NEET CRASH COURSE/PRACTISE TEST-1

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(Academic Session : 2019- 2020)

NEET CRASH COURSE

TARGET : NEET - 2020
Test Type : Practise Test -1 Test Pattern : NEET
ANSWER KEY & SOLUTION
Q. No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans.
Q. No.
Ans.
2
21
1
3
22
1
3
23
3
4
24
3
1
25
4
EN2
26
3
1
27
4
2
28
4
3
29
1
2
30
1
1
31
3
2
32
1
1
33
1
4
34
3
3
35
2
3
36
3
3
37
3
1
38
1
3
39
3
2
40
4

om
Q. No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 1 2 2 2 1 3 2 2 3 4 2 3 1 2 1 3 1 3 2
Q. No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 1 2 1 2 2 1 1 3 1 2 4 4 1 2 2 3 2 1 3 4
Q. No. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

ro
Ans. 2 3 1 1 1 4 1 2 1 3 3 3 1 4 4 3 1 1 1 4
LL
Q. No. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 3 1 3 1 1 4 4 4 4 2 2 2 2 1 3 2 1 2 1 2
Q. No. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129
ss 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans. 1 3 4 2 4 4 1 1 4 4 3 3 3 3 1 1 3 1 2 4
la
Q. No. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans. 1 4 3 3 3 1 2 4 2 4 3 2 1 4 4 4 4 1 4 2
C

Q. No. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A

Ans. 4 4 2 4 3 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 1 4 3 4 3 2 3 3
1. Two particles are projected simulataneously in the
l

same vertical plane from the same point, with

ita

different speeds u1 and u 2 making angle q1 and VA VAB

q2 respectively with the horizontal,such that Sol.

ig

u1 cos q1 = u 2 cos q2 . The path followed by one, as

VB
seen by the other (as long as both are in flight), is
D

(1) A horizontal straight line As VAB is vertical the relative displacement is also
(2) A vertical straight line vertical
(3) A parabola 2. A projectile is moving at 60 m/s at its highest point,
where it breaks into two equal parts due to an internal
(4) A straight line making an angle q1 - q2 with explosion. One part moves vertically up with
the horizontal 50 m/s with respect to the ground. The other part
Ans. 2 will move at
(1) 110 m/s (2) 120 m/s
(3) 130 m/s (4) 10 61 m / s
Ans. 3

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 NEET CRASH COURSE/PRACTISE TEST-1

m é m ù
(3) 2h (4) h ê1 +
ë M + m úû
Sol. 60 m/s Ans. 1
6. A uniform chain of length l is placed on a rough
table, with length l/n , where n > 1, hanging over the
120 m/s edge. If the chain just begins to side off the table by
50 m/s m/2
itself from this position, the coefficient of friction
between the chain and the table is
m/2 50 m/s 1 1
(1) (2)
n n -1

1 n -1
Conserving momentum along X & Y (3) (4)
n +1 n +1
Total speed of second part

= 50 + 120 = 130 m / s
2 2

EN Ans. 2

mg æ mg ö

om
3. A spherometer has 250 equal divisions marked along Sol. = m ç mg - ÷
n è n ø
the periphery of its disc, and one full rotation of the
disc advances by 0.0625 cm. On the main scale. 1 æ n -1ö
What is the least count of the spherometer ? = mç ÷
n è n ø

ro
(1) 0.0625 mm (2) 0.00625 mm
LL
(3) 0.0025 mm (4) 0.00025 mm 1
m=
Ans. 3 n -1
ss 7. The sum of magnitudes of two forces acting at a
0.0625
Sol. Least count = cm = 0.0025 mm point is 16N. If the resultant force is 8N and its
la
250 direction is perpendicular to smaller force, then the
4. A uniform chain of length l and mass m is placed forces are :
on a smooth table with one-fourth of its length
C

(1) 6N & 10 N (2) 8N & 8N

A

hanging over the edge. The work that has to be

(3) 4N & 12N (4) 2N & 14N
done to pull the whole chain back onto the table is
Ans. 1
l

1 1
ita

(1) mgl (2) mgl

4 8

1 1 16-x
(3) mgl (4) mgl Sol. 8
ig

16 32
Ans. 4
x
D

m l mgl
Sol. Work done = ´g´ =
x 2 + 82 = (16 - x )
2
4 8 32
5. In a gravity-free space, a man of mass M standing
x 2 + 64 = 256 + x 2 - 32x
at a height h above the floor throws a ball of mass
m straight down with a speed u. When the ball 256 - 64
x= =6
reaches the floor, the distance of the man above 32
the floor will be 8. One centrimetre on the main scale of vernier callipers
is divided into ten equal parts. If 10 divisions of
æ mö
(1) h æç1 + ö÷
m vernier scale coincide with 8 small divisions of the
(2) h ç 2 - ÷
è Mø è Mø main scale, the least count of the callipers is
(1) 0.001 cm (2) 0.02cm
(3) 0.05 cm (4) 0.005 cm

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 NEET CRASH COURSE/PRACTISE TEST-1
Ans. 2 14. The side of a square is increasing at the rate of
1 2 0.2 cm/s. The rate of increase of perimeter w.r.t
Sol. Least count = ´ = 0.02 cm time is : when x = 0.5 cm is
10 10
9. A student measured the diameter of a wire using a (1) 0.2 cm/s (2) 0.4 cm/s
screw gauge with least count 0.001 cm and listed (3) 0.6 cm/s (4) 0.8 cm/s
the measurements. The correct measurement is Ans. 4
(1) 5.3 cm (2) 5.32 cm
(3) 5.320 cm (4) 5.3200 cm
Ans. 3 F0
10. The greatest value of the function -5sin q + 12 cos q
is 15. F
(1) 12 (2) 13 O Time T
(3) 7 (4) 17
Ans. 2
1
EN A particle of mass m, initially at rest, is acted upon
by a variable force F for a brief interval of T. It
begins to move with a velocity u after the force

om
11. If tan q = and q lies in the first quadrant, the stops acting. F is shown in the graph as a function
5
of time. The curve is a semicircle. Then, value of u
value of cos q is
is
5 5 pF02 pT

ro
(1) (2) - (1) u = (2) u =
6 6 4m 8m
LL
pF0 T F0 T
1 1 (3) u = (4) u =
(3)
6
(4) -
6
ss 4m 2m
Ans. 3
Ans. 1
la
Sol. Impulse = Area under graph
12. If a$ - b$ = 2 then calculate the value of a$ + 3b$ . = mu
C
A

(1) 1 (2) 2 pf 0 T
Þ = mu
(3) 3 (4) 4 2´ 2
l

Ans. 2 pf 0 T
Þu=
ita

4m
Sol. a$ - b$ = 2 16. A particle thrown up vertically reaches its highest
point in time t1 and returns to the ground in a further
12 + 12 - 2 ´ 1 ´ 1´ cos q = 2
ig

time t 2 . The air resistance exerts a constant force

cos q = 0
on the particle opposite to its direction of motion
D

a$ + 3b$ = 12 + 3 + 2 ´ 1´ 3 cos q = 2 (1) t 1 > t 2

13. A particle moving in a straight line passes through (2) t 1 = t 2
origin and a point whose abscissa is double of
ordinate of the point. The equation of such straight (3) t 1 < t 2
line is : (4) May be 1 or 3 depending on the ratio of the
x force of air resistance to the weight of the
(1) y = (2) y = 2x particle
2
Ans. 3
x
(3) y = -2x (4) y = -
2
Ans. 1

