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1. Unit-I
1. The slope of the stress-strain curve in the c. Ultimate point
elastic deformation region is ____________ d. Breaking point
a. Elastic modulus Answer: c
b. Plastic modulus 6. Which point on the stress strain curve occurs
c. Poisson’s ratio after the ultimate point?
d. None of the mentioned a. Last point
Answer: a b. Breaking point
c. Elastic limit
2. What is the stress-strain curve? d. Material limit
a. It is the percentage of stress and stain Answer: b
b. It is the relationship between stress and 7. Elastic limit is the point ____________
strain a. up to which stress is proportional to strain
c. It is the difference between stress and b. At which elongation takes place without
strain application of additional load
d. None of the mentioned c. Up to which if the load is removed,
Answer: b original volume and shapes are
regained
3. Which point on the stress strain curve occurs d. None of the mentioned
after the proportionality limit? Answer: c
a. Upper yield point 8. What is the point P shown on the stress strain
b. Lower yield point curve?
c. Elastic limit
d. Ultimate point
Answer: c
4. Which point on the stress strain curve occurs
after the lower yield point?
a. Upper yield point
a. Yield plateau
b. Yield plateau
b. Upper yield point
c. Elastic limit
c. Ultimate point
d. Ultimate point
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Answer: a
9. What is the point P shown in the stress-strain
5. Which point on the stress strain curve occurs
curve?
after yield plateau?
a. lower yield point
b. Upper yield point

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d. Dimensionless
Answer: d
13. What is tensile strain?
a. The ratio of change in length to the
original length
a. Lower yield point b. The ratio of original length to the change
b. Elastic limit in length
c. Proportionality limit c. The ratio of tensile force to the change in
d. Breaking point length
Answer: d d. The ratio of change in length to the tensile
10. What is the point shown in the stress strain force applied
curve? Answer: a
14. Find the strain of a brass rod of length 250mm
which is subjected to a tensile load of 50kN
when the extension of rod is equal to 0.3mm?
a. 0.025
b. 0.0012
a. Elastic limit
c. 0.0046
b. Lower yield point
d. 0.0014
c. Yield plateau
Answer: b
d. Lower strain point
15. Find the elongation of an steel rod of 100mm
Answer: b
length when it is subjected to a tensile strain of
11. Where is the necking region?
0.005?
a. The area between lower yield point and
a. 0.2mm
upper yield point
b. 0.3mm
b. The area between the plastic limit and
c. 0.5mm
elastic limit
d. 0.1mm
c. The area between the ultimate point and
Answer: c
initial point
16. i) Strain is a fundamental behaviour of a
d. The area between the ultimate point
material.
and rupture
ii) Strain does not have a unit.
Answer: d
a. Both i and ii are true and ii is the correct
12. The dimension of strain is?
explanation of i
a. LT-2
b. Both i and ii are true but ii is not the
b. N/m2
correct explanation of i
c. N
c. i is true but ii is false

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d. ii is true but i is false Answer: b

Answer: b 21. Which of these are types of normal stresses?
17. A tensile test was conducted on a steel bar. The a. Tensile and compressive stresses
gauge length of the bar was 10cm and the b. Tensile and thermal stresses
extension was 2mm. What will be the c. Shear and bending
percentage elongation? d. Compressive and plane stresses
a. 0.002 Answer: a
b. 0.02 22. In a body loaded under plane stress
c. 0.2 conditions, what is the number of independent
d. 2 stress components?
Answer: d a. 1
18. The lateral strain is ___________ b. 2
a. The ratio of axial deformation to the c. 3
original length d. 6
b. The ratio of deformation in area to the Answer: c
original area 23. If a bar of large length when held vertically
c. The strain at right angles to the and subjected to a load at its lower end, its
direction of applied load won-weight produces additional stress. The
d. The ratio of length of body to the tensile maximum stress will be ____________
force applied on it a. At the lower cross-section
Answer: c b. At the built-in upper cross-section
19. Find the strain of a brass rod of length 100mm c. At the central cross-section
which is subjected to a tensile load of 50kN d. At every point of the bar
when the extension of rod is equal to 0.1mm? Answer: b
a. 0.01 24. Which type of stress does in a reinforcement
b. 0.001 bar is taken by the concrete?
c. 0.05 a. Tensile stress
d. 0.005 b. Compressive stress
Answer: b c. Shear stress
20. The stress which acts in a direction d. Bending stress
perpendicular to the area is called Answer: b
____________ 25. A material has a Poisson’s ratio of 0.5. If
a. Shear stress uniform pressure of 300GPa is applied to that
b. Normal stress material, What will be the volumetric strain of
c. Thermal stress it?
d. None of the mentioned a. 0.50

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b. 0.20 30. What is the factor of safety?

c. 0.25 a. The ratio of stress to strain
d. Zero b. The raio of permissible stress to the
Answer: d ultimate stress
26. A diagram which shows the variations of the c. The ratio of ultimate stress to the
axial load for all sections of the pan of a beam permissible stress
is called ____________ d. The ratio of longitudinal strain to stress
a. Bending moment diagram Answer: c
b. Shear force diagram 31. What is Hooke’s law for the 1-D system?
c. Thrust diagram a. The relation between normal stress and
d. Stress diagram the corresponding strain
Answer: d b. The relation between shear stress and the
27. The stress induced in a body, when subjected corresponding strain
to two equal and opposite forces which are c. The relation between lateral strain and the
acting tangentially across the resisting section corresponding stress
resulting the shearing of the body across its d. None of the mentioned
section is called ____________ Answer: a
a. Bending stress 32. Limit of proportionality depends upon
b. Compressive stress ____________
c. Shear strain a. Area of cross-section
d. Shear stress b. Type of loading
Answer: d c. Type of material
28. What is the formula for shear stress? d. All of the mentioned
a. Shear resistance/shear area Answer: a
b. Force/unit area 33. The stress at which extension of a material
c. Bending strain/area takes place more quickly as compared to the
d. Shear stress/length increase in load is called ____________
Answer: a a. Elastic point
29. The law which states that within elastic limits b. Plastic point
strain produced is proportional to the stress c. Breaking point
producing it is known as _____________ d. Yielding point
a. Bernoulli’s law Answer: d
b. Hooke’s law 34. Which of these is a non-hoookean material?
c. Stress law a. Steel
d. Poisson’s law b. Rubber
Answer: b c. Aluminium

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d. Copper b. Half
Answer: b c. increase four times
35. Where in the stress-strain curve, the hooke’s d. remain unaffected
law is valid?
Answer: d
a. Strain hardening region
b. Necking region 40. Stress represents the -----
c. Elastic range a. external force acting on the body
d. Valid everywhere b. pressure setup within the body material
Answer: c c. force by which the material of the body
36. Highest value of stress for which Hooke’s law opposes the deformation
is applicable for a given material is called d. resistance per unit area to deformation
a. Stress limit by internal forces
b. Strain limit
c. Proportional limit Answer: d

d. Significant limit 41. Young’s modulus of elasticity for a perfectly

Answer: c rigid body is—

37. The loading limit under which the deformation a. zero

entirely disappears on removal of load is b. unity

called------ c. infinity

a. Elastic limit d. some finite non-zero value

b. Proportionality limit
Answer: c
c. Yield point
42. For a given material, the modulus of rigidity is
d. Yong’s modulus
100 GPa and the Poisson’s ratio is 0.25. the

