Ipc 2

1. Which of the following is true of intent of defraud?
A. a general intention to defraud, without the intention

of causing wrongful gain to one person of wrongful loss
to another
B. to prove intention of defraud, it is not at all
necessary that there should have been some persons
defrauded, or who possibly might have been
defrauded by his act
C. the word defraud is of double meaning
D. all of them
Ans: D
2. The word ‘document’ as per Section 29 of IPC
includes any matter expressed or described upon by
any substance:
A. by means of letters, figures or marks only
B. by more than one of those means intended to be
used, or which may used, as evidence of that matter
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. none of them
Ans: C
3. Dishonest misappropriation of property, knowing
that it was in the possession of a declosed person at his
death, and that it has not since been in the possession
of any person legally entitled to it and if the offender at
the time of such person’s declose was employed by
him as a clerk or servant is dealt under
A. Section 401 of IPC
B. Section 402 of IPC
C. Section 403 of IPC
D. Section 404 of IPC
Ans: D
4. Which of the following can be called a ‘document’ as
per Section 29 of IPC?
A. banker’s cheque
B. power of attorney
C. map
D. all of them
Ans: D
5. Which of the following conditions are necessary to
fulfil the requirements of Section 34 of the Indian Penal
Code?
A. the person must be present on the scene of
occurrence
B. there must a prior concert or a pre-arranged plan
C. either (A) or (B)
D. both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
6. Making preparation to commit dacoity is dealt under
Ans: B
7. The three accused armed with firearms and Accused
1 with lathi came to the shot of the incident for the
purpose of avenging the old enmity. It was alleged that
it was on the exhortation made by the Accused 1, not
to spare the deceased that the other accused started
firing at the deceased. It was held that when all the
accused had reached the place of incident for the
purpose of avenging the old enmity nurtured by them
should they wait for Accused 1 to make exhortation to
use the words “don’t allow him to flee and don’t spare
him this time.”. Which of the following judgment is the
correct judgment regarding the mentioned case?
A. apart from Accused 1 all others were convicted u/ss.
302/34
B. all of them were convicted u/ss. 302/34
C. Accused 1 was accordingly acquitted, as no common
intention could be attributed to him.
D. both (A) and (C)
Ans: D
8. Unlawful compulsory labour is dealt under
Ans: D
9. Which of the following conditions must be fulfilled
for conviction on circumstantial evidence?
A. the circumstances from which the conclusion is to
be drawn should be fully established and not “may be
established”
B. the circumstances must be of a conclusive nature
and tendency
C. it should exclude every possible hypothesis except
the one to be proved
D. all of them
Ans: D
10. Selling or letting to hire a minor for purposes of
prostitution, etc is dealt under
Ans: B
11. Which of the following creates a new offence?
A. Section 34 of the IPC
B. Section 35 and Section 36 of the IPC
C. Section 37 of the IPC
D. None of them
Ans: D
12. A, a jailor, has the charge of Z, a prisoner. A,
intending to cause Z’s death, illegally omits to supply Z
with food; in consequence of which Z is much reduced
in strength, but the starvation is not sufficient to cause
his death. A is dismissed from his office, B succeeds
him. B, without collution with A, illegally omits to
supply Z with food, knowing that he is likely thereby to
cause Z’s death. Z dies. Which of the following
judgment applies to both A and B under Section 37 of
the IPC?
A. A is only guilty of an attempt to commit murder
while B is guilty of murder
B. A is guilty of murder while B is guilty of an attempt
to murder
C. Both A and B are guilty of murder
D. Both A and B are guilty of attempt to murder
Ans: A
13. The act voluntarily done in effect and substance in
Section 39, IPC means:
A. act done intentionally
B. act done with the knowledge of end result being
crime
C. act done when the doer has a reason to believe that
the actus reus would be an offence
D. all of them
Ans: D
14. Abetment of any offence, if the person abetted
does the act with a different intention from that of the
abettor is dealt under
Ans: B
15. The accused attacked the victim with a spear and
the others inflicted blows on legs and arms with
lathies.
A. only those accused who used lathies are guilty
B. only the accused who used the spear is guilty
C. each accused must be convicted for the offence of
which he is actually found to be guilty
D. all the accused are guilty
Ans: C
16. Which of the following is the test to check whether
an offence involves moral turpitude?
A. check whether the act leading to a conviction is such
as could shock the moral conscience of the society in
general
B. check whether the motive leading to the act was a
base one
C. check whether on account of the act having been
committed the perpetrator is to be looked down in the
society as a depraved man
D. all of them
Ans: D
17. The accused persons noticed someone stealing the
crops grown by the accused and beat the thief to
death.