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 NEET CRASH COURSE/PRACTISE TEST-1
Sol. Distance travelled is equal in both cases 20. The ceiling of a long hall is 25 m high. What is the
maximum horizontal distance that a ball thrown with
1 a speed of 40 m/s can go without hitting the ceiling
So time µ
a
of the hall ? ( g = 10 m / s )
2

a up > a down
(1) 160 m (2) 20 55
So time up < time down
(3) 55 20 (4) None of these
17. A ballon starts rising from the ground with an
Ans. 2
acceleration of 1.25 m / s2 . After 8 s, a stone is
Sol. U = 40 m / s H = 25 m
released from the ballon. The stone will
(1) Cover a distance of 40 m u 2 40 ´ 10
(2) Have a displacement of 50 m R max possible = = = 160m
g 10
(3) Reach the ground in 4 s

Ans. 3
EN
(4) Begin to move down after being released
H max in this case =
u 2 40 ´ 40
=
4g 4 ´ 10
= 40 m

om
Sol. At t = 8 sec As the roof is only 25 m gigh. This is not possible
10 m/s Now solving again
1 1
H = at 2 = ´ 1.25 ´ 64 u 2 sin 2 q
2 2 = 25

ro
If H max = 25
2g
LL
= 40 m
40 m 4 0 ´ 40 5 11
time to go up = 1 sec
ss range =
10
´ 2´
4
´
4
time to fall down = 3 sec
la
total time = 4 sec = 20 55
18. A body of mass 5kg is acted upon by two 21. A particle is dropped from the top of a tower. The
C

perpendicular forces of 8N and 6N, find the distance covered by it in the last one second is equal
A

magnitude of the acceleration. to that covered by it in the first three seconds. Find
the height of the tower.
(1) 2m / s 2 (2) 2.8m / s 2
l

(1) 125 m (2) 80 m

ita

(3) 0.4 m / s 2 (4) None of these (3) 180 m (4) None of these
Ans. 1 Ans. 1
19. A body starts from rest and moves with a uniform 22. Water drops are falling in regular intervals of time
ig

from top of a tower of height 9m. If 4th drop begins

acceleration of 10 ms-2 for 5 seconds. During the to fall when 1st drop reaches the ground, find the
next 10 seconds it moves with uniform velocity. Find
D

positions of 2nd & 3rd drops from the top of the tower.
the total distance travelled by the body (1) 1, 4 (2) 2, 5
(1) 500 m (2) 600 m (3) 3, 6 (4) None of these
(3) 625 m (4) None of these Ans. 1
Ans. 3 23. A stone is dropped from a certain height which can
reach the ground in 5 seconds. It is stopped after 3
seconds of its fall and is again released. The total
time taken by the stone to reach the ground will be
(1) 6 s (2) 6.5 s
(3) 7 s (4) 7.5 s
Ans. 3

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24. A particle starts from rest with constant 27. A ball falls vertically onto a floor, with momentum
acceleration. The ratio of space-average velocity p, and then bounces repeatedly. The coefficient of
to the time average velocity is : restitution is e. The total momentum imparted by
the ball to the floor is
1 3
(1) (2) p
2 4 (1) p (1 + e ) (2)
1- e
4 3
(3) (4) æ 1ö æ1+ e ö
3 2
(3) p ç1 + ÷ (4) p ç ÷
Ans. 3 è eø è 1- e ø
Ans. 4
Sol. Space avg velocity =
ò vdx = 2a
ò xdx

ò dx ò dx

= 2a
3
2
x
3
x2 2
=
3
2ax

EN Sol. p ep ep e2 p

om
2 1 2ta
= 2a ´ at 2 =
3 2 3 Total momentum transferred
at
time avg velocity = = p + ep + ep + e2 p + e2 p + e3 p

ro
2
= p + 2ep + 2e 2 p + 2e 3p
LL
2at 2 4
ratio = ´ =
3 at 3 = p + 2ep éë1 + e + e 2 .........ùû
ss
25. The equation t = x + 3 describes the position of a
particle where x is in meters and t is in seconds. é 1 ù
la
= p + 2ep ê
The position, when velocity is zero, is ë1 - e úû
(1) 2 m (2) 4 m
C

p - ep + 2ep
A

(3) 5 m (4) Zero =

1- e
Ans. 4
l

é1 + e ù
Sol. x = ( t - 3) = t 2 + 9 - 6t
2
= pê
ita

ë1 - e úû
v = 2t - 6 28. A particle starts from the origin at time t = 0 and
v = 0 at t = 3s moves in the xy plane with a constant acceleration
ig

a in the y-direction. Its equation of motion is

x=0
26. Water drops fall at regular intervals from a roof. At y = bx 2 . Its velocity component in the x-direction
D

an instant when a drop is about to leave the roof, is

the separations between 3 successive drops below
2a
the roof are in the ratio (1) Variable (2)
b
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 4 : 9
(3) 1 : 3 : 5 (4) 1 : 5 : 13
a a
Ans. 3 (3) (4)
2b 2b
Sol. Total distance travelled by drops are in ratio 1 : 4 :
Ans. 4
æ 1 2ö
9 ç s = gt ÷
è 2 ø
So the gap between them is in ratio 1 : 3 : 5

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Sol. y = bx 2 ................ (1) 31. A uniform chain of mass m hangs from a light pulley,
with unequal lengths of the chain hanging from the
dy two sides of the pulley. The force exerted by the
= 2b x
dx Vy moving chain on the pulley is
Vy = at (1) mg
(2) > mg
1 2 Vx (3) < mg
y= at
2 (4) Eithet 2 or 3 depending on the acceleration of
the chain
Vy
= 2b x Ans. 3
Vx
Sol. As the center of mass of chain is accelerating
at downwards force applied on pulley is less than mg.
Vx = 32. Two identical spheres move in opposite directions
2bx

=
at
EN with speeds v1 and v2 and pass behind an opaque
screen, where they may either cross without
touching (Event 1) or make an elastic head-on

om
y
2b
b collision (Event 2).
(1) We can never make out which event has
at 2 occured
=

ro
2 b at (2) We cannot make out which event has occured
LL
only if v1 = v 2
a (3) We can always make out which event has
=
2b
ss occured
29. A particle moving in a straight line covers half the (4) We can make out which event has occured only
la
distance with speed of 12 m/s. The other half of the if v1 = v 2
distance is covered in two equal time intervals with Ans. 1
C

speed of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s respectively. The

A

average speed of the particle during this motion is : Sol. As velocity get exchanged during the collision
ur ur
(1) 8.0 m/s (2) 12.0 m/s 33. If the area of a triangle of sides A & B is equal to
l

