State PSC Previous Papers Analysis Chart

Mechanical Engineering
Exam Year Question Paper Total Question
1. UPSC ESE 2017-2020 150 × 4 600
2. UPSC JWM 2017 100 × 1 100
3. UPPSC AE -I 2013 100 × 1 100
4. UPPSC AE -II 2013 100 × 1 100
5. UPRVUNL AE Jal Vidyut 2016 150 × 1 150
6. UPRVUNL AE 2016 150 × 1 150
7. UPRVUNL AE 2014 150 × 1 150
8. UP JAL NIGAM AE 2016 24 × 1 24
9. UKPSC AE -I 2007 200 × 1 200
10. UKPSC AE -II 2007 200 × 1 200
11. UKPSC AE -I 2012 200 × 1 200
12. UKPSC AE -II 2012 200 × 1 200
13. UKPSC AE -I 2013 180 × 1 180
14. UKPSC AE -II 2013 180 × 1 180
15. APPSC AEE 2012 150 × 1 150
16. APPSC AEE 2019 100 × 1 100
17. BPSC AE -V 2012 50 × 1 50
18. BPSC AE -VI 2012 50 × 1 50
19. BPSC AE MAINS -V 2017 50 × 1 50
20. BPSC AE MAINS -VI 2017 50 × 1 50
21. BPSC Poly. Tech. Lecturer 2016 60 × 1 60
22. BHEL ET 2019 120 × 1 120
23. CGPSC AE 2017 150 × 1 150
24. CGPSC AE - I 2014 150× 1 150
25. CGPSC AE - II 2014 150 × 1 150
26. CGPSC Poly. Tech. Lecturer 2017 100 × 1 100
27. CIL MT 2017 100 × 1 100
28. GPSC AE 2019 200 × 1 200
29. HPPSC AE 2014 80 × 1 80
30. HPPSC AE 2018 80 × 1 80
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31. HPPSC Poly Tech. Lecturer 2016 80 × 1 80
32. HPPSC Poly Tech. Lect. (W.S.) 2016 80 × 1 80
33. JPSC AE - V 2013 50 × 1 50
34. JPSC AE - VI 2013 50 × 1 50
35. JPSC AE Pre 2019 100 × 1 100
36. KPSC AE 2015 80 × 1 80
37. MPPSC AE 2016 100 × 1 100
38. Nagaland PSC CTSE -I 2016 200 × 1 200
39. Nagaland PSC CTSE -I 2017 200 × 1 200
40. Nagaland PSC CTSE -II 2017 200 × 1 200
41. OPSC Civil Services Pre 2011 120 × 1 120
42. OPSC AEE - I 2015 90 × 1 90
43. OPSC AEE - II 2015 90 × 1 90
44. OPSC AEE - I 2019 180 × 1 180
45. OPSC AEE - II 2019 180 × 1 180
46. RPSC AE 2018 100 × 1 100
47. RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 100 × 1 100
48. RPSC AE 2016 100 × 1 100
49. RPSC Poly Tech. Lecturer 2016 100 × 1 100
50. RPSC Boiler Inspector 2015 100 × 1 100
51. SJVN ET 2013 120 × 1 120
52. SJVN ET 2019 120 × 1 120
53. TNPSC AE 2013 200 × 1 200
54. TNPSC AE 2014 200 × 1 200
55. TNPSC AE 2017 200 × 1 200
56. TNPSC AE 2018 200 × 1 200
57. TNPSC AE 2019 200 × 1 200
58. TSPSC AEE 2015 150 × 2 300
59. TRB Poly Tech. Lecturer 2017 150 × 1 150
60. UJVNL AE 2016 125 × 1 125
61. VIZAG STEEL MT 2017 100 × 1 100
TOTAL 8389

7
 Trend Analysis of Mechanical
Through Pie Chart and Bar Graph

1016

672 663
612
540
450 431 417 412
367 376
254 281 297

58 66
4

Note: After detailed analysis of above mentioned question papers we are providing 8389
Questions (1473 repeated + 6916 without repetition) of previous years solved
Mechanical Engineering papers that may help students to analyze about the
pattern of question that may be asked in any Engineering Competitive
Examinations.
8
 01. THERMODYNAMICS
4. What are the properties of a thermodynamic
1. Basic Concepts & Zeroth system whose value for the entire system is
equal to the sum of their values for individual
Law of Thermodynamics parts of the system?
(a) Thermodynamic properties
1. The energy of the isolated system is always a (b) Extensive properties
constant, which is given by: (c) Intensive properties
(a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (d) Specific properties
(b) First law of thermodynamics TNPSC AE 2018
(c) Second law of thermodynamics Ans. (b) : Extensive properties- Extensive properties
(d) Third law of thermodynamics of matter that changes as the amount of matter changes
(e) Law of stable equilibrium Example- Volume, enthalpy, entropy etc.
CGPSC Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 Intensive properties- An intensive properties is a bulk
Ans. (b) : Isolated System–An isolated system is a property, meaning that it is a local physical property of
thermodynamic system that cannot exchange either a system that does not depends on the system size or the
energy or mass outside the boundaries of the system. amount of material in the system.
So, ∆E = 0, ∆m = 0 Example- Pressure, temperature, refractive index,
So from the first law of thermodynamics energy of the density and hardness of object.
isolated system will be remain constant. 5. Consider the following properties:
2. A series of operations, which takes place in a 1. Temperature
certain order and restore the initial conditions 2. Viscosity
at the end, is known as 3. Specific entropy
(a) Reversible cycle 4. Thermal conductivity
(b) Irreversible cycle Which of the above properties of a system
(c) Thermodynamic cycle is/are intensive?
(d) None of these (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans. (c) : Thermodynamic cycle– A series of Ans : (d) : Properties of intensive are as follows-
operation which takes place in a certain order and • Temperature
restore the initial conditions at the end, is known as • Viscosity
thermodynamic cycle. • Specific entropy
3. Heat and work are : • Thermal conductivity
(a) Intensive properties • Specific volume
(b) Extensive properties • Specific enthalpy
(c) Point functions 6. An open system
(d) Path functions (a) is a specified region where transfers of
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II energy and / or mass take place
UPRVUNL AE 2014 (b) is a region of constant mass and only energy
UP Jal Nigam AE 2016 is allowed to cross the boundaries
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 (c) cannot transfer either energy or mass to or
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II from the surroundings
Ans. (d) : Heat and work are path function similarities (d) has an enthalpy transfer across its boundaries
between heat and work : and the mass within the system is not
(i) Both are recognized at the boundary of the system, necessarily constant
as they cross the boundary phenomena. BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
(ii) System possesses - energy, but neither heat and work. HPPSC Lect. 2016
(iii) Both are associated with process not state. Heat and Ans : (a)
work have no meaning at a state. system mass Energy
(iv) Both are path functions. transfer transfer
• Path function- Magnitude depends on the path open system √ √
followed during the process as well as the end states. closed system × √
• Point function- Magnitude depends on state only Isolated system
and not a how the system approaches that state. × ×

9
7. Match the following : 12. Which one of the properties given below is an
1. Closed system a. Increase in static pressure intensive property of the system
2. Open system b. Increase in kinetic energy (a) composition (b) volume
3. Pump c. Heat, mass and work (c) kinetic energy (d) entropy
interact TSPSC AEE 2015
4. Turbine d. Heat and work interact Ans. (a) : Volume, Kinetic energy and entropy are the
5. Nozzle e. Delivers work example of extensive property where as composition is
(a) 1–d, 2–c, 3–a, 4–e, 5–b the example of intensive property.
(b) 1–c, 2–d, 3–b, 4–e, 5–a 13. Which pair of the following alternatives is
(c) 1–c, 2–a, 3–d, 4–e, 5–b correctly matched ?
(d) 1–d, 2–c, 3–e, 4–a, 5–b List – I List – II
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 (a) Heat – Point function
Ans. (a) : (b) Energy – Path function
1. Closed system Heat and work interact (c) Entropy – Second law of
2. Open system Heat, mass and work interact thermodynamics
3. Pump Increase in static pressure (d) Gibbs function – Path function
4. Turbine Delivers work UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
5. Nozzle Increase in kinetic energy Ans. (c) : Entropy – Second law of
8. The law which provides the basis of thermodynamics
temperature measurement is: 14. Thermodynamic work is the product of
(a) Third law of thermodynamics (a) Two intensive
(b) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (b) Two extensive properties
(c) First law of thermodynamics (c) An intensive property and change in an
(d) Second law of thermodynamics extensive property
TNPSC 2019 (d) An extensive property and change in an
UPRVUNL AE 2014, 2016 intensive property
Ans. (b) : 1. Zeroth law of thermodynamics provides UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
the basis of temperature measurement. Ans : (c) For quasistatic process work done is
2. First law of thermodynamics provides conservation calculated by
law of energy. ∫ P.dV
3. Second law of thermodynamics provides the basic
concept of entropy.
9. Which one of the following is the extensive
property of the system?
(a) Volume (b) Pressure
(c) Temperature (d) Density
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
UPRVUNL AE 2014 Pressure = Intensive property.
Ans : (a) : These properties are dependent on mass e.g. Volume (dV) = change in an extensive property.
volume, energy, Heat capacity (Cv, Cp), enthalpy, Thermodynamic work is the product of An intensive
entropy. property and change in an extensive property.
10. Pressure exerted by a gas in a closed container 15. Bi-Metallic strips made of two different
is: materials bend during a rise is temperature
(a) Weak function of Density and Temperature because of
(b) Weak function of Density and Volume (a) Differences in coefficient of linear expansion
(c) Strong function of Density and Temperature (b) Differences in elastic properties
(d) Strong function of Density and Volume (c) Differences in thermal conductivities
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II (d) Difference in stress
Ans : (c) : Pressure exerted by a gas in a closed TNPSC AE 2014
container is strong function of density and temperature. Ans. (a) : Bi-Metallic strips made of two different
11. Which of the following items is not a path materials bend during a rise is temperature because of
function? differences in coefficient of linear expansion.
(a) Heat 16. The gauge pressure in a truck tire before and
(b) Work after the journey was recorded as 200 kPa and
(c) Kinetic energy 220 kPa respectively at the location where
(d) Thermal conductivity atmospheric pressure and temperature was
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V 100 kPa and 27ºC respectively. How much the
Ans : (d) : Thermal conductivity is not a path functions. rise in temperature of tire air after trip?
(a) 20ºC (b) 27ºC
10
 (c) 47ºC (d) Insufficient data 1 ( γ−1)
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II  P  γ−1 P  γ
(a)  2  (b)  2 
Ans : (c) : Given  P1   P1 
Patm = 100 kPa, Tatm = 27 ºC = 300 K γ 1
Pgauge1 = 200 kPa, Pgauge2 = 220 kPa  P  γ−1  P  γ−1
[P1]Abs = 300 kPa, [P2]Abs = 320 kPa (c)  2  (d)  1 
then,  P1   P2 
V1 = V2 OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
P1 T1 UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
= Ans. (b) :
P2 T2
T2
T × P 300 × 320 Ratio of absolute temperature at two different states
T2 = 1 2 = T1
P1 300
in an adiabatic process is :
T2 = 320 K = 47º C γ−1
T2  P2  γ
17. The condition for the reversibility of a cycle is =
(a) the pressure and temperature of the working T1  P1 
substance must not differ, appreciably, from 21. Pressure of 1 (one) atmosphere is equivalent to:
those of the surroundings at any stage in the (a) 0.101325 MPa (b) 750 mm of mercury
process (c) 1 bar (d) 0.101325 kPa
(b) all the processes, taking place in the cycle of OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
operation, must be extremely slow Ans. (a) :
(c) the working parts of the engine must be 1 atmosphere pressure = 101325 Pa
friction free = 1.01325 bar
(d) all of the above = 760 mm of mercury
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 = 760 Torr
Ans : (d) : The condition for the reversibility of a cycle = 0.101325 MPa
is = 14.6959 Pound-force per
! The pressure and temperature of the working square inch
substance must not differ, appreciably from those in the 22. A steel ball of mass 1 kg and specific heat
process. 0.4 kJ/kg °C is at a temperature of 60 °C. It is
! The working parts of the engine must be friction free. dropped into 1 kg water at 20 °C. The final
18. Which of the following is an example of steady state temperature of water is :
irreversible process? (a) 23.5 °C (b) 30 °C
(a) Polytropic expansion of fluid (c) 35 °C (d) 40 °C
(b) Unrestricted expansion of gases RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
(c) Isothermal expansion Ans. (a) :
(d) Electrolysis mb = 1 kg
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper cb = 0.4 kJ/kgk
Ans. (b) : Tb1 = 60°C
Irreversible process- In an irreversible process, there is
mw = 1 kg
a loss of heat due to friction, radiation and conduction.
Tw1 = 20°C
In an actual practice, most of the processes are
irreversible to some degree The main causes for the Let the final steady state temperature of ball and water
irreversibility may be. be T°C.
(i) Mechanical and fluid friction m b c b (Tb1 − T) = m w c w (T − Tw1 )
(ii) Unrestricted expansion
1 × 0.4 (60°–T) = 1 × 4.18 (T–20°)
(iii) Heat transfer with a finite temperature difference.
T = 23.5°C
19. Which of the following is considered as
thermodynamic potential? 23. A 120-V electric resistance heater draws 10 A.
(a) Temperature (b) Internal energy It operates for 10 min in a rigid volume.
(c) Enthalpy (d) Entropy Calculate the work done on the air in the
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper volume.
Ans. (c) : Enthalpy is considered as thermodynamic (a) 720000 kJ (b) 720 kJ
potential. (c) 12000 J (d) 12 kJ
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
T2
20. Ratio of absolute temperature at two Ans. (b) :
T1
W = VIT = 120 V × 10 A × (10 × 60) s
different states in an adiabatic process is : = 72 × 104 J = 720 kJ.
11
24. Air is compressed in a cylinder such that the Ans. (a) :
volume changes from 0.2 to 0.02 m3. The initial Volume (v1) = 5.0m3
pressure is 200 kPa. If the pressure is constant, Initial pressure (P1) = 1 bar = 100 kPa
the approximate work is Final Pressure (P2) = 5 bar = 500 kPa
(a) –36 kJ (b) –40 kJ We know that,
(c) –46 kJ (d) –52 kJ P2
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 Work done (w) = ∫ VdP...........(i)
Ans. (a) : P1
Work done, If the pressure is constant, Since, process is isothermal
2
w = ∫ PdV Therefore, PV = mRT = constant.....(i)
1
Now equations (i) and (ii)
= P(V2 – V1) P2
= 200 × (0.02 – 0.2) c P 
w = ∫ dP = c ln  2 
= –36 kJ P1
P  P1 
25. Match List 1 with List 2 and choose the correct
P 
answer from the code- w = P1V1  2  (∵ P1V1 = P2 V2)
List-I List-II  P1 
(laws of (Defines)  500 
thermodynamics) w = (100 × 5) × ln  
 100 
A. First (i) Absolute zero
= 804.7 kJ
temperature
B. Second (ii) Internal Energy 28. If 'h' refers t heat, T refers to temperature,
C. Zeroth (iii) Temperature then in the throttling process,
D. Third (iv) Entropy (a) h1
2
= h2 (b) h1 = h2
1. (A) (B) (C) (D) h fg h fg
i ii iii iv (c) h1 = h2 + (d) h2 = h1 +
Ts Ts
2. (A) (B) (C) (D)
iii iv ii i TNPSC 2019
3. (A) (B) (C) (D) Ans. (b) : The throttling process is a constant enthalpy
iv ii i iii process.
4. (A) (B) (C) (D) h1 = h2
ii iv iii i 29. Which of the following processes are
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016 thermodynamically reversible?
Ans : (4) (a) Throttling
(A) First→(ii) Internal Energy (b) Free expansion
(B) Second→(iv) Entropy (c) Constant volume and constant pressure
(C) Zeroth→ (iii) Temperature (d) Isothermal and adiabatic
(D) Third → (i) Absolute zero Temperature TNPSC 2019
26. Which of the following processes is irreversible Ans. (d) : Throttling, Free expansion, Constant volume
process and constant pressure processes and adiabatic process
(a) Isothermal (b) Adiabatic are thermodynamically irreversible whereas isothermal
(c) Throttling (d) All of the above and adiabatic processes are thermodynamically
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 reversible.
Ans. (c) : 30. The most efficient method of compressing air is
Throttling process in which to compress it
! No change in enthalpy from state one to state two (h1 (a) adiabatically (b) isentopically
= h2) (c) isothermally (d) isochorically
! No work is done (W = 0) TNPSC 2019
! Process called isenthalpic
Ans. (c) : The work of compression or the steady flow
! Process is adiabatic (Q = 0)
work input to the gas.
27. A cylinder contains 5m3 of ideal gas at a
 γ−1 
pressure of 1 bar. This gas is compressed in a
γ   P2  γ 
reversible isothermal process till its pressure Wc = P1V1    − 1
increases to 5 bar. γ − 1  P 
 1 
(a) 804.7 (b) 953.2  
(c) 981.7 (d) 1012.2 For reversible adiabatic compression.
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 Similarly, for reversible polytropic compression
12
 Ans. (a) : Generally, absolute zero pressure is the point
where there exist a minimum temperature i.e. zero. That
can be possible only when molecular momentum of
system become zero. There should not be any motion of
particles so there is no collision of particles, kinetic
energy nullifies and the temperature becomes zero.
34. An ideal gas can be taken from point K to point
N in three different paths:
K→L→N, K→N, K→M→N. Which of the
following is a true statement?

  n −1 
 

n  P2   n  
Wn = P1V1   − 1
n −1 (a) The same work is done during each process.
 P1   (b) The same amount of heat is added to the gas
 
For reversible isothermal compression of an ideal gas during each process
Wt = P1V1 ℓn (P2/P1). (c) The same change in internal energy during
So, for same pressure ratio P2/P1 the isothermal each process
compression needs the minimum work, whereas (d) The same entropy generated during each
adiabatic compression needs the maximum work, while process
the polytropic compression work lies between iso- APPSC AEE 2016
thermal and adiabatic. Ans. (c) : From this diagram we get that the same
31. The internal energy of an ideal gas is function change in internal energy during each process because
of of internal energy. It is the property of the system (i.e
(a) pressure only point function) whereas work and heat for each process
(b) absolute temperature only will be different because of area under P–V and T–S
(c) pressure and volume diagram will be different for each process (i.e path
(d) pressure, volume and temperature function).
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
TSPSC AEE 2015
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans. (b) : The internal energy of an ideal gas is function
of absolute temperature only.
U = f (T only)
32. Work output from a system is at the expense of
internal energy is a non flow process carried 35. Which of the following is not a property of the
out system?
(a) at constant pressure (a) Temperature (b) Pressure
(b) at constant volume (c) Volume (d) Heat
(c) adiabatically TNPSC AE 2017
(d) polytropically UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
TSPSC AEE 2015 Ans. (d) : Heat is not a property of the system it is the
Ans. (c) : Work output from a system is at the expense form of energy whereas temperature, pressure and
of internal energy is a non flow process carried out volume are the property of the system.
adiabatically. 36. In reference to Thermodynamic equilibrium, it
33. The absolute zero pressure will be is required to have,
(a) When the molecular momentum of the system (a) Mechanical Equilibrium
becomes zero (b) Chemical Equilibrium
(b) at sea level (c) Thermal Equilibrium
(c) at the temperature of –273K (d) Mechanical, Chemical and Thermal
(d) at the centre of the earth Equilibrium
APPSC AEE 2016 TNPSC AE 2017
13
Ans. (d) : In reference to Thermodynamic equilibrium, Ans. (d) : Fan convert electrical energy into mechanical
it is required to have, Mechanical, Chemical and energy.
Thermal Equilibrium. 1
Power = × Mass flow rate of air × ( discharge velocity )
2
For Mechanical equilibrium ∆P ≈ 0 2
1
For Thermal equilibrium ∆T ≈ 0 P = mv ɺ 2
2
For Chemical equilibrium no change in concentration of
reactants and products. 2P 2 × 20
v= = = 12.65m / s
37. If the value of n is zero in the equation PV = n mɺ 0.25
C, then the process is called Maximum air outlet velocity ≃ 12.7m / s
(a) constant volume process 42. In a reversible adiabatic process the ratio
(b) constant pressure process (T 1 /T 2) is equal to-
γ −1 γ −1
(c) idiabatic process γ γ

(d) isothermal process  p1   v1 

(a)   (b)  
TNPSC AE 2018  p2   v2 
n
Ans. (b) : If the value of n is zero in the equation pV = γ −1 γ
2γ  v2 
c, then the process is called constant pressure process. (c) ( v1v2 ) (d)  
38. In a free expansion of a gas between two  v1 
equilibrium states, work transfer involved. RPSC AE 2018
(a) can be calculated by joining the two states on UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
p-v coordinates by any path and estimating Ans. (a) : We know that, Polytropic process
area below PVn = constant ...(1)
(b) can be calculated by joining two states by a If process is reversible adiabatic then η = γ = 1.4
quasi static path and then finding the area For ideal gas
below PV
= constant
(c) is zero T
(d) is equal to heat generated by friction during then
expansion  V2  P1 T2
TNPSC AE 2018  = × ...(2)
 V1  T1 P2
Ans. (c) : In a free expansion of a gas between two
P1 V1γ = P2 V2γ
equilibrium states, work transfer involved is zero.
1
39. The internal energy of a substance depends on  V2   P1  γ
(a) temperature (b) pressure  = 
(c) entropy (d) enthalpy  V1   P2 
TNPSC AE 2018 From equation (2)
1
Ans. (a) : The internal energy of a substance depends  P1   T2   P1  γ
on temperature.  × = 
U = mcV∆T  P2   T1   P2 
 γ −1 
40. The temperature at which the volume of gas  T1   P1  γ 
 

becomes zero is called  = 

(a) absolute scale of temperature
(b) absolute zero temperature
(c) absolute temperature
(d) dew point temperature
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) : The temperature at which the volume of gas
becomes zero is called absolute zero temperature.
At absolute zero temperature (– 273.15 K),
momentum of gas molecules becomes zero.
41. A fan consumes 20 W of electric power and
discharges air from a ventilated room at 0.25
kg/s. The maximum air outlet velocity is nearly
(a) 4.7 m/s (b) 8.7 m/s
(c) 10.2 m/s (d) 12.7 m/s
UPSC JWM 2017
14
 T2   P2 
43. An isolated system-
(a) is a specified region where transfer of energy
and/or mass takes place
(b) is a region of constant mass and only energy
is allowed to cross the boundaries
(c) cannot transfer either energy or mass to or
from the surroundings
(d) is one in which mass within the system is not
necessarily constant
RPSC AE 2018
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (c) : Isolated system—An isolated system cannot
transfer either energy or mass to or from the
surrounding ∆m = 0, ∆E = 0 for isolated system.
Example—Universe, thermal flask bottle etc.
44. In the polytropic process equation PVn = Work done for constant volume process for closed
constant if n is infinitely large, the process is system.
termed as- WV=C = zero
(a) Constant volume (b) Constant pressure work done for constant pressure process for closed
(c) Constant temperature (d) Adiabatic system
RPSC AE 2018 WP=C = P (V2 – V1)
TNPSC AE 2018 47. Which of the following is correct statement for
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II 'Energy (E)'?
Ans. (a) : In the polytropic process (a) 'Energy (E)' is not the property of system
PVn = constant (b) 'Energy (E)' is path function
If n=∞ (c) Change in energy between two states of a
then PV ∞ = constant. system is different for different path followed
Then this polytropic process is termed as costant (d) %∫ dE = 0
volume process.
If n=1 UPRVUNL AE 2016
PV = constant (Isothermal process) Ans. (d) : • Energy E is the property of system and it is
If n=0 the point function.
PV0 = constant • Change in energy between two states of a
Constant pressure process system is same for different path followed.
If n = 1.4 • For point function
PV1.4 = constant (adiabatic process) %∫ dE = 0
Process Value of 'n' index
48. Internal energy of system containing perfect
Constant pressure 0
gas depends on
Isothermal 1
(a) Pressure only
Adiabatic 1.4
(b) Temperature only
Constant volume ∞ (c) Pressure and temperature
45. The instrument which measures the (d) Pressure temperature and specific heat
temperature of the source without direct HPPSC AE 2018
contact is
(a) Bi-metallic cut-out Ans. (b) : Internal energy of a system containing perfect
(b) Vapour pressure thermometer gas (ideal gas) depends on temperature only.
(c) Pyrometer U = f(T) [For ideal gas only]
(d) Thin film thermometer 49. Which of the following equations is incorrect?
TNPSC AE 2014 (where V,P,T and Q are volume, pressure,
Ans. (c) : Pyrometer–Pyrometer is a device use for temperature and heat transfer respectively)
measuring relatively high temperature, such as are (a) %∫ dV = 0 (b) %∫ dP = 0
encountered in furnace. Most pyrometer works by
measuring radiation from the body whose temperature (c) %∫ dT = 0 (d) %∫ dQ = 0
is to be measured. Radiation devices have the advantage RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
of not touch the material being measured. Ans. (d) :
46. Work done for an isothermal process is
PV − P V %∫ Q ≠ 0
(a) 1 1 2 2 (b) P (V2 − V1 )
n −1 %∫ V = 0
(c) PV1 1 ln( P1 / P2 ) (d) PV1 1 ln(V1 / V2 )
TNPSC AE 2013
%∫ P = 0
P  %∫ T = 0
Ans. (c) : Wisot = P1V1 ln  1  Because V,P,T are properties of the system whereas Q
 P2  and work (W) not a properties of the system.
P  Cyclic integration of the system properties will be equal
= P2 V2 ln  1  to zero.
 P2 
50. Which of the following statements is correct for
V  "Energy"
= P1V1 ln  2 
 V1  (a) It is a point function
Work done for polytropic process (b) It is a path function
(c) It is not a conserved quantity
P V − P 2 V2
W poly = 1 1 (d) It can be measured by thermometer
n −1 RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
15
Ans. (a) : W = PdV
= P(V2 – V1)
54 × 103 = 600 × 103 (V2 – 0.01)
V2 = 0.1 m3
54. A polytropic process with n = –1, initiates with
P = V = 0 and ends with P = 600 kPa and V =
0.01 m3. The work done is
(a) 2 kJ (b) 3 kJ
(c) 4 kJ (d) 6 kJ
JPSC AE PRE 2019
Ans. (b) : Given,
Note:-Option (a) is given by RPSC. n = –1
51. The heat capacity of the substance is given by P 1 =0

expression: V 1 =0
(a) Heat capacity = (Mass) + (specific heat) P2 = 600 kPa
(b) Heat capacity = (Mass) – (specific heat) V2 = 0.01 m3
PV − PV 0 − 600 × 0.01
(c) Heat capacity = (Mass) × (specific heat) W= 1 1 2 2 =
(d) Heat capacity = (Mass) / (specific heat) n −1 −1 − 1
(e) Heat capacity = (Mass)2 + (specific heat)2 = 3 kJ
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) 55. Work done in a free expansion process is
Ans. (c) : Heat Capacity–Heat capacity or thermal (a) Positive (b) Negative
capacity is a physical property of matter, defined as the (c) Zero (d) Maximum
amount of heat to be supplied to a given mass of a JPSC AE PRE 2019
material to produce a unit change in its temperature. TNPSC AE 2018
Heat capacity is an extensive property. It is denoted by UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
C Ans. (c) :
C = m × c (J/k) From first law of thermodynamics
Where δQ = dU + δW,
m → mass of the system since, for free expansion (T1 = T2)
c → Specific heat δQ = 0 and dU = 0
52. Which of the following is NOT an intensive So, δW = 0
thermodynamic property?
(a) Temperature (b) Pressure 56. For an ideal gas, enthalpy is represented by
(c) Energy (d) Specific volume (a) H = U – RT (b) H = U + RT
(e) Specific energy (c) H = RT – U (d) H = –(U + RT)
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) JPSC AE PRE 2019
Ans. (c) : Intensive Properties–An intensive property Ans. (b) : H = U + PV
is a property of matter that depends only on the type of PV = mRT
matter is a sample and not depends on the amount of for unity mass, m = 1
mass. H = U + mRT
Example–Pressure, temperature, density, viscosity H = U + RT
specific enthalpy, specific entropy, specific volume etc. 57. Which one of the following represents the
Extensive Properties– An extensive property is a energy in storage?
property that depends on the amount of matter in a (a) Work (b) Heat
sample. (c) Energy (d) Internal energy
Example– Volume, enthalpy, entropy, mass energy etc. JPSC AE PRE 2019
53. A piston cylinder arrangement has air at 600 Ans. (d) : Internal energy—Internal energy of a
kPa, 290 K and volume of 0.01 m3. During a system is the sum of potential energy and kinetic energy
constant pressure process, if it gives 54 kJ of of that system.
work, the final volume must be
(a) 0.10 m3 (b) 0.05 m3 58. Heat transfer takes place as per
(c) 0.01 m 3
(d) 0.15 m 3 (a) Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
JPSC AE PRE 2019 (b) First Law of Thermodynamics
Ans. (a) : Given, (c) Second Law of Thermodynamics
P1 = 600 kPa (d) Kirchhoff's Law
T1 = 290 K SJVN ET 2013
W = 54 kJ Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
V1 = 0.01 m3 Ans. (c) : Heat transfer takes place as per second law of
V2 =? thermodynamics.
16
59. 2 kg of substance receives 500 kJ and 65. Identify open system and closed system from
undergoes a temperature change from 100oC to the following
200oC. Then average specific heat of substance (a) Blood circulation and respiration in human
during the process will be: body
(a) 5 kJ/kg oK (b) 2.5 kJ/kg oK (b) Fuel system and radiator in cars
(c) 10 kJ/kg oK (d) 25 kJ/kg oK (c) Air compressor and boiler
SJVN ET 2013 (d) Shell and tube heat exchanger and Blower
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (b) : m = 2kg
Ans. (c) : Air compressor is an open system and boiler
Q = 500 kJ
comes under closed system (boiler having closed
T1 = 100oC
chamber).
T2 = 200oC
66. Compression efficiency is compared against
Q = mc∆T (a) Ideal compression
500 = 2 × c (200 – 100) (b) Adiabatic compression
c = 2.5 kJ / kg o K (c) Isentropic compression
(d) Isothermal compression
60. The work done during an isothermal process Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
is: Ans. (d) : Compression efficiency is compared against
v  isothermal compression.
(a) P1V1 log e  2 
67. Which thermometer is independent of the
 v1 
substance or material used in its construction?
v  (a) mercury thermometer
(b) P1V2 log e  1 
 v2  (b) alcohol thermometer
(c) ideal gas thermometer
P  (d) resistance thermometer
(c) P2 V2 log e  2 
 P1  Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
P V −PV Ans. (c) : Ideal gas thermometer in independent of the
(d) 2 2 1 1 substance or material used in its construction.
n −1 68. The pressure of air in an automobile tyre at
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
temperature of 27oC is 1.75 bar (gauge). Due to
V  running the temperature of air in the rises to
Ans. (a) : Wisothermal = P1V1 log e  2 
 V1  87oC. What will be the gauge pressure during
this running? [Patm = 1.01 bar, volume of tyre is
61. Thermocouples are generally used for
assumed constant]
measuring temperature:
(a) 2.302 bar (b) 2.914 bar
(a) 500 oC (b) 1000 oC
o (c) 1.677 bar (d) 3.180 bar
(c) 1500 C (d) 2000 oC
SJVN ET 2019
SJVN ET 2013
TNPSC AE 2018 Ans. (a) : Pabs = Patm + Pgauge
= 1.01 + 1.75
Ans. (c) : Thermocouples are generally used for = 2.76 bar
o
measuring temperature up to 1500 C P1V1 P2 V2
62. Which of the following is not a point function ∴ =
T1 T2
of the system.
(a) Temperature (b) Pressure P × T 2.76 × 360
(c) Specific volume (d) Heat
( P2 )abs = abs 2 =
T1 300
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
( P2 )abs = 3.312 − 1.01
Ans. (d) : Heat is path function whereas temperature,
pressure and specific volume are point function. = 2.302 bar
63. The enthalpy of an ideal gas is a function of 69. A non-flow reversible process takes place
(a) Pressure only (b) Volume only 15
(c) Temperature only (d) None of these according to V = m3 , where P is in bar.
P
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 What will be the work done if pressure changes
Ans. (c) : Enthalpy is a function of temperature only. from 1 bar to 10 bar? [Given. ln (10) = 2.3025]
64. 1ºC is equal to (a) 3.453 MN-m, expansion
(a) 273.15 K (b) 274.15 K (b) 3.453 N-m, compression
(c) 283.15 K (d) 263.15 K (c) 3.453 MN-m compression
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 (d) 3.453 N-m, expansion
Ans. (b) : 1ºC is equal to Kelvin, 274.15 K. SJVN ET 2019
17
Ans. (c) : Given, Ans. (d) : Given, m1 = 5kg
15 P1 = 4 atm
V = m3
P = 4 × 101.325 kPa
P1 = 1 bar = 405.3 kPa
P2 = 10 bar T1 = 30 + 273 = 303 K
P1V1= P2V2 P2 = 2 atm
P1 V2 = 2 × 101.325 kPa
= = 202.68 kPa
P2 V1
T2 = 150 + 273 = 423 K
V1 10 From gas equation
=
V2 1 PV = mRT
Non flow work = ∫ PdV m RT 5 × 0.287 × 303
V= 1 1=
1
P1 405.3
 15  3
= ∫   dV V = 1.072 m
10 
V Again from gas equation for final state
1
1 PV
= 15 ∫   dV m2 = 2
RT
10 
V 2

= 15[ ℓ n1 − ℓn10] 202.65 × 1.072

=
0.287 × 423
= 15[ 0 − 2.3025] = 1.79 kg
= −34.538 × 105 Nm Amount of gas escaped = m1 − m2
= −3.4538MN-m = 5 − 1.79
= 3.4538MN-m (Compression) = 3.209 kg
73. The thermal efficiency of the hypothetical cycle
70. In a steady flow reversible adiabatic process shown is
work done is equal to (a) 0.6 (b) 0.5
(a) Change in internal energy (c) 0.4 (d) 0.3
(b) Change in entropy ESE 2017
(c) Change in enthalpy
Ans. (c) :
(d) Heat transferred
TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (c) : In a steady flow reversible adiabatic process
work done is equal to change in enthalpy.
71. Certain quantities cannot be located on the
graph by a point but are given by a point but
are given by the area under the curve
corresponding to the process. These quantities
in concepts of thermodynamics are called as
(a) cyclic functions (b) point functions Wnet = area enclosed by ∆ABC
(c) path functions (d) real functions 1
ESE 2019 = × (5 − 1) × (700 − 300)
2
Ans. (c) : Path functions like heat transfer and work = 800 kJ
done cannot be represented by points in the graph, but Heat supplied (Q ) = Area of 1 − A − B − C − 5 − 1
s
can be given by the area under the curve.
= Area of ∆ABC + Area of 1 − A − C − 5 − 1
Heat transfer will be area under curve in T-s diagram
1
while work done will be the area under curve in p-v = (5 − 1)(700 − 300) + 300(5 − 1)
diagram. 2
= 800 + 1200
72. A steel tank placed in hot environment contains
= 2000 kJ
5 kg of air at 4atm at 30°C. A portion of the air
efficiency of the cycle
is released till the pressure becomes 2 atm.
Later, the temperature of the air in the tank is W
η = net
found to be 150°C. The quantity of air allowed Qs
to escape is 800
(a) 4.72 kg (b) 4.12 kg =
2000
(c) 3.71 kg (d) 3.21 kg = 0.4
ESE 2018
18
74. If the compression or expansion of a gas takes 79.Orsat apparatus is used for analyzing.........
place in such a way that the gas neither gives (a) oxygen (b) air
heat nor takes heat from its surroundings, the (c) carbon dioxide (d) flue gases
process is said to be (HPPSC LECT. 2016)
APPSC AEE 2012 Ans : (d) Orsat apparatus is used for analyzing flue
(a) Isothermal (b) Adiabatic gases.
(c) Isobaric (d) None of these 80. A closed system is one which
Ans : (b) If the compression or expansion of a gas takes (a) permits the passage of energy and matter
place in such a way that the gas neither gives heat nor across the boundaries.
takes heat from its surrounding, the process is said to be (b) does not permit the passage of energy and
adiabatic. matter across the boundaries.
75. For an adiabatic process, (c) permit the passage of energy across the
(a) PV = a constant (b) PVn =a constant boundary but does not permit the passage of
P P matter.
(c) γ
=a constant (d) = a constant (d) permit the passage of energy across the
ρ Kρ
boundary but does not permit the passage of
APPSC 2012 matter.
Ans : (c) For an adiabatic process TSPSC AEE 2015
P Ans : (c) A closed system is one which permit the
= constant
ργ passage of energy across the boundary but does not
γ = Ratio of the specific heat at constant pressure to the permit the passage of matter.
specific heat at Constant volume. System Energy Work transfer
Cp / C v = 1.4 for air. transfer
Open system Yes Yes
76. The equation PV = mRT is essentially valid for Closed system Yes No
(a) Perfect gas (b) Real gas Isolated system No No
(c) Monoatomic gas (d) Mixture of gases
81. The density of water is maximum at
(KPSC AE 2015) (a) 20 0C (b) 4 0C
Ans : (a) The equation PV = mRT is essentially valid (c) 0 C0
(d) -4 0C
for perfect gas. UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
The equation PV = mRT may also be expressed in
Ans : (b) The maximum density of water occurs at 4 0C
another form
because, at this temperature two opposing effects are in
m balance.
P = RT
V In ice, the water molecules are in a crystal lattice that
P = ρRT has a lot of empty space. When the ice melts to liquid
water, the structure collapses and the density of the
77. The weight of oxygen in atmospheric air is liquid increases.
(a) 21% (b) 19% Thus, the density of water is a maximum at 4 0C
(c) 23% (d) 31%
(KPSC AE 2015)
Ans : (c) The weight of oxygen in atmospheric air 23%
78. The characteristic equation of gases PV = nRT
holds good for
(a) Monoatomic gases (b) diatomic gases
(c) real gases (d) ideal gases
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
Ans : (d) The Characteristic equation for gases
PV = nRT hold good for ideal gas. 82. A perfect gas at 27 ° C is heated at constant
Ideal gas equation, pressure so as to triple its volume. The final
PV = mRT temperature of the gas will be.
PV = nRT (a) 81 °C (b) 270°C
R (c) 627 °C (d) 900°C
Where R = (M → Molecular weight of gas)
M RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
m TSPSC AEE 2015
n= (R → Characteristic gas constant) Ans : (c) T = 27 + 273 = 300K
M 1
n = No. of mole [k-mol] T2 = ?
R = Universal gas constant V1 = Vm3
V2 = 3 Vm3
R = 8.3143 kJ/kg mol K Ideal gas Equation:-
19
 P1V1 P2 V2 (c) Specific volume (d) Heat
= UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
T1 T2
Ans. (d) : Heat
At Pressure constant
86. Which cycle has maximum efficiency for the
V1 V2 same temperature limits?
=
T1 T2 (a) Brayton (b) Carnot
V 3V (c) Rankine (d) Stirling
= UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
300 T2 Ans. (b) : Carnot
T2 = 900 K 87. The work done is constant volume process is
T2 = 627°C (a) maximum (b) minimum
83. A non-flow device compresses air isothermally (c) zero (d) unpredictable
at a temperature of 500oC from a pressure of UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
5.0 MPa to a final pressure of 15.0 MPa. If the Ans. (c) : Zero
device uses 200 kJ/kg of work input, then this 88. In a reversible adiabatic process heat added is
process is equal to
(a) impossible (a) zero (b) positive value
(b) irreversible
 λ −1  V1
(c) either reversible or irreversible (c) Cv   (T2 − T1 ) (d) PV1 1 log e
(d) reversible  1− n  V2
BHEL ET 2019 UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Ans. (a) : Given - Ans. (a) : Zero
T1 = 5000C 89. In an irreversible process there is a
T1 = 273 + 500 (a) loss of heat (b) no loss of heat
= 773 K (c) gain of heat (d) no gain of heat
P1 = 5.0 MPa UKPSC AE 2012, 2007 Paper–II
P2 = 15.0 MPa Ans. (a) : loss of heat
work input = 200 kJ/kg 90. Choose the correct alternative:
Non-flow isothermal process 1. First law for a closed system undergoing a
P  cycle Q – W = ∆E
work done WIsothermal = P1 V1ln  1  2. Two reversible adiabatic paths can not
 P2  intersect each other.
 P1  3. If two fluids are mixed, the entropy of
= mRT1l n   universe remains unchanged.
 P2  4. Clausius statement – Heat can flow from low
where, m = 1, R = 0.287 kJ/kg-K to high temperature body without the aid of
 5 external work.
WIsothermal = 1 × 0.287 × 773 l n   5. The efficiency of a reversible heat engine is
 15  independent of nature of working substance
= -243.728 kJ/kg undergoing a cycle.
W = 243 kJ/kg (work done on the system) (a) All statements are true.
Actual work input of the device (b) Statements 2 and 5 are true.
= 200 kJ/kg (c) Statements 1, 3, 4 and 5 are true.
• work done of the system 200 kJ/kg is less than (d) Statements 1, 3 and 5 are true.
actual work done of the system 243.7285 kJ/kg. UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
So, its impossible Ans. (b) : Statements 2 and 5 are true.
84. The net work done per kg of gas in a polytropic 91. The unit of work is
process is equal to (a) kW (b) kWh
V2 (c) kW/h (d) kJ/s
(a) PV1 1 log e (b) P1 (V1 – V2) UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
V1
Ans. (b) : kWh
 V  PV − PV 92. A system is taken from state A to state B along
(c) P2  V2 − 1  (d) 1 1 2 2
 V2  n − 1 two different paths 1 and 2. The heat absorbed
and work done by the system along these paths
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II are Q1 and Q2 and W1 and W2 respectively,
PV − PV then
Ans. (d) : 1 1 2 2
n −1 (a) Q1 = Q2 (b) W1 + Q1 = Q2 + W2
85. Which of the following is not a property of (c) W 1 = W 2 (d) Q1 – W1 = Q2 – W2
system? UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
(a) Temperature (b) Pressure Ans. (d) : Q 1 – W 1 = Q 2 – W 2

20
93. Which of the following is an irreversible 99. The pressure inside a balloon is proportional to
process ? the square of its diameter. It contains 2 kg of
(a) An isothermal process water at 150 kPa with 85% quality. The
(b) An isentropic process balloon and water are now heated so that a
(c) An isobaric process final pressure of 600 kPa is reached. the
(d) An isenthalpic process process undergone by the water is given by p-v
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II equation as :
Ans. (d) : An isenthalpic process (a) pv-2/3 = constant
94. The work in a closed system undergoing an (b) pv2/3 = constant
isentropic process is given by (c) pv2/5 = constant
γ γ −1 (d) pv-2/5 = constant
(a) mR ( T1 − T2 ) (b) mR ( T1 − T2 ) BHEL ET 2019
γ −1 γ Ans. (a) : pv-2/3 = constant
1 γ
(c) mR ( T1 − T2 ) (d) m ( T1 − T2 ) 100. A gas goes through a process given by pv 2 = c.
γ −1 γ −1
It expands from state 1 of 350 kPa and 0.049
(Notations used have usual meaning) m3 to a final pressure of 150 KPa. Work
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II delivered during this process in kJ is :
1 (a) 4.765 (b) 8.5
Ans. (c) : mR ( T1 − T2 )
γ −1 (c) 5.915 (d) 3.897
95. The thermal efficiency of a theoretical Otto BHEL ET 2019
cycle Ans. (c) : Given - PV2 = C
(a) increases with increase in compression ratio at state 1, –
(b) increases with increase in isentropic index γ P1 = 350 kPa
(c) does not depend on the pressure ratio V1 = 0.049 m3
(d) follows all the above P2 = 150 kPa
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II According to PV2 = C, n = 2
P1 V12 = P2 V22
Ans. (d) : follows all the above
350 × (0.049)2 = 150 × (V2)2
96. T1 is high and T2 is low temperature of a
350 × ( 0.049 )
2
Carnot heat engine. Which is the most efficient ( V2 )
2
=
way to increase efficiency? 150
(a) To increase T1 V2 = 0.07484 m3
(b) To decrease T2 P V − P2 V 2
(c) To increase T1 and T2 both Work done W = 1 1
n −1
(d) To decrease T1 and T2 both
350 × 0.049 − 150 × 0.0744848
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II =
Ans. (b) : 2 −1
= 5.9222 kJ
97. For non-flow closed system the value of net
energy transferred as heat and work equals 101. When the valve of an evacuated bottle is
change in:- opened, the atmospheric air rushes into it. If
(a) Enthalpy (b) Entropy the atmospheric pressure is 101.325 kPa and
(c) Internal energy (d) None of the above 0.6 m3 of air enters into the bottle, then the
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II work done by the air will be
Ans. (c) : (a) 80.8 kJ (b) 70.8 kJ
98. Pick the correct statement regarding path (c) 60.8 kJ (d) 50.8 kJ
function. ESE 2018
(a) The differentials of point functions are Ans. (c) : The displacement work done by air
inexact differentials
(b) The differentials of point functions & path
functions are exact differentials.
(c) The differentials of path function are inexact
differentials.
(d) The differentials of path functions are exact
differentials.

Ans. (c) :
BHEL ET 2019 W=
∫Bottle
PdV + ∫ Free air
boundary
PdV

• The differential of path functions are inexact = 0 + P∆V

differentials where as differential of point functions are = 101.325 × 0.6
exact differentials. = 60.8 kJ
21
102. For the quick response of a thermocouple 106. The identity δQ = dU + PdV is valid for :
(a) Its wire diameter should be large (a) Any process occurring in an open system
(b) The convective heat transfer coefficient (b) Any process occurring in a closed system
should be high (c) A quasi-static process without dissipation in a
(c) The specific heat should be high closed cycle
(d) The density should not be very small (d) Any process in any system
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
Ans : (b) For the quick response of a thermocouple the Ans. (c) : δQ = dU + PdV
convective heat transfer coefficient should be high. This equation is valid for closed system, quasi-static
process without dissipation in a closed cycle and
reversible process.
2. First Law of Thermodynamics 107. Heat transferred to a closed stationary system
constant volume is equal to
103. The first law of thermodynamics was developed (a) work transfer
by- (b) increased in internal energy
(a) Joule (b) Kelvin (c) increase in enthalpy
(c) Charles (d) Carnot (d) increase in gibbs function
RPSC AE 2018 RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II Ans : (b) δQ = dU + δW
Ans. (a) : The first law of thermodynamics was for constant volume close system
developed by Joule. W=0
First law of thermodynamics—When a closed system Hence,
executes a complete cycle the sum of heat interactions δQ = dU
is equal to the sum of work interaction. 108. The short coming of first law of
∑ Q = ∑W thermodynamics is
The summations being over the entire cycle. (a) Direction of process
(b) Possibility of process
(c) Quality of energy
(d) Quantity of energy
JPSC AE PRE 2019
Ans. (d) : The short coming of first law of
thermodynamics is quantity of energy.
QA 1− 2 + QB 2 −1 = WA 1− 2 + WB 2 −1 • The short coming of second law of thermodynamics is
quality of energy.
104. Joules law states the specific internal energy of 109. In a steady flow process, across the control
a gas depends only on volume mass and energy flow
(a) the pressure of the gas (a) Varies continuously
(b) the volume of the gas (b) Remain constant
(c) the temperature of the gas (c) Depends on control surface
(d) pressure and volume of the gas (d) Depends on type of process
TNPSC AE 2018 JPSC AE PRE 2019
Ans. (c) : Joules law states the specific internal energy Ans. (b) : Assumptions made in steady flow processes
of a gas depends only on the temperature of the gas. are
u = f (T) only (i) Control volume moves relative to the coordinate
105. Internal energy of an isolated system : frame.
(a) Increases with addition on heat (ii) The state of the mass at each discrete area of flow
(b) Increases with increase in mass of the system on the control surface does not vary with time. The
(c) Remains same rate at which heat and work cross the control
(d) Increases with addition of work surface remain constant.
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 110. During throttling process :
Ans. (c) : Internal energy of an isolated system remains (a) internal energy does not change
same. (b) pressure does not change
According to first law of thermodynamics (c) volume does not change
δQ = dU + δW (d) enthalpy does not change
For isolated system UKPSC AE-2013, 2007 Paper-II
δW = 0 RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
δQ = 0 OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
dU = 0 Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Internal energy of perfect gas is only function of (KPSC AE. 2015)
temperature only. UPRVUNL AE 2014
22
Ans : (d) During throttling process enthalpy does not 113. The change in enthalpy of a closed system is
change. equal to the heat transferred, if the reversible
Throttling process:- Steam is said to be throttled when process takes place at constant
it passes through a restricted opening such as a narrow (a) Temperature (b) Pressure
aperture or a slightly opened valve. The leakage of a (c) Volume (d) Entropy
fluid through a crack in the vessel is an example of RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
throttling Ans. (b) : From Tds equation,
Tds = dh – VdP
Tds = dQ (for reversible process)
dQ = dh when, dP = 0
Hence for constant pressure process,
dQ = dh
114. Gas expands for a definite volume in a closed
vessel. The maximum work will be done when
the process is at constant
(a) Volume (b) Temperature
(c) Pressure (d) Enthalpy
It may be noted that throttling process:- UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
(i) No heat is supplied or rejected (1Q2 = O) Ans : (c) Gas expands for a definite volume in a closed
(ii) No Work is done by the expending fluid (1W2=0) vessel. The maximum work will be done when the
(iii) No Change in the internal energy (du=o) process is at constant pressure.
(iv) The enthalpy by or total heat of the fluid remains Work done during a Non-flow process:-
constant (h1=h2)
111. During an isothermal expansion process of a
gas :
(a) pressure remains constant
(b) temperature remains constant
(c) both pressure and temperature remain
constant
(d) none of the above
2 2
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) W1− 2 = ∫ δW = ∫ P.dv
1 1
Ans : (b) During an isothermal expansion process of a
Work done for non-flow process from state 1 to state 2
gas temperature remains constant.
From above, we see that the work done is given by the
112. An ideal gas is filled in a balloon kept in an area under the P - V diagram.
evacuated and insulated room When the
115. During mixing of steams in case of air
balloon ruptures, the gas fills up the entire conditioning, the process is associated with:
room. Now internal energy of gas.......... and the (a) Throttling (b) Adiabatic
enthalpy of gas.......... at the end of this process. (c) Isobaric (d) Isochoric
(a) increases, increases UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
(b) constant, decreases Ans : (b) During mixing of steams in case of air
(c) constant, constant conditioning, the process is associated with adiabatic.
(d) decreases, increases 116. The heat absorbed or rejected during a
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) polytropic process is equal to :
Ans : (c) An ideal gas is filled in a balloon kept in an 1
 γ−n
2

evacuated and insulated room. when the balloon (a)   x workdone

ruptures, the gas fills up the entire room. Now internal  γ −1 
energy of gas constant and the enthalpy of gas constant γ−n
(b)   x workdone
at the end of this process.  n −1 
Internal energy of gas (dU) = mcvdt 2
 γ−n
Enthalpy of gas (dH) = mcpdt (c)   x workdone
Internal energy and Enthalpy of an ideal gas is a  γ −1 
function of temperature γ−n
dU = f (T) (d)   x workdone
 γ −1 
dH = f (T)
MPPSC AE 2016
23
Ans : (d) Ans : (c)
Adiabatic Process 1–2
1Q2 = 0
1Q2 – 1W2 = 1U2
0 – (–5000) = 1U2
U2 – U1 = 5000 J
Non Adiabatic Process 2–1
2Q1 – 2W1 = 2U1 = U1 – U2
= – (U2 – U1)
– 1000 – 2W1 = – 5000
2W1 = 6000 J
120. In a heat exchanger, 50 kg of water is heated
Heat supplied or heat transferred per minute from 50°C to 110°C by hot gases
γ-n mR(T1 -T2 ) which enter the heat exchanger at 250°C. The
Q1-2 = × value of Cp for water is 4.186 kJ/kg.K and for
γ-1 n-1
air is 1 kJ/kg.K. If the flow rate of gases is 100
mR ( T1 -T2 ) kg/min, the net change of enthalpy of air will be
work done during polytropic expension= nearly
n-1
γ-n (a) 17.6 MJ/min (b) 15.0 MJ/min
Q1-2 = ×work done (c) 12.6 MJ/min (d) 10.0 MJ/min
γ-1 ESE 2020
117. What is the rise in temperature of 80 litres of
Ans. (c) : m w c pw (T1 − T2 ) = m ɺ air (∆h)air
water in 40 min by a heater of 2 kW. If whole
of the heater energy used to raise the water = Enthalpy change of air
temperature? 50 × 4.186 × 60
(a) 14.3ºC (b) 1.43ºC = = 12.558 MJ/min
1000
(c) 2.52 ºC (d) 25.2 ºC
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II ≈ 12.6 MJ/min
Ans : (a) : 121. A system executes a cycle during which there
Heat taken by water = Heat given by heater are four heat transfers Q12 = 220 kJ, Q23 = -25
Heat (Q) = mCp ∆T = Power × time kJ, Q34 = -180 kJ, Q41 = 50 kJ. The work during
80 × 4.2 × ∆T = 2× 40 × 60 tube of the processes is W12 = 15 kJ, W23 = -10
2 × 40 × 60 kJ, W34 = 60 kJ. The work done during the
∆T = process 4 – 1 is
80 × 4.2
= 14.28ºC (a) –230 kJ (b) 0 kJ
≈ 14.3ºC (c) 230 kJ (d) 130 kJ
TNPSC 2019
118. In a reversible isothermal expansion process,
3
the fluid expands from 10 bar and 2 m to 2 bar Ans. (b) : According to first law of thermodynamics
and 10 m3. During this expansion process, 100 [ ΣQ] = [ ΣW ] [ for cyclic process]
kW of heat is supplied. Then the work done Q + Q + Q + Q = W + W + W + W
1-2 2-3 3-4 4-1 1-2 2-3 3-4 4-1
during the process is 220 + (-25) + (-180) + 50 = 15 + (-10) + 60 + W4-1
(a) 33.3 kW (b) 80 kW
(c) 100 kW (d) 20 kW W4−1 = 0 kJ
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V 122. Consider the following devices :
Ans : (c) : Assuming ideal gas and reversible 1. Internal combustion engine working on Otto
isothermal process, cycle
δQ = dU + δW 2. Internal combustion engine working on
δQ = δW Diesel cycle
for isothermal and ideal gas 3. Gas turbines
U = f(T) 4. Steam turbines
As heat transfer is 100 kW is given, work will also be In which of the above devices, the equation dQ
equal to 100 kW. = dU + Pdv is not applicable ?
119. In an adiabatic process 5000 J of work is (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
performed on a system. The system returns to (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
its original state while 1000 J of heat is added. UPSC JWM 2017
The work done during non adiabatic process. Ans. (c) : δQ = dU + δW ...(1)
(a) +4000J (b) –4000J
(c) +6000J (d) –6000J δQ = dU + PdV ...(2)
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016 The equation (2) is applicable for the closed system.
24
123. The steady flow energy equation of a perfect 126. A system is composed of a gas contained in a
gas flowing through a nozzle with the initial cylinder fitted with a piston. The gas expands
and final velocities of V1 and V2 are given by from the state 1 for which E1 = 75 kJ to a state
V − V1
2 2 2 for which E2 = – 25 kJ. During the expansion,
(a) h1 = h2 (b) h1 − h2 = 2 the gas does 60 kJ of work surroundings. The
2
heat transferred to or from the systems during
V − V2
2 2
W process is:
(c) h1 − h2 = 1 (d) h1 − h2 = X
2 m (a) – 30 kJ (b) – 40 kJ
TNPSC AE 2013 (c) 30 kJ (d) 40 kJ
Ans. (b) : We know that SFEE, TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
 V 2
 Ans. (b) : Given as,
m 1 h 1 + 1 + Z1  + Q E1 = 75 kJ, E2 = –25 kJ
 2  W = 60 kJ
 V2  Q=?
= m 2 h 2 + 2 + Z 2  + W We know that
 2 
Q = ∆E + W
For nozzle Q = (–25 – 75) + 60
We assume that
Q = –40 kJ
Z1 = Z2, Q = 0, W = 0
then we get 127. For a heat engine cycle, which of the following
relation is always true [Q = heat transfer, W=
V22 − V12
(h1 − h 2 ) = work transfer]
2 (a) ∑ Q = 0 ∑ W = 0 (b) ∑ Q = ∑ W
124. Heat transfer in a cyclic process are +20 kJ, -5 cycle cycle cycle cycle
kJ, -10 kJ and +15 kJ. Net work done for this (c) ∑ Q > ∑ W (d) ∑ Q < ∑ W
cycle will be given by: cycle cycle cycle cycle
(a) +0 kJ (b) -20 kJ
SJVN ET 2019
(c) +20 kJ (d) -10 kJ
UPRVUNL AE 2016 Ans. (b) : ∑ Q = ∑ W
cycle cycle
Ans. (c) : From first law of thermodynamics.
128. Flow work is analogous to
%∫ Q = %∫ W (a) Stirring work (b) Electrical work
QNet = Wnet (c) Displacement work (d) Shaft work
Wnet = 20 - 5 - 10 + 15 JPSC AE PRE 2019
Wnet = + 20 kJ
Ans. (c) : Work in steady flow process = ∫ VdP
125. 1 kg liquid (specific heat = 3.0 kJ/kg-K) is
stirred in closed chamber and its temperature Work in non-flow process = PdV
is raised by 10ºC. Heat loss to the surrounding
∫
is 3.0 kJ. The work done on the water during 129. If H be the heat supplied to the system to do
the process will be: work W and change in internal energy as ∆U,
(a) 36 kJ (b) 30 kJ then,
(c) 27 kJ (d) 33 kJ (a) H = ∆U + W (b) ∆U = H + W
UPRVUNL AE 2016 (c) W = H + ∆U (d) H = W/∆U
Ans. (d) : From energy balance equation. SJVN ET 2013
Ans. (a) : First Law of thermodynamics
H = ∆U + W
where, H = Heat supplied
∆U = Internal energy
W = work
130. If δQ is the heat transferred to the system and
δW is the work done by the system, then which
Work done on the closed system (W) = Change in of the following is an exact differential
internal energy of the system + heat loss to the (a) δQ (b) δW
surrounding. (c) δQ + δW (d) δQ – δW
W = mCv∆T + QLoss Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
W = 1 × 3 × 10 + 3 Ans. (d) : δQ–δW, will shows the exact differential
W = 33 kJ form
25
131. An elastic generator coupled to a windmill 134. During a constant pressure expansion of a gas,
produces an average electric power of 6 kW. 33.3% heat is converted into work while the
The power is used to charge a storage battery. temperature rises by 20K. The specific heat of
Heat transfer from the battery to the the gas at constant pressure as a proportion of
surroundings is 0.3 kW. What will be the work, W is
amount of energy stored in the battery in 2 (a) 8% (b) 10%
hours? (c) 12% (d) 15%
(a) 41040 kW (b) 114 kW ESE 2017
(c) 11.4 kJ (d) 41040 kJ Ans. (d) : Work (W) = 33.3% Q
SJVN ET 2019 W = 0.33 Q
Ans. (d) : Given, Temperature rise (∆T) = 20 K
δQ = – 0.3 kW We know that Q = CP ∆T
δW = – 6 kW W
dU = ? = CP × 20
0.33
dU = δQ – δW CP = 0.15 W
dU = – 0.3 + 6 i.e. specific heat of the gas at constant pressure is 15%
= 5.7 kW of the work.
dU = 5.7 × 2 × 3600 135. A cylinder contains 10m3 of an ideal gas at a
= 41040 kJ pressure of 2 bar. This gas is compressed in a
132. Statement I: The energy of an isolated system is reversible isothermal process till its pressure
constant. increases to 15 bar. What quantum of work
Statement II: The entropy of an isolated system will be required for this process?
can increase but cannot decrease. (You can use the table given herewith.)
ESE 2018 Number 2 2.5 3 5 7
Ans. (b) : Energy of the isolated system is constant as Log10 0.301 0.397 0.475 0.698 0.845
there is no energy interaction. Entropy of an isolated
(a) 4500 kJ (b) 4030 kJ
system always increases and never decreases.
(c) 450 kJ (d) 403 kJ
133. A system absorbs 100 kJ as heat and does 60 kJ ESE 2017
work along the path 1-2-3. The same system Ans. (b) : Given,
does 20 kJ work along the path 1-4-3. The heat V1 = 10 m3
absorbed during the path 1-4- 3 is P1 = 2 bar
P = 15 bar
For reversible isothermal process work done is given by
P 
W1-2 = P1V1 ln  1 
 P2 
 2
2 × 105 × 10 ln   = – 4029.8 ≃ 4030 kJ (work done on
 15 
(a) –140 kJ (b) –80 kJ the system)
(c) 80 kJ (d) 60 kJ 136. During a certain compression process, 1 kJ of
ESE 2018 mechanical work input is supplied to 2 kg of a
Ans. (d) : Given, gas enclosed in a cylinder piston assembly and
Q123 = 100 kJ 400 J of heat is rejected to the cooling water
W123 = 60 kJ being circulated in the jacket encasing the
W143 = 20 kJ cylinder. This brings about a change in the
specific internal energy by:
(a) –700 J kg-1 (b) 600 J kg -1
-1
(c) 300 J kg (d) –300 J kg-1
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans : (c)
Work input = 1000J
Rejected heat = 400J
For path 1−2−3 mass = 2 kg.
Q123 = U3 − U1 + W123 first law of thermodynamics
U3 − U1 = 100 − 60 = 40 kJ δQ = dU + δW.
For path 1−4−3 dU =δQ - δW.
Q143 = U3 − U1 + W143 dU = -400+1000
= 40 + 20 = 60 kJ dU = 600J
26
 Internal energy 600 Ans : (c) Open system work:-
Specific internal energy = = 2
mass
u = 300 J/Kg
2 ∫ δW = − ∫
1
Vdp

(δ → show that heat and work both are inexact

differential)
137. The internal energy of a certain system is a
function of temperature alone and is given by
the formula E = 25+0. 25t kJ. If this system
executes a process for which the work done
done by it per degree temperature increases is For reversible adiabatic compression work done
dE = ∫ dw = − ∫ vdp
0.75 KN-m, = Q − W,
dt 140. For a non-flow constant pressure process the
the heat interaction per degree temperature heat exchange is equal to:
increase, in kJ. is (a) Zero
(a) –1.00 (b) 1.00 (b) The work done
(c) –0.50 (d) 0.50 (c) The change in internal energy
MPPSC AE 2016 (d) The change in enthalpy
Ans : (b) E = 25 + 0.25t KJ OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
dE Ans : (d) : Since enthalpy change of a system
= 0.25kJ / °c undergoing a process
dt
dH = Tds + VdP
and
For reversible process
δw ∵ Tds = δQ
= 0.75kJ / °c
dt ∴dH = δQ + VdP
from the first law of thermodynamics If pressure is constant
δQ = δW + dE dP = 0
δQ δW dE dH = δQ
= +
dt dt dt 141. A piston-cylinder device with air at an initial
δQ = 0.25 + 0.75 temperature of 30°C undergoes an expansion
δQ = 1.00 kJ process for which pressure and volume are
138. A system undergoes process a process in which related as given below:
the heat transfer to the system is 30 KJ and the p(kPa) 100 37.9 14.4
work done by the system is 35000 Nm. The V (m3) 0.1 0.2 0.4
change in internal energy of the system is The work done by the system for n = 1.4 will be
(a) +5 KJ (b) –5 KJ (a) 4.8 kJ (b) 6.8 kJ
(c) –10 KJ (d) + 10 KJ
(c) 8.4 kJ (d) 10.6 kJ
TSPSC AEE 2015 ESE 2020
Ans : (b) According to first law of thermodynamic Ans. (d) :
δQ = dU + δW
PV −P V
dU = δQ – δW Work done, W = 1 1 3 3
n −1
100 × 0.1 − 14.4 × 0.4
=
1.4 − 1
W = 10.6kJ
142. A carnot heat pump absorbs heat from
atmosphere at 10 °C and supplies it to a room
maintained at 25 °C. A temperature difference
dU = –5 KJ. of 5 °C exists between working fluid and
139. Air is compressed adiabatically in a steady flow atmosphere on one hand, and the required
process with negligible change in potential and room temperature on the other hand. If the
kinetic energy. The work done in the process is heat pump consumes 1 kW power, the heat
given by delivered to the room will be
(a) − ∫ pdv (b) + ∫ pdv (a) 12.1 kW (b) 14.9 kW
(c) 1.67 kW (d) 19.9 kW
(c) − ∫ vdp (d) + ∫ vdp UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II Ans. (a) : 12.1 kW
27
143. Air is compressed isothermally by performing
work equal to 16 kJ upon it. The change in
3. Second Law of
internal energy is Thermodynamics
(a) –16 kJ (b) Zero
(c) 16 kJ (d) 32 kJ 148. Which one of the following statements is
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II correct?
(a) A machine which violates Clausius statement
Ans. (b) : Zero will violate the first law of thermodynamics
144. A mixture of gases expands from 0.03 m3 to (b) A machine which violates Kelvin-Plank
0.06 m3 at constant pressure of 1MPa and statement will violate the first law of
absorbs 84 kJ of heat during the process. The thermodynamics
change in internal energy of the mixture is (c) A machine which violates the second law of
(a) 30 kJ (b) 54 kJ thermodynamics will violate the first law of
thermodynamics
(c) 84 kJ (d) 114 kJ
(d) A machine which violates Kelvin-Plank
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II statement will violate the Clausius statement
TNPSC AE 2013 UPSC JWM 2017
Ans. (b) : Given, Ans. (d) : Kelvin Plank Statement- It is impossible for
V1 = 0.03 m3 a heat engine to produced net work in a complete cycle
V2 = 0.06 m3 if it exchange heat only with bodies at a single fixed
P = 1 MPa temperature.
Q = 84 kJ Clausius statement- It is impossible to construct an
Work done W = pdV = p(V2 – V1) engine which operates in a cycle, transfer heat from
cooler body to hotter body without any work input.
= 1 × (0.06 – 0.03) A machine which violated Kelvin plank statement will
= 0.03 MPa violate the clausius statement.
= 0.03 × 103 kJ 149. Which of the followings is correct statement?
= 30 kJ (a) Entropy of isolated system always decreases
From first law of thermodynamic (b) Energy always degrades during the real
Q = W + ∆U process
∆U = Q – W (c) Energy always destroyed during the real
= 84 – 30 process
(d) Heat transfer through a finite temperature
∆U = 54 kJ difference is reversible process
145. A machine produces 100 kJ work by UPRVUNL AE 2016
consuming 100 kJ heat. This machine will be Ans. (b) : • Entropy of isolated system always increase
called:- or remain constant.
(a) PMM - I (b) PMM - II • Energy always degrades during the real process.
(c) PMM - III (d) None of the above • Energy losses occur during the real process not
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II destroyed.
• Heat transfer through finite temperature difference is
Ans. (b) :
irreversible process.
146. For a steady flow system (where kinetic and 150. Which of the following devices complies with
potential energies are negligible), the first law the Clausius statement of the second law of
of thermodynamics can be expressed as:- thermodynamics?
i i (a) Closed-cycle gas turbine
(a) dQ – dW = dU (b) Q− W = ∆E (b) Internal combustion engine
i i i i (c) Steam power plant
(c) Q− W = ∆U (d) Q− W = ∆H (d) Domestic refrigerator
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II ESE 2018
Ans. (d) : Ans. (d) : Clausius statement is related to refrigerator
and heat pump not with heat engine.
147. For a process, the value of %∫ ( δQ − δW ) is:- 151. If a closed system is undergoing an irreversible
(a) Positive (b) Negative process, the entropy of the system:
(c) Zero (d) Unpredictable (a) Must decrease (b) Zero
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II (c) Must increase (d) Remain constant
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans. (c) : %∫ ( δQ − δW ) = %∫ E Ans : (c) : The entropy may increase, decrease or
It is a property of the system so cyclic integration of the remains constant depending upon heat involved and
system property will be zero. internal irreversibility.
28
152. A thermodynamic cycle is composed of four (i) Isothermal expansion:-
processes. The heat added and the work done Q1−2 = P1V1ln ( V2 / V1 ) [Heat supplied]
in each process are as follows:
(ii) Isentropic expansion:-
Process Heat transfer Work done
(J) (J) mR(T1 − T2 )
Decrease in internal energy =
1- 2 0 50 (by the gas) γ −1
2-3 50 0 (iii) Isothermal compression:-
(from the gas) Q3−4 = P3 V3 ln ( V4 / V3 )
3-4 0 20 (on the gas)
(iv) Isentropic compression:-
4-1 80 (to the gas) 0
The thermal efficiency of the cycle is mR(T1 − T3 )
Increase in internal energy =
(a) 20.3% (b) 37.5% γ −1
(c) 40.3% (d) 62.5% 155. A reversible Carnot engine operates between
ESE 2018 27ºC and 1527ºC, and produces 400 kW of net
Ans. (b) : Heat rejected (Q2) = 50 power. The change of entropy of the working
Heat added (Q1) = 80 fluid during the heat addition process is
Thermal efficiency of the cycle (a) 0.222 kW/K (b) 0.266 kW/K
Q (c) 0.288 kW/K (d) 0.299 kW/K
η =1− 2 ESE 2018
Q1
Ans. (b) : Given,
50
=1− = 37.5% T1 = 1527 + 273 = 1800 K
80 T2 = 27 + 273 = 300 K
153. Consider the following statements: W = 400 kW
1. Heat pumps and air conditioners have the
same mechanical components.
2. The same system can be used as heat pump in
winter and as air conditioner in summer.
3. The capacity and efficiency of a heat pump
fall significantly at high temperatures.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only W T
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Efficiency η = =1− 2 (For Carnot engine)
ESE 2018 Q1 T1
Ans. (d) : Heat pumps and air conditioners have the W T
=1− 2
same mechanical components. Q1 T1
Therefore it is not economical to have two separate 400 300
systems to meet the heating and cooling requirements of =1−
a building. One system can be used as a heat pump in Q1 1800
winter and an air conditioner in summer. Heat input (Q1) = 480 kW
Heat pump is a device used to maintain the temperature Q 480
of system higher than that of surroundings by supplying Entropy change (∆S) = 1 = = 0.266 kW/K
T1 1800
heat to system To evaluate the performance of a heat
pump, COP is calculated. It is defined as the ratio of 156. An engine works on the basis of Carnot cycle
desired effect to external work supplied. operating between temperatures of 800 K and
Note : The answer given by UPSC is option (b). 400 K. If the heat supplied is 100 kW, the
154. The area of a p-v diagram for a Carnot cycle output is
represents (a) 50 kW (b) 60 kW
(a) Heat supplied (b) Heat rejected (c) 70 kW (d) 80 kW
(c) Work done (d) Temperature drop ESE 2018
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II Ans. (a) : Given,
TPSC AE 2015 T1 = 800 K, T2 = 400 K
Ans : (c) The area on a P-V diagram for a Carnot cycle Q1 = 100 kW, W = ?
represents work done.

29
We know that Wmax (1020 − 280)
Work output =
η= Q1 1020
Heat supplied Wmax = 0.725 Q1
W T2 W 0.70 Q1
η= =1− η II = =
Q1 T1 Wmax 0.725 Q1
W 400 ηII = 0.965
=1− = 0.5
100 800 159. Gas A at 1 MPa, 100°C and Gas B at 5 MPa,
W = 50 kW 100°C are mixed such that final temperature
157. A heat engine receives 1 kW of heat transfer at after mixing remains 100°C. The process is
1200 K and gives out 600 W as work, with the adiabatic. The entropy of the gases after
rest as heat transfer to the ambient at 300 K. mixing:-
The second law efficiency of the engine is : (a) Will increase
(a) 70% (b) 90% (b) Will remain same
(c) 80% (d) 60% (c) Will decrease
BHEL ET 2019 (d) Cannot be calculated
Ans. (c) : Heat supplied (QS) = 1 kW UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Wnet = 600 W Ans. (b) :
TH = 1200 K, TL = 300 K 160. If the COP of a Carnot refrigerator is 6, then
Wnet 600 the ratio of higher temperature to lower is :
η Actual = = = 0.60 (a) 6 : 1 (b) 3 : 2
Q S 1000
(c) 4 : 3 (d) 7 : 6
TH − TL TL BHEL ET 2019
η maximum = = 1−
TH TH Ans. (d) : Given - (COP)Ref = 6
300 TL
= 1− (COP)Ref =
1200 TH − T L
= 1 – 0.25 1
ηmaximum = 0.75 6=
TH
Second law of efficiency of engine −1
TL
η actual 0.60
η II = = × 100 TH 1
η max imum 0.75 −1 =
= 80% T L 6
158. A Carnot cycle engine receives and rejects heat TH 1
= +1
with a 200C temperature differential between TL 6
itself and the thermal energy reservoirs. The
expansion and compression processes have a TH 7
=
pressure ratio of 50. For 1 kg of air as the TL 6
working substance, cycle temperature limits of
1000 K and 300 K and T0= 280 K, determine 161. An engine operates between temperature limits
the second law efficiency. of 900 K and T2 and the other engine operates
(a) 0.935 (b) 0.945 between T2 and 400 K. For both engines to be
(c) 0.955 (d) 0.965 equally efficient, T2 should be equal to
(e) 0.975 (a) 600 K (b) 625 K
CGPSC AE 2014 -II (c) 650 K (d) 700 K
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
Ans. (c) : UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans : (a) : Given as,
T1 = 900 K
T3 = 400 K
If the efficiency are equal then
we know that
T2 = T1 × T3
T2 = 900 × 400
T2 = 600K
W T1 − T2 (1000 − 300)
= = = 0.7 162. A frictionless heat engine can be 100% efficient
Q1 T1 1000 only if its exhaust temperature is
W = Q1 × 0.7 (a) equal to its input temperature
30
 (b) less than its input temperature T −T
(c) 0ºC Reversible Efficiency = 1 2
T1
(d) 0 K
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper W Q -Q
Efficiency = Net = 1 2
Ans. (d) : A frictionless heat engine can be 100% Q1 Q1
efficiency only if its exhaust temperature is 0 K.
163. An inventor claims a thermal engine operates T
η = 1− 2
between ocean layers at 27°C and 10°C. It T1
produces 10 kW and discharges 9900 kJ/min. 165. Carnot cycle consists of
Such an engine is
(a) Two constant volume & two isentropic
(a) Impossible b) Reversible
processes
(c) Possible (d) Probable
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 (b) Two isothermal and two isentropic processes
(c) Two constant pressure and two isentropic
Ans. (a) :
processes
(d) One constant volume, one constant pressure
and two isentropic processes
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
TNPSC AE 2018
(KPSC AE. 2015)
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (b) : Carnot cycle consists of two isothermal and
two isentropic processes.
T1 = 27°C = 300 K
T2 = 10°C = 283 K
Maximum or Carnot efficiency
T 283
ηmax = 1 − 2 = 1 −
T1 300
= 0.056 = 5.66%
Efficiency of new engine
Q W
ηactual = 1 − 2 = net Processes
Q1 Q1
1 - 2 → Isothermal expansion
10 2 - 3 → Isentropic expansion
= 6.06%
 9900  3 - 4 → Isothermal compression
 60  4 - 1 → Isentropic compression
Actual efficiency is more than the Carnot efficiency 166. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for–
which is impossible. (a) Petrol engine
164. The efficiency of a reversible cycle depends (b) Diesel engine
upon the- (c) Reversible engine
(a) nature of the working substance (d) Irreversible engine
(b) amount of the working substance Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
(c) temperature of the two reservoirs between Ans. (c) : Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for
which the cycle operates Reversible engine. According to the Carnot theorem,
(d) type of cycle followed the reversible engine will always have a greater
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016 efficiency than the irreversible.
Ans : (c) The efficiency of a reversible cycle depends 167. One reversible heat engine operates between
upon the temperature of the two reservoirs between 1600 K and T2 K and another reversible heat
which the cycle operates. engine operates between T2 K and 400 K. If
both the engines have the same heat input and
output, then temperature T2 is equal to
(a) 800 K (b) 1000 K
(c) 1200 K (d) 1400 K
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans. (a) : Since both reversible engines have same and
output, therefore efficiency will be same
31
168. The more effective way of increasing efficiency
of Carnot Engine is 300  −150 
(a) Increase of Source temperature = + 
563  281.5 
(b) Decrease of Source temperature
(c) Increase of Sink temperature ∆S = 0
(d) Decrease of Sink temperature It means the cycle is reversible
APPSC AEE 2016 171. Carnot cycle efficiency is maximum when
Ans. (d) : The more effective way of increasing (a) initial temperature is 0oK
efficiency of Carnot Engine is decrease of Sink (b) final temperature is 0oK
temperature. (c) difference between initial and final
169. If carnot engine rejects heat at temperature of temperature is 0oK
400 K and accepts at 750K. What shall be heat (d) final temperature is 0oC
absorbed, if heat rejected is 1000 kJ. TNPSC AE 2018
(a) 946 kJ (b) 800 kJ JPSC AE PRE 2019
(c) 1875 kJ (d) 750 kJ Ans. (b) : We known that Carnot cycle efficiency
TNPSC AE 2017 depends on source and sink temperature limits,
Ans. (c) : T
ηc = 1 − L
TH
If TL → 0o K then
( η c ) max = 100%
172. If the temperature of the source is increased,
the efficiency of the Carnot engine-
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) will be equal to the efficiency of a practical
engine
For Carnot engine, (d) does not change
ηideal = ηactual RPSC AE 2018
T Q Ans. (b) : We know that the efficiency of Carnot
1− L = 1− L engine.
TH QH
T
1000 × 750 ηc = 1 − sink
QH = Tsource
400
QH = 1875 kJ If temperature of source Tsource increase than ηc ↑
170. 300 kJ/s of heat is supplied at a constant fixed 173. The device that produces network in a
temperature of 290oC to a heat engine. 150 kJ/s complete cycle by exchanging heat only with
of heat are rejected at 8.5 oC. Then the cycle is single thermal energy reservoir is known as:
reported as (a) PMM3 (b) Heat pump
(a) Reversible (b) Irreversible (c) PMM2 (d) PMM1
(c) Impossible (d) Random UPRVUNL AE 2016
TNPSC AE 2018 Ans. (c) : PMM-1—Perpetual motion machine of first
Ans. (a) : TH = 290oC = 563 K kind does not exist because such machines violate the
TL = 8.5 oC = 281.5 K first law of thermodynamics such machines will
δQ S δQ R produce the energy by itself and as we know that
∆S = + according to the law of energy conservation, energy
TH TL could not be created or destroyed but could be
32
converted from one form of energy to other form of 176. A heat pump operates between two heat
energy. reservoirs, one at 800 K and other at 400 K.
What will be the coefficient of performance
(COP) of the heat pump?
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0
(c) 1.5 (d) 2.0
(e) 2.5
PMM-2—Perpetual motion machines of second kind (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
are those machines that violate the second law of
T1 800
thermodynamics because such machines will absorb Ans. (d) : [COP]H.P. = =
continuously heat energy from a single thermal T1 − T2 800 − 400
reservoir and will convert the absorbed heat energy 800
completely into work energy. [COP]H.P. = =2
400
Such machine will have 100% efficiency.

