Code-BN

Test Series for NEET - 2020

Test – 10
Test-13 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET - 2019


7. (
A force F = 4 xy 2iˆ + yx 2 jˆ ) acts on a particle,
10. y-coordinate of the center of mass of the half uniform
ring as shown in figure is
moving along parabolic path. The work done by this
force in moving the particle from (1, 1) to (2, 4) is y
(where F is in newton and x, y are in meter)
(1) 100 J (2) 120 J
(3) 136 J (4) 126 J
8. Figure given shows two identical particles 1 and 2,
x
each of mass m, moving in opposite directions with
same speed v along parallel lines. At a particular R (0, 0) R
 
instant, r1 and r2 are their respective position
vectors drawn from point A, which is in the plane of 2R 4R
(1) (2)
the parallel lines. Then π 3π

3R R
(3) (4)
4π 2π
11. An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit around
the earth has total energy E0. Its potential energy is
(1) –E0 (2) 2E0
(3) 1.5E0 (4) 0.5E0
12. Work done by the gravitational force to bring mass
m from nR height from earth’s surface to earth’s
surface slowly is (R is radius of earth)

⎛ n ⎞ ⎛ n ⎞
(1) mgR ⎜ ⎟ (2) mgR ⎜ ⎟
⎝ n + 1⎠ ⎝ n − 1⎠

(1) Total angular momentum about A is along k̂

⎛ n + 1⎞ ⎛ n − 1⎞
(3) mgR ⎜ ⎟ (4) mgR ⎜ ⎟
(2) Angular momentum of particle (1) about A is ⎝ n ⎠ ⎝ n ⎠
along −k̂
13. The height from earth’s surface at which the weight
(3) Total angular momentum about A is mv ( r1 + r2 ) kˆ 1
of a body becomes th its weight on the surface
16
of earth is (take radius of earth R)
(4) Total angular momentum about A of the system
is −mvdkˆ
(1) R (2) 2R
9. With reference to the given figure of a uniform solid
cube of edge a and mass m, moment of inertia R
about z axis is (3) (4) 3R
2
z
14. If a rubber ball is taken to a depth of 400 m in a
water pool, its volume decreases by 0.2%. If the
density of water is 10 3 kg/m 3 and atmospheric
pressure is 10 m length of water column, then Bulk
modulus of elasticity of rubber is (g = 10 m/s2 and
assume water density to be uniform)
(1) 1 × 1011 N/m2
2 2
ma ma
(1) (2) (2) 2 × 109 N/m2
6 2
(3) 1 × 109 N/m2
2 ma 2
(3) ma 2 (4) (4) 2 × 1011 N/m2
3 3
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Test Series for NEET - 2019 Test-13 (Code-A)

15. The breaking stress of material of wire is of 20. Which of the following temperature is highest?
105 N/m2. If the density of the material is 2.5 × 103 (1) –23°C (2) –13°F
kg/m3, then the length of the wire which will break
(3) +23°F (4) 100 K
the wire by its own weight is (g = 10 m/s2)
21. A black body is at temperature 2880 K. The energy
(1) 2 m (2) 3 m of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength
(3) 4 m (4) 1 m 250 nm is U1, at wavelength 500 nm is U2 and that
of 1000 nm is U3. Then the correct answer is (Weins
16. An incompressible liquid is flowing through a constant b = 2.88 × 106 nmK)
horizontal pipe as shown in figure. The value of (1) U1 = 0 (2) U1 > U2
speed v is (areas are indicated in figure)
(3) U3 > U2 (4) U3 < U2
4 m/s 22. Two coils have mutual inductance 0.01 H. The
current in the first coil change according to equation
A I = I0 sin2ωt, (where I0 = 5 A and ω = 50 rad/s).
Then the magnitude of induced e.m.f in secondary
2A π
8 m/s coil due to mutual inductance at t = s is
400
1.5A
(1) 5 V (2) 5 2 V
v
5
(1) 2 m/s (2) 4 m/s (3) V (4) 10 V
2
(3) 6 m/s (4) 8 m/s
23. For an adiabatic process, which of the following is
17. A plane electromagnetic wave is normally incident on correct? (symbols have their usual meanings)
a plane surface of area A, and it is perfectly
(1) ΔU = 0 (2) ΔQ = 0
reflected. If average pressure exerted on the surface
γ γ–1
is P, the energy incident on the surface in time t is (3) T ∝ P (4) Both (2) and (3)
(c is speed of light) 24. In the given figure for an angle of incidence 45°, at
the top surface of a transparent cuboid, the value of
2PA PctA
(1) (2) refractive index of cuboid needed such that the light
ct 2 ray just grazes the vertical face AB is
2ct P
(3) (4)
PA 2ctA
18. Figure shows a capillary tube in which liquid rise to 45°
height H when air is blown through the horizontal
D A
tube in the direction as shown in figure. If the air is
stopped blowing then new height in the capillary tube μ
will be (take angle of contact zero)
air C B

