AMWE MCQ (Mam Sent)

EC 8701 – ANTENNAS AND MICROWAVE ENGINEERING
MCQs
1) What is the wavelength of Super high frequency (SHF) especially used in Radar &
satellite communication?
1. 1 m – 10 m
2. 1 cm – 10 cm
3. 10 cm – 1 m
4. 0.1 cm – 1 cm
ANSWER: 1 cm – 10 cm
2) Wavefront is basically a locus of points acquiring similar _______
1. Phase
2. Frequency
3. Amplitude
4. Wave equation
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ANSWER: Phase
3) Power density is basically termed as ________ power per unit area
1. Reflected
2. Refracted
3. Radiated
4. Diffracted
ANSWER: Radiated
4) If the path difference of two waves with single source traveling by different paths to arrive
at the same point, is λ/2, what would be the phase difference between them?
1. β x (λ/2)
2. β / (λ/2)
3. β + (λ/2)
4. β – (λ/2)
ANSWER: β x (λ/2)
5) The knowledge of which parameter is sufficient for deriving the time varying
electromagnetic field?
1. Electric field intensity

2. Magnetic field intensity
3. Current density
4. Power density
ANSWER: Current density
6) According to Webster’s dictionary, what is an antenna?
1. Impedance matching device

2. Sensor of electromagnetic waves
3. Transducer between guided wave & free space wave
4. Metallic device for radiating or receiving radio waves
ANSWER: Metallic device for radiating or receiving radio waves
7) Under which conditions of charge does the radiation occur through wire antenna?
1. For a charge with no motion

2. For a charge moving with uniform velocity with straight & infinite wire
3. For a charge oscillating in time motion
4. All of the above
ANSWER: For a charge oscillating in time motion
8) In a non-isotropic directional antenna, which radiating lobe axis makes an angle of 180°
w.r.t. major beam of an antenna?
1. Minor lobe
2. Side lobe
3. Back lobe
4. None of the above
ANSWER: Back lobe
9) At which angles does the front to back ratio specify an antenna gain?
1. 0° & 180°
2. 90° & 180°
3. 180° & 270°
4. 180° & 360°
ANSWER: 0° & 180°
10) Which among the following defines the angular distance between two points on each side
of major lobe especially when the radiation drops to zero?
1. Half power beam width (HPBW)

2. First null beam width (FNBW)
3. Side lobe level (SLL)
4. Front to back ratio (FBR)
ANSWER: First null beam width (FNBW)
11) If an observation point is closely located to the source, then the field is termed as
________
1. Induced
2. Radiated
3. Reflected
4. Far-field
ANSWER: Induced
12) Which waveform plays a crucial role in determining the radiation pattern of the
dipole/wire antennas?
1. Current
2. Voltage
3. Frequency
4. Phase
ANSWER: Current
13) How are the infinitesimal dipoles represented in terms of antenna length and signal
wavelength?
1. l ≤ (λ /50)
2. (λ/50 ) < l ≤ (λ /10)
3. l = λ/2
ANSWER: l ≤ (λ /50)
14) Which pattern is generated due to plotting of square of amplitude of an electric field?
1. Field Pattern
2. Voltage Pattern
3. Power Pattern
4. All of the above
ANSWER: Power Pattern
15) In an electrically small loops, the overall length of the loop is ______ one-tenth of a
wavelength.
1. Less than
2. Equal to
3. Greater than
ANSWER: Less than
16) On which factor/s do/does the radiation field of a small loop depend?
1. Shape
2. Area
3. Both a and b
ANSWER: Area
17) From the radiation point of view, small loops are _________radiators
1. Poor
2. Good
3. Better
4. Excellent
ANSWER: Poor
18) According to the directivity of a small loop, which value of ‘θ’ contributes to achieve the
maximum value of radiation intensity (Umax)?
1. 0°
2. 90°
3. 180°
4. 270°
ANSWER: 90°
19) In which kind of array configuration, the element locations must deviate or adjust to some
nonplaner surface like an aircraft or missile?
1. Linear
2. Planer
3. Conformal
4. All of the above
ANSWER: Conformal
20) What is the nature of radiation pattern of an isotropic antenna?
1. Spherical
2. Dough-nut
3. Elliptical
4. Hyperbolic
ANSWER: Spherical
21) In broadside array, all the elements in the array should have similar _______excitation
along with similar amplitude excitation for maximum radiation.
1. Phase
2. Frequency
3. Current
4. Voltage
ANSWER: Phase
22) Which among the following is regarded as a condition of an ordinary endfire array?
1. α < βd
2. α > βd
3. α = ±βd
4. α ≠ ±βd
ANSWER: α = ±βd
23) For which band/s is the space wave propagation suitable over 30 MHz?
1. VHF
2. SHF
3. UHF
4. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
24) If the tower antenna is not grounded, which method of excitation is/are applicable for it?
1. Series
2. Shunt
3. Both a and b
ANSWER: Series
25) In ungrounded antennas, if an excitation is applied directly across the base insulator, then
on which factor/s would the voltage across the insulator depend?
1. Power delivered to antenna

2. Power factor of impedance
3. Both a and b
ANSWER: Both a and b
26) Which among the following exhibits perpendicular nature in TEM wave?
1. Electric field
2. Magnetic field
3. Direction of propagation
4. All of the above

27) Which equations are regarded as wave equations in frequency domain for lossless media?
1. Maxwell’s
2. Lorentz
3. Helmholtz
4. Poisson’s
ANSWER: Helmholtz
28) Which type of wire antennas are also known as dipoles?
1. Linear
2. Loop
3. Helical
4. All of the above
ANSWER: Linear
29) Which antennas are renowned as patch antennas especially adopted for space craft
applications?
1. Aperture
2. Microstrip
3. Array
4. Lens
ANSWER: Microstrip
30) Which conversion mechanism is performed by parabolic reflector antenna?
1. Plane to spherical wave

2. Spherical to plane wave
3. Both a and b
ANSWER: Spherical to plane wave
31) Which antenna radiating region/s has/have independent nature of angular field
distribution over the distance from the antenna?
1. Reactive near-field region

2. Fresnel region
3. Fraunhofer region
4. All of the above
ANSWER: Fraunhofer region
32) Sterdian is a measurement unit of __________
1. Point angle
2. Linear angle
3. Plane angle
4. Solid angle
ANSWER: Solid angle
33) According to the geometry, how many sterdians are present in a full sphere?
1. π/2
2. π
3. 2π
4. 4π
ANSWER: 4π
34) If a half-wave dipole operates at 300 MHz with λ = 0.5m & D0 = 1.643, what will be its
effective area?
1. 0.032 m2
2. 0.047 m2
3. 0.65 m2
4. 0.99 m2
ANSWER: 0.032 m2
35) Dipole antenna is symmetrical in nature where the two ends are at equal potentials with
respect to _____point
1. Initial
2. Eventual
3. Mid
ANSWER: Mid
36) What is the nature of current distribution over the small dipoles?
1. Spherical
2. Rectangular
3. Triangular
4. Square
ANSWER: Triangular
37) For receiving a particular frequency signal, which tuning component must be used by the
loop to form a resonant circuit for tuning to that frequency?
1. Capacitor
2. Inductor
3. Resistor
4. Gyrator
ANSWER: Capacitor
38) If the radius of loop is λ/ 20 in a free space medium,what will be the radiation resistance
of 8-turn small circular loop?
1. 0.7883 Ω
2. 50.45 Ω
3. 123.17 Ω
4. 190.01 Ω
ANSWER: 123.17 Ω
39) What is the far-field position of an electric short dipole?
1. Along x-axis
2. Along y-axis
3. Along z-axis
4. Along xy plane
ANSWER: Along z-axis
40) What would happen if the rms value of induced emf in loop acquires an angle θ = 90°?
1. Wave is incident in direction of plane of the loop with induced maximum voltage
2. Wave is incident normal to plane of the loop with no induced voltage
3. Wave is incident in opposite direction of plane of the loop with minimum voltage
ANSWER: Wave is incident normal to plane of the loop with no induced voltage
41) If a linear uniform array consists of 9 isotropic elements separated by λ/4, what would be
the directivity of a broadside array in dB?
6. 6.53 dB
7. 7.99 dB
8. 8.55 dB
9. 9.02 dB
ANSWER: 6.53 dB
42) If the elements of a binomial array are separated by λ/4, how many shape patterns are
generated with no minor lobes?
1. 2
2. 4
3. 8
4. 16
ANSWER: 8
43) What kind of beamwidth is/are produced by Chebyshev arrays for given side lobe level
(SLL)?
1. Widest
2. Narrowest
3. Both a and b
ANSWER: Narrowest
44) If the length of elements of an array is greater than λ/2, which will be the operating
region of an array?
1. Transmission line region

2. Active region
3. Reflective region
4. All of the above
ANSWER: Reflective region
45) Which angle of rhombic antenna represents one half of included angle of two legs of one
wire?
1. Apex angle
2. Tilt angle
3. Both a and b
ANSWER: Tilt angle
46) Which among the following is not a disadvantage of rhombic antenna?
1. Requirement of large space

2. Reduced transmission efficiency
3. Maximum radiated power along main axis
4. Wastage of power in terminating resistor
ANSWER: Maximum radiated power along main axis
47) Which kind of polarization is provided by helical antennas?
1. Plane
2. Elliptical
3. Circular
4. All of the above
ANSWER: Circular
48) In lens antenna, what kind of wave energy is transformed into plane waves?
1. Convergent
2. Divergent
3. Contingent
4. Congruent
ANSWER: Divergent
49) What is the functioning role of an antenna in receiving mode?

1. Radiator
2. Converter
3. Sensor
4. Inverter
ANSWER: Sensor
50) In radio communication link, what is the shape/nature of waves generated by transmitting
antenna?
1. Spherical
2. Plane
3. Triangular
4. Square
ANSWER: Spherical
51) If an antenna draws 12 A current and radiates 4 kW, then what will be its radiation
resistance?
22. 22.22 ohm

23. 27.77 ohm
24. 33.33 ohm
25. 39.77 ohm
ANSWER: 27.77 ohm
52) Self impedance of an antenna is basically __________
1. Its input impedance during the removal of all other antennas

2. Its impedance by taking into consideration the consequences of other antennas
3. Both a and b
ANSWER: Its input impedance during the removal of all other antennas
53) A dipole carries r.m.s. current of about 300A across the radiation resistance 2 Ω. What
would be the power radiated by an antenna?
1. 90 kW
2. 135 kW
3. 180 kW
4. 200 kW
ANSWER: 180 kW
54) What is /are the advantages of using ferrite loops?
1. Increase in Magnetic field intensity

2. Increase in radiation resistance
3. Decrease in Magnetic field intensity
4. Decrease in radiation resistance
1. A&B
2. C&D
3. A&D
4. B&C
ANSWER: A & B
55) In an electrically large loop, an overall length of the loop is equal to ______
1. λ/2
2. λ
3. λ/10
4. λ/50
ANSWER: λ
56) How do the elements of an active region behave?

1. Inductive
2. Capacitive
3. Resistive
ANSWER: Resistive
57) By how many times is an input impedance of a folded dipole at resonance greater than
that of an isolated dipole with same length as one of its sides?
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 6
ANSWER: 4
58) Which mode of radiation occurs in an helical antenna due to smaller dimensions of helix
as compared to a wavelength?
1. Normal
2. Axial
3. Both a and b
ANSWER: Normal
59) A rectangular horn antenna operating at 4GHz has the wavelength of 0.075m and gain
of about 13dBi. What will be its required capture area?
1. 0.0149 m2
2. 0.0475 m2
3. 0.5521 m2
4. 0.9732 m2
ANSWER: 0.0149 m2
60) The basic requirements of transmitting antennas are:
a) High efficiency
b) Low side lobes
c) Large signal to noise ratio
d) Lone of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The basic requirements of a transmitting antenna are high gain and efficiency
while requirements of receiving antennas are low side lobes and large signal to noise to ratio.
61) The basic equation of radiation that is applied to any antenna irrespective of the type of
the antenna is:
a) iL= Qv
b) iQ = Lv
c) i/L=Q/v
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Basic equation of radiation is given by iL=Qv. i is the time change in current, l
is the length of the current element, q is the charge v is the acceleration of the charge.
62) The number of patterns radiation pattern required to specify the characteristic are :
a) Three
b) Four
c) Two
d) Five
Answer: a
Explanation: The three patterns required are, θ component of the electric field as the function
of the angles as θ and φ, the φ component of the electric field as the function of the angles θ
and φ, the phase of these fields as a functions of the angle φ and θ .
63) The beam width of the antenna pattern measured at half power points is called:
a) Half power beam width
b) Full null beam width
c) Beam width
Answer: a
Explanation: The beam width of an antenna measure at half of the maximum power received
by an antenna or the 3 dB beam width of the antenna is termed as half null beam width.
64) An antenna has a field pattern of E (θ) = cos2 θ, θ varies between 0 and 900. Half power
beam width of the antenna is:
a) 330
b) 660
c) 12000
Answer: b
Explanation: Half power beam width of the antenna is obtained by equating the field pattern
of the antenna to 0.707 (half power point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of beam width.
Solving the given problem in the same flow, half power beam width of the antenna is 66 0.
65) An antenna has a field pattern E (θ) =cos θ. cos 2θ. The first null beam width of the
antenna is:
a) 450
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 1200
Answer: b
Explanation: Half power beam width of the antenna is obtained by equating the field pattern
of the antenna to 0.707 (half power point) and finding θ. 2θ gives the value of beam width.
Twice the half power beam width gives the first null beam width. With the same steps
applied, the half power beam width of the antenna is 450. First null beam width is 90 0.
66) The solid area through which all the power radiated by the antenna is:
a) Beam area
b) Effective area
c) Aperture area
d) Beam efficiency
Answer: a
Explanation: The beam area is the solid angle through which all of the power radiated by the
antenna would stream if P (θ, φ) maintained its maximum value over beam area and zero
elsewhere. This value is approximately equal to the angles subtended by the half power
points of the main lobe in the two principal planes.
67) Power radiated from an antenna per unit solid angle is called radiation intensity.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Power radiated from an antenna per unit solid angle is called radiation intensity.
Unit of radiation intensity is watts per steridian or per square degree.
68) As the beam area of an antenna decreases, the directivity of the antenna:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged
d) Depends on the type of the antenna
Answer: a
Explanation: Beam area of an antenna and the directivity of the antenna are inversely
proportional. As the beam area is reduced, the directivity increases, meaning smaller the
radiating area of the transmitting antenna, more directed is the emitted energy.
69) If an antenna radiates over half a sphere, directivity of the antenna is:
a) Two
b) Four
c) Three
d) One
Answer: a
Explanation: Since the antenna radiates over half the sphere, beam area of the antenna is 2π,
directivity of the antenna is given by 4π/ beam area. Substituting for beam area, the
directivity of the antenna is two.
70) The half power beam width of an antenna in both θ and φ are 400 each. Then the gain of
the antenna is:
a) 23
b) 25
c) 14
d) 27
Answer: b
Explanation: Approximate gain of an antenna is given by the expression 40000/ (HPBW) 2.
Substituting the given values in the above expression, the gain of the antenna is 25. In dB
scale the gain of the antenna is 14 dB.
71) The number N of radio transmitters or point sources of radiation distributed uniformly
over the sky which an antenna can resolve is given by:
a) 4π/ ΩA
b) 2π/ ΩA
c) π/ ΩA
Answer: a
Explanation: Resolution may be defined as equal to half the beam width between first nulls.
In the above expression the resolution N is given as 4π/ ΩA.. Here ΩA is the beam area.
72) Ideally, the number of point sources an antenna can resolve is numerically equal to:
a) Gain of the antenna
b) Directivity
c) Beam efficiency
d) Beam area
Answer: b
Explanation: The number of point source an antenna can resolve is given by 4π/ ΩA
Directivity of an antenna is mathematically given by the relation 4π/ ΩA . Numerically
resolution and directivity are equal.
73) Effective aperture is a parameter of the antenna that gives the physical aperture of the
antenna.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Effective aperture defines the amount of the total aperture of the antenna that is
utilized for radiation of energy. Higher the effective aperture of an antenna, more is the
aperture efficiency.
74) Effective aperture in terms of beam area and operating wavelength is given by the
relation:
a) λ2/ ΩA
b) ΩA / λ2
c) λ2× ΩA
d) No such relationship exists
Answer: a
Explanation: Effective aperture is given as λ 2/ ΩA. Here ΩA is the beam area. If the beam
area is specified in terms of the operating wavelength λ, then effective are of the antenna can
be made operating wavelength independent.
75) ________ of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the induced voltage to the incident
electric field.
a) Effective height
b) Gain
c) Directivity
d) Loss
Answer: a
Explanation: At the receiving end, effective height of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the
induced voltage to the incident electric field. Otherwise, if the effective length of the
receiving antenna is known and if the induced voltage is measured, then the field strength can
be determined.
76) The directivity of an antenna in terms of the aperture efficiency and operating wavelength
is given by:
a) 4πAe/λ2
b) 2πAe/λ2
c) πAe/λ2
Answer: a
Explanation: The directivity of an antenna in terms of aperture efficiency is given by
4πAe/λ2. Here Ae is the aperture efficiency. λ is the operating frequency. With an increase in
the effective aperture area of an antenna, directivity of the antenna can be increased making
the radiated beam narrower.
77) A radio link has 15 W transmitter connected to an antenna of 2.5 m 2 effective aperture at
5 GHz. The receiving antenna has an effective aperture of 0.5 m 2 and is located at a 15 Km
line of sight distance from transmitting antenna. Assuming lossless, matched antennas, the
power delivered to the receiver is:
a) 20 µW
b) 15 µm
c) 23 µm
d) 25 µm
Answer: c
Explanation: The power delivered to the receiving antenna is Pt (A1 A2/ r 2λ2). Substituting
the given values in the above equation, the power at the receiver is 23 µm.
78) The members of the antenna family which are made of wires of certain value in terms of
operating wavelength are called:
a) Loop antennas
b) Wire antennas
c) Dipole antenna
d) Slot antennas
Answer: c
Explanation: Wires of half wavelength are termed as dipoles. Their radiation resistance is
about 73 Ω. If only half of this length is used, then it is called quarter-wave monopole with a
radiation resistance of 36.5 Ω.
79) The antenna in which location of the feed determines the direction of the lobe are:
a) Wire antenna
b) Loop antenna
c) Helical antenna
d) Horn antenna
Answer: a
Explanation: In a wire antenna, the location of the feed determines the direction of the lobe
and the orientation of the wire determines the polarization. These wires can be thick or thin.
Thickness of the wire determines the radiation resistance of the antenna.
80) Based on the size of the loops, loop antennas are classified as small and large loops. This
is the only classification of loop antenna.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Loop antennas are classified based on various antenna parameters. To name a
few, small and large loops, circular and square loops, loops having single or multi turns,
loops with turns wound using a single wire or multiple wires.
81) Antenna that does not belong to the horn antenna family among the following are:
a) Pyramidal horn
b) Conical horn
c) bi-conical horn
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the above mentioned antennas belong to the horn antenna family. Horn
antennas may be made of pointed or rounded waveguides. The waveguides may contain disc
at an end or some dielectric.
82) Patch antennas are the antennas of small size and are made of:
a) Strip line
b) Microstrip lines
c) Coaxial cables
d) Rectangular waveguide
Answer: b
Explanation: Patch antennas are microstrip antennas that can be of any shape. Patch antennas
can be aperture-coupled fed or proximity fed. For obtaining circular polarization, a patch may
also be doubly fed.
83) Reflector antennas are widely used to modify radiation patterns of radiating elements.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Reflector antennas are used to modify radiation patterns of radiating elements.
Reflector antennas are classified into two categories. They are passive reflectors and active
reflectors. Based on the type of the radiating element and the modification in the radiation
pattern required, accordingly either active or passive reflectors are chosen.
84) The pattern of the reflector in a reflector antenna is called:

