Ae Reviewer Volume I

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AE Reviewer Volume I
BSBA (Central Luzon State University)
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BELONIO
AGRICULTURAL
ENGINEERING
AGRICULTURAL ENGINEERING COMPREHENSIVE

COMPREHENSIVE BOARD
EXAM REVIEWER
BOARD EXAM REVIEWER Volume I

Volume I
Agricultural Power, Machinery, and
Allied Subjects
Alexis T. Belonio
UNIVERSITY PRESS Department of Agricultural Engineering and

Central Philippine University Environmental Management
Iloilo City, Philippines College of Agriculture
Central Philippine University
Iloilo City, Philippines
CPU
Press
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2004
AGRICULTURAL
ENGINEERING
COMPREHENSIVE BOARD
EXAM REVIEWER
Volume I
Agricultural Power, Machinery, and
Allied Subjects
Alexis T. Belonio
Department of Agricultural Engineering

and Environmental Management
College of Agriculture
Central Philippine University
Iloilo City, Philippines
2004

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The Author:
Alexis T. Belonio is a Professional Agricultural Engineer. Presently, he is an
Associate Professor and Chairman of the Department of Agricultural Engineering and
Environmental Management, College of Agriculture, Central Philippine University,
Iloilo City. He finished his Bachelor of Science in Agricultural Engineering and
Master of Science degrees from Central Luzon State University, Muñoz, Nueva Ecija.
He has been deeply involved in teaching, research, project development, and
entrepreneurial activity on various agricultural engineering projects since 1983.
He was awarded by the Philippine Society of Agricultural Engineers (PSAE) as Most

Outstanding Agricultural Engineer in the field of Farm Power and Machinery and by
the Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) as Outstanding Professional in the
field of Agricultural Engineering in 1993. In 1997, he was awarded by the TOYM
Foundation and the Jerry Roxas Foundation as the Outstanding Young Filipinos
(TOYF) in the field of Agricultural Engineering. He is presently a PSAE Fellow
Member.
As a dedicated professional, he serves as technical consultant to various agricultural

machinery manufacturers in Region VI. He also serves as a Reviewer of the TGIM
Foundation Review Center on the field of Agricultural Power, Machinery and Allied
Subjects, and Agricultural Processing, Structures and Allied Subjects since 1998. He
has written and published several research and technical papers .
Acknowledgement:
The author is very much thankful to the Lord God Almighty who inspired him to
prepare this material for the graduates of agricultural engineering who will take the
Professional Agricultural Engineering Licensure Examination.
He also wishes to acknowledge Dr. N. Orcullo for the encouragement to serve as a

reviewer for the aspiring agricultural engineers at the TGIM Review Center , Manila.
To Salve and their children: Mike, Happy, Humble, Jireh, Justly, Tenderly, and
Wisdom for their prayer and support.

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Trial Edition PREFACE
This book, Agricultural Engineering Comprehensive Board Exam

Reviewer Volume I was prepared primarily for the agricultural
engineering students and graduate who are preparing for the licensure
examination for the professional agricultural engineers.
The contents of the book are series of questions and problems to make
the students recall the fundamental theories and concepts in agricultural
engineering. Most questions are tricky and practical in nature to test
whether the students has digested the principles in each of the different
subject matter in agricultural engineering. At the end of the book, the
answer key for each question and problem are provided.
This is the first of the three volumes of the Reviewer. The content deals
with the power sources in agriculture, the different agricultural machines
and equipment for production and post production operation , the design
and manufacturing aspects of the machines, and the mechanization and
management aspect.
This book is still in draft form and is produced in limited copies.

Additional items will be included in the future to make this material
more comprehensive. Comments and suggestions are welcome for the
improvement of this manuscript.
God bless and may this book become useful to you at the moment!
ALEXIS T. BELONIO
Copyright  2004 by Alexis T. Belonio
No part of this book is allowed to be photocopied or reproduced in any form

without any written permission from the author.

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1. A hand operated tractor which is suitable for both primary and 6. Weight transfer means
secondary tillage used when field has been soaked for at least half a. to move paddy from the field to the granary
a day to soften the soil. b. to transfer torrens title from the landlord to the tenant
a. power tiller c. to shift implement’s weight to the tractor’s drive wheel in
b. puddling-type floating tiller order to improve traction
c. reaper d. none of the above
d. none of the above
7. A tractor pulls a 1.0 meter wide heavy duty offset disk harrow at
2. Optimum axle speed for puddling-type floating tiller. an operating speed of 6 kph. What is the theoretical field capacity
a. 100 rpm of the machine?
b. 250 rpm a. 0.6 ha/hr
c. 340 rpm b. 0.06 ha/hr
d. none of the above c. 6 ha/hr
3. It is the ratio of the drawbar power and the wheel axle power.
a. lugging efficiency 8. Automatic Draft Control in a modern farm tractor:
b. traction efficiency a. automatically controls the amount of air passing through the
c. mechanical efficiency radiator to regulate the operating temperature of the engine
d. none of the above b. positions the implement at a constant height or depth relative to
the tractor
4. The sum of all resistance acting on the tractor c. is the hydraulic implement hitch system which automatically
a. coefficient of traction raises or lowers a soil engaging implement to maintain its draft
b. running resistance at a pre-selected value
c. rolling resistance d. none of the above
9. An international testing center for tractor.
5. Running resistance of a tractor includes a. International Rice Research Institute
a. rolling resistance b. NEBRASKA
b. air and acceleration resistance c. International Farm Machinery Institute
c. slope resistance d. none of the above
d. all of the above
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10. When a machine is driven directly from the shaft of a power 15. A universal joint is:
source, the power is transmitted using: a. a connector which can be used on all brands of tractor
a. gear drive b. used to transmit power between two intersecting shafts usually
b. sprocket and chain drive when the angle between them is variable
c. direct drive c. a prohibited drug used universally
d. none of the above d. none of the above
11. Belt size designation for agricultural V-belt is: 16. A diesel engine that operates at 2500 rpm will be used to drive an
a. A, B, C, D, E irrigation pump which should turn at 1000 rpm. The pulley
b. HA, HB, HC, HD, HE diameter for the pump is 4 inches. What is the recommended
c. AA-BB-CC-DD-EE pulley for the engine?
d. none of the above a. 2 in.
b. 4 in.
12. It is a gripping device between power source. c. 10 in.
a. clutch d. none of the above
b. chain
c. springs 17. An irrigation pump shall be driven by a single cylinder engine.
d. none of the above The set-up has the following data: Engine rpm=2200, Pump
rpm=1800, Diameter of Engine Pulley=25 cm, what should the
13. Machine element that transmit torque and power. diameter of the second pulley be?
a. pulley a. 35.05 cm.
b. bearing b. 30.55 cm
c. shaft c. 53.05 cm
14. It is used to fasten shaft pulleys and hubs of gears together. 18. The length of a flat-belt pulley drive with the following data is:
a. bolt Diameter of first pulley=300 mm, diameter of second pulley=400
b. springs mm, center distance of the pulley shaft=10 meters.
c. keys a. 20.15 m
d. none of the above b. 21.05 m
c. 25.01 m
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19. A corn sheller cylinder will be driven by 10 hp diesel engine thru 23. A type of plow that is widely adapted in breaking different types
a V-belt drive. The engine has a speed of 1800 rpm while the of soil for turning and covering crop residues.
required speed of the corn sheller is 650 rpm. The effective a. rotary plow
diameter of the driver pulley is 12 inches. What should be the b. moldboard plow
diameter of the driven pulley? c. disk plow
a. 25 in. d. all of the above
b. 33 in.
c. 42 in. 24. The power required in pulling an implement.
d. none of the above a. wheel power
b. brake power
20. In the given problem in item above, what is the required length of c. drawbar power
V-belt if the center distance between pulleys is 60 in. d. none of the above
a. 169 in.
b. 192.5 in. 25. A tillage equipment which displaces and shatters soil, used to
c. 210 in. reduce soil strength and to bury or mix plant materials and
d. none of the above fertilizers in the tilled layer.
a. primary tillage equipment
21. If the belt has a capacity rating of 4.5 hp per belt, how many belts b. secondary tillage equipment
are recommended for the drive? c. seeding and planting equipment
a. 1 belt d. none of the above
b. 2 belts
c. 4 belts 26. A tillage implement consisting of two or four gangs of concave
d. none of the above disks.
a. disk plow
22. What is the recommended shaft diameter for the drive in item b. disk harrow
above? c. cultivator
a. ½ in. d. none of the above
b. ¾ in.
c. 1 in. 27. A tillage implement which shatters the soil without complete
d. none of the above burial or mixing of surface materials.
a. chisel plow
b. lister plow
c. disk plow
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28. Mechanical manipulation of soil for any purpose. 33. Minimum soil manipulation necessary for crop production or for
a. land grading meeting tillage requirements under existing soil condition.
b. tillage a. no-tillage planting
c. earth moving b. much tillage
d. none of the above c. minimum tillage
29. A procedure in which planting is made directly into an essentially
unprepared seedbed. 34. A tool which cuts plants materials and soil ahead of another tool.
a. zero tillage a. coulter
b. no-tillage planting b. jointer
c. reduced tillage c. injector
d. none of the above d. two of the above
30. The pushing or rolling of soil by a steeply inclined blade. 35. The force to propel an implement in the direction of travel.
a. bulldozing a. draft
b. chiselling b. drawbar horsepower
c. subsoiling c. side draft
31. A secondary tillage operation which pulverizes, smoothens, and 36. The angle, in a vertical plane perpendicular to the direction of
packs the soil during seedbed preparation and also controls weeds. travel, between a centralized tool or reference axis and the soil
a. harrowing surface.
b. listing a. tilt angle
c. chiselling b. lift angle
d. none of the above c. side angle
32. A tillage and land forming operation using a tool which splits the
soil and turns two furrows laterally in opposite directions, thereby 37. It is deep chiselling below 16 in. for the purpose of loosening soil
providing a ridge-and-furrow soil configuration. for root growth and/or water movement.
a. listing a. ridging
b. harrowing b. chiselling
c. chiselling c. subsoiling
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38. It is the part of the moldboard plow that receives the furrow slice 42. A type of implement type which is supported by two or three
from the share and turns to break, crush, and pulverize the soil. wheels and is hitched to the drawbar of the tractor where it is
a. share being pulled.
b. shin a. integral-mounted
c. moldboard b. trailing
d. all of the above c. semi-integral
39. The part of the moldboard plow which is used to cut the soil.
a. share 43. A type of plow which is equipped with plow bodies which turns
b. shin the furrow slice to one side only.
c. moldboard a. one-way plow
d. all of the above b. two-way plow
c. two of the above
40. It is a part of the plow bottom which helps to counteract the side d. none of the above
pressure exerted by the furrow slice.
a. shin 44. A type of plow which has two sets of bodies mounted
b. landside symmetrically on a share frame which can be rotated over 180
c. share degrees along the longitudinal axis.
d. none of the above a. reversible plow
b. one-way plow
41. A type of implement which is directly attached to the tractor and c. lister plow
its power lift is dependent upon the tractor engine for its general d. none of the above
operation.
a. semi-integral 45. The draft of a plow is dependent on the:
b. integral-mounted a. size of the plow
c. training or pull b. plowing depth
d. none of the above c. type of soil
d. all of the above
46. The factors that affect the draft of the plow:

