3

CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination
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REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION SET A
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INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following
questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.
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1. As a matter of procedure, the fourth pillar of the Criminal

Justice System, Corrections Pillar, takes over once the accused –
A. has been delivered to the New Bilibid Prison
B. received the order of the court
C. after having been found guilty, meted out the penalty for
the crime he committed
D. has been arrested by the police and has been investigated of
the crime
2. The Correctional System in the Philippines is under three
distinct and separate departments of the national government.
They are the following, except –
A. The Department of National Defense
B. The Department of Justice
C. The Department of Interior and Local Government
D. The Department of Social Welfare and Development
3. Regional Rehabilitation Center for Youth (RRCY) in the country
are established to provide care and rehabilitation to juvenile in
conflict with the law who are 9 - 17 years old. How many RRCY
existing in the Philippines?
A. Eight (8)
B. Ten (10)
C. Twelve (12)
D. Sixteen (16)
4. The central office of the BUCOR is located in ____, where the
Director, the assistant directors and the general administration
staff are holding official functions.
A. Camp Crame, Quezon City
B. Camp Aquinaldo, Quezon City
C. New Bilibid Prison, Muntinlupa City
D. Maximum Security Prison
5. During the pre-colonial times, the informal prison system in the
Philippines was –
A. barbaric and institutionalized
B. trial by ordeal
C. tribal and community-based
D. based on the Kalantiao Code
6. The formal prison system in the Philippines started only during
the Spanish regime, where an organized corrective service was
made operational. Established in 1847 pursuant to Section 1708 of
the Revised Administrative Code and formally opened by Royal
Decree in ____.
A. 1621
B. 1702
C. 1865
D. 1898
7. The Old Bilibid Prison was constructed as the main penitentiary

in Oroquieta Street, Manila and designed to house the prison
population of the country. This prison became known as the –
A. Bilibid Prison I
B. Correctional de bilibid
C. Manila National Prison
D. Carcel y Presidio Correccional
8. The Bureau of Corrections in the Philippines is an agency under
the –
A. Department of Justice
B. Department of Interior and Local Government
C. Office of the President
D. Office of the Provincial Governor
9. What is called the institutional record of an inmate which
consists of his mittimus or commitment order issued by the Court
after conviction?
A. Carpeta
B. Sentenced Mittimus
C. File 201
D. None of these
10. It refers to shock incarceration regime for adults and juveniles,

originated in America, which emphasize discipline and physical
training in a military-style environment. Which one of these?
A. Boot legs
B. Boot Camps
C. Mud Camps
D. Jamboree camps
11. The Borstal Institution founded by Sir Evelyn Ruggles-Brise was
established in –
A. 1902
B. 1911
C. 1935
D. 1931
12. Which of the following records is not necessarily included in the
carpeta of prisoners?
A. the prosecutor's information
B. the decisions of the trial court
C. certificate of non-appeal
D. the police investigation report
13. One of the following is not an Executive Clemency.
A. Reprieve
B. Absolute Pardon
C. Probation
D. Commutation of sentence
14. When the San Ramon prison and penal farm in Zamboanga City was
established?
A. October 16, 1974
B. August 21, 1869
C. June 04, 1801
D. March 16, 1621
15. Before the reconstruction of San Ramon Prison, the Americans
established in 1904 a penal settlement, which became known today
as Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm. Which of these?
A. Guhit Settlement Farm
B. Iuhit Penal Settlement
C. Iguhit Settlement Farm
D. Ingunit Penal Settlement
16. The first RDC facility was created in Building No. 9 of the
Maximum Security Compound and was relocated to the Medium
Security Compound of Camp Sampaguita. Historically, this
statement is –
A. True
B. False
C. Partially true
D. Partially false
17. Under the BUCOR Manual of Operation, how long should an inmate
stay at the RDC and he should be due for transfer to the
designated camp?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 15 days
18. As per the organizational structure of the BUCOR and the given
function of the office, under what office the chief of the RDC
directly reports?
A. The Director
B. The Deputy Director
C. The Head of the Technical Division
D. Secretary of Justice
19. Being the initial stop of every national male prisoner, the RDC
greatly improved its rehabilitative programs. By the adoption of
the behavioral modification modality, a program for drug
dependents, the RDC was converted into a Therapeutic Community
Camp on –
A. February 6, 2003
B. March 7, 2004
C. April 8, 2003
D. February 22, 1990
20. A prison model or theory which argues that an inmate’s mode of
adaptation to prison is influenced by factors external to the
immediate context of the prisons, as well as the immediate
conditions of imprisonment. Which one of these?
A. Importation model
B. Exportation Model
C. Family Model
D. None of these
21. The Philippine Legislature during the American regime passed Act
No. 1876 providing for the establishment of a prison in _____.
The prison was built for the prisoners of the province and
insular prisoners who were members of the non-Christian tribes of
the Mountain Provinces and Nueva Viscaya.
A. La Trinidad, Benguet
B. Tiger Hill, Ifugao
C. Baguio Jail and Prison
D. Bontoc, Mt. Province
22. Among the penal farms in the country, ____ is the largest
operating institution under the BuCor covering a total land area
of more or less 28,000 hectares.
A. Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm
B. Davao Prison and Penal Farm
C. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
D. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm
23. The San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm was established on August 13,
1870 as –
A. Correccional de San Ramon
B. Colonia Penal de San Ramon
C. Ramon Blanco Colonia de Penal
D. Espanyol Colonia de Penal
24. The Bureau of Jail Management and Penology or BJMP was created to
address the growing concerns of jail management and penology. The
law that created the BJMP was –
A. Republic Act 8551
B. Republic Act 6425
C. Republic Act 4890
D. Republic Act 6975
25. What theory of punishment proposes that sentencing can contribute
towards reducing crime by removing potential offenders from the
community, so eliminating their capacity to commit offenses?
A. Retribution
B. Incapacitation
C. Atonement
D. Reformation
26. Primarily, its clients are detainees accused before a court who
are temporarily confined in such jails while undergoing
investigation, awaiting final judgement and those who are serving
sentence promulgated by the court 3 years and below. Which one of
the following?
A. The BJMP
B. The BUCOR
C. The CIW
D. All of the above
27. On January 2, 1991, the BJMP was created thru R.A. No. 6975 as a
line Bureau under the –
A. Department of Justice
B. Department of Social Welfare and Development
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. Office of the Vice President
28. The BJMP is the upgraded version of its forerunner, the Office of
Jail Management and Penology of the defunct PC/INP last headed
by –
A. BRIG GEN Rafael Crame
B. BRIG GEN Arsenio Concepcion
C. BRIG GEN Fabian Ver
D. BRIG GEN Antonio Rodriquez
29. The first chief of the BJMP upon its creation was ____ who took
his oath of office on July 1, 1991.
A. Director Charles Mondejar
B. Director Charles Montalban
C. Director Charles Morrales
D. Director Charles Mariano
30. R.A. No. 9263 provides that the BJMP shall be headed by a Chief
who is assisted by 2 Deputy Chiefs, and 1 Chief of Directorial
Staff, all of whom are appointed by the President. What is R.A.
No, 9263?
A. BJMP Professionalization Act of 2004
B. BFP and BJMP Professionalization Act of 2004
C. BFP Professionalization Act of 2004
D. Law Repealing RA 6975
31. The second officer in command of the BJMP is the ___ with the
rank of Chief Superintendent.
A. Deputy Chief for Administration
B. Deputy Chief for Operations
C. Chief of the Directorial Staff
D. Most senior Commissioned Officer
32. When the Americans took over in the 1900s, the Bureau of Prisons
was created under the ____ known as Reorganization Act of 1905.
A. Act No. 1407
B. Act No. 1745
C. Act No. 2204
D. Act No. 1905
33. Provincial jails are under the management, administration and
control of their respective provincial governments. Inmates who
are serving sentences from ___ are confined in these jails.
A. 3 years and above
B. 1 day to 6 months
C. 1 day to 3 years
D. 6 months, 1 day to 3 years
34. Under the law, the ___ refers to the Officer-In-Charge of the New
Bilibid Prison, the Correctional Institution for Women and the
prison and penal farms of the Bureau of Corrections.
A. Penal Supervisor
B. Warden
C. Penal Superintendent
D. Director of Prison
35. It refers to the deferment of the implementation of the sentence
for an interval of time; it does not annul the sentence but
merely postpones or suspends its execution. Which one of these?
A. Executive Clemency
B. Reprieve
C. Petition
D. Recognizance
36. In absolute pardon, there is total extinction of the criminal
liability of the individual to whom it is granted without any
condition. It also restores –
A. Political right only
B. Civil rights only
C. Civil and political rights
D. Nothing
37. The Chief of the BJMP carries the rank of ___ and serves a tour
of duty that must not exceed four (4) years.
A. Director General
B. Deputy Director
C. Director
D. Warden
38. In every province, the BJMP operates and maintains a Provincial
Jail Administrator’s Office headed by a _____, to oversee the
implementation of jail services of all district, city and
municipal jails within its territorial jurisdiction.
A. Provincial Director
B. Provincial Warden
C. Provincial Deputy Director
D. Provincial Administrator
39. The Board of Pardon and Parole may not consider the release on
pardon/parole of a national prisoner who is serving sentence in a
municipal, city, district or provincial jail unless –
A. the confinement in said jail is in good faith or due to
circumstances beyond the prisoner's control
B. upon the request of the President
C. the prisoner is over 70 yrs of age
D. the jail which he is being committed is over crowded
40. Petitions for parole shall be addressed to the _____.
And the Board may consider cases for parole, commutation of
sentence or conditional pardon of deserving prisoners whenever
the interest of justice will be served thereby.
A. Office of the President
B. Secretary of Justice
C. Chairman or Executive Director of the Board
D. Director of Bureau of Corrections
41. Upon receipt of a petition for absolute pardon, the Board should
refer the petition to the Probation and Parole Officer who should
conduct an investigation within ___.
A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 20 days
D. 30 days
42. Other penal colonies were established during the American regime.
On November 27, 1929, the ____ was created under Act No. 3579.
A. Davao Penal Colony
B. Correctional Institution for Women
C. New Bilibid Prison
D. Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm
43. On November 15, 1940, all inmates of the Old Bilibid Prison in
Manila were transferred to the new site. The new institution was
officially named as the New Bilibid Prison on _____.
A. January 22, 1941
B. February 22, 1942
C. March 22, 1943
D. April 22, 1945
44. In the 1980s, Camp Sampaguita was constructed and became today as
–
A. Maximum Security Prison Camp
B. Medium Security Prison Camp
C. Minimum Security Prison Camp
D. The Bukang Liwayway Camp
45. Under Proclamation No. 72 issued on September 26, 1954, another
prison facility was established in Occidental Mindoro. Which one
of these?
A. Iwahig Prison Penal Farm
B. Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm
C. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
D. Davao Prison and Penal Farm
46. The Leyte Regional Prison was established on January 16, 1973
under -
A. Proclamation No. 1101
B. Proclamation No. 1102
C. Proclamation No. 1103
D. Proclamation No. 1104
47. Recognizing the need to properly orient newly committed prisoners
to the Bureau of Corrections, the Reception and Diagnostic Center
(RDC) was created through Administrative Order No. 8, series of
1953 of the –
A. Department of Trade and Industry
B. Department of Health
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. Department of Justice
48. Under the rules, a petition for executive clemency should be
referred by the Board to the _____ for comment and recommendation
if the crime committed by the petitioner is against national
security or public order or law of nations.
A. Secretary of National Defense
B. Chief Executive
C. Secretary of Justice
D. Director of the BUCOR
49. In case of an alien, the petition for executive clemency should
be referred to the –
A. Bureau of Immigration
B. Department of Justice
C. Department of Foreign Affairs
D. Any of the above
50. Prisoners who escaped or evaded service of sentence are not
eligible for executive clemency for a period of ____ from the
date of their last recommitment to prison or conviction for
evasion of service of sentence.
A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 1 year
D. 6 months
51. One of the following is the fundamental basis in the grant of
parole to a prisoner.
A. There is a reasonable probability that upon his release he
will be law abiding
B. The petitioner is old aged
C. Justice requires the grant as per order of a court
D. All of the above
52. When the penalty is imprisonment, the sentence is carried out
either in the municipal, provincial or national penitentiary
depending on –
A. the judge who issue the order
B. the ability of the accused to get immediate rehabilitation
C. the availability of funds in prison or jails
D. the length of the sentence meted out
53. The correctional organization is a complex, hybrid organization
that utilizes two distinct, yet related management subsystems to
achieve its goals. Which one of these?
A. Management of correctional employees and delivery of
correctional services to offender population
B. administration of the parole and probation system
C. Custody and supervision of inmates
D. Rehabilitation of inmates the soonest time
54. Correctional organization have two ideologically competing sub-
organizational structures, the custodial organization, with its
emphasis on control and surveillance of offender activities; and
the treatment organization –
A. emphasizing on making a living inside prison
B. emphasizing on preventive discipline
C. emphasizing on treating special offenders
D. on the goals and methods of treatment and rehabilitation
55. If, based on the Pre-Parole Investigation Report conducted on the
prisoner, there is a clear and convincing evidence that his
release on parole will endanger his own life and those of his
relatives or the life, safety and well-being of the victim, his
relatives, his witnesses and the community, the release of the
prisoner should be –
A. deferred until the danger ceases
B. disapproved by the Board
C. referred to the Office of the President for comment
D. granted and placed on the witness protection program
56. This refers to information concerning an inmate’s personal
circumstances, the offense he committed, the sentence imposed,
the criminal case numbers in the trial and appellate courts, the
date he commenced service for sentence, the date he was received
for confinement, the date of expiration of his sentence, the
number of previous convictions, if any, and his behavior or
conduct while in prison. Which one of the following is defined?
A. Carpeta
B. Prison Record
C. File 201
D. Mittimus
57. Under the rules, how long does an inmate stay at the quarantine
cell upon admission in the Reception and Diagnostic Center for
physical examination?
A. 10 days
B. 5 days
C. 15 days
D. 20 days
58. After the quarantine period, the inmate should remain at the
Reception and Diagnostic Center for a period not exceeding _____
where he should undergo psychiatric, psychological, sociological,
vocational, educational and religious and other examinations.
A. 30 days
B. 25 days
C. 55 days
D. 90 days
59. What should an inmate, before admission in the Reception and
Diagnostic Center, present?
A. Mittimus/Commitment Order of the court
B. Information and Court decision in the case
C. Certificate of Detention
D. All of the above
60. Under the rules, an inmate may not wear a wig or artificial
hairpiece, unless –
A. the hair piece makes him look better
B. medical authorization to do so is approved by the
superintendent
C. no hairpiece is available
D. upon request and approved by the Director of Prison
61. The newly-admitted inmate should be issued two (2) regulation
uniform/suits and two (2) t-shirts. This statement is –
A. Correct under the rules
B. Correct as a prerogative by the prison authorities
C. Correct as the inmate can bring his own clothing’
D. Incorrect
62. The BUCOR has a Classification Board that classifies inmates
according to its Manual of Operation. The chairman of this
classification board is the –
A. Superintendent
B. Chief of the RDC
C. Medical Officer
D. Chief of the Custodial Force
63. Which of the following should be classified as a maximum security
prisoner?
A. high security risk inmates
B. those sentenced to death
C. those whose minimum sentence is twenty (20) years
imprisonment
D. All of the above
64. Those inmates who have two (2) or more records of escapes but
they have served eight (8) years since they were recommitted
should be classified as –
A. Maximum security prisoners
B. Medium Security prisoners
C. Minimum security prisoners
D. Unclassified incorrigibles
65. According to the BUCOR manual of operation, the color of uniform,
as to security classification, of a Maximum security inmate is -
A. Tangerine
B. Blue
C. Brown
D. Gray
66. Which of the following is considered as a third class inmate?
A. one who has either been previously committed for 3 or more
times as a sentenced inmate
B. a newly arrived inmate
C. one whose known character and credit for work while in
detention
D. a colonist
67. In order to be qualified as a colonist, the Director of
Correction may, upon the recommendation of the Classification
Board, an inmate should -
A. be at least a first class inmate and has served one 1 year
B. have served imprisonment with good conduct for a period
equivalent to one fifth (1/5) of the maximum term of his
prison sentence, or seven (7) years in the case of a life
sentence
C. have applied for pardon or parole
D. A and B must have been complied with
68. A colonist shall have the following privileges, except –
A. credit of an additional GCTA of five (5) days for each
calendar month while he retains said classification aside
from the regular GCTA authorized under Article 97 of the
Revised Penal Code
B. automatic reduction of the life sentence imposed on the
colonist to a sentence of thirty (30 ) years
C. to the approval of the Director, to have his wife and
children, or the woman he desires to marry, live with him in
the prison and penal farm
D. All of the above
69. The grant of colonist status may, for cause, be revoked at
anytime by the Superintendent with the approval of the Director.
This statement is –
A. Correct, as part of the rules (Manual of Operation)
B. Correct, as mandated by the Revised Penal Code
C. Correct, as part of DOJ Department Order
D. Correct, as an Executive Order
70. An inmate may be transferred by the Director upon the
recommendation of the Superintendent concerned to another prison
facility. Which of the following is the fundamental purpose of
the transfer?
A. Security of the inmate
B. Bringing the inmate closer to his family
C. Punishment of incorrigible inmates
D. Effective custody and control
71. Who may direct, as the occasion may require, the transfer of
inmates from a national prison to a provincial jail, or vice
versa?
A. President
B. Secretary of Justice
C. Director of BUCOR
D. Provincial Governor
72. The Superintendent of a prison may authorize an inmate to be
taken out of prison in the following instances, except -
A. Conjugal visit of a male inmate to the CIW
B. to appear in court or other government agency as directed by
competent authority
C. for medical examination/treatment or hospitalization in an
outside clinic or hospital
D. to view the remains of a deceased relative
73. Who may grant Good Conduct Time Allowance (GCTA) to an inmate who
displays good behavior and who has no record of breach of
discipline or violation of prison rules and regulations?
A. The President
B. The Secretary of Justice
C. The Director of Corrections
D. The Court
74. All offenders who demonstrate good behavior earns one telephone
call to an authorized individual every 90 days. In such case, the
telephone calls are monitored and do have a duration of ____.
A. not exceeding 5 minutes
B. not exceeding 10 Minutes
C. not exceeding 15 minutes
D. 30 minutes with only 5 min allowable extension
75. An inmate or detainee who wants to get married may submit a
written request to the Superintendent. The Superintendent may
approve an inmate’s request to marry, except –
A. a legal restriction to a marriage exists
B. the proposed marriage presents a threat to the security or
good order of the prison
C. the proposed marriage presents threat to the protection of
the public
D. All of the above
76. In case an inmate is given disciplinary action, the Board of
Discipline is authorized to impose any of the following
disciplinary measures, except -
A. Additional penalty for service of sentence
B. Caution or reprimand
C. Cancellation of recreation, education, entertainment and
visiting privileges
D. Deprivation of GCTA for a specific period
77. As a general rule, use of instruments of restraint of restraint,
such as handcuffs and strait jackets, should not be applied as
punishment, but rather –
A. to prevent an escape during an inmate’s transfer or movement
B. to prevent an inmate from harming himself or others, or from
destroying public or private property
C. to lock up the inmate on quarantine cell, as necessary
D. A and B are correct
78. An infant born while the mother is serving sentence in the CIW
may be allowed to stay with the mother for a period not exceeding
___.
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 6 months
D. 1 yr, 6 months
79. Who may authorize an inmate to donate to a licensed physician,
surgeon, known scientist or any medical or scientific
institution, including eye banks, and other similar institutions,
any organ, part or parts of his body?
A. The President
B. The Secretary of Justice
C. The Director of the Bureau
D. The Medical officer of the Bureau
80. Who among the following may authorize release of an inmate?
A. the Supreme Court or lower courts, in cases of acquittal or
grant of bail
B. Both A and C
C. the President of the Philippines, in cases of executive
clemency or amnesty
D. the Secretary of Justice
81. The probation system of treating offenders without imprisonment
was first adopted in Massachusetts in ___and afterward adopted in
France, Belgium, and various American states.
A. 1878
B. 1842
C. 1780
D. 1901
82. The first Director of the Bureau of Correction, in 1904 to 1910
was –
A. Lt. Col. Paulino Santos
B. Col. Eduardo Quintos
C. Lt. George Wolfe
D. Ramon Victorio
83. According to the rules at the BUCOR, head counts of inmates are
conducted. How many times in 24 hours do the authorities conducts
head count?
A. four times a day
B. six times a day
C. three times a day in 3 shift
D. five times a day
84. Probation may be granted whether the sentence imposes a term of
imprisonment or a fine only but the application for probation
should be filed with the –
A. Trial court
B. Appellate court
C. Prosecutors office
D. Board of Pardons and Parole
85. Can an order granting or denying probation be appealable under
the law?
A. No, PD 968 do not allow it
B. Yes, PD 968 allows it
C. It depends upon the court
D. Yes, PD 603 allows it
86. Under the law, the probation officer shall submit to the court
the investigation report on a defendant not later than –
A. 10 days from receipt of the order
B. 15 days from receipt of the order
C. 30 days from receipt of the order
D. 60 days from receipt of the order
87. The general concept of punishment is that –
A. it is an infliction of some sort of pain on the offender for
violating the law
B. it is for the purpose of trial by ordeal
C. it is for personal revenge
D. it is a restriction offending members of society
88. ___ is the latest justification of punishment. Under this theory,
society can best be protected from crime if the purpose of
imprisonment is to reform or rehabilitate the prisoner.
A. Reformation
B. Incapaciation
C. Expiation
D. Fine
89. Release from prison, are intended to reform the offender. This is
a new concept of correctional administration. Thus, reformation
and rehabilitation are now thought of as –
A. Treatment through institutional programs
B. Limitation of punishment
C. Concealing criminal activities
D. Treatment through non-institutional programs
90. What school of thought in criminology/ penology admits that
minors are incapable of committing crime because they have not
reached the age of responsibility?
A. Classical
B. Neo-classical
C. Positivist
D. Mixed
91. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise, Director of English prisons, after
visiting Elmira in 1897, open the –
A. Kent Reform Institution for Boys
B. Borstal Institution
C. Elmira Reformatory
D. Golden Gate Reformatory
92. Probation started in ___ with the old practice of suspending
judgment and releasing the offender on his own recognizance with
the promise not to commit any more crime.
A. England
B. America
C. Rome
D. Italy
93. In the Philippines, Act No. 4221 of the Philippine Assembly

