Management Important MCQ

Q.
1 Management theories are interpretive and evolve with

Organisational change.
a) It is scientific
b) It helps decision making
c) a & b
d) None of the above
Q.2 Who is known as “Father of Scientific Management”?

a) Henry Feyol
b) F.W.Taylor
c) Gilberth
d) Juran
Q.3 Amul Dairy industries refers to which of the following

company type-
a) Private limited company
b) Ownership company
c) Partnership company
d) Co-operative company
Q.4 Following are the kinds of partners-

a) Active partner and Sleeping Partner
b) Owner and Distributor
c)Global Partner and Media Partner
d)Permanent Partner and Temporary Partner
Q.5 Esprit De corps refers to –
a) Teamwork
b) Planning
c) Co-ordination
d) Authority
Q.6 According to Drucker, the purpose of business is:

a. to get money
b. to acquire success in market
c. to satisfy customers
d to create and keep customers
Q.7 Who is known as the father of modern management?

a. Max Weber
b. Henri Fayol
c. Peter F. Drucker
d. Henry Gantt
Q.8 Fredrick Taylor stressed on:

a. Selecting the right people for the right job
b. Division of labour
c. Unity of command
d. Unity of direction
Q.9 Fayol suggested that organizations can be sub divided into
________main groups of activity.
a.12
b. 4
c. 14
d. 6
Q.10 Who is credited with having developed the concept of priority

or hierarchy of needs?
a. F.W.Taylor
b. Abraham Maslow
c. Max Weber
d. Mary Follet
Q.11 Arya Chanakya’s Arthashastra written in the third century B.C.

provides guidelines for:
a. The policies of governance of a kingdom and people
management
b. How to work
c. Utilization of the organization strengths and the importance of
discipline
d. The policies and objectives of an organization’s
Q.12 In the early writings on managements, the art of war was

written by:
a. Arya Chanaykya
b. Mark Twain
c. Suntzu
d. Adam smith
Q.13 ‘Management is the art of getting things done through and

with an informally organized’ is defined by
a. Harlond Koontz
b. James Watt
c. F.W. Taylor
d. Adam Smith
Q.14 To motivate workers, Taylor suggested:

a. Differential piece rate method of payment
b. To pay more salary
c. To give less work
d. To provide festival bonus
Q.15_____ refers to produce and earn at least what the business

did the last year.
a. Profit
b. Survival
c. Progress
d. None of the above
Q.16 In a joint stock company, loans are repaid by the

a. members
b. promoters.
c. company
d. none of the above
Q.17 The process of monitoring, comparing and correcting is called

a. Coordinating
b. Controlling
c. Leading
d. Organizing
Q.18 The five management functions of planning, organizing,

commanding, coordinating and controlling work proposed by:
a. F.w. taylor
b. Henry ford
c. Chester barnard
d. Henri fayol
Q.19 Organizing includes:

a. Prescribing disciplinary action
b. Hiring organizational members
c. Grouping of activities
d. Determining objectives
Q.20 ______ is the process by which an organization decides what

it will sell, to whom , when and how.
a. Strategic management
b. Planning
c. Selling
d. Marketing
Q.21 Manager who are responsible for making organization – wide

decisions and establishing the plans and goals that affects the
entire organization are:
a. Production managers
b. Top managers
c. Frontline managers
d. Research managers
Q.22 _____does not belong to henry Fayol’s 14 principles of

management.
a. Standardization
b. Scalar chain
c. Authority
d. Discipline
Q.23 _____is the 2nd function of management.

a. Organizing
b. Planning
c. Leading
d. Controlling
Q.24 The process of inspiring the subordinates to put in their best
is known as______.
a. Motivation
b. Teamwork
c. Management
d. Leadership
Q.25 Which one of the following functions involves recruiting and

placing qualified personal needed for the organization?
a. Planning
b. Organization
c. Staffing
d. Leading
Q.26______is the application of knowledge and personal skills to

achieve results.
a. Art
b. Science
c. Work
Q.27 In a department, the ______is in charge of department?

a. C.E.O
b. H.R
c. Manager
d. Project manager
Q.28 Getting work done with a minimum effort, expense or waste
is the definition of:
a. efficiency
b. effectiveness
c. productivity
d. planning
Q29. _______reduces uncertainty.

a. Negotiating
b. Planning
c. Organizing
d. Leading
Q30. “Analysis of causes of deviations “is a part of which process?

a. Motivation
b. Teamwork
c. Controlling
d. Leadership
Q31. When we classify managers according to their level in the

organization, they are described as :
a. Functional, staff and line managers
b. Top managers , middle managers and supervisors
c. High level and lower level managers
d. General managers and administrative manager
Q32. ________concentrates on development of the organization.
a. Availability
b. Stability
c. Productivity
d. Flexibility
Q33 Who is recognized as “the man who invented management”?

a. F.W. Taylor
b. Elton Mayo
c. Peter F. Drucker
d. Henri Fayol
Q.34 Delegation is a right given by a ______to______make decision

a. Manager, Employee
b. C.E.O, H.R
c. Manager, Supervisor
d. Superior, Subordinate
Q.35 Who developed a theory of motion study?

a. Taylor
b. James watt
c. Frank B. Gilbreth
d. Peter Drucker
Q.36 The authority that a_______ possess is known as line
authority
a. Subordinate
b. Manager
c. Superior
d. Chief Executives
Q.37 Possibly the most important pre-20th century influence on

management was:
a. Scientific management
b. Middle management
c. The industrial revolution
d. The division of labour
Q.38 Which of the following was the key aim of scientific

management?
a. To increase worker control of production
b. To increase productivity
c. To decrease absenteeism
d. To develop time & motion study
Q.39 _____ can be called as leading, motivating, actuating and so
on.
a. Planning
b. Organising
c. Controlling
d. Directing
Q.40 The art of getting things done by people is called as
a. Organising
b. Staffing
c. Direction
d. Management
Q.41 Top level is known as _______because all important decisions

related to whole organisation is taken by top management.
a. Strategical level
b. Tactical level
c. Operational level
d. All the above
Q.42 First step in planning is

a. Establish goals
b. Identity resources
c. Prioritize goals
d. Establish tasks
Q.43 Deciding in advance what to do and when to do is

a. Decision making
b. Organising
c. Planning
d. Motivating
Q.44 The lower level of managers work at
a. Strategical level
b. Tactical level
c. Operational level
d. At all levels
Q.45 Who had a main concern to achieve efficiency of material

through application of time and motion study ?
a. F.Y Taylor
b. Robin son boulton
c. Gilbreth
d. Mery parker
Q.46 The process of monitoring & comparing & correcting is is

called
a. Controlling
b. Coordinating
c. Leading
d. Organising
Q. 47 One disadvantage of forming a partnership is

a. The number of partners are limited
b. Specialist skills may be introduced
c. More Financial capital is usually available
d. Any financial losses must shared
Q.48 A joint venture can be defined as:
a. Two firms collaborate together on a specific project
b. One firms licenses its intellectual property to another firm
c. Two firms merge together
d. Two firms come together to a tried legally separate firm
Q.49 which statement regarding joint stock company’s is incorrect?

a. Joint stock companies have no separate legal status than their
member
b. Members of joint stock company have limited liability
c. Join stock companies can undertake several activities like
expansion, modernisation, diversification, etc
Q.50 Following business is not coming under sole proprietorship

a. Service centre
b. Press shop
c. Hardware unit
d. Insurance company
Q.51 The function of employing eligible people for the company

a. Planning
b. Staffing
c. Strategy
d. Mission
Q. 52 Scientific management works on
a. Research & experimentation
b. Trial &error
c. More attention on production only
d. Tradition management theory
Q.53 What is Espirit De Corps?

a. It is a function of management
b. It is a principle of management
c. It is a management concept in Russia
d. It is a name of company
Q.54 which theory put forward by F.W. taylor?

a. management by objectives
b. Industrial management
c. Functional management
d. Scientific management
Q.55________ is an activity which define the steps of how and

