Tech Question Bank

1.
) For CEO airplanes, if one BMC fails, the adjacent BMC takes over the monitoring of the bleed system
to issue the following ECAM warnings if necessary.
a) Over pressure and Over temperature
b) Wing leak
c) Both options a & b are correct
d) None of the above
2.) If GEN 1 fails and the A/C is on ground with GEN2, APU and EXT PWR available./ In Use
The AC BUS1 will be powered from?
a) GEN 2
b) EXT PWR
c) APU GEN
d) AC bus 1
3.) In case of ENG 1 THR LEVER FAULT.
a) On Ground, only IDLE power available for ENG 1
b) In Cruise, Engine rating freezes at CLB Power until Slat Extension.
c) When the Slats are extended for approach, only IDLE power is available for ENG 1, even for a GO
AROUND.
d) All of the above.
4.) Continuous ignition on CFM is automatically provided during the following condition/s
a) Engine Interface Unit failure.
b) Engine Flame Out in flight.
c) Engine nacelle Anti Ice ON
d) Both a & b are correct
5.) How is the Yellow Hydraulic System pressurized?
a) Using an engine driven pump, an electric pump, the PTU using the green system and, for the cargo
door operation, using a hand pump.
b) Using an engine driven pump, electric pump, the PTU using the blue system and, for the cargo
doors only, a hand pump.
c) An engine driven pump, an electric pump, and the PTU using the green system.
6.) PTU FAULT is triggered when?
a) Any failure affecting the Blue or Green pumps occurs
b) Any failure affecting the Green or Yellow pumps occurs
c) Any failure affecting the Green or Yellow reservoirs occurs
d) Only if yellow reservoir failure occurs
7.) Which of the following statements is true when operating in Alternate Law
a) Extending the landing gear makes the aircraft to be controlled in direct law
b) Extending the landing gear makes the aircraft to be controlled in Mechanical backup
c) Extending the landing gear makes the aircraft to be in alternate law with reduced protections
d) Extending the landing gear, no change in Alternate Law protections.
8.) In alternate law, the Angle of Attack protection is replaced by?
a) High speed stability
b) Neutral stability
c) Low speed stability
9.) If the accumulator on the alternate brake system is the only source of pressure, which of the
following will be available?
a) Auto brakes and antiskid.
b) Antiskid.
c) Seven applications of the brake pedals.
d) Three applications of the brake pedals
10.) If the LOWER ECAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information?
a) Pressing and holding the related systems page p/b on the ECAM control panel; the page will be
displayed on the UPPER ECAM .time 40 SECS.
b) Rotating the ECAM/ND XFR switch, the LOWER ECAM page will be transferred to either the
Captain or First Officer's ND.
c) Both a) and b) are correct.
11.) What action should be taken if IR #2 is lost?
a) Move the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to F/O 3.
b) Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to CAPT 3.
c) Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 3.
d) d) Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 1.
12.) When does Passenger Oxygen flow starts?
a) When the mask is pulled toward the seat.
b) When the oxygen doors open.
c) When the oxygen button is pushed.
d) When cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 ft
13.) In case of LAVATORY SMOKE
a) Establish the communication with cabin crew to identify the source of smoke
b) Consider Applying SMOKE REMOVAL checklist
c) Both a) and b) are correct
14.) When set to TA/RA, the TCAS system provides traffic and resolution advisories on?
a) All other aircraft
b) Other aircraft with an active transponder only.
c) Only other aircraft on the same ATC frequency.
d) As in a) and available +/ - 2700 FT from aircraft altitude.

15.) How can the present position of the aircraft be initialized? As applicabale to fleet
a) Present position can be entered through the ADIRS CDU
b) Present position can be entered on the F-PLN plan page of the MCDU
c) Present position can be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU.
d) Both a) and c) are correct.
16.) In case of SDAC 1+2 FAULT, ENG 1 APPR IDLE ONLY and ENG 2 APPR IDLE ONLY messages are
displayed. What does this mean? What is your action?
a) Modulated IDLE in air is lost; in flight, IDLE power only above 10,000 ft altitude.
b) Modulated IDLE in air is lost; but in flight, IDLE power depends upon bleed load and ambient
conditions.
c) These are wrong messages. Ignore them.
17.) If the Engine has been shut down due to fire, can we restart the affected engine?
a) Yes, provided the Engine fire has been extinguished.
b) No, Engine should not be started for the rest of the flight
c) Engine restart can be attempted by referring the engine relight envelope
18.) If both the center tank fuel pumps are lost, what is the status of fuel supply from center tank?
a) Center tank fuel can be used by Gravity Fuel Feeding
b) Center tank fuel is unusable
c) Center tank fuel is automatically transferred from Centre tank to Wing Tanks through refuel gallery.
19.) Why do the center tank pumps stop automatically when slats are extended for takeoff?
a) To keep the center of gravity as low as possible.
b) Dumping takeoff, the center tank fuel is pumped to the rear to trim aircraft
c) To ensure that the engines are fed from the wing tanks for takeoff (Feeding segregation)
d) During takeoff, the center tank fuel is gravity fed only.
20.) Do not depress the lDG DISCONNECT switch for more than _______ to prevent damage to the
disconnect mechanism.
a) 3 seconds
b) 7 seconds
c) 10 seconds
d) 30 seconds
21.) In Electrical Emergency Configuration, after gears are down, how the battery charging is done?
a) Batteries are charged by DC BAT BUS.
b) Batteries are charged by DC ESS BUS.
c) Batteries are not charged in Electrical Emergency configuration
22.) What is the master FMGC if no Auto pilot is engaged?
a) FMGC1 if both FD’s are on.
b) FMGC1 if FD2 is on
c) FMGC2
d) There is no master FMGC in this case
23.) FMGC computes its own aircraft position from
a) A MIX IRS position only.
b) MIX IRS position and a computed radio position or GPS position.
c) GPS position only.
d) Radio position only
24.) If no AP/FD pitch mode is engaged, A/THR mode reverts to?
a) THR IDLE mode
b) SPEED/MACH mode.
c) A/THR gets disengaged

d) None of the above is correct
25.) If an A/THR disconnect switch is pushed and held for more than _______ seconds; the A/THR
system is disconnected for the remainder of the flight; including the __.
a) 10 Seconds - Alpha floor Protection
b) 12 Seconds - Alpha floor Protection
c) 15 Seconds - Alpha floor Protection
d) 18 Seconds - Alpha floor Protection
26.) What is the meaning of MCDU message reading “CRZ FL ABOVE MAX FL”?
a) Cruise altitude is higher than optimum altitude.
b) Cruise altitude is below the optimum altitude.
c) Pilot has entered a cruise altitude that is above the computed Maximum Altitude
27.) The antiskid deactivates when ground speed is less than ______.?
a) 10 Knots.
b) 20 Knots.
c) 25 Knots.
d) 30 Knots.
28.) On ECAM if you see a green arc shown over a wheel indication?
a) It marks the hottest brake with a temperature of more than 100°C
b) It indicates an abnormal high temperature.
c) The A/SKID system is automatically releasing the pressure of that brake.
d) The L/G control system has detected a low tire pressure
29.) When the APU is supplying the bleed air (APU bleed valve open), the pack flow is automatically
selected to which of the following?
a) High
b) Normal
c) Low
d) Econ. Flow
30.) What happens to the pack flow control valves during engine start?
a) They must be selected off.
b) They must be selected off on cold days only.
c) They must be selected off on hot days only.
d) They automatically close.
31.) Pressurization controllers receive inputs from:
a) LGCIU, ADIRU, FMGS, and EIU.
b) LGCIU's and the MCDU.
c) LGCIU's and pitot static sources.
d) MCDU and LGCIU's.
32.) How is the FADEC Powered in flight?
a) AC BUS 1/AC ESS BUS.
b) Aircraft Battery Bus.
c) Self Powered by its own magnetic alternator
d) FADEC needs no power supply
33.) During an engine start sequence, the gray background on N2 disappears at about 57%. What does
this indicate?
a) That the igniters are no longer being powered.
b) That the start sequence has finished and all engine parameters have stabilized
c) That the start valve air pressure has dropped.
d) That there is a start fault and a dry crank is in progress.
34.) There is a LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM?
a) The APU may be started and operated at any time for 10 hours
b) The APU is not available

c) The APU may be started only on ground below 100Kts.
d) The APU may be started only in emergency situation
35.) The alert APU FIRE triggers
a) Fire is detected by both loops
b) Fire is detected by one loop when the other loop is faulty
c) A rupture occurs in both loops within 5 s
d) All of the above
36.) When is T.O. INHIBIT and LDG INHIBIT active?
a) T.O 750 feet AGL, LND below 1500 feet AGL.
b) T.O 1000 feet AGL, LND below 1000 feet AGL.
c) T.O 1500 feet AGL, LND below 800 feet AGL.
d) T.O 1500 feet AGL, LND below 1000 feet AGL.
37.) Four Main functions of the FAC (Flight Augmentation Computer)
a) Flight envelope function, Turn Co ordination function, GS mini, Yaw Damping.
b) Low energy warning, Yaw function, Flight envelope function, Wind Shear detect.
c) Yaw damping, Turn Co ordination, Low energy warning, Alpha- floor protection.
d) Rudder travel, Yaw damping, Wind shear protection, Low energy warning.
38.) Can the rudders be moved with both FAC’s inoperative?
a) Yes, ELAC computer is responsible for rudder operation.
b) No, the Rudder would be failed safe in neutral position.
c) Yes, mechanically.
d) No, the Rudder would stay in failed position
39.) LOW ENERGY WARNING “SPEED SPEED SPEED ” is inhibited:
a) Above 2000 feet RA.
b) When GPWS warning is triggered.

c) In Alternate law.
40.) The Aural warning for in flight Low Speed Stall is:
a) Single chime + ‘STALL’ Synthetic Voice.
b) CRC + ‘STALL’ Synthetic Voice.
c) Cricket + ‘STALL’ Synthetic Voice.
d) Cavalry Charge + ‘STALL’ Synthetic Voice.
41.) IR part of ADRIU supplies information on PFD :
a) Attitude, Altitude, Airspeed Info.
b) Altitude, Airspeed, Angle of Attack.
c) Attitude, Heading, Vertical Speed.
d) Angle of Attack, Heading, Airspeed.
42.) What is Soft Altitude Hold on AUTO PILOT?
a) Reaching planned Cruise Altitude, ALT CRZ engages, A/THR maintains speed/mach target
b) Two minutes after ALT CRZ engagement, mach mode operative, SOFT ALT mode engages
c) Limits target altitude deviation by +/- 50 Ft. minimizes Thrust variation, lowers fuel consumption.
d) All above statements are correct.
43.) On Engine 1 Fire Detection Loop B failure, followed 4 seconds later by Loop A failure, what
indications/warnings will the crew see?
a) Loop B failure warning followed by Loop A failure warning
b) As in a) no fire detection protection now available
c) Both Loops A and B fail within 5 seconds of each other a fire warning is issued.
d) Non of the above statements are correct.
44.) Operating in icing conditions, electrical power for ice protection system is lost. Which statement is
correct? Regarding Wing Anti Ice and Nacelle Anti Ice.?
a) It is only a safety feature; both Wing AI and Nacelle AI are always available
b) Wing AI is available only, if no electrical supply, valves are spring loaded to open
c) Only Nacelle AI, if no electrical supply, valves are spring loaded to open
d) Both Wing and Nacelle Anti ice valves return to close.
45.) Aircraft on ground, LP AIR AC cart connected, all aircraft doors closed, Ditching switch
accidentally pressed: What happens
a) On ground nothing happens as packs are shut when LP cart is connected.
b) On ground ventilation runs in open CONFIG.
c) Aircraft gets pressurized.
d) Outflow valves on ground commanded OPEN.
46.) With the Emergency EXIT light selector in the armed position, which situation will activate the
emergency lights and exit signs?
a) AC shed Bus Un powered.
b) AC Bus 1 Fails or DC ESS shed bus Fails.
c) DC ESS shed bus UN powered.
d) AC Bus 1 and AC Bus 2 Fail.
47.) Which condition will automatically illuminate the Emergency Escape path markings?
a) AC ESS shed bus not powered.
b) Loss of power to the AC Bus 1.
c) They have a self luminescent system.
d) DC ESS shed not powered.
48.) When two pressure sensors for cockpit door are Unserviceable?
a) Cockpit door is no longer Intrusion Proof.
b) As in a) A hard Push from cabin will open the door.
c) Automatic latch release during Cockpit Rapid decompression is U/S.
d) All above are correct.
49.) The ESS SHED busses are

a) Available during Normal Operation.
b) Not available in EMER CONFIG (EMER GEN OPERATING).
c) Available in EMER CONFIG (EMER GEN NOT OPERATING).
d) All of the above are correct.
50.) Automatic Pitch Trim is inhibited when?
a) Radio Altitude is below 50 feet (100 feet with autopilot coupled).
b) Bank angle is greater than 33 degrees.
c) Load factor is less than 1 G
d) Both a) and b) are correct.
51.) Reactive Wind Shear Detection function?
a) Available during takeoff , 3sec from lift off to 1300 feet AGL
b) On approach from 1300 ft to 50 feet AGL. Aircraft CONFIG > 1.
c) WINDSHEAR” IN RED ON BOTH PFD’s, aural “WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR”.
52.) For predictive Wind shear?
a) Aural alerts have priority over T2CAS and other FWC aural warnings
b) Aural alerts are inhibited by Reactive Windshear Detection (FAC
c) Wind shear detected by antenna scanning below 2,300 ft RA, displayed on ND when below 1,500
feet.
d) All of the above statements are correct.
53.) Which of the following functions are not available if Green system is lost?
a) Reverser 1 and gear retraction.
b) Reverser 1, gear retraction and Normal braking.
c) Reverser 2, gear retraction, cargo doors and nose wheel steering.
d) Reverser 2 and gear retraction.
54.) What is the significance of the RAT MAN ON guarded pushbutton on Hydraulic panel?
a) Extends RAT, pressurizes BLUE system, starts Emergency Generator.
b) Extends RAT, must push RAT MAN ON again to pressurize BLUE system.
c) Extends RAT, pressurizes GREEN system, starts Emergency Generator.
d) Extends RAT, pressurizes BLUE system, and does not start Emergency Generator.
55.) Automatic Pitch Trim is inhibited when?
a) Radio Altitude is below 50 feet (100 feet with autopilot coupled) .
b) Bank angle is greater than 33 degree
c) Load factor is less than 1 G.
d) Both a and b are correct.
56.) In Flight Stall Recovery what are the memory Actions?
a) Nose down Pitch, wings level
b) When out of stall /no warnings, thrust as required.
c) Check Speed Brakes retracted, Flight Path recovered, Below FL200 select FLAP 1.
d) All above are correct and are in sequence.
57.) Landing gear operation is inhibited at speeds?
a) Below 100 knots.
b) Above 260 knots.
c) Below 100 knots and above 260 knots.
d) Above 250 knots.
58.) "Landing Gear not down locked",ECAM Actions are: After landing Gear Lever recycle , if gear still
not shown down locked , before gravity extension , wait for
a) 5 minutes
b) 3 minutes
c) 2 minutes
d) Make another recycle attempt
59.) Auto brakes, if selected, will only be activated by:

a) The wheels spinning up.
b) The struts being compressed.
c) The brake pedals being depressed.
d) The ground spoiler extension command.
60.) Landing gear retraction logic require following:
a) Aircraft in air above 100 feet.
b) Right gear down lock released
c) All Shock absorbers fully extended.
d) All Shock absorbers fully extended and nose wheels centered.
61.) APU EGT LIMITS are?
a) Max EGT ……….. 675ºC
b) Max Start EGT (below 35000 FT)……….. 1090 º C
c) Max Start EGT (above 35000 FT) ……….. .1120 º C
62.) Mark the correct statement for APU in flight use.
a) APU battery starts 22,500 FT.
b) APU start is on BAT Bus; limit 25,000 FT (EMER ELEC CONFIG).
c) APU BLEED for both packs 20000 FT.
63.) In normal flight in closed circuit configuration, the avionics ventilation system controls the
temperature of the cooling air by
a) Adding air conditioned air to the flow
b) Extracting air overboard
c) Adding avionics bay air
d) Passing air through a skin heat exchanger.
64.) During an automatic start sequence; selecting the ENG MASTER switch to on:
a) Closes the pack valves.
b) Initiates the start sequence.
c) Displays the ECAM engine page.
d) First two statements are correct
65.) Aircraft cleared under MEL by Engineering; Snag deferred under CAT A, CAT B, CAT C, CAT D. which
statement is correct?
a) CAT A 120 DAYS, CAT B 10 DAYS, CAT C 3 DAYS
b) CAT A 3 DAYS , CAT B 10 DAYS, CAT C 120 DAYS
c) CAT A no Standard time, CAT B - 3 days, CAT C 10 days, CAT D 120 days.
d) As in c) deferred period starts from midnight, the day the snag was reported i.e. 00:01 Hrs.
66.) By how many hours can a crew member be scheduled for duty in excess of FDTL?
a) 2 Hrs (not more than 6 hours in 10 consecutive days)
b) 4 Hours (not more than 8 hours in 30 consecutive days)
c) Can be extended at the discretion of the airline in exceptional circumstances in order to bring a
grounded aircraft back to the base
d) No extension can be given
67.) What is the meaning of MCDU message reading “ONLY SPD ENTRY ALLOWED”
a) Pilot has entered a higher speed than a pre selected speed value on the CLIMB page
b) Pilot has entered a Mach number in CRUISE page.
c) Has entered a lower speed value than a preselected speed value in DESCENT page.
d) Trying to enter a Mach number for a preselected speed value on the CLIMB page.
68.) What does an amber line across the last two digits of the fuel quantity mean?
a) The fuel quantity indication is inaccurate.
b) The fuel quality is not good and should be checked.
c) A disagreement between fuel measured and fuel entered on the MCDU has been detected.
d) Not all the fuel aboard is usable.