established adult probation, but it was abolished in 1937 after
two years of existence because it was declared unconstitutional
in the case of –
A. People vs. Veneranda
B. People vs. Vera
C. People vs. De Vera
D. People vs. Devenadera
94. This concept embodies the belief that punishment keeps offenders
from committing offenses again. Which of these?
A. Deterrence
B. Reformation
C. Retribution
D. Expiation
95. Under the Probation law, how many times can offender be granted
probation?
A. Once as a minor, and another as an adult
B. Depends on the discretion of the court
C. As many times as his conviction
D. Once and only on the first offense
96. A system in prison where complete silence was enforced and
prisoners were confined in single cells at night but they do
congregate work in shops during the day. Which one of these?
A. Auburn Prison
B. Irish Prison
C. Pennsylvania Prison
D. Walnut Street Jail
97. During the 16th and 17th Century, a method of disposing offenders
to the colonies of England was by means of shipping. This was the
principle of -
A. Banishment and Transportation
B. Judicial reprieve and recognizance
C. Capital punishment
D. Retribution and Incapacitation
98. Which one of the following is an accessory penalty which deprives
the offender his rights of parental authority, marital authority
and his right to manage his property?
A. Civil Interdiction
B. Civil Deprivation
C. Civil Interruption
D. Civil Rights Suspension
99. As a matter of rule, the filing of application for probation will
be ___ of the right to appeal on the part of the accused.
A. a cancellation
B. a suspension
C. a refusal
D. a waiver
100.Which one of the following is considered a forerunner of modern
day probation which involves the temporary withholding of the
sentence?
A. Benefit of clergy
B. Judicial Reprieve
C. Recognizance
D. Transportation
Criminalistics
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1. In the strict sense of the word, forensic medicine means -

A. Application of medicine under legal jurisdiction
B. Application of medical sciences to elucidate legal problems
C. Knowledge of law in relation to the practice of medicine
D. Law and Medicine combined
2. In medico-legal practice, experts considered that brain death
occurs when there is -
A. Deep irreversible coma
B. Absence of electrical brain activity
C. Both A and B are correct
D. Blood clot in the head
3. The accepted criteria used in determining death are the
following, except -
A. Brain death
B. Cellular death
C. Cardio-respiratory death
D. None of the above
4. Study shows that in molecular or cellular death, there is
death of individual cells within -
A. 3 – 6 minutes
B. 20 – 30 minutes
C. 3 – 6 hours
D. 20 – 24 hours
5. What is the kind of death characterized by a condition where
there is a transient loss of consciousness or temporary cessation
of the vital function of the body?
A. Clinical death
B. Molecular death
C. Somatic death
D. Apparent death
6. What is the doctrine which states that “the greater the number
of points of similarities and dissimilarities of two persons
compared, the greater is the probability for the conclusion to be
correct is found”?
A. Law of Multiplicity of Evidence in Identification
B. Identification by Comparison and Exclusion
C. Probability versus vulnerability
D. Doctrine of parallelism
7. In its strict sense, which of the following is not a
scientific method of identification of person?
A. Finger printing and handwriting
B. Dental Identification
C. Analysis of the skeletal structure
D. Identification by close friend and relatives
8. In the study of wounds, the following are considered instances
when the size of the entrance wound is bigger than the caliber of
the firearm used. One is not included.
A. Contact Fire
B. Deformity of the bullet
C. Acute angular approach of the bullet
D. Fragmentation of the bullet
9. In personal identification, study shows that ___ is a
characteristic of an individual that may not easily be changed as
compared to other characteristics.
A. Structure
B. Speech
C. Mental Memory
D. Gait
10. In medico legal practice, postmortem lividity maybe due to any
of the following, except –
A. Sugilation
B. Hypostasis
C. Diffusion
D. Autolysis
11. The dissolution of the natural continuity of any tissues of
the living body is known as –
A. Wound
B. Vital reaction
C. Physical injury
D. All of the Above
12. Appropriately, the identification of firearm or ballistics is
important in firearm injury since it helps in the -
A. Differentiation between entrance and exit of gunshot wounds
B. Determination of the distance from assailant to the victim
C. Determination of the relative position of the victim from
the assailant
D. Identification of the weapon used
13. In the study of forensic ballistics, the following are
products of combustion produced by firearms, except -
A. Smudging
B. Tattooing
C. Singeing
D. Confusion collar
14. In the Philippines, the following government officials are
authorized to make death investigation, except -
A. Provincial or City prosecutors
B. Director of the National Bureau of Investigation
C. Judges of the Regional Trial Courts
D. Justices of the Supreme Court
15. When a person dies, what are the different changes that take
place in the body after death?
A. Stage of primary flaccidity
B. Stage of postmortem flaccidity
C. Stage of secondary flaccidity
D. All of the above
16. In death investigation, which of the following has the medico-
legal importance of giving the approximate time of death?
A. Rigor mortis
B. Cadaveric spasm
C. Muscular Contraction
D. Dilation of the pupil
17. Expert noted that the unburned or partially burned powder
grains embedded in the skin surrounding the point of entry in
gunshot wound usually produce -
A. Tattooing
B. Peppering
C. Stippling
D. All of these
18. Which of the following is the kind of alcohol obtained from
the destructive distillation of wood which, according to studies,
can cause blindness?
A. Isoprophyl alcohol
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Methyl alcohol
D. Butanol
19. Among the following specimen, which one is given the highest
level of importance and considered the best evidentiary specimen
that can be used for DNA analysis?
A. Saliva
B. Semen
C. Urine
D. Blood
20. The presence of invisible substances to the naked eye, like
fluorescent powder and invisible crayon, can be best seen in -
A. x-ray machine
B. visible light
C. ultra violet light
D. infrared rays
21. In forensic investigation, when the kind of soil found on
suspect’s clothing is consistent with the soil found at the crime
scene, this would indicate that the -
A. suspect was in the crime scene
B. suspect has committed the alleged crime
C. suspect was in the area at the time of the crime
D. area where the suspect could not be ascertained
22. Which of the following technique is used to compare trace
elements found in soil?
A. macroscopic examination
B. spectrographic analysis
C. density analysis
D. enzyme analysis
23. What non-destructive instrumental test used to determine the
crystalline structure of chemical compound in paints?
A. x-ray diffraction
B. infra-red spectography
C. emission spectography
D. phyrolysis-gas chromatography
24. The instrument that criminalists use most often in metal
detection and identification is the -
A. Mass Spectrometer
B. Newton activation analysis
C. Spectrograph
D. infra-red spectrophotograph
25. Chemists suggested that the most suitable material for making
foot mark cast in soil is -
A. plaster of paris
B. paraffin wax
C. shellac
D. candle wax
26. What is called the science of drugs that deals with their
preparatory, used and effects?
A. Pharmacology
B. Therapeutics
C. Drug therapy
D. Toxicology
27. In narcotics investigation, the test used to distinguish
heroin found in morphine is -
A. Marquis test
B. Froede’s test
C. Ferric Chloride test
D. Simon’s test
28. The prescription of drugs is commonly shown by the symbol
A. RX
B. PH
C. TM
D. TX
29. In the study of metals, experts suggested that all types of
serial number on metal can be restored by acid through -
A. acid etching
B. density gradient method
C. benzidine test
D. metal polish
30. “Shabu” is the street name of chemical compound belonging to
the amphethamine group of drugs specifically known as –
A. mephoridne
B. methaqualome
C. methamphetamine
D. All of the above
31. The botanical name of marijuana plant which is a source of
narcotic drug is –
A. Bhang ganja
B. Hashish
C. Cannabis sativa
D. Lima fingeria
32. When comparing soil samples by microscopic examination, the
number one consideration should be -
A. observed the color and granularity
B. determine the density
C. sampling method
D. specification of microscope
33. The instrumental analysis that is most useful for
identification of synthetic fiber found at the crime scene is -
A. x-ray defraction and gas chromatograph
B. mass spectrometry and emission spectrography
C. pyrolysis and atomic absorption spectrophotometry
D. infra-red spectrophotometry & gas chromatography
34. In the study of blood, the ABO system divides the human race
into four blood types, the lowest percentage is –
A. O type
B. A type
C. B type
D. AB type
35. Among the following blood cells, which one is the white blood
cell?
A. thrombocytes
B. leukocytes
C. erythcocytes
D. None of these
36. The study of the identification and characterization of body
fluids such as semen, blood and saliva is called -
A. Semenology
B. Serology
C. Posology
D. Biology
37. In questioned document examination, what is referred to as the
degree of writing inclinations? It is also sometimes known as the
slope of writing.
A. Slant
B. Baseline
C. Proportion
D. Alignment
38. It is an illustration of the basic letter design which is the
fundamentals of the writing system. Which one of the following is
referred to?
A. Writing system
B. Copybook form
C. Writing movement
D. Line quality
39. The study of writing specimen in which the letters are joined
together is called cursive writing. What a specimen of writing is
illustrated in a disconnected style?
A. Pen lift
B. Hiatus
C. Hand lettering
D. Broken lines
40. Which of the following refers to the factors relative to the
execution of the writing or the circumstances under which writing
was prepared?
A. Writing condition
B. Line quality
C. Writing forms
D. Natural variation
41. Photographers suggested that ___ is the type of examination
designed to show minute details of a small object.
A. Microscope examination
B. Oblique Light examination
C. Photomicrography
D. Transmitted light examination
42. What kind of paper, in document examination, which has been
treated in such a way as to minimize the change of successful
forgery by erasures, whether mechanical or chemical?
A. Chemical paper
B. Tested Paper
C. Polyethylene Coated paper
D. Safety paper
43. In the study of forgery cases, the forged signature which
resembles the genuine signature made by free hand movement and
constant practice is known as -
A. Traced forgery
B. Simple forgery
C. Simulated forgery
D. Spurious signature
44. Which of the following type of pen is a modern pen which contains
a reservoir of ink in a specially designed chamber?
A. Fountain pen
B. Ball point pen
C. Ink master pen
D. Reynold’s pen
45. In dealing with handwriting, what is called that interruption in
a stroke, caused by sudden removal of the writing instrument from
the paper surface?
A. Tremor
B. Pen lift
C. Retouching
D. Hiatus
46. What do you call that introductory backward stroke found in some
small letters?
A. Hitch
B. Humps
C. Beard
D. Buckle knot
47. According to experts in questioned document examination, the
first step in the procurement of typewriting exemplars should be
-
A. Procurement of the suspected typewriter
B. Acquisition of typewriting exemplars
C. Study of the questioned typewriting
D. Checking the price of typewriters in the market
48. A stroke which goes back over another writing strokes in which is
slightly to occur due to lack of movement control is termed as -
A. Retouching
B. Shading
C. Retracing
D. Patching
49. As a rule in QD examination, it is easier to determine whether or
not a signature is forged, but it is difficult on the other hand
to established who committed the forgery because -
A. The forger might be a left handed
B. Imitations one of the most effective means to disguise one’s
handwriting
C. Study of the questioned typewriting
D. There should be no sufficient standards available.
50. Among the following, when the hammer pushes the firing pin, what
initiates the combustion of the gunpowder in a shell?
A. Bullet
B. Primer
C. Trigger
D. Push over
51. In the study of firearms, what type of primer consists only of
one flash hole or vent?
A. Berdan
B. Boxer
C. Battery
D. Foxhole type
52. Appropriately termed, what is called that metallic on non-
metallic cylindrical ball that can be propelled from a firearm?
A. Bullet
B. Shell
C. Hammer ball
D. Barrel ball
53. The importance of individual marks left on the bullet by a gun
barrel is that, it is useful in directly identifying the -
A. bullet which caused the fatal wound
B. person who fired the particular form
C. gun from which a bullet was fired
D. possible direction of shot
54. What instrument is used in measuring the pitch of the rifling of
a firearm?
A. Calipher
B. Helizometer
C. Tortion balance
D. Chronograph
55. What is the rate of speed of the bullet per unit of time at which
it leaves the gun muzzle expressed in ft/sec?
A. Penetration
B. Impact
C. Muzzle velocity
D. Trajectory
56. As a safety precaution in firing, when one draws of the pistol,
the index finger should -
A. Touch the outside of the trigger guard
B. Grasp the stock
C. Be straighten along the barrel
D. Be inside the trigger guard
57. What type of a firearm has six lands and grooves with right twist
the width of the grooves is twice the width of the lands?
A. Smith and Wesson type
B. Colt type
C. Browning type
D. Webley type
58. The mechanism of a firearm which grasps the rim of the cartridge
case and withdraw it from the chamber is called -
A. Extractor
B. Lock
C. Ejector
D. Extractor rod
59. In photography, what is called a magnified photograph of a small
object obtained by attaching a camera to the ocular of a compound
microscope?
A. Microphotography
B. Photomicrograph
C. Macrophotography
D. Photomacrograph
60. Among the following, what type of a bullet is designed to inflict
greater damage compared to the ordinary types?
A. Dum-dum bullet
B. Armor piercing bullet
C. Incendiary bullet
D. Explosive
61. Among the following, what type of bullet is designed to emit
bright flame at night when fired?
A. Armor piercing bullet
B. Incendiary bullet
C. Tracer bullet
D. None of these
62. What type of cartridge has a rim diameter smaller than the body?
A. Rimmed type
B. Belted Type
C. Rebated Type
D. Rimless Type
63. What type of cartridge has a priming mixture located at the
cavity rim and usually flat base?
A. Rim-free
B. Pin-fire
C. Center-fire
D. Belted
64. In ballistics, it is the helical grove mark found inside the bore
of the barrel designed to impart rotation motion of the bullet.
A. Lands
B. Grooves
C. Rifling
D. Pitch of rifling
65. What is called the individual marks found at the anterior portion
of the bullet due to its forwards movement to the barrel before
it initially rotates?
A. Skid marks
B. Shaving marks
C. Stripping marks
D. Slippage marks
66. When cartridge cases are found at the scene of firing, it means
that a ____ firearm was used.
A. Single shot
B. Automatic
C. Bold action
D. Double action
67. The term used to refer to the unstable rotation motion of a
projectile is -
A. Ricochet
B. Yaw
C. Key hole shot
D. Back shot
68. What is that condition in firing at which the cartridge took
several seconds before it discharges upon firing or a delayed in
the discharge of the cartridge happened?
A. Misfire
B. Backfire
C. Hang fired
D. Buckshot
69. In the study of poisons, several kinds are noted to be odorless
and colorless while some are obnoxious. Among the following,
which poisonous chemical has the smell of a rotten egg?
A. H2S
B. CO
C. CO2
D. H2O
70. What is the normal amount of semen per ejaculation of a normal
built person?
A. 1.5 to 3.5 cc
B. 2.5 to 3.5 cc
C. 3.5 to 5.5 cc
D. 3.5 to 4.5 cc
71. What is known as the reproduction of an impression made on soft
surface by utilizing casting materials?
A. Dry fusion
B. Metallic aides
C. Moulage
D. Plaster of Paris
72. The expulsion of the product of conception after the death of the
pregnant woman brought about by the post mortem contraction of
the uterine muscle is called -
A. Natural abortion
B. Post mortem abortion
C. Induced abortion
D. Therapeutic abortion
73. What kind of solution is used in the restoration or serial
numbers such as stainless, steel, lead, and cast iron?
A. Saturated solution of sodium bicarbonate
B. Etching solution
C. Colloidal magnesium
D. Borax Solution
74. Which of the following test result will confirm the biological
source of the blood?
A. White crystalline
B. Salmon pink
C. Dark brown rhomboid crystal
D. White cloudy precipitate
75. What is the drug jargon used to refer to a white crystalline
powder with a bitter numbering taste known as metamphetamine
hydrochloride?
A. Cocaine
B. Junkie
C. White Tawas
D. Shabu
76. What is the principal active component of opium which comes in
white crystalline powder or tablets?
A. Heroin
B. Morphine
C. Cocaine
D. Codeine
77. What type of drugs relieves pain and often induce sleep although
they may be considered narcotics?
A. Tranquilizers
B. Analgesics
C. Sedatives
D. Barbiturates
78. Among the following, what preliminary test in blood in a solution
of 1 to 80,000 dilution?
A. Benzidine
B. Phenolphthalein
C. Guiacum
D. Leucomalachine green
79. These are drugs which affects sensation, thinking, self-awareness
and emotion. They may be mild or overwhelming depending on the
dose and quality of the drugs. Which one is described?
A. Narcotics
B. Hallucinogens
C. Sedatives
D. Stimulants
80. Which of the following is considered conclusive sign of human
death?
A. Cessation of respiration
B. Cooling of the body
C. Cessation of heart function and circulation
D. Heating of the body
81. The change of color of the body after death when blood
accumulates the dependent portion of the body is called -
A. Rigor mortis
B. Algor mortis
C. Livor mortis
D. Edgar mortis
82. What characterized molecular death?

