1.

On the approach, with all the exterior lights selected ON, which lights will not illuminate until the landing
gear is extended?
• Turn off only.
• Nose (Take off only)
• Nose (Takeoff and Taxy) and Turn off.
• Nose (Takeoff and Taxy) only

2. What is the correct indication of oxygen flow during the test sequence?
• The OXY ON flag visible.
• The yellow blinker flashes.
• A noise from the loudspeaker
• An indication on the DOOR SD.

3. What is the result of failure of both Lanes of ACSC 1?

• Pack 1 (only) is inoperative.
• Trim air (only) is inoperative.
• Pack 1 and Flight Deck Trim Air are inoperative.
• ACSC 2 will take over, resulting in normal operation.

4. Which equipment controls the bleed output temperature to 200° C?

• The BLEED valve
• The ACSC's
• The HP valve.
• A FAN AIR VALVE and a PRECOOLER.

5. With the FLOW controller set to LO or NORM, what could cause the actual flow to be HI?
• The APU supplying bleed air.
• The engines supplying bleed air.
• The cross-bleed valve being OPEN.
• Temperature demands not being satisfied.

6. In flight, if the SKIN AIR temperature is 38°C, in which configuration will the AVIONICS VENT be?
• INTERMEDIATE.
• OPEN
• CLOSED
• SMOKE

7. In flight, which valve will not close if the DITCHING switch is pushed?
• The RAM AIR VALVE.
• The OUTFLOW VALVE (if it is selected to MANUAL).
• The pack FLOW CONTROL VALVE.
• The Avionics Vent. EXTRACT VALVE.

8. Regarding the RAM AIR valve, which of the following statements is true?
• It should not be opened at a pressure differential of > 1.0 psi.
• It directs ambient air to the PACKS.
• It should not be opened above 10,000 ft aircraft altitude.
• It should not be opened above 10,000 fit cabin altitude.

9. If, during the cruise with ATHR engaged, the TLA's are set to less than the cruise thrust, what will
happen?
• The thrust will not change.
• The thrust will be limited by the TLA.
• The ATHR mode will become ARMED.
• The ATHR will disengage.

10. What happens if FMGC 1 fails?

• The FMGC reverts to the INDEPENDENT mode.
 • FMGC 2 can now be controlled by MCDU 1 and MCDU2.
• FMGC 2 can now be controlled by MCDU 2 only.
• The FMGS system reverts to the DUAL mode.

11. The APU has been switched OFF, but the AVAIL light remains illuminated. Why could this happen?
• The APU bleed air was in use.
• The APU always runs for 60 seconds after being switched OFF.
• The APU is the only electrical power available.
• The APU is waiting until the EGT has cooled before shutting down.

12. Immediately after setting the MASTER SW to ON, the START switch is pushed: what happens then?
• The AVAIL light illuminates.
• The FAULT light illuminates.
• The AIR INTAKE FLAP starts to open and the starter engages when the flap is fully
open.
• The AIR INTAKE FLAP starts to open and the starter engages simultaneously.

13. Regarding limitations, which of the following statements is true?

• The APU may be started at any point in the flight envelope.
• The waiting time, after three failed start attempts, is 30 minutes.
• When the LOW OIL LEVEL message appears on the SD the APU must not be
started.
• The maximum altitude for APU start, when in the ELEC EMER CONFIG, is 30,000 ft.

14. When should the AUDIO SWITCHING switch be moved from the NORM position?
• After a failure of the Capt's or F/O's loudspeaker.
• After a failure of RMP 1 and RMP 2.
• After a failure of ACP1 or ACP2.
• After a failure of any RMP.

15. All the SEL lights on the RMP's are extinguished: which actions would cause all three SEL lights to
illuminate?
• Setting RMP 1 to VHF 2, and RMP 2 to VHF 3.
• Setting the standby NAV switch to ON on any RMP.
• Setting RMP 3 to VHF 1.
• Setting RMP 3 to VHF 1 and VHF 2 together.

16. What is the effect of pushing the RESET switch on an ACP?

• It will reset an ACP following a temporary failure.
• It will reset the ON VOICE function back to normal operation.
• It will extinguish all green transmit lights on its associated ACP.
• It will extinguish all amber call lights on its associated ACP.