(3) 10.0 m/s (4) 9.8 m/s ur ur

ita

AB
Ans. 1 , then find the angle between A & B .
4
2v1v 2 2 ´ 12 ´ 6 (1) 30° (2) 60°
Sol. Vav = v + v = 18 = 8m / s
ig

1 2 (3) 45° (4) 37°

30. Two trains A and B each of length 50 m, are moving Ans. 1
ur ur ur ur ur ur
D

with constant speeds. If one train A overtakes the

34. Find A . B if A = 2, B = 5 and A ´ B = 8
other in 40s, while moving in same direction and in
20 seconds while moving in opposite direction. Find (1) 10 (2) 8
the speeds of the trains. (3) 6 (4) 4
(1) 3.75, 1.25 (2) 4, 1 Ans. 3
(3) 3, 2 (4) None of these
Ans. 1
Sol. ( VA - VB ) ´ 40 = 100 VA - VB = 2.5

( VA + VB ) ´ 20 = 100 VA + VB = 5

2VA = 7.5 VA = 3.75 VB = 1.25

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 NEET CRASH COURSE/PRACTISE TEST-1
ur ur
Sol. A ´ B = 8 37. A body sliding on ice with a velocity of 8 m/s comes
to rest after travelling 40 m. Find the coefficient of
2 ´ 5 ´ sin q = 8 friction ( g = 9.8 m / s )
2

8 4 (1) 0.04 (2) 0.06

sin q = =
10 5 (3) 0.08 (4) 0.10
3 Ans. 3
cos q =
5 Sol. v 2 = 2as = 2mgs
ur ur 3
A . B = 2´5´ = 6 64 = 2m ´ 10 ´ 40
5
35. A student is able to lift a bag containing books of 64
m= = 0.08
20 kg-wt by applying a force of 5kg-wt. Find the 2 ´ 40 ´ 10
mechanical advantages.
(1) 2
(3) 8
(2) 4
(4) 1
EN 38. m1 m2 a

om
Ans. 2 Two blocks of masses m1 and m 2 are placed in
F contact with each other on a horizontal platform.
Sol. W = 20 kg - wt
The coefficient of friction between the platform and
F = 5kg - wt the two blocks is the same. The platform moves

ro
with an acceleration. The force of interaction
20 between the blocks is
LL
M.A = =4
5 20 kg ss (1) Zero in all cases
36. Two blocks of masses 8kg and 4kg respectively are (2) Zero only if m1 = m 2
connected by a string as shown. Calculate their
(3) Nonzero only if m1 > m 2
la
accelerations if they are initially at rest on the floor,
after a force of 100N is apllied on the pulley in the
(4) Nonzero only if m1 < m 2
upward direction ( g = 10 ms )
-2
C
A

Ans. 1

F Sol. m1 m2
l
ita

Applying pseudo force on one block

m1a m1
f1
ig

for no slipping
m2 m1
D

8kg 4kg
m1 a = f1 = mm1g ( max imum )
a = mg
If slipping happen both slip with same acceleration
(1) 0, 2 (2) 0, 0 w.r.t blank
(3) 0, 2.5 (4) 0, 4 So contact force between the mases = 0
Ans. 3

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39. A bomb of mass 30 kg at rest explodes into two 43. A block of mass 15 kg is resting on a rough inclined
pieces of masses 18 kg and 12 kg. The velocity of plane as shown in figure. The block is tied up by a
18 kg mass is 6 ms -1 . The kinetic energy of the horizontal string having a tension of 50 N. Calculate
other mass is the coefficient of friction between the block and
the inclined plane.
(1) 524 J (2) 256 J
(3) 486 J (4) 324 J
Ans. 3
M
1 2 1 2
Sol. K.E = mv = ´ 12 ´ 9
2 2
= 486 45°
40. A ball is dropped from height h on the ground level.
If the coefficient of restitution is e then the height
1 1

(1)
h
e 2n
(2)
EN
upto which the ball will go after nth jump will be

e 2n
(1)

1
2
(2)
2

om
h (3) (4)
3 4
(3) he n (4) he 2n
Ans. 2
Ans. 4
41. In a tug-of-war contest, two men pull on a horizontal

ro
25 2
rope from opposite sides. The winner will be the 25 2
LL
man who ss
(1) Exerts greater force on the rope
Sol. 75 2
(2) Exerts greater force on the ground
75 2
la
(3) Exerts a force on the rope which is greater than
the tension in the rope
(4) Makes a smaller angle with the vertical Total friction required = 50 2
C
A

Ans. 2 = mN = m100 2
42. A water jet, whose cross sectional area is ‘a’ strikes
1
l

a wall making an angle ' q ' with the normal and m=

ita

rebounds elastically. The velocity of water of density 2

‘d’ is v. Force exerted on wall is 44. A body tied to a string of length L is revolved in a
vertical circle with minimum velocity, when the body
reaches the upper most point the string breaks and
ig

V the body moves under the influence of the

gravitaional field of earth along a parabolic path.
D

q The horizontal range AC of the body will be :

(Lowest point of the circle is very close to ground)
q
P
V
V
L
m O
(1) 2av 2d cos q (2) 2av2 d sin q

(3) 2avdcosq (4) avd cos q x

A C
Ans. 1

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 NEET CRASH COURSE/PRACTISE TEST-1
(1) x = L (2) x = 2L Sol. 2 mole of KClO3 gives 3 moles of O2
(3) x = 2 2L (4) x = 2L 2 ´ 122.5g ¾¾
® 3 ´ 22.4 L
Ans. 2
6.125g ¾¾
®?
Sol. Range = V ´ T
6.125 ´ 3 ´ 22.4
= 1.68L
4L 2 ´ 122.5
= gL ´
g 48. Equal mass of oxygen, hydrogen and methane are
taken in a container in identical conditions. What is
= 2L
the ratio of their moles.
45. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 5m on a
(1) 1 : 16 : 1 (2) 1 : 16 : 2
plane, where the acceleration due to gravity is not
known. On bouncing it rises to 1.8 m. The ball loses (3) 8 : 1 : 8 (4) 16 : 1 : 8
its velocity on bouncing by a factor of : Ans. 2

(1)
16
25
(2)

EN
2
5
Sol.
x x x
: : = 1:16 : 2
32 2 16
49. The energy required for the process :

om
3 9 He +( g) ¾¾
® He(+g2) + 1e - is :
(3) (4)
5 25
(The ionisation energy for the H atom in the ground
Ans. 2 state is 2.18 ´ 10-18 J / atom )

ro
Sol. v 2 µ h (1) 2.18 ´ 10-18 J / atom (2) 8.72 ´ 10-18 J / atom
LL
vout 1.8 3 (3) 4.36 ´ 10-18 J / atom (4) 1.09 ´ 10-18 J / atom
= = Ans. 2
vin 5 5
ss
-2.18 ´ 10-18 ´ z 2
vin - vout 5 - 3 2 Sol. E He+ =
la
= = h2
vin 5 5
-2.18 ´ 10-18 ´ 4
46. The number of molecules in 3.4 g of Hydrogen =
C
A