A. There is loss of life of the cells of the body
B. It occurs immediately after
C. It is usually pronounced by the physician
D. There is a transient loss of vital function of the body
individual
83. The elements of violent death are, except -
A. That the victim at the time the injuries were inflicted was
in normal health
B. That death may be expected from the physical injuries
C. That death ensued within a reasonable time
D. That death ensued from a lingering illness
84. How many minutes is necessary when persistent cessation in
respiration, circulation and brain function sufficient to declare
a person clinically dead?
A. 5 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 20 minutes
85. What is the general term used to all forms of violent death which
result primarily from the interference with the process of
respiration or the condition in which the supply of oxygen to the
blood or to the tissues or both has been reduced below normal
level?
A. Livor mortis
B. Flaccidity
C. Rigor mortis
D. Asphyxia
86. Which of the following statement can lead a prudent mind to the
conclusion of a homicidal drowning?
A. History of previous attempt to commit suicide
B. Presence of motive for the killing
C. Absence of mark of violence on the body surface
D. Mentality of the person
87. Which of the following is a qualitative test for carbon monoxide
in the blood?
A. Kunkel’s Test
B. T-test
C. KN test
D. Analysis of variance
88. One important characteristics of a gunshot wound exit is that -
A. the edges are everted
B. the size is smaller the missile
C. the edge is inverted
D. the shape is round or oval
89. When the head is free and mobile, a blow on the back of the head
may produce laceration in the front part of the brain. This is
what type of injury?
A. Direct of coup injury
B. Contre-coup injury
C. Remote
D. Coup-contre-coup injury
90. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissues and
blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained that it is a near
contact fire meaning that the distance of the body to the gun is
approximately about -
A. 6 inches range
B. 12 inches range
C. 18 inches range
D. 24 inches range
91. A physical injury which is found at the site and also at the
opposite of the application of force is called -
A. Extensive injury
B. Coup injury
C. Contre-coup injury
D. Coup-contre coup injury
92. When a person is stabbed by an ice-pick, what would be the kind
of wound exhibited?
A. Punctured wound
B. Lacerated wound
C. Hack wound
D. Incised wound
93. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an up trust, or two of
the three basic characteristic of a loop in fingerprint?
A. Plan arch
B. Tented arch
C. Central pocket loop
D. Accidental whorl
94. What is the type of fingerprint pattern where the looping or
slanting ridges flows towards the little finger?
A. Loop
B. Radial Loop
C. Ulnar loop
D. Tented arch
95. What type of fingerprint pattern consisting of a core, delta, re-
curving ridge and a ridge count of at least one?
A. Radial loop
B. Ulnar loop
C. Loop
D. Tented arch
96. What type of fingerprint pattern consisting of two or more
deltas, one or more ridge forming a complete circuitry and when
an imaginary line is drawn from left delta to right delta it
touches or cross the circulating ridges?
A. Plain whorl
B. Double Loop whorl
C. Central pocket loop whorl
D. Accidental whorl
97. In an accidental whorl type of fingerprint pattern, what pattern
is not included in the combination?
A. Ulnar loop
B. Plain Whorl
C. Tented arch
D. Plain arch
98. Bonus – B
99. It is a point along a ridge formation, which is found in front or
near the center of the diverging type lines. What is being
referred to?
A. Core
B. Delta
C. Island ridge
D. Convergence
100. What is the rule when there are two or more possible
bifurcation deltas which conform to the definition of delta?
A. The one nearest the core should be chosen
B. The one away from the core should be counted
C. The one which does not open towards the core is counted
D. All of the above are correct

==============================================================
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION SET C
--------------------------------------------------------------
--------------------------------------------------------------
1. On citizenship requirement under Philippine law, it states that