A. IPC Section 304 read with IPC Section 34 is
applicable in this case
B. IPC Section 304 Pt. II read with IPC Section 35 is
application in this case
C. IPC Section 38 is applicable in this case
D. IPC Section 308 is applicable in this case
Ans: C
18. A sets fire, by night, to an inhabited house in a
large town, for the purpose of facilitating a robbery
and thus causes the death of person.
A. A did not intend to cause any death. It was an
accident
B. A is guilty of robbery only
C. If A knew that he was likely to cause he would have
done so voluntarily to carry out the robbery
D. None of them
Ans: C
19. Abetment of any offence, when an effect is caused
by the act abetted different from that intended by the
abettor is dealt under
Ans: D
20. A boy of 13 committed rape on a child 2 years. The
accused should be awarded
A. one year R.I. with fine of Rs. 2000
B. three year R.I with fine of Rs. 5000
C. only one year R.I.
D. only fine of Rs. 5000
Ans: A
21. Abetment of any offence, if abettor is present when
offence is committed dealt under
Ans: A
22. Concealing a design to commit an offence
punishable with death or imprisonment for life, if the
offence be committed is dealt under
Ans: B
23. A public servant concealing a design to commit an
offence which it is his duty to prevent if the offence be
committed dealt under
Ans: C
24. Which of the following punishment an offender is
liable to under the provision of Section 53, IPC
A. Death and imprisonment for life
B. Imprisonment and fine
C. Forfeiture of property
D. all of them
Ans: D
25. Which of the following punishment have been
abolished?
A. Death penalty
B. Whipping
C. Detention in reformatories
D. Both (B) and (C)
Ans: D
punishable with death or imprisonment for life is dealt
under
Ans: B
27. Abetment of any offence, punishable with
imprisonment, if the offence be not committed in
consequence of the abetment is dealt under
Ans: C
28. What is the minimum term of imprisonment in case
of, at the time of committing robbery or dacoity, the
offender uses any deadly weapon or causes grievous
hurt to any person, he is punished with imprisonment
of not less than:
A. four years under Section 397, IPC
B. five years under Section 397, IPC
C. six years under Section 397, IPC
D. seven years under Section 397, IPC
Ans: D
not committed is dealt under
Ans: D
30. Abetment of an offence punishable with
imprisonment, if the abettor or the person abetted be
a public servant, whose duty is to prevent the offence
is dealt under
Ans: A
31. Which of the following is false of Section 67 of the
IPC?
A. the imprisonment so awarded shall be simple
B. fine not exceeding Rs. 50 – term not exceeding 4
months
C. fine exceeding Rs. 100 to any amount – term not
exceeding 6 months
D. the term shall not in any case be in excess of the
Magistrate’s powers under S. 32 of Cr. PC
Ans: B
32. Criminal conspiracy to commit an offence
punishable with death, imprisonment for life or
rigorous imprisonment for a term of 2 years or
upwards is dealt under
A. Section 119B of IPC
B. Section 120B of IPC
C. Section 121B of IPC
D. Section 122B of IPC
Ans: B
33. Waging or attempting to wage war, or abetting the
waging of war, against the Government of India is dealt
under
Ans: A
34. Collecting arms, etc, with the intention of waging
war against the Government of India is dealt under
Ans: C
35. Assaulting President Governor, etc, with intent to
compel or restrain the exercise of any lawful power is
dealt under
Ans: B
36. A sees Z commit what appears to A to be a murder.
A, in the exercise to the best of his judgment exerted in
good faith, of the power which the law gives to all
persons of apprehending murderers in the act, seizes Z,
in order to bring Z before the proper authorities.
A. A has committed an offence, while Z was acting in
self-defence
B. Both A and Z committed an offence.
C. A has committed no offence, though it may turn out
that Z was acting in self-defence
D. None of them
Ans: C
37. A is at work with a hatchet; he head flies off and
kills who is standing by
A. A’s act is excusable
B. A’s act is unpardonable
C. A’s act is one of deliberate act
D. None of them
Ans: A
38. A, in a great fire pulls down houses in order to
prevent the conflagration from spreading. He does this
with the intention in good faith of saving human life or
property.
A. A is not guilty
B. A is guilty
C. The action was intentional
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans: A
39. In a case the accused was alleged to kill four
children at a time. He raised the plea of insanity.