Answer: a value of modulus of elasticity in GPa is—

38. The slope of linearly elastic portion of stress a. 12.5

strain diagram is a measure of---- b. 150

a. Modulus of elasticity c. 200

b. Modulus of rigidity d. 250

c. Bulk modulus
Answer: d
d. Elastic limit
43. A steel bar of 1.5 m length, 50 mm wide and

Answer: a 20 mm thick is subjected to an axial tensile

39. If both the modulus of elasticity and shear load of 120 kN. If the extension in length of

modulus of a metal are doubled, the Poisson’s bar is 0.9 mm, the modulus of elasticity of bar

ratio of the metal will---- material is---

a. Double a. 50 KPa

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b. 100 KPa b. strain

c. 150 KPa c. force
d. 200 KPa d. Young’s modulus

Answer: d Answer: \b
44. A simply supported beam of length 4m and 48. In stress-strain curve, the point occurring
carrying a point load of 15N at mid span will after elastic limit is
have a maximum bending moment of— a. Proportionality limit
a. 10 N-m b. ultimate point
b. 15 N-m c. yield point
c. 20 N-m d. breaking point
d. 25 N-m
Answer: c
Answer: b
49. Which of the following are statically
45. If a simply supported beam carries a UDL on determine beams?
entire length, the shear force— a. only simply supported beams
a. has a maximum value at the mid-point b. Cantilever, simply supported and
b. has a linear variation along entire length overhanging beams
c. is constant at all sections c. Fixed beams
d. is not zero at any section of the beam d. Continuous beams

Answer: b Answer: b

50. What is the distance of point of contra-flexure

46. A cantilever beam of length 3m is carrying a
from point A in the beam loaded as shown in
point load of 10 kN at its free end and a UDL
following figure—
of 12 kN/m over its entire span. The value of
moment acting at fixed end of the beam is—
a. 80 KN-m
b. 82 KN-m
c. 84 KN-m
d. 86 KN-m

Answer: c a. 1m

47. In stress-strain graph which of the following is b. 0.5m

taken along x-axis? c. 0.2m

a. stress d. 0.3m

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Answer: c c. 1.3 mm
d. 13mm

51. The value of reaction at point B in following Answer: b

beam is---
54. Hook’s law holds good up to—
a. elastic limit
b. proportionality limit
c. yield point
d. breaking point

Answer: b
a. 21N 55. A block of weight 200 KN is suspended from
b. 22N a vertical copper wire of 20 mm diameter and
c. 23N 3 m length. What will be the decrease in
d. 24N diameter of the wire if E= 1x106 bar and μ =
0.25.
Answer: d
a. 0.01 mm
b. 0.02 mm
52. A force of 1000 KN is applied on a metallic
c. 0.03mm
bar of 10 cm diameter and 50 cm length. The
d. 0.04 mm
change in diameter is observed as 0.25 mm. if
factor of safety of 2.5 is considered; the value Answer: c
of ultimate stress for the material in MPa is---
a. 218 56. The value of Poisson’s ratio depends upon
b. 318 a. nature of load, i.e. tensile or compressive
c. 418 b. magnitude of load
d. 518 c. material of test specimen
d. cross-section and dimension of test piece
Answer: b
53. A rectangular bar of length 2m and cross- Answer: c
sectional area 30cmX15cm is subjected to 57. The value of stress of 1 N/cm2 in MPa will be-
axial tensile force of 500 kN. If the Poisson’s --
ratio and Bulk modulus of the bar material are a. 0.001
0.25 and 110 GPa respectively, the change in b. 0.01
length of the bar will be-- c. 0.1
a. 0.013 mm d. 1
b. 0.13 mm
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Answer: b d. 3m
58. If a simply supported beam carries a UVL on
Answer: c
the entire span, the bending moment—
61. The value of bending moment at the ends in a
a. has a maximum value at the mid span
simply supported beam—
b. has a parabolic variation along the span
a. is always zero
c. is constant along the beam
b. is always zero if the beam is not
d. is zero at the ends of beam
subjected to a couple at the ends
Answer: d c. equal to the reaction at the ends
59. A simply supported beam is loaded as shown d. Can’t be predicted
in the figure given below. The maximum shear
Answer: b
force in the beam will be---

62. A simply supported beam is subjected to a

couple at mid-point, the variation of shear
force along the entire beam will be---
a. constant
b. linear
c. parabolic
d. cubic
a. Zero
b. W Answer: a
c. 2W 63. The maximum value of bending moment in a
d. 4W simply supported beam of length 4 m subjected
to a UDL of intensity 20 kN/m over entire span
Answer: c
will be—
a. 40 KN-m
60. The distance of point of contra-flexure from
b. 50 KN-m
point C in the following beam is—
c. 60 KN-m
d. 70 KN-m

Answer: a
64. The maximum value of shear force in a simply
supported beam of length 3 m subjected to a
UVL of maximum intensity 20 kN/m, as
a. 1m shown in figure over entire span—
b. 2m
c. 2.5m

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a. 10 KN
b. 20 KN
c. 30 KN
d. 40 KN

Answer: b
65. A cantilever beam is carrying several point
loads. The shear force is maximum at—
a. free end
b. fixed end
c. at the point of largest load
d. mid point of beam

Answer: b
66. A cantilever beam of length 2 m is carrying a
UDL of 10kN/m over half of its length starting
from free end, the value of maximum bending
moment is—
a. 10 KN-m
b. 15 KN-m
c. 20 KN-m
d. 25 KN-m

Answer: b

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Unit-II
1. Compression ratio of I.C. Engines is
a. The ratio of volumes of air in cylinder 5. The working pressure and temperature inside
before compression stroke and after the cylinder of an internal combustion engine
compression stroke is _________ as compared to a steam engine.
b. Volume displaced by piston per stroke and a. Low
clearance volume in cylinder b. Very low
c. Ratio of pressure after compression and c. High
before compression d. Very high
d. Swept volume/cylinder volume Answer: d
Answer: a
6. The rating of a diesel engine, with increase in
2. In an internal combustion engine, the process air inlet temperature, will
of removing the burnt gases from the a. Increase linearly
combustion chamber of the engine cylinder is b. Decrease linearly
known as c. Increase parabolically
a. Scavenging d. Decrease parabolically
b. Detonation Answer: b
c. Supercharging 7. Pick up the wrong statement about
d. Polymerisation supercharging
Answer: a a. Supercharging reduces knocking in diesel
engines
3. The theoretically correct air fuel ratio for b. There can be limited supercharging in
petrol engine is of the order of petrol engines because of detonation
a. 6: 1 c. Supercharging at high altitudes is essential
b. 9: 1 d. Supercharging results in fuel economy
c. 12: 1 Answer: \d
d. 15: 1
Answer: d 8. If the temperature of intake air in internal
4. Which of the following is the lightest and most combustion engine increases, then its
volatile liquid fuel? efficiency will
a. Diesel a. Remain same
b. Kerosene b. Decrease
c. Fuel oil c. Increase
d. Gasoline d. None of these
Answer: d Answer: b