69.) Correct Statement on Fuel Tanks Ventilation is?
a) All fuel tanks are ventilated via Surge Vent Tanks except Center
b) Right wing tanks and center by Right Wing Surge Vent tanks.
c) Left Wing tanks and Center tank by Left Wing Surge tank
d) Each Tank has its own NACA scoop.
70.) When APU is supplying the packs, the pack's ACSC issues a demand signal to which of the following
to increase airflow when a zone temperature cannot be satisfied?
a) Pack Ram Air Inlet Flap.
b) APU ECB.
c) Pack Outflow Control Valve.
d) None of the above.
71.) Which statement is correct, regarding HYD PTU Operation?
a) The PTU will activate when the ΔP between Blue & Yellow system is > than 500 psi
b) Parking brake ON, and NWS disconnected
c) Any time a/c is in Flight, and ΔP between Green and Yellow is more than 500 PSI.
d) PTU is inhibited for 30 seconds following Cargo Door operation.
72.) Hydraulically operated wing tip brakes are installed to lock the flaps or slats for?
a) Asymmetry and over speed only
b) Asymmetry, over speed and slow movement
c) Asymmetry, over speed, symmetrical runaway and uncommanded movement.
73.) RAT supply for ELEC EMER CONFIG in Approach/Landing is available:
a) Up to Landing Gear Extension.
b) IAS > 140 KTS
c) IAS > 100 KTS
d) GRND SPD 50 KTS

74.) Which Buses will be powered after Emergency Generator starts producing power.
a) The Static inverter will power both HOT busses, ESS DC & ESS AC
b) Both HOT busses, ESS DC, ESS DC shed, ESS AC and ESS AC shed.
c) The BAT will power both HOT busses, ESS AC, ESS DC through Static Inverter.
d) DC ESS, DC ESS shed, AC ESS, AC ESS shed busses.
75.) The Battery Fault light illuminates when :
a) Battery Voltage is Low.
b) Charging current increases at an abnormal rate.
c) Charging current decreases at an abnormal rate.
d) When Both the engines are OFF
76.) Battery HOT Bus 1 & HOT Bus 2, will power at all times?
a) ENG 1 & ENG 2, FIRE BTL 1, Squib A & B
b) RAT Deployment (Auto/ Manual Control)
c) ELAC 1 & 2, SEC 1, Pitch Trim motor 1
77.) Side sticks provide electrical signals to the flight control computers; if both side sticks are operated
together?
a) The inputs cancel each other.
b) Both inputs are algebraically added.
c) The F/O input is overridden by the CAP input
78.) Roll control is achieved by?
a) Ailerons
b) Ailerons and rudder.
c) One aileron and four spoilers on each wing.
d) Ailerons, rudder and spoilers

79.) After touch down (On Sharklet fitted aircrafts), the correct statement for “AILERON ANTI-DROOP”
function is
a) Ailerons are locked centered.
b) After Ground Spoiler EXTN, and aircraft Pitch < 2.5°, Both Ailerons are fully extended / deflected
up.
c) As in b) Manual Landing and Flaps not in Clean CONF, with Normal Law
d) Both statements b) and c) are collectively required for this function..
80.) Engine Interface Unit Fault/Failure
a) Thrust REV, LND GR EXTN, and ENG Start not available.
b) Thrust REV, Auto Thrust, approach Idle not available
c) Thrust REV, Auto Thrust, ENG Start, Bleed correction on N1 not available
81.) Regarding WING ANTI ICE: Mark correct statement.
a) On Ground WAI turned ON, limited to 30 sec test sequence.
b) Electric power failure, WAI valves automatically controlled fail safe open.
c) WAI selected N1 limit is automatically increased.
82.) When and where is Load Factor (G LOAD) displayed on EIS?
a) On Capt.’s PFD, aircraft in Direct Law.
b) On Lower ECAM for 5 sec’s when G LOAD exceeds 1.4g or below 0.7g
c) As in b) and inhibited below 80 KTS
d) Load factor is not displayed, but only recorded on DFDR.
83.) Which of the following AC busses can be powered by the EMER GEN?
a) AC BUS 1
b) AC BUS 2.
c) AC ESS BUS / AC ESS SHED BUS

d) Only AC ESS BUS.
84.) If an A/THR disconnect switch is pushed and held for more than _______ seconds; the A/THR
system is disconnected for the remainder of the flight; including the _______.
a) 10 Seconds - Alpha floor Protection function.
b) 12 Seconds - Alpha floor Protection function.
c) 15 Seconds - Alpha floor Protection function.
d) 18 Seconds - Alpha floor Protection function.
85.) The Engine Bleed Air System supplies pressure air for:
a) Air Conditioning, water pressurization and engine starting
b) Wing anti-icing.
c) Hydraulic reservoir pressurization.
86.) When a FAC is disengaged (FAC pushbutton set off) but still valid, the flight envelope function of the
FAC remains active.
a) TRUE.
b) FALSE.
c) May be True or false depending upon other conditions
87.) Aircraft is in Flight powered on Battery’s only. The Display Units on EIS are?
a) PFD1, ND 1, UPPER ECAM.
b) PFD1, UPPER ECAM.
c) PFD1, ND 2, UPPER ECAM
d) PFD1, ND 1, BOTH UPPER and LOWER ECAM’s.
88.) Electrical heating in flight is used for which of the following applications?
a) Engine Anti Icing
b) Wing Anti Icing

c) All Probes, Cockpit Side Windows ,Windshield, Drain Mast’s
89.) With the center tank pump mode SEL switch in AUTO; which of the following statement is true for
center tank fuel pumps?
a) Run for two minutes on each engines start.
b) Will not restart until slats are retracted in flight.
c) Continue to run for five minutes after the center tank low level is sensed
d) All the above.
90.) For latching the side sticks priority condition, and for releasing the side stick without losing
authority, it is recommended to press the takeover pushbutton for how many seconds?
a) 3 seconds
b) 40 seconds
c) 15 seconds
d) 10 seconds
91.) The weather radar image can be displayed on which modes of the ND?
a) Rose NAV or VOR.
b) Rose VOR or Rose ILS.
c) Rose NAV or ARC.
d) All modes except Plan.
92.) What does a pulsing green parameter indicate on ECAM SD page
a) An ADVISORY, the parameter is out of the limits or about to reach limit
b) A MEMO, the parameter has a faulty indication
c) Pulsing parameter requires crew monitoring and QRH recommended actions
d) Both statements a) & c) are correct
93.) In which of the following cases ENG MANUAL START is recommended?
a) Engine EGT over limit.

b) Low start air pressure.
c) Engine Stall
94.) In which of the following case Engine Reverser1 is unavailable?
a) LGCIU 1 Fault
b) HYD G RSVR LO LVL
c) SEC1+2 FAULT
d) ALL of the above.
95.) Which protection is not available in case of ALTN LAW WITH REDUCED PROTECTION?
a) High speed stability
b) Low speed stability
c) Angle of Attack Protection
d) Load Factor protection
96.) Which of the following is used for Hydraulic Reservoir pressurization?
a) Engine1 HP bleed air.
b) Engine 2 bleed air from cross bleed duct.
c) Ground HP bleed air.
97.) Which of the following computer reset on ground done, may cause the pitch trim to reset to 0
degree?
a) FMGC 1
b) ELAC 1
c) ELAC 2
d) FAC 1
98.) During an Engine start, the bleed pressure available in green at start valve, turns amber with N2 ≥
10 % when pressure drops below _ PSI, Giving ENG 1(2) START FAULT.
a) 24 PSI.
b) 30 PSI.
c) 21 PSI.
d) 20 PSI.
99.) In Case the Electric power supply is interrupted during ENG Start Sequence indicated by the loss of
ECAM DU’S.
a) A transient EGT spike will occur, no crew action required.
b) Abort the start by switching OFF the ENG Master Switch
c) As in b) perform a 30 s dry crank.
d) Monitor EGT ascendance above 725º C
100.) A complete IRS alignment must be performed, when?
a) Before the first flight of the day or there is crew change.
b) GPS not available and poor NAVAIDS coverage on expected route.
c) GPS is not available and expected flight time is more than 3 HRS.
101.) For storm/weather avoidance planning, the flight crew should consider avoiding all yellow, red, or
magenta areas by?
a) At least 20 NM
b) At least 5 NM
c) At least 75NM
102.) Which of the below phenomena indicates that the a/c is flying through ash cloud?
a) Smoke /dust in the cockpit and Acrid odour similar to electrical smoke
b) Engine malfunction, e.g. a rising EGT
c) At night, the appearance of St Elmo fire, bright white or orange glow appearing in engine inlets or
sharp and distinct beams from the landing lights

103.) Regarding ELAC or SEC computer malfunction, (COMP RESET)which of the following statements are
true?
a) After an ELAC reset on ground, crew must perform flight control check and check the pitch trim
position.
b) Even not requested by ECAM, at any FLT Phase only single computer reset is permitted at a time.
c) Not recommended to do an ELAC reset for un-commanded maneuver
104.) Aircraft in Approach configuration, PM will announce any deviation
a) V/S > 1000 ft/min or BANK > 7°.
b) IAS: Target Speed + 10 KT. Or VAPP – 5 KT.
c) PITCH: 2.5 ° Nose Down; 10 ° Nose Up.
d) All above are correct (NORMAL PROCEDURE QRH)
105.) APU OIL QTY: LOW OIL LEVEL pulsing, if no oil leak
a) Normal APU operation allowed for 8 hours.
b) Normal APU operation allowed for 10 hours
c) Normal APU operation allowed for engine start only.
d) APU bleed for single Pack operation only.
106.) Regarding available Ground clearance during a flare LANDING GEAR COMPRESSED. PRO-NOR-
SOP-19 FLARE
a) A tail strike occurs, if pitch attitude >11°.
b) A wing tip or engine scrape occurs, if roll angle >16°
c) A pitch up tendency will occur with ground spoiler extension
d) All above statements are correct
107.) Correct statement regarding Hot-Air Pressure Regulating Valve:
a) Valve closes when both lanes of one ACSC Fail
b) Valve closes automatically if cockpit trim air valve fails
c) Valve closes automatically, when both cabin trim air valves fail
108.) When Wing Anti-ice is selected ON, the N1 limit is automatically increased, and the idle N1 is
automatically decreased.
a) TRUE.
b) FALSE.
c) May be TRUE or FALSE depending upon other conditions
109.) Correct statement regarding ENG REV “AUTO RESTOW” FUNCTION: CFM
a) FADEC will command auto restow, if any one door is unstowed and REV thrust is not selected
b) FADEC commands auto restow, if at least any two doors are unstowed and reverse thrust is not
selected.
c) Auto re stow function is inhibited in flight and on ground when N1 is greater than 70%.
d) Statements a & c are correct.
110.) For Engine dry cranking cycle, what are the pilot actions?
a) ENG MODE selector to CRANK, before putting Master switch to ON
b) ENG MODE selector to CRANK and MAN START push button to ON
c) Dry Cranking ventilates the excess fuel vapors after fail start attempt on ground.
d) Both Statements b & c are correct
111.) During In-flight ENG RELIGHT, will the Automatic Start Abort function be available?
a) Yes, FADEC has authority to abort the start in case of inflight abnormal start
b) No, FADEC doesn’t have the authority to perform start abort in flight
c) Yes, FADEC has authority to abort the start in case of EGT Over limit in flight
112.) Auto tuning of NAV AIDS is performed by which of the following computers?
a) The FMGC
b) MCDU
c) ADIRU
113.) What are the features of Alpha Speed Lock (Slats) function?
a) It inhibits slat retraction at high angles of attack or at low speeds
b) AOA> 8.5° and speed<148 KTS configuration position from 1 to 0 inhibited
c) AOA< 7.6° and speed>154 KTS alpha speed lock inhibition is removed
114.) Aircraft flying in Normal Law, in which of the following cases AP disconnects
a) High speed protection is active
b) Pitch attitude exceeds 25 º up or 13 º down, or bank > 45º
c) A Rudder pedal deflection>10 ºout of trim
115.) In case of BLEED BMC #1 Fault which of the following leak information will not be available?
a) LH Wing Leak.
b) RH Wing Leak.
c) APU Bleed Leak.
116.) In which of the following case amber caution with single chime with an ECAM message of “A/THR
LIMITED” is activated every 5 Seconds?
a) Both Thrust Levers set below CLB(both engine operative)
b) One Thrust lever set below MCT(One engine operative)
c) One Thrust lever is in CLB detent and other one out of CLB detent
d) Both a) & b) are correct.
117.) Which statement is TRUE for Ground Speed Mini?
a) It is meant to prevent aircraft from flight path deviation
b) It follows IAS Target = Max (Vapp OR Vapp + Current Headwind – TWR Headwind).
c) GS mini is displayed on APPR page
d) GS mini function is only available during Automatic Landing.
118.) In which of the following cases “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” is displayed in red on FMA?
a) During a temporary complete loss of power supply.
b) L+R Elevator failure
c) Green + Yellow Hydraulic Failure
d) Both a) and b) cases are correct.
119.) In which of the following case, DC SHED ESS bus charges the Cabin Emergency Lights internal
batteries?
a) EMER LT selector ON
b) NO SMOKING selector in AUTO and Landing Gear retracted.
c) NO SMOKING selector is ON
d) DC ESS SHED bus is shed
120.) In case of Emergency Electrical Configuration, which of the following cockpit lights are available?
a) Right side Dome light.
b) Standby Compass light.
c) Left side Main Instrument panel light.
121.) fusible plugs are installed in main landing gear wheels and nose wheel
a) TRUE.
b) FALSE.
d) none of the above
122.) Can the Packs and LP unit used simultaneously during long stops in a hot airfield?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Yes, if external temperature is greater than 50 °C
d) Yes, provided the airflow supplied by the ground cart is less than 1.2 kg/s
123.) The avionics ventilation system configuration in flight with no abnormalities is.
a) Open.
b) Closed
c) Intermediate
d) Automatic
124.) The outflow valve is powered by
a) One of two electric motors.
b) One of three electric motors.
c) Three mechanically linked electric motors
125.) The mixing unit is connected to
a) Packs, cabin air, emergency ram air inlet and LP ground connector
b) Packs, emergency ram air inlet and LP ground connector
c) Packs and cabin air
d) Packs, emergency ram air inlet and HP ground connector
126.) Automatic rudder trim is provided at the rate of _____ while the manual rudder trim rate is
______ up to a maximum of ______.
a) 3 deg/sec - 1 deg/sec - 20 degs
b) 5 deg/sec - 1 deg/sec - 20 degs
c) 8 deg/sec - 2 deg/sec - 10 degs
d) 8 deg/sec - 5 deg/sec - 10 degs
127.) While on the ground in Roll Normal Law there is a direct relationship between side stick deflection
and the corresponding aileron and spoiler deflection.
a) TRUE.
b) FALSE.
128.) In Flight : Pitch Normal Law Mode serviceable ; Pitch Trim is:
a) Can be used manually anytime without the autopilot engaged.
b) Moves Automatically when autopilot is engaged and follows FMS guidance
c) Automatic with or without the autopilot engaged.
d) All statements are correct.
129.) The Engine FADEC, with Engine running is normally kept Electrically powered throughout by ?
a) The RAT
b) Its own magnetic alternator, when N2 is > 10% CFM / > 12% N2 PW
c) The normal aircraft electrical system.
d) Its own magnetic alternator, when N2 is > 10% PW/ > 12% N2 CFM
130.) The FADEC on CFM Engine has only passive control during a manual engine start sequence except
for
a) The high pressure fuel valve disagree
b) The start valve closure at 55% N2.
c) An automatic abort for a runaway high EGT before 50 % N2
131.) Continuous ignition on PW 1127 G – JM Engines is automatically provided during the following:
a) Flex or TO/GA thrust is selected on the ground.
b) ENG ANTICE switch is ON
c) Engine surge or stall occurs in flight.
132.) To remove Thrust lock
a) Move Thrust lever to TOGA position