when work will be done
a. Directing
b. Planning
c. Organization
d. Controlling
Q.56 : ________ is a requirement of right people at right place in an
organization
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Staffing
d. Controlling
Q.57 which of the following post comes under middle level
management
a. Director
b. Branch manager
c. Foreman
d. Supervisor
Q.58 Policy making in an industry is role of --
a. Management
b. administration
c. Public
d. Workers
Q.59 the object of TQM is
a. To improve profitability
b. To improve process
c. To guide management
d. None
Q.60 Plan, policies &procedure are the function of____
a. Top level management
b. Middle level Management
c. Bottom level Management
d. Middle & Bottom level
Q.61 Which statement is wrong
a. Authority cannot be delegated
b. Authority is the power to act
c. Higher the post, higher is the authority
d. Authority is right to command
Q.62 The Practice of Management written by __________.
a. Peter F. Drucker.
b. Terry.
c. Louis Allan.
d. Henry Fayol.
Q.63 Management is an organ, organs can be described and
defined only through their functions. This definition was given by
b. Terry.
c. Louis Allan.
d. Henry Fayol.
Q.64 Management is what a manger does_____________.
b. Terry.
c. Louis Allan.
d. Henry Fayol.
Q.65 To manage is to forecast and plan, to organize, to compound,
to co-ordinate and to control. This definition was given by
A. Peter F. Drucker.
B. Henry Fayol.
C. Louis Allan.
D. Terry.
Q.66 Management is the art of getting things done through and
with an informally organized______.
A. Harold Koontz.
B. Terry.
C. Louis Allan.
D. Henry Fayol.
Q.67 Management is the art and science of decision making and
leadership _____.
A. Harold Koontz.
B. Donald J. Clough.
C. Louis Allan.
D. Terry.
Q.68 Luther Gullik classifies the function of management as
A. POSDCORB.
B. POSTCARD.
C. POSDCORB.
D. POSDORBC.
Q.69 Pioneer of Human Relations is ___________.
A. Mary Parkett.
B. Lillian Gilbert.
C. Henry Fayol.
D. Elton Mayo.
Q.70 Henry Fayol was a French__________________.
A. Industrialist.
B. Writer.
C. Manager.
D. Actor.
Q.71 The chain of command from the highest authority to the
lowest level in the organization is _________.
A. Unity of direction.
B. Unity of command.
C. Centralization.
D. Scalar chain.
Q.72 Study of the movements of both the workers and the machine
to eliminate wasteful movement is
A. fatigue study.
B. time study.
C. motion study.
D. work-study.
Q.73 A chronological sequence of steps to be undertaken to
enforce a policy and to attain an objective is known as
A. objective.
B. strategies.
C. procedures.
D. rules.
Q.74 Rules, duties and responsibilities or workers are given in
writing in______.
A. formal organization.
B. informal organization.
C. business or organisation.
D. strategic organization.
Q.75 Which type of organization gives importance to people and
their relationships?
A. formal organization.
B. informal organization.
C. business or organisation.
D. strategic organization.
Q.76 The selection of best alternative from many alternatives is
known as
A. selection.
B. decision-making.
C. organizing.
D. budgeting.
Q.77 The decision taken by lower-level management is a
A. programmed decision.
B. non-programmed decision.
C. major decision.
D. minor decision.
Q.78 The decision taken by high level of management is
A. programmed decision.
B. non-programmed decision.
C. individual decision.
D. non-economic decision.
Q.79 The decision which relates to day-to-day operation of an
organization is known as ____.
A. major decision.
B. organisational decision.
C. personal decision.
D. operative decision.
Q.80 Crisis decision is also known as ____.
A. group decision.
B. major decision.
C. minor decision.
D. spot decision.
Q.81 The process whereby a manager shares his work and
authority with his subordinates is
A. Decentralisation
B. Responsibility.
C. Delegation.
D. decision making.
Q.82 The process of dividing the large monolithic functional
organization into small and flexible administrative units is called
A. staffing.
B. delegation.
C. departmentation.
D. control.
Q.83 Motivation based on force of fear is called ____.
A. negative motivation.
B. positive motivation.
C. extrinsic motivation.
D. intrinsic motivation
Q.84 ____ means that each section has its own workers to perform
activities within the department.
A. centralisation.
B. departmentation.
C. decentralisation.
D. delegation.
Q.85 Leadership behaviour is influenced by certain qualities of a
person is ____.
A. Followers theory.
B. Trait theory.
C. Situational theory.
D. Managerial grid.
Q.86 The leadership theory study leaders behaviour is _____.
A. Flowers theory.
B. Trait theory.
C. Behavioural theory.
D. Managerial grid.
Q.87 All decision-making power is centralized in the leader is under
A. autocratic style.
B. liberal leader.
C. democratic leader.
D. institutional leader.
Q.88 The leader makes decisions in consultation with his followers
is
B. liberal leader.
C. democratic leader.
Q.89 Complete freedom for group or individual decision, with a
minimum of leader participation is under ____.
B. democratic style.
C. free-rein style.
D. creative style.
Q.90 A leader exercises his power over his followers because of his
position held in the. Organizational hierarchy is ____.
A. autocratic leader.
B. intellectual leader.
C. liberal leader.
Q.91 A leader motivates his followers to work hard by offering
them rewards is ____.
A. positive style.
B. negative style.
C. autocratic style.
D. democratic style.
Q.92 Scalar chain means ________.
A. hierarchy levels.
B. chain of command.
C. delegation of authority.
D. span of control.
Q.93 The organization which was devised by FW Taylor was
A. functional organization.
B. matrix organisation.
C. committee organization.
D. line and staff organization.
Q.94 When the supervisor commands subordinates and has close
supervision is called ______.
A. free-rein.
B. autocratic.
C. consultative.
D. democratic.
Q.95 X and Y theory was introduced by_______.
A. Mc gregor.
B. Peter drucker.
C. Henry fayol.
D. FW taylor.
Q.96 Selecting a best course of action among the alternatives is
called as_________.
A. decision making.
B. planning.
C. organizing.
D. controlling.
Q.97 The study relating to the movement of a machine operator
and his machine while performing the job is called__________.
A. time study.
B. work study.
C. motion study.
D. fatigue study.
Q.98 Operative functions of HRM includes
a. Procurement, development, compensation & motivation
b. Maintenance
c. Integration and emerging trends
d. All of these
Q.99 Basic managerial functions of HRM are
a. Planning, organising, staffing
b. Planning, organising and co-ordinating
c. Planning, organising, directing and controlling
d. None of these
Q.100 Which of the following statement is/are correct?
a. HRM is a strategic management functions
b. Under HRM employee is treated as resource
c. HRM is the management of skills, talent and abilities
d. HRM lacks the organisation to achieve its goals
Q.101 Following are the characteristics of HRM except
a. Pervasive function
b. Interdisciplinary function
c. Integrating mechanism
d. Job oriented
Q.102 Challenges faced by Human resource management includes

a. Technological changes, workforce diversity, globalization
b. Productivity, career planning
c. Compensation management
d. Downsizing and voluntary retirement scheme
Q.103 The process of familiarizing the new employees to the

organisation rules and regulations is known as
a. Placement
b. Induction
c. Recruitment
d. Selection
Q.104 Human resource management means

a. A method which an organisation collects, maintains and reports
information on people and jobs
b. The process of integrating the employees’ needs and aspirations
with organizational needs
c. The process of bringing people and organisation together so that
the goals of each are achieved
d. The efforts to make life worth living for workers
Q.105 A predetermined groups or classes are established and jobs

are assigned to each classification:
a. Ranking method
b. Grading method
c. Point rating method
d. Factor comparison method
Q.106 _____ is the systematic, periodic and impartial rating of an

employee excellence in matters pertaining to his present job and
his potential for a better job.
a. Performance appraisal
b. Compensation and motivation
c. Training and Development
d. Performance indicator
Q.107 Traditional method of performance appraisal includes

a. Confidential reports
b. Paired comparison method
c. Free form or easy method
d. All of these
Q.108 Modern method of performance appraisal are:

a. Assessment centre method
b. Management by objectives
c. BARS ( Behaviourally anchored rating scale)
d. All of these
Q.109 The performance appraisal technique in which appraisers

rate critical employee behaviour.
a. MBO
b. BARS
c. BOS
d. BOSS
Q.110 The performance appraisal technique that involves

agreement between employee and manager on goals to be
achieved in a given period.
a. Rating scales
b. BARS
c. BOS
d. MBO
Q.111 The combination of peer, superior, subordinate and self-
review appraisal is known as
a. 360° appraisal
b. Human resource accounting system
c. All round review
d. Feed forward
Q.112 Scientific Management were more concerned with the
problems at the ________ levels
a) Higher levels
b) Middle
c) Operating
d) None
Q.113 ______suggests that each communication going up or

coming down must flow through each position in the line of
authority
a) Communication Pattern
b) Horizontal communications
c) Scalar chain
d) None of these
Q.114 ____has defined the basic problem of managing as the art of
“knowing exactly what you want men to do and then see that they
do it in the best and cheapest way”
a) Henry Fayol
b) F.W. Taylor
c) Mary parker Follet
d) None of these
Q.115 The principle of Unity of command is contrary to Taylors

____
a) Rule of thumb
b) Unity of Direction
c) Functional foremanship
d) None of these
Q.116 According to _____principle, each group of activities with the
same objective must have one head and one plan
a) Unity of Direction
b) Unity of command
c) Eitherof these
d) None
Q.117 Everything which goes to increase the importance of
subordinates role is _____
a) Decentralization
b) Centralization
c) Either A or B
d) None
Q.118 According to_______approach, management is a logical
process and it can be expressed in terms of mathematical symbols
and relationships.
a) Empirical
b) Management science
c) Contingency
d) Operational
Q.119 ______is the art of knowing exactly what you want men to
do and then seeing that how they do it in the best and cheapest
way.
a) General management
b) Scientific Management
c) Administration
d) None
Q.120 _____helps to determine a fair days work and rest period to
complete it
a) Work study
b) Time study
c) Motion study
d) All of these
Q.121 _____is highly suitable for large organizations having large
number of managerial personnel at different levels.
a) Centralization
b) Decentralization
c) Departmentalization
d) All of these
Q.122 MBO stands for?
a) Management of Business Objectives
b) Management By Objectives
c ) Managing Business Operations
d) None of these
Q.123 ___is a sequence of activities to be undertaken for
implementing the policies and achieving the objectives of an
enterprise.
a) Procedures
b) Programme
c) Rule
d) Plans
Q.124 A superior cannot delegate
a) Authority
b) Responsibility
c) Duty
d) None of these
Q.125 refers to the maximum number of subordinates a superior
can effectively manage?
a) Scalar chain
b) Unity of direction
c) Accountability
d) Span of control
Q.126______ is a detailed and systematic study of jobs to know the

nature and characteristics.
a) Manpower planning
b) Job analysis
c) Staffing
d) All of these
Q.127 The term “Open-Book Management” (OBM) was coined by

_____
a) Henry Fayol
b) Michael Hammer
c) Jack Stack
d) None of these
Q.128 ____is how companies manage their business processes to
produce an overall positive impact on society.
a) Management
b) BPR
c) MBO
d) CSR
Q.129 Leadership is also referred as fatherly leadership
a) Autocratic
b) Participative
c) Free rein
d) Paternalistic
130. Means a process of stimulating people to action to accomplish

desired goals
a) Motivation
b) Leadership
c) Communication
d) None of these
Q.131. Who developed MBO?