17. What would cause the RAT to auto-extend?

• Loss of GEN 1 and GEN 2 when in flight.
• Loss of GEN 1 and GEN 2 when at more than 100kts IAS.
• Loss of AC and DC ESS buses.
• Loss of AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 when at more than 100 kts IAS.

18. Regarding the SMOKE configuration, which of the following statements is true?
• All associated circuit breakers are on the panel behind the F/O.
• 80% of the electrical load is shed.
• GEN 1 directly powers two fuel booster pumps.
• GEN 2 directly powers two fuel booster pumps.

19. Regarding the IDG, which of the following statements is true?

• The IDG disconnect button should not be pressed for more than 3 seconds.
• The IDG disconnect button should be pressed for at least 3 seconds.
 • Provided a FAULT light has not illuminated, the IDG can be reconnected in flight.
• The IDG can be disconnected at any time.

20. Following the use of an oxygen mask, how is use of the boom mic re-established?
• Automatically, by re-stowing the oxygen mask.
• By selecting BOOM on the associated ACP.
• By closing the left door of the storage box, and then pressing the TEST slide.
• By pressing the OXY ON button.

21. What assists the opening of the PASSENGER DOORS?

• Air pressure powers a damper when the slides are armed.
• Hydraulic pressure, when the slides are armed
• A damper, when the slides are disarmed
• A spring, when the slides are disarmend

22. Regarding illuminated lights on an ENG FIRE panel, which of the following statements is true?
• The DISCH light illuminates when the squib has been fired.
• All lights illuminate when the fire warning is activated.
• The SQUIB light illuminates when the fire warning is activated.
• The DISCH light illuminates when the bottle is depressurised.

23. The autopilot is disengaged, then the left side stick priority button is pressed and held in: which of the
following statements is true?
• A red light and a green light will always illuminate on the glareshield.
• A red light will always illuminate on the glareshield.
• Two green lights will flash on the glareshield.
• Two red lights will flash on the glareshield.

24. The aircraft is at 5000 feet, 250kts, straight and level, autopilot off, hands and feet off: if TOGA power is
applied, at what speed will the aircraft eventually stabilise?
• Vmo minus 10
• Vmo + 6
• Vmo
• Vmo + 15

25. The aircraft is accelerating in straight and level flight with the FPV displayed: which of the following
statements is true?
• The FPV will remain on the horizon, and the pitch attitude will increase.
• The FPV will remain on the horizon, and the pitch attitude will decrease.
• The pitch attitude will remain constant, and the FPV will move up.
• The pitch attitude will remain constant, and the FPV will move down.

26. Which of the following can be overridden by the sidestick?

• High speed protection
• Alpha floor.
• Alpha protection.
• Low speed stability

27. Following selection of FLAP 1, which of the following statements is true?

• When decelerating for the approach, CONFIG 1 + F will be the result.
• During the acceleration. following a go-around, CONFIG 1 + F will be the result.
• On the ground CONFIG 1 will be the result.
• The result is always CONFIG 1 + F.

28. On a fully serviceable aircraft, with the ground spoilers ARMED, a rejected takeoff is carried out: which
of the following statements is true?
• Activation of the AUTOBRAKE SYSTEM is a function of thrust lever position only.
• Ground spoilers will only deploy at a speed in excess of 100 kts.
 • Selecting IDLE THRUST at 90 kts will result in ground spoiler deployment.
• It is necessary to select REVERSE thrust in order to get ground spoiler deployment.

29. What will cause the green sidestick priority lights (on the glareshield) to flash at the same time?
• Both take-over buttons, (on the sidestick) are simultaneously pressed and held.
• A sidestick fault.
• One sidestick take-over button has been pressed, and held in, and the other sidestick
is out of neutral.
• Both sidesticks are simultaneously out of the neutral position.

30. In flight, with CONFIG 1 selected, what is represented by amber - on the speed strip?
• The maximum speed for selecting FLAP 2.
• The maximum permitted speed with FLAP 1.
• The minimum permitted speed with FLAP 1.
• The minimum speed for selecting FLAP 0.