b) Use the red disconnect button.
c) Move the Thrust lever out of CL or MCT detent.
d) Move the Thrust lever to TOGA and press red disconnect button.
133.) The purpose of FMS is to provide
a) Both manual navigation guidance & performance management
b) Manual navigation guidance and automatic performance management
c) Continuous automatic navigation guidance and performance management.
134.) The alignment time in an IRS takes longer when the Aircraft is
a) Close to Equator.
b) At a higher Longitude.
c) At a higher Latitude.
d) At a higher Pressure Altitude.
135.) Optimum altitude is based on
a) Weight of the airplane.
b) Weight and ISA condition.
c) Weight and TAT.
d) Weight and margin to initial buffet.
136.) APU starter, Start Cycle Limitations.
a) Four unsuccessful starter motor duty cycles wait 30 minutes for cooling
b) Four unsuccessful starter motor duty cycles wait 60 minutes cooling
c) Three unsuccessful starter motor duty cycles wait 60 minutes cooling
d) Three unsuccessful starter motor duty cycles wait 15 minutes cooling.
137.) The FM part of FMGC includes the following elements
a) Navigation, Flt planning and A/THR commands

b) Performance Optimization, A/THR and AP command
c) Navigation, Flt Planning, Performance Optimization and Flt Predictions
d) AP and FD commands and Flt envelope computation.
138.) Take off when no V2 SPEED is inserted in the MCDU PERF TAKEOFF page, regarding SRS mode and
RWY mode engagement/ FMA display
a) Only SRS mode is not available, which is target speed reference in vertical plan
b) Both SRS and RWY mode’s are not available on TAKEOFF roll
c) RWY mode’s only requirement is receiving a LOC signal and LOC deviation is < ½ dot.
139.) Which of the following are features of flight Guidance part of FMGS
a) AP commands to automatically control Pitch, Roll and Yaw
b) Auto Thrust commands to automatically control Thrust
c) Flight Director commands for pilot to control pitch, roll and yaw
140.) In which of the following case an alignment fault would cause the ALIGN lights to flash?
a) Excessive movement during alignment
b) FAST Alignment.
c) The Nose wheel steering is disconnected during alignment
d) Aircraft is powered by Batteries only.
141.) Regardless of switch position, the SEAT BELT, NO SMOKING, and EXIT signs illuminate
automatically if the cabin altitude exceeds what altitude?
a) 8,000 (+/- 350 feet)
b) 10,800 (+/- 350 feet)
c) 11,300 (+/- 350 feet)
d) 17,000(+/- 350 feet)
142.) The following are Cabin Pressure Controller modes of operation except?
a) Go-around
b) Climb
c) Abort
d) Descent
143.) Aircraft on ground taxying, with One Engine running with Rain repellant pushbutton pushed, will
RAIN Repellent be available
a) No, Rain Repellent function is inhibited on Ground.
b) Yes, Rain Repellent is available.
c) Rain repellant needs both engines running
144.) Air Conditioning Pack Flow Control Rotary selector is kept at Low, when conditions are not very hot
and humid and no of occupants figure for intended flight is less than
a) 121
b) 115
c) 141
d) 145
145.) If EIU ( Engine Interface Unit) fails
a) Auto thrust control is lost
b) Thrust reverser is lost
c) Affected Engine start is lost
d) All the above are correct
146.) Mark the correct statement for the following:
a) After some failure and / or switching actions, PFD may appear on upper ECAM
b) After some failure and/or switching actions, EWD may appear on any of the Capt. or F/O side EFIS
DU
c) As in (a) and PFD may appear on lower ECAM also
d) (b) is correct only for Capt. Side EFIS DU

147.) What happens to the escape device (slide or slide cum raft) when an exit is opened from outside?
a) They automatically get disarmed
b) (a) is true for overwing windows only
c) (a) is true for cabin doors only
d) (a) is true for all doors and overwing windows
148.) When will the red ‘CABIN PRESSURE’ light on Cabin Doors flash?
a) When the door is opened in ARM position
b) If cabin differential pressure 2.5 hpa exists after one engine is shut down and door disarmed.
c) With all conditions given in (b) satisfied and when the door is open
d) If cabin differential pressure exceeds a 2.5 hpa after both engines are shut down
149.) Which of the statements is correct?
a) All the cabin doors can be operated from inside or outside the aircraft, including the emergency
operation.
b) All the cabin doors can be opened from inside and outside the aircraft, but emergency operation of
the door is possible from inside only.
c) All the cabin doors can be opened from inside only including the emergency operation
d) All the cabin doors can be opened from outside and inside but emergency operation is possible
from outside
150.) How many emergency exits are there in A320 aircraft?
a) 8 and all of them can be opened from outside also
b) 10 and all of them can be opened from outside also.
c) 10 and only 8 of them can be opened from outside also
d) 8 and they can be opened only from inside
151.) Which abnormalities of APU oil system will cause the auto shut down of APU
a) Low Oil Level, High Oil Temp, Low Oil Pressure
b) Low Oil Pressure, High Oil Temperature
c) Low Oil Level only

d) None of the abnormalities in oil system
152.) In case of APU fire on ground
a) APU shuts down immediately
b) APU shuts down immediately and fire bottle to be discharged
c) APU shuts down fire pb is pressed and fire bottle is fired.
d) APU shuts down immediately and fire bottle is discharged automatically.
153.) Which busses are lost if TR 1, TR 2 had failed
a) No bus is lost
b) DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2
c) DC BUS 1, DC BAT BUS, DC BUS 2
d) DC BAT BUS after landing gear extension.
154.) In normal electrical configuration (GEN 1, GEN 2 are ON) is there any of the bus that is not
energized?
a) Yes; AC STAT INV BUS
b) Yes; AC STAT INV BUS, AC GND FLT BUS, DC GND FLT BUS
c) Yes; AC STAT INV BUS, AC S
d) No
155.) Mark the correct statement.
a) Normal Electrical supply available, AC/DC ESS SHED BUS are powered whenever AC/DC ESS BUS
are powered
b) When EMER GEN is running, after loss of normal generators, AC/DC ESS SHED busses are powered
c) AC/DC ESS SHED busses are powered during EMER GEN TEST (on ground)
d) When batteries are the only source. AC ESS Busand AC ESS SHED BUS are powered only upto 50 kts
156.) When both generators fail (APU U/S) the AC ESS BUS is fed from?
a) BAT 1 through STAT INV till RAT extends
b) Emergency generator when RAT extends (L/G UP)

c) AC ESS BUS is not powered below 50 kts speed
157.) BUS TIE pb switches OFF only GEN 1 is available. Which busses are not powered?
a) AC BUS 2, DC BUS 2
b) All busses are powered
c) AC BUS 2
d) AC BUS 2, DC ESS BUS, DC ESS SHED BUS
158.) GALLEY SHED message on Elect page indicates
a) Main GALLEY are SHED
b) secondary Galley are shed
c) FWD Galley power are shed.
d) Aft Galley power are shed
159.) The drive for emergency generator is
a) RAT operated hydraulic motor.
b) Blue system electrical pump.
c) Ram Air Turbine
160.) Mark the correct statement.
a) When the non-monitored CB’s are out for more than 1 minute, the CB TRIPPED warning is
triggered on ECAM.
b) Monitored CBs when they are out for more than one minute, the CB TRIPPED warning is triggered
on the ECAM
c) Normal function of CB are to protect wiring against short circuits and to reset digital computers.
161.) Which are the lights available, after the loss of all generator in the cockpit?
a) RHS dome light, STBY compass light, LHS main instrument panel light
b) LHS dome light, STBY compass light and LHS main instrument panel light.
c) LHS dome light, STBY compass light, RHS main instrument panel light.
d) RHS dome light, RHS main instrument panel light and STBY compass light
162.) In case of excessive cabin altitude d(11300 + /- 350”) which of the following lights illuminate
along with NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEAT BELT & RETURN TO SEAT LIGHTS?
a) None
b) NO PORTABLE ELEC DEVICE signs
c) Exit signs
d) Floor path marking lights
163.) The following external lights when selected ON, are controlled through landing gear strut
operation.
a) NAV & LOGO lights come ON, Nose and RWY TURN lights come ON
b) NAV & LOGO lights come ON, STROBE lights come ON with switch in AUTO
c) LOGO lights come ON, STROBE lights go OFF, with switch in AUTO
d) All of the above are wrong
164.) In case of pressure regulation failure in CFM , the over pressure valve (OPV) closed when pressure
is?
a) Less than 8 psi
b) Equal to 44 psi
c) More than 85 psi
d) More than 35 psi
165.) Cross bleed selector in AUTO, engine and APU bleed switches are ON. What are the positions of
different bleed valves
a) Engine bleed valve open, cross bleed valve opens & APU bleed valve closes.
b) Engine bleed valve close, cross bleed valve opens & APU bleed valve opens
c) Engine bleed valve open, cross bleed valve closes & APU bleed valve opens.
d) Engine bleed valve close, cross bleed valve closes & APU bleed valve opens
166.) With pack 1 and 2 fault the recommended max FL is?
a) 100 / MEA
b) 140 / MEA
c) 150 / MEA
d) 250 / MEA
167.) CABIN PRESS mode selector is in MAN. If ditching pb is selected ON, the
a) Outflow valve will not close automatically
b) OFV will close automatically
c) Ram Air inlet valve open
d) Engine bleed valve opens
168.) What happens when BMC 1 fails in CFM
a) Left engine leak detection is lost.
b) Left wing leak detection/Monitoring is lost
c) As in (a) and APU leak detection is also lost.
d) As in (b) and APU leak detection is also lost
169.) Hot air anti icing is done for?
a) Waste water drain mast
b) Sensors, pilot probes and static ports
c) Engine air intake and three outboard leading edge slats of each wing
d) Flight compartment windows.
170.) What is the recommended action in case of L + R CAB FAN FAULT
a) Crew awareness
b) Select cabin temperature to LO
c) Use emergency Ram Air
d) Increase pack flow to HI

171.) When only one pack is operating and Pack selector is at LO. What is the flow.
a) 80% of normal flow.
b) 150% of normal flow
c) Normal flow
d) 120% of normal flow
172.) In case of Blower Fault what will be the indication on CAB PRESS page
a) BLOWER appears amber
b) Inlet valve colour changes to amber
c) VENT & EXTRACT appear in amber
d) VENT & INLET appear in amber
173.) How are the two safety valves designed?
a) Each safety valve avoids excessive positive and negative differential pressure.
b) One safety valve avoids excessive differential pressure and another safety valve avoids excessive
negative differential pressure.
c) Both safety valves avoid excessive positive differential pressure only
d) Both safety valves avoid excessive negative differential pressure only
174.) If the extract valve is fully open in flight, what is the warming
a) SKIN VALVE FAULT
b) BLOWER FAULT
c) EXTRACT FAULT
d) EXTRACT VALVE FAULT
175.) When to use “RAT MAN ON” pb ?
a) If blue electric pump is failed.
b) If there is a dual Hydraulic failure along with blue system.
c) As in (b) and only in approach RAT is extended
d) If blue electric pump is over heated.

176.) NORMAL HYDRAULIC POWER is provided by
a) Engine driven pumps for all systems
b) Engine driven pumps for green and yellow, electrical pump for blue
c) Electrical pumps for blue and yellow, engine driven pump for green
d) Engine driven pumps for green and blue, electrical pump for yellow
177.) When does GREEN EDP fault light illuminate?
a) On ground Green EDP pump pressure is less with eng
b) As in (a) or green reservoir is over heated
c) As green reservoir has low quantity or low air pressure
d) All the above are correct.
178.) What happens to brake system if Green system fails during landing roll? (Auto brake is not armed)
a) Normal brake is lost and alternate brake takes over
b) As in (a) and there is no indication
c) As in (a) and it is indicated by triple brake pressure gauge and ECAM warning
d) As in (a) and it is indicated by triple brake pressure gauge and ALTN BRAKE green indication in
wheel page.
179.) What happens to steering if Captain side rudder pedal DISC pb is pressed?
a) Nose wheel steering by rudder pedal on Captain side is lost.
b) Nose wheel steering by rudder pedal on F/O side is lost
c) Nose wheel steering by rudder pedal is lost on both sides
d) Nose wheel steering and rudder pedal steering are both lost
180.) When does LGCIU computer change over take place?
a) If operating LGCIU fails other LGCIU takes over.
b) During landing gear extension cycle or operating LGCIU falls
c) When Landing gear lever is selected to UP and landing gear is retracted
d) Both (a) and (c) are correct.

181.) What indications comes for auto brake disengagement.
a) AUTOBRK indication colour changes to amber.
b) AUTO BRK green indication flashes for 10 seconds and AUTO BRAKE pb light will extinguish
c) AUTO BRK green indication will disappear and auto brake pb light will extinguish
d) AUTO BRK ECAM message comes on E/W display unit
182.) Which dual hydraulic failures do not affect the flight control laws?
a) Blue and Green system.
b) Blue and Yellow system
c) Green and Yellow system
d) Both (b) and (c) are correct.
183.) In pitch NORMAL law the aircraft goes into flare mode
a) When flaps are extended.
b) When passing through 50 feet
c) When passing through 30 feet
d) When landing gear is extended
184.) When “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” message is displayed on the PFD
a) If both L & R elevator fault is detected.
b) If both G & Y system fail in flight
c) Whenever pitch direct law is operative
d) All the above are correct.
185.) Which computer normally controls the roll function of the aircraft?
a) all ELAC & all SEC
b) ELAC 2
c) Only ELAC 1
d) ELAC 1 and ELAC 2

186.) Failure of SEC 1 affects which spoilers operation?
a) Spoiler 3 & 4
b) Spoiler 1 & 2
c) Spoiler 5 only
d) Spoiler 1 only
187.) What is ALPHA / SPEED LOCK FUNCTION in slat / flap system?
a) This function inhibits slats refraction at high angle of attack or low speed
b) This function inhibits flaps retraction at high angle of attack or low speed.
c) As in (a) the lever cannot be moved to ‘0’ position
d) As in (b) the lever cannot be moved to’0’ position at low speed.
188.) After take off with flap lever is ‘1’ position
a) Flaps automatically retract at 265 kts
b) Flaps and slats automatically retract at 210 kts
c) Slats automatically retract at 210 kts.
d) Flaps automatically retract at 210 kts.
189.) When do you use Landing Gear gravity extension procedure?
a) If ADR 1 and ADR 2 fail in flight
b) If both blue and yellow systems fail in flight
c) If any one LGCIU fails in flight
d) All the options are correct.
190.) What are the hydraulic pumps?
a) 2 EDPs for Green, 2 Electrical pumps for Y & RAT operated pump for Blue
b) 1 EDP each for G & Y, 1 PTU for G or Y, 1 electrical pump each for Y & B,1 RAT operated pump for
Blue and a hand pump for Y systems
c) 1 EDP & 1 electrical pump for G & Y, PTU & RAT operated pump for Blue system, additionally 1
hand pump for Y.
d) 1 PTU & RAT for both G & Y, 2 electrical pumps in Blue & 1 EDP each for G & Y.
191.) In case of SDAC 1 + 2 fault
a) All ECAM cautions and warnings are lost.
b) Only red warnings, engine and fuel parameters are lost.
c) ENG, FUEL, F/CTL, WHEEL sys pages will be available
d) It is for crew awareness only
192.) WX Radar display can be superimposed on NDU with mode selector at
a) PLAN mode only
b) All modes except PLAN mode
c) ARC mode only
d) ROSE mode only
193.) A320 aircraft clock
a) Has 2 electrical supplies, if normal fails, the other supply will keep supplying from aircraft battery
hot bus.
b) Has 2 electrical supplies, if normal ails the internal battery of the clock takes over
c) As in (b) and time is memorized up to 50 hours
d) None of the above is correct.
194.) Steady ALIGN light indicates
a) Alignment is in progress
b) Inertial function of IR is lost
c) Alignment fault
d) Complete failure of ADIRU
195.) IN A320 Weather Radar
a) The range of radar is selected from Weather Radar Control Panel
b) Weather Image is available in all modes on ND
c) Weather Image is taken off from PFD automatically in case of avionics ventilation problems
196.) In case of failure AC bus 2?
a) DC BUS 1 will supply DC ESS BUS.
b) AC BUS 1 will supply DC ESS BUS thru DC BAT BUS
c) DC bus 2 will not be powered.
197.) A hydraulic safety valve closes to cut off the hydraulic supply to the gear when the airspeed is:
a) Greater than 250 KIAS.
b) Greater than 230 KIAS.
c) Greater than 260 KIAS.
d) Less than 260 KIAS.
198.) The maximum degrees of Nose Wheel Steering available when using the hand wheel is ______.
a) +/- 70 °.
b) +/- 75 °.
c) +/- 78 °.
d) +/- 73 °.
199.) After extending the RAT, for a dual Green + BLUE failure is it possible to check it’s position and
status?
a) The blue system FAULT light is OFF.
b) Yes, select the ECAM ELEC page.
c) Yes, select the ECAM HYD page.
d) Yes select the ECAM FLT CNTRL page.
200.) On landing after an in Flight Fuel Leak procedure:
a) Do not start the APU.
b) Do not use Auto Brakes.
c) Do not use Reversers.