a) Henry Fayol
b) Rensis Likert
c) Michael Porter
d) Peter F Drucker
Q.132 MBO gives emphasis on____

a) Top Management
b) Middle Management
c) Objectives
d) Lower Management
Q.133 MBO establishes a ________

a) Community of interest
b) Centralized organization
c) Rigid organisation structure
d) All of these
Q.134 KRA in MBO stands for_________

a) Kerala Rural Academy
b) Key Result Areas
c) Key Resources Availability
d) None of these
Q135. Which influential thought leader is known for his theory on

organizational forms?
A) John Maxwell
B) Tom J. Peters
C) Henry Mintzberg
D) John P. Kotter
Q.136. The term “core competency,” was coined by which of the

following influential business thinkers?
A) W. Edwards Deming
B) C.K. Prahalad
C) Ken Blanchard
D) Frederick W. Taylor
Q.137 Which type of managers are responsible for reporting to

middle managers?
A) employees
B) managers
C) executive managers
D) second level managers
Q. 138 In management, the various roles that managers are called

on to perform are defined in which process?
A) management process
B) executive process
C) business process
D) supervisory process
Q.139 . Which of the following characterize a manager as being

efficient?
A) They use a minimum amount of resources for the amount of
outputs produced.
B) The devote a large amount of time to planning
C) They achieve their goals.
D) They interview, select, and train people who are most suitable to
fill open jobs.
Q.140 Which of the following characterize a manager as being
effective?
A) They use a minimum amount of resources for the amount of
outputs produced.
B) They devote a large amount of time to planning.
C) They achieve their goals.
D) They interview, select, and train people who are most suitable to
fill open jobs.
Q.141 Which type of issues are first level managers routinely

influenced by?
A) long range issues
B) short range issues
C) strategic issues
D) shareholder issues
Q.142 Economic uncertainty, regulatory requirements, and new

competitors are examples of what type of factors that affect
managers?
A) intrapersonal factors
B) internal factors
C) interpersonal factors
D) external factors
Q.143 For a manager, which should take priority- the job task or the
employees performing the job?
A) The job task always takes priority over employees.
B) Employees always take priority over the job task.
C) Neither, a manager should balance interest in the job task with
the needs of the employees performing the job.
D) Neither, administration of the business takes priority over the job
task and the employees.
Q.144 Which level of management is responsible for implementing

programs that are intended to carry out the broader objectives of
an organization set by executives?
A) supervisory managers
B) middle managers
C) first level managers
D) chief financial managers
Q.145 Which level of management is responsible for establishing a

vision for the organization, developing broad plans and strategies,
and directing subordinate managers?
A) first level managers
B) middle managers
C) executive managers
D) second level managers
Q.146 In which type of leadership is the entire group involved in
and accepts responsibility for goal setting and achievement?
(a) Autocratic leadership
(b) Democratic leadership
(c) Laissez-faire leadership
(d) None of the above
Q.147 Which type of leadership can increase efficiency, save time

and get quick results?
(a) Autocratic leadership
(b) Democratic leadership
(c) Free-rein or Laissez-fair leadership
Q.148 . ______emphasised that leadership effectiveness is

strongly influenced by the follower’s style and expectation.
(a) Victor H. Vroom
(b) Leland D. Benne
(c) Renald Lippet
Q.149 . Achievement theory is related to

(a) McClelland
(b) Herzberg
(c) Alderfer
Q.150 Decision-Making necessitates the location and control of
strategic factors. This view is expressed by
(a) Fayol
(b) Barnard
(c) Linkert
(d) Simon
Q.151 ‘Group goal’ is related to

(a) Cartwright and Zander
(b) Ohio study
(c) Michigan studies
Q.152 Decision making has been defined as the selection of one

behaviour alternative from two or more possible alternatives by
(a) Herbert A. Simon
(b) Terry
(c) W. Brooke Groves
(d) Hodge and Johnson
Q.153 Which one of the following is not a management technique?

(a) PERT
(b) CPM
(c) MIS
(d) Operations Research
Q.154 Which one of the following is not a type of grapevine?
(a) Single strand chain
(b) Gossip chain
(c) Cluster chain
Q.155 Task orientation’ is associated with

(a) Tannenbaum and Schimdt
(b) Cartwright and Zander
(c) Michigan Studies
Q.156 . In ______ leadership the leader shows a greater concern for

his people than for high production.
(a) Autocratic
(b) Democratic
(c) Laissez-faire
Q.157 _______stressed that there is relationship between the

nature of the job and the most desirable leadership style or
maximum leadership effectiveness.
(a) Victor H. Vroom
(b) F.E. Fiedler
(c) D. Benne
(d) L.P. Bradford
Q.158 The ‘Balance Principle’ is related to
(a) Donald Smithburg
(b) Victor Thomspon
(c) Henry Fayol
(d) Barnard & Simon
Q.159 Who developed the path goal model of leadership

behaviour?
(a) L.P. Bradford
(b) R. J. House
(c) F. E. Fiedler
(d) R. Likert
Q.160 McClelland mentioned ______important human needs.

(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
Q.161 Consider the following ‘hierarchy of needs’ :

1. safety needs
2. esteem needs
3. social needs
4. self-actualization needs
5. physiological needs
According to Maslow, their correct sequence is
(a) 3, 4, 2, 5, 1
(b) 5, 1, 3, 2, 4
(c) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3
(d) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
Q.162 Two factor theory is related to

(a) Maslow
(b) Herzberg
(c) McClelland
Q.163 According to McClelland, the ______ reflects, desire to

interact socially with people
(a) Need for Power
(b) Need for Affiliation
(c) Need for Achievement
(d) Need of the above
Q.164 Match the following

List I (Devised Term)
A) Decision-making mechanism
B) Balance-Principle
C) Institutional identity
D) Right man for the Right Job
List II (Thinker)
1) Chester Barnard
2) Selznick
3) Mary Parker Follett
4) F.W. Taylor
5) Herbert Simon
Codes :
ABCD
(a) 5 1 2 4
(b) 3 2 4 5
(c) 4 5 2 1
(d) 4 5 1 3
Q.165 . Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding

Management Thoughts?
1. The term POSDCoRB was coined jointly by Luther Gulick and
Lyndall Urwick.
2. The acronym POCCC means Planning, Organizing, Commanding,
Coordinating and Controlling.
3. Scientific Management thinkers consider Management as an art.
Select correct code.
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
e) 3 only
Q.166 Identify correct statements regarding Path-Goal theory of
leadership.
1. The Path Goal Theory first appeared in leadership literature in
1970s in the work of Martin Evans.
2. It emphasizes the relationship between leader’s style and specifi c
situational variables.
3. It attempts to explain the impact of behavior of leader on
subordinate satisfaction, motivation and performance.
Select correct code.
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
e) 3 only
Q.167 Tick out the correct statements about concept of
Management?
1. Efficiency refers to completion of task on time and is concerned
with the achievement of end result.
2. Effectiveness refers to completion of task correctly with minimum
cost with no wastage of resources and is concerned with cost benefit
analysis utilising minimum resources and getting maximum benefit.
3. Management is limited to Business or Corporate organisations
Only
4. Management makes sure that work is accomplished effectively
and efficiently.
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 2 and 3
c) Only 1 and 3
d) Only 1, 2 and 4
e) Only 4
Q.168 Consider the following functions of management and

arrange it in the correct logical order?
1. Directing 2. Organising 3. Controlling 4. Planning 5. Staffing
a) 12345
b) 42153
c) 42513
d) 42315
e) 34125
Q.169 According to Hersey and Blanchard, low relationship/low tas

behaviour is called
(a) Participating
(b) Delegating
(c) Telling
Q.170 According to Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory, the highest

level needs are
(a) Esteem
(b) Self-actualisation
(c) Belongingness, social and lover
Q.171 Which of the following principles is a useful guide for

establishing good communication?
(a) Principle of Feedback
(b) Principle of Attention
(c) Principle of Integrity
(d) All of the above
Q.172 Which of the following are the assumptions in Theory ‘X’?

1. Human beings have an inherent dislike of work.
2. Because of human dislike of work, people must be punished.
3. Human beings are committed to objectives.
4. Human beings avoid responsibility.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.173 Which one of the following theories views leadership as a

manipulative function?
(a) Human Relation Theory
(b) Scientific Management Theory
(c) Classical Theory
(d) Decision-Making Theory
Q.174 Match the following
List I (Persons)
A) William Reddin
B) Hersey and Blanchard
C) Victor Vroom and Philip Yetton
D) Martian Evons and Robert House
List II (Associated with)
1) Life-cycle approach to leadership
2) Path-goal Theory of leadership effectiveness
3) Decision-participation model of leadership
4) Continuum of leadership styles
Codes :
ABCD
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 3 2 1 4
Q.175 According to Abraham Maslow, one should try to understand

behaviour in administration through
(a) Group activity
(b) Psycho analysis
(c) Human relations
(d) Mass behaviour
Q.176 . Match the following:
List - I
A. Hygiene factors and motivators
B. The theory inclusive of major content and process theories
C. Combination American Theory and Japanese Theory
D. Comparing his job inputs and outputs with those of others
List - II
1. Adam’s Equity Theory
2. Herzber’s Two-Factor Theory
3. Ouchi’s Theory Z
4. The Porter-Lawler Model
ABCD
a) 3 1 4 2
b) 4 3 1 2
c) 2 4 3 1
d) 4 1 2 3
Q.177 . Which is the third order need in Maslow’s Need Hierachy?

a) Self-actualisation needs
b) Physiological needs
c) Social needs
d) Safety needs
Q.178 Which one theory of motivation assumes that behaviour is

the function of its consequences?
a) Vroom’s Expectancy Theory
b) Goal Setting Theory
c) Carrot and Stick Approach
d) Reinforcement Theory
Q.179 Choose the motivation theory that explains work

motivation mathematically.
a) Porter-Lawler Model
b) Vroom’s Expectancy Theory
c) The X and Theory Y
d) Ouchi’s Theory Z
Q.180 . Which one theory of motivation assumes that behaviour is

the function of its consequences?
a) Vroom’s Expectancy Theory
b) Goal Setting Theory
c) Carrot and Stick Approach
d) Reinforcement Theory
Q.181 The theory that proposes rewards for desirable behaviour and
punishment for undesirable behaviour is labelled as
a) The Human Relations Approach
b) Carrot and Stick Approach toMotivation
c) Cognitive Evaluation Theory
d) Goal Setting Theory
Q.182 . Which one of the statements is not true?
a) Motivation is one of the techniques of directing.
b) Motivation has been derived from Latin word ‘movere’
c) Motivation is an external process.
d) Motivation means a process of stimulating people to do action to
accomplish the desired goals.
Q.183 . Which is not included in factors affecting employees’

morale?
a) Organisation-related factors
b) Superior-related factors
c) Subordinate-related factors
d) External environment-related factors
Q.184 In relation to forms of morale, find out the odd one.