a. soil condition
b. hitch to the tractor
c. topography
d. all of the above
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47. Percentage of work done in pulling an average plow. 52. What is the force required to pull a single moldboard plow on a
a. 50 % clay loam soil having a width and depth of cut of 30 cm and 15
b. 18 % cm, respectively. Soil draft is 8 psi.
c. 30% a. 314 kg
d. none of the above b. 253 kg
c. 157 kg
48. Percentage of work of plow used in cutting furrow slice. d. none of the above
a. 43%
b. 58% 53. If the plow above has an average speed of 5 km/hr, what is the
c. 24% drawbar horsepower of the plow.
d. none of the above a. 4.6 hp
b. 3.4 hp
49. Percentage of work of plow used in turning slice of soil. c. 5.1 hp
a. 34% d. none of the above
b. 25%
c. 60% 54. A type of plow designed to reduce friction by making a rolling
d. none of the above bottom instead of slides along the furrow.
a. moldboard
50. A point in which all the horizontal and vertical forces in the plow b. rotary plow
meets. c. disk plow
a. side draft d. none of the above
b. center of resistance
c. center of gravity 55. A primary-tillage plow used for small rice farm.
d. none of the above a. moldboard
b. rotary
51. Drawbar horsepower is a factor of: c. spiral
a. force exerted by plow d. all of the above
b. speed of plow
c. all of the above 56. A primary- tillage plow for rice farming that is attached in
d. none of the above replacement to the cage wheel of a power tiller.
a. rotary
b. spiral
c. disk
d. all of the above
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57. An angle of the disk plow in reference to the vertical plane. 62. A plow that is used to break up plow sole.
a. tilt angle a. chisel plow
b. disk angle b. lister plow
c. all of the above c. subsoiler
58. An angle of the disk plow in reference to the direction of travel of 63. A secondary-tillage implement which stirs the soil using multiple
the plow. number of disk blade arranged on a gang.
a. tilt angle a. spike tooth harrow
b. disk angle b. disk harrow
c. all of the above c. two of the above
59. A plow that combines the primary and secondary tillage at the 64. A gang arrangement on a disk harrow consisting of two gangs of
same time. It is used to cut and to pulverize the soil. disk placed end to end which throws the soil in opposite direction.
a. disk plow a. double-action
b. rotary plow b. single-action
c. chisel plow c. offset
e. all of the above d. none of the above
60. The power requirement of a rotary tiller for primary tillage. 65. A gang arrangement often called as “tandem harrow”.
a. 50 kW/m a. double-action
b. 30 kW/m b. single-action
c. 70 kW/m c. offset
d. all of the above d. none of the above
61. A plow primarily for loosening the soil. 66. A gang arrangement in which the harrow is not centrally located
a. lister plow with respect to the tractor position.
b. disk plow a. double-action
c. chisel plow b. single-action
d. all of the above c. offset
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67. Factors that influence the depth of penetration of disk harrow. 72. The disk angle that will give the minimum draft for a disk plow
a. angle of disk for a given width of cut is:
b. angle of hitch a. 30-35 deg.
c. size of disk b. 40-45 deg.
d. all of the above c. 45-50 deg.
68. A trailing harrow that is hitched too high to the drawbar of the
tractor will… 73. Seeding directly into previously undisturbed soil.
a. have too deep penetration a. much tillage
b. have too shallow penetration b. no-till
c. have right penetration c. minimum tillage
69. The actual coverage rate by an implement based on the total field 74. A tillage operation traditionally performed in preparing a seedbed
time. for a given crop grown in a given geographical area.
a. field efficiency a. conventional tillage
b. effective field capacity b. conservation tillage
c. theoretical field capacity c. strip tillage
70. A moldboard plow has: 75. A primary tillage operation which manipulates the soil to a greater
a. lower draft than disk plow depth than 300 mm.
b. higher draft than disk plow a. reservoir tillage
c. equal draft than disk plow b. deep tillage
d. all of the above c. ridge tillage
71. By increasing the disk angle, the penetration of a disk plow,
a. will be improved 76. An implement with integral power unit designed to provide both
b. will be the same mobility and power for performing agricultural operation.
c. will become poor a. mounted implement
d. none of the above b. self-propelled machine
c. trailed-mounted implement
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77. A rotary tiller has 2 m operating width. If the tractor runs at a 81. A single-bottom moldboard plows on a clay loam soil (8 psi draft)
speed of 2 km/hr, the theoretical field capacity of the machine is: having an effective width of cut of 0.3 m. and a depth of cut of 15
a. 4.0 ha/hr cm. What is the force exerted by a plow?
b. 0.4 ha/hr a. 230 kg
c. 0.04 ha/hr b. 253 kg
d. none of the above c. 310 kg
78. The field capacity of the rotary tiller was measured at 0.23 ha/hr.
If the operating width and speed of the machines are 1.5 m. and 2 82. What is the drawbar horsepower of the plow in item above if the
kph, respectively, the field efficiency of the tiller is: plowing speed is 5 kph?
a. 64% a. 4.6 hp
b. 77% b. 3.4 hp
c. 85% c. 7.4 hp
79. The effective field capacity of the rotary tiller tilling theoretically 83. A 3-bottom plow is plowing at a speed of 8 kph. The effective
at 0.4 ha/hr for an efficiency of 85% is: width per plow bottom is 25 cm. If the plowing efficiency is 80%,
a. 0.34 ha/hr what is the theoretical field efficiency?
b. 0.24 ha/hr a. 0.4 ha/hr
c. 0.43 ha/hr b. 0.6 ha/hr
d. none of the above c. 0.7 ha/hr
80. The effective field capacity of 2 moldboard plows having 25 cm
width each plowing at a speed of 7 km/hr for a field efficiency of 84. The effective field capacity of the plow in item above is:
80% is: a. 0.48 ha/hr
a. 0.20 ha/hr b. 0.53 ha/hr
b. 0.28 ha/hr c. 0.72 ha/hr
c. 0.32 ha/hr d. none of the above
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85. What is the required drawbar pull for a 5-meter tractor drawn spike 89. An equipment used to place seed in a furrow.
tooth harrow with a specific draft of 89 kg/m? a. planter
a. 345 kg b. seeder
b. 445 kg c. broadcaster
c. 500 kg d. all of the above
90. An equipment used to place plant parts to a prepared furrow.
86. What is the drawbar-horsepower of the implement in item above if a. planter
it is running at a speed of 6 kph. b. seeder
a. 8 hp c. broadcaster
b. 10 hp d. all of the above
c. 23 hp
d. none of the above 91. A machine that prepares the soil, meters the seed, and positions
the seed in one operation.
87. Headland is: a. broadcaster
a. the strip of the land at the ends of the field used for turning by b. drill
field machinery c. field distributor
b. a piece of land owned and tilled by the head of family d. none of the above
c. land at the top of the hill
d. none of the above 92. A machine, which is cylindrical in shape, designed for planting
pre-germinated rice seed in rows.
88. In a 200-hectare corn project, the field has to be tilled in 30 days. a. broadcaster
What size of heavy-duty offset-disk harrow should be selected if b. drum seeder
the tractor to be used operates at 5 kph. Assume a 75% field c. jab planter
efficiency and an 8-hour working day. d. none of the above
a. 1.5 m
b. 2.2 m 93. Determine the number of plants for a 2-hectare farm planted with
c. 2.0 m corn with a spacing of 25 cm x 45 cm.
d. none of the above a. 150,000 plants
b. 177,777 plants
c. 185, 877 plants
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94. A scattering of seeds on the surface of prepared soil. 99. A mechanically-operated machine that removes weeds or grasses
a. drill seeding from the crops.
b. hill dropping a. seeder
c. broadcasting b. weeder
d. none of the above c. cultivator
95. It is a planting method wherein seeds are deposited, either singly
or in group, in a water soluble tape under controlled condition. 100. It is the ratio between the number of weeds removed by the
a. precision planting weeder to the number of weeds present per unit area.
b. seed-tape planting a. weeding index
c. hill dropping b. weeding rate
d. none of the above c. weeding capacity
96. It is a machine that places rice seedlings at a proper spacing on a
well-prepared paddy soil. 101. A machine that breaks the liquid droplets of effective size and
a. rice seeder distributes them uniformly over the surface or space to be
b. rice transplanter protected, and regulates the amount of chemical solution to avoid
c. all of the above excessive application that might prove harmful or wasteful.
d. none of the above a. duster
b. sprayer
97. When Agricultural Engineer calibrates a sprayer, he: c. all of the above
a. measures the diameter of a sprayer tank d. none of the above
b. cleans the nozzles.
c. measures and adjust its application rate 102. Primary factor that affects the performance of the sprayer.
d. none of the above a. spray-particle size
b. spraying time
98. In the Philippines, rice is usually transplanted c. spray materials
a. for weed control reasons as the seedlings have a head start d. none of the above
over the weeds
b. to give employment to landless farm workers
c. to prevent rats and birds from eating the seeds.
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103. It is a sprayer apparatus consisting of pressure source and controls 107. A machine that cuts rice stalks and places them on a windrow
and specifically employing an over-the-crop boom with automizer where they are gathered and bound into sheaves and carried to a
arranged to provide uniform coverage of the treated surfaces. thresher.
a. boom sprayer a. scythe
b. knapsack sprayer b. stripper harvester
c. compressed-air sprayer c. reaper
d. none of the above d. combines
104. A field sprayer that is being carried at the back by means of a 108. A machine that involves the combing the grain from the plant
shoulder straps. while the plant remain anchored.
a. compressed-air sprayer a. reaper
b. knapsack sprayer b. stripper harvester
c. power sprayer c. combine harvester
d. none of the above d. all of the above
105. A mechanical or thermal device that produces a liquid dispersion 109. A machine that detaches the grain from a panicle.
having a volume median diameter of less than 50 um. a. reaper
a. knapsack sprayer b. thresher
b. aerosol generator c. sheller
c. compressed-air sprayer d. all of the above
e. none of the above
110. A machine used in separating the kernels from the cob.
106. An apparatus, which consists of a hopper, a metering unit, and a a. grader
distribution device, that uses either gravity, centrifugal force, or b. sheller
pendulum action to spread granules to the surface of the entire c. thresher
area to be treated. d. none of the above
a. broadcast spreader
b. granular applicator
c. power sprayer
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111. The part of a rice thresher which encloses the threshing cylinder 115. A type of throw-in thresher which moves the materials being
and allows the separation of the grains from the panicle. threshed in a helical manner around the threshing cylinder.
a. threshing cylinder a. axial-flow-thresher
b. oscillating screens b. through-flow thresher
c. concave c. hold-on thresher
112. A type of a mechanical thresher in which rice stalks are fed into 116. Factors affecting the power requirement of a rice thresher.
the threshing chamber while the stalks are either mechanically- or a. feeding rate
manually-held during threshing operation. b. moisture content
a. hold-on thresher c. length of straw
b. throw-in thresher d. all of the above
c. axial-flow thresher
d. none of the above 117. It is the ratio of the weight of clean threshed grain to the grain
input.
113. A type of mechanical rice thresher which detaches and separates a. threshing efficiency
the grains from the panicles by feeding the rice-in-stalks into the b. threshing recovery
machine. c. threshing output
a. axial-flow thresher d. all of the above
b. throw in thresher
c. hold-on thresher 118. The ratio of knife velocity to forward velocity of rice reaper.
d. none of the above a. 1.35
b. 2.55
114. A type of throw-in thresher wherein rice-in-stalks are fed in c. 0.55
between the cylinder and the concave and go directly out of the d. none of the above
threshing chamber.
a. axial-flow thresher
b. through-flow thresher
c. hold-on thresher
d. all of the above
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119. In a field demonstration of a rice reaper with 1.2-m cutter bar 123. A tillage or soil preparation in which plant residues are
performance showed that the average travel speed of the machine specifically left on or near the surface.
is 3 kph. The average width of cutter bar actually utilized is 1.0 m. a. strip tillage
Time lost in crossing the dike is 5 min/ha and 10 min/ha for b. mulch tillage
repair. Turning and other idle time is 10 % of the effective c. optimum tillage
operating time while removing field obstruction and clogging is d. none of the above
15 min/ha. What is the field capacity of the machine?
a. 0.36 ha/hr 124. A steel containing 0.035-0.4 % carbon and is widely used for
b. 0.25 ha/hr production of steel plate, structural steel, bars, etc.
c. 0.18 ha/hr a. mild steel
d. none of the above b. hard steel
c. soft-centered steel
120. What is the effective field capacity of the machine in item above? d. all of the above
a. 0.25 ha/hr
b. 0.30 ha/hr 125. The center to center distance between overlapping broadcast
c. 0.35 ha/hr applications.
d. none of the above a. effective width
b. swath
121. What is the time lost in turning and other idle time per hectare of c. broadcasting width
the reaper in item above? d. all of the above
a. 10 min
b. 17 min 126. The portion of a combine comprising the mechanism for gathering
c. 20 min crops.
d. none of the above a. crop gatherer
b. star wheel
122. It is the ratio between the mass of fuel consumed per unit of time c. header
and the corresponding measured power. d. all of the above
a. specific fuel consumption
b. fuel to mass ratio
c. fuel consumption rate
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127. The horizontal distance, perpendicular to the direction of travel, 132. In trade circles, CIF stands for
an implement performs its intended function in one pass. a. Cash-In-Fist
a. implement width b. Cost, Insurance, and Freight
b. operating width c. Cost-In Freight
c. side draft d. None of the above
133. A clutch that is used to drive a machine element in only one
128. A gas, a liquid, or a solid used to propel or transport chemical. direction is
a. spray material a. slip clutch
b. spray nozzle b. overrunning clutch
c. carrier c. friction clutch
129. The portion of an implement designed to connect the implement 134. A clutch that limits the amount of torque or power that is
to the power source. transmitted through the shaft to the driven member.
a. connector a. slip clutch
b. clutch b. overrunning clutch
c. hitch c. friction clutch
130. The draft of implement in terms of force per unit area of tilled 135. The unbroken side of furrow is called
cross-section. a. dead furrow
a. implement draft b. furrow wall
b. specific draft c. back furrow
c. line draft d. none of the above
d. all of the above
136. It is a distinguishing symbol affixed to products by a manufacturer
131. Factor of Safety engineering science refers to: in order to identify them as his goods.
a. the excess amount of materials designed into a machine to a. trade name
ensure that it does not break down b. trade mark
b. the ratio of the ultimate strength of a material or component to c. brand name
the working stress it is expected to be subjected to d. all of the above
c. the safety of workers in the factory
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137. A name given by a manufacturer to its product to distinguish them 141. What is the total head loss in meters of the pump system in item
from the ones produced by other manufacturers. above.
a. trade mark a. 54.8 m
b. manufacturer’s name b. 48.5 m
c. brand name c. 84.5 m
138. Raise ridge formed when plowing starts in the middle of strip. 142. If a diesel engine will be used to drive the pump in item above,
a. back furrow what is the recommended horsepower for the engine? (80%
b. dead furrow engine efficiency)
c. furrow wall a. 80.9 hp
d. none of the above b. 85.5 hp
c. 60.8 hp
139. Open trench left during plowing when the strips are finished. d. none of the above
a. dead furrow
b. back furrow 143. If a gasoline engine will be used to drive the pump in item above,
c. furrow wall what is the power requirement? (70% engione efficiency)
d. none of the above a. 97.2 hp
b. 102.6 hp
140. One-thousand gallons per minute (1000 gpm) of water is to be c. 125.7 hp
pumped from a river to a farm 150-ft above the river. What is the d. none of the above
required horsepower to drive the pump considering a pumps
efficiency of 70 % and the friction and other losses of 20 % of the 144. A farmer wishes to spray his cotton plantation at a rate of 300
static head. gallons per hectare. Sixteen nozzles, 18 inches apart will be used.
a. 64.8 hp The froward speed of the tractor will be 5 kph. Compute the field
b. 68.4 hp capacity of the sprayer in hectare per hour.
c. 48.6 hp a. 5.6 ha/hr
d. none of the above b. 3.6 ha/hr
c. 4.7 ha/hr
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145. What is the required pump capacity for the sprayer above? 149. What is the theoretical field capacity of a tandem disk harrow
a. 23.5 gpm pulled by 1.5 m wide tractor running at a speed of 10 kph?
b. 18.3 gpm a. 1.5 ha/hr
c. 20.6 gpm b. 2.5 ha /hr
d. none of the above c. 5.1 ha/hr
146. A tractor operating at 3.5 mph develops a drawbar pull of 3000
pounds. Estimate the required drawbar horsepower for the tractor. 150. Operating width of the implement minus the overlap is
a. 28.0 hp a. implement width
b. 20.9 hp b. effective width
c. 19.8 hp c. operating width
147. The specific fuel consumption of a tractor is 0.3 lbs per BHP- 151. A soil-handling implement which turn uniform ridges of soil to
hour. If the heating value of the fuel is 19500 BTU/lb, what is the predetermined shape.
brake thermal efficiency? a. furrower
a. 35.4 % b. bed shaper
b. 54.3 % c. middle breaker
c. 43.5 % d. none of the above
152. When middle breaking will be carried out on the field
148. A corn plantation requires a population of 37,000 plants per a. a lister is needed to form a furrow between rows of plant
hectare. The average emergence is 90 % and the row spacing is to b. a ridge and furrow soil is made prior to planting
be 1.2 meters. If the seed are to be drilled, what should be the seed c. hard soil is broken at the middle to reduce its size
spacing? d. none of the above
a. 0.4 m
b. 0.3 m 153. When a material is to be inserted into the soil, the tillage to be
c. 0.2 m used is
d. none of the above a. jointer
b. coulter
c. injector
d. all of the above
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154. When a disk plow is set on vertical position, the plow will 159. A self-propelled implement
a. penetrate a. requires a tractor in order to do its function
b. will not penetrate b. requires a stationary engine in order to do its function
c. remain in the position c. does not require a tractor to operate
155. A tillage system which consist of fewer or less energy intensive 160. A booklet provided by manufacturers in which the step-by-step
optimum compared with conventional tillage. procedure for repair or disassembly of parts are given.
a. minimum tillage a. operator’s manual
b. no-till tillage b. technical manual
c. reduce tillage c. product catalog
d. all of the above d. all of the above
156. When 30 % or less of the soil surface is tilled, the tillage operation 161. A booklet form provided by manufacturers in which adjustment,
employed is care and maintenance procedure, and safety of the machine are
a. minimum tillage indicated.
b. strip tillage a. operator’s manual
c. ridge tillage b. technical manual
d. all of the above c. product catalog
157. A soil-tool reaction in which soil slides over the surface of the
tillage tool without significant adhesion. 162. If hitch of a plow is placed above the vertical line of pull,
