CHEMICAL ENGINEERING PREBOARD EXAMINATION

Day 2: Chemical Engineering Principles

Auxesis Review Center
Republic of the Philippines

INSTRUCTIONS:
a) Choose the best answer to each question by shading the circle corresponding
to the letter of the correct answer.
b) Use number 2 pencil for shading the answers. DO NOT USE ballpoint pen.
c) Only PERRY’S CHEMICAL ENGINEERS’HANDBOOK (any edition) and the PERIODIC TABLE
OF ELEMENTS are allowed for open reference during the examination.
d) CASIO fx-991ES PLUS and all other programmable calculators are NOT ALLOWED.
Only one (1) calculator is allowed during the examination.
e) Cellphones or any similar devices are STRICTLY PROHIBITED at any time during
the examination.
f) Any reference mentioned in(c)with any kind of side notes written on or
inserted to it as found by the watcher before and during the examination
shall be immediately CONFISCATED.
g) Failure to conform to (e) and (f) shall automatically result to
DISQUALIFICATION of the examinee to continue with the examination.

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1. The function of transducer is

a. Modify the input signal
b. Convert the primary signal into more useful quantity
c. Amplify the input signal
d. Codify or decodify the input signal

2. Which of the following metals is used as catalyst for the Haber-Bosch

process of producing ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen gas?
a. Titanium c. Nickel
b. Iron d. Copper

3. Reaction conversion increases with an increase in temperature in the

case of which reaction?
a. Reversible endothermic c. Irreversible
b. Reversible exothermic d. Autocatalytic

4. What is the simplest type of control commonly expressed as having on/off

position action?
a. Integral c. Bang-Bang
b. Manual d. Input-Output

5. Which among the following is not an advantage of using a falling film

evaporator?
a. Large heating surface area
b. High resistance to scaling liquids
c. Good heat-transfer coefficients
d. Relatively low cost

6. Fugacity and pressure are numerically equal when a gas is:

a. In standard state c. At high temperature
b. At high pressure d. An ideal gas

7. Lee/Kesler correlation is only applicable for the following compound

a. polar and slightly polar c. polar only
b. non-polar and slightly polar d. non-polar only
8. It is a liquid that does not flow at all until a threshold shear stress
is attained.
a. Bingham plastic c. Pseudoplastic
b. Dilatant fluid d. Rheopectic fluid

9. This is the measure of a material’s ability to radiate absorbed energy.

a. Emissivity c. Absorptivity
b. Heat capacity d. Transmissivity

10. In feedback control system for temperature control, a thermocouple

measures the temperature and the output is fed to a controller. What
results when one of the components known as a comparator compares a
measured temperature value with desired value or set point?
a. Deviation c. Oscillation
b. Error d. Feedback

11. This phenomenon occurs in a fluid flow system when the local static
pressure drops below the vapor pressure of the liquid at the existing
temperature, resulting to damage to pumps and control valves from the
formation of “bubbles” or voids.
a. Cavitation c. Flashing
b. Choked flow d. Water hammering

12. In agitation, which among the following will not prevent swirling or the
formation of a vortex?
a. Installing baffles in the tank
b. Increasing the distance of the impeller from the base of the tank
c. Mounting the mixer in an angular off-center position
d. Offsetting the mixer horizontally on the x-axis

13. Heat capacity is defined as C=dQ/dT. What is the difficulty about the
relationship of C to Q which are supposedly state functions?
a. Small temperature changes have smaller capacities
b. It is a process-dependent quantity
c. Not an intensive property
d. It presents heat as energy in transit

14. It is a membrane separation process where a component from a heated

liquid phase permeates through the membrane and is removed under low
pressure.
a. Reverse osmosis c. Pervaporation
b. Ion exchange d. Electrodialysis

15. Other name for Yamatake system

a. android c. windows
b. azbil d. Simantic PCS7

16. In a packed column, channeling is prevented by which of the following

equipment?
a. Column sump c. Nozzles
b. Liquid distributor d. Raschig rings

17. A type of Portland cement that contains tricalcium silicate and dicalcium
silicate.
a. Low Heat Cement c. Normal Cement
b. Moderate Sulfate Resistance d. Normal, Air-Entraining Cement

18. It is the animal fixative that comes from deers.

a. Musk c. Castor
b. Ambergis d. Zibata
19. Other term for earthwax
a. Lanolin c. Tallow
b. Ozocerite d. Ambergis

20. A good general reference on the art of problem solving is his classical
work
a. Polya c. Casey
b. Chaddock d. Chittenden