a) Favourableness of attitudes
b) Level of enthusiasm
c) Willingness to work and cooperate
d) Strong desire for promotion
Q.185 In charismatic leadership, what does term ‘charisma’

refer to?
a) Leader’s authority
b) Leader’s position and status
c) Leader’s charm, attraction, or impression
d) Leader’s connection power
Q.186 Match the following:
List - I
A. Motivation and morale
B. A technique to directing that makes people to work
C. A felt deficiency (or need)
D. The objects that satisfy human needs
List - II
1. Motive
2. Incentives
3. Motivation
4. Closely related terms
ABCD
a) 3 1 4 2
b) 4 3 1 2
c) 2 4 3 1
d) 4 1 2 3
Q.187 Match the following:

List - I
A. A strong non-financial incentive for employee
motivation
B. Making the job interesting and challenging
C. Adding more tasks in the job the employee performs
D. Altering or replacing the job assignment temporarily
List - II
1. Job Enlargement
2. Job Satisfaction
3. Job Rotation
4. Job Enrichment
ABCD
a) 3 1 4 2
b) 1 2 4 3
c) 2 4 1 3
d) 4 1 2 3
Q.188 List I
A) Decision-making mechanism
B) Balance-Principle
C) Institutional Identity
D) Right man for the Right Job
List II (Thinker)
1. Chester Barnard
2. Selznick
3. Mary Parker Follett
4. F.W. Taylor
5. Herbert Simon
ABCD
a) 5 1 2 4
b) 3 2 4 5
c) 4 5 2 1
d) 4 5 1 3
Q.189 List - I
A. Programmed decisions and uprogrammed decisions
B. Six steps in a systematic planning
C. Theory X, Y
D. Hierarchy of Needs
List - II
1. Henry Fayol
2. Herbert Simon
3. Abraham Maslow
4. Mc Gregor
ABCD
a) 3 4 1 2
b) 2 1 4 3
c) 2 1 4 5
d) 5 2 3 4
Q.190 List - I
A. Drucker
B. March
C. Simon
D. Barnard
List - II
1. Organisational and Personal decisions
2. Generic and unique decisions
3. Gresham’s Law of Planning
4. Programmed and non-programmed decisions
ABCD
a) 4 3 1 2
b) 2 3 4 1
c) 2 1 3 4
d) 4 2 1 3
Q.191 Which one of the following theories views leadership as a

manipulative function?
a) Human Relation Theory
d) Scientific Management Theory
c) Classical Theory
d) Decision-Making Theory
Q.192 . In accordance with the managerial grid developed by

Robert Blake and Jane Mouton, which one of the following implies
the leadership style that has a high degree of concern for people
and a low degree of concern for production?
a) Impoverished management
b) Country club management
c) Team management
d) Middle of the road management
Q.193 Who has analysed leadership in terms of circular response?
a) C.I. Barnerd
b) Mooney
c) M.P. Follett
d) Millet
Q.194 . Which of the following factors are labelled as job

dissatisfies by F. Herzberg?
1. Salary
2. Supervision
3. Responsibility
4. Work itself
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 and 4
Q.195 Which among the following is a Transformational Leadership

theory?
a) Path Goal theory
b) Fiedler’s theory
c) Burns leadership theory
d) Cognitive Resource Theory
e) None of the above
Q. 196. Identify from the following the correct pairs of authors with
their books:
1. Henry Fayol- Human Organization
2. Rensis Likert- Cultural and Economic Capital
3. Max Weber- Theory of Social Economic Organization
a) None of the above
b) 1, 2 only
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3 only
e) 1, 3 only
Q. 197 Who defines leadership as the ability to secure desirable
actions from a group of followers voluntarily without the use of
coercion?
(a) Peter Drucker
(b) Stogdill
(c) Keith Davis
Q.198 Which of the following leaders possessed the traits of ‘The

Great Man Approach Theory of Leadership’?
1. Napoleon
2. Churchill
3. Mao
4. Gandhiji
5. Narendra Modi
a) Only 1, 2 and 3
b) Only 1, 3 and 4
c) Only 2, 3 and 4
d) Only 1, 2, 3 and 4
e) All
Q. 199 Match List - 1 (Theory of Motivation) with List - II (Premise)

and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List - I
A. Theory X
B. Theory Y
C. Two Factor Theory of F. Herzberg
List - II
1. Self-direction and self-control
2. Motivation is a product of
anticipated worth of a goal and
chances of achieving the goal.
3. Reliance of external control of
human behaviour
4. Job enrichment instead of job
enlargement as a motivation
strategy.
ABC
a) 2 1 4
b) 3 4 1
c) 2 4 1
d) 3 1 4
Q. 200 Which of the following factors are labelled as job dissatisfies
by F. Herzberg?
1. Salary
2. Supervision
3. Responsibility
4. Work itself
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below :
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3 d) 3 and 4
Q.201 The word ‘Ethics’ is derived from Greek word _____

a) Ethios
b) Ethikos
c) Ethoes
d) None of these
Q.202 Ethics is a____

a) Pure science
b) Normative Science
c) Inexact Science
d) None of these
Q.203 Ethics means _______

a) Character
b) Manner
c) Custom
d) All of these
Q.204 Ethics is a ______

a) Social science
b) Science of conduct
c) Normative Science
d) All of these
Q.205 The word ‘moral’ is derived from the Latin word ……….
a) Moralis
b) Morilitic
c) Monatic
d) None of these
Q.206 Which among the following dichotomies is used in a

discourse on ethics?
1. Empirical – Normative
2. Descriptive – Prescriptive
3. Fact – Value
4. Profit - Loss
Which of the following is correct?
a) 1 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4
Q.207 How does the individual come to be able to make moral

decisions?
1) By understanding his motives
2) By understanding the consequences of his actions
3) By being deterred and frightened of the penalties incurred on him
for his action
4) By understanding the means adopted to execute action
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1,3 and 4
c) 1,2,3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4
Q.208 Which of the following assumption about moral behavior is

reasonably justified?
1) Most people will behave morally if the socialization process has
successfully inculcated the right values
2) Some people will behave more morally than others even if they
have been under the same socialization process
3) Social situations provide the best stimulus to moral action or
inaction; i.e., social pressure determines moral action/inaction.
4) Socialisation has no role in developing moral values
a) 1 and 4
b) 1,2 and 3
c) 1,2,3 and 4
d) 2 and 3
Q.209Which of the following is a correct combination

Type of Ethic Application
1) Micro Ethics A) Applies to microchips and software technologies
2) Meta Ethics B) Deals with abstract philosophical questions
pertaining Ethics
3) Macro Ethics C) Applies to society as a whole
4) Normative Ethics D) Applies to religious order
a) 1 – A; 2 – B; 3 – C; 4 – D
b) 2 - B ; 3 – C
c) 2 – B only
d) 2 – B; 3 – C and 4 - D
Q.210 X is a director of a Nationalized Bank in India; the bank has

opened up few posts for recruitment in one of their branches
through lateral entry. X recommends the name of his nephew to
the selection board, the selection board members all feel under
pressure and influence of X because of his status in the company.
What of the following ethical issues pertain to X’s behavior in the
matter.
a) Conflict of Interest
b) Nepotism
c) Embezzlement
d) Conflict of Competence
Q. 211 Which among the following are correct descriptions for
“business ethics”
1) Business ethics is both normative and descriptive
2) Business ethics describes and evaluates individual and corporate
behavior and practices that managers and corporations ought and
ought not to engage in
3) Business ethics evaluates role of government, law and public
policy in affecting business
4) Business ethics is a meta ethic exercise
Which of the following are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1,2 and 3
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
Q. 212 Which of the following is true about sexual harassment at

workplace as an ethical issue?
1. Harassment is a form of discrimination
2. Harassment is an ethical issue because it unfairly focuses job
advancement or retention on a factor other than the ability to do a
job
3. Workplaces in India must under law prepare guidelines to deal
with cases of sexual harassment
4. Sexual Harassment is a political issue
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 4
d) 2 and 3
Q. 213 What among the following question must a moral agent

keep in mind while determining corporate social responsibility?
1) Is this activity necessary in order to conduct business?
2) Is it necessary to redress harms caused by the company?
3) Is the activity within the scope of the firm’s expertise?
4) Can such an activity be carried out without interfering with the
social fabric, or community, or national security?
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) 2,3 and 4
d) 3 and 4
Q.214 What among the following are reasonable excuses for an

amoral or immoral act?
1) Undue Emotional Pressure
2) Ignorance of facts and consequences
3) Not enough time to make a decision
4) Lack of moral training and insight
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2 and 3
Q.215 Which of the following is a correct combination?