H 2 +1 3
(1) (2)
2 2

(3) 2 (4) 2 +1
25. Wall clock uses a vertical spring mass system. The
(1) = H (2) > H clock gives correct time at the poles. If the clock is
taken to the equator, it will
(3) < H (4) 2H
(1) Run fast
19. Surface of lake is at temperature 2°C. The
temperature of the bottom of the lake is (2) Run slow
(1) 2°C (2) 3°C (3) Stop working
(3) 4°C (4) 1°C (4) Give same time

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Test-13 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET - 2019

26. The equation of simple harmonic motion is given as (1) 3 : 4 (2) 4 : 1

2 (3) 4 : 5 (4) 1 : 3
d x
4 + 256 x = 0 , (where x is displacement from
dt 2 31. A smiling face as shown in figure consists of a ring
mean position and t is time in second). The period of radius 6 cm with charge –3 μC, a second thin
of its oscillation (in seconds) is wire of charge 4 μC and in shape of a circular arc
π π of radius 4 cm, subtending an angle of 90° at the
(1) (2)
4 8 center of full circle, and small electric dipole of dipole
π π moment 6 × 10–21 Cm, is placed as eyes 2 cm from
(3) (4) central point. Then net electric potential at the
16 2
27. Two strings P and Q made of same material are center is
stretched by same tension. The radius of string P is //// //////////////
//// // /
///
half of the radius of Q. A transverse wave travels on P

///
///

////
///////////////////
–– –
with speed vP and on Q with speed vQ . The ratio of

//////// ///////////
2 cm
vP and vQ is m
4
cm
6c
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 1 ×× ×
×××××

////

///
///
(3) 1 : 5 (4) 4 : 1 ////
/ ////
///
///////////// / / //
28. In the circuit as shown in figure, the current i1 is

30 Ω
(1) 4.5 × 104 V
i1
40 Ω (2) 9 × 105 V
40 V (3) 9 × 104 V
i2 40 Ω
(4) 4.5 × 105 V
80 V
32. An electric charge q is placed at the centre of a cube
(1) 0.4 A (2) – 0.4 A
of side a. The electric flux through one of its faces is
(3) 0.8 A (4) – 0.8 A
29. An open organ pipe has a fundamental frequency f q
in air. One fourth of the length of the tube is dipped (1) 6ε
0
vertically in a oil. Then the new fundamental
frequency of the air column now is (neglect end
q
corrections) (2) ε
0
⎛2⎞
(1) ⎜ ⎟ f (2) f
⎝3⎠ q
(3) 3ε
0
f
(3) (4) 4f
4 q
30. Two positive charges q1 and q2 are fixed on a circle (4) 8ε
0
of radius R as shown in figure at the center of the
circle they produce a net electric field that is directed 33. Six resistances each of value 9 Ω, are connected to
along the positive y-axis. Then the ratio of the a 18 V battery as shown in the figure. The reading
charges q1 and q2 is of the ideal ammeter will be
y-axis

18 V

x-axis
A
R R
53° 37°
(1) 6 A (2) 4 A
q1 q2
(3) 2 A (4) 1 A

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Test Series for NEET - 2019 Test-13 (Code-A)

34. A current loop ABCD is held fixed on the plane of the (1) 1 A
paper as shown in the figure. The arcs have radius r
(2) 18 A
and nr. The magnitude of magnetic field at common
centre O of arcs is (3) 2 A
D (4) 3 A
38. A point object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from
nr A i a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. On the other
side of the lens a convex mirror of focal length
30° 10 cm is placed, such that final image of the object
i
coincides with object itself. The distance of mirror
r
B from lens is
(1) 30 cm (2) 40 cm
C
(3) 50 cm (4) 70 cm
2
μ0i n − n μ0 i (n − 1) 39. In the phenomenon of diffraction of light, when red
(1) 24r n(n + 1) (2) light is used in experiment inspite of blue light, then
24nr
(1) Fringes will become narrower
2 μ0 i
μ0i n (2) Fringes will become broader
(3) (4) 24r ( n – 1)
24r ( n + 1) (3) No change in fringe width