177. The enthalpy of the fluid before throttling is

PMM-3—Perpetual motion machine of third kind of _______ the enthalpy of the fluid after
imaginary machine that has zero friction. throttling.
174. Second law of thermodynamics is known as the (a) equal to
law of (b) greater than
(a) Energy (b) Entropy (c) less than
(c) Enthalpy (d) Internal energy (d) greater than or equal to
HPPSC AE 2018 (e) less than or equal to
HPPSC LECT. 2016 (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II Ans. (a) : Throttling Process–A throttling process is
Ans. (b) : Second law of thermodynamics is known as defined as a process in which there is no change in
the law of Entropy or qualitative law of enthalpy from state 1 to state 2. [h1 = h2]
thermodynamics whereas first law of thermodynamics ! It is highly irreversible process
is known as the law of internal energy or quantitative ! There is no work done (W = 0)
law of thermodynamics. ! Process is adiabatic (Q = 0)
175. Perpetual motion machine of second kind ! Enthalpy will remain constant.
(PMM-II) violates the
178. The efficiency (η) of a reversible heat engine
(a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
(b) First law of thermodynamics receiving heat solely at T1 and rejecting heat
(c) Second law of thermodynamics solely at T2 is given by:
(d) Third law of thermodynamics T −T T −T
(a) η = 1 2 (b) η = 2 1
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 T2 T2
Ans. (c) : Perpetual motion machine of second kind T1 − T2 T2 − T1
(PMM-II) violates the second law of thermodynamics. (c) η = (d) η =
T1 T1
ηHE = 100%
T2 − T1
(e) η =
T12
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
W
Ans. (c) : ηrev. =
Q1
Q1 − Q 2
=
Q1
Q
ηrev. = 1 − 2
Q1
33
 182. Dry saturated steam enters a frictionless
adiabatic nozzle with negligible velocity at a
temperature of 300oC [h1 = 2751 kJ/kg]. It is
expanded to a pressure of 5 MPa isentropically
[h2 = 2651 kJ/kg]. What will be the exit velocity
of steam?
(a) 447.21 m/s (b) 572.33 m/s
(c) 14.14 m/s (d) 150.32 m/s
For reversible engine SJVN ET 2019
Q1 T1 Ans. (a) : As per SFEE
= , So
Q 2 T2 v12 v2
h1 + =w+ 2 (if h in kJ/kg)
T 2000 2000
ηrev. = 1 − 2
T1 w = 0, v1 = 0
v 2 = 2000 × ( 2751 − 2651) = 447.21 m / s
T1 − T2
ηrev. =
T1 183. A heat engine working on the Carnot cycle
receives heat at the rate of 50 kW from a
179. A thermal reservoir is a body of source at 1300K and rejects it to a sink at
(a) Small heat capacity 400K. The heat rejected is
(b) Large heat capacity (a) 20.3 kW (b) 15.4 kW
(c) Infinite heat capacity (c) 12.4 kW (d) 10.8 kW
(d) Large work capacity ESE 2017
JPSC AE PRE 2019 Ans. (b) : Given,
Ans. (c) : Thermal Reservoir—It is a large body with T1 = 1300 K
infinite heat capacity which can supply or absorbs T2 = 400 K
unlimited quantity of heat without appreciable change Q1 = 50 kW
in its temperature.
Example—Atmosphere, ocean, river, industrial
furnace, two phase mixture of liquid and vapour.
• It is supplies heat then it is called a source.
• It is absorbs heat then it is called a sink.
180. An engine operates between temperature of 900
o
K and T2 and another engine between T2 and
400 oK for both to do equal work, value of T2
will be Efficiency of engine
(a) 650 oK (b) 600 oK Workdone
(c) 625 oK (d) 750 oK η=
Heat Supplied
SJVN ET 2013
Ans. (a) : For work to be equal W T1 − T2
η= = For carnot engine
T1 + T3 Q1 T1
T2 =
2 Q1 − Q 2 1300 − 400
=
900 + 400 Q1 1300
=
2 Q 9 Q
1− 2 = ⇒ 2 = 0.3076
T2 = 650º K Q1 13 Q1
181. The statement "The efficiency of all reversible Q2 = 50 × 0.3076
heat engines operating between the same Q2 = 15.38 kW
temperature levels is the same" is known as: 184. A reversible heat engine rejects 80% of the
(a) Corollary of Carnot theorem
heat supplied during a cycle of operation. If the
(b) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
(c) First law of thermodynamics engine is reversed and operates as a
(d) Third law of thermodynamics refrigerator, then its coefficient of performance
SJVN ET 2019 shall be
Ans. (a) : The efficiency of all reversible heat engines (a) 6 (b) 5
operating between the same temperature level is the (c) 4 (d) 3
same is known as corollary of carnot theorem. ESE 2017
34
Ans. (c) : Given, 186. If the thermal efficiency of Carnot heat engine
Q2 = 0.8 Q1 is 50 percent, then coefficient of performance
For heat engine For refrigerator of a refrigerator working within the same
temperature limit would be :
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
(KPSC AE. 2015)
Ans : (a)

Q2
Q1 = W + Q2 (COP)R =
W
0.8Q1
W = Q1 − Q2 (COP)R =
0.2Q1
W = 0.2 Q2 (COP)R = 4 Efficiency of carnot head engine = 0.50
Second Method
T − TL
W ηE = H
ηE = TH
Q1
TL T
0.2Q1 0.5 = 1 − ⇒ L = 0.5
ηE = TH TH
Q1
TL 0.5
ηE = 0.2 ( COP )R = ⇒ (COP) R =
1 TH − T L 1 − 0.5
1 + (COP)R =
ηE (COP) R = 1
1 187. A cycle of pressure- volume diagram is shown
(COP)R = −1
0.2 in the figure :
(COP)R = 4
185. A reversible polytropic process is given by
n −1 n
T1  ρ1  P1  ρ1 
(a) =  (b) = 
T2  ρ 2  P2  ρ 2 
n −1
n −1
T1  P1  T1  ρ1  n
(c) =  (d) = 
T2  P2  T2  ρ 2  Same cycle on temperature-entropy diagram
will be represented by
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
Ans : (a) For reversible polytropic process
n −1
T  P  n
we know that  1  =  1  ......(i)
 T2   P2 
(For reversible Process)
For ideal gas eqn.
PV = mRT
P1 = ρ1RT1 ρ = Density of gas
P2 = ρ2RT2
value of P1 & P2 putting in eqn. (i)
n −1 n −1 n −1
 T1   ρ1RT1  n ρ  n T  n
 T  =  ρ RT  = 1  × 1  MPPSC AE 2016
 2  2 2  ρ2   T2  Ans : (b)
 n −1  n −1
−
 T1   T1   n  ρ  n
 T × T  = 1 
 2  2  ρ2 
n −1
n −1 n −1
T1  p1  n  ρ1  V 
=  =   =  2
T2  p2   ρ2   V1 
35
188. A heat pump operating on Carnot cycle pump 191. Three engines A, B and C operating on Carnot
heat from a reservoir at 300 K to a reservoir at cycle respectively use air, steam and helium as
600 K. The coefficient of performance is the working fluid. If all the engines operate
(a) 1.5 (b) 0.5 within the same high and low temperature
(c) 2 (d) 1.0 limits. then which engine will have the highest
MPPSC AE 2016 efficiency?
(a) Engine A
Ans : (c)
(b) Engine B
(c) Engine C
(d) All engines will have the same efficiency
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (d)
T − TL
Efficiency of Carnot cycle ( η) = H
TH

TH = 600K
TL = 300K
TH
(C.O.P.) HP =
TH − TL
600
( C.O.P.)HP = =2 Efficiency of Carnot engines does not depend on the
600 − 300
type of fuel use so engine A; B and C operating same
189. Heat transfer takes place according to: high and low temperature limit then engine will have
(a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics the same thermal efficiency.
(b) First law of thermodynamics
192. A Carnot engine Working between 600K and
(c) Second law of thermodynamics
300K produces 200 KJ of work. The heat
(d) Third law of thermodynamics
supplied is
MPPSC AE 2016
(a) 200 KJ (b) 400KJ
Ans : (c) (c) 2000J (d) 400 J
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (b)

Heat transfer take place according to second law of

thermodynamics.
190. For a heat engine operating on Carnot cycle, TH = 600 K
the work output is 25% of heat rejected to the TL = 300K
sink. The thermal efficiency of the engine W = 200KJ
would be TH − TL
(a) 10% (b) 20% ηc =
(c) 30% (d) 50% TH
RPSC AE 2016 ηc = 0.5
Ans : (b) Work output
ηc =
heat supplied
QA = 1.25kJ
W=0.25kJ 200
0.5 =
QR = 1kJ QA
0.25 QA = 400KJ
ηE =
1.25 193. A Carnot engine rejects 30% of absorbed heat
ηE = 20% to a sink at 30° C. The temperature of heat
source is :
(a) 100° C (b) 43° C
36
 (c) 737° C (d) 1010° C T2
UJVNL AE 2016 COP =
T1 − T2
Ans : (c)
0.25T1 0.25T1
COP = =
T1 − 0.25T1 0.75T1
COP = 0.33
195. Kelvin Planck law deals with
(a) Conversion of work into heat
(b) Conversion of heat into work
(c) Conservation of work
(d) Conservation of heat
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans : (b) Kelvin plank law deals with conversion of
heat into work.
Kelvin plank statement:- It is impossible for a heat
Efficiency of Carnot engine
engine to produce net work in a complete cycle if it
TL = 30 + 273 exchanges heat only with bodies at a single fixed
= 303K temperature.
T −T 196. A heat engine is supplied with 250 kJ/s of heat
ηc = H L at constant fluid temperature of 227oC. The
TH
heat is rejected at 27oC. The cycle is reversible,
T if the amount of heat rejected is
0.7 =1 − L
TH (a) 273 kJ/s (b) 200 kJ/s
303 (c) 180 kJ/s (d) 150 kJ/s
0.7 =1 − UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
TH
Ans : (d)
TH = 1010 K
TH = 7370C
194. Efficiency of a Carnot engine is 75%. If the
cycle direction is reversed, CoP of the reversed
Carnot cycle is
(a) 1.33 (b) 0.75
(c) 0.33 (d) 1.75
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
Ans : (c) T1= 227+273=500K
T2= 27+273=300K
QA= 250 kW
Efficiency of heat engine
T −T Q − QR
ηε = 1 2 = A (Because Cycle is Reversible)
T1 QA
250 − Q R
0.4 =
250
Q R = 150kJ / Sec
Efficiency of Carnot engine 197. An isentropic flow is one which is
T1 − T2 (a) Adiabatic and reversible
ηc = (b) Isothermal only
T1
(c) Adiabatic only
Given that (d) Adiabatic and irreversible
T2 UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
0.75 = 1 −
T1 Ans : (a) An isentropic flow is adiabatic and reversible
T1 Isentropic = Adiabatic + Reversible
=4 It may be noted that the adiabatic process may be
T2 reversible or irreversible. The reversible adiabatic
T2 = 0.25 T1 process or frictionless adiabatic process is known as
COP of reversed Carnot engine isentropic process or constant entropy process. But
37
 when friction is involved in the process, then the (c) The information given is not sufficient to find
adiabatic process is said to be irreversible process, in answer.
which case the entropy does not remain constant. (d) May be or may not be depends upon several
198. If maximum surface temperature of sea is 30 factors.
°C and temperature in depth is 4 °C, how much UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
can be the maximum thermal efficiency of Ans. (b) : No
Ocean Thermal Conversion (OTEC) system ?
205. The coefficient of performance of a heat pump
(a) 8.58% (b) 13.3%
(c) 86.7% (d) none of the above working on reversed Carnot cycle is 6. If this
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II machine works as a refrigerator with work
input of 10 kW, the refrigerating effect will be
T1 − T2 30 − 4 26 (a) 35 kW (b) 40 kW
Ans. (a) : η = = = = 8.58%
T1 303 303 (c) 45 kW (d) 50 kW
199. Carnot cycle is not considered as a practical ESE 2018
cycle because Ans. (d) : (COP)HP = 1 + (COP)R
(a) its p – V diagram is narrow (COP)R = 6 − 1 = 5
(b) its thermal efficiency is low
(c) heat addition takes place at high pressure
(d) heat rejection takes place at high temperature
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (a) : its p – V diagram is narrow
200. The efficiency of an ideal Carnot engine
depends on
(a) working substance
(b) the temperature of the source only Refrigerating effect (R e )
(c) the temperature of the sink only (COP)R =
Work input
(d) the temperature of both source and sink.
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II Re
5=
Ans. (d) : the temperature of both source and sink. 10
201. An engine receives 15152 J/s of heat and Re = 50 kW
produces 5 kW of power. The efficiency of the 206. Two reversible engines are connected in series
engine is between a heat source and a sink. The
(a) 25% (b) 27.5% efficiencies of these engines are 60% and 50%,
(c) 30% (d) 33% respectively. If these two engines are replaced
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II by a single reversible engine, the efficiency of
Ans. (d) : 33% this engine will be
202. Which of the following constituents of a fuel (a) 60% (b) 70%
does not contribute to its calorific value on (c) 80% (d) 90%
combustion ? ESE 2018
(a) Carbon (b) Hydrogen Ans. (c) : Given,
(c) Sulphur (d) Nitrogen η1 = 0.6
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II η2 = 0.5
Ans. (d) : Nitrogen
203. A frictionless heat engine can be 100% efficient
only if the exhaust temperature is
(a) equal to its input temperature
(b) less than its input temperature
(c) 0 °C
(d) 0 K
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (d) : 0 K
204. An inventor claims to have developed an engine
that takes in 105 MJ at a temperature of 400 K,
rejects 42 MJ at a temperature of 200 K and Overall efficiency of the combined engine
delivers 15 kWh of mechanical work. Is this η0 = η1 + η2 − η1⋅η2
engine feasible ? = (0.6 + 0.5) − (0.6 × 0.5)
(a) Yes = 0.8
(b) No ⇒ 80%
38
 η  209. A heat engine developes 60 kW work having an
207. What is the ratio of the efficiencies  I  for efficiency of 60%, Amount of heat rejected will
η
 II  be:-
the two cycles as shown in the T-s diagrams? (a) 400 kW (b) 10 kW
(c) 40 kW (d) 20 kW
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (c) : Given as
W = 60 kW
η = 60%
W
η=
T1 + T2 T1 + T2 Qin
(a) (b)
2T1 2T2 60 ×100
Qin =
2T2 2T1 60
(c) (d)
T1 + T2 T1 + T2 Qin = 100 kW
ESE 2018 Then
Ans. (d) : Work done is same in both the cycle but heat Qs = Qin – W
rejected is more in cycle-II when compared to cycle-I Qs = 100 – 60
1 Q s = 40 kW
( T1 − T2 )( S1 − S2 )
ηI = 2 210. In Carnot cycle, addition and rejection of heat
1
( T1 − T2 )(S1 − S2 ) + T2 ( S1 − S2 ) takes place at:-
2 (a) Constant pressure
1 (b) Constant temperature
( T1 − T2 ) T −T (c) Constant volume
= 2 = 1 2 (d) Constant speed
1
( T1 − T2 ) + T2 1 + T2 T
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
2
Ans. (b) :
1
( T1 − T2 )( S1 − S2 ) T − T 211. An ideal gas is flowing through an insulated
ηII = 2 = 1 2 pipe at the rate of 3.3 kg. There is a pressure
T1 ( S1 − S2 ) 2T1 drop of 15% from the inlet to the outlet of the
ηI 2T1 pipe. What is the rate of energy loss because of
= this pressure drop due to friction, given that
ηII T1 + T2
Rgas=0.287 kJ/kg K and the reference
208. A heat engine receives 1120 kJ of heat and temperature T0 is 300K?
rejects 840 kJ of heat while operating between (a) 42.62 kW (b) 40.26 kW
two temperature limits of 560 K and 280 K. It (c) 38.14 kW (d) 35.13 kW
indicates that the engine operates on the ESE 2017
following cycle:-
Ans. (a) : Given,
(a) Reversible cycle
Rgas = 0.287 kJ/kg K
(b) Irreversible cycle ɺ = 3.3 kg/s
m
(c) Impossible cycle T0 = 300 K
(d) Unpredictable cycle
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (b) : Given as
Qs = 1120 kJ, QR = 840 kJ
T1 = 560 K, T2 = 280 K
T
ηideal = 1 − 2 P 
T1 Change in entropy (S2 − S1) = R ℓn  1 
280  P2 
=1−
560 P 
= − R ℓn  2 
ηideal = 0.50  P1 
W 1120 − 840  P − ∆P 
ηactual = net = = 0.25 = − R ℓn  1
Qs 1120 
 P1 
ηactual < ηideal  ∆P 
It indicates that the engine operates on the irreversible = − R ℓn  1 −
cycle.  P1 

39
 =
R∆P 4. Entropy
P1
Change in entropy of surrounding (∆S)surr = 0 215. For a reversible engine cycle, the Clausius
,

Entropy generation ∆Sgen = (∆S)system + (∆S)surr inequality says,

dQ dQ
∆P (a) %∫ >0 (b) %∫ <0
= m (S2 − S1) = mR T T
P1 dQ dQ
0.15P1 (c) %∫ =0 (d) + du = 0
= 3.3 × 0.287 × T T
P1 TNPSC AE 2017
= 0.142065 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Rate of energy loss i.e. loss of availability dQ
= T0 (∆S)gen Ans. (c) : %∫ = 0 (For reversible cyclic engine)
T
= 300 × 0.142065 dQ
= 42.619 kW %∫ T < 0 (For irreversible cyclic engine)
212. Kelvin's-Planck law deals with conversion of
dQ
(a) Work
(c) Work into Heat
(b) Heat
(d) Heat into Work
If, %∫ T > 0 (Cyclic engine impossible)
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II dQ
216. The value of %∫ for an irreversible process
Ans. (d) : Heat into Work T
213. A rigid, insulated tank is initially evacuated. is
The tank is connected with a supply line (a) 0 (b) > 0
through which air (assumed to be ideal gas (c) < 0 (d) 1
with constant specific heats) passes at 1 MPa, Gujarat PSC AE 2019
350ºC. A valve connected with the supply line is JPSC AE PRE 2019
opened and the tank is charged with air until dQ
the final pressure inside the tank reaches 1 Ans : (c) : %∫ = 0, the cycle is reversible
T
MPa. The final temperature inside the tank dQ
%∫ T < 0, the cycle is irreversible and possible
dQ
%∫ T > 0, the cycle is impossible.
217. The correct statement regarding entropy is
that :
(a) Entropy is a path function
(b) Entropy can be obtained from a direct
measurement of Q and T
(a) is greater than 350ºC (c) During a change of a state of a system, the
(b) is less than 350ºC entropy change is the same whether that
(c) is equal to 350ºC change has occurred via a reversible process
(d) may be greater than, less than or equal to or an irreversible one
350ºC, depending on the volume of the tank (d) Entropy of an isolated system is zero
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans : (a) : The final temperature in the tank when Ans : (c) Entropy:–During a change of a state of a
initially evacuated tank is connected to pipe line. system, the entropy change is the same whether that
change has occurred via a reversible process or an
T2 = γ × temperature in pipe line
irreversible one.
= γ × T1 Clausies theorem:- The cyclic intergal of the quantity
= 1.4 × (350 + 273) δQ/T for a reversible process in zero. This suggest that
= 872.2 K = 599.2oC the quantity δQ/T is a point function and hence a
T2 = 600 o C property of the system.
2  δQ  2
214. Flow of work may be expressed as
(a) Pdf (b) (P1V1 – P2V2)/n – 1
∫  
1  T  rev∫ = dS = S2 − S1
1

(c) Tdθ (d) Pdv 218. Which of the following represents the slope of
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 constant pressure line on T-s diagram of an
Ans. (d) : The work done in pushing the fluid is : ideal gas? [where, Cp and Cv are specific heat
W (flow) = FdS = P.A.ds = P.dv (kJ) of gas]
Flow work in necessary for maintaining a continuous T T
(a) (b)
flow through a control volume. CP CP 2
40
 T T2 221. The entropy will usually increase when
(c) (d) 1. A molecule is broken into two or more
Cv Cp smaller molecules.
SJVN ET 2019 2. A reaction occurs that results in an
Ans. (a) : For unit mass, heat addition on during increase in the number of moles of gas.
constant pressure process - 3. Process is adiabatic
δq = c p dT 4. Process is reversible adiabatic
5. A liquid changes to a gas
δq dT (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 2, 3 and 5
= cp
T T (c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 4
dT dT T Gujarat PSC AE 2019
ds = cp or = Ans : (c) : The entropy will usually increase when-
T ds c p
• A molecule is broken into two or more smaller
219. when a system undergoes a process such that molecules.
dQ • A reaction occurs that results in an increase in the
∫ T = 0 and ∆S > 0, the process is : number of moles of gas.
(a) isothermal • Process is adiabatic.
(b) reversible adiabatic • A liquid changes to a gas.
(c) irreversible adiabatic 222. The change in entropy is zero during
(d) isobaric (a) hyperbolic process
MPPSC AE 2016 (b) constant pressure process
dQ (c) adiabatic process
Ans : (c) ∫ = 0 and ∆S > 0 (d) polytropic process
T BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
the process is irreversible adiabatic
Ans : (c) : For reversible adiabatic process change in
i. ∆ S > 0 (Irreversible process)
entropy is zero.
ii. ∆ S = 0 (Reversible process)
iii. ∆ S < 0 (Not possible) 223. An ideal gas of mass m and temperature T1
undergoes a reversible isothermal process from
δQ
∆S = ∫ T
+ δSɺ gen an initial pressure P1 to final pressure P2. The
heat loss during the process is Q. The entropy
δQ change ∆S of the gas is
∫ T
= change in entropy due to external heat exchange
P  P
by the system (a) mRℓn  2  (b) mRℓn  1 
δSɺ gen = change in entropy due to irreversibility like  P1   P2 
friction, viscosity, etc P  Q
(c) mRℓn  2  − (d) zero
δSɺ gen = entropy generation is a path function & inexact  P1  T1
differential. BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
220. An ideal gas is flowing through an insulated
pipe at the rate of 3 kg/s. There is a 10% Ans : (b) : For a reversible process entropy change
pressure drop from an inlet to exit of the pipe. ∆S = δQ
The values of R = 0.287 kJ/kgK and To = 300 K. T
The rate of energy loss for the pressure drop
due to friction, will be nearly
(a) 34 kW (b) 30 kW
(c) 26 kW (d) 22 kW
ESE 2020
Ans. (c) : Entropy generation
 ∆P 
Sɺ gen = mR
ɺ  
 P1 
0.10P1 We know that for reversible isothermal process.
= 3 × 0.28 × = 0.0861kW / K
P1 δQ = δW
Rate of energy loss for the pressure drop due to friction V 
I = T0 Sɺ = P1V1ℓn  2 
gen
 V1 
= 300 × 0.0861
= 25.83 kW P 
= mRT1ℓn  1 
≈ 26 kW  P2 
41
 δQ 228. Which one of the following statements
∴ ∆S = applicable to a perfect gas will also be true for
T1
an irreversible process?
P  (a) δQ = dU + pdV (b) dQ = TdS
= mRℓn  1 
 P2  (c) TδS = dU +pdV (d) None of these
UJVNL AE 2016
P  Ans : (c) TdS = dU +pdV
∆S = mRℓn  1 
 P2  Statements applicable to a perfect gas will also be true
224. A heat engine transfers 15 kJ of heat to a for an irreversible process.
thermal reservoir at 300 K. The change of 229. Anything that generates entropy always.
entropy of the reservoir in the process is : (a) increases enthalpy
(a) ∆S reservoir = – 50 JK–1 (b) decreases pressure
(b) ∆S reservoir = + 50 JK–1 (c) decreases energy
(d) lowers chemical reaction
(c) ∆S reservoir = + 200 KJ–1
TNPSC AE 2018
(d) ∆S reservoir = + 4500 kJ.K
Ans. (b) : Anything that generates entropy always
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
decreases pressure.
Ans. (b) : Given as,
Q = 15 kJ 230. 150 kJ of heat is transferred from a heat source
T = 300 K of 527°C to a heat sink at 127°C. If the ambient
temperature is 47°C, the loss of available
Q 15000 energy during the process will be
∆S = =
T 300 (a) 40 kJ (b) 50 kJ
∆S reservoir = + 50 JK −1 (c) 60 kJ (d) 70 kJ
UPSC JWM 2017
225. If 'T' refers to temperature and S refers to
Ans. (c) : Less of available energy = T0 ∆S
heat, then for a process from state 1 to state 2
Ambient temperature T0 = 47 + 273 = 320 K
heat transfer in a reversible process is given by
Q Q
T0 and ∆S = 1 − 1
(a) T0 × ( S2 − S1 ) (b) T1 T2
( S 2 − S1 )
T1 = 127 + 273 = 400 K
S −S T2 = 527 + 273 = 800 K
(c) 2 1 (d) S 2 (T2 − T1 )
T0 Q = 150 KJ
TNPSC 2019 Q Q 
Ans. (a) : We know that Loss of available energy = T0  1 − 2 
 T1 T2 
δQ Where Q1= Q2,
= ∆S (for reversible process)
T  1 1 
So heat maximum heat transfer = 320 × 150  − 
 400 800 
δQ = T0 × ( S 2 − S1 )
= 60 kJ
226. Increase in entropy of a system represents 231. The property of a working substance which
(a) Decrease of temperature increases or decreases as the heat is supplied or
(b) Increase of Pressure removed in a reversible manner is ...................
(c) Increase of temperature (a) entropy (b) external energy
(d) Degradation of energy (c) internal energy (d) enthalpy
APPSC AEE 2016 RPSC AE 2018
Ans. (d) : Increase in entropy of a system represents Ans. (a) : The property of a working substance which
degradation of energy. increases or decreases as the heat is supplied or
227. The change of entropy, when heat is absorbed removed in a reversible manner is entropy.
by the gas, is 232. The entropy may be expressed as a function of
(a) positive (b) negative (a) Pressure and temperature
(c) positive or negative (d) zero (b) Temperature and volume
TNPSC AE 2017 (c) Heat and work
Ans. (a) : The change of entropy, when heat is absorbed (d) Internal energy
by the gas, is positive TNPSC AE 2014
We know that Ans. (a) : The entropy may be expressed as a function
δQ of pressure and temperature.
∆S = + δSgen 233. Stirrer work supplied to liquid in insulating
T
chamber increases its temperature from T1 to
then δQ ↑→ ∆S ↑ T2. The change in entropy of universe will be:
42
 (where Cp = specific heat of liquid) 237. Entropy per unit mass is
T (a) An extensive property
(a) C p ln 1 (b) Zero (b) An intensive property
T2
(c) It may be intensive or extensive
T2 (d) All of the above
(c) Negative (d) C p ln
T1 Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
UPRVUNL AE 2016 Ans. (b) : Entropy per unit mass, is specific entropy
Ans. (d) : ∆Sunivers = ∆Ssystem + ∆Ssurrounding which is a intensive property. Intensive property are
those which are independent of mass.
238. A heat engine receives half of its heat supply at
1000 K and remaining half at 500 K. Heat is
rejected to the sink at 300 K. The maximum
thermal efficiency of the heat engine will be:
(a) 55% (b) 10%
(c) 45% (d) 65%
SJVN ET 2019
Ans. (a) :
T
∆S system = CP ln 2
T1
∆Ssurrounding = zero
T
∆Sunivers = CP ln 2
T1
dQ
234. If the value of #∫ T
is greater than zero, the
nature of the thermodynamic cycle is
(a) Reversible
(b) Irreversible
(c) Both reversible and irreversible From clausius inequality for reversible heat engine,
(d) Impossible ∆Srev = 0
HPPSC AE 2018 Q Q QR
+ − =0
Ans. (d) : We know that Clausius inequality– 1000 500 300
dQ 3Q Q
#∫ T = 0 [ Reversible cycle] = R
1000 300
dQ QR 9
#∫ T < 0 [ Irreversible cycle] Q 10
=

dQ divided by 2 in both side

#∫ T > 0 [ Impossible cycle] QR 9
=
235. The entropy increase of the solid substance as it 2Q 20
melts into liquid at 27ºC (latent heat of fusion Q 9 11
of substance = 400 kJ/kg) 1− R = 1− =
2Q 20 20
(a) 14.8 kJ/kg-K (b) 120 MJ/kg-K
(c) 10.8 MJ/kg-K (d) 1.33 kJ/kg-K ηHE = 55%
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 239. In an Isentropic process
Ans. (d) : (a) Work done is zero
δ Q L.H .F . 400 (b) Change in internal energy is zero
∆S = = = (c) Change in entropy is zero
T T 300
(d) Change in enthalpy is zero
∆S = 1.33 kJ/kg-K TNPSC AE 2014
236. Area under T - S diagram represents Ans. (c) : For isentropic process entropy change will be
(a) heat transfer for reversible process zero.
(b) heat transfer for irreversible process ∆S = 0
(c) heat transfer for all process S = constant
(d) heat transfer for adiabatic process 240. A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II which its specific entropy increases from
TNPSC AE 2013 0.3kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time,
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II the entropy of the surroundings decreases from
Ans. (a) : Heat transfer for reversible process 80kJ/kg K to 75 kJ /kg K. The process is
43
 (a) reversible and isothermal 244. The change in entropy is zero during
(b) irreversible (a) Hyperbolic process
(c) reversible only (b) Constant pressure process
(d) isothermal only (c) Reversible adiabatic process
ESE 2017 (d) Polytropic process
Ans. (b) : Given, m = 100 kg UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Entropy of system Ans. (c) : Reversible adiabatic process
s1 = 0.3 kJ/kg K 245. Third law of thermodynamics is:-
s2 = 0.4 kJ/ kg K (a) An extension of second law
Change in entropy of system (b) An extension of first law
(∆s)sys = m(s2 − s1) (c) An independent law of nature
= 100 (0.4 − 0.3) (d) An extension of zeroth law
= 10 kJ/K UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Entropy of surrounding Ans. (c) : Third law of thermodynamics is an
s1 = 80 kJ/kg K independent law of nature.
s2 = 75 kJ/kg K 246. The unit of entropy is
Change in entropy of the surrounding (a) kg/JK (b) J/kg.m
(∆s)surr = (s2 − s1) (c) J/kg K (d) J / S
= 75 − 80 UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
= −5 kJ/K Ans. (c) : J/kg K
(∆s)universe = (∆s)sys + (∆s)surr = 10 − 5 247. Clausius inequality statement indicates that
= 5 kJ/K δφ δφ
(∆s)universe > 0 (a) %∫ =0 (b) %∫ ≥0
T T
i.e. irreversible process
δφ δφ
Note- As per UPSC the unit of surrounding entropy is (c) %∫ <0 (d) %∫ ≤0
kJ/kg K which is wrong, consider the surrounding T T
entropy is in kJ/K. UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
241. The change in entropy is zero during ............ δφ
Ans. (d) : %∫ ≤0
process. T
(a) Polytropic (b) Adiabatic 248. The entropy of the universe is
(c) constant pressure (d) Hyperbolic (a) Increasing (b) Decreasing
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) (c) Constant (d) Unpredictable
Ans : (b) UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Ans. (a) : Increasing
249. The main cause of the irreversibility is
(a) Mechanical and Fluid Friction
(b) Unrestricted expansion
(c) Heat transfer with a finite temperature
difference
(d) All of the above
In a reversible adiabatic process, no heat enters or UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
leaves the gas
Ans. (d) : All of the above
δQ = 0
δS = 0 5. Availability and Irreversibility
Change of entropy during a reversible adiabatic process
is zero. The reversible adiabatic on T-S graph is shown
by a vertical straight line 1-2. 250. Law of degradation of energy says that
242. During fusion, the entropy of the system: unavailable energy is gradually decreasing due
(a) decreases (b) increases to
(c) always remains constant (d) none of these (a) Increase in reversible processes
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) (b) Increase in irreversible processes
(c) Increase in unavailable energy
Ans : (b) During fusion, entropy of the system increases.
(d) None of these
243. The property of a working substance which UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
increases or decreases as the heat is supplied or
Ans : (a) Law of degradation of energy says that
removed in a reversible manner is known as
unavailable energy is gradually decreasing due to
(a) Enthalpy (b) Entropy
Increase in reversible processes.
(c) Internal energy (d) External Energy
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II Unavailable energy = T0 ds
Ans. (b) : Entropy Availability ( Wmax ) = Q − To ds

44
251. Consider the following statements 3. Wind energy
(1) Availability is the maximum theoretical work 4. Tidal energy
obtainable 5. Water energy
(2) Clapeyron's equation for dry saturated steam 6. Kinetic energy
dT  h − h f  Low Grade Energy–Energy of which only a certain
is given by ( Vs − Vf ) = s  s  portion can be converted into mechanical work is called
dP  Ts  low grade energy.
(3) A gas can have any temperature at a given Example–
pressure unlike a vapour, which has a fixed 1. Heat or thermal energy.
temperature at a given pressure. 2. Heat drived from combustion of fossil fuels.
(4) Joule Thomson coefficient is expressed as 3. Heat drived from nuclear fission or fusion.
 ∂s  254. Availability of a system at any given stage is
µ =   of these statements : (a) a property of the system
 ∂P  h
(b) the total energy of the system
(c) the maximum work obtainable as the system
(a) 1, 2, 3 are correct
goes to dead state
(b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) the maximum useful work obtainable as the
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
system goes to dead state
(d) 1, 2, and 4 are correct
TSPSC AEE 2015
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans. (c) : Availability of a system at any given stage is
Ans : (a)
the maximum useful work obtainable as the system goes
i. Clapeyron's equation for dry saturated steam is
to dead state.
dT  h − h f  255. The irreversibility associated with the process
Vs − Vf = s  s 
dP  Ts  is defined as
ii. Joule thomson coefficient (µ) (a) Loss of qualitative energy
(b) Loss of energy
 ∂T  (c) Loss of enthalpy
µ= 
 ∂P  h (d) Loss of entropy
iii. The availability of a given system is defined as the APPSC AEE 2016
max. Useful work that is obtainable in a process in Ans. (a) : The irreversibility associated with the process
which the system comes to equilibrium with its is defined as loss of qualitative energy.
surrounding. 256. The exergy of the system will depend on
252. Pressure of steady and adiabatic flow of an (a) Entropy generation
ideal gas through pipe is reduced from P1 to P2. (b) Surrounding temperature
Its irreversibility/unit mass flow rate is given (c) Surrounding pressure
by: (where, T0 = environment temperature) (d) All the given answers
 P1  P APPSC AEE 2016
(a) T0 R ln   (b) T0 R ln 2 Ans. (d) : Exergy– Exergy is defined as the amount of
P −
 1 2P P1
work a system can perform when it is brought into
P −P  P1 thermodynamic equilibrium with its environment. It
(c) T0 R ln  1 2  (d) T0 R ln depends on entropy generation, pressure and
 P2  P2
temperature of surrounding.
UPRVUNL AE 2016 257. Irreversibility of the process is equal to
Ans. (d) : Pressure of steady and adiabatic flow of an
ideal gas through pipe is reduced from P1 to P2. Its (a) Wmax - W (b) W - Wmax
irreversibility/unit mass flow rate is given by (c) Wmax (d) W
P TNPSC AE 2018
= T0 R ln 1
P2 Ans. (a) : The actual work which a system does is
always less than the idealized reversible work, and the
253. Which of the following is a low grade energy?
difference between the two is called the irreversibility
(a) Mechanical work (b) Electrical energy
of the process.
(c) Wind power (d) Kinetic energy
I = Wmax – W
(e) Heat energy
This is also, referred as degradation, or dissipation.
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
Ans. (e) : High Grade Energy–Energy that can be 258. Unavailable energy is the portion of energy
completely transformed into work without any loss i.e. that
(a) cannot be converted into work by turbine
fully utilizable.
(b) cannot be converted into work even by
Example–
reversible heat engine
1. Mechanical work
(c) cannot be converted into work by Rankine
2. Electrical work
engine
45
 (d) cannot be converted into work by a pump Ans. (a) : Effectiveness (ε)- The effectiveness of
TNPSC AE 2018 system is the ratio of the usefull or actual work done to
Ans. (b) : Unavailable energy is the portion of energy the maximum or reversible work.
that cannot be converted into work even by reversible Available energy
heat engine. %ε =
change in available energy
259. Availability function for a closed system is
expressed as : 949.2
%ε = ×100
(a) ø = U + þ0 V - T0 S 1319.2
(b) ø = du + þ0 dV - T0 ds %ε = 71.95%
(c) ø = du – þ0 dV - T0 ds
(d) ø = u + þ0 V + T0 s 263. Which one of the following represents
RPSC AE 2016 unavailability?
UJVNL AE 2016 (a) To ( ∆S0 ) (b) T ( ∆S)
Ans : (a) Availability function for a closed system (c) T0 ( ∆S) (d) T ( ∆S0 )
ø = U + þ0 V – T0 S TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
260. What is the loss of available energy associated Ans. (c) : Unavailability = To(∆S)
with the transfer of 1000kJ of heat from a Where To = environment temperature
constant temperature system at 600K to
another at 400K? When the environmental ( ∆S)universe = ( ∆S)system + ( ∆S)surrounding 
temperature is 300K? 264. The internal irreversibility of Rankine cycle is
(a) 140 kJ (b) 250 kJ caused by
(c) 166.67 kJ (d) 180 kJ 1. fluid friction
MPPSC AE 2016 2. throttling
Ans : (b) 3. mixing
Q = 1000 kJ Select the correct answer using the code given
T1 = 600K below.
T2 = 400K (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
T0 = 300K (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Loss of available energy ESE 2019
I = T0 [ ∆Suni ] = To  ∆Ssys + ∆Ssur  Ans. (d) : Internal irreversibility of Rankine cycle is
caused by fluid friction, throttling and mixing.
 −Q Q 
= To  +  265. A heat engine receives heat from a source at
 T1 T2  1200 K at the rate of 500 kW and rejects the
 −1000 1000  waste heat to a medium at 300 K. The power
= 300  + output of the heat engine is 180 kW. What will
 600 400 
be the irreversibility of the system?
= 300 [ −1.667 + 2.5] = 249.9kJ (a) 195 kW (b) 340 kW
I = 250kJ (c) 125 kW (d) 320 kW
261. A heat reservoir is maintained at 927ºC. If the SJVN ET 2019
ambient temperature is 27ºC, the availability of Ans. (a) : Efficiency of Carnot Engine
heat from the reservoir is limited to Carnot output T
= 1− 2
(a) 57% (b) 66% Input T1
(c) 75% (d) 88%
ESE 2018  300 
Carnot output = 500 ×  1 −  = 375 kW
T2  1200 
Ans. (c) : Availability of heat = 1 − Irreversibility of system = Carnot output - actual output
T1
= 375 – 180 = 195 kW
300 266. When 25 kg of water at 95°C is mixed with 35
=1−
1200 kg of water at 35°C, the pressure being taken
= 0.75 = 75% as constant at surrounding temperature of
262. If a system has a available energy 949.2 kJ and 15°C and Cp of water is 4.2 kJ/kg K, the
change in availability energy 1319.2 kJ and decrease in available energy due to mixing will
Effectiveness ∈ is be nearly
(a) 71.9% (b) 50% (a) 270.5 kJ (b) 277.6 kJ
(c) 35.95% (d) 0 (c) 281.8 kJ (d) 288.7 kJ
TNPSC 2019 ESE 2019
46
Ans. (c) : Given, 269. Steam flows through an adiabatic steady flow
m1 = 25 kg turbine from state 1 to state 2. with respect to a
m2 = 35 kg base temperature T0, the unavailable energy is
T0 = 15 + 273 = 288 K
T1 = 95 + 273 = 368 K (a) T0 (I1 – I2)
T2 = 35 + 273 = 308 K (b) T0 (S1 – S2)
After mixing let T is the final temperature (c) (I1 – I2) – T0 (S1 – S2)
Heat lost = Heat gained (d) I2 + I0 (S1 – S2)
m1cp (T1 − T) = m2cp (T − T2)
25 (368 − T) = 35 (T − 308) UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
T = 333 K Ans. (d) : I2 + I0 (S1 – S2)
Entropy generation
270. The maximum work output from two finite
∆Sgen = ∆S1 + ∆S2
bodies-one at temperature T1 and the other at
T T
= m1c p ℓ n   + m 2 c p ℓ n   temperature T2 is
 T1   T2 
( )
2
(a) Wmax = C p T1 − T2
 333   333 
= 25 × 4.2ℓ n   + 35 × 4.2ℓ n  
 368   308 
( T )
2

= 0.978 kJ/k (b) Wmax = C p T1 + 2

Decrease in available energy due to mixing 1

Irreversibility = T0 ∆Sgen
= 288 × 0.978 = 281.8 kJ
(c) Wmax = C p ( T1 T2 ) 2

267. Consider the following statements: 1

( )
2

On heating an elastomer under tensile load, its (d) Wmax = C p T1 − T2

2
shrinkage
1. maximizes the enthalpy BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
2. maximizes the entropy Ans : (a) : Maximum work output will be obtained
3. minimizes the free energy when there will be no irreversibility.
4. avoids breaking
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
ESE 2017 We can extract work till both bodies reaches at same
Ans. (d) : In heating elastomer under tensile load temperature let it be Tf .
entropy get decrease because of only one possible Entropy change of body 1
microstate but by shrinkage entropy get increased
because of many possible microstate. T
= c p ℓn f
The internal energy of an ideal gas is a function of T1
temperature only.
By Helmholtz free energy equation Entropy change of body 2
Available energy is given by Tf
A = U − Ts = c p ℓn
T2
Where U = Internal energy
T = Temperature For reversible process entropy change is zero, so
s = Entropy Tf Tf
So, by increase in entropy free energy get reduced. c p ℓn + c p ℓn =0
268. For a steady process, the conditions at stage 1 T1 T2
and stage 2 are, respectively, h1=300 kJ/kg,
⇒ Tf = T1T2
h2=150 kJ/kg, S1=1.25 kJ/kg K and S2=0.8
kJ/kg K. The ‘availability’ at the ambient Work done = ( Energy given by body 1) – (Energy
temperature 300K will be absorbed body 2)
(a) 15 kJ (b) 20 kJ
(c) 25 kJ (d) 35 kJ = cp (T1 − T f ) − c p (T f − T2 )
ESE 2017 = cp (T1 + T2 − 2T f )
Ans. (a) : Given,
h1 = 300 kJ/kg S1 = 1.25 kJ/kg K = cp (T1 + T2 − 2 T1T2 )
h2 = 150 kJ/kg S2 = 0.8 kJ/kg K
T0 = 300 K = cp ( T1 − T2 ) 2
Availability = (h1 − h2) − T0 (S1 − S2)
= (300 − 150) − 300 (1.25 − 0.8) Note we have assumed T1 > T2.
= 15 kJ/kg We will get same answer for T2 > T1
47
 6. Properties of Pure Substances, Ans. (a) : Single phase system is mixture of water and
alcohol.
Gases and Gas Mixture 276. For an ideal gas the compressibility factor is:
(a) Zero (b) Unity
271. The equation which perfectly represents Gibbs
(c) Infinity (d) None of these
Phase Rule for a process where the pressure is
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
also a variable is expressed as :
(a) F = P – C + 2 (b) F = C + P – 1 Ans : (b) : For an ideal gas, PV = RT
(c) F = P – C – 1 (d) F = C – P + 2 i.e. the compressibility factor, z =1
BHEL ET 2019 PV
As, Z =
Ans. (d) : Gibbs phase rule- RT
P+F=C+2
277. A sample of ideal gas has an internal energy U
or F = C−P+2 and is then compressed to one-half of its
P = Number of phase original volume while the temperature stays the
C = Number of chemical components same. What is the new internal energy of the
n = number of non-compositional variable (i.e. n=2) ideal gas in terms of U ?
h = 2 i.e., pressure and temperature (a) U (b) 1/2U
F = Degree of freedom (c) 1/4U (d) 2U
272. Which relationship defines Gibbs free energy G: RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
(a) G = H + TS (b) G = H - TS Ans. (a) : Internal energy of a perfect gas is only
(c) G = U + TS (d) F = U + TS function of temperature only.
SJVN ET 2013 For real gas internal energy is function of temperature
APPSC AEE 2016 and specific volume both U = f (T, v).
Ans. (b) : Gibbs free energy 'G' 278. Clausius-Clapeyron equation gives the slope of
G = H − TS the curve in
(a) p-v diagram (b) p-h diagram
273. Joule-Thomson coefficient is defined as : (c) p-T diagram (d) T-S diagram
 ∂T   ∂H  BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
(a)   (b)  
 ∂P  h  ∂P T Ans : (c) : Clausius-Clapeyron equation,
 ∂H   ∂P  dP (h g – h f ) × P
(c)   (d)   =
 ∂T  P  ∂T  h dT RT 2
MPPSC AE 2016 It gives slope of p – T curve.
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V 279. Select the correct statement as per Charles's
Ans : (a) Joule thomson co-efficient:- law.
The change in temperature with drop in pressure at (a) PV = Constant, if T is kept constant.
constant enthalpy is termed as Joule-Thomson V
(b) = constant, if P is kept constant.
coefficient (µ). T
 ∂T  P
µ=  (c) = constant, if T is kept constant.
 ∂p h V
It varies with both the temperature and pressure of the T
(d) = constant, if T is kept constant.
gas. P
∗ Joule thomson coefficient for an ideal gas is zero. TSPSC AEE 2015
274. The statement that molecular weight of all Ans : (b) Charles's law:- The volume of a given mass
gases occupy the same volume is known as- of a perfect Gas varies directly as its absolute
(a) Avogardo's hypothesis temperature, when the absolute pressure remains
(b) Gas law constant
(c) Dalton's law V∝T
(d) Thermodynamics law V
RPSC AE 2018 = costant
Ans. (a) : The statement that molecular weight of all T
gases occupy the same volume is known as Avogardo's V1 V2 V3
= = = constant
hypothesis. T1 T2 T3
275. Which is a single phase system ?
(a) Mixture of water and alcohol 280. Which of the following is a general gas
(b) Mixture of oil and water equation?
(c) Liquid water, ice and water vapour (a) PVn = C (b) PV = C
(d) Water and ice (c) PV = RT (d) PV = mRT
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 UJVNL AE 2016
48
Ans : (d) For any mass m kg of gas, the characteristic Ans. (a) : Assumption of Ideal gas-
gas equation • Intermolecular force should be negligible
PV = mRT • Volume occupied by the molecular should be
In S.I unit, the pressure is expressed in bar negligible compared to container volume.
The unit of gas constant (R) in SI unit is N-m/kg.K • Water vapour mixed with air is considered as ideal
R = 287 J/kg K Or 0.287 kJ/kg K gas.
The equation PV = mRT may also be expressed in • Steam should never be considered as ideal gas
unless mentioned.
m • Steam is the special term given to the gases form of
another form P = RT = ρ RT
V water only when present at high temperature.
281. Which one of the following relations defines 286. Pick the correct statement about pure
Helmholtz function? substances.
(a) H + TS (b) H – TS (a) A mixture of liquid air and gaseous air is a
(c) U + TS (d) U – TS pure substances.
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II (b) A mixture of ice and liquid water is not a pure
substance.
Ans : (d) : Helmholtz function (F),
(c) A mixture of two or more phases of pure
F = U – TS → It is applicable for open system. substances is not a pure substance even
Gibbs function (G), though the chemical composition of all the
G = H – TS → It is applicable for open system. phases is the same throughout.
282. ITPS defines which of the following as a (d) A mixture of two or more phases of pure
reference for calibration of temperature scale ? substance as long as the chemical
(a) Ice Point composition of all the phases is the same
(b) Lamda Point throughout.
(c) Normal Boiling Point of Water BHEL ET 2019
(d) Triple Point of Water Ans. (d) : Pure substance– A mixture of two or more
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 phases of pure substance as long as the chemical
composition of all the phases is the same throughout.
Ans. (d) : Triple point of water is a reference for
calibration of temperature scale. 287. Water vapour can be considered as Ideal Gas.
(a) Never (b) Always
283. In a single-component condensed system, if (c) At high pressure (d) At low pressure
degree of freedom is zero, maximum number of OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER-II
phases that can co-exist_____ Ans : (d) : At very low pressure and high temperature
(a) 0 (b) 1 all gases and vapour approaches to ideal gas behaviour.
(c) 2 (d) 3 288. In Van der Waals equation of state the two
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I constant are determined from the behavior of
Ans : (d) : By using Gibb’s phase rule substance at:
P+F=C+2 (a) Saturalred point (b) Triple point
P+0=1+2 (c) Critical point (d) Never determined
P =3 OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
284. Gibbs phase rule for general system is : Ans : (b) : In van der waals equation of state the two
constant are determined from the behavior of substance
(a) P + F = C – 1
at triple point. Van der waals equation
(b) P + F = C + 1
(c) P + F = C – 2  a 
(d) P + F = C + 2  P + 2  ( v − b ) = RT
 v 
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
289. Specific heat of monoatomic gases:
Ans : (d) : Gibbs Phase rule (a) Increase with temperature rise
P+F=C+2 (b) Decrease with temperature rise
P = Number of Phase (c) Does not depends on change In temperature
F = Degree of Freedom (d) None of these
C = Number of Components OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
285. Which of the following options can always be Ans : (b) : The molar specific heat of a gas at constant
approximated to be an deal gas? pressure (CP) is the amount of heat required to raise the
(a) Highly superheated vapour temperature of 1 mol of the gas by 1ºC at the constant
(b) Dry saturated vapour 5R
pressure. Its value for monoatomic ideal gas is and
(c) Supercritical fluid 2
(d) Saturated vapour 7R
the value for diatomic ideal gas is
BHEL ET 2019 2
49
290. A positive value of Joule-Thomson coefficient 294. If the dryness fraction of a sample by throttling
of a liquid means: calorimeter is 0.8 and that by separating
(a) Temperature drops during throttling calorimeter is also 0.8, then the actual dryness
(b) Temperature remains constant fraction of sample will be taken as
(c) Temperature rises during throttling (a) 0.8 (b) 0.8
(d) None of these (c) 0.64 (d) 0.5
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
Ans : (a) : Joule Thomson coefficient Ans : (c) : x 1 = Dryness fraction of steam considering
separating calorimeter.
 ∂T  x2 = Dryness fraction of steam entering the throttling
µ =  
 ∂P  h calorimeter.
x = x1x2
< 0 Temperature rises Actual dryness fraction of steam in the sample
µ  = 0 Temperature remains constant x = 0.8×0.8
 > 0 Temperaturedrops = 0.64
295. Mole fraction of a component of gas mixture is
291. Joule-Thomson process is equal to
(a) Throttling process (b) Heating process 1
(c) Compression process (d) Expansion process (a) (b) f 2
f
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
f
 ∂T  (c) f (d)
Ans : (a) : µ =  P
 constant enthalpy 'h' process.
 ∂P  h JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
Ans. (c): The mole fraction of any component of a
292. A gas having negative Joule Thomson co-
mixture is the ratio of the number of moles of that
efficient (µ < 0) where throttled will substance to the total number of moles of all substances
(a) become cooler present. In a mixture of gases, the partial pressure of
(b) become warmer each gas is the product of the total pressure and the
(c) remain at the same temperature mole fraction of that gas.
(d) either become cooler or warmer depending on 296. When the fuel is burned and water is release in
the type of gas the liquid phase, the heating value of fuel is
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 called
Ans : (b) : Joule Thomson coefficient (a) higher heating value
(b) lower heating value
 ∂T 
µ=  (c) enthalpy of formation
 ∂P  h (d) None the above
 < 0 become warmer JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
 Ans. (a) : higher heating value
µ = = 0 remain at the same temperautre
 > 0 become cooler 297. A fluid behave as an ideal gas provided it is at :
 (a) High Temperature and Pressure
293. Most of the gases exhibit drop in temperature (b) High Temperature and Moderate Pressure
upon expansion. However, this may not be true (c) Low Temperature and Pressure
in case of (d) High Temperature and Low Pressure
(a) carbon dioxide (b) oxygen OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
(c) hydrogen (d) helium Ans. (d) : A real gases obeys perfect gas law at high
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V temperature and low pressure.
! Inter molecular attraction between molecules are
Ans : (c) : In thermodynamics, the- Joule-Thomson negligible.
(also known as the Joule-Kelvin effect or Kelvin-Joule ! Volume occupied by molecules as compared to total
effect) describes the temperature change of real gas or volume is negligible.
liquid when it is forced through a value or porous plug 298. Match the following :
while keeping it insulated so that no heat is exchanged 1. Empirical temperature a. Path function
with the environment. This procedure is called a 2. Polarization b. Permeable to
throttling process or Joule-Thomson process. At room heat transfer
temperature, all gases except hydrogen, helium, and 3. Heat transfer c. Mechanical
neon cool upon expansion by the Joule-Thomson equivalent of heat
process when being throttled through an orifice, there 4. Joule's experiment d. Isotherm
three gases experience the same effect but only at lower 5. Diathermic e. Dipole moment
temperature. (a) 1–d, 2–a, 3–e, 4–c, 5–b
(b) 1–d, 2–e, 3–a, 4–c, 5–b
50
 (c) 1–d, 2–b, 3–a, 4–c, 5–e 301. According to Dalton's law, the total pressure of
(d) 1–d, 2–c, 3–b, 4–a, 5–e the mixture of gases is equal to
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 (a) greater of the partial pressure of gases
Ans. (b) : (b) average of the partial pressure of gases
1. Empirical temperature Isotherm (c) Sum of the partial pressure of all
2. Polarization Dipole moment (d) Sum of the partial pressure of all divided by
3. Heat transfer Path function average molecular weight
4. Joule's experiment Mechanical TNPSC 2019
equivalent of heat Ans. (c) : According to Dalton's law, the total pressure
5. Diathermic Permeable to heat of the mixture of gases is equal to sum of the partial
transfer pressure of all.
299. The point that connects the saturated-liquid 302. Calculate the dryness fraction of steam which
line to the saturated-vapour line is called the has 1.5 kg of water in suspension with 50 kg of
(a) triple point steam
(b) critical point (a) 0.971 (b) 1
(c) superheated point (c) 0 (d) 0.485
(d) compressed liquid point TNPSC 2019
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 Ans. (a) : Data Given
Ans. (b) : mw = 1.5 kg, mv = 50 kg
mv
Dryness fraction (x) =
mw + mv
50
x= = 0.971
1.5 + 50
303. Which one of the following properties remains
unchanged for a real gas during Joule-
Thomson process
(a) Temperature (b) Enthalpy
(c) Entropy (d) Pressure
TNPSC 2019
The properties of liquid and vapour are identical at Ans. (b) : Enthalpy properties remains unchanged for a
critical point. real gas during Joule-Thomson process.
300. The enthalpy of vaporization, at critical point is  ∂T 
(a) maximum (b) minimum   =µ
(c) zero (d) none of the above  ∂P  h =const.
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 304. Which of the following gasses will have the
TNPSC 2019 maximum value of gas constant R
Ans. (c) : (a) nitrogen
The enthalpy of vaporization, at critical point is zero (b) carbon dioxide
(c) sulpher dioxide
(d) oxygen
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (a) :
Element Molecular weight (M)
Nitrogen (N2) 28
Corban Dioxide (CO2) 44
Sulpher Dioxide (SO2) 64
Oxygen (O2) 32

R
gas constant R =
The line AB denotes enthalpy of vaporization. At M
critical point (CP), the length become zero so enthalpy 1
of vaporization is zero. R∝
M
Enthalpy of vaporization
hfg = hg – hf So, Nitrogen gas will have the maximum value of gas
At critical point, the liquid and vapour have same constant because its molecular weight is 28.
properties, so 305. The specific heat of gas remains constant at all
hf = hg pressure and temperature. This statement
hfg= 0 pertains to
(a) Joule's law (b) Regnault's law
51
 (c) Avogadro's law (d) Maxwell law 311. Latent heat of vaporization of water at critical
TSPSC AEE 2015 point is
Ans. (b) : According to Regnault's law, the specific heat (a) 334 J/kg (b) 234 J/kg
of gas remains constant at all pressure and temperature. (c) 334 J/kg (d) zero
306. The specific heat of an ideal gas depend on its TNPSC AE 2017
__________alone. Ans. (d) : Latent heat of vaporization of water
(a) Pressure (b) Volume decreases with increase in pressure and become zero at
(c) Entropy (d) Temperature critical point [Pcr = 221 bar, Tcr = 374ºC]
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (d) : Specific Heat– The specific heat is the
amount of heat per unit mass required to rise the
temperature by one degree Celsius.
∆Q = mc∆T
∆Q
C=
m∆T
Where,
m = mass (kg) 312. The value of characteristics constant of oxygen
C = Specific heat J/kg°C would be
∆Q = Change in thermal energy (J) (a) 0.412 kJ/kg-K (b) 0.262 kJ/kg-K
∆T = Change in temperature (°C) (c) 1.004 kJ/kg-K (d) 0.624 kJ/kg-K
TNPSC AE 2018
307. The substance which is homogeneous and
invariable in chemical composition throughout Ans. (b) : The value of characteristics constant of
its mass is called as ______. oxygen would be 0.262 kJ/kg-K.
(a) ideal substance (b) pure substance 313. It is desired to store 28 kg of nitrogen at 14
(c) solid substance (d) gas substance MPa pressure and 27ºC in a cylinder.
APPSC AEE 2016 Assuming that nitrogen behaves like an ideal
Ans. (b) : The substance which is homogeneous and gas, determine the size of the cylinder.
invariable in chemical composition throughout its mass (a) 0.01782 m3 (b) 0.1782 m3
3
is called as pure substance. (c) 1.782 m (d) 17.82 m3
RPSC AE 2018
308. No liquid can exist as a liquid at
(a) 0°C temperature (b) 200°C temperature Ans. (b) : Data given:
m = 28 kg, P = 14 MPa, T = 27ºC = 300 K
(c) Zero pressure (d) Zero viscosity
Ideal gas equation
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 PV = mRT
APPSC AEE 2016 where
Ans. (c) : No liquid can exist as a liquid at zero
R
pressure:- R=
Generally absolute zero pressure is the point where M
there exist a minimum temperature i.e. zero. That can be molecular weight (M) for
N2 = 28
possible only when molecular momentum of system
become zero. There should not be any motion of R (Universal gas constant)
particles so there is no collision of particles, kinetic = 8.314 kJ/k-m K
energy nullifies and the temperature becomes zero. 8.314
R= = 0.2969 kJ / K kg
309. Sublimation is the process of 28
(a) Changing from gas state to solid state then,
(b) Changing from solid state to gas state 28 × 0.2969 × 300
(c) Changing from liquid to vapour state V=
14 × 1000
(d) Existence of solids, liquids and gases V = 0.178157 m3
simultaneously
APPSC AEE 2016 314. The principle of working of the constant
volume thermometer is based on
Ans. (b) : Sublimation– when a solid turns into a gas (a) Boyle's law (b) Charle's law
without first becoming liquid, that's sublimation. (c) Gay – Lussac's law (d) Equation of state
310. The value of dryness fraction at critical point TNPSC AE 2014
for water-steam phase transformation may be Ans. (c) : Constant volume gas thermometer– This
(a) 0 (b) 1 thermometer works on the principle of Law of Gay-
(c) either 0 or 1 (d) all of these Lussac. The law states that when the temperature of an
TNPSC AE 2017 ideal gas increases, there is a corresponding increase in
Ans. (d) : The value of dryness fraction at critical point pressure. Also, when the temperature decrease, the
for water-steam phase transformation is undefined. pressure too decrease correspondingly.
52
315. The heating of a gas at constant pressure is
governed by
(a) Boyle's law
(b) Charles's law
(c) Gay-Lussac law
(d) Joule's law
TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (b) : Charles's Law—The heating of a gas at
constant pressure.
Boyle's Law —The heating of a gas at constant
temperature.
Gay-Lussac Law—The heating of a gas at constant
volume.
316. The heating of wet steam at constant
temperature till it becomes dry saturated is
similar to that of heating at a h1 > h2 > h3
(a) constant volume (b) constant pressure At critical point where saturated liquid and
(c) constant entropy (d) constant enthalpy saturated vapour line are meet, enthalpy of evaporation
TNPSC AE 2014 become zero and liquid directly flash into vapour.
Ans. (b) : The heating of wet steam at constant PV
319. The ratio of is
temperature till it becomes dry saturated is similar to RT
that of heating at a constant pressure. (a) Equations of state
(b) Compressibility factor
(c) Reduced properties
(d) Critical compressibility factor
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (b) : Compressibility factor (Z)– Compressibility
factor is also known as the compression factor or the
gas deviation factor, is a correction factor which
describe the deviation of a real gas from ideal gas
317. The dryness fraction of steam is equal to behaviour. It is simply defined as the ratio of the moler
Mg Mf volume of a gas to the molar volume of an ideal gas at
(a) (b) the same temperature and pressure.
Mg +M f Mg +M f
PV
Mg Mf Z=
(c) (d) RT
Mf Mg For ideal gas → Z = 1
Where Mg = mass of dry steam 320. A certain gas has Cp value of 1968 J/kgK and
Mf = mass of wet steam Cv value of 1507 J/kgK. The value of R is
TNPSC AE 2014 (a) 0.461 KJ/kgK (b) 1307 J/kgK
TNPSC 2019 (c) 1 (d) 461 KJ/kgK
Mg TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (a) : x = Ans. (a) : We know that-
Mg + Mf
Mayer's formula is given as-
318. With the increase of pressure Cp − CV = R
(a) The boiling point of water decreases and
enthalpy of evaporation increases 1968 – 1507 = R
(b) The boiling point of water increases and R = 461 J/kgK
enthalpy of evaporation decreases R = 0.461/ kJ/kgK
(c) Both the boiling point of water and enthalpy 321. Region inside the inversion curve is
of evaporation decreases represented by : (where µ is Joule - Kelvin
(d) Both the boiling point of water and enthalpy coefficient)
of evaporation increases (a) Cooling region, µ < 0
TNPSC AE 2014 (b) Heating region, µ > 0
Ans. (b) : With the increase of pressure the boiling (c) Cooling region, µ > 0
point of water increases and enthalpy of evaporation (d) Heating region, µ < 0
decreases. UPRVUNL AE 2016
53
Ans. (c) : Joule - Kelvin coefficient (µ) 324. Which of the following is true statement for
 ∂T  phase diagram of pure substance?
µ =  (a) Sublimation curve, fusion curve and
 ∂P  h
vaporization curve meets at critical point
(b) Extreme points of vaporization curve are
triple point and critical point
(c) Extreme points of fusion curve are triple point
and critical point
(d) Fusion curve for water has positive slope
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (b) : In phase diagram of pure substance, extreme
points of vaporization curve are triple point and critical
For ideal gas points.
µ=0
322. Ideal gas equation may be written as [where, P
= absolute pressure, v = specific volume, R =
characteristic gas constant, T = absolute
temperature, m = mass of gas, n = number of
moles of gas, Z = compressibility factor]:
(a) Pv = nRT (b) Pv = ZRT
(c) Pv = mRT (d) Pv = RT
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Pv
Ans. (d) : Compressibility factor Z =
RT • Fusion curve for water has negative slope.
For ideal gas Z = 1 325. Which of the following law governs the
then Pv = RT
isothermal process
323. Generalized compressibility chart is drawn (a) Boyle's Law
between:
(a) Reduced pressure (Pr) on y-axis and reduced (b) Charle's law
temperature (Tr) on x-axis (c) Joule's law
(b) Compressibility factor (Z) on y-axis and (d) Gay Lussac's law
reduced temperature (Tr) on x-axis HPPSC AE 2018
(c) Compressibility factor (Z) on y-axis and Ans. (a) : Boyle's law governs the isothermal process.
reduced pressure (Pr) on x-axis T = Constant
(d) Compressibility factor (Z) on x-axis and
P1V1 = P2V2 = Constant
reduced pressure (Pr) on y-axis
UPRVUNL AE 2016 Charle's Law – P = Constant
Ans. (c) : Generalized compressibility chart is drawn V1 V2
= = Constant
between compressibility factor (Z) on y-axis and T1 T2
reduced pressure (Pr) on x-axis. Gay Lussac's Law – Gay Lussac's Law states that the
pressure of a given mass of a gas varies directly with
absolute temperature of the gas when the volume is kept
constant.
P1 P2
= = Constant
T1 T2
326. Specific heat at constant pressure can be given
as (Where ' ϒ' is ratio of specific heats at
constant pressure and constant volume, R is a
PVactual
Z= gas constant, J is the Joule constant.)
RT γR JR
Vactual (a) (b)
Z= J ( γ − 1) γ ( γ − 1)
Videal
Z = 1 - for ideal gas γR R
(c) (d)
Z > 1 - less compressible J ( R − 1) J ( γ − 1)
Z < 1 - more compressible HPPSC AE 2018
54
Ans. (a) : We know that (d) State from which a change of phase may
R occur without a change in pressure and
Cp – Cv = ................(i) temperature.
J
(e) State from which a change of phase may
Cp
and = γ .............(ii) occur without a change in pressure or
Cv temperature.
Cp (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
then Cv = Ans. (d) : Saturation State–A saturation state of pure
γ
substance (water) is a state from which a change of
Putting the value of Cv in equation (i)
phase may occur without a change in pressure and
C R temperature.
Cp – p =
γ J

Cp
[ γ − 1] = R
γ J
γ.R γ.R
Cp = =
( γ − 1) J ( γ − 1)
327. For dry saturated vapour, the value of dryness
fraction will be
(a) 1.0 (b) 0.75 329. The reading of temperature on the Celsius
(c) 0.5 (d) 0 scale is 60° C. What is equivalent reading of
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 temperature on the Fahrenheit scale?
Ans. (a) : Dryness fraction (x) (a) 130°F (b) 132°F
(c) 136°F (d) 140°F
Mass of vapour
= (e) 146°F
Mass of vapour + Mass of liquid (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
Ans. (d) : We know that
C−0 F − 32
=
100 − 0 212 − 32
C F − 32
=
5 9
C = 60°C then
60 F − 32
= = 12
5 9
F – 32 = 108
F = 140°F
mv 330. Super heated vapours behave:
x=
mL + mv (a) Exactly as a gas
at saturated vapour line (b) As steam
mL = 0 (c) As ordinary vapour
mv (d) Approximately as a gas
x= =1 SJVN ET 2013
mv + 0
Ans. (d) : Superheated vapours behave approximately
328. A Saturation state of pure substance (water) is as a gas.
a: 331. RMS velocity of hydrogen gas at NTP is:
(a) State from which a change of phase may (a) 526 m/s (b) 932 m/s
occur with a change in pressure or (c) 1356 m/s (d) 1839 m/s
temperature. SJVN ET 2013
(b) State from which a change of phase may
occur with a change in pressure and Ans. (d) : RMS velocity of hydrogen ( Vrms ) = 3RT
temperature. m
(c) State from which a change of phase may At NTP
occur with a change in pressure and volume. R = 8.314 kJ/mol.K

55
 T = 273 K 334. Joule-Kelvin coefficient is given by [where T =
m = 2 × 10-3 kg/mol absolute temperature, P = Pressure, s = Specific
3 × 8.31× 273 entropy, h = specific enthalpy]
Vrms =  ∂T   ∂s 
2 × 10 −3 (a)   (b)  
= 1845.15 m/s  ∂s h  ∂T h
≈ 1840 m/s  ∂T   ∂T 
(c)   (d)  
332. During melting the volume of pure substance  ∂P h  ∂s 
other than water : SJVN ET 2019
(a) Decreases Ans. (c) : Joule-Kelvin co-efficient (µ) is slope on
(b) Increases temperature - pressure diagram when enthalpy remains
(c) Remains constant constant.
(d) First increases and then decreases
 ∂T 
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 µ= 
Ans. (b) : General Substance Fusion Curve–  ∂P h
335. On Mollier chart, slope of an isobar on h-s
diagram is equal to: [where T = absolute
temperature]
(a) T4 (b) T2
(c) T (d) T3
SJVN ET 2019
Ans. (c) : dh = Tds + vdP, For constant pressure/
isobaric process
dP = 0
So, dh = Tds
 ∂P  dh
= + ve or =T
  ds p
 ∂T General substance
Liquids → Solids [Contract] 336. An ideal gas having the weight of 20 N at the
Solid → Liquid [Expends] temperature of 27oC and pressure of 0.206
H2O Fusion Curve– N/mm2 (abs). The gas constant will be
[Consider g = 9.81 m/s2]
(a) 912 kJ/kg-K (b) 0.912 kJ/kg-K
(c) 0.4251 kJ/kg-K (d) 425.1 kJ/kg-K
SJVN ET 2019
Ans. (c) : PV = mRT
0.26 20
−6
×1 = × R × 300 or
10 9.81
R = 425.1 J/kgK
= 0.4251 kJ/kgK
337. If the degree of saturation of air is zero, the air
is said to be
 ∂P  (a) superheated air (b) unsaturated air
  = − ve
 ∂T H2O (c) saturated air (d) atmospheric air
Solid → Liquid [Contracts] APPSC AEE 2016
Liquid → Solid [Expends] Ans. (c) : If the degree of saturation of air is zero, the
333. The temperature of an ideal gas always air is said to be saturated air.
deceases during
(a) Isobaric expansion
(b) Isothermal expansion
(c) Adiabatic expansion
(d) Isentropic expansion
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (d) : The temperature of an ideal gas always
decreasing during isentropic expansion.
56
We know that degree of saturation (DOS) = (T1 – T2) Ans : (a) : Under thermal equilibrium flow of steam is
When, T1 = T2 isentropic, because there is no heat transfer between
then, DOS = 0 system and surrounding.
It means air is said to be saturated air. 342. Critical pressure of a liquid is the pressure
338. When a real gas follows Joule Thomson (a) above which liquid will remain liquid
expansion process, the temperature (b) above which liquid will become gas
(a) always increases (c) above which liquid becomes vapour
(b) always decreases (d) above which liquid becomes solid
(c) remains same BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
(d) may increase or decrease Ans : (c) : Critical pressure of a liquid is the pressure
(e) becomes zero above which liquid becomes vapour.
CGPSC AE 2014 -II 343. A gas mixture consists of 3 kg of O2, 5kg of N2
Ans. (d) : When a real gas follows Joule Thomson and 12 kg of CH4. The mass fraction and mole
expansion process, the temperature may increase or fraction and mole fraction of O2 are
decrease. (a) 0.25 and 0.125 (b) 0.15 and 0.092
Joule- Thomson coefficient ( µ )- Joule- Thomson (c) 0.25 and 0.092 (d) 0.15 and 0.125
Coefficient ( µ ) is defined as the ratio of the ESE 2019
temperature change to the pressure drop, and is mo2
expressed in terms of the thermal expansion coefficient. Ans. (b) : Mass fraction of O2 =
The Joule - Thomson Coefficient will be zero at a point m o2 + m N2 + m CH 4
called Inversion point for all real gases, Expansion of 3
most real gases causes cooling when the joule- = = 0.15
3 + 5 + 12
Thomson coefficient is positive and the gas temperature n o2
is below the Inversion temperature. However, at Mol fraction of O2 =
atmosphere pressure, as the inversion temperature for n o2 + n N2 + n CH4
hydrogen is low and hence hydrogen will warm during  3 
a Joule- Thomson expansion at room temperature. Since  
=  32 
there is no change of temperature when an ideal gas
 3   5   12 
expands through throttling device, a non-zero Joule-  + + 
Thomson coefficient refers to a real gas.  32   28   6 
339. For achieving the cooling effect by Joule- = 0.092
Kelvin, expansion the initial temperature of gas 344. The ordinate and abscissa of the diagram to
must be below the depict the isobaric processes of an ideal gas as a
(a) Boiling point temperature hyperbola are, respectively
(b) Freezing point temperature (a) temperature and entropy
(c) Maximum inversion temperature (b) internal energy and volume
(d) Saturation temperature (c) temperature and density
TNPSC AE 2013 (d) enthalpy and entropy
Ans. (c) : For achieving the cooling effect by Joule- ESE 2018
Kelvin, expansion the initial temperature of gas must be Ans. (c) : For an ideal gas
below the maximum inversion temperature.
340. The kinetic energy lost in friction is
transformed into heat which tends to
(a) cool or condense the steam
(b) dry or superheat the steam
(c) increase the pressure of the steam
(d) reduce the dryness fraction
(e) decrease the specific volume of steam PV = mRT
CGPSC AE 2014 -II P = ρRT = constant
Ans. (b) : The kinetic energy lost in friction is ρT = constant
transformed into heat which tends to dry or superheat i.e. equation of hyperbola.
the steam. 345. Consider the following statements:
341. Under thermal equilibrium, flow of steam is 1. The entropy of a pure crystalline substance at
(a) isentropic (b) adiabatic absolute zero temperature is zero.
(c) hyperbolic (d) polytropic 2. The efficiency of a reversible heat engine is
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V independent of the nature of the working
57
 substance and depends only on the
temperature of the reservoirs between which
it operates.
3. Carnot’s theorem states that of all heat
engines operating between a given constant
temperature source and a given constant
temperature sink, none has a higher efficiency
than a reversible engine.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE 2018
Ans. (d) : (i) The third law of thermodynamics defines
the absolute zero of entropy. The entropy of a pure
crystalline substance at absolute zero temperature is
zero.
T
(ii) Efficiency of Carnot = 1 − L
TH
Here, it is cleared that efficiency of Carnot engine
depends upon the temperature of reservoirs. Working
substance does not play any role in the efficiency of
Carnot engine. Every heat engine works between two
temperature limits and give some work out.
Carnot is a ideal case of engines that is not possible. No
heat engine can be efficient as Carnot.
346. Which one of the following substances has
constant specific heat at all pressures and
temperature?
(a) Mono-atomic gas (b) Di-atomic gas
(c) Tri-atomic gas (d) Poly-atomic gas
ESE 2018
Ans. (a) : The specific heats, cp and cv vary with the
temperature, the variation being different for each gas.
For monoatomic gases, such as He, Ne, Ar and most
metallic vapours, specific heats are constant.
347. Statement (I): The specific heat at constant
pressure for an ideal gas is always greater than the
specific heat at constant volume.
Statement (II): Heat added at constant volume is
not utilized for doing any external work.
ESE 2017
Ans. (a) : When gas is heated at constant pressure (CP)
it requires more heat energy as there is change is in
internal energy as well as external work done.
But in case of constant volume (CV) there is no external
work done, so that the given heat has to increase only
external energy. Therefore CP is always greater than CV.
 dh 
CP =  
 dT P =Const.
 du 
CV =   γ +1
 dT V =Const.
We know that enthalpy of fluid is more in value as
compared to internal energy of the fluid.
h>u
So, CP > CV
58
348. Statement (I): A homogeneous mixture of gases
that do not react within themselves can be treated
as a pure substance.
Statement (II): Flue gases can be treated as a
homogeneous mixture of gases.
ESE 2017
Ans. (a) : The composition of pure substance is
invariable and same through out the sample i.e.
constituents of pure substance do not react themselves.
Hence statement-I is definition of pure substance and
statement-II is example, so both are true.
349. At the critical point, any substance
(a) will exist in all the three phases
simultaneously
(b) will change directly from solid to vapour
(c) will lose phase distinction between liquid and
vapour
(d) will behave as an ideal gas
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (c) : will lose phase distinction between liquid and
vapour
350. Triple point and critical point pressure of
carbon dioxide are:-
(a) 4.58mm Hg and 221.2 bar respectively
(b) 5.18 bar and 221.2 bar respectively
(c) 1 bar and 50 bar respectively
(d) 5.18 bar and 73.8 bar respectively
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (d) : Triple point and critical point pressure of
carbon dioxide are 5.18 bar and 73.8 bar respectively.
351. Which one of the following is weaker than
hydrogen bonds?
(a) Ionic bond (b) Vander Waals bond
(c) Covalent bond (d) Metallic bond
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
Ans. (b) : Vander walls bond is weaker than hydrogen
bonds.
352. The latent heat of steam with increase in
pressure
(a) does not change (b) increases
(c) decreases (d) remains unpredictable
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Ans. (c) : Decreases
353. An ideal gas is heated from temperature T1
and T2 by keeping its volume constant. The gas
is expanded back to its initial temperature
according to the law PVn = C. If the entropy
change in the two processes are equal, then the
value of n in terms of the adiabatic index γ is
γ −1
(a) n = (b) n =
2 2
γ +2 γ +4
(c) n = (d) n =
4 2
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : and there are circumstances where the properties of the
molecules have an experimentally measurable effect. A
T  T  V
cv ℓ n  2  = cv ℓ n  1  + Rℓn 1 modification of the ideal gas law as proposed by Johannes
T
 1 T
 2 V2 D. van der Waals in 1873 to take into account molecular
1 size and molecular interaction forces. It is usually referred
V1  T1  n −1 to as the Vander Walls equation of state.
= 
V2  T2  356. Which one of the following parameters is
significant to ascertain chemical equilibrium of
T  T  R T a system?
cv ℓ n  2  = cv ℓ n  1  + ℓn 2
 T1   T2  ( n − 1) T1 (a) Clapeyron equation (b) Maxwell relations
(c) Gibbs function (d) Helmholtz function
T  T  R T 
cv ℓ n  2  = −cv ℓ n  2  + ℓn  2  BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
 T1   T1  ( n − 1)  T1  Ans : (c) : In chemical equilibrium, the Gibb's free energy
R 'G' is minimum at constant pressure reaction so assuming a
2cv = reaction is happening at constant pressure, chemical
n −1
equilibrium is ascertained by Gibb's free energy.
c p − cv = R
357. Which of the following relationship defines the
c p − cv Helmholtz function (F)?
2cv =
n −1 (a) F = H + TS (b) F = H – TS
c (c) F = U + TS (d) F = U – TS
2 ( n − 1) = p − 1 BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
cv
Ans : (d) : Helmholtz function (F)
2n − 2 = γ − 1
F = U − TS
2n = γ + 1
358. The specific heat relation is
γ +1 vT β 2
n= (a) CP − CV =
2 k
354. What is the lowest pressure at which water can vTk
(b) CP − CV = 2
exist in liquid phase in stable equilibrium? β
(a) 101.325 kPa (b) 0.311 kPa
pTk
(c) 22.06 kpa (d) 0.611 kPa (c) CP − CV = 2
BHEL ET 2019 β
Ans. (d) : The lowest pressure at which water v 2T β
(d) CP − CV =
can exist in liquid phase in stable equilibrium k
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
of 0.611 kPa.
Ans. (a) :
7. Thermodynamic Relations
2
 ∂V   ∂V 
CP − CV = −T    
 ∂T  P  ∂T T
1  ∂V 
 a  β=  
355. The equation  P + 2  ( V − b ) = RT is known V  ∂T  P
 V 
as 1  ∂V 
KT = −  
(a) perfect gas equation V  ∂T T
(b) Maxwell's equation We get,
(c) kinetic theory of gases equation Tvβ 2
(d) Vander walls equation CP − CV =
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 kT
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II 359. The expression indicating Y as a
Ans : (d) Vander walls equation thermodynamic property is :
 a  1
= P + 2 (V − b ) = RT (a) Y = XZdZ + Z2 dX (b) Y = XZ 2 dZ + Z 2dX
2
 V 
(c) Y = pdv – vdp (d) Y = p2dv + vdp
The ideal gas law treats that the molecules of a gas as OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
point particles with perfectly elastic collisions. This
works well for dilute gases in many experimental Ans. (a) : Y = XZdZ + Z2 dX 1
circumstances. But gas molecules are not point masses, 2

59
360. Specific heat CP at constant pressure is defined (d) Entropy
as : UPRVUNL AE 2016
 ∂h   ∂h  Ans. (c) : We know that
(a)   (b)  
 ∂T  u  ∂T  p TdS = dh - VdP
If P = constant
 ∂h   ∂h 
(c)   (d)   TdS = dh
 ∂p  T  ∂p  u
 dh 
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011   =T
 dS  P
Ans. (b) : We know that
H = mC p ∆T An enthalpy-entropy chart also known as h-s or Mollier
diagram.
h = C p ∆T (For unit mass)
364. Which of the following is not the Maxwell's
Change in specific enthalpy, equation?
 ∂h   ∂S   ∂P 
Cp =   (a)   =  ∂T 
 ∂T  P  ∂V T  V
361. Constant pressure lines in the superheated  ∂V   ∂P 
region of the Mollier diagram have what type
(b) 
∂T  = −  ∂S 
 P  V
of slope?
(a) A positive slope  ∂T   ∂V 
(c)   = 
(b) A negative slope  ∂P S  ∂S  P
(c) Zero slope  ∂T   ∂P 
(d)   = − 
(d) May have either positive or negative slopes  ∂V S  ∂S  V
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
SJVN ET 2019
Ans. (a) : Mollier diagram is (h-s) enthalpy entropy plot
Ans. (b) :
Tds = dh – vdp
365. The gas constant R is equal to the
 ∂h 
  = T = Slope (a) sum of two specific heats.
 ∂s  p (b) difference of two specific heats.
T is always +Ve so slope always +Ve. (c) product of two specific heats.
362. The equation of state (d) ratio of two specific heats.
 B B B  UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
pν = RT  B 0 + 1 + 22 + 33  is known as
 ν ν ν  Ans. (b) : difference of two specific heats.
366. The value of compressibility factor for a
(a) Vander wall's equation vander Waals gas is equal to
(b) Benedict-Webb-Rubin equation (a) 1.0 (b) 0.375
(c) Gibbs equation (c) 0.2 to 0.3 (d) 0.35
(d) Virial equation UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
TNPSC AE 2018 Ans. (b) : 0.375
Ans. (d) : Virial equation, 367. The slope of an isobar on the h – s coordinates
 B B B  is equal to the
pν = RT  B 0 + 1 + 22 + 33 
 ν ν ν  (a) Gibbs function
The virial equation of state is valid for gases at (b) Helmholtz function
low density only. (c) Pressure
363. The slope of constant pressure curve on (d) Absolute saturation temperature at that
enthalpy-entropy diagram gives: pressure
(a) Density UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
(b) Specific volume Ans. (d) : Absolute saturation temperature at that
(c) Absolute temperature pressure

60
 02. POWER PLANT ENGINEERING
1. Steam Power Plant
1. Which of the following is incorrect for Rankine
vapor power cycle?
(a) It has two reversible adiabatic and two
reversible isobaric process.
(b) Its efficiency is dependent on mean
temperature of addition and temperature of
heat rejection.
(c) Constant pressure heat rejection takes place in
the turbine.
(d) The efficiency of Rankine cycle can be
increased by increasing the degree of
superheat at constant pressure.
(e) Heat addition takes place in the boiler at
constant pressure.
CGPSC AE 2014- II
Ans. (c) : Process 1 - 2 – Reversible adiabatic
expansion [Turbne work]
Process 2-3– Reversible isobaric heat rejection
[isothermal heat rejection]
Process 3-4– Reversible adiabatic compression
[Pump work]
Process 4-1– Reversible isobaric heat addition
[In Boiler]
2. In thermal power plants, the deaerator is used
mainly to
(a) Remove air from condenser
(b) Reduce steam pressure
(c) Increase feed water temperature
(d) Remove dissolved gases from feed water
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
Ans. (d) : Deaerator in steam power plant removes
condensable gases from water and non-condensibles
from circulated water. If large number of closed
regenerator are used in cycle, at least one should be
open type for this deaeration process. This dearation
process removes some steam with gases which is make
up feed water.
61
3. In a steam power plant, the ratio of the
isentropic heat drop in the prime mover to the
amount of heat supplied per unit mass of steam
is known as
(a) Stage efficiency (b) degree of reaction
(c) Rankine efficiency (d) relative efficiency
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
Ans. (c) :
• Rankine efficiency – The ratio of the isentropic heat
drop in the prime mover to the amount of heat supplied
per unit mass of steam.
• Stage efficiency – A stage efficiency of an impulse
turbine consists of a nozzle set and a moving wheel.
The stage efficiency defines a relationship between
enthalpy drop in the nozzle drop in the nozzle and work
done in the stage.
work done on blade
ηstage =
Energy supplied per stage
• Degree of Reaction – It is defined as the ratio of
static pressure drop in the rotor to the static pressure
drop in the stage or as the ratio of static enthalpy drop in
the rotor to static enthalpy drop in the stage.
• Relative efficiency – Ratio of thermal efficiency and
Rankine efficiency.
4. The efficiency of superheated Rankine cycle is
higher than that of simple Rankine cycle
because
(a) The enthalpy of main steam is lower for super
heat cycle
(b) The mean temperature of heat addition is
higher for super heat cycle
(c) The temperature of steam in condenser is high
(d) The quality of steam in condenser is low
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
Ans. (b) : The effect of superheating the steam to a high
temperature on the Rankine cycle efficiency is shown
on a T – S diagram below.
! By superheating the steam to a high temperature
(from state 3 to state 31), the average steam temperature
during heat addition can be increased. The shaded area
is the net work increases due to superheating the steam
to a high temperature.
! The other way to increase the efficiency of the simple
Ideal Rankine cycle is :-
! Decreasing the condenser pressure.
! Increasing the boiler pressure.
5. Steam flow is controlled by using : Ans. (b) : Reheating of Rankine cycle will improve the
(a) Drum level sensor steam quality.
(b) Feedwater flow sensor
(c) Steam flow sensor
(d) All of these
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
Ans. (d) : steam flow is control by using :
! Drum level sensor
! Feedwater flow sensor
! Steam flow sensor
6. Attemperation is done :
(a) Just after the secondary superheater x1 > x2
(b) Just before the primary superheater so, x ↑ → mass of vapour ↑ → mass of water
(c) Between the primary and secondary ↓ → erosion of turbine blades ↓.
superheater 12. The reheat factor depends upon
(d) At the entry of steam from boiler (a) initial pressure and super-heat
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 (b) exit pressure
Ans. (c) : Attemperation is done between the primary (c) turbine stage efficiency
and secondary superheater. (d) All of the above
7. Plants A, B and C require 3 kg/s, 8 kg/s and 28 JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
kg/s of saturated water flow in the downcomer Ans. (d) : The reheat factor (R.F.)
to produce 1 kg/s steam respectively. The most
feasible plant will be : Cumulative heat drop
R.F. =
(a) Plant B (b) Plant A Isentropic heat drop
(c) Plant C (d) Plant A and B It depends on:
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 (i) Initial pressure and superheat.
Ans. (b) : The most feasible plant will be plant A. (ii) Exit pressure.
8. The locomotive boiler has (iii) Turbine stage efficiency.
(a) 137 fire tubes and 44 super-heated tubes It increase with the increase in number of stages. The
(b) 147 fire tubes and 34 super-heated tubes value of reheat factor varies from 1.02 to 1.06.
(c) 157 fire tubes and 24 super-heated tubes
(d) 167 fire tubes and 14 super-heated tubes 13. The function of a condenser in thermal power
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper plant is
Ans. (c) : 157 fire tubes and 24 super-heated tubes (a) to act as reservoir to receive steam for turbine
9. In a boiler, various heat losses take place. The (b) to condense steam into condensate to be
biggest loss is due to reused again
(a) moisture in fuel (b) dry flue gases (c) to create vacuum
(c) steam formation (d) unburnt carbon (d) all of the above
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
Ans. (b) : dry flue gases Ans : (d) : The function of a condenser in thermal
10. The maximum percentage gain in regenerative power plants is -
feed heating cycle, the thermal efficiency ! to act as reservoir to receive steam for turbine.
(a) increases with number of feed heaters ! to condense steam into condensate to be reused again.
increasing ! to create vacuum.
(b) decreases with number of feed heaters 14. After turbine trip, the cooling water to
increasing
condenser
(c) remains same unaffected by number of feed
heaters (a) is stopped immediately
(d) None of the above (b) is stopped after 15-30 minutes
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper (c) is never stopped
Ans. (a) : In regenerative cycles, the increase in (d) may be stopped anytime
efficiency due to regeneration is proportional to BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
increases in temperature of feed water in a feed water Ans : (b) : is stopped after 15-30 minutes.
heater. 15. One kg steam sample contains 0.4 kg water
11. Reheating or Rankine cycle will vapor. Its dryness fraction is
(a) not alter turbine efficiency (a) 0.4 (b) 0.6
(b) improve the steam quality
0.4
(c) decrease the nozzle and blade efficiency (c) (d) 0.4 × 0.6
(d) decrease the turbine efficiency 1.4
TNPSC AE 2018 BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
62
Ans : (a) : 18. Reheat cycle is essential in a steam power plant
mass of vapor to
Dryness fraction = (a) utilize the heat of flue gases
total mass (b) heat the feed water on its way to boiler
mv 0.4 (c) increase the plant efficiency
= = = 0.4 (d) to reduce the moisture content at the low
mv + mw 1
pressure stages of turbines so that erosion and
16. Equivalence evaporation is defined as corrosion problems can be eliminated
(a) the ratio of heat actually used in producing Gujarat PSC AE 2019
stream to the heat liberated in the furnace Ans : (d) : To reduce the moisture content at the low
(b) the amount of water evaporated in kg per kg pressure stages of turbines so that erosion and corrosion
of coal burnt problems can be eliminated
(c) evaporation of water from and at 100ºC into 19. The ratio of energy produced by a power plant
dry saturated steam to the installed capacity of plant is called as:
(d) evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour (a) Load factor (b) Use factor
from and at 100ºC (c) Average load factor (d) Demand factor
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (c) : Equivalent evaporation- It is the amount of Ans : (b) : Plant use factor- It is the ratio of energy
water evaporated from feed water at 100oC at normal produced in a given time to maximum possible energy
atmospheric pressure (1.01 bar). It is usually written as that could be produced during actual number of hours of
"from at 100oC". operation.
Mathematically equivalent evaporation from and at Annual Production of energy
Plant usefactors =
100oC. Operational hours in year × Capacity of plant

E=
(
mc h − h f1 ) 20.
2257
Where,
mC = Mass of water actually evaporated or steam
produced in kg/hr or kg/kg of fuel burnt.
h = Total heat of steam in kJ/kg of steam and
hf1 = Sensible heat of feed water in kJ/kg of steam.
17. The efficiency of the vapour power Rankine
cycle can be increased by
1. increasing the temperature of the working
fluid at which heat is added
2. increasing the pressure of the working
fluid at which heat is added
3. decreasing the temperature of the working
fluid at which heat is rejected
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 alone
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (d) : The efficiency of the vapour power Rankine
cycle can be increased by-
(i) Increasing the temperature of working fluid, the
mean temperature of heat addition increases and heat
transfer irreversibility reduces. This results in improved
efficiency.
(ii) Since in Rankine cycle, there is phase change during
heat addition or rejection. So by increasing pressure of
fluid during heat addition, the temperature also
increases and efficiency increases.
(iii) Reducing temperature of heat rejection will also
increases the efficiency of cycle. These points are clear
by
Trejection ( mean )
η = 1−
Taddition ( mean )
63
Draught in a boiler is important for:
(a) Removing combustible gases from boiler
(b) For proper combustion of fuel
(c) Both (A) and (B)
(d) None of these
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (c) : Draught in a boiler is important for
• Removing combustible gases from boiler
• For proper combustion of fuel.
To discharge these gases to the atmosphere through the
chimney.
21. On a boiler one end of the water indicator
(Glass Tube Type) is connected to water space
in boiler and other end is connected to:
(a) Open to atmosphere
(b) Steam space of boiler
(c) Superheater
(d) Another part of water space
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (b) : On a boiler one end of the water indicator
(glass tube type) is connected to water space in boiler
and other end is connected to steam space of boiler.
22. A device used to increase the temperature of
saturated steam without raising its pressure, is
called:
(a) Stop Valve (b) Economiser
(c) Superheater (d) Pre Heater
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (c) : Superheater- It is an important device of a
steam generating unit. Its purpose is to increase the
temperature of saturated steam without raising its
pressure. It is generally an integral part of a boiler, and
is placed in the path of hot flue gases from the furnace.
The heat given up by these flue gases, is used in
superheating the steam. Such superheaters which are
installed within the boiler, are known as integral
superheaters.
23. A steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed under 29. In a solar tower power system, each mirror is
the fire grate, in the ash pit of the furnace is mounted on a system called
used to produce which type of draught? (a) Regenerator (b) Linear Fresnel
(a) Natural (b) Induced (c) Dish (d) Heliostat
(c) Forced (d) None of the options ESE 2020
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II Ans. (d) : Heliostat
Ans : (c) : Forced steam jet draught- When the steam 30. The partial vacuum created by the fan in the
jet issuing from a nozzle is placed in the ash pit under furnace and flues, draws the products of the
the fire grate of the furnace, it is then known as forced combustion from the main flue and allows
steam jet draught. them to pass up to the chimney. Such a draught
24. The equivalent evaporation is defined as: is called
(a) The amount of water evaporated from and at (a) Balanced draught (b) Forced draught
100ºC dry saturated steam (c) Induced draught (d) Artificial draught
(b) The amount of water evaporated in kg/kg of ESE 2020
fuel burnt Ans. (c) Induced draught
(c) The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water/hour 31. An economizer in a steam generator performs
from and at 100ºC the function of preheating the
(d) The ratio of heat used in producing the steam (a) Combustion air
to the heat liberated in furnace (b) Feed water
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II (c) Input fuel
Ans : (a) : Equivalent Evaporation- It is the amount (d) Combustion air as well as input fuel
of water evaporated from feed water at 100ºC and ESE 2020
formed into dry and saturated steam at 100ºC at normal Ans. (b) : The flue gases from the super heater enter the
atmospheric pressure (1.01 bar). It is usually written as economizer and heat up the feed water. Economizer
from and at 100 ºC. serves as a heat recovery system for the boiler.
25. In a locomotive and marine boilers the safety 32. In a power plant, the efficiency of the electric
valve used are mainly: generator, turbine, boiler, cycle and the overall
(a) Leaver operated safety valve plant are 0.97, 0.95, 0.92, 0.42 and 0.33
(b) High steam and low water safety valve respectively. In the generated electricity, the
(c) Spring loaded safety valve auxiliaries will consume nearly
(d) Dead weight safety valve (a) 7.3% (b) 6.5%
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II (c) 5.7% (d) 4.9%
ESE 2020
Ans : (c) : In a locomotive and marine boilers the safety ESE 2019
valve used are mainly spring loaded safety valve.
Ans. (a) : ηo = ηb × ηt × ηe × ηg × ηa
26. Low grade waste heat in bottoming cycle of
cogeneration is used for: 0.33 = 0.92 × 0.95 × 0.42 × 0.97 × ηa
(a) Feed water heating 0.33
(b) Processing ηa = = 0.9267
(c) Power generation 0.92 × 0.95 × 0.42 × 0.97
(d) Not for any use Power consumed (%) = 1 – ηa = 1 – 0.9267
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II = 0.0733
= 7.33%
Ans : (a) : Low grade waste heat in bottoming cycle of
cogeneration is used for feed water heating. 33. The higher power requirements for
compression in a steam power plant working
27. The following in (are) ash handling system(s).
on Carnot vapour cycle
(a) Hydraulic system (b) Pneumatic system (a) Increases the plant efficiency as well as work
(c) Steam jet system (d) All of these ratio
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II (b) Reduces the plant efficiency as well as work
Ans : (d) : All of these ratio
28. In a thermal power plant feed water heater is (c) Does not affect the plant efficiency as well as
used to pre heat the feed water by: work ratio
(a) Hot gases from boiler furnace (d) Increases the plant efficiency and reduces
(b) Steam from boiler work ratio
(c) Hot air from air pre heater ESE 2020
(d) Turbine exhaust steam Ans. (d) : Increases the plant efficiency and reduces
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II work ratio
Ans : (d) : In a thermal power plant feed water heater is 34. Which of the given statements is true?
used to pre heat the feed water by turbine exhaust (a) At the critical point, all the three phases of
steam. water coexist in equilibrium.
64
 (b) At the critical point, saturated liquid and (b) Thermal Power Plant
saturated vapour phases are identical (c) Nuclear Power Plant
(c) At the triple point, all the phases of water (d) Same for all
coexist in non-equilibrium SJVN ET 2013
(d) At the triple point, saturated liquid and Ans. (a) : Hydro-power plant has maximum life
saturated vapour phases are identical. expectancy.
BHEL ET 2019 38. With reheat Rankine cycle :
Ans. (a) : (a) Quality of exhaust steam is improved
(b) Network output of cycle increases
(c) Specific steam consumption decreases
(d) All the above
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
Ans. (d) : With reheat Rankine cycle,
x↑, ↓errosion of blade
Wnet ↑, SSC↓, Qs↑
WT↑, Wc = Constant
• Critical point is a point where saturated liquid and 39. Complete the sentence : "The function of the
saturated vapour curve meet. _____ is to increase the temperature for air
• At critical point a liquid directly flash into vapour. before it enters the furnace".
• At critical point latent heat of vapourization is zero. (a) Air preheater (b) Super heater
35. A steam power plant is a classic example of (c) Injector (d) Economizer
________. SJVN ET 2019
(a) Heat reservoir (b) Heat pump Ans. (a) : Air preheater is to increase the temperature
(c) Heat engine (d) Refrigerator for air before it enters the furnace.
(e) Compressor 40. Steam enters a condenser at 35º C [ P =
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) sat @ 35o C
Ans. (c) : A steam power plant is a classic example of a 42.21 mm of Hg]. Barometer reading is 760 mm
heat engine. External fired heat engine are generally of Hg and vacuum of 690 mm Hg is recorded in
steam engines, and they differ from internal combustion the condenser. The vacuum efficiency will be
engine in that the heat source is separate from the fluid given by:
that does work. (a) 86.01% (b) 82.30%
For Example–An external combustion engine would (c) 96.10% (d) 80.23%
use a flame to heat water into steam, then using the SJVN ET 2019
steam to run a turbine. Ans. (c) :
36. Which is not a boiler accessory? Actual vavcuum
Vaccum efficiency =
(a) Economiser (b) Fusible plug Barometer – Absolute pressure of steam
(c) Superheate (d) Air Preheater PActual = 690 mm Hg
SJVN ET 2013 PBarometer = 760 mm Hg
Ans. (b) : Boiler mountings- PSteam = 42.21 mm Hg
(i) Two safety valves. 690
ηvacuum =
(ii) Two water level indicators 760 − 42.21
(iii) A pressure gauge 690
= = 96.10%
(iv) A steam stop valves 717.79
(v) A feed check valves 41. _______ is a boiler mounting.
(vi) A blow off cock (a) Air preheater (b) Fusible plug
(vii) An attachment for inspectors test gauge (c) Economizer (d) Super heater
(viii) A main hole SJVN ET 2019
(ix) Mud holes or sight holes UJVNL AE 2016
Boiler accessories- RPSC AE 2016
(i) Feed pumps Ans. (b) : Mounting are fitting, which are mounted on
(ii) Injector the boiler for its safe and proper functioning.
(iii) Economiser List of boiler mounting -
(iv) Air pre heater (1) Feed water indicator
(v) Super heater (2) Pressure gauge
(vi) Steam separator (3) Safety valve
(vii) Steam trap (4) Stop valve
37. Which power plant has maximum life (5) Blow of cock
expectancy? (6) Feed check valve
(a) Hydro-Power Plant (6) Fusible plug
65
42. Thermal efficiency of Rankine cycle can be Ans. (c) : "Sinking fund method" is used to calculate
enhanced by the depreciation cost of the power plant.
(a) Decreasing the average temperature of heat 47. Superheating of the steam is done at
addition (a) Constant temperature
(b) Increasing the superheat of constant pressure (b) Constant volume
(c) Increasing the average temperature of heat (c) Constant pressure
rejection (d) Constant entropy
(d) The efficiency of Rankine cycle does not HPPSC AE 2018
depend on average temperature of heat Ans. (c) : Superheating of the steam is done at constant
addition pressure
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
Ans. (b) : Thermal efficiency of Rankin cycle can be
enhanced by—
1. Decrease in condenser pressure
2. Increase the boiler pressure
3. Increasing the superheat at constant pressure
43. The ratio of average load to the maximum load
is known as
(a) Utilization factor (b) Diversity factor
(c) Plant capacity factor (d) Load factor
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
Ans. (d) : Load factor—The ratio of average load to BC – Superheating of the steam
the maximum load is known as load factor. Degree of superheat = (TC – TB)
Utilization factor—It is defined as the ratio of the time 48. The degree of collection for a given ash
that a equipment is in use to the total time that it could collector in which 75 kg/s of ash is entering and
be in use. 25 kg/s of ash leaving is
Diversity factor—Diversity factor is defined as the (a) 0.67 (b) 0.75
ratio of sum of individual maximum demand to (c) 0.52 (d) 0.93
maximum demand on power station. TNPSC AE 2013
Installed load Ans. (a) : min = 75 kg/s
Diversity factor = m0 = 25 kg/s
Running load
Collection of ash in given ash collector is given
44. Use of modified Rankine cycle causes the as
(a) Reduction of the bore of cylinder
ɺ −m
m ɺo
(b) Reduction of the stroke of cylinder DOC = in
(c) Increase the work output of an engine mɺ in
(d) Increase the efficiency of an engine 75 − 25
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 =
75
Ans. (b) : Use of modified Rankine cycle causes the = 0.6667
reduction of the stroke of cylinder.
49. The excess temperature ∆Te
45. Regeneration of simple Rankine cycle leads to
Ts - Surface temperature
(a) The heating process in the boiler be less
Tsat - Saturation temperature
irreversible
Tsup - Super heated
(b) The heating process in the boiler be more
(a) Tsup (b) (Ts + Tsat)
irreversible
(c) (Tsup - Tsat) (d) (Ts - Tsat)
(c) The reduction in average temperature of heat
TNPSC AE 2013
addition
(d) The reduction in efficiency of cycle Ans. (d) : Excess temperature ∆Te or degree of
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 superheating
Ans. (a) : Regeneration—It is a process of steam = (Ts – Tsat)
extracting from intermediate of turbine which is used 50. The heat carried away by coolant is called as
for increase the temperature of feed water. It tends to (a) Unaccounted Loss (b) Dead Loss
heating process in the boiler be less irreversible. (c) Minor Loss (d) Major Loss
TNPSC AE 2013
46. "Sinking fund method" is used to calculate the
(a) Initial cost of the power plant Ans. (b) : The heat carried away by coolant is called as
(b) Installation cost of the power plant dead loss.
(c) Depreciation cost of the power plant 51. Demand factor is defined as
(d) Interest on the loan borrowed to install the (a) Average load/ maximum demand
power plant (b) Maximum demand/ connected load
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 (c) Connected load/ maximum demand
66
 (d) Maximum demand × connected load 57. Which among the following is the boiler
TNPSC AE 2014 mounting?
Ans. (b) : Demand factory is defined as the ratio of (a) Blow off cock (b) Feed pump
maximum demand to connected load. (c) Economizer (d) Superheater
52. The efficiency of chimney is approximately RPSC AE 2018
(a) 80% (b) 40% (HPPSC LECT. 2016)
(c) 20% (d) 0.25% Ans. (a) : Boiler mounting—Boiler mounting are the
TNPSC AE 2014 safety devices which are fitted on the boiler for its safe
Ans. (d) : The efficiency of chimney is approximately and efficient working.
0.25% Example—1. Water level indicator
53. In the operation of steam engines the vapour 2. Pressure gauge
cycle adopted is 3. Safety valves
(a) Carnot cycle 4. Stop valves
(b) Rankine cycle 5. Blow off cock
(c) Modified Rankine cycle 6. Feed check valves
(d) Regenerative cycle Boiler accessories—Boiler accessories are the integral
TNPSC AE 2014 parts of boiler they are used in the boiler to improve its
efficiency.
Ans. (c) : In the operation of steam engines the vapour Example—1. Air preheater
cycle adopted is modified Ranking cycle. 2. Superheater
54. Steam super heating is done at constant 3. Economizer
(a) Pressure (b) Mass flow rate 4. Feed pump
(c) Entropy (d) Temperature 5. Injectors etc.
TNPSC AE 2014 58. The efficiency of regenerative rankine cycle is
Ans. (a) : Steam super heating is done at constant higher than simple rankine cycle because
pressure. (a) total work delivered by the turbine increases
(b) heat is added before steam enters the low
pressure turbine
(c) average temperature of heat addition in the
boiler increases
(d) total work delivered by the turbine decreases
(e) pressure inside the boiler increases
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
Ans. (c) : The efficiency of regenerative Rankine cycle
is higher than simple Rankine because average
Degree of super heat = (T2 – T1)
temperature of heat addition in the boiler increase.
55. The draught which a chimney produced is
59. A curve showing the variation of load on a
called
power station with respect to time is known as-
(a) Induced draught (b) Natural draught
(a) Load curve (b) Load duration curve
(c) Forced draught (d) Balanced draught
(c) Diversity factor (d) Performance curve
TNPSC AE 2014
RPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) : Natural draught–Natural draught or
Ans. (a) : A curve showing the variation of load on a
chimney draught is the pressure difference which causes
power station with respect to time is known as Load
a flow of air or gases from one point to another point in
curve.
the boiler system.
Draught is required in a boiler system mainly 60. A power generation station is to supply four
due to two reasons. regions of loads with peak demand of 10 MW,
1. To supply sufficient air for completing the 15 MW, 20 MW and 30 MW. If the diversity
combustion. factor is 1.5, the maximum demand on the
2. To remove flue gases from the system after station is-
combustion and the heat exchange. (a) 70 MW (b) 60 MW
(c) 50 MW (d) 40 MW
56. Without the use of superheater a boiler RPSC AE 2018
produces steam of about
Ans. (c) : Diversity factor—Diversity factor is the ratio
(a) 80% dryness fraction
of the sum of the individual non-coincident maximum
(b) 90% dryness fraction loads of various sub-divisions of the system to the
(c) 98% dryness fraction maximum demand of complete system.
(d) 88% dryness fraction The diversity factor is almost always larger than 1, since
TNPSC AE 2014 all components would have to be on simultaneously at
Ans. (c) : Without the use of superheater a boiler full load for it to be one.
produces steam of about 98% dryness fraction. Data given:-
67
Peak demands—10 MW, 15 MW, 20 MW, 30 MW 65. Consider the following statements with regard
Diversity factor = 1.5 to reheat Rankine cycle:
Sum of all peak demands 1. All the steam is taken out of the turbine after partial
Diversity factor = expansion for reheating at constant volume
The maximum demand on the station 2. The cycle permits the use of very high
The maximum demand on the station pressure without excessive moisture at
10 + 15 + 20 + 30 75 condenser inlet
= =
1.5 1.5 3. The efficiency of the reheat cycle may or may
= 50 MW not exceed that of a simple cycle operating
between the same maximum temperature and
61. Induced draught fans of a large steam power
pressure
plant has
(a) forward curved blade 4. If the reheat pressure is more than 80% of the
(b) backward curved blade maximum system pressure, the thermal
(c) radial blade efficiency will be more than that for a simple
(d) double curved blade cycle
(e) straight blade Which of the above statements are correct?
CGPSC AE 2014 -II (a) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a) : Induced draught fans of a large steam power UPSC JWM 2017
plant has forward curved blade.
Ans. (a) : Reheat Rankine cycle- In reheat cycle, the
62. Degree of superheating obtained using a liquid- total expansion of steam from boiler to condenser
to suction heat exchanger is: pressure take place in more than 1st stage with
(a) Always greater than the degree of sub cooling reheating of steam in between the stages.
(b) Always less than degree of sub cooling
(c) Always equal to degree of sub cooling
(d) Depends on the effectiveness of heat
exchanger
(e) Depends on the type of the refrigerant
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
Ans. (a) : Degree of Superheating obtained using a
liquid-to-suction heat exchanger is always greater than
the degree of sub cooling. As steam quality x is increases, the moisture
63. The fusible plug of a boiler is an example of content at the inlet of condenser decreases.
(a) Safe life approach For the same maximum pressure and
(b) Fail safe approach temperature limit, the efficiency of Rankine cycle
(c) Reliability approach increase or decrease.
(d) Maintainability approach 66. Rankine cycle efficiency for a power plant is
UPSC JWM 2017 Q1 - heat transferred to the working fluid
Ans. (b) : Fusible plug in boiler is a fitting used in Q2 - heat rejected from the working fluid
steam boiler to enhance the safety during operation. WT - work transferred from the working fluid
Fusible plug is installed in small horizontal fire tube WP - work transferred into the working fluid
boilers between furnance and boiler water drum for W − WP Q2
protection of boiler while lower water level in drum. (a) η = T (b) η =
Fusible plug is an example of fail safe approach. Q2 WT − WP
64. Consider the following statements: Q 2 − Q1
(c) η = WT − WP (d) η =
1. For a given power, a fire tube boiler occupies WT
less space than a water tube boiler, TNPSC 2019
2. Steam at a high pressure and in large Ans. (a) : Rankine cycle efficiency for a power plant.
quantities can be produced with a simple
vertical boiler
3. A simple vertical boiler has a fire tube
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
UPSC JWM 2017
Ans. (c) : For a given power, a fire tube boiler occupies
more space than a water tube boiler.
Fire tube boiler- In fire tube boiler, the flue gases flow Wnet
ηR =
in the tubes and water flows from the shell. Q supplied
Water tube boiler- in water tube, boiler, water flows
from the tubes and the flue gases from the shell or WT − W P
ηR =
passes over the tubes. Q1
68
67. At ideal condition of vapour power cycle heat S. Always increases specific work output
rejection at revesrsible constant pressure (a) P and S (b) Q and S
occurs at (c) P only (d) Q only
(a) turbine (b) pump TSPSC AEE 2015
(c) condenser (d) boiler Ans. (b) : Reheating- The primary aim of the reheating
TNPSC 2019 is to improve the quality (x) of the working fluid
Ans. (c) : At ideal condition of vapour power cycle heat [steam] at the exist of turbine. So that less errossion of
rejection at reversible constant pressure occurs at blade.
condenser.