201.) During APU start: Aircraft in Electric Emergency CONFIG APU MASTER SW at ON and APU N < 95%
a) Batteries through BCL’s are connected to DC BAT BUS
b) During APU start , APU ECB uses power supply from HOT BUS.
c) As in a) With EMER GEN RUNNING, Batteries to DC BAT BUS connection is limited to 3 Minutes only
202.) With LGCIU 2 Unserviceable in flight.
a) On arrival Reverser 2 is not available.
b) Landing gear to be lowered manually
c) As in a) Engine No 2 on ground, at idle thrust with Slats Extended will register Approach idle.
203.) In Flight Emergency Ram Air Inlet Valve?
a) Do not open if cabin pressure is greater than 1psi.
b) As in a) With CPC in AUTO, outflow valves run to full open
c) Will open only, when both packs are off.
204.) What position do the pack valves go to in the event of a loss of the bleed system pressure?
a) They remain in their last position.
b) Run to Full open.
c) Modulate at Mid position.
d) Closed.
205.) What is the correct statement with reference to FWC 1 + 2 FAULT ?
a) It is suppressed during take-off and landing
b) It appears without any attention getters like chime or MASTER CAUTION light
c) The list of NOT AVAIL SYS is given on the STATUS page.

d) It is a warning that appears in red and CRC audio.
206.) COCKPIT DOOR: In case of an electrical supply failure
a) The cockpit door is automatically unlocked and automatically opened.
b) The cockpit door remains locked and closed.
c) The cockpit door gets jammed and the crew is required to use the emergency escape panel.
d) The cockpit door is automatically unlocked but remains closed.
207.) Following an Engine Fire, when will Squib/AGENT light illuminate:
a) SQUIB when FIRE pb is pushed: DISH when squib has fired
b) SQUIB when Squib has failed; DISH when squib has fired.
c) SQUIB as soon as fire is detected.
d) SQUIB when FIRE pb is pushed; DISCH when extinguisher bottle is depressurized.
208.) Smoke Detection and Extinguishing System is provided for
a) Engines, APU, Cargo Compartments and Lavatories.
b) Cargo Compartments and Lavatories only.
c) Avionics Bay, Cargo Compartment and Lavatories.
d) Engines, APU and Avionics Bay.
209.) When will CPC changeover take place automatically?
a) 70 s after each landing.
b) If the operating system fails.
c) Before every engine start
d) Both (a) and (b)
210.) When there is a fuel imbalance of 1500 Kgs, there is a green pulsating ECAM advisory. Which
tank fuel figure pulsates?
a) Inner and Outer tank with higher fuel level.
b) Inner tank with less fuel.
c) Fuel imbalance can only be monitored by crew.

d) As in a) advisory appears in flight phases 2 and 6.
211.) If an APU start is initiated on battery power only, is fire protection available
a) Yes
b) No
c) Yes or No depending upon other situations
212.) When does DOWN ARROW on Landing Gear panel illuminate?
a) Whenever Landing Gear is not down and flaps are at ‘3’.
b) Whenever Landing Gear is not down locked, Radio Altimeter less than 750 feet and Flaps
3/“FULL”
c) In any one Landing Gear falls to reach down locked position even after 30 seconds
d) Both (a) and (c) are correct.
213.) When both radio altimeters have failed
a) ILS cannot be armed by Approach push button on FCU.
b) LOC mode is available via FCU LOC pb.
c) In Approach, Landing gear down, Normal Law reverts to Direct law
d) All of the above are correct
214.) Priority valves on a hydraulic system
a) Give priority to hydraulic fluid return to its reservoir
b) Drop in pressure give priority to slats /flaps, landing gear during approach.
c) Drop in system pressure, priority is given to essential/primary flight control surfaces , Reversers
and Brakes
d) Controls the priority of landing gear extension in approach
215.) For CFM,While the aircraft is cruising at 27,000 ft (selected cruise altitude), if gravity feed has to be
initiated, what is the altitude to be maintained?
a) FL200
b) FL 150 or 7000 ft above take off airport, which ever is lower

c) FL 150 or 7000 ft above take off airport, which ever is higher
d) FL 150
216.) FUEL IMBALANCE: If the difference between the two wing inner tank fuel quantities is 1500 kg,
what is the procedure to be followed?
a) Check the Fuel Management.
b) If a leak is suspected, refer FUEL LEAK.
c) No action is required.
d) Both (a) and (b).
217.) If Cabin Vertical speeds exceeds 1800ft/min the recommended action is:
a) Select the CPC Mode Selector to MAN.
b) Select the MAN V/S FULL UP.
c) As per (a) and 10 sec after select CPC MODE Selector to AUTO.
d) No action is required.
218.) In case of low pressure detected on Blue and Yellow systems
a) Flight control alternate law is active with out protections
b) Flight control direct law becomes active, with gear selected down
c) Mechanical back up momentarily to be used to control the aircraft.
d) Flight control normal law remains active.
219.) Landing Gear Lever (FULL GEAR) recycling is done in case of following ECAM
a) L/G ‘GEAR NOT DOWN LOCKED’
b) L/G ‘GEAR NOT UPLOCKED’ (L/G doors not closed no shock absorber fault)
c) L/G ‘DOORS NOT CLOSED’
220.) Which of the following statements is correct concerning conditioned air?
a) Conditioned air and trim air are mixed then distributed to each zone.
b) Re circulated air, conditioned air and hot trim air are mixed then distributed to each zone.
c) Hot trim air is added to the mixing unit before distribution to each zone.
d) Re circulating fans draw cabin air to a mixing unit where conditioned air is added.
221.) With the BLUE HYD ELEC pump switch at AUTO, when will the pump operate
a) After engine no. 1 has been started
b) After both the engines have been started
c) After the first engine has been started.
d) After Oil pressure is registered on Engine No2.
222.) When is the FUEL USED indication (on the SD) reset to zero
a) When the associated MASTER SW is selected OFF (on ground only)
b) When the associated MASTER SW is selected OFF (at any time)
c) During associated engine start
d) Five minutes after engine shutdown on the ground.
223.) NEW ENHANCED AEVC, maintains closed configuration for Avionics Skin valves on ground, till
temperature in EXRTRACT duct is above
a) 30 ° C.
b) 40° C.
c) 15° C.
d) 25° C.
224.) The Multi Scan mode function of WX Radar
a) Has two antenna tilt settings scanned alternatively.
b) Gain set at Calibrated, radar automatically adjusts gain
c) As in b) gain is based on aircraft altitude, season, geographical area, time of day
225.) The Rockwell Collins weather radar does not display
a) Weather that is not on aircraft flight path.
b) Post convective non threat weather cells.

c) Weather cells on ND, when ND is set at Rose mode.
d) Both statements a) & b) are correct.
226.) The PAC alert function of WX Radar is available during
a) Auto operation
b) Manual Opetarion
c) Both auto and manual
227.) The Integrated Standby Instrument System
a) Electrically powered by DC ESS BUS and HOT BUS 1.
b) Normal Brightness of the screen is automatically adjusted by photo sensitive cell
c) Instrument is assured electric power supply by AC ESS BUS.
d) Both a) and b) is correct
228.) The ATC transponder with enhanced surveillance will transmit using
a) ADR supplied IAS, MACH, and Barometric Vertical Speed.
b) IR supplied MAG HDG, ROLL, GS, TRK Angle, TRK Angle Rate, and Inertial V/S.
c) FCU selected Altitude and Barometric reference settings.
229.) The minimum number of Satellites tracked by MMR required for NAV ACCURACY
a) THREE
b) FOUR
c) FIVE
d) SEVEN
230.) If two tires are deflated but not damaged on same main gear. The Aircraft can be Taxied at low
Speed and limited NWS angle. Limitations are
a) 7 KTS Taxi Speed and 35° NWS angle limit.
b) 5 KTS Taxi Speed and 30° NWS angle limit

c) An Inspection of tires required to confirm no damage.
d) As in c) 3 KTS taxi speed and 30° NWS angle limit.
231.) On Landing Roll, NWS when using hand wheel is available from what airspeed.
a) ≤130 KTS.
b) ≤100 KTS.
c) ≤ 70 KTS.
d) ≤ 80 KTS.
232.) The Cockpit Door Surveillance System consists of
a) Two Cameras
b) One Camera
c) Three Cameras
d) Four Cameras
233.) Automatic Continuous Ignition comes on with Engine running:(on CFM)
a) Approach idle selected and or Engine anti ice selected on.
b) Single bleed in use, with flaps extended.
c) Engine EIU failure, or Engine flame out.
d) None of the above, only available with IGNI START Switch in Flight at IGN START.
234.) N2 Limit for Engaging Air Starter valve/motor?
a) ≤ 30 %
b) ≤ 20 %
c) ≤ 18 %
d) No Limit.
235.) FADEC has authority to abort start, during Manual Start for
a) Hung Start
b) Engine Stall
c) On ground, EGT start limits exceeded before 50 % N2
d) All above are incorrect.
236.) APU limitation.
a) Electrical extraction 90 KVA, at or below 35000 feet, ISA + 20°.
b) APU Air bleed extraction in flight for engine start up to 20,000 FT.
c) Air bleed extraction, for single pack and wing anti ice up to 21,500 ft.
d) Air bleed extraction for air conditioning (in flight) up to 20,000 ft for two packs.
237.) For Cabin Pressurization
a) CPC automatic transfer occurs 70 sec after each Landing.
b) Safety Valve setting is at 8.6 PSI.
c) Max normal Δ P control at 8.06 PSI.
238.) Yellow Hydraulic is pressurized by ENG 2 pump, yellow electric pump is ON, what happens in case
of Yellow Reservoir overheat condition
a) FAULT light illuminates on Yellow electric push button switch.
b) Fault light illuminates on ENG2 pump button switch
c) FAULT light illuminates on PTU push button switch.
d) All of the above are correct.
239.) Correct statement on Speed limitation
a) Maximum gear retraction Speed is: 220 KTS.
b) Maximum Speed Wind shield Wipers: 230 KTS.
c) Max Tire Speed.. Ground Speed: 195 KTS.
240.) AUTO THRUST Function:
a) Auto thrust is approved with or without AP/FD in Selected or Managed mode.
b) Auto Thrust is armed on ground with engines running by pushing auto thrust push button on FCU.
c) Auto thrust is armed on ground by setting the thrust levers at FLX or TOGA detent when engines
are running.
d) Both statements a) and c) are correct.
241.) Correct statement on Fuel limitation.
a) Temperature limits for JET A1, -43°C to + 54° C.
b) Various fuel types can be mixed in all proportions
c) Minimum Fuel Quantity for takeoff: 1,500 KGS
242.) IRS Function:
a) Flight Outside above limits is prohibited.
b) GPS Primary NAV is available.
c) IRS can be reset to recover NAV Mode.
d) NAV mode function has no such limitation.
243.) Engine Oil Limitation(on CFM).
a) Min Oil Quantity at departure 9.5 QRTS + Estimated consumption.
b) Minimum starting temperature - 40° C.
c) Max continuous temperature 140° C.
244.) Regenerated air by Portable Breathing Equipment will last for atleast
a) 12 minutes.
b) 15 minutes.
c) 20 minutes.
d) As in a) and can be regulated for pressure and flow.
245.) Emergency Locator Transmitter (fixed), will transmit, emergency frequencies for search and rescue
on a 5g impact for:
a) Thirty six hours.

b) Seventy two hours.
c) Forty eight hours.
246.) For Crew Incapacitation, mark the correct statement:
a) Request Cabin Crew Assistance.
b) Tighten and lock shoulder harness of incapacitated crew member and recline the seat back.
c) Flight purser to request for any medically qualified passenger.
247.) Unreliable Speed Indications above THRUST RED ALT and below FL 100 PITCH/THRUST memory
item is
a) 15 ° / TOGA.
b) 10 ° / CLB.
c) 12 ° / CLB.
d) 05 ° / CLB.
248.) Mark Correct Statement.
a) EGPWS “AVOID TERRAIN” warning with wings level indicates that obstacles are probably ahead, a
turn is required.
b) EGPWS “AVOID TERRAIN” while aircraft is turning, initiate PULL UP, level wings and then ADJUST
bank.
c) ALL TCAS Resolution Advisories are inhibited below 900 FT.
249.) Engine Interface Unit (EIU) if unserviceable?
a) Affected Engine Start is not available.
b) Only Approach Idle is available
c) Thrust Reverser on affected Engine is lost
d) All above are correct

250.) On the Crew Oxygen quick donning mask, turning the EMERGENCY Pressure Selector clockwise
will,
a) Shut diluted oxygen flow to the mask
b) Generates a permanent oxygen overpressure flow
c) Generates an overpressure for a few seconds
d) As in b) and overpressure is available when Normal/ 100 % Selector is at 100 %.
251.) Crew Oxygen pressure indication on DOOR/OXY ECAM SD page.
a) An amber half frame appears, pressure is < 1500 PSI.
b) Pulses Green < 800 PSI, DOOR/OXY page automatically displayed
c) It is in amber, when pressure is <400 PSI
252.) In a “AIR DUAL BLEED FAULT ”, with ENG 1 bleed lost due ENG 1 FIRE.
a) Start APU during Emergency Descent to recover APU bleed
b) APU Bleed to be used for Left PACK # 1, below 22500 FT.
c) Descend rapidly to FL 100/MEA, to prevent excessive cabin altitude
d) None of the above are correct.
253.) When Blower or Extract Fan is individually pressed to override, it reconfirms closure of ?
a) Skin Air inlet valve
b) Extract valve
c) Air conditioned air is added to ventilation ducts
d) All of the above
254.) Alert Height is defined as
a) Aircraft below 10,000 ft in flight, Cockpit is considered to be sterile.
b) Aircraft on ILS, at 1000 FT stabilized, commencing final approach
c) Height defined for CAT III OPS with Fail Operational Automatic Landing System
d) Height defined for CAT II & CAT III OPS with Fail Operational Automatic landing system
255.) Nose wheel steering off set limits… to taxi straight. (Aircraft veering tendency)
a) Off set > 1.5º, required rudder trim > 8.8 °, immediate maintenance action.
b) Off set < 1.5º, required rudder trim < 9 °, no maintenance action.
c) ± 0.5° NWS offset tolerance acceptable, is corresponding to ± 3° rudder trim to taxi straight
d) Both a) and c) are correct statements
256.) Regarding Static Inverter functionality.
a) Available with aircraft speed above 50 KTS, flight on aircraft battery’s only , inverter Powers AC
ESS and DC ESS buses. Shed buses are shed.
b) When RAT stalls or Aircraft on Ground ,speed below 100 KTS but above 50 KTS Battery No 1
through Static Inverter powers AC ESS bus.
c) As in b) APU Fuel Pump is Lost below 50 KTS on AC ES BUS, but hot wired /available on Static
inverter
d) All above are incorrect
257.) WHEN in Dual Hydraulic BLUE/YELLOW failure, Regarding FLIGHT CONTROL LAWS
a) Flight control law will recon figurate to ALTERNATE LAW reduced Protection.
b) Since two hydraulic circuits not available aircraft in ALTERNATE LAW no protection/ no low speed
stability
c) As in b) When Landing gear extended aircraft is in Direct Law.
d) No change from Normal Law.
258.) Max wind for cargo door operation:
a) 68 KTS.
b) 65 KTS.
c) 40 KTS.
d) 75 KTS
259.) Pressurization: MAX CABIN ALTITUDE WARNING
a) 9,000 FT (± 350 ft).
b) 9,500 FT (± 350 ft).