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9. The operation of forcing additional air under 14. It the temperature of intake air in IC engines is
pressure in the engine cylinder is known as lowered, then its efficiency will
a. Scavenging a. Increase
b. Turbulence b. Decrease
c. Supercharging c. Remain same
d. Pre-ignition d. Increase up to certain limit and then
Answer: c decrease
Answer: a
10. The ignition quality of petrol is expressed by
a. Cetane number 15. Which of the following medium is compressed
b. Octane number in a Diesel engine cylinder?
c. Calorific value a. Air alone
d. All of these b. Air and fuel
Answer: b c. Air and lub oil
d. Fuel alone
11. The mean effective pressure obtained from Answer: a
engine indicator indicates the
a. Maximum pressure developed 16. Pick up the false statement
b. Minimum pressure a. Thermal efficiency of diesel engine is
c. Instantaneous pressure at any instant about 34%
d. Average pressure b. Theoretically correct mixture of air and
Answer: d petrol is approximately 15:1
12. The maximum temperature in the I.C. engine c. High speed compression engines
cylinder is of the order of operate on dual combustion cycle
a. 500-1000°C d. S.I. engines are quality governed
b. 1000-1500°C engines
c. 1500-2000°C Answer: a
d. 2000-2500°C 17. The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency to the
Answer: d corresponding air standard cycle efficiency is
13. The pressure at the end of compression in the called
case of diesel engine is of the order of a. Net efficiency
a. 6 kg/cm b. Efficiency ratio
b. 12 kg/cm c. Relative efficiency
c. 20 kg/cm d. Overall efficiency
d. 35 kg/cm Answer: c
Answer: d

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18. The minimum cranking speed in case of petrol 23. The spark ignition engines are governed by
engine is about a. Hit and miss governing
a. Half the operating speed b. Qualitative governing
b. One fourth of operating speed c. Quantitative governing
c. 250 - 300 rpm d. Combination of (B) and (C)
d. 60 - 80 rpm Answer: c
Answer: d 24. In the crankcase method of scavenging, the air
19. Number of working strokes per min. for a two pressure is produced by
stroke cycle engine is _________ the speed of a. Supercharger
the engine in r.p.m. b. Centrifugal pump
a. Equal to c. Natural aspirator
b. One-half d. Movement of engine piston
c. Twice Answer: d
d. Four-times 25. Thermal efficiency of a two stroke cycle
Answer: a engine is _________ a four stroke cycle
20. In petrol engines, advancing of the spark engine.
timing will _________ the knocking tendency. a. Equal to
a. Not effect b. Less than
b. Decrease c. Greater than
c. Increase d. None of these
d. None of these Answer: b
Answer: c 26. Scavenging is usually done to increase
21. In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the air is a. Thermal efficiency
supplied by b. Speed
a. A supercharger c. Power output
b. A centrifugal blower d. Fuel consumption
c. A vacuum chamber Answer: c
d. An injection tube 27. The pressure and temperature at the end of
Answer: c compression stroke in a petrol engine are of the
22. Which of the following is not an intern’s order of
combustion engine? a. 4-6 kg/cm² and 200-250°C
a. 2-stroke petrol engine b. 6-12 kg/cm² and 250-350°C
b. 4-stroke petrol engine c. 12-20 kg/cm² and 350-450°C
c. Diesel engine d. 20-30 kg/cm² and 450-500°C
d. Steam turbine Answer: b
Answer: d

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28. Engine pistons are usually made of aluminium b. compression ratio

alloy because it c. temperature ratio
a. Is lighter d. none of the mentioned
b. Wear is less Answer: b
c. Absorbs shocks 33. The Otto cycle consists of ___________
d. Is stronger a. two constant pressure processes and two
Answer: a constant volume processes
29. ____________ is a chemical reaction in which b. two constant pressure and two
certain elements of the fuel like hydrogen and constant entropy processes
carbon combine with oxygen liberating heat c. two constant volume processes and two
energy and causing an increase in temperature constant entropy processes
of the gases. d. none of the mentioned
a. Compression Answer: b
b. Expansion 34. The thermal efficiency of theoretical Otto
c. Combustion cycle ___________
d. None of the mentioned a. decreases with increase in compression
Answer: c ratio
30. In spark ignition engines a nearly b. increases with decrease in compression
____________ mixture of air and fuel is ratio
formed in the carburettor. c. does not depends upon the pressure
a. heterogeneous ratio
b. homogeneous d. none of the mentioned
c. solid Answer: c
d. none of the mentioned 35. What is the work output of the theoretical
Answer: b Otto cycle?
31. The thermal efficiency of a standard Otto cycle a. increases with increase in compression
for a compression ratio of 5.5 will be ratio
___________ b. increases with increase in pressure ratio
a. 25% c. increases with increase in compression
b. 50% & pressure ratio
c. 70% d. none of the mentioned
d. 100% Answer: c
Answer: b 36. The mean effective pressure of an Otto Cycle
32. The efficiency of an Otto cycle is increased by increases with an increase in ___________
increasing ___________ a. pressure ratio
a. pressure ratio b. compression ratio

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c. temperature ratio 41. What does 1 Tonne (TR) in refrigeration

d. none of the mentioned mean?
Answer: b a. Weight of gases
37. In Otto cycle, heat addition takes place at b. Weight of coolant
___________ c. Capacity of 1 tonne air to be cooled to 0 C
a. constant temperature in 24 hours
b. constant pressure d. Capacity of 1 tonne water to be cooled
c. constant volume to 0 C in 24 hours
d. none of the mentioned Answer: d
Answer: c 42. 1 Tonne = ______ KJ/s.
38. If compression ratio of an engine working on a. 2.67
Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 6, its air b. 1.087
standard efficiency will increase by c. 3.5
___________ d. 232.6
a. 1% Answer: c
b. 20% 43. Which is the S.I. unit to measure pressure in
c. 16.67% refrigeration?
d. 8% a. Newton
Answer: d b. Joule
39. If the compression ratio of an engine working c. Pascal
on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 7, the d. Bar
percentage increase in efficiency will be Answer: c
___________ 44. 0 Kelvin = ____ Celsius.
a. 2% a. -273 C
b. 4% b. 273 C
c. 8% c. -273 K
d. 14% d. 0 C
Answer: d Answer: a
40. The constant volume cycle is also called 45. The heat removing capacity of one tonne
___________ refrigeration is equal to?
a. Carnot cycle a. 210 KJ/min
b. Joule cycle b. 620 KJ/min
c. Diesel cycle c. 240 KJ/min
d. Otto cycle d. 430 KJ/min
Answer: d Answer: a