68. Consider the following statement regarding Reheating means the total expansion of
superheating in Rankine cycle working fluid takes place in more than one stage there
(1) Reduces specific steam consumption for with the use of reheating the specific steam
(2) Increase dryness fraction at exhaust for the consumption [S.S.C.] and make the plant compact.
same condenser pressure Effect of reheating in Rankine cycle –
(3) It reduces cycle efficiency, of these WT↑, WP = constant, QR↑, η↑↓, Wnet↑, TMA↑↓,
statement x↑→ vapour ↑→ liquid ↓→errosion of turbine blade↓.
(a) 1 and 2 are correct 70. There is no steam drum in
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(a) la mount boiler (b) loffler boiler
(c) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) benson boiler (d) velox boiler
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (c)
Ans. (a) : Benson Boiler
! Benson Boiler is water tube boiler
! Forced circulation Boiler
! No steam drum
! Efficiency = 90%
71. Fire tube boilers are those in which-
(a) flue gases pass through tubes and water
around it
(b) water passes through the tubes and flue
gasses around it
(c) forced circulation takes place
(d) tubes are laid vertically
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
Super heating- It is the process of increasing Ans : (a) Fire tube boilers are those in which flue gases
the temperature at constant pressure above saturated pass through tubes and water around it.
vapour. Fire tube boilers are-
Effect of superheating in Rankine cycle- 1. Cornish Boiler
WT ↑, WP = constant 2. Cochran Boiler
Wnet↑, Qr↑, QS↑ TMA↑, TMR↑ = constant 3. Locomotive Boiler
η↑, x↑→ errossion of blade↓ 4. Lancashire Boiler
69. Which combination of the following statements 5. Scotch marine Boiler
are correct. The incorporation of reheater in a 72. In high pressure natural circulation boilers, the
steam power plant flue gases flow through the following boiler
P. Always increase thermal efficiency accessories (a) superheater (b) air heater (c)
Q. Always increase dryness fraction at economiser (d) i.d. fan correct sequence of the
condensed inlet flow of the gases through these boiler
R. Increase the mean temperature of heat accessories is–
addition (a) (a) - (c) - (d) - (b)
69
 (b) (c) - (a) - (d) - (b) 76.A boiler is having a chimney of 35 m height.
(c) (c) - (a) - (b) - (d) The draught produced in terms of water
(d) (a) - (c) - (b) - (d) column is 20 mm. The temperature of flue gas
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016 inside the chimney is 365°C and that of air
Ans : (d) The correct sequence of flue gases in steam outside the chimney is 32°C. The mass of air
generator is used will be nearly
Superheater>Economiser >Air Preheater >ID Fan> (a) 10.3 kg/kg of fuel (b) 12.5 kg/kg of fuel
Chimney (c) 14.7 kg/kg of fuel (d) 16.9 kg/kg of fuel
73. When a liquid boils at constant pressure, the ESE 2019
following parameter increases  1 1 M + 1 
Ans. (d) : hw = 353 H  − a

(a) temperature T T M
 a g a 
(b) latent heat of vapourization
(c) kinetic energy  1 1  Ma + 1 
20 = 353 × 35  −  
(d) entropy  305 638  M a  
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
20 1 1  Ma + 1 
Ans : (d) In Rankine vapour cycle liquid boils at = −  M 
constant pressure in boiler and entropy increases. 353 × 35 305 638  a 
74. Which of the following statements is/are Ma + 1
correct regarding superheater in boilers? = 1.059
Ma
1. It is heat exchanger in which heat is
Ma = 16.9 kg/kg of fuel
transformed to the saturated steam to increase
its temperature. 77. In steam power cycle, the process of removing
2. It raises the overall efficiency. non-condensable gases is called
3. It reduces turbine internal efficiency. (a) scavenging process
Select the correct answer using the code given (b) deaeration process
below. (c) exhaust process
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (d) condensation process
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only ESE 2019
ESE 2019 Ans. (b) : The removal of dissolved gases from boiler
Ans. (a) : The superheater is a heat exchanger in which feedwater is an essential process in a steam system. The
heat is transferred to the saturated steam to increase its presence of dissolved oxygen in feedwater causes rapid
temperature. It raises the overall efficiency. It reduces localized corrosion in boiler tubes. This mechanical
the moisture content in last stages of the turbine and process is known as deaeration and will increase the life
thus increases the turbine internal efficiency. of a steam system dramatically.
75. A 2 kg of steam occupying 0.3 m at 15 bar is 78. The efficiency of superheat Rankine cycle is
3

expanded according to the law pv1.3 = constant higher than that of simple Rankine cycle
because
to a pressure of 1.5 bar. The work done during
(a) the enthalpy of main steam is higher for
the expansion will be superheat cycle
(a) 602.9 kJ (b) 606.7 kJ (b) the mean temperature of heat addition is
(c) 612.5 kJ (d) 618.3 kJ higher for superheat cycle
ESE 2019 (c) the temperature of steam in the condenser is
Ans. (d) : Given, high
m = 2 kg (d) the quality of steam in the condenser is low
3
V1 = 0.3 m ESE 2019
P1 = 15 bar = 1500 kPa Ans. (b) : Increasing the superheat at constant pressure
P2 = 1.5 bar = 150 kPa increases the mean temperature of heat addition and
P1V11.3 = P2 V21.3 cycle efficiency also increases.
1 79. A frictionless piston cylinder device contains 5
 P 1.3 kg of steam at 400 kPa and 200°C. The heat is
V2 = V1  1 
P
 2 now transferred to the steam until the
1 temperature reaches 250°C. If the piston is not
 15  1.3 attached to a shaft, its mass is constant and by
= 0.3   taking the values of specific volume v1 as
 1.5 
= 1.7634 m3 0.53434 m3/kg and v2 as 0.529520 m3/kg the
work done by the steam during this process is
P V − P V (1500 × 0.3) − (150 ×1.763)
W= 1 1 2 2 = (a) 121.7 kJ (b) 137.5 kJ
n −1 1.3 − 1 (c) 153.3 kJ (d) 189.1 kJ
= 618.5 kJ ESE 2019
70
Ans. (a) : Given, Ans. (a) : Steam enters the condenser in wet state,
m = 5 kg V1 = 0.53434 m3/kg hence we have water, vapour and air.
p = 400 kPa 3
V2 = 0.59520 m /kg At lower pressures air leaks through glands and also
T1 = 200°C releases some air dissolved in boiler feed water.
T2 = 250°C Hence both the statements are correct and II is correct
explanation of I.
Since the weight of the piston and the atmosphere
pressure are constant, 84. Which one of the following methods is more
effective to improve the efficiency of the
So assuming it is a constant pressure process Rankine cycle used in thermal power plant?
Work done W = p (V2 − V1) (a) Increasing the condenser temperature
= pm (V2 − V1) (b) Decreasing the condenser temperature
= 400 × 103 × 5 (0.59520 − 0.53434) (c) Decreasing the boiler temperature
= 121.72 kJ (d) Increasing the boiler temperature
80. Statement I: Rankine efficiency of a steam power ESE 2018
plant increases in winter compared to summer. Ans. (b) : Method to increase the efficiency of the
Statement II: The increase in Rankine efficiency Rankine cycle
(i) Lowering the condenser pressure
is due to lower condenser temperature. (ii) Superheating the steam to high temperature
ESE 2018 (iii) Increasing the Boiler pressure
Ans. (a) : In winter condenser temperature decreases as 85. Statement (I): Proximate analysis of coal is done
cooling water temperature decreases, hence thermal to determine its calorific value.
efficiency increases. Statement (II): In proximate analysis of coal, the
81. Statement I: Direct condensers are more efficient percentages of moisture, volatile matter, fixed
than surface condensers. carbon and ash are determined.
Statement II: In condenser, the momentum ESE 2017
pressure drop opposes the frictional pressure drop. Ans. (d) : Proximate analysis is done to examine four
ESE 2018 factors i.e. Moisture, volatile compound ash content and
fixed carbon.
Ans. (b) : Direct condensers are more efficient than Calorimeters are used for colorific value estimation.
contact type condenser as velocity of water plus vapour So, statement-I is wrong.
at inlet is more than velocity of water at exit from 86. Statement (I): Water entering into a condenser
condenser. from the cooling tower has much dissolved
Hence momentum pressure drop is negative and friction impurities.
drop is positive. Statement (II): In a closed cooling system, the
82. Consider the following statements regarding water is continuously aerated, therefore, there is
Reheat Rankine Steam Cycle: abundant dissolved oxygen in this water.
1. The main purpose of reheat in Rankine cycle ESE 2017
is to increase the efficiency of the cycle Ans. (c) : A cooling tower is an open cooling system
2. In practice, the reheat is generally limited to and water can dissolved impurities from air because of
direct contact.
one point of expansion A condenser a closed cooling system and there exists a
3. Due to reheat, the steam rate (specific steam vacuum in the condenser during operation. Hence there
consumption) is reduced. exist a possibilities of air leakage which is continuously
Which of the above statements are correct? deaerated.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 87. Statement (I): Heat carried away by hot gases in
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 chimney draught is much greater than the work
ESE 2018 required for lifting the same gases through the
Ans. (b) : The main purpose of reheating is to avoid height of the chimney. Yet artificial draught is not
excess moisture in steam at the end of expansion to preferred.
Statement (II): Artificial draught involves large
protect the turbine. But it need not improve the cycle
initial cost as well as large maintenance cost.
efficiency. ESE 2017
83. Statement I: The condenser in a steam power Ans. (d) :
plant is always filled with a mixture of water, 88. Statement (I): The overall combustion efficiency
steam and air. of a fuel oil based plant is less as compared to that
Statement II: Slightly wet steam enters the of a coal burning plant.
condenser wherein the pressure is below the Statement (II): Fuel oils contain comparatively
atmospheric conditions, causing some leakage of larger percentage of hydrogen, which produce
air through the glands and also the release of some more moisture per kg of fuel burnt.
air dissolved in the boiler feed water. ESE 2017
ESE 2018 Ans. (d) :
71
89. Statement (I): Providing reheat in a Rankine
cycle would increase the efficiency of the cycle.
Statement (II): Reheat in Rankine cycle reduces
specific steam consumption.
ESE 2017
Ans. (a) : Advantage of Reheating–
(i) By reheating there is gain of 4 to 7% of thermal
efficiency take place as the output of turbine is
increased.
(ii) Reheating may also shortout blade erosion and
corrosion problem in turbine.
3600
∵ Specific steam consumption (S.S.C) =
Wnet
Due to reheating Wnet increases so steam consumption
decreases.
Both the statements are individually true.
90. Consider the following statements in respect of
regenerative Rankine cycle:
1. Regeneration increases the efficiency of the
cycle.
2. The boiler capacity is increased for a given
output.
3. The capacity of the condenser is reduced.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
ESE 2017
Ans. (a) :
" Regeneration increases the mean temperature of
heat addition of cycle, hence the efficiency of cycle.
" For same power output steam flow rate requires
bigger boiler.
" Because of steam flow rate to condenser decreases
so small condenser is required.
91. Consider the following statements:
The presence of air inside condensers
1. remains as a non-condensable gas
2. reduces the condensing coefficient
3. tends to cling to the surface
4. introduces large thermal resistance
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
ESE 2017
Ans. (a) : Effect of air inside the condenser :
(i) The performance of condenser due to presence of air
gets affected badly.
(ii) The heat transfer surfaces such as outside the
surface of condenser tubes which reduces the
considering heat transfer co-efficient.
(iii) As air tend to cling the surface which reduces the
condensing co-efficient.
(iv) Because of low thermal conductivity of air, air
imparts large thermal resistance.
92. Coal fired power plant boilers manufactured in
India generally use-
(a) pulverised fuel combustion
(b) fluidised bed combustion
(c) circulating fluidised bed combustion
72
(d) moving stoker firing system
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
Ans : (a) Pulverised fuel to get high burning rate.
93. Fusible plug is fitted in a boiler to
(a) extinguish fire in case of low water level
(b) prevent leakage of steam from boiler
(c) allow passage of only super heated steam
from the boiler
(d) keep the boiler pressure within the prescribed
limits
(KPSC AE 2015)
Ans : (a) Fusible plug is fitted in a boiler to
extinguish free in case of low water level. Fusible
plug:- It is fitted to the crown plate of the furnace of
the fire box. Its object is to put off the fire in the
furnace of the boiler when the level of water in the
boiler falls to an unsafe limit and thus avoids the
explosion which may take place due to overheating of
the furnace plate.
94. Efficiency of chimney draught is of the order of
(a) less than 1% (b) 2 - 3 %
(c) 5-6% (d) 8-10%
(KPSC AE 2015)
Ans : (a) Efficiency of chimney draught is of the
order of less then 1%
Height of chimney:-
 1 m +1 
P = 353 H  −  mm of water
 T1 m.T2 
p = Draught pressure in mm of water
H = Height of chimney
m = Mass of air used for per kg of fuel
T1 = Absolute temp of air outside chimney
T2 = Absolute temp of air inside chimney
95. Which of the following indicates the correct
order in the path of the flue gas?
(a) Superheater, economizer, air preheater
(b) Air preheater, economizer, superheater
(c) Air preheater, superheater, economizer,
(d) No definite order
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans : (a) Correct path of flue gases from boiler furnace
to chimney is
Boiler → Superheater → Economiser
↓
Chimney ← ID fan ← Air preheator
96. Volume of 1 kg of dry steam is known as:
(a) total volume (b) saturated volume
(c) specific volume (d) none of these
(HPPSC LECT. 2016)
Ans : (c) Volume of 1 Kg of dry steam is known as
specific volume.
97. In binary vapour cycle
(a) Mercury is used in the bottoming cycle
(b) Steam is used in topping cycle
(c) Mercury is used in topping cycle
(d) Either mercury or steam is used in topping
cycle
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
 Ans : (c) In binary vapour cycle Mercury is used in
topping cycle.
Binary vapour plant
In binary vapour cycle mercury is used in topping
cycle.
98. Deaeration of feed water in a Rankine vapour
cycle is carried out because it reduces :
(a) Cavitation of boiler feed pumps
(b) Corrosion caused by oxygen
(c) Heat transfer coefficient
(d) pH value of water
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 102. In thermal power plants, the deaerator is used
Ans : (b) Deaeration of feed water in a Rankine
vapour cycle is carried out because it reduces
corrosion caused by oxygen.
99. If the dryness fraction of a sample by throttling
calorimeter is 0.8 and that by separating
calorimeter is also 0.8, then the actual dryness
fraction of sample will be taken as
(a) 0.8 (b) 0.8
(c) 0.64 (d) 0.5
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
Ans : (c)
x1 = dryness fraction of steam considering separating
calorimeter
x2 = dryness fraction of steam entering the throttling Ans : (b) Economizer is used in steam power plant to
calorimeter
x = x1× x2
Actual dryness fraction of steam in the sample
x = 0.8×0.8
x = 0.64
100. The process of maintaining the speed of a
steam turbine constant for various load
conditions is known as:
(a) Reheating (b) Bleeding
(c) Governing (d) Cooling
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
Ans : (c) The process of maintaining the speed of a
turbine for various load conditions is known as
governing.
The throttle governing of a steam turbine is a method Ans : (d) Overall efficiency of thermal power plant
of controlling the turbine output by varying the
quantity of steam entering into the turbine. This
method is also known as servomotor method.
101. Dryness fraction is the ratio of :
(a) mass of dry steam to the mass of water η = Generator efficiency.
vapour in suspension
(b) mass of water vapour in suspension to the
mass of water vapour and mass of dry steam
(c) mass of dry steam to the mass of dry steam
and mass of water vapour in suspension
(d) mass of water vapour in suspension to the
mass of dry steam
(KPSC AE. 2015)
Ans : (c) Dryness fraction is the ratio of mass of dry
steam to the mass of dry steam and mass of water
vapour in suspension.
Dryness fraction or quality of wet Steam : - It is the
ratio of the mass of actual dry steam, to the mass of
same quantity of wet steam and is generally
denoted by 'x'
mg mg
x= =
mg + m f m
mg = Mass of actual dry steam
mf = Mass of water in suspension
m = mg + mf
The value of dryness fraction. In case of dry steam is
unity. At this stage, the mass of water in suspension
(mf) is zero.
mainly to:
(a) Remove air from condenser
(b) Increase firewater temperature
(c) Reduce steam pressure
(d) Remove dissolved gases from feed water
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (d) In thermal power plant, the deaerator is used
mainly to remove dissolved gases from feed water.
103. Economizer is used in a steam power plant to
heat
(a) air (b) feed water
(c) flue gases (d) steam
RPSC AE 2016
heat feed water.
An economiser is a device used to heat feed water by
utilising the heat in the exhaust flue gases before
leaving through the chimney. As the name indicates,
the economiser improves the economy of the steam
boiler.
104. Overall efficiency of a thermal power plant is
equal to
(a) Rankine cycle thermal power plant is equal to
(b) Carnot cycle efficiency
(c) Regenerative cycle efficiency
(d) Boiler efficiency x turbine efficiency x
generator efficiency
RPSC AE 2016
( η0 ) = ηB × ηT × ηG
ηB = Boiler efficiency
ηT = Turbine efficiency
G
73
105. Load factor of a power station is usually 110. Which of the following is the boiler accessory?
(a) equal to unity (b) less than unity (a) Blow - off cock
(c) more than unity (d) zero (b) Pressure gauge
RPSC AE 2016 (c) Water level indicator
Ans : (b) Load factor of a power station is usually less (d) Economiser
then unity TSPSC AEE 2015
Average load over a certain period Ans : (d) Boiler Accessory– Boiler Accessory are
load factor = those device which increase the efficiency of the
Max load ocurring during thesame period
boiler.
Max load occurring during the same period is greater (i) Superheater
than Average load over a certain period, then load (iii) Air preheater
factor less then unity. (v) Injector
106. Depreciation charges are high in case of (vii) Steam Trap
(a) thermal plant (b) diesel plant 111. A device is used to put- off fire in the furnace of
(c) hydroelectric plant (d) gas turbine plant the boiler when the level of water in the boiler
RPSC AE 2016 falls to an unsafe limit
Ans : (a) Depreciation charges are high in case of (a) Blow-off cock (b) Stop valve
thermal plant. (c) Super heater (d) Fusible plug
107. For the safely of a steam boiler the number of TSPSC AEE 2015
safety valves fitted are Ans : (d) Fusible plug is used to put off fire in the
(a) One (b) Two furnace of the boiler when the level of water in the
(c) three (d) Four boiler fails to an unsafe limit.
RPSC AE 2016 Fusible plug:- It is fitted to the crown plate of the
Ans : (b) for the safety of a steam boiler the number furnace or the fire box. Its object is to put off the fire
of safety valves and water level indicator fitted are in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in
two. the boiler falls to an unsafe limit, and thus avoids the
These are the devices attached to the steam chest for explosion which may take place due to overheating of
preventing explosions due to excessive internal the furnace plate.
pressure of steam. The following are the four types of 112. Match list-I with list-II select the correct
safety valves. answer using the codes given below the list:
(i) Lever safety valve (ii) Dead weight safety valve List -I List -II
(iii) High steam and low water safety valve (iv) spring (a) Lancashire 1. High pressure water tube
loaded safety valve. (b) Cornish 2. Horizontal double fire tube
108. In steam Power station, the choice of high (c) La-mont 3. Vertical multiple fire tube
temperature steam is for (d) Cochran 4. Low pressure inclined
(a) increasing the efficiency of boiler water tube
(b) increasing the efficiency of turbine 5. Horizontal single fire tube
(c) increasing the efficiency of condenser UJVNL AE 2016
(d) increasing the overall efficiency Code :
RPSC AE 2016 A B C D
Ans : (d) In steam power station, the choice of high (a) 2 5 1 3
temperature steam is for increasing the overall (b) 2 4 3 1
efficiency. (c) 1 5 2 3
(d) 5 4 1 3
109. If the dryness fraction of steam (x) is less than
'1' then the steam is called as Ans : (a)
(a) Dry steam (b) super heated steam List -I List -II
Lancashire Horizontal double fire tube
(c) Wet steam (d) Both (a) & (b)
Cornish Horizontal single fire tube
TSPSC AEE 2015
La-mont High pressure water tube
Ans : (c) If the dryness fraction of steam (x) is less Cochran Vertical multiple fire tube
then 1, then steam is called as wet steam.
113. Which of the following is the commercial unit
used to measure electricity consumption?
(a) Kilowatt-hour (b) Kilowatt
(c) Joule per second (d) Mega watts
UJVNL AE 2016
Ans : (a) Kilowatt- hour is the Commercial unit used
to measure electricity consumption.
The kilowatt hour is a derived unit of energy equal to
3.6 Mega Joules. If the energy is being transmitted or
used at a constant rate (power) over a period of time,
74
 the total energy in kilowatt hours is the power in Ans. (b) : Nitrogen oxide (NO) compound is the main
kilowatts multiplied by the time in hours. The kilowatt
source of boiler flue gas.
hour is commonly used as a billing unit for energy118. Which of the following are fire tube boilers
delivered to consumers by electric utilities. (a) Cochran (b) Lancashire
1 kW.h=1kW.3600s=3600kWs=3600kJ=3.6MJ (c) Locomotive (d) All of these
114. For a given set of operating pressure limits of a Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Rankine cycle the highest efficiency occurs Ans. (d) : Cochran, Lancashire, Locomotive all are fire
(a) Saturated cycle (b) Superheated cycle
tube boilers. Fire tube boiler are internally fire tube
(c) Reheat cycle (d) Regenerative cycle
boilers.
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
119. Size of boiler tubes is specified by
Ans : (d) Operating pressure limits of a Rankine cycle (a) Mean diameter and thickness
the highest efficiency occurs in regenerative cycle. In (b) Outside diameter and thickness
practical regenerative cycle the feed water enters the (c) Insider diameter and thickness
boiler at high temperature as compared to the (d) Outside diameter and inside diameter
corresponding temperature in case of simple Rankine Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
cycle and it is heated by steam extracted or bleed from
Ans. (b) : Size of boiler tubes is specified by outside
intermediate stages of the turbine. diameter and thickness.
115. 5 kg steam expands in a piston cylinder device 120. In fire tube boilers, pressure is limited to
from a pressure of 5 bar and 7000 C (h = (a) 16 bar (b) 32 bar
3925.97 kJ/kg, s = 8.5892 kJ/kg-K, u = 3477.52 (c) 48 bar (d) 64 bar
J/kg) to a pressure and temperature of 3 bar Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
and 6000 C ( h = 3703.20 kJ/kg, s = 8.5892
Ans. (a) : Fire-tube boilers have a safe working
kJ/kg-K, u = 3300.79 kJ/kg). If the process is
pressure below this approx 20 bar (maximum).
reversible and adiabatic, the total work (kJ) for
the process will be: 121. The boiler consists of horizontal fire tubes is
(a) 883.65 (b) 88.365 (a) Cochran (b) Cornish
(c) 558.8 (d) 55.88 (c) Babcock and Wilcox (d) Stirling
BHEL ET 2019 Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (a) : 883.65 Ans. (a) : Cochran boiler is multi-tubular vertical fire
tube boiler having a number of horizontal fire tubes.
116. Steam flows through a turbine as shown in the
figure. The walls of the turbine are not 122. Reheating of steam is used
insulated, so that there is heat transfer through (a) to increase efficiency
the walls as shown. The properties of steam are (b) to increase work output
as given below : (c) to increase turbine inlet temperature
P = 3 MPa. T = 500 0C ( h = 3456.48 kJ/kg, s = (d) to reduce amount of fuel used
7.2337 kJ/kg-K) Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
P = 0.1013 MPa, T = 100 0C (hf = 419.1 kJ/kg. Ans. (b) : With reheating of steam turbine is used to
hg = 2676 kJ/kg) increase the work output.
The power output from the turbine in kW is : Work output
= Work done by turbine – Work done by compressor
123. By reheating, the efficiency of cycle will
increase if
(a) mean temperature of heat addition in boiler is
lower than in reheat process
(b) it will increase without any conditions
(c) it will not increase
(d) mean temperature of heat addition in boiler is
higher than in reheat process
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
(a) 150.26 (b) 175.87 Ans. (a) : By reheating the efficiency of cycle will
(c) 90.03 (d) 125.76 increase if mean temperature of heat addition in boiler
is lower than in reheat process.
BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (c) : 90.03 124. The Grate in the boilers
(a) used as a base on which the burning of the
117. The boiler flue gas is source of solid fuel takes place
(a) HCl (b) used for superheating the steam
(b) NO (c) used as a water storing device
(c) HF (d) used for collecting the mud in present in the
(d) Volatile organic compounds water
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
75
Ans. (a) : The grate in the boilers used as base on which 133. The following boiler operates in supercritical
the burning of the Solid fuel take place. range of pressure:-
125. A steam engine is a (a) Benson
(a) External combustion engine (b) Babcock and Wilcox
(b) Internal combustion engine (c) Loeffler
(c) It may be internal or external type (d) Cornish
(d) All of the above UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 Ans. (a) : Benson boiler operates in supercritical range
Ans. (a) : Steam engine is a heat engine that performs of pressure.
mechanical work using steam as a working fluid. 134. The capacity of boiler is defined as:-
126. The effect of reheat on steam quality is that it is (a) The volume of feed water inside the shell
(a) increased (b) The volume of the steam space inside the
(b) decreased shell
(c) does not change (c) The maximum pressure at which steam can be
(d) depends on several parameters generated
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 (d) Amount of water converted into steam from
Ans. (a) : The effect of reheat on steam quality 100°C to 110°C in one hour
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
increases because this steam is undergoing expansion
two times. Ans. (d) : The capacity of boiler is defined as amount of
127. Reheat of steam under ideal conditions takes water converted into steam from 100°C to 110°C in one
place at constant hour.
(a) Temperature (b) Enthalpy 135. The type of safety valve recommended for high
(c) Pressure (d) Entropy pressure boiler is:-
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 (a) Dead weight safety valve
Ans. (c) : Reheating of steam under ideal conditions (b) Lever safety valve
take place at constant pressure. (c) Spring loaded safety valve
(d) None of the above
128. for high boiler efficiency the feed water is UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
heated by
(a) recuperator (b) convective heater Ans. (c) :
(c) super heater (d) economiser 136. Corrosion in boilers is minimised by
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II maintaining boiler water as
Ans. (d) : economiser (a) Acidic (b) Alkaline
(c) At high pressure (d) None of the above
129. Which of the following is not a high pressure UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
boiler ?
(a) Lancashire boiler (b) La-mont boiler Ans. (b) : Alkaline
(c) Benson boiler (d) Loeffler boiler 137. Which of the following is a fire tube boiler?
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (a) Locomotive boiler
Ans. (a) : Lancashire boiler (b) Babcock and Wilcox boiler
(c) Stirling boiler
130. The most practical vapour power cycle is
(d) None of the above
(a) Carnot (b) Joule
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(c) Rankine (d) Binary
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II Ans. (a) : Locomotive boiler
Ans. (c) : Rankine 138. The ratio of isentropic heat drop to the heat
supplied is called
131. Steam coming out of the whistle of a pressure
(a) Rankine efficiency (b) Stage efficiency
cooker is
(a) dry saturated vapour (c) Reheat factor (d) Internal efficiency
(b) wet vapour UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(c) super heated vapour Ans. (a) : Rankine efficiency
(d) ideal gas 139. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II plant may be in the range of
Ans. (b) : wet vapour (a) 15 to 20% (b) 35 to 45%
132. The latent heat of steam with increase in (c) 70 to 80% (d) 90 to 95%
pressure UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(a) does not change Ans. (b) : 35 to 45%
(b) increases 140. A pipe carrying steam (h=3000kJ/kg) at flow
(c) decreases rate of 1 kg/s and another pipe carrying steam
(d) remains unpredictable (h=2500kJ/kg) at flow rate of 2 kg/s mixes
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II adiabatically to flow in single pipe. Find the
Ans. (c) : decreases enthalpy of resulting steam:
76
 (a) 2767 kJ/kg (b) 2667 kJ/kg 144. Liquefied Petroleum Gas is a mixture of
(c) 2867 kJ/kg (d) 8000 kJ/kg (a) Propane and butane
UPRVUNL AE 2016 (b) Propane and ethane
Ans. (b) : Mass conservation law (c) Methane and isopropane
mɺ 1 + mɺ 2 = mɺ 3 = 1 + 2 (d) Butane and ethane
mɺ 3 = 3 kg / sec HPPSC AE 2018
Ans. (a) : Liquefied Petroleum gas is a mixture of
propane and butane are flammable mixture of
hydrocarbon gases used as fuel in heating appliances,
cooking equipment and vehicles.
145. The permissible maximum concentration of
SO2 at ground level are
(a) 0.05 to 0.08 ppm for 24 Hrs
(b) 0.07 to 0.09 ppm for 1 Hr
(c) 0.15 to 0.2 ppm for 24 Hrs
(d) 0.08 to 1.15 ppm for 1 Hr
Energy conservation law, TNPSC AE 2013
mɺ 1h1 + mɺ 2 h2 = mɺ 3 h3 Ans. (a) : The permissible maximum concentration of
SO2 at ground level are 0.05 to 0.08 ppm for 24 Hrs.
1 × 3000 + 2 × 2500 = 3 × h3
3 × h3 = 8000 146. Chloro-fluorocarbons are banned due to
h3 = 2667 kJ/kg (a) High cost
(b) Toxicity
2. Fuels and Combustion (c) High Boiling Point
(d) Preventing Infrared rays to escape and
141. Anthracite coal is: allowing UV rays to Earth
(a) Clean, dense and hard TNPSC AE 2013
(b) Non-caking and hard to ignite Ans. (d) : Chloro-fluorocarbons are banned due to
(c) Burns smokelessly preventing Infrared rays to escape and allowing UV
(d) All of these rays to Earth.
SJVN ET 2013 147. The amount of CO produced by 1 kg of carbon
Ans. (d) : Anthracite, often referred to as hard coal, on incomplete combustion is
compact variety of coal that has a submetallic luster, the (a) 3/11kg (b) 3/8 kg
fewest impurities and the highest energy density of all (c) 8/3 kg (d) 7/3 kg
types of coal and is the highest ranking of coals. (e) 11/3 kg
142. Examples of slurry type fuels for thermal CGPSC AE 2014 -II
plants are: Ans. (d) : The Stoichiometric equation of carbon,
(a) Coal and oil (b) Coal and water C + O → CO
12 16 28
(c) Coal and methanol (d) All of these CO Produced by one kg Carbon-
SJVN ET 2013 28 7
Ans. (d) : Examples of slurry type fuels for thermal = = kg CO/kg of Carbon
12 3
plants are-
148. Correct statement is :
(i) coal and oil (a) MOX is multi - oxide fuel
(ii) coal and water (b) MOX is molten oxide fuel
(iii) coal and methanol (c) MOX can utilize surplus weapon grade
143. The ratio of "additional input required" to plutonium
"increase an additional output" in power plant (d) MOX is not commercially prepared till to
is known as date
(a) Heat rate OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
(b) Incremental heat rate Ans. (c) : Mixed oxide fuel (MOX), common referred
(c) Steam rate to as mox fuel, is nuclear fuel that contains more than
(d) Efficiency one oxide of fissile material, usually consisting of
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 plutonium blended with natural uranium, reprocessed
Ans. (b) : Incremental heat rate—Incremental heat uranium or depleted uranium.
rate is the ratio of the heat input required for a step 149. Which is not a minor actinide ?
change in net power output for power plant. (a) Uranium (b) Americium
Incremental heat rates are normally given in units of (c) Curium (d) Neptunium
Btu/kWh, or kJ/kWh. OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
77
Ans. (a) : The minor actinides are the actinide elements Ans. (d) : Given,
in used nuclear fuel other than uranium and plutonium, XCO2 = 0.15
which are termed the major actinides. The most XO2 = 0.05
important isotope in spent nuclear fuel are neptunium, XN2 = 0.8
americium, curium, Through– 248, Through –252, Ptotal = 5 bar
Californium. Partial pressure of N2
150. The specific heat of the products of combustion No. of moles of N 2
= × PTotal
increases with increase in Total no. of moles
(a) pressure (b) temperature 0.8
= × 500 = 400 kPa
(c) fuel-air ratio (d) both (b) and (c) 0.15 + 0.05 + 0.8
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V 154. Gasohol is a mixture of:
Ans : (d) : The specific heat of the products of (a) 90% ethanol+ 10% gasoline
combustion increases with increase in temperature and (b) 10% ethanol + 90% gasoline
fuel-air ratio. (c) 40% ethanol + 60% gasoline
(d) 50% ethanol + 50 % gasoline
151. Presence of moisture in fuel oil would OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER-II
(a) keep the burner tips cool
Ans : (b) Gasohol is a mixture of 10% ethanol + 90%
(b) aid in proper combustion gasoline.
(c) cause sputtering, possibly extinguishing flame
155. Major disadvantage of LPG as a fuel in
(d) clean the nozzles automobile is:
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V (a) Reduction in life of the engine
Ans : (c) : Presence of moisture in fuel oil would (b) Less power compared to gasoline
because sputtering, possibly extinguishing flame. (c) Both (A) and (B)
152. Which fuel cell is suitable for spacecraft (d) Knocking tendency
applications? OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
(a) Direct methanol fuel cell Ans : (b) Major disadvantage of LPG as a fuel in
(b) Proton exchange membrane fuel cell automobile is less power compared to gasoline.
(c) Alkaline fuel cell 156. Junker's gas calorimeter is used to determine
(d) Phosphoric acid fuel cell the calorific value of:
(a) gaseous fuels (b) petrol
ESE 2017
(c) coke (d) all fuels
Ans. (c) : Fuel Cell– A fuel cell converts hydrogen and (HPPSC LECT. 2016)
oxygen into water, producing electricity and heat in the Ans : (a) (i) Junker's gas calorimeter is used to
process. determine the calorific value of gaseous fuels.
Alkaline Fuel Cell– Long used by NASA on space (ii) Bomb calorimeter is used for finding the higher
missions, alkaline fuel cells can achieve power calorific value of solid and liquid fuels.
generating efficiencies of up to 70%. They were used on The modification of Boy's gas calorimeter is known as
the Apollo spacecraft to provide both electricity and Junker's colorimeter.
drinking water. 157. Which of the following coal has the highest
Proton Exchange Membrane Fuel Cell (PEM)–These calorific value ?
fuel cells operate at relatively low temperatures, have (a) Anthracite (b) Bituminous
high power density, can vary their output quickly to (c) Lignite (d) Peat
meets shifts in power demand, and are suited for HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
applications, such as automobiles, where quick startup Ans : (a)
is required. Coal Calorific Value (kJ/kg)
Peat 23000
Direct Methanol Fuel Cell–These cell are similar to
Lignite 25000
the PEM cells in that they both use a polymer Bituminous 33500
membrane as the electrolyte. Anthracite 36000
Phosphoric Acid Fuel Cell–This type of fuel cell is Anthracite Coal has the highest Calorific Value.
used in stationary power generators with output in the 158. Which of the following is considered to be
100 kW to 400 kW. range to power many commercial superior quality coal for power plants?
premises around the world. (a) Bituminous coal (b) Peat
153. Volumetric analysis of a certain flue gas gave (c) Coke (d) Lignite
CO2 15%, O2 5% and rest as N2. The gas was at UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
a temperature of 200°C and a pressure of 5 Ans : (a) Non- coking bituminous coal is the fuel
bar. The partial pressure of N2 in the flue gas is mostly used in boilers. The colorific value of the
(a) 250 kN/m2 (b) 300 kN/m2 common coal varieties are
(c) 350 kN/m 2
(d) 400 kN/m2 Peat:- 21000 kJ/kg, Lignite:- 25000 kJ/kg
ESE 2017 Bituminous:- 33500 kJ/kg
78
159. Low grade fuels have for a Ca:S molar ratio of 3.0, the flow rate of calcium is
(a) Low moisture content 6.81×3.0=20.44 kmol/h
(b) Low ash content ∴ Mass flow rate of CaCO3 required = 20.44×100
(c) Low calorific value = 2044 kg/h (Since molecular weight of CaCO3 is 100)
(d) High carbon content ∴ Mass flow of limestone = 2044/0.85 = 2404.7 kg/h
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II which is about 40% of the coal burning rate.
Ans : (c) Low grade fuels have low calorific value. 164. Calorific value of fuel obtained by using Bomb
160. William’s law gives a straight line graph Calorimeter is:
between the rate of steam consumption and (a) Constant Volume Lower Calorific Value
(a) pressure of steam (b) Constant Volume Higher Calorific Value
(b) temperature of steam (c) Constant Pressure Lower Calorific Value
(c) volume of steam (d) Constant Pressure Higher Calorific Value
(d) indicated horse power OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II Ans : (b) : The calorific value obtained in a bomb
Ans. (d) : indicated horse power calorimeter test represents the gross heat of combustion,
161. Which of the following are the essential per unit mass of fuel sample. This is the heat produced
functions of fuel cells? when the sample burns plus the heat given up when the
1. The charging (or electrolyser) function in newly formed water vapour condenses and cools to the
which the chemical AB is decomposed to A and temperature of bomb.
B
2. The storage function in which A and B are 3. Steam Turbine
held apart.
3. The charge function in which A and B are 165. In reaction turbines-
charged with the simultaneous generation of (a) the steam is expanded in nozzles and there is
electricity. no fall pressure as the steam passes over the
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only rotor blades
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) steam is directed over bucket-like-blades
ESE 2020 which propels the rotor
Ans. (c) : 1 and 2 only (c) expansion of steam takes place as it passes
162. Which of the following are related to the through the moving blades on the rotor as
Proton Exchange Membrane Fuel Cell well as through the guide blades fixed to the
(PEMFC)? casing
1. Polymer electrolyte (d) steam pressure remains constant
2. Hydrogen fuel and oxygen RPSC 2016
3. Pure water and small amount of electricity
Ans : (c) Expansion of steam takes place it passes
4. Nitrogen gas
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only through the moving blades on the rotor as well as
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 and 4 only through the guide blades fixed to the casting.
ESE 2020 ! In case of reaction turbine there is enthalpy drop
Ans. (c) : 1 and 2 only both in fixed and moving blades.
! In a reaction turbine the expansion of steam takes
163. A fluidized bed combustion system having an
output of 35 MW at 80% efficiency when using place partly in the fixed blades and Partly in the
a coal of heating value 26 MJ/kg with a sulphur moving blades.
content of 3.6% requires a particular limestone ! In case of impulse steam turbine these is enthalpy
to be fed to it at a calcium-sulphur molar ratio drop in nozzle.
of 3.0 so as to limit emissions of SO2 166. In Rankine cycle, the work output from the
adequately. The limestone used contains 85% turbine is given by
CaCO3. The required flow rate of limestone (a) Change in internal energy between inlet and
will be outlet
(a) 2405 kg/h (b) 2805 kg/h (b) Change in enthalpy between inlet and outlet
(c) 3205 kg/h (d) 3605 kg/h (c) Change in entropy between inlet and outlet
ESE 2020 (d) Change of temperature between inlet and
35 outlet
Ans. (a) : Coal burning rate = = 1.683 kg / s UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
0.80 × 26
= 6057.7 kg/h Ans : (b) In Rankine cycle, the work output from the
6057.7 × 0.036 turbine is given by change in enthalpy between inlet
∴ Flow rate of sulphur = and outlet
32
Turbine work ( WT ) = ( h1 − h 2 ) kJ / kg.
= 6.81 kmol/h
79
167. The maximum efficiency for Person's reaction Ans. (a) : In Curtis turbines the velocity of steam drops
turbine is given by gradually after passing over the rows of moving blades.
cos α 2 cos α • Compounding is done to reduce the rotational speed of
(a) ηmax = (b) ηmax = the impulse turbine to practical limits.
1 + cos α 1 + cos α
• Three main types of compounded impulse turbine are:
2 cos α
2
1 + cos α
2
(a) Pressure compounded steam turbine : The Rateau
(c) ηmax = (d) ηmax =
1 + cos 2 α 2 cos 2 α Design
TNPSC AE 2014 (b) Velocity compunded steam turbine: The Curtis
CGPSC AE 2014- II Design
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper (c) Pressure velocity compounded impulse turbine: The
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 Rateau Curtis Design.
Ans. (c) : The maximum efficiency for Person's 172. Degree of reaction is defined as
2 cos 2 α (a) (enthalpy drop in moving blades)/(total
reaction turbine is given by ηmax = enthalpy drop in the stage)
1 + cos α2
(b) (total enthalpy drop in the stage)/(enthalpy
168. The function of fixed blades on reaction drop in moving blades)
turbine is to: (c) (work done on the blade)/(energy supplied to
(a) Alter the direction of steam and decrease its the blades)
velocity (d) (work done on the blade)/(energy supplied
(b) Alter the direction of steam and increase its per stage)
pressure RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
(c) Alter the direction of steam and expand it to
Ans. (a) : Degree of reaction—In case of turbines,
higher velocity
both impulse and reaction machines, degree of reaction
(d) Only to alter the direction of steam
(R) is defined as the ratio of enthalpy drop in the
UPRVUNL AE 2016
moving blades to total enthalpy drop in the stage
Ans. (c) : The function of fixed blades on reaction
(∆h) moving blade
turbine is to alter the direction of steam and expand it to R=
higher velocity. (∆h) stage
169. To maximize the efficiency, the speed ratio in 173. Power developed per unit mass flow rate of
Parson's reaction turbine is steam by an stage of impulse turbine is 60 kW.
cos α cos 2 α The velocity of steam from nozzle is 400 m/s.
(a) (b) Diagram efficiency will be:
2 2
(c) cos α (d) cos2α (a) 75% (b) 95%
HPPSC AE 2018 (c) 65% (d) 85%
Ans. (c) : To maximize the efficiency, the speed ratio in UPRVUNL AE 2016
Parson's reaction turbine is cos α. Ans. (a) : Diagram efficiency —It is also known as
blade efficiency or rotor efficiency. It is defined as the
170. Critical speed of a turbine is
(a) same as run away speed ratio of work done per kg of steam by the rotor to the
(b) speed that will cause mechanical failure of the energy available at the inlet per kg of steam
shaft Work done/kg of steam
ηD =
(c) speed at which natural frequency of Energy available at the inlet
vibrations equals the number of revolutions at per kg of steam (V/2)2
the same time
2 × 60 × 103
(d) speed equal to synchronous speed of the ηD =
generator (400) 2
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 120 × 103 3
Ans : (c) : Critical speed of a turbine is speed at which ηD = =
160000 4
natural frequency of vibrations equals the number of
revolutions at the same time. η D = 0.75
171. In Curtis turbines η D = 75%
(a) The velocity of steam drops gradually after
passing over the rows of moving blades 174. If the pressure of steam at the exhaust from the
(b) The pressure of steam drops gradually after turbine is saturated corresponding to the
passing over the rows of moving blades temperature of process heat requirement, then
(c) The mass of steam drops gradually after this turbine is known as:
passing over the rows of moving blades (a) Reaction turbine
(d) Both pressure and velocity of steam drops (b) Impulse turbine
gradually after passing over the rows of (c) Pass out turbine
moving blades (d) Back pressure turbine
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 UPRVUNL AE 2016
80
Ans. (d) : If the pressure of steam at the exhaust from 180. Which one of the following statements is
the turbine is saturated corresponding to the temperature correct with respect to axial flow 50% reaction
of process heat requirement, then this turbine is known turbine?
as back pressure turbine. (a) The combined velocity diagram is
175. Absolute velocity Vector = symmetrical.
(a) Peripheral Velocity Vector + Relative (b) The outlet absolute velocity should not be
Velocity Vector axial for maximum utilization
(b) Relative Velocity Vector (c) Angles of both stator and rotor are not
(c) Axial Velocity Vector identical.
(d) Peripheral Velocity Vector (d) For maximum utilization, the speed ratio
TNPSC AE 2013 U
= sin 2 α
Ans. (a) : Absolute velocity Vector = Peripheral v1
Velocity Vector + Relative Velocity Vector. ESE 2019
176. Multi-stage reaction turbines employ Ans. (a) : For maximum efficiency of impulse turbine
(a) with large pressure drop
u cos α1
(b) with lower pressure drop =
(c) constant pressure drop v1 2
(d) with high rotational speed u = 0.5 v1 cosα1
TNPSC AE 2013 181. For Parson's reaction turbine, which of the
Ans. (a) : Multi-stage reaction turbines employ with following condition is correct? [Where α =
large pressure drop. Nozzle angle, φ = Exit angle of moving blade, θ
177. The entire change in the static properties occur = Entrance angle of moving blade, β = angle
in the rotor implies which the discharging steam makes with the
(a) zero degree reaction tangent to the wheel at the exit of moving
(b) hundred percent degree of reaction blade].
(c) degree of reaction (a) θ = α2, φ = β (b) θ = β, φ = α
(d) negative degree of reaction (c) θ = φ, β = α (d) θ = β = φ = α
TNPSC AE 2013 SJVN ET Mechanical 2019 paper
Ans. (b) : The entire change in the static properties Ans. (b) : For parson' reaction turbine
occur in the rotor implies hundred percent degree of θ=β
reaction. φ=α
This type turbine which have 100% DOR also
known as Hero's Turbine.
178. A steam turbine, in which a part of the steam 182. Which of the following are applied (used) ways
after partial expansion, is used for process of compounding steam turbines?
heating and the remaining steam is further 1. Pressure compounding
expanded for power generation, is known as 2. Temperature compounding
.................... 3. Velocity compounding
(a) Back pressure turbine (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) Impulse turbine (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(c) Low pressure turbine ESE 2020
(d) Pass out turbine Ans. (d) : There are three types of compounding
RPSC AE 2018 used in steam turbines which are :
Ans. (d) : A steam turbine, in which a part of the steam " Pressure compounding
after partial expansion, is used for process heating and " Velocity compounding
the remaining steam is further expanded for power " Pressure-Velocity compounding
generation, is known as pass out turbine. 183. A steam ejector which removes air and other
179. The Rateau turbine is a non-condensable gases from the condenser is
(a) Pressure compounded turbine known as
(b) 100% reaction (a) Wet air pump (b) Dry air pump
(c) Velocity compounded turbine (c) Centrifugal pump (d) Circulating pump
(d) 50% reaction turbine ESE 2020
CGPSC AE 2014 -II Ans. (a) : Wet air pump
Ans. (a) : Pressure Compounding in turbines- 184. If the pressure at exhaust from the turbine is
Pressure compounding is the method in which pressure the saturation pressure corresponding to the
in a steam turbine is made to drop in a number of stages temperature desired in the process heater, such
rather than in a single nozzle. This method of a turbine is called
compounding is used in Rateau and Zoelly. (a) Condensing turbine
81
 (b) Extraction turbine
(c) Pass out turbine
(d) Back pressure turbine
ESE 2020
Ans. (d) : If the pressure at exhaust from the turbine is
the saturation pressure corresponding to the temperature
desired in the process heater, such a turbine is called
Back pressure turbine.
185. Bleeding in turbine means
(a) leakage of steam
(b) steam doing no useful work
(c) extracted steam for pre-heating feed water
(d) removal of condensed steam
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Ans : (c) Bleeding in turbine means extracted steam for
pre-heating feed water.
186. In a Parson's turbine stage, the blade velocity is
320 m/s at the mean radius and the rotor blade
exit angle is 30°. For minimum kinetic energy
of the steam leaving the stage, the steam
velocity at the exit of the rotor will be
(a) 160/ 3 m/s (b) 320/ 3 m/s
(c) 640/ 3 m/s (d) 640/ 3 m/s
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (c) : Data given
u = 320 m/s
α = 30°
then steam velocity at the exit of the ratio will be V then
V cos 30° = u = 320
320 320 × 2
V= =
cos30° 3 SJVN ET 2019
640
V= m/s
3 0.520 + x2 × 7.800 = 7.1 or x2 = 0.8435
187. Statement (I) : The efficiency of steam turbine
considerably reduces if throttle governing is
carried out at lower loads.
Statement (II) : Nozzle control can only be
applied to the first stage of turbine.
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I).
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT
the correct explanation of Statement (I).
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is
false.
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is
true.
UPSC JWM 2017 Ans. (b) :
Ans. (b) : In throttle governing, the flow rate of steam The degree of reaction is given by
is controlled using a partially opened steam control
valve. If throttle governing carried out at lower load, the =
efficiency of steam turbine reduced.
82
Nozzle governing is applied only to the first
stage whereas the subsequent stages remain unaffected.
188. From the consideration of the erosion of blades
in the later stages of a steam turbine, the
maximum moisture content at the turbine
exhaust is limited to:
(a) 20% (b) 12%
(c) 88% (d) 5%
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
Ans. (b) : From the consideration of the erosion of
blades in the later stages of a steam turbine, the
maximum moisture content at the turbine exhaust is
limited to 12%.
189. In a single-stage impulse turbine, which of the
following is correct? [where ηs = Stage
efficiency, ηb = Blade efficiency, ηN = Nozzle
efficiency]
(a) ηs = ηb × ηN (b) ηs = ηb/ηN
(c) ηs = ηN/ηb (d) ηs = ηN = ηb
SJVN ET 2019
Ans. (a) : Stage consists is combination of blade and
nozzle and both arranged in series.
So stage efficiency = blade efficiency × nozzle
efficiency.
190. A steam turbine receives steam at 15 bar,
350oC [h = 3147.5 kJ/kg, s = 7.100 kJ/kg-K] and
exhaust to the condenser at 0.06 bar. [hf = 151.5
kJ/kg, hfg = 2416.0 kJ/kg, sf = 0.520 kJ/kg-K, sfg
= 7.800 kJ/kg-K] What will be the approximate
thermal efficiency of ideal Rankine cycle
operating between these two limits? [Neglect
the pump work]
(a) 49.79% (b) 45.76%
(c) 22.76% (d) 31.97%
Ans. (d) : Point (i) refer to inlet and (ii) refer to outlet
of turbine isentropic S2 = S1
h2 = 151.5 + 0.8435 × 2416 = 2189.61
h − h 2 3147.5 − 2189.61
Efficiency = 1 = = 31.97%
h1 3145.5
191. The degree of reaction is given by:
Actual enthalpy change in rotor
(a)
Actual enthalpy change in stator
Actual enthalpy change in rotor
(b)
Actual enthalpy change in state
Actual enthalpy change in state
(c)
Actual enthalpy change in rotor
Actual enthalpy change in stator
(d)
Actual enthalpy change in rotor
SJVN ET 2019
Actual enthalpy change in rotor
Actual enthalpy change in state
192. Steam rate is defined as [where Q = Heat input 195. Steam enter a ingle stage impulse steam
to cycle (kW), Wnet = shaft output (kW)] turbine with an inlet velocity of 50 m/s and
1 3600 ( Q ) leaves with and outlet velocity of 20 m/s. The
(a) ( kg / kWh ) (b) ( kJ / kWh ) work done by 100kg of steam is
Wnet Wnet (a) 85kJ (b) 95kJ
Q 3600 (c) 105kJ (d) 115kJ
(c) ( kJ / kWh ) (d) ( kg / kWh ) (e) 125kJ
Wnet Wnet
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
SJVN ET 2019
Ans. (c) :
3600
Ans. (d) : ( kg / kWh ) v22 − v12 
Wnet W =m
2
193. For Parson's reaction turbine, which of the
following condition is correct? [Where α =  50 2
− 20 2 
W = 100 
Nozzle angle, φ = Exit angle of moving blade, θ 2
= Entrance angle of moving blade, β = angle W = 105 kJ
which the discharging steam makes with the 196. If the enthalpy drop in the moving blades and
tangent to the wheel at the exit of moving fixed blades of a steam turbine is 20 kJ/kg and
blade]. 30 kJ/kg respectively then what is the degree of
(a) θ = α2, φ = β (b) θ = β, φ = α reaction?
(c) θ = φ, β = α (d) θ = β = φ = α (a) 33% (b) 40%
SJVN ET 2019 (c) 60% (d) 67%
Ans. (b) : For parson' reaction turbine (e) 77%
θ=β CGPSC AE 2014 -II
φ=α Ans. (b) : We know that
194. The component of velocity which is responsible Heat dropin moving blades
for producing the work is steam turbine is DOR =
Head dropin a stage
called
(a) Axial velocity (b) Whirl velocity 20
DOR = = 0.40
(c) Relative velocity (d) Absolute velocity ( 20 + 30 )
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
DOR = 40%
Ans. (b) : Whirl velocity component which is
responsible for producing the work is steam turbine. 197. Which of the following is true for steam
Velocity triangle for Impulse turbine— turbines?
u1 = u2 = U (a) In reaction turbine, gradual pressure drop
W = (Vw1 + Vw2) × u J/kg takes place over fixed blades only
Power input (b) In reaction turbine, gradual pressure drop
P = mɺ (Vw1 + Vw 2 ) × u takes place over moving blades only
(c) In impulse turbine, pressure drop takes place
Tangential force = mɺ (Vw1 + Vw 2 ) in nozzle as well as in the blades
Axial thrust (d) In impulse turbine, pressure drop takes place
= mɺ (V f 1 − V f 2 ) in nozzle, and increases in the blades
Assumption—Vw1and Vw2 are in opposite direction. (e) In reaction turbine, gradual pressure drop
takes place in moving as well as in fixed
blades
CGPSC AE 2014- II
Ans. (e) : In reaction turbine, gradual pressure drop
takes place in moving as well as in fixed blade whereas
in impulse turbine pressure drop takes place in nozzle
only.
198. Wrong statement for the Curtis turbine is :
(a) Curtis turbine consists of a set of nozzles
followed by a set of moving blades
(b) In conventional design only two rows of
moving blades are used
(c) There is no restriction on the number of rows
of moving blades
(d) Curtis stage is also known as velocity
compounding
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
83
Ans. (c) : Curtis turbine – Ans : (c) : Pressure compounded turbine- In this type
! Curtis turbine consists of a set of nozzle followed of turbine, the compounding is done for pressure of
by a set of moving blades. steam only i.e., to reduce the high rotational speed of
! In conventional design only two rows of moving turbine the whole expansion of steam is arranged in a
blades. number of steps by employing a number of simple
! Curtis stages is also known as velocity compounding. turbine in a series keyed on the same shaft. Each of
199. De-Laval turbines are mostly used these simple impulse turbine consisting of one set of
(a) where low speeds are required nozzle and one row of moving blades is known as a
(b) for small power purpose and low speeds stage of the turbine and thus this turbine consists of
(c) for small power purposes and high speeds several stages.
(d) for large power purpose 205. In a simple impulse turbine, the nozzle angle at
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper the entrance is 30º. For the maximum diagram
Ans. (c) : for small power purposes and high speeds efficiency, what is the blade speed ratio?
200. In a reaction turbine, when the degree of (a) 0.259 (b) 0.75
reaction is zero, then there is (c) 0.3 (d) 0.433
(a) no heat drop in the moving blades BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
(b) no heat drop in the fixed blades Ans : (d) : Given,
(c) maximum heat drop in the moving blades Nozzle angle α = 30°
(d) maximum heat drop in the fixed blades for maximum efficiency
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper u cos α
Blade speed ratio = =
Ans. (a) : No heat drop in the moving blades v 2
∆hmb cos30°
Degree of Reaction = =
∆h fb + ∆hmb 2
= 0.433
∆hmb = 0,
206. For a super sonic flow if the area of flow
DOR = 0 increases then.
201. A Parson's turbine is also known as (a) Velocity remains constant
(a) 25% reaction turbine (b) Velocity increases
(b) 50% reaction turbine (c) Velocity decreases
(c) 75% reaction turbine (d) Velocity initially increases and after attaining
(d) impulse turbine peak decreases.
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans. (b) : 50% reaction turbine Ans : (b) : For a supersonic flow if the area of flow
increases pressure decreases and velocity increases.
202. The purpose of governing in steam turbine is to
(a) reduce the effective heat drop 207. The region inside the Mach cone is called:
(b) reheat the steam and improve its quality (a) Zone of action
(c) completely balance against end thrust (b) Zone of silence
(d) maintain the speed of the turbine (c) Control volume
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper (d) None of these
Ans. (d) : maintain the speed of the turbine OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
203. The ratio of the increase in pressure in rotor Ans : (a) : The region inside the mach cone is called
blades to total increase in pressure in the stage zone of action.
is called 208. At critical pressure ratio, the velocity at the
(a) Pressure ratio throat of a nozzle is:
(b) pressure coefficient (a) Equal to the sonic speed
(c) degree of reaction (b) Less than the sonic speed
(d) slip factor (c) More than the sonic speed
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V (d) None of these
Ans : (c) : The ratio of the increase in pressure in rotor OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
blades to total increase pressure in the stage is called Ans : (a) : Mach number at throat is one i.e. velocity of
degree of reaction. flow is sonic.
204. In pressure-compounded turbine 209. In a supersonic flow, a diffuser is a conduit
(a) pressure drop in each stage is equal having:
(b) pressure increases as steam flows over blades (a) Constant area throughout its length
(c) most of the kinetic energy of steam is (b) Converging-diverging passage
absorbed as it passes over moving blades (c) Gradually decreasing area
(d) None of these (d) Diverging-converging passage
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
84
Ans : (c) : In a supersonic flow, a diffuser is a conduit v 12 gz v 22 gz 2
having gradually decreasing area. h1 + + 1 = h2 + + +w
2000 1000 2000 1000
210. The sonic velocity in a fluid medium is directly z1 = z2
proportional to: 2
(a) Mach number 200 100 2
3000 + + = 2500 + +w
(b) Pressure 2000 1000
(c) Temperature 520 = 10 + w
(d) Square root of temperature w = 510 kW
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II P = mw
Ans : (d) : Sonic Velocity = γRT = 30×510
211. If enthalpy of steam at the entry and exit of = 15.3 MW
steam turbine is respectively 3000 kJ/kg and ≈ 15 MW
2000 kJ/kg, if pump work is ignored, what will 213. The compounding of steam turbine is usually
be the specific steam consumption? done for:
(a) 3.60 kg/kW.hr (b) 3.60 kg/kW.s (a) Reduction of steam consumption
(c) 0.360 kg/kW.s (d) Insufficient data (b) Reduction in turbine size
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II (c) Reduction of motor speed
Ans : (a) : Given, (d) Efficiency improvement
h1 = 3000 kJ/kg OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
h2 = 2000 kJ/kg RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (c) : Since the speed of single stage impulse
turbine is very high. To bring this speed in practical
application range, compounding (Pressure and velocity)
is done. Here either the pressure of steam is reduced in
steps (Pressure compounding) or high velocity is used
in steps. (Velocity compounding) gear box is out of
option because for such high reduction it is not an
economical idea.
214. An impulse turbine of single stage having 1.2 m
diameter runs at 1000 rpm. What will be the
Net output from turbine inlet steam velocity if the blade speed ratio is
WT = h1 – h2 0.314?
= 3000 – 2000 (a) 200 m/s (b) 100 m/s
= 1000 kJ/kg (c) 150 m/s (d) 250 m/s
So, OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Specific steam consumption in kg/kW.hr
Ans : (a) : Given,
3600 D = 1.2 m
SSC =
WT N = 1000 rpm
3600 u
= = Speed ratio = 0.314
1000 v1
= 3.6 kg/kW.hr πDN
212. For an ideal turbine enthalpy of gas at entry u=
60
and exit is 3,000 kJ/kg and 2,500 kJ/kg π × 1.2 × 1000
respectively and having velocity 200 m/s and = = 62.83 m/s
100 m/s respectively at entry and exit. If mass 60
flow rate of gas is 30 kg/s, the approximate u
= 0.314
power output of turbine is: v1
(a) 16 MW (b) 15 MW 62.83
(c) 15.5 MW (d) Insufficient data = 0.314
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II v1
Ans : (b) : Given, v1 = 200 m/s
h1 = 3000 kJ/kg 215. What will be the degree of reaction of the
h2 = 2500 kJ/kg turbine if the isentropic enthalpy drop is fixed
v1 = 200 m/s blade in 1.5 time of the isentropic enthalpy
v2 = 100 m/s drop in the moving blade?
m = 30 kg/s (a) 0.6 (b) 0.5
Applying SFEE between inlet and outlet, power output (c) 0.4 (d) 0.66
of turbine, OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
85
Ans : (c) : The degree of reaction in steam turbine 219. The coefficient of velocity for steam turbine is
∆h mb the ratio of:
R= (a) Relative velocity leaving the blade to the
( mb + ∆h fb )
∆h velocity of whirl at inlet of moving blade
Given, (b) Velocity of whirl at inlet of moving blade to
∆h fb = 1.5h mb the relative velocity leaving the blade
∆h mb (c) Relative velocity at inlet of moving blade to
R= the relative velocity leaving the blade
∆h mb + 1.5h mb (d) Relative velocity leaving the blade to the
∆h mb relative velocity at inlet of moving blade
= OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
2.5h mb
Ans : (d) : The coefficient of velocity for steam turbine
R = 0.4
is the ratio of relative velocity leaving the blade to the
216. A throttle governed steam turbine develops 30 relative velocity at inlet of moving blade.
IHP by consuming 300 kg/hr. steam and 60 220. In a steam turbine, the nozzle angle at the inlet
IHP with 570 kg/hr. How much steam is is 18°. The relative velocity is reduced to the
required to develop 20 IHP? extent of 6% when steam flows over the moving
(a) 210 kg/hr (b) 230 kg/hr blades. The output of the turbine is 120 kJ/kg
(c) 300 kg/hr (d) 270 kg/hr flow of steam. If the blades are equiangular, the
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II speed ratio and the absolute velocity of steam
Ans : (a) : ratio and the absolute velocity of steam at inlet
ms = aL+c for maximum utilization are nearly
ms= steam consumption rate (a) 0.42 and 230.2 m/s (b) 0.48 and 230.2 m/s
L = load kW (c) 0.42 and 515.1 m/s (d) 0.48 and 515.1 m/s
a = steam rate kg/kW ESE 2019
c = no load steam consumption kg/s Ans. (d) : Given,
570 = 60L + c – (i)
α = 18°
– 300 = – 30L + c – (ii) W = 120 kJ/kg
270 = 30 L Vr2 = 0.94 Vr1
L=9
By using equation (i) θ = φ (Blades are equiangular)
300 – 270 = c Vr2
c = 30 = 0.94 = k
Vr1
Steam is required to develop 20 IHP
= 9 × 20 + 30 cos α cos18
optimum blade speed (ρ) = = = 0.475
= 180 + 30 2 2
= 210 U
= 0.475
217. When two rotors of the outward radial flow V1
turbine is rotating in opposite direction then it U = 0.475 V1
is known as: cos φ
(a) Pass out turbine Z= =1
(b) Ljungstrom turbine cos θ
(c) 50% reaction turbine
(d) Condensing turbine
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (b) : When two rotors of the outward radial flow
turbine is rotating in opposite direction then it is known
as Ljungstrom turbine.
218. What will be the optimum blade speed ratio for
compounded impulse turbine with nozzle angle W = ( Vw1 + Vw 2 ) U
(α) and (n) row of moving blade is:
= (DB + DE) U
(a) 2n cos α (b) cos α/2n
(c) n cos α/2 (d) cos α/2 (n+1) = ( Vr1 cos θ + Vr2 cos φ ) U
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II = Vr1 cos θ (1 + kZ)U
Ans : (b) : Optimum blade speed ratio for compounded
impulse turbine with nozzle angle (α) and (n) row of = ( V1 cos α − U ) (1 + kZ ) U
moving blade is. = (V1 cos18° − 0.475 V1) (0.475 V1) (1 + 0.94)
cos α 120 × 103 = 0.4386 V12
=
2n V1 = 523 m/s
86
221. A turbine in which steam expands both in the power available from the turbine will be
nozzle as well as in blades is called as nearly
(a) impulse reaction turbine (a) 1575.5 kW (b) 1481.6 kW
(b) reciprocating steam turbine (c) 1387.7 kW (d) 1293.8 kW
(c) gas turbine ESE 2019
(d) Curtis turbine Ans. (d) : Given,
ESE 2019 mɺ = 1 kg/s
Ans. (a) : Impulse reaction turbine c1 = 100 m/s
! In impulse turbine steam expands in nozzles only. c2 = 150 m/s
! In impulse reaction turbine steam expands in h1 = 2900 kJ/kg
nozzles as well as it passes through blades. h2 = 1600 kJ/kg
222. A steam turbine is supplied with steam at a
pressure of 20 bar gauge. After expansion in
the steam turbine, the steam passes to
condenser which is maintained at a vacuum of
250 mm of mercury by means of pumps. The
inlet and exhaust steam pressures will be
nearly From steady flow energy equation
(a) 2101 kPa and 68 kPa We know that SFEE
(b) 2430 kPa and 78 kPa
(c) 2101 kPa and 78 kPa  c2   c2  ɺ
ɺ  h1 + 1 + gz1  + qɺ = m
m ɺ  h 2 + 2 + gz 2  + W T
(d) 2430 kPa and 68 kPa  2   2 
ESE 2019 We assume that
Ans. (a) : Inlet pressure (P1) = 20 bar gauge z1 = z2, No heat transfer take place qɺ = 0
Absolute inlet pressure
(P1)abs = P1 + Patm  c2   c2  ɺ
mɺ  h1 + 1  = m ɺ h 2 + 2  + W T
= 20 + 1.0135  2  2
= 21.0135 bar  c2   c2  ɺ
= 2101 kPa mɺ  h1 + 1  = m ɺ  h2 + 2  + W T
Exit pressure (P2) = 250 mm of Hg (vacuum)  2000   2000 
Absolute exit pressure (P2)abs = Patm − Pvac  (100) 2   (150) 2  ɺ
1 2900 +  = 1 1600 +  + WT
= (101.35 − 13.6 × 9.81 × 0.25) kPa  2000   2000 
= 67.996 Wɺ = 1293.75 kW
T
= 68 kPa
223. Consider the following statements regarding 225. Statement I: Reheating between the high-
compounding in steam turbines: pressure and low-pressure turbines increases the
1. In impulse turbine, steam pressure remains turbine work output.
constant between ends of the moving blades. Statement II: The constant pressure lines on T-s
2. In reaction turbine, steam pressure drops from diagram diverge away from the origin.
inlet to outlet of the blade. ESE 2018
3. In velocity compounding, partial expansion of Ans. (a) : ! Work output of the reheat cycle is
steam takes place in the nozzle and further increased as
expansion takes place in the rotor blades. ( h3 − h 6 ) < ( h 4 − h′5 )
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE 2019
Ans. (a) : (i) As the steam flows over the moving blades
nearly all its velocity is absorbed. However, the
pressure remains constant during the process. It is three
stage pressure compounded impulse turbine.
(ii) In reaction turbine steam pressure drops from inlet
to outlet of the blade. ! The constant pressure line diverge on the T-s diagram
(iii) In velocity compounding whole expansion takes from the origin.
place in nozzle and velocity is reduced subsequent 226. The efficiency of Stirling cycle is
stages. ________Carnot cycle for the same
224. In a steam turbine with steam flow rate of 1 temperature limits.
kg/s, inlet velocity of steam of 100 m/s, exit (a) Greater than (b) less than
velocity of steam of 150 m/s, enthalpy at inlet of (c) Equal to (d) Cannot compare
2900 kJ/kg, enthalpy at outlet of 1600 kJ/kg, APPSC AEE 2016
87
Ans. (c) : Stirling and Ericsson cycle are ideal Kg/sec. Kinetic & Potential energy changes are
thermodynamic cycles for external heat engines with negligible. The power output of Turbine in
regeneration and both are considered to have the Carnot Mega Watt is–
efficiency as their theoretical efficiency. (a) 6.5 (b) 9.1
227. The behaviour of superheated vapour is similar (c) 8.9 (d) 27.0
to that of RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
(a) perfect gas (b) steam Ans : (c) Given,
(c) air (d) ordinary gas h1 = 3251.0 kJ/Kg
APPSC AEE 2016 h2 = 225.94 kJ/Kg
Ans. (a) : The behaviour of superheated vapour is hf = 2598.3 kJ/Kg
similar to that of perfect gas (ideal gas). x = 0.9
228. Rankine efficiency of steam power plant h2 = hf + x (hg – hf )
= 225.94 + 0.9 (2598.3 – 225.94)
(a) improves in summer as compared to that in
= 2361.064
winter
h2 = 2361.04 kJ/Kg
(b) improves in winter as compared to that in
summer ∴ Power output from turbine,
(c) in unaffected by climatic conditions P = Mass flow rate × (h1 – h2)
(d) none of these = 10 × (3251–2361.064)
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016 = 8899.36 kJ/Sec.
Ans : (b) Improves in winter as compared to that in = 8899.36 kJ/Sec.
summer P ≈ 8.9MW
229. In a reaction stage turbine, the velocity 232. A small steam whistle (perfectly insulated) and
(a) increases in stator and remains constant in doing no shaft work causes a drop of 0.8 kJ/kg
rotor in the enthalpy of steam from entry to exit. If
(b) increases in stator and decreases in rotor the kinetic energy of steam at entry is
(c) decreases in stator and remains constant in negligible, the velocity of steam at exit is–
rotor (a) 4 m/s (b) 20 m/s
(d) remains constant throughout (c) 80 m/s (d) 120 m/s
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016 RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
Ans : (b) Increases in stator and decreases in rotor.
Ans : (b) Velocity = 44.72 ∆h
230. In an impulse turbine stage, pressure-
(a) increases in stator and decreases in rotor = 44.72 0.8
(b) decreases in stator and increases in rotor = 39.99 m / s
(c) decreases in stator and remains constant in ≈ 40m / s
rotor Where, ∆h is in kJ/kg and velocity in m/s.
(d) remains constant in both stator and rotor 233. In case of non-availability of space due to
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016 topography, the most suitable spillway is
Ans : (c) Pressure and velocity diagram along the (a) Straight drop spillway
length of impulse turbine. (b) Shaft spillway
(c) Chute spillway
(d) Ogee spillway
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (b) : Shaft spillway.
234. In steam turbines the reheat factor:
(a) Increases with the increase in number of
stages
(b) Decreases with the increase in number of
stages
The figure clearly indicates that pressure are constant (c) Remains same irrespective of number of
and velocity reduces in moving blades of impulse stages
turbine. (d) None of the above
231. Steam enters adiabatic turbine operating OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
steady state with an enthalpy of 3251.0 kJ/Kg Ans : (a) In steam turbine the reheat factor increase
leaves as a saturated mixture of 15 kPa with with the increase in number of stages.
dryness faction (quality) 0.9. The enthalpy of Reheat factor:- It is an important term used for the
the saturated liquid and vapour at 15 kPa are multi-stage turbines, which may be broadly defined as
hf = 225.94 kJ/Kg and hg= 2598.3 kJ/Kg the ratio of cumulative heat drop to the isentropic heat
respectively. The mass flow rate of steam is 10 drop.
88
235. The effect of blade friction in a steam turbine is
to
(a) reheat the gas
(b) increase the specific output
(c) reduce the exhaust pressure
(d) reduce work done
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
Ans : (d)
i) Some resistance is always offered by the blade
surface to the Idling steam jet, whose effect is to
reduce the velocity of the Jet.
ii) The effect of blade friction in a steam turbine is
to reduce work done.
iii) The blade friction in the impulse turbine reduces
the velocity of steam by 10 to 15% passes over
the blade.
236. In case of impulse steam turbine there is
(a) enthalpy drop in fixed and moving blades
(b) enthalpy drop only in moving blades
(c) enthalpy drop in nozzles
(d) no enthalpy drop
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (c)
(i) In case of impulse steam turbine there is
enthalpy drop in nozzle.
(ii) In a reaction turbine the expansion of steam
takes place partly in the fixed blade and partly in
the moving blades.
237. Pressure on two sides of impulse wheel of a
steam turbine
(a) is same
(b) is different
(c) increases from one side to the other side
(d) decreases from one side to the other side
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (a) In impulse turbine, the pressure of steam jet
is reduced in the nozzle and remains constant while
passing through the moving blade. The velocity of
steam is increased in the nozzle and is reduced while
passing through the moving blades.
238. In case of reaction steam turbine
(a) there is enthalpy drop both in fixed and
moving blades
(b) there is enthalpy drop only in fixed blades
(c) there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
(d) there is no enthalpy drop
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (a) In case of reaction steam turbine there is
enthalpy drop both in fixed and moving blades.
(i) In case of impulse steam turbine there is enthalpy
drop in nozzle.
(ii) In a reaction turbine the expansion of steam takes
place partly in the fixed blade and partly in the
moving blades.
239. Diversity factor is always
(a) equal factor is always (b) less than unity
(c) more than unity (d) zero
RPSC AE 2016
89
Ans : (c) Diversity factor– Diversity factor is the
ratio of sum of the individual non-coincident
maximum loads of various subdivisions of the system
to the maximum demand of the complete system.
Diversity factor is always more than unity.
240. High load factor indicates that
(a) cost of generation per unit power is increased
(b) total plant capacity is utilized for most of the
time
(c) total plant capacity is not properly utilized
for most of the time
(d) load on the plant is high
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (b) High load factor indicates that total plant
capacity is utilized for most of the time.
241. The process of maintaining the speed of the
turbine constant for various load conditions is
(a) bleeding (b) reheating
(c) governing (d) compounding
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (c) The process of maintaining the speed of the
turbine constant for various load conditions is
governing.
Throttle Governing of steam turbine:- The throttle
governing of a steam turbine is a method of
controlling the turbine output by varying the quantity
of steam entering into the turbine. This method is also
know as servo motor method.
242. De - Laval turbine is a
(a) Simple impulse turbine
(b) Simple reaction turbine
(c) Impulse reaction turbine
(d) Both (2) & (3)
TSPSC AEE 2015
(KPSC AE 2015)
Ans : (a) De- Laval turbine is a simple impulse
turbine
Type of impulse turbine:-
(i) De- laval turbine
(ii) Curtis turbine
(iii) Rateau turbine
(iv) Zoelly turbine.
243. In reaction turbines, the draft tube is used:
(a) For the safety of the turbine
(b) To convert the kinetic energy of low by a
gradual expansion of the flow cross-section
(c) To destroy the undesirable eddies
(d) For none of the above purpose
UJVNL AE 2016
Ans : (b) In reaction turbine, the draft tube is used to
convert the kinetic energy of flow by a gradual
expansion of the flow cross-section.
Efficiency of draft tube
Actualconversion of kinetic headin to pressure head
=
Kinetic head at theinlet of draft tube
244. Ratio of indicated work to hypothetical π 2
Indicated work in a steam engine is the: * The area of flow ( A b ) =
4
( D2 − D12 )
(a) Indicated thermal efficiency
cos α
(b) Friction factor * Optimum velocity ratio ( ρopt ) =
(c) Mechanical efficiency 2
(d) Diagram factor 1+ kb
* Maximum efficiency ( ηmax ) = .cos 2 α
UJVNL AE 2016 2
Ans : (d) Diagram factor = 248. Curtis turbine is:
Actualindicated work (a) Reaction steam turbine
Hypotheticalindicated work (b) Pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
(c) pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
245. A curve showing the variation of load on a (d) Velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
power station with respect to time is known as OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
(a) Load curve Ans : (d) Velocity compounded impulse steam
(b) Load duration curve turbine
(c) Diversity factor
(d) Performance curve 249. Turbine gives best performance (i.e. work at
peak efficiency) when they are operated at full
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
or design load. The performance of many
Ans : (a) A curve showing the variation of load on a turbines deteriorate considerably at part loads.
power station with respect to time is known as load Which of the following turbines is best suited
curve. for operation at part loads. ?
Load Curve:- A consumer of electrical power will use (a) Pelton Turbine (b) Francis Turbine
the power as and when required, and hence the load (c) Propeller Turbine (d) Kaplan Turbine
will always be changing with time. A curve showing UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
the load demand of consumer with respect to time is Ans. (d) : Kaplan Turbine
known as load curve. The energy consumption of the
250 If a draft tube is used with a Francis turbine
consumer is given by an expression.
24
(installed above tail race level), the pressure at
kWh = ∫ ( kW ) dt the runner outlet
0
(a) is equal to atmospheric pressure
246. The ratio of work done to the energy supplied (b) is above atmospheric pressure
to rotor in a turbine stage is called (c) is below atmosphere pressure
(a) Blade efficiency (b) Stage efficiency (d) depends upon turbine speed
(c) Nozzle efficiency (d) None of these UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II Ans. (c) :
Ans : (a) • The ratio of work done to the energy 251. De-Laval turbine is
supplied to rotor in a turbine stage is called blade (a) pressure compounded impulse turbine
efficiency. (b) simple single wheel impulse turbine
• The ratio of rate of work done and energy supplied to (c) velocity compounded impulse turbine
the stage in a turbine is called stage efficiency. (d) simple single wheel reaction turbine
247. The diagram efficiency is highest for simple UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
impulse turbine stage having smooth and Ans. (b) : simple single wheel impulse turbine
symmetrical blade when blade steam speed 252. Francis turbine is a
ratio can be given as (a) tangential flow reaction turbine
cos α1 (b) axial flow reaction turbine
(a) cos α1 (b) (c) radial flow reaction turbine
4
(d) mixed flow reaction turbine
cos α1
(c) (d) None of these UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
2 Ans. (c) : radial flow reaction turbine
Where α1 is the angle of absolute velocity at inlet. 253. Piston rings are generally made of following
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II material.
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II (a) cast iron (b) mild steel
Ans : (c) The diagram efficiency is highest for simple (c) aluminium (d) carbon steel
impulse turbine stage having smooth and symmetrical UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
blade when blade steam speed ratio can be given as Ans. (a) : cast iron
cos α1 254. The degree of reaction for a turbomachinary in
2 which heat drop in moving blades is 8 kJ/kg
Impulse Turbine:- and in fixed blades 12 kJ/kg, would be
πDN (a) 66.6% (b) 150%
* Blade velocity ( Vb ) = (c) 40% (d) 166.6%
60 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
90
Ans. (c) : Degree of reaction (d) All of above
Heat dropin moving blade UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
= Ans. (d) : All of above
Heat dropin moving blade + Heat dropin fixed blade
8 8 2 262. An air preheater
= = = = 0.4 = 40% (a) increases evaporative capacity of a boiler
12 + 8 20 5 (b) increases the efficiency of boiler
255. Specific speed of a turbine is defined as the (c) enables low grade fuel to be burnt
speed of the turbine which (d) all of the above
(a) produces unit power at unit discharge UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(b) produces unit power at unit head
Ans. (d) : All of the above
(c) delivers unit discharge at unit head
(d) delivers unit discharge at unit power 263. Steam turbines are governed by which of
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II following methods?
Ans. (b) : produces unit power at unit head (a) Throttle governing
(b) Nozzle control governing
256. For a single stage impulse turbine having
(c) Bypass governing
nozzle angle α, maximum blade efficiency
(d) All of above
under ideal conditions is given by
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(a) cos α/2 (b) cos2α/2
(c) cos α (d) cos2α Ans. (d) : All of above
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II 264. In steam turbine the reheat factor
Ans. (d) : cos2α (a) increases with increase in number of stages
(b) decreases with increase in number of stages
257. Bleeding in turbine means : (c) remains same
(a) leakage of steam
(d) does not depend on number of stages
(b) steam doing no useful work
(c) removal of condensed steam UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(d) extracting steam for preheating feed water Ans. (a) : increases with increase in number of stages
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II 265. For a single stage impulse turbine, having
Ans. (d) : extracting steam for preheating feed water nozzle angle a, maximum blade efficiency
258. Parson’s reaction turbine has under ideal conditions is given by
(a) fixed blades only cos α cos 2 α
(b) moving blades only (a) (b)
2 2
(c) identical fixed and moving blades cos 2α
(d) fixed and moving blades of different shapes. (c) (d) cos2α
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II 2
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Ans. (c) : identical fixed and moving blades
Ans. (d) : cos2α
259. Pressure compounding can be done in the
following type of turbines:- 266. In the impulse turbine the steam expands in
(a) Impulse turbines (a) blade
(b) Reaction turbines (b) nozzle
(c) Both impulse and reaction turbines (c) partly in nozzle and partly in blade
(d) None of the above (d) none of the above
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Ans. (b) : Pressure compounding can be done in the Ans. (b) : Nozzle
reaction turbine. 267. Compared to reciprocating steam engines,
260. Blade efficiency of steam turbine is equal to:- steam turbines
V ( Vw1 − Vw 2 ) 2V ( Vw1 − Vw 2 ) (a) have higher efficiency
(a) (b) (b) have low steam consumption
2g V12
(c) have less frictional losses due to sliding parts
V ( Vw1 − Vw 2 ) V 2 ( Vw1 − Vw 2 ) (d) all of above
(c) (d) UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
V12 2V1
Ans. (d) : All of above
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (b) : 268. Why compounding of steam turbine is done?
(a) To improve efficiency
261. What is the effect of bleeding?
(b) To reduce exit losses
(a) It decreases the power developed by the
(c) To reduce rotor speed
turbine
(d) All of the above
(b) The boiler is supplied with hot water
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(c) It increases thermodynamic efficiency of
Ans. (c) : To reduce rotor speed
turbine
91
269. The condition for maximum efficiency of 274. Shock effect in a nozzle is felt in
reaction turbine is given by (a) divergent portion
(a) Vb = V1 cos α (b) Vb = V12 cos α (b) straight portion
V 2 cos 2α (c) convergent portion
(c) Vb = (V1 cos α)/2 (d) Vb = 1 (d) throat
2
[V1 being the absolute speed of the steam BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
entering the blades and α being nozzle angle] TNPSC AE 2014
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
Ans. (a) : Vb = V1 cos α Ans : (a) : Shock effect in a nozzle is felt in divergent
270. Stage efficiency of steam turbine is equal to portion.
(a) blade efficiency/nozzle efficiency For a nozzle to have a supersonic outlet, the speed at the
(b) nozzle efficiency/blade efficiency throat should be definitely sonic and the nozzle should
(c) nozzle efficiency × blade efficiency be divergent from the throat section.
(d) I - blade efficiency
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II 275. The discharge through a converging-diverging
Ans. (c) : nozzle efficiency × blade efficiency nozzle reaches its maximum value when the
flow becomes
4. Steam Nozzle (a) Sonic at the exit
(b) Sonic at the throat
271. A Nozzle device is used to convert the (c) Supersonic at the throat
(a) total energy to pressure (d) Subsonic at the throat
(b) total energy to velocity
UPSC JWM 2017
(c) kinetic energy to mechanical energy
(d) potential energy to kinetic energy Ans. (b) : The discharge through a converging -
APPSC-AE-2019 diverging nozzle reaches its maximum value when the
Ans. (b) : In nozzle area decreases, velocity increases flow becomes sonic at the throat. The mach number at
and pressure decreases. Nozzle converts pressure the throat is 1 for maximum discharge.
energy into kinetic energy. Since the objective of the
device is to increase the flow velocity hence option (b) 276. The region where the Mach number is less than
is most appropriate. unity is
272. The function of steam nozzle is to convert : (a) Subsonic (b) Supersonic
KPSC AE. 2015) (c) Sonic (d) Hypersonic
TSPSC AEE 2015 TNPSC AE 2013
(a) heat energy of steam into kinetic energy Ans. (a) :
(b) heat energy of steam into rotational energy
(c) kinetic energy into heat energy of steam Type of flow Mach No. (M) (Range)
(d) heat energy of steam into pressure energy Subsonic 0.4 – 0.8
Ans : (a) A steam nozzle converts heat energy of Transonic 0.8 – 1.2
steam into kinetic energy. The mass of steam, passing Sonic 1
through any section of the nozzle remains constant, Supersonic 1–6
the variation of steam pressure in the nozzle depends Hypersonic >6
upon the velocity, specific volume any dryness
fraction of steam. A well designed nozzle converts the 277. Mass flow rate through steam nozzle is
heat energy of steam into kinetic energy with a maximum when pressure ratio is
minimum losses. n / n −1
p2  1 
273. Mach number under choked condition in a (a) = 
steam nozzle is : p1  n + 1 
(a) Greater than 1 (b) Less than 1 n / n −1
(c) Less than 0.3 (d) Equal to 1 p2  2 
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 (b) =  
Ans. (d) :
p1  n + 1 
! Mach number under choked condition in a steam ( n −1) / n
nozzle is equal to one. p2  2 
(c) = 
! In the chocked condition of convergent divergent p1  n + 1 
nozzle, a constant and maximum mass flow rate of
1/ n −1
air passes through nozzle in this condition. p2  2 
! Critical pressure at throat and after that pressure (d) = 
reduces. p1  n + 1 
! Mach number at throat is one i.e. velocity of flow is RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
sonic. BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
92
Ans. (b) : Mass flow rate through steam nozzle is Ans : (c) : The flow of steam in a nozzle is subsonic at
n / n −1 convergent portion.
p2  2  The flow of steam in a nozzle is supersonic at divergent
maximum when pressure ratio is = 
p1  n + 1  portion.
283. The maximum velocity attainable at the throat
Steam Critical pressure ratio of a steam nozzle is
Saturated Steam 0.571 (a) much less than sonic velocity
Superheated Steam 0.546 (b) slightly less than sonic velocity
(c) sonic velocity
Wet Steam 0.582 (d) slightly more than sonic velocity
Gas (Dry air) 0.52 BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
278. The critical pressure ratio for initially dry Ans : (c) : The location of the smallest flow area of a
saturated steam is nozzle is called the 'throat', the flow velocity at the
(a) 0.528 (b) 0.546 throat is the speed of sound.
(c) 0.577 (d) 0.582 284. For a convergent - divergent nozzle, critical
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper pressure ratio occurs when
Ans. (c) : For dry saturated steam (a) velocity at exit becomes sonic
n = 1.135 (b) shock at exit becomes
n (c) nozzle efficiency is maximum
P2  2  n −1 (d) increase in exit and inlet pressure ratio does
= 
P1  n + 1  not increases steam flow rate
1.135 BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
P2  2  0.135 Ans : (d) : For a convergent divergent nozzle, critical
= 
P1  2.135  pressure ratio occurs when increase in exit and inlet
P2 pressure ratio does not increase steam flow rate.
= ( 0.9367 )
8.407
285. Mach number is more than unity in which of
P1
the following portions of a convergent-
= 0.577 divergent nozzle?
279. The region outside the Mach cone is called. (a) Convergent portion
(a) zone of action (b) zone of silence (b) Straight portion
(c) control volume (d) None of the above (c) Throat
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper (d) Divergent portion
Ans. (b) : zone of silence BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
280. Which one of the following is the expression of Ans : (d) : Mach number is more than unity, the nozzle
stock strength? is divergent.
2v v +1 2
(a)  m12 − 1 (b)  m1 − 1
v +1 2v 
2v 1 v +1 1
(c) (d)
v − 1  m12 − 1 2v  m12 − 1
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : The expression of stock strength is-
2v
 m12 − 1
v +1
281. The flow of steam is supersonic
(a) at the entrance to the nozzle
(b) at the throat of the nozzle 286. Speed of sound is maximum in
(c) in the convergent portion of the nozzle (a) Liquid (b) Gas
(d) in the divergent portion of the nozzle (c) Solid (d) Semisolid
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans. (d) : in the divergent portion of the nozzle Ans : (c) : Speed of the sound depends on the density of
The flow of steam is supersonic in the divergent portion medium through which it is travelling more the density
of the nozzle. more is the speed. As density of solid is more than
liquid and gases, sound travels with more speed in
282. The flow of steam in nozzle is subsonic at solids.
(a) throat
(b) entrance 287. Mach number for subsonic flow
(c) convergent portion (a) M < 0.8 (b) M > 1
(d) divergent portion (c) M > 2 (d) M > 2.5
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V Gujarat PSC AE 2019
93
Ans : (a) : 292. The process of abstracting steam at a certain
! M < 0.3: incompressible flow section of the turbine and subsequently using it
! 0.3 < M < 0.8: subsonic flow for heating feed water supplied to the boiler is
! 0.8 < M < 1.2: transonic flow called
! 1.2 < M < 3.0 : supersonic flow (a) Reheating
! 3.0 < M : hypersonic flow (b) Regeneration
288. For nozzle governed turbine the efficiency is (c) Bleeding
mainly affected due to the losses during: (d) Binary vapour cycle
(a) Throttling ESE 2020
(b) Inter stage pressure drop Ans. (b) : Regeneration.
(c) Stage condensation 293. The diameter of a nozzle d for maximum
(d) Partial admission transmission of power through it, is
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II 1 1