the police applicant must be a citizen of the Philippines. Then,
here comes Yamamoto Zenigata, a Japanese national who was
naturalized Filipino citizen applied to join the service. Is he
qualified as per citizenship requirement?
A. Yes, because the law is clear that the applicant must be a
Filipino citizen
B. No, because the requirement is construed to be that the
applicant is a natural born Filipino citizen.
C. It depends upon the prerogative of the Chief PNP
D. It depends upon the existence of a treaty between Japan and
the Philippines
2. Under the law, a police applicant must be a person of good moral
conduct. Which of the following document may prove this
requirement?
A. Transcript of scholastic records
B. Good moral character from the Barangay Chairperson
C. Letter of reference from a politician
D. Diploma
3. What is the process of attracting applicants who have the minimum
qualifications to be eligible for the selection procedure in the
police service?
A. Screening procedure
B. Selection procedure
C. Recruitment procedure
D. Target hardening process
4. In order to attract quality applicants to join the police
service, which of the following means should be prioritized?
A. Advertize intensively on broadcast media
B. Notices and Posters
C. Memorandum circulars
D. All of the above
5. Which of the following laws defines the role of the police in
dealing with the insurgency problems in the Philippines?
A. Republic Act 6975
B. Republic Act 8551
D. Republic Act 4869
6. The law provides that a police applicant must have passed the
psychiatric or psychological, drug and physical test to be
administered by the PNP or by any government hospital accredited
by the commission for the purpose of determining physical and
mental health. Among the following, which may be used to prove
this?
A. Medical and NP certification
B. Birth certificate
C. Certificate of good moral character
D. Any of the above
7. What is the educational requirement of entry to the police
service?
A. Applicant must provide copies of his transcript of records
B. Applicant must possess a formal baccalaureate degree from a
recognized institution of learning
C. Applicant may show four diploma certification from his/her
vocational courses
D. Applicant must file an income tax return
8. The maximum number of personnel that a superior officer handles
in a particular police unit is called –
A. Determination of Authority
B. Span of Control
C. Delegation of Authority
D. Scalar Chain
9. The purpose of a temporary appointment status in the police
service is to prevent a hiatus (a break in continuity) in the
discharge of official functions by authorizing a person to
discharge the same pending the selection of the permanent or
other appointee. What makes the approval temporary?
A. The fact that it is made to depend on the conditions
specified therein on the verification of the appointee to
the position.
B. An appointment cannot be withdrawn or revoked by the
appointing authority
C. Appointment remains in force and effect until disapproved by
the civil service commission
D. Appointment may be void from the beginning due to fraud on
the part of the appointee or because it was issued in
violation of law
10. The NAPOLCOM may grant waiver of age, height, weight and
educational requirement. Under this program, an applicant may be
considered to the age waiver if –
A. He or she provides a copy of the original birth certificate
B. He or she is a member of an indigenous or tribal group
C. He or she is not less than 20 but not more than 35 years of
age
D. He or she is less than 20 but not lower than the age of
emancipation
11. Under the waiver program, a Waiver of the educational requirement
granted to an applicant who has finished second year college or
has earned at least 72 collegiate units leading to a bachelor’s
degree should be given ___ to obtain the required educational
qualification.
A. maximum of 2 years
B. maximum of 3 years
C. maximum of 4 years
D. maximum of 5 years
12. In the history of law enforcement, which one is considered the
earliest codified law?
A. Code of King Hammurabi
B. 12 Tabulae
C. The Sumerian Code
D. Code of Kalantiao
13. Among the following, which is an ancient police system used by
the Greeks?
A. Medjays
B. Ephori
C. Tythingmen
D. Vigiles
14. Any uniformed PNP member who is admitted due to the waiver of the
educational or weight requirements shall be issued a temporary
appointment pending the satisfaction of the requirement waived.
This statement is –
A. exact as provided under RA 8551
B. exact as provided under RA 6975
C. modified or amended by other special laws
D. modified as to the nature of the appointment
15. The development of law enforcement can be traced with the
codifications of earlier laws. Which of the following is known as
the early Roman law?
A. The Justinian Code
B. The Code of Draco
C. The 12 Tabulae
D. Anglo-Saxon Law
16. In order for the police organization to achieve its goals and
objectives, clear guidelines must be set. Applying the
administrative principles of administration, which of the
following must come first?
A. Authority
B. Planning
C. Staffing
D. Organizing
17. The acronym PLEB means –
A. People’s Law Enforcement Body
B. People’s Law Enforcement Board
C. Police Law Enforcement Board
D. Police Legal Enforcement Body
18. Road blocks, humps, islands and other nuisance in the highway not
officially sanctioned by traffic rules or regulations are
considered in traffic law enforcement as–
A. Traffic hazards
B. Man made crisis
C. Highway systems
D. Law enforcement blockage
19. With the condition that he will pursue and finished a
baccalaureate degree within two years, police applicant Pablo was
successfully admitted to the service in the absence of a waiver
of the educational requirement. The recruitment officer was
administratively charged for violating the provision of the
waiver system as mandated by law. What law is being referred to
being violated?
A. Republic Act No. 8551
B. Republic Act No. 6975
C. Republic Act No. 4864
D. An Administrative Order
20. On a crowded street or crossing, a small sized police office was
constructed in that fixed area or location. While a police
officer conducts regular routine duty, a young man was arrested
for pick pocketing and was brought to the office for initial
investigation. What do you call that designated place where the
policeman was assigned?
A. In patrol, it is called beat
B. In patrol, it is called route
C. In patrol, it is called post
D. In patrol, it is called sector
21. What Roman law became known as Corpus Juris Civilis (Body of
law)?
A. The Justinian Code
B. The Code of Draco
C. The 12 Tabulae
D. Anglo-Saxon Law
22. What model of modern policing system does the American police
system was patterned?
A. French Police System
B. British Police System
C. Russian Police System
D. German Police System
23. PO1 Juan joined the police service by virtue of a waiver program.
However, he failed to satisfy any of the waived requirements
within the specified periods under Section 15 of the IRR of RA
8551. What will happen to him?
A. He may re apply for the same waiver for extension
B. He should be separated from the service
C. He should be placed on “floating status”
D. He should pay the government expenses of his entry to
the service.
24. On January 30,1999, SPO4 Makintab celebrated his 54th birthday
with the presence of his superior officer and other commissioned
officer in Camp Crame. Applying the provisions of law, how many
more years SPO4 Makintab will serve the PNP and he will be
obliged to retire from the service?
A. 4 years more
B. 3 years more
C. 2 years more
D. 1 year more
25. PO1 Juan was appointed as a police officer on June 1, 2000. He
opted to retire on June 1, 2020. Given an exactly 20 years of
service in the police service, what do you call the number of
years of actual service or that period that has elapsed since the
oath of office was administered?
A. Duty period
B. Length of service
C. Sworn Officer
D. Foggy period
26. This consists of any contiguous or adjacent area defined by
identifiable boundaries within the area of operation, where an
officer can effectively patrol during his tour of duty and can
respond to calls for assistance within matters of minutes.
A. Police Precinct
B. Police beat
C. Patrol operation
D. Integrated national police
27. The appointing authority for personnel of the PNP with the rank
of PO1 to SPO4, as provided in by law is the –
A. PLEB
B. PNP Regional Director
C. Chief of the PNP
D. Civil Service Commission
28. In a regular course of time, how many times does the Chief
Executive (President) appoints his/her Chief PNP?
A. Once, and co-terminus
B. Twice, and not co-terminus
C. Trice, and either co-terminus or not
D. As many times as he can
29. Who among the following is considered the father of bureaucratic
model of organizations”?
A. Charlie Atong Ang
B. Frederick taylor
C. Linda Swortzky
D. Max Weber
30. It is a contiguous area where a team of police investigators is
assigned to a specific task of conducting follow-up investigation
of all complaints, reports, referrals, and other requests with
the end view of full compliance and/or the filing of a case.
A. Police Precinct
B. Detective Patrol
C. Detective Beat
D. Patrol system
31. During the early period in English law enforcement, one of the
following was an influential law, which provide a system of
controlling citizens by way of a curfew system by closing the
gates of London during sundown?
A. Magna Carta during King Henry
B. Statute of Winchester of 1285
C. Shire-Rieve System
D. Frankpledge System
32. The first Filipino Chief of the Philippine Constabulary – the
first National Police Force in the Philippines was –
A. Gen. Rafael Crame
B. Gen. Fidel V. Ramos
C. Gen. Antonio Luna
D. Gen. Emilio Aguinaldo
33. When the Manila Police Department (MPD) was reconstituted in
1945, it was placed under American control where ____ became the
MPD Chief of Police.
A. Gen. Fabian Ver
B. Col. Marcus Ellis Jones
C. Col. Timothy Smith
D. Col. Anthony Core
34. How many star rank of a General, equivalent to the military rank,
does the Chief of the PNP has?
A. 2 stars
B. 3 stars
C. 4 stars
D. 5 stars
35. An increase in the level of authority due to satisfactory
performance is called ___. It implies that a personnel from a
lower position is placed to a higher position, thus in the police
service means the advancement to a position of leadership.
A. Lateral entry
B. Promotion of rank
C. Special standard for ranking
D. NAPOLCOM issue on the rank and file
36. In the study of community oriented policing system or COPS, one
of its main or core component is –
A. Politics
B. Problem Solving
C. Strategic Planning
D. Anti-drug abuse campaign
37. On a sunny afternoon, PO1 Barero was seen swimming with his
girlfriend at a private resort in Boracay while he was on duty in
a nearby precinct. Since he was on official duty, he may be
charged with what administrative offense?
A. Neglect of duty
B. Absent without official leave
C. Reprimand
D. Grave misconduct
38. While patrolling on a dark alley, PO1 Masigasig noticed that two
young individuals were in the act of sexual intercourse. Among
the following, which best action should PO1 Masigasig take?
A. Ignore them and continue patrolling to avoid violation of
privacy
B. Arrest them for vagrancy as they are juveniles
C. Call their attention and identify them for possible
interrogation
D. Proceed to the nearest police station and call a back up
39. In police parlance, the wise use of judgement or in taking action
or decision given a circumstance not covered by operating
procedure is called –
A. Authority
B. Leadership
C. Protocol
D. Discretion
40. Following the guidelines set under the original standard upon the
passage of RA 8551 on time and grade among PNP personnel, the
time and grade for SPO4 to Inspector should be –
A. 5 years
B. 4 years
C. 3 years
D. 2 years
41. The INTERPOL logo shows a sword vertically positioned at the
center of the globe which symbolizes –
A. Police action
B. Courage
C. Power
D. Authority
42. The policeman’s badge is a symbol of –
A. Authority
B. Power
C. Reason
D. Courage
43. In the event that an untoward incident happens in your area of
responsibility such as hostage taking, as a police officer, what
kind of police plan should you need to address the circumstance?
A. Operational plan
B. Strategic plan
C. Intermediate range plan
D. Handbook on hostage taking
44. In 1932, China organized its own secret police service to conduct
espionage and counter espionage against the Japanese spies. Such
secret police service was known as –
A. Tai Li
B. Tae Chow Li
C. Wong Li
D. Wong man Li
45. The most appropriate purpose given to the use of police uniforms,
from among the following is –
A. Individuality
B. Uniformity
C. Authority
D. Awesomeness
46. During the time of Martial Law in the Philippines, what do we
call our national police force?
A. Philippine Constabulary/Integrated National Police
B. Martial Law Police Force
C. Integrated National Police Force
D. State Police Force
47. After four years of courting, Pedro got frustrated over his love
for Maria. As a reason, he stabbed her 72 times but was caught in
flagrante delicto by the police who arrived at the scene. In
flagrante delicto means -
A. Catching the criminal prior to crime
B. Catching the criminal at the time of the crime
C. Catching the criminal under circumstance of a surprise
D. Arresting the criminal after declaration of his rights
48. After a few drinks at a bar and being tipsy, PO1 Pedro in his
uniform uttered “putang ina mo!” to the bar owner upon demand of
payment for his drinks. He left the area without paying his
bills. His action is a clear violation of the police ethical
standards and code of conduct, thus he should be –
A. dismissed from service immediately
B. separated for ignorance of the standards and the law
C. dismissed for unethical conduct
D. investigated and processed for dismissal from service
49. In the study of police communications, the hand held radio is a
very significant tool. Eversince, police operations usesradio
codes for purposes of –
A. Following police communication protocol
B. Standard operating procedures in the HQ
C. Secrecy in maneuvering forces
D. Chit and chat among police officers
50. In law enforcement, prevention of crime is always better than
solving it. This means that law enforcement should be –
A. Proactive
B. Reactive
C. Aggressive
D. Demanding
51. The application of concepts in policing such as community
oriented policing system and the koban system is a modern way of
keeping the peace under the philosophy of _____.
A. Weberian concept
B. Participative Law Enforcement
C. Constructive criticism
D. Uniformity in the service
52. The absence of firearm, police coat, hand held radio, police
baton, and other police equipment while on patrol require the use
of police initiative, wise judgement and intelligence in
effectively dealing with situations that may arise in the area of
operation. This issue in policing can be address by –
A. Team work and leadership
B. Discipline
C. Use of Police Discreation
D. Defense mechanisms
53. Bonus - A
54. Under the rules of police operations, the primodial consideration
in dealing with a hostage taking incident is –
A. sake of the parties involved
B. life of the hostage taker
C. safety of hostage/s
D. cordoning the area against bystanders and the media
55. Even if a police officer is on off duty, such as resting and in
the middle of a night, when circumstance calls his attention to
be present at, he should attend to it. This falls with the
principle that –
A. police officers are on call 24/7
B. the Police office is a public trust
C. all officers are civilian in their character
D. all of the above
56. When a subordinate officer in charge of a police unit failed to
make report or inform his superior officer based on standard
operating procedures, then such police officer violated the
principle of –
A. Command responsibility
B. Unity of command
C. Authority
D. Reporting
57. The PNP mission and vision is an example of –
A. Police plans
B. Organizational Development
C. Staffing pattern
D. Strategic goals
58. In the event that a superior officer (Chief)is absent and in
order to preserve the function of an office, there must be a
delegation of authority. Among the following, which appropriately
describe delegation of authority principle?
A. Assign the deputy to be placed in an acting capacity as
chief or officer in charge
B. Call all officers available to be at the HQ
C. Enter into a memorandum of agreement with the barangay
officials for police community relations programs
D. Delegate a CO from the military to be in charge
59. Screaming at the top of your voice calling the attention of the
assembly of men in order to go after a culprit is a system
employed during the middle ages in England. Such system is known
as –
A. Frankpledge system
B. Shire-rieve system
C. Hue and Cry system
D. Curfew system
60. If Frederick the Great is known as “father of organized military
espionage”; ___ is known as “father of counter-espionage”?
A. Joseph Petrosino
B. Joseph “the Artist”
C. Joseph Fouche
D. Joseph Slovikoche
61. The earliest personnel to direct and command the Federal Bureau
of Investigation of the United States as Director of the Bureau
is no other than –
A. Christopher Lambert
B. Christopher Columbus
C. John Edgar Hoover
D. Franklin Roosevelt
62. The MOSSAD is Israel’s intelligence network. It has two main
branches – the AMAN or the military intelligence/ defense forces
and the ___ which is the internal security service arm.
A. Shatum
B. Shabak
C. Shibum
D. Sharon
63. Which of the following statement correctly describes the Theory X
assumptions based on McGregor’s Theory of management as applied
in the police organization?
A. The average person inherently dislikes work and will try to
avoid it
B. Most people must be coerced, controlled, directed, and
threatened with punishment to get them to work towards
organizational goals
D. None of these are correct
64. PO1 Garutay was consistent in his excellent attendance. He was
observed to be hard working and dedicated to his being a police
officer assigned to the morning shift. He helped his wife in
their RTW business after work in the afternoon and during the
night he serves as a bouncer in a gay bar. Is there any violation
of police ethical standards or code of conduct that PO1 Garutay
may be charged with?
A. None, he should instead be given commendation for a job well
done
B. None, all sideline activities are outside office hours
C. Yes, being a bouncer at a gay bar is tantamount to unethical
conduct of a police officer
D. Yes, he should suffer both criminal and administrative
offenses
65. What doctrine in policing which states that the “failure of a
subordinate in the discharge of his duties and functions is also
the failure of his superior officer”?
A. Fundamental doctrine
B. Scalar chain
C. Command responsibility
D. Remuneration of personnel
66. In the event that a policeman dies in the course of his or her
official function, the law provides for a promotion which is
called posthumous promotion. Such recipient is entitled to –
A. promotion to a 1 degree rank higher from the present rank
B. promotion to 2 degrees rank higher from the present rank
C. promotion to 2 degrees rank higher if the recipient is a
commissioned officer
D. all of the above statements are correct
67. In the recruitment system of the PNP in which the NAPOLCOM has
implemented according to the mandate of the law, which of the
following requirements cannot be waived?
A. Age of applicant
B. Education requirement
C. Marital Status of applicant
D. Height and weight requirement
68. A police officer, acting as chief or head of unit, handling
several subordinates is knowledgeable about human needs as a
factor in his decision making process. This simply shows that he
or she is well informed about -
A. McGregor’s Theory X and Y
B. Theory Z
C. Maslow’s Theory
D. Broken window theory
69. The police crime laboratory released a report that, as per DNA
analysis, Jenny was the daughter of Amado who was murdered by
Antonio, the known rapist of Jenny whom Isabel, Jenny’s mother
was a lived-in relationship. Any police investigation, the
acronym DNA refers means –
A. Dyroxynarcoanalysis
B. Dioxyrebunucleic Acid
C. Deoxyrebunucleic Acid
D. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
70. In police intelligence practices, among the following, which is
an appropriate cover in the area of operation characterized by
darkness and noisy environement?
A. Event using a loud microphone
B. Black outfit in an event without unnecessary noise
C. White suit with sophisticated gadgets
D. All of the above are appropriate
71. The capability of a prospective intelligence agent to obtain the
desired information for the Intel organization or to perform
Intel collection in an area is called –
A. Provocation
B. Access
C. Undercover operation
D. Placement
72. What policy is applied in planning when laws and statutes are the
primier consideration in a key result area?
A. Internal policy
B. External policy
C. Intra-corporate policy
D. Complimentary policy
73. The Chairman of the National Police Commission is also the same
as the Secretary of the DILG since the position as chairman of
the NAPOLCOM is an ex-officio position. This statement is –
A. True since 1990
B. True since 1998
C. True since 1966
D. False
74. Patrolling the area by moving in back and fort, from one police
box to another in a street is an exact application of –
A. Clover leaf patrol pattern
B. Straightway patrol pattern
C. Zigzag patrol pattern
D. Counter clockwise patrol pattern
75. What is called the degree to which a police officer feels
positively or negatively about his or her function, which is an
emotional response to one’s task on the physical and social
condition of the police workplace?
A. Stress level
B. Burned out system
C. Job satisfaction
D. Performance evaluation
76. In recruiting new applicants, the mental and emotional make-up of
a police applicant can be effectively checked properly by –
A. Agility testing
B. Medical testing
C. Neuro-psychiatric testing
D. Drug testing
77. The National Intelligence Coordinating Agency (NICA)commits to
the motto ___.
A. Knowledge is Power
B. Knowledge is Security
C. Vigilance, Security, and Power
D. We serve, we protect
78. Line intelligence pertains to knowledge of the so called PWET
acronym. T in this acronym refers to –
A. Tactical Interrogation
B. Terrain of AOR
C. Troops of the Enemy
D. Training ground of Enemy
79. PO1 Juan was tasked to conduct patrol activity in an estimated
1km part of the AOR. Instead of going straightway, he moved in an
alternate left and right route of the highway keeping attention
to known street gangs in the city for any possible offense. What
kind of patrol pattern may be derived in this patrol activity?
A. Clockwise patrol pattern
B. Zigzag patrol pattern
C. Counterclockwise patrol pattern
D. Combination of patterns
80. Who among the following advocated several systems of police
organizational reforms and practices that led to the
modernization police practice in England and gained the fame as
“father of modern policing system”?
A. Oliver Wilson
B. Robert Peel
C. Rommel Marsinko
D. August Vollmer
81. Reading simple police reports using Alpha for A,Bravo for B,
Charlie for C and so on and so forth requires basic or advance
knowledge of –
A. Dyad
B. Codes
C. Ciphers
D. Script
82. Upon receipt of a call that a bus transit destined to Bataan was
stacked up at NLEX, PO2 Pablo, being the radio operator in the
headquarter, should inform the Highway Patrol nearest to NLEX for
–
A. Immediate arrest of the driver
B. Immediate assistance regarding any problem
C. Immediate transport of passengers with another vehicle
D. Immediate fire fighting on the bus on fire
83. An MMDA traffic enforcer was signaled by a passing bus driver
that a commotion of vehicles was observed ahead in the traffic
route should –
A. Immediately check the bus plate number
B. Immediately verify the ongoing commotion
C. Immediately ask the driver to stand by and ask for the
drivers license
D. Immediately call the office and report a traffic accident
84. Police and military intelligence, including government task
forces, are common in terms of patterns in intelligence
gathering. Which of the following is not one among those
similarities of the activities in intelligence operations?
A. Collection of information
B. Analysis and interpretation of information
C. Recording and dissemination of the information
D. Processing of information
85. Under the law, the initial rank of a chief of police either in a
city or municipality should be –
A. Senior Inspector
B. Senior Police Officer 4
C. Police Inspector
D. At the discretion of the Chief PNP
86. Under the law, the highest rank of the PNP should have the
position as Chief of the PNP to be appointed by no other but the
–
A. President of the Republic of the Philippines
B. President of the Senate
C. Commission on Appointment
D. Chairperson of the Civil Service Commission
87. While cruising the express way at 150 KPH, the driver was stopped
by a traffic enforcer at the toll gate due for questioning to the
over speeding. If 150 KPH is considered over speeding in the
express way, what is then the maximum speed limit in an express
way?
A. 140 KPH
B. 130 KPH
C. 100 KPH
D. 80 KPH
88. Berto was arrested for stealing a the cellphone of Berta. Police
officer Camaskamas detained Berto beyond the hours prescribed by
law. Is the police officer liable for any offense?
A. Absolutely liable for criminal and administrative offense
B. Liable for administrative offense only
C. Liable for criminal offense only
D. No liability since he just performed his duty
89. Procopio was at the police office to inform a vehicular accident
happened that he personally witnessed. The police officer in
charge was busy playing solitaire and angry birds game on the
computer set and instead instruct Procopio to come back later.
Due to his inattention to Procopio’s purpose, he may be charged
for –
A. Malfeasance
B. Misfeasance
C. Non-feasance
D. All of the above
90. In the absence of the assigned chief of police in a city or
municipality, the most senior police officer may be asked to take
charge of the office under the principle of –
A. Command responsibility
B. Delegation of authority
C. Unity of command
D. Scalar chain
91. While attending a family occasion on a day off period, PO1 Juan
noticed that a building was on fire where a lady was seen waiving
her hands at the roof top calling for help. P01 Juan went for the
rescue despite the risk of putting himself into danger due to the
big fire. He, however, was able to save the lady. In case he
avails his priviledge to be promoted, what type of promotion
shoul he avail?
A. Regular promotion
B. Special promotion
C. Special allowance
D. Lateral entry
92. The kind of promotion whereby a non-commissioned officer can take
the rank of a commissioned officer, jumping over other ranks in
the hierarchy is called ___.
A. Spot promotin
B. Post Humous
C. Lateral Entry
D. Vertical Entry
93. From among the following, what is the yardstick of measuring
police efficiency and effectiveness in a traditional perspective?
A. Number of arrests
B. Reactive patrol
C. Volume of crime solved
D. Proactive measures
94. Dogs are valuable partners of man in the field of law enforcement
today with the adoption of canine units in many police
departments. Historically, which society first use dogs as part
of their practices in patrolling places?
A. Romans
B. Greeks
C. Egyptians
D. Tasmanians
95. While cruising the express way at 150 KPH, the driver was stopped
by a traffic enforcer at the toll gate due for questioning to the
over speeding. What type of patrol method is significant in
determining highway traffic rule violation such as over speeding?
A. Foot patrol method is more advantageous
B. Use of specialized patrol like TV patrol
C. Helicopter patrol
D. Motor vehicle patrol
96. Bembol filed his application to join the PNP without the minimum
qualification in terms of education. He was strike out in the
process. Can he refile his application after fulfilling the
educational requirements?
A. Yes, there is no prohibition for cases of re- application
B. No, because of the availability of many applicants
C. Yes, as long as he is not disqualified on any of the other
requirements
D. Both A and C are correct
97. The police service is a stressful job. Stress comes along with
anger are common result of the nature and demand of police
duties. Of the following police values, which can be used to deal
with anger?
A. Ordinary defense mechanism
B. Smoke a stick of cigar
C. Reaction formation
D. Maximum tolerance
98. The process of investigating or evaluating the thruthfulness of
threats to persons as part of security measure is called:
A. Risk reduction
B. Threat Assessment
C. Risk management
D. Duress Investigation
99. The PNP is mandated by law, thru the PNPSAGSD, to detail
Protective Security Personnel (PSP) to the Vice President of the
Republic of the Philippines, even in the absence of written
request. How many PSP should be detailed to a Vice President, as
per mandate of law?
A. 9 Protective Security Personnel
B. 15 Protective Security Personnel
C. 6 Protective Security Personnel
D. 4 Protective Security Personnel
100. Due to a significant call from higher HQ, the Chief of Police in
a municipality - PI Jaime Bantungal, was replaced by SPO4 William
Castinadar on an OIC capacity. For how long officer Castinadar
stay as OIC without replacement and be eligible for promotion to
the rank of Police Inspector?
A. 2 years
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
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REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CRIMINAL DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION SET B
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1. Global organized crime exists in almost every country worldwide