31. The aircraft is flying with a maximum roll input when it enters overspeed protection: what happens to
the bank angle?
• It will remain the same.
• It goes to 67°: it will go to 33° if the sidestick is released.
• It goes to 45°: it will go to 0° if the sidestick is released.
• It goes to 33°: it will go to 0° if the sidestick is released

32. The aircraft has achieved, and is maintaining a constant high alpha, which has caused speedbrake
auto-retraction: how can the speedbrakes be extended again?
• By reducing the alpha.
• By reducing the alpha, retracting the speedbrake lever, waiting 10 seconds, then
extending the lever.
• By reducing the alpha, retracting the speedbrakes lever, then extending it again
• By retracting the speedbrake lever, waiting 10 seconds, then extending the lever.

33. Regarding LOW SPEED STABILITY, which of the following statements is true?
• It is available in NORM , ALT and DIRECT Laws.
• It is only available in ALT LAW.
• It cannot be overridden by the sidestick.
• It triggers a nose down input at alpha max.

34. When, and why, is the Side Stick Order symbol displayed?
• Below 30 feet RA: it enables PNF to monitor PF's inputs.
• On the ground: it is used during the Flight Controls check.
• Below 30 feet RA: it is for monitoring control inputs when both sidesticks are
deflected at the same time.
• At all times: it is used to monitor sidestick serviceability.

35. What is the definition of S speed?

• The maximum speed for selecting FLAP 2.
• The minimum speed for selecting FLAP 0.
• Minimum drag speed.
• VLS + 20.

36. During a managed descent, how is the ECON speed represented?

• By a magenta triangle.
• As = (magenta), with 2 magenta lines showing the permissable speed range.
• By a blue triangle.
• By a blue "split" triangle.

37. During the final approach, which of the following statements is true?
• The actual speed may be greater than the Vapp: this is due to the MINI G/S function.
 • The target speed (magenta triangle) will be at VLS.
• The target speed (magenta triangle) will be Vapp.
• The target speed (magenta triangle) may be > Vapp or < Vapp.

38. What would cause the MACH display, on the Capt's PFD, to be inhibited?
• The aircraft is flying at a MANAGED or SELECTED speed.
• Activating the approach phase on the PERF APPR page (MCDU).
• Selecting the Capt's EFIS Ctrl. Panel ILS button to ON.
• Aircraft altitude below 10,000 ft.

39. Both ECAM displays units have failed: how can the FLT CTLS SD be displayed?
• Press the FLT CTLS switch on the ECAM control panel.
• Rotate the EIS DMC switch to F/O, then press the FLT CTL switch on the ECAM
control panel.
• Rotate the ECAM/ND XFR switch to CAPT or F/O, then press the FLT CTLS switch
on the ECAM control panel
• Use the ALL button (on the ECAM control panel).

40. During flight, the left inner tank quantity is 300 kg, and the right inner tank is 750 kg: OUTR TK FUEL
XFRD is displayed in the MEMOS. Which of the following statements is true?
• At least one of the transfer valves is open.
• All the outer tank fuel has transfered to the inner tanks (both wings).
• All the outer tank fuel has transferred to the inner tanks (right wing only).
• At least one transfer valve in each wing is open.

41. On the FUEL SD, what may be signified by the fuel on board indication being half boxed in amber?
• Not all of the FUEL ON BOARD is useable at the moment
• Two booster pumps have failed in the same wing tank.
• One centre tank booster pump has failed.
• The FUEL ON BOARD quantity is inaccurate.

42. Which of the following events would cause the centre tank pumps to automatically stop running?
• The centre tank quantity having reached 1000kg.
• Selecting the gear down.
• Selecting FLAP 1 when taxying for take-off.
• Selecting FLAP 0 after take-off.

43. Regarding refuelling, which of the following statements is true?

• The "Fuel Used" indication on ECAM goes to zero.
• The Centre Tank is filled before the wing tanks.
• "REFUELG" displayed on the E/WD indicates Refuelling Panel is open.
• The transfer valves open.

44. Which of the following actions would cause the BLUE electric pump to start running automatically?
• Applying AC power to the aircraft.
• Starting the first engine.
• Starting the second engine.
• Failure of the BLUE engine driven pump.

45. Regarding the RAT, which of the following statements is true?

• It is directly connected to the emergency generator.
• It powers the YELLOW hydraulic system.
• It can be stowed in flight if the BLUE hydraulic system is operating normally.
• It's output pressure is 2500 psi.

46. Which of the following systems have hydraulic fluid shut-off valves?
• GREEN and BLUE.
 • GREEN and YELLOW.
• BLUE and YELLOW.
• BLUE, GREEN and YELLOW.