A. the plea is to be reject outright
B. the plea is to be considered only after the
prosecution succeeds in proving the case against the
accused
C. the plea is must be considered putting aside the
arguments of the prosecution
D. None of them
Ans: B
40. A and Z agrees to fence each other for amusement.
In the course of fencing, without any foul play, A hurts
Z.
A. A is guilty of offence
B. Both are guilty for indulging in a violent game
C. A is not guilty of any offence
D. None of them
Ans: C
41. A in good faith for his child’s benefit without the
consent of his child cut for the stone by a surgeon
knowing it to be likely that the operation will cause the
child’s death, but not intending to cause the child’s
death.
A. A is guilty as he acted without the consent of his
child attracts punishment as per Section 89 of IPC
B. A is guilty as he knowingly caused the death of his
child and attracts punishment Section 89 of IPC
C. A is within the exception of Section 89 of IPC as
inasmuch his object was the cure of his child
D. None of them
Ans: C
42. Wantonly giving provocation with intent to cause
riot, if rioting be committed is dealt under
Ans: B
43. Imputations, assertions prejudicial to national
integration is dealt under
A. Section 153B of IPC
B. Section 154B of IPC
C. Section 155B of IPC
D. Section 156B of IPC
Ans: A
44. Agent of owner or occupier for whose benefit a riot
is committed not using all lawful means to prevent it is
dealt under
Ans: C
45. Being hired to take part in an unlawful assembly or
riot is dealt under
Ans: C
46. Committing affray is dealt under
Ans: B
47. Public servant framing an incorrect document with
intent to cause injury is dealt under
Ans: B
48. Public servant unlawfully buying or bidding for
property is dealt under
Ans: A
49. Wearing garb or carrying token used by public
servant with fraudulent intent is dealt under
Ans: C
50. Undue influence at an election is dealt under
A. Section 168 F of IPC
B. Section 169 F of IPC
C. Section 170 F of IPC
D. Section 171 F of IPC
Ans: D
51. False statement in connection with elections is
dealt under
A. Section 170 G of IPC
B. Section 171 G of IPC
C. Section 172 G of IPC
D. Section 173 G of IPC
Ans: B
52. Promoting enmity between classes in place of
worship, etc is dealt under
A. Section 153 A of IPC
B. Section 154Aof IPC
C. Section 155Aof IPC
D. Section 156Aof IPC
Ans: A
53. A, surgeon, in good faith communicates to a patient
his opinion that he cannot live. The patient dies in
consequence of the shock.
A. A is guilty as he should have withheld the
communication
B. A is not guilty as he rightly discharged his duties
C. A is not guilty as he did not give any false hopes
D. Both (B) and (C)
Ans: D
54. The defendant was set to watch his master’s
premises. He saw a man on the garden wall and hailed
him and then shot at him aiming at his legs. He missed
and shot the deceased whom he had not seen.
A. the defendant is justified in shooting the deceased
B. the defendant is guilty of manslaughter
C. the defendant is not guilty as his own life was
danger
D. none of them
Ans: B
55. Criminal intimidation and if threat be to cause
death or grievous hurt, etc is dealt under
Ans: B
56. A disabled man having only one hand was attacked
by a strong man by bamboos. The disabled man, a tea
garden labourer fought for his life and hit the aggressor
by the pen-knife resulting in his death.
A. the man acted was well within the bounds of his
right to self defence
B. the man exceeded the bounds of the right to self
defence
C. the man is guilty of manslaughter
D. both (B) and (C)
Ans: A
57. Owner or occupier of land not giving information of
riot, etc is dealt under
Ans: C
58. Two parties A and B gather together for free fight
in order to settle a land dispute and in the process end
up inflicting injuries on one another. Here:
A. the plea of private defence of property is valid
B. the plea of self defence is valid
C. the plea of private defence of any kind is invalid
D. none of them
Ans: C
59. In a certain case in revision by accused against
conviction and sentence under Section 279, IPC, the
provisional Court on maintaining conviction added a
direction to RTO to cancel his license. It was held that it
is enhancement of sentence and no such enhancement
is legal without notice to accused.