a. sliding a. there will be lifting action at front of the plow and its bottom
b. scouring will tend to run shallow particularly to hard ground
c. soil cutting b. the plow share will tend to worn out easily
d. none of the above c. the plow bottom will penetrate deeply
158. Agricultural tractors, self-propelled machines, implement
designed for field operation are examples of
a. farmstead equipment
b. agricultural field equipment
c. agricultural implement
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163. It is the line of pull that is straight from the center-of-load through 167. A type of power sprayer where the spray pressure is built up by
the point where the drawbar of the draft is attached to the drawbar the direct action of the pump on the liquid spray material
of the tractor. a. hydraulic sprayer
a. horizontal line draft b. blower sprayer
b. vertical line draft c. hydro-pneumatic sprayer
c. side draft d. all of the above
168. The size of a moldboard plow is determined
164. It is the line of draft that is straight line from the center of a. from the distance measured at the wing of the share to the land
resistance or load to the point where plow drawbar is attached to side
the tractor drawbar. b. from the width of the plow measured at the intersection of the
a. horizontal line draft share an the moldboard
b. vertical line draft c. from the width of the moldboard
c. side draft d. non of the above
169. Tractor tire used to propel as well as to provide good floatation is,
165. When the center-of-load of a plow is not on the same line of the a. implement tire
center of power b. traction tire
a. there will be a side draft. c. steering tire
b. tractor will be partly pulled sideways. d. all of the above
c. forces on the tractor will be carried by the rear of the tractor
wheel. 170. Bearings used for disk plow bottom are
d. all of the above a. tapered roller bearing
b. spherical roller bearing
166. The rate of planting, or pounds of seeds planted per acre that gives c. ball bearing
a desired quality of plants without thinning is d. none of the above
a. seeding rate
b. planting to stand 171. A type of implement that is used to be attached to the three-point
c. planting capacity hitch and hydraulic lift system of a tractor.
d. none of the above a. trailing implement
b. semi-mounted implement
c. mounted implement
d. all of the above
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172. A compartment provided for the harrow to aid in penetration. 177. To reduce the size of spray particle,
a. weight boxes a. increase the operating pressure of the sprayer.
b. ballast b. adjust the control valve opening of the sprayer.
c. ballast compartment c. adjust the opening of the spray nozzle.
173. If a sprocket is used for a chain, a sheave is used for … 178. A machine used to kill weed seeds by microwave heating during
a. flat belt weeding operation
b. gear a. zapper
c. v-belt b. microwave oven
d. all of the above c. flame thrower
d. all of the above
174. Substance added to spray as stickers, stabilizers and conditioning
agent 179. A device used to hold spray nozzle close to the soil so those
a. water chemicals can be sprayed on young grass in the plant row.
b. petroleum gas a. spray shield
c. gelatin b. spray boom
d. all of the above c. spray holder
175. Pump recommended for a sprayer that is used for abrasive spray
materials 180. It is used between the cultivator sweep and the plant row to
a. centrifugal pump prevent soil from covering small young plants.
b. diaphragm pump a. shield
c. gear pump b. fender
d. all of the above c. spread bar
176. Approximate pressure used in spraying weedicide.
a. 10-25 psi 181. When soil is thrown to the plant during cultivation, the operation
b. 25-40 psi is
c. 40-60 psi a. hilling-up
d. none of the above b. barring-off
c. listing
d. all of the above
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182. When soils are thrown away from the plants during cultivation, 187. A secondary tillage implement consisting of one or two in-line
the operation is gang rollers used for crushing soil clods and compacting the soil.
a. hilling-up a. roller tiller
b. barring-off b. packer
c. sweeping c. roller harrow
183. It is the true point of hitch or center-of-pull of an implement. 188. A primary or secondary tillage implement used for broadcast or
a. center of power for strip tillage and also used as chemical incorporators prior to
b. center of resistance planting.
c. center of load a. roller tiller
d. all of the above b. roller harrow
c. packer
184. The effective drawbar pull of the tractor is reduced for every d. none of the above
percent of grade by
a. 0.1 % 189. It is a plow consisting of a strongly constructed frame and a
b. 1 % vertical leg drawn to a subsoil and the bullet-shape attachment
c. 10 % creates a tube like cavity acting as a drainage channel.
d. none of the above a. subsoiler
b. bullet plow
185. An instrument used to measure the draft of a plow c. mole plow
a. dynamometer d. all of the above
b. spring scale
c. pressure gauge 190. In designing a rice thresher, the most important factors affecting
d. all of the above threshing efficiency is
a. rpm of the cylinder
186. The maximum friction in the moldboard plow is b. peripheral speed of the cylinder
a. at the point of share c. diameter of the cylinder
b. between the share and the moldboard d. none of the above
c. at the moldboard
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191. A kind of chemical used for spraying which form a finely-divided 195. Growing of more than one crop on the same land in one year
solid particles when mixed with water. a. mixed crop
a. emulsion b. multiple cropping
b. suspension c. inter-cropping
c. solution d. none of the above
d. all of the above
196. Growing of two or more crops simultaneously and intermingled
192. An insecticide that kills insects when insects suck on plant tissues with no row arrangement.
a. contact a. mixed cropping
b. stomach b. inter cropping
c. systemic c. multiple cropping
193. A hitch system for a tractor suitable for large, heavy implement 197. Growing of two or more crops in alternate rows.
for trailer a. inter-planting
a. three-point hitch system b. inter-cropping
b. drawbar hitch system c. inter-culture
c. semi-mounted hitch system d. all of the above
d. all of the above
198. It is a practice of planting short term annual crop with long-term
194. A tractor drive wheel under load rotates at 1200 revolution in annual or biennial crops.
passing a newly cultivated field. At no load, the tractor drive a. inter-planting
wheel is able to rotate at 1125 revolution. What is the percent b. inter-cropping
slippage of the tractor drive wheel? c. inter-culture
a. 5.6 % d. all of the above
b. 6.2
c. 8.1 % 199. It is the cultivation of one crop underneath a perennial crop.
d. none of the above a. inter-planting
b. inter-cropping
c. inter-culture
d. all of the above
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200. Application of chemical to a small restricted area, usually to 205. Application of chemical to the base of a tree around the trunk or
control the spread of pest. by injection into slasher or cuts.
a. spot treatment a. basal application
b. space application b. broadcast application
c. direct application c. band application
201. Dispersion of liquid or dry particles in air in such a manner that 206. Application of chemical in parallel strips leaving the area between
target pest are exposed to chemical. strips free of chemicals.
a. spot treatment a. basal application
b. space treatment b. broadcast application
c. direct application c. band application
202. Application of chemical to the stem, fruit, leaves, needles, or 207. Soil blocks or masses that are cut, sheared or broken loose by
blades of a plant. tillage tool.
a. direct application a. furrow slice
b. foliar application b. clod
c. space application c. loose soil
203. Application of chemical to a specific area such as row, bed, or at 208. It is a change in the value of a machine.
base of the plant a. cost reduction
a. direct application b. depreciation
b. spot treatment c. lost of value
c. space application d. none of the above
209. Actual rate performance of machine on land or crop processed in a
204. Application of chemical over entire area to be treated. given time based upon total field time.
a. basal application a. theoretical field capacity
b. band application b. effective field capacity
c. broadcast application c. field efficiency
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210. The rate of performance obtained if a machine performs its 215. It is used to protect tractor operator from dust, noise, rain and
function 100 % of the time of a given operating speed using 100 heat.
% of its theoretical width. a. operator’s shield
a. theoretical field capacity b. chassis
b. effective field capacity c. cab
c. field capacity d. none of the above
216. A device that transfer seed from the seedbox to the coulter tube at
211. The amount paid for hiring equipment and operating services to a fixed rate
perform a certain task. a. seed feeder
a. custom cost b. seed distributor
b. operating cost c. seed metering device
c. variable cost d. all of the above
217. A device at the header of a combine for severing the plant stalk.
212. The ratio of engine power used in performing an operation to a. cutting mechanism
engine power available. b. star wheel
a. field load tractor c. pickup
b. engine efficiency d. none of the above
c. engine performance ratio
d. all of the above 218. A device for gathering crops on a windrow of a combine.
a. header
213. The amount of any material applied per unit treated by a sprayer. b. pickup
a. through put rate c. star wheel
b. application capacity d. none of the above
c. application rate
d. all of the above 219. A transport machine used in agriculture suitably designed for
coupling to an agricultural tractor or self-propelled combine.
214. A sprayer designed to charge the spray droplet so that there is a a. agricultural wagon
powerful attraction between the plants and the charged droplet. b. agricultural loader
a. electromagnetic sprayer c. agricultural trailer
b. electrolytic sprayer d. none of the above
c. electrostatic sprayer
d. all of the above
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220. A harvest residue discharged from cleaning devices of a combine. 224. In ASAE, safety code for laboratory equipment and typical
a. foreign matters application, the safety yellow color stands for
b. cut straw a. danger stop
c. chaffs b. warning
d. none of the above c. caution
221. What is the application rate of a granular broadcast spreader
required to apply 1 ton of manure at a distance of 1000 meters. 225. A safety gray color at the ASAE safety code is used for
The machine swath is 2 meters. a. floor or work area around machines and equipment
a. 500 kg/ha b. traffic and housekeeping areas
b. 5000 kg/ha c. areas with radiation hazard
c. 50,000 kg/ha d. all of the above
226. When pipeline is painted with green and white color, the safety
222. An external shaft on an agricultural tractor other than the PTO code means that the pipe contains
which provides rotational power to implements that are usually a. liquid of inherently low hazard
front and side mounted. b. fir extinguishing materials
a. belt drive shaft c. flammable or explosive materials
b. secondary PTO d. all of the above
c. auxiliary PTO
d. none of the above 227. The standard length of stroke of hydraulic remote control
cylinders for trailing-type agricultural implement is
223. A rotating device located inside the hopper of gravity flow a. 6 to 12 inches
applicator and broadcast spreaders to enhance delivery of granules b. 8 to 16 inches
to the adjustable orifice of the machine. c. 10 to 20 inches
a. mixer d. none of the above
b. stirrer
c. agitator 228. Minimum thrust per drawbar horsepower of hydraulic remote
d. none of the above control cylinder for trailing type agricultural implement.
a. 68 kg
b. 78 kg
c. 88 kg
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229. Assume that you are the Agricultural Engineer of a 500-hectare 233. The perpendicular distance between the upper hitch point and the
corn farm with soil type that gives 10 psi draft when plowing at a common axis of the lower hitch point of a tractor.
speed of 4 km/hr. Compute the drawbar horsepower required to a. mast height
pull a three-disk plow with effective cut of 12 inches per disk at a b. hitch vertical height
plowing depth of 6 inches. c. stud height
a. 14.3 hp d. none of the above
b. 23.4 hp
c. 34.5 hp 234. The distance between lower hitch point measured at the base of
d. none of the above the lower hitch stud, or the distance between the inner most
restraining means provided on the implement.
230. How many hectares in item above does a tractor pulling a three a. lower hitch-point spread
disk plow would be able to plow in one day (16 hours operation) b. lower hitch point distance
assuming a total time loss of 30%? c. lower hitch point clearance
a. 2 ha/day d. none of the above
b. 4 ha/day
c. 6 ha/day 235. ASAE classification for slow moving vehicle such as animal-
d. none of the above drawn or motorize conveyance, including implements in tow
should not exceed a travel speed of
231. How many days in item above are required to plow the 500- a. 30 kph
hectare farm using ten units of the same kind of tractor and plow? b. 40 kph
a. 8.3 days c. 50 kph
b. 12.5 days d. none of the above
c. 15.4 days
d. none of the above 236. For safety purposes, slow-moving vehicle such as agricultural
machines must be provided with
232. What is the amount of fuel consumed in liters per 16 hours day in a. rear bumper to protect the machine from impact
item above, of one tractor unit if the specific fuel consumption is 1 b. identification emblem to guide motorist that the machine is
lb/dhp-hr and the specific gravity of the fuel is 0.8? slow-moving
a. 69.7 liters c. signal light when travelling
b. 130.0 liters d. none of the above
c. 95.1 liters
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237. What is the cutting width of the single disk harrow set at 18 241. The identification of the given tire with its maximum
degree working angle containing 20 disks spaced at 30 cm? Disk recommended load when used in specific type service.
diameter is 40 cm. a. tire rating
a. 553.5 cm b. tire lug rating
b. 453.7 cm c. ply rating
c. 540.6 cm d. all of the above
242. A machine that is used with small plow and harrow designed for
238. If the harrow in item above is a tandem disk harrow, what is the rice farming operation.
cutting width of the machine? a. puddling-type floating tiller
a. 589.5cm b. power tiller
b. 567.4 cm c. hydro tiller
c. 530.6 cm d. all of the above
243. A ribbed type v-belt where the ribs are positioned along the belt
239. A 30-disk double-offset-disk harrow is travelling at a speed of 10 length.
kph. If the disk diameter is 40 cm spaced at 30cm, what is the a. V-ribbed belt
cutting width of the harrow? b. Cogged belt
a. 860.5 cm c. Timing belt
b. 875.4 cm d. None of the above
c. 850.3 cm
d. none of the above 244. The center of resistance of moldboard plow is located
a. at the center of moldboard
240. What is the theoretical field capacity of the harrow in item above? b. at the intersection of moldboard and share
a. 8.6 ha/hr c. at the center of share
b. 8.7 ha/hr d. none of the above
c. 8.5 ha/hr
d. none of the above 245. ASAE stands for
a. American Society of Automotive Engineers
b. American Society of Agricultural Engineers
c. American Society of Air-conditioning Engineers
d. All of the above
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246. The optimum puddler speed for puddling-type floating tiller is 251. If soil clods are needed to be inverted during plowing, the
a. 100-150 rpm agricultural engineer will recommend a
b. 200-250 rpm a. disc plow
c. 300-350 rpm b. moldboard plow
d. none of the above c. all of the above
247. Part of soil profile exploited by the roots of the plant. 252. An agricultural engineer will recommend in order to loosen the
a. root bed soil during plowing, a
b. root zone a. subsoiler
c. tillage zone b. field cultivator
d. none of the above c. chisel plow
248. The soil profile modified by tillage or amendments for use by
plant roots 253. It is a factor which consider the physical condition, heart-beat
a. root bed ratio, and body weight of a person when operating a machine.
b. root zone a. humanistic factor
c. tillage zone b. mechanical operation factor
d. none of the above c. ergonomic factor
d. all of the above
249. When plowing requires for the soil to be incorporated or mixed
with grasses and weeds, as an Agricultural Engineer you will 254. Ten-hectares of rice farm is to be harvested manually in 2 days
recommend using sickle (8hr/day). If the field efficiency is 80 % and the man-
a. disc plow hour/hectare for harvesting is 60, how many persons will be
b. rotary plow needed to harvest the rice?
c. moldboard plow a. 27 persons
d. all of the above b. 37 persons
c. 47 persons
250. Manual transplanting of rice is advantageous over mechanical rice d. none of the above
transplanter in terms of
a. intelligence
b. dexterity
c. cost
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255. Compute the power developed by 600 kg horse pulling 80-kg load 260. Power take-off rpm of lawn mower and garden ride-on tractors.
at a speed of 0.9 m/sec. a. 1000 rpm
a. 0.94 hp b. 540 rpm
b. 0.87 hp c. 2000 rpm
c. 0.99 hp d. none of the above
261. A frame for protection of operators of compact utility tractors to
256. It is a part of seeder that eventually distributes seed in rows. minimize the possibility of serious crushing injury to the operator
a. metering device resulting from accidental upset.
b. drive wheel a. roll bar
c. seed hopper b. tractor shield frame
d. none of the above c. roll-over protection structure
257. It is a machine which has one or more elements that rotates about
a vertical axis and cut grass by impact. 262. Maximum tire inflation pressure for agricultural implement.
a. rotary mower a. 40 psi
b. grass cutter b. 60 psi
c. power scythe c. 100 psi
258. The pivotal point of connection of hitch to the tractor or a center 263. A sprayer containing 100 liters of mixture operates at a nozzle
of the articulated connection between link and the implement. discharge of 0.2 liters per minute per nozzle. If the sprayer boom
a. link point consist of 6 nozzles, what time does the sprayer mixture be
b. hitch pin changed?
c. hitch point a. 2.5 hrs
d. all of the above b. 1.39 hrs
c. 6.8 hrs
259. A part of mechanism that they may be added to a functional power d. none of the above
unit, not utilizing its mechanical power for the purpose of
enhancing the performance of that unit.
a. auxillary unit
b. spare parts
c. accessory
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264. It is a structural member of an implement where tillage tool to be 268. Holding capacity of mechanical dryer during testing as prescribed
a beam attached. by PAES should be based on the _____ and other accompanying
a. boom information such as moisture content and purity
b. shank a. volume
c. gang b. weight
d. none of the above c. density
d. None of the above
265. Warranty of parts and services for heated-air mechanical grain
dryer based on PAE Standard is within ____ after the acceptance of 269. Milling test of samples during the test of mechanical grain dryer
the machine. based on the PAES standard test should be conducted at least _____
a. 6 months after drying test.
b. 12 months a. 24 hours
c. 18 months b. 48 hours
d. 24 months c. 36 hours
e. None of the above d. None of the above
266. It is the ratio of the heat released by the fuel of a heated air 270. Thermometer sensors during testing of agricultural machines
mechanical dryer to the theoretical heat available from the fuel. should be partially shielded to minimize ______.
a. Burner efficiency a. mechanical damage of thermometer sensor
b. Furnace efficiency b. error from heat of radiation effect
c. Combustion efficiency c. error from conduction of heat from wall of the machine
d. None of the above d. None of the above
267. In testing agricultural machines as prescribed in the PAES standard