c) 9,350 FT (± 350 ft).
d) 9,550 FT (± 350 ft).
260.) GREEN DOT SPEED IS
a) Engine out operating speed in clean configuration
b) Below 20,000 feet equal to 2 X weight (tones) + 85
c) Above 20,000 feet add 1 knot per 1000 feet
d) All above statements are correct
261.) Circuit breakers never to be pulled in flight?
a) TR, IDG 1 & 2, FQIC.
b) SFCC, ECU/FADEC, EIU.
c) ELAC 1, SEC 1, Blue ELEC pump
262.) Manual Engine Start, recommended in the following cases: Normal start abort / expected or
because of
a) Engine Stall, Engine EGT over limit, Low starter air pressure.
b) Degraded Bleed performance, due hot conditions, or at high Altitude airfields
c) Engine with reduced EGT margin, in hot conditions, or high Altitude airfields
d) All of the above
263.) An external Horn on ground sounds:
a) Only when Blower pressure is low.
b) Only when Blower pressure or Extract pressure is low
c) Only when Blower pressure or Extract pressure is low or Blower duct overheats.
d) Only when Blower pressure or Extract pressure is low or Extract duct overheats
264.) What happens if GEN1 LINE pushbutton on EMER ELEC PWR Panel is put to OFF?
a) Pressing this pushbutton stops the running of generator 1 and RAT is automatically deployed to
power EMER GEN.
b) Pressing this pushbutton cuts off the power supply to AC BUS1 and AC BUS 2 after which RAT can
be manually deployed to power EMER GEN
c) Generator 1 is switched off
d) Pressing this pushbutton cuts of power supply to AC BUS 1, but enables one fuel pump running in
each wing tanks.
265.) HYD PTU OERATION:
a) Available in flight with both engines flamed out.
b) Inhibited on Ground during engine start with parking brake off
c) Inhibited during cargo door operation and for 30 seconds there after
d) Available on ground with parking break off and NWS not in towing
266.) The HMU (FADEC Controlled Hydro Mechanical Unit) Function.
a) Engine Oil hydraulic pressure signals for main bearing lubrication
b) Controls fuel flow for combustion, fuel hydraulic signals to actuators, and engine over speed
protection
c) As in b) FCOC is also part of HMU unit
267.) When is Fuel Return Valve Closed / inhibited. Name an instance:
a) During descent aircraft in a steep bank.
b) Fuel in both inner tank above 750 KGS
c) At engine shut down, during take off, climb, wing tank level ≤ 300KGS
d) As in c) and fuel temp in Wing tank in flight above + 52.5° C.
268.) Why is PA reception knob selected to reception on ACP 3?
a) Allows Cockpit door entry permit audio to come on
b) Pilots PA announcements to be recorded on CVR.
c) Cabin attendant announcements to be recorded on CVR.
d) Have volume enhancement for cabin announcements and passenger call chimes.
269.) A change over between two BSCU channels takes place

a) At each UP and DOWN landing gear selection
b) In case one channel fails
c) Both the options a & b are correct
270.) Engine Reverse Unlocked... In Flight
a) LAND ASAP (AMBER WARNING).
b) ENG AT IDLE only displayed, when ENG is automatically selected to idle
c) If Buffet or vibrations, max speed 240 KTS, ENG master switch affected engine OFF.
271.) Yellow Hydraulic System Electric pump , runs automatically
a) When Cargo Doors are operated to open or close
b) With both Engine master Switches at OFF, PTU comes on to pressurize the green system
c) As in a) and this inhibits the operation of other yellow system functions, except alternate braking
and engine 2 reverser
d) Yellow electric pump has to be manually selected only
272.) On T.O .CONFIG protection function, the following are only triggered when take off power is
applied.
a) Side stick fault, Hot Brakes
b) Doors not closed, Hot Brakes
c) Parking Brake ON (RED), or ENG Thrust LEVERS Not Set (AMBER).
d) All of the above
273.) Amber ‘THR LK’ flashes on FMA, with both thrust levers in CL detent.
a) Pilot has disengaged A/THR by pushing the A/THR pushbutton on FCU
b) The A/THR disconnects due to a failure
c) Alpha Floor has locked the thrust at TOGA, pilots has to disconnect A/THR
d) Both a) and b) are correct.

274.) A Shock Absorber Fault accompanied by Nose Wheel Steering Fault in approach with Gear Down.
a) Recycle the landing gear to Re-set the false warning.
b) Check for down three greens on wheel page and continue approach
c) Exercise caution nose wheels may be at max deflection
d) As in (c), and during landing delay nose wheel touch down
275.) Brake temperature limits requiring maintenance action
a) Temperature difference between two brakes on same gear is more than 150ºC, & temperature of
either one brake is ≥ 600ºC.
b) Temperature difference between two brakes on same gear is more than150ºC, and temperature of
one brake is ≤ 60ºC
c) The difference between the average temperatures of the left gear brakes and the right gear brakes
is 200 ºC or more.
276.) N/W STEERING label on Wheel page appears in “AMBER” When, Nose wheel Steering system has
failed or A/Skid & N/W Steering switch is OFF.
a) Both BSCU channels are unserviceable.
b) Yellow hydraulic sys has LO PRESS
c) Both a & b are correct
d) None of the option is correct
277.) Aircraft in cruise all normal, straight and level flight with AP ON, symmetrical thrust (M.77), Rudder
Trim should stay between
a) 1.5º Left and 1.5 º Right.
b) 1 º Right and 2.3 º Left
c) 0.5 º Right, 0.8 º left
278.) Smoke removal procedure, after descending to 10,000 FT, or MEA aircraft in EMER ELEC CONFIG,
calls for APU master switch to be switched ON. WHY?
a) APU start is now permitted at 10,000 ft.

b) PACKS1+2 will now be put off; EMER RAM AIR will be electrically powered to open.
c) Out flow valve needs to be manually set (CPC 2) at full open, for affective cabin smoke removal, but
manual motor is powered by DC BAT Bus
d) As in (c) Battery CL’s will automatically close and power DC BAT BUS, is required power supply for
manual control, not available in EMER ELEC CONFIG
279.) What is minimum bleed pressure required for ENG START? Numerical value is Green, turns amber
at?
a) 40 PSI
b) 30 PSI
c) 21 PSI
d) 35 PSI
280.) Fuel tank inert system, is a new enhancement provided, with Nitrogen enriched air directed
continuously into which tank ?
a) Outer tanks
b) Inner tanks
c) Surge tanks
d) Center tanks
281.) Fault light on ENG start panel on pedestal will come on
a) An automatic start abort has occurred.
b) ENG Fire bottle is unserviceable
c) Disagreement between the HP fuel valve position and its commanded position
d) Both a) and c) are correct
282.) FCDC 1+2 FAULT.
a) Pitch and Bank limits are not displayed on PFD’s.
b) Vα PROT, Vα MAX are lost on PFD, Vsw is displayed
c) Flight Control remains in normal law.

283.) Go Around (GA) power engagement conditions: IN FLIGHT Setting at least one thrust lever to
TOGA detent will engage SRS/GA TRACK or SRS/NAV modes if
a) The flaps lever is at least in position 1.
b) At least one Auto Pilot was engaged and in use.
c) As in a) Landing gear extended during approach phase
284.) Automatic FD pitch/roll bars removal takes place
a) NO Vertical and lateral mode engaged.
b) When ROLL OUT mode is engaged
c) Aircraft pitch exceeds 25º up or 13º down or bank angle >45º
285.) With Cabin Pressure controllers (CPC 1/2) available normal, Emergency Ram Air to open with Δp at
less than 1 PSI, CPC will drive the pressurization outflow valve to?
a) 100% open.
b) 50% open
c) Will control the differential pressure at 1 PSI
d) No effect on OUT FLOW Valve
286.) On Ground with External Air Conditioning Cart connected to aircraft, the precaution is?
a) Ensure all doors are closed.
b) Refueling is not in progress
c) At least one Pack is ON.
d) Ensure both Packs are OFF.
287.) Aircraft after recovering from an Abnormal Attitude Law
a) In pitch. Alternate law with no protection. Auto trim available
b) Roll Direct, Yaw alternate.
c) With landing gear down aircraft remains in alternate law.

288.) On sharklet aircrafts, what is Load Alleviation Function?
a) Auto trim enhancement to counter aircraft CG
b) New sharklet design to reduce the wing root loading.
c) Momentary rapid upward deflection of both Ailerons and or Spoilers 4 &5 in turbulent weather to
reduce wing root load.
d) Upward deflections of all speed brakes during steep descend.
289.) When is Emergency Ram Air inlet used?
a) After pressurization failure, or smoke removal procedure, & Δ P should be < 1 PSI
b) Enhance air flow through pack valves
c) As in a) After Tailstrike on rotation
290.) When is Speed Brake Extension inhibited?
a) Aircraft in alternate, or direct law
b) Sec 1 and Sec 3 failure or Angle of attack protection active.
c) Flaps are in configuration full or thrust levers above MCT position
d) Both b) and c) are correct
291.) What is the first crew action on encountering volcanic ash?
a) Perform emergency descend.
b) Reduce Cabin pressure to 5 PSI.
c) Make a 180 degree turn.
292.) At Max cruise level 39800 ft, max normal ΔP?
a) 7.0 PSI
b) 7.85 PSI
c) 8.06 PSI
d) 8.6 PSI
293.) Pressing the Blower switch on Ventilation to Override for a Blower Fault.
a) The Blower fan stops running
b) Confirms the ventilation system is in closed circuit configuration and air from the Air condition
system is added to the ventilation air
c) If DC ESS BUS should also fail, it is a LANDASAP AMBER
294.) Over wing escape slide chute inflates when?
a) Both corresponding side emergency over wing windows are removed.
b) A eject button at purser station does the needful.
c) Any one over wing exit removed causes automatic deployment of corresponding side escape chute
d) None of the above is correct.
295.) In case of FWS SDAC 1+2 FAULT
a) Crew has to monitor overhead panel.
b) All amber cautions are lost. Aircraft status on ECAM STATUS page is lost
c) ECAM ENG, FUEL, F/CTL, WHEEL, SYS pages are available
296.) The AC Pack control valve is automatically controlled, it opens except in the following cases:
a) Upstream pressure below minimum
b) Compressor Outlet Overheat
c) Engine start Sequence
297.) WHEN in Dual Hydraulic GREEN/YELLOW failure, Regarding FLIGHT CONTROL LAWS
a) Flight control law will recon figurate to ALTERNATE LAW reduced Protection.
b) Since GREEN hydraulic circuit not available aircraft LANDING GEAR has to be manually extended.
c) When Landing gear is extended aircraft is in Direct Law.

298.) External Horn near Nose Gear on ground sounds
a) APU Fire Detected.
b) ADR’s are running on inbuilt batteries.
c) Blower pressure or Extract pressure is low or Blower duct overheats
299.) If angle of attack protection is active or flaps are in the configuration full
a) Speed brake extension / travel is reduced.
b) Aileron travel is reduced.
c) Speed brake extension is inhibited.
300.) In case of unreliable airspeed indication at FL 330, what is the procedure to be followed?
a) AP & FDs OFF
b) 5° Pitch & CLB Thrust
c) Check that Speed brakes are retracted.
301.) During cockpit preparation, in case of Brake temperature Indications on ECAM WHEEL Page not
available, what are the operational restrictions?
a) Aircraft can be dispatched provided ground brake cooling time is applied.
b) Aircraft cannot be dispatched.
c) Aircraft can be dispatched without observing brake cooling time.
302.) When will Cabin V/S pulse in green?
a) The V/S pulses in green when V/S > 1550 FT/min. It resets at 1450 FT/min.
b) The V/S pulses in green when V/S > 1750 FT/min. It resets at 1650 FT/min.
c) The aircraft V/S is > 4500 FT/min during descent.

d) High residual pressure in Cabin during descent.
303.) In case of LGCIU 2 being Inoperative, what are the operational constraints on Engines.
a) For Engine No 2, Engine Starting procedure has to be Manual Start.
b) Flex Takeoff is not possible.
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) LGCIU does not affect Engine operation.
304.) In the case of an ″ENG DUAL FAILURE ″ during high power operations (i.e. climb, cruise), why it is
mandatory to fly at or above 280 Kts.
a) 280 Kts. is the optimum relight speed.
b) To prevent an Engine Core Lock.
c) To ensure that Flight Control surfaces are effective.
d) Both (a) & (b)
305.) ENGINE RELIGHT : While performing an automatic engine start, in-flight, FADEC always opens the
start valve
a) Yes
b) No, depending on the outside of windmilling start envelope, start valve is opened by FADEC.
c) No, depending on aircraft altitude, FADEC opens the start valve
306.) In case the electrical supply is interrupted during the AUTO Engine start sequence (Indicated by
the loss of ECAM DUs), what is the procedure to be followed?
a) Abort the start by switching OFF the master switch.
b) Perform a dry crank after the above procedure.
c) Both a & b.
d) Wait for the Instructions from the ground crew prior to start abort.
307.) In case of HYD Y RSVR LO LVL, why is it required to check brake accumulator pressure shortly after
recognition of the fault?
a) This check is recommended to cover the case of a pipe rupture, which could lead to the
simultaneous loss of the hydraulic system and the accumulator fluid. The only remaining braking means
is normal braking, using green pressure.
b) Since Parking brake is not available, ensure chocks before ENG 1 shutdown.
c) Both of the above.
308.) In case of HYD G+Y SYS LO PR , why is it required to be stabilized at Vapp before selecting the
Landing Gear Down?
a) Since the A/THR is lost , it may be difficult to control the aircraft after selecting the Landing Gear
Down
b) To ensure proper elevator position corresponding to centered side stick position for approach and
landing and failing to do so FLARE and GO AROUND maneuver will be difficult.
c) Since the Autopilot is lost , it may be difficult to control the aircraft after selecting the Landing Gear
Down
d) None of above.
309.) In case of HYD RSVR LO LVL, RSVR LO AIR PRESS, RSVR OVHT of either Green / Yellow hydraulic
system, why it is required to switch off the PTU?
a) To ensure Hydraulic fluid separation.
b) To avoid a PTU overheat which may occur two minutes later
c) PTU overheat may lead to the loss of the second hydraulic circuit
d) Both (b) & (c )
310.) In case of Dispatch of the aircraft with one center tank pump inoperative what is the operational
constraint?
a) Fuel in center tank must be a part of ZFW.
b) Flight Plan has to consider the case of remaining pump failure from the first part of Enroute that in
such case landing at a suitable airport is possible with fuel remaining in the wing tanks.
c) There is no operational restriction with regards to one center tank pump being inoperative.
311.) In case of FUEL L (R) (OUTER) INNER TK HI TEMP what is the procedure to be followed?
a) Wait for two minutes until the fuel quantity measurement gets updated
b) After the above procedure if the fault does not disappear then follow the ECAM checklist.
c) On ground follow the ECAM immediately.
d) Both a & b
312.) If the FDs are engaged in OPEN CLIMB mode( without A/P engaged) and the pilot does not follow
the FD commanded pitch( pitch is too low and A/THR at maximum climb thrust)
a) Aircraft decelerates and FDs get disengaged when speed reaches VLS-2
b) Aircraft accelerates and the FDs get disengaged when VMAX+4 is reached.
c) If A/THR is active, it reverts to SPEED mode to reduce the speed to the target speed.
d) Both b) and c) are correct
313.) When climbing with V/S mode engaged ,if selected V/S is excessive ( with regards to Thrust and
Speed)
a) FMGS maintains the V/S target, but the airspeed decreases.
b) As in (a),when reaching VLS (or VLS-5, if the speed target is VLS), the AP temporarily abandons the
V/S target, and automatically decreases the vertical speed to maintain VLS
c) Both a & b are correct.
314.) Which of the following statements with respect to A/P & A/THR modes are correct?
a) If AP/FD pitch mode controls a vertical trajectory, A/THR controls speed.
b) If AP/FD pitch mode controls a speed, A/THR controls thrust
c) If no AP/FD pitch mode is engaged, A/THR controls thrust.
d) Both (a) & (b) are correct.
315.) When is “CHECK WEIGHT “MESSAGE appears on the MCDU ?
a) When the gross weight computed by the FMGC and that computed by the FAC disagree by 7 Tons.
b) When the gross weight computed by the FMGC and that computed by the FAC disagree by 2 Tons.
c) When the gross weight computed by the FMGC and that computed by the FAC disagree by 10 Tons.