and continues to expand in size infiltrating new economies.
Atrocities are being forced upon the unfortunate victims of
organized crime. Some of these affronts include, except –
A. Torture and violence
B. Extortion
C. Blackmail
D. Infiltration
2. Based on the Chinese Triad organizational structure, the highest
official “shan chu” is designated with number 489, responsible
for –
A. Being the overall boss
B. Controller of finances
C. Management of all principal lodges
D. All of these
3. The numerical codes next to the titles of each Chinese Triad
office represent the numerological rank, with each one signifying
–
A. location of base operation
B. a different level of responsibility
C. an incumbent position in the hierarchy
D. just an insignia
4. What case in the United States popularized the Poisonous Tree
Doctrine?
A. Mapp vs. Ohio
B. Lapp vs. Illinois
C. Miranda vs. Arizona
D. The Jones Case
5. The Columbian Medellín Cartel was an organized network of "drug
suppliers and smugglers" originating in –
A. Colombo
B. Mumbai India
C. Golden Traingle
6. The term use designated to disruptive computer programs that use
computer networks or the internet to self replicate and send
themselves to other users, generally via e-mail, without the aid
of the operator.
A. Malware
B. Virus
C. Worm
D. Bug
7. The Cali Cartel was a drug cartel based in southern Colombia. It
was founded by –
A. Rodríguez Orejuela brothers
B. Pancho Machete brothers
C. Juan Marquez Santacruz brothers
D. Fidel Castro brothers
8. The known earliest use of fire to mankind was for –
A. shaping of weapons and tools
B. changing clay to pottery
C. keeping them warm and furnish light
D. cooking their food
9. This refers to any distinctive mark, characteristic and/or sound
in electronic form, representing the identity of a person and
attached to or logically associated with the electronic data
message or electronic document or any methodology or procedures
employed or adopted by a person and executed by such person with
the intention of authenticating or approving an electronic data
message or electronic documents.
A. Electronic Data
B. Avatar
C. Electronic Signature
D. Information Security
10. Ignition temperature is similarly situated as –
A. Heat
B. Fire Point
C. Flash point
D. Heat stroke
11. In general terms, what is the heat and light that comes from the
combustion of substances?
A. Fire
B. Flame
C. Heat
D. Temperature
12. The combustion process is also the burning process know as –
A. Controlled Fire
B. Free Radicals
C. Pyrolysis
D. Vaporization
13. The intentional act committed by a person who, knowingly and
without lawful justification follows the woman or her child or
places the woman or her child under surveillance directly or
indirectly is known as –
A. Tailing or shadowing
B. Stalking
C. Voyeurism
D. None of these
14. The fire triangle represents the glowing mode of fire while the
fire tetrahedron represents the ___ of fire.
A. Charring Mode
B. Flaming Mode
C. Pyrolysis
D. Thermal decomposition
15. The exporting and importing of human beings for purposes of
exploitation where the originating nation and the receiving
nation are the main victims of the illicit trade usually
committed by organized criminals is known as –
A. Kidnapping
B. Human smuggling
C. Exploitation of women and children
D. Crimes against humanity
16. In the Cosa Nostra structure, Orders for any business venture
and/or killing must originate from at least as high as the –
A. Capo di mandamento
B. Capobastone
C. Capo de capo
D. Consigiere
17. How much percent of oxygen is needed to sustain combustion?
A. Approximately 16%
B. Must be more than 21%
C. At least 10%
D. Must not be less than 21%
18. Organized Crime thrives on the infiltration of legitimate
business much like a parasite, attaching itself and stealing from
the host. This statement is
A. Absolutely true
B. Absolutely false
C. Partially true
D. Partially false
19. Mafia families have begun to implant themselves deep into
multinational corporations in order to generate massive revenues
to bypass having to take on riskier investments such as ___,
except –
A. Narcotics trafficking
B. Terrorism for political aim
C. Human Trafficking
D. Market monopoly
20. A complete understanding of the functions of organized crime lies
not in one discipline, but in several, multi disciplinary
approach. This statement describe –
A. The accumulation of knowledge and the eventual integration
of the relevant insights from several disciplines that gives
the unique perspective of the problem.
B. Planning the collection of information process for
integration of anti-organized crime measures
C. Interdisciplinary investigation of crimes
D. A more holistic understanding of the issue as well as means
to a possible solution.
21. Organized crime refers to any group having a corporate structure
whose primary objective is to obtain money through illegal
activities, often surviving on fear and corruption. This
definition of organized crime is based on –
A. INTERPOL
B. United Nations
C. Philippine Anti Organized Crime Task Force
D. Military parlance
22. Organized crime commonly established division of labor designated
for the commission of crime. Thus, this characterized its being –
A. Monopolistic
B. Hierarchical
C. Exclusive membership
D. Unique subculture
23. What is produced when fire is in its supersonic speed mode?
A. Explosion
B. Detonation
C. Vaporization
D. High Voltage
24. What is also known as Pyrolysis?
A. Thermal decomposition of matter
B. The Burning Process
C. The Combustion Process
D. All of these
25. In the burning process, what are being burned are gasses or
vapors known as free radicals. Among the following, which is not
or the least of free radicals?
A. Hydrogen gas
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Nitrogen
D. Inert gas
26. Organized Crime as any group having some manner of a formalized
structure and whose primary objective is to obtain money through
–
A. Natural events
B. Untoward incidents
C. Illegal activities
D. All of the above
27. The constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the
liquid is equal to the atmospheric pressure is called –
A. Kindling/Ignition Temperature
B. Boiling Point
C. Fire point
D. Vapor density
28. What do we call, in the study of fires, changes whereby heat is
absorbed before a reaction takes place?
A. Endothermic
B. Exothermic
C. Oxidation
D. Flame
29. ___ are crimes committed in violation of the code of war. It is
directed often to the innocent civilian of protagonist nations.
A. POW
B. War Crimes
C. Crimes against humanity
D. Military crimes
30. ______ is energy in motion.
A. Thermal
B. Oxidation
C. Flame
D. Heat
31. Among the following, who was credited as the chief organizer of
the Scotland Yard in London?
A. Henry Fielding
B. Francis Glaton
C. Robert Peel
D. Queen Elizabeth
32. The kind of flame that is disturbed and thus produces rugged
edges rather than being smooth is called __.
A. Luminous Flame
B. Premixed Flame
C. Turbulent Flame
D. Diffused Flame
33. This refers to a condition of enforced, compulsory service
induced by means of any scheme, plan or pattern, intended to
cause a person to believe that, if the person did not enter into
or continue in such condition, that person or another person
would suffer serious harm or other forms of abuse or physical
restraint, or the abuse or threatened abuse of the legal process.
What is being defined?
A. Forced labor or slavery
B. Involuntary Servitude
C. Maltreatment
D. Threat against persons
34. The best reason why a luminous flame has orange-red color is due
to ______.
A. incomplete combustion of matter
B. the chemical component of the burning material
C. carbon monoxide
D. slow input of oxygen
35. The fireman has noticed an accelerated burning process and
estimated a temperature of about 800-1000 °F at the base of fire
in the burning house. This observation leads to conclusion that
the fire is in its __ stage.
A. Incipient
B. Free Burning
C. Smoldering
D. Controlled
36. Which of the following does not fall under Class A fires?
A. None of these
B. Exploding gas depot
C. Burning nipa hut
D. Forest fire
37. What is the term used to refer to organic matters like wood,
garbage and animal manure that can be use to produce energy?
A. Plastic
B. Biomass
C. Coal
D. Fossils
38. What do we call plastic fuel that contains nitro cellulose?
A. Pyroxylin
B. Pyrolytic
C. Pyrolyzed
39. What is the flash point of a liquid?
A. 82 degrees celcius
B. 88 degrees celcius
C. 79 degrees celcius
D. 69 degrees celcius
40. What kind of fuel has no definite shape or volume?
A. Liquid
B. Gas
C. Solid
D. All of the above
41. Which of the following is considered as the forerunner of the
Federal Bureau of Investigation in the United States?
A. Scotland Yard
B. The Texas Ranger
C. Los Angeles Police Department
D. Boston Police
42. Air has approximately __ % of oxygen, which is also the needed
amount to begin reacting with fuel.
A. 28
B. 16
C. 81
D. 21
43. This refers to the extraction of work or services from any person
by means of enticement, violence, intimidation or threat, use of
force or coercion, including deprivation of freedom, abuse of
authority or moral ascendancy, debt-bondage or deception. What is
being defined?
A. Forced Labor or Slavery
B. Banishment
C. Assault
D. Child Abuse
44. What is called the behavior of fire where fire ball maybe
produces?
A. Backdraft
B. Flashover
C. Biteback
D. Flashfire
45. 100*C is equivalent to __ *F.
A. 212 degrees Fahrenheit
B. 312 degrees Fahrenheit
C. 412 degrees Fahrenheit
D. 122 degrees Fahrenheit
46. He was America’s most famous private investigator and founder of
the first private criminal investigation in the United States. He
established the practice of handwriting examination in American
courts and promoted a plan to centralize criminal identification
records. Who was he?
A. Laurence Lawton
B. Allan Pinkerton
C. Charles Dekkins
D. Thomas Byrnes
47. When the heat source which provided a destructive fire is from
cooking appliances that involves combustible cooking media such
as vegetable or animal oil, the class of fire is considered as
_________.
A. Class K fire
B. Class D fire
C. Class B fire
D. No Class
48. Generally, the term use to refer to the act of inflicting
physical harm upon a woman or her child resulting to the physical
and psychological or emotional distress is called –
A. Physical abuse
B. Battering
C. Child and woman abuse
D. Mauling
49. He was a criminal who turned Paris Investigator. He was a former
convict who became a notorious thief-catcher and was credited
being the founder of La Surete - France’s national detective
organization. Who was he?
A. Eugene Vidocq
B. Sherlock Wool
C. Etchoneva Viera
D. Hendrick Lupin III
50. Which of these best describe conduction?
A. Heat transfer through liquid
B. Heat transfer through heat wave
C. Heat transfer through solid material
D. Heat transfer through air motion
51. In the study of the fire tetrahedron, which is called the 4th
element of fire?
A. Pyrolysis
B. Combustion process
C. The Chain reaction
D. Thermal decomposition of matter
52. What is called the total quantity of combustible contents of a
building, space, or fire area including interior finish which can
totally affect the combustion process?
A. Fuel load
B. Fire origin
C. Humidity
D. Physical characteristic
53. Symbolism for identity purposes are common features of organized
crime groups. Which group of organized crime has the symbol of
images of a black hand? The gang's primary symbol, which is often
used in tattoos by members, is the symbol of eagle and a snake
atop a flaming circle over crossed knives.
A. Mexican Mafia
B. Cosa Nostra
C. Irish Mob
D. Creep and Blood
54. The Russian Mafia is a name applied to organized crime syndicates
in Russia and Ukraine. The mafia in various countries takes the
name of the country, as for example the Ukrainian Mafia. The term
“Bratva” is a name designating a range of organized
crime syndicates originating in the former Soviet Union, and
literally means –
A. Brotherhood
B. Fratman
C. Gang Member
D. Brave member
55. Generally, when the moisture content of fuel is above 15%,
ignition is difficult and requires heat in a prolonged period of
time. What is being described?
A. Fuel load
B. Oxygen content
C. Fuel condition
D. Class of the fuel
56. The abnormal decomposition of matter through fire is called __.
A. Thermodynamics
B. Thermal Balance
C. Thermal Imbalance
D. Pyrolitic Characteristic
57. During the stages of fire, the rate of fire spread is determined
by the heat release rate of a burning fuel. This statement is __.
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
C. Sometimes correct
D. Sometimes incorrect
58. What common condition maybe produced when air suddenly enters a
non-ventilated area where carbon and other products of fire are
confined?
A. Backdraft
B. Fireball
C. Flashover
D. Intensity
59. Which of the following is not a means of measuring temperature?
A. Rankin
B. Kelvin
C. Compass
D. Celcius
60. What is the doctrine which states that a person who has the last
clear chance to avoid the impending harm and fails to do so is
chargeable with the consequences without reference to prior
negligence of the other party?
A. Doctrine of Last Clear Chance
B. Doctrine of Poisonous Tree
C. Free will doctrine
D. Doctrine of determinism
61. There are three primary effects that structure geometry will have
on fire, except?
A. Ventilation
B. Fuel Load
C. Ability to retain heat
D. Humidity
62. What are called the “eyes and ears” of fire investigators in the
case of arson?
A. Witness
B. Complainant
C. Firemen
D. Fire setter
63. It is a statement made in passing; a rule issued on a point not
necessarily involved in the case.
A. Obiter Dictum
B. Malis Dictum
C. Dictum Probum
D. Pro Bono
64. Which of the following law punishes the crime of arson?
A. PD 1613
B. PD 1744
C. Revised Penal Code
D. All of the Above
65. What is meant by the acronym GPS?
A. Global Positioning System
B. Global Pilot System
C. Global Positioning Scheme
D. General Post Satellite
66. Which of the following illustrates the crime of arson?
A. Simultaneous fire
B. Faulty electric wiring
C. Unexplained explosion
D. Thick reddish smoke
67. In studying the motives of arsonist, expert suggested that the
most common motive why people put things on fire is _.
A. Reward
B. Monetary gain
C. Revenge
D. Covering up another crime
68. A type of pyromaniac who set a building on fire then pretends he
discovers it?
A. Abnormal youth
B. Drug addict
C. Hero type
D. Sexual pervert
69. Who among the following was a prominent London president who
proposed the unique idea of creating sizeable uniformed force to
police the city of London in order to remedy the public outcry
concerning the alarming increase of criminality during the early
1800s?
A. Patrick Colquhoun
B. Patrick Swayze
C. Patrick Wales
D. Patrick Gayzon
70. Which of the following is synonymous with intentional fire or
arson?
A. Simultaneous fire
B. Pyromanianism
C. Dragon fire
D. Incendiary fire
71. Motive is an element in the crime of arson. This statement is -
A. True
B. False
C. Partially true
D. Partially false
72. In cyber crime investigation, this refers to a program that
disrupts or destroys existing programs and networks, causing them
to perform the task for which it was designed.
A. Computer Protocol
B. Computer Virus
C. Computer System
D. Control Delete
73. Which of the following tale tell signs indicates the material
used by the arsonist?
A. Type of building under fire
B. Color of smoke
C. Wind direction
D. Smoke marks
74. By observation, the fireman noticed black smokes and reddish
flame coming out of the windows of the burning building. This
indicates that the burning material would be -
A. Petroleum or rubber products
B. Magnesium products
C. Nitrogen products
D. Potassium products
75. The marijuana alkaloid THC is considered hallucinogen drug; ___
is a stimulant drug.
A. Cocaine Hydrochloride
B. Barbiturates
C. Tranquilizers
D. The Opiates
76. Under set rules and guidelines, how many copies of the Fire
Investigation Report (FIR) should be prepared by the fire
investigator?
A. Duplicated copy
B. Five (5) copies
C. Three (3) copies
D. As many copies as he can
77. What is referred to as the total damage of the whole area burned?
A. Aggregate damage
B. Property damage
C. Actual damage
D. Moral damage
78. Why is water prohibited to quench Class D fires?
A. Burning metals are too hot
B. Water is not capable of extinguishing fires
C. There is danger of electrocution
D. Class D fires react violently with water
79. Heat can be extinguished by means of __ method.
A. Cooling
B. Smothering
C. Fuel removal
D. Chemical inhibition
80. The use of a fire track is considered a fire extinguisher.
A. True
B. False
C. Partially true
D. Partially false
81. During war, or in pursuit of an ideology, this is committed for
purposes of extinction of a certain race or group who are hostile
to a ruling party of government. This only happens when the
incumbent government is under the regime of a dictator or
authoritarian. Which one of the following?
A. Mass destruction
B. Genocide
C. Crimes against humanity
D. Martial law crimes
82. Which of the following drug is an alkaloid extracted from a
cactus plant called peyote?
A. LSD
B. Mescaline
C. Morning glory seed
D. Psylocibin
83. Which of the following is not one among the types of chemicals
used in a portable fire extinguisher?
A. Compressed gas
B. Halon
C. Dry Chemical
D. Dry Powder
84. Under the DILG or PNP Law, which government agency is
responsible for the prevention and suppression of all destructive
fires on buildings, houses, and other structures, forest, land
transportation vehicles, aircraft, sea transportation and
equipment.
A. Bureau of Jail and Management
B. Local Government
C. Bureau of Fire Protection
D. Fire Department
85. What important point to be established to determine the location
or place in the building the fire started?
A. The most damaged part of the building
B. The exterior part of the building
C. The interior and the badly damaged part of the building
D. The point of origin of the fire
86. The Dangerous Drugs Board is the policy making body in pursuit to
a drug free Philippines. Are there how many ex-officio members of
the DDB as per RA 9165?
A. 14
B. 18
C. 12
D. 10
87. It is the uncontrollable impulse of a person to burn anything.
A. Reaction
B. Pyromania
C. Body spasm
D. Pyromaniac
88. In a fire situation, or burning building, an important factor in
determining the use of incendiary fire and a good indication of
the intensity of the fire is _.
A. Color of smoke
B. The heat
C. Type of fuel
D. Color of flame
89. Organized crime group controls its members promptly and deadly;
there's a code of silence, secrecy, extensive rules and
regulations; extensive attempts will be made to insulate key
members from identification by authorities. Thus, the group has
another characteristic –
A. Restricted membership
B. Strict Discipline
C. Immunity from prosecution
D. White collar criminals
90. Appropriately, in a vehicular accident, ___ refers to marks left
on the roadway by tires, which are not free to rotate, usually
because brakes are applied strong, and the wheels locked.
A. Wheel marks
B. Skid marks
C. Tire marks
D. All of the above
91. In computer crime investigation, the acronym USB means –
A. United Serial Box
B. Unified Series Box
C. Universal Serial Bus
D. Universal Series Bus
92. In criminal investigation, when three investigators follow a
circular path in the search of items that can be used as
evidence, then the search method used is simply –
A. Zone Method
B. Grid Method
C. Strip Search
93. The activity of protecting the properties from preventable damage

other than the fire. The steps are a) remove the material outside
the burning area, and b) protecting or cover the materials by
using tarpaulins (cotton canvass treated with water proofing) is
called __.
A. Fire fighting
B. Extinguishment
C. Salvage
D. Overhauling
94. In general, the act of filing the same suit in different court is
called –
A. Forum shopping
B. Multiple complaint
C. Double Jeopardy
D. All of the above
95. Among the following, which one refers to a group of crimes where
the borders defining territorial boundaries of nations are
involved?
A. International crimes
B. Transnational crimes
C. Border crimes
D. Intercontinental crimes
96. Under Republic Act 9165, the following are part of the mandatory
drug testing provision, except –
A. Application to Elective Positions
B. Securing Driver’s License
C. Application to the Military or Police Agencies
D. Officers of Secondary and Tertiary Educational Institutions
97. If the DDB is the policy making body in relation to the provision
of RA 9165, what then the implementing arm?
A. National Bureau of Investigation
B. Philippine National Police
C. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
D. All of the above
98. Historically, which plant is considered older in terms of
cultivation purposely used as intoxicant?
A. The Marijuana plant, as it was cultivated for religious
rituals and as intoxicant
B. The Opium poppy plant because it goes back 7000 yrs B.C.
C. The Opium poppy plant because it was originally cultivated
as a source medicine
D. The Coca Bush Plant as it was used by the Native Indians
99. When the testimony of a witness is reduced into writing or
affirmation, then it is appropriately called –
A. an affidavit
B. a disposition
C. a confession
D. an admission
100. The accumulation of broken parts of vehicle rubbish, dust and
other materials left at the scene of a vehicular accident by a
collision is commonly known as –
A. Particles
B. Debris
C. Auto parts
D. Scuff
Criminal Jurisprudence
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1. What is the duration of Arresto Mayor as a penalty?