35. A paramagnetic sample shows a net magnetisation of (4) Can’t say

16 A/m when placed in an external magnetic field of 40. A beam of photons each of equal energy E 0 is
1.2 T at a temperature of 8 K. When the same incident on a metal surface of work function φ kept
sample is placed in an external magnetic field of in an evacuated chamber (E0 > φ). Then
0.4 T at a temperature of 32 K the magnetisation will (1) No electron will be emitted
be
(2) All emitted electrons will have energy E0.
8 (3) Electrons can be emitted with any energy with
(1) 4 A/m (2) A/m maximum of E0 – φ
3
(4) Electrons can be emitted with any energy with
4 maximum of E0
(3) A/m (4) 6 A/m
3 41. If 13.6 eV energy is required to ionize hydrogen
36. Two identical bar magnets each of magnetic moment atom. Then the energy required to remove an
8 Am2 are oriented as shown in figure. The net electron from its first excited state is
magnetic moment is (1) 13.6 eV
(2) 6.8 eV
S
(3) 3.4 eV
(4) 1.51 eV
42. At a given instant, N atoms of a radioactive element
120° emits n alpha particles per second. The half-life of
the element is
N S
N
n
(1) s
(1) 8 3 Am 2 N

(2) 8 Am2 0.693N

(2) s
n
(3) 4 3 Am2
0.693n
(4) 4 Am2 (3) s
N
37. The turn ratio of an ideal transformer is given as
1 : 3. If the current through the primary coil is 6 A, N
(4) s
then the current through load resistance is n
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Test-13 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET - 2019

43. A nucleus of 238U initially at rest emits an

92
α-particle. The speed of daughter nucleus after (1) A B Y (2) A B Y
decay is v. The speed of α particle is 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 0 1 0
238
(1) v 1 0 0 1 0 1
234
1 1 1 1 1 0
234
(2) v
4
(3) A B Y (4) A B Y
4 0 0 1
(3) v 0 0 0
234 0 1 1
0 1 0
238 1 0 0 1 0 1
(4) v
4 1 1 1 1 1 0

44. Truth table for the given circuit as shown in figure is 45. Which of the following combination should be
selected for better sharpness of LCR tuning circuit?
A
(1) L = 200 mH, C = 45 μF, R = 12 Ω
Y (2) L = 400 mH, C = 50 μF, R = 15 Ω
(3) L = 200 mH, C = 40 μF, R = 25 Ω
B (4) L = 400 mH, C = 30 μF, R = 10 Ω

CHEMISTRY

46. If one mol aqueous solution of NaOH has mole 51. Correct value of quantum numbers for last electron
fraction of NaOH 0.1 then mass of solvent present is of Ca is/are
(1) 1.62 g (2) 16.2 g (1) n = 4 (2) l = 0
(3) 0.81 g (4) 8.1 g (3) m = 0 (4) All of these
47. Mass of 0.1 mol of diatomic (X2) species is 30 g. 52. Element of highest second ionization energy among
Gram atomic mass of X is the following is
(1) 15 g (2) 150 g (1) Li (2) Be
(3) 30 g (4) 300 g (3) B (4) C
48. Correct order of wavelength of electromagnetic 53. Most electropositve element among the following is
radiations is
(1) Ag (2) Au
(1) UV > Microwaves > Visible > Radiowaves
(3) Na (4) Rb
(2) UV > Microwaves > Radiowaves > Visible
54. Dacron is a condensation polymer of
(3) Radiowaves > Microwaves > UV > Visible
(1) Ethane and terephthalic acid
(4) Radiowaves > Microwaves > Visible > UV
(2) Glycerol and terephthalic acid
49. Angular momentum of an electron present in 4th
(3) Ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid
orbit is
(4) Ethylene glycol and phthalic acid
h h
(1) (2) 55. Most acidic oxide among the following is
π 2π
(1) P2O5 (2) Al2O3
2h h
(3) (4) (3) SO3 (4) Cl2O7
π 4π
50. Radius of third excited state of He+ is 56. The pair that does not show diagonal relationship is

(1) 0.529 Å (2) 0.529 × 4 Å (1) Li, Mg (2) Be, Al

(3) 0.529 × 2 Å (4) 0.529 × 8 Å (3) B, Si (4) C, Si

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Test Series for NEET - 2019 Test-13 (Code-A)

