in animal tissues D. the act as biological catalyst
176. What is the hybridization of the oxygen atom in the aldehyde?
A. sp B. sp3 C. d2sp3 D. sp2
177. What is the IUPAC name for the following compound?
H H
│ │
H3C--- C --- C ---C==CH2
│ │ │
CH3 H CH3
A. 2, 5-dimethypentane C. 2, 4-dimethyl-1-pentene
B. 2, 4-methylbutene D. 2, 4-ethylbutene
178. Plants that carry out photosynthesis do so to
A. Drive essential biochemical reactions having positive delta G values
B. Reduce CO2 in the atmosphere
C. Produce chlorophyll needed to stabilize cell walls
D. Increase O2 in the atmosphere
A. Primary structure B. secondary structure C. tertiary structure D. quaternary structure
180. Which of the following are monosaccharides? (i) glucose (II) fructose (III) lactose (IV) sucrose
181. Equimolar amounts of hydrogen and oxygen as at the same temperature are released into a larger container. The ratio of the rate of diffusion of the hydrogen
molecules to that of the molecules of oxygen would be
A. 256:1 B. 16.1 C. 1:16 D. 4:1
182. At what temperature will the velocity of CO2 molecules equal the velocity of oxygen molecules at 0ºC.?
A. 102 ºC B. 632 ºC C. 132 ºC D. 125 ºC
183. It is the heating of an ore to bring about its decomposition ant the elimination of a volatile product.
A. Smelting B. roasting C. calcinations D. refining
184. It is the thermal treatment that causes chemical reactions between the ore and the furnace atmosphere.
A. Smelting B. roasting C. refining D. calcinations
185. It is a melting process in which the materials formed in the course of chemical reactions separate into two or ore layers.
186. The treatment of a crude, relatively impure metal from a metallurgical process to improve its purity and to define its composition better.
187. It is a form of carbon which is soft, black, slippery solid that has a metallic luster and conducts electricity.
A. graphite B. diamond C. buckiminsterfullerence D. carbon black
188. It is formed which hy drocarbons such as methane are heated in a very limited supply of oxygen.
A. carbon black B. charcoal C. coke D. coal
189. What is the hybridization of the oxygen atom in an aldehyde?
A. sp B. sp3 C. d2sp3 D. sp2
190. It is produced by the destructive distillation of wood
A. methanol B. ethanol C. isopropyl alcohol D. butanol
191. Also known as grain alcohol or beverage alcohol.
A. methanol B. ethanol C. isopropyl alcohol D. butanol
193. How many isomers are there corresponding to the formula C 4H 10 O?
A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7
194. How many structural isomers are possible for C 2H 4 Cl2?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
195. Compounds added to the glass to give it the white opaque appearance so characteristics of vitreous enamels.
A. fluxes B. opacifiers C. electrolytes D. whiteners
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY 1
Calorimetry
1. One kilogram of water ( c = 4.2 kJ/kg K) is heated by 300 Btu energy. What is the change in temperature in K?
A. 73.8 B. 17.9 C. 74.4 D.75.4
2. A sample of metal is weighing 400 g is heated to 96.5ºC and then dropped into a calorimeter containing 2000g of water at 20ºC. If the final temperature
becomes 21.5ºC, what is the specific heat of the metal in cal/g- ºC?
A. 0.10 B. 0.12 C. 0.14 D. 0.16
3. In an experiment determine the specific heat of copper, a piece of copper weighing 50 g is first heated to 100 ºC in steam. It is then immersed into water at
27 ºC. The water in calorimeter weighs 100 g and the inner aluminum cap weighs 50 g. If the final temperature is 30 ºC, what is the specific heat of
copper, specific heat of aluminum is 0.22 cal/g-ºC?
A. 0.88 cal/g-ºC B. 0.66 cal/g-ºC C. 0.077 cal/g-ºC D. 0.095 cal/g-ºC
4. Ten kilograms of -10 C ice is added to 100 kg of 20 C water. What is the eventual temperature, in C, of the water? Assume an insulated container.
A. 9.2 B. 10.5 C. 11.4 D. 12.6
5. Two liquids enter a mixing chamber and are discharged at 80ºF at the rate of 50 gal/min. Liquid A enters at 140ºF with specific heat of BTU/gal- ºF. Liquid
B enters at 65 ºF with specific heat of 8.33 BTU/gal- ºF. What is the volume flow for liquid B?
A. 41.38 gal/min B. 8.62 gal/min C. 38.75 gal/min D. 11.25 gal/min
Thermochemistry
6. Suppose you are given of the following hypothetical reactions: X → Y ∆H = -80 kJ ; X → Z ∆H = -125 kJ. Use Hess’s law to calculate the enthalpy
change for the reaction Y → Z.
A. -45 kJ B. +45kJ C. -205 kJ D. +205 kJ
7. From the following heats reaction, N2 (g) + 2O2(g) → 2NO2(g) ∆H = 67.6 kJ
2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g) ∆H = -113.2 kJ calculate the heat of the reaction N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g).
A. 55.6 kJ B. -55.6 kJ C. 180.0 kJ D. -180.8 kJ
8. Aluminum displaces chromium from chromium(III) oxide 2Al + Cr2O3 ---- Al2O 3 + 2Cr ∆H = -536 kJ. How much heat will be released in the reaction of 10 g
of aluminum with 25 g of Cr2O3? Al = 26.98u, Cr= 52u, O=16u
A. -100.6kJ B. 89.5kJ C. 58.7kJ D. -87.9kJ
9. The fuel used in spacecraft must contain as much enery per gram of materials as possible. Based on this consideration only, which of the following fuels is
best suited to be a spacecraft fuel?
(I) Dimethylhydrazine, (CH3)2NNH2; ∆H of combustion = - 1694 kJ/mol
(II) Methanol, CH3OH; ∆H of combustion = -726 kJ/mol
(III) Ethanol, C2H5OH; ∆H of combustion = -1371 kJ/mol
(IV) Octane, C8H18; ∆H of combustion = -5500 kJ/mol
A. Dimethylhydrazine B. methanol C. ethanol D. octane
10. Consider the following reaction; 2Na(s) + Cl2(g) → 2NaCl (s) ∆H = -821.8 kJ. What is the amount of heat transferred when 5.6 g Na(s) reacts at constant
pressure?
A. 821.8 kJ B. 4600 kJ C. 2.0 E 2 kJ D. 1.0 E 2 kJ
11. C2H6(g) + 3.5 O2 (g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O (g) ∆H = -1430 kJ. What is the enthalpy change for the reverse reaction if whole-number coefficients are used?
A. +1430 kJ B. -1430 kJ C. -2860 kJ D. +2860 kJ
12. The heat of combustion of a n-heptane at constant volume and 20ºC is 1148.93 kcal/mole. What is the value of the of reaction at constant pressure?
A. -115.13 cal/mole C. -1151.3 cal/mole
B. -1151.3 kcal/mole D. 1151.3 kcal/mole
DAILY TEST
1. How much oil at 200ºC must be added to 50 grams of the same oil at 20ºC to heat it 70ºC?
A. 12.39 grams B. 29.12 grams C. 19.23 grams D. 23.91 grams
2. Thirty pounds of ice at 32ºF is placed in 100 lb of water at 100ºF. (The latent heat of ice may be taken as 144 BTU/lb). If no heat lost or added to the
mixture, the temperature when equilibrium is reached is
A. 48ºF B. 49ºF C. 50ºF D. 51ºF
3. From the following heats of reaction
2C (graphite) + H2(g) → C2H2(g) ∆H = 227 kJ/mol
6C (graphite) + 3H2 (g) → C6H6 (l) ∆H = 49 kJ/mol
Calculate the heat for the reaction 3C2H2 (g) → C6H6(l)
A. 26.7 kJ/mol B. -26.7 kJ/mol C. -178 kJ/mol D. -632 kJ/mol
4. From the following heats of reaction, N2(g) + 2O2(g) → 2NO2(g) ∆H = 67.6 kJ
2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g) ∆H = -113.2 kJ calculate the heat of the reaction N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g).
A. 55.6 kJ B. -55.6 kJ C. 180.0 kJ D. -180.8 kJ
5. Calculate the standard heat of reaction per mole of C6H6 for the follow ing reaction. C 6H 6(g) → 3C 2H 2(g)
A. -650.2 kJ/mol B. 597.4 kJ/mol C. 650.2 kJ/mol D. 750.1 kJ/mol
6. A 220-g sample of quinine, C6H4O2, is burned in a bomb calorimeter whose total heat capacity is 7.854 kJ/ºC. The temperature of calorimeter increases
from 23.44ºC to 30.57ºC. What is the heat of combustion per gram of quinine? (molecular weight of quinine is 108.1)
A. -123 kJ/g, -13300 kJ/mol B. -25.5kJ/g, -2750 kJ/mol C. -25.5 kJ/kg, -235 kJ/mol D. -3.57 kJ/g, -385 kJ/mol
7. Calculate the heat of reaction for the following at 25ºC and 1 atm; CaC2 (s) + 2H2O(I) → Ca(OH)2(s) + C2H2(g).
A. -20715 cal B. -24800 cal C. -29972 cal D. -35420
8. Calculate the equilibrium constant (Kp) for the following reaction at 25ºC: C(graphite) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g).
A. 8.1 E8 B. 1.2 E5 C. 2.8 E6 D. 3.1 E3
9. Calculate the change in internal energy for the combustion of 1.00 mol of propene given that change in enthalpy is -2058 kJ.
A. -2052 kJ B. 2052 kJ C. 2459 kJ D. -2450 kJ
10. A calorimeter of mass 125 g contains 130 g of water at 20ºC. A 6.1-gram mass of steam at 100 ºC is introduced to calorimeter and condensed in water.
What is the final temperature of the water? Assume that no heat is lost to the surroundings and that the value of c for the calorimeter is 0.10 kcal/kg
ºC. Heat of vaporization of water is 540 kcal/kg.
A. 38.5 ºC B. 42.5 ºC C. 43.7 ºC D. 45.5 ºC
BRINGHOME EXAM
“Be not afraid of greatness: some are born great, some achieve greatness, and
some have greatness thrust upon them” William Shakespeare
11. The temperatures of three different liquids are maintained at 15ºC, 20ºC, and 25ºC respectively. When equal masses of the first two liquids are mixed,
the final temperature is 18ºC, and when equal masses of the last two liquids are mixed, the final temperature is 24ºC. What temperature will be
achieved by mixing equal masses of the first and the last liquid?
A. 8.65 ºC B. 10.30 ºC C. 15.83 ºC D. 23.57 ºC
12. How many kilograms of ice at 0ºC must be added to 0.6 kg of water at 100 ºC in an insulated 0.1-kg copper container in order to cool the container
and its contents to 30ºC? The specific heats of water and copper are 4.2 and 0.39 kJ/kg.K, respectively; the heat of fusion of ice is 335 kJ/kg.
A. 0.39 kg B. 0.43 kg C. 0.58 kg D. 0.61 kg
13. A partly filled barrel contains 300 lb of water and 100 lb of ice at 32 ºF. How many pounds of steam at 212 ºF must be run into the barrel to bring its
contents up to 80 ºF?
A. 30.5 lb B. 36.1 lb C. 38.9 lb D. 39.7 lb
14. When 20 kJ of heat is removed from 1.2 kg of ice originally at -15ºC, its new temperature is
A. -18 ºC B. -23 ºC C. -26 ºC D. -35 ºC
15. When 10 lb of water at 50 ºF is poured over 1 lb of ice at 0 ºF, the resulting mixture is at
A. 19 ºF B. 31 ºF C. 32 ºF D. 34 ºF
16. Seven pounds of steam at atmospheric pressure, superheated to 242 ºF, is introduced simultaneously with 8 lb of ice at 25 ºF into a copper calorimeter
which weighs 5 lb and which contains 50 lb of water at 60 ºF. The heats of fusion and of vaporization for water are 144 and 970 BTU per lb, respectively.
The thermal capacities in BTU per pound per ºF may be taken as follows; steam 0.48; ice 0.50; and copper 0.093 cal/g ºC. Neglecting heat losses to
all bodies other than the calorimeter itself, the resulting temperature of the mixture is
A. 135 ºF B. 148 ºF C. 157 ºF D. 160 ºF
17. Find the amount of steam at 212 ºC which must be blown into 400 lb water originally at 70 ºF in order to make the final temperature 212 ºF. Heat losses
amount to 2000 Btu. The latent heat at 212 ºF is 970.3 Btu/lb.
A. 42.1 lbs B. 48.0 lbs C. 50.9 lbs D. 60.6 lbs
18. Determine the final temperature when 10g of copper and 20 g of lead at -100 ºC are added to 50 g of water at 50 ºC. Disregard spurious heat losses.
The atomic weight of copper is 63.55 g/mol, and the specific heat of lead = 0.032 cal/g- ºC = 0.134J/g- ºC.
A. 33.21 ºC B. 38.21 ºC C. 39.1 ºC D. 45.21 ºC
19. A steam condenser receives 10 kg per second of steam with an enthalpy of 2,570 k/kg. Steam condenses into liquid and leaves w ith an enthalpy of
160 kJ/kg. Cooling water passes through the condenser with temperature increases from 13 ºC to 24 ºC. Calculate the cooling water flow rate in kg/s.
A. 533 B. 523 C. 518 D. 528
20. Calculate the change in internal energy of the system and determine whether the process is endothermic or exothermic for a chemical reaction in
which 10.0 kJ of heat is absorbed while the system does no work on the surroundings.
A. 10 kJ, exothermic C. 10 kJ, endothermic
B. 10 kJ, exothermic D. -10 kJ, endothermic
21. Consider the followimg reaction : 2C2H2 (s) + 5O2(g → 4CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) ∆H = -2511 kJ/mol. Calculate the amount of heat transferred when 2.60
g of C2H2(g) is consumed in this reaction at constant pressure.
A. 126 kJ B. 251 kJ C. 502 kJ D. 3.26 E 3 kJ
22. A student observed that a small amount of acetone sprayed on the back of the hand felt very cool compared to a similar amount of water. Your if this
phenomenon be that
A. All organic compound do this
B. Acetone has a lower viscosity and transfer heat quanta better
C. Water has a higher heat capacity than acetone, therefore retaining more heat
D. The higher vapor pressure of acetone results in more rapid evaporation and heat loss
E. The observed effect is not real and is only imagined
23. The terms “sweet” and “sour” in natural gas terminology are used to denote the absence or presence of .
A. CO B. methane C. H 2 S D. glucose
24. It is the solid, cellular, infusible material remaining after the carbonization of coal, pitch, petroleum residue and certain other carbonaceous materials.
A. Coke B. char C. wood D. peat
25. It is a nonporous rock containing organic kerogen.
A. Tar sands C. oil shale
B. Natural gas D. coal-oil mixtures (COM)
26. It is the nonagglomerated, nonfusible residue from the thermal treatment of solid carbonaceous material.
A. Charcoal B. tanbark C. bagasse D. char
27. Higher heating value of the combustion of ethane in calorie per gram is
A. 12399.2 B. 13265.1 C. 22304 D. 272.820
28. These are materials remaining from the burning wood, coal, coke and other combustible wastes.
A. Food waste B. rubbish C. ashes and residues D. special waste
29. Energy crossing the system boundary under the influence of a temperature difference or gradient.
A. Work B. heat C. internal energy D. enthalpy
20. The specific gravity of the substance is the ratio of the density of the substance to the density of water.
Another term for specific gravity:
A. Specific heat B. unit weight C. relative density D. density
21. What is produce when calcium carbide is mixed with water?
A. acetylene B. ethylene C. propylene D. methane
22. A device substantially without moving parts, in which a fuel, such as hydrogen, natural gas, methanol, or propane, can be converted directly into twice
the quantity of electrical energy that would result from the usual boiler-turbine-generator combination.
A. fuel cell B. steam power plant C. geothermal plant D. heat engine
23. It is produced by the decay of the vegetable matter, was early identified as combustible “swamp gas”.
A. producer gas B. furnace gas C. hydrogen D. methane
A. chalk B. charcoal C. feldspar D. silica
25. It is non-Newtonian fluid which shows an apparent viscosity that decreases with increasing velocity gradients
A. pseudoplastic fluids B. Bingham fluids C. Bingham plastics D. dilatant fluids
26. Which of the following will have largest size?
A. Br B. I- C. I D. F
27. Which element has the greatest tendency to lose electrons?
A. F B. S C. Fr D. Be
28. An electron emitted from the nucleus of a radioactive element is called
A. positron B. antiproton C. Beta-particle D. alpha particle
29. H 2 is passed through oils in order to
A. Convert liquid oil into solidified oil
B. Convert unsaturated hydrocarbon to saturated hydrocarbon
C. Convert lower oil into higher oil
D. All of the above statements are correct
30. Solution of sodium metal in liquid ammonia is strongly reducing due to the presence in the solution of the following.
A. Sodium atoms B. Solvated electrons C. Solvated hydride D. Sodium amide
31. What is the effect of shaking dil. H2SO4 with a small quantity of anhydrous CuSO4?
A. The white solid dissolves to form a colourless solution
B. The white solid dissolves to form a green solution
C. The white solid turns blue but does not dissolve
D. The white solid dissolves to form a blue solution
32. Galvanization is the
A. Deposition of zinc on iron B. Deposition of Al on Fe
C. Deposition of tin on Fe D. Deposition of Cu on Fe
33. Cinnabar is ore of
A. Hg B. Cu C. Pb D. Zn
34. Bleaching powder is obtained by the interaction of chlorine and
A. Dilute solution of Ca(OH)2 B. Concentration solution of Ca(OH)2
C. Dry calcium oxide D. Dry slaked lime
35. Mercury is transported in metal containers made of
A. silver B. Lead C. Iron D. Aluminum
36. In tubes having very small diameters, liquids are observed to rise or fall relative to the level of the surrounding liquid. What do you call this
phenomenon?
A. fluidity B. capillarity C. surface tension D. viscosity
37. Viscosities can change with time assuming all other conditions to be constant. If viscosities increase with time up to a finite value, how do you call the
fluid?
A. pseudoplastic fluid B. colloidal fluid C. rheopectic fluid D. thixotropic fluid
38. Which of the following fluids exhibit viscosities that increase with increasing agitation but they return rapidly to their normal viscosity after the agitation
ceases?
A. Bingham fluids C. Newtonian fluids
B. dilatant fluids D. pseudoplastic fluids
39. What do you call the volume occupied by a unit mass of fluid?
A. specific volume B. density C. specific gravity D. specific weight
40. What device is used to protect the pipeline from bursting due to pressure rise when the water in the pipeline is brought to rest?
A. surge tank B. check valve C. sluice gate D. float
Crystalline Solids
1. Austenite form of iron has FCC crystal lattice structure, whereas its alpha form has BCC crystal lattice structure. Assuming closest packed arrangement of
iron atoms, what will be the ratio of density of Austenite to that alpha iron?
A. 1:1.088 B. 1:1.837 C. 1:1 D. 1.088:1
Nuclear Chemistry
2. The frequency of an x -ray is 6.21 E18 Hz. What is its wavelength?

A. 1.86E-27 m B. 4.83E-11 m C. 1.11E-17 m D. 5.37E-28 m
3. If the infrared radiation has a wav elength of 3.5 microns, what will be the wave no. is cm-1 ?
A. 3000 B. 2500 C. 2900 D. 2700
4. Determine the frequency of light having a wavelength of 1 angstrong.
A. 3.0E 18 Hz B. 3.0E 17 Hz C. 3.0E 16 Hz D. 3.0E 15 Hz
5. The siren of a fire engine has a frequency of 500 Hz. If the fire engine approaches a stationary car at 20 m/s, what frequency does the person in a car
hear?
A. 471 Hz B. 500 Hz C. 531 Hz D. 565 Hz
6. What is the energy equivalent of a mass of 1 kg?
A. 9 E16 J B. 9 E13 J C. 9 E10 J D. 9 E7 J
7. What is the binding energy per nucleon in a deuteron (deuterium nucleus) in electron volts?
Deuteron = 2.01355u, proton = 1.00727663u, neutron = 1.0086654u
A. 1.48 E5 eV B. 1.46 E6 eV C. 1.46 E7 eV D. 1.46 E8 eV
8. The radiant energy of the sun is due to
A. Combustion B. nuclear fusion C. disintegration D. nuclear fission
9. An electron emitted from the nucleus of a radioactive element is called
A. Positron B. antiproton C. Beta-particle D. none of these
10. Cathode rays are
A. Alpha particles B. electrons C. gamma rays D. protons
11. A nucleus has a mass no. of 155. What is its mass no after alpha emission?
A. 153 B. 150 C. 151 D. 159
12. When U-235 nucleus is struck by a thermal neutron, fission occurs with the release of neutrons. If the fission fragments are Sr-90 and Xe-144, how many
neutrons are released?
A. 0 B. 4 C. 2 D. 3
13. Given the equation 94Pu239 + 0n1 → 58Ce144 + 20n1. The missing component of the equation is
A. 36Kr94 at the reactant side C. 36 Kr94 at the product side
B. The equation is already complete D. 36 Kr94 should be added on both sides
14. The half-life of Bi-210 is five days. In what period of time w ould the activity of a given sample of isotope be reduced by 20% ?
15. A certain radioactive material is known to decay at a rate proportional to the amount present. If initially 500 mg of the material is present and after 3 years
20% of the original mass has decayed, find the amount remaining after 200 weeks.
A. 355.5 mg B. 375.6 mg C. 372.4 mg D. 317.8 mg
16. In a chemical transformation, substance A changes into another substance at the rate proportional to the amount of A unchanged. If initially there was 40
g of A and 1 hr later 18 g, when will 90% of A be transformed?
A. 2.88 hr B. 2.15 hr C. 1.92 hr D. 1.50 hr
17. The number of undecayed nuclei in a sample of bromine-87 decreased by a factor of 4 over a period of time 112 seconds. What is the rate constant for
the decay of bromine-87?
A. 56 sec B. 0.693 sec C. 0.0124 sec D. 0.00619 sec
18. A sample of wheat recovered from a cave was analyzed and gave 12.8 disintegrations of carbon-14 per minute per gram of carbon. What is the age of the
grain? Carbon from living materials decays at rate of 15.3 disintegrations per minute per gram of carbon? The half-life of carbon-14 is 5730 years.
DAILY TEST
1. Polonium crystalize in a simple cubic pattern with a unit cell length of a 3.36 Angstrong. Estimate the density of Po in g/cm 3.
A. 5.44 B. 6.12 C. 7.84 D. 9.20
2. What is the binding energy per nucleon in a deuteron (deuterium nucleus) in joules?
Deuteron = 2.01355u, proton = 1.00727663u, neutron = 1.0086654u
A. 2.34 E-25 B. 2.34 E-26 C. 2.34 E-12 D. 2.34 E-13
3. The wavelength of a beam is 24 micrometer. What is its wave no.?
A. 380/cm B. 417/cm C. 440/cm D. 490/cm
4. The wavelength of a beam is 24 micrometer. What is its wave number?
A. 8.29 E-21 J B. 2.78 E-20 J C. 3.21 E-19 J D. 3.08 E-17J
5. What is the symbol for the nucleus remaining after 35Cl17 undergoes beta emission?
A. 35Krl18 B. 35Cl18 C. 35Arl17 D. 35 Ar18
6. A nucleus has an atomic number of 40. What is its atomic number after beta emission?
A .42 B. 44 C. 36 D. 41
7. The half-life of tritium is 12.5 years. How much will remain after 100 years if you started out with 256 grams?
A. 2.56 g B. 1 g C. 16 g D. 82 g
8. The half-life of phosphorus-33 is 25 days. How much of a 128-g sample will remain after 150 days?
A. 16 g B. 8 g C. 4 g D. 2 g
9. A 6.30-mg sample of a newly discovered isotope was analyzed and found to contain only 4.75 mg after a period of 27.2 hours. What is the half-life
( in hours) of the isotope?
A .27.2 B. 8.13 C. 92.3 D. 66.7
10. A fossil fern containing 0.110 lbm of carbon is carbon dated to determine its age. The decay rate of C -14 in the fossil is 191 decays/min. How old is the
fern? (The half-life of C-14 is 5730 years, and the rate of decay of C -14 in a living organism is 6800 decays/min-lbm C)
BRINGHOME EXAM
“Problems cannot be solved at the same level of awareness that created them.” – Albert Einstein
1. Aluminum has a face-centered cubic unit cell, that is, an atom at each corner unit cell and an atom at the center of each face. The Al-Al distance (2r) is
0.2863 nm. Calculate the density of aluminum. The mass of aluminum atom is 26.98 amu.
A. 1.3 g/ml B. 2.1 g/ml C. 2.7 g/ml D. 3.5 g/m
2. What is the energy of a photon (in J) of red light with a frequency of 4.6 E14 H z?
A. 3.05 E-19 B. 3.05 E-17 C. 7.24 E-16 D. 7.24 E-14
3. What is the de Broglie wavelength associated with an electron with a velocity of 6 E6 m/s?
A. 4.12 E-9 m B. 1.21 E-10 m C. 9.54 E-11 m D. 2.14 E-12 m
4. What is the wavelength of blue light, which has a frequency of 6.4 E14/s?
A. 240 nm B. 470 nm C. 520 nm D. 655 nm
5. What is the frequency of radiation that has a wavelength of 0.589 pm?
A. 1.96 E-21 Hz B. 5.09 Hz C. 5.09 E20 Hz D. 5.09 E22 Hz
6. What is the wavelength of radiation that has a frequency of 5.11 E11 Hz?
A. 5.87 E-12 m B. 5.87 E-4 cm C. 5.87 E-4 m D. 5.87 E-2 m
7. What is the product formed from Po-207 by positron emission?
A. At-207 B. Bi-206 C. At-208 D. Bi-207
8. What is the product formed from Th-232 by alpha particle emission?
A. Ra-232 B. Ac-232 C. Th-228 D. Ra-228
9. Given the nuclear reaction 92U 236 + 0 n1 → 62Sm160 + 30Zn72 . To complete the equation, which of the following should be done?
A. Add 40n1 at the reactant side C. add 40 n1 to the product side
B. Add 2He4 at the product side D. add 2He4 at the reactant side
10. How many protons, neutrons, and electrons are in the carbon isotope C-14?
A. 6 protons, 6 electrons and 8 neutrons C. 6 protons, 6 electrons and 14 neutrons
B. 6 protons, 8 electrons and 14 neutrons D. 14 protons, 6 electrons and 8 neutrons
11. What is emitted in the following nuclear reaction?
N-14 → C-13 + ?
A. Electron B. neutron C. beta particle D. proton
12. What does X represent in the following nuclear reaction?
13 27 Al + 2 4 He → 15 30 P + X
A. Beta particle B. positron C. alpha particle D. neutron
13. The most penetrating of the following radiation is
A. An alpha particle B. an electron C. a positron D. a gamma ray
14. Au-198 has a half-life of 2.70 days. Assuming you start with a 10 mg sample of Au-198, how much will remain after 10 days?
A. 0.768 mg B. 0.0271 mg C. 1.27 mg D. 0.631 mg
15. The half-life for the beta decay of Pa-233 is 27.4 days. How many days must pass to reduce a 5-g sample of Pa-233 to 0.625 g?
A. 27.4 days B. 137 days C. 109.6 days D. 82.2 days
16. I-131 has a half-life of 8.04 days. Assuming you start with a 1.35 mg sample of I-131, how much will remain after 13 days?
A. 0.268 mg B. 0.422 mg C. 0.440 mg D. 0.835 mg
17. The half-life of the beta decay of cesium-137 is 30 yrs. How many years must pass to reduce a 25-mg sample of cesium-137 to 0.78 mg?
18. Cobalt-60, which emits gamma rays and beta particles, is widely used in medicine to kill cancer cells. If a patient is given 6.80 micrograms of cobalt-60,
how much will remain after 20 years if its half-life is 5.27 years?
A. 0.425 micrograms C. 94.3 micrograms
B. 0.490 micrograms D. 0.0159 micrograms
19. The half-life of sulfur-35 is 88 days. If 8 g of sulfur-35 exists on day one, what fraction will remain after 264 days?
A. 1 g B. 0.5 g C. 2 g D. 4 g
20. The half-life of tritium (hydrogen-3) is 12.3 yrs. If 48 mg of tritium is released from a nuclear power plant during the course of an accident, what mass of
these nuclei will remain after 49.2 yrs?
A. 3 mg B. 0 mg C. 6 mg D. 12 mg
21. In the troposphere, ozone is produced during the daylight and consumed during the darkness. Determine the half-life of ozone if it is depleted to 10% of
its initial value after 10 hrs of darkness.
A. 3 hrs B. 3.5 hrs C. 4 hrs D. 4.5 hrs
22. The half-life of a certain first order reaction is 60 minutes. How long will it take for 90% of the reaction to occur?
A. 1.99 min B. 19.9 min C. 199 min D. 0.199 min
23. A radioactive material has a half-life of 68.3 minute. What percentage of the original sample will remain at the end of 3 hrs?
A. 16.2% B. 12.7% C. 21.4% D. 83.7%
24. A certain reaction is first order in A. the specific rate constant is 3 E-3/s. The half-life is
A. 2.1 E-3 s B. 100 s C. 231 s D. 768 s
25. If 12.5 micrograms of a radioactive isotope remain out of 50 micrograms after 12 hrs. have passed, the half-life of the radioisotope is
A. 24 hrs B. 12 hrs C. 6 hrs D. 3 hrs
26. If 1 g of an isotope has a half-life of 15 hrs, the half-life of the 0.50 g sample is
A. 15 hrs B. 30 hrs C. 7.5 hrs D. 60 hrs
27. A certain radioactive substance has a half-life of 38 hrs. Find how long it takes for 90% of the radioactivity to be dissipated?
A. 12.6 hrs B. 1.26 hrs C. 126 hrs D. 1260 hrs
28. A physicist starts out with 320 g of a radioactive element Z and after 20 mins he has only 20 g left. What is the half-life of the element Z?
A. 2 min B. 3 min C. 4 min D. 5 min
29. A 0.470-kg sample of charcoal recovered from the excavation of an ancient campfire has an activity of 0.5 E-3 𝜇Ci. What is its approximate age?
Half-life of C-14 = 5730 yrs
30. A sample of wood from an Egyptian thumb gave a C -14 activity per mass of 7.3 per minute per gram. What is the age of the wood?
Half-life of C-14 = 5730 yrs and initial activity of C-14 is 12.6 min per gram.
31. The second is the duration of radiation of what radioactive element?
A. Magnesium B. Krypton C. Cesium D. Platinum
32. For first order reactions the rate constant, k, has the units
A. Mol/L-time B. L/mol C. time D. 1/time
33. It is the time required for the concentration of a reactant to drop to one-half of its initial value.
A. Decay life B. doubling time C. half-life D. normal lapse rate
34. It is a particle that has the same mass as an electron but opposite charge.
A. Beta particle B. neutrino C. positron D. nucleon
35. Which of the following types of radiation will be a stopped by a piece of paper?
A. Alpha B. neutron C. gamma ray D. x-ray
36. The mass of a nucleus is less than the total mass of its nucleons. This fact indicates that some of the mass has been converted to
A. Radioactivity B. photoelectric effect C. binding energy D. thermal energy
37. Which of kind of nuclear radiation has high energy and no mass?
A. Alpha B. gamma C. beta D. neutron
38. Which substance is used as a coolant in a nuclear reactor?
A. Neutrons B. hydrogen C. plutonium D. heavy water
39. The amount of fissionable materials large enough to maintain the chain in nuclear fission is called the
A. Nuclear binding energy B. supercritical mass C. critical mass D. mass defect
40. The mass defect in a particular nucleus is
A. The difference between the mass of the protons and the mass of the neutrons
B. The mass that has been converted into nuclear binding energy
C. The difference between the calculated and the experimental nuclei mass which is the mass that has been converted into nuclei binding
energy
D. The experimental error in determining the nuclei mass
41. The curie is the measure of the
A. No. of disintegrations per sec of a radioactive substance
B. No. of alpha particles emitted by exactly 1 gram of a radioactive substance
C. Total energy absorbed by an object exposed to a radioactive source
D. Lethal threshold for radiation exposure
42. Which one of the following devices converts radioactive emission to light for detection?
A. Geiger counter B. photographic film C. scintillation counter D. none of these
43. Of the following processes, which one will change the atomic no. by +1?
A. Gamma emission B. electron capture C. alpha emission D. beta emission
44. Of the following processes, which one does not change the atomic no.?
A. Positron B. Beta emission C. alpha emission D. gamma emission
45. The transmission of heat from a hot to a cold body by electromagnetic wave is called:
A. Conduction B. convection C. radiation D. absorption
46. What do you call the changing of an atom of an element to an atom of a different atomic mass?
A. Atomic pile B. atomic energy C. atomization D. atom transmutation
47. Which type of radiation is not a stream of charged particles?
A. Alpha rays B. beta rays C. gamma rays D. cosmic rays
48. Which isotope is particularly useful or both diagnostic and therapeutic work with the thyroid gland?
A. Cobalt-60 B. iodine-131 C. technetium-99m D. tritium
49. rays are fast moving electrons.
A. Gamma B. beta C. alpha D. kappa
50. The form of energy in sunlight is
A. Chemical B. mechanical C. nuclear D. radiant
51. A piece of wood, reportedly from King Tut’s tomb, was burned, and 7.32 g CO2 was collected. The total radioactivity in the CO2 was 10.8 dis/min. How old
was the wood sample? Carbon from living materials decays at a rate of 15.3 disintegrations per min per g of carbon? The half-life of C-14 is 5730 yrs.
Properties of Fluids
1. A special-purpose piece of laboratory glassware, called a pycnometer, is used to measure liquid densities. It has a volume of 25 cc, and a mass of 17.24 g
when it is full of air. When filled with a liquid of unknown density, its mass = 45.0 g. What is the density of this liquid?
A. 1.11 g/mL B. 1.25 g/mL C. 1.42 g/mL D. 1.55 g/mL
2. The vapor pressure of an organic liquid is given by the Antoine equation ln P = 14.5463 – 2940.46/(T-49.19) where P is in kPa and T is in K. What is the
normal boiling point of the substance?
A. 373.2 K B. 1022.8 K C. 345.4 K D. 283.7 K
3. The viscosity coefficient of gaseous chlorine at 1 atm pressure and 20ºC is 147.0 micropoise. Find the molecular diameter of the chlorine molecule.
A. 1.3 E-7 cm B. 1.3 E-8 cm C. 4.3 E-8 cm D. 4.3 E-7 cm
4. The pressure head under which a fluid is moving through a 3 mm tube, which is 78.74 inches long, is 6.5 N/cm 2 . If 0.04 m3 of this fluid passes through the
tube every 1 minute, what is the viscosity of this fluid?
A. 9.7 E5 Pa-s B. 9.7 E-5 Pa-s C. 9.07 E5 Pa-s D. 9.07 E-5 Pa-s
5. To what height will 68ºF ethyl alcohol rise in a 0.005 in internal diameter glass capillary tube? The density of the alcohol is 49 lb/ft3 and surface tension is
0.0227 N/m.
A. 0.0751 m B. 0.0923 m C. 0.1521 m D. 0.201 m
Real Gas
6. Calculate the reduced pressure of nitrogen at 100 atm.

A. 1.50 B. 2.08 C. 2.75 D. 2.99
7. Estimate the molar volume of CO2 at 500 K and 100 atm by treating it as Van Der Waals gas.
A. 0.152 L/mol B. 0.254 L/mol C. 0.305 L/mol D. 0.366 L/mol
8. A mass of 500 g of gaseous ammonia contained in a 30,000 cm3 steel bomb immersed in a constant-temperature bath at 65ºC. Calculate the pressure of
the gas using the Redlich-Kwong equation. Tc = 405.6K; Pc = 111.3 atm
A. 27.5 bars B. 23.86 bars C. 25.4 bars D. 30.7 bars
Colligative Properties of Electrolytes
9. Which of these 0.1 M solution will give the highest boiling at 1 atm
A. Table salt solution C. sugar solution
B. Barium chloride D. potassium chloride
10. LaCl3 is a salt, and like virtually all salts it is completely dissociated into ions in aqueous solution. Suppose we dissolve 0.2453 g LaCl3 in 10 g of H2O.
What will be the boiling point of the solution at atmospheric pressure, assuming ideal solution behavior?
A. 100.205ºC B. 100.051ºC C. 100.410ºC D. 100.103ºC
11. The osmotic pressure at STP of a solution made from 1 L of NaCl (aq) containing 117 g of NaCl is? Note: NaCl forms a strong electrolytes
A. 44.77 atm B. 48.87 atm C. 89.54 atm D. 117 atm
12. A 0.20 mole aqueous solution freezes at -0.680ºC. The osmotic pressure at 0ºC is
Electrochemical Cell
13. Given-standard electrode potentials

Eº
Fe++ + 2e → Fe -0.440V
Fe+++ + 3e → Fe -0.036V
The standard electrode potential (Eº) for Fe+++ + e → Fe++ is
A. -0.476V B. -0.404V C. +0.404V D. +0.771V
14. What is the standard cell potential for the cell Zn; Zn+2 (IM) ║Cu+2 (IM); Cu (Eº for Zn+2 | Zn = -76 V; Eº for Zn+2 | Cu = =0.34 V)
A. -0.076 + 0.34 = -0.42 V C. +0.34 – (-0.76) = +1.10V
15. Calculate the potential of the cell: Zn/Zn(2+) Fe+2(0.01M)/Pt. The standard emf of the cell 1.5328
A. 1.36 V B. 1.71 V C. 2.13 V D. 2.56V
DAILY TEST
1. Calculate the value of the potential of the cell. Zn|Zn2+ (1M)IIFe2+ (1M)IPI.
A. 1.53 V B. 1.24 V C. 0.77V D. 2.1V
2. What is the potential of the cell –Zn/ Zn2+ (0.1M)// Ag+ (0.01M) / Ag? The standard cell potential is 1.562 V.
A. 0.763 V B. 1.473 V C. 0.799V D. 0.548 V
3. The best conductor of electricity is
A. Gold B. Silver C. copper D. aluminum
4. Benzene and toluene from nearly an ideal solution. Calculate the total pressure above a solution having a mole fraction of benzene 0.80. T = 20ºC
A. 40.7 mm B. 59.6 mm C. 64.2 mm D. 70.8 mm
5. Vapor pressure of 2-butyne at 27.2ºC.
A. 760 mmHg B.400 mmHg C. 500 mmHg D.650 mmHg
(6-7). The equilibrium system acetone(1)-acetonitrile(2)-nitromethane(3) at 80ºC at 110 kPa has the overall composition z1=0.45, z2=0.35, z3= 0.20. Assuming
that Raoult’s law is appropriate to this system and knowing the vapor pressures at 80ºC of acetone, acetonitrile, and nitromethane are 195.75 kPa, 97.84 kPa,
and 50.32 kPa respectively.
6. The mole fraction of vapor in the system is
A. 0.7364 B. 0.2636 C. 0.500 D. 0.971
7. The mole fraction of nitromethane in the liquid is
A. 0.2859 B. 0.3810 C. 0.3331 D. 0.1524
8. Use the Van der Waals equation of state to calculate the pressure exerted by exactly one mole of gaseous ammonia, NH3, held at a temperature of 100 K
in a vessel of volume 2.50 dm3. The values of the Van der Waals parameters for ammonia are a = 4.225 atm dm6 mol-2 and b = 3.71 x 10-2 dm3 mol-1
A. 3.33 kPa B. 3.31 Mpa C. 1970 Pa D.224 kPa
9. A certain liquid has a viscosity of 1E4 poise and a density of 3.2 g/ml. How long will it take for platinum ball with a 2.5 mm radius to fall 1 cm through the
liquid? The density of platinum is 21.4 g/cm2.
A. 4.05 s B. 25.4 s C. 33.4 s D. 48.9 s
10. To what height will 68ºF ethyl alcohol rise in a 0.005 in internal diameter glass capillary tube? The density of the alcohol is 49 lb/ft3 and its surface tension
is 0.00156 lbf/ft with contact anle of 0º.
A. 4.37 in B. 3.67 in C. 3.87 in D. 1.47 in
BRINGHOME EXAM
“He who conquers himself is the mightiest warrior.”
Confucius – BC 551-479, Chinese ethical Teacher, Philosopher
1. The e.m.f. value for oxidation from H 2 at 1.0 atm to H + at 1.0 x 10-1 M is
A. 0.00V B. 0.059V C. -0.059V D. 0.030V
2. The number of electrons necessary to produce 1.00 gm of Cu from Cu2+ at the cathode of an electrolytic cell is
A. 1.89x1022 B. 3.04x103 C. 9.47x1021 D. 1.91x1025
3. When 5.50 g of biphenyl (C12H10) is dissolved in 10 g benzene, the boiling point increases by 0.903ºC. What is the Kb of benzene in K/molal?
A. 2.12 B. 2.53 C. 2.80 D. 3.06
4. Pressure of saturated bromine at 300 ºK in bar.
A. 0.124 B. 0.310 C. 0.680 D. 1.330
5. A 190-cm3 sample of argon gas at 25ºC required 8.5 sec to flow through a 1.00 m tube of 1.0 mm radius. The inlet pressure for the gas was 1.02 bar, and
the outlet pressure was 1.007 bar. The volume of the gas was measure at 1.007 bars. What is the viscosity of the gas in Pa-s?
A. 4.6E-6 B. 2.3E-5 C. 8.9E-4 D. 5.1E-3
6. In galvanic cell, there is conversion of
A. Chemical energy to electrical energy C. electrical energy to chemical energy
B. The electrical energy to a mechanical energy D. mechanical energy to chemical energy
7. A gas deviates most from ideal behavior when it is subjected to
A. Low T and high P C. low T and low P
B. High T and high P D. high T and low P
8. Calculate the volume that 1.5 mol of (C2H5) 2S would occupy at 105 ºC and 0.75 bar. Assume that Van der Waals constants are; a=19 dmc –bar/mol2 and
b=0.1214 dm3/mol.
A. 62 dm3 B. 75 dm3 C. 63 dm3 D. 70 dm3
9. The boiling point of the immiscible liquid system naphthalene – water is 98 ºC under a pressure of 733 mmHg. The vapor pressure of water at 98 ºC is
707 mmHg. Calculate the weight % of naphthalene in the distillate.
A. 20.7% B. 19.5% C. 18.8% D. 18.2%
10. Calculate the freezing point of a solution containing 4.27 g of sucrose in 50 g water.
A. -0.45 ºC B. -0.65 ºC C. -0.76 ºC D. -0.82 ºC
11. One colligative property of solutions is its freezing point depression. Which observation will show that the solute is an electrolyte? ∆tf/m
A. Is not a constant B. is less than K f C. is greater than K f D. is not K f
12. It is the lowest possible temperature of matter.
A. 0 celsius B. 0 farenheit C. absolute zero D. critical zero
13. Assuming 100% dissociation of the solutes, what would be the freezing point depression for an aqueous solution that is 0.10 m in NaCl and 0.10 m in
CaCl2?
A. 0.93ºK B. -0.93 ºC C. 1.32 ºC D. -1.82 ºC
14. If 0.200 liter of 0.100 M NaCl are electrolyzed until the OH - concentration is 0.0500M, how many moles of Cl2 gas are produced?
A. 5.00 x 10-3 mole B. 1.00x10-2 C. 5.00x10-2 mole D. 1x10-1 mole
15. If aqueous CuSO4 is electrolyzed for one minute with a current of 2.00 ampere, the volume of oxygen produced at STP at the anode is
A. 3.10 x 10-4 liter B. 6.96 ml C. 1.16 x 10-4 liter D. 1.16 ml
16. What is the cathode material in the dry cell?
A. Magnesium B. lead C. graphite D. zinc
17. One of the difference between the voltaic cell and an electrolytic cell is that in an electrolytic cell
A. The electron flow is toward the anode
B. O2 gas is produced in the cathode
C. An electric current is produced by a chemical reaction
D. A nonspontaneous reaction is forced to occur
18. In an alkaline dry-cell battery, what chemical replaces the NH4Cl found in the normal dry cell?
A. MnO2 B. KOH C. Zn D. NH3
19. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(I) Oxidation occurs at the anode
(II) Reduction occurs at the cathode
(III) A reducing agent is oxidized during a redox reaction
A. I and II only B. I only C. III only D. all
20. The voltage of a galvanic cell does not depend on which of the following parameters?
A. Concentration of solutions C. temperature
B. Pressure D. volume
21. The direction of electron flow is
A. From anode to cathode B. from cathode to anode C. either way D. none of these
22. Oxidation of the solution (or solute) occurs at the
A. Anode B. cathode C. neither D. both
23. All the half-cell potential (∆E) use the as the reference zero point
A. Hydrogen electrode B. oxygen half-cell C. carbon half-cell D. arbitrarily net
24. When two batteries of the same rated voltage are connected in series; its new rated voltage will be the rated voltage of one battery
A. Halved B. twice C. the same D. thrice
25. When 6 light bulbs are connected in series and one of the bulbs got busted, the rest of the bulb will
A. Still light up B. not light up C. be destroyed D. get busted
26. When two batteries of the same rated current are connected in parallel, its new rated current will be the rated current of one battery.
A. Half B. twice C. the same D. thrice
27. When Ferro magnets are heated above a critical temperature, its ability to possess permanent magnetism disappears. This temperature is called
A. Curie temperature B. Coulomb temperature D. Maxwell temperature D. ampere temperature
28. When 6 light bulbs are connected in parallel and one of the bulbs, the rest of the bulbs will
A. Still light up B. no longer light up C. be destroyed D. get busted
29. 10.5 L of N2 at 25ºC and 760 mmHg are bubbled through an aqueous solution of a non-volatile solute, whereby the solution losses 0.2455 g in weight. If
the total pressure above the solution is 760 mmHg, what is the mole fraction of the solute in the solvent?
A. 0.982 B. 0.018 C. 0.653 D. 0.347
30. Estimate the height to which water at 21 C will rise in a capillary tube of diameter 3.05 cm. Assume it is clean glass of contact angle 0º and surface tension
of 0.0729.
A. 9.75 mm B. 5.56 mm C. 7.35 mm D. 8.67 mm
31. A liquid of density 850 kg/m3 having a surface tension of 0.055 N/m, with rise how far in a glass capillary of 1.4 mm inside diameter?
A. 19 mm B. 14 mm C. 5 mm D. 0.45 mm
32. Determine the specific gravity of a powder from the following data;
weight of sample in air-------------------------------------------------------- 3.556 g
weight of pycnometer filled with water------------------------------------- 20.004 g
weight of pycnometer + sample + enough water to fill it--------------- 21.782 g
A. 1.2 B. 1.8 C. 2 D. 2.4
33. What is the mass density in kg/m3 of a liquid whose specific weight is 9000 N/m3.
A. 976.7 B. 876.4 kg/ m3 C. 917.43 kg/ m3 D. 768.7 kg/ m3
34. The specific gravity of N2 at 80ºF and 745 mmHg compared to air at the same condition is in the ratio of
A. 0.97 B. 79 C. 1.23 D. 1.32
35. The specific gravity of an unknown liquid is 1.5, find its density in kg/m3
A. 1000 B. 1500 C. 155 D. 93.6
36. A cylindrical glass tube 1.0 cm in lengths is filled with ethanol. The mass of ethanol needed to fill the tube is found to be 9.64 g. Calculate the inner
diameter of the tube in cm. (The density of ethanol is 0.78 g/mL.)
A. 3.94 cm B. 0.0509 cm C. 0.905 cm D. 1.02 cm
37. A substance with a specific gravity of 0.5 is times as dense as water.
A. One-half B. 2 C. 5 D. 3
38. A cube of plastic 1.5 cm on a side has a mass of 1.9 g. What is its density in g/m3?
A. 1.9 B. 0.56 C. 1.78 D. 3.4
39. The density of liquid bromine is 3.12 g/ml. What is the mass of 0.250 L of bromine?
A. 0.780 g B. 780 g C. 0.0801 g D. 80.1 g
40. A spherical ball of lead has a diameter of 5.0 cm. What is the mass in grams of the sphere if l lead has a density of 11.34 g/cm3?
A. 5.9 E3 B. 7.4 E2 C. 5.2 E2 D. 65
41. If a liquid has a specific gravity of 1.01, its density is
A. 10.1 g/ml B. 1.01 g/ml C. 1.01 cm3 D. 10.1 cm3
42. An iron block weighs 5 Newtons and has a volume of 200 cubic centimeters. What is the density of the block in kg/m3?
A. 800 B. 988 C. 1255 D. 2550
43. A typical mud is 70 wt % sand and 30 wt % water. What is it density? The sand is practically pure quartz (SiO2), for which density is 165 lb/ft3 .
A. 110.4 kg/m3 B. 110.4 lb/ft3 C. 1769 lb/ft3 D. 1769 kg/L
44. Calculate the specific weight of water at a place where the acceleration of gravity is 32.2 ft/s 2.
A. 7800 N/m3 B. 8680 N/m3 C. 9792 N/m3 D. 1120 N/m3
INITIAL PREBOARD EXAMINATION
Day 1- Physical Chemistry & Chemical Calculations (30% )
1. Deuterium or heavy hydrogen has an atomic number of 1 and a mass of

A. 3 B. 2 C. 1 D. 4
2. 207 64 Po ____+ 4 2 He
A. 203 84 Pb B. 207 64 Pb C. 203 82Pb D. 20582 Pb
3. For an enzyme that displays Michaelis-Menten kinetics, the reaction velocity (as a fraction of V max) observed at (S)= 2 K M will be
A. 0.09 B. 0.33 C. 0.66 D. 0.91
4. Which is the sweetest of al the sugar?
A. fructose B. glucose C. lactose D. sucrose
A. 9.43 B. 8.76 C. 8.01 D. 7.65
6. According to bronsted- Lowry theory, an acid is substance that can
A. accept an electron pair C. donate an electron pair
B. accept a proton D. donate a proton.
7. What type of colloid is mayonnaise?
A. aerosol B. emulsion C. solid foam D. sol
8. An instrument for determining the effect of polarized lights as it passes through the material being tested.
A. spectrophotometer B. polariscope C. gyroscope D. telescope
9. Which of the following is the major energy fuel for the brain?
A. acetate B. lactate C. glucose D. glycine
10. Which of the following is not an amino acid?
A. glutamic acid B. aspartic acid C. glutamine D. palmitic acid
11. Three pounds of water at 100 F is added to 5 pounds of water at 40 F. What is the final temperature of the mixture/
A. 62.5 C B. 58.7 C C. 72.5 C D. 68.5 C
12. A water simple contains two nitrogen species. The concentration of NH3 is 30 mg/L and the concentration in the units of mg/L?
A. 25.8 B. 32.1 C. 38.9 D. 42.5
13. A water simple has the following chemical composition; Ca2+= 15 mg/L, Mg2+ = 10mg/L, SO42- = 30mg/L. What is the total hardness in units of mg/L as
Ca CO 3?
A. 64 B. 72 C. 79 D. 88
14. What is the root-mean-square velocity of oxygen molecules at 70 F?
15. What is the average velocity of nitrogen molecule at 20 C?

A. 330 m/s B. 380 m/s C. 430 m/s D. 470 m/s
16. The phenomenon in which a steel needle can, with proper care, be made to float on the surface of some water illustrates a property of liquid known as;
A. compressibility B. polarizability C. surface tension D. triple point
17. If aqueous Cu SO4 is electrolyzed for one minute with a current of 2.00 ampere, the volume of oxygen produced at STP at the anode is
A. 3.10x 10-4 liter B. 6.96 ml C. 1.16 x 10-4 liter D. 1.16 ml
18. Br referring only to the periodic table, arrange the following in order of increasing electronegativity: Ga, P, As, S, O, F.
A. Ga < P<As<S<O<F C. Ga<As<P<O,S<F
B. Ga<As<S<P,O<F D. Ga<As<P<S<O<F
19. The tetrahedral bond angle is approximately
A. 900 B. 180o C. 109o.5 D. 120o
20. How many grams of iron oxide, Fe2O3, can be produced from 2.50 g of oxygen reacting with solid iron?
A. 12.5 g B. 8.32 g C. 2.50 g D. 11.2 g
21. 60.0 of a dry -cleaning fluid was analysed and found to contain 10.80 g C, 1.36 g H, and 47.84 g Cl. Determine its empirical formula.
A. C3h3Cl3 B. C2H3Cl3 C. C4H6Cl5 D. CH2Cl2
22. It is desired to make a 0.1 M solution by adding water to 5 grams of copper sulfate crystals, CuSO 4. 5H 2 O, what must be the final volume of the solution?
A. 180 mL B. 200 mL C. 220 mL D. 240 mL
23. Calculate the molar concentration of NaBr solution which has a density of 1.167 g/ml and a molality of 2.28
A. 2.16 M B. 2.80 M. C. 3.12 M D. 3.40 M
24. What is the normality of a solution made by diluting 50 mL of H2SO4 (sp.gr= 1.080, containing 11.6% H2SO4 by weight) to a liter of solution?
A. 0.24 B. 0.13 C. 0.65 D. 0.98
25. A solution is made by mixing 30.0 ml of 8.00 MHCl, 100 ml of 2.00 M HCl, and enough water to make 200 ml of solution. What is the molarity of HCl in the final
solution? Ans. 2.20M
26. A current of 10 amperes is passed through a molten magnesium chloride for 3.0 hours. How many moles of magnesium metal could be produced via electrolysis?
A. 2.2 B. 1.1 C. 0.56 D. 0.37
27. Estimate the number of tons of carbon dioxide over square mile of the earth’s surface if the atmospheric pressure is 760 mmHG and air contains 0.047% of
carbon dioxide by weight.
A. 13600 B. 13400 C. 13300 D. 13100
28. A scientist invented a new temperature scale called the Howard Scale(°H) and assign the boiling and freezing points of water the values 200°H and-200°H,
respectively. What is the temperature of 50°F equivalent to on the Howard scale?
A. -140°H B. -160°H C. -180°H D. -120°H
29. Gas A is at 30°C and gas B is at 20°C. Both gases are at 1 atmosphere. What is the ratio of the volume of 1 mole of gas A to 1 mole of gas B?
A. 1:1 B. 2:3 C. 3:2 D. 303:293
30. An ideal gas is in a vessel of volume, V1, at 1 atm. The gas is released and allowed to expand into an evacuated at 0.5 L bulb. Once equilibrium has been
reached, the temperature remains the same while the pressure is 500mmHg. Find V1.
A. 0.853 L B. 0.961 L C. 1.069 L D. 1.077 L
31. A 330 cc sample of ideal gas weighing 72 grams at 18°C and 748 torr is placed in a evacuated vessel at volume 1320 cc. If the gas is to be fill the whole vessel
at 748 torr, to what temperature must the assembly be heated?
A. 391°C B. 1437 K C. 18°C D. 1164°C
32. What is the weight of one liter of methane under normal conditions?
A. 0.545 g B. 0.715 g C. .0.650 g D. 1.05 g
33. O2 gas effused through a pinhole in 5 sec. How long will it take an equivalent amount of CO2 to effused under the same conditions?
34. A gaseous mixture contains 20 g of N2, 83 g of O2 and 45g of CO2. Calculate the average molecular weight of the mixture.
A.30.1 g/mol B. 34.2 g/mol C. 35.8 g/mol D. 36.3 g/mol
35. At certain temperature, the saturation humidity of air-water vapor system is found to be 0.065 kg of water / kg of dry air at 101.3 kPa. What is the vapor pressure
of the water at this temperature?
A. 3.9 kPa B. 9.6 kPa C. 6.2 kPa D. 13.1 kPa
36. Which salt is most soluble in water?

A. CaCO3 B. Pbl2 C. AgBr D. Fe(OH)2
37. Glycolic acid, a constituent of sugar-cane juice, is used in the processing of textiles and leather. A 0.10 M solution of glycolic acid HOCH2COOH, has a pH of
2.41. What is the Ka for the acid?
A. 1.6E-2 B. 1.6E-3 C. 1.6E-4 D. 1.6E-5
38. From the problem in #37, what is the degree of ionization in the 0.10 M solution?
A. 0.039% B. 0.39% C. 3.9% D. 39%
39. What is the pH of buffer solution consisting of 0.20 M NH3 and 0.10 M NH3NO4 at 25°C? K for ammonia is 1.8 E-5
A. 5.6 B. 7.9 C. 13.2 D. 9.5
40. The value of Kc for the reaction C(80) + CO2(g)→2CO(g) is 1.6. What is the equilibrium concentration of CO if the equilibrium concentration od CO2 is 0.50 M?
A. 0.75 M B. 0.31 M C. 0.80 M D. 0.89 M
41. When NO2 is cooled to a room temperature, some of it reacts to form a dimmer, N2O4, through the reaction 2NO2→N2O4. Suppose 15.2 g of NO2 is
placed in a 10 L flask at high temperature and the flask is cooled at 25°C. The total pressure is measured to be 0.500 atm. What is the partial pressure of
NO2 in the flask after the reaction come to equilibrium?
42. The solubility products K(sp ) for three salts MX1, MY 2 AND MZ3 are 2x10-8, 8x10-9 and 54x10-8, respectively. The solubility of these salts follow the order:
A. MX>MY 2>MZ3 C. MY 2>MX>MZ3
B. MZ3>MY 2>MX D. MX>MZ3 >MY 2
43. The rate constant for the substitution reaction C 4H 8Cl+H 2O→C 4 H 9OH+HCl increases by a factor of 10.6 when the temperature is increased from 298 K to 308 K.
Calculate the activation energy of the reaction.
A. 180 kJ/mol B. 78.2 kJ/mol C. 43.9 kJ/mol D. 12.1 kJ/mol
44. The most malleable metal is

A. Platinum B. Silver C. Iron D. Gold
45. The black precipitate formed when hypo is added 1 to silver solution is
A. Ag2S B. Na3 {Ag(s2O 3)2} C. S D. Na2S
46. What H + is needed to dissolve completely 0.0010 mole of AgCN in 1 liter solution. KHCN=4E-10 and ksp of AgCN is 1.6 E-14
A. 0.00026 M B. 0.026 M C. 0.000026 M D. 0.26 M
47. A 2L bottle of concentrated hydrochloric acid, 12.4 M is broken in the lab. What mass of calcium carbonate, CaCO3 is equated to neutralize the spilled
acid? The neutralization reaction gives CaCl2, CO2 and H2O as products.
A. 0.4 Kg B. 0.8 Kg C. 1.2 Kg D. 1.6 Kg
48. To estimate the blood alcohol level, a device called Breathalyzer can be used. It contains potassium dichromate, K2Cr207, which will oxidize
alcohol. In this reaction, the dichromate ion, Cr2 O 7-2, is reduced to Cr+3 . What is the equivalent weight of K2Cr207?
A. 79 B. 57 C. 64 D. 68
49. A 0.399q g of an unknown containing chloride is dissolved and precipitated with 43.98 ml of excess of 0.1056 M AgNO3. A sintered glass crucible weighing
23.4101 g is used to filter out the resulting AgCl. The new weight of dried the crucible is 23.9622 g. Compute % Cl in the sample.
A. 37.56% B. 47.82% C. 34.22% D. 27.33%
For numbers 50 and 51......
A 1.7483 gram sample containing Al(NO 3)3 , AlCl3 and inert materials was dissolved in acid and divided into two equal portions. One portion is treated with 50
ml 0.1 M AgnO 3 and the rest is titrated back with 28.89 mL of 0.1002 M KSCN for titration. The other portion was titration with 26.02 mL of .01193 M
NaOH to completely precipitate Al as Al(NO 3 )3.
50. The % Al(NO 3)3 in the sample is

A. 5.35% B. 10.70% C. 4.06% D. 8.12% 1
51. The % AlCl3 in the sample is
A. 5.35% B. 10.70% C. 4.06% D. 8.12% 1
52. A 1 gram sample of impure K2CO3 is taken for analysis. The solution of the dissolved sample required 58.10 mL of 0.14 M HCI. However 0.65 mL of NaOH
was used for back titration (1 mL of HCl is equivalent to 2.60 mL of NaOH). Calculate the purity of sample expressed as % K20.
A. 38.14% B. 40.23% C. 34.4% D. 42.1%
53. If 50 mL of a sample water required 6.4 mL of EDTA solution for titration and each mL of the EDTA solution is equivalent to 0.40 mg Ca2+, the ppm
CaCaO3 hardness is
A. 320 B. 220 C. 360 D. 128
54. A sample of pyrite, FeS2, contains only inert impurities and weigh 0.508 grams. After the sample has been decomposed and dissolved, a precipitate of
1.561 grams of BaSO4 is obtained. If the calculated percentage of S in the sample is 42.21% , what weight of the ignited precipitate would have been obtained if
the Fe in the solution had been precipitated as Fe(OH)3 and ignited as Fe203.
A. 0.267 g B.0.217 g C. 0.2985 g D. 0.3025 g
55. The depression in freezing point of a dilute aqueous solution of a none electrolytic solute is 0.67°C. What is it’s relative lowering vapour pressure?
(K f=1.8K.Kg.mole)
A. 0.0067 B. 0.042 C. 0.21 D. 0.42
56. Automotive antifreeze consists of ethylene glycol, c 2 H 3 O2 a nonvolatile nonelectrolyte. Calculate the boiling point of a 25 mass percent solution of ethylene
glycol in water.
A. 101.4°C B. 102.2°C C. 102.8°C D. 103.5°C
57. After two hours has elapsed, 1/6 of the original quantity of a certain radionuclide remains undecayed. The half-life of this radionuclide is
58. A gamma-ray source for radiation therapy treatments

A. Uranium-235 B. Cobalt-60 C. Uranium-236 D. Plutonium-239
59. For a process in which the internal energy does not change, which of the following is possible?
I. Heat>0, work<0 III. Heat>0, work>0
II. Heat<0, work<0 IV. Heat<0, work>0
A. I and II only B. I and III only C. I and IV only D. II and III only
60. Calculate the “exact” alkalinity of a water that contains 0.658 mg/L of bicarbonate, as the ion, at pH of 5.66
61. The 5-day BOD of a domestic sewage is 200 ppm and it’s removal rate constant K is 0.23/day. What is it’s ultimate BOD in ppm
A. 29.27 ppm B. 60.1 ppm C. 292.7 ppm D. 400 ppm
62. A comprehensive program of action adapted by governments at the United Nation Conference on Environment( also known as Earth Summit in Rio) is
A. Earth Pledge C. Total Quality Environmental Management
B. ISO 9000 D.Agenda 21
63. The hardness of water is express as g/L of?
A. CaO B. MgO C. CaCaO 3 D. MgCO 3
64. The International standards on Quality Management and Quality Service is
A. ISO 9000 B. ISO 18000 C. 14000 D. ISO 100
A. 10 B. 14 C. 30 D. 20
66. Which one of the following correctly pairs an amino acid with a valid chemical characteristics?
A. Glutamine: contains a hydroxyl group in it’s side chain
B. Serine: can form disulfide bonds
C. Cysteine: contains the smallest side chain
D. Isoleucine: is nearly always foundin the center of protein
E. Glycine: contains an amide group in its side chain
67. A constant amount of enzymes was added to a series of reaction mixtures containing different substrate concentration. The initial reaction rates were measured
from the initial slopes of progress curves of product formation. The date below were obtained:
Steady-State Enzyme Kinetic Data
[S]o (µmol/L) vo [µmol/L-min]
0.1 0.27
2.0 5.0
10.0 20
20.0 40
40.0 64
60.0 80
100.0 100
200.0 120
1000.0 150
2000.0 155
What is the Vmax in [µmol/L-min] for this enzyme in the reaction mixture?
A. 20 B. 40 C. 160 D. 250
68. From the data in 67, what is Km[µmol/L-min] of the enzyme for the substrate?
A. 4.0 B. 60 C. 100 D. 140
69. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is a toxic by -product of cellular metabolism of aerobic organism. The reaction below occurs within the cell to prevent the accumulation
of hydrogen peroxide. In this reaction, the catalase functions as:
2h2O 2→2h2 O+O 2
A. Enzyme in the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide

B. Emulsifier in the digestion of hydrogen peroxide
C. Enzyme in the synthesis of hydrogen peroxide
D. Indicator in the detection of hydrogen peroxide
70. On heating glucose with Fehling’s solution we get a precipitate whose color is
A. Yellow B. Red C. Black D. White
71. Which of the following statements correctly describes the third electron shell that surrounds the nucleus of an atom?
A. The third shell contains only s and p atomic orbitals
B. The total number of atomic orbitals present in the third shell is 16
C. The maximum numbers of electron that can occupy the third shell is 18
D. The third shell can contain f orbitals
72. Which of the following alkanes is gas at room temperature?
A. Octane B. Propane C. Eicosane D. Undecane
73. The unpleasant taste and odor which develop in fats caused by free acids and oxidation of double bonds which first form peroxide
A. Rancidity B. Acidity C. Foulness D. Bitterness
74. The hydrolysis or the splitting of fat by an alkali yielding glycerol of molecules of alkali salts of the fatty acid
A. Hydrogenation B. Saponification C. Esterification D. Fermentation
75. Plants that carry out photosynthesis do so to
A. Drives essential biochemicals having positive delta G values
B. Reduce CO2 in the atmosphere
C. Produce chlorophyll needed to stabilize cell walls
D. Increase O2 in the atmosphere
76. The sequence of amino acid in a protein is the
A. Primary structure C. Secondary structure
B. Tertiary structure D. Quaternary structure
77. Which of the following are monosaccharides? I. Glucose II. Fructose III. Lactose IV. Sucrose
78. Disposal of synthetic plastics is complicated by
A. The large volume of this materials that accumulate as trash
B. The non-biodegradable nature of most synthetic plastics
C. The toxicity of some gases produced when the materials are burned
D. All of the above are valid
79. Which of the following is used to confirm urea?
A. Biuret test B. Legal’s test C. Lassaigne’s test D. Wholer’s test
80. Steroids are derivatives of which lipids?
A. β-carotin B. Cholesterol C. Sphingosine D. Vitamin A
81. Which of the following amino acids has a positively charged side chain?
A. Phenylalanine B. Methionine C. Lysine D. Glutamic acid
82. Oxytocin contains________amino acid residues.
A. 5 B. 8 C. 9 D. Variable
83. Amino acids in their zwitterions form are

A. Acidic B. Basic C. Always neutral D. Amphoteric
84. Which of the following is not a method of denaturing a protein?
A. Heat B. pH change C. Adding water D. Radiation
85. Which of the following amino acid contains sulfur in it’s R group?
A. Cystein B. Isoleucine C. Alanine D. Praline
86. Nitrogen oxides from automobile exhausts are chiefly associated with a pollution problem called
A. Acid rain B. Greenhouse Effect C. Smog D. Annoying
87. Calculate the enthalpy change upon converting 1 mol of ice at -25°C to water vapor at 125°C under a constant pressure of 1 atm. The specific heats of ice,
water and steam 2.09 J/g-K, 4.18 J/g-K and 1.84J/g-K, respectively. For water, the heat of fusion is 6.01 kJ/mol and the heat of vaporization is
40.67kJ/mol.
A. 40 kJ B. 48 kJ C. 56 kJ D. 60 kJ
88. Analysis of a series of sulfur containing compounds by Cannizzaro’s method shows that one gram molecular weight of compound always contains some
multiple of approximately 32 g sulfur. Under STP condition, one liter of a particular gas weighs 2.8897 g. Analysis shows it to contain 1.4462 g of sulfur
and 1.4435 g of oxygen. Find its chemical formula.
A. SO 2 B. SO 3 C. S 2 O3 D. SO
89. Calculate the standard reaction Gibbs energy Δ rG° at 298 K for the combustion of ethane C 2H 5(g)+3 1 2 O2(g)↔2 CO 2 +3H 2O(l) given that the standard Gibbs
energies of formation of the components at this temperature are Δ rG°(C 2H 6, g)= -32.82 kJ-mol-1, ΔrG°(CO 2, g)= -394.36 kJ-mol-1, ΔrG°(H 2 O, l)= 237.13kJ-
mol-1.
A. -420.6 kJ-mol-1 B. -664.3 kJ-mol-1 C. -1467.3 kJ-mol-1 D. 350 kJ-mol-1
90. The equilibrium constant for the reaction CO(g)+H 2O(g)↔CO 2(g)+H 2 (g) is K=1.03x105 at 298.15 K. Calculate the standard reaction Gibbs energy at this
temperature
Ans. -28.6 kJ/mol
91. When equal amounts of hydrogen, H 2 and Iodine, I2, are mixed together at a total pressure of 1 bar, the partial pressure of hydrogen iodide, HI, vapor
produced from the reaction H 2(g)+I2(g)↔2 HI(g) is 22.8 kPa. Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction.
A. 0.349 B. 0.055 C. 1.252 D. 3.421
92. The equilibrium constant for the reaction PCl3(g)+Cl2(g)↔PCl5(g) is K=3.29x106 at 298 K. Calculate the value of K C1 the equilibrium constant expressed in
concentration.
A. 3.44 E2 B. 8.15 E 4 C. 8.15 E 6 D. 3.44 E 4
93. Calculate the pH of a solution prepared by mixing 30 mL of 0.1 N NaOH and 25 mL of 0.1 N HAc.
A. 2.46 B. 12.96 C. 4.57 D. 8.72
94. What is the pH of neutral rain water?

A. 5.6-6.2 B. 7.0-8.3 C. 4.2-4.4 D. 2.2-2.4
95. Calculate the vapor pressure lowering of a solution of 0.50 g glucose in 25.6 g water at 25°C. The vapor pressure of water at 25°C is 21.6 mmHg.
A. 0.015 mmHg B. 0.042 mmHg C. 0.028 mmHg D. 0.055 mmHg
96. What is the freezing point of a 0.1m acetic acid solution that is 4.12% ionized in water?
A. -0.186°C B. -0.250°C C. -0.194°C D. -0.285°C
97. If the infrared radiation has a wavelength of 3.5 macrons, what will be the wavelength in cm -1?
A. 3000 B. 2900 C. 2500 D. 2700
98. When U-235 undergoes fission, about 0.1% of original mass is released as energy. How much energy is released if 1 kg of U-235 undergoes fission? assume
efficiency.
A. 9 E 13 J B. 9 E 15 J C. 9 E 14 J D. 9 E 16 J
99. When U-235 undergoes fission, about 0.1% of original mass is released as energy. How much U -235 must undergo fission per day in a nuclear reactor that
provides energy to a 100 MW electric power plant?
A. 96 g/day B. 100 g/day C. 86 g/day D. 114 g/day
100. When U-235 undergoes fission, about 0.1% of original mass is released as energy. When coal is burned, about 32.4 MJ/Kg of heat is liberated. How
many kilogram of coal would be consumed per day by a conventional coal-fired 100 MW electric power plant?
A. 265 000 kg/day B. 320 000 kg/day C. 280 000 kg/day D. 350 000 kg/day
CHEMICAL
ENGINEERING
PRINCIPLES
DIAGNOSTIC EXAM 3
Chemical Engineering Principles
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only only one answers for each item by marking the cox corresponding to the
letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
1. 41.78o Be= ? oAPl

A. 43.19 B. 41.06 C. 42.12 D. 40.02
2. A lump of sugar weighs 4 g in air and 2.375 g when immersed in petroleum ether. The density of petroleum ether is 0.65 g/ml. Determine the specific gravity of
sugar.
A. 1.6 B. 2.2 C. 2.4 D. 3.1
3. In a batch process, 10,000 lb of 20% solution of acetone in water are distilled. Water residue contains 50 lb acetone, while the distillate contains 10% water.
What is the total weight of the distillate?
A. 6584 B. 1486 C. 2167 D. 3958
4. A contract was made between a buyer and a paper manufacturer for paper containing 5% moisture at P450 per ton on specification that price adjustment will be
made if quality is different. How much should the buyer pay for 1 ton of paper with 8% moisture content? Freight costs are P45 per ton.
A. P450 B. P434.16 C. P405 D. P 424.26
5. Calculate the number of gallons of sulphuric acid solution (sp gr 1.83 and 93 percent by weight H2SO4) necessary to react completely with 100 lb of borax
(Na2B4O7- 10H 2O) to form boric acid. The unbalanced equation for this reaction is Na2B4O7 + H2SO4 + H2O H3BO3 + NaSO4.
A. 1.2 gal B. 1.8 gal C. 2.4 gal D. 3.1 gal
6. From the data in problem 5, how many pounds of boric acid will be produced?
A. 64.8 lb B. 73.2 lb C. 78.9 lb D. 84.1 lb.
7. Ethylene, C2H4, reacts with water to form ethyl alchohol, C2H6O, If 20g of each regent is used, 20 g of the alchohol is produced. What is the percentage yield
for the reaction?
A.43.1% B. 60.9% C. 75.4% D. 91.2%
8. The analysis of a flue gas from a fuel gas containing no nitrogen is 4.62% CO2, 3.08% CO, 8.91% O2 and 83.39% N2. Calculate the percent excess air if all the
fuel is burned.
A. 20% B. 30% C. 40% D. 50%
9. A furnace burns coal containing 4.1% M, 24% VCM, 63% FC, 1.2% N, 1.18% S, and 8.9% ash. Determine the percentage of the heating value lost in the refuse if it
analyses 24% FC and 76% ash. It is calorific value is 32 MJ/kg.
A. 2.42% B. 2.97% C. 3.54% D. 4.23%
10. The temperature of three different liquids are maintained at 15oC, 20oC, and 25oC respectively. When equal masses of the first two liquids are mixed, the final
temperature is 18oC, and when equal masses of the last two liquids are mixed, the final temperature is 24oC. What temperature will be achieved by mixing
equal masses of the first and the last liquid?
A. 8.65oC B. 10.30 oC C. 15.83oC D. 23.57 oC
11. Calculate the work done by the isothermal expansion of one mole of hydrogen gas at 298.15K from 15 L to 30 L against a constant pressure of 1 atm.
A. -15 kJ B. -2.34 kJ C. -1.52 kJ D. -1.72 kJ
12. Ten lb of water at 14.7 psia is heated at constant pressure from 40o F to saturated vapour. Compute the entropy change.
A. 16.4 Btu/r B. 17.4 Btu/R C. 18.) Btu/R D. 18.4 Btu/R
13. Air at 1 bar and 298.15 k is compressed to 5 bar and 298.15 K by cooling at constant pressure followed by heating at constant volume. Calculate the change of
enthalpy for the entire process in J/mol
A. 0 B. -4958 C. 4958 D. -1983
14. Nitrogen is expanded is entropically. Its temperature changes from 620oF to 60oF. The volumetric ratio is V2/V1=6.22, what is the work done by the gas/
A. -1113 BTU/lb B. -99 BTU/lb C. -120 BTU/lb D. -540 BTU/lb
15. An ideal Carnot engine takes heat from a source at 317o C, does some external work, and delivers the remaining energy to a heat sink at 117oC. If 500 kcal of
heat is taken from the source, how much work is done?
A. 710 kJ B. 742 kJ C. 730 kJ D. 169 kJ
16. What is the thermal efficiency of an air-standard Otto cycle operating with a lowest temperature of 200oF, a highest temperature of 960oF, and a compression
ratio of 8:1?
A. 42% B. 67% C. 64% D. 76%
17. A refrigerator (or cold room) is to be maintained at 10o F, and the available cooling water is at 70oF. Assume that the cold room coils and the condenser are of
sufficient size that a 10oF approach can be\ realized in each. Calculate the coefficient of performance if it operates on a Carnot cycle.
A. 0.89 B. 5.75 C. 2.85 D. 1.75
18. The vessel with a volume of 1 cubic meter contains liquid water and water vapour in equilibrium at 600 kPa. The liquid water has a mass of 1 kg. Calculate the
mass of water vapour. Vf= 0.001101 m3/kg; Vg= 0.3157 m3/kg.
A. 3.16 kg B. 0.99 kg C. 1.57 kg D. 1.89 kg
19. For the reaction N2O4(g) 2NO2(g) at 30o C, k= 5.1 E6/s and the activation energy is 54.0 kJ/mol. The rate constant at 451c is
A. 5.1 E6/s B. 1.4e7/s C. 5.2E7/s D. 8.3E8/s
20. A fluid is flowing in 2 backmix reactor in series. Each has a capacity of 40,000 L and flows at a rate of 100 L/hr. If the fluid undergoes first order decay with a
half-life of 24 hours, what is the percent conversation?
A. 71.7 B. 99.4 C. 66.8 D. 85.3
21. A 150 mm diameter pipe carries 81.3 l/s of water. The pipe branches into 2 pipes one is 50 mm in diameter and the other is 75 mm. What is the velocity in the
75 mm pipe if the velocity of the flow in the 50 mm pipe is 10 m/s?
A. 13.96 m/s B. 15.67 m/s C. 17.25 m/s D. 19.43 m/s
22. a sealed tank containing seawater to a height of 12 m also contains air above the water at gag pressure of 5 atm. Water flows out from the bottom through a
small hole. Calculate the efflux speed of the water.
A. 35.45 m/s B. 34.92 m/s C. 45.24 m/s D. 20.45 m/s
23. The distance between plates is y= 0.5 cm, v= 10 cm/s and the fluid is ethyl alcohol at 273o K having a viscosity of 1.77 cp. Calculate the shear stress in dyne
per square centimetre.
A. 0.210 B. 0.354 C. 0.540 D. 0.720
24. To what height will 68oF ethyl alcohol rise in a 0.005 in internal diameter glass capillary tube/ the density of the alcohol is 49 lb/ft3 and its surface tension is
0.00156 lbf/ft with contract angle of 0o .
A. 4.37 in B. 3.67in C. 3.87 in D. 1.47 in
25. Water flows at the rate of 300 gpm through a venture which has a diameter of 3 inch at the inlet and a diameter of 1 ½ inch at the throat. If Q= 0, W=0, and
U=0, what is the pressure drop between the inlet and the throat? Apply the steady flow energy equation.
A. 12.4 psi B. 14.2 psi C. 16.1 psi D. 18.6 psi
26. Engine oil with a kinematic viscosity of 0.00024m2/s is flowing inside an annulus at 0.5 m/s. annulus is made up of 3 in Sch, 40 and 1 Sch, 40 concentric pipes
10 m long. Pressure drop due to friction expressed in meters of oil is
A 2.33 B. 4.57 C. 1.98 D. 0.65.
1. A rectangular duct 4 ft by 1.5 ft in cross section carries conditioned air. In determining the pressure drop through the duct, the equivalent diameter in feet, may
used in this case is
A. 4 B. 2.18 C. 1.5 D. 2.75
2. If the total percentage of particles larger than the screen opening in the feed, oversize, undersize are 36% , 89% and 3% , respectively, the effectiveness of the
screen if the undersize is the product is
A. 0.98 B. 0.89 C. 0.76 D. 0.65
3. The opening of 200 mesh screen (Taylor series) is
A. 0.0074 cm B. 0.0074 mm C. 0.0047 cm D. 0.0047 mm
4. The Bond work index for a mesh-of-grind of 200 mesh for a rock consisting mainly of quartz is 17.5 kWh/ton. How much power (in kW) is needed to reduce the
material in wet- grinding ball mill from an 80 percent passing size of 1100 pm to an 80 percent passing size of 80 um at a capacity of 10 ton per hour?
A. 120 kW B. 143 kW C. 176 kW D. 200kW
5. The critical speed of a ball mill in rpm whose diameter is 12 inches with grinding balls of diameter ½ in is approximately ___________rpm.
A. 60 B. 50 C. 90 D. 80
6. A screw conveyor is to be installed to convey 800 bushels of wheat per hour over a distance of 80 ft., the horsepower requirements for the installation is
A. 4 B. 3 C. 2.5 D. 3.5
7. Find the horsepower requirement for a continuous bucket elevator with loading leg which will lift solids at a rate of 50 tons per hour at a vertical distance of 22
feet.
A. 2 B. 8 C. 4 D. 6
8. What will be the terminal falling velocity of a glass sphere 1 mm in diameter in water if the density of glass is 2500 kg/m 3 ?
A. 0.000145 m/s B. 0.00145 m/s C. 0.145 m/s D. 1.45 m/s
9. What is the mass of sphere of density 7500 kg/m3 which has a terminal velocity of 0.7 m/s in a large tank of water?
A. 0.066 g B. 4.22 g C. 0.00078 g D. 1.28 g
10. An example of a collector for flotation of metallic sulphides and native metal is
A. Xanthates B. sodium silicate C. sodium sulphide D. sphalerite
11. Volume of the filtrate collected is 1 gal when the filtration rate is 1.5 gpm, and it is 5 gal when the filtration rate is 0.6 gpm. Calculate the volume collected when
the filtration rate is 0.75 gpm. What is the total volume collected in 10 min? Assume constant- pressure filtration.
A. 3.67 gal, 7.43 gal B. 3.67 gal, 9.85 gal C. 4.22 gal, 7.43 gal D. 5.18 gal, 8.75 gal
38. It is desired to agitate a liquid having a viscosity of 1.5 x 10-3 Pa-s and a density of 969 kg/m3 in a tank having a diameter of 0.91m. The agitator will be a six
blade open turbine having a diameter of 0.305 m operating at 180 rpm. The tank has 4 vertical baffles each with a width of 0.076 m. A lso, W= 0.0381 m.
Calculate the required kW.
A. 0.120 B. 0.082 C. 0.172 D. 0.290
39. Which of the following ratios describes Reynolds number?
A. inertial forces/ vicious forces C. drag forces/ buoyant forces
B. buoyant forces/ inertial forces D. vicious forces/ drag forces
40. A heat exchanger is required to cool 20 kg/s of water from 360 K to 34o k by means of 25 kg/s water entering at 300 K. If the overall coefficient of heat
transfer is constant at 2 kW/m2K, calculate the surface area required in a counter current concentric tube exchanger.
A. 15 sg.m. B. 30 sq.m. C. 20 sq.m. D. 25 sq. m.
41. For a furnace onstructed with 0.7 ft thick of fireclay brick having k=0.6 Btu/hr-ft-oF and covered on the outer surface with a layer of insulating material
having k= 0.04 Btu/hr-ft-o F. The innermost surface is maintained at 1800 oF while the outer surface of insulating material is maintained at 100oF. How
thick must the insulator be to maintain a maximum allowable heat transfer rate of 300 Btu/hr-ft-o F
A. 0.30 ft B. 0.18 ft C. 0.10 ft D. 0.40 ft
42. Stack gases leave a boiler, pass through a square steel duct 3 ft by 3 ft and 16 ft long, and enter a masonry chimney. Estimate the heat transfer coefficient (in
Btu/hr-ft2-oF) in the duct if the gases are at 900oF and 1 atm. Consider the stach gases to have the same properties as air. The gas velocity is 50 ft/ sec.
A. 4.11 B. 75.2 C. 120.7 D. 410.5
43. A small hole in the wall of a cavity in an object of any kind behaves like a blackbody because any radiation that falls on it is trapped inside by reflections from
the cavity wall until it is absorbed. At what rate does radiation escape from a hole of area 20 cm2 in the wall surface whose interior temperature is 800oC/
A. 150 W B. 142 W C. 135 W D. 146 W
44. The view factor F21 of a sphere (1) of diameter D inside a cubical box (2) of length L=D is
A. 1 B. 3.14 C. 1.57 D. 0.524
{45.-48}A solution is to be concentrated from 10 t 65 % solids in a vertical long-tube evaporator. The solution has a negligible elevation of boiling point and its specific
heat can be taken to be the same as that of water. Steam is available at 203.6 kPa, and the condenser operates at 13.33 Pa. the feed entersteh evaporator at
at 295oK. The total evaporation is to be 25000 kg/hr of water. Overall heat transfer coefficient is 2800 W/m 2 -K.
45. Calculate the heat transfer required in kW.
A.19800 B. 17523 C. 24582 D. 30900
46. Calculate the steam consumption in kilogram per hour.
A. 28700 B. 35400 C. 40100 D. 43600
47. Calculate the heating transfer area required in square meters.
A. 24.2 B. 34.8 C. 70.8 D. 90.7
48. Calculate the steam economy.
A. 0.45 B. 0.67 C. 0.87 D. 0.98
49. The value of Lewis number Le= Sc/ Pr for air water vapour system is around
A. 1 B. 0.24 C. 3.97 D. 600
50. Ammonia is diffusing through a stagnant gas mixture consisting of 1/3 nitrogen and 2/3 hydrogen by volume. The total pressure is psia and the temperature is
30oF. The concentration of ammonia across the film which is 0.5 mm thick drops from 10% to 5 % ammonia by volume. Assuming the mass diffusivity of
ammonia to be 0.229 cm2/sec, the rate of diffusion of ammonia expressed in lb/hr-ft2 through the film is
A. 8.93 B. 0.12 C. 2.83 D. 12 54
51. A mixture of ammonia and air at a pressure of 745 mmHg and a temperature of 40oC contains NH3 by volume. The gas is passed at a rate of 100 cfm through
an absorption tower in which only ammonia is removed. The gases leave the tower at a pressure of 740 mmHg, a temperature of 20oC. And contain 0.13%
NH3 b volume. Using the simple gas law, calculate the rate of flow of gas leaving the tower in cubic feet per minute.
A. 89.5 B. 98.2 C. 107.7 D. 122.9
52. From the data in problem # 51, calculate the weight of ammonia absorbed in the tower per minute.
A. 9.2 lb/min B. 6.4 lb/min C. 3.2 lb/min D. 0.19 lb/min
{53-62} Given mixture of air and water at 85o F dry bulb temperature and 68oF wet bulb temperature, obtain with use of the relative humidity chart the following:
53. Absolute humidity in pound water vapour per pound dry air
A. 0.0105 B. 0.0201 C. 0.0022 D. 0.0351
54. Saturation humidity in pound water vapour per pound dry air
A. 0.0265 B. 0.0355 C. 0.0125 D. 0.0441
55. Dew point temperature
A. 48oF B. 59oF C. 65oF D. 70 oF
56. Enthalpy in Btu per lb of dry air
A. 15 B. 5 C. 25 D. 35
57. Humid heat in Btu oF per lb of dry air
A. 0.115 B. 0.245 C. 0.451 D. 0.622
58. Humid volume in ft3 per lb of dry air
A. 10.22 B. 18.45 C. 22.12 D. 13.95
59. Percent absolute humidity
A.40% B. 30 % C. 50% D. 70%
60. Relative humidity
A. 30% B. 62% C. 81 % D. 42 %
61. Heat of vaporation in Btu per lb water
A. 850 B. 972 C. 1046 D. 1186
62. Vapor pressure of water in psia
A. 0.1 B. 3.2 C. 5.1 D. 06
63. Partial pressure of water in psia
A. 0.25 B. 1.44 C. 2.14 D. 3.88
64. When a porous solid was dried under constant-drying conditions, 5 hours were required to reduce the moisture from 30 to 12 lb H2O/lb dry solid. Critical
moisture content is 18 lb H2O/lb dry solid and the equilibrium moisture is 5 lb H2O/lb dry solid. If the drying rate during the faling-rate period is a straight line
through the origin, determine the time needed to dry the solid from 30 to 8 lb H2O/lb dry solid.
A. 3.44 hr B. 74 hr C. 1.25 hr D. 2.88 hr
{65.-66}At a temperature of 366.4oK, the vapour pressures of n-hexane and octane are 1480 and 278 mmHg, respectively. Assume the hexane-octane system obeys
Raoult’s law and the total pressure is 1 atm.
65. Calculate the equilibrium liquid composition (in mole fraction) of the more volatile component
A. 0.401 B. 0.782 C. 0.653 D. 0.236
66 Calculate the equilibrium vapour composition (in mole fraction )of the more volatile component.
A. 0.245 B. 0.544 C. 0.781 D. 0.942
67. If reflux to a distillation column is 100 moles/hr, when the overhead product rate is 50 moles/hr, the reflex ratio is
A. 0.5 B. 2 C. 50 D. 150
68. In teaching operation, the rate at which solute goes into solution is given by: dM/dt= k(Cs-C) kg/s, where M kg is the amount of solute dissolving in t s, k (m2/s)
is a constant and Cs and C are the saturation and bulk concentrations of the solute respectively in kg/m2 . In a pilot test on a vessels 1 m3 in volume, 75%
saturation was attained in 10 s. If 300 kg of a solid containing 28% by mass of water soluble solid is agitated with 100 m 3 of water, how long will it take for all the
solute to dissolve assuming conditions are the same in the pilot unit? Water is saturated with the solute at a concentration of 2.5 kg/m 3.
A. 45 s B. 112 s C. 297 S D. 544 S
69. Hexane is being considered as a solvent to extract acetic acid from aqueous mixtures. At 30OC, the distribution coefficient K (i.e., mass fraction acetic acid in
hexane per mass fraction acetic acid in water) is K=0.017. How many kilograms of hexane is required to reduce the acetic acid content in 100 kg of an aqueous
solution from 30% to 10% by weight?
A. 12908 kg B. 13072 kg C. 13580 kg D. 14120 kg
70. A saturated solution containing 1500 kg of potassium chloride at 360 K is cooled in an open tank to 290K. If the specific gravity of the solution is 1.2, the
solubility of potassium chloride per 100 parts of water is 52.55 at 360K and 34.5 at 290K, calculate the amount of crystals obtained assuming that loss of water
by evaporation is negligible.
A. 4301 kg B. 1500 kg C. 966 kg D. 534 kg
71. Which product is produced commercially by the Haber process?
A. sulphuric acid B. ammonia C. propane D. calcium
72. Silicone rubbers are
A. polysiloxanes B. polyethylene C. polypropylene D. elastomer
73. The annual fixed costs for an insulation installation can be expressed as C F=30 ln 2S + 10S pesos per year where S is the insulation thickness in inches, and
the annual cost of energy lost from the installation is expressed as C D = 120/S pesos per year. Determine the insulation thickness which will give the minimum
annual insulation cost.
A. 2.27 in B. 3.12 in C. 3.75 in D. 4.15 in
74. A purchase cost of 0.2-m3, glass-lined, jacketed reactor was P10,000 in 1991. Estimated the purchased cost of a similar 2-m3, glass-lined, jacketed reactor in
1996. Cost index in 1991 was 361 and in 1996 was 382.
A. P32,180 B. P27,850 C. P18,720 D. P42,127
75. Third aspect in plant design.
A. environment B. education C. religion D. morality
76. It is the enrichment of water with nutrients.
A. putrefaction B. eutrophication C. thermal stratification D. decomposition
77. It is a wet, partially decomposed organic matter.
A. Lignite B. peat C. charcoal D. asphalt
78. Shale oil has a potential to replace some of the petroleum, it contains the oil called
A. kerogen B. coke C. fuel oil D. crude oil
79. Density of 90% aqueous solution of sulphuric acid at 25 C in g/ml is
A. 1.8144 B. 1.8091 C. 1.8198 D. 1.8033
80. Vapor pressure of 2-butyne at 27.2OC.
A. 760 mmHg B. 400mmHg C. 500mmHg D. 650mmHg.
81. What is the enthalpy saturated liquid water at 48.675 kPag?
A. 467.13 kJ/kg B. 2693.4 kJ/kg C. 338.7 kJ/kg D. 2482.5 kJ/kg
82. What is the enthalpy of saturated steam at 26,325 kPa vacuum pressure?
A. 384.45 kJ/kg B. 384.45 BTU/lb C. 2663 kJ/kg D. 2663 BTU/lb
83. What is the enthalpy of superheated steam at 200kPa and 200OC?
84. It is the most abundant metal of the earth’s crust.
A. iron B. aluminium C. lithium D. sodium
85. Which of the following metals react violently with water?
A. sodium B. calcium C. diamond D. aluminum
86. A frequency response measure of how well the system response to variations in the output signal.
A. feedback B. control system C. continuous time D. bandwidth
87. It is used to convert one signal or energy form into another.
A. transducer B. amplifier C. detector D. resistor
88. A sensor usually made of a semiconductor that utilizes the effect of temperature on the resistance to current is called a
A. thermocouple B. thermistor C. resistor D. capacitor
89. It pertains to the production and use of extreme cold at temperature below -100OC.
A. cryogenics C. refrigeration
B. air conditioning D. low temperature industry
90. From what mineral is radium obtained?
A. limestone B. rutile C. pitch blend D. permatis
91. An apparatus used to measure the heat absorbed or released by a reaction.
A. centrifuge B. barometer C. balance D. calorimeter
92. An apparatus used to measure atmospheric pressure.
93. An apparatus used to measure weight.
94. An apparatus used to sediment particles in suspension.
A. Chalk B. charcoal C. feldspar D. silica
96. To increase the life of an incandescent lamp it is
A. Filled with neon gas B. filled with argon gas C. filled with CO2 gas D. evacuated
A. Vitamin C B. vitamin A C. vitamin E D. vitamin K
98. Trace metal that causes the Minamata disease
A. Hg B. Cd C. Pb D. Cu
A. NO2 B. CO C. particulates D. SO2
100. It refers to waste or scrap glass, usually ground
A. Bullet B. feldspar C. fluorospar D. gloss float
WEEKLY EXAM 7
Physical Chemistry & Chemical Calculations
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only only one answers for each item by marking the cox corresponding to the
letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
1. A0.01 molal solution of K3Fe(CN)6 freezes at -0.062O C. What is the apparent degree of dissociation?
A. 33% B. 50% C. 78% D. 89%
2. Automotive antifreeze consists of ethylene glycol, C2H3O2, a non-volatile non-electrolyte. Calculate the freezing point of -1.31 C. Calculate the molecular weight
of ethylene glycol in water.
A. -10 C O B. -8 C O C. -5 C O D. -2 C O
3. If 4.35 g of ethylene glycol is dissolved in 100g of water, the resulting solution has a freezing point of
-1.31OC. Calculate the molecular weight of ethylene glycol.
A. 61 B. 62 C. 63 D. 64
4. One fourth gram of an unknown non-volatile solute was dissolved in 40g of CC14. The solution was found to boil at 77.2OC. What is the molecular weight of the
unknown solute? Kb=5.02 Tbcc14 = 76.8.c.
A. 56.1 B. 65.0 C. 78.3 D. 82.1
5. Pentane is one of the components in a liquid mixture that is in equilibrium with its vapour. If Raoult’s law applies for this system and if the vapour pressure of the
pentane at the equilibrium temperature is 2.721 bar, what is the K- factor for pentane? The equilibrium total pressure is 1.013 bars.
A. 1.0109 B. 2.7406 C. 0.3501 D. 0.3723
6. L is a volatile liquid. A solid, S, is added to L to form a solution that boils at 1 atmosphere. The vapour pressure of pure L is 850 torr. What is the mole fraction of
liquid L in the solution?
A. 64.3% B. 79.4% C. 85.7% D. 89.4%
7. For the reaction 2SO3(g) + O2(g), G = 19, 759 cal/ mole and H = 46,980 cal/ mole. Calculate the degree of desolation of SO3 at 600 K and 0.5 atm total
pressure.
A. 0.0063 B. 0.063 C. 0.63 D. 6.3
8. The radioactive isotope used to locate brain tumor is
A. 1D2 B. 16 S 31 C. 53 | 131 D. 92U 232
9. Liquid A decomposes by first- order kinetics. In a batch reactor, 50% of A is decomposed in 5 minutes. How long would it take to reach 75% conversion?
A. 10 min. B. 12min. C. 14 min. D. 16 min
10. What is the rate constant k for the first order decomposition of N205 (g) at 25 C if at temperature its half-life is 4.03E4 s?
A. 1.72E-5/s B. 1.72E-4/s C. 2.17E-5/s D. 2.17E-4/s
11. For the first order decomposition of N2O5(g) at 25 C if at that temperature its half-life is 4.03E4 s, what fraction of the NGO5 molecule will not have reacted after
one day?
A. 0.226 B. 0.774 C. 0.462 D. 0.620
12. Starting with 1 kg of a radioactive substance, after four half-lives, there will be approximately___________ grams left.
A. 63 B. 125 C. 250 D. 500
13. The boiling temperature of ethyl benzene is 136 C. Use Trouton’s rule to estimate the enthalpy of vaporization of ethyl benzene at this temperature.
A. 35 kJ/mol B. 12 kJ/mol C. -14 kJ/mol D. -24 kJ/mol
14 The energy released as heat when liquid propanone, CH 3 COH3, is burned in a bomb calorimeter at 298.15 K is 1788 kJ mol-1. Calculate the enthalpy of
combustion of propanone.
A. -1400 k/mol B. -1580 kJ/ mol C. -1790 kj/mol D+1850 kJ/mol
15. Calculate the standard enthalpy of combustion of phenol, C6H5OH, at 298.15 K given that, at this temperature, the standard enthalpy of formation of phenol is -
165.0 kJ mol-1 , of liquid water, H 2 0 is 285.8 kJ mol-1 and gaseous carbon dioxide, CO 2, is -393.51 kJ mol-1
A. -340 kJ/ mol B. -514.3kJ/ mol C. -1240 kj/mol D. -3053 kJ/mol
16. A 2.839-g sample of C2H4O was burned in a bomb calorimeter whose total heat capacity is 13 77 kJ/ C, the temperature of the calorimeter increases from 22.62
C to 26.87 C. What is the heat of combustion per mole of C2H4O?
A. -3.93 kJ/mol C. -61.2 kJ/ mol
B.-20 kJ/ mol D. -1.10 E 3 kJ/mol
17. The standard hat of reaction for the production of water gas, in kcal/gmole, as given by the equation C (s)+H 2O(g) CO (g)+h2(g) is
A. -32.2 B. 26.4 C. 31.4 D. -57.8
18. For HI the molar entropy of vaporization is 89.0 J/K/mol and the molar enthalpy of vaporization is 21.16 kJ/mol. The temperature at which the value of G
becomes equal to zero for the vaporization process will be:
A. -273 C B. -35.2 C C. 23.8 K D. 42 C
19. A solution has a gravity of 100 Twadell, calculate its gravity in degrees Baume.
A. 1.2 B. 65.1 C. 120 D. 48.33
20. How man kilograms of whiting (CaCO3) of specific gravity of 2.2 must be added to 100 kg of water to give a suspension with a specific gravity of 1.15?
A. 31.43 B. 32.45 C. 42.38 D. 47.5
21. A piece of galena (impure lead sulfide) weighs 5.5 g in air and 4.76g in water. What is the specific gravity of galena?
A. 4.8 B. 7.4 C. 5.7 D. 6.2
22. In some reaction operation, bypassing some amount of the reactants prevent wasteful processing. To determine the amount of the bypass, it is essential that a
material balance be taken
A. Inside the reactor C. at the feed
B. at the overall output and input materials D. around a point where mixing occurs
23. What do you call a system in which there is a flow of matter through the boundary? This system usually encloses the device that involves mass flow, such as;
compressor, turbine, or nozzle.
A. closed system B. open system C. isolated system D. all of the above
24. An equimolar mixture of benzene and toluene is subjected to a single batch distillation. Distillation is discontinued when 60% of the benzene in the feed is
distilled. At this instance the bottom products when analysed shows benzene to be 36.4% by mole. In the distillate the mole % of benzene is
A. 66.6 B. 58.1 C. 33.6 D. 54.7
25. Pig iron is prepared in a blast furnace from a hematite ore. The one contains 83% iron oxide (Fe203). The pig iron produced is 96% Fe and the iron in the ore
slag contains 10% of the iron in the ore. How much pig iron is produced for every 500 tons of ore?
A. 156 B. 272 C. 450 D. 353
26. A solution in an evaporator contains 20% by weight of soluble solids, A, the rest being water. After 120 kgs of water are evaporated, it was found that the solution
contained 28% A. Calculate the weight of solution originally in the evaporator.
A. 420 lbs B. 420 kgs C. 240 lbs D. 240 kgs
27. A 100-kg batch of clay contains 20% water. It was dried to a water content of 5% . How much water is removed?
A. 15.8 lbs B. 27.2 lbs C. 15.8 kgs D. 27.2 kgs
28. A dehumidifier sprays 50 lbs of cold water per minute into a steam of air. One hundred pounds of wet air per minute enters the dehumidifying chamber. The
absolute humidity of the entering air is 0.05 water/lb dry air, and that of the leaving air is 0.01 lb dry air. What is the total weight of liquid water leaving the
dehumidifier in the lb per minute?
A. 8.90 B. 50 C. 53.81 D. 103.81
29. It is impossible to measure the amount of sulphuric acid solution in a tank, but it is found to contain 8.7% H2SO4. Ten pounds of 50.0% H2SO4 was added to
the tank and the final mixed composition in the tank was found to be 9.87% H2SO4. What is the final weight of the solution in the tank?
A. 343 lbs B.353 lbs C. 372 lbs D. 380 lbs
30. It has been determined by trial mixing that a 1:1 ½ :3 mixture (by volume) with 5 gal water per sack of cement produces a satisfactory mixture of concrete with a
2-in slump. What quantity of mixed concrete in cubic feet will a barrel of cement produce if the following is known about the cement, sand, and stone
aggregate?
Voids Unit weight, lb
Cement 0.513 94
Sand 0.360 12
Stone 0.330 105
A. 16.51 ft3 B. 17.25ft3 C. 17.80 ft3 D18.35 ft3
31. Two streams are mixed to form a single stream. Only the flow in the mixed stream is known. A soluble salt is added to one of the original streams at a steady
state and samples of this stream show it to be 4.76% salt by weight. Samples of the combined stream show to b 0.62% by weight. What is the flow of the ratio
of the two original streams?
A. 2.3 B. 4.5 C. 6.7 D. 9.8
32. One hundred grams of a mixture of NaSO4- 10H2O and Na2CO3-10H2O are heated to drive off water of hydration. The final weight of the mixed salts is 39.6 g.
What is the ratio of moles Na2CO3 to mole3 Na2SO4 in the original hydrated salts?
A. 0.5 B. 2 C. 4 D. 0.2
33-36. The balanced equation for a reaction between nitric acid and hydrogen sulphide is 2HNO3 + 3H2S 2NO + 4H2O + 3S
33. What is oxidized?
A. H B. S C. O D. N
34. What is reduced?
A. N B. H C. O D. S
35. What is oxidizing agent?
A. HNO3 B. H2S C. NO D. NO 3
36. What is the reducing agent?
A. HNO3 B. H2S C. NO D. H2O
37. Phosphorus reacts with caustic soda by giving a salt “X” and a poisonous gas “Y”. The number of P-H bonds respectively present in “X” and “Y” are,
A. 1 & 3 B. 2 & 2 C. 2 & 1 D. 2 & 3
38. What is the mass of the participate formed when 12.0 ml of 0.150 M NaCl is added to 25.0 mL of a 0.0500 M AgNO3 solution?
A. 258 G B. 0.258 G C. 179 G D. 0.179 G
39. A particular 100- octane aviation gasoline used 1 cm3 of tetraethyl lad, (C 2H 5)4Pb, of density 1.66 g/cc, per liter of product. This compound is made as follows,
4C 2H 5Cl + 4NaPb (C 2H 5)4Pb + 4NaCl- 3Pb. How many grams of ethyl chloride are needed to make enough tetraethyl lead for 1 L of gasoline?
A. 1.315 g B. 2.650 g C. 3.50 g D. 26.478 g
40. A fertilizer plant produces 100,000 MT of 10-6-10 fertilizer annually from (NH 4)2SO 4 (20% N), di-ammonium phosphate (18% N and 46% P 2O), potassium
chloride (60% K 2O) and gypsum as filler. How much of the gypsum are used by the plant annually?
A. 50,000 MT B. 16, 458 MT C. 48,063 MT D. 32, 074 MT
41. Ammonia is burned to for nitric oxide in the following reaction: 4 NH 3 + 5 O2 NO + 6 H 2 O. The mass of NO produced if 200 kg of O 2 react and the reaction
proceeds to completion is
A. 290 kg B. 150 kg C. 240 kg D. 120 kg
42. In the Deacon process for the manufacture of chlorine, HCl nd O 2 reacts to form Cl2 and water. Sufficient air is fed to provide 25% excess of O2, and the
fractional conversion of HCl is 70% . On the basis of 100 moles of HCl fed, the amount of air in moles fed into the process is
A. 53.12 B. 136.78 C. 200 D. 149
43. From the data in problem #42, the mole fraction of Cl2 gas in the product stream is
A. 0.214 B. 0.127 C. 0.151 D. 0.172
44. Silver nitrate is a white crystalline salt, used in making inks, medicine and chemical analysis. How many kilograms of AgNO23 (MW=170) are there in 23.0 lb
mol AgNO3?
A. 16 B. 0.3 C. 1800 D. 3900
45. The number of cubic feet of a gas composed of 28% CO aod 72% N 2 (by volume) and measured at 85% and 100 psig required to reduce 1 ton of ore which is
845 Fe3O4 to metallic iron is
Fe3O4 + CO 3FeO + CO2
FeO + CO Fe + CO2
A. 4,975.3 B. 5,060.3 C. 5,145.1 D. 5,230.0
46. The following equation describes the decomposition of potassium chlorate to produce oxygen gas, 2KClO 3 2KCl + 3O 2. How many grams KClO3 must be
used to produce 4 liters of O2 measured at 740 torr and 30 C?
A. 108 g B. 118 g. C. 12.8 g D. 132 g
47. The safety air bags in automobiles are inflated by nitrogen gas generated by the rapid decomposition of sodium azide, NaN: 2NaN 3 (s)
2Na(s) + 3N 2 (g). If an airbag has a volume of 36 L and is to be filled with nitrogen gas at a pressure of 1.15 atm at a temperature of 26 C, how many
grams of NaN 3 must be decomposed?
A. 60g B. 65 g C. 72 g. D. 78 g.
48. Some sulphuric acid is spilled on a lab bench. It can be neutralized by sprinkling sodium bicarbonate on it and then mopping up the resultant solution. The
sodium bicarbonate reacts with sulphuric acid in the following way;
2NaHCO 3(s) + H2SO 4(aq) Na2SO 4 (aq) + 2CO 2 (g) + 2H 2O(l)
Sodium bicarbonate is added until the fizzing due to the formation of CO 2(g) stops. If 35 ml of 6.0M H2SO4 was spilled, what is the minimum mass of
NaHCO3 that must be added to the spill to neutralize the acid?
A. 0.42g B. 8.8 g C. 18 g D. 35 g.
49. A partly filled barrel contains 300 lb of water and 100 lb of ice at 32 F. How many pounds of steam at 212 F must be run into the barrel to bring its contents up to
80F?
A. 30.5 lb B. 36.1 lb C. 38.9 lb D. 39.7 lb
50. Seven pounds of steam at atmospheric pressure, superheated to 242F, is introduced simultaneously with 8 lb of ice at 25F into a copper colorimeter which
weighs 5 lb and which contains 50 lb of water at 60 F. the heat fusion and of vaporization for water are 144 and 970 Btu per lb, respectively. The thermal
capacities in BTU per pound per F may be taken as follows: steam 0.48; ice 0.50; and copper 0.093 cal/g C. Neglecting heat losses to all bodies other than the
calorimeter itself, the resulting temperature of the mixture is
A. 135 F B. 148 F C. 157 D. 160 F
51. Find the amount of steam at 212 C which must be blown into 400 lb water originally at 70 F in order to make the final temperature 212 F. Heat losses amount to
2000 Btu. The latent heat at 212 is 970.3 Btu/lb.
52. Determine the final temperature when 10 g of copper and 20 g of lead at 100 C are added to 50 g of water at 50 C. Disregard spurious heat losses. The atomic
weight of copper is 63.55 g/mol, and the specific heat of ead= 0.032 cal/g- C= 0.134 J/g- C.
A. 33.21 C B. 38.21 C C. 39.1 C D. 45.21 C
53. A steam condenser receives 10 kg per second of steam with an enthalpy of 2,570 k/kg. Steam condenses into liquid and leaves with an enthalpy of 160 kJ/kg.
Cooling water passes through the condenser with temperature increases from 13 C to 24 C. Calculate the cooling water flow rate in kg/s.
A. 533 B. 523 C. 518 D. 528
54. A sample of metal weighing 400 g is heated to 96.5 C and then dropped into a calorimeter containing 2000g of water at 20 C. If the final temperature becomes
21.5 C, what is the specific heat of the metal in cal/g- C.
A. 0.10 B. 0.12 C. 0.14 D. 0.16
55. The temperature of the calorimeter and contents is raised to 5 C when 10000 kJ of electric energy is added to a calorimeter containing 400 g of water. What is
the water equivalent of the calorimeter?
A. 2.39 kcal B. 2.00 kcal C. 2.39 kJ D. 2.01 kJ
56. A 1.55-g sampl of propane, C3H8, was burned in a bomb calorimeter whose total heat capacity is 12.3 kJ/ C. The temperature of the calorimeter plus its
contents increased from 21.36 C to 27.69 C. What is the heat of combustion per gram of octane?
A. 78.0 kJ/g B. 7.95 kJ/g C. 1.26 kJ/g D. 50.3 kJ/g
57. The temperature of 100 g of liquid water at 0 C is raised by 1 C. How many calories are consumed?
A. 4.18 cal B. 80 cal C. 100 call D. 1000 cal
58. In an experiment, 0.02 kg of a substance is heated in a bath of boiling water until its temperature is approximately 100 C. The substance is then placed in an
isolated container that is holding 0.10 kg of water at 25 C. the final temperature of the mixture is 32 C. the specific heat of substance, in kilojoules per kilogram
per degree Celsius, is
A. 2.16 B. 2.57 C. 4.19 D. 1.0
59. If 3 MJ of heat is removed from 1 kg of steam at 200 C, the result is
A. water and ice B. water C. water and steam D. ice
60. A quantity of ice at 0.0 c was added to 40 g of water at 19 C in an insulated container. All of the ice melted, and the water temperature decreased to 0.0 C. How
many grams of ice water added?
A. 9.52 g B. 12.4 g C. 14.1 g D. 16.8 g
61. A calorimeter was calibrated by passing an electrical current through a heater and measuring the rise in temperature that resulted. When a current of 113 mA
from a 24.1 V source was passed through the heater for 254 s, the temperature of the calorimeter rose by 2.61 C. Determine the heat capacity of the
calorimeter.
A. 1.04 J/K B. 24.9 J/K C. 50.2 J/K D. 265 J/K
62. The need arises ina laboratory for 2L of an antifreeze solution of a 30 mole percent solution of methanol in water. How many liters of pure methanol at 25 C
should be mixed with water also at 25 C to form the 2 L of antifreeze, also at 25 C? Partial molar volumes for methanol and water in a 30 mole percent
methanol solution at 25 C are; V methanol= 38.632 cm3/gmol ; V water= 17.765 cm3/gmol. For the pure components t 25 C: V pure methanol= 40.727 cm3/gmol; V
pure water = 18.068 cm3/gmol.
A. 1.017 L B. 1.053 l C. 1.105 L D. 1.165 L
63. Using the Antoine equation, the vapour pressure of tetrahydrofuran at 80 C is estimated to be__ torr.
A. 200 B. 1518 C. 1173 D. 2562
64. An electric heater draws a current of 20 A when connected to a 120 V power source. Its resistance is
A. 0.17 ohm B. 6 ohm C. 8 ohm D. 2400 ohm
65. The power rating of electric motors that draws a current of 3 A when operated at 120 V is
A. 40 W B. 0.36 kW C. 0.54 kW D. 1.08 kW
66. A 20-V potential difference is applied across a series combination of a 10 ohm resistor and a 30 ohm resistor. The current in the 10 ohm resistor is
A. 0.5 A B. 0.67 A. C. 1 A D. 2 A
67. What mass in grams of copper will be deposited from a solution of Cu2+ by a current of 2.50 A in 2.00 hr?
A. 5.93 B. 11.9 C. 1.65 D. 23.7
68. In the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl how many liters of Cl2 (g) (at STP) are generated by a current of 7.50 A for a period of 100 min?
A. 45000 L B. 0.466 L C. 5.22 L D. 10.4 L
69. How many grams of iron can be plated out the cathode if a solution of Fe2+ is electrolyzed by a current of 1 ampere for 30 minutes?\
A. 0.52 B. 1.04 C. 838 D. 16.6
70 A. current of 0.75 ampere is passed to a copper (II) sulphate solution for 10 minutes. Calculate the grams of copper deposited.
A. 0.45 g B. 1.20 g C. 2.07 g D. 0.15 g
71. A chemical engineer wants to make chlorine from molten sodium chloride, if he uses a current of one ampere for 5 minutes, how many grams could be
produced?
A. 0.11 g B. 0.15 g C. 0.09 g D. 0.14 g
72. How many amperes of current are required to liberate 5.6 L (STP) of chlorine in 3 hours in the electrolysis of brine (NaCl) solution?
A. 2.8 A B. 3.2 A C. 4.0 A D. 4.5 A
73 Calculate the equilibrium constant at 25 C for the reaction
2 NO(g)+ O 2(g) 2NO 2(g) given that rG= -69.8kJ mol-1 .
A. 1.2 E-5 B. 1.7s E-3 C. 1.03 D. 1.7 E12
74. When equal amounts of hydrogen, H2, and iodine, I 2, are mixed together at a total pressure of 1 bar, the partial pressure of hydrogen iodide, Hl, vapour
produced from by the reaction H 2(g)+ I2 (g) 2Hl(g) is 22.8kPa. Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction.
A. 0.349 B. 0.055 C. 1.252 D. 3.421
75. The equilibrium constant for the reaction PC 3(g)+ Cl2(g) PCl5(g) is K =3.29 x 10 6 at 298 K. calculate the value of K c, the equilibrium constant expressed
in terms of concentrations.
A. 3.4 E 2 B. 8.15 E 4 C. 6.15 E6 D. 3.44 E 4
76. In a titration, 2.7 cm3 of 0.100 mol dm-3 sodium hydroxide, NaOH, solution is added to 25.0 cm3 of 0.125 mol dm-3 benzoic acid, C 6h5COOH, solution.
Calculate the pH of the resulting solution given that the pK 2 of benzoic acid is 4.19.
A. 3.13 B. 4.12 C. 7.45 D. 9.12
77. Calculate the pH of an aqueous solution of hydrocyanic acid of concentration 0.088 mol dm -3. The acidity constant of hydrocyanic acid is 4.9 x 10-10 .
A. 10.2 B. 8.82 C. 5.18 D. 3.48
78. Calculate the ionic strength of a solution of iron (III) carbonate, Fe2 (CO 3)3 of concentration 0.020mol dm+3
A. 0.25 B. 0.30s C. 0.40 D. 0.50
79. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
CO(g)+ H 2O(g) CO 2 (g) + H 2 (g) is K =1.03 x 105 at 298. Calculate the standard reaction Gibbs energy at this temperature.
A. -28.6 kJ/mol B. -14.2 kJ/mol C. -2.40 kJ/mol D. 4.12 kJ/mol
80. Calculate the standard reaction Gibbs energy r G o at 298 K for the combustion of ethane
C 2H 5(g) + 3 1/2 O2(g) 2CO 2(g) + 3 H 2 O (l)
Given that the standard Gibbs energies of formation of the components at this temperature are
R Go (C 2H 6 g)= -32.82 kJ mol-1 , r G o v (CO2g)= -394.36 kJ mol-1, rG o (H 2 O,l) = -237.13 kJ mol-1
A. -420.6 kJ/mol B. -664.3 kJ/mol C. -1467.3
v kJ/mol D. 350 kJ/mol
81. The equilibrium constant kp for the reaction CO+ H 2O= CO2 +H 2 is 10.0 at 690 K. the heat of the reaction H o is- 10,200 cal. Calculate the partial pressure of
CC in an equilibrium mixture prepared by mixing 0.400 mole of CO nd 0.200 mole of H2O in a volume of 5 liters at 500K.
82. If 1 mole of PCl3 and 1 mole of Cl2 are placed in a 5-L container, the following equilibrium is reached; PCl3(g)+ Cl2 (g)= PC15 (g) Kc = 10 at the temperature
maintained. What is the equilibrium molar concentration of PCl3?
A.0.13 B. 0.11 C. 0.14 D. 0.10
83. When the submarine Thresher sank in the Atlantic in 1963, it was estimated in the newspaper that the accident had occurred at a depth of 1000 ft. What is the
pressure of the sea at that depth? Density of sea water is 1024 kg/m2.
A. 420 psia B. 430 psia C. 446 psia D. 459 psia
84. An 10-L insulated container is divided into two parts by a thin membrane. One part contains an ideal gas at 1 atm and 25OC and the other part is vacuum.
Calculate the pressure after the thin membrane burst.
A. 2 atm B. 1.5 atm C. 1.0 atm D. 0.5 atm
85. A child’s bathroom filled at 27 C has a radius of 10 cm. If the balloon is taken outside on a very hot day when the temperature is 50 C. What is the new radius?
A. 10.15 cm B. 10.25 cm C. 10.40 cm D. 10.55 cm
86. A sample of argon occupies 50 L at standard temperature. Assuming constant pressure, what volume will the gas occupy if the temperature is doubled?
A. 25 L B. 50 L C. 100 L D. 200 L
87. If a 360 mL sample of helium contains 0.25 mol of the gas, how many molecules of chlorine gas would occupy the same volume at the same temperature and
pressure?
A. 1.2 E 24 B.6.02 E 23 C. 3.01 E 23 D. 1.51 E 23
88. The valve between a 9 liter tank containing gas at 5 atmospheres and a 6 liter tank containing gas at 10 atmospheres is opened. What is the equilibrium
pressure obtained in the two tanks at constant temperature? Assume ideal behaviour.
A. 5 atm B. 6 atm C. 7 atm D. 8 atm
89. At STP the density of chlorine is 3.22 kg/cubic meter. What weight of this gas is contained in a flask of 100 cubic centimetres at 24OC and 100kPa?
A. 0.563 g B. 0.292 g C. 0.420 g D. 0.321 g
90. A 0.7 m3 tank contains a 4.5 kg of ideal gas. The gas has a molecular weight of 44 and is at 21OC. What is the pressure of the gas?
A. 289.6 kPa B. 310.8 kPa C. 326.7kPa D. 357.2 kPa
91. A 287.5 cm3 of vapour at 100OC and 100 kPa has a mass of 0.725 gr. What is the molecular weight of the vapour ?
A. 77.94 B. 80.55 C. 82.10 D. 85.44
92. At 180 Cand 765 torr, 1.29 L of gas weighs 2.71 g, calculate the approximate molecular weight of the gas.
A. 45.2 B. 49.8 C. 52.2 D. 55.6
93. The molecules of a gas at 100C would have twice as much average kinetic energy at
A. 200C B.2930C C. 5660C D. 6590C
94. What is the kinetic energy (in J/molecule) and rms velocity (in m/s) of argon molecules at 275 K?
A. 4.72 E – 19, 350 B. 8.57 E – 24, 270 C. 7.52 E – 15, 155 D. 5.69 E- 21, 415
95. It takes 16.6 min for a 10 ml sample of unknown gas to effuse through a pinhole. A 10 ml sample of helium required 5.0 min. What is the molecular weight of the
unknown gas?
A. 13.3 g/mol B. 44.1 g/mol C. 177 g/mol D. 7.3 g/mol
96. Among the following pairs of gases, the pair that will diffuse at the same rate is
A. carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide C. carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide
B. carbon dioxide and nitrogen peroxide D. nitrous oxide and nitrogen peroxide
97. How many millilitres of water must be added to 5mL of 12 M HCI solution to make a 3 M HCI solution?
A. 12 mL B. 13 mL C. 14 mL D. 15 mL
98. Ten millilitres of 10 N H2SO4 is diluted to 80mL. What is the molarity of the dilute acid solution?
A. 1.6M B.0.8M C. 1.25 M D. 0.625 M
99. How much1.00 M HCI should be mixed with a certain volume of 0.250 M HCI in order to prepare 1.00 L of 0.500 M HCI?
A. 333 mL B. 667 mL C. 430 mL D. 570 mL
100. A new compound was synthesized from 3 elements designated as A, B and C (MW’s: 69.92, 96.29, 29.58, respectively). If the amount in gram for each
element was assayed to be A=55.936, B = 192.58, and C = 5.938. Determine the formula of this new compound.
A. A 0.8 C 8B 0.8 B. AB 3.44 C 0.11 C. C 0.2 A 0.3 B2 D. B 19C 0.6 A5
CHEMICAL CALCULATIONS 1
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ ______
Specific Gravity Scale
1. The equivalent of 45’Tw in Baume scale is