1
sulphide
(
Ea - E1 = 0 - -2.18 ´ 10-18 ´ 4 )
(1) 6.02 ´ 1022 (2) 3.01 ´ 1022
= +8.72 ´ 10-18 J / atom
l

(3) 3.01 ´ 10 (4) 6.02 ´ 10

ita

23 23
50. The time required to distribute one Avogadro number
Ans. 1 of wheat grains if 1010 grains are distributed each
second is :
Sol. 34g H2S contain – 6.02 ´ 1023 molecules
ig

(1) 4.214 ´ 1023 years (2) 3.01 ´ 1022 years

3.4 g ......... ?
(3) 1.9 ´ 106 years (4) 6.02 ´ 1022 years
3.4 ´ 6.02 ´ 1023
= 6.023 ´ 1022
D

Ans. 3
34
47. What volume of oxygen at STP can be produced by Sol. Time taken to distribute 1010 grains = 1 sec
6.125g of potassium chlorate accordingly to the \ Time taken to distribute 6.22 ´ 1023 grains _
reaction 2KClO 3 ¾¾ ® 2KCl + 3O2
6.02 ´ 1013
(1) 2.24 L (2) 1.12 L = years
60 ´ 60 ´ 24 ´ 365
(3) 1.68 L (4) 5.6 L
= 1.9 ´ 106 years
Ans. 3

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 NEET CRASH COURSE/PRACTISE TEST-1
51. Which of the following is not a disproportionation Sol. Mole of k4[Fe(CN)6] = 2 ´ 0.8 = 1.6
reaction? Number of ions = 5 NA
(1) 2H 2 O2 ¾¾
® 2H 2 O + O 2
\1.6 ´ 5 ´ 6.02 ´ 1023
- -
(2) Cl2 ¾¾
® Cl + ClO
= 4.8 ´ 1024
(3) 2Cu ¾¾
+1
® Cu + Cu +2
56. An organic compound containing C, H and N gave
(4) KMnO 4 ¾¾
® K 2 MnO4 + MnO2 the following analysis is C = 40%, H = 13.33%,
Ans. 4 N = 46.67 %. Its empirical formula is :
(1) CH4N (2) CH5N
Mn +7 to + 6 ü (3) C2H7N2 (4) C2H7N
Sol. ý so it is not a disproportionation.
Mn +7 to + 4 þ Ans. 1
reaction.
52. Which one of the following sequences represents Sol. C 40 3.33
40 3.33 1
the increasing order of the polarizing power of the 12 3.33
cationic species.
(1) Be+2 < K + < Ca +2 < Mg +2
(2) K + < Ca +2 < Mg +2 < Be +2 EN H
13.33
13.33
1
13.33
13.33
3.33
4

om
46.67 3.33
N 46.67 3.33 1
(3) Ca +2 < Mg +2 < Be+2 < K + 14 3.33
(4) Mg +2 < Be+ < K + < Ca +2 57. 12g of an alkaline earth metal gives 14.8 g of its
nitride. Atomic mass of the metal is :
Ans. 2

ro
(1) 12 (2) 20
LL
charge (3) 40 (4) 14.8
Sol. Polarising potential =
Radius ss Ans. 3
53. The percent loss in weight after heating a pure
sample of potassium chlorate (m.w = 122.5) will be wt.of metal wt.of Nitrogen
Sol. =
la
(1) 12.25 (2) 24.50 E.mass Eq.wt Nitrogen
(3) 39.18 (4) 49 4
12 2.8 12 ´ 14
= ´3Þ E = = 20
C

Ans. 3
A

E 14 2.8 0.2 ´ 3
Sol. 2KClO3 ¾¾
® 2KCl + 3O 2 ­ Atomic mass = 20 ´ 2 = 40
l

2 ´ 122.5 g ¾¾
® 3 ´ 32 58. The electron velocity in the fourth Bohr’s orbit of
ita

hydrogen is v. The velocity of electron in the first

100 ´ 3 ´ 32 orbit would be:
100 ¾¾
®? = 39.18
2 ´ 122.5
(1) 4V (2) 16V
54. The specific heat of metal is 0.836 J/g. The
ig

approximate atomic mass is V V

(3) (4)
(1) 16 (2) 64 4 16
D

(3) 40 (4) 32 Ans. 1

Ans. 1 Velocity in 1st orbit
Sol. V in n th orbit =
n
6.4 ´ 4.184
Sol. Atomic mass = = 32
0.836
55. The number of ions present in 2 liter of a solution
of 0.8 M K 4[Fe(CN)6] is
(1) 4.8 ´ 1022 (2) 4.8 ´ 1024
(4) 9.6 ´ 10
22
(3) 9.6 ´ 1024
Ans. 2

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 NEET CRASH COURSE/PRACTISE TEST-1
59. If the series limit of wavelength of the Lyman series Ans. 2
o
for the hydrogen atom is 912 A, then the series h
Sol. Orbital angular momentum = l ( l + 1)
limit of wavelength for the Balmer series of the 2p
hydrogen atom is 63. The radial distribution curve of 2s sub level consists
o o of x nodes. x is
(1) 912 A (2) 912 ´ 2 A
(1) 1 (2) 3
o 912 o (3) 2 (4) 0
(3) 912 ´ 4 A (4) A
2 Ans. 1
Ans. 3 Sol. Radial nodes = n - l - 1 = 2 - 0 - 1 = 1
64. How many electrons in an atom with atomic number
1 é1 1 ù
Sol. = Rê 2 - 2 ú=R 105 can have ( n + l) = 8
l ë1 a û
1 é1 1 ù R (1) 30 (2) 17
l Balmer
= Rê - 2ú=
ë4 a û 4
60. The difference in angular momentum associated
EN (3) 15
Ans. 2
(4) Unpredictable

om
with the electron two successive orbits of hydrogen Sol. Conceptual
atom is 65. The ratio of kinetic energy and potential energy of
an electron in any orbit is equal to
h h
(1) (2) (1) 0 (2) –1/2
p 2p

ro
(3) –2 (4) a
LL
h h
(3) (4) ( n - 1) Ans. 2
2 2p
Ans. 2
ss Sol.
KE - e 2 / 2r -1
= 2 =
PE e /r 2
Sol. Angular momentum for n and (n + 1) shells are
la
66. Energy of electron of hydrogen atom in second Bohr
nh h
and ( n + 1) orbit is
2p 2p
C
A

(1) -5.44 ´ 10-19 J (2) -5.44 ´ 10-19 Cal

nh h 2h h
Dmvr = + - = (3) -5.44 ´ 10-19 kJ (4) -5.44 ´ 10-19 eV
2p 2p 2p 2p
l

61. The longest l for the Lyman series is Ans. 1

ita

(Given RH = 109677 cm–1) -1311

Sol. E = kJ mol-1
o o n2
(1) 1215A (2) 1315A
E = -5.44 ´ 10-19 j
ig

o o
(3) 1415A (4) 1515A 67. The first ionisation potential of N and O are
respectively
D