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46. What does 35 Celsius (C) mean on Kelvin a. Same in winter and summer
scale (K)? b. Not dependent on season
a. 350 c. Lower in winter than in summer
b. 135 d. Higher in winter than in summer
c. 308 Answer: c
d. 298 52. The heat production from a normal healthy
Answer: c man when asleep is about _________
47. What is S.I. unit of refrigeration? a. 50 W
a. J/min b. 40 W
b. KJ/s c. 70 W
c. KWh d. 60 W
d. Kg/s Answer: d
Answer: b 53. When the heat stored in the body is
48. 1 N/mm2 = _____ mm of Hg (mercury). ________ the human body feels comfortable.
a. 1 a. zero
b. 256 b. infinite
c. 760 c. positive
d. 720 d. negative
Answer: c Answer: a
49. What is the S.I. unit required to measure the 54. Which of the following does not mainly a
work done in refrigeration is? factor of dependency for the degree of warmth
a. Joule/kg or cold?
b. KJ/kg a. Relative humidity
c. Joule/m. s b. WBT
d. Joule/s c. Air velocity
Answer: d d. DBT
50. Which one of the following is not a Answer: d
component of a simple air cooling system? 55. What is the term C.O.P. referred in terms of
a. Main compressor refrigeration?
b. Cooling fan a. Capacity of Performance
c. Heat exchanger b. Co-efficient of Plant
d. Generator c. Co-efficient of Performance
Answer: d d. Cooling for Performance
51. Which of the following is true about the Answer: c
optimum effective temperature for human 56. C.O.P. can be expressed by which equation?
comfort? a. WorkDoneRefrigerationeffect

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b. RefrigerationeffectWorkDone c. 0.75
c. WorkDoneHeatTransfer d. 0.25
d. HeatTransferWorkDone Answer: b
Answer: b 61. Which equation represents efficiency in
57. What is the term relative C.O.P. referred in general?
terms of refrigeration? a. WorkDoneRefrigerationeffect
a. ActualC.O.P.TheoreticalC.O.P. b. HeatTrasferWorkDone
b. TheoreticalC.O.P.ActualC.O.P. c. WorkDoneHeatTransfer
c. ActualC.O.P.AverageC.O.P. d. RefrigerationeffectWorkDone
d. AverageC.O.P.TheoreticalC.O.P. Answer: c
Answer: a 62. The Co-efficient of Performance is always
58. Find the C.O.P. of a refrigeration system if __________
the work input is 40 KJ/kg and refrigeration a. greater than 1
effect produced is 130 KJ/kg of refrigerant b. less than 1
flowing. c. equal to 1
a. 3.00 d. zero
b. 2.25 Answer: a
c. 3.75 63. In a refrigerating machine, if the lower
d. 3.25 temperature is fixed, then the C.O.P. of
Answer: d machine can be increased by?
59. Find the Relative C.O.P. of a refrigeration a. Increasing the higher temperature
system if the work input is 60 KJ/kg and b. Decreasing the higher temperature
refrigeration effect produced is 130 KJ/kg of c. Operating the machine at lower speed
refrigerant flowing. Also Theoretical C.O.P. is d. Operating the machine at higher speed
3. Answer: b
a. 0.65 64. If a condenser and evaporator temperatures
b. 0.79 are 120 K and 60 K respectively, then reverse
c. 0.72 Carnot C.O.P is _________
d. 0.89 a. 0.5
Answer: c b. 1
60. Find the C.O.P. of a refrigeration system if c. 3
the work input is 30 KJ/kg and refrigeration d. 2
effect produced is 120 KJ/kg of refrigerant Answer: b
flowing. 65. The C.O.P. of reverse Carnot cycle is most
a. 3.00 strongly dependent on which of the following?
b. 4.00 a. Evaporator temperature

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b. Condenser temperature 70. What is the difference between Heat Pump

c. Specific heat and Refrigerator?
d. Refrigerant a. Heat Pump Gives efficiency and
Answer: a refrigerator gives C.O.P.
66. If a condenser and evaporator temperatures b. Both are similar
are 312 K and 273 K respectively, then reverse c. Both are almost similar, just the desired
Carnot C.O.P is _________ effect is different
a. 5 d. Work is output in refrigerator and work is
b. 6 input in heat pump
c. 7 Answer: c
d. 8 71. What is the equation between efficiency of
Answer: c Heat engine and C.O.P. of heat pump?
67. The C.O.P for reverse Carnot refrigerator is 2. a. ηE = (C.O.P.)P
The ratio of lowest temperature to highest b. ηE = 1 / (C.O.P.)P
temperature will be _____ c. ηE / (C.O.P.)P = 1
a. twice d. ηE x (C.O.P.)P = 0
b. half Answer: b
c. four times 72. How is the Relative coefficient of
d. three times performance represented?
Answer: d a. Theoretical C.O.P. / Actual C.O.P.
68. If a condenser and evaporator temperatures b. Actual C.O.P. / Theoretical C.O.P.
are 250 K and 100 K respectively, then reverse c. Theoretical C.O.P. x Actual C.O.P.
Carnot C.O.P is _________ d. 1 / Theoretical C.O.P. x Actual C.O.P.
a. 5.5 Answer: b
b. 1.5 73. C.O.P. of the heat pump is always _____
c. 2.5 a. one
d. 3.0 b. less than One
Answer: c c. greater than One
69. The reverse Carnot cycle C.O.P. can be d. zero
expressed as _________ (Where t1 is the lower Answer: c
temperature and t2 is the higher temperature). 74. For the systems working on reversed Carnot
a. (t1−t2)/t2 cycle, what is the relation between C.O.P. of
b. (t2−t1)/t2 Refrigerator i.e. (C.O.P.)R and Heat Pump i.e.
c. (t2−t1)/(t1−t2) (C.O.P)P?
d. (t2−t1)/t1 a. (C.O.P.)R + (C.O.P)P = 1
Answer: d b. (C.O.P.)R = (C.O.P)P

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c. (C.O.P.)R = (C.O.P)P – 1 machine working between the same

d. (C.O.P.)R + (C.O.P)P + 1 = 0 temperature limits.
Answer: c a. 0.495
75. If the reversed Carnot cycle operating as a b. 4.04
heat pump between temperature limits of 364 c. 0.247
K and 294 K, then what is the value of C.O.P? d. 8.08
a. 4.2 Answer: c
b. 0.19 79. A heat pump which runs (1/3)rd of time
c. 5.2 removes on an average 2400 kJ/hr of heat. If
d. 0.23 power consumed is 0.25 kW, what is the value
Answer: c of the C.O.P.?
76. A reversed Carnot cycle is operating between a. 4
temperature limits of (-) 33°C and (+) 27°C. If b. 2
it acts as a heat engine gives an efficiency of c. 8
20%. What is the value of C.O.P. of a heat d. 6
pump operating under the same conditions? Answer: c
a. 6.5 80. C.O.P. of the refrigerator is always
b. 8 __________ the C.O.P. of the heat pump when
c. 5 both are working between the same
d. 2.5 temperature limits.
Answer: c a. less than
77. If the coefficient of performance of the b. greater than
refrigerator is 4.67, then what is the value of c. equal to
the coefficient of performance of the heat d. inverse of
pump operating under the same conditions? Answer: a
a. 3.67
b. 5.67
c. 0.214
d. 9.34
Answer: b
78. A heat pump is used to maintain a hall at
30°C when the atmospheric temperature is
15°C. The heat loss from the hall is 1200
kJ/min. Calculate the power required to run the
heat pump if its C.O.P. is 40% of the Carnot