21. A feasible design

a. Plausible c. Probable
b. Possible d. Best

22. It is the first stage in the anatomy of a chemical manufacturing plant.

a. Feed Preparation c. Reactor
b. Product Separation d. Raw Material Storage

23. Which of the following is the Dow process?

a. Conversion of nickel oxide to pure nickel
b. Production of steel from molten pig iron
c. Refining of bauxite ore to produce aluminum oxide
d. Extraction of bromine from brine

24. Also known as design factor

a. Corrosion Factor c. Pressure Factor
b. Safety Factor d. Optimum Factor

25. Skirt supports are most suitable for:

a. Thick-walled vertical vessels c. Horizontal vessels
b. Thin spherical vessels d. Tall vertical vessels

26. The work done in a free expansion process is __________.

a. Negative c. Positive
b. Zero d. Maximum

27. What is the measure of wall thickness of tubing considering that there
is no clear-cut distinction between pipe and tubing?
a. Schedule Number c. Birmingham Wire Gauge
b. Nominal Diameter d. Nominal pipe size

28. Which among the following is most suitable for very high-pressure gas
phase reactions?
a. Batch reactor c. Tubular flow reactor
b. Fluidized bed reactor d. Stirred tank reactor

29. A disturbance which is externally applied to the system.

a. Impedance c. Perturbations
b. Output Disturbance d. Oscillation

30. For a zero-order reaction, the ratio of the volume of a backmix reactor
to the volume of a plugflow reactor, for the same reactant conversion
and conditions, is:
a. 0 c. Between 0 to 1
b. 1 d. Greater than 1

31. A substance which can be readily converted into dye or other colored
compound.
a. anlagen c. goitrogen
b. acrogen d. chromogen
32. The primary consideration in the selection of a dryer is:
a. Bulk density of the product
b. Site of the proposed installation
c. Whether the drying process is batch or continuous
d. Physical properties of the material to be dried

33. A product of alumina and silica at high temperature.

a. cement c. kaolinite
b. bentonite d. illite

34. Which among the following is not an exothermic process?

a. Methanol synthesis c. Oxidation of sulfur
b. Catalytic cracking d. Ammonia synthesis

35. Sulphur addition in soap is done to

a. Improve the soap texture c. Increase its cleansing action
b. Fasten lather formation d. Cure pimples and acne

36. It is most efficient process for hydrogen gas production which emits
less amount of carbon.
a. Steam reforming c. Coal gasification
b. Electrolysis d. Thermal decomposition

37. What optimization technique is commonly used in chemical process project

design where the problem is to decide the optimum utilization of
resources?
a. Dynamic c. Linear Programming
b. Cost-value d. Step-wise

For numbers 38 to 40:

A 0.50 M aqueous solution of sulfuric acid flows into a process unit at
a rate of 1.25 m3/min. The specific gravity of the solution is 1.03.
Calculate the following:

38. The mass concentration of H2SO4 in kg/m3

a. 15 c. 36
b. 22 d. 49

39. The mass flowrate of H2SO4 in kg/s

a. 3 c. 1
b. 2 d. 4

40. The mass fraction of H2SO4

a. 0.03 c. 0.01
b. 0.05 d. 0.07

For numbers 41 to 43:

0.216 kg/s of a solid containing 4% water is produced in a dryer from a
wet feed containing 42% water on a wet basis. Ambient air at 294 K and
of 40% relative humidity is heated to 366 K in a preheater before
entering the dryer from which it leaves at 60% relative humidity.
Assuming that the dryer operates adiabatically, calculate the following

41. The flowrate of the air to the preheater

a. 3.2 m3/s c. 4.9 m3/s
b. 5.5 m /s
3 d. 1.8 m3/s

42. The heat must be added to the preheater

a. 104 kW c. 276 kW
b. 326 kW d. 458 kW
43. How will the value be affected if the air enters the dryer at 340 K and
sufficient is supplied within the dryer so that the air gain leaves at
340 K with a relative humidity of 60%?
a. 50 kW c. 19 kW
b. 31 kW d. 77 kW

For numbers 44 to 46:

Calculate the degrees of freedom from the phase rule for the following
materials at equilibrium

44. A mixture of ice and water only

a. zero c. two
b. one d. three

45. A mixture of liquid benzene, benzene vapor, and helium gas

a. zero c. two
b. one d. three

46. A mixture of salt and water designed to achieve a specific vapor

pressure.
a. zero c. two
b. one d. three

For numbers 47 to 49:

Autumn air in the deserts at the southwestern United States during the
day will typically be moderately hot and dry. If a dry bulb temperature
of 270C and a wet bulb temperature of 170C is measure for the air noon:

47. What is the dew point?

a. 100C c. 140C
b. 120C d. 160C

48. What is the percent humidity?

a. 26% c. 38%
b. 50% d. 45%

49. How is the humidity?

a. 0.88 c. 0.66
b. 0.50 d. 0.79

For numbers 50 to 52:

Antimony is obtained by heating pulverized stibnite with scrap iron and
drawing off the molten antimony from the bottom of the reaction vessel
Sb2S3 + 3Fe  2Sb + 3FeS
Suppose that 0.6 kg of stibnite and 0.25 kg of iron turnings are held
together to give 0.20 kg of Sb metal. Determine

50. The limiting reactant.

a. Sb c. Fe
b. Sb2S3 d. FeS

51. The percentage of the excess reactant.

a. 18% c. 26%
b. 35% d. 49%

52. The degree of completion of the reaction.

a. 0.88 c. 0.77
b. 0.66 d. 0.55
 For numbers 53 to 55:
Oil of viscosity of 10 mNs/m2 and specific gravity of 0.90, flows through
60 m and 100 mm diameter and pressure drop is 13.8 kN/m2. A second oil
of viscosity of 30 mNs/m2 and specific gravity 0.95 flowing flows at the
same rate through the pipe. Assume the pipe wall to be smooth, calculate
the following:

53. Velocity of the oil

a. 2.8 ft/s c. 1.3 ft/s
b. 3.6 ft/s d. 0.7 ft/s

54. The Reynold number of the second oil

a. 4200 c. 12000
b. 11000 d. 3600

55. The pressure drop of the second oil

a. 26 kPa c. 19 kPa
b. 30 kPa d. 42 kPa

For numbers 56 to 58:

Hot air that is used to dry pharmaceuticals is recycled in a closed loop
to prevent the contamination of the moist material from atmospheric
impurities. In the first conditioning step for air, 5000 kgmol/hr at 105
kPa and 420C with a 90% relative humidity are fed to a condenser to
remove some of the water picked up previously in the process. The air
exits the condenser at 170C and 100 kPa containing 91 kgmol/hr of water
vapor. Next the air is then heated in a heat exchanger to 900C, and then
goes to the dryer. By the time the air enters the dryer, the pressure
of the stream has dropped to 95 kPa and the temperature is 820C.

56. What is the flowrate of the condensate water in kg/hr?

a. 7200 kg/hr c. 4600 kg/hr
b. 9700 kg/hr d. 6900 kg/hr

57. What is the dew point of the air in the stream exiting the condenser?
a. 170C c. 270C
b. 22 C
0 d. 140C

58. What is the dew point of the air in the stream entering the dryer?
a. 170C c. 270C
b. 22 C
0 d. 140C

For numbers 59 to 61:

A solution of organic colloids is to be concentrated from 20 to 65% wt
solids in an evaporator. Saturated steam is available at 172 kPa abs and
the pressure in the condenser is 30 cm Hg vacuum. The feed enters at
250C and its specific heat is 4 J/g-0C. The solution has a negligible
elevation in boiling point. The overall heat transfer coefficient is
1000 W/m2-0C and the evaporator must evaporate 9000 kg/hr. Determine the
following:

59. The steam requirement, in kg/h

a. 12600 c. 10800
b. 13500 d. 11200

60. The heat transfer area required

a. 126 m2 c. 152 m2
b. 170 m2 d. 188 m2

61. The steam economy

a. 0.75 c. 0.77
b. 0.89 d. 0.84
 For numbers 62 to 64:
A petroleum product of viscosity 0.5 mNs/m2 and density 700 kg/m3 is
pumped through a pipe of 0.15 m diameter to a storage tanks situated 100
m away. The pressure drop along the pipeline is 70 kN/m2. The pipeline
has to be repaired and it necessary to pump the liquid by an alternative
route consisting of 70 m of 200 mm pipe followed by 50 m of 100 mm pipe.