a) Primary pattern
b) Secondary pattern
c) Reflector pattern
Answer: b
Explanation: In a reflector antenna, the feed pattern is called primary pattern and the pattern
of the reflector is called secondary pattern. These antennas are widely employed in RADARs
and other types of point to point communication links.
85) ______ antennas have gain less than reflector antennas but have more lenient tolerance
on surfaces.
a) Helical antennas
b) Lens antennas
c) Array antennas
d) Slot antennas
Answer: b
Explanation: Lens antennas are complex in nature but are able to scale wider angles. In
comparison to reflectors, their gain is 1 or 2 dB less, but these have more lenient tolerance on
surfaces. These have less rearward reflection, relatively low loss and can be easily shaped to
the desired contours.
86) Lens antennas are classified into two types. One being fast antenna, the other one is:
a) Slow antenna
b) Delay antenna
c) Dynamic antenna
Answer: b
Explanation: In delay lenses, the electrical path length is increased or the wave is retarded by
the lens medium. Dielectric lenses and H-plane metal lenses fall in this category.
87) The antennas which offer high operational bandwidth and the antenna parameters are
maintained over a wide range of antennas are called:
a) Wide band antennas
b) Array antennas
c) Parabolic antennas
Answer: a
Explanation: In this class of antennas, constancy of impedance and radiation characteristics is
maintained over a wide range of frequencies. To be wide band or frequency independent,
antennas should expand or contract in proportion to the wavelength.
88) High directivity required in RADAR communication is satisfied using this type of
antennas:
a) Wide band antennas
b) Antenna arrays
c) Slot antennas
d) Patch antennas
Answer: b
Explanation: Higher directivity is the requirement in point to point communication. This can
be achieved by increasing the size of the antennas in terms of electrical length. When much
high directivity is required, antenna arrays are used.
89) The terminal impedance of a dipole antenna is 710 Ω. The terminal impedance of the slot
antenna given the intrinsic impedance of air is 377 Ω is:
a) 100 Ω
b) 50 Ω
c) 25 Ω
Answer: b
Explanation: The terminal impedance ZS of the slot is given by the relation Z02/ 4Zd) Zₒ is the
intrinsic impedance of the medium and ZD is the terminal impedance of the dipole.
Substituting the given values in the above equation, the terminal impedance of sot is 50 Ω.
90) If the length of aperture in a pyramidal horn antenna is 10cm and δ for the design is 0.25.
Then, the flaring angle of the pyramidal horn is:
a) 30⁰
b) 25.4⁰
c) 45⁰
d) 60⁰
Answer: b
Explanation: The flaring angle of pyramidal horn is given by 2cos-1(L/L+δ). Substituting the
values of L and δ, flaring angle is 25.4⁰.
91) If the directivity of a square corner receiving antenna is 20 and operating at a wavelength
of 0.25m, the effective aperture of a square corner antenna is:
a) 0.4 m2
b) 0.2 m2
c) 0.1 m2
Answer: a
Explanation: Given the directivity of the antenna, effective aperture of the antenna is given
by Dλ2/4π. substituting the given values of the variables; the effective aperture of the antenna
is 0.4 m2.
92) An antenna source that radiates energy uniformly in all the directions is called:
a) Isotropic source
b) Anisotropic source
c) Point source
Answer: a
Explanation: Isotropic source radiates energy in all the direction uniformly. For such a
source, the radial component Sr of the pointing vector is independent of θ and φ. The three
dimensional power pattern of n isotropic source is a sphere.
93) Antennas that radiate energy only in a specified are called anisotropic antennas.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: All physically realizable, simplest antennas also have directional properties.
That is, they radiate energy in one direction than in any other direction. Such sources are
called anisotropic point sources.
94) The expression for pointing vector of an isotropic point source at a distance ‘r’ from the
source is given by:
a) P/ 4πR2
b) P/4π
c) P/ 4πR
d) P×4πR2
Answer: a
Explanation: The pointing field vector for an isotropic source is given by the expression P/
4πR2.P is the total power radiated y the source. As the distance of the point from the source
increases, the magnitude of pointing vector decreases.
95) A source has a cosine radiation-intensity pattern given by U=U M cos (θ). The directivity
of this source is:
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
Answer: b
Explanation: To find the directivity of the given source, the power radiated by the given
source is found out by the method of integration. Taking the ratio of the power radiated by
the given source to the power radiated by an isotropic source gives the directivity. Following
the above steps, the directivity of the given source is 4.
96) A source has a cosine power pattern that is bidirectional. Given that the directivity of a
unidirectional source with cosine power pattern has a directivity of 4, then the directivity of
the unidirectional source is:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
Answer: b
Explanation: Given the directivity of unidirectional power pattern, the directivity of
bidirectional power pattern is half of it. Hence the directivity of the source is 2.
97) A source has a radiation intensity pattern given by U=UM sin θ. The directivity of the
source with this power pattern is:
a) 1
b) 1.27
c) 2.4
d) 3.4
Answer: b
the above steps, the directivity of the given source is 1.27.
98) A source has a sine squared radiation intensity power pattern. The directivity of the given
source is:
a) 1.5
b) 3
c) 2.5
d) 3.5
Answer: a
the above steps, the directivity of the given source is 1.5.
99) A source with a unidirectional cosine squared radiation intensity pattern is given by
UMcos2 (θ). The directivity of the given source is:
a) 6
b) 8
c) 2
d) 7
Answer: a
the given source to the power radiated by anisotropic source gives the directivity. Following
the above steps, the directivity of the given source is 6.
100) Considering distance as a parameter, two types of field zones can be defined around an
antenna.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Considering distance as a parameter, two types of field zones can be defined
around an antenna) .The field near the antenna is called near field or Fresnel region and the
other region is the far field that is also called as Fraunhofer region.
101) If the field strength at receiving antenna is 1 µV/m, and the effective aperture area is 0.4
m2 and the intrinsic impedance of the medium is 377 Ω, then the power received by the
antenna is:
a) 1.06 pW
b) 1.06 fW
c) 2 µW
Answer: b
Explanation: The received power by the antenna is given by E 2Ae/Zₒ. Substituting the known
values in the above equation, the power received is 1.06×10-15 watts.
102) A rectangular horn antenna operating at 4GHz has the wavelength of 0.075m and gain
of about 13dBi. What will be its required capture area?
a. 0.0149 m2
b.0.0475 m2
c. 0.5521 m2
d. 0.9732 m2
ANSWER: 0.0149 m2
103) Which mode of radiation occurs in an helical antenna due to smaller dimensions of helix
as compared to a wavelength?
a. Normal
b. Axial
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Normal
104) By how many times is an input impedance of a folded dipole at resonance greater than
that of an isolated dipole with same length as one of its sides?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
ANSWER: 4
105) A dipole carries r.m.s. current of about 300A across the radiation resistance 2 Ω.
What would be the power radiated by an antenna?
a. 90 kW
b. 135 kW
c. 180 kW
d. 200 kW
ANSWER: 180 kW
106) Which property/ies of antenna is/are likely to be evidenced in accordance to Reciprocity

theorem?
a. Equality of impedances
b. Equality of directional patterns
c. Equality of effective lengths
d. All of the above
107) If the antenna increases 3.3 times how much does the radiated power increase?
A. 3.3 times
B. 10.89 times
C. 9.9 times
D. 6.6 times
Answer: Option B
108) When speaking of antennas. ______ is a section which would be a complete antenna by
itself.
A. image
B. top loading
C. bay
D. quarterwave
Answer: Option C
109) If the current ratios of the two or more elements must be held 5% and the phase angle to
3° the antenna is called a
A. end fire array
B. critical phased array
C. broadband array
D. wideband array
Answer: Option B
110) Which is a non-resonant antenna?
A. Rhombic antenna
B. Folded dipole
C. End-fire array
D. Yagi-Uda antenna
Answer: Option A
111) Gain of a half-wave dipole antenna over isotropic.

A. 2.15 dB
B. 1.76 dB
C. 1 dB
D. 0 dB
Answer: Option A
112) Very low signal strength in antenna.
A. Minor lobes
B. Null
C. Antenna patterns
D. Major lobes
Answer: Option B
113) What is the gain of the Hertzian dipole over isotropic antenna?
A. 1.64 dB
B. 2.15 dB
C. 1.76 dB
D. 1.55 dB
Answer: Option C
114) ______ is the measurement of a unilateral antenna properties of directivity
A. Phase angle
B. Antenna gain
C. Beamwidth
D. Bandwidth
Answer: Option C
115) In testing transmitter to prevent interfering with other stations, which type of antenna
must be used?
A. Void antenna
B. Dummy antenna
C. Hertzian antenna
D. Isotropic antenna
Answer: Option B
116) If an antenna has a gain of 3 dB, it increases the output of the transmitter by
A. 10,000 times
B. 1000 times
C. 100 times
D. 1 million times
Answer: Option B
117) Top loading is used in an antenna in order to increase its ______.
A. practical height
B. beamwidth
C. effective height
D. input capacitance
Answer: Option C
118) A horizontal antenna is _____.
A. vertically polarized
B. horizontally polarized
C. centrally polarized
D. circularly polarized
Answer: Option B
119) All elements in a beam _____ antennas are in line
A. collinear
B. yagi
C. broadside array
D. log-periodic
Answer: Option A
120) Which does not use vertical polarization antenna?
A. AM Broadcasting
B. FM Broadcasting
C. Mobile Communications
D. Satellite Communications
Answer: Option B
121) _____ is an antenna with a number of half-wave antenna on it.
A. Antenna array
B. Tower
C. Omni-directional
D. Rhombic
Answer: Option A
122) Which antenna radiates an omnidirectional pattern in the horizontal plane with vertical
polarization?
A. Marconi antenna
B. Discone antenna
C. Horn antenna
D. Helical antenna
Answer: Option A
123) An antenna with very high gain and very narrow beamwidth.
A. Helical antenna
B. Discone antenna
C. Horn antenna
D. Parabolic dish antenna
Answer: Option D
124) What determines antenna polarization?
A. The frequency of the radiated wave
B. The direction of the radiated wave
C. The direction of the magnetic field vector
D. The direction of the electric field vector
Answer: Option D
125) _____ is the horizontal pointing angle of an antenna
A. Azimuth
B. Angle of elevation
C. Right angle
D. Beamwidth
Answer: Option A
126) A dipole antenna requires to be fed with 20 kW of power to produce a given signal
strength to a particular distant point. If the addition of a reflector makes the same field
strength available with an input power of 11kW. What is the gain in dB, obtained by the use
if the reflector. (Gain referred to this particular dipole).
A. 4.75
B. 2.6
C. 1.81
D. 4.24
Answer: Option B
127) _____ is an open-ended slot antenna
A. Helical antenna
B. Rhombic antenna
C. Notch antenna
D. Cassegrain antenna
Answer: Option C
128) Which antenna is a properly terminated?
A. Marconi
B. Rhombic
C. Dipole
D. Yagi-Uda
Answer: Option B
129) What is the radiation characteristic of a dipole antenna?
A. Omnidirectional
B. Bidirectional
C. Unidirectional
D. Hemispherical
Answer: Option B
130) How will you increase the gain of an antenna?
A. By adding several antennas in parallel
B. By focusing the radiated energy in one desired direction
C. By making antenna rods thicker
D. By making the antenna size larger
Answer: Option B
131) An antenna which is one-tenth wavelength long
A. Hertzian dipole
B. Loop antenna
C. Marconi antenna
D. Elementary doublet
Answer: Option D
132) What is the minimum number of turns a helix antenna must have?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: Option A
133) What is the gain of isotropic antenna?