316.) In case of No FLARE mode engagement at 30 ft while performing a CAT III – b approach in low
visibility conditions, what is the procedure to be followed?
a) Continue landing irrespective of visual references.
b) GO AROUND is visual references are not sufficient.
c) Disconnect autopilot and Land Manually if visual references are sufficient.
d) Both (b) & (c).
317.) During takeoff which of the following is the criteria for engagement conditions of SRS when thrust
lever are at TOGA /FLX?
a) V2 inserted in MCDU PERF Takeoff page
b) Slats extended
c) Aircraft on ground
d) All of the above
318.) With APU BLEED ON and engine BLEED switches ON with engines running, what is the position of
the engine bleed valves?
a) Closed
b) Open
c) If the cross bleed selector is shut, engine 2 bleed valve stays open
d) If the cross bleed selector is shut engine 1 bleed valve stays open.
319.) What happens when the EXTRACT push button is pressed to override?
a) The avionics ventilation system goes into closed configuration but the extract fan is de- energized
b) The avionics ventilation system goes into closed configuration and extract fan continues to run.
c) The avionics ventilation system goes into open configuration and extract fan continues to run.
d) The avionics ventilation system goes into open configuration and extract fan is de-energized.
320.) In case of tail strike
a) Maximum altitude to maintain is FL100 or MSA, and select RAM air to ON
b) Rate of climb to be targeted at 500 feet/min
c) Rate of descent to be limited to 1000 feet/min

321.) When can the generators be connected in parallel?
a) Always.
b) Never.
c) When the APU GEN and GPU are connected.
d) When the APU GEN and one of the engine generators are connected.
322.) When is FUEL AUTO FEED FAULT caution triggered?
a) The FAULT is indicated if L or R wing tank quantity becomes less than 5000 kg and the center tank
quantity is above 250 kg.
b) When Center tank pumps run even after slat extension.
c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
323.) What is the normal priority for supplying electrical power to the AC busses?
a) External power, engine generators then APU
b) External power, APU, then engine generators
c) APU, external power then engine generators
d) Engine generators, external power then APU
324.) Can APU be used for Wing Anti Ice?
a) No
b) Yes but only below FL150
c) Yes but only when one pack is OFF
d) Yes can be used without any restrictions.
325.) What is the Max negative Differential pressure for the cabin?
a) 0 psi.
b) 1 psi.
c) 2 psi.
d) 8.6 psi.
326.) What is the function of Fuel Transfer valves.
a) To facilitate direct fuel transfer from Outer tank to Engine
b) To facilitate fuel transfer from Outer tank to Inner Tanks
c) To facilitate fuel transfer from Center tank to Inner Tanks
d) To facilitate Gravity Fuel feeding from Center Tanks.
327.) Regardless of slat position ,center tank fuel pumps would run for how much time on 2nd engine
start ?
a) 1 minute.
b) 2 minutes.
c) 3 minutes.
d) 5 minutes.
328.) What are the possible sources of Pneumatic bleed air ?
a) Two engine bleed air sources, APU load compressor and LP ground cart Unit
b) One engine bleed air source, APU load compressor and HP ground cart Unit.
c) Two engine bleed air sources, APU load compressor and HP ground cart Unit
d) Two engine bleed air sources, APU load compressor and HP/ LP ground cart Unit
329.) When will bleed valve in CFM not open pneumatically or be closed.
a) When the upstream pressure is less than 8 PSI
b) When the upstream pressure is less than 8 PSI or when there is a return flow
c) As in (b) or when the upstream pressure is less than 8 PSI and when there is a return flow
330.) Normal Braking with antiskid is provided by which hydraulic system
a) Green system
b) Blue system.
c) Green with yellow system as backup.

d) Yellow system
331.) Alternate Braking with Antiskid is provided by which hydraulic system
a) Green system
b) Blue system.
c) Green with yellow system as backup.
d) Yellow system
332.) In Auto brake MAX mode when is the braking application initiated
a) As soon as Ground spoilers deploy
b) 4 seconds after the ground spoiler deployment
c) 2 seconds after the ground spoiler deployment
333.) For how much time the parking brake accumulator maintains the parking brake pressure
a) 6 hours
b) 12 hours
c) 18 hours
d) 24 hours
334.) Which Hydraulic system can the RAT pressurize?
a) Green system
b) Blue system.
c) Yellow system
d) Both a & b
335.) Which of the following are the sources for Yellow Hydraulic system Pressurization
a) Engine Driven Pump, Yellow Electric Pump, Cargo Door Handle, Green System using the PTU.
b) Engine Driven Pump, Yellow Electric Pump, RAT,& Green System using the PTU
c) Engine Driven Pump, RAT, Cargo Door Handle & Green System using the PTU
d) Engine Driven Pump, Yellow Electric Pump, Cargo Door Handle, RAT
336.) In order to operate PTU between the GREEN and the YELLOW systems what will be the required
pressure difference
a) 300
b) 500
c) 650
d) 700
337.) When does RAT deploy automatically
a) In case of BLUE system failure
b) In case of PTU failure
c) In case of total electrical failure
d) None of above
338.) Normal law provides which of the following protections
a) Load factor limitation,
b) Pitch attitude protection & Bank angle protection
c) High angle of attack protection & High speed protection
d) All of the above
339.) To start the APU the:
a) BAT 1 & 2 push buttons must be in AUTO.
b) BAT 1 and 2 push buttons do not need to be inAUTO if external power is available.
c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
340.) The Electronics Control Box (ECB) is primarily a full authority digital electronics controller that
performs the APU system logic for all modes of APU operation such as:
a) Sequence and monitoring of start.
b) Speed and Temperature monitoring.

c) Monitoring of bleed air and shut down.
d) All of the above
341.) The APU MASTER SW FAULT light will illuminate:
a) When APU low oil level is detected.
b) When an automatic shutdown of the APU occurs.
c) For an APU overheat or APU Fire.
d) If the batteries are selected OFF while the APU is operating.
342.) Two servos on left or right ailerons are hydraulically driven by
a) blue and Yellow system
b) yellow and green
c) blue and green
343.) ECAM caution: CROSS BLEED FAULT and on the bleed page it is shown cross bleed valve in AMBER
cross line. What does it indicate
a) Cross bleed valve position disagrees with the selected position and failed in closed position or any
leak appears on the respective engine/wing/APU
b) Cross bleed valve position disagrees with the selected position and failed in open position or any
leak appears on the respective engine/wing/APU
c) Cross bleed valve position disagrees with the selected position and failed in open position or any
leak appears in the APU
d) Cross bleed valve position disagrees with the selected position and failed in closed position or any
leak appears in the APU
344.) What computer normally commands the operation of the elevators and horizontal stabilizer?
a) SEC 1
b) FAC 1
c) ELAC 2

345.) Ailerons Servoactuators have following modes of operation
a) Controlling, Neutral, Trimming, Floating.
b) Controlling and Damping
c) Active, Damping
d) Active, Neutral, Damping
346.) Elevator Servoactuators have following modes of operation
a) , Controlling, Neutral, Trimming, Floating.
b) , Controlling and Damping
c) Active, Neutral, Damping
d) Active, Centering, Damping
347.) Should both FAC’s fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after extending ?
a) Flaps
b) Slats
c) Gear
348.) The Eng Hydraulic Pump Fault light extinguishes when the engine pump switch is selected to off
except for:
a) Reservoir low level
b) Pump low pressure
c) An overheat.
349.) The PUMP identification number on the ECAM HYD page becomes amber when
a) System pressure is below 1450 psi
b) N2 is below idle
c) The reservoir level is low

350.) The A/THR is armed on the ground provided at least one FD is on by:
a) Setting the throttles to TO/GA or Flex
b) Automatically at engine start
c) With engines not running; pressing the A/THR p/b manually
351.) What is the crew action in case of “CIDS 1+2 FAULT”?
a) Return to the base
b) Follow the ECAM procedure
c) Pull the relevant C/Bs, wait for 10 sec to push the C/Bs
d) As in c) and wait approximately for 4 minutes before recovering normal operation (as given in
QRH)
352.) What happens when both channels of Air Conditioning System Controller fails?
a) Pack outlet temperature is controlled to between 5 and 30 0 C by the anti-icevalve
b) The pack is closed/ lost
c) Pack delivers a fixed temperature of 20 0 C
d) Pack delivers a temperature according to its pack settings before the failure
353.) Avionics ventilation system indications may be found on which ECAM page(s)?
a) Only the BLEED page
b) Only the CAB PRESS page
c) The in-flight ECAM cruise page
d) The in-flight ECAM cruise page and the CAB PRESS pages
354.) Placing the avionics ventilation system in the smoke configuration
a) Opens the #1 GLC
b) Opens the cargo under-floor valve
c) Opens the #2 GLC

d) De-energizes the blower fan, extract fan runs opens the air conditioning valves and opens a small
flap on extract valve
355.) What does each turn of the gravity gear extension handle do?
a) Open gear doors, unlock gear, drop gear
b) Open gear doors, drop gear, shut doors
c) Shutoff hydraulic pressure, open doors, unlocks gear
d) Open gear doors, shutoffs hydraulics, unlock gear, drop gear
356.) There are two triangles for each gear on the ECAM WHEEL page. What do they represent
a) Each triangle represents one wheel on the gear.
b) Each triangle represents the position detected by one of the two LGCIU computers
c) Each triangle represents one of the braking systems available for that gear
d) The front triangle indicates the position of that gear and the back triangle indicates the status of
the brakes for that gear
357.) With the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch in the ON position, if the BSCU detects a brake system
malfunction and/or normal braking is not available
a) The crew will be notified with an ECAM message only if after touchdown the brake system does
actually malfunction
b) Transition to the alternate brake system is automatic
c) The A/SKID & N/W STRG switch to be recycled
d) The A/SKID & N/W STRG switch to be recycled on ground only.
358.) How can you change pressurization controllers during flight?
a) Cycle the LDG ELEV AUTO knob out of the AUTO position then back to AUTO
b) Cycle the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL pushbutton to the MAN position then 10 sec later back to AUTO
c) Cycle the cabin pressurization MAN V/S CTL switch
359.) What is indicated by the autobrake DECEL lights?
a) Airplane deceleration is 25% of selected rate

b) Airplane deceleration is 50% of selected rate
c) Airplane deceleration is 100% of selected rate
d) Airplane deceleration is 80% of selected rate
360.) PIC authorized to use LTOM can take off with RVR down to _____________m from a CAT I ILS rwy.
a) a) 350 m
b) b) 550 m
c) c) 800 m
d) d) 125 m
361.) Which of the following is a NOGO item? (Refer the MEL shown in the next page)
a) a) Avionics smoke detection system
b) b) Transformer Rectifier Unit
c) c) ELAC2
d) d) All the above.
362.) Which of the following IDLE mode is regulated inflight according to aircraft altitude and regardless
of bleed system demand?
a) a) Modulated Idle.
b) b) Approach Idle.
c) c) Reverse Idle.
d) d) All of the above.
363.) When does FADEC Overspeed governor limit N2, by opening Fuel Bypass Valve?
a) a) During Automatic engine start
b) b) During Manual Engine start
c) c) In event of a malfunction leading to Overspeed condition.
d) d) None of the above.
364.) What is aircraft’s positioning function called BIAS?
a) a) MIXIRS – IRS2
b) b) FM position – MIXIRS
c) c) FM position – GPS1 position
d) d) FM Position – GPS1 position
365.) In which of the following cases, each FMGC utilizes the MIXIRS position?
a) a) Untill the thrust levers are pushed forward to TOGA.
b) b) When GPS received positions are unavailable but Radio position is available
c) c) When GPS received positions and Radio positions are unavailable
366.) In which of the following cases Manual Eng. Mode selector to Ignition is required?
a) a) Gravity Fuel feeding
b) b) Emergency Electrical configuration
c) c) Engine Bleed Status Fault (if Eng Anti Icing is ON)
367.) What does ECAM status “LAND ASAP” in red indicate?
a) a) Land the aircraft at the nearest airport, where a safe landing can be made.
b) b) Land the aircraft only at the enroute alternate airport.
c) c) Land the aircraft at a destination alternate airport.
368.) When a Manual start is recommended?
a) a) After an AUTO START failure
b) b) Tailwind greater than 10 kts.
c) c) Degraded bleed performance of pneumatic source
d) d) All of the above
369.) For A320 aircraft, In flight what is the criteria for a BSCU reset.
a) a) BSCU Reset must be performed with Landing gear extended.

b) b) BSCU Reset must be performed with Landing gear retracted.
c) c) BSCU Reset must be performed only in flight..
d) d) BSCU Reset has no restrictions regarding Landing gear
370.) In case of a DUAL ENGINE FAILURE what is the optimum speed to be maintained.
a) a) 250 kts
b) b) 300 kts
c) c) 280 kts
d) d) 330 kts
371.) When the multiscan function is lost, the tilt value is dashed and the “NO AUTO TILT”message
appears in amber on the ND, until the flight crew sets the MULTISCAN sw to MAN.
a) a) True
b) b) False
c) c) may be true or false depending upon conditions
d) d) None of above.
372.) In case of Gravity Extension of the Landing Gear , the lever has to be confirmed in DOWN position
because of which of the following reason?
a) a) To Extinguish the UNLK lights on the Landing Gear Indication panel.
b) b) To prevent L/G CTL message from appearing on the wheel page.
c) c) To minimize the risk on retraction of landing gear on ground, when the free fall system is
reset.
d) d) All of the above
373.) When is AUTO FLT A/THR LIMITED caution activated ?
a) a) When A/THR is active and thrust levers below CLB detent .
b) b) When A/THR is active and thrust levers below MCT detent [k(enter)] c) c) Both a & b
374.) Which of the following case is an advisory?
a) a) V/s >1800ft/min
b) b) CAB ALTITUDE>5000ft
c) c) CAB PRESS > 6psi
375.) Which of the following action should not be done in performing Ditching?
a) a) Landing gear UP
b) b) Landing Elevation selection 00ft
c) c) Cabin press mode selection MAN
d) d) Ditching pushbutton ON
376.) What is the Max brake Temperature limitation (no brakes fan) for take-off?
a) a) 150
b) b) 300
c) c) 600
d) d) 900
377.) Which of the following conditions are required for activating Nose wheel steering(NWS)?
a) a) NWS and A/SKID must be OFF
b) b) Green Hydraulic pressure must be available
c) c) At least one engine must be running
d) d) NWS must be in Towing position
378.) Hand wheel and pedals are operated simultaneously:
a) a) Hand wheel has priority.
b) b) Pedals have priority (depending on speed).
c) c) BSCU transforms these orders into nose wheel steering angle (signals are mathematically
added)
d) d) Hand wheel input will not be affected by pedals.
379.) Conditioned air is distributed to:
a) a) Cockpit, avionics bay, cargo bays and cabin.

b) b) Cockpit, fwd and aft cabins.
c) c) Cockpit, avionics bay and cabin.
d) d) Cockpit, cabin and holds 1 and 2 only.
380.) Engine flow demand, when the heating or cooling demand in one zone cannot be satisfied:
a) a) The minimum idle must be increased manually.
b) b) The minimum idle is increased automatically.
c) c) In any case, flight idle is sufficient.
d) d) The APU must be used to supply additional air.
381.) The temperature of each aircraft zone is optimized by means of:
a) a) A HOT AIR valve.
b) b) A ZONE control valve.
c) c) A PACK FLOW VALVE.
d) d) A TRIM AIR valve.
382.) With the pressurization system in the automatic mode, which valves are closed when the ditching
push button is selected on?
a) a) All valves below the water line.
b) b) APU inlet.
c) c) The engine bleed valves.
d) d) Only the avionics cooling valves.
383.) Both pressurization auto controllers are set by the active flight plan loaded in the MCDU. The
QNH entry on the MCDU Approach Performance page refines the depressurization schedule for the
landing.
a) a) True.
b) b) False.
d) d) none of the above
384.) Aft cargo indications may be found on which ECAM page(s)?

a) a) Only the CRUISE page.
b) b) Only the BLEED page.
c) c) Only the CAB PRESS page.
d) d) The CRUISE page and the COND page.
385.) How many trim air valves are there?
a) a) One trim air valve.
b) b) Three: one each for the cockpit zone, the forward cabin zone, and the aft cabin zone.
c) c) Two: one for the cockpit and first class zone, and one for the cabin zone.
d) d) Four: one each for the cockpit zone, the first class zone, and two for the aft zone.
386.) Which statement is TRUE concerning the cargo compartment ventilation?
a) a) Both cargo compartments are pressurized and heated using both cabin air and hot trim air.
b) b) Recirculated air, conditioned air, and hot trim air are mixed then distributed to each cargo
compartment.
c) c) Only the aft cargo compartment is heated and ventilated. Cabin ambient air is mixed with
hot trim air and drawn through isolation valves by extraction fans.
d)
387.) When landing elevation is set to AUTO, the landing elevation is sent to the controller from:
a) a) FMGS.
b) b) FCU.
c) c) ADIRS.
d)
388.) The pack flow control valve closed automatically in case of:
a) a) Pack overheat, engine starting, or operation of the fire or ditching push button.
b) b) Bleed valve failure, pack outlet pressure increase.
c) c) Trim air valve failure.