A. 28.32 B.32.48 C. 26.63 D. 42.56
2. A 10 N aqueous solution of sulphuric acid (30’Tw) is made to react with a 55% aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide (64’Be) to form 1350 g of sodium sulphate
per liter of sodium hydroxide solution. The volume ratio of the acid to the base solution is 2:1. The limiting reactant in the reaction is
A. NaOH B. H 2 SO4 C. Na2SO 4 D. H 2O
3. The degree of completion of the above reaction is
A. 85% B. 92% C. 95% D. 72%
Industrial Stoichiometry
4. Nitrogen and hydrogen react under certain conditions to form ammonia according to the following equation: N 2 +3H 2→2NH3. Suppose that 280 lb of nitrogen and
64 lb of hydrogen are brought together and are allowed to react at 5150C and 300 atm pressure. It was found from experimental measurements that there were 38
lb moles of gases present at equilibrium. How many pound moles of ammonia are present at equilibrium?
A. 8 B. 26 C. 4 D. 12
5. From the data in problem 4, what is the percent excess hydrogen?
A. 6.25% B. 8.5% C. 12.1% D. 14.0%
6. From the data in problem 4, what is the degree of completion of the reaction?
A. 10% B. 20% C. 30% D. 40%
7. From the data in problem 4, what is the percentage conversion of hydrogen to ammonia?
A. 15.4% B. 17.8% C. 18.8% D. 20.3%
8. From the data in problem 4, what is the equilibrium constant (Kc) at the reaction conditions?
A. 1.14E-4 B. 1.14E-3 C. 7.5E-4 D. 7.5E-3
Material Balance
9. Battery acid has a density of 1.285 g/ml and contains 38.0% by weight H2SO4. How many grams of pure H 2SO 4 are contained in a liter of battery acid?
A. 430 B. 442 C. 475 D. 488
10. The weight of sulphuric acid that would be required to prepare 1 liter of hydrochloric acid solution (containing 40.09 percent by weight HCI), density 1.201, is:
A. 595.3 g B. 646.8 g C. 673.2 g D. 692.4 g
11. One hundred mole per hour of a 40% m solution of ethylene dichloride in toluene is fed into the middle of a distillation column. There is no net accumulation in
the column; 100 mole/hr of total material leaves in two streams, an overhead or ‘distillate’ stream and a ‘bottoms’ stream. The distillate stream contains 95% m
ethylene dichloride and the bottoms stream contains 10% m ethylene dichloride. What is the rate of flow of the distillate stream?
A. 64.7 mole/hr B. 53.8 mole/hr C. 35.3 mole/hr D. 45.9 mole/hr
12. An experimental oil is used to distil 6000 kg/hr of Athabasta tar sand which analyses 30% ‘heavy oil’, ‘light oil’, and non-volatile matter. If the distillate contains
12% heavy oil and this constitutes 25% recovery of the component, the weight in kilograms of the distillate obtained is
A. 3750 B. 2250 C. 4350 D. 6000
13. The waste acid from a nitration plant operation contains 23% w NHO 2, 57% H 2SO4, and 20% H 2O. It is specified that the concentrated acid product should contain
27% HNO 2, 60% H 2SO 4, and 13% H 2O. If the H 2SO4 available contains 7% H 2 O and the HNO 2 contains 10% H 2O, how many pounds of the waste acid is needed
to produce 1000 lb of the product?
A. 193 lb B. 388.7 lb C. 814.3 lb D. 418.3 lb
14. 90% of the NH 3 entering an NH 3 -oxidation unit is converted to HNO 3 and 10% less NH 3 is due to conversion losses, NO in the stock gases and miscellaneous
losses. The kg of NH 3 necessary to produce 60,000 kg of 62 wf % HNO3 is
A. 11,150 B. 12,000 C. 12,150 D. 11,000
15. Wood is to be dried from 40% to 25% moisture. What % of feed wood is the water evaporated?
A. 80 B. 70 C. 25 D. 60
16. One drier will dry a material from 45% moisture (wb) to 20% moisture (d.b.) from here the material enters another drier where the H 2 O content is further reduced
to give a final product weighing 1000 kg. If the total evaporation from both drier is 800 kg, the moisture of the final product is
A. 5% B. 2% C. 3% D. 1%
17. A salt solution originally 4 % w NaCl in water is evaporation until the concentration is 5% w NaCl. What percentage of the water in the original solution is
evaporated?
A. 20.8% B. 25% C. 30% D. 35%
18. A contract was made between buyer and a paper manufacturer for paper containing 5% moisture at P450 per ton on specification that price adjustment will be
made if quality is different. How much should the buyer pay for 1 ton of paper with 8% moisture content? Freight cost is P45 per ton.
A. P 450 B. P 434.16 C. P 405 D. 424.26
19. A solution containing equimolal O 2 and N 2 is passed through a membrane to separate O 2 from N 2. The final product is found to contain 45% O 2 and 55% N 2. Find
the percentage O2 remaining if only 20% of the original solution passed through the membrane.
A. 51% B. 15% C. 50% D. 45%
20. The solubility of NaNO 3 at 400 C and the 100 C are 51.4% by weight and 44.5% by weight respectiv ely. How many NaNO 3 maybe crystalized from a 10 kg solution
initially saturated at 400C if the temperature of the solution is lowered to 100C.
A. 6900 B. 4089 C. 3897 D. 1243
21. A volume moist air of 1000 cu ft at a total pressure of 740 mmHg and a temperature of 300C contains water vapour in such proportions that its partial pressure is
22mmHg. Without the total pressure being changed, the temperature is reduced to 150C and some water vapor removed by condensation. After cooling it is found
that the partial pressure of the water vapor is 12.6 mmHg. Calculate the volume of the gas after cooling.
A. 750 ft3 B. 820 ft3 C. 938 ft3 D. 1022 ft3
22. From the data in problem 21, calculate the weight of water removed.
A. 0.563 lb B. 1.58 lb C. 2.98 lb D. 3.75 lb
23. A mixing tank mixes two inlet streams containing salt. The salt concentration in stream 1 is 5% by weight, and in streams 2 it is 15% by weight. Stream 1 flow at
25 kg/s and stream 2 at 10 kg/s. There is only one exit stream. Find the salt concentration in the exit stream.
A. 5% B. 8% C. 11% D. 13%
24. The chloride concentration in a brine waste flow of .3 L/s is 15000 mg/L. The river flow upstream from the point of discharge is 0.57 m2 /s, and the chloride
content is 10 mg/L. Calculate the concentration (in mg/L) in the stream below the mixing zone.
A. 172 B. 174 C. 176 D. 178
DAILY TEST
{1-5} A triple effect evaporator is fed with 1000 lbs of a 5% salt solution to tbe concentrated to 40% solution. If the amount of water evaporated from the first effect is
375 pounds and that from the second effect is 1.5 time that from the third effect.
1. Calculate the water removed from the second effect.
A. 125 lbs B. 200 lbs C. 300 lbs D. 450 lbs
2. Calculate the water removed from the third effect.
3. Calculate the mass of the product.
4. Calculate the composition of salt solution leaving the first effect.
A. 5.25 % B. 8.0 % C. 15.38% D. 18.25%
5. Calculate the composition of salt solution leaving the second effect.
A. 5.25 % B. 8.0 % C. 15.38% D. 18.25%
{6-7} Saturated solution of a salt is made by agitating 600 kg of salt in 1200 kg water. The salt is soluble to the extent of 0.25 kg per kg of water. On filtration, 0.4 of
solution adheres to every kilogram of undissolved salt. Calculate:
6. weight of the filtrate
A. 1380 kg B. 96 kg C. 24 kg D. 1500 kg
7. kg of dry salt recovered on drying the wet filter cake
A. 1380 kg B. 96 kg C. 24 kg D. 1500 kg
8. A typical mud is 70 wt % sand and 30 wt % water. What is its density? The sand is practically pure quartz (SiO2), for which density is 165 lb/ft3.
9. Pig iron is prepared in a blast furnace from a hematite ore. The ore contains 83% iron oxide (Fe2O3). The pig iron produced is 96% Fe and the iron in the ore
slag contains 10% of the iron in the ore. How much pig iron is produced for every 500 tons of ore?
A. 156 B. 272 C. 450 D. 353
10. We are going to purify seawater by freezing pure water out of it as ice, and we want to get 2000 kg/hr of pure water in the form of ice. If the seawater entering the
freezing unit is 2 by weight NaCl and 98% water, how many kilograms of entering seawater are needed per hour if the exit liquid brine concentration is 10% by
weight NaCl & 90% water?
A. 2250 B. 2500 C. 3500 D. 4000
BRINGHOME EXAM
“The heights by great men reached and kept were not attained by sudden flight,
but they, while their companion slept, were toiling upward in the night.”
Henry Wadsworth Longfellow (1807-1882) US poet. “The Ladder of Saint Augustine”
12. A typical mud is 70 wt % sand and 30 wt % water. What is its density? The sand is practically pure quartz (SiO2), for which density is 165 lb/ft3.
13. An equimolar mixture of benzene and toluene is subjected to a single batch distillation. Distillation is discontinued when 60% of the benzene in the feed is
distilled. At this instance the bottom product when analysed shows benzene to be 36.4% by mole. In the distillate the ole % of benzene is
A. 66.6 B. 58.1 C. 33.6 D. 54.7
14. How many pounds of calcium fluoride rock is needed to produce 3000 lbs of a 60% HF acid per day if the yield is 90% and the rock contains 95% pure CaF2?
A. 4105.2 B. 3694.7 C. 3510.0 D. 3900.0
15. A laundry can purchase soap containing 30% of water at price of $7 per 100 lb f.o.b. the factory. The same manufacturer offers soap containing 5% of water. IF
the freight rate is 60 cents pers 100 lb, what is the maximum price that the laundry should pay the manufacturer for the soap containing 5% water?
A. $9.71 B.$8.90 C. $7.45 D.$10.54
16. A solution in an evaporator contains 20% by weight of soluble solids. A, the rest being water. After 120 kgs of water are evaporated, it was found that the solution
contained 28% A. Calculate the weights of solution originally in the evaporator.
A. 420 lbs B. 420 kgs C. 240 lbs D. 240 kgs
17. A 100-kg batch of clay containes 20% water. It was dried to a water content of 5% . How much water is removed?
A. 15.8 lb B. 27.2 lb C. 15.8 kgs D. 27.2 kgs
18. A salt solution originally 4% w NaCl in water is evaporated until the concentration is 5% w NaCl. What is the percentage reduction in weight of the original
solution?
A. 20% B. 20.8% C. 21.2% D. 21.4%
19. A mill produces wet paper containing 15% water b weight (wet basis). This wet paper is fed in a continuous steady -state operation through a drier where the
water content is reduced to 6% by weight. If the heating costs are 5 centavos for every pound of water removed from the paper in the drying operation, what is
the heating cost per 100 lb of wet paper fed into the dryer?
A. P 1.50 B. P 0.36 C. P 0.48 D. P 2.00
20. A company receives a shipment of 50000 lb of two chemical A and B. The total cost, excluding shipping charges, is $ 15,000. The price of A is 50 cents/lb; the
price of B is 25 cents/lb. How many pounds of A were shipped?
A. 4000 B. 10000 C. 20000 D. 30000
21. What do you call a system in which there is a flow of matter through the boundary? This system usually encloses the devices that involve mass flow, such as:
compressor, turbine, or nozzle.
A. closed system B. open system C. isolated system D. all of these
22. Paper is passing continuously through a tunnel drier. The entering paper contains 10% w H 2O (dry basis) and the leaving paper contains 2% w H 2O (dry basis).
How many pounds of water are evaporated per hour if 1000 lb/hr of paper enters the drier?
A. 90.9 B. 18.18 C. 72.72 D. 25.05
23. One metric ton per hour of palay is to be dried in a tunnel drier from 180% moisture to 10% moisture dry basis. How much water must be removed?
A. 3400 lb/hr B. 110000 lb/hr C. 34000 lb/hr D. 1214 lb/hr
24. The fermentation of glucose, C 6H 12O6, produces ethyl alcohol, C2H5OH, and carbon dioxide. C6H12O6 (aq) →2C2H5OH (aq) + 2CO 2 (g). How many grams of
ethanol can be produced from 10 g of glucose?
A. 10.0 g B. 2,56 g C. 5.11 g D. 4.89 g
25. Automotive airbags inflate when sodium azide, NaN 3, rapidly decompose to tis component elements via the reaction 2NaN 3→2Na + 2N 2. How many grams of
sodium azide are required to form 5.00 g of nitrogen gas?
A. 9.11 g B. 8.81 g C. 7.74 g D. 3.33 g
26. CO2 exhaled by astronauts is removed from spaceship atmosphere by reaction with KOH : CO2 + 2KOH →K2CO3 + H2O. How many kg of CO 2 can be
removed with 1.00 kg of KOH?
A. 0.500 kg B. 0.786 kg C. 0.392 kg D. 1.57 kg
27. A byproduct of the reaction that inflates automotive airbags is very reactive sodium, which can ignite in air. Sodium produced during the inflation process react
with another compound added to the airbag contents, KNO 3, via the reaction 10 Na+ 2KNO 3 → K2O + 5Na2O + N 2 . How many grams of KNO3 are required to
remove 5.00 g of Na?
A. 110 g B. 0.667 g C. 4.40 g D. 1.00 g
28. For the reaction 2NO2 + H2) →2HNO3 + NO, how many grams of HNO3 can be form when 1.00 g of NO2 and 2.25 of H2O are allowed to react?
A. 0.913 g B. 0.667 g C. 15.7 g D. 1.37 g
29. A filter medium is tested by suspending 50 grams in 100 grams of water. When filtered, the filtrate is clear. The wet cake is weighed and found to be 53.9 grams.
After drying, the cake is found to be 49.0485 grams. What is the solubility of the filter media in grams/100 grams water? Assume that the concentration of the
filtrate is the same as the concentration of the liquid in the filter cake.
A. 4.2 B. 2.1 C. 1 D. 0.07
30. A dehumidifier sprays 50 lb of cold water per minute into a stream of air. One hundred pounds of wet air per minute enters the dehumidifying chamber. The
absolute humidity of the entering air is 0.05 water/ lb dry air, and that of the leaving air is 0.01 lb water / lb dry air. What is the weight of wet air leaving per
minute?
A. 3.81 B. 50 C. 53.81 D. 96.2
31. Humid air at temperature 600OF and a total pressure of 1 atmosphere is passed through a dehumidifier at a rate of 1000 ft3/min. The partial pressure of water
vapour in air is reduced from 45 mmHg to 10 mmHg. How many pounds of water are removed per hour?
A. 81.9 B. 65.4 C. 45.4 D. 76.3
32. After crystallization process, a solution of calcium chloride in water contains 62 lb of CaCl2 per 100 lb of water. Calculate the weight of the solution necessary to
dissolve 250 lb of CaCl2-6H2O at a temperature of 35OC. Sollubility at 25OC=7.38 lb-moles of CaCl2 per 1000 lb of water.
A. 120 lb B. 175 lb C. 211 lb D. 280 lb
33. The solubility of a substance A at 25OC is 25 g/L and at 50OC its solubility is 75 g/L. If 500 mL of a saturated solution of A is cooled from 50OC to 25OC, how
many grams of solute A will be crystalized? Assume volume of solute in the solution is negligible.
A. 12.5 g B. 37.5 g C. 25 g D. 32.5 g
34. Crystallization occurs in a solution that is
A. Concentrated B. unsaturated C. supersaturated D. saturated
{24-25} Alcohol-water solution is fed into a distilling still at the rate of 1000 kg/hr. The solution analyses 30% ethanol by weight. The distillate contains 90% alcohol
and the bottom 8% alcohol, calculate:
35. kg of distillate per hour.
A. 139.67 B. 268.29 C. 315.79 D. 731.71
36. kg of bottom product per hour.
A. 139.67 B. 268.29 C. 315.79 D. 731.71
37. percent recovery of the alcohol.
A. 19.51% B. 20.37% C. 62.16% D. 80.49
CHEMICAL CALCULATIONS 2
__________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________
Liquid & Gaseous Fuels
1. The CO2 that will theoretically be formed when a mixture of 50 g of CH 4 and 100 g of O 2 is ignited?
A. 34.4 g B. 68.8 g C. 103.1 g D. 137.5 g
2. Determine the theoretical moles of oxygen required for the combustion of one mole of refinery gases
A. 3.450 B. 4.010 C. 4.786 D. 4.915
3. The data from a certain flue gas analysis are as follows:
Original volume of sample - 100 ml
Volume after passing through KOH solution (removes CO2) - 87.9 mL
Volume after passing through alkaline pyrogallol solution (removes O2) -80.7 mL
Volume after passing through cuprous chloride solution (removes CO)- 80.5 mL
On dry basis, what is the percentage of oxygen in the flue gas sample?
A. 12.1 B. 4.7 C. 0.2 D. 7.2
4. Ethane reacts with pure oxygen to form water and carbon dioxide. If 3 mcles of ethane and 12 mole of oxygen is mixed, and 80% of the ethane reacts, what is
the percent excess of oxygen?
A. 14.3% B. 20.5% C. 30.2 % D. 50%
5. Ninety grams of ethane and 384 grams of oxygen are fed continuously to a laboratory furnace. The total combustion products collected was 16.2 g-mole with no
carbon monoxide. However, not all of the ethane was burned due to faulty combustion. The fraction of ethane that was burned is equal to
A. 90% B. 85% C. 80% D. 92%
6. A fuel gas containing 80% m CH4 and 20% m C2H6 is burned with dry air. Sixty percent of the carbon burned goes t CO2; the rest going to CO, Fifty percent
excess air is used. Calculate the mole percent of CO in the orsat analysis of the flue gas.
A. 4.62% B. 3.08% C. 8.91% D. 83.39%
7. A high speed diesel engine burns fuel to give an exhaust gas analysing 7.14% CO2, 4.28% CO, 8.24% O2 and 80.34% N2. Calculate the percent excess
supplied.
A. 28 B. 30 C. 32 D. 34
8. The exhaust gases from a furnace give the following Orsat analysis: 13.6% CO2, 2.4% CO, 2.8% O2, and 81.2% N2. If the fuel used is a hydrocarbon, identify
the fuel.
A. C2H6 B. CH4 C. C2H2 D. C2H4
9. A high speed diesel engine burns fuel to given an exhaust gas analysing 7.14% CO2, 4.28 CO, 8.24% O2 and 80.34% N2. The cetane number of the fuel fires is
A. 44.58 B. 45.20 C. 52. 38 D. 50.28
Solid Fuels
10. Pure carbon is burned with theoretical amount of air for complete combustion in lb moles, 80% carbon burns, one-half of which formed Co2 and the rest CO.
The percentage CO2, CO and O2 in the combustion gases are respectively;
A. 33.3, 33.3, 33.3 B. 8.1, 8.1, 8.1 C. 4.8, 8.1, 12.2 D. 81, 4.0, 12.0
11. A furnace completely burns coal containing 80% C. Analysis of the flue gas shows 14.5% CO2, 3.76% O2 and no CO. What is the percentage of the net
hydrogen in the coal?
A. 6.37% B. 8.90% C. 10.12% D. 14.25%
12. A sample of lignite was found to contain 34.55% moisture, 22.91% FC, 7.2Z% ash, 1.1% S and 0.57% N with a calorific value of 16.45 MJ/kg. Calculate % C in
the VCM.
A. 49.09% B. 46.15% C. 65.76% D. 55.40%
13. A furnace is fired with coal with the following proximate anylysis: 5% M, 60% FC, 25% VCM and 10% ash. Its calorific value is 31.33 MJ/kg. Calculate the % C
lost in the refuse analyses 25% FC, 4% VCM, 79.6% ash.
A. 4.59 B. 5.1 C. 2.25 D. 3.54
14. A furnace burns coal containing 4.1% M, 24% , VCM, 63% FC, 1.2% N, 1.18% S, and 8.9% ash. Determine the percentage of the heating value lost in the
refuse if it analyses 24% FC and 76% ash. Its calorific value is 32 MJ/kg.
A. 2.42% B. 2.97% C. 3.54% D. 4.23%
DAILY TEST
1. The coal analysis which is based on the volatilization characteristic of the fuel is
A. proximate B. modified C. ultimate D. elemental
2. The heating value measured when water formed from combustion is in the liquid state is
A. gross calorific value C. heat of combustion
B. net calorific value D. latent heat of condensation
3. In the combustion of solid fuels, the element between the feed and the refuse is the
A. coked coal B. moisture C. VCM D. ash
4. The empirical relation which allows one to compute for the net hy drogen in a given solid fuel.is the
A. Calderwood equation C. Theoretical Oxygen Equation
B. Dulong’s Formula D. Oxygen Unaccounted for equation
5. The type of combustible present in the coal when the ratio of the VCM over FC in the coal is equal to the ratio of VCM over FC in the refuse is
A. uncoked coal C. coked coal
B. partially cooked coal D. combination of coked an\d uncoked coal
7. It is a portion of the coal which when heated in the absence of air under prescribe condition is liberated as gases or vapors
A. fixed carbon B. volatile matter C. total carbon D. net hydrogen
8. A furnace burns coal containing 4.1% M, 24% VCM, 53% FC, 1.2 N, 1.18% S, and 8.9% ash. Determine the percentage of the heating value lost in the
refuse if it analyses 245 FC and 76% ash. Its calorific value is 32 MJ/kg.
A. 2.42% B. 2.97% C. 3.54% D. 4.23%
For number 8 to 10..
A fuel containing methane and ethane is burned in excess air. This analysis of the dry stack gas is given as follows: 4.62 CO 2, 3.08% CO, 8.91% O 2 and
83.39% N 2 by mole. Determine the following:
8. the percentage excess air
A. 33.61% B. 49.51% C. 67.21% D. 74.72%
9. The mole percentage of ethane in the fuel
A. 18.57% B. 20.36% C. 40.71% D. 74.72%
10. If the fuel is composed mainli of a saturated hydrocarbon, what is the ratio of carbon to hydrogen in the fuel
A. 0.271 B. 0.346 C. 0.587 D. 0.603
BRING HOME EXAM
“Wisdom denotes the pursuing of the best ends by the best means.”
Francis Hutcheson (1694- 1746)
Irish born English philosopher
1. A certain stoichiometric problem was solved on the basis of 100 mole dry flue gas (DFG). The given condition at the stack outlet is as follows: 780 mmHg,
970 K and the partial pressure of H2o is 24 mmHg. The computed total moles of H2O is
A . 2.340 B. 4.232 C. 3.175 D. 6.225
970 K and the partial pressure of H2o is 24 mmHg. The partial of H2o is eual to ____ in Hg.
A. 0.88 B. 0.80 C. 0.85 D. 0.94.
970 K and the partial pressure of H2o is 24 mmHg. The volume of the wet flue gas is
A. 6.098 m3 B. 8.001 m3 C. 8719 L D. 592 L
970 K and the partial pressure of H2o is 24 mmHg. Pressure of the gas stream in psia is:
A. 15.09 B. 14.7 C. 22.34 D. 21.71
970 K and the partial pressure of H2o is 24 mmHg. Actual volume occupied by the computed moles of H2O is
A. 246.22 L B. 256.33 L C. 24.9 L D. 25.6 L
970 K and the partial pressure of H2o is 24 mmHg. Flue gas temperature on oF is
A. 613 B. 1472 C. 323 D. 1287
7. A pure saturated hydrocarbon is burned with excess air. Orsal analysis of the product of combustion shows 9.08% CO2, 1.63% C O, 5.28% O2 and no
free H2. The formula of the hydrocarbon is
A. C3H8 B. C4h10 C. C2H6 D. C2H2
8. The hydrocarbon C nH 2n+2 . Used as a fuel was found to contain 14.84 g-moles H 2 and 133.56 grams C. What is the formula of the hydrocarbon?
A. CH 4 B. C 2 H 6 C. C 3H 8 D. C 4H 10
9. A furnace is fires with coal with the following proximate analysis: 5% M, 60% FC, 25% VCM and 10% ash. Its calorific value is 31.33 MJ/kg. Calculate the %
VCM lost in the refuse if the refuse analyses 25% FC, 4.4% VCM, 70.6% ash.
A. 5.1 B. 4.59 C. 2.21 D. 3.54
10. A sample of lignite was found to contain 34.55% moisture, 22.91% FC, 7.2% ash, 1.1% S and 0.57% N with a calorific value of 16.45 MJ/kg. Calculate % C
in the coal.
A. 46.15% B. 49.09% C. 65.76% D. 55.40%
11. On the “dry basis“ a sample of coal analyses as follows: VCM, 21.06% ; FC, 71.80% and ash, 7.14% . If the moisture present in the coal is 2.49% , what is
the % FC on the wet basis?
A. 70.0% B. 70.8% C. 71.5% D. 71.8%
12. The flue gas from the combustion of a hydrocarbon fuel has the following Orsat analysis: 5.68% CO2, 2.43% CO, 6.4% O2 and 85.4% N2. The percent
excess air supplied is:
A.30.0% B. 34.8% C. 38.6% D. 42.5%
13. A furnace burns coal containing 4.1% moisture, 24% VCM, 63% FC, 1.2% N, 1.8% S and 8.9% ash. The coal has a heating of 32,000 KJ/kg and the refuse
was analysed to contain 4.8% VCM, 12.6% FC and 82.6% ash. The type of combustible present is
A. coked coal C. uncoked coal
B. coked and uncoked coal D. partially coked coal
14. A furnace burns coal containing 4.1% moisture, 24% VCM, 63% FC, 1.2% N, 1.8% S and 8.9% ash. The coal has heating of 32,000 kJ/kg and the refuse
was analysed to contain 4.8% VCM, 12.6% FC and 82.6% ash. The percentage of the carbon lost in the refuse is
A. 2.16% B. 2.97 C. 3.02% D. 2.98%
15. Orsat analysis of the stack gas from the combustion of the gaseous mixture of ethane and methane shows 10.57% CO2, 3.79% O2 and the rest N2. The
air enters at 30oC and the barometer reads 760 mmHg. Determine percent excess air
A. 50 B. 20 C. 45 D. 65
16. Orsat analysis of the stack gas from the combustion of the gaseous mixture of ethane and methane shows 10.57% CO 2, 3.79% O 2 and the rest N 2. The air
enters at 30˚C and the barometer reads 760 mmHg. Determine the mole percent composition of the gaseous fuel.
A. 85.3% methane & 14.7% ethane C. 30.61% methane & 69.39% ethane
B. 79.3% methane & 20.7% ethane D. 14.7% methane & 85.3% ethane
enters at 30˚C and the barometer reads 760 mmHg. Determine the partial pressure of water in the stack gas is 127 mmHg, what is the humidity of the
incoming air?
A. 88% C. 70%
B. 80% D. 66%
18. What will be the percent carbon monoxide in flue gas from the burning of carbon with 50% excess air in such a manner that 80% carbon burns to carbon
dioxide and the rest to carbon monoxide?
A. 2.8 C. 8.3
B. 17.2 D. 20.5
19. A furnace is fired with petroleum oil containing 80% C, 13% H, 3% S, 1% N and 3% O. Determine the moles of theoretical air required for the combustion
of one kilogram of oil.
A. 430 C. 472
B. 460 D. 491
20. A Pennsylvania bituminous coal is analyzed as follows: Exactly 2.500 g is weighed into a fused crucible. After drying for 1 h at 1 110˚C, the moisture-free
residue weighs 2.145 g. The crucible next is covered with a vented lid a strongly heated until no volatile matter remains. The residual coke button weighs
1.528 g. The crucible is then heated without the cover until all specks of carbon have disappeared, and the final ash weighs 0.245 g. What is the percent
of VCM in the coal?
A. 35.5% C. 51.3%
B. 3.4% D. 9.8%
21. A burner converter chain burning pure sulfur produces a converter gas which shows 90% N 2 on analysis. Ninety percent of the sulfur burned is converted
to SO 3 . Calculate the percent excess air, based on conversion to SO 3.
A. 55% C. 10%
B. 75% D. 30%
22. A steam generating unit receives 335,000 lb/hr of feed water with an enthalpy h1m=323 Btu/lb. The steam leaves the boiler with an enthalpy h2=1400.2
Btu/lb. There are burned 32,300 lb/hr of coal with a heating value of 13,000 Btu/lb. Air to support combustion is supplied in the ratio of 13.1 lb air/pound
coal and has an enthalpy of ha=21.6 Btu/lb. The gaseous products of combustion (stack gases), in the amount of 13.8 lb/pound of coal, leave the unit with
an enthalpy of hg=120 Btu/lb. Changes of kinetic and potential energies are generally negligible. Calculate the unaccounted-for energy per pound of fuel.
A. 445 Btu C. 890 Btu
B. 210 Btu D. 1400 Btu
23. A hydrocarbon fuel (CH x)n requires equal masses of oxygen for a complete reaction of each of its components carbon and hydrogen, respectively.
Determine x and n.
A. x=1, n=4 C. x=3, n=2
B. x=4, n=1 D. x=2, n=3
24. Dry air required to burn one lb of carbon completely may be around
A. 11.5 lb C. 16 lb
B. 2.67 lb D. 0.40 lb
25. Dry air requirement for burning 1 ft3 of CO to CO 2 may be around
A. 2.4 ft3 C. 0.87 ft3
B. 1.75 ft3 D. 11.4 ft3
26. Calculate the volume (cubic feet at STP) of air required for the complete combustion of 500 cu. ft. of coal gas that has the following composition: 49.0
percent oxygen, 34.8 percent methane, 4.2 percent ethylene (C 2 H 4), 6.0 percent carbon monoxide, 4.0 percent nitrogen, 1 percent carbon dioxide.
A. 2150 C. 2590
B. 2420 D. 2636
27. A coal has an ultimate analysis of 93.9% carbon, 2.1% hydrogen, 2.3% hydrogen, 0.3% nitrogen, and 1.4 ash. What are its higher heating value (HHV)
and lower heating value (LHV)?
A. HHV=14330 Btu/lb, LHV=14170 Btu/lb C. HHV=15780 Btu/lb, LHV=14810 Btu/lb
B. HHV=13980 Btu/lb, LHV=13110 Btu/lb D. HHV=14210 Btu/lb, LHV=13950 Btu/lb
moisture in the coal?
A. 3.4% C. 51.3%
B. 35.5% D. 9.8%
of FC in the coal?
A. 51.3% C. 3.4%
B. 35.5% D. 9.8%
30. A gaseous fuel is composed of 20% methane (CH 4 ), 40% ethane (C 2H 6) and 40% propane (C 3H 8 ), where all percentages are by volume. The volumetric
analysis of the dry products of combustion (i.e. everything except the water) for this fuel gives 10.6% carbon dioxide (CO 2 ), 3% oxygen (O 2), 1% carbon
monoxide (CO), and 85.4% nitrogen (N 2). Determine the air fuel ratio on a mass basis for this reaction.
A. 1 C. 23
B. 18 D. 33
31. A furnace is fired with coal containing 6% moisture, 18% VCM, 67% FC, and 9% ash. The refuse analysis shows 5% VCM, 23% FC, and 62% ash. The
higher heating value of the coal “as fired” is 14,300 Btu/lb. Calculate the percentage of the heating value of the coal that is lost in the refuse. The moisture
in the refuse is due to “wetting down” to prevent dusting. It is not moisture from the original coal.
A. 2.30% C. 4.68%
B. 3.58% D. 5.12%
32. A flue gas from a certain furnace burning a fuel of negligible nitrogen content is found by analysis to contain 12% CO 2, 7.5% O 2 , and 80.5% N 2. Calculate
the % excess oxygen.
A. 13.9% C. 38%
B. 5.1% D. 54%
A. Kerogen C. Fuel oil
B. Coke D. Crude oil
SNAP EXAM
1. ___________ is normally used to determine the quality of combustion gases

A. Stoichiometry C. Orsat analysis
B. Gravimetric analysis D. Material balance
2. Hydrogen in fuel which needs oxygen from air for its combustion is known as
A. Moisture hydrogen C. Total hydrogen
B. Net hydrogen D. Combined hydrogen
3. Refers to the outgoing stream of noncombustible matter (ash), which separates from the materials that can be gasified.
A. Tar C. Gangue
B. Cinder D. Refuse
4. Which of the following is true if the resulting combustible lost in refuse is coked coal?
A. Has lost only its moisture content
B. Has lost both moisture and VCM content
C. Has FC and VCM as its main constituent
D. The FC/VCM in green coal is equal to FC/VCM in refuse
5. A gas which contains saturated paraffin hydrocarbons.
A. Secondary fuel gas C. Natural gas
B. Biogas D. Marsh gas
6. When the ratio of the FC to VCM is greater in the residue than in the fuel, this means the residue
A. Is completely burnt C. Contains unburnt coal
B. Contains pure coke D. Contains a partially burnt coal
7. Combined water is equal to
A. The hydrogen in the fuel C. Oxygen in the fuel
B. Moisture in the fuel D. Net hydrogen
8. Liquid fuel compositions are normally given in
A. Mole % C. Volume %
B. Weight % D. Mole fraction
9. Burning coke in a limited supply of oxygen can result in the formation of
A. CO C. CH 4
B. CO 2 D. H 2S
10. When water in the products of combustion is in the vapor state, the heating value is
A. Lower heating value C. Higher heating value
B. Gross calorific value D. Average heating value
11. It refers to the internal heat from the Earth.
A. Geothermal C. Molten heat
B. Thermal Energy D. Tectonic heat
12. The VCM of a solid fuel contains the following except
A. C C. S
B. H D. Ash
13. Liquid fuels may be divided into two main classes, based on how they w ill be used: light oils or spirits and heavy oils. Light oils are suitable for use with
internal combustion engines and jet engines. Which of the following is not a light oil?
A. Benzole C. Furnace oils
B. Alcogas D. Alcohols
14. Solid residue from the carbonization of wood which involves heating wood strongly in the absence of oxygen.
A. Peat C. Lignites
B. Wood charcoal D. Coal
A. Nitrogen C. Carbon dioxide
B. Hydrogen sulfide D. Methane
16. In flue gas analysis by Orsat’s apparatus, carbon monoxide is absorbed by
A. Cuprous chloride C. Potassium hydroxide
B. Alkaline pyrogallol solution D. None of these
17. Incomplete combustion of a fuel is characterized by
A. Smoke formation C. High gas temperature
B. High percentage of oxygen in flue gas D. High carbon monoxide content in flue gas
18. Oxygen percentage (by weight) in atmospheric air is
A. 19 C. 23
B. 21 D. 29
19. A gaseous fuel in order to develop luminosity on burning, must contain
A. Carbon monoxide C. Hydrogen
B. Hydrocarbons D. Oxygen
20. Preheating of gaseous fuel results in increased
A. Flame length C. Flame temperature
B. Quantum of flue gas D. Ignition temperature
21. Combustion of pulverized coal as compared to that of lump coal
A. Develops a non-luminous flame C. Develops a low temperature flame
B. Can be done with less excess air D. Provides a lower rate of heat release
22. Which of the following is the most important deterrents to an extended use of pulverized coal in boiler firing?
A. Ash disposal problem C. Excessive fly-ash discharge from the stack
B. High power consumption in its transportation D. Erosion of induced draft fan blades
23. The terms “sweet” and “sour” in natural gas terminology, are used to denote the absence or presence of __________.
A. CO C. H 2S
B. Methane D. Glucose
24. It is the solid, cellular, infusible material remaining after the carbonization of coal, pitch, petroleum residue and certain other carbonaceous materals.
A. Coke C. Wood
B. Char D. Peat
25. The gas generated by blasting a deep, hot bed of coal or coke continuously with a mixture or air and steam.
A. LNG C. LPG
B. Producer gas D. Re-formed gas
26. It is the portion of the coal which when heated in the absence of air under prescribed conditions is liberated as gases or vapors.
A. Fixed carbon C. Total carbon
B. Volatile matter D. Net hydrogen
27. The inorganic residue that remains after the coal has been burned under specified conditions and it is composed largely of silicon, aluminum, iron and
calcium and of minor amounts of compounds of magnesium, sodium, potassium and titanium.
A. Refuse C. Cinder
B. Ash D. Fixed carbon
28. It is a partially decomposed plant matter that has accumulated underwater or in a water-saturated environment.
A. Oil shale C. Peat
B. Tar sands D. Biomass
29. Incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons in carbonaceous fuel is usually indicated by the presence in the combustion gases of
A. Carbon monoxide C. Carbon dioxide
B. Nitrogen D. Water vapor
30. Which of the following is an ore of mercury?
A. Bauxite C. Sphalerite
B. Galena D. Cinnabar
31. Which of the following is the present process for the manufacture of soda ash (NA 2 CO3)?
A. LeBlanc process C. Deacon process
B. Solvay process D. Weldon process
32. It is the most abundant metal of the Earth’s crust.
A. Iron C. Lithium
B. Aluminum D. Sodium
33. Which of the following metals reacts violently with water?
A. Sodium C. Diamond
B. Calcium D. Aluminum
34. A mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide, produced by the reaction of water and carbon (coke), that is used as the starting point in the synthesis of
methanol and other organic chemicals.
A. Producer gas C. Marsh gas
B. Synthesis gas D. Laughing gas
35. A process used in paper production in which sulfur dioxide is added to a mildly acidic digestion liquor to yield hydrogen sulfite ions.
A. Sulfite process C. Sulfate process
B. Mechanical pulp process D. Solvay process
36. A process used in paper production in which sodium sulfate is added to a basic digestion liquor.
A. Sulfite process C. Sulfate process
B. Mechanical pulp process D. Solvay process
37. A process for the production of sodium carbonate from sodium chloride and calcium carbonate, giving calcium chloride as a byproduct and using ammonia
as an intermediate.
A. Haber process C. Hagreaves process
B. Solvay process D. Frasch process
38. Which of the following is present in the process for the manufacture of soda ash (Na2CO3 )?
A. LeBlanc process C. Deacon process
B. Solvay process D. Weldon process
39. The ejections of electrons from a metal surface by beam of light. The energy of electrons depends upon the wavelength of the light.
A. Tyndall effect B. Photoelectric effect
C. Greenhouse effect D. Electrometric effect
40. An early method for the production of sodium carbonate from sodium chloride, calcium carbonate, and sulfuric acid.
A. Frasch process C. Solvay process
B. Leblanc process D. Raschig process
41. An early process for the production of sulfuric acid, in which SO 2 is oxidized to SO 3 by nitrogen oxides in lead-lined chambers.
A. Solvay process C. Lead chamber process
B. Downs process D. Hall-Heroult process
42. A process for the production of aluminum through electrolysis of a solution of bauxite in molten cryolite
A. Solvay process C. Lead chamber process
B. Downs process D. Hall-Heroult process
43. An industrial process for the manufacture of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen with a catalyst at elevated temperature and pressure.
A. Haber-Bosch process C. Solvay process
B. Hall-Heroult process D. Leblanc process
44. A process in which sulfur is recovered from underground deposits by melting it with superheated water and forcing it to the surface.
A. Haber-Bosch process C. Bayer process
B. Frasch process D. Bessemer process
45. An industrial electrochemical process for obtaining sodium from molten sodium chloride.
A. Frasch process C. Bessemer process
B. Bayer process D. Downs process
46. An industrial process for the production of sulfuric acid that is based on the oxidation of sulfur to sulfur trioxide on a vanadium oxide catalyst, followed by
reaction with water in fuming sulfuric acid.
A. Bayer process C. Lead chamber process
B. Leblanc process D. Contact process
47. A multistep cyclic process in which pyruvate ions are broken down to carbon dioxide and water, with production of ATP, NADH, and FADH 2 molecules that
store free energy in the cells of organisms.
A. Born-Haber cycle C. Calvin cycle
B. Citric acid cycle D. Carnot cycle
48. A disproportionation reaction of two aldehyde molecules to give an alcohol and a carboxylic acid.
A. Friedel-Crafts reaction C. Shift reaction
B. Cannizzaro reaction D. Dehydration reaction
49. A multistep cyclic process in which glucose is synthesized from carbon dioxide and water.
A. Nitrogen cycle C. Calvin cycle
50. A process for the conversion of iron to steel that consists of forcing air through molten pig iron.
A. Bessemer process C. Contact process
B. Bayer process D. Frasch process
51. An industrial process for the purification of aluminum (III) oxide through its selective dissolution in a strongly basic solution.
52. If the pressure recovery experienced by the liquid in the valve is enough to raise the pressure above the vapor pressure of the liquid, then the vapor
bubbles start collapsing, or imploding. This implosion is called
A. Fisher control C. Cavitation
B. Viscosity correction D. Crowding condition
53. A type of reciprocating stem valve used mainly as a block valve for fully open or fully closed services.
A. Globe valve C. Split-body valve
B. Gate valve D. Sliding stem valve
54. Common microorganism used for penicillin manufacture is
A. Mold C. Protozoa
B. Bacteria D. Algae
55. The chemical most commonly used to speed sedimentation of sewage is
A. Sulfuric acid C. Lime
B. Copper sulfate D. Methylene blue
A. Nitrogen C. Carbon dioxide
B. Hydrogen sulfide D. Methane
57. An amorphous carbon that has been treated with steam and heat until it has a very great affinity for adsorbing many materials.
A. Lampblack C. Activated carbon
B. Carbon black D. Graphite
58. It is the enrichment of water with nutrients.
A. Putrefaction C. Thermal stratification
B. Eutrophication D. Decomposition
59. It is a wet, partially decomposed organic matter.
A. Lignite C. Charcoal
B. Peat D. Asphalt
60. It is produced by the decay of vegetable matter, was early identified as combustible “swamp gas.”
A. Producer gas C. Hydrogen
B. Furnace gas D. Methane
61. It converts solar energy into electricity directly.
A. Electrolytic cell C. Photovoltaic cell
B. Electrochemical cell D. Fuel cell
62. It is usually applied to cooling below ambient temperature.
A. Air conditioning C. Thermal conduction
B. Refrigeration D. Heat transfer
63. It is a by-product of the destructive distillation or pyrolysis of coal which is a mixture of many chemical compounds, mostly aromatic, which vary widely in
composition.
A. Gasoline C. Coal tar
B. Coke D. Light oil
64. Carbonate, or temporary hardness, is caused by bicarbonates of __________.
A. Calcium and potassium C. Sodium and magnesium
B. Iron and manganese D. Calcium and magnesium
65. It is the term applied to processes which remove or reduce the hardness of water.
A. Purification C. Softening
B. Clarification D. Sedimentation
66. It is commonly applied to any process used to effect partial or complete demineralization of highly saline waters such as seawater (35,000 ppm of
dissolved salts) or brackish waters.
A. Purification C. Deaeration
B. Desalting D. Electrodialysis
67. It is a linear polymer which may be reversibly softened by heat and solidified by cooling.
A. Thermosets C. Polymer
B. Thermoplastic D. Copolymer
68. The statement that when electrons are added to orbitals of equal energy, a single electron will enter each orbital before a second one enters any one
orbital, with the spins remaining parallel is possible.
A. Pauli exclusion principle C. Hunds rule
B. Le Chatelier’s principle D. Lewis-Randall rule
69. A relation stating that when two reactions are added to give a third reaction, the corresponding enthalpies of reaction must also be added.
A. Henry’s law C. Hauy’s law
B. Hess’ law D. Hunds’ rule
70. An unwanted input signal that affects the system’s output signal.
A. Disturbance signal C. Controlled variable signal
B. Error signal D. Sensor signal
71. The device that causes the process to provide the output.
A. Sensor C. Adaptor
B. Transmitter D. Actuator
72. The time for s system to respond to a step input and attain a response equal to the magnitude of the input.
A. Response time C. Rise time
B. Equalization time D. Equilibrium time
73. The system that uses a measurement of the output and compares it with the desired output.
A. Feed-forward control system C. Closed-loop feedback control system
B. Adaptive control system D. Inferential control system
74. The amount the system output response proceeds beyond the desired response.
A. Offset C. Gain
B. Overshoot D. Offshoot
75. The output signal is fed back so that it adds to the input signal.
A. Positive feedback C. Comparator gain
B. Negative feedback D. Forward feedback
76. A system that exhibits the desired performance in the presence of significant plant uncertainty.
A. Stable control C. Automatic control
B. Reliable control D. Robust control
77. If the pressure recovery experienced by the liquid in the valve is enough to raise the pressure above the vapor pressure of the liquid, then the vapor
bubbles start collapsing, or imploding. This implosion is called
A. Globe valve C. Split-body valve
B. Gate valve D. Sliding stem valve
79. A temperature sensor with the following advantages: no physical contact, wide range and fast response, and measures small target or average value over
large size.
A. Resistance thermometer B. Thermistor
C. Radiation pyrometer D. Filled thermal elements thermometer
80. Not a flow-measuring device
A. Orifice meter C. Turbine meter
B. Magnetic flowmeter D. Diaphragm meter
81. Ratio of the maximum controllable flow to the minimum controllable flow.
A. Rangeability C. Zero-span ratio
B. Hysteresis D. Installed flow characteristics
82. An inherent disadvantage of this control system is that it results in continuous cycling of the controlled variable and thus produces excessive wear in the
final control element.
A. On-off control C. PI-only control
B. P-only control D. PID control
83. A special case of proportional control with a very high controller gain.
A. On-off control C. Single-position control
B. Big-bang control D. Inferential control
84. The proportional action repeat-rate is known from this control parameter.
A. Derivative time C. Controller bias
B. Integral time D. Controller gain
85. It establishes the functional relationship between the controlled output and the primary feedback signal.
A. Control signal C. Reference input
B. Measurement D. Controlled output
86. It is an external signal applied to the feedback control system usually at the first summing point, in order to command a specified action of the plant. It
usually represents ideal (or desired) plant output behavior.
A. Controlled signal C. Feedback element
B. Reference input D. Controlled output
87. Type of control mode which does not provide zero offset but reduces the error and speeds the dynamic response of the system; it may cause instability if
tuned improperly.
A. Proportional C. Derivative
B. Integral D. Proportional-integral
88. Type of control mode which achieves zero offset and adjusts the manipulated variable in a slower manner, thus giving poor dynamic performance, and
can cause instability if tuned improperly.
89. Type of control mode which does not influence the final steady -state value of the error: provides rapid correction based on the rate of change of the error.
90. It is the actual response obtained from the control system. It may or may not be equal to the specified response implied by the input.
A. Input C. Answer
B. Output D. Result
91. An arrangement of physical components connected or related in such a manner as to command , direct or regulate itself or another system is a
A. Stimulus C. Control system
B. Unit process D. Unit operation
92. The simplest mode of control which is characteristic of a two-position control commonly utilized in a thermostat for controlling the temperature of heaters,
air-conditioners, refrigerators, etc…
A. Proportional control C. On-off control
B. Derivative control D. Programmable logic control
93. It is a control system in which the control action is independent of the output.
A. Closed-loop system C. Open-loop system
B. Feedback control system D. Feedforward control system
94. It is an arrangement of physical components connected or related in such a manner as to form and/or act as an entire unit.
A. Process control C. System
B. Set D. Input
95. The stimulus, excitation or command applied to a control system, ty pically from an external energy source, usually to produce a specified response from
the control system.
A. Process control C. Input
B. Set D. Control system
A. Feedback C. Continuous time
B. Control system D. Bandwidth
97. It is used to convert one signal or energy form into another.
A. Transducer C. Detector
B. Amplifier D. Resistor
98. A sensor usually made of a semiconductor that utilizes the effect of temperature on the resistance to current is called?
A. Thermocouple C. Resistor
B. Thermistor D. Capacitor
99. A control structure with two feedback controllers with the output of the primary controller changing the set point of the secondary controller whose output
goes to the final controller.
A. Feedforward control C. Cascade control
B. Ratio control D. Override control
100. Third aspect in plant design.
A. Environment C. Religion
B. Education D. Morality
101. It is the lowest temperature at which the material will ignite from an open flame.
A. Flash point C. Flammability limit
B. Flame traps D. Auto-ignition temperature
102. It is a sudden, catastrophic, release of energy, causing a pressure wave (blast wave).
A. Ignition C. Detonation
B. Deflagration D. Explosion
103. A device used for the classification of particles in size ranges below 10 micrometer.
A. Thickeners C. Centrifuge
B. Hydraulic jigs D. Tables
104. A principal type of gas-solids separator employing centrifugal force.
A. Cyclones C. Air filters
B. Gravity settlers D. Impingement separator
105. The ultimate strength divided by the allowable stress is
A. Yield point C. Factor of safety
B. Working stress D. Percentage of elongation
106. The unit lateral deformation of a body under stress divided by the unit longitudinal deformation is known as
A. Poisson’s ratio C. Euler’s ratio
B. Hooke’s law D. Mohr’s modulus
107. A type of screening equipment operated with a shaking motion, a long stroke at low frequency.
A. Vibrating screens C. Reciprocating screens
B. Oscillating screens D. Revolving screens
108. It is an alloy containing copper and zinc.
A. Bronze C. Amalgam
B. Brass D. Cast iron
109. It is the fraction of raw material recovered as the main product.
A. Yield C. Recovery
B. Conversion D. Production
110. Small- scale units designed to allow experiments that obtain design data for larger plants and sometimes to produce significant quantities of a new product
to permit user evaluation of it.
A. Benchmark C. Model
B. Pilot plants D. Replica
111. It is a grant of exclusive right to the inventor to his invention for limited period of time.
A. Invention C. Marketable product
B. Copyright D. Patent
112. When pipe joints have to be broken down from time to time for maintenance work, the joints used are
A. Nipples C. Couplings
B. Welded joints D. Ranges
113. The best lining for a vessel containing sulfuric acid is
A. Steel C. Silver
B. Copper D. Lead
114. Which of the following filter media can trapped particles of size 0.005 micrometer?
A. Woven wire C. Woven cloth
B. Membranes D. Cellulose
115. A type of filter which is consist of an endless reinforced rubber belt, with drainage hole along its center, which supports the filter medium.
A. Rotary drum filter C. Belt filter
B. Disc filter D. Plate and frame press
116. Also known as flash dryers.
A. Spray dryers C. Rotary dryers
B. Pneumatic dryers D. Tray dryers
117. An evaporator used in the sugar industry which is also known as callandria evaporators.
A. Long-tube evaporators C. Forced-circulation evaporators
B. Agitated thin-film evaporators D. Short-tube evaporators
118. An equipment used to separate liquids where there is a sufficient differences in density between the liquids for the droplets to settle readily.
A. Decanters C. Coalescers
B. Hydro-cyclones D. Centrifuge
A. Cyclones B. Gravity settlers
C. Air filters D. Impingement separator
120. A type of reactor which is consist of a tank fitted with a mechanical agitator and a cooling jacket or coils.
A. Stirred tank reactors C. Packed bed reactors
B. Tubular reactor D. Fluidized bed
121. It is a type of pressure-relief device commonly used in which it is consist of pneumatically or electrically operated valves which are activated by pressure
sensing instruments.
A. Directly actuated valves C. Bursting discs
B. Indirectly actuated valves D. Over-pressure
122. A pipe has a 2-inch inlet and has a 4-inch outlet, the mass flow ratio of the inlet is __________ to that of the outlet.
A. Less than C. Equal
B. Greater than D. Not equal
123. The weight of the flow per unit area of cross section perpendicular to the direction of flow is called
A. Mass flow rate C. Volumetric flow rate
B. Mean mass velocity D. Molal flux
124. When a fluid flows through a reducer in a piping system, the velocity at the outlet end is __________ the velocity of the inlet.
A. Less than C. The same as
B. More than D. One half
125. A device used to measure differential pressure in terms of height of a column of fluid.
A. Manometer C. Venturi meter
B. Pitot tube D. Flowmeters
126. Point velocities can be measured using a
A. Venturi meter C. Pitot tube
B. Orifice meter D. Rotameter
127. If one end of the manometer opens to the air, what do you call this manometer?
A. Continuous manometer C. Free end manometer
B. Open manometer D. Differential manometer
128. An instrument used to measure small pressure
A. Venturi C. Aneroid
B. Orifice D. Manometer
129. The pressure drop through a gate valve is lowest when it is
A. Fully open C. ¾ open
B. ½ open D. ¼ open
130. The equation that relates friction factor and Reynolds number, f=64/Re, holds for
A. Smooth pipes C. Turbulent flow only
B. Laminar flow only D. Laminar and turbulent flow
131. The dimensionless term proportional to the shear stress of the pipe wall expressed as a number of velocity heads used to determine fluid friction in
conduits is
A. Bingham number C. Prandtl velocity ratio
B. Fanning friction factor D. Reynold’s number
132. A machine or device for moving incompressible fluid is commonly known as
A. Compressor C. Pump
B. Motor D. Turbine
133. What do you call the input power delivered by the motor to the pump?
A. Nameplate power C. Hydraulic power
B. Brake horsepower D. Effective
134. A device in which the kinetic energy of one fluid (primary fluid) is used to pump another fluid (secondary fluid).
A. Pumps C. Ejectors
B. Compressors D. Nozzle
135. If a heat transfer equipment, dirt or scale may be accounted by introducing a resistance called
A. Factor of safety C. Fouling factors
B. X-factor D. Max factor
136. The transfer of heat through and by means of matter, without an obvious motion of matter is called
A. Radiation C. Conduction
B. Convection D. Diffusion
137. Which one among the following materials has the best insulating property?
A. Window glass C. Air
B. Wood D. Concrete
138. The driving force in heat transfer is
A. Concentration gradient C. Viscosity gradient
B. Temperature gradient D. Thickness of the solid in question
139. Which of the following has the highest thermal conductivity?
A. Mercury C. Water
B. Gasoline D. Alcohol
140. What is the reason why Styrofoam is a good insulating material?
A. Because it contains many tiny pockets of air
B. Styrofoam is a white object
C. The structure of Styrofoam is very unstable and heat cannot flow
D. Styrofoam structure is very dense
141. Which of the following is not a good conductor of heat?
A. Metals C. Glass
B. Rocks D. Asbestos
A. Gasoline C. Water
B. Glycerin D. Alcohol
143. What happens to the thermal conductivity of diatomic gases if temperature is increased?
A. Also increases C. Remains constant
B. Decreases D. Partially increases then decreases
144. The transfer of heat from a point to another within a fluid, or between a fluid and a solid or another fluid, by movement or mixing of the fluids involve
A. Conduction C. Radiation
B. Convection D. Evaporation
145. The ratio of the molecular diffusivity and momentum in liquid is known as the
A. Grashol number C. Nusselt
B. Reynolds number D. Prandtl number
146. In evaporation operation, the valuable product is called
A. Thick liquor C. Water
B. Vapor D. Residue
147. Multiple effect evaporation __________.
A. Increases the steam requirement C. Increases the steam economy
B. Decreases the rated capacity D. Decreases the heat transfer rate
148. It is a method of feeding in evaporation where the dilute liquid enters an intermediate effect, flows in forward feed to the end of the series, and is then
pumped back to the first effects for final concentration.
A. Forward feed C. Mixed feed
B. Backward feed D. Parallel feed
149. The total amount of evaporation an evaporator is capable of producing per unit of time.
A. Economy C. Capacity
B. Steam consumption D. Fouling factors
150. In evaporation, it is a type of feeding where the fresh solution is introduced in the last effect and goes to the preceding effects until the first effect where its
concentration is lowest.
A. Forward feeding C. Mixed feeding
B. Parallel feeding D. Backward feeding
151. It refers to any layer or deposit of extraneous material on a heat-transfer surface.
A. Scaling C. Fouling
B. Salting D. Boiling
152. It is frequently caused by crystallization of a material whose solubility at the wall temperature is lower than at the bulk liquid temperature.
A. Scaling C. Fouling
B. Salting D. Boiling
153. The boiling point of a given solution is a linear function of the boiling point of pure water at the same pressure.
A. Steffi’s rule C. Haviuck’s rule
B. Duhring’s rule D. McCabe Thiele rule
154. For the same duty and heat transfer area, the feedforward flow evaporator is ___________ compared to the backward flow evaporator in terms of heat
transfer.
A. More efficient C. Just the same
B. Less efficient D. None of these
155. A theoretical body where the absorptivity and emissivity are independent of the wavelength ov er the spectral region of the irradiation and the surface
emission is called
A. Black body C. Opaque body
B. Gray body D. Transparent body
156. The amount of radiation emitted in all directions and over all wavelengths by a perfect emitter is proportional to the fourth power of the absolute
temperature of the emitter. This is the statement of
A. Stefan-Boltzman law C. Wien’s law
B. Kirchoff’s law D. Planck’s law
157. An ideal surface that absorbs all incident radiation regardless of wavelength and direction and is also considered as a perfect emitter is referred to as
A. Gray body C. Pin hole
B. Black body D. Black hole
158. Which of the following provides the basis of radiation heat transfer?
A. Newton’s law C. Torrecelli’s theorem
B. Fourier’s law D. Stefan-Boltzman law
159. In this reaction, the reacting substances, instead of proceeding along one path to yield a given set of products, also follow one or more other paths to give
different products.
A. Consecutive reaction C. Parallel reaction
B. Reversible reaction D. Backmix reaction
160. The composition of the reaction component vary from position to position along a flow path in a/an
A. CSTR C. Batch reactor
B. Adiabatic reactor D. Plug flow reactor
161. What is the reaction rate constant, K, for third order reaction?
A. (L/mol)/s C. (L/mol)2 /s
B. (L/mol)/s 2 D. (L/mol)3 /s
162. What law governs the rate of reaction of a substance?
A. Law of conservation of mass C. Law of mass reaction
B. Arrhenius law D. Avogadro’s law
163. If Ca is plotted versus time and a straight line is observed, the reaction is said to be
A. First order C. Zero order
B. Second order D. Fractional order
164. The activation energy of a reaction may be lowered by
A. Increasing the temperature C. Decreasing the temperature
B. Adding a catalyst D. Removing the products of the reaction
165. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time because __________.
A. The heat is more evenly distributed C. The higher pressure tenderizes the food
B. The boiling point is elevated D. A large flame must be used
166. The unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is
A. Liter sec-1 C. Mole liter-1 sec-1
B. Liter mole-1 sec-1 D. Mole sec-1
167. The rate of the reaction 𝐴 + 2𝐵 → 𝑋 : rate K (A) (B)2 The order of this reaction is
A. First order C. Zero order
B. Second order D. Third order
168. Rate determining step in a reaction consisting of a number of step in series is the
A. Fastest step C. Slowest step
B. Intermediate step D. Data insufficient; can’t be predicted
169. The reaction in which rate equation corresponds to a stoichiometric equation is called
A. Elementary reaction C. Parallel reaction
B. Non-elementary reaction D. Auto-kinetic reaction
170. Equilibrium of a chemical reaction as viewed by kinetics is a
A. Dynamic steady state C. Dynamic unsteady state
B. Static steady state D. None of these
171. The net rate of reaction of an intermediate is
A. Zero C. Greater than zero
B. Infinity D. Less than zero
172. It is the amount of energy in excess of the average energy level which the reactants must have in order for the reaction to proceed.
A. Bond energy C. Free energy
B. Activation energy D. Heat energy
173. A type of reactor which is consist of tank fitted with a mechanical agitator and a cooling jacket or coils.
A. Stirred tank reactors C. Packed bed reactors
B. Tubular reactor D. Fluidized bed
174. It is a substance that will slow down the speed of a chemical reaction.
A. Catalyst C. Positive catalyst
B. Inhibitor D. Substrate
175. Entropy is the measure of
A. The change in enthalpy of a system C. Randomness or disorder
B. The internal energy of a gas D. The total heat content of a system
176. The net entropy change in the universe during any real process
A. Is equal to zero C. Is negative
B. Is positive D. None of the above
177. In an ideal refrigeration cycle, liquid leaves the condenser and is expanded in such a manner that the enthalpy of the liquid is equal to the enthalpyof the
resulting saturated mixture. The type of expansion is known as
A. A throttling process C. A compression process
B. Isothermal process D. An isochoric
178. An ideal, reversible Carnot cycle involves four basic processes. What type of processes are they?
A. All isothermal C. All isentropic
B. Two adiabatic and D. Two isothermal and two isentropic
two isentropic
179. A Carnot engine
A. Provides a fictitious model which is a little use
B. Can be experimentally modeled
C. Supplies us with a lower limit for engine efficiency
D. Operates between two constant temperature reservoirs
180. Which of the following is the compressibility factor of an ideal gas?
A. 1 C. 1.5
B. 2 D. 0
181. The energy which includes all of the potential and kinetic energies of the atoms or molecules in a substance is known as __________.
A. Internal energy C. Entropy
B. Enthalpy D. Total energy
182. What refers to the state at which liquid and gaseous phases are indistinguishable?
A. Triple point C. Boiling point
B. Critical point D. Pour point
183. What refers to the heat needed to change the temperature of the substance without changing its phase?
A. Latent heat C. Specific heat
B. Sensible heat D. Entropy
184. What is the entropy of a pure substance at a temperature of absolute zero?
A. Unity C. Infinity
B. Zero D. 100
185. What is the area under the curve on a temperature-entropy diagram?
A. Heat C. Entropy
B. Work D. Volume
186. What happens to the internal energy of water at reference temperature where enthalpy is zero?
A. Becomes negative C. Remains constant
B. Becomes positive D. Cannot be defined
187. When the expansion or compression of gas takes place without transfer of heat to or from the gas, the process is called
A. Isometric process C. Isobaric process
B. Isothermal process D. Adiabatic process
188. The elongation and compression of a helical spring is an example of w hich process?
A. Irreversible process C. Isothermal process
B. Reversible process D. Adiabatic process
189. An ideal gas is compresses isothermally. The enthalpy change is
A. Always negative C. Zero
B. Always positive D. Undefined
190. What do you call a system in which there is a flow of matter through the boundary? This system usually encloses the device that involves mass flow, such
as: compressor, turbine, or nozzle.
A. Closed system C. Isolated system
B. Open system D. All of these
191. What is the entropy of a pure substance at a temperature of absolute zero?
A. Unity C. Infinity
B. Zero D. 100
192. What is the area under the curve on a temperature-entropy diagram?
A. Heat C. Entropy
B. Work D. Volume
193. When a substance changes its phase from solid directly into vapor without passing through a liquid phase, then it undergoes a process known as
A. Fusion C. Sublimation
B. Solidification D. Gasification
194. What do you call the volume occupied by a unit mass of fluid?
A. Specific volume C. Specific gravity
B. Density D. Specific weight
195. According to Archimedes’ principle, the buoyant force on a submerged object is equal to which of the following?
A. Weight of the fluid not being displaced
B. Weight of the displaced fluid
C. Weight of the object above the fluid surface
D. Weight of the fluid displaced and total weight of the object
196. If one end of the manometer opens to the air, what do you call this manometer?
A. Continuous manometer C. Free end manometer
B. Open manometer D. Differential manometer
197. Which of the following ratios describes Reynolds number?
A. Inertial forces/viscous forces C. Buoyant forces/inertial forces
B. Drag forces/buoyant forces D. Viscous forces/drag force
198. What is the ratio of the objects speed to the speed of sound in the medium through which it is traveling?
A. Reynolds number C. Decibel
B. Prandtl number D. Mach number
199. How do you classify liquids that vaporized easily?
A. Ideal liquid C. Volatile liquid
B. Saturated liquid D. Osmotic liquid
200. In sedimentation process, settling is very fast if
A. Density of the particles are big and the viscosity of the liquids is high
B. Density of the particles are low and the viscosity of the liquids is high
C. Density of the particles are high and the viscosity of the liquids is low
D. Particle size is big and density is very low
A. Rougher C. Scavenger
B. Classifier D. Cleaner
202. The separation of solid particles into several size fractions based upon the settling velocities in a medium is called
A. Settling C. Flotation
B. Filtration D. Classification
203. Device in which a current of air separates particles with different sedimentation velocities.
A. Agitator C. Classifier
B. Air elutriator D. Air conveyor
204. If the motion of a particle is impeded by other particles, which will happen when the particles are near each other even though they are not actually
colliding, the process is called
A. Free settling C. Gravity settling
B. Unhindered settling D. Hindered settling
205. The drag coefficient in hindered settling is __________ compared to free settling.
A. Greater than C. Constant
B. Less than D. Varying
206. A conveyor auxiliary device used to cut out the driving force when a conveyor jams.
A. Brake C. Torque-limiting
B. Holdback D. Cleaner
207. The supports for a belt conveyor are rollers on shaft supports and permits the belt for a width to carry more material per linear foot without spillage are
called
A. Chain C. Feeders
B. Idlers D. Scrapers
208. It is an auxiliary equipment of an elevating conveyor which prevents reversal of travel and subsequent jamming when power is unexpectedly cut off.
A. Leaners C. Check valve
B. Holdback D. Torque limiting
209. It is the most important and versatile flow assisters which are used to enlarge the storage-bin opening and to cause flow by breaking up material bridges.
A. Striker skirt C. Rollers
B. Idlers D. Vibrating hoppers
210. Which is most suitable for transportation of sticky material?
A. Apron conveyor C. Screw conveyor
B. Belt conveyor D. Pneumatic conveyor
211. Which of the following cannot be recommended for transportation of abrasive materials?
A. Belt conveyor C. Flight conveyor
B. Apron conveyor D. Chain conveyor
212. For transporting pastry material, one will use
A. Apron conveyor C. Screw conveyor
B. Belt conveyor D. Bucket conveyor
213. The capacity of a belt conveyor depends upon two factors. If one is the cross section of the load, the other is the
A. Speed of the belt C. Length of the belt
B. Thickness of the belt D. Material to be transported
214. Dry powder y solid material are transported by a
A. Belt conveyor C. Screw conveyor
B. Apron conveyor D. Bucket conveyor
215. The standard equipment recommended for automatically carrying out sieve test procedures with accuracy and dependability.
A. End-shake sieve shaker C. Ro-tap shaker
B. Braun sieve shaker D. Dynamic sieve shaker
216. Another name for revolving screen is
A. Shaking screen C. Stationary screen
B. Vibrating screen D. Trommel screen
217. The material passing one screening surface and retained on a subsequent surface is called
A. Intermediate material C. Plus material
B. Minus material D. Oversize
218. Which of the following is not a unit operation?
A. Drying C. Nitration
B. Filtration D. Crystallization
219. Materials which remain on a screen surface is called
A. Fines C. Intermediate material
B. Undersize D. Oversize
220. It is the number of openings per linear inch of screen
A. Mesh C. Screen diameter
B. Aperture D. Interval
221. The minimum clear space between the edges of the opening in the screening surface and is usually given in inches and millimeters.
A. Sieve C. Mesh number
B. Aperture D. Holes
222. The ratio of the average diameter of the feed to the average diameter of the product is the
A. Settling ratio C. Diameter ratio
B. Reduction ratio D. Classification ratio
223. The hardness of a mineral is a criterion of its resistance to crushing. Which of the following is an example of a hard material?
A. Talc C. Sapphire
B. Calcite D. Feldspar
224. It states that the energy is proportional to the new surface produced is
A. Rittinger’s law C. Bond law
B. Kick’s law D. Energy law
225. It is the tendency of a material to break into smaller sizes in the course of handling.
A. Brittleness C. Friability
B. Hardness D. Toughness
226. It is defined as the total surface of a unit weight or volume of a solid.
A. Surface area C. Specific volume
B. Specific surface D. Particle size
227. Which of the following is a soft material?
A. Quartz C. Sapphire
B. Topaz D. Gypsum
228. Which of the following is a hard material?
A. Gypsum C. Apatite
B. Fluorite D. Corundum
229. It is a slow speed machine for coarse reduction of large quantities of solids.
A. Crushers C. Ultrafine grinders
B. Grinders D. Disintegrators
230. It is a type of crushing where the crushed product with whatever fines have been formed is quickly removed after a short period of time.
A. Choke feeding C. Free crushing
B. Automatic crushing D. Open circuit
231. A property of solid which is indicated by the conventional scratch criteria and can be measured by indentation.
A. Friability C. Hardness
B. Toughness D. Brittleness
232. Crystallization occurs in a solution that is
A. Concentrated C. Supersaturated
B. Unsaturated D. Saturated
233. The method of solute transfer which involves rapid movement of large chunks of fluid in turbulent motion.
A. Molecular diffusion C. Thermal diffusion
B. Eddy diffusion D. Kinetic transport
234. A re-boiler provides heat to the __________ of a distillation column.
A. Top C. Feed
B. Intermediate reflux D. Bottom
235. In distillation, the cooled liquid stream returned to the column to cool a plate or stage is called
A. Reboil C. Feed
B. Reflux D. Bottom
236. The ease or difficulty of separating components by distillation is determined by the __________ of the
A. Relative volatility C. Mole-fraction
B. Viscosity D. Weight fraction
237. The enrichment of the vapor stream as it passes through the column in contact with the reflux during distillation is
A. Evaporation C. Rectification
B. Stripping D. Fractionation
238. The maximum number of plates for a given distillation system is obtained at
A. Variable flux C. Minimum reflux
B. Maximum reflux D. Optimum reflux
239. A plate holding a pool of liquid from which rises a vapor whose average composition is in equilibrium with a liquid whose composition is the average of that
of the liquid leaving the plate is called
A. Separation plate C. Transition plate
B. Theoretical plate D. Bubble plate
240. When a solid material is said to be “dry”, it means that
A. The solid does not contain any moisture
B. The solid still contains very small amount of moisture
C. The solid contains equilibrium moisture
D. The weight of the solid is the same as the bone dry weight
241. In a drying operation, the critical moisture content is at
A. The middle of the falling rate period C. The middle of the constant rate period
B. The end of the falling rate period D. The end of the constant rate period
242. The point at which the distinct break in the curve bearing at the FRP occurs,
A. Equilibrium moisture content C. Free moisture content
B. Critical moisture content D. Second critical moisture content
243. Drying ceases at the __________ moisture content.
A. Equilibrium C. Minimum
B. Critical D. Free
244. The temperature at which the moisture content in humid air exerts a partial pressure equal to its vapor pressure is the
A. Dry bulb temperature C. Critical temperature
B. Ambient temperature D. Dew point
245. The dew point of air indicates
A. The actual temperature of the air
B. The temperature at which its volume per unit weight of dry air is calculated
C. The temperature at which its enthalpy is calculated
D. The temperature at which its water content will start to condense
246. It is the temperature at which a vapor is saturated.
A. Boiling point C. Freezing point
B. Melting point D. Dew point
247. It is defined as the percentage ratio of the partial pressure of the vapor to the vapor pressure of the liquid at the existing temperature
A. Relative saturation C. Relative humidity
B. Percentage saturation D. Saturation
248. A unit operation in which a soluble component is removed from an inert solid by a solvent which preferentially dissolves the soluble matter is known as
A. Adsorption C. Leaching
B. Solvent extraction D. Sedimentation
249. Liquid-liquid extraction is based on the differences in
A. Solubility C. Partial pressure
B. Specific volume D. Viscosity
250. The unit operation by which soluble components of a liquid mixture are dissolved in a liquid immiscible with the insoluble component is
A. Solvent extraction C. Adsorption
B. Leaching D. Absorption
251. Cost index is used to estimate equipment cost of
A. Quotations given for different equipment capacity C. Similar equipment quotations in different years
B. Quotations of different time period D. Equipment cost quoted at different capacities
252. It is equal to the gross annual sales divided by the fixed-capital investment.
A. Turnover ratio C. Investment ratio
B. Capital ratio D. Acid ratio
253. It is the rate of earning that must be achieved by an investment in order for it to be acceptable for the investor.
A. MARR C. PBP
B. ROI D. Acid ratio
254. An operation where warm vapor mixture is cooled such as by contract with a liquid resulting in condensation and decreased humidity is
A. Evaporation C. Humidification
B. Dehumidification D. Extraction
255. Which of the following remains constant during evaporative cooling process with recirculated water supply?
A. Relative humidity C. Wet bulb temperature
B. Partial pressure of vapor D. None of these
256. Poor performance in large packed towers is due mainly to
A. Poor packing C. Cavitation
B. Inefficient heat transfer D. Channeling
257. It is mass transfer operation where it involves the transfer of a soluble component of a gas phase into a relatively nonvolatile liquid absorbent.
A. Gas absorption C. Distillation
B. Liquid extraction D. Stripping
258. Which of the following is a unit of luminous intensity?
A. Candela C. Tesla
B. Weber D. Becquerel
259. Which of the following is the unit of a magnetic flux?
A. Gray C. Lumen
B. Weber D. Lux
260. The prefix equivalent to 10 -15 is
A. Nano C. Femto
B. Pico D. Atto
THERMODYNAMICS 1
FIRST LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS
1. If during an expansion process the volume of a gas changes from 5 to 15 cu. ft. and the pressure changes according to the equation p = 1000(0.30 v + 1),
what is the work done in ft-lb by the gas? Pressure and volume are expressed in psia and cu. ft.
A. 5.76 x 106 C. 6.95 x 106
B. 3.85 x 106 D. 4.38 x 106
2. Steam at 1000 lbf/ft pressure and 300 R has a specific enthalpy of 98 000 lbf-ft/lbm. Find the internal energy in ft-lbf/lbm of steam.
2
A. 5400 C. 6190
B. 3300 D. 2500
3. During a non-flow process, the internal energy of a fluid changes from an initial value of 500 Btu/lb to a final value of 440 Btu/lb. If 3000 ft-lb/lb of work is
performed by the fluid, determine the quantity of heat in Btu/lb added to or removed from the fluid during the process.
A. -38.6 C. 98.6
B. -21.5 D. 38.6
4. A closed gaseous system undergoes a reversible process during which 25 Btu are rejected, the volume changes from 5 cu. ft. to 20 cu. ft. and the
pressure remains constant at 50 psia. Find the change of internal energy in kJ.
A. 2.80 C. 2.95
B. 2.73 D. 3.21
5. A non-flow (closed) system contains 1 pound of an ideal gas (Cp = 0.24, Cv = 0.17). The gas temperature is increased by 10˚F while 5 BTU of work are
done by the gas. What is the heat transfer in BTU?
A. -3.3 C. +6.7
B. -2.6 D. +7.4
ISOBARIC PROCESS
6. Calculate the heat required in Btu to raise the temperature of 1 lbmol of methane from 500 to 1000˚F in a flow process at a constant pressure of 1 atm.
Cp = 3.381 + 18.044 x 10-3 T – 4.3000 x 10-6 T2 where T in K and cp in Btu/lbmol˚F.
A. 4690 Btu C. 6750 Btu
B. 5470 Btu D. 7040 Btu
7. Gas in enclosed cylinder with a weigh piston as the top boundary. The gas is heated and expands from a volume of 0.60 m3 to 1.20 m3 at a constant
pressure of 250 kPa. The work done by the system is
A. 25 kJ C. 35 kJ
B. 42 kJ D. 30 kJ
8. Calculate the ∆H in Btu for 1 lbm of water when it is vaporized at the constant temperature of 212˚F and the constant pressure of 1 atm. The specific
volumes of liquid and water vapor at these conditions are 0.0167 and 26.80 ft3/lbm, respectively. For this change, 970.3 Btu is added to water as heat.
A. 72.9 C. 970.3
B. 897.4 D. 465.8
9. A 2.53 kJ of heat is absorbed by an ideal gas that occupies a volume of 22.4 L at STP. If the gas expands isobarically to 32.4 liters. Compute the change
of internal energy of the gas
A. 1.52 kJ C. 4.53 kJ
B. 2.34 kJ D. 5.47 kJ
10. . Two kg of air is heated at constant pressure of 200 kPa at 500˚C. Calculate the entropy change if the initial volume is 0.8m3 .
A. 2.89 kJ/K C. 2.26 kJ/K
B. 2.57 kJ/K D. 2.04 kJ/K
11. Ten lb of water at 14.7 psia is heated at constant pressure from 40˚F to saturated vapor. Compute the entropy change.
A. 16.4 Btu/R C. 18.0 Btu/R
B. 17.4 Btu/R D. 18.4 Btu/R
ISOMETRIC PROCESS
12. Find the change in internal energy of 5 lbm oxygen gas when the temperature changes from 100˚F to 120˚F, Cv = 0.157 BTU/lbm-R.
A. 15.7 BTU C. 9.8 BTU
B. 12.2 BTU D. 6.5 BTU
13. What is the change in enthalpy per lbm of nitrogen gas as its temperature is reduced from 500˚F to 200˚F at a constant pressure. (Cp = 0.2463 Btu/lbm.
˚R)
A. -67.8 Btu/lbm C. -74.5 Btu/ lbm
B. -83.5 Btu/lb D. 67.8 Btu/lb
14. Air at 1 bar and 298.15 K is compressed to 5 bar and 298.15 K by cooling at constant pressure followed by heating at constant volume. Calculate the
change of enthalpy for the entire process in J/mol.
A. 0 C. 4958
B. -4958 D. -1983
ISOTHERMAL PROCESS
15. Two pound of air is compressed from 20 psia to 200 psia while maintaining the temperature constant at 100˚F. Calculate the heat transfer needed to
accomplish this process.
A. -100.6 BTU C. -176.7 BTU
B. -390.1 BTU D. -241.7 BTU
16. What horsepower is required to isothermally compress 800 cubic feet of air per minute from 14.7 psia to 120 psia?
A. 13400 hp C. 256 hp
B. 28 hp D. 108 hp
17. Ninety kilograms of ice at 0˚C are completely melted. Find the entropy change in kJ/K, if T2 = 0˚C.
A. 0 C. 85
B. 45 D. 105
18. Calculate the entropy change for a hundredfold expansion of a mole of ideal gas isothermally.
A. 1.25 cal/K C. 5.45 cal/K
B. 2.50 cal/K D. 9.17 cal/K
DAILY TEST
1. How much heat in kJ must be transferred to 10 kg of air to increase the temperature from 10 ˚C to 230 ˚C if the pressure is maintained constant?
A. 2200 C. 2310
B. 1980 D. 1650
2. Air is compressed from an initial condition of 1 bar and 25 ˚C to a final state of 5 bar and 25 ˚C by isothermal compression. Assume air to be ideal gas with
the constant capacities, Cv = 5R/2 and Cp = 7R/2. Calculate the work required in J/mol.
A. 9915 C. 5600
B. 3990 D. 7500
3. Air is expanded in a piston-cylinder arrangement at a constant pressure of 200 kPa from a volume of 0.1 m3 to a volume of 0.3 m3. Then the temperature
is held constant during an expansion to 0.5 m3 . Determine the total work done by the air.
A. 70.65 kJ C. 30.78 kJ
B. 50.24 kJ D. 89.50 kJ
4. The latent heat of vaporization of at 14.7 psia 970 Btu/lb. and the v olume changes from 0.02 cu. ft./lb to 27.5 cu. ft./lb. The change in internal energy due
to evaporation is nearest to
A. 1045 Btu/lb. C. 895 Btu/lb.
B. 790 Btu/lb. D. 650 Btu/lb.
5. A piston cylinder system contains a gas which expands under constant pressure of 1,200 lbf/ft2. If the piston is displaced 12 inches during the process,
and the piston diameter is 24 inches, what is the work done by the gas on the piston?
A. 2780 lbf-ft. C. 3768 lbf-ft.
B. 3200 lbf-ft. D. 4210 lbf-ft.
6. Oxygen has a heat capacity Cp, in cal/(gmole-K), which is a function of absolute temperature T, in K, represented by the equation Cp = 8.27 + 0.000258T
– 187 800/T2. At what temperature is the heat capacity equal to 8.44?
A. 1213.8 K C. 1421.0 K
B. 1312.4 K D. 1468.5 K
7. Calculate the entropy change in cal/˚K for a hundredfold expansion of a mole of ideal gas isothermally.
A. 8.20 C. 9.80
B. 9.17 D. 10.25
8. Air expands in steady flow from 60 ˚F and 500 psia to 14.7 psia and -100 ˚F. Find the change in entropy.
A. 188.1 BTU/lbm-˚R C. 132.2 BTU/lbm-˚R
B. 154.9 BTU/lbm-˚R D. 165.4 BTU/lbm-˚R
9. One gram of water having a volume of 1 cm3 becomes 1671 cm3 of steam when boiled at a constant pressure of 1 atm. The heat vaporization at this
pressure is 2256 J/gram. What is the increase in the internal energy?
A. 2000 J C. 2856 J
B. 2087 J D. 2693 J
BRINGHOME EXAM
1. Air is compressed in a cylinder such that the volume changes from 100 to 10 in3. The initial pressure is 50 psia and the temperature is held constant at
100 ˚F. Calculate the work.
A. -1000 ft.-lbf C. -890 ft.-lbf
B. -959 ft.-lbf D. 959 ft.-lbf
2. Calculate the change in enthalpy for 1 kg water when it is vaporized at the constant temperature of 100 ˚C and the constant pressure of 101.33 kPa. The
specific volumes of liquid and vapor water at these conditions are 0.00104 and 1.673 m3/kg. For this change, heat in the amount of 2,256.9 kJ is added to
the water.
A. 2087.5 kJ C. 2450.1 kJ
B. 2256.9 kJ D. 2603.8 kJ
3. Calculate the change in internal energy for 1 kg water when it is vaporized at the constant temperature of 100 ˚C and the constant pressure of 101.33 kPa.
The specific volumes of liquid and vapor water at these conditions are 0.00104 and 1.673 m 3/kg. For this change, heat in the amount of 2,256.9 kJ is
added to the water.
A. 2087.5 kJ C. 2450.1 kJ
B. 2256.9 kJ D. 2603.8 kJ
4. Calculate the change in enthalpy of air which is heated from 300 K to 700 K if Cp = 1.00 kJ/kg-˚C.
A. 380.5 kJ/kg C. 398.7 kJ/kg
B. 392.1 kJ/kg D. 402.4 kJ/kg
5. A rigid tank contains hot fluid that is cooled while being stirred by a paddle wheel. The internal energy of fluid is 800 kJ and loses 500 kJ of heat during
cooling process with the paddle work of 100 kJ applied on the fluid. Neglecting the energy stored in the paddle wheel, determine the final internal energy
of the fluid.
A. 430 kJ C. 400 kJ
B. 340 kJ D. 500 kJ
6. In a constant temperature, closed system process, 100 BTU of heat is transferred to the working fluid at 100 ˚F. What is the change in entropy of the
working fluid?
A. 0.18 kJ/K C. 0.25 kJ/K
B. 0.57 kJ/K D. 0.34 kJ/K
7. Determine the work in kJ necessary to compress 2 kg of air from 100 kPa to 4000 kPa if the temperature is held constant at 300˚ C.
A. -1210 C. -9320
B. -1105 D. -812
8. For an ideal gas, what is the specific molar entropy change during an isothermal process in which the pressure change from 200 kPa to 150 kPa?
A. 2.39 J/mol-K C. 2.00 J/mol-K
B. 2.79 J/mol-K D. 3.12 J/mol-K
9. A mole of steam is compressed at 100˚C, and the water is cooled to 0˚C and frozen to ice. What is the entropy change of the water in cal/˚K?
A. -36.9 C. -34.8
B. -35.1 D. -34.3
10. Calculate the entropy change in cal/˚K if 350 grams of water at 5˚C is mixed with 500 grams of water at 70˚C.
A. 4.485 C. 4.652
B. 4.580 D. 4.789
11. Calculate the change in enthalpy as 1 kg of nitrogen is heated from 1000 K to 1500 K, assuming the nitrogen is an ideal gas at a constant pressure. The
temperature-dependent specific heat of nitrogen is Cp = 39.06 – 512.79T-1.5 + 1072.7T-2 – 320.4T-3 where Cp is in kJ/kmol-K and T is in K.
A. 600 kJ C. 800 kJ
B. 700 kJ D. 900 kJ
12. Calculate the difference between the molar internal energy and the molar enthalpy for a perfect gas at 298.15 K.
A. 0.5425 kJ/mol C. 2.4790 kJ/mol
B. 765 kJ/mol D. 10.432 kJ/mol
13. An automobile tire is inflated to 270 kPa at the beginning of a trip. After three hours of high speed driving, the pressure is 300 kPa. What is the internal
energy change of the air in the tire between pressure measurements? Assume that air is an ideal gas with constant heat capacity Cv = 5R/2 and that the
internal volume of the tire remains constant at 0.057 m3.
A. 4.275 kJ C. 8.575 kJ
B. -4.275 kJ D. -8.575 kJ
14. Over the range 298-848 K, the heat capacity of quartz (SiO 2) at atmospheric pressure is approx imated as Cp = 40.50 + 0.446T – 832 000/T2 where T is in
kelvins and Cp is in J/mol-K. If 1000 kg of quartz is heated from 300 K to 700 K at atmospheric pressure, how much heat is required?
A. 392.3 MJ C. 125.1 MJ
B. 240.1 MJ D. 87.55 MJ
15. During a reversible steady flow process by 5 lb/sec of air, the pressure remains constant at p = 50 psia and the temperature increases 300˚F. What is the
change in total volume of the air in ft2/s?
A. 0.75 C. 87.5
B. 11.11 D. 97.1
16. For many substances, the variation with temperature of the molar heat capacity at constant pressure of is given by the expression
𝑐
𝐶𝑝 𝑚 = 𝑎 + 𝑏𝑇 + 2
𝑇
For copper, a = 22.64 J K -1 mol-1 , b = 6.28 x 10-3 J K -1 mol-1 with the value of c being negligible. Estimate the change in the molar enthalpy of copper when
it is heated from 293 K to 323 K.
A. +210 J/mol B. 437 J/mol

C. -737 J/mol D. 1200 J/mol
17. A perfect gas expands reversibly at a constant temperature of 298 K so that its volume doubles. What is the change in the molar internal energy of the
gas?
A. +1.22 kJ/mol C. 0 J/mol
B. 0.54 J/mol D. -2.27 J/mol
18. 0.1 kg water is expanded in a cylinder at a constant pressure of 4 MPa from saturated liquid until the temperature is 600˚C. Calculate the entropy change.
A. 0.375 kJ/K C. 0.457 kJ/K
B. 0.418 kJ/K D. 0.498 kJ/K
19. A rigid, insulated 4-m3 volume is divided in half by a membrane. One chamber is pressurized with air to 100 kPa and the other is completely evacuated.
The membrane is ruptured and after a period of time, equilibrium is restored. What is the entropy change?
A. 0.240 kJ/K C. 0.415 kJ/K
B. 0.320 kJ/K D. 0.473 kJ/K
20. A horizontal piston/cylinder arrangement is placed in a constant-temperature bath. The piston slides in the cylinder with negligible friction, and an external
force holds it in place against an initial gas pressure of 14 bar. The initial gas volume is 0.03 m 3. The external force on the piston is reduced gradually, and
the gas expands isothermally as its volume doubles. If the volume of the gas is related to its pressure so that the product P V is constant, what is the work
done by the gas in moving the external force?
A. -29.11 kJ C. -33.25 kJ
B. -32.08 kJ D. -34.08 kJ
21. Twenty five liters of hydrogen is produced at a total pressure of 1 atm by the action of acid on a metal. Calculate the work done by the gas in pushing back
the atmosphere in joules?
A. 35.1 C. 3540
B. 847 D. 8540
22. Twenty five liters of hydrogen is produced at a total pressure of 1 atm by the action of acid on a metal. Calculate the work done by the gas in pushing back
the atmosphere in calories?
A. 35.1 C. 3540
B. 847 D. 8540
23. Air is to be compressed reversibly from an initial condition of 1 atm and 60˚F to a final state of 5 atm and 60˚F by isothermal compression. At these
conditions, air may be considered an ideal gas having the constant heat capacities Cv = 5 and Cp = 7 Btu/lbmol˚F. Calculate the work required for the
process in Btu per lbmol.
A. 1676 C. 2030
B. -1676 D. -2030
24. A cylinder fitted with a piston contains 0.10 mol of air at room temperature (20˚C). The piston is pushed so slowly that the air within the cylinder remains
essentially in thermal equilibrium with the surroundings. Find the work done by the air within the cylinder if the final volume is one-half the initial volume.
A. -169 C. -174
B. -179 D. -196
25. Helium is compressed isothermally from 14.7 psi and 68˚F. The compression ratio is 4. Determine the change in entropy of the gas in Btu/lb-R.
A. -0.787 C. -0.689
B. -0.867 D. -1.76
26. Ethyl alcohol vaporizes at 78˚C. What is the change in entropy if 0.25 kg vaporizes at its boiling point?
A. 85 J/K C. 71 J/K
B. 45 J/K D. 95 J/K
A. 0.27 BTU/R C. 1.30 BTU/R
B. 0.16 BTU/R D. 0.75 BTU/R
28. A steel casting [ Cp = 0.5 kJ/kg-K ] weighing 40 kg and at a temperature of 450˚C is quenched in 150 kg of oil [ Cp = 2.5 kJ/kg-K ] at 25˚C. If there are no
heat losses, what is the change in entropy of the oil and casting considered together?
A. 26.13 kJ/K C. 9.80 kJ/K
B. -16.33 kJ/K D. 0 kJ/K
29. Calculate the increase in entropy in cal/mol-˚K of gaseous oxygen when a mole is heated at constant pressure from 25˚C to 600˚C.
A. 8.07 C. 15.9
B. 12.4 D. 17.4
30. Air is compressed from an initial condition of 1 bar and 25 ˚C to a final state of 5 bar and 25 ˚C by isothermal compression. Assume air to be ideal gas with
the constant capacities, Cv = 5R/2 and Cp = 7R/2. Calculate the heat required in J/mol.
A. -9915 C. -5600
B. -3990 D. -7500
31. A copper block (Cp = 0.398 kJ/kg-K) having a mass of 15 kg and a temperature of 500 K is placed in a well-insulated vessel containing 100 kg of water
initially at 300 K. The entropy change of the entire process is
A. 0.912 kJ/K C. 0.593 kJ/K
B. 0.756 kJ/K D. 0.893 kJ/K
32. 200 g of water are heated from 5˚C to 100˚C and vaporized at a constant pressure. Determine the total change in entropy in cal/K.
A. 248 C. 348
B. 298 D. 398
THERMODYNAMICS 2
ADIABATIC AND REVERSIBLE ADIABATIC PROCESS
1. The isentropic compression of 1 ft3 of air, Cp/Cv =1.40 from 20 psia to a pressure of 100 psia gives a final volume of the container in ft3, is nearest to
A. 0.16 ft3 C. 0.32 ft3
B. 0.40 ft3 D. 0.56 ft3
2. Two kg of air is compressed in an insulated cylinder from 400 kPa to 15 000 kPa. Determine the work necessary if the initial temperature is 200˚C.
A. -1620 kJ C. 3000 kJ
B. -1230 kJ D. 1320 kJ
3. A steel casting [ Cp = 0.5 kJ/kg-K ] weighing 40 kg and at a temperature of 450˚C is quenched in 150 kg of oil [ Cp = 2.5 kJ/kg-K ] at 25˚C. If there are no
heat losses, what is the change in entropy of the oil and casting considered together?
A. 26.13 kJ/K C. 9.80 kJ/K
B. -16.33 kJ/K D. 0 kJ/K
4. A 10% NaOH solution at 70˚F is mixed with a 70% NaOH solution at 200˚F to form a solution containing 40% NaOH. If the mixing is done adiabatically,
what will be the final temperature of the solution?
A. 180 ˚F C. 220 ˚F
B. 200 ˚F D. 240 ˚F
5. Superheated steam at 200 psia and 50˚F superheat expands adiabatically and reversibly to 14.7 psia. Calculate the final enthalpy.
A. 1032 Btu/lb. C. 1250 Btu/lb.
B. 1120 Btu/lb. D. 1305 Btu/lb.
6. A 3 ft3 drum contains saturated water and water vapor at 650˚F. Find the mass of liquid water if their volumes are equal.
A. 56 lb C. 75.4 lb
B. 9.3 lb D. 21.8 lb
7. A 3 ft3 drum contains saturated water and water vapor at 650˚F. Find the mass of water vapor if their volumes are equal.
A. 56 lb C. 75.4 lb
B. 9.3 lb D. 21.8 lb
POLYTROPIC PROCESS
8. The work of a polytropic (n = 1.21) compression of air (Cp/Cv = 1.40) in a system with moving boundary from P1 = 15 psla, V1 = 1.0 ft3 to P2 = 150 psla,
V2 = 0.15 ft3 is
A. 35.5 ft-lb C. 2700 ft-lb
B. 1080 ft-lb D. 5150 ft-lb
9. From 80˚F and 6 ft3 , 10 lb of hydrogen changes state to 150˚F and 10 ft3. What is the change in entropy in Btu/˚R?
A. 7.65 C. 8.90
B. 8.02 D. 9.42
10. An ideal gas is one in which PV/T is a constant, regardless of the changes it undergoes. Such a gas has a volume of 359 ft3/lbmol at 32˚F and 1 atm. In
the following problem, air may be considered an ideal gas with the constant heat capacities Cv = 5 and Cp = 7 btu/lbmol˚F. The initial conditions of the air
are 1 atm and 60˚F. It is to be compressed to 5 atm and 60˚F by cooling at constant pressure followed by heating at constant volume. Calculate the total
heat required for the process.
A. -2910 Btu/lbmol C. -830 Btu/lbmol
B. 2080 Btu/lbmol D. 830 Btu/lbmol
WORK PRODUCING CYCLES
11. On the basis that 18000 btu can be produced by burning 1 lb. of a certain fuel, and an engine has a fuel rate of 0.35 lb. of fuel/hp-hr, the efficiency of the
engine will be
A. 40.4% C. 43.8%
B. 35.6% D. 31.5%
12. The maximum thermal efficiency that can be obtained in an ideal reversible heat engine operating between 1540˚F and 340˚F is closest to
A. 22% C. 40%
B. 78% D. 60%
13. A heat engine absorbs heat from the combustion of gasoline at 2200˚C. The gasoline has a specific gravity of 0.8 and a heat of combustion of 11 200
cal/gram. The engine rejects heat at 1200˚C. the maximum work in calories that can be obtained from the combustion of 1 liter gasoline is
A. 3.62E6 cal C. 3.78E5 cal
B. 4.53E4 cal D. 4.22E6 cal
14. A power plant burns 1000 kg of coal each hour and produces 500 kW of power. Calculate the overall thermal efficiency if each kg of coal produces 6 MJ of
energy.
A. 20% C. 40%
B. 30% D. 50%
15. What is the thermal efficiency of an air-standard Otto cycle operating with a lowest temperature of 200˚F, a highest temperature of 960˚F, and a
compression ratio of 8:1?
A. 42% C. 64%
B. 57% D. 76%
REFRIGERATION CYCLES
16. A shell and a tube brine color cools 150 gallons of brine per minute from 16˚F to 12˚F using NH 3 at 5˚F. The effective outside area of the tubes is 310 ft2.
The brine has a specific gravity of 1.2 and a specific heat of 0.70. The rating of the cooler in tons of refrigeration is
A. 10 C. 30
B. 21 D. 42
17. A thermoelectric device cools a small refrigerator and discards heat to the surroundings at 25˚C. The maximum electric power for which the device is
designed is 100 watts. The heat load of the refrigerator (that is, the heat leaking through the walls that must be removed by the thermoelectric device) is
500 J/s. What is the minimum temperature that can be maintained in the refrigerator?
A. 10.6˚C C. 0˚C
B. -15.7˚C D. -24.7˚C
18. A refrigerator (or cold room) is to be maintained at 10˚F and the available cooling water is at 70˚F. Assume that the cold room coils and the condenser are
of sufficient size that a 10˚F approach can be realized in each. Calculate the coefficient of performance if it operates on a Carnot cycle.
A. 0.80 C. 2.85
B. 5.75 D. 1.75
19. A 3 hp refrigerator of heat pump operates between 0˚F and 100˚F. the maximum theoretical heat that can be transferred from the cold reservoir is nearest
to
A. 13 000 Btu/hr C. 35 000 Btu/hr
B. 23 000 Btu/hr D. 43 000 Btu/hr
20. A heat pump provides 75 MJ/hr to a house. If the compressors require an electrical energy input of 4 kW, calculate the COP.
A. 2.34 C. 5.21
B. 4.08 D. 1.25
DAILY TEST
1. Determine the value of N in the process pv N = constant if this process has the following end state: 100 psia, 1 cu. ft.; 20 psia, 6 cu. ft.
A. 0.80 C. 0.75
B. 0.90 D. 0.98
2. Two Carnot engine operates in series between two reservoirs maintained at 600˚F and 100 ˚F, respectively. The energy rejected by the first engine is
input into the second engine. If the first engine’s efficiency is 20 percent greater than the second engine’s efficiency, calculate the intermediate
temperature.
A. 231.2 ˚F C. 267.3 ˚F
B. 249.0 ˚F D. 284.6 ˚F
3. A building has to be maintained at 18 ˚C at all times. A heat pump is required for this when the temperature outside the building drops to -6 ˚C, the building
losses heat at the rate of 120 000 kJ/kg. What is the least power required to drive the heat pump?
A. 2.75 kW C. 5.42 kW
B. 3.89 kW D. 4.45 kW
4. A steam engine is operating between boiler temperature of 220 ˚C and a condenser temperature of 35 ˚C. The engine delivers 8 hp and of efficiency 30%
of the Carnot engine. What is the actual efficiency of the engine?
A. 45.7% C. 11.3%
B. 20.4% D. 40.3%
5. The efficiency of an ideal Otto cycle is 40% . What is the hot-air value of k, if the compression ratio is 6.2?
A. 1.28 C. 1.25
B. 1.38 D. 1.35
6. How many tons of refrigeration (TOR) are required to produce 10 metric tons of ice per day at -10 ˚C from raw water at 22 ˚C if miscellaneous losses are
15% of the chilling and freezing load?
A. 17 TOR C. 15 TOR
B. 20 TOR D. 24 TOR
7. A 95 tons refrigeration system has a compressor pow er of 90 Hp. Find the coefficient of performance, COP.
A. 3.85 C. 4.77
B. 2.77 D. 1.99
8. During an isentropic expansion of air, the volume triples. If the initial temperature is 200 ˚C, what is the final temperature in ˚C?
A. 28.5 C. 26.4
B. 31.8 D. 34.9
9. A heat engine operates on a Carnot cycle with an efficiency of 75% . What COP would a refrigerator operating on the same cycle have? The low
temperature is o ˚C.
A. 0.45 C. 0.67
B. 0.57 D. 0.33
10. If a Carnot engine absorbs 10 kJ of heat per cycle when it operates between 500 and 400 K, the w ork it does per cycle is
A. 2 kJ C. 2.5 kJ
B. 8 kJ D. 10 kJ
BRINGHOME EXAM
1. Air expands in an insulated cylinder from 200 ˚C and 400 kPa to 20 kPa, Find T2 in C.
A. -24 C. -51
B. -28 D. -72
2. The power requirement of a Carnot refrigerator in maintaining a low temperature region at 300 K is 1.5 kW per ton. Find the heat rejected.
A. 4.02 kW C. 5.02 kW
B. 7.02 kW D. 6.02 kW
3. A Carnot machine operates between a hot reservoir at 200 ˚C and a cold reservoir at 20 ˚C. When it operates as an engine, it receives 1000 kJ/kg, find
the coefficient of performance (COP), when operated as a refrigerator.
A. 1.77 C. 1.63
B. 1.81 D. 1.97
4. A freezer is to be maintained at a temperature of -40 ˚F on a summer day when the ambient temperature is 80 ˚F. In order to maintain the freezer box at -
4- ˚F, it is necessary to remove heat from it at the rate of 70 BTU/min. What is the minimum power that must be supplied to the freezer?
A. 2.5 Hp C. 1.2 Hp
B. 5 Hp D. 0.47 Hp
5. A Carnot engine operates between two temperature reservoirs maintained at 200 ˚C and 20˚ C, respectively. If the desired output of the engine is 15 kW,
determine the heat transfer to the low temperature reservoir.
A. 39.42 kW C. 29.21 kW
B. 24.42 kW D. 33.50 kW
6. To have an efficiency of 40 percent, a heat engine that exhausts heat at 350 K must absorb heat at no less than
A. 210 K C. 583 K
B. 875 K D. 1038 K
7. A Carnot engine requires 35 kJ/s from the hot source. The engine produces 15 kW of power and the temperature of the sinks is 26 ˚C. What is the
temperature of the hot source in ˚C?
A. 245.57 C. 250.18
B. 210.10 D. 260.68
8. A stream of ethylene gas at 300 ˚C and 45 bar is expanded adiabatically in a turbine to 2 bar. Calculate the isentropic expansion work produced. Assume
ideal gas condition.
A. -12.15 kJ/mol C. -16.4 kJ/mol
B. -14.2 kJ/mol D. -17.5 kJ/mol
9. In a batch process, 100 lb of carbon monoxide gas are compressed adiabatically from 80˚ F and 15 psia to a final temperature of 600˚ F. if the gas is
considered to be ideal, calculate the work of compression in Btu.
A. 1200 Btu C. 5800 Btu
B. 4100 Btu D. 9300 Btu
10. In a batch process, 100 lb of carbon monoxide gas are compressed adiabatically from 60˚ F and 15 psia to a final temperature of 600˚ F. if the gas is
considered to be ideal, calculate the final pressure if the process is reversible.
A. 20 psia C. 48 psia
B. 171 psia D. 520 psia
11. A system consisting of a liquid phase and a v apor phase in equilibrium contains three chemical species: water, ethanol, and methanol. The number of
degrees of freedom for the system is
A. Zero C. Two
B. One D. Three
12. Air is compressed in a diesel engine from an initial pressure of 13 psia and a temperature of 100 F to 1/12 of its initial volume. Assuming the compression
to be adiabatic, calculate the final temperature.
A. 1080 ˚F C. 1026 ˚F
B. 1053 ˚F D. 1270 ˚F
13. The work required to compress a gas reversibly according to pV 1.30 = constant is 50 000 ft-lb if there is no flow. Determine the change in internal energy if
the gas is air.
A. 48.2 Btu C. 121 Btu
B. 2.45 Btu D. 187 Btu
14. The work required to compress a gas reversibly according to pV 1.30 = constant is 50 000 ft-lb if there is no flow. Determine the heat loss if the gas is air.
A. 50.4 Btu B. -16.1 Btu
C. -87.5 Btu D. 187 Btu
15. An ideal gas undergoes the following reversible process: from an initial state of 70 ˚C and 1 bar, it is compressed adiabatically to 150 ˚C; then it is cooled
from 150 to 70 ˚C at constant pressure and finally expanded isothermally to its original state. Calculate Q for the entire cycle. Take Cv = 3R/2.
A. -168 Btu/lbmol C. 1495 Btu/lbmol
B. -1663 Btu/lbmol D. -998 Btu/lbmol
16. What is the enthalpy change for heating 1 mol of ice from -5˚C to steam at 105˚C?
A. 54.57 kJ C. 86.1 kJ
B. 76.4 kJ D. 90.8 kJ
17. When 20 kJ of heat is removed from 1.2 kg of ice originally at -15˚C, its new temperature is
A. -18 ˚C C. -28 ˚C
B. -23 ˚C D. -35 ˚C
18. When 10 lb of water at 50 ˚F is poured over 1 lb of ice at 0 ˚F, the resulting mixture is at
A. 19 ˚F C. 32 ˚F
B. 31 ˚F D. 34 ˚F
19. Calculate the entropy change when 1 lb of SO 2 gas is heated from 70 to 2000 ˚F at constant pressure. The molar heat capacity of SO 2 is given by: Cp =
6.157 + 0.0138T + 0.913E – 5T2 + 2.057E – 9T3 where T is in K.
A. 0.2758 Btu/R C. 0.3975 Btu/R
B. 0.3644 Btu/R D. 0.4278 Btu/R
20. Calculate the entropy change in cal/K if 350 grams of water at 5˚ C is mixed with 500 grams of water at 70˚ C.
A. 4.485 C. 4.652
B. 4.580 D. 4.789
21. In a Carnot cycle operating on nitrogen, the heat supplied is 40 Btu and the adiabatic expansion ratio is 15.6. If the receiv er temperature is 60 ˚F,
determine the thermal efficiency.
A. 67 % C. 37 %
B. 45 % D. 85 %
22. In a Carnot cycle operating on nitrogen, the heat supplied is 40 Btu and the adiabatic expansion ratio is 15.6. If the receiver temperature is 60 ˚F,
determine the work done by the cycle.
A. 141.8 Btu C. 5.4 Btu
B. 78.2 Btu D. 27 Btu
23. In a Carnot cycle operating on nitrogen, the heat supplied is 40 Btu and the adiabatic expansion ratio is 15.6. If the receiver temperature is 60 ˚F,
determine the heat rejected at the cold reservoir.
A. 142 Btu C. 75.4 Btu
B. 13.3 Btu D. 112 Btu
24. For an ideal Otto engine operating on the air standard, the temperature at the end of isentropic compression is 840˚ F and at the end of expansion is
2540˚ F. The compression ratio is 7.5. Find the efficiency.
A. 34 % C. 67 %
B. 48 % D. 82 %
25. For an ideal Otto engine operating on the air standard, the temperature at the end of isentropic compression is 840˚ F and at the end of expansion is
2540˚ F. The compression ratio is 7.5. Find the work done by the cycle in Btu per pound of air.
A. 220 C. 310
B. 442 D. 570
26. A 30 MW geothermal electric power plant uses hot steam from the earth at 157 ˚C to heat and vaporize isobutane, which turns a turbine that is connected
to a generator. The isobutane is subsequently cooled to 27 ˚C using fans and condensed back to a liquid. The overall efficiency of the plant is 40% of the
ideal (Carnot) efficiency. How many joules of heat must be released to the atmosphere per second?
A. 2.5E8 C. 3E7
B. 2.2E8 D. 5.2E8
27. A device produces 37.5 joules per cycle. There is one power stroke per cycle. Calculate the power output if the device is run at 45 rpm.
A. 4.69 W C. 27.56 W
B. 28.125 W D. 14.063 W
28. A small gasoline-powered engine leaf blower removes heat energy from a high temperature reservoir and exhausts 700 J to a low -temperature reservoir.
What is its engine’s thermal efficiency?
A. 51.5 % C. 12.5 %
B. 16.8 % D. 24.5 %
29. The power requirement of a Carnot refrigerator in maintaining a low temperature region at -30 ˚F is 1.1 kW per ton. Find the COP.
A. 2.1 C. 3.2
B. 2.7 D. 4.1
30. The power requirement of a Carnot refrigerator in maintaining a low temperature region at -30 ˚F is 1.1 kW per ton. Find T2.
A. 564 ˚ R C. 475 ˚ R
B. 512 ˚ R D. 420 ˚ R
31. The power requirement of a Carnot refrigerator in maintaining a low temperature region at -30 ˚F is 1.1 kW per ton. When this device is used to deliver
heat, what is its COP?
A. 2.1 C. 3.2
B. 2.7 D. 4.2
WEEKLY EXAM 8
Chemical Calculations, Thermodynamics, and Handbook Familiarization
1. The approximate range of bulk density of anthracite coal is
A. 50-58 lb./ft3 C. 40-54 lb./ft3
B. 42-57 lb./ft3 D. 35-42 lb./ft3
2. Density of titanium in g/mL is
A. 3.2 C. 4.5
B. 4.1 D. 5.1
3. Average density of limestone in lb./ft3 is
A. 147 C. 165
B. 156 D. 132
4. Density of toluene at 60˚ C in kg/m3 is
A. 829 C. 853
B. 840 D. 860
5. Density of water at 56.4 ˚C.
A. 985.219 kg/m3 C. 984.517 kg/m3
B. 984.963 kg/m3 D. 985.013 kg/m3
6. The viscosity of 40% by weight sucrose in water at 20˚ C in centipoises is
A. 5.206 C. 7.499
B. 6.223 D. 56.7
7. Normal boiling point of hydrogen peroxide in C is
A. 100 C. 158
B. 120 D. 94
8. The boiling point of 60% H 2SO4 (aq).
A. 250 ˚F C. 300 ˚F
B. 280 ˚F D. 305 ˚F
9. Vapor pressure or water at 40.5 ˚C.
A. 56.81 mmHg C. 56.51 mmHg
B. 55.324 mmHg D. 59.90 mmHg
10. Vapor pressure of butyric acid at 61.5 ˚C in mmHg is
A. 5 C. 20
B. 10 D. 40
11. Critical temperature of cyanogen.
A. 110 ˚C C. 118 ˚C
B. 128 ˚C D. 122 ˚C
12. Critical pressure of nitrogen.
A. 65 atm C. 100 atm
B. 33.5 atm D. 62.5 atm
13. Compressibility factor of oxygen at 140 K and 80 bar.
A. 0.1940 C. 0.2527
B. 0.2969 D. 0.3099
14. Compressibility factor of oxygen at 40 bars and 300 K is
A. 0.9771 C. 0.9884
B. 0.9676 D. 0.9477
15. Heat of combustion of gaseous n-octane at 25˚ C if water is in the vapor phase in Btu/lb. is
A. 19256 C. 10705
B. 19100 D. 1064.11
16. Heat of vaporization of KOH in calorie per mole
A. 30850 C. 42300
B. 40200 D. 35120
17. Higher heating value of the combustion of ethane in calorie per gram is
A. 12399.2 C. 22304
B. 13265.1 D. 272.820
18. Specific heat of asphalt in kJ/kg-K is
A. 0.765 C. 1.465
B. 0.920 D. 1.030
19. Specific heat of toluene at 60 ˚C in kJ/kg-K is
A. 1.20 C. 1.58
B. 1.34 D. 1.80
20. What is the enthalpy of superheated steam at 20 psia and 400 ˚F?
A. 1239.2 kJ/kg C. 2876 kJ/kg
B. 430 kJ/kg D. 540 kJ/kg
21. What is the enthalpy of saturated steam at 529.29 kPa?
A. 2750 kJ/kg C. 2421 kJ/kg
B. 3210 kJ/kg D. 3484 kJ/kg
22. What is the enthalpy of saturated liquid water at 15.592 psia?
A. 1151.6 Btu/lb. C. 1210.8 Btu/lb.
B. 183.19 Btu/lb. D. 145.42 Btu/lb.
23. What is the heat of vaporization of steam at 32.53 psia?
A. 942.1 Btu/lb. C. 987.4 Btu/lb.
B. 1002.7 Btu/lb. D. 897.3 Btu/lb.
24. Steam at 1000 lbf/ft2 pressure and 300 R has a specific volume of 6.5 ft3/lbm and a specific enthalpy of 9800 lbf-ft/lbm. Find the internal energy in ft-lbf/lbm
of steam.
A. 5400 C. 6190
B. 3300 D. 2500
25. How is the quality, x, of a liquid-vapor mixture defined?
A. The fraction of the total volume that is saturated vapor
B. The fraction of the total volume that is saturated liquid
C. The fraction of the total mass that is saturated vapor
D. The fraction of the total mass that is saturated liquid
26. A 10 m3 vessel initially contains 5 m3 of liquid water and 5 m3 of saturated water vapor at 100 kPa. Calculate the internal energy of the system using the
steam tables.
A. 5E5 kJ C. 1E6 kJ
B. 8E5 kJ D. 2E6 kJ
27. Calculate the entropy of steam at 60 psia with a quality of 0.6 in BTU/lbm-R.
A. 0.73 C. 1.21
B. 1.16 D. 1.64
28. If 1 lbm of steam at 14.7 psia, 63% quality is heated isentropically, at what pressure will it reach the saturated vapor state?
A. 56 psia C. 1852 psia
B. 313 psia D. 2585 psia
29. A 5-m3 vessel initially contains 50 kg of liquid water and saturated water vapor and a total internal energy of 27 300 kJ. Calculate the heat requirement to
vaporize all of the liquid.
A. 100 000 kJ C. 300 000 kJ
B. 200 000 kJ D. 400 000 kJ
30. Calculate the work done by a system in which 1 kg mole of water completely evaporates at 100˚ C and 1 atmosphere pressure.
A. 2130 kJ C. 8050 kJ
B. 2490 kJ D. 4200 kJ
31. Five moles of water vapor at 100˚ C and 1 atm pressure are compressed isobarically to form liquid at 100 ˚C. The process is reversible and the ideal gas
laws apply. Compute the initial volume of the vapor.
A. 123 L C. 143 L
B. 133 L D. 153 L
laws apply. Compute the work done on the system.
A. 10.5 MJ C. 6 MJ
B. 15 MJ D. 6 kJ
laws apply. Determine the heat of condensation for the amount of water given.
A. -203.3 MJ C. 203.3 kJ
B. -40.66 MJ D. 203.3 MJ
34. Twenty grams of oxygen gas are compressed at a constant temperature at 30 ˚C to 5% of their original volume. What work is done on the sy stem?
A. 824 cal C. 944 cal
B. 924 cal D. 1124 cal
35. Helium is compressed isothermally from 14.7 psia and 68˚ F. The compression ratio is 4. Calculate the work done by the gas.
A. -1454 BTU/lbm C. -187 BTU/lbm
B. -364 BTU/lbm D. -46.7 BTU/lbm
36. Gas in enclosed cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is heated and expands from a volume of 0.04 m 3 to 0.10 m3 at a constant
pressure of 200 kPa. The work done by the system is
A. 8 kJ C. 12 kJ
B. 10 kJ D. 14 kJ
37. Gas in enclosed cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is heated and expands from a volume of 0.04 m3 to 0.10 m3. The pressure
varies such that pV = constant, and the initial pressure is 200 kPa. Calculate the work done by the system.
A. 6.80 kJ C. 9.59 kJ
B. 7.33 kJ D. 12.0 kJ
38. In an isentropic compression, P 1 = 100 psia, P 2 = 200 psia, V 1 = 10 in3 and r = 1.4. Find V 2.
A. 3.5 in3 C. 5 in3
B. 4.5 in3 D. 6.1 in3
39. In an isentropic compression, P 1 = 200 psia, P 2 = 300 psia, T1 = 700 ˚R. Find T2 using r = 1.4.
A. 576 ˚R C. 680 ˚R
B. 590 ˚R D. 786 ˚R
40. Air undergoes an isentropic compression from 14.7 psia to 180.6 psia. If the initial temperature is 68 ˚F and the final temperature is 621.5 ˚F, calculate the
work done by the gas.
A. -138.2 BTU/lbm C. 0 BTU/lbm
B. -94.8 BTU/lbm D. 138.2 BTU/lbm
41. Nitrogen is expanded isentropically. Its temperature changes from 620 ˚F to 60 ˚F. Find the pressure ratio (P1/P2).
A. 0.08 C. 26.2
B. 12.9 D. 3547
42. An isobaric steam generating process starts with saturated liquid at 20 psia. The change in entropy is equal to the initial entropy. What is the change in
enthalpy during the process? (Hint: Not all of the liquid is vaporized)
A. -230.4 BTU/lbm C. 196.2 BTU/lbm
B. -196.2 BTU/lbm D. 230.4 BTU/lbm
43. A cylinder and piston arrangement contains saturated water vapor at 110 ˚C. The vapor is compressed in a reversible adiabatic process until the pressure
is 1.6 MPa. Determine the work done by the system per kilogram of water.
A. -637 kJ/kg C. -432 kJ/kg
B. -509 kJ/kg D. -330 kJ/kg
A. 2.39 J/mol-K C. 2.00 J/mol-K
B. 2.79 J/mol-K D. 3.12 J/mol-K
45. What will be the percent carbon monoxide in flue gas from the burning of carbon with 50% excess air in such a manner that 80% carbon burns to carbon
dioxide and the rest to carbon monoxide?
A. 2.8 C. 8.3
B. 17.2 D. 20.5
46. Orsat analysis of the stack gas from the combustion of the gaseous mixture of ethane and methane shows 10.57% CO 2, 3.79% O 2, and the rest N 2 . The
air enters at 30˚C and the barometer reads 760 mmHg. Determine the percent excess air.
A. 50 C. 45
B. 20 D. 65
enters at 30˚C and the barometer reads 760 mmHg. Determine the mole percent composition of the gaseous fuel.
A. 85.3% methane & 14.7% ethane C. 30.61% methane & 69.39% ethane
B. 79.3% methane & 20.7% ethane D. 14.7% methane & 85.3% ethane
For questions 48-49, refer to the following; 10 kmols of the fuel gas (composition by volume: methane 85% , ethane 10.5% , nitrogen 4.5% ) is burned with
15% excess air. If complete combustion is assumed;
48. Total number of moles after combustion per 10 kmols of gas is

A. 123.64 C. 33.9
B. 272 D. 124
49. If the total pressure is 100.6 kPa, the partial pressure of water vapor (in kPa) is
A. 16.4 C. 0.16
B. 2.7 D. 2.38
50. Suppose we dilute 1-lb. of 50wt% NaOH solution at 70˚ F with 1-lb. of pure water, also at 70˚ F. What is the final temperature if the mixing is adiabatic?
A. 123 ˚F C. 92 ˚F
B. 100 ˚F D. 85 ˚F
51. Who coined the word energy?
A. James Joule C. Rudolf Diesel
B. Tomas Young D. Lord Kelvin
52. What is the unique state at which solid, liquid and gaseous phases can co-exist in equilibrium?
A. Triple point C. Boiling point
B. Critical point D. Pour point
53. Increasing the pressure on a liquid
A. Raises the boiling point
B. Leaves the boiling point the same
C. Lowers the boiling point
D. Raises the temperature
54. Which of the following is an extensive property?

A. temperature B. velocity C. pressure D. mass
55. Water with quality x=50% is contained in a rigid vessel. If more heat is added:
A. x increases B. x decreases C. x is constant D. x varies
56. A motorist equips his automobile tires with a relief type valve so that the pressure inside the tire will never exceed 240 kPa (gauge). He started his trip with the
tire pressure of 200 kPa (gauge) and a temperature of 23˚C. During the long drive, the air temperature of the tire reaches 83˚C. Each tires contains 0.11 kg of air.
Determine the mass of air escaping each tire.
A. 6.37x10-3 kg B. 6.37E-2 kg C. 6.37E-4 kg D. 0.637 kg
57. How much energy is required to just vaporize 0.5 kg of water which was originally at 24˚C and one atmosphere?
A. 1288 kJ B. 1422 kJ C. 1587 kJ D. 1772 kJ
58. If coal, having a heat of combustion of 14,000 BTU/lb, is used in a heating plant of 50% efficiency, how many pounds of steam of 50% quality and 212˚F
temperature can be made per pound of this coal from water whose initial temperature is 70˚F?
A. 11.12 lb B. 12.04 lb C. 12.76 lb D. 13.21 lb
59. The quality of steam that gives up 475 BTU per pound while condensing water at a constant pressure of 1 psig is:
A. 50.7% B. 52.3% C. 53.6% D. 56.2%
60. Determine the volume change in m3 when 1 kg of saturated water is completely vaporized at a pressure of 1 kPa.
A. 115.1 B. 120.8 C. 129.2 D. 134.0
61. Determine the volume change in m3 when 1 kg of saturated water is completely vaporized at a pressure of 100 kPa.
A. 1.693 B. 1.732 C. 1.780 D. 1.806
62. Four kg of water is placed in an enclosed volume of 1 m3. Heat is added until the temperature is 150˚C. Find the pressure of the vapor.
63. Four kg of water is placed in an enclosed volume of 1 m3. Heat is added until the temperature is 150˚C. Find the mass of the vapor.
A. 2.542 kg B. 2.650 kg C. 2.721 kg D. 2.782 kg
64. Four kg of water is placed in an enclosed volume of 1 m3. Heat is added until the temperature is 150˚C. Find the volume of the vapor.
A. 0.8845 m3 B. 0.9240 m3 C. 0.9791 m3 D. 0.9985 m3
65. Calculate the work necessary to compress air in an insulated cylinder from a volume of 6 ft3 to a volume of 1.2 ft3. The initial temperature and pressure are
50˚F and 30 psia, respectively.
A. -72.2 Btu B. -75.1 Btu C. 78.0 Btu D. 80.6 Btu
66. Steam enters a throttling valve at 8000 kPa and 300˚C and leave at a presuure of 1600 kPa. Determine the final specific volume of the stream in m3 /kg.
A. 0.0895 B. 0.1207 C. 0.1232 D. 0.1402
67. A wet steam at 212˚F has an enthalpy of 1024 BTU/lb. What is the quality of the steam?
A. 87% B. 54% C. 75% D. 80%
68. A superheated steam at 308.78 psia has a 90 degrees Fahrenheit of superheat. What is the temperature of the steam?
A. 420˚F B. 460˚F C. 480˚F D. 510˚F
69. The ideal gas undergoes the following reversible process: from an initial state of 70˚C and 1 bar, it is compressed adiabatically to 150˚C; then it is cooled from
150 to 70˚C at a constant pressure and finally expanded isothermally to its original state. Calculate the Q for the entire cy cle. Take Cv=3R/2
A. -168 Btu/lbmolb B. -1663 Btu/lbmol C. 1495 Btu/lbmol D. -998 Btu/lbmol
70. The amount of oxygen needed to completely burn the fuel yielding CO 2 and H 2O is __________.
A. required oxygen B. theoretical oxygen C. excess oxygen D. free oxygen
71. The coal analysis which is based on the volatilization characteristics of the fuel is:
A. proximate B. modified C. Ultimate D. elemental
72. Refers to the outgoing stream of non-combustible matter (ash), which separates from the materials that can be gasified.
A. tar B. cinder C. gangue D. refuse
73. the outgoing stream for the inert and some unburned elemental sulphur formed during combustion is referred to as :
A. cinder B. ash C. gangue D. refuse
74. Ash is to solid fuel as ________ is to iron pyrites.

A. refuse B. gangue C. cinder D.tar
75. Where is the calcinations of limestone carried out?

A. kiln B. furnace C. incinerator D. fermentor
76. Cinder is to raw sulphur as ________ is to solid fuels.

A. ash B. refuse C. gangue D. tar
77. Which of the following is true if the resulting combustible lost in refuse is coked coal?
A. Has lost only moisture content
B. Has lost both moisture and VCM content
C. Has FC and VCM as its main constituent
D. The FC/VCM in green coal is equal to FC/VCM in
refuse
78. A gas which contains saturated paraffin hydrocarbons.