A. 10
B. 1
C. 10
D. 100
Answer: Option B
134) Which of the following improves antenna directivity?
A. Driven element
B. Reflector element
C. Director element
D. Parasitic element
Answer: Option D
135) What is the front-to-back ratio of an antenna which radiates 500 watts in a northernly
direction and 50 watts in a southernly direction?
A. 25000 dB
B. 10 dB
C. 100 dB
D. 20 dB
Answer: Option B
136) If 4 kW in antenna produces 50 μV/m in a receiving antenna, a 15 kW will produce

_____.
A. 200 μV/m
B. 10 μV/m
C. 100 μV/m
D. 20 μV/m
Answer: Option C
137) If the radiated power increase 10.89 times, the antenna current increases by ______.
A. 3.3 times
B. 6.6 times
C. 1.82 times
D. 10.89 times
Answer: Option A
138) If the radiated power increase 10.89 times, the antenna current increases by ______.
A. 3.3 times
B. 6.6 times
C. 1.82 times
D. 10.89 times
Answer: Option A
139) Comparing the signal strength arriving at the driven element from the desired direction
to the signal strength reaching the driver from the opposite direction.
A. Directivity
B. Sensitivity
C. Beamwidth
D. Front-to-back ratio
Answer: Option D
140) What is the capture area of a dipole operated at 75 MHz?
A. 4 mm
B. 2 m^2
C. 2.088 m^2
D. 4.088 m^2
Answer: Option C
141) Shortening effect of an antenna that makes it appear as if it were 5% longer.
A. End effect
B. Flywheel effect
C. Skin effect
D. Capture effect
Answer: Option A
142) Harmonic suppressor connected to an antenna.
A. Low-pass filter
B. High-pass filter
C. M-derived filter
D. Constant-K
Answer: Option A
143) A simple half-wavelength antenna radiates the strongest signal
A. at 45 degrees to its axis
B. parallel to its axis
C. at right angles to its axis
D. at 60 degrees to its axis
Answer: Option C
144) The power fed to a two-bay turnstile antenna is 100 watts. If the antenna has a 2 dB
power gain, what is the effective radiated power?
A. 317 watts
B. 158 watts
C. 200 watts
D. 400 watts
Answer: Option B
145) What is the gain, in dB of a helical antenna with diameter of λ/3, 10 turns at pitch of λ/4,
used at 100 MHz?
A. 16
B. 41.1
C. 31.4
D. 1.25
Answer: Option A
146) How is it possible to lower the resonant frequency of Hertz dipole antenna?
A. By reducing the frequency at the transmitter
B. By connecting a capacitor in series with the antenna
C. By the connecting a resistor in series with the antenna
D. By connecting an inductor in series with the antenna
Answer: Option D
147) Which of the following antennas receive signals in the horizontal plane equality well
from all directions?
A. Horizontal Hertz antenna
B. Vertical loop antenna

C. Vertical Yagi antenna
D. A vertical antenna which is a quarter-wavelength long
Answer: Option D
148) A final amplifier of a radio transmitter draws 250 mA of plate current when the plate
supply voltage is 1400 volts. If the plate circuit efficiency is 80% and the transmitter is
connected to an antenna having a feed impedance of 70 ohms, what is the antenna current at
the feed-point?
A. 4.0 A
B. 2.2 A
C. 1.25 A
D. 2.0 A
Answer: Option D
149) A vertical loop antenna has a
A. unidirectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane
B. unidirectional radiation pattern in the vertical plane
C. omnidirectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane
D. a bidirectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane
Answer: Option D
150) In order to get maximum radiation to all surrounding points in the horizontal plane, the
antenna used is a
A. vertical loop
B. vertical quarter-wavelength rod
C. array which includes parasitic elements
D. a horizontal Hertz dipole

Answer: Option B
151) Actual height of antenna should be at least
A. one wavelength
B. half wavelength
C. quarter wavelength
D. three-fourth wavelength
Answer: Option C
152) ______ is an antenna array which is highly directional at right angles to the plane of the
array?
A. Broadside array
B. End-fire array
C. Turnstile array
D. Log-periodic array
Answer: Option A
153) The directivity pattern of an isotropic radiator is
A. a figure-8
B. a sphere
C. a unidirectional cardioid
D. a parabola
Answer: Option B
154) A Hertz antenna is operating on a frequency of 2182 kHz and consists of a horizontal
wire that is hanged between two towers. What is the frequency of its third harmonic?
A. 727 kHz
B. 6546 kHz
C. 436 kHz
D. 6.546 kHz
Answer: Option B
155) What is driven element?
A. Always the rearmost element
B. Always the forward most element
C. The element fed by the transmission line
D. The element connected to the rotator
Answer: Option C
156) What is antenna bandwidth?
A. Antenna length divided by the number of elements
B. The angle between the half-power radiation points
C. The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through
D. The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to operate satisfactorily
Answer: Option D
157) What is the gain of an antenna over a half-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over
an isotropic radiator?
A. 6.0 dB
B. 8.1 dB
C. 3.9 dB
D. 10.0 dB
Answer: Option C
158) What is the usual electrical length of a driven element in an HF beam antenna?
A. ¼ wavelength
B. ¾ wavelength
C. ½ wavelength
D. 1 wavelength
Answer: Option C
159) What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of
loading coils?
A. It is increased
B. It is decreased
C. No change occurs
D. It becomes flat
Answer: Option A
160) The input terminal impedance at the center of a folded dipole antenna is
A. 72 Ω
B. 300 Ω
C. 50 Ω
D. 73 Ω
Answer: Option B
161) Factors that determine the radiation resistance of an antenna
A. Transmission line length and height of antenna
B. The location of the antenna with respect to nearby objects
C. It is a constant for all antennas since it is physical
D. Sunspot activity and the time of day
Answer: Option B
162) ____ is the angle between the half-power radiation points
A. Critical angle
B. Beamwidth
C. Angle of elevation
D. Azimuth
Answer: Option B
163) What is the ratio of the maximum radiation intensity to the average radiation intensity?
A. Aperture gain
B. Directivity gain
C. Transmission gain
D. Power gain
Answer: Option B
164) An ungrounded antenna near the ground
A. acts as a single antenna of twice the height
B. is unlikely to need an earth mat
C. acts as antenna array

D. must be horizontally polarized
Answer: Option C
165) Not a reason for the use of an antenna coupler.
A. To make the antenna look resistive
B. To provide the output amplifier with the correct load impedance
C. To discriminate against harmonics
D. To prevent re-radiation of the local oscillator
Answer: Option D
166) One of the following makes an antenna physically long but electrically short
A. Adding L in series
B. Adding C in series
C. Top loading
D. Both A and C
Answer: Option B
167) When antennas are closed to the ground, _______ polarization is ideal
A. horizontally polarized
B. vertically polarized
C. circularly polarized
D. both A and B
Answer: Option B
168) _____ is an antenna made up of a number of full wavelengths

A. Elementary doublet
B. Log-periodic
C. Long wire
D. Whip
Answer: Option C
169) To achieve maximum possible energy transfer between transmitting and receiving
stations at practical distances, _______ are used.
a. High gain
b. Parabolic reflector
c. Director
d. secret
Answer: Option B
170) _______ is an instrument that measures the radiated field from an antenna.
a. Field strength meter
b. Field meter
c. Strength meter
d. Intensity meter
Answer: Option A
171) If 1000 watts of RF power is applied to the feedpoint, and a current of 3.7 amperes was
measured, what is the radiation resistance?
a. 50 ohms
b. 300 ohms
c. 600 ohms
d. 73 ohms
Answer: Option D
172) Most common form of multi-band wire antenna is the __________.
a. Log periodic antenna
b. Yagi Uda
c. Long wire antenna
d. Trap dipole
Answer: Option D
173) In order to increase the gain of Yagi-Uda arrays, what element are added?
a. Using many director
b. Using many dipole
c. Using many reflector
d. All of these
Answer: Option A
174) It is a measure of how much the antenna concentrates its transmitted microwave power
in a given direction
a. Beamwidth
b. Polarization
c. Bandwidth
d. Gain
Answer: Option D
175) An antenna is formed of four array antenna, each of which has a gain of _____ if the
total gain of these antenna arrays is 30 dB.
a. 12 dB
b. 13 dB
c. 14 dB
d. 15 dB
Answer: Option C
176) Impedance for free space is _______.
a. 120(pi)
b. 30(pi)
c. 180(pi)
d. None of these
Answer: Option A
177) The design ratio of the log-periodic antenna must be _____.
a. Equal to zero
b. Greater than 1
c. Less than 1
d. Unity
Answer: Option C
178) The main difference between half-wave and folded dipole is the __________.
a. Length
b. Radiation resistance
c. Transmission line
d. None of these
Answer: Option B
179) Directivity higher than that obtained with uniform phase.
a. Super gain
b. High gain
c. Medium gain
d. Low gain
Answer: Option A
180) A parabolic dish antenna has a diameter of 3m and operates at 46 Hz. Calculate the
aperture.
a. 3.5 square meters
b. 4.59 square meters
c. 2.7 square meters
d. 1.2 square meters
Answer: Option B
181) If the radiation resistance is 36 ohms, what must be the antenna length?
a. Half-wavelength long
b. One wavelength long
c. Quarter-wavelength long
d. Any of these
Answer: Option C
182) If the antenna is receiving of 10^-12 v/m of electric field, magnetic field of 3.2 x 10^-3
A/m at a 5 sq. m absorbing area, what is the power received?
a. 0.2561 pW
b. 0.72 pW
c. 0.016 pW
d. 0.0012 pW
Answer: Option C
183) It is known as a single directive antenna.
a. Corner director
b. Corner dipole
c. Corner reflector
d. Yagi antenna
Answer: Option C
184) The fact that the second wire of the folded dipole is folded makes the current on the two
conductors of the antenna flow in the _______ direction.
a. Same
b. Opposite
c. No
d. None of these
Answer: Option A
185) A dish antenna has a diameter of 2m and operates at 46 Hz, find the antenna gain at 65%
efficiency.
a. 3422.6
b. 3.26 dB
c. 12.3 dB
d. 4266.67
Answer: Option D
186) What is the approximate effective length of an antenna at 10 MHz
a. 2.65 m
b. 9.55 m
c. 4.62 m
d. 8.6 m
Answer: Option B
187) Calculate effective absorbing area operating at 106 Hz for a standard half-wave dipole.
a. 0.265 mm^2
b. 0.1175 mm^2
c. 1.26 mm^2
d. 2.3 mm^2
Answer: Option B
188) An area of radiation which exist between adjacent nulls.
a. Minimum
b. Maximum
c. Lobe
d. Nulls
Answer: Option C
189) The 70.7% point on the polar graph is known as the _________ point and represent the
point of maximum width of the lobe
a. Full power
b. Half-power
c. Quarter point
d. Maximum point
Answer: Option B
190) A transmitting antenna has a gain of 10 and a power input of 60 watts. What is the
effective radiated power?
a. 6 kW
b. 60 kW
c. 0.6 kW
d. 600 kW
Answer: Option A
191) Indicate the antenna that is not wideband:
a. Discone
b. Folded dipole
c. Helical
d. Marconi
Answer: Option D
192) Which of the following terms does not apply to the Yagi-Uda array?
a. Good bandwidth
b. Parasitic elements
c. Folded dipole
d. High gain
Answer: Option D
193) Cassegrain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
a. Increase the gain of the system
b. Increase the beamwidth of the system
c. Reduce the size of the main reflector
d. Allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point
Answer: Option D
194) One of the following is not an omnidirectional antenna:
a. Half-wave dipole
b. Log-periodic
c. Discone
d. Marconi
Answer: Option B
195) The parasitic element of an antenna system will:
a. Decrease its directivity
b. Increase its directivity
c. Give the antenna unidirectional properties
d. Both B and C
Answer: Option D
196) If the length of the antenna is changed from 2.5 meters to 2.8 meters, its resonant
frequency will
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Depend on the velocity factor so the resonant frequency can either be increased or
decreased
d. Will be unchanged
Answer: Option B
197) What is the wavelength of a shorted stub used to absorb even harmonics?
a. ½ λ
b. 1/3 λ
c. ¼ λ
d. 1/8 λ
Answer: Option C
198) How much power will an antenna having a radiation resistance of 50 Ω radiate when fed
with a 20 A current?
a. 20, 000 W
b. 1000 W
c. 2 kW
d. 10 kW
Answer: Option A
199) Determine the Q of an antenna if it has a bandwidth of 0.06 MHz and is cut to a
frequency of 30 MHz.
a. 50
b. 100
c. 150
d. 250
Answer: Option A
200) How does the length of the reflector element of a parasitic element beam antenna
compare with that of the driven element?
a. It is about 5% longer
b. It is about 5% shorter
c. It is twice as long
d. It is one-half as long
Answer: Option A
201) How does the length of the director element of a parasitic element beam antenna
compare with that of the driven element?
a. It is about 5% longer
b. It is about 5% shorter
c. It is twice as long
d. It is one-half as long
Answer: Option B
202) A microwave communications uses plane reflectors as passive repeaters. The diameter
of the parabolic antenna is 18 ft while the effective area is 310 sq ft. Determine the reflector
coupling factor.
a. 0.76
b. 0.906
c. 0.92
d. 0.706
Answer: Option B
203) The ratio of the focal length to the diameter of the mouth of the parabola is called
_____.
a. aperture
b. focal point
c. foci
d. major axis
Answer: Option A
204) Calculate the angle of declination for an antenna using a polar mount at a latitude of 45
degrees
a. 3.2 degrees
b. 1.3 degrees
c. 4.2 degrees
d. 6.81 degrees
Answer: Option D
205) What is the beamwidth of a parabolic antenna with a diameter of 5 meters and an
operating frequency of 10 GHz?
a. 0.5 degrees
b. 0.675 degrees
c. 0.348 degrees
d. 3.48 degrees
Answer: Option C
206) The size of antenna is inversely proportional to _______.
a. frequency
b. power
c. radiation resistance
d. wavelength
Answer: Option A
207) Calculate the gain of a parabolic antenna using a 2.5-m radius dish operating at 10 GHz.
a. 166.673 dB
b. 83.7 dB
c. 52.2 dB
d. 45.6 dB
Answer: Option C
208) For a transmit antenna with a radiation resistance of 72 ohms, an effective antenna
resistance of 8 ohms, a directive gain of 20 and an input power of 100W, determine the
antenna gain.
a. 12.55 dB
b. 10.43 dB
c. 11.21 dB
d. 9.78 dB
Answer: Option A
209) The radiation pattern plotted in terms of electric field strength or power density
a. absolute radiation pattern
b. relative radiation pattern
c. absolute front lobe pattern
d. absolute side lobe pattern
Answer: Option A
210) Calculate the characteristic impedance of a quarter – wavelength section used to connect
a 300-ohm antenna to a 75-ohm line
a. 150 ohms
b. 120 ohms
c. 130 ohms
d. 110 ohms
Answer: Option A
211) What must be the height of a vertical radiator one half wavelength high if the operating
frequency is 1100 kHz?
a. 120 m
b. 136 m
c. 115 m
d. 124 m
Answer: Option B
212) Calculate the efficiency of an antenna that has a radiation resistance of 73 ohms and an
effective dissipation resistance of 5 ohms
a. 98.3%
b. 93.6%
c. 90.7%
d. 95.5%
Answer: Option B
213) A half-wave dipole is driven with a 5-W signal at 225 MHz. A receiving dipole 100 km.
Calculate the received power into a 73-ohm receiver.
a. 23.5 pW
b. 7.57 pW
c. 5.64 pW
d. 1.26 pW
Answer: Option B
214) What is the effective radiated power of a television broadcast station if the output of the
transmitter is 1000W, antenna transmission line loss is 50W, and the antenna power gain is
3?
a. 1250 W
b. 2370 W
c. 2130 W
d. 2850 W
Answer: Option D
215) If a 500 kHz transmitter of a constant power produces field strength of 100 uV/m at a
distance of 100 mi from the transmitter, what would be the theoretical field strength at a
distance of 200 mi from the transmitter?
a. 45 uV/m
b. 100 uV/m
c. 50 uV/m
d. 35 uV/m
Answer: Option C
216) If the field intensity of 25 mV/m develops 2.7 V in a certain antenna, what is its
effective height?
a. 110 m
b. 100 m
c. 98 m
d. 108 m
Answer: Option D
217) If the power of a 500 kHz transmitter is increased from 150 W to 300 W, what would be
the percentage change in field intensity at a given distance from the transmitter?
a. 141%
b. 150%
c. 100%
d. 133%
Answer: Option A
218) It is the equivalent power that an isotropic antenna would have to radiate to achieve the
same power density in the chosen direction at a given point as another antenna.
a. EIRP
b. ERP
c. IRL
d. RSL
Answer: Option A
219) For a transmit antenna with a power gain of 10 and an input power of 100 W, determine
the EIRP in watts.
a. 30 dBW
b. 40 dBW
c. 50 dBW
d. 20 dBW
Answer: Option A
220) For a transmit antenna with a power gain of 10 and an input power of 100 W, determine
the power density at a point 10 km from the transmit antenna
a. 0.574 uW/m^2
b. 0.796 uW/m^2
c. 1.24 uW/m^2
d. 0.981 uW/m^2
Answer: Option B
221) For a transmit antenna with a radiation resistance of 72 ohms, an effective antenna
resistance of 8 ohms, a directive gain of 20 and an input power of 100 W, determine the
antenna efficiency.
a. 90%
b. 96%
c. 98%
d. 96%
Answer: Option A
222) For receive power density of 10 uW/m^2 and a receive antenna with a capture area of
0.2 m^2, determine the captured power.
a. 0.5 uW
b. 2 uW
c. 1 uW
d. 1.5 uW
Answer: Option B
223) A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of its
a. circular polarization
b. maneuverability
c. broad bandwidth
d. good front to back ratio