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Unit-III
d. Depends upon mass of liquid
1. When a body is placed over a liquid, it will
Answer: c
sink down if
a. Gravitational force is equal to the up- 5. In an immersed body, centre of pressure is
thrust of the liquid a. At the centre of gravity
b. Gravitational force is less than the up- b. Above the centre of gravity
thrust of the liquid c. Below be centre of gravity
c. Gravitational force is more than the d. Could be above or below e.g. depending on
up-thrust of the liquid density of body and liquid
d. None of the above Answer: c
6. Steady flow occurs when
Answer: c
a. The direction and magnitude of the velocity
2. The property by virtue of which a liquid at all points are identical
opposes relative motion between its different b. The velocity of successive fluid particles,
layers is called at any point, is the same at successive
a. Surface tension periods of time

b. Coefficient of viscosity c. The magnitude and direction of the velocity

c. Viscosity do not change from point to point in the

d. Osmosis fluid
d. The fluid particles move in plane or parallel
Answer: c planes and the streamline patterns are
identical in each plane
3. When a body floating in a liquid, is displaced
Answer: b
slightly, it oscillates about
7. fluid which obeys the Newton's law of
a. C.G. of body
viscosity is termed as
b. Center of pressure
a. Real fluid
c. Center of buoyancy
b. Ideal fluid
d. Metacentre
c. Newtonian fluid
Answer: d d. Non-Newtonian fluid
Answer: c
4. The pressure of the liquid flowing through the
8. A one dimensional flow is one which
divergent portion of a Venturimeter
a. Is uniform flow
a. Remains constant
b. Is steady uniform flow
b. Increases
c. Takes place in straight lines
c. Decreases

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d. Involves zero transverse component of 14. A pressure of 25 m of head of water is equal

flow to
Answer: d a. 25 kN/ m²
9. Dimensions of surface tension are b. 245 kN/ m²
a. ML°T⁻² c. 2500 kN/m²
b. ML°T d. 2.5 kN/ m²
c. ML r² Answer: b
d. ML²T² 15. Dynamic viscosity of most of the gases with
Answer: a rise in temperature
10. The property of fluid by virtue of which it a. Increases
offers resistance to shear is called b. Decreases
a. Surface tension c. Remain unaffected
b. Adhesion d. Unpredictable
c. Cohesion Answer: a
d. Viscosity 16. Low specific speed of a pump implies it is
Answer: d a. Centrifugal pump
11. A fluid in equilibrium can't sustain b. Mixed flow pump
a. Tensile stress c. Axial flow pump
b. Compressive stress d. None of the above
c. Shear stress Answer: a
d. Bending stress 17. Head developed by a centrifugal pump is
Answer: c a. Proportional to diameter of impeller
12. Fluid is a substance that b. Proportional to speed of impeller
a. Cannot be subjected to shear forces c. Proportional to diameter and speed of
b. Always expands until it fills any container impeller
c. Has the same shear stress at a point d. None of the above
regardless of its motion Answer: c
d. Cannot remain at rest under action of any 18. In centrifugal pumps, maximum efficiency is
shear force obtained when the blades are
Answer: d a. Straight
13. The unit of viscosity is b. Bent forward
a. Meters² per sec c. Bent backward
b. kg-sec/meter d. Radial
c. Newton-sec per meter² Answer: c
d. Newton-sec per meter 19. A double overhung Pelton wheel has
Answer: b a. Two jets

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b. Two runners b. Axial flow

c. Four jets c. Mixed flow
d. Four runners d. Reciprocating
Answer: b Answer: b
20. Medium specific speed of a pump implies it 25. A hydraulic press is a device used
is a. To store pressure energy which may be
a. Centrifugal pump supplied to a machine later on
b. Mixed flow pump b. To increase the intensity of pressure of
c. Axial flow pump water by means of energy available from a
d. Any one of the above large quantity of water at a low pressure
Answer: b c. To lift larger load by the application of
21. If the ratios of all the corresponding linear a comparatively much smaller force
dimensions are equal, then the model and the d. All of the above
prototype are said to have Answer: c
a. Geometric similarity 26. Low specific speed of turbine implies it is
b. Kinematic similarity a. Propeller turbine
c. Dynamic similarity b. Francis turbine
d. None of these c. Impulse turbine
Answer: a d. Any one of the above
22. The optimum value of vane exit angle for a Answer: c
centrifugal pump impeller is 27. The function of guide vanes in a reaction
a. 10-15° turbine is to
b. 20-25° a. Allow the water to enter the runner
c. 30-40° without shock
d. 50-60° b. Allow the water to flow over them,
Answer: b without forming eddies
23. Which of the following pump is suitable for c. Allow the required quantity of water to
small discharge and high heads? enter the turbine
a. Centrifugal pump d. All of the above
b. Axial flow pump Answer: d
c. Mixed flow pump 28. Hydraulic accumulator is used for
d. Reciprocating pump a. Accumulating oil
Answer: d b. Supplying large quantities of oil for very
24. For small discharge at high pressure, short duration
following pump is preferred c. Generally high pressures to operate
a. Centrifugal hydraulic machines

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d. Supplying energy when main supply Answer: c

fails 33. If a pump is handling water and is
Answer: d discharging a certain flow Q at a constant total
dynamic head requiring a definite B.H.P., the
29. The jet ratio is defined as the ratio of the same pump when handling a liquid of specific
a. Diameter of jet to the diameter of Pelton gravity 0.75 and viscosity nearly same as of
wheel water , the horse power required will be
b. Velocity of jet to the velocity of Pelton a. Same
wheel b. 0.75 B.H.P.
c. Diameter of Pelton wheel to the c. B.H.P./0.75
diameter of jet d. 1.5 B.H.P.
d. Velocity of Pelton wheel to the velocity Answer: b
of jet
Answer: c 34. A jet of water is striking at the centre of a
30. Maximum impulse will be developed in curved vane moving with a uniform velocity in
hydraulic ram when the direction of jet. For the maximum
a. Waste valve closes suddenly efficiency, the vane velocity is ________ of
b. Supply pipe is long the jet velocity
c. Supply pipe is short a. One-half
d. Ram chamber is large b. One-third
Answer: a c. Two-third
31. In a single casing, multistage pump running d. Three-fourth
at constant speed, the capacity rating is to be Answer: b
slightly lowered. It can be done by 35. In a centrifugal pump, the liquid enters the
a. Designing new impeller pump
b. Trimming the impeller size to the a. At the top
required size by machining b. At the bottom
c. Not possible c. At the canter
d. Some other alterations in the impeller d. From sides
Answer: b Answer: c
32. Which of the following pump is successfully 36. Kinematic similarity is said to exist between
used for lifting water to the turbines? the model and the prototype, if both of them
a. Centrifugal pump a. Have identical velocities
b. Reciprocating pump b. Are equal in size and shape
c. Jet pump c. Are identical in shape, but differ only in
d. Air lift pump size

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d. Have identical forces d. (N√Q)/H5/4