A. secondary fuel gas B. biogas C. natural gas D. marsh gas
79. Which of the following constituents of coal is most important in the production of coke?
A. moisture B. ash C. volatiles D. carbon
80. Purity of coke means that it is high in carbon and low in:
A. volatiles B. ash C. iron d. moisture
81. Blast furnace glass is a very poisonous gas because of its predominantly high:
A. H2S content B. CO2 content C. CO content D. CH4 content
82. Which of the following gases will require maximum amount of air combustion of 1 Nm3 gas?
A. blast funace gas B. natural gas C. producer gas D. water gas
83. Coal fired in a furnace has a heating value of 13800 BTU/lb and contains 78.05% C and 1.2% S. The proximate analysis shows 4% M, 24% % FC, 8% ash
and analysis of the refuse shows 8% VCM, 25% FC and 32% ash. Calculate the % C lost in the refuse.
A. 8.0% B. 4.22% C. 9.5% D. 17.0%
84. The furnace at the Bataan refinery is using a fuel gas which contains methane, ethane and 20% nitrogen. The Orsat analysis of the combustion products
showed 7.8% CO2, 7.4% O2 and 84.8% N2. The gas is burned with excess air. The % methane in the fuel gas is:
A. 22.76 B. 57.24 C. 50.30 D. 63.25
85. The fuel gas from the combustion of a hydrocarbon fuel has the following Orsat analysis: 5.68% CO2, 2.43% CO, 6.4% O2 and 85.4% N2. The percent
excess air supplied is:
A. 30.0% B. 34.8% C. 38.6% D. 42.5%
86. The hydrocarbon CnH2n+2, used as a fuel was found to contain 14.84 g-moles H2 and 133.56 grams C. What is the formula of the hydrocarbon?
A. CH4 B. C2H8 C. C3H8 D. C4H10
87. How many grams of carbon dioxide will be formed when 3 grams of C2H4 reacts with 3 grams of O2?
A. 9.4 B. 6.2 C. 4.1 D. 2.8
𝑦𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑𝑠
88. Determine the number of grams of SO3 that can be produced by the reaction of 1 g S with enough O2 according to the equation: 2𝑆 + 3𝑂2 → 2𝑆𝑂3 .
A. 3.8 B. 2.5 C. 1.7 D. 0.27
89. 80˚Tw= ? ˚Be

A. 41.43 B. 37.59 C. 48.33 D. 72.50
90. When the thermodynamic system undergoes a cyclic process its internal energy change is:
A. infinite B. negative C. positive D. zero
91. Reversible adiabatic operation has no change in:

A. heat B. enthalpy C. temperature D. entropy
92. During an Isentropic process, which of the following is true?

A. The temperature increases as the pressure
decreases.
B. The temperature increases as the volume increases
C. The heat transfer equals the enthalpy change
D. The heat transfer is zero.
93. During an adiabatic internally reversible process, what is true about the change in entropy?
A. it is temperature dependent C. it is always less than zero
B. it is always zero D. it is always greater that zero
94. The statement that in any thermodynamic process involving only pure phases at equilibrium, the entropy change approaches zero at the absolute zero of
temperature.
A. First law of Thermodynamics B. Second law of Thermodynamics
C. Third law of Thermodynamics C. Zeroith law of Thermodynamics
95. The statement that in a real, irreversible process the entropy of a system plus its surrounding must increase, while in a reversible process the total entropy
remains unchanged.
A. First law of Thermodynamics B. Second law of Thermodynamics
C. Third law of Thermodynamics D. Zeroith law of Thermodynamics
96. Gibbs free energy (G) is defined as:

A. 𝐺 = 𝑈 − 𝑇𝑆 B. 𝐺 = 𝐻 − 𝑇𝑆 C. 𝐺 = 𝐻 + 𝑇𝑆 D. 𝐺 = 𝑈 + 𝑇𝑆
97. A compound containing only carbon, hydrogen and oxygen was analysed and found to contain 70.6% C, 5.9% H and 23.5% O by mass. The molecular
weight of the compound is: 136 amu. What is the molecular formula?
A. C8H8O2 B. C8H4O C. C4H4O D. C5H6O2
98. A compound contains 54.45% carbon, 9.09% hydrogen and 36.36% oxygen. What is its empirical formula?
A. C4H8O2 B. C3H6 C. CH2O+ D. C2H4O3
99. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2 and one mole of this compound has a mass of 42 grams. Its molecular formula is:
A. CH2 B. C3H6 C. C3H2 D. C2H6
100. When an excess of dry chlorine was passed over 1.12 g of heated iron, 3.25 g of a chloride of iron was obtained. What is the empirical formula of the
chloride?
A. Fe3Cl B. Fecl2 C. FeCl3 D. Fe2Cl6
--------------------------------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS--------------------------------------------------------------------
FLOW OF FLUIDS 1
Archimedes’ Principle
1. A wooden cube that is 15 centimeters on each side with a specific weight of 6300 N/m3 is floating in freshwater (γ=9810 N/m3). What is the depth of the cube
below the surface?
A. 8.75 cm B. 9.12 cm C. 9.64 cm D. 10.12 cm
2. The weight of the balloon and gas it contains is 11.12 kN. If the balloon displaced 1132 m3 of air and weight of 1 m3 of air is 12.3 N, what is the acceleration
with which the balloon begins to rise?
A. 2.47 m/s2 B. 2.0 m/s2 C. 3.76 m/s2 D.3.24 m/s2
3. A block of wood floats in water with 15 cm projecting above the surface. If the same block was placed in alcohol of specific gravity of 0.82, the block would
project 10 cm above the surface of the alcohol. The specific gravity of the wood is:
A. 0.67 B. 3.00 C. 0.50 D. 0.60
Continuity Equation
4. Water is flowing in a 5 centimeter diameter pipe at a velocity of 5 m/s. The pipe extends to a 10-centimeter diameter pipe. Find the volumetric flow rate in the
10-centimeter diameter pipe.
A. 589 L/min B. 610 L/min C. 615 L/min D. 621 L/min
5. A fluid flows in a steady flow manner between two sections in a flow line. At section 1: A1= 1 ft2, V1=1000 fpm, specific volume= 4 ft3/lb. At section 2: A2= 2ft2,
density= 20.0 lb/ft3 . Calculate the velocity at section 2.
A. 10.42 fps B. 12.80 fps C. 13.21 fps D. 14.20 fps
6. Water flows through an 8-in (ID=7.981 in) steel pipe at an average velocity of 6 ft/s. Downstream the pipe splits into an 8 in main and a 2 in (ID=2.067 in)
bypass pipes. If the velocity in the bypass is twice the velocity of the main pipe, the volumetric flow rate [ft3/s] in the main pipe is;
A. 10.58 B. 5.29 C. 1.84 D. 0.25
7. A hose shoots water straight up a distance of 2.5 m. The end opening of the hose an area of 0.75 cm 2. How much water comes out in 1 minute?
A. 13.5 L B. 41.5 L C. 31.5 L D. 130.5 L
Torrecelli’s Theorem
8. A cylindrical bucket, open at the top, 0.200 m high and 0.100 m in diameter. A circular hole with cross section area of 1 cm2 is cut in the center of the bottom of
the bucket. Water flows into the bucket from a tube above it at the rate of 1.30E-4 m3/s. How high will the water in the bucket rise?
A. 1.25 m B. 2.52 m C. 4.67 m D. 6.62 m
Bernoulli’s Equation
9. Water is flowing in an open channel at a depth of 2 m and a velocity of 10 m/s. It flows dow n a chute into another channel where the depth is 1 m and the
velocity is 10 m/s. Neglecting friction, determine the difference in the elevation of the channel floors.
A. 3.64 m B. 3.90 m C. 4.15 m D. 4.28 m
10. A 60-cm water pipe carries a flow of 1 m3 /s. At point A, the elevation is 50 meters and the pressure is 200 kPa. At point B, 1200 meters downstream from A,
the elevation is 40 meters and the pressure is 230 kPA. The head loss, in feet, between A and B is:
A. 6.94 B.15.0 C. 20.88 D. 100.2
Reynold’s Number
11. A 70 L/s (150 ft3/min) of water is flowing in around pipe such that the flow remains laminar. Considering that the critical Reynold’s number to be 2000, what is
the diameter of the pipe necessary to ensure laminar flow? (Note: Kinematic viscosity of water is: 4.75E-5 ft2 /s)
A. 33.50 ft B. 41.70 ft C. 12.50 ft D. 37.50 ft
12. If 98% sulphuric acid of viscosity 0.025 N -s/m2 and density of 1840 kg/m3 is pumped at 685 cm3/s through a 25 mm line, what is the value of the Reynold’s
number?
A. 2572 B. 1.26E9 C. 1.3E6 D. 1384
Velocity distribution
13. An oil flowing at a rate of 0.001 m3/s through an 8 cm diameter pipe has a kinematic viscosity of 2E-5 m2/s and the specific gravity of 0.85. What is the
centreline velocity?
A. 0.398 m/s B. 0.678 m/s C. 0.235 m/s D. 0.547 m/s
14. A liquid is pumped in streamline flow through a pipe of diameter D. At what distance from the centre of the pipe will the fluid be flowing at the average
velocity?
A. 0.15D B. 0.22D C. 0.35D D. 0.41D
DAILY TEST
1. An ice berg has a density of 57.1 lb/ft3. If it floats in freshwater, what percent of the iceberg's volume will be visible?
A. 10.5 % B. 7.5 % C. 8.5 % D. 5.5 %
2. A helium balloon is at the same pressure and temperature as the surrounding air (1 atm, 20˚C) and has a diameter of 3 m. The weight of the plastic skin is
negligible. How much payload can the balloon lift?
A. 122.9 N B. 132.1 N C. 144.2 N D. 150.1 N
3. A block of wood floats in water with 6 inches projecting above the water surface. If the same block w ere placed in alcohol of specific gravity of 0.82, the block
will project 4 inches above the surface of the alcohol. The specific gravity of the wooden block is:
A. 0.8 B. 0.9 C. 0.6 D. 0.7
4. Water is flowing in a pipe of varying cross sectional area, an at all points the water completely fills the pipe. The cross-sectional area at point 1 is 0.80 m2 and
the velocity is 3.5 m/s. Compute the fluid’s velocity at point 2 where the cross sectional area is 0.60 m 2.
A. 5.22 m/s B. 2.57 m/s C. 4.67 m/s D. 3.25 m/s
5. In a natural gas pipeline station 1 the pipe diameter 2 ft and the flow conditions are 800 psia, 600˚F and 50 f/s velocity . At station 2, the pipe diameter is 3 ft
and the flow conditions are 500 psia, 60˚F. What is the velocity at station 2?
A. 10.1 m/s B. 11.3 m/s C. 11.9 m/s D. 12.7 m/s
6. A cylindrical pipe with water flowing downward at 0.02 m3/s having top diameter of 0.08 m, bottom diameter of 0.04 m and height of 1.5 m. Find the pressure
between the pipe.
7. A pressure tank contains a fluid with weight density 81.5 lbf/ft2. The pressure in the air space is 200 psia. Fluid exits from to the atmosphere from the bottom of
the tank. What is the exit velocity, v? The distance from the surface of the fluid to the exit point is 10 ft.
A. 25.4 ft/s B. 98.5 ft/s C. 101.7 ft/s D. 106.6 ft/s
8. At what critical speed will the flow of water in a long cylindrical pipe of diameter 2 cm becomes turbulent considering that the temperature is 20˚C, viscosity is
1E-3 Pa-s, and the critical Reynold’s number is 3000.
A. 0.350 m/s B. 0.250 m/s C. 0.234 m/s D. 0.150 m/s
9. Water at 100˚F is flowing through a long, straight, 4-in schedule 40 steel pipe at a rate of 6.2 gal/min. What is the velocity at the center of the pipe?
A. 0.156 ft/s B. 0.20 ft/s C. 0.40 ft/s D. 0.56 ft/s
10. The ice in an iceberg has a specific gravity of 0.922. When floating in seawater (SG=1.03), the percentage of its exposed volume is nearest to:
A. 5.6 B. 7.4 C. 8.9 D. 10.5
BRINGHOME EXAM
“Each problem that I solved become a rule which served afterwards to solve other problems.”
-Rene Descartes (1596-1650)
1. Estimate the height to which water at 21˚C will rise in a capillary tube of diameter 3.75 cm. Assume it is clean glass of contact angle 0˚ and surface tension of
0.0729.
A. 9.75 mm B. 5.56 mm C. 7.35 mm D. 8.67 mm
2. An iceberg has a specific weight of 9000 N/m3 in ocean water, which has a specific weight of 10000 N/m3 . Above the water surface, it was observed that a
volume of 2800 m3 of the iceberg protruded. Determine the volume of the iceberg below the free surface of the ocean.
A. 23000 m3 B. 25000 m3 C. 35000 m3 D. 38000 m3
3. It is planned to lift and move logs from almost inaccessible forest areas by means of balloons. Helium at atmospheric (101.325 kpa) and temperature 21.1˚C is
to be used in balloons. What minimum balloon diameter (assume spherical shape) will be required for gross lifting force of 20,000 kg? Gas constant for air and
helium are 287.08 and 2077.67 J/KgK, respectively:
A. 16.65 m B. 33.3 m C. 44.4 m D. 48.4 m
4. A block of wood floats in water with 7 inches projecting above the water surface. It is then placed in alcohol of specific gravity 0.82, and projected 4 inches
above the surface. What is the specific gravity of the wooden block?
A. 0.68 B. 0.66 C. 0.98 D. 0.73
5. A 150 mm diameter pipe carries 81.3 L/s of water. The pipe branches into two pipes one is 50 mm in diameter and the other is 75 mm. What is the velocity in
the 75 mm pipe if the velocity in the 50 mm pipe is 10 m/s?
A. 13.96 m/s B. 15.67 m/s C. 17.25 m/s D. 19.43 m/s
6. In a natural-gas pipeline station 1 the pipe diameter is 2 ft and the flow conditions are: 800 psia, 60˚F, and 50 ft/s velocity. At station 2 the pipe diameter is 3 ft
and the flow conditions are 500 psia, 60˚F. What is the mass flow rate in kg/s?
A. 170 B. 176 C. 184 D. 198
7. A sealed tank containing seawater to a height of 12 m also contains air above the water at gauge pressure of 5 atm. Water flows out from the bottom through a
small hole. Calculate the efflux speed of the water.
A. 35.45 m/s B. 34.92 m/s C. 45.2 m/s D. 20.45 m/s
8. Water is flowing in a 5 centimeter diameter pipe at a velocity of 5 m/s. The pipe expands to a 10 centimeter diameter pipe. Calculate the pressure just after the
10-centimeter diameter pipe if the pressure in the 5-centimeter pipe is 300 kPa. Friction is negligible. Specific weight of w ater is 9.81 kN/m3 .
9. Gasoline at 20˚C. (Sp.gr. 0.719, viscosity of 0.000292 Pa-s) flows at the rate of 2 L/s through a pipe having an inside diameter of 60 mm. Determine the
Reynold’s number.
A. 104,400 B. 98,100 C. 82,090 D. 72,100
10. Water at 100˚F is flowing through a straight 4-in schedule 40 pipe at a rate of 1 gal/min. The length of the pipe is 10 ft, find the velocity at the center of the
pipe in feet per second.
A. 0.0378 B. 0.0504 C. 0.0454 D. 0.0252
11. A piece of glass weighs 258.6 g in air, 152.6 g in water at 4˚C, and 92 g is sulphuric acid. Calculate the specific gravity of the sulphuric acid.
A. 0.85 B. 1.57 C. 2.44 D. 3.12
12. One of King Hero’s crowns was found to have weight 13 N in air. What is its specific gravity of Archimedes found it weighing 11.8 N in water?
A. 10.83 B. 11.23 C. 12.43 D. 14.72
13. A cylindrical wooden block of height 3 m and mass 80 kg, floats vertically in water. If the specific gravity is 0.8, how much will it be depressed when a body of
mass 10 kg is place on its upper surface?
A. 0.45 m B. 0.40 m C. 0.35 m D. 0.30 m
14. A hollow plastic sphere is held below the surface of a freshwater lake by a cable anchored to the bottom of the lake. The sphere has a volume of 0.300 m3
and the tension on the cable is 900 N. Calculate the mass of the sphere.
A. 302.45 kg B. 435.25 kg C. 208.25 kg D. 307.35 kg
14. An ore sample weighs 15 N in air. When the sample is suspended by light chord and totally immersed in water, the tension the chord is 10.80 N. Find the total
volume of the sample.
A. 4E-4 m3 B. 5.6E-4 m3 C. 3.45E-4 m3 D. 4.28E-4 m3
15. A cube is 1.25 ft on each side float in water. If the specific gravity of the cube is 0.60, what is the submerged depth of the cube?
A. 0.55 ft B. 0.45 ft C. 25 ft D. 0.75 ft
16. A hose shoots water straight up for a distance of 2.5 m. And the opening of the hose has an area of 0.75 m 2. How much water come out in 1 hour?
A. 1.67 m3 B. 1.89 m3 C. 0.78 m3 D. 2.56 m3
17. Water at the temperature 80˚F flows through two separate pipes, 10 and 12 in. in diameter. If the mean velocity of flow in the 12-in pipe is 6 fps the velocity of
flow in the 10-in pipe will be:
A. 6.6 fps B. 6.8 fps C. 7 fps D. 7.2 fps
18. Oil (specific gravity of 0.80 and a viscosity of 0.000042 lbf-sec/ft2) at a temperature of 80˚F flows through two separate pipes 10 and 12-in in diameter. If the
velocity of flow in the 12-in pipe is 6 fps, the velocity of flow in the 10-in pipe will be:
A. 21 fps B. 21.5 fps C. 22.0 fps D. 22.5 fps
19. A pipe has a diameter of 4-inch at section AA, and a diameter of 2-inck at section BB. For an ideal fluid flow, the velocity is given as 1 ft/s at section AA. What
is the flow velocity at section BB?
A. 0.25 ft/s B. 0.5 ft/s C. 2 ft/s D. 4 ft/s
20. It is the ratio of the velocity of flow to the velocity of sound.

A. Mach number B. reynold’s number C. Stanton number D. peclet number
21. It is a dimensionless quantity which is proportional to the ratio of inertial force to viscous force in a flow system.
A. reynold’s number B. grashof number C. prandtl number D. nusselt number
22. Which of the following types of flow indicates that Mach number is equal to 1?
A. subsonic B. sonic C. supersonic D. hypersonic
23. A valve that controls flow by means of a disc or wedge-shaped dam sliding at right angles to the direction of flow an seating tightly in the valve body is a:
A. gate valve B. butterfly valve C. globe valve D. orifice
24. A dimensionless group that is used to analyse transport phenomena and shows the ratio of inertia forces to gravity forces.
A. Friction factor B. euler number C. troude number D. reynold’s number
25. Which of the following types of flow indicates that Mach number is equal to 1?
A. subsonic B. sonic C. supersonic D. hypersonic
26. A mechanical pressure gauge which indicates pressure by the amount of deflection under internal pressure of an oval tube bent in an arc of a circle and
closed at one end.
A. Diaphragm gauge B. Manometer C. Bourdon-type gauge D. compound gauges
27. Which of the following is a unit of kinematic viscosity?

A. centipoises B. pascal-second C. centistokes D. lb/ft-s
28. Which of the following is characterized by erratic, small, whirlpool-like circles?

A. steady flow B. laminar flow C. uniform flow D. turbulent flow
29. What do you call the power required to deliver a given quantity of fluid against a given head with no losses in the pump?
A. wheel power B. break power C. hydraulic power D. specific power
30. What is the ratio of the average velocity to maximum velocity for water flowing in a 1” schedule 40 pipe?
A. 0.8 B. 0.9 C. 0.6 D. 0.5
31. Water leaves a faucet with a downward velocity of 3 m/s. As the water falls below the faucet, it accelerates at acceleration g. The cross sectional area of the
water stream leaving the faucet s 1 cm2. What is the cross sectional area of the stream 0.50 m below the faucet?
A. 0.96 m2 B. 0.45 m2 C. 0.69 m2 D. 0.25 m2
32. The person responsible for coining the term ‘unit operation’ is:
A. Robert Pigford B. Gililand C. Arthur Little D. Treybal
33. If two metals lose the same weight in water, they must have the same:
A. density B. weight C. volume D. specific gravity
34. When pipe joints have to be broken from time to time for maintenance work, the connection that should be used is:
A. nipples B. couplings C. welded joints D. flanges
35. A simple pitot tube measures:

A. acoustical velocity B. superficial velocity C. mean linear velocity D. local velocity
36. Which of the following produces the maximum pressure difference for transportation of gasses?
A. vacuum pumps B. blowers C. fans D. compressors
37. A device for increasing the velocity of a fluid in a steady flow is a:

A. nozzle B. vent C. orifice D. venturi
--------------------------------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS--------------------------------------------------------------------
FLOW OF FLUIDS 2
Hydraulic Radius
1. What is the hydraulic mean diameter of the annular space between a 40 mm and a 50 mm tube?
A. 45mm B. 35 mm C. 20 mm D. 10 mm
Energy Balance
2. Steam at 200 psia and 600°F (state 1) enters a turbine through a standard 3-in pipeline with a velociy of 10 ft/s. The exhaust from the turbine was carried
through a standard 10-in pipeline and is at 4 psia and 160°F (state 2). Data : H1 = 1321.4 BTU/lb , V1 = 3. 059 ft3/lb , H2 = 1129.3 BTU/lb , V2 = 92. 15 ft3/lb.
What is the power output of the turbine in Hp, assuming no heat losses.
A. 40.2 B. 43.1 C. 45.6 D. 47.5
3. A nozzle expands air isentropically from 400 C and 2 Mpa to the atmosphere at 80 kPa. If the inlet velocity is small. What ex it velocity, in m/s can be expected?
A. 500 B.600 C. 900 D. 1200
Frictional Resistance in Turbulent Flow

4. Water flow through an annular channel at a rate of 25 gpm. The channel is made of 1/2 and 1 1/4 - in schedule 40 pipes. Calculate ΔP through an annular
channel length 20 ft, assuming ε/D = 0.0014; μ = 0.9 cP p = 62.4lb/ft3 .
A. 5.91 psl B. 7.65 psl C. 9.08 psl D. 11.20 psl
Frictional Resistance in Laminar Flow

5. One method of determining the radius of a capillary tube is to measure the rate of flow of a viscous fluid through a tube. Given the following:
Length of capillary = 50.2 cm
Kinematic viscosity of fluid = 0.0000403 m2 /s
Density of fluid = 955 kg/m3
Pressure drop across the horizontal tube = 4.77 atm
Mass rate flow through tube = 0.003 kg/s
The radius of the capillary in mm is
A. 0.18 B. 0.45 C. 0.13 D. 0.75
Pumps, Turbine & Compressors

6. The pressure drop across a turbine is 30 psl. The flow rate is 60 gallons per minute. Calculate the power output of the turbine.
A. 0.41 Hp B. 1.05 Hp C. 2.54 Hp D. 6.30 Hp
7. A pump is pumping 50 gal/min of water from a pressure of 30 psia. The changes in elevation and velocity are negligible. The motor that drives the
pump supplies 2.80 Hp. What is the efficiency of the pump?
A. 0.62 B. 0.68 C. 0.70 D. 0.73
8. The increase in power requirement of a centrifugal pump when the speed is increased by 20% is approximately.
A. 100% B. 73% C. 44% D. 14.5%
9. Steam enters an adiabatic turbine at 10 MPa and 500 deg C at a rate of 3 kg/s and leaves at 0.1 MPa. If the power output of the turbine is 2 MW,
determine the turbine efficiency.
A. 0.2348 B. 0.3216 C. 0.6784 D. 0.7652
Flow meters
10. A pitot tube is inserted at the center of an 8-inch nominal pipe schedule 40 (I.D. = 7.98 in.) carrying water at a rate of 1600 gpm. The maximum velocity
in the pipe in ft/s is
A. 0.17 B. 10.26 C. 20.54 D. 2.54
11. Find the diameter of a square edged orifice used to measure a 150-gpm water flow at 60°F in a 4-inch schedule 40 pipe with a pressure differential of 3
psi.
A. 0.64 in B. 0.95 in C. 1.12 in D. 1.40 in
12. Water flow at the rate of 300 gpm through a venturi which has a diameter of 3 inch at the inlet and a diameter of 1 1/2 inch at the throat. If Q=0, W=0,
and ΔU=0, what is the pressure drop between the inlet and the throat? Apply the steady flow energy equation.
DAILY TEST
1. A machine or device used for moving incompressible fluid is commonly known as:
A. compressor B. motor C. pump D. turbine
2. What do you call the input power delivered by the motor to the pump?
A. nameplate power B. brake horsepower C. hydraulic power D. effective power
3. A device in which kinetic energy of one fluid (primary fluid) is used to pump another fluid (secondary fluid).
A. pumps B. compressors C. ejectors D. nozzle
4. Point velocities can be measured using a:

A. venturi meter B. orifice meter C. pitot tube D. rota meter
5. A rectangular duct 4 ft by 1.5 ft in cross section carries conditioned air. In determining the pressure drop through the duct, the equivalent diameter in feet, may
be used in this case is:
A. 4 B. 2.18 C. 1.5 D. 2.75
6. Water flows through a horizontal coil heated by steam condensing on the outside. If the inlet pressure and temperature are 2 atm and 160ºF (state 1) and at the
exit 1 atm and 220ºF (state 2), calculate the heat added to the coil per pound mass of water. The entering velocity is 5 ft/s, and the leaving, 500 ft/s.
Data: H1=127.9 BTU/lb, H2=1154.4 BTU/lb
A. 1031 BTU/lb B. 1042 BTU/lb C. 1048 BTU/lb D. 1052 BTU/lb
7. Water at 20ºC is flowing in a pipe of radius 1.0 cm. The viscosity of water at 20ºC is 1.005 centipoise. If the flow speed at the center is 0.200 m/s and the flow is
laminar, find the pressure drop along a 5 m section pipe.
A. 20.4 Pa B. 40.2 Pa C. 13.4 Pa D. 45.8 Pa
8. A pump operating at 1750 rpm delivering 500 gal/min against a total head of 150 ft. Changes in the piping system have increased the total head to 360 ft. at what
rpm should the pump be operated to achieve this new head at the same efficiency?
A. 2730 rpm B. 2740 rpm C. 2711 rpm D. 2600 rpm
9. What is the differential reading on a pitot tube inserted at the centreline of an 8-inch ID pipe carrying 1200 gpm of water? The av erage velocity is 80% of that at
the center of the pipe.
A. 1.41 ft-H2O B. 2.60 ft-H2O C. 3.20 ft-H2O D. 3.75 ft-H2O
10. A venturi meter has water flowing through it. The pressure difference is 1 psi. The diameter at point 1 is 1 ft, and that at point 2 is 0.5 ft. What is the volumetric
flow rate through this meter?
A. 0.030 m3/s B. 0.040 m3/s C. 0.060 m3/s D. 0.070 m3/s
BRINGHOME EXAM
“Whether you think that you can, or that you can’t, you are usually right.”
-Henry Ford (1863-1947)
1. A pipe of internal diameter 6 units carries water with a depth of 2 units under the influence of gravity. Calculate the hydraulic radius.
A. 1.12 B. 2.12 C. 3.12 D. 3.21
2. Water enters a boiler at 18.33ºC and 137.9 kPa through a pipe at an average velocity of 1.52 m/s. Exit steam at a height of 15.2 m above the liquid inlet leaves
at 137.9 kPA, 148.9ºC and 9.14 m/s in the outlet line. At steady state, how much heat must be added per kilogram of steam? The flow in the two pipes are
turbulent.
A. 2.69E6 J B. 3.21E8 J C. 5.12E7 J D. 7.0E5 J
3. Air at 1 atm and 68ºF is flowing in a long, rectangular duct whose cross section is 1 ft by 0.5 ft, with average velocity of 40 ft/s. The roughness of the duct is
0.00006 in. What is the pressure drop in Pa per meter of length?
A. 2.8 B. 6.8 D. 10.2 E. 14.1
4. What pressure drop (in mmHg) in the blood as it passes through a capillary 1 mm long and 2 micrometer in radius if the speed of the blood through the center
of the capillary is 0.66 mm/s, considering that the viscosity of the blood is 4E-3 Pa-s?
5. An air turbine operates between a pressure of 60 psia and 15 psia, and receives 1 lb per sec of air at a temperature of 1200ºF. For an ideal turbine, the
horsepower developed is:
A. 138.8 B. 188.5 C. 318.3 D. 381.5
6. Find the volume flow rate in L/s if the power developed under a head of 320 m is 10,500 kW and the hydraulic efficiency is 85% .
A. 3953 B. 3293 C. 3271 D. 3935
7. A centrifugal pump with an efficiency of 65% is driven by an electric motor with an efficiency of 90% . The pump delivers 250 kg of water per minute against a
total head of 25 m. How much power (in kW) is required by the motor?
A. 1.57 B. 1.74 C. 15.7 D. 11.4
8. Pump at 600 rpm is increased to 1200 rpm. What is the break horsepower (BHS) if the BHP at 600 rpm is 1.5 Hp?
A. 4 Hp B. 6 Hp C. 8 Hp D. 12 Hp
9. A pitot tube is used to measure the mean velocity in a pipe where water is flowing. A manometer containing mercury is connected to the pitot tube and
indicates a height of 150 mm. The specific weights of the water and mercury are 9810 N/m 3 and 133,400 N/m3 ., respectively. Calculate the velocity of the water.
A. 6.9 m/s B. 12.87 m/s C. 18.42 m/s D. 24.90 m/s
10. You wish to meter the process stream passing through a 6-inch schedule 40 pipeline and decide to insert a sharp-edged orifice which gives an 8-inch mercury
differential at 150 gpm flow. The liquid is at 60ºF, has a specific gravity of 1.2 and a viscosity of 1.1 centistokes. Calculate the size of the orifice.
A. 1.5 in B. 2.2 in C. 2.8 in D. 3.1 in
11. A venturi meter having a throat diameter of 38.9 mm is installed in a line having an inside diameter of 102.3 mm. It meters water having a density of 999
kg/m3 . The measured pressure drop across the venturi is 156.9 kPa. The venturi coefficient Cv is 0.98. Calculate the flow rate in gal/min.
A. 0.02 B. 330 C. 245 D. 125
12. Water flows in an orifice of 25 mm diameter situated in a 75 mm diameter pipe at the rate of 300 cu.cm/s. What will be the difference in level on a water
manometer connected across the meter?
A. 43 mm B. 51 mm C. 48 mm D. 57 mm
13. A pump produces a head of 30 ft. The volumetric flow rate is 10 gallons per minute. The fluid pumped is oil with a specific gravity of 0.83. How much energy
does the pump consume in one hour?
A. 8.7 kJ B. 17.2 kJ C. 168.9 kJ D. 203.6 kJ
14. A cast iron pipe of equilateral triangular cross-section with side length 20.75 inch has water flowing through it. The flow rate is 600 gpm, and the friction factor
for the pipe is 0.017. What is the pressure drop in lbf/ft2 in 100 foot section?
A.24.3 B. 48.7 C. 178.5 D. 309.7
15. 100 gal/min of water is cascading down a height of 100 feet from a reservoir. If half of the energy is converted to electrical energy, how many 100-watts bulb
can be lighted in 30 seconds?
A. 84 B. 86 C. 94 D. 90
16. A steam turbine is operating under the following conditions: steam to turbine at 900ºF and 120 psia, velocity=250 ft/s; steam exiting turbine at 700ºF and 1
atm; velocity=100 ft/s. Calculate the rate at which work can be obtained from this turbine if the steam flow is 25000 lb/h and the turbine operation is steady state
adiabatic.
A. 875.2 Hp B. 949.4 Hp C. 1020.3 Hp D. 1120.5 Hp
17. Water is pumped up a hillside from a reservoir. The pump discharges water at the rate of 2 m/s and pressure 1000 kPa. Disregarding friction, what is the
maximum elevation of the reservoir’s water surface?
A. 55.1 m B. 83.2 m C.102.1 m D. 125.2 m
18. 1.8 kg/s of steam enter a turbine with a v elocity of 20 m/s and enthalpy of 3140 kJ/kg. The steam enters the condenser after being expanded to 2500 kJ/kg at
38 m/s. There is a total heat loss from the turbine casing of 53 kJ/s. Potential energy changes are insignificant. What power is generated at the turbine shaft?
A. 875 kW B. 1098 kW C. 1515 kW D. 1480 kW
19. Calculate the pressure drop when 3 kg/s of sulphuric acid flows through 60 m of 25 mm pipe. (Density=1840 kg/m 3, viscosity=0.025 Pa-s)
20. Oil of viscosity 10E-3 Pa-s and specific gravity 0.90, flows through 60 m of 100 mm diameter pipe and the pressure drop is 13.8 kPa. What will be the
pressure drop for a second oil of viscosity 30E-3 Pa-s and specific gravity of 0.95 flowing at the same rate through the pipe? Assume the pipe wall to be smooth.
21. Oil of viscosity 10E-3 Pa-s and density 900 kg/m3 is flowing through a 500 mm diameter pipe 10 km long. The pressure difference between the two ends of
the pipe is 1E6 Pa. What will be the pressure drop at the same flow rate if it I necessary to replace the pipe by only 300 mm in diameter? Assume the pipe
surface to be smooth.
A. 4.2E9 Pa B. 1.19E7 Pa C. 6.5E5 Pa D. 9.4E11 Pa
23. Oil of density 950 kg/m3 and viscosity of 1E-2 Pa-s is to be pumped 10 km through the pipeline and the pressure drop must not exceed 2E5 Pa. What is the
minimum diameter of the pipe will be suitable, if a flow rate of 50 tonne/h is to be maintained? Assume that the pipe w all is smooth.
A. 0.025 m B. 0.175 m C. 0.855 m D. 0.008 m
{24-25} A pipeline 0.5 m diameter and 1200 m long is used for transporting an oil of density 950 kg/m 3 and viscosity of 0.01 Pa-s at 0.4 m3/s.
24. If the roughness of the pipe surface is 0.5 mm, what is the pressure drop?
A. 1E3 Pa B. 1E4 Pa C. 1E5 Pa D. 1.6 Pa
24. With the same pressure drop, what will be the flow rate of a second oil of density 980 Kg/m 3 and of viscosity 0.02 Pa-s?
A. 0.08 m3/s B. 2.44 m3/s C. 7.88 m3 /s D. 0.34 m3 /s
25. A gas of molecular weight 44 kg/kmol, temperature 373 K and pressure of 202.6 kPa is flowing in a duct. A pitot tube is located at the center of the duct and is
connected to a differential manometer containing water. If the differential reading is 38.1 mm water, what is the velocity at the center of the duct? The volume
occupied by 1 kmol at 373 K and 101.3 kPa is 22.4 m3.
A. 10.2 m/s B. 16.1 m/s C. 22.8 m/s D. 28.8 m/s
{26-27} Water flowing at 1.5 L/s in a 50 mm diameter pipe is metered by means of a simple orifice of diameter 25 mm. If the coefficient of discharge of the meter
is 0.62:
26. What will be the reading on a mercury -under-water manometer connected to the meter?
A. 40 mm B. 72 mm C. 92 mm D. 142 mm
27. What is the Reynolds number for the flow in the pipe?
A. 3.8 B. 380 C. 3800 D. 38000
28. What size of orifice would give a pressure difference of 0.3 m water gauge for the flow of a petroleum product of density 900 kg/m3 ant 0.05 m3/s in a 150 mm
diameter pipe?
A. 0.14 m B. 0.005 m C. 0.88 m D. 0.0002 m
29. A pipe (internal diameter=6 units) carries water with a depth of 2 units flowing under the influence of gravity. Calculate the hydraulic radius.
A. 1.12 units B. 1.38 units C. 2.57 units D. 3 units
30. Calculate the equivalent diameter of a rectangular conduit 0.6 m wide and 0.3 m high.
A. 0.4 m B. 0.45 m C. 0.5 m D. 0.55 m
31. A 5-kW motor is used to drive an air compressor. Determine the compressor work if the compressor efficiency is 72% .
A. 3.6 kW B. 2.5 kW C. 3.9 kW D. 4.3 kW
32. What horsepower is supplied to air moving at 20 fpm through a 2x3 ft duct under a pressure of 2-in water gage?
A. 0.786 Hp B. 0.741 Hp C. 0.642 Hp D. 0.0567 Hp
33. A fan running at 2000 rpm delivers 16000 cfm against 3 in static pressure thereby consuming 15 break-horsepower. If the rpm is increased to 2200 rpm so
that the rpm ratio is 1.1:1, what is the new cfm?
A. 17500 B. 16500 C. 17600 D. 16500
34. A 0.70 m vane axial fan is running at 2000 rpm delivers 7.5 m3/s against 0.8 m static pressure thereby consuming 12 brake-kilowatts. If the fan wheel
diameter is increased from 0.70 to 0.76 m, so that the diameter ratio is 1.10:1, what is the new static pressure?
A. 0.10 m B. 0.097 m C. 0.13 m D. 0.15 m
--------------------------------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS--------------------------------------------------------------------
SNAP EXAM
INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding the letter
of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use no. 2 pencil only.
1. Atomic mass of boron is:

A. 10.82 u B. 12.4 u
2. Ten raise to the negative 18 is equivalent to the prefix:

A. atto B. pico C. femto D. nano
3. Ten raise to the positive 18 is equivalent to the prefix:

A. giga B. tera C. peta D. exa
4. 1 bbl/hr is equivalent to ____ L/s.

A. 3.277E-4 B. 4.416E-5 C. 2.831E-2 D. 4.416E-2
5. 1 Btu/hr-ft-F is equivalent to ____ W/m-K

A. 418.4 B. 6.23 C. 1.73 D. 1.162
6. 1 cP is equivalent to ____ Pa-s

A. 0.01 B. 0.001 C. 0.0001 D. 0.00001
7. 1 fathom is equivalent to ____ meter.

A. 1.8288 B. 9.652 C. 9.649 D. 2.1908
8. Average density of talcum powder in pound per cubic foot:

A. 10-20 B. 20-40 C. 40-60 D. 60-70
9. The average bulk density of manganese sulphate in lb/ft3 is:

A. 33 B. 45 C. 60 D. 70
10. The average bulk density of cryolite in lb/ft3 is:

A. 110 B. 100 C. 90 D. 80
11. The average bulk density of fluorspar in lb/ft3 is:

A. 82 B. 92 C. 100 D. 108
12. Density of titanium in g/mL is:

A. 3.2 B. 4.1 C. 4.5 D. 5.1
13. Average density of limestone in lb/ft3 is:

A. 147 B. 156 C. 165 D. 132
14. Density of dolomite:

A. 2.9 g/cc B. 1.2 g/cc C. 1.8 g/cc D. 2.4 g/cc
15. Density of 90% aqueous solution of sulphuric acid at 25˚C in g/mL is:
A. 1.8144 B. 1.8091 C. 1.8198 D. 1.8038
16. Density of 40% aqueous solution of acetic acid at 25˚C in g/mL is:
A. 1.0621 B. 1.0557 C. 1.0488 D. 1.0450
17. Density of glycerol at 50˚C:

18. Density of toluene at 20˚C:

19. Density of 50% sodium hydroxide aqueous solution at 40˚C:

A. 1.4967 g/cc B. 1.5109 g/cc C. 1.5253 g/cc D. 1.5400
20. Viscosity of toluene at 60˚C in Pa-s is:

A. 0.00038 B. 0.000062 C. 0.078 D. 0.00240
21. The viscosity of 40% by weight sucrose in water at 20˚C in centipoises is:
A. 5.206 B. 6.223 B. 7.499 D. 56.7
22. Boiling point oxygen is:

A. -183˚C B. 112 ˚C C. -251 ˚C D. -218.4 ˚C
23. Boiling point of benzene.

A. 76.1 ˚C B. 80.1 ˚C C. 83.8 ˚C D. 89.0 ˚C
24. Normal boiling point of hydrogen peroxide in C is:

A. 100 B. 120 C. 158 D. 94
25. Vapor pressure of phenol at 110˚C in mmHg is :

A. 10 B. 20 C. 40 D. 60
26. Vapor pressure of 2-butyne at 27.2˚C.

A. 760 mmHg B. 400 mmHg C. 500 mmHg D. 650
27. Pressure of saturated bromine at 300 K in bar

A. 0.24 B. 0.310 C. 0.680 D. 1.330
28. Critical temperature of cyanogens:

A. 110˚C B. 128 ˚C C. 118 ˚C D. 122 ˚C
29. Critical pressure of nitrogen

A. 65 atm B. 33.5 atm C. 100 atm D. 62.5
30. Compressibility factor for oxygen at 140˚K and 80 bar

A. 0.1940 B. 0.2969 C. 0.2527 D. 0.3099
31. Compressibility factor for oxygen at 40 bars and 300 K is:

A. 0.9771 B. 0.9676 C. 0.9884 D. 0.9477
32. Heat of vaporization of acetone at 100˚C in cal/g is:

A. 134.74 B. 128.05 C. 118.26 D. 112.76
33. Heat of combustion of gaseous n-octane at 25˚C if water is in the vapour phase in Btu/lb is:
A. 19256 B. 19100 C. 10705 D. 1064.11
34. Heat of vaporization of KOH in calorie per mole.

A. 30850 B. 40200 C. 42300 D. 35120
35. Higher heating value of the combustion of ethane in calorie per gram is:
A. 12399.2 B. 13265.1 C. 22304 D. 272.820
36. Higher heating value of the heat of combustion of isobutene in calorie per gram is:
A. 11516.7 B. 10766.7 C. 10755.1 D. 11533.4
37. It is a linear polymer which may be reversibly softened by heating and solidified by cooling.
A. thermosets B. thermoplastics C. polymer D. copolymer
38. Which of the following is used a light bulb filler gas?

A. xenon B. neon C. argon D. krypton
39. It is produced by the reaction of calcium carbide with water.

A. sulphur dioxide B. methylene C. ethylene D. acetylene
40. An amorphous carbon that has been treated with steam and heated until it has a very great affinity for adsorbing many materials
A. lampblack B. carbon black C. activated carbon D. graphite
41. It is equal to the gross annual sale divided by the fixed-capital investment.
A. turnover ratio B. capital ratio C. investment ratio D. acid ratio
42. A replica of a commercial scale plant

A. lab scale B. bench scale C. pilot scale D. small scale
43. The flow rate of water through a cast iron pipe is 5000 gallons per minute. The diameter of the pipe is 1 ft. and the coefficient of friction is f=0.0173. What is
the pressure drop over a 100 foot length of the pipe?
A. 21.078 lbf/ft2 B. 23.78 lbf/ft2 C. 337.26 lbf/ft2 D. 488.65 lbf/ft2
44. A cast iron pipe of equilateral triangular cross section with side length of 20.75 inch has water flowing through it. The flow rate is 6000 gallons per minute, and
the friction factor of the pipe is f=0.017. What is the pressure drop in a 100 foot section?
A. 24.3 lbf/ft2 B. 48.7 lbf/ft2 C. 178.5 lbf/ft2 D. 309.7 lbf/ft2
45. What is the enthalpy of saturated steam at 30 psia?

A. 218.93 BTU/lb B. 1164.1 BTU/lb C. 1087.9 BTU/lb D. 231.8 BTU/lb
46. What is the enthalpy of saturated liquid water at 48.675 kPag?

47. What is the potential energy (in ft-lbf) of a 10-lb mass 6 ft above a certain datum plane anywhere on earth? The variation of gravity over the entire earth’s
surface rarely exceeds one-fourth of one percent, so that the acceleration due to gravity, within the limits of engineering accuracy, is 32.17 ft/s 2 anywhere on
earth.
A. 60 B. 65 C. 70 D. 75
48. What is the pressure (in lbf/ft2) exerted at the bottom of a 10-ft column of water (at 60˚F) anywhere on earth by virtue only of the earth attraction on the water
(not including the pressure exerted by the earth’s atmosphere)?
A. 648 B. 642 C. 632 D. 624
49. What is the kinetic energy (in ft-lbf) of a 6-lb mass at the instant when it is moving with a constant velocity of 10 ft/s?
A. 8.78 B. 9.12 C. 9.33 D. 9.80
50. Compute the mass of the earth knowing that its surface, 6370 km from the center, 1 1-lb mass will be attracted by it with a force of 1 lb.
A. 13.1E24 lb B. 13.1E25 lb C. 10.8E24 D. 10.8E25
51. The elements present in complete fertilizers are:

A. C, H, O B. Ca, Mg, S C. C, H, N D. N, P, K
52. Lanolin is:

A. a hydrocarbon oil B. a hydrocarbon wax C. fat from sheep’s wool D. a plant wax
53. What is the pH of natural rain water?

A. 5.6-6.2 B. 7.0-8.3 C. 4.2-4.4 D. 2.2-2.4
54. When carbon dioxide is dissolved in water, it will form:

A. carbonic acid B. acetic acid C. nitric acid D. CaCO3
55. A control structure with two feedback controllers with the output of the primary controller changing the set point of the secondary controller whose output goes
to the final controller.
A. feedforward control B. ratio control C. cascade control D. override control
56. Percent argon in air:

A. 0.934% by volume B. 0.934% by weight C. 0.0001139% by volume D. 0.0001139% by weight
57. A vertical side of a saltwater tank contains a round viewing window 60 cm in diameter with its center five meters below the liquid surface. If the specific weight
of the saltwater is 10 kN/m3, find the force of the water on the window.
A. 14.14 kN B. 12.25 kN C. 11.50 kN D. 10.78 kN
58. What is the enthalpy of the superheated steam at 20 psia and 400˚F?
A. 1239.2 kJ/kg B. 430 BTU/lb C. 2876 kJ/kg D. 540 kJ/kg
59. The inside diameter of a 2-inch schedule 40 steel pipe is:

A. 2.245 in B. 2.000 in C. 2.067 in D. 1.939 in
60. The outside diameter of a ½-inch schedule 10 steel pipe is:

A. 0.840 in B. 0.5 in C. 1.050 in D. 0.546 in
61. It is a general method of process control that is especially well-suited for difficult, multi input, multi output (MIMO) control problems where there are significant
interactions between the manipulated inputs and the controlled outputs.
A. adaptive control B. fuzzy logic control C. cascade control D. model predictive control
62. Magnesium is obtained from:

A. sea shells B. corals C. seawater D. sand
63. The union of the non-volatile inorganic oxides resulting from the decomposition and fusion of alkali and alkaline earth compounds, sand, and other
constituents, ending in a product with random atomic structure. It is a rigid, undercooled liquid having no definite melting point and sufficiently high viscosity to
prevent crystallization.
A. ceramics B. glass C. cement D. refractories
64. Crushed glass from imperfect articles, trims and other waste glass.
A. mullite B. pot furnaces C. borax D. cullet
65. It is a melting process in which the materials formed in the course of chemical reactions separate into two or more layers.
A. smelting B. roasting C. calcinations D. refining
66. Nonmetal oxide + water →?

A. acid B base C. salt D. carbon dioxide
67. The molecular geometry of SO 3 is:

A. trigonal planar B. trigonal pyramidal C. trigonal bipyramidal D. square planar
68. The substance chiefly responsible for the bright orange color of carrots.
A. vitamin K B. ascorbic acid . C. β-carotene D. protein
69. In the Bronsted system, an acid is defined as:

A. an electron pair acceptor C. an electron pair donor
B. a hydroxide ion donor D. a proton donor
70. The properties of a real gas are most likely to deviate from those properties predicted for an ideal gas when:
A. the pressure is low
B. the temperature is high
C. the pressure is high and the temperature is low
D. the pressure is low and the temperature is high
71. What usually happen to the surrounding when water vapour condenses?
A. it warms the surrounding B. the surrounding temperature decreases
C. it neither warm nor cold the surrounding C. the surrounding will be dehumidified
72. Which of the following is the reason why one gram of steam at 100˚C causes more serious burn that 1 gram of water at 100˚C?
A. steam is less dense than boiling water
B. the steam has the highest specific heat
C. steam contains more internal energy
D. steam is everywhere thus it strikes greater force
73. Which of the following would have the lowest vapour pressure at 0˚C?
A. CH3OH B. CH$ C. H2O D. CH2Cl2
74. The reason that some insects can walk on water is due to:
A. surface tension B. adhesive forces C. vaporization D capillary action
75. Which of the following plastics is used in making Styrofoam, disposable cups, forks, spoons and food containers?
A. polyethylene B. polyvinyl chloride C. polypropylene D. polystyrene
76. The color of bromine is:

A. white B. violet C. black D. brown reddish
77. Which of the following generates the most ions in dilute aqueous solution?
A. C2H5OH B. MgCl2 C. NaCl D. NaHSO4
78. Which of the following is a weak base?

A. NAOH B. Ca(OH)2 C. NH3 D. RbOH
79. A diver with a flashlight shines a light beam upward from the bottom of a pool at an angle of incidence of 40˚. The light leaves the surface of the pool at an
angle of refraction of 60˚. The index of refraction of water is:
A. 0.67 B. 0.74 C. 1.3 D. 1.5
80. The amount of money deposited 50 years ago at 8% interest that would now provide a perpetual payment of P10,000 per year is nearest to: ____.
A. P3,000 B. P8,000 C. P50,000 D. P70,000
81. A piece of property is purchased for P10,000 yields P1,000 yearly profit. If the property is sold after five years, the minimum price to breakeven, with interest
at 6% , is closest to:
A. P5,000 B. P6,500 C. P7,700 D. 8,300
82. Susan and Peter headed for the Pizza shop. Terry joined them, but said she wasn’t really hungry. They ordered one large pizza cut into 8 slices. Peter had
one more than twice as many slices of pizza as Susan. Terry had 5 less than 3 times as many slices as Susan. How many slices did Susan have?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 6
83. Ann is eleven times as old as Beth. In a certain number of years, Ann will be 5 times as old as Beth and five years after that, Ann will be three times as old as
Beth. How old is Ann now?
A. 20 B. 21 C. 22 D. 23
84. Juan after working on a job for 2 hours was helped by Jose and it took 3 hours more for them working together to finish the job. Had they work together from
the start, it would require 4 hours to finish the job. How long would it take Juan to finish the job alone?
A. 6 hrs B. 7 hrs C. 8 hrs D. 9 hrs
85. Find the common ratio of a geometric progression whose first term is one and for which the sum of the first six terms is 28 times the sum of the first three
terms.
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
86. A coin is tossed 6 times. What are the odds in favour of getting at least 3 heads?
A. 18:11 B. 19:11 C. 20:11 D. 21:11
87. How long will it take to rotate 360˚ if an object is moving at a constant angular velocity of 250 rpm?
A. 0.15 s B. 0.24 s C. 0.29 D. 0.35 s
88. A projectile is launched upward from level ground at an angle of 60˚ with the horizontal. It has an initial velocity of 45 m/s. how long will it take before the
projectile hits the ground?
A. 4.1 s B. 5.8 s C. 7.94 s D. 9.53 s
89. Find the angular acceleration of a rotating shaft if its angular speed increases from 10 rpm to 200 rpm in 30 seconds.
A. 0.66 rad/s2 B. 0.74 rad/s2 C. 0.78 rad/s2 D. 0.81 rad/s2
90. How long will it take to rotate 360˚ if an object is moving at a constant angular speed of 250 rpm??
A. 0.15 s B. 0.24 s C. 0.29 s D. 0.35 s
--------------------------------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS--------------------------------------------------------------------
CHEMICAL REACTION ENGINEERING 1
Rate Laws
1
1. The overall order for the elementary reaction 𝐴 + 2𝐵 → 𝐶 is:
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
2. What is the reaction rate constant, K, for third order reaction?

A. (L/mol)s B. (L/mol)s2 C.(L/mol)2 s D. (L/mol)3 s
3. In which of the following cases does the reaction go farthest to completion?

A. k=100 B. k=0.01 C. k=10 D. k=1
4. A certain reaction is second order in A. When C A is 0.03 mol/L, the rate is 3.0x10-3 mol/L-s. The rate when C A is 0.015 mol/L in mol/L-s is:
A. 7.5E-4 B. 1.5E-3 C. 0.21 D. 3.33
.
5. Consider the reaction: 4𝑁𝐻3 + 7𝑂2 → 4 𝑁𝑂2 + 6𝐻2𝑂. At a certain instant the initial rate of the disappearance of the oxygen gas is X. What is the value of
the appearance of water at the same instant?
A. 1.2X B. 1.1X C. 0.86X D. 0.58X
Arrhenius Equation
6. The activation energy of the reaction can be obtained from the slope of:
A. log k vs. 1/T B. k vs. log T C. log k vs. T D. k vs. log (1/T)
7. The pyrolysis of ethane proceeds with an activation energy of about 75,000 cal/mol. How much faster is the decomposition at 650˚C than at 500˚C?
A. 1400 times faster B. 2410 times faster C. 2165 times longer D. 2761 times longer
8. The decomposition of hydroxylamine, NH2OH, in the presence of oxygen follows the rate law:
−𝑑[𝑁𝐻2𝑂𝐻]
= 𝑘 𝑜𝑏𝑠[𝑁𝐻2𝑂𝐻][𝑂2];
𝑑𝑡
where 𝑘 𝑜𝑏𝑠 = 0.237E-4 L/mol-s at 0˚C and 𝑘 𝑜𝑏𝑠 =2.64E-4 L/mol-s at 25˚C. Calculate the activation energy in kilojoules per mol.
A. 26.0 B. 34.2 C. 50.5 D. 65.2
9. From the data in problem 8, calculate the Arrhenius constant in L/mol-s.

A. 2.45E6 B. 2.45E7 C. 7.08E6 D. 7.08E7
Batch Reactors
10. Let c be the concentration of a reagent. For a first order, what would a plot of ln c versus t yield?
A. a straight line whose slope is –k
B. a straight line whose slope is k
C. a horizontal line with an intercept of the ln c axis at ln c=k
D. a logarithmic curve approaching a value of k
.
11. If the reaction 2𝐴 → 𝐵 + 𝐶 is second order, which of the following lines would give a straight plot?
A. C a2 vs. time B. 1/C A vs. time C. log C A vs. time D. C A vs. time
12. What is the order of the reaction wherein the half-life increases as the initial concentration increases?
A. 1st order B. zero order C. 2nd order D. 3rd order
13. A certain reaction is first order in A. The specific rate constant is 3E-3/s. The half-life is:
A. 2.1E-3 s B. 100 s C. 231 s C. 768 s
14. A certain reaction is first order in A. In 30 min, A decreases from 0.55 to 0.15 mol/L. The time it will take for A to decrease from 0.35 to 0.15 mol/L is:
A. 10.4 min B. 19.1 s C. 19.6 s D. 45.1 s
15. A second-order reaction involving reactants initially present at 0.10 mol/li is found to be 20% complete in 40 minutes when the reaction temperature is 25˚C
and 40% complete in 35 min when the reaction temperature is 25˚C. The frequency factor for this reaction is:
A. 1.12x105 li/mol-min B. 1.12x106 li/mol-min C. 1.12x105 cal/gmol D. 9.0x104 li/mole-min
.
16. A gas decomposes at 900˚C according to the reaction 2𝐴 → 2𝑅 + 𝑆 with a rate constant of 1000 cm3/gmol-s. Using pure A, it will take to react 80% of A in a
variable volume batch reactor at 900˚C and 1 atm in minutes is:
A. 8.33 B. 3.83 C. 9.33 D. 7.43
.
17. When the first order homogenous reaction (gas phase) 𝐴 → 2.5𝑅 is carried out in an isothermal batch reactor at 2 atm with 20% inerts present, the volume
increases by 60% in 20 min. When the reaction is carried out in a constant volume reactor, the time required for the pressure to reach 8 atm if the initial pressure
is 5 atm, 2 atm of which is consists of inerts (in mins) is:
A. 41.3 B. 31.75 C. 37.15 D. 43.1
DAILY TEST
1. The rate of formation of B in terms of rA (where rA=-kcAcB2) is:
A. 1/2 rA B. rA C. 2 rA D. -1/2 rA
.
2. Consider the reaction: 2𝐻2 + 𝑂2 → 2𝐻2𝑂. What is the ratio of the initial rate of appearance of water to the initial rate of disappearance of oxygen?
A. 1:1 B. 2:1 C. 2:2 D. 3:2
3. A certain reaction has an activation energy of 125 kJ/mol. The rate constant is 0.033/s at 55˚C. The value of the specific rate constant at 100˚C is;
A. 0.00013/s B. 0.037/s C. 0.088/s D. 8.3/s
4. A certain reaction has a specific rate constant of 4.27E-3/s at 25˚C and 7.35E-2/s at 80˚C. The energy of activation is:
A. 5.44 kJ/mol B. 45.2 kJ/mol C. 104 kJ/mol D. 860 kJ/mol
5. Calculate the first order rate constant for the disappearance of A in the gas phase reaction A→1.6R if the volume of the reaction mixture starting with pure A
increases by 50% in 4 minutes. The total pressure of the system is constant at 1.2 atm and the temperature is 25˚.
A. 0.266/min B. 0.448 /min C. 0.852/min D. 1.008 /min
6. What is the rate constant k for the first order decomposition of N 2O 5(g) at 25˚C if at that temperature its half-life is 4.03E4 s?
A. 1.72E-5/s B. 1.72E-4/s C. 2.17E-5/s D. 2.17E-4/s
7. For the first order decomposition of N 2O5(g) at 25˚C if at that temperature its half-life is 4.03E4 s, what fraction of the N 2O5(g) molecules will not have reacted in
one day?
A. 0.226 b. 0.774 C. 0.462 D. 0.620
.
8. For the reaction 2𝐴 (𝑔) + 3𝐵(𝑔) → 𝐷(𝑔) + 2𝐸(𝑔) with rD= kcAcB2, the reaction is said to be:
A. non-homogenous B. elementary C. non-elementary D. consecutive
9. Arrhenius equation shows the variation of ________________ with temperature.

A. reaction rate B. Energy of activation C. Rate constant D. Frequency factor
10. In some reaction operation bypassing some amount of the reactants prevent wasteful processing. To determine the amount of the bypass, it is essential that a
material balance be taken:
A. inside the reactor C. at the feed
B. at over-all output and input materials D. around a point where mixing occurs
BRINGHOME EXAM
“Knowledge is of two kinds. We know a subject ourselves, or we know where we can find information upon it.”
-Samuel Johnson (1709-1784), British lexicographer and writer
1. A catalyst can:
A. shift the equilibrium reaction C. diminish the activation energy
B. increase the rate constant of forward reaction D. decrease the pressure
𝐾
2. The correct unit for the specific rate constant K for the reaction: 𝐴 → 𝐵 determine to be first order is:
A. square liter/square mol/min C. square liter/square mol/square min
B. mol/liter/min D. min-1

A. Reactions that proceed at a fast rate have low activation energy
B. Reactions that proceed at a slow rate have high activation energy
C. All collisions of molecules result to a chemical reaction
D. Generally, the rate of reaction increases with increase in temperature.
4. If the temperature of a chemical reaction is raised by 10˚C, the rate of reaction is increased by a factor of about:
A. 2 B. 4 C. 1.5 D. 3
5. A certain substance A is mixed with equal amounts of B and C. After 1000 sec., half of A has reacted. How much will be left unreacted after 2000 sec, if the
reaction is second order with respect is A?
A. 0.25 C AO B. 1/8 C AO C. 0.33 C AO D. 0
6. The dimerization of tetrafluoroethylene, C2F4, to cyclo-octafluorobutane, C4H8, occurs by a second order reaction, and at 450˚K its rate constant is 0.0448
L/mol-s. If the initial concentration of C2F4 is 0.0100 mol/L. What will its concentration be after 200 s?
A. 0.0085 mol/L B. 0.0025 mol/L C. 0.0055 mol/L D. 0.0075 mol/L
7. A radioactive material has a half-life of 68.3 min. What percentage of the original sample will remain after 3 hr?
A. 16.2% B. 12.7% C. 21.4% D. 83.7%
8. Liquid A decomposes by first order kinetic. In a batch reactor, 50% of A is decomposed in 5-minutes. How long would it take to reach 70% of the conversion?/
9. Nitrous oxide decomposed to oxygen and nitrogen according to a second order rate equation. The specific reaction rate constant in the forward reaction is 977
cc/mol-sec at 895˚C. Calculate the nitrous oxide remaining in mol/cc after 10 minutes if the rate of reverse reaction is negligible. The initial pressure of 1 atm.
A. 4.2E-5 B. 4.2E-6 C. 1.5E-5 D. 1.5E-6
10. The rate of reaction of pyridine (C5H5N) and methyl iodide (CH3I) in benzene solution is first order with respect to benzene and first order with respect to
methyl iodide. The second order rate constant is k=74.9 L/mol-s at 25˚C. If equal volumes of 0.10M pyridine and 0.1 M methyl iodide are mixed at 25˚C, how
many seconds later will the concentration of each be 0.0250 M?
A. 0.15 s B. 0.27 s C. 0.32 s D. 0.45 s
11. An experimental run made in a pilot-plant flow reactor, having an internal volume of 5 ft3, converted 50 per cent of a material A according to the homogenous
gas reaction 2A→R. The conditions are atmospheric pressure, 500˚C, and a feed rate of 1 lb-mol per hour, gas at standard conditions. For design purposes, it is
desired to find the volume of reactor required to treat 10,000 ft3 per hr of feed gases at 5 atm and 300˚C with 25% conversion. Assume the gases behave as
perfect gases, isothermal conditions for the reactor, and an activation energy of 30,000 cal per gram-mole for the homogenous reaction.
A. 4,960 ft3 B. 4,800 ft3 C. 4,765 ft3 D. 4,720 ft3
12. The autoclave process for hydrolysing monochlorbenzene to phenol at 1,500 psia and 350˚C in the presence of NAOH and CuCl is apparently a unimolecular
reaction with a velocity constant of 0.0098 per min. What reaction time is required to obtain a conversion of 99 per cent using a batch of 1,000 lb
monochlorbenzene?
13. A solution of bromine is stable indefinitely, but when iron nail is put into the solution, bromination of the benzene occurs fairly rapidly. What is the function of
the iron?
A. reactant B. inhibitor C. catalyst D. spectator
14. A reaction is known to be first order in A. A straight line will be obtained by plotting:
A. log C A versus time C. C A versus time
B. log C A versus reciprocal time D. C A versus time
15. It states that the rate of chemical reaction is proportional to the activity of the reactants.
A. Law of mass action B. Le Chatelier’s Principle C. Hess Law D. Second law of Thermodynamics
16. A mechanism of a reaction can sometimes be deduced from:

A. the temperature dependency of the rate C. the net equation
B. the rate law D. the activation energy
.
17. The rate for the reaction of 2𝐴 + 𝐵 → 2𝑃 is:
A. impossible to determine without experimental data C. k[A]2 [B]
B. [A] 2[B] D. second order with respect to A
.
18. For the reaction: 𝑁2𝑂4(𝑔) → 2𝑁𝑂2(𝑔) at 30˚C, k=5.1E6/s and the activation energy is 54.0 kJ/mol. The reaction is:
A. first order B. second order C. exothermic D. third order
19. The rate of a bimolecular reaction at 500 K is 10 times the rate at 400 K. Calculate the activation energy of this reaction by the Arrhenius law.
A. 9150 cal/mol B. 9010 cal/mol C. 8890 cal/mol D. 8707 cal/mol
20. A reaction rate is observed to triple as a result of raising the temperature from 0˚C to 20˚C. What is the activation energy of the reaction?
A. 3900 R B. 4400 R C. 4700 R D. 5100 R
21. A certain temperature dependent reaction proceeds 10 times faster at 500˚K than it does at 300˚K. How much faster will it react at 1000˚K than it does at
300˚K?
A. 10 B. 16 C. 41 D. 56
22. At 500 K the rate of bimolecular reaction is 10 times the rate at 400 K. Find E in cal, the activation energy for this reaction from Arrhenius Law.
A. 8150 B. 9150 C. 9550 D. 10150
23. Between 0 degC and 50 degC, the average activation energy of a certain reaction is 80 kJ/mol. How much faster will the reaction occur at 300 K than at 275
K?
A. 14.7 B. 18.5 C. 20.9 D. 22.4
24. A convenient rule of thumb is that the rate of re-action doubles for a 10˚C change in temperature. What is the activation energy for a reaction whose rate
doubles from 10˚C to 20˚C?
A. 36.5 kJ/mol B. 47.8 kJ/mol C. 55.7 kJ/mol D. 65.1 kJ/mol
.
25. For the gas phase reaction𝐴 + 𝐵 → 𝐶 + 2𝐷, what is the fractional change in volume (expansion factor), if the feed consist of 40% A, 50% B and 25%
inerts?
A. 0.40 B. 0.50 C. 0.60 D. 0.70
.
26. The gaseous reaction 𝐴 → 2𝐵 + 𝐶 takes place isothermally in a constant pressure reactor. Starting with a mixture of 75% A and 25% inert (by volume), in a
specified time, the volume doubles. Calculate the conversion achieved.
A. 83.3% B. 42.5% C. 51.4% D. 66.7%
27. A certain substance A is mixed with an equal quantity of substance B. At the end of 1 hour, A is 75% reacted. How much will be left unreacted at the end of 2
hours if the reaction is first order in A and first order in B?
A. 6.25% B. 14.3% C. 0% D. 15.1%
.
28. A gaseous reaction 𝐴 → 2𝐵 + 𝐶 takes place isothermally in a constant pressure reactor. Starting with a gaseous mixture containing 50% A and the rest inert
materials, the ratio of the final to initial volume is found to be 1.8. The percent conversion of A is:
A. 80% B. 50% C. 60% D. 74%
29. At 8 minutes, the conversion of reaction is 80% and at 18 minutes, the conversion is 90% . What is the order of the reaction?
A. zero B. second C. first D. 1/2
.
30. An irreversible chemical reaction 𝐴 + 𝐵 → 𝐶 has a specific reaction rate constant at 760˚R of 3.1 ft3/lbmol-sec. Compute the time (in minutes) required for 95
% of A to react. The reaction occurs at a constant pressure of 5 atmosphere and a constant temperature of 760˚R. Initially we have 5 mole of A, 6 moles of B, 1
mole of C, and four moles of an inert D. All species are gaseous and follow the ideal gas law.
A. 2.3 min B. 9.67 min C. 16.3 min D. 22.5 min
31. The rate of a reaction is increased by four times when the concentration of the reactants is doubled. The true statement about this reaction is:
A. the units of the specific rate of reaction is L2mol-2s-1
B. half-life of the reaction is proportional to the initial concentration of the reactants
C. half-life of the reaction is inversely proportional to the initial concentration of the reactants
D. It is a first order reaction.
--------------------------------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS--------------------------------------------------------------------
WEEKLY EXAM 9
Thermodynamics, Flow of Fluids & Chemical Reaction Engineering
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the
letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
1. How much work is needed to lift a 5.0 kg backpack to a shelf 1.0 m above the floor?
A. 49 N B. 49 J C. 54 N D. 54 J
2. An electric lift can raise a 50 kg mass a distance of 10.0 m in 5.0 s. What is the power of the lift?
A. 13 hp B. 9.6 W C. 13 kW D. 9.8 hp
3. A 7 kg bowling ball is moving in a bowling lane with a velocity of 5. 0 m/s. What is the kinetic energy of the ball?
A. 87.5 N B. 87.5 J C. 102.4 N D. 102.4 J
4. A 60 kg student runs up a 5.00 meter high stairway in a time of 3.92 seconds. How many watts of power did she develop?
A. 720 W B. 730 W C. 740 W D. 750 W
5. How much heat must be supplied to a 500 g pan to raise its temperature to 20ºC to 100ºC if the pan is made of aluminum?
A. 2.4 kca; B. 26.2 kcal C. 8.8 kcal D. 33. 2 kcal
6. How much water does a refrigerator remove from 100 g of water at 20ºC to make ice at -10ºC?
A. 10500 kcal B. 8500 kcal C. 7500 kcal D. 4500 kcal
7. A heat engine operates with 65 kcal of heat supplied, and exhausts 40 kcal of heat. How much work did the engine do?
A. 80 kJ B. 90 kJ C. 97 kJ D. 105 kJ
8. A bicycle and rider have a combined mass of 100 kg. How many calories of heat are generated in the brakes when the bicycle comes to a stop from a speed of
36.0 km/hr?
A. 1.2 kcal B. 0.85 kcal C. 1.74 kcal D. 2.21 kcal
9. A 75 kg person consumes a small order of French fries (250 Cal) and wishes to “work-off” the energy by climbing a 10,0 m stairway. How many vertical climbs
A. 142.3 B. 150.2 C. 155.8 D. 162.1
are needed to use all the energy?
10. A 300 W immersion heater is used to heat 250 g of water from 10°C to 70°C. About how many minutes did this take?
11. In an electric freezer, 400 g water at 18°C is cooled, fresh frozen, and the ice chilled to -05.0°C. If the latent heat of vaporization of the Freon refrigerant is
40.0 cal/g, how many grams of Freon must be evaporated?
A. 0.85 kg B. 1.01 kg C. 1.75 kg D. 2.41 kg
12. A refrigerator removes 40.0 kcal of heat from the freezer and releases 55.0 kcal through the condenser on the back. How much work was done by the
compressor?
A. 45.1 kJ B. 52.5 kJ C. 59.1 kJ D. 62.8 kJ
13. A block wood is floating at the interface between a layer of gasoline and a layer of water. What fraction of the wood is below the interface? Specific gravity of
gasoline is 0.72 and that of water is 0. 96.
A. 0.745 B. 0.857 C. 0.904 D. 0.925
14. A floating cylinder 8 cm in diameter and weighing 9.32 newtons is placed in a cylindrical container that is 20 cm in diameter and partially full of water. The
increase in the depth of water when the float is placed in it is
A. 10 cm B. 5 cm C. 3 cm D. 2 cm
15. A block of wood that weighs 71.2 N and of specific gravity 0.72 is tied by a string to the bottom of a tank of water in order to have the block totally immersed.
Determine the tension in the string.
A. 94.93 N B. 23.73 N C. 47.72 N D. 50.25 N
16. Water at 60 deg F flows through a 3-inch inside diameter smooth horizontal pipe. If the Reynolds’ number is 353000, calculate the ratio of maximum velocity
to average velocity.
A. 1.22 B. 1.54 C. 1.72 D. 2.11
17. If the speed of a centrifugal pump is doubled, the energy requirement becomes approximately ____ times the original energy requirement.
A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 10
18. An axial flow pump operating at a speed of 880 rpm can supply water at a rate of 3000 gpm. The maximum head that this pump can deliver in ft. Of water is
A. 20 B. 36 C. 63 D. 85
19. What will be the rated capacity [gpm] of a 4-1/2 inch impeller centrifugal pump operating at a speed of 3450 rpm capable of generating a head of 40 ft. of
water.
A. 95 B. 124 C. 248 D. 320
20. Water leaves the nozzle(25 mm diameter) of a fire hose at a velocity of 25 m/s. What will be the reaction force at the nozzle which the fireman will need to
counterbalance?
A. 3307 N B. 380 N C. 422 N D. 455 N
21. Air flows in along length of 2.5 cm diameter pipe. At one end the pressure is 200 kPa, the temperature is 150°C and the velocity is 10 m/s. At the other end,
the pressure has been reduced by friction and heat loss to 130 kPa. The mass flow rate in kg/s at any section along the pipe is nearest to
A. 0.000 B. 0.042 C. 0.126 D. 0.5
22. Water is flowing in a 5 centimeter diameter pipe at a velocity of 5m/s. The pipe expands to a 10-centimeter diameter pipe. Calculate the pressure just after the
expansion to the 10-centimeter diameter pipe if the pressure in the 5-centimeter pipe is 300 kPa. Friction is negligible. The specific weight of water is 9.81 kN/m 3.
23. Gasoline at 20°C (sp.gr. 0.719, viscosity of 0.000292 Pa-s) flows at the rate of 2L/s through a pipe having an inside diameter of 60 mm. Determine the
Reynolds’ number.
A. 104,400 B. 98,100 C. 82,090 D. 72,100
24. Water flows from a tap at a pressure of 250 kPa above atmospheric pressure. What is the velocity of the jet if frictional effects are neglected?
A. 12.2 m/s B. 16.5 m/s C. 22.4 m/s D. 27.4 m/s
25. A boiler plant raises 5.2 kg/s of steam at 1825 kN/m2 pressure, using coal of calorific value 27.2 MJ/kg. If the boiler efficiency is 75% , how much coil is
consumed per day?
A. 0.12 kg/s B. 0.71 kg/s C. 4.22 kg/s D. 10.12 kg/s
26. From the data in problem #25, If the steam is used to generate electricity, what is the power generation in kilowatts assuming a 20% conversion efficiency of
the turbines and generators?
A. 1 MW B. 3 MW C. 5 MW D. 7 MW
27. The turbines in a hydroelectric plant are fed by water falling from a height of 100 ft. Assuming 95% efficiency in converting the potential to electrical energy,
and 10% loss in transmission, how many tons of water per hour are needed to keep a 100 W light bulb burning?
A. 1.10 tons B. 1.32 tons C. 1.55 tons D. 1.75 tons
28. A steady flow power plant has its water inlet 15 m above its water outlet. The water enters the plant with a velocity of 3 m/s and leaves with a velocity of 3 m/s
and leaves with a velocity of 10 m/s. What is the work done by the plant per kilogram of water passing through it?
A. 98.2 J B. 101.6 J C. 107.1 J D. 112.5 J
29. One kilogram of water falls over a 100 m waterfall and lands in the pool at the bottom. This converts the potential energy it had at the top of the fall to internal
energy. How much does the temperature of the water increase?
A. 2.12°F B. 2.21°F C. 0.42°F D. 1.45°F
30. How much difference in elevation will result in a change in potential energy equivalent t 1BTU/lb of the substance considered?
A. 724 ft B. 484 ft C. 742 ft D. 827 ft
31. Water flows in a pipe with a velocity of 10 m/s. Determine the velocity head of the water.
A. 6.8 m B. 5.1 m C. 1.5 m D. 8.6 m
32. Water in the rural areas is often extracted from underground water source whose free surface is 60 m below ground level. The water is to be raised 5 m
above the ground by a pump. The diameter of the pipe is 10 cm at the inlet and 15 cm at the exit. Neglecting any heat interaction with the surroundings and
frictional heating effects. What is the necessary power input ti the pump in kW for a steady flow of water at the rate of 15 L/s? Assume pump efficiency of 74% .
A. 9.54 B. 5.54 C. 7.82 D. 12.90
33. A steady flow thermodynamic system receives 100 lb/min of a fluid at 30 psia and 200ºF and discharges it from a point 80 ft above the entrance section at
1500 psia and 600ºF. The fluid enters with a velocity of 2400 fpm. During this process, there are supplied 25,000 Btu/hr of heat from an external source and the
increase in enthalpy is 2.0 Btu/lb. Determine the work done in horsepower.
A. 5.48 Hp B. 6.20 Hp C. 7.15 Hp D. 8.08 Hp
34. Water (density of 1000 kg/m3, viscosity of 1E-3 Pa-s) is pumped through a 50 mm diameter pipeline at 4 kg/s and the pressure drop is 1E6 Pa. What will be
the pressure drop for a solution of glycerol in water (density of 1050 kg/m3, viscosity of 10E6 Pa-s) when pumped at the same rate? Assume the pipe to be
smooth.
A. 1.77E6 Pa B. 1.77E7 Pa C. 1.77E5 Pa D. 1.77E6 Pa
35. An oil is in laminar flow at ½-in I.D. tube at 6 gal/min. the oil viscosity is 300 centipoises, and its density is 60 lb/ft2. Calculate the pressure drop per foot of
pipe length in psia.
A. 0.45 B. 1.12 C. 42.1 D. 7.84
36. An oil is in laminar flow at ½-in I.D. tube at 6 gal/min. the oil viscosity is 300 centipoises, and its density is 60 lb/ft2. Calculate the wall stress in lbf/ft2.
A. 1.18 B. 10.2 C. 25.1 D. 43.55
37. An oil is in laminar flow at ½-in I.D. tube at 6 gal/min. the oil viscosity is 300 centipoises, and its density is 60 lb/ft2. Calculate the velocity at the center of the
pipe at ft/s.
A. 5.4 B. 12.5 C. 19.6 D. 9.8
38. An oil is in laminar flow at ½-in I.D. tube at 6 gal/min. the oil viscosity is 300 centipoises, and its density is 60 lb/ft2. Calculate the radial position at which the
point velocity is equal to the average velocity in inches.
A. 0.177 B. 0.085 C. 0.244 D. 0.221
39. 0.015 m3/s of acetic acid is pumped through a 75 mm diameter horizontal pipe 70 m long. What is the pressure drop in the pipe? Viscosity of the acid = 2.5E-
3 Pa-s, density of acid = 1060 kg/m3, the roughness of the surface = 6E-5 m.
40. Find the drop in pressure due to friction in a glazed porcelain pipe 300 m long and 150 mm diameter when water is flowing the rate is 0.05 m3 /s.
A. 109 kPa B. 4.5 kPa C. 0.07 kPa D. 900 kPa
41. What is the pressure drop in a 5000-ft long 6-in oil pipe conveying 0.022 m3/s kerosene having a specific gravity of 0.813 at 65ºF, which is the temperature of
the liquid in the pipe. The pipe is schedule 40 steel.
A. 24 kPa B. 87.2 kPa C. 119 kPa D. 185 kPa
42. Water is flowing through a pipe of 0.60 m in diameter and 2 km length. If the average velocity of water is 2m/s, what is the loss of heat due to friction
considering that the friction factor is 0.005?
A. 13.6 m B. 12.7 m C. 11.7 m D. 9.7 m
43. Nitrogen gas is flowing through a 4-in schedule 40 commercial steel pipe at 289ºK. The total flow rate is 7.40 E-2 kg/s and the flow can be assumed as
isothermal. The pipe is 3000 m long and the inlet pressure is 200 kPa. Calculate the outlet pressure.
44. Over a 30 m length of 150 mm vacuum line carrying air at 293K, the pressure falls from 1 kN/m 2 to 0.1 kN/m/s2. If the relative roughness is 0.002, what is the
approximate flow rate?
45. A pitot tube is used to measure the mean velocity in a pipe where water is flowing. A manometer containing mercury is connected to the pitot tube and
indicates a height of 150 mm. The specific weights of the water and the mercury are 9810 N/m 3 and 133,400 N/m3, respectively. Calculate the velocity of the
water.
A. 6.09 m/s B. 12.87 m/s C. 18.42 m/s D. 24.90 m/s
46. You wish to meter the process stream passing through a 6-inch schedule 40 pipeline and decide to insert a sharp-edged orifice which gives an 8-inch mercury
differential at 150 gpm flow. The liquid is at 60ºF, has a specific gravity of 1.2 and a viscosity of 1.1 centistokes. Calculate the size of the orifice.
A. 1.5 in B. 2.2 in C. 2.8 in D. 3.1 in
47. Find the diameter of a square edged orifice used to measure a 150 gpm water flow at 60ºF in a 4-inch schedule 40 pipe with a pressure differential of 3 psi.
A. 0.64 in B. 0.95 C. 1.12 in D. 1.40 in
48. The venturi meter is to be installed in a schedule 40 4-inch (ID = 4.026 in) line to measure the flow of water. The maximum flow rate is expected to be 325
gal/min at 60ºF. The 50-in manometer used to measure the differential pressure is to be filled with mercury, and water is to fill the leads above the mercury faces.
The water temperature is to be 60ºF throughout. What throat diameter should be specified for the venture meter?
A. 2 in B. 1.5 in C. 1.0 in D. 0.5 in
49. What is the hydraulic radius of a rectangular air duct 300 mm by 500 mm?
A. 72.30 mm B. 76.50 mm C. 85.25 mm D. 93.75 mm
50. What is the hydraulic radius of a semi-circular channel of radius 8 ft?

A. 3 ft B. 2 ft C. 4 ft D. 1.5 ft
51. What is the approximate schedule number for a system whose internal pressure is 425 psi? Assume that the allowable stress is 24,215 ft of water and whose
thickness is 0.25 in.
A. 40 B. 60 C. 80 D. 100
52. A 1 in 10 BWG copper tubing was used in a heat exchanger 6.1 m long, has an outside surface heating area of:
A. 0.487 m2 B. 0.356 m2 C. 0.356 m2 D. 0.800 m2
53. A 100 per cent efficient compressor compresses air from 1 atm to 10 atm. The inlet temperature is 68ºF. Calculate the required work in kJ/mol for an
isothermal compressor.
A. 3.12 B. 3.90 C. 4.75 D. 5.62
54. A 100 per cent efficient compressor compresses air from 1 atm to 10 atm. The inlet temperature is 68ºF. Calculate the required work in Btu/lbmol for an
adiabatic compressor.
A. 3281 B. 3418 C. 7.96 D. 4.32
55. A pump driven by an electrical motor moves 25 gal/min of water from reservoir A to reservoir B, lifting water to a total head of 245 feet. The efficiency of the
pump is 64% . Neglecting velocity head, friction and minor losses, what size motor is required?
A. 2.42 Hp B. 2.55 Hp C. 1.55 Hp D. 1.64 Hp
56. A pump running at 1000 rpm delivers water against a head of 300 m. If the pump speed will be increased to 1500 rpm, what is the change in head?
A. 375 m B. 375 m C. 675 m D. 475 m
57. A centrifugal pump is designed for 2000 rpm and head of 70 m. What is the speed if the head is increased to 100 m?
58. A water pump develops a total head of 200 ft. The pump efficiency is 80% and the motor efficiency is 87.5% . If the power rate 1.5 cents per kWH, what is the
power cost for the pumping 100 gal/hr?
A. 34 cents/hour B. 1.34 cents/hour C. 2.34 cents/hour D. 3.34 cents/hour
59. An air compressor takes air at 90 kPa and discharges to 700 kPa. If the volume flow of the discharge is 1.3 m 3/s, compute the capacity of the compressor.
A. 6.63 m3/s B. 4.63 m3/s C. 5.98 m3/s D. 4.98 m3/s
60. A certain reaction has an activation energy of 125 kJ/mol. The rate constant is 0.033/s at 55ºC. The value of the specific rate constant at 100ºC is:
A. 0.00013/s B. 0.037/s C. 0.088/s D. 8.3/s
61. A certain reaction has a specific rate constant of 4.27E-3/s at 25ºC and 7.35E-2/s at 80ºC. The activation energy in kJ/mol is:
A. 5.44 B. 45.2 C. 104 D. 860
.
62. The reaction 𝐴 + 2𝐵 → 𝑅 is a first order with respect to each reactant. If equimolar amounts of A and B are introduced into a constant volume reactor and
(1/m) th of A remains after t1, how much will remain after t2=2t1?
A. Cao/2m B. Cao/(2m-1) C. Cao/(1-2m) D. Cao/2
63. An aqueous solution of ethyl acetate is to be saponified with NaOH. The initial concentration of the ethyl acetate is 5 g/L and that of the caustic soda is 0.10
M. Values of the second order rate constant in L/gmole-min are: k = 23.5 at 0 degC; k = 92.4 at 20 degC. The rection is essentially irreversible. The time required
to saponify 95% of the water at 40˚C is:
A. 10.3 B. 11.4 C. 12.7 D. 20.7
64. In some reaction operation bypassing some amount of the reactants prevent wasteful processing. To determine the amount of the bypass, it is essential that a
material balance be taken:
A. inside the reactor C. at the feed
B. at over-all input and output materials D. around the point where mixing occurs
65. The mechanism of a reaction can sometimes be deduced from:

A. The temperature dependency of the rate C. the net equation
B. the rate law D. the activation energy
66. If the reaction is independent of the concentration of the reactants, the reaction is said to be:
A. first order B. third order C. second order D. zero order
67. The unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is:
A. Litre sec-1 B. Litre mole-1sec-1 C. Mole litre-1 sec-1 D. Mole sec-1
68. If ‘n’ is the order of reaction, then the unit of rate constant is:
A. (time)-1(concentration)1-n C. (time)-1(concentration)n-1
B. (time)n-1(concentration) D. none of these
69. Variables affecting the rate of homogenous reactions are:

A. pressure and temperature only C. temperature and composition only
B. pressure and composition only D. pressure, temperature and composition
70. Rate determining step in a reaction consisting a number of step in series is the:
A. fastest step B. intermediate step C. slowest step D. data insufficient; can’t be predicted
71. The net rate of reaction of an intermediate is:

A. zero B. infinity C. greater than zero D. less than zero
72. For a heat engine operating between two temperatures (T2>T1), what is the maximum efficiency attainable?
A. 1-T1/T2 B. T1/T2 C. 1- T2/T1 D. 1- T12 /T22
73. What is the efficiency of an Otto cycle with compression ratio of 6:11? gas used is air.
A. 0.488 B. 0.191 C. 0.512 D. 0.167
74. An engineer designed an engine that has an efficiency of 255 and will absorb heat at a temperature of 267 C. Compute the temperature at the exhaust
considering that this is an ideal engine.
A. 132 C B. 145 C C. 157 C D. 174 C
75. A gasoline engine in a bus takes 10 kJ of heat and delivers 2 kJ of mechanical work per cycle. Compute the efficiency of the engine if heat is obtained by
burning gasoline with a heating value of 50000 kJ/kg.
A. 20% B. 30% C. 40% D. 17%
76. Steam generated in a power plant at a pressure of 8600 kPa and a temperature of 500˚C is fed to a turbine. Exhaust from the turbine enters a condenser at
10 kPa, where it is condensed to saturated liquid, which is then pump to the boiler. What is the thermal efficiency of a Rankine cycle operating at these
conditions?
A. 39.7% B. 46.2% C. 50.8% D. 61.2%
77. A heat engine absorbs 1000 Btu at 800˚F, and rejects heat at 100˚F. The work done by the engine, if its efficiency is 50% of the carnot efficiency is closest:
A. 150000 ft-lbf B. 217000 ft-lbf C. 440000 ft-lbf D. 110000 ft-lbf
78. A carnot refrigeration operates between two reservoirs, one reservoir operates at higher temperature, Th, and the other is at water temperature Tc. What is
the coefficient of performance of the, COP, of the refrigerator?
A. Tc/(Th-Tc) B. Th/Tc C. 1-Tc/Th D. Th-Tc/Th
79. A freezer is to be maintained at a temperature of -40˚F on a summer day when the ambient temperature is 80˚F. In order to maintain the freezer,box at -40˚F,
it is necessary to remove heat from it at the rate of 70 BTU/min. What is the minimum power that must be supplied to the freezer?
A. 2.5 hp B. 5 hp C. 1.2 hp D. 0.47 hp
80. An ice-making machine operates cyclically and reversibly in the Carnot cycle between 0˚C and 25˚C. Determine the work done to freeze 100 kilos of water at
0˚C to ice at 0˚C?
81. The power requirement of a Carnot refrigerator in maintaining a low temperature region at 300˚K is 1.5 kW per ton. Find the heat rejected.
A. 4.02 kW B. 7.02 kW C. 5.02 kW D. 6.02 kW
82. A refrigerator is rated at a COP of 4. The refrigerated space that it cools requires a peak cooling rate of 30000 kJ/hr. What size electrical motor (rated in
horsepower) is required for the refrigerator?
A. 3.45 hp B. 1.67 hp C. 2.79 hp D. 3.90 hp
83. Calculate the entropy change for a hundredfold expansion of a mole of ideal gas isothermally.
A. 1.25 cal/K B. 2.50 cal/K C. 5.45 cal/K D. 0.34 cal/K
84. In a constant temperature, closed system process, 100 BTU of heat is transferred to the working fluid at 100 F. What is the change in entropy of the working
fluid?
A. 0.18 kJ/K B. 0.57 kJ/K C. 0.25 kJ/K D. 0.34 kJ/K
85. Saturated steam at 350 kPa is mixed continuously with a stream of water at 5˚C to produce hot water at 80˚C at the rate of 4 kg/s. The inlet and outlet lines to
the mixing device all have an internal diameter of 50 mm. At what rate must steam be supplied?
86. How much oil at 200˚C must be added to 50 grams of the same oil at 20˚C to heat it to 70˚C?
A. 12.39 grams B. 29.12 grams C. 19.23 grams D. 23.19 grams
87. A 2 lb of 200˚F iron (Cp=0.1 BTU/lb-˚F) are dropped into a gallon of 40˚F water. What is the final temperature of the mixture?
A. 43.74˚F B. 34.47 ˚F C. 33.77 ˚F D. 53.77 ˚F
88. How many kJ of heat must be removed from 1000 g of water (heat capacity of 4.184 J/g-K) to lower the temperature from 18˚C to 12˚C?
A. 2.5E-2 kJ B. 1.4 kJ C. 4.2 kJ D. 25 kJ
89. How much heat is needed to raise the temperature of 75.2 mol of water (heat capacity of 4.184 J/g-K) from 12.5˚C to 80.0˚C?
A. 5.08 kJ B. 382 kJ C. 0.282 kJ D. 21.2 kJ
90. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 2 kg of iron (Cp=0.115 kcal/kg-˚C) from 27˚C to 100˚C is:
--------------------------------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS--------------------------------------------------------------------
CHEMICAL REACTION ENGINEERING 2
Backmix Reactor
1. Gaseous reactant A decomposes according to the reaction A → 3R (-rA = 0.5 CA mole/L-min. The feed which is consists of 70% A and 30% inert,
enters a 1.5-m3 CSTR at a flow rate of 150 l/min. If C AO = 0.30 mole/L, what is the conversion, XA?
A. 0.92 B. 0.86 C. 0.71 D. 0.65
2. The gas phase irreversible reaction A+B → C is elementary. The entering flow rate A is 10 mol/min and is equal molar in A and B. The entering
concentration of A is 0.4 mol/L. What CSTR volume [L] is necessary to achieve 90% conversion?
A. 113 B. 227 C. 851 D. 900
Plug- Flow Reactor
3. A gas decomposes at 900°C according to the reaction 2A → 2R + S with a rate constant of 1000 cm 3 / gmol-s. Using pure A and a plug flow reactor,
the volume of the reactor operating at 900°C and 3 atm that will be required to react 80% of A with a feed rate of 500 lb/ hr and molecular weight of A
is 45 in ft3 is
A. 436 B. 354 C. 643 D. 346
4. The gas phase reaction 2A+B → C is carried out in a PFR. The feed is equal molar in A and B and the entering temperature is 500K and the entering
pressure is 16.4 atm. If the exit conversion is x, then the exit concentration of B is
A. [B]=0.4(1-x)/(1-0.5x) C. [B]=0.4(1-x)/(1-0.0.5x)
B. [B]=0.4(1-x)/(1- 1.5x) D. [B]=0.2
Reactor Circuits
5. A liquid feed of pure A (1 mole/liter) is treated in two reactors of 2-liter volume each and reacts with a rate of rA = 0.5 C A2, mole/ liter- sec. Find what
feed rate in liters/ min that will give a final outlet concentration of CA = 0.50 mole/liter if two CSTRs in series are used.
A. 12 B. 8.46 C. 10.23 D. 10.67
6. If two CSTRs in parallel are used in problem 5, the total feed rate, in liters/ min is
A. 6 B. 3 C. 9 D. 8
7. If two plug flow reactors are used in problem 5, the total feed rate, in liters/ min is
A. 6 B. 3 C. 9 D. 8
8. If two plug flow reactors in parallel are used in problem 5, the total feed rate, in liters/ min is
A. 6 B. 3 C. 9 D. 8
9. If a CSTR and a plug flow reactor hooked up in parallel are used in problem 5, the total feed rate, in liters/ min is
A. 6 B. 3 C. 9 D. 8
DAILY TEST
1. For the gas phase reaction A + B → C + 2D, what is the fractional change in volume (expansion factor), if the feed consist of 40% A, 50% B and
10% inerts.
A. 0.40 B. 0.50 C. 0.60 D. 0.70
For questions 2-3, refer to the following; A liquid phase reaction A → R is carried out in a series of three completely mixed stirred tank reactors of equal size. The
reaction rate constant k is 0.066/min. Overall conversion is 90% . The feed rate is 10 liters/min and the feed contains only A in concentration of 1 gmol/L.
2. The over-all space-time in minutes for the three reactor system is
A. 5.24 B. 524 C. 52.4 D. 17.5
3. The concentration from the second reactor is
A. 0.2148 B. 0.1 C. 0.35 D. 0.5
4. The homogenous gas decomposition of phosphine 4PH 3(g) → P 4(g) + 6H 2 proceeds at 1200°F with first order rate –ГPH3 =(10/hr)C PH3.
What size of plug-flow reactor operating at 1200°F and 4.6 atm can produce 80% conversion of a feed consisting of 4Ibmol phosphine per hour?
A. 158 ft3 B. 202 ft3 C. 234 ft3 D. 278 ft3
5. Space time equals the residence time
A. when the density of the reaction mixture is constant C. for large diameter tubular reactor
B. for the narrow diameter tabular reactor D. for CSTR
6. Fluidized bed reactor is characterized by
A. comparatively smaller equipment C. very small pressure drop
B. absence of continuous catalyst regeneration facility D. uniformity of temperature
7. A batch reactor is
A. suitable for gas-phase reaction on commercial scale
B. suitable for liquid-phase reaction involving small production rate
C. least expensive to operate for a given rate
D. most suitable for very large production rate
8. Which of the following is the most suitable for very high-pressure gas-phase reaction?
A. batch reactor C. tubular flow reactor
B. stirred tank reactor D. fluidized bed reactor
9. For nearly isothermal operation involving large reaction time in a liquid-phase reaction, the most suitable reactor is
A. stirred tank reactor C. tubular flow reactor
B. batch reactor D. fixed bed reactor
10. A first order reaction requires two equal sized CSTR. The conversion is
A. less when they are connected in series
B. more when they are connected in series
C. more when they are connected in parallel
D. same whether they are connected in series or parallel
BRING HOME EXAM
“One important key to success is self-confidence. An important key to self-confidence is preparation”
-Arthur Ashe
1. A fluid is flowing in 2 backmix reactor in series. Each has a capacity of 40, 000L and flows at a rate of 100 L/hr. if the fluid undergoes first order decay
with a half-life of 24 hours. What is the percent conversion?
A. 71.7 B. 99.4 C. 66.6 D. 85.3
2. The isothermal irreversible aqueous phase reaction A+B → E at 100 °F obeys dCE/dt= rE= kCACB where k= 15ft3 /lbmol-hr. Using a 1000 ft3 stirred
tank reactor with an aqueous feed of 2000 ft3 /hr, the outlet concentration of E if the inlet concentration of A and B are both 0.25 Ibmol/ft3 is
A. 0.1332 lbmol/ ft3 C. tubular flow reactor
B. 0.1223 lbmol/ ft3 D. fixed bed reactor
3. A homogeneous gas reaction A → 3R has a reported rate at 215 °C
-rA= 10-2 C A0.5 [mole/liter-sec]
Find the space time needed for 80% conversion of a 50% A- 50% inert feed to a plug flow reactor operating at 215°C and 5 atm (C Ao = 0.0625
mol/liter).
A. 33.2 sec B. 56.3 sec C. 2.1 min D. 4.5 min
4. Consider a gas phase reaction 2A→ R+ 2S with unkown kinetics. A space velocity of 0.8/ min. is needed for 95% conversion of A in a
PFR. Find the mean residence time or holding time of the fluid in the PFR.
5. How many 500- L CSTR’s in parallel are needed to achieve 90% conversion of A for the reaction whose k = 0.04/min. The reaction is changed at a
rate of 10L/min.
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
6. A homogenous liquid phase second-order reaction 2A→ R is carried out in a plug-flow reactor with 60% conversion. What will be the conversion
in a plug-flow reactor two times as large if all other variables remain the same, and if the reaction takes place without a volume change? Feed to the
reactor is pure A.
A. 60% B. 75% C. 85% D. 96%
{7-8} A liquid phase reaction A→B is conducted isothermally in a CSTR having a residence time of 2s. The inlet concentration of species A is 2 moles/litre,
and the outlet concentration is 1 mole/litre. The rate law for the reaction is where k = 5 moles/litre/s/.
7. The value of K, in moles/liter is.
A. 11 B. 9 C. 5 D. 2
8. If the same reaction is conducted in a series of two CSTRs with residence times 1 s and 0.2 s, then the inlet concentration of A, in moles/litre,
required to attain an outlet concentration of A of 1 mole/litre, is
A. 2.64 B. 2.00 C. 1.64 D. 0.54
9. A container hold 100 gal of salt solution containing 50 Ib of dissolved salt. The bottom of the container is covered with a layer of rock salt whose
surface is practically constant. The salt dissolved into the solution according to r = k(C-3) where C is the concentration of the brine expressed in
lb/gal. If the water in the tank were fresh, the rate of solution would be 1.0 lb/min. Fresh water enters at 3 gpm and brine overflows at the same rate.
Assume constant volume at any brine concentration, the concentration of brine in container after 1 hour in ib/gal of salt is
A. 0.732 B. 0.427 C. 0.327 D. 0.237
10. For the same residence time, which will give the maximum conversion?
A. Single stirred tank (v=5 liters)
B. Two stirred tank (each of 2.5 liters) in series
C. Stirred tank followed by tubular flow reactor (each 2.5 liters)
D. Single tubular flow reactor (v=5liters)
11. With the same reaction time, initial concentration and feed rate, the reaction 2A→B is carried out separately in CSTR and P.F. reactor of equal
volumes. The conversion will be
A. Higher in P.F. factor C. higher in CSTR
B. Same in both the reactors D. data insufficient; can’t be predicted
12. In a steady-state backmix flow reactor composition is
A. Not constant throughout the reactor
B. Constant throughout the reactor
C. A fraction of time
D. Not uniform throughout the reactor and varies from time to time
13. The composition of the reaction component vary from position to position along a flow path in a/an
A. Adiabatic reactor B. batch reactor C. plug flow reactor D. CSTR
14. It states that the rate of a chemical reaction id proportional to the activity of the reactants
A. Law of Mass Action C. Hess Law
B. Le Chatelier’s Principle D. Second Law of Thermodynamics
A. Increasing the temperature C. decreasing the temperature
B. Adding a catalyst D. removing the products of the reaction
16. The collision theory of chemical reaction maintains that ______.
A. A chemical reaction occurs with every molecular collision.
B. Reactions in the gas phase are always first order
C. Reaction rates are of the order of molecular speed.
D. Rate is directly proportional to the number of collisions per second.
A. Reactions that proceed at a fast rate have low activation energy.
B. Reaction that proceed at a slow rate have high activation energy.
C. All collisions of molecules result to a chemical reactions
D. Generally, the rate of reaction increases with increase in temperature
18. In a fist order reaction the time requested to reduce the concentration of reactant from 1 mole/liter to 0.5 mole/liter will be _____ that required to
reduce it from 10 mole/liter to 5 moles/liter in the same volume
A. more than C. less than
B. same as D. data insufficient; can’t be predicted
19. In autocalytic reactions
A. one of the reactants acts as a catalyst C. one of the products acts as a catalyst
B. catalyst has very high selectivity D. no catalyst is used
20. With the decrease in temperature, the equilibrium conversion of a reversible exothermic reaction
A. decreases C. Increases
B. remains unaffected D. decreases linearly with temperature
21. With decrease in temperature, the equilibrium conversion of a reversible endothermic reaction
A. decreases C. Increases
B. remains unaffected D. decreases linearly with temperature
22. The equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction
A. Increases in the presence of catalyst
B. decreases in the presence of catalyst
C. remains unaffected in the presence of catalyst
D. can either increase or decrease
23. Conversion increases with increase in temperature of
A. Autocatalytlc reaction C. irreversible reaction
B. Reversible endothermic reaction D. Reversible exothermic reaction
24. The heat of reaction
A. depends on the pressure only
B. Depends on the mechanism of reaction only
C. depends on both pressure and mechanism of reaction
D. is independent of the mechanism of reaction
25. Differential method for analyzing the kinetic data is used
A. for testing complicated mechanisms C. when the data are scattered
B. when rate expressions are very simple D. none of these
26. A trickle bed reactor is one which
A. Has altogether three streams either entering or leaving
B. processes three reactants at different flow rates
C. processes three reactant with same now rate
D. employs all the three phases (i.e. solid, liquid and gas)
27. With increases in temperature, the rate constant obeying Arrhenius equation
A. increases
B. decreases
C. decreases exponentially with temperature
D. can either Increase or decrease, depends on the frequency factor
28. A batch reactor is characterized by
A. constant residence time
B. the variation in extent of reaction and properties of the reaction mixture with time.
C. variation in reactor volume
D. very low conversion
29. A plug-flow reactor is characterized by
A. High capacity
B. presence of axial mixing
C. presence of lateral mixing
D. constant composition and temperature of reaction mixture
30. In a semi-batch reactor
A. velocity of reaction can be controlled C. Maximum conversion can be controlled
B. both the as reactants flow counter-currently D. Residence lima is constant
31. A back mix reactor
A. is same as plug-now reactor C. is same as Ideal slurred tank reactor
B. employs mixing in axial directions only D. is most suitable for gas phase reaction
32. In a continuous flow stirred tank reactor the composition of the exit stream
A. is same as that in the reactor C. is different than that in the reactor
B. depends upon the flow rate of inlet stream D. None of these
33. in an Ideal tabular-flow reactor
A. there is no mixing in longitudinal direction C. Mixing takes place in radial direction
B. there is a uniform velocity across the radius D. all (a). (b) and (c)
34. A space-time of 3 hours for a flow reactor means that
A. the time required to process one reactor volume of feed (measured at specified conditions) is 3 hour.
B. three reactor volumes of feed can be processed every hour
C. it takes three hours to dump the entire volume of the reaction with feed
D. conversion is cent per cent after three hour
----------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS------------------------------------------------------
HEAT TRANSFER 1
Conduction in Flat Walls
1. Compute the amount of heat transferred in one hour through a solid brick wall 6 m X 2.9 m x 225 mm. when the outer surface is at 5°C and the inner
surface 17°C. The coefficient of thermal conductivity of the brick is approximately 0. 6 W/m-K .
A. 2004.5 kJ B. 2740.5 kJ C. 1674.5 kJ D. 3767.5 kJ
2. For a furnace constructed with 0.7 ft. thick of fireclay brick having k=0.6 Btu/hr-ft-°F and covered on the outer surface with a layer of insulating
material having k=0.04 Btu/hr-ft-°F. The inner most surface is maintained at 1800 °F while the outer surface is maintained at 100 °F. How thick must the
insulator be to maintain a maximum allowable heat transfer rate of 300 Btu/hr-ft2
A. 0. 30 ft B..0. 18 ft C. 0. 10 ft. D. 0. 40 ft.
Conduction in Cylindrical Walls
3. A 6-Inch steel pipe (O. D. = 6. 63 inches) insulated with magnesia is tested with thermocouples touching the pipe itself and in the insulation at a
distance of 3 inches out from the first. If the first thermocouple registers 350 °F and the second 150 °F, what ïs the heat loss in Btu per foot of length
of pipe per hour?
A. 65 B. 72 C. 78 D. 87
4. A steel pipeline, 2-in schedule 40 (thickness. 3. 91 mm and inside diameter, 52.50 mm) contains saturated steam at 121 °C. The line is insulated with
25. 4 mm asbestos (k=0.182 W/m-K). Assuming that the inside surface temperature of the metal wall is at 121.1 °C and the outer surface of the
insulation is at 26.7 °C, calculate the heat loss for 30.5 m of pipe. K steel is 45 W/m-K
A. 5384 W B. 4718 W C. 30S5W D. 5200 W
Conduction in Spherical Walls
5. The inner and outer radii of a hollow spherical shell are 4 cm and 9 cm respectively. The thermal conductivity of the material between the walls is
0.76 W/m- °K. the inner surface is kept at constant temperature of 100° C and the outer is 0 °C. Find the temperature in °C 5 cm from the center.
A. 164 B. 136 C. 61 D. 76
Natural & Forced Convection
6. Estimate the heat transfer coefficient in W/sq.m. K for natural convection from a horizontal pipe 0. 15 m diameter, with a surface temperature of
400 K to air at 294.
A. 6.61 B. 5. 75 C. 7. 08 D. 7.90
7. Benzene at 100 °F and' 1 atm flows at 100 ft3 /min in a smooth 1 ° ID tube. The heat transfer coefficient for the system in BTU/sec-ft2 °F is
estimated to be
A. 8. 41 B. 6. 54 C. 0. 197 D. 2.42
Combined Conduction & Convection
8. Determine the length needed for a simple concentric-tube, parallel flow heat exchanger to transfer heat from hot water to cold water at a rate
of 900 W. The heat exchanger consists of two Type K copper (K=386 W/m –degC) tubes. The smaller tube has an inside diameter of 49. 6
mm and an outside diameter of 54. 0 mm. Assume that both film coefficients are equal to 100 W/sq. m degC. The hot water enters at 90 degC
and leaves at 50 degC, and the cold water enters 10 degC and leaves at 40 degC.
A. 185.5 m B. 11. 02 m C. 5.51 m D. 4.14 m
For numbers 9 to 11…
A reaction mixture having a cp= 2. 85 kJ/kg-K is flowing at a rate of 7260 kg/hr and is to be cooled from 377.6 K to 344. 3 K. Cooling water at 288. 8 K is available
and the flow rate is 4536 kg/hr. The overall U 0 is 653 W/m2-K. Calculate
9. the outlet water temperature in °C
A. 51.95 °C B. 89.37 °C C.156.45 °C D. 325.10 °C
10. the area assuming flow is counter/current
A. 3.23 m2 B. 6.46 m2 C. 2.71 m2 D. 6.43 m2
11. the area assuming the concurrent
A. 3.23 m2 B. 6.46 m2 C. 2.71 m2 D. 5.43 m2
DAILY TEST
1. A metal rod is 10 cm long and has a diameter of 2 cm. One end is in contact with steam at 100°C while another end is in contact with the ice at 0 °C. It
was found out that 320 grams of ice melted after 20 minutes. What is the thermal conductivity of the metal?
A. 283.6 w/m-K B. 324.5 w/m-K C. 345.4 w/m-K D. 154.3 W/m-K
2. A composite wall is made of two slabs with the outermost surface temperatures maintained at 1250 °C and 125 °C. The first slab has a thickness of
500 mm and thermal conductivity of 1.4 W/m-K and the thickness and thermal conductivity of the second slab are 150 mm and 0.37 W/m- K
respectively. Calculate the conduction heat transfer through this composite wall.
A. 2.457 kW/m2 B. 1.475 kW/m2 C. 3.245 kW/m2 D. 1.282 kW/m2
3. A metallic tube has a 3” inside diameter and 6"outside diameter. The inner side is maintained at 300 ° C while the outside is maintained at 100 °C.
Wnat is the heat loss per foot of the pipe in Btu/hr-ft? k=45 BTU/hr-F-ft
A. 71 200 B. 71 280 C. 72 040 D. 73 424
4. A liquid to liquid counterflow heat exchanger is used to heat a cold fluid from 120 °F to 310 °F,
Assuming that the hot fluid enters at 500 °F and leaves at 400 °F, calculate the log mean temperature difference for the treat exchanger.
A. 132 °F B. 332 °F C. 232 °F D. 432 °F
5. Methyl alcohol flowing in the inner pipe of a double-pipe exchanger cooled with water flowing the jacket. The inner pipe is made from 1-in (25 -mm)
Schedule 40 steel pipe. The thermal conductivity of steel is 26 BTU/hr-ft- °F (45 W/m-°C). The individual coefficient and fouling factors are hi =180
BTU/ ft2-hr- °F (1020 W/m2 - °C), hdi = 1000 BTU/ ft2-hr- °F (5660 W/m2 - °C), ho= 600 BTU/ ft2-hr- °F (5680 W/m2 - °C), hdo = 500 BTU/ ft2-hr- °F
(2840 W/m2 - °C), What is the overall coefficient based on the outside area of the inner pipe in BTU/ ft2 -hr- °F?
A. 80.9 B. 84. 2 C. 85. 1 D. 86. 5
6. Heat transfer in turbulent flow may be described through an empirical equation correlating
A. Nusselt, Stanton and Reyqold's numbers
B. Peclet, Stanton and Prandtl numbers
C. Nusselt, Prandtl and Reynold's numbers
D. Schimdt, Peclet and friction numbers
7. The transfer of heat from a point another within a fluid, or between a fluid and a solid or another fluid, by the mov ement or mixing of the fluids involve.
A. conduction B. convection C. radiation D. evaporation
8. If the viscosity of the fluid will increase, the heat transfer coefficient will
A. Increase B. Remains the Same C. decrease D. None of the 9. The term hD/K is known as
A. Prandtl number B. Peclet number C. Nusselt number D. Reynold's number
10. In fluid, if the currents are set in motion by the action of a mechanical device, the flow is independent of density gradients, the phenomenon is called
A. natural convection B.forced convection C. Thermal conduction D. centrifugation
BRINGHOME EXAM
“You've got to get to the stage in life where going for it is more important than winning or losing"
-Arthur Ashe
1. What thickness of the wood has the same insulating ability as 10 cm brick of thermal conductivity equal to 0.8 W/m-K and 0. 1 W/m-K for the wood?
A. 1. 25 cm B. 1, 00 cm C. 2. 10 cm D. 2. 54 cm
2. A wall is made of firebricks 6 inches thick and has a 50°C difference in temperature both sides.
Calculate the heal transferred through the wall if the thermal conductivity of the bricks is 0.65 BTU/ ft2 -hr- °F
A. 185 W/ m2 B. 245 W/ m2 C. 369 W/ m2 D. 467 W/ m2
3. A pipe with an outside diameter or 2. 5 inch is insulated with a 2 inch layer asbestos (k=0. 396
BTU-in/ ft2-hr- °F), followed by a layer of cork 1. 5 Inch thick (k =0.30 BTU -in/ ft2-hr- °F). If the temperature of the outer surface of the pipe is 290 °F
and the outer surface of the cork is 90 °F, calculate the heat lost per 100 ft of insulated pipe.
A. 846.74 Btu/hr B. 2847.4 Btu/hr C. 3845. 7 Btu/hr D.1844. 7 Btu/hr
4. Hollow sphere has an outside radius of 1 m and is made of polystyrene foam with thickness of 1 cm. A heat source inside keeps the inner surface 5.
20 °C hotter than the outside surface. How much power is produced by the heat source? The thermal conductivity of polystyrene foam is 0.033 W/m
°C.
A. 200 W B. 300 W C. 216 W D. 316 W
5. Determine the rate of conduction through a copper rod 2 mm in diameter and 150 mm long, The temperature is 300 °C at one end and 20°C at the
other end. The average thermal conductivity is 1.36E6 J/s-m-K. Assume heat is added or removed only at the ends.
A. 7980 W B.94 52 W C. 10214 W D 12432 W
6. Find the thermal conductivity of the 0.5 m thick material with an area of 5 m2 and a temperature
of 10 °K. If the heat transmitted during 2 hours test is 2000 kJ?
A. 2.78 W/m-K B. 3.67 W/m - K C. 1. 52 Wim-K D. 4. 41 Wlm-K
7. Compute the amount of heat flow per second through an iron plate 2 cm thick and area of 5000 cm2 if one face has a temperature of 150 °C and the
other face is 140 °C? The thermal conductivity for iron is 80 Wím-K.
A. 30 kJ/s B. 40 kJ/s C. 10 kJ/s D. 20 kJ/s
8. A composite wall is composed of 2” cork on the inside, 6” concrete and 3” wool on the outside. Their thermal conductivity are 0.025 , 0.8 and 0.065,
cork, concrete and wool respectivel, all in Btu/hr-ft-°F. The temperature of the inside surface is 40 °F while that of the outside is 78 °F. What is the
heat flux through the wall in Btu/hr-ft3?
A. 40.7 B. 3.41 C. 11.2 D. 25.6
9. Calculate the heat loss per linear foot from 2-in nominal pipe (2.327-in outside diameter) covered with 1 in of an insulating material having an average
thermal conductivity of 0.375 Btu/hr-ft-°F. Assume that the inner and outer surface temperature of the insulation are 390 °F and 80 °F respectively.
A. 110 BTU/ hr-ft. B. 120 BTU/hr-ft C. 116 BTU/hr-ft D. 126 BTU/hr-ft
10. A standard 1-in schedule 40 iron pipe carries saturated steam. The pipe is lagged (insulated) with 2-in layer of 85% magnesia (k=0.034 Btu/hr-ft-°F)
pipe covering and the outside this magnesia there is a 3-in layer of cork (k=0.03 Btu/hr-ft-°F). The outside temperature of the pipe wall is 249 °F, and
the outside temperature of the cork is 90 °F. Calculate the heat loss from 100 ft of the pipe in Btu per hr.
A. 2736 B. 3028 C. 3420 D. 3560
11. A standard 1-in schedule 40 iron pipe carries saturated steam. The pipe is lagged (insulated) with 2-in layer of 85% magnesia (k=0.034 Btu/hr-ft-°F)
pipe covering and the outside this magnesia there is a 3-in layer of cork (k=0.03 Btu/hr-ft-°F). The outside temperature of the pipe wall is 249 °F, and
the outside temperature of the cork is 90 °F. Calculate the temperature at the boundary between magnesia and cork.
A. 124 °F B. 168 °F C. 189 °F D. 110 °F
12. Hollow sphere has an outside radius of 1 m and is made of polystyrene foam wth a thickness of 1 cm. A heat source inside keeps the inner surface
7.4°C hotter than the outside surface. How much power ìs produced by the heat source? The thermal conductivlty of polystyrene foam is 0.033 W/m-
°C.
A. 276.4 W B.306. 7 W C. 123. 5 W D, 278_2 W
13. The main trunk duct of an air conditioning system is rectangular in cross section (16×30 in) and has air at 15 psia and 40 °F flowing through it with a
velociy of 1400 fpm. Find hi in Btu/hr-ft-°F.
A. 40. 0 B. 0. 43 C. 4. 50 D. 47. 0
14. A heat exchanger ls required to cool 20 kg/s of water from 360 K to 340 K by means of 25 kg/s water entering at 300 K. If the overall coefficient heat
transfer is constant at 2 kW/m2 K, calculate the surface area required in a countercurrent concentric tube exchanger.
A. 15 sq, m. B. 30 sq, m. C. 20 sq. m. D. 25 sq. m.
15. An economizer receives hot gas (Cp= 0.27 Btu/lb-R) and water in the ratio of 1.5 lb gas / lb water. The gas enters at 850 °F and leaves at 355 °F the
water enters 120 'F, Find the exit temperature of the water if the flow is parallel.
A. 320°F B. 340 °F C. 350 °F D. 360 °F
16. From the data in problem 15, calculate the logarithmic mean temperature difference.
A. 170 °F B. 190 ° F C. 230 °F D. 250 °F
17. A light motor oil of the characteristics given below is to be heated from 150 to 250 °F in a 1/4-in schedule 40 pipe 15 feet long. The pipe wall is at 350
°F. Calculate the heat transfer coefficient in
Btu/hr-ft-°F if oil enters at a rate 95. 9 lb/hr. The properties of oll are as follows. The thermal conductivity ls 0. 082 Btu/hr-ft-°F. The specific heat 0.48
Btu/lb-°F. The viscosity is
Temperature (°F) Viscosity (cp)
150 6.0
250 3.3
350 1.37
A. 21. 5 B. 40.8 C. 75.2 D. 102.5
18. Thermal conductivity of animal wool at 30'C Btu/hr-ft-°F ls
A. 0. 006 B. 0.021 C. 0.084 D. 0.108
19. Thermal conductivity of silk at 200 °F is
A. 0. 007 B. 0.034 C. 0.089 D. 1.805
20. A heat exchanger is required to cool 20 kg/s of water from 360 K to 340 K by means of 25 kg/s water entering at 300 K. If the overall coefficient heat
transfer is constant at 2 kW/m2 K, calculate the surface area required in a co-current concentric tube exchanger.
A. 17.5 sq, m. B. 21.3 sq, m. C. 19.8 sq. m. D. 24.3 sq. m.
21. Forty-five pounds per minute of water is heated from 60 to 180 deg F in a 5/8 in., 16 BWG heat exchanger tube. If the steam condensing at 260 deg F,
on the outside of the tube gives an ho of 1000 BTU/hr-sq ft.-degF. Calculate the inside heat transfer coefficient [Btu/hr-cu. ft- degF].
A. 2173 B. 2696 C. 577 D. 241
22. Air enters a preheater at 75 ° F and leaves at 225 ° F. The hot gas leaves at 265 °F. Find the temperature of the hot gas entering when the logarithmic
mean temperature difference is 140 °F and the flow is countercurrent.
A. 300 °F B. 325 °F C. 340 °F D. 350 °F
23. A steam pipe 2-in in outside diameter has an inside surface temperature of 350 °F. The pipe is covered with a coating material 2-in thick. The thermal
conductivity of the coating varies with temperature such that k=0.5+5E-4T where T is in degrees Fahrenheit and k in Btu/hr-ft-°F. The outside surface
of the coating is 100 ° F. Calculate the heat toss per foot of pipe length.
A. 200 Btu/hr B. 524 Btu/hr C.877 Btu/hr D. 1410 Btu/hr
24. A flat furnace wall consist of a 6-in layer of firebrick (k=0.95 Btu/fr-ft-°F), 4-in of insulating brick (k=0.14), and 4-in of common brick (k=0.8). The fire-
wall temperature is 1800 °F and the outer surface is 120 ° F. Determine the heat loss through the wall in Btu/fr-ft-°F
A. 506 B. 720 C. 882 D. 1208
25. From the data in problem #24, determine the temperature (in °F) at the junction between the firebrick and insulating brick
A. 328 B. 1205 C. 267 D. 1533
26. From the data in problem #24, determine the temperature (in °F) at the junction between the insulating brick and common brick.
A. 328 B. 1205 C. 267 D. 1533
27. Air at 15 psia and 200 °F is flowing through a 3 in steel pipe (3.50-in OD, 3.067-in ID) which is covered with a 3-in layer of asbestos. The air velocity is
150 fps, and the film coefficient for the outer surface of the asbestos is ho=8 Btu/hr-ft-°F, ambient temperature = 80 °F. Find hi in Btu/hr-ft-°F.
A. 410 B. 20 C. 75 D. 150
28. From the data In problem #27, find Ui in Btu/hr-ft-°F
A. 312 B. 112 C. 0.54 D. 200
29. From the data In problem # 27, find the heat loss per 1-foot length of pipe In Btu per hour.
A. 750 B. 544 C. 240 D. 52
{30-31} Hot oil at 150 °C is used to preheat a cold fluis at 30 °C in a 1:1 shell and tube heat exchanger. The exit temperature of the hot oil is 110 °C. heat
capacities (product of mass flow and specific heat capacity) of both the streams are equal. The heat duly is 2 kW.
30. Under co-current flow condition, the over all heat transfer resistance (1/UA) is
A. 0.4 °C/W B. 0.04 °C/W C. 0.36 °C/W D. 0.036 °C/W
31. Under counter-current flow conditions, the overall heat transfer resistance (1/UA) is
A. 0.4 °C/W B. 0.04 °C/W C. 0.36 °C/W D. 0.036 °C/W
----------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS------------------------------------------------------
HEAT TRANSFER 2
Thermal Radiation
1. How much part of light that absorbed by the body that transmits and reflects 80% and 10% respectively?
A. 5% B. 30% C. 20% D. 10%
2. The view factor F21 of a sphere (1) of diameter D inside a cubical box (2) of length L =D is
A. 1 B. 3.14 C. 1.57 D. 0.524
3. The temperature of standard stove burner is raised from 300 K to 600 K. How many more energy does it radiate per second at the higher temperature
than at the lower temperature?
A. 4 times B. two times C. eight times D. sixteen times
4. Two very large walls are at the constant temperatures of 800 °F and 1000 °F. If the two walls have emissivities of 0.6 and 0.8 respectively, what is the
net exchanqe of heat in BTU/ ft2-hr.
A. 1825 B. 2400 C. 2745 D. 2980
5. Determine the net heat transfer by radiation between two surfaces A and B, expresses as Btu/hr, if the temperatures of A and B are 900 °F and 400
°F respectively, and the emissivities of A and B are 0.90 and 0.25 respectively. Both surfaces are gray and surfaces A and B are flat parallel squares 5
by 5 ft, one exactly over the other, 5 ft. apart.
A. 890 B. 1400 C. 2900 D. none of these
Combined Convection Radiation
6. A single, 4-in steel pipe, whose OD is 4. 5 inch, has an outer surface temperature of 300 °F. The horizontal pipe is located in e\a large room where the
ambient temperature 78 °F and the barometer is standard. Determine the total heat (free convection and radiation) for 25 feet of pipe length in Btu/hr.
A. 15, 600 B. 20, 600 C. 25, 700 D. 32, 100
Combined Conduction, Convection & Radiation
7. A steel pipe (150 mm i.d. and 168 mm o.d.) carrying steam at 444 K and is lagged with 50 mm of
85% magnesia. What is the heat loss to air at 294 K in kW/m of pipe? Assume that the inside wall temperature ts at 444°K.
A. 1. 58 B. 3.57 C. 0.25 D. 3.90
DAILY TEST
1. If a heat transfer equipment, dirt or scale may be accounted by introducing a resistance called
A. factor of safety B. X-factor C. fouling factors D. max factor
2. Prandtl number of nitrogen at 200 K is
A.0.714 B. 9.821 C. 0.885 D. 0.901
3. Calculate the total heat loss In W/m2 by radiation and convection from an unlagged, horizontal steam pipe, 50 mm o.d., at 377 K to air at 283 K.
A. 1436 B.1587 C. 1400 D. 1658
4. Two very large wall one at 900 °F and the other 600 °F. If the walls behave like blackbodies. What amount of heat is Btu/hr-ft should be removed from
the hot body in order to attain constant temperature.
A. 34215 B. 12625 C. 3934 D. 8956
5. Emissivity of chromnickel is
A. 0. 35 B. 0. 46 C. 0.64 D. O. 82
6. Emisslvity of sandstone is
A. 0. 23 B. 0.59 C. 0.78 D. 0.90
7. It is the transfer of heat from one body to another body, not in contact with it, by means of wave motion through space.
A. conduction B. convection C. radiation D. Evaporation
8. In order to emit electromagnetic radiation, an object must be at a temperature:
A. Above °C B. above 0°K
C. Above that of lts surroundings D. High enough for it to glow
9. The spectral distribution of a perfect emitter ha a maximum and that the corresponding wave length depends on temperature. The maximum spectral
emissive power is disabled to shorter wavelengths with increasing temperature. These statement refers to
A. Stefen-Boltzmann Law B. Kirchoff's Law C. Wien's Law D. Planck's Law
10. What is the usual value of transmissivity for opaque materials?
A. 0 B. Indeterminate C. one D. Infinity
BRINGHOME EXAM
"Planning is as natural to the process of success as íts absence is to the process of failure.”
Robin Sieger, British business executive.
1. Emissivity of sandstone is
A. 0.23 B. 0.59 C. 0.79 D. 0.90
2. An incandescent lamp filament has an area of 50 mm2 and operates at a temperature of 2127 °C. If all the energy furnished to the bulb is assume to
be radiated from it and the filament’s emissivity is 0.83, by how much power must be furnished to the bulb when it is operating?
A. 65 W B. 78 W C. 87 W D. 98 W
3. Cold air at 10 °C is forced to flow over a flat plate maintained at 40 °C. The mean heat transfer
coefficient is 30 W/m2- K. Find the heat flow rate from the plane to the air through a plate area of 2 m2 . Assume radiation is negligible.
A. 1.8 kW B. 2. 0 kw C. 2. 2 kw D. 2, 4 kw
4. The sun generates 1 kW/m2 'when used as a source for solar collectors. The collector with an area 1 m2 heats water. The flow rate is 3.0 liters per
minute. What is the temperature rise in the water? The specific heat of water is 4200 J/kg. °C,
A. 2.8 °C B. 4.5 °C C. 4.8 °C D. 7.4 °C
5. How much part of light that absorbed by the body that transmits and reflects 80% and 10% respectively?
A. 5% B. 30% C. 20% D. 10%
6. A fixture containing an ordinary incandescent light bulb is connected to a dimmer switch. The dimmer is adjusted so that the temperature of the
tungsten filament inside the bulb increases from 1300K to 2600K The total power radiated by the bulb
A. doubles B. quadruples C. Increases 8x D. increases 5x
7. A refractory material with an emissivity of 0.40 at 1500K and 0.43 at 1420K is at a temperature of
1420K and is exposed to black furnace walls at a temperature of 1500 K. What is the rate of gain of heat by radiation per unit area in kW/m2 ?
A. 18. 2 B. 24.3 C. 28. 9 D. 34. 1
8. Determine the net heat transferred by radiation from a 9-ft square hot plate to a cold plate of equal size that are parallel to one another and 20 ft. apart
if the hot plate is oxidized steel at 700 °F and the cold plate is dull brass at 175 °F.
A. 2 863 Btu/hr B. 4, 587 Btu/hr C. 5, 215 Btu/hr D. 6, 142 Btu/hr
9. A thin square steel plate, 10 cm on a side, heated in a blacksmith’s forge to a temperature of 800°C. If the emissivity is 0.60, what is the total rate of
radiation of energy?
A. 900 W B. 700 W C. 500 W D. 600 W
10. A quartz radiant heater has two cylindrical tubes 40 cm long and 1 cm radius. The heater is designed to produce 1300 watts of radiant power. What
would be the temperature of the tubes if the emissivity of the tubes is 0.60?
A. 570 K B. 934 K C. 980 K D. 1068 K
11. Two very large walls are at the constant temperatures of 800 °F and 1000 °F. Assuming that they are black bodies, how much heat must be removed
in BTU/ ft2-hr from the colder wall Io maintain a constant temperature?
A.3500 B. 4000 C. 4500 D. 5000
12. Calculate the total heat loss by radiation and convection from an unlagged horizontal steam pipe of 50 mm outside diameter at 425 K to air at 290K.
A. 344.7 W/m B. 163. 7 W/m C. 181.0 W/m D. 421.4 W/m
13. The theoretical body where the absorptivity and emissivity are independent of the wavelength over the spectral region of the irradiation and the surface
emission Is called
A. black body B. gray body C. opaque body D. transparent body
14. The arnount of radiation emitted in all directions and overall wavelengths by a perfect emitter is proportional to the fourth power of the absolute
temperature of the emitter. This is the statement of
A. Stefan-Boltzman law B, Kirchoff’s law C. Wien's law D. Planck’s law
15. An ideal surface that absorbs all incident radiation regardless of wavelength and direction and is also considered as a perfect emitter is referred to as a
A. gray body B. black body C. pin hole D. Black hole
16. Which of the following provides the basis of radiation heat transfer?
A. Newton’s law B. Fourier’s Law
C. Torrecelli's theorem D. Stefan Boltzmann law
17. Which of the following is the usual geometric view factor for a black body?
A. zero B. Infinity C. one D. Indeterminate
18. What do you call the effectiveness of a body as a thermal radiator at a given temperature?
A. Absorptivity B. Conductivity C. emissivity D. reflectivity
19. Ïn using the design equation of heat transfer, q= UAΔTln the U and A may either be based on the inside or outside area of the pipe. For a system
where air is flowing inside a pipe while being heated by condensing steam outside the pipe, the proper U and A to be used is
A. based on the inside are C. based on the outside area
B. it doesn’t matter D. none of these
20. In a heat exchanger, the area of heat transfer is calculated from the
A. the total lateral area of the tubes C. the total cross-sectional area of the tubes
B. the mean lateral area of the shell D. the cross-sectional area of the shell
21. ln a heat transfer equipment, dirt or scale may be accounted by introducing a resistance called
A. factor of safety B. X – factor C. fouling factors D. max factor
22. It is a method developing the design for a heat exchanger wherein the engineer assures the existence of an exchanger and makes calculations to
determine If the exchanger would handle the process requirements under reasonable conditions,
A. Exchanger modeling C. rating an exchanger
B. exchanger calculation D. performance rating
23. On one side of a heat exchanger is a condensing vapor the temperature may be assumed to be constant. In determining the logarithmic mean
temperature difference, the direction of flow will have
A. large effect B. little effect C. no effect D. significant effect
----------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS------------------------------------------------------
EVAPORATION
Single Effect Evaporator without BPR
(1-4) A solution is to be concentrated from 10 to 65% solids in a vertical long-tube evaporator. The solution has a negligible elevation of boiling point and its
specific can be taken to be the same as that of water. Steam is available 203. 6 kPa, and the condenser operates 13.33 kPa. The feed enters the
evaporator at 295°K. The total evaporation is to be 25000 kg/hr of water. Overall heat transfer coefficient is 2800 W/m 2 -K.
1. Calculate the heat transfer required kW.
A. 19800 B. 17523 C. 24582 D. 30900
A.28700 B. 35400 C. 40100 D. 43600
A. 24. 2 B. 34.8 C. 70.8 D. 90.7
A. 0.45 B. 0.67 C. 0.87 D. 0.98
Single Effect Evaporator with BPR
5. A single-effect evaporator is used to concentrate 25, 000 lb/hr of a NaOH solution from 10% to 50% concentration. The evaporator is supplied with 15
psig steam. The feed is at 100°F. It operates under a vacuum of 26 in Hg referred to a 30-in barometer. If U=450 Btu/hr-ft.2- °F. Calculate the heat
transfer surface area in ft2 .
A. 965. 4 B. 780.2 ft2 C. 600.2 ft2 D. 450.3 ft2
6. A single-effect evaporator is used to concentrate 25, 000 lb/hr of a NaOH solution from 10% to 50% concentration. The evaporator is supplied with 15
psig steam. The feed is at 100°F. It operates under a vacuum of 26 in Hg referred to a 30-in barometer. If U=450 Btu/hr-ft.2- °F. Calculate the steam
consumption in lb/hr.
A. 18, 200 B. 23, 892 C. 25, 400 D. 27, 654
Multiple Effect Evaporation
7. A three effect evaporator uses original steam at a saturation pressure of 174. 4 kPa gauge. The total boiling point rose is 8.2 °K in the first effect, 13.9
°K in the second effect end 22.2 °K in the third effect. The limiting pressure which must be maintained in the vapor space of the third effect in order for
the evaporator to operate is
DAILY TEST
{1-2} Water vapor leaving a single effect evaporator is to be condensed using water at 70 °F. The evaporator produces 24000 lb/hr of vapor from a solution
having negligible BPE. The condenser has an area of 665.4 ft2. Experience has shown that 480 000 lb/hr of cooling water can be used and that the
overall heat transfer coefficient is 500 Btu/hr-ft.2 - °F
1. Find the condensing temperature in the evaporator.
A. 190 °F B.180 °F C. 170 °F D. 160 °F
2. Find the pressure in the evaporator.
3. A single-effect evaporator is to concentrate 20, 000 lb/hr of a 20 % solution of NaOH to 50% solid. The gauge pressure of the steam is to be 20 psig;
the absolute pressure in the vapor is to be 100 mmHg. The overall coefficient is estimated to be 250 Btu/hr-ft.2- °F The feed temperature is 100°F.
Calculate the steam consumption in lb/hr.
A. 15 400 B. 12 500 C. 18, 000 D. 9 800
4. From the data in problem 3, calculate the steam economy.
A. 0.65 B. 0.46 C.0.78 D. 0.92
5. From the data in problem 3, calculate the heating area required in square foot.
A. 900 B. 930 C. 970 D. 990
6. in evaporation operation, the valuable product is called.
A. thick liquor B. vapor C. water D. residue
7. When the pressure of the evaporator chamber is decrease, the boiling point of the solution inside the chamber will
A. increase B. remains the same C. decrease D. none of these
8. When the pressure of the heating steam in an evaporator is increased, the steam consumption for a given duty and heat transfer area will
A. increase B. remains the same C. decrease D. none of these
9. It is the method of feeding in evaporation where the dilute liquid enters an intermediate effect, flows in forward feed to the end of the series, and is then
pumped back to the first effect for final concentration.
A. forward feed B. backward feed C. mixed feed D. parallel feed
10. Total capacity of 4 effect evaporator is _____ that of a single effect evaporator with the same heating surface equal to that one of the effects when
operated under the same terminal conditions.
A. twice B. equal to C. 4 times D. ¼
BRING HOME EXAM