Answer: Option A
224) A wide – bandwidth multi-element driven array is the ______.
a. end-fire
b. log-periodic
c. yagi
d. collinear
Answer: Option B
225) What is the bandwidth ratio of log-periodic antenna?
a. 10:1
b. 5:1
c. 20:1
d. 1:10
Answer: Option A
226) Which beam width represents the best antenna directivity?
a. 7 degrees
b. 12 degrees
c. 19 degrees
d. 28 degrees
Answer: Option A
227) An antenna has a power gain off 15. The power applied to the antenna is 32 W. The
effective radiated power is ________.
a. 15 W
b. 32 W
c. 120 W
d. 480 W
Answer: Option D
228) It is group of antenna arrays that when connected together, function as a simple antenna
whose beamwidth and direction can be changed electronically without having to physically
move any of the individual antennas or antenna elements within the array.
a. end-fire array
b. broadside antenna
c. phased array antenna
d. log-periodic antenna
Answer: Option C
229) Part of a parabolic antenna that houses the primary antenna which radiates
electromagnetic waves toward the reflector.
a. feed mechanism
b. focal point
c. center feed
d. feed antenna
Answer: Option A
230) For a 2-m diameter parabolic reflector with 10W of power radiated by the feed
mechanism operating at 6 GHz with a transmit antenna efficiency of 55% and an aperture
efficiency of 55%, determine the beamwidth.
a. 1.25 degrees
b. 2.25 degrees
c. 1.5 degrees
d. 1.75 degrees
Answer: Option D
231) How much more feed-point impedance does a folded dipole have than a normal dipole?
a. two times as much
b. three times as much
c. four times as much
d. five times as much
Answer: Option C
232) Why is pi-network superior to direct coupling to an antenna?
a. reduce harmonic radiation
b. better frequency response
c. better radiation of energy
d. reduce power dissipation
Answer: Option A
233) When testing transmitter to prevent interfering with other stations, which type of
antenna must be used?
a. Dummy antenna
b. Herztian antenna
c. None
d. Void antenna
Answer: Option A
234) Determine the gain of a 6 ft parabolic dish operating at 1800 MHz

a. 15.5 dB
b. 30 dB
c. 11.2 dB
d. 28.17 dB
Answer: Option D
235) A convenient method of determining antenna impedance
a. Reactance circle
b. Stub matching
c. Smith chart
d. Trial and error
Answer: Option C
236) The product of the power supplied to the antenna and its gain relative to a half-wave
dipole in a given direction.
a. Rated power
b. ERP
c. Peak envelope power
d. Carrier power
Answer: Option B
237) The frequency of operation of a dipole antenna cut to length of 3.4 m.
a. 42.9 MHz
b. 53.3 MHZ
c. 38.5 MHz
d. 61.3 MHz
Answer: Option A
238) Best description of a collinear and broadside antenna radiation pattern.
a. Bidirectional
b. Omnidirectional
c. Unidirectional
d. Perfect circle
Answer: Option A
239) Antenna which is not properly terminated
a. Whip
b. Non-resonant
c. Isotropic
d. Resonant
Answer: Option D
240) Determine the dB of a receiving antenna which delivers a microvolt signal to a

transmission line over that of an antenna that delivers a 20 microvolt signal under identical
circumstances.
a. -26 dB
b. 26 dB
c. 3 dB
d. 10 dB
Answer: Option A
EC 8701 – ANTENNAS AND MICROWAVE ENGINEERING
MCQs
1) S parameters are expressed as a ratio of:

a) Voltage and current
b) Impedance at different ports
c) Indecent and the reflected voltage waves
Answer: c
Explanation: S matrix can be used to represent any n port network. S parameters are defined
for microwave networks. Hence instead of voltage and current measurement, the amplitude of
the incident and reflected voltage waves is measured.
2) The relation between incident voltage matrix , reflected voltage matrix and S matrix for a
microwave network:
a) [v-] = [s] [v+].
b) [v+] = [s] [v-].
c) [v-] [v] = [s].
d) [s] = [v] [v-].
Answer: a
Explanation: S parameter for a microwave network is defined as the ratio of reflected voltage
wave to the incident voltage wave. When represented in the form of a matrix, reflected
voltage matrix is the product of S parameter and the incident voltage wave at that port.
3) The specific element Sij of the scattering matrix can be determined as:
a) SIJ= Vi-/Vj+
b) SIJ= Vi+/Vj-
c) S= Vj+/Vi-
Answer: a
Explanation: The parameter Sij is found by driving port j with an incident wave of voltage V j+
coming out of ports i. The incident waves on all ports except the jth port are set to zero.
4) The device used to get the measurement of S parameters of n- port micro wave network is:
a) CRO
b) Network analyzer
c) Circulator
d) Attenuator
Answer: b
Explanation: Network analyzer is a device to which any microwave network can be
externally connected with the help of probes and the s parameters of the network can be
obtained.
5) For a one port network , the scattering parameter S₁₁ in terms of impedance parameter Z₁₁
is:
a) (Z11-1)/ (Z11+1)
b) (Z11+1)/ (Z11-1)
c) (Z11+1) (Z11-1)
d) Z11
Answer: a
Explanation: If Z matrix of a one port network is computed, then the s matrix of the same can
be computed using the Z11 coefficient. To compute the S11 parameter of the network, the
relation used is (Z11-1)/ (Z11+1).
6) Scattering matrix for a reciprocal network is:

a) Symmetric
b) Unitary
c) Skew symmetric
d) Identity matrix
Answer: a
Explanation: For a reciprocal network, the input to port I and output at port j is the same as
the input at port j and output measured at port i. Hence, the ports are interchangeable. As the
ports are interchangeable, this is reflected in the matrix and the matrix becomes symmetric.
7) S₁₂=0.85-45⁰ and S₁₂=0.85 +45⁰ for a two port network. Then the two port network is:
a) Non-reciprocal
b) Lossless
c) Reciprocal
d) Lossy
Answer: a
Explanation: For a reciprocal network, the S matrix is symmetric. For the matrix to be
symmetric, Sij=Sji. Since this condition is not satisfied in the above case, the matrix is non
reciprocal.
8) Scattering matrix for a lossless matrix is:

a) Unitary
b) Symmetric
c) Identity matrix
d) Null matrix
Answer: a
Explanation: For a lossless network, the scattering matrix has to be unitary. That is, the law
of conservation of energy is to be verified for this case. Using appropriate formula, this
condition can be verified.
9) If the reflection co efficient of a 2 port network is 0.5 then the return network loss in the
network is:
a) 6.5 dB
b) 0.15 dB
c) 6.020 dB
d) 10 dB
Answer: c
Explanation: Given the reflection coefficient of the network, return loss of the network is
calculated using the formula -20 log │Г│. Substituting for reflection coefficient, the return
loss of the network is 6.02 dB.
10) If the reflection co efficient of a 2 port network is 0.25 then the return network loss in the
network is:
a) 12.05 dB
b) 0.15 dB
c) 20 dB
d) 10 dB
Answer: a
Explanation: Given the reflection coefficient of the network, return loss of the network is
calculated using the formula -20 log │Г│. Substituting for reflection coefficient, the return
loss of the network is 12.05 dB.
11) Power dividers and couplers are ______ microwave components used for power division
or power combining.
a) Passive
b) Active
c) Linear
d) Non linear
Answer: a
Explanation: When a given input power is to be divided equally at microwave frequencies,
power dividers are used. Since couplers and dividers do not store any energy they are called
passive microwave components.
12) T- junction is an example for:
a) 2 port network
b) 3 port network
c) 4 port network
Answer: b
Explanation: A T junction is a 3 port network where the junction is excited at one of the port,
output is measured at another port, with the third port terminated with a known impedance.
13) A T junction has a 3×3 ‘s’ matrix.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: ‘n’ port microwave network is represented as n×n s matrix. Characteristics of a
microwave network can be known by analyzing his s matrix. A T junction has 3 ports. Hence,
they are represented as a 3×3 matrix.
14) If a device is passive and contains no anisotropic elements, then the device is_______
network.
a) Reciprocal
b) Non reciprocal
c) Lossless
d) Lossy
Answer: a
Explanation: If a device is passive, it does not store any energy and does not contain any
sources. It then acts as a reciprocal network. That is, when the input and output ports are
interchanged, the power delivered remains the same.
15) If all the ports of a microwave network are matched, then the diagonal elements of the S
matrix of the network is zero.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: When all the ports of a microwave network are matched, no power is reflected
back to the port that is excited by the source. Since no power is reflected back, the elements
Sii of the S matrix become zero.
16) If a microwave network is lossless, then S matrix of the microwave network is:
a) Unitary
b) Symmetric
c) Identity matrix
d) Zero matrix
Answer: a
Explanation: If a microwave network is lossless, law of energy conservation requires that the
condition for example, │S12│2+│S13│2= 1. This condition has to be satisfied for a 3 port
network. This can be generalized for any n port network.
17) A lossless reciprocal 3 port network can be matched at all the three ports.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A lossless three port network can be only matched at 2 ports. It not possible for
the S matrix of a 3 port network to satisfy all the above conditions .This would violate the
law of conservation of energy.
18) A circulator is a 3 port network that allows energy flow in clockwise direction only.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A circulator is a 3 port device that allows energy flow in only one direction. The
direction of flow is either clockwise or counter clockwise. Bothe the directions are not
simultaneously allowed in a circulator.
19) The diagonal elements of the S matrix of an improperly matched circulator is zero.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: If the three ports of a circulator are not properly matched, it would result in the
backward flow of power to the previous ports. Hence, the diagonal elements will not be zero
due to improper matching as they signify the reflection of energy back to the same port.
20) Coupling factor of a directional coupler must be maximum and is a key factor that
determines the performance of the coupler.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Coupling factor indicates the fraction of input power that is coupled to the
output port. If a directional coupler has higher coupling factor, maximum power is obtained
at the output port with low loss.
21) Directivity of a directional coupler signifies the direction of power flow in the coupler.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Directivity is the measure of the directional coupler’s ability to isolate forward
and backward waves. Directivity is also defined as the ratio of power at the output port to the
power at the isolated port.
22) Isolation of a directional coupler is a measure of the:

a) Power delivered to the uncoupled port
b) Power delivered to the coupled port
c) Power delivered to the second port
Answer: a
Explanation: In a directional coupler, there exists a port called the isolated port through
which no power is received and is isolated from the remaining ports of the coupler. Isolation
of a directional coupler is a measure of the power delivered to the uncoupled port.
23) Insertion loss is the power delivered to the through port.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In a directional coupler, the second port is called is called the through port and
the third port is called the output port. When power flows from port 1 to output port, the
power measured at port 2 can be termed as insertion loss.
24) In a symmetric coupler, the power delivered to the through port and output port are equal.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A symmetric coupler is the one which delivers equal amount of power to both
port 2 and port 3 of the directional coupler. The signals t these ports are out of phase by 90 0.
25) A T junction power divider can be used only for division of power.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A T junction power divider is a 3 port network that can be used either for power
dividing or power combining. For power division, one of the ports is excited with the source
and the other two ports are used to receive power. For power combining, 2 ports are excited
with the source and output is taken at the third port.
26) The lossless T junction dividers can be can all be modeled as a junction of three
transmission lines.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A T junction consists of three ports; hence they can be modeled with 3
transmission lines. However, they cannot be both lossless and matched simultaneously.
27) For the realization of lossless T-junction power divider using transmission lines, the
characteristic impedance of the transmission line has to be real.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: From various analyses, it is found that for a transmission line must have real
characteristic impedance. If they are not real, they capacitive and inductive passive elements
result in retaining some energy in the junction making them lossy.
28) The output power measured at the 2 ports of the T junction:

a) Is a constant
b) Variable
c) Is not real power
Answer: b
Explanation: The output line impedance determines the power delivered to the 2 output ports
in a T junction coupler. Depending on the value of the power desired, the impedance can be
changed and the corresponding power is obtained.
29) Hybrid couplers are also a type of directional couplers.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Hybrid couplers are also a type of directional couplers that give a coupling
factor of 3db) A coupling factor of 3dB means that 70.7% of the total input power is received
at the output port.
30) If the input power is divided in the ratio of 2:1 in a T- junction coupler and the
characteristic impedance of the 2 output lines is 150Ω and 75Ω, then the impedance of the
input line is:
a) 100Ω
b) 50Ω
c) 150Ω
Answer: b
Explanation: The input impedance of the T junction is the equivalent of the 2 output
impedances in parallel. That is 150││75. Solving this, (150*75/(150+75)), the input
impedance is 50 Ω.
31) A lossy T junction can be matched at all the three ports.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: If a T junction is constructed using resistors, the T junction becomes lossy, but
it can be simultaneously matched at all the three ports.
32) The diagonal elements of the s matrix of a resistive T junction are:

a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 1.5
Answer: a
Explanation: A resistive junction can be matched at all the three ports of the junction. Hence
no power is reflected back. As a result, the diagonal elements are all 0 for a resistive T
junction.
33) The power delivered to the input port of a resistive power divider is equal to the source
voltage applied.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Since power is applied to a resistive power divider, there is loss and hence not
all the supply power is delivered to the input port of the power divider.
34) The power input at the port 1 of resistive T junction is equally divided among the 2
output ports of the T junction.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The power division ratio of a resistive T junction depends on the resistance of
the resistors used in forming those junctions. Depending on the resistors used, the power gets
divided accordingly.
35) A major disadvantage of the lossless T-junction power divider is:

a) Not matched at all the ports
b) Low power output
c) Complex construction
Answer: a
Explanation: A T-junction hybrid cannot be matched at all the ports if the power divider is
lossless. It can be matched only at 2 ports. This is one of the major disadvantages when they
are to be used along with other microwave devices.
36) The Wilkinson power divider is a:

a) 2 port network
b) 3 port network
c) 4 port network
Answer: b
Explanation: Wilkinson power divider is a 3 port network; if it is used as a divider it has one
input port and 2 output ports. If it is used as coupler, it has two input port and one output port.
37) Wilkinson power divider is an equal split power divider.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Wilkinson power divider can be used to divide power in any ratio, but the most
commonly used configuration is the equal split power divider.
38) If 10 watt is applied to the input port of a standard Wilkinson divider, then the sum of the
power measured at the two output ports of the Wilkinson coupler is
a) 5 watt
b) 10 watt
c) 7.07 watt
d) 8 watt
Answer: c
Explanation: For a standard Wilkinson coupler, the output power is 3 dB less than the total
input power in decibels. That is, 70.7% of the total input power is delivered to the output
port.
39) The analysis of Wilkinson coupler is done using:

a) Even-odd mode analysis
b) Symmetry
c) S matrix approach
Answer: a
Explanation: Even-odd mode analysis is one of the simplest methods of analysis for
Wilkinson coupler. This involves normalizing all impedances with the characteristic
impedance of the transmission line used and carrying out some analysis.
40) A Wilkinson coupler designed can be operated at any frequency.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The length of the branches of a Wilkinson coupler is all wavelengths dependent
and hence Wilkinson coupler designed to operate at one frequency cannot be used to operate
at another frequency.
41) For an equal-split Wilkinson power divider of 50Ω system impedance, the characteristic
impedance of quarter wave transmission line used is:
a) 70.7 Ω
b) 50 Ω
c) 100 Ω
Answer: a
Explanation: The characteristic impedance of a Z Ω system is given by √2*Z. hence, the
characteristic impedance of 50Ω system is 70.7 Ω.
42) The plot of frequency v/s S11 parameter of a Wilkinson coupler has a dip at the
frequency at which it is designed to operate.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: S11 parameter signifies the fraction of the power reflected back to port 1 when
power is applied to port 1 of the coupler. Since the ports are matched at the frequency of
design S11 is minimum and the curve has a dip.
43) The plot of S23 v/s frequency has the same curve as that of S11 v/s frequency.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: When input is applied to port 1, output is measured at port 2 and port 3. S23
signifies the output at port 3 due to port 2 when input is applied at port 1. This parameter is
minimum at the designed frequency.
44) S12 curve of a Wilkinson coupler when plotted versus frequency is a line passing through
origin.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: S12 gives the ratio of power at input port P1 to the power measured at port 2.
Since the output power remains constant over a wide range of frequencies for a given input
applied. Hence S11 is a curve parallel to X axis.
45) Example of a non reciprocal device:

a) Branch line coupler
b) Wilkinson coupler
c) Magic-T hybrid
d) Circulator
Answer: d
Explanation: Non reciprocal device is the one in which the response between any two ports I
and j of a component depends on the direction of signal flow. Circulator is a device that
allows power flow either in clockwise direction or counter clockwise direction.
46) A microwave network can be called non reciprocal only if it contains anisotropic
materials like ferrite materials.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A microwave network consisting of active non linear devices like transistor
amplifiers, ferrite phase shifters and more. Presence of active devices or anisotropic materials
can make a microwave network non reciprocal.
47) This is not an example of anisotropic material:

a) Yttrium aluminum garnet
b) Aluminum
c) Cobalt
d) Silicon
Answer: d
Explanation: Yttrium aluminum garnet is a ferromagnetic compound. Aluminum and cobalt
are iron oxides that are anisotropic. Silicon is a non metal that is isotropic in nature.
48) The magnetic properties of a material are due to the existence of ___________
a) Electrons in atoms
b) Electric dipole moment
c) Magnetic dipole moment
Answer: c
Explanation: The magnetic properties of ferromagnetic materials are due to the existence of
magnetic dipole moments, which arise primarily from electron spin. The magnetic dipole
moment of an electron is 9.27×10-24 A-m2.
49) ___________ is a measure of the relative contributions of the orbital moment and the
spin moment to the total magnetic moment.
a) Lande’s factor
b) Gibbs factor
c) Newton’s ratio
Answer: a
Explanation: An electron in orbit around a nucleus gives rise to an effective current loop and
thus an additional magnetic moment, but this effect is negligible compared to the magnetic
moment due to spin. Lande’s factor is a relative measure of these orbital moments.
51) Lande’s factor for all ferromagnetic materials is in the range of 0 to 1.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Lande’s factor (g) is one when the moment is only due to orbital motion and 2
when the moment is only due to spin. For most microwave ferrite materials, g lies between
1.98 and 2.01.
52) The variation of magnetic moment of a ferromagnetic material with applied bias field is
linear.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: With the increase in the applied bias field to a ferromagnetic material, the
magnetic moment increases exponentially initially, after a certain applied bias field magnetic
moment remains a constant.
53) A permanent magnet is made by placing the magnetic material in a strong magnetic
field.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A permanent magnet is made by placing the magnetic material in a strong
magnetic field and then removing the field to leave the material magnetized in a remanent
state.
54) The operating point of a permanent magnet is in the:

a) First quadrant
b) Second quadrant
c) Third quadrant
d) Fourth quadrant
Answer: b
Explanation: Unless the magnet shape forms a closed path, the demagnetization factors at the
magnet ends will cause a slightly negative H field to be induced in the magnet. Thus the
“operating point “of a permanent magnet will be in the second quadrant. This portion of the
curve is called demagnetization curve.
55) After demagnetization of a magnetic material, the residual magnetization retained in the
magnetic material is called:
a) Remanence
b) Residue
c) Retardation
Answer: a
Explanation: The residual magnetization called remanence characterizes the strength of the
magnet, so magnetic material with large remanence is chosen.
56) Ferrite isolators are ____ port microwave devices.

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
Answer: a
Explanation: Ferrite isolators are two port devices having unidirectional transmission
characteristics. Isolator provides isolation between the two ports and the power flow occurs
only in one direction.
57) The matrix of an ideal isolator is not ______

a) Unitary
b) Symmetric
c) Lossless
Answer: a
Explanation: Ferrite isolator allows wave propagation in only one direction and attenuates
propagation in the other direction. So the isolator is lossy. Since the isolator is lossy, the
scattering matrix of isolator is not unity.
58) A very common application of isolator is to provide isolation between a low power
source and the load.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Isolators have a wide variety of applications. The most common among them is
the use of an isolator between a high-power source and a load to prevent the possible
reflections from damaging the source. An isolator can be used in place of a matching
network, but it should be realized that any power reflected from the source is absorbed by the
isolator.
59) The attenuation of a ________ is very large near the gyro magnetic resonance of the
ferrite.
a) Linearly polarized wave
b) Circularly polarized wave
c) Left polarized wave
d) Right polarized wave
Answer: b
Explanation: The attenuation of the circularly polarized wave is very large near the gyro
magnetic resonance of the ferrite, while the attenuation of the wave propagating in the
opposite direction is very small.
60) The isolators constructed using ferrite materials must operate at:
a) Gyro magnetic resonance
b) Magnetic resonance
c) Isolator resonance
Answer: a
Explanation: The attenuation of the circularly polarized wave is very large near the gyro
magnetic resonance of the ferrite, while the attenuation of the wave propagating in the
opposite direction is very small. Isolator constructed using ferrite must hence operate at gyro
magnetic resonance.
61) Forward attenuation provided by a resonance ferrite isolator is:

a) Zero
b) Low
c) High
Answer: b
Explanation: Zero forward attenuation cannot be obtained in resonance isolators because the
internal magnetic field is not truly circularly polarized. Because of this, there is some amount
of forward attenuation in the isolator.
62) An isolator has a very large operating bandwidth and independent of any isolator
parameter.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The bandwidth of an isolator is relatively narrow, dictated essentially by the line
width ∆H of the ferrite material.
63) The length of a ferrite slab required operating with a minimum forward insertion loss and
30 dB reverse attenuation and the reverse attenuation at this point is:
a) 3 cm
b) 2.4 cm
c) 4 cm
d) 3.6 cm
Answer: b
Explanation: Length of the ferrite slab required is equal to the ratio of the minimum forward
insertion loss to the reverse attenuation at the point. Substituting the given values in the above
equation, length of the ferrite slab is 2.4 cm.
64) The electric field distribution of the forward and reverse waves in a ferrite slab-loaded
waveguide is quite different. This property is used in:
a) Field displacement resonator
b) Resonance isolator
c) Waveguide isolator
Answer: a
Explanation: In a field displacement isolator, electric field distribution of the forward and
reverse waves in a ferrite slab-loaded waveguide is different. The electric field for the
forward wave can be made to vanish at the side of the ferrite slab.
65) Field displacement isolators require higher bias field than resonance isolators.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Field displacement isolators have much smaller bias field requirement since it
operates well below gyro magnetic resonance. This property of field displacement isolator
make it more preferred than resonance isolators.
66) ______ is a device that produces a phase shift of a required amount of the input wave.
a) Phase shifter
b) Attenuator
c) Resonator
Answer: a
Explanation: Ferrite phase shifter is a two port component that provides a variable phase shift
by changing the bias field of the ferrite. Microwave diodes and FETs can also be used to
implement phase shifters.
67) Phase shifters are used in _______ where the antenna beam can be steered in space by
electronically controlled phase shifters.
a) Phased array antennas
b) Dipole array antennas
c) Slot antennas
d) Patch antennas
Answer: a
Explanation: Phase shifters are used in phased array antennas where the antenna beam can be
steered in space by electronically controlled phase shifters. Phase shifters can be of two types,
Reciprocal phase shifters and non reciprocal phase shifters. These are chosen as per the
application requirement.
68) Reciprocal phase shifters give different phase shift in different direction.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Reciprocal phase shifters are those devices which give the same phase shift in
either direction. That is, either if port 1 or port 2 of the phase shifter is used as input port, the
phase shifts at the output remains the same.
69) If a ferrite slab provides a phase shift of 48⁰/ cm, then the length of the ferrite slab
required to produce a phase shift of 180⁰ is:
a) 4 cm
b) 3.75 cm
c) 4.5 cm
d) 3.5 cm
Answer: b
Explanation: The given ferrite slab provides a phase shift of the 48⁰/ cm. hence the length of
the required ferrite slab is 180/45, the required length is 3.75 cm.
70) If a ferrite slab provides a phase shift of 48⁰/ cm, then the length of the ferrite slab
a) 2.44 cm
b) 1.88 cm
c) 4.5 cm
d) 3.5 cm
Answer: b
Explanation: The given ferrite slab provides a phase shift of the 48⁰/ cm. hence the length of
the required ferrite slab is 90/45, the required length is 1.88 cm.
71) Gyrator is a device that produces a phase shift of ____ between the input and output.
a) 90⁰
b) 180⁰
c) 45⁰
Answer: b
Explanation: Gyrator is a device that produces a phase shift of 180⁰ between the input and
output of the gyrator. This is a special case of the ferrite phase shifter which gives a constant
phase shift and cannot be changed.
72) The scattering matrix of a gyrator is:

a) Symmetric
b) Skew symmetric
c) Identity matrix
d) Null matrix
Answer: b
Explanation: The scattering matrix of a gyrator is Skew symmetric. This is because of the
180⁰ phase shift that occurs in the device.
73) Ferrite phase shifters have more advantages over FETs and diodes in using them in
microwave integrated circuits.
a) True
b) False
Answer: Even though PIN diode and FET circuits offer a less bulky and more integratable
alternative to ferrite components, ferrite phase shifters are cost effective; have high power
handling capacity and power requirements.
74) A gyrator can be made a passive device by certain design methods so that they do not
affect the power levels of the circuit in which they are used.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The gyrator can be implemented as a phase shifter with a 180⁰ phase shift; bias
can be provided with a permanent magnet, making the gyrator a passive device.
75) If a ferrite slab produces a phase shift of 0.836 rad/ cm, then the length of the slab
a) 2.81 cm
b) 3 cm
c) 2 cm
d) 3.4 cm
Answer: a
Explanation: Converting the given phase shift from radian scale to degree scale, the produced
phase shift is 48⁰/ cm. To produce a phase shift of 135⁰, the required length is 135/45 this is
equal to 2.81 cm.
76) A PIN diode consists of ______number of semiconductor layers.

a) Three
b) Two
c) Four
d) One
Answer: a
Explanation: PIN diode is a p-type, intrinsic, n-type diode consisting of narrow layer of p-
type semiconductor and a narrow layer of n-type semiconductor material, with a thicker
region of intrinsic or very lightly n doped semiconductor sandwiched between them.
77) The material out of which PIN diode is made is:

a) Silicon
b) Germanium
c) GaAs
Answer: a
Explanation: Silicon is the semiconductor normally used because of its power handling
capability and it offers high resistivity for the intrinsic region. But depending on the
application, these days GaAs is also used in fabricating PIN diodes.
78) The behavior of a PIN diode is entirely different from normal diodes at all frequency of
operation.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: PIN diode acts as a ordinary diode at frequencies up to about 100MHz. at high
frequencies it stops to rectify and then acts as a variable resistance.
79) The junction resistance and capacitance of the intrinsic region in a PIN diode are
connected______ in the equivalent circuit of PIN diode.
a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Connected across package capacitance
Answer: b
Explanation: The junction capacitance Cj and junction resistance Rj of a PIN diode are
connected in parallel in the equivalent circuit of a PIN diode. The package resistance and
package capacitance are connected in series to these junction parameters.
80) The resistance of the PIN diode with positive bias voltage:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Insufficient data
Answer: b
Explanation: When the bias is varied on the PIN diode, its microwave resistance RJ changes
from a typical value of 6 KΩ under negative bias to perhaps 5 Ω under forward bias. Thus if
the diode is mounted on a 50Ω coaxial line, it will not significantly load this line.
81) A PIN diode can be used in either a series or a shunt configuration to form a __________
a) Single pole single throw switch
b) Single pole double throw switch
c) Amplifier
d) Oscillator
Answer: a
Explanation: A PIN diode can be used in either a series or a shunt configuration to form a
single pole single throw switch. In the series configuration, the switch is on when the diode is
forward biased and off when the diode is reverse biased.
82) The working principle of series and shunt configuration single pole single throw switch is
the same.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In the series configuration, the switch is on when the diode is forward biased
and off when the diode is reverse biased. In the shunt configuration, forward biasing the
diode cuts-off the transmission while reverse biasing the diode ensures transmission from
input to output.
83) Under ideal conditions, when a PIN diode is used as a switch, the switch must have
_______ insertion loss in the ON state.
a) Maximum
b) Zero
c) Average
d) Insertion loss cannot be defined for a switch
Answer: b
Explanation: Ideally, when PIN diode is used as switch, the switch should have zero insertion
loss in the ON state and infinite attenuation in the OFF state. These are ideal conditions. But
practically a good operating switch must have low insertion loss.
84) When PIN diode is used as a switch, the expression for insertion loss of the switch is
given by:
a) 10 log (Po/PL)
b) 10 log (PL/P0)
c) 10 log (PL. Pₒ)
Answer: a
Explanation: Insertion loss of a switch is defined as the ratio of incident power applied to the
load when switch is absent to the actual power delivered to the load.
85) For a shunt configuration switch, the diode impedance is 40 Ω and the terminated line
characteristic impedance is 50 Ω. Then the insertion loss of the switch is:
a) 2.2 dB
b) 4.2 dB
c) 8.4 dB
d) 3.6 dB
Answer: b
Explanation: Insertion loss of a shunt configuration switch is given by 20 log (2Z D+Z0/2ZD).
Substituting the given values in the above expression, the insertion loss of the shunt
configuration switch is 4.2 dB.
86) In the series configuration of a PIN diode switch, the terminated load impedance was
found to be 50 Ω and the diode impedance was 60 Ω. Then the insertion loss of the switch is:
a) 4 dB
b) 2 dB
c) 3.6 dB
d) 4.8 dB
Answer: a
Explanation: Insertion loss of a shunt configuration switch is given by 20 log (2Z D+Z0/2ZD).
Substituting the given values in the above equation, the insertion loss is 4 dB.
87) The number of PIN diodes used in SPST switch and SPDT switch are the same.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The number of PIN diodes in SPST switch is one, while the number of PIN
diodes used in single pole double throw switch is two.
88) Varactor diode is a semiconductor diode in which the _________ can be varied as a
function of reverse voltage of the diode.
a) Junction resistance
b) Junction capacitance
c) Junction impedance
Answer: b
Explanation: Varactors (variable-capacitor) have non-linearity of capacitance which is fast
enough to follow microwaves. Varactor diode is a semiconductor diode in which the junction
capacitance can be varied as a function of reverse voltage of the diode.
89) Any semiconductor diode has a junction capacitance varying with reverse bias. If such a
diode has microwave characteristics, it is called:
a) IMPATT diode
b) TRAPITT diode
c) SKOTTKY diode
Answer: d
Explanation: Any semiconductor diode has a junction capacitance varying with reverse bias.
If such a diode has microwave characteristics, it is called varactor diode. With the reverse
bias, the junction is depleted of mobile carriers resulting in a capacitance that is the diode
behaves as a capacitance with the junction acting as dielectric between two conducting plates.
90) The width of depletion region of a varactor diode ________with increase in reverse bias
voltage.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
Answer: a
Explanation: The width of the depletion region goes on increasing with increase in reverse
bias voltage of the varactor diode. As the width of depletion region is an inverse function for
capacitance, as the width increases, capacitance decreases.
91) Diffused junction mesa silicon diodes are widely used at microwave frequencies.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Diffused junction mesa silicon diodes are widely used at microwave
frequencies. They are capable handling large powers and large break down voltages. They
have relative independence of ambient temperature and low noise.
92) Varactors made of ______ have higher frequency range of operation compared to silicon
fabricated varactor diodes.
a) Germanium
b) GaAs
c) GaN
Answer: b
Explanation: Varactor diodes made of silicon have frequency range of operation of 25 GHz.
Varactor diodes made of gallium arsenide operate in the frequency range of 90 GHz.
Varactors of gallium arsenide also have better at low temperature.
93) Varactor diodes are operated in _________ region to achieve maximum efficiency
possible.
a) Cutoff region
b) Saturation region
c) Reverse saturation region
d) Active region
Answer: c
Explanation: Varactors are used between the reverse saturation point and a point just above
the avalanche region. The capacitance variation and the reverse voltage swing are limited to
between the operating regions mentioned above.
94) The cutoff frequency for operation of a varactor diode at a specific bias is given by:
a) 1/2πRSCjv
b) 1/2πCSRjv
c) 1/2π√LC
Answer: a
Explanation: Cutoff frequency for a certain bias voltage applied is given by 1/2πR SCjv. Here,
Rs is the wafer resistance and Cjv is the junction capacitance measured in the varactor diode
for a given specific bias voltage V.
95) ___________ is an amplifier constructed using a device whose reactance is varied to

produce amplification.
a) Travelling wave tube
b) Parametric amplifier
c) Common emitter
d) Klystron amplifier
Answer: b
Explanation: Parametric amplifier is an amplifier constructed using a device whose reactance
is varied to produce amplification. Varactor diode is the most widely used element in a
parametric amplifier.
96) Parametric amplifier is a ________ amplifier.
a) Low noise
b) High gain
c) Low gain
d) High noise
Answer: a
Explanation: Parametric amplifiers are constructed using varactor diodes. Since they do not
involve any resistance, they result in low noise levels. There will be no thermal noise, as the
active element used involved is reactive and not resistive.
97) Parametric amplifiers find their application in long range RADAR and satellite ground
stations.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to the advantage of low noise amplification, parametric amplifiers are used
in applications when noise levels are high at the receiving end but the amplification of noise
must not occur. Such applications include long range RADARS satellite ground stations,
radio telescopes to name a few.
98) Gain of a parametric amplifier in terms of the frequencies involved in their operation is:
a) (fP – fS)/fS
b) fS/ (fP – fS)
c) fP/fS
Answer: a
Explanation: Gain of a parametric amplifier in terms of the frequencies involved in their
operation is (fP – fS)/fS. Here fP is the pump frequency, fS is the signal frequency and fi is the
idler frequency.
99) Silicon and germanium are called ___________ semiconductors.