Ans : (d) : For nozzle governed turbine the efficiency is  D5  4  D5  2

(a)   (b)  
mainly affected due to losses during partial admission.  8fL   8fL 
289. The nozzle efficiency of a turbine is: 1 1
(a) Ratio of work done on moving blades to  D5  4  8D5  2
(c)   (d)  
actual enthalpy drop
 fL   fL 
(b) Ratio of work delivered by blades to
where :
Isentropic enthalpy drop
D = Diameter of pipe
(c) Ratio of actual to Isentropic enthalpy drop
f = Coefficient of friction
(d) None of these
L = Length of pipe
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II ESE 2020
Ans : (c) : 1
Useful heat drop  D5 
4
Nozzle efficiency = Ans. (a) :  
Isentropic heat drop  8fL 
290. 0.8 kg of air flows through a compressor under 294. A 120 mm diameter jet of water is discharging
steady state conditions. The properties of air at from a nozzle into the air at a velocity of 40
entry are : pressure 1 bar, velocity 10 m/s, m/s. The power in the jet with respect to a
specific volume 0.95 m3/kg and internal energy datum at the jet will be
30 kJ/kg. The corresponding values at exit are (a) 380 kW (b) 360 kW
3
8 bar, 6 m/s, 0.2 m /kg and 124 kJ/kg. (c) 340 kW (d) 320 kW
Neglecting change in potential energy, the ESE 2020
power input will be Ans. (b) : Given:
(a) 117 kW (b) 127 kW d = 120 mm = 0.12 m
(c) 137 kW (d) 147 kW V = 40 m/s
ESE 2020 1
Ans. (b) : P = mV ɺ 2 ∵m ɺ = ρaV
2
1
 c2   c2   = ( ρaV ) V 2
Power = m ɺ  u 2 + p2 v 2 + 2  −  u1 + p1v1 + 1   2
 2000   2000  
1
= ρaV3
 62   102   2
= 0.8 124 + 800 × 0.2 +  −  30 + 100 × 0.95 +  
(1000 ) × π ( 0.12 ) × 40 3
2

 2000   2000   1
= × ( )
2 1000 4
= 0.8 (124 + 160 + 0.018 ) − ( 30 + 95 + 0.05 )
P = 361.91 kW
= 0.8[158.968] = 127.17 kW
≈ 360 kW
291. If mf is the mass of fuel supplied per kg of air in
one second, then the mass of gases leaving the 295. Due to the presence of friction over the blade of
nozzle of turbojet will be steam turbine, blade velocity coefficient exists
1 and is defined as :
(a) (1 − m f ) kg / s (b) kg / s
(1 + mf ) (a) Relative velocity of the steam at the exit of blade
Relative velocity of the steam at the inlet of blade
1
(c) (1 + m f ) kg / s (d) kg / s (b) Absolute velocity of the steam at the exit of blade
(1 − m f ) Absolute velocity of the steam at the inlet of blade
ESE 2020
(c) Relative velocity of the steam at the inlet of blade
Ans. (c) : (1 + m f ) kg / s Relative velocity of the steam at the exit of blade
94
 (d) Absolute velocity of the steam at the inlet of blade Actual discharge
(b)
Absolute velocity of the steam at the exit of blade Theoretical discharge
(c) it is an experimental value
(e) Relative velocity of the steam at the exit of blade
Absolute velocity of the steam at the inlet of blade (d) none of these
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
CGPSC AE 2014- II
Ans. (b) :
Ans. (a) : Due to presence of friction over the blade of
Actual flow discharge
steam turbine blade velocity coefficient exists and is Coefficient of discharge =
defined as the ratio of relative velocity of the steam at Theoritical flow discharge
the exit of blade to relative velocity of the steam at the
inlet of blades. C
Cd = a
Blade velocity coefficient Ct
Relative velocity of the steam at the exit of blade 299. Pressure loss occurs in nozzle due to
Relative velocity of the steam at the inlet of blade (a) due to viscous force
(b) when fluid flows from convergent to
Vre
= divergent
Vri (c) frictional forces
296. In a nozzle designed for the maximum (d) none of these
discharge conditions, the flow velocity in the Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
convergent section of the nozzle Ans. (b) : Pressure losses occurs when fluid flow from
(a) is sonic convergent to divergent in nozzle.
(b) is subsonic 300. What will be the approximate velocity (in m/s)
(c) is supersonic of bullet fired in standard air (Temperature of
(d) depends upon the initial pressure and air = 300 K) if the mach angle is 30º [R = 0.28
condition of steam kJ/kg-K, γ = 1.4]
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V (a) 560 6 (b) 140 6
Ans : (b) : Is subsonic (c) 70 6 (d) 280 6
297. Mach angle (α) is defined as the SJVN ET 2019
(a) Quarter angle of the mach cone Ans. (d) : Given, T = 300 K
(b) Zero angle of the mach cone Mach angle (θ) = 30º
(c) Half of the angle of the mach cone R = 0.28 kJ/kgK = 280 J/kgK
(d) Full angle of the mach cone γ = 1.4
TNPSC AE 2014 1
Ans. (c) : Definition of mach angle– Half of the vertex sin θ =
M
angle of a mach cone whose sine is the ratio of the 1
speed of sound to the speed of moving body. sin 30º =
M
1 1
=
2 M
M=2
C = γRT
= 1.4 × 280 × 300
= 14 × 10 6
= 140 6
V = MC
= 2 × 140 6
= 280 6
a 301. The ratio of stagnation pressure and static
sin µ =
v pressure
1 γ
sin µ =  γ − 1 2  γ −1  γ −1 2 
M (a) 1 + M  (b) 1 + M 
 2   2 
γ −1
298. Coefficient of discharge of nozzle in  γ −1 2  γ
Theoreticaldischarge (c) 1 + M  (d) γ RT
(a)  2 
Actual discharge TNPSC AE 2013
95
Ans. (a) : The ratio of stagnation pressure and static 308. The value of index n for isentropic expansion of
pressure is given by superheated steam through the nozzle is
γ (a) 1.4 (b) 1.3
 γ − 1 2  (γ −1) (c) 1.135 (d) 1.113
= 1 + M 
 2  (e) 1.125
302. The angle which the oblique shock wave makes CGPSC AE 2014 -II
with the initial direction of flow is Ans. (b) : The value of index n for isentropic expansion
(a) Mach angle (b) Wave angle of superheated steam and saturated steam through the
(c) Deviation angle (d) Angle of deflection nozzle are 1.3 and 1.135 respectively.
TNPSC AE 2013 309. Semi-cone angle of the divergent part of the
Ans. (b) : The angle which the oblique shock wave convergent divergent steam nozzle is of the
makes with the initial direction of flow is known as order of
wave angle. (a) 3 to 10 (b) 13 to 20
303. Shock waves are (c) 23 to 30 (d) 33 to 40
(a) Infinitesimal pressure waves (e) 43 to 50
(b) Non-stop pressure waves CGPSC AE 2014 -II
(c) Expansion waves Ans. (a) : Semi-Cone angle of the divergent part of the
(d) Steep pressure waves convergent divergent steam nozzle is of the order of 3 to
TNPSC AE 2013 10.
Ans. (d) : Shock waves are steep pressure waves. 310. Angle made by the absolute velocity of steam to
304. Prandtly-Meyer relation gives the relationship the horizontal is called as
between (a) blade entrance angle
(a) stagnation temperature and initial temperature (b) nozzle angle
(b) density before and after shock (c) outlet angle
(c) gas velocity before and after shock (d) none of the mentioned
(d) velocity fluid and sound RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
TNPSC AE 2013 Ans. (b) :
Ans. (c) : Prandtly-Meyer relation gives the relationship
between gas velocity before and after shock.
4f L max
305. The value of for sonic velocity is
D
(a) Less than one
(b) One
(c) Zero
(d) Greater than one Angle made by the absolute velocity of steam to the
TNPSC AE 2013 horizontal is called as nozzle angle.
Ans. (c) : Zero 311. In an isentropic flow through a nozzle, air
306. At normal atmospheric conditions, the ratio of flows at the rate of 600 kg/hr. At inlet to nozzle,
the speed of sound in water to that in air is the pressure is 2 MPa and the temperature is
127°C. The exit pressure is of 0.5 MPa. If the
about
initial velocity of air is 300 m/s, the exit velocity
(a) 1.5 (b) 2.0
will be
(c) 4.0 (d) 7.0
(a) 867 m/s (b) 776 m/s
TNPSC AE 2014 (c) 685 m/s (d) 594 m/s
Ans. (c) : At normal atmospheric conditions, the ratio ESE 2019
of the speed of sound in water to that in air is about 4.0. Ans. (d) :
307. Convergent-divergent nozzle is said to be
choked when ..................
(a) critical pressure is attained at the exit and
Mach number at this section is sonic
(b) velocity at the throat becomes supersonic
(c) exit velocity becomes supersonic
(d) mass flow rate through the nozzle reaches a Given,
maximum value m ɺ = 600 kg/hr
RPSC AE 2018 = 0.167 kg/s
Ans. (d) : Convergent-divergent nozzle is said to be p1 = 2 MPa
choked when mass flow rate through the nozzle reaches p2 = 0.5 MPa
a maximum value. T1 = 127 + 273 = 400 k
96
 C1 = 300 m/s
We know that
5. Gas Turbine
γ−1
314. In a two stage gas turbine plant with
T2  p 2  γ
intercooling and reheating
=
T1  p1  (a) both work ratio and thermal efficiency
1.4 −1 improve
T2  0.5  1.4 (b) work ratio improves but thermal efficiency
= 
400  2  decreases
T2 = 269.18 K (c) thermal efficiency improves but work ratio
From steady flow energy equation decreases
 C2   C2  (d) both work ratio and thermal efficiency
mɺ  h1 + 1  = m ɺ h 2 + 2  decreases
 2000   2000  JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
2 2
C C TNPSC 2019
h1 + 1 = h 2 + 2
2000 2000 RPSC AE 2016
(300)2 C2 Ans. (b) : work ratio improves but thermal efficiency
Cp T1 + = Cp T2 + 2 decreases
2000 2000
315. Brayton cycle consists of
C22
(1.005 × 400) + 45 = 1.005 × 269.19 + (a) Two reversible isobars and two reversible
2000 adiabatic process
C2 = 594.09 m/s (b) Two reversible isotherm and two reversible
312. Water vapour at 90 kPa and 150°C enters a adiabatic process
subsonic diffuser with a velocity of 150 m/s and (c) Two reversible isotherm and two reversible
leaves the diffuser at 190 kPa with a velocity of isobars process
55 m/s, and during the process, 1.5 kJ/kg of
(d) Two reversible adiabatics and one reversible
heat is lost to the surrounding. For water
vapour, Cp is 2.1 kJ/kgK. The final isotherm, one reversible isobaric process
temperature of water vapour will be RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
(a) 154°C (b) 158°C Ans. (a) : Brayton cycle—Brayton cycle consists of
(c) 162°C (d) 166°C two reversible isobars and two reversible adiabatic
ESE 2019process.
Ans. (a) : Given,
P1 = 90 kPa
P2 = 190 kPa
qɺ = −1.5 kJ/kg
T1 = 150°C = 150 + 273 = 423 K
C1 = 150 m/s
C2 = 55 m/s
Applying steady flow energy equation
C2 C2
h1 + 1 + q = h 2 + 2
2000 2000
2 2
C C
h2 − h1 = 1 − 2 + q
2000 2000
(150) 2 (55) 2
CP(T2 − T1) = − + (−1.5)
2000 2000
2.1 (T2 − 423) = 8.2375
T2 − 423 = 3.9226
T2 = 426.9226 k
T2 = 153.92 ≃ 154°C 316. Efficiency of Brayton cycle is given by [where
313. Main advantage of pintaux nozzle is: 'T' is the pressure ratio, γ = specific heat ratio]
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II 1 1
(a) Better cold starting performance (a) η = 1 − γ −1 (b) η = 1 −
(b) Ability to distribute the fuel r r
(c) Good penetration 1 1
(c) η = 1 − γ (d) η = 1 − (γ −1) / γ
(d) Good atomization r r
Ans : (a) Better cold starting performance main RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
advantage of paintaux nozzle. UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
97
Ans. (d) : 318. Which one of the following statements is
q −q correct? Increasing the number of reheating
η Brayton = in out stages in a gas turbine to infinity, makes the
qin expansion tending to
qout (a) Reversible adiabatic (b) Isothermal
= 1− (c) Isobaric (d) Adiabatic
qin TSPSC AEE 2015
C p (T3 − T4 ) Ans. (b) :
= 1− • Increasing the number of reheating stages in a gas
C p (T2 − T1 )
turbine to infinity makes the expansion tending to
T3 − T4 isothermal.
= 1−
T2 − T1 • Increasing the inter cooling compressor to infinity also
makes the compression tending to isothermal.
For Otto and Brayton cycle
319. The amount of energy added by heat transfer
T1 × T3 = T2 × T4 to the cycle to produce unit of network output
 T3  is called
T4  − 1  (a) Heat rate (b) Work ratio
T
= 1−  4  (c) Back work ratio (d) Thermal efficiency
T  TNPSC AE 2017
T1  2 − 1
T Ans. (a) : The amount of energy added by heat transfer
 1 
to the cycle to produce unit of network output is called
T3 T2 heat rate.
=
T4 T1 Work ratio,
then Network
rw =
1 Work output
η Brayton = 1 − Backwork ratio,
 T1 
  Input work
 T4  rbw =
Output work
We know that 320. Gas turbine blade material must possess:
 γ −1 
  (a) High creep rate
 T1   P1  γ  (b) Low creep rate
    =
 T4   P4  (c) Plasticity at high temperature
(d) Electrical conductivity
1
η Brayton = 1 − (γ −1) / γ SJVN ET 2013
r Ans. (b) : Modern turbine blades often use nickel based
317. Which of the following is the part of gas super alloys that incorporate chromium, cobalt and
turbine plant? rhenium.
(a) Compressor Gas turbine blade material must possess following
(b) Condenser properties :
(c) Pelton turbine (i) Material must withstand high temperature and
(d) Thermostatic expansion valve high stress.
(e) Kaplan turbine (ii) It must have low creep rate.
CGPSC AE 2014- II (iii) It must have high resistance to oxidation
corrosion and erosion.
Ans. (a) : Gas Turbine Plant– In the gas turbine power (iv) It must neither be brittle at ordinary temperature
plant air is compressed in a compressor(C). This nor plastic when hot.
compressed air then passes through a combustion (v) It must have good cast ability or forge ability
chamber (C.C.) where the temperature of the characteristics.
compressed air rises. That high pressure and high (vi) It must have good machine ability to achieve
temperature air is passed through gas turbine (T). In gas precise dimension.
turbine (T) compressed air suddenly expended; hence it (vii) It must have high resistance to fatigue failure.
gains kinetic energy, and because of this kinetic energy (viii) It must maintain structural stability when exposed
the air can do mechanical work for rotating the turbine. to varying temperature.
321. Gas turbines are preferred in aircraft
propulsion, due to
(a) They are heavy
(b) They have low power to weight ratio
(c) They have high power to weight ratio
(d) They are efficient
Air b JPSC AE PRE 2019
98
Ans. (c) : Gas turbines are preferred in aircraft T2 = 285 K
propulsion, due to they have high power to weight ratio. m = 0.1 kg/s
γ−1
322. In a gas turbine plant, fuel can be:
(a) High octane gasoline T1  P1  γ
= 
(b) Heavy diesel oil T2  P2 
(c) Pulverized Coal 0.41
(d) All of these T1  0.4 ×106  1.41
SJVN ET 2013 = 
T2  0.1× 106 
Ans. (d) : In a gas turbine, fuel can be : 0.41
! High octane gasoline = ( 4 ) 1.41 = 1.5
! Heavy diesel oil ∴T1 = T2 ×1.5
! Pulverized coal = 285 ×1.5
323. Reheating in gas turbine results in = 427.5 K
(a) increase of work ratio Work done = mcP (T2 – T1)
(b) decrease of thermal efficiency = 0.1×1×103×(427.5 – 285)
(c) decrease of work ratio = 14250 W
(d) Both (a) and (b) = 14.25 W
SJVN ET 2013 327. The pressure ratio and maximum temperature
Ans. (a) : The main purpose of reheat in gas turbine is of Brayton cycle are 5 : 1 and 928 K
increase turbine output. respectively. Air enters the compressor at 1 bar
323. Pressure ratio in gas turbines is the ratio of and 300 K. What will be the network output of
(a) Compressor pressure ratio the cycle per kg of air flow?
(b) Highest pressure to exhaust pressure  0.41 
(c) Inlet pressure to exhaust pressure  
[consider, Cp = 1.0 kJ/kg-K γ = 1.41, 5 1.41  =
(d) Pressure across the turbine
1.6]
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
(a) 256 kJ/kg (b) 205 kJ/kg
Ans. (b) : Pressure ratio in gas turbines is the ratio of (c) 120 kJ/kg (d) 168 kJ/kg
highest pressure to exhaust pressure. The pressure ratio SJVN ET 2019
of gas turbine ranges from 11 to 16.
Ans. (d) :
324. Reheating in gas turbine results in P1= 1 bar
(a) Increase in work ratio but decrease in thermal T1= 300 K
efficiency T3= 928 K
(b) Increase of thermal efficiency Cp = 1.0 kJ/kg-K
(c) Decrees of work γ = 1.41
(d) Decrease of thermal efficiency
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (a) : Reheating in gas-turbine results in increase in
work ratio and decreases in thermal efficiency. A
reheater is generally a combustor which reheat the flow
between the high and low pressure turbine.
325. In gas turbine, the maximum temperature is
(a) 200 ºC (b) 500 ºC
(c) 700 ºC (d) 1000 ºC
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 1
η = 1− γ −1
Ans. (d) : Maximum temperature in a gas turbine is of
the order of 1000ºC. (r )
p
γ

326. An isentropic air-turbine is used to supply 0.1 Net work output

=
kg/s of air at 0.1 MN/m2 and 285 K to a cabin. Heat supplied
The pressure at inlet to the turbine is 0.4 T2 γ−1
MN/m2. What will be the power developed by = ( rP ) γ
the turbine? [Consider CP = 1 kJ/kg-K. γ = T
 0.41  T2 = 300 × 1.6 = 480 K
 
1.41, 4 1.41  = 1.5] 1 Net work output
η = 1− =
(a) 14.25 kW (b) 10.25 kW γ−1
c p ( T3 − T2 )
(c) 6.75 kW (d) 8.25 kW ( P)
r γ
SJVN ET 2019 1 Net work output
1− =
Ans. (a) : Given, 1.6 1× ( 928 − 480 )
P1 = 0.4×106 N/m2 Net work output = 168 kJ/kg
P2 = 0.1×106 N/m2
99
328. For air standard Brayton cycle, increase in the (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
maximum temperature of the cycle, while (e) 2, 4 and 5
keeping the pressure ratio the same would CGPSC AE 2014 -II
result in Ans. (e) :1. Steam turbine plants are heavier and larger
(a) Increase in air standard efficiency in size than gas turbine plants.
(b) Decrease in air standard efficiency 2. The speed of rotation of the moving elements of gas
(c) No change in air standard efficiency turbines is much higher than those of steam turbines.
(d) Increase in the efficiency but reduction in net 3. Gas turbine not required 'Cooling tower' for its
work operations.
(e) Increase in the net work but reduction in 4. Almost any kind of fuel can be used with gas turbine.
efficiency 5. Gas turbine plants are generally used for meeting
CGPSC AE 2014 -II peak power load.
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 331. Back work ratio of gas turbine plant is:
1 Turbine work Turbine work
Ans. (c) : ηB= 1 − γ−1 (a) (b)
( rp ) γ Compressor work
Compressor work
Heat input
Compressor work
For air slandered Brayton cycle, air standard efficiency (c) (d)
is the function of pressure ration. Heat input Turbine work
So increase in the maximum temperature of the cycle, Turbine work - Compressor work
while keeping the same, no change in air standard (e)
Turbine work
efficiency.
CGPSC AE 2014- II
Ans. (d) : Back work ratio- It is defined as the ratio of
negative work to positive work.
Compressor work
rBW =
Turbine work
332. In a gas turbine plant, compressor power,
turbine power and heat input are respectively
given as 300 kJ/kg, 500 kJ/kg and 700 kJ/kg.
The thermal efficiency and back work ratio of
329. The output in a gas turbine cycle is 800kJ/kg. the plant will be:
The compressor work is 500kJ/kg whereas heat (a) 71.4%; 0.4 (b) 42.8%; 0.6
supplied is 1500kJ/kg. The thermal efficiency (c) 71.4%; 0.6 (d) 28.6%; 0.4
of the cycle is (e) 28.6%; 0.6
(a) 10% (b) 20% CGPSC AE 2014- II
(c) 40% (d) 60% Ans. (e) : Data given-
(e) 80% Wcomp. = 300 kJ/kg, WT = 500 kJ/kg, Qs = 700
CGPSC AE 2014 -II kJ/kg
Ans. (b) : Data given as, WT − Wcomp 500 − 300 200
WT = 800 kJ/kg , Wc = 500 kJ/kg then, η = = =
QS 700 700
Qs = 1500 kJ/kg
η = 0.286 = 28.6%
Wnet 800 − 500 300
η= = × 100 = × 100 WComp 300
Qsupplied 1500 1500 work ratio = = = 0.6
WT 500
η = 20%
333. In Bryton cycle, heat addition is a _____.
330. Consider the following statements: (a) Constant enthalpy process
1. Gas turbine plants are heavier and larger (b) Constant entropy process
in size than team turbine plants. (c) Constant volume process
2. The speed of rotation of the moving
(d) Constant pressure process
elements of gas turbines is much higher
CIL MT 2017 2017
than those of steam turbines.
3. Gas turbines require 'cooling water' for its Ans. (d) : Brayton cycle is a theoretical cycle for gas
operations. turbines. This cycle consists of two reversible adiabatic
4. Almost any king of fuel can be used with ga or isentropic processes and two constant pressure
turbine. processes. The heat addition and rejection takes place at
5. Gas turbine plants are generally used for constant pressure.
meeting peak power load. 334. Gas turbine cycle with regeneration refers to:
Of these, which are correct (a) Preheating of the air leaving the compressor
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 with the help of turbine exhaust gases
100
 (b) Precooling of the air leaving the compressor
with the help of cold water
(c) Heating the exhaust gases between two
turbines
(d) Intercooling the air between two compressors
(e) Cooling of the exhaust gases between two
turbines
CGPSC AE 2014- II
Ans. (a) : Gas turbine cycle with regeneration refers to
preheating of the air leaving the compressor with the
help of turbine exhaust gases.
335. Consider the following statements with
reference to gas turbine cycle:
1. Regeneration increases thermal efficiency
2. Reheating decreases thermal efficiency
3. Cycle efficiency increases when the
maximum temperature of the cycle is
increased
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
UPSC JWM 2017
Ans. (a) : Gas turbine cycle or Brayton cycle-
T
Thermal efficiency η th = 1 − 4
T3
If maximum temperature (T3) increase, it will
increase the cycle efficiency.
Ans. (a) : Work ratio is the ratio of network to turbine
work
W turbine − Wcompressor
Wr =
W turbine
Wcompressor
Wr = 1 −
W turbine
Wr =1 – Wbr
where Wbr → back work ratio
337. In a gas turbine power plant, reheating
between the high pressure and low pressure
turbine stages will
(a) improve turbine output
(b) decrease turbine output
(c) increase compressor work
(d) decrease compressor work
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (a) : In a gas turbine power plant, reheating
between the high pressure and low pressure turbine
stages will improve turbine output.

In reheating cycle-
Wc = constant
WT↑, QS↑, QR↑
338. A gas turbine cycle with regeneration and
reheating improves
(a) only thermal efficiency
(b) only specific power output
(c) both efficiency and power output
(d) Neither efficiency nor power output
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (c) : A gas turbine cycle with regeneration and
reheating improves both efficiency and power output.
339. The gas in cooling chamber of a closed cycle
gas turbine is cooled at
(a) Constant volume
(b) Constant temperature
Regeneration of Brayton cycle- Thermal (c) Constant pressure
(d) None of these
 T − T1 
efficiency η Reg. = 1 −  b  Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
 T3 − Ta  Ans. (c) :
Due to regeneration, external heat supplied per
kg of working fluid shell decrease which increase the
thermal efficiency.
336. Work ratio is the ratio of
(a) network/turbine work
(b) turbine work/ compressor work
(c) network / compressor
(d) compressor work/ network
TNPSC AE 2018 This cycle is known as Joule's cycle or Brayton cycle
101
340. Mechanical Efficiency of a gas turbine as 344. Reheating in a gas turbine
compared to internal combustion engine is (a) increases thermal efficiency
(a) higher (b) lower (b) increases compressor work
(c) same (d) unpredictable (c) increases turbine work
TNPSC 2019 (d) decreases thermal efficiency
Ans. (a) : The mechanical efficiency of a gas turbine JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
(95%) is quite high as compared with I.C. engine (85%) Ans. (c) : The reheat gas turbine cycle, turbine work
since I.C. engine has large number of sliding parts. increases, compressor work is constant and heat supply
The thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine is low increases.
(15 to 20%) as compared with I.C. engine (25 to 30%). 345. The compressor mostly used for supercharging
341. An open cycle gas turbine works on of IC engine is a/an
(a) Carnot cycle (b) Otto cycle (a) radial-flow compressor
(c) Joule's cycle (d) Stirling cycle (b) axial-flow compressor
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 (c) roots blower
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II (d) reciprocating compressor
Ans. (c) : An open cycle gas turbine works on Joule's JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
cycle. Ans. (a) : radial-flow compressor
It consists of two constant pressure and two 346. Gas turbine blades are given a rake
isentropic processes. (a) equal to zero
342. For the same compression ratio, the efficiency (b) in the direction of motion of blades
of the brayton cycle is– (c) opposite to the direction of motion of blades
(a) equal to diesel cycle (d) depending on the velocity
(b) equal to Otto cycle BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
(c) equal to dual cycle Ans : (b) : Gas turbine blades are given a rake in the
(d) greater than diesel cycle direction of motion of blades.
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016 347. The blades of gas turbine are made of
Ans : (b) For the same compression ratio the efficiency (a) mild steel
of Brayton cycle is equal to that of otto cycle. (b) stainless steel
1 (c) carbon steel
Otto cycle efficiency (ηotto ) = 1 − γ−1 (d) high-nickle alloy (neimonic)
rC
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
1 Ans : (d) : Turbine blades are made of nickel or
Brayton cycle efficiency (ηB ) = 1 − γ−1
γ rhenium alloys capable of withstanding high heat
rP without distortion.
rC = Compression ratio 348. Inter-cooling results in
rP = Pressure ratio (a) improved work ratio
γ = Adiabatic index (b) lower work ratio
(c) unaffected work ratio
343. A gas turbine plant working on Joule cycle (d) improved work ratio initially which is
produces 4000 kW of power. If its work ratio is lowered subsequently
40%, what is the power consumed by the BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
compressor? Ans : (a) : Inter cooling in gas turbine results in
(a) 2000 kW (b) 4000 kW
increase in net work output but decrease in thermal
(c) 6000 kW (d) 8000 kW
efficiency.
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
349. Reheating in a gas turbine results in
Ans. (c) : Net power generation
(a) increase in work ratio
WNet = 4000 kW
(b) decreases in work ratio
∵ Work ratio (rw) = 0.4 (c) increase in thermal efficiency
w − wc (d) increase in work ratio but decrease in thermal
∴ rw = T
wT efficiency
4000 BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
0.4 = Ans : (d) : Reheating increase the turbine output and
wT
hence, work ratio increases but decrease in thermal
4000 efficiency.
wT =
0.4 350. The work ratio in a simple gas turbine plant in
= 10000 kW terms of pressure ratio rp is
∴ wT – wc = wNet = 4000 T
γ −1
T
γ −1

wc = wT – wNet = 10000 – 4000 (a) 1 − 3 (rP ) γ (b) 1 − 1 ( rP ) γ

wc = 6000 kW T1 T3

102
 γ
T1 T
1
(ii) Higher rotor speeds
(c) 1 − ( rP ) γ −1 (d) 1 − 1 (rP ) γ (iii) Low efficiencies at part loads
T3 T3 (iv) The efficiencies depends on the ambient
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V condition (Pa and Ta).
W (v) Compressor work required is quite large, which
Ans : (b) : Work ratio = Net tells upon the efficiency of the plant.
WT
356. Statement I: The air-standard efficiency of
γ−1
T Brayton cycle depends only on the pressure ratio.
= 1 − 1 ( rP ) γ Statement II: For the same compression ratio, the
T3
air-standard efficiency of Brayton cycle is equal to
351. For the gas turbine system, the work ratio is that of Otto cycle.
defined as the ratio of ESE 2018
(a) actual heat drop and isentropic heat drop in a Ans. (b) : Air standard efficiency of Brayton cycle
turbine depends only on pressure ratio.
(b) compressor work and turbine work γ−1
(c) network output and turbine work 1
η =1−  
(d) network output and compressor work  rc 
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 In theoretical point of view both will have same
Ans : (c) : For the gas turbine, the work ratio is, efficiency only when the compression ratio is equal to
WNet pressure ratio.
Work ratio =
WT 357. An ideal closed-cycle gas turbine plant is
working between the temperatures 927°C and
WT − WC 27°C using air as working fluid. The pressure
Work ratio =
WT ratio for maximum output is
(a) 11.3 (b) 13.3
352. Inter-cooling in gas turbines: (c) 15.3 (d) 17.3
(a) Decreases net output but increases thermal ESE 2018
efficiency Ans. (a) : For maximum output, pressure ratio
(b) Increases net output and thermal efficiency γ
both  Tmax  2( γ−1)
(c) Increases net output but decreases thermal rp =  
efficiency  Tmin 
1.4
(d) Decreases net output and thermal efficiency
 1200  2(1.4−1)
both =  = 11.3
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II  300 
Ans : (c) : Inter-cooling in gas turbines increases net 358. Statement I: The air-fuel ratio employed in a gas
output but decreases thermal efficiency. turbine is around 60:1.
Statement II: A lean mixture of 60:1 in a gas
353. Which type of power plant is Peak land type? turbine is mainly used for complete combustion.
(a) Nuclear (b) Thermal
ESE 2018
(c) Hydraulic (d) Gas
Ans. (c) : Air fuel ratio used in gas turbines vary from
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
50 : 1 to 120 : 1.
Ans : (d) : Gas turbine power plants are best suited for Very lean mixtures are used in gas turbine to reduce the
peak load power plant operations. peak temperature of the cycle.
354. High air-fuel ratio in gas turbines is used to: Hence statement-II is wrong.
(a) Reduces exhaust temperature 359. Consider the following statements in respect of
(b) Improves thermal efficiency ideal and practical gas turbine cycles:
(c) Avoid damage of turbine blades 1. In the ideal cycle case, the cycle efficiency
(d) Increases power output depends on the pressure ratio only.
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II 2. In the practical cycle case (with irreversibilities
Ans : (a) : High air-fuel ratio in gas turbines is used to in the compression and expansion processes),
reduces exhaust temperature. the cycle efficiency depends on the maximum
355. The following is (are) the limitation(s) of gas temperature as well as on the pressure ratio.
turbines: 3. In the practical cycle case, at a given maximum
(a) They are not self starting temperature, the maximum efficiency and the
(b) Higher rotor speeds maximum work done occur at a same pressure
(c) Low efficiencies at part loads ratio.
(d) All of these Which of the above statements are correct?
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Ans : (d) : Limitations of gas turbines are as follows- (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(i) They are not self starting ESE 2017
103
Ans. (a) : (i) The efficiency of ideal gas turbine cycle 363. Gas turbine works on
depends on the pressure ratio. KPSC AE 2015
1 (a) Brayton cycle (b) Rankine cycle
η = 1 − γ−1 (c) Carnot cycle (d) None of these
r UJVNL AE 2016
(ii) The efficiency of turbine and compression came in
Ans : (a) Gas turbine works on Brayton cycle or Joule
picture due to irreversibility so final efficiency depend
cycle
not only pressure ratio but also maximum temperature. Brayton cycle:-
Therefore statement (1) and (2) are correct while
statement (3) is wrong because maximum efficiency
occurs at (rp)max and maximum work done occurs at
(rp)opt

Process:-
1-2:- Isentropic Compression
360. For the same efficiency of the Brayton cycle 2-3:- Heat addition at constant pressure
and the Carnot cycle working between 3-4:- Isentropic Expansion
temperature limits of Tmax and Tmin, the power 4-1:- Heat rejection at constant pressure
contribution of the Brayton cycle will be Thermal Efficiency:-
(a) zero (b) maximum 1
(c) minimum (d) 50% of the Carnot cycle ηth = 1 − γ−1
 
 
ESE 2017 rp  γ 
Ans. (a) : If efficiency is same then power contribution
of Brayton cycle will be zero. 364. Thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine for a
given turbine inlet temperature
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains the same
(KPSC AE 2015)
Ans : (d) Thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine
for a given turbine inlet temperature remains same,
at (rp)max thermal efficiency dipend upon pressure ratio.
ηbrayton = ηcarnot 1
Network is zero as turbine work = compressor work Efficiency of gas turbine(η) = 1 − γ−1
361. The mass flow rate of air compressed in axial ( )
rp γ
flow compressor is ________centrifugal rp = Pressure ratio, γ = cp/cv
compressor. 365. In a gas turbine cycle, the turbine output is 600
(a) Less than (b) Equal to
kJ/kg, the compressor work is 400 kJ/kg and
(c) Greater than (d) Unpredictable
APPSC AEE 2016 the heat supplied is 1000 kj/kg. The thermal
efficiency of the cycle is
Ans. (c) : The mass flow rate of air compressed in axial
(a) 60% (b) 40%
flow compressor are is greater than centrifugal
compressor. (c) 20% (d) 80%
(KPSC AE 2015)
362. Reheating in a gas turbine B.P.S.C Mains 2017 Paper-V
(a) increases the compressor work
Ans : (c)
(b) increases the turbine work
(c) decreases the thermal efficiency
(d) increases the thermal efficiency
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (d) : Reheating is applied in a gas turbine in such a
way that it increase the turbine work without increasing
the compressor work or melting the turbine materials.
When a high pressure and low pressure turbine a
reheater can be applied successfully. Reheating can
improve the efficiency upto 3%.
104
 Net work Thermal efficiency of gas turbine
Efficiency of gas turbine (ηg) =
Heat supplied 1
( ηth ) = 1 − ( γ−1) / γ
WT − Wc pr
ηg =
QA Pressure ratio (rp) = p2/p1
600 − 400 The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine with
ηg = = 0.20 regenerator is maximum when pressure ratio is equal
1000 to 1.0
Efficiency of gas turbine = 20% 369. Efficiency of a jet engine is higher at
366. In a two-stage gas turbine plant, reheating (a) lower altitude (b) higher altitude
after the first stage (c) low speed (d) high speed
(a) increases thermal efficiency RPSC AE 2016
(b) decreases thermal efficiency Ans : (b) Efficiency of a jet engine is higher at higher
(c) does not affect thermal efficiency altitude.
(d) None of the above
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 370. In a gas turbine plant, a regenerator increases
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (b) In a two stage gas turbine plant reheating
(a) work output (b) pressure ratio
after the first stage decrease thermal efficiency.
(c) thermal efficiency (d) all of the above
Ans : (c) Effect of Modification on Performance of
Simple Gas Turbine Cycle:-
Optimum Work Thermal
modification to cycle output Efficiency
Regeneration No Increases
effect
Intercooling Increases Decreases
Reheat Increases Decreases
Gas turbine with reheating Reheat + Increases Increases
In this arrangement, the air is first compressed in the Regeneration
compressor passed into the heating chamber, and then Intercooling + Increases Increases
to the first turbine. The air is once again passed on to Regeneration
another heating chamber and then to the second
turbine. Reheat + Intercooling Increases Decreases
367. For a jet propulsion unit ideally the Reheat + Intercooling Increases Increases
compressor work and turbine work are + Regeneration
(a) unequal 371. Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine plant as
(b) equal compared to diesel engine plant is
(c) not related to each other (a) higher (b) lower
(d) None of the above (c) same (d) un-predictable
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (b) For a jet propulsion unit ideally the Ans : (a) Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine plant as
compressor work and turbine work are equally. compared to diesel engine plant is higher.
Jet Propulsion : - Gas turbine I.C. engine
The propulsive work needed for the propulsion of (i) The installation and The installation and
aircraft, missiles and spaceships is generally achieved running cost is less running cost is more
by (ii) Its efficiency is higher Its efficiency is less
(i) Using an engine or a gas turbine to drive the air
(iii) The balancing of a The balancing of an I.C
screw or the propeller.
gas turbine is perfect engine is not perfect.
(ii) Expending high temperature and high pressure
gases that are discharged in the rearward (iv) No flywheel is flywheel is necessary.
direction as high velocity jet (jet propulsion) required
368. The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine with 372. In a two stage gas turbine plant, reheating after
regenerator is maximum when pressure ratio is : first stage
(a) less than 1.3 (b) more than 1.0 (a) decrease thermal efficiency
(c) equal to 1.0 (d) zero (b) increases thermal efficiency
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 (c) does not affect thermal efficiency
Ans : (c) The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine with (d) none of the above
regenerator no effect on the work output but thermal RPSC AE 2016
efficiency increase.
105
 Ans : (a) In a two stage gas turbine plant, reheating Pressure ratio ( rp ) = P2 / P1
after first stage decrease thermal efficiency.

* Optimum pressure ratio for maximum specific output

in simple gas turbine.
γ
 T  2( γ −1)
(rp)optimum=  max 
373. Gas turbine as compared to an internal  Tmin 
combustion engine 376. Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine cycle with
(a) torque produced is uniform ideal regenerative heat exchanger is
(b) can be driven at high speed (a) Equal to work ratio
(c) has more efficiency
(b) Less than work ratio
(d) All the above
(c) More than work ratio
TSPSC AEE 2015
(d) Unpredictable
Ans : (d) Gas turbine as compared to an internal
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
combustion engine
(i) Torque produced is uniform Ans : (b) Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine cycle
(ii) Can be driven at high speed with ideal regenerative heat exchanger is less than work
(iii) has more efficiency ratio.
374. A closed cycle gas turbine works on 377. The efficiency of a simple gas turbine can be
(a) Carnot cycle (b) Rankine cycle improved by using a regenerator, because the:
(c) Ericsson cycle (d) Joule cycle (a) Work of compression is reduced
TSPSC AEE 2015 (b) Heat required to be supplied is reduced
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II (c) Work out put of the turbine is increase
Ans : (d) Joule cycle:- A close cycle gas turbine (d) Heat rejected is increased
works on joule or Brayton cycle. MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (b) The efficiency of simple gas turbine can be
improved by using a regenerator, because the heat
required to be supplied is reduced.
378. If the temperature at the turbine inlet is kept
constant, the net output of a simple gas turbine
plant would
(a) Increase with increasing pressure ratio
(b) Decrease with increasing pressure ratio
(c) First increase and then decrease with
increasing pressure ratio
(d) remains unaffected with changes in pressure
ratio
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
Ans : (a) If the temperature at the turbine inlet is kept
constant, the net output of a simple gas turbine plant
would Increase with increasing pressure ratio.
375. The ideal efficiency of simple gas turbine cycle 379. Air enters the compressor of a gas turbine
depends upon plant operating on Brayton cycle at 1 bar and
(a) Pressure ratio (b) Cut-off ratio 27°C. The pressure ratio in the cycle is 6. If the
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above relation between the turbine work WT and
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II compressor work WC is WT = 3WC and γ = 1.4,
Ans : (a) Thermal efficiency at gas turbine:- the cycle efficiency will be nearly
1 (a) 40% (b) 50%
ηth = 1 − ( γ−1) / γ (c) 60% (d) 70%
rp
ESE 2020
106
Ans. (a) : Given, P1= 1 bar (a) More than Carnot cycle
T1= 270C = 300 K (b) Equal to Carnot cycle
γ−1 (c) Less than Carnot cycle
1  γ (d) Depends upon other factor also
ηB = 1 −   UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
 rp 
  Ans. (b) :
0.4
387. A gas turbine plant operates between 27°C,
 1  1.4 minimum temperature and 927°C maximum
= 1 −   = 0.4 = 40%
6 temperature. Calculate the cycle efficiency:-
380. For the same compression ratio, the Brayton (a) 25% (b) 50%
cycle efficiency is (c) 75% (d) None of the above
(a) Same as the Diesel cycle efficiency UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
(b) Equal to the Otto cycle efficiency Ans. (b) :
(c) More than the Diesel cycle efficiency 388. The effect of regeneration on efficiency and
(d) Less than the Otto cycle efficiency work output of Brayton cycle is that its:-
ESE 2020 (a) Efficiency decreases but work output
Ans. (b) : Equal to the Otto cycle efficiency increases
381. The ideal thermodynamic cycle for the (b) Efficiency as well as work output increases
development of gas-turbine engine is (c) Efficiency increases but work output remains
(a) Otto (b) Stirling same
(c) Ericsson (d) Brayton (d) Efficiency remains same but work output
ESE 2020 increases
Ans. (d) : The Joule or Brayton cycle is the most UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
idealized cycle for the simple gas turbine engine. Ans. (c) : The effect of regeneration on efficiency and
382. The air-fuel ratio for a gas turbine is generally work output of Brayton cycle is that its efficiency
kept closer to increases but work output remains same.
(a) 20 : 1 (b) 30 : 1 389. Which cycle consists of three processes?
(c) 40 : 1 (d) 60 : 1 (a) Ericsson cycle (b) Stirling cycle
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V (c) Atkinson cycle (d) Lenoir cycle
Ans : (d) : 60 : 1 UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
383. Which of the following changes in maximum T1 Ans. (d) : The Lenoir cycle is an idealized
and minimum T2 temperature leads to thermodynamic cycle often used to model a pulse jet
maximum improvement in the efficiency of an engine.
ideal turbine?
(a) T1 + ∆T
(b) T2 + ∆T
(c) T2 + ∆T and T1 – ∆T
(d) T1 + ∆T and T2 – ∆T
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (c) : T2 + ∆T and T1 – ∆T
384. Which of the following statements is not true
for gas turbines ?
(a) Low full load thermal efficiency
(b) Costly machines
(c) Self starting unit
(d) Slow in its response to acceleration
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (c) : Self starting unit
385. Work ratio is a guide in the determination of
(a) the size of the gas turbine
(b) overall efficiency of the turbine
(c) mechanical efficiency of the turbine 390. Thermal efficiency of closed cycle gas turbine
(d) compressor efficiency plant is increased by the following:-
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (a) Reheating (b) Intercooling
Ans. (a) : the size of the gas turbine (c) Regenerator (d) None of the above
386. An engine working on stirling cycle between UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
the same temperature limits as that of Carnot Ans. (c) : Thermal efficiency of closed cycle gas
cycle, has air standard efficiency:- turbine plant is increased by the regenerator.
107
391. Constant volume gas turbine works on:- 397. Which of the following does not use ambient
(a) Joule cycle (b) Carnot cycle air for propulsion?
(c) Otto cycle (d) Atkinson cycle (a) Turbo jet (b) Pulse jet
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II (c) Turbo-prop (d) Rocket
Ans. (d) : Constant volume gas turbine works on UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
atkinson cycle. Ans : (d) Rocket does not use ambient air for
392. The thermal efficiency of an open cycle gas propulsion
turbine increases with the:- Rocket engine :- In a rocket propulsion system, the
(a) Increase in inlet temperature of atmospheric entire mass of the fuel and oxidizing agent is carried by
air the rocket body itself. As such, the rocket does not
depend on any surrounding air for burning the fuel.
(b) Decrease in inlet temperature of atmospheric
air 398. Which one of the following may be considered
(c) Remain same for all temperatures of inlet air as a single cylinder two stroke reciprocating
(d) None of the above engine running at 2400 rpm to 2700 rpm for
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II rapid chain of impulses?
(a) Turbo jet (b) Pulse jet
Ans. (b) : The thermal efficiency of an open cycle gas
(c) Ram jet (d) Athodyd jet
turbine increases with the decrease in inlet temperature
ESE 2020
of atmospheric air.
Ans. (b) : Pulse jet is intermittent flow engine similar to
393. Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine plant as a reciprocating engine and pulse jet operates similar to
compared to diesel engine plant is Otto cycle. Hence, it can be called as a reciprocating
(a) Higher engine.
(b) Lower 399. In jet propulsion of ships, when the inlet
(c) Same orifices are at right angles to the direction of
(d) May be higher or lower motion of the ships, the efficiency of propulsion
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II η is
Ans. (b) : Lower 2u 2 2Vu
394. Thermal efficiency of a closed cycle gas turbine (a) (b)
V+u (V + u)
2
plant increases by
(a) Reheating (b) Intercooling 2u 2Vu
(c) (d)
(c) Regenerator (d) All the above (V + u)
2
V + 2u
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
where :
Ans. (d) : All the above V = Absolute velocity of the issuing jet
395. Which one of the following turbines is used in u = Velocity of the moving ship
underwater power stations? ESE 2020
(a) Pelton turbine 2Vu
(b) Deriaz turbine Ans. (b) :
(V + u)
2
(c) Tubular turbine
(d) Turgo-impulse turbine 400. Which of the following are essential for a good
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II combustion chamber of turbojet engine?
Ans. (c) : Tubular turbine 1. It should allow complete combustion of fuel.
2. It should maintain sufficiently high
6. Jet Propulsion temperature in the zone of combustion in
addition to proper atomization of fuel thus
396. Propulsion efficiency of a jet engine is given by leading to continuous combustion.
(where u is flight velocity and v is jet velocity 3. It should not have high rate of combustion.
relative to aircraft) 4. The pressure drop should be as small as
2u v+u possible
(a) (b) (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
v−u 2u (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
2u v−u ESE 2020
(c) (d)
v+u 2u Ans. (a) : 1, 2 and 4 only
RPSC AE 2016 401. A jet engine works on the principle of
UJVNL AE 2016 conservation of
(a) energy (b) mass
2u
Ans : (c) Propulsive efficiency of jet engine = (c) angular momentum (d) linear momentum
v+u TNPSC 2019
u = flight velocity Ans. (d) : A jet engine works on the principle of
V = Jet velocity. conservation of linear momentum.
108
402. Air-fuel ratio in a jet engine will be of the order (c) Thrust coefficient
of (d) Weight flow coefficient
(a) 10 : 1 (b) 15 : 1 TNPSC AE 2014
(c) 20 : 1 (d) 60 : 1 Ans. (b) : The inverse of Specific Propellant
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 Consumption (SPC) of rocket engine is called specific
Ans. (d) : Air-fuel ratio in a jet engine, in the order of impulse. Specific impulse is a measure of haw
60:1 effectively a rocket uses propellant or a jet engine uses
403. Which of the following is recommended for fuel.
refrigeration of supersonic aircraft?
409. An aircraft moves through the atmosphere
(a) Reduced ambient system
with a velocity of 450 m/s. If the speed of sound
(b) Simple system
(c) Regenerative system in this medium is 300 m/s, the mach angle
(d) Bootstrap system would be
UPRVUNL AE 2016 (a) cos-1 (2/3) (b) sin-1 (2/3)
-1
Ans. (a) : Reduced ambient system is recommended for (c) tan (2/3) (d) cos-1 (3/2)
refrigeration of supersonic aircraft. TNPSC AE 2014
404. The velocity of air entering in a rocket is Ans. (b) : Definition of mach angle– Half of the vertex
(a) less compared to an aircraft angle of a mach cone whose sine is the ratio of the
(b) zero compared to an aircraft speed of sound to the speed of moving body.
(c) more compared to an aircraft
(d) same compared to an aircraft
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (b) : The velocity of air entering in a rocket is zero
compared to an aircraft.
405 . The thrust coefficient in rocket propulsion is
computed by using the following values
(a) Combustion pressure and throat area of
nozzle
(b) Combustion pressure and exhaust gas velocity
(c) Combustion pressure, thrust and nozzle throat
area
(d) Thrust, effective exhaust velocity and exit a
area of nozzle sin µ =
v
TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (c) : By using the values of combustion pressure, 1
sin µ =
thrust and nozzle throat area, the thrust coefficient in M
rocket propulsion is computed. 1
µ = sin −1
406. Fuel oxidizer combination for hybrid  450 
propellant rockets is  
 300 
(a) Liquid hydrogen – Liquid oxygen
(b) Lithium hydride (LiH) – chlorine trifluoride 2
µ = sin −1  
(ClF3) 3
(c) Hydrazine – Liquid Fluorine
(d) Alcohol - WFNA 410. The effective jet velocity from a rocket is
TNPSC AE 2014 4000m/s. The forward velocity is 1500m/s and
Ans. (b) : Fuel oxidizer combination for hybrid propellant consumption is 80kg/s. The
propellant rockets is Lithium hydride (LiH) – chlorine propulsive efficiency is.
trifluoride (ClF3). (a) 66% (b) 62%
407. An aircraft cannot be designed without the (c) 63% (d) 61%
part of (e) 68%
(a) Turbine (b) Compressor CGPSC AE 2014 -II
(c) Combustion chamber (d) Propeller Ans. (a) : Propulsive efficiency for Rocket engine -
TNPSC AE 2014 V  4000 
Ans. (c) : An aircraft cannot be designed without the 2× e 2× 
part of combustion chamber. Vf  1500  × 100
ηp = 2
= 2
408. The inverse of Specific Propellant V   4000 
1+  e  1+  
Consumption (SPC) of rocket engine is called  Vf   1500 
(a) Impulse to Weight Ratio (IWR)
ηp = 65.75% ≈ 66%
(b) Specific impulse
109
Propulsive efficiency for Jet Engine
7. Compressors
2 2
ηp = = × 100 414. Generally, which type of compressor is used in
 Ve   4000 
1+   1+   a gas turbine
 Vf   1500  (a) Reciprocating (b) Centrifugal
ηp = 54.55% (c) Axial flow (d) Lob type
411. Which one of the following is the correct HPPSC AE 2018
sequence of the position of the given Ans. (c) : Axial Flow Compressor–An axial
components in a turboprop? compressor that can continuously pressurize gases. It is
(a) Propeller, Compressor, Turbine, Burner a rotating, airfoil based compressor in which the gas or
(b) Compressor, Propeller, Burner, Turbine working fluid principally flows parallel to the axis of
(c) Propeller, Compressor, Burner, Turbine rotation, or axially. The energy level of the fluid
(d) Compressor, Propeller, Turbine, Burner increases as it flows through the compressor due to the
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 action of the rotor blades which exert a torque on the
Ans. (c) : fluid. The stationary blades slow the fluid, converting
the circumferential component of flow into pressure.
Axial flow compressor produce a continuous flow of
compressed gas, and the benefits of high efficiency and
large mass flow rate, particularly in relation to their size
and cross-section. Axial compressor are integral to the
design of large gas turbine such as Jet engines.
412. Consider the following statements regarding a 415. Stalling of blades in an axial flow compressor is
Ram Jet: the phenomenon of
1. The engine has neither a compressor nor a (a) airstream blocking the passage
turbine (b) motion of air at sonic velocity
2. It operates at much higher temperature than a
(c) unsteady, periodic and reversible flow
gas turbine
3. It cannot operate statically. It needs to be put (d) airstream not able to follow the blade contour
in flight by some means at sufficiently high BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
speed before it produces any thrust and Ans : (d) : Stalling is flow separation from blade
propels itself. contour profile. This happens when the flow velocity is
Which of the above statements are correct? low or any other reason due to which inlet blade angle
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only deviates from designed value. Under this condition air
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 stream is not able to follow blade contour. Unsteady
ESE 2018 periodic and flow reversal is surging not stalling.
Ans. (d) : (i) In Ramjet engine there is no. compressor
or turbine. The compression process is achieved by ram 416. In axial flow fans and turbines fluid enters and
effect and expansion occurs in nozzle. leaves as follows
(ii) In gas turbines the maximum temperature is limited (a) radially, axially
by the metallurgical limits of turbine blades. (b) axially, axially
(iii) Ramjet engine cannot generate thrust in static (c) axially, radially
conditions. It needs to be put in flight by some means at (d) combination of axial and radial
sufficiently high speed before it produces any thrust. TNPSC AE 2014
413. Air enters a turbojet engine at the rate of 40 Ans. (b) : An axial flow fans and turbines fluid enters
kg/s with a velocity of 250 m/s relative to an and leaves as axially and axially respectively.
aircraft which is moving at 300 km/hr. Exhaust
417. Which of the following is a "Dynamic
of the engine has a velocity of 700 m/s relative
to the moving aircraft. The thrust developed by compressor"?
the engine is (a) Centrifugal compressor
(a) 24 kN (b) 18 kN (b) Screw compressor
(c) 12 kN (d) 9 kN (c) Root blower
ESE 2018 (d) Reciprocating compressor
Ans. (b) : Given, (e) Vane type compressor
mɺ = 40 kg/s CGPSC AE 2014- II
Velocity of air entering relative to flight Ans. (a) : Screw compressor, Root blower compressor,
Vinlet = 250 m/s
reciprocating compressor and vane type compressor are
Velocity of exhaust gases relative to flight
Vexit = 700 m/s positive displacement compressor whereas centrifugal
Thrust (F) = m ɺ (Vexit − Vinlet) compressor, and axial flow compressor are "Dynamic
= 40 (700 − 250) = 18000 N = 18 kN compressor"
110
418. The isothermal efficiency of a reciprocating Ans. (a) : The maximum compression ratio in an actual
compressor is defined as single state axial flow compressor is of the order of
Actual workdone during compression 1:1.2
(a)
Isothermal workdone during compression 422. Loading coefficient of an axial flow compressor
for a given stage work is [where, u is the
Adiabatic workdone during compression peripheral, velocity of rotor]
(b)
Isothermal workdone during compresseion (a) inversely proportional to u
Isothermal workdone during compression (b) inversely proportional to u2
(c)
Actual workdone during compression (c) directly proportional to u2
(d) directly proportional to u
Isothermal workdone during compression SJVN ET 2019
(d)
Actual workdone during adiabatic compression Ans. (b) : The blade Loading coefficient (ψ) for an
TNPSC AE 2014 axial flow compressor can be defined as the ratio of
Ans. (d) : The isothermal efficiency of a reciprocessing work done to the square of peripheral velocity of rotor
compressor is defined as therefore,
Isothermal workdone during compression Work done
η iso = ψ=
Actual workdone during adiabatic compression Peripheral velocity of rotor
419. List - I W
ψ= 2
(a) β2 < 90o u
(b) β2 = 90o 423. The work input in reciprocating air
(c) β2 > 90o compressor for same inlet state and same exit
List - II pressure is minimum when:
(a) Compression follows Pv1.4 = Constant
(b) Compression follows Pv = Constant
(c) Compression follow Pv1.3 = Constant
(d) Compression follow Pv1.2 = Constant
SJVN ET 2019
Ans. (b) : The work input in reciprocating air
compressor for same inlet state and same exit pressure
is minimum when compression follow Pv = constant
424. In the axial flow compressor, the efficiency can
be maximized by
(a) Increasing the speed
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3 (b) A-1, B-3, C-2 (b) Decreasing the speed
(c) A-2, B-1, C-3 (d) A-3, B-2, C-1 (c) Maintaining the speed constant and moderate
TSPSC AEE 2015 (d) None of these
Ans. (a) HPPSC AE 2018
Curve Outlet vane angle (β2) Ans. (a) : In the axial flow compressor, the efficiency
1 β2 < 90o can be maximized by increasing the speed of rotor of
axial flow compressor.
2 β2 = 90o
3 β2 > 90o 425. If ε is the clearance ratio for a reciprocating
compressor, the volumetric efficiency will be
420. The static pressure rise in a centrifugal
equal to
compressor occurs in
(a) Impeller and diffuser  1
  1

(a) 1 − ε 1 + r n  (b) 1 + ε 1 − r n 
(b) Diffuser and volute    
(c) Impeller and volute
(d) Impeller, diffuser and volute  1  1

(c) 1 + ε  1 − 1  (d) 1 − ε 1 − r n 
TNPSC AE 2013    
Ans. (d) : The static pressure rise in a centrifugal  rn 
compressor occurs in impeller, diffuser and volute. HPPSC AE 2018
421. For actual single stage centrifugal compressor, Ans. (b) : We know that, volumetric efficiency of
the maximum power ratio is of the order of reciprocating compressor
1
(a) 1 : 1.2 (b) 1 : 2  PH  n
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 10 ηV = 1 + ε − ε  
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2  PL 
111
where Ans. (c) : given as,
PH η = 3 , P1= 1 bar , P6= 27 bar
= r = (Pressure ratio) For perfect intercooling
PL
3
 1
  P2   P6   27 
ηV =1 + ε 1 − r n    = = 
   P1   P1   1 
426. The work done factor for an axial compressor P2 = 3bar
varies from P4 P2
(a) 0.5 to 0.75 (b) 0.6 to 0.8 =
P3 P1
(c) 0.82 to 0.73 (d) 0.98 to 0.85
TNPSC AE 2013 P ×P P ×P
P4 = 2 3 = 2 2 (P2=P3)
Ans. (d) : The work done factor for an axial compressor P1 P1
varies from 0.98 to 0.85. P4=P5 = 3×3 = 9 bar
427. The separation of flow from the blade surface
(a) Surging (b) Priming
(c) Stalling (d) Governing
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (c) : Stalling– It is a situation of separation of air
flow at the aero-foil blades of the compressor. This
phenomenon depending upon the blade-profile leads to
reduced compression and drop in engine power. Flow
separation occur on the suction side of the blade. 430. For the same pressure ratio during
compression, compressing in two-stage
428. A blower handles 1 kg/s of air at 20ºC and compressor with perfect inter-cooling instead
consumes 10 kW of power. If the inlet and exit of a single-stage compressor is characterized
velocities are 100 m/s and 50 m/s respectively by:
and the specific heat is 1 kJ/kg K, the exit 1. Increase in volumetric efficiency
temperature is 2. Decrease in work input
(a) 299.25 K (b) 306.75 K 3. Decrease in discharge temperature
(c) 299.75 K (d) 279.25 K Which of the above statements are correct?
TNPSC AE 2013 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a) : Data given as— UPSC JWM 2017
m•
= 1 kg/s T1 = 20oC Ans. (d) : On comparing two compressor with perfect
Pi = 10 kW T2 = ? inter cooling instead of single stage, compressor with
V1 = 100 m/s perfect inter cooling at same pressure ratio found
following characteristics-
V2 = 50 m/s
• Increase in volumetric efficiency
c = 1 kJ/kgK • Decrease in work input
Power consumes by blower is used to change in • Decrease in discharge temperature.
kinetic energy and change in internal energy of the air. 431. Consider the following statements. The
1 • volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating
Pi = m•
c [ T2 − T1 ] + m  V22 − V12 
2  compressor depends on
(1) Clearance factor
1
10 × 10 3 = 1× 1000 × [ T2 − 20] + × 1× [50 2 − 100 2 ] (2) Pressure ratio
2 (3) Index of expansion
1 (4) Index of compression
10000 = 1000 × [ T2 − 20] + × 150 × 50 of these statements
2
o (a) (1) and (2) are correct
T2 = 26.25 C
(b) (1) and (3) are correct
T2 = 299.25 K (c) (1), (2) and (3) are correct
(d) (1), (2) and (4) are correct
429. A three stage compressor with perfect TSPSC AEE 2015
intercooling between stages, compresses air
Ans. (c) : The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating
from 1 bar to 27 bar. The optimum pressure in
compressor depends on clearance factor, pressure ratio
the last inter cooler will be and index of expansion.
(a) 1 bar (b) 3 bar 1
(c) 9 bar (d) 27 bar  PH  n
(e) √27 bar ηv = 1 + C − C  
CGPSC AE 2014 -II  PL 
112
432. Degree of reaction in an axial compressor is 436. Which of the following statement does not
defined as the ratio of enthalpy rise in the apply to the volumetric efficiency of a
(a) Rotor to the enthalpy rise in the stator reciprocating air compressor?
(b) Stator to enthalpy rise in rotor (a) It decrease with increase of inlet temperature
(c) Rotor to the enthalpy rise in the stage (b) It increase with decrease of pressure ratio
(d) Stator to the enthalpy rise in the stage (c) It increase of decrease in clearance ratio
TSPSC AEE 2015 (d) It decrease with increase in clearance to
Ans. (c) : Degree of reaction in an axial compressor is stroke ratio
defined as the ratio of enthalpy rise in the rotor to the RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
enthalpy rise in the stage. Ans. (b) : The variation of volumetric efficiency with
433. Match list 1 with list 2 and select the answer pressure ratio and clearance ratio is show in figure.
from the code given below:
List-I List-II
(Equipment in a (Purpose) C1 <C2<C3
refrigeration system)
A. Compressor i. Enthalpy remains
constant C1
B. Evaporator ii. Enthalpy C2
increases C3
C. Throttle valve iii. Enthalpy
increases but
1
pressure remains P  n

constant ηv = 1 + C − C  2 
D. Condenser iv. Enthalpy  P1 
decreases but   P  1n 
pressure remains = 1 + C 1 −  2  
constant   P1  
 
(a) A B C D ! At constant clearance 'C' and decreases in pressure
iii ii i iv ratio the volumetric efficiency increases.
(b) A B C D ! At constant pressure ratio as clearance 'C' reduces.
ii iii iv i The volumetric efficiency increases.
(c) A B C D ! Increases in delivery pressure means increases in
ii iii i iv pressure ratio i.e. decreases in volumetric
(d) A B C D efficiency.
iv ii iii i ! Inlet temperature does not affect volumetric
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016 efficiency.
Ans : (c) A B C D
439. Which is not true in case of Multi-stage
ii iii i iv compression ?
434. Roots blower is an example of (a) Improves overall volumetric efficiency
(a) Reciprocating (positive displacement) (b) Reduce total driving power
compressor (c) Requires a big flywheel
(b) Rotary (positive displacement) compressor (d) Reduces leakage losses
(c) Centrifugal compressor OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
(d) Axial compressor Ans. (c) :
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 ! In multistage compression due to low pressure ratio,
Ans. (b) : Except axial and centrifugal compressors, all the volumetric efficiency improves.
other giving compressors blower is radial positive ! Inter cooling between stages reduces work
displacement compressor. consumption. since compression is in multi stages,
435. The application of centrifugal compressor in the torque fluctuations will be small i.e. uniform
aircraft leads to torque.
(a) Large frontal area of aircraft 440. A single-stage reciprocating air compressor is
(b) Higher flow rate through the engine required to compress 1 kg of air from 1 bar to
(c) Higher aircraft speed 4 bar. The initial temperature is 27 ºC. The
(d) Lower frontal area of aircraft work developed during isentropic compression
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 is
Ans. (a) : Because of higher pressure ratio per stage of (a) 146.96 kJ (b) 146.04 kJ
centrifugal compressor, the size of impeller is high (c) 146.63 kJ (d) 146.89 kJ
which leads to increase in frontal area of turbine. JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
113
Ans. (c) : Ans. (a) : Given,
γ −1
 
n P  γ
w= mRT1  2  − 1
n −1  P 
 1  
 0.4

1.4   4  1.4 
= × 1× 0.287 × 300   − 1
0.4  1  
 
P2
= 146.45 kJ =5
P1
≈ 146.63 kJ mɺ = 30 kg/s
441. What is the minimum work required to T1 = 15 + 273 = 288 k
P1 = 1 bar
compress 1 kg of air from 1 bar, 27 ºC to 16
η = 0.85
bar in two stages, if the law of compression is γ−1
pv1.25 =constant and the inter-cooling is T2  P2  γ
=
perfect? T1  P1 
[Take : R = 287 J/kg-K] 0.4
(a) 275.09 kN-m (b) 175.09 kN-m T2
= (5) 1.4
(c) 375.09 kN-m (d) 475.09 kN-m 288
T2 = 456.14 k
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : Given, Ideal work ( W ɺ ) = Cp(T2 − T1)
c

P1 = 1 bar = 1.005 (456.14 − 288)

P3 = 16 bar = 168.98 kJ/kg
Wɺ Ideal work
m = 1 kg ηc = ɺ c =
n = 1.25 Wa Actual work
P2 = P1.P3
W ɺ = Wc = 168.98 = 198.8 kJ/kg
a
ηc 0.85
P2 = 16 × 1
Actual power for compressor
= 4 bar Wa = m ɺ = 30 × 198.8 = 5964.02 kW
ɺ aW a
 n −1
 443. In centrifugal compressors, there exists a loss
n  P2  − 1
n
W= PV   of energy due to the mismatch of direction of
n −1
1 1
 P1   relative velocity of fluid at inlet with inlet blade
  angle. This loss is known as
 n −1
 (a) frictional loss (b) incidence loss
n   P2  n  (c) clearance loss (d) leakage loss
= mRT1   − 1 ESE 2019
n −1   P1  
  Ans. (b) : Additional losses that occur in a row of
blades in a centrifugal compressor stage on account of
 1.25 −1
 incidence (mismatch of direction of relative velocity of
1.25  
4 1.25
= × 1× 0.287 × 300   − 1 fluid of inlet with inlet blade angle) termed as incidence
1.25 − 1  1  
  losses. It is conventionally known as shock losses.
= 137.54 kN − m 444. A compressor delivers 4 m3 of air having a
mass of 5 kg. The specific weight and specific
WTotal = 2 × W volume of air being delivered will be nearly
= 137.54 × 2 (a) 12.3 N/m3 and 0.8 m3/kg
(b) 14.6 N/m3 and 0.4 m3/kg
= 275.09 kN − m (c) 12.3 N/m3 and 0.4 m3/kg
442. A centrifugal compressor develops a pressure (d) 14.6 N/m3 and 0.8 m3/kg
ratio of 5 and air consumption of 30 kg/s. The ESE 2019
inlet temperature and pressure are 15°C and 1 Ans. (a) : Given,
bar respectively. For an isentropic efficiency of V = 4 m3, m = 5 kg
0.85, the power required by the compressor (i) Specific volume (v) = = 4 = 0.8 m3/kg V
will be nearly m 5
(a) 5964 kW (b) 5778 kW (ii) Specific weight (w) = ρg
(c) 5586 kW (d) 5397 kW 1 9.81
= g= = 12.26 N/m3
ESE 2019 v 0.8
114
445. An air compressor compresses atmospheric air Ans. (c) : In air blast injection, a separate air
at 0.1 MPa and 27°C by 10 times of air inlet compressor issued to inject the fuel into the cylinder to
pressure. During compression, the heat lost to increase the pressure of air to 6 MPa.
the surrounding is estimated to be 5% of Solid injection system does not requires a separate
compression work. Air enters the compressor compressor hence its weight is less.
with a velocity of 40 m/s and leaves with 100
449. Air is drawn in a compressor at the rate of 0.8
m/s. The inlet and exit cross sectional areas are
100 cm2 and 20cm2 respectively. The kg/s at a pressure of 1 bar and temperature of
temperature of air at the exit from the 20 °C, and is delivered at a pressure of 10 bar
compressor will be and temperature of 90 °C. This air delivery is
(a) 1498 K (b) 1574 K through an exit valve of area 2 × 10–3 m2. If R is
(c) 1654 K (d) 1726 K 287kJ/kg-K, the exit velocity of the air is
ESE 2019 (a) 41.7 m/s (b) 35.8 m/s
Ans. (a) : Given, (c) 29.7 m/s (d) 27.3 m/s
P1 = 0.1 MPa P2 = 10P1 = 1 MPa ESE 2018
T1 = 300 k Q2 = 5% Wc Ans. (a) : m ɺ 1 = 0.8 kg/s
V1 = 40 m/s A1 = 100 cm2 p1 = 100 kPa
V2 = 100 m/s A2 = 20 cm2 ɺ RT 0.8 × 0.287 × 293
m
By continuity equation vɺ 1 = 1 1 =
ρ1A1V1 = ρ2A2V2 p1 100
3
P1 P = 0.6727 m /s
⋅ A1 ⋅ V1 = 2 ⋅ A 2 ⋅ V2 mɺ RT
RT1 RT2 vɺ 2 = 1 2 =
0.1 1 p2
× 100 × 40 = × 20 × 100
300 T2 0.8 × 0.287 × 363
= 0.0833 m3/s
T2 = 1500 K 1000
446. Which one of the following compressors will be vɺ 2 = A2v2
used in vapour compression refrigerator for vɺ 0.0833
plants up to 100 tonnes capacity? v2 = 2 = = 41.67 m/s
A 2 2 × 10−3
(a) Reciprocating compressor
(b) Rotary compressor 450. Consider the following statements in respect of
(c) Centrifugal compressor maximum efficiency of a two-stage
(d) Double-acting compressor reciprocating compressor:
ESE 2019 1. The pressure ratios are same for each stage.
Ans. (a) : Reciprocating compressors are employed in 2. The work done is same in each stage.
plants with capacity up to 100 tonnes. 3. The inter cooling is perfect.
For plants with higher capacities, centrifugal Which of the above statements are correct?
compressors are used. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
447. The clearance volume in reciprocating air (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
compressor is provided ESE 2017
(a) to reduce the work done per kg of air Ans. (d) : For ideal two stages reciprocating air
delivered compressor the pressure ratio is same in all stages. The
(b) to increase the volumetric efficiency of the work done is same in all stages and for ideal situation
compressor inter cooling is perfect.
(c) to accommodate the valves in the head of the
compressor 451. Consider the following statements for single-
(d) to create turbulence in the air to be delivered stage reciprocating compressors:
ESE 2018 1. Isothermal process is the most desirable process
Ans. (c) : The clearance volume in reciprocating air for compression.
compressor is provided to accommodate the valves in 2. The size of clearance volume provided in the
the head of the compressor. compressor has no effect on work done per kg
448. Statement I: In air-blast injection, a separate of air delivered.
compressor is used to create an air blast at a 3. The Volumetric efficiency of the compressor
pressure of 6 MPa. decreases with increasing pressure.
Statement II: The solid injection system is Which of the above statements are correct?
heavier as it needs increasing the fuel pressure to (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
30 MPa. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE 2018 ESE 2017
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Ans. (d) : Ans. (b) : The volumetric efficiency of a compressor
1
P n
ηv = 1 + K − K  2  ( K = clearance valume )
 P1 
Note- Option (a) is given by APPSC
454. A large clearance volume in a reciprocating
compressor results in
(a) lower suction pressure
In this above fig. show that volumetric efficiency (b) increased volume flow rate
decreasing with increase in pressure. (c) reduced volume flow rate
Since the area onto y-axis i.e. ∫Vdp being minimum (d) lower delivery pressure
W.D. (KPSC AE 2015)
most for isothermal compression is least. Ans : (d) A large clearance volume in a reciprocating
Cycle
compressor result in lower delivery pressure.
 n −1

Work done n P  n 455. Dry compression is preferred due to:
= P1 ( V1 − V4 )  2  − 1
Cycle n −1  P1   (a) High volumetric efficiency
(b) High mechanical efficiency
So work done is independent of clearance volume.
Volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating compressor is (c) Less chance of damage of the compressor
1/ n (d) All of the above
P 
ηV = 1 + C − C  2  OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
 P1  Ans : (c) Dry compression is preferred due to less
V chance of damage of the compressor.
C = C = Clearance ratio
VS 456. The performance of a reciprocating
P2 = Delivery pressure compressor is expressed by
P1 = Inlet pressure isothermal work adiabatic work
(a) (b)
As P2 increases, ηvol decreases. indicated work indicated work
452. Consider the following statements: isothermal work adiabatic work
The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating (c) (d)
adiabatic work frictionless work
compressor can be improved by
1. decreasing the clearance volume BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
2. cooling the intake air Ans : (a) Isothermal efficiency. OR Compressor
3. heating the intake air Isothermal work done
Which of the above statements is / are correct? efficiency =
Indicated work done
(a) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3 457. The work done in compressing 1 kg of air in
ESE 2017 compression will be least when the value of
Ans. (c) : The volumetric efficiency of reciprocating index is
compressor, (a) 1 (b) 1.1
P 
1/ n (c) 1.2 (d) 1.41
ηv = 1 + C − C  2  BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
 P1 
Ans : (a) The work done on the air is minimum when
P2 the compression is Isothermal (when n=1) and it is
Since pressure ratio > 1 so, by decreasing the
P1 maximum when the Compression is isentropic (when
clearance volume, volumetric efficiency get increased. n= γ ) because isothermal line has less slope then
Since volumetric efficiency is a geometrical parameter isentropic line
involving expansion exponent 'n' of gas. The value of n
is higher at low temperature, so by cooling the intake air  dP  P
  = − 
volumetric efficiency may increase slightly.  dV T =C V
453. The volumetric efficiency of a compressor can  dP  P
= −γ  
be given by the equation in terms of clearance  dV Adiabatic V
ratio K, pressure ratio p2/p1 is We seen that area under adiabatic curve in P-V
(a) 1 – K + K(p2/p1)(1/n) (b) 1 + K – K(p2/p1)(1/n)
diagram is more as compared with isothermal curve in
(c) 1 – K – K(p2/p1)(1/n) (d) 1 + K + K(p2/p1)(1/n)
P-V diagram.
APPSC AEE 2016
116
 Ans : (b) The main reason for adopting the axial flow
Compressor instead of Centrifugal Compressor in
aircraft turbine is that the frontal area of axial flow
compressor is considerably less.
461. The work done in compressing a gas
isothermally is given by:
MPPSC AE 2016
(UJVNL AE 2016)
process (o-a) → Isothermal process → n = 1  
γ−1
P
 γ
process (o-b) → Polytropic process → n = 1.3 (a) γ P1 V1  P2  − 1 (b) mRT1 log e 2
γ −1  P  P1
process (o-c) → Adiabatic process → n = 1.4  1  
458. Multistage compression leads to:
 T 
(a) decreased vol. efficiency for a given pressure (c) mCp ( T2 − T1 ) (d) mRT1  1 − 2 
ratio  T1 
(b) increased vol. efficiency for a given pressure Ans : (b) (i) Work done during isothermal
ratio Compression
(c) more cost
(d) more noise P  P 
W = P 1V1 ln  2  = mRT1 ln  2 
(HPPSC LECT. 2016)  P1   P1 
Ans : (b) Advantages of multistage compression:-
P 
(i) It improves the volumetric efficiency for the given = mRT1 ln  2 
pressure ratio.  P1 
(ii) It reduces the leakage loss considerably (ii) Work done during polytropic compression
(iii) It gives more uniform torque and hence a smaller (PVn=C)
size flywheel is required
(iv) It reduces the cost of compressor n  T  n
W= × mRT2 1 − 1  = mR ( T2 − T1 )
459. Work input to the air compressor with n a n −1  T2  n − 1
index of compression (iii) Work done during isentropic compression
(a) Increase with increase in value of n
γ
(b) decrease with increase in value of n W= × mR ( T2 − T1 ) = mCP ( T2 − T1 )
(c) remains same whatever the value of n γ −1
(d) first increases and then decreases with value 462. In a two stage compressor with ideal inter
of n cooling, for the work requirement to be
(KPSC AE. 2015) minimum, the intermediate pressure Pi in
Ans : (a) Work input to the air compressor with n as terms of condenser and evaporator pressure Pc
index of compression increase with increase in value and Pe and respectively is:
of n.
Compressor Work : (a) Pi=Pc .Pe (b) Pi = Pc Pe
(i) Work done during isothermal compression P
(c) Pi = c Pi =P1Pvc1 /lnPe(P2/P1)
(d) W=
Pe
(ii) Work done during Polytropic Compression
MPPSC AE 2016
n
W= mR(T2 − T1 ) Ans : (b)
n −l
(iii) Work done during isentropic Compression
γ
W= mR(T2 − T1 )
γ −l
460. The main reason for the adopting the axial flow
compressors instead of centrifugal compressors
in aircraft turbine is that :
(a) starting torque for axial flow compressor is
high
(b) the frontal area of axial flow compressor is
considerably less
(c) the efficiency of middle speed range is higher
(d) pressure ratio per stage is high Pi = Pc × Pe
(KPSC AE. 2015)
117
463. The positive displacement compressor is 466. The pressure ratio of an ideal vaned
(a) Roots blower compressor compressor with increase in mass flow rate
(b) Axial flow compressor (a) increases
(c) Centrifugal compressor (b) decreases
(d) Condenser (c) remains constant
TSPSC AEE 2015 (d) first decreases and then increases
Ans : (a) Roots blower compressor is positive BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
displacement compression Ans : (b) : The pressure ratio of an ideal vaned
compressor with increase in mass flow rate decrease.
467. Losses in a centrifugal compressor are due to
(a) inlet losses
(b) impeller channel losses
(c) diffuser losses
(d) all of the above
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
Ans : (d) : Losses in a centrifugal compressor are due
to inlet losses, impeller channel losses and diffuser
losses.
468. The shell diameter and length of locomotive
boiler are
464. What will happen to the volumetric efficiency (a) 1.5 m, 4 m (b) 1.5 m, 6 m
with increasing pressure ratio in case of single (c) 1 m, 4 m (d) 2 m, 4 m
stage compression in compressor? BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
(a) Decreases (b) Increases Ans : (a) : Shell diameter of locomotive boiler is 1.5 m
(c) Remains unaffected (d) None of these and length of locomotive boiler is 4 m.
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
469. In a two-stage reciprocating air compressor,
Ans : (a) Volumetric efficiency:- It is the ratio of
the suction and delivery pressure are 1 bar and
volume of free air delivery per stroke to the swept
4 bar respectively. For the maximum efficiency,
volume of the piston. The volumetric efficiency of a
the intercooler pressure is
reciprocating air compressor with clearance volume is
(a) 1.5 bar (b) 2.5 bar
given by
(c) 2.0 bar (d) 3.0 bar
ηvol = 1 + C − C ( p 2 / p1 )
1/ n
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
Clearance volume Ans : (c) : For minimum work consumption and
C= clearance ratio = maximum efficiency, the intermediate pressure
Swept volume of the piston
P1= Initial pressure of air Pi = P1.P2 = 1× 4 = 2 bar
P2 = Final pressure of air 470. A centrifugal compressor is used for which of
n = Polytropic index the following?
if (P2/P1) increases then volumetric efficiency (a) High pressure ratio and low mass flow
decreases. (b) Low pressure ratio and low mass flow
ηvol ↑ when ( p 2 / p1 ) ↓ (c) High pressure ratio and high mass flow
465. The compression work requirement is (d) Low pressure ratio and high mass flow
minimum in case of compression process being BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
(a) Adiabatic (b) Isochoric Ans : (d) : A centrifugal compressor is used for low
(c) Isothermal (d) Hyperbolic pressure ratio and high mass flow.
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II 471. High positive incidence in an axial compressor
Ans : (c) The compression work requirement is blade leads to
minimum is case of compression process being (a) suppression of separation of flow on the blade
isothermal. (b) choking of the flow
(i) Work done during adiabatic compression (c) separation of flow on the suction side of the
γ blade
= (p 2 v 2 − p1v1 ) (d) separation of flow on the pressure side of the
γ −1 blade
(ii) Work done during polytrophic compression BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper-V
n Ans : (c) : Stalling is the separation of flow from the
= (p 2 v 2 − p1v1 )
n −1 blade surface. At high incidence, flow separation occurs
(iii) Work done during isothermal compression on the suction side of the blades which is referred as
= p1v1 ln (p 2 / p1 ) positive stalling.
118
472. The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating Ans : (c) : Since volume flow rate or mass flow rate
compressor depends upon clearance so the total work depends upon
(a) increases with increasing clearance ratio clearance volume but not work required for per kg.
(b) increases with increase in compression index Hence express for per kg air
(c) does not change with change in clearance n −1
ratio and pressure ratio  
n  P2  n 
(d) decreases both with increasing clearance ratio W= RT1   − 1
(n − 1) P
and pressure ratio  1  
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V  
Ans : (d) : Volumetric efficiency Hence it is independent of flow rate or clearance.
476. The incorrect option related to Prewhirl of
v  P  
1/ n
centrifugal compressor:
η = 1 − c  2  − 1
vs  P1   (a) To maintain the Mach number less than unity
  at impeller eye tip
 P 1/ n  (b) To increase the relative velocity at inlet guide
= 1 − c  2  − 1 vane
 P1   (c) To avoid chocking at compressor inlet
 