A. Md. Shabir v. State of Maharashtra, 1978
B. Ranji Lai Modi v. State of U.P. Air 1957 Section 620
C. Mithu v. State of Punjab, AIR 1983 Section 473
D. Gian Kaur v. States of Punjab, Air 1996 Section 946
Ans: A
60. Insult intended to provoke breach of the peace is
dealt under
Ans: D
61. ‘S’ is found in possession of property reasonably
suspected to be stolen by him and is arrested by ‘P’, a
police officer. ‘S’ is excited to sudden and violent
passion by the arrest and fires at him but kills ‘D’ who
was standing near ‘P’, neither intending nor knowing
himself to be likely to kill ‘D’. This is:
(a) culpable homicide not amounting to murder,
because ‘S’ had been deprived of the power of self-
control by grave and sudden provocation
(b) murder, because provocation was given by a thing
done by a public servant in lawful discharge of his
powers
(c) culpable homicide not amounting to murder,
because the death of ‘D’ occurred by mistake or
accident
(d) none of these.
Ans. (b)
62. Consider the following statements. To constitute
abetment, it is:
(a) necessary that the act abetted must be committed
(b) not necessary that the act abetted must be
committed
(c) necessary that the person abetted must have the
same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor
Which of the statements given above represent(s) the
correct position of law?
(a) Only (b)
(b) Both (b) and (c)
(c) Only (a)
(d) Only (c).
Ans. (a)
63. Consider the following statements. To constitute
abetment, it is:
(a) every murder is culpable homicide
(b) every culpable homicide is murder
(c) every robbery is either theft or extortion
(d) every extortion is robbery
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) (a) and (c)
(b) (b) and (c)
(c) (a) and (d)
(d) (b) and (d).
Ans. (a)
64. With respect to the difference between kidnapping
from lawful guardianship and abduction which of the
following statements is correct:
(a) Kidnapping is committed only in respect of a minor
or a person of unsound mind. Abduction is committed
in respect of a person of any age.
(b) In former, the person kidnapped is removed out of
lawful guardianship. Abduction has reference
exclusively to the person abducted.
(c) In kidnapping, consent of the person kidnapped or
enticed is immaterial. In abduction, consent of the
person moved, if freely and voluntarily given, condones
abduction.
(d) All these.
Ans. (d)
65. ‘A’ and ‘Z’, both adults, agree to engage each other
in fencing for amusement. In course of such fencing,
without any foul play, ‘A’ causes a superficial hurt to
“Z”. Here, ‘A’:
(a) is guilty of causing hurt by sharp edged weapon as
he attacked ‘Z’
(b) is not guilty as there is an implied consent on the
part of ‘Z’ to suffer such harm
(c) is guilty because fencing is a dangerous sport
(d) both (1) and (3).
Ans. (b)
66. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code codifies, in
the field of criminal law, the maxim: ‘de minimis non
curat lex’:
(a) Section 85, IPC
(b) Section 88, IPC
(c) Section 95, IPC
(d) Section 96, IPC.
Ans. (c)
67. The doctrine of Necessity has been elaborately
considered in the landmark decision of:
(a) R. v. McNaghten, (1843) 8 Eng Rep 718
(b) Basdev v. State of PEPSU, AIR 1956 SC 488
(c) R. v. Dudley and Stephens, (1884) 14 QBD 273
(d) Bimbadar Pradhan v. State of Orissa, AIR 1956 SC
469.
Ans. (c)
68. H takes property belonging to S out of the
possession of S in good faith, believing at the time
when he takes it, that the property belongs to himself.
Later on realizing his mistake, H continues to
appropriate the property to his own use. H has
committed the offence of:
(a) Robbery
(b) Criminal breach of trust
(c) Criminal Misappropriation
(d) Cheating.
Ans. (c)
69. Under Section 44 of I.P.C. the term ‘Injury’ means
any harm:
(a) Illegally caused to a person in body and mind
(b) Illegally caused to a person in body and property
(c) Illegally caused to a person in body, mind,
reputation or property
(d) Illegally caused to a person in body, mind and
reputation.
Ans. (c)
70. Under the Indian Penal Code, an act may be an
offence under the Code, but for the existence of a
justification which may form a defence. Which of the
following is not such a defence:
(a) Act done by a child under seven years of age
(b) Act done by a person of unsound mind
(c) Act done by a child of immature understanding,
above seven years and under twelve in age
(d) Act done outside the territorial limits of India.
Ans. (d)
71. Consider the following statements:
(1) ‘A’ willfully by a misrepresentation misled a police
officer to arrest ‘B’ instead of ‘C’
(2) ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to murder ‘C’, ‘B’ refuses to do so
(3) ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to murder ‘D’, ‘B’ stabs ‘D’. ‘D’
survives from wound
Which of the above constitute the offence of
abetment?
(a) (1), (2) and (3)
(b) (1) and (3) only
(c) (2) and (3) only
(d) (1) and (2) only.