of test, it should be operated by ______. 271. The minimum number of trial(s) required in testing heated air
a. Farmers mechanical grain dryer as specified in PAES.
b. Traders/Cooperatives a. one
c. Manufacturer(s) representative b. two
d. Accredited Testing Organization c. three
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272. Time interval of measurement of test parameters in heated air 276. All rotating parts of agricultural machines as provided in the PAE
mechanical dryer as specified in the PAES Test Method. Standards should be _______
a. 15 minutes a. rigid
b. 30 minutes b. dynamically balanced
c. 45 minutes c. uniform in speed
d. 60 minutes d. None of the above
273. Commonly used threshing cylinder for axial flow rice thresher. 277. Which of the following parts are treated to be dangerous as stated
a. peg-tooth in Philippine Agricultural Engineering Standards for ensuring
b. rasp bar safety in agricultural machineries.
c. wire loop a. Pulleys
d. None of the above b. clutches
c. coupling
274. The shaft rpm of a rice thresher will need to be _____ if the d. All of the above
diameter of the threshing cylinder is reduced.
a. increased 278. Recommended material in the manufacture of pin sleeve and hitch
b. reduced pin for walking type power tiller.
c. remain the same a. mild steel
d. None of the above b. cold-rolled steel
c. Spring steel
275. Warranty for the construction and durability of mechanical rice d. None of the above
thresher according to PAES standard shall be within _____ after the
purchased of the machine. 279. A centrifugal pump that develops a vacuum sufficient enough for
a. 6 months atmospheric pressure to force the liquid though the suction pipes
b. 12 months into the pump casing with out initially feeding the pump to create
c. 18 months suction.
d. 24 months a. pressure pump
e. None of the above b. self-priming pump
c. mixed flow pump
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280. A type of pump which develop most of the suction and discharge 284. This represents the interrelationship between capacity, head, power,
head by propelling or lifting action of the impeller vanes on the NPSH, and the efficiency of the pump.
water. a. pump characteristics
a. axial flow pump b. performance curve
b. Centrifugal pump c. pump laws
c. Mixed flow pump d. none of the above
285. It is the filling up of water in the pump to evacuate the entrapped
281. It is the formation of void spaces filled with water vapor due to air through a vent and create a liquid seal inside the casing.
local pressure drop and collapse as soon as the vapor bubbles reach a. Feeding
regions of high pressure. b. recharging
a. water hammer c. priming
b. cavitation d. None of the above
c. bubling
d. none of the above 286. The cylinder diameter of mechanical rice thresher is the measured
distance from _______.
282. A type of pump with vanes or impellers rotating inside a close a. the base of the threshing element passing through the shaft axis.
housing which draws water into the pump through a central inlet b. the tip of the threshing element passing though the shaft axis.
opening and forces the water out through a discharge outlet at the c. the outlet of the cylinder cover
periphery of the housing. d. none of the above
a. axial flow pump
b. centrifugal pump 287. The maximum moisture content of grain to be used for testing
c. mixed flow pump mechanical thresher should not be more than _____
d. none of the above a. 18%
b. 24%
283. A type of pump which combines some of the feature of both the c. 28 %
centrifugal and axial pump and in which head is developed partly d. None of the above
by the centrifugal force and partly by the lift of the vanes on the
water. 288. The grain-straw ratio for samples to be used for testing should be at
a. self-priming pump the ranged of ________.
b. diffuser-type centrifugal pump a. 0.35 to 0.50
c. mixed flow pump b. 0.50 to 0.65
d. none of the above c. 0.65 to 0.80
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289. The minimum number of hours required in testing rice thresher 292. What is the total variable cost in the item above using the following
based on PAE standards. additional data?
a. 0.5 hour Size of engine = 10 hp
b. 1 hour Specific fuel consumption = 0.85 lb/BHP-hr
c. 2 hours Cost of fuel = P13.60/liter
d. None of the above Fuel specific gravity = 0.76
Salary of Laborers = P100.00/day-person
290. A thresher has a capacity of 30 cavans per hour. Three men are
required to operate the thresher. The other data are as follows: a. 159, 882.00/year
Purchase price = P40, 000 including engine b. 234, 765.00/year
Utilization = 1, 500 hours per year, 8 c. 456,854.00/year
hours/day d. none of the above
Estimated life = 7 years
What is the depreciation cost using straight line method? 293. What is the threshing cost for the thresher above?
a. 6, 568.35/year a. P3.85/cavan
b. 3, 784.56/year b. P2.87/cavan
c. 5, 142.86/year c. P2.78/cavan
d. none of the above d. None of the above
291. What is the total fixed cost in the item above if the cost of money is 294. It is a metallic or synthetic lining for a hole which reduces or
21 % per annum? prevents abrasion between components of a machine.
a. 10, 542.86/year a. bearing
b. 13, 542.86/year b. bushing
c. 12, 542.86/year c. gasket
d. none of the above d. All of the above
295. A heat treatment method to increase the hardness of steel by rapid