57. Summation of formal charges present on all atoms 68. Intensive property is
2–
of SO 4
ion is (1) Volume (2) Entropy
(1) Zero (2) –1 (3) Vapour density (4) Heat capacity
(3) –2 (4) +2 69. Mixture which cannot form buffer in any proportion of
its components is
58. If Z-axis is taken as internuclear axis then pair of
orbitals that form π–bond is (1) H2SO4 + Na2SO4
(1) px + pz (2) py + pz (2) CH3COOH + NH4OH
(3) pz + pz (4) px + px (3) CH3COOH + NaOH
59. Longest bond length is present in (4) Na3PO4 + H3PO4
(1) C – N (2) C = O 70. Solubility of Al(OH)3 in the presence of 0.1 M Ca(OH)2
is [Ksp(Al(OH)3) = 4 × 10–34]
(3) C = C (4) C ≡ N
(1) 4 × 10–34 (2) 5 × 10–34
60. Highest polar molecule among the following is
(3) 5 × 10–32 (4) 5 × 10–30
(1) HF (2) HCl
2+ 3+
(3) HBr (4) HI 71. E°cell of cell Zn Zn Au Au , is
61. Non-linear species among the following is
(Given: Eo = − 0.76 V and Eo = +1.4 V )
(1) CO2 (2) XeF2 Zn2+ /Zn Au3+ / Au

(3) XeO4 (4) I3– (1) –2.16 V (2) 2.16 V

62. ‘O – O’ bond length is maximum in (3) 0.64 V (4) –0.64 V

(1) O 2– (2) O2 72. Electron precise hydride is

(1) NH3 (2) SiH4
(3) O2+ (4) O22 − (3) HCl (4) H2O
63. 1 atm pressure is not equivalent to 73. B2H6 on reaction with CO under pressure forms
(1) 76 cm Hg (2) 760 torr (1) B4C (2) B(OH)3
(3) 1.013 ×104 Pa (4) 760 mm Hg (3) B2O3 (4) BH3.CO
64. Density of an ideal gas of molar mass 32 g for 74. Element which does not show catenation property is
which pressure is ‘0.5R’ atm and temperature is (1) C (2) Si
27°C, is
(3) Ge (4) Pb
4 16 75. Compound of highest pKa is
(1) g/L (2) g/L
75 150 COOH
COOH
16 16
(3) g/L (4) g/L (1) (2)
5 700
65. Ratio of rate of diffusion of O2(g) to He(g) under
similar condition is
COOH COOH
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 2 (4) 1 : 2 (3) (4)
66. Kinetic energy of 4.4 g CO2(g) molecules at 127°C
temperature is OCH3
(1) 10 R (2) 600 R 76. If in Kjeldahl’s method, ammonia evolved by 0.4 g of
N
(3) 60 R (4) 30 R organic compound was passed in 100 ml of
5
67. For reaction H 2 SO 4 and excess acid required 100 ml of
(NH4 )2 Cr2O7 (s) ⎯⎯
→ N2 (g) + Cr2O3 (s) + 4H2O(g) N
NaOH for neutralisation then % of nitrogen in the
20
difference of ΔH and ΔU at 47°C is compound is
(1) 500 R (2) 15 R (1) 26.3 (2) 68.5
(3) 1500 R (4) 1600 R (3) 52.5 (4) 47.5
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Test-13 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET - 2019

77. Consider the given reaction : 85. Consider the reaction.

Conc. H2SO4/Δ Dry ether

CH2OH Major product (P) 2 Cl + 2Na + 2NaCl

Product P is above reaction is called

(1) Wurtz reaction (2) Fitting reaction
(1) CH2 (2) CH3 (3) Kolbe's reaction (4) Gattermann reaction
86. In the presence of Na2Cr2O7/H+, phenol is oxidised
to
(3) (4)
(1) CHO (2) COOH
78. Products obtained on reductive ozonolysis of

CH3 OH
(3) OH (4) O O
are

(1) CHOCH2CHO + CH3CHO 87. Pair of compounds that cannot be distinguished by

Fehling’s test is
(2) CHOCH2CHO + CH3COCH3
(1) CH3CHO + HCOOH
(3) CH3COCHO + CHOCH2CHO
(2) CH3CHO + PhCHO
(4) CH3COCHO + CH3COCH3
(3) CH3CHO + PhCOCH3
79. Tolerable limit of fluoride in drinking water is
approximately (4) CH3CHO + CH3COCH3
(1) 1 ppm (2) 50 ppm 88. In the following reaction sequence
(3) 500 ppm (4) 5000 ppm NH2
80. Number of unit cells in 0.1 mol of ZnS lattice is (CH3CO)2O Br2 +