Ans. (a)
72. A and B both are of 16 years of age. A entices B for
marriage and takes her to another city. What offence
has been committed by A:
(a) A has committed kidnapping
(b) A has committed no offence as B has gone with her
own consent
(c) A has committed abduction
(d) A is himself minor. Hence A has commit no offence.
Ans. (a)
73. Assertion (A): The essence of joint liability under
section 149 of the IPC is that the criminal act must
have been done with a view to fulfill the common
object of an unlawful assembly. Reason (R): Any
sudden and provocative act done by a member of an
unlawful assembly would render the other members of
that assembly liable:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (c)
74. Assertion (A): In a criminal trial, the accused and
the defendant mean the same thing Reason (R): It
depends which way you look, for the prosecution a
person is accused, for the person he is defendant
against the accusation:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true, R is false
(d) A is false, R is true.
Ans. (a)
75. Assertion (A): X, because of unsound state of mind
and not knowing the nature of the act, attacks Y, who
in self-defense and in order to ward off the attack hits
him thereby injuring him. Y has not committed an
offence. Reason (R): Y had a right of private defense
against X under the Indian Penal Code:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the
correct explanation of A.
correct explanation of A.
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (a)
76. Assertion (A): X, because of unsound state of mind
and not knowing the nature of the act, attacks Y, who
in self-defence and in order to ward off the attack, hits
him thereby injuring him. Y has not committed an
offence. Reason (R): Y had a right of private defense
against X under Section 98 of the Indian Penal Code:
(a) Both A and R are individually true, and R is the
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (a)
78. The paddy lands of A and D lie adjacent to each
other. The prosecution case that when D was
deepening the channel on the boundary of his own
land, the accused A pursuant to an altercation hit D
hard on head by a spade that proved fatal.
A. the fact that the body of D lay on the land of A or
the existence of any altercation between the two is not
sufficient to proof the exercise of the right of self
defence by A
B. the complainant party is in possession of the land
and the accused party taking the law in hands attacks
the complainant, does not entitle the accused A to
right of private defence
C. Neither (A) nor (B)
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
79. False statement, rumour, etc, circulated with intent
to cause mutiny or offence against the public peace is
dealt under
Ans: A
80. A enters by night which he is legally entitled to
enter. Z, in good faith mistaking A to be a burglar
attacks him.
A. Z has no offence as he acts under misconception
B. Z is guilty
C. A has the same right of private defence against Z
under the same circumstance
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans: D
81. A person with fraudulent intention going through
the ceremony of being married knowing that he is not
thereby lawfully married is dealt under
Ans: D
82. A is attacked by a mob who attempt to murder him.
He cannot effectually exercise his right of private
defence without firing on the mob, and he cannot fire
without risk of harming young children who are
mingled with the crowd.
A. A must not use his right to private defence
B. A will be guilty of manslaughter if he fires on the
mob
C. A will not be committing any offence if he has to fire
on the mob
D. None of them
Ans: C
83. Illegal payments in connection with elections is
dealt under
A. Section 169 H of IPC
B. Section 170 H of IPC
C. Section 171 H of IPC
D. Section 172 H of IPC
Ans: C
84. Absconding to avoid service of summons or other
proceeding from a public servant is dealt under
Ans: A
85. Not obeying a legal order to attend at a certain
place in person or by agent, or departing therefrom
without authority is dealt under
Ans: A
86. Intentionally omitting to produce a document to a
public servant by a person legally bound to produce or
deliver such document is dealt under
Ans: A
87. Intentionally omitting to give notice or information
to a public servant by a person legally bound to give
such notice or information is dealt under
Ans: C
88. Intentional omitting to give notice or information to
a public servant by a person legally bound to give such
notice or information if the notice or information is
required by an order passed under sub-section (1) of
section 356 of this Code is dealt under
Ans: A
89. Knowingly furnishing false information to a public
servant, if the information required respects the
commission of an offence etc is dealt under
Ans: C
90. Being legally bound to state truth and refusing to
answer questions is dealt under
Ans: A
91. Knowingly stating to a public servant on oath as
true that which is false is dealt under
Ans: C
92. Resistance to the taking of property by the lawful
authority of a public servant is dealt under
Ans: A
93. Bidding by a person under a legal in capacity to
purchase it for property at a lawfully authorized sale or
bidding without intending to perform the obligation
incurred thereby is dealt under
Ans: C
94. Preventing the service or the affixing of any
summons of notice or the removal of it when it has
been affixed or preventing a proclamation is dealt
under
Ans: C
95. Failure to appear at specified place and specified
time as required by a proclamation published under
sub-section (1) of section 82 of this Code is dealt under
A. Section 172-AofIPC
B. Section 173-AofIPC
C. Section 174-AofIPC
D. Section 175-A of IPC
Ans: C
96. Which of the following not true of Section 75, IPC?
A. it provides for special maximum sentence
B. it provides for a minimum sentence
C. it is not incumbent in every case of a previous
conviction that such conviction should be taken into
account.