cooling.
a. tempering
b. quenching
c. annealing
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296. A gas-metallic arc welding which uses inert gas shielding to 301. A drive where shafts are operating on a counter clockwise
produce a cleaner and sounder weld compared with conventional directions.
welding. a. open drive belt
a. gas welding b. chain and sprocket
b. MIG welding c. gears
c. TIG welding d. all of the above
d. all of the above
302. Adrive where shafts are operating in a uni-direction.
297. A widely used method of welding aluminum, copper, stainless a. gears
steel, and other difficult-to-weld metals. b. cross-belt
a. TIG welding c. chain and sprocket
b. MIG welding d. none of the above
c. gas welding
d. all of the above 303. A belt transmission suitable for cross-drive system.
a. v-belt
298. A device suitable for cutting stainless steel plate. b. timing v-belt
a. shear cutter c. flat belt
b. plasma cutter d. none of the above
c. acetylene gas cutter
d. all of the above 304. If the pulley to be driven requires to be turned in counterclockwise
direction, what drive system would you recommend?
299. Ductility which is one of the properties of metals refers to: a. open drive
a. its resistance to penetration b. quarter-turn drive
b. how much the material is deformed c. cross-drive
c. how much the material absorb impact before it breaks d. all of the above
d. all of the above
305. When one pulley is to be driven horizontally and the other pulley
300. A type of bearing used to restrain endwise motion of a turning is to be driven vertically, what drive system would you
shaft or withstand axial load. recommend?
a. ball bearing a. open drive
b. thrust bearing b. quarter turn drive
c. roller bearing c. cross drive
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306. It is a power transmission device used to deliver misaligned shaft. 311. Which of the following v-belt is larger and stronger?
a. gears a. type A
b. sprocket and chain b. type B
c. universal joint c. type C
307. It is a kind of steel used in making disk plow bottom. 312. Commonly used V-belt for agricultural operation in the
a. tool steel Philippines.
b. soft-centered steel a. type A
c. molybdenum steel b. type B
d. none of the above c. type C
d. all of the above
308. When welding deposit is applied to strengthen peg-tooth of a rice
thresher, this method of treating metal is used. 313. A service offered by manufacturers in repairing and replacing
a. heat treatment unintentionally damaged part of a machine to its customers for a
b. welding specified period.
c. hard facing a. manufacturing service
d. none of the above b. customer’s service
c. after-sales-service
309. Mixing of two or more substances wherein one of which is metal. d. all of the above
a. casting
b. forging 314. Cost of machine including shipment.
c. alloying a. free-on-board
d. none of the above b. freight-on-board
c. cost-in-freight
310. If some belts on multiple v-belt drive are worn out, it is d. none of the above
recommended that
a. worn-out belts should be immediately replaced 315. The strength, durability, and service of a farm machine depends
b. wait until all belts are worn-out before replacing the belts largely on
c. all belts should be replaced a. cost of material
d. none of the above b. weight of material
c. quality of material
d. all of the above
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316. A substance commonly used as coating to protect iron against 321. The smallest gears that are meshing together.
corrosion. a. spur
a. tin b. bevel
b. zinc c. pinion
c. aluminum d. all of the above
d. all of the above
322. A type of gear used for power-take off drive.
317. When buying flat belt, the common parameters used are a. worm gear
a. width and thickness b. spur gear
b. width and ply no. c. spline shaft gear
c. width and weight d. none of the above
323. If roller chain number 40 is to be replaced by no. 60, the strength
318. A v-belt whose specification is B-32 means. of chain will
a. type B with circumferential length of 32 inches a. decrease
b. type B with circumferential length of 32 cm b. increase
c. standard type v-belt whose strength is 32 times stronger than c. remain except the size
type B d. none of the above
324. The ASAE designation for adjustable speed v-belt is.
319. In a variable-pitch sheaves, the recommended belts used are a. HA to HD
a. double v-belt b. HAA to HCC
b. timing v-belt c. HI to HO
c. adjustable speed belt d. All of the above
325. What is the length of arc of a v-belt on a 6 inches sheaves whose
320. A device that gives mechanical advantage. angle subtended by the arc of belts is equal to 90 degree.
a. fulcrum a. 4.69 in
b. pulley b. 3.49 in.
c. wheel and axle c. 6.94 in.
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326. A component part of machine that transmits torque and speed is 331. If the desired rotation for two parallel shafts is counterclockwise,
a. bearing what flat-belt drive would you recommend?
b. shaft a. open drive
c. chain b. quarter turn drive
d. none of the above c. cross drive
d. all of the above
327. If the shaft of an engine rotates at the same speed with the shaft of
the driven machine on the same axis, the transmission system is 332. If a large factor of safety is used in the design, product would tend
a. belt and pulley to be
b. sprocket and chain a. reliable
c. direct couple drive b. expensive
d. none of the above c. efficient
328. A pulley that is used to tighten belt in a drive system.
a. flat pulley 333. Standards are used in the design basically to
b. idler pulley a. reduce cost of the product
c. v-pulley b. minimize potential liability in designing product
d. none of the above c. provide easy mechanism for interchanging machinery parts
d. all of the above
329. A grove that is placed on a shaft to prevent pulley from slippage.
a. keyway 334. A metal sheet with gauge number equal to 14 means
b. keyhole a. 14 mm thick
c. key b. 14 pieces of metals sheet in a stock
d. none of the above c. 14 pieces in one inch thickness
330. The recommended drive to transmit power to a shaft located about
6 meters is 335. A 4 feet wide x 8 feet long with 1/8-in. thick is
a. chain drive a. metal sheet
b. gear drive b. metal plate
c. v-belt drive c. metal strip
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336. A material commonly used as axle of agricultural machines. 341. The transmission ratio of power tiller ranged from
a. cold rolled steel shaft a. 1:2 to 1:4
b. malleable steel round bar b. 1:7 to 1:10
c. round cast iron c. 1:12 to 1:16
337. The factor that affects the horsepower requirement of a shaft. 342. A gauge 20 metal sheet in a 2-inch pile of sheet has
a. torque a. 20 sheets
b. rpm shaft b. 40 sheets
c. peripheral velocity of shaft c. 60 sheets
338. Flat pulleys are provided with crown to 343. An alloy basically consist of
a. keep the required tension of belt a. one metal
b. prevent belt slippage b. two metal or more metals
c. make the pulley durable c. one metal and non-metal
339. If the driver pulley diameter is increased, the speed of the driven 344. Steel bars which are commonly used in the construction of
pulley will agricultural machines.
a. decrease a. spring steel
b. increase b. mild steel
c. rotate at the same speed c. cold rolled steel
340. If the two shafts are perpendicular with each other, what type of 345. A steel bar used as machine axle is
driven system would you recommend? a. hot rolled steel
a. flat belt b. cold rolled steel
b. v-belt c. mild steel
c. sprocket and chain d. none of the above
d. all of the above
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346. It is a welding process that uses an electrode. 351. It is a process of making metal product by pouring melted metal
a. gas welding into a mold and then allowed to cool.
b. resistance welding a. hot working process
c. arc welding b. casting
d. none of the above c. powder metallurgy
347. The standard length of bars available at the hardware is.
a. 10 ft 352. A machine tool used to reduce the diameter of a metal
b. 20 ft a. router
c. 30 ft b. power drill
d. none of the above c. lathe
348. The higher schedule specification of s pipe, the lower is its
a. length 353. It is the process of cutting hole to a material by means of shearing
b. nominal diameter process.
c. thickness a. drilling
d. none of the above b. punching
c. boring
349. The higher is the gauge number of a metal sheet, the lower is the d. none of the above
a. thickness
b. width 354. A sand paper with a number of C-300 is finer than
c. length a. C-120
d. none of the above b. C-400
c. C-600
350. A welding process commonly used for thin sheets of metal. d. None of the above
a. brazing
b. soldering 355. A screw used to fix metal parts together.
c. spot welding a. self-tapping screw
d. none of the above b. cap screw
c. lag screw
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356. A screw with shield to fix material properly together. 361. A tool that can cut metal bar faster.
a. cap screw a. shear cutter
b. tex screw b. band saw
c. self –tapping screw c. grinding wheel
357. If a metal has a thickness of 1/8 inch it is called as 362. Filing is classified as
a. strips a. cold working
b. sheet b. hot working
c. plate c. casting
358. When buying angle bars, the right specification is 363. Ability of material to resist indention.
a. thickness and width a. brittleness
b. thickness and length b. toughness
c. width and length c. hardness
359. Which of the following metals is stronger? 364. Property of material to join together with other metal at liquid
a. tool steel state.
b. spring steel a. ductility
c. stainless steel b. workability
d. all of the above c. fusibility
360. The higher the carbon content of steel, the
a. weaker 365. A machine element used to tighten bolt.
b. stronger a. washer
c. smaller b. rivet
d. bigger is the steel c. nut
d. all of the above
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366. A welding process wherein current is allowed to pass through the 371. Which of the following is used for acrylic paint.
prongs of the welding machine which joined two metal sheets a. paint thinner
together. b. lacquer thinner
a. resistance welding c. primer epoxy
b. oxyacetylene welding d. none of the above
c. arc welding
d. none of the above 372. A coating material to protect metal from rusting.
a. primer epoxy
367. A material that is resistant to salt corrosion. b. red oxide
a. mild steel c. red lead
b. cast iron d. all of the above
c. stainless steel
d. all of the above 373. It is used to keep castellated nut from loosening
a. roller pin
368. Which of the metal sheets is thicker than from gauge 20? b. spring
a. gauge 18 c. cotter pin
b. gauge 22 d. none of the above
c. gauge 24
d. two of the above 374. Designation for standard V-belt are
a. A, B, C, D, E
369. Materials suitable to resist rusting. b. HA, HB, HC, HD, HE
a. GI sheet c. AA-BB-CC-DD-EE
b. BI sheet d. None of the above
c. All of the above
d. None of the above 375. It is used to prevent bolt and nut from loosening.
a. washer
370. Paint that is most suitable for metals. b. spring
a. latex paint c. screw
b. enamel paint d. none of the above
c. acrylic paint
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376. A machine element that is used to drive flat belt. 381. A centrifugal blower shall be driven by a gas engine. The set up
a. pulley are as follows: Engine speed =2200 rpm; Blower speed=1800
b. sprocket rpm; Diameter of Engine Pulley=25 cm. What should the
c. shieve diameter of the blower pulley be ?
d. none of the above a. 28 cm
b. 31 cm
377. If the belt has a capacity rating of 4.5 hp per belt, how many c. 61 cm
numbers of belts are needed for the drive? d. none of the above
a. 1 to 2 belts
b. 2 to 3 belts 382. Compute the length of belt for the flat-belt pulley having the
c. 4 to 6 belts following data:
d. none of the above Diameter of the larger pulley = 1800 mm, Diameter of the
smaller pulley = 400 mm, Center distance of the pulley shaft = 10
378. It is used to fasten two machine parts together with the use of nut. meters
a. bolt a. 15 m
b. screw b. 23 m
c. rivet c. 30 m
379. A type of gear used to connect implement shaft to the tractor PTO 383. A rice thresher is to be driven by 10-hp gasoline engine using a V-
shaft belt drive. The engine is 1800 rpm while the thresher cylinder
a. bevel gear speed is 650 rpm. The diameter of the engine pulley is 4 inches.
b. spline shaft gear What will be the recommended diameter of the thresher’s pulley?
c. spur gear a. 6 in.
d. none of the above b. 10 in.
c. 14 in.
380. A gasoline engine runs at 2500 rpm. It will be used to drive a d. none of the above
burr mill which should turn at 500 rpm. The pulley diameter for
the mill is 8 inches. What is the recommended pulley for the 384. What is the recommended belt size for the B-type V-belt needed
engine? for the drive above, if its center distance is 60 in.?
a. 2 in a. B169
b. 4 in b. B192
c. 10 in c. C192.
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385. Recommend for the size of the shaft needed the thresher above. 390. It is the spacing of the gear teeth measured along the pitch circle.
a. ½ in. a. Addendum
b. ¾ in b. Dedendum
c. 1 in c. Circular pitch
386. The length of chain usually expressed in 391. It is the ratio of the input power and the output power in gears
a. inches a. Gear efficiency
b. meters b. Gear ratio
c. pitches c. All of the above
387. A device usually used to connect two shafts on a direct drive 392. It is the most common type of gear used in agricultural machinery
system. with straight and parallel teeth to the shaft axis.
a. clutch a. Worm gear
b. coupler b. Bevel gear
c. pulley c. Spur gear
388. AGMA stands for 393. A gear commonly used for gear reducers or gear motors.
a. American Gear Machinery Association a. Worm gear
b. Association of Gear Manufacturers of America b. Bevel gear
c. American Gear Manufacturers Association c. Spur gear
d. None of the above d. All of the above
389. The reason why gears are used for agricultural machinery because 394. A gear used for intersecting shaft usually at right angles.
a. It is expensive and durable. a. Worm Gear
b. It transmit high power and efficiency and with long service b. Bevel gear
life. c. Spur gear
c. It is low operating and maintenance cost. d. All of the above
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395. A gear rotating at 800 rpm. It is being driven by another gear at 400. Flat pulleys are crowned by making the center diameter larger
400 rpm. What is the speed ratio of the gear drive? than the edge diameter by
a. 2 a. 1/8 in per foot of face width
b. ½ b. 1/8 in per foot of the pulley diameter
c. 1 c. 1/8 in per foot of the belt with
d. All of the above d. None of the above
396. The service factor used in calculating the design power for gears 401. A motor running at a speed of 1725 rpm is driving a fan at a
includes speed 2100 rpm. The motor pulley is 127 mm. What is the speed
a. Type of load of the belt that drives the fan?
b. Type of lubrication a.. 688.24 m/min
c. All of the above b. 868.24 m/min
d. None of the above c. 886.24 m/min
397. A device used to transmit power by connecting shafts together.
a. Flexible coupling 402. Timing belt is commonly known as
b. Rigid coupling a. Conventional flat belt
c. All of the above b. Grooved belts
d. None of the above c. Positive drive belt
d. All of the above
398. Flat pulleys are usually provided with crown to
a. Prevent belt from slipping 403. It is commonly used belt drive for engine driven multi-pass rice
b. tighten the belt mill.
c. increase the strength of pulley a. Flat belt
d. None of the above b. V-belt
c. Groove belts
399. A 4 inches wide flat belt is to be used for driving 12 inches and 24 d. None of the above
inches flat pulleys. What width of the pulleys would you
recommend for the drive? 404. When ordering flat belt, the parameters need to be specified
a. 4 inches includes:
b. 5 inches a. Width and thickness
c. 6 inches b. width and ply
d. All of the above c. thickness and ply
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405. Drive used to run perpendicular shaft. 410. The recommended minimum number of sprocket teeth for high
a. Open belt drive speed operation.
b. Crossed drive a. 14-16 teeth
c. Quarter turn drive b. 18-24 teeth
e. None of the above c. 28-30 teeth
406. If two flat parallel pulleys is to be drive in opposite direction,
what would you recommend for this drive? 411. The slack strand for chain with horizontal center should be located
a. Open belt drive on
b. Crossed drive a. Upper side
c. Quarter turn drive b. Lower side
d. None of the above c. Both sides
407. The length of chain is usually measured in terms of
a. feet 412. The size of chain is usually specified in terms of
b. inches a. Diameter of roller chain
c. pitches b. length of chain
d. None of the above c. Roller chain number
408. RC-50 chain is stronger compared with
a. RC-60 413. Twenty-hp engine is equal to.
b. RC-40 a. 1524.44 kg-m/sec
c. RC-70 b. 1254.2 kg-m/sec
d. None of the above c. 1425.44 kg-m/sec
409. For slow speed operation, the recommended number of teeth for
sprocket is 414. The amount of material needed in testing thresher should have
a. 11 teeth enough samples to run the machine for at least _____ hour
b. 16 teeth a. one-half
c. 24 teeth b. one
d. None of the above c. two
d. All of the above
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415. An engine rated at 100 pferd starke has an equal rating of ____ 420. Amount of power that the manufacturer specified for an engine.
hp. a. indicated horsepower
a. 96.8 b. brake horsepower
b. 98.6 c. rated horsepower
c. 101.4 d. belt horsepower
421. Distance of movement of piston from the top dead to the bottom
416. It is a constant volume combustion cycle. dead center.
a. Otto cycle a. stroke
b. Diesel cycle b. bore
c. Dual cycle c. valve clearance
d. None of the above d. none of the above
417. It is a constant pressure combustion cycle 422. Reduction of engine speed or flow of fuel.
a. Otto cycle a. throttling
b. Diesel cycle b. clutching
c. Dual cycle c. atomization
d. None of the above d. none of the above
418. An engine that burns fuel inside the cylinder. 423. A device which uses fluid power to produce mechanical force and
a. external combustion engine motion.
b. internal combustion engine a. governor
c. sterling engine b. accumulator
d. none of the above c. actuator
419. Part of engine that which slides up and down the cylinder and
transmits power to 424. A mechanical breaking up of fuel into spray droplets by high
the crankshaft. velocity of air passing through a jet.
a. connecting rod a. atomization
b. cylinder block b. carburetion
c. piston c. turbo charging
d. spark plug d. none of the above
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425. A device that is used to actuate the throttle of an engine to 429. An internal combustion engine that produces power in one
increase its speed. revolution of the crankshaft.
a. governor a. four stroke cycle engine
b. accelerator b. two stroke cycle engine
c. actuator c. rotary engine
426. Usable power delivered by the engine. 430. A device that provides ignition to a gasoline engine.
a. indicated horsepower a. flywheel
b. brake horsepower b. fuel injector
c. rated horsepower c. carburetor
d. none of the above d. spark plug
427. A device that meter the fuel and air and mixes them into
harmonious mixture before the mixture enters the combustion 431. During the power stroke, which of the following valve is open?
chamber of an engine. a. intake
a. governor b. exhaust
b. air injector c. intake and exhaust
c. carburetor d. none of the above
d. all of the above
432. Number of spark plugs for 6 cylinder diesel engine.
428. A device that permits the flow of fuel and of burned gases in one a. 6
direction only. b. 12
a. check valve c. 4
b. relief valve d. none of the above
c. spark plug
d. none of the above 433. The volume displaced by a piston in making upward or downward
stroke.
a. piston displacement volume
b. clearance volume
c. total volume
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434. At the downward stroke of two-stroke cycle engine, which of the 439. Number of explosion of piston on a single cylinder, four stroke
events are taking place. cycle engine in 100 revolution of the crankshaft.
a. power & intake a. 100
b. compression & exhaust b. 50
c. power & exhaust c. 25
435. The ratio of the clearance volume from the total volume. 440. A device that connects and disconnects power input to the power
a. compression ratio output.
b. air fuel ratio a. clutch
c. bore stroke ratio b. gear
d. none of the above c. pulley
436. Power transmitted to the pistons by the gas in the cylinder.
a. brake horsepower 441. The space when the piston is at the top dead center.
b. indicated horsepower a. piston displacement volume
c. drawbar horsepower b. clearance volume
d. flywheel horsepower c. total volume
437. Suppose a 4-cylinder engine has a bore of 3.5 in. and a stroke of
4.0 in, what is the engine displacement. 442. How many piston strokes are there in one revolution of a
a. 154 in³ crankshaft?
b. 175 in³ a. one
c. 225 in³ b. two
d. none of the above c. four
438. An engine has a piston displacement of 38.4 in³. If the clearance
volume of the cylinder is 2.5 in³, what is its compression ratio?
a. 1:12
b. 1:16
c. 1:8
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443. Engine having fuel injected into the combustion chamber near the 448. At the intake stroke of a diesel engine, what comes in?
end of the combustion stroke and is ignited by heat of a. fuel and air
compression only. b. fuel
a. gasoline engine c. air
b. diesel engine d. none of the above
c. steam engine
d. none of the above 449. A device that creates ignition of fuel in a diesel engine.
a. spark plug
444. Number of times the exhaust valve opens in 2-stroke cycle engine b. piston
running at 2000 rpm. c. carburetor
a. 1000 d. none of the above
b. 2000
c. 1500 450. Two pistons running at the same time in the same direction but
d. none of the above performing different strokes.
a. running mate
445. What is the indicated horsepower of a four-stroke, six-cylinder b. firing order
engine having a 4” bore and 4” stroke. The engine is 1500 rpm c. valve timing
and the mean effective pressure is 80 psi. d. none of the above
a. 35 hp
b. 45 hp 451. How many times the intake valve opens in 4-stroke-cycle engine
c. 52 hp running at 2000 rpm.
d. none of the above a. 1000
b. 2000
446. The sequence by which the cylinder delivers the power stroke. c. 500
a. ignition d. none of the above
b. firing order
c. flash point 452. Two-stroke six-cylinder-internal-combustion engine has a cylinder
d. none of the above bore of 4 inches and a stroke of 4 inches. If the engine is running
at a speed of 1500 rpm, what is the indicated horsepower of the
447. Engine that burns fuel outside the cylinder. engine? The mean effective stroke is 80 psi.
a. spark ignition engine a. 85 hp
b. external combustion engine b. 92 hp
c. compression ignition engine c. 102 hp
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453. Firing order of 4 cylinder engine. 458. Number of times the intake valve opens in a single-cylinder four-
a. 1-2-3-4 stroke cycle after completing 200 revolutions.
b 1-3-4-2 a. 200
c 1-4-2-3 b. 100
d. none of the above c. 50
454. A device which connects or disconnects engine crankshaft to the
or from the transmission box or driven machine. 459. What is the mechanical efficiency of an engine having a brake
a. differential gear horsepower of 8 hp and an indicated horsepower of 10 hp?
b. clutch a. 20 %
c. actuator b. 40 %
d. none of the above c. 60 %
d.. 80 %
455. Firing order for 6-cylinder engine straight and V-piston.
a. 1-5-3-6-2-4 460. Part of an engine that converts reciprocating motion into rotary
b. 1-4-2-6-3-5 motion.
c. 1-2-3-4-5-6 a. crankshaft
d. none of the above b. piston
c. camshaft
456. Firing order for 8 cylinder V piston. d. none of the above
a. 1-6-8-4-3-2-1-5
b. 1-8-7-3-6-5-4-2 461. Engine system that reduces the temperature of the cylinder.
c. all of the above a. ignition
d. none of the above b. carburetion
c. cooling
457. Engine mechanical efficiency. d. none of the above
a. brake hp over indicated hp
b. rated hp over indicated hp 462. System of number indicating the ignition quality of diesel fuel.
c. friction hp over flywheel hp a. octane rating
d. none of the above b. cetane rating
c. fuel index
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463. Ten-hp engine is equivalent to. 468. If the compression ratio is 1:17, the piston displacement volume
a. 7.46 kw for 10 cm3 piston clearance volume is
b. 76.4 watt a. 160 cc
c. 0.746 kw b. 170 cc
d. none of the above c. 200 cc
464. A substance that decreases the effect of friction and which is
commonly obtained from petroleum products. 469. Standard throttling adjustment of an engine.
a. lubricant a. 1/3
b. gear oil b. ½
c. grease c. ¾
465. Gear oil is used for 470. Mean effective pressure of an engine.
a. engine a. 120 psi
b. transmission box b. 200 psi
c. hydraulic system c. 50 psi
466. Mean effective pressure for turbo-charge engine. 471. Number of pistons for 6 cylinder four stroke gasoline engine.
a. 300 psi a. 3
b. 200 psi b. 6
c. 400 psi c. 9
467. Engine valve that allows the entrance of fuel. 472. Fuel for compression ignition engine.
a. exhaust valve a. gasoline
b. intake valve b. kerosene
c. check valve c. LPG
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473. A term used to describe the resistance of oil to flow. 478. A type of engine that completes power stroke in one revolution of
a. viscosity the crankshaft.
b. cetane number a. four-stroke cycle
c. volume weight b. two-stroke cycle
474. The speed of the engine is automatically regulated by.
a. hand lever 479. An engine that produce more power per unit weight.
b. governor a. four-stroke cycle
c. flywheel b. two-stroke cycle
475. Ignition timing for gasoline engine.
a. 1-5 deg. 480. An engine which uses oil entirely as lubricant.
b. 5-10 deg. a. four-stroke cycle
c. 10-15 deg. b. two-stroke cycle
476. Ignition timing for diesel engine. d. none of the above
a. 5-12 deg.
b. 17-19 deg 481. One horsepower can generate heat energy equal to
c. 20-26 deg a. 2455 BTU/hr
d. none of the above b. 2545 BTU/hr
c. 2445 BTU/hr
477. A type of engine that completes power stroke in two revolution of d. none of the above
the crankshaft.
a. four-stroke cycle engine 482. An engine basically has
b. two-stroke cycle engine a. larger cylinder diameter that piston diameter
c. all of the above b. larger piston diameter than cylinder diameter
d. none of the above c. equal piston diameter than cylinder diameter
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483. A part of an engine which reduces vibration and stores energy. 487. The indicated power of an engine is 69 horsepower. The brake
a. spark plug horsepower is 54. What is the mechanical or engine efficiency.
b. flywheel a. 69 %
c. piston b. 78 %
d. none of the above c. 59%
484. If a 4-cylinder, 2-stroke-cycle internal-combustion engine has 600
explosion per minute, what is the engine rpm. 488. What is the thermal efficiency of an engine which uses 0.6-lb of
a. 125 rpm fuel per horsepower-hr. The fuel contain 20,000 BTU/lb.
b. 150 rpm a. 21.2 %
c. 200 rpm b. 34.5 %
d. none of the above c. 46.8 %
485. Considering that the engine in Item above has a piston diameter
of 4” and piston stroke of 5”, what is the indicated horsepower of 489. The brake constant is
the engine assuming a mean effective pressure of 102 psi. a. 2  R/c
a. 9.7 hp b. 2  RN
b. 53.3 hp c. 2  RFN/c
c. 28.5 hp d. none of the above
490. What is the brake constant value of a dynamometer whose length
486. What is the brake horsepower of the engine in Item above if the of arm is equal to 1m?
mechanical efficiency is 80 percent. a. 0.082 sec/kg
a. 8 hp b. 0.82 sec/kg
b. 31 hp c. 2.8 sec/kg
c. 35 hp d. none of the above
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491. A diesel engine four-stroke cycle with three cylinder has a 496. A four-cylinder gasoline engine has a cylinder diameter of 20 cm
cylinder bore of 89 mm and a stroke of 130 mm. The compression and a stroke of 40 cm. The cylinders run at a speed of 150 rpm.
ratio is 16:1 and running at a speed of 2000 rpm. What is the The engine is a four-stroke cycle with a mean effective pressure of
piston displacement of the engine per cylinder? 8 kg/cm². What is the area of the piston?
a. 809 cc a. 314 cm²