“The best an individual can do is to concentrate on what he or she can do, in the course of a burning effort to do it better”
Elizabeth Bowen (1899-1973) Irish Novelist and Short Story Writer
1. A solution of organic colloids is to be concentrated from 20 to 65% wt-% solinds in a single effect evaporator. Saturated steam is available at 172 kPa
and the pressure in the condenser is 61.67 cmHG vacuum. The feed enters at 15 °C and its specific heat is 4.0 J/g-C. The solution has negligible
elevation evaporate 9000 kg/hr of water. Given those conditions, the steam consumption in kg/hr is
A. 5000 B. 3600 C. 10 500 D. 16400
2. Referring to problem 1, the estimated heating surface area required in square meters is
A. 35 B. 65 C. 85 D. 120
3. Referring to problem 1, the economy of evaporation is
A.0.71 B. 0.86 C. 0.67 D. 0.91
4. A feed of 4535 kg/h of a 2.0 wt % salt solution at 311K enters a single-effect evaporator and is being concentrated to 3.0% . The evaporation is at
atmospheric pressure and the area of the evaporator is 69.7 m2. Saturated steam at 383.2 K is supplied for heating. Since the solution is dilute, it can
be assumed to have the same boiling point as water. The heat capacity of the feed can be taken as Cp= 4.10 kJ/kg-K. Calculate the overall heat
transfer coefficient U in W/m2-K.
A. 1762 B.1790 C. 1823 D. 1941
5. A single effect evaporator concentrates 10000 lb/hr of a 10% (by weight) aqueous solution of NaOH to 50% . The feed enters AT 70 °F. The
evaporator operates at an absolute pressure of 3 inHg, and in these conditions the boiling paint of 50% solution of NaOH is 190 °F. What is the heat-
transfer rate in the evaporator in BTU/hr?
A. 9 260 000 B. 8 900 100 C. 7 650 400 D. 7 100 000
6. A continuous, horizontal tube evaporator is fed with a 50% caustic soda solution at 65°F and the product is continuously discharged al 230 °F. The
product contains 30 lb of caustic soda per 100 lb of water. The overall coefficient of heat transfer is 300 Btu/hr-ft.2- °F. Steam is available at 30 psig.
How many square feet of area are needed per 100 lb of dilute water per hour?
A. 4. 25 B. 5.20 C. 6. 42 D. 6.84
7. A 10% wt NaOH solution at 80 °F is to be concentrated in a single effect evaporator to 40% wt. Steam is supplied at 20 psig and the vacuum pressure
of the barometric condenser is 26 inHg. One hundred gallons per minute of water at 70 °F is fed to the condenser and the water leaving the condenser
which includes the condensate, is at 100 °F The overall heat transfer coefficient of the evaporator is 200 Btu/hr-ft.2 - °F. Calculate the heating surface
required for the evaporator in square feet.
A. 910 B. 127 C. 520 D. 1400
8. 2.5 kg/s of a solution at 288K containing 10% dissolved solids is fed to a forward-feed double effect evaporator operating at a pressure of 14 kPa in
the last effect. If the product is to consist of a liquid containing 50% by weight of dissolved solids and dry saturated steam is fed to the steam coils,
what should be the pressure of the steam? The surface in each effect is 50 sq. m. and the coefficients for heat transfer in the first and second effects
are 2.8 and 1.7 kW/sq, m.-K respectively. Assume that the concentrated solution exhibits a boiling point rise of 5 degK, that the latent heat has a
constant value of 2260-kJ/kg and that the specific heat of the liquid stream is constant at 3. 75 kJ/kgK.
A.115 kpa B. 101.3 kpa C 14 kpa D. zero gauge
9. An evaporator is concentrating F kg/h alt311 K of a 20 wt % solution of N aOH to 50% . The saturated steam used for heating is at 399.3 K. The
pressure in the vapor space of the evaporator is 13. 3 kpa abs. the overall coefficient is 1420 W/ m 2- K and the area is 86.4 m2. Calculate the feed rate
F of the evaporator.
A. 8900 kg/h B. 8976 kg/h C. 9010 kg/h D. 9072 kg/h
10. A colloidal solution is to be concentrated from 15 to 65% solids. The specific heat of the feed, entering at 50 deg Fis 0.93. The presence of the
saturated steam to the evaporator is 10 psia; the condenser pressure is 5-in Hg abs. The steam chest has an overall transfer coefficient of 200 Btu/hr-
sq. ft – degF. Water must be evaporated at the rate of 35, 000 lb/hr. Neglecting bolllng point elevation, what is the steam consumption [lb/hr]?
A. 10500 B. 35000 C. 40130 D.45500
11. An evaporator, working at atmospheric pressure is to concentrate a solution from 5% to 20% solids at a rate of 1.25 kg/s. The solution which has a
specific heat of 4.18 kJ/kg-K is fed to the evaporator at 295 K and boils at 380K. Dry saturated steam at 240 kPa is fed to the calandria and the
condensate leaves at the temperature of the condensing steam. If the heat transfer coefficient is 2.3 kW/sq. m –K, what is the required area of heat
transfer surface. The lalent heat of vaporization maybe taken as the same as that of water
A. 55.0 m2 B. 58.5 m2 C. 85.8 m2 D. 88.5 m2
12. An evaporator is used to concentrate 10 000 lb/hr of a 20% solution of NaOH is water at 140F using saturated steam at 25 psia at a rate of 7 000 lb/hr.
The OHTC is 275 Btu/hr-ft.2- °F when the pressure in the vapor is 1.7 psia. The steam economy, SE, is
A. 0.82 B. 0.863 C. 0.89 D. 0.92
13. It refers to any layer or deposit of extraneous material on a heat-transfer surface
A. scaling B. salting C. fouling D.boiling
14. It is frequently caused by crystallization of a material whose solubility at the wall temperature is lower than at the bulk liquid temperature.
A. scaling B. salting C. fouling D.boiling
----------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS------------------------------------------------------
WEEKLY EXAM 10
Thermodynamics, Chemical Reaction Engineering, Heat Transfer and Evaporation
INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding
to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
1. A solution of organic colloids in water is to be concentrated from 13 to 50 percent solids in a single effect evaporator. Steam is available at a gauge
pressure of 1.03 atm (120.5°C). A pressure of 102mmHg is to be maintained in the vapor space; this corresponds to a boiling point for water of 51.2°.
The feed rate to the evaporator is 25, 000 kg/hr. The overall heat transfer coefficient can be taken as 2, 800 W/m 2 C. The solution has a negligible
elevation in boiling point and a negligible heat of dilution. The specific heat of the feed solution is 3.77 J/g-C. If the temperature of the feed is 51.7 °C,
calculate the steam consumption.
A. 18, 450 kg/hr B. 19, 800 kg/hr C. 20, 452 kg/hr D. 21 118 kg/hr
2. From the data in problem number 1, calculate the heating surface area required.
A. 85.4 m2 B. 95.6 m2 C. 104.2 m2 D. 112.8 m2
3. From the data in problem number 1, calculate the steam economy.
A. 0.75 B. 0.84 C. 0.95 D. 1.0
elevation in boiling point and a negligible heat of dilution. The specific heat of the feed solution is 3.77 J/g-C. If the temperature of the feed is 93.3°C,
A. 18, 450 kg/hr B. 19, 378 kg/hr C. 20, 452 kg/hr D. 21 118 kg/hr
A. 211 m2 B. 195.6 m2 C. 184.2 m2 D. 172.8 m2
A. 0.75 B. 0.84 C. 0.95 D. 1.0
7. A solution of organic colloids is to be concentrated from 20 to 65 percent solids in a vertical tube evaporator. The solution has a negligible elevation in
boiling point, and the specific heat of feed is
0.93 kJ/kg-K. Saturated steam is available at 0.7 atm abs, and the pressure in the condenser is 100 mmHg. The feed enters at 60°F and the overall
heat transfer coefficient is 1700 W/m2 -°C. The evaporator must evaporate 20, 000 kg of water per hr. How many square meters of surface area are
required?
A. 2.82m2 B. 12. 44 m2 C. 24.12 m2 D. 35. 74
8. from the data in problem #7, calculate the steam consumption.
A. 426 kg/hr B. 548.9 kg/hr C. 671.2 kg/hr D. 710.5 kg/hr
9. Water leaves the nozzle (25 mm diameter) of a fire hose at a velocity of 25 m/s. What will be the reaction force at the nozzle which the fireman will
need to counter balance?
A. 307 N B. 380 N C. 422 N D. 455 N
10. Compare the costs of electricity at P 1.00 per kWh and gas at P15. 00 per term.
A. Cost of electricity Is P0.14 per MJ
B. Cost of gas is P 0.28 per MJ
C. Cost of electricity is P0.14 per MJ less than cost of gas
D. Cost of electricity is P0. 14 per MJ more than cost of gas
11. A boiler plant raises 5.2 kg/s of steam al 1825 kN/m2 pressure, using coal of calorific value 27. 2 MJ/kg. If the boiler efficiency is 75% , how much coal
is consumed per day?
A 0.12 kg/s B. 0.71 kg/s C. 4.22 kg/s D. 10.12 kg/s
12. From the data in problem #5, if the steam is used to generate electricity, what is the power generation in kilowatts assuming a 20% conversion
efficiency of the turbines and generators?
A. 1 MW B. 3 MW C. 5MW D. 7 MW
13. Stalagmometer is used for the measurement of
A. kinematic viscosity B. surface tension C. refractive Index D. Optical activity
14. For acetone at 20°C and 1 bar, volume expansivity (β) =1.487 E-3/°C, isothermal compressibility (К) = 62E-6 bar and specific volume (V)= 2.187
cm3/g. The value of (∂P/∂T) v is
A. 24 bar/°C B 42 bar/°C C. 10 bar/°C D.33 bar/°C
cm3/g. the pressure generated when acetone is heated at constant volume from 20°C and 1 bar to 30°C is
A. 241 bar B. 110 bar C. 177 bar D. 220 bar
cm3/g. The volume change (in cm3/g) when acetone is changed from 20 °C and 1 bar to 0 °C and 10 bar.
A. 0.038 B. -0.0038 C. 0.144 D. -0.144
17. An oil is in laminar flow in a ½-in I.D. tube at 6 gal/min. The oil viscosity is 300 centipoises, and its density is 60 lb/ft3. Calculate the pressure drop per
foot of pipe length in psia.
A. 0.45 B. 112 C. 42.1 D. 7.84
18. An oil is in laminar flow in a ½-in I.D. tube at 6 gal/min. The oil viscosity is 300 centipoises, and its density is 60 lb/ft3. Calculate the wall stress in lbf/ft2
A. 1.18 B. 10.2 C. 25.1 D. 43.55
19. An oil is in laminar flow in a ½-in I.D. tube at 6 gal/min. The oil viscosity is 300 centipoises, and its density is 60 lb/ft3. Calculate the velocity at the
center of the tube in ft/s.
A. 5.4 B. 12.5 C. 19.6 D. 9.8
20. An oil is in laminar flow in a ½-in I.D. tube at 6 gal/min. The oil viscosity is 300 centipoises, and its density is 60 lb/ft3. Calculate the radial position at
which the point velocity is equal to the average velocity in inches.
A. 0.177 B. 0.085 C. 0.244 D. 0.221
21. A flat furnace wall consist of a 6-in layer of firebrick (k=0.95 Btu/fr-ft-°F), 4-in of insulating brick (k=0.14), and 4-in of common brick (k=0.8). The fire-
wall temperature is 1800 °F and the outer surface is 120 °F. Determine the heat loss through the wall in Btu/fr-ft-°F
A. 506 B. 720 C. 882 D. 1208
22. A mole of steam is compressed al 100 °C, and the water is cooled to 0°C and frozen to ice. What is the entropy of the water In cal / °K?
A. -36.9 B. -35. 1 C. -34. 8 D. -34. 3
23. If coal having a heat of combustion of 14, 000 BTU/lb is used in a heating plant of 50% efficiency, how many pounds of steam of 50% quality and 212
°F temperature can be made per pound of this coal from water whose initial temperature is 70 °F?
A. 11.12 Ib B. 12.04 lb C.12.76 Ib D. 13.21 lb
24. Exhaust steam from a turbine exhaust into a surface condenser at a mass flow rate of 4000 kJ/hr, 9.59 kpa, and 92% quality. Cooling water enters the
condenser al 15°c and leaves al the steam inlet temperature. The cooling water mass rate in kg/hr is closest tp
A. 157, 200 B. 70, 200 C. 95 000 D. 88 000
25. Air enters a preheater at 75 °F and leaves 225 °F. the hot gas leaves
120 at 265 °F. Find the temperature of the hot entering when the logarithmic mean temperature dereference is 140 °F and the flow is countercurrent.
A. 300 °F B. 325 °F C. 340 °F D. 350 °F
26. A water cooler uses 50 lb/hr of melting ice to cool running water from 80 °F to 42 °F. Based on the inside coil area, Ui = 110 Btu/hr-ft.2- °F. Find the
logarithmic mean temperature difference.
A. 17.42 °F B. 19.85 °F C. 22.15 °F D. 24.24 °F
27. From, the data in problem 26, calculate the inside area of the coil in ft2
A. 1.410 B. 2.664 C. 3.080 D. 4.120
28. From the data in problem 26, calculate the gpm of water cooled.
A. 0.285 B. 0.380 C.0.431 D. 0.489
29. An economizer receives hot gas (Cp= 0.27 Btu/lb-R) and water in the ration of 1.5 lbgas/ lb water. The gas enters at 850 °F and leaves at 355 °F; the
water enters at 120 °F. Find the exit temperature if the flow is parallel.
A. 320 °F B. 340 °F C.350 °F D. 360 °F
30. From the data in problem 29, calculate the logarithmic mean temperature difference. .
A. 170 °F B. 190 °F C. 230 °F D. 250 °F
31. Hot gases at 280 ° C flow on one side ofa metal pipe of 10mm thickness and air at 35 ° C flows on the other side. The heat transfer coefficient of the
gases is 31. 5 W/ m2 -K and that of the air is 32 W/ m2 -K. Calculate the overall heat transfer coefficient.
A. 14.82 W/m2 -K B. 15.82 W/m2 -K C. 16.82 W/m2 –K D. 17.82 W/m2-K
32. Cold air at 10 °C is forced to flow over a flat plate maintained at 40 °C. The mean heat transfer coefficient is 30 W/m2 –K. Find the heat flow rate from
the plate to the air through a plate are of 2 m2 . Assume radiation is negligible.
A. 1.8 kW B. 2.0 kW C. 2. 2 kW D. 2. 4 kW
33. A single-pass surface condenser with 5/8-in OD tubes whose thickness is 0.046 inch and length of 18 feet, receives 12 000 lb/hr of steam at 84 °F
with an enthalpy of h= 960 Bti/ ib. the resulting condensate leaves saturated at 84 °F with little change of kinetic energy. Circulating water enters the
tubes counter flow at 68 °F and leaves at 78 °F. lf the heat transfer coefficient is U= 630 Btu/hr-ft.2- °F, find the rete of flow of water in lb/hr.
A. 10,180,00 B. 12,200,000 C. 12,800,200 D.14,300,100
34. From the data in problem 33, calculate the heating surface required in ft2 .
A. 13, 500 B. 14, 680 C.15, 850 D. 16, 900
35. From the data in problem 33, calculate the number of tubes required
A. 5 200 B. 5 290 C. 5 300 D. 5 380
36. From the data in problem 33, calculate the average velocity of water is fps
A.4.22 B.5.00 C.5.44 D. 6.25
37. A 14-inch steel pipe (15-in OD), with a 3-in, 85% magnesia lagging in concentrically suspended in a 7 ft diameter concrete tunnel. For the outer
insulation surface t=125 °F, and the film coefficient of free convection, excluding radiation, is 1.8 Btu/hr-ft.2- °F. If the ambient air and concrete surface
temperature are 80 °F, find the equivalent fil coefficient for radiation in Btu/hr-ft.2- °F.
A. 7.80 B. 1.48 C. 12.5 D. 24.9
38. From the data in problem 37, calculate the total heat lost from 500 ft. of piping
A. 406500 Btu/hr B. 450500 btu/hr C.510320 btu/hr D.540600 btu/hr
39. In an oil cooler, water flows at the rate of 360 kg/h per tube through metal tubes of outer diameter 19 mm and thickness1.3 mm, along the outside of
which oil flows in the opposite direction at the rate of 6.675 kg/s per tube. If the tubes are 2 m long and the inlet temperatures of the oil and water are
370K and 280 K respectively, what will be the outlet temperature? The coefficient of heta transfer on the oil side is 1.7 kW/m2 -K and on the water side
2. 5 kW/m2 -K and the specific heat of the oil is 1.9 kJ/kg-K.
A. 304 K B. 324K C. 344K D. 364 K
40. For the reaction A+B → 2C when Ca is doubled the rate doubles, when Cb is doubled the rate
Increases fourfold. The rate law is
A. –ra=k Ca^2 Cb^2 B. –ra=k Ca Cb^2 C. –ra=k Ca D. –ra=k Cb^2
41. If the temperature of a chemical reaction raised by 10 °C, the rale of reaction is Increased by a factor of about
A. 2 B. 4 C. 1.5 D. 3
42. The set of data given below is for the parallel reaction: a---k1 2R, a---k2S. At t=0, Ca=15 moles/cult, Cr=1 mole/cult, Cs=1 mole/cult; At t=1 hr,
Cro=( moles/ cult, Cs = 3 moles/cuft. The
value of k2 per hour is
A. 0.1697 B. 0.183 C. 0.3394 D. 0.6197
43. Determine the volume required for an adiabatic mixed-flow reactor processing 56.64 L/min of a liquid feed containing reactant R and inerts I flowing at
a rate of 0.67 mol/min and 0.33 mol/min, respectively. In the reactor, R is isomerized to S and T (90% fractional conversion of R) by the following
elementary reaction: RS + T. Feed enters the reactor at 300 °K. Data on the system are as follows:
Heat Capacities: R = 7 cal/mol- °C, S= T= 4 cal/mol- °C, I = 8 cal/mol- °C
Reaction rate constant at 298 K: k=0.12/hr
Activation energy: E= 25000 cal/mol
Heat of reaction at 273 °K: ΔH= -333 cal/ mol of R
A. 9240 L B. 8925 L C. 8022 L D. 7551 L
44. The concentration of A in a first order reaction AB decreases
A. Linearly with time C. Exponentially with time
B. Very abruptly toward the end of the reaction D. Logorithmically with time
45. The ratio of moles of a reactant converted into the desired product to that converted into unwanted product is called
A. Operational yield B. Relative yield C. Selectivity D. % conversion
46. BET apparatus is used to determine the
A. specific surface of porous catalyst C. Pore size distribution
B. Pore diameter D. porosity of the catalyst bed
47. The equilibrium constant in a reversible chemical reaction at a given temperature
A. depends on the initial concentration of the reactants
B. depends on the concentration of one of the products at equilibrium
C. does not depend on the initial concentrations
D. is not a characteristic of the reaction
48. For the reaction 4A + B  2C + 2D, which of the following statements is not correct?
A. the rate of disappearance of B is 1/4 the rate of appearance of A
B. the rate of appearance of C is 1/2 the rate of disappearance of A
C. the rate of disappearance of C is ½ the ratio of the consumption of A
D. the rate of formation of C and D are equal
A. increasing the temperature B. Decreasing the temperature
C. adding a catalyst D. removing the products of the reaction
50. Which of the following statements is the bust explanation for the effect of increase in temperature on the rate of reaction?
A. it increases the number of particles with the necessary activation energy
B. It enables the reacting particles with the necessary activation energy
C. it lowers the activation energy for the reaction
D. it enables the activated complex to be more easily converted to the products
51. An elementary reaction has k=0.18L/mol-s, the order of the reaction is
A. zero B. first C. second D. third
52. The boiling point of a given solution is a linear function of the boiling point of pure water at the same pressure.
A. Steffi’s rule B. Duhring’s rule C. Havluck rule D. McCabe Thiele rule
53. For the same duty and heat transfer area, the feed forward flow evaporator is __________ compared to the backward flow evaporator in terms of heat
transfer.
A. more efficient B. less effiecient C. just the same D. needs more data
54. The total amount of evaporation an evaporator is capable of producing per unit of time.
A. economy B. steam consumption C. capacity D. fouling factors
55. In evaporation, it is a type of feeding where the fresh solution is introduced in the last effect and goes to the preceding effects until the first effect
where its concentration is lowest.
A. forward feeding B. parallell feeding C. mixed feeding D. backward feeding
56. An evaporator is used to concentrate 10 000 lb/hr of a 20% solution of NaOH in water at 140F using saturated steam at 25 psia at a rate of 7 000 lb/hr.
The OHTC is 275 Btu/hr-ft.2- °F when the pressure in the vapor is 1.7 psia. The steam economy, SE, is
A. 0.72 B. 0.86 C. 0.99 D. 0.62
elevation in boiling point and a negligible heat of dilution. The specific heat of the feed solution is 3.77 J/g-C. If the temperature of the feed is 21.1 °C,
‘ A. 22,398 kg/hr B. 19, 800 kg/hr C. 20,452 kg/hr D.21 118kg/hr
A. 85.4 m2 B. 95.6 m2 C. 104.2 m2 D. 74.5 m2
A. 0.75 B. 0.89 C. 0.95 D. 1.03
60. A steam-jet booster compresses 0. 1 kg/s of dry and saturated vapor from 3.4 kN/ m2 to 13.4 kN/ m2. The high pressure steam consumption is a 0.05
kg/s at 690 kN/ m2. What must be the condition of the high pressure steam for the booster discharge to be superheated by 20 degK?
A. superheated by 15 deqK C. saturated
B. superheated by 30 degK D. superheated by 45 degK
61. From the data in problem #60 : What is the overall efficiency of the booster if the compression efficiency is 100 % ?
A. 77% B. 45% C. 62% D. 91%
62. Forty-five pounds per minute of water is heated from 60 to 180 deg F in a 5/8 in., 16 BWG heat exchanger tube. If the steam condensing at 260 deg F,
on the outside of the tube gives an ho of 1000 BTU/hr-sq ft.-degF. Calculate the inside heat transfer coefficient [Btu/hr-cu. ft- degF].
A. 2173 B. 696 C. 577 D. 241
63. A cross flow heat exchanger uses mixed air at 4 kg/s that enters at 15 oC and leaves at 45oC. The air cools unmixed water, which enters at 95oC and
0.70kg/s. The OHTC equals 150 W/ m2. After several months of operation, a scale resistance of 0.002m2-oC/W developed. The heat transfer area
required to accomplish the change is.
A. 22.2 m2 B. 25 m2 C. 17m2 D. 20 m2
64. A building wall consists of a 6-in of concrete (kc= 0.7 Btu/hr-ft-degF), 2 in of fiber insulating board and 3/8 in of gypsum board (kg=0.03 Btu/hr-ft.2- °F).
The inside and outside heat coefficients are 2 and 7 Btu/hr-ft.2- °F, respectively. The inside temperature is 72 degF and the outside temperature is 20
degF. Determine the overall heat transfer coefficient for this wall [Btu/hr-ft.2- °F].
A. 0.028 B. 0.119 C. 0.714 D. 6.01
65. A furnace is constructed with 225 mm of fïrebrick, 120 mm of insulating brick and 225 mm of building brick. The inside temperature is 1200K and the
outside temperature is 3300K. If the thermal conductivities are 1.4, 0.2 and 0.7 W/m-K, find the heat loss per unit area in W/ m2
A. 458.9 B.562.1 C. 710.8 D.803.3
66. From the data in #65, find the temperature at the junction of the firebrick and insulating brick.
A. 1140 K B. 1071 K C. 784 K D. 569 K
67. From the data in #65, find the temperature at the junction of the insulating brick and building brick.
A. 1140 K B. 1071 K C. 784 K D. 569 K
68. A wall is made of brick, of thermal conductivity 1.0 kW/m-K, 230 mm thick with plaster of thermal conductivity, 0. 4 W/m-K and of thickness 10mm. If a
temperature difference of 30K is maintained between the two outer faces, what is the heat flow per unit area of wall?
A. 110W B. 119 W C. 129 W D. 140 W
69. If a man touches two metals which were kept together at room temperature, why would one metal feel colder than the other?
A. one has a high heat transfer coefficient C. one has a high thermal conductivity
B. one has a lower temperature D. one has a higher temperature
70. Which one among the following materials has the best insulating properties?
A. window glass B wood C. air D. concrete
71 The driving force in heat transfer is
A. concentration gradient C. viscosity gradient
B. temperature gradient D. thickness of the solid in question
A. mercury B. gasoline C. water D. alcohol
73. What is the reason why Styrofoam is a good insulating material?

A. because it contains many tiny pockets of air
B. Styrofoam is a white object
C. The structure of Styrofoam is very unstable and heal cannot flow
D. Styrofoam structure is very dense
74. Which of the following is not a good conductor of heat?
A. metals B. rocks C. glass D. asbestos
A. gasoline B. glycerin C. water D. Alcohol
76. What happens to the thermal conductivity of diatomic gases if the temperature is increase?
A. the thermal conductivity will also increase
B. The thermal conductivity remains constant
C. the thermal conductivity decreases
D. The thermal conductivity partially increases then decreases
77. Thermal conductivity of animal wool at 30°C in Btu/hr-ft.2- °F is
A. 0.006 B.0.021 C. 0.084 D.0.108
78. Thermal conductivity of silk at 200°F in Btu/hr-ft.2 - °F is
A. 0.007 B.0.034 C. 0.089 D. 1.805
79. The average bulk density of manganese sulfate in lb/ft3 is
A. 33 B. 45 C. 60 D. 70
80. The average bulk density of cryolite in lb/ft3 is
A. 110 B. 100 C. 90 D. 80
81. Density of 40% aqueous solution of acetic acid at 25C in g/mL is
A. 1.0621 B. 1.0557 C. 1. 0488 D.1.0450
82. Density of glycerol at 50 °C.
83. Melting point of formic acid in K is
A. 8.4 B. 84 C. 840 D. 281.4
84. Thermal conductivity of toluene at 60 °C in W/m-K is
A. 0.040 B.0.007 C.0.890 D.0.124
85. A refractory material with an emissivity of 0.40at 1500K and 0.43 at 1420K is at a temperature of 1420 K and is exposed to black furnace walls at a
temperature of 1500 K. What is the rate of gain of heat by radiation per unit area in kW/m2 ?
A. 18.2 B. 24.3 C. 26.9 D. 34.1
86. For a particular process at 450 K, ΔG= -5.2 kJ and ΔH= -43.7 kJ. If the process is carried out reversibly, the amount of maximum useful work that can
be performed is:
A. -48.9 kJ B. -5.2 kJ C. -43.7 kJ D.-38.5 kJ
87. 1000 gal/ min of water is cascading down a height of 100 feet from a reservoir. If half of the energy generated is converted to electrical energy, how
many 100-watts bulb can be lighted in 30 seconds?
A. 84 B. 86 C. 94 D. 90
88. A 2200-g automobile traverling at 90 kph (25 m/s) hits the rear of a stationary 1000-kg automobile. After the collision the large automobile slows to 50
kph (13.89 m/s), and the smaller vehicle has a speed of 88 kph (24.44 m/s). What has been the increase in internal energy, energy, taking both
vehicles as the system? \
A. 120.7 kJ B. 176.6 kJ C.145.2 kJ D. 15.1 kJ
89. Calculate the energy stored in 1000 cm3 of gas at 80 MN/ m2 at 290 °K using STP as the datum.
A.-47.7 kJ B. -75.2 kJ C. -90.1 kJ D. 116.5 kJ
90. The efficiency of an ideal Otto cycle is 40% . What is the hot air value of k, if the compression ratio is 6.2.
A. 1.28 B. 1.38 C. 1.25 D. 1.35
91. A Carnot machine operates between a hot reservoir at 200 °C and a cold reservoir at 20 °C. When it operates as an engine, it receives 1000 kJ/kg,
find the coefficient of performance (COP), when operated as a refrigerator.
A. 1.77 B. 1.81 C. 1.63 D. 1.97
92. An ice making machine operates cyclically and reversibly in the Carnot cycle between 0 °C and 25 °C. What hp will theoretically be needed to produce
one block of 100 kilos of ice at 0 °C per hour? Assume that the initial temperature of water is 0 °C/
A. 2.87 B. 4.12 C. 1.14 D. 3.90
93 A refrigerator is proposed that will require 10 hp to extract 3 MJ of energy each minute from a space which is maintained at -18 ° C. The outside air is
at 20 °C. is this possible?
A. Maybe B. No C. yes D. cannot be determined
94. The reason for insulating the pipes is
A. They may not break under pressure
B. capacity to withstand pressure is increased
C. there is minimum corrosion
D. heat loss from the surface is minimized
95. In steady state heat conducting system, where no generation of heat is involved, which statement is always true?
A. Heat flux is always constant
B. Rate of heat transfer is constant
C. temperature gradient is constant of transfer
D. rate of heat transfer vary along the direction of transfer
96. In steady state heat transfer through series of materials with varying resistances, the heat transfer
rate
A. decreases towards the direction of heal transfer
B. varies with the thermal conductivity of each material
C. through each material is inversely proportional to the thickness of the material
D. is constant throughout the series of materials
97. A 10-cm diameter sphere is heated internally with a 100-W electric heater. The sphere dissipates heat by convection from its outer surface into the
ambient air. Calculate the convection heat transfer coefficient between the air and the sphere if the temperature difference between the sphere surface
and the ambient air is 50°C
A. 43. 1 W/m2 -°C B. 63.7 W/m2 -°C C. 72.4 W/m2 -°C D. 81. 6 W/m2 -°C
98. Obtain by dimensional analysis at a functional relationship for the wall heat transfer coefficient for a fluid flowing through a straight pipe of circular
cross-section. Assume that the effects of natural convection may be neglected in comparison with those of forced convection. It is found by experiment
that when the flow is turbulent, increasing the flow rate by a factor of 2 always results in a 50% increase in the coefficient. How would a 50% increase
density or a fluid would be expected to affect the coefficient all other variables remain constant?
A. coefficient is increased by 27% C. coefficient is decreased by 27%
B. coefficient is increased by 75% D. coefficient is decreased by 75%
99. Water vapor condenses at 1 atm on a tube whose surface temperature is at 80 °F, in analyzing the heat transfer through the condensate film, it is
best to evaluate the liquid properties at
A. 212 °F B. 80 °F C. 113 °F D. 146 °F
100. The main trunk duct of an air conditioning system is rectangular is cross section (16x30 in) and has air at 15 psia and 40”F flowing through it with a
velocity of 1400 fpm. Find hi in Btu/hr-ft.2- °F.
A. 40.0 B. 0.43 C. 4.50 D. 47.0
----------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS------------------------------------------------------
SCREENING & SIZE REDUCTION
Screening
1. The US Standard Sieve series equivalent to a 24 mesh Tyler Standard is ________.

A. 600 B. 100 C. 805 D. 707
2. The wire diameter of a 10 mesh screen whose aperture is 0.065 inch is
A. 0.045 in B. 0.025 in C. 0.035 in D.0.05 in
3. 1800 ibs of dolomite per hour is produced by crushing and then screening through a 14-mesh
Screen. The screen analysis as follows:
Tyler Mesh
Feed to screen Undersized (product) Screen oversize
(circulating load)
4 on 14.3 ------ 24
8 on 20.0 ------ 28
14 on 20.0 ------ 24
28 on 28.5 40 24
48 on 8.6 30 ------
100 on 5.7 20 ------
100 through 2.9 10 ------
The total load to the crusher is

A. 6300 ibs/hr B. 6510 lbs/hr C. 6400 lbs/hr D. 6320 lbs/hr
4. From the datat in problem 3, calculate the effectiveness of the screen.
A. 62.5% B. 64.0% C. 65.0% D. 60.0%
5. Fine silica is fed at 1500 lbs/ hr to a double-deck vibrating screen combination to obtain a 48/65 mesh (Tyler) product. The silica feed is introduced into
the upper screen of the 48 mesh and the product is discharged off the surface of the lower screen of 65 mesh. During the screening operation, the
ratio of the oversize to product to undersize is 2:1-1/2:1. Laboratory analysis of the different fractions (in mass fraction):
Screen Mesh Feed Oversize Product Undersize
10/35 0.282 0.5855 0.3385 0.00453

35/48 0.2580 0.3370 0.3220 0.00360
48/65 0.2810 0.0660 0.5260 0.34400
65/100 0.0910 0.0050 0.0670 0.29900
100/200 0.0970 0.0060 0.0260 0.35300
Calculate the effectiveness of the screening equipment.
A. 58.7% B. 48.7% C. 68.6% D. 45.6%
Size Reduction
6. The characteristic diameter of a solid particle where the volume is 10cm3 surface area of 15 cm2 shape factor is 1.2 is
A. 0.67 cm B. 4.8 cm C. 1.5 cm D. 2.67cm
7. The critical speed of a ball mill in rpm whose diameter is 12 inches with grinding balls of diameter 1/2-in is approximately ___________ rpm.
A. 60 B. 50 C. 90 D. 80
8. The work Index for sandstone is ________ (Hint : Use the ChE Handbook by Perry)
A. 2.68 B.12.12 C. 11.53 D. 16.40
9. Which of the following is a hard material? (Note: Refer to Moh’s scale Hardness)
A. gypsum B. fluorite C. apatite D. corundum
10. Calculate the power needed to reduce 100 ton/ hr of quartz (work index = 17.5 kW-hr/ ton in a grinding ball mill from an 80% passing size of 2 inches
to an 80% passing size of 1/8 inche.
A. 233 kW B. 292 kW C. 939 kW D. 1174 kW
11. A certain crusher accepts a feeed of rock having a volume-surface mean diameter of 0.75 inch and discharges a product of volume-surface mean
diameter of 0.20. The power required to crush 12 tons/hr is 9. 3 Hp. What should be the power consumption if the capacity is reduced to 10 tons/hr
and the volume-surface mean diameter to 0.15 inch? The mechanical efficiency remains unchanged. Use Kicks law.
A. 11.4 Hp B. 17.8 Hp C. 23.1 Hp D. 27.5 Hp
12 6000 lb of material goes through a crusher and grinder per hour in succession (on the same power drive) Screen analysis from the crusher shows a
surface area of product of 500 ft2 per lb. Screen analysis of the grinder product indicates a surface area of 4,200 ft2 per lb. The Riltingers number of
the material processed Ís 163 in per ft-lb. The efficiency of the crusher is estimated to be 25% , while that of the grinderis 30% . Estimate the total power
to be delivered to the equipment.
A. 38.4 Hp B. 30.5 Hp C. 26.4 Hp D. 18.5 Hp
DAILY TEST
1. The Brinell number of a material is a measure of
A. specific gravity B. density C. specific heat D. hardners
2. It is defined as the efficiency of technical grinding compared with that of laboratory crushing experiment
A. grinding efficiency B. Rittinge's number
B. Bond Work Index D. practical energy efficiency
3. The standard equipment recommended for automatically carrying out sieve test procedures with
Accuracy and dependability
A. end-shake sieve shaker C. braun sieve shaker
B. ro-tap shaker D. dynamic sieve shaker
4. lf the total percentage of particles larger than the screen opening in the feed, oversize, undersize are 30% , 89% and 3% , respectively the effectiveness
of the scree if the undersize is the product is
A. 0.98 B. 0.89 C. 0.76 D. 0.65
5. What is the specific surface in cm2 per g of quartz with a diameter of 2” and density 165 lb/ft3 and specific surface ratio of 10.
A. 45 B. 4.47 C. 9.5 D. 8.92
6. It is defines as the total weight of the surface of a unit weight or volume of a sold.
A. surface area B/ specific surface C. specific volume D. particle size
7. The hardness of a mineral is a criterion of its resistance to crushing. Which of the following is an
Example of a hard material?
A. Talc B. calcite C. sapphire D. feldspar
8. The ratio of the actual mesh dimension of Taylor series to that of the next smaller screen is
A. 2 B. √2 C. 1.5 D. None of these
9. The wire diameter of a 14 mesh screen (Tyler standard) is
A. 0.0235 in B.0.025 in C. 0.028 in D. 0.03 in
10. Power of 3 kW is supplied to a machine crushing material at the rate 0f 0.3 kg/ s from 12.5 mm cubes to a product having the following sizes: 80
percent 3. 175 mm, 10 percent 2.5-mm and 10 percent 2. 25mm. What power should be supplied to this machine to crush 0.3 kg/s of the same
materiai from 7.5 mm cube to 2.0 mm cube?
A. 3.6 kW B. 7.5 kW C. 12. 4 kW D. 16. 2 kW
BRINGHOME EXAM
“Live every act fully, as if it were your last” – Buddha
1. The material passing one screening surface and retained on a subsequent surface is called
A. intermediate material B. Minus material C. plus material D. oversize
2. Another name for revolving screen is
A. shaking screen C. vibrating screen
B. stationary screen D. trammel screen
3. The Bond work index for a mesh-of-grind of 700 mesh for a rock consisting mainly of quartz is 17.5 kWh/ton. How much power (in kW) is needed to
reduce the material in a wet-grinding ball mill from an 80 percent passing size of 1100 µm at a capacity of 10 ton per hour?
A. 120 kw B. 143 kw C. 176 kw D. 200 kw
4. The critical speed of a 6-ft diameter ball mill where the balls are considered small compared to the diameter of the ball is
A. 17.3 rpm B. 10.5 rpm C. 31.3 rpm D. 40 rpm
5. The work index for galena is ______ (Hint: Use the ChE Handbook by Perry)
A. 10.19 B. 12.37 C. 18.45 D. 5.39
6. It is desired to crush 10 tons/hr of iron hematite ore. The size of the feed is such that 80% passes a 3-inch (76.2 mm) screen and 60% of the product
is to pass 1/8 inches (3.175 mm) screen. Calculate the horsepower needed by the crusher.
A. 24.9 Hp B. 24.1 Hp C.25.6 Hp D. 17. 9 Hp
7. What is the power required to crush 100 ton/hr of limestone if 80 percent of the feed passes a 2-in screen and 80% of the product a 1/8 inch screen?
A. 120 Hp B. 160 Hp C. 185 Hp D. 227 Hp
8. Limestone is crushed by six units operating in parallel and the product separated by six 35 mesh screen also in parallel into two fractions. The effective
dimension of each screen is 6 ft. x 20 ft. The screen undersize from the six screen come out at the rate of 50 tons/ hr.
Mesh size Feed Size Oversize Undersize
6-8 0.075 0.080 0.020
8-10 0.125 0.145 0.055
10-14 0.100 0.170 0.090
20-28 0.125 0.150 0.085
29-35 0.125 0.280 0.100
35-48 0.175 0.050 0.150
48-65 0.225 ----- 0.150
65-100 0.050 ----- 0.250
pan ----- ----- 0.100
Assuming no loss, calculate the efficiency of screening operation

A. 72.10% B. 84.15% C. 65.21% D.55.44%
9. From the data in problem 8, calculate the capacity of each screen in tons per 24 hours per square foot.
A. 1.0 B. 1.5 C. 2.0 D. 2.5
10. If the total percentage of particles larger than the screen opening in the feed, oversize, undersize are 36% , 89% and 3% , respectively. The
effectiveness of the screen if the undersize is the product is
A. 0.98 B. 0.89 C. 0.76 D. 0.65
11. The opening of 200 mesh screen (Taylor series) is
A. 0.0074 cm B. 0.0074 mm C. 0.0047 cm D. 0.0047 mm
12. It is desired to separate the mixture of sugar crystals into two fractions, a course fraction retained on a 8 mesh screen and a fine fraction passing
through it. Screen analysis of feed, course and fine fraction shows; mass fraction of +8 particles in course fraction. 0.88; mass fraction of +8 particles
in fine fraction = 0.32. The overall effectiveness of the screen used for the separation purpose per 100 kg of feed is
A. 45% B. 55% C. 40% D. 47.8%
13. Given Xf=0.45; Xp =0.65 Xp Xr=0.175; find the effectiveness of the screen.
A. 60.8% B. 55.6% C. 52.8% D. 63.8%
14 Which of the following is the hardest? Refer to Moh’s Scale hardness in the handbook.
A. talc B. apatite C. topaz D. quartz
15. The ratio of the average diameter of the feed to the average diameter of the product is the
A. settling ratio C. reduction ratio
B. diameter ratio D. classification ratio
16. In crushing a certain ore, the feed is such 80% is less than the 50.00 mm in size and the product size is such that 80% is less than 6.35 mm. The
power required is 89.5 kW. Use the Bond equation, calculate the power require using the same feed so that 80% of the resulting product is less than
3.18 mm in size.
A. 147.6 kW B. 157.6 kW C.146.7 kW D.124.8 kW
17. If 20% of pulverized limestone (work index= 12.1) is retained by a 150-meshscreen from an original uniform size 35-mesh, the energy required in kW
to process 1 ton/ hr is
A. 3.25 B. 2.55 C. 8.3 D. 3.8
18. The hardness of a mineral is a criterion of its resistance to crushing. Which of the following is an example of a hard material?
A. talc B. calcite C. sapphire D. Feldspar
19. It states that the energy is proportional to the new surface produced is
A. Rittinger's law B. Kick's law C. Bond law D. Energy law
20. Shape factor for pulverized, coal dust is equal to________. (Hint: Use the ChE Handbook by Perry)
A. 0.65 B. 0. 73 C. 0.69 D. 0. 89
21. It is thee tendency of a material to break into smaller sizes in the course of handling.
A. brittleness B. hardness C. friability D. toughness
22. If the total percentage of particles larger than the screen opening in the feed, product, and undersize are 36% , 84% , and 3% , respectively, the
effectiveness of the screen is _____% .
A. 93. 4 B. 85. 5 C. 95.0 D. 64. 0
23. Which of the following is not a unit operation?
A. drying B. Filtration C. nitration D. crystallization
24. Tyler standard screen series is characterized by
A. square root of two ratio of areas between successive screens
B. square root of four ratio of linear openings between successive screens
C. twice the area ratio between successive screens
D. Trice the diameter ratio between successive screens
25. Materials which remains on a screen surface is called
A. fines B. undersize C. intermediate material D. oversize
26. The number of openings per linear inch of screen.
A. sieve B. Aperture C. screen diameter D. interval
27. The minimum clear space between the edges of the opening in the screening surface and is usually given in inches and millimeters
A. sieve B. Aperture C. mesh number D. holes
28. Which of the following is a soft material?
A. quartz B. topaz C. sapphire D. gypsum
29. In roll crushers, it is the angle formed by the tangents to the roll faces at the point of contact with a particle to be crushed
A. angle of repose B. angle of nip C. angle of sliding D.contact angle
30. It is the measure of the rate of grinding of material in a particular mill.
A. reductability B. malleability C. grindability D. ductility
31. The person responsible for coining the term “ unit operation” is
A. Robert Pigford B. Arthur Little C. Gilliand D. Treybal
32. The spherecity of cubical particles is
A. 1 B. 0.87 C. 0.7 D/ 0.6
33. Fibrous material is broken by
A. roll crusher C. ball mill
B. Squirrel- cage disintegrator D. none of these
34. As the product becomes finer the energy required for grinding
A. decreases C. is same as for coarser grinding
B. increases D. is 1.5 times that for coarser grinding
35. Ultrafine grinders operate principally by
A. slow compression B. attrition C. impact D. cutting action
36. The operating speed ball mill should be
A. less than the critical speed C. at least equal to the critical speed
B. much more than the critical speed D. none of these
37. A fluid energy mill is used for
A. cutting B. ultragrinding C. grinding D. crushing
38. Cement clinker is reduced to fine size using a
A. roll crusher B. tube mill C. Ball mill D. Hammer mill
----------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS------------------------------------------------------
MATERIALS HANDLING AND FLOTATION
Materials handling
1. What is the horsepower requirement of a 45-foot length screw conveyor which will handle 20 tons per hour of a material with average density of 50
lb/ft3.
A. 3.94 B. 5.24 C. 6.82 D. 7.50
2. Referring to the appropriate information given in the CHE handbook, the width of an apron conveyor having a capacity of 75 tons/ hr at a speed of 50
ft/min is _____ mm.
A. 610 B.1220 C. 305 D. 2400
3. The capacity of the flight conveyor of 12 by 24 inches traveling at 100 fpm and handling the crushed limestone of problem 36 is?
A. 300m tons/h B/ 360 tons/h C.400 tons/h D. 350 tons/h
4. A bell conveyor is required to deliver crushed limestone having a bulk of 75 lb. /cu. ft. at the rate of 200 tons/ hr. The conveyor is to be 200 ft. between
the centers of pulleys with a rise of 25 ft. The largest lumps are in 4 inch. And constitute 15% of the total. The conveyor will discharge over the end.
For the speed of 200 fpm, the horsepower for the drive power is
A. 11 Hp B. 25 Hp C. 8 Hp D. 20 Hp
5. Find the horsepower requirement for a continuous bucket elevator with loading leg which will lift solids at a rate of 50 tons per hour at a vertical
distance of 22 feet.
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
6. The pipe size of a pneumatic conveyor convey plastic pellets wM bulk density of 30 lb/ft3 using a
blower with a capacity of 608 ft3/ min is _______ inches.
A. 3 B.5 C. 8 D. 2
Flotation
7. A flotation section of a mining firm is extracting CuS from a covelilite ores. The ore consists of 5% CuS and 95% gangue, which may be assumed to
be SiO 2.The following data are given:
% CuS % SiO 2
Feed 5 95
Concentrate 85 15
Rougher Tailings 1 99
Scavenger Concentrate 10 90
Final Tailings 0.3 99.7
Laboratory experiments indicated that the water to solids ratio, L/S=2 and the contact time is 10
Min in the rougher; LS=4, contact time = 18 min in the scavenger. Calculate the volume of rougher necessary to treat 300 tons of ore per day. Density
of SiO 2 and CuS are 2.65 and 4.6 g/cc respectively.
A. 69 8 cu ft B. 535 cu, ft C. 500 cu ft D. 180. 5 cu. Fl
8. From the data in problem no. 7, calculate the volume of scavenger needed in the process.
A. 635 cu. ft. B. 170 cu. ft C. 180 cu. ft. D. 450 cu. ft
DAILY TEST
1. A screw conveyor is to be installed to convey 800 bushels of wheat per hour over a distance of 80 ft., the horsepower requirements for the installation
is
A. 4 B. 3 C. 2. 5 D. 3. 5
2. Find the width of an apron conveyor without skirts whose capacity is 56 tons per hour at a speed of 50 fpm handling solid with average density of 50
pound per cubic foot.
A. 36 inch B. 42 inch C. 48 inch D. 54 inch
3. What is the minimum width of a bolt that can be used for a belt conveyor having a maximum speed of 137m/min., a cross sectional area of load of
0.049 m2 and a capacity of 645 Mt/h?
A. 90 cm B. 60 cm C. 75 cm D. 70 cm
4. Find the capacity in tons per hour of a centrifugal-discharge bucket elevator on belts with malleable-iron or steel buckets with size of bucket 10 in x 6 in
x 6 ¼ in and a bucket spacing of 16 in with elevator centers 25 feet apart and solids with 1 ¼ mm lump size.
A.45 B. 52 C. 75 D. 84
5. It is an auxiliary equipment of an elevating conveyor which prevents reversal of travel and subsequent jamming when power is unexpectedly cut off.
A. cleaners B. holdback C .check valve D. Torque limiting
6. It is a type of conveyor consist of one or two chains to which are attached cross bars, usually of wood, which drag on a flat-bottom trough.
A. redler conveyor C. Belt conveyor
B. slat conveyor D. screw conveyor
7. A solid handling equipment used for moving powdered or granular materials to and from storage or between reaction vessels as in moving bed
catalytic.
A. bucket elevator C. Belt conveyor
B. screw conveyor D. pneumatic Conveyor
8. A flotation modifier which assists in selectively or stop unwanted minerals from floating is
A. depressants B. activators C. promoters D. Regulators
9. Any operation in which one solid separated by floating one of them at or on the surface of a fluid.
A. coagulation C. centrifugation
B. flotation D. sedimentation
10. The floatation agent that prevents coalescence of air bubbles as they travel to the surface of the water is/are
A. collectors B. frothing agent C. modifying agent D. promoter
BRINGHOME EXAM
“Life is not measured by the breaths you take, but by its breathtaking moments.” –Michael Vance
1. Determine the maximum horsepower requirement of a screw conveyor with a capacity of 30 tons/h and a speed of 55 r/min.
A.14.3 hp B. 30.6 C. 10 D. 5
2. The width of an apron conveyor having a capacity of 75 tons/h and a speed of 50 ft/min is
A.1220 mm B. 1070 mm C. 1370 mm D.460 mm
3. Determine the capacity of a flight conveyor having a flight size and number of standards in mm of 15x7(380x180)-1
A. 61 MT/h B.113 MT/h C. 71 MT/h D.81 MT/h
4. What should be the belt width of a belt conveyor with a capacity of 66 tons per hour at 100 fpm handling solid with average density of 100 pounds per
cubic foot?
A.20 cm B. 50 in C. 20 in D. 50 mm
5. Find the capacity of a continuous bucket elevator on chain with size of bucket 356 mm x 178 mm x 296 mm with a spacing of 305 mm with elevator
centers 50 feet apart and solids 13/4 mm lump size.
A. 60 tons/ hr B. 70 tons/hr C. 60 tons/hr D. 90 tons/hr
6. The pipe size of pneumatic conveyor to convey plastic pellets with bulk density of 30 lb/ft3 using a blower with a capacity of 600 ft3/min is
approximately _____ inches.
A. 2 B. 6 C. 4 D. 8
(7-8) Ground lead ore is to be concentrated by a single floatation process using 1.5 oz of reagent per ton of ore. The feed, concentrate and tailings have the
following composition by weight on a dry basis:
Feed, % Concentrate, % Tailings, %
PbS 30 90 0.9
ZnS 25 3 35.6
SiO2 45 7 63.5
Water is fed to the cell at the rate of 1,000 gallons per ton of wet concentrate with 99% of the water leaving with the tailings and 1% with the
concentrate.
7. Calculate the mass of wet concentrate produced per hour when ten tons of ore are fed to the cell per 24 hours.
A. 3.4 tons B. 4.3 tons C. 14.23 tons D.4.7 tons
8. Calculate the total water required in pounds per hour.
A. 1185.8 B. 1200 C. 1150 D. 1285.8
9. Crushed rock salt is to be conveyed at the rate of 50 tons/hr a horizontal distance of 600 ft and raised a vertical distance of 52 ft. An inclined belt
conveyor has been proposed for this service. Determine the belt width required.
A. 10 in B.13in C. 16 in D. 19 in
10. Which of the following is an example of a deflocculant?
A. sulfuric acid B. lignin sulforate C. dithiophosphate D. molybderite
A. rougher B. classifier C. scavenger/ recleaner D. cleaner
12. A solid handling equipment used to handle large volumes over long distances economically is
A. pneumatic conveyor B. belt conveyor C. bucket elevator D. screw
13. The method used to discharge a belt conveyor depends of whether or not the discharge is from the end of the conveyor or at some intermediate point.
Special devices are necessary for discharge at discharge points. Which of the following device consist of a discharge and return pulleys and are so
mounted that the belt is doubled back for a short distance?
A. scraper B. tipping idler C. shuttle conveyor D. tripper
14. A conveyor auxiliary device used to cut out the driving force when a conveyor jams.
A. brake B. holdback C. torque-limiting D. cleaner
15. The supports for a belt conveyor are rollers on shaft supports and permits the belt for a width to carry more material per linear foot without spillage are
called
A. chain B. idlers C. feeders D. scrapers
16. It is an auxiliary equipment of an elevating conveyor which prevents reversal of travel and subsequent jamming when power is unexpectedly off.
A. cleaners B. holdback C. check valve D. torque limiting
17. It is the most important and versatile flow assisters which are used to enlarge the storage-bin opening and to cause flow by breaking up material
bridges.
A. striker skirt B. idlers C. rollers D. vibrating hoppers
18. It is a portable flatform on which packaged materials can be handled and stored.
A. pallets B. steel drums C. hopper trucks D. baler bags
19. A type of pneumatic conveyor system characterized by a material moving in an air stream or pressure less ambient is
A. fluidizing B. pressure C. pressure-vacuum D. vacuum
20. It is the angle at which a material will rest on a pile.
A. angle of inclination B. angle of repose C. contact angle D. banking angle
21. Which of the following conveyors can be used in conveying materials up and down an incline?
A. belt conveyor B. screw conveyor C bucket elevator D. power shovel
FLOW OF SOLIDS IN LIQUIDS & AGITATION
Free Settling
1. The Reynold’s number of a cylinder settling through a liquid is 1.0. The estimated drag coefficient of cylinder is
A. 10 B. 3.0 C. 20 D. 1.0
2. What will be the terminal falling velocity of a particle of diameter 10 microns and of density 1600 kg/m3 setlling in aliquid of density 1000kg/m3 and of
viscosity 0.001 Pa·s?
A. 0.033mm/s B. 0.00005 mm/s C. 1.25 mm/s D. 154 mm/s
3. From the data in problem 2, if Stokes law applies for particle Reynold’s number up to 0.2, what is the diameter of the largest particle whose behavior is
governed by Stoke’s law for this solid and liquid?
A. 10 microns B. 65 microns C. 380 microns D. 540 microns
4. Drops of oil 15 microns in diameter are to be settled from their mixture with air. The specific gravity of the oil is 0.90, and the air is at 70ºF and 1 atm
and a settling time of 1 min is available. How high should the chamber be to allow setlling of these particles?
A. 1.2 ft B. 1.5 ft C. 2 ft D. 2.4 ft
5. What is the mass of a sphere of material of density 7500 kg/m3 whose terminal velocity in a large deep tank of water is 0.6 m/s?
A. 0.000054 g B. 0.029 g C. 5.4 g D. 29.0 g
Hindered Settling
6. Solid spherical particles having a diameter of 0.09 mm and a solid density of 2.002 kg/m3 are settling in a solution of water at 26.7ºC. The volume
fraction of the solids in the water is 0.45. The settling velocity is
A. 3.3 x 10-5 m/s B. 3.269 x 10-3 m/s C. 2.369 x 10-4 m/s D. 3 x 10-3 m/s
7. A glass sphere having a diameter of 1.554 x 10-4 m in H2O at 293.2ºK and the slurry contains 60 wt % solids. The density of the glass spheres is
2467 kg/m3. The settling velocity of glass sphere in m/s is
A. 3.05 x 10-2 B. 0.265 C. 1.525 x 10-3 D. 5.125 x 10-4
Agitation
8. It is desired to agitate a liquid having a viscosity of 1.5 x 10-3 Pa·s and a density of 969 kg/m3 in a tank having a diameter of 0.91 m. The agitator will
be a six blade open turbine having a diameter of 0.305 m operating at 180 rpm. The tank has four vertical baffles each with a width of 0.076 m. Also,
W = 0.0381 m. Calculate the required kW.
A. 0.120 B. 0.142 C. 0.172 D. 0.190
DAILY TEST
1. What will be the terminal falling velocity of a glass sphere 1 mm in diameter in water if the density of the glass is 2500 kg/m3?
A. 0.000145 m/s B. 0.00145 m/s C. 0.145 m/s D. 1.45 m/s
2. What is the mass of sphere of density 7500 kg/m3 which has a terminal velocity of 0.7m/s in a large tank of water?
A. 0.066g B. 4.22 g C. 0.00078 g D. 1.28 g
3. Calculate the terminal settling velocity of dust particles having a diameter 30 µm falling through air at 1 bar and 240K. The density of the dust particles
is 1280 kg/m3.
A. 0.0432 m/s B. 0.0132 m/s C. 0.0248 m/s D. 0.0358 m/s
4. An agitation vessel is equipped with a turbine impeller having a diameter of 30 cm. If water (density=1000kg/m3; viscosity= 1E-3 Pa·s) is agitated in
this tank at an impeller speed of 100 rpm, what would be the Reynold’s number of the agitated number?
A. 150,000 B. 700,000 C. 650,000 D. 600,000
5. An oil water separator for coconut oil mill is being designed by the plant’s chemical engineer to remove coconut oil from the mill’s effluent water.
Experiments have shown that with the specific gravity differential between the coconut oil and water the rising velocity of coconut oil globules in water
is 0.0945 m/min. Practice has shown that for the separator to be effective the following parameters hold; water velocity along the separator= 0.91
m/min; depth of water in separator= 0.3 times the width of separator. If 230 cubic meters of effluent water is to be handled per hour, the length of the
separator in meters is
A. 11 m B. 15 m C. 9 m D. 1,125 m
6. An equipment used to separate liquids where there is a sufficient differences in density between the liquids for the droplets to settle readily.
A. decanters B. hydrocyclones C, coalescers D. centrifuge
A. cyclones C. gravity settlers
B. air filters D. impingement separator
8. It is a concentration process whereby a separation between two or more minerals is effected by flowing a pulp across a riffled plane surface inclined
slightly from the horizontal, differentially shaken in the direction of the long axis, and washed with an even flow of water at the right angles to the
direction of motion.
A. jigging B. classifying C. tabling D. drying
9. A measure of the ratio of the drag force acting on a unit area of the impeller and the inertial stress.
A. Froud number C. Reynold’s number
B. Mach number D. Power number
10. In sedimentation process, settling is very fast if the
A. density of the particles are big and the viscosity of the liquids is high
B. density of the particles are low and the viscosity of the liquid is high
C. density of the particles are high and the viscosity of the liquid is low
D. particle size is big and density is very low
BRINGHOME EXAM
‘Education’s purpose is to replace an empty mind with an open one.’ –Malcolm Forbes
1. Calculate the terminal velocity for spherical droplets of coffee extract. 400 microns in diameter, falling through air. The specific gravity of coffee extract
is 1.03 and the air is 300ºF.
A. 3.57 ft/s B.8.5 ft/s C. 0.56 ft/s D. 10.4 ft/s
2. A solution of sodium hydroxide of density 1650 kg/m3and viscosity 50E-3 Pa·s is agitated by a propeller mixer of 0.5 m diameter in a tank of 2.28 m
diameter, and the liquid depth is 2.28 m. The propeller is situated 0.5 m above the bottom of the tank. What is the power which must impart to the
liquids for a rotational speed of 2 rev/s?
A. 2.3 W B. 206 W C. 1.995 kW D. 24.2 kW
3. A three-bladed propeller is used to mix a fluid in the laminar region. The stirrer is 0.3 m in diameter and is rotated at 1.5 Hz. Due to corrosion, the
propeller has to be replaced by a flat two-bladed paddle, 0.75 m in diameter. If the same motor is used, at w hat speed should the paddle rotate?
A. 24 rpm B. b110 rpm C. 210 rpm D. 340 rpm
4. Assume that spheres having diameters 0.005 cm and a density of 1.2 g/cm3 are settling in water (0.01 poises) under free settling conditions where the
particles do not interfere with each other. What would be the free settling velocity in cm per seconds?
A. 2.05 B. 1.08 C. 0.57 D. 0.027
5. What is the terminal velocity of a 2 inch diameter aluminum sphere falling in air? Assume that the sphere has a coefficient of drag of 0.5, the density of
aluminum is 5.12 slug/ft3, and the density of air is 0.00234 slug/ft3.
A. 100ft/s B. 177 ft/s C. 350 ft/s D. 1000 ft/s
6. Determine the terminal settling velocity of dust particles having a diameter of 60 microns at 294.3 K and 101.32 kPa. The dust particles can be
considered spherical with a density of 1,280 kg/m3 viscosity of air.
A. 0.15 m/s B. 0.1372 m/s C. 0.1172 m/s D. 0.163 m/s
7. Estimate the terminal free settling velocity in the air of a dust sphere with diameter of 1 microns and specific gravity of 2.
A. 1.99E-4 ft/s B. 2.98E-5 ft/s C. 3.12E-6 ft/s D. 4.12E-3 ft/s
8. A solid steel sphere of specific gravity of 7.85 and diameter of 0.02 m is falling at its terminal velocity through water. What is its velocity in ft/s?
A. 1488 B. 4880 C. 6.21 D. 0.42
9. What is the settling time (sec) for galena particles to settle under free settling conditions through 5 ft of water at 50 deg F. Galena is spherical in shape,
with specific gravity and 0.01 inch in diameter
A. 38.1 B. 18.3 C. 13.8 D. 5
(10-12) Tests on a small scale tank0.03 m in diameter (Rushton impeller, diameter 0.1 m) have shown that a blending process between two miscible liquids
(aqueous solutions, properties approximately the same as water, i.i., viscosity 1E-3 Pa·s, density 1000kg/m3) is satisfactorily completed after 1 minute using an
impeller speed of 250 rev/min. It is decided to scale up to the process to tank of 2.5 m diameter using the criterion of constant tip-speed.
10. What speed should be chosen for the larger impeller?
11. What power will be required?
A. 0.045 W B. 9.81 W C. 35.88 W D. 142.15 W
12. What will be the blend time in the large tank?
(13-15) An agitated tank with a standard Rushton impeller is required to disperse gas in a solution of properties similar to those of water. The tank will be3m
diameter (1 m diameter impeller). A power level of 0.8 kW/m3 is chosen. Assuming fully turbulent conditions and that the presence of the gas does not
significantly affect the relation between the Power and Reynold’s number;
13. What power will be required by the impeller?
A. 2.5 kW B. 10.2 kW C. 17.0 kW D. 25.4 kW
14. At what speed should the impeller be driven?
A. 57rpm B. 88 rpm C. 120 rpm D. 173 rpm
15. If a small pilot scale tank 0.3 diameter is to be constructed to test the process, at what speed should the impeller be driven?
16. Particles of a sphalerite (SG=4.0) are settling under the force of gravity through a slurry consisting of 25% by volume of quartz particles (SG=2.65) and
water. The diameter of the sphalerite particles is 0.006 in. The volumetric ratio of the sphelarite to slurry 0.25.The temperature is 50ºF. What is the
terminal velocity of the sphelarite?
A. 0.022 ft/s B. 0.087 ft/s C.1.002 ft/s D. 1.240 ft/s
17. The separation of solid particles into several size fractions based upon the settling velocities in a medium is called
A. settling B. filtration C. flotation D. classification
18. Device in which a current of air separates particles with different sedimentation velocities.
A. agitator B. air elutriator C. classifier D. air conveyor
19. A device is used to separate solids from gases which consist of a vertical cylinder with the inlet stream introduced tangentially near the top, giving the
suspension a spinning motion in the cylinder.
A. cyclone B. dust collector C. scrubber D. filter
20. In a motion of a particle through fluids, forces act on a particle moving through a fluid. The force which appears whenever there is a relative motion
between the particle and the fluid is called
A. gravitational force B. centrifugal force C. drag force D. buoyant force
21. A classification technique where materials of equivalent size are separated according to their densities.
A. sizing B. screening C. sedimentation D. sorting
22. If the motion of a particle is impeded by other particles, which will happen when the particles are near each other even though they are not actually
colliding, the process is called
A. free settling B. unhindered settling C. gravity settling D. hindered settling
23. The drag coefficient in hindered settling is ______ compared to free settling.
A. greater than B. less than C. constant D. varying
24. Drag is defined as the force exerted by the
A. fluid on the solid in a direction opposite to flow C. fluid on the solid in the direction of flow
B. solid on the fluid D. none of these
25. Drag coefficient C 0 is given by (in Stoke’s law range)
16 24
A. 𝐶0 = C. 𝐶0 = 𝑅𝑒 𝑝
𝑅𝑒 𝑝
18.4 0.079
B. 𝐶0 = D. 𝐶0 = 𝑅𝑒 𝑝0.23
𝑅𝑒 𝑝
26. At low Reynold’s number
A. viscous forces are unimportant
B. viscous forces control
C. viscous forces control and inertial forces are unimportant
D. gravity forces control
27. At high Reynold’s number
A. inertial forces control and inertial forces are unimportant
B. viscous forces predominate
C. inertial forces are unimportant and viscous forces control
D. none of these
28. Forces acting on a particle settling in fluid are
A. gravitational and buoyant forces
B. centrifugal forces and drag forces
C. gravitational or centrifugal, buoyant and drag forces
D. external, drag and viscous forces
29. Terminal velocity is
A. constant velocity with no acceleration
B. a fluctuating velocity
C. attained after moving one-half of total distance
D. none of these
30. The separation of dilute slurry or suspension by gravity settling into a clear fluid and a slurry or suspension by gravity settling into a clear fluid and
slurry of higher solids content is called
A. thickening B. classification C. sorting D. centrifugation
31. The terminal velocity of a small sphere settling in a viscous fluid varies as the
A. first power of its diameter
B. Inverse of the fluid viscosity
C. inverse square of the diameter
D. square of the difference in specific weights of solid and fluid
32. The constant velocity with which a body moves relative to the surrounding fluid when the force acting on a (gravitational, centrifugal, and electrostatic
forces) are equal to the friction force acting against the movement.
A. terminal velocity B. settling velocity C. maximum velocity D. hindered velocity
33. It is the removal of all settleable particles rendered settleable under the influence of gravity.
A. screening B. flocculation C. sedimentation D. flotation
34. The operation by which solids are separated from liquids due to the difference in their respective densities is
A. filtration B. sedimentation C. screening D. adsorption
35. As the upper interface approaches the sludge building-up on the bottom of the container, the density and viscosity of the suspension surrounding the
falling particles ____ with a corresponding decrease in settling velocity.
A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same D. none of these
36. Drag coefficient is hindered settling is
A. less than in free settling C. equal to that in free settling
B. not necessarily quarter than in free settling D. greater than in free settling
37. For the free settling of a spherical particle through a fluid, the slope of C 0 vs log N Re plot is
A. 1 B. -1 C. 0.5 D. -0.5
38. The line of action of the buoyant force passes through the center of gravity of the
A. submerged body C. displaced volume of the fluid
B. volume of fluid vertically above the body D. horizontal projection of the body
39. Sedimentation on commercial scale occurs in
A. classifiers B. thickening C. rotary drum filters D. cyclones
WEEKLY EXAM 11
1. A steam condenser receives 10 kg per second of steam with an enthalpy of 2,570 kJ/kg. Steam condenses into a liquid and leaves with an enthalpy of
160 kJ/kg. Cooling water passes through the condenser with temperature increases from 13ºC to 24ºC. Calculate the cooling water flow rate in kg/s.
A. 533 B. 523 C. 518 D. 528
2. Prandtl number of toluene at 60ºC is
A. 2.0 B. 3.4 C. 4.8 D. 5.5
3. How long could a 2000 hp motor be operated on the heat energy liberated by 1mi3 of ocean water when the temperature of the water is lowered by
1ºC and if all these heat were conv erted to mechanical energy?
A. 371.56 yrs B. 245.65 yrs C. 210.92 yrs D. 177.42yrs
4. Density of toluene at 60ºC in kg/m3 is
A. 829 B. 840 C. 853 D. 860
5. Which of the following is the hardest? Refer to the Moh’s Scale hardness in the handbook.
A. talc B. apatite C. topaz D. quartz
6. Which of the following is a unit of luminous intensity?
A. candela B. weber C. tesla D. Becquerel
7. Which of the following is the unit of a magnetic flux?
A. gray B. weber C. lumen D. lux
A. rougher B. classifier C. scavenger/ recleaner D. cleaner
9. It is the gradual extension of a material under a steady tensile stress over prolonged period of time.
A. toughness B. creep C. fatigue D. hardness
10. The drag coefficient at creep flow is
A. 16/Re B.64/Re C. 24/Re D. 32/Re
11. A three-bladed propeller is used to mix a fluid in the laminar region. The stirrer is 0.3 m in diameter and is rotated at 1.5 Hz. Due to corrosion, the
propeller has to be replaced by a flat two-bladed paddle, 0.75min diameter. If the same motor is used, at what speed should the paddle rotate?
12. Sievings is an operation that is
A. thermal B. mechanical C. thermochemical D. chemical
13. Materials which remains on a screen surface is called
A. fines B. undersize C. intermediate material D. oversize
14. A screen is said to be blinded when
A. oversizes are present in undersize fraction
B. undersizes are retained in oversize fraction
C. the screen is plugged with solid particles
D. its capacity is abruptly increased
15. A type of screening equipment operate d with a shaking motion, a long stroke at low frequency
A. vibrating screens C. oscillating screens
B. reciprocating screens D. revolving screens
16. In size reduction, the ratio of the average diameter of the feed to the average diameter of the product is the
A. settling ratio B. classification ratio C. reduction ratio D. diameter ratio
17. The critical speed of a 6-ft diameter ball mill where the balls are considered small compared to the diameter of the ball is
A. 17.3 rpm B.10.5 rpm C. 81.3 rpm D. 40 rpm
18. Is a major expense in crushing and grinding of feed materials.
A. cost of labor B. cost of material C. cost of equipment D. cost of power
A. crushers B. ultrafine grinders C. disintegrators D. grinders
20. It is the most important and versatile flow assisters which are used to enlarge the storage-bin opening and to cause flow by breaking up material
bridges.
A. striker skirt B. idlers C. vibrating hoppers D. rollers
21. It is a portable flatform on which packaged materials can be handled and stored.
A. pallets B. steel drums C. hopper trucks D. baler bags
22. A flotation modifier which assists in selectively (sharpness of separation) or stop unwanted minerals from floating is a/an
A. depressants B. activators C. alkalinity regulators D. promoters
23. Buckingham pi theorem is applied to
A. pressure-velocity relationship in compressible fluid flow
B. heat transfer by natural convection
C. dimensional analysis of a physical system
D. the stability of a control system
24. Shape factor for pulverized coal dust is equal to
A. 0.65 B. 0.73 C. 0.69 D. 0.89
A. choke feeding B. automatic crushing C. free crushing D. open circuit
A. friability B. toughness C. hardness D. brittleness
27. The sphericity of cubical particles is
A. 1 B. 0.67 C. 0.7 D. 0.6
28. An example of a collector for flotation of metallic sulfides and native metals is
A. xanthales B. sodium silicate C. sodium sulfide D. sphalerite
29. Which of the following is an example of a deflocculant?
A. sulfuric acid B. lignin sulforate C. dithiophosphate D. molybderite
30. A flat sign board is circular and 20 ft in diameter. Weight of air is 0.0607 lb/ft3. There is a drag coefficient of 1.12 for a wind dorce to the sign surface.
For a wind velocity of 40 mph, the normal force on the sign will be;
A. 1,480 lbs B. 1,520 lbs C. 1,600 lbs D. 1,720 lbs
31. What is the kinetic energy (in·ft·lbf) of 6-lb mass at the instant when it is moving with a velocity of 10 ft/s?
A. 8.78 B. 9.12 C. 9.33 D. 9.80
32. What is the enthalpy of saturated steam at 30 psia?
A. 218.93 BTU/lb B. 1164.1 BTU/lb C. 1087.9 BTU/lb D. 231.8 BTU/lb
33. What is the enthalpy of saturated liquid water at 48.675 kPag?
34. Assume that the spheres having diameters of 0.005 cm and a density of 1.2 g/cm3 are settling in water (0.01 poises) under free settling conditions
where the particles do not interfere with each other. What would be the fee settling velocity in cm per seconds?
A. 2.05 B. 1.08 C. 0.57 D. 0.027
35. A cylinder of cork is floating upright in a container partially filled with water. A vacuum is applied to the container that partially removes the air within
the vessel. The cork will
A. rise somewhat in the water C. remain stationary
B. sink somewhat in the water D. turn over on its side
36. It is produced by the decay of vegetable matter, was early identified as combustible “swamp gas”.
A. producer gas B. furnace gas C. hydrogen D. methane
37. The ejection of electrons from a metal surface by beam of light. The energy of electrons depends upon the wavelength of the light.
A. Tyndall effect C. photoelectric effect
B. greenhouse effect D. electrometric effect
38. It is the tendency of a material to break into smaller sizes in the course of handling.
A. brittleness B. hardness C. friability D. toughness
39. Work is a
A. property of the system C. path function
B. state function D. state description of a system
40. Which of the following adsorbent is used to decolorize yellow glycerine?
A. silica gel B. Fuller’s earth C. activated carbon D. alumina
41. Gasoline at 20ºC (sp. Gr. 0.719, viscosity of 0.000292 Pa·s) flows at the rate of 2L/s through a pipe having an inside diameter of 60 mm. Determine
the Reynold’s number.
A. 104,400 B. 98,100 C. 82,090 D. 72,100
42. A series of measurements are made in order to determine the molar mass of an unknown gas. First, a large flask is evacuated and found to weigh
134.567 g. It is then filled with the gas to a pressure of 375 torr at 310ºC and reweighed; its mass is now 137.456 g. Finally, the flask is filled with water
at 31ºC and to weigh 1067.9 g. (The density of the water at this temperature is 0.977 g/ml) Assuming that the ideal gas equation applies, calculate the
molar mass of the unknown gas.
43. Water has its viscosity at 68ºF equal to 0.01008 poise, what is the absolute viscosity in pound-seconds per square foot?
A. 2.11E-5 B. 3.12E-8 C. 1.22E-7 D. 4.13E-7
44. Cv is given by
A. (∂U/∂T)V B. (∂U/∂V)T C. (∂U/∂P)V D. (∂U/∂T)P
45. Gibbs free energy (G) is defined as
A. G=U-TS B. G=H-TS C. G=H+TS D. G=U+TS
46. A 5 kW motor is used to drive an air compressor. Determine the compressor work if the compressor efficiency is 72% .
A. 3.6 kW B. 2.5 kW C. 3.9 kW D. 4.3 kW
47. During a reversible steady flow process by 5 lb/sec of air, the pressure remains constant at p=50 psia and the temperature increases 300F. What is
the change in total volume of the air in ft3/s?
A. 0.75 B. 11.11 C. 87.5 D. 97.1
48. In a Carnot cycle operating on nitrogen, the heat supplied is 40 BTU and the adiabatic expansion ratio is a15.6. If the receiver temperature is 60ºF,
determine the heat rejected at the cold reservoir.
A. 142 Btu B. 13.3 Btu C. 75.4 Btu D. 112 Btu
49. For an ideal Otto engine operating on the air standard, the temperature at the end of isentropic compression is 840℉ and at the end of expansion is
2540℉. The compression ratio is 7.5. Find the efficiency
A. 34% B. 48% C. 67% D. 82%
50. For an ideal Otto engine operating on the air standard, the temperature at the end of isentropic compression is 840℉ and at the end of expansion is
2540℉. The compression ratio is 7.5. Find the work done by the cycle in Btu per pound of air.
A. 220 B. 442 C. 310 D. 570
51. A temperature measuring device which depends upon the inherent characteristic of material to change in electrical resistance when they undergo a
change in temperature.
A. thermocouples B. pyrometers C. resistance thermometers D. thermistors
52. A solid body floats in a liquid of specific gravity is 0.8 with 2/5 of its volume exposed to air. Its specific gravity is
A. 0.6 B. 0.48 C. 0.4 D. 0.32
53. Materials added to detergent formulation to enhance cleaning performance by exhibiting synergistic clearing effect with surfactant.
A. fillers B. brighteners C. builders D. perfume
54. In substances that sublime, the intermolecular forces of attraction are
A. weak and the vapor pressure is low C. strong and the vapor pressure is low
B. weak and the vapor pressure is high D. strong and the vapor pressure is high
55. Which process is used to break down a complex petroleum mixture into simpler mixtures?
A. condensation B. fractional distillation C. fractional crystallization D. addition
56. These are materials remaining from the burning of wood, coal, coke and other combustible wastes.
A. food waste B. rubbish C. ashes and residue D. special waste
57. A waste disposal method in which the biological, chemical and physical processes that occur in the surface of the soil are used to treat biodegradable
industrial wastes.
A. landfilling B. incineration C. landfarming D. composting
58. It is the residue for the destructive distillation of wood.
A. shale oil B. charcoal C. bagasse D. char
59. It is an energy production process involving the simultaneous generation of thermal and electrical energy by using a single primary heat source.
A. recycling B. cogeneration C. dowtherm D. once-through
60. For pipes that must be broken at intervals for maintenance, the connector used should be a
A. union B. tee C. reducer D. elbow
61. A debutanizer is a
A. heat transfer equipment C. fluid transfer equipment
B. mass transfer equipment D. size reduction equipment
62. In membrane separation operation, the stream that passes through the membrane is called
A. permeate B. retentate C. diluent D. concentrate
63. If pressure of the fluid suction line drops, some liquid flashes into vapors. This flashing is the____.
A. channeling B. cavitation C. flooding D. vaporization
64. The height difference between two points in which the fluid is being transferred is the _____.
A. kinetic head B. friction head C. potential head D. pressure head
65. The elevation to which water will rise in a piezometer tube is termed the
A. stagnation pressure C. the energy grade line
B. the hydraulic grade line D. friction head
66. Which of the following statements mot nearly approximates conditions in turbulent flow?
A. Fluid particles move along smooth, straight path C. Energy loss varies linearly with velocity
B. Energy loss varies as the square of the velocity D. Newton’s law of viscosity governs the flow
67. For turbulent flows in parallel, adjacent layers and the paths of individual particles do not cross, the flow is said to be
A. The average velocity will be nearly the same as the pipe center
B. The energy lost to turbulence and friction varies with kinetic energy
C. Pipe roughness affects the friction factor
D. The Reynold’s number will be less than 2300
68. If the fluid flows parallel, adjacent layers and the paths of individual particles do not cross, the flow is said to be
A. laminar B. turbulent C. critical D. dynamic
69. Which of the following constitutes a group of parameters with the dimensions of power?
A. ρAV B. pAV C. DVρ/μ D. ρV 2/P
70. At or below the critical velocity in small pipes at very low velocities, the loss of head from friction
A. varies linearly with friction C. can be ignored
B. is infinitely large D. varies as the velocity squared
71. It is a non-Newtonian fluid which shows an apparent viscosity that decreases with increasing velocity gradient.
A. pseudoplastic fluids B. Bingham fluids C. Vingham plastics D. dilatant fluids
72. Which of the following is a unit of kinematic viscosity?
A. centipoises B. pascal-second C. centistokes D. lb/ft-s
73. What do you call the pressure which the fluid exerts on an immersed object or container walls?
A. normal pressure C. gage pressure
B. hydrostatic pressure D. standard liquid pressure
74. Viscosity for a fluid is define as the constant of proportionality between shear stress and what other variable?
A. the spatial derivative of velocity C. the time derivative of pressure
B. the time derivative of density D. the spatial derivative of density
75. What is the classification of the fluid flow if the fluid travels to the adjacent layers and the paths of the individual particles do not cross each other?
A. steady flow B. laminar flow C. uniform law D. turbulent law
76. Which of the following refers to the measure of a fluid’s sensitivity to changes in viscosity with changes in temperature?
A. viscosity index C. viscosity ratio
B. viscosity factor D. coefficient of viscosity
77. If the Mach number is greater than 1 but lesser than 5, what is the standard classification of the travel?
A. transonic travel B. subsonic travel C. hypersonic travel D. supersonic travel
78. The entropy usually increases when
A. a molecule is broken into two or more smaller molecules
B. a reaction occurs that results in an increase in the moles of the gas
C. a solid changes to a fluid
D. a liquid changes to a gas
E. all of the above changes occur
79. When one mole of ice melts to liquid at 0℃
A. the entropy decreases C. the entropy stays the same
B. the entropy increases D. the order increases
80. If the 85% magnesia used in insulating materials is magnesia, then, what is the 15% of these materials?
A. asbestos B. steel C. water D. styrofoam
81. The thermal conductivity does not depend on which of the following?
A. chemical composition B. physical state or texture
C. temperature and pressure D. gravitational pull
82. Which of the following is not a unit of the rate of heat transfer?
A. Watt B. BTU per hour C. cal/s D. BTU/Hp-hr
83. What usually happen to the surrounding when water vapor condenses?
A. It warms the surroundings B. the surrounding temperature decreases
C. it neither warm nor cold the surrounding D. the surrounding will be dehumidified
84. As particle size is reduced
A. screening becomes progressively more difficult
B. screening becomes progressively easier
C. capacity and effectiveness of the screen is increased
D. surface area of solid decreases
85. Shape factor for a cylinder whose length equals its diameter is
A. 1.5 B. 0.5 C. 1 D. 0
86. Equivalent diameter of a particle is the diameter of the sphere having the same
A. ratio of surface to volume as the actual volume C. ratio of volume to surface as the particle
B. volume as the particle D. none of these
87. For coarse reduction of hard solids, use
A. impact B. attrition C. compression D. cutting
88. Soft and non abrasive materials can be made into fines by
A. attrition B. compression C. cutting D. none of these
89. Crushing efficiency is the ratio of
A. surface energy created by the crushing to the energy absorbed by the solid
B. the energy absorbed by the solid to that fed to the machine
C. the energy fed to the machine to the surface energy created by the crushing
D. the energy absorbed by the solid to the surface energy created by the crushing
90. Rittinger’s crushing law states that
A. work required to form a particle of any size is proportional to the square of the surface to volume ratio of the product
B. work required to form a particle of a particular size is proportional to the square root of the surface to volume ratio product
C. work required in crushing is proportional to the square root of the surface to volume ratio of the product
D. for a given machine and feed, crushing efficiency is dependent on the sizes of feed and product
91. Bond crushing law
A. calls for relatively less energy for the smaller product particle than does the Rittinger law
B. is less realistic in estimating the power requirements of commercial crushes
C. states that the work required to form particle of any size from very large feed is proportional to the square root of the volume to surface
ratio of the product
D. states that the work required for the crushing is proportion
92. Work index is defined as the
A. gross energy (kWh/ton of feed) needed to reduce very large feed to such a size that 80% of product passes a 100 micron screen
B. energy needed to crush one ton of feed to 200 microns
C. energy (kWh/ton of feed) needed to crush small feed to such a size that 80% of product passes 200 mesh screen
D. energy needed to crush one ton of feed to 100 microns
93. For non spherical particle, the sphericity
A. is defined as the ratio of surface area of a sphere having the volume as the particle to the actual surface area of the particle
B. has a dimension of length
C. is always less than 1
D. is the ratio of volume of a sphere having the same surface area as the particle to the actual volume of the particle
94. In Froth Flotation, chemical agent added to cause air adherence is called
A. collector B. modifier C .frother D. promoter
95. Pine oil in forth technique acts as a
A. collector B. frother C. modifier D. activator
UNIT OPERATIONS ECONOMICS & CRYSTALLIZATION
Crystallization
(1-2) A solution of potassium dichromate in water contains 13% K2Cr2O7 by weight. From 1000 lb of this solution are evaporated 640 lb of water. The remaining
solution is cooled to 20℃.
1. Calculate the amount of K2Cr2O7crystals produced
A. 103.6 lb B. 120.6 lb C. 128.5 lb D. 136.2 lb
2. Calculate the percentage yield of K2Cr2O7 crystals produced
A. 45% B. 55% C. 70% D. 80%
3. A solution of sodium bicarbonate in water is saturated at 60℃. Calculate the temperature to which this solution must be cooled in order to crystalize
40% NaHCO3.
A. 10℃ B. 17℃ C. 23℃ D. 34℃
4. An aqueous solution of sodium sulfate in water is saturated at 32.5℃. Calculate the temperature to which this solution must be cooled in order to
crystalize 60% of the solute as Na2SO4∙10H2O.
A. 15℃ B. 19℃ C. 27℃ D. 35℃
(5-6) A solution of sodium sulfate in water is saturated at temperature of 40℃.
5. Calculate the weight of crystals obtained by cooling 100 lb of this solution to a temperature of 5℃ .
A. 69.5 lb B. 78.5 lb C. 84.2 lb D. 90.1 lb
6. Calculate the percentage yield obtained by cooling 100 lb of this solution to a temperature 5℃.
A. 80% B. 90% C. 70% D. 60%
7. After a crystallization process, a solution of calcium chloride in water contains 62 lb of CaCl2 per 100 lb of water. Calculate the weight of the solution
necessary to dissolve 250 lb of CaCl2∙6H2O at a temperature at 25℃. Solubility at 25℃=7.38 lb-moles of Cacl2 per 1000 lb water
A. 120 lb B. 175 lb C. 211 lb D. 280 lb
Optimization
8. The total annual venture cost for insulating an oven mat be expressed by:
Total annual venture cost = 870(0.25+2.78T) +17.25T
Where T= insulation thickness in inches. Find the optimum economic insulation thickness
A. 2 in B. 3 in C. 1 in D. 4 in
9. The fixed cost for a steam line per meter of pipe is 350x+18; P/year and the cost for loss of heat from the pipe per meter is 1.6/x; P/year, where x is the
thickness of insulation in meters. The optimum thickness of the insulation is
A. 0.068 m B. 0.68 m C. 0.088 m D. 0.072 m
10. Estimate the optimum economic inside of pipe when 10,000 gal of liquid having a density of 58 lb/ft3 flow through the pipe per hour. The flow is
turbulent. The approximate value for the optimum diameter of a steel pipe may be obtained from the following dimensional equation:
2.2𝑤 0.45
𝐷𝑖 =
𝜌 0.32
Where Di= optimum inside pipe diameter , in ; w= mass rate, 1,000lb/h
ρ= density of flowing, lb/ft3
A. 5.3 in B. 3.3 in C. 4.3 in D. 3.7 in
11. A pressure vessel is to be made from a cylinder of diameter of x meters capped with a hemisphere. The cost of the cylinder section is 1,800x 0.5 in P
per meter of length and the cost for one hemispherical end is 1,400x 2.4 in pesos. The vessel is to hold 40 cubic meters. Find the optimum dimension x.
A. 2.5 m B. 2.25 m C. 2.0 m D. 2.75 m
12. A plant produces small water pumps at the rate of x units per day. The variable cost per pump has been established to be 47.73+0.1x 1.2 . The total
daily fixed charges are p1750, and all other expenses are constant at P7325 per day . If the selling price per pump is P173, determine the daily profit at
a production schedule giving the minimum cost per pump.
A. P4040 B.4120 C. P4200 D. P4440
13. Refer to the problem 12, determine the production schedule at the breakeven point.
A. P4040 B.4120 C. P4200 D. P4440
14. The following equations shows the effect of the variables x and y on the total cost of a particular operation C= 2.33x+ 4900x y+1.86y+ 10. Determine
the values of x and y that will give the least total cost.
A. (11.88, 14.90) B. (20.12, 16.75) C. (14.37, 25.54) D. (16.80, 27.90)
15. Circular cylindrical cans of volume V 0 are to be manufactured with both ends closed. The ratio of the diameter and height that will require the amount
of metal in each can is
A. 0.16 B. 0.8 C. 1.0 D. 1.2
Cost Index & Six Tenth Factor Rule
16. A purchase cost of 0.2 m3 glass-lined, jacketed reactor was P10, 000 in 1991. Estimate the purchased cost of a similar 2m3, glass lined, jacketed
reactor in 1996. Cost index in 1991 was 361 and in 1996 w as 382.
A. P32, 180 B. P27, 850 C. P18, 720 D. P42, 127
DAILY TEST
(1-3) A solution nitrate in water at a temperature of 40℃ contains NaNO3 by weight.
1. Calculate the percentage saturation of this solution.
A. 65% B. 72% C. 83% D. 91%
2. Calculate the lb of NaNO3 that crystallized from 1000 lb of this solution by cooling it to 10℃.
A. 81 lb B. 90 lb C. 103 lb D. 110 lb
3. Calculate the percentage yield of the process.
A. 10.8% B. 16.5% C. 28.7% D. 35.2 %
4. The replacement of existing facilities by new equipment or a new process is due to the following factors except?
A. obsolescence C. inadequate capacity
B. low efficiency D. low operating cost
5. The fixed cost per day of a plant producing a certain type of chemical is P10, 000/day. The settling price of the chemical is P150/lb. The variable cost
may be expressed as 10/P+ 0.1P in pesos per pound where in P= production rate in lbs/day. Find the breakeven capacity of the plant in lb/day.
A. 70 B. 1430 C. 70 or 1430 D. 100
6. The tubes of an evaporator costs P8000, last 8 years, and require a labor cost of P2000/yr of cleaning. Tubes can be operated under essentially non-
scaling conditions. This will shorten the life of the tubes P1200/yr because of better heat transfer. If current cost of capital is 10% , how long must the
tubes last under the second set of conditions to permit this method of operation?
A. 4-5 years B. 2-3 years C. 6-7 years D. 8-9 years
7. A method of selecting alternates by the comparison of all the percent annual direct costs plus the capital recovery points.
A. present worth method C. annual cost method
B. pay-out time method D. rate-of-earn method
8. It is an approximate model to the actual chemical process that include all major processing operation units, all necessary auxiliary equipment such as
pumps and compressors, and all material and energy strains.
A. process flow diagram C. block diagram
B. venn diagram D. piping and instrumentation diagram
9. The group of cost involved in a going activity whose total cost will remain relatively constant throughout the range of operational activity.
A. variable cost B. first cost C. fixed cost D. direct cost
10. When using net present worth calculation to compare two projects, which of the following could invalidate calculation?
A. differences in the magnitude of the project C. evaluating over different time periods
B. mutually exclusive D. non conventional cash flows
BRINGHOME EXAM
“Look deep, deep into nature, and then you will understand everything better.”
-Albert Einstein
1. A present investment of P10, 000 is expected to yield an income of P1500/yr for 15 years. What is the equivalent rate of return?
A. 10.2% B. 12.4% C. 14.1% D.16.5%
2. A public works-project has an initial costs of P 1M, benefits of P1.5M, and disbenefits of P0.3M. What is the benefit cost ratio.
A. 1.2 B. 1.8 C. 1.6 D. 0.9
3. The initial cost of a dam is P25 M. The annual maintenance cost is P0.2M. If the interest rate is 10% per year, determine the capitalized cost.
A. P27M B. P28.5M C. P30M D. P32m
4. The material cost at erection site for a 10,000 bbl/stream day vacuum distillation unit is P600000. Estimate the cost of similar unit with aa capacity of
30,000 bbl/stream day?
A. 700,000 B. 1,160,000 C. 890,650 D. 934,200
5. The annual fixed costs for an insulation installation can be expressed as C F= 30ln2S+ 10S pesos per year where S is the insulation thickness in
inches, and the annual costs of energy lost from the installation is expressed as C ρ= 120/S dollars per year. Determine the insulation thickness which
will give the minimum annual insulation cost.
A. 2.27 in B. 3.12 in C. 3.75 in D. 4.15 in
6. The fixed cost per day of a plant producing a certain type of chemical is P10, 000/day. The settling price of the chemical is P150/lb. The variable cost
may be expressed as 10/P+ 0.1P in pesos per pound where in P= production rate in lbs/day. Find the breakeven capacity of the plant in lb/day.
A. 70 B. 1430 C. 70 or 1430 D. 100
7. You borrow P3, 500 for one year from a friend at an interest rate of 1.5% per month instead of taking a loan from a bank at a rate 18% per year.
Compare how much many you will save or lose on the transaction.
A. You will pay P155 more than if you borrowed from the bank
B. You will save P55 by borrowing from your friend
C. You will pay P85 more than if you borrowed from the bank
D. You will pay 55 less than if you borrowed from the bank
8. The group of cost involved in a going activity whose total cost will remain relatively constant throughout the range of operational activity
9. The cost of a glass lined receiver with a nominal capacity of 1000 gallons is P22, 000. Find the estimated cost of a similar receiver but with a nominal
capacity of 2000 gallons.
A. P44, 000 B. P33, 000 C. P50, 000 D. P25, 000
10. A present investment of P10, 000 is expected to yield an income of P1500/yr for 15 years. What is the equivalent rate of return?
A. 10.2% B. 12.4% C. 14.1% D. 16.5%
11. An old highway bridge may be strengthened at a cost of P9000 or it may be replaced for P40, 000. The present salvage value of the old bridge
P13,000. It is estimated that the reinforced bridge will last for 20 years. The estimated salvage value of the new bridge after 25 years is P15, 000. The
maintenance for the new bridge will be P100 annually. Which is the best alternative at 8% ? Assume the bridge will be there forever.
A. keep the old bridge B. replaced old bridge C. need more data D. either
12. A owes B the sum of P5000 due December 31, 1984, P3000 due December 31, 1986. By mutual consent A would discharge the debt by making a
payment of P7000 on December 31, 1987 and the balance payment on December 31, 1988 with an interest at 8% . What is the amount of the final
payment?
A. P2741.7 B. P3200.6 C. P3100.8 D. P2187.0
13. Cost index is used to estimate equipment cost of
A. quotations given for different equipment capacity
B. quotations of different time period
C. similar equipment quotations in different years
D. equipment cost quoted at different capacities
14. An organic chemical is produced by a batch process. In this process chemical x and y react to form z. Since the reaction rate is very high, the total
time required per batch has been found to be independent of the amount of materials and each batch requires 2 hr, including time for charging,
heating and dumping. The following equation shows the relation between the pound of z produced (lbz) and the pound of x (lbx) and y (lby) supplied:
Lbx= 1.5 (1.1lbx+1.3lby lbz-lbx lby)0.5
Chemical x costs P0.09 per pound, chemical y costs P0.04 per pound and chemical z sells for P0.8 per pound. If half of the selling price for chemical z
is due to cost other than raw materials, the maximum profit obtainable per pound of chemical z is
A. 0.3 per lbz B. P0.5 per lbz C. P0.12 per lbz D. P0.25 per lbz
15. A multiple effect evaporator produces 10, 000 kg of salt from a 20% brine solution per day. One kg of steam evaporates 0.7 N kg of water in N effects
at a cost of P25 per 1000 kg steam. The cost of the first effect is P450, 000 and the additional effects at P300, 000 each. The life of the evaporator is
10 years with no salvage value. The annual average cost of repair and maintenance is 10% and taxes and insurance is 5% . The optimum number of
effects for minimum annual cost is
A. 3 effects B. 5 effects C. 4 effects D. 2 effects
16. The solubility of a substance A at 25℃ is 25 g/L and at ℃ its solubility is 75 g/L. If 500 mL of a saturated solution of A is cooled from 50℃ to 25℃,
how many grams of solute A will be crystallized? Assume volume of solute in the solution is negligible.
A. 12.5 g B. 37.5 g C. 25 g D. 32.5 g
17. Crystals of Na2CO3-H2O are dropped into a saturated solution of Na2CO3 in w ater at 100℃, what percent in mole is the Na2CO3; in the Na2CO3-
H2O system. Data at 100℃; the saturated solution is 31.2% by weight Na2CO3; Molecular weight of Na2CO3 is 106.
A. 20.1% B. 12.5% C. 8.20% D. 7.15%
18. A 30% solution Na2CO3 weighing 10, 000 lbs is slowly cooled at 20℃. The crystals formed are sal soda. The solubility of Na2CO3 at 20℃ is 21.5
parts anhydrous salt per 100 parts water. What is the weight (in lbs) of sal soda formed if 3% of the original solution is lost by evaporation?
A. 6600 B. 6536 C. 6620 D. 6654
19. An aqueous solution of sodium sulfate is saturated at 32℃. The temperature to which the solution must be cooled to crystallize 60% of the solution as
Na2SO4-10H2O is:
A. 18.7℃ B. 16.6℃ C. 15.4℃ D. 14.7%
20. A solution of sodium chloride in water is saturated at a temperature of 15℃. Calculate the weight of NaCl that can be dissolved by 100 lb of this
solution if it is heated to a temperature of 65℃.
A. 0.08 lb B. 1.1 lb C. 2.2 lb D. 3.0 lb
21. A solution of MgSO4 containing 43 g of solid per 100 g of water is fed to a Swenson vacuum crystallizer at 220F, the vacuum in the crystallizer
corresponds to a water boiling temp. 43℉ and a saturated solution of MgSO4 has a boiling point elevation of 7. How much solution must be fed to the
crystallizer to produce 1 ton of Epsom salt (MgSO4-7H20) per hour.
A. 1083 B. 3097 C. 5482 D. 6782
22. A solution of 28% wt Na2SO4 is to be crystallized to yield Glauber salt in a four section (one section is 10 ft in length) Sw enson Walker Crystallizer. It
is fed to the unit at 120℉ and cooled to 60℉ using cooling water which enters at 50℉ and leaves 70℉. The crystallizer has a cooling surface of 3 ft2
per foot length. The feed rate is 500 lb/hr and the crystallizer is seeded with 50 lb/hr of 65 mesh crystals, 19. The amount of the crystalline crop (C)
produced in lb per hour is
A. 285.3 B. 249.3 C. 255.65 D. 214.65
23. Na2SO4-10H2O crystals are formed by cooling 100 kg of 30% by weight aqueous solution ofNa2SO4. The final concentration of the solute in the
solution is 10% . The weight of crystals is
A. 285.3 B. 249.3 C. 255.65 D. 214.65
24. An evaporator is fed with 100 kg/h of a solution which contains 10% NaCl, 10% NaOH and the rest water. During evaporation water is removed as
vapor and NaCl crystallizes and is settled and removed. The mother liquor contains 50% NaOH and 2% NaCl. How many kg of salt are precipitated
per hour?
A. 9.6 B. 9.0 C. 8.0 D. 7.5
FILTRATION & CENTRIFUGATION
Constant Rate and Constant Pressure Filtration