(molar mass of ZnS is 97 g mol–1) A B

H C
Pyridine (major)
(1) 0.1 NA (2) 0.2 NA
(3) 0.025 NA (4) 0.05 NA C is
81. Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M CH3COOH(aq) solution NH2 NHBr
when it dissociates 75% at 127°C, is Br
Br
(1) 5.75 atm (2) 2.5 atm (1) (2)
(3) 4.75 atm (4) 9.25 atm
Br
+ +
82. Ecell of the cell Pt H2 H H H2 Pt, is
( −2
(1atm) 10 M ) (1 M) (1atm) NH2
NH2
(1) 0.12 V Br

(2) 0.06 V (3) (4)

(3) 0.18 V Br
(4) 0.16 V Br
89. Correct order of basic strength is
83. Complex showing geometrical isomerism is
(1) CH3NH2 > PhNH2 > PhCONH2
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 (2) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(2) CH3NH2 > PhCONH2 > PhNH2
(3) K2[PtCl4] (4) [Co(en)3]Cl3
(3) PhNH2 > CH3NH2 > PhCONH2
84. Half-life of a first order reaction having initial reactant
concentration 0.1 M is 20 minutes. Degree of (4) PhNH2 > PhCONH2 > CH3NH2
dissociation of reactant after 40 minutes is 90. Glucose on reaction with Br2 water forms
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.25 (1) Saccharic acid (2) Gluconic acid
(3) 0.75 (4) 0.9 (3) Heptanoic acid (4) Sorbitol

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Test Series for NEET - 2019 Test-13 (Code-A)

BOTANY
91. Which of the following structures is not found in 101. Which of the following plants have more than two
bacteria? leaves arise at each node?
(1) Flagella (2) Cilia (a) Alstonia (b) Calotropis
(3) Pili (4) Fimbriae (c) Sunflower (d) Nerium
92. True nucleus is absent in (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(1) Chlamydomonas (2) Rhizopus (3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d)
(3) Nostoc (4) Eudorina
102. Superior ovary is found in
93. Which one of the following is believed to be bacterial
(a) Petunia (b) Potato
endosymbiont of a cell?
(1) Ribosome (2) Lysosome (c) Peach (d) Plum

(3) Golgi apparatus (4) Mitochondria (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) only
94. Meiosis occurs in (3) (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
(a) Meiocytes (b) Meristematic cells 103. Phellogen normally gives rise to
(c) Somatic cells (1) Primary xylem (2) Secondary xylem
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only (3) Secondary phloem (4) Secondary cortex
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) All (a), (b) and (c) 104. Water containing cavities in vascular bundles are
95. To produce 105 pollen grains, how many meiotic found in
divisions are required? (1) Mustard (2) Maize
(1) 26 (2) 27 (3) China rose (4) Rose
(3) 26.5 (4) 25 105. The algae from which agar is obtained, belong to the
96. What was the amount of DNA in a somatic cell at class(es)
G1 phase if, a meiotic product of that cell has 10 pg (1) Phaeophyceae
of DNA?
(2) Chlorophyceae
(1) 40 pg (2) 20 pg
(3) Rhodophyceae
(3) 10 pg (4) 80 pg
(4) Both Phaeophyceae and Chlorophyceae
97. Dog and tiger respectively are placed in families
106. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Felidae and Canidae (2) Felidae and Hominidae
(1) Psilopsida - Psilotum
(3) Canidae and Felidae (4) Canidae and Muscidae
(2) Lycopsida - Adiantum
98. ICZN stands for
(3) Pteropsida - Pteris
(1) Indian Code of Zoological Nomenclature
(2) International Code of Zoological Nomenclature (4) Sphenopsida - Equisetum
(3) Indian Congress of Zoological Nomenclature 107. Which of the following plants bear naked seeds?
(4) International Congress of Zoological Nomenclature (1) Cedrus
99. Select the incorrect match. (2) Cotton
Class Member (3) Selaginella
(1) Phycomycetes - Rhizopus (4) Sphagnum
(2) Basidiomycetes - Yeast 108. Pinus and pea plant resemble each other in having
(3) Ascomycetes - Morels (1) Vessels in their xylem
(4) Deuteromycetes - Alternaria (2) Flowers
100. Which of the following statements is correct for prions? (3) Seeds
(1) These are RNA particles (4) Motile sperms
(2) Their RNA is of high molecular weight 109. Find the correct expression for a flaccid cell.
(3) They have cellular organisation (1) ΨW = ΨP (2) ΨP = 0
(4) They cause infections (3) ΨP = ΨS (4) ΨS = 0

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Test-13 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET - 2019

110. The micronutrients which are involved in the photolysis 119. Which of following are the characteristic features of
of water, during photosynthesis are flowers pollinated by insects?
(1) Potassium and phosphorus (a) Colourful flower parts
(2) Manganese and chlorine (b) Fragrance
(3) Calcium and zinc
(c) Sticky pollen grains
(4) Copper and boron
(d) Presence of nectaries
111. Which is not a trace element?
(1) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (a) and (c)
(1) Fe (2) Zn
(3) Mg (4) Mn (3) Only (a) and (d) (4) All, (a), (b), (c) and (d)

112. In higher plants, maximum photosynthesis takes 120. Which of following is not an example of plant that is
place in responsible for pollen allergy in human beings?