1/ n
(d) None of these
P  OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
= 1+ c − c  2 
 P1  Ans : (c) : Prewhirl of centrifugal compressor-
Hence volumetric efficiency decreases with increasing • To maintain the mach number less than unity at
clearance ratio and pressure ratio both. impeller eye tip.
473. Stalling of blades in axial flow compressors is • To increase the relative velocity at inlet guide vane.
the phenomenon of • The prewhirl reduces the work input of the
(a) Air stream blocking the passage compressor. The inlet velocity of the impeller eye is
(b) Motion of air at sonic velocity inclined by an angle, known as prewhirl.
(c) Unsteady, periodic and reversed flow 477. In a four stage compressor, if the pressure at
(d) Air stream not able to follow the blade the first and third stage are 1 bar and 16 bar,
contour then the delivery pressure at the fourth stage
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 will be:
Ans : (d) : Stalling is flow separation from blade (a) 1 bar (b) 16 bar
contour profile. This happens when the flow velocity is (c) 64 bar (d) 256 bar
low or any other reason due to which inlet blade angle OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
deviates from designed value. Under this condition air Ans : (c) : Given,
steam is not able to follow blade contour. Unsteady P1 =1 bar,
periodic and flow reversal is surging not stalling. P3 =16 bar,
474. For a centrifugal compressor with radial vanes, P2 = P1P3 = 1× 16 = 4 bar
slip factor is the ratio of
(a) isentropic work to Euler work Therefore,
(b) whirl velocity to the blade velocity at the P4 P3 P 16
impeller exit = ⇒ 4 =
P2 P1 4 1
(c) stagnation pressure to static pressure
(d) isentropic temperature rise to actual P4 = 64 bar
temperature rise 478. In a centrifugal compressor, an increase in
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 speed at a given pressure ratio causes:
Ans : (b) : Slip factor 'σ' is defined as the ratio of work (a) Increase in efficiency
done (when the number of blades are finite) to the work (b) Decrease in flow
done under ideal conditions (when the number of bladed (c) Increase in flow
are infinite) (d) Increase in flow and decrease in efficiency
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(V 'w ) 2 Ans : (c) : Increased in speed gives increases flow. As
σ=
( Vw ) 2 work of compression increases then it reduces
compressor efficiency. (Eddies are formed)
475. In a reciprocating air compressor, the
compression work per kg of air: 479. When the outlet angle from the rotor of a
(a) Increases as clearance volume increases centrifugal compressor is more than 90º, then
(b) Decreases as clearance volume increases the blades are said to be?
(c) Independent of clearance volume (a) Forward curved (b) Backward curved
(d) Increase as clearance volume decreases (c) Radial (d) None of these
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
119
Ans : (a) : When the outlet angle from the rotor of a 485. In centrifugal blowers/compressors, the ratio of
centrifugal compressor is more than 90º then the blades outlet whirl velocity to the blade velocity is
are said to be forward curved. known as
480. Which one of the following is the correct option (a) work factor (b) slip factor
for the effect of blade shape on performance of (c) degree of reaction (d) pressure coefficient
a centrifugal compressor: UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
(a) Forward curved blades has higher efficiency Ans. (b) : slip factor
(b) Backward curved blades produced higher 486. When an impeller has backward curved vanes
pressure ratio in a centrifugal blower, then with an increase
(c) Backward curved blades h as poor efficiency in flow rate, Euler head H
(d) Forward curved blades produce higher (a) increases (b) decreases
pressure ratio (c) remains constant (d) none of the above
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans : (d) : Forward curved blades produce higher Ans. (b) : decreases
pressure ratio 487. Performance of an air compressor at high
altitudes as compared to that at sea level is
481. A fan supplies 250 CFM air flow rate. It is
(a) better
equal to _______ m3/s.
(b) inferior
(a) 0.095 (b) 0.118
(c) same
(c) 0.127 (d) 0.175 (d) depends on type of compressor
BHEL ET 2019 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (b) : Given - 250 CFM Ans. (b) : inferior
Note :– The volumetric flow rate of a liquid or gas in
488. In centrifugal compressors, pressure ratio may
cubic feet per minute
be increased:-
so, 1 CFM = 0.47 litre/sec. (a) By decreasing slip factor
250 CFM = 0.47 × 250 litre/sec. (b) By increasing slip factor
= 117.5 litre/sec. (c) By making rough blades
= 117.5 × 10-3/m3/s (d) By none of the above
= 0.118 m3/sec. UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
482. The optimum intermediate pressure P2 in a two Ans. (a) : In centrifugal compressors, pressure ratio
stage air compressor having P1 = 4 bar and P3 may be increased by decreasing slip factor.
= 9 bar, as suction and delivery pressure 489. Which of the following compressors has highest
respectively, is equal to : capacity?
(a) 13 bar (b) 9 bar (a) Reciprocating (b) Centrifugal
(c) 4 bar (d) 6 bar (c) Axial flow (d) Fan
BHEL ET 2019 UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (d) : Given - Two stage air compressor Ans. (c) : Axial flow compressors has highest capacity.
P1 = 4 bar 490. The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating
P3 = 9 bar compressor is equal to:-
optimum intermediate pressure (a) 1+K-K(p2/p1) (b) 1+K-K(p2/p1)n
1/n
P2 = P4 = P1 P3 (c) 1+K+K(p2/p1) (d) 1+K-K(p2/p1)1/n
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
= 4×5 Ans. (d) : The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating
= 36 = 6 bar. compressor,
1
483. Why intercooling in multistage compressors is p n
done ? ηv = 1 + K − K  2 
(a) To minimize the work of compression  p1 
(b) To cool the air delivery Where K is clearance ratio
(c) To cool the air during compression 491. Why intercooling in multistage compressors is
(d) None of these done?
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (a) To minimise the work of compression
Ans. (a) : To minimize the work of compression (b) To cool the air delivery
484. Work done by prime mover to run the (c) To cool the air during compression
(d) None of these
compressor is minimum if the compression is
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(a) isothermal (b) adiabatic
(c) isentropic (d) polytropic Ans. (a) : To minimise the work of compression
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II 492. The performance of reciprocating compressor
is compared on the basis of efficiency
Ans. (a) : isothermal
(a) volumetric (b) mechanical
120
 (c) overall (d) Isothermal Ans. (a) : The function of a moderator in nuclear
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II reactor is to slow down the fast moving electrons.
Ans. (d) : Isothermal 498. Which one of the following pairs of materials is
493. In a centrifugal compressor the pressure used as moderators in nuclear reactors?
developed depends on (a) Cadmium and heavy water
(a) Impeller tip velocity (b) Inlet temperature (b) Heavy water and zirconium
(c) Compression index (d) All of the above (c) Zirconium and beryllium
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II (d) Beryllium and heavy water
Ans. (d) : All of the above (e) Cadmium and beryllium
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
8. Nuclear Power Plant Ans. (d) : Beryllium and heavy water, pairs of materials
494. Which of the followings is not the desirable is used as moderators in nuclear reactors.
feature of moderator in nuclear reactor? 499. Thorium breeder reactors are more promising
(a) It has low thermal conductivity for India essentially because
(b) It slows down the neutron (a) They develop more power
(c) It is non corrosive (b) The technology there of is simple
(d) It has good chemical stability (c) Thorium deposit are abundantly available in
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 the country
Ans. (a) : Modertor—The moderator, which is of (d) These can be easily designed
importance in thermal reactors, is used to moderate, that UPSC JWM 2017
is, to slow down, neutron from fission to thermal Ans. (c) : Thorium deposit are abundantly available in
energies. India that's why thorium breeder reactors are more
Key properties of moderator— promising for India.
• High melting and boiling point 500. Isotope that can be fissioned by neutrons of all
• High specific heat capacity energies is :
• Low viscosity
(a) Pu – 239 (b) Pu – 240
• Low corrosive
(c) U – 238 (d) Th –238
• Cheap
• Good chemical stability OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
495. Which of the following is not the component of Ans. (a) : Pu - 239, isotope can be fissioned by neutrons
nuclear power plant of all energies.
(a) Steam generator (b) Steam turbine 501. The false statement is :
(c) Nuclear reactor (d) Penstock (a) Alpha particles are helium nuclei
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 (b) Beta decay is accompanied by emission of
Ans. (d) : Steam generator, steam turbine, nuclear neutrino and gamma radiation
reactor are the components of nuclear power plant (c) Neutron is converted into a proton in a
whereas penstock is the main part of hydro-electric- positive beta decay
power plant. (d) Gamma ray is emitted from the nucleus while
496. In a Pressurised Water reactor (PWR) X–ray is emitted from the atom
(a) The coolent water is pressurised to work as OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
moderator Ans. (c) : Neutron is converted into a proton in a
(b) The coolent water boils in the core of the positive beta decay.
reactor 502. Graphite is used as a moderator in :
(c) The coolent water is pressurised to prevent (a) Boiling water reactor
boiling of water in the core (b) Pressurized water reactor
(d) No moderator is used (c) Light water reactor
TNPSC AE 2014 (d) Gas cooled reactor
Ans. (c) : In a Pressurised Water reactor (PWR) the OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
coolent water is pressurised to prevent boiling of water Ans. (d) : Graphite is used as a moderator in gas cooled
in the core. reactor.
497. The function of a moderator in nuclear reactor 503. Breeder reactor employs liquid-metal coolant,
is
because it
(a) To slow down the fast moving electrons
(b) To speed up the slow moving electrons (a) acts as good moderator
(c) To start the chain reaction (b) produces maximum steam
(d) To transfer heat produced inside the reactor to (c) transfer heat from core at a fast rate
a heat exchanger (d) increases rate of reaction in core
TNPSC AE 2014 BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
121
Ans : (c) : Breeder reactors employ liquid metal coolant 510. Which is not the property of coolant used in
because it transfer heat from core at a fast rate. nuclear reactor?
It has a large specific heat so that it is an efficient heat (a) Must have low boiling point
transfer fluid. In practice those reactors which have used (b) Must not absorbed neutron
liquid metal coolants have been fast-neutron reactors. (c) Must be non-oxidising
504. Solid fuel for nuclear reactions may be (d) None of these
fabricated into various small shapes, such as OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(a) plates (b) pallets Ans : (a) : Must have low boiling point is not the
(c) pins (d) any one of the above property of coolant used in nuclear reactor.
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V 511. The combination of fuel and moderator for
Ans : (b) : Pallets CANDU reactor is:
(a) Enriched Uranium, Hard water
505. A boiling water reactor uses which of the
(b) Natural Uranium, Hard water
following as fuel?
(c) Enriched Uranium, Water
(a) Enriched uranium (b) Plutonium
(d) Natural Uranium, Water
(c) U234 (d) U235
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
RPSC AE 2016
TNPSC AE 2013
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V Ans : (b) : The combination of fuel and moderator for
CANDU reactor is natural uranium, hard water.
Ans : (a) : Boiling water reactors must use enriched
uranium as their nuclear fuel, due to their use of light 512. Which statement is correct for Parson reaction
water. This is because light water absorbs too many turbine if α1, α2 inlet and outlet fixed blade
neutrons to be used with natural uranium, so the fuel angle, β1, β1, β2 are inlet and outlet moving
content of fissile uranium 235 must be increased. blade angle?
506. The first nuclear power plant in India is (a) α1 = α2, β1 = β2 (b) α1 = β1, α2 = β2
located at (c) α1 = β2, α2 = β1 (d) α1 = β2, β1 < β2
(a) Kota (b) Kalapakkam OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(c) Tarapur (d) Bareilly Ans : (c) :
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V The velocity diagram of parson's reaction turbine-
Ans : (c) : The first nuclear power plant in India is
located at Tarapur (Maharashtra)
507. The coolant used in boiling water reactor is
(a) CO2
(b) Pressurised water
(c) mixture of water and steam
(d) liquid metal
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
u
Ans : (c) : A boiling water reactor (BWR) used
demineralized water as a coolant and neutron Since the parson's reaction turbine is 50% and
moderator. Heat is produced by nuclear fission in the symmetrical so α1 = β2 and β1 = α2
reactor core and this causes the cooling water to boil, 513. A solar thermal collector
producing steam. (a) Collects the solar energy and reflects it back
508. If K is the ratio of the rate of production of (b) Absorbs the solar radiation and dissipates it
neutrons to the rate of loss of neutrons, the to the ambient
reactor is called a critical reactor, when (c) Collects and converts the solar energy into
(a) K = 0 (b) 0 < K < 1 electrical energy
(c) K = 1 (d) K > 1 (d) Collects and converts the solar energy into
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V thermal energy and delivers it to the next
Ans : (c) : K = 1 stage of the system
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
509. Shielding in a nuclear reactor is generally done
Ans : (d) A solar thermal collector Collects and
to protect against
converts the solar energy into thermal energy and
(a) excess electrons
delivers it to the next stage of the system.
(b) X-rays
(c) α and β rays 514. A solar cell is basically
(d) neutron and gamma rays (a) A voltage source, controlled by flux of
radiation
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
(b) A current source, controlled by flux of
Ans : (d) : Neutron and gamma rays.
radiation
122
 (c) An uncontrolled current source Ans : (b) Fission chain is possible when fission
(d) An uncontrolled voltage source produces more electron than are absorbed.
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II 520. In a nuclear reactor the function of a reflector is to
Ans : (b) A solar cell is basically current source, (a) reduce the speed of the neutrons
controlled by flux of radiation. (b) stop the chain reaction
515. The capacity of generators being installed in (c) reflect the escaping neutrons back into the
super thermal power plant is core
(a) 100 MW (b) 200 MW (d) all of the above
(c) 400 MW (d) 500 MW RPSC AE 2016
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II Ans : (c) In a nuclear reactor the function of a reflector
Ans : (d) The capacity of generators being installed in is to reflect the escaping neutrons back into the core.
super thermal power plant is 500 MW. 521. Which material is the most commonly used
516. Fast breeder reactors are best suited for India moderator?
because of (a) Graphite (b) Sodium
(a) large thorium deposits (c) Deuterium (d) any of the above
(b) large uranium deposits RPSC AE 2016
(c) large plutonium deposits
(d) all of the above Ans : (a) Graphite is the most commonly used
RPSC AE 2016 moderator.
Ans : (a) Fast breeder reactor are best suited for India 522. In a pressurized water reactor
because of large thorium deposits (a) coolant water is pressurized to work as
moderator
517. Thermal shielding is provided to
(a) protect the walls of the reactor from radiation (b) coolant water boils in the core of the reactor
damage (c) coolant water is pressurized to prevent
(b) prevent meltdown of the core of the reactor boiling of water in the core
(c) protect the operating personnel from (d) no moderator is used
exposure to radiation RPSC AE 2016
(d) all of the above Ans : (c) In a pressurized water reactor coolant water
RPSC AE 2016 is pressurized to prevent boiling of water in the core.
Ans : (c) Thermal shielding is provided to protect the 523. The conversion ratio of a breeder reactor is
operating personnel from exposure to radiation. (a) equal to unity (b) more than unity
518. The function of a moderator in a nuclear (c) less than unity (d) none of the above
reactor is to RPSC AE 2016
(a) slow down the fast moving electrons Ans : (b) The conversion ratio of a breeder reactor is
(b) speed up the slow moving electrons more than unity.
(c) start the chain reaction 524. Which process is responsible for production of
(d) transfer heat produced inside the reactor to a energy in the Sun
heat exchanger (a) Nuclear fission reaction
RPSC AE 2016 (b) Nuclear fusion reaction
Ans : (a) The function of a moderator in a nuclear (c) Exothermal chemical reaction
reactor is to slow down the fast moving electrons. (d) All of the above
Moderator:- A moderator is a material introduced UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
into the fuel mass in order to slow down the speed of Ans : (b) Nuclear fusion reaction is responsible for
fast moving electrons. the slowing down of fast production of energy in the sun.
neutrons is desirable because slow moving electrons Nuclear fusion : In Nuclear physics, Nuclear fusion is
are more effective than fast neutrons in triggering a reaction in which two or more atomic nuclei come
fission. A moderator, apart from its high neutron close enough to form one or more different atomic
slowing power and low non-productive neutron, nuclei and subatomic particles (neutrons and/or
should be protons). The difference in mass between the products
(i) Stable under nuclear radiation and reactions is manifested as the release of large
(ii) Corrosion resistant amounts of energy. This difference in mass arises due
(iii) Good thermal conductor
to the difference in atomic "binding energy' between
(iv) Available in adequate
The graphite and concrete are generally used as the atomic nuclei before and after the reaction. Fusion
moderator in the process that powers active or "main sequence"
starts, or other high magnitude starts.
519. Fission chain reaction is possible when 525. The working fluid used in an MHD system
(a) fission produces the same number of coupled to a fast breeder reactor is
neutrons which are absorbed (a) Hot flue gases (b) Seeded inert gas
(b) fission produces more electrons than are (c) Liquid metal inert gas (d) Liquid metal only
absorbed UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
(c) fission produces less electrons than are Ans : (c) Liquid metal inert gas
absorbed 526. At flash point temperature:
(d) none of the above (a) Fuel ignites without any spark
RPSC AE 2016
123
 (b) Fuel emits vapours which produce an (d) None of these measures
inflammable mixture with air UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(c) Fuel vaporize sat very high rate Ans. (c) : Both (a) and (b)
(d) the fuel spontaneously ignites for longer time 534. The function of a moderator is to
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II (a) absorb the part of the kinetic energy of the
Ans : (b) At flash point temperature fuels emits vapours neutrons
which produce on inflammable mixture with air. (b) extract the heat
527. Steam flow in a steam generator is controlled (c) reflect back some of the neutrons
by using : (d) start the reactor
(a) Drum level sensor Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
(b) Feed water flow sensor Ans. (a) : Function of moderator is used to slow down
(c) Steam flow sensor the neutrons by absorbing some of the kinetic energy of
(d) All of the above neutrons by direct collision, which result the increasing
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II the chances of fission.
Ans : (c) Steam flow in a steam generator is 535. When the control rods are inserted into the
controlled by using steam flow sensor. reactor, the multiplication factor becomes
528. Which of the following statements is not (a) 0 (b) Less than 1
correct about MHD power generation ? (c) 1 (d) Greater than 1
(a) Lesser thermal pollution Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
(b) No moving parts Ans. (b) : When the control rods are inserted into the
(c) High operation efficiency reactor, the multiplication factor becomes less than 1.
(d) No direct conversion of heat into electrical 536. The function of coolant is to
energy (a) extract heat from reactor
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (b) slow down neutrons
Ans. (d) : No direct conversion of heat into electrical (c) control the reaction
energy (d) reflect the neutrons
529. If B is magnetic field strength, the theoretical Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
power output of MHD generator is Ans. (a) : The function of coolant is to extract heat from
proportional to:- reactor.
(a) B (b) B2 (c) B3 (d) B 537. The highest moderating ratio is of
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II (a) D2O (b) H2O (c) Carbon (d) Helium
Ans. (b) : Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
530. The gas which is used as a coolant in a nuclear Ans. (a) : Highest moderating ratio is of D2O.
power plant is:- 538. A nuclear fission produces energy
(a) Freon (b) Ammonia (a) 20 Mev (b) 200 MeV
(c) Helium (d) Chlorine (c) 2000 MeV (d) 20,000 MeV
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (c) : Helium is used as a coolant in a nuclear Ans. (b) : One fission event results in the release of
power plant. about 200 MeV of energy.
531. The function of a reflector in nuclear power 539. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in
plant is to:- comparison to a conventional thermal power
(a) Reflect heat plant is
(b) Reflect light (a) Same (b) More
(c) Reflect the escaping neutrons back into the (c) Less
core (d) May be less or more depending on size
(d) None of the above Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II Ans. (c) : The efficiency of nuclear power plant in
Ans. (c) : The function of a reflector in nuclear power comparison to conventional thermal power plant is less.
plant is to reflect the escaping neutrons back into the core. Typically :- Nuclear power plant efficiency– 33-37%
532. Which of the following is the primary fuel in conventional thermal power plant (fossil fueled power
nuclear power? plant) efficiency– 45%
(a) U233 (b) U238 540. In nuclear plants, MOX fuels are
235
(c) U (d) Pu239 (a) Blend of plutonium and natural or depleted
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II uranium
Ans. (c) : The primary fuel used in nuclear power (b) Blend of carbon and depleted uranium
plants Uranium (U235). (c) Blend of metal fuels and natural uranium
* Isotopes of uranium are U234, U235 and U238 etc. (d) Blend of natural uranium and uranium
* The secondary fuel used in nuclear power plants is carbide
U235 and plutonium (Pu239.).
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
533. In MHD power generation system, the
Ans. (a) : In nuclear Plant, MOX (mixed oxide fuel),
electrical conductivity of air is increased by
(a) Heating it to very high temperatures commonly that contain more than one oxide of material
(b) Seeding consisting of plutonium blended with natural uranium,
(c) Both (a) and (b) reprocessed uranium, or depleted uranium.
124
 03. INTERNAL COMBUSTION
ENGINE
Ans. (a) : The thermal efficiency of Otto cycle.
1. Air Standard Cycles T
ηOtto = 1 − a
1. The compression ratio of diesel engine as Tb
compared to expansion ratio is:
(a) Low
(b) Same
(c) High
(d) Depend on engine size
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (c) : The compression ratio of diesel engine as
compared to expansion ratio is high.
2. If compression ratio is kept same then thermal
efficiency of:
(a) Otto cycle is less than Dual cycle
(b) Otto cycle is same as that for Diesel cycle
(c) Otto cycle is less than that of Diesel cycle
(d) Otto cycle is more than that of Diesel cycle
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans : (d) (i) For same compression ratio and heat addition
ηotto > ηdual > ηdiesel 1
ηotto = 1 −
(ii) for same maximum temperature and heat rejection  Tb 
ηdiesel > ηdual > ηotto  
 Ta 
3. Four stroke petrol engines as compared to two 1
stroke petrol engines having same output ηotto = 1 −
(rc )γ −1
rating and same compression ratio have
(a) Higher thermal efficiency It means that constant volume heat addition process will
(b) Higher specific fuel consumption start from 'b' and adiabatic compression will start from
(c) Higher specific output point 'a' to point 'b'.
(d) Higher torque 5. Swept volume of engine may be written as:
TNPSC AE 2017 (a) VBDC - VTDC
Ans. (a) : Four stroke petrol engines as compared to (b) Volume of cylinder at BDC (VBDC)
two stroke petrol engines having same output rating and (c) V BDC + VTDC

same compression ratio have higher thermal efficiency. (d) Volume of cylinder at TDC (VTDC)
UPRVUNL AE 2016
4. Thermal efficiency of Otto cycle can be
Ans. (a) : Swept volume of engine may be written as
r
represented by ηotto = 1 - a . Which of the VBDC - VTDC
rb
following element is correct for state point a
and b?
(a) Constant volume heat addition process will
start from 'b'
(b) Constant volume heat rejection process will
end at point 'b'
(c) Isentropic compression process will end at
point 'a' Vc = Clearance volume
(d) Isentropic compression process will start from Vs = Swept volume
point 'a' d - Bore of cylinder
UPRVUNL AE 2016 L - Stroke length
125
6. Efficiency of Diesel cycle depends on (c) 16 to 20 (d) 21 to 30
(a) Compression ratio RPSC AE 2016
(b) Compression ratio and cut of ratio UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
(c) Cut off ratio Ans : (c)
(d) Cut off and pressure ratio Total Cylinder Volume V
TNPSC AE 2013 Compression ratio = = 1+ s
Clearance Volume Vc
Ans. (b) : Efficiency of diesel cycle depends on
compression ratio and cut of ratio * compression ratio of petrol engine is 8 - 12
* Compression ratio of diesel engine is 16 - 24
1 ( ρ − 1)
γ
10. Thermal efficiency of diesel cycle is
η diesel = 1 − ( γ −1)
r γ ( ρ − 1) (a) Reduced at high compression ratio for same
cut off ratio and heat capacity ratio
η diesel = f ( r, ρ ) (b) Independent of variation of cut off ratio and
7. Compression ratio of I.C. engine is ............... heat capacity ratio
(a) the ratio of the volume of its combustion (c) Reduced at higher cut off ratio for same
chamber from its largest capacity to its compression ratio and heat capacity ratio
smallest capacity (d) Reduced at high heat capacity ratio for same
(b) the ratio of clearance volumes available in the compression ratio and cut off ratio
combustion cylinder RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
(c) the ratio of pressure after compression to Ans. (c) :
pressure before compression 1 ( ρ γ − 1)
(d) the ratio of pressure before compression to η Diesel = 1 − (γ −1) ×
r γ ( ρ − 1)
pressure after compression Thermal efficiency of diesel cycle is reduced at higher
RPSC AE 2018 cut off ratio for same compression ratio and heat
Ans. (a) : Compression ratio (r)—It is defined as the capacity ratio.
ratio of the volume of its combustion chamber from its 11. Compression ratio in SI engine varies from
largest capacity to its smallest capacity. (a) 6 to 10 (b) 10 to 14
r = 7 - 12 (For SI Engine) (c) 14 to 22 (d) 22 to 32
r = 12 - 17 (For Dual cycle Engine) HPPSC AE 2018
r = 16 - 21 (For CI Engine) UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
8. Thermal efficiency of Otto cycle ______that of Ans. (a) : Compression ratio for SI Engine (r) is 6 to 10
Brayton cycle for the given same compression C.R. for CI engine is 16 to 21
process C.R. for Dual cycle engine is 12 to 17
(a) Same as (b) less than 12. For maximum specific output an air standard
(c) greater than (d) not comparable to Otto cycle.
APPSC AEE 2016 (a) the working fluid should be air
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II (b) the speed be high
Ans. (a) : For same compression ratio (r), thermal (c) suction temperature should be high
efficiency of Otto cycle same as Brayton cycle. (d) temperature of the working fluid at the end of
1 compression be the geometric mean of
ηOtto = 1 − (γ −1) minimum and maximum temperature of cycle
r
(e) temperature of the working fluid at the of
1 compression be the arithmetic mean of
ηBrayton = 1 −
(rp )(γ −1)/γ minimum and maximum temperature of cycle.
We know that CGPSC AE 2014 -II
rp = r γ Ans. (d) :
For maximum specific output of an air standard Otto
γ
 P2   V1  cycle temperature of the working fluid at the end of
 =  compression be the geometric mean of minimum and
 P1   V2  maximum temperature of cycle
1 For otto cycle → T1×T3 = T2×T4
ηBrayton = 1 − γ× (γ −1)/γ
(r) For max. work → T2 = T4 = T1 × T3
1
= 1−
r γ −1
Then,
ηBrayton = ηOtto (For same compression ratio)
9. Compression ratio of diesel engines is in the
range of
(a) 8 to 10 (b) 10 to 15
126
13. The volume of charge that can be available in 16. An IC engine having 6 cylinders, works on Otto
an engine after suction, if the clearance volume cycle. It has a bore of 20 cm and a stroke 40
is 20 cc and swept volume is 300 cc. Consider cm. If the clearance volume is 9000 cm3, the
mechanical efficiency and volumetric efficiency
compression ratio is :
of engine as 90% and 80% respectively:
(a) 288 cc (b) 270 cc (a) 10.03 (b) 8.53
(c) 256 cc (d) 240 cc (c) 9.38 (d) 7.33
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II BHEL ET 2019
Ans : (d) : Given as, Ans. (c) : Given - No. of cylinder = 6
VS = 300 cc, VC = 20 cc Bore diameter (d) = 20 cm
ηm = 90%, ηv = 80% Stroke (L) = 40 cm
We know that,
Clearance volume (vc) = 9000 cm3
Vactual Vactual
ηv = = = 0.8 π
Vswept 300 Swept volume (vs) = × ( 20 2 ) × 40 × No. of cylinder
4
Vactual = 240 cc π
= × 20 × 20 × 40 × 6
14. The stroke of an engine is the 4
(a) volume of the cylinder vs = 75398.2236 cm3
(b) length of the connecting rod
Volume before compression
(c) internal diameter of the cylinder Compression ratio (r) =
(d) distance between TDC and BDC Volume after compression
TSPSC AEE 2015 v + vc
Ans : (d) The stroke of an engine is the distance Compression ratio (r) = s
between TDC and BDC vc
75398.2236 + 9000
=
9000
84398.223
=
9000
= 9.3775
r = 9.38
Distance between TDC to BDC is called stroke length 17. If the compression ratio of an engine working
π 2 on otto cycle is increased 5 to 7 then the
Vs = D × Ls
4 percentage increase in efficiency will be–
Vs = Swept volume (a) 2% (b) 4%
Ls = stroke length
(c) 8% (d) 14%
D = Bore dia.
TNPSC AE 2017
15. The air standard cycle with the following
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
processes in sequences : (1) Reversible
HPPSC AE 2014
adiabatic compression, (2) Reversible constant
pressure heat addition, (3) Reversible adiabatic Ans : (d)
expansion and (4) Reversible constant volume 1 1
heat rejection is : η1 = 1 − γ−1 = 1 − 1.4−1 = 47.4%
r 5
(a) Otto Cycle (b) Diesel Cycle
1
(c) Dual Cycle (d) Brayton Cycle η2 = 1 − 1.4−1 = 54.08%
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 7
Ans. (b) : (1) Reversible adiabatic compression η − η1 η2
(2) Reversible constant pressure heat addition %increase = 2 = −1
η1 η1
(3) Reversible adiabatic expansion
(4) Reversible constant volume heat rejection 54.08
= − 1 = 14.09 ≈ 14%
47.4
18. In a Otto cycle, the temperature at the
beginning and end of the isentropic
compression are 316 K and 596 K respectively.
The compression ratio will be
(a) 4.588 (b) 4.858
(c) 4.885 (d) 4.558
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
127
Ans. (c) : Given, 22. An ideal air standard cycle is shown in figure.
T1 = 316 K
T2 = 596 K
V
Compression ratio = 1
V2
γ −1
T2  V1 
= 
T1  V2 
0.4
 596   V1 
 = 
 316   V2 
1
V1  596  0.4 (a)
= 
V2  316 
V1
= 4.885
V2
(b)
19. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle
compared to diesel cycle for the given
compression ratio is
(a) same (b) less
(c) more (d) unpredictable (c)
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans : (c) : • For same compressor ratio and heat
addition η otto > η dual > η diesel (d)
• For same compression ratio and heat rejection TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
η otto > η dual > η diesel Ans. (a) :
20. If Tmax and Tmin be the maximum and
minimum temperature in an Otto cycle, then
for the ideal conditions, the temperature after
compression should be
T + Tmin 23. In a four stroke cycle engine, the four
(a) max operations namely suction, compression,
2
expansion and exhaust are completed in the
Tmax number of revolutions of crank shaft equal to
(b)
Tmin (a) Four (b) Three
(c) Two (d) One
(c) Tmax × Tmin Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017, 2016 Paper-2
Tmax − Tmin Ans. (c) : In, 4-stroke engine, the working cycle is
(d) Tmin + completed in 4-stroke of the piston or two revolution of
2
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V the crankshaft.
24. The thermal efficiency of theoretical Otto cycle
Ans : (c) : If the Tmax and Tmin be the maximum and
(a) Increases with increase in compression ratio
minimum temperature in an Otto cycle, then for the (b) Increases with increase in isentropic index
ideal conditions, the temperature after compression (c) does not depend upon the pressure ratio
should be (d) Follows all of the above
= Tmax × Tmin Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (a) : Thermal efficiency of the otto cycle increases
21. Air fuel ratio for idling speed of petrol engine
with an increasing compression ratio.
is:
(a) 6 : 1 (b) 9 : 1 25. The work output of theoretical Otto cycle
(a) Increases with increase in compression ratio
(c) 12 : 1 (d) 15 : 1
(b) Increases with increase in pressure ratio
SJVN ET 2013 (c) Increases with increase in adiabatic index
Ans. (c) : Air fuel ratio for idling speed of petrol engine (d) Follows all the above
is 12 : 1 Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
128
Ans. (d) : Work output of theoretical otto cycle increase 1
with increasing compression ratio, as well increases  T  2( γ−1)
with increase in pressure ratio and increases with Ans. (c) :  3 
increase in adiabatic index.  T1 
26. The air standard Otto cycle comprises 29. For same compression ratio-
(a) two constant pressure processes and two (a) Thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is greater
constant volume processes than that of Diesel cycle
(b) two constant pressure and two constant (b) Thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is less than
entropy processes that of Diesel cycle
(c) two constant volume processes and two (c) Thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is same as
constant entropy processes that of Diesel cycle
(d) Mechanical efficiency of Otto cycle is greater
(d) none of the above
than that of Otto cycle
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
RPSC AE 2018
Ans. (c) : The air standard otto cycle compress, two TNPSC AE 2013
constant volume processes and two constant entropy RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
processes. Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
27. In an engine working on an ideal Otto cycle, Ans. (a) : For same compression ratio thermal
the temperature at the beginning and at the efficiency of Otto cycle is greater than that of diesel
end of compression are 300 K and 600 K cycle.
respectively. What will be the air standard
1
efficiency of the engine? [Consider γ = 1.4] ηotto = 1 − γ −1
(a) 50% (b) 45% rc
(c) 55% (d) 40% 1 (ργ −1
SJVN ET 2019 η Diesel = 1 − γ −1
×
rc ( ρ − 1) × γ
Ans. (a) : Given,
For same rc
T1 = 300 K
T2 = 600 K
ηotto > η Diesel
γ−1 30. If stroke volume of engine = 300 cc. Clearance
T1  V2  volume of engine = 20 cc. The compression
= 
T2  V1  ratio of engine will be
1.4 −1 (a) 16 (b) 14
600  V1  (c) 15 (d) 17
= 
300  V2  UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (a) : Data given,
V1 1
= ( 2 ) 0.4 Vs = 300 cc
V2 Vc = 20 cc
V1 Then compression ratio (rc)
= rc = 5.656 V + Vc
V2 rc = s
1 Vc
ηotto = 1 − V 300
( rc )
r −1
rc = 1 + s = 1 +
Vc 20
1
=1− r c = 16
( 5.65)
1.4 −1
31. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle is
= 49.99% given by
= 50% 1 1
28. The compression ratio corresponds to the (a) 1− γ -1 (b) 1+ γ -1
(r) (r)
maximum network output unit mass in the γ -1 γ -1
Otto cycle between upper and lower limits of (c) 1− (r) (d) 1+ (r)
absolute temperature T3 and T1 respectively, is Where (r) = compression ratio
given by : [where γ = Ratio of specific heats TNPSC AE 2014
2( γ−1) 1
T  T Ans. (a) : η Otto = 1 − ( γ−1)
(a)  3  (b) 3 r
 T1  T1 32. Increase in compression ratio in CI engines
1 1 (a) decreases turbulence
 T3  2( γ−1)  T3  γ−1 (b) increases mechanical efficiency
(c)   (d)   (c) decreases mechanical efficiency
 T1   T1  (d) decreases thermal efficiency
SJVN ET 2019 TNPSC AE 2013
129
Ans. (c) : Decrease mechanical efficiency when 35. The efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to
increase in compression ratio of CI engines. Otto cycle efficiency when.
33. Match List-I (details of the processes of the (a) cut-off is increased (b) cut-off is decreased
cycle) with List-II (name of the cycle) and select (c) cut-off is zero (d) cut-off is constant
the correct answer using the codes given below APPSC AEE 2016
the List: Ans. (c) : When cut-off ratio ( ρ ) is zero then the
List I List II efficiency of diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle
A Two isothermals and two 1 Carnot efficiency.
constant volumes 1 (ρ γ − 1)
B Two isentropic and two 2 Joule ηDiesel = 1 − (γ −1)
constant volumes r γ.(ρ − 1)
C Two isentropic and two 3 Otto 36. In case of diesel cycle, increasing the cutoff
constant pressures ratio will increase
D Two isothermals and 4 Diesel (a) Efficiency
isentropic (b) Mean effective pressure
5 Striling (c) The maximum pressure
(a) A-5, B-3, C-1, D-2 (b) A-5, B-3, C-2, D-1 (d) The engine weight
(c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 (d) A-5, B-4, C-2, D-1 TSPSC AEE 2015
CGPSC AE 2014 -II Ans. (b) : Mean effective pressure will increase in case
Ans. (b) : of diesel cycle if increasing the cut off ratio.
Cycle Processes 37. A diesel and Otto cycle have the same
Stirling cycle Two isothermal and two compression ratio. The cutoff ratio of the cycle
constant volumes. is 'S'. The air standard efficiency of the cycle
Otto cycle Two isentropic and two will be equal when
Constant Volume (a) Sr - r (S - 1) - 1 = 0
Diesel cycle Two isentropic and one (b) Sr - r (S - 1) + 1 = 0
Constant Pressure and one (c) Sr - r (S + 1) + 1 = 0
constant volume (d) Sr - r (S - 1) + r = 0
Carnot cycle Two isothermals and two TSPSC AEE 2015
isentropic Ans. (a) : If
Joule cycle Two constant Pressure and ηdiesel = ηotto

(S − 1) = 1 −
two isentropic r
34. If V = volume at TDC and r = compression 1 1
1−
x ( ) r ( S − 1) x )
(
ratio. Then swept volume will be given by: r −1 r −1
rV ( r − 1) v
(a) (b) Sr − 1 = r ( S − 1)
( )
r − 1 r
(c) Vr (d) (r – 1)V Sr − r ( S − 1) − 1 = 0
(e) V (r2 – 1)
38. The thermal efficiency of a diesel cycle can be
CGPSC AE 2014- II
increased by
Ans. (d) : Swept volume– The volume through which a (a) increasing both compression ratio and cutoff
piston or plunger moves as it makes a stroke. ratio
(b) decreasing both compression ratio and cutoff
ratio
(c) decreasing compression ratio and increasing
cutoff ratio
(d) increasing compression ratio and decreasing
cutoff ratio
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (d) : The thermal efficiency of a diesel cycle can
be increase by increasing compression ratio and
increasing cutoff ratio:
(ρ − 1)
We know that compression ratio (r) γ
V + VS 1
= ηdiesel = 1 −
r ( ) γ ( ρ − 1)
V γ−1

V 39. For the same maximum pressure and the heat

r = 1+ S
V input, the efficiencies of the power cycles are
(a) ηdiesel > ηdual > ηotto
VS = ( r − 1) .V
(b) ηdual > ηdiesel > notto
130
 (c) ηotto > ηdiesel > ηdual
(d) ηotto > ηdual > ηdiesel
TNPSC 2019
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
UPPSC AE. 2016
Ans. (a) : For the same maximum pressure and heat
input
ηdiesel > ηdual > ηpetrol
For same compression ratio and heat output
ηpetrol > ηdual > ηdiesel
40. If the maximum pressure in both air standard
Otto and Diesel cycles is the same, then the
relations for compression ratio r and the
efficiency η between the two cycles are
(a) rDiesel > rOtto and η Diesel > η Otto
(b) rOtto > rDiesel and η Diesel > η Otto
(c) rDiesel > rOtto and η Otto > η Diesel
(d) rOtto > rDiesel and η Otto > η Diesel
ESE 2017
Ans. (a) :
Process 1 − 2' − 3' − 4' − 1 Diesel cycle
Process 1 − 2 − 3 − 4 − 1 Otto cycle
Compression ratio rdiesel > rotto
In this case by considering same maximum pressure and
heat input or same maximum pressure and work output
compression ratio and efficiency of diesel cycle is more
than otto cycle.
41. A 100 cc engine has the following parameter as
100 cc
(a) cylinder volume (b) clearance volume
(c) swept volume (d) full tank capacity
(KPSC AE 2015)
Ans : (c)
42. For the same compression ratio :
(a) thermal efficiency of otto cycle is greater than
of diesel cycle
(b) thermal efficiency of otto cycle is less than of
diesel cycle
(c) thermal efficiency of otto cycle same as that for
a diesel cycle
(d) thermal efficiency of diesel cannot be predicted
Ans : (a)
(i) for Same Compression ratio and heat addition
ηotto > η Diesel
(ii) for Same maximum temperature and heat addition.
ηDiesel > η otto
43. The order of values of thermal efficiency of Otto,
Diesel and Dual cycle, when they have equal
compression ratio and heat rejection, is given by:
(a) ηOtto > ηDiesel > ηDual
(b) ηDiesel > ηDual > ηOtto
(c) ηDual > ηDiesel > ηOttal
(d) ηOtto > ηDual > ηDiesel
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (d) i. Equal compression ratio and heat rejection
order of values of thermal efficiency:-
ηOtto > ηDual > ηDiesel
ii. For same maximum temperature and heat addition
ηDiesel> ηdual > ηOtto
iii. Same maximum pressure and heat input
ηdiesel > ηdual > ηOtto
44. In a four stroke cycle. S.I. engine the camshaft
runs at
(a) same speed as crankshaft
(b) half the speed of crankshaft
(c) twice the speed of crankshaft
(d) any speed irrespective of crankshaft speed
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (b) In a four stroke cycle SI engine the camshaft
runs at half the speed of crankshaft.
45. Thermal efficiency of standard Otto cycle for a
compression ratio 5.5 will be
(a) 20% (b) 35.4%
(c) 47.5% (d) 50%
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (d) Given data
rc = 5.5
γ = 1.4
1 1
ηotto = 1 − γ−1 = 1 −
( 5.5 )
1.4 −1
rc
ηotto = 49.4 ≈ 50%

π 2 46. Otto cycle is also known as

Vs = D ×L (a) constant pressure cycle
4 (b) constant volume cycle
Vs = Swept volume cm3( ) (c) constant temperature cycle
(d) constant temperature and pressure cycle
D = bore dia (cm)
TSPSC AEE 2015
L = Stroke length (cm)
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
131
Ans : (b) Otto cycle is known as constant volume cycle 51. An IC engine has a bore and stroke of 2 units
and heat addition at constant volume. each The area to calculate heat loss can be taken
as :
(a) 4 π (b) 5 π
(c) 6 π (d) 8 π
(HPPSC AE 2014)
Ans : (b) Heat loss can be taken as surface area of wall
+ cross-section area of cylinder head, these area are
responsible for heat transfer through cylinder.
π
Total area (A) = πd × ℓ + d 2
4
47. Highest useful compression ratio is the π
compression ratio at which = π× 2 × 2 + (2) 2 = 5π
(a) engine can be safely operated 4
(b) engine gives maximum thermal efficiency 52. In an Otto cycle the compression ratio is 9 : 1
and the pressure and temperature at the
(c) engine operates smoothly
beginning of the compression process are 100
(d) detonation first becomes audible KPa and 100 C respectively. The heat addition
RPSC AE 2016 by combustion gives highest temperature as
Ans : (d) Highest useful compression ratio is the 2500 K. The highest cycle pressure is
compression ratio at which detonation first becomes (a) 7.95 MPa (b) 2.17Mpa
audible. (c) 1.39 MPa (d) 8.50 MPa
48. In an air standard Diesel cycle at fixed BHEL ET 2019
compression ratio and fixed value of adiabatic Ans. (a) : 7.95 MPa
index (γ) 53. In an Otto cycle the compression ratio is 9 : 1
(a) Thermal efficiency increases with increases in and the pressure and temperature at the
heat addition cut-off ratio beginning of the compression process are 100
(b) Thermal efficiency decreases with increase in kPa and 10o C. The heat addition by
heat addition cut-off ratio combustion gives the highest temperature as
(c) Thermal efficiency remains same with increase 2500 K. Thermal efficiency of the cycle is :
in heat addition cut-off ratio (a) 68.47% (b) 48.57%
(c) 38.4% (d) 58.47%
(d) None of the above
BHEL ET 2019
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 Ans. (d) : Given - Compression ratio ( r ) = v 1 = 9
TNPSC AE 2017 v2 1
Ans.: (b) In an air standard diesel cycle at fixed air (γ) = 1.4
compression ratio and fixed value of adiabatic index So, Otto cycle thermal efficiency
then thermal efficiency decreases with increase in heat 1
addition cut–off ratio. η th = 1 − γ−1
49. A fictitious pressure that, if it acted on the
(r)
piston during the entire power stroke, would 1 1
produce the same amount of net work as that = 1− = 1 − 0.4
(9)
1.4 −1
9
produced during the actual cycle is called
(a) Quasi equivalent pressure η th = 0.5847 = 58.47%
(b) Mean equivalent pressure 54. A 4-stroke reciprocating engine has cylinder
(c) Mean effective pressure diameter of 4 cm, stroke length of 7 cm and
(d) Quasi static pressure clearance volume 2 cm3. The engine capacity in
ESE 2020 cc is:
Ans. (c) : Mean effective pressure (a) 110 (b) 252
50. An ideal cycle based on the concept of (c) 400 (d) 352
combination of two heat transfer processes, one BHEL ET 2019
at constant volume and the other at constant Ans. (d) : Given - Diameter (d) = 4 cm
pressure, is called Stroke length (L) = 7 cm
(a) Otto cycle (b) Dual cycle Clearance volume (VC) = 2 cm2
(c) Diesel cycle (d) Carnot cycle Engine capacity in cc = Swept volume × No. of cylinder
ESE 2020 π π
= ×d 2 × L× 4 = × 4× 4×7× 4
Ans. (b) : In a dual cycle a part of the heat is first 4 4
supplied to the system at constant volume and then the = 351.85
remaining part at constant pressure ≈ 352 cc
132
55. In an Otto cycle the compression ratio is 9 : 1 ρ = cut off ratio
and the pressure and temperature at the 1  ργ − 1 
beginning of the compression process are 100 ηd = 1 − γ−1  
kPa and 10o C. The heat addition by r  γ (ρ − 1) 
combustion gives the highest temperature as 1  1.781.4 − 1 
2500 K. Specific het added by combustion is : = 1 − (1.4−1)  
(a) 0.762 MJ/kg (b) 1.303 MJ/kg 14 1.4(1.78 − 1) 
(c) 0.286 MJ/kg (d) 1.048 MJ/kg = 60.4%
BHEL ET 2019 57. In an Otto cycle, the heat addition and heat
Ans. (b) : Given - rejection take place at
In Otto cycle - (a) constant volume and at constant pressure
9 respectively
Compression ratio ( r ) = (b) constant volume and at constant volume
1
v1 9 respectively
= (c) constant pressure and at constant volume
v2 1
respectively
P1 = 100 kPa, T1 = 100 C = 273 + 10 = 283 K (d) constant pressure and at constant pressure
T3 = 2500 K respectively
= 1.005 kJ/kgK , CV = 0.718 kJ/kgK. γ = 1.4 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
T1V1 γ−1 = T2 V2 γ−1 Ans. (b) : constant volume and at constant volume
γ −1 respectively
T1  V2 
=  58. For the same compression ratio and same heat
T2  V1  rejection, the efficiency of Otto cycle is
γ −1 (a) same as that of Diesel Cycle
T2  V1 
 = (9)
1.4 −1
= = 9 0.4 (b) not comparable to that of Diesel Cycle
T1  V2  (c) less than that of Diesel Cycle
T2 (d) more than that of Diesel Cycle
= 2.4082 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
T1
Ans. (d) : more than that of Diesel Cycle
T2 = 2.40822 × 283
T2 = 681.5275 K 59. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle for
Specific heat addition by combustion - a compression ratio of 5 and index γ = 1.4 is
Qha = mCv × (T3 – T2) (a) 60% (b) 50%
= 1 × 0.718 [2500 – 681.5275] (c) 47.47% (d) 40%
= 0.718 × 1818.4724 = 1.305 MJ/kg. UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
56. A diesel engine has a compression ratio of 14 Ans. (c) : Given, r = 5
and cutoff takes place at 6% of the stroke. The Air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle
γ−1
air standard efficiency will be 1
(a) 74.5% (b) 60.5% η otto = 1 −  
r
(c) 52.5% (d) 44.5%
1.4−1
ESE 2019 1
=1−  
Ans. (b) : Given, r
r = 14 = 47.47%
(V3 − V2) = 0.06 (V1 − V2)
60. Air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle having
 V3   V1  compression ratio 4 and adiabatic exponent for
 V − 1  = 0.06  V − 1
 2   2  air r =1.5 will be:-
(ρ − 1) = 0.06 (r − 1) (a) 50% (b) 75%
(ρ − 1) = 0.06 (14 − 1) (c) 25% (d) 5.0%
ρ = 1.78 UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
r = compression ratio Ans. (a) : We know that efficiency of an otto cycle
1 1
ηotto = 1 − = 1 − 1.5−1 = 0.50
[C.R.] r −1
[ 4]
ηotto = 50%
61. The thermal efficiency of an ideal Otto cycle:-
(a) Increases with compression ratio
(b) Increases with specific heat ratio
(c) Increases with compression ratio and specific
heat ratio
133
 (d) Increases with compression ratio but Brake power
decreases with specific heat ratio Ans : (a) mechanical efficiency =
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II Indicated power
Ans. (c) : The thermal efficiency of an ideal Otto cycle 2πNT
Brake power = kW
increases with compression ratio and specific heat ratio. 60 ×1000
62. For same value of compression ratio and heat P LANK
input, the order of thermal efficiency of Otto, Indicated power = m kW.
60 × 1000
Diesel and Dual cycles will be as under:-
(a) ηOtto > ηDiesel > ηDual (b) ηOtto > ηDual > ηDiesel 69. A two stroke engine has a speed of 750 rpm. A
four stroke engine having an identical cylinder
(c) ηDiesel > ηDual > ηOtto (d) ηDual > ηDiesel > ηOtto
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
size running at 1500 rpm. The theoretical output
of the two stroke engine will be :
Ans. (b) : (a) twice that of the four stroke engine
63. Consider the following statements : (b) half that of the four stroke engine
1. An I.C. engine transforms chemical energy (c) the same as that of the four stroke engine
into mechanical energy. (d) depend upon whether it is a CI or SI engine
2. A compressed spring possess potential (KPSC AE. 2015)
energy. Ans : (c) A two stroke engine has a speed of 750 rpm.
3. A football rolling on the ground performs
A four stroke engine having an identical cylinder size
plane motion.
running at 1500 rpm. The theoretical output of the two
4. Strain gauges are used to measure torque.
stroke engine will be the same as that of the four stroke
Following are the correct statements : engine.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only 70. For the same maximum pressure and heat input,
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I the most efficient cycle is
(a) Brayton (b) Otto
Ans. (d) : 1, 2 and 4 only (c) Diesel (d) Dual
64. Which process is not associated with diesel RPSC AE 2016
cycle? (HPPSC AE 2014)
(a) Constant pressure (b) Constant volume Ans : (c) (i) For same compression ratio and heat
(c) Adiabatic (d) Isothermal
addition
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
ηotto > ηdual > ηDiesel
Ans. (d) : Isothermal
65. For a four stroke diesel engine exhaust gas ( ii ) for same compression ratio and heat rejection
temperature ηotto > ηDual > ηDiesel
(a) Increases with load (iii) for same maximum pressure and heat input
(b) Decreases with load ηDiesel > ηDual > ηotto
(c) Is constant throughout the variation of load 71. In a two stroke cycle engine, the operations
(d) No prediction is possible namely suction, compression, expansion and
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II exhaust are completed in the number of
Ans. (a) : Increases with load revolutions of crank shaft equal to
66. For the same compression ratio and heat input, (a) Four (b) Three
the efficiency of an Otto cycle engine as (c) Two (d) One
compared to diesel engine is Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
(a) more (b) less Ans. (d) : In-2 stroke engine, the working cycle is
(c) equal (d) none of these completed in two strokes of the piston or one revolution
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II of the crankshaft.
Ans. (a) : More 72. For the same maximum pressure and
67. Diesel cycle efficiency is maximum when cut off is temperature of Otto, diesel and duel
(a) minimum (b) maximum combustion air standard cycles
(c) zero (d) none of the above (a) the compression ratios will be the same
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II (b) the heat supplied to the cycles will be the
Ans. (a) : Minimum same
68. The ratio of brake power to indicated power of (c) the air standard efficiency will have the same
an I.C. engine is called as value
(a) mechanical efficiency (d) the heat rejected by the engine will be the
(b) Thermal efficiency same
(c) Volumetric efficiency JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
(d) Relative efficiency Ans. (d) : For the same maximum pressure and
TSPSC AEE 2015 temperature of Otto cycle diesel and dual combustion
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II air standard cycles the heat rejected.
134
73. For same output, same speed and same 1.2VS + VS 2.2VS
compression ratio, the thermal efficiency of a = =
15 15
two stroke cycle petrol engine as compared to
that for four stroke cycle petrol engine is 2.2VS
V3
(a) more Cut-off ratio (ρ) = = 15
(b) less V2 VS
(c) same as long as compression ratio is same 15
(d) same as long as output is same 2.2VS 15
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 ×
15 VS
Ans. (b) : The thermal efficiency of two stroke petrol
engine as compared to that of a four-stroke petrol cut − off ratio = ( ρ ) = 2.2
engine for same output, same speed and same
compression ratio is less. 76. The crank radius of a single cylinder IC engine
74. Most of the high-speed compression engine is 60 mm and the diameter of the cylinder is 80
operate on mm. The swept volume of the cylinder in cm3 is :
(a) Diesel engine (a) 48 (b) 96
(c) 301 (d) 603
(b) Otto cycle
(c) dual combustion cycle UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
(d) special type of air cycle Ans. (d) : Given,
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V Diameter of cylinder (D) = 80 mm = 8 cm
TNPSC AE 2014 Radius of crank (r) = 60 mm = 6 cm
Ans : (c) : Most of the high speed compression engine ∴ Length of stroke (L) = 2 r = 12 cm
operates on dual combustion cycle. Sewpt volume of the cylinder,
π π
VS = D2 L = × ( 8 ) × 12
75. An IC engine works with a compression ratio 2
of 16. If cut off happens at 8% of the stroke, 4 4
then the cut-off ratio of this engine is : VS = 603.18 cm3
(a) 1.2 (b) 2.2
(c) 4.2 (d) 3.2 2. SI and CI Engines
BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (b) : Given - 77. For same power and same speed, the flywheel of
Compression ratio = r = 6 a four-stroke engine as compared to two-stroke
cut-off ratio (ρ) = 8% of stroke I.C. engine will be :
8 (a) smaller
( V3 − V2 ) = × VS (b) bigger
100 (c) same size
(d) dependent on other engine parameters
(HPPSC AE 2014)
Ans : (b) Four-stroke Engine Two-stroke Engine
(i) Turning moment is not so (i)Turning moment is
uniform and hence a heavier more uniform and
flywheel is needed hence a lighter
flywheel can be
used.
(ii) Higher volumetric efficiency (ii)Lower volumetric
V3 – V2 = 0.08 Vs due to more time for mixture efficiency. due to
V3 = 0.08 Vs + V2 ...(1) intake lesser time for
Vc + Vs mixture intake
compression ratio r = 16 = (iii) Part load efficiency (iii)Part load efficiency
Vc
is better is poor.
16 Vc = Vc + Vs
(iv) Four- stroke engine (iv)Two- Stroke engines
15 Vc = Vs
haves valves and valve have no valve but
Vs mechanism only ports.
Vc =
15 (v) one power stroke in two (v) One power stroke in
[∵ Vc = V2 ] revolutions lesser cooling one revolution of
crank shaft.
V and lubrication requirement lower Greater cooling and
V2 = S
15 rate of wear and tear. lubrication
From equation (1) requirement. Higher
V rate of wear and
V3 = 0.08VS + S tear.
15
135
78. Consider the following statements:
Combustion chamber is
(1) the volume between TDC and BDC during
the combustion process.
(2) the space enclosed between the upper part of
the cylinder and the top of the piston during
the combustion process
(3) the space enclosed between TDC and the top
of the piston during the combustion process
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE 2019
Ans. (b) : A combustion chamber is that part of an
internal combustion engine or a reaction engine in
which the fuel/air mix is burned.
It is the space enclosed between the upper part of the
cylinder and the top of the piston during the combustion
process.
79. Scavenging air in diesel engine means:
(a) Air used for combustion sent under pressure
(b) Forced air for cooling cylinder
(c) Burnt air containing product of combustion
(d) Air used for forcing burnt gases out of engine
cylinder during the exhaust period.
SJVN ET 2013
Ans.(d) : Scavenging is the process of removing the burnt
gases from the combustion chamber of the engine cylinder.
80. Which is correct for diesel power plant?
(a) No ash handling, but high operating cost
(b) Difficult to design, but low maintenance cost
(c) Low efficiency at part loads, but noise
problem
(d) All of these
SJVN ET 2013
Ans. (a) : For diesel power plant no ash handling, but
high operating cost.
81. Consider the following statements:
Detonation in the SI engine can be suppressed
by
1. Retarding the spark timing
2. increasing the engine speed
3. using 10% rich mixture
4. using a fuel of high octane rating of these
statements
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1 and 2 are correct
(e) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
Ans. (e) :
Detonation in the SI engine can be suppressed by
1. Retarding the spark timing
2. Increasing the engine speed
3. Using 10% rich mixture
4. Using a fuel of high octane rating of these statements
5. Reduction in compression ratio, temperature of
cylinder wall and over load on the engine.
6. Increasing turbulance in engine cylinder.
136
82. The most perfect method of scavenging is
(a) Cross scavenging
(b) Uniflow scavenging
(c) Loop scavenging
(d) Reverse flow scavenging
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (b) : The most perfect method of scavenging is
uniflow scavenging.
Uniflow scavenging is a design used by some
two-stroke engines where the fresh charge enters near
the bottom of the cylinder and the exhaust gases exit
through a vale situated at the top of the cylinder.
83. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel
engine, the inlet valve [TDC-Top Dead Centre,
BDC-Bottom Dead Centre]
(a) Opens at 20º before TDC and closes at 35º
after BDC
(b) Opens at TDC and closes at BDC
(c) Opens at 10º after TDC and closes at 20º
before BDC
(d) remain open for 200º
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (a) : In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle
diesel engine, the inlet valve [TDC-Top Dead Centre,
BDC-Bottom Dead Centre] Opens at 20º before TDC
and closes at 35º after BDC.
84. A Gasoline engine running in a closed room is
dangerous because the exhaust gas contains
mainly
(a) Blue smoke (b) Water vapour
(c) Carbon monoxide (d) Air
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (c) : A Gasoline engine running in a closed room
is dangerous because the exhaust gas contains mainly
Carbon monoxide.
85. Petrol engines are not suitable for part-load
operation, because
(a) mechanical efficiency is poor due to
increasing internal losses at increased
throttling
(b) of fear of pre-ignition
(c) of huge knocking
(d) of increased detonation tendency
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (a) : Petrol engines are not suitable for part-load
operation, because mechanical efficiency is poor due to
increasing internal losses at increased throttling.
86. A distributor in spark ignition engines
performs the function of
(a) distributing the right quantity of fuel oil to the
desired cylinder
(b) distributing the air requirement appropriately
(c) adding additives to fuel oil
(d) providing the correct firing order in the
engine
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (d) : A distributor in spark ignition engines
performs the function of providing the correct firing
order in the engine.
87. Engine knock can be measured by using Ans : (a) If diesel is fed into petrol engine then the
(a) Combustion pressure sensor engine will not run.
(b) Mechanical vibration sensor 92. Lean mixture in an automobile is required
(c) Ion current measurement
during :
(d) All the above
(a) Idling (b) Starting
TNPSC AE 2017
(c) Accelerating (d) Cruising
Ans. (d) : Engine knock can be measured by using
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
A - Combustion pressure sensor
B - Mechanical vibration Ans : (d) Lean mixture in an automobile is required
C - Ion current measurement during cruising
88. In petrol engines, advancing the spark timing Operation A/F ratio
will Idling 12-12.5
(a) Decrease Cruising/normal 16- 16.5
(b) Not effect Maximum power 12-13
(c) Increase the knocking tendency Starting 3-5
(d) Unpredictable 93. In case of petrol engines, at starting
APPSC AEE 2016 (a) rich fuel-air ratio is needed
Ans. (c) : In petrol engines, advancing the spark timing (b) weak fuel-air ratio is needed
will increase the knocking tendency. (c) chemically correct fuel-air ratio is needed
89. Ignition lag is (d) any fuel-air ratio will do
(a) Time before actual fuel injection and the RPSC AE 2016
pump plunger starts to pump fuel Ans : (a) Petrol engine at starting rich fuel air ratio in
(b) Time corresponding to actual ignition needed.
(c) Time corresponding to actual injection and Operation A/F ratio
TDC Idling 12 - 12.5
(d) Time taken by fuel after injection (before Cruising 16 - 16.5
TDC) to reach up to auto ignition temperature Max power 12 - 13
APPSC AEE 2016 Starting 3-5
Ans. (d) : Ignition lag is time taken by fuel after 94. Knocking tendency in an SI engine reduces with
injection (before TDC) to reach up to auto ignition increasing
temperature. (a) Supercharging (b) Wall temperature
90. In IC engine (c) Compression ratio (d) Engine speed
1. the ideal air capacity of a two-stroke engine is (KPSC AE 2015)
the mass of air required to concurrently fill Ans : (d) Knocking tendency in an SI engine reduces
the total cylinder volume at inlet temperature with increasing engine speed.
and exhaust pressure Factor tending to reduce knocking in SI engine
2. with increase in air-fuel ratio beyond the * Self ignition temperature of fuel - High
value for maximum power, there is a fall in * Compression ratio - Low
power developed and this fall is more with * Inlet temperature and pressure - Low
higher values of air-fuel ratio. * Super charging - No
3. the volumetric efficiency of the engine * Spark advance - No
depends on the design of intake and exhaust * Flame travel distance - Small
manifold.
* Engine size - Small
Which of the above are correct?
* Engine Speed - High
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
* Octane rating - High
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE 2018 95. An air-fuel ratio 8 will have
(a) chemically correct air (b) excess fuel
Ans. (d) : All statements are correct.
Volumetric efficiency indicates the breathing ability of (c) excess air (d) any of the above
the engine. RPSC AE 2016
Intake system and exhaust manifold must be designed in Ans : (b)
such a way that the engine must be able to take in as (i) A mixture which contains less air than the
much air as possible to the rate at which the volume is stoichiometric requirement is called a rich mixture
displaced by the system. (Excess fuel)
91. If diesel is fed into petrol engine then the engine Example: A/F ratio of 12:1, 8:1, 10:1 etc)
will: (ii) A mixture which contains more air than the
(a) Not run (b) Knock stoichometric requirement is called a lean mixture
(c) Detonate (d) Give lot of smoke (Excess air)
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II Example: A/F ratio of 17:1, 20:1 etc)
137
96. In naturally aspirated engine, pressure inside mixture of CO2 and N2 in the mole proportion
cylinder at the end of suction stroke is of 0.8 and 0.2. The duct is 0.5 m long. The
(a) less than atmospheric diffusion of CO2 is. (Take Diffusion coefficient
(b) same as atmospheric = 0.16 × 10-4 m2/s)
(c) more than atmospheric (a) 3.43 × 10-6 kg/s (b) 2.23 × 10-6 kg/s
-6
(d) depends on atmospheric conditions (c) 3.5 × 10 kg/s (d) 3.8 × 10-6 kg/s
RPSC AE 2016 (e) 2.5 × 10-6 kg/s
Ans : (a) In naturally aspirated engine, pressure inside CGPSC AE 2014 -II
cylinder at the end of suction stroke is less then Ans. (c) 3.5 × 10-6 kg/s
atmospheric. 102. The knocking tendency in CI engine increases
97. in a four stroke cycle diesel engine during with
suction stroke (a) decrease of compression ratio
(a) only air is sucked in (b) increase in coolant water temperature
(b) only fuel is sucked in (c) increase of compression ratio
(c) mixture of fuel and air is sucked in (d) increase of temperature of inlet air
(d) first air is sucked in, later fuel is sucked in BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
TSPSC AEE 2015 TNPSC AE 2014
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans : (a) In a four stroke cycle diesel engine during Ans : (a) : Diesel engine knock can be reduced by
suction stroke only air is sucked. increasing–
Diesel cycle:- • Compression ratio
1-2 :- Isentropic compression • Degree of supercharge
2-3:- heat addition (p = C) • Increasing the injection retard
3-4:- Isentropic Expansion 103. An IC engine has a bore and stroke length of 4
4-5:- Heat rejection (V=C) cm each. Total surface area through which heat
transfer takes place in cm2 is
(a) 18π (b) 24π
(c) 28π (d) 8π
BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (b) : Given

98. Fuel injection pressure in solid injection system

is approximately in the range of
(a) <10.5 bar (b) 10.5-21 bar
(c) 30 - 50 bar (d) 200 - 246 bar
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II Stroke length ( ℓ ) = 4 cm
Ans.: (d) Fuel injection pressure in solid injection bore diameter (d) = 4 cm
system is approximately in the range of 200-246 bar. Heat transfer take place
99. Delay period of CI engine fuel is affected by at total surface area of cylinder
(a) Properties of fuel = 2πr [ r + ℓ ]
(b) Atomization of fuel
= 2 × π× 2 [ 2 + 4]
(c) Compression ratio of engine
(d) All the above = 2 × π× 2 × 6 = 24π cm 2
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II 104. Problem of scavenging appears in case of
Ans. (d) : All the above (a) Petrol engine (b) Diesel engine
100. The amount of air which is supplied for (c) Four stroke engine (d) Two stroke engine
complete combustion is called UJVNL AE 2016
(a) primary air (b) secondary air Ans : (d) Problem of scavenging appears in case of two
(c) tertiary air (d) none of these stroke engine
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II Scavenging:-The process of removing burnt gases,
Ans. (b) : Secondary air from the combustion chamber of the engine cylinder, is
101. A tank contains a mixture of CO2 and N2 in the known as scavenging.
mole proportions of 0.2 and 0.8 at 1 bar and Scavengin are two types
290 K. It is connected by a duct of sectional 1) Cross flow scavenginng
area 0.1 m2 to another tank containing a 2) Back or loop scavenging
138
105. Detonation in spark ignition engines is due to (d) Initially reduces till chemically corrected ratio
early autoignition of the charge than increases
(a) near the spark plug OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(b) near the exhaust valve Ans : (c) : Initially increases till chemically corrected
(c) near the suction valve ratio than reduces.
(d) near the combustion cylinder walls 113. Piston in IC Engine is usually made of
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II (a) Copper alloy (b) Tungsten alloy
Ans. (d) : Near the combustion cylinder walls (c) Nickel alloy (d) Aluminium alloy
106. Piston rings are generally made of following Gujarat PSC AE 2019
material: Ans : (d) : Piston in IC engine is usually made of
(a) Cast iron (b) Aluminium aluminium alloy because it is lighter aluminium alloy.
(c) Copper (d) Carbon steel Commonly used materials for IC engine piston are cast
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II iron, cast steel, forged steel, cast aluminium alloys and
Ans. (a) : Cast iron forged aluminium alloy. Advantages of aluminium over
cast iron high thermal conductivity.
107. In a low speed S.I. engine, the inlet valve closes
approximately:- 114. At the time of starting, idling and low-speed
(a) 40° after BDC (b) 30° before BDC operation, the carburettor supplies a mixture
(c) 10° after BDC (d) 10° before BDC which can be termed as
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II (a) lean
(b) slightly leaner than stoichiometric
Ans. (c) :
(c) stoichiometric
108. Carbon deposit on the cylinder head of an I.C. (d) rich
engine tend to increase:- Gujarat PSC AE 2019
(a) Clearance volume (b) Compression ratio OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(c) Swept volume (d) None of the above CGPSC AE 2014- II
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II RPSC AE 2016
Ans. (b) : Carbon deposit on the cylinder head of an (KPSC AE. 2015)
I.C. engine tend to increase compression ratio. Ans : (d) : The no load running mode of the engine is
109. In a variable speed S.I. engine, the maximum called idling.
torque occurs at the maximum The problem of dilution of charge by residual
(a) speed gases becomes more pronounced at low loads and idling
(b) brakepower hence richer mixture (Air-fuel ratio around 12.5:1) is
(c) indicated power required
(d) volumetric efficiency 115. The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine is
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II controlled by
Ans. (b) : brakepower (a) Fuel pump (b) Governor
110. Statement (I): Air-blast injection in diesel (c) Injector (d) Carburettor
engines could reduce engine efficiency. Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Statement (II): Air-blast injection in diesel Ans : (d) : The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine is
engines is not instantaneous but happens when the controlled by carburettor.
piston moves outward with the injection valve 116. Self-ignition temperature of petrol is of the order
remaining open for whatever reason. of :
ESE 2017 (a) 150°C (b) 370°C
Ans. (a) : (c) 450°C (d) more than 500°C
111. 4 stroke engine as compared to 2 stroke engine (HPPSC AE 2014)
has: Ans : (d) The Self Ignition auto ignition temperature is
(a) Lower volumetric efficiency lowest temperature at which a fuel such as petrol or
(b) Higher fuel consumption diesel spontaneously ignites in normal atmosphere
(c) Smaller size of flywheel without an external source of ignition, such as a flame
(d) Bigger size of engine for same output or spark.
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II * Self ignition temperature of petrol is 247–280 0C
Ans : (c) : 4 stroke engine as compared to 2 stroke * Self ignition temperature of diesel is around 210 0C
engine has smaller size of flywheel. So as seen, diesel has low self ignition temperature, and
112. With increase in Air fuel ratio the level of HCs that's why diesel engine doesn't have a spark plug.
in exhaust gas: Note:- HPPSC given answer more than 500 0C
(a) Increased 117. The function of fuel injector is to:-
(b) Reduces (a) Pump the fuel at high pressure
(c) Initially increases till chemically corrected (b) Mix diesel with air
ratio than reduces (c) Atmoise the fuel
139
 (d) Ignite the fuel 123. Which design of the combustion chamber has
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II less problem in cold starting?
Ans. (c) : The function of fuel injector is to atmoise the (a) M Combustion Chamber
fuel. (b) Open Combustion Chamber
118. Duration between the time of injection and time (c) Air-Cell Combustion Chamber
of ignition in a diesel engine is called: (d) Any design of Combustion Chamber
(a) Lead period OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(b) Delay period Ans : (a) : M - Combustion chamber has less problem in
(c) Combustion period cold starting.
(d) period of compression 124. Which type of nozzle is preferred to avoid weak
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II injection and dribbling of fuel in combustion
Ans : (b) Duration between the time of injection and chamber?
time of ignition in a diesel engine is called delay period. (a) Single hole (b) Multi hole
Delay period in compression ignition engines depends (c) Pintle (d) Pintaux
upon OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(i) Temperature and pressure in the cylinder at the time Ans : (c) : Pintle type of nozzle is preffered to avoid
of injection. weak injection and dribbling of fuel in combustion
(ii) Nature of the fuel mixture strength chamber.
(iii) Relative velocity between the fuel injection and air 125. In a petrol engine the spark plug gap is of the
turbulence pressure of residual gases. order
119. By advancing the spark timing the S.I. engine, (a) 0.10 m.m (b) 0.60 m.m
the tendency of knocking (c) 0.01 m.m (d) 0.15 m.m
(a) increases UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(b) decreases Ans. (b) : 0.60 m.m
(c) remains uneffected 126. Source of electrical energy in SI engine is
(d) may increase or decrease (a) battery (b) magneto
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II (c) generator (d) any of the above
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Ans. (a) : Increases Ans. (d) : Any of the above
120. Voltage developed to strike spark in the spark 127. In parson’s steam turbine, steam expands in
plug is in the range (a) nozzles only
(a) 6 to 12 volts (b) 100 to 200 volts (b) blades only
(c) 1000 to 2000 volts (d) 20000 - 25000 volts (c) partly in nozzles and partly in blades
RPSC AE 2016 (d) none of the above
RPSC AE 2018 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans : (d) Spark plug :- It is always screwed into the Ans. (c) : partly in nozzles and partly in blades
cylinder head for ignition the charge of petrol engines. 128. In carburetors the meter rod economizer is
It is usually designed to withstand a pressure up to 35
used to supply air fuel mixture during:
bar and operate under of 10000 to 30000 volts
(a) Cold starting (b) Acceleration
121. The knocking sensitivity of engines could be (c) Ideling (d) Power enrichment
reduced by OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(a) Compact combustion chamber geometry RPSC AE 2016
(b) Central position of the spark plug UJVNL AE 2016
(c) Increased turbulence Ans : (d) : Economiser is basically a valve that remains
(d) All the above closed at normal cruise operation and gets opened to
TNPSC AE 2017 supply rich mixture at full throttle operation. It regulates
Ans. (d) : The knocking sensitivity of engines could be the additional fuel supply during full throttle operation.
reduced by compact combustion chamber geometry, So it can be called a power enrichment system.
central position of the spark plug, and increased 129. Ignition accelerators are substance which
turbulence. (a) increase the rate of pre-flame reaction and
122. Knocking takes place in C.I. Engines reduce the ignition lag
(a) at the start of combustion (b) increase knock
(b) at the end of combustion (c) reduce detonation
(c) during combustion (d) increase thermal efficiency
(d) during the delay period BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
TNPSC AE 2017 Ans : (a) : Ignition accelerators are substance which
Ans. (a) : Knocking takes place in C.I. Engines at the increase the rate of pre-flame reaction and reduce the
start of combustion. ignition lag.
140
130. Which device can be used to measure aromatic
hydrocarbon in exhaust gas?
(a) Dispersion analyzer
(b) Non-dispersive infrared analyzer
(c) Flame ionization detector
(d) All of these
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (d) : All of these
131. The NOx level in exhaust gas can be reduced by
the following method:
(a) Thermal reactor
(b) After burner
(c) Advance spark timing
(d) Exhaust gas recirculation
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (d) : NOx emission can be reduced by primary
methods such as retard injection, fuel nozzle
modification change of compression ratio, water direct
injection, water emulsification.
132. Which device is used in SI engine to develop
high voltage for spark?
(a) Battery (b) Distributor
(c) Ignition coil (d) Spark plug
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (d) : A spark plug is an electrical device that fits
into the cylinder head of some IC engines and ignites
compressed aerosol gasoline by means of an electric
spark.
133. The effect of Iso-octane content in fuel for SI
engine on auto ignition is:
(a) Accelerate
(b) Retard
(c) Does not affect
(d) Initially increases then reduces
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (a) : The effect of iso-octane content in fuel for SI
engine on auto ignition is accelerated.
134. The spark advance is specified in:
(a) Time in seconds
(b) Degree of crank rotation
(c) Percentage of engine speed in rpm
(d) None of these
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (b) : The spark advance is specified in degree of
crank rotation.
135. Which is the best option to avoid knock in SI
engine?
(a) Supercharging of Engine
(b) Delay period should low
(c) Delay period should high
(d) Spark should be advanced
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (b) : Delay period should be low is the best
option to avoid knock in SI engine.
136. Assertion (A): A simple or elementary
carburettor provides progressively rich
mixture with increasing air flow.
Reason (R) : The density of the air tends to
increase as the rate of air flow increases.
141
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true and R is
not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (c) : At higher speed a simple carburetor provide
rich mixture because of reduced mass flow rate of air.
This reduced mass flow rate is due to decreases in
density at higher speed. The density of air decrease at
higher speed due to compressibility effect.
137. Velocity of flame propagation in the SI engine
is maximum for a fuel-air mixture which is
(a) 10% richer than stoichiometric
(b) Equal to stoichiometric
(c) More than 10% richer than stoichiometric
(d) 10% leaner than stoichiometric
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
Ans. (a) : Flame velocity in SI engine combustion is
maximum when mixture strength is 10% rich. Because
in this condition, the temperature is maximum and
combustion is very good resulting maximum
combustion products. But at the same time, this is also
the situation of detonation.
138. The essential function of the carburettor in a
spark ignition engine is to :
(a) Meter the fuel into air stream and amount
dictated by the load and speed
(b) Bring about mixing of air and fuel to get a
homogeneous mixture
(c) Vaporise the fuel
(d) Distribute fuel uniformly to all cylinders in a
multi cylinder engine and also vaporise it.
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
Ans. (b) : The process of formation of a combustible
fuel-air mixture by mixing the proper amount of fuel
with air before admission to engine cylinder is called
carburetion and the device which is used for this job is
called a carburetor.
139. Piezo electric type of load cells can be used for
measurement of
(a) dynamic forces only
(b) dynamic forces and static forces provided the
load cells have a small time constant
(c) dynamic forces and static forces provided that
the load cells have a large time constant
(d) static force only
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (c) : Piezo electric type of load cells can be used
for measurement of dynamic forces and static forces
provided that the load cells have a large time constant.
140. The mass of excess air supplied is equal to
23
(a) × mass of excess carbon
100
23
(b) × mass of excess oxygen
100
 100
(c) × mass of excess carbon
23
100
(d) × mass of excess oxygen
23
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
Ans. (d) : In order to ensure complete and rapid
combustion of fuel. Some quantity of air, in excess of
the theoretical minimum air, is supplied. We know that
in order to supply one kg of oxygen, we need 100/23 of
air, similarly, the mass of excess air supplied.
100
= × mass of excess oxygen
23
141. For each mole of oxygen, number of moles of
nitrogen required for complete combustion of
carbon are
(a) 20/21 (b) 2/21
(c) 77/21 (d) 79/21
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (d) : Most commonly, the fuel is a hydrocarbon a
compound of hydrogen and carbon. The ideal oxidizer
is pure oxygen, but most commonly, it is air. For our
work, air will be regarded as a mixture of nitrogen and
oxygen, with respective mole fraction of 79% and 21%.
For each mole of oxygen in air, there was 79/21
= 3.76 moles of nitrogen.
142. Which of the following is not a function of
nozzle in fuel injection
(a) Atomization
(b) Distribution of fuel to the required area
(c) Impingement on the walls
(d) No dribbling
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (c) : The function of nozzle in fuel injection
system are to filter the fuel, to time the fuel injection, to
break up the fuel into small particles. Non-impingement
on the walls function of nozzle.
143. Which of the following is the most effective air
cleaner in case of diesel engine
(a) Dry type (b) Wet type
(c) Whirl type (d) Oil bath type
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (d) : Oil bath type most effective air-cleaner in
diesel engine, reason :- When air-fuel ratio is about 10%
rich mixture, then a high flame speed is obtained in
diesel engine.
144. The air-fuel ratio in petrol engines is controlled
by
(a) Governing
(b) Injection
(c) Controlling valve opening/closing
(d) Carburetion
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (d) : Air fuel ratio in petrol-engine is controlled by
carburetor and not by injector or fuel pump.
145. Carburetion is process of
(a) Forming a combustible air-fuel mixture by
mixing the proper amount of fuel and air
before admitting it into the engine cylinder
142
(b) Igniting the air-fuel mixture into the engine
cylinder during power stroke
(c) Combusting the carbon in the atmosphere
(d) None of these
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (a) : Carburetion is process of forming a combustible
air-fuel mixture by mixing the proper amount of fuel and
air before entering to engine cylinder.
146. Flash point of a volatile material is the lowest
temperature at which material
(a) ignites in presence of ignition source
(b) evaporates
(c) ignites without the presence of ignition
source
(d) none of the above
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (a) : The flash point of a volatile material is the
lowest temperature at which vapour of materials will
ignite, when given an ignition source.
147. Auto ignition point of the gasoline lies between
the temperature range
(a) 147-200 ºC (b) 247-280 ºC
(c) 347-380 ºC (d) 347-447 ºC
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (b) : Auto ignition point of the gasoline lies
between the temperature range 247-280ºC.
148. The correct statement is
(a) Fire point is higher than the flash point
(b) Fire point is lower that the flash point
(c) There is no relation between Fire point and
the flash point
(d) Sometimes Fire point is higher and some
time is Flash point
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (a) : The fire point is higher than the flash point
because at the flash point more vapor may not be
produced rapidly enough to sustain combustion.
149. Flammable fuels have
(a) Flash point more the than 37.8ºC
(b) Flash point lesser than 37.8ºC
(c) No temperature limits
(d) only pressure dependency
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (b) : Flammable fuels have a flash point below
37.8ºC (100ºF).
150. The process of replacement of combustion
products with fresh air charge
(a) Trubocharging (b) Idling
(c) Supercharging (d) Scavenging
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (d) : The process of replacement of combustion
products with fresh air charge is known as scavening.
151. The time interval between ignition initiation
and the actual start of combustion
(a) Self ignition (b) Ignition delay
(c) Pre-ignition (d) Idling
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (b) : The time interval between ignition initiation
and the actual start of combustion known as Ignition delay.
152. In a 4–cylinder, 4–stroke Diesel engine Ans. (a) : Reducing the combustion-chamber surface are
operating at 1200 r.p.m., the duration of fuel reduces the amount of unburned HC in the exhaust gas.
injection is 20o. The time in seconds during 156. In the Passenger cars, the following type of
which fuel is injected would be carburetor is preferred
1 1 (a) Horizontal type
(a) secs (b) secs (b) Upward draught type
360 180
(c) Downward draught type
1 1 (d) Inclined draught type
(c) secs (d) secs
720 1440 TNPSC AE 2017
TNPSC AE 2014 Ans. (c) : Downward draught type of carburetor is
Ans. (a) : Angle turned by crank during fuel injection preferred in the passenger cars.
π 157. In C.I. Engine, the function air swirl is
θ = 20 0 = 20º × rad.
180º (a) Haphazard motion of air in the cylinder
N = 1200 rpm (b) rotary motion of the air for proper distribution
We know that of fuel in the cylinder
θ (c) radial motion of air in the cylinder
=ω (d) Mixing of air and fuel
t APPSC AEE 2016
 π  Ans. (b) : In C.I. Engine, the function air swirl is rotary
20º ×
θ  180º  1 motion of the air for proper distribution of fuel in the
t= = = secs cylinder.
ω  2π × 1200  360
 60  158. Consider the following statements:
1. Recycling exhaust gases by partial mixing
Where t is time in seconds during fuel is injected.
with the intake gases increases the emission
153. Flame speed in SI engine increases: of oxides of nitrogen from the engine.
(a) with increase in compression ratio 2. The effect of increase in altitude of operation
(b) with decrease in intake temperature and on the carburetor is to enrich the entire port-
pressure of the mixture throttle operation.
(c) with decrease in engine speed 3. When the carburetor throttle is suddenly
(d) with decrease in turbulence in mixture opened, the air-fuel mixture may lean out
(e) at very lean mixture temporarily resulting in engine stall.
CGPSC AE 2014- II 4. Use of multi-venturi system makes it possible
Ans. (a) : Factor influencing the flame speed. to obtain a high velocity air stream when the
1. Turbulence– Turbulence ↑→ speed ↑→ heat flow fuel is introduced at the main venturi throat.
to cylinder wall ↑→ flame speed ↑ Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
2. Compression ratio-
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
(C.R.) ↑→ P ↑ ,T ↑→ flame speed ↑ ESE 2018
3. Engine output- Engine output ↑→ turbulence ↑→ Ans. (c) : (i) Exhaust Gas Recirculation (EGR) is an
flame speed ↑ effective pretreatment technique, which is being used
4. Engine speed- ↑→ Vflame ↑ widely to reduce and control the oxides of nitrogen
(NOx) emission from diesel engine. Exhaust gas recycle
154. Modern CRDI engines uses injection pressure is done by ducting some of the exhaust flow back into
of the order of the intake system, usually immediately after the throttle.
(a) 400 bar (b) 800 bar Hence statement-1 is wrong.
(c) 1000 bar (d) 1600 bar (ii) An altitude compensating system which can vary the
TNPSC AE 2017 operating characteristic of a carburetor for obtaining a
Ans. (d) : CRDI Engine- CRDI stands for common rail desirable enriched air fuel ratio in accordance with
direct injection which means direct injection of fuel into changes in altitude.
the cylinder of a diesel engine through a single common (iii) In conventional carburetors, the air fuel ratio is
line called rail which is connected to fuel injectors. enriched for obtaining increased engine power when the
155. Reducing the combustion-chamber surface are throttle valve of the carburetor is opened.
(a) reduces the amount of unburned HC in the (iv) Multiple venturi systems having three venturies if
exhaust gas fuel is injected in third venturi air flow rate will
(b) increases the amount of unburned HC in the increases if fuel injection in main venturi air flow rate
exhaust gas will not change.
(c) reduces the amount of NOx in the exhaust gas Hence statement-4 is also wrong.
(d) increases the amount of unburned HC and 159. Which of the following actions will help to
NOx in the exhaust gas reduce the black smoke emission of a diesel
TNPSC AE 2017 engine?
143
 1. Run at lower load, i.e., derating
2. Have regular maintenance of the diesel
engine, particularly of injection system
3. Use diesel oil of higher cetane number
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE 2018
Ans. (d) : (i) Smoke emission increase with increase in
engine load due to overall richer fuel-air ratio.
So run engine at lower load reduce the black smoke
emission.
(ii) Poor control of fuel injection rate during
accelerating also increases smoke therefore regular
maintenance of the diesel engine, particularly of
injection system.
(iii) With increasing demand for improved ignition
quality and increasing cetane number specifications the
use of ignition improves addition has also risen which
will reduce black smoke emission.
The answer given by UPSC is option (a).
160. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more
fuel than the others, it is a serious condition for
that cylinder and can be checked by
1. judging the seizure of the piston
2. checking incomplete combustion in that
cylinder
3. checking cylinder exhaust temperature with a
pyrometer
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE 2018
Ans. (d) :
1. Judging the seizure of the piston
2. Checking incomplete combustion in that cylinder
3. Checking cylinder exhaust temperature with a
pyrometer.
161. Consider the following statements with
reference to combustion and performance in a
four-stroke petrol engine:
1. The auto-ignition temperature of petrol as a
fuel is higher than that of diesel oil as a fuel.165. Fuel is injected in a four-stroke CI engine:
2. The highest compression ratio of petrol
engines is constrained by the possibility of
detonation.
3. A petrol engine is basically less suitable for
supercharging than a diesel engine.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE 2018
Ans. (d) : Petrol have higher self ignition temperature,
high volatile to burn when you compress that much it
may burst out. Whereas diesel is low volatile and fire up
at the compression without any external source.
Supercharging is preferred in CI engine because it leads
to decrease delay period, therefore decrease detonation
144
where as in SI engine it increases compression ratio,
increases detonation.
Hence all statements are correct.
162. Which is not a part of magneto-ignition
system?
(a) Condenser (b) Battery
(c) Circuit breaker (d) Induction coil
(KPSC AE 2015)
Ans : (b) Battery is not a part of magneto- ignition
system.
Magneto ignition system:-The magneto ignition
system has the same principle of working as that of coil
ignition system. except that no battery is required, as the
magneto acts its own generator.
This type of ignition system is generally employed in
small spark ignition engines such as scooters, motor
cycles and small motor boat engines.
163. Major constituent of natural gas is:
(a) Ethane (b) Methane
(c) Propane (d) Butane
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans : (b) Major constituent of natural gas is methane.
The natural gas is usually. Found in or near the
petroleum fields under the earth's surface. It essentially,
consists of marsh gas or methane (CH4). Together with
small amounts of other gases such as ethane (C2H6),
Carbon dioxide (Co2) and Carbon mono-oxide (co).
164. The method of governing for a petrol engine is:
(a) Hit and misgoverning
(b) Quality governing
(c) Quantity governing
(d) Misgoverning
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans : (c) Governing of I.C. Engine:- In order to have a
high efficiency of an I.C. engine at different load
conditions, its speed must be kept constant as far as
possible. The process of providing any arrangement,
which will keep the speed constant is known as
governing of I.C Engines.
(i) The method of governing for a petrol engine is
Quantity governing.
(ii) The method of governing for a diesel engine is
Quality governing.
(a) At the end of suction stroke
(b) At the end of compression stroke
(c) At the end of expansion stroke
(d) At the end of exhaust stroke
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans : (b) Fuel is injected in a four-stroke CI engine at
the end of compression stroke.
The piston reaches the TDC (during the compression
stroke) fuel oil is the form of very fine spray into the
engine cylinder, through the nozzle, known as fuel
injection valve. At this moment, temperature of the
compressed air is sufficiently high to ignite the fuel. It
suddenly increased the pressure and temperature of the
products of combustion.
166. With increase in compression ratio flame speed:
(a) Increases
 (b) Remains same 174. The function of carburettor is to:-
(c) Decrease (a) Refining the fuel
(d) First increases and then remain constant (b) Increase the pressure of fuel vapours
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II (c) Inject petrol in cylinder
Ans : (a) With increases in compression ratio flame (d) Atomise and vapourise the fuel and to mix it
speed increases. with air in proper ratio
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
167. Iso-octane content in a fuel for S.I. Engines
(a) retards auto-ignition Ans. (d) : The function of carburettor is to atomise and
(b) accelerates auto-ignition vapourise the fuel and to mix it with air in proper ratio.
(c) does not affect auto ignition 175. In S.I. engine, the throttle valve of carburettor
(d) none of the above controls the quantity of:-
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (a) Fuel
(b) Air
Ans. (a) : retards auto-ignition
(c) Fuel and air mixture
168. The cetane number of automotive diesel fuel (d) Lubricating oil
used in India lies in which of the following UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
ranges ? Ans. (c) : In S.I. engine, the throttle valve of carburettor
(a) 30 – 40 (b) 41 – 50 controls the quantity of fuel and air mixture.
(c) 51 – 60 (d) 61 – 70 176. A Jerk pump used for fuel injection system is
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (a) Vane type (b) Rotary type
Ans. (b) : 41 – 50 (c) Reciprocating type (d) None of the above
169. Fuel injector is used in UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(a) steam engines Ans. (c) : Reciprocating type
(b) gas engines 177. Tetra ethyl lead in fuel is used to
(c) spark ignition engines (a) Increase the lubrications
(d) compression ignition engines (b) Decrease octane number
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (c) Increase octane number
Ans. (d) : compression ignition engines (d) None of the above
170. Some qualities of C.I. engine fuels are given UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
below. Select the quality which is not Ans. (c) : Increase octane number
desirable:- 178. Solid injection in C.I. engine refers to injection
(a) Good ignition quality of
(b) High volatility (a) Liquid fuel only (b) Liquid fuel and air
(c) High viscosity (c) Solid fuel (d) Solid fuel and air
(d) Low flash point UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II Ans. (a) : Liquid fuel only
Ans. (c) : High viscosity of C.I. engine fuels are not 179. Precise petrol injection system is :
desirable. (a) Direct injection
171. In C.I. engines, ignition delay can be reduced (b) Sequential injection
by:- (c) Throttle body injection
(a) Decreasing compression ratio (d) Port injection
(b) Increase in air inlet temperature HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
(c) Decrease in coolant temperature Ans : (c) Precise petrol injection system is throttle body
(d) Decreasing the engine speed injection.
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II The injector or atomizer is also an important part of the
Ans. (b) : In C.I. engines, ignition delay can be reduced diesel engine which breaks up the fuel and sprays into
by increase in air inlet temperature. the cylinder into a very fine divided particles.
172. The injection pressure in diesel engine is of the 180. Cetane number is the measure of:
order of:- (a) Delay period (b) Detonation
(a) 30 – 40 bar (b) 100 – 150 bar (c) Flash point (d) Ignition quality
(c) 200 – 300 bar (d) 400 – 600 bar OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans : (d) The ignition quality of diesel oil is expressed
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
by cetane number. It is defined as the percentage, by
Ans. (b) : The injection pressure in diesel engine is of volume, of cetane in a mixture of cetane and alpha-
the order of 100 – 150 bar. methyl- napthalene that produces the same ignition lag
173. In petrol engine, governor manipulates as the fuel being tested, in the same engine and under
(a) fuel pump (b) atomiser the same operating conditions. for example, a fuel of
(c) filter (d) throttle valve cetane number 50 has the same ignition quality as a
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I mixture of 50 percent cetane and 50 percent alpha-
Ans. (d) : Throttle valve methyl-naphthalene.
145
181. The effect of dissociation in combustion process
is for:
(a) Separating the product of combustion
(b) Reducing the flame temperature
(c) Reducing the use of excess air
(d) Reducing CO2 percentage in the gas
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (b) : Dissociation reaction is endothermic CO2
absorbs heat and becomes (CO + O2). H2O absorbs heat
and becomes (H2 + O2). These reactions reduce peak
temperatures produced.
182. Which option is not correct for I head
combustion chamber for SI engine?
(a) Higher volumetric efficiency
(b) Lower pumping losses
(c) Higher surface to volume ratio
(d) Less knocking
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (b) : I head combustion chamber has both the
inlet valve and the exhaust valve located in the cylinder
head, An overhead engine is superior to side valve
engine at high compression ratios.
183. Assertion (A): After burning increases the
thrust of a jet engine.
Reason (R) : The air fuel ratio of jet engine is
high.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true and R is
not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (b) : After burning in jet engine is equivalent to
reheat in gas turbine. Since air fuel ratio of jet engine is
high i.e., very lean mixture having excess air or oxygen,
some extra fuel can be burnt in exhaust gases. So in
after burning, secondary fuels is injected in exhaust
from turbine, which increases jet velocity from nozzle
and so the thrust.
184. Combustion in compression ignition engines is
(a) homogeneous (b) heterogeneous
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) laminar
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Ans : (b) : Combustion in compression ignition engine
is heterogeneous.
185. The design of piston head is based on,
(a) strength and rigidity considerations
(b) bending and torsional moments
(c) buckling consideration
(d) strength and heat transfer considerations
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
Ans. (d) : The piston head of an internal combustion
engine was designed to withstand the cylinder pressure
and dissipate the heat as quickly as possible. Therefore
the thickness of piston head was determined based on
two criteria, strength to withstand the cylinder pressure
and heat dissipation.
146
186. The ignition quality of diesel fuel is expressed by
(a) Octane number (b) Cetane number
(c) Carbon percentage (d) Calorific value
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
Ans : (b) (i) The ignition quality of diesel fuel is
expressed by cetane number. It is defined as the
percentage, by volume of cetane in a mixture of cetane
and alpha-methyl-napthalene.
The cetane which is a straight chain paraffin which
good ignition quality is assigned a cetane number of 100
and alpha-methyl-napthalene which is hydrocarbon with is
poor ignition quality is assigned 0 cetane number.
(ii) The knocking tendency of a fuel in SI engine is
generally expressed by its octane number. The
percentage, by volume of iso-octane in a mixture of iso-
octane and normal heptane.
187. Which is correct statement about reaction time
for auto ignition of fuel and the fuel air ratio?
(a) Lean mixture has low reaction time
(b) Rich mixture has high reaction time
(c) Chemically correct mixture has minimum
reaction time
(d) All of the above
(HPPSC AE 2014)
Ans : (d) Correct statement about reaction time for auto
ignition of fuel and the fuel air ratio.
(i) lean mixture has low reaction time
(ii) Rich mixture has high reaction time
(iii) Chemically correct mixture has minimum reaction
time.
188. Precise petrol injection system is :
(a) Direct injection
(b) Sequential injection
(c) Throttle body injection
(d) Port injection
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
Ans : (c) Precise petrol injection system is throttle body
injection.
The injector or atomizer is also an important part of the
diesel engine which breaks up the fuel and sprays into
the cylinder into a very fine divided particles.
189. In spark ignition engines knocking can be
reduced by:
(a) Increasing the compression ration
(b) Increasing the cooling water temperature
(c) Retarding the spark advance
(d) Increasing the inlet air temperature
MPPSC AE 2016
KPSC AE. 2015
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (c) In spark ignition engines knocking can be
reduced by Retarding the spark advance.
Factor tending to reduce knocking in SI engine
* Self ignition temperature of fuel - High
* Compression ratio - Low
* Inlet temperature and pressure - Low
* Super charging - No
* Spark advance - No
* Flame travel distance - Small
* Engine size - Small
* Engine Speed - High
* Octane rating - High
190. Which of the following consists of spark plug? (d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
(a) SI engine (b) CI engine JWM 2017
(c) Gas turbine (d) Steam engine Ans. (b) : Knocking and pre-ignition are the two words
RPSC AE 2016 explaining the same phenomena. Knocking occure only
UJVNL AE 2016 in the diesel engine while Pre-ignition occure only in
Ans : (a) SI engine consists of spark plug. A spark plug petrol engines. Pre-ignition is the ignition of the air-fuel
is a device used to produce spark for igniting the charge charge perior to the spark plug firing.
of petrol engines. It is always screwed into the cylinder 194. C.I. engine as compared to S.I. engine require
head. It is, usually, designed to withstand a pressure (a) No flywheel (b) Same size flywheel
upto 35 bar and operate under a current of 10000 to (c) Smaller flywheel (d) Bigger flywheel
30000 volts. The spark plug gap is kept from 0.3 mm to Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
0.7mm. Ans. (d) : C.I. engine compare S.I. engine require
191. The spark ignition engines are governed by bigger flywheel.
(a) hit and mis-governing 195. Scavenging is usually done to increase
(b) qualitative governing (a) Thermal efficiency (b) Speed
(c) quantitative governing (c) Power output (d) Fuel consumption
(d) combined (2) & (3) Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
TSPSC AEE 2015 Ans. (c) : Scavenging is a process of pushing exhaust
Ans : (c) The spark ignition engines are governed by gas out of the cylinder and drawing in fresh draught of
quantitative governing. air or air fuel mixture for the next. Scavenging is
Governing of I.C. engine:- In order to have a high usually done to increase power output.
efficiency of an IC engine, at different load conditions,
196. The volume of air required to consume 1 litre
its speed must be kept constant as for as possible. The
of fuel by a four stroke engine is
process of providing any arrangement which will keep
(a) 5–6 m3 (b) 9–10 m3
the speed constant is known as governing of I.C. 3
(c) 2–3 m (d) 15–18 m3
engines.
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
192. Consider the following statements: Knock in
Ans. (b) : Volume of 9-10 m3 air is required for
the S.I. engine can be reduced by
consuming 1 litre of fuel by a four-stroke engine.
(1) Supercharging
(2) Retarding the spark 197. The power to weight ratio in a two stroke
(3) Using a fuel of long straight chain structure engine as compared to four stroke engine is
(4) Increasing the engine speed (a) More
Other these correct statements are (b) Less
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Equal
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 (d) Depends on the power rating
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
ESE 2017 Ans. (a) : The power to weight ratio is double in two
Ans.: (d) stroke engine as compared to four stroke engine.
Factor Tending to reduce knocking in SI engine 198. Which one of the following form a part of the
* Self ignition temperature of fuel - High fuel supply system for a diesel engine?
* Compression ratio - Low (a) Supply pump (b) Filter
* Inlet temperature and pressure - Low (c) Spray Nozzle (d) All of the above
* Super charging - No Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
* Spark advance - No Ans. (d) : All of the above, following are the part use to
* Flame travel distance - Small form the fuel supply system for a diesel engine.
* Engine size - Small • Supply pump
* Turbulence - High • Filter
* Engine speed - High
• Injector Nozzle
* Octane rating - High
193. Statement (I) : Knocking and pre-ignition are the 199. For S.I. engine carburetor the float is usually
two words explaining the same phenomena. made of
Statement (II) : Pre-ignition occurs only in petrol (a) Brass sheet (b) Nylon
engines. (c) Cast iron (d) Either (a) or (b)
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
individually true and Statement (II) is the Ans. (d) : S.I. engine carburetor the float usually made
correct explanation of Statement (I) of brass sheet, nylon.
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are 200. The valve timing is controlled by
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT (a) camshaft (b) crank shaft
the correct explanation of Statement (I) (c) governor (d) all of the above
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
147
Ans. (a) : In 4-stroke cycle engines & some two-stroke (b) one suction valve and one exhaust valve
engines, the valve timing controlled by the camshaft. operated by two cams
This can varied by modifying the camshaft, or it Can be (c) only ports covered and uncovered by piston
be varied during engine by variable valve timing. to effect charging and exhausting
201. In a four stroke S.I. engine, the exhaust valve (d) none of the above
usually opens Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
(a) At TDC Ans. (c) : Two-stroke cycle has only ports covered and
(b) At BDC fin covered by piston to effect charging and exhausting.
(c) At 35º to 60º after BDC
(d) At 35º to 60º before BDC 3. Fuels
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (d) : In four-stroke S.I. engine, the exhaust valve 207. 1 kg of carbon produces following percentage
usually opens at 35º to 60º before BDC (bottom dead of CO2 in flue gases:
centre) and closes at 15º after top dead centre (TDC). (a) 11% (b) 18%
(c) 23% (d) 29%
202. At present the amount of power that can be
SJVN ET 2013
developed in the cylinder of a petrol engine is
fixed by the liability of a fuel to Ans. (d) : C + O 2 = CO 2