a) direct gap
b) indirect gap
c) band gap
d) indirect band gap
Answer: b
Explanation: The forbidden energy gap for silicon and germanium are respectively 1.21 eV in
Si and 0.79 eV in germanium. Silicon and germanium are called indirect gap semiconductors
because the bottom of the conduction band does not lie directly above the top of the valence
band.
100) GaAs is used in the fabrication of GUNN diodes because:
a) GaAs is cost effective
b) It less temperature sensitive
c) it has low conduction band electrons
d) less forbidden energy gap
Answer: d
Explanation: In GaAs, the conduction band lies directly above the top of the valence band.
The lowest energy conduction band in GaAs is called as primary valley. GaAs consists of six
secondary valleys. The bottom of one of the secondary valley is at an energy difference of
0.35 eV with the bottom of the primary valley in conduction band.
101) In a GaAs n-type specimen, the current generated is constant irrespective of the electric
filed applied to the specimen.
a) true
b) false
Answer: b
Explanation: In a GaAs n-type specimen, when the electric field applied reaches a threshold
value of Eth, the current in the specimen becomes suddenly oscillatory and with respect to
time and these oscillations are in the microwave frequency range. This effect is called Gunn
Effect.
102) When the electric field applied to GaAs specimen is less than the threshold electric field,
the current in the material:
a) increases linearly
b) decreases linearly
c) increases exponentially
d) decreases exponentially
Answer: a
Explanation: When the electric field applied is less than the threshold value of electric field,
the electrons jump from the valence band to the primary valley of the conduction band and
current increases linearly with electric field.
103) When the applied electric field exceeds the threshold value, electrons absorb more
energy from the field and become:
a) hot electrons
b) cold electrons
c) emission electrons
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: When the applied electric field exceeds the threshold value, electrons absorb
more energy from the field and become hot electrons. These electrons jump into the lowest
secondary valley in the conduction band. When the electrons become hot, their mobility
reduces.
104) GaAs is used in fabricating Gunn diode. Gunn diode is:

a) bulk device
b) sliced device
c) made of different type of semiconductor layers
Answer: a
Explanation: A GUNN diode is a bulk device, that is, it does not contain any junction but it is
a slice of n-type GaAs. P-type GaAs does not exhibit Gunn Effect. Hence it is a reversible
and can be operated in both directions.
105) The electrodes of a Gunn diode are made of:

a) molybdenum
b) GaAs
c) gold
d) copper
Answer: a
Explanation: Gunn diode is grown epitaxially onto a gold or copper plated molybdenum
electrode, out of gallium arsenide doped with silicon, tellurium or selenium to make it n-type.
106) When either a voltage or current is applied to the terminals of bulk solid state compound
GaAs, a differential ______ is developed in that bulk device.
a) negative resistance
b) positive resistance
c) negative voltage
Answer: a
Explanation: When either a voltage or current is applied to the terminals of a sample of bulk
solid state compound formed by group 5 and 3 elements of periodic table, a differential
resistance is developed in the bulk device. This fundamental concept is called RWH theory.
107) The number of modes of operation for n type GaAs is:

a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
Answer: c
Explanation: n-type GaAs used for fabricating Gunn diode has four modes of operation. They
are Gunn oscillation mode, limited space charge accumulation mode, and stable amplification
mode bias circuit oscillation mode.
108) The free electron concentration in N-type GaAs is controlled by:
a) effective doping
b) bias voltage
c) drive current
Answer: a
Explanation: The free electron concentration in n-type GaAs is controlled through effective
doping so that they range from 1014 to 1017 per cc at room temperature. The typical specimen
of n-type GaAs has the dimensions 150 µm by 150 µm.
109) The modes of operation of a Gunn diode are illustrated in a plot of voltage applied to the
Gunn diode v/s frequency of operation of Gunn diode.
a) true
b) false
Answer: b
Explanation: A graph of plot of product of frequency and the length of the device plotted
along y-axis versus the product of doping concentration and length along X- axis. These are
the parameters on which the four modes of operation of Gunn diode are explained.
110) The mode of operation in which the Gunn diode is not stable is:
a) Gunn oscillation mode
b) limited space charge accumulation mode
c) stable amplification mode
d) bias circuit oscillation mode
Answer: a
Explanation: In Gunn oscillation mode, the device is unstable due to the formation of
accumulation layer and field domain. This high field domain moves from cathode to anode.
111) The frequency of oscillation in Gunn diode is given by:

a) vdom/ Leff
b) Leff/ Vdom
c) Leff/ WVdom
Answer: a
Explanation: In Gunn oscillation mode, the frequency of oscillation is given by v dom/ Leff,
where vdom is the domain velocity, Leff is effective length that the domain moves from the
time it is formed until the time a new domain is formed.
112) In Gunn diode oscillator, the Gunn diode is inserted into a waveguide cavity formed by
a short circuit termination at one end
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Explanation: The Gunn diode is mounted at the centre of the broad wall of a shorted
waveguide since for the dominant TE10 mode; the electric field is maximum at the centre.
113) In a Gunn diode oscillator, the electron drift velocity was found to be 107 cm/second
and the effective length is 20 microns, then the intrinsic frequency is:
a) 5 GHz
b) 6 GHz
c) 4 GHz
d) 2 GHz
Answer: a
Explanation: The intrinsic frequency for a Gunn oscillator is given by V d/L. Here VD is the
drift velocity and L is the effective length. Substituting the given values in the above
equation, intrinsic frequency is 5 GHz.
114) The material used to fabricate IMPATT diodes is GaAs since they have the highest
efficiency in all aspects.
a) true
b) false
Answer: b
Explanation: IMPATT diodes can be fabricated using silicon, germanium, GaAs or indium
phosphide. Out of these materials, GaAs have highest efficiency, low noise and high
operating frequencies. But GaAs has a major disadvantage of complex fabrication process
and higher cost. So, GaAs are not preferred over silicon and germanium.
115) When a reverse bias voltage exceeding the breakdown voltage is applied to an IMPATT
diode, it results in:
a) avalanche multiplication
b) break down of depletion region
c) high reverse saturation current
Answer: a
Explanation: A reverse bias voltage exceeding the breakdown voltage is applied to an
IMPATT diode, a high electric field appears across the n+ p junction. This high field imparts
sufficient energy to the holes and also to valence electrons to raise themselves to the
conduction band. This results in avalanche multiplication of electron hole pair.
116) To prevent an IMPATT diode from burning, a constant bias source is used to maintain
_______ at safe limit.
a) average current
b) average voltage
c) average bias voltage
d) average resistance
Answer: a
Explanation: Avalanche multiplication is a cumulative process resulting in rapid increase of
carrier density. To prevent the diode from burning due to this increased carrier density, a
constant bias source is used to maintain average current at safe limit.
117) The number of semiconductor layers in IMPATT diode is:

a) two
b) three
c) four
Answer: c
Explanation: IMPATT diode consists of 4 layers according to the construction. It consists of
a p+ region and n+ layers at the two ends. In between these layers, a p type layer and an
intrinsic region is sandwiched.
118) The resonant frequency of an IMPATT diode is given by:

a) Vd/2l
b) Vd/l
c) Vd/2πl
d) Vdd/4πl
Answer: a
Explanation: The resonant frequency of an IMPATT diode is given by the expression V d/2l.
Here VD is the carrier drift velocity; L is the length of the intrinsic region in the IMPATT
diode.
119) If the length of the intrinsic region in IMPATT diode is 2 µm and the carrier drift
velocity are 107 cm/s, then the drift time of the carrier is:
a) 10-11 seconds
b) 2×10-11 seconds
c) 2.5×10-11 seconds
Answer: b
Explanation: The drift time of the carrier is defined as the ratio of length of the intrinsic
region to the carrier drift velocity. Substituting the given values in this relation, the drift time
of the carrier is 2×10-11 seconds.
120) If the length of the intrinsic region in IMPATT diode is 2 µm and the carrier drift
velocity are 107 cm/s, then the nominal frequency of the diode is:
a) 12 GHz
b) 25 GHz
c) 30 GHz
d) 24 GHz
Answer: b
Explanation: Nominal frequency is defined as the ratio of the carrier drift velocity to twice
the length of the intrinsic region. Substituting the given values in the above equation, the
nominal frequency is 25 GHz.
121) IMPATT diodes employ impact ionization technique which is a noisy mechanism of
generating charge carriers.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Explanation: IMPATT devices employ impact ionization techniques which is too noisy.
Hence in order to achieve low noise figure, impact ionization is avoided in BARITT diodes.
The minority injection is provided by punch through of the intermediate region.
122) An essential requirement for the BARITT diode is that the intermediate drift region be
completely filled to cause the punch through to occur.
a) true
b) false
Answer: b
Explanation: An essential requirement for the BARITT diode is that the intermediate drift
region be completely filled to cause the punch through to the emitter-base junction without
causing avalanche breakdown of the base collector junction.
123) If the RMS peak current in an IMPATT diode is 700 mA and if DC input power is 6
watt, with the load resistance being equal to 2.5 Ω, the efficiency of the diode is:
a) 10.1 %
b) 10.21 %
c) 12 %
d) 15.2 %
Answer: b
Explanation: Efficiency of IMPATT diode is defined as the ratio of output RMS power to the
input DC power. Calculating the RMS output power from the given RMS current and
substituting in the equation of efficiency, the efficiency is 10.21%.
124) If the critical field in a Gunn diode oscillator is 3.2 KV/cm and effective length is 20
microns, then the critical voltage is:
a) 3.2 V
b) 6.4 V
c) 2.4 V
d) 6.5 V
Answer: b
Explanation: Critical voltage of a Gunn diode oscillator is given by the expression lE c where l
is the effective length and Ec is the critical field. Substituting the given values in the above
equation, critical voltage is 6.4 volts.
125) Classical p-n junction diode cannot be used for high frequency applications because of:
a) High bias voltage
b) High junction capacitance
c) Frequency sensitive
d) High forward biased current
Answer: b
Explanation: p-n junction diodes have high junction capacitance that makes them not suitable
for high frequency applications. A Schottky barrier diode relies on a semiconductor metal
junction and hence making them suitable for high frequency application.
126) Schottky barrier diode is a sophisticated version of the point contact ______________
a) Germanium diode
b) Silicon crystal diode
c) GaAs diode
Answer: b
Explanation: Schottky barrier diode is a sophisticated version of the point contact silicon
crystal diode, wherein the metal-semiconductor junction so formed is a surface rather than a
point contact as it is in point contact silicon crystal diode.
127) Advantage of Schottky diode over silicon crystal diode is the presence minority charge
carriers.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The advantage of Schottky diode over point contact silicon crystal diode is the
elimination of minority carrier flow in the reverse biased condition of the diode. Due to the
elimination of holes, there is no delay due to hole-electron recombination and hence
operation is faster.
128) As the area of rectifying contact goes on increasing, the forward resistance of the
Schottky diode:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged
Answer: b
Explanation: The noise and forward resistance of Schottky diode is small as compared to the
noise figure and forward resistance of point contact silicon crystal diode. Hence, as the area
of rectifying contact goes on increasing, the forward resistance decreases.
129) The number of semiconductor layers in a TRAPATT diode is:

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) One
Answer: b
Explanation: Silicon is usually used for the manufacture of TRAPATT diodes and they have
a configuration p+ nn+ the p-N junction is reverse biased beyond the breakdown region, so
that the current density is larger.
130) In order to achieve high current density, a compromise in _______is made in a

TRAPATT diode.
a) Gain
b) Size
c) Operating frequency
d) No compromise is made on any of the parameter
Answer: c
Explanation: When a high current density achieved, it decreases the electric field in the space
charge region and increases the carrier transit time. Due to this, the frequency of operation
gets lowered to less than 10 GHz. But efficiency is increased due to low power dissipation.
131) TRAPATT diode is normally mounted at a point inside a coaxial resonator where there
is minimum RF voltage swing.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Inside a coaxial resonator, the TRAPATT diode is normally mounted at a point
where maximum RF voltage swing is obtained. When the combined DC bias and RF voltage
exceeds breakdown voltage, avalanche occurs and a plasma of holes and electrons are
generated which get trapped.
132) A major disadvantage of TRAPATT diode is:

a) Fabrication is costly
b) Low operational bandwidth
c) Low gain
d) High noise figure
Answer: d
Explanation: The disadvantages of TRAPATT diode are high noise figure and generation of
strong harmonics due to the short duration of the current pulse. Since short duration of
current pulses are used, they find application in S band pulse transmitters.
133) _________ gives a frequency domain representation of a signal, displaying the average
power density versus frequency.
a) CRO
b) Oscilloscope
c) Spectrum analyzer
d) Network analyzer
Answer: c
Explanation: Spectrum analyzer gives a frequency domain representation of a signal,
displaying the average power density versus frequency. Thus, its function is dual to that of
oscilloscope, which displays the time domain representation of a signal.
134) The most important functional unit of a spectrum analyzer is:

a) Mixer
b) IF amplifier
c) Sensitive receiver
Answer: c
Explanation: A spectrum analyzer basically consists of a sensitive receiver that tunes over a
specified frequency band and gives out a video output that is proportional to the signal power
in a narrow bandwidth.
135) A tunnel diode is a p-n junction diode with a doping profile that allows electron
tunneling through a narrow energy band gap.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A tunnel diode is a pn junction diode with a doping profile that allows electron
tunneling through a narrow energy band gap leading to negative resistance at high
frequencies. Tunnel diode can be used for both oscillators and amplifiers.
136) In the course of development of microwave circuits, two distinct types of microwave
integrated circuits have been developed according to the application requirements.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Explanation: There are two distinct types of microwave integrated circuits fabricated. They
are hybrid microwave integrated circuits and monolithic microwave integrated circuits. They
differ in the method of fabrication in the layers of metallization done.
137) __________ is an important consideration for a hybrid integrated circuit.