(1) Blue and green light (1) Parthenium (2) Amaranthus

(2) Red and blue light (3) Zostera (4) Chenopodium

(3) Green and orange light 121. Which of the following is not a dominant trait in
garden pea?
(4) Yellow and orange light
(1) Yellow pod colour (2) Yellow seed colour
113. How many of the following cell organelles is/are
involved in photorespiration? (3) Axial flower position (4) Round seed shape
Chloroplast, Mitochondria, Peroxisome, Lysosome 122. Match the following columns and select the correct
option.
(1) Two (2) Four
Column I Column II
(3) One (4) Three
a. Pleiotropy (i) Example is Down’s
114. In which of the following processes, CO2 is not released?
syndrome
(1) Alcoholic fermentation b. Multiple allelism (ii) ABO blood grouping in
(2) TCA cycle human beings
(3) Glycolysis c. Aneuploidy (iii) Skin colour in human
(4) Photorespiration being

115. Which phytohormone inhibits longitudinal growth but d. Polygenic inheritance (iv) A single gene product
stimulates transverse growth of seedlings? produces more than
one effect
(1) Abscisic acid (2) Ethylene
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(3) Gibberellin (4) Auxin
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
116. Select the incorrect statement.
123. Who coined the term “Linkage”?
(1) Some synthetic auxins are used as weedicides
(1) G. Mendel (2) Carl Correns
(2) Gibberellins can induce stem elongation in
(3) Bateson (4) T. H. Morgan
'rossette plants'.
124. How many different kinds of gametes will be
(3) Cytokinin is used to speed up the malting
produced by a plant having the genotype aaBbcc?
process in brewing industry.
(4) Ethylene promotes senescence of plant parts (1) Two (2) Four
like leaves and flowers. (3) Six (4) Eight
117. Which among the following plants has the shortest 125. Which of the following is not a pyrimidine
life span? nitrogenous base?
(1) Rice (2) Rose (1) Adenine (2) Uracil
(3) Banana (4) Banyan (3) Cytosine (4) Thymine
118. Vegetative propagation in Agave (century plant) 126. The distance between two adjacent base pairs of
occurs by DNA is approximately equal to
(1) Offset (2) Bulbils (1) 0.34 Å (2) 3.4 Å
(3) Runner (4) Sucker (3) 3.4 nm (4) 34 nm

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Test Series for NEET - 2019 Test-13 (Code-A)

127. Select the correct one regarding the feature of 131. The population interaction in which allelopathy or
human genome. antibiosis is shown is
(1) More the 20% of the genome codes for proteins (1) Commensalism (2) Amensalism
(2) The smallest gene is with 14 bases (3) Protoco-operation (4) Mutualism
(3) X-chromosome has most genes 132. Pyramid of number in a pond ecosystem is
(4) About 50% nucleotide bases differ from one (1) Upright (2) Inverted
person to another (3) Rhomboidal (4) Spindle -shaped
128. The method of producing thousands of plants through 133. Which of the following is an example of recently
tissue culture is called extinct animal in Africa?
(1) Micropropagation (2) Hybridisation (1) Dodo (2) Quagga
(3) Biofortification (4) Sterilisation (3) Thylacine (4) Steller’s sea cow
129. Cyclosporin A is produced by 134. All of the following are primary pollutants, except
(1) Yeast (1) DDT (2) SO2
(2) Trichoderma polysporum (3) O3 (4) CO
(3) Aspergillus niger 135. The National Forest Policy (1988) of India has
A
recommended _________ of forest cover for plains
(4) Candida lipolytica
130. The two basic processes that contribute to an B
and _________ for the hills.
increase in population density of a given habitat are
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks A and B.
(1) Natality and emigration
(1) A – 67%; B – 33%
(2) Mortality and natality
(2) A – 33%; B – 67%
(3) Immigration and natality (3) A – 37%; B – 63%
(4) Emigration and mortality (4) A – 63%; B – 37%

ZOOLOGY
136. The external auditory canal ends at 139. Maximum amount of CO 2 leaves the body of a
(1) Malleus cockroach through