A. One day to thirty days
B. As the court may determine
C. Six months and one day to six years
D. One month and one day to six months
2. If the convict has no property with which to meet the fine of his
pecuniary liabilities, he shall be subject to __.
A. Accessory penalty
B. Preventive imprisonment
C. Subsidiary penalty
D. Afflictive penalty
3. One by which a party sues another for the enforcement or
protection of a right or the prevention or redress of a wrong.
What is being defined?
A. Civil action
B. Criminal action
C. Special proceedings
D. Remedial action
4. It is the method prescribed by law for the apprehension and
prosecution of persons accused of any criminal offense, and their
punishment, in case of conviction.
A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Procedure
C. Criminal Evidence
D. Remedial Law
5. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend and
testify at the hearing or trial or the trial of an action or at
any investigation conducted by competent authority or the taking
of his deposition.
A. Summons
B. Subpoena
C. Court Order
D. Warrant
6. It is an accusation in writing charging a person with an offense,
subscribed by the prosecutor and filed with the court.
A. Information
B. Mittimus
C. Court Order
D. Complaint
7. ___ is one by which the State prosecutes a person for an act or
omission punishable by law.
A. Civil Action
B. Remedial Action
C. Criminal Action
D. Power of the State
8. It is concerned with the procedural steps through which a
criminal case passes, commencing with the initial investigation
of a crime and concluding with the unconditional release of the
offender. What is being defined?
A. Criminal Procedure
B. Criminal Evidence
C. Criminal Law
D. Remedial Law
9. It is a writ addressed to the defendant, directing him to answer
within the time prescribed by the rules the complaint filed
against him by the plaintiff, with a notice that unless he so
answers, plaintiff will take judgment by default and maybe
granted the relief applied for.
A. Court Order
B. Summons
C. Subpoena
D. Warrant
10. __ are remedies by which a party seeks to establish a
status, a right, or a particular fact.
A. Criminal Action
B. Special proceedings
C. Administrative case
11. It is a generic term used to describe the network of laws and
rules which govern the procedural administration of criminal
justice.
A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Evidence
C. Criminal Procedure
D. Remedial Law
12. What is called the authority to hear and decide a particular
offense and impose punishment for it?
A. Criminal Evidence
B. Criminal Jurisdiction
C. Power of the Court
D. Juridical Power
13. The facts alleged in the complaint and the laws in force at the
time of the commencement of the action determine the jurisdiction
of a court. This statement is –
A. Correct, as it is a general rule
B. Incorrect, as not one among the rules
C. It depends on the judge to consider
D. It depends on the law existing at the time of application
14. It is the process of resolving a dispute or a grievance outside
of the court by presenting it to a third party or a panel
decision.
A. Mediation
B. Arbitration
C. Amicable settlement
D. Negotiation
15. In Katarungang Pambarangay proceedings, may the parties appear
with the assistance of their counsel?
A. Yes, because of their right to have counsel
B. No, appearance of a lawyer in all Patarungang Pambarangay
proceedings is prohibited
C. Yes, at the prerogative of each party
D. No, unless the lupon chairman allows it
16. It is a sworn written statement charging a person with an
offense, subscribed by the offended party, any peace officer, or
other public officer charge with the enforcement of the law
violated.
A. Subpoena
B. Warrant
C. Complaint
D. Summons
17. Under the rules, all criminal actions commenced by a complaint or
information shall be prosecuted under the direction and control
of the ___.
A. Judge
B. Policeman
C. Prosecutor
D. Lupon chairman
18. As an exception to the rule, in Municipal Trial Courts or
Municipal Circuit Trial Courts when the prosecutor assigned
thereto or to the case is not available, the following can
prosecute the case, except -
A. the MTC judge
B. the offended party
C. any peace officer
D. public officer charged with enforcement of the law
violated
19. In the crimes of adultery and concubinage, it shall not be
prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by –
A. the offended spouse
B. parents of offended spouse
C. guardian of offended party
D. grandparents of offended party
20. For a complaint or information to be sufficient, it must state
the following, except –
A. the name of the accused
B. the designation of the offense
C. the acts or omissions complained of
D. the age of the offended party
21. When an offense is committed by more than one person, all of them
shall be included in the complaint or information. This statement
is –
A. correct
B. not necessary, under the rules
C. incorrect
D. doubtful
22. The rule provides that the complaint or information must state
the name and surname of the accused or any appellation or
nickname by which he has been or is known. What if his name
cannot be ascertained? The rule says -
A. leave the name blank to be supplied later on
B. the name “juan de la cruz” should be used
C. he must be described under a fictitious name with a
statement that his true name is unknown
D. the name “john doe” should be entered
23. The rule provides that the complaint or information shall state
the designation of the offense given by the statute, aver the
acts or omissions constituting the offense, and specify its
qualifying and aggravating circumstances. If there is no
designation of the offense, then –
A. reference shall be made to the section or subsection of the
statute punishing it
B. reference shall be based on the provisions of the Revised
Penal Code
C. reference shall be made on the basis of special laws
D. reference shall be made in accordance with the civil code
24. The acts or omissions complained of as constituting the offense
and the qualifying and aggravating circumstances must be stated
in ordinary and
A. shall be translated to Tagalong or Ilocano dialect
B. concise language
C. not necessarily in the language used in the statue
D. as long as the person know what offense is being charged
25. The complaint or information is sufficient if it can be
understood from its allegations that the offense was committed or
some of its essential ingredients occurred at some place within –
A. the locality
B. the reach of coverage area
C. the jurisdiction of the court
D. the identification of the person
26. It is not necessary to state in the complaint or information the
precise date the offense was committed except –
A. when it is a material ingredient of the offense
B. when the offense may be alleged to have been committed on a
date as near as possible to the actual date of its
commission
D. when date is clearly known
27. Where an offense is committed in a train, aircraft, or other
public or private vehicle in the course of its trip, the criminal
action shall be instituted –
A. at the nearest RTC where such train, aircraft, or other
vehicle passed during its trip.
B. at the nearest MTC where such train, aircraft, or other
vehicle passed during its trip.
C. under the prerogative of the prosecutor
D. in the court of any municipality or territory where such
train, aircraft, or other vehicle passed during its trip,
including the place of its departure and arrival.
28. A complaint or information is sufficient in substance if it
doesn’t contain any of the defects which is a ground for a motion
to quash. A motion to quash, once granted, is equivalent to
dismissal, but not acquittal. This statement is –
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
29. If acquittal is based on the merits of the case, dismissal is
based on ___.
A. crime committed
B. technicality
C. judge’s prerogative
D. lack of evidence
30. It is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is
sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that a crime
has been committed and the respondent is probably guilty thereof,
and should be held for trial.
A. Prejudicial question
B. Double jeopardy
C. Preliminary Investigation
D. Probe
31. A preliminary investigation is required to be conducted before
the filing of a complaint or information for an offense where the
penalty prescribed by law is –
A. Capital punishment
B. Life imprisonment
C. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1) day
without regard to the fine
D. prision mayor to reclusion perpetua
32. Which among the following is not authorized to conduct
preliminary investigation?
A. National and Regional State Prosecutors
B. Provincial or City Prosecutors
C. Judges of lower courts
D. City Assistant Prosecutors
33. Within how many days after the filing of the complaint, the
investigating officer either dismiss or issue a subpoena to the
respondent?
A. 10 days, according to the procedures
B. 15 days, according to the rules
C. 20 days, according to the judge
D. At any time, according to the prosecutor
34. Within how many days from receipt of the subpoena with the
complaint and supporting affidavits and documents, the respondent
should submit his counter-affidavit and that of his witnesses and
other supporting documents relied upon for his defense?
35. Within how many days after the investigation, the investigating
officer should determine whether or not there is sufficient
ground to hold the respondent for trial?
36. An arrest is made by an actual restraint of a person to be
arrested, or by –
A. recognizance
B. way of probation
C. his submission to the custody of the person making the
arrest
D. voluntary detention
37. The duty of the officer executing the warrant to arrest the
accused is to –
A. detain the arrested person within the time prescribed by law
B. deliver him to the nearest police station or jail without
unnecessary delay
C. conduct preliminary investigation
D. lock up the person to the detention cell for safekeeping
38. Are there how many Justices of the Supreme Court of the
Philippines?
A. 13 Justices excluding the Chief Justice
B. 15 Justices including the Chief Justice
C. 16 Justices including the Chief Justice
D. 12 Justices excluding the Chief Justice
39. The head of the office to whom the warrant of arrest was
delivered for execution shall cause the warrant to be executed
within ten (10) days from its receipt. Within ten (10) days after
the expiration of the period, the officer to whom it was assigned
for execution should –
A. make a follow up investigation on the progress of the
execution of the warrant
B. make a report to the judge who issued the warrant
C. execute the warrant by himself
D. apply to the court for another warrant
40. When the person to be arrested is a prisoner who has escaped from
a penal establishment or place where he is serving final judgment
or is temporarily confined while his case is pending, or has
escaped while being transferred from one confinement to another,
there is no need for a warrant of arrest. This statement is –
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
41. It is now a settled rule that the time of making arrest can be
made during the day and at any time of the day only. This
statement is –
A. True
B. False
C. It depends upon the judge
D. It depends upon the arresting officer
42. When making an arrest by virtue of a warrant, the officer shall
inform the person to be arrested of the cause of the arrest and
the fact that a warrant has been issued for his arrest, except –
A. when he flees or forcibly resists before the officer has
opportunity to so inform him
B. when the giving of such information will imperil the
arrest.
D. voluntary surrender
43. An officer, in order to make an arrest either by virtue of a
warrant, or without a warrant, may break into any building or
enclosure where the person to be arrested is or is reasonably
believed to be, if he is refused admittance thereto, after
announcing his authority and purpose. Is this allowed?
A. No, it is a violation of domicile
B. No, it is trespass to dwelling
C. Yes, it is in accordance with the rules
D. Yes, according to the judge
44. If a person lawfully arrested escapes or is rescued, any person
may immediately pursue or retake him without a warrant at any
time and in any place within the Philippines. This statement is –
A. Correct, in accordance with the rules
B. Incorrect, it is baseless
C. Sometimes correct, when the person is unidentified
D. Sometime incorrect, unless with a valid search warrant
45. A restraint on person, depriving one of his own will and liberty,
binding him to become obedient to the will of the law. What is
being defined?
A. Custody
B. Arrest
C. Search
D. Seizure
46. What is the literal meaning of the Latin phrase “In flagrante
delicto”?
A. “caught in the act of wrong”
B. “hot pursuit of a person”
C. “delicate flower flagrance”
D. “in the name of the people”
47. For purposes of search and seizure, the officer can break into
any building or enclosure without violating the right of privacy.
Is this allowed?
A. No, never allowed.
B. Yes, when there is consent and there is a warrant
C. No, this is allowed only in making an arrest not search
D. It all depends on the officer thru police discretion
48. It is the security given for the release of a person in custody
of the law, furnished by him or a bondsman, to guarantee his
appearance before any court as required under the conditions
hereinafter specified.
A. Recognizance
B. Probation
D. Bail
49. The failure of the accused to appear at the trial without
justification and despite due notice shall be deemed a waiver of
his right to be present thereat. In such case, should the trial
proceed?
A. Yes, the trial may proceed in absentia
B. No, because of the absence of the accused
C. No, anyway there is always bail as security
D. Yes, upon the order of the high court
50. When an accused is represented by a fake lawyer who pretended to
be a member of the bar, his right to counsel is violated, unless
–
A. the fake lawyer is a person of probity
B. the accused voluntarily chose him knowing him to be a non-
lawyer
C. the court allows it
D. the public attorney’s office is informed
51. On arraignment, the accused must be arraigned before –
A. the prosecutor who conducted preliminary investigation
B. the Regional Trial Court
C. the court where the complaint or information was filed or
assigned for trial
D. the Supreme Court
52. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the People of the
Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a peace officer,
commanding him to search for personal property described therein
and bring it before the court.
A. Warrant of Arrest
B. Search Warrant
C. Bench Warrant
D. Court Order
53. Before arraignment, the court shall inform the accused of his
right to counsel and ask him if he desires to have one. Unless
the accused is allowed to defend himself in person or has
employed counsel of his choice –
A. the court shall suspend the trial until the accused picked
his lawyer
B. the court must assign a counsel de oficto to defend him
C. the court proceed with the trial in the absence of a lawyer
D. the court will impose judgement on merits of the case
54. The initial step in a criminal prosecution whereby the defendant
is brought before the court to hear the charges and to enter a
plea is called –
A. Pleadings
B. Plea Bargaining
C. Arraignment
D. Preliminary Investigation
55. At what time the accused may move to quash the complaint or
information?
A. At any time before entering a plea
B. 10 days before the date of trial
C. 15 days immediately after plea bargaining
D. 10 days upon receipt of information by the court
56. After a plea of not guilty is entered, the accused shall have
__________ to prepare for trial. The trial shall commence within
thirty (30) days from receipt of the pre-trial order.
A. at least 5 days
B. at least 10 days
C. at least 15 days
D. at least 20 days
57. Among the following, which shall be the first in the order of
trial?
A. The defense counsel will preside in the case
B. The accused should be presented on the witness stand
C. The prosecution will present evidence to prove the charge
and, in the proper case, the civil liability
D. The judge will recite the “Panunupa sa Watawat”
58. The judgment is promulgated by reading it in the presence of the
accused and any judge of the court in which it was rendered.
However, when the judge is absent or outside the province or
city, the judgment may be promulgated by –
A. the clerk of court
B. secretary of justice
C. any justice of the supreme court
D. any judge in the RTC or MTC within the immediate locality
59. At any time before a judgment of conviction becomes final, the
court may, on motion of the accused or at its own instance but
with the consent of the accused, grant new trial or
reconsideration. This statement is –
A. Incorrect, it should be within five (5) days after judgement
B. Correct, as stated in the rules
C. Correct, as long as on the motion of the accused
D. Incorrect, motion for reconsideration should be denied
60. An appeal must be taken within ____ from the promulgation of the
judgment or from notice of the final order appealed from.
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 20 days
D. 10 days
61. The Court of Appeals of the Philippines is the second highest