Ans. 1
Sol. For longest X of Lyman series n1 = 1 and n2 = 2 (1) 14.6, 13.6 eV (2) 13.6, 13.6 eV
(3) 13.6, 14.6 eV (4) 14.6, 14.6 eV
1 é1 1 ù 3
= R ê - ú = 109677 ´ Ans. 1
l ë1 4 û 4
o Sol. IE of N > IE of O.
l = 1215A
62. The angular momentum of 2p orbital is 68. Which of the following is amphoteric?
(1) K2O (2) CaO
h h
(1) (2) (3) Al2O3 (4) MgO
2p 2p
Ans. 3
2h Sol. Al2O3 is amphoteric.
(3) (4) None of these
p

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 NEET CRASH COURSE/PRACTISE TEST-1
Ans. 2
69. An element in +3 oxidation state has the electronic
configuration (Ar)3d3. Its atomic number is Sol. NH +4 tetrahedral with 109°281
(1) 24 (2) 23 75. The hybridisation of carbons C – C single bond of
(3) 22 (4) 21 HC º C - CH = CH 2 is
Ans. 1
(1) sp3 - sp3 (2) sp - sp 2
Sol. Cr 24 ® 4s 3d 1 5

Cr +3
4s0 3d 3 (3) sp3 - sp (4) sp 2 - sp3
70. The first, second and third ionisation potentials Ans. 2
(E1 E2 and E3) for an element are 7 eV, 12.5 eV 76. Which of the following bonds will have highest ionic
and 42.3 eV respectively. The most stable oxidation character ?
state of the element will be
(1) H – Br (2) H – Cl
(1) + 1 (2) + 2
(3) H – F (4) H – I
(3) + 3
Ans. 2
Sol. E1 < E2 < E3
(4) + 4

EN Ans. 3
Sol. E.N difference is more.

om
so element belongs to II A. 77. In the process O2+ ¾¾ ® O 2+2 + e the electron lost is
71. Which of the following has a different bond order? from .....
(1) Bonding p -orbital
(1) O+22 (2) NO +
(2) Antibonding p -orbital

ro
(3) CN - (4) CN + (3) 2pz orbital
LL
Ans. 4 ss (4) 2px orbital
Sol. O+22 ¾¾
® 3 Ans. 2
+
NO ¾¾
® 3 Sol. Conceptual
la
CN - ¾¾
® 3 78. Correct order of dissociation energy N 2 and N 2 + is
CN + ¾¾ ® 2 (1) N 2 > N 2 + (2) N 2 = N 2 +
C
A

72. Which of the following molecule have a different (3) N 2 + > N 2 (4) None
shape.
Ans. 1
(1) H2O (2) SnCl2
l

Sol. N2 bond order = 3

ita

(3) H2S (4) XeF2 +

N 2 bond order = 2.5
Ans. 4
79. Which of the following has zero dipolemoment ?
Sol. XeF2 is linear.
(1) ClF3 (2) PCl3
ig

73. Which of the following contains both covalent and

ionic bond? (3) SiF4 (4) CFCl3
(1) NH4Cl (2) H2O Ans. 3
D

(3) CCl4 (4) CaCl2 Sol. Tetrahedral geometry with symmetry.

Ans. 1 80. For a given mass of gas, if pressure is reduced to
half and temperature is increased two times, then
H the volume would become

Sol. H N H + Cl
– V
(1) (2) 2V2
4
H (3) 6V (4) 4V
74. In which of the following bond angle is maximum? Ans. 4
(1) NH3 (2) NH +4 P1V1 T1
Sol. =
(3) PCl3 (4) SCl2 P2 V2 T2

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 NEET CRASH COURSE/PRACTISE TEST-1
81. The temperature at which H 2 has the same RMS Sol. If mass = 44g
speed (at 1atm) as that of O2 at STP is 44 44
The n CH 4 = n CO2 =
(1) 37K (2) 17K 16 44
(3) 512K (4) 27K 44
Ans. 2 44 16 11
PCH 4 = 16 = ´ =
44 60 15
T1 T2 2 ´ 273 + 1 16
Sol. = Þ T1 = = 17K 16
2 32 32
85. Oxidation number of two Cl atoms separately in
82. At a constant temperature what should be the
CaOCl2 is
percentage increase in pressure for a 5% decrease
in the volume of gas. (1) –1 and +1 (2) +2
(1) 5% (2) 10% (3) –2 (4) –1 and 0
(3) 5.26% (4) 4.26% Ans. 1
Ans. 3

é
Sol. V2 = ê V1 -
5V1 ù
100 úû
= V1 - 0.05V1 = 0.95V1
EN Sol. Ca
O

Cl
–1
Cl+1

om
ë
86. Equivalent mass of NH3 in the change N 2 ® NH3
P1 0.95V1 17
= = 0.95 (1) (2) 17
P2 V1 6

ro
17 17
P P (3) (4)
LL
P2 = 1 increasein pressure = 1 - P1 2 3
0.95 0.95
Ans. 4
0.05P1
ss ® 2N -3
Sol. NO2 ¾¾
= = 5.26%
0.95
O 6
la
83. At STP, the density of a gas (molecules mass 45) is
28 17
2g 22.4g \ Eq mass = =
C
A

(1) (2) 6 3
L L 87. In the chemical reaction
11.2g 26.6g Cl2 + H 2S ¾¾ ® 2HCl + S, the oxidation number
l

(3) (4)
L L of sulphur changes from
ita

Ans. 1 (1) –2 to 0 (2) 2 to 0

PM 1´ 45 (3) 0 to 2 (4) –2 to –1
Sol. d = = =2
ig

RT 0.082 ´ 273 Ans. 1

84. Equal weights of CH4 and CO2 are mixed in an empty Sol. H2S ¾¾
®S
D

vessel at 25°C. The fraction of the total pressure S-2 ¾¾

®S
exerted by methane is
-2 ¾¾®0
11 15 88. Which has maximum number of molecules
(1) (2)
15 22 (1) 7 g N2 (2) 2g H2
15 22 (3) 16g O3 (4) 16g O2
(3) (4) Ans. 2
11 15
Ans. 1 2
Sol. nH 2 = = 1 mole = 6.02 ´ 1023
2

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 NEET CRASH COURSE/PRACTISE TEST-1

89. An alkane has C/H ratio (by mass) of 5.1428 : 1. Its 96. Which of the following organisms is not correctly
molecular formula is : matched with its particulars ?
(1) Human beings - Sapiens, species
(1) C6H14 (2) C5H12 (2) Lion - Panthera, genus
(3) Cats - Felidae, genus
(3) C7H16 (4) C8H18 (4) Datura - Solanaceae, family
Ans. 1 Ans. 3
Sol. C6H14 has ratio of C : H = 72 : 14 97. Which of the following statement is wrong?
=5.1428 : 1 (1) Cynobacteria comes under kingdom plantae
90. When the frequency of light incident on metallic (2) Cynobacteria is also called as blue green
plate is double, the KE of the emitted photo electrons algae
will be. (3) Eubacteria are also called as true bacteria
(1) Doubled
(2) Halved

EN
(3) Increased but more than doubled of the previous
(4) Phycomycetes are also called as algae jungi
Ans. 1
98. As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic

om
KE hierarchy, the number of common characteristics
(4) Unchanged (1) Will decrease
Ans. 3 (2) Will increase
Sol. Conceptual (3) Remain Same

ro
91. The fungi, filamentous algae, protonema of mosses, (4) May incrase or decrease
LL
all easily multiply by _______ ss Ans. 1
(1) Budding (2) Fission 99. Which of the following is less general in character
(3) Fragmentation (4) Conjugation as compared to genus
la
Ans. 3 (1) Species (2) Division
92. Which of the following term is used to refer the (3) Class (4) Family
number of varieties of plants and animals on earth?
C

Ans. 1
A

(1) Taxonomy (2) Identification 100. If an orgnism is in the same class but not in the
(3) Biodiversity (4) Classification same family then it may belong to same
l

Ans. 3 (1) Genus (2) Species

ita

93. The famous botanical garden “kew” is located in (3) Variety (4) Order
(1) England (2) Lucknow Ans. 4
(3) Berlin (4) Australia 101. Which of the following kingdom does not have
ig

Ans. 1 nuclear membrane ?