389.) When mode selector is selected to manual, the outflow valve is controlled by signals sent via
controller 1 or 2.
a) a) True.
b) b) False.
390.) If a BMC detects a bleed leak:
a) a) The crew must isolate the affected leak.
b) b) All valves that could supply pneumatic air to the area of the bleed leak will automatically
close.
c) c) All pneumatic valves close automatically.
391.) When additional pneumatic air is required for anti-ice, engine starting, or air conditioning:
a) a) Additional pneumatic air will be requested by the BMC to the FADECs or the APU.
b) b) The crew must observe minimum N1 limits.
c) c) Both are correct.
392.) How long does a normal IR alignment take?
a) a) Approximately 3 minutes.
b) b) Approximately 6 minutes.
c) c) Approximately 10 minutes.
d) d) approx 13 minutes
393.) The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?
a) a) No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected
ON.
b) b) No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected
ON. An alignment fault may exist.
c) c) Attitude and heading information have been lost. An alignment fault may exist.
d)
394.) While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha prot range:
a) a) The flight controls revert to direct law.
b) b) The flight controls remain in the load factor demand law.
c) c) The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side stick deflection
is proportional to AOA.
d)
395.) If both ELACs fail, what controls the elevator and stabilizer?
a) a) FACs.
b) b) SECs.
c) c) Elevator and stabilizer revert to mechanical backup.
d) d) Backup mode of ELAC’s
396.) What happens when the mask is used with the selection at 100% position?
a) a) Mask is supplied with diluted oxygen on demand.
b) b) Mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen on demand.
c) c) Mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen continuous flow.
d) d) Mask is supplied with diluted oxygen on demand.
397.) What are the P&WEngine starter limitations?
a) a) 3 consecutive cycles with a pause of 35 sec's, between each start cycle attempt. Pause for
15min.
b) b) 3 consecutive cycles : 2 cycles of 1 min each, followed by a third cycle of 2 min with pause of
15seconds between each start attempts.
c) c) 3 consecutive cycles : 2 cycles of 2 min each, followed by a third cycle of 3 min with pause of
d) d) 3 consecutive cycles : 2 cycles of 1 min each, followed by a third cycle of 3 min with pause of
398.) As per SSOP , what is the recommended practice, regarding take off configuration?
a) a) Use the CONFIG giving the highest FLX Temperature after checking values for CONFIG 1+f and
2.
b) b) Flex being the same, use lower configuration for fuel saving purposes.
c) c) Both a & b.
399.) As per SSOP , During takeoff ,what are the actions following a failure after V1?
a) a) Continue the takeoff. No actions below 400 ft AGL except gear up.
b) b) Reaching 400 ft AGL, initiate ECAM actions.
c) c) Reaching ACCEL ALT, accelerate as required and assess situation and follow SID…./request
radar vector as appropriate, MSA…, terrain clearance, overweight landing, etc”. Ensure
ATC/Cabin/Company informed as required.
d) d) All the above
400.) The characteristic speeds are displayed on MCDU ( greendot, F, S, VLS)are
a) a) Computed from the block fuel weight entered in MCDU.
b) b) Computed based on the configuration selected for takeoff.
c) c) Computed from ZFW and ZFWCG entered in MCDU.
d) d) Computed from the winds and tropopause information entered in MCDU.
401.) As per the NOTAM, there is an unreliable / unserviceable VOR on the route selected for the flight.
What is the pilot action on MCDU to deselect the VOR?
a) a) Access the GPS MONITOR Page and deselect GPS 1.
b) b) Open the RADNAV Page and change the selected Navaids to any other Enroute NAVaid.
c) c) Display DATA page, then POSITION MONITOR PAGE. Access SEL NAVAIDS page and deselect
the related NAVaid.
d)
402.) What is the procedure to check, modify or insert the flight plan?
a) a) Lateral revision at the departure airport to check to check or enter climb speed limits, ATC
Constraints.
b) b) Vertical revision at the departure airport to select RWY ,SID and TRANSITION.
c) c) Both a & b.
d) d) None of the above are correct.
403.) No Navigation accuracy check is required as long as GPS Primary is available?
a) a) True
b) b) False
404.) What is the speed maintained by the system in managed mode during CLB,CRZ,DES phases?
a) a) 220 kt
b) b) VFE
c) c) ECON MACH ( As per the C.I, winds, OAT)
d) d) below VMO/MMO
405.) In case of NAV ADR 1+3 FAULT
a) a) Landing Gear Retraction is inoperative.
b) b) Landing gear Extension is possible only by gravity.
c) c) Both (a) & (b)
d) d) Only NAV ADR 2+3 FAULT affects Landing Gear.
406.) In the case of an ″ENG DUAL FAILURE ″ during high power operations (i.e. climb, cruise), why it is
mandatory to fly at or above 280 Kts.
a) a) 280 Kts. is the optimum relight speed.
b) b) To prevent an Engine Core Lock.
c) c) To ensure that Flight Control surfaces are effective.
d) d) Both (a) & (b)
407.) ENG 1 FADEC B FAULT is displayed on ECAM during cockpit preparation. What are the criteria for
Aircraft dispatch?
a) a) Aircraft cannot be dispatched with the above fault.
b) b) Aircraft can be dispatched with the above fault
c)
d)
408.) ENGINE RELIGHT : While performing an automatic engine start, in-flight, FADEC always opens the
start valve
a) a) Yes
b) b) No, depending on the outside of windmilling start envelope, start valve is opened by FADEC.
c) c) No, depending on aircraft altitude, FADEC opens the start valve
d)
409.) What is the guidance command for vertical mode, if the pilot sets the FCU altitude to a
target not compatible with the active OPCLB Mode.
a) a) Mode Reversion occurs and V/S engages on current V/S.
b) b) Mode Reversion occurs and OPDES engages
c) c) Mode Reversion occurs and V/S engages to + 3000ft/min.
d) d) There will not be any change in guidance command
410.) In case of ENG 1 COMPRESSOR VANE caution , if Stall Occurs what is the procedure to be
followed
a) a) Shutdown the affected engine immediately.
b) b) Do not shutdown the affected engine.
c) c) Move the thrust levers to TOGA
411.) During Engine start, ground crew reports a fuel leak from the drain mast, what is the procedure
to be followed.
a) a) Flight cannot be dispatched, report in maintenance is required.
b) b) Run the engine at Idle for 5 min and if the leak disappears, the aircraft can be dispatched.
c) c) Fuel leak from the engine drain mast is a normal scenario.

d) d) Shut the engine and perform a Manual start.
412.) During First flight of the day ( After a shutdown period of more than two hours) what is the
recommended procedure to avoid Engine thermal shock.
a) a) Operate the engine at or near Idle for at least 5 minutes before advancing the thrust levers to
High power.
b) b) Run the engine at idle for 2 minutes before setting takeoff thrust.
c) c) Run the engine for 3 minutes at Idle power.
d) d) There is no recommended procedure for thermal shock.
413.) How many levels of failures are issued by ECAM? What are they?
a) Level 1 ,Level 2,,Level 3,Advisory
b) Level 1 ,Level 2,Level 3
c) Level 1 ,Level 2,Advisory
d) Advisory,Level 1
414.) What is a “Level 3” failure?
a) a)Red warning:Associated with Repetitive Chime (CRC) or specific sound or synthetic voice
‐ MASTER WARN light red flashing or specific red light
‐ Warning message (red) on E/WD.
‐ Automatic call of the relevant system page on the S/D.
b) b)Amber caution : The flight crew should be aware of the configuration or failure, but does not
need to take any immediate action. However time and caution permittimg, these cautions should be
consiered without delay
c) c)It’s a failure in which following cautions are issued: Amber caution: Requires crew monitoring:
Failures leading to a loss of redundancy or systemdegradation. No audio will be generated + no caution
message(Amber) on
d) d)System parameters monitoring + No Aural + Automatic call of the relevant system page on the
S/D.The affected parameter pulses. The relevant system page Range, Tha value(shown in green). The
advisory ode is inhibited
415.) the meaning of Cavalry charge audio signal being generated

a) CONTINUOUS REPETITIVE CHIME for Red Warnings
b) SINGLE CHIME for Amber Cautions
c) A/P DISCONNECTION BY TAKE OVER p/ b or by failures
d) In case of STALL
416.) Can SELCAL CONTINUOUS BUZZER be cancelled by MASTER CAUTION p/b?
a) a) Yes
b) b) No
c) C) depending upon the ECAM
d) d) check OEB and disregard ECAM
417.) When does LDG Memo appear?
a) a)LDG Memo appears below 1800 ft. and it disappears after touch down below 80 kts.
b) b)LDG Memo appears below 2000 ft. and it disappears after touch down below 80 kts.
c) c)LDG Memo appears below 2200 ft. and it disappears after touch down below 50 kts.
d) d)LDG Memo appears below 2000 ft. and it disappears after touch down below 100 kts.
418.) During Engine start, when will Engine page is displayed?
a) a)The moment you put ENG MODE SEL to IGN / START.
b) b)The moment you put ENG MODE SEL to NORM
c) c) The moment you put ENG MASTER SW to ON
419.) ADIRS 2 is supplying altitude data for altitude reporting when ATC TRANSPONDER 2 is in use?
a) a) true
b) b) False
420.) What are the PWS related alerts in approach?

a) Audio : «GO AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD» On PFD: W/S AHEAD (red) On ND: Wind shear icon
b) Audio : «WINDSHEAR AHEAD» (twice)On PFD : W/S AHEAD (red)On ND: Wind shear icon
c) Audio : «WINDSHEAR AHEAD» (thrice)On PFD : W/S AHEAD (red)On ND: Wind shear icon
d) Audio : «WINDSHEAR AHEAD» (twice)On PFD : W/S AHEAD (AMBER)On ND: Wind shear icon
421.) What are the warnings generated by predictive GPWS, if aircraft can climb over the terrain?
a) A “TERRAIN AHEAD-PULL UP” warning
b) A “TERRAINTERRAIN TERRAIN " warning
c) A "PULL UP” warning
d) A “PULL UP PULL UP PULL UP” warning
422.) What are the warnings generated by predictive GPWS, if aircraft cannot climb over the terrain with
sufficient safety margins?
a) A “TERRAIN AHEAD-PULL UP” warning
b) A “TERRAINTERRAIN TERRAIN " warning
c) An “AVOID TERRAIN” warning
d) A "PULL UP” warning
423.) What is Mode 2B of GPWS?
a) THE FLAPS ARE IN LANDING CONFIGURATION When gear and flaps are in the landing configuration,
the aural message is “TERRAIN ” only and is not followed by “PULL UP” if the aircraft remains in the
envelope.
b) THE FLAPS NOT IN LANDING CONFIGURATION.“TERRAIN” + GPWS lights and then “PULL UP”, +
PULL UP light
c) EXCESSIVE RATE OF DESCENT “SINK RATE” + GPWS light And then,“PULL UP” aural alert + both
PULL UP lights
d) If the aircraft descends during the initial takeoff climb or during a go-around, the GPWS lights come
on and the “DON’T SINK” aural alert sounds repeatedly.
424.) What are the conditions when low energy warning (SPEED, SPEED, SPEED) will get inhibited?
a) TOGA is selected, orBelow 100 ft RA, orAbove 2 000 ft RA, or Alpha-floor, or the ground proximity
warning system alert is triggered, orIn alternate or direct law, or If both radio altimeters fail.
b) TOGA is selected, orBelow 200 ft RA, orAbove 2 200 ft RA, orAlpha-floor, or the ground proximity
warning system alert is triggered, orIn alternate law, orIf both radio altimeters fail.
c) TOGA is selected, orBelow 100 ft RA, orAbove 2 200 ft RA, orAlpha-floor, or the ground proximity
warning system alert is triggered, orIn alternate or direct law, orIf both radio altimeters fail.
d) TOGA is selected, or Below 100 ft RA, orAbove 2 200 ft RA, orAlpha-floor, or the ground proximity
warning system alert is triggered, orIn normal law, orIf both radio altimeters fail.
425.) When will you see “LVR ASYM” amber message?
a) When one thrust lever is in the CL detent and the other one out of detent, the “LVR ASYM”amber
message comes up until both levers are set in the CL detent (only with both engines operative).
b) When one thrust lever is below the CL detent and the other one above detent, the “LVR
ASYM”amber message comes up until both levers are set in the CL detent (only with both engines
operative).
c) When one thrust lever is below the CL detent and the other one above detent, the “LVR
ASYM”amber message comes up until both levers are set in the CL detent (only with single engine
operative).
d) When one thrust lever is in the CL detent and the other one out of detent, the “LVR ASYM”amber
message comes up until both levers are set in the CL detent (only with single engine operative).
426.) What is the meaning of “THR LK {flashing}”?
a) The Thrust Lock function is armed.
b) The Thrust Lock function is disarmed.
c) The Thrust Lock function is disengaged.
d) The Thrust Lock function is active.
427.) In normal operation:
a) DMC1 drives Capt side PFD, ND, and ECAM DUs. DMC2 drives F/O side PFD, and ND.DMC3 is on
standby, ready to drive any DU.
b) DMC1 drives Capt side PFD, ND, and upper ECAM DUs. DMC2 drives F/O side PFD, and ND and
lower ECAM.DMC3 is on standby, ready to drive any DU.
c) DMC1 drives Capt side PFD, ND1 and F/O side PFD, and upper ECAM DUs. DMC2 drives F/O ND and
lower ECAM.DMC3 is on standby, ready to drive any DU.
d) DMC1 drives Capt side PFD, ND1 and F/O side PFD,F/O ND . DMC2 drives upper and lower
ECAM.DMC3 is on standby, ready to drive any DU.
428.) Do the “Check ATT” Messages appear on both PFDs at the same time?
a) a) Yes
b) b) No
c) c) it never appears on the PFD
d)
429.) In the case of ELECT EMER CONFIG, secondary failures are inhibited on E/WD.
a) a) true
b) b) False
430.) On the WHEEL Page, what is the meaning of a: Steady Green AUTO BRK Memo?
a) a)after auto brake disengagement.
b) b)when auto brake is armed
c) c)when auto brake is active,
431.) What are the indications of Dual FMGC failure?
a) a)“MAP NOT AVAIL” is displayed on both NDs.
b) b) FM and FG capability are lost.
c) c)MCDU MENU page is displayed and FMGC prompt is no longer available
432.) If both FMGCs fail, the back up navigation provides the following functions:
a) a)Flight Planning & F-PLN display on ND
b) b)Aircraft position using onside IRS, IRS3, or GPIRS position &No AP/FD NAV mode
c) c)Limited lateral revision
& F-PLN automatic sequencing.