Answer: a Answer: b
41. . Medium specific speed of turbine implies it
37. For very high discharge at low pressure such is
as for flood control and irrigation applications, a. Propeller turbine
following type of pump is preferred b. Francis turbine
a. Centrifugal c. Impulse turbine
b. Axial flow d. Any one of the above
c. Reciprocating Answer: b
d. Mixed flow 42. A turbine is required to develop 1500 kW at
Answer: b 300 r.p.m. under a head of 150 m. Which of
the following turbine should be used?
38. The flow ratio of Francis turbine is defined as a. Pelton wheel with one nozzle
the ratio of the b. Pelton wheel with two or more nozzles
a. Velocity of flow at inlet to the c. Kaplan turbine
theoretical jet velocity d. Francis turbine
b. Theoretical velocity of jet to the velocity Answer: a
of flow at inlet 43. Puck up the wrong statement about
c. Velocity of runner at inlet to the velocity centrifugal pump
of flow at inlet a. Discharge a diameter
d. None of the above b. Head a speed²
Answer: a c. Head a diameter
39. The maximum number of jets generally d. Power a speed⁴
employed in impulse turbine without jet Answer: a
interference is 44. The flow ratio in case of Francis turbine
a. 4 varies from
b. 6 a. 0.15 to 0.3
c. 8 b. 0.4 to 0.5
d. 12 c. 0.6 to 0.9
Answer: b d. 1 to 1.5
Answer: a
40. The specific speed (Ns) of a centrifugal pump
is given by 45. In reaction turbine, draft tube is used
a. (N√Q)/H2/3 a. To transport water downstream without
b. (N√Q)/H3/4 eddies
c. (N√Q)/H

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b. To convert the kinetic energy to flow 50. The specific speed of turbine is defined as the
energy by a gradual expansion of the flow speed of a unit
cross-section a. Of such a size that it delivers unit discharge at
c. For safety of turbine unit head
d. To increase flow rate b. Of such a size that it delivers unit discharge at
Answer: b unit power
c. Of such a size that it requires unit power per
46. Air vessels in reciprocating pump are used to unit head
a. Smoothen flow d. Of such a size that it produces unit horse
b. Reduce acceleration to minimum power with unit head
c. Increase pump efficiency Answer: d
d. Save pump from cavitations
Answer: b 51. The undershot water wheels are those in
which
47. For 450 m head of water, _________ shall be a. The wheel runs entirely by the weight of
used. water
a. Pelton wheel b. The wheel runs entirely by the impulse of
b. Kaplan turbine water
c. Francis turbine c. The wheel runs partly by the weight of water
d. None of these and partly by the impulse of water
Answer: a d. None of the above
48. According to fan laws, for fans having Answer: b
constant wheel diameter, the air or gas capacity
varies
a. Directly as fan speed
b. Square of fan speed
c. Cube of fan speed
d. Square root of fan speed
Answer: a
49. The speed ratio in case of Francis turbine
varies from
a. 0.15 to 0.3
b. 0.4 to 0.5
c. 0.6 to 0.9
d. 1 to 1.5
Answer: c

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Unit-IV
1. Science of precise and accurate measurement Answer: a
of various physical quantities is termed as
___________ 6. The degree of closeness of the measured
a. Metrology value of a certain quantity with its true value is
b. Meteorology known as
c. Pedology a. Accuracy
d. Mineralogy b. Precision
Answer: a c. Standard
2. In a measuring system quantity under d. Sensitivity
measurement is termed as ________________ Answer a
a. Measurand 7. Error of measurement =
b. Controllers a. True value – Measured value
c. Sensors b. Precision – True value
d. Indicators c. Measured value – Precision
Answer: a d. None of the above
3. In a measurement, what is the term used to Answer a
specify the closeness of two or more 8. The ability by which a measuring device can
measurements? detect small differences in the quantity being
a. Precision measured by it, is called its
b. Accuracy a. Damping
c. Fidelity b. Sensitivity
d. Threshold c. Accuracy
Answer: a d. None of the above
4. Accuracy and Precision are dependent on Answer b
each other. 9. The following term(s) is (are) associated with
a. True measuring devices
b. False a. Sensitivity
Answer: b b. Damping
5. During a measurement, for a measure value c. Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
“B”, absolute error is obtained as “A”, what d. None of the above
will be the relative error of measurement? Answer c
a. A/B 10. To compare an unknown with a standard
b. B/A through a calibrated system is called
c. (A+1)/B a. Direct comparison
d. (B+A)/A b. Indirect comparison

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c. both ‘a’ and ‘b’ Answer c

d. None of the above
16. What are the functional dimensions?
Answer b
a. Have to be machined and fit with other
11. The following is an internationally
mating components
recognized and accepted unit system
b. Which have no effect on the performance
a. MKS
of quality
b. FPS
c. Need not to be machined to an accuracy of
c. SI
the high degree
d. All of the above
d. Function is more important than accuracy
Answer c
Answer a
12. The following is a line standard of
17. Why tolerances are given to the parts?
measurement
a. Because it’s impossible to make perfect
a. Measuring tape
settings
b. Slip gauge
b. To reduce weight of the component
c. Micrometer
c. To reduce cost of the assembly
d. End bars
d. To reduce amount of material used
Answer a
Answer a
13. 1 Angstrom (Å) = _____
18. What is bilateral tolerance?
a. 10^-6m
a. Total tolerance is in 1 direction only
b. 10^-8m
b. Total tolerance is in both the directions
c. 10^-10m
c. May or may not be in one direction
d. 10^-12m
d. Tolerance provided all over the
Answer c
component body
14. The principle of ‘Interchangeability’ is
Answer b
normally employed for
19. Which type of tolerance provided in drilling
a. Mass production
mostly?
b. Production of identical parts
a. Bilateral
c. Parts within the prescribed limits of sizes
b. Unilateral
d. All of the above
c. Trilateral
Answer d
d. Compound
15. Following is the theoretical size which is
Answer b
common to both the parts of a mating pair
a. Normal size
20. What is mean clearance?
b. Actual size
a. Maximum size of hole minus maximum
c. Base size
size of shaft
d. All of the above

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b. Minimum size of hole minus minimum 24. If a clearance fit is present between shaft and
size of shaft hole, what is the tolerance on shaft or hole for
c. Mean size of hole minus mean size of a complete interchangeable approach?
shaft a. ½ of maximum clearance – ½ of
d. Average of both size of shaft and hole minimum clearance
Answer c b. ¼ of maximum clearance – ¼ of minimum
21. Which of the following is incorrect about clearance
tolerances? c. Maximum clearance – minimum clearance
a. Too loose tolerance results in less cost d. ¾ of maximum clearance – ¾ of minimum
b. Tolerance is a compromise between clearance
accuracy and ability Answer a
c. Too tight tolerance may result in excessive 25. The maximum allowable limit that a
cost measurement may vary from the true value is
d. Fit between mating components is decided called
by functional requirements a. Permissible error
Answer a b. Expected error
22. Quality control charts doesn’t depend on c. Wind
which factor? d. Gravity
a. Normal distribution Answer a
b. Random sampling 26. Natural error in measurement may be due to
c. Independence between samples a. Humidity
d. Binomial distribution b. Temperature
Answer d c. Wind
23. Which of the following option is true for d. Gravity
given statements? e. Any of the above
Statement 1: Bilateral tolerances are used in mass Answer e
production techniques. 27. Which of the following is not a type of
Statement 2: The basic size should be equal to pressure sensing element?
upper and lower limits. a. Bellows
a. T, T b. Bourdon tube
b. F, F c. Manometer
c. T, F d. Orifice plate
d. F, T e. Diaphragm
Answer c Answer d
28. Another word for “pressure” is:
a. pH