court next to the Supreme Court. It is composed of ___ .
A. 69 Justices including the Presiding Justice
B. 58 Justices including the Presiding Justice
C. 28 Justices including the Presiding Justice
D. 16 Justices including the Presiding Justice
62. A search warrant shall not issue except upon ___ in connection
with one specific offense to be determined personally by the
judge after examination under oath or affirmation of the
complainant and the witnesses he may produce.
A. existence of probable cause
B. conduct of preliminary investigation
C. availability of witnesses
D. in writing
63. A search warrant shall be valid for _____ from its date.
Thereafter, it shall be void.
A. 15 days
B. 10 days
C. 20 days
D. until it is served
64. Can a person lawfully arrested be searched for dangerous weapon
or anything which may have been used or constitute proof in the
commission of an offense without a search warrant?
A. Yes, it is allowed by the rules
B. No, it must be with search warrant
C. It depends upon the the order of the court
D. It is a prerogative of the peace officer
65. Every person is entitled to be presumed innocent of a crime or
wrong, unless proven otherwise. This is a prima facie presumption
which must be overcome by proof beyond reasonable doubt. This
statement is–
A. absolutely true
B. absolutely false
C. without legal basis
D. out of context in the Philippines
66. It is the means, sanctioned by the Revised Rules of Court, of
ascertaining to a judicial proceeding the truth respecting a
matter of fact.
A. Motive
B. Fact
C. Evidence
D. Proof of crimes
67. Evidence is ___ when it has a tendency in reason to establish the
probability or improbability if a fact in issue.
A. Accurate
B. Relevant
C. Competent
D. Complete
68. Direct evidence proves the fact in dispute without the aid of any
inference or presumption while _____ is the proof of a fact or
facts from which, taken either singly or collectively, the
existence of the particular fact in dispute may be inferred as a
necessary or probable consequence.
A. Indirect Evidence
B. Circumstantial Evidence
C. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D. Preponderance of evidence
69. The evidence is considered positive when the witness affirms that
a fact did or did not occur, and ____ when the witness states he
did not see or know of the occurrence of a fact.
A. Hearsey
B. Negative
C. Neutral
D. Active
70. What kind of evidence is given by one possessing in regard to a
particular subject or department of human activity or knowledge
which does not usually acquired by other persons?
A. Expert evidence
B. Special evidence
C. Ordinary evidence
D. Cumulative evidence
71. It is an additional evidence of a different kind and character,
tending to prove the same point.
A. Cumulative evidence
B. Corroborative evidence
C. Prima facie evidence
D. Add value evidence
72. Evidence is the means of proof while ____is the effect of
evidence, the establishment of as fact by evidence. It results as
a probative effect of evidence and is the conviction or
persuasion of mind resulting from a consideration of the
evidence.
A. Motive
B. Evidence
C. Proof
D. Value
73. In evidence, what is the ultimate fact or the fact to be
established?
A. Factum Lactum
B. Factum Probandum
C. Factum Probans
D. Factum Facie
74. When the evidence consists of writings or any material containing
letters, words, numbers, figures, symbols or other modes of
written expression offered as proof of their contents, they are
called –
A. Material evidence
B. Documentary evidence
C. Testimonial evidence
D. Relevant evidence
75. The oral testimony of the witness to the killing as reflected in
the stenographic notes is considered –
A. Material evidence
B. Documentary evidence
C. Testimonial evidence
D. Relevant evidence
76. The cognizance of certain facts which judges may properly take
and act on without proof because they already know them is called
–
A. Legal presumption
B. Judicial notice
C. Factum probandum
D. Legal history
77. Generally speaking, matters of judicial notice have three
material requisites, except -
A. the matter be common and general knowledge
B. the matter must be well and authoritatively settled and not
doubtful or uncertain
C. the matter must be biblically based
D. the matter must be known to be within the limits of
jurisdiction of the court
78. When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document, no
evidence shall be admissible other than the original document
itself. This is the –
A. Originality rule
B. Best evidence rule
C. Parole evidence rule
D. Questioned document rule
79. When the original of a document is in the custody of a public
officer and is recorded in a public office, its contents may be
proved by –
A. a xerox copy of the original
B. a notarized copy of the original
C. a certified copy issued by the public office in custody
thereof
D. all of these
80. When the terms of an agreement have been reduced into writing, it
is considered as containing all the terms agreed upon and there
can be, between the parties and their successors-in-interests, no
evidence of such other terms or agreements other than the
contents of the written agreement. This is called the –
A. Best evidence rule
B. Parole evidence rule
C. Pardon evidence rule
D. Questioned document rule
81. Can a deaf and dumb person allowed to testify in court?
A. Yes, in any manner satisfactory to the court
B. Yes, by writing or signs through an interpreter
C. No, never allowed by the rules
D. Both A and B are correct
82. The husband or the wife, during or after the marriage, cannot be
examined without the consent of the other as to any communication
received in confidence by one from the other during the marriage.
This statement is covered under the so called –
A. Marital Priviledge Rule
B. Paternity Rule
C. Rule on Marriage
D. Rule on Special proceedings
83. Tacio admitted to his lawyer that he killed Badong. After
sometime, the lawyer withdrew his representation of Tacio.
Thereafter, the prosecution wishes to offer the lawyer’s
testimony as to the admission of Tacio to him. Will the testimony
of Tacio be presented as evidence?
A. No, the admission was learned during the existence of the
attorney-client relationship covered under privileged
communication
B. Yes, the lawyer’s withdrawal of representation cuts
attorney-client relationship
C. Both A and B are incorrect
D. It depends upon the prerogative of the court
84. It is a contract whereby the parties, by making reciprocal
concessions, avoid litigation or put an end to one already
commenced.
A. Agreement
B. Compromise
C. Special arrangement
D. Treaty
85. The act, declaration or omission of a party as to a relevant fact
may be given in evidence against him is called –
A. Declaration
B. Admission
C. Confession
D. Oral argument
86. A confession made before a court in which the case is pending and
in the course of legal proceedings therein is called –
A. Judicial confession
B. Extrajudicial confession
C. Intrajudicial confession
D. Paralegal confession
87. A confession is admissible only against the accused who made it
and not against his co-accused, for, as against the latter, the
confession would be hearsay and res inter alios acta. This
statement is –
A. Correct as a general rule
B. Incorrect, not allowed by the rules
88. Hearsay evidence is that which derives its value, not solely from
the credit to be given to the witness upon the stand, but in part
from the veracity and competency of some other person. Is hearsay
evidence admissible?
A. Absolutely not admissible
B. No, except in some case like in dying declaration
C. Absolutely admissible without exemption
D. All of the above are correct
89. The declaration of a dying person, made under the consciousness
of an impending death, may be received in any case wherein his
death is the subject of inquiry, as evidence of the cause and
surrounding circumstances of such death is called –
A. Oral testament
B. Dying declaration
C. Res gestae
D. Deadman’s statute
90. These are spontaneous statements made by a person while a

startling occurrence is taking place or immediately prior or
subsequent thereto with respect to the circumstances thereof.
A. Dying declaration
B. Deadmans statute
C. Res gestae
D. Oral testament
91. Alfie was in his room when he overheard Oliver and Arjay talking
in the other room. Oliver telling Arjay that he had got into a
fight in a bar and stabbed Remrick thereafter he ran away to the
house of Arjay. The following day, Alfie learned that Remrick
died of a stab wound. Can Alfie testify as the statement made by
Oliver to Arjay even though he did not personally see Oliver stab
Remrick?
A. No, it is hearsay
B. Yes, it is part of res gestea
C. It depends if the judge admit such testimony
D. No, it is not a dying declaration
92. As a rule, a witness must confine his testimony to matters within
his actual knowledge. He cannot be asked questions calling for
his opinion or conclusions upon facts, which are for the court to
make. This is called –
A. Admisibility test
B. Opinion rule
C. Special arrangement
D. Invalid questioning
93. ____ is the duty of a party to present evidence on the facts in
issue necessary to establish his claim or defense by the amount
of evidence required by law.
A. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B. Burden of proof
C. Burden of evidence
D. Prima facie case
94. ____ is defined as “that logical necessity which rests on a party
at any particular time during a trial to create a prima facie
case in his own favor, or to overthrow one when created against
him.
A. Burden of proof
B. Burden of evidence
C. Prima facie case
D. Proof reasonable doubt
95. What is a presumption?
A. Knowledge of an event to have been occured
B. An inference as to the existence of a fact not actually
known, arising from its usual connection with another which
is known
C. A chance or probability of the existence of an event
D. Circumstances surrounding the an event
96. Whenever a party has, by his own declaration, act or omission,
intentionally and deliberately led another to believe a
particular thing true, and to act upon such belief, he cannot, in
any litigation arising out of such declaration, act or omission,
be permitted to falsify it. This is called –
A. Presumtive evidence
B. Estoppel in pais
C. Morality
D. Falsehood
97. The examination of witnesses presented in a trial or hearing
should be done in –
A. private with the judge, defense and prosecutor
B. open court and under oath or affirmation
C. speedy manner to beat the time frame specified by law
D. None of the above is correct
98. In the order of examination of an individual witness, which one
comes first?
A. Direct examination by the proponent
B. Cross-examination by the opponent
C. Re-direct examination by the proponent
D. Re-cross-examination by the opponents
99. If the examination of a witness is made by the party presenting
him on the facts relevant to the issue, it is called –
A. Direct examination
B. Cross examination
C. Re-direct examination
D. Re-cross examnation
100. In a criminal case, the accused is entitled to an acquittal,
unless his guilt is shown beyond reasonable doubt. What is proof
beyond reasonable doubt?
A. that degree of proof which produces a conviction in
unprejudiced mind
B. the greater weight of evidence against guilt
C. the greater weight of evidence against innocence
D. the presumption of innocent unless proved otherwise

================================================================
REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
SOCIOLOGY, ETHICS, HUMAN RELATIONS & CRISIS MANAGEMENT SET B
----------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------
1. In the study of biological criminology, what is the well-known

"criminal family" studied by Richard Dugdale?
A. The Simpsom Family
B. The Juke’s Family
C. The Kallikak’s Family
D. The Jacob’s Family
2. According to Lombroso, the physical characteristics that
distinguish born criminals from the general population and are
throwbacks to animals or primitive people is called –
A. Criminoloids
B. Abnormal Behaviors
C. Parasitism
D. Atavistic Anomalies
3. One of the following is an emotional disturbance in which moods
alternate between periods of wild elation and deep depression.
A. Schizoid personality
B. Bipolar disorder
C. Active-aggressive personality
D. Borderline Behavior
4. A house of prostitution, typically run by a madam who sets prices
and handles "business" arrangements. Appropriately, referring to
the place is called –
A. Brothel
B. Motel
C. Hotel
D. Den
5. The idea that low female crime and delinquency rates are a
reflection of the leniency with which police in treating female
offenders. This kind of belief is called -
A. Paranoid Reaction
B. Chivalry hypothesis
C. Index crime hypothesis
D. None of these
6. In the study of human disorders, what is the psychological
disorder in which a child shows developmentally inappropriate
impulsivity, hyperactivity, and lack of attention?
A. Mongoloidism
B. Special Children Syndrome
C. KSP Child
D. Attention Deficit Hyperactive Disorder
7. What developmental theory which attribute deviant and criminal
behavior to imbalances between the amount of control that the in-
dividual has over others and that others have over him or her?
A. Social Reactionism
B. Control Balance Theory
C. Strain Theory
D. Social Conflict Theory
8. The use of physical chastisement, such as whipping or maiming, to
punish criminals is a pervasive practice of ___ during the 17 th
century.
A. Corporal punishment
B. Capital punishment
C. Banishment
D. Traditional punishment
9. In general term, the physical attack that includes hitting,
punching, slapping, or other offensive touching of a victim is
called –
A. Physical Injury
B. Physical Abuse
C. Physical Deformation
D. Battery
10. The act of reducing the penalty for a criminal act but not
actually legalizing it is called –
A. Victimization
B. Decriminalization
C. Penalization
D. Degrading of penalty
11. If a person believes that social forces operating in urban areas
causes criminal interactions such as a neighborhood become
natural areas for crime, then he is an advocate of –
A. Social ecology theory
B. Migration and disintegration
C. Urban warfare
D. Broken Window theory
12. What part of the personality, developed in early childhood that
helps control the id and keep people's actions within the
boundaries of social convention?
A. Super Id
B. Super Ego
C. Ego
D. Mixed personality
13. The psychological, emotional and behavioral reactions and
deficits of victims and their inability to
respond effectively to repeated physical and psychological
violence among women is called –
A. Rape trauma syndrome
B. Battered women syndrome
C. Comfort women syndrome
D. London syndrome
14. Any disorder marked by disturbed electrical rhythms of the
central nervous system and typically manifested by convulsive
attacks usually with clouding of consciousness is considered –
A. Epilepsy
B. CNS Disorder
C. Alevosia
D. Reflex Disorder
15. Traits such as feeblemindedness, epilepsy, insanity, and de-
fective social instinct, which Charles Goring believed had a
significant relationship to criminal behavior is now known as –
A. Defective Intelligence
B. Disability
C. Personal Deformity
D. Incapacitation
16. The medical doctor deliberately put to death painlessly his
patient who was suffering from an incurable disease. In this
situation, the doctor committed –
A. Alevosia
B. Euthanesia
C. Amnesia
D. Legal Killing
17. The term criminology is derived from the Latin word crīmen, which
means –
A. criminal conduct
B. an accusation
C. violation of legal order
D. societal misconduct
18. Who was the Italian professor that pioneered the word
criminology in 1885?
A. Alphonse Bertillion
B. Raffaele Garofalo
C. Paul Topinard
D. Cesare Lombroso
19. If the study is focused on the physical characteristics of an

individual offender with non-offenders in the attempt to discover
differences covering criminal behavior, then such study falls
under –
A. Physiological Approach
B. Medical Approach
C. Anthropological Approach
D. Biological Approach
20. A ___ is any system of ideas arranged in rational order that
produce general principles which increase ones understanding and
explanations of his or her surroundings.
A. Intuition
B. Assumption
C. Premonition
D. Theory
21. What is another term for expulsion?
A. Abetment
B. Concealment
C. Ejectment
D. Conviction
22. Most Classical theories of crime causation make certain basic
assumptions. Among them are, except –
A. Criminals, are also human beings, and should be treated with
reformative measures
B. Human beings are fundamentally rational, and most human
behavior is the result of free will coupled with rational
choice.
C. Pain and pleasure are the two central determinants of human
behavior.
D. Punishment, a necessary evil, is sometimes required to deter
law violators and to serve as an example to others who would
also violate the law.
23. ____ means that all individuals rationally look out for their own
personal satisfaction. According to the classical school of
thought, this is the key to the relationship between laws and
crime.
A. Positivism
B. Rationality
C. Generality
D. Expressiveness
24. What is the philosophy which states that a moral act is one which
produces the greatest happiness for the greatest number of
people?
A. Free will Theory
B. Theory of Utilitarianism
C. Marxist Philosophy
D. None of these
25. It holds that people are more often deterred from committing a
crime when it is more certain that they will be caught, rather
than due to the severity of the punishment. What school of
thought is being described?
A. Classical School
B. Neoclassical School
C. Positivist School
D. Modernist School
26. What theory holds that crime resulted not from what criminals
have in common with others in society, but from their distinctive
physical or mental defects?
A. Darwin’s theory
B. Gorings’s theory
C. Lombroso’s theory
D. Durkheim’s Theory
27. Cesare Lombroso’s idea of the born criminal concept was actually
an influence from the suggestions of his colleague in the person
of –
A. Raffaele Garofalo
B. Enrico Ferri
C. Jeremy Bentham
D. Benito Mussolini
28. According to psychoanalytical principles, what is the only
component of personality that is present from birth?
A. Super Ego
B. Ego
C. Id
D. 6th sense
29. In the field of criminology, who was famous for his work on the
“Anomie Theory”?
A. Frederick Anomie
B. Emile Durkheim
C. Walter Reckless
D. Robert Agnew
30. He was referred to as “the most important criminologist of the
twentieth century” because his contribution to the field about
crime and criminal behavior. Who was he?
A. Robert Merton
B. Edwin Sutherland
C. Walter Reckless
D. Emile Durkheim
31. He was a physical anthropologist and although not a
criminologist, he was popularly known in the field of criminology
for his Criminal Physical Inferiority Theory. Who was he?
A. Ernest Burgess
B. Ernest Hooton
C. Robert Merton
D. William Sheldon
32. According to the somatotyping theory, what type of body physique
is masculine?
A. Mesomorphic type
B. Endomorphic type
C. Ectomorphic type
D. Pycnic type
33. The ____ is a broad analysis of the relationship between personal
and social controls. This theory is a form of control, which
suggests that a series of both internal and external factors
contributes to criminal behavior.
A. Anomie Theory
B. Strain Theory
C. Containment Theory
D. Differential Association Theory
34. Among the following statement, which best describe the findings
of Charles Goring after analysing 3,000 English convicts?
A. Crime prone people can be seen through their features
B. There is no such thing as anthropological criminal type
C. There were no significant physical or mental abnormalities
among the criminals
D. Criminals are born
35. When the accused is found not guilty of the charges presented
before the court, he is considered -
A. convicted
B. suspended
C. acquitted
D. legally charged
36. What is the Latin term for - guilty by act?
A. Actus Reus
B. Actus Numbus
C. Giltus reus
D. Rea mensa
37. If physiological or psychological dependence on some chemical
agent is obviously detected from a person, he is in the state of
-
A. dependency or addiction
B. comatose
C. insanity
D. metamorphosis
38. Which of the following behavior is described as a threatening
behavior, which is either verbal or physical, directed at other
persons?
A. Abnormality
B. Dependency
C. Aggression
D. Violence
39. Which if the following aggressive behaviors include the emotional
and cognitive components of aggression such as anger and
hostility?
A. Dynamic Aggression
B. Interactive Aggression
C. Directive Aggression
D. Covert Aggression
40. When there is an apparent, intentional, and physically aggressive
act irrespective of severity against another person, there is -
A. Battering
B. Assault
C. Chaos
D. Crisis
41. What kind of assault committed when it includes kicking,
punching, deliberately throwing an object and drawing a lethal
weapon against someone?
A. Mental
B. Physical
C. Sexual
D. Verbal
42. Which of the following description best fit for the word
“allege”?
A. Assert or make an accusation
B. remove from its position
C. direct an act from doing
D. intentional mutilation
43. What do you call measures other than judicial proceedings used to
deal with a young person alleged to have committed an offense?
A. Rehabilitation
B. Alternative measures
C. Individual response against bad behavior
D. Extra judicial proceedings
44. What aggressive behavior includes cursing/swearing, intentional
destruction of property, and self destructive behaviors?
A. Isolated Aggression
B. Covert Aggression
C. Interactive Aggression
D. Overt Aggression
45. An aging offender is -
A. a process of making an offender young
B. an elderly offender
C. trusted offender
D. juvenile delinquent
46. What is the theory which holds that tumors and seizures are been
associated with aggression and violent behavior?
A. Brain lesion theory
B. Conspiracy theory
C. Neurotic Mind theory
D. Dementia praecox
47. When we say capital offense, it means -
A. a very serious crime, for which the death penalty is imposed
B. the highest penalty for selected offenses
C. total punishment of offender by incarceration
D. all of the above
48. At trial, the authenticity of an item as evidence is crucial. The