94. Taxon is (1) Protista (2) Fungi
D

(1) Unit of classification (3) Monera (4) Plantae

(2) Species Ans. 3
(3) Highest rank of classification 102. Which of the following pigment is present in
cyanobacteria ?
(4) Group of closely related organisms
(1) Chlorophyll ‘a’ (2) Chlorophyll ‘b’
Ans. 4
(3) Chlorophyll ‘c’ (4) Chlorophyll ‘d’
95. Each category of taxonomic hierarchy refers to as
a unit of Ans. 1
(1) Systematic (2) Identification
(3) Nomenclature (4) Classification
Ans. 4

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 NEET CRASH COURSE/PRACTISE TEST-1
103. Which of the following pairs comes under the group (3) Kills insects and pathogen
chrysophytes ? (4) Provide resistance against abiotic stresses
(1) Diatoms & Euglena Ans. 2
(2) Euglena and Trypanosoma 111. Cytological information like chromosome number
(3) Diatoms and Desmids structure behaviour are related with
(4) Gonyaulax and Desmids (1) Numerical taxonomy (2) Cytotaxonomy
Ans. 3 (3) Chemotaxonomy (4) All of the above
104. Which of the following is a parasitic fungi on the Ans. 2
mustard plant ? 112. Which of the following class of algae is rarely found
(1) Albugo (2) Puccinia in fresh water ?
(3) Yeast (4) Ustilago (1) Chlorophyceae (2) Phaeophyceae
Ans. 1 (3) Rhodophyceae (4) Both 1 and 2
Ans. 2
(1) Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes
(2) Phycomycetes and Basidiomycetes
EN
105. Dikaryon formation is the characteristic feature of
113. Laminaria and Fucus are example of
(1) Green algae (2) Brown algae

om
(3) Ascomycetes and Phycomyectes (3) Red algae (4) Golden brown algae
(4) Phycomycetes and Zygomycetes Ans. 2
Ans. 1 114. Pyrenoids in green algal cells are related to
106. Methanogens belong to (1) Starch formation (2) Protein storage

ro
(3) General metabolism (4) Enzyme secretion
LL
(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Slime moulds
(3) Eubacteria (4) Archaebacteria
ss Ans. 1
Ans. 4 115. In bryophytes, male and female sex organs are called
_________ and ________ respectively.
107. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
(1) Microsporangia, macrosporangia
la
(1) Anabaena - Cyanobacteria
(2) Male sterobili, female strobili
(2) Amoeba - Protozoa
(3) Antheridia, archegonia
C
A

(3) Gonyaulax - Dinoflagellates

(4) Androecium, gynoecium
(4) Albugo - Chryosophytes
Ans. 3
Ans. 4
l

116. Which of the following groups of plants play an

ita

108. The genetic material of virus includes important role in plant succession on bare rocks/
(1) Only RNA soil.
(2) Only DNA (1) Algae (2) Bryophytes
ig

(3) RNA & DNA both (3) Pteridophytes (4) Gynosperms

(4) RNA or DNA (One type in a virus) Ans. 2
D

Ans. 4 117. The heterosporous pteridophyte belonging to the

109. How many bacteria are produced in four hours, if a class lycopsida is
bacterium divides once in half an hour ? (1) Selaginella (2) Psilotum
(1) 8 (2) 64 (3) Equisetum (4) Pteris
(3) 16 (4) 256 Ans. 1
Ans. 4 118. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in having
110. Mycorrhizae are useful for plants because they (1) Seeds (2) Motile sperms
(1) Fix atomospheric nitrogen (3) Cambium (4) Vessels
(2) Enhance absorption of nutrients like phosphate Ans. 2
from the soil

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 NEET CRASH COURSE/PRACTISE TEST-1
119. Protonema and leafy stage are the predominant stage 128. Sterile stamen is known as
of the life cycle of (1) Staminode (2) Anther
(1) Moss (2) Dicots (3) Pollen grain (4) Filament
(3) Liverworts (4) Gymnosperm Ans. 1
Ans. 1 129. Which one of the following structure is not
120. If the cells of root in wheat plant have 42 associated with gynoecium
chromosomes, then the no.of chromosome in the (1) Ovary (2) Styles
cell of pollen grain is
(3) Stigma (4) Filament
(1) 14 (2) 21
Ans. 4
(3) 28 (4) 42
130. Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible parts
Ans. 2 in which of the following group ?
121. Root hairs develop from (1) Walnut and Tamarind
(1) Region of maturation
(2) Region of elongation
(3) Region of meristematic activity
EN (2) Cashewnut and Litchi
(3) French bean and Coconut
(4) Groundnut and Pomegranate

om
(4) Root cap Ans. 4
Ans. 1 131. Floral features are chiefly used in angiosperms
122. Stilt roots occur in ________ identification because
(1) Ground nut (2) Rice (1) Flowers are of various colours

ro
(3) Sugarcane (4) Wheat (2) Flowers can be safely presssed
LL
Ans. 3 ss (3) Reproductive parts are more stable and
123. Stem tendrils are found in conservative than vegetative parts
(1) Cucumber (2) Pumpkins (4) Flowers are good material for identification
la
(3) Grapevines (4) All of these Ans. 3
Ans. 4 132. Aleurone layer helps in
C

(1) Storage of food in endosperm

A

124. Which of the following is a modified stem for the

protection of plants from browsing animals ? (2) Protection of embryo
(1) Tendrils (2) Thorns (3) Utilization of stored food
l

(3) Rhizome (4) Tuber (4) All of the above

ita

Ans. 2 Ans. 3
125. Which of the following is an example of pinnately 133. Main function of leaf is
compound leaf ? (1) Exchange of gases
ig