1. What is the porosity of a solid if its bulk density is 1125 kg/m3 and its true density is 1500 kg/m3?
A. 0.25 B. 0.75 C. 1.33 D. 0.33
2. Given the following data on filter cake (CaCO3) from plate and frame filter press:
Thickness of cake: 1 inch Weight of cake: 2.7 lbs
Dimensions of cake: 7x 8 in Density of CaCO3: 183 lb/ft3
The porosity of the cake is
A. 0.95 B. 0.78 C. 0.55 D. 0.35
3. Volume of the filtrate collected is 1 gal when the filtration rate is 1.5 gpm, and it is 5 gal. What is the total volume collected in 10 min? Assume
constant-pressure filtration.
A. 3.67 gal, 7.43 gal C. 3.67 gal, 9.85 gal
B. 4.22 gal, 7.43 gal D. 5.18 gal, 8.75 gal
4. In the of Al(OH)3 the following data were obtained:
(a.) the pump is operated at maximum capacity (P= 50 psia);
(b.) filtration was completed at constant pressure;
(c.) constant rate operation time is 15 min and 1/3 of the total volume is obtained during this period,
Given the above, the total filtration time is
5. If only ½ of the original filtrate volume of the above problem were to be collected with the area remaining unchanged, the new filtration time is
Clarifying Centrifuge
6. The capacity in cubic meters per hour of a clarifying centrifuge operating under these conditions is?
Diameter of bowl =600 mm Thickness of liquid layer =75 mm
Depth of bowl =400 mm Speed =1200 r/min
Specific gravity of liquid =1.2 Specific gravity of solid =1.6
Viscosity of liquid =2 cp Cut size of particles =30 microns
A. 200 B. 310 C. 320 D. 210
7. A batch centrifugal filter having a bowl diameter of 750 mm and a bowl height of 450 mm is used to filter a suspension having the following properties:
Temperature; liquid, water =25℃
Porosity of cake =0.435
Final thickness of cake =150 mm
Specific cake resistance =9.5E10 ft/lb
Filter medium resistance =2.6E 10 per ft
Speed of centrifuge =2000 rpm
Concentration of solids in feed =60 g/L
Density of dry solids in cake =2000 kg/m3
The final cake is washed with water under such conditions that the radius of the inner surface of the liquid is 200 mm. Assuming that the rate of flow of
wash of filtrate, the rate of washing is m3/hr is
A. 0.60 B. 0.40 C. 0.75 D. 0.85
Plate & Frame Filter Press and Leaf Filter
8. A laboratory leaf filter is run at constant rate. The initial pressure is 5 psig and the pressure after 30 min is 65 psig during which 5 ft3 of the filtrate is
collected. The resistance of the filter medium in terms of ft3 of filtrate is
A. 0.42 B. 0.95 C. 1.64 D. 3
9. A small leaf filter is run at a constant rate. It is found that the time the initial pressure is 5 psig and the pressure after 20 minutes of operation during
which 30 gal of filtrate is collected is 50 psig. If the filter is used with the same slurry in a constant pressure filtration at 50 psig, the filtrate collected in
20 min is
A. 40 gal B. 42.4 gal C. 30 gal D. 45 gal
10. A plate and frame filter press is used to filter a compressible sludge (s=0.45) at 50 psia for 2 hours. Washing is done at 30 psia with wash water equal
to 10% of the filtrate volume collected. The washing time is
A. 100 min B. 127min C. 85 min D. 205 min
DAILY TEST
1. A P and F filter press with 10 frames is used to filter a slurry at a constant pressure. Total filtration area is 75 ft2 and the filter delivers 400 lb of frame
in half an hour. If 10 more frames are added to the filter press, the other conditions remaining the same, the time to produced 400 lb filtrate, assuming
Rin= 0, is
A. 10 min. B. 0.5 hr C. 7.5 min D. 15 min
2. A viscous capturing particles with a density of 1461 kg/m3 is to be clarified by centrifugation. The solution density is 801 kg/m3 and its viscosity is 100
cp. The centrifuge has a bowl with r2=0.02225 m, n= 0.00716 m and height h= 0.01970 m. The critical particle diameter of the largest particles in the
exit stream if N= 23, 000 rev/min and the flow rate g= 0.002832 m3/hr is
A. 0.746 m B. 0.476x106 m C. 4.076x105 m D. 0.346x106 m
3. The unit of filter medium resistance is
A. cm-1 B. gm/cm-1 C. cm/gm-1 D. gm-1
4. The porosity of a compressible cake is
A. minimum at the filter medium C. minimum at the upstream face
B. maximum at the filter medium D. same throughout the thickness
5. The specific cake resistance is
A. gm/cm2 B. cm/gm C. cm/gm2 D. gm/cm
6. Filter aid is used
A. to increase the rate of filtration C. to decrease the pressure drop
B. to increase the porosity of the cake D. as a support base for the septum
7. In filtration operation involving incompressible cakes, the flow rate is directly proportional to
A. viscosity of the filtrate C. the thickness of the filter cake
B. the pressure applied D. the size of the cake particles
8. It is the most common filter medium.
A. canvas cloth B. woolen cloth C. glass cloth D. paper
9. An increase in pressure drop in filtration will
A. end the filtration C. decrease the filtrate collection
B. be the beginning of filtration D. increase filtrate collection
10. In a plate and frame filter press, the rate of washing is equal to _____ of the final filtration rate.
A. ½ B. ¼ C. 1 D. 2
BRINGHOME EXAM
“You will find the key to success under the alarm clock”-Benjamin Franklin
1. The equation
VT2 = 22.5x 103(θ T+0.11)
Given the relation between the filtrate volume and the operating time under constant pressure of a certain P and F filter press where V i2= ft3 of the
filtrate delivered in time θ T+hr. If θ T =6 hrs/cycle (dismantling, dumpling and reassembling), and V w=1/16 V T the total cycle time for maximum filtrate
output during each 24 hr is
A. 11 hours B. 12 hours C. 3.8 hours D. 2 hours
2. A plate and frame filter press is used to filter certain sludge for 2 hr at constant pressure. Washing is done by using 10% of the filtrate volume
collected. The time washing is
A. 100 min B. 96 min C. 1.6min D. 100 hr
3. Determine the filtration rate that can be expected from a basket centrifugal filter using the data below:
Basket height =12 in Inside basket diameter =26 in
Rotation rate =2000 rpm Material to be filtered =gypsum slurry
Specific cake resistance =2.52E11 ft/lb Porosity =0.5
Specific gravity gypsum =2.65
Assume that the cake is incompressible, filter medium resistance is negligible and the liquid surface corresponds to the filter cake surface and the
thickness of the cake is 1 inch.
A. 0.598 gpm B. 0.698 gpm C. 0.72 gpm D. 0.55 gpm
4. A rotary drum filter with 35% of its filtering area submerged in the slurry, turns at 0.5 rpm. The filtrate production is 0.61 cubic meters per min per
square meter of filtering area submerged when filtering lime slurry. Average production is 20.4 cubic meters of filtrate per hour. The estimated area of
the filter cloth in square meter is
A. 3.2 B. 1.6 C. 0.80 D. none of these
5. Referring to the above problem, if the drum has a diameter of 1.0 m, the width of the drum, in cm is
A. 2.5 B. 100 C. 51 D. none of these
6. A plate and frame press delivers 50 liters of filtrate in an hour at a constant pressure of 50 psig. The washing time using 50 L of wash water is
A. 1.6 hrs B. 3.2 hrs C. 4 hrs D. 2.5 hrs
7. A standard leaf filter gives 20 cu ft of filtrate in two hours of filtration time per cycle. If washing time is 30min, draining time is 20 min, filling time is 25
min, and dumping, cleaning, etc is 35 min, the capacity of the leaf filter, in cu ft per hour, is
A. 5.2 B. 6.5 C. 4.4 D. none of these
8. The capacity of a rotary vacuum filter is 10 liters/hr, what will be the new capacity in liter/hr if the fraction submerged in the slurry is increased by 20%
maintaining the speed and pressure the same.
A. 12 B. 10.95 C. 15.5 D. 13
9. A rotary vacuum filter with negligible filter medium resistance delivers 125 ft3 of filtrate per minute when a given CaCO3-H2O mixture is filtered under
known conditions. If the pressure drop over the cake is doubled, all other conditions remaining constant, the volume of the filtrate delivered per hour is
A. 10,000 ft3 B. 177 ft3 C. 11000 ft3 D. 7500 ft3
10. A filter medium is tested by suspending 50 grams in 100 grams of water. When filtered, the filtrate is clear. The wet cake is weighed and found tobe
53.9 grams. After drying, the cake is found to be 49.0485 grams. What is the solubility of the filter media on grams/ 100 grams water? Assume that the
concentration of the filtrate is the same as the concentration of the liquid in the filter cake.
A. 4.2 B. 2.1 C. 1 D. 0.07
11. Which of the following filter media can be trapped particle of size 0.005 micrometer?
A. woven wire B. membranes C. woven cloth D. cellulose
SNAP EXAM
1. A body weighs 1.0 kg in air, 0.90 kg in water and 0.82 kg in a liquid. What is the specific gravity of the liquid?
A. 1.8 B. 2.4 C. 0.5 D. 0.8
2. The specific volume of wet stream at 500 kPa is 0.2813 m3/kg. Using the data from stream tables, determine the quality of stream.
A. 75% B. 60% C. 45% D. 25%
3. An aqueous solution of acetyldehyde contains 2% acetyldehyde by weight. The partial pressure of acetyldehyde over the solution is found to be 41.4
kPa at 367 K. What will be the partial pressure over a 0.1 molal solution at the same temperature?
A. 4 kPa B. 9 kPa C. 14 kPa D. 22kPa
4. A crystallizer is charged with 100 kg of a solution containing 25% Ba (NO3)2 in water. On cooling 10% of the original water present evaporates.
Calculate the yield of crystals when the solution is cooled to 283 K. The solubility at 283 K is 7.0 kg Ba(NO3)2/100 kg total water.
A. 10.4 kg B. 15.1 kg C. 20.3 kg D. 25.8 kg
5. There exists a unique solution for a set of material to balance equations if
A. The number of degrees of freedom is positive.
B. The number of degrees of freedom is negative.
C. The number of degrees of freedom is zero.
D. The number of degrees of freedom is non-zero value.
6. 2000 kg/hr of a mixture consisting of 60 wt% benzene and 40 wt% toluene is to be separated in a distillation column. The distillate is to be contain 98
wt% benzene and 95% of feed benzene is to be recovered as distillate. What is the percentage benzene in the bottom product?
A. 7.17% B. 24.2% C. 27.8% D. 32.1%
7. Two Carnot engines are operating in series. The first one absorbs heat at a temperature of 1111K and rejects heat to the second engine at a
temperature T. The second engine receives the heat at the intermediate temperature T and rejects it to a reservoir at 300K. Calculate T if the
efficiency of the two engines are equal.
A. 330.1 K B. 380.9 K C. 445.7 K D. 577.3 K
8. From the data in the above problem, calculate T if the works done by the two engines are equal.
A. 456 K B. 588 K C. 642 K D. 705 K
9. A homogeneous liquid phase second order reaction 2A→R is carried out in a plug-flow reactor with 60% conversion. What will be the conversion in a
plug-flow reactor two times as large if all the other variables remain the same, and if the reaction takes place without a volume change? Feed to the
reactor is pure A.
A. 50% B. 60% C. 75% D. 85%
10. The cost of a 250 m2 exchanger is P500, 000.00. What is the estimated order-of-magnitude cost of a similar 900 m2 exchanger? Use 0.62 exponent
for the cost.
A. P883,445 B. P945,778 C. P1,002,450 D. P1,106,312
11. From the data in the above problem, what will be the installed cost of the900 m2 exchanger? Use 3.3 as the Lang factor for installation.
A. P3,650,830 B. P3,420,980 C. P3,210,760 D. P3,006,880
12. The inside temperature of a complete wall is maintained at 2000℉, and the outside ambient air temperature is maintained at 70℉. The composite wall
consists of three layers; their thickness from the hotter to the colder surfaces are 12,12, and 10 inches respectively. The corresponding thermal
conductivities are 0.4, 0.2, and 0.1 Btu/hr-ft-℉, respectively. Assume that the thermal conductivities are invariant with temperature and inside heat
transfer resistance is negligible. The outside air film heat transfer coefficient is 2 Btu/hr-ft-℉. Calculate the heat loss through the composite wall in
Btu,hr-ft2.
A. 98.7 B. 118.2 C.135.7 D. 148.8
13. From the data in the above problem, calculate the outside surface temperature.
A. 98.2℉ B. 112.8℉ C. 129.1℉ D. 145.1℉
14. The City of Auburn has decided to build a softball complex and the city council has already voted to fund the project at the level of $800,000 (initial
capital complex). The city engineer has collected the following financial information for the complex project.
 Annual upkeep costs:$120,000
 Annual utility costs: $13,000
 Renovation costs: $50,000 for every 5 years
 Annual team user fees (revenues): $32,000
 Useful life: Infinite
 Interest rate: 8%
If the city can expect 40,000 visitors to the complex each year, what should be the minimum ticket price per person so that the city can breakeven?
A. Price: greater than $2.50 and less or equal $3.00
B. Price: greater than $3.00 and less or equal $3.50
C. Price: greater than $3.50 and less or equal $4.00
D. Price: greater than $4.00 and less or equal $4.50
(15-16) A plant produces phenol. The variable cost in pesos per tonne of phenol is related to the plant capacity P (in tonnes/day) as 45,000+ 5P. The fixed
charges are P100,000 per day. The selling price of phenol is P50,000 per tonne.
15. The optimal plant capacity (in tonnes per day) for minimum cost per tonne of phenol, is
A. 101 B. 141 C. 283 D. 422
16. The break-even capacity in tonnes per day, is
A. 50 B. 40 C. 30 D. 20
17. A 70℃ aqueous solution initially containing 15 mol% KNO3 is to be boiled so as to give a final yield of solid KNO3 of 60 percent. H ow much (in
percentage of initial water content) of the initial water must be boiled off?
A. 30% B. 45% C. 60% D. 72%
18. A solution of sodium carbonate in water is saturated at a temperature of 10℃. Calculate the weight of Na2CO3-10H2O crystals which can be dissolve
in 100 lb of this solution at 30℃.
A. 120 lb B. 142 lb C. 167 lb D. 192 lb
19. The temperature of heat from one place to another by fluid circulation between spots of different temperatures is called _______.
A. conduction B. convection C. radiation D. evaporation
20. What is the heat transfer due to density differential?
A. convection B. conduction C. nuclear D. radiation
21. The heat transfer by convection occurs in which of the following?
A. only in gases C. only in liquids
B. only in gases and liquids D. only in solids and liquids
22. Prandtl number of nitrogen at 200 K is
A. 0.714 B. 0.821 C. 0.885 D. 0.901
23. The ratio of the molecular diffusivity and momentum in liquids is known as the
A. grashof number B. Reynolds number C. nusselt D. Prandtl number
24. A metalloid rod 2 cm in diameter is used as a heating instrument. The thermal conductivity is 270J/sec-m2-℃. The surface temperature is maintained
at 200℃. For the center of the rod not to exceed 500℃, the maximum volumetric heat generation rate within the metallic rod in J/s-m3 must be
A. 4,440,000,000 B. 5,130,000,000 C. 6,930,000,000 D. 2,040,000,000
25. What is the capacity in gpm of a clarifying centrifuge (cylindrical) operating at 1000 rpm, having a bowl diameter of 24 inches, liquid thickness of 3
inches, bowl depth of 16 inches, and with no sedimentation thickness? The liquid has a viscosity of 3 cp, a specific gravity of 1.3, bearing a solid
having a specific gravity of 1.6. The cut size required is 60 microns.
A. 240 gpm B. 280 gpm C. 320 gpm D. 360 gpm
26. It is found that the filtration rate is doubled if the pressure difference is doubled. What would be the effect of raising the temperature of filtration from
293 to 313 K? The viscosity of the liquid is given by
μ= μ 0(1- 0.015(T- 273))
Where μ is the viscosity at a temperature T in K and μ 0 is the viscosity at 273 K.
A. filtration rate will increase by 75% C. filtration rate will increase by 50%
B. filtration rate will increase by 30% D. filtration rate will increase by 10%
27. In the filtration of a sludge, the initial period is effected at a constant rate with the feed pump at full capacity, until the pressure differences reaches 400
kN/m2. The pressure is then maintained at this value for a remainder of the filtration. The constant rate operation requires 900s and one-third of the
total filtrate is obtained during this period. Neglecting the resistance of the filter medium, determine the total filtration time.
A. 3300 s B. 3600 s C. 4500 s D. 5700 s
28. If the time for removing the cake and reassembling the press is 1200 s, calculate the filtration cycle time with the existing pump. The cake is not
washed.
A. 3300 s B. 3600 s C. 4500 s D. 5700 s
29. If the time for removing the cake and reassembling the press is 1200 s, calculate the filtration cycle time with the existing pump for a maximum daily
capacity, The cake is not washed.
A. 3300 s B. 3600 s C. 4500 s D. 5700 s
30. A rotary filter, operating at 0.03 Hz. Filters at the rate of 0.075 m3/s. Operating under the same vacuum and neglecting the resistance of the filter cloth,
at what speed must the filter be operated to give a filtration rate of 0.0160 m3/s?
A. 0.136 Hz B. 13.6 Hz C. 0.00136 Hz D. 1360 Hz
31. A type of filter which consist of an endless reinforced rubber belt, with drainage hole along its center, which supports the filter medium.
A. rotary drum filter C. disc filter
B. belt filter D. plate and frame press
32. A unit operation by which suspended solids in a liquid are separated out by forcing the mixture through a porous screening medium is
A. screening B. filtration C. sleving D. osmosis
33. All of the following are commonly used frothers, except?
A. pine oil C. cresylic acid
B. calcium cyanide D. methyl isobutyl carbinol
34. Which of the following cannot be recommended for transportation of abrasive materials?
A. belt conveyor B. apron conveyor C. flight conveyor D. chain conveyor
35. For transporting pastry material, one will use
A. apron conveyor B. belt conveyor C. screw conveyor D. bucket conveyor
36. The capacity of a belt conveyor depends upon two factors. If one of the cross section of the load, the other is thee
A. speed of the belt C. thickness of the belt
B. length of the belt D. material to be transported
37. Dry powdery solid material are transported by a
A. belt conveyor B. apron conveyor C. screw conveyor D. bucket conveyor
38. Apron conveyors are used for
A. heavy loads and short runs C. heavy loads and long runs
B. small loads, long runs D. transporting powdered materials
A. crushers B. grinders C. ultraline grinders D. disintegrators
A. choke feeding B. automatic crushing C. free crushing D. open circuit
A. friability B. toughness C. hardness D. brittleness
42. Which of the following gives the crushing energy required to create new surface?
A. Taggart’s rule B. Rittinger’s law C. Fick’s law D. none of these
43. Size reduction mechanism used in jaw crushers is
A. attrition B. cutting C. compression D. impact
44. Feed size of ≥ 25 cm can be accepted by
A. ball mill B. fluid energy mill C. rod mill D. jaw crusher
45. Maximum size reduction in a ball mill is done by
A. attrition B. impact C. compression D. cutting
46. The main size reduction operation in ultra fine grinders is
A. cutting B. compression C. attrition D. impact
47. The reduction ratio for grinders is defined as
A. Df/Dp B. Df-Dp C. Dp/Df D. Dp-Df
48. The reduction ratio for the fine grinders is
A. 5-10 B. 10-20 C. 20-40 D. as high as 100
49. Maximum size reduction in a fluid energy mill is achieved by
A. compression B. cutting C. interparticle attrition D. impact
50. Pick out the material having minimum Rittinger’s number. (Hint: Make use of Moh’s Scale in ChE Handbook by Perry)
A. calcite B. quartz C. pyrite D. galena
51. Pick out the material having maximum Rittinger’s number. (Hint: Make use of Moh’s Scale in ChE Handbook by Perry)
A. calcite B. quartz C. pyrite D. galena
52. Crushing efficiency of a machine ranges between
A. 0.1 to 2% B. 20 to 25% C. 5 to 10% D. 50 to 70%
53. Size measurement of ultraline particles can be best expressed in terms of
A. centimeter B. micron C. screen size D. surface area per unit mass
54. Trommels separate a mixture of particles depending on their
A. size B. screen size C. wet ability D. electrical and magnetic
55. Screen capacity is expressed in terms of
A. tons/h B. tons/ft2 C. both a and b D tons/h-ft2
56. Which of the following screens has the maximum capacity?
A. grizzlies B. shaking screen C. trommels D vibrating screen
57. For sizing of fine materials, the most suitable equipment is a
A. trommel B. shaking screen C. grizzly D. vibrating screen
58. Mesh number indicates the number of holes per
A. square inch B. square foot C. linear inch D. linear foot
59. Optimum ratio of operating speed to critical speed of a trommel is
A. 0.33-0.45 B. 0.5-2 C. 1.33-1.45 D. 1.5-2.5
60. A wooden cube that is 15 centimeters on each side with a specific weight of 6300 N/m3 is floating in fresh water (y=9810 N/m3). What is the depth of
the cube below the surface?
A. 8.75 cm B. 9.12 cm C. 9.64 cm D. 10.12 cm
61. The ice in an iceberg has a specific gravity of0.922. When floating in seawater (SG=1.03), the percentage of its exposed volume to the nearest to
A. 5.6 B. 7.4 C. 8.9 D. 10.5
62. Water flows through a long 1.0 cm I.D. hose at 10 liters per minute. The water velocity in m/s is nearest to
A. 1 B. 2.12 C. 4.24 D. 21.2
63. A pipe has a diameter of 4 in at section XX and a diameter of 2 in at section YY. An ideal fluid flow, the velocity is given as 2 ft/s at section XX.
Determine the flow velocity at section YY.
A. 4 ft/s B. 8 ft/s C. 5 ft/s D. 2.5 ft/s
64. Find the mass flow rate of a liquid (density of 0.690 g/cm3) flowing through a 5 cm (inside diameter) at 8.3 m/s.
A. 69 kg/s B. 450 kg/s C. 11. 24 kg/s D. 430kg/s
65. A water flows out of a pipe at the rate of 3cm3/s. What is the velocity of the water at a point in the pipe where the diameter of 0.50?
A. 14.42 cm/s B. 16.3 cm/s C. 15.27 cm/s D. 19.7 cm/s
66. The height difference between two points in which the fluid is being transferred is the ____.
A. kinetic head B. friction head C. potential head D. pressure head
67. It is dimensionless group which is proportional to the ratio of inertial force and surface-tension force.
A. Bond number B. Froude number C. Weber number D. Power number
68. A hypothetical gas or liquid which offers no resistance to shear and therefore has zero viscosity.
A. perfect fluid B. non Newtonian fluid C. Newtonian fluid D. thixotropic fluid
69. It occurs when the flow rate is great enough so that the pressure drop across the bed equals the weight of the bed.
A. fluidization B. cavitation C. channeling D. pressure drop
70. It is the imaginary envelope which encloses the system and separates it from its surroundings.
A. boundary B. control surface C. control volume D. interaction
71. What is the Fanning friction factor for smooth pipes when Reynolds’s number is 1E7?
A. 0.0015 B. 0.002 C. 0.0025 D. 0.003
72. The Fanning fiction factor for a 10-mm galvanized iron pipe when Reynold’s number is 2E7 is approximately
A. 0.011 B. 0.014 C. 0.015 D. 0.01
73. Water at 86℉ is to flow through a horizontal pipe at the rate of 175 gpm, μ=0.85 cP. A 25-ft head is available. What should be the pipe diameter?
Assume the roughness of pipe, is 0.00015 ft and the length of pipe is 1000 ft.
A. 4.026 in B. 6.54 in C. 8.75 in D. 10.20 in
74. Water is flowing through an annular channel at a rate of 25 gpm. The channel is made of 1/2 and 1 1/4-in schedule 40 pipes. Calculate ∆P through an
annular channel length 20 ft, assuming ∂D= 0.0014; μ= 0.9 cP and ρ= 62.4 lb/ft3.
75. What is the friction factor for a fully developed flow in a circular pipe where Reynold’s number is 1000?
A. 0.064 B. 0.008 C. 0.10 D. 0.64
76. The flow rate of water through a cast iron pipe is 5000 gpm. The diameter of the pipe is 1 foot, and the coefficient of friction is 0.0173. What is the
pressure drop in lbf/ft2 over 100 foot length of pipe?
A. 21.078 B. 23.78 C. 337.26 D. 488.65
77. A cast iron pipe of equilateral triangular cross section with side length of 20.75 inch has water flowing through it. The flow rate is 6000 gpm, and the
friction factor for the pipe is 0.017. What is the pressure drop in lbf/ft2 in a foot section?
A. 24.3 B. 48.7 C. 178.5 D. 309.7
78. Given strength of pipe is 10000 psi and working pressure of 400 psi, find the schedule number.
A. schedule 40 B. schedule 80 C. schedule 10 D. schedule 5
79. The wall thickness of a 1-inch schedule 40 steel pipe is
A. 0.133 in B. 0.154 in C. 0.083 in D. 0.219 in
80. The inside diameter of a 2-inch schedule 40 steel pipe is
A. 2.245 in B. 2.000 in C. 2.067 in D. 1.939 in
81. The outside diameter of a ½ inch schedule 10 steel pipe is
A. 0.840 in B. 0.5 in C. 1.050 in D. 0.546 in
82. The power in kilowatts required in the absence of losses to pump water at 400 liters per minute from a large reservoir to another reservoir 120 meters
higher is nearest to
A. 5.85 B. 7.85 C.15.70 D. 30.00
83. During a heavy rain, a 3 m 4.6 m room is flooded to a depth of 15 cm. To remove the water, a pump is used that does the job in two hours. The water
flows through a horizontal pipe of radius 0.64 cm and length of 6.7 m. Compute the gage pressure that the pump produce.
84. The pressure drop across a turbine is 30 psi. The flow rate is 60 gallons per minute. Calculate the power output of the turbine.
A. 0.41 Hp B. 1.05 Hp C. 2.54 Hp D. 6.30 Hp
85. A pump produces a head of 30 feet. The volumetric flow rate is 10 gallons per minute. The fluid pumped is oil with a specific gravity of 0.83. How much
energy does the pump consume in one hour?
A. 8.7 kJ B. 17.2 kJ C. 168.9 kJ D. 203. 6 kJ
86. A pump has an efficiency of 65% . It is driven by a 0.75 horsepower motor. The pump produces a pressure rise of 120 Pa in water. What is the required
flow rate?
A. 3.03 m3/s B. 4.04 m3/s C. 4.55 m3/s D. 4.66 m3/s
87. A pump adds 167.6 m off pressure head to 45.43 kg/s of water. What is the hydraulic power in kW?
A. 64.69 kW B. 74.69 kW C. 66.54 kW D. 76.54 kW
88. Maximum work can be obtained from a system when the change taking place in it is
A. isothermal B. adiabatic C. reversible D. irreversible
89. The ratio of work performed by a system and the heat it absorbed from a reservoir is referred to
A. entropy B. Gibb’s free energy C. carnot efficiency D. Helmholtz free
90. According to the first law of thermodynamics
A. Energy is neither lost nor gained in any energy transformation.
B. Perpetual motion is possible.
C. Energy is conserved in quality but not in quantity.
D. Energy is being created as time passes. We have more energy in the universe now than when time began
91. In choosing the refrigerant, the fluid must have the following characteristics, except
A. environmentally benign
B. has a vapor pressure less than atmospheric
C. must be economically viable
D. exist at a high pressure at the condensation temperature
92. Coolers and boilers are ordinarily operated at _____ condition.
A. isobaric B. isenthalpic C. isothermal D. isentropic
93. If the absolute temperature of a gas is doubled, the mean speed of the gas molecules
A. is doubled B. increases 4 times C. increases by about 40% D. decreases
DIFFUSION
Diffusivity
1. The diffusivity of water in air at 100℉ and 1 atm in cm2/sec is ____. (Hint: Use the ChE handbook by Perry)
A. 0.256 B. 0.273 C. 0.404 D. 0.581
2. The order of magnitudes of diffusivities in gases is
A. 10-5 m2/s B. 10-3 m2/s C. 10-4 m2/s D. 10-14 m2 /s
3. Mass diffusivity of He-N2 system at 25℃ and 1 tm is 0.687 cm3/s. The estimate of the diffusion coefficient in cm3/s for the same mixture at 50℃ and
1.5 atm is
A. 0.503 B. 0.530 C. 0.0530 D. 0.420
Lewis Number
4. The value of Lewis number is 1,678 for air water vapor system is around
A. 4 B. 0.24 C. 3.97 D. 600
One-way Diffusion
5. A rectangular tank 1 ft2 in cross section and 6” depth is filled with ethyl alcohol solution in water at 50℉ to within 0.75” of the top. A fan is blowing air
at 50℉ and 1 atm over the tank. Alcohol concentration at the interface is 0.65 mole fraction. The diffusivity of ethyl alcohol is 0.417 ft2/hr. How much
of the alcohol will be lost (in lbmol/day) in one day by diffusion? Assume that alcohol level is maintained constant.
A. 0.00056 B. 0.1123 C. 10.45 D. 31.24
6. The time it will take to evaporate a 10 mm unknown liquid at 25℃ (density= 40 lb/ft3, MW=60) in a 5-m diameter circular tank is ____ hr. The vapor
pressure at 25℃ is 180 mmHg, pressure is atmospheric pressure and Dv= 0.0329 ft2/hr. Stagnant air film is 3mm.
A. 22 hr B. 45.3 hr C. 31.6 hr D. 5.2 hr
7. Ammonia is diffusing through a stagnant gas mixture consisting of 1/3 nitrogen and 2/3 hydrogen by volume. The total pressure is 30 psia and the
temperature is 30℉. The concentration of ammonia across the film which is 0.5 mm thick drops from 10% to 5% ammonia by volume. Assuming the
mass diffusivity of ammonia to be 0.229 cm2/sec, the rate of diffusion of ammonia expressed in lb/hr-ft2
A. 6.93 B. 0.12 C. 2.33 D. 12.54
Two-way Diffusion
8. He and N 2 gas are contained in a conduit 5 mm in diameter and a 0.1 m long at 298 K and a uniform pressure of one end of the tube is 0.5 atm and
0.02 atm at the other end. Assuming equimolar counter-diffusion, the flux in kmol/s-m2 is
A. 2.35E-5 B. 2.44E-7 C. 1.77E-6 D. 1.22E-8
9. A mixture of He and N2 gas is confined in a pipe at 298K and 1 atm total pressure which is constant throughout. At the end of the pipe at point 1 the
partial pressure of He is 0.60 atm and at the other end 0.2m, 0.10m. Calculate the flux of He in kmol/s-m2 at steady state if diffusivity of He in N2 is
0.687E-4 m2/s.
DAILY TEST
(1-3) Benzene’s diffusing through a slab of a 7 cm thick at 25℃ and 2 atm. The partial pressure of benzene is 50 mmHg at the left of the slab and 10 mmHg at
the right of the slab. The mass diffusivity of benzene through air at 25℃ and 2 atm is 0.044 cm2/s.
1. What is the concentration of benzene at the left face of the slab (gmol/cm3)?
A. 1.691E-6 B. 5.691E-6 C. 8.691E-6 D. 10.691E-6
2. What is the concentration of benzene at the right face of the slab (gmol/cm3)?
A. 3.33E-7 B. 5.38E-7 C. 6.38E-7 D. 9.38E-7
3. What is the mass flux of benzene (gmol/cm2-s) through a slab of air 1 cm thick?
A. 6.47E-8 B. 12.38E-8 C. 6.26E-8 D. 5.38E-8
4. What is the equipment of Prandtl number convective mass transfer?
A. Sc B. Sb C. Bi D. Pe
5. The unit of volumetric diffusivity is
A. cm2/sec B. cm/sec C. cm3/sec D. cm3/sec3
6. Molecular diffusion is caused by
A. transfer of molecules from the concentration to this concentration region
B. thermal energy of the molecules
C. activation energy of the molecules
D. potential energy of the molecule
7. Distillator is used to break down a complex petroleum mixture into simpler mixtures?
A. distillation B. fractional distillation C. fractional crystallization D. addition
8. The decay of O2 in N2 at 0℃ in cm2/s.
A. 0.111 B. 0.178 C. 0.181 D. 0.697
9. When the fluid flow ratio is great enough so that the pressure drop across the bed equals the other side of the bed.
A. addition B. cavitation C. channeling D. pressure drop
10. Artifact fluid is one that
A. is very viscous C. obeys Newton’s law of viscosity
B. is assumed in problem of conduit flow D. is frictionless and incompressible
BRINGHOME EXAM
“Change your life today. Don’t gamble on the future, act now, without today.” –Simone de Besuvoir
1. Corresponding to Prandtl number in heat transfer, the dimensionless group in mass transfer is
A. Schimdt number C. Sherwood number
B. Peclet number D. Stanton number
2. Schimdt number is
A. μ/ρDAB B. RePe C. Sh x Pe D. Re/Pe
3. In physical terms, Schimdt number means
A. thermal diffusivity/ mass diffusivity C. thermal diffusivity/ momentum diffusivity
B. momentum diffusivity/ mass diffusivity D. mass diffusivity/ thermal diffusivity
4. Corresponding to Nusselt number in heat transfer, the dimensionless group in mass transfer, is
A. Scherwood number C. Schimdt number
B. Peclet number D. Stanton number
5. Lewis number Le) is
A. Sc/Pr B. Pr x Sc C. Sc x Pr D. St x Sh
6. Ammonia (A) being absorbed from air (B) into water is an example of
A. steady- state equimolar diffusion C. steady- state unincompetent
B. steady- state multicompetent D. unsteady- state equimolal diffusion
7. Hydrogen will diffuse ____ compared to oxygen.
A. half as fast C. four times slower
B. four times faster D. two times slower
8. Equimolar counter-diffusion means that the
A. bulk in terms of mass is not moving C. concentration driving force is zero
B. convective flux is very high D. bulk in terms of moles is not moving
9. The method of solute transfer which involves rapid movement of large chunks of fluid in turbulent motion.
A. molecular diffusion C. eddy diffusion
B. thermal diffusion D. kinetic transport
10. Steady state equimolal counter-diffusion is encountered in
A. separation of a binary mixture by distillation C. absorption of NH 4 from air by water
B. all liquid-liquid diffusion systems D. all liquid-solid diffusion systems
11. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the temperature (T) as
A. Dα11.5 B. Dα1 0.5 C. Dα1/P D. Dα12
12. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the pressure (P) as
A. Dα11.5 B. Dα1 0.5 C. Dα1/P D. Dα12
13. The diffusivity of benzene in air at 0℃ and 1 atm is 0.200 ft2/hr. The diffusivity of benzene in air at 25℃ and is
A. 0.0122 cm2/s B. 0.299 ft2/hr C. 0.089 cm2/s D. 0.0772 ft2/hr
14. Methanol diffuses in 0.15 cm stagnant film of 1:1 mole mixture of hydrogen and CO2 at 100℃ and 2 atm. The partial pressures of methanol on both
sides are 0.6 and 0.2 atm. The average diffusivity of methanol in the hydrogen and CO2 at 0℃ and 1 atm in cm2/s is
A. 0.15 B. 0.31 C. 0.51 D. 0.68
15. A sphere of naphthalene having a radius at 2 mm is suspended in a large volume of still air at 318 K and 1 atm. The surface temperature of the
naphthalene can be assumed to be 318 K. The diffusivity 318 K and 1 atm is 6.92x10-6 m2/s and its vapor pressure at 318 K is 0.555 mmHg. The rate
of evaporation of naphthalene in mole/s-m2 is
A. 49x10-9 B. 9.68x10-5 C. 4.5x10-9 D. 9.7x10-5
16. Calculate the ratio of diffusion of NaCl (in mol/m2-s) across a film of water (nondiffusing) solution 1.5 mm thick at 18℃ when the concentrations on
opposite sides of the film are 24 and 4 wt% NaCl respectively. The diffusivity of NaCl is 1.3E-5 cm2/s at 18℃. Densities of 24 and 4 wt% NaCl at 18℃
are 1081 and 1027 kg/m2.
A. 3.7E-3 B. 3.7E-4 C. 8.2E-5 D. 5.2E-7
17. A rectangular tank 0.1 m2 in cross section and 15 cm depth is filled with ethyl alcohol solution in water at 10℃ to within 2 cm of the top. A fan is
blowing air at 10℃ and 1 bar over the tank. Alcohol concentration at the interface is 0.55 mole fraction. The diffusivity of ethyl alcohol is 0.39 m2/hr.
How much (in kmol) alcohol will be lost in one day by diffusion. Assume that the alcohol level is maintained constant, and local atm pressure is 1 bar
A.
A. 0.008 B. 0.06 C. 0.16 D. 8.24
18. Benzene at 22℃ is contained in an open circular tank with a diameter of 6.5 m. The benzene is exposed to the atmosphere, such that the liquid
surface is covered with a stagnant air film of approximately 5 mm thick. Assume that the benzene above the stagnant film is negligible. The vapor
pressure of benzene at 22℃ is 100 mmHg. The specific gravity of benzene is 0.86. If benzene is worth P4/L, the value of benzene lost in pesos per
day is
A. 3434 B. 10000 C. 10520 D. 11000
19. Ethyl alcohol is diffusing into an alcohol water solution at 18℃. The concentration of alcohol in the bulk of the solution is negligible, while that at the
surface of the solution is 0.12 g/cc. The film thickness is 0.15 cm and the diffusivity is 1E-5 cm2/. The amount of alcohol diffusing through 100 ft2 of
interface per hour is
A. 6 lb B. 5 lb C. 0.016 g-mole D. 0.0026 g-mole
20. The relative rate of diffusion of a gas (of molecular weight 128) as compared to oxygen.
A. 2 times B. ¼ th C. 1/8 th D. ½
HUMIDIFICATION AND DRYING
Humidification
For questions 1-7, use the psychrometric chart to estimate the following unknown quantities given the dry -bulb temperature of air-water system equal to 130ºF
and absolute humidity of 210 grains of water per lb dry air. Determine the following:
Percent relative humidity
40 60 31 52
Wet bulb temperature in ºF
77.4 60.6 89.2 96.3
Saturated enthalpy (Btu/lb dry air)
52.63 64.96 75.5 87.3
Humid heat (Btu/lb dry air)
0.2535 0.1453 0.3541 0.4261
Humid volume (ft3/lb dry air)
12.3 15.6 16.4 17.8
Dew point temperature (ºF)
65.5 72.3 88.9 98.7
Saturation humidity (lb water/ lb dry air)
0.015 0.038 0.027 0.043
The air supplied at the rate of 1500 cfm to a refrigerated coil, has a saturation humidity 0.03 lb water per lb dry air and dry bulb temperature of 120 ºF. The
mass flow rate of dry air entering per minute is
104.50 87.89 78.56 99.20
Dry air is bubbled through 25 liters of water at a rate of 15 L (STP)/min. The air leaving the liquid is saturated with water at 25 ºC and 1.5 atm. How long will
it take for the water to vaporize?
32.9 days 67.8 days 79.1 days 80.7 days
The relative humidity of air at 76 ºF and 1 atm if the humid air has 0.015 lb water per lb dry air
83.2% 69% 78% 91%
Drying
Wet solids are to be dried from 36% to 8% moisture in 5 hours under constant drying conditions. Equilibrium moisture content is 4% (d.b.) and critical
moisture content is 14% (d.b.). The additional time it will take to dry from 8% to 5.5% moisture under the same drying condition is
6.6 hrs 1.6 hrs 1.8 hrs 5 hrs
Wet solids are to be dried from 40% to 10% in 5 hrs under constant drying conditions. The critical moisture content is 20% and the equilibrium moisture
content is 7% . All moisture contents are on a dry basis. The time needed to dry from 15% to 5% free moisture under the same drying condition is
3.42 hrs 1.846 hrs 0.542 hrs 2.129 hrs
A batch driver removes water from solid material at a rate of 30 lb/hr during the constant rate period. Under the operating conditions, the critical free
moisture content is 0.5 lb H 2O/ lb dry solid and the equilibrium moisture content is 0.04 lb H 2O/ lb dry solid. The curve of drying rate versus moisture
content may be assumed as a straight line during the entire falling period. Three hundred pounds of dry solid, containing 200 lb of water, enters the
drier. How long will the total drying require the final product contains 0.08 lb H 2O/ lb dry solid?
12.6 hrs 1.27 hrs 13.9 hrs 19.3 hrs
A porous material dries in the open air at a rate approximately proportional to its moisture content. If a sheet hangs in the wind lost half of its free moisture in
the first hour, when will it have lost 99% with the weather conditions remaining the same?
7.5 hrs 8.67 hrs 6.67 hrs 450 min
One thousand kilograms per hour of a material with 30% moisture content (d.b.) is dried in a belt conveyor drier with a capacity of 50 kg of bone dry solid
per meter of drier. The total drying time is 5.3 hrs. Estimate the length of the drier.
74.2 m 81.5 m 106 m 98 m
DAILY TEST
An atmospheric dryer handles 10 tons of wet crystalline salt per day, reducing the moisture content from 10% to 1% by means of countercurrent flow of hot
air entering at 225ºF dry bulb and 110 ºF wet bulb and leaving at 150 ºF dry bulb. Calculate the number of tons dried product per 24 hrs.
0.008 9.09 85.2 120
From the data in problem #1, calculate the number of pounds of water removed from the salt per hour.
75.8 0.009 8.95 420
From the data in problem #1, calculate the humidity (lb water per lb dry air) of air leaving the dryer.
54.1 8.75 0.047 142
It is defined as the percentage ratio of the partial pressure of the vapor to the vapor pressure of the dryer.
Relative saturation Relative humidity
Percentage saturation Saturation
The portion of water in the wet solid that cannot be removed by the air in contact is called
Free moisture Equilibrium moisture content
Final moisture content Critical moisture content
Moisture contained by a substance in excess of the equilibrium moisture is called
Unbound moisture Free moisture
Critical moisture Bound moisture
The critical moisture content in case of drying indicates
Beginning of falling rate period End of falling period
Beginning of constant rate period None of these
A slurry is to be dried to produce flaky solid. Which dryer would you recommend?
Spray dryer Rotary dryer
Drum dryer Dielectric dryer
The point at which a distinct break in the curve bearing the FRP occurs.
Equilibrium moisture content Critical moisture content
Free moisture content Second critical moisture content
Drying ceases at the ______ moisture content.
Equilibrium Minimum
Critical Free
BRINGHOME EXAM
“Reading after a certain (time) diverts the mind too much from its creative pursuits. Any man who reads too much and uses his own brain too little
falls into lazy habits of thinking. “–Albert Einstein
When a solid material is said to be “dry,” it means that
The solid does not contain any moisture
The solid contains very small amount of moisture
The solid contains equilibrium moisture
The weight of the solid is the same as the bone dry weight
The portion of water in the wet solid that cannot be removed by the air in contact is called
Free moisture Final moisture content
Equilibrium moisture content Critical moisture content
Moisture in a solid exerting an equilibrium vapor pressure equal to that of the pure liquid at the same temperature is
Unbound moisture Free moisture
Critical moisture Bound moisture
In a drying operation, the critical moisture content is at
The middle of the falling rate period The end of the falling rate period
The middle of the constant rate period The end of the constant rate period
Drying ceases at the _____ moisture content.
Equilibrium
Critical
Minimum
Free
The relative humidity of air at a given temperature is the
Pounds of water vapor in one pound dry air
The ratio between the actual temperature of the air and its dew point
The ratio between the volume of the water vapor and the humid content
The ratio of the partial pressure of the water vapor and the vapor pressure of water
The degrees of freedom associated with humidification process is
1 2 3 4
Air enters at a rate of 20 kmol/min in a vessel that contains 10 m3 liquid hexane at 20ºC. The leaving gas mixture contains 91% hexane. How long it takes to
vaporize or absorb all the hexane in the vessel?
About 0.5 min About 0.5 hr
About 1 hr About 20 min
The air in the room is at 26.7 ºC and a pressure of 101.32 kPa and contains water vapor with a partial pressure P A=2.76 kPa. Calculate the percentage
humidity.
54.8% 60.7% 71.2% 78.3%
250 grams of wet solid sample containing 58 grams of moisture has
23.2% moisture by weight by wet basis 76.8% by weight dry solids by wet basis
30.21% moisture by weight by wet basis A& C
A wet material having a critical moisture content of 15% (d.b.) and an equilibrium moisture content of 3% (d.b.) took 6 hrs to dry from 45% (d.b.) to 10%
moisture. The time it will take to dry from 8% to 5.5% moisture (d.b.) is
5 hrs 5.5 hrs
4 hrs None of these
The amount of water to be removed from 2000 kg/hr of feed to be dried from 110% (d.b.) to 5% (w.b.) is ___ kg/hr.
998 1000 451 910
Moisture content of a substance when at equilibrium with a given partial pressure of the vapor is called
Free moisture Unbound moisture
Equilibrium moisture Bound moisture
Using the Antoine equation, the vapor pressure of tetrahydrofuran at 80 ºC is estimated to be ____ torr. Refer to the Handbook by Perry.
200 1518 1173 2562
The air, supplied at the rate of 249.57 gal per second to refrigerated coil, has a saturation humidity of 280 grains water per lb dry air and 13.5% RH. The
estimated water flow rate of air entering the refrigerated coil in lb per minute is
2.32 4.71 6.25 10.31
The air, supplied at the rate of 249.57 gal per second to refrigerated coil, has a saturation humidity of 280 grains water per lb dry air and 13.5% RH. The
estimated flow rate of dry air entering the refrigerated coil in lb per minute is
89 102 117 125
Air supplied at the rate of 1200 cfm to a refrigerated oil, has a relative humidity of 20% and dry bulb temperature of 150ºF. The mass flow of dry air entering
per minute is
74.3 75 78.5 75.26
In a vessel at 101.3 kN/m2 and 300 K, the percentage relative humidity of the water vapor in the air is 25. If the partial pressure of water vapor when air is
saturated with vapor at 300 K is 3.6 kN/m2. Calculate the partial pressure in kN/m2 of the water vapor in the vessel.
0.4 0.6 0.7 0.9
What is the relative humidity of air-water mixture at 1 atm and 20ºC if the vapor has a partial pressure of 11.6 mmHg at 20 ºC?
5.4% 15.6%
10.6% None of these
The molal humidity of air 50% saturated with water in lbmol H 2O per lbmol dry air at 20 ºC is
0.15 0.18 0.02 0.03
One dryer will dry a material from 45% moisture (wb) to 20% moisture (db). From here the material enters another dryer where the H 2 O content is further
reduced to give a final product weighing 1000 kg. if the total evaporation from both dryers is 800 kg, the moisture of the final product is
5% 2% 3% 1%
If the rate of drying under constant drying conditions with air at 140ºF and absolute humidity of 0.03 lb H 2 O per lb dry air of unknown mass solid is given by
R=0.5-exp(-60X) [in lb H 2O/hr-sqft], then the equilibrium moisture content (db) of the material is
0.12 0.034 0.01155 0.00116
The rate of drying at constant rate period is 20 lbs/hr. 400 lbs of dry solid containing 300 lbs water enter the dryer. If the critical free moisture is 0.05 (db),
the drying time to dry the material to 5% moisture (wb) is
67.5 hrs
47.5 hrs
57.5 hrs
76.5 hrs
How many cubic ft per minute of entering air is needed to evaporate 10 lb of water per hour from a rayon, if the air enters at 80ºF and 25% humidity and
leaves at 170ºF and 55% relative humidity? The operating pressure is 14.3 psia.
12.54 12.68 13.76 16.28
A stream of gas at 70ºF and 14.3 psia and 50% saturated with water vapor is passed through a drying tower where 90% of the water vapor is removed.
Calculate the lb of water removed per 1000 ft3 of entering gas?
0.0004
0.52
120
85
An atmospheric rotary dryer handles 10 tons of wet crystalline salt per day, reducing the moisture content from 10% to 1% by means of countercurrent flow
of hot air entering at 225 ºF dry bulb and 110 ºF wet bulb and leaving at 150 ºF dry bulb. Calculate the number of tons of dried products per 24 hr.
0.008 9.09 85.2 120
of hot air entering at 225 ºF dry bulb and 110 ºF wet bulb and leaving at 150 ºF dry bulb. Calculate the number of lb of water removed from the salt per
hour.
75.8 0.009 8.95 420
of hot air entering at 225 ºF dry bulb and 110 ºF wet bulb and leaving at 150 ºF dry bulb. Calculate the humidity (in lb H 2O per lb dry air) of air leaving
the dryer.
54.1 8.75 0.047 142
In the drying of copra under constant drying conditions, it took 10 hrs to reduce the moisture content of the material from 35% to 15% at 90ºC. Find the time
required to dry the copra from 35% to 6%
Data: Egull Moisture content = 5%
Critical Moisture content = 12%
1.81 hrs 17.86 20.3 21.4
Refractory bricks are usually dried in a
Tray dryer Conveyor dryer
Tunnel dryer Festoon dryer
Heat sensitive materials like certain pharmaceuticals and food stuff can be dried
In indirect tray dryer By freeze drying
In spray dryer None of these
Flights in a rotary dryer are provided to
Lift and shower the solids thus exposing it thoroughly to the drying action of the gas
Reduce the residence time of the solid
Increase the residence time of the solid
None of these
In the constant rate period of the rate of drying curve for batch drying
Cracks develop on the surface of the solid
Surface evaporation of unbound moisture occurs
Rate of drying increases abruptly
None of these
The falling rate period in the drying of the solid is characterized by
Increase in rate of drying
Increasing temperatures both on the surface and within the solid
Decreasing temperature
None of these
Dryer widely used in textile industry is
Cylinder dryer Tunnel dryer
Conveyor dryer Festoon dryer
Sticky material can be dried in a
Tray dryer Fluidized bed dryer
Rotary dryer None of these
0.6 m3 /s (measured at STP) of gas is to be dried from a dew point of 294 K to a dew point of 277.5 K. how much water must be removed? Vapor pressure of
water at 294K is 2.5kN/m2 . Vapor pressure of water at 277.5 K is 0.85 kN/m2.
2.1 kg/s 0.0071 kg/s
0.75 kg/s 0.00009 kg/s
From the data in problem #36, what will be the volume of the gas after drying measured at STP?
0.59 m3/s 4.52 m3/s
2.18 m3/s 6.78 m3/s
-----------------------------------------------------------------Nothing Follows-------------------------------------------------------------------
WEEKLY EXAM 12
INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each of them by marking the box corresponding to the
letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
{1-2} The air, supplied at the rate of 249.57 gal per second to refrigerated coil, has a saturation humidity of 280 grains water per lb dry air and 13% RH.
The estimated water flow of air entering the refrigerated coil in lb per minute is
2.32
9.71
15.2
21.31
The estimated flow rate of dry air entering the refrigerated coil in lb per minute is
89
102
112
125
This is a steady state temperature reached by a small amount of liquid evaporating into a large amount of unsaturated vapor-gas mixture.
Wet-bulb temperature
Saturation temperature
Dew point
Dry-bulb temperature
In an adiabatic humidification, it is possible to maintain the temperature of water constant since
According to the phase rule, the degrees of freedom is 3
The system can be well insulated from the surroundings
The temperature of the air can also be maintained constant
Increase in the humidity of air is insignificant
Which of the following processes may always be regarded as a constant-humidity process?
Cooling of air
Water-cooling in a cooling tower
Air conditioning
Heating of air
Air conditioning in tropical countries involves
Humidification by a process similar in that of a cooling tower
Humidification by a process similar to air-water vapor saturator
Dehumidification and removal of sensible heat
Dehumidification by condensing water vapor in a refrigerator
A screen is said to be blinded when
Oversizes are present in undersize fraction
Undersizes are retained in oversize fraction
The screen is plugged with solid particles
Its capacity is abruptly increased
Wet grinding in a revolving mill
Gives less wear on chamber walls than dry grinding
Requires more energy than dry grinding
Increases capacity compared to dry grinding
Complicates handling of the product compared to dry grinding
Humid air temperature 600°F and a total pressure of 1 atm is passed through a dehumidifier at a rate of 1000 ft3/min. The partial pressure of the water
vapor in air is reduced from 45 mmHg to 10 mmHg. How many pounds of water is removed per hour?
81.9
65.4
45.4
76.3
Sulfuric acid, H 2SO 4, can be formed from the chemical reaction 2 𝑆𝑂2 + 𝑂2 → 2 𝐻2𝑆𝑂4 . Suppose 400 g SO 2; 175 g O 2, and 125 H 2O are mixed and the
reaction proceeds until one of the reactants is used up. How many grams of H 2SO4 is produced?
612 g
620 g
622 g
630 g
It refers to the internal heat from the earth.
Geothermal
Thermal energy
Molten heat
Tectonic heat
The VCM of a solid fuel contains the following except
C
H
S
Ash
A sample of lignite was found to contain 34.55% moisture, 22.91% FC, 7.2% ash, 1.1% S and 0.57% N with a calorific value of 16.45 MJ/kg. Calculate the
% C in the VCM
49.09%
46.15%
65.76%
55.40%
An inventor seeking a patent claims that a building may be comfortably heated in winter by a device that draws heat into the building from the earth, even
though the temperature of the earth is lower than the desired temperature inside the building. He further claims that the quantity of heat supplied to the
building in a given time period can significantly exceed the work done by the device during the same period. If you were a patent clerk (like the young
Albert Einstein), what should be your best recommendation about the application?
The application should be rejected because it violates the first law of Thermodynamics
The application should be rejected because it violates the second law of Thermodynamics
The application should be rejected because it violates the third law of Thermodynamics
The application should be given full consideration because it does not violate any laws of Thermodynamics
A sealed rigid, 10 m3 air tank is heated by the sun from 20 C to 80 C. how energy in kJ is transferred to the tank? P=100 kPa
720
680
510
400
Air expands in an insulated cylinder from 200 C and 400 kPa to 20 kPa. Find T2 in C.
-24
-28
-51
-72
In the reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas at 300 K from 1 to 10 liters, where the gas has an initial pressure of 20 atm, calculate the change in
entropy of the gas in cal/°K.
3.20
3.46
3.72
3.86
A Carnot engine operates between two temperature reservoirs maintained at 200 °C and 20 °C, respectively. If the desired output of the engine is 15kW,
determine the heat transfer to the low temperature reservoir.
39.42 kW
24.42 kW
29.21 kW
33.50 kW
A newly designed refrigerator has a capacity of 3140 watts and an input rating of 735 watts. The coefficient of performance of the refrigerator is
5.67
4.27
3.26
4.44
With a pressure approaching zero, compressibility factor approaches
Zero
Unity
Infinity
Constant
A refrigerator causes heat to flow from a low temperature to high temperature, since this is unnatural therefore
Work must be done on the system
Heat must be absorbed at the condenser
Work is done by the system
Heat must be removed in the refrigerator
What is the measure of the energy that is no longer available to perform useful work within the current environment? It is also known as the measure of
randomness of the molecules.
Entropy
Enthalpy
Internal energy
Flow work
What refers to the state at which liquid and gaseous phases are indistinguishable?
Triple point
Critical point
Boiling point
Pour point
If the partial pressure of the vapor mixture is for any reason less than the equilibrium vapor pressure of the liquid at the same temperature, the mixture is
Saturated
Unsaturated
Supersaturated
Concentrated
Find the amount of electrical energy expended raising the temperature of 45 liters of water by 75°C. Assume efficiency of the heating equipment to be 90% .
4.36 kW-hr
6.25 kW-hr
7.12 kW-hr
9.44 kW-hr
How long could a 2000 hp motor be operated on the heat energy liberated by 1 mi3 of ocean water when the temperature of water is lowered by 1°C and if
all these heat were converted to mechanical energy?
371.56 yrs
245.65 yrs
210.92 yrs
177.42 yrs
The entrance enthalpy, velocity and height of an open system receiving mass at the rate of 5lbm/sec are 1000 BTU/lbm, 100 ft/sec and 100 ft, respectively.
50 BTU/sec are lost to the surroundings. The exit enthalpy, velocity and height are 1020 BTU/lbm, 50 ft/sec and 0 ft, respectively. What is the input
hp?
-87 BTU/s
-122 BTU/s
-133 BTU/s
-149 BTU/s
Critical temperature of methanol in K is
240
340
430
513
Compressibility factor of oxygen at 40 bars and 300 K is
0.9771
0.9676
0.9884
0.9477
A gas turbine cycle consisting of two adiabatic steps and two isobaric steps.
Brayton cycle
Sterling cycle
Rankine cycle
Otto cycle
A furnace has an area of 1000 ft2 exposed to surrounding. The furnace is made of 6 inch thick insulating bricks with terminal conductivity of 0.15 BTU/hr-ft-
°F. The change in temperature across the brick is 150 °C. How much fuel is required in lb/day to heat the furnace if the fuel has a heating value of 15
000 BTU/lb?
342
26
72
610
The viscosity of 40% by weight sucrose in water at 20°C in centipoises is
5.206
6.223
7.499
56.7
The boiling point of 60% sulfuric acid.
250°F
280°F
300°F
305°F
Find the degrees of freedom in a system composing of a liquid solution of alcohol in water in equilibrium with its vapor.
1
2
3
4
Water is flowing a pipe that changes diameter from 20 to 40 mm. If the water in the 20-mm section has a velocity of 40 m/s, determine the velocity in the 40-
mm section.
10 m/s
8 m/s
6 m/s
4 m/s
The overall order for the elementary reaction 𝐴 + 2𝐵 → 𝐶 is
0
1
2
3
If the volume of a container for the reaction in problem 2 is suddenly reduced to ½ its original volume with the moles A, B and C maintained constant, the
rate will increase by a factor of
2
4
8
16
It is a substance that will slow down the speed of chemical reaction.
Catalyst
Inhibitor
Positive catalyst
Substrate
An upward force (buoyant force) is equal to the weight of the fluid that is being displaced. This principle lies on:
Dalton
Bernoulli
Archimedes
Pappus
For Newtonian fluids, the shear stress is
Inversely proportional to the rate of deformation
A linear function of the shear rate of deformation
Constant
Equal to the shear rate of deformation
A solid material in a cube shape floats in oil of density 800 kg/m3 with 1/3 of the block out of the oil. What is the buoyant force on the cube whose edge is
0.75 cm?
2.207E-3 N
1.255E-3 N
2.581E-3 N
3.012E-3 N
A pipe has a two-inch inlet and has a 4-inch outlet, the mass flow ratio of the inlet is ___ to that of the outlet.
Less than
Greater than
Equal
Not equal
When a fluid flows through a reducer in a piping system, the velocity at the outlet end is ___ the velocity of the inlet.
Less than
More than
The same as
One half
Water at a temperature of 80 °F flows through two separate pipes 10 and 12 inches in diameter. If the mean velocity of flow in the 12-in pipe is 6 fps, the
Reynolds number for the 12-in pipe will be
624 000
636 000
648 000
660 000
Air at 1 bar and 25°C enters a compressor at low velocity, discharges at 3 bar, and enters a nozzle in which it expands to a final velocity of 600 m /s at the
initial conditions of pressure and temperature. If the work of compression is 240 kJ per kilogram of air, how much heat must be removed during
compression?
30 kJ/kg
40 kJ/kg
50 kJ/kg
60 kJ/kg
Water is pumped at 1 m3 /s to an elevation of 5 m through a flexible hose using a 100% efficient pump rated at 100 kW. Using the same length of hose, what
size motor is needed to pump 1 m3/s of water to a tank with no elevation gain? In both cases both ends of the hose are at atmospheric pressure.
Neglect kinetic energy effects.
18 kW
22 kW
43 kW
51 kW
A head of 3 ft of water is equivalent to ___ ft of brine with specific gravity 1.5.
0.5
1.5
2
3
What pressure drop (mmHg) in the blood as it passes through a capillary 1 mm long and 2 micrometer in radius if the speed of the blood through the center
of the capillary is 0.66 mm/s considering that the viscosity of the blood is 4E-3 Pa-s?
2.6 kPa
1.5 kPa
4.5 kPa
3.5 kPa
Water is flowing at a velocity of 1 m/s in a pipe 0.4 m in diameter. In the pipe is an orifice with a hole diameter of 0.20 m. What is the measured pressure
drop across the orifice?
1.76 psi
2.21 psi
2.83 psi
3.76 psi
Water is flowing through a pipe. A pitot-static gage registers 3 in of Hg. What is the velocity of water in the pipe?
2.85 m/s
4.33 m/s
3.86 m/s
5.72 m/s
A pump is pumping 50 gal/min of water from a pressure of 30 psia to a pressure of 100 psia. The changes in elevation and velocity are negligible. The motor
that drives the pump supplies 2.80 hp. What is the efficiency of the pump?
0.62
0.68
0.70
0.73
In screen analysis, notation +5mm/ -10mm means passing through
10 mm screen and retained on 5 mm screen
5 mm screen and retained on 10 mm screen
Both 5 mm and 10 mm screens
Neither 5 mm nor 10 mm screens
Vibrating screens have the capacity (tons/ft2-hr-mm mesh size) in the range of
0.2 to 0.8
50 to 100
5 to 25
100 to 250
It states that the energy is proportional to the new surface produced is
Rittinger’s law
Kick’s law
Bond law
Energy law
Shape factor for pulverized coal dust is equal to ___. (Hint: Use the ChE Handbook by Perry)
0.65
0.73
0.69
0.89
It is the tendency of the material to break into smaller sizes in the course of handling.
Brittleness
Hardness
Friability
Toughness
It is defined as the total surface of a unit weight or volume of a solid.
Surface area
Specific surface
Specific volume
Particle size
Which of the following is a soft material?
Quartz
Topaz
Sapphire
Gypsum
For efficient grinding, ball mills must be operated
At a speed less than the critical speed
At speed more than the critical speed
At a speed equal to the critical speed
With minimum possible small balls
One common problem in conveyors is to cut out the driving force when the conveyor jams, ____ devices are often used, as electrical controls which cut
power to the drive motor.
Torque limiting
Holdback
Brake
Cleaners
These trucks are used to transport a wide variety of bulk solids by highway.
Track hoppers
Hopper trucks
Trailers
Pallets
A type of conveyor consist of a series of pans mounted between two strands of roller chain, with pans overlapping to eliminate dribble, and often equipped
with end plates for deeper load. Its main application is the feeding of material at controlled rates, with lump sizes that are large enough to minimize
dribble.
Belt conveyor
Apron conveyor
Slat conveyor
Flight conveyor
Estimate the terminal free settling velocity in air of a dust sphere with diameter of 1 microns and specific gravity of 2.
1.99E-4 ft/s
2.98E-5 ft/s
3.12E-6 ft/s
4.12E-3 ft/s
The unit operation flotation is based in two major steps: conditioning and separation. The purpose of conditioning is
To generate and introduce air bubbles into the process vessel
To create physical-chemical conditions for achieving selectivity between particle species that are to be separated
To stabilize the air bubbles for effective particle-bubble attachments
None of these
Determine the filtration rate that can be expected from a basket centrifugal filter using the data below:
Basket height =12 in Inside basket diameter =26 in
Rotation rate =2000 rpm Material to be filtered =gypsum slurry
Specific cale resistance = 2.52E11 ft/lb Porosity =0.5
Specific gravity of gypsum=2.65
Assume that the cake is incompressible, filter medium resistance is negligible and the liquid surface corresponds to the filter cake surface and
the thickness of the cake is 1 in.
0.598 gpm
0.698 gpm
0.792 gpm
0.855 gpm
Questions 66 and 67 are based on the following information and illustration

In an experiment, a sphere of density ρ 1 and radius r is dropped in a tank of oil of viscosity µ1 and density ρ 2. The time of descent for the
sphere through the 1st section of height d is recorded as t1 and through the 2nd section of the same height as t2, 0 < t2 ─ t1 << 1.
Which of the following is true for the experiment?

The drag force exerted on the sphere increases during it descent through the 2nd section
The sphere never reaches its terminal velocity while falling through both sections
The sphere reaches its terminal velocity while falling through the 1st section
The drag force exerted on the sphere decreases during the descent through the 2nd section
The drag force exerted on the sphere during its descent through the 2nd section is
4
(𝜌1 − 𝜌2)𝑔 𝜋𝑟 3
3
4
𝜌1𝑔 𝜋𝑟 3
3
4 3 𝑑
𝜋𝑟 𝜌1𝑔 − 6𝜋𝜇 1𝑟 ( )
3 𝑡2
4 3 𝑑
𝜋𝑟 𝜌1𝑔 + 6𝜋𝜇 1𝑟 ( )
3 𝑡2
A plate and frame press delivers 50 L of filtrate in an hr at a constant pressure of 50 psig. The washing time using 50 L of wash water is
1.6 hrs
3.2 hrs
4 hrs
2.5 hrs
During filtration of slurry, the filtration rate will start to fall once the pressure drop across the filter medium
Becomes constant
Begins to fall
Begins to rise
Becomes zero
In a plate-and-frame filter press, the rate of filtration is directly proportional to the
Resistance of the filter cake
Cross section of the filter surface
Resistance of the filter medium
Viscosity of the filtrate
If the radius of the basket centrifuge is halved and the rpm is doubled, then
Linear speed of the basket is doubled
Centrifugal force is doubled
Linear speed of the basket is halved
Capacity of centrifuge is increased
CO2 can be absorbed by
Hot cupric oxide
Cold Ca(OH)2
Heated charcoal
Alumina
It is an induced motion of a material in a specified way, usually in a circulatory pattern inside some sort of container.
Agitation
Mixing
Blending
Sedimentation
Prandtl number of toluene at 60°C is
2.0
3.4
4.8
5.5
A dimensionless number which is the ratio of the characteristic relaxation time of the fluid and the characteristic time scale of the flow.
Deborah number
Peclet number
Grashof number
Froude number
The dimensionless quantity which essentially represents the ratio of the total mass transfer rate to the diffusive mass transfer.
Sherwood number
Schmidt number
Peclet number
Lewis number
It is a dimensionless group which is proportional to the ratio of inertia force and surface tension force.
Bond number
Froude number
Weber number
Power number
A cooling coil, consisting of a single length of tubing through which water is circulated, is provided in a reaction vessel, the contents of which are kept
uniformly at 360K by means of a stirrer. The inlet and outlet temperatures of the cooling water are 280K and 320K, respectively. What would be the
outlet water temperature if the length of the cooling coil was increased 5 times? Assume the overall heat transfer coefficient to be constant over the
length of the tube and independent of the water temperature.
312.1 K
320 K
338.6 K
357.5 K
A 5 cm diameter cylinder is maintained at a constant temperature of 200 °C and it is “completely enclosed” by a wind tunnel test chamber, walls of which
are at 10°C. Air at 350 K is forced across the cylinder at a velocity of 50 m/s (h=180 W/m-°C). if the surface emissivity of the cylinder is 0.7, determine
the total (i.e., convective and radiative) heat transfer from the cylinder [W per m high].
13
272
3750
985
A standard 1-in schedule 40 iron pipe carries saturated steam. The pipe is lagged (insulated) with a 2-in layer of 85% magnesia (k=0.034 BTU/hr-ft-°F) pipe
covering, and outside this magnesia there is a 3-in layer of cork (k=0.03 BTU/hr-ft-°F). The outside temperature of the pipe wall is 249°F, and the
outside temperature of the cork is 90°F. Calculate the temperature at the boundary between magnesia and cork.
124°F
168°F
189°F
110°F
It is equal to Nusselt number divided by the product of Reynolds number and Prandtl number.
Weber number
Stanton number
Mach number
Grashof number
What refers to the heat transfer wherein the heat is transferred from one point into another by actual movement of substance?
Conduction
Radiation
Convection
Absorption
The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the temperature (T) as
DαT
D α T0.5
D α T1.5
D α T3
The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the pressure (P) as
D α P 1.5
D α 1/P 0.5
D α 1/P
D α 1/P 1.5
A rectangular tank 0.1 m2 in cross section and 15 cm depth is filled with ethyl alcohol solution in water at 10 °C to within 2 cm of the top. A fan is blowing air
at 10 °C and 1 bar over the tank. Alcohol concentration at the interface is 0.55 mole fraction. The diffusivity of ethyl alcohol is 0.39 m2/hr. How much
(kmol) alcohol will be lost in one day by diffusion? Assume that the alcohol level is maintained constant, and the local atm pressure is 1 bar A.
0.008
0.06
0.16
8.24
Equimolar counter-diffusion means that the
Bulk in terms of mass is not moving
Convective flux is very high
Concentration driving force is zero
Bulk in terms of moles is not moving
The method of solute transfer which involves rapid movement of large chunks of fluid in turbulent motion.
Molecular diffusion
Eddy diffusion
Thermal diffusion
Kinetic transport
Air enters at a rate of 20 kmol/min in a vessel that contains 10 m3 liquid hexane at 20°C. The leaving gas mixture contains 91% hexane. How long it takes to
vaporize or absorb all the hexane in the vessel?
About 0.5 min
About 1 hr
About 0.5 hr
About 20 min
An operation where warm vapor mixture is cooled such as by contact with a liquid resulting in condensation and decreased humidity is
Evaporation
Dehumidification
Humidification
Extraction
Using the Antoine equation, the vapor pressure of tetrahydrofuran at 80°C is estimated to be ___ torr.
200
1518
1173
2562
Geo-Star Manufacturing Company is considering a new investment in a punch press machine that will cost $100 000 and has an annual maintenance cost
of $10 000. There is also an additional overhauling cost of $20 000 for the equipment once every 4 years. Assuming that this equipment will last
infinitely under this conditions, what is the capitalized equivalent cost of this investment at an interest rate of 10% ?
CE (10% ) <= $236 100
$238 100 < CE (10% ) <= $240 100
$236 100 < CE (10% ) <= $238 100
$240 100 < CE (10% ) <= $242 100
The cost of a glass lined receiver with a nominal capacity of 1000 gallons is P22 000. Find the estimated cost of a similar receiver but with a nominal
capacity of 2000 gallons.
P44 000
P33 000
P50 000
P25 000
The group of cost involved in a going activity whose total cost will remain relatively constant throughout the range of operational activity
Variable cost
First cost
Fixed cost
Direct cost
Capital means
Money, except that consumed in the public section
That which is invested
Savings
Money, except that which is owned
For economic decision making process in the private sector, economic calculations are made to maximize net benefits to
Those who invest in the enterprise and assume the risk
The public
Those who work as part of the enterprise
The creditors of the enterprise
Na2SO 4-10H 2O crystals are formed by cooling 100 kg of 30% by weight aqueous solution of Na2SO4. The final concentration of the solute in the solution is
10% . The weight of crystals is
22.33 kg 32.2 kg 45.35 kg 58.65 kg
What is the enthalpy (kJ/kg) of superheated steam at 20 kPa and 100°C?
3006.8
2310.7
2985.3
2686.3
What is the enthalpy (BTU/lb) of saturated steam at 30 psia?
218.93
1 164.1
1087.9
231.8
Emissivity of glaze porcelain at 72°F is
0.871 0.924 0.805 0.784
Pressure of saturated bromine at 300 Kin bar
0.124
0.310
0.680
1.330
LEACHING
Calculate the mass of the resulting solution if copper ore is to be leached with water in a single stage. 400 tons of copper ore containing 12% by mass copper
sulfate and 88% by mass insoluble inert is leached with 1000 tons of water. The inerts will retain 1.3 tons of water per ton of inert.
942 tons
457 tons
435 tons
544 tons
A slurry of slaked soybeans weighing 100 kg contains 75 kg inert solids and 25 kg solution with 10% wt oil and 90% wt solvent hexane. This slurry is contacted
with 100 kg pure hexane in a single stage leaching equipment so that the value of retention for the outlet underflow is 1.5 kg of insoluble solid per kg
solvent in the adhering solution. What is the composition of the underflow leaving that extraction stage in % wt oil?
1.5
2.3
0.3
0.8
For #s 3-5…
Roasted copper ore containing CuSO 4 is to be extracted in a counter stage extractor. A feed consisting of 250 kg gangue, 50 kg CuSO 4 and 25 kg water is
charged in the extractor. The strong solution produced consist 85% H 2 O and 15% CuSO 4 by mass. The recovery of CuSO 4 is 90% of that in the ore. Pure
water is to be used a fresh solvent. After each stage, 1 kg gangue retained 4 kg of solution. If equilibrium is attained in each stage, solve the following:
Weight of the solution that leaves the 1st stage
25 kg
255 kg
300 kg
1000 kg
% CuSO 4 in the final discharge is
0.2%
0.3%
0.4%
0.5%
The number of stages required is close to
7
8
9
10
One thousand pounds of a roasted copper ore containing 10% CuSO 4, 85% insoluble gangue and 5% moisture is to be extracted by washing it 3 times with
2000-lb batches of fresh water. It has been found that the solids retain 0.8 lb of solution per lb of gangue. What is the % CuSO 4 of the final underflow
sludge after 3 washings?
0.16%
3.12%
6.54%
8.90%
One thousand pounds of a roasted copper ore containing 10% CuSO 4, 85% insoluble gangue and 5% moisture is to be extracted by washing it 3 times with
2000-lb batches of fresh water. It has been found that the solids retain 0.8 lb of solution per lb of gangue. What is the % recovery?
75.5%
85.1%
90.8%
97.5%
DAILY TEST
The concentration of the solute in a mixture of solids-solute-solvent is ____ kg solute / kg solid if X=0.4 kg solute/ kg solution and R=5kg solution retained per
kg of solids.
20
2
3
12.5
The concentration of the solvent in kg solvent/ kg solid in problem #1 is
2
5
3
7.5
A countercurrent extraction system is to treat 100 ton/ hr of sliced sugar beets with fresh water as solvent. Analysis of the beets is as follows: water 48% , sugar
12% , with balance pulp. If 97% sugar is to be recovered and the extract phase leaving the system is to contain 15% sugar, determine the number of
stages required if each ton of dry pulp can retain 3 tons of solution.
10
16
20
25
A unit operation in which a soluble component is removed from an inert solid by a solvent which preferentially dissolves the soluble matter is known as
Adsorption
Solvent extraction
Leaching
Sedimentation
Leaching of sugar from sugar beets is done by
Hot water
Dilute H 2SO4
Hexane
Lime water
What are the two contacting phase in leaching?
Extract phase and raffinate phase
Feed phase and solvent phase
Solvent phase and solute phase
Overflow and underflow
Rate of leaching increases with increasing
Temperature
Pressure
Viscosity of solvent
Size of the solid
Which of the following operations does not involve leaching?
Dissolving gold from ores
Dissolving pharmaceutical products from bark or roots
Dissolving sugar from cells of the best
Removing nicotine from its water solution by kerosene
The major problem in leaching is to promote diffusion of the solute out of the solid and into the liquid. The most effective way of doing this is
To reduce the solid to the smallest size feasible
To use cross flow evaporation
To use countercurrent operation
To use spray percolators
Tea percolation employs
Liquid-liquid extraction
Absorption
Leaching
Adsorption
BRINGHOME EXAM
“True knowledge exists in knowing that you know nothing.” –Socrates
0.4 kg/s of dry seashore sand, containing 1% wt of salt, is to be washed with 0.4 kg/s of fresh water running countercurrent to the sand through 2 classifiers in
series. Assume that perfect mixing of the sand and water occurs in each classifier and that the sand discharged from each classifier contains one part of
water for every two of sand (wt). If the washed sand is dried in a kiln drier, what % of salt will retain?
0.492
0.429
0.294
0.249
A sample of copra with 8.5% moisture contains 59.6% oil. How much oil can be expected from 100 kg of moisture free copra?
31.9 kg
59.6 kg
65.14 kg
72.19 kg
Tung meal containing 55% oil is to be extracted at the rate of 4000 lb/hr using n-hexane containing 5% oil as solvent. A countercurrent multiple stage extraction
system is to be used. The meal retains 2 lb of solvent per lb of solvent per lb of oil free meal while the residual charge contain 0.11 lb oil per lb oil free
meal while the product is composed of 15% oil. The theoretical number of ideal stages is
3
4
5
6
Prepared cottonseed meats containing 35% extractable oil are fed to continuous countercurrent extractor of the intermittent drainage type using hexane as
solvent. The extractor consists of 10 sections, the section efficiency being 50% . The entrainment, assumed constant, is 1 kg solution/ kg solids. What will
be the oil concentration in the outflowing solvent if the extractable oil content in the meats is to be reduced to 0.5% wt?
72.2
28.7
27.8
22.7
How many stages and how much water is needed for the countercurrent extraction of NaOH from a feed consisting of 80 lb NaOH, 400 lb H 2O and 100 lb
CaCO 3. The final extraction solution will contain 10% NaOH with the recovery of 95% of the NaOH. We shall set the underflow at a constant 3 lb solution/
lb CaCO 3.
3
7
12
8
It was found that 44 kg of oil could be extracted from 100 kg of copra containing 30% water. If the same copra is dried to 3.5% moisture, calculate the kg of
copra that will give 2000 kg of oil.
2575
3095
4545
5217
Stage efficiency in a leaching process depends on the
Time of contact between the solid and the solution
Rate of diffusion of the solute through the solid and into the liquid
Both a and b
Vapor pressure of the solution
Extraction of coffee from its seed is done by
Liquid-liquid extraction
Leaching
Extractive distillation
Steam distillation
Feed consisting of 20% benzene and 80% inert solid. Pure nitrogen is used to absorb the benzene and 0.7 lb of benzene is absorbed per lb nitrogen. What
amount of nitrogen is required to absorbed all the benzene per lb of solid?
0.286
0.700
0.451
0.527
With increase in temperature, the leaching rate increases due to
Decreased liquid viscosity
Increase diffusivity
Both a and b
Neither a nor b
Leaching rate is independent of
Agitation
Temperature
Particle size
None of these
Density of dolomite.
2.9 g/cc
1.2 g/cc
1.8 g/cc
2.4 g/cc
The average bulk density of saltpeter coal in lb/ft3 is
70
80
90
100
The average bulk density of anthracite coal in lb/ft3 is
40
50
60
70
Boiling point of oxygen.
-183 °C
-112 °C
-251 °C
-218.4 °C
Boiling point of benzene
76.1 °C
80.1 °C
83.8 °C
89.0 °C
Heat of vaporization of water at 1 atm in cal/mole is
540
9729
80
5400
Heat of vaporization of acetone at 100°C in cal/g is
134.74
128.05
118.26
112.76
The viscosity of argon at 0°C and 1 atm has been measured as 2.096E-4 g/cm-s. Assuming that argon is a perfect model gas, calculate its equivalent molecular
diameter in angstrom.
0.76
2.24
10.5
42.1
The viscosity of argon at 0°C and 1 atm has been measured as 2.096E-4 g/cm-s. Assuming that argon is a perfect model gas, predict the viscosity of argon at
400 °C and 1 atm in g/cm-s.
3.28E-2
3.28E-3
3.28E-4
3.28E-5
The viscosity of argon at 0°C and 1 atm has been measured as 2.096E-4 g/cm-s. Assuming that argon is a perfect model gas, predict the mass diffusivity of
argon at 0 °C and 1 atm in cm2/s.
0.117
1.17
11.7
117
The viscosity of argon at 0°C and 1 atm has been measured as 2.096E-4 g/cm-s. Assuming that argon is a perfect model gas, predict the thermal conductivity
of argon at 0 °C and 1 atm in cal/s-cm-°C.
2.6E-5
2.6E-6
2.6E-7
2.6E-4
The work index for galena is
10.19
12.37
18.45
5.39
The work index for sandstone is
2.68
15.12
11.53
16.40
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LIQUID-LIQUID EXTRACTION
{1-2}There are 30 kg of solute in 100 liters of water.

The weight of solute that will be extracted by 35 liters of ether if the distribution coefficient m=4 is
3 kg
2 kg
3.45 kg
2.45 kg
If a three stage countercurrent extraction system is used, the weight of solute that will remain in the raffinate is
28.2 kg
27.6 kg
27.17 kg
29.0 kg
The distribution coefficient of solute A between solvents B and S is given by Y=2.5X where Y=mass of A/ mass of S in extract and X=mass of A/ mass of B in
raffinate. S and B are mutually immiscible. A solution containing 25% A and B is to be extracted in a single stage contact with a recovery of 80% . The
amount of S in kg required per 100 kg of solution is nearly
100
150
120
200
The distribution coefficient of solute A between solvents B and S is given by Y=3X where Y=mass of A/ mass of S in extract and X=mass of A/ mass of B in
raffinate. S and B are mutually immiscible. 100 kg of a 30% solution of A and B is to be successively treated in two batch contacts with 60 kg of solvent
each time. The overall % recovery of A is nearly
89.9%
92.16%
96.5%
100%
Nicotine is to be extracted with kerosene from a water solution containing 1% nicotine at 20°C. Water and kerosene are essentially immiscible. The equilibrium
of a solute between immiscible solvents is expressed by the distribution coefficient, K, which is the ratio of the solute concentration in the two phases and
the distribution of nicotine between kerosene and water K=0.9. Calculate the % extraction of nicotine if 100 kg of feed solution is extracted once with 150
kg solvent.
60%
62%
57.7%
67.7%
{6-7}Acetic acid is to be extracted from an acetic acid-water solution by pure ether. 1000 kg of feed containing 30% acetic acid and 70% water is used. The residue
contains 2% acetic acid, 3% ether and 95% water, while the extract contains 35% acetic acid, 51% ether and 14% water. Calculate:
Kilogram ether used

437.67
615.71
821.96
None of these
% acetic acid extracted
92.69%
93.16%
94.95%
95.90%
Benzoic acid is 9 times more soluble in chloroform than in water. The % benzoic acid that will remain from a water solution of benzoic acid if equal quantity of
chloroform and water is used.
10%
20%
15%
30%
Benzoic acid is 9 times more soluble in chloroform than in water. The % benzoic acid that will remain from a water solution of benzoic acid if twice as much
chloroform as water is used.
2.6%
5.3%
3.5%
6%
Benzoic acid is 9 times more soluble in chloroform than in water. The % benzoic acid that will remain from a water solution of benzoic acid if extraction is done
first by using equal quantity of chloroform and water followed by extraction using twice as much chloroform as water.
0.53%
0.35%
0.63%
0.73%
DAILY TEST
Hexane is being considered as a solvent to extract acetic acid from aqueous mixtures. At 30°C, the distribution coefficient K (i.e., mass fraction acetic acid in
hexane per mass fraction acetic acid in water) is K=0.017. How many kg of hexane is required to reduce the acetic acid content in 100 kg of an aqueous
solution from 30% to 10% wt?
12 908
13 072
13 580
14 120
Nicotine is extracted from water using kerosene. If 100 lb of a 2% nicotine solution is extracted once with 200 lb of kerosene, what % of nicotine is extracted?
({Equilibrium data: Y[lb nicotine/ lb kerosene]= 0.9X [lb nicotine/ lb water]}
64.5%
54.6%
46.5%
45.6%
Liquid-liquid extraction is based on the difference in
Solubility
Specific volume
Partial pressure
Viscosity
When the solvent dissolves very little of solute then
Solvent of low latent heat of vaporization should be used
Solvent of low freezing point should be used
Large quantity of solvent is required to extract the solute
Very small quantity of solute is required
Which of the following is the most suitable for extraction in a system having very low density difference?
Mixer-settler extractor
Centrifugal extractor
Pulsed extractor
Packed extraction tower
Acetic acid will be most economically separated from a dilute solution of acetic acid in water by
Solvent extraction
Evaporation
Continuous distillation
Absorption
The solvent used in liquid extraction should not have high latent heat of vaporization because
The pressure drops and hence the pumping cost will be very high
It cannot be recovered by distillation
Its recovery cost by distillation may be prohibitively high
It will decompose while recovering by distillation
In an extraction process the greater the weight of the solute in the raffinate relative to that in the extract ____ the distribution coefficient.
The stable is
The better is
The greater is
The lesser is
Choose the best combination or properties of a good solvent for extraction out of the following:
High selectivity
Low selectivity
High viscosity
Low viscosity
Large distribution coefficient
Small distribution coefficient
High interfacial tension
Low interfacial tension
i , iv , v , vii
i , iii , v , vi
i , iii , v , vii
i , ii , iv , vii
in liquid extraction, if selectivity is unity, then
separation of the constituent is most effective
no separation will occur
amount of solvent required will be minimum
solvent flow rate should be very low
BRINGHOME EXAM
“Knowledge of what is possible is the beginning of happiness.” –George Santayana
In multi-stage liquid-liquid extraction with partially miscible solvents

The extraction must be done to form co-currently in order to optimize the extraction
The minimum number of stages occur when the operating lines are parallel
The minimum number of stages occur when the tie line coincides with the operating line
The amount of solvent used must be enough to form 2 phases
To determine the minimum ratio of the extraction solvent to feed solvent, one has to show
The distribution coefficient
Only the concentration of the solute in the feed solvent
Only the concentration of the solute in the extraction solvent
Number of stages in the system
Fractional solvent extraction
Employs only one solvent
Employs 2 solvents
Results in low interfacial tension
None of these
Heat sensitive materials with very high latent heat of vaporization may be economically separated using
Liquid extraction
Evaporation
Distillation
Absorption
Selectivity of solvent used in extraction should be
1
>1
<1
0
In extraction, as the temperature increases, the area of heterogeneity (area covered by bimodal curve)
Decreases
Increases
Remains unchanged
None of these
The apex of an equilateral triangular coordinate (in ternary liquid system) represents
A pure component
A binary mixture
A ternary mixture
An insoluble binary system
In countercurrent extractor as the axial mixing increases, the extraction efficiency
Increases
Decreases
Remains unchanged
Depends on the pressure of the system
In a countercurrent liquid extractor
Both liquids flow at fixed rate
Both liquids can have any desired flow rate
Only one of the liquids may be pumped at any desire rate
Liquid’s flow rate depends upon the temperature and pressure
Sides of an equilateral triangular coordinates (on which ternary liquid system is plotted) represents
A pure component
A binary mixture
A ternary mixture
Partially miscible ternary system
Heat of fusion of acetic acid in calorie per gram
23.21
32.04
46.68
58.12
Heat of fusion of NO at 1 atm in cal/ mol is
1563
650
5540
1460
Heat capacity at constant pressure of bromine gas in cal/deg-mol.
7.5
8.0
8.5
9.0
Specific heat of naphthalene in cal/mol-C is
0.402
40.2
0.00314
0.042
Density (g/cc) of toluene at 20 °C
0.716
0.780
0.866
0.896
Density (g/cc) of 50% NaOH aqueous solution at 40°C.
1.4967
1.5109
1.5253
1.5400
Average bulk density of casein in pound per cubic foot.
36
45
55
60
Acetic acid is to be extracted from an aqueous solution by countercurrent extraction with isopropyl ether. The feed is 10 000 lb/hr of 28% acetic acid. The
number of equilibrium stages required for a solvent feed rate of 30 000 lb/hr and an extract composition of 8% acetic acid is
4
5
8
10
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GAS ABSORPTION & DISTILLATION
Gas Absorption
The mole fraction of solute entering a gas absorber is 0.25. If the % recovery is 75% , the the mole fraction of the solute leaving the tower will be
0.0833
0.0625
0.769
0.157
A mixture of ammonia and air at a pressure of 745 mmHg and a temperature of 40°C contains 4.9% NH 3 by volume. The gas is passed at a rate of 100 cfm
through an absorption tower in which only ammonia is removed. The gases leave the tower at a pressure of 740 mmHg, a temperature of 20°C and contain
0.13% NH 3 by volume. Using the simple gas law, calculate the rate of flow of gas leaving the tower in cubic feet per minute.
89.5
98.2
107.7
122.9
From the data in problem#2, calculate the weight of ammonia absorbed in the tower per minute.
9.2 lb/min
6.4 lb/min
3.2 lb/min
0.19 lb/min
It has been determined that the equivalent height per transfer unit (HTU) and number of transfer units (NTU) of a packed absorption tower are 0.85 ft and 15,
respectively. If the same separation can be done in a 10-plate absorption tower, then the height per transfer plate (HETP) is ___ ft.
12.75
1.275
0.567
5.67
The pressure drop induced in a packed column containing 1- in nominal size tellerettes for a flow rate of gas of 1500 lb/hr-ft2 and 3000 lb/hr-ft2 of liquid is estimated
to be _____ in H 2O/ ft of packing. (Hint: Use the ChE Handbook by Perry)
2.0
1.5
0.7
0.4
It is desired to absorb 95% of the acetone in a 2.0 mol% mixture of acetone in air in a countercurrent bubble-cap tower using 20% more than the minimum water
rate. Pure water is used in the top of the column. Find the number of equilibrium stages required for this separation, using the data below:
y=2.53 x at 80°F and 1 atm
terminal compositions: top bottom
x 2 =0 x 1=0.00658
y 2 =0.00102 y 1=0.02
4
9
15
20
{7-8}It is known for dilute solutions that the operating and equilibrium lines are straight. If the heat effects are neglected and the number of transfer units based on the
gas phase is 24 and the ratio of the slope of the equilibrium line (m) and the operating line (L/G) is 0.90.
What is the concentration ratio of the solute in the gas phase?

50
100
200
300
What is the absorption factor?
3.12
2.13
1.11
4.23
Distillation
What is the relative volatility of benzene to pentane at 100°F and 465 psia?
3.2
0.3
7.5
15.2
The charge to a simple batch still consist of an equimolar mixture of hexane and heptane. If the relative volatility of hex ane to heptane is 2.0 and 50% of hexane
has vaporized, what is the mole fraction of heptane in the total distillate?
0.37
0.73
0.46
0.52
{11-12}At a temperature of 366.4K, the vapor pressures of n-hexane and octane are 1480 and 278 mmHg, respectively. Assume the hexane-octane system obeys
Raoult’s law and the total pressure is 1 atm.
Calculate the equilibrium liquid composition (in mole fraction) of the more volatile component.
0.401
0.782
0.653
0.236
Calculate the equilibrium vapor composition (in mole fraction) of the more volatile component.
0.245
0.544
0.781
0.942
Calculate the dew point of a gaseous mixture containing 20 mole percent benzene, 30 mole percent toluene and 50 mole percent o-xylene at 1 atm total pressure.
100°F
263°F
150°F
350°F
{14-16}Alcohol-water solution is fed into a distilling still at a rate of 1000 kg/hr. The solution analyzes 30% ethanol wt. the distillate contains 90% alcohol and the bottom
8% alcohol, calculate:
Kg of distillate/hr
139.67
268.29
315.79
731.71
Kg of bottom product/hr
139.67
268.29
315.79
731.71
% recovery of the alcohol
19.51%
20.37%
62.16%
80.49%
When the feed to the column is a saturated liquid, the feed line is
Vertical
Inclined to the left
Horizontal
Inclined to the right
The feed to a binary distillation column is 25 mol% vapor and the balance liquid. The slope of the feed line with respect to the positive direction of the x -axis on x-
y diagram is closest to
0.67
3.0
-3.0
-0.67
A distillation column is composed of 7 theoretical stages in the enriching section and 8 theoretical stages in the stripping section. If the overall efficiency is 50% ,
then the number of actual stages is
15
30
16
32
A fractionating column is operating at 1 atm to produce a product of ethanol and water which leaves the top plate at 78.41°C. The bottom product is to contain 1
mol% ethanol. The feed contains 17 mol% ethanol and is introduced at its boiling point. The feed rate is 44 mol/hr. Reflux is returned to the top plate at a
rate of 31 mol/hr and at the top plate temperature. If the plate efficiency is 60% , calculate the number of actual plates.
8
16
24
35
From the data in problem #20, calculate the rate of heat transfer (BTU/hr) in the reboiler.
420 000
531 000
623 000
754 000
From the data in problem #20, calculate the rate of heat transfer (BTU/hr) in the condenser.
672 000
547 000
495 000
402 000
DAILY TEST
An acetone-air mixture containing 0.015 mol fraction of acetone has the mol fraction reduced to 1% of this value by countercurrent absorption with water in a
packed tower. The gas flow rate G is 1 kg/m2 -s of air and the water entering is 1.6 kg/m2-s. For this system, Henry’s law holds and Ye=1.75x, where Ye is
the mol fraction of acetone in the vapor in equilibrium with a mol fraction x in the liquid. How many overall transfer units are required?
10.92
9.12
4.72
3.03
A mixture of alcohol and water with 0.45 mol fraction of alcohol is to be continuously distilled in a column so as to give a top product of 0.825 mol fraction alcohol
and a liquor at the bottom with 0.05 mol fraction alcohol, how many theoretical plates are required if the reflux ratio is 3?
10
9
8
7
In case of an absorber, the operating
Line always lies above the equilibrium curve
Line always lies below the equilibrium curve
Line always can be either above or below the equilibrium curve
Velocity is more than the loading velocity
In case of desorber (stripper)
The operating line always lies above the equilibrium curve
The operating line always lies below the equilibrium line
Temperature remains unaffected
Temperature always increases
Operating velocity in a packed tower is usually
Half the flooding velocity
Equal to the flooding velocity
Twice the flooding velocity
More than the flooding velocity
A reboiler provides heat to the ____ of the distillation column.
Top
Intermediate reflux
Feed
Bottom
The theoretical minimum reflux ratio in a distillation column is enough if the column has
1 plate
100 plates
10 plates
An infinite number of plates
In distillation the cooled liquid stream returned to the column to cool a plate or stage is called
Reboil
Reflux
Feed
Bottom
The ease or difficulty of separating components by distillation is determined by ____ of the components.
Relative volatility
Viscosity
Mole fraction
Weight fraction
In binary distillation, the first component to condense in the distillate flask will be
The one with the lower melting point
The one with the lower boiling point
The one with the higher melting point
The one with the higher boiling point
BRINGHOME EXAM
“Personally, I’m always ready to learn, although I do not always like being taught.”
–Winston Churchill- 1874-1965, British Statesman, Prime Minister
In the choice of solvent for gas absorption, one of the properties to be considered is
Solvent should have a low vapor pressure
Solvent should be highly v iscous
Solvent should have low boiling point
Solvent should be unusual
In a gas absorption packed tower, the most economical gas velocity is considered to be ____ the flooding velocity.
Equal to
Twice
About half
Greater than
Poor performance in large packed towers is due mainly to
Poor packing
Inefficient heat transfer
Cavitation
Channeling
In gas absorption, tower packings are used
To reinforce the absorption tower due to drag crated by the liquid and gas
To disseminate the heat generated to maintain isothermal conditions
To increase the area of contact between the gas and the liquid
To reduce the pressure drop created by flowing gas
It is a unit operation which involves in the mass transfer of soluble materials from the liquid phase to the gaseous phase.
Absorption
Drying
Desorption
Humidification
It is mass transfer operation where it involves the transfer of a soluble component of a gas phase into a relatively nonvolatile liquid absorbent.
Gas absorption
Liquid extraction
Distillation
Stripping
In a gas absorption tower, mass transfer occur primarily
From the liquid phase to the gas phase
From the gas phase to the liquid phase
From the liquid phase to the packing
From the gas phase to the packing
If G=insoluble gas in gas stream and L=non-volatile solvent in liquid stream, then the slope of the operating line for the absorber is
L/G
Always <1
G/L
None of theses
Flooding in a column results due to
High pressure drop
Low velocity of the liquid
Low pressure drop
High temperature
For an absorber, both equilibrium and operating line will be straight for
Concentrated solution and non-isothermal operation
Dilute solution and non-isothermal operation
Dilute solution and isothermal operation
Concentrated solution and isothermal operation
A storage tank at 100°F is part full of a liquid mixture which contains 50 mol% n-butane and 50 mol% n-pentane. The vapor space contains only butane and
pentane vapors. What is the pressure in the vapor space?
1.95 atm
3.5 atm
4.1 atm
0.65 atm
From the data in problem #11, what is the mole fraction n-butane of the vapors?
0.43
0.65
0.77
0.93
A still liquor composition of ortho-xylene 10% , meta-xylene 65% , para-xylene 17% , benzene 4% and ethylbenzene 4% . How many plates at total reflux are
required to give a product of 80% meta-xylene and 14% para-xylen? The data are given as mol% .
37
38
39
40
What is the relative volatility of butane to pentane at 100°F and 465 psia?
3.2
0.3
7.5
15.2
One hundred moles per hr of solution containing 80 moles of A, the rest B is subjected to a simple continuous distillation. D moles of distillate containing 72 moles
A is obtained. If A is 5 times more volatile than B, the concentration of A in the distillate is
0.85
0.80
0.533
None of these
A mixture containing 65% benzene, 25% toluene and 10% xylene is distilled to produce a residue containing 0.5% benzene and a distillate containing 0.5%
toluene and no xylene. What is % xylene in the residue?
0.45%
70.8%
28.7%
87.5%
If reflux to a distillation column is 100 mol/hr, when the overhead product rate is 50 mol/hr, the reflux ratio is
0.5
2
50
150
The degrees of freedom associated with ternary distillation process according to Gibb’s phase rule is
2
3
4
5
In ____ distillation, the vapor generated by boiling the liquid is withdrawn from contact with the liquid and condensed as fast as it is formed.
Multi-stage
Fractional
Differential
Flash
The enrichment of the vapor stream as it passes through the column in contact with the reflux during distillation is
Evaporation
Stripping
Rectification
Fractionation
The maximum number of plates for a given distillation system is obtained at
Variable reflux
Maximum reflux
Minimum reflux
Optimum reflux
A plate holding the pool of liquid which rises a vapor whose average composition is in equilibrium with a liquid whose composition is the average of that of the
liquid leaving the plate is called
Separation plate
Theoretical plate
Transition plate
Bubble plate
In fractionation, an increase in reflux ratio
Increases the number of the theoretical plates
Increases the amount of distillate
Decreases the reboiler duty
Increases the condenser duty
The triangle whose one corner coincides with the enriching line and the outer corner is on the stripping line is called the
Feed plate
Ideal stage
Partial condenser
Middle plate
In batch open steam distillation, the solution to be open steam distilled should be
Miscible in water
Slightly immiscible in water
Completely immiscible in water
Containing large non-volatile impurities
To improve the degree of separation of the more volatile component from the less volatile component through distillation, the chemical engineer may, without
changing the variables,
Increase the feed temperature
Increase the reboiler temperature
Reduce the column pressure
Increase the column pressure
In a distilling column the highest pressure will be
At the top
At the bottom
At the feed plate
Between the feed plate and the top
This is an operation whereby components of a liquid mixture are separated by boiling because of their differences in vapor pressure.
Distillation
Drying
Evaporation
Leaching
The ____ efficiency is the efficiency for a single plate of distillation column.
Specific
Point
Murphree
Local
An experimental oil is used to distill 6000 kg/hr of Athabasta tar sand which analyzes 30% heavy oil, light oil nad non-volatile matter. If the distillate contains 12%
heavy oil and constitutes 25% recovery of the component, the weight in kg of the distillate obtains is
3750
2250
4350
6000
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CPI, Process Control and Design

1. The minimum plate spacing in most of the petroleum refinery distillation columns (of diameter 7.3 ft) is normally:
A. 6” B. 12” C. 18 ” D. 34”
2. Back trapping in a distillation column results due to:

A. low gas velocity C. high gas velocity
B. excessive liquid gradient over the tray D. Low reflux ratio
3. Bubble cap plate column is:

A. a finite stage contactor C. a differential stage contactor
B. used only for distillation, not for absorption D. a continuous contactor
4. The most common standard size of bubble caps used in industrial operation is:
A. 1” diameter cap with 0.5” diameter riser C. 6” diameter cap with 4” diameter riser
B.6” diameter cap with 1” diameter riser D. 4” diameter cap with 5” diameter riser
5. High pressure fluid in a shell and tube heat exchanger should preferably be routed through:
A. tubes to avoid the expense of high pressure shell construction
B. Shell side for smaller total pressure drop
C. Shell side of the flow is counter-current and tube side if the flow is co-current.
D. shell side for larger overall heat transfer co-efficient
6. When one of the fluids is highly corrosive and has fouling tendency, it should:
A. preferably flow inside the tube for its easier internal cleaning
B. preferably flow outside the tube
C. flow ate very slow velocity
D. flow outside the tube when the flow is counter current and inside the tube when the flow is co-current
7. In a shell and heat tube exchanger, the clearance of the tube is generally:
A. not less than one-fourth of the tube diameter or 3/16
B. more than the tube diameter
C. equal to the tube diameter
D. more in case of triangular pitch as compared to the square pitch tube layout
8. For a given fluid as the pipe diameter increases, the pumping cost:
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains unaffected
D. may increase or decrease depending upon whether the fluid is Newtonian or non-Newtonian
9. Which of the following is the most common baffle used in industrial shell and tube heat exchange?
A. 75% out segmental baffle C. 25% out segmental baffle
B. orifice baffle D. disk and doughnut baffle
10. Twenty five percent out segmental baffle means:

A. height is 75% of the I.D. of the shell C. height is 25% of the I.D of the shell
B. spacing is 25% of its height D. width is 25% of the height
11. In most of the shell and heat tube exchanger, the tube pitch is generally:
A. less than the diameter of the tube C. 1.25-1.50 times the tube diameter
B. 2.5 times the tube diameter D. one-fourth of the tube diameter
12. Floating head heat exchangers are used for:

A. heat transfer between corrosive fluids
B. cases where temperature difference between the shell and the tubes is more (>50 C)
C. co-current and transfer systems
D. counter-current heat transfer systems
13. In a double pipe (concentric) heat exchanger, the hydraulic radius for heat transfer (for a fluid flowing through the annulus) would be:
A. same as that for the fluid flow
B. less than that of the fluid flow
C. more than that of the fluid flow
D. D2 – D1 (D1 and D2 are I.D. of outer and inner pipes respectively)
14. Pouring factor must be included in the calculation of overall design heat transfer coefficient when the liquid:
A. containing suspended solids flows at low velocity
B. containing suspended solids flows at high velocity
C. is highly viscous
D. is of high specific gravity
15. In the case of the shell and heat tube exchanger, the logarithmic mean temperature difference:
A. is always less than arithmetic average value
B. is always more than arithmetic mean value but more than geometric mean value
C. is always less than arithmetic mean value but more than geometric mean value
D. May be either more or less than geometric mean and arithmetic mean value depending upon whether the flow of stream is concurrent or counter current
16. Joint efficiency for a seamless pipe is:
A. 1 B. 0.65 C. 1.2 D. 0.5
17. In the design of a paddle agitator, the ratio paddle diameter to tank diameter is normally taken as:
A. 0.1 B. 0.6 C. 0.25 D. 0.5
18. The ratio propeller agitator diameter o tank diameter is normally taken as:
A. 0.15-0.30 B. 0.5-0.65 C. 0.75-0.85 D. 0.50-0.90
19. The minimum baffle height should be:

A. equal to the impeller diameter C. twice the impeller diameter
B. twice the diameter D. ¾ of the tank height
20. Leg support is meant for:

A. large horizontal cylindrical vessels C. tall but empty vessels
B. small vessels D. thick walled tall vessels
21. Skirt support is suitable for:

A. small horizontal vessels C. large horizontal vessels
B. tall vertical vessels D. thick walled small vertical vessels
22. Saddle support are used for supporting:

A. horizontal cylindrical vessels C. tall vertical vessels
B. thick walled vertical vessels D. thick spherical vessels
23. A replica of a commercial scale plat:

A. lab scale B. bench scale C. pilot scale D. small scale
24. Vertical valves are not supported by:

A. brackets B. skirts C. column D. saddles
25. Which of the following is a propriety equipment?

A. reactors B. distillation columns C. pumps D. heat exchangers
26. It is a type of a pressure relief device commonly used in which it is consists of a pneumatically or electrically operated valves which are activated by pressure
sensing instruments:
A. directly actuated valves C. indirectly actuated valves
B. bursting discs D. over-pressure
27. It is a measure of the intrinsic rate of energy release from the burning, explosion or other chemical reaction of the material.
A. unit hazard factor C. dow fire and explosion index
B. material factor D. damage factor
28. In Kraft process of paper manufacture, white cooking liquor consists of caustic soda:
A. sodium sulfide, sodium carbonate C. sodium sulfite, sodium carbonate
B. sodium sulfite, sodium sulfide D. and sodium carbonate
29. Comparing sulfate process with sulfite process, we find that:

A. both temperature and pressure in former is less than that in the latter
B. both temperature and pressure in former is more than that in the latter
C. temperature is more in former and whereas pressure is more in the latter
D. pressure is more in former whereas temperature is less in the latter
30. Glycerin is recovered from lye by:

A. evaporation followed by vacuum distillation C. liquid extraction technique
B. extractive distillation technique D. steam distillation
31. Transparent soaps (e.g. Pears) are:

A. usually soft soaps (made from coconut oil) in which cane sugar and alcohol are added and finally washed with methylate spint to achieve transparency
B. metallic soaps with frothing agent and free stearic acid to achieve transparency.
C. metallic soaps with frothing agent which glycerin has not been recovered
D. high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and alcohol
32. Fats as compared to oils have:

A. more unsaturated glycerides of fatty acids C. much higher reactivity to oxygen
B. less unsaturated gly cerides of fatty acids D. lower melting point
33. Salt is added to the kettle during soap manufacture to separate:

A. soap from lye C. glycerin from lye
B. the metallic soap D. the unsaponified fat from soap
34. Hydrogenation of oil takes place in:

A. an autothermal reactor C. a trickle bed reactor
B. a plug flow reactor D. backmix reactor
35. Shaving soaps are:

A. soft potassium soaps (potassium salt of fatty acids) with free stearic acid to give lather a lasting property.
B. metallic soaps compounded with frothing agents
C. high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and alcohol
D. usually soap soaps
36. Lime and soda ash are added to water to remove:

A. bicarbonates and sulfates of calcium and magnesium
B. undesirable taste and odor
C. bacteria
D. its corrosiveness
37. Cholramines are used in water treatment for:

A. disinfection and control of taste and color C. corrosion control
B. removing turbidity D. control of bacteria
38. Deseration of water in its treatment is necessary as it:

A. minimizes its turbidity C. helps in controlling its taste and color
B. minimizes its corrosiveness D. controls bacteria
39. Which product is produced commercially by the Haber process?

A. sulfuric acid C. propane
B. ammonia D. calcium
40. A 20% oleum product means:

A. 20% SO 3, 80% H 2SO4 C. 80% SO 3, 20% H 2SO 4
B. 80% H 2SO4, 20% H2O D. 20% SO 3, 80% H2O
41. Which of the following is pearl ash?

A. NA 2CO 3 B. K 2CO 3 C. AL2O3 D. CaO
42. It is produced by the reaction of calcium carbide with water:

A. sulfur dioxide B. methylene C. ethylene D. acetylene
43. Which of the following is also known as black diamond:

A. bort B. fulsreners C. carbonados D. carbon novers
44. Percent krypton in air is:

A. 0.934% by volume B. 0.934% by weight C. 0.0001139% by volume D. 0.0001139% by weight
45. It is an alloy consisting of copper and zinc:

A. bronze B. brass C. amalgam D. cast iron
46. Aqua regia is a mixture of:

A. HCl and perchloric B. nitric and perchloric C. nitric and HCl D. HCL, HNO3, and perchloric
47. What alloying element is added to stainless steel to impart corrosion resistance?
A. chromium B. vanadium C, titanium D. copper
48. The process of heating rubber with sulfur to improve toughness and strength:
A. heat treatment B. annasing C. polymerization D. vulcanization
49. Which of the following is an ore of mercury?

A. bauxite B. galena C. sphalenite D. cinnabar
50. Which of the following is the present process for the manufacture of soda ash?
A. LeBlanc process B. Solvay process C. Deacon process D. Waldon process
51. Which of the following is used as a disinfectant and deodorant in dairies, creameries. Water supply, sewage disposal and for household purposes?
A. calcium hypochlorite B. sodium chlorite C. sodium hypochlorite D. caustic soda
52. It is the most abundant metal of the earth’s crust:

A. iron B. aluminum C. lithium D. sodium
53. A Mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide, produced by the reaction of water and carbon (coke), that is used as a starting point in the synthesis of methanol
and other organic chemicals:
A. producer gas B. synthesis gas C. marsh gas D. laughing gas
54. A process used in paper production in which sulfur dioxide is added to a mildly acidic digestion liquor to yield hydrogen sulfite ions:
A. sulfide process B. sulfate process C. mechanical pulp process D. Solvey process
55. A process used in paper production in which sodium sulfate is added to a basic digestion liquor:
A. sulfide process B. sulfate process C. mechanical pulp process D. Solvey process
56. Silicone rubbers are:

A. polysiloxanes B. polyethylene C. polypropylene D. elastomer
57. Corundum is:

A. aluminum oxide B. iron oxide C. magnesium oxide D. calcium oxide
58. Calcite is:
A. potassium carbonate B. Calcium Carbonate C. sodium hydroxide D. calcium hydroxide
59. It is used primarily in operations requiring high-flame temperature, such as welding and metal cutting:
A. acetylene B. blue water gas C. carbureted water gas D. coal gas
60. It is the variation of temperature with height above the ground:

A. inversion aloft B. ground-level inversion C. greenhouse effect D. lapse rate
61. Blue vitriol is:

A. Fe2O4 B. CoSO4 7H2O C. CuSO4 5H2O D. CdS
62. Prussian blue is:

A. ferric ferrocyanide B. sodium bicarbonate C. sodium carbonate D. sodium hydroxide.
63. An ore of lead:

A. silica B. spinel C. galena D. cementite
64. Epsom salt is:

A. ferrous sulfate B. manganese nitrate C. ferric chloride D. magnesium sulfate
65. Salt peler is:

A. sodium nitrate B. calcium nitrate C. potassium sulfate D. potassium nitrate
66. A unicellular organism surrounded by a cell wall and possessing a distinct nucleus.
A. protozoa B. virus C. yeast D. algae
67. Glauber’s salt is crystalline hydrated ___________.

A. sodium sulfate B. sodium sulfite C. calcium nitrate D. calcium nitite
68. It is characterized by simple vegetative bodies from which reproductive structures are elaborated. It contains no chlorophyll and therefore requires sources of
complex organic molecules.
A. algae B. fungi C. virus D. protozoa
69. A specie of algae that grows in high salinity and produces glycerol:
A. Flagella B. Pleomorphism C. Nacin D. Dunallella
70. Wastewaters produced by plant workers, shower facilities and cafeterias.

A. process B. domestic C. cooling D. industrial
71. It refers to the ability of coal to withstand breakage during handling and shipping:
A. friability B. size stability C. hardness D. toughness
72. It is a simply fixed medium biological reactor with wastewater being spread over the surface of a solid medium where the microbes are growing:
A. lagoons B trickling filters C. neutralization tank D. gint chambers
73. An industrial process for making hydrazine from ammonia and hypochlorite ion in aqueous solution:
A. Fraach process B. Solvey process C. Rasching process D. Downs process
74. A naturally occurring long-chain polymer composed of amino acid subunits:

A. carbohydrates B. fats C. Sugars D. proteins
75. A titration in which the change in cell voltage with added volume of one of the reactants is used to monitor the course of the reaction.
A. volumetric titration B. gravimetric titration
C. potentiometric titration D. electrometric titration
76. The ejection of electrons from a metal surface by beam of light. The energy of electrons depends upon the wavelength of the light.
A. Tyndal effect C. photoelectric effect
B. greenhouse effect D. electrometric effect
77. An early method for the production of sodium carbonate from sodium chloride, calcium carbonate, and sulfuric acid.
A. Frasch process C.Solvay process
B.Leblanc process D. Raschig process
78. An early process for the production of sulfuric acid, in which 𝑆𝑂2 is oxidized to 𝑆𝑂3 by nitrogen oxides in lead-lined chambers.
A. Solvay process C. Hall-Heroult process
B. Lead chamber process D. Downs process
79. A process for the production of aluminum through electrolysis of a solution of bauxite in molten cryolite.
A. Solvay process C. Hall-Heroult process
B. Lead chamber process D. Downs process
80. A process in which sulfur is recovered from underground deposits by melting it with superheated water and forcing it to the surface.
A. Haber-Bosch process C. Bayer process
B. Frasch process D. Bessemer process
81. An industrial electrochemical process for obtaining sodium from molten sodium chloride.
A. Frasch process C. Bessemer process
B. Bayer process D. Downs process
82. An industrial process for the production of sulfuric acid that is base on the oxidation of sulfur to sulfur trioxide on a vanadium oxide catalyst, followed by the
reaction with water in fuming sulfuric acid.
A. Leblanc process C. Contact process
B. Lead chamber process D. Bayer process
83. A multistep cyclic process in which pyruv ate ions are broken down to carbon dioxide and water, with production of ATP, NADH, and FADH2 molecules that store
free energy in the cells of organisms.
A. Born- Haber cycle C. Calvin cycle
84. A disproportionation reaction of two aldehyde molecules to give an alcohol and a carboxylic acid.
A. Friedel-Crafts reaction C. Cannizzaro reaction
B. Shift reaction D. Dehydration reaction
85. A multistep cyclic process in which glucose is synthesized from carbon dioxide and water.
A. Nitrogen cycle C. Calvin cycle
86. A process for the conversion of iron to steel that consists of forcing air through molten pig iron.
87. An industrial process for the purification of aluminum (III) oxide through its selective dissolution in a strongly basic solution.
88. Magnesium is obtained from:
A. Sea shells C. Sea water
B. Corals D. Sand
89. The union of nonvolatile inorganic oxides resulting from the decomposition and fusion of alkali and alkaline earth compounds, sand, and other constituents,
ending in a product with random atomic structure. It is a rigid, undercooled liquid having no definite melting point and sufficiently high viscosity to prevent
crystallization.
A. Ceramics C. Cements
B. Glass D. Refractories
90. It is made by the high-temperature pyrolysis of silicon tetrachloride or by fusion of quarts or pure sand.
A. Fused silica C. Borosilicate glass
B. alkali silicates D. Soda-lime glass
91. Crushed glass from imperfect articles, trim and other waste glass.
A. Mullite C. Borax
B. Pot furnances D. Cullet
92. It is commonly called niter cake.
A. Glauber’s salt C. Sodium bisulfate
B. Sodium sulfate D. salt cake
93. Which of the following compound is employed extensively in the leather industry as a depilatory?
A. Sodium hydrosulfite C. Sodium thiosulfate
B. Sodium sulfide D. Sodium silicates
94. Which of the following compounds is used to dissolve unaltered silver halogen compounds in negatives and prints?
A. Sodium hydrosulfite C. Sodium thiosulfate
B. Sodium sulfide D. Sodium silicates
95. Which of the following is used as a disinfectant and deodorant in dairies, creameries, water supplies, sewage disposal, and for household purposes?
A. Calcium hypochlorite C. Caustic soda
B. Sodium chlorite D. Sodium hypochlorite
96. A type of electric furnace where heat is produced by an electric arc between two or more electrodes, which are usually graphite or carbon, between the
electrodes and the furnace charge, or between two or more electrodes, which are usually graphite or carbon and may or may not be consumed in the operation, or
between the electrodes and the furnace charge.
A. Arc furnace C. Resistance furnace
B. Induction furnace D. Plasma
97. An instrument for the detection of high energy decay products of radioactive nuclei, which is based on the counting of light pulses produced by radiation when it
enters a crystal.
A. Scintillation counter C. Radiograph
B. Voltmeter D. Spectrometer
98. The conversion of a sulfide ore to an oxide through heating the furnace.
A. Smelting C. Sintering
B. Roasting D. Annealing
99. Carbonate, or a temporary hardness, is caused by bicarbonates of .
A. Calcium and potassium C. Iron and magnesium
B. Sodium and magnesium D. Calcium and magnesium
100. It is a term applied to processes which remove or reduce the hardness of water.
A. Purification C. Softening
B. Clarification D. Sedimentation
101. It is commonly applied to any process used to effect partial or complete demineralization of highly saline waters such as seawater (35,000 ppm of dissolved
salts) or brackish waters.
A. Purification C. Deaeration
B. Desalting D. Electrolysis
102. It is enrichment of water with nutrients.

A. Putrefaction C. Thermal stratification
B. Eutrophication D. Decomposition
104. It is usually applied to cooling below ambient temperature.
A. Air conditioning C. Thermal conduction
B. Refrigeration D. Heat transfer
105. An amorphous carbon that has been treated with steam and heat until it has a very great affinity for adsorbing many materials.
A. Lampblack C. Activated carbon
B. Carbon black D. Graphite
106. It is a very finely divided, essentially nonporous type of carbonaceous material which is produced in a precisely controlled pyrolytic petrochemical process.
A. Carbon black C. Anthracite
B. Soot D. Bituminous
107. Which of the following is kaolinite.
A. Al2O 3 2SiO 2 2H 2 O C. K 2O Al2 O3 6SiO 2
B. K 2O Al2O3 SiO2 D. MgO
108. Which of the following is potash?
A. Al2 O3 2SiO 2 2H 2O C. K 2O Al2O3 6SiO 2
B. K 2O Al2O3 SiO2 D. MgO
109. It is vitrified translucent ware with a hard glaze which resists abrasion to the maximum degree.
A. Earthenware C. Stoneware
B. Chinaware D. Porcelain
110. . A fracturing or flaking off, of a refractory brick, or block, due to uneven heat stresses or compression caused by heat.
A. Peeling C. Abrasion
B. Corrosion D. Spalling
111. Comprises one of a group of composite materials consisting of an intimate mixture of ceramic and metallic components, usually in the form of powder.
A. Magnesia C. Vitreous enamel
B. Cements D. Silica brick
A. Fluxes C. Electrolysis
B. Opacifiers D. Whiteners
113. A pure finely divided calcium carbonate prepared by wet grinding and levigating natural chalk.
A. Fluorspar C. Lactate
B. Putty D. Whiting
114. If the pressure recovery experienced by the liquid in the valve is enough to raise the pressure above the vapor pressure of the liquid, then the vapor bubbles
start collapsing, or imploding. This implosion is called
A. Gate valve C. Sliding stem valve
B. Split-body valve D. Globe valve
116. Lanolin is widely used in cosmetics, it is derived from .
A. Cattonseed oil C. Sheep’s wool
B. Coconut oil D. Palm oil
117. Rectified spirits contains
A. 95.6% alcohol C. 85.4% alcohol
B. 75.0% alcohol D. 100% alcohol
118. Alcoholic fermentation is brought out by the action of
A. Yeast C. O 2
B. CO 2 D. CO
119. What is the end product in the process of fermentation?
A. methyl alcohol C. CH 3CHO
B. Ethanol D. Ethylene
120. A spherical cluster of molecules whose hydrocarbon tails are in the interior and whose ionic groups are exposed to water on the outside.
A. Micelle C. Drops
B. Laminae D. Nuclei
121. A device to convert the quantity being measured into some type of signal (usually electrical or pneumatic).
A. Transducer C. Adaptor
B. Converter D. Reducer
A. Kerogen C. Fuel oil
B. Coke D. Crude oil
123. It is produced by the decay of vegetable matter, was early identified as combustible “swamp gas”.
A. Producer gas C. Hydrogen
B. Furnace gas D. Methane
125. An unwanted input signal that affects the systems output signal.
A. Disturbance signal C. Controlled variable signal
B. Error signal D. Sensor signal
126. A device that causes the process to provide the output.
A. Sensor C. Adaptor
B. Transmitter D. Actuator
127. The time for system to respond to a step input and attain in a response equal to the magnitude of the input.
A. Response time C. Rise time
B. Equalization time D. Equilibrium time
128. The system that uses a measurement of the output and compares it with the desired output.
A. Feed-forward control system C. Closed-loop feedback control system
B. Adaptive control system D. Inferential control system
129. The amount the system output response proceeds beyond the desired response.
A. Offset C. Gain
B. Overshoot D. Offshoot
130. The output signal is fed back so that it adds to the input signal.
A. Positive feedback C. Comparator gain
B. Negative feedback D. Forward feedback
131. The system that exhibits the desired performance in the presence of significant plant uncertainty.
A. Stable control C. Automatic control
B. Reliable control D. Robust control
132. A temperature sensor with the following advantages: no physical contact, wide range and fast response, and measures small target or average value over large
size.
A. Resistance thermometer C. Radiation pyrometer
B. Thermistor D. Filled thermal elements thermometer
133. Not a flow- measuring device
A. Orifice meter C. Turbine meter
B. Magnetic flowmeter D. Diaphragm meter
134. Ratio of the maximum controllable flow to the minimum controllable flow.
A. Rangeability C. Hysteresis
B. Zero-span ratio D. Installed flow characteristic
135. An inherent disadvantage of this control system is that it results in continuous cycling of the controlled variable and thus produces excessive wear in the final
control element.
A. On-off control C. PI-only control
B. P-only control D. PID control
136. A special case of proportional control with a very high controller gain.
A. On-off control C. Big-bang control
B. Single-position control D. Inferential control
137. The proportional action repeat-rate is known from this control parameter.
A. Derivative time C. Controller bias
B. Integral time D. Controller gain
138. It establishes the functional relationship between the controlled output and the primary feedback signal.
A. Control signal C. Measurement
B. Reference input D. Controlled output
139. It is external signal applied to the feedback control sy stem usually at the first summing point, in order to command a specified action of the plant. It is usually
represents ideal (or desired) plant output behavior.
A. Controlled signal C. Reference point
B. Feedback element D. Controlled output
140. Type of control mode which does not provide zero offset but reduces the error and speeds the dynamic response of the system; it may cause instability if tuned
improperly.
A. Proportional C. Proportional-integral
B. Derivative D. Integral
141. Type of control mode which achieves zero offset and adjusts the manipulated variable in a slower manner, thus giving poor dynamic performance, and can
cause instability if tuned properly.
B. Integral D. Derivative
142. Type of control mode which does not influence the final steady -state value of the error: provides rapid correction based on the rate of the change of error.
B. Derivative D. Integral
143. It is the actual response obtained from the control system. It may or may not be equal to the specified response implied by the input.
A. Input C. Answer
B. Output D. Result
144. An arrangement of physical components connected or related in such a manner as to command, direct or regulate itself or another system is a
A. Stimulus C. Control system
B. Unit process D. Unit operation
145. The simplest mode of control which is characteristic of a two-position control commonly utilized in a thermostat for controlling the temperature of heaters, air-
conditioners, refrigerators, etc…
A. Proportional control C. Derivative control
B. on-off control D. Programmable logic control
146. It is a control system in which the control action is independent of the output.
A. Closed-loop system C. Feedback control system
B. Open-loop system D. Feedforward control system
147. It is an arrangement of physical components connected or related in such a manner as to form and/or act as an entire unit.
B. Set D. Input
148. The stimulus, excitation or command applied to a control system, typically from an external energy source, usually to produce a specified response from the
control system.
B. Set D. Input
A. Feedback C. Continuous time
B. Control system D. Bandwidth
150. It is used to convert one signal or energy from into another.
A. Transducer C. Detector
B. Amplifier D. Resistor
151. A sensor usually made of a semiconductor that utilizes the effect of temperature on the resistance to current called a
A. Thermocouple C. Resistor
B. Thermistor D. Capacitor
152. A control structure with feedback controllers with the output of the primary controller changing the set point of the secondary controller whose output goes to
final controller.
A. Feedforward control C. Cascade control
B. Ratio control D. Override control
153. Lime and soda ash are added to water to remove
A. Bicarbonates and sulfates of calcium and magnesium
B. Undesirable taste and odor
C. Bacteria
D. its corrosiveness
154. Thermoplastic materials
A. Do not soften on application of heat
B. are heavily branched molecules
C. are solvent insoluble
D. are capable of softening or fusing when heated and hardening again when cooled
155. Thermosetting materials
A. are capable of becoming permanently rigid when heated or cured
B. soften on application of heat
C. are solvent insoluble
D. are heavily branched molecules
-----------------------------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

DAY 2
1. Critically damped system means that the damping coefficient is

A. 1 C. >1
B. <1 D. 0
2.A flat furnace wall consist of a 6-layer of firebrick (k=0.95 Btu/fr-ft- ͦF),4-in of insulating brick (k=0.14), and 4-in of common brick (k=0.8). The fire-wall temperature is
1800 ͦF, and the outer surface temperature is 120 ͦF. Determine the heat loss through the wall in Btu/fr-ft2.
A. 506 C. 882
B. 720 D. 1208
3. From the data in problem #2, Determine the temperature (in ͦF) at the junction between the firebrick and insulating brick
A. 328 C. 267
B. 1205 D. 1533
4. From the data in problem #2, Determine the temperature (in ͦF) at the junction between the firebrick and insulating brick
A. 328 C. 267
B. 1205 D. 1533
5. A volume of moist air of 1000 cu ft at a total pressure of 720 mmHg and temperature of 30 ͦ C contains water vapor in such proportions that its partial pressure is
22 mmHg. Without the total pressure being changed, and temperature is reduced to 15 ͦC and some of the water vapor removed by condensation. After the cooling it
is found that the partial pressure of the water vapor 12.7 mmHg. Calculate the volume of the gas after cooling.
A. 750 ft3 C. 938ft3
B. 820 ft3 D. 1022ft3
6.From the data in problem 5, calculate the weight of water removed.
A. 0.563 lb C. 2.98 lb
B. 1.58 lb D. 3.75 lb
7. A solid body floats in a liquid of specific gravity 0.8 with 2/5 of its volume exposed to air. Its specific gravity is
A. 0.6 C. 0.4
B. 0.48 D. 0.32
8. In a Carnot cycle operating on nitrogen, the heat supplied is 40 Btu and the adiabatic expansion ratio is 15.6. If the receiver temperature is 60 ͦ F, determine the
thermal efficiency.
A. 67% C. 37%
B. 45% D. 85%
9. . In a Carnot cycle operating on nitrogen, the heat supplied is 40 Btu and the adiabatic expansion ratio is 15.6. If the receiver temperature is 60 ͦ F, determine the
thermal efficiency.
A. 141.8 Btu C. 5.4 Btu
B. 78.2 Btu D. 27 Btu
10. In a Carnot cycle operating on nitrogen, the heat supplied is 40 Btu and the adiabatic expansion ratio is 15.6. If the receiver temperature is 60 ͦ F, determine the
heat rejected at the cold reservoir
A. 142 Btu C. 75.4 Btu
B.13.3 Btu D. 112 Btu
11. What is the most economical number of the effects to use in the recovery of black liquor in a paper plant if the following cost data are available? The annual fixed
cost increase essentially linearly with each effect (except for condensing, feeding, and other equipment costs for multiple units which may be considered to balance
each other). If a fixed amount of evaporation is to be obtained and each unit is to have 1000 ft2 of heating surface with a service life of 5 years, the annual fixed costs
1000 0.6 25000𝑁
C F would be (5000) ( 5 ) dollars per year, where N is the number of effects. Bacause of the steam economy in multiple-effect operation, the direct costs for
steam and the total of all annual direct costs, C D has been established for this type of operation as 65,000N -0.95 dollars.
A. 3 C. 5
B. 4 D. 6
12. Evaporation cools liquid because
A. the slowest molecules tend to escape C. the pressure on the liquid decreases
B. the fastest molecules tend to escape D. the pressure on the liquid increases
13. The higher the temperature of the volume of air. The
A. more water vapor it can hold C. greater its possible relative humidity
B. less water vapor it can hold D. lower its possible relative humidity
14. To what height will 68 ͦF ethyl alcohol rise in a 0.005 inch internal diameter glass capillary tube? The density of alcohol is 49lb/ft3 and the surface tension is
0.00156lbf/ft.
A. 0.306 ft C. 0.063 ft
B. 0.036ft D. 0.630 ft
15. The turbine of a jet engine operates adiabatically and receives a steady state flow of gases at 114 psia, 1340 ͦ F and 540 ft/s. It discharges at 30.6 psia, 820 ͦ F
and 1000ft/s. Find the work output per pound of gas.
A. 89 Btu/lb C. 107 Btu/lb
B.98 Btu/lb D. 124Btu/lb
16. A quantity of air at 180 ͦF originally .occupies 20 ft3 at 30 psig. The gas is compressed reversibly and adiabatically to 180 psig. What is the heat flow?
A.120 Btu C. 40 Btu
B. 80 Btu D. 0
17. Heat is absorbed by the refrigerant in a refrigerator when is
A. Melts C. Condenses
B. Vaporizes D. is compressed
18. A heat plump is basically a
A. pump for hot air C. heat engine
B. pump for hot water D. refrigerator
19. A solution of Na2SO 4 in water is saturated at 50 ͦC ; when a saturated solution of Na2 SO4 is cooled, crystals of Na2SO 4 · 10H 2O separate from the solution. If
1000kg of this solution is cooled to 10 ͦ C, the percentage yield obtain is nearly
A. 91% C. 100%
B. 90% D. 80%
20. A heat engine absorbs 1055kJ at 427 ͦC and rejects heat at 38 ͦC . The work done in kJ by the engine if its efficient is 50% of the Carnot efficiency is closest to
A. 496.6 C. 1265
B. 293.3 D. 320
21 The two component system of phenol and O-cresol is found to obey Raoults law. At a temperature of 117 ͦ C, the vapor pressures of phenol and O-cresol are 11.6
kPa (P 1) and 8.76kPa (P 2),respectively. The operating total pressure (P t) is 10 kPa. The relative volatility of component 1 with respect to component 2 is given by
𝑃1𝑥1 𝑃 𝑃
𝑦= and 𝑥1 = 𝑃𝑡−−𝑃2
𝑃𝑡 1 2
𝑦1 1 − 𝑥1
𝛼12 = ( )( )
1 − 𝑦1 𝑥1
The relative volatility of phenol relative to O-cresol at these conditions is closest to
1.28 C. 1.16
1.325 D. 1.5
22. A benzene-toluene feed (with 40 mol% benzene and 60% mol toluene) to a distillation column is at a temperature of 20 ͦ C. The molar heat capacity of the feed is
159.2 kJ/kmol-K. Molar heats of the vaporization of benzene and toluene are 30,813 and 3,325 kJ/kmol, respectively. The bubble point of the mixture is 95 ͦC . The
slope of the feed line closest to
A. 0 C. 3.7
B. 1 D. -3.7
23. The walls of the brick-lined house consist of the following layers of materials;
Brick layer, 0.1m thick , k=0.8 W/m-K; Rock-wool insulation ,0.0762 m thick, k=0.065 W/m-K
Gypsum plaster board, 0.0375 m thick, k=0.5 W/m-K
If the inside of the house s maintained at 295 ͦ K,estimate the heat loss by conduction through the walls of area 200 m2 when the outside temperature is 265 ͦ K.
Insufficient information C. 2200W
4400W D. 8400 J/s
24. Water is flowing under fully turbulent flow in the pipe. If the diameter of the pipe is lowered by 10% , what will be the effect on pressure drop for the same flow
rate?
A. increase by 10% C. increase by 21%
B. increase by 59% D. increase by 69%
25. Which of the following set of reversible processes describes an ideal Otto cycle?
I. adiabatic compression, isometric heat addition, adiabatic expansion, isometric heat rejection]
II. isothermal compression, isobaric heat addition, isothermal expansion, isobaric heat addition
I only C. II and I in succession
I and II in succession D. II only
26. In the power stroke of the ideal Otto Cycle, the inlet conditions are at 462 psia and 2761.8 ͦ R and the exit conditions are at 37.5 psia and 1348.8 psia, what is the
entropy change?
A.-0.128Btu/lb - ͦR C. 0.128Btu/lb - ͦR
B. 0 D.0.18Btu/lb - ͦR
27. The compression ratio of an ideal air Otto cycle is 6.1. Inlet pressure is 14.7 psia and temperature of 68 ͦ F. Find the pressure and temperature at exist conditions.
A.180.psig, 139. ͦ F C.180.psia, 1081. ͦ R
B.180.psia, 139. ͦ F D. 180.psig, 1081 ͦ F
28. What is the efficiency of an Otto cycle with compression ratio of 6:1. The gas used is air.
A. 0.167 C. 0.488
B. 0.191 D. 0.512
29. For acetone at 20 ͦC and 1 bar , volume expansivity (β) =1.487 E-3 / ͦC , isothermal compressibility (к)= 62E-6/ bar and specific volume (V)= 1.287 cm3/g. The
value of (𝜕𝛲/𝜕𝛵)v is
A. 24 bar/ ͦC C. 10 bar/ ͦC
B. 42 bar/ ͦC D. 33 bar/ ͦC
pressure generated is heated at constant volume from 20 ͦC at 1 bar to 30 ͦC is
A. 241 bar C.177 bar
B. 110 bar D. 220 bar
volume change (in cm3/g) when acetone is changed from 20 ͦC and 1 bar to 0 ͦC and 10 bar
A. 0.038 C. 0.144
B. -0.038 D. -0.144
32.. An insulated electricity heated hot water heater contains 190 kg of liquid water at 60 ͦC when a power outage occurs. If the water is withdrawn from the heater at
a steady rate of m= 0.2 kg/s, how long will it take for the temperature of the water in the tank to drop from 60 to 35 ͦ C? Assume that cold water enters the tank at
10 ͦC , and that heat losses from the tank are negligible. Water may be considered an incompressible liquid.
A. 400.8 s C. 521.4 s
B. 658.5 s D. 844.3 s
33. A boiler plant raises 5.2 kg/s of steam at 1825 kN/m2 pressure, using coal of calorific value 27.2 MJ/kg. If the boiler efficiency is 75% , how much coal is consumed
per day?
A. 0.12 kg/s C. 4.22 kg.s
B. 0.71 kg/s D. 10.12kg/s
34. A boiler plant raises 5.2 kg/s of steam at 1825 kN/m2 pressure, using coal of calorific value 27.2 MJ/kg. If the boiler efficiency is 75% ,and if the steam is used to
generate electricity, what is the power generation in kilowatts assuming 20% conversion efficiency of the turbines and generators?
A. 1 MW C. 5 MW
b. 3 MW D. 7 MW
35. A steel casting [𝐶𝑝 = 0.5 𝑘𝐽 /𝑘𝑔 − 𝐾 ] weighing 40 kg and a temperature of 450 ͦ C is quenched in 150 kg of oil [𝐶𝑝 = 2.5 𝑘𝐽 /𝑘𝑔 − 𝐾 ] at 25 ͦC. If there
are heat losses what is the heat entropy of the oil?
A. 26.13 kJ/K C. 9.80 kJ/K
B. -16.22 kJ/K D. 0
36. A steel casting [𝐶𝑝 = 0.5 𝑘𝐽 /𝑘𝑔 − 𝐾 ] weighing 40 kg and a temperature of 450 ͦ C is quenched in 150 kg of oil [𝐶𝑝 = 2.5 𝑘𝐽 /𝑘𝑔 − 𝐾 ] at 25 ͦC. If there
are heat losses what is the heat entropy of the oil and casting considered together??
A. 26.13 kJ/K C. 9.80 kJ/K
B. -16.22 kJ/K D. 0
37. An 10 L insulated container is divided into two parts by their membrane. One part contains an ideal gas at 1 atm and 25 ͦ C and the other part is vacuum,
Calculate the pressure after the thin membrane burst?
A. 2 atm C. 1.0 atm
B. 1.5 atm D. 0.5 atm
38. A 10 L insulated container is divided into two parts by a thin membrane. One part contains an ideal gas at 1 atm and 25 ͦC and the other part is vacuum. Calculate
the entropy change of the gas after the thin membrane burst?
A.1.26 J/K C. 2.21 J/K
B.1.86 J.K D. 2.35 J/K
39. A 10 L insulated container is divided into two parts by a thin membrane. One part contains an ideal gas at 1 atm and 25 ͦC and the other part is vacuum. Calculate
the entropy change of the surroundings?
A. 0 C. 1.8J/K
B.1.2 J/K D.2.4J/K
40. A high speed diesel engine burns fuel to give an exhaust gas analyzing 7.14% CO 2, 8.24% O 2 and 80.34% N 2. Calculate the percent excess supplied.
A. 40 C. 32
B. 30 D. 34
41. Compare the cost of electricity at P 1.00 per KWh and gas at P 15.00 per therm.
A. Cost of electricity is P0.14 per MJ C. Cost of electricity is P0.14 per MJ less than cost of gas
B. Cost of gas is P0.28 per MJ D. Cost of electricity is P0.14 per MJ more than cost of gas
42. The distance between plates is Δy= 0.5 cm, Δv= 10 cm/s and the fluid is ethyl alcohol at 273K having a viscosity of 1.77 cp. Calculate the shear stress in dyne
per square centimeter.
A. 0.210 C. 0.540
B. 0.354 D. 0.720
43. A 1 in. BWG copper tubing used in a heat exchanger 5.1 m long has a outside surface heating area of:
A. 0.407 sq. m C. 0.782 sq. m
B. 0.356 sq. m D. 0.800 sq. m
44. A machine or device for moving incompressible fluid is commonly known as
A. Compressor C. Pump
B. Motor D. Turbine
45. Methane is to be compressed from atmospheric pressure to 30 MN/m2 in four stages. Calculate the ideal intermediate pressures. Assume the compression is to
be isentropic and the gas to behave as an ideal gas.
A. 420 kPa, 1.74 MPa, 7.23 MPa C. 420kPa, 1.54 Mpa, 8.20 Mpa
B. 475 kPa, 1.22 MPa, 8.55 MPa D. 475 kPa, 3.12 Mpa, 9.45 MPa
46. Methane is to be compressed from atmospheric pressure to 30 MN/m2 in four stages. Calculate the work required per kilogram of gas. Assume compression to
be isentropic and the gas to behave as an ideal gas.
A.711 kJ/kg C.872 kJ/kg
B.920 kJ/kg D. 1125 kJ/kg
47. Sulfuric acid is pumped at 3 kg/s through a 60 m length of smooth 25 mm pipe. Calculate the drop in pressure in kPa. Density of acid= 1840 kg/m3, Viscosity of
acid = 25 MN-s/m2
A. 350 C. 522
B. 840 D. 125
48. Sulfuric acid is pumped at 3 kg/s through a 60 m length of smooth 25 mm pipe has unknown pressure drop. If this pressure falls by one half, what will be the new
Reynold’s number. Density of acid= 1840 kg/m3 , Viscosity of acid = 25 MN-s/m2
A. 3800 C. 7650
B. 4580 D. 5422
49. . Sulfuric acid is pumped at 3 kg/s through a 60 m length of smooth 25 mm pipe. Calculate the drop in pressure kPa. Density of acid= 1840 kg/m3, Viscosity of
acid = 25 MN-s/m2
A. 350 C. 522
B. 840 D. 125
50. Sulfuric acid is pumped at 3 kg/s through a 60 m length of smooth 25 mm pipe has unknown pressure drop. If this pressure falls by one half, what will be the new
mass flow rate . Density of acid= 1840 kg/m3, Viscosity of acid = 25 MN-s/m2
A. 0.02 kg/s C.25.4 kg/s
B. 1.86 kg/s D. 14.5 kg/s
51. The gaseous reaction A → 2B + C takes place isothermally in a constant pressure reactor. Starting with a mixture of 75% A and 25% inert ( by volume), in
specified time, the volume doubles. Calculate the conversion achieved.
A. 33.3% C. 51.4%
B. 42.5% D. 66.7%
52.A fluid is flowing in two backmix reactor in series. Each has a capacity of 40000 L and flows at a rate of 100 L/hr. If the fluid undergoes first order decay with a
half-life of 24 hrs, what is the percent conversion?
A. 71.7% C. 99.4%
B. 66.8% D. 85.3%
53. At 500 ͦC ,the rate of the bimolecular reactions is 10 times the rate at 450 ͦC. The activation energy of the reaction is .
A. 21,200 cal/mol C. 36,450 cal/mol
B. 51,140 cal/mol D. 73,200 cal/mol
54. The liquid- phase reaction A + B ⇔ R + S ( kforward= 7 L/gmol-min, kbackward= 3 L/gmol-min) is to take place in a 120-liter steady-state backmix reactor. Two
feed streams, one containing 2.8 gram moles A/liter, the other containing 1.6 gram mole B/liter are to be introduced in equal volumes in the reactor, and 75%
conversion of limiting component is desired. What should be the total flow rate of the two streams? Assume constant density throughout.
A. 4 L/min C. 6 L/min
B. 8 L/min D. 10 L/min
55. The homogenous gas-phase decomposition of phosphine proceeds at 1200 ͦ F,
4𝑃𝐻3 → 𝑃4 (𝑔) + 6𝐻2 with the first order rate , −𝑟𝑃𝐻3 =(10/hr) 𝐶𝑃𝐻3. What size of plug flow reactor operating at 1200 ͦ F and 4.6 atm can produce 80%
conversion of a feed consisting of 4 lb moles of pure phosphine per hour?
A.160 ft3 C. 210 ft3
B. 245 ft3 D. 320 ft3
56. Given Xf = 0.45 Xp = 0.65 and Xr =0.075, calculate the screen effectiveness.
A. 60.8% C. 52.8%
B. 55.6% D. 62.8%
57. The heat required when 1 kmol of MgSO 4 · 7H 2O is dissolved isothermally at 291 K in a large mass of water is 13.3 MJ. What is the heat of crystallization per unit
mass of the salt?
A.44kJ/kg C.33 kJ/kg
B.54 kJ/kg D. 28kJ/kg
58. A branch of 1500 kg saturated potassium chloride solution is cooled from 360 K to 290K in an unagitated tank. If the solubilities of KCl are 53 and 34 kg/100 kg
water at 360 K and 290 K respectively and water losses due to evaporization may be neglected, what is the yield of crystals?
A. 145 kg C. 186 kg
B. 165 kg D. 210 kg
59. Power of 3kW is supplied to a machine crushing material at the rate of 0.3 kg/s from 12.5 mm cubes to a product having the following sizes:80 percent 3.175 mm,
10 percent 2.5 mm and 10 percent 2.25 mm. What power should be supplied to this machine to crush 0.3 kg/s of the same material from 7.5 mm cube to 2.0 mm
cube?
A. 3.6 kW C. 12.4 kW
B. 7.5 kW D. 16.2 kW
60. What is the mass of the sphere of material of density 7500 kg/m3 whose terminal velocity in a large deep tank of water is 0.6 m/s?
A. 0.000054 g C. 5.4 g
B. 0.029 g D. 29.0 g
61. What will be the terminal falling velocity of a gas sphere 1 mm in diameter in water if the density of glass is 2500 kg/m 3 ?
A. 0.000145 m/s C.0.145 m/s
B. 0.00145 m/s D.1.45 m/s
(62-64) In the filtration of a sludge, the initial period is effected at a constant rate with the feed pump at full capacity, until the pressure differences reaches 400 kN/m3.
The pressure is then maintained at this value for remainder of the filtration. The constant rate operation requires 900 s and one- third of the total filtrate is obtained
during this period.
62.Neglecting the resistance of the filter medium, determine the total filtration time.
A. 3300s C. 4500 s
B. 3600 s D. 5700 s
63.If the time for removing the cake and reassembling the press is 1200 s, calculate the filtration cycle time with the existing pump. The cake is not washed.
A. 3300s C. 4500 s
B. 3600 s D. 5700 s
64. If the time for removing the cake and reassembling the press is 1200 s, calculate the filtration cycle time with the existing pump for a maximum daily capacity . The
cake is not washed.
A. 3300s C. 4500 s
B. 3600 s D. 5700 s
65. A rotary filter, operating at 0.03 Hz. Filters at the rate of 0.0075 m3/s. Operating under the same vacuum and neglecting the resistance of the filter cloth, at what
speed must the filter be operated to give a filtration rate of 0.0160 m3 /s?
A. 0.136 Hz C. 0.00136 Hz
B. 13.6 Hz D. 1360 Hz
66. A company desires to insulate an equipment to reduce the annual heat loss. The cost of heat loss without insulation is P 100,000 per year. A ten thousand square
feet surface area insulation will cut down the heat loss to 10% ( a saving of P 90,000 a year) and will cost P50 per square foot. What is the return of investment?
A. 2% C. 15%
B. 7% D. 18%
67. Using sixth-tenth factor rule what is the price of a batch drier having a capacity of 100 tons/hr, given that a similar drier with a capacity of 150 tons/hr cost
P1000,000.
A. P65,480 C. P72,115
B. P 78,405 D. P 80,218
(68-69) A steam-jet booster compresses 0.1 kg/s of dry and saturated vapor from 3.4 kN/m2.
The high-pressure steam consumption is 0.05kg/s at 690 kN/m2 .
68. What must be the condition of the high pressure steam for the booster discharge to be superheated by 20 deg K?
A. superheated by 15 deg K C. saturated
B. superheated by 30 deg K D. superheated by 45 deg K
69. What is the overall efficiency of the booster if the compression efficiency is 100% ?
A. 77% C. 62%
B. 45% D. 91%
70. Process variable in a process must be measured and then controlled and integrated . processing condition.
A. actual C. Fast
B. optimum D. Automatic
71. A control structure with two feedback controller with the output of the primary controller changes the set point of the secondary controller whose output goes to
final controller.
A. feedforward control C. cascade control
B. ratio control D. override control
72. Which of the control system is used for multi-input, multi-output system?
A. Cascade control C. feedforward control
B. feedbackward control D. model predictive control
73. How many cu. Ft per unit minute of entering air is needed to evaporate 10 lb of water per hour from a rayon, if the air enters at 80 deg Fand 25% humidity and
leaves at 170 deg F and 55% relative humidity. The operating pressure is 14.3 psia.
A. 7.44 C. 20.45
B. 12.68 D. 16.28
74. A steam of gas at 70 deg F and 14.3 psia and 50% saturated with water vapor passed through a drying tower where 90% of the water vapor is removed.
Calculate the pounds of water per 1000 ft3 of entering gas?
A. 0.0004 lb C. 120 lb
B. 0.52 lb D. 85 lb
75. Percent argon in air.
A. 0.934% by volume C. 0.0001139% by volume
B. 0.934% by weight D. 0.0001139% by weight
76. Tung meal containing 55% oil is to be extracted at the rate of 4000 lb/hr using n-hexane containing 5% oil as solvent. A counter current multiple stage extraction
system is to used. The meal retains 2 lb of solvent per pound of oil free meal while the residual charge contain 0.11 lb oil per lb oil free meal while the product is
composed of 15% oil. The theoretical number of ideal stages is
A. 3 C. 5
B. 4 D. 6
77. Suppose we dilute 1-lb of 50wt% NaOH solution at 70 ͦ F with 1-lb of pure water, also at 70 ͦ F. What is the final temperature if the mixing is audiabatic?
A. 123 ͦ F C. 92 ͦ F
B. 100 ͦ F D. 85 ͦ F
78. 0.6 m3/s (measured at STP) of gas is to be dried from a dew point of 294 K to a dew point of 277.5 K. How much water must be removed? Vapor pressure of
water at 294 K D 2.5 kN/m2. Vapor pressure of water at 277.5 K D 0.85 kN/m2.
A. 2.1 kg/s C.0.0071 kg/s
B. 0.75 kg/s D. 0.00009 kg/s
79. From the data in problem # 78, what will be the volume of the gas after drying measured at STP?
A. 0.59 m3/s C. 4.52 m3 /s
B. 2.19 m3/s D. 6.78 m3 /s
80. Wet material, containing 70% moisture on a wet basis, is to be dried at the rate of 0.15 kg/s in a counter-current dryer to give a product containing 5% moisture
(both on a wet basis). The drying medium consist of air heated to 373K and containing water vapour with a partial pressure of 1.0 kN/m2. The air leaves the dryer at
313 K and 70% saturated. Calculate how much air will be required to remov e the moisture. The vapour pressure of water as 313 K may be taken as 7.4kN/m2 .
A. 0.54 kg/s C.12.1 kg/s
B. 3.78 kg/s D. 45.1 kg/s
81. Water flowing at 1.5 /s in a 50 mm diameter pipe is metered by means of a simple orifice of diameter 25 mm. If the coefficient of discharge of the meter is 0.62,
what will be the reading on a mercury -under-water manometer connected to a meter? What is the Reynold’s number for the flow in the pipe?
A. 75 mm C. 64 mm
B. 84 mm D. 92 mm
82. In an oil cooler, 216 kg/h of hot oil enters a thin metal pipe of diameter 25 mm. An equal mass of cooling water flows through the annular space between the pipe
and larger concentric pipe; the oil and water moving in opposite directions. The oil enters at 420 K and is to be cooled at 320 K. If the water enters at 290 K, what
length of pipe will be required? Take the coefficients of 1.6 kW/m2 K on the oil side and 3.6 kW/m2 K on the water side and 2.0 kJ/kg K for the specific heat of oil.
A. 2.67 m C. 1.2 m
B. 4.2 m D. 5.4 m
83. In a tank are 100 gallons of brine containing 50 pounds of dissolved salt. Fresh water runs into the tank at 3 gpm and the brine runs out at the same rate. The
concentration is practically kept uniform by agitation. How much salt is in the tank at the end of one hour?
A. 8.3 lbs C. 9.5 lbs
B. 9.0 lbs D. 9.8 lbs
84. A vertical side of a salt water tank containers round viewing window 60 cm in diameter with its center five meters below the liquid surface. If the specific weight of
the salt water is 10 kN/m3, find the force of the water on the window.
A. 14.14 kN C. 11.50 kN
B. 12.25 kN D. 10.78 kN
85. One gram of welding fuel composed of carbon and hydrogen is burned in oxygen to give 3.38 g of CO 2 and 0.69 g of water. What is the empherical formula of the
compound?
A. C 2H 2 C. CH 4
B. C 3H 6 D. CH 3
86. A 14- inch steel pipe (15-in OD), with a 3-in 85% magnesia lagging, is concentrically suspended in a 7-ft diameter concrete tunnel. For the outer insulation
surface, t= 125 ͦ F, and the film coefficient of free convection, excluding radiation, is 1.8 Btu/hr-ft2 –F ͦ. If the ambient air and concrete surface temperatures are 80 ͦ F,
find the equivalent film coefficient for radiation in Btu/hr-ft2 –F.
A.0.80 C. 2.5
B. 1.48 D. 4.9
87. From the data in problem 86, calculate the total heat loss of 500 ft piping,
A. 406,500 Btu/hr C.510,320 Btu/hr
B. 450,500 Btu/hr D.540,600 Btu/hr
(88-91). A solution is to be concentrated from 10 to 65% solids in a vertical long-tube evaporator. The solution has a negligible elevation of boiling point and its
specific heat can be taken to be the same as that of water. Steam is available at 203.6 kPa, and the condenser operates at 13.33 kPa. The feed enters the
evaporator at 295 ͦ K . The total evaporation is to be 25000 kg/hr of water. Overall heat transfer coefficient is 2800 W/m 2-K.
19800 C. 24582
17523 D. 30900
A. 28700 C. 40100
B. 35400 D. 43600
A. 24.2 C. 70.8
B. 34.8 D. 90.7
A. 0.45 C. 0.87
B. 0.67 D. 0.98
92.Estimate the necessary wall thickness for a horizontal cylindrical pressure vessel with a diameter of 10 ft, a working pressure of 250 psig and a design tensile
stress of 20,000 psig.
A. 1.90 cm C. 2.30 cm
B. 2.70 cm D. 2.50 cm
93. An industrial process for the production of sulfuric acid that is based on the oxidation of sulfur trioxide on a vanadium oxide catalyst, followed by reaction with
water in sulfuric acid.
A. Bayer process C. Leblanc process
B. Lead Chamber process D. Contact process
A. Fluxes C. Electrolytes
B. Opacifiers D. whiteners
95. Magnesium is obtained from
A. Sea shells C. Sea water
B. Corals D. Sand
96. The union of the nonvolatile inorganic oxides resulting from decomposition and fusion of alkali and alkaline earth compounds, sand and other constituents, ending
in a product with random atomic structure. If is a rigid, undercooled liquid having no definite melting point and sufficiently high viscosity to prevent crystallization.
A. Ceramics C. Cements
B. Glass D. Refractors
97. Crushed glass from imperfect articles, trim, and other waste glass.
A. Mullite C. Borax
B. Pot furnances D. Cullet
98. A mixture of 10% C 6 H 6 vapor in air at 25 ͦC and 750 mm Hg has a dew point of 20 ͦC. Its dew point at 30 ͦC and 700 mm Hg will be around
A. 21.7 ͦC C. 27.3 ͦC
B. 20 ͦC D. 18.7 ͦC
99. HEPT is numerically equal to HTU only when operating line
A. lies below the equilibrium line C. lies above the equilibrium line
B. and equilibrium lines are parallel D. is far from the equilibrium line
100. The ice in an iceberg has specific gravity of 0.922. When floating in seawater (SG=1.03), the percentage of its exposed volume is nearest to
A. 5.6 C. 8.9
B. 7.4 D. 10.5
-----------------------------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
GENERAL
ENGINEERING
AND CHE LAWS
1. What is the value of log38 + log27?