433.) The MCDU NAV B/UP function provides:
a) a) autotuning & EFOB
b) b)Aircraft position using onside IRS or IRS 3
c) c)ETA at DEST & multiple lateral FLT-PLAN
d) d)as in (b) F-PLN display on ND
434.) If the GPIRS data does not comply with an integrity criterion that is based on a Horizontal Integrity
Limit (HIL) and on the automatic detection of failed satellites, the FMS rejects theGPS mode and uses
the radio position update.
a) a) true
b) b) False
435.) What is the MIX IRS position?
a) a)Each IRS computes a mixed IRS position called the MIX IRS position.
b) b)Each FMGC receives a position from each of the three IRSs, and computes a mean-weighted
average called the “MIX IRS” position
c) c)Each MCDUcomputes a mixed IRS position called the MIX IRS position.
436.) What is the EPU set in the system if GPS PRIMARY LOST but there is a sufficient Radio Navaid
coverage to update IRS For IRS/DME/DME?
a) a)it is 0.07nm - 0.27 nm.
b) b)it is 0.17nm - 0.27 nm.
c) c)it is 0.20nm - 0.30 nm.
d) d)it is 0.27 nm - 0.37 nm.
437.) What is the EPU set in the system at Take-off?
a) a)At takeoff, the EPU is set at 0.3 nm.

b) b)At takeoff, the EPU is set at 0.5 nm.
c) c)At takeoff, the EPU is set at 0.2 nm.
d) d)At takeoff, the EPU is set at 0.6 nm.
438.) When does the ECAM display NAV FM/GPS POS DISAGREE amber caution?
a) a)When the GPS PRIMARY function is active, and either of the FM positions deviate from the GPS
positions 1 or 2 by more than:A longitude threshold that depends on the latitude:
b) b)0.5' for latitudes below 55° or 0.9' for latitudes at or above 55°, and below 70°.
c) c)A latitude threshold of 0.5', regardless of the latitude,
439.) Which page show the NAVAIDs used for display of NAVAIDS?
a) a)SELECTED NAVAIDS
b) b)RADNAV
c) c)MCDU RAD NAV
d) d) NAVAIDS
440.) How does the FMGS go into Descent phase from CRZ phase?
a) none of the following
b) No step descent, andAll engines operative and selected altitude below Max [FL 250, highest DES
ALT CSTR]
c) No step descent, andAll engines operative and selected altitude below Max [FL 200, highest DES
ALT CSTR]
d) as in c)No step descent, and Distance to destination < 200 nm,
441.) If FD #1 is disengaged after engaging both FDs, what will FMA show in 5th col.?
a) a)F D 2
b)2 FD2
c) c)-F D 2
d)2FD-
442.) How to disarm NAV Mode?
a)The flight crew pulls out the HDG/TRK knob
b) The flight crew selects a preset HDG/TRK (TO or GA)
c) The flight crew arms the LOC mode by pressing the LOC pb
d) All the above.
443.) LAND Mode disengages upon engagement of Go-Around Mode or if both AP/FDs are disengaged
a) aTtrue
b) False
c) may be true or false depending upon conditions
444.) With DES mode engaged and you extend speed brakes, descent rate of a/c will increase only if a/c
is above profile
a) true
b) False
445.) Once on ILS {LOC + G/S engaged}, ILS approach can be discontinued by pressing APPR P/b, if a/c is
above 400 ft {by pressing APPR P/B.}
a) true
b) False
446.) Pulling out V/S Knob or ALT Knob will disengage the EXPED mode
a) true
b) False

447.) How to engage the OP DES?
a)by pulling out ALT selector
b) In EXPED DES mode, if a speed is selected
c) both a) and b) are correct
448.) When the roll bar is replaced by Yaw bar?
a) RWY mode on takeoff
b) FLARE mode in landing
c) ROLL OUT mode in landing
d) All the above.
449.) When will Pitch FD bar flash permanently?
a)Transmission of the GLIDE data is interrupted when in G/S, G/S* or LAND modes above 100 ft RA.
b)Transmission of the LOC data is interrupted when in LOC ,LOC* modes above 15 ft RA.
c)Transmission of the LOC data is interrupted when in LAND mode above 15 ft RA.
d)Transmission of the GLIDE data is interrupted when in G/S, G/S* or LAND modes above 200 ft RA.
450.) Alternate Emergency Brakes on Arrival, is when Auto brake and antiskid are inoperative, and to
avoid wheel lock and limit tire burst brake pressure is automatically limited to 1200 PSI.
a) TRUE.
b) FALSE.
451.) Aircraft in AUTO ELEC EMER CONFIG: On AC ESS BUS, Fuel booster Pumps for Left and Right
Inner Tank , Booster pump No 1 is only available..
a) TRUE.
b) FALSE.
452.) With LGCIU 2 Unserviceable in flight.
a) On arrival Reverser 2 is not available.
b) Landing gear to be lowered manually.
c) As in a) Engine No 2 on ground, at idle thrust with Slats Extended will register Approach idle.
453.) Cabin Zone Temperature sensors are ventilated by the air extracted by the lavatory and galley
ventilation extract fan?
a) True.
b) False.
454.) APU running, Auto Extinguishing Test done on maintenance panel, does not SHUT DOWN the
APU.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE.
455.) During a manual start of Engine No 1, we have to press the ENG MAN START pushbutton to close
the Start Valve?
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
456.) On Single ENGINE, CAT II AND CAT III fail passive auto land is only approved in configuration
FULL, and if engine out procedures are completed before reaching 1,000 ft in approach.
a) TRUE.
b) FALSE.
457.) LIMITATION: AUTOMATIC LANDING in CAT II AND CAT III APPROVED IN CONFG 3 AND CONFG
FULL, SLOPE WITHIN -2.5° to -3.15°, with Airport Altitude at or below 2500 FT.
a) true
b) b) FALSE.
458.) In case of Icing: If One ADR was already switched OFF, and the two remaining ADRs are not in
agreement, which of the following is right.
a) Alternate Law (with protection).
b) Alternate Law (without protection).
c) Normal Law ().
d) Direct Law.
459.) In case of FAC 1+ FAC 2 inoperative in Flight, which of the following are lost.
a) Rudder travel limit system.
b) Yaw damper.
c) Both (a) and (b).
d) Spoilers 2,3 and 4.
460.) “BRAKES AUTOBRAKE FAULT” gets activated in flt, in which phase of flt it will be inhibited.
a) Flt phase 6,7 and 8.
b) Flt phase 6,7,8 and 9.
c) Flt phase 7 and 8.
d) It will not inhibit once it get activated.

461.) What is Minimum Oil Temperature required prior to T/O for CFM/PW.
a) -10/+52.
b) -10/+50.
c) -8/+45.
d) -8/+48.
462.) In normal flight during cruise (Auto flight) you change the CI value from whatever was existing till
to a lower value. What is the likely change in your Mach Number setting from what was existing before
the change was made.
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain same.
d)
463.) What happen when ACSC1 Fails.
a) Cabin FWD Trim Air Valves close.
b) Cabin AFT Trim Air Valves close
c) Hot Air Pressure regulating Valve close.
d) Pack flow control valve no 1 will go to higher flow irrespective of the pack flow selector position
464.) “CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT” alert triggers in descent.
a) When the cabin altitude is 1000ft above the airfield pressure altitude.
b) When the cabin altitude is 1500ft above the airfield pressure altitude.
c) When the cabin altitude is 1800ft above the airfield pressure altitude.
d) None of the statements are true.
465.) COM SINGLE PTT STUCK alert will activate for which condition:
a) When any PTT transmission selector is jammed in the transmit position for more than 180 s (VHF
) or for more than 40 s (HF).
b) When any PTT transmission selector is jammed in the transmit position for than 40 s (VHF ) or for
more than 180 s (HF).
c) When any PTT transmission selector is jammed in the transmit position for more than 40 s (VHF
d) When any PTT transmission selector is jammed in the transmit position for more than 180 s (VHF
466.) In case of Cockpit evacuation through window what is the correct way to open the handle.
a) PUSH DOWN AND PULL BACK HANDLE.
b) PUSH UP AND PULL BACK HANDLE.
c) PUSH THE HANDLE FORWARD.
d) PULL THE HANDLE INWARD.
467.) If the GPS PRIMARY LOST message is displayed on both NDs/MCDUs, RNAV 10 operations can be
continued with no time restriction if radio navaids update is available.
a) TRUE.
b) FALSE.
468.) If NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD is displayed on both sides the RNAV 1(2) capability is lost.
a) TRUE.
b) FALSE.
469.) In which mode of FMGS operation, IND light on MCDU appears.
a) Single.
b) Dual.
c) Back up.
d) None of them.
470.) When the accuracy is considered LOW.
a) If Required is lower than Estimated, ACCURACY is LOW as shown on PROG Page.

b) If Estimated is lower than Required, ACCURACY is LOW as shown on PROG Page.
c) If Estimated has become equal to Required, ACCURACY is LOW as shown on PROG Page.
d) None of the statement are correct.
471.) In case of VENT SKIN VALVE FAULT, Weather Radar image on both NDs may be lost in case of
insufficient ventilation.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
472.) All required Signals / logic’s for Nose Wheel Steering to operate are : LGCIU ground signal ,
Yellow hydraulic System pressure, BSCU channel , Brakes / NSW switch at ON, Nose Steering Electric unit
on Nose Gear not at Manual Towing, Electric signals from Steering wheel and Rudder pedals serviceable.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE.
473.) Vertical speed information display on PFD is normally
a)Inertial information
b)Baro Information
c)Inertial information, but if it fails, baro information is displayed
d)Baro information, but if it fails, inertial information is displayed.
474.) If difference in Roll Attitudes between the 2 PFDs are more than 5 DEG, what are the indications.
a)CHECK ATT flags on both PFDs, ECAM caution.
b)CHECK ATT flags on faulty PFDs, ECAM caution .
c)CHECK ATT flags on both PFDs, ATT flags on both ND’s ,ECAM caution.
d)Only ECAM caution

475.) What warnings will come if Landing Gear is not selected down, both RA failed and CONFIG 3 is
slected?
a)Master warning CRC with GEAR NOT DOWN message.
b)Master warning CRC and red arrow illuminates with GEAR NOT DOWN message.
c)Master warning CRC GEAR NOT DOWN LOCKED message
d)No warnings will come.
476.) The actual track symbol
a)Appears on both PFD & ND in the form of a green diamond.
b)Appears on PFD in blue colored diamond if selected from FCU
c)Appears on PFD & ND is magenta colored diamond if given by the FMGC
d)Appears as a blue triangle if selected from FCU and magenta colored triangle if given by FMGC
477.) Aircraft is at 2000 feet Radio Altitude. For excessive rate of descent, the GPWs warning will be
a)Don’t sink
b)Terrain – terrain
c)Sink rate
d)Too low terrain
478.) If autopilot is engaged without FD ?
a)HDG and V/S modes are engaged
b)HDG and SPD modes are engaged
c)OP CLIMB and NAV modes are engaged
d)EXP CLIMB and NAV modes are engaged
479.) NAV is armed on ground provided
a)F- PLAN is available and heading preset is selected on FCU
b)F-PLAN is available and no heading preset is selected on FCU
c)As in (b) and FDs are ON
d)F-PLAN is available and NAV aids are tuned manually on RMP

480.) When MANAGED GUIDANCE is working
a) FCU windows including ALT window are dashed
b) FCU windows shows the values selected by FMGC
c)FCU windows except ALT windows are dashed.
d)As in (c) and white dots illuminate on FCU next to each window.
481.) Re active Wind Shear warning is available only in air above 50FT up to 1,300 Ft, with atleast
slats/flaps config 1 selected
a) TRUE.
b) FALSE.
482.) The top end of the black / red Barber pole on Lower right side of speed scale indicates
a)You are in High Angle of attack protection envelope ie V µ PROT
b) You are at Max angle of attack protected V µ MAX
c) You have encountered V µ floor protection
d) Stall warning threshold encountered VSW
483.) If one SFCC is lost, which of the flight controls are lost? What are the consequences of one SFCC
failure?
a)slat & flaps retract to neutral position
b)Slat & Flaps will move at half the speed.
c) slats & flaps are locked
484.) Which dual Hydraulic system failure makes Flaps inoperative?
a) green & yellow
b) green & blue
c) blue & yellow

485.) If WTB are applied and there is an ECAM associated. Can you recycle the SLATS /FLAPS?
a) You should recycle only if the surface is not locked.
b)It will be a part of the ECAM and should and should follow ECAM
486.) What are the indications, if wing tip brakes are applied in the flap system?
a)ECAM of F/CTL FLAPS FAULT/LOCKED
b)If flaps locked:WING TIP BRK ON OR ALIGNMENT FAULT
c) Limit speed to the VFE corresponding to the next flap position
d) All the above.
487.) When does „PITCH TRIM‟ indication become amber on F/CTL page?
a) when Pitch Trim values are out of liits
b) when there is a failure in its mechanical back up
c) when there is a failure in green and yellow hydraulics pressure
d) when there is a failure in ELAC 2 and ELAC 1
488.) When does SPD BRK memo turn amber?
a)When the speed brakes are extended in Flight Phases 2, 3, 4, and 5
b)When the speed brakes are extended in Flight Phases 6 and 7
c)It flashes in amber, after 50 s, if at least one engine is above idle.
d) All the above.
489.) If the auto brake is faulty, "AUTO BRK OFF" appears on E/WD.
a) true
b) False

490.) Normal brake system is still available and not inhibited when parking brakes are applied?
a) true
b) False
491.) When can “PRED W/S OFF” Memo turn amber?
a)The “PRED W/S OFF” message appears, when wind shear is set to OFF on the weather radar panel
b)It appears in amber:In flight phases 3, 4, 5, 7, 8, and 9
c)When the T.O. CONFIG p/b is pressed during phase 2.
d) all the above
492.) A fuel leak may be detected, if:
a)The sum of FOB and FU significantly less than FOB at engine start or is decreasing
b)‐”DEST EFOB BELOW MIN” appears on the MCDU scratch pad.
c)A passenger observes fuel spray from engine/pylon or wing tip,
493.) AIR DUAL BLEED FAULT:there will be loss of Hyd. Reservoir pressurization
a) true
b) False
494.) In case of an ADR 1+3 FAULT
a) the landing gear safety valve is controlled closed:
b)Landing gear retraction is inoperative
c)Landing gear extension must be performed by gravity.

d) all of the above.
495.) Which of the ADRs data are transmitted by ATC TRANSPONDER to ground?
a) Indicated airspeed, Mach number, and baro vertical speed
b)Selected altitude and barometric reference settings supplied by the FCUs.
496.) PWS Alerts have priority over TCAS, GPWS or other FWC aural warnings?
a) true
b) False
497.) wind shear alerts from PWS is for the range of 5 NM ahead of a/c only
a) true
b) False
498.) in case of wind shear, stall, or GPWS messages, TCAS aural messages are suppressed
a) true
b) False
499.) What part of each wing is anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air?
a) Out board Slats 3, 4 & 5.
b) ailerons
c) flaps
d) both a) and c)

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1.

a) Over pressure and Over temperature

c) Both options a & b are correct

d) None of the above

The AC BUS1 will be powered from?

3.) In case of ENG 1 THR LEVER FAULT.

a) On Ground, only IDLE power available for ENG 1

b) In Cruise, Engine rating freezes at CLB Power until Slat Extension.

d) All of the above.

a) Engine Interface Unit failure.

b) Engine Flame Out in flight.

c) Engine nacelle Anti Ice ON

d) Both a & b are correct

5.) How is the Yellow Hydraulic System pressurized?

d) None of the above

6.) PTU FAULT is triggered when?

a) Any failure affecting the Blue or Green pumps occurs

b) Any failure affecting the Green or Yellow pumps occurs

c) Any failure affecting the Green or Yellow reservoirs occurs

d) Only if yellow reservoir failure occurs

d) Extending the landing gear, no change in Alternate Law protections.

8.) In alternate law, the Angle of Attack protection is replaced by?

a) High speed stability

c) Low speed stability

d) None of the above

a) Auto brakes and antiskid.

c) Seven applications of the brake pedals.

d) Three applications of the brake pedals

c) Both a) and b) are correct.

d) None of the above

11.) What action should be taken if IR #2 is lost?

a) Move the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to F/O 3.

b) Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to CAPT 3.

c) Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 3.

d) d) Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 1.

12.) When does Passenger Oxygen flow starts?

a) When the mask is pulled toward the seat.

b) When the oxygen doors open.

c) When the oxygen button is pushed.

d) When cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 ft

13.) In case of LAVATORY SMOKE

b) Consider Applying SMOKE REMOVAL checklist

c) Both a) and b) are correct

d) None of the above

a) All other aircraft

b) Other aircraft with an active transponder only.

c) Only other aircraft on the same ATC frequency.

d) As in a) and available +/ - 2700 FT from aircraft altitude.

a) Present position can be entered through the ADIRS CDU

c) Present position can be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU.

d) Both a) and c) are correct.

c) These are wrong messages. Ignore them.

d) None of the above

a) Yes, provided the Engine fire has been extinguished.

c) Engine restart can be attempted by referring the engine relight envelope

d) None of the above

a) Center tank fuel can be used by Gravity Fuel Feeding

b) Center tank fuel is unusable

d) None of the above

a) To keep the center of gravity as low as possible.

a) Batteries are charged by DC BAT BUS.

b) Batteries are charged by DC ESS BUS.

c) Batteries are not charged in Electrical Emergency configuration