(1) Cucumber (2) Papaya (2) Increase the beauty of tree

(3) Cucurbita (4) Neem (3) Manufacturing of foods
D

Ans. 4 (4) Nerve impulse induction

126. The main purpose of phyllotaxy for the leaves is to Ans. 3
provide sufficient ___________
134. Ginger is an underground stem. It is distinguished
(1) Soil (2) Air from root because
(3) Water (4) Light (1) It lacks chlorophyll
Ans. 4 (2) It stores food
127. Which type of function is performed by the fleshy (3) It has nodes and internodes
leaves of onion and garlic ?
(4) It has xylem and vessels
(1) Storage (2) Reproduction
Ans. 3
(3) Photosynthesis (4) Protection
Ans. 1
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 NEET CRASH COURSE/PRACTISE TEST-1
Sol. Aschelminthes are bilaterally symmetrical,
135. It is a proteinous layer and the outer covering of
triploblastic and dioecious animals. They may be
endosperm which separates the embryo. Identify
free living, aquatic and terrestrial or parasitic on
the layer.
plants and animals.
(1) Tegmen (2) Scutellum
139. Which of the following amino acid is represented
(3) Hyaline layer (4) Aleurone layer by ‘E’?
Ans. 1
(1) Tyrosine (2) Glutamic acid
136. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(3) Cysteine (4) Tryptophan
(1) Radial symmetry - Coelenterates
(2) Coelomates - Aschelminthes Ans. 2
(3) Metamerism - Molluscs 140. What is common between earthworm and
Periplaneta?
(4) Triploblastic - Sponges
(1) Both have red coloured blood
Ans. 1
(2) Both possess anal styles
Sol. Aschelminthes - Pseudocoelomates
Molluscs - Unsegmented

EN
Sponges - Cellular level of organisation
(3) Both have Malpighian tubules
(4) Both have segmented body

om
Ans. 4
137. The given figure shows a cross section of the body
of an invertebrate. Identify the animal which has Sol. Both earth worm (Annelid) and Periplaneta
such body plan: (Arthropod) have segmented bodies.
141. Read the given statements and select the correct

ro
Body wall option:
LL
Parenchyma Statement-1: Cephalochordates bear notochord
Alimentary canal throughout their life.
ss Statement-2: In cephalochordates notochord
extends from head to tail.
la
(1) Cockroach (Arthropods)
(1) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct.
(2) Roundworm (Aschelminthes)
(2) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is
(3) Planaria (Platyhelminthes)
C

incorrect.
A

(4) Earthworm (Annelida) (3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is

Ans. 3 correct
l

Sol. The animals in which the coelom is absent are called (4) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
ita

acoelomates, for example flatworms(Planaria). In Ans. 1

them the space between ectoderm and endoderm is
Sol. In cephalochordates, the notochord extends from
filled with parenchyma derived from mesoderm.
head to tail and persistent throughout their life.
ig

138. Given below are three statements regarding

142. Which of the following group is formed of only the
Aschelminthes
hermaphrodite organisms?
D

(i) They are bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic

(1) Earthworm, Tapeworm, Housefly, Frog
(ii) They are dioecious
(2) Earthworm, Tapeworm, Seahorse, Housefly
(iii) All are plant or animal parasites
(3) Earthworm, Leech, Sponge, Roundworm
Select the option that has both the correct
(4) Earthworm, Tapeworm, Leech, Sponge
statements
Ans. 4
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) None of these
Ans. 1

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 NEET CRASH COURSE/PRACTISE TEST-1
148. Find out correct statement:
Sol. * Hermaphrodite organisms are those organisms
in which both male and female sex organs are (1) All birds can fly
present in a single individual. (2) All snakes are poisonous
* Earthworm, tapeworm, leech and sponge are (3) All amphibians lay eggs on land
hermaphroditic organisms. (4) Most of the mammals are viviparous
* Housefly, frog, sea horse, round worm are Ans.4
dioecious organisms (sexes are separate). 149. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. protein and their
143. Absence of excretory organs, great power of corresponding function
regeneration and exclusively marine animals belongs
to the phylum: (1) GLUT-4 – Enables glucose
transport into cells
(1) Mollusca (2) Arthropods
(2) Inulin – Hormone
(3) Echinodermata (4) Annelida
Ans.3 (3) Rennin – Enzyme

(1) Columba
(3) Struthio EN
144. The flightless bird among the following is
(2) Neophron
(4) Corvus Ans: 2
(4) Collagen – Intercellular ground
substance

om
Ans. 3 150. Birds differ from reptiles in which one of the
Sol. Struthio (Ostrich) is the largest flightless bird. following character:
145. Which of the following sets of animals belong to a (1) Sking has scales

ro
single taxonomic group? (2) They lay eggs
LL
(1) Cuttle fish, Jelly fish, Silver fish, Dog fish (3) There are vertebrates
(2) Bat, Pigeon, Butterfly (4) There is regulation of body temperature
(3) Monkey, Chimpanzee, Man
ss Ans. 4
(4) Silk worm, Tape worm, Earth worm 151. Common name of Meandrina
la
Ans. 3 (1) Adamsia (2) Sea-fan
Sol. Monkey, Chimpanzee and Man are primates (3) Brain coral (4) Sea-anemone
C
A

belonging to class Mammalia. Ans. 3

146. Duck billed platypus is connecting link between Sol. Fact
(1) Reptiles and mammals
l

152. Which of the following arthropod shows gregarious

ita

(2) Reptiles and Birds character

(3) Fishes and Amphibians (1) Limulus (2) Locusta
(4) Amphibians and Reptiles (3) Bombyx (4) Both (1) and (2)
ig

Ans. 1 Ans. 2
Sol. * Reptilian features - absence of pinna, presence Sol. Locusts are gregarious (living in group) in nature.
D

of cloaca, cleidoic egg. 153. Mode of coelom formation in Hemichordata are:

* Mammalian features - presence of hair, (1) Enterocoelous (2) Schizocoelous
mammary gland (without nipple) and diaphragm. (3) Pseudocoelous (4) All of these
147. Notochord in earthworm is ______ and nerve cord Ans.1
is ________.
Sol. * Enterocoelom arises from the wall of embryonic
(1) Dorsal, Ventral (2) Absent, Ventral gut or enteron as hollow out growths or
(3) Ventral, absent (4) Absent, Dorsal enterocoelomic pouches. Ex: Echinoderms,
Ans. 2 hemichordates, All chordates.
Sol. Earthworm is non-chordate hence notochord is * Schizocoelom develops by splitting up of
absent and has double ventral nerve cord. mesoderm. Ex: Annelida, Arthropoda and
Mollusca.