A. 7.39 C. 4.70
B. 3.97 D. 9.37
2. What is the value of log38 + log27?
A. 7.39 C. 4.70
B. 3.97 D. 9.37
3. Find the value of k in the quadratic equation 3x 2-kx+x-7k= 0 if 3 is one of the roots.
A. 3 C. 9
B. 5 D. 14
4. A box containing three bags of potatoes weighs 6 kg. When the same box contains five bags of potatoes it weighs 9.2 kg. How heavy is the empty box?
A. 1.2 kg C. 3.2 kg
B. 1.6 kg D. 2.0 kg
5. Weighing the baby at the clinic was a problem. The baby would not keep still and caused the scales to wobble. So I held the baby and stood on the scales while
the nurse read of 78 kg. Then the nurse held the baby while I read off 69 kg. Finally I held the nurse while the baby read off 137 kg. What is the combined weight of
all the three (in kilogram)?
A. 142 C. 206
B. 147 D. 215
6. If three cats can eat three rats in three rats in three minutes, how long would it take for 100 cats to eat 100 rats
A. 33 1/3 min C. 3 min
B. 100 min D. 10 min
7. Judy is twice s old as Adam, but 6 years ago, she was 5 times as old as he was. How old is Judy now?
A. 10 C. 20
B. 16 D. 24
8. How many minutes after 3 o’clock will the hands of the clock be together for the first time?
A. 16.4 min C. 17 min
B. 16.8 min D. 17.2 min
9. The difference of the squares of the digits of the two digit positive number is 27. If the digits are reversed in order and the resulting number subtracted from the
original number, the difference is also 27. What is the original number?
A. 72 C. 81
B. 63 D. 53
10. Five- ninths of the water tank is emptied by filling each of the eight containers with the same amount of water. What part of the total capacity of the water tank did
each container have?
A. 5/8 C. 5/72
B. 7/40 D. 4/9
11. A number is divided into 3 parts in the ratio of 1:2:3. The number is 258. Find the largest part.
A. 43 C. 129
B. 86 D. 172
12. Three persons can do a piece of work alone in 3 hrs, 4 hrs and 6 hrs respectively. What fraction of the job can they finish, in one hour working together.
A. 2/3 C. 4/5
B. ¾ D. ½
13. It is estimated that 20 workers will take 10 days to dig a canal. If after 7 days, 15 workers are left to do the work, then it will be completed in , days.
A. 11 C. 13
B. 12 D. 15
14. A quiz has twenty questions with seven points awarded for each correct answer, two points deducted for each wrong answer and zero for each questions omitted.
Jack scores 87 points. How many questions did he omit?
A. 2 C. 7
B. 5 D. 9
15. How many pounds of peanuts should be added to 5 pounds of a 30% peanut mixture of nuts to obtain a nut mixture which is 50% peanuts?
A. 1 lb C. 3 lb
B.2 lb D. 4 lb
16. The nearest star (other than the sun) is about four light years away from Earth. If the light travels at 300000 km per second, how far can it travel in four years?
A. 1E11 km C.2E 12 km
B. 6E 11 km D. 4E13 km
17. An ant is crawling in a straight line from one corner of the table at the opposite corner when he bumps into a one centimeter cube of sugar. Instead of crawling
round it, or eating his way through it he climbs straight up and over it before continuing on his intended route. How much does the detour add to the expected length
of his journey?
A. 1 cm C. 3 cm
B. 2 cm D. 4 cm
18. When all odd numbers from 1 to 101 are added, what will be the sum?
A. 2500 C. 2510
B. 2601 D. 5694
19. Baby’s nearly one year old now. We worked out how to weigh her but nurse and I still have trouble measuring her height. S he just will not stand up straigt against
our measuring chart. In fact she can’t stand up at all yet! So we measure her upside down. Last year nurse held Baby’s feet, keeping them level with the 140 cm
mark, while I read off the mark level with the top of Baby’s head: 97cm This year it was my turn to hold feet. Being taller than the nurse, I held them against the 150
cm mark, while nurse crawled on the floor to read the mark level with the top of Baby’s head: 84 cm. How many centimeters has Baby grown in her first year?
A. 13 C. 53
B. 237 D. 23
20. Six volumes of an encyclopedia, each volume 4 cm thick are on a library shelf in the order: Vol. 1, Vol. 2, Vol. 3, Vol. 4, Vol. 5, 6 from left to right. A bookworm
starts outside the front cover of Volume 1 and eats his way by the shortest route through the back cover of Volume 4. How far does the bookworm travel?
A. 4 cm C. 12 cm
B. 8 cm D. 24 cm
21. What is the sum to infinity of the progression 2, -0.4, 0.08, -0.016,….?
A. 5/3 C. 3/5
B.5/4 D. 4/5
22. Nine bus stops are equally spaced along a bus route. The distance from the first to the third is 600 m. How far is it from the first to the last?
A. 600 m C. 1800 m
B. 1600 m D. 2400 m
23. The sum of 1.001 + 3.850 + 9.4, if expressed in the proper number of significant figures is
A. 14 C. 14.251
B. 14.25 D. 14.3
24. If the supplement of an angel is 5/2 of its complement, find the angel.
A. 30 ͦ C. 20 ͦ
B. 25 ͦ D. 15 ͦ
25. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 2:3:4.If its area is 11.619, find its perimeter.
A. 14 C. 15
B. 16 D. 18
26. A pole cast a shadow of 15 m long when the angel of elevation of the sun is 61 ͦ . If the pole is learned 15 ͦ from the vertical towards the sun, determine the length
of the pole.
A. 54.23 m C. 42.44 m
B. 48.23 m D. 46.21 m
27. Betty drove 8 miles west, 6 miles north , 3 miles east and 6 more miles north. How many miles was Betty from her starting place?
A. 13 C. 19
B. 17 D. 21
28. The value of tan (A+B), where tanA = 1/3 and tanB= ¼ (A and B are acute angel) is
A. 7/12 ` C. 7/11
B. 1/11 D. 7/13
29. In a circle whose diameter is 10 m, how far from the center is a chord that is 8 m long?
A. 2 m C. 4 m
B. 3 m D. 5 m
30. The distance between centers of the two circles having radii of 4 and 8 is 15. How long is the common internal tangent segment?
A. 9 C. 18
B. 15 D. 20
31. By cutting out a circle of radius 10 cm a sector of angel 216 ͦ, a cone is made from the major sector. If the loss through overlapping in joining may be ignored, find
the height of the cone.
A. 4cm C. 7 cm
B, 6 cm D. 8 cm
32. What is the angel of the base of the spherical wedge whose volume is 40 π/3 m3 if the radius of the sphere is 3.5 m?
A. 83.97 ͦ C. 62.42 ͦ
B. 56.25 ͦ D. 133.3 ͦ
33. The radius of the circle x 2+y 2+4x-6y-3=0 is .
A. 2 C. 4
B. 3 D. 5
34. The area of the region enclosed by the curve 4x 2+25y 2 =50
A. 5π C. 10π
B. 20π D. 15π
35. In a hyperbola, which axis is parallel to the directrix?
A. semi-minor axis C. semi-major axis
B. conjugate axis D. transverse axis
36. The equation of the line perpendicular to 3y + 2x = 5 and passing through (-2,5) is
A. 2x=3y C. 2y=3x+16
B. 2y=3x D. 3x=2y+8
37. Is produced when cutting plane is parallel to the element (or generatix) of the cone.
A. circle C. hyperbola
B. parabola D. ellipse
38. Transform the equation of the circle x 2+ y 2 =16 into an equation in polar coordinates.
A. r =4 C. r = 16
B. r sine =4 D. r cose =4
39. Find the derivative of tan x with respect to sin x.
A. sec2 x/ cos x C. cos3 x
B. sin 3 x D. 1/sin3 x
40. Compute the limit of (x+2)/(x -2) as ax approaches infinity.
A. 0 C. 2
B. 1 D. infinite
41. Compute the limit of (1-cos x)/ x 2 as x approaches zero.
A. 0 C. 1/2
B. ¼ D. 1
42.Simpify the expression: limit of (x 2 -16)/(x-4) as x approaches 4.
A. 0 C. 12
B. 8 D. 16
43. Find the two positive numbers whose product is 64, and whose sum is a minimum.
A. 8 and 8 C. 2 and 32
B. 16 and 4 D. 8 and 7
44. Find the slope at x=3 of the curve f(x)=x 3-2x.
A. 5 C. 25
B.15 D. 30
45.A baseball diamond is a square 90 ft on a side. A runner travels from home plate to frst base at the rate of 20 ft/s. How fast is the runners distance from the
second base changing (in ft/s) when the runner is halfway to the first base?
A.2√5 C. 4√5
B. 3√5 D. 5√5
46. If s= t2-t3 , the velocity when the acceleration is zero is
A. 1/3 C. 1/5
B. ½ D. 1/6
47. The area between y= x 2 and y=2x+3 is
A.9 C. 6 1/3
B 20 D. 10 2/3
48. Find the x- coordinate of the centroid of the area formed by y=x 2 , x-axis and x=2.
A. 1 C. 1.3
B. 1.5 D. 1.2
49. Find the total water pressure on a vertical circular gate, 2 diameter, with its top 3.5 meters below the water surface.
A. 169.5 kN C. 138.7 kN
B. 107.9 kN D. 186.5 kN
50. Evaluate the integral of lnx dx.
A. x(lnx-1) C. xlnx +c
B. lnx-1 + c D. (lnx)/x+ c
51. Evaluate the integral of xdx/ (x+1)8 if it has an upper limit of 1 and a lower limit of 0.
A. 0.056 C. 0.022
B. 0.031 D. 0.043
52. Find the length of the arc of the parabola y 2=4x from the vertex to a point where x = 4.
A. 7.92 units C. 5.92 units
B0.6.92 units D. 4.92 units
53. Find the moment of inertia with respect to y -axis of the area bounded by the parabola y 2=4x and the line x=4.
A. 73.14 C. 39.21
B. 53.44 D. 24.88
54. Find the volume generated when the area bounded by the curve x 2=4y, x—axis and the line x=4 is revolved about the axis.
A. 40.2 C. ¾ π
B. ½ π D. 2/3 π
55. According to top Hookes law, the force required to stretched a helical spring is proportional to the distance stretched. The natural length of a given spring is 8
cm. A force of 4 kg will stretched it to a total length of 10 cm. Find the work done in stretching it from its natural length to a total length of 16 cm.
A. 4.25 J C. 6.28 J
B. 5.85 J D. 7.82 J
57. A right circular cylindrical tank of radius 2 m and a height 8 m is full of water. Find the work done in pumping the water to the top of the tank, Assume water to
weigh 9810N/m3.
A. 3945 kN.m C. 2846 kN.m
B. 4136kN.m D. 5237 kN.m
58. The degree of the differential equation (y)3 = 1 + y 2
A. 6 C. 2
B. 3 D. 4
59. The degree of the differential equation (y)3 = 1 + y 2
A. 6 C. 2
B. 3 D. 4
60. Solve the differential equation whose general solution is y= C 1 sin 5X+ C 2 cos 5X.
A. y”+12y=0 C. y” +7y’ =0
B. y” + 25y=0 D. y” -12y=0
61. Find the general solution of the differential equation (2xy -3x 2) dx + (x 2 + 2y) dy=0
A. x 2+y 2-x3y=c C. x 2y+y2-x 3=c
B. xy +x 2-2y 3=c D. 2x+x 2y-y2=c
62. In a tank are 100 gallons of brine containing 50 pounds of dissolved salt. Fresh water runs into the tank at 3 gpm and the brine runs out at the same rate. The
A. 8.3 lbs C. 9.5 lbs
B. 9 lbs D. 9.8 lbs
63. Solve the homogenous equation (2x -3y)dx-(2y+3x)dy=0
A. x 2-3xy+y2 =C C. x 2-xy+2y2=C
B. x 2-2xy+y2 =C D. 2x 2-3xy+2y2=C
64. (x +3y)dx-xdy=0 is
2
A. linear in x C. nonlinear in y
B. linear in y D. variable separable
65. A thermometer reading 18 deg F is brought into a room where the temperature is 70 deg F , I minute later the thermometer reading is 31 deg F. Find the
temperature reading 5 minutes after the thermometer is first brought into the bedroom.
A. 50 deg F C. 58 deg F
B. 52 deg F D. 60 deg F
66. Determine the constant of integration for the separable differential equation x dx + 6y 5 dy =0. It is known that when x=0, y=2.
A. 4 C. 32
B. 8 D. 64
67. The sequences s=/+2i2 + 3i3 + …. 100 terms simplifies to
A. 50(1-i) C. 25(1-i)
B. 25i D. 100(1-i)
68. Find the inverse laplace transform of [2/(𝑠 + 1)] − [4/(𝑠 + 3 ]).
A. 2e-t – 4-3t C. e-2t + e-3t
B. e – e
-2t -3t D. ( 2e-t)(1– 2-3t)
69. What is the laplace transform of e-2t sin 3t?
A. 3/(s2 + 4s +13) C. . 3/(s2 +9)
B. 3/(s2 + 4s +15) D. . s/(s2 + 4s +13)
70. Evaluate the determinat :
1 2 3
-2 -1 -2
3 1 4
4 C.5
2 D. 0
71. Evaluate the determinant:
2 14 3 1
1 5 -1 3
1 -2 2 -3
3 -4 -3 -4
A. 489 C. 326
B. 389 D. 452
72. In a licensure examination, an examinee may select 7 problems from a set of 10 questions. In how many ways can an examinee make his choice?
A. 50 C. 120
B. 100 D. 150
73. Josh works on the second floor of a building. There are 10 doors to the building and 8 stair cases from the first to the second floor. Josh decided that each day he
would enter by one door and leave by a different one and go up one staircase and down another. How many days could josh do this before he had to repeat a path
he had previously taken?
A. 80 C. 800
B. 640 D. 5040
74. The number of arrangements of the letters of the word SALOON if the two O’s do not come together is
A. 360 C. 240
B. 720 D. 120
75. Six coins are tossed. What is the probability that exactly two of them are heads?
A. 0.423 C. 0.234
B. 0.342 D. 0.243
76. A certain task has three steps: A, B and C, which must be performed in order, with no break in between. If steps A and B together take a total of 12 minutes,
steps B and C take a 20 minutes, and the entire task takes a total of 28 minutes, then how many minutes are required to perform step B only?
A. 2 C. 8
B. 4 D. 16
77. Out of 100 numbers. Sixteen were 5’s,twenty-one were 6’s, thirty were 7’s and the rest were 8’s. Find the arithmetic mean of the numbers.
A. 6.5 C. 7.0
B. 6.8 D. 7.1
78. What is the magnitude of the resultant force of the two forces 200 N at 20 ͦ and 400 N at 144 ͦ?
A. 332.5N C. 313.5N
B. 323.5 N D. 233.5N
79. A 50-N box lies on the frictionless inclined plane that rises 3 feet and is 5 feet long along the incline. The force; P , parallel to the plane which is required to
prevent the box from moving downward is:
A. 20 N C. 25 N
B. 30 N D. 15 N
80. The coefficient of static friction of steel on ice is 0.1. The force needed in Newtons to set a 70 kg skater in motion is about
A. 0.7 C. 70
B. 7 D. 700
81. An automobile uses 100 hp to move at a uniform speed of 60 mph. What is the thrust force provided by a backward at
A. 530 lbf C. 1100 lbf
B. 625 lbf D. 1800 lbf
82. A 60-kg skater pushes a 50-kg skater, who moves away at 2 m/s. As a result, the first skater moves two balls attract with a force of
A. 0.6 m/s C.2 m/s
B. 1.7 m/s D. 2.4 m/s
83. Two steel balls of masses 500 kg and 50 kg , respectively are placed with their centers 0.5m apart. The two balls attract with a force of
A. 0.667nN C. 6.67µN
B. 0.667 µN D. 6.67 mN
84. A light ray of wavelength 589 nm traveling through air is incident on a smooth flat slab of glass at an angel of 30 ͦ to the normal. Find the angel of refraction. Index
of refraction of air is 1 and that of glass is 1.52.
A. 19.2 C. 24.7
B. 20.8 D. 34.8
85. A 100-kg car whose speed is 80 km/h has a kinetic energy of
A. 2.52 E4 J C. 2.42 E6 J
B. 2.47 E5 J D. 3.20 E6 J
86. A steel bridge spans a channel 2000 ft wide. What change in length would causes by change in temperature from 10 ͦ F to 130 ͦ F α= 6.5 x10-6 per ͦ F.
A. 15.65 in C. 17.15 in
B. 18.72 in D. 20.64 in
87.A train whistle has a natural frequency of 1500Hz. If the train is approaching a station at a velocity of 30 m/s, what is the frequency perceived by a person standing
at the station? (Assume that air temperature is 30 ͦ C)
A. 1641.5 Hz C. 1240 Hz
B. 1500 Hz D. 2000 Hz
88. A car accelerate from rest at 2 m/s 2 for 5 seconds, travels at constant speed for 10 seconds and decelerates to rest 2 m/s 2 .Calculate the distance traveled by the
car.
A. 525 m C. 450 m
B. 315 m D. 375 m
89. A ball is dropped from a building 100 m high. If the mass of the ball is 10 grams, after what time will the ball strikes the ground?
A. 5.61 s C. 4.52 s
B. 2.45 s D. 4.42 s
90. A shot is fired at an angel 45 ͦ with the horizontal and velocity of 3000 ft per second. Find the height and range of the projectile.
A. 700 ft, 2800 ft C. 820 ft, 3200 ft
B. 800 ft, 3000 ft D. 850 ft, 3600 ft
91. A wheel starts from rest has an angular speed of 20 rad/s after being uniformly accelerated for 10 s. The total angel through which it has turned in these 10 s is
A. 2π rad C. 100 rad
B. 40 π rad D. 200 rad
92. After descending a slope, a skier coast on level snow for 20 m before coming to a stop. If the coefficient of friction between skis and snow is 0.05, the skier’s
speed at the foot of the slope was
A. 3.1 m/s C.6.3 m/s
B. 4.4 m/s D. 19.6m/s
93. A copper column of annular cross- section has an outer diameter of 15 feet, and is subjected to a force of 45 kipps. The allowable compressive stress is 3000
lbf/ft2. What should be the wall thickness?
A. 5.0 ft C. 3.5 ft
B. 3.6 ft D. 4.6 ft
94. What power in kilowatts can be transmitted by a 10-mm diameter solid shaft at 30 ps, if allowable torsional shearing stress is 40 MPa?
A. 1.48 kW C. 44 kW
B. 12.3 kW D. 102.4 kW
95. The maintenance expense on a piece of machinery is estimated as follows:
Year 1 2 3 4
Maintenance P150 P300 P450 P600
If interest is 8% , the equivalent uniform annual maintenance cost closest to
P250 C. P350
P300 D. P400
96. A piece of property is purchased for P 10,000 and yields P 1,000 yearly profit. If the property is sold after five years, the minimum price to breakeven, with the
interest at 6% is closed to
A. P5,000 C. P7,700
B. P6,500 D. P8,300
97. A piece of equipment has been installed at a cost of P100,000 and is expected to have a working life of 10 years with a scrap value P20,000. Calculate the
capitalized cost of the equipment based on an annual compound- interest rate of 5% .
A. P210,750 C. P227,207
B. P220,100 D. P 235,120
98. A machine has an initial cost of P80000 as a salvage value of P20000 at the end of 20 years. Assuming sum of the years depreciation, what would be the book
value of the machine after two years? Book value is closest to
A. P42000 C. P69000
B. P59000 D. P79000
99. Two options are available for painting your house: (1) oil- based painting which costs P5000 and (2) water-based painting which costs P3000. The estimated lives
are 10 years and 5 years respectively. For either option, There is no salvage value of the end of respective service life. Assume that you will keep and maintain the
house for 10 years. If your personal interest rate of 10% per year, which of the statement is correct?
A. On annual basis, option 1 will cost about P850
B. On annual basis, option 2 is about P22 cheaper than option 1
C. On annual basis, both options cost about the same
D. On annual basis, option 2 will cost about P820
100. It is the act regulating the practice of chemical engineering in the Philippines.
A. RA 9297 C. RA 9729
B. RA 9792 D. RA 9279
-----------------------------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

ALGEBRA 1
1. Which of the following does not represent a rational number?

A. -1/6 C. 0.6
B. 0.4444… D. √5
2. How many integers between 20 and 30 are prime?
A. 2 C. 3
B. 3 D. 4
3. If x is an odd integer, which of following must also be an odd integer?
A. x+1 C. x+4
B. 2x D. x-1
4. Find the LCM of the numbers 15, 21, 36.
A. 1260 C. 9
B. 3 D. 36
SYSTEM OF LINEAR EQUATIONS

5. In the system of equations 3x + 2y – z =5 ; y - =2; x + 2y -3z =-1 the value of y is
A. 2 C. 4
B. -1 D. 6
Given the following equations:
x + 2y + 2z – 3w =6
2x + y - 2z + w =-4
3x - y + z + 3w =-1
2x + 3y + z +4w = -5
6. Find the value of x.
A. 1 C. -2
B. -1 D. 3
7. Find the value of y.
A. -1 C. 1
B. 3 D. -2
8. Find the value of z.
A. 2 C. -3
B. 3 D. 4
9. Find the value of w
A. -1 C. 1
B. 2 D. 4
QUADRATIC EQUATIONS
10. Using the discriminant, determine the type of solution for the equation: 8 a2 – a +7 =0
A. two irrational roots C. one rational roots
B. two rational roots D. two complex roots
11. The equation whose roots are the reciprocals of the roots of the equation 2x 2 – 3x -5 = 0 is
A. 2x 2 -5x -3 =0 C. 5x 2 -2x -3 =0
B. 5x 2 +2x -3 =0 D. 3x 2 -5x -2 =0
12. If the square root of (5x -4) plus square root of (2x +1) is equal 7, then x=?
A. -4 C. 3
B. 4 D. 6
CUBIC EQUATIONS
13. What are the roots of the cubic equation x 3- 8x -3 =0
A. x = -7.90, -3, -0.38 C. x = -3, -2, 2
B. x = -3, -0.38, 2 D. x = -2.62, 3 -0. 38
REMAINDER AND FACTOR THEOREM

14. Find the value of k so that x + 2 is a factor of 3x 3 –kx 2 + 2x -4
A. 8 C. 28
B. -8 D. -28
15. The expression x 4 + ax 3 + 5x 2 - bx + 6 when divided by x -2 leaves the remainder 16, and when divided by x+1 leaves the remainder 10. Find the values of a and
b.
A. 5,7 C. 5, -7
B. -5, -7 D. -5, 7
BINOMIAL EXPANSION
16. What is the middle term of the expansion of (x 2-5)8 ?
A. 47350 x 8 C. 43750 x 8
B. 45370 x 8 D. 47530 x 8
EXPONENTIAL AND LOGARITHMIC FUNCTIONS

17. Solve for x in the equation: 3x + 9x =27x
A. 0.438 C. 0.460
B. 0.416 D. 0.482
18. If 10x = 4, then the value of 102x+1 is
A. 26 C. 160
B. 40 D. 900
19. What is the value of log 2 5 + log3 5?
A. 7.39 C. 3.79
B. 3.97 D. 9.37
20. The logarithm of the quotient M/N and logarithm of the product MN is equal to 1.55630251 and 0.352182518 respectively. Find the value of M.
A. 6 C. 7
B. 8 D. 9
21. Solve for x : log (x+2)-0.5 log 4 =log 4 –log x.
A. -2 C. 4,-2
B. 2 D. -4, 2
VARIATION PROBLEMS
22. If x varies directly as y inversely as z, and x=14 when y= 7 and z= 2, find the value of x when y= 16 and z =4
A. 14 C. 16
B. 4 D. 8
23. If a hen and a half lays an egg and a half in a day and a half, how long does it take a hen to lay to eggs ( in days)?
A. 2.3 C. 1 ½
B. 1 D. 3
24. Three ducks and one-third lay three eggs and one third in 3 days and one third. How many eggs will 5 ducks lay in 10 days?
A. 15 C. 300
B. 30 D. 10
DAILY TEST
1.If a/b is an integer , which of the following must also be an integer?
A. a+b C. b/a
B. a-b D. 5a/b
2. Given (x-2)(y+3) =4 ; (y +3)(z+2)(x -2) = 8. Find the positive root of x.
A. 6 C. 2
B. 4 D. 0
3. The sum of roots of the equation x 2-3x -10=0 is
A. 3 C. -3
B. -10 D. 10
4. Find the numerical coefficient of the term involving b4 in the expansion of (a2-2b)10.
A. 3360 C. 3630
B. 6330 D. 6033
5. Which of the following is a factor of 3x 3 + 2x 2 - 32?
A. x-2 C. x-3
B. x+2 D.x+3
6. If f(x) =10x + 1, then f(x+1) – f(x) is equal to
A. 1 C. 9(10x)
B.11 D.10x+1
7. What is the remainder when x 53 -1 is divided by (x + 1)?
A. 0 C. -2
B. -1 D. 4
8. If x 3/4 =8, x equals
A. 6 C. 16
B. 9 D. 20
9. If log 2 =A, log 3 =B and log 5 = C, find log 4.8.
A. A – B +C C.A+ 2B -C
B. 3A + B – C D.A + B +C
10. 27N =94 , solve for N.

A. 7/3 C. 2/3
B. 8/3 D. 1/3
11. If five fishermen can catch 5 fishes in five minutes, how many fishes does 100 fisherman catches in 5 minutes?
A. 100 C. 50
B. 20 D. 200
12. Three ducks and one-third lay three eggs and one- third in 3 days and one third. How many eggs will 10 ducks lay in 10 days?
A. 9 C. 300
B. 30 D. 10
BRINGHOME EXAM
“ I see, I forget , I hear, I remember. I do, I understand” Confucius
If x:y:z = 2:5:7 and 4x -y +2z =51, find z.

21 C. 15
6 D. 8
If 137 + 276 =435 how much is 731 + 672?
534 C. 1623
1405 D. 1513
Andrea, Brian and Claire spent an afternoon picking strawberries. Andrea picked 3 kg more than Brian but 2 kg less than Claire. If Brian picked three-quarters of the
amount that Claire picked, how much did the three friends pick in total?
53 kg C. 20 kg
15 kg D. 35 kg
On Old MacDonald’s Farm the cows and ducks are signing in full chorus-fifty-four voices and one hundred and seventy stamping feet. If every duck is on a cow and
each cow has at most one duck on its back, how many cows are duckless?
0 C. 10
8 D. 31
Thiel has twice as many stamps as Neil. After she gave Neil 6 stamps, she still has 8 more stamps than Neil. How many stamps did Thiel have originally?
20 C. 36
32 D. 40
Given the following equations:
x-2y + z =7
2x + y + 3z =6
-x + 3y +2 z = -3
Solve for x:
1 C. 2
-1 D. -2
Refer to the problem 22, solve for y.
1 C. 2
-1 D. -2
Refer to the problem 22, solve for z.
1 C. 2
-1 D. -2
Given the following equation:
2x -3y + z - 4w =16
-x + 2y – 3z + 2w =-11
3x + y – 2z + w =1
4x – 2y + 3z – w = 15
Solve for x:
-1 C. -2
1 D. 2
Refer to the problem 25, solve for y.
-1 C. -2
1 D. 2
-1 C-. 2
1 D. 2
-1 C. -2
1 D. 2
On Tuesday Joel bought 3 tank tops and 4 pairs of shorts for P14.50 at a sidewalk sale. His cousin Bob bought tank tops and 2 pairs of shorts for P12.50. If the cost
of each tank top was the same and the cost of each pair of shorts was the same, how much did one tank top cost?
P1.00 C. P2.00
P1.50 D. P2.50
Solve for x, y and z given (x -2)(y-3)=5 ;(y-3)(z-1)=1 ; (z-1)(x-2) =5
x=7; y=4;z=2 C. x+4; y= 7;z=2
x=3;y=2; z=0 D. x=2; y=3; z=0
The polynomial x 5 – 5 x 4 +100 is divided by x -5. What is the remainder?
5 C. 25
218 D.138
Find the values of x in the equation 24x 2 + 5x-1 =0
1/8,-1/3 C. -5/8, 3/2
-1/8, 1/3 D. 2/3, -8/5
Find the value of k so that x -3 is a factor of 4x 3 –kx 2 + 2x -60.
7 C. 9
8 D. 6
Solve for x: x 2 + x -12 =0
6, -2 C. 8
3,-4 D. 2
If 4x 3 + 18x 2 + 8x -4 is divided by 2x+ 3,compute the remainder.
11 C. -9
-8 D 10
Given f(x) = (x-4)(x+3) +4, when f(x) is divided by (x -k), the remainder is k. Find k.
-12 C. 8
4 D. 2
What is the coefficient of the middle term of the expansion of (x+y)10 ?
1260 C. 252
225 D. 152
What is the sum of the coefficient of the expansion of ( 2x -1)20 ?
0 C. 2
1 D. 3
What is the fifth term of the expansion of ( ex + e-x) ?
60 C. e4x
70 D. sinhx
Factor the expression as completely as possible x 2 + 6x +8.
(x+4)(x+2) C. (x-4)(x+2)
(x-4)(x-2) D. (x+4)(x-2)
Two engineering students attempt to solve a problem that reduces to a quadratic equation. One of the students made a mistake only in the constant term of the
quadratic equation and gives an answer of 8 and 2 for the roots. The other student solving the same problem made an error I the coefficient of the first degree
term only and gives his answer as -9 and -1 for the roots. If you are to check their solutions, what would be the correct quadratic equation?
x 2 + 10x + 9 = 0 C. x 2 + 10x - 9 = 0
x 2 - 10x - 9 = 0 D. x 2 - 10x + 9 = 0
In the expansion of (x+4y)12, the numerical coefficient of the 5th term is
63360 C. 126720
506880 D. 253440
What is the value of log 6 845?
5.84 C. 2.98
3.76 D. 4.48
What is the value of x in the equation 27x =94 is?
4 C. 2
-2 D. -1
What is the value of x if log 2 to the base 2 plus log x to the base 2 equal to 2?
8/3 C. 2/3
4/3 D. 1/3
Given log b y= 2x + logbx. Which of the following is true?
y=b2x C. y=2x/b
y=2xb D. y=cb2x
Find x if log of x to the base 2 is -6.
1/64 C. 1/128
-12 D. -128
Find x if log of 9 to the base 3 is equal to x.
½ C. 2
7 D. 3
Three ducks and one-third lay three eggs and one-third in 3 days and one-third. How many eggs will 5 ducks lay in 10 days?
15 C. 300
30 D. 10
If 12 cans of food can feed 8 dogs for one week, how many cans of food would be needed to feed 6 dogs for two weeks?
9 C. 16
12 D. 18
If 500 lbs of mush will fee 20 pigs for a week, for how many days will 200 lbs of mush feed 14 pigs?
4 C. 6
5 D. 7
The quantity z varies directly as the cube of x and inversely proportional as the square of y, z has a value of 14 when x=4 and y =6. Find the value of z when x = 2
and y =3.
6 C. 7
8 D. 9
If 15 kg of dog food are needed to feed seven dogs in 3 days, how many kg of dog food are required to feed 18 dogs in 14 days?
2.3 C. 140
1 D. 180
If a hen and a half lays an egg and a half in a day and a half, how long does it take a hen to lay one egg (in days)?
2.3 C. 1 1/2
1 D. 2
If x is equal to log of 20 to the base 2, then x is between what pair of consecutive integers?
0 and 1 C. 2 and 3
1 and 2 D. 4 and 5
What is the base 10 logarithm of (1000)3?
3 C. 9
6 D. 27
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ALGEBRA 2
NUMBER & DIGIT PROBLEMS

ChE Board November 1994
Twice the sum of the numbers is 28. The sum of the squares of the two numbers is 100. The product of the two numbers is
42 B. 48 C. 54 D. 56
What is the greater of two numbers whose product is 100. If the sum of the numbers exceed their difference by 30?
15 B. 60 C. 75 D. 80
The product of two positive numbers is k. If each of the numbers is increased by 2, the new product is how much greater than twice the sum of the original numbers?
k-2 B. k C. k+2 D. k+4
The sum of two consecutive even integers is n. What is the sum of the next two consecutive integer greater than n?
n+3 B. n+5 C. 2n+2 D. 2n+3
A two-digit number is equal to 8 times the sum of its digits. If 45 is subtracted from the number, its digits are reversed. The number is
more than 90 C. more than 55 but less than 80
more than 80 but less than 90 D. less than 55
The sum of the digits of a number of these digits is 17, the hundreds digit is twice the units digit if 396 be subtracted form the number the order of the digits will be
reversed. Find the number
623 B. 354 C. 763 D. 386
PERCENTAGE & FRACTION PROBLEMS

If the number of articles sold is increased by 23% and the price of each is decreased by 20% , by what percent is the value of revenue changed?
5% B. -5% C. 10% D. 0%
Steve sold his motorcycle for 15% less than for what he purchased it if he receivedP1190, how much did h originally pay for it?
P1300 B. P1450 C. P1400 D. P1575
A market vendor sold 100 eggs, 60 of them were sold in a profit of 30% while the rest were sold at a loss of 40% . What is the percentage loss or gain on the whole
stock?
20% gain B. 20% loss C. 18% gain D. 18% loss
A tank is 7ft filled with oil. After 75 liters are drawn out, the tank is still half full. How many liters can the tank hold?
200 B. 150 C. 240 D. 280
Find the fraction such that of 2 is subtracted from its terms it becomes 1/4 but if 4 is added to its terms it becomes 1/2.
3/5 B. 5/12 C. 5/14 D. 6/13
The library book I am reading has 720 pages. The day I borrowed it I read ex actly half. The next day I read one-third of what was left. On the day after that I read
one-quarter of what remained. What fraction of the book remained unread?
1/2 B. 1/3 C. 1/4 D. 1/5
RATIO & PROPORTION

The ration of x toy is 4 times the ratio of y to x. what is the value of x/y?
3 B. 16 C. 4 D. 2
A number of men agree to contribute equally toward a P14 fund. Later four men joined the group carrying the individual contributions to be 40 cents less. How many
men were originally in the group?
3 B. 8 C. 10 D. 14
An elevator has a capacity of 24 adults or 30 children. How many children can ride with 8 adults?
15 B. 20 C. 24 D. 25
At Randy Barcelona High, the total number of girls in the combined junior and senior classes is equal to the number of boys in those two classes. If the senior class
has 400 students and the junior class has 300 students and if the ratio of boys to girls in the senior class is 5 to 2. What is the ratio of boys to girls in the junior
class?
2:5 B. 1:2 C. 5:9 D. 5:7
The concession stand at Cinema city sells popcorn in three sizes: large, super and jumbo. One day, Cinema City sold 340 bags of popcorn and the ratio of large to
super to jumbo was 5:17:15. How many super bags were sold that day?
48 B. 90 C. 102 D. 103
AGE PROBLEMS
A boy’s age is now three-sevenths of what he will be four years from now. How old is he now?
3 B. 4 C. 7 D. 9
In 20 years time a person’s age will be three times his age 10 y ears ago is ___ years old
40 B. 30 C. 25 D. 20
A man is three times as old as his son. Four years ago, he was four times as old as his son was at that time. How old is his son now?
10 B. 40 C. 25 D. 12
Six years ago, the sum of the ages of Magie and Vince is equal to 18. Four years from now, twice Vince age is equal to Magie’s age plus 26. How old is Vince and
Magie?
18, 12 B. 18, 14 C. 14, 16 D. 20, 12
Five years ago, Khaila’s father was four times as old as her. Now he is three times as old as she is. How many more years will it be before Khalia’s father is only
twice as old as Khalia?
5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20
CLOCK PROBLEMS
How many minutes after 9 o’clock will the hands of the clock be directly opposite each other?
16.36 min B. 15.90 min C. 16.89 min D. 17.25 min
How many minutes after 9 o’clock will the hands of the clock be at right angles with each other?
How many minutes after 9 o’clock will the hands of the clock be together for the first time?
DAILY TEST
A Chinese writer Sun Tao Pao put these words into the mouth of a woman washing dishes at a river “I don’t know how many guests there were, but every two used a
dish for rice between them, every three a dish for broth, every four a dish for meat and there are 65 dishes in all. Find how many guests are there.
40 B. 50 C. 60 D. 24
A number is formed by two digits followed by the digit 4. A second number is formed by the same two digits preceded by the digit 4. If the second number is as much
greater than 400 as the final number is smaller than 400. What is the first number?
364 B. 461 C. 127 D. 268
Paolo sells cars at a certain dealership. On Monday Paolo sells one-third of the cars on the lot. Tuesday comes and Paolo sells one-fourth of the remaining cars. If
Paolo sells half of the cars left on the lot on Wednesday, and no new cars were brought or taken off the lot, what percent of the original cars did Paolo sell?
4.2% B. 65% C. 75% D. 85%
The selling price of a TV set is double that of its cost. If the TV set was sold to a customer in a profit of 25% the net cost, how much discount was given to the
customer?
33.7% B. 35.7% C. 37.5% D. 34.7%
A child’s box of bricks contains cubes, cones and spheres. Two cones and a sphere on one side of a pair of scale will just balance a cube on the other side, and a
sphere and a cube together will just balance three cones. How many spheres will just balance a single cone?
1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
The three interior angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1:2:9. Find the largest angle
15ᴼ B. 30ᴼ C. 135ᴼ D. 45ᴼ
Eight years ago the sum of the ages of A and B is equal to 26. Five years from now, B’s age will be equal to twice A’s age less than 25. How old is A and B?
26, 16 B. 24, 18 C. 25, 17 D. 24, 15
A father is 4 times as old as his son. Five years ago he was 9 times as old as his son was then. What is the son’s present age in years?
6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9
How many minutes after 6 o’clock will the minute hand and hour hand be together for the first time?
How many minutes after 6 o’clock will the minute hand and hour hand be at right angle?
BRINGHOME EXAM
“I do not have superior intelligence or faultless looks. I do not captivate a room or run a mile under six minutes. I only succeeded because I was still working after
everyone went to sleep.”
Greg Evans – Suspense Novelist
Susan and Peter headed for the Pizza stop. Terry joined them but she said she wasn’t really hungry. They ordered one large pizza cut into 6 slices. Peter had one
more than twice many slices of pizza as Susan. Terry had 5 less than 3 times as many slices as Susan. How many slices did Susan have?
1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 6
Jim, John, Jerry and Joe together bought a basket of 144 apples. Jim received 10 more apples than John, 25 more than Jerry, and 32 more than Joe. How many
apples did Jim receive?
43 B. 27 C. 53 D. 64
In a group of 80 children, there are 22 more girls than boys. How many girls are there in the group?
36 B. 44 C. 45 D. 51
The largest of four consecutive odd integers is one less than twice than the smallest. Which of the following is the largest?
7 B. 21 C. 11 D. 13
Felisa walks in a straight line from her home to school, first stopping at a deli school 4 blocks away and then at a friend’s house 5 blocks away from the deli. If Felisa
is hen three-fourths of the way to school, how many blocks farther does Felisa has to walk?
3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 9
Jake bought jellyaces in the morning. He ate 1/3 of them right away, gave 10 of them to his friend Rab in the afternoon, and ate ½ of the remainder after dinner. If he
had 25 jellyaces left at the end of the day, how many jellyaces did he buy in the morning?
105 B. 90 C. 75 D. 6
The denominator of a certain fraction is 1 more than the numerator. If the numerator is increased by 2 1/2 the value will be equal to the reciprocal of the original
fraction. Find the original fraction.
3/4 B. 1/2 C. 5/6 D. 2/3
Mane helped her professor write word problems for his new book, in one chapter she wrote 1/9 of the problem. How many problems did the professor have in 1
chapter if Marie wrote 29 of the total problems?
242 B. 262 C. 152 D. 252
A man sold half an egg more than half of his eggs. He then sold half an egg more than half of his remaining eggs. He did the same to five customers and then one
egg is left. How many eggs he had at first?
61 B. 64 C. 63 D. 67
A baker has equal amounts of flour, sugar, and powdered milk. He used 1/3 of the flour, 1/2 of the sugar, and 1/4 of the powdered milk to a pudding mixture. If he
made up to 120 grams mixture, with how many grams of sugar did he have at first?
450 B. 480 C. 500 D. 520
One day at Lincoln High School, 1/12 of the students were abset and 1/5 of these present went on a field trip. If the number of the students staying in school that day
was 704, how many students are enrolled at Lincoln High?
840 B. 960 C. 1080 D. 1600
At Bernie’s Bargain Basement everything is sold for 20% less than the price marked, if Bernie buys radios for P80, what price should he mark them if he wants to
make a 20% profit on his cost?
P96 B. P100 C. P 112 D. P120
A bookstore has a stock of 30 paperback copies of Surveying, as well as 50 handover copies of the same book. They wish to increase their stocks for the new
semester. Based on past experienced they want their final numbers of paperback and hardcover copies to be in the ratio of 4 to 3. However the publisher
stipulates that they will only sell the sizes two copies of the paperback edition for each copy of the hardcover edition ordered. Under these conditions, how many
paperback should the store order to achieve the ratio of 4 to 3?
95 B. 110 C. 88 D. 78
Three numbers has a ratio of 2:5:8. If their sum is 60, find the biggest number.
24 B. 28 C. 32 D. 36
A knitted scarf uses three balls of wool. I start the day with b balls of wool and knit s scarves. How many balls of wool do I have at the end of the day?
5(b-s) B . b-3-s C. b-2s D. 3bs
Ann is eleven times as old as Beth. In a certain number of years, Ann will be five times as old as Beth and five years after that, Ann will be three times as old as Beth.
How old is Ann now?
20 B. 21 C. 22 D. 23
Inee was 5 times as old as Luana five years ago. If Luana will be half as old as Inee in ten years, how old is Luana now?
5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 30
Ana is 5 times as old as Beth and 2 2/3 times as old as Cathy. What fraction of Cathy’s age is Beth’s?
1 7/8 B. 1 8/15 C. 13 1/3 D. 3/40
Rae is two years older than Al and four years younger than Nelia. If Al is “d” years old, how old is Nelia in terms of “d”.
2d+2 B. d+2 C. d+4 D. d+8
Myra’s age 13 years ago was 1/3 her age 7 years hence. How old is Myra?
54 B. 15 C. 23 D. 18
How many minutes after 4 o’clock will the hands of the clock be directly opposite each other?
How many minutes after 4 o’clock will the hands of the clock be at right angles with each other?
How many minutes after 4 o’clock will the hands of the clock be together for the first time?
It is now between 9 and 10 o’clock. In 4 minutes, the hour hand of the clock will be directly opposite the position occupied by the minute hand 3 minutes go. What
time is it?
9:00 B. 9:10 C. 9:20 D. 9:30
A paint mixture contains yellow, blue and red in a ratio of 3:2:1 ratio respectively. If the mixture contains twelve pints of yellow paint, how many pints are there
altogether?
9 B. 12 C. 15 D. 24
A 40-m flagpole casts a 10-meter shadow. If a flower casts a 22-millimeter shadow, how many millimeters tall is the flower?
4 B. 8 C. 10 D. 128
At a sale, Thiel buys a dress that was reduced by 10% from P1000. The following week the same drss is increased by 10% over the sale price. What is the final price
(in peso)?
P1100 B. P1000 C. P990 D. P900
A trader raises the price of a P100-item by 20 percent. After finding that he cannot sell the item at the higher price, he discounts it by 20 percent. What is the final
price of the item?
P96 B. P97 C. P98 D. P99
Two consecutive odd numbers have product equal to 899. What is their sum?
60 B. 62 C. 64 D. 68
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ALGEBRA 2
WORK PROBLEMS
One pipe can empty a tank in 3hours. A second pipe takes 4 hours to complete the same job. How loang will it take to empty the tank if both pipes are used?
2 1/4 hrs B. 1 ¾ hrs C. 1 5/7 hrs D, 2 ¾ hrs
A and B working together can do a job in 9 2/3 hours. A becomes ill after 3 hours of working with B, and B finished the job, continuing the work alone 8 1/4 more
hours. How long will it take each, working alone, to do the complete job?
10 hrs, 12 hrs B. 12 hrs, 13 hrs C. 10 hrs, 15 hrs D. 12 hrs, 15 hrs
A laborer can finish h job 4 days. another laborer can finish the sam job in 6 days. if both laborers plus the third laborer can finish the job in 2 days. how long will it
take the 3rd laborer to finish the job alone?
6 days B. 8 days C. 10 days D. 12 days
A project can be done by 70 men in 100 days. there were 80 men at the start of the project but after 5 days, 20 of them had to be transferred to another project. How
long will it take the remaining workforce to complete the job?
Eight men can dig 150 ft of trench in 7 hr. three men can backfill 100 ft of the trench in 1 hr. the time that it will tale 10 men to dig and fill 200 ft of hench is
10 hr 1 min B. 10 hr 24 min C. 9 hr 32 min D. 10 hr 40 min
MIXTURE PROBLEMS
A chemist of distillery experiment on herb alcohol solution of different strength, 5% alcohol and 50% alcohol respectively . How many cubic meters of each strength
must be used in order to produce a mixture of 60 cu. m. that contains 45% alcohol?
20 m3 of 35% alcohol, 40m3 of 50% alcohol
Two thousand kilogram of steel containing 8% nickel is to be made by mixing steel containing 14% nickel with another containing 14% nickel. How much of each is
needed?
1500 kg steel with 14% nickel, 500 kg steel with 8% nickel
How many pounds of cream containing 12% butterfat must be added to 1800 pounds of milk containing 2 ½ butterfat to obtain milk having 3 ¼ butterfat.
150 lbs of cream C. 150 lbs of milk
200 lbs of milk D. 200 lbs cream
MOTION PROBLEMS
How far away from Earth is a star which is 8.5 light years away?
6.02 E16 m B. 8.02 E17 m C. 2.08 E18 m D. 2.06 E17 m
A boy started one hour and twenty minutes earlier than a man. If the man travels at 6 kph faster than the boy and overtook the boy in 40 minutes. Find the rate of the
man.
12 kph B. 10 kph C. 8 kph D. 6 kph
Two planes leave Cleveland for Jacksonville, a distance of 900 miles. The four-motored ploane (A) travels at a ground speed of 80 mph faster than the two-motored
plane (B). plan A arrives in Jacksonville 2 hr 15 min ahead of plane B. what were the respective ground speeds of the two planes in mph?
12 B. 15 C. 18 D. 21
At a practice session on the Charles River, the crew team from J P. University rowed 3 miles in 30 minutes. On the return trip against the current their times was 1
hour. Find the rate of the current in miles per hour.
150, 220 B. 150, 200 C. 200, 240 D. 150, 240
Two men are running at constant speed along a circular track 1350 meters in circumference. Running in opposite directions, they meet every 3 minutes. Running in
the same directions, the pass each other every 27 minutes. Determine the speed of the faster man in kilometers per hour.
12 B. 15 C. 18 D. 21
ARITHMETIC PROGRESSION
The given expression x +31, 4x -2 and x+10 form as arithmetic progression. Find the value x.
7.5 B. 7.0 C. 6.5 D. 6.0
An arithmetic progression starts with 1, has 9 terms, and the middle term is 21. Determine the sum of the nine terms
148 B. 112 C. 189 D. 235
If a clock strikes the approximate number of times each on each hour, how many times will it strike in 2 days?
240 B. 312 C. 610 D. 110
When all odd numbers from 1 to 100 are added, what will be the sum?
2500 B. 2501 C. 2510 D. 5354
Jim’s grandma gives him 30 foreign stamps to start his collection. He collects twelve more each week. How many weeks will it take for his collection to grow 216
stamps?
15 B. 18 C. 21 D. 24
GEOMETRIC PROGRESSION
Find the sum of the first ten terms of the progression 2, 6, 14, 54,…
19.685 B. 512 C. 50, 048 D. 13, 122
Find the geometric mean between 1/12 and 4/2?
25/216 B. 7/216 C. 1/81 D. 1 1/2
The number of bacteria in a yeast culture grows at the rate which is proportional to the number present. The bacteria count in a culture doubles in an 3 hours. At the
time of 13 hours, the count is smaller. How many bacteria were in the count originally?
3,000,000 B. 312,500 C. 31,250 D. 15,000
A rubber ball is made to fall from a height of 50 feet and is observed to rebound 2/3 of the distance it falls. How far will the ball travel before bouncing to rest if the ball
continues to fall in this manner?
200 ft B. 250 ft C. 225 ft D. 275 ft
HARMONIC PROGRESSION
Find the 12th term of the harmonic progression 6/3, 4/3, 3/2,…
12 B. 11 C. 13 D. 15
DOPHANTINE EQUATIONS
A theatre seats 100 people, admission is P5 for men, P1 for ladies and 0 centavos each for the children. How many children should there be in a group of men,
woman and children in order to fill every seat and take up just P100.00.
1 B. 15 C. 60 D. 80
DAILY TEST
Juan after working on a job for 2 hours was helped by Jose and it took 3 hours more for them working together to finish the job. Had they worked together from the
start, it would only require 4 hours to finish the job. How long would it take Juan to finish the job alone?
6 hrs B. 7 hrs C. 8 hrs D. 9 hrs
In a roadwork, 12 laborers could finish it in 17 days. After 11 days, 5 laborers quit the work and are not replaced until 4 days. How many more laborers should be
added to complete the job on time?
10 B. 12 C. 15 D. 18
The highway department has 100 pounds of a salt and sand mixture which is 64% salt. An environmental group requested the mixture be reduced is done that is
48% salt. How much sand must be added to bring about this change?
30.67 lbs B. 32.5 lbs C. 33.33 lbs D. 36.5 lbs
Two cars start from the same point at the same time and travel in the same direction at constant speed of 34 and 45 kph, respectively, if they start at 6:00 a.m., at
what time will they be 33 km apart?
11:00 a.m B. 12:00 nn C. 11:30 a.m. D. 10:00 a.m.
Sam the super snail is climbing a vertical gravestone 1 meter high. She climbs at a steady rate of 30 cm per hour but each time the church clock strikes the shock
causes her to slip down 1 cm. the clock only strikes the hours, so at 1 o’clock she would slip 1 cm, at 2 o’clock she would slip 2 cm and so on, if she starts to
climb just after the clock strikes 3p.m., when will she reach the top?
5:50 pm B. 6:20 pm C. 6:50 pm D. 7:04 pm
The sum of the first three terms of an arithmetic progression is -3 while he sum of the first five terms of the same arithmetic progression is 10. Find the first term.
-5 B. -4 C. -3 D. -2
The sum of three numbers in arithmetic progression is 45. If 2 is added to the first number, 3 to the second, and 7 to the third, the new numbers are in geometric
progression. Find the three numbers.
10, 15, 20 B. 8, 12, 16 C. 12, 15, 18 D. 20, 25, 30
A rubber ball is dropped from a length of 9 m and each time it strikes the ground. It bounces to a length 2/3 of that from which it falls. Find the total distance it travels
before coming to rest.
40 B. 45 C. 50 D. 55
A merchant has three items on sale, namely a radio for P30, a clock for P30 and flashlight for P1. At the end of the day, he has sold a total of three items and has
exactly P1000 on the total sales. How many radios did he sell?
20 B. 15 C. 8 D. 5
A and B are moving on a circular track having a certain perimeter. The speed of A and B are 1,100 m/min and 650 m/min respectively. If they travel at the same
direction from the same starting point. A requires 3 minutes to overtake B, how long is the circular track.
480 m B. 780 m C. 600 m D. 150 m
BRINGHOME EXAM
Formulas, in its best send, ARE ONLY Recipes for “A Picture”. –
if you DON’T catch “The Picture”, you are lost, for ever! (^“,”)
Two pipes running simultaneously can fill a swimming pool in 8 hrs. if both pipes run for 3 hrs and the first pipe is then shut off, it requires 4 hours more for the
second to fill the pool. How long does it take each pipe running separately to the pool?
6 & 24 hrs B. 12 & 20 hrs C. 15 & 24 hrs D. 5 & 12 hrs
Eight men can excavate 15 m2 of drainage open canal in 7 hours. Three men can backfill 10m2 in 4 hours. How long will it take 10 men to excavate and backfill 30m2
on the same project?
7.95 hrs B. 4.64 hrs C. 8.84 hrs D. 9.87 hrs
If 15 workers can pave 18 driveways in 34 days, how many days would it take 40 workers to pave 22 driveways?
6 B. 9 C. 11 D. 15
How many liters of water must be added to 40 liters of 40 ml solution to reduce the concentration mixture to 30% ?
13 2/3 B. 12 2/3 C. 13 D. 13 1/2
How much coffee costing 65 pesos per kg must be added to 150 kg costing 60 pesos per kg to make a mixture of 87 pesos per kg?
200 kg B. 210 kg C. 220 kg D. 225 kg
Pedro can run around a 400 meter track in 65 sec. how long does it take for Juan to run the 400 m track if he meets Pedro 36 sec after they start together in a race
around the track on opposite directions.
40.2 sec B. 53.8 sec C. 63.4 sec D. 76.8 sec
Two turtles A and B start at the same time towards each other at a distance of 150 m from each other. The rate of the turtle A is 10m/s while that of B is 20 m/s. A fly
named Agammemnon flies from one turtle to another at the same time that the turtle starts to move towards each other. The rate of the fly is 100 m/s. find the
total distance traveled by this fly until the two turtles meet.
400 m B. 500 m C. 600 m D. 700 m
Two cars start at the same time from two places 330 kilometer apart and travel toward each other. Car A travels at 50 kph and car B at 45 kph. Car A rests for one
hour on the way, in how many hours after they left will they meet?
2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
A jogger starts a course at a steady rate of 6 kph, 5 minutes later, a second jogger starts at the same course at 10 kph. How long will it take the second jogger to
catch the first?
20 min B. 21 min C. 22 min D. 15 min
An airplane went 300 miles in two hours with the wind and flying back the same route it took 3 3/5 hours against the wind. Determine the velocity of the wind.
160 mph B. 100 mph C. 30 mph D. 40 mph
A man can row 20 km downstream as the time he takes to row 8 km upstream. He rows downstream for 1.5 hours, then turns and riw cback for 3 hours but he finds
he is still 3 km from his starting place. Find the rate of the man as still water.
How many times will a clock strikes in 24 hours, if it only strikes at the hours?
56 times B. 78 times C. 48 times D. 24 times
The first term in arithmetic progression is 2 and the nth term is 35. If the number of terms is 12, what is the common difference.
33 B. 11/4 C. 3 D. -3
Find the number of terms in the arithmetic sequence: 4,3,2,1,…,-23
-1 B. 28 C. 27 D. 4
What is the sum of the first 80 positive odd integers subtracted from the sum of the 80 positive even integers?
60 B. 70 C. 65 D. 80
An arithmetic progression starts with 1, has 9 terms and the middle term is 21. Determine the sum of the first 9 terms.
148 B. 180 C. 112 D. 225
The sum of three numbers in arithmetic progression is 45. If 2 is added to the first number, 3 to the second, and 7 to the third, the new numbers are in geometric
progression. Find the smallest of the original numbers.
5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20
1-2+3-4+5-6+…+97-98+99 equals
0 B. 48 C. -50 D. 50
Suppose a ball rebounds three-fourths the distance it falls. If it is dropped from a height of 40 feet, how far does it travel before coming to rest?
80 B. 120 C. 180 D. 280
The sum of the first 11 terms of the progression+2, -2,+2, -2… is
-2 B. 0 C. 4 D. 2
A man bought 20 chicken for P200. The rooster cost P30 each, hens P13 each and chicks P1 each. If he bought at least of each, how many roosters did he buy?
13 B. 5 C. 1 D. 2
Glenn can paint a house in 9 hours while Stewart can paint the same house in 16 hours. They work together for 4 hours and after 4 hours, Stewart left and Glenn
finished the job alone. How many more hours did it take Glenn to finish the job?
A pump can pump out water from a tank in 1 hours. Another pump can pump out water from the same tank in 20 hours. How long will it take both pumps to pump out
the water in the tank?
5 hrs B. 6 2/7 hrs C. 7 1/2 hrs D. 6 1/2 hrs
How much copper and how much iron sould be added to 100 pounds of an alloy containing 25% copper and 40% iron in order to obtain an alloy containing 30%
copper and 50% iron
27.5 lbs Cu, 47.5 lbs Fe C. 35 lbs Cu, 50 lbs Fe
47.5 lbs Cu, 27.5 lbs Fe D. 50 lbs Cu, 35.5 lbs Fe
------------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS-----------------------------------------------------
TRIGONOMETRY
ANGLE MEASURE
Three-eights of a revolution is how many degrees?
45ᴼ B. 90ᴼ C. 135ᴼ D. 67.5ᴼ
The measure of a supplement of an angle is 30 more than 2 times the measure of the angle. Find the measure of the angle.
15ᴼ B. 25ᴼ C. 50ᴼ D. 115ᴼ
ARC LENGTH
Calculate the length of an arc which subtends in a nominal angle of 60ᴼ in a circle of radius 10 cm.
10.47 cm B. 12.24 cm C. 13.83 cm D. 14.45 cm
TRIGONOMETRIC EQUATIONS
Simplify the equation sin2x(1+cos2x)
1 B. sin2x C. sin2 xcos2x D. sec2 x
Its angle is an acute angle and sin(50ᴼ+A) = cos 30ᴼ, then A=?
10ᴼ B. 20ᴼ C. 30ᴼ D. 40ᴼ
If sinxcosx + sin2x = 1, what are the values of x?
32.2ᴼ & 40.3ᴼ B. -20.67ᴼ & 58.2ᴼ C. 20.90ᴼ & 68.3ᴼ D. -32.2ᴼ & 48.3ᴼ
Solve for x in the given equation: arctan(3x) + arctan(x) =√4
0.148 B. 0.281 C. 0.421 D. 0.318
RIGHT TRIANGLE TRIGONOMETRY

A vertical pole was broken by the wind. The upper part was stretched, reach a point on the level ground 15 ft from the base. If the upper part is 9 ft longer than the
lower part, how tall is the pole?
26 ft B. 25 ft C. 24 ft D. 27 ft
A man standing on a 48.5 m high building, has an eyesight height of 1.5 m from the top of building, took a depression reading from the top of another nearby building
and nearest wall, which is 50ᴼ and 80ᴼ respectively. Find the height of the nearby building in meters. The man is tsanding at the edge of the building and both
building is on the same horizontal plane.
50.49 B. 25.50 C. 30.74 D. 42.56
A transit set up 112.1 ft from the base of a vertical chimney reads 32ᴼ50 with the cross bars set on top of the chimney. With the telescope level, the vertical rod at the
base of the chimney is 8.1 ft. how tall is the chimney?
60.3 ft B. 71.4 ft C. 78.3 ft D. 170.3 ft
From a ship, the angle of elevation of a point B at the top of a cliff is 21ᴼ13’. After the ship sailed 2500 feet directly toward B, as angle of elevation is found to be
47ᴼ12’. Determine the height of the cliff.
1400 ft B. 1312 ft C. 1455 ft D. 1540 ft
At a point A due east to a hull, the angle of elevation is 45ᴼ and at point B due its west the angle elevation is 30ᴼ. If the distance of AB is 50 meters. Find the height
of the hull.
3.66 m B. 4.66 m C. 6.33 m D. 2.33 m
An observer found the angle of elevation of the top of the tree to be 27ᴼ. After moving 10m closer on the same horizontal plane as the tree, the angle of elevation
becomes 54ᴼ. Find the height of the tree.
8.45 m B. 6.25 m C. 7.02 m D. 6.09 m
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Two ships leave the same port at the same time, one sailing due northeast at the rate of 6 kph and the other sailing due north at the rate of 10 kph. What is the
distance between the two ships after 3 hours of sailing?
31.45 km B. 22.86 km C. 22.50 km D. 22.48 km
Ship A started sailing N40ᴼ32’E at the rate of 3 mph. after 4 hours, ship B started from the same port going S45ᴼ32’E at the rate of 4 mph. after how many hours will
the second ship be exactly south of ship A.
AREAS OF TRIANGLE
What is the area of an isosceles triangle whose base is 10 and its base angle is 60ᴼ?
43.30 B. 36.30 C. 25 D. 30
Two triangles have equal bases. The altitude of one triangle is 3 units more than its base and the altitude of the other triangle is 3 units less than its base. Find the
altitudes, if the areas of the triangle differ by 21 square units.
6 and 12 B. 3 and 8 C. 5 and 11 D. 4 and 10
The acute angles of a right triangle are congruent and one of the congruent sides has length 14. What is the area of the triangle?
49 B.96 C. 196 D. 25
The sides of a triangle are 25, 137 and 216 respectively. What is the area of the triangle?
73.250 units2 B. 10.250 units2 C. 16.568 units2 D. 11.260 units2
The sides of a triangle are 5, 12 and 13 units respectively. Find the area of the largest circle that can be inscribed in the triangle.
12.57 sq. units B. 15.28 sq. units C. 17 8 sq. units D. 13.5 sq. units
Two equilateral triangles, each with 12 cm sides, overlap each other to form a 6-point star of David. Determine the overlapping sizes, in sq. cm.
26.87 B. 36.64 C. 23.58 D. 63.40
DAILY TEST
If an arc length is 12 m and subtends a central angle Ɵ in a circle of radius 2 m. find the measure of Ɵ in radians.
3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
The measure of a complement of an angle 3 times the measure of the angle. What is the measure of the angle?
15ᴼ B. 45ᴼ C. 60ᴼ D. 75ᴼ
If x is an acute angle for which tanx = 1/3 and cos x = 1/2, then sin x =?
6 B. 1/6 C. 2/3 D. 3/2
Solve for x: tan-1x/2+tan2 x/3 = 44
0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
The elevation of the top of a tower is 45ᴼ from each of two points on the ground 200 m apart, one due south and the other due east of the tower. What is the height
of the tower?
51.4 m B. 101.4 m C. 250 m D. 141.4 m
If the sides of a triangle are in the ratio 5:12:15, then the triangle is
Acute B. isosceles C. obtuse D. right
A pole which leans to the sun is 10ᴼ15’ from the vertical. Cast a shadow of 64.3 m on the level ground when the angle of elevation of the sun is 54ᴼ32’. Find the
length of the pole.
214.0 m B. 183.0 m C. 154.8 m D. 205.6 m
The two legs of a triangle are 300 and 150 m each, respectively. The angle opposite the 150 m side is 26ᴼ. What is the third side?
137.48 m B. 187.44 m C. 524.32 m D. 364.40 m
Find the area of the triangle whose sides are 25, 33 and 40 in.
468.25 in2 B. 457.44 in2 C. 341.78 in2 D. 564.40 in2
Given a triangle whose sides are 6 cm, 10 cm and 12. Find the radius of the inscribed circle.
2.56 cm B. 2.65 cm C. 1.25 cm D. 6.25 cm
BRINGHOME EXAM
“I walk slowly but I never walk backward.” – Abraham Lincoln
The sum of the interior angles of a triangle is
90ᴼ B.180ᴼ C. 270ᴼ D. 360ᴼ
How big is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at twenty to five?
100ᴼ B. 25ᴼ C. 90ᴼ D. 125ᴼ
Three times the sine of an angle is equal to the square of the measure of the same angle. Find the angle.
20ᴼ B. 25ᴼ C. 30ᴼ D. 35ᴼ
Find the value of x if x =secƟ/(1-cosƟ)
0 B. sin2x C. cos2 x D. tan2x
If sinA=4/5, x if tan A= secA = x
30ᴼ B. 60ᴼ C. 0 D. 4
Solve for x, arcos 2x - arcosx =√3
-1 B. -0.5 C. 0.5 D. 1
Solve for x if sin-1(x+2) = √6
-3/2 B. 3/4 C. -2/3 D. 3/8
If sin x =2.511 y and cos x=3.06 y and sin 2x = 3.833 y, find the value of y
0.265 B. 0.256 C. 0.562 D. 0.625
The angle of elevation of the top of the tower A from the foot of tower B is twice the angle of elevation of the top of tower B from the foot of tower A. At a point midway
between the two towers, the angles of elevations of the top of the towers are complementary. If the two towers are 120 m apart, what are the heights of the
towers?
60 m, 60 m B. 45 m, 10 m C. 10 m, 40 m D. 75 m, 35 m
The captain of a ship views the top of a lighthouse at an angle of 60ᴼ with the horizontal at an elevation of 6 meters above sea level. Five minutes later, the same
captain of the ship views the top of the same lighthouse at an angle 30ᴼ with the horizontal. Determine the speed of the ship if the lighthouse is known to be 50
meters above sea level
0.265 m/s B. 0.155 m/s C. 0.189 m/s D. 0.210 m/s
A man finds the angle of elevation of the top of a tower to be 50ᴼ. He walks 85 m nearer the tower and finds its angle of elevation to be 50ᴼ. What is the height of the
tower?
76.31 m B. 73.31 m C. 73.16 m D. 76.61 mHow long is the minute hand of a clock if it is 7 cm longer than the hour
hand, and the distance between the tips of the hand at 9:00 is 13 cm.
5 cm B. 8cm C. 10 cm D. 12 cm
At a point A that is 50 m from the base of a tower, the angle of elevation to one top of the tower is twice as large as the angle of elevation from a point B that is 150 m
from the tower. Assuming that the base of the tower and the points A and B are as the same as the level ground, find the height of the tower.
40√3 m B. 25√3 m C. 13√3 m D. 41√3 m
The angle of elevation of the top point of the tower from A is 23ᴼ30’. From another point B the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is 35ᴼ33’. The point A and B
are 217. 45 m apart and on the same horizontal plane as the foot(point C) of the tower. The horizontal angle subtended by A and E as the foot of the tower is
90ᴼ find the height of the tower CD
100.5 m B. 90.5 m C. 105.8 m D. 102.5 m
Given triangle ABC whose perimeter is 6 cm. if sinAsinBsinC = 3 4 5, then the smallest side of the triangle ABC is,
1 cm B. 2 cm C. 3 cm D. 4 cm
The sides of a triangle have a total length of 100 inches. The angles are as the continued proportion 1:2:4. Find the side opposite the smallest angle.
20.20 in B. 25.49 in C. 18.40 in D. 17.21 in
The sides of a triangle lot are 130 m, 150 m, and 190 m. This lot is to be divided by a line bisecting the longest side and drawn, from the opposite vertex. Find the
length of the line.
110 m B. 115 m C. 120 m D. 125 m
Points A and B 1000 m apart are plotted as a straight highway running east and west. From A, the bearing of tower C is 32ᴼ W of N and from B the bearing of C is
28ᴼ N of E. Approximate the shortest distance of tower C to the highway.
364 m B. 374 m C. 354 m D. 394 m
An airplane travels 209 km on a straight course, making an angle of 22.5ᴼ east of north. It then changes its course by moving 100 km north before reaching its
destination. Determine the resultant displacement of the airplane, in km
304 B. 340 C. 400 D. 430
The perimeter of a triangle is 78 feet. The second side of the triangle is one more than three times the first side and the first side is 1/2 the third side. How long is the
third side?
26 ft B. 13 ft c. 40 ft D. 52 ft
Calculate the area of a triangle having sides 10 m, 15 m and 20 m respectively.
72.62 m2 B. 74.25 m2 C. 78.35 m2 D. 78.9 m2
If an equilateral triangle is circumscribed about a circle of radius 10 cm, determine the side of a triangle.
34.64 cm B. 64.12 cm C. 38.44 cm D. 32.10 cm
Find the area of a triangle with a base of 5 inches and a height of 8 inches.
40 B. 30 C. 20 D. 13
Each equal side of an isosceles triangle is 3.5 inches longer than the base. The perimeter of the triangle is 2 feet. Find the length of its base.
5.67 B. 6.43 C. 5.43 D. 6.02
The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 17 cm long, one leg is 15 cm long. Find the area of the triangle in square centimeters.
255/2 B. 65 C. 133 D. 90
Find the area of an equilateral triangle with a perimeter of 8.
4.5 B. (3.1√3)/2 C. (√2)/4 D. 40.3
A 40 m high tower stands vertically on a sloping ground which makes an angle 12ᴼ with the horizontal. A tree also stands vertically up the hill of the tower. An
observer on top of the tower finds the angle of depression of the top of the tree to be 26ᴼ and the bottom of the tree to be 38ᴼ. Find the length of the tree.
1.2 m B. 10.3 m C. 10.7 m D. 11.2 m
Find the length of a median of an equilateral triangle having sides of length 2.
√3 B. (√3)/2 C. (√3)/4 D. 2
A strip of 640 sq. m is sold from a triangular field whose sides are 96, 72 and 80 meters. The strip is of uniform width “h” and has one of its side parallel to the longest
side of the field. Find the width of the strip.
6.2 m B. 7.1 m C. 7.9 m D. 6.2 m
How many triangles are determined by 8 points, three of which are collinear.
56 B. 81 C. 42 D. 72
The lengths of the sides of a triangle are 12, 15, and 18. A circle tangent to the longest and shortest side has its center on the remaining side. Find the distance from
the center of the circle is the midpoint of the side where the center of the circle has.
2.3 B. 1.5 C. 7.8 D. 9.8
In finding the height of an inaccessible cliff CB, two points A and D. 152.73 m apart on a plain due west of the cliff are located. From D the angle of elevation of the
top of the cliff is 44ᴼ32.4’ and from A the angle of elevation is 29ᴼ15.8’. How high is the cliff above the plain?
189.88 m B. 187.97 m C. 188.77 m D. 179.78 m
At a certain point, the angle of elevation of the top of the flagpole, which stands on a level ground is 55ᴼ. Seventy-five nearer the pole, the angle of elevation is 50ᴼ.
How high is the pole?
137.32 ft B. 124.32 ft C. 127.32 ft D. 134.32 ft
A 6-foot spruce tree is planted 15 feet from a lighted streetlight whose lamp is 18 feet above the ground. How long is the shadow of that tree?
5.0 B. 7.5 C. 7.8 D. 9.0
A post is 9 ft from one wall of a room and 40 ft from the wall at right angle to it. How many ft is it from the intersection of the two walls?
7 B. 21 C. 41 D. 49
In triangle ABC, angle C is a right angle. AC = 48, BC = 30. Find the altitude to the hypotenuse
24 B. 50 C. 40 D. 30
A road run 1200 m from A to B and then makes a right angle going to C, a distance of 500 m. a new road is being built directly from A to C. how much shorter will the
new post be?
600 m B. 400 m C. 500 m D. 300 m
Evaluate (2sinxcosx -cosx)/(1-sin2x+sin2xcos2x)
Sinx B. cosx C. tanx D. cotx
If sec2A = 1/sin13A, determine the angle A in degrees.
5ᴼ B. 6ᴼ C. 3ᴼ D. 7ᴼ
Solve for the value of “A” when sinA = 3 and cos A = 5.
32.47ᴼ B. 33.68ᴼ C. 34.12ᴼ D.35.21ᴼ
------------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS-----------------------------------------------------
PLANE GEOMETRY
QUADRILATERALS
How many tiles is 10 cm on a side are needed to cover a rectangular wall 3m by 4 m?
12 B. 120 C. 1200 D. 80
The Monroes want to plant a uniform strip of grass around their swimming pool. If the pool measure 55 feet by 37 feet and there is only enough seed to cover 464
square feet, what will be the width of the uniform strip?
4 ft B. 3 ft C. 1 ft D. 2 ft
A man owns two square lots of unequal sides, together containing 15, 025 sq. ft. If the lot were continuous, it would require 320 ft of fence to embrac them in a single
enclosure of six sides. Find the area of each lot in sq. ft.
625, 14400 B. 580, 12220 C. 640, 12000 D. 420, 12100
A rectangle with base 4x3 cm, is constructed equal in area to an equilateral triangle of side 6 cm. what is the height of the rectangle?
2.25 cm B. 3.25 cm C. 2.42 cm D. 4.43 cm
If the length of a certain rectangle were increased by 2 ft and the width decreased by 1 ft. the area would be decreased by 2 sq. ft. if the length were decreased by 2
ft and the width increased by 2 ft, the area would be increased by 16 sq. ft. find the length of the rectangle.
10 ft B. 20 ft C. 15 ft D. 25 ft
A rhombus has a side of 10 and a measure of one angle is 50ᴼ. Find the area of the rhombus.
25 B. 30 C. 50√3 D. 25√3
A rhombus is formed by two radii and two chords of a circle of diameter 20 units. What is the area of the rhombus?
22.6 B. 50.6 C. 56.65 D. 221.70
The equal sides of an isosceles trapezoid are 10 cm, and the shorter base is 14 cm. if one pair equal angles have a measure of 40ᴼ each. Find the length of the
diagonal.
22.6 cm B. 30.6 cm C. 14.7 cm D. 9.09 cm
If quadrilateral ABCD is a parallelogram and the measures of angles A and B are 2x + 6 and 3x – x respectively, then x =?
6 B. 24 C. 26 D. 76
CIRCLE
A circle of radius 10 cm has its radius decreased by 3 cm, by what percentage has its area decreased?
90% B. 70% C. 51% D. 30%
The area of a circle is 39.42 sq. in. what is the circumference?
53.52 m B. 36.21 m C. 25.90 m D. 30,24 in
A circle with radius 6 has half of the area removed by cutting of a border of uniform width. Find the width of the border.
1.76 B. 2.21 C. 1.96 D. 1.35
Find the area of the largest square that can be cut from a circle whose radius is 4 mm?
8 sq. mm B. 16 sq. mm C. 20 sq. mm D. 32 sq. mm
A chord 48 mm long is 7 mm from the center of a circle. What is the radius of the circle?
7 mm B. 24 mm C. 12 mm D. 25 mm
A chord 18 cm long is perpendicular is a radius of a circle. The distance from the intersection of chord and radius to the outer and the radius is 2 cm. find the length of
the radius.
6 B. 10 C. 15 D. 17
The distance between centers of the two cones having radii of 4 and 6 is 15. How long is the common internal segment?
9 B. 15 C. 18 D. 20
Two circles with unequal radii are extremely tangent. The length of a common external tangent is 6. Find the product of the radii of the two circles.
10 B. 14 C. 20 D. 22
Two perpendicular chords both 5 cm from the center of a circle divide the circle into four parts. If the radius of the circle is 13 cm. find the area of the smallest part.
30 sq. m B. 31 sq. m C. 32 sq. m D. 33 sq. m
REGULAR POLYGONS
How many triangles are determined by 3 coplanar points. No three of which are collinear.
4 B. 6 C. 10 D. 12
How many diagonals does a 10 sided polygon convex polygon has?
45 B. 40 C. 33 D. 30
How many diagonals can be drawn from one vertex of a 7-sided polygon?
4 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9
If the measure of one angle of a regular polygon is 135ᴼ, then he number of sides of that polygon is ___.
4 B. 6 C. 8 D.9
The sum of the interior angles of polygon is 2700ᴼ. How many sides are there?
15 B. 16 C. 17 D. 18
Find the sum of the interior angles of the vertices of a five pointed star inscribed in a circle.
150ᴼ B. 160ᴼ C. 170ᴼ D. 180ᴼ
Determine the area of a regular hexagon which has a side of 10 cm long.
100√3sq. cm B. 125 √3 sq.cm C. 150√3sq. cm D. 180√3 sq. cm
Calculate the area of a regular hexagon inscribed in a circle of radius 6 cm.
166.27 cm2 B. 175.42 cm2 C. 180.95 cm2 D. 182.43 cm2
A circle whose radius is 10 cm is inscribed in a regular hexagon, find the area of the hexagon.
346.4 sq. cm B. 364.4 sq. cm C. 634.4 sq. cm D. 436.4 sq. cm
DAILY TEST
An engineer was told that a survey had been made of a certain rectangular field but the dimension has been lost. An assistant remembered that if the field had been
100 ft larger and 25 ft narrower, the area would have been increased 2, 550 sq. ft and if it had been 100 ft shorter and 50 ft wider, the area would have been
decreased 5, 000 sq. ft. what was the area of the field in sq. ft?
24, 000 B. 22,000 C. 20,000 D. 18, 000
A diagonal of a parallelogram is 56.36 ft. long and makes an angle of 27ᴼ13’ and 16ᴼ24’ respectively with the sides. Find the area of the parallelogram,
595 ft2 B. 565 ft2 C. 575 ft2 D. 565 ft2
Find the area of the rhombus whose diagonals are 10 m and 24 m respectively.
120 m2 B. 150 m2 C. 160 m2 D. 240 m2
One side of a parallelogram is 6 cm, one angle is 150ᴼ. If the area is 27 cm . Find the other side.
2
6 cm B. 6√3 C. 9 cm D. 9√3cm
A secant and a tangent to a circle intersect an angle of 36ᴼ. If the measure of the arc intercepted between the secant and tangent are in the ratio 2:1. Find the
measure of the third arc.
129ᴼ B. 130ᴼ C. 131ᴼ D. 132ᴼ
A circle is inscribed in a square of sides 10 m. to each corner of the square a small circle is tangent to the circle and the two perpendicular sides of the square. Find
the radius of the small circle.
0.66 m B. 0.92 m C. 0.78 m D. 0.82
A regular octagon has an apothem of 1 unit. The area of the incircle is
n B. 6.6 C. 2n D. 66.3
How many triangles are determined by 8 points, no three of which are collinear.
36 B. 51 C. 42 D. 72
Calculate the area of a regular octagon with sides 10 m.
475.5 m2 B. 482.8 m2 C. 493.3 m2 D, 498.1 m2
Calculate the area of a regular octagon inscribed in a circle of radius 10 m.
282.8 m2 B. 298.7 m2 C. 300.1 m2 D. 302.4 m2
BRINGHOME EXAM
“When the archer misses the mark, he turns and looks for the fault within himself. Failure to hit the bull’s eye is never the fault of the target. To improve your aim –
improve yourself.” – Gilbert Arland
A person had a rectangular shaped garden with sides of lengths 16 and 9 feet. The garden was changed into a square design with the same area as the original
rectangular-shaped garden. How many feet in length are ach of the sides of the new square-shaped garden?
7 B. 9 C. 12 D. 5.7
A man owns two square lots of unequal size, together containing 15, 025 sq. ft. if the lots were continuous, it would require 530 ft fence to embrace them in a single
enclosure of six sides. Find the length of the sides of the smaller lot.
25 ft B. 28 ft C. 30 D. 32
A rectangular lot has a perimeter of 40 m and an area of 96 m. What are its dimension?
A. not possible to solve due to limited information C. 8 m, 12 m
B. 10 m, 9.6 m D. none of these
A piece of paper 16 cm by 32 cm is cut into half. One of these pieces is cut in half again and the process is repeated until a piece of 1 cm by 2 cm is eventually
obtained. How many cuts are needed altogether?
4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10
What is the area of a rectangle whose length is twice its width and whose perimeter is equal to that of square whose area is 1?
1 B. 6 C. 2/3 D. 2/9
A rhombus has diagonals of 32 and 20 inches. Determine the areas.
200 sq. in B. 280 sq. in C. 320 sq. in D. 400 sq. in
For which of these shapes are the diagonals are the only axes of symmetry?
Square B. rectangle C. regular hexagon D. rhombus
Calculate the area of a rhombus with sides of 20 and one angle is 40ᴼ.
280.9 B. 275.6 C. 257.1 D.245.4
Find the common area of two intersecting strokes of radii 12 cm and 18 cm respectively. If their common chord id 14 cm long.
34.19 cm B. 35.29 cm C. 36.29 cm D. 37. 43 cm
A circle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle. If the circumference of the circle is 3, find the perimeter of the equilateral triangle.
9.248 B. 6.294 C. 2.945 D. 4.962
Two circles of radii 3 in. and 7 in. are 15 in. apart. How long is the common internal tangent segment?
11.18 in B. 12.09 in C. 9.80 in D. 7.45 in
A metal washer 1 cm in diameter is pierced by a 1/2-cm hole. What is the area of one face of the washer in square centimeters?
√1/4 B. √2 C. 3√1/4 D. 8√1/6
13.A Square has an area 36 cm2.What is the area in (cm3 )of its inscribed circle?
A.6𝜋 B.9𝜋 C.12𝜋 D.36𝜋
14.A windmill has sails whose tips describe a circle of diameter thirty-eight meters.If the center of the circle is forty meter above the ground,how close to the ground
do the tips pass?
A.1m B.2m C.18m D.21m
15.A belt is stretched tightly over two wheels having radi of 1 and 5 inches,respectively.If the center of the wheels are 8 inches apart,what is the total length of the
straight sections of the belt?
A.4√2 B.6 C.3 D.8√3
16.The area of a circle is 89.42 sq in.What is the diameter of the circle?
A.10.67 in B.11.24 in C.11.54 in D.11.76 in
17.A square circumscribe a circle whose area is 16𝜋.What is the area of a square?
A.16 B.32 C.48 D.64
18.If the radius of the circle is decreased by 20% ,the its area is decreased by?
A.40% B.20% C.400% D.36%
19.Find the area of a square inscribe in a circle with area of 25𝜋.
A.50 B.25 C.100 D.80
20.What is the area of a circle whose radius is the diagonal of a square whose area is 4?
A.2𝜋 B.4𝜋 C.8𝜋 D.16𝜋
21.Points A and B lie on a circle with center O such that the measure of angle OAB is 450.If the area of the circle is 64 pi,what is the perimeter of triangle AOB?
A.8 + 8√2 B.16 + 8√2 C..16 + 16√2 D.32+16√2
22.Find the radius of the circle in which is inscribed a regular nonagon whose perimeter is 417.6 cm.
A.68.37 cm B.67.83 cm C.63.87 cm D.68.73 cm
23. If each interior angle of a regular polygon has a measure of 1600,how many sides has the polygon?
A.16 B.17 C.19 D.18
24.Determine the sum of the interior angle of a hexagon.
A.540° B.720° C.810° D.630°
25.How many sides has a regular polygon if each interior angle is 1650?
A.6 B.18 C.12 D.24
26.How many diagonals are there in a polygon if it has 16 sides?
A.240 B.104 C.75 D.120
27.Find the length of the side of a regular pentagon inscribed in a circle of radius 10 cm.
A.11.8 cm B.11.5 cm C.12.1 cm D.12.4cm
28.Find the area of a regular pentagon whose length of one side andaphotem are 25 m and 17.2 m respectively.
A.1102 B.1042 C.1322 D.1075
29.The sum of the interior angles of a five-sided polygon is
A.390 B.480 C.540 D.660
30.An equilateral triangle and a regular hexagon have equal perimeters.What is the ratio of their areas?
A.1:4 B.2:3 C.1:1 D.3:2
31.A regular hexagon just fits inside a circle of diameter 4 cm.What is the perimeter of the hexagon?
A.4 cm B.12 cm C.4𝜋 cm D.8𝜋 cm
32. If a polygon ABCDEF is a regular hexagon with perimeter is 36p2 ,the length of side AB is?
A.6𝑝2 B.6p C.6 D.𝑝2
33.If a regular polygon has 27 diagonals then it is a
A.nonagon B.pentagon C.hexagon D.heptagon
34.What is the value of each interior angle of a regular pentagon?
A.𝜋/5 B. 𝜋/3 C.2 𝜋/5 D.3𝜋/5
35.A circle of a radius 10 cm has its radius decreased by 3 cm.By what percentage has its area decreased?
A.90% B.70% C.51% D.30%
36.What is the largest possible number of 600 angles in a polygonwith seven sides?
A.2 B.3 C.4 D.5
37.If a regular pentagon is circumscribing about a circle of radius 10-cm,determine the length of each side of the regular pentagon
A.14.53 cm B.15.75 cm C.17.44 cm D.19.15 cm
38.The number of diagonals in a polygon of 15 sides is?
A.90 B.105 C.45 D.50
39.Find the area of a regular decagon inscribed in a circle whose diameter is 15 cm
A.156 𝑐𝑚2 B.158 𝑐𝑚2 C.165 𝑐𝑚2 D.185 𝑐𝑚2
40.The area of a circle is 89.42 sq.in.What is the length of a side of a regular hexagon inscribed in this circle?
A.5.34 in B.5.62 in C.5.76 in D.5.95 in
41.Calculate the area of a regular octagon circumscribing a circle of radius 10 m.
A.328.6 𝑚2 B.331.4 𝑚2 C.342.0 𝑚2 D.358.7 𝑚2
42.How many sides does a polygon have if the measure of each interior angle is 8 times the measure of each exterior angle?
A.8 B.9 C.12 D.18
43.A carpenter is making an octagonal table from a square of side S for a customer who wants each sides,all equal,to be about 1 meter.About how large a square
should he start with?
A.S=1.6m B.2m C.2.4m D.2.8m
44.The area of the octagon in problem 43 is approximately
A.4.8𝑚2 B.5.0𝑚2 C.5.4𝑚2 D.6.0𝑚2
45.A quadrilateral ABCD is inscribed in a semicirclewith side AD coinciding with the diameter of the circle.If side AB,BC and CD are 1,2 and 3 inches respectively,find
the radius of the circle
A.1.45 in B.2.12in C.2.90in D.3.89in
SOLID GEOMETRY
CUBES AND RECTANGULAR PARALLELIPIPED
1.Each side of a cube is increased by 1% .By what percent is the volume of the cube increased?
A.1.21% B.2.8% C.3.03% D.3.5%
2.If the length of each edge of a cube is increased by 3 cm.Its volume is increases by 387 cm 3 .Find the length of each edge of the original cube.
A.5 cm B.6 cm C.7 cm D.8 cm
3.Calculate the length of the principal diagonal of a cube with sides 15 cm.
A.24.3 cm B.25.5 cm C.26.0 cm D.26.7 cm
4.Two rectangular boxes have equal volumes.Their dimensions are 8,3,h and 4,4,2h-1,respectively.The h=?
A.1/6 B.-1 C.4 D.2
5.A tin plate ,rectangular, whose area is 480 sq.cm is cut 3 cm along each corner,then the sides folded upward generating a v olume of 504 cm3.What is the
dimension of the rectangle tin plate?
A.48 cm x 10 cm B.40 cm x 12 cm C.24 cm x 20 cm D.60 cm x 8 cm
6.The edges of a rectangular box are 3,4 and 5 inches respectively.What equal increase i each dimension will increase the volume by 150 cubic inches?
A.2 inches B.3 inches C.4 inches D.5 inches
CONES AND CYLINDERS

7.The lateral area of a right circular cone of radius 4-cm is 100.53 sq.cm.Determine the slant height.
8.A circular piece of cardboard with a diameter of one meter will be made into a conical hat 40 cm high by cutting a sector off and joining the edges to form a
cone.Determine the diameter of the cone in cm.
A.30 B.60 C.50 D.75
9.What is the volume in cm3 of the frustum of a right circular cone given the altitude is 4 cm and the upper and lower base radius of 3 cm and 5 cm respectively?
A.205.25 B.198.5 C.167.85 D.178.90
10.A squeezable toothpaste tube is originally in the form of a cylinder 12 cm long,with diameter 4 cm.The short cylindrical nozzle has a diameter 5mm.What length of
toothpaste can the tube produce?
A.9.6 cm B.12 cm C.16 cm D.768 cm
11.Find the volume of a right circular cylinder whose lateral area is 25.918 sq.m and a base area of 7.068 sq.m.
A.19.44 cu.m. B.20.53 cu.m. C.15.69 cu.m. D.18.12 cu.m.
12.A water tank is a horizontal circular cylinder 10 feet long and 10 feet in diameter.If the water inside is 7.5 feet deep,determine the volume of the water contained.
A.663.26𝑓𝑡 3 B.600.26𝑓𝑡 3 C.568.67 𝑓𝑡 3 D.631.85𝑓𝑡 3
SPHERES
13.A solid metal sphere of radius 32 cm is melted and recast to make 64 identical small spheres.What will be the radius of each small sphere?
A.1/2 cm B.1 cm C.2 cm D.4 cm
14.The volume of water in a spherical tank having a diameter of 4m is 5.236 cu m.Determine the depth of the water in the tank.
A.1.0 m B.1.2 m C.1.4 m D.1.8 m
15.The area of a lune is 15 cm2.If the area of a sphere is 120 cm2.What is the angle of the lune?
A.90 ° B.30° C.60° D.45°
16.What is the angle of the base of the spherical wedge whose volume is 40pi/3 m3 if the radius of the sphere is 3 m.
A.48.32° B.56.25° C.62.42° D.133.3°
17.A sphere has a radius of 7 m.What is the length of the side of the largest cube which can be placed inside the given sphere?
A.9.9 m B.10.7 m C.11.2 m D.12.5 m
18.A cone is placed over a sphere so that the sphere is tangent to the side of the cone and also tangent to the base of the cone.If the radius of the cone is 5 and the
height is 12,find the radius of the sphere.
A.3.33 B.4.5 C.3.0 D.2.67
DAILY TEST
1.I want to assemble twenty -seven unit cubes into a strong 3x3x3 cube.Wherever two small cubes meet face to face I shall put glue on one of these two faces.How
many small faces do I have to put glue on?
A.27 B.36 C.54 D.108
2.The volume of a cube is v cubic yards,and its surface area is a square feet.If v equals a,what is the length in inches of each edge?
A.12 B.144 C.648 D.1944
3.The areas of the three faces of a rectangular block are x,y and z,respectively.What is the product of x,y and z if the volume of the block is 10 cu. units?
A.100 B.80 C.90 D.70
4.What is the height of a right circular cone having a slant height of 3.1623x and a base diameter of 2x?
A.2x B.3x C.3.317x D.3.162x
5.What is the volume of a right circular inscribed in a cube of edge 10 cm?
A.200𝜋 B.250𝜋 C.220𝜋 D.210𝜋
6.The pharaoh Chaot IX planned a grand pyramid 100 m high to be buried in.The builder run out of stone when it was only 75 m high and left with a flat top.He was
buried alive! If he had been paid prorata,what fraction of the agreed price would he have received?
A.27/64 B.9/16 C.3/4 D.63/64
7.The volume of a ball is 435 m3.What is its surface area?
A.277.64𝑚2 B.285.15𝑚2 C.288.50𝑚2 D.291.15𝑚2
8.If a steal ball is immersed in an 8 cm diameter cylinder,it displaces water to a depth of 2.25 cm.The radius of the ball is
9.A cubical container that measures 2 on a side is tightly packed with 8 marbles and is filled with water.All marbles are in contact with the walls of the container and
the adjacent marbles.All of the marbles are the same size.What is the volume of water in the container?
A.0.38 𝑖𝑛 3 B.2.5𝑖𝑛 3 C.3.8𝑖𝑛 3 D.4.2𝑖𝑛 3
A.90° B.30° C.60° D.45°
11.What is the angle of the base of the spherical wedge whose volume is 40pi/3 m3 if the radius of the sphere is 4 m?
A.48.32° B.56.25° C.62.42° D.45.26°
12.What is the volume of a frustum of a cone whose upper base is 15 cm in diameter and lower base 10 cm in diameter with an altitude of 25 cm?
A.3018.87 𝑐𝑚3 B.3180.87𝑐𝑚3 C.3108.87𝑐𝑚3 D.3081.87𝑐𝑚3
BRINGHOME EXAM
“Eighty percent of success is showing up”-Woody Allen
1.The volume of a ball is 435 m3,What is the diameter of the ball?

A.8.2 m B.8.8 m C.9.4 m D.9.7 m
2.A rectangular box with a base 2 inches by 6 inches is 10 inches tall and holds 12 ounces of breakfast cereal.The manufacturer wants to use a new box with a base
3 inches.How many inches tall should the new box be in order to hold exactly the same volume as the original box?
A.8 B.9 C.10 D.11
3.The volume of a rectangular parallelipiped is 162.The three dimensions are in the ratio of 1:2:3.Find the total area.
A.198 B.197 C.196 D.195
4.By cutting a square out of each corner of a sheet of card 30 cm by 21 cm and folding up the sides.
I can make an open box with a capacity of 1080 cm3.What is the area in cm2 of each of the squares I have to cut out?
A.4 B.9 C.16 D.25
5.The edges of a rectangular box are 3,4 and 5 inches respectively.What equal increase in each dimension will increase the volume by 444 cubic inches?
A.2 inches B.3 inches C.4 inches D.5 inches
6,If the edge of a cube is increased by 20% ,find the percentage increase in its surface area?
A.44% B.47% C.54% D.70%
7.If the edge of a cube is increased by 30% by how much is the surface area increased?
A.64% B.69% C.62% D.60%
8.The area of three adjacent surfaces of a rectangular block are 8,10 and 20 respectively.The volume of the rectangular block is.
A.200 𝑐𝑚3 B.40𝑐𝑚3 C.10𝑐𝑚3 D.20𝑐𝑚3
9.Calculate the principal diagonal of a cube with sides 10 cm.
A.14.2 cm B.17.3 cm C.18.9 cm D.20.3 cm
10.Calculate the lenght of the principal diagonal of a cube with sides 12 cm.
A.20.8 cm B.22.3cm C.24.1 cm D.24.8 cm
11.Calculate the length of the principal diagonal of a box with sides 4 m,5 m and 8 m respectively.
A.10.2 m B.11.5 m C.12.3 m D.12.8 m
12.Calculate the length of the principal diagonal of a box with sides 5m,7m and 10m respectively.
13.If a cylinder has a lateral area of 88pi and a volume of 176pi,what is the total area?
A.120𝜋 B.125𝜋 C.130𝜋D..135𝜋
14.The radii of the bases of the frustum of a right circular cone are 6 and 9 respectively and its altitude is 4.Find its lateral area.
A.75𝜋 B.85𝜋 C.95𝜋 D.65𝜋
15.A gasoline tank consists of a horizontal cylinder 30 cm in diameter and 1.5 m long.determine the number of liters in the tank when the gauge rod in the plane of
the vertical diameter shows a depth of 10 cm in the tank.
A.31.5 B.48.2 C.63.4 D.85.7
16.A sector has a radius of 6 cm and whose central angle is 600.If it is bent to form a cone,the radius of the cone is:
17.What is the volume of a frustum of a cone whose upper base is 15 cm in diameter and lower base 10 cm in diameter with an altitude of 20 cm?
A.2487.09𝑐𝑚3 B.2948.07𝑐𝑚3 C.2874.90𝑐𝑚3 D.2740.98𝑐𝑚3
18.A conical vessel has a height of 24 cm and a base diameter of 12 cm.It holds water to a depth of 18 cm above its vertex.Find the volume in cubic centimeter of its
contents.
A.188.40 B.298.40 C.381.70 D.412.60
19.A horizontal cylindrical tank with flat ends,is used to strore gasoline.The tank dimensions are D equals 2 m,L equals 5 m,when the level in the tank is 0.5 m,the
content of the tank is
A.2.50𝑚3 B.3.07𝑚3 C.5.00𝑚3 D.3.43𝑚3
20.A cone with a radius 9 and a height of 3 has its volume increased by adding the same positive amount to either the radius or the height.In each case,the increase
in volume is the same .Find the value of increase in the radius or the height.
A.6 B.7 C.8 D.9
21.A pyramid whose altitude is 4 feet weighs 600 lbs.At what distance from its vertex must it be cut by a plane parallel to its base so that the two solids of equal
weigh will be formed?
A.3.37 feet B.3.55 feet C.3.25 feet D.3.17 feet
22.Given a right circular cone with a base diameter of 70 units and an altitude of 45 units,what is its surface area in square units?
A.10117 B.10127 C.10107 D.10137
23.A right circular cone has an altitude of 18 cm and a radius of 5 cm.Compute the lateral of the cone.
A.293.42𝑐𝑚2 B.239.42𝑐𝑚2 C.329.42𝑐𝑚2 D.243.42𝑐𝑚2
24.A sector has a radius of 9 cm and whose central angle is 600.If it is bent to form a cone the radius of the cone is:
A.13 cm B.2 cm C.1.5 cm D.4 cm
25.What is the volume of a right circular cylinder inscribed in a cube of edge 8 cm?
A.132𝜋 B.128𝜋 C.120𝜋 D.110𝜋
26.In the story about the crow that wanted to drink water from a cylindrical can but could not reach the water,it is said that the crow dropped a pebble which was a
perfect sphere 3 cm in radius into the can.If the can was 6 cm radius,what was the rise in water level inside the can after that pebble was dropped?
A.2 cm B.1 cm C.3 cm D.2.5 cm
27.If the diameter of a sphere is increased by 40% ,by what % is the volume increased?
A.144.7% B.147.4% C.177.4% D.174.4%
28.How many times does the volume of a sphere increases if the radius is doubled?
A.4 times B.2 times C.6 times D.8 times
29.The diameter of two spheres are in the ratio of 2:3 and the sum of their volume is 1260 cu.m.Find the volume of the larger sphere in cu.m.
A.980 B.972 C.960 D.958
30.The volume of a hemisphere varies directly as the cube of its radius.The volume of the hemisphere with 2.54 cm radius is 20.74 cm3.What is the volume of a
sphere with 3.25 cm radius of the same kind of material?
A.86.92𝑐𝑚3 B.75.98𝑐𝑚3 C.57.98𝑐𝑚3 D.98.78𝑐𝑚3
31.Find the volume of water inside a spherical ball when the ball has a radius of 8 cm and it is filled with water to a depth of 3 cm.
A.63𝜋 B.40𝜋 C.45𝜋 D.50𝜋
32.Find the volume of a spherical segment,the radii of whose bases are 4 cm and 5 cm whose altitude is 9 cm.
A.841.20 B.762.84 C.643.20 D.961.33
A.90° B.30° C.60° D.45°
34.The surface of the sphere is 100 cm2.What is the new surface area if the radius of the sphere is doubled?
A.200 𝑐𝑚2 B.300𝑐𝑚2 C.400𝑐𝑚2 D.500𝑐𝑚2
35.The area of the lune is 300 and the radius of the sphere is 4 m,find the area of the lune.
A.18.76 𝑚2 B.16.67𝑚2 C.17.76𝑚2 D.15.76𝑚2
36.The volume of a sphere is 36 𝜋 cubic units,find its diameter.
A.3 B.6 C.9 D.12
37.The volume of a sphere is 36 𝜋 cubic units,find its surface area.
A.36 𝜋 B.24 𝜋 C.16 𝜋 D.8 𝜋
38.The volume of two spheres is in the ratio of 27:343 and the sum of their radii is 10.Find the radius of the smaller sphere.
A.6 B.3 C.5 D.4
39.Four grape fruits considered sphere 6 cm in diameter were placed in a square box whose inside base dimensions are 12 cm by 12 cm.In the space between the
first four grapefruit,a fifth of the same diameter was then placed on top of them.How deep must the box be so that the top will just touch the fifth grapefruit?
A.10.24 cm B.10.98cm C.11.20 cm D.11.89 cm
40.A reservoir is shaped like a square prism.If the area of its base is 225 cm 2,how many liters of water will it hold if its length is 1.5 meters?
A.337.5 B.33.75 C.3375 D.3.375
41.An octahedron is a solid with eight triangular faces,four of which meet at each other at each corner.How many edges does it have?
A.8 B.12 C.20 D.24
42.A pentagonal dodecahedron is a solid figure with 12 faces,each face having 5 sides.How many edges does this solid have?
A.60 B.80 C.45 D.48
WEEKLY EXAM 1
Algebra,Trigonometry,Plane and Solid Geometry
INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions.Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of
your choice on the answer sheet provided.STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.Use pencil no.2 only.
1.The solution of the equation 𝑙𝑜𝑔7 𝑙𝑜𝑔5 (√(x+5)+√x)=0 is

A.x=±4 B.4 C.-4 D.±2
2.38.5𝑋 = 6.5𝑋−2,solve for x.
A.2.70 B.2.10 C.-2.10 D.-2.02
3. What is the units digit of 19 90?
A.0 B.1 C.3 D.7
4.Find the value of x:4(2𝑥−1) = 128.
A.3 B.4 C.5 D.6
5.If the roots of the equation are -1,2 and 4,what is the equation?
A.𝑥 3 − 5𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 = 0 B.𝑥 3 − 5𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 + 6 = 0 C.𝑥 3 − 4𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 + 8 = 0 D.𝑥 3 − 4𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 = 0
1
6.For what value of x is the equation 𝑥 2 − (𝑏 + 𝑏) 𝑥 + 1 = 0 true?
A.2b,2/b B.-b,-1/b C.1,1/b D.b,1/b
7.The graphs of 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 4 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 2 = 4𝑦 intersect in how many points?
A.1 B.2 C.3 D.4
8.If f(x)=7x-4 ,g(x)=2x+8 ,and f(2a)=g(a),then a=?
A.-1 B.0 C.1 D.-2
9.If f(x)=2𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 + 3 and g(x)=4x-6,then g(f(x+1))=?
A.8𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 + 2 B.4𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 + 2 C.2𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 + 2 D.2𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 + 2
10.Solve for x:Ax -B=Cx +D
A.(D+B)/(A-C) B.(A-B)(C+D) C.(D+B)(A+C) D.(D-B)/(A-C)
11.If x+y=m and xy=n,then the value of (𝑥 − 𝑦)2 𝑖𝑠
A.𝑚2 − 4𝑛 B.𝑚2 − 2𝑛 C.𝑚2 + 2𝑛 D.𝑚2 + 𝑛 2
12.If 1/x=a+b and 1/y=a-b,then x-y is equal to
A.2b/(𝑏2 − 𝑎2) B.2a/𝑎2 − 𝑏2 ) C.1/2a D.1/2b
13.Solve for the values of x,y and z given that 3x -y+2z=-1 ;2x+2y+z=5 ;x+2y+z=4.
A.x=3;y=2;z=1 B.x=1;y=2;z=-1 C.x=-4;y=1;z=2 D.x=3;y=5;z=2
14.Harold is 8 cm taller than Jack.Jim is 12 cm shorter that Harold.Jack is 125 cm tall.How tall is Jim?
A.129 cm B.121 cm C.113 cm D.145 cm
15.At present ,the sum of the parents ages is twice the sum of the children’s ages.Five years ago,the sum of the parents ages will be equal to the sum of the
children’s ages.How many children are there?
A.3 B.4 C.5 D.6
16.A father tells his son,”I was your present age when you are born”.If the father is 38 now,how old was the son 7 years ago.
17.A lady mathematician was asked her age.She answered”Adding one to each figure makes it nineteen years bigger than half what it is.”How old was she 10 years
ago?
A.5 B.15 C.6 D.16
18.A man leaving the office on one afternoon noticed the clock at past 2 o’clock.Between 2 to 3 hrs,he returned to his office noticing the hands of the clock
interchanged.At what time did he leave the office?
A.2:26 B.2:12 C.2:43 D.2:57
19.At approximately what time between the hours of 12:00 noon and 1:00 pm would the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a continuosly drive
clock be exactly 180°?
A.12:25 pm B.12:30 pm C.12:38 pm D.12:37 pm
20.A balotvendorbsold his balot to his first customer.The customer bought one-half of the number of balot in the basket and the vendor gave him one balotfree.A
second customer bought one-half of the number of the remaining balot and receives one balot free.If after the third customer all the balot were sold and each balot
cost P8.50,how much is the total sales of the vendor?
A.93.50 B.94.50 C.95.00 D.93.75
21.If a+1 is an integer,which of the following must be an odd integer?
A.a+4 B.𝑎2 + 4 C.a+3 D.a-1
22.A car may be rented at the rate of P20 per day,with 100 miles per day free.The charge for excess mileage is 10centavos per mile over 100 per day.Pedro needs
to rent a car for five days and he plans to put 125 miles per day on the car.What will be the amount of Pedro’s rental bill?
A.P112.50 B.P162.50 C.P22.50 D.P110.00
23.Six more than the product of a number and 7 is at most 27.Find all such number.
A.All numbers are 3 or less C.All numbers are 3 or greater
B.All numbers less than 3 D.All numbers are greater than 3
24.What is the GCF of 27,81 and 108?
A.27 B.81 C.324 D.3
25.Find the 347 th digit in the decimal expansion 825/999.
A.6 B.8 C.5 D.2
26.Two numbers have the product 36 and sum 20.What is the sum of their squares?
A.72 B.97 C.153 D.328
27.The average of six numbers is 4.A seventh number is added and the new average is 5.What was the seventh number?
A.1 B.5 C.6 D.11
28.Some people believe that their fortunes are controlled by biorhythms.There are three of these biorhythms:the physical rhythm has a high point every 23 days,the
mental rhythm every 33 days, and the emotional rhythm every 28 days.Today michelle feels lucky:she is at a high point in all three rhythms at once.How long will it be
before that happens again?
A.28 days B.84 days C.about 58 years D.about 6 years
29.What is the sum of least integer greater than -5 and the greatest integer less than 5?
A.-2 B.-1 C.0 D.1
30.Jack is twice as old as Jill and six years younger than Cathy.If Jill is h years old,how old is Cathy in terms of h?
A.h-4 B.h+4 C.2h-4 D.2h+6
31.If Lanie can do m Math problems in three minutes,how many can she do in n hours?
A.1200/mn B.20m/n C.20n/m D.20 mn
32.A waiters income consist of his salary and tips.His salary is P 50 a week.During a week his tips were 5/4 of his salary.What fraction of his income of the week
comes from his tip?
A.9/5 B.5/4 C.5/9 D.4/9
33.When the price of an article is reduced by 5/8 of its former value,the number of article sold is increased to 32/27 of the original amount.The present daily revenue
is what fraction of the original?
A.9.6 liters B.6.8 liters C.7.8 liters D.8.7 liters
35.Cecille lives 3/7 as far from school as Mateth.Mateth lives 21 km from school.How far does Cecille live from school?
A.9 km B.24 km C.42 km D.49 km
36.Each year a printing machine depreciates a certain fraction of its value.During the first year it depreciates 1/4 of its v alue,the second year 1/5 of its value,the third
year 1/6 of its value and during the fourth year it depreciates 1/7 of its value.What fraction of its original value is the value of the printing machine at the end of the
fourth year?
A.1/840 B.3/7 C.4/7 D.1/6
37.A 140-cm stick is cut so that one part is 3/4 of the other.How long is the shorter segment?
A.105 cm B.85 cm C.80 cm D.60 cm
38.In a halloween party the judges eliminated 1/3 of the eligible contestants after every 20 minutes.If 135 contestants were present at the party,how many would still
be eligible for a prize after 1 hour?
A.5 B.15 C.40 D.60
39.A tank full of alcohol is emptied 1/4 of its content and then filled up with water and mixed.This is done 5 times.What fraction of the original volume of alcohol
remains?
A.1/1024 B.243/1024 C.81/256 D.1/256
40.To pass a test with 80 questions you have to get 60% correct.Margaret was three questions short of a pass.How many questions did she answer correctly?
A.45 B.48 C.51 D.77
41.A block of chocolate is divided between three children.Andrea gets two-fifths of the block. Basil gets one-fourth and Cathy has the remaining 28 g.How many
grams does Andrea get?
A.11 B.20 C.28 D.32
42.A fraction x/y is such that when I add 8 to x and 12 to y the value of the fraction is unchanged.What could the pair x,y be?
A.1,3 B.5,10 C.9,12 D.10,15
43.A rope fifty meters long is cut into two pieces.One piece is three-sevenths the length of the other.How long is the shorter piece in meters?
A.15 B.20 C.213/7 D.35
44.My house number has the curious property that 1/7 of it times 1/13 of it equals the number.What answer should I get when I add the digits of my house number
together?
A.10 B.11 C.12 D.14
45.Jodi has x dollars in her bank account.She withdraw 1/6 of it to pay her rent and 1/6 of it to make her car payment.Jodi then deposits her paycheck of y dollars into
her account.A week later,she withdraws 1/2 of the money in her account to spend on a new set of knives.How much money,in dollars is left in Jodi s account?
A.(4x-3y)/6 B.(2x+2y -3)/6 C.(3x -y)/6 D.(2x+3y)/6
46.On tuesday,Martha does 1/2 of her weekly homework.On wednesday,she does 1/3 of the remaining homework.After wednesday,What fractional part of her
homework remains to be done?
A.1/6 B.1/5 C.1/4 D.1/3
47.Five tables and eight chairs cost P115;three tables and five chairs cost P70.Determine the cost of one table.
A.10 B.15 C.5 D.20
48.A sari-sari store ordered an equal number of white eggs and salted eggs.The egg supplier delivered 18 extra white eggs making the ratio of white eggs to salted
eggs 3:2.How many salted eggs did the store originally order?
A.18 B.36 C.12 D.24
49.Valley high’s basketball team sponsors a refreshment table at its game each week to raise money for new uniforms.This week they sold ice cream bars,soft
drinks,and homemade cookies;355items were bought for a total of P253.20.The number of soft drinks sold was double the number of cookies purchased.How many
cookies were sold if ice cream bars cost P0.90 each soft drinks P0.70 each,and cookies P0.45 cents each?
A.187 B.121 C.90 D.78
50.A group of fisherman chartered a boat for P300.Two members of the group were unable to go on the trip and as a consequence,each of the other had to pay
P12.50 more.How many were there in the original group?
A.7 B.6 C.8 D.9
51.A golf' competition takes place over 18 holes.At each hole a player gets either a “bogey” or a “par” or a “birdie”.He scores one point for a “bogey”,two points for a
“par” and three points for a “birdie”.In his round of 18 holes Ian can scores twice as many birdies as bogeys,and scores par on all the other holes.If his final score was
39 points,at how many holes did he get a “par”?
A.3 B.6 C.9 D.12
52.A chemical Engineer mixed 40 ml of 8% v HCL with 60 ml of 12% v HCL solution.He used a portion of this solution and replaced it with distilled water.If the new
solution tested is 5.2% v HCL,how much of the original mixture did he use?
A.60 ml B.50 ml C.40 ml D.80 ml
53.What part of 90% alcohol must be removed and replaced by an equal amount of pure alcohol to make a 95% alcohol solution?
A.5% or less B.5% C.between 5% and 10% D.50%
54.Sarah needed 15 gallons of a solution that is 55% antifreeze.He has stored in his garage a mixture that is 80% antifreeze and one that is 30% antifreeze.How
much of the 80% antifreeze should he use to obtain the desired mixture?
A.25.5 gallons B.12 gallons C.9 gallons D.7.5 gallons
55.Hero goes to school everyday.He runs 10 km/hr going to school and walks home at a rate of 6 km/hr.If the total time in going to school and going home is 1
hour,how far is the schoolfrom Hero’s house?
A.2.50 km B.3.00 km C. 3.75 km D.4.00 km
56.Alphacentauri is the nearest star on earth,with a distance of 4.2 light years.How far is it from earth?
A.3.97 E 14m B.3.97 E15m C.3.97 E16m D.3.97 E17m
57.The boat travels downstream in 2/3 of the times as it does going upstream.If the velocity of the river current is 8 kph,determine the velocity of the boat in still
water.
A.40 kph B.30 kph C.50 kph D.60 kph
58.Two cross country runners starts at the same place and the same time and run in opposite directions.Mike runs 6 miles an hour and Pam runs 4 miles an
hour.How far apart will the runners be in 2 hrs?
A.4 miles B.10 miles C.5 miles D.20 miles
59.Karen driving to work at rush hour average 40 mph.On the way home from work with lighter traffic she averages 50 mph.If her total driving time is 1 hour and 48
minutes,how far does she live from work?
A.50 miles B.25 miles C.35 miles D.40 miles
60.When the cathedral clock strikes four,it takes 8 seconds between the first and the last strokes.How many seconds does it take to strike twelve?
A.18 1/3 B.22 C.24 D.29 1/3
61.I walk 4 km per hour and run 6 km per hour.I find I can save 3 minutes and 45 seconds by running instead of walking to school in the mornings.How far do I live
from school?
A.0.125 km B.0.375 km C.0.75 km D.6.9 km
62.A personnel officer drove from the lake Charles to conference in Baton Rouge.The total distance for the round trip was 240 miles.The time required to travel one
way to Baton Rouge was two hours.Due to heavy traffic during the return trip to lake Charles,an extra hour was required.How much slower was the personnel
officertraveling on the return trip?
A.10 mph slower B.15 mph slower C.20 mph slower D.25 mph slower
63.Twenty five potatoes are placed on the ground 4 ft apart in a straight row.In line with the potatoes and 10 ft from the first one is a basket .A runner starting from
the basket picks up the potatoes and carries them one at a time to the basket.If he runs at an average rate of 5 yards per sec,how many potatoes can be put into the
basket in one minute and 16 seconds?
A.13 B.14 C.15 D.16
64.Find the common ratio of geometric progression whose first term is one and for which the sum of the first 6 terms is 28 times the sum of the first 3 terms.
A.2 B.3 C.4 D.5
65.If there are initially 3500 bacteria in a culture,and the number of bacteria doubles each hour,how long will it take for the culture to grow to 50,000 bacteria?
A.2.31 hr B.23.25 hr C.1.15 hr D.3.84 hr
66.The salary of an employee’s job has five levels,each one 5% greater than the one below it.Due to circumstances,the salary of the employee must be reduced from
the top (fifth) level to the second level,which means a reduction of P122 per month.What is the employee’s present salary per month?
A.P440 B.P570 C.P680 D.P890
67.An equilateral triangle has sides of length 6 units;therefore its perimeter is 18 units.Another equilateral triangle is constructed by drawing line segments through
the midpoints of the sides of the first triangle.This triangle has sides of 3 units,and its perimeter is 9 units.If this procedure can be repeated an infinite number of
times, what is the total perimeter of all the triangles that are formed?
A.18 units B.24 units C.36 units D.infinite
68.If there are 50 terms in an arithmetic progression,and if the common difference is 1.5.Determine the second term if the last term is 3510.
A.2810 B.3410.5 C.2438.5 D.3438
69.Find the value of x if (7-x),(x+8) and (2x+3) are consecutive terms of an arithmetic progression.
A.-4 B.-6 C.4 D.6
70. Cesar saves P20 in the first week and each week thereafter saves P1 more than the preceding week. How much will he have saved after the 3𝑟𝑑 month?
A.63 B.306 C.275 D. 22
71. The third term in an A.P is 4 and the 9th term is -14. What is first term?
A.30 B.20 C.10 D.12
72. One of the most popular arithmetic books of all time (The scholar’s Guide to Arithmetic by Bonnycastle, 6th edition 1975) contains the exercises: If a cardinal can
spray a soul in purgatory, by himself, in an hours, a priest in five and a friar in seven, how long wil it take then to pray out three souls from purgatory, all praying
together? Which of these is nearest to the expected answer?
A. 1h41.5 min B. 1h 46 min C. 1h 47.5 min D. an eternity
73. Twenty men has a contract to finish the job in 15 days. Ten men were hired at the start and after 6 days 10 men were added. How many days were they delayed
in finishing the job?
A. 3 B. 5 C. 1 D. 4
74. Eleven men can finish the job in 15 days. Five men were working at the start and after 6 days four men were added. How many days it will take finish the job?
A. 15 B. 8 C. 2 D.24
75. Ben and Jen can finish a job together for 5 hours. If Ben can do the job working alone in hours, what percent of the job Jen do in 5 hours?
A. 37.5% B. 62.5% C. 60.2% D. 35.7%
76. The perimeter of triangle is 24 cm. Its sides have lengths (in cm) which are consecutive numbers. How long is its shortest side?
A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D.9
77. A copying machine reduces the side of a triangle by 20% . The area of a triangle is reduced by north. What is the distance between the two cars at 10AM of the
same day?
A. 36% B. 20% C. 18% D.40%
78. Two cars leave the same point at 9AM. One car headed west at 60 kph while the other at 80 kph going north. What is the distance between the two cars 10AM of
the same day?
79. Two cars started traveling from the same point at the same rate of 60 kph and going on different directions, one going north and the other due east. After three
hours the car traveling east reduced its rate to 40 kph due to bad roads. After hours, how far in kilometres are two cars from each other?
A. 468.61 B. 432.67 C. 509.12 D.339.41
80. An observer wishes to determine the height of a tower. He takes sight at the top of the tower from points A and B, which are 50ft. apart, at the same elevation,
and on direct line with the tower. The vertical angle at point A is 30® and at point B is 40®. The height of the tower is
A. 89.51 ft B. 92.54 ft C. 95.38 ft D.97.33 ft
81. In triangle BCD, BC = 25 m, and CD = 10m. The perimeter of the triangle maybe
A. 69 B. 71 C. 70 D.72
82. Find the value of y: sin-1y + sin-1y/2 = 120
A. 1/2 B. 1/4 C. 0 D.1
83. In the trigonometric function 2tanx cos x=√3, the measure of the angle x is _____.
A. 30® B. 45® C. 60® D.90®
84. Find the value of x if x = (1+tan2Ɵ)/tanƟcsc2Ɵ.
A. sinƟ B. cosƟ C. tanƟ D.cscƟ
85. From a point outside of an equilateral triangle, the distances of the vertices are 12, 20 and 12 respectively. Find the length of each side of the triangle.
A. 23.95 B. 22.85 C. 21.78 D.20.68
86. A spherical ball of radius 3cm was dropped into a conical vessel if depth 8cm and radius of base 6cm. What is the area of the portion of the sphere which lies
above the circle of contact with the cone?
A. 89.0 cm2 B. 90.5cm2 C. 91.2cm2 D.93.0cm2
87. Fine the volume of the solid common to two cylinders intersecting at 90® angle if the radius of both cylinders are 3cm.
A. 18 cm3 B. 100cm3 C. 144cm3 D.189 cm3
88. How many tickets each 8cm by 6cm, can I cut from a sheet of card 30cm by 21cm, If I use the card as efficiently as possible?
A. 9 B. 10 C. 11 D.12
89. Which of the following four-sided shapes can never have two different sized angles?
A. kite B. parallelogram C. rectangle D.rhombus
𝑎
90.If sin ∝= 2 2, which of the following statements is true?
√𝑎 +𝑏
𝑡𝑎𝑛−1𝑏 𝛱 𝑐𝑜𝑠−1𝑎 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1𝑏 𝑐𝑜𝑠−1 𝑏 𝛱
A. = −𝛼 B. =𝛼 C. = −𝛼 D. = −𝛼
𝑎 2 √𝑎 2+𝑏2 𝑎 √𝑎 2+𝑏2 2
91.Find the length of the longer leg of a 30° − 60° − 90° triangle if the length of the shorter leg is 2√3.
A.4√3 B.3 C.√3 D.6
92.A radio antenna is to be installed on top of a 17-storey building whose top deck is 100 m above ground elevation.To avoid interference the top of the antenna
should tower over the surrounding buildings in the area by 10 m.A surveyor was hired to measure the height of the tallest building in the area.Using a transit located
50 m from the tallest building and sighting the top of this building the angle of elevation is 71°34’.The transit stands 1.5 m above ground level. Calculate the length of
the antenna in meters.
A.60 B.61.5 C.50 D.150
93.The garden with the dimension of 40 m by 50 m is to be surrounded by a pathway which is 5 m wide and to be covered by a stone with the dimension of 2 m by 1
m. How many stones will be needed?
A.500 B. 400 C. 300 D.450
94.If an equilateral triangle is circumscribed about a circle of radius 10 cm,determine the side of a triangle.
A. 84.64 cm B. 64.12 cm C. 36.44 cm D.32.10 cm
95.Calculate the area of a regular decagon with sides of 10 m.
A. 793.62 𝑚2 B. 769.23𝑚2 C. 679.32𝑚2 D.976.32𝑚2
96.Calculate the area of a regular decagon inscribed in a circle of radius 10 m.
A.293.89𝑚2 B.298.39 𝑚2 C.329.98𝑚2 D239.98𝑚2
97.Calculate the area of a regular decagon circumscribing a circle of radius 10 m.
A.432.29 𝑚2 B.324.92𝑚2 C.342.29𝑚2 D.423.29𝑚2
98.An area of 63600 sq. m is to be segregated from a golf field where property lines extends indefinitely and intersects at an angle of 82° with each other. The
dividing line starts t point A on one of the property lines 545 meters from the corner. Find the length of this fence in yards and the angles it makes with each of the
property lines.
A.836.1 yards; angle = 28° C. 562.1 yards; angle = 31°
B.325.4 yards; angle = 30° D. 615.3 yards; angle = 24°
99. The sides of a triangle are 8, 15 and 17 units. If each side is doubled, bow many square units will the area of the new triangle be?
A. 240 B. 420 C. 320 D.200
100. Two ships leave a dock at the same time. One sails northeast at the rate of 8.5mph, the other sails north at the rate of 10mph. How many miles are they at the
end of 2 hours?
A.11.4 miles B. 12.4 miles C. 13.4 miles D.14.4 miles
ANALYTIC GEOMETRY 1
DISTANCE FORMULA & DISTANCE FROM A POINT TO A LINE
1.Calculate the distance between the points (1,-1) and(-8,3)