(2) Incus (1) Spiracles only

(3) Stapes (2) Tracheae only

(4) Tympanic membrane (3) Both spiracles and tracheae

137. Disease that does not affect glucose metabolism? (4) Cuticular covering of body
(1) Type I diabetes mellitus 140. A thin connective tissue sheath called the Glisson’s
(2) Type II diabetes mellitus capsule covers

(3) Diabetes insipidus (1) Each lobe of liver

(4) Cushing syndrome (2) Each hepatic lobule of liver

138. Which of the following nerve is not involved in (3) A cluster of hepatic lobules
sensation of taste?
(4) Outer capsule of entire liver
(1) Facial nerve (VII)
141. Which one of the following bones does not occur in
(2) Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) pairs in human body?
(3) Trigeminal nerve (V) (1) Malleus and femur (2) Tibia and stapes
(4) Vagus nerve (X) (3) Hyoid and sternum (4) Incus and stapes

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Test-13 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET - 2019

142. The congenital disease which cannot be diagnosed 150. Every 500 ml of oxygenated blood picks up
using amniocentesis? approximately ______ mL of CO2 from the tissues to
(1) Down syndrome deliver to the alveoli while becoming deoxygenated.

(2) Cleft palate Choose the option, which fills in the blank correctly.

(3) Haemophilia (1) 5 ml (2) 100 ml

(4) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (3) 20 ml (4) 200 ml
143. A koala bear and kangaroo exhibit which process of 151. Which of the following hormones play a critical role
evolution? in inducing the rupture of Graafian follicle?
(1) Saltation (1) Estrogen
(2) Adaptive radiation (2) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
(3) Convergent evolution (3) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
(4) Adaptive convergence (4) Progesterone
144. Which of the following vitamin plays a crucial role in 152. Which of the following is not a feature of pBR322?
RBC production?
(1) pBR322 has a size of about 4.3 kb has a
(1) Vitamin K (2) Vitamin B6 reasonable high copy number.
(3) Biotin (4) Vitamin B9 (2) Selection is a two-step process as two sets of
145. Erythropoietin, a hormone which stimulates antibiotic resistance gene are used.
formation of RBCs is produced by
(3) Selection of recombinants due to inactivation of
(1) Pancreas antibiotics is an easy procedure.
(2) Juxtaglomerular cells of kidney (4) Selection of recombinants requires simultaneous
(3) Adrenal glands plating of two plates having different antibiotics.
(4) Podocytes of Bowman’s capsule 153. The cancer most commonly associated with AIDS
patients is
146. Which of the following structures of Periplaneta is
not involved in synthesis of uric acid? (1) Leukaemia (2) Burkitt’s lymphoma
(1) Malpighian tubules (2) Fat body (3) Kaposi’s sarcoma (4) Pneumocystis carnii
(3) Nephrocytes (4) Uricose glands 154. Which of the following is not a fresh water fish?
147. When closely similar species, like lungfishes and (1) Catla catla (2) Hilsa
alligators, exist at widely separated places without
(3) Labeo (4) Clarias
any representative in intervening territory we call it
(1) Restricted distribution 155. Select the most primitive craniate.

(2) Varying distribution (1) Cephalochordata (2) Urochordata

(3) Discontinuous distribution (3) Agnatha (4) Gnathostomata

(4) Continuous distribution 156. In mucosa of the alimentary canal which of the
following is not found
148. The secondary oocyte is released from the ovary
(1) Goblet cells
(1) Before the release of first polar body
(2) After the release of first polar body (2) Crypts of Lieberkuhn

(3) Before the release of first and second polar body (3) Gastric glands

(4) After the release of first and second polar body
149. Reddish appearance of some muscles is due to
(1) Higher haemoglobin content
(2) Higher RBC content
(3) Higher myoglobin content
(4) Higher oxyhaemoglobin content
(4) Brunner’s glands
157. The beginning of atrial diastole coincides with
(1) End of ventricular systole
(2) Beginning of ventricular diastole
(3) Beginning of ventricular systole
(4) Beginning of auricular systole

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Test Series for NEET - 2019 Test-13 (Code-A)