(a) detonate (b) Pre-ignition 1 mol + 1 mol = 1 mol (by volume)

(c) Unburnt charge (d) Slow ignition 12 kg + 32 kg = 44 kg
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 8 11
i.e., 1 kg + kg = kg
Ans. (b) : Some modern petrol engines how use 3 3
cylinder direct petrol injector. The pre-mixing was It means that 1 kg of carbon requires 8/3 kg of oxygen
formally done in a carburetor. The power-developed in for its complete combustion, and produce 11/3 kg of
petrol engine is fixed, due to Pre-ignition. carbon dioxide gas.
203. The intensity of detonation will depend mainly 208. lean air-fuel mixture is required for
upon the amount of (a) acceleration (b) idling
(a) Energy contained in the end mixture (c) starting (d) cruising
(b) Rate of chemical reaction (KPSC AE 2015)
(c) Both energy contained in the end mixture and Ans : (d) Operations A/F ratio
rate of chemical reaction Idling 12 - 12.5
(d) None of the above Cruising/Normal 16-16.4
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 Max power range 12-13
Ans. (c) : The intensity of detonation will depend Starting 3-5
mainly upon the amount of energy contained in the end- 209. The chemically correct A/F ratio by weight for
mixture and the rate of chemical reaction which release methanol is
it in the form of heat and a high intensity pressure- (a) 10:1 (b) 8:1
wave. (c) 6.5:1 (d) 9.0:1
(e) 12.0:1
204. Which one of the following methods cannot
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
control detonation
(a) Increase engine speed Ans. (c) : The chemically correct A/F ratio by weight
(b) Retarding spark for methanol is 6.5 : 1.
(c) Reducing pressure in the inlet manifold 210. The range of A/F ratio for SI engine is:
(d) Making air fuel ratio neither too lean nor too (a) 9-18 (b) 1-9
rich (c) 18-50 (d) 50-100
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 (e) 20-30
CGPSC AE 2014- II
Ans. (c) : Method which cannot control detonation here,
reducing pressure in the inlet manifold by throttling. Ans. (a) :
• The range of A/F ratio for SI engine is 9-18
205. Which one of the following will not promote • The range of A/F ratio for CI engine is 18:1 to 70:1.
knock
(a) Low self ignition temperature of fuel 211. Reference fuel for Cetane rating are:
(b) Low engine speed (a) Cetane and Iso-octane
(c) Advance ignition timing (b) Iso-octane and n-heptane
(d) Lower compression ratios (c) Cetane and n-heptane
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 (d) Cetane and α-methyl naphthalene
Ans. (d) : Lower compression ratio will not promote OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
knock in S.I. engine, while in C.I. engine low Ans : (d) : Cetane and α - methyl napthalene are
compression ratio result's increase in knock. reference fuel for diesel rating. Cetane is assigned as
206. The two stroke cycle engine has 100 cetane number and α - methyl napthalene is zero.
(a) one suction valve and one exhaust valve Cetane chemical formula-
operated by one cam α methyl C16 H34 napthalene (C11 H10)
148
212. In case of petrol engine, at starting Ans. (a) : Vapour lock in a gasoline - fueled internal
(a) Rich fuel air ratio is needed combustion engine is basically due to partial stoppage
(b) Lean fuel air ratio is needed of fuel supply due to vaporization of fuel in the supply.
(c) Chemically correct fuel air ratio is needed
(d) Any fuel air ratio will do 220. The specification for diesel fuel for India as per
TNPSC AE 2014 BIS is given by
Ans. (b) : In case of petrol engine, at starting lean fuel (a) IS:1464 (b) IS:1460
air ratio is needed. (c) IS:1468 (d) IS:1462
213. The theoretically correct mixture of air and (e) IS:1461
petrol is approximately equal to CGPSC AE 2014 -II
(a) 7 : 1 (b) 10 : 1 Ans. (b) : The specification for diesel fuel for India s
(c) 15 : 1 (d) 20 : 1 per BIS is given by IS : 1460.
TNPSC AE 2014
221. The normal operating range of air/fuel ratio
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
for a CI engine with diesel fuel is
Ans. (c) : The theoretically correct mixture of air and
petrol is approximately equal to 15 : 1. (a) 8 : 1 to 12 : 1 (b) 12 : 1 to 22 : 1
214. The specific gravity of commonly used diesel is (c) 20 : 1 to 30 : 1 (d) 18 : 1 to 70 : 1
(a) 1 (b) 0.7 BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
(c) 0.85 (d) 0.5 Ans : (d) : 18 : 1 to 70 : 1
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II 222. Consider the following statements:
Ans. (c) : 0.85 1. Octane rating of ethanol is more than 100.
215. Anti knock property of C.I. engine fuel can be 2. Cetane number of fuel used in diesel engines
improved by adding:- in India is in the range of 80 to 90.
(a) Tetra – ethyl lead (b) Amylnitrate 3. Biodiesel in mono alkyl ester of vegetable oil.
(c) Hexadecane (d) Trimethyl pentane 4. Compressed natural gas is mainly composed
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
of methane.
Ans. (a) :
5. Motor gasoline is a mixture of various
216. Stoichiometric ratio is
(a) chemically correct air-fuel ratio by volume hydrocarbons with a major proportion being
(b) chemically correct air-fuel ratio by weight aromatic hydrocarbons.
(c) theoretical mixture of air for complete Which of these statements are correct?
combustion (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(d) actual ratio of air to fuel for maximum (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
efficiency (e) 2, 3, 4 and 5
RPSC AE 2016 CGPSC AE 2014 -II
Ans : (b) Stoichometric ratio:- Chemically correct or Ans. (d) :
stoichometric mixture is one in which there is just • Octane rating, ethanol has a rating of 113
enough air for complete combustion of the fuel. For
example to burn one kg of octane (C8H18) completely • Biodiesel is mono alkyl ester of vegetable Oil.
15.12kg air is required. • CNG is mainly composed of methane. [CH4 -
84.5%, Ethane [C2H6] - 7.7%]
217. Disadvantage of hydrogen as a fuel in IC engine:
(a) Storage is easy (b) Low NOx emission • Propane (C3H8) - 2.4%, Butane (C4H10) - 0.58%,
(c) Detonating tendency (d) Easy handling pentane (C5H12) - 0.37%]
Ans : (c) Detonation tendency increase if hydrogen as a 223. Consider he following emissions of an IC
fuel in IC Engine. engine:
218. For complete burning of 1 kg of carbon, the air 1. CO 2. Smoke Emissions
required will be about 3. Nox 4. Particulate Matter
(a) 2.67 kg (b) 11.6 kg 5. HC
(c) 12.7 kg (d) 14.5 kg Which of these emissions cause photochemical
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II smog?
Ans. (b) : 11.6 kg (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
219. Vapour lock in a gasoline - fueled internal (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 5
combustion engine is basically ................. (e) 3 and 5
(a) due to partial stoppage of fuel supply due to CGPSC AE 2014 -II
vaporization of fuel in the supply UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
(b) due to mechanical seizure in the exhaust Ans. (e) : Nitrogen oxide (NOx) , hydrocarbons, carbon
system monoxide, particulate matter, hydro fluorocarbon 134a,
(c) due to accelerated supply of fuel to the engine
(d) due to freezing of liquid fuel CH4, and nitrous oxide emit by vehicles. but NOx and
RPSC AE 2018 HC emission cause photochemical smog.
149
224. The figure shows typical performance plot 227. In the Orsat apparatus KOH solution is used to
against speed for a variable speed SI Engine. absorb :
the curve A, B, C and D represents (a) carbon monoxide (b) carbon dioxide
(c) oxygen (d) none of the above
(KPSC AE. 2015)
Ans : (b) In the orsat apparatus KOH solution is used to
absorb Carbon dioxide (CO2) and Sulfur dioxide (SO2)
Orsat Gas Analysis:- Orsat gas analyzer measures the
volume or more fraction of CO2,CO and O2 in the dry
flue gas. An orsat analyzer contains three pipettes
Containing chemical solutions.
• KOH absorbs CO2, Pyragallol absorbs O2 and Cucl2
absorbs Co.
228. In emission measuring equipments, the HC is
(a) Air Consumption, Indicated Power, Indicated measured using
Torque, Air Charge (a) Gas Chromatograph
(b) Air Charge, Indicated Power, Indicated (b) Flame lonization Detector
Torque, Air Consumption (c) Chemiluminescence Detector
(c) Indicated Torque, Indicated Power, Air (d) NDIR Analyzer
Charge, Air Consumption (e) HFFR Test Rig
(d) Indicated Power, Air Consumption, Indicated CGPSC AE 2014 -II
Torque and Air Charge Ans. (b) : With the help of Flame Ionization Detector,
(e) Indicated Power, Air Charge, Air the HC is measured in emission.
Consumption, Indicated Torque 229. Which of the following statement is not correct
CGPSC AE 2014 -II with respect to alcohol as alternate fuels in I.C.
Ans. (d) : Engine?
Curve A → Curve A represents Indicated power (a) Alcohols are corrosive in nature
Curve B - Curve B represents Air Consumption (b) Alcohol contains about half the heat energy of
Curve C - Indicated Torque gasoline
Curve D - Air Charge (c) Auto-knock characteristics of alcohol is poor
(d) Alcohol does not vaporize as easily as
225. CFR engine is used to measure the following
gasoline
quality of diesel
TNPSC AE 2017
(a) Cold Filter Plugging Point
(b) Cloud Point Ans. (c) : Alcohol– Alcohols are alternate fuels because
(c) Cetane Number they can be obtained from both natural and
(d) CHNS Ratio manufactured source. Methanol and ethanol are two
kinds of alcohols that seem most promising.
(e) Lubricity
Advantages-
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
1. It is high octane fuel, so it can be used efficiently
Ans. (c) : CFR Engine - Cooperative Fuel Research for higher compression ratio.
[CFR] engine, the source for fuel rating equipment. 2. It produce less overall emissions compared to
CFR engine is used to measure cetane number, quality gasoline.
of diesel and octane number, quality of Petrol and 3. It gives higher pressure and more power in the
gasoline knock. expansion stroke.
226. Calorific values of gaseous fuels is determined by 4. It has high latent heat of vaporization which results
(a) Bomb Calorimeter in a cooler intake process. This rise the volumetric
(b) Junker's Calorimeter efficiency of the engine and reduce the required
(c) Separating Calorimeter work in the compression stroke.
(d) Throttling Calorimeter Disadvantages-
TSPSC AEE 2015 1. The calorific value (29700) of the fuel is less.
Ans : (b) Calorific values of gaseous fuels is 2. With equal thermal efficiency and similar engine
determined by Junker's calorimeter. output usage, twice as much fuel would have to be
Bomb Calorimeter–Bomb Calorimeter used to purchased.
measure calorific value of solid and liquid fuels i.e.– 3. Alcohol is much more corrosive then gasoline on
Coal, gasoline, kerosene etc. copper, brass, aluminium, rubber and many plastics.
Junker Calorimeter–Junker calorimeter used to find 4. It has poor cold weather starting characteristics due
out calorific value of gases fuel. to low vapour pressure and evaporation.
Throttling and separating calorimeter– Throttling 230. Rhodium in the catalytic converter promotes
and separating calorimeter are used to measure the the reduction of
dryness fraction of steam. (a) HC (b) CO
150
 (c) NOx (d) Smoke Ans. (d) : Hydro carbon emission in CI Engine is
TNPSC AE 2017 mainly due to over mixing of fuel and air under mixing
Ans. (c) : Rhodium in t he catalytic convertor promotes of fuel and air.
the reduction of NOx. 237. NOx emission in SI engines will be lowest
231. Three way catalytic converters reduce the during
emission of (a) Acceleration (b) Deceleration
(a) CO, CO2 and soot (b) CO, NOx and HC (c) Cruising (d) Idling
(c) CO2, NOx and HC (d) CO, HC and soot TNPSC AE 2017
TNPSC AE 2017 Ans. (d) : During idling NOx emission in SI engines
Ans. (b) : Three way catalytic converters reduce the will be lowest.
emission of CO, NOx and HC. 238. The important requirement of a catalytic
232. NOx emission is maximum in S.I. engines when convertor is
the air fall ratio is (a) High surface area and low volume heat
(a) exactly stoichiometric capacity
(b) lean mixture (b) Low surface area and low volume heat
(c) rich mixture capacity
(d) nearby stoichiometric (c) High surface area and high volume heat
TNPSC AE 2017 capacity
(d) Low surface area and high volume heat
Ans. (d) : NOx emission is maximum in S.I. engines capacity
when the air fall ratio is nearby stoichiometric. TNPSC AE 2017
233. Reducing the compression ratio of an engine Ans. (a) : The important requirement of a catalytic
reduces the combustion temperature, and this convertor is High surface area and low volume heat
(a) reduces the amount of NOx formed capacity
(b) increases the amount of NOx formed
239. The octane number 100 is assigned to
(c) reduces the amount of HC formed (a) iso - octane (b) normal heptane
(d) increases the amount of H2O formed (c) cetane (d) tetraethyl lead
TNPSC AE 2017 TNPSC 2019
Ans. (a) : Reducing the compression ratio of an engine TNPSC AE 2013
reduces the combustion temperature, and this reduces Ans. (a) : 2, 2, 4- Trimethylpentane, also known as
the amount of NOx formed. isooctane or iso-octane, is an organic compound with
234. The function of the air aspirator system is the formula C8H18. It is one of several isomers of octane
(a) Furnishes the addition air for reduce HC and have standard 100 point on the octane rating scale.
NOx emission Higher the octane number, lesser is the tendency to
(b) Furnishes the addition air for reduce HC and knock during combustion.
CO emission 240. When air is used as oxidiser of a fuel, the
(c) Furnishes the addition air for reduce HC and nitrogen?
CO but increase of NOx (a) decrease to the inert level of the fuel
(d) Furnishes the addition air for increase of HC (b) gets oxidized to NO
and reduce CO and NOx (c) increases the inert content of the fuel
TNPSC AE 2017 (d) may react with the fuel elements forming
Ans. (b) : The function of the air aspirator system is nitride
Furnishes the addition air for reduce HC and CO TNPSC 2019
emission. Ans. (c) : When air is used as oxidiser of a fuel, the
235. Lead compound were added in gasoline to nitrogen increases the inert content of the fuel.
(a) reduce HC emissions 241. A 1 g sample of fuel is burned in a bomb
(b) reduce knocking calorimeter containing 1.2 kg of water at an
(c) reduce exhaust temperature initial temperature of 25°C. After the reaction,
(d) increase power output the final temperature of the water is 33.2°C.
TNPSC AE 2017 The heat capacity of the calorimeter is 837
Ans. (b) : To reduce knocking, lead compounds were J/°C. The specific heat of water is 4.18 J/ °C.
added in gasoline. The heat released by the fuel will be nearly
236. Hydro carbon emission in CI Engine is mainly (a) 36 kJ/g (b) 42 kJ/g
due to (c) 48 kJ/g (d) 54 kJ/g
(a) over mixing of fuel and air ESE 2019
(b) under mixing of fuel and air Ans. (c) : Given,
(c) constant mixing of fuel and air mf = 1 gm
(d) both (A) and (B) mw = 1.2 kg
TNPSC AE 2017 T1 = 25°C
151
 T2 = 33.2°C (b) Aromatics, Naphthenes, Paraffins, Olefins
Heat capacity of calorimeter (mc) = 837 J/°C (c) Naphthenes, Olefins , Aromatic, Paraffins
= 0.837 kJ/°C (d) Aromatics, Napthenes, Olefins, Paraffins
Specific heat of water is taken as 4.18 kJ/°C (KPSC AE. 2015)
mf (cv)f = mw cp ∆T + mc ∆T Ans : (d) Increasing detonation tendency:-
1 × (cv)f = [1.2 × 4.18 × (33.2 − 25)] + [0.837 × Aromatics < Napthenes < Olefines < Paraffins
(33.2 − 25)] Constituenets of fuel :
= 47.995 (i) Paraffine - Straight Chain Saturate Compound
(cv)f ≃ 48 kJ/g (ii) olefines - Straight Chain unsaturated Compound
242. The specific fuel consumption of a diesel engine (iii) Napthenes - Cyclic Saturated Compound
(iv) Aromatic - Cyclic Unsaturated Compound
as compared to that for petrol engine is
(a) lower 248. Stoichometric ratio means:
(b) higher (a) Chemically correct air-fuel ratio by mass
(c) same for same output (b) Air-fuel ratio for maximum efficiency
(d) none of the above (c) Chemically correct air-fuel ratio by volume
(d) Oxygen - fuel ratio by volume
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans. (a) : lower
Ans : (a) A mixture that contains just enough air for
243. Flash point for diesel fuel should be complete combustion of all the fuel in the mixture is
(a) minimum 49ºC (b) maximum 49ºC called a chemically correct or stoichometric fuel air
(c) minimum 99ºC (d) maximum 99ºC ratio.
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II 249. Scavenging means:
Ans. (a) : Minimum 49ºC (a) Using fresh air for compressor
244. Sulphur content in diesel fuel should not be (b) To reduce detonation
more than (c) Using air for throwing burnt gases out of
(a) 10% (b) 5% cylinder during exhaust stroke
(c) 1% (d) 0.01% (d) Using correct air fuel mixture
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans. (c) : 1% Ans : (c) Scavenging of I.C. Engine:- The process of
245. In order to achieve maximum possible fuel removing burnt gases form the combustion chamber of
economy the design features which will be the engine cylinder, is known as scavenging.
affected are Types of Scavenging:-
(a) volumetric efficiency (i) Cross flow scavenging
(b) compression ratio (ii) Backflow or loop Scavenging
(iii) Uniflow scavenging.
(c) method of charging
(d) atomization 250. In Orsat apparatus, when the percentage of
RPSC AE 2016 carbon dioxide, oxygen and carbon monoxide
are known, the remaining gas is assumed to be
Ans : (d) In order to achieve maximum possible fuel (a) Hydrogen (b) Sulphur dioxide
economy the design features will be affected are (c) Nitrogen (d) Air
atomization. ESE 2020
246. For same power output and same compression Ans. (c) : Orsat apparatus gives dry analysis of flue
ratio four stroke S.I. engine as compared to two gases and in the flasks CO2, O2 and CO are absorbed.
stroke engine has 251. Which property is related to Alcohol?
(a) higher fuel consumption (a) Lower vapour pressure
(b) lower thermal efficiency (b) Higher cetane number
(c) higher thermal efficiency (c) Smaller octane number
(d) higher exhaust temperature (d) Good lubricating quality
RPSC AE 2016 OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (c) For same power output and same compression Ans : (a) : Lower vapour pressure property is related to
ratio four stroke SI engine as compared to two stroke Alcohol.
engine has high thermal efficiency. 252. Which property is not related with LPG as fuel
(i) A two stroke cycle engine gives twice the number of for automotive applications?
power stroke than the four stroke cycle engine at the (a) Lower knock resistance
same engine speed. Theoretically, a two-stroke cycle (b) Lower crank case dilution
engine should develop twice the power as that of a four- (c) Lower volumetric efficiency
stroke cycle. (d) Lesser residue and oil contamination
247. In SI engines which one of the following is the OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
correct order of the fuel with increasing Ans : (c) : Lower volumetric efficiency is not a
detonation tendency : property related with LPG as fuel for automotive
(a) Paraffins, Olefins, Naphthenes, Aromatics applications.
152
253. High API gravity of fuel means: 260. Velocity of flame propagation in the SI engine
(a) Lower Diesel Index is maximum for air fuel mixture which is
(b) Lower Brake specific fuel consumption ............... stoichiometric.
(c) Lower heat of combustion (a) 10% richer than
(d) Lower ignition quality (b) equal to
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II (c) more than 10% richer than
Ans : (b) : API Gravity– The American Petroleum (d) 10% leaner than
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Institute gravity, or API gravity, is measure of how
heavy or light a petroleum liquid is compared to water. Ans : (a) : Flame velocity in SI engine combustion is
High API gravity of fuel means lower brake specific maximum when mixture strength is 10% rich. Because
in this condition, the temperature is maximum and
fuel consumption.
combustion is very good resulting maximum
254. For same output the specific fuel consumption combustion products. But at the same time, this is also
of petrol engine as compared to diesel engine is: the situation of detonation.
(a) Higher (b) Lower 261. The preference of diesel engines for road
(c) Same (d) None of these transport is due to
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II (a) Easy starting
Ans : (a) : The specific fuel consumption per B.P. hour for (b) low specific fuel consumption over a large
a petrol engine is about 0.25 kg. The specific fuel range of load
consumption per B.P. hour for a diesel engine is about 0.2 kg. (c) complete combustion of charge
255. The problem of engine that can be reduces with (d) harmless exhaust
the rise in front end volatility of fuel: Gujarat PSC AE 2019
(a) Cold starting (b) Vapour lock Ans : (b) : The preference of diesel engine for road
(c) Hot starting (d) Spark plug fouling transport is due to low specific fuel consumption over a
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II large range of load.
Ans : (b) : Vapour lock is complete or partial stoppage
of fuel supply due to vaporisation of fuel in supply 262. The specific fuel consumption per kW-hr for
system. diesel engine is very close to
(a) 0.4 kg/kW-hr (b) 0.33 kg/kW-hr
256. Which is not the correct option for fuel (c) 0.27 kg/kW-hr (d) 0.47 kg/kW-hr
injection system of petrol engine? BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
(a) Increase in power
Ans : (c) : 0.27 kg/kW-hr
(b) Improve distribution of the mixture
(c) Reduce volumetric efficiency 263. Which of the following is the lightest and most
volatile liquid fuel?
(d) Reduce mixture temperature in the cylinder
(a) Diesel (b) Kerosene
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II (c) Fuel oil (d) Gasoline
Ans : (a) : Increase in power BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
257. What does the composition of dry gas Ans : (d) : Gasoline is highly volatile due to its low
CO2 = 104%, O2 = 9.6%, N2 = 80% indicates? flash point and easily vaporize when exposed to air.
(a) Air is just sufficient 264. Pour point of fuel oil is the
(b) Excess air is used (a) minimum temperature to which oil is heated
(c) Air is insufficient in order to give off inflammable vapours in
(d) Hydrogen is not present in the fuel sufficient quantity to ignite momentarily
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II when brought in contact with a flame
Ans : (b) : In dry flue gases analysis, water vapours are (b) temperature at which it solidifies or congeals
not present. The presence of oxygen and absence of (c) it catches fire without external acid
carbon monoxide is present in the gases, it indicates (d) temperature at which it flows easily
incomplete combustion i.e. insufficient oxygen. BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
258. During distillation process which fuel vaporise Ans : (b) : Pour point of fuel oil is the temperature of
in the end? which it solidifies or congeals. Pour point is the
(a) Kerosene (b) Aviation fuel temperature at which a liquid becomes semisolid and
(c) Diesel (d) Petrol loses its flowing characteristics. As the paraffin content
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II is high in crude oil, thus it has a high pour point.
265. Which of the following fuels detonates readily?
Ans : (c) : During distillation process diesel fuel
(a) Benzene (b) Iso-octane
vaporise in the end. (c) n-heptane (d) Alcohol
259. Which one of the following fuels can be BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
obtained by fermentation of vegetable matter? Ans : (c) : Normal heptane fuel detonates readily.
(a) Benzene (b) Diesel Octane number equates to the anti-knock qualities of a
(c) Gasoline (d) Alcohol compressible mixture of heptane and iso-octane which
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 is expressed as the percentage of isooctane in heptane and
Ans : (d) : Alcohol. is listed on pumps for gasoline (petrol) dispensed globally.
153
266. The commonly used ignition accelerator is Ans : (b) Ignition quality of fuels of petrol engine is
(a) acetone peroxide determined by octane rating.
(b) ethyl nitrate Octane number:- The Knocking tendency of a fuel in
(c) isoamyl nitrate SI engines is generally expressed by its octane number
(d) any one of the above The percentage by volume of iso- octane in a mixture of
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V iso-octane and normal heptane, iso-octane is a very
Ans : (d) : The commonly used ignition accelerator is- good anti-knoc fuel, there fore it is assigned a rating of
• Acetone peroxide 100 octane number. on other hand normal heptane has
• Ethyl nitrate very poor anti-knock qualities there for it is given a
• Isoamyl nitrate rating of 0 (Zero) octane number.
267. The missing equality per stroke is equal to 272. Iso-octane content in a fuel for S.I. engines :
(a) cylinder feed – indicated mass of steam (a) retards auto-ignition
(b) accelerates auto-ignition
(b) cylinder feed + indicated mass of steam
(c) does not affect auto-ignition
(c) mass of cushion steam + indicated mass of (d) none of the above
steam HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
(d) mass of cushion steam – cylinder feed
Ans : (a) Iso-octane content in a fuel for S.I. engines
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper retards autoignition.
Ans. (a) : cylinder feed – indicated mass of steam Iso-octane is a very good anti-knock fuel, therefore it is
268. Which one of the following is not the chief assigned a rating of 100 octane number. on the other
effect of detonation? hand, normal heptane has very poor anti-knock
(a) A loud pulsating noise, which may be qualities, therefore it is given a rating of zero octane
accompanied by a vibration of the engine number. These two fuels i.e. iso-octane and normal
(b) A loud pulsating noise from the wheel heptane are known as primary reference fuels.
assembly
(c) An increase in the heat lost to the surface of 4. Supercharging
combustion chamber
(d) An increase in carbon deposits 273. The process of supercharging is meant for
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper (a) raising exhaust pressure
(b) increasing density of intake air
Ans. (b) : A loud pulsating noise from the wheel (c) increasing quantity of fuel going into cylinder
assembly is not the chief effect of detonation. (d) providing air for cooling
269. Which of the following is used as antiknock UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
compound in gasoline? Ans. (b) : increasing density of intake air
(a) tetramethyl lead (b) tetraethyl lead 274. Supercharging is usually not suggested for a
(c) trimethyl lead (d) triethyl lead petrol engine due to:
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 (a) Decrease in volumetric efficiency
Ans. (b) : Organic lead (tetraethyl lead; TEL) is used as (b) Increase in specific fuel consumption
an antiknock in gasoline and Jet fuels. (c) Increase in power loss
270. By higher octane number of SI fuel, it is meant (d) Increase in knocking
that the fuel has: OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(a) Higher heating value Ans : (d) : The degree of super charging in S.I. engines
(b) Higher flash point is limited by the knock. The increase in pressure and
(c) Lower volatility temperature reduces ignition delay and consequently
(d) Larger ignition delay increases the knocking tendency.
UJVNL AE 2016 275. The compressor of turbocharger is driven
Ans : (d) By higher octane number of SI fuel, it is (a) by mechanical power of engine
meant that the fuel has larger ignition delay. (b) manually
Octane number:- The Knocking tendency of a fuel in (c) by gas turbine mounted in the exhaust flow of
S.I. engine is generally expressed by its octane number. engine
The percentage by volume of iso-octane in a mixture of (d) by separate electrical motor driven by battery
iso-octane and normal- heptane. SJVN ET 2019
Ans. (c) : Turbocharger increases the amount of air
271. Ignition quality of fuels for petrol engines in
entering the engines to create more power. A
determined by
turbocharger has the compressor powered by a turbine
(a) cetane number rating which is driven by exhaust gas from engines.
(b) octane number rating
(c) calorific value rating 276. The purpose of supercharging is to
(a) increase detonation
(d) volatility of fuel
(b) increase the volumetric efficiency
RPSC AE 2016 (c) decrease the volumetric efficiency
RPSC AE 2018 (d) decrease mechanical efficiency
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II TNPSC AE 2013
154
Ans. (b) : Advantage of supercharging–
1. High power output.
2. Increase the volumetric efficiency.
3. Better mixing of air and fuel.
4. Better atomization of fuel.
5. Quicker acceleration of vehicle.
277. The process of increasing the mass of charge
introduced into the same volume of an engine is
called
(a) Super charging (b) Scavenging
(c) Idling (d) Tumbling
TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (a) : The process of increasing the mass of charge
introduced into the same volume of an engine is called
super charging.
278. The supercharging of an engine is mainly
employed?
(a) To provide more fuel for better brake thermal
efficiency
(b) To provide pressurised air for force cooling
(c) To supply air at a higher density than
surrounding
(d) To raise exhaust pressure
(e) To induce swirl in the combustion chamber
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
Ans. (c) : Supercharging of an engine mainly employed
to supply air at a higher density than surrounding.
279. Which of the following is not the supercharge?
(a) Root type supercharge
(b) Vane type supercharge
(c) Centrifugal type supercharge
(d) Reciprocating supercharge
(e) Screw type supercharge
CGPSC AE 2014- II
Ans. (d) : Reciprocating supercharge is not the
supercharge because of high pressure and low discharge
of delivery air.
280. The process of super-charging in I.C. engines is
meant for
(a) raising the exhaust pressure
(b) increasing the density of intake air
(c) increasing quality of fuel going into the
cylinder
(d) decreasing the density of air
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (b) : In super charging in IC engines, the increased
air density during the input cycle increases the specific
power of the engine and its power to weight ratio, but at
the cost of an increase in the specific fuel consumption
of the engine.
281. Which of the following set of material in most
commonly used in catalytic converteris for CI
engines?
(a) Platinum, Palladium and Rhodium
(b) Palladium, Rhodium and Ruthenium
(c) Rhodium, Ruthenium and Platinum
(d) Ruthenium, platinum and Palladium
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (a) Platinum, Palladium, and Rhodium set of
materials in most commonly used in catalytic converters
for CI engine.
155
282. The three way catalytic converter cannot
control which one of the following?
(a) HC emission (b) CO emission
(c) NOx emission (d) PM emission
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (d) PM emission
283. Purpose of supercharging an engine is to
(a) increase power output of engine
(b) reduce specific fuel consumption
(c) reduce noise of engine
(d) improve cooling of cylinders
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (a) Following are the objects of supercharging the
engines
(i) To reduce mass of the engine per brake power.
(ii) To maintain power of aircraft engines at high
Altitudes where less oxygen is available for
combustion.
(iii) To reduce space occupied by the engine.
(iv) To reduce the consumption of lubricating oil
(v) To increase the power output of an engine when
greater power is required.
(ii) Thermal efficiency of a two-stroke cycle engine is
less than that a four stroke cycle engine. because a two-
stroke cycle engine has less compression ratio than that
of four stroke cycle engine.
284. Turbo-charger is used
(a) in gas turbines for compression of air
(b) for supercharging diesel engine
(c) in jet propulsion units
(d) in rockets for producing air fuel mixture
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (b) Turbo-charger is used for supercharging
diesel engine.
285. Supercharging for CI engines is preferred
because
(a) It decreases the knocking tendency
(b) It leads to reduction in smoke
(c) It improves combustion
(d) All of these
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (d) : Supercharging for C.I. engine is preferred
because
(I) It decrease the knocking tendency
(II) It lead to reduction in smoke
(III) It improves combustion
Explanation :
Super charging is the process of increasing the mass (or
in other words density) of the air fuel mixture, which
responsible to improvement in combustion and
reduction of smoke and achieve higher power output.
286. Which of the following is true about
compressors used as supercharge
(a) Positive displacement type
(b) Axial flow type
(c) Centrifugal type
(d) All of the above
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans.(d) Compressor used in supercharge are of three-
type–i) Positive displacement type, ii) Axial flow type,
iii) Centrifugal type
 5. IC Engine performance and Ans : (a) The method of determination of indicated
power of multicylinder SI engine is by the use of morse
Testing test.
The mores test is adopted to find the indicated power of
287. In a 4-cylinder petrol engine the standard firing each cylinder of a high speed I.C. engine. Without using
order is Indicator diagram.
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 1-4-3-2 293. If performance of S.I. engines of different
(c) 1-3-2-4 (d) 1-3-4-2 manufacturers having different capacities, sizes
RPSC AE 2016 and systems are to be compared, the common
UKPSC AE 2007, 2012 Paper -II parameter would be.
TNPSC AE 2014 (a) engine cylinder diameter
Ans : (d) Engine Firing order (b) brake power
4–cylinder 1– 3 – 4 – 2 (c) mean effective pressure
6–cylinder 1–4–5–2–3–6 (d) weight of engine
8–cylinder 1–5–4–2–6–3–7–8 RPSC AE 2016
2–cylinder 1–2 Ans : (c) If performance of SI engine of different
3–cylinder 1 – 2 – 3, 1 – 3 – 2 manufactures having different capacities size and
systems are to be compared, the common parameter
mean effective pressure.
288. Torque developed by the engine is maximum at
(a) minimum speed of engine Work done per cycle
mean effective pressure =
(b) maximum speed of engine StrokeVolume (Vs )
(c) maximum volumetric efficiency speed of WD / Cycle
engine Pm =
(d) maximum power speed of engine Vs
RPSC AE 2016 294. Morse test is used to determine :
Ans : (a) Torque developed by the engine is maximum (a) Indicated power for multicylinder engines
at minimum speed of engine. (b) Shaft power
(c) Mean effective pressure
289. In an internal combustion engine, firing order (d) Temperature of the exhaust gases
depends upon HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
(a) crank shaft design
Ans : (a) Morse test is used to determine Indicated
(b) arrangement of cylinder power for multicylinder engines.
(c) number of cylinders The morse test is adopted to find the indicated power of
(d) none of the above each cylinder of a high speed I.C. engine, without using
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II indicator diagram.
Ans. (d) : none of the above
Pm × 105 × L × A × N × K
290. Morse test measures the indicated power of : Indicated Power = Watt.
(a) SI engine (b) CI engine 60
(c) Steam engines (d) Steam turbine Pm = Actual mean effective Pressure (In bar)
(KPSC AE. 2015) L = Length of stroke in meter
A = Area of the piston in m2
Ans : (a, b) Morse test measure the indicated power of N = Speed of the engine in rpm
SI and CI engine K → No. of cylinders
The morse test is adopted to find the indicated power of
each cylinder of a high speed I.C. engine, without using 295. Which method can be applicable to measure
FHP only for single cylinder CI engine?
indicator diagram.
(a) Morse test
! But KPSC given option (a) as answer. (b) Willian's line method
291. Which one of the following in-line engine (c) Both can be used
working on a four stroke cycle is completely (d) None of these
balanced inherently? OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(a) 2 cylinder engine (b) 3 cylinder engine Ans : (b) : Willian's line method is applicable to
(c) 4 cylinder engine (d) 6 cylinder engine measure FHP only for single cylinder CI engine.
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I 296. The indicated mean effective pressure for four
Ans. (d) : In-line engine working on a four stroke cycle stroke single cylinder engine that produces
is completely balanced inherently 6 cylinder engine. 24 kW of power at engine crank shaft at 2000
292. The method of determination of indicated power rpm. having mechanical efficiency as 80%.
of multi cylinder SI engine is by the use of : Consider engine swept volume as 900 cc and
(a) Morse test (b) Prony brake test stroke length as 9 cm:
(c) Motoring test (d) Heat balance test (a) 0.33 bar (b) 10 bar
UJVNL AE 2016 (c) 20 bar (d) 0.167 bar
MPPSC AE 2016 OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
156
Ans : (c) : Given, (b) Disc brakes
N = 2000 rpm (c) Air bags
B.P. = 24 kW (d) Telescopic steering column
TNPSC AE 2017
Vs = 900cc Ans. (c) : The most commonly used supplementary
ℓ = 9 cm restraint system is Air bags.
B.P. 302. A 2-stroke cycle internal combustion engine
ηm = has a mean effective pressure of 6 bar. The
I.P. speed of the engine is 1000 r.p.m. If the
24 diameter of the piston and stroke are 110 mm
I.P. =
0.8 and 140 mm respectively, then the Indicated
= 30 kW power developed by the engine is
Vs = 900 cc (a) 6.7 kW (b) 13.3 kW
0.0009 ×1× 2000 (c) 26.6 kW (d) 39.9 kW
= TNPSC AE 2014
60 × 2
= 0.015 m3/Sec Ans. (b) : Data given -
I.P. = Pimep × Vs Pmep = 6 bar
30 N = 1000 r.p.m.
Pimep = d = 110 mm = 0.11 m
0.015
Pimep = 2000 kPa = 20 bar L = 140 mm = 0.14 m
I.P. of the engine = ?
297. The volumetric efficiency of a well-designed SI
We know that
engine lies in the range of
(a) 40%-50% (b) 51%-60% I.P.
Pmep =
(c) 61-%-70% (d) 71%-90% Swept volume
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
I.P.
Ans : (d) : The normal range of volumetric efficiency at 600 × 10 3 =
π 2 N
fuel throttle for SI engines is between 80 to 85% where d × L×
as for CI engines it is between 85 to 90%. 4 60
298. An increase in the mean effective pressure of a I.P.
600 × 10 3 =
diesel engine with fixed compression ratio can π 1000
× ( 0.11) × ( 0.14 ) ×
2
be obtained with increase in 4 60
(a) speed of the engine I. P. = 13.2979 kW
(b) charge density 303. An engine indicator is used to determine the
(c) cut-off ratio following
(d) back pressure (a) Speed
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V (b) Temperature
Ans : (c) : By increasing the cut-off ratio, the work (c) Mean effective pressure and indicated horse
done increases and hence mean effective pressure power
increases. (d) Brake horse power
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
299. Specific fuel consumption is defined as Ans. (c) : Mean effective pressure and indicated horse
(a) fuel consumption per hour power.
(b) fuel consumption per BHP
(c) fuel consumption per hour per BHP 304. The tendency of a petrol engine to knock
(d) fuel consumption per hour per HP increases by
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V (a) Supercharging
Ans : (c) : Specific fuel consumption is defined as fuel (b) Scavenging
consumption per hour per BHP (c) Increasing engine H.P.
(d) Reducing the spark advance
300. The power to weight ratio of diesel engine
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
compared to petrol engine is
(a) high Ans. (c) : Increasing engine H.P.
(b) low 305. The ratio of brake power to indicated power of
(c) same an I.C. engine is called
(d) not comparable (a) Mechanical efficiency
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V (b) Thermal efficiency
Ans : (b) : The power to weight ratio of diesel engine (c) Volumetric efficiency
compared to petrol engine is low. (d) Relative efficiency
301. The most commonly used supplementary RPSC AE 2016
restraint system is Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
(a) Seat belt UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
157
 Morse Test–The purpose of Morse test is to obtain the
Ans. (a) : Ratio of of brake power (B.P.) the indicated
Power (I.P.) Mathematically, mechanically efficiency,approximate indicated power of a multi-cylinder engine.
B.P It consists of running the engine against a dynamometer
ηm = at a particular speed, cutting out the firing of each
I.P cylinder in turn and nothing the fall in BP each time
306. Rate of work done on the piston by burning of while maintaining the speed constant. When one
the fuel inside the cylinder of IC engine is cylinder is cut off, power developed is reduced and
called speed of engine falls. Accordingly, the load on the
(a) Friction power (b) Indicated power dynamometer is adjusted so as to restore the engine
(c) Brake power (d) Mechanical powerspeed. This is done to maintain FP constant, which is
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 considered independent of the load and proportional to
Ans. (b) : Indicated power—Indicated power is the the engine speed. The observed difference in BP
between all cylinders firing and with one cylinder cut
total power available from the expanding of the gases in
cylinders. Rate of work done on the piston by burningoff is the IP of the cut of cylinder. Summation of IP of
all the cylinders would then give the total IP of the
of the fuel inside the cylinder of IC engine is called
Indicated power. engine under test.
Brake Power (BP)—Brake Power can be defined as the 309. If ip → indicated power, bp brake power, fp →
power available at the crank shaft. Since it us measured frictional power. Which of the following
with the help of Brake dynamometer so it is referred as statement is true for IC engine:
brake power. (a) ip < bp (b) fp = ip + bp
Friction Power (FP)—The power required or power (c) ip < fp (d) ip > bp
UPRVUNL AE 2016
lost to overcome the friction between the mating
members of engine is called Friction Power. Ans. (d) : We know that,
FP = IP - BP Indicated power (ip) = Brake power (bp) + Frictional
power (fp)
307. The exhaust pressure in the cylinder of an IC So, ip > bp
engine is 310. Mechanical efficiency of a diesel engine is
(a) more than atmospheric pressure defined as
(b) less than atmospheric pressure
(c) equal to atmospheric pressure Indicative Horse Power
(a)
(d) zero (absolute) Brake Horse Power
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 Brake Horse Power
(b)
Ans. (a) : The exhaust pressure in the cylinder of an IC Indicative Horse Power
engine is more than atmospheric pressure. Brake Horse Power
(c)
Fuel Input Power
(d) Brake Horse Power × Indicative Horse Power
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (b) : Mechanical efficiency of a diesel engine is
defined as the ratio of brake horse power to indicative
horse power.
BHP
ηm =
IHP
311. The brake power of an engine whose
f97 mechanical efficiency is 80% and indicated
Process BC - Compression power is 125000 W is
CD → Combustion (a) 100 W (b) 10,000 kW
(c) 100 kW (d) 125 kW
DE → Expansion TNPSC AE 2013
FA → Exhaust Ans. (c) : Data given
From this actual combustion cycle ηm= 80%
PF > Patm IP = 125000 W
308. Morse test is conducted on BP = ?
(a) Single cylinder engine We know that
(b) Multi-cylinder engine BP
(c) Steam engine ηm =
IP
(d) Gas turbine 80
HPPSC AE 2018 BP = 125000 ×
TNPSC AE 2014, 2013 100
BP = 100000 W
Ans. (b) : Morse Test is conducted on multi-cylinder
engine. BP = 100 kW

158
312. An engine consumes 5 kg/hr of fuel and its line in case of diesel engine, hence can be
brake power is 20 kW. The value of brake extrapolated.
specific fuel consumption is
(a) 0.25 kg/kWh (b) 4 kg/kWh
(c) 2 kg/kWh (d) 15 kg/kWh
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (a) : Data given as-
•
m f = 5 kg/hr
BP = 20 kW
bpsfc = ?
We know that
•
mf 5 316. The output of an I.C. Engine is measured by a
bpsfc = =
BP 20 rope brake dynamometer. The diameter of the
kg brake pulley is 750 mm and rope diameter is
bpsfc = 0.25 50mm. The dead load on the tight side is 400 N
kWhr
313. Which of the following parameter is 100 CC in and the spring balance reading is 50 N. The
a 100 CC engine? engine consumes 4.2 kg/h of fuel at rated speed
(a) Fuel tank capacity of 1000 rpm. Then the brake specific fuel
(b) Lubricating oil capacity consumption of the engine is
(c) Swept volume (a) 0.143 kg/kWh (b) 0.286 kg/kWh
(d) Cylinder volume (c) 0.268 kg/kWh (d) 0.134 kg/kWh
TNPSC AE 2014 TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (c) : Every engine has cylinder and it's volume Ans. (b) : Data given-
measured in cubic centimeter. So basically a 100 c.c. D = 750 mm, d = 50 mm
engine means it's cylinder displacement is 100 cubic P = 400 mm, N = 1000 rpm
centimeter. S = 50 N
314. Morse test in Multi cylinder engines is used to
Brake power (BP) =
( P − S) π D m N kW
determine 1000 × 60
(a) Volumetric efficiency where Dm = (D + d) = 750 + 50 = 800 mm
(b) Brake thermal efficiency
(c) Mechanical efficiency BP =
( 400 − 50 ) × 3.14 × 0.8 ×1000
(d) Brake power 1000 × 60
TNPSC AE 2014 BP = 14.6533 kW
Ans. (c) : Morse test aim– mc 4.2
1. To study indicated power of individual then bsfc = =
cylinder. BP 14.653
2. Indicated power of engine. bsfc = 0.2866 kg/kWh
3. Frictional power of engine. 317. In a Morse test for a 2-cylinder, 4-stroke,
4. Mechanical efficiency. compression ignition engine, the brake power
315. The measurement of frictional power by was 12 kW whereas the brake powers of
William's Line is applicable only to individual cylinders with injection cut off were
(a) SI engines at a particular speed 4.25 kW and 4.75 kW respectively. The
(b) CI engines at a particular speed mechanical efficiency of the engine is
(c) Any engine at a particular speed only (a) 75.9% (b) 77.9%
(d) None of the above (c) 76.9% (d) 78.9%
TNPSC AE 2014 (e) 80.0%
Ans. (b) : A graph between fuel consumption rate CGPSC AE 2014 -II
(kg/h) taken on y-aixs and BP (kW) on x-axis is drawn, Ans. (e) : Brake power for 2-cylinder = 12 kW
while energy is made to run at same constant speed, say Brake Power for 1- Cylinder = 6 kW
1500 rpm. We know that
• A graph is extrapolated back to zero fuel IP = BP + FP
consumption which cut on -ve x-axis at a point 'A'. For two cylinders, 2IP = 2BP + 2FP (1)
• The -ve intercept on x-axis represents FP at that Then
speed of the engine. Brake Power for each cylinder, when power off
• Although when BP = 0, some fuel consumption is individual cylinders with injection cut off
there. This fuel is consumed to overcome engine BP1 + BP2 4.25 + 4.75
B.P = = = 4.5 kW
friction. 2 2
• Only for CI engine to be run at a constant speed as Then IP for single cylinder when power of individual
fuel consumption rate v/s BP plot is almost straight cylinders with injection cut-off.
159
[IP]1 = [BP]1 + 2FP (2) 322. A 4-stroke diesel engine has length of 20 cm
Equation (1) and (2) and diameter of 16 cm. The engine is producing
[2IP] – [IP]1 = [2BP] + [2FP] – [BP]1 – [2FP] power of 25 kW when it is running at 2500
IP = [2BP] – [BP]1 = 12 – 4.5 = 7.5 kW r.p.m. The mean effective pressure of the
Then, mechanical efficiency engine will be nearly
BP of one-cylinder 6 (a) 5.32 bar (b) 4.54 bar
ηm = = × 100 (c) 3.76 bar (d) 2.98 bar
IP of one-cylinder 7.5
ESE 2019
ηm = 80%
Ans. (d) : Given,
318. A 4-stroke diesel engine, when running at 2500 L = 20 cm = 0.20 m N = 2500 rpm
rpm has injection duration of 2.0 ms. What is D = 16 cm = 0.16 m
the corresponding duration of the crank angle BP = 25 kW
in degrees?
π
(a) 30 (b) 31 Swept volume (Vs) = D2 L
(c) 29 (d) 28 4
(e) 32 n = No. of Cylinder
CGPSC AE 2014 -II n=1
Ans. (a : Data given π
= (0.16) 2 × 0.20
N = 2500 rpm 4
t [injection time] = 2×10-3 s Vs = 0.004 m3
Rotation during Injection time Mean effective pressure
2 × π × 2500 180 BP
θ = ω× t = × 2 × 10 −3 × pm =
60 π N
Vs × ×n
θ = 300 120
N
319. What is the compression ratio of a 4-stroke For Four stroke engine (rps)
engine whose capacity is 245cc clearance 120
volume is 27.2cc and diameter of bore is 10% 25
=
higher than stroke?  2500 
(a) 9 (b) 10 0.004 ×  
 120 
(c) 11 (d) 12 = 298.41 kPa
JWM 2017 = 2.98 bar
Ans. (b) : Compression ratio of engine(r) 323. A 4-stroke, 6-cylinder gas engine with a stroke
Total volume volume of 1.75 litres develops 26.25 kW at 506
=
clearance volume r.p.m. and the MEP is 600 kN/m2. The number
of misfires per minute per cylinder will be
Swept volume + clearance volume (a) 3 (b) 4
r=
clearance volume (c) 5 (d) 6
245 ESE 2019
r= + 1 = 10 Ans. (a) : Given,
27.2
Note- Engine capacity is to be considered as swept n=6
volume. Vs = 1.75 lit = 1.75 × 10−3 m3
320. What is the number of cycles completed per BP = 26.25 kW
second for a four stroke diesel engine running pm = 600 kN/m2
at 6000 rpm? N = 500 rpm
(a) 50 (b) 500 BP
(c) 6000 (d) 3000 pm =
N
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift Vs × n × 1
120
Ans. (a) : Engine speed = 6000 rpm
One cycle in four stroke requires two revolutions. So 26.25
600 =
Number of cycles per minute = 6000/2 = 3000 cycles. N
1.75 × 10−3 × 6 × 1
So number of cycles per minute = 3000/60 = 50 cycles. 120
321. Automatic transmission as compared to N1 = 500 rpm
manual transmission are usually but given N = 506 rpm
(a) More fuel efficient For developing the given mean effective pressure only
(b) Less fuel efficient 500 rpm is required, whereas actual is 506 rpm
(c) Equally efficient N − N1
(d) None of the above Missed firing cycles =
TNPSC AE 2017 2
Ans. (b) : Automatic transmission as compared to 506 − 500
= =3
manual transmission are usually Less fuel efficient. 2
160
324. A 2-stroke oil engine has bore of 20 cm, stroke 327. In a Morse test on a 2-cylinder, 2-stroke SI
30cm, speed 350 r.p.m., i.m.e.p. 275 kN/m2, net engine, the brake power is 9kW and the BHP of
brake load 610 N, diameter of brake drum 1m, individual cylinders with spark cutoff are
oil consumption 4.25 kg/hr, calorific value of 4.25kW and 3.75kW, respectively. The
fuel 44 × 103 kJ/kg. The indicated thermal mechanical efficiency of the engine is
efficiency will be (a) 90% (b) 80%
(a) 29.1% (b) 31.3% (c) 52.5% (d) 45.5%
(c) 33.5% (d) 35.7% ESE 2017
ESE 2019 Ans. (a) : The brake power of engine
BP = 9 kW
Ans. (a) : 2-strok oil engine
Indicated power of cylinder-1
d = 0.2 m N = 350 rpm k=1
(IP)1 = BP − (BP)cylinder-1 off
kN = 9 − 4.25
ℓ = 0.3 m pm = 275 2
m = 4.75 kW
ɺ = 4.25 kg/hr
m Indicated power of cylinder-2
CV = 44 × 103 kJ/kg (IP)2 = BP − (BP)cylinder-2 off
4.25 = 9 − 3.75 = 5.75 kW
ɺ =
m = 0.00118 kg / s
3600 Total indicated power of engine
Indicated power (IP) = pm ⋅ vs IP = (IP)1 + (IP)2
= 4.75 + 5.25 = 10 kW
π N
= pm ×  d 2 × ℓ × k ×  BP 9
4 60  Mechanical efficiency ηm = = = 0.9 = 90%
IP 10
π 350  328. A 4-cylinder diesel engine running at 1200
= 275 ×  × (0.2) 2 × 0.3 ×1×
4 60  r.p.m. developed 18.6 kW. The average torque
= 15.118 kW when one cylinder was cut out was 105 Nm. If
Indicated thermal efficiency the calorific value of the fuel was 42000 kJ/kg
IP 15.118 and the engine used 0.34 kg of diesel/kW hr,
ηith = = = 0.291 = 29.1% the indicated thermal efficiency was nearly.
ɺ CV 0.00118 × 44 × 103
m (a) 29% (b) 26%
325. The following are the results of a Morse test (c) 31% (d) 23%
conducted on a four-cylinder, four-stroke petrol ESE 2017
engine at a common constant speed in all cases: Ans. (a) : Given,
The brake power of the engine when all the N = 1200 rpm Tavg = 105 Nm
cylinders are firing is 80 kW. The brake power B.P. = 18.6 kW CV = 42000 kJ/kg
of the engine when each cylinder is cut off in brake-specific fuel consumption (bsfc)
turn is 55 kW, 55.5 kW, 54.5 kW and 55 kW, = 0.34 kg/kW hr
respectively The mechanical efficiency of the BP when one cylinder is cut of
engine when all the cylinders are firing will be 2πNT 2π ×1200 × 105
(a) 90% (b) 85% = =
60 × 1000 60 × 1000
(c) 80% (d) 75% = 13.19 kW
ESE 2018 Indicated power of one-cylinder
Ans. (c) : BP = 80 kW (IP)1-cylinder = (BP)4-cylinder − (BP)3-cylinder
IP1 = 25 kW = 18.6 − 13.19 = 5.41 kW
IP2 = 24.5 kW Indicated power for 4-cylinder
IP3 = 25.5 kW (IP)4-cylinder = 5.41 × 4 = 21.64 kW
IP4 = 25 kW Brake specific fuel consumption
IP = IP1 + IP2 + IP3 + IP4 mɺ
= 25 + 24.5 + 25.5 + 25 = 100 kW bsfc = f
BP
BP 80 mɺ
Mechanical efficiency ηm = = = 80% 0.34 = f
IP 100 18.6
326. If the intake air temperature of an IC engine mɺ f = 6.324 kg/hr
increases, its efficiency will 6.324
(a) remain same (b) decrease = kg / s = 0.00175 kg/s
(c) increase (d) remain unpredictable 3600
Indicated thermal efficiency
ESE 2018
IP 21.64
Ans. (b) : As mentioned intake air temperature η= =
increases density decreases and volumetric efficiency mɺ f CV 0.00175 × 42000
decreases. Power output reduces as a result thermal = 0.2933
efficiency decreases. η = 29.33%
161
329. The following data was observed for a CI N = 4000 rpm
engine : Pm = 1000 kPa
Fuel-air ratio : 0.04, Volumetric efficiency : Pm LAN
85%, Indicated mean effective pressure; 8 bar Break power for 4-stroke engine =
120
Fuel calorific value : 44000 kJ/kg. Density of
π
air : 1 kg/m3. What is he indicated thermal 1000 × 0.1× × (0.06)2 × 4000
efficiency of this engine? = 4 = 9.24 kW
(a) 43% (b) 64% 120
(c) 53% (d) 69% 333. With increasing temperature of intake air. IC
BHEL ET 2019 engine efficiency :
Ans. (c) : (a) decreases
330. An IC engine produces an indicated power of (b) increases
12 kW. If the mechanical efficiency of the (c) remains the same
engine is 90%, then loss of power due to (d) depends on other factor
friction is given as : (HPPSC AE 2014)
(a) 1.2 kW (b) 2.2 kW Ans : (a) When increasing temperature of air density
(c) 3.2 kW (d) 0.2 kW decreases
BHEL ET 2019 m v
ηvol = a = a
Ans. (a) : Given - Indicated power (IP) = 12 kW m s vs
ηm = 90% Volumetric efficiency of engine decreases
BP Temperature of intake air increase then IC engine
mechanical efficiency η m = efficiency decreases.
IP
334. Specific fuel consumption of a diesel engine as
BP compared to that for petrol engine is
0.9 =
12 (a) lower
BP = 12 × .90 = 10.8 kW (b) higher
Then power due to friction, fP = IP – bP (c) same for same power output
fP = 12 – 10.8 (d) may be lower or higher
fP = 1.2kW RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (a) Specific fuel consumption is amount of fuel
331. A single-cylinder, two-stroke petrol engine consumed to produce unit power in one hour.
develops 4 kW indicated power. If the mean
effective pressure is 6.5 bar and piston kg / h fuel consumed
SFC =
diameter is 100 mm, the average speed of the power (kW)
piston is Specific fuel consumption of a diesel engine as
(a) 23.5 m/s (b) 47 m/s compared to that for petrol engine is lower.
(c) 94 m/s (d) 186 m/s
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper 6. Engine Cooling and Lubrication
Ans. (c) : V = 2LN
P LAN 335. Mist lubrication is mainly used in :
I .P. = m (a) Four-stroke petrol engine
60
(b) Four-stroke diesel engine
I .P. × 60
LN = (c) Two-stroke petrol engine
Pm . A (d) Wankel engine
2 × I .P. × 60 2 × 4 ×103 × 60 HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
V= = Ans : (c) Mist lubrication is mainly used in two - stroke
Pm . A π
6.5 ×105 × × ( 0.1)
2
petrol engine
4 336. Which is more viscous lub oil given below?
2 × 4 × 60 × 4 (a) SAE 30 (b) SAE 40
= = 94.0238 m/sec
6.5 × π (c) SAE 70 (d) SAE 80
332. A four-stroke single-cylinder SI engine of 6 cm TNPSC AE 2017
diameter and 10 cm stroke running at 4000 Ans. (d) : According to The society of Automotive
rpm develops power at a mean effective engineers (SAE), SAE 80 is more viscous lub oil.
pressure of 10bar. The power developed by the 337. Starting friction is low in :
engine is (a) Hydrostatic Lubrication
(a) 9.42 kW (b) 5.54 kW (b) Hydrodynamic Lubrication
(c) 4.92 kW (d) 2.94 kW (c) Mixed (or semi-fluid) Lubrication
ESE 2018 (d) Boundary Lubrication
Ans. (a) : Given, OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
D = 0.06 m Ans. (a) : Starting friction is low in hydrostatic
L = 0.1 m lubrication.
162
338. Lubrication system for high capacity engines 7. Automobile Engineering
(a) Wet Sump Lubrication
(b) Mist Lubrication 344. In a 4 – cylinder petrol engine the standard
(c) Splash system firing order is
(d) Dry Sump Lubrication (a) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 (b) 1 – 4 – 3 – 2
TNPSC AE 2013 (c) 1 – 3 – 2 – 4 (d) 1 – 3 – 4 – 2
Ans. (d) : Dry sump lubrication– Dry sump TNPSC AE 2014
lubrication system is an engine lubrication system in Ans. (d) : Engine Firing order
which the lubrication oil is carried in an external tank 4–cylinder 1– 3 – 4 – 2
and not internally in a sump. The sump is kept relatively 6–cylinder 1–5–3–6–2–4
free from oil by scavengine pumps, which return the oil 345. An automobile radiator is which type of heat
to the tank after cooling. This is the opposite of a wet exchanger?
pump system. (a) Cross flow (b) Regenerator
339. In petrol engine, increases of cooling water (c) Counterflow (d) Recuperator
temperature will UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(a) Increase the knocking tendency Ans. (a) : Cross flow
(b) Decrease the knocking tendency 346. The angle of inclination of the front wheel tyre
(c) Not affect the knocking tendency with respect to the vertical plane is
(d) Increase or decrease knocking tendency (a) Caster (b) Camber
depending on strength and time of spark (c) Wheel track (d) Toe-out
TNPSC AE 2017 TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (a) : In petrol engine, increases of cooling water Ans. (b) : The angle of inclination of the front wheel
temperature will increase the knocking tendency. tyre with respect to the vertical plane is Camber.
340. The thermostat in I.C. engines permitting hot 347. Which one of the following is incorrect with
water to go to radiator is set around respect to painting of vehicles?
(a) Paints creates a thermal boundary layer on the
(a) 70 - 80º C (b) 80 - 85º C
surface
(c) 85 - 95º C (d) Above 100º C
(b) Paints prevents rapid corrosion of parts
TNPSC AE 2017 (c) Paints colour increases the ability to be seen
Ans. (b) : Its job is block the flow of coolant to the (d) Paint colour increases the aesthetic look
radiator until the engine has wormed up once the engine TNPSC AE 2017
reaches its operating temperature (generally 80 - 85oC), Ans. (a) : Paints creates a thermal boundary layer on
the thermostat opens. the surface is incorrect with respect to painting of
341. Which one of the following valves is provided vehicles.
for starting the engine manually, during cold 348. In constant speed test, the vehicle is driven with
weather conditions? (a) Constant speed at various steer angle
(a) Starting jet valve (b) Constant speed at constant steer angle
(b) Compensating jet valve (c) Constant speed at various turing radii
(c) Choke valve (d) Constant speed at constant steer angle with
(d) Auxiliary air valve constant radius
ESE 2020 TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (c) : Choke valve Ans. (c) : In constant speed test, the vehicle is driven
342. Engine overheating may be due to with Constant speed at various turing radii.
(a) struck radiator pressure cap 349. Choose one feature that improves the forward
(b) open thermostat visibility of a vehicle.
(c) excess coolant (a) Brake light (b) Hazard lights
(d) broken fan belt (c) Turn indicators (d) Cornering head light
TNPSC AE 2017 TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (d) : Engine overheating may be due to broken fan Ans. (d) : Cornering head light that improves the
belt. forward visibility of a vehicle.
343. Most commonly used lubrication system in 350. Which type of bus is more suited for the
heavy vehicles is the following features?
(a) Splash Lubrication system Engine is front of passenger compartment
(b) Pressure Lubrication system Low ratio of useful length to overall length
(c) Gravity Lubrication system Poor aerodynamic shape and high tare weight
(d) Petrol Lubrication system (a) Classic type bus (b) Double ducker bus
TNPSC AE 2017 (c) Split level bus (d) Articulated bus
Ans. (b) : Most commonly used lubrication system in TNPSC AE 2017
heavy vehicles is the Pressure Lubrication system. Ans. (a) : Classic type bus
163
351. In work cell control checking the continuation (d) Society of Automotive Engineers
of work cycle is known as TNPSC AE 2017
(a) interlock (b) bottleneck Ans. (a) : Service specifications are set by the Vehicle
(c) automatic lock (d) check point
TNPSC AE 2018 manufacturer.
Ans. (a) : In work cell control checking the 359. Which of the following is not a part of the vehicle
continuation of work cycle is known as interlock. chassis?
352. In a four stroke I.C. Engine cam shaft rotates (a) Wheels (b) Front axle
at (c) Steering system (d) Seats
(a) Same speed as crank shaft TSPSC AEE 2015
(b) Twice the speed of crank shaft Ans : (d) Seats is not a part of the vehicles chassis.
(c) Half the speed of crank shaft
(d) 1.5 times the speed of crank shaft 360. The basic function of the suspension in an
TNPSC AE 2017 automobile is to
Ans. (c) : In a four stroke I.C. Engine cam shaft rotates (a) absorb vibration and impact forces from the
at half the speed of crank shaft. road surface
N (b) automatically correct the effect of over steering
Ncam shaft = crank shaft (c) ensure that the wheel alignment is not disturbed
2
353. Which of the following chasis layout is fitted during driving
with transfer case? (d) ensure that the steering wheel can deliver a
(a) Front engine - Front wheel drive suitable amount of steering force
(b) Rear engine - Rear wheel drive TSPSC AEE 2015
(c) Front engine - All wheel drive Ans : (a) The basic function of the suspension is an
(d) Front engine - Rear wheel drive automobile is to absorb vibration and impact forces
TNPSC AE 2017
from the road surface.
Ans. (c) : Front engine - all wheel drive chasis layout is
fitted with transfer case. 361. In automobile engines a thermostat is provided
354. The slots or openings in a disc wheel enhances for
(a) Vehicle body cooling (a) regulating the temperature of suction air
(b) Passenger compartment cooling (b) regulating the temperature of lubrication oil
(c) Engine - Radiator cooling (c) controlling the temperature of the cooling
(d) Brake system cooling system
TNPSC AE 2017 (d) regulating the temperature of exhaust gases
Ans. (d) : The slots or openings in a disc wheel RPSC AE 2016
enhances brake system cooling.
Ans : (c) In automobile engine a thermostat is provided
355. Air brakes are mostly used in case of
(a) Cars (b) Jeeps for controlling the temperature of the cooling system.
(c) Trucks (d) Three-wheelers 362. The dynamo in an automobile
TNPSC AE 2017 (a) converts mechanical energy into electrical
Ans. (c) : Air brakes are mostly used in case of trucks. energy
356. In automobiles the power is transmitted from (b) continually recharge the battery
gear box to differential through (c) acts as a reservoir of electrical energy
(a) Oldham's coupling (d) supplies electric power
(b) Knuckle joint RPSC AE 2016
(c) Hooks joint
(d) Flexible coupling Ans : (a) The dynamo in an automobile converts
TSPSC AEE 2015 mechanical energy into electrical energy
Ans. (c) : 363. What is wheel base of a vehicle?
357. The purpose of preventive maintenance is to (a) it is width of tyres
(a) help schedule breakdowns (b) it is distance between front tyres
(b) eliminate routine service work (c) it is distance between front and rear axles
(c) force the driver to use his own service station (d) it is extreme length of the vehicle
(d) help prevent failure RPSC AE 2016
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans : (c) Wheel base of a vehicle is distance between
Ans. (d) : The purpose of preventive maintenance is to
front and rear axles
help prevent failure.
358. Service specifications are set by the 364. The magneto in an automobile is basically :
(a) Vehicle manufacturer (a) transformer (b) D.C. generator
(b) Technician (c) magnetic circuit (d) A.C. generator
(c) Service manager (HPPSC AE 2014)
164
Ans : (b) The magneto in an automobile is basically
D.C. generator
Magneto Ignition system:-The magneto ignition
system has the same principle of working as that of coil
ignition system, except that no battery is required as the
magneto acts as its own generator.
It consists of either rotating magnets in fixed coils, or
rotating coils in fixed magnets. The current produced by
the magneto is made to flow to the induction coil which
works in the same way as that of coil ignition system.
The high voltage current is then made to flow to the
distributor, which connects the sparking plugs in
rotation depending upon the firing order of the engine.
This type of ignition system is generally employed in
small spark ignition engines such as scooters, motor
cycle and small motor boat engine.
365. Gearbox is produced by–
(a) design by drawing
(b) design by craft evolution
(c) design synthesis
(d) simultaneous design
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : Gearbox is produced by design by drawing.
366. Modern automobile car is produced by–
(a) sequential design
(b) design by craft evolution
(c) design synthesis
(d) simultaneous design
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (d) : Modern automobile car is produced by
''simultaneous design''.
367. In a test to determine braking efficiency of a
vehicle weighing 1200 kg is placed on a brake
testing machine. The brake tester shows the
following reading. Front right : 2120 N; Front
left 2080 N; Rear Right. : 1490 N; Rear left :
1510 N; Then the braking efficiency is
(a) 50% (b) 60%
(c) 70% (d) 80%
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (b) : 60%
368. Crankshaft journals should be reground if they
are tapered or out of round by more than
(a) 0.0076mm (b) 0.025mm
(c) 0.25mm (d) 0.76mm
(e) 0.076mm
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
Ans. (b) : Crankshft journals should be reground if they
are tapered or out of round by more than 0.025 mm.
369. The tyre is designated as "175/65 R14 82s",
then the load index for the tyre is
(a) 175 (b) 65
(c) 14 (d) 82
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (b) : It is very simple, in "175/65 R14 82s" tyre
175 is the width of the contact patch or the area of the
tyre that touches the ground, 65 is the profile of the tyre
or the distance between the inner and outer circle of the
tyre, both of these are in millimeters, while, R 14 is the
165
diameter of the wheel or the inner circle of the tyre, it
means, in this case, the tyre has an inner diameter of 14
inches and the load index for the tyre is 82.
370. Automobile radiator is filled with
(a) Alkaline water (b) Acidic water
(c) Hard water (d) Soft water
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (d) : Automobile radiator is filled with soft water.
371. In a four stroke I.C. Engine cam shaft rotates
at
(a) Same speed as crank shaft
(b) Twice the speed of crank shaft
(c) Half the speed of crank shaft
(d) 1.5 times the speed of crank shaft
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (c) : In a four stroke I.C. Engine cam shaft rotates
at half the speed of crank shaft.
N
Ncam shaft = crank shaft
2
372. Which of the following chasis layout is fitted
with transfer case?
(a) Front engine - Front wheel drive
(b) Rear engine - Rear wheel drive
(c) Front engine - All wheel drive
(d) Front engine - Rear wheel drive
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (c) : Front engine - all wheel drive chasis layout is
fitted with transfer case.
373. The slots or openings in a disc wheel enhances
(a) Vehicle body cooling
(b) Passenger compartment cooling
(c) Engine - Radiator cooling
(d) Brake system cooling
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (d) : The slots or openings in a disc wheel
enhances brake system cooling.
374. Air brakes are mostly used in case of
(a) Cars (b) Jeeps
(c) Trucks (d) Three-wheelers
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (c) : Air brakes are mostly used in case of trucks.
375. The purpose of preventive maintenance is to
(a) help schedule breakdowns
(b) eliminate routine service work
(c) force the driver to use his own service station
(d) help prevent failure
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (d) : The purpose of preventive maintenance is to
help prevent failure.
376. Service specifications are set by the
(a) Vehicle manufacturer
(b) Technician
(c) Service manager
(d) Society of Automotive Engineers
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (a) : Service specifications are set by the Vehicle
manufacturer.
 04. REFRIGERATION AND AIR
CONDITIONING
1. Introduction to Refrigeration 4. An ideal refrigerator has a capacity of 6 tons,
with a COP of 6. The capacity of the prime
Machine mover to run the machine should be at least
1. The ideal gas-refrigeration cycle is the same as the (a) 2.5 kW (b) 3.5 kW
(a) Brayton cycle (c) 4.5 kW (d) 5.5 kW
(b) Reversed Brayton cycle JWM 2017
(c) Vapour compression refrigeration cycle Ans. (b) : Coefficient of Performance, COP = 6
(d) Vapour absorption refrigeration cycle Refrigeration capacity = 6 tons.
ESE 2020 = 6 × 3.5 kW
Ans. (b) : Reversed Brayton cycle Refrigeration capacity
COP =
2. 1 tonne of refrigeration is equivalent to : Power input
KPSC AE. 2015
TNPSC AE 2017 6 × 3.5
6=
(a) 336 kJ/min (b) 210 kJ/min Pinput
(c) 1400 kJ/min (d) 540 kJ/min Pinput = 3.5 kW
Ans : (b) 1 tonne of refrigeration is equivalent to 210
5. A Carnot refrigerator works between the
kJ/min.
1 TR = 1000×335 kJ in 24 hours temperatures of 200 K and 300 K. If the
refrigerator receives 1 kW of heat, the work
1000 × 335
1 TR = = 232.6kJ / min requirement will be
24 × 60 (a) 0.5 kW (b) 0.67 kW
1000 × 335 (c) 1.5 kW (d) 3 kW
1TR = = 3.8kW
24 × 60 × 60 TNPSC 2019
In actual practice, one tonne of refrigeration is Ans. (a) : For Carnot refrigerator
taken as equivalent to 210 kJ/min or 3.5 kW. [COP]ideal = [COP]actual
3. Which of the following is not true for reverse TL Q
Brayton cycle? = L
TH − TL Win
(a) It has very low COP relative to vapour
compression cycle 1
Win =
(b) It consists of two constant pressure process  200 
and two isentropic process  300 + 200 
(c) It's working fluid is generally ecofriendly
(d) Heat transfer in evaporator is at constant
temperature
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (d) : Reverse Brayton cycle—

Win = 0.5kW
Reverse Bryton cycle consists of two constant pressure 6. The efficiency of Carnot Engine is 0.75. If cycle
process and two isentropic process. is reversed, C.O.P of reversed Carnot cycle will
Heat transfer in evaporator is at constant pressure. be
166
 (a) 1.25 (b) 1.33 Ans. (b) : Carnot cycle efficiency,
(c) 1.75 (d) 1.95 T ( 227 + 273)
APPSC AEE 2016 ηc = 1 − L = 1 −
TH ( 727 + 273)
Ans. (b) : ηc = 0.75
500
=1− = 0.5
1000
ηc = 50%
10. A reversed Carnot engine is used for heating a
building. It supplies 210 × 103 kJ/hr of heat to
the building at 20°C. The outside air is at –5°C.
The heat taken from the outside will be nearly
(a) 192 × 103 kJ/hr (b) 188 × 103 kJ/hr
(c) 184 × 103 kJ/hr (d) 180 × 103 kJ/hr
ESE 2019
Ans. (a) : Given,
T1 = 20 + 273 = 293 K
If cycle of Carnot engine is reversed then it work like a T2 = −5 + 273 = 268 K
heat pump then Q1 = 210 × 103 kJ/hr
1
[COP]H.P. = (For same temperature limit)
ηHE
1
[COP]H.P. = = 1.33
0.75
7. 'COP' of a reversible heat pump is 1.2. If it is
reversed to run as reversible heat engine then
its efficiency shall be
(a) 0.833 (b) 0.2 Q1 Desired Effect
(c) 1.2 (d) 0.5 (COP)HP = =
Winput Work input
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (a) : [COP]H.P. = 1.2 T1 Q1
= (∵ Carnot heat pump)
We know that for same temperature limits, T1 − T2 Q1 − Q 2
1 293 210 × 103
ηH.E. = =
[COP ]H.P. 293 − 268 210 × 103 − Q 2
1 210 × 103 − Q2 = 17.918 × 103
ηH.P. = = 0.833
1.2 Q2 = 192.08 × 103 kJ/hr
ηH.E. = 83.3% 11. A cold storage is to be maintained at –5°C
while the surroundings are at 35°C. The heat
8. Which of the following is not true for heat leakage from the surroundings into the cold
pump? storage is estimated to be 29 kW. The actual
(a) Low temperature reservoir is environment COP of the refrigeration plant used is one-
(b) Low temperature reservoir is conditioned third of an ideal plant working between the
space same temperatures. The power required to
(c) It is a cyclic device drive the plant will be
(d) Work done is negative (a) 10 kW (b) 11 kW
UPRVUNL AE 2016 (c) 12 kW (d) 13 kW
Ans. (b) : Heat pump is a cyclic device which consume ESE 2020
work to maintain a space above the surrounding 1
temperature. In which low temperature reservoir is Ans. (d) : ( COP )actual = ( COP )max
3
environment.
1  238 
9. A Carnot cycle operates between temperature =  = 2.233
of 727oC and 227oC, the efficiency of the engine 3  308 − 268 
is: Qɺ
(a) 40% (b) 50% COPactual =
Wɺ
(c) 60% (d) 45% ∴ Wɺ = 12.98 kW
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
167
12. Ice is formed at 0°C from water at 20°C Ans : (c) : Given Q1 = 1000 W
temperature of the brine is –8°C. The Q2 = 750 W
refrigeration cycle used is perfect reversed T1 = 300 K
Carnot cycle. Latent heat of ice = 335 kJ/kg, T2 = 260 K
and Cpw = 4.18 kJ/kgK The ice formed per
kWh will be nearly
(a) 81.4 kg (b) 76.4 kg
(c) 71.8 kg (d) 68.8 kg
ESE 2020
Ans. (a) : QRef = 335×m+4.18(20-0)m
So,