A. 5.98 B. 5.89 C. 8.95 D.9.85
2.Find y if the point (2,y) is equidistant from (7,-3) and (8,8)
A.3 B. 1 C.-1 D.2
3.Find the shortest distance from a point with coordinates (2,2) to the line 5x+12y=-5
A. 3 B.4 C.5 D.6
MIDPOINT & POINT OF DIVISION

5.If the line segment connecting (x,3) and (5,y) is bisected by the point (7,-5) find the values of x and y A.x=9;y=13 B. x=5;y=1C. x=-6;y=-1
D.x=9;y=-13
6.The line joining (-3,8) and (11,-13) id divided into 7 equal parts.Find the point of division closest to (-3,8).
A.(4,10) B.(2,0) C.(-1,5) D.(-2,3)
SLOPES OF LINES
7.The slope of the line joining (2,-3) and the midpoint of the line segment joining (0,4) and (-6,-2) is
A. 5 B. -4/5 C.3 D.-3
STANDARD EQUATIONS OF LINES
8.Express the equation of the straight line passing through point (-2,2) and (4,-3) in the form y=mx+b.
A.y = 0.83x –o.83 B. y = -0.83x + 0.33 C. y = 0.83x-1.33 D.y= -0.83x-1.33
9.Which of the following is the equation of a line in standard form passing through the point (-1,-2) and perpendicular to the line 3y -2x=5?
A. 2x+3y =-8 B. 3x+2y=7 C. 3x-2y=1 D.3x+2y= -7
10.Find the equation of the line whose slope is 4 and the x -intercept is 2.
A. x-4y=-8 B. x+4y=8 C. 4x+y=8 D.4x-y=8
11.Find the equation of the line which forms with the axes in the second quadrant a triangle of area 4 and whose intercepts differ by 5.
A. x-4y+4=0 B.x-4y-4=0 C.x+4y+4=0 D.x+4y-4=0
12.Which of the following lines is parallel to the line 3x -4y+6=0?
A. 3x+2y-12=0 B. 4x-9y=6 C.12x+16y=15 D.15x-20y-9=0
ANGLE BETWEEN LINES

13.Find the equation of the bisector of the obtuse angle between x-y=3 and 2x+y=3?
A.y=-0.16x-0.675 B. y=0.16x-0.675 C.y=0.16x+0.675 D.y=-0.16x+0.675
CIRCLE
14.Find the equation of the circle having the points (3,2) and (-3,-4) as ends of the diameter/
A.𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 + 2𝑦 + 11 = 0 B.𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 − 2𝑦 + 11 = 0 C.𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 + 2𝑦 − 17 = 0 D.𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 + 2𝑦 + 17 = 0
15.The center of the circle 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 − 4𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 6 = 0 is:
2
A.(1,3) B.(2,1) C.(-1,3) D.(-1,-3)

16.Find the point which is equidistant from (-2,-8),(1,1) and (-8,4).
A.(5,2) B.(-5,-2) C.(-5,2) D.(5,-2)
17.Find the equation of the line tangent to the circle with center at (-3,2) and radius 3 and passing through the point (2,2).
A. 3x+4y+14=0 B.3x+4y-14=0 C. 4x+3y+14=0 D.4x+3y-14=0
18.The number of common tangents to the circle 𝑥 2 ∓ +2𝑥 + 8𝑦 − 23 = 0&𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 − 4𝑥 − 10𝑦 + 19 = 0 are
A.one B.two C.three D.four
19.The area of the triangle formed by the tangents from the point (4,3) to the circle 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 9 and the line joining their point ofcontact is
A.129/25 B.192 C.25 D.250
20.Find the equation of the line tangent to the circle 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 14𝑥 + 18𝑦 − 39 = 0 at the point in the second quadrant where x=-2.
A. 5x+12y+26=0 B.5x-12y-26=0 C.5x+12y-26=0 D.5x-12y+26=0
DAILY TEST
1.The vertices of triangle PQR are (-5,0) (0,5) (5,0).Triangle PQR is
A. equilateral B.right C.obtuse D.acute
2.Find the other endpoint of a segment with one endpoint at (3,-7) and the midpoint at (2,0)
A.(1,7) B.(-4,3) C.(3,-4) D.(7,1)
3.Find the value of k such that the line kx+3y=5 is perpendicular to the line 3x -2y+6=0
A.3 B.-2 C.6 D.-6
4.Find the equation of the line through (2,5) and parallel to the line 3x -2y=5.
A.3x-2y=-4 B.2x-3y=4 C.3x-2y=4 D.2x3y=-11
5.Express the equation of the straight line passing through point (2,2) and (4,3) in the form y=mx+b.
A. y=0.5x-1 B.y=0.5x+1 C.y=x+1 D.y=x-1
6.Find the equation of the line which forms with the axes in the first quadrant a triangle of area 2 and whose intercepts differ by 3.
A. x+4y-4=0 B.x-4y+4=0 C.x+4y+4=0 D.x-4y-4=0
7.Find the angle between the lines y=-0.577x+2 and y=0.577x -5.
A. 60° B.45° C.30° D.15°
8.The center of the circle defined by the equation 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 𝑦 2 − 10𝑦 = −28 is
A.(-2,-5) B.(-2,5) C.(2,5) D.(2,-5)
9.Find the equation of the circle having the points (5,2) and (-1,-3) as ends of the diameter.
A.𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 + 4𝑥 + 𝑦 + 11 = 0 C.𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 − 4𝑥 + 𝑦 + 11 = 0
B.𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 − 4𝑥 + 𝑦 − 11 = 0 D.𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 + 4𝑥 + 𝑦 + 11 = 0
10.The length of the tangent from (5,1) to the circle 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 6𝑥 − 4𝑦 − 3 = 0 is
A. 21 B.14 C.7 D.2
BRINGHOME EXAM
“If a equal success,then the formula is:A=X+ Y+ Z,X is work.Y is play.Z is keep your mouth shut.”-Albert Einstein
1.The points (a,1),(b,2) and (c,3) are collinear.Which of the following is true?
A. c-b=c-a B.c-b=b-a C.c-a=a-b D.c-a=b-a
2.The plane rectangular coordinate system is divided into four parts which are known as
A. quadruple B.octants C.quadrants D.axis
3.The rectangular coordinates system in space is divided into eight compartments known as
A. quadrants B.octants C.octet D.ogive
4.Find x if the point (x,0) is equidistant from (5,3) and (-2,4).
A. 0 B.1 C.-1 D.2
5.Calculate the distance between the points (2,3) and (7,15).
A. 12 B.13 C.15 D.16
6.Find the other endpoint of a segment with one endpoint at (3,-8) and the midpoint at (2,0)
A.(1,8) B.(-4,3) C.(3,-4) D.(7,1)
7.Find the midpoint of a line segment with endpoints (4,5) & (6,-7)
A.(5,2) B.(5,-1) C.(5,-2) D.(5,1)
8.If the line segment connecting (x,3) and (5,y) is bisected by the point (6,-4) ,find the values of x and y
A. x=9;y=13 B.x=6;y=1 C.x=-6;y=-1 D.x=7;y=-11
9.The point (3,2) is the midpoint of the segment defined by the points (h,1) and (5,k).What are the values of h and k?
A. 1 and 3 B.3 and 1 C.-2 and 1 D.2 and -1
10.The line joining (3,2) and (13,7) is divided into 5 equal parts.Find the point of division closest to (13,7).
A.(4,3) B.(8,3) C.(10,5) D.(11,6)
11.Find the shortest distance from a point with coordinates (5,5) to the line 3x+4y=10.
A.3 B.4 C.5 D.6
12.The slope of the line joining (2,-3) and the midpoint of the line segment joining (0,4) and (5,-2) is
A. 8 B.-8 C.3 D.-3
13.The line through (-2,-1) with a slope of 3/8 also passes through the point (6,y).Find y
A.1 B.2 C.-1 D.-2
14.Find the value of k such that the line kx+3y=5 is perpendicular to the line x -2y+6=0.
A. 3 B.2 C.6 D.-6
15.Whichof the following lines is parallel to the line 3x -2y+6=0?
A. 3x+2y-12=0 B.4x-9y=6 C.12x+18y=15 D.15x-10y-9=0
16.The line 2x-3y+2=0 is perpendicular to another line L1 of unknown equation.Find the slope of L1.
A. 3/2 B.-3/2 C.2/3 D.-2/3
17.Find the equation of the line with a slope of 3 and passing through the midpoint of the line connecting (3,-1) and (5,7).
A. y=3x+2 B.3x-y=10 C.3x-y=9 D.y=3x-8
18.Find the equation of the line through (0,5) and parallel to the line 3x-2y=5
A. 3x-2y=-4 B.2x-3y=4 C.3x-2y=-10 D.2x-3y=-11
19.Find the equation of the vertical line through (4,2).
A. x=2 B.x=4 C.y=2 D.y=4
20.Find the equation of the line through (5,-3) and perpendicular to the x -axis
A. x=5 B.x=-3 C.y=5 D.y=-3
21.Find the equation of the line through (4,5) and perpendicular to the line 4x -5=0
A. y=5 B.y=4/5 C.x=5/4 D.x=5
22.The equation of the line through (4,5) and perpendicular to 3y+2x=5 and passing through (-2,5) is
A. 2x=3y B.2y=3x C.2y=3x+16 D.3x=2y+8
23.Which of the following has a graph that is perpendicular to the x -axis and contains the points (-2,5)?
A. x=2 B.x=-2 C.y=-2 D.x+y=2
24.Find the equation of the line tangent at point (6,2) to the circle with center at (-3,2) and radius 5.
A. 3x+4y+26=0 B.3x+4y-26=0 C.4x+3y+12=0 D.4x+3y-26=0
25.What is the equation of the line through the point (3,-2) and perpendicular to the line 2x+3y+4=0?
A. 2y-3x+13=0 B.3y-2x+13=0 C.2y+3x+12=0 D.2x+3y+13=0
26.The equation of the lines tangent to the circle 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 9 whose slopes equal to 0 are
A. x=9;x=-9 B.x=3;x=-3 C.y=9;y=-9 D.y=3;y=-3
27.Find the equation of the line whose slope is -3 and the x-intercept is 5.
A. y=-3x+5 B.3x-y=5 C.y=3x+15 D.3x+y=15
28.Find the equation of the line with slope =2 and y-intercept=-3.
A. y=-3x+2 B. y=2x -3 C. y=2x/3+1 D. y=2x+3
29.What is the slope of the line 3x + 2y + 1=0?
A.3/2 B.2/3 C.-3/2 D. -2/3
30.Find the slope of the line defined by y -x=5.
A.5+x B.-0.5 C.0.25 D. 1
31.Find the equation of a line that passes through the points (0,0) and (2,-2).
A. y=x B. y=-2x+2 C. y=-2x D. y=-x
32.If a linear function has a graph with a positive slope and its y -intercept is also positive ,then its x -intercept is
A. negative B. zero C. positive D. greater than the y-intercept
33.Find the angle between the lines y=3x+2 and y=4x -9?
A. 4.4° B.28.3° C.5.2° D. 18.6°
34. Find the angle between the lines 3x+2y=6 and x+y=6.
A. 10.32° B.11.31° C.12.23° D.13.31°
35. At what point do the graphs of 2x+y=6 and 3x -4y=9 intersect?
A.(0,6) B.(1,4) C.(6,9) D. (3,0)
36. Point (5,8) is the center of a circle that is tangent to the y -axis. The point of tangency is
A. (0,3) B.(3,0) C.(0,8) D. (4,0)
37. A circle is quadrant III is tangent to both axes. It touches the y -axis (0,-5). Find the coordinates of the center of the circle.
A. (-5,-5) B.(5,-5) C.(5,0) D.(5,5)
38. Point (3,4) is the center of a circle that is tangent to x -axis. The point of tangency is
A. (0,3) B.(3,0) C.(0,8) D.(4,0)
39. The center of the circle x 2+y 2-6x-2y+6=0 is:
A. (1,3) B.(3,1) C.(-1,3) D.(-1,-3)
40. The equation x 2+y 2+2x-1=0 represents
A. a point B. a circle C. a parabola D. an ellipse
41. What is the diameter of a circle with the following equation: x2+y2-6x+4y-12=0 ?
A.5 B.6 C.8 D.10
42. The locus of point which moves so that it is always equidistant from fixed point.
A. circle B. parabola C. ellipse D. hyperbola
43. The curve represented by the equation r = 6is
A. a parabola B. a line C. an ellipse D. a circle
44. The equation of a circle with the center at (0,0) and a diameter of 10 cm is
A. x 2 +y 2=25 B. x+y=5 C.x 2+y2 = 10 D. x+y=10
45. The center of a circle is at (1,1) and one point on its circumference is (-1,-3). Find the other end of a diameter through (-1,-3)
A.(2,4) B.(3,5) C.(3,6) D.(1,3)
46. A circle whose center is at (6,8)passes through the origin. Which of the following points is not on the circle ?
A. (12,0) B.(6,-2) C.(16,8) D. (-2,8)
47. What are the coordinates of the center of the curve x 2+y 2-2x-4y-31=0?
A. (-1,-1) B.(-2,-2) C.(1,2) D. (2,1)
48. Find the coordinates of a point equidistant from (1,-6), (3,-6) and (6,-1).
A. (2,-2) B. (3,-2) C. (3,-3) D. (2,-3)
49. If all points, 5 units from (1,2) are joined, the result will be _______.
A. a rectangle with an area of 25 sq. units C. a circle of diameter 5
B. a circle of radius 5 D. a square with an area of 100 sq. units
50. The polar equation r= a(1-cos 0) represents that of a
A. circle C. lemniscate
B.cardiod D. spiral of Archimedes
51. Which of the following polar equations represents that of a circle?
A. r = a B. r = 2a cos 0 C. r = 2a sin 0 D. all of these
52. The perpendicular bisector of AB, where AB is formed by joining (4,5) and (-6,5) is a line of
A. parallel to the y-axis passing through (0,0)
B. parallel to the y-axis passing through (1,5)
C. perpendicular to the x -axis passing through (-1,5)
D. parallel to the x-axis passing through (-1,5)
53. The center of the circle x 2+y 2-2x-6y+6=0 is:
A. (1,3) B. (2,1) C. (-1,3) D. (-1, -3)
54. The radius of the circle x 2+y 2-2x-6y+6=0 is:
A. 2 B. 3 C. 1 D. 4
55. If eccentricity e of a conic is equal to one, the conic has
A. 2 vertices B. greater than 2 vertices C. one vertex D. no vertex
56. What conic equation is defined by the following equation? x 2+4xy+4xy2+x+y+8=0
A. parabola B. ellipse C. hyperbola D. circle
57. What conic equation is defined by the following equation? x 2+4xy+4xy2+x+y+1=0
58. The locus of a point that moves so that its distance from a fixed point and a fixed line is always equal is known as
A. a parabola B. a circle C. a hyperbola D. an ellipse
59. What conic equation is defined by the following equation? 2x 2+xy+2y 3-15=0
---------------------------------------------- NOTHING FOLLOWS ----------------------------------------------

PARABOLA
1. The vertex of the parabola x 2+2x-y+2=0 is
A. (2,-1) B. (-2,-1) C. (-1,1) D. (-1,2)2
2. Find the location of the focus of the parabola y 2 +4y-4x-12=0
A. (2.5,-2) B. (3,1) C. (-3,-2) D. (-2.5,-2)
3. A parabolic mirror has a depth is 12 cm and a span is 32 cm. What is the distance from the vertex to the focus?
A. 16/3 B. 8/3 C. 3/8 D. 3/16
4. Assume that power cables hang in a parabolic arc between two poles 100 ft. apart. If the poles are 40 ft. high and if the lowest point on the suspended cable is 35
ft. above the ground, find the height of the cable at a point 20 ft. from the pole.
A. 34.8 ft. B. 35.8 ft. C. 36.8 ft. D. 37.8 ft.
ELLIPSE
5. The coordinates of the center of an ellipse defined by the equation 16x 2+25y 2+160x-200y+400=0 is
A. (-5,4) B. (5.-4) C. (5,4) D. (-5,-4)
6. Find the major axis of the ellipse x 2+4y 2-2x-8y+1=0.
A. 2 B. 10 C. 4 D. 6
7. What is the length of the latus rectum of 4x 2 +9y 2+8x-32=0?
A. 2.5 B. 2.7 C. 2.3 D. 2.9
8. Find the eccentricity of an ellipse whose equation is 9x 2 -36x+25y 2 =189.
A. 0.72 B. 0.68 C. 0.80 D. 0.89
9. What is the area enclosed by the curve 9x 2 +25y 2-225=0?
A. 47.1 B. 50.2 C. 63.8 D. 72.3
10. A semi-elliptic arch is 20 ft. high at the center and has a span of 50 ft. Find the height of the arch at a point 10 ft. from one end of the base.
A. 14 ft. B. 15 ft. C. 16 ft. D. 17 ft.
11. The orbit of the earth’s is an ellipse with the sun as the focus, the semi-major axis is 93 million miles, the eccentricity is 1/60. Find the farthest distance of earth
from the sun in million miles.
A. 94.55 B. 91.45 C. 89.45 D. 92.45
HYPERBOLA
12. Find the equation of the asymptote of 25x 2 -36y 2=900.
A. y = ± 6x/5 B. x = ± 6y/5 C. y = ± 6x 2/5 D. x = ± 6y 2/5
13. The equation 25X – 16Y – 150X – 128Y + 81 = 0 has its center at __________.
2 2
A. (3, -4) B. (-3, 4) C. (-4, 3) D. (4, -3)

14. Find the equation of the hyperbola centered at the origin that has a focus at (3,0) and has the line x=1 as the directrix.
A. 3x 2 – 6y 2 = 18 B. 6x 2-3y 2 =18 C. 6x 2-3y 2=6 D. 3x 2-6y 2 =6
15. Compute the equation of a hyperbola whose distance between foci is 12 and having a latus rectum of 18.
A. 3x 2-y 2=27 B. 4x 2-3y 2=9 C. 2x 2-3y 2 =12 D. x 2-3y 2 =36
16. From the given equation of the curve 5x 2-4y 2=20x+24y+36, compute the eccentricity.
A. 0.5 B. 1.5 C. 1.2 D. 0.6
POLAR EQUATIONS
17. Transform the equation of the circle x 2+y 2=25 into an equation in polar coordinates.
A. r = 5 B. r sine = 5 C. r = 25 D. r = cose = 5
DAILY TEST
1. The vertex of the parabola x 2+2x-y+3=0
A. (2,-1) B. (-2,-1) C. (-1,2) D. (1,2)
2. What is the height of the parabolic arch which has a span of 48 feet and having a height of 20 feet at a distance 16 feet from the center of the span?
A. 30 ft. B. 40 ft. C. 36 ft. D. 34 ft.
3. The equation of the parabola with the vertex at the origin which opens to the right and passes through the point (4,4) is
A. x 2=-4y B. x 2=4y C. y 2=-4x D. y 2=4x
4. What is the coordinate of the center of the ellipse 4x 2+9y 2+8x-32=0?
A. (0,-1) B. (-1,0) C. (1,0) D. (0,1)
5. The major and minor axis of an ellipse measure 10 and 8 units respectively, the distance between the foci is
A. 3 B. 6 C. 5 D. 7
6. An ellipse with major axis of 8 units and 6 units respectively has a length of latus rectum of __.
A. 3.5 units B. 4.5 units C. 4 units D. 5 units
7. Find the eccentricity of the hyperbola 9x 2 -16y 2=144.
A. 1.10 B. 1.15 C. 1.20 D. 1.25
8.A semi-ellipse and a parabola rests on the same base 60 meters wide and 20 metershigh.Using the common base as x -axis,compute the difference of ordinates at
point 25 meters from the center of the base.
A.3.55 B.4.95 C.5.77 D.6.45

9.The equivalent of 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 − 2𝑦 = 0 in the form is
A. r=2cose B.r=2sine C.𝑟 2 = 2𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑒 D.𝑟 2 = 2𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒
10.A curve has a general equation of the form 𝐴𝑥 2 + 𝐵𝑦 2 + 𝐹 = 0.If it passes through (4,0) and (0,3),find its specific equation.
A. 9𝑥 2 − 16𝑦2 + 144 = 0 B.16𝑦 2 − 9𝑥 2 + 144 = 0 C.9𝑥 2 + 16𝑦 2 − 144 = 0 D.16𝑥 2 − 9𝑦 2 + 144 = 0
BRINGHOME EXAM
“You can do anything you want if you stick to it long enough.”-Helen Keller
1.Determine the length of the latus-rectum of the curve𝑥 2 + 2𝑦 2 = 16.
A. 5 B.4 C.8 D.6
2.Locate the center of the curve2𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 − 4𝑥 − 2𝑦 = 1.
A. (1,1) B.(0,1) C.(2,1) D.(1,2)
3.Determine the distance of the directrix from the center of the curve 3𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 − 24𝑦 + 36 = 0.
A. 6√3 B.8√2 C.4√3 D.9√2
4.The curve represented by the polat equation r=6 is:
A.a circle B.a parabola C.an ellipse D.a line
5.The vertex of the parabola y=(𝑥 − 1)2 + 2 is
A. (-1,2) B.(1,-2) C.(-1,-2) D.(1,2)
6.If the graph y=𝑎𝑥 2 passes through (1,3) then a=?
A. 1 B.2 C.3 D.4
7.The parabola defined by the equation 3𝑦 2 + 4𝑥 = 0 opens
A. upward B.downward C.to the left D.to the right
8.3𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 − 5𝑦 + 7 = 0.Determine the curve
A. parabola B.ellipse C.circle D.hyperbola
9.Find the location of the focus of the parabola𝑦 2 + 4𝑦 − 4𝑥 − 8 = 0.
A. (2.5,-2) B.(3,1) C.(-2,-2) D.(-2.5,-2)
10.4𝑥 2 − 16𝑥 + 𝑦 2 + 8𝑦 = −28is an equation of
A. an ellipse B.a parabola C.a circle D.a hyperbola
11.Find the eccentricity of an ellipse 3𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 = 12
A. 0.50 B.0.40 C.0.60 D.0.70
12.A set of points in a plane,the sum of whose distances from two fixed points is a constant.
A. circle B.hyperbola C.parabola D.ellipse
13.4𝑥 2 − 16𝑥 + 𝑦 2 + 8𝑦 = −28is an equation of
A. an ellipse B.a parabola C.a circle D.a hyperbola
14.A set of points in a plane,the sum of whose distances from two fixed points is a constant.
A. circle B.hyperbola C.parabola D.ellipse
15.What conic equation is described by the following equation 4𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 + 8𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 15
A. parabola B.ellipse C.hyperbola D.circle
16. What conic equation is defined by the following equation𝑥 2 + 4𝑥𝑦 + 4𝑦 2 + 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 8 = 0
A. parabola B.ellipse C.hyperbola D.circle
17.If a right circular cone is cut parallel with the axis of symmetry,you would reveal
A. circle B.hyperbola C. ellipse D.parabola
18.4𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 = 16is the equation of a/an
A.parabola B.hyperbola C. circle D.ellipse
19.What conic equation is described by the following equation4𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 + 7𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 15?
A. parabola B.ellipse C. hyperbola D.circle
20.A satellite orbits around the earth in an elliptical path of eccentricity 0.6 and semi-minor axis of length 12,000 miles.If the center of the earth is one of the foci ,find
the maximum altitude of the satellite.
A. 9000 miles B.15000 miles C. 24000 miles D.33000 miles
21.An earth satellite has an apogee of 2450 miles and a perigee of 410 miles.Assuming that the earth’s radius is 400 miles ,what is the value of the eccentricity of
ellipse which is form with the center of the earth as one focus and whose apogee and perigee satisfy the conditions above.
A. 0.557 B.0.433 C. 0.721 D.0.945
22. A right circular cone, cut parallel with the axis of symmetry , reveals a
A.circle B.hyperbola C.ellipse D.parabola
23.What geometric figure is described by the equation𝑥 2 − 10𝑥𝑦 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 1 = 0
A. parabola B.hyperbola C.ellipse D.circle
24.An arch in the form of a semi-ellipse has a span of 60 m and its greatest height is 15 m. There are two vertical supports equidistant from each other and the ends
of the arc.Find the height of the supports.
A. 8√2 B.9√2 C. 10√2 D.11√2
25.Determine the locus of a point P(s,y) so that the product of the slope of the lines joining P(x,y) to (3,-2) and (-2,1) is -6.
A.6𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 − 6𝑥 + 𝑦 − 2 = 0 C.𝑥 2 + 6𝑦 2 − 6𝑥 − 𝑦 − 2 = 0
2 2
B.6𝑥 + 𝑦 + 6𝑥 − 𝑦 − 2 = 0 D.𝑥 2 + 6𝑦 2 + 6𝑥 + 2 = 0
26.Write the equation of the conic passing through the five points (0,0) ,(0,1) ,(1,20) ,(1,-2) , and (5,0).
A.𝑥 2 + 𝑥𝑦 + 𝑦 2 − 5𝑥 − 𝑦 = 0 B. 𝑥 2 − 𝑥𝑦 − 𝑦 2 − 5𝑥 + 𝑦 = 0 C. 𝑥 2 − 𝑥𝑦 − 𝑦 2 − 5𝑥 − 𝑦 = 0 D. 𝑥 2 − 𝑥𝑦 +
𝑦 2 + 5𝑥 − 𝑦 = 0
𝑥2 𝑦2
27.Determine the eccentricity of the ellipse 169 + 25 = 1
A. 0.102 B.0.923 C. 0.823 D.0.723
28.The orbit of the asteroid Eros has an eccentricity of 0.22.Its mean distance from the sun is 1.46 million miles.Determine the nearest distance of Eros in million
miles.
A. 0.52 B.0.42 C. 0.32 D.0.22
DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS
LIMITS
1.Find the limit of (𝑥 2 − 1)/(𝑥 − 1) as x approaches 1.
A.2 B. 0 C.1 D.-1
2.Evaluate𝑙𝑖𝑚𝑥→0(𝑥 + 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥)/ sin 𝑥
A.0 B. 1/2 C.1 D.2
3.Evaluate the limit of (3𝑥 − 2)/(9𝑥 − 7) as x approaches infinity.
A. 1 B.-2/7 C. infinity D.1/3
DERIVATIVES
4.Given the function 𝑓 (𝑥) = 𝑥 3 − 5𝑥 + 2 find the value of the first derivative at x=2
A.2 B. 3𝑥 2 − 5 C.7 D.8
5.If 𝑓 (𝑥) = 𝑥 − 8𝑥 4 + 7𝑥 2 − 5 find f”(1).
5
A.-13 B. -34 C.-62 D.none of the above

6.Find the derivative of (x+5)/(𝑥 2 − 1).
A.(-𝑥 2 − 10𝑥 − 1)/(𝑥 2 − 1)2 C.(-𝑥 2 + 10𝑥 − 1)/(𝑥 2 − 1)2
2 2 2
B.(𝑥 − 10𝑥 − 1)/(𝑥 − 1) D.(-𝑥 2 − 10𝑥 + 1)/(𝑥 2 − 1)2
7.If y=𝑥 𝑥 , 𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑑 𝑦′
A.xlnx B. 𝑥 𝑥 (1 + 𝑙𝑛𝑥) C. 1+xlnx D.xlnx -1
8.Find the partial derivative of 4𝑥 3 − 3𝑥𝑦 with respect to x.
A.6x+y B.8x -6y C.12x+4y D.8x -3y
9.If 𝑥 3 + 3𝑥 2𝑦 + 𝑦 2 = 4 defines y implicity,dy/dx=
A.−(𝑥 2 + 2𝑥𝑦)/(𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2) C.3𝑥 2 + 3𝑦 2
B.−(𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2)/(𝑥 2 + 2𝑥𝑦) D..−(𝑥 2 + 2𝑥𝑦)/(𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2)
SLOPE & POINT OF INFLECTION

10.Find the slope of the line tangent to the curve y = 𝑥 3 − 2𝑥 + 1 at x=1
A.1 B.1/2 C.1/3 D.1/4
11.The equation of curve is 𝑥 3 − 3𝑥 2 − 3𝑦 + 6 = 0.Find the inclination to the x -axis at the point where x=0.
A.45° B.0° C.1 D.2
12.The equation of curve is 𝑥 3 − 3𝑥 2 − 3𝑦 + 6 = 0.Find the point or points (x values) where the inclination of the tangent to the x -axis is 45°
A.2.414 and -0.414 C.-2.414 and 0.414
B.-2.414 and -0.414 D.-2.414 and -0.414
13.Given the curve,𝑦 2 = 5𝑥 − 1,at point (1,-2) find the equation of the tangent line.
A.5x+4y=-3 B.4x -5y=3 C.3x -y=5 D.x+y=8
14.Find the equation of the line tangent to the curve y=𝑥 3 − 6𝑥 2 at this point of inflection?
A.3x+y+2=0 B.3x -y+2=0 C.3x+y -2+0 D.3x -y-2=0
VELOCITY & ACCELERATION

15.A body moves so that during the first part of its motion its distance S in inches from the starting point is given by the expression S=6.8𝑡 3 −
10.8𝑡 (𝑡 𝑖𝑠 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑠).The acceleration in 3 seconds would be
A.172.8 in/𝑠 2 B.122.4in/𝑠 2 C.61.2in/𝑠 2 D.212.4in/𝑠 2
16.The position of a particle moving along the x -axis is given by 𝑥 (𝑡) = 𝑡 2 − 𝑡 + 8,where x is in units of feet,and t is in seconds.Find the velocity of the particle
when t=5 seconds.
A.9 ft/sec B.10 ft/sec C.11 ft/sec D.12 ft/sec
17.The distance, s , of a moving body from its original position is defined by the equation:s=4𝑡 2 + 3𝑡 + 2,where s is in meters and t in seconds.When the velocity of
the body is 35 m/s its position is
A.78 m B.80 m C.75 m D.70 m
MAXIMA-MINIMA PROBLEMS
18.Find two positive numbers whose product is 49 ,and whose sum is minimum.
A.8 & 8 B.16 & 4 C.2 & 32 D.7 & 7
19. Find the maximum value of 4 sin A + 3 cos A
A.7 B.5 C.4 D.3
20.An open top rectangular parallelepiped with square base is to have a volume of 10𝑚3 .The material for its bottom cost P150 per square meter and that for the
sides is P60 per square meter.The most economical height is
A.1m B.2m C.2.5 m D.3m
21.The total cost of producing x units of a certain appliance is P pesos,where P=22,100+300X+0.08𝑥 2. How many units will give the lowest cost per appliance?
A.534 B.522 C.512 D.526
22.A square sheet of galvanized iron, 120 cm x 120 cm will be used in making an open top container by cutting a small square from each corner and bending up the
sides.Determine how large the square should be cut from each corner in order to obtain the largest possible volume.
A.10 X 10 cm B.15 cm x15 cm C.20 X 20 cm D.25 x 25 cm
23.A long strip of tin 700 mm wide is to be made into a gutter by turning up equal widths vertically along.
Find the ∫ 𝑥(1 + 𝑥)1/2𝑑𝑥 limit from 0 to 3.

A. 116/15 B. 124/15 C. 133/115 D. 140/15
Evaluate the integral of sinѲѲcosѲѲdѲ with limits from 0 to π/2.
A. 1575π/1290240 B. 1472π/1390640 C. 1384π/1409042 D. 1282π/1350942
Evaluate the integral of (square root of 4-x 2)dx with limits from 0 to 2.
A. 4π B. 2π C. π D. 3π
Evaluate the integral of xexdx with limits from 0 to 1.
A. 1 B. 0 C. -1 D. 2
Evaluate ∫ 𝑥 (𝑥 2 + 1)2𝑑𝑥.
A. (x 2+1)3/6 +c B. (x 2 +1)2/6 +c C. (x 2+1)3+c D. (x 3+1)3/4 +c
Evaluate ∫(2 + 𝑒 𝑥 )/𝑒 𝑥𝑑𝑥.
A. x+2e-x+c B. x-2e-x C. x-2e-x+c D. 2x-e-x+c
Evaluate the integral of dx/(x+3)
A. (x+3)2/2+c B. ln(x+3)+c C. (ln(x+3))/x+c D. xln(x+3)+c
Evaluate the integral from 1 to 2 integral from 0 to x of dydx.
A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D.8
1
𝑦2 𝑙𝑛𝑥
∫∫ ∫ 𝑦𝑒 2𝑑𝑧𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦 =?
𝑦 0
0
A. 1/23 B. 1/24 C. 1/25 D. 1/26
AREA
Find the area in the first quadrant bounded by the parabola y 2=4x,x=1 and x=3.
A. 5.595 B. 5.5955 C. 9.555 D. 9.955
Find the area bounded by the curve y=x 2 and y=x+3.
A. 15.67 B. 12.33 C. 10.67 D. 8.67
Determine the area bounded by the curves: y=6x -x 2 and y=x 2-2x.
A. 25.60 B. 21.33 C. 17.78 D. 30.72
CENTROIDS OF AREA
Find the coordinates of the centroid of the plane area bounded by the parabola y=4-x 2 and the x-axis.
A. (1,0) B. (0,1) C. (0,1.6) D. (0,2)
An object has the following coordinates in the x -y axis: (1,0), (1,1), (3,1), (3,3) and (7,0). What is the y -coordinate of the centroid of the object?
A. 0.67 B. 0.87 C. 0.5 D. 0.78
VOLUME
Find the volume of the ring-shaped solid generated by revolving about the x -axis the portion of the plane bounded by the line y=5 and the parabola y=9-x 2.
A. 342.24 B. 442.34 C. 542.44 D. 642.54
The area in the second quadrant at the circle x 2+y 2=36 is revolved about the line y+10=0. What is the volume generated?
A. 2208.53 B. 2218.33 C. 2228.83 D. 2233.43
Find the volume of solid formed if we rotate the ellipse x 2 /9 + y 2 /4 =1 about the line 4x +3y =20.
A. 48π 2 B. 56π 2 C. 36π 2 D. 64π 2
A solid is constructed with a circular base of radius 1 such that every plane section perpendicular to a certain diameter of the base is isosceles triangle whose
base altitude is 2. Find the volume of the conoid.
A. 8.14 cu. units B. 6.18 cu. units C. 1.62 cu. units D. 9.32 cu. units
DAILY TEST
Evaluate ∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 4𝜃𝑑𝜃 with limits from 0 to π/2.
A. 3π/6 B. 3π/16 C. 4π/12 D. 5π/16
What is the integral of 12sin8 x cos5x dx if the lower is zero and the upper limit is π/2?
A. 96/143 B. 32/429 C. 48π/143 D. 16π/429
2
∫ 𝑥 2√1 + 𝑥 3 𝑑𝑥 =
0
A. 52/9 B. 0 C. 52/3 D. 26/3
2
Evaluate the integral of 𝑑𝑥/√(1 + 𝑥 ).
A. arcosx +c B. arcsinx+c C. arctanx +c D. arccotx +c
Evaluate the integral xy dxdy where the limits are x=0 and 1, and y=1 and 2.
A. 1 B. 0 C. ½ D. ¾
Evaluate the triple integral of xyxdzdydx for the following limits: z from 0 to (2-x), y from 0 to (1-x) and x from 0 to 1.
A. 10/240 B. 11/240 C. 12/240 D. 13/240
Find the area enclosed by the curve x 2 +8y+16=0, the x-axis, y-axis and the line x-4=0.
A. 10.67 B. 9.67 C. 8.67 D. 7.67
Find the area enclosed by the curve 5y 2=16x and y 2=8x-24.
A. 14 B. 15 C. 16 D. 18
Find the centroid along the y of the area bounded by the curves y 2=4x, x=0 and y=4.
A. y=6/5 B. y=3 C. y=4 D. y=2/5
Find the volume generated when the area bounded by the curve x 2=4y, the x-axis and x=4 is revolved about the line y=4.
A. 1084π/240 B. 29.867π C. 2064π/240 D. 2046π/24
BRINGHOME EXAM
“When you sit with a nice girl for two hours, you think it’s only a minute. But when you sit on the stove for a minute , you t hink it’s two hours. That’s relativity.” – Albert
Einstein
Evaluate the integral of (3x 2+9y 2)dxdy if the interior limit has an upper limit of y and a lower limit of 0, and whose outer limit has an upper limit of 2 and lower
limit of 0.
A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40
Evaluate the integral of 2xdx/(2x 2+4) if the upper limit is 6 and the lower limit is 3.
A. 0.620 B. 0.675 C. 0.486 D. 0.580
Evaluate the integral of 2dx/(4x+3) if the upper limit is 5 and the lower limit is 1.
A. 0.675 B. 0.595 C. 0.486 D. 0.387
Evaluate the double integral of r sin udr du, the limits of r is 0 and cos u and the limits of u are 0 and π.
A. 1 B. ½ C. 0 D. 1/3
Evaluate the integral of a2xdx.
A. a2x/2lna + c B. 2a2x+c C. a2xlna +c D. 2a2xlna +c
Evaluate the integral of (1+tanx)2dx.
A. tanx+2lnsecx +c B. 2(1+tanx) +c C. (1+tanx)3/3 +c D. sec2 x+c
Evaluate the integral of 3x(x-2)2 dx with limits from 0 to 2.
A. 10 B. 12 C. 4 D.16
The integral of cosx dx with respect to x is
A. –sinx +c B. sinx +c C. cosx +c D. –cosx +c
𝑥
Evaluate ∫ 𝑒 /√𝑥 with limits from 1 to 4.
√
A. 8.540 B. 9.342 C. 7.560 D. 2.175

Evaluate the double integral of xydydx with the following limits: y from –x to 2x and x from 0 to 2.
A. 1 B. 6 C. -1 D. 2
What is the integral of cos7xsin5 xdx, if the upper limit is π/2 and the lower limit is zero.
A. 1/360 B. 1/120 C. 1/240 D. 1/60
𝜋
∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝑥𝑑𝑥 =
𝜋/2
A. 2 B. 1 C. 0 D. -1
The integral of a function between certain limits divided by the difference in abscissas between those limits gives the of the function.
A. average B. middle C. intercept D. asymptote
The area of a surface generated by the rotating any plane curve about an intersecting axis in its plane is equal to the product of the length of the curve and the
distance trabeled by its centroid.
A. First Proposition of Pappus B. Second Proposition of Pappus
C. Parallel Axis Theorem D. Second Moment of Inertia
The moment of inertia of any plane figure can be expressed in units of length to the power.
A. second B. third C. first D. fourth
Evaluate the integral of dx/(1-x 2 ).
A. arcosx +c C. arcsinx+c
B. arctanx +c D. ln((1+x)/ √(1 − 𝑥 2)) + c
For a given curve y=f(x) that is continuous between x=a and x=b, the average value of the curve between the coordinated at x=a and x=b is represented by
𝑏 𝑏 𝑏 𝑏 𝑏 𝑏
∫ 𝑥2 𝑑𝑦 ∫𝑎 𝑥2 𝑑𝑦 ∫𝑎 𝑦𝑑𝑥 ∫𝑎 𝑦 2𝑑𝑥 ∫𝑎 𝑥𝑑𝑦 ∫𝑎 𝑦𝑑𝑥
A. 𝑎𝑏−𝑎 B. C. D.
𝑏−𝑎 𝑏−𝑎 𝑏−𝑎 𝑎−𝑏 𝑏−𝑎
Evaluate the integral of tan2xdx
A. tanx-x+C B. sec2 x +x+C C. 2 secx-x +C D. (tan2x)/2+x+C
7
Evaluate ∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 𝑑𝑥 with lower limit 0 and upper limit π/2.
A. ¼ B. 1/6 C. 1/8 D. 1/12
1
∫ 𝑑𝑥 =?
𝑥√𝑥 4 − 1
A. arcsec x2 B. 0.5 arc sec x2 C. 2 arc sec x 2 D. arc csc x 2
∫ 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑥𝑑𝑥 is equal to ln sin x +c
A. log sin x B. log csc x C. log cos x D. log sec x
Evaluate the integral of (2x 2+3y 2)dxdy if the interior limits is from 0 to y and the outer limit is from 0 to 4.
A. 256 B. 124 C. 144 D. 96
Evaluate: ∫ √9 − 4𝑥 2𝑑𝑥 with lower limit 0 and upper limit 1.
A. 2.76 B.1.54 C. 0.365 D. 3.88
Evaluate ∫ 𝑥𝑐𝑜𝑠 2𝑥 𝑑𝑥 with limits from to pi.
A. 4.9348 B. 4.3894 C. 4.4938 D. 4.8439
Find the area bounded by the curve x 2=4y and the line y=4.
A. 56/3 B. 66/3 C. 64/3 D. 54/3
Find the area bounded by the curve x 2=8y and the line y=2.
A. 32/3 B. 33/3 C. 43/3 D. 23/3
Find the area bounded by the line x -2y+10=0, the x-axis, the y-axis, and x=10
A. 75 B.50 C. 100 D. 25
Find the area bounded by the curve y=x 2+2, and the line x=0, y=0 and x=4.
A. 68/3 B. 64/3 C. 54/4 D. 64/4
Find the area under the curve y = x 2 + 3x 2 and the x-axis between x = 1 and x =3.
A. 64 B. 56 C. 48 D. 46
The area enclosed by the curve r=2(sinx+cosx)is
A. π B. π/2 C. 2π D. π√2
Find the area bounded by the curve y 2=8x and its latus rectum.
A. 82/3 B. 3/32 C. 34/3 D. 3/35
Find the area bounded by the parabola 4y=x 2-2x+1 and its latus rectum.
A. 8/3 B. 2/3 C. 10/3 D. 4/3
Find the area bounded by the curve y=x 2 and x=y 2 .
A. 1/3 B. 2/3 C. 8/3 D. 1
Find the area bounded by yx 2=1, x=1 and the x-axis.
A. ½ B. 1 C. 3/2 D. 2
The centroid of a trapezoid whose bases are 6cm and 12cm and a height of 6cm is?
A. 3cm below the upper base C. 2.66cm above the lower base
B. 2.66cm below the lower base D. 2cm above the lower base
The volume of any solid of revolution is equal to the generating area times the circumference of the circle described by the centroid of the area. This is
commonly known as:
A. First proposition of Pappus C. Second proposition of Pappus
B. Simpson’s Rule D. Cavalier’s Principle
Find the volume generated when the area bounded by the curve x 2=4y, the x-axis and y=4 is revolved about the line x=4.
A. 56.33π B. 10.67π C. 5.33π D. 43.33π
Find the volume in cubic units if the area bounded by the curves x 2=4y, the x-axis and y=4 is revolved about the y -axis
A. 32π B. 33π C.34π D. 35π
Find the volume bounded by the curve x 2=4y, x-axis and the line x=4 when revolved about the x -axis.
A. 4/3π B. 1/2π C. 3/4π D. 2/3π
The base of a solid is the circle x 2+y 2 =16. If every plane section perpendicular to a fixed diameter of the circle is a square, find the volume of the solid.
A. 341 cu. Units B. 250cu. Units C. 290 cu. unit D. 312cu. Units
Find the volume of the solid obtained when the region bounded by the lines y=x, x=1, x=2 and the x -axis is rotated about the y -axis.
A. 8π B. 16π /3 C. 14π /3 D.4π
Find the volume of the region obtained by rotating about the y -axis the region bounded by y=sinx and y=0 from x=0 to x=n.
A. 2π 2 B. π 2 /2 C. π 2 D. π /4
Find the surface area generated by revolving a semicircle with radius “r” and center at the origin with its base lying on the x-axis along the x-axis.
A. 4π 2 B. 2π 2 C. 4π 2 D. 40π
The area enclosed by the ellipse 4x +9y =36 is revolved about the line x=3. What is the volume generated?
2 2
A. 370.3 B. 360.1 C. 355.3 D. 365.1

A hole of radius 4 is bored through the center of a sphere of radius 5. Find the volume of the remaining portion of the sphere.
A. 28π B. 32π C. 30π D. 40π
Suppose the method of cylindrical shells is used to find the volume of the solid obtained when the region bounded by the lines y=x , y= 2x, x=1, and x=2 is
rotated about the y-axis. What is the largest circumference of a cylindrical shell?
A. 5π B. 4π C. 9π D. 8π
Find the volume generated by revolving the area bounded by y=x 2 , y-axis and y=1 around the y -axis
A. 2π B. π C. π /2 D. π /3
Find the volume of the area bounded by the curve x 2=8y. y-axis and the line y=2 revlolved about the y -axis
A. 15π B. 16π C. 14π D. 17π
Evaluate ∫ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2𝑥𝑑𝑥
A. 1/2 x + ¼ sin 4x+c C. ½ x +1/8 sin 4x +C
B. ¼ x + ¼ sin 4x +C D. ½ x + ¼ sin 8x +C
Evaluate ∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 23𝑡𝑐𝑜𝑠3𝑡𝑑𝑡
A. 1/3 sin3 3t+C B. 2/3 sin2 3t+C C. 1/9 sin3 3t+C D. 2/3 sin3 3t+C
Evaluate ∫ 𝑥 √𝑥𝑑𝑥
A. 3/5 x 5/2 +C B. 2/5 √𝑥 2/5 + 𝐶 C. 3/2x 3/2 +C D. 3/2x 3/2+C
Find the volume f the solid generated by revolving about x=4 the area bounded by the curves, y 2=4x and x=3
A. 1024π/9 B. 1024π/12 C. 1024π/3 D. 1024π/15
----------------------------------------------- NOTHING FOLLOWS ----------------------------------------------

Find the y- coordinate of the centroid of the volume for by rotating around the y -axis the area bounded by the line 4x+3y=12, x -axis and y-axis.
A. 1 B. 1.5 C. 1.6 D. 2
MOMENT OF INERTIA
Find the moment of inertia with respect to x-axis of the area bounded by the parabola x 2=4y and the line x=2
A. 0.095 B. 0.059 C. 0.59 D. 0.95
LENGTH OF ARC
Find the length of arc of the curve y 2 = x 2 from the point (1,1) to (8,4)
A. 4.2 B. 7.6 C. 8.9 D. 9.4
SURFACE AREA OF REVOLUTION
The parabolic reflector of an automobile headlight is 12 inches in diameter and 4 inches depth. What is the surface area in square inches?
A. 120.5 in2 B. 132.8 in2 C. 145.5 in2 D. 153.9 in2
HYDROSTATIC FORCE
A vertical side of a saltwater tank contains a round viewing window 60cm in diameter with its center five meters below the liquid surface. If the specific weight of
the saltwater is 10kN/m3 , find the force of the water on the window.
A. 14.14 kN B. 12.25 kN C. 11.50 kN D. 10.78 kN
A gate in an irrigation canal is in the form of a trapezoid 3 feet wide at the bottom, 5 feet wide at the top, with height equal to 2 feet. It is placed vertically in the
canal, with the water extending to its top. For simplicity, take the density of w ater to be 60 lb/ft3. Find the hydrostatic force in pounds on the gate.
A. 360 B. 380 C. 440 D. 420
WORK
A 5 lb monkey is attached to a 20 ft hanging rope that weigh 0.30 lb/ft. The monkey climbs the rope up to the top. How much w ork has it done?
A. 120 ft-lb B. 160 ft-lb C. 140 ft-lb D. 100 ft-lb
A bag of sand originally weighing 144 kg is lifted at a rate of 3m/min. The sand leaks out uniformly at such rate that half of the sand is lost when the bag has
been lifted 18 m. Find the work done in lifting the bag of sand at this distance.
A. 6351 J B. 6524 J C. 6621 J D. 6877 J
A spring has a natural length of 14 cm. If a force of 500 dynes is required to keep the spring stretched 2 sm. How much work is done in stretching the spring
from its natural length to a length of 18 cm.
A. 2000 ergs B. 200 ergs C. 4000 ergs D. 400 ergs
A spring that obeys Hooke’s law with negligible mass has a force constant k=1000 N/m. The spring is compressed 0.2 m from its initial length. The work done
on the spring in joule is
A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40
A right circular conical tank of height 1 foot and radius 1 foot at the top is full of water. Taking the density of the water to be a nice round 60 pounds per cubic
foot, how much work in foot-pounds is required to pump all the water up and over the top of the tank?
A. 24π B. 16 π C. 15π D. 8π
A cylinder tank having a radius of 2 m and a height of 8 m is filled with water at a depth of 6m. Compute the work done in pumping all the liquid out of the top of
the container.
A. 3 698 283 Joules C. 4 233 946 Joules
B. 5 163 948 Joules D. 2 934 942 Joules
A conical vessel 12 m across the top and 15 m deep. If it contains water to a depth of 10 m, find the work done in pumping the liquid to the top of the vessel.
A. 12 327.5 kNm B. 24 216.2 kNm C. 14 812.42 kNm D. 31 621 kNm
A hemispherical tank of radius 10 feet is full of water. Find the work done in pumping the water to the top of the tank.
A. 15 ft-tons B. 24 ft-tons C. 32 ft-tons D. 35 ft-tons
A hemispherical vessel has a radius of 4 m is partly filled with water to a depth of 2 m. Find the work done in Nm in pumping all liquid out of the top.
A. 274680π B. 314720π C. 184740 π D. 414620 π
DAILY TEST
The moment of inertia of any plane figure can be expressed in units of length to the
A. second power B. third power C. first power D. fourth power
Find the moment of inertia, with respect to x -axis to the area bounded by the parabola y 2 =4x anf the line x=1
A. 2.02 B. 2.13 C. 2.33 D. 2.53
Find the arc length of the curve 3y=4x from (3,4) to (9,12).
A. 13 B. 10 C. 8 D. 15
Find the length of the arc in the first quadrant of the semi cubical parabola y 2=x 3 from the point where x=0 to the point where x=5/9.
A. 14/27 B. 19/27 C. 15/32 D. 17/32
Find the surface area generated when the quarter circle x 2 + y 2 = 4 in the first octant is rotated around the y - axis.
A. 8π B. 6 π C. 4 π D. 2π
A cylindrical tank with axis horizontal has elliptical cross section with major axis 6 m and vertical minor axis 4 m. Find the force on one end of the tank full of oil
weighing 50N/m3.
A. 1255 N B. 1420 N C. 1655 N D. 1885 N
The end of a trough are semi circular regions, each with a radius of 2 ft. Fint the force caused by water pressure on one end if the trough id full of water.
A. 250 lb B. 285 lb C. 333 lb D. 365 lb
A spring with a natural length of 10 cm is stretched by ½ cm by a 12 N force. Find the work done in joules in stretching the spring from 10 cm to 18 cm.
A.8.47 B. 9.47 C. 6.92 D. 7.68
An anchor weighing 60 pound is lifted 10 feet. How much work in foot-pounds is done?
A. 900 B. 600 C. 200 D. 1200
A hemispherical tank of radius 5 feet is full of water. Find the work done in pumping the w ater to the top of the tank.
A. 15 ft-tons B. 24 ft-tons C. 32 ft-tons D. 35 ft-tons
BRINGHOME EXAM
“To accomplish great things we must not only act but also dream, not only plan but also believe.”
Anatole
Find the moment of inertia of the area bounded by the curve x 2 =4y, the line y=1 and the axis on the first quadrant with respect to x -axis.
A. 3/7 B. 5/7 C. 4/7 D. 6/7
Find the length of arc of the parabola x 2=4y from x=-2 to x=2.
A. 4.2 B. 4.6 C. 4.9 D. 5.2
Find the arc length of the curve y 2=x 3 from (0,0) to (1/4, 1/8).
A. 65/216 B. 29/108 C. 59/216 D. 37/108
Find the surface area generated by rotating the parabolic arc y=x 2 about the x-axis from x=0 to x=1.
A. 6.33 B. 4.98 C. 5.73 D. 4.73
The vertical end of a water trough is an isosceles triangle with a width of 6 feet and depth of 3 feet. Find the force on one end when the trough is filled with
water.
A. 562 lbs. B. 250 lbs C. 450 lbs D. 346 lbs
An aquarium 1 foot high, 1 foot wide, and 2 foot long is filled with water. For simplicity, take the density of water to be 60 lb/ft3. Find the hydrostatic pressure on
the bottom of the aquarium in lb/ft2.
A. 30 B. 60 C. 14 D. 336
An aquarium 1 foot hugh, 1 foot wide, and 2 foot long is filled with water. For simplicity, take the density of water to be 60 lb/ft3. Find the hydrostatic force in
pounds on one of the 1 foot by 2 foot side of the aquarium.
A. 336 B. 30 C. 120 D. 60
A hemispherical open tank used for concentration of sulfuric acid (SG=1.2) is filled up to the rim. If the tank has a radius of 3 m, determine the work done in
kilojoules after pumping the tank of all acid to another tank on the platform 3 m above the rim of the lower tank.
A. 2860 B. 3540 C. 7906 D. 590
A hemispherical vessel of diameter 8 m is full of water. Determine the work done in joules in pumping out the water to the top of the tank.
A. 326740π B. 527840π C. 516320π D. 418640π
A spring stretches 1 foot beyond its natural position under a force of 100 pounds. How much work in foot-pounds is done in stretching it 3 feet beyond its natural
position?
A. 1500 B. 150 C. 100 D. 900
A bag containing originally 60 kg of flour is lifted through a vertical distance of 9 m. While it is being lifted, flour is leaking from the bag at such rate that the
number of pounds lost is proportional to the square root of the distance traversed . If the total loss of the flour is 12 kg, find the amount of work done in
lifting the bag.
A. 4591 J B. 4210 J C. 3988 J D. 3450 J
A particle is moving along the x axis under the action of a force of f(x) pounds when the particle is x feet from the origin. If f(x)=x 2 + 4, find the work done as the
particle moves from the point where x=2 to the point where x = 4.
A. 20.4 ft-lb B. 26.7 ft-lb C. 29.1 ft-lb D. 32.7 ft-lb
The stretch of a spring is proportional to the force applied. If a force of 5 pounds produces a stretch of one-tenth the original length, how much work will be done
in stretching the spring to double its original length? (Let L=original length)
A. 20 L B. 22L C. 24L D. 25L
Determine the equation of the line tangent to the graph y=2x 2+1, at the point (1,3).
A. y=2x+1 B. y=4x-1 C. y=2x-1 D. y=4x+1
Given y 1=4x+3 and y 2=x 2 +c, find the c such that y 2 is tangent to y 1?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 2
--------------------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS ------------------------------------------------------
WEEKLY EXAM 2
Find the slope of the tangent line to the ellipse 4x 2 + 9y 2 =40 at the point (1,2).
A. 2/9 B. -2/9 C. 4/9 D. -4/9
What conic equation is described by the following equation? 4x 2-y 2+7x+4y=15
What conic equation is defined by the following equation? 2x 2+xy +2y 2-15=0
If the general equation of a conic is Ax 2 +Bxy+Cy2+Dx+Ey+F=0, and B 2-4AC>0, then the conic is:
A. circle B. parabola C. ellipse D. hyperbola
To cut a right circular cone in order to reveal a parabola, it must be cut:
A. perpendicular to the axis of symmetry
B. at any angle to the axis of symmetry
C. parallel to an element of a cone and intersecting the axis of symmetry
D. parallel to the axis of symmetry
A comet moves in a parabolic orbit with the sun at the focus. When the comet is 4 x107 miles from the sun, the line from the comet to the sun makes a 60°
angle with the orbit’s axis. How close will the comet come to the sun?
A. 6.5 x 107 B. 6.5 x 106 C. 4.8 x 107 D. 4.8x 106
What conic equation is defined by the following equation? x +4xy+4y +x+y+1=0
2 2

Is produced when cutting plane is parallel to the element (or generatrix) of the cone.
A. circle B. parabola C. hyperbola D. ellipse
Find the area under the curve y=1/x between the limits y=2 and y=10.
A. 1.61 B. 2.39 C. 3.71 D. 3.97
Find the volume of the solid obtained when the region bounded by the curve x=y 2 and the line x=4 is rotated about the x -axis.
A. 8π B. 6π C. 4π D. 2π
From the given relation of distance and time, s=3t2 +5 find the average velocity when t changes from 2 to 3 seconds.
A. 15 m/s B. 20 m/s C. 10 m/s D. 12 m/s
Given the velocity of V=20t2-100t+25, what is the acceleration of t=2 sec?
A. -20 B. 20 C. 40 D. -40
A body moves along a straight line according to the law S=0.5t2 -2t. Determine its acceleration in ft/sec2 at the end of two seconds.
A. 8 B. 10 C. 6 D. 4
A particle rotates counterclockwise according to the law ϴ=t2/(50-t) where ϴ is in radians and t is in seconds. Calculate the angular velocity at the end of 10
seconds in rad/s.
A. 5.72 B. 8.12 C. 10.18 D. 6.35
A particle moves according to the following functions of time:
x(t)=3sint
y(t)=4cost
What is the resultant velocity at t=π?
A. 0 B.3 C. 4 D. 9
The rate of change of velocity.
A. speed B. motion C. acceleration D. power
The radius of a sphere is r cm at a time t in seconds. Find the radius when the rates of increase of the surface area and the radius are numerically equal.
A. 3π/8 cm B. 1/6π cm C. 2/3π cm D. 3π/4 cm
Water is pouring into a swimming pool. After t hours, there are t+ √𝑡 gallons in the pool. At what rate is the water pouring into the pool when t=9 hours?
A. 1gph B. 1/2gph C. 7/6gph D. 1/6gph
A tank is being drained through a hole at the bottom. The volume remaining in the tank at a given time defined by the equation: V=5(100-t)2 where V is in liters
and t in minutes. After 20 minutes the rate of draining is L/min.
A. 400 B. 800 C. 3200 D. 6400
The depth of a conical vessel containing water is equal to the radius of its top. If the water leaks through a hole at the vertex of the vessel at the rate of π cu.
ft/min, how fast is the surface of the water falling when the depth is 2 feet?
A. 5 in/min B. 6ft/s C. 3 in/min D. 5ft/s
A solution is passing through a conical filler 24 cm deep and 16 m across the top into a cylindrical vessel at diameter 12 cm. At what rate is the level of the
solution in the cylindrical rising when the depth of the solution in the filter is 12 cm? Its level is falling at the rate of one cm/sec.
A. 0.555 cm/sec B. 0.777 cm/sec C. 0.444 cm/sec D. 0.333 cm/sec
Sand is pouring from a hole at a rate 25 ft3 /s and is forming a conical pile on the ground. If the conical formation has an altitude always ¼ of the diameter of the
base, how fast is the altitude increasing when the conical pile is 5 feet high?
A. 0.5 fps B. 0.08 fps C. 0.6 fps D. 0.06 fps
A helicopter is rising vertically from the ground at a constant speed of 4.5 m/s. When it is 75 m off the ground, a jeep passed beneath the helicopter traveling in
a straight line at a constant speed of 80 kph. Determine how fast the distance between them changing after 1 second.
A. 10.3 m/s B. 9.7 m/s C. 12.8 D. 8.0 m/s
𝑡
A point moves along the curve y=x 3-3x+6 so that x=√( )+3 where t is in seconds. AT what rate in m/s is y changing when t=4 seconds?
2
A. (2,0) B. (1,2) C. (0,1) D. (0,2)
What is the slope of the graph y=-x 2 at x=2?
A. 3 B. -4 C. -2 D. 4
Find the slope of the tangent to a parabola, y=x 2 at the point on the curve where x=1/2.
A. 0 B. 1 C. ¼ D. -1/2
Determine the equation of the line tangent to the graph y=2x 2+1, at the point (1,3).
A. y=4x+1 B. y=4x-1 C. y=2x-1 D. y=2x+1
The equation of curve is x 3-3x 2 -3y +6=0. Find a point at which the tangent to the curve is parallel to the x -axis.
A. (2,0) B. (1,2) C. (0,1) D. (0,2)
Given the equation y=x 3-4x 2+4, find the point of inflection.
A. (4/3, -20/27) B. (3/4, 4/5) C. (3/2, 8,27) D. (3/4,2/3)
A manufacturing company processes raw one. The number of tons of refined material the company can produce during t days using Process A is A(t)=t2 +2t and
using Process B is B(t)=10t. The company has only 7 days to process ore and must choose 1 of the processes. What is the maximum output of refined
material, in tons, for this time period?
A. 8 B. 10 C. 51 D. 70
Find the maximum vertical distance between y=cosx and y= √𝑥𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 over the interval [0,2].
A. 1.5 B. 2 C. 2.5 D. 3
Three sided of a trapezoid are each 8 cm long. How long is the fourth side when the area of the trapezoid has the largest value?
A. 14 cm B. 15 cm C. 16 cm D. 15 cm
A sector with perimeter of 24 cm is to be cut from a circle. What should be the radius of the circle if the area of the sector is to be a maximum?
A. 6 cm B. 7 cm C. 5 cm D. 4 cm
If (0,4) and (1,6) are critical points of y = a + bx + cx 2, find the value of c.
A. 1 B. 2 C. -1 D. -2
Divide 120 into two parts such that the product of one part and the square of the other is a maximum Find the smallest part.
A. 50 B. 30 C. 40 D. 60
The product of two positive number is 16. Find the larger number if their sum is minimum.
A. 8 B. 4 C. 3 D. 6
The cost C of a product is function of quantity x, C(x)=x 2 -4000x+50. Find the quantity for which the cost is minimum.
A. 1000 B. 1500 C. 3000 D. 2000
A rectangular field is to be enclosed by a fence and divided into three lots by fences parallel to one of the sides. Find the dimensions of the largest field that can
be enclosed with 800 ft of fencing.
A. 100x200 ft B. 200x200 ft C. 150x250 ft D. 175x255ft
A rectangular field of area 2,400 m2 is to be fenced off along a straight road. The front fencing costs P80.00 per meter. That for the sides and back cost P40.00
per meter. Find the minimum cost needed to fenced the area.
A. P8,400 B. P9,600 C. P8,100 D. P9,200
One side of a triangle is 10 m long and the opposite angle is 40°. Find the area if it is to be the biggest?
A. 65.44 m2 B. 71.22 m2 C. 73.25 m2 D. 68.69 m2
What is the shortest line segment that can be drawn tangent to the circle x +y =25 and meeting the coordinate axis?
2 2
A. 7.5 units B. 10 units C. 20 units D. 12 units

A businessman found out that his profit varies as the product of the amount spent for production and the square root of the amount spent for advertising. If his
total available budget for these expenses is P1.5 million, how much should be he allocate for advertising to maximize his profit?
A. P0.5 million B. P1.0 million C. P1.5 million D. P2 million
A closed box with a square base is to be built and the volume fixed at 30 m3 . Determine the minimum cost of the box if the front and top shall cost P1.50 per
square meter and the bottom and the three sides shall cost P2.00 per square meter.
A. P 106.14 B. P142.15 C. P175.22 D. P187.65
A lot has the form of a right triangle with perpendicular sides 60 feet and 80 feet. Find the length and the width of the largest rectangular building that can be
erected facing the hypotenuse of the triangle.
A. 36x75 B. 50x24 C. 45x60 D. 50x100
Find the area of the largest square that can be cut from a circle whose radius is 5 mm?
A. 8 sq. mm B. 16 sq. mm C. 20 sq. mm D. 50 sq. mm
A box is to be constructed from a piece of zinc 20 in. square by cutting equal squares from each corner and turning up the zinc to form the sides. What is the
volume of the largest box that can be so constructed in cu. in.?
A. 560.02 B. 582.59 C. 593.24 D. 684.90
If y=arc cot(1/x), find y’
A. x 2+1 B. 1/(x+1) C. 1/(x 2+1) D. x+1
If y=x 2e2x find y’
A. 2xe2x(x+1) B. 4x 2e2x C. 2x 2(e2x+2x) D. 2x 2e2x
If y=4x 2-5x+9, find dy/dx
A. 8x-5 B. (4/3)x 3-(5/2)x 2 +9x C. 8x D. 8x+5
D(secϴ)/dϴ=
A. sec7 ϴ B. tan2ϴsecϴ C. secϴtanϴ D. secϴcotϴ
If y=lnlnx, find y’’.
A. –(1+lnx)/x 2 ln2x B. lnx/xlnx C. –(1+lnx)/2x 2lnx D. 1/xlnx
For what value of x is the derivative of x 2 equal to the derivative of x 2 +x?
A. 1 B. -1/3 C. 1 & -1/3 D. 1 & 1/3
If x = 2sinϴ, y=1-4cosϴ, then dy/dx is equal to
A. 2cotϴ B. 2tanϴ C. 2cscϴ D. 2secϴ
If y=4/(2x-1)3, find y’’ at x=1.
A. 190 B. 191 C. 192 D. 193
Find the derivative of y=1/(x -2) at x=1
A. -1/2 B.1 C. -1 D. 2
Find the third derivative of y=3x 4-2x 2+x-5.
A. 36x B. 72x C. -5 D. -15
Find the value of the second derivative at the point (-1,1) of the curve x 2y+3y-4=0.
A. 2xy B. 1 C. 0 D. 3x
The derivative of the function is the rate of change of the slope of the graph.
A. first B. second C. third D. fourth
A glass bowl in the shape of a sphere having a radius of 4 cm is filled with water to a depth of 3 cm. if the water flows out through a small hole in the bottom so
that the level drops 2 cm, how much water has escaped?
A. 73.3 cm3 B. 65.4 cm3 C. 55.4 cm3 D. 44.8 cm3
The diameter of the base of a right circular cone is 10 cm and its altitude is 8 cm. Find the volume of the largest sphere that can be cut from the cone?
A. 75cm3 B. 82cm3 C. 89cm3 D. 97cm3
To what height must a man be raised above the earth in order to see one-fourth of the surface? Assume radius of earth as R.
A. 2R B. 1.41R C. R D. 0.86R
A solid has a circular base radius of 20 cm. Find the volume of the solid if every plane section perpendicular to a certain diameter is an equilateral triangle
A. 18475 cm3 B.20144cm3 C. 21085cm3 D. 21542cm3
A solid consists of a cone surmounted by a hemisphere. Find the vertical angle of the cone if the volumes of the conical and hemispherical portions are equal?
A. 45° B. 53° C. 62° D. 68°
Four spherical balls having a diameter of 4 cm are placed in a square box whose inside base dimensions are 8 cm. In the space between the first four spherical
balls a fifth spherical ball of the same diameter is placed. How deep must the box be in order that the top will just touch the fifth ball?
A. 8.36 cm B. 6.83 cm C. 7.45 cm D. 9.55 cm
An equilateral lot of side 10 m is fenced all around. If a goat tied by arope to a midpoint of one side grazes over four fifths of the lot. Find the length of the rope?
A. 3m B. 4 m C. 5 m D. 6m
Two perpendicular chords each 6 m from the center of the circle of radius 13 m cut the circle into four parts. Find the area of the smallest part.
A. 14.5 m2 B. 16.2m2 C. 18.5m2 D. 19.8m2
A line passes through point (2,2) whose line segment intercepted between the coordinate axis in the second quadrant has a length of square root of 5. Find the
equation of the line/
A. x-2y+2=0 B. 2x-y-2=0 C. x+2y-2=0 D. 2x+y+2=0
Find the equation of the circle passing thru points (0.4) and (3,7) and having its center on the line 2x -y+4=0
A. (x-1)2+(y-6) 2=5 C. x 2 +y2-2x-24=0
B. (x-2) 2+(y+6) 2=5 D. x 2 -y 2-2x-24=0
Find the equation of the circle inscribed in the triangle whose sides are 4x+3y -21=0; 3x-4y-22=0 and x+6=0
A.x 2+y 2+2x-24=0 C. x 2+y 2-2x-24=0
B. x 2+y 2+2x+24=0 D. x 2+y 2-2x-24=0
All except one of these shapes can be cut in two pieces so that the cross-section is an equilateral triangle, which is the odd one out?
A. a cube C. a regular tetrahedron
B. a regular octahedron D. a square-based pyramid
Find the area of the triangle whose vertices lie at the points (4,1), (6,2) and (2,5).
A. 4 B.6 C. 5 D. 7
The vertices of a triangle are at (1,7), (3,11) and (8,12). Find the area.
A. 4 B. 6 C. 5 D. 7
The height of a right circular cylinder is fixed at 6cm. How fast is the volume changing at the instant when r=3, if the radius increases.
A. 20𝜋 cm3/cm B. 2 𝜋 cm3 /cm C. 36 𝜋 cm3/cm D. 12 𝜋 cm3/cm
Find the area of the largest rectangle that can be inscribed in a given circle of radius “a” cm.
A. 1.414a2 B. 2 a2 C. a2 D. 1.414a
Two positive integers whose sum is 50 and the sum of their squares is a minimum, find the number.
A. 40 and 10 B. 25 and 25 C. 30 and 20 D. 15 and 35
What is the area of the largest rectangle that can be inserted in a right triangle with legs 30cm and 40cm with one side of the rectangle along the hypotenuse.
A. 450 B.280 C.300 D.580
How many different cardboard triangles can be cut out, each with sides of length a whole number of centimeters, and each with perimeter 15cm?
A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 12
The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 17 cm long, one leg is 15 cm long, find the area of the triangle in square centimeters.
a. 255/2 B. 60 C. 135 D. 90
Find the area of the triangle which the line 2x -3y+6=0 forms with the coordinate axis.
A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3
In a school photo the 630 pupils are arranged in rows. Each row contains three fewer pupils than the row in front of it. What number of rows is not possible?
A. 3 B.4 C.5 D. 6
Aqua paint is made by combining 2 parts green paint with 5 parts blue paint, Indigo paint is made by combining 3 parts blue paint with 2 parts violet paint. If
equal amounts of aqua paint and indigo paint are mixed, blue paint will be what fraction of the resulting mixture?
A.46/35 B. 6/7 C. 2/3 D. 23/35
The ratio of two numbers is 6:7. If the larger number is 42, what is the smaller one?
A. 18 B. 7 C. 6 D. 36
If 2/3 of the number of red balls in a box is ¼ of the total number of balls, and the ¾ of the number of blue balls is 3/8 of the total number of balls, then what is
the ratio of the number of red balls to the number of blue balls?
A. 3:8 B. 3:4 C. 1:2 D. 2:3
What is the mean proportional of 2 and 8?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 16
When Mike moved home from college, he rented a small truck. The basic rental fee was P75/day plus 20centavos per mile. Mike kept the car for 5 days and
paid P776.in total. How many miles did mike travel?
A. 2508 B. 3508 C. 200.8 D. 2008
Each of x cartons contains y boxes. Each box contains z marbles. How many marbles are there in all?
A. xyz B. yz/x C. x+y+z D. xy/z
A car go r miles on s galloons of petrol. How many galloons of petrol would It need for a journey of t miles?
A. str/r B. rs/t C. tr/s D. r/st
A car with five tires ( four road tyres and a spare) traveled 30,000km. All five tyres were used equally. How many kilometers’ wear did each tyre receive?
A. 6000 B. 7500 C. 24000 D. 30000
The measures of length in ancient Rome included the pes, the passus and the stadium. 5 pedes =1 passus, 125 passus = 1 stadium. The atrium (courtyard) of
Marcus’ home was a square with each side 50pedes long. How many times did Marcus have to walk round his atrium to complete his daily exercise of 8
stadia?
A. XX B. XXV C. L D .C
Fifteen graduating students agreed to buy a laboratory apparatus costing “c” to be donated to their school. All but 3 were able to give contributions. By how
much was the contribution of each who contributed increased?
A. c/10 B. c/15 C. c/30 D. c/60
If the scale on a detail drawing is 15/32” 2’, a scaled measurement of 4 7/32” represents an actual length of?
A. 14’ B.16’ C. 18’ D. 20’
If 2 pounds of aluminum cost $20 how many cents will 10 pounds cost?
A. 100 B. 40 C.80 D. 160
One whole brick weighs 5kg and half a brick. How much does on brick weigh?
A. 3 1/3kg B. 5kg C. 8 1/3kg D. 10kg
If 20 feet of lumber costs $62 the cost of 45 feet would be:
A. $136.25 B. $139.50 C. !44.25 D. $149.50
In a bag of marbles, the ratio of the number of green marbles to the number of blue marbles is 4 to 5. If there are 4 green marbles, how many blue marbles are
in the bag?
A. 5 B. 15 C. 60 D. 75
A certain factory employs 60 workers. If 4 out of every 5 workers are married, how many married workers are employed by the factory?
A. 16 B. 20 C. 24 D. 48
In a class of 200 students, the ratio of boys to girls is 2/3. How many girls are in the class?
A. 30 B. 40 C. 60 D. 120
A 30-meter long steel cylindrical pipe of uniform constitution is cut into two pieces. One piece is 24 meters and weighs 16 kilograms. What was the weight, In
kilograms, of the pipe before it was cut?
A. 20 B. 22 C. 24 D. 28
If the ratio of the red to black ribbons in a box is 8 to 9, what fractional part of the ribbon is red?
A. 1/9 B. 1/8 C. 8/17 D. 9/17
Three numbers has a ratio of 2:5:8 if their um is 60, find the biggest number.
a. 24 B. 28 C. 32 D. 36
DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS
ORDER AND DEGREE OF DE

Given the differential equation (y’’)-6y’-y=0, what is the degree of the differential equation.
Given the differential equation (y’’)-6y’-y=0, what is the order of the differential equation.
ELIMINATION OF ARBITRARY CONSTANT
What differential equation represents the curve y=c+x 2?
A. y’-3x B. y’=2x C. y’’=2x D. y’=x
Solve the differential equation whose general solution is y=C 1e-4x+C 2e3x
A. y’’-y’-12y=0 B. y’’-y’-12y=0 C. y’’ + 7y’-12y=0 D. y’’-7y’-12=0
VARIABLE SEPARABLE DE
Find the general solution of the equation dx/y -xdy/y2=0
A. 2x=y+C B. 2x=cy C. x 2=cy D. x=cy
Solve the differential equation y’=6x y subject to y=9 when x=2.
2 1/2
A.y=(x 3+11)2 B. y=2x 3-5 C. y=(2x 3+11)2 D. y=(x 2-5)2

HOMOGENEOUS DE
What is the solution to the differential equation (x+y)dx+(x-y)dy=0?
A. xy+x 2/2-y 2/2=C B. 2xy-x 2+y3=C C. xy-x 2-y2=C D. yx-x 3-y3 =c
EXACT DE
The integrating factor for the de(1+xy)ydx +(1-xy)xdy=0.
A. 1/xy B. 1/x 2y 2 C. xy D. x 2y 2
Find the general solution of the differential equation (2xy -3x )dx+(x +2y)dy=0
2 2
A. x 2+y 2-x3y=c B. xy+x 2-2y 3=c C. x 2y+y2-x 3=c D. 2x+x 2 y-y2 =c

LINEAR DE
The general solution of the ordinary differential equation dy /dx=x-2xy is
A. ln(1-2y)=x 2 +c B. –ln(1-2y)=x 2+c/2 C. 2y=1+ce-x2 D. none of these
The solution to the equation dy/dx +y/x=y3 which passes through (1,1).
A. y 2=-x 2 B. 1=xy C. y -2=2x-x 2 D. y=x
NEWTON’S LAW OF COOLING AND HEATING
A body having a temperature of 100°C was placed in a room whose temperature is 0°C. AT the end of 1 min. the temperature was reduced to 50°C. The
temperature of the body after 3 min is
A. 12.5°C B. 10.7°C C. 15.2°C D. 18.5°C
A thermometer reading 18 deg F is brought into a room where the temperature is 70 deg F, 1 minute later the thermometer is 31 deg F. Find the temperature
reading 5 minutes after the thermometer is first brought into the room.
A. 50 deg F B. 52 deg F C. 58 deg F D. 60 deg F
FLOW PROBLEMS
Pure water is poured at the rate of 3 gal/min into a tank containing 300 lb of salt dissolved is 100 gal of water. And the solution kept well stirred pours out at 2
gal/min. Find the amount of salt in the tank at the end of 100 minutes?
A. 85 lb B. 80 lb C. 75 lb D. 70 lb
A tank initially contains 50 gallons of pure water. A salt solution containing 2 pounds of salt per gallon of water is poured into the tank at a rate of 3 gal/min, the
mixture is stirred and is drained out of the tank at the same rate. Find the amount of salt in the tank after 20 minutes.
A. 100 lb B. 81.2 lb C. 59.9 lb D. 32.3 lb
MISCELLANEOUS APPLICATIONS
A force that increases uniformly at the rate of 6 lb/sec from a value of 1 lbf when t=0 acts on a 32.2 lbm body initially at rest. Find v in terms of t.
A. v=2t2-3t B. v=3t2+t C. v=3t2-t D. v=2t2+3t
A mothball looses mass by evaporation rate that is proportional to the surface area. If half the mass is lost in 100 days , how long will it take the radius to
decrease to half its initial value?
A. 243 days B. 255 days C. 234 days D. 275 days
DAILY TEST
The differential equation whose solution is y=a+bx+cx 2 is
A. y 2=a+bx B. y 2=2+cx C. y’’=o D. y’’=2a
The curve passes through the point (1,1). Determine the ebsolute value of the slope of the curve at x=25 if the differential equation of the curve is the exact
equation y 2dx+2xydy=0
A. 1/250 B. 1/125 C. 1/5 D. 1/6
Sove the homogeneous equation (x 2+y 2)dx +2xydy=0.
A. x(x 2 +3y 2)=c B. x 2 (x 2+3y 2)=c C. x 2(x 2+2y2)=c D. x(x 2+2y 2)=c
Solve xdy-ydx-(1-x )dx=0.
2
A. y+x 3+1=cx B. y 2 +x+1=cx C. y 2+x 2+1=cx D. y+x+1=c

Solve xy’-6y=x 3,
A. y=-x6+cx5 B. y=x5+cx6 C. y=-x5+cx6 D. y=x6+cx5
A 50 lb iron ball is heated to 200°F And then plugged immediately into a vessel containing 100 lbs of water whose temperature is 40°F. The specific heat of iron
is 0.11 Btu/lb°F. The common temperature, approached by the iron and water as time approaches infinity is
A. 48.34°F B. 38.43°F C. 58.4°F D. 68.5°F
In a tank are 100 gallons of brine containing 50 pounds of dissolves salt. Fresh water runs into the tank at 3 gpm and the brine runs out at the same rate. The
A force that increases uniformly at the rate of 6 lbf/sec from a value of 1 lbf when t=0 acts on a 32.2 lbm body initially at rest. Find s in terms of t.
A. s=2t3+t2 B. s=t3+0.5t2 C. s=t3+t2 D. s=2t3 -t2
Determine the constant of integration for the separate differential equation xdx+6ydy=0. It is known that when x=0, y=2.
A. 4 B. n8 C. 32 D. 64
The integrating factor for the d.e. dy/dx -2y/x =x 2ex is
A. x 2 B. y 2 C. x -2 D. y -2
The degree of the differential equation (y ’)3 =1+(y’’)2
A. 6 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4
The order of the differential equation (y’)3=1+(y’’)2
A. 6 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4
BRINGHOME EXAM
Find the differential equation of the family of lines with equal y -intercept and slope.
A. 2xdy-ydx=0 B. (x+1)dy-ydx=0 C. 2ydx=0 D. ydx-xdy=0
Find the general solution of the d.e. y’+(1-y)/(1+x)=0
A. (1+x)/(1-y)=c B. (1+x)+(1-y)=c C. (1+x)-(1-y)=c D. (x+1)/(2y -1)=c
The equation of the the family of curves whose slope at any point is x/y.
A. x 2-y 2=c2 B. x 2-y 2=c3 C. x+y=c D. x-y=c
Find the solution to the d.e. (1+ex/y)dx+ex/y(1-x/y)dy=0.
A. xyey/x B. x+ yey/x C. xey/x D. x+yex/y
𝑥𝑑𝑦−𝑦𝑑𝑥
The general solution to the d.e. = 𝑥𝑑𝑦 is
√𝑥2+𝑦 2
A. arcsin y/x=c B. arcsin y/x=y+c C. arcsin x/y=x+c D. arcsin x/y=c
The solution to xy’+2y=e3x is
A. y=e3x-e3x/x +c/x B. y=(xe3x-e3x/3+3c)/3x 2 C. y=xe3x-3e3x+c D. y+x=e3x+c
At 1:00 PM, a thermometer reading 70°F is taken outside where the air temperature is -10°F. At 1:02 PM, the reading is 26°F. At 1:05 PM, the thermometer
reading is taken back indoors where the air is at 70°F. What is the thermometer reading at 1:09 PM?
A. 56°F B. 40°F C. 80°F D. 20°F
A tank contains initially 6m3 of a 50% salt solution. Water enters at a rate of 0.1 m3 /min and the uniform solution flows out at 0.20 m3/min. Find the percentage
of salt remaining in the tank after 10 minutes.
A. 83.33% B. 80% C. 42 % D. 90%
A tank holds 500 m3 of brine. Brine containing 2kg/m3 of salt flows into the tank at the rate of 5m3/min and the mixture kept uniform, flows at a rate of 10 m3/min.
If the maximum amount of salt is found in the tank at the end of 20 minutes, what is the initial salt content of the tank?
A. 375 kg B. 500 kg C. 750 kg D. 600 kg
Which of the following is an exact differential equation?
A. xdy+2ydx -2xydy=0 C. 2xdy+4ydx-xydx-dy=0
B. x 2ydx-3x 2ydx+xdy-5xdy=0 D. 2xydx-3x 2dx+x2dy+2ydy=0
Determine the degree of the given ordinary differential equation y’’’’-4(y’’’)2+3(y’’)3-y’=0
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
The degree of the differential equation(y’’)4=4+(y’’’)2
A. 6 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4
Assume that the rate of change of air pressure with altitude is proportional to the air pressure. If the air pressure on the ground is 14.7 psi and if an altitude of
10,000 ftft it is 10.0 psi. Find the air pressure at an altitude of 15,000 ft
-------------------------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS---------------------------------------------------
ADVANCED MATHEMATICS
MATRICES & DETERMINANTS

What is the sum of matrix A plus twice of matrix B, given that;
1−2 0 −1 1 −1
𝐴 = −1 2 1 𝐵= 2 0 2
0 1 −3 −1 2 3
−1 0 −2 1 0 −2 −1 1 2 2 2 2
A. 3 2 5 B. 3 2 5 C. 3 2 5 D. 3 1 5
−2 5 3 0 5 1 −2 5 1 −2 0 2
What is the difference of the transpose of matrix A and one half of matrix B, given that;
1 −2 0 −2 2 −4
𝐴 = −1 2 1 𝐵= 2 0 2
0 1 −3 0 3 4
−1 0 2 2 −2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
A. 3 2 0 B. −3 2 0 C. 3 2 5 D. 3 2 5
−2 5 −5 0 0 −5 −2 0 1 −2 0 2
−2 1
−2 2 3
If 𝐴 = and 𝐵 = 1 0, the (2,2) entry of AB is
1 2 1
2 4
A. 9 B. 5 C. 3 D. 6
What is the inverse of matrix A, given that;
0 −2 0
𝐴 = 2 0 −1
1 3 2
0.3 0.4 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.2 0.3 2 2 2 0.4 2
A. 3 2 0 B. −0.5 0 0 C. 3 0 0 D. 3 0 5
−2 5 −5 0.6 −0.2 0.4 −2 0 0.4 0.6 −0.2 2
What is the determinant of the following (2x2) matrix?
3 4
| |
−2 6
A. 33 B. 26 C. 32 D. 27
What is the determinant of the following matrix?
1 1 1
(2 −1 1 )
1 2 −1
A. 0 B. 1 C. 5 D. 7
What is the determinant of M?
0 1 1 1
𝑀= 1 1 1 1
1 1 3 1
2 1 3 4
A. -6 B. 6 C. 0 D. 7
COMPLEX NUMBERS
Simplify i2005 -i2004+i400

A. 1 B. i C. -1 D. –i
Find the quotient of (50+j35)/(8+j5).
A. 6.47ᶩ 3° B. 4.47 ᶩ 3° C. 7.47 ᶩ 30° D. 2.47 ᶩ 53°
Find the value of (1+i)2, where I is an imaginary number.
A. 2i B. 2(1+i) C. 2-I D. 1+2i
Find the value of (1+i)5, where is is an imaginary number.
A. 1-I B. -4(1+i) C. 1+I D. 4(1+i)
Evaluate ln(2+j3).
A. 1.34 + j0.32 B. 2.54 + j0.866 C. 2.23 + j0.21 D. 1.28 + j0.98
LAPLACE TRANSFORM
What is the laplace transform of e-3t?
A. 1/(s+3) B. 1/(s-3) C. e(-6+s) D. e(6+s)
The laplace transform of coswt is
A. s/[s2 +w 2] B. w/(s+w) C. w/[s2+w 2] D. s/(s+w)
2𝑡
Find the laplace transform of 𝑒 sin t
A. 1/(s2 -4s+5) B. s/(s2-4s+5) C. (s-2)/(s2 -4s+5) D. 1/(s2 -4s-5)
Find the laplace form of e t-4t
A. 1/(s+4)2 B. 2/(s+4)2 C. 1/(s-4)2 D. 2/(s-4)2

INVERSE LAPLACE TRANSFORM
k/[s2+k2] is the inverse laplace transform of:
A. coskt B. sink kt C. ekt D. 1.0
Find the inverse laplace transform of [3/(s-1)]-[2/(s-30].
A. 3et-2e3t B. e-t-e3t C. 3et+e3t D. 2et-2e3t
Find the inverse laplace transform of (2s-18)/(s -9) as function of x.
2
A. 2 cos3x-6sin3x C. 2 cosh 3x-6sinh3x

B. 3 cos2x -2 sin6x D. 6 cosh x – 2 sinh 2x
Determine the inverse laplace transform of 1/(4s2-8s).
A. 0.25 etsinh t B. 0.5 e2tsinh t C. 0.25 etcosh t D. 0.5 e2tcosh t
Determine the inverse laplace transform of s/(s+1)3
A. 0.5e-tt2+e-tt B. e-tt2+0.5e-tt C. ett2+0.5ett D. 0.5ett2 +ett
DAILY TEST
Matrix [ 2 1] + 2 Matrix[−1 2] =
−1 3 1 1
−2 4
A. B. −1 2 C. 2 1 D. 0 5
2 2 1 1 −1 3 1 5
3 1 2
Transpose the matrix −2 −1 0
1 2 −1
−1 2 0 3 −2 0 3 1 2 1 3 2
A. 0 −1 −2 B. 1 −1 2 C. 1 2 −1 D. −1 −2 0
2 1 3 2 0 −1 −2 −1 0 2 2 −1
1 2
Determine the inverse matrix of [ ]
5 9
−9 2 B. 9 5 C. 2 5 D. −9 −5
A.
5 −1 2 1 9 1 2 1
1 2 −1
The determinant of the matrix 3 0 2 is
2 −2 −1
A. 4 B. 16 C. 24 D. -16
What is the quotient when 4+8i is divided by i3?
A. 8-4i B. 8+4i C. -8+4i D. -8+4i
Simplify the expression i1997 +i1999 +i4000 , where “I” is an imaginary number.
A.0 B. –I C. 1 D. 1-i
What is the laplace transform of e-6t?
A. 1/(s+6) B. 1/(s-6) C. e(-6+s) D. e(6+s)
What is the laplace transform of e cost?
-2t
A. s/(s2 +4s+4) B. s/(s2+4s+5) C. s/(s2+1) D. 1/(s2+4s+5)

Determine the inverse laplace transform of Y(s)=200/(s -50s+10625).
2
A. 2e25tsin100t B. 2te-25tsin100t C. 2e-25tcos100t D. 2te-25tcos100t

What is the inverse laplace of [3s+1]/[(s-1)(s+3)]?
A. e-1+e3t B. et+2e-3t C. e-2t+e3t D. e-3t-e2t
BRINGHOME EXAM
“There’s a way to do better… find it” – Thomas A Edison

1847-1931, American Inventor, Entrepreneur, Founder of GE
What is the determinant of the following matrix?

1 1 1
|2 −1 1 |
1 2 −1
A. 0 B. 1 C. 5 D. 7
Given
1 2 5
|𝑥 −2 1 | = 22, find x
0 1 −1
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
Determine the value of the given determinant;
1 1 0 0
|1 1 1 1|
1 1 1 1
0 0 1 1
A. 1 B. 0 C. -1 D. -1
Determine the value of the given determinant:
1 1 0 0
|1 1 1 0|
0 1 1 1
0 0 1 1
A. 1 B. 0 C. -2 D. 1
5 1
If A=1 2 3 and B=
6 0, the (2,1) entry of AB is
1 2 9
4 7
A. 29 B. 53 C. 33 D. 64
The inverse matrix 1 1 is
3 2
A. 2 −1 B. 2 3 C. 1 3 D. −2 1
−3 1 1 1 1 2 3 −1
What is the determinant of the following (2x2) matrix?
|5 9|
7 6
A. -33 B. -27 C. 3 D. 27
Determine the value of x and y which satisfy the following linear system:
𝑥
|3 7||𝑦| = |2|
2 6 4
A. x=4; y=-2 B. x=2: y=-4 C. x=-2; y=4 D. x=-4; y=2
Which of the following statements regarding matrices is not true?
A. (A T)T=A B. A(B+C)=AB+AC C. A+(B+C)=(A+B)+C D. (AB)-1=A -1 B -1
What is 4i3 times 2i2?
A. -8i B. 8i C. -8 D. -8i2
What in the form a+bi the expression i3217 -i-427 +i18
A. 1+2i B. 1-I C. -1+2i D. 1+i
What is the simplified complex expression of (4.33+j2.5)2?
A. 12.5 +j21.65 B. 20+j20 C. 15+j20 D. 21.65 +j12.5
Simplify the expression i1997 +i1998 , where “I” is an imaginary number.
A. 0 B. –I C. 1+I D. 1-i
Simplify: i29+i21+i
A. 3i B. 1-I C. 1+I D. 2i
What is the laplace transform of e-2tcost?
A. s/(s2 +4s+4) B. (s+2)/(s2+4s+5) C. s/(s2+1) D. 1/(s2 +4s+5)
What is the laplace transform of e cos2t?
-2t
A. 1/(s-2) B. (s+2)/(s2 +4s+8) C. s/(s2 +1) D. 1/(s2+4s+5)

𝑡
The laplace transform of 2𝑒 2 is
A. 1/(s-2) B. 2/s C. 2/(s+2) D. 2/(s-2)
The laplace transform of t is
A. 1/s B. 2/s2 C. 1/s2 D. 1/(s-1)
The laplace transform of et is
A. 1/s B. 1/(s+1) C. 1/(s-1) D. 1/(s-1)2
The laplace transform of e-at(1-at) is
A. s/(s+a)2 B. as+a C. a/(s+a+a)2 D. (s-a)/(s+a)2
What is the laplace transform od e2tsin2t?
A. 2/(s2 -4s+8) B. 3/(s2+4s+8) C. 3/(s2+9) D. s/(s2+4s+8)
Find the inverse laplace transform of (3s-6/(s2+9) as a function of x.
A. 3cosx-sin3x B. 3cos3x-2sin3x C. 3cos3x-3sin3x D. 3cosx-3sin2x
What is the inverse laplace of [3s2-7]/[(s-1)(s+3)(s-2)]?
A. e-t+e3t+e3t B. et+e-3t+e2t C. e-2t+e3t D. e-3t + -e2t
Determine the inverse laplace transform of Y(s)=(s+1)/(s 2 +2s-3).
A. e-tcos2t B. e-tsin2t C. e-tcos4t D. e-tsin4t
If a matrix A has the elements
2 3 1
|−1 2 4 |
0 5 7
What is the cofactor of the second row, third column element?
A. 2 3 B. −2 −3 C. −1 −7 D. 3 1
0 5 0 −5 −2 0 5 7
If a 3 x 3 ,atrix and its inverse are multiplied together, write the product.
1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1
A. 0 1 0 B. 0 0 0 C. 0 1 0 D. 1 1 1
0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 1
𝑥
Given the matrix equation, solve for x and y matrix 1 1 multiplied by matrix 𝑦 = 2
3 2 0
A. (-4,6) B. (-4,2) C. (-4,-2) D. (-4,-6)
𝑥 𝑥
If matrix 1 4 is multiplied by 𝑦 is equal to zero, then matrix 𝑦 is
−4 1
A. 8 B. 1 C. -4 D. 0
Compute the value of the determinant x
4 −1 2 3
2 0 2 1
𝑋=
10 3 0 1
14 2 4 5
A. -32 B. -28 C. 16 D. 52
Find the value of x so that the determinant given below will have a minimum value.
2 1 2
|3 4 𝑥 |
𝑥 3 1
A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8
PHYSICS
Resultant of Forces
What is the magnitude of the resultant force of the two forces 200 N at 20° and 400 N at 144°?
A. 332.5 N B. 323.5 N C. 313.5 N D. 233.5 N
The magnitude of the resultant of the following system coplanar concurrent forces: 3N, 0°; 4N, 30°; 4N, 150° is
A. 4.5 N B. 11 N C. 5 N D. none of the above
Threes forces, 20 N, 30 N and 40 N are in equilibrium. Find the largest angle they make with each other.
A. 104.48° B. 105.58° C. 106.69° D. 107.96°
The resultant of two coplanar forces is 36 N ate 45°. If one of the forces is 24 N at 0°, find the other force.
A. 20.4 N at 88° B. 25.5 N at 87° C. 22.3 N at 78° D. 24.2 N at 82°
Forces in Equilibrium
A 100 kg weight rest on a 30° inclined plane. Neglecting friction, how much pull must one exert to bring the weight up the plane?
A. 88.67 kg B. 100 kg C. 70.71 kg D. 50 kg
A load of 100 lb is hung from the middle of the rope, which is stretched between two rigid walls 30ft apart. Due to the load, the rope sags 4 feet in the middle.
Determine the tension on the rope.
A 10-kg weight is suspended by a rope from a ceiling. If a horizontal force of 5.80 kgs is applied to the weight, the rope will make an angle with the vertical
equal to
A. 30 degree B. 45 degree C. 75 degree D. 60 degree
A 50-N box lies on a frictionless inclined plane that rises 3 feet and is 5 feet long along the incline. The force, P, parallel to the plane which is required to prevent
the box from moving downward is
A. 20 N B. 30 N C. 25 N D. 15 N
When one boy is sitting 1.2m from the center of a see-saw, another boy must sit on the other side 1.5m from the center to maintain an even balance. However,
when the first boy carries an additional weight of 14kg and sit 1.8m from the center, the second boy must move to 3m from the center to balance.
Neglecting the weight of the see-saw, find the weight of the heavier boy.
A. 30 kg B. 42 kg C. 34 kg D. 45 kg
A 20ft ladder is leaning on the wall. Half-way on the ladder is a 150lb mass. Find the reaction on the upper end of the ladder, if the distance of its lower end is
8ft from the wall.
A. 32.73 lb B. 28.40 lb C. 24.21 lb D. 20.80 lb
Friction
The coefficient of static friction of steel on ice is 0.1. The force needed in newtons to set a 70kg skate in motion is about
A. 0.7 B. 7 C. 70 D. 700
A 200kg crate impends to slide down a ramp inclined at an angle of 19.29° with the horizontal. What is the frictional resistance?
A. 612.38 N B. 628.38 N C. 648.16 N D. 654.12 N
A 250lb block is initially at rest on a flat surface that is inclined at 30°. If the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.30 and the coefficient of static friction is 0.40, find
the force required to start the block moving up the plane.
A. 190 lb B. 212 lb C. 125 lb D. 75 lb
Work, Energy and Power
A car with mass of 600kg, fall vertically with a distance of 12m from rest. What is the work done by gravity on the car?
A. 70632 J B. 85420 J C. 35316 J D. 92325 J
A force of 200 lbf acts on a block at an angle of 28° with respect to horizontal. The block is pushed 2 feet horizontally. What is the work done by this force?
A. 215 J B. 320 J C. 480 J D. 540 J
A 3kg stone is dropped from a height of 100m. Find its kinetic energy when it is 50m from the ground, in joule.
A. 1740 B. 1470 C. 2940 D. 2490
A locomotive train exerts a dragging force of 10000 N at a speed of 5 m/sec. The horsepower delivered by the engine is
A. 63 B. 65 C. 67 D. 69
An automobile uses 100 hp to move at a uniform speed of 60mph. What is the thrust force provided by the engine?
A. 530 lbf B. 625 lbf C.1100 lbf D. 1800 lbf
What is the kinetic energy of a 0.01 lbm bullet travelling 2000 ft/s relative to the barrel of the gun it has left?
A. 621 N B. 842 J C. 842 ft-lbf D. 621 in-lbf
Momentum Problems
What momentum does a 40 lbm projectile possess if the projectile is moving at 420 mph?
A. 24640 lbf-sec B. 16860 lbf-sec C. 765 lbf-sec D. 523.6 lbf-sec
The kinetic energy of a 20kg body is 1000 J. What is the momentum in kg-m/s?
A. 100 B. 200 C. 400 D. 500
A 10,000 kg car mov ing at 20 m/s collides with a 50,000 kg truck moving at 10 m/s in the same direction. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, the common
velocity after coupling is
A. 20 m/s B. 10 m/s C. 15 m/s D. 25 m/s
Two identical balls hit head-on in a perfectly elastic collision. Given that the initial velocity of one ball is 0.85 m/s and the initial velocity of the other is -0.53 m/s,
what is the relative velocity of each ball after the collision?
A. 0.85 m/s and -0.53 m/s C. 1.2 m/s and -0.72 m/s
B. 1.2 m/s and -5.1 m/s D. 1.8 m/s and -0.98 m/s
A 100 kg body moves to the right at 5 m/s and another body of mass W moves to the left at 3 m/s. They meet each other and after impact the 100 kg body
rebounds to the left at 2 m/s. Determine the mass of the other body if coefficient of restitution is 0.5.
A. 100 kg B. 120 kg C. 140 kg D. 150 kg
Law of Gravitation
Two steel Balls of masses 500 kg and 50 kg, respectively are placed with their centers 0.5 m apart. The two balls attract with a force of
A. 0.667 nN B. 0.667 µN C. 6.67 µN D. 6.67 mN
Snell’s Law
A light ray of wavelength 589 nm traveling through air is incident on a smooth flat slab of glass at an angle of 30° to the normal. Find the angle of refraction. N
air = 1 and N glass = 1.52
A. 19.2° B. 20.8 C. 24.7° D. 34.8
DAILY TEST
A 60 ton rail car moving 1 mile per hour is instantaneously coupled to a stationary 40 ton rail car. What is the speed of the coupled car?
A. 1 mph B. 0.88 mph C. 0.6 mph D. 0.4 mph
Determine the change in potential energy of a 10 kg bag of feathers that is raised a vertical distance of 23 m.
A. 1664 ft-lbf B. 1720 ft-lbf C. 1768 ft-lbf D. 1821 in-lbf
Sound cannot travel through a
A. vacuum B. gas C. liquid D. solid
Light is incident from air to glass (index of refraction = 1.51). If the angle of incidence 37°, what is the angle of reflection?
A. 23.5° B. 30° C. 37° D. 45°
Light is incident from air to glass (n = 1.51). If the angle of incidence 37°, what is the angle of refraction?
A. 23.5° B. 30° C. 37° D. 45°
What is the kinetic energy of a0.25 kg stone moving at 10m/sec?
A. 0.125 J B. 125 J C. 12.5 J D. 1.25 J
Which of the following sets of horizontal force could leave an object in equilibrium?
A. 25, 50 and 100 N C. 5, 10 and 50 N
B. 8, 16 and 32 N D. 20, 20 and 20 N
A circular level table 1.2m in diameter and has a weight of 750 N is supported on three equally spaced vertical legs at A, B and C. Compute the reaction on leg
at A if a vertical load of 900 n is placed at D which is 0.3m from A towards the center of the table.
A. 400 N B. 850 N C. 1000 N D. 910 N
A ball rolling to the right on a level table at 2.5m/s strikes head-on an identical ball that is at rest. Find the velocity of the first ball after collision. Assume a
perfectly elastic collision.
A. zero C. 2.5 m/s moving to the right
B. 2.5 m/s moving to the left D. 1.2 m/s moving to the right
A 60-kg skater pushes a 50-kg skater, who moves away at 2 m/s. As a result, the first skater moves backward at
A. 0.6 m/s B. 1.7 m/s C. 2.0 m/s D. 2.4 m/s
BRINGHOME EXAM
“Constant practice, makes one perfect. “
If an object is free to move in a plane, the number of scalar equations that must be satisfied for it to be in equilibrium is
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6
If an object is free to move in three dimensions, the number of scalar equations that must be satisfied for it to be in equilibrium is
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6
A telephone pole is supported by a guy wire which exerts a pull of 200 lbs on the top of the pole. If the angle between the wire and the pole is 50°, what is the
vertical component of the pull on the pole?
A box is being pulled by a force of 20 lb exerted in a rope inclined at 30° with horizontal. What is the effectice component of the force pulling the box?
If a force of 86 N parallel to the surface of a 20° inclined plane will push a 120-n block up the plane at constant speed, what force parallel to the plane will push
it down at constant speed?
A. 15 N B. 25 N C. 35 N D. 45 N
A 20-kg board serves as see-saw for two children. One child has a mass of 30-kg and sits 2.5m from the pivot point. At what distance from the pivot point must
a 25-kg child place herself to balance the seesaw? Assume the board is centered at the pivot.
A. 2.6 m B. 3.0 m C. 2.8 m D. 2.0 m
Three concurrent forces have magnitude of 40, 60 and 50 N, respectively. Determine the smallest angle among them that will produce a state of equilibrium.
A. 41.4° B. 25.8° C. 39.2° D. 44.2°
A boat is being towed through a canal by a horizontal cable which makes an angle of 10° with the shore. If the pull on the cable is 200 N, find the force tending
to move the boat along the canal.
A. 197 N B. 180 N C. 200 N D. 192 N
A 5.0 m ladder leans against a wall at a point 4.0m above the ground. The ladder is uniform and has a mass of 12 kg. Assuming the wall is frictionless and the
ground is not, determine the horizontal component of the force extended by the ground on the ladder.
A. 47 N B. 55 N C. 44 N D. 53 N
A 6 m ladder weighs 350 N and is placed with its lower end on a horizontal floor and its upper end against a wall. The angle between the wall and the ladder is
30°. A man weighing 900 N is to climb the very top of the ladder. The coefficient of friction between the wall and the ladder is 0.20. What must be the
minimum coefficient of friction between the floor and the ladder to avoid the danger of slipping?
A. 0.322 B. 0.403 C. 0.488 D. 0.420
A 250-lb block is resting on a plane inclined at an angle of 36.87° with the horizontal. Determine the required force, P, acting along the inclined plane that will
prevent the block from sliding down the plane. Assume the coefficient of friction of 0.15 between contact surfaces.
A 560-lb mass object rests on a horizontal surface. The force needed to move it along the surface is 20 lb. Determine the coefficient of friction.
A. 0.011 B. 0.036 C. 0.023 D. 0.018
A power of 6 kW is supplied to the motor of a crane. The motor has an efficiency of 90% . With what constant speed does the crane lift an 800 lbf weight?
A. 0.09 m/s B. 0.32 m/s C. 0.98 m/s D. 1.52 m/s
A body pulls a sled with a mass of 20 kg horizontally over a surface with a coefficient of friction of 0.20. It takes him 10 minutes to pull the sled 100 yards. What
is his average power output over these 10 minutes?
A. 4 W B. 6 W C. 8 W D. 10 W
Two identical balls hit head-on in a perfectly elastic collision. Given that the initial velocity of one ball is 0.85 m/s and the initial velocity of the other is -0.53 m/s,
what is the relative velocity of the first ball after the collision?
A. 0.53 m/s B. -0.53 m/s C. 0.85 m/s D. -0.85 m/s
Two particles collide, stick together and continue their motion together. Each particle has a mas of 10 g, and their respective velocities before the collision were
10 m/s and 100 m/s. What is the energy of the system after the collision?
A. 21.6 J B. 30.2 J C.48.2 J D. 77.9 J
A 560-lb mass object rests on a horizontal surface. The force needed to move it along the surface is 20 lb. Determine the coefficient of friction.
A. 0.011 B. 0.036 C. 0.023 D. 0.018
Which of the following sets of horizontal forces could not leave an object in equilibrium?
A. 6, 8 and 10 lb C. 10, 10 and 10 lb
B.10, 20 and 30 lb D. 20, 40 and 80 lb
A man can exert a maximum pull of 1000 N but wishes to lift a new store door for his cave weighing 20000 N. If he uses a lever, how much closer must the
fulcrum be to the store than to his hand?
A. 20 times nearer C. 20 times farther
B. 10 times nearer D. 20 times nearer
What force must be added to the force F = 30 at 60° to yield a zero force?
A. 30 N at -60° B. -30 N at 60° C. 30 N at 240° D. -30 N at -240°
A 12 foot ladder weighing 40 pounds is leaning on a wall such that it makes an angle of 60° with the floor. When a 180-pound-man reaches a point 8 feet from
the lower end of the ladder, the ladder is just about to slip. Determine the friction coefficient between the ladder and the floor. The coefficient of friction
between the ladder and the wall is 0.20.
A. 0.20 B. 0.25 C.0.30 D. 0.35
If a 1/3 horsepower pump runs for 20 minutes, what is the energy used?
A. 0.06 ergs B. 0.25 kW C. 0.30 MJ D. 0.11 kW-hr
A 100-kg car whose speed is 80 km/h has a kinetic energy of
A. 2.52 E4 J B. 2.47 E5 J C. 2.42 E6 J D. 3.20 E6 J
A 3200-lb car whose speed is 60 mi/h has a kinetic energy of
A. 1.8 E5 ft-lb B. 3.9 E5 ft-lb C. 7.7 E5 ft-lb D. 1.4 E7 ft-lb
A duck has a mass of 3 lbm and is flying due west at 15 ft/s. The duck is struck by a bullet with mass of 0.05 lbm, which is moving due east at 1000ft/s. The
bullet comes to rest in the duck’s gizzard. What is the final velocity of the duck-bullet system in ft/s?
A. 1.6 B. 0.73 C.0.52 D. 0.22
A steel ball weighing 200 pounds strikes a stationary wooden ball weighing 200 pounds. If the steel ball has a velocity of 16.7 ft/sec at impact, what is the
velocity immediately after impact? Assume the collision is perfectly elastic.
A. 16.7 ft/sec B. -8.35 ft/sec C. 0 D. 8.35 ft/sec
---------------------------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS----------------------------------------------------------------------
WEEKLY EXAM 3
Differential Equations, Advanced Math, Probability & Statistics and Physics
INSTRUCTIONS: Select the letter for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your
choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
If log28 = a and log29 = b then log2√72 is
A. (a+b)/2 B. ab/2 C. a/2b D. a+b
The simplest value of [ (n+1)! ] 2 /n!(n-1)! Is
A. n2 B. n(n+1) C. n+1 D. n(n+1)2
A company receives a shipment of 50000 lb of two chemicals A and B. The total cost, excluding shipping charges, is $ 15,000. The price of A is 50 cents/lb; the
price of B is 25 cents/lb. How many pounds of A were shipped?
A. 40,000 B. 10,000 C. 20,000 D. 30,000
Moses is twice as old as Methuselah was when Methuselah was one-third as old as Moses will be when Moses is as old as Methuselah is now. If the difference
in their ages is 666, how old is Methuselah?
A. 222 B. 999 C. 1332 D. 1998
The estimated completion time for a particular 100 item test is 3 1/3 hours. Ten applicants actually look the test and completed it in 3 hours. What is the
difference between the actual and estimated rate of completion per item?
A. 10 seconds per item B. 12 seconds per item C. 14 seconds per item D. 16 seconds per item
Which of the following could be the remainders when three consecutive odd integers are divided by 5?
A. 4, 1, 3 B. 1, 2, 4 C. 2, 0, 4 D. 0, 2, 3
The price of a stereo is increased by P420, or 6% of the original price. What was the original price of the stereo?
A. P2520 B. P6000 C. P6580 D. P7000
How many times can a pail holding 3 ¾ liters be filled from a tank containing 105 liters?
A. 18 B. 28 C. 32 D. 46
Maura drives 40 minutes going to work; it took her twice the velocity in gong home. What is the total time travelled?
In a geometric sequence whose first element is 0.0001 and whose common ratio is 10, which element are 10,000?
A. 8th B. 9th C. 10th D. 11th
A diver underwater signals his partner in a boat using very bright flashlight. Assuming the water is crystal clear and the surface is perfectly calm, at what angle
from vertical, e, can the diver hold his flashlight and still have its beam visible above the surface? The indices of refraction are 1.33 and 1.00 for water and
air respectively.
A. e<32.5° B. e<41.2° C. e<45.0° D. e<48.8°
A light ray passing through air (index of refraction = 1.0) strikes a glass surface (index of refraction = 1.52) at an angle 60° from the normal to the surface. What
is the angle between the reflected light and the surface?
A. 7.5° B. 15° C. 30° D. 45°
A 50-kg steel pipe 4.0m long is supported by a rope attached 1.7m from one end. The downward force that must be applied to the end of the pipe closest to the
rope to keep the pipe horizontal is
A. 8.8 N B. 86 N C. 227 N D. 490 N
A 5.0m ladder leans against a wall at a point 4.0m above the ground. The ladder is uniform and has a mass of 12 kg. Assuming the wall is frictionless and the
ground is not, determine the horizontal component of the force exerted by the ground on the ladder.
A. 47 N B. 55 N C. 44 N D. 53 N
An object is placed 3 feet from the center of a horizontally rotating platform. The coefficient of friction is 0.30. The object will begin to slide off when the platform
speed is nearest to
A pulley is used to lift a 10 kg mass to a height of 2m. If 150 N of effort was used, the work done to overcome friction was equal to
A. 52 J B. 104 J C. 196 J D. 300 J
A spring with a force constant of k=500 N/m is compressed horizontally by a 10-kg mass along a rough surface. The spring is compressed 0.3m and the
coefficient of kinetic friction between the mass and the surface is 0.15. If the system is released, what will be the approximate velocity of the mass when
the spring is no longer compressed?
A. 0 m/s B. 2 m/s C. 4 m/s D. 5 m/s
A 1 N bullet is fired with a velocity of 900 m/s into an 89 N sand box mounted on wheels. After the impact, the box strikes a spring and is brought to rest in a
distance of 150 mm. Find the spring constant in N/mm.
A. 40.8 B. 45.2 C. 49.9 D. 56.3
An 800-kg car headed south at 40km/h strikes a 1200-kg car headed west at 25 km/h. The car stick together and the initial velocity of the wreckage is
A. 22 km/h B. 31 km/h C. 33 km/h D. 47 km/h
An 800-kg car headed south at 40km/h strikes a 1200-kg car headed west at 25 km/h. The car stick together and moves off at
A. 20° W of S B. 43° W of S C. 47° W of S D. 70° W of S
Compute the mass of the earth knowing that at its surface, 6370 km from the center, a 1-lb mass will be attracted by it with a force of 1 lb.
A. 13.1 E 24 lb B. 13.1 E 25 lb C. 10.8 E 24 D. 10.8 E 25
A diver with a flashlight shines a light beam upward from the bottom of a pool at an angle of incidence of 40°. The light leaves the surface of the pool at an
angle of refraction of 60°. The index of refraction of water is
A. 0.67 B. 0.74 C. 1.3 D. 1.5
In how many ways can you line up 5 persons to get up a bus when person A and b will not follow each other?
A. 120 ways B. 90 ways C. 60 ways D. 72 ways
Ten different letters of an alphabet are given. Words with five letters are formed from these given letters. Then the number of words which have at least one
letter repeated is
A. 69760 B. 30240 C. 99748 D. 12400
In how many ways can a party of 7 persons arrange themselves around a circular table?
A. 720 B. 820 C. 920 D. 1020
When you look yourself in a mirror, what you see is a
A. real image behind the mirror C. real image in front of the mirror
B. virtual image behind the mirror D. virtual image in front of the mirror
An object farther from a converging lens than its focal point always has an image that is
A. inverted B. virtual C. the same in size D. smaller
An object closer to the converging lens than its focal point always has an image that is
A. inverted B. virtual C. the same in size D. smaller
You have to use the digits 9, 7, 6, 4, 2, 0 once each to make the smallest possible even six -digit number. What digit should you put in the hundreds column?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 7
Three cards are drawn from a deck of 52 cards without replacement. Find the probability that all are of the same color.
A. 0.2353 B. 0.3523 C. 0.3325 D. 0.2335
There are three candidates A, B and C for mayor in town. If the odds that candidate A will win are 7:5 and that of B are 1:3, what is the probability that candidate
C will win?
A. 0.25 B. 0.13 C. 0.17 D. 0.21
There are ten defectives per 1000 times of a product. What is the probability that there is one and only one defective in a random lot of 100?
A. 99x0.0199 B. 0.01 C. 0.5 D. 0.9999
A party of 100 men standing in a single line consist of A and B also. The probability that not more than 10 men are between them is
A. 127/700 B. 529/900 C. 188/900 D. 324/700
A mixture of candies contains 6 mints, 4 toffees and 3 chocolates. If a person makes a random selection of one of these candies, find the probability of getting
(a) a mint and (b) a toffee or a chocolate
A. 6/13, 7/13 B. 5/13, 8/13 C. 6/13, 3/13 D. 6/13, 4/13
In a poker hand consisting of 5 cards, find the probability of holding 2 aces and 3 jacks.
A. 0.9 E-3 B. 0.9 E-4 C. 0.9 E-5 D. 0.9 E-6
The odds are 13 to 8 in favor of winning the first prize of a lottery. What is the probability of winning that prize?
A. 0.691 B. 0.617 C. 0.619 D. 0.671
If three students work on a certain math problems, student A has a probability of success of 0.5; student B, 0.4; and student C, 0.3. If the work independently,
what is the probability that no one works the problem successfully?
A. 0.12 B. 0.25 C. 0.32 D. 0.21
A sample of 50 light bulbs is drawn from a large collection, in which each bulb is good with a probability of 0.9. What is the approximate probability of having
less than 3 bad bulbs in the 50?
A. 0.1 B. 0.2 C. 0.3 D. 0.4
A set is
A. a collection of objects C. a well-defined collection of objects
B. a non-empty collection of objects D. a collection of well-defined objects
A coin is tossed 100 times and lands heads 60 times and tails 40 times. If it is tossed once more, which of these is true?
A. it is more likely to land “heads than “tails” C. it will definitely land “tails”
B. the chances of heads and tails are “equal” D. it will definitely land “heads”
Use the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 once each to form two-digit numbers with the largest possible product. What is the product?
A. 322 B. 903 C. 1302 D. 1312
The probability that it rains while Susan is walking home from school is 1/3; the probability that Susan remembers to take her umbrella is 3/5. If these events are
independents, what is the probability Susan gets wet walking home?
A. 1/5 B. 2.5 C. 2/15 D. 11/15
There are ten defectives per 1000 times of a product. What is the probability that there is one and only one defective in a random lot of 100?
A. 99x0.0199 B. 0.01 C. 0.5 D. 0.9999
The probability that both stages of a two-stage missile will function correctly is 0.95. The probability that the first stage will function correctly is 0.98. What is the
probability that the second stage will function correctly given that the first one does?
A. 0.99 B. 0.98 C. 0.97 D. 0.95
In a certain college, 25% of the students failed Mathematics, 15% of the students failed Chemistry and 10% of the students failed both Mathematics and
Chemistry. A student is selected at random. If he failed Chemistry, what is the probability that he failed Mathematics?
A. 1/3 B. 2/3 C. 3/3 D. 4/3
A certain part can be defective because it has one or more three possible defects: insufficient tensile strength, a burr or a diameter outside of tolerance limits. In
a lot of 500 pieces:
19 have a tensile strength defect 17 have a burr
11 have an unacceptable diameter 7 have tensile strength and diameter defects
5 have burr and diameter defects 2 have all three defects
How many of the pieces have no defects?
A. 475 B. 2 C. 8 D. 450
From the problem above, how many pieces have only burr defects?
A. 3 B. 2 C. 5 D. 6
Let X={3,4,5} and Y={2,3,4,5}. Which of the following statement is true?
A. X is a subset of Y B. X is not a subset of Y C. Y is a subset of X D. both A and C
In statistics, the standard deviation measures
A. a standard distance B. central tendency C. a normal distance D. dispersion
In a test give to two section of a mathematics course the average grade is 60.98, section I has a mean of 57.3, section 2 a mean of 65.3. If there are 27
students in section I, how many students are there in section 2?
A. 21 B. 22 C. 23 D. 24
Three tankers each carry 10,000 tons of oil and a fourth tanker carries 16,000 tons. What is the average (arithmetic mean) number of tons carried by each of
the four tankers?
A. 10, 000 B. 10, 050 C. 10, 500 D. 11, 500
Long distance runners Richard, Sabina and Rae complete the marathon in 2hours 10 minutes, 2 hours 15 minutes and 2 hours 35 minutes, respectively. What
is the average (arithmetic mean) time it takes tfor the three runners to complete the marathon?
A. 2 hours 15 minutes B. 2 hours 20 minutes C. 2 hours 25 minutes D. 2 hours 30 minutes
A certain elevator has a maximum weight capacity of 1500 pounds. If four boxes with an average weight of 200 pounds are packed on the elevator along with a
man weighing 200 pounds, how much additional weight in pounds is allowable?
A. 1150 B. 500 C. 700 D. 650
Given
|1 2 5|
|x -2 1| = 22, find x
|0 1 -1|
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
|1 1 0 0|
|1 1 1 1|
|1 1 1 1|
|0 0 1 1|
A. 1 B. 0 C. -2 D. -1
|1 1 0 0|
|1 1 1 0|
|0 1 1 1|
|0 0 1 1|
A. 1 B. 0 C. -2 D. -1
What is the laplace transform of e2t sin 2t?
A. 2/(s2-4s+8) B. 3/(s2 -4s+8) C. 3/(s2+9) D. s/(s2-4s+8)
What is the inverse laplace of [3s -7]/[(s-1)(s+3)(s-2)]?
2
A. e-t+e3t+e3t B. et+e-3t+e2t C. e-2t+e3t D. e-3t-e2t

Evaluate cosh (jπ/4).
A. 0.707 B. 1.41 + j0.866 C. 0.5 + j0.707 D. j0.707
The sequence of numbers 1, 5, 14, 30, … is called
A. triangular number B. tetrahedral number C. pyramidal number D. Euler’s number
In polar coordinate system, the distance from appoint to the pole is known as
A. polar angle B. radius vector C. x-coordinate D. y-coordinate
A series of numbers which are perfect square numbers (i.e. 1, 4, 9, 16, …) is called
A. oblong numbers B. cubic numbers C. square numbers D. Fibonacci numbers
A sequence of numbers whose every term is obtained by adding the two preceding terms and the first two terms are 1 and 1, as 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, … is called
A. Fourier series B. Fibonacci numbers C. Fermat’s number D. Euler’s number
The sequence of number 2, 6, 12, 20, … is called
A. square numbers B. oblong numbers C. pentagonal numbers D. cubic numbers
The sequence of number 1, 8, 27, 64, … is called
A. square numbers B. oblong numbers C. pentagonal numbers D. cubic numbers
What is the order of the differential equation d2y/dx 2 = 3 dy/dx + xy?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
What is the degree of the differential equation d2y/dx 2 = 3 dy/dx + xy?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
𝑑𝑦 2
What is the order of the differential equation (dy/dx)3 = √(1 + (𝑑𝑥 ) ) ?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
𝑑𝑦 2
What is the degree of the differential equation (dy/dx)3 = √(1 + (𝑑𝑥 ) ) ?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
2 2
What is the order of the differential equation √𝑑 𝑦/𝑑𝑥 = 3 dy/dx + x?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
What is the degree of the differential equation √𝑑 2𝑦/𝑑𝑥 2 = 3 dy/dx + x?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
Solve the differential equation whose general solution is y = (x+c) e-x.
A. y’ + 12y = x B. y’ + y = x 2 C. y’ + y = e-x D. y’ – 12y = e-x
Which of the following is an exact differential equation?
A. xdy+2ydx -2xydy=0 C. 2xdy+4ydx-xydx-dy=0
B. x 2ydx-3x 2ydx+xdy-5xdy=0 D. 2xydx-3x 2dx+x2dy+2ydy=0
A bacterial population B is known to have a rate of growth proportional to B itself. If between noon and 2PM the population triples, at what time, no controls
being exerted, should B become 100 times what it was at noon?
A. 8:22 PM B. 10:22 PM C. 3:22 PM D. 6:22 PM
Into a 100 gal tank initially filled with fresh water flow 3 gal/min of salt water containing 2 pound of salt per gallon. The solution kept uniform by stirring, flows out
at the same rate. How many pounds of salt will there be in the tank at the end of 1 hr 40 min?
A. 10 lb B. 190 lb C. 200 lb D. 210 lb
From the data in problem #75, what is the upper limit for the number of pounds of salt in the tank if the process continues indefinitely?
A. 200 lb B. 220 lb C. 240 lb D. 250 lb
From the data in problem #75, how much time will elapse while quantity of salt in the tank changes from 100 to 150 lb?
Solve the homogenous differential equation (3x+2y)dx + 2xdy = 0.
A. 2x 2+4xy = C B. 3x 2+4xy = C C. 3x 2 -4xy = C D. 2x 2-4xy = C
The solution to xy’ + 2y = e is3x
A. y = e3x – e3x/x + c/x C. y = xe3x – 3e3x + c