Type of Ethics Example
1) Business Ethics A)Drafting a policy on Corporate Social
Responsibility
2) Meta Ethics B)Writing a thesis on the nature of perception
in moral judgments
3) Professional Ethics C)Drafting a white paper on the ethical
conduct of Managers in Banks
4) Applied Ethics D)Conceiving a formula to deal with ethical
implications of road accidents
a) 1 –A; 2 –B; 3 –C; 4 –D
b) 1 –B; 2 – C; 3 –A; 4 –D
c) 1 –A and 3 –C
d) 2 –C; 3 –B and 4 –D
Q.216Which of the following statements is most appropriate to
describe deontological ethics?
a) The central idea is that the right or wrong consideration is what
makes the act right or wrong, other things being equal
b) The central idea is that an adherence to the codes prescribed
under the duty one is employed in makes for the right action
c) The central idea is that right and wrong are relative to time and
circumstance
d) The central idea is that right and wrong are determined by
humans according to their subjective conscience.
Q.217 Which the following is true about environmental ethics?
1) Environmental ethics is a branch of applied ethics
2) Environmental ethics is most concerned with the moral grounds
with the preservation and restoration of the environment
3) It has evolved more as a series of debates concerning meta ethics
rather than a straight forward application of normative ethics
4) The principle question asked is – how can the value of nature be
best described such that it is directly morally considerable in and of
itself
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 2 and 3
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 2 and 4
Q.218 Which of the following statements are true about ‘Values’

1) People are always aware of all their values
2) Values are the links between needs and actions
3) Moral values are the most fundamental form of values
4) Values are the basis for emotions
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2,3 and 4
c) 2 and 4
d) 1,2,3 and 4
Q.219 Identify the school of Ethics under which whistle blowing can
be justified by the following proposition - “when the balance of
good over evil is better for all affected parties than if the whistle
was not blown.”
a) Deontological
b) Ethical Realism
c) Utilitarianism
d) Ethical Relativism
Q.220 Which among the following issues falls under the category of
micro ethics?
1) Health and Safety
2) Product Liability
3) Bribes and Gifts
4) Sustainable Development
a) 1. 2 and 4
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.221 Which among the following are the entities that check and
control conflict of interest in a Govt Department?
1) Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
2) Judiciary
3) Commissions of Inquiry
4) Ministry of Finance
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1,2, 3 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1 and 3
Q.222 Consider the following statement, and mark the correct one
which is borrowed from NSPE code of ethics, about IPR
a) “Engineers shall not reveal facts, data or information obtained in
a professional capacity without the prior consent of the client or
employer except as authorized and required by law or this Code”
b) “Engineers shall be free to reveal facts, data or information
obtained in a professional capacity without the prior consent of the
client or employer except as prohibited by law or this Code”
c) “Engineers shall not obtain facts, data or information in a
professional capacity without the prior consent of the client or
employer except as authorized and required by law or this Code”
d) “Engineers shall not gain monetary benefits from facts, data or
information obtained in a professional capacity without the prior
consent of the client or employer except as authorized and required
by law or this Code”
Q.223 Which among the following are types of

consequentialist/utilitarian ethics?
1. Act consequentialism
2. Rule consequentialism
3. Abstract consequentialism
4. Impact consequentialism
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1 and 2
c) 1,2 and 3
d) 2 and 4
Q.224 What are the possible ethical issues that can arise in
‘Design’?
1. Sustainability of the design
2. Aesthetic of the design
3. Affordability of the design
4. Utility of the design
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 4
d) 1 and 3
Q.225 Which of the following is correct combination?

1) Indian Penal Code A) Legal
2) National Society of Professional Engineers Code B) Administrative
3) ICC Rules of Cricket C) Ethical
4) Constitution of India D) Social and Political
a) 1 –A; 2 –B; 3 –C; 4 –D
b) 1 –A; 2 –C; 3 –B; 4 –D
c) 1 – D; 2 –C; 3 –A; 4 –B
d) 1 –C; 2 –A; 3 –B; 4 –D
Q.226 Which among the following is an appropriate understanding

of what corporate responsibility means?
a) Companies should be held accountable for social effects of their
actions
b) Companies should be held accountable for political effects of their
actions
c) Companies should be held accountable for economic effects of
their actions
d) All of the above
Q.227 Why are stakeholders important to a company?

1) Because a company could not exist or achieve profits without
them
2) Because stakeholders are individuals or groups of individuals –
human beings with rights and interest.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 and 2
Q.228 A ______ is any individual or group who benefits from or is
harmed by, or whose rights are affected (violated, restricted or
ignored) by an organization’s action.” What is the most appropriate
insertion in the blank
a) Victim
b) Stakeholder
c) Culprit
d) Shareholder
Q.229 ‘Role morality’ is often described as the moral obligations

that arise out of the role that an individual assumes within an
organization, consider the following statements
1) The moral obligations of an individual ought to be defined by and
limited to the role that individual assumes in an organization
2) Role morality has an important but limited contribution to make in
business ethics
3) Role responsibilities are not enough to describe the scope and
extent of managerial responsibilities
4) Role morality is the paramount safeguard that ensures business
ethics
Which of the following is correct with regards to role morality in
business ethics
a) 1 and 4
b) 2 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4
Q.230 Which of the following statements are correct when
speaking about business ethics?
1) Open and free competition without deception and fraud
2) Managers have fiduciary duties towards owners and shareholders
3) Corporations ought not to be disturbed or interfered by outside
agencies like government, civil society etc
4) Law and common morality should guide the actions of corporation
in a market place
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
Q.231 Which of the following is an example of a trade mark?

a) “Pepsi”
b) “Ye Dil maange More”
c) A lyrical advertising composition
d) All of the above
Q.232 “the view that there is no general moral principles and that
the moral disputes therefore cannot be resolved” – is a description
of which of the following schools of ethics?
a) Ethical nihilism
b) Ethical skepticism
c) Ethical relativism
d) Ethical transcendence
Q.233 Which among the following are most likely to be virtues of

utilitarianism?
1) Moderation
2) Passion
3) Equality
4) Civil Rights
a) 1 and 4
b) 1 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4
Q.234 Which of the following descriptions is correct about the

ethical theory of consequentialism?
a) The theory of consequentialism is an evaluation of an ideal type -
the way world ought to be
b) The theory of consequentialism is an evaluation of outcomes or
states – the way world might be
c) The theory of consequentialism is an evaluation of motives of the
person acting
d) The theory of consequentialism is an evaluation of the means that
a person acts through
Q.235 Which of the following descriptions best fit the ideal of
cooperation
1. People cooperate when and as long as their self - interest aligns
with the interests of the group
2. People cooperate when they sacrifice their self – interests
completely for the well - being of others in the group
3. People cooperate when they forgo the pursuit of their own
independent interests and follow rules or roles assigned to them by
society
4. In cooperation the collective following of rules and roles assigned
by a group promotes everyone’s interests better than would have
been done by everyone pursuing their own interests independently.
a) 1 and 4
b) 2 and 4
c) 3 and 4
d) Only 4
Q.236 Which among the following statements fits into a

description of meta ethics?
a) X works for his ‘personal benefit’
b) X contemplates on the idea of ‘personal benefit’
c) X forms community where each individual works for his ‘personal
benefit’
d) X extends the doctrine of ‘personal benefit’ to all living organisms
on the planet
Q.237 You are appointed as the Production Manager of an oil
corporation, since the industry that you work for has a lot of
potential for hazard to the environment and other species, you
have a mandate to think about these issues carefully and come up
with a draft policy to deal with such issues. In such a scenario you
contemplate on the nature of the relationship between man and
other species around him, and try to judge how and why is man
responsible towards sustaining other species. What of the following
types of ethics are you engaging in this process?
a) Meta Ethics
b) Virtue Ethics
c) Environmental Ethics
d) Deontological Ethics
Q.238 Which of the following are included as major normative

ethical theories?
1) Contractualism
2) Consequentialism
3) Deontology
4) Virtue Theory
a) 1,2 and 4
b) 1,2 and 3
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
Q.239 What is a more appropriate method to be employed whilst
formulating a ‘code of ethics’ for engineering practices
1. To draw broad and general principles at the start and judge each
case by that principle
2. To begin with particular cases
3. To look for relevant paradigm cases for appropriate and
inappropriate points that can serve as a reference point for more
complicated cases
4. To borrow codes from other professional ethics like medicine and
law Which of the following set is correct?
a) 1,2,3 and 4
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 and 4
Q.240 Which of the following is the opposite of normative ethics?

a) Micro Ethics
b) Beta Ethics
c) Meta Ethics
d) Virtue Ethics
Q.241 The principle of deontological ethics has been most

succinctly laid down by Immanuelle Kant in his categorical
imperative – which states “ Act only in accordance with that maxim
through which you can at the same time will that it becomes a
universal law”- under what category of the following methods does
this lie?
a) Bottom Up model
b) Top Down model
c) Internal ethics model
d) External ethics model
Q.242 ) What are the possible ethical dilemmas that a whistle

blower can be face?
1) Public Interests versus Private interests
2) Citizenship versus Employment
3) Private Benefit versus Employer’s Benefit
4) Short term view versus the long term view
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 1,2 and 3
d) 1 and 4
Q.243 Which of the following descriptions best describes the
principle concerning professional ethics?
a) Professional duties must be judged by ethical standards
independent of time, place and circumstance
b) Judging professional duties always involves reciprocal
adjustment between ends and means
c) Professional duties must by nature be strictly deontological, i.e –
the ends must not come at the cost of the means
d) Professional duties must be judged only by what they achieve in
line with the ends prescribed by the ideals of business
Q.244 X is a director at a PSU in India, he sits on the interview panel
that is scheduled to interview B who is his nephew, who has
qualified the written examination for a job at that PSU – which of
the following ethical issues apply to X?
a) Nepotism
b) Conflict of Interest
c) Corruption
d) Embezzlement
Q.245 What values do a ‘code of ethics’ command in a court of

law?
1) Code of ethics do not by themselves have the force of law
2) court of laws are bound by code of ethics
3) the code of ethics can provide upon its own power and legality
4) court of law can use the code of ethics in a non-authoritative
manner to reason a judgment, by the aid of its principles
Which one is correct?
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4
Q.246 ) Which of the following statements best explains the reason

for engineering ethics being a branch of applied ethics?
1. The aim of engineering ethics is to shed light on ethical concerns
related to engineering practice
2. It is applied in the sense that ethical considerations are directed to
practice rather than theory
3. The first task of engineering ethics is to identify the basic concern
that arise prior to practice
4. To think on the questions of engineering ethics one necessarily
needs a technical engineering knowledge.
a) 1 and 4
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 4
Q.247 As an engineer you are stuck in an ethical dilemma about the

execution of a certain task that you find morally contestable. You
refer to a well-known ‘code of ethics’ and other regulations but
none of them specifically prohibit that certain course of action
(which is in contestation). Under what category does the ethical
dilemma fall, when the ‘code of ethics’ are not able to solve it?
a) Professional Ethics
b) Personal Ethics
c) Societal Ethics
d) Business Ethics
Q.248 Which of the following elements (as a fundamental criterion)

must always be in the mind of Engineer while performing his duties
vis a vis Ethics
1. Public Safety
2. Economy
3. Health
4. Welfare
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4
Q.249 What are the elements necessary for an Institution to

formulate a state of the art ‘code of ethics’
1. a body of public interest/relevance
2. expert scholarship
3. enormous funding
4. professional support
a) 2 and 4
b) 2,3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.250 Which of the following statements is the most correct

description of the relationship between humans and technology?
a) Technology “impacts” upon human actions and human beings
b) Human beings “act on, make, use” technology
c) Technology provides apparatus for human action
d) Technology hijacks human autonomy
Q.251 Which of the following are the functions of a code of ethics?