b. 1320 cc b. 284 cm²
c. 650 cc c. 167 cm²
492. What is the total power stroke per minute of the piston in item 497. What is the length of stroke of the engine piston in meter in item
above? above?
a. 2000 a. 0.40
b. 3000 b. 0.20
c. 500 c. 0.8
493. In item above, what is the total displacement volume per min. of 498. What is the power stroke of the engine per cylinder in item above?
the engine? a. 50
a. 9708 lpm b. 75
b. 8534 lpm c. 100
c. 9578 lpm d. none of the above
499. What is the total power stroke of the engine in item above?
494. In item above, what is the piston speed of the engine? a. 150
a. 520 m/min b. 300
b. 3672.76 m/min c. 75
c. 3725.23 m/min d. none of the above
500. What is the indicated horsepower of the engine?
495. In item above, what is the stroke-to-bore ratio of the engine. a. 46 hp
a. 1.00 b. 66 hp
b. 1.32 c. 56 hp
c. 1.46 d. none f the above
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501. If the engine mechanical efficiency, in item above, is 80 %, what 506. A person is doing a work for 4 hours, what is the power developed
is the brake horsepower of the engine? by the person?
a. 53 hp a. 0.09 hp
b. 35 hp b. 0.13 hp
c. 65 hp c. 0.15 hp
502. What is the stroke-to-bore ratio of the engine in item above? 507. Conversion of solid fuel into combustible carbon monoxide
a. 2.0 through thermochemical reaction.
b. 1.6 a. digestion
c. 2.4 b. carbonization
d. none of the above c. gasification
d. pyrolysis
503. If a two-stroke 4-cylinder engine is running at 2000 rpm, the
power stroke per minute of the engine is 508. Power generated from moving air.
a. 4000 a. wind power
b. 8000 b. hydropower
c. 2000 c. photovoltaic cell
504. Power available on human for useful work. 509. A gas that produces putrefactive bacteria that breaks down organic
a. 0.1 hp material under airless condition consisting mainly of methane and
b. 0.5 hp carbon dioxide.
c. 0.3 hp a. biofuel
d. none of the above b. biogas
c. gasifier
505. Domesticated animals used as power for agriculture. d. LPG
a. dairy animals
b. draft animals 510. Wind is moving at 4 meters per second. If the rotor area is 2
c. game animals square meters, what is the wind power?
d. none of the above a. 80 watts
b. 125 watts
c. 95 watts
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511. Average power density of solar heat striking the earth surface. 516. Wind machine that is used for lifting water
a. 1 kw/m² a. aerogenerator
b. 0.89 kw/m² b. wind turbine
c. 0.58 kw/m² c. windpump
512. One hundred liters per second of water is falling at a head of 10 517. Power generated from a falling water.
meters. The turbine efficiency is 80 %. What is the hydraulic a. hydro power
power of the hydro system. b. biomass power
a. 8.7 kw c. wind power
b. 87 kw d. none of the above
c. 7.8 kw
d. none of the above 518. Vehicle designed to pull, propel, and supply power to operate
machinery used in agricultural operation.
513. A device that converts kinetic energy of the wind to mechanical a. agricultural tractor
power. b. automobile
a. rotor c. payloader
b. generator d. none of the above
c. motor
d. none of the above 519. The stirring wheel of the tractor can be found at
a. in front of the tractor
514. A device that converts electricity to mechanical power. b. at the rear of the tractor
a. rotor c. in front of the operator’s seat
b. generator d. none of the above
c. motor
d. none of the above 520. A substance that is added to the tractor for the purpose of
changing traction and stability.
515. A device that generates electricity from sunlight. a. ballast
a. windpump b. cage wheel
b. photovoltaic c. plow
c. generator d. hydraulic lift
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521. Power drive that can be found at the rear of the tractor to propel 526. Tractor part that controls the direction of the travel of the
power implements and stationary machines. machine.
a. power take off drive a. rear wheel
b. hydraulic system b. front wheel
c. differential gear c. stirring wheel
522. Standard rpm of a tractor PTO drive. 527. A tractor device which automatically raises or lowers the
a. 600 rpm implement in operation to maintain a given draft.
b. 200 rpm a. automatic draft control
c. 540 rpm b. automatic position control
d. none of the above c. 3-point linkage
523. Standard number of splines on a PTO drive.
a. 10 528. The inherent characteristics of tractors to maintain or to produce
b. 21 increased drawbar pull even if the speed is reduced.
c. 15 a. lugging ability
d. none of the above b. mechanical efficiency
c. coefficient of traction
524. A two-wheeled and hand-operated tractor used primarily as a d. none of the above
substitute for draft animals.
a. power tiller 529. The lower PTO speed of standard four-wheel tractor is.
b. reaper a. 540 rpm
c. seeder b. 450 rpm
d. none of the above c. 640 rpm
525. Attachment to a tractor rear wheel to increase traction.
a. ballast 530. It is the special arrangement of gears to permit driving member to
b. cagewheel rotate slower or faster than the other and permit operation of
c. stirring wheel driving wheels at different speed for easy turn.
d. none of the above a. spur gear
b. planetary gear
c. differential
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531. It is a gear reduction of the tractor located in the power train 536. The heat energy content of coconut shell charcoal is 14223
between the differential and the driving wheel and transmits BTU/lb. How many kilo calories are there in 10 kilos of coconut
power of low speed and large tongue to the rear axles and wheels. shell charcoal.
a. differential a. 78, 852.3 Kcal
b. universal joint b. 68, 852.3 Kcal
c. final dive c. 87, 852.3 Kcal
532. Standard power-take-off speed of a tractor. 537. The burning efficiency of rice hull furnaces is between
a. 100 rpm a. 70-80 %
b. 540 rpm b. between 80-90 %
c. 1200 rpm c. 90 and less than 100 %
533. Standard number of spline for PTO shaft. 538. The thermal efficiency of rice hull furnaces is between.
a. 6 spline a. 40-70 %
b. 21 spline b. 70-90 %
c. 20 spline c. 10-40 %
d. All of the above d. all of the above
534. Standard shaft diameter of PTO shaft. 539. A corn cob has an stoichiometric air requirement of 5.7 kg air/kg
a. 35 mm fuel. If 3 kg of corn cob is required to be burned per hour, how
b. 40 mm much air in m³/hr is required for the system.
c. 50 mm a. 3.68 m³/hr
d. none of the above b. 31.68 m³/hr
c. 13.68 m³/hr
535. If farm tractor is rated at 80 horsepower, its metric equivalent is d. none of the above
a. 75 kw
b. 60 kw
c. 80 kw
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540. It is an indicator of the amount of fuel in a furnace that is 544. The primary gas produced during gasification.
converted into ash. a. methane
a. burning efficiency b. carbon dioxide
b. thermal efficiency c. carbon monoxide
c. heat utilization efficiency d. all of the above
545. When a biogas contains 40 % methane and 60 % carbon dioxide,
541. It indicates the ratio of the amount of heat given off by the furnace a. the biogas can be used for cooking
to the system and the heat used from the fuel. b. the biogas can be used for lighting
a. burning efficiency c. the biogas can run a gas refrigerator
b. thermal efficiency d. none of the above
c. heat utilization energy
d. none of the above 546. A biogas is generated inside the
a. gas holder
542. Which of the following is true in operating gasifier for internal b. mixing tank
combustion engine? c. digester
a. Only 50 to 70 % of the diesel oil can be replaced by gas d. none of the above
producer.
b. Gasoline and diesel can be fueled with gas producer. 547. The feed material to water ratio for biogas generation is
c. The power output of gasoline engine at arbitrary rpm will a. 1:0.5 to 1:1
decrease by 30 to 50% when fueled with producer gas. b. 1:1 to 1:2
d. All of the above c. 1:2 to 1:3
543. A rice hull gasifier reactor that produces less tar during operation.
a. updraft 548. A digester for biogas is to be designed to accommodate 30 liters of
b. crossdraft dung per day. If the feed-material-to-water ratio is 1:1 and the
c. downdraft designed retention time is 80 days, what is the capacity of the
d. all of the above digester.
a. 4800 liters
b. 5200 liters
c. 6100 liters
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549. A solid biomas fuel burning device used for domestic cooking, 554. The excessive amount of tars produced in the combustion of
water heating, smoking, roasting and simmering. agricultural waste is primarily due to:
a. furnace a. insufficiency of fuel
b. cookstove b. less air is used
c. biomass oven c. too much air is used
550. The percentage primary air requirement based on the total air for 555. During gasification of biomass fuel, the primary gas produced is
the combustion of fuel in a cookstove. ___.
a. 80 % a. Carbon dioxide
b. 60 % b. Carbon dioxide
c. 40 % c. Methane and carbon dioxide
551. Elements necessary for combustion. 556. Open-fire stove has a thermal efficiency of:
a. fire a. 3-11%
b. air b. 11-20%
c. fuel c. 20-30%
552. Air required for complete combustion of combustible gases. 557. A chamber where combustion of fuel takes place.
a. stoichiometric air a. damper
b. primary air b. chimney
c. secondary air c. fire box
553. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound 558. The thermal efficiency of a cookstove can be increased by:
water by one degree farenheight. a. increasing the amount of fuel
a. kcal b. using more air for the fuel
b. BTU c. insulating the stove
c. joule d. all of the above
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559. The power output of an agriwaste-fired multiple-burner stove can 564. The power output of diesel engine, when powered with gas
be increased by producer at an arbitrary speed, will be reduced by
a. providing large connecting tunnel for the pot holes a. 10-20 %
b. providing damper to control the flow of passage of air b. 30-50 %
c. increasing the height of the chimney c. 50-70 %
560. The recommended angle for the inclined metal grates on the step- 565. The percentage amount of diesel fuel can be replaced by gas
grate-type stove. producer
a. 45-60 deg a. 20-40 %
b. 30-40 deg b. 50-70 %
c. 60-80 deg c. 90-100 %
561. A gas produced from agricultural waste which is odorless, 566. Type of engine that can be fueled with producer gas.
tasteless, colorless and flammable. a. gas engine
a. biogas b. diesel engine
b. CO c. gasoline engine
c. CH4 d. all of the above
567. The bulk density of rice husk.
562. The primary gas produced during anaerobic digestion of a. 50-80 kg/m³
agricultural wastes. b. 100-120 kg/m³
a. CH₄ & H₂S c. 140-160 kg/m³
b. CH₄ & CO₂ d. none of the above
c. CH₄ & CO
d. All of the above 568. To minimize channel formation inside the gasifier reactor, the
superficial gas
563. C-N ratio suitable for anaerobic digestion of agriwaste. velocity on the bed of the char should not exceed
a. 10:1 to 20:1 a. 8-9 cm/sec
b. 20:1 to 30:1 b. 15-20 cm/sec
c. 30:1 to 40:1 c. 20-23 cm/sec
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569. The air requirement for gasification of agricultural waste ranged 574. Rice hull gasifier efficiency normally ranged from
from a. 50-70 %
a. 10-20 % of stoichiometric air (SA) b. 70-80 %
b. 20-30 % of SA c. 80-90 %
c. 30-40 % of SA d. none of the above
575. The caloric value of fuel is
570. A cleaning units for rice husk gasifier to remove gaseous pollutant a. the amount of heat contained by the fuel per unit weight
and solid particles while cooling the gas at the same time. b. the weight of fuel to be heated
a. cyclone separator c. the heat needed to burn a certain weight of fuel
b. fabric filter d. none of the above
c. scrubber
d. none of the above 576. A type of rice husk furnace that burn the fuel while it is being
spread in a circular
571. A type of gas producer which has the ability to gasify wet fuel pattern inside the combustion chamber.
a. updraft a. step grate furnace
b. down draft b. suspended air furnace
c. cross draft c. cyclone furnace
d. fluidized bed d. all of the above
572. A cleaning system is needed for gasifier when the unit is to be 577. The thermal efficiency of the furnace is the ratio of
used for a. the amount of fuel used to the amount of heat generated during
a. direct heating combustion
b. power generation b. the amount of heat generated during combustion to the amount
c. gas production of fuel used
d. none of the above c. the amount of heat delivered to the amount of heat available in
the fuel used
573. The gasification rate of rice hull ranged from d. none of the above
a. 90-105 kg/m2-hr
b. 110-120kg/m2-hr 578. The burning temperature of most agricultural waste.
c. 125-140 kg/m2-hr a. 100-200C
d. none of the above b. 300-400C
c. 500-600C
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579. A high-cetane fueled engine uses 584. Additives to cause carbon particles in the engine to remain in
a. diesel as fuel and is difficult start engine at lower temperature suspension in oil.
b. diesel as fuel and is easy to start at lower temperature a. anticorrosive
c. gasoline fuel and is easy to start at lower temperature b. antioxidants
d. none of the above c. dispersants
d. all of the above
580. High viscosity engine oil is desirable to use because
a. its viscosity changes easily with a change in temperature 585. The burning of portion of fuel in the combustion chamber of an
b. its viscosity does not change easily with a change in engine at a rate faster than the desired.
temperature a. knocking
c. its viscosity changes even without a change in temperature b. detonation
d. none of the above c. misfiring
d. all of the above
581. Engine oil having high flash and fire point indicates.
a. high boiling point 586. A device used to measure the quantity of oil in a crankcase.
b. high vaporation rate a. dipstick
c. high heating value b. oil gauge
d. all of the above c. oil stick
582. In order to increase the resistance of engine oil, the formation of
certain acidic product that may cause corrosion of certain type of 587. A device that provides a rich mixture of fuel during high load and
bearing the recommended additive to use is. lean mixture during under load.
a. anticorrosive a. carburetor
b. antioxidants b. economizer
c. dispersants c. fuel regulator
583. An additive purposely to provide a protective film on bearing 588. The lubrication system of an engine is basically
surfaces thus preventing any acid to corrode metal parts. a. to reduce wear and tear of an engine
a. anticorrosive b. to act seal between the piston and cylinder wall
b. antioxidants c. to act as complement of the cooling system
c. dispersants d. all of the above
d. all of the above
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589. When a diesel engine knocks, the trouble is. 594. The rapid explosion of mixture of fuel and air within the cylinder
a. the diesel fuel ignition timing is late when ignited by spark plug is.
b. incorrect engine lubrication and wrong grade of oil a. constant volume combustion
c. incorrect type of spark plug b. constant pressure combustion
d. all of the above c. constant temperature combustion
d. all of the above
590. When a gasoline engine knocks, the problem is.
a. the spark timing is too far advance 595. The relatively slow burning as the fuel is injected into a highly
b. incorrect type of fuel compressed heated air is.
c. incorrect type of spark plug a. constant volume combustion
d. all of the above b. constant pressure combustion
c. constant temperature combustion
591. If the engine timing is advance d. all of the above
a. the spark plug ignites earlier than the fuel while the piston is
completing the compression stroke 596. The gross heating value of diesel is
b. the spark plug ignites earlier than the fuel while the piston is at a. higher than gasoline
the intake stroke b. higher than kerosene
c. the spark plug ignites earlier than the fuel while moving c. higher than ethanol
downward immediately after the power stroke d. all of the above
d. all of the above
597. The specific gravity of gasoile is at the range of ______
592. It is the act of checking, testing measuring, repairing and adjusting a. 0.67 to 0.76
the engine in order to bring it to peak efficiency. b. 0.79 to 0.85
a. trouble shooting c. 0.85 to 0.91
b. tune-up d. all of the above
c. timing adjustment
d. all of the above 598. An injection system used in small stationary diesel engine
consisting essentially of a high pressure pump and an injection
593. The coefficient of traction for wheel-type tractor is highest for nozzle.
a. concrete road a. air injection system
b. fine sand b. solid injection system
c. sandy loam soil c. automized injection system
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599. Thermal efficiency of internal combustion engine. 604. New model of engines with 16 valves has _____ cylinders.
a. 0 to 10 % a. 16
b. 10 to 20 % b. 8
c. 20 to 30 % c. 4
600. An engine running at a speed of 2000 rpm is classified as 605. When an engine is diesel operated,
a. low speed engine a. the mixture of air and fuel is taken in the cylinder
b. medium speed engine b. the fuel is compressed into the combustion engine
c. high speed engine c. air fuel ratio is not constant as the quantity of air drawn into
d. none of the above the cylinder is not always the same
d. all of the above
601. It is used to seal engine components which are bolted to the
subframe, the cylinder block, and the crankcase. 606. When operating light equipment, it is recommended to use.
a. oil a. four stroke gasoline engine
b. grease b. two stroke gasoline engine
c. gasket c. four stroke diesel engine
602. An air cooled engine is basically equipped with 607. A four-stroke-cycle engine is advantageous to use than two-
a. pump stroke-cycle engine
b. fan for the reason that
c. fan and pump a. it is easier to start the engine
d. none of the above b. easy to lubricate
c. has regular intake and exhaust valves
603. A quality type of spark plug for gasoilen engine. d. all of the above
a. magnesium-type
b. platinum type 608. A turbine used for hydro system wherein pressurized water is
c. carbon type converted into a high speed jet by passing it through a nozzle.
d. none of the above a. impulse turbine
b. reaction turbine
c. water wheel
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609. A turbine for hydro system which runs completely filled with 614. When strength is provided beyond what is needed as an extra
water. margin of insurance against parts failure.
a. impulse turbine a. factor of ignorance
b. reaction turbine b. factor of safety
c. water wheel c. reliability
610. A component part of solar electric system that converts sunlight to 615. An engine running without load is in.
electricity a. optimum running condition
a. PV panel b. low running condition
b. solar cell c. idle condition
c. solar module d. none of the above
d. all of the above
616. Japanese engines are usually rated in trems of _____
611. Solar battery is rated in terms of a. Horsepower
a. dimension of the battery b. kW
b. wattage c. PS
c. ampere – hour d. None of the above
617. Two engines are rated 1 hp and the other is 1 ps. Which of the
612. The capacity required for a 12-volt solar panel system is 73.6 following statement is true.
watt-hour. What is the ampere-hour capacity of the battery needed a. 1 hp engine is stronger than 1 ps engine
for the system? b. 1 ps engine is stronger than 1 hp engine
a. 6.13 ampere-hour c. two engines are the same in strength
b. 4.05 ampere-hour d. none of the above statement is true
c. 7.23 ampere-hour
d. none of the above 618. Japanese engines are usually rated in terms of
a. horsepower
613. The act of analyzing, testing, and measuring the engine to remedy b. pferde starke
the cause and trouble. c. watts
a. servicing d. all of the above
b. tune-up
c. trouble shooting
d. all of the above 132
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619. If the rotor of the windmill originally at 2 meters is to be reduced 624. A knocking sound produced due to incomplete combustion of fuel
to 1 meter, the power output of the machine will be reduced by inside the combustion chamber of an engine.
a. two times a. detonation
b. three times b. ignition
c. four times c. carburetion
620. Wind flows on a 2-m diameter rotor at a rate of 2 m/s. Suddenly, 625. Part of a tractor that retards or stops one wheel during operation to
the wind flows at 4 m/s, what would be the power output of the be able to make short turn.
windmill? a. differential brake
a. 4 times b. hand brake
b. 6 times c. brake pedal
c. 8 times d. all of the above
626. Part of the tractor engine where pistons slide back and fort and are
621. Small gasoline engine basically has a compression ratio of replaced or rebored when damaged.
a. 6:1 a. cylinder block
b. 10:1 b. cylinder liner
c. 3:1 c. cylinder head
622. A gasoline without ethylene bromide or having an octane rating of 627. A turbine and an air blower mounted ahead of the intake manifold
87 which sometimes caused knocking on the engine. of an engine to force more air into the cylinder thereby increasing
a. premium power output of the engine by 10-15 %.
b. leaded a. auxiliary air reducer
c. unleaded b. turbocharger
d. all of the above c. power inducer
d. all of the above
623. It is a device used to generate high voltage current needed for
spark plug in small engine. 628. A device that converts energy of animal to useful work.
a. distributor a. head yoke
b. contact point b. breast strap
c. magneto c. harness
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629. If two animals having 0.75 hp each are harnessed together, the 633. A rice husk stove boils 2 liters of water and subsequently
pulling output of the two animals is evaporated 0.5 liter. The initial temperature of water is 27C. The
a. greater than 1.5 hp amount of fuel consumed in boiling and evaporating water is 1.5
b. equal to 1.5 hp kg. What is the thermal efficiency of the stove? Assume a heat of
c. less than 1.5 hp vaporization of water equal to 540 kCal/kg and heating value of
d. none of the above fuel equal to 3,000 kCal per kg.
a. 5.2 %
630. It is the utilization of hand tools, implements for draft animals, b. 9.2 %
and mechanically-powered machines for agricultural land c. 12.5 %
development, production, harvesting and on-farm processing. d. none of the above
a. agricultural development
b. agricultural machinery and equipment 634. When you want to diagnose ignition and other electrical problems
c. agricultural mechanization of an engine, a typical instrument to be used is ______.
d. all of the above a. Compression tester
b. Oscilloscope
631. One pferde starke (ps) is equal to c. Dynamometer
a. 0.986 hp d. None of the above
b. 0.735 kw
c. 75 kgf-m/sec 635. Engine power performance is measured using _______.
d. all of the above a. Compression tester
b. Oscilloscope
632. What is the approximate pull of a carabao whose weight is 1000 c. Dynamometer
kilogram? d. None of the above
a. 100 kg
b. 150 kg 636. It is a device used to measure the state of the battery charge of an
c. 200 kg engine.
d. none of the above a. Tachometer
b. Hydrometer
c. Ohmmeter
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637. Gasoline engine power output can be increased by 642. Premature explosion in the cylinder of a gasoline engine during
a. Increasing the compression ratio the exhaust stroke.
b. Increasing the fuel feeding a. Backlash
c. Reducing the load of the engine b. Backfire
d. None of the above c. Back pressure
d. All of the above
638. A small mechanical blower installed in an engine to increase
power output by forcing fuel charge under pressure into the 643. A switching device of high voltage current in multiple cylinder
cylinder. engine which breaks primary and secondary circuits.
a. Supercharger a. Distributor
b. Soot blower b. Contact point
c. High pressure blower c. Relay
639. It is a measure of the area in cubic inches above the piston when it 644. It refers to any ring or washer providing a packing or seal between
is at the top of its stroke, compared to the area above the piston metal surfaces of engine.
when it is at the bottom stroke. a. Oil ring
a. Piton Displacement b. Grease
b. Compression Ratio c. Gasket
c. Clearance volume d. None of the above
645. It is the setting of the distributor to give high voltage current to
640. The compression ratio of an engine can be increased by the spark plug in relation to the movement and position of the
a. Installing connecting rod of greater length piston.
b. Installing high-dome piston a. Idling
c. Installing crankshaft which has a crank pin throw of greater b. Ignition timing
length c. Engine timing
641. Air-fuel ratio for combustion for gasoline engine. 646. Ignition or combustion of fuel not at the proper time.
a. 10 to 1 a. Backfiring
b. 15 to 1 b. Misfiring
c. 20 to 1 c. Detonation
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647. A condition whereby the engine on its operation has abnormally 652. General rule for piston to cylinder wall clearance.
increased its temperature due to faulty cooling, lubricating, and a. 0.001 in. for every inch diameter of the piston
other mechanical trouble. b. 0.002 in. for every inch diameter of the piston
a. Backfiring c. 0.003 in. for every inch diameter of the piston
b. Overheating
c. Misfiring 653. Recommended gap or clearance of the contact point of engine.
d. None of the above a. 0.010 to 0.020 in.
b. 0.020 to 0.035 in.
648. Air fuel ratio of an engine under idling condition. c. 0.035 to 0.045 in.
a. 11.0-12.5 to 1 d. none of the above
b. 12.5-13.5 to 1
c. 13.5-17.0 to 1 654. Resurfacing or replacing of cylinder head is done when ______of
d. None of the above its full length is warped.
a. 0.010 to 0.015 in.
649. Abnormal rapid combustion occurring simultaneously with b. 0.015 to 0.020 in.
normal combustion manifested by loss of power, overheating, c. 0.020 in. and above
rough operation, and sharp ringing sound called engine knock. d. All of the above
a. Backfiring
b. Misfiring 655. The temperature to which an oil must be heated in order to ignite
c. Detonation and burn.
d. None of the above a. Ignition temperature
b. Flash point
650. Air fuel ratio of an engine at full load c. Oil index point
a. 11.0-12.5 to 1 d. None of the above
b. 12.5-13.5 to 1
c. 13.5-17.0 to 1 656. A loud sound emanating from an engine generally due to looses or
d. None of the above worn parts, pre-ignition, or detonation.
a. Backfire
651. Recommended engine spark plug gap clearance. b. Misfire
a. 0.02 in and below c. Knock
b. 0.02 to 0.04 in d. All f the above
c. 0.04 in to 0.06 in
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657. A device that deaden the noise of escaping gases or vapors 662. Component part of an axial flow rice thresher that cause the
emanating from an internal combustion engine. movement of the rice straw from one end to the other end during
a. Flywheel threshing operation.
b. Valves a. Concave
c. Muffler b. Louvers
d. None of the above c. Pegteeth
658. A trouble in the clutch characterized by abrupt transmission of
engine power resulting in a jerking motion when the clutch is 663. Ribbed Type v-belt where ribs as positioned across the belt length.
engaged. a. V-ribbed belt
a. Grabbing b. Cogged belt
b. Shearing c. Timing belt
c. Knock d. None of the above
664. Component part of rice thresher which separates straw from the
659. Term used to indicate leakage or loss of pressure as leakage of grain during threshing operation.
compression between piston and cylinder in a gasoline engine. a. Louvers
a. Blow-by b. Concave
b. Head loss c. Screen
c. Back pressure d. None of the above
665. Threshing efficiency basically is determined from weight of grain
660. Flushing water in the radiator is being done __________ obtained at the ________ to the grain input fed at the feeding
a. every month trays.
b. every 3 months or 10,000 km a. straw outlet
c. every 6 months or 24,000 km b. oscillating screen outlet
d. all of the above c. blower outlet
661. Changing of transmission oil should be done _____ d. All of the above
a. Every 3 months or 10,000 km
b. every 6 months or 24,000 km 666. A trailing type implement is hitch to the tractor at the ________
c. every year or 48,000 km a. single hitch point system of the tractor
d. All of the above b. three-point hitch system of the tractor
c. power take off drive system of the tractor
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667. The PTO drive of a tractor is used to power _______