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b. Flow Answer a
c. Density 33. Load cells are used for measuring
d. Force _______________
e. Head a. Large weights only
Answer e b. Small weights only
29. In pressure thermometers when mercury is c. Weights moving in high speed
used, the bulb and capillary should be made of: d. Slowly moving weights
a. copper Answer d
b. alloys of copper 34. Which of the following is caused by careless
c. stainless steel handling?
d. none of the above. a. Systematic error
Answer c b. Gross error
30. Mercury is used in liquid filled systems as it c. Random error
gives: d. None of the mentioned
a. wide temperature range Answer b
b. high sensitivity 35. ‘A system will be error free if we remove all
c. wide temperature range and systematic error’.
approximately linear scale a. True
d. wide temperature range and high b. False
sensitivity. Answer: b
Answer c 36. Which of the following is not a fundamental
31. The advantages of thermistor are: quantity?
a. the resistance of thermistors is high and a. Length
therefore error due to resistance of leads is b. Angle
negligible c. Time
b. errors due to self-heating are small d. Luminous intensity
6
c. their sensitivity is about 10 as high as that Answer b
of Platinum resistance thermometers 37. Which standard is fixed and used for
d. all of the above industrial laboratories?
Answer d a. International standard
32. Which of the following device can be used b. Primary standard
for force measurement? c. Secondary standard
a. Beams d. Working standard
b. Bellows Answer c
c. Capsule 38. Which of the following error is caused by
d. Bourdon tube poor calibration of the instrument?

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a. Random error c. Only system parameters have effect on

b. Gross error the control output
c. Systematic error d. None of the mentioned
d. Precision error Answer a
Answer c 44. For open control system which of the
39. How systematic errors are eliminated? following statements is incorrect ?
a. Frequent measurement a. Less expensive
b. Replacement of instrument b. Recalibration is not required for
c. Finding mean of reading maintaining the required quality of the
d. Finding variance of reading output
Answer b c. Construction is simple and maintenance
40. Which of the following represents an SI unit easy
of luminous intensity? d. Errors are caused by disturbances
a. Lumen Answer b
b. Candela 45. A control system in which the control action
c. Dioptre is somehow dependent on the output is known
d. None of the mentioned as
Answer b a. Closed loop system
41. The amount by which the actual size of a b. Semi closed loop system
shaft is less than the actual size of mating hole c. Open system
in an assembly d. None of the mentioned
a. Clearance Answer a
b. Interference 46. In closed loop control system, with positive
c. Allowance value of feedback gain the overall gain of the
d. None of the above system will
Answer b a. decrease
42. ___ is equal to the differences of the two b. increase
limits of size of the part c. be unaffected
a. Tolerance d. none of the mentioned
b. Low limit Answer a
c. High limit 47. Which of the following is an open loop
d. Design size control system ?
Answer a a. Field controlled D.C. motor
43. In an open loop control system b. Ward leonard control
a. Output is independent of control input c. Metadyne
b. Output is dependent on control input d. Stroboscope

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Answer a 52. A car is running at a constant speed of 50

48. Which of the following statements is not km/h, which of the following is the feedback
necessarily correct for open control system ? element for the driver ?
a. Input command is the sole factor a. Clutch
responsible for providing the control b. Eyes
action c. Needle of the speedometer
b. Presence of non-linearities causes d. Steering wheel
malfunctioning Answer c
c. Less expensive
d. Generally free from problems of non-
linearities
Answer b
49. In open loop system
a. the control action depends on the size of
the system
b. the control action depends on system
variables
c. the control action depends on the input
signal
d. the control action is independent of the
output
Answer d
50. The following has tendency to oscillate.
a. Open loop system
b. Closed loop system
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer b
51. A good control system has all the following
features except
a. good stability
b. slow response
c. good accuracy
d. sufficient power handling capacity
Answer b

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Unit-V
6. The temperature control system which
1. Where and when was the word mechatronics maintains the temperature of a room at 30 o c
invented? when
a. Japan 1969 it is set is an example of-
b. Japan 1980 a. Open loop system
c. Europe 1960 b. Closed loop system
d. Europe 1980 c. Both a and b
Answer: a d. None of the above
2. The mechatronics is an interdisciplinary field Answer: b
in which the discipline those act together 7. What is the function of an input signal
a. Mechanical system & electronics system conditioning unit?
b. Mechanical system & information a. To produce control signals
technology b. To amplify the signal & convert it into
c. Electronics system & information digital form
technology c. To perform mechanical work
d. Mechanical system, electronics system d. To produce electrical signals
& information technology Answer: b
Answer: d 8. A servo motor is an example of
3. A mechatronics system contains feedback a. Electronics system
a. True b. Mechanical system
b. False c. Computer system
4. Where is the feedback generated by sensor in d. Mechatronics system
a mechatronics system? Answer: d
a. I/P sensor 9. A humanoid robot is an example of
b. Comparator a. Artificial intelligence
c. Mechanical actuators b. Stand-alone system
d. O/P sensor c. Large factory system
Answer: b d. High level distributed sensor
5. In which system does the output not affect the microcontroller actuator
process in any way Answer: a
a. Open loop system 10. Which among the following carry out the
b. Closed loop system overall control of a system?
c. Both a and b a. Graphical display
d. None of the above b. Sensors
Answer: a c. Actuators

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d. Digital controls a. Mechanical energy in to electrical

Answer: d b. Energy or information from one form
11. The most commonly used power plant in to another
automobile is c. Mechanical displacement in to electrical
a. Gas turbine d. None of these
b. I C Engine Answer: b
c. Battery 17. Pressure transducer for measuring blood
d. None of these pressure is
Answer: b a. Strain gauge transducer only
12. Following are the examples of Autotronics b. Resistive transducer
a. ABS System in automobile c. Fiber optic transducer
b. Engine controlling system d. Strain gauge and capacitive transducer
c. Both a and b Answer: d
d. None of the above 18. Following is not an examples of transducer
Answer: c a. Analogue voltmeter
13. Which of the following is not the example of b. Thermocouple
Avionics? c. Photoelectric cell
a. Aviation system d. Pneumatic cylinder
b. Weather radar system Answer: a
c. Neuroelectronic interface 19. Kinematics chain requires at least
d. Cockpit instrumentation a. 2 links and 3 turning pairs
Answer: c b. 3 links and 4 turning pairs
14. Which is not the examples of Bionics? c. 4 links and 4 turning pairs
a. Glucose detection and DNA sensing d. 5 links and 4 turning pairs
b. Photodynamic therapy Answer: c
c. B P Testing m/c 20. A kinematics chain is known as mechanism,
d. All are the examples of bionics when
Answer: d a. None of the link is fixed
15. The sensors are classified on the basis of b. One of the links is fixed
a. Functions c. Two of the links are fixed
b. Performance d. None of these
c. Output Answer: b
d. All of the above 21. The size of cam depends upon
Answer: d a. Base circle
16. A transducer is basically a device which b. Pitch circle
converts c. Prime circle