47. Regarding the FAULT lights on the HYD panel, which of the following statements is true?
• A FAULT light will always exinguish when the associated switch is set to OFF.
• A FAULT light due to fluid overheat will extinguish only when the fluid cools.
• The PTU FAULT light indicates a PTU failure.
• The GREEN system FAULT light could indicate a pump overheat.

48. What happens if WING ANTI-ICE is selected ON when taxying for take-off?
• The anti-ice valves open for 30 seconds only: if required in flight, the system must be
recycled OFF then ON.
• The Anti-skid sensor has lost power.
• The anti-ice valves open for 30 seconds only: on lift off, the valves will re-open.
• The anti-ice valves remain OPEN until the switch is set to OFF.

49. If a WING or ENG anti-ice valve loses electrical power, which of the following statements is true?
• The valves will remain in their present position.
• WING and ENG valves CLOSE.
• WING and ENG valves OPEN.
• WING valves CLOSE: ENG valves OPEN.

50. What is the source of heat to the WING and ENG anti-ice systems?
• Both systems - pneumatic air (main system).
• WING - conditioned air: ENG - pneumatic air (main system).
• WING - pneumatic system: ENG - dedicated bleed from associated engine.
• WING - pneumatic system: ENG - dedicated bleed form either engine.

51. Regarding the AUTOBRAKE system, which of the following statements is true?
• MAX autobrake provides a deceleration rate.
• It is available in NORMAL and ALTERNATE braking.
• If LO is selected, the system will be activated 4 seconds after ground spoiler
deployment.
• If MED is selected, the system will be triggered 2 seconds after touchdown.

52. What message will appear on the MEMO display on push-back?

• N/W STRG DISC in amber if at least one engine is running.
• N/W STRG DISC in amber only if both engines are running.
• N/W STRG DISC is amber (only).
• N/W STRG DISC is green (only).

53. What is signified by the appearance of amber lines at the REL position on the SD?
• The autobrake system has failed.
• The anti-skid system has removed pressure form the associated wheel.
• The associated brake temp is > 300°C.
• The anti-skid system has suffered a "brake released" fault.

54. What causes the DECEL light to illuminate?

• Activation of the anti-skid system.
• Application of brake pressure to all wheels.
• Achievement of 80% of the selected deceleration rate.
• Activation of the anti-skid and autobrake systems.

55. If the captain is holding down the DISC button on his steering handwheel, which of the following
statements is true?
• Nosewheel steering is not available from Capt's or F/O's rudder pedals.
• Nosewheel steering is not available from F/O's rudder pedals only.
 • Nosewheel steering is not available from Capt's rudder pedals only.
• Nosewheel steering is totally inhibited.

56. Regarding the coloured arc or arcs, which may appear above the wheels on the SD, which of the
following statements is true?
• There may be four arcs display, one over each wheel.
• There may be one green arc and one amber arc displayed together.
• There will be no arcs displayed if all wheel temperatures are < 300°C.
• Only one arc will be present: it will be either amber or green.

57. Following an RTO, with Autobrake MAX selected, when will autobraking be triggered?
• By selecting IDLE thrust at any time.
• After deployment of the ground spoilers.
• By selecting IDLE (above 72 kts).
• By selecting IDLE (below 72 kts).

58. If ILS 2 receiver fails, where can ILS 1 displays be seen?

• PFD 1 and ND 1.
• PFD 2 and ND 2
• PFD 1 and ND 2.
• PFD 2 and ND 1.

59. If both FMGC'S fail, how can VOR 2 be tuned?

• By RMP 3 only.
• By RMP 1 or RMP 2.
• By RMP 1 only.
• By RMP 2 only.

60. When should the SBY compass not be checked?

• During ENG start.
• During APU start.
• When ground electrics are in use.
• When not on 'Battery power only".

61. If the TERRAIN ON ND pushbutton is switched OFF, what happens if a Terrain awareness warning or
caution is generated?
• The system switches on automatically: the terrain display sweeps from the centre
outwards.
• The system switches on automatically: the terrain display sweeps anti-clockwise.
• The TERR ON ND "ON" light flashes.
• The Terrain Awareness Display pulses on the ND.

62. What could be the significance of an ALIGN light flashing?

• It may be possible to recover Altitude and Heading.
• The alignment has been completed.
• The system is doing a battery power test.
• The P-POS has not been entered within 10 mins of selection NAV.