(COP)ideal =
( −8 + 273) =
265
(273 + 20) − ( −8 + 273)  28
Q1
Q Re f ∴ ( COP ) HP =
∵ ( COP )ideal = work input
Power Input
1000
265 335 × m + 4.18 × 20 × m =
= Q1 − Q 2
28 3600 1000
265 × 3600 =
m= = 81.39 1000 − 750
28 × ( 335 + 4.18 × 20 ) 1000
=
≈ 81.4 kg 250
13. A cyclic heat engine operates between a source ( COP ) HP = 4
temperature of 800°C and a sink temperature
of 30°C. The least rate of heat rejection per kW 16. An ideal refrigerator is operating between a
net output of engine will be nearly condenser temperature of 37ºC and an
(a) 0.2 kW (b) 0.4 kW evaporator temperature of –3ºC. If the
(c) 0.6 kW (d) 0.8 kW machine is functioning as a heat pump, its
ESE 2020 coefficient of performance (COP) will be
Ans. (b) : (a) 6.0 (b) 6.75
T2 W (c) 7.0 (d) 7.75
⇒ ηcarnot = 1 − =
T1 Q1 BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
303 1 Ans : (d) : COP of heat pump,
1− = Given,
1073 Q1
T1 = 37°C = 310K
Q1 = 1.39 kW
W = Q1 – Q2 T2 = – 3°C = 270K
1 = 1.39 – Q2
Q2 = 0.39 kW
14. A domestic food freezer maintains a
temperature of –15°C. The ambient air
temperature is 30°C. If heat leaks into the
freezer at the continuous rate of 1.75 kJ/s, the
least power necessary to pump this heat out
continuously will be nearly
(a) 0.1 kW (b) 0.2 kW
(c) 0.3 kW (d) 0.4 kW
ESE 2020 T 310
( COP )HP = 1 =
Ans. (c) : T1 − T2 310 − 270
T2 Q2 258 1.75 = 7.75
( COP )max. = = = =
T1 − T2 Wmin 303 − 258 Wmin 17. A domestic refrigerator maintains a
Wmin = 0.305 kW temperature of –200C. The ambient air
15. An industrial heat pump operates between the temperature is 250C. If heat leaks into the
temperatures of 27ºC and -13ºC. The rates of heat refrigerator at the continuous rate of 1 kJ/s, the
addition and heat rejection are 750 W and 1000 least power required to pump this heat out
W respectively. The COP for the heat pump is from the refrigerator continuously is :
(a) 7.5 (b) 6.5 (a) 18 watt (b) 180 watt
(c) 4.0 (d) 3.0 (c) 1.8 kilowatt (d) 18 kilowatt
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
168
Ans. (b) : Given as, 21. Which is the type of condenser used for ≥3 ≤50
Q2 = 1 kJ/s = 1000 J/s Tons cooling capacity of a refrigeration unit?
T1 = 25ºC = 298K (a) Water cooled (b) Air cooled
T2 = –20ºC = 253K (c) Water and air cooled (d) None
Q T2 Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
⇒ 2 =
W T1 − T2 Ans. (a) : Ton's of Refrigeration Capacity :-
1× 1000 253 i) Water cooled condenser – ≥ 3 - ≤ 50 tons.
⇒ = 0 ii) Air cooled condenser – ≤ 3 tons.
W 25 − ( −200 )
iii) Water and air cooled condenser – > 50 tons.
45 × 1000 iv) Shell & tube type condenser – 10 – 50 tons.
⇒W= = 177.7 watt
253 22. Which is the type of condenser used for > 50
≈ 180 watt Tons cooling capacity of a refrigeration unit?
(a) Water cooled (b) Air cooled
18. A condenser of a refrigeration system rejects (c) Water and air cooled (d) None
heat at a rate of 120 kW while compressor
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
consumes power of 30 kW. the coefficient of
performance of the system would be. Ans. (c) : Water cooled type of condensers having
(a) 1/4 (b) 4 refrigeration capacity is around > 50 tons.
(c) 1/3 (d) 3 23. Efficiency of Carnot engine is given as 80%. If
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016 the cycle direction is reversed, then value of
Ans : (d) COP in reversed Carnot cycle will be?
(a) 1.25 (b) 0.8
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.25
SJVN ET 2013
Ans. (a) : When the cycle direction is reversed it would
be a heat pump
1 1
(COP)HP = = = 1.25
ηHE 0.8
24. If a Carnot cycle has coefficient of performance
4, the ratio of maximum temperature to
minimum temperature will be
Heat rejection rate (Qrej)= 120 kW (a) 0.25 (b) 1.25
Work Supplied (W) = 30 kW (c) 5 (d) 3
Qabsorbed = 120 – 30 HPPSC AE 2018
= 90
Ans. (b) : We know that
kW
TL
(COP)Ref. = Qabsorbed = 90 = 3 [COP]carnot cycle =
W 30 TH − TL
(COP)Ref . = 3 TL
=4
19. A single fixed point temperature scale is based TH − TL
on
1
(a) ice point =4
(b) steam point  TH 
(c) triple point of water   −1
 TL 
(d) critical point of water
TH 1
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper − 1 = = 0.25
Ans. (c) : Single point referred here triple point of water TL 4
(the state at which all three phases of water co-exist in  TH 
equilibrium, which assigned the value 0.01C.   =1.25
20. In air conditioning of aeroplanes, using air as  TL 
refrigerant, the cycle used is 25. HP/TR of refrigeration system is:
(a) Reversed carnot cycle (a) Inversely proportional to the COP of
(b) Reversed joule cycle refrigeration system
(c) Reversed brayton cycle (b) Directly proportional to the COP of
(d) Reversed otto Cycle refrigeration system
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper (c) Independent of COP of refrigeration system
Ans. (c) : In an conditioning of aeroplanes, using air as (d) 1+ { COP of refrigeration system}
a refrigerant the cycle used is reversed brayton cycle. UPRVUNL AE 2016
169
Ans. (a) : We know that 29. A Carnot refrigerator working between 300 K
Desired effect and 250 K has the cooling capacity of 10 TR.
(COP ) ref . = Rate of heat rejected to the high temperature
Work done reservoir will be:
So, HP-TR of refrigeration system inversely (a) 35.1 kW (b) 7.02 kW
proportional to the COP of refrigeration. (c) 42.12 kW (d) 28 kW
26. The main characteristic feature of Air (e) 30 kW
Refrigeration System is CGPSC 25 Apr. (Shift II) 2018
(a) High COP Ans. (c) : [COP]Ref = [COP]actual
(b) throughout the cycle the refrigerant remains [1 TR = 3.51685 kW]
in gaseous state 250 10 × 3.51685
(c) Weight of air circulate is less = =5
(d) High Refrigerating cost 300 − 250 Q 2 − 10 × 3.51685
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (b) : The main characteristic feature of Air
Refrigeration System is throughout the cycle the
refrigerant remains in gaseous state.
27. The COP of a refrigerator which operates on
reversed Carnot cycle whose highest
temperature is 27oC and lower temperature is –
23oC.
(a) 0.2 (b) 5
(c) 5.75 (d) 6
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (b) : Q 2 = 42.12 kW
TL
[ COP ] Re f . = 30. The COP of gas refrigeration cycle [r =
TH − TL pressure ratio]
=
( −23 + 273) (a) increases with increase in pressure ratio
(b) decreases with increase in pressure ratio
(273 + 27) − ( −23 + 273 )
(c) remains constant with increase in pressure
250 ratio
= =5
50 1
(d) is given by, COP =
28. A heat pump operating between high
temperature T1 and low temperature T2 has its
( ) γ
r −1

COP expressed as- 1

(e) is given by, COP = =
(a)
T1
(b)
T2 ( ) 1
r / γ −1
T1 − T2 T1 − T2 CGPSC 25 Apr. (Shift II) 2018
T1 − T2 T1 + T2 Ans. (b) : The COP of gas refrigeration cycle decreases
(c) (d)
T1 + T2 T1 − T2 with increase in pressure.
RPSC AE 2018 31. Coefficient of performance (COP) of vapor
Ans. (a) : Heat pump—A heat pump is defined as the compression refrigeration system [Te =
cyclic device which maintain a space above the evaporator temperature, Tc = condenser
atmospheric temperature. temperature]
(a) increases with increase in Tc at constant Te
(b) increases with decrease in Te at constant Tc
(c) increases with increase in Te at constant Tc
(d) does not change with variation of Te at
constant Tc
(e) does not change with variation of Tc at
constant Te
CGPSC 25 Apr. (Shift II) 2018
Ans. (c) : coefficient of performance (COP) of VCRS,
Desired effect increases with increase, in Te at constant Tc
[COP]H .P. =
Net work 32. An ideal refrigerator has a capacity of 6 tons,
T1 with a COP of 6. The capacity of the prime
= mover to run the machine should be at least
T1 − T2
(a) 2.5 kW (b) 3.5 kW
170
 (c) 4.5 kW (d) 5.5 kW 36. A refrigerating machine working on reversed
JWM 2017 carnot cycle takes out 2 kW of heat from the
Ans. (b) : Coefficient of Performance, COP = 6 system while working between temperature
Refrigeration capacity = 6 tons. limits of 300K and 200K, the COP and power
= 6 × 3.5 kW consumed are respectively.
(a) 1 and 1 kW (b) 2 and 1 kW
Refrigeration capacity
COP = (c) 1 and 2 kW (d) 2 and 2 kW
Power input RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
6 × 3.5 Ans : (b) Given, Q2 = 2 kW
6= T1 = 300K
Pinput
T2 = 200K
Pinput = 3.5 kW
33. A heat pump working on a reversed Carnot
cycle has a COP of 5. If it works as a
refrigerator and consumes 2 kW power, the
heat absorbed by the refrigerator will be
(a) 6 kW (b) 7 kW
(c) 8 kW (d) 9 kW
JWM 2017
Ans. (c) : COP of heat pump, COPHP = 5
COP of Refrigeration, COPRef. = COPHP – 1 ⇒ (COP) Ref . =
Desired effect
=
T2
=
200
=5–1=4 Winput T1 − T2 300 − 200
Refrigerating effect =2
COP =
Work done (COP) Re f . =
Q2
Refrigerating effect = COPRef. × Work done Winput
Heat absorbed by refrigerator = 4 × 2 = 8 kW Q2 2
Winput = = = 1 kW
34. Bell Coleman cycle used for air refrigeration (COP) Ref. 2
system is a
37. A refrigeration cycle operates between
(a) Reversed Carnot cycle
condenser temperature of +270C and
(b) Reversed Otto cycle evaporator temperature of –230C. The
(c) Reversed Joule cycle coefficient of performance of cycle will be–
(d) Reversed Rankine cycle (a) 0.2 (b) 1.2
APPSC AEE 2016 (c) 5 (d) 6
Ans. (c) : Bell Coleman cycle used for air refrigeration RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
system is a reversed Joule cycle. Ans : (c) Given,
35. A refrigerator with a COP of 3 user 2.4 kg/min T1 = 27ºC = 300K
refrigerant extracting 150 kJ/kg heat in the T2 = – 23ºC = 250K
evaporator. Assuming compressor efficiency T 250
compressor efficiency of 80% the minimum ( COP )Ref. = 2 , ( COP )Ref. = ,
T1 - T2 300 - 250
size of the motor is
(a) 1.5 kW (b) 2.5 kW 250
= =5
(c) 6 kW (d) 4.5 kW 50
TSPSC AEE 2015 38. A Carnot refrigerator works between the
Ans. (b) : Data given- temperature of 200 K and 300 K. If the
COP = 3 m = 24 kg/min refrigerator receives 1 kW of heat, the work
Extracting heat = 150 kJ/kg requirement will be :
ηc = 80% (a) 0.5 kW (b) 0.67 kW
(c) 1.5 kW (d) 3 kW
Refrigeration capacity 24 × 150 RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
COP = = =3
Win Win × 60 Ans. (b) :
Win = 20kW 200
(COP)ref. = =2
We know that 300 − 200
Win Q
ηc = (COP)ref. = 2
W
[ Win ]act. 1
20 × 100 W= = 0.5 kW
[ Win ]act. = 80
= 25 kW 2
w = 0.5 kW

171
39. A refrigerator working on a reversed Carnot 43. The ratio of high temperature to low
cycle absorb 10 kW power and has a COP of 4. temperature for reversed Carnot refrigerator
What will be the quantity of heat delivered to a is 1.25. The COP will be :
building if it works as a heat pump? (a) 2 (b) 3
(a) 30 kW (b) 40 kW (c) 4 (d) 5
(c) 50 kW (d) 60 kW OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 Ans. (c) :
Ans. (c) : TH
Given, = 1.25
TL
T
( COP )Ref = L
TH − TL
W TL 1
= =
T   TH 
TL  H − 1  − 1
T
 L   TL 
1
= = COP = 4
( COP )Re f =4 1.25 − 1
44. A refrigerating machine working on reversed
RE Carnot cycle takes out 2 kW per unit of heat
4=
W from the system while working between
RE = 4 × 10 = 40 kW temperature limits of 300 K and 200 K. COP
Hence heat supplied to building and power consumed by the cycle will be
= 40 + 10 = 50 kW (a) 1, 1 kW (b) 1, 2 kW
40. In a domestic refrigerator, periodic defrosting (c) 2, 1 kW (d) 2, 2 kW
is required because frosting Gujarat PSC AE 2019
(a) Causes corrosion of material TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
(b) Reduce heat extraction Ans : (c) : Given,
T1 = 300 K
(c) Over cools food stuff
T2 = 200 K
(d) Partially blocks refrigerant flow Q2 = 2 kW
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
T2
Ans. (b) : In a domestic refrigerator, periodic defrosting (COP)Ref =
is required because frosting Reduce heat extraction T1 − T2
forsting in refriqerator increase power consumption in 200
(COP) Ref =
compressure 300 − 200
41. Bell coleman cycle is a reversed : ( COP ) Ref 2
=
(a) Rankine (b) Otto
(c) Joule (d) Carnot Q
(COP)Ref. = 2
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 W
Ans. (c) : 2
W=
! Bell Coleman cycle is a reversed of Joule cycle. It is 2
called reverse Brayton cycle. W = 1 kW
! It is a refrigeration cycle where the working fluid is
a gas that is compressed and expanded but does not 45. Efficiency of Carnot cycle is given as 75%. If
change phase. Air is most often this working fluid. the cycle direction is reversed, what will be the
value of COP of reversed Carnot cycle?
42. In an ideal refrigeration cycle, the condenser
0 (a) 0.33 (b) 0.4
and evaporator temperatures are 27 C and – (c) 4 (d) 0.25
0
13 C respectively. The COP of cycle is : Gujarat PSC AE 2019
(a) 6.5 (b) 7.5
Ans : (a) : The Carnot engine- Efficiency of Carnot
(c) 10.5 (d) 15
heat engine
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
T
Ans. (a) : Given η = 1− 2
0
T1 = 27 C = 300 K T1
T2 = -130C = 260 K T2
T2 260 260 0.75 = 1 −
COP = = = T1
T1 − T2 300 − 260 40
T2 1
=
COP = 6.5 T1 4
172
 49. The centrifugal compressors are generally used
for refrigerants that require:
(a) Small displacements and low condensing
pressures
W (b) Large displacements and high condensing
pressures
(c) Small displacements and high condensing
pressures
(d) Large displacements and low condensing
Now the cycle direction is reversed i.e., Carnot pressures
refrigerator so COP of refrigerator- OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
T T2 Ans : (d) : The centrifugal compressors are generally
( COP ) Ref = 2 = used for refrigerants that require large displacements
T1 − T2 4T2 − T2
and low condensing pressures.
1 50. A cold storage is to be maintained at –5°C
=
3 while the surroundings are at 35°C. The heat
= 0.33 leakage from the surroundings into the cold
46. The C.O.P. of a Carnot refrigerator in winter storage is estimated to be 29 kW. The actual
as compared to in summer will be: 1
(a) Large (b) Small COP of the refrigeration plant used is rd
3
(c) Unpredictable (d) Same that of an ideal plant working between the
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II same temperatures. The power required to
Ans : (a) : The COP of a Carnot refrigerator in winter drive the plant will be
as compared to in summer will be large. (a) 13 kW (b) 14 kW
47. When the lower temperature of a refrigerating (c) 15 kW (d) 16 kW
machine is fixed, then the coefficient of ESE 2019
performance can be improved by: Ans. (a) : Given,
(a) Operating the machine at higher speeds T1 = 35 + 273 = 308 K
(b) Operating the machine at lower speeds T2 = −5 + 273 = 268 K
(c) Raising the higher temperature Q2 = 29 kW
(d) Lowering the higher temperature
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (d) :We know that
TL
[COP]Ref =
TH − TL
If, TL = constant
then [COP]Ref = f [TH only]
then TH ↓ → [COP]Ref ↑
48. A heat pump working on a reversed Carnot
cycle has a C.O.P. of 5. It works as a T2
(COP)ideal =
refrigerator taking 1 kW of work input. The T1 − T2
refrigerating effect will be: 268
(a) 4 kW (b) 1 kW = = 6.7
308 − 268
(c) 2 kW (d) 5 kW
1
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II (COP)actual = (COP)ideal
Ans : (a) : Given 3
(COP)HP = 5 = 2.23
Work input Wi/p = 1 kW RE Q
(COP)actual = = 2
(COP)HP = 1 + (COP)Ref Winput W
5 = 1 + (COP)Ref Q2 29
(COP)Ref = 4 W= =
(COP)actual 2.23
Re frigerating effect (RE)
( COP ) Re f = W = 12.987 ⇒ 13 kW
( )
Work Input Wi / p
51. A cold storage has capacity f or food
RE preservation at a temperature of –3 °C when
4 =
1 the outside temperature is 27 °C. The
RE = 4 kW minimum power required to operate with a
cooling load of 90 kW is
173
 (a) 20 kW (b) 15 kW 54. Consider the following statements for
(c) 10 kW (d) 5 kW refrigeration and air-conditioning :
ESE 2018 1. In a refrigerating machine, the heat exchanger
Ans. (c) : Given, that absorbs heat is connected to a conditioned
Q2 = 90 kW space.
T2 = −3 + 273 = 270 K
2. A refrigerating cycle operating reversibly
T1 = 27 + 273 = 300 K
between two heat reservoirs has the highest
coefficient of performance.
3. The lower the refrigeration required and the
higher the temperature of heat rejection to the
surroundings, the larger the power
consumption.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Minimum power is when COP is maximum and (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
maximum COP is Carnot COP ESE 2017
Q Q2 Ans. (d) : All three statements are correct.
(COP)R = 2 =
W Q1 − Q 2 For lower refrigeration requirement and higher heat
T2 270 rejection, work input required will get increase because
(COP)carnot = = =9 of high compression ratio.
T1 − T2 300 − 270
Q 55. The COP of a heat pump βhp and the COP of a
(COP)carnot = 2 refrigerator βref are related as :
W
90 (a) βhp + βref =1 (b) βhp –βref =1
W= = 10 kW (c) βref – βhp =1 (d) βhp + βref =0
9
52. An ideal refrigerator working on a reversed UJVNL AE 2016
Rankine cycle has a capacity of 3 tons. The Ans : (b) Given, (COP)HP = βhp
COP of the unit is found to be 6. The capacity ( COP )R = βref
of the motor required to run the unit is (take 1
T = 210 kJ/min)
(a) 1.85 kW (b) 1.75 kW
(c) 1.65 kW (d) 1.50 kW
ESE 2018
Ans. (b) : Given,
Refrigerating effect (RE) = 3 × 210 = 630 kJ/min
(COP)R = 6
RE
(COP)R =
W
RE 630
W=
( COP )R
=
6
= 105 kJ/min = 1.75 kW ( COP ) HP = ( COP ) R + 1
T
53. The refrigeration system of an ice plant ( COP ) R = L
working between temperatures of -5°C and TH − TL
25°C produces 20kg of ice per minute from T T
water at 20°C. The specific heat of water is 4.2 ( COP ) R + 1 = L + 1 = H
kJ/kg and latent heat of ice is 335 kJ/kg. The TH − TL TH − TL
refrigeration capacity of the refrigeration plant is
(a) 9040 kJ/min (b) 8750 kJ/min
( COP ) R + 1 = ( COP ) HP
(c) 8380 kJ/min (d) 8010 kJ/min ( COP ) HP − ( COP ) R = 1
ESE 2017
β hp -βref = 1
Ans. (c) : Given,
TH = 25°C (mɺ )ice = 20 kg/min 56. In a reversed Carnot refrigeration cycle, the
TL = −5°C Tinitial = 20°C condenser and evaporator are at 27°C and -
(CP)water = 4.2 kJ/kg
13°C, respectively. The COP of this cycle is:
(L)ice = 335 kJ/kg
(a) 6.5 (b) 7.5
Refrigeration capacity = m ɺ CP ∆T + mL ɺ
(c) 10.5 (d) 15.5
= 20 × 4.2 × (20 − 0) + 20 × 335 = 8380 kJ/min OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
174
Ans : (a) TL
( COP )R =
TH − TL
T
( COP )H.P = H
TH − TL
(COP)H.P – (COP)R = 1
( COP )H.P = 1 + ( COP )R
59. A human body feels comfortable when the
TH = 27°C + 273 = 300K heat produced by the metabolism of human
TL = –13°C + 273 = 260K body is equal to :
(a) Heat dissipated to surroundings
TL 260
(COP)R = = = 6.5 (b) Heat stored in the human body
TH − TL 300 − 260 (c) Sum of Heat dissipated to surroundings and
57. COP for refrigerator and heat pump are Heat stored in the human body
related as: (d) Difference of Heat dissipated to surrounding
(a) COP h = COP r – 1 (b) COP h = COPr and Heat stored in the human body
1 MPPSC AE 2016
(c) COP h = COP r + 1 (d) COP h = Ans : (c) A human body feels comfortable when the
CO Pr
heat produced by the metabolism of human body is
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II equal to sum of heat dissipated to surrounding and heat
Ans : (c) in the human body.
COP for refrigerator and heat pump are related as. 60. The C.O.P of a refrigerator working on the
(COP)h =(COP)R + 1 reversed carnot cycle is
TL TH − TL
(a) (b)
TH − TL TL
TH TL
(c) (d)
TH − TL TL − TH
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (a)
TL
(COP)R =
TH − TL
Add 1 both side
TL T + TH − TL
(COP)R + 1 = +1= L
TH − TL ( TH − TL )
TH
(COP)R + 1 = = (COP)H.P
( TH − TL ) TL
(C.O.P.) ref =
(COP)R + 1 = (COP)H.P TH − TL
58. Consider a refrigerator and a heat pump Re frigeration effect
working on the reversed cornot cycle between (C.O.P.) ref = work input
the same temperature limits. Then:
(a) COP of Heat Pump=COP of Refrigerator 61. One tonne of refrigeration is equivalent to SI
(b) COP of Heat Pump=COP of Refrigerator–1 unit of
(c) COP of Heat Pump=COP of Refrigerator+1 (a) 1 kW (b) 2.5 kW
(d) COP of Heat Pump= 1/(COP of Refrigerator) (c) 3.5 kW (d) 5 kW
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
Ans : (c) OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
Ans : (c) Units of Refrigeration:-A tonne of
refrigeration is defined as the amount of refrigeration
effect produced by the uniform melting of one tonne
(1000 kg) of ice from at 0 0C in 24 hours.
mL
1TR =
t
m = 1000 kg
L = latent heat of ice 335 kJ/ kg
175
 t = 24 hours COP = 2
1000 × 335 Q2 = 100 kJ/min
1TR = = 232.6kJ / sec
24 × 60 100
= = 1.67 kJ/sec
1000 × 335 60
1TR = = 3.87kJ / min
24 × 60 × 60 Q
COP = 2
In actual Practice, one tonne of refrigeration is taken as W
equivalent of 210kJ/min or 3.5 kw. 1.67
62. If a Carnot refrigerator and a Carnot heat W= = 0.834 kJ/sec
2
pump are operating between the same two Q1 = W + Q2
thermal reservoirs, and the COP of the W = Q1 − Q2
refrigerator is 2.5, then COP of the heat pump
will be : Q1 = 0.834 + 1.67 = 2.50 kJ/sec
(a) 4.5 (b) 1.5 66. In a one ton capacity water cooler, water enters
(c) 2.5 (d) 3.5 at 30 °C at the rate of 200 litre/hour. Taking
BHEL ET 2019 specific heat of water as 4.16 kJ/kg K, the
Ans. (d) : Given (COP)Ref = 2.5 outlet temperature of water will be
(COP)HP = 1 + (COP)Ref = 1 +2.5 (a) 3.5 °C (b) 6.3 °C
(COP)HP = 3.5 (c) 23.7 °C (d) 15 °C
63. If the pressure range of compressor is low, then UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
the COP will be Ans. (d) : Given,
(a) low Q = 1 Ton = 3.5 kW
(b) high T1 = 30°C
(c) remains unchanged Cpw = 4.16 kJ/kg K
(d) Cannot be determined ɺ = 200 litre/hour
JPSC AE PRE 2019 Volume flow rate Q
Ans. (b) : If the pressure range of compressor is low, 200 × 10 −3 3
then the COP will be high. = m / sec
3600
64. The domestic refrigerator uses following type
of compressor Qɺ = 1 m3 / sec
(a) Centrifugal 18000
(b) Axial ∴ ɺ w = ρAV
m
(c) Piston type reciprocating ɺ
= ρQ [∵ Qɺ = AV ]
(d) Miniature sealed unit
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper 1
= 1000 × kg / sec
Ans. (c) : Domestic refrigerator uses, piston type 18000
reciprocating compressor, compressor raising its 1
ɺw=
m kg / sec
pressure and temperature of vapour and pushes it into 18
the coils of the condenser on the outside of the ɺ w Cpw ∆Τ
Q=m
refrigerator. The refrigerant absorb the heat inside the
fridge when it flows through the evaporator coils, 1
3.5 = × 4.16 × ( 30 − T2 )
cooling down the air inside the fridge. 18
65. A refrigerator with a COP of 2 removes the 63 = 124.8 – 4.16T2
heat from the refrigerated space at the rate of 4.16T2 = 124.8 – 63
100 kJ/min. The amount of heat rejected to 4.16T2 = 61.8
surrounding will be: 61.8
(a) 2.0 kW (b) 3.0 kW T2 = = 14.85
4.16
(c) 1.5 kW (d) 2.5 kW T2 ≈ 15°C
SJVN ET 2019
67. Two reversible refrigerators are arranged in
Ans. (d) : Given,
series and their COP are 4 and 5 respectively.
The COP of the composite refrigeration system
would be
(a) 1.5 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4.5
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (b) : The COP of the composite refrigeration
[ COP]1 × [ COP ]2 4×5 20
sysetm = = = =2
1 + [ COP ]1 + [COP ]2 1 + 4 + 5 10

176
68. An ideal refrigerator is operating between a (a) 614.3 kJ/hr (b) 3600 kW
condenser temperature of 37 °C and an (c) 659.3 kJ/hr (d) 1 kW
evaporator temperature of – 3 °C. If the UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
machine is functioning as a heat pump, its COP Ans. (d) :
will be 74. Aircraft refrigeration system is based upon:-
(a) 6 (b) 6.75 (a) Joule cycle
(c) 7 (d) 7.75 (b) Brayton cycle
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (c) Carnot cycle (reversed)
Ans. (d) : Given, T1 = 37 + 273 = 310 K (d) Vapour compression cycle
T2 = –3 + 273 = 270 K UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (a) : Aircraft refrigeration system is based upon
joule cycle.
75. A Carnot refrigerator operates between 300.3K
and 273K. The fraction of cooling effect
required as work input is:-
(a) 20% (b) 10%
(c) 50% (d) Cannot be calculated
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
HE Q1 T1 Ans. (b) : T1 = 300.3 K
(COP)HP = = = T2 = 273 K
Win Q1 − Q 2 T1 − T2 T2 273 273
310 310 (COP)Ref = = = = 10
(COP)HP = = = 7.75 T1 − T2 300.3 − 273 27.3
310 − 270 40 We know that
69. A refrigerator working on a reversed carnot Q2
cycle has a COP of 4. If it works as heat pump (COP)Ref =
and consumes 1kW, the heating effect will be W input
(a) 1 kW (b) 4 kW Q2 Q
(c) 5 kW (d) 6 kW Winput = = 2
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (COP) Ref 10
Ans. (c) : [COP]HP = [COP]Ref + 1 Q
Winput = 2
[COP]HP = 4 + 1 = 5 10
Heating effect Winput = 0.1 Q2
[COP]HP =
Work input Winput = 10%Q 2
Heating effect 76. A Carnot refrigeration cycle has a COP of 4.
5=
1 The ratio of higher temperature to lower
Heating effect = 5 kW temperature will be:-
70. The Bell-Coleman refrigeration cycle uses (a) 2.5 (b) 2.0
_______ as the working fluid. (c) 1.5 (d) 1.25
(a) Hydrogen (b) Carbon dioxide UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
(c) Air (d) Any inert gas TL
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II Ans. (d) : COP =
Ans. (c) : Air TH − TL
71. Effects of heat pump and refrigeration 1
4=
respectively are obtained at  TH 
(a) compressor and condenser   −1
(b) evaporator and condenser  TL 
(c) condenser and evaporator T 
(d) compressor and evaporator 4 H  = 5
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II  TL 
Ans. (c) : condenser and evaporator TH 5
= = 1.25
72. For practical purposes one Ton of refrigeration TL 4
means
(a) 3.48 kW (b) 34.8 kW 77. A low value of time constant for a
(c) 348 kW (d) None of these thermocouple can be achieved by:-
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (a) Decreasing the wire diameter
Ans. (a) : 3.48 kW (b) Using metals of high density and high
73. A refrigerator (COP=2.5) removes energy by specific heat
heat transfer from freezer at 0°C at a rate of (c) Increasing the heat transfer coefficient
9000 kJ/hr and rejects energy to the (d) (a) and (c) above
surroundings. Determine power input to the UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
refrigerator:- Ans. (d) :
177
78. Thermal efficiency of a Carnot engine is 30%. 84. The COP of a domestic refrigerator is
If the engine is reversed to operate as heat (a) less than 1 (b) more than 1
pump with same operating conditions, what (c) equal to 1 (d) varies from –1 to +1
will be the COP of the heat pump? UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(a) 0.3 (b) 1.33 Ans. (b) : More than 1
(c) 2.33 (d) 3.33
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (d) : Given as, ηcarnot = 30%
2. Vapour Compression System
1 100
For same temperature limit, [COP]HP = = 85.In a vapour compression cycle the condition
ηcarnot 30 of refrigerant is saturated liquid:
[COP]HP = 3.33 (a) before entering the compressor
79. If the capacity of a refrigerating machine is one (b) before passing through the condenser
ton, then the rate of heat abstraction is equal to:- (c) after passing through the condenser
(a) 50 kcal/min (b) 100 kcal/min (d) after passing through the expansion valve
(c) 150 kcal/min (d) 500 kcal/min (KPSC AE. 2015)
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans : (c) In a vapour Compression cycle the Condition
Ans. (a) : One ton = 210 kJ/min of refrigerants is saturated liquid after passing through
1 calories = 4.18 J
the Condenser.
210
Then the rate of heal abstraction = kcal/min Vapour Compression cycle :-
4.18
= 50.239 kcal/min ≃ 50 kcal/min
80. The refrigeration system works on:-
(a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
(b) First law of thermodynamics
(c) Second law of thermodynamics
(d) None of the above
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (c) : The refrigeration system works on second law
of thermodynamics. Process 1-2 : - Isentropic Compression
81. A heat pump working on reversed Carnot cycle Process 2-3 : - Constant pressure heat rejection
has COP of 5. If it works as a refrigerator Process 3-4 : - Iso-enthalpic expansion
taking 1 kW of work input the refrigerating Process 4-1 : - Constant Pressure heat addation.
effect will be 86. The throttling operation in a refrigeration
(a) 1 kW (b) 2 kW cycle is carried out in
(c) 3 kW (d) 4 kW (a) evaporator (b) capillary tube
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II (c) discharge valve (d) expansion valve
Ans. (d) : (KPSC AE 2015)
COPHP = COPR + 1 Ans : (b) Refrigeration cycle:-
5 = COPR + 1
COPR = 4
RE
COP =
Work input
RE
4=
1
RE = 4 kW
The throttling operation in a refrigeration cycle is
82. Air refrigeration works on which cycle?
carried out in capillary tube.
(a) Rankine (b) Bell-Coleman cycle
(c) Reversed Carnot cycle (d) Both (b) and (c) 87. In a vapour compression system, the condition of
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II refrigerant before entering the compressor is:
Ans. (d) : Both (b) and (c) (a) Saturated liquid
83. In an ideal refrigeration system based on (b) Wet vapour
reversed Carnot cycle, the condenser and (c) Superheated vapour
evaporator temperatures are 27ºC and – 13ºC (d) Dry saturated vapour
respectively. The C.O.P. of the cycle would be TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
(a) 6.5 (b) 7.5 Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
(c) 0.15 (d) 10.5 Ans. (d) : In a vapour compression system, the
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II condition of refrigerant before entering the compressor
Ans. (a) : 6.5 is dry saturated vapour.
178
 Ans : (b) h1 = 1600 kJ/kg
h2 = 1800 kJ/kg
h3 = h4 = 600 kJ/kg

Re frigeration effect
where point 1 is entering the compressor whereas point (COP) ref =
2 is entering to condenser or leaving from compressor. Work input
88. Consider the following statements: 1600 − 600 1000
1. The operation of a refrigerator unit at more ( CoP )ref = = =5
1800 − 1600 200
than one temperature can be accomplished by
using different throttling valves and a ( COP )ref =5
separate compressor for each ‘temperature 91. In a vapour compression cycle, a good
range’. refrigerator should have a
2. The refrigerated space must be maintained (a) Large latent heat of vaporization at condenser
above the ice point to prevent freezing. pressure.
3. In domestic refrigerators, the refrigerant is (b) Large latent heat at evaporator pressure
throttled to a higher pressure in the freezer (c) Condenser pressure close to critical
followed by full expansion in the refrigerated (d) Low critical pressure
space. UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
Which of the above statements are correct? Ans : (b) In a vapour compression cycle, a good
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only refrigerator should have a large latent heat at evaporator
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 pressure.
ESE 2018 92. COP of air refrigerator is related with COP of
Ans. (a) : In domestic refrigerators refrigerant is vapour compression refrigerator as
throttled to lower pressure in freezer when compared to (a) (COP)air > (COP)vap.c
refrigerator, statement-3 is wrong. Hence by elimination (b) (COP)air < (COP)vap.c
(c) (COP)air = (COP)vap.c
method only option (a) is true.
(d) None of the above
89. A single-stage, single acting reciprocating UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
refrigerant compressor has the following data: Ans : (b) COP of air refrigerator is related with COP of
Clearance volume = 0.0005 m3 vapour compression refrigerator as
Stroke volume = 0.01 m3
Suction volume = 0.0084 m3 ( COP )air < ( COP ) vap.c
The volumetric efficiency of compressor is 93. A simple saturated refrigeration cycle has the
given by following state points, enthalpy after
(a) 84% (b) 94% compression = 425 kJ/kg, enthalpy after
(c) 78% (d) 90% throttling = 125 kJ/kg, enthalpy before
SJVN ET 2019 compression = 375 kJ/kg. The COP of cycle
Ans. (a) : Volumetric efficiency of compressor will be :
Amount of gas leaving the compressor (a) 5 (b) 3.5
= (c) 6 (d) 10
Amount of gas entering the compressor HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
0.0084 Ans : (a)
ηv = × 100 = 84%
0.01
90. For simple vapour compression cycle, enthalpy
at suction = 1600kJ/kg, enthalpy at discharge
from the compressor = 1800kJ/kg, enthalpy at
exit from condenser = 600 kJ/kg. What is the
COP for his refrigeration cycle?
(a) 3.3 (b) 5.0
(c) 4.0 (d) 4.5 h2 = 425kJ/kg
MPPSC AE 2016 h4 = 125 kJ/kg
179
h1 = 375 kJ/kg
Re frigeration effect h1 − h 4
COP = = (b) Increases with the increase in condenser
work input h 2 − h1
375 − 125
COP =
425 − 375
COP = 5
94. A Freon 12 simple saturation cycle operates at
temperature of 35°C and –15°C for the
condenser and evaporator. If the refrigeration
effect produced by the cycle is 111.5 kJ/kg and
the work required by the compressor is 27.2
kJ/kg, the value of COP will be nearly
(a) 4.1 (b) 3.6
(c) 3.1 (d) 2.6
ESE 2020
Ans. (a) :
RE 111.5
COP = = = 4.099
W 27.2
95. Consider the following for the evaporator of a
vapour compression refrigeration system:
1. A low temperature is maintained so that heat
can flow from the external fluid
2. Refrigeration effect is produced as the
refrigerant liquid vapourizes
3. A low pressure is maintained so that the
compressor can run
Of the above, which is correct
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 1 and 2
(e) 1 and 3
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
Ans. (d) : The evaporator of a vapor compression
refrigeration system maintained a low temperature so
that heat can flow from the external fluid and produce
refrigeration effect as the refrigerant liquid vapourizes.
96. The C.O.P. of a refrigerator cycle with increase
in evaporator temperature, keeping the
condenser temperature constant will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain unaffected
(d) May increase or decrease depending upon the
type of refrigerant used
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
Ans. (a) : The C.O.P. of a refrigerator cycle with
increase in evaporator temperature, keeping the
condenser temperature constant will increase.
97. The capillary tube used as expansion device in
vapour compression system works on the
principle of
(a) Isothermal expansion causing pressure drop
(b) Adiabatic expansion causing pressure drop
(c) Flow through pipe with friction causing
pressure drop
(d) Throttle expansion causing pressure drop
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
Ans. (d) : Capillary tube used as expansion device in
vapour compression system works on the principle of
throttle expansion causing pressure drop.
98. The coefficient of performance of vapour
compression refrigeration system:
180
(a) decreases with the decrease in evaporator
temperature at fixed condenser temperature
temperature at fixed evaporator temperature
(c) Remains constant with the decrease in
evaporator temperature at fixed condenser
temperature
(d) Increases with the decrease in evaporator
temperature at fixed condenser temperature
SJVN ET 2019
Ans. (a) : Effect of decrease in evaporator pressure-
• Refrigerating effect will decrease.
• COP will decrease.
• Volumetric efficiency will decrease.
• Work done will increase.
• Effect of increase in condense pressure
• Refrigeration effect will decrease.
• COP will decrease.
• Volumetric efficiency will decrease.
• Work done will increase.
99. Specific isentropic work of compression in
vapour compression refrigeration system
decreases with
(a) Decrease in evaporator temperature at
constant condenser temperature
(b) Increase in evaporator temperature at constant
condenser temperature
(c) Increase in condenser temperature at constant
evaporator temperature
(d) Decrease in evaporator temperature and
increase in condenser temperature
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
Ans. (b) : Specific isentropic work of compression in
vapour compression refrigeration system decreases with
increase in evaporator temperature at constant
condenser temperature.
100. COP of vapour compression refrigeration
system increases with
(a) Increase in evaporator temperature at constant
condenser temperature
(b) Decrease in evaporator temperature at
constant condenser temperature
(c) Increase in condenser temperature at constant
evaporator temperature
(d) Increase in mass flow of refrigerant
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
Ans. (a) : COP of vapour compression refrigeration
system increases with increase in evaporator
temperature at constant condenser temperature.
101. Refrigerating effect in vapour compression
refrigeration system increases with
(a) Increase in evaporator temperature at constant
condenser pressure
(b) Decrease in evaporator pressure at constant
condenser pressure
(c) Increase in condenser temperature at constant
evaporator temperature
(d) Increase in mass flow rate of refrigerant in the
system
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
Ans. (a) : Refrigerating effect in vapour compression 104. The process of cooling the liquid refrigerant
refrigeration system increases with increase in
evaporator temperature at constant condenser pressure.
Refrigeration effect
4 - 1' > 4 - 1
102. At constant condenser pressure, reduction in
evaporator pressure of vapour compression
refrigeration cycle does not lead to:
(a) Decrease in evaporation temperature
(b) Decrease in refrigeration effect
(c) Increase in specific volume of suction vapour
(d) Decrease in specific compressor work
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (d) : Specific compressor work increase, if
condenser pressure remain constant, reduction in
evaporator. Pressure of vapour compression
refrigeration cycle.
COP ↓ , Refrigeration effect ↓
103. In refrigeration, if the vapour is not
superheater after compression it is
(a) Dry Compression
(b) Wet Compression
(c) Superheated Compression
(d) Saturated Compression
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (b) : It is an isentropic compression process of the
refrigerant where work is supplied to the compressor to
increase the pressure. If the refrigerant is found in both
liquid and vapour from at this stage, it is called wet
compression. If the refrigerant is purely in a vapour
from, it is called dry compression.
181
below the condensing temperature
(a) Super cooling (b) Sub-cooling
(c) Condensation (d) Saturation
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (b) : The term subcooling also called undercooling
refers to a liquid existing at a temperature below its
normal boiling point.
105. Which one of the following expansion process
takes place in a vapour compression cycle?
(a) Polytropic process with change in
temperature
(b) Adiabatic process with work transfer
(c) Isentropic process with change in enthalpy
(d) Adiabatic process with constant enthalpy
RPSC AE 2018
Ans. (d) : Adiabatic process with constant enthalpy
expansion process takes place in a vapour compression
cycle.
Process (1 - 2) → Isentropic compression process
Process (2 -3) → Constant pressure heat rejection
process
Process (3 - 4) → Adiabatic process with constant
enthalpy
Process (4 - 1) → Constant pressure heat addition
process
106. In two-stage compression system with flash gas
removal
(a) Refrigerant mass flow rates in both low and
high stage compressors are equal
(b) Refrigerant mass flow rates in high stage
compressors is smaller than that in low
(c) Mass flow rates in low and high stage
compressors are equal if the pressure ratios
are equal
(d) Refrigerant mass flow rates in high stage
compressors is greater than that in low stage
compressor
(e) Mass flow rates in low and high stage
compressors equal if the entropy are equal
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
Ans. (b) : In two-stage compression system with flash
gas removal refrigerant mass flow rates in high stage
compressor is smaller than that in low stage
compressor.
107. Multi-evaporator systems with a single 3. Promotes flashing of refrigerant liquid ahead
compressor and a pressure reducing value: of low stage expansion device
(a) Yield very high COPs compared to multi- 4. Reduce work of compression
evaporator, single stage systems Of the above, which is correct
(b) Yield lower compressor discharge (a) 1 (b) 2
temperature compared to single stage systems (c) 3 (d) 4
(c) Yield slightly higher refrigeration effect in (e) 1 and 4
the low temperature evaporator CGPSC AE 2014 -II
(d) Yield slightly higher refrigeration effect in Ans. (b) : Use of refrigeration system with liquid sub
the high temperature evaporator compared to cooler prevent flashing of refrigerant liquid ahead of
single stage systems low stage expansion device.
(e) Yield slightly lower refrigeration effect in the
111. Consider the following for flash tank:
high temperature evaporator compared to
1. Flash gas formed during expansion can be
single stage systems
removed at an intermediate pressure
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
2. Quality of refrigerant at the evaporator inlet
Ans. (d): Multi-evaporator system with a single can be increased
compressor and a presser reducing value yield slightly 3. Temperature of refrigerant vapour at the inlet
higher refrigeration effect in the high temperature to higher stage compressor can be reduced
evaporator compared to single stage systems.
4. Pressure drop in evaporator be reduced
108. Consider the following in cascade systems: Of the above, which is correct
1. Different refrigerants are used in individual (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
cascade cycles (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. There is no mixing of refrigerants and no (e) 1, 3 and 4
migration of lubricating oil
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
3. Higher COPs compared to multi-stage
systems can be obtained Ans. (e) : 1. Function of flash tank- Flash gas formed
4. Operating pressures need not be too high or during expansion can be removed at an intermediate
too low pressure.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 2. Temperature of refrigerant vapor at the inlet to higher
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 stage Compressor can be reduced.
(e) 1, 2 and 4 3. Pressure drop in evaporator can be used.
CGPSC AE 2014 -II 112. A refrigerator based on ideal vapour
Ans. (e) : The cascade refrigeration system is a freezing compression cycle operates between the
system that use two kinds of refrigerants having temperature limits of -300C. The refrigerant
different boiling points, which run through their own enters the condenser as saturated vapour and
independent freezing cycle and are joined by a heat leaves as saturated liquid. The enthalpy and
exchanger. This system is employed to obtain entropy values at these temperatures are given
temperature of -40 to -800C or ultra – low temperature in the table below. The refrigeration effect per
lower than them. kg of refrigerant (kJ/kg) is around
109. For a two-stage cascade system working on T(0C) hf hfg Sf(kJ/kgK) Sfg
Carnot cycle and between low and high (kJ/kg) (kJ/kg) (kJ/kg
temperatures of -900C and 500 C, the optimum K)
cascade temperature at which the COP will be -30 22 161 0.07 0.66
maximum is given by: 50 82 123 0.31 0.38
(a) -200C (b) -300C (a) 174 (b) 67
0
(c) -67 C (d) -780C (c) 87 (d) 91
(e) 00C (e) 69
CGPSC AE 2014 -II CGPSC AE 2014 -II
Ans. (b) : TH = 500C = 323K Ans. (d) : We know that,
TL = -900C = 183K
For Cascade, optimum Cascade Temperature for
maximum COP
Tc.c. opt. = TH × TL
Tc.c. opt. = 323 × 183 = 243.123 K
Tc.c. opt = −29.87 ≈ −300 C
110. Consider the following for use of refrigeration
system with liquid sub cooler
1. Prevent the entry of liquid into compressor h3= h4= 82 kJ/kg
2. Prevent flashing of refrigerant liquid ahead of S1= S2 = [Sf + x Sfg]2
low stage expansion device S2= 0.31 + 1× 0.38
182
 S2 = 0.69 kJ/kgK 116. Which of the following is correct for capillary
S1= [Sf + xSfg] tube used in vapor compression refrigeration
0.69 = 0.07 + x × 0.66 system?
x = 0.9393 (a) It is very expensive
(b) It requires high maintenance
h1 = h f1 + xhf g2 (c) The starting torque requirement of the motor
h1= 22 + 0.9393 × 161 = 173.22 kJ/kg of the compressor is low
Then, (d) Its bore is large
Ref. Effect = h1-h4 = 173.22 – 82 = 91.22 kJ/kg (e) It is not used with hermetically sealed
113. Consider the following statements concerning compressor
fixed vane and rotary compressors as used in CGPSC 25 Apr. (Shift II) 2018
vapour compression refrigeration system. Ans. (c) : Capillary tube - The capillary tube is a
1. These compressors are used in small capacity copper tube of very small internal diameter. It is of very
systems (less than 2kW) long length and it is coiled to several turns so that it
2. They require suction value, but do not require would occupy less space. The internal diameter of the
discharge value capillary tube used for the refrigeration and air
3. Refrigerant leakage is minimized by conditioning application varies from 0.5 to 23.28 mm.
hydrodynamic lubrication In any refrigerator the capillary is connected in between
4. Compared to reciprocating compressors, the a condenser and evaporator to expand the refrigerant
re-expansion losses are high in rotary vane inside.
compressor
Of the above, which is correct 117. In a vapour compression system, superheating
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 of the refrigerant decreases COP, the reason
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 being:
(e) 2 and 4 1. Increase of work input to the compression
CGPSC AE 2014 -II 2. It does not depend on refrigeration effect
Ans. (b) : Fixed vane and rotary compressor as used in Which of the above statements is/are correct?
vapour Compression refrigeration system because these (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
compressors are used in small capacity system (less (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
than 2 kW) and refrigerant leakage is minimized by JWM 2017
hydrodynamic lubrication. Ans. (a) : COP of vapour compression system
114. Heat rejection ratio of the condenser is 1.2. The h −h4
COP of this refrigeration plant will be: = 1
h 2 − h1
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6
(e) 2
CGPSC 25 Apr. (Shift II) 2018
Ans. (c) : Heat Rejection Ratio- It is defined as the
ratio of heat rejected by condenser to refrigeration effect
produce.
Q
HRR = cond. > 1
Q R.E.
Q R.E. + Win Win 1
HRR = = 1+ = 1+
Q R.E. Q R.E. [COP ] Re f Super heating effect-
• Refrigerating effect will increase
1
1.2 = 1 + ⇒ ( COP ) Re f = 5 • Work done will be directly proportional to
[ COP ] Re f inlet temperature and COP is inversely proportional to
115. Which of the following is the desirable the work done. So, as a result of increase of work input
property of refrigerant in vapor compression to the compression, it will decrease the COP.
refrigeration system? 118. In the compression process of vapour
(a) Low vapor density compression refrigeration system
(b) Low freezing temperature (a) Enthalpy before compression is same as
(c) Low latent heat of vaporization enthalpy after the compression
(d) Condenser and evaporator pressure should be (b) Internal energy before compression is same
below atmospheric pressure after the compression
(e) GWP and ODP should be high (c) Temperature before compression is same as
CGPSC 25 Apr. (Shift II) 2018 temperature after the compression
Ans. (b) : Low freezing temperature is the desirable (d) Entropy before compression is same as
property of refrigerant in vapor compression entropy after the compression
refrigeration system. APPSC AEE 2016
183
Ans. (d) : In the compression process of vapour 123. Subcooling occurs when the vapour
compression refrigeration system entropy before
compression is same as entropy after the compression.
Ans : (b) : Subcooling occurs when the vapour removes
sensible heat from the refrigerant.
124. The vapour compression refrigeration cycle is
From T–S diagram
S2 = S1 = constant
compression process (1 – 2)
119. The flash chamber in a vapour compression
cycle
(a) increases refrigeration effect
(b) decreases the refrigeration effect
(c) increases the work of compression
(d) has no effect on refrigeration effect
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (d) : A flash chamber is a device used to separate
the vapour from the liquid refrigerant coming from the
expansion value in a V.C.R.S. and has no effect on
refrigeration effect.
120. In a vapour compression refrigeration system,
the working fluid is superheated vapour at
entrance to
(a) evaporator (b) condenser
(c) compressor (d) expansion valve
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
Ans : (b) In a vapour compression refrigeration system
the working fluid is superheated vapour at entrance to
condenser.
121. In a refrigeration system, expansion valve is
incorporated between-
(a) evaporator and compressor
(b) condenser and evaporator
(c) compressor and condenser
(d) superheater and subcooler
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
Ans : (b) In a refrigeration system, expansion valve is
incorporated between condenser and evaporator.
122. The performance of which of the following
units in a vapour compression system is
adversely affected by the presence of moisture?
(a) Condenser (b) Expansion valve
(c) Evaporator (d) Compressor
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
Ans. (b) : Presence of moisture in a refrigerant affects
the working of expansion valve.
184
(a) removes latent heat from the refrigerant
(b) removes sensible heat from the refrigerant
(c) has high latent heat
(d) has low latent heat
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
represented as shown in the figure below, with
state 1 being the exit of the evaporator. The
coordinate system used in this figure is
(a) p-h (b) T-s
(c) p-s (d) T-h
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (d) :
Reasons-
(i) The throttling process 3-4 is vertical i.e., at constant
enthalpy. So abscissa must be enthalpy.
(ii) Condensation process (P = constant) 2-3 is not
horizontal so ordinate does not represented by
pressure but temperature.
125. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(a) The performance of the vapour compression
refrigerator varies considerably with both
vaporising and condensing temperatures.
(b) In vapour compression cycle, the useful part
of the heat transfer is at the condenser.
(c) In ammonia-hydrogen (Electrolux)
refrigerator, no compressor, pump or fan is
required.
(d) The effect of under-cooling the liquid
refrigerant is to decrease the coefficient of
performance
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (d) : The effect of under-cooling the liquid
refrigerant is to decrease the coefficient of performance.
Sometimes, the refrigerant after condensation process is
cooled below the saturation temperature before
expansion by throttling. Such a process is called under
cooling or sub-cooling of the refrigerant. The ultimate
effect of under-cooling is to increase the value of
coefficient of performance.
126. The COP of a vapour compression plant in
comparison to vapour absorption plant is:
(a) Large
(b) Small
(c) Same
(d) More or less depends on size of plant
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (a) : The COP of a vapour compression plant in
comparision to vapour absorption plant is large.
127. In a vapour-compression refrigeration system
before entering into the throttle valve the
refrigerant is in the form:
(a) Superheated vapour
(b) Wet vapour
(c) High pressure saturated liquid
(d) High pressure dry vapour
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (c) : In VCRS, refrigerant before entering into the
throttle valve have high pressure (PC) of saturated liquid
(point 3).
2 (c) 1.42 kg/min
3 PC
T Theoritical swept volume
PE
4 1
S mɺ r × 0.7 × 0.25 = 0.85 × 0.28
128. In a vapour compression system, the condition
of refrigerant before passing through the
condenser is
(a) Saturated liquid (b) Wet vapour
(c) Dry saturated vapour (d) Superheated vapour
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Ans. (d) :
Statement II: In domestic refrigerator, the work
required for pumping the same amount of heat is
more than that in an air-conditioning plant
because of greater difference between condenser
and evaporator temperatures.
ESE 2018
Ans. (a) : Evaporator temperature of refrigeration
system is less than that of air conditioning system.
Hence work input in refrigerator is more than that of air
conditioning system.
Therefore, COP of air conditioner is more than that of
refrigerator. Compressor and evaporator pressure
difference for domestic refrigerator is more than air-
conditioning.
130. The compressor of an ammonia refrigerating
machine has a volumetric efficiency of 85%
and swept volume of 0.28m3/min. Ammonia
having a dry specific volume of 0.25m3/kg
enters the compressor with a dryness fraction
of 0.7. The mass flow rate of ammonia through
the machine is
(a) 1.28 kg/min (b) 1.36 kg/min
(d) 1.57 kg/min
ESE 2018
Actual volume
Ans. (b) : ηvol. =
m .v
= r 1
vs
mɺ r × v1 = ηvol. × Vs
mɺ r × x × v1 = ηvol. × Vs
mɺ r = 1.36 kg / min
131. The following data refer to a vapour
compression refrigerator:
Enthalpy at compressor Inlet = 1200 kJ/kg
Enthalpy at compressor Outlet = 1400 kJ/kg
Enthalpy at condenser Outlet = 200 kJ/kg
The COP of the refrigerator is
(a) 7 (b) 6
(c) 5 (d) 4
ESE 2018
Ans. (c) : Given,

So, in a vapour compression system, the condition of

refrigerant before passing through the condenser is h1 = 1200 kJ/kg
superheated vapour. h2 = 1400 kJ/kg
h3 = h4 = 200 kJ/kg
129. Statement I: Referring to vapour compression
Because of constant enthalpy expansion take place
refrigeration system, the coefficient of
performance (COP) of a domestic refrigerator is h − h 4 1200 − 200
COP = 1 = =5
less than that of a comfort air-conditioning plant. h 2 − h1 1400 − 1200

185
132. Statement (I): Sub-cooling of a refrigerant liquid h3 = h4 = 150 kJ/kg
increases the coefficient of performance of a Refrigerating effect (RE) h1 − h 4
refrigeration cycle. (COP)VCRS = =
Work Input(Win ) h 2 − h1
Statement (II): Sub-cooling reduces the work
requirement of the refrigeration cycle. 300 − 150 150
= = =5
ESE 2017 330 − 300 30
Ans. (c) : 135. In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser
coil temperatures are -33°C and 27°C,
respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP
is realized, the required power input for a
refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
(a) 8 kW (b) 4 kW
(c) 2 kW (d) 1 kW
ESE 2017
Ans. (d) : Given,
Process 4−4' → Subcooling Q2 = 4 kW
Process 1−2 → Work requirement T 1 = 27 + 273 = 300 K