a. moldboard plow 672. Recommended test material for testing rice thresher should have a
b. chisel plow straw length of ______.
c. rotary plow a. 30 to 45 cm
d. All of the above b. 45 to 50 cm
c. 50 to 65 cm
668. PAES 101:2000 refers to d. None of the above
a. General safety in agricultural machinery
b. Operator’s manual content and presentation 673. Grain-straw ratio requirement for testing rice thresher ranged from
c. Method of sampling ______
d. All of the above a. 0.35 to 0.50
b. 0.50 to 0.65
669. Test carried out on each and every component part or equipment c. 0.65 to 0.80
to check the specifications which are likely to vary during d. all of the above
production
a. Acceptance test 674. During the test of agricultural machine, the shaft speed is
b. Routine test measured using _______.
c. Inspection a. Speedometer
d. None of the above b. velocity meter
c. tachometer
670. Basically hitches are provided for _________ d. none of the above
a. self propelled machines
b. machines that are not self propelled 675. Pressure drop of air moving devices is usually measured by
c. heavy machines ______
d. none of the above a. pressure gauge
b. pitot tube
671. Type of pump that combines the features of a centrifugal and axial c. manometer
flow pump d. none of the above
a. submersible pump
b. mixed flow pump
c. reciprocating pump
d. all of the above
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676. ACME engines are made from _________ 681. Kubota engines are made from _______
a. Japan a. China
b. Italy b. Korea
c. USA c. Japan
677. Robin Engines are made from _______ 682. The cooling system for multiple cylinder engines are usually
a. USA _________
b. Japan a. water cooled
c. Switzerland b. air cooled
d. All of the above c. water cooled and air cooled
678. Kohler engines are made from _____
a. USA 683. Water is usually used in engines as ____________
b. Italy a. medium for cooling the cylinder head and block.
c. Switzerland b. supplementary fuel for combustion
d. None of the above c. lubricating material for bearings
d. All of the above
679. MAG engines are made from ______
a. USA 684. Which of the following engines are produced from Japan?
b. China a. Honda
c. Switzerland b. Kubota
d. None of the above c. Robin
d. All of the above
680. Engines made from USA
a. Briggs and Straton engine 685. A self-propelled machine having a single axle designed primarily
b. Kohler engine to pull and propel trailed or mounted agricultural implement and
c. All of the above machinery.
d. None of the above a. hand tractor
b. pedestrian tractor
c. walking type tractor
d. All of the above
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686. Minimum peak transmission efficiency for power tiller. 691. Basic hand tools need to be provided by manufacturers to buyers
a. 75 percent of engines
b. 85 percent a. open wrench
c. 95 percent b. adjustable wrench
d. None of the above c. Philip and flat screw driver
d. spark plug wrench
687. Minimum operating time required for testing power tiller without e. All of the above
breakdown and malfunction.
a. one hour 692. Part of tractor to which implements are hitched
b. five hours a. PTO drive
c. Eight hours b. final drive
d. None of the above c. drawbar
688. Minimum permissible noise for power tiller.
a. 85 db 693. Four wheel drive tractors are ________
b. 92 db a. tractors that have four running wheels
c. 98 db b. tractors that have four running wheels and driven the two rear
d. none of the above wheels by an engine
c. tractors that have four running wheels and all wheels are driven
689. Arrangement of valves wherein the intake and exhaust valves are by the engines
located in the cylinder head. d. none of the above
a. I-head arrangement
b. L-head arrangement 694. It is the center to center distance between two front or rear wheels.
c. X-head arrangement a. wheel tread
d. None of the above b. wheel base
c. wheel lugs
690. Arrangement of valves wherein the intake and exhaust valves are d. none of the above
located on one side of the cylinder block.
a. I-head arrangement 695. Hydraulic control levers on typical four wheel tractors are located
b. L-head arrangement at __________
c. X-head arrangement a. front of the operator.
d. None of the above b. left side of the operator
c. right side of the operator
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696. Which of the following types of drawbar are used for tractors? 701. Tool used to drive slotted machine screw.
a. fixed drawbar a. Ordinary flat screw driver
b. swinging drawbar b. Phillip screw driver
c. link drawbar c. Allen wrench screw driver
697. A machine screw for general purpose use. 702. Type of screw thread used for almost all fastening application.
a. hexagonal head a. Right hand tread
b. hexagonal flange head b. Left hand thread
c. Pan head c. Square thread
698. Types of set screw for general purpose use. 703. Type of rivets used for fastening metal parts together when the
a. Slotted head reverse joint is not accessible or its too restricted.
b. Square head a. Cold forged rivet
c. hexagon socket head b. Semi-tubular rivets
d. None of the above c. Blind rivet
699. Type of screw thread used for rotating machine member such as
impeller shafts. 704. A projecting parts of a gear that is in contact with the other gear
a. Right hand tread that cause the rotation in opposite direction.
b. Left hand thread a. Gear module
c. Square thread b. Gear tooth
d. None of the above c. Gear pitch circle
700. Tool used to drive a cross recess screw.
a. Ordinary flat screw driver 705. Required material designation for the construction of gear based
b. Phillip screw driver on PAES standard.
c. Allen wrench screw driver a. AISI designation 1021
d. all of the above b. AISI designation 1045
c. AISI designation 1080
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706. PTO shaft profile for 35 mm nominal diameter shaft, 6 splines, 711. Allowable wheel slip for maximum efficiency for four wheel
540 rpm rated speed drive tractor on a tilled and soft soil
a. Involute spline a. 6 -10%
b. Straight spline b. 8-13%
c. V-spline c. 7-11%
707. PTO shaft profile for 35 mm nominal diameter shaft, 21 splines, 712. Roll on protection safety and seat belts are required for tractor
1000 rpm rated speed with ___________
a. Involute spline a. 5 kW engine and above
b. Straight spline b. 10 kW engine and above
c. V-spline c. 15 kW engine and above
708. PTO shaft profile for 45 mm nominal diameter shaft, 20 splines, 713. It is the power measured at the flywheel or crankshaft of a four
1000 rpm rated speed wheel tractor
a. Involute spline a. rated horsepower
b. Straight spline b. indicated horsepower
c. V-spline c. engine horsepower
709. Brake systems for tractors 714. It is a distance between the supporting surface and the lowest
a. Internal expansion type point of the tractor
b. External expansion a. Tractor height
c. Disc type b. Tractor ground clearance
d. All of the above c. Tractor overall height
710. Allowable wheel slip for maximum efficiency for two wheel 715. Speed in revolution per minute specified by the manufacturer
drive tractor on a firm soil a. Rated horsepower
a. 7-11% b. Engine speed
b. 10-15% c. Rated engine speed
c. 16-20% d. All of the above
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716. Tractor weight is the total weight of the tractor including tools 720. Minimum efficiency required for tractor power driven row crop
with the fuel tank filled to _____ capacity and the normal amount planter
of cooling water and lubricating oil when the tractor is at work. a. 40-50%
a. 60% b. 55-60%
b. 80% c. 65-70%
c. 100% d. None of the above
721. Minimum efficiency required for tractor power driven seed drill.
717. Type of row crop planter designed to deposit seed continuously in a. 55%
straight column. b. 65%
a. Drill planter c. 75%
b. Hill-drop planter d. None of the above
c. Check-row planter
d. None of the above 722. Minimum area required for testing manually operated seeder.
a. Not less than 100 m2
718. Type of row-crop planter which enables operator to perform hill b. Not less than 500 m2
planting at definite spacing to facilitates mechanical weed control c Not less than 1000 m2
and other operations (Dh = Dr). d. None of the above
a. Drill planter
b. Hill-drop planter 723. Minimum area required for testing power operated seeder.
c. Check-row planter a. Not less than 100 m2
d. None of the above b. Not less than 500 m2
c Not less than 1000 m2
719. Type of row crop planter which is designed to deposit one or more d. None of the above
seeds in a hill at equal interval (Dh not equal to Dr)
a. Drill planter 724. It is a flanged tube mounted on gang axle and placed between two
b. Hill-drop planter discs to prevent the lateral movement of the discs on the shaft.
c. Check-row planter a. Spool
d. None of the above b. Spacer
c. Tubular washer
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725. The traverse distance between the top or bottom edges of the end 730. Bearing with roller whose length is at least 4 times the diameter
disks of a plow . suitable for heavy load, oscillating and low speed.
a. Implement width a. Cylindrical roller bearing
b. Width of cut b. Needle bearing
c. Disks width c. Tapered roller bearing
726. Materials used in the manufacture of disc plow and disc blade for 731. Bearing suitable for both radial and thrust load.
harrows. a. Ball bearing
a. AISI 1020 b. Cylindrical roller bearing
b. AISI 1080 c. Needle bearing
c. AISI 1045 d. None of the above
732. Bearing that is excellent for heavy radial load and moderate thrust
727. Mild steel with 0.15 to 0.23 carbon content (cold rolled) is load.
designated by American Iron and Steel Institute as _______ a. Tapered roller bearing
a. AISI 1021 b. Spherical roller bearing
b. AISI 1080 c. Ball bearing
733. Which of the following statement is true?
728. Carbon steel with at least 80% carbon is designated by American a. Ball bearing operates at a higher speed limit than roller bearing
Iron and Steel Institute as _______ b. Roller bearing operates at a higher speed limit than ball bearing
a. AISI 1020 c. Ball bearing operates at the same speed limit with roller
b. AISI 1080 bearing
734. Gears used to transmit rotational motion and power between
729. Type of bearing unit which is suitable for heavy radial load and parallel shafts.
free from axial load. a. Helical gear
a. Ball bearing b. Bevel gear
b. Tapered bearing c. Worm gear
c. Cylindrical roller bearing d. None of the above
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735. Gears used to transmit rotational motion and power between 740. Cold rolled steel shaft with 0.37% to 0.44% carbon content is
intersecting shaft. designated by American Iron and Steel Institute as __________ .
a. Helical gear
b. Spur gear a. AISI 1040
c. Bevel gear b. AISI 1020
d. None of the above c. AISI 1080
736. Protective device designed and fitted to prevent dangerous parts
being reached from the side. 741. Minimum width required for hexagonal shaft of a walking type
a. Shield tractor prime mover size of 4-6 to 14.5 hp diesel engine or 5 to 16
b. Casing hp gasoline engine.
c. Enclosure a. 25 mm
d. None of the above b. 32 mm
c. 45 mm
737. Protective device designed and fitted to prevent dangerous parts d. All of the above
being reached from all sides.
a. Shield 742. Minimum length of shaft required for walking-type tractor
b. Casing irregardless of hp rating.
c. Enclosure a. 500 mm
d. None of the above b. 750 mm
c. 1000 mm
738. Protective device which is usually made of rail, fence, or frame to d. All of the above
keep dangerous parts out of reach inadvertently.
a. Shield 743. Minimum size of chain for the transmission box of walking type
b. Casing hand tractor.
c. Enclosure a. ANSI chain number 40
d. None of the above b. ANSI chain number 50
c. ANSI chain number 60
739. Peak of the furrow slice. d. All of the above
a. Furrow head
b. Furrow tip
c. Furrow crown
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744. Pump that develops a vacuum sufficient enough for the 749. Maximum pumping rate requirement for LOKS
atmospheric pressure to force the liquid to flow through the a. 20 strokes per minute
suction pipe without the need of feeding the pump with water. b. 40 strokes per minute
a. Centrifugal pump c. 60 strokes per minute
b. Vacuum pump
c. Self priming pump 750. A rice thresher was newly purchased by a farmer. After 4 months
d. None of the above of continuous use, the pillow block bearing was heavily worn out.
As agricultural engineer, what would you recommend to the
745. Minimum volumetric efficiency requirement for Lever Operated farmer?
Knapsack Sprayer (LOKS). a. Bring the bearing for replacement to the manufacturer of the
a. 80% thresher.
b. 88% b. Buy a new bearing and replace it.
c. 95% c. Ask the manufacturer to pay for the bearing unit.
746. Minimum capacity requirement for LOKS 751. The power tiller handle was detached from the main frame
a. 10 liters assembly due to a tremendous lateral load during plowing. The
b. 15 liters machine was purchased 4 months ago from a nearby
c. 20 liters manufacturer. What would you recommend to the farmer?
d. None of the above a. Buy new handle and replace the old one.
b. Consult the manufacturer and request for replacement of the
747. Maximum weight required for LOKS at full load. handle.
a. 12 kg c. Bring a welding machine and weld the handle to the frame of
b. 22 kg the power tiller.
c. 32 kg d. None of the above
752. The engine vibrates too much during threshing operation. To
748. Flow rate requirement for LOKS at a mean pressure of 300kPa. reduce vibration, what would you recommend?
a. 0.3 to 1.4 lpm a. Weld the engine into the frame of the thresher.
b. 1.4 to 2.0 lpm b. Ask another person to firmly hold the engine.
c. 2.0 to 2.9 lpm c. Tighten bolts and nuts at the engine frame of the thresher.
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753. Welding job will be performed at the engine drive of a multiple 757. Graphical representation of the interrelationship between the
pass rice mill. To prevent possible accident during the repair capacity, head, power, NPSH, and efficiency of a pump
work, what would you recommend? a. Capacity-power curve
a. Remove the engine from the drive. b. Pump efficiency curve
b. Disconnect the line from the terminal of the battery. c. Pump performance curve
c. Remove the ground line of the welding machine from the d. None of the above
engine drive.
d. None of the above 758. Required water temperature in testing pump.
a. 10 C and below
754. A type of centrifugal with a casing made in the form of a spiral b. 10 C – 40 C
curve. c. 40 C - 60 C
a. Diffuser pump d. None of the above
b. Volute pump
c. Self-priming pump 759. Compute the volumetric efficiency of a sprayer pump having a
d. None of the above diameter of 20 cm and a stroke of 20 cm. The actual volume of
water displaced per stroke is 0.460 liter.
755. A type of centrifugal pump wherein the impeller is surrounded by a. 85%
series of vanes b. 92%
a. Diffuser pump c. 98%
b. Volute pump d. None of the above
c. Self-priming pump
d. None of the above 760. Compression ratio is equal to ____________
a. piston displacement volume plus clearance volume over
756. Filling up of pump with water to displace or evacuate the clearance volume.
entrapped air through a vent and create a liquid seal inside the b. total volume over clearance volume.
casing. c. piston displacement volume plus combustion chamber volume
a. Pumping over combustion chamber volume.
b. Flushing d. All of the above
c. Priming d. None of the above
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761. Power recommended by manufacturer for satisfactory operation 766. Pressure build up at the plenum chamber to maintain uniform
under continuous duty condition with specified speed range. distribution of air flow through the grain mass.
a. Rated brake power a. Velocity pressure
b. Continuous brake power b. Static pressure
c. Engine brake horsepower c. Total pressure
762. It is the maximum brake power, fuel consumption, and operating 767. It is the ratio pf the weight of the shelled corn kernels collected at
characteristics of the engine at different speeds. the main outlet to the total weight of the corn kernel input of the
a. Engine performance curve sheller expressed in percent.
b. Engine performance a. Shelling efficiency
c. Engine specification b. Shelling recovery
d. None of the above c. Shelling index
763. Highest power developed by an engine.
a. Peak brake power 768. It is the ratio of the weight of the shelled corn kernel collected at
b. maximum brake power all outlet of the sheller to the weight of the corn kernel input of the
c. Rated brake power sheller expressed in percent.
d. None of the above a. Shelling efficiency
b. Shelling recovery
764. Highest power developed by an engine at a given speed. c. shelling index
a. Peak brake power d. None of the above
b. Maximum brake power
c. Full brake power 769. Applicable key for sliding type shaft and hub assembly.
d. None of the above a. Parallel key
b. Woodruff key
765. Warranty requirement for grain dryers. c. Taper key
a. 6 months d. All of the above
b. 8 months
c. 12 months
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770. Applicable key for assembly that hub is fastened on the key fixed 774. Flat belt materials that is oil and heat resistant.
on a shaft or assembly that the key is driven between the a. Rubberized fabric belt
combined shaft and hub. b. Reinforced nylon chord belt
a. Parallel key c. Canvass belt
b. Woodruff key d. None of the above
c. Taper key
d. All of the above 775. Power rating of type B v-belt.
a. 0.186 to 1.457 kw
771. Minimum allowance for face width of flat pulley having a belt b. 0.764 to 18.642 kw
width under 305 mm. c. 11.186 to 74.570 kw
a. 25 mm d. None of the above
b. 51 mm
c. 76 mm 776. Top width and height of type B v-belt
d. None of the above a. 13 mm x 8 mm
b. 16 mm x 10 mm
772. Minimum allowance for the face width of flat pulley having a belt c. 22 mm x 13 mm
width over 610 mm. d. None of the above
a. 25 mm
b. 51 mm 777. Implement used for crushing the soil clods and compacting the
c. 76 mm soil.
d. None of the above a. Roller harrow
b. Packer
773. Flat belt that has the advantage of high tensile strength to hold c. Rotary hoe
metal fasteners satisfactorily and is resistance to deterioration by d. None of the above
moisture.
a. Rubberized fabric belt 778. Implement used for seedbed preparation which crushes soil clods
b. Reinforced nylon chord belt and smoothen and firm the soil surface.
c. Canvass belt a. Roller harrow
d. None of the above b. Packer
c. Rotary Hoe
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779. General fragmentation of a soil mass resulting from the action of 783. A power tiller was tested on a 10 m wide plot. During the test, the
tillage forces. machine made 22 rounds to complete the plowing operation using
a. Soil reaction two-0.3 m diameter disk plow. What is the average swath of the
b. Soil shatter power tiller?
c. Soil sliding a. 0.23 m
d. None of the above b. 0.32 m
c. 0.41 m
780. Implement for dislodging small weeds and grasses as for breaking d. None of the above
soil crush and is used for fast, shallow cultivation before or soon
after crop plant emerge. 784. The effective width of cut of a single bottom moldboard plow
a. Roller harrow drawn by a power tiller is 10 cm. If the machine will be used to
b. Packer plow a 2 hectare farm, what is the total distance that would be
c. Rotary Hoe traveled by the machine in order to accomplished the task?
d. None of the above a. 200 m
b. 200 km
781. An engine was tested on a brake dynamometer at a speed of 2000 c. 200 miles
rpm. The brake arm of the machine is 1.2 meters and it registered d. All of the above
a load of 5 kg. What is the shaft power of the engine?
a. 16.51 hp 785. The axle of a power tiller was tested on a Prony-brake
b. 20.56 hp dynamometer. The force delivered at the brake arm of 1 m was
c. 34.21 hp 300 kg at a speed of 25 rpm. Determine the torque.
d. None of the above a. 300 kg-m
b. 300 N-m
782. The engine fuel tank was completely filled with gasoline fuel c. 300 ft-lb
before testing. After 4 hours of continuous test 3.7 liters of fuel d. None of the above
was used to reload the tank completely. Test has shown that the
engine shaft power was 10 hp. What is the specific fuel 786. What is the shaft power of the power tiller above?
consumption of the engine? a. 5.59 hp
a. 87.4 g/kW-hr b. 5.95 hp
b. 92.13 g/kW-hr c. 9.55 hp
c. 100.45 g/kW-hr d. None of the above
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787. Also compute the specific fuel consumption of the engine that 791. A pump was tested to measure the flow rate using a 90 degree
drive the power tiller above if it consumes diesel at a rate of 0.9 triangular weir. Tests have shown that the head of water into the
liters per hour. weir averages to 13 cm. What is the average rate of flow of the
a. 181.06 g/kW-hr pump?
b. 181.06 g/hr-kW a. 12.2 lps
c. 0.181 kg/kW-hr b. 22.2 lps
d. All of the above c. 32.2 lps
788. Compute the friction head from a 6 meter depth suction pipe of a
centrifugal pump which discharges 0.2 m3/sec of water. The pipe 792. A 1.5 kW split phase motor running at 1740 rpm is to be used to
nominal diameter is 4 inches. drive a bucket elevator. The elevator should run at a speed of
a. 0.864 m per 1000 meters length of pipe approximately 60 rpm. If the service factor for the bucket
b. 0.864 m per 100 meter length of pipe elevator is 1.3, what is the design power for the drive?
c. 0.864 m a. 1.50 kW
d. None of the above b. 1.95 kW
c. 2.01 kW
789. A pump which discharges 4 liters per second at a head of 6 meters d. None of the above
is driven by electric motor. The input current of the motor is 1.5
amp while the input voltage is 220 volt. What is the overall 793. What is the speed ratio for the drive above if the motor pulley is 4
efficiency of the pump if the motor power factor is 0.98? inches?
a. 71.2% a. 1: 20
b. 72.7% b. 1: 29
c. 77.1% c. 1: 38
790. A pump was installed with a suction head of 6 m and a discharge 794. Recommend for a belt section suitable for the drive above.
head of 10 meters. The discharge rate of the pump is 60 liters per a. Type A
minute. What is the water horsepower of the pump? b. Type B
a. 0.210 hp c. Type C
b. 0.120 hp d. None of the above
c. 0.210 kW
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795. Compute the correction factor for a 9.6 BHP spark ignition engine 799. The center of gravity of a four-wheel drive tractor is located
tested at 30 C ambient air temperature and total atmospheric air ___________
condition of 1011 mbar. a. at the mid center of the tractor.
a. 0.980 b. 1/3 of the wheel base ahead of the rear wheel axle of the
b. 1.019 tractor.
c. 1.119 c. near the front axle wheel of the tractor.
796. What is the corrected BHP of the engine above? 800. John Deere tractor is made from _____________
a. 9.41 hp a. USA
b. 9.78 hp b. Japan
c. 10.742 hp c. Finland
797. A four-stroke naturally-aspirated diesel engine was tested on a 801. Massey Ferguson tractor is made from _________
prony brake dynamometer and gives a BHP output of 14.2 a. Finland
horsepower. During the test the ambient air temperature is 27 C b. United Kingdom
while the total atmospheric pressure is 1020 mb. What is the c. USA
corrected brake horsepower of the engine? d. None of the above
a. 14.2 hp
b. 14.3 hp 802. Ford tractor is made from ___________
c. 14.6 hp a. United Kingdom
d. None of the above b. USA
c. France
798. The center of gravity of a standard two-wheel drive tractor is d. None of the above
located _________
a. at the mid center of the tractor. 803. Goldstar tractor is made from ____
b. 1/3 of the wheel base ahead of the rear wheel axle of the a. Japan
tractor. b. Korea
c. near the front axle wheel of the tractor. c. China
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804. Valtra Velmet tractor is made from ______ 808. What is the speed ratio of the drive above?
a. Finland a. 1.8
b. Brazil b. 3.7
c. France c. 5.5
805. Maxion tractor is made from _______ 809. If 11 teeth sprocket will be used for the drive shaft, how many
a. Finland sprocket teeth will be used for the driven shaft?
b. Brazil a. 45 teeth
c. France b. 42 teeth
d. None of the above c. 40 teeth
806. A roller chain drive is to transmit 7.457 kW from a drive shaft to a
driven shaft of a fruit conveyor power. The drive shaft operates at 810. If the chain pitch is 12.7 mm, what is the length of chain needed
1200 rpm while the driven shaft must operate between 370 to 380 for the drive?
rpm. The center distance between drive shafts as calculated is a. 100 pitches
approximately 572 mm. What is the design power for the drive if b. 120 pitches
the service factor equal to 1.5? c. 140 pitches
a. 7.4 kW d. None of the above
b. 11.2 kW
c. 13.4 kW 811. Pattern efficiency for headland-type field machine pattern on
d. None of the above rectangular field.
a. 93.0%
807. What is the power rating of the drive above if the design life is b. 95.7%
5000 hours? c. 94.8%
a. 11.2 kW d. None of the above
b. 6.9 kW
c. 3.7 kW 812. Pattern efficiency for continuous-type field machine pattern on
d. None of the above rectangular field
a. 93.0%
b. 95.7%
c. 94.8%
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813. Pattern efficiency for circuitous-type field machine pattern on 816. A rice mill transmission drive uses a standard flat belt of 20 ft.
rectangular field long. The pulley diameter of the power source is 6 inches. The
a. 93.0% pulley diameter of the line shaft is 16 inches. What is the center
b. 95.7% distance required for the two shafts?
c. 94.8% a. 24.7 ft
d. None of the above b. 20.3 ft
c. 18.6 ft
814. A three-pulley drive is used to deliver power from an electric d. none of the above
motor at a speed of 17720 rpm to two component parts if a
machine. The motor pulley has a diameter of 4 inches while the 817. What is the arc of contact of the small pulley above?
two machines has a pulley diameters of 6 inches and 8 inches, a. 177 degree
respectively. Neglecting the belt slip, what are the speeds of the b. 210 degree
two pulleys above? c. 221 degree
a. 1146 rpm & 860 rpm d. none of the above
b. 1010 rpm & 840 rpm
c. 980 rpm & 760 rpm 818. What is the arc of contact of the larger pulley above?
d. none of the above a. 183 deg
b. 150 deg
815. If the center distances of the three pulleys above are: 24 in., 36 c. 139 deg
in., and 42 in. for pulley 4 to 6, 6 to 8, and 8 to 4 pulley diameters, d. none of the above
respectively, what is the recommended length of the belt needed
above? Assume an angle of arc of 135 for pulley 6 and 8, while 819. A soil pulverizer with pulley diameter of 4 inches runs at a shaft
90 for pulley 4 inch diameter. speed of 3,000 rpm. The 10 hp diesel engine will be used to
a. 98.45 in. operate at a speed of 1740 rpm. What will be the size of the pulley
b. 101.56 in. for the motor?
c. 110.34 in. a. 7 in.
d. none of the above b. 5 in.
c. 3 in.
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820. If the standard B72 V-pulley will be used, what would be the center 825. A flat belt with hp rating of 5 kW/mm will be used to transmit 10
distance of the pulley? hp. What is the width of the belt needed for the drive? Assume a
a. 27 in. service factor of 2.0 and an arc correction factor of 0.79.
b. 30 in. a. 3.78 mm
c. 35 in. b. 2.98 mm
d. none of the above c. 2.68 mm
821. What is the speed of the belt in m/s?
a. 3001.7 rpm 826. A gasoline engine was tested on a prony brake dynamometer. The
b. 3141.6 rpm engine runs at a speed of 200 rpm and registers a load of 100 kg to
c. 3250.6 rpm a 0.8 m brake arm. What is the BHP of the engine?
d. none of the above a. 17 hp
b. 22 hp
822. What is the arc of contact of the small pulley? c. 46 hp
a. 160 deg d. none of the above
b. 169 deg
c. 174 deg 827. If the average ambient air temperature condition during test was
d. none of the above 27C and the atmospheric pressure is 1010 mbar, what is the
corrected BHP of the engine?
823. What is the arc of contact of the larger pulley? a. 0.98
a. 186 deg. b. 1.00
b. 178 deg c. 1.01
c. 172 deg d. none of the above
828. A multi cylinder engine was tested on a prony brake dynamometer.
824. An engine is transmitting 13 hp to an axial flow biomass shredder. The average shaft torque of the engine was 250 kg-m at a speed of
The engine pulley is 4 inches in diameter and runs at a standard 1000 rpm. What is the power output of the engine?
speed of 1740 rpm. What is the effective pull of the belt? a. 652.6 kW
a. 980.67 N b. 562.5 kW
b. 1,001.86 N c. 256.6 kW
c. 1,047.44 N d. none of the above
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829. A ball bearing has a basic dynamic capacity of 1500N. During 833. How long does the machine finish the job if it will be operated at 8
operation, the actual load of the bearing unit is 152N. What is the hrs. per day and 20 days per month?
life of the bearing in years if it is to be operated continuously for 4 a. 2 days
hrs. a day, 20 days per month and 6 months per year operation? b. 4 days
The bearing runs at 1000 rpm. c. 6 days
a. 34.5 years d. none of the above
b. 45.3 years
c. 53.4 years 834. If the seeds weigh 0.1 g/seed and requires 5 seeds per hill, what is
d. none of the above the total weight of the seeds needed? % germinability of seeds is
98%.
830. A five-row seeder will be used to place 5 seeds per hill to a 100 a. 6.8 tons
hectare farm. The seeder row spacing is 30 cm while the hill b. 6.2 tons
spacing is 25 cm. Compute the number of hills to be planted for the c. 7.9 tons
entire area? d. none of the above
a. 12,888,666 hills
b. 13,333,333 hills 835. A power tiller draws a two-row seeder at 30 cm spacing. The
c. 14,121,122 hills seeder has a 6-pocket metering device and is driven by a 0.4 m
d. none of the above ground wheel. If the required hill spacing is 0.3 m, what is the
recommended sprocket ratio for the drive?
831. If the seeder travels at 15 kph, what is the theoretical field capacity a. 1.43
of the machine? b. 1.56
a. 2.25 ha/hr c. 2.01
c. 2.01 ha/hr
d. none of the above 836. What is the theoretical field capacity of the implement if it will run
at 4 kph?
832. What is the effective field capacity of the machine if the field a. 0.21 ha/hr
efficiency is 90%? b. 0.24 ha/hr
a. 2.025 ha/hr c. 0.26 ha/hr
c. 1.869 ha/hr
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837. What is the effective field capacity of the implement if its field 842. A water pump with a 0.2m diameter propeller discharges 60 lpm of
efficiency is 90%? water at a head of 5 m. depth suction and 1 m. discharge. The
a. 0.201 ha/hr pump is driven by an electric motor at 1720 rpm. The pump
b. 0.209 ha/hr efficiency is 72%, and 90%, respectively. Compute the WHP.
c. 0.216 ha/hr a. 0.07 hp
d. none of the above b. 0.08 hp
c. 0.09 hp
838. If the seeds per hole is required at 0.08 g/seed, how many kilos of d. none of the above
seeds are needed to finish 10 ha? Assume germination percentage
at 90%. 843. What is the BHP?
a. 286 kg a. 0.11 hp
b. 296 kg b. 0.12 hp
c. 306 kg c. 0.13 hp
839. How many hills will be planted for the 10-hectare farm? 844. What is the MHP?
a. 999,999 hills a. 0.12 hp
b. 1,111,111 hills b. 0.13 hp
c. 2,111,111 hills c. 0.14 hp
840. How many days will the operation be finished? 845. If the speed of the pump is to be reduced to 1200 rpm, what is the
a. 4.9 days capacity of the pump?
b. 5.7 days a. 39 lpm
c. 6.1 days b. 41 lpm
d. none of the above c. 43 lpm
841. If the speed ratio to be used is 1.5, what is the distance per hill?
a. 0.312 m 846. What is the working head?
b. 0.314 m a. 2.85 m
c. 0.324 m b. 2.78 m
d. none of the above c. 2.63 m
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847. What is the MHP?