63. When is Rad/Alt (RA) information displayed?

• When RA is below 2000 ft.
• When RA is below 2500 ft.
• When selected on the ECP.
• When Flap 1 is selected.

64. During a TCAS Resolution Advisory, which colours may be displayed on the Vertical speed scale?
• Red, Green and Grey.
• Red, Green and Blue.
• Red and Grey only.
 • Red and Green only.

65. What happens if BMC 1 fails?

• BMC 2 takes over all functions.
• There will be no leak detection for the APU and ENG 1.
• There will be no leak detection at all.
• There will be no leak detection for ENG 1 and the WINGS.

66. Which of the following correctly completes the statement: "Switching the APU Air Bleed on will
cause...."
• ... the crossbleed valve to open and the pack flow to go to NORM.
• ... the crossbleed valve to close and the pack flow to go to HI.
• ... the crossbleed valve to open and the ENG bleed valves to close.
• ... the crossbleed valve to close and the ENG bleed valves to close.

67. Regarding FADEC, which of the following statements is true?

• During ENG START, the FADEC will be powered by selecting the MODE SEL to
START.
• It runs continuously with AC power on the aircraft.
• It is powered by the main electrical system with N2 < 50%.
• It has three channel redundancy.

68. What is signified by IDLE (green) being displayed between the N1 gauges?
• Both engines are at IDLE.
• Engine 1 or 2 is at IDLE.
• Both engines have been at IDLE for more than two minutes.
• Both Thrust Levers are at IDLE.

69. During a Manual Start, what does pressing the MAN START switch do?
• It opens the start valve only.
• It opens the start valve and must be selected off to close the start valve.
• It opens the start valve and and activates both igniters.
• It opens the start valve and the fuel HP valve.

70. On the N1 gauge, there is a "Transient N1" (concentric circles) indication: what does it represent?
• A general indication of increasing N1.
• A general indication of decreasing N1.
• The difference between the actual thrust and the FADEC commanded thrust.
• The difference between the TLA and the FADEC commanded thrust.

71. On the Engine Panel, what is indicated by an illuminated FAULT LIGHT?

• Failure of one loop of the ENG Fire detection system.
• Failure of both loops of the ENG Fire detection system.
• A MAN START has been aborted.
• An AUTO START has been aborted.

72. Regarding IGNITION, which of the following statements is true?

• Igniter A is always used at engine start.
• Igniter B is always used at engine start.
• Both igniters operate automatically when ENGING ANTI-ICE is selected ON.
• Both igniters operate simultaneously on a MANUAL START.

73. During a MANUAL start, how is the START VALVE closed?

• By selecting the MAN START switch to OFF.
• By selecting the MODE SEL to NORM.
• Automatically at 50% N2.
• Automatically 30 seconds after light-off.
74. During an AUTOMATIC start, what happens following an EGT OVERLIMIT?
• Maintenance action is necessary.
• The FADEC will run an abort sequence.
• The start valve will close: the crew must perform a manual CRANK.
• The FADEC will reduce the fuel flow by 50%.

75. When is the Fuel Used indication reset to zero?

• On engine shutdown.
• During refuelling.
• During engine start.
• On initial aircraft power up.

76. What is the maximum allowable N1 with the parking brake set to ON?
• 75% on one engine.
• 75% on both engines.
• 70% on both engines.
• 70% on one engine.

77. What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for landing?

• 33 (gusting to 38) knots
• 29 (gusting to 38) knots
• 33 knots.
• 38 knots.

78. What is the maximum permitted wind speed for passenger door operation?
• 50 knots.
• 55 knots.
• 60 knots.
• 65 knots.

79. What is the maximum permitted speed for selecting the gear down?
• 250 kts
• 220 kts
• 280 kts
• VFE NEXT.

80. What is the maximum permitted altitude for using the APU to power one pack?
• 25,000 feet.
• 22,500 feet.
• 20,000 feet.
• 15,000 feet.

81. What is the maximum permitted runway slope?

• + 1%
• + 2%
• -1% / - 2%
• -2% / -1%

82. Regarding engine starter limitations, which of the following statements is true?
• The minimum time between start cycles is ten seconds.
• After four start cycles, allow 30 minutes cooling.
• The maximum N2 for starter running engagement 30%.
• The maximum time for continuous engagement is 2 minutes.