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 NEET CRASH COURSE/PRACTISE TEST-1

154. Group of amniota includes (4) Km constant and Vmax increases

(1) Birds and mammals only Ans: 1
(2) Birds and reptiles only 159. Which of the following secondary metabolites
(3) Mammals and reptiles only belong to toxin category?
(4) Birds, mammals and reptiles (1) Codeine (2) Concanavalin-A
Ans. 4
(3) Anthocyanin (4) Ricin
Sol. Amniota comprising reptiles, birds and mammals
characterised by having an amnion during the Ans: 4
embryonic stage. 160. Read the following statements and select the correct
155. Amphibians are not found in option
(1) On land Statement-1: Urinary bladder is lined by transitional
epithelium.
(2) In fresh water
Statement-2: Transitional epithelium keeps the size
(3) Both on land and in water
(4) In sea
Ans. 4
EN of urinary bladder constant at all time.
(1) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct

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(2) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is
Sol. Fact incorrect
156. A common characteristic of all vertebrates without (3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is
exception is correct
(1) The division of body into head, neck, trunk and

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(4) Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
tail.
LL
Ans. 2
(2) Their body covered with an exoskeleton
Sol. Urinary bladder is lined by transitional epithelium
(3) The possession of two pairs of functional
ss (stretchable) to store the urine in it. During
appendages micturition contraction of urinary bladder takes place
la
(4) Presence of gill slits at some development stage followed by relaxation of urethral sphincters.
Ans. 4 161. Cardiac muscles are different from skeletal muscles
as they are
C

Sol. Fact
A

157. Which one of the following statement about all the (1) Smooth (2) Voluntary
four of spongilla, Leech, Dolphin and Penguin is (3) Non-striated (4) Involuntary
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correct? Ans. 4
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(1) All are bilaterally symmetrical Sol. Cardiac muscles are involuntary but skeletal muscles
(2) Penguin is homeothermic while the remaining are voluntary.
three are poikilothermic 162. Mark the odd one:
ig

(3) Leech is a fresh water form while all others (1) Monocytes (2) Lymphocytes
are marine.
(3) Neutrophils (4) erythrocytes
D

(4) Spongilla has special collared cells called

Ans. 4
choanocytes, not found in the remaining three.
Sol. Monocytes, lymphocytes and neutrophils are WBCs
Ans. 4
whereas erythrocytes are RBCs
Sol. Spongilla - asymmetrical, Dolphin homoio thermic,
163. Heart of cockroach is
Spongilla - Fresh water form
(1) 6 chambered (2) 13 chambered
158. Inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase is caused by
malonate. What will happen to the K m of the (3) 9 chambered (4) 8 chambered
enzyme when excess of succinate is added? Ans. 2
(1) Km will increase and Vmax constant Sol. Fact

(2) Km will decrease and Vmax constant

(3) Km constant and Vmax decreases

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 NEET CRASH COURSE/PRACTISE TEST-1
168. Each thoracic segment of Periplaneta americana
164. The correct sequence of arrangement of segments is enclosed by four_____skeletal sclerites : a dorsal
in the leg of cockroach is ____, a ventral _____ and two lateral _____. The
(1) Tibia, Trochanter, Femur, Tarsus and Coxa ______ of the prothorax is also called pronotum,
(2) Trochanter, Coxa, Tibia, Femur and Tarsus which covers the neck and a part of head.
(3) Coxa, Femur, Trochanter, Tibia and Tarsus (1) Chitinous, tergum, sternum, pleura, tergum
(4) Coxa, Trochanter, Femur, Tibia and Tarsus (2) Proteinaceous, Sternum, tergum, pleura, tergum
Ans. 4 (3) Chitinous, sternum, tergum, pleura, sternum
Sol. Fact (4) Chitinous, tergum, pleura, sternum, sternum
165. Largest smooth muscle is present in Ans. 1
(1) Leg Sol. Fact
(2) Thigh 169. Multilocular adipose tissue differs from unilocular
adipose tissue in that it
(3) Uterus of pregnant woman
(4) Urethra
Ans. 3
EN
Sol. Smooth muscles are contractile tissue comprising
(1) Has fewer blood vessels
(2) Has greater number of mitochondria
(3) Undergoes lipolysis under influence of

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epinephrine
of spindle shaped muscle fibres lacking striations.
They are often arranged as in muscle coats as (4) Has cells that are not electrically coupled
bundles of cells. The largest smooth muscles are Ans. 2
found in the uterus of pregnant woman. Sol. Multilocular adipose tissue (or) brown fat is present

ro
166. Read the following statements about cockroach in new born and hibernating mammals. It contains
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(i) In male cockroach, a characteric mushroom numerous smaller fat droplets and a higher number
shaped gland is present in the 6th - 7th abdominal of mitochondria for fat oxidation.
segments.
ss 170. The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body are
(ii) Cockroach is uricotelic. joined by :
la
(iii) The fat body and uricose glands are glandular (1) Muscular tissue (2) Arthrodial membrane
in function. (3) Cartilage (4) Cementing glue
C
A

(iv) Blood form sinuses enter heart through ostia Ans. 2

and is pumped anteriorly to sinuses again. 171. Which of the following is not a connective tissue
Which of the above statements are correct? (1) Bone (2) Muscle
l
ita

(1) (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iv) (3) Blood (4) Cartilage
(3) (i) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iv) Ans. 2
Ans. 2 Sol. Muscles - Muscular tissue.
ig

Sol. In cockroach, excretion is done by Malpighian 172. Tesselated epithelium is present in

tubules. In addition, the fat body, nephrocyte and (1) Ependymal membrane
uricose glands also help in excretion.
D

(2) Endothelium
167. Which of the following features is not present in
(3) Uterus
Periplaneta americana?
(4) None
(1) Schizocoelom as body cavity
Ans. 2
(2) Indeterminate and radial cleavage during
embryonic development Sol. Simple squamous epithelium is also called tesselated
epithelium due to its wavy appearance in blood
(3) Exoskeleton composed of N-acetylglucosamine
vessel (endothelium).
(4) Metamerically segmented body
Ans. 2

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 NEET CRASH COURSE/PRACTISE TEST-1
173. Lining of brain ventricle and central canal of spinal 177. A typical example of feedback inhibition is
cord is called as allosteric inhibition of hexokinase by glucose-6-
(1) Ependyma (2) Endothelium phosphate. This inhibition is influenced mainly by
(3) Mesothelium (4) Neurosensory (1) Substrate concentration
Ans. 1 (2) Enzyme concentration
Sol. Ependymal cells are the type of neuroglial cells which (3) End product concentration
line the ventricles of brain and central canal of spinal
cord. (4) All of these
174. Vitreous humor is Ans: 3
(1) Reticular 178. __________ is the most abundant chemical in
(2) Areolar living organisms.
(3) Adipose (1) Protein (2) Water
(4) Mucoid connective tissue
Ans. 4

EN
Sol. Mucoid connective tissue is characterised by the
presence of jelly like matrix called Wharton’s jelly
Ans: 2
(3) Glucose (4) Sucrose

om
179. The function to the gap junction is to :
found in vitreous humor of eye and in umbilical cord.
(1) Stop substance from leaking across a tissue
175. Volkmann’s canals are found in
(2) Performing cementing to keep neighbouring cells
(1) Bones of birds together

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(2) Bones of Amphibians (3) Faciliate communication between adjoining cells
LL
(3) Bones of mammals by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer
(4) Cartilage of mammals of ions, small molecules and some large
Ans. 3
ss moelcules.
Sol. Haversian canals are interconnected by Volkmann’s (4) Separate two cells from each other
la
canal in mammalian bones. Ans. 3
176. Epithelial tissue originated from 180. What will happen if ligaments are cut or broken?
C

(1) Ectoderm (2) Endoderm

A

(1) Bones will move freely at joints

(3) Mesoderm (4) All of the above (2) No movement at joint
Ans. 4 (3) Bone will become unfix
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Sol. Fact
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(4) Bone will become fixed

Ans. 3
ig
D

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