a. 0.028 hp
b. 0.039 Hp
c. 0.041 hp
848. Determine the width of cut of a six-800 mm diameter disk plow

spaced at 350 mm.
a. 2.8 m
b. 2.7 m
c. 2.6 m
849. What is the effective field capacity of eight-900 mm diameter disk

plow running at a speed of 10 kph. The disks are spaced at 500
mm. Assume a plowing efficiency of 80%.
ANSWER KEY
a. 3.76 ha/hr
b. 3.35 ha/hr
c. 3.01 ha/hr
850. A farmer has a pump which discharges 100 lpm of water at a head
of 10 m. The pump is driven by an electric motor at a speed of
1700 rpm through a 4” x 4” pulley-drive combination for the motor
and the pump, respectively, what would be the pump output if the
motor pulley is changed to six inches diameter?
a. 145 lpm
b. 150 lpm
c. 155 lpm
183

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AGRICULTURAL ENGINEERING COMPREHENSIVE

BOARD EXAM REVIEWER Volume I

UNIVERSITY PRESS Department of Agricultural Engineering and

Department of Agricultural Engineering

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Trial Edition PREFACE

This book, Agricultural Engineering Comprehensive Board Exam

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Copyright  2004 by Alexis T. Belonio

No part of this book is allowed to be photocopied or reproduced in any form

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46. The factors that affect the draft of the plow:

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267. In testing agricultural machines as prescribed in the PAES standard

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295. A heat treatment method to increase the hardness of steel by rapid

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