83. What is the minimum permitted speed for use of maximum reverse thrust?
• 70 kts.
• 30 kts.
 • 60 kts.
• 50 kts.

84. What is the maximum permitted speed for selecting FLAP FULL?
• 185 kts.
• 177 kts.
• 200 kts.
• 187 kts.

85. What is the maximum permitted speed for the use of windscreen wipers?
• 230 kts.
• 220 kts.
• 210 kts.
• 200 kts.

86. What is the limiting groundspeed for the tyres?

• 190 kts.
• 185 kts.
• 200 kts.
• 195 kts.

87. With the park brake ON, what is the limiting N1?
• 70%.
• 80%.
• 75% on one or more engines.
• 75% on both engines.

88. In column four of the MEL, what is indicated by a * ?

• A placard is required on the Flight Deck.
• The crew must perform an operational procedure.
• A maintenance procedure must be performed.
• A circuit breaker must be locked open.

89. What are the correct initial actions following a "WINDSHEAR" warning on the final approach?
• TOGA thrust: A/P (if engaged) keep ON: SRS - follow.
• TOGA thrust: A/P OFF: SRS - follow.
• TOGA thrust: A/P (if engaged) keep ON: sidestick fully aft.
• TOGA thrust: A/P OFF: sidestick fully aft.

90. What are the correct initial actions of the Captain in event of rejected Take Off a 100kts?
• Idle thrust: when ground spoilers have deployed, SELECT REVERSE MAX.
• Call "STOP": REVERSE MAX: when ground spoilers have deployed, apply full pedal
braking.
• Call "STOP": REVERSE thrust MAX monitor auto-brake or apply full pedal braking if
required.
• Call "STOP": REVERSE - MAX:

91. Regarding evacuation of the flight deck, which of the following statements is true?
• The only exit through the door is by opening the door forwards.
• Following loss of electrical power, the door will remain locked.
• The sliding windows cannot be opened from the outside.
• The sliding windows will only latch open at the fully open position.

92. Following a GPWS "PULL UP" warning, what are the correct initial actions?
• TOGA THR: pitch up to 17.5°.
• Sidestick fully aft: Wings level.
• A/P OFF: sidestick fully aft: TOGA THR.
• A/P OFF: sidestick fully aft: TOGA THR: flaps retract one step.
93. What is the correct immediate pitch attitude and thrust guidance in event of unreliable IAS indications
just after take off?
• THR CLB: Pitch +10°.
• THR CLB: Pitch +5°.
• THR TOGA: Pitch +15°.
• THR TOGA: Pitch +10°.

94. What are the correct initial actions on receipt of a TCAS "CLIMB" message?
• A/P ON: ATHR OFF: V/S to green area on PFD.
• A/P OFF: ATHR OFF: V/S to green area on PFD.
• A/P OFF: both FD's OFF: V/S to 1500ft/min - if still in red area, increase to
2500ft/min.
• A/P OFF: Both FD's OFF: V/S to green area on PFD

95. What are the correct initial actions, following structural failure, to enter an Emergency Descent from
FL330?
• OXY. MASKS ON: FCU ALT - pull and turn: FCU HDG - pull and turn: FCU SPD -
push.
• OXY. MASKS ON: FCU ALT - turn and pull: FCU HDG - turn and pull: FCU SPD -
pull.
• OXY. MASKS ON: FCU ALT - turn and pull: FCU HDG - turn and pull: FCU SPD - set
to current MACH No.
• OXY. MASKS ON: FCU ALT - turn and pull: FCU HDG - turn and pull: THR LVR to
IDLE.

96. On landing you with Autobrake selected you realise the aircraft is not slowing down. What are the
correct initial actions?
• Brake pedals - press: Reverse MAX: A/SKID and N/W STRG OFF.
• Brake pedals - press: Reverse MAX: brake pedals - release,
• Reverse MAX: brake pedals release: A/SKID and N/W STRG OFF.
• Reverse MAX: brake pedals release: A/SKID and N/W STRG OFF then ON.

97. If DMC 1 fails, which is the quickest way to display the ELECTRICS SD?
• Select ECAM/ND TSFR to CAPT (initial action).
• Select ECAM/ND TSFR to F/O (initial action).
• Push and release the ECP ELEC push button.
• Push the ECP ELEC push button: it must be held in (in order to keep the ELEC SD in
view).