1) It can express a shared commitment on the part of a professional
society’s members to strive to satisfy certain ethical standards and
principles.
2) It can help foster an environment in which ethical behavior is the
norm
3) It can serve as a guide or reminder in specific situations
4) A code can be a valuable academic and educational legacy for an
organization.
a) 1 and 3
b) 1,2 and 3
c) 1,2,3 and 4
d) 1 and 2
Q.252 Which of the following actions can be termed as breach of

‘Professional Ethics’
1) A physician who refers patients to a specialist in return for
monetary favours
2) A scientist who exaggerates the importance of his discoveries to
encourage investors in his biotech company
3) A lawyer who lies to the Judge
4) The reporter who spreads fake news
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4
Q.253 What among the following elements takes the most direct
and immediate set back in a case of conflict of interest by a public
official?
a) The reputation of the officer
b) The trust that the public holds in the office
c) The legitimacy of the office
d) The constitution of India
Q.254 Which of the following principles is the essential principle of

utilitarian school of ethics?
a) Greatest Health Principle
b) Greatest Happiness Principle
c) Greatest Wealth Principle
d) Greatest Respect Principle.
Q.255 What among the following is a sub - specie of “normative

ethics”
1) War Ethics
2) Applied ethics
3) Virtue ethics
4) Meta ethics
a) 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q,256 Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of
“practice” vis a vis professional ethics?
a) “practice” is a cooperative arrangement to pursue the goods that
are internal to a structured communal life
b) “practice” is an endeavor to achieve excellence by incessant
repetition
c) “practice” is the application of knowledge into real time problems
d) “practice” is symbolic of the humble admission that humans can
never know and learn enough
Q.257 Which of the following statements are true about ‘Morale’

1) It is a form of ‘attitude’
2) It is reflected in positive feelings about the work group
3) It instills confidence that difficult goals can be achieved easily
4) It is the knowledge of the distinction between right and wrong
action
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1,2,3 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4
Q.258 Which of the following statements is most appropriate to

describe deontological ethics?
a) The central idea is that the right or wrong consideration is what
makes the act right or wrong, other things being equal
b) The central idea is that an adherence to the codes prescribed
under the duty one is employed in makes for the right action
c) The central idea is that right and wrong are relative to time and
circumstance
d) The central idea is that right and wrong are determined by
humans according to their subjective conscience
Q.259 Which of the following are true

1) Ethical dilemmas arise when it is thought that serious good and
bad are bound together in the same activity
2) Ethics uses the instrument of coercion to oblige its subjects
3) Ethical behavior is dependent on the conditions and circumstances
under which an action/event takes place
4) Codes of Conduct form a part of ethical training
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 1,2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4
Q.260 Which among the following dichotomies is used in a

discourse on ethics?
1. Empirical – Normative
2. Descriptive – Prescriptive
3. Fact – Value
4. Profit - Loss
a) 1 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4
Q.261 Factor that affects ethical and unethical behaviour

a) Ethical dilemma
b) Diversity
c) Teamwork
d) Open communication
e) none of these
Q.262 the following is an alternative to moral principles

a) Virtue Ethics
b) Logic Ethics
c) Real Ethics
d) A and C
Q.263 Values and ethics shape the-
(a) Corporate unity
(b) Corporate discipline
(c) Corporate culture
(d) Corporate differences
Q.264 The moral principles, standards of behaviour, or set of values

that guide a person’s actions in the workplace is called-
(a) Office place ethics
(b) factory place ethics
(c) behavioural ethics
(d) work place ethics
Q.265 Which of the following factors encourage good ethics in the
workplace?
(a) Transparency
(b) fair treatment to the employees of all levels
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) bribe
Q.266 What is meant by the phrase CSR?

a) Corporate Social Responsibility
b) Company Social Responsibility
c)Corporate Society Responsibility
d)Company Society Responsibility
Q.267 What is meant by the phrase teleological ethics?

a) Is used to judge is an action is right, fair and honest.
b) An action can only be judged by its consequences.
c) Developing the individual personal characteristics.
d) The Key purpose of ethics is to increase freedom
Q. 268 Which of the following is a basic definition of ethics?

a) moral guidelines for behaviour
b) rules for acknowledging the spirit of the law
c) rules or principles that define right and wrong conduct
d) principles for legal and moral development
Q.269 Which of the following is associated with the classical view of
social responsibility?
a) economist Robert Reich
b) concern for social welfare
c) stockholder financial return
d) voluntary activities
Q. 270 The approach to formal corporate ethics initiatives focuses

on meeting required behaviour norms or obeying the letter of the
law
a) Rules
b) Compliance
c) Principles
d) Values
Q. 271 The __________ approach to formal corporate ethics
initiatives is proactive and inspirational.
a) Rules
b) Compliance
c) Principles
d) Values
Q.272 Where an organization takes into account the effect its

strategic decisions have on society, this is known as:
a) Corporate governance
b) Business policy
c) Business ethics
d) Corporate social responsibility
Q.273. .Managerial ethics can be characterised by all of the
following levels except
a) immoral management
b) amoral management
c) demoral management
d) moral management
Q.274 .In a ______________ organization, decision making is

delegated as far down the chain of command as possible.
a) Decentralized
b) Creative
c) Flexible
d) Centralized
Q.275 .______________ are standards of behaviour that groups

expect of their members.
a) Codes of conduct.
b) Group values.
c) Group norms.
d) Organizational norms
Q.276 Codes of conduct and codes of ethics

a) are formal statements that describe what an organization
expects of its employees.
b) become necessary only after a company has been in legal trouble.
c) are designed for top executives and managers, not regular
employees.
d) rarely become an effective component of the ethics and
compliance program.
Q. 277 Which moral philosophy seeks the greatest good for the
greatest number of people?
a) Consequentialism
b) Utilitarianism
c) Egoism
d) Ethical formalism
Q.278 A ________ is a problem, situation, or opportunity requiring

an individual, group, or organization to choose among several
actions that must be evaluated as right or wrong.
a) Crisis
b) ethical issue
c) indictment
d) fraud
Q.279 The ________ dimension of social responsibility refers to a

business's societal contribution of
time, money, and other resources.
a) Ethical
b) Philanthropic
c) Volunteerism
d) Strategic
Q.280 The four types of social responsibility include:
a) legal, philanthropic, economic, and ethical
b) ethical, moral, social, and economic
c) philanthropic, justice, economic, and ethical
d) legal, moral, ethical, and economic
Q.281 Which legislation relates to the concept of business ethics?

a) Freedom of Information Act
b) Food Act
c) Building regulations
d) All of these
Q.282 What is Ethics to do with?

a) The wider community
b) Business
c) Right and wrong
d) Nothing
Q.283 .Which of the following does the term Corporate Social

Responsibility relate to?
a) Ethical conduct
b) Environmental practice
c) Community investment
d) All of the above
Q.284 What is green washing?
a) Transforming products to be more ethical.
b) Making a product appear more ethical that it really is.
c) Converting the company to green production methods.
d) Convincing customers to buy ethically.
Q.285 What is the enlightened self-interest model of CSR?

a) That it is in an organization's own best interest to put itself first
rather than its ethics.
b) That it is in an organization's best interest to consider what a
shareholder would want.
c) That it is in an organization's own best interest to act in an
ethical way.
d) That it is in an organization's own best interest to follow the
legislation and abide by the law.
Q. 286 What is meant by the phrase 'teleological ethics'?

a) Is used to judge is an action is right, fair and honest.
b) An action can only be judged by its consequences
c) Developing the individual personal characteristics
d) The key purpose of ethics is to increase freedom.
Q. 287 What is meant by the phrase CSR?

a) Corporate Social Responsibility
b) Company Social Responsibility
c) Corporate Society Responsibility
d) Company Society Responsibility
Q. 288 A whistle-blower:
a. doesn’t have to be a past or present member of the organization.
b. doesn’t have to report activity that is illegal, immoral, or harmful.
c. is any employer who spreads gossip.
d. far from being disloyal, may be acting in the best interest of the
organization.
Q. 289 One classic example of whistle-blowing is the:

a. Ford Pinto case.
b. Lincoln case.
c. Toyota case.
d. none of the above.
Q. 290 What is the name of the process in which an employee

informs another responsible employee in the company about
potentially unethical behavior?
a. Whistle-blowing
b. Purging and releasing
c. Identification
d, Information transfer
Q. 291 Corporate governance can be defined as:
a. the system used by firms to control the actions of their
employees.
b. the election process used to vote in a new Board of Director.
c. the corporate compliance system used by the firm.
d. the system used by firms to identify who the critical stakeholders
are for the firm.
Q. 292 Which board of directors committee is responsible for the

guidelines on how the board of directors should operate.
a. Operating
b. Corporate governance
c. Corporate compliance
d. Guiding
Q. 293 Triple Bottom Line reporting refers to:

a. using a low, medium and high estimates for profitability forecasts.
b. measuring the impact of the firm on stockholders, customers and
employees.
c. measuring the social, environmental, and financial performance
of the firm.
d. measuring the impact of local, state, and federal governments on
the firm.
Q. 294 The concept of Corporate Social Responsibility originated in

which time period?
a. 1920’s and 1930’s
b. 19th Century
c. 1980’s and 1990’s
d. 1960’s and 1970’s
Q. 295 What is keiretsu

a) Pension fund
b) Corporate group
c) Stock exchange
d) Futures Market
Q. 296 which one is the dimension(approach) of corporate social

responsibility?
a) Corporate philanthropy
b) Stake holders priorities and sustainable development
c) Ethical business
d) All of the above
Q. 297 Which of the following is not one of the underlying

principles of the corporate governance combined code of practice?
a) Accountability
b) Openness
c) Acceptability
d) Integrity
Q. 298 Right to Information Act 2005 came into force on