a) material selection
b) processing units
c) design complexity
d) active sources
Answer: a
Explanation: Material selection is an important consideration for a hybrid integrated circuit.
Characteristics such as electrical conductivity, dielectric constant, loss tangent, thermal
transfer and manufacturing compatibility of the material to be used for hybrid microwave
circuits are evaluated first.
138) To fabricate a low frequency circuit using the hybrid microwave IC methodology, the
material with _______ is preferred.
a) high dielectric constant
b) low dielectric constant
c) high resistivity
d) low resistivity
Answer: a
Explanation: At low frequency applications, a high dielectric constant is desirable because it
results in smaller circuit size. At higher frequencies, however the substrate thickness must be
decreased to prevent radiation loss and other spurious effects.
139) The mask in a hybrid microwave circuit is made of:

a) rubylith
b) silicon
c) quartz
d) arsenic
Answer: a
Explanation: The mask in hybrid microwave integrated circuits is made of Rubylith, a soft
mylar film usually at a magnified scale for high accuracy. Then an actual size mask is made
on a thin sheet of glass or quartz.
140) The metalized substrate is coated with __________ covered with the mast and exposed
to light source.
a) photoresist
b) GaAs
c) germanium liquid
Answer: a
Explanation: The metalized substrate is coated with photoresist, covered with the mast and
exposed to light source. The substrate can be etched to remove the unwanted areas of the
metal.
141) Commonly used software packages for CAD of hybrid microwave integrated circuits
are:
a) CADENCE
b) ADS
c) DESIGNER
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Before any microwave circuit design is implemented on the hardware, it is
economical to simulate the same designs in software and check for the expected theoretical
results. A few such software that provide such an environment is CADENCE, ADS,
DESIGNER to name a few.
142) In hybrid microwave integrated circuits, the various components of the circuit are etched
in the substrate.
a) true
b) false
Answer: b
Explanation: In hybrid integrated circuit design, after all initial design steps are completed,
the discrete components are soldered or wire bonded to the conductors This can be done
manually or through automated computer-controlled pick and place machines.
143) Once the circuit components are designed and fabricated for certain specific values, they
cannot be changed as per the requirement later.
a) true
b) false
Answer: b
Explanation: IN HIC, provision is made for variations in component values and other circuit
tolerances by providing tuning or trimming stubs that can be manually trimmed for each
circuit. This increase circuit yield but also increases the cost of manufacture.
144) ________ is a micromachining technique where suspended structures are formed on

silicon substrates.
a) MMIC
b) HIC
c) RF MEMS
Answer: c
Explanation: RF MEMS switch technology is a micro machining technique where suspended
structures are formed in silicon substrates. These can be used in microwave resonators,
antennas and switches.
145) Depending on the single path (capacitive or direct contact) and the attenuation
mechanism MEMS switch can be used for various configurations for various devices.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Explanation: A MEMS switch can be used in several different configurations depending on
the single path, actuation mechanism, pull-back mechanism and the type of structure. One
such example is switching the capacitance of a single path between high and low values by
moving a flexible conductive membrane through the application of DC controlled voltage.
146) Progress in ________ and other related semiconductors material processing led to the
feasibility of monolithic microwave integrated circuits.
a) GaAs
b) Silicon
c) Germanium
d) GaAlAs
Answer: a
Explanation: Progress in GaAs and other related semiconductor material processing led to the
feasibility of MMIC, where all the passive and active components required for a given circuit
can be grown or implanted in a substrate.
147) MMICs are high cost devices that involve complex fabrication methods and contain
multiple layers to contain even small circuits.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Min MIC can be made at low cost because the labor involved with fabricating
hybrid MIC’s is reduced. In addition, a single wafer can contain a large number of circuits,
all of which can be processed and fabricated simultaneously.
148) The substrate of an MMIC must be a _____________ to accommodate the fabrication of

all the type of devices.
a) Semiconductor
b) Insulator
c) Partial conductors
d) Metals operable at high frequencies
Answer: a
Explanation: Substrate of MMIC must be a semiconductor material to accommodate the
fabrication of active devices. The type of devices and the frequency range dictate the type of
substrate material. One such material is GaAs MESFET.
149) GaAs MESFETs are versatile device because it finds application in:
a) Low-noise amplifiers
b) High gain amplifiers
c) Mixers
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: GaAs MESFET find application in low noise amplifiers, high gain amplifiers,
broadband amplifiers, mixers, oscillators, phase shifters, and switches. These are the mostly
used and cost effective substrates.
150) Transmission lines and other conductors in microwave devices are usually made with
___________
a) Gold metallization
b) Silver metallization
c) Copper metallization
d) Zinc metallization
Answer: a
Explanation: Transmission lines and conductors at microwave operation are usually made
with gold metallization. To improve the adhesion of gold to the substrate, a thin layer of
chromium or titanium may be deposited first since these metals are relatively lossy.
151) For the capacitors used in MMICs, the insulating dielectric films used are:
a) Air
b) SiO
c) Titanium
d) GaAs
Answer: b
Explanation: Capacitor and overlaying lines require insulating dielectric films, such as SiO,
SiO2, SiN4 and Ta2O5. These materials have high dielectric constants and low loss and are
compatible with integrated circuit processing.
152) Resistors used at normal operating frequencies can be directly used at microwave
frequencies in MMIc.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Resistors used at normal operating frequencies cannot be used directly in
MMICs. Resistors require the deposition of the lossy films like NiCr, Ta, Ti, and doped GaAs
commonly used.
153) Processing in MMICs is done by __________

a) Ion implantation
b) Net list generation
c) Floor planning
Answer: a
Explanation: Processing begins by forming an active layer in the semiconductor substrate for
the necessary active devices. This is done by ion implantation or epitaxial techniques.
154) MMICs are the best microwave integrated circuit fabrication methodologies without any
drawbacks in it.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Major drawback of MMIC is that they tend to waste large area of relatively
expensive semiconductor substrate for components such as transmission lines and hybrids.
155) MMICs have higher circuit flexibility as compared to other microwave integrated
fabrication methods.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Since the fabrication of additional FETs in an MMIC design is much easy, the
circuit flexibility and performance can be enhanced with only little additional cost and the
requirement for the fabrication of the entire device is prevented.
156) The production of power at higher frequencies is much simpler than production of
power at low frequencies.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: As frequency increases to the millimeter and sub millimeter ranges, it becomes
increasingly more difficult to produce even moderate power with solid state devices, so
microwave tubes become more useful at these higher frequencies.
157) Microwave tubes are power sources themselves at higher frequencies and can be used
independently without any other devices.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Microwave tubes are not actually sources by themselves, but are high power
amplifiers. These tubes are in conjunction with low power sources and this combination is
referred to as microwave power module.
158) Microwave tubes are grouped into two categories depending on the type of:
a) Electron beam field interaction
b) Amplification method
c) Power gain achieved
d) Construction methods
Answer: a
Explanation: Microwave tubes are grouped into two categories depending on the type of
electron beam field interaction. They are linear or ‘O’ beam and crossed field or the m type
tube. Microwave tubes can also be classified as oscillators and amplifiers.
159) The klystron tube used in a klystron amplifier is a _________ type beam amplifier.
a) Linear beam
b) Crossed field
c) Parallel field
Answer: a
Explanation: In klystron amplifier, the electron beam passes through two or more resonant
cavities. The first cavity accepts an RF input and modulates the electron beam by bunching it
into high density and low density regions.
160) In crossed field tubes, the electron beam traverses the length of the tube and is parallel
to the electric field.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In a crossed field or ‘m’ type tubes, the focusing field is perpendicular to the
accelerating electric field. Since the focusing field and accelerating fields are perpendicular to
each other, they are called crossed field tubes.
161) ________ is a single cavity klystron tube that operates as on oscillator by using a
reflector electrode after the cavity.
a) Backward wave oscillator
b) Reflex klystron
c) Travelling wave tube
d) Magnetrons
Answer: b
Explanation: Reflex klystron is a single cavity klystron tube that operates as on oscillator by
using a reflector electrode after the cavity to provide positive feedback via the electron beam.
It can be tuned by mechanically adjusting the cavity size.
162) A major disadvantage of klystron amplifier is:

a) Low power gain
b) Low bandwidth
c) High source power
d) Design complexity
Answer: b
Explanation: Klystron amplifier offers a very narrow operating bandwidth. This is overcome
in travelling wave tube (TWT). TWT is a linear beam amplifier that uses an electron gun and
a focusing magnet to accelerate beam of electrons through an interaction region.
163) In a _________ oscillator, the RF wave travels along the helix from the collector
towards the electron gun.
a) Interaction oscillator
b) Backward wave oscillator
c) Magnetrons
d) None o the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In a backward wave oscillator, the RF wave travels along the helix from the
collector towards the electron gun. Thus the signal for oscillation is provided by the bunched
electron beam itself and oscillation occurs.
164) Extended interaction oscillator is a ________ beam oscillator that is similar to klystron.
a) Linear beam
b) Crossed beam
c) Parallel beam
d) M beam
Answer: a
Explanation: Extended interaction oscillator is a linear beam oscillator that uses an interaction
region consisting of several cavities coupled together, with positive feedback to support
oscillation.
165) Magnetrons are microwave devices that offer very high efficiencies of about 80%.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Magnetrons are capable of very high power outputs, on the order of several
kilowatts, and with efficiencies of 80% or more. But disadvantage of magnetron is that they
are very noisy and cannot maintain frequency or phase coherence when operated in pulse
mode.
166) Klystron amplifiers have high noise output as compared to crossed field amplifiers.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Crossed filed amplifiers have very good efficiencies – up to 80%, but the gain is
limited to 10-15 db) In addition, the CFA has a noisier output than either a klystron amplifier
or TWT. Its bandwidth can be up to 40%.
167) ____________ is a microwave device in which the frequency of operation is

determined by the biasing field strength.
a) VTM
b) Gyratron
c) Helix BWO
Answer: b
Explanation: Gyratron is a microwave device in which the frequency of operation is
determined by the biasing field strength and the electron velocity, as opposed to the
dimensions of the tube itself. This makes the gyrator especially useful for microwave
frequencies.
168) The power gain G of a two port network is independent of the source impedance of the
two port network.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Power gain G is the ratio of power dissipated in the load ZL to the power
delivered to the input of the two port network. This gain is independent of ZS although the
characteristic of some active devices is dependent on ZS.
169) __________ is defined as the ratio of power available from the two port network to the
power available from the source.
a) Transducer power gain
b) Available power gain
c) Power gain
Answer: b
Explanation: Available power gain is defined as the ratio of power available from the two
port network to the power available from the source. This assumes conjugate matching of
both source and the load and depends on ZS, not ZL.
170) Transducer power gain of a two port network is dependent on :

a) ZS and ZL
b) ZS
c) ZL
d) Independent of both the impedances
Answer: a
Explanation: Transducer power gain of a two port network is the ratio of the power delivered
to the load to the power available from the source. This depends on both Z S and ZL.
171) For a two port network the voltage reflection coefficient seen looking towards the load,
ГS is:
a) (ZS –Z0)/ (ZS –Z0)
b) (ZS +Z0)/ (Z0 – Z0)
c) ZS / (ZS –Z0)
d) Z0/ (ZS –Z0)
Answer: a
Explanation: For a two port network, the reflection coefficient ГS seen looking towards the
load is (ZS –Z0)/ (ZS –Z0). Here ZS is the input impedance of the transmission line and Z0 is
the characteristic impedance of the transmission line.
172) In a two port network, the source impedance was measured to be 25 Ω and the
characteristic impedance of the transmission line was measured to be 50 Ω. Then the
reflection coefficient at the source end is:
a) -0.33333
b) -0.1111
c) 0.678
d) 0.2345
Answer: a
Explanation: For a two port network, the reflection coefficient ГS seen looking towards the
load is (ZS –Z0)/ (ZS –Z0). Substituting the given values in the above equation, reflection
coefficient at the source end is -0.3333.
173) For a unilateral transistor, the S parameter that is zero is:

a) S11
b) S12
c) S21
d) S22
Answer: b
Explanation: In a unilateral transistor power flow occurs only in one direction and hence S 12
is sufficiently small and can be ignored. Also for a unilateral transistor the reflection
coefficients reduce to Гin=S11 and Гout=S22.
174) Gain of an amplifier is independent of the operating frequency.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Gain of an amplifier depends on the operating frequency. Gain of a conjugate
matched FET amplifier drops off as 1/f2 or 6dB per octave.
175) Gain of a conjugate matched FET amplifier is given by the relation:

a) Rds (fT)2/ 4Ri (f)2
b) 4Ri (f)2/Rds (fT)2
c) Rds/ Ri
Answer: a
Explanation: Gain of FET amplifier is given by the relation R ds (fT)2/ 4Ri (f)2. Gain depends
on the drain to source resistance, input resistance and also on the frequency of operation of
the amplifier.
176) When both input and output of an amplifier are matched to zero reflection (in contrast to
conjugate matching), the transducer power gain is:
a) │S21│2
b) │S22│2
c) │S12│2
d) |S11│2
Answer: a
Explanation: When both input and output of an amplifier are matched to zero reflection, Г L=0
and ГS=0. This reduces the complex transducer gain equation to the s parameter of the
amplifier S21. S21 signifies the power at port 2 due to input applied at port 1.
177) If the load impedance of a two port network is 40 Ω and the characteristic impedance is
50 Ω, then the reflection coefficient of the two port network at the load end is:
a) -0.111
b) -0.333
c) -0.987
Answer: a
Explanation: Reflection coefficient at the load end of a two port network is given by the ratio
(ZL-Z0)/ (ZL+Z0). ZL is the load impedance and Z0 is the characteristic impedance.
Substituting, reflection at load end is -0.1111.
178) For a transistor amplifier to be stable, either the input or the output impedance must
have a real negative part.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: For a transistor amplifier to be stable, either the input or the output impedance
must have a real negative part. This would imply that │Гin│>1 or │Гout│>1, because these
reflection coefficients depend on the source and load matching network.
179) ____________ condition, if met then the transistor can be impedance matched for any
load.
a) Conditional stability
b) Unconditional stability
c) Infinite gain
d) Infinite input impedance
Answer: b
Explanation: A network is said to be unconditionally stable if │Гin│<1 and │Гout│<1 for
all passive source and load impedance. Transistors that are unconditionally stable can be
easily matched.
180) A network is said to be conditionally stable if:

a) │Гin│<1, │Гout│<1.
b) │Гin│>1, │Гout│>1
c) │Гin│>1, │Гout│<1
d) │Гin│<1, │Гout│>1
Answer: a
Explanation: For conditional stability, the condition to be satisfied is │Гin│<1, │Гout│<1.
But this condition will be valid only for a certain range of passive source and load
Impedance. His condition is also called potentially unstable.
181) Stability condition of an amplifier is frequency independent and hence can be operated
at any frequency.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Stability condition of an amplifier is frequency dependent since the input and
output matching networks generally depend on frequency. Hence it is possible for an
amplifier to be stable at the designed frequency and unstable at other frequencies.
182) For a unilateral device condition for unconditional stability in terms of S parameters is:
a) │S11│<1, │S22│<1
b) │S11│>1, │S22│>1
c) │S11│>1, │S22│<1
d) │S11│<1, │S22│>1
Answer: a
Explanation: For a unilateral device, the condition for unconditional stability is │S 11│<1,
│S22│<1. S11 parameter signifies the amount of power reflected back to port 1, which is the
input port of the transistor. If this S parameter is greater is than 1, more amount of power is
reflected back implying the amplifier is unstable.
183) If │S11│>1 or │S22│>1, the amplifier cannot be unconditionally stable.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: If │S 11│>1 or │S22│>1, the amplifier cannot be unconditionally stable because
we can have a source or load impedance of Zₒ leading to Гs=0 or ГL=0, thus causing output
and input reflection coefficients greater than 1.
184) For any passive source termination ГS, Unconditional stability implies that:
a) │Гout│<1
b) │Гout│>1
c) │Гin│<1
d) │Гin│>1
Answer: a
Explanation: Unconditional stability implies that │Гout│<1 for any passive source
termination, Гs. The reflection coefficient for passive source impedance must lie within the
unit circle of the smith chart, nd the other boundary of the circle is written as Гs=e jφ.
185) The condition for unconditional stability of a transistor as per the K-∆ test is │∆│> 1
and K<1.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The condition for unconditional stability of a transistor is │∆│< 1 and K>1.
Here, │∆│ and K are defined in terms of the s parameters of the transistor by defining the S
matrix. To determine the unconditional stability of a transistor in K-∆ method, the S matrix of
the transistor must be known.
186) If the S parameters of a transistor given are