98. What is the significance of "T/O INHIBIT" being displayed in the MEMO's?
• All synthetic voice messages are inhibited during takeoff.
• All ECAM messages are suppressed until 80 kts on takeoff.
• All warning and caution messages will be suppressed durint T/O and climb to 1500
feet.
• Most warning and caution messages will be suppressed during takeoff and climb to
1500 feet.

99. On the ECAM Control panel, what is the purpose of the RCL button?
• Only to display non-suppressed malfunctions on the EWD.
• Only to display suppressed cautions (on the STS page) on the EWD.
• To display non-suppressed and suppressed malfunctions on the E/WD.
• To display the SD's if only one ECAM DU is operating.

100. What happens when an ADVISORY is triggered?

• The STS SD is automatically displayed.
• An ECAM message appears on the EWD.
• The associated ECP pushbutton flashes.
 • The associated SD is automatically displayed.

101. On the ECAM Control panel, what is the main purpose of the ALL button?
• As a back-up for STS button.
• To display all current malfunctions on the EWD.
• So the crew can press and hold it to monitor the systems in the cruise.
• To provide redundancy in the event of an ECP button failure.

102. Regarding Metric Altitudes, which of the following statements is true?

• Pressing the Metric Alt. Button changes the FCU (only) indication to metres.
• Pressing the Metric Alt. Button changes the FCU and the PFD displays to metres.
• The Metric ALT display on the ECAM is driven by the FCU ALT knob.
• The Metric ALT display on the ECAM shows the actual aircraft altitude.

103. If only one ECAM DU is operative, how is an advisory brought to the attention of the crew?
• A level one caution is triggered.
• "ADVISORY" is displayed on the PFD: the associated ECP button flashes.
• ADV is displayed on the EWD: the associated ECP button flashes.
• The associated SD replaces the EWD.

104. During the Take-off roll, which page is displayed on the SD.
• ENG
• FLT CTLS
• CRZ
• WHEELS

105. With the FD's and A/P's switched OFF, the ATHR is switched on: which of the following statements is
correct?
• The airspeed bug is magenta, and is set by the FMGS.
• The airspeed bug is blue and defaults to the current airspeed
• The airspeed bug is magenta, and defaults to the current airspeed.
• The airspeed bug is magenta, and defaults to green dot speed.

106. On the FMA's what is the significance of "G/A TRK" being annunciated?
• The aircraft will follow the missed approach track.
• The aircraft will remain on the track existing when TOGA was selected
• The aircraft will take up the runway track.
• On reaching thrust reduction altitude, "G/A TRK" will automatically revert to "NAV".

107. What happens to the aircraft speed when the APPROACH PHASE has been ACTIVATED in the
MCDU?
• If the speed is managed (magenta) it will go to the speed associated with the current
flap setting.
• If the speed is managed (magenta) it will go to green dot.
• It will go to S speed.
• It will go to 210 kts.

108. What is the best course of action if, during a managed descent in a holding pattern it becomes
necessary to increase the rate of descent?
• Pull the Alt. knob (FCU): then extend speedbrakes if required.
• Extend the speedbrakes,
• Reduce thrust.
• Pull the HDG knob (FCU).

109. What occurs on descending through 400' RA on the approach?

• The actual altitude is boxed (armed).
• The R.A. pulses: 'LAND' is annunciated on the FMA's.
• Actual altitude goes amber.
 • RA goes amber. Large font: "LAND" is annunciated on the FMA's.

110. In straight and level flight, with A/P ON, and ATHR ON, the speed is selected to 100 kts: at what
speed will the aircraft fly?
• Alpha prot.
• Alpha floor.
• Alpha max.
• VLS

111. At high altitudes if the aircraft overflys the optimum top of descent point, what is annunciated on the
FMA?
• MACH/DESC (on the top line)
• DESCEND NOW (on the third line).
• MORE DRAG (on the third line).
• DECELERATE (on the third line).

112. If during a managed climb, (FMA'S read THR CLB/CLB) the heading knob is pulled what happens?
• The altitude constraints will be ignored, but not erased from the MCDU.
• The FMA's will not change.
• The FMA's will show THR CLB/OPCLB: if the HDG know is pushed the FMA's will
show THR CLB/CLB.
• All altitude constraints will be erased from the MCDU.