B. y = (xe -0.333e +3c)/3x
3x 3x 2 D. y + x = e3x + c
{80-82}. Assume that a body cools according to Newton’s law dθ/dt = -kθ where t is the time and θis the temperature difference between the temperature T of the
body and that of the surrounding air.
Find the temperature T at time t of a boiler of water cooling in air at 0°C if the water is initially boiling at 100°C and the temperature dropped 10°C during the
first 20 minutes.
A. T = 100(0.9)t/20 B. T = 100(0.8)t/20 C. T = 80(0.9)t/20 D. T = 100(0.8)t/20
Find the time for the temperature of the water to drop from 90°C to 80°C.
A. 20 min B. 42.4 min C. 22.4 min D. 62.4 min
Find the temperature of the water after 90 min.
A. 45.4°C B. 50.9°C C.57.5°C D. 62.2°C
Find the general solution of the differential equation 2x(1+y 2)dx – y(1+2x 2)dy = 0.
A. 1+y=C(1+2x 2) C. 1+y 2=C(1+2x 2 )
B. 1+2y=C(1-2x ) 2 D. 1-2y=C(1-2x 2)
What type of differential equation is (x+1)ydx+(y -3)(x-2)dy=0?
A. variable separable B. homogenous C. linear D. exact
What is the kinetic energy in J and cal of a 45-g golf ball moving a 61 m/s?
A. 168 J, 40 cal B. 84 J, 20 cal C. 84 J, 350 cal D. 84 kJ, 20 kcal
The product of force and the time during which it acts is known as:
A. momentum B. velocity C. power D. impulse
An upward force (buoyant force) is equal to the weight of the fluid that is being displaced. This principle lies on:
A. Dalton B. Bernoulli C. Archimedes D. Pappus
Which of the following are not units of pressure?
A. Pa B. N/m C. kg/m-s2 D. bars
Which of the following is not a unit of work?
A. N-m B. erg C. kg/m2 -s2 D. dyne
A 5-g bullet with a muzzle velocity of 300 m/s strikes a 1-kg block hanging vertically in a 1-m rope. If the bullet is imbedded in the block, calculate the height
reached by the block.
A. 0.058 m B. 0.114 m C. 0.302 m D. 0.375 m
A 560-lb mass object rests on a horizontal surface. The force needed to move it along the surface is 20 lb. Determine the coefficient of friction
A. 0.011 B. 0.036 C. 0.023 D. 0.018
A 1 kg mass has a kinetic energy of 1 joule when its speed is
A. 1.4 m/s B. 0.45 m/s C. 1 m/s D. 4.4 m/s
If a force of 86 N parallel to the surface of a 20° inclined plane will push a 120-N block up the plane at constant speed, what force parallel to the plane will push
it down at constant speed?
A. 15 N B. 25 N C. 35 N D. 45 N
A 20-kg board serves as see-saw for two children. One child has a mass of 30-kg and sits 2.5m from the pivot point. At what distance from the pivot point must
a 25-kg child place herself to balance the seesaw? Assume the board is centered at the pivot.
A. 2.6 m B. 3.0 m C. 2.8 m D. 2.0 m
Three concurrent forces have magnitude of 40, 60 and 50 N, respectively. Determine the smallest angle among them that will produce a state of equilibrium.
A. 41.4° B. 25.8° C. 39.2° D. 44.2°
A boat is being towed through a canal by a horizontal cable which makes an angle of 10° with the shore. If the pull on the cable is 200 N, find the force tending
to move the boat along the canal.
A. 197 N B. 180 N C. 200 N D. 192 N
A 100 kN block slides down a plane inclined at an angle of 30° with the horizontal. Neglecting friction, find the force that causes the block to slide.
A. 48 N B. 54 N C. 50 N D. 58 N
A telephone pole is supported by a guy wire which exerts a pull of 200 lbs on the top of the pole. If the angle between the wire and the pole is 50°, what is the
vertical component of the pull on the pole?
A box is being pulled by a force of 20 lb exerted in a rope inclined at 30° with horizontal. What is the effectice component of the force pulling the box?
A 6 m ladder weighs 350 N and is placed with its lower end on a horizontal floor and its upper end against a wall. The angle between the wall and the ladder is
30°. A man weighing 900 N is to climb the very top of the ladder. The coefficient of friction between the wall and the ladder is 0.20. What must be the
minimum coefficient of friction between the floor and the ladder to avoid the danger of slipping?
A. 0.322 B. 0.403 C. 0.488 D. 0.420
---------------------------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS----------------------------------------------------------------------
ENGINEERING MECHANICS
Rectilinear Motion
A train 500 m long passes through a one kilometer tunnel. What is its rate if the train passes the tunnel completely in 120 seconds?
A. 30 km/hr B. 40 km/hr C. 45 km/hr D. 50 km/hr
A commuter averages 30 km per hour on the way to work and 45km/h on the way home. What is the average speed for the round trip in km per hour?
A. 40 B. 37.5 C. 36 D. 35
How far does an automobile move while its speed increases uniformly from 15kph to 45kph in 20 seconds?
A. 185m B. 167m C. 200m D. 172m
A train starting at initial velocity of 30kph travels a distance of 21km in 18 minutes. Determine the acceleration of the train in m/s2 at this instant.
A. 0.0043 B. 0.0206 C. 0.0865 D. 0.3820
An automobile starting from rest at t=0 is in constant acceleration on a straight line. It is observed to pass two marks separated by 50m, the first at t=8s and the
second at t=10s. What is the value of the acceleration in m/s2?
A. 4.6 B. 1.2 C. 3.4 D. 2.6
A ball is dropped from a height of 60 meters above the ground. How long does it take to hit the ground?
A. 1.3s B. 2.1s C. 3.5s D. 5.5s
A ball is dropped from the roof of a building 40 meters tall will hit the ground with a velocity of
A. 50 m/s B. 20 m/s C. 19.8 m/s D. 30 m/s
A stone is dropped into a well and 4 seconds later the sound of the splash is heard. If sound travels at aspeed of 340m/s, how deep is the well?
A. 70.48m B. 68.32m C. 64.24m D. 72.26m
Two arrows of equal weight are shot vertically upward. One arrow has a velocity one-half of the other. The faster arrow will reach a height _____ the height
reached by the slower arrow.
A. the same as B. four times C. twice D. eight times
A projectile fired vertically upward with an initial velocity of 150m/s. What is the total time required for the projectile in going up and in going down?
A. 30.61s B. 52.55s C. 15.31s D. 61.21s
Projectile Motion
The muzzle velocity of a projectile is 1500 fps and the distance of the target is 10 miles. The angle of elevation of the gun must be
A. 21°59’ B. 22°41’ C. 24°33’ D. 25°18’
A projectile leaves a velocity of 50m/s at an angle of 30° with the horizontal. Find the maximum height that it could reach.
A. 31.86m B. 31.28m C. 30.63m D. 30.12m
A ball leaves the top of the table from a height of 4ft with a horizontal velocity. How much time does it have to take for the ball to reach the ground?
A. 45 sec B. 0.50 sec C. 0.32 sec D. 0.58 sec
An object is launched at 45° above the horizontal level ground at 180ft/s. Calculate the range of the projectile.
A. 719ft B. 1000ft C. 1440ft D. 2050ft
Rotational Motion
A rotating wheel has a radius of 2ft and 6in. A point on the circumference of the wheel moves 30ft in 2 seconds. Find the angular velocity of the wheel.
A. 2rad/sec B. 4rad/sec C. 6 rad/sec D. 5 rad/sec
At what rpm is a Ferris’ wheel turning when the rider feels weightless or zero gravity every time the rider is at the topmost part of the wheel 9m radius?
A. 8.97 rpm B. 9.97 rpm C. 7.77 rpm D. 0.57 rpm
A flywheel is rotating at the rate of 40rev/min. A motor is used to speed up the wheel such that after 30 seconds. Rotation is 90rev/min. What is the average
angular acceleration in radians per second per second?
A. 0.314 B. 0.140 C. 0.714 D. none of these answers
Calculate the time required for a flywheel moving at 240rev/min with a deceleration 2.5 rad/s 2 to come to rest.
A. 5s B. 10s C. 15s D. 20s
Newton’s Law of Motion
What horizontal force P can be applied to a 100kg block in a level surface with coefficient of friction of 0.2 that will cause an acceleration of 2.5m/s2?
A. 446.2 N B. 224.5 N C. 53.5 N D. 343.5 N
A car moving at 70km/hr has a mass of 1700kg. What force is necessary to decelerate it at a rate of 40 cm/s 2?
A. 4250 N B. 0.68 N C. 680 N D. 42.5 N
A 1100 kg car travels on a straight highway with a speed of 30m/s. The driver sees a red light ahead and applies her brakes w hich exert a constant braking
force of 4 kN. In how many seconds will the car stop?
A 550kg mass initially at rest is acted upon by a force of 50kN. What is the velocity of the mass after 4 seconds?
A. 4.96 m/sec B. 27.10 m/sec C. 13.55 m/sec D. 4.87 m/sec
A wood block weighing 44.75N rests on a rough horizontal plane, the coefficient of friction being 0.40. If a bullet weighing 0.25 N is fired horizontally into the
block with a velocity of 600m/s, how far will the block be displaced from its initial position? Assume that the bullet remains inside the block.
A. 1.41 m B. 0.89 m C. 2.06 m D. 1.98 m
A 5-g bullet with a muzzle velocity of 300m/s strikes a 1-kg block hanging vertically in a 1-m rope. If the bullet is imbedded in the block, calculate the height
reached by the block.
A. 0.058m B. 0.114m C. 0.302m D. 0.375m
DAILY TEST
Newton’s first law of motion states that
A. the momentum of a particle remains unchanged in the absence of unbalanced forces B. particles with unbalanced
forces remain in state of rest
C. energy cannot be created nor destroyed
D. every action has an equal but opposite reaction
An automobile moving at a constant velocity of 15 m/s passes a gasoline station. Two seconds later, another automobile leaves the gasoline station and
accelerates at a constant rate of 2m/s2 . How soon will the second automobile overtake the first?
A. 15.3s B.16.6s C. 13.5s D. 18.6s
Using a powerful air gun, a steel ball is shot vertically upward with a velocity of 80m/s, followed by another shot after 5 seconds. Find the velocity of the second
ball in order to meet the first ball 150 meters from the ground.
A. 65.3 m/s B. 45.1 m/s C. 56.2 m/s D. 61.3 m/s
A stone is dropped from a high altitude and 3 seconds later another stone is projected vertically downward with a speed of 50ft/s. When will the second
overtake the first?
A. 4.53s B. 5.32s C. 5.67s D. 2.89s
A hunter observed s bird flying overhead and estimated the height at 15m and its speed at 20m/s. His rifle is capable of a muzzle velocity of 48 m/s. If he fires at
the instant the bird is directly overhead, at what angle should he incline his rifle in order to hit it?
A. 65.38° B. 45.20° C. 24.98° D. 75.35°
What is the speed of a synchronous earth’s satellite situated 4.5x107 from the earth?
A. 11,070.0 kph B. 12,000.0 kph C. 11,777.4 kph D. 12,070.2 kph
The rim of a 36-in wheel on a brake-shoe testing machine has a speed of 60 mph when the brake is dropped. It comes to rest when the rim has traveled a
tangential distance of 500ft. What are the angular acceleration and the number of revolutions?
A. 5.06 rad/s2, 310 rad C. 5.17 rad/s2, 333 rad
B. 5.20 rad/s , 340 rad
2 D. 5.24 rad/s2, 344 rad
What is the tension on the cord attached to the top of the elevator with a uniform downward acceleration of 3.18 m/s 2 if the elevator’s mass is 1500kg and the
man’s mass inside it is 70 kg?
A. 10.4 kJ B. 20.4 kJ C. 14.8 kJ D. 16.5 kJ
What is the tension on the cord attached to the top of the elevator with a uniform upward acceleration of 3.18 m/s 2 if the elevator’s mass is 1500kg and the
man’s mass inside it is 70 kg?
A. 10.4 kJ B. 20.4 kJ C. 14.8 kJ D. 16.5 kJ
You loss a water balloon from your window 8m above the ground. When the water balloon leaves your hand, it is moving at 10m/s at an angle of 20° below
horizontal. How far horizontally from your window wil the balloon hit the ground? Ignore air resistance.
A. 9.2m B. 10.2m C. 11.4m D. 8.5m
BRINGHOME EXAM
“Climb ev’ry mountain, ford ev’ry stream, Follow ev’ry rainbow, till you find your dream.”
Oscar Hammerstein II (1895 – 1960) – US lyricist and librettist.
A bicycle moves with a constant deceleration of -2 ft/s2. If the velocity of the bike was 10ft/s, how far does it travel in 3 seconds?
A. 19ft B. 20ft C. 21ft D. 22ft
What velocity in m/s did an airplane take off from a landing field that has a run of 500m if it starts from rest, moves with constant acceleration and makes the run
in 30 seconds?
A. 33.33 m/s B. 45.15 m/s C. 56.67 m/s D. 66.67 m/s
A car starts from rest and has a constant acceleration of 3 ft/s 2. What is the average velocity during the first 10 seconds of motion?
A. 12 ft/s B. 13 ft/s C. 14 ft/s D. 15 ft/s
A truck increases its speed uniformly from 13 km/hr to 50 km/hr in 25 seconds. What is the acceleration of the truck?
A. 0.216 m/s2 B. 0.411 m/s2 C. 0.622 m/s2 D. 0.924 m/s2
A man driving a car at 45 mph suddenly sees an object in the road 60 feet ahead. What constant deceleration is required to stop the car in this distance?
A. -42.6 ft/s2 B. -41.3 ft/s2 C. -39.8 ft/s2 D. -36.3 ft/s2
A ball is dropped from a building 100m high. If the mass of the ball is 10 grams, after what time will the ball strike the ground?
A. 5.61 s B. 2.45 s C. 4.52 s D. 4.42 s
You loss a water balloon from your window 8m above the ground. When the water balloon leaves your hand, it is moving at 10m/s at an angle of 20° below
horizontal. How far horizontally from your window wil the balloon hit the ground? Ignore air resistance.
A. 9.2 m B. 10.2 m C. 11.4 m D. 8.5 m
A 3kg block is moving at a speed of 5 m/s. What is the force required to bring the block to a stop in 8E-4 seconds?
A. 9.2 kN B. 13.2 kN C. 15.4 kN D. 18.8 kN
The flywheel of a puncher is to be brought to a complete stop in 8 seconds from a speed of 60 revolutions per minute. Compute the number of turns the
flywheel still makes if its deceleration is uniform.
A. 5 turns B. 3 turns C. 4 turns D. 6 turns
A passenger on the outer edge of a merry-go-round 7.5m from the central pivot learns that when the merry -go-round is in steady motion, his centripetal
acceleration is 3.3 m/s2. How long does it take to make one revolution?
A. 95 sec B. 9.5 sec C. 5.8 sec D. 2 min
A car starting from rest moves with a constant acceleration of 10 mi/hr2 for 1 hour, then decelerates at constant rate of -5mi/hr2 until it comes to a stop. How far
has it traveled?
A. 10 mi B. 15 mi C. 20 mi D. 25 mi
The winner of a 10000-m road race completed the course in a time of 20 minutes, 13 seconds. What was the winner’s average speed in miles per hour?
A. 29.7 B. 18.45 C. 1.11E3 D. 9.23
Starting from rest, a car accelerated at 2m/s 2 for 5 seconds, then with constant velocity for 10 seconds, then accelerated again at 1m/s2 for 15 seconds, then
decelerated at 2m/s2 until it comes to rest. Find the total distance traveled.
A. 350.25m B. 420.75m C. 543.74m D. 582.25m
A car starts from rest and runs with constant acceleration. It passes points A and B which is 90 meters apart after 4 and 6 seconds respectively. Calculate the
acceleration of the car.
A. 7.5 m/s2 B. 8.2 m/s2 C. 9.0 m/s2 D. 9.4 m/s2
A car travels 100 miles to City A in 2 hours, and then travels 200 miles to City B in 3 hours. What is the average speed of the car for the trip?
A. 45 mph B. 58.3 mph C. 60 mph D. 66.7 mph
A meter is defined as the distance light travels in vacuum during _____ minutes.
A. 3.33 E-10 B. 5.5 E-5 C. 5.5 E-11 D. 3.33 E-9
A bucket has a mass of 5kg when empty and 15kg when full of water. The empty bucket is lowered into a well, at a constant acceleration of 5m/s 2 , by means of
a rope. When full of water, the bucket is raised at a constant velocity of 2m/s. Neglecting the weight of the rope, find the force in the rope when raising the
full bucket.
A. 0.147 N B. 14.70 N C. 1.47 N D. 147 N
A ball is dropped from the roof of a building 40 meters tall will hit the ground with a velocity of:
A. 50 m/s B. 28 m/s C. 19.8 m/s D. 30 m/s
What is the speed of a synchronous earth’s satellite situated 4.5x107 m from the earth?
A. 11,070.0 kph B. 12,000.0 kph C. 11,777.4 kph D. 12,070.2 kph
A car accelerates from rest at 2m/s2 for 5 seconds, travels at constant speed for 10 seconds and decelerates to rest at 2m/s 2. Calculate the distance traveled by
the car.
A. 525m B. 315m C. 450m D. 150m
A man standing at a window 5 meters tall watches a falling ball pass by the window in 0.3 seconds. From how high above the top of the window was the ball
released?
A. 8.18m B. 9.63m C. 11.8m D. 21.3m
A stone is dropped from a cliff into the ocean. The sound of the impact of the stone on the ocean surface is heard 6.4sec after it is dropped. The velocity of
sound id 340 m/s. How high is the cliff?
A. 175.45m B. 123.45m C. 195.26m D.156.83m
A projectile is launched upward from level ground at an angle of 60° with the horizontal. It has an initial velocity of 45m/s. How long will it take before the
projectile hits the ground?
A. 4.1s B. 5.8s C. 7.94s D. 9.53s
Compute the theoretical nuzzle velocity required to give a projectile a maximum range of 40 miles. Compute the maximum height to which the projectile will rise.
A. 2400 fps, 12 mi B. 2500 fps, 11 mi C. 2600 fps, 10 mi D. 2700 fps, 9 mi
A projectile fired vertically upward with an initial velocity of 150m/s. What is the total time required for the projectile in going up and in going down?
A. 30.61s B. 52.55s C. 15.31s D. 61.21s
A ball is thrown by a player from a position 2 m above the ground surface with a velocity of 40m/s inclined at 60° to the horizontal. Determine the maximum
height, H, the ball will attain.
A. 63.2m B. 61.2m C. 30.6m D. 31m
Saturn is nearly fifteen hundred million km from the sun. It revolves around the sun roughly once every thirty Earth years. What is the approximate average
speed (in km/hr)?
A. 1500 B. 13000 C. 25000 D. 36000
A 500 g ball is whirled in a vertical circle at the end of a string 60 cm long. If the velocity of the ball at the bottom of the circle is 4m/s, what is the tension of the
string at that point?
A. 13.2 N B. 18.2 N C. 8.4 N D. 4.9 N
On a distance-time graph, a horizontal line corresponds to motion at
A. zero speed B. increasing speed C. constant speed D. decreasing speed
On a distance-time graph, a straight line sloping upward to the right corresponds to motion at
A. zero speed B. increasing speed C. constant speed D. decreasing speed
As an airplane climbs,
A. its mass increases C. its mass decreases
B. its weight increases D. its weight decreases
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STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
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Moment of Inertia
Determine the moment of inertia of the figure shown with respect to its centroidal axis x -x.
A. 5.265x106 mm4 B. 5.265x104 mm4 C. 5.265x102 mm4 D. 5.265x106 mm2
Catenary & Parabolic Cables

A cable weighing 0.4 kg/m and 800 m long is to be suspended with a sag of 80 m. Determine the maximum tension.
A. 414 kg B. 420 kg C. 416 kg D. 400 kg
A certain cable is suspended between two supports at the same elevation and 500 ft. apart, the load is 500 lbs. per horizontal foot including the weight of the
cable. The sag of the cable is 30 ft. calculate the total length of the cable.
503.76 ft. B. 502.76 ft. C. 504.76 ft. D. 501.76 ft.
Simple Stress & Strain
What modulus elasticity in tension is required to obtain a unit deformation of 0.00105 m/m from a load producing a unit tensile stress of 44,000 psi?
41.905 x 106 psi B. 42.300 x 106 psi C. 43.101 x 106 psi D. 41.202 x 106 psi
A 30-m long aluminum bar is subjected to a tensile stress of 172 MPa. Find the elongation of E = 69116 MPa?
0.746 m B. 0.007 m C. 6.270 m D. 7.46 m
A force of 10 N is applied to one end of a 10-inch diameter circular rod. Calculate the stress.
0.20 kPa B. 0.15 kPa C. 0.05 kPa D. 0.10 kPa
A steel tie rod on bridge must be made to withstand a pull of 5000 lbs. Find the diameter of the rod assuming a factor of safety of 5 and ultimate stress of 64000
psi.
0.75 B. 0.71 C. 0.84 D. 0.79
What force is necessary to punch a ½ inch hole in a 3/8 thick plate if the ultimate shearing strength of the plate is 42000 psi?
24940 lbf B. 24620 lbf C. 24960 lbf D. 24740 lbf
A 30-m long aluminum bar having a diameter of 50 mm is subjected to a tensile stress of 172 MPa. Find the final diameter of the aluminum bar if E=69116 MPa
and Poisson’s ratio – 0.4?
48.24 mm B. 49.51 mm C. 24960 lbf D. 24740 lbf
Torsion
A steel shaft is transmitting 37.5 Kw at 20 rps. The nature of the load and the type of service of the shaft is such that the allowable shearing stress based on
pure torsion is 30MPs. Compute the diameter of the shaft.
37 mm B. 40 mm C. 43 mm D. 45 mm
From the data in problem 10, calculate te torsional deflection of the shaft in degrees per meter of the shaft G=83 Gpa.
0.75ᵒ B. 1.12ᵒ C. 1.24ᵒ D. 1.43ᵒ
Two circular shaft one hollow and one solid, are made of the same materials. The outer diameter of each is D and the inside diameter of the hollow shaft is D/2.
If the twisting moment that the hollow shaft can resist is T1 and T2 for the solid shaft, the ratio of T1 to T2 is =
9/16 B. 15/16 C. ½ D. ¼
What power in kilowatts can be transmitted by a 10-mm diameter solid shaft at 30 rps if allowable torsional shearing stress is 40MPa?
1.48 kW B. 12.3 kW C. 4.4 kW D. 102.4 kW
Shear & Moment Diagram
A simply supported beam, 10 m long carries a uniformly distributed load of 20 KN/m. what is the value of the maximum shear of the beam due to this load?
250 KN B. 100 KN C. 1000 KN D. 520 KN
A simply supported beam, 10 m long carries a uniformly distributed load of 20 KN/m. What is the value of the maximum moment of the beam due to this load?
10,000 KN-m B. 5,000 KN-m C. 1,000 KN-m D.250 KN-m
Helical Springs
Two helical springs are connected in series and supports a load P. The upper spring has 12 turns of 25-mm-diameter wire on a mean diameter of 300 mm. the
lower spring consist of 10 turns 20-mm-diameter on a mean radius of 100 mm. Compute the load P if the shearing stress in either spring must not exceed
200 MPa. G= 83 Gpa
2992 N B. 3927 N C. 3207 N D. 4024 N
Thin Walled Cylinders
A water reservoir of 24 m/high and 12 m in diameter is to be completely filled with water. Find the minimum thickness of the reservoir plating if the stress is
limited to 50 Mpa.
24.5 mm B. 28 mm C. 21 mm D. 26 mm
DAILY TEST
The curve of a catenary by nature is

ellipse B. circular C. hyperbolic D. parabolic
A rectangle has a base of 3 cm and a height of 6 cm. What is its second moment of area in cm 4 about an axis through the center of gravity and parallel to the
base?
64 B. 34 C. 44 D. 54
An isosceles triangle has a 10 cm base and a 10 cm altitude. Determine the moment of inertia of the triangular area relative to a line parallel to its base and
through the upper vertex in cm4
2750 B. 3025 C. 2500 D. 2273
A street wire is 6 m long hanging vertically supports a load of 2000 N. Neglecting th e weight of the wire, determine the required diameter if the stress
is not to exceed 140 MPa and the total elongation is not to exceed 4 mm. E = 200000 MPa.
3.4 mm B. 4.4 mm C. 4.26 mm D. 5.4 mm
A 6-inch rivet undergoes sheer force of 875 lbs. The stress of the rivet is
61.9 psi B. 30.95 psi C. 92.31 psi D. 41.23 psi
The type of loading where fatigue failure occurs
High load B. repeated load C. plane load D. static load
A 6 foot diameter bar experiences a torque of 200 ft-lbf. What is the maximum shear stress in the bar?
2.2 lbf/ft2 B. 2.5 lbf/ft2 C. 3.9 lbf/ft2 D. 4.7 lbf/ft2
What is the length of the shortest 2-mm-diameter bronze wire which can be twisted through three complete turns with exceeding a shearing stress of 80 MPa.
Use G=35 GPa
7532.7 mm B. 8243.4 mm C. 6280 mm D. 8958.6 mm
The moment curve for a simple beam with a concentrated load at midspan takes the shape of a
Triangle B. semicircle C. semiellipse D. parabola
Determine the maximum elongation in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20 mm diameter wire on a mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is
supporting a load of 2KN. Use Wahl’s formula and G=53 GPa
12 mm B. 0.12 mm C. 1.2 mm D. none of these
A single bell used to lap joint two steel bars together. Tensile force in the bar is 80,000 N. Determine the diameter of the bolt required if the allowable shearing
stress is 70 MPa.
20 mm B. 17 mm C. 19 mm D. 28 mm
A cylindrical pressure vessel fabricated from steel plates having a thickness of 20 mm. the diameter and length of pressure v essel are 500 mm and 3 m,
respectively. What is the maximum internal pressure that can be applied if the stress in steel is limited to 140 MPa?
11.2 MPa B. 22.4 MPa C. 5.6 MPa D. 9.6 MPa
BRINGHOME EXAM
“A genius is somebody a computer cannot programme.”
Taban Lo Liyong (1938 -)
Sudanese poet, novelist, and short-story writer.
A cable weighing 60 N/m is suspended between two supports on the same level at 300 m apart. The sag is 60 m. compute the distance of the lowest point of
the cable from the ground level.
205.5 m B. 196.8 m C. 200.5 m D. 188.2 m
A circle has a diameter of 20 cm. Determine the moment of inertia of the circular area relative to the axis perpendicular to the area through the center of the
circle in cm4.
64 B. 34 C. 44 D. 54
The moment of inertia of any plane figure can be expressed in units of length to the
Second power B. third power C. first power D. fourth power
A hole is to be punched out of a plate having an ultimate shearing stress of 300 MPs if the compressive stress in the punch is limited to 400 MPa, determine the
maximum thickness of plate from which a hole 100 mm in diameter can be punched
10 mm B. 23.5 m C. 26.22 mm D. 33.3 mm
A solid steel shaft 2.5 m long is to transmit a torque T=27 kN -m. The shear modulus at the material is 83 Gpa and the allowable shearing stress is 70 MPa.
Calculate the required shaft diameter.
95 mm B. 100 mm C. 120 mm D. 125 mm
From the data in problem 5, calculate the angle of twist between the two ends of the shaft.
1450ᵒ B. 1944ᵒ C. 2456ᵒ D. 3005ᵒ
Find the diameter of a steel shaft which will be used to operate a 110 kW motor rotating at 5 rps if the distance between bearings is 1.2 m. Assume torsional
stress to be 90 MPa.
56.3 mm B. 45.2 mm C. 57.9 mm D. 49.2 mm
The highest point on the stress-strain curve is
ultimate strength B. yield strength C. rupture point D. proportional
The inner surface of form of concrete are oiled
to prevent rusting C. to make removal of forms easier
to prevent honeycombing used D. when a stiff concrete mixture is being used
Of the following solid shaft diameters, which is the smallest that can be used for the rotor of a 6 horsepower motor operating at 3500 rpm, if the maximum shear
stress for the shaft is 8500 psi?
A. 5/16 in B. 3/8 in C. ½ in D. 1 in
11. Stress that acts tangent to surface of cylinder is
A. longitudinal B. bearing C. tangential D. shear stress
12. A shearing stress that acts on a body affects its
A. width B. length C. volume D. shape
13. The slenderness ratio of a column is generally defined as the ratio to its
A. length to its minimum width
B. unsupported length to its maximum radius of gyration
C. unsupported length to its least radius of gyration
D. unsupported length to its minimum cross sectional area
14. Structural steel elements subjected to torsion develop
A. tensile stress B. comprehensive stress C. shearing stress D. bending stress
15. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of the
A. unit lateral deformation to the unit longitudinal deformation
B. unit stress to unit strain
C. elastic limit to proportional limit
D. shear strain to comprehensive strain
16. The modulus of rigidity of a steel member is
A. a function of length and depth
B. defined as the unit shear stress divided by the unit shear deformation
C. equal to the modulus of elasticity divided by one plus Poisson’s ratio
D. defined as the length divided by the moment of inertia
17. What can be the maximum load be on the column, if the cross-sectional area is 144 ft2 and the compressive stress cannot exceed 200 lbf/ft2?
A. 20 kips B. 22 kips C. 26.8 kips D. 30 kips
18. A copper column of annular cross section has an outer diameter of 15 feet and is subjected to a force of 45 kips. The allowable comprehensive stress is 300
lbf/ft2. What should be the wall thickness?
A. 3 ft B. 3.52 ft C. 4.59 ft D. 5.03 ft
19. What can be the maximum load be on the column, if the cross-sectional area is 144 ft2 and the comprehensive stress cannot exceed 200 lbf/ft2?
A. 20 kips B. 22 kips C. 28.8 kips D. 30 kips
20. A copper column of annular cross section has an outer diameter of 15 feet and is subjected to a force of 45 kips. The allowable compressive stress is 300lbf/ft2.
What should be the wall thickness?
A. 3 ft B. 3.52 ft C. 4.59 ft D. 5.03 ft
21. In a test specimen under stress, the magnitude of the stress when the specimen breaks is the
A. ultimate strength B. rupture strength C. yield strength D. elastic limit
22. A steel cylindrical pressure vessel is subjected to a pressure of 21 MPa. Its outer diameter is 4.6m and its wall thickness is 200 mm. The maximum principal
stress in the vessel is most nearly
A. 183 MPa B. 221 MPa C. 362 MPa D. 432 MPa
23. A beam of length L is carrying a uniformly varying load, zero on the left end and W N/m on the right end. If the supports are on both ends, determine the reaction
on the left end.
A. 2WL/3 B. WL/3 C. WL/6 D. 3WL/4
24. The term bond, as used in connection with brick work refers to the:
A. adhesion of mortar to brick C. metal anchors used to tie beams to walls
B. arrangement of the bricks within the wall D. ties used to hold the brick to the backing
25. A steel cylindrical pressure vessel is subjected to a pressure of 21 MPa. Its outer diameter is 4.6m and its wall thickness is 200 mm. The maximum principal
stress in the vessel is most nearly
A. 183 MPa B. 221 MPa C. 362 MPa D. 432 MPa
26. Holes with diameter of 2.5cm are punched on a steel plate whose ultimate shearing is 4245 kg/cm2. If the hydraulic press used has a maximum force of 200 MT,
the thickness of the plate should not exceed
A2 cm B. 3 cm C. 5 cm D. 6 cm
27. A simply supported beam is 5 meters in length. It carries uniformly distributed load including its own weight of 300N/m and a concentrated load of 100N, 2 meters
from the left end. Fine the reaction of the left side of the beam.
A. 810 N B. 700 N C. 810 kN D. 700 kN
28. A particle is thrown vertically upward from the edge A of a ditch. If the initial velocity is 4m/s, and the particle is known to hit the bottom, B, of the ditch exactly 6
seconds after it was released at A, determine the depth of this ditch. Neglect air resistance.
A. 24.0 m B. 152.6 m C. 200 m D. 176.6 m
29. A girl on a swing v aries in height from 60 cm above the ground to 180cm. The girl’s greatest velocity is
A. 1.5 m/s B. 24 m/s C. 4.8 m/s D. dependent on her mass
30. A 70kg man stands on a spring scale in an elevator. During the first two seconds, starting from rest, the scale reads 80kg. Find the velocity of the elevator at the
end of 2 seconds and the tension in the supporting cable for the elevator during the acceleration period. The total weight of the elevator, man and the scale is 7000N.
A. 1.2 m/s, 7000 N B. 2.8 m/s, 8000 N C. 3.2 m/s, 9000 N D. 4.1 m/s, 9500 N
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ENGINEERING ECONOMICS 1
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Simple Interest
Annie buys a television set from a merchant who ask P 1,250 at the end of 60 days. Annie wishes to pay immediately and the merchant offers to compute the cash
price on the assumption that money is worth 8% simple interest. What is the cash price?
P 1,233.55 B. P 1,244.66 C. P 1,323.66 D. P 1,392.67
A man borrowed P 20,000 from a local commercial bank which has a simple interest of 16% but the interest is to be deducted from the loan at the time that the
money was borrowed and the loan is payable at the end of one year. How much is the actual rate of interest?
A. 12% B. 14% C. 10% D. 19%
Compound Interest
The effective rate of 14% compounded semi-annually is

A. 14.49% B. 12.36% C. 14.94% D. 14.88%
A deposit of P1000 is made in a bank account that pays 8% interest compounded annually. Approximately how much money will be in the account after ten years?
A. P 1925.00 B. P 1860.00 C. P 2315.00 D. P 2160.00
Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% account that yields 9.84% annually. Find how often the interest is compounded?
A. daily B. monthly C. bi-monthly D. quarterly
How long (in years) will it take money to quadruple if it earns 7% compounded semi-annually?
A. 20.15 B. 33.15 C. 40.30 D. 26.30
P 1500.00 was deposited in a bank account 20 years ago. Today it is worth P 3000.00. Interest is paid semi-annually. Determine the interest paid on this account.
A. 3% B. 2.9% C. 3.5% D. 4%
Alexander Michael owes P 25,000.00 due in 1 year and P 75,000.00 due in 4 years. He agrees to pay P 50,000.00 today and the balance in 2 years. How much must
he pay at the end of two years if money is worth 5% compounded semi-annually?
A. P 36,025.28 B. P 35,021.25 C. P 30,500.55 D. P 39,021.18
If the nominal interest rate is 3% , how much is P 5,000.00 worth in 10 years in a continuously compounded account?
A. P 7,500.00 B. P 6,750.00 C. P 6,350.00 D. P 39,021.28
Annuity
The sum of P 1,000.00 was deposited in a fund at the end of each year for eight consecutive years and earned an interest of 6% . What amount will be in the fund
immediately after the last deposit was made?
A. P 8,800.25 B. P9,897.47 C. P9,500.00 D. P8,000.00
How much money must you invest today in order to withdraw P 1,000 per year for 10 years if the interest rate is 12% ?
A. P4800 B. P5650 C. P5808 D. P6145
What is the accumulated amount of five year annuity paying P 6,000 at the end of each year, with interest at 15% compounded annually?
A. P 40,454.29 B. P 41,114.29 C. P 41,454.29 D. P 40,544.29
A debt of P 10,000 with 10% interest compounded semi-annually is to be amortized by semi-annual payment over the next five years. The first due in 6 months.
Determine the semi-annual payments.
A. P 1,200.00 B. P 1,295.05 C. P 1,193.90 D. P 1,400.45
Mr. Ayala borrows P 100,000 at 10% effective annual interest. He must pay back the loan over 30 years with uniform monthly payments due on the first day of each
month. What does Mr. Ayala pay each month?
A. P 870.00 B. P 846.00 C. P 878.00 D. P 839.00
A parent on the day the child is born wishes to determine what lump sum would have to be paid into an account bearing interest at 5% compounded annually, in
order to withdraw P 20,000 each on the child’s 18th , 19th, 20th and 21st birthdays. How much is the lump sum amount?
A. P 35,941.73 B. P 33,941.73 C. P 30,941.73 D. P 25,941.73
A man purchased on monthly installment a P 100,000.00 worth of land. The interest rate is 12% per year compounded quarterly and payable in 20 years. What is the
monthly amortization?
A. P 1101.00 B. P1121.01 C. P 1152.15 D. P 1128.12
Find the present value in pesos, of a perpetuity of P 15,000 payable semi-annualy if money is worth 6% compounded quarterly.
A. P 372,537 B. P 374,977 C. P 373,767 D. P 371,287
What present sum would be neede to provide for an annual end-of-year payment of P1500 each, forever? I= 8%
A. P 18,750 B. P 12,000 C. P 13,750 D. P 15,000
Gradient
The maintenance cost for a sewing machine this year is expected to be P 500. The cost will increase P 50 each year for the subsequent 9 years. The interest rate is
8% compounded annually. What is the approximate present worth of maintenance for the machine over the full 10-year period?
A. P 4,700 B. P 5,300 C. P 4,300 D. P 5,500
How much do you need to invest in equal annual amounts for the next 10 years if you want to withdraw P 5,000 at the end of the eleventh year and increase the
annual withdrawal by P1,000 each year thereafter until year 25? The interest rate is 6% compounded annually.
A. P20,000 B. P106,117 C. P8,054 D. P5,000
DAILY TEST
A market vendor sold 100 eggs, 80 of them were sold at a profit of 30% while the rest were sold at a loss of 40% . What is the percentage loss or gain on the whole
stock?
A. 20% gain B. 20% loss C. 16% gain D. 16% loss
The marked price of a chair is x pesos, 30% of this price is profit. If the chair is sold at a discount of 20% , what would be the net profit?
A. 10% B. 20% C. 30% D. 40%
A deposit of P 110,000 was made for 31 days. The net interest after deducting 20% withholding tax is P 890.36. Find the rate of return of annually.
A. 11.95% B. 12.75% C. 11.75% D. 12.25%
At an interest rate of 3% , what amount of money after 10 yrs, that is compounded yearly can be obtained from a deposit of P5000.00.
A. P6720 B. P7650 C. P5670 D. P7800
How much should you put into a 10% savings account in order to have P10000 in 5 years?
A. 6209 B. 6310 C. 6390 D. 6420
What is the return on invested capital if P1000 is invested now with P500 being returned in year 4 and P1000 being returned in year 8?
A. 5.4% B. 6.6% C.7.8% D. 9.2%
A series of equal quarterly receipts of Php1,000 extends over a period of 5 years. What is the present worth of his quarterly payment series at 8% interest,
compounded continuously?
A. Php16,351 B. Php16,320 C. Php15,971 D. Php18,345
What annuity over a 10 year period at 8% interest is equivalent to a present worth of P100?
A. P12 B. P13.80 C. P14.10 D. P14.90
A housewife bought a brand new washing machine costing P 12,000.00 if paid in cash. However, she can purchase it on installment basis to be paid within 5 years. If
money is worth 8% compounded annually, what is her yearly amortization if all payments are to be made at the beginning of each year?
A. P2,782.85 B. P2,400.00 C. P2,872.58 D. P2,827.58
It is desired to make an initial lump sum investment that will provide for a withdraw of P 5,000 at the end of year, P 6,000 at the end of year 2, and amounts
increasing P1,000 per year to a final P24,000 at the end of year 20. How great as initial investment will be required if it earns 5% compounded annually?
A. P100,680 B. P160,080 C. P180,060 D. none of these
BRINGHOME EXAM
“One of the most essential things you need to do for yourself is to choose a goal that is important to you. Perfection does not exist – you can always do better and
you can always grow.”
Les Brown – 1945-, American Speaker, Author, Trainer, Motivator, Lecturer
Three manufacturers of plastic are competing for market position. Company A is selling its products at less 35% and 5% (less 35/5% ); Company B at less 40% ; and
Company C at less 30% and 10% (less 30/10% ). Assuming that the price lists of these manufacturers are the same for all products; who is selling at the lowest
level?
A. Brand B B. all are equivalent C. Brand A D. Brand C
At an interest rate of 3% , what amount og money after 10 yrs, that is compounded yearly can be obtained from a deposit of P5000.00.
A. P6720 B. P7650 C. P5670 D. P7800
The interest rate not equivalent to others.
A. 2.25% quarterly B. 0.75% C. 4.5% semi-annually D. 9.5 % annually
At an interest rate of 3% , what amount of money after 10 years that is compounded continuously? The amount of money is P 5000.00 (deposited).
A. P6,750 B. P7,650 C. P5,670 D. P7,800
In how many years an investment of 100,000,000 will double its amount if interest is 7.9% .
A. 10.24 years B. 5.1 years C. 8 years D. 15.8 years
A firm borrows P 2,000 for 6 years at 8% . At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan for the amount due plus P 2,000 more for 2 years at 8% . What is the lump sum
due?
A. P5,335.00 B. P5,892.00 C. P6,035.00 D. P6,135.00
A money worth P 200,000 was deposited on January 1, 1988 at an interest rate of 24% compounded semi-annually. How much would the sum be on January 1,
19993?
A. P401,170 B. P421,170 C. P521,170 D. P621,170
Fifteen years ago P1,000.00 was deposited in a bank account, and today it is worth P2,370.00. The bank pays interest semi-annually. What was the interest rate paid
in this account?
A. 3.8% B. 4.9% C. 5.0% D. 5.8 %
A sum of P1,000 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time the principal is withdrawn. The interest accrued is left for another eight years. If the effective
annual interest rate is 5% , what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of the 16th year?
A. P706.00 B. P500.00 C. P774.00 D. P799.00
A couple is planning to finance their 5-year-old daughter’s college education. They established a college fund that earns 10% compound annually. What annual
deposit must be made from the daughter’s 5th birthday (now) to her 16th birthday to meet the future college expenses shown in the following table. Assume that
today is her 5th birthday.
Year Deposit Withdrawals
5-16 “A”
17
18 Php 25,000
19 Php 27,000
20 Php 29,000
21 Php 31,000
A. 3742 B. 4115 C. 1978 D. 3048
A man purchased on monthly installment a P100,000.00 worth of land. The interest rate is 12% nominal and payable in 20 years. What is the monthly amortization?
A. P1101.08 B. P1121.01 C. P1152.15 D. P1128.12
Mr. Cruz plans to deposit for the education of his 5 years old son, P500.00 at the end of each month for ten years at 12% annual interest compounded monthly. The
amount that will be available in two years is
A. P13000.00 B. P14500.00 C. P13500.00 D. P14000.00
A man paid 10% down payment of a P200000.00 for a house and lot and agreed to pay the balance on monthly installments for “x” years at an interest rate of 15%
compounded monthly. If the monthly installment was P42821.87, find the value of “x”.
A. 11 B. 9 C. 5 D. 7
Mr. Cruz plans to deposit for the education of his 5 years old son, P500.00 at the end of each month for ten years at 12% annual interest compounded monthly. The
amount that will be available in two years is
A. P13000.00 B. P14500.00 C. P13500.00 D. P14000.00
How much you invest today in order to withdraw P2,000 annually for ten years if the interest rate is 9% ?
A. P12,853.32 B. P12,861.37 C. P12,385.32 D. P12,835.32
A man loans P187,400 from a bank with interest at 5% compounded annually. He agrees to pay his obligations by paying 8 equal payments, the first being due at the
end of 10 years. Find the annual payments.
A. P44,982.04 B. P56,143.03 C.P62,334.62 D. P38,236.04
A company issued 50 bonds of P1,000.00 face value each, redeemable at par at the end of 15 years to accumulate the funds required for redemption. The firm
established a sinking fund consisiting of annual depositis, the interest rate of the fund being 4% . What was the principal in the fund at the end of the 12th year?
A. P35,983.00 B. PP38,378.00 C. P41,453.00 D. P37,519.00
To raise money for your business, you need to borrow P20,000.00 from a local bank. If the bank asks you to repay the loan in 5 equal annual installments of
P5,548.19, determine the bank’s annual interest rate on this loan transaction.
A. 11% B. 12% C. 11.5% D. 27.74%
A money worth P500.00 was deposited 20.15 years ago at an interest rate of 7% compounded semi-annually. How much is the sum now?
A. P200,000,000 B. P200,000,150 C. P200,000,300 D. P200,000,500
By the condition of the will. The sum of P20,000 is left to a girl to be held in trust fund by her guardian until it amounts to P50,000. When will the girl receive the
money if the fund is invested at 8% compounded quarterly?
A. 7.98 years B. 10.34 years C. 11.57 years D. 10.45 years
P25,000 is deposited in a savings account that pays 5% interest, compounded semiannually. Equal annual withdrawals are to be made from the account, beginning
one year from now and continuing forever. The maximum amount of the equal annual withdrawal is closest to
A. P625 B. P1000 C. P1250 D. P1265
The amount of money deposited 50 years ago at 8% interest that would now provide a perpetual payment of P10,000 per year is nearest to
A. P3,000 B. P8,000 C. P50,000 D. P70,000
Annual maintenance costs for a particular section of highway pavement are P2000. The placement of a new surface would reduce the annual maintenance cost to
P500 per day for the first five years and to P1000 per year for the next 5 years. The annual maintenance after 10 years would again be P2000. If maintenance
costs are the only saving, what maximum investment can be justified for the new surface? Assume interest at 4% .
A. P5,500 B. P7,170 C. P10,000 D. P10,340
A deposit of 300 was made one year ago into an account paying monthly interest. If the account now has P320.52, the affective annual interest rate is closest to
A. 7% B. 10% C. 12% D. 15%
If the effective interest rate per year is 12% , based on monthly compounding, the nominal interest rate per year is closest to
A. 8.5% B. 9.3% C. 10.0% D. 11.4%
You just deposited $1,500 into a savings account that pays 9% interest, compounded monthly. If you intend to take out $200 at the end of the first quarter, $400 at
the end of the second quarter and $800 at the end of the third quarter, what is the maximum amount that you can withdraw at the end of the 4th quarter?
A. $176 B. $184 C. $191 D. $200
The uniform annual end of year payment to repay a debt in years, with an interest rate i, is determined by multiplying the capital recovery factor by the
A. average debt B. initial debt
C. average debt plus interest D. initial debt plus interest
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FLORES CHEMICAL ENGINEERING REVIEW CENTER
Rm 306 CDC 2 Bldg. Colon corner D. Jakosalern Sts., Peri-an, Cebu City
Cell. No. 0920-640-8837 / Email : fchere_cebu@yahoo.com
CHE REVIEW June 26, 2012
ENGINEERING ECONOMICS 2
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Capitalized Cost
1. At 6% , find the capitalized cost of a bridge whose cost is P250 M and life is 20 years, if the bridge must be partially rebuilt at a cost of P100 M at the end of each
20 years.
P275.3 M B. P265.5 M C. P295.3 M D. P282.1 M
Capital Recovery Cost

2. A pump costs P50,000.00 estimated to have an economic life of 5 years with a negligible salvage value. What is the capital recovery cost if interest is 12% per
annum?
P7,870.50 B. P6,000.00 C. P13,870.00 D. P15,385.00
Comparison of Alternates
3. Two machines are being considered for the production of a part. The material cost and selling per part are P6 and P12 respectively. Assuming that all parts that
are not rejected can be sold, which machine should be selected based on expected daily profit? The investment cost is the same for both machines and can be
ignored.
Machine A Machine B
Production rate 100 parts/hour 130 parts/hour
Hours available for production 7 hours/day 6 hours/day
Operator Cost P20/hour P20/hour
Parts rejected (negligible value) 3% 10%
Machine A B. Machine B C. Either D. Neither
4. A firm needs financing assistance to buy a machine costing P100,000. Four financing plans are being considered as follows:
Option 1: Pay P110,000 in cash one year after receiving the machine
Option 2: Pay P22,750 a year for five years with the first payment made one year after delivery of unit
Option 3: Pay P13,400 a year for 10 years with the first payment made two years after receiving the unit
Option 4: Pay P50,000 in cash one year after receiving the machine, and P15,000 a year for five years with the first payment made two years after
receiving the unit
Which is the best financing plan?
Option 2 B. Option 4 C. Option 1 D. Option 3
Depreciation
A machine has an initial cost of P50,000 and a salvage value of P10,000 after 10 years. Find the book value after 5 years using straight-line depreciation.
P12,500 B. P30,000 C. P16,400 D. P22,300
ABC Corporation makes it a policy that for any new equipment purchased, the annual depreciation cost should not exceed 20% of the first cost at any time with no
salvage value. Determine the length of service life necessary if the depreciation used is the SYD method.
A. 9 years B. 10 years C. 12 years D. 19 years
A machine costing P720,000 is estimated to have a book value of P40,545.73 when retired at the end of 10 years. Depreciation cost is computed using a constant
percentage of the declining book value.
What is the annual rate of depreciation in % ?
A. 28 B. 25 C. 16 D. 30
Breakeven Analysis
Compute the number of blocks that an ice plant must be able to sell per month to break-even based on the following data:
Cost of electricity per block .....................................P20
Tax to be paid per block ...........................................P2
Real state tax ............................................................P3,500/month
Salaries and wages ................................................... P25,000/month
Others .......................................................................P12,000/month
Selling price of ice .................................................... P55/block
A. 1127 blocks B. 1232 blocks C. 1228 blocks D. 1332 blocks
The annual variable production costs for a plant operating at 70% capacity are P280,000. The sum of the annual fixed charges, overhead costs, and general
expenses is P200,000, and may be considered not to change with production rate. The total annual sales are P560,000, and the product sales at P4/kg. What is the
breakeven point in kilograms of product per year?
A. 100,000 kg/yr B. 140,000 kg/yr C. 180,000 kg/yr D. 200,000 kg/yr

Refer to problem 9, what is the breakeven point in terms of percent production capacity?
A. 40% B. 45% C. 50% D. 55%

Refer to problem 9, what is the gross annual profit at 100% production capacity?
P160,000 B. P180,000 C. P200,000 D. P220,000
Refer to problem 9, what is the net annual profit at 100% production capacity if the income tax rate is 35% of gross profit?
P120,000 B. P130,000 C. P140,000 D. P150,000
DAILY TEST
What is the future worth (at the end of year 10) of a cash flow series of 10 equal annual deposits of $2,000 if all deposits are made at the beginning of each year
starting today (year 0) at 9% annual interest? Choose the correct range.
Less than $33,118 C. Between $33,119 and $33,122
Between $33,123 and $33,124 D. Between $33,125 and $33,126
A piece of equipment has been installed at a cost of P100,000 and is expected to have a working life of 10 years with a scrap value P20,000. Calculate the
capitalized cost of the equipment based on an annual compound-interest rate of 5% .
A. P210,750 B. P220,100 C. P227,207 D. P235,120
Two options are available for painting your house. (1) oil-based painting which costs P5,000 and (2) water-based painting which costs P3,000. The estimated lives
are 10 years and 5 years respectively. For either option, there is no salvage value at the end of respective service life. Assume that you will keep and maintain the
house for 10 years. If your personal interest rate is 10% per y ear, which of the following statements is correct?
On annual basis, Option 1 will cost about P850.00
On annual basis, Option 2 is about P22.00 cheaper than Option 1
On annual basis, both options cost about the same.
On annual basis, Option 2 will cost about P820.00
A machine costs P150,000 and will be sold after eight years for P30,000. What is the depreciation value on the 5th year using “sum of the year’s digits method” of
depreciation?
P13,333 B. P15,000 C. P16,666 D. P10,000
A man bought an equipment which cost Php 524,000. Freight and installation expenses cost him Php 31,000. If the life of the equipment is 15 years, with an
estimated value of Php 120,000. Find its book value after 8 years.
Php 323,000 B. Php 244,000 C. Php 259,000 D. Php 412,000
A machine purchased for Php 45,000 had a depreciable life of 4 years. It will have an expected salvage value of Php 5,000 at the end of the depreciable life. Using
the straight line method, what is the book value at the end of the year 2?
Php 27,500.00 B. Php 35,828.00 C. Php 20,000.00 D. Php 25,000
The annual maintenance cost of a machine shop is P69,994. If the cost of making a forging is P56 per unit and its selling price is P135 per forged unit. Find the
number of units to be forged to break-even.
A. 886 units B. 885 units C. 688 units D. 668 units
8. The annual maintenance cost of a machine is P70,000. If the cost of making a forging is P56 and its selling price is P125 per forged unit. Find the number of units
to be forged to break-even.
A. 1015 units B. 985 units C. 1100 units D. 1000 units
A corporation uses a type of motor truck which costs P5,000 with life of 2 years and final salvage value of P800. How much could the corporation afford to pay for
another type of truck of the same purpose whose life is 3 years with a final salvage value of P1,000. Money is worth 4% .
P8,450.66 B. P7,164.37 C. P6,398.24 D. P9,034.56
A furnace installation A costing $12,000 with operating costs of $4,800 per year and a 10-year life is offered by one supplier, a second alternate provide the same
service with $1,000 a year lower operating costs at $25,000. Salvage value on both furnaces is $1,000. What increase in service life would be required for plan B to
warrant its selection if l = 8% ?
A. 17 years B. 20 years C. 25 years D. 30 years
BRINGHOME EXAM
“I may be wealthier than most but I still believe that real success is simply being able to put in a good day’s work... and then go to sleep knowing that you
have not - and will not - cause anything wrong to happen to anyone else.”
Charles Forte (1908 - ) British hotelier.
XYZ Corporation manufactures bookcases that it sells for P65 each. It cost XYZ P35,000 per year to operate its plant. This sum includes rent, depreciation charges
on equipment, and salary payments. If the additional cost to produce one bookcase is P50, how many cases must be sold each year for XYZ to avoid taking a loss?
A. 539 cases B. 750 cases C. 2333 cases D. 2334 cases
Steel drum manufacturer incurs a yearly fixed operating cost of P200,000. Each drum manufactured cost P160 to produce and sells P200. What is the manufacturer’s
break-even sales volume in drums per year?
A. 1250 B. 2500 C. 5000 D. 1000
3. A telephone company purchased a microwave radio equipment for P6 million, freight and installation charges amounted to 4% of the purchased price. If the
equipment will be depreciated over a period of 10 years with a salvage value of 8% , determine the depreciation cost during the 5th year using SYD.
P626,269.10 B. P622,786.07 C. P638,272.08 D. P627,989.90
The cost of equipment is P500,000 and the cost of installation is P30,000. If the salvage value is 10% of the cost of equipment at the end of 5 years, determine the
book value at the end of the fourth year. Use the straight-line method.
P155,000 B. P140,000 C. P146,000 D. P132,600
5. You want to open a savings plan for your future retirement. You are considering two options as follows:
Option 1: You deposit Php 1,000 at the end of each quarter for the first 10 yrs. At the end of 10 years, you make no further deposits, but you leave the
amount accumulated at the end of 10 years for the next 15 years.
Option 2: You do nothing for the first 10 years. Then you deposit Php 6,000 at the end of each year, for the next 15 years.
Compare the amount accumulated in Option 1 and Option 2. If your deposits or investments earn on interest rate of 6% compounded quarterly, and you chose Option
2 over Option 1, which of the following statements is correct? At the end of 25 years from now, I will accumulate
Php 7,067 more C. Php 8,523 more
Php 14,757 less D. Php 13,302 less
6. A new boiler was installed at a cost of P1.5M and projected to have zero salvage value at the end of its 10-year life. What is the capitalized cost if interest is 10%
per year?
A. P2.44M B. P6.02M C. P3.42M D. P1.02M
7. A businessman wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income from an available investment will be taxed at an average rate of 42% , what
minimum rate of return, before payment of taxes, must the invested offer to be justified?
A. 12.1% B. 10.7% C. 11.1% D. 12.7%
8. Capital means
A. money, except that consumed in the public section
B. savings
C. that which is invested
D. money, except that which is owned
9. For economic decision process in the private sector, economic calculations are made to maximize net benefits to
A. those who invest in the enterprise and assume the risk
B. the public
C. those who work as part of the enterprise
D. the creditors of the enterprise
10. What is work-in process classified as
A. an asset B. an expense C. a liability D. a revenue
11. The group of cost involve in a going activity whose total cost will remain relatively constant throughout the range of operational activity
12. Cost that have been incurred at some past date is
A. sunk costs B. fixed costs C. maintenance cost D. operation cost
13. ________ factor equals sinking fund factor plus interest rate.
A. single payment compound amount C. series present worth
B. uniform series compound amount D. capital recovery
14. Single payment compound amount factor is the reciprocal of _________.
A. single payment present worth factor C. sinking fund factor
B. capital recovery factor D. uniform series compound amount factor
15. When using net present worth calculation to compare two projects, which of the following could invalidate calculation?
A. differences in the magnitude of the project C. evaluating over different time periods
B. mutually exclusive projects D. non conventional cash flows
16. What must two investment with the same present worth and unequal lives have?
A. identical salvage values
B. identical equivalent uniform annual cash flow
C. different salvage values
D. different salvage values
17. Gross income less gross expense before deducting provision for income tax is
A. net income B. gross proceeds C. gross profit D. gross sales
18. The amount of money deducted in the profit and loss statement, although unspent, representing provision for wear and tear of assets is
A. capital recovery B. payout C. future worth D. depreciation
19. Which of the following relationships between compound interest factors is NOT correct?
A. Single payment compound amount factor and single payment present worth factor are reciprocals
B. Sinking fund factor and uniform series compound amount factor are reciprocals
C. Capital recovery factor and uniform series present worth factor are reciprocals
D. Capital recovery factor and sinking fund factor are reciprocals
20. You just received credit card applications from two different banks. The interest terms on your unpaid balance are as follows:
Bank A: 15% compounded monthly
Bank B: 14.8% compounded daily
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
The effective annual interest rate for bank A is 16.075%
The nominal interest rate for bank B is 14.8%
Bank A’s term is a better deal because you will pay less interest on your unpaid balance
The effective monthly interest rate for Bank A is 1.25%
21. John secured a home improvement loan in the amount of $ 10,000 from a local bank at an interest rate of 9% compounded monthly. He agreed to pay the loan in
60 equal monthly installments. Right after the 24th payment, John wishes to pay off the remainder of the loan in a lump sum amount. What is the payment size?
A. $ 7,473 B. $ 6,000 C. $ 6,528 D. $ 7,710
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WEEKLY EXAM 4
Engineering Mechanics, Strength of Materials, Engineering Economics & ChE Laws
your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use no. 2 only.
The weight of a transmission cable is 1.5 kg per meter distributed horizontally and carries a maximum tension of 6000 kg. If the allowable sag of the transmission
cable is 30 m, determine the horizontal distance between the electric post supporting the transmission cable.
980 m B. 745 m C. 650 m D. 588 m
A boy wishes to throw a ball over a flat roofed school house that stands 12 m wide and 7.5 m high on level ground. Assuming that the ball will leave his hand at a
height of 1.5 m above the ground, determine how far from the wall he should take his stand in order to make the ball clear the roof with least effort, that is, with
minimum in initial velocity.
4.4 m B. 2.1 m C. 7.4 m D. 8.1 m
(3-4) A ball is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 3 m/s from the window of a tall building. The ball strikes the sidewalk at the ground level 4
seconds later.
Determine the velocity with which the ball hits the ground.
24.2 m/s B. 30.1 m/s C. 36.2 m/s D. 41.2 m/s
Determine the height of the height of the window above the ground level.
62.4 m B. 66.5 m C. 69.4 m D. 72.8 m
A car starting from rest picks up at a uniform rate and passes three electric posts in succession. The posts are spaced 360 m apart along a straight road. The car
takes 10 seconds to travel from the first post to the second post and takes 6 seconds to go from second to the third post. Determine the distance from the
starting point to the first post.
60.6 m B. 64.2 m C. 68.8 m D. 73.5 m
A body takes twice as long to slide down a plane 300 to the horizontal as it would if the plane were smooth. What is the coefficient of friction?
0.433 B. 0.242 C. 0.112 D. 0.077
A 30 N box starts from rest and slides 10 m down a roof with a slope of 2 horizontal to 1 vertical and a coefficient of friction of 0.10. If the vertical distance from the
edge of the roof to the ground is 12 m, how far from the wall will the block strike the ground?
4.75 m `B. 7.89 m C. 9.22 m D. 12.45 m
An airplane that is in the process of landing touches the ground with a velocity of 250 km/h. If the total mass of the airplane and its cargo is 6000 kg, determine the
average retarding force to which the plane must be subjected in order for it to stop after travelling 150 m.
2.9 kN B. 193.0 kN C. 210.0 kN D. 96.5 kN
A rocket of mass 1 kg is placed on a horizontal surface, and the engine is ignited. The engine delivers a force equal to (0.25 + 0.5t) N, where t is time in seconds, and
the coefficient of friction between the rocket and the surface is 0.01. Determine the velocity of the rocket 7 seconds after ignition.
14.0 m/s B. 3.7 m/s C. 13.3 m/s D. 26.3 m/s
A 2000-kg pickup truck is travelling backward down a 100 incline at 80 km/hr when the driver notices through his rear-view mirror an object on the roadway. He
applies the brakes, and this results in a constant braking force of 4000 N. How long does it take the truck to stop?
11.1 s B. 74.9 s C. 2.3 s D. 13.0 s
A machine has an initial cost of P500,000 and has a life of 8 years with a salvage value of P80,000. Determine the book value after the fifth year using straight line
method of depreciation.
237,000 B. 237,500 C. 240,000 D. 236,500
A townhouse is worth P1,500,000.00 cash. If Mr. Arellano is willing to pay a downpayment of 40% , how much is his monthly amortization if money is worth 24%
compounded monthly for 5 years.
P27891 B. P26891 C. P25891 D. P24891
A block having a weight of 60 kN is placed on an inclined plane making an angle of 30% from the horizontal. If the coefficient of friction between the block and the
plane is 0.20, find the horizontal force P that could be applied to the block to cause impending motion upw ard?
52.7 kN B. 51.7 kN C. 41.7 kN D. 31.7 kN
Five weights are in geometric progression, the first being 1 kN and the common ratio being 2. They are placed on a rod whose weights maybe neglected, the first
being at a distance of 1 m from the fulcrum, the second 2 m from the fulcrum, the third 4 m, and so on, these distances being in geometric progression. How far
from the fulcrum on the other arm of the rod must one place a weight equal to the sum of the other weight, to effect a balance?
14 m B. 13 m C. 12 m D. 11 m
The maximum safe load for a horizontal beam supported at both ends varies jointly as the width and the square of the depth and inversely as the length. If a beam 75
mm wide, 200 m deep and 12 m long can safely bear a load up to 2000 kN, find the maximum safe load for a beam of the same material which is 50 mm wide,
300 mm deep and 10 m long.
2400 kN B. 3600 kN C. 4800 kN D. 1800 kN
A merchant buys a bill of goods requiring a payment of P1500 at the end of 180 days. He is offered a 5% discount if he could pay it on 30 days. What is the highest
rate which he could afford to borrow money in order to take advantage of the discount?
17.88% B. 12.63% C. 14.60% D. 11.78%
An investor borrows money from the bank and was required to pay P11,000.00 in 30 days or P11,500.00 if paid in 120 days. At what rate is the bank charging him?
32.8% B. 20.4% C. 18.2% D. 15.9%
A consortium of international communication companies contracted for the purchase and installation of fiber optic cable linking two major Asian cities at a total cost of
P960 million. The amount includes freight and installation charges at 10% of the above total contract price. If the cable depreciated over a period of 15 years
with zero salvage value, what is the depreciation charge during the 8th year using the sum of the years digits method of depreciation?
P64 million B. P23 million C. P80 million D. P76 million
No one can practice Chemical Engineering in the Philippines unless licensed by
LTO B. ChE Board C. DOST D. PIChE
The PRC accredited professional Organization for Chemical Engineers is the
Chemical Society
Phillipine Institute of Chemical Engineers
Phillipine Society of Chemical Engineers
Integrated Association of Chemists and Chemical Engineers
The person who uses an invention for profit without the permission of the inventor is known as the
impostor B. infringer C. infrator D. perpetrator
Who is the new chairman of PRC?
Leonor Tripon-Rosero C. Maria Fortuna-Ibe
Rogelio Panlasigue D. Teresita R. Manzala
Who is the chairman of the Board of Chemical Engineering?
Francisco Arellano C. Rodrigo C. Ong
Ofelia Bulaong D. Rizalino Nocon Jr
Quick ratio is defined as the ratio of quick assets to the current liabilities, sometimes this is called
acid test ratio B. debt ratio C. equity ratio D. current ratio
The uniform annual end of year payment to repay a debt in years, with an interest rate i, is determined by multiplying the capital recovery factor by the
average debt C. initial debt
average debt plus interest D. initial debt plus interest
Single payment compound amount factor is the reciprocal of
single payment present with factor B. sinking fund factor
capital recovery factor D. uniform series compound amount factor
A commercial building can be acquired at a downpayment of P500,000.00 and a yearly payment of P100,000.00 at the end of each year for a period of ten years,
starting at the end of 5 years from the date of purchase. If money is worth 12% compounded yearly, what is the cash price of the commercial building?
P765,845.00 B. P634,024.00 C. P859,082.00 D. P324,895.00
The purchaser of the tractor paid P10,000.00 cash and agreed to pay “x” pesos at the end of each 6 months for ten years. He failed to pay the first 5 payments of “x”
pesos each. At the end of the third year he desires to pay the tractor by a single payment of P53,293.00 which will cancel both his accumulated liabilities and
future liabilities. If money is worth 6% per annum compounded semi-annually, find the value of “x”.
P7000 B. P4000 C. P3000 D. P8000
A machine having a first cost has a life of 10 years and a salvage value of 6.633% of the first cost at the end of 10 years. If it has a book value of P58,914.00 at the
end of 6th year, how much is the first cost of the machine if the constant percentage of declining is used in the computation for its depreciation?
P600,000 B. P300,000 C. P1,000,000 D. P900,000
A certain equipment cost P7,000 has an economic life of “n” years. If the book value at the end of 4 years is equal to P2197.22, compute the economic life of the
equipment using the sum of the years digit method.
10 B. 16 C. 8 D. 11
A 100 kg block of ice is released at the top of a 300 incline 10 m above the ground. If the slight melting of the ice renders the surface frictionless, calculate the velocity
at the foot of the incline.
12.2 m/s B. 14.0 m/s C. 13.5 m/s D. 14.7 m/s
The speed of light is 3 E 8 m/s. How long in hours will it take the light to travel a distance of 8,550,000 miles?
45.27 B. 0.013 C. 26.25 D. 0.036
A 10 mm diameter rod is subjected to a load of 6 kN and has a length of 4 meters. The modulus of elasticity is 100 GPa. Find the resulting deformation in millimeters.
0.00306 B. 0.306 C. 0.0306 D. 3.06
A 120 V appliance that draws a current of 20 A has a power rating of ____.
48 kW B. 6 W C. 0.72 kW D. 2.4 kW
Particle “k” travels with constant tangential acceleration along a circular path of radius 10 meters. Its initial and final v elocities are 5 m/s and 40 m/s respectively. If the
distance covered by the particle during the above interval is 120 meters, then, the number of seconds that have elapsed is ____ seconds.
4 B. 16/3 C. 10 D. 5/4
Particle “k” travels with constant tangential acceleration along a circular path of radius 10 meters. Its initial and final velocities are 5 m/s and 40 m/s respectively. If the
distance covered by the particle during the above interval is 120 meters, then, the magnitude of tangential acceleration of particle “k” is ____ m/s2.
6 9/16 B. 9 C. 3/16 D. 7 3/17
Particle “k” travels with constant tangential acceleration along a circular path of radius 10 meters. Its initial and final v elocities are 5 m/s and 40 m/s respectively. If the
distance covered by the particle during the above interval is 120 meters, then, at the end of the time interval its centripetal acceleration _____ m/s 2.
160 B. 100 C. 130 D. 180
A passenger on the outer edge of a merry -go-round 7.8 m from the central pivot learns that when the merry -go-round is in steady motion, its centripetal acceleration
is 3.3 m/s2. How long does it take to make one revolution?
95 sec B. 9.5 sec C. 5.8 sec D. 2 min
The new Chemical Engineering Law in the Philippines is
RA 318 B. RA 9297 C. RA 138 D. RA 308
A car accelerates from rest for 8 minutes, then the driver shift gear and accelerates at a rate one-half of the previous for 12 minutes and attained a speed of 14 m/s.
What is the total distance travelled in reaching that speed?
9840 m B. 6550 m C. 7280 m D. 6200 m
What present sum would be needed to provide for an annual end-of-year payments of P1500 each, forever? Interest rate is 8% per year?
P18750 B. P12000 C. P13750 D. P15000
How much must you need to deposit at 6% per year compounded annually to be able to withdraw P35840 at the end of each year for 7 years?
P225,000 B. P200,000 C. P250,000 D. P275,000
Determine the outside diameter of a hollow steel tube that will carry a tensile load of 120,000 lbs at a stress of 20,000 psi. Assume the wall thickness to be 1/10 of the
outside diameter.
12.6 inches B. 2.30 inches C. 6.0 inches D. 4.60 inches
A nominal rate of 12% corresponds to an effective interest rate per annum of ______.
A. 2.30 inches C. 12.55% if compounded quarterly
12.36% if compounded semi-annually D. all of these choices
An exclusive right granted by the government for the manufacture, use, and sale of a specific product.
copyright B. trademark C. patent D. goodwill
A crate with a mass of 100 kg is pushed at a constant speed on a straight line across a rough floor with coefficient of friction 0.3. What is the work done by the force
that pushes the crate, if the crate moved by 6 meters.
A. 120 J B. 1800 J C. 130 J D. 1200 J
The highest ordinate on the stess-strain curve.
A. ultimate strength B. yield strength C. rupture point D. proportional limit
A vessel containing a liquid of density 930 kg/m3 is given a constant vertical acceleration a=4.8 m/s 2 in an upward direction. If the vessel is 1.2 m wide and 1.5 m in
breadth and the depth of the liquid is 0.9m, calculate the force on the bottom of the vessel while it is being accelerated. Assume mass of vessel is negligible.
22,000 N B. 31,000 N C. 27,000 N D. 4,000 N
A vessel containing a liquid of density 930 kg/m3 is given a constant vertical acceleration a=4.8 m/s2 in an upward direction. If the vessel is 1.2 m wide and 1.5 m in
breadth and the depth of the liquid is 0.9m, calculate the force on the bottom of the vessel when the acceleration ceases and the vessel continues to move at a
constant velocity of 6 m/s vertically upward. Assume mass of vessel is negligible.
14,800 N B. 16,200 N C. 15,700 N D. 16,800 N
A 4000-kg elevator starts from rest, accelerates uniformly to a constant speed of 2 m/s, and decelerates uniformly to a stop 20 m above its initial position. Neglecting
friction and other losses, what work was done on the elevator?
A. 785 kJ B. 1020 kJ C. 950 kJ D. 1150 kJ
Which of the following is not an essential element of a contract?
consent of the contracting parties C. declaration of the third party
cause and consideration D. subject of the contract
A car jumps across a 10-ft wide ditch with a constant velocity V 0, the ditch is 6 inch lower on the far side. What is the minimum velocity (in miles per hour) that will
keep the car from falling into the ditch?
24.5 mph B. 42.3 mph C. 38.7 mph D. 47.6 mph
An automobile being tested for accelerating power passes point A with a velocity of 5 kph and 5 seconds later passes point B, which is 300 ft distance. Compute the
final velocity at B.
116.7 kph B. 122.3 kph C. 120.5 kph D. 124.5 kph
Which does not belong to the group?
microjoule B. watts C. kilowatt-hour D. ergs
An automobile being tested for accelerating power passes point A with a velocity of 5 kph and 5 seconds later passes point B, which is 300 ft distance. Compute the
average uniform acceleration.
4.82 m/s2 B. 5.2 m/s2 C. 5.65 m/s2 D. 6.20 m/s2
A plant can produce 600 ceramic plates per working day. The direct cost for producing each plate is P25, the overhead cost is P150,000 per year and the fixed cost
is P450,000 per year. If the plant operates 300 days in a year, by how much should the plates be sold in pesos per dozen to realize a gross profit of 20% over
total production cost?
P420 B. P432 C. P456 D. P445
A plant can produce 600 ceramic plates per working day. The direct cost for producing each plate is P25, the overhead cost is P150,000 per year and the fixed cost
is P450,000 per year. The plates can be sold at P420 per dozen. How many days in a year should the plant operate to breakeven?
A P100,000 donation is repaid exactly by the same amount at the end of 8 years. If annual interest rate earned is not touched and left for another 8 years, what is the
withdrawal at the end of 16 years if the effective rate is 5% per year?
P70,541.9 B. P89,450.4 C. P84,539.1 D. P95,509.8
A ramp is inclined at 300 from the horizontal. Objects having masses of 50 kg, 75 kg and 100 kg respectively rolls down the incline from rest. Which object travelled
the farthest distance for the same time interval?
75 kg B. 50 kg C. 100 kg D. same for all three
Holes with diameter of 7.5 cm are punched on a steel plate whose ultimate shearing stress is 4245 kg/cm 2. I f the hydraulic press used has a maximum force of 200
MT, the thickness of the plate should not exceed _____.
0.5 cm B. 1.5 cm C. 2.0 cm D. 1.0 cm
Given the equation of velocity of an object in m/s as a function of time, v = 20t2 – 100t + 25, what is the acceleration of the object at 2 seconds?
-20 m/s2 B. 20 m/s2 C. 10 m/s2 D. -10 m/s2
A 1 kg object is dropped downward in the 50 m cliff with initial velocity of 20 m/s. If the air resistance is constant at 5 N , what is the velocity of the object at the time it
hit the ground?
29.7 m/s B. 38.1 m/s C. 35.2 m/s D. 42.5 m/s
What is the value of the universal gravitational constant?
6.67 E 11 m2 -kg/s2 B. 6.67 E 11 m3-kg/s2 C. 6.67 E -11 m3-kg/s2 D. 6.67 E -11 m3-kg/s2
The combination of two or more notes which gives you melodious effect on ear is known as
concord B. chords C. beats D. overtunes
Beats occur because of
reflection B. refraction C. interference D. Doppler effect
If a car is to gain momentum it must
lose inertia B. accelerate C. move rapidly D. lose weight
The brightness of a light source is called its luminous intensity, whose unit is the
candela B. lumen C. lux D. footcandle
In a vacuum the speed of the electromagnetic wave
depends on its frequency B. depends on its wavelength
C. depends on its electric and magnetic frequency D. is a universal constant
The highest frequencies are found in
X-rays B. ultraviolet light C. radio waves D. radar waves
Electromagnetic waves transport
wavelength B. frequency C. change D. energy
The ionosphere is a region of ionized gas in the upper atmosphere. The ionosphere is responsible for
the blue color of the sky B. rainbows
C. long-distance radio communications D. the ability of satellites to orbit the earth
If a shell fired from a cannon explodes in midair,
Its total momentum increases B. its total momentum decreases
Its total kinetic energy increases D. its total kinetic energy decreases
What never changes when two or more objects collide is
A. the momentum of each one B. the kinetic energy of each one
C. the total momentum of all the objects D. the total kinetic energy of all the objects
The acceleration of an object undergoing uniform circular motion is constant in
magnitude only B. direction only
both magnitude and direction D. neither magnitude nor direction
The centripetal force on a car rounding a curve is provided by
gravity B. friction between its tires and the road
C. the torque applied to its steering wheel D. its brakes
The radius of the path of an object in uniform circular motion is doubled. The centripetal force needed if its speed remains the same is
Half as great as before B. the same as before
C. twice as great as before D. four times as great as before
The centripetal force needed to keep the earth in orbit is provided by
Inertia B. its rotation on its axis
C. the gravitational pull of the sun D. the gravitational pull of the moon
The shape of the earth is closest to that of
A. a perfect sphere B. an egg C. a football D. a grapefruit
Additional cost which results from increasing the output of a system by one or more units is
A. incremental cost B. variable cost C. fixed cost D. indirect cost
Cost that are repetitive and occur when an organization produces similar goods or service on a continuing basis
A. direct cost B. recurring cost C. non recurring cost D. indirect cost
Cost that are difficult to attribute or allocate to a specific output or with activity is
Direct cost B. variable cost C. fixed cost D. indirect cost
Cost that have been incurred at some past date
Sunk costs B. fixed costs C. maintenance cost D. operation cost
Anything of value possessed by an enterprise, which consist of properties and the right to the property, tangible or intangible, which maybe used for the payment of
debts.
Assets B. prepaid expense C. equities D. annualties
Form of summary of assets, liabilities and net worth:
Balance method B. balance sheet C. break even point D. production
The worth of a property which is equal to the original cost less depreciation.
Scrap value B. face value C. earning value D. book value
An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of operating a business as co-workers of a profit:
Organization B. company C. partnership D. corporation
The length of time, usually in years, for the comulative net annual profit to equal the initial investment is called
Receivable turnover B. return on investment C. price earning ratio D. pay back period
Liquid assets such as cash and other assets that can be converted quickly into cash, such as accounts receivables, and merchandise are called:
Current assets B. fixed assets C. total assets D. land and buildings
Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not considered intelligent
A. dead person B. senior citizen C. demented persons D. minors
Cost of things that are neither labor or materials:
A. labor cost B. construction cost C. investment D. expenses
------------------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS----------------------------------------------------------
INITIAL PREBOARD EXAMINATION

Day 3 – General Engineering & ChE Laws (30%)
SET A
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of
An open box is to be made of a piece of cardboard 10cm x 16cm cutting equal shares out of the corners and turning up the edges to form sides. Determine the
maximum capacity of the box.
A. 186 cu. cm B. 200 cu. cm C. 100 cu. cm D. 144 cu. cm
A rectangular box with a square base is to have a capacity of 27 cu. in. Determine the least amount of material required
A. 16 B. 54 C. 32 D. 72
The differential equation (x 2+4xy+y2)dx-xydy = 0 is
A. variable separable B. homogeneous C. exact D. linear
𝑑𝑦 2𝑦
The integrating factor for the d.e. 𝑑𝑥 − 𝑥 = 0 is
A. x 2 B. y 2 C. x -2 D. y -2
Assume that the rate of change of air pressure with altitude is proportional to the air pressure. If the air pressure on the ground is 14.7 psi and if at an altitude of
10,000 ft it is 10.1 psi. Find the air pressure at an altitude of 15,000 ft.
At 1:00 PM, a thermometer reading 700F is taken outside where the air temperature is 100F. At 1:02 PM, the reading is 260F. At 1:05 PM, the thermometer reading is
taken back indoors where the air is at 700F. What is the thermometer reading at 1:09 PM?
A. 560F B. 400F C. 800F D. 200F
A curve passes through the point (1,1). Determine the absolute value of the slope of the curve at x = 25 if the differential equation of the curve is the exact equation
y 2 dx + 2xy dy = 0.
A. 1/250 B. 1/125 C. 1/5 D. 1/6
If 6000 people only will attend a basketball game at an admission price of P3.00 and if for every 5 centavos reduction in price, 200 more people will attend, what
admission price per person will give the maximum receipts?
A. P2.25 B. P2.75 C. P2.85 D. P2.90
Find the area of the largest isosceles triangle that can be drawn with equal sides 10 cm long.
A. 40 cm2 B. 50 cm2 C. 60 cm2 D. 70 cm2
On a distance-time graph, a horizontal line corresponds to motion at
A. zero speed C. constant speed
increasing speed D. decreasing speed
On a distance-time graph, a straight line sloping upward to the right corresponds to motion at
zero speed C. constant speed
increasing speed D. decreasing speed
A hole is drilled to the center of the earth and a stone is dropped into it. When the stone is at the earth’s center, compared with the values at the earth’s surface.
its mass and weight are both unchanged
its mass and weight are both zero
its mass is unchanged and its weight is zero
its mass is zero and its weight is unchanged
Which of the following is false?
Kinematics is the study of the effects of motion, while kinetics is the study of the causes of motion.
The radius of gyration for a mass of uniform thickness is identical to that for a planar area of the same shape.
Angular momentum for rigid bodies may be regarded as the product of angular velocity and inertia
The acceleration of the body rotating with a constant angular velocity is zero
Single payment compound amount factor is the reciprocal of
single payment present worth factor B. sinking fund factor
A steel bridge spans a channel 2000 ft wide. What change in length would cause by change in temperature from 100F to 1300f, α = 6.5 x 10-6 per 0F.
A. 15.65 in B. 18.72 in C. 17.15 in D. 20.64 in
A projectile is launched upward from level ground at an angle of 600 with the horizontal. It has an initial velocity of 45 m/s. How long will it take before the projectile
hits the ground.
A. 4.1 s B. 5.8 s C. 7.94 s D. 9.53 s
After descending a slope, a skier coasts on level snow for 20 m before coming to a stop. If the coefficient of friction between and snow is 0.05, the skier’s speed at
the foot of the slope was
3.1 m/s B. 4.4 m/s C. 6.3 m/s D. 19.6 m/s
A drill press machine can be purchased at P100,000.00 and is expected to have a constant salvage value of P20,000.00 regardless of its age. The operating cost for
the first year is expected to be P40,000.00 and it will then increase P20,000.00 per year as a result of degrading efficiency. If the interest rate is 10% , determine
the economic service life of the drill press machine.
Determine the value of k so that the sum and product of the roots are equal from the given equation : 7x 2+(2k-1)x-3k+2=0.
0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
A vertical pole consists of two parts, each one-half of the whole pole. At a point in the horizontal plane which passes through the foot of the pole and 36 m from it, the
upper part of the pole subtend an angle whose tangent is 1/3. How high is the pole?
30 m B. 78 m C. 72 m D. 25 m
A 24 m pole is hold by three guy wires in its vertical position. Two of the guy wires are of equal length. The third wire is 5 meters longer than the other two and is
attached to the ground 11 meters farther from the foot of the pole than the two equal wires. Find the length of the third wire.
25 m B. 28 m C. 30 m D. 32 m
Given a trapezoid with a base 100 m and 160 m respectively. It is divided into two equal parts by a line parallel to the parallel lines. Find the length of the dividing line.
120 m B. 130 m C. 140 m D. 133 m
Simplify : 7a+2 -8(7)a+1 +5(7)a+49(7)a-2 .
-5a B. -3a C. -7a D. -4a
It takes Mylene twice as long as Jean to do a certain piece of work. Working together, they can finish the work in 6 hours. How long would it take Jean to do it alone?
9 hrs B. 18 hrs C. 12 hrs D. 14 hrs
A machine gun fires six bullets per second into a target. The mass of each bullet is grams, and the speed of 500 m/s. Find the average force required to hold the gun
in position.
9N B. 5N C. 3N D. 2N
A watch has a second hand which turns on the same center as the hour hand and the minute hand. At exactly three o’clock, the minute hand and the second hand
point at twelve and the hour hand at three. How many seconds will lapse when the hour hand is between the minute hand and second hand?
2.96 s B. 29.6 s C. 6.92 s D. 269.2 s
Find the angular acceleration of a rotating shaft if its angular speed increases 10 rpm to 200 rpm in 30 seconds.
0.66 rad/s2 B. 0.74 rad/s2 C. 0.78 rad/s2 D. 0.81 rad/s2
A ray of light strikes a slab of glass (n=1.5) with an angle of incidence of 300. The angle of refraction is
19.50 B. 300 C. 350 D. 400
inverted B. virtual C. the same in size D. smaller in size
Quick ratio is defined as the ratio of quick assets to the current liabilities, sometimes this is called
acid test ratio B. debt ratio C. equity ratio D. current ratio
The study of bodies in motion without reference to the forces which cause the motion
kinetics B. dynamics C. statics D. kinematics
A car jumps across a 10-ft wide ditch with a constant velocity v. The ditch 6 inches lower on the far side. What is the minimum velocity that will keep the car from
falling into the ditch?
38.6 mph B. 28.2 mph C. 24.1 mph D. 18.9 mph
A road slopes upward so that it climbs 1.0 m for each 12 m of distance along the road. A car whose weight is 10 kN moves up the road at a constant speed of 24 m/s.
The minimum power the car’s engine develops is
1.7 kW B. 2.0 kW C. 20 kW D. 0.24 MW
A 60-lb girl and a 50-lb boy face each other on a frictionless roller skates. The girl pushes the boy, who moves away at a speed of 4.0 ft/s. The girl’s speed is
2.1 ft/s B. 3.3 ft/s C. 4.0 ft/s D. 4.8 ft/s
A loaded elevator whose total mass is 800 kg is suspended by a cable whose maximum permissible tension is 20,000 N. What is the greatest upward acceleration
possible for the elevator under these circumstances?
12.4 m/s2 B. 15.2 m/s2 C. 18.4 m/s2 D. 21.4 m/s2
A 50-kg bracelet is suspected of being gold-plated lead (density of 11g/cc) instead of pure gold (density of 19g/cc). When it is dropped into a full glass of water, 4.0 cc
of water overflows. What percentage of the bracelet is gold?
28% B. 45% C. 75% D. 88%
Ordinary mild steel ruptures when a shear stress of about 3.5E8 Pa is applied. Find the force needed to punch a 10-mm diameter hole in a steel sheet 3.0 mm thick.
25 kN B. 33 kN C. 39 kN D. 44 kN
The speed of light is 3E8 m/s. How long will it take the light to travel a distance of 8550000 miles?
0.013 s B. 45.27 s C. 26.25 s D. 0.036 s
Michelle rode her bicycle from her house to school at an average speed of 8 miles per hour. Later that day, she rode from school back home along the same route at
an average speed of 12 miles per hour. If the round trip took her 1 hour, how many miles long is the round trip?
8 B. 9 3/5 C. 10 D. 11 1/5
How many sides has a polygon if the sum of the interior angles is 25200?
12 B. 15 C. 16 D. 14
An iron anchor weighs 600 lb in air. How much force is needed to lift the anchor when it is submerged in seawater? The weight densities of iron and of seawater are
respectively 480 and 64 lb/ft3.
520 lb B. 575 lb C. 600 lb D. 620 lb
A wooden chute is being built, along which wooden crates of merchandise are to be slid down into the basement of a store. What angle with the horizontal should the
chute make if the crates are to slide down at constant speed. Coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.3.
100 B. 170 C. 240 D. 320
A small plastic box with a mass of 0.2 kg revolves uniformly in a circle on a horizontal frictionless surface. The box is attached by a horizontal cord 0.2 m long to a pin
set in a surface. If the box makes 2 revolutions per second, find the force exerted on it by the cord.
6.32 N B. 12.8 N C. 18.0 N D. 24.5 N
Determine the outside diameter of a hollow steel tube that will carry a tensile load of 500 kN at a stress of 140 MPa. Assume the wall thickness to be one-tenth of the
outside diameter.
112.4 mm B. 105.1 mm C. 98.4 mm D. 90.7 mm
In a restaurant, 100 tables had been served. Of these tables, 15 had dish A only, 20 had dish B only, 15 had dish C only, 10 had dishes A and B only, 15 had dishes
B and C only, 15 had dishes C and A only, and 10 had all three dishes. In how many tables can dishes A or C can be found?
90 B. 70 C. 80 D. 65
In what time would A, B and C together do a piece of work, if A alone could do it in 6 hours more, B alone in one hour more and C alone in twice the time?
2/3 hr B. 3/2 hr C. 3/4 hr D. 1/2 hr
In a nine-ball billiard between Efren Reyes and Francisco Bustamante, the probability that Reyes wins the rack is 0.6. Find the probability that Bustamante will be the
winner in a best of three series.
0.352 B. 0.415 C. 0.315 D. 0.375
In his motorboat, Joey can go downstream in 1 hour less time that he can go upstream the same distance. If the current is 5 kph, how fast can he travel downstream
if it takes him 3 hours to travel upstream the given distance?
Two candles are of equal length. One takes four hours to burn and the other five hours. They both light at 12:00 midnight. Assuming that each candle burns at
constant rate, at what time of the night will one of the candles be four times as long as the other?
3:45AM B. 2:45AM C. 1:45AM D. 3:15AM
If a, b and c are whole numbers, the expression a(b+c) must be even when which of the following is even?
a B. b C. b+c+1 D. b+1
A pair of running shoes, regularly priced at P75, is marked down 20% for a summer clearance sale. If sales tax of 8% is then added to the purchase price, how much
will the shoes cost?
P55.20 B. P60.00 C. P64.80 D. P74.88
In a certain high school, the number of seniors is twice the number of juniors. If 60% of the senior class and 40% of the junior class attends the last football game for
the season, what fraction of the combined junior and senior class attends the game?
60% B. 53% C. 50% D. 47%
John. Peter, Rudolf, Susie and Tony decide to set some questions for the Schools Mathematical Challenge. John thinks up twenty-five questions and circulates them
to the others. Peter not wishing to be outdone, then sets twenty -six questions. Rudolf decides he had better get cracking and produces thirty questions. Susie
sets to and comes up with thirty -nine posers, only to be beaten by Tony who produces fifty -five stunning problems. If each person takes half as long as the
previous person to set each question, and Rudolf takes one hour to set all his questions, then the total time spent setting questions is
7 hr 10 ½ min B. 11 hr 34 ½ min C. 7 hr 45 min D. 2 hr 55 min
What type of curve is generated by a point which moves in uniform circular motion about an axis, while traveling with a constant speed, v, parallel to the axis?
a cycloid B. an epicycloid C. a Spiral of Archimedes D. a helix
The vertices of a triangle have coordinates (1,2) , (4,5) and (3,2). Find the area of the triangle.
6 sq. units B. 3 sq. units C. 12 sq. units D. 16 sq. units
If there are 18 to 24 oranges in a basket, what is the minimum number of baskets that will hold 72 oranges?
3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
The total cost of producing x units of a certain appliance is P pesos, where P=22,100 + 300x + 0.08x 2. How many units will give the lowest cost per appliance?
534 B. 522 C. 512 D. 526
A 5-kg lump of clay that is moving at 10 m/s to the left strikes a 6-kg lump clay moving at 12 m/s to the right. The two lumps stick together after they collide. Find the
final speed of the composite object in m/s.
2 m/s moving to the left C. 2 m/s moving to the right
11.1 m/s moving to the left D. 11.1 m/s moving to the right
From the data in problem #59, find the kinetic energy dissipated in the collision.
250 J B. 432 J C. 22 J D. 660 J
A tennis ball dropped on the floor from a height of 100 cm rebounds to a height of 60 cm. Find the coefficient of restitution.
0.45 B. 0.54 C. 0.77 D. 0.89
A solid steel shaft 5 m long with diameter of 0.104 m is stressed to 60 MPa when twisted through 40. Determine the power that can be transmitted by the shaft at 20
rad/sec.
0.75 MW B. 1.66 MW C. 2.54 MW D. 3.55 MW
A farmer has 500 yards of fencing with which to enclose a rectangular paddock. What is the largest area he can enclose?
11,536 sq. yd. B. 10,285 sq. yd. C. 15,625 sq. yd. D. 17,320 sq. yd.
The area enclosed by the ellipse 4x 2 +9y 2=36 is revolved about the line x=3. What is the volume generated?
370.3 B. 360.1 C. 355.3 D. 365.1
The degree of the differential equation (y’’)4 = 4 + (y’’’)2.
6 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4
The order of the differential equation (y’’)4 = 1 + (y’’’)2
6 B. 3 C. 2 D.4
Solve the differential equation (6x 2+4xy+y 2)dx + (2x 2+2xy-3y2)dy=0.
2x 3+2x 2y+y2x-y3=C C. 3x 3+2x 2y+y2x-y3=C
2x 3-2x 2y+y2x-y3=C D. 2x 3+2x 2y-y 2x-y3=C
What is the solution to the differential equation (x+y)dx+(x-y)dy=0?
xy+x 2/2-y 2/2=c B. 2xy-x 2+y3=c C. xy-x 2-y2=c D. yx-x 3-y3 =c
A tank holds 500 m of brine. Brine containing 2 kg/m of salt flows into the tank at the rate of 5 m /min and the mixture kept uniform, flows at the rate of 10 m3 /min. If
3 3 3
the maximum amount of salt is found in the tank at the end of 20 minutes, what is the initial salt content of the tank?
375 kg B. 500 kg C. 750 kg D. 600 kg
A tank initially contains 50 gallons of pure water. A salt solution containing 2 pounds of salt per gallon of water is poured into the tank at a rate 3 gal/min, the mixture
is stirred and is drained out of the tank at the same rate. Find the amount of salt in the tank after 20 minutes.
100 lb B. 81.2 lb C. 69.9 lb D. 32.3 lb
Solve the homogeneous equation (x 2 +y 2)dx + 2xydy=0.
x(x 2+3y 2)=c B. x 2 (x 2+3y 2)=c C. x 2(x 2+2y2)=c D. x(x 2+2y 2)=c
|1 0 0 0|
|1 1 1 0|
|0 1 1 1|
|0 0 1 1|
1 B. 0 C. -2 D. -1
How many different four-figure numbers can be made using the digits 1, 9, 9, 1?
4 B. 6 C. 12 D. 16
A bin contains 50 bolts, 10 of which are defective. If a worker grabs 5 bolts from the bin in one grab, what is the probability that no more than 2 or 5 are bad?
about 0.5 B. about 0.75 C. about 0.9 D. about 0.95
The odds are 13 to 8 in favor of winning the first prize of a lottery. What is the probability of winning that prize?
0.691 B. 0.617 C. 0.619 D. 0.671
If 3a = 7b, then 3a2/7b2 is equal to
1 B. 7/3 C. 3/7 D. 49/9
If Q(x) is any quadratic function and f(x) is any linear function, then the number of possible solutions for Q(x) = f(x) is
0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
Hari (H), Gita (G), Irfan (I) and Saira (S) are siblings (i.e. brothers and sisters). All were born on 1st January. The age difference between any two successive siblings
(that is born one after another) is less than 3 years. Given the following facts:
Hari’s age + Gita’s age > Irfan’s age + Saira’s age
The age difference between Gita and Saira is 1 year. However, Gita is not the oldest and Saira is not the youngest.
There are no twins.
In what order were they born (oldest first) ?

HSIG B. SGHI C. IGSH D. IHSG
At what time between 8 and 9 o’clock will the minute clock coincide with the hour hand?
8:42.5 B. 8:43.2 C. 8:43.6 D. 8:43.9
What is the probability that a coin will turn up heads twice in 6 tosses of the coin?
15/64 B. 14/64 C. 13/64 D. 12/64
How many subsets of one or more elements can be formed from a set containing 12 elements?
4,096 B. 4,095 C. 4,094 D. 4,093
If the average (arithmetic mean) of 5, 6, 7, and w is 10, what is the value of w?
8 B. 13 C. 22 D. 18
The vector which represents the sum of a group of force vectors is called
magnitude B. resultant C. sum D. force polygon
A 20 ft ladder is leaning on the wall. Half-way on the ladder is a 150 lb mass. Find the reaction on the upper end of the ladder, if the distance of its lower end is 8 ft
from the wall.
32.73 ft B. 28.40 ft C. 24.21 ft D. 20.80 ft
A 250-lb block is resting on a plane inclined at an angle of 36.870 with the horizontal. Determine the required force, P, acting along the inclined plane that will prevent
the block from sliding down the plane. Assume coefficient of friction of 0.15 between contact surfaces.
100 lbs B. 110 lbs C. 150 lbs D. 120 lbs
A power of 6 kW is supplied to the motor of a crane. The motor has an efficiency of 90% . With what constant speed does the crane lift an 800 lbf weight?
0.09 m/s B. 0.32 m/s C. 0.98 m/s D. 1.52 m/s
A wood block weighing 44.75 N rests on a rough horizontal plane, the coefficient of friction being 0.40. If a bullet weighing 0.25 N is fired horizontally into the block
with a velocity of 600 m/s, how far will the block be displaced from its initial position? Assume that the bullet remains inside the block.
1.41 m B. 0.89 m C. 2.06 m D. 1.98 m
Sound cannot travel through a
vacuum B. gas C. liquid D. solid
Which of the following electromagnetic waves have the shortest wavelength?
infrared rays B. x-rays C. radio waves D. light rays
A 70-kg astronaut is floating inside a spaceship that is in a circular orbit at an altitude of 207 km above the earth, where the gravitational field intensity is 9.2 N/kg.
What is the magnitude of the force of gravity on the astronaut?
zero B. 70 N C. 50 kgf D. 644 N
In an arithmetic series, the terms of the series are equally spread out. For example, in 1 + 5 + 9 + 13 + 17, consecutive terms are 4 apart. If the first term in an
arithmetic series is 3, the last term is 136, and the sum is 1,390, what are the first 3 terms?
3, 10, 17 B. 3, 23, 43 C. 3, 691, 2136 D. 3, 139, 1251
Five skilled workers can build a wall in 20 days; 8 semi-skilled workers can build a wall in 25 days; 10 unskilled workers can build a wall in 30 days. If a team has 2
skilled, 6 semi-skilled and 5 unskilled workers, how long will it take to build a wall?
Through how many radians does the minute hand of a clock move in 45 minutes?
3/4 B. 2/3 C. 3π/4 D. 3π/2
Find the value of A between 2700 and 3600 if 2 sin2A – sin A =1.
3000 B. 3200 C. 3100 D. 3300
A force of 50 N is needed to raise a 240-N load with a pulley system. The load goes up 1 m for every 5 m of rope pulled through the pulleys. The efficiency of the
system is
48% B. 50% C. 96% D. 104%
A certain steel tape is known to be 100.000 ft long at a temperature of 700F. When the tape is at a temperature of 100F, what tape reading corresponds to a distance
of 90.000 ft? coefficient of linear expansion of steel = 6.5 E -6 / 0F
90.035 ft B. 90.000 ft C. 89.902 ft D. 89.956 ft
You bought a car by securing a loan in the amount of $20,000 from Auburn Bank at an interest rate of 9% compounded monthly. You agreed to pay off the loan in 48
equal monthly installments (each payment occurs at the end of each month). Immediately after 36th payment, you want to pay off the remainder of the loan in a
lump sum amount, what should this amount be?
less than $5,693 C. between $5,693 and $5,695
between $5,696 and $5,698 D. between $5,699 and $5,701
Determine the two equal deposits (the first deposit required now and the second deposit at the end of year 5) so that you can withdraw $1,000 at the end of each
year for the next 10 years. Assume that money can earn 10% interest, compounded annually.
$3,791 B. $3,072 C. $3,605 D. $6,145
If you want to withdraw $150 at end of every year (i.e., years 2,4,…), how much should you deposit at the end of every odd year (i.e., years 1,3,…)? Assume that the
interest rate is 20% ., compounded annually.
$150 B. $137.5 C. $125 D. $100
Which of the following investment options will maximize your future wealth at the end of 20 years? Assume any funds that remain invested will earn a nominal rate of
12% compounded monthly.
deposit $5000 now
deposit $80 at the end of each month for the first 10 years
deposit $50 at the end of each month for 20 years
deposit a lump sum amount of $15,000 at the end of year 10
-------------------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS-------------------------------------------------------
FLORES CHEMICAL ENGINEERING CENTER
SNAP EXAM 1
CHE LAWS, ENVI LAWS & GENERAL ENGINEERING CONCEPTS
The PRC Modernization Act of 2000 is referred to as
RA 9297 B. RA 8981 C. RA 8081 D. RA 8189
RA 9297 is also known as
Chemical Engineering Law of 2004 C. RA 318
Revised Chemical Engineering Law D. Chemical Engineering Law of 2005
An act creating a patent office, prescribing its powers and duties, regulating the issuance of patents, and appropriating funds therefore.
RA 165 B. RA 166 C. RA 5455 D. RA 6136
An act to provide for the registration and protection of trademarks, tradenames, and service marks, defining unfair competition and false marking and providing
remedies against the same.
RA 5455 B. RA 425 C. RA 6969 D. RA 166
An act to provide standards for food and drugs and to provide for violations of the same.
RA 1655 B. RA 166 C. RA 5455 D. RA 6136
An act prescribing incentive and guarantees to investment in the Philippines creating the Board of Investment, appropriating funds therefore and for other purposes.
RA 5455 B. RA 5186 C. RA 6969 D. RA 6136
An act to invigorate the economic growth by grabbing certain incentives and exemptions to registered export producers, export traders and service exporters.
RA 1655 B. RA 166 C. RA 5455 D. RA 6136
An act providing for the fixing of maximum selling price of essential articles or commodities and creating the price control council.
RA 6124 B. RA 425 C. RA 6969 D. RA 166
A presidential decree creating the Professional Regulation Commission and prescribing its powers and functions.
PD 233 B. PD 1081 C. PD 245 D. PD 223
It is also known as the Toxic Substances and Hazardous Nuclear Waste Control Act of 1990 I also known as ______.
RA 6969 B. RA 9669 C. RA 9696 D. RA 9669
The Chemical Engineering Law (RA 9297) was signed on ______.
May 13, 2004 B. May 11, 2004 C. May 10,2004
An act to integrate, coordinate, and intensity scientific and technological research and development and to foster invention to provide funds therefore.
RA 2068 B. RA 2067 C. RA 2607 D. RA 2670
The decree on Pollution Control issued in 1976 is
PD 894 B. PD 984 C. PD 349 D. PD 232
Also known as The Clean Air Act of the Philippines of 1999.
RA 8749 B. PD 984 C. RA 6969 D. PD 600
Ecological Solid Waste Management Act
RA 6969 B. RA 8749 C. RA 9003 D. PD 984
The new intellectual property code is
RA 165 B. RA 8293 C. PD 1856 D. EO 192
The New Intellectual Property Code took effect on
January 1, 1958 C. January 1, 1972
January 1, 1997 D. January 1, 1998
Establishment of Environmental Impact Statement and other environmental related issues.
PD 1151 B. PD 1586 C. RA 6969 D. EO 192
The Board of Chemical Engineering may inspect the facilities, faculty, equipment and other aspects related to chemical engineering program of educational institution
in coordination with
DOST B. DOE C. DECS D. CHED
The design to the dry seal that is required of chemical engineers in order to practice the profession must be authorized by
PIChE C. PRC
DOST D. Board of Chemical Engineering
Potential members of the ChE Regulatory Board are nominated by this body.
PIChE B. CHED C. DECS D. PRC
What government agency supervises the Bureau of Patents, Trademarks and Technology transfer?
DOST B. DTI C. DSWD D. DPWH
The PRC accredited professional Organization for Chemical Engineers is the
Chemical Society
Philippine Institute of Chemical Engineers
Philippine Society of Chemical Engineers
Integrated Association of Chemists and Chemical Enginners
One of the duties of the Board of Chemical Engineering is to administer the licensure examination and recommends to PRC those qualified to be granted authority to
practice chemical engineering.
true B. false
The members of the Chemical Engineering Board are not allowed to visit or evaluate schools offering chemical engineering since this tasked is mandated to the
Commission on Higher Education.
true B. false
A chemical engineer shall not accept allowances or commissions from suppliers, contractors and other entities dealing with clients or employers of the Chemical
Engineer in connection with work for which the Chemical Engineer is responsible.
absolutely true
absolutely not true
can indirectly accept
can accept if immediate superior approves
A Chemical engineer shall not disclose confidential information of the technical process to any present or former employer on which they serve.
absolutely true
absolutely not true
can disclose, if with consent of the client or employer
Chemical engineers should not accept outside employment.
absolutely true
absolutely not true
can accept, even without notifying their employers if the work is not detriment of their regular work and interest
can accept, if not detrimental to their regular work and interest and if with permission from their employer
The Board of Chemical Engineering shall complete correction of examination papers within ____ days from the last day of examination.
20 B. 15 C. 10 D. 5
Who in the Philippine Senate was the main proponent of the Chemical Engineering Law of 2004?
Ramon Magsaysay Jr B. Aquilino Pimentel C. Franklin Drilon D. Loren Legarda
The commissioner of the Professionals Regulation Commission must have executive or managerial of ______ years.
10 B. 8 C. 6 D. 5
How many persons composed the Board of Chemical Engineering?
3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9
The moral right of the copyrighted work belong to the
owner B. publisher C. author D. assigns
The period of duration of a copyright begins with the creation of the work until ______ years after the death of author.
10 B. 30 C. 20 D. 50
The person who uses an invention for profit without the permission of the inventor is known as
Impostor B. infringer C. infrator D. perpetrator
Who is the chairman of PRC?
Leonor Tripon-Rosero C. Maria Fortuna-Ibe
Rogelio Panlasigue D. Hermogenes Pobre
The new Chemical Engineering Law of 2004 shall take effect _____ days following its publication in the Official Gazette or in any major newspaper of general
circulation.
10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 30
The meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself with respect to the other to give something or to render some service.
obligation B. elements C. contract D. consent
Mark used in the sale and advertising of services of one person and distinguish them from the services of others.
trade mark B. service mark C. birth mark D. thumb mark
It protects the inventor from the illegal use of his invention.
patent B. permit C. license D. insurance
It is copying of one’s written research without acknowledging the author.
plagiarism B. infridgement C. cheating
A juridical necessity to give, to do, or not to do.
permit B. obligation C. approval
Includes individual names and surnames, firm names, devices or words used by one to identify his business, vocations or occupations.
trademark B. service mark C. trade name D. brand name
A legally binding agreement on promise to exchange goods or services.
contract B. barter C. memorandum D. pro-forma
It serves as a collective recognition by members of a profession of its responsibilities.
professional organization C. code of ethics
foundation D. corporation
The keystone of professional conduct is
honesty B. dignity C. integrity D. responsibility
Which of the following is not included in the practice of chemical engineering?
Estimation
Preparation of specification
Chemical analysis
Teaching professional chemical engineering subjects
A Chemical engineer shall not complete, sign or seal plans and specifications that are not in conformance with chemical engineering standards. If the client or
employer insists.
The Chemical Engineer shall comply with wishes of the client or employer.
The Chemical Engineer shall withdraw from further service on the subjects.
The Chemical Engineer shall notify then proper authorities and withdraw from further service on the project
An equation in which a variable appears under the radical sign.
conditional equation B. literal equation C. radical equation D. irrational equation
Two factors are considered essentially the same if
both of them are negative C. both of them are positive
one is merely the negative of the other D. one is exactly the same as the other
If the discriminant of a quadratic equation is zero, there is/are how many roots?
no roots B. two unequal real roots C. one real root D. no real roots
To find the angles of a triangle, given only the length of the sides, one would use
the law of cosines C. the law of tangents
the law of sines D. the inverse-square law
Consist of all angles except the right and straight angles.
obtuse B. oblique C. adjacent D. reflex
What is true regarding the signs of the natural functions for angles between 900 and 1800?
the tangent is positive B. the cotangent is positive
C. the cosine is negative D. the sine is negative
The point in the plane of triangle which is at equal distance from the three sides of the triangle is its
incenter B. orthocenter C. centroid D. circumcenter
Consist of all angles except the right and straight angles.
obtuse angles B. adjacent angles C. oblique angles D. reflex angles
What is the inverse natural function of the cosecant?
secant B. sine C. cosine D. tangent
Which of the following functions is positive for all x?
cos(sinx) B. tan(cosx) C. cos(tanx) D. log(tanx)
The second is the duration of radiation of what radioactive element?
magnesium B. krypton C. cesium D. platinum
When an object exerts a normal force on a surface, the force is
equal to the object’s weight B. frictional in origin
C. parallel to the surface D. perpendicular to the surface
To set an object in motion on a surface usually requires
Less force than to keep it in motion
The same force at that needed to keep it in motion
More force than to keep it in motion
Only as much force as is needed to overcome the inertia
The frictional force between two surfaces in contact does not depend on
the normal force pressing one against the other B. the area of the surfaces
C. if the surfaces are stationary or in relative motion D. whether or not a lubricant is used
Which of the following is not a unit of power?
joule-second B. watt C. Newton-meter per sec D. horsepower
An object at rest may have
velocity C. momentum
kinetic energy D. potential energy
An object in equilibrium may not have
any forces acting on it B. any torque acting on it C. velocity D. acceleration
Two ropes are used to support a stationary weight W. The tensions in the ropes must
each be W/2
each be W
have a vector sum of magnitude W
have a vector sum of magnitude greater than W
Which of the following quantities is independent of the size and shape of an object composed of a given material?
volume B. mass C. weight D. density
In order for an object to sink when placed in water, its average specific gravity (relative density) must be
less than 1 B. equal to 1
C. more than 1 D. any of the above, depending on its shape
Sound travel fastest in
air B. water C. iron D. a vacuum
Sound does not travel through
solids B. liquids C. gases D. a vacuum
Evaporation cools a liquid because
the slowest molecules tend to escape B. the fastest molecules tend to escape
C. the pressure on the liquid decreases D. the pressure on the liquid increases
When saturated air is cooled,
its relative humidity goes down B. its relative humidity goes up
C. it becomes able to take up more water vapor D. some of its water content condenses out
Which of the following describes the image of an object which is placed between the focus and the concave spherical mirror?
real, larger, inverted B. virtual, larger, not inverted
C. virtual, smaller, not inverted D. real, smaller, inverted
LASER is a device for
Producing a beam of white light
Producing a beam of monochromatic and coherent light
Producing a beam of high intensity incoherent light
Producing highly penetrating X-rays
Sky appears blue because
There is more blue color in sunlight than any other color
Short waves are scattered more than the long waves by the atmosphere
The eye is more sensitive to blue
The atmosphere absorbs long wavelengths more than short wavelengths
When the distance of a real object from a converging lens equals the focal length of the lens,
The image is virtual, erect, and larger than the object
The image is real, inverted, and larger than the object
The image is real, inverted, and the same size as the object
No image is formed
The brightness of a light source is called its luminous intensity, whose unit is
candela B. lumen C. lux D. footcandle
An object closer to the converging lens than its focal point always has an image that is
its mass increases C. its mass decreases
Its weight increases D. its weight decreases
The weight of an object
Is the quantity of matter it contains
Refers to its inertia
Is basically the same quantity as its mass but expressed in different units
Is the force with which it is attracted to the earth
The centripetal acceleration of a particle in circular motion
Is less than its tangential acceleration
Is equal to its tangential acceleration
Is more than its tangential acceleration
May be more or less than its tangential acceleration
The current through a metal conductor is proportional to the potential difference between its ends.
Coulomb’s Law B. Len’s Law C. Faraday’s Law D. Ohm’s Law
When an electric current is flowing in a conductor, heat is developed at a rate proportional to the square of the intensity of the current. The proportionality factor is the
resistance of the conductor. This relation is known as
Forier’s law B. Coulomb’s law C. Joule’s law D. Faraday’s law
The modulus of rigidity of a steel member is
A function of length and depth
Defined as the unit shear stress divided by the unit shear deformation
Equal to the modulus of elasticity divided by one plus Poisson’s ratio
Defined as the length divided by the moment of inertia
Stresses caused by forces acting parallel to the area resisting these forces are _____ stresses.
tensile B. shearing C. compression D. bearing
To obtain the deflection of beams, the method use is
conjugate beam method B. method of superposition
C. double integration method D. any of the three
Additional cost which results from increasing the output of a system by one or more units is
incremental cost B. variable cost C. fixed cost D. indirect cost
Cost that are repetitive and occur when an organization produces similar goods or service on a continuing basis
direct cost B. recurring cost C. non recurring cost D. indirect cost
Cost that are difficult to attribute or allocate to a specific output or with activity is
direct cost B. variable cost C. fixed cost D. indirect cost
The group of cost involved in a going activity whose total cost will remain relatively constant throughout the range of operational activity.
variable cost B. first cost C. fixed cost D. direct cost
Cost that have been incurred at some past date.
sunk costs B. fixed costs C. maintenance cost D. operation cost
The lessening of the value of an asset due to the decrease in the quantity available.
depletion B. depreciation C. incremental cost D. inflation
Which of the following accounts changes would be classified as a use of funds?
an increase in account payable C. a decrease in cash
a decrease in accounts receivable D. an increase in retained earnings
The excess of assets over liabilities
proprietorship B. equities C. sunk cost D. annualties
Single payment compound amount factor is the reciprocal of ____________.
single payment present worth factor C. sinking fund factor
Gross income less gross expense before deducting provision for income tax is
net income B. gross proceeds C. gross profit D. gross sales
It is also known as the amount of money paid for the use of borrowed capital.
discount B. principal C. amortization D. interest
A method of selecting alternates by the comparison of all the pertinent annual direct costs plus the capital recovery costs.
present worth method C. annual cost method
pay-out time method D. rate-of-return method
Which of the following is not a characteristic of hazardous waste?
toxicity B. flammability C. solubility D. corrosiveness
It is the spread of the substance throughout a space or throughout a second substance.
diffusion B. effusion C. osmosis D. active transport
Which of the following are major components of photochemical smog?
NOx and hydrocarbon C. ozone and oxygen
Sox and hydrocarbon D. NOx, Sox and hydrocarbon
The biological decomposition of organic matter accompanied by the production of foul smelling products in an anaerobic condition is
pollution B. dissolution C. stabilization D. putrefaction
It is formed when carbon or hydrocarbons are burned in a limited supply of oxygen.
CO B. CO2 C. coke D. coal
A comprehensive program of action adopted by governments at the United Nations Conference on Environment (also known as the Earth Summit in Rio) is
Earth Pledge C. Total Quality Environmental Management
ISO 9000 D. Agenda 21
Ozone is important to mankind because it
Releases hydrogen in the atmosphere
Maintains the temperature of the earth
Creates a protective coverage against ultraviolet rays
Releases oxygen in the air
It is the escape of gas molecules through a tiny hole into an evacuated space.
diffusion B. effusion C. osmosis D. active transport
Ozone is all of the following except
bleaching agent C. less soluble in water than oxygen
oxidizing agent D. disinfectant
The gas from sludge digestion tanks is mainly composed of
nitrogen B. carbon monoxide C. hydrogen sulfide D. methane
The substance chiefly responsible for the bright orange color of carrots.
Vitamin K B. ascorbic acid C. β-carotene D. protein
Which of the following is a colorless gas with a pungent odor?
SO 2 B. NH 3 C. NO 2 D. N 2O
Which of the following is not a property of ozone?
it is bleaching agent C. it is very unstable
it is more soluble than oxygen in water D. it does not readily reacts with other compounds
It is a key component of photochemical smog. Although it is essential in UV screen in the upper atmosphere, it is an undesirable pollutant in the troposphere.
NO B. O 3 C. NO 2 D. O 2
Laughing gas is
N 2O B. NO 2 C. N 2O5 D. N 2O 4
It refers to waste or scrap glass, usually ground.
cullet B. fluorospar C. feldspar D. glass float
A criteria pollutant responsible for the reddish brown color of smog.
NO 2 B. particulates C. CO D. SO 2
Which of the following quantities is independent of the size and shape of an object composed of a given material?
volume B. mass C. weight D. density
When equal and opposite forces are exerted on an object along different lines of action, the object is said to be under
tension B. compression C. shear D. elasticity
Ductility refers to the ability of a metal to
be deformed temporarily B. be deformed permanently
C. shrink under compression D. break under tension
When a force acts on an object, the stress on it is equal to
the relative change in dimension B. the applied force per unit area
C. Young’s modulus D. the elastic limit
Another name for the shear modulus of a material is
Young’s modulus B. modulus of rigidity C. bulk modulus D. ductility
According to Hooke’s Law, the force needed to elongate an elastic object by an amount x is proportional to
x B. 1/x C. x 2 D. 1/x 2
The speed of sound in stretched string depends on
the tension in the string B. the amplitude of the waves
C. the wavelength of the waves D. the acceleration of gravity
The higher the frequency of the wave,
the lower its speed B. the shorter its wavelength
C. the greater its amplitude D. the longer its period
Sound travels fastest in
air B. water C. iron D. a vacuum
Sound does not travel through
solids B. liquids C. gases D. a vacuum
The amplitude of a sound wave determines its
pitch B. loudness C. overtones D. resonance
Evaporation cools a liquid because
the slowest molecules tend to escape B. the fastest molecules tend to escape
C. the pressure on the liquid decreases D. the pressure on the liquid increases
When saturated air is cooled,
its relative humidity goes down B. its relative humidity goes up
C. it becomes able to take up more water vapor D. some of the water content condenses out
Which of the following describes the image of an object which is placed between the focus and the concave spherical mirror?
real, larger, inverted B. virtual, larger, not inverted
C. virtual, smaller, not inverted D. real, smaller, inverted
A vernier is a device used to
measure fractional parts of a scale division C. measure the flow of water
measure fluid pressure D. magnify objects
What type of materials usually has a higher index of refraction?
light materials C. heavier materials
denser materials D. less dense materials
On a velocity-time graph, the motion of a car traveling along a straight road with the uniform acceleration of 2 m/s 2 would appear as a
Horizontal straight line
Straight line sloping upward to the right
Straight line sloping upward to the right
Curved line whose downward slope to the right increases with time
The acceleration of a stone upward is
Greater than that of a stone thrown downward
The same as that of a stone thrown downward
Smaller than that of a stone thrown upward
Zero until it reaches the highest point in its motion
Which of the following could be associated with a vector quantity?
km/s2 B. kg/s C. hours D. m3
The minimum number of unequal force whose vector sum can equal zero is
1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
The magnitude of the resultant of two forces is a minimum when the angle between them is
0 B. 450 C. 900 D. 1800
An engine block is supported by a rope attached to an overhead beam. When the block is pulled to one side by a horizontal force exerted by another rope, the
tension in the rope hoist
is less than before
is unchanged
is greater than before
may be any of the above, depending on the magnitude of the horizontal force
Ball A is thrown horizontally, and ball B is dropped from the same height at the same moment.
Ball A reaches the ground first
Ball B reaches the ground first
Ball A has the greater speed when it reaches the ground
Ball B has the greater speed when it reaches the ground
its mass increases B. its mass decreases C. its weight increases D. its weight decreases
The weight of an object
is the quantity of matter it contains
refers to its inertia
is basically the same quantity as its mass but expressed in different units
is the force with which it is attracted to the earth
The acceleration of gravity on Mars is 3.7 m/s 2. Compared with her mass and weight on the earth, an astronaut in Mars has
less mass and less weight ` C. less mass and more weight
the same mass and less weight D. less mass and the same weight
An automobile that is towing a trailer is accelerating on a level road. The force that the automobile exerts on the trailer is
Equal to the force the trailer exerts on the automobile
Greater than the force the trailer exerts on the automobile
Equal to the force the trailer exerts on the road
Equal to the force the road exerts to the trailer
When a horse pulls a wagon, the force that causes the horse to move forward is the force
he exerts on the wagon C. the wagon exerts on him
he exerts on the ground D. the ground exerts on him
The action and reaction forces referred to in Newton’s third law of motion
Act on the same object
Act on different object
Need not be equal in magnitude and need not have the same line of action
Must be equal in magnitude but need not have the same line of action
Single payment compound factor is the reciprocal of ___________.
single payment present worth factor C. sinking fund factor
What is the reciprocal of sinking fund factor?
capital recovery factor B. uniform series compound amount factor
C. present worth factor D. single payment compound amount factor
Rentals for land, building and equipment including insurance premium.
incremental cost B. operating cost C. marginal cost D. fixed cost
Which of the following is true regarding the minimum attractive rate of return used in judging proposed investments?
It is the same for every organization
It is larger than the interest rate used to discount expected cash flow from investments
It is frequently a policy decision made by an organization’s management
It is not relevant in engineering economy studies
Which of the following does not affect owner’s equity?
dividends paid C. license to start a business
C. invested capital D. revenues
What is acid test ratio?
The ratio of owner’s equity to total current liabilities
The ratio of all assets to total liabilities
The ratio of current assets (exclusive of inventory) to total current liabilities
The ratio of the gross margin to operating, sales, and administrative expenses
____________ occurs when there are few suppliers and action taken by anyone of them will definitely affect the course of action of the others.
monopoly B. oligopoly C. perfect competition D. free market
The reciprocal of capital recovery factor is
uniform series present worth factor C. uniform series compound amount factor
sinking fund factor D. single payment present worth factor
Future worth minus present worth is
discount B. interest C. overhead cost D. depletion
The reciprocal of uniform payment series present worth factor is
sinking fund factor C. capital recovery factor
future worth factor D. single payment present worth factor
The sum of the first cost and the present worth of all costs for replacement, operation, and maintenance for a long time or forever is known as:
perpetuity B. capitalized cost C. depletion cost D. uniform cost
A distinct legal entity, separate from the individuals who own it, and which can engage in practically any business transactions which a real person could do.
corporation B. partnership C. sole proprietor D. multinationals
It is the amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a property where each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.
fair value B. salvage value C. book value D. market value
These are products or services that are desired by humans and will be purchased if money is available after the required necessities have been obtained.
utilities C. necessities
luxury D. producer goods and services
The ratio of current assets to the currents liabilities is called
quick ratio B. current ratio C. equity ratio D. debt ratio
The interest that is earned by the principal is not paid at the end of each interest period but is considered as added to the principal and therefore will also earned
interest for the succeeding periods.
ordinary simple interest B. exact simple interest C. simple interest D. compound interest
A jumper of weight w presses on the ground with a force of magnitude F and becomes airborne as a result. The magnitude of the force the ground exerted on the
jumper must have been
equal to w and less than F B. equal to w and equal to F
C. more than w and equal F D. more than w and more than F
When an object exerts a normal force on a surface, the force is
equal to the object’s weight B. frictional in origin
C. parallel to the surface D. perpendicular to the surface
To set an object in motion on a surface usually requires
Less force than to keep it in motion
The same force as that needed to keep it in motion
More force than to keep it in motion
Only as much force as is needed to overcome inertia
The frictional force between two surfaces in contact does not depend on
the normal force pressing one against the other B. the areas of the surfaces
C. if the surfaces are stationary or in relative motion D. whether or not a lubricant is used
Which of the following is not a unit of power?
joule-second B. watt C. Newton-meter per second D. horsepower
To keep a vehicle at a speed v requires a force F. The power needed is
Fv B. 0.5Fv 2 C. F/v D. F/v 2
A dropped ball loses PE as it falls. Gravity is an example of
conservative force C. nonconservative force
dissipative force D. any of the three, depending on the reference level
Which of the following relationships between compound interest factors is NOT correct?
Single payment compound amount factor and single payment present worth factor are reciprocals
Sinking fund factor and uniform series compound amount factor are reciprocals
Capital recovery factor and uniform series present worth factor are reciprocals
Capital recovery factor and sinking fund factor are reciprocals
TNT is
trinitrogentetrachloride C. dinitrogentetrachloride
tetranitrotoluene D. trinitrotoluene
Ozone, O 3, filters out large amount of the ultraviolet and other dangerous radiations from the sun. it is found in the
troposphere B. stratosphere C. thermosphere D. lithosphere
What class of freshwater supply requires complete treatment (coagulation, sedimentation, filtration, disinfection) in order to meet the National Standard for Drinking
Water?
Class AA B. Class A C. Class B D. Class C
Trace metal that causes the Minamata disease.
Hg B. Cd C. Pb D. Cu
Japanese word meaning “ouch ouch” and is caused by exposure to cadmium.
chicken pox B. itay-itay C. mud cow disease D. SARS
A type of microorganism used for monitoring the pathogenic property of water.
acidity B. hardness C. coliform D. dissolved oxygen
It is a term used to describe the over-abundance in the growth of algae in water due to the presence of excess nutrients.
eutrophication B. biodegradation C. stabilization D. decomposition
This phenomenon is described by the separation of hot and cold regions in a given stream.
eutrophication B. digestion C. thermal stratification D. decomposition
The hardness of water is expressed as g/L of?
CaO B. MgO C. CaCO 3 D. MgCO 3
The International Standards on Quality Management and Quality Service is
ISO 9000 B. ISO 18000 C. ISO 14000 D. ISO 100
----------------------------------------------------------NOTHING FOLLOWS------------------------------------------------------

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CHEMICAL

1. The total number of electrons at the fourth energy level is

A. 3,4-dimethylhexene C. 3-methyl 4-ethylpentane

21. Calculate the gravimetric factor for Fe in Fe2O 3.

40. Which of the following is NOT true of solids?

41. Which of the following is NOT true of liquids

Colligative properties of Non-Electrolytes

1. The pH of 10-4 gm hydrogen ion per liter of a solution is

Acid – Base Equilibria

7. Calculate the percent ionization of 0.05 M acetic acid. Ka = 1.8E-5

1. The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution is 5 E-6 M. Find pH.

13. The empirical formula of oxide A is

4. The volume of hydrogen gas liberated at S.T.P is

17. What is the valency of the metal?

61. The lines of color in a line spectrum from a given element

1. In benzene, what is the valence bond hybridization on each carbon atom?

198. In most fatty acids, the carbons are arranged in a

A. xylene B. benzoic acid C. aniline D. toluene

A. phenol B. toluene C. benzoic acid D. aniline

STRUCTURE AND PROPERTIES

BONDING AND MOLECULAR STRUCTURE

CHEMICAL REACTIVITY AND ORGANIC REACTIONS

15. Define an alkyl group.

21. Give two general approaches to synthesis of cycloalkanes.

23. What is stereochemistry?

31. What is the importance of the double bond in alkanes?

Ans: (a) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2Cl → CH3CH2CH2CH=CH2 a 1o alkyl halide, therefore one alkene.

ALKYNES & DIENES

40. Name the following structures below by the IUPAC system:

(a) CH 3C≡CCH3 Ans: 2-butyne

(b) Ans. 2, 2, 5-Trimethyl-3-hexyne

(c) HC≡C-CH2CH=CH 2 Ans: 1-penten-4-yne

(d) CH 3CH=CH-C≡C-C≡CH Ans: 5-hepten-1, 3-yne

Ans: 1-pentyne, 2-pentyne, 3-methyl-1-butyne

BENZENE & POLYNUCLEAR AROMATIC COMPOUNDS

43. Name the following compounds:

A. Ans. p-aminobenzoic acid

B. Ans . m-nitrobenzenesulfonic a cid

SPECTROSCOPY & STRUCTURE

Ans: (a) 10-3cm (b) 105A (c) 104nm (d) 103cm-1

(a) CH 3CH2CH2OH Ans: n-propyl alcohol, 1°

(b) Ans: sec-butyl alcohol, 2°

(c) Ans : i sobutyl a lcohol, 1°

(d) Ans : t-butyl a lcohol, 3°

CARBONYL COMPOUNDS: ALDEHYDES & KETONES

CARBOXYLIC ACIDS & T HEIR DERIVATIVES

1. Which of the following is a homogenous mixture?

76. consider the following reaction

A. xylene B. benzoic acid C. aniline D. toluene

30. Estimate Km in μmol/L.

33. The value of Vmax in mmol/L-s is

Key s tructura l features:

“Protei ns” ma y consist of a single polypeptide, or a complex of two or more polypeptides

Bacteria have a variety of shapes:

 Rounded or spherical cells - cocci (singular: coccus)

Gram Negative (e.g. Escherichia coli, Salmonella)

The "Central Dogma":

Messenger RNA (mRNA)

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

Transfer RNA (tRNA)

Small Nuclear RNAs (snRNA)

There are six classes of enzymes in the E.C. nomenclature

1. Oxidoreductases (involved in redox reactions)