D. all of them
Ans: B
97. Which of the following may be said to be non-
compos mentis (not of sound mind)?
A. drunk
B. Made non compos by illness
C. lunatic or a madman
D. all of them
Ans: D
98. To invoke the defence of insanity, which of the
following must be clearly proved at the time of
committing the act?
I. the accused was labouring under defect of reason
II. from disease of the mind
III. does not know the nature and quality of the act he
was doing
IV. if he did know, he did not know what he was doing
was wrong
A. I and IV
B. I and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
Ans: D
99. Assault or use of criminal force otherwise than on
grave provocation is dealt under
Ans: D
100. Insanity is a valid defence on a charge of
commission of an act prima facie criminal because of
want of:
A. mens rea
B. actus reus
C. repondeat superior
D. none of them
Ans: A
101. Printing or enegrtacing matter knowing it to be
defamatory against the president or the Vice-
President or the Governor of a State or Administrator
of a Union territory or a Minister in respect of his
conduct in the discharge of his public functions when
instituted upon a complaint made by the public
prosecutor and Printing or engraving matter knowing it
to be defamatory in any other case is dealt under
Ans: B
102. Which of the following is true of people suffering
from delirium tremens?
A. they are dangerous to themselves and others
B. they see various objects lying around or crawling
about
C. he cannot be criminally held responsible for his acts
D. all of them
Ans: D
103. Attempt to commit robbery or dacoity when
armed with deadly weapons is dealt under
Ans: A
104. In which of the following case voluntary
drunkenness can be an excuse:
A. when the state of intoxication is such that the
accused is incapable of forming the specific intent
essential to constitute the crime
B. habitual drunkenness which results in a diseased
condition of the mind that the accused is incapable of
knowing the nature of the act or that he is doing is
either wrong to contrary to the law
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. Either (A) or (B)
Ans: C
105. In which of the following way Section 88 differs
from Section 87?
A. under it any harm except death may be inflicted
B. the age of the person is not mentioned
C. the age of the consenting party must be at least
twelve years
D. both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
106. Theft is dealt under
Ans: D
107. Which of the following is not a true consent as
described in Section 90, IPC?
I. by a person under the fear of injury
II. by a person under a misconception
III. by a person of sound mind
IV.by a person who is intoxicated
V. by a person who is under twelve years of age
A. I, II
B. Ill
C. IV, V
D. I, II, IV, V
Ans: D
108. Harm in Section 94, IPC means:
A. injurious mental reaction
B. infectious mental disease
C. injurious mental condition
D. all of them
Ans: A
109. Which of the following is not pardonable under
Section 94, IPC?
A. murder
B. offences against the state punishable with death
C. robbery
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
110. Theft by clerk or servant of property in possession
of master or employer is dealt under
Ans: B
111. As per the Supreme Court the right of private
defence is:
A. defensive right circumscribed by the statute
B. availed in the favour of the aggressor
C. available only when the circumstances clearly
justifies it
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
112. On which of the general principle the Supreme
Court held that the right to private defence rests?
A. where a crime is endeavoured to be committed by
force, it is lawful to repeal that force in self defence
B. that a person could only claim the right to use force
after he had sustained a serious injury by an aggressive
wrongful assault
C. it is to protect the aggressor
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
113. A, a public officer is authorised by a warrant from
a Court of Justice to apprehend Z. B, knowing that fact
and also that C is not Z, wilfully represents to A that C
is Z, and they intentionally causes A to apprehend C.
Here:
A. A abets by instigation the apprehension of C
B. B abets by instigation the apprehension of C
C. B abets by instigation the apprehension of A
D. C abets by instigation the apprehension of Z
Ans: B
114. Kidnapping or obtaining the custody of a minor in
order that such minor may be employed or used for
purposes of begging is dealt under
A. Section 363A of IPC
B. Section 364A of IPC
C. Section 365A of IPC
D. Section 366A of IPC
Ans: A

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1. Which of the following is true of intent of defraud?

A. a general intention to defraud, without the intention

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