item cannot be offered in court without a testimonial sponsor who
can vouch for its unaltered authenticity to the court and the
jury. To validate an items unaltered authenticity, a record must
be kept of each and every time the item changes hands. This
refers to -
A. Records management
B. Presentation of evidence in court
C. Chain of custody
D. Laboratory analysis of items
49. The negligent treatment or maltreatment of a child by a parent or
caretaker under circumstances indicating harm or threatened harm
to the child's health or welfare is known as -
A. Child Abuse
B. Child Neglect
C. Child Dilemma
D. Child in conflict with the law
50. A clinical condition in young children who have received non-
accidental, inexcusable violence or injury, ranging from minimal
to severe or fatal trauma, at the hand of an adult in a position
of trust, generally a parent or guardian. Which one of the
following?
A. Battered Child Syndrome
B. Incapacitated Child Syndrome
C. Abuse Trauma Syndrome
D. None of these
51. The repeated noncompliance to a direct command, verbal abuse-name
calling, verbal abuse-threat, and physical abuse is an aggressive
behavior called -
A. Interactive Aggression
B. Isolated Aggression
C. Covert Aggression
D. Overt Aggression
52. An abuse that is kept secret for a purpose, concealed, or
underhanded is considered as -
A. Clandestine abuse
B. Clinical abuse
C. Overt abuse
D. Abuse of authority
53. A false belief based on an incorrect inference about external
reality and firmly sustained despite clear evidence to the
contrary, and which is not related to cultural or religious
beliefs. Which one of the following
A. False alarm
B. Wrong perception
C. Incoherence
D. Delusion
54. Anything that has been used, left, removed, altered or
contaminated during the commission of a crime by either the
suspect or victim is part of -
A. Evidence
B. Modus operandi
C. Recidivism
D. Preservation of crime scene
55. A legal relationship between two people not biologically related,
usually terminating the rights of biological parents, and usually
with a trial "live-in" period. Once it is finalized, the records
are sealed and only the most compelling interests will enable
disclosure of documents. Which one of these?
A. Adoption
B. Foster parenting
C. Common law relationship
D. Brotherhood
56. What is the legal doctrine establishing court as determiner of
best environment for raising child which is an alternative to the
Parens Patriae Doctrine?
A. Rights of Society
B. Miranda Doctrine
C. Best interest of the Child Rule
D. Parental Obligation
57. What was the case that allowed second prosecution in adult court
for conviction in juvenile court which was based on idea that
first conviction was a "civil" matter?
A. Case Law
B. Breed v. Jones
C. Miranda v. Arizona
D. Matt v. Jeff
58. The filing of legal papers by a child welfare agency when its
investigation has turned up evidence of child abuse. This is
designed to take preventive action, like appointment of a
guardian for at-risk children before abuse occurs. Which one of
these?
A. Child prosecution
B. Child protection action
C. Parens Patriae
D. Preliminary investigation
59. The act of being responsible for enforcing child support
obligations is called -
A. Child’s care
B. Parental Guidance
C. Child at risk
D. Child support
60. A court order for placement in a secure facility, separate from
adults, for the rehabilitation of a juvenile delinquent. Which
one of these?
A. Summon
B. Subpoena
C. Custodial confinement
D. Rehabilitation order
61. The Law established by the history of judicial decisions in cases

decided by judges, as opposed to common law which is developed
from the history of judicial decisions and social customs.
A. Case Law
B. Breed v. Jones
C. Miranda v. Arizona
D. Matt v. Jeff
62. What is the legal doctrine holding parent liable for injuries
caused by a child's negligent driving or other actions?
A. Family Purpose Doctrine
B. Family Immunity Doctrine
C. Parens Patriae Doctrine
63. Which of the following statement best defines the concept -
guardian ad litem?
A. For the Proceeding
B. Protection of child by the law
C. Guardians of the little children
D. Legal authority
64. Teachers, administrators, and babysitters who are viewed as
having some temporary parental rights & obligations are
considered -
A. Guardianship
B. Order of Authority
C. In Loco Parentis
D. Parens Patriae
65. What is the legal doctrine granting custody to the parent whom
the child feels the greatest emotional attachment to?
A. Psychological Parent
B. Maternity
C. Paternity
D. Parental Selection
66. What is the legal doctrine preventing unemancipated child from
suing their parents?
A. Parens Patriae Doctrine
B. Equal Protection
C. Family Immunity Doctrine
D. Poisonous Tree Doctrine
67. A spouse of a biological parent who has no legal rights or duties
to the child other than those which have been voluntarily
accepted. Which one of these?
A. Maternity
B. Paternity
C. Stepparent
D. Foster parent
68. A parent who provided an egg, sperm, or uterus with intent of
giving the child up for adoption to specific parties. Which one
of these?
A. None of these
B. Stepparent
C. Foster Parent
D. Surrogate Parent
69. What is the legal doctrine that unless the mother is "unfit",
very young children should be placed in custody with their mother
following a divorce?
A. Tender Years Doctrine
B. Psychological Parent Doctrine
C. Unwed Mother’s Doctrine
D. Illegitimacy
70. What is known as security given for the release of the person in
custody of the law, furnished by him/her or a bondsman, to
guarantee his/her appearance before any court?
A. Surety
B. Money order
C. Conditions
D. None of these
71. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and conditions
most congenial to the survival, protection and feelings of
security of the child and most encouraging to the child’s
physical, psychological and emotional development. Which one of
these?
A. Best interest of the child
B. Rights
C. Obligations
D. Child’s role
72. Children who are vulnerable to and at the risk of committing
criminal offenses because of personal, family and social
circumstances are considered -
A. Abused Children
B. Neglected Children
C. Children in conflict with the law
D. Children at risk
73. A child who is alleged as, accused of, or adjudged as, having
committed an offense under Philippine laws is considered -
A. Child at risk
B. Child in conflict with the law
C. Minor offense
D. Juvenile offender
74. The programs provided in a community setting developed for
purposes of intervention and diversion, as well as rehabilitation
of the child in conflict with the law, for reintegration into
his/her family and/or community are commonly known as
A. Institutionalized programs
B. Diversion
C. Community based programs
D. All of these
75. The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in conflict
with the law by law enforcement officers or private citizens is
called -
A. Arrest
B. Initial contact
C. Child custody
D. All of the above
76. An undertaking in lieu of a bond assumed by a parent or custodian
who shall be responsible for the appearance in court of the child
in conflict with the law, when required is known as -
A. Status offense
B. None of these
C. Recognizance
D. Bail
77. The procedure of the prosecution, evolved within the discretion
of the ____. In screening cases, and determining, and deciding
which would be filed in courts and which of the cases shall be
dropped, and the determination as to what crime should be charged
for him.
A. Public Attorney
B. Judge
C. Prosecutor
D. Appellant
78. ____ is the process or method whereby accusation is brought
before the court of justice to determine the guilt or innocence
of the accused.
A. Accusation
B. Prosecution
C. Filing of Complaint
D. Court Proceedings
79. What system of prosecution is adopted when the victim or his
representative has the primary responsibility for finding and
presenting evidence to the court?
A. Inquisitorial System
B. Adversarial System
C. Mixed System
D. Victimological system
80. It is an informal and summary investigation conducted by a public
prosecutor in criminal cases involving persons arrested and
detained without the benefit of a warrant or arrest issued by the
court, for the purpose of determining whether or not said persons
should remain under custody and corresponding be charged in
court. Which one of these?
A. Preliminary Investigation
B. Inquest
C. Filing of complaint
D. Inquiry
81. It is a legal inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of
determining whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well
founded belief that a crime has been committed and that the
respondent is probably guilty thereof, and should be held for
trial. Which one of these?
A. Preliminary Investigation
B. Inquest
C. Filing of complaint
D. Adjudication
82. What is called an order of the court directing a person to
refrain from doing or continuing to do an act complained of, or
restraining him from continuing such action?
A. Ante Order
B. Bench Order
C. Injunction
D. Dismissal
83. An early system of criminal justice in which the offender was
allowed to offer atonement for the crime he had committed.
Atonement in today’s practice can be best applied through –
A. Fines for certain crimes
B. Involuntary servitude
C. Distierro
D. Castration
84. What criminal justice doctrine states that any defendant is
innocent until proven guilty in a court of law?
A. Right to due process
B. Presumption of Innocence
C. Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
D. Need not to prove anything
85. What philosophy refers to the responsiveness to the supremacy of
reason and obedience to the dictates of justice?
A. Right to due process
B. Presumption of Innocence
C. Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
D. Need not to prove anything
86. When a crime is committed, how does it reach the attention of the
police?
A. When citizens report criminal incidents
B. When victims file criminal complaint
C. When spontaneous action of police agencies is made
D. Any of the above
87. The legal act of searching for a personal property and taking
custody of such property so that it could be brought to the court
is called –
A. custodial investigation
B. crime scene search
C. search and seizure
D. stop and frisk
88. When there is danger that a person is about to be prosecuted or
tried with the same offense that was earlier charged against him,
there is -
A. lack of jurisdiction
B. miscarriage of justice
C. double jeopardy
D. unfair and impartial trial
89. Criminologist states that crime is directly proportional to

subject's criminal tendencies plus his total environmental
situation and inversely to subject's -
A. Response
B. Resistance
C. Health
D. Mentality
90. What do we call those reported instances of crimes recorded in a
systematic classification according to the set standards adopted
by the police or law enforcement agency?
A. Crime statistics
B. Crime index
C. Data Index
D. Customized Index
91. Which of these may refer to the transmission of physical
characteristics, mental traits, and tendency manifest by an
organism to develop in the likeness of a progenitor due to the
transmission of genes in the reproductive process?
A. Heredity
B. Genetics
C. Eugenics
D. Reproductive system
92. What is the disorder characterized by an uncontrollable impulse
to burn anything without clear motivation?
A. Kleptomanianism
B. Arsonistism
C. Pyromanianism
D. Fire Addiction
93. The Police seek to prevent crimes by being present in places
where crimes might be committed and by alerting citizens to
refrain from practices that make them or their property
vulnerable.
A. law enforcement
B. public services
C. opportunity denial
D. order maintenance
94. The society’s prime instrument for making known what acts are
crimes and what sanctions may be applied to those who commit acts
defined as crimes.
A. Ethics
B. Law
C. Conduct
D. Justice
95. The reduction or elimination of the desire and opportunity to
commit a crime is called -
A. law enforcement
B. crime prevention
C. protection of rights
D. order maintenance
96. What is the study that deals with classifying human physical
characteristics?
A. Determinism
B. Somatology
C. Positivism
D. Atavism
97. The principle that events, including criminal behavior, has
sufficient causes, maybe explained by the theory of -
A. Positivism
B. Determinism
C. Atavism
D. Nazism
98. An irrational fear which is fixed, intense, uncontrollable and
often has no reasonable foundation. Which of these?
A. Phobia
B. Delusions
C. Regression
D. Anxiety
99. As a matter of dealing with criminal behavior and the legal
implications of an action, the mental capacity to distinguish
right from wrong is called -
A. Discernment
B. Morality
C. Ethics
D. Imbecility
100. A doctrine which criminals were seen as distinct types of humans
who could be distinguished from non criminals by certain physical
traits.
A. theory of biological inferiority
B. theory of natural selection
C. theory of differential association
D. theory of evolution
ANSWER KEY
CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY, ETHICS, HUMAN RELATIONS

AND CRISIS MANAGEMENT
SET B
1. B 26. C 51. A 76. C

2. D 27. B 52. A 77. C
3. B 28. C 53. D 78. B
4. A 29. B 54. A 79. B
5. B 30. B 55. A 80. B
6. D 31. B 56. C 81. A
7. B 32. A 57. B 82. C
8. A 33. C 58. B 83. A
9. D 34. B 59. B 84. B
10. B 35. C 60. C 85. B
11. A 36. A 61. A 86. D
12. C 37. A 62. A 87. C
13. B 38. C 63. A 88. C
14. A 39. D 64. C 89. B
15. A 40. B 65. A 90. A
16. B 41. B 66. C 91. A
17. B 42. A 67. C 92. C
18. B 43. B 68. D 93. C
19. C 44. A 69. A 94. B
20. D 45. B 70. D 95. B
21. C 46. A 71. A 96. B
22. A 47. A 72. D 97. B
23. B 48. C 73. B 98. A
24. B 49. B 74. C 99. A
25. B 50. A 75. B 00. A
SUGGESTED KEY ANSWER
CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE AND PROCEDURE
SET C
1. D 26. C 51. C 76. B

2. C 27. D 52. B 77. C
3. A 28. A 53. B 78. B
4. B 29. B 54. C 79. C
5. B 30. C 55. A 80. B
6. A 31. C 56. C 81. D
7. C 32. C 57. C 82. A
8. A 33. A 58. A 83. A
9. B 34. A 59. B 84. B
10. B 35. A 60. A 85. B
11. C 36. C 61. A 86. A
12. B 37. B 62. A 87. A
13. A 38. B 63. B 88. B
14. B 39. B 64. A 89. B
15. B 40. A 65. A 90. C
16. C 41. B 66. C 91. B
17. C 42. C 67. B 92. B
18. A 43. C 68. B 93. B
19. A 44. A 69. B 94. B
20. D 45. B 70. A 95. B
21. A 46. A 71. B 96. B
22. C 47. B 72. C 97. B
23. A 48. D 73. B 98. A
24. B 49. A 74. B 99. A
25. C 50. B 75. C 00. A
ANSWER KEY
CRIMINAL DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION
SET B
1. D 26. C 51. C 76. B

2. D 27. B 52. A 77. A
3. B 28. A 53. A 78. D
4. A 29. B 54. A 79. A
5. D 30. D 55. C 80. B
6. C 31. C 56. C 81. B
7. A 32. C 57. A 82. B
8. C 33. B 58. A 83. A
9. C 34. A 59. C 84. C
10. B 35. B 60. A 85. D
11. A 36. B 61. D 86. C
12. C 37. B 62. C 87. B
13. B 38. A 63. A 88. B
14. B 39. C 64. D 89. B
15. B 40. B 65. A 90. B
16. A 41. B 66. A 91. C
17. A 42. D 67. B 92. D
18. A 43. A 68. C 93. C
19. B 44. B 69. A 94. A
20. A 45. A 70. D 95. B
21. A 46. B 71. B 96. D
22. B 47. A 72. B 97. C
23. B 48. B 73. B 98. A
24. D 49. A 74. A 99. B
25. D 50. C 75. A 00. B
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION
SET C
1. B 26. B 51. B 76. C

2. B 27. B 52. C 77. B
3. C 28. B 53. A 78. B
4. D 29. D 54. C 79. B
5. A 30. C 55. A 80. B
6. A 31. B 56. D 81. B
7. B 32. A 57. D 82. B
8. B 33. B 58. A 83. B
9. A 34. C 59. C 84. C
10. C 35. B 60. C 85. C
11. C 36. B 61. C 86. A
12. C 37. A 62. B 87. C
13. B 38. C 63. C 88. A
14. A 39. D 64. C 89. C
15. C 40. C 65. C 90. B
16. B 41. A 66. A 91. B
17. B 42. A 67. A 92. C
18. A 43. A 68. C 93. A
19. A 44. A 69. D 94. C
20. C 45. C 70. B 95. B
21. A 46. A 71. B 96. D
22. B 47. B 72. B 97. D
23. B 48. D 73. A 98. B
24. C 49. A 74. B 99. A
25. B 50. A 75. C 00. B
CRIMINALISTICS
SET B
1. B 26. A 51. B 76. B

2. C 27. C 52. A 77. B
3. B 28. A 53. C 78. B
4. B 29. A 54. B 79. B
5. D 30. C 55. C 80. B
6. A 31. C 56. C 81. C
7. D 32. A 57. C 82. A
8. D 33. D 58. A 83. D
9. A 34. D 59. B 84. A
10. D 35. B 60. A 85. D
11. A 36. B 61. C 86. B
12. D 37. A 62. C 87. A
13. D 38. B 63. A 88. A
14. D 39. C 64. C 89. B
15. D 40. A 65. A 90. A
16. A 41. A 66. B 91. D
17. D 42. D 67. B 92. A
18. C 43. C 68. C 93. A
19. D 44. A 69. A 94. B
20. C 45. B 70. A 95. C
21. A 46. A 71. C 96. C
22. B 47. C 72. B 97. B
23. A 48. C 73. B 98. B
24. C 49. B 74. D 99. C
25. A 50. B 75. D 00. B
ANSWER KEY
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION
SET A
1. C 26. A 51. A 76. A

2. A 27. C 52. D 77. D
3. B 28. B 53. A 78. A
4. C 29. A 54. D 79. C
5. C 30. B 55. A 80. B
6. C 31. A 56. B 81. A
7. D 32. A 57. B 82. C
8. A 33. D 58. C 83. A
9. A 34. C 59. D 84. A
10. B 35. B 60. B 85. A
11. A 36. C 61. A 86. D
12. D 37. C 62. A 87. A
13. C 38. D 63. D 88. A
14. B 39. A 64. B 89. D
15. B 40. C 65. A 90. B
16. A 41. B 66. A 91. B
17. B 42. B 67. D 92. A
18. A 43. A 68. D 93. B
19. A 44. B 69. A 94. A
20. A 45. B 70. B 95. D
21. D 46. A 71. A 96. A
22. D 47. D 72. A 97. B
23. B 48. A 73. C 98. B
24. D 49. C 74. A 99. D
25. B 50. C 75. D 00. B

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