158. Select the incorrect statement regarding respiration 164. During maturation of proinsulin which chain is
in humans. removed to achieve proper folding
(1) Chemosensitive area near the rhythm centre is (1) Chain A and chain B
highly sensitive to both CO2 and H+ ions.
(2) Only chain A
(2) CO2 and H+ ion concentration can be recognised
(3) Only chain C
by receptors in aortic arch.
(4) Chain A and chain C
(3) The role of oxygen in regulation of the respiratory
rhythm is most significant. 165. Choose the structure which is not a part of the brain
(4) Receptors of carotid artery respond to CO2 stem?
concentration levels in blood. (1) Mid brain
159. Closed type of circulatory system first evolved in (2) Pons
phylum
(3) Cerebellum
(1) Nematoda (2) Annelida
(4) Medulla oblongata
(3) Arthropoda (4) Mollusca
166. The structure of chordates which differentiates into
160. Gayatri was calmly walking down the road when all brain and spinal cord is
of a sudden a snake appears in front of her. The
following physiological changes would take place in (1) Dorsal notochord
her body, except (2) Dorsal hollow nerve cord
(1) Perspiration (2) Pupils dilate (3) Ventral hollow nerve cord
(3) Heart rate increases (4) Micturition occurs
(4) Ventral notochord
161. ________ is a bone which forms due to ossification
167. Secondary metabolite that is used as a
of a tendon.
chemotherapeutic drug is
Choose an option that fills the blank.
(1) Cocaine
(1) Carpal (2) Stapes
(2) Vinblastin
(3) Patella (4) Sternum
(3) Curcumin
162. Select the correct match for cyclostomes.
(4) Morphine
Cyclostome Feature
168. Which of the followings are Amniotes?
(1) Petromyzon Catadromous
(1) Pisces and reptilia
(2) Myxine Exclusively marine
(2) Amphibia and reptilia
(3) Petromyzon Direct development
(3) Aves and reptilia
(4) Myxine Semicircular canal is
(4) Amphibia and pisces
absent
169. All of the following are transgenic animals except
163. Arrange the following in correct sequence of the
basic steps in gene cloning. (1) Tracy
(i) Numerous cell division resulting in a clone (2) Polly
(ii) Multiplication of recombinant DNA molecule (3) Dolly
(iii) Transport into the host cell (4) Molly
(iv) Construction of a recombinant DNA molecule 170. Out of the following which feature does not belong
(v) Division of host cell to Rana.
(1) (iii), (iv), (v), (ii), (i) (1) Teeth in upper jaw
(2) (iv), (v), (ii), (iii), (i) (2) Well developed webs in hind limbs
(3) (iv), (iii), (ii), (v), (i) (3) Salivary glands
(4) (iii), (v), (iv), (ii), (i) (4) Bifid tongue
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Test-13 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET - 2019

171. ________ is a non-reducing sugar because the 176. Which of the following ions play the most crucial
aldehyde and ketone groups present in the molecule role is exocytosis of neurotransmitter at the chemical
form a glycosidic bond. synapse?
Choose the option which fills the blank correctly. (1) Na+ (2) K+
(1) Glucose (2) Sucrose (3) Ca2+ (4) Cl–
(3) Lactose (4) Maltose 177. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Plasmodium.
172. Intake of which hormone can help to postpone (1) It reproduces asexually in liver cells of humans.
menstrual bleeding for a few days.
(2) It reproduces sexually in the RBCs of man and
(1) Estrogen like drugs. causes bursting of RBCs releasing hemozoin.
(2) Progestrone like drugs. (3) Release of hemozoin in blood causes recurrent
fever and chills.
(3) Synthetic oxytocin (Pitocin)
(4) If all mosquitoes were eradicated from earth
(4) Follicle stimulating hormone
Plasmodium would be unable to complete its life
173. ________ is the name given to the stage after cycle thereby reaching a dead end.
fermentation when the desired product is recovered
178. ________ is called as “Cradle of life” for human kind
and purified.
(1) Neanderthal valley (2) South America
Choose an option that fills the blank correctly.
(3) Africa (4) Asia
(1) Batch fermentation
179. Protonephridia are the excretory structures of
(2) Continuous culture
platyhelminthes whose primary function is
(3) Downstream processing
(1) Excretion only
(4) Upstream processing
(2) Digestion
174. Test used for detection of Salmonella typhi infection
(3) Osmoregulation and excretion
causing sustained fever is
(4) Locomotion
(1) Schick test (2) Gravidex test
180. The common collagenous sheath of connective
(3) Mantoux test (4) Widal test
tissue called ________ further binds together the
175. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. transport of gases. muscle bundles.
(1) O2 bound to RBCs – 97% (1) Fasciculi
(2) CO2 dissolved in plasma – 70% (2) Endomysium
(3) CO2 transported by RBCs – 20–25% (3) Fascia
(4) O2 dissolved in plasma – 3% (4) Perimycium

  

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Mock Test for NEET-2020