62. Calculate the velocity in the 0.1 m diameter pipe.

a. 9.4 m/s c. 1.5 m/s
b. 3.6 m/s d. 7.2 m/s

63. What is the pressure drop through alternative pipe system?

a. 390 kPa c. 250 kPa
b. 180 kPa d. 440 kPa

64. If the existing pump is capable of developing a pressure of 300 kN/m 2,

will it suitable for use during the period required for the repairs?
Take the roughness of the pipe surface as 0.05 mm.
a. Yes c. Either (a) or (b)
b. No d. Cannot be determined

For numbers 65 to 67:

A smooth tube in the condenser which is 25 mm internal diameter and 10
m long is carrying cooling water and the pressure drop over the length
of the tube is 2x104 N/m2. If vapor at a temperature of 353 K is condensing
on the outside of the tube and the temperature of the cooling water
rises from 293 K to 333 K at outlet, calculate the following:

65. The overall heat transfer coefficient based on the inside of the tube
a. 1.68 kW/m2K c. 3.99 kW/m2K
b. 4.02 kW/m2K d. 6.57 kW/m2K

66. If the coefficient for the condensing vapor is 15000 W/m2-K, what is the
film coefficient for the water?
a. 15 kW/m2K c. 12 kW/m2K
b. 10 kW/m K
2 d. 19 kW/m2K

67. If the latent heat of vaporization is 800 kJ/kg, what is the rate of
condensation of vapor?
a. 0.42 kg/s c. 0.95 kg/s
b. 0.59 kg/s d. 0.24 kg/s

For numbers 68 to 71:

Air, considered to be an ideal gas, is used in a Carnot cycle. At the
beginning of isothermal expansion, its pressure is 100 psia, its volume
is 5 ft3 and its temperature is 5400F. For a ratio of isothermal expansion
of 2 and a low temperature of 400F, find:

68. The change of entropy during the isothermal process

a. 0.015 BTU/R c. 0.022 BTU/R
b. 0.087 BTU/R d. 0.064 BTU/R

69. The work of the cycle

a. 64 BTU c. 55 BTU
b. 28 BTU d. 32 BTU

70. The efficiency

a. 60% c. 40%
b. 70% d. 50%

For numbers 71 to 73:

 A solution of 5 g of a solute in 100 g of water is heated slowly at a
constant pressure of 1 atm and is observed to boil at 100.4210C. Estimate
the following:

71. The molecular weight of the solute

a. 120 g/mol c. 160 g/mol
b. 270 g/mol d. 230 g/mol

72. The effective solvent vapor pressure at 250C

a. 23 mmHg c. 30 mmHg
b. 10 mmHg d. 45 mmHg

73. The solution freezing point at 1 atm.

a. -1.530C c. -2.040C
b. -1.990C d. -2.170C

For numbers 74 to 76:

74. If the temperature rise per meter length along a pipe carrying air at
12.2 m/s is 66 K, what will be the corresponding pressure drop for a
pipe temperature of 420 K and an air temperature of 310 K? The density
of air at 310K is 1.14 kg/m3.
a. 115 Pa/m c. 102 Pa/m
b. 138 Pa/m d. 127 Pa/m

75. Calculate the rise in temperature of water which is passed at 3.5 m/s
through a smooth 25 mm diameter pipe, 6 m long. The water enters at 300
K and tube wall may be assumed constant at 330 K using the simple
Reynolds analogy equation.
a. 289 K c. 125 K
b. 324 K d. 477 K

76. Water flows at 0.50 m/s through a 20 mm tube lined with Beta-naphthol.
What is the mass transfer coefficient if the Schmidt number is 2330?
a. 1.09x10-6 m/s c. 1.44x10-6 m/s
b. 1.35x10-6 m/s d. 1.27x10-6 m/s

For numbers 77 to 79:

If methane (assumed to be an ideal gas) is compressed adiabatically from
200C and 140 kPa to 560 kPa, determine the work requirement and the
discharge temperature of the methane. The work efficiency is 0.75.

77. The work requirement

a. 6746 J/mol c. 7072 J/mol
b. 1935 J/mol d. 5288 J/mol

78. The discharge temperature of the methane

a. 1560C c. 1220C
b. 1890C d. 1030C

79. Calculate the ideal available energy produced by the discharge to the
atmosphere through a nozzle of air stored in a cylinder of capacity 0.1
m3 at a pressure 5 MPa. The initial temperature of the air is 290 K and
the ratio of the specific heats is 1.4.
a. -650 kJ c. -770 kJ
b. -520 kJ d. -840 kJ

For numbers 80 to 82:

It is desired to separate 1 kg/s of an ammonia solution containing 30
per cent NH3 by mass into 99.5 per cent liquid NH3 and a residual weak
solution containing 10 per cent NH3. Assuming the feed to be at its
boiling point, a column pressure of 1013 kN/m2, a plate efficiency of 60
per cent and that an 8 per cent excess over the minimum reflux
requirements is used.
80. How many plates must be used in the column?
a. 10 c. 9
b. 7 d. 12

81. How much heat is removed in the condenser?

a. 372 kW c. 826 kW
b. 509 kW d. 617 kW

82. How much heat is added in the boiler?

a. 372 kW c. 826 kW
b. 509 kW d. 617 kW

For numbers 83 to 85:

In the dry cleaning establishment warm dry air is blown through a
revolving drum in which clothes are tumbled until all of the Stoddard
solvent is removed. The solvent may be assumed to be n-octane and have
a vapor pressure of 2.36 in Hg at 1200F. If the air at 1200F becomes
saturated with octane, calculate the:

83. Pounds of air required to evaporate one pound of hexane

a. 2.2 c. 1.5
b. 1.7 d. 2.9

84. Percent octane by volume in the gases leaving the drum

a. 8% c. 3%
b. 12% d. 10%

85. ft3 of inlet air required per lb of octane. The barometer reads 29.66 in
Hg.
a. 56 c. 43
b. 39 d. 61

For numbers 86 to 88:

An aerobic reactor, operated at 350C, treats wastewater with a flow of
5000 m3/d and a biological soluble COD concentration of 3000 g/m 3. At
95% COD removal and a biomass synthesis yield of 0.04 g VSS/COD used,
65% of biogas is methane. Given: 1.42 g COD per g VSS and 64 g COD per
mol CH4, calculate the following:

86. What is the amount of COD VSS in the feed?

a.809 kg/d c.617 kg/d
b.523 kg/d d.752 kg/d

87. What is the amount of COD converted into methane?

a.14500 c.13400
b.19100 d.17300

88. What is the amount of biogas produced (measured at STP) in m3/d?

a.6400 c.7200
b.5300 d.9100

For numbers 89 to 91:

89. Ethane is burned with 50% excess air. The percentage conversion of the
ethane is 90%; of the ethane burned, 25% reacts to form CO and the
balance is CO2. Calculate the mole ratio of water to dry stack gas.
a. 0.23 c. 0.11
b. 0.19 d. 0.28

90. A hydrocarbon gas is burned with air. The dry-basis product gas
composition is 1.5 mole% CO, 6.0% CO2, 8.2% O2 and 84.3% N2. There is no
atomic oxygen in the fuel. Calculate the ratio of hydrogen to carbon in
the fuel gas.
a. 4 c. 6
b. 3 d. 9
91. Calculate the percent excess air fed to the reactor.
a. 50% c. 25%
b. 12% d. 62%

For numbers 92 to 94:

Seven pounds of N2 at 120°F are stored in a cylinder having a volume of
0.75 ft3. Calculate the pressure in atmospheres in the cylinder using

92. Ideal gas equation of state

a. 139 c. 151
b. 141 d. 144

93. van der Waals equation of state

a. 139 c. 151
b. 141 d. 144

94. Using compressibility factor method

a. 130 c. 151
b. 141 d. 144

For numbers 95 to 97:

A gas stream consisting of 100 lbmol/h of an SO2-air mixture containing
45 mol% SO2 is contacted with liquid water in a continuous absorber at
300C. The liquid leaving the absorber is analyzed and found to contain
2 g SO2 per 100 g of H2O. Assuming that the gas and liquid streams leaving
the absorber are in equilibrium at 30 0C and 1 atm, calculate the
following:

95. The required water feed rate

a. 32500 lb/hr c. 96300 lb/hr
b. 87900 lb/hr d. 50100 lb/hr

96. The amount of entering SO2 absorbed

a. 1756 lb/hr c. 2884 lb/hr
b. 2307 lb/hr d. 1133 lb/hr

97. The fraction of the entering SO2 absorbed in water

a. 0.55 c. 0.99
b. 0.80 d. 0.61

For numbers 97 to 100:

A manufacturing company sells SO2 absorption system at P129750 per unit.
The variable cost per unit is P35797.50 + 75 RP2 where Rp is the daily
rate production. The total daily fixed charges is P1312500 and the other
incidental expenses are constant at P5493750 per day. What is the daily
profit when:

98. The production rate gives minimum cost of the system?

a. P3026677 c. P3290895
b. P3135689 d. P3329441

99. The production rate gives maximum daily profit?

a. P3026677 c. P3290895
b. P3135689 d. P3329441

100. A dry pharmaceutical product is prepared as a 15% aqueous solution,

evaporated and dried in a vacuum drier. The capacity of the drier varies
with the water content fed to the drier for 300 days as per year operation
as follows: CF = 6000 (S-0.15)0.5 + 2965 (1-S) in $/year
The direct costs for the evaporator are $0.01 per pound of water
evaporated and $0.003 per pound of water in the drum drier. Determine
the optimum concentration of slurry from the evaporator for a production
of 3 tons/day of solution fed to the evaporator.
a. 0.83 c. 0.49
b. 0.65 d. 0.77