S11=-0.811-j0.311
S12= 0.0306+j0.0048
S21=2.06+j3.717
S22=-0.230-j0.4517
Then ∆ for the given transistor is:
a) 0.336
b) 0.383
c) 0.456
Answer: a
Explanation: Given the S parameters of a transistor, the ∆ value of the transistor is given by
│S11S22-S12S21│. Substituting the given values in the above equation, the ∆ of the transistor is
0.336.
187) By performing the K-∆ test for a given transistor the values of K and ∆ were found to be
equal to 0.383 and 0.334 respectively. The transistor with these parameters has unconditional
stability.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The condition for unconditional stability of a transistor is │∆│< 1 and K>1.
Here, │∆│ and K are defined in terms of the s parameters of the transistor by defining the S
matrix. Here │∆│< 1 but the second condition is not satisfied. Hence they are not
unconditionally stable.
188) The overall gain of a transistor is always a fixed value and cannot be changed as per
design requirements.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: For a given transistor gain G0 is a fixed value and cannot be changed. But the
overall transducer gain of the amplifier will be controlled by G S and GL, of the matching
section used with the transistor.
189) The frequency response of an amplifier is _______

a) Wide band
b) Narrow band
c) Pass band
Answer: b
Explanation: Most transistors exhibit a significant impedance mismatch (large S 11 and S22).
This results in a frequency response of the transistor that being narrow band.
190) Maximum power transfer from the input matching port to the transistor will occur when:
a) Гin=Г*S
b) Гin=ГS
c) Гin=ГS. ejω
Answer: a
Explanation: For a transistor, ГS is the reflection co-efficient of the amplifier looking towards
the source. Гin is the reflection coefficient of the amplifier looking towards the input
terminals of an amplifier. For maximum power transfer, the above mentioned condition must
be satisfied.
191) The condition for maximum power transfer from the transistor to the output matching
network will occur when:
a) Гout=ГL*
b) Гout=ГL
c) Гout=1/ ГL
d) Гout=1/ ГL*2
Answer: a
Explanation: The condition for maximum power transfer from the transistor to the output
matching network will occur when Гout=ГL*. ГL is the reflection coefficient seen looking
towards the load. Гout is the looking towards the output ports of the transistor.
192) The input and output ports of an amplifier are always matched to the impedance Z 0 .
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: With two different matching techniques called conjugate matching and lossless
matching sections, the input and output ports of a transistor are matched to the characteristic
impedance Z0 of the feed line used.
193) Unconditionally stable devices can always be ____________ for maximum gain.
a) Lossless matched
b) Conjugate matched
c) Forward biased
d) Driven with high current
Answer: b
Explanation: Unconditionally stable devices can always be conjugate matched for maximum
power gain and potentially unstable devices can be conjugate matched if K>1 and │∆│<1.
194) The maximum transducer gain occurs when the source and the load are matched to the
impedance Z of the transistor by lossless method.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum transducer power gain occurs when the source and load are
conjugated matched to the transistor. This matched condition can be verified using the
relation between the reflection coefficients.
195) Maximum transducer gain for an amplifier is the same as the maximum gain for an
amplifier.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Maximum transducer gain is also referred to as matched gain. Maximum gain
does not give a meaningful result when the device is only conditionally stable, since the
simultaneous conjugate match of the load and source is not possible simultaneously.
196) In terms of S parameters for a transistor, the transducer gain is given by the relation:
a) │S21│/│S12│
b) │S12│/│S21│
c) │S22│/│S11│
d) │S11│/│S22│
Answer: a
Explanation: Transducer power gain is defined as the ratio of power measured at the port 2
(output port) to the ratio of the power at the input port. This is redefined in terms of the S
parameter of the network and can be written as │S21│/│S12│.
197) In the S matrix of a transistor, if the parameter S21 is 2.6 then the gain G0 of the
transistor has the value
a) 6.2 dB
b) 8.3 dB
c) 2.22 dB
Answer: b
Explanation: Gain G0 of a transistor amplifier is given as 10 log S12. Substituting for S12 in
the equation, then the gain G0 of the amplifier is given by 8.3 dB.
198) High gain is not achievable at microwave frequencies using BJT amplifiers because:
a) device construction
b) complex architecture
c) ports are not matched at high frequencies
Answer: c
Explanation: At higher frequencies, if higher bandwidth is desired, a compromise on
maximum achievable gain is made. But at these higher frequencies, the ports of the amplifier
are not matched to 50 Ω.
199) To flatten the gain response of a transistor:

a) biasing current has to be increased
b) input signal level has to increased
c) increase the operational bandwidth
d) give negative feedback to the amplifier
Answer: d
Explanation: Negative feedback can be used to increase the gain response of the transistor,
improve the input and output match, and increase the stability of the device.
200) In conventional amplifiers, a flat gain response is achieved at the cost of reduced gain.
But this drawback can be overcome by using:
a) balanced amplifiers
b) distributed amplifiers
c) differential amplifiers
Answer: a
Explanation: In conventional amplifiers, a flat gain response is achieved at the cost of
reduced gain. But this drawback can be overcome by using balanced amplifiers. This is
overcome by using two 900 couplers to cancel input and output reflections from two identical
amplifiers.
201) Bandwidth of balanced amplifier can be an octave or more, but is limited by the
bandwidth of the coupler.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Explanation: In order to achieve flat gain response, balanced amplifiers use couplers to
minimize reflections. But this in turn reduces the bandwidth of the amplifier to the coupler
bandwidth.
202) Coupler that is mostly used in balanced amplifiers to achieve the required performance
is:
a) branch line coupler
b) wilkinson coupler
c) lange coupler
d) waveguide coupler
Answer: c
Explanation: Lange couplers are broadband couplers and are compact in size. Since the
bandwidth of a balanced amplifiers depends on the bandwidth of the coupler used. Lange
coupler is thus preferred over couplers.
203) Distributed amplifiers offer very high _________

a) gain
b) bandwidth
c) attenuation
Answer: b
Explanation: Distributed amplifiers offer very high bandwidth of about 10 decade. But higher
gain cannot be achieved using distributed amplifiers and matching at the ports is very
important to achieve higher bandwidth.
204) In distributed amplifiers, all the FET stages in the amplifier are connected in series to
one another.
a) true
b) false
Answer: b
Explanation: In distributed amplifiers, cascade of N identical FETs have their gates
connected to a transmission line having a characteristic impedance of Zg with a spacing of lg
while the drains are connected to a transmission line of characteristic impedance Z d, with a
spacing ld.
205) ____________ uses balanced input and output, meaning that there are 2 signal lines,
with opposite polarity at each port.
a) differential amplifier
b) distributed amplifier
c) balanced amplifier
Answer: a
Explanation: Differential amplifier uses balanced input and outputs, meaning that there are 2
signal lines, with opposite polarity at each port. It has two input ports and one output port.
The difference of the 2 input signals is amplified.
206) A major advantage of differential amplifiers is:

a) high gain
b) low input impedance
c) higher output voltage swing
Answer: c
Explanation: Differential amplifiers can provide higher voltage swings that are approximately
double that obtained with single ended amplifier.
207) Along with a differential amplifier, 1800 hybrid is used both at the input and output.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Explanation: A differential amplifier can be constructed using two single-ended amplifiers
and 1800 hybrids at the input and output to split and then recombine the signals.
208) _______________ are used in the final stages of radar and radio transmitters to increase
the radiated power level.
a) Power amplifiers
b) Oscillators
c) Transistors
d) Attenuators
Answer: a
Explanation: Power amplifiers are used in the final stages of radar and radio transmitters to
increase the radiated power level. Output of power amplifiers are in the range of 100-500
mW.
209) Important factors to be considered for power amplifier design are:

a) Efficiency
b) Gain
c) Thermal effect
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: As per the application requirement and considering various aspects of an
amplifier like efficiency, gain, thermal efficiency and inter modulation distortion, amplifiers
need to be designed.
210) Amplifier efficiency is the ratio of RF output power to DC input power. This parameter
determines the performance of an amplifier.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Power amplifier is the primary consumer of DC power in most hand-held
wireless devices, so amplifier efficiency is an important consideration. Amplifier efficiency is
the ratio of RF output power to DC input power.
211) Gain of power amplifiers __________ with increase in operating frequency.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Increases exponentially
d) Decreases exponentially
Answer: b
Explanation: Silicon bipolar junction transistor amplifiers in the cellular telephone band of
800-900 MHz band have power added efficiencies of about 80%. But this efficiency drops
quickly with increase in the operating frequency.
212) ___________ amplifiers are linear circuits, where the transistor is biased to conduct
over the entire range of the input signal cycle.
a) Class A amplifiers
b) Class B amplifiers
c) Class C amplifiers
Answer: a
Explanation: Class A amplifiers are linear circuits, where the transistor is biased to conduct
over the entire range of the input signal cycle. Because of this, class A amplifiers
theoretically have a maximum efficiency of 50%.
213) A class B amplifier consists of _______ transistors in order to conduct the input signal
over the entire cycle.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
Answer: b
Explanation: Class B amplifier is biased to conduct only during one-half of the input signal
cycle. 2 complementary transistors are operated in a class B push pull amplifier to provide
amplification over the entire cycle.
214) Power amplifiers in the increasing order of efficiency is:

a) Class A, B, C
b) Class C, A, B
c) Class B, A, C
d) Efficiency of all the 3 amplifiers is the same
Answer: a
Explanation: Class A amplifiers have an efficiency of about 50%. Class B amplifiers have an
efficiency of about 78%, class C amplifiers can achieve efficiencies up to 100%. In the
increasing order of efficiency, C > B> a)
215) Behavior of a transistor in power amplifiers is unpredictable at all input signal levels.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A transistor behaves linearly for signal powers below 1dB compression point
and so, the small –signal scattering parameters should not depend either on the input power
level or the output termination impedance.
216) If the output power of an amplifier is 10 V, and the input power supplied to the
amplifier is 0.229 V given that the DC voltage used is 38.5 V, efficiency of the power
amplifier is:
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 35%
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency of a power amplifier is (Pout- Pin)/ PDc Substituting the given
values in the above expression, efficiency of the power amplifier is 25%.
217) If a power amplifier has an output power of 10 W, and an amplifier gain of 16.4 dB,
then the input drive power is:
a) 400 mW
b) 225 mW
c) 229 mW
d) 240 mW
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Input drive power required to get an output of 10 W is Pout (dBm)- G (dB). G is
the gain of the amplifier. Substituting the given values in the above equation, 229 mW.
218) In microwave oscillators, negative resistance transistors and diodes are used in order to
generate oscillations in the circuit.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In microwave oscillator, for a current to flow in the circuit the negative
impedance of the device must be matched with positive impedance. This results in current
being non-zero and generates oscillation.
219) Any device with negative impedance as its characteristic property can be called:
a) Energy source
b) Energy sink
c) Oscillator
Answer: a
Explanation: A positive resistance implies energy dissipation while a negative resistance
implies an energy source. The negative resistance device used in the microwave oscillator,
thus acts as a source. The condition Xin+ XL=0 controls the frequency of oscillation. Xin is the
impedance of the negative resistance device.
220) In a microwave oscillator, a load of 50+50j is connected across a negative resistance

device of impedance -50-50j. Steady state oscillation is not achieved in the oscillator.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The condition for steady state oscillation in a microwave oscillator is Z in=-ZL.
Since this condition is satisfied in the above case, steady state oscillation is achieved.
221) For achieving steady state oscillation, the condition to be satisfied in terms of reflection
coefficients is:
a) Гin=ГL
b) Гin=-ГL
c) Гin=1/ГL
Answer: c
Explanation: The condition for steady state oscillation to be achieved in terms of reflection
coefficient is Гin=1/ГL. Here Гin is the reflection coefficient towards the reflection coefficient
device and ГL is the reflection coefficient towards the load.
222) A one port oscillator uses a negative resistance diode having Г in=0.9575+j0.8034
(Z0=50Ω) at its desired frequency point. Then the input impedance of the diode is:
a) -44+j123
b) 50+j100
c) -44+j145
Answer: a
Explanation: The input impedance of the diode given reflection coefficient and characteristic
impedance is Z0 (1+Гin)/ (1-Гin). Substituting in the given equation, the input impedance is -
44 +j123 Ω.
223) If the input impedance of a diode used in the microwave oscillator is 45-j23 Ω, then the
load impedance is to achieve stable oscillation is:
a) 45-j23 Ω
b) -45+j23 Ω
c) 50 Ω
d) 23-j45 Ω
Answer: b
Explanation: The condition for stabilized oscillation is Zin=-ZL. According to this equation,
the load impedance required for stabilized oscillation is – (45-j23) Ω. The load impedance is
thus -45+j23 Ω.
224) To achieve stable oscillation, Zin + ZL=0 is the only necessary and sufficient condition to
be satisfied by the microwave oscillator.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The condition Zin + ZL=0 is only a necessary condition for stable oscillation and
not sufficient. Stability requires that any perturbation in current or frequency is damped out,
allowing the oscillator to return to its original state.
225) In transistor oscillators, the requirement of a negative resistance device is satisfied using
a varactor diode.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In a transistor oscillator, a negative resistance one port network is created by
terminating a potentially unstable transistor with impedance designed to drive the device in
an unstable region.
226) In transistor oscillators, FET and BJT are used. Instability is achieved by:
a) Giving a negative feedback
b) Giving a positive feedback
c) Using a tank circuit
Answer: b
Explanation: Oscillators require a device that has high instability. To achieve this condition,
transistors are used with a positive feedback to increase instability.
227) In a transistor amplifier, if the input impedance is -84-j1.9 Ω, then the terminating
impedance required to create enough instability is:
a) -84-j1.9 Ω
b) 28+j1.9 Ω
c) – (28+j1.9) Ω
Answer: b
Explanation: Relation between terminating impedance and input impedance is Z s=-Rin/3. Zs is
the terminating impedance. Substituting in the given equation, the terminated impedance is
28+j1.9 Ω.

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EC 8701 – ANTENNAS AND MICROWAVE ENGINEERING

2) Wavefront is basically a locus of points acquiring similar _______

3) Power density is basically termed as ________ power per unit area

1. Electric field intensity

ANSWER: Current density

6) According to Webster’s dictionary, what is an antenna?

1. Impedance matching device

ANSWER: Metallic device for radiating or receiving radio waves

1. For a charge with no motion

ANSWER: For a charge oscillating in time motion

ANSWER: Back lobe

ANSWER: 0° & 180°

1. Half power beam width (HPBW)

ANSWER: First null beam width (FNBW)

ANSWER: Power Pattern

ANSWER: Less than

20) What is the nature of radiation pattern of an isotropic antenna?

ANSWER: All of the above

1. Power delivered to antenna

ANSWER: Both a and b

ANSWER: All of the above

28) Which type of wire antennas are also known as dipoles?

30) Which conversion mechanism is performed by parabolic reflector antenna?

1. Plane to spherical wave

1. Reactive near-field region

ANSWER: Fraunhofer region

32) Sterdian is a measurement unit of __________

ANSWER: Solid angle

39) What is the far-field position of an electric short dipole?

ANSWER: Along z-axis

1. Transmission line region

ANSWER: Reflective region

ANSWER: Tilt angle

46) Which among the following is not a disadvantage of rhombic antenna?

1. Requirement of large space

ANSWER: Maximum radiated power along main axis

47) Which kind of polarization is provided by helical antennas?

49) What is the functioning role of an antenna in receiving mode?

22. 22.22 ohm

ANSWER: 27.77 ohm

52) Self impedance of an antenna is basically __________

1. Its input impedance during the removal of all other antennas

54) What is /are the advantages of using ferrite loops?

1. Increase in Magnetic field intensity

56) How do the elements of an active region behave?

84) The pattern of the reflector in a reflector antenna is called:

d. None of the above

106) Which property/ies of antenna is/are likely to be evidenced in accordance to Reciprocity

b. Equality of directional patterns

c. Equality of effective lengths

d. All of the above

ANSWER: All of the above

A. end fire array

B. critical phased array

110) Which is a non-resonant antenna?

111) Gain of a half-wave dipole antenna over isotropic.

112) Very low signal strength in antenna.

114) ______ is the measurement of a unilateral antenna properties of directivity

117) Top loading is used in an antenna in order to increase its ______.

118) A horizontal antenna is _____.

119) All elements in a beam _____ antennas are in line

120) Which does not use vertical polarization antenna?