A. 1 January 2006
B. 1 August 2005
C. 12 October 2005
D. 15 December 2005
Q. 299 The tenure of Chief Information Commissioner is __

A. 3 Years
B. 5 Years
C.4 Years
D.6 Years
Q. 300 What is the object of the Right to Information Act?

A. To empower the citizens
B. To promote transparency
C. To Promote accountability
D. All of the above
Q. 301 What is the fee for getting information under the Right to
Information Act 2005?
A. 5 rs
B. 10 rs
C. 15 rs
D. 20 rs
Q. 302 How many years old information can be asked under the
Right to Information Act 2005?
A. 15 Years old
B. 25 years old
C.30 years old
D.20 years old
Q. 303 What is the limit to get the information under the Right to
Information Act 2005?
A. 15 Days
B. 25 Days
C.30 Days
D.20 Days
Q. 304 What is the limit to get the information in case the

information sought pertains to the life and liberty of a person
under the Right to Information Act 2005?
A. 5 Days
B. 48 Hours
C. 3 Days
D. 2 Days
Q. 305 If information sought has been supplied by third party or is

treated as confidential by that third party, the third party must be
given a representation before the PIO in reply to the notice issued
to him within ------ days from the date of receipt of such notice.
(a) 5 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 7 days
Q. 306 If the interests of a third party are involved in information
sought for, the maximum time limit to get the information will be
(a) 30 days
(b) 40 days
(c) 45 days
(d) 60 days
Q. 307 The officer designated by the public authorities in all

administrative units or offices under it to provide information to
the citizens requesting for information under the Act is know as
(a) Appellate Authority
(b) Chief Information Commissioner (CIC)
(c) Public Information Officer (PIO)
(d) Assistant Public Information Officer
Q. 308 Which of the following is not come under the definition of

'information' under RTI Act 2005?
(a) Log books
(b) File notings
(c) Data material held in any electronic form
(d) Circulars
Q. 309 For Socrates, an unexamined life is a tragedy because it

results in grievous harm to _____.
a. the state
b. the justice system
c. the body
d. the soul
Q. 310 For Socrates, the soul is harmed by lack of _____.

a. knowledge
b. wealth
c. community
d. courage
Q. 311 A question-and-answer dialogue in which propositions are

methodically scrutinized to uncover the truth is known as _____.
a. an argument
b. the Socratic method
c. the Socratic jest
d. a debate
Q. 312 According to Socrates, a clear sign that a person has _____ is
her exclusive pursuit of social status, wealth, power, and pleasure.
a. philosophical ambition
b. worldly wisdom
c. exceptional desires
d. an unhealthy soul
Q. 313 The famous statement “An unexamined life is not worth

living” is attributed to _____.
a. Aristotle
b. John Locke
c. Socrates
d. Plato
Q. 314 The practices of a company for which it is accountable in

relation to other parties is called ____________
a. Social responsibility
b. Code of Ethics
c. Values
d. Culture
Q.315 The primary stakeholders are

a. Consumers
b. Suppliers
c. Shareholders
d. Creditors
Q.316 The corporate governance structure of a company reflects
the individual companies
a. Cultural & economic system
b. Legal & business system
c. Social& regulatory system
d. All of these
Q.317 Corporate governance is a form of

a. External regulation
b. Self regulation
c. Government control
d. Charitable action
Q.318 CSR & corporate governance represent a _____between

business and society.
a. Social climate
b. Special contract
c. Special climate
d. Social contract
Q.319 the framework for establishing good corporate governance

& accountability was originally set up by
a. Rowntree Committee
b. Cadbury Committee
c. Nestle Committee
d. Thornton Committee
Q.320 ______may be defined as the enhancement of long-term
shareholders while at the same time protecting the interests of
other stakeholders.
a. Business ethics
b. B. CSR
c. Cultural relativism
d. Corporate governance
Q.321 Which of the following is/are feature of corporate

governance?
a. Non- universality
b. Accountability
c. Ambiguity
d. None of these
Q.322 There are usually ________ key participants in corporate

governance.
a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Eight
Q.323 Corporate governance is a _______ approach.
a. Top-down
b. Bottom-up
c. Hybrid
d. Scientific
Q.324 Corporate governance is concerned with the formation of

_____term objective
a. Very short
b. Short
c. Medium
d. Long
Q.325 Intellectual midwifery is the theory of knowledge put

forward by:
a. Plato
b. Thales
c. Comte
d. Socrates
Q.326 The theory that holds reason as the source of knowledge is

a. Idealism
b. Rationalism
c. Empiricism
Q.327 The author of Republic

a. Socrates
b.Descartes
c. Plato
d. Hume
Q.328 Ethics is a ______

a. Positive science
b. Normative science
c. Descriptive science
d. None of these
Q.329 The words of a trustworthy person is known as

a. Satya
b. Dharma
c. Aptavakya
d. Linga
Q.330 .The method of philosophy is
a. Rational reflection
b. Dogmatism
c. Emperical study
d. Revelation
Q.331______ is a materialist
a. Gautama
b. Hegel
c. Marx
d Spinoza
Q.332 The author of Advancement of Learning

a. Karl Marx
b. Thomas Hobbes
c. Francis Bacon
d. Kant
Q.333 Who said ? Philosophy is the Science of sciences

a. Plato
b. Voltaire
c. August’s Comte
d. Russell
Q.334 The problem of Universals was first introduced into
philosophy by:
a. Aquinas
b. Aristotle
c. Plato
d. Berkeley
Q.335 The father of philosophy :

a. Descartes
b. Thales
c. Aristotle
d. Francis Bacon
Q.336 Who is a philosopher, in the original sense of the word?

a. A person primarily interested in the truth about moral matters.
b. Someone who studies the stars and planets.
c. A clever and tricky argues.
d. A lover and pursuer of wisdom, regardless of the subject
matter.
Q.337 The first Philosophy refers to______

a. Aesthetics
b. Metaphysics
c. Epistemology
d. Ethics
Q.338 Socratic method is
a. Skeptical
b. Conceptual
c. Conversational
d. All of these
Q.339 .Plato was the teacher of ____

a. Georgias
b. Socrates
c. Aristotle
d. Protogoras
Q.340 Locke is a _______

a. Idealist
b. phenomenologist
c. Critical realist
d. Representative realist
Q.341 According to Kant knowledge appears in the form of ______

a. Statement
b. Reasoning
c. Judgement
d. Proposition
Q.342 Greek philosopher is known for his probing questions

a. Socrates
b. Plato
c. Aristotle
d. Zeno
Q.343 The word aesthetics is derived from the Greek word______
a. Aestia
b. Aesthonomics
c. Aisthetikos
d. None of these
Q.344 There are______ Systems or Schools in Indian Philosophy .

a. Two
b. Seven
c. six
d. Four
Q.345 Philosopher King was the concept of ———

a. Aristotle
b. Socrates
c. Plato
d. Thales
Q.346 The ground on which the inference is made

a. Hetu
b. Sadhya
c. Paksa
d. All of these
Q.347 ______is known as the father of Logic
a. J.S Mill
b. Aristotle
c. Socrates.
d. Creighton
Q.348 In Indian philosophy ______ is a materialist school

a. Advaitha
b. Mimamasa
c. Yoga
d. Carvaka
Q.349 Which of the following is not an impact that underpins

corporate social responsibility?
A Social.
B Political.
C Economic.
D Environmental
Q.350 Which of the following is not likely to have a direct impact on

environmental sustainability?
A Laws prohibiting fracking.
B The introduction of new carbon tax.
C A repeat of the global financial crisis.
D Restrictions on greenhouse gas emissions.
Q.351 Which of the following is not a social sustainability issue?

A Child labour.
B Biodiversity.
C Ethical trading.
D Supply chain management
Q.352 Which of the following is not a CSR theory?

A Rights theory.
B Legitimacy theory.
C Stakeholder theory.
D Enlightened self-interest.
Q.353 Which of the following is not one of the elements of financial

reporting?
A Assets.
B Liabilities.
C Expenses.
D Cash flows.
Q.354 Which of the following relating to CSR theories is correct?

A Institutional theory is based on the shareholder concept.
B Social contract is the key concept of legitimacy theory.
C The key concept of enlightened self-interest is stakeholder
relations.
D Stakeholder theory requires organisations to manage community
perceptions to survive.
Q.355 An _______is a problem, situation or opportunity requiring
an individual, group or organization to choose among several
actions that must be evaluated as right or wrong:
a) Crisis
b) Ethical issue
c) Indictment
d) Fraud
Q.356 Discrimination violates basic human rights by holding

minorities and women as “inferior,” assigning them lower social
and economic positions is termed as
a. Utilitarian
b. Rights-based
c. Justice-based
d. Duty based
Q.357 Which CSR phase paved for integration of CSR into a

sustainable business strategy
a. Third
b. First
c. Second
d. Fourth
Q.358 What type of ethical issue does green company resolve:
a. Environmental
b. Financial
c. Labor
d. Social
Q.359 CSR in Globalizating for benefits an industries as
a. It protects them against foreign competition
b. It cushions them from the effect of events in other countries
c. It increases the risk and uncertainty of operating in globalizing
world economy
d. It opens up new market opportunities
Q.360 What is the moral argument for CSR

a. That the corporation is a creation of society and should
therefore serve its needs.
b. That the corporation is a legal creation and therefore cannot be
a moral agent
c. Large corporations do not have the power or resources to
address society’s problems
d. Business decisions will have social and environmental
consequences which will be addressed by government.
Q.361 To be successful, business ethics training program need to:

a. Focus on personal opinions of employees
b. Be limited to upper executives
c. Educate employees on formal ethical frameworks and models
of ethical decision making
d. Promote the use of emotions in making tough ethical decisions
Q.362 The ______dimension of social responsibility refers to

business’s societal contribution of time, money, and other
resources:
a. Ethical
b. Philanthropic
c. Volunteerism
d. Strategic
Q.363 ‘How much recycling of waste and paper undertaken by an
organisation?’ relates to which one of the following?
A. Corporate governance of an organisation
B. Corporate values of an organisation
C. Social responsibility of an organisation
D. Corporate policy towards sustainability
Q.364 What is business ethics?
(a) The study of business situations, activities, and decisions where
issues of right and wrong are addressed
(b) Defined as decisions organisations make on issues that could be
considered right or wrong
(c) Ethics that can be applied to an organisation’s practices
(d) Ethical processes businesses use in order to achieve a good
ethical standard
Q.365 Ethics & Law overlap. This is called____

(a) Yellow area
(b) White area
(c) Black area
(d) Grey area
Q.366 A written statement of policies and principles that guides the

behaviour of all employees is called
(a) code of ethics
(b) word of ethics
(c) ethical dilemma
Q.367 What is the classical view of management's social

responsibility?
(a) To create specific environment in work place
(b) To maximise profits
(c) To protect and improve society's welfare
(d) All of the above
Q.368 Which of this is a second stage of moral development?