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d. Pitch curve d. William Radcliffe

Answer: a Answer: d
22. In a radial cam, the follower moves 27. What is the purpose of pawl, when it is used
a. In a direction perpendicular to cam axis against a Ratchet which is attached to a
b. In a direction parallel to cam axis shaft?
c. In any direction irrespective of the cam a. It allows unidirectional motion of shaft
axis b. It allows bidirectional motion of shaft
d. Along the cam axis c. It does not allow motion of shaft
Answer: a d. It is used to create additional friction force
23. Cam is a rotating machine element, which can for the shaft
a. Reciprocate the follower Answer: a
b. Oscillate the follower 28. What is the minimum number of teeth, a
c. Reciprocate and oscillate the follower Ratchet should have?
d. None of the above a. 2
Answer: c b. 4
24. A cam with a roller follower would c. 8
constitute following type of pair d. 0
a. Lower pair Answer: d
b. Higher pair 29. It is not necessary to have teeth on the surface
c. Open pair of the Ratchet
d. Closed pair a. True
Answer: b b. False
25. Higher pair are those which have Answer: a
a. Point or line contact between the two 30. Ratchet screw driver can apply turning force
elements when in motion in one direction only
b. Surface contact between the two elements a. True
when in motion b. False
c. Elements of pairs not held together Answer: a
mechanically 31. What does “12- points” indicates when the
d. None of the above term 12-pointreversible Ratchet is used?
Answer: a a. Its diameter is 12
26. Who invented Ratchet wheel which further b. Its radius is 12
used in power loom? c. It has 12 teeth
a. Grueblerowen d. Its pitch is 12
b. Vitally abalakov Answer: c
c. Robert owen 32. The tooth of Ratchet is symmetrical

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a. True a. The belt should touch the bottom of

b. False groove in the pulley
Answer: b b. The belt should not touch the bottom
33. The gears are used to connect two parallel of groove in the pulley
shafts except- c. The belt should not touch the sides of
a. Spur gear groove in the pulley
b. Helical gear d. None of the above
c. Double helical gear Answer: b
d. Bevel gear 39. The groove angle of pulley for V-belt is
Answer: d a. 340 - 360
34. To connect two intersecting shafts, we use b. 420- 450
a. Spur gear c. More than 400
b. Helical gear d. 300 - 320
c. Worm and wheel Answer: a
d. Bevel gear 40. The included angle between the sides of V-
35. Which of the following type of gear has belt is
inclined teeth? a. 400
a. Spur gear b. 450
b. Helical gear c. 380
c. Spiral gear d. 420
d. All of the above Answer: a
Answer: b 41. The following is (are) the example(s) of plain
36. The gear used to convert rotary motion into Bearing-
translating motion is- a. Thrust bearing
a. Worm and wheel b. Linear bearing
b. Spur gear c. Journal bearing
c. Rack and pinion d. All of the above
d. Spiral bevel gear Answer: d
Answer: c 42. The following types of bearing have No
37. Belt slip occurs due to rolling element
a. Heavy load a. Thrust bearing
b. Loose belt b. Linear bearing
c. Driving pulley to small c. Journal bearing
d. Any one of the above d. All of the above
Answer: d Answer: d
38. In case of V-belt drive 43. The types of bearing used in crankshaft is-

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a. Plain bearing a. Help reduce cavitation in valve trim

b. Roller bearing b. Increase stiction
c. Ball bearing c. Cushion the valve against harm during
d. Magnetic bearing shipment
Answer: a d. Seal process fluid from escaping past
44. Hydrostatic bearing usually uses the steam
_________as lubricant Answer: d
a. Oil 49. The main function of actuator is
b. Grease a. To produce motion
c. Nothing b. Detect I/P
d. Any of the above c. Detect O/P
Answer: a d. Detect the state of the system
45. Hydrostatic bearing enters hydrodynamic Answer: a
state when the journal is 50. Which of the following gas is used in gas
a. Stationary charged accumulators?
b. Rotating a. Oxygen
c. Both a and b b. Nitrogen
d. None of the above c. Carbon dioxide
Answer: b d. All the above
46. The basic function of the spring in a control Answer: b
valve is to 51. A weight loaded accumulator
a. Characterized flow a. Loses pressure as fluid discharge
b. Oppose the diaphragm so as to b. Gain pressure as fluid discharge
position the valve according to signal c. Stays at the same pressure as fluid
pressure discharge
c. Close the valve if air failure occurs d. Cannot say
d. Open the valve if air failure occurs Answer: c
Answer: b 52. A spring-loaded accumulator
47. The main purpose of a control valve a. Loses pressure as fluid discharge
positioner is to b. Gain pressure as fluid discharge
a. Alter the fail-safe status of the valve c. Stays at the same pressure as fluid
b. Improve the precision of the valve discharge
c. Alter the characterization of the valve d. Cannot say
d. Increase transmitter accuracy Answer: c
Answer: b 53. . An accumulator may be used to
48. The purpose of valve packing is to a. Make a pump run faster

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b. Make a valve shift more quickly 58. What happens when supply of oil to a single
c. Make for system leak acting cylinder is stopped?
d. All the above a. No pressure is exerted on the piston
Answer: a b. More pressure is exerted on the piston
54. Accumulator pre-charge pressure is normally c. Less pressure is exerted on the piston
a. 95% of minimum system pressure d. None of the above
b. 85% of minimum system pressure Answer: c
c. 75% of minimum system pressure 59. When does expansion of spring and retraction
d. 55% of minimum system pressure of cylinder takes place in spring type
Answer: c single acting cylinder
55. . Which of the following statements are true a. Oil pressure exerted is less than spring
for accumulator used in hydraulic system? compression pressure
(1) Accumulators stores fluid with pressure b. Oil pressure exerted is more than spring
(2) Accumulators stores fluid without any compression pressure
pressure c. Oil pressure exerted and spring
(3) Accumulators stores compressible liquid compression pressure are same
(4) Spring is used as an external source to d. None of the above
keep the fluid under hydraulic pressure Answer: a
a. 1, 3 & 4 60. In a telescopic cylinder, as the number of
b. 2&3 stages increases
c. 1&4 a. Diameter of piston rod also increases
d. 2, 3 & 4 b. Diameter of piston rod decreases
Answer: c c. Diameter of piston rod remains the same
d. None of the above
56. Which factor decides the working pressure of Answer: b
a hydraulic cylinder? 61. What is full form of FMEM
a. Diameter of circular flange a. Fundamental of machine
b. Bore diameter of cylinder b. Fundamental of mechanical engineering
c. Stroke length c. Fundamental of mechanical engineering
d. All the above & mechatronics
Answer: b d. Fundamental of mechanical engineering &
57. Double acting cylinder can be used as a single machine
acting cylinder Answer: c
a. True
b. False
Answer: a

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