(a) Principled
(b) Conventional
(c) Pre conventional
Q.369 The three major types of ethical issues include except?

(a) Communication issues
(b) Systematic issues
(c) Corporate issues
(d) Individual issues
Q.370 Ethics are moral principles and values which _____

(a) Guide a firm's behavior
(b) Govern the actions of an individual
(c) Provide employees with rules on how to behave
(d) Are legally enforceable
Q.371 Truthfulness in marketing communications is an example of:
(a) Ethics
(b) Business ethics
(c) Marketing ethics
(d) Corporate Social Responsibility
Q.372 Document that consists of all ethical standards that

employer expects from employees is classified as
(a) ethics code
(b) descriptive code
(c) procedural code
(d) distributive code
Q.373 Standards that decided, what kind of conduct employees of

organization should possess
(a) descriptive justice
(b) procedural justice
(c) distributive justice
(d) ethics
Q.374 ______ is the ability to commit to doing what is right no

matter the situation.
(a) Dedication
(b) Drive
(c) Devotion
(d) Morale
Q.375 “We advocate truthfulness, accuracy, honesty, and reason as

essential to the integrity of communication.” This is a commitment
that would most likely be found in
(a) mission statement
(b) code of ethics
(c) code of conduct
(d) employee handbook
Q.376 ________ are beliefs and attitudes we have that can conflict
with our ethical decisions.
(a) Morals
(b) Principles
(c) Virtues
(d) Values
Q.377 Ethical behaviour is a matter of
(a) Juggling standards and business needs
(b) Obeying the rules
(c) Acting on a considered judgement
(d) None of these
Q.378 There are number of factors that decide or define the culture
of an organization including:
a. Structure and size, leadership
b. Environment, events, nature of business and nature of client.
c. Both A&B
d. None
Q.379 Work attitudes can be reflected in an organization through
(A) Job satisfaction
(B) Organizational commitment
(C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
(D) None of the above
Q.380 The two dimensions of leadership which emerged from the

Leader Behavior Description Questionnaire were ‘consideration’
and ‘________’.
(A) Energizing
(B) Initiating structure
(C) Deliberate
(D) Commanding
Q.381 Feature(s) of Maslow’s need hierarchy theory is (are):
(A) Theory of human motives
(B) Classifies basic human needs in a hierarchy
(C)Theory of human motivation
(D) All of the above
Q.382 The philosophy that guides an organization’s policies

towards its employees and customers is an important part of
(A) Management strategy
(B) Organization behavior
(C) Organizational culture
(D) Organization development
Q.383 In present context, challenges for Organizational Behaviour
are _____
a) Employee expectation
b) Workforce diversity
c) Globalization
d) All of the above
Q.384 Organizational behaviour focuses at 3 Levels-

a. Individuals, Organisation, Society
b. Society, Organisation, Nation
c. Employee, Employer, Management
d. Individual, Groups, Organisation.
Q.385 The field of organizational behaviour examines such

questions as the nature of leadership, effective team development,
and______
a) Interpersonal conflict resolution; motivation of individuals
b) Organisational control; conflict management
c) Motivation of individuals; planning
d) Planning; development
Q.386 Organisational Behaviour is a field of study backed by a body

associated with growing concern for people at the workplace
a) Theory
b) Research
c) Application
d) All of the above
Q.387 Which of the following is not correct for the organisational
behaviour?
a) Organisational behaviour is an integral part of management
b) Organisational behaviour is a disciplinary approach
c) Organisational behaviour helps in analysis of behaviour
d) Organisational behaviour is goal-oriented
Q.388 Nowadays a lot of stress is being put on the __________ of

the employee in the organisation
a. Character
b. improvement
c. Behaviour
d. Rewards
Q.389 The field of organisational behaviour is primarily concerned
with _____
a) The behaviour of individual and groups.
b) How resources are effectively managed.
c) Control processes and interactions between organisations,
external context.
d) Both a and c
Q.390 Organisational Behaviour is the study of _____________ in

the organisation
A. Human
B. Employer
C. Human Behaviour
D. Employees
Q.391 The Hawthorne experiment was conducted by________

a) William Gilbreth
b) Hendry Fayol
c) F.W.Taylor
d) Elton Mayo
Q.392 Due to emphasis on productivity & efficiency, employee are
not allowed to work with harmony with one another is a limitation
of_____
a) Organizational Cultural
b) Organizational Structure
c) Organizational Behaviour
d) Organisational Value
Q.393 Common uniform, canteen, office does not mean common
treatment is a limitation of
a) Organizational Cultural
b) Organizational Structure
c) Organizational Behaviour
d) Organisational Value
Q.394 ____________ is a Study of individual Behaviour

a) Anthropology
b) Psychology
c) political science
d) sociology
Q.395 ___________ is a Study of man, his work and Culture

a) Anthropology
b) Psychology
c) Social psychology
d) sociology
Q.396 Characteristics of organizational culture include all but which

one of the following?
a. Common language, terminology and norms of behavior
b. Sustainability policies
c. Preference for formal or informal communication
d. Rulebook of do’s and don’ts for staff
Q.397 The ability to interpret and adapt successfully to different

national organizational and professional cultures is called
a) National competitiveness
b) Global development
c) Culture intelligence
d) Stakeholder sensitivity
Q.398 The hand of government refers to the

a) Ability of the government to interfere in business negotiations
b) Role of corporations to be profitable within the law
c) Effect of national politics on business decisions
d) Impact of changing government regulations
Q.399 Job ____ targets expanding the content of an individual’s job

a) Enrichment
b) Nourishment
c) Empowerment
d) Card
Q.400 ‘Might is right’ is the motto of

a) Autocratic Model
b) Custodial Model
c) Supportive Model
d) Collegial Model

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Management Important MCQ

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Q.

1 Management theories are interpretive and evolve with

Q.2 Who is known as “Father of Scientific Management”?

Q.3 Amul Dairy industries refers to which of the following

Q.4 Following are the kinds of partners-

Q.6 According to Drucker, the purpose of business is:

Q.7 Who is known as the father of modern management?

Q.8 Fredrick Taylor stressed on:

Q.10 Who is credited with having developed the concept of priority

Q.11 Arya Chanakya’s Arthashastra written in the third century B.C.

Q.12 In the early writings on managements, the art of war was

Q.13 ‘Management is the art of getting things done through and

Q.14 To motivate workers, Taylor suggested:

Q.15_____ refers to produce and earn at least what the business

Q.16 In a joint stock company, loans are repaid by the

Q.17 The process of monitoring, comparing and correcting is called

Q.18 The five management functions of planning, organizing,

Q.19 Organizing includes:

Q.20 ______ is the process by which an organization decides what

Q.21 Manager who are responsible for making organization – wide

Q.22 _____does not belong to henry Fayol’s 14 principles of

Q.23 _____is the 2nd function of management.

Q.25 Which one of the following functions involves recruiting and

Q.26______is the application of knowledge and personal skills to

Q.27 In a department, the ______is in charge of department?

Q29. _______reduces uncertainty.

Q30. “Analysis of causes of deviations “is a part of which process?

Q31. When we classify managers according to their level in the

Q33 Who is recognized as “the man who invented management”?

Q.34 Delegation is a right given by a ______to______make decision

Q.35 Who developed a theory of motion study?

Q.37 Possibly the most important pre-20th century influence on

Q.38 Which of the following was the key aim of scientific

Q.41 Top level is known as _______because all important decisions

Q.42 First step in planning is

Q.43 Deciding in advance what to do and when to do is

Q.45 Who had a main concern to achieve efficiency of material

Q.46 The process of monitoring & comparing & correcting is is

Q. 47 One disadvantage of forming a partnership is

Q.49 which statement regarding joint stock company’s is incorrect?

Q.50 Following business is not coming under sole proprietorship

Q.51 The function of employing eligible people for the company

Q.53 What is Espirit De Corps?

Q.54 which theory put forward by F.W. taylor?

Q.55________ is an activity which define the steps of how and

Q.102 Challenges faced by Human resource management includes

Q.103 The process of familiarizing the new employees to the

Q.104 Human resource management means

Q.105 A predetermined groups or classes are established and jobs

Q.106 _____ is the systematic, periodic and impartial rating of an

Q.107 Traditional method of performance appraisal includes

Q.108 Modern method of performance appraisal are:

Q.109 The performance appraisal technique in which appraisers

Q.110 The performance appraisal technique that involves

Q.113 ______suggests that each communication going up or

Q.115 The principle of Unity of command is contrary to Taylors

Q.126______ is a detailed and systematic study of jobs to know the

Q.127 The term “Open-Book Management” (OBM) was coined by

130. Means a process of stimulating people to action to accomplish

Q.131. Who developed MBO?

Q.132 MBO gives emphasis on____

Q.133 MBO establishes a ________

Q.134 KRA in MBO stands for_________

Q.34 Delegation is a right given by a tomake decision