The subcooling increases refrigerant effect from (h − T2 = −33 + 273 = 240 K

1
h5) to (h1 − h5') and no work requirement.
133. Statement (I): Use of non-azeotropic mixtures
used as the refrigerant in a vapour-compression
system improves the coefficient of performance.
Statement (II): The increase in this coefficient is
attributable to reduction in volume.
ESE 2017
Ans. (c) : The evaporation takes place over a
temperature range increasing direction. Hence mean Refrigerating effect
(COP)R =
temperature of evaporation increases and condensation Work input
takes place over a temperature range in decreasing Q2 T2
direction. Mean temperature of heat rejection decreases (COP)R = =
which results in increased COP not reduction in W T1 − T2
volume. 240 240
= = =4
So, statement-II is wrong. 300 − 240 60
The non-azeotropic mixtures are non isothermal Q 4
refrigerant i.e. temperature of refrigerant varies during (COP)R = 2 =
W W
heat rejection and addition. 4
134. In the working of a vapour-compression W = = 1 kW
4
refrigeration plant, the following enthalpies are
136. The ordinates and abscissae of the diagram
recorded at salient points in the cycle:
given for the vapour-compression refrigeration
1. Enthalpy at inlet to compressor (saturated cycle represent
vapour), h1=300kJ/kg. (a) pressure and volume
2. Enthalpy at outlet of compressor (after (b) temperature and entropy
isentropic compression), h2=330kJ/kg. (c) enthalpy and entropy
3. Enthalpy at exit of condenser (saturated liquid), (d) pressure and enthalpy
h3=150 kJ/kg. ESE 2017
What is the COP of the plant? Ans. (d) : The given cycle is vapour compression
(a) 3 (b) 4 refrigeration cycle. The left side vertical process shown
(c) 5 (d) 6 by dotted line is throttling.
ESE 2017 So ordinate is pressure and abscissa is enthalpy.
Ans. (c) : Given, 137. In case of ejector–compression system the
power input is in the form of
(a) electric power (b) heat
(c) mechanical work (d) steam power
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (d) : steam power
138. Pressure drop in capillary tube (used in
refrigeration systems) takes place due to
h1 = 300 kJ/kg (a) friction
h2 = 330 kJ/kg (b) change in momentum
186
 (c) both (a) & (b) above (c) Can increase or decrease
(d) none of the above (d) Remains unaffected
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (c) : both (a) & (b) above Ans. (a) :
139. In mechanical refrigeration system, the 145. Vapour compression cycle using R-12 gives
refrigerant has the maximum temperature maximum COP when:-
(a) before expansion valve (a) Suction state to compressor is in wet region
(b) between compressor and condenser (b) Suction state to compressor is in superheat
(c) between condenser and evaporator region
(d) between compressor and evaporator (c) Suction state to compressor is dry saturated
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (d) None of the above
Ans. (b) : between compressor and condenser UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
140. A simple saturated refrigeration cycle has the Ans. (b) : Vapour compression cycle using R-12 gives
following state points. Enthalpy after maximum COP when suction state to compressor is in
compression = 425 kJ / kg ; enthaly after superheat region.
throttling = 125 kJ/kg ; enthalpy before 146. In a simple saturated vapour compression
compression = 375 kJ / kg. The COP of refrigeration cycle, the heat rejected in
refrigeration is condenser is 160 kJ/kg and compressor work is
(a) 5 32 kJ/kg, then the COP will be:-
(b) 3.5 (a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (c) 6 (d) None of the above
(d) not possible to find with this data UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (a) : Given as,
h1 − h 4 375 − 125 Heat rejected in condenser, Qc = 160 kJ/kg
Ans. (a) : COP = = =5
h 2 − h1 425 − 375 Compressure work, W = 32 kJ/kg
141. The throttling operation in a refrigeration cycle So Refrigeration effect, RE = 160 – 32 = 128 kJ/kg
is carried out in RE 128
[COP]Ref = =
(a) Evaporator (b) Discharge valve W 32
(c) Capillary tube (d) Expansion valve [COP]Ref = 4
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II 147. In a vapour compression system the condition
Ans. (c) : Capillary tube of refrigerant before entering the compressor is
142. In case of multi-stage vapour compression (a) Saturated liquid
system, flash intercooling is beneficial in case of (b) Wet vapour
those refrigerants only for which:- (c) Dry saturated liquid
(a) Latent heat of vapourization is more (d) Superheated vapour
(b) Latent heat of vapourization is less UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(c) Thermal conductivity is high Ans. (d) : Superheated vapour
(d) Thermal conductivity is low
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II 148. In a vapour compression system, a throttle
Ans. (a) : In case of multi-stage vapour compression valve is used in place of an expansion valve
system, flash intercooling is beneficial in case of those (a) it improves the COP
refrigerants only for which latent heat of vapourization (b) it leads to significant cost reduction
is more. (c) the positive work in isentropic expansion of
liquid is very small
143. If COP of a vapour compression system is 4,
the heat rejection ratio of its condenser will (d) none of the above
be:- UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(a) 0.25 (b) 5.0 Ans. (c) : The positive work in isentropic expansion of
(c) 1.25 (d) 0.20 liquid is very small
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II 149. Where does the lowest temperature occur in a
1 vapour compression cycle?
Ans. (c) : Heat rejection ratio, HRR = 1 + (a) Condenser (b) Compressor
[ COP ] (c) Evaporator (d) Expansion valve
1 UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
=1+
4 Ans. (c) : Evaporator
HRR = 1.25 150. In vapour compression cycle, heat rejected is
144. In an ammonia vapour compression system, 65 kW and work done in compression is 10 kW,
wet compression process is used instead of dry the COP of refrigerator will be
compression. The C.O.P.:- (a) 6.5 (b) 5.5
(a) Will increase (c) 5.0 (d) None of the above
(b) Will decrease UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
187
 Ans. (b) : Given, Ans. (a) : Ozone depletion potential (ODP) is the
T1 = 27oC = 300 K measure of ozone depletion capability of a refrigerant
T2 = –13oC = 260 K compared to that of R-11 [CFCl3]
T2 260 R-717 → NH3
COP = = = 6.5 R-718 → H2O
T1 − T2 27 + 13
R-22 → CHF2Cl
151. A refrigerant moving in a refrigerator follows:
156. Which of the following is not the desirable
(a) open system
property of refrigerant
(b) closed system (a) Low latent heat
(c) both open and closed system exists (b) High vapour density
(d) none of the above (c) Low freezing temperature
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) (d) Low condenser pressure
Ans : (b) A refrigerant moving in a refrigerator follows RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
close system. Ans. (a) : Refrigerant should be high latent heat of
vaporisation, high vapour density, low freezing
temperature these are the desirable property of
refrigerant.
157. The working fluid in refrigeration cycle is
(a) Refrigerator (b) Refrigerant
(c) Absorbent (d) Lubricant
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (b) : The working fluid in refrigeration cycle is
152. Refrigerant flow is controlled by: known as refrigerant.
(a) Capillary tube (b) Condenser 158. Dry ice is
(c) Solenoid (d) Expansion Valve (a) Ice free from water
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II (b) Ice free from dissolved air or gases
Ans : (d) Refrigerant flow is Controlled by expansion (c) Ice prepared from filtered water
valve. (d) Solid carbon dioxide
TNPSC AE 2014
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (d) : Solid carbon dioxide (CO2) is also known as
ice free from water.
159. The Refrigerant R – 718 is
(a) Ammonia (b) Water
(c) Air (d) Carbon dioxide
3. Refrigerants TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (b) : R–718—R-718 is a organic compound.
153. Due to suction vapour superheating in vapour R – [700 + moleculer weight]
compression cycle the COP increases in case of R – [700 + moleculer weight of water (H2O)]
the following refrigerant : R – [700 + 1 × 2 + 16]
(a) R 22 (b) NH3 R – 718 → water
(c) R – 12 (d) None of the above 160. A good refrigerant should have-
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (a) Large latent heat of vaporization and low
Ans. (c) : R – 12 operating pressures
154. Air is designated as (b) Small latent heat of vaporization and high
(a) R729 (b) R764 operating pressures
(c) R732 (d) R744 (c) Large latent heat of vaporization and high
SJVN ET 2019 operating pressures
Ans. (a) : Air is an inorganic compound (d) Small latent heat of vaporization and low
So operating pressures
R-(700 + Molecular weight of air) RPSC AE 2018
R-[700 + 29] Ans. (a) : Desirable properties of refrigerants—
R-729 Thermodynamics Property—
155. Ozone depletion potential (ODP) is the measure 1. Critical Temperature—The critical temperature of
of ozone depletion capability of a refrigerant the refrigerant should be as high as possible.
compared to that of 2. Specific heat—The specific heat of the vapour
(a) R11 (b) R718 should be high.
(c) R717 (d) R22 3. Enthalpy of vaporization—It should be as high as
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 possible.
188
4. Thermal conductivity—It should be high as possible 163. Consider the following for water-lithium
because it decrease size of evaporator. bromide systems:
dT 1. Crystallization of solution is likely to occur in
Q = kA absorber
dx 2. Crystallization of solution is likely to occur in
1 solution heat exchanger
k∝ 3. Crystallization is likely to occur when
A
5. Condensing pressure and high evaporator generator temperature falls
pressure—Both should be positive if the evaporator 4. Crystallization is likely to occur when
pressure is less than atmospheric pressure then condenser pressure falls
possibility of leakage of air their for evaporator pressure Of the above, which is correct
should be kept almost equal to atmospheric pressure (a) 1 (b) 2
where as condenser pressure should have some (c) 4 (d) 1 and 2
(e) 1 and 4
moderate value.
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
6. Freezing point—Low freezing point is desirable.
Chemical properties Ans. (e) : In water – lithium bromide systems
1. Toxicity—The refrigerants should be non-poisonous crystallization of solution is likely to occur in absorber
to humans and food stuff. and crystallization is likely to occur when condenser
2. Flammability—It should be non-flammable in pressure falls.
nature. 164. In an ammonia-water system, a rectification
Action with oil column is used mainly to:
Refrigerants + Fully miscible with oil → R-11, R-12 (a) To improve the COP of the system
(b) To reduce the operating pressures
Refrigerants + Fully Immiscible with oil → NH3, CO2 (c) To minimize the concentration of water in
Refrigerants + Partially miscible → R-22 refrigeration circuit
There are some refrigerants with fully immiscible with (d) To maximize the concentration of water in
oil and some refrigerant which are fully miscible does refrigeration circuit
not create problem but the refrigerant like R-22 which (e) To minimize the space of the system
are partially miscible with oil create problems and most CGPSC AE 2014 -II
chocking problems are occurs with R-22. Ans. (c) : In an ammonia- water system, a rectification
Physical properties column is used mainly to minimize the concentration
1. Cost—It should be low cost. water in refrigeration circuit.
2. Viscosity—It should be low for easy flow of the 165. Hermetic compressors are used mainly in
refrigerant. smaller systems as they:
3. Leak detection—First of all they should not be leakage (a) Yield higher COP
of refrigerant at any cost but it leaks out then its detection (b) Do not require frequent servicing
should be fast as possible by the simple method. (c) Offer the flexibility of using any refrigerant
161. If a gas is to be liquefied, its temperature must (d) Can be used under different load conditions
be ..................... efficiently
(a) increased to two times of critical temperature (e) result in better refrigeration capacity
(b) increased to five times of critical temperature CGPSC AE 2014 -II
(c) raised to ten times of critical temperature Ans. (b) : Hermetic compressors are used mainly in
(d) decreased below the critical temperature smaller system as they do not require frequent servicing.
RPSC AE 2018
166. Match List I (Containing designation of
Ans. (d) : If a gas is to be liquefied, its temperature
refrigerants) with List II (containing chemical
must be decreased below the critical temperature.
formula and name of refrigerant) and select the
162. Consider the following for an ideal refrigerant-
correct answer:
absorbent mixture:
1. There is neither expansion nor contraction List I List II
upon mixing A R-22 1 CCI2F2
2. The mixing process is exothermic B R-11 2 SO2
3. The mixing process is endothermic C R-12 3 CCI3F
4. Obeys Raoult's law in liquid phase and D R-764 4 CH2FCI
Dalton's law in vapour phase of the above, 5 CHCIF2
which is correct (a) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-5 (b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) A-5, B-3, C-1, D-2 (d) A-1, B-4, C-5, D-3
(c) 3 (d) 1 and 3 (e) A-4, B-5, C-1, D-3
(e) 1 and 4 CGPSC AE 2014 -II
CGPSC AE 2014 -II Ans. (c) :
Ans. (e) : For an ideal refrigerant- absorbent mixture R – 22 CHClF2
there is neither expansion now contraction upon mixing R – 11 CCl3F
and obeys Result's in liquid phase and Dalton's law in R – 12 CCl2F2
vapour phase. R – 764 SO2
189
167. Azeotropes are: Ans. (b) : Formation of frost on evaporator in a
(a) mixture of refrigerant and lubricating oil refrigerator, results in loss of heat due to poor heat
(b) mixture of primary and secondary refrigerant transfer.
(c) mixture of refrigerants with unique boiling 173. The leakage in a refrigeration system using
point ammonia is detected by
(d) mixture of refrigerant with glide in (a) hilide torch (b) sulphur sticks
temperature (c) soap solution (d) hot water
(e) mixture of refrigerant of low latent heat of APPSC AEE 2016
vaporization
Ans. (b) : The leakage in a refrigeration system using
CGPSC 25 Apr. (Shift II) 2018
ammonia is detected by sulphur sticks.
Ans. (c) : Mixture of refrigerants with unique boiling
174. The capillary tube is not used in large capacity
point called Azeotropes.
refrigeration systems because
168. Refrigerant CF3 Br is designated as: (a) Cost is too high
(a) R131 (b) R13B1 (b) Capacity control is not possible
(c) R23B1 (d) R11B1 (c) It is made of copper
(e) R717 (d) Required pressure drop cannot be achieved
CGPSC 25 Apr. (Shift II) 2018 APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (b) : Refrigerant CF3Br is designated as R13B1 Ans. (b) : The capillary tube is not used in large
169. Pull-down period in refrigeration system is: capacity refrigeration systems because capacity control
(a) the time for which the compressor is not is not possible.
working
175. In Electrolux refrigerator
(b) the time required to reach the specified
temperature inside the cabinet after switching (a) Ammonia is absorbed in hydrogen
on the unit (b) Ammonia is absorbed in water
(c) the time required for charging the refrigerant (c) Ammonia evaporates in hydrogen
in the system (d) Hydrogen evaporates in ammonia
(d) time required to leak the refrigerant from Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
system HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
(e) time required by the system to consume 1 unit (KPSC AE 2015)
of electricity Ans. (c) : In Electrolux refrigerant NH3 used as
CGPSC 25 Apr. (Shift II) 2018 refrigerant and H2O used as absorbent. Hence, ammonia
Ans. (b) : Pull-down period in refrigeration system is is absorbed in water. The hydrogen gas, fed to the
the time required to reach the specified temperature evaporator, permits liquid ammonia to evaporate at a
inside the cabinet after switching on the unit. low pressure and temperature.
170. Which of the following is 'HCFC' refrigerant? 176. The colour of the flame of halide torch, in case
(a) R11 (b) R290 of leakage of Freon refrigerant, will change to
(c) R12 (d) R717 (a) bright green (b) yellow
(e) R22 (c) red (d) orange
CGPSC 25 Apr. (Shift II) 2018 RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
Ans. (e) : Hydro chlorofluorocarbons or HCFC and OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
chemicals that are mainly used as refrigerant Ans. (a) : Freon leaks are detected by the halide torch
unfortunately, releases of HCFC (R-22) deblete the method. In which the colour of the light changes from
earth's protective ozone layer and contribute to climate blue to bright green.
change. R-22 is an HCFC refrigerant that is often used
in air conditioning equipments. 177. Which of the following refrigerant has the
maximum ozone depletion in the stratosphere?
171. In milk chilling plants, the secondary (a) Ammonia (b) Carbon dioxide
refrigerant sued usually is (c) Sulphur dioxide (d) Fluorine
(a) ammonia solution (b) sodium silicate
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
(c) glycol (d) brine
TNPSC AE 2018 Ans. (d) : Maximum ozone depletion in the stratosphere
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II is fluorine.
Ans. (d) : In milk chilling plants, the secondary 178. When a R–22 refrigeration system is charged
refrigerant used is brine. with R–12, the system will :
172. Formation of frost on evaporator in a (a) Not Function
refrigerator, (b) Operate at low temperature
(a) increases heat transfer rate (c) Have considerable fluctuations in the
(b) results in loss of heat due to poor heat transfer operating pressures
(c) is immaterial (d) Have its refrigeration capacity reduce to
(d) decreases compressor power about one-third
TNPSC AE 2017 OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
190
Ans. (d) : When a R–22 refrigeration system is charged 185. Consider the following statements in respect of
with R–12, the system will have its refrigeration (l) the temperature of the medium, (m) the
capacity reduce to about one-third. refrigerant and (n) the condenser and
179. The colour of flame during halide torch test for absorption system – in a refrigeration unit:
refrigerant leaks will change to : 1. Temperature of the medium being cooled must
(a) Grey (b) Blue or bright green be below that of the evaporator.
(c) Black (d) Pink or red 2. Refrigerant leaves the condenser as liquid.
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 3. Any solar thermally operated absorption system
Ans. (b) : The colour of flame during halide torch test is capable only of intermittent operation.
for refrigerant leaks will change to blue or bright green. Which of the above statements are correct?
180. Environmental protection agencies advise (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
against the use of chlorofluoro carbon (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
refrigerants since these react with : ESE 2017
(a) Water vapour and cause acid rain Ans. (c) : In absorption system the temperature of
(b) Plants and cause green house effect medium being cooled is more than the evaporator
(c) Oxygen and cause its depletion temperature, so statement-1 is wrong.
(d) Ozone layer 186. The refrigerant used in commercial ice plant is
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 (a) Air (b) Carbon dioxide
Ans. (d) : In chloro fluoro-carbon, chlorine atom reacts (c) Ammonia (d) Freon-12
with ozone in upper atmosphere and causes its depletion. (KPSC AE 2015)
181. The boiling point of carbon dioxide is Ans : (c) Application of different refrigerants
(a) –20.5 ºC (b) – 50 ºC Refrigerants Application
(c) – 73.6 ºC (d) – 78.3 ºC NH3 Cold storage, ice plants
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper H2O Water, Li-Br absorption system
Ans. (c) : – 73.6 ºC CO2 Used as dry ice in transport
182. Which of the following refrigerant R-11 Central air conditioning
characteristics change constantly during the R-12 Domestic refrigerator
cooling cycle? R- 22 Window type air conditioner
(a) Pressure and phase 187. The refrigerant R - 744 is
(b) Phase and flow (a) ammonia (b) Freon-12
(c) Flow and temperature (c) carbon dioxide (d) sulfur dioxide
(d) Temperature and pressure (KPSC AE 2015)
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V Ans : (c) for Inorganic refrigerants
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper R- 700 + Atomic weight)
Ans : (d) : Temperature and pressure refrigerant R - 700 + ( CO2 Atomic weight)
characteristics change constantly during the cooling cycle. R - 744
183. Which of the following refrigerant has the 188. The refrigerant R - 717 represents:
maximum ozone depletion potential in the (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Carbon monoxide
stratosphere? (c) Ammonia (d) Methane
(a) Fluorine (b) Carbon dioxide OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
(c) Ammonia (d) Hydrocarbon Ans : (c)
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (a) : Fluorine refrigerant has the maximum ozone
depletion potential in the stratosphere.
184. A refrigerant should have:
(a) Low specific heat of liquid
(b) High boiling point
(c) High latent heat of vaporisation
(d) Higher critical temperature
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (c) : Properties of Refrigerant Refrigerants Chemical formula
• Low boiling point. Carbon dioxide R - 744
• High latent heat. Carbon mono-oxide R-728
• Low freezing point. Ammonia R-717
• High critical temperature. 189. Which of the following properties of a
• Positive evaporator and condenser pressures, high refrigerant is undesirable
density. (a) high critical temperature
• Low specific volume. (b) low specific heat of liquid
• High thermal conductivity. (c) low specific volume vapour
• Low viscosity. (d) high boiling point
• Low specific heat. (KPSC AE. 2015)
191
Ans : (d) Ans : (d) A hermetically sealed unit implies both
Desirable Properties of Refrigerants: compressor and motor are sealed.
(i) Critical temperature should be high 194. Pipe material for the refrigerator with ammonia
(ii) Specific heat of refrigerants in liquid phase must solution as working fluid should not be:
below and vapour phase must be high. (a) Mild steel (b) Copper
(iii) Enthalpy of vapoursation should be high (c) Aluminum (d) Brass
(iv) Heat Conductivity should be high. OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
(v) Freezing point should be low. Ans : (b) Pipe material for the refrigerator with
190. The leaks in a refrigeration system using Freon ammonia solution as working fluid should not be
are detected by: copper. An Ammonia refrigerating system the tubes of a
(a) Halide torch which on detection produces shell and tube condenser are made of steel. Every
greenish flame lighting vapour-compression refrigeration system or unit ever
(b) Sulphur sticks which on detection gives white built will have at least one each of these four
smoke components:
(c) Smelling * Compressor
(d) None of these * Condenser
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II * Expansion
MPPSC AE 2016 * Evaporator
Ans : (a) : Halide torch which on detection produces 195. Which one of the following is not a desirable
greenish flame lighting. property of a good refrigerant ?
Leaks in refrigerating system using Freon is detected by (a) low specific heat
halide torch method. (b) high specific volume of vapour
191. The refrigerant used for absorption (c) large latent heat at evaporator pressure
refrigerators, is a mixture of water and: (d) high critical temperature
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Sulfur dioxide UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
(c) Lithium bromide (d) Freon 12 Ans. (b) : high specific volume of vapour
UJVNL AE 2016 196. Which refrigerant would you choose for 800
Ans : (c) Vapour absorption refrigeration system TR air conditioning plant using centrifugal
compressor ?
(a) NH3 (b) CO2
(c) CFC 11 (d) CFC 114
(NH3-H2O)refrigeration (H2O-LiBr) Refrigeration UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
system system Ans. (c) : CFC 11
NH3 :- refrigerants H2O :- Refrigerants 197. The refrigerant commonly used for commertial
H2O :- Absorber LiBr :- Absorber ice plants is
192. R-12 is preferred over R-22 in deep freezer, (a) Freon - 12 (b) NH3
because (c) CO2 (d) Air
(a) It has lower operating pressure UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
(b) It gives higher COP Ans. (b) : NH3
(c) It is miscible with oil over a large range of 198. The brine is an aqueous solution of___in water.
temperature (a) Calcium chloride (b) Sodium chloride
(d) All of the above (c) Calcium carbonate (d) Sodium carbonate
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans : (c) R-12 is preferred over R-22 in deep freeze, Ans. (b) : Sodium chloride
because it is miscible with oil over a large range of 199. Go through the following statements and
temperature. choose the correct alternative :
R-12:- Dichloro - difluore - methane (CCl2F2) 1. Wet compression increases COP of ammonia
* Non-toxic, non corrosive and non-flammable vapour compression system.
* Operates at low pressure 2. Use of liquid-vapour heat exchanger in
* Relatively low latent heat vapour compression system decreases COP in
* Equally amenable with all types of compressor and case of ammonia refrigerant.
condensing tubes 3. For good performance, a refrifgerant must
* Good miscibility with oil have high critical pressure and low critical
* Leakage easy detected with halide torch or by an temperature.
electronic detector 4. Refrigerants that are not miscible with oils,
193. A hermetically sealed unit implies: presents many problems.
(a) Compressor in sealed 5. In flooded evaporators, the liquid refrigerant
(b) Motor is sealed covers the entire heat transfer surface.
(c) Refrigerant cycle is sealed (a) Statements 1, 2 and 5 are true
(d) Both compressor and motor are sealed (b) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are true
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II (c) Statements 3, 4 and 5 are true
192
 (d) Statements 2, 4 and 5 are true 207. Which of the following refrigerant is more
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II costly?
Ans. (a) : Statements 1, 2 and 5 are true (a) Ammonia (b) Carbon dioxide
200. The function of solenoid valve in a (c) Methyl chloride (d) Freon-12
refrigeration system is to UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
(a) control the flow of refrigerant in suction line Ans. (d) :
(b) control the flow of refrigerant through 208. Pick up the correct statement:-
expansion valve (a) The refrigerant should have high thermal
(c) stop the flow of refrigerant when there is no conductivity and low freezing temperature
load on the evaporator (b) The refrigerant should have low heat transfer
(d) stop the flow of refrigerant in liquid line coefficient and high latent heat
when compressor stops (c) The refrigerant should have high specific
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II volume and high latent heat
Ans. (d) : stop the flow of refrigerant in liquid line (d) The refrigerant should have high specific
when compressor stops volume and low latent heat
201. Which pair, out of following alternatives, is UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
correctly matched. Normal boiling points of Ans. (a) :
different refrigerants (List-I) are given in List-II. 209. Which of the following refrigerant has
List-I List-II maximum latent heat?
(a) R – 12 - – 29.8 °C (a) Sulphur dioxide
(b) NH3 - – 33.35 °C (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) R 134 a - – 24.15 °C
(c) Ammonia
(d) R 22 - – 40.8 °C
(d) Dichloro-difloro-methane
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (c) : R 134 a - – 24.15 °C
Ans. (c) :
202. The chemical formula of Freon – 12 is
(a) CClF2 (b) CCl2F3 210. A refrigerant should have the following
(c) CCl2F2 (d) CClF property:-
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (a) High boiling point
(b) High latent heat
Ans. (c) : CCl2F2
(c) High specific heat
203. Normal boiling point of different refrigerants (d) High specific volume
are given below. Which pairs are correct? UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
(1) NH3 – 40.8°C
Ans. (b) :
(2) R-12 – 29.8°C
(3) R-22 – 33.3°C 211. Chemical formula of Freon-12 is
(4) R-134a – 26.2°C (a) CCl2.F2 (b) CCl2.F3
(a) (1) and (2) are correct (c) CCl3.F2 (d) j CCl3.F3
(b) (3) and (4) are correct UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(c) (2) and (4) are correct Ans. (a) : CCl2.F2
(d) (1) and (4) are correct 212. Dry ice is produced by expanding
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II (a) Liquid ammonia
Ans. (c) : (b) Liquid Freon-22
204. A regenerative liquid – vapour heat exchanger (c) Liquid carbon dioxide
is used in a vapour compression system (d) Liquid Freon-12
operating on ammonia refrigerant, the COP:- UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(a) Will increase Ans. (c) : Liquid carbon dioxide
(b) Will decrease 213. Which of the refrigerant is least used these
(c) Can increase or decrease
days?
(d) Remains unaffected (a) Freon-12 (b) Sulphur dioxide
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Ammonia
Ans. (b) :
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
205. The refrigerant C2H4 is designated as:-
(a) R 24 (b) R 15 Ans. (c) : Carbon dioxide
(c) R 1150 (d) R 150 214. Which refrigerant is used in vapour absorption
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II refrigerator?
Ans. (c) : (a) Freon (b) Sulphur dioxide
206. Which of the refrigerant is more toxic? (c) Water (d) Acqua-Ammonia
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Ammonia UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(c) Freon-12 (d) Freon-22 Ans. (d) : Acqua-Ammonia
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II 215. Which has minimum freezing point?
Ans. (b) : Ammonia as a refrigerant is more toxic. (a) Freon - 22 (b) Freon - 12
193
 (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Ammonia Ans. (d) : Properties and Advantages of Ammonia
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II Refrigerant—
Ans. (a) : Freon - 22 1. Small piston displacement- Ammonia has the
216. Among the refrigerants namely R - 11, R - 12, highest refrigerating effect per pound compared to all
R - 22 and R - 717, the ratio of specific heats is the refrigerants being used including the halocarbon.
highest for Even thought the specific volume of ammonia is high,
(a) R - 12 (b) R - 22 the compressor displacement required per ton of
(c) R -11 (d) R - 717 refrigeration is quite small, due to this small compressor
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II is required per ton of the refrigeration capacity. This
Ans. (d) : R - 717 saves lots of Power in the long run.
217. The following refrigerant is most miscible with 2. Since specific volume of Ammonia is high it is used
oil. mostly with rotary and the centrifugal compressor.
(a) R - 717 (b) R - 11 3. Environment friendly- It is safe to the environment
(c) R - 22 (d) R - 12 and does not cause and depletion of the ozone layer.
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II 4. Corrosive nature of Ammonia-An hydro ammonia
Ans. (a) : R - 717 is non-corrosive in nature, however, in presence of
218. Ammonia refrigerant is moisture it tends to become corrosive to copper, brass
(a) Non-toxic and other non-ferrous materials.
(b) Non-inflammable 5. Miscibility with oil-Ammonia refrigerant is non-
(c) Toxic and non-inflammable miscible with oil.
(d) Highly toxic and inflammable 6. Ammonia is Cheap and available readily-
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II Ammonia is available almost every where and is the
Ans. (d) : Highly toxic and inflammable cheapest of all the commonly used refrigerants.
219. The colour of halide torch flame, in case of 223. Ammonia has a boiling point of
leakage of freon refrigerant will change to (a) –33.3ºC (b) –43.3ºC
(a) Bright green (b) Yellow (c) –53.3ºC (d) –63.3ºC
(c) Red (d) Orange JPSC AE PRE 2019
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II Ans. (a) : –33.3ºC
Ans. (a) : Bright green 224. R-134 represents
220. The pressure at the inlet of a refrigerant (a) CH CI F2 (b) C2H2F4
compressor is called (c) CH3 CI2 F2 (d) C2CI2F4
(a) suction pressure (b) discharge pressure Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
(c) critical pressure (d) back pressure Ans. (b) : R134 represents here, C2H2F4 structure.
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : The pressure at the inlet of a refrigerant
compressor is called suction pressure.
221. Chemical formula of Freon- 12 is :
(a) CCl2 F2 (b) CCl2 F3
This comes in the categories of saturated hydro carbon.
(c) CCl3 F2 (d) CCl3 F3
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II 225. CFC's were banned due to
Ans : (a) Chemical formula of freon 12 is CCl2F2. (a) Global warning (b) Ozone depleting
Refrigerants Chemical formula (c) Both (1) and (2) (d) None of these
R–21 CHFCl2 Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
R–134 C2H2F4 Ans. (c) : CFC banned due to reason because they
R–022 CHF2Cl damage the earth's ozone layer, CFC are also
R–011 CFCl3 greenhouse gas that affects the environment by
R–1150 C2H4 contributing to global warming.
R–1131 C2H2FCl
222. Consider the following for Ammonia as a .
4 Components of Refrigeration
refrigerant
1. It offers excellent performance
System
2. It is a natural refrigerant 226. The capillary tube as an expansion device, is
3. It is inexpensive used in
4. It deplete ozone layer (a) Domestic refrigeration
Of the above, which is correct (b) Water cooler
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Room cooler
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(e) 3 and 4 Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
CGPSC AE 2014 -II UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
194
Ans. (d) : In the air conditioner the expansion device 231. In split system of air - conditioner, the
used for constant enthalpy expansion process. Here the condensing unit is located:
capillary tube is used as an expansion device in the (a) Inside the area to be conditioned
following :- (b) Outside the area to be conditioned
i. Domestic refrigeration, (c) Near the refrigerator
ii. Water cooler, (d) None of the above
iii. Room air conditioners, OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
iv. Freezer. Ans : (b) In split system of air- conditioner, the
227. The formation of frost on cooling coils in a condensing unit is located outside the area to be
refrigerator .................... conditioned.
(a) improves C.O.P. of the system 232. In an ideal vapour compression refrigeration
(b) increases power consumption cycle, the specific enthalpy of refrigerant
(c) increases heat transfer (kJ/kg) at the following stages is given as
(d) reduces power consumption Inlet of condenser = 283
RPSC AE 2018 Outlet of condenser = 116
Ans. (b) : The formation of forst on cooling coils in a Exit of evaporator = 232
refrigerator increase power consumption. The COP is
228. Consider the following statements: (a) 2.27 (b) 2.75
An expansion device in a refrigeration system (c) 3.27 (d) 3.75
(1) reduces the pressure from the condenser to UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
the evaporator
(2) regulates the flow of the refrigerant to the Ans : (a)
evaporator depending on the load
(3) is essentially a restriction offering resistance
to flow
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE 2019
Ans. (d) : An expansion device in a refrigeration system Refrigeration effect
expands the liquid refrigerant from the condenser ( COP )VCRS =
work input
pressure to the evaporator pressure.
The expansion device also controls the supply of the liquid h1 − h 4
to the evaporator at the rate at which it is evaporated. The
( COP )VCRS =
h 2 − h1
expansion device is essentially a restriction. Inlet of condenser (h2) = 283 kJ/kg
229. In a flooded evaporator refrigerator, an Outlet of Condenser (h3) = 116 kJ/kg=h4
accumulator at the suction side of the Exit of evaporator (h1) = 232 kJ/kg
compressor is provided to 232 − 116
(a) collect the vapours ( COP )VCRS =
(b) detect any liquids in the vapour 283 − 232
(c) retain the refrigeration effect as originally ( COP )VCRS = 2.27
working
(d) collect the liquid refrigerant and preclude its 233. In window air-conditioner the expansion device
reversion to the compressor used is
ESE 2018 (a) Capillary tube
Ans. (d) : An accumulator separates liquid and vapour (b) Thermostatic expansion valve
refrigerant, after evaporator. It ensures only vapour (c) Automatic expansion valve
refrigerant enter to the compressor. (d) Float valve
230. Undercooling of refrigerant leads to: UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
(a) Decrease refrigerating effect Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
(b) Reduce work done Ans : (a) In window air-conditioner the expansion
(c) Reduce COP device used is capillary tube.
(d) Increase the COP of the cycle The capillary tube is used as an expansion device is
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II small capacity hermetic sealed refrigeration unit such
as in domestic refrigerators, water coolers, room air-
Ans : (d) Undercooling of refrigerant leads to increase
the COP of the cycle. conditioners and freezes.
Effect of sub cooling:- 234. In an air craft refrigeration system the pressure
(i) Refrigerating effect will increase at the cooling turbine outlet is equal to
(ii) COP will increase (a) Ambient pressure
(iii) Work done will remain same (b) Cabin pressure
(iv) Volumetric efficiency will remain same. (c) Pressure at inlet to compressor
195
 (d) None of the above 240. The flow of refrigerant in a refrigeration cycle
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II is controlled by
Ans : (b) In an air craft refrigeration system the (a) Compressor (b) Condenser
pressure at the cooling turbine outlet is equal to the (c) Evaporator (d) Expansion valve
cabin pressure. Gujarat PSC AE 2019
235. The presence of moisture in refrigeration effect Ans : (d) : The flow of refrigerant in a refrigeration
is felt at: cycle is controlled by expansion valve.
(a) Evaporator (b) Condenser pipes 241. Finned tube evaporates are used in a
(c) Expansion valve (d) Compressor unit (a) Fridge (b) Window air conditioner
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II (c) Water cooler (d) None
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
Ans : (c) The presence of moisture in refrigeration Ans. (b) : Finned tube evaporators are used in a
effect is felt at Expansion valve. windows air conditioner.
236. Superheating in a refrigeration cycle 242. Bare tube evaporator is used in a
(a) Decreases COP (a) Cold storage plant (b) Ice plant
(b) Increases COP (c) Milk Plant (d) None
(c) COP remains unchanged Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
(d) Unpredictable Ans. (b) : Bare tube evaporator is used in a ice plant. In
(KPSC AE 2015) this type of evaporator, the entire surface of the coil is in
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper contact with the refrigerant inside. This type of evaporator
is also called prime surface evaporator. They are easier to
Ans : (d) Superheating in a refrigeration cycle clean, therefore its use in household purposes.
unpredictable COP.
Effect of super heating:- 243. Flooded evaporator is used in A.C. Units of
1. Refrigeration effect will increase capacity
2. Work done will be directly proportional to inlet (a) < 3 tons (b) < 10 tons
temperature than work done will increase. (c) > 10 tons (d) None
3. COP will depend on refrigerating substance. for R- Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
12 it will increase and for NH3 it will decrease Ans. (c) : Flooded evaporators are used in commercial
4. Volumetric efficiency will remain almost constant. & industrial applications. These improve the COP of the
plant. Flooded evaporator is used in A.C. Units of
237. Thermostatic expansion valve works on the
change of: capacity ≤ 3 tons.
(a) Temperature of evaporator 244. In a dry evaporator refrigerant at the outlet is
(b) Pressure of evaporator (a) in the wet state (b) saturated state
(c) Degree of superheat at evaporator exit (c) super heated state (d) none
(d) Temperature of condenser Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II Ans. (c) : In dry evaporator, refrigerant at the outlet is
Ans : (c) : Thermostatic expansion valve works on the super heated state.
change of degree of superheat at evaporator exit. 245. Forced air cooled condenser in refrigeration
238. Condenser is not used in unit has a
(a) Steam power plant (a) Counter flow (b) Parallel flow
(b) Vapour compression refrigeration system (c) Cross flow (d) None
(c) Gas turbine power plant Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
(d) Vapour absorption refrigeration system Ans. (c) : Forced air cooled condenser in refrigeration
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 unit has a cross flow.
Ans. (c) : In gas turbine power plant condenser is not 246. Water cooled condenser in refrigeration unit
used. (a) Counter flow (b) Parallel flow
Condenser—A condenser is a device or unit used to (c) Cross flow (d) None
condense a gaseous substance into liquid state through Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
cooling. In so doing, the latent heat is released by the Ans. (a) : Water cooled condenser in refrigeration unit
substance and transferred to the surrounding environment. has a counter flow.
239. The domestic refrigerator uses the following 247. Flooded evaporator needs at the outlet a
type of compressor: (a) Flash chamber (b) Accumulator
(a) Centrifugal (b) Axial (c) Inter cooler (d) None
(c) Reciprocating (d) Screw Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II Ans. (b) : Flooded evaporator needs at outlet of
Ans : (c) : The domestic refrigerator uses reciprocating accumulator.
type compressor. The compressor constricts the 248. In a refrigerating cycle the heat is rejected by
refrigerant vapour raising its pressure and temperature refrigerant at
and pushes it into the coils of the condenser on the (a) Condenser (b) Evaporator
outside of the refrigerator. The refrigerant absorbs the (c) Expansion valve (d) Compressor
heat inside the fridge when it flows through the UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
evaporator coils, cooling down the air inside the fridge. Ans. (a) : Condenser
196
249. In a refrigeration system the refrigerant gains 5. Vapour Absorption System
heat at
(a) Compressor (b) Condenser 256. Neglecting the pump work, Energy equation
(c) Expansion valve (d) Evaporator for vapour absorption refrigeration system
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II may be written as (where Q = heat transfer
Ans. (d) : Evaporator rate into the system)
(a) Qgenerator + Qevaporator + Qcondenser + Qabsorber
250. Finned evaporators are used on air
(b) Qgenerator + Qevaporator + Qcondenser - Qabsorber
conditioning application to (c) Qgenerator + Qevaporator - Qcondenser + Qabsorber
(a) equalize air flow over the cooling coil surface (d) Qgenerator + Qevaporator - Qcondenser - Qabsorber
(b) prevent moisture carry over RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
(c) extend the effective area of the cooling
Ans. (d) : QG + QE - QC - QA = 0
surface
(d) increase the dehumidifying capacity
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (c) : extend the effective area of the cooling
surface
251. What is the storage temperature for milk ?
(a) 4 °C (b) 7 °C
(c) 2 °C (d) 0.5 °C
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (d) : 0.5 °C
252. Actual expansion process in a throttling device
is:-
(a) Reversible adiabatic expansion 257. Which of the following components of vapour
(b) Isenthalpic expansion absorption refrigeration system has same
(c) Fanno - line expansion pressure level (neglecting the pipe loss)
(d) Isothermal expansion (a) Generator and absorber
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II (b) Evaporator and absorber
Ans. (c) : (c) Generator and evaporator
253. The system used for cooling of supersonic (d) Condenser and evaporator
aircraft is:- RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
(a) Simple system Ans. (b) : Evaporator and absorber components of
(b) Bootstrap system vapour absorption refrigeration system has same
(c) Reduced ambient system pressure level.
(d) Regenerative system
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (c) : The system used for cooling of supersonic
aircraft is reduced ambient system.
254. External equalizer in thermostatic expansion
valve (TEV) is used so that the TEV senses the
pressure of evaporator:-
(a) At the outlet
(b) At the inlet
(c) In the middle
(d) At outlet as well as inlet 258. Ammonia is used in Aqua - ammonia system
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II because it is
Ans. (a) : (a) Vigorously absorbed in water (b) Low cost
255. With an increase in suction pressure, the (c) Toxic (d) Low ODP
volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating TNPSC AE 2013
refrigeration compressor Ans. (a) : Ammonia is used in Aqua - ammonia system
(a) increases because it is vigorously absorbed in water.
(b) decreases Ammonia - water vapor
(c) remains constant Absorption Refrigeration system—In this system
(d) may increase or decrease depending upon the ammonia is used as the refrigerant and water is used as the
type of refrigerant absorbent. The ammonia - water absorption system is used
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II in the domestic as well as the commercial application
Ans. (a) : Increases where the requirement of the temperature is above 320F.
197
259. Which of the following has the lowest COP? D Receiver 4
Storage of high
(a) Vapour absorption cycle pressure liquid
(b) Vapour compression cycle dry compression ammonia
(c) Vapour compression cycle with superheated 5 Formation of
vapour at the end of compression liquid ammonia
(d) Vapour compression cycle with sub cooling from high
TNPSC AE 2014 pressure vapours
Ans. (a) : Vapour absorption cycle has the lowest COP. (a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-5 (b) A-5, B-3, C-4, D-5
260. The operating temperatures of a single stage (c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-5 (d) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
vapour absorption refrigeration system are: (e) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
generator: 900C; condenser and absorber: CGPSC AE 2014 -II
400C; evaporator: 00C. The system has a Ans. (d) :
refrigeration capacity of 100 kW and the heat Components Function
input to the system is 160 kW. The solution 1. Generator Removal of vapour from strong
pump work is negligible. Find the COP of the aqua- ammonia solution
system and the total heat rejection rate from 2. Analyser Dehydration
the system. 3. Rectifier Producing dry ammonia vapour by
(a) 0.525, 160kW (b) 0.625, 260kW removing traces of water particles
(c) 1.6, 100kW (d) 1.6, 160kW completely.
(e) 0.625, 160kW 4. Receiver Storage of high pressure liquid
CGPSC AE 2014 -II ammonia.
Ans. (b) : VARS – diagram 262. Consider the following for absorption
refrigeration system as compared to
compression system
1. Higher COPs
2. Lower refrigeration temperatures
3. Possibility of using low-grade energy sources
4. Possibility of using in vehicles
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
(e) 1 and 4
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
Ans. (c) : Vapour Absorption Refrigeration system
(VARS) belong to class of vapour cycles similar to
vapour Compression refrigeration systems. Since these
From this fig – systems run on low-grade thermal energy, they are
Ref.Effect 100 preferred when low grade energy such as waste heat or
[COP]VARS = = = 0.625
QG + WP 160 + 0 solar energy is available.
from energy Conservation 263. In vapor absorption refrigeration system, heat
QC + QA = QG + QE input, rejection and refrigeration occurs at 400
= 160 + 100 K, 300 K and 270 K respectively. Ideal COP of
QC + QA = 260 kW the system will be:
(a) 1.25 (b) 2.25
261. Match List-I (Basic components of Aqua- (c) 3.25 (d) 4.25
ammonia refrigeration system) with List-II (e) 4.75
(Function of the components in the system) and CGPSC 25 Apr. (Shift II) 2018
select the correct answer using the codes given Ans. (b) : For vapor absorption refrigeration system-
the lists:
List I List II
A Generator 1 Dehydration
B Analyser 2 Removal of
vapour from Then Ideal COP of VARS.
strong aqua-
 T   T 
ammonia solution [ COP ] VARS = 1 − o  ×  Re f 
C Rectifier 3 Producing dry  TG  o T − T Re f . 
ammonia vapour TRe f .  TG − To 
by removing =  
traces of water TG  To − TRe f . 
particles Where, TRef. = 270 K
completely To = 300 K
198
 TG = 400 K
270  400 − 300  270 100
[ COP ] VARS = = ×
400  300 − 270  400 30
[COP ] VARS = 2.25
264. Which of the following components of vapor
absorption refrigeration system reject heat to
the surrounding?
(a) Generator and condenser
(b) Condenser and evaporator
(c) Absorber and generator
(d) Absorber and condenser
(e) Absorber and evaporator
CGPSC 25 Apr. (Shift II) 2018
Ans. (d) : Absorber and condenser are components of
vapor absorption refrigeration system reject heat to the
surroundings.
265. A vapor absorption refrigeration system with
COP of 0.85 and refrigeration capacity of 1
kW. The heat input at generator (Qg) and
summation of heat rejected at absorber &
condenser (Qa + C) is given as:
(a) Qg = 1.25 kW; Qa + c = 1.25 kW
(b) Qg = 1.25 kW; Qa + c = 1 kW
(c) Qg = 0.8 kW; Qa + c = 1.8 kW
(d) Qg = 0.8 kW; Qa + c = 1 kW
(e) Qg = 1.25 kW; Qa + c = 2.25 kW
CGPSC 25 Apr. (Shift II) 2018
Ans. (e) : From the VARS - diagram
Data given-
R.E. = 1 kW
[COP]VARS = 0.8
It we assume WP [pump work] equal to zero
then
R.C. R.C.
[ COP ] VARS = = Wp = 0
Q g + Wp Q g
1 Ans : (d) : Condenser and absorber.
0.8 = ⇒ Q g = 1.25kW
Qg
We know that,
QE + Qg = QA + QC
Q A + Q C = 1.25 + 1 = 2.25kW
266. In an aqua ammonia vapour absorption
refrigeration system, the refrigerant and
absorbent respectively are
(a) water and water
(b) water and lithium bromide
199
(c) ammonia and lithium bromide
(d) ammonia and water
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (d) : In an aqua ammonia vapour absorption
refrigeration system, the refrigerant and absorbent
respectively are ammonia and water.
267. In which of the following refrigeration system,
waste heat can be effectively used?
(a) Vapour compression cycle
(b) Vapour absorption cycle
(c) Air refrigeration cycle
(d) None of these
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Ans. (b) :Waste heat effectively utilized in vapour
absorption cycle because vapour absorption cycle
operates on low grade energy i.e. heat.
268. In a lithium bromide absorption refrigeration
system
(a) lithium bromide is used as a refrigerant and
water as an absorbent
(b) water is used as a refrigerant and lithium
bromide as an absorbent
(c) ammonia is used as a refrigerant and lithium
bromide as an absorbent
(d) none of the above
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
Ans. (b) : Solar refrigeration systems are based on
vapour absorption refrigeration system. Two most
commonly refrigerent used in vapour absorption
systems are the mixture of
(i) Ammonia and water
(ii) Water and Lithium
• In a Lithium bromide absorption refrigeration system
water is used as a refrigerent and lithium bromide as on
absorbent.
269. In a lithium bromide absorption refrigeration
system, the refrigerant is :
(a) Lithium bromide (b) Water
(c) Ammonia (d) None of these
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
Ans. (b) : In a Lithium bromide absorption refrigeration
system the refrigeration is water and lithium bromide is
absorber.
270. In a vapour absorption refrigerator, heat is
rejected in
(a) condenser only
(b) absorber only
(c) generator only
(d) condenser and absorber
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
271. The most suitable pair of refrigerant and
absorbent combination for solar refrigeration
is
(a) Ammonia and water
(b) Ammonia and sodium thiocyanide
(c) Water and lithium bromide
(d) R22 and dimethyl formamide
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (c) : Solar heat input is used in LiBr - H2O
(Lithium bromide and water) refrigeration system.
272. In aqua-ammonia and lithium bromide water 283 ( TG − 303)
absorption refrigeration systems, the refrigerants 2=
TG ( 303 − 283 )
are respectively:
(a) Ammonia and water TG = 352.87 K
(b) Water and water TG = 79.87°C ≃ 80°C
(c) Water and lithium bromide 276. Consider the following statements in respect of
(d) Ammonia and lithium bromide a vapour – absorption refrigeration cycle:
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II 1. The absorption refrigeration cycle is generally
used when waste heat is available from an
Ans : (a) : In aqua ammonia and lithium bromide water existing source or when free energy like solar
absorption refrigeration system the refrigerants are energy is to be used.
respectively Ammonia and water. 2. There are no moving parts in the absorption
273. In an Electrolux refrigerator, a thermo-siphon refrigeration plant except a small liquid pump.
bubble pump is used to lift the 3. The value of the coefficient of performance is
(a) weak aqua solution from the generator to the nearly the same in both vapour – absorption and
separator vapour – compression refrigeration plants.
(b) weak aqua solution from the separator to the Which of the above statements are correct?
absorber (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) strong aqua solution from the generator to the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
separator ESE 2017
(d) strong aqua solution from the generator to the Ans. (b) :
evaporator ! An absorption refrigerator is a refrigerator that uses
ESE 2019 a heat source (e.g. solar energy, a fossil-fueled
Ans. (a) : A thermo-siphon bubble pump is used to lift flame, waste heat from factories) to provide the
weak aqua solution from the generator to the separator energy needed to drive the cooling process.
and then to the absorber. ! The absorption cycle use a liquid pump, NOT a
compressor to create the pressure rise between
274. Consider the following statements regarding evaporator and condenser. Pumping a liquid is
vapour absorption systems in the field of much easier and cheaper than compressing a gas, so
refrigeration: the system takes less work input.
1. In ammonia-water absorption system, ! The COP of absorption system is about 20 to 30%
ammonia is the refrigerant. of the vapour compression system.
2. In water-lithium bromide system, water is the 277. In a vapour absorption refrigeration system,
refrigerant. the refrigeration temperature is – 15 °C and
3. Ammonia-water absorption reaction is the generator temperature is 110 °C. If sink
endothermic. temperature is 55 °C, the maximum COP of the
4. The amount of ammonia absorbed by water is system will be
inversely proportional to the temperature of (a) 1.00 (b) 3.69
ammonia. (c) 0.34 (d) 0.90
Which of the above statements are correct? UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 Ans. (*) : TG = 110°C = 110 + 273 = 383 K
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 TO = 55°C = 55 + 273 = 328 K
ESE 2018 TR = –15°C = –15 + 273 = 258 K
Ans. (c) : Ammonia water absorption is exothermic TG 
→ [ Efficiency of Carnot engine ]
hence it s wrong statement. To −
275. In a vapour absorption refrigerator, the → [ COP ]Ref
TR 
temperature of evaporator and ambient air are
10 °C and 30 °C, respectively. For obtaining  T   TR 
COP of 2 for this system, the temperature of [COP]max. = 1 − o   
the generator is to be nearly  TG   To − TR 
(a) 90 °C (b) 85 °C  328   258 
= 1 − = 0.52
(c) 80 °C (d) 75 °C  383   328 − 258 
ESE 2018 278. In the absorption refrigeration cycle, the
Ans. (c) : Given, compressor of vapour compression
Te = 10 + 273 = 283 K refrigeration cycle is replaced by
To = 30 + 273 = 303 K (a) Liquid pump
COP = 2 (b) Generator
(COP)VARS = ηE (COP)R (c) Absorber and generator
(d) Absorber, liquid pump and generator
T − To Te T  T − To  UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
= G × = e G
TG To − Te TG  To − Te  Ans. (d) : Absorber, liquid pump and generator
200
279. Vapour absorption system 286. Biogas consists of
(a) gives noisy operation (a) Only methane
(b) gives quiet operation (b) Methane and CO2 with some impurities
(c) requires little power consumption (c) A special organic gas
(d) cools below 0 °C (d) None of the above
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Ans. (b) : gives quiet operation Ans. (b) : Methane and CO2 with some impurities
280. Lithium bromide in vapour absorption 287. Most widely used material of solar cell is
refrigeration system is used as (a) Arsenic (b) Cadmium
(a) refrigerant (c) Silicon (d) Steel
(b) cooling substance UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(c) auxiliary refrigerant
(d) absorbent Ans. (c) : Silicon
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II 288. In the absorption refrigeration cycle, the
Ans. (d) : absorbent compressor of vapour compression
281. Absorption of energy in solar collectors can be refrigeration cycle is replaced by
increased to a maximum value by coating the (a) Liquid pump
absorber surface by:- (b) Generator
(a) Black paint (c) Absorber and Generator
(b) Lamp black (d) Absorber, Liquid pump and Generator
(c) Rough black coating UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(d) Selective coating Ans. (d) : Absorber, Liquid pump and Generator
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II 289. Concentrating type solar collectors are used to
Ans. (d) : Absorption of energy in solar collectors can generate temperatures in the range of
be increased to a maximum value by coating the (a) upto 100ºC (b) 100- 500ºC
absorber surface by selective coating. (c) less than 80ºC (d) none of these
282. On increasing the temperature of absorber UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
plate of solar collector the efficiency of Ans. (b) : 100- 500ºC
collector:-
(a) Increases 290. A solar thermal operated vapour absorption
(b) Decreases system is capable of
(c) May increase or decrease depending upon (a) Continuous operation
atmospheric temperature (b) Both continuous operation and intermittent
(d) Does not depend on absorber plate operation
temperature (c) No operation
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II (d) Intermittent operation
Ans. (b) : On increasing the temperature of absorber JPSC AE PRE 2019
plate of solar collector the efficiency of collector Ans. (d) : A solar thermal operated vapour absorption
decreases. system is capable of intermittent operation. Solar
283. Solar photovoltaic cell is made up of refrigeration systems are based on vapour absorption
semiconductor materials. The efficiency of refrigeration system. The most suitable and commonly
conversion of solar energy into electrical used pair of refrigerant and absorbent in VARC system
energy is of the order of:- in ammonia water.
(a) 7% (b) 21% 291. Waste heat can be effectively used in which one
(c) 70% (d) 90% of the following refrigeration system?
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II (a) Vapour compression cycle
Ans. (b) : (b) Vapour absorption cycle
284. In aqua–ammonia and LiBr–Water absorption (c) Air refrigeration cycle
refrigeration system, the refrigerants are (d) Vortex refrigeration system
respectively:- UJVNL AE 2016
(a) Water and LiBr Ans : (b) Vapour absorption cycle waste heat can be
(b) Water and Water effectively used in refrigeration system. Vapour
(c) Ammonia and LiBr absorption cycle is used where Electricity Cost is more.
(d) Ammonia and Water
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (d) :
285. A refrigerant used for absorption refrigerators
working on heat received from solar collectors
is a mixture of water and
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Lithium bromide
(c) Freon-12 (d) Sulphur dioxide
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Ans. (b) : Lithium bromide
201
292. Which one of the following refrigeration Ans. (d) :
systems uses waste heat effectively?
(a) vapour compression refrigeration cycle
(b) air refrigeration cycle
(c) vapour absorption refrigeration cycle
(d) vortex refrigeration cycle
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
Ans. (c) : Vapour absorption refrigeration, cycle, can
manage or use the waste heat effectively in refrigeration
system. Installing a waste heat recovery system in the In psychrometric charge adiabatic process
exhaust of a gas power plant, saving considerable energy. follows constant enthalpy lines.
293. In vapour absorption refrigeration system, heat 297. As an index of comfort, the temperature of
is rejected in saturated air at which a person would
(a) condenser only experience the same feeling of comfort as
(b) generator only experienced in the actual unsaturated
(c) absorber only environment is called
(d) condenser and absorber UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper (a) Comfort temperature
Ans. (d) : In vapour absorption refrigeration system, (b) Effective temperature
heat is rejected in condenser and absorber. (c) Wet bulb temperature
294. Thermostatic expansion valve is called as (d) Soothing temperature
(a) Constant superheat valve Ans : (b) Effective temperature is the temperature of
(b) Constant pressure valve saturated air at which a person would experience same
(c) Constant temperature valve feeling of comfort as in unsaturated environment.
(d) Constant flow rate valve 298. Ratio of latent heat transfer to total heat
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper transfer is given by
Ans. (a) : Thermostatic expansion valve (TEV) is a (a) Sensible heat factor (SHF)
component in refrigeration and air conditioning system (b) 1 - SHF
that controls the amount of refrigeration released into (c) (SHF)2
the evaporation there by keeping superheat. TEV also (d) 1 - (SHF)2
called content superheat valve. RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
Ans. (b) : We know that
6. Psychometric Chart and its Sensible heat factor (SHF)
Application Sensible heat SH
= =
Sensible heat + Latent heat SH+LH
295. During chemical dehumidification process of SH
air (1 − SHF ) = 1 −
SH + LH
(a) dry-bulb temperature and specific humidity SH + LH − SH
decrease (1 − SHF ) =
(b) dry-bulb temperature increases and specific SH + LH
humidity decreases LH
= (1 − SHF )
(c) dry-bulb temperature decreases and specific Total heat
humidity increases 299. On pyschormetric chart, when condition line is
(d) dry-bulb temperature and specific humidity extended to meet the saturation curve at a
increase point, the temperature of this point is known as
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V (a) Dry bulb temperature
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II (b) Wet bulb temperature
Ans : (b) : Air dehumidified while enthalpy remains (c) Apparatus dew point
constant. Certain chemicals like silica gel and alumina (d) Atmospheric temperature
absorb moisture from air and hence its 'ω' value RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
decreases but at the same time latent heat of Ans. (c) : On pyschormetric chart, when condition line
condensation liberates and added to air (self-heating) is extended to meet the saturation curve at a point, the
and hence its dry bulb temperature increases. temperature of this point is known as Apparatus dew
296. On a Psychrometric chart, adiabatic process point temperature.
follows
(a) constant DBT lines
(b) Constant relative humidity lines
(c) Constant DPT lines
(d) Constant enthalpy lines
TSPSC AEE 2015
202
300. Specific enthalpy of moist air is given by Ans. (c) : The ratio of partial pressure of water vapour
(where, t = temperature of moist air in ºC, w = in the mixture to the saturation pressure of pure water at
specific humidity in kg per kg of dry air) same temperature of the mixture is called relative
(a) 1.005t + (2500 + 1.88 w)t humidity.
(b) 1.005t + (2500w + 1.88)t It s denoted by φ
(c) 1.005t + (2500w + 1.88t) P
(d) 1.005t + w(2500 + 1.88t) RH ( φ ) = v
Pvs
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
Ans. (d) : Specific enthalpy of moist air is given by, 305. The difference between Wet Bulb temperature
h = 1.005t + w(2500 + 1.88t). and Dry Bulb Temperature
(a) Wet Bulb Depression
301. If sensible and latent heating transfer in an air (b) Dew Point Temperature
conditioning process is 2.5 kW and 1.5 kW (c) Saturation Temperature
respectively. Then sensible heat factor (SHF) will be (d) Adiabatic Saturation Temperature
(a) 1 (b) Zero TNPSC AE 2013
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.625 Ans. (a) : Wet bulb depression
UPRVUNL AE 2016 = DBT – WBT
Ans. (d) : We know that at saturated state (φ = 100%)
Sensible heat DBT = WBT = DPT
Sensible heat factor =
Total heat so, WBD = 0
Sensible heat 306. It is desired to condition the outside air form
= 70% RH and 45oC DBT to 50% RH and 25o
Sensible heat + Latent heat
DBT at room condition. The practical
2.5 2.5 arrangement would be
= = = 0.625
2.5 + 1.5 4 (a) Cooling and dehumidification
302. Sensible heat factor (SHF) line is inclined at an (b) Cooling and humidification
angle of 45º with temperature axis on (c) Heating and dehumidification
psychrometric chart. It's SHF will be: (d) heating and humidification
(a) 0.59 (b) 0.49 TNPSC AE 2014
(c) 0.29 (d) 0.39 Ans. (a) :
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (c) : Sensible heat factor (SHF) line is inclined at
an angle of 45º with temperature axis on psychrometric
chart. It's SHF will be 0.29.
303. Sensible heating/cooling process on
psychometric chart is:
(a) Along constant relative humidity line
(b) Along constant specific humidity line
(c) Along constant specific volume line ω ↓→ Dehumidification
(d) Along constant enthalpy line DBT ↓→ Cooling
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (b) : h1 > h 2 → h ↓
WBT ↓
307. If a mass of moist air in an airtight vessel is
heated to a higher temperature, then-
(a) Specific humidity of the air increases
(b) Specific humidity of the air decreases
(c) Relative humidity of the air increases
(d) Relative humidity of the air decreases
RPSC AE 2018
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
Sensible heating/cooling process on psychometric chart Ans. (d) : If a mass of moist air in an airtight vessel is
is along constant specific humidity line. heated to a higher temperature, then relative humidity
304. The ratio of partial pressure of water vapour in (φ) of the air decreases.
the mixture to the saturation pressure of pure φ > φ , ω = ω = constant
1 2 1 2
water at same temperature of the mixture
(a) Specific Humidity DPT = constant, DBT ↑
(b) Degree of Saturation
(c) Relative Humiditysss
(d) Humidity Ratio
TNPSC AE 2013
203
308. Amongst the following options what remains 311. Consider the following statements.
constant during adiabatic saturation process on (a) As the by-pass factor (BPF) of the cooling
unsaturated air? coil increases, temperature difference
(a) Dew point temperature between air at the outlet of the coil and coil
(b) Relative humidity ADP decreases
(c) Wet bulb temperature (b) The BPF of the coil increases as the velocity
(d) Dry bulb temperature of air through the coil increases
RPSC AE 2018 (c) The BPF of the coil increases as the fin pitch
Ans. (c) : Wet bulb temperature remains constant increases
during adiabatic saturation process on unsaturated air. (d) The BPF of the coil decreases as the number
of rows in the flow direction increase
Of the above, which is correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(e) 1, 2, 3 and 4
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
Ans. (d) : By-pass Factor (BPF) is part of the total air
through the coil which fails to come into contact with
Adiabatic saturation process—The adiabatic the surface of the cooling coil.
saturation is that temperature at which air brought to 1. The BPF of the coil increase as the velocity of air
saturated condition adiabatically by evaporating the through the coil increase.
water into the flowing air. 2. The BPF of the coil increase as the fin pitch increase.
309. During sensible heating of moist air, enthalpy- 3. The BPF of the coil decrease as the number of rows
in the flow direction increase.
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains constant (d) none of the above 312. Consider the following statements.
1. The air conditioning load on a building
RPSC AE 2018 increases, if 0.4% design value is used for
Ans. (a) : From this figure during sensible heating outside conditions instead of 1.0% value for
summer
2. For winter air conditioning, a conservative
approach is to select 99.6% value for the
outside design conditions instead of 99%
value
3. The air conditioning load on a building
decreases, if 0.4% design value is used for
outside conditions instead of 1.0% value for
summer
4. For winter air conditioning, a conservative
DBT remain constant whereas specific humidity (ω) approach is to select 99% value for the
and enthalpy will be increase. outside design conditions instead of 99.6%
h2 > h1 , ω2 > ω1 value
then at sensible heating Of the above, which is correct
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
h ↑, ω ↑, φ ↑
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
310. The relative humidity, during cooling and (e) 1, 3 and 4
dehumidification of moist air- CGPSC AE 2014 -II
(a) increases Ans. (d) : 1. The air conditioning load on a building
(b) decreases increases, if 0.4% design value is used for outside
(c) can increase or decrease conditions instead of 1.0% value for summer.
(d) remains constant 2. The air conditioning load on a building decreases, if
RPSC AE 2018 0.4% design value is used for outside conditions instead
Ans. (c) : The relative humidity, during cooling and of 1.0% value for summer.
dehumidification of moist air can increase or decrease 313. Consider the following statements
ω ↓, DBT ↓, WBT ↓ 1. Thermodynamic WBT is a property of moist
air, while WBT as measured by wet bulb
thermometer is not a property
2. Both the thermodynamic WBT and WBT as
measured by wet bulb thermometer are
properties of moist air
3. Under no circumstances, dry bulb and wet
bulb temperatures are equal
4. Wet bulb temperature is always lower than
dry bulb temperature, but higher than dew
point temperature
204
 Of the above, which is correct? 317. In air-conditioning systems, air may be cooled
(a) 1 (b) 2 and dehumidified by
(c) 3 (d) 4 1. Spraying chilled water to air in the form of
CGPSC AE 2014 -II fine mist
Ans. (d) : Wet bulb temperature is always lower than 2. Circulating chilled water or brine in a tube
dry bulb temperature, but higher than dew point placed ross the air flow.
temperature 3. Placing the evaporator coil across the air
tb > tw > td flow.
314. The process shown in the psychometric process (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
is (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE 2020
Ans. (d) : 1 and 3 only
318. A duct of rectangular cross-section 600 mm ×
400 mm carries 90 m3/min of air having density
of 1.2 kg/m3. When the quantity of air in both
cases is same, the equivalent diameter of a
circular duct will be nearly
(a) 0.86 m (b) 0.76 m
(c) 0.64 m (d) 0.54 m
(a) Sensible heating ESE 2020
(b) Sensible cooling
1.3 ( ab )
0.625
(c) Cooling and humidification Ans. (d) : D =
(d) heating with humidification (a + b)
0.25

(e) Chemical dehumidification

1.3 ( 0.6 × 0.4 )
0.625
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
= = 0.53 m
Ans. (e) : The process shown in the psychometric ( 0.6 + 0.4 )
0.25

process is chemical dehumidification.

Td ↑ , Tw = Const , ω↓ , φ↓ 2ab 2 × 0.6 × 0.4
D= = = 0.48 m
h = Constant a+b 1
315. The phenomenon that enables cooling towers to 319. A room having dimensions of 5 m × 5 m × 3 m
cool water to a temperature below the dry bulb contains air at 25°C and 100 kPa at a relative
temperature of air is termed as humidity of 75%. The corresponding value of
(a) Chemical dehumidification PS is 3.169 kPa. The partial pressure of dry air
(b) Adiabatic evaporative cooling will be nearly
(c) Cooling and dehumidification (a) 106 kPa (b) 98 kPa
(d) Sensible cooling (c) 86 kPa (d) 78 kPa
ESE 2020 ESE 2020
Ans. (b) : Water cools due to evaporation and air gets Pv
heated and humidified and the phenomenon is called Ans. (b) : φ =
Ps
adiabatic evaporative water cooling.
316. If the atmospheric conditions are 20°C, 1.013 P
0.75 = v
bar and specific humidity of 0.0095 kg/kg of 3.169
dry air, the partial pressure of vapour will be Pv = 2.376 kPa
nearly P t = Pa + P v
(a) 0.076 bar (b) 0.056 bar 101.3 = Pa + 2.376
(c) 0.036 bar (d) 0.016 bar Pa = 98.92 kPa
ESE 2020 320. A measure of feeling warmth or coolness by the
Ans. (d) : DBT = 20°C = 293 K human body in response to the air
Pt = 1.013 bar temperature, moisture content and air motion
Pv is called
ω = 0.622 × (a) Dry bulb temperature
Pt − Pv
(b) Effective temperature
Pv (c) Wet bulb temperature
0.0095 = 0.622 ×
1.013 − Pv (d) Dew point temperature
Pv ESE 2020
0.0152 = Ans. (b) : Effective temperature
1.013 − Pv
321. The pressure, dry bulb temperature and relative
0.0153 – 0.0152Pv = Pv humidity of air in a room are 1 bar, 30ºC and
0.0153 = 1.0152Pv 70% respectively. If the saturated steam
Pv = 0.016 bar pressure at 30ºC is 4.25 kPa, the specific
205
 humidity of the room air in kg water vapour/kg 325. On Psychrometric chart, the constant wet bulb
dry air is: temperature lines coincide with (which one of
(a)0.0083 (b) 0.0101 the following is correct)
(c)0.0191 (d) 0.0242 (a) Constant relative humidity lines
UP Jal Nigam AE 2016 (b) Constant enthalpy lines
(c) Constant dew point temperature line
Ans. (c) : Relative humidity (φ) = 0.7 (d) Constant volume lines
Saturated steam pressure ( Pvs ) = 4.25 kPa Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
Total pressure Pt = 1 bar = 100 kPa Ans. (b) : On psychrometric chart, the constant wet bulb
∴ Specific humidity, temperature line coincides with constant enthalpy lines.
Pv 326. For cooling and dehumidifying of unsaturated
ω = 0.622 × ...(i) moist air, it must be passed over a coil at a
Pt − Pv temperature
Again from relative humidity, (a) Of adiabatic saturation of incoming
Pv (b) Which is lower that the dew point of
φ= incoming stream
Pvs
(c) Which lies between dry bulb and wet bulb
Pv = 0.74 Pvs = 2.975 kPa temperature
(d) Constant which lies between wet bulb and
From equation (i),
dew point temperature of incoming stream
2.975 Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
ω = 0.622 × = 0.091
100 − 2.975 Ans. (b) : In order to cool and dehumidify a stream of
ω = 0.0191 kgw.v/kg.d.a. moist air, it must be passed over the coil at a
322. For winter air conditioning, the relative temperature which is lower that the dew point
humidity should not be more than : temperature of the incoming stream.
(a) 60% (b) 75% 327. In a dessert cooler, the main process is
(c) 40% (d) 90% (a) sensible cooling
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 (b) dehumidification
(c) adiabatic saturation
Ans. (c) : For winter air conditioning, the relative
(d) cooling and dehumidification
humidity should not be more than 40%.
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
323. At 100% relative humidity Ans. (d): In dessert cooler, cooling and
(a) Dew point temperature = Wet bulb dehumidification process used (which responsible in
temperature increasing humidity) while, coolers used in normal
(b) Dry bulb temperature = Wet bulb temperature regions which apply cooling + dehumidification
(c) Saturation temperature = Dew point (decrease humidity)
temperature 328. Dew point temperature is the temperature at
(d) All of these which condensation begins when the air is
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper cooled at constant
Ans. (d) : At 100% relative humidity, the temperatures, (a) volume (b) entropy
dry bulb, wet bulb, dew point and saturation are Equal. (c) pressure (d) enthalpy
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
324. Sensible Heat Factor (SHF) is defined as:
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
LH Ans. (c) : Pressure
(a) SHF =
SH + LH 329. The humidity ratio of atmospheric air at 28oC
LH [P = 28.34mm Hg ] dry bulb
(b) SHF = sat @ 28o C, water
SH − LH temperature and 760 mm Hg pressure is 0.018
SH kg/kg of dry air. What will be the relative
(c) SHF = humidity of air?
SH + LH
(a) 96.13% (b) 75.42%
SH (c) 55.25% (d) 88.35%
(d) SHF =
SH − LH SJVN ET 2019
Where ST → Sensible Heat Ans. (b) : Po = 760 mm Hg
LH → Latent Heat ω = 0.018 kg/kg of dry air
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 Ps = 28.374 mm Hg
Sensible heat 0.622Pv
Ans. (c) : SHF = ω=
Total heat Po − Pv
SH 0.622 Pv
= 0.018 =
LH + SH Po − Pv
206
⇒ ( 760 − Pv ) 0.018 = 0.6122 Pv ω = 0.00898
⇒ 760 × 0.018 − 0.018Pv = 0.622 Pv Relative humidity (φ)
P 1.445
Pv = 21.375 mm Hg φ= v = × 100
Pvsat. 3.55
Pv 21.375
RH ( φ ) = = = 75.42% φ = 40.7 ≈ 41%
Ps 28.34
333. Index of human comfort is given by:
0.622 Pv (a) Relative humidity
330. The expression is used to determine
( P − Pv ) (b) Dry bulb temperature
(c) Air velocity
(a) relative humidity (b) specific humidity (d) Effective temperature
(c) degree of saturation (d) partial pressure (e) Dew point temperature
(e) absolute humidity
CGPSC 25 Apr. (Shift II) 2018
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
Ans. (d) : Index of human comfort is given by effective
Ans. (b) : We know that humidity ratio (or) specific
temperature.
0.622Pv
humidity (ω) = 334. Saturation temperature of the water vapor in
P − Pv the moist air is known as :
331. Water in an insulated evaporative cooler (a) Dry bulb temperature
evaporates at the rate of 0.005 kg/s. Air flow (b) Dew point temperature
rate is 1.2 kg/s. What is the air temperature (c) Wet bulb temperature
decrease if the specific heat of humid air is (d) Critical temperature
1kJ/kg K and latent heat of water is 2700 (e) Adiabatic saturation temperature
kJ/kg? CGPSC 25 Apr. (Shift II) 2018
(a) 2.70C (b) 5.250C Ans. (b) : Saturation temperature of the water vapor in
0
(c) 11.25 C (d) 13.250C the moist air is known as dew point temperature.
0
(e) 14.75 C
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
Ans. (c) : Data given,
•
m w = 0.005kg / s
•
m A = 1.2 kg / s
(LH)w = 2700 kJ/kg
Cp = 1 kJ/kg K 335. Which of the following is true for sensible
∆T=? heating process?
We know that, (a) DBT increases, WBT increases, RH increases,
Heat gained by water will be equal to heat lost by air Dew point temperature remains same
• •
m w × (LH) w = m A C P ∆T (b) DBT increases, WBT decreases, RH
increases, Dew point temperature increases
0.005 × 2700 = 1.2×1×∆T (c) DBT increases, WBT increases, RH decreases,
∆T = 11.250 C Dew point temperature remain same
(d) DBT increases, WBT decreases, RH
332. In a sample of moist air at standard decreases, Dew point temperature increases
atmospheric pressure of 101.5 kPa and 280C,
(e) DBT decreases, WBT increases, RH increases,
the partial pressure of water vapour is 1.445
Dew point temperature remains same
kPa. If the saturation pressure of water vapour
is 3.55 kPa at 280C, then what are the humidity CGPSC 25 Apr. (Shift II) 2018
ratio and relative humidity of moist air Ans. (c) : For sensible heating process-
sample? DBT ↑ , WBT ↑
(a) 0.00836 and 1.32% (b) 0.00836 and 40% DPT → Constant
(c) 0.00898 and 41% (d) 0.01344 and 1.32% ω → constant
(e) 0.01344 and 40% φ ↓, h ↑, v ↑
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
Ans. (c) : Data given as,
P = 101.325 kPa at 280C
Pv = 1.445 kPa
Pv sat.= 3.55 kPa at 280C
We know that
0.622Pv 0.622 × 1.445
Humidity ratio (ω) = =
( P − Pv ) (101.325 − 1.445 )
207
336. During a simple sensible heating process, the 341. The process, generally used in winter air-
relative humidity _______ . conditioning to warm and humidity the air is called–
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (a) Humidification
(c) Is zero (d) Remains constant (b) Dehumidification
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift (c) Heating and humidification
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II (d) Cooling and dehumidification
Ans. (b) : Sensible heating- It is the process of Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
increasing the Dry bulb temperature at constant specific Ans. (c) : Winter air condition requirement is heating
humidity. and humidification the process of winter air
conditioning is on psychrometric chart.
342. The pressure, dry bulb temperature, and
relative humidity of air in a room are 1 bar,
300C and 70% respectively. If the saturated
steam pressure at 300C is 4.25 kPa, the specific
humidity of the room air in kg water vapour/kg
dry air is
(a) 0.0083 (b) 0.0101
(c) 0.0191 (d) 0.0232
Effects of sensible heating- Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
i) Dry bulb temperature increases Ans. (c) : Given,
ii) Sp. Humidity or humidity ratio remains constant Relative humidity = 0.7
iii) Dew point temperature is constant. Saturated steam pressure Ps = 4.25 kPa
iv) Relative humidity decreases Total pressure Pt = 1 bar = 100 kPa
v) Enthalpy increases Specific humidity,
vi) Specific volume increases.
vii) Wet bulb temperature increases. P
ω = 0.622 v ..........(i)
337. The conditioned air supplied to the room must P − Pv
have the capacity to take up Relative humidity,
(a) Room sensible heat load only PV
(b) Room latent heat load only φ=
(c) Both room sensible heat load and room latent Ps
heat load PV = 0.7 × PS = 0.7 × 4.25 = 2.975 kPa
(d) Neither room sensible heat load nor room From equation (i)
latent heat load 2.975
JWM 2017 ω = 0.622
100 − 2.975
Ans. (c) : The conditioned air supplied to the room have = 0.0191 kgwv/kg d.a.
the capacity to take up room sensible heat load as well kgwv = Kilogram water vapour
as room latent load. kg d.a. = Kilogram of dry air
338. Air refrigeration cycle is used in 343. The ratio of the partial pressure of water
(a) commercial refrigerator vapour in the mixture to the saturated partial
(b) domestic refrigerator pressure at the dry bulb temperature,
(c) gas liquefaction expressed as percentage, is
(d) air-conditioning (a) relative humidity (b) specific humidity
TNPSC AE 2018 (c) humidity ratio (d) absolute humidity
Ans. (d) : Air refrigeration cycle is used in air- TNPSC 2019
conditioning. Ans. (a) : The ratio of the partial pressure of water vapour
339. The constant partial pressure lines on the in the mixture to the saturated partial pressure at the dry
psychrometric chart are bulb temperature is known as relative humidity (φ).
(a) horizontal lines (b) vertical lines P mv
(c) inclined lines (d) curved lines φ= v =
APPSC AEE 2016 PS m v sat.
Ans. (a) : The constant partial pressure lines on the 344. An air water vapour mixture has a DBT of 60o
psychrometric chart are horizontal lines. c and a DPT of 40oc. The WBT (tw) for the
340. The object for air conditioning a car is to above mixture would be
control these in the (a) Less than 40oC (b) 40oC
o
(a) Temperature and Pressure (c) 60 C (d) 40oC < Tw < 60oC
(b) Pressure and Humidity TSPSC AEE 2015
(c) Humidity and Temperature Ans. (d) : We know that
(d) Humidity and Pressure DBT > WBT > DPT
TNPSC AE 2017 So, 40oC < TW < 60oC
Ans. (c) : The object for air conditioning a car is to For saturated vapour-
control these in the Humidity and Temperature. DBT = WBT = DPT
208
345. During dehumidification process.......remain (c) dew point temperature
constant. (d) saturation temperature
(a) Wet bulb temperature RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
(b) Relative humidity Ans : (c) Dew point temperature– The saturation
(c) Dry bulb temperature temperature at the partial pressure of water vapour in the
(d) Specific humidity air water vapour mixture is called dew point temperature
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 349. For completely dry air total heat is
Ans. (c) : (a) Total latent heat
(b) Sum of latent heat and sensible heat
(c) Total sensible heat
(d) Difference of sensible heat and latent heat
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
Ans. (c) : For completely dry air, since latent part will
not present hence total heat will be equal to total
sensible heat.
350. The wet bulb depression is zero when relative
During dehumidification process, humidity equals :
! DBT constant (a) 1.0 (b) 0.5
! Specific humidity decreases (c) 0.75 (d) Zero
! DPT Decreases OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
! Relative humidity decreases UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
! Enthalpy decreases Ans. (a) : The wet bulb depression is zero when relative
humidity equals to one. (φ = 100%)
346. In a spray washing system, if the temperature
The wet bulb depression is the difference between the
of water is higher than the dry bulb dry bulb temperature and the wet bulb temperature. If
temperature of entering air, then the air is– there is 100% Relative Humidity, dry bulb and wet bulb
(a) Heated and dehumidified temperatures are identical making the wet bulb
(b) Heated and humidified depression equal to zero.
(c) Cooled and humidified 351. A 100 percent relative humidity of air implies
(d) Cooled and dehumidified that :
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 (a) Wet bulb temperature equals the dew point
Ans. (b) : (H 2 O) > (DBT) → Hence heating temperature
Water is mixing with air Hence → Humidification (b) Dew point temperature equals the saturation
temperature
347. A humidification process means- (c) Saturation temperature equals the dry bulb
(a) decrease in relative humidity temperature
(b) an increase in specific humidity (d) Dry bulb, wet bulb, saturation and dew point
(c) a decrease in temperature temperatures are equal
(d) an increase in temperature OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016 Ans. (d) : When RH 100% then saturation condition ⇒
Ans : (b) WBT = DBT = DPT
352. A bootstrap air-cooling system has
(a) one heat exchanger
(b) two heat exchanger
(c) three heat exchangers
(d) four heat exchangers
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
OA–Humidification Process. Ans. (b) : A bootstrap air-cooling system has two heat
In humidification process- exchangers-(i) Air Cooler (ii) After Cooler
! DBT-constant. 353. On a psychrometic chart, what does a vertical
! Specific humidity increase. downward line represent?
! WBT– increases. (a) Adiabatic saturation (b) Sensible cooling
! DPT- Increases. (c) Dehumidification (d) Humidification
! RH- Increases. BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
! Specific enthalpy Increases. Ans : (c) :
! Vg– Increases.
O
! PV - Increases.
348. The saturation temperature at the partial
A
pressure of water vapour in the air water
vapour mixture is called-
(a) dry bulb temperature O–A- Dehumidification process.
(b) wet bulb temperature
209
354. The latent heat load in an auditorium is 25% of Ans : (b) : Dry bulb temperature (TDBT)1= 35oC
sensible heat load. The value of sensible heat Relative humidity (φ) = 100%
factor is then equal to Dry bulb temperature at exit (TDBT)2 = 25oC
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.5
(c) 0.8 (d) 1.0
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
Ans : (c) : Given,
LH = 0.25 SH
SH 1 1
SHF = = = = 0.8
SH + LH 1 + LH 1.25
SH
355. Which of the following parameters remains ω 2 < ω1 (∴ Dehumidifier )
constant during a sensible cooling or heating Since, water content is moist air is reducing as it is
process? evident from the decrease in the humidity ratio (ω). The
(a) Dry-bulb temperature device is dehumidifier.
(b) Wet-bulb temperature 359. The statements concern psychrometric chart
(c) Humidity ratio 1. Constant relative humidity lines are uphill
(d) Relative humidity straight lines to the right.
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V 2. Constant wet bulb temperature lines are
Ans : (c) : Process - 1-2 → sensible heating process downhill straight lines to the right.
Process 2–1 → Sensible cooling process. 3. Constant specific volume lines are downhill
In both process humidity ratio (ω) will remain constant. straight lines to the right.
4. Constant enthalpy lines are coincident with
constant wet bulb temperature lines.
Which of the statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (a) : Various process in psychrometric charts

356. In order to have a low by-pass factor of cooling

coil, the fin spacing and the number of tubes
rows should be respectively
(a) wide apart and high
(b) wide apart and low
(c) close and low (i) Constant RH lines are curved and uphill to right.
(d) close and high (ii) Constant WBT line and specific volume lines both
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V are straight lines but different slopes.
Ans : (d) : In order to have low by pass factor, the (iii) Constant enthalpy and constant WBT line have
contact of air with the cooling coil surface should be little difference in slope.
maximum or for a longer period of time. This is ensured 360. Water at 42ºC is sprayed into a stream of air at
by close fin spacing and large number of tubes. atmospheric pressure, dry bulb temperature of
357. When air is adiabatically saturated, the 40ºC and a wet bulb temperature of 20ºC. The air
temperature attained is leaving the spray humidifier is not saturated.
(a) dew point temperature Which of the following statements is true?
(b) dry bulb temperature (a) Air gets cooled and humidified
(c) wet bulb temperature (b) Air gets heated and humidified
(d) triple point temperature (c) Air gets heated and dehumidified
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 (d) Air gets cooled and dehumidified
Ans : (c) : wet bulb temperature Gujarat PSC AE 2019
358. Moist air at 35ºC and 100% relative humidity Ans : (b) : Spray water temperature = 42oC
is entering a psychometric device and leaving Air stream condition
at 25ºC and 100% relative humidity. The name DBT = 40oC
of device is WBT = 42oC
(a) Humidifier (b) Dehumidifier Since, temperature of spraying water is greater than that
(c) Sensible heating (d) Sensible cooling of air stream temperature. Hence, air gets heated and
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 humidified.
210
361. On a Psychrometric chart, sensible cooling is (c) Same
represented by (d) More or less depends on size of plant
(a) Horizontal line (b) Inclined line OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(c) Vertical line (d) None of these Ans : (b) : The coefficient of performance of a
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 domestic refrigerator is less as compared to a domestic
Ans : (a) : OB sensible cooling process air-conditioner
367. The atmospheric air at dry bulb temperature
of 15ºC enters a heating coil maintained at
40ºC. The air leaves the heating coil at 25ºC.
The bypass factor of heating coil is:
(a) 0.376 (b) 0.40
(c) 0.60 (d) 0.67
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (c) :
t −t
362. When the outside air is introduced for BPF = 3 2
t 3 − t1
ventilation purposes there is a:
(a) Sensible heat gain Where,
(b) Latent heat gain temperature of heating coil (t3) = 40ºC
(c) Sensible and latent heat gain exit temperature of air (t2) = 25ºC
(d) No heat gain temperature of air at inlet (t1) = 150ºC
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II 40 − 25
BPF = = 0.6
Ans : (c) : Sensible heat gain due to temperature 40 − 15
difference between fresh air in space. Latent heat gain 368. In air conditioning design hunt load for an
due to humidity. average adult male during idle condition can be
363. Amount of moisture that air can hold increases considered as:
by: (a) 75 W (b) 115 W
(a) Decreasing both Saturation Pressure and (c) 175 W (d) 215 W
Temperature
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(b) Decreasing Saturation Pressure and
Increasing Temperature Ans : (d) : In air conditioning design hunt load for an
(c) Increasing Saturation Pressure and average adult male during idle condition can be
Decreasing Temperature considered as 215 W
(d) Increasing both Saturation Pressure and 369. Sensible heat factor for an auditorium is
Temperature generally kept as:
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II (a) 0.5 (b) 0.7
Ans : (a) : Decreasing both saturation pressure and (c) 0.9 (d) 1.0
temperature OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
364. When Dry bulb Wet bulb and Dew point Ans : (b) : Sensible heat factor for an auditorium is
temperature can equal? generally kept as 0.7
(a) RH = 0 (b) RH = 0.50 370. The supply air state to the conditioned space
(c) RH = 1.00 (d) Never Possible from cooling coil with a bypass factor lies at:
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II (a) Intersection of RSHF line with saturation
Ans : (c) : At RH = 100%, DBT = WBT = DPT curve
365. Specific humidity of moist air can be defined as (b) Intersection of GSHF line with saturation
ratio of: curve
(a) Mass of water vapour to mass of moist air (c) Point divides RSHF line in proportion of BPF
(b) Mass of water vapour to mass of dry air and (1-BPF)
(c) Mass of water vapour to mass of water (d) Intersection of RSHF line with GSHF line
vapour at saturated condition OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(d) Partial pressure of water vapour to
atmospheric pressure Ans : (c) : Point divides RSHF line in proportion of
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II BPF and (1–BPF)
Ans : (b) : The humidity ratio or specific humidity is 371. For comfort condition the effective
defined as the mass of water vapour present in per kg of temperature for child as compared to adult is:
dry air in the given volume and given temperature. (a) Same (b) Higher
366. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator (c) Lower (d) Insufficient data
as compared to air-conditioner is: OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(a) Large Ans : (b) : The children require higher effective
(b) Small temperature compared with adults.
211
372. If 1 kg of air having specific humidity as 0.03 376. In an unsaturated air the state of vapour is-
kg/kg of dry air mixes with 2 kg air of specific (a) Wet (b) Superheated
humidity as 0.015 kg/kg of dry air, the specific (c) Saturated (d) Unsaturated
humidity of mixture in kg/kg of dry air will be: RPSC AE 2018
(a) 0.025 (b) 0.015 Ans. (b) : In an unsaturated air the state of vapour is
(c) 0.02 (d) Cannot determined superheated.
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II 377.
Ans : (c) :

ω
ω

From mixing of two stream concept,

m 1ω1 + m 2 ω 2 = ( m 1 + m 2 ) ω 3
(a) t1 → DBT, t 2 → DBT, t 3 → WBT
m 1ω1 + m 2ω 2
ω3 = (b) t1 → DBT, t 2 → WBT, t 3 → DBT
( m1 + m 2 ) (c) t1 → WBT, t 2 → DBT, t 3 → DPT
1× 0.03 + 2 × 0.015 (d) t1 → DBT, t 2 → WBT, t 3 → DPT
= = 0.02 kg/kg of dry air
(1 + 2) TSPSC AEE 2015
373. The difference between dry bulb temperature Ans. (d) :
and wet bulb temperature is called:
(a) Dry bulb depression
(b) Wet bulb depression
(c) Dew point depression
(d) Degree of saturation
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (b) : The difference between dry bulb
temperature and wet bulb temperature is called wet bulb
depression.
374. In a psychometric process, the sensible heat
added is 30 kJ/s and the latent heat added is 20
kJ/s. The sensible heat factor for the process
will be?
(a) 0.30 (b) 0.60 378. During an air-conditioning of a plant, the room
(c) 0.67 (d) 1.50 sensible heat load is 40 kW and room latent
heat load is 10 kW, ventilation air is 25% of
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
supply air. At full load, the room sensible heat
Ans : (b) : Given, factor will be
Sensible heat (S.H.) = 30 kJs (a) 0.9 (b) 0.8
Latent heat (L.H.) = 20 kJ/s (c) 0.7 (d) 0.6
S.H. ESE 2019
Sensible heat factor (S.H.F.) =
S.H. + L.H. RSH RSH
Ans. (b) : RSHF = =
30 RSH + RLH RTH
= = 0.6 Where RSHF = Room sensible heat factor
30 + 20
RSH = Room sensible heat
375. The minimum temperature to which water can RLH = Room latent heat
be cooled in a cooling tower is: RTH = Room total heat
(a) Dew point temperature of air Given,
(b) Wet bulb temperature of air RSH = 40 kW
(c) Dry bulb temperature of air RTH = RSH + RLH = 50 kW
(d) Ambient air temperature 40
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II RSHF = = 0.8
50
Ans : (b) : The minimum temperature to which water 379. If the relative humidity of atmospheric air is
can be cooled in a cooling tower is wet bulb 100%, then the wet-bulb temperature will be
temperature of air. (a) more than dry-bulb temperature
212
 (b) equal to dew-point temperature (c) 10 °C (d) 12 °C
(c) equal to dry-bulb temperature ESE 2018
(d) less than dry-bulb temperature t −t t − (−10)
ESE 2019 Ans. (b) : BPF = 2 3 = 2
Ans. (b,c) : If relative humidity of atmospheric air is t 1 − t 3 30 − (−10)
100% then air is saturated and for saturated air DBT =
WBT = DPT

t 2 + 10
0.45 =
40
t2 = 8°C
383. Consider the following statements in respect of
At point A we seen that natural draft cooling towers:
DBT = WBT = DPT 1. Theoretically the water can be cooled to even
380. Statement I: In air-conditioning, the atmospheric below the dry – bulb temperature of the induced
air (mixture of dry air and water vapour) can be air flow.
considered as mixture of two ideal gases. 2. Natural – draft cooling towers are 100 m or
Statement II: In the temperature range used in air more in height.
conditioning, the partial pressure of the water 3. The inner and outer surfaces are surfaces of
vapour is very low and it follows the ideal gas revolution of a segment of a hyperbola about
relation with negligible error. the vertical axis – affording improved strength
ESE 2018 rather than any thermodynamic augmentation.
Ans. (a) : The air to be processed in air conditioning Which of the above statements are correct?
system is a mixture of dry air and water vapour. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
When air and water vapour exist alone at moderate or (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
low pressure, always the case for our conditions, they ESE 2017
closely approximate ideal gases. In that case the Ans. (a) : The lowest temperature to which water can
relationship between pressure, temperature and mass be cooled in any cooling tower is WBT of in going air
can be expressed as, which is lesser than its DBT.
PV = mRT
The hyperbolic shape is given to cooling tower for
At low pressure, if their and water vapour are mixed
structural stability rather than increasing heat transfer
together the interaction between the molecules of the
two gases is modest so that the mixture can be rate.
considered an ideal gas. 384. Two air streams with mass flow rates of 36
381. Consider the following statements: kg/min and 14 kg/min with respective
1. The relative humidity of air does not change enthalpies of 36 kJ/kg da and 50 kJ/kg da are
with temperature as long as specific humidity mixed. The enthalpy of the mixture is nearly
remains constant. (a) 64 kJ/kg da (b) 55 kJ/kg da
2. Dew-point temperature is the temperature at (c) 46 kJ/kg da (d) 40 kJ/kg da
which air is cooled at constant volume ESE 2017
3. Saturated air passing over a water surface Ans. (d) : Given,
does not cause change of air temperature
4. For saturated air, dry bulb, wet-bulb and dew
point temperatures are identical
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
ESE 2018
Ans. (d) : (i) Relative humidity changes with DBT
hence statement (1) is wrong. ɺ 1 = 36 kg/min
m
(ii) Dew point temperature is the temperature at which mɺ 2 = 14 kg/min
when condensation happens at constant pressure. Hence h1 = 36 kJ/kg
statement (2) is also wrong therefore option (d) is correct. h2 = 50 kJ/kg
382. In an air-handling unit, air enters the cooling After mixing enthalpy of mixture
coil at a temperature of 30 °C. The surface mɺ h +m ɺ 2h 2
temperature of the coil is –10 °C. If the bypass h= 1 1
factor of the coil is 0.45, then the temperature ɺ
m 1 + ɺ2
m
of the air at the exit will be (36 × 36) + (14 × 50)
(a) 6 °C (b) 8 °C = = 40 kJ/kg da
36 + 14
213
385. Air at 30°C and 1 bar has a specific humidity of Ans : (c) Wet bulb temperature remains constant during
0.016 kg/kg of dry air. By considering the adiabatic saturation process.
saturation pressure of water vapour at 30°C as
4.246kPa, the relative humidity of the air will be
(a) 66.1% (b) 60.2%
(c) 58.8% (d) 56.8%
ESE 2017
Ans. (c) : Given,
Tsat = 30°C, P = 1 bar
Psat = 4.264 kPa
Specific humidity (ω) = 0.016 kg/kg of drg air In adiabatic saturation temperature is taken equal to the
We know that wet bulb temperature.
 P  388. The amount of moisture in air can be measured
ω = 0.622  V  by
 P − PV  (KPSC AE 2015)
 PV  (a) Sling psychrometer (b) Mass spectrometer
0.016 = 0.622   (c) Photometer (d) Thermistor
 1 − PV 
Ans : (a) The amount of moisture in air can be
PV = 0.025 bar = 2.5 kPa measured by sling psychrometer.
PV 2.5 389. On a phychorometric chart, the relative
Relative humidity (φ) = = = 0.5887 = 58.87%
Psat 4.246 humidity lines are represented by
386. Consider the following statements in respect of (a) uniformly spaced inclined lines
(b) uniformly spaced horizontal lines
an evaporative cooling process:
(c) non-uniformly spaced lines
1. The wet-bulb temperature remains constant. (d) curved lines
2. The dew-point temperature remains constant. (KPSC AE 2015)
3. The enthalpy remains constant. Ans : (d)
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
ESE 2017
Ans. (d) :

390. Dehumidification is the process of removing

The evaporative cooling process wet bulb temperature moisture from air with dry bulb temperature
and enthalpy remains constant for process 1 − 2 (a) Decreasing
Cooling and humidification (b) Increasing
Tw1 = Tw2 (c) Changing in any direction
h1 = h2 (d) Remaining constant
Note- In this process (1−2) (KPSC AE 2015)
! Relative humidity (RH) increases Ans : (d)
! Specific humidity (ω) increases
! DBT decreases.
387. Which of the following parameters remains
constant during adiabatic saturation process
on unsaturated air?
(a) Dew point temperature
(b) Dry bulb temperature
(c) Wet bulb temperature Process 1-2 :- Dehumidification
(d) Relative humidity In dehumidification Dry bulb temperature remains
(KPSC AE 2015) constant but humidity decrease.
214
391. Which of the following is considered as comfort 394. If T1 and T2 are dry bulb temperature of air
condition in air-conditioning? entering and leaving the coil and T3 is ADP
(a) 15°C DBT and 40% RH temperature (temperature of cooling coil), then
(b) 20°C DBT and 60% RH T1 bypass factor for sensible cooling of air is:
(c) 25° C DBT and 70% RH T3 − T1 T1 − T2
(d) None of these (a) (b)
(KPSC AE 2015) T2 − T1 T2 − T3
Ans : (b) It may be notes that a human being feels T2 − T3 T2 − T3
(c) (d)
comfortable when the air is at 21°C DBT with 56%- T1 − T3 T1 − T2
60% relative humidity.
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
392. In cooling tower, "approach" is the
temperature difference between the: Ans : (c)
(a) Hot inlet water and cold outlet water.
(b) Hot inlet water and wet bulb temperature
(c) Cold outlet water and wet bulb temperature
(d) Dry bulb and wet bulb temperature
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans : (c) In cooling tower "approach" is the
temperature difference between the cold outlet water T − T3
By pass factor ( BPF ) = 2
and wet bulb temperature. T1 − T3
395. During mixing of steams in case of air
conditioning, the process is associated with:
(a) Throttling (b) Adiabatic
(c) Isobaric (d) Isochoric
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans : (b) During mixing of steams in case of air
conditioning, the process is associated with adiabatic.
396. The humidity ratio is also expressed as where
Ps is the partial pressure of superheated vapour
and p is the barometric pressure of mixture:
Ps p
The Thermodynamic wet bulb temperature or adiabatic (a) 0.622 (b) 0.622
saturation temperature is the temperature at which the ( p − p s ) ( p − ps )
air can be brought to saturation state, adiabatically, by p p − ps
the evaporator of water into the flowing air. (c) (d) 0.622
ps ps
393. Heating of air without changing its moisture
content takes place on a psychometric chart OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
along : Ans : (a) Specific humidity OR Humidity ratio(ω):-
(a) A horizontal line of constant dew point mass of vapour in air m v
(b) Rising line ω= =
mass of total air ma
(c) Falling line
(d) Curved line P Pv
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II ω = 0.622 v = 0.622
Pa Pt − Pv
Ans : (a) Heating of air without changing its moisture
content takes place on a psychometric chart along a P
= 0.622 S
horizontal line of constant dew point. P − PS
Pt = Pv + Pa
PS = Pv = Partial Pressure of vapour
Pa = Partial Pressure of air
P = Pt = Total pressure
397. If we have 100% RH, then DPT, WBT and
DBT can be related to each other as:
(a) DBT < DPT < WBT
(b) DBT = DPT = WBT
(c) DPT > WBT > DBT
line – 1-2 represent in psychometric chart heating (d) None of the above
without changing moisture content. OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
215
Ans : (b) When 100% Relative humidity then saturation (d) may increase or decrease with increase in
condition velocity of air passing through it depending
upon the condition of air entering
(HPPSC AE 2014)
Ans : (a)

By-pass factor for a cooling coil increase with increase

(i) At saturation conditions in velocity of air passing through it.
DBT = WBT = DPT We know that when velocity of air increase which
(ii) At unsaturated conditions passing through cooling or heating coil the amount of
DBT > WBT > DPT. gas will going to out, with out make contact with
DBT = Dry bulb temperature cooling or heating coil. so,
WBT = Wet bulb temperature Qɺ = V × A
DPT = Dew point temperature. Qɺ ∝ V
398. The desuperheating coil in a condenser Rate of discharge of gas increase with increase velocity.
performs the function of: So, by pass factor
(a) improving the heat of superheat of the Flowing mass of fluid without contact the coil
refrigerant before it goes into condenser BPF =
(b) Removing heat from condenser Total mass of fluid passing through the coil
(c) Improving condenser performance 401. In case of sensible cooling of air, the coil
(d) To humidity the refrigerant before it goes efficiency is given by (BPF = by pass factor) :
into condenser (a) BPF –1 (b) 1 – BPF
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II (c) 1/BPF (d) 1 + BPF
Ans : (c) The desuperheating coil in a condenser (HPPSC AE 2014)
performance the function of improving condenser Ans : (b)
performance.
399. The atmosphere air at dry bulb temperature of
15°C enters a heating coil maintained at 40°C.
The air leaves the heating coil at 25°C. The by-
pass factor of the heating coil is:
(a) 0.376 (b) 0.4
(c) 0.6 (d) 0.67 t 2 − ts
(HPPSC AE 2014) By pass factor =
t1 − t s
Ans : (c)
t1 − t 2
Efficiency of coil (η ) =
t1 − t s
Efficiency of coil (η ) = 1 − BPF
402. In a saturated air–water mixture the :
(a) dry bulb temperature is higher than the wet
bulb temperature
(b) dew point temperature is lower than the wet
Actual loss bulb temperature
By pass factor (BPF) = (c) dry bulb temperature, wet bulb temperature
Ideal loss
and dew point temperature are the same
ts − t 2 (d) dry bulb temperature is higher than the dew
BPF = point temperature
t s − t1
(HPPSC AE 2014)
40 − 25
BPF = Ans : (c) (i) At saturated condition
40 − 15 DBT = WBT = DPT
BPF = 0.6 WBD = 0
400. By-pass factor for a cooling coil : (ii) At unsaturated condition
(a) increase with increase in velocity of air DBT > WBT > DPT
passing through it DBT = Dry bulb temperature
(b) decrease with increase in velocity of air WBT = wet bulb temperature
passing through it DPT = Dew point temperature
(c) remains unchanged with increase in velocity WBD = wet bulb Depression
of air passing through it (Saturated φ = 100%)
216
403. Which property of moist air remains constant
during adiabatic cooling?
(a) Dry bulb temperature
(b) Specific humidity
(c) Relative humidity
(d) Wet bulb temperature
(HPPSC AE 2014)
Ans : (d)
During 1-2 adiabatic cooling
(i) Relative humidity increases
(ii) Specific humidity increases
(iii) DBT decreases
(iv) wet bulb temperature remains constant it follows
constant enthalpy line.
404. In compound compression system with
intercooling in a refrigeration cycle the suction
vapour to the second stage of compression is :
(a) Superheated (b) Wet
(c) Dry saturated (d) Subcooled
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 water vapour, is cooled at constant pressure.
Ans : (c) In compound compression system with
intercooling in a refrigeration cycle the suction vapour constant until the water vapour reached the saturated
to the seconds stage of compression is dry saturated.
405. The process of removing moisture from air at drop of dew will be formed and hence the temperature
constant dry bulb temperature is known as :
(a) Sensible heating (b) Sensible cooling
(c) Humidification (d) De-humidification
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
Ans : (d) The process of removing moisture from air at
constant dry bulb temperature is know as De-
humidification
406. The most commonly used method for the temperature.
design of duct size is the:
(a) Velocity reduction method
(b) Equal fraction method
(c) Static region method
(d) Dual or double duct method
UJVNL AE 2016
Ans : (b) Equal fraction method most commonly be
used method for the design of duct
other methods of duct size
i) Velocity reduction methods.
ii) Static regain methods
0
407. Water at 42 C is sprayed into a stream of air
at atmospheric pressure, dry bulb temperature of
400C and a wet bulb temperature of 20 0C. The 410. If the specific humidity of moist air remains the
air leaving the spray humidifier is not saturated.
Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Air gets cooled and humidified
(b) Air gets heated and humidified
(c) Air gets heated and dehumidified
217
(d) Air gets cooled and dehumidified
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
Ans : (b) Air gets heated and humidified
Given
Water spraying temperature = 420C
Dry bulb temperature (Td) = 400C
Wet bulb temperature (Tw) = 200C
Here we see that
Water spraying temperature > Dry bulb temperature
408. Dew point temperature is the temperature at
which condensation begins when the air is
cooled at constant
(a) Volume (b) Entropy
(c) Pressure (d) Enthalpy
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
RPSC AE 2018
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (c)
If a sample of unsaturated air, containing superheated
The partial pressure of each constituent remains
states as shown by point B. At this point B, the first
at point B is called dew point temperature.
409. For air with a relative humidity of 80%
(a) The dry bulb temperature is less than the wet
bulb temperature
(b) The dew point temperature is less than the
wet bulb temperature
(c) The dew point and wet bulb temperatures are
equal
(d) The dry bulb and dew point temperatures are
equal
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
Ans : (b) For the air with a relative humidity of 80%
then dew point temperature is less than the wet bulb
From this fig. we can say that
DPT at φ = 70% is less than φ = 40%
But DBT and WBT are same for both relative humidity
φ = 70% and φ = 40%.
same but its DBT increases, its DPT
(a) Remains the same
(b) Increases
(c) Decreases
 (d) May increase or decrease depending on its Dehumidification is process of remaining mixture from
relative humidity the air at constant dry bulb temperature. there for,
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II dehumidification, of air will take place if the coil
Ans : (a) For the psychometric chart, we have seen that surface temperature is below the dew point
dew point temperature remains same. temperature of entering air.
413. Which of the following processes is generally
used in winter air conditioning?
(a) dehumidification
(b) humidification
(c) cooling and dehumidification
(d) heating and humidification
(KPSC AE. 2015)
Dew point temperature line is horizontal and parallel to Ans : (d) Heating and humidification process is
specific humidity line generally used in winter air Conditioning.
411. Humidity ratio can be given in terms of partial 414. As relative humidity decreases the dew point
pressures of dry air (Pa) and water vapour (Pv) will be--------wet bulb temperature
as (a) higher than (b) equal to
(c) lower than (d) none of the above
P  P 
(a) 0.622  a  (b) 0.622  v  (KPSC AE. 2015)
 Pv   Pa  Ans : (c) As relative humidity decreases the dew point
will be lower than wet bulb temperature.
 Pv 
(c) 0.622   (d) None of the above 415. When air is at saturated state, which pair, out
 Pv − Pa  of the given alternatives is not correctly
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II matched ?
List-I List-II
m (a) Relative humidity - 100%
Ans : (b) Humidity ratio = v
ma (b) DBT - WBT
PV = mRT (c) Degree of saturation - 1
For vapour PvV = mv RvT (d) Specific humidity - 0.01 kg w.v/kg d.a
P ⋅V UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
mv = v v Ans. (d) : Specific humidity - 0.01 kg w.v/kg d.a
R v Tv
416. The wet bulb depression is zero when relative
P ⋅V Vv = Va humidity equals
For air ma = a a (a) zero (b) 50%
R a Ta Tv = Ta
(c) 75% (d) 100%
We know that UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
m v Pv ⋅ R a
ω= = R a = 0.287 kJ/kgK Ans. (d) : 100%
m a R v ⋅ Pa
R v = 0.416 kJ/kgK 417. In case of air conditioning of auditoriums, the
0.622Pv cooling load which is predominant is
Humidity ratio = (a) lighting load
( Pt − Pv ) (b) occupancy load
Pt = Pv + Pa (c) load due to fans
(d) load due to electronic equipments
ma = mass of dry air
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Pv = Partial pressure of vapour
Pa= Partial Pressure of air Ans. (b) : occupancy load
Pt= Total pressure 418. The design condition of temperature for winter
air conditioning is
412. If the air is passed over the cooling coils then
(a) 25 ± 1 °C (b) 27 °C
this process is termed as (c) 21 °C (d) none of the above
(a) Sensible heating UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
(b) Cooling with humidification Ans. (c) : 21 °C
(c) Cooling with dehumidification
419. If moist air is passed over chemicals like silica
(d) None of the above
gel, the process which takes place is
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II (a) humidification
Ans : (c) If the air is passed over the cooling coils then (b) dehumidification
this process is termed as cooling with dehumidification. (c) cooling and dehumidification
(d) heating and dehumidification
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (d) : heating and dehumidification
420. The curved lines on a psychrometric chart
indicate
(a) relative humidity
218
 (b) specific humidity
(c) dry bulb temperature
(d) wet bulb temperature
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (a) : relative humidity
421. On a psychrometric chart what does a vertical
downward line represent ?
(a) Adiabatic saturation (b) Sensible cooling
(c) Dehumdification (d) Humidification
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (c) : Dehumdification
422. In summer air conditioning system fresh air is
introduced into the recirculated air to
(a) reduce load on equipment
(b) exercise easy control over equipment
(c) improve air quality by diluting odour and
contaminants
(d) reduce quantity of supply air
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (c) : improve air quality by diluting odour and
contaminants
423. Temperature recorded by a thermometer
which is not affected by moisture is
(a) dry bulb temperature
(b) wet bulb temperature
(c) dew point temperature
(d) adiabatic saturation temperature
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (a) : dry bulb temperature
424. In winter air conditioning, the inside design
conditions are given by the following:-
(a) 25°C DBT, 50% RH
(b) 25°C DBT, 60% RH
(c) 21°C DBT, 50% RH
(d) 21°C DBT, 60% RH
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (c) :
425. Effective temperature in respect of air
conditioning is the temperature of:-
(a) Unsaturated air (b) Saturated air
(c) Dry air (d) Either (b) or (c) above
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II We know that enthalpy of moist air
Ans. (b) : Effective temperature in respect of air
conditioning is the temperature of saturated air.
426. During adiabatic saturation process of air in
air washer, the water is sprinkled at a surface 432. Room sensible heat factor is defined as (RSH:
temperature equal to —— of incoming air:-
(a) DBT (b) WBT
(c) DPT (d) None of the above
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (b) :
427. When steam is injected into the incoming air, the Ans. (a) : Room sensible heat facor = RSH + RLH
following changes occur in the condition of air:- 433. The surrounding air temperature in summer is
(a) Temperature increases significantly but
specific humidity increases negligibly.
(b) Temperature increases negligibly but specific
humidity increases appreciably.
(c) Both temperature and sp. humidity increase
appreciably.
(d) Both temperature and sp. humidity increase
negligibly.
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II Ans. (b) :
219
Ans. (b) : When steam is injected into the incoming air
then temperature increase negligibly but specific
humidity increases appreciably of the air.
428. The enthalpy of moist air with normal notation
as is given by
(a) h = (1.005 + 1.88ω) t + 2500ω
(b) h = 1.88ωt + 2500ω
(c) h = 1.005ωt
(d) h = (1.88 + 1.005ω) t + 2500ω
ESE 2019
Ans. (a) : Enthalpy of moist air
h = ha + ωhv = 1.005 t + ω [2500 + 1.88t]
= [1.005 + 1.88ω]t + 2500 ω
429. In the concept of effective temperature, the
relative humidity of air is considered to be:-
(a) 0% (b) 50%
(c) 75% (d) 100%
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (d) :
430. For atmospheric air, following conditions are given:-
DBT = 35°C, DPT = 23°C and barometer reads
750 mm Hg. Saturation pressure at 23°C and
35°C is 21.06 mm Hg and 42.4 mm Hg
respectively. The relative humidity and partial
pressure of water vapour will be:-
(a) 49.7% and 21.06 mm Hg respectively
(b) 35.5% and 42.4 mm Hg respectively
(c) 35.5% and 15.06 mm Hg respectively
(d) Impossible to calculate
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (a) :
431. A sample of moist air is at a dry bulb
temperature of 21°C and dew point
temperature of 15°C. Specific humidity of air is
0.011 kg w.v./kg d.a. What will be the enthalpy
of moist air?
(a) 59.4 kJ/kg d.a. (b) 323.4 kJ/kg d.a.
(c) 52.5 kJ/kg d.a. (d) 49.0 kJ/kg d.a.
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (d) : Given as, tdbt = 21°C, tdpt = 15°C
ω = 0.011 kg w.v./kg d.a.
h = 1.005 t dbt + ω[ 2500 + 1.88 t dbt ]
h = 1.005 × 21 + 0.011 × [2500 + 1.88 × 21]
h = 49 kJ/kg d.a.
Room sensible heat, RLH: Room Latent heat):-
(a) RSH / (RSH+RLH) (b) RLH / (RSH+RLH)
(c) RSH / RLH (d) None of the above
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
RSH
45°C in a locality. The refrigeration
temperature is 5°C. Assume 10°C temperature
difference in the heat exchanger that exchanges
heat with surroundings. The COP of the Carnot
refrigerator under these conditions, will be:-
(a) 6.95 (b) 7.95
(c) 6.56 (d) 5.56
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
434. The necessary data required for the design of (a) Hot and humid air mixes with cold dry air
the air conditioning apparatus is/are:- (b) Cold and dry air mixes with hot and dry air
(a) Grand total heat (c) Hot and humid air mixes with hot and dry air
(b) Dehumidified air quantity (d) None of the above
(c) Apparatus dew point UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(d) All of the above Ans. (a) : Hot and humid air mixes with cold dry air
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II 443. The difference between dry bulb temperature
Ans. (d) : and wet bulb temperature is called
0.622Pv (a) Dry bulb depression
435. The expression is used to determine (b) Wet bulb depression
P - Pv (c) Dew point temperature
(a) relative humidity (b) specific humidity (d) Degree of saturation
(c) degree of saturation (d) partial pressure
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Ans. (b) : Wet bulb depression
Ans. (b) : Specific humidity
444. During sensible cooling of air the specific
436. The curved lines on Psychrometric chart humidity
indicate (a) increases
(a) Specific humidity (b) decreases
(b) Relative humidity (c) remains constant
(c) Dew point temperature (d) first increases then decreases
(d) Dry bulb temperature
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Ans. (c) : Remains constant
Ans. (b) : Relative humidity
445. The wet bulb temperature is a measure of
437. Relative humidity during sensible cooling
which humidity?
process (a) Relative (b) Absolute
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) Specific (d) None of above
(c) remains same (d) cannot be predicted
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Ans. (b) : Absolute
Ans. (a) : Increases
446. The dry bulb temperature during heating and
438. If Pv is partial pressure of water vapour in air dehumidification
and Ps is the saturation pressure of water (a) decreases (b) increases
vapour at the same temperature, the relative (c) remains constant (d) unpredictable
humidity is equal to UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
P P Ans. (b) : Increases
(a) 1 − v (b) 1 − s (c) Ps – Pv (d) Pv / Ps
Ps Pv 447. The specific humidity is the mass of water
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II vaopur present in (per)
Ans. (d) : Pv / Ps (a) kg of dry air (b) m3 of dry air
3
439. If the specific humidity of the moist air remains (c) m of wet air (d) kg of wet air
same but its dry bulb temperature increases UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(a) its dew point temperature increases Ans. (a) : Kg of dry air
(b) its dew point temperature decreases 448. The air temperature at which water vapour in
(c) its dew point temperature remains constant the air starts condensing is known as
(d) none of the above (a) Dew point (b) Dry bulb
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II (c) Wet bulb (d) Saturation temperature
Ans. (c) : Its dew point temperature remains constant UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
440. In a Psychrometric process the sensible heat Ans. (a) : Dew point
added is 30 kJ/sec and latent heat added is 20 449. In cooling and dehumidifying apparatus, the
kJ/sec. The sensible heat factor for the process effect of the by pass factor is to
will be (a) lower the ADP of the cooling coil
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.6 (c) 0.67 (d) 1.5 (b) decrease the COP of the system
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II (c) both (a) & (b) above
Ans. (b) : (d) increase the ADP of the cooling coil and to
SH 30 30 improve the COP of the system
SHF = = = = 0.6
SH + LH 30 + 20 50 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
441. A device is used to remove moisture from a Ans. (c) : both (a) & (b) above
refrigerant is called 450. Air conditioning is concerned with maintaining
(a) Dehumidifier (b) Solenoid the following:
(c) Expansion valve (d) Drier (a) Temperature (b) Humidity
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II (c) Cleanliness (d) All the above
Ans. (d) : Drier UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
442. Foggy condition in atmosphere results when Ans. (d) : All the above.
220
 05. HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER
Ans. (b) : Upto the critical radius of insulation adding
1. Steady and Unsteady Heat insulation to a wall increases heat loss.
Conduction Critical radius for cylinder

1. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is

(a) Inversely proportional to thermal conductivity
(b) Directly proportional to thermal conductivity
(c) Directly proportional to the square of thermal
conductivity
(d) Inversely proportional to the square of
thermal conductivity
TNPSC 2019
k
Ans. (b) : Thermal diffusivity- Thermal diffusivity is rc =
the thermal conductivity divided by density and specific h
heat capacity at constant pressure. Critical radius for sphere
It measure the rate of heat transfer of heat of a 2k
rc =
material from the hot end to the cold end. It has the SI h
derived unit of m2/s. 5. For a given heat flow and for the same
k thickness, the temperature drop across the
α= material will be maximum for
ρC p (a) copper (b) steel
α∝k (c) glass-wool (d) refractory brick
2. Transient heat conduction means _____ . TNPSC AE 2018
(a) Very little heat transfer Gujarat PSC AE 2019
(b) Heat transfer for a short time UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
(c) Heat transfer with a small temperature Ans. (c) : We know that
difference dT 1
∝
(d) conduction when temperature varies with dx k
time dT
k ↑→ ↓
TSPSC AEE 2015 dx
Ans. (d) : When temperature varies with time in So, form the given material glass-wool [0.075
conduction is called transient heat conduction. In W/mK] have low (value of) thermal conductivity (K).
general, temperature of a body varies with time as well W
Copper − 385
as position. mK
3. The radius of a bare cable carrying electric W
Steel − 17 − 55
current before providing insulation should be mK
_____ . W
(a) Equal to rc (b) Less than rc Refractory brick −0.9
mK
(c) Greater then rc (d) Twice of rc 6. Which of the following is a case of steady state
TSPSC AEE 2015 heat transfer?
Ans. (b) : The radius of a bare cable carrying electric (a) I.C. engine
current before providing insulation should be less (b) Air preheaters
than rc. (c) Heating of building in winter
(d) None of these
4. Upto the critical radius of insulation OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(a) Adding insulation to a wall decreases heat Ans : (d) : I.C. engine, air preheaters and heating of
loss building in winter are the example of transient heat
(b) Adding insulation to a wall increases heat loss conduction. whereas in the case of steady state heat
(c) Heat flux of the wall decreases transfer not a function of time it means temperatures
(d) Convection heat loss is less than conduction will remain constant.
heat loss in the wall 7. The concept of overall coefficient of heat
TNPSC 2019 transfer is used in heat transfer problems of:
(KPSC AE. 2015) (a) Fin conduction
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 (b) Convection
221
 (c) Radiation (c) k ∂ T/ ∂ x = h [Tw– T∞ ] at w = 0
(d) Conduction and convection (d) k ∂ T/ ∂ x = σ [T14–T24] at w = 0
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II APPSC AEE 2016
Ans : (d) : The concept of overall coefficient of heat Ans. (c) : The Newmann boundary condition on heat
transfer is used in heat transfer problems of conduction transfer surface means,
and convection. k ∂ T/ ∂ x = h [Tw– T∞ ] at w = 0
8. Two insulating materials of thermal
11. Thermal conductivity through walls of cylinder
conductivity K and 3K are available for lagging of inner and outer radii r1 and r2, respectively
a pipe carrying a hot fluid. If the radial is inversely proportional to
thickness of each material is same, 1
(a) Material with higher thermal conductivity (a) (r1 − r2 ) (b)
r2 − r1
should be used for the inner layer and one
with lower thermal conductivity for the outer r  1
(b) Material with lower thermal conductivity (c) ℓn  2  (d)
 r1   r2 
should be used for the inner layer and one ℓn  
with lower thermal conductivity for the outer  r1 
(c) It is immaterial in which sequence insulating BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
materials are used Ans : (c) : Thermal conductivity is a material property
(d) It is not possible to judge unless numerical and it does not depends on the dimension.
value of dimensions are given dT
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 Q = − kA
dx
Ans : (b) : Two insulating materials of thermal dT
conductivity K and 3K are available for lagging a pipe Q = − k2π rℓ
dr
carrying a hot fluid here the critical radius for insulation 2 dr T2
must be
k
∫1 Q r = ∫T1 −2π kℓdT
(i) For first material ( rc ) 1 =
h
3k
(ii) For second material ( rc ) =
2 h
It is apparent that ( rc ) = 3 ( rc )
2 1
r 
Hence, the first material is to be used inside and second Qℓn  2  = −2πkℓ(∆T)
material is to be used for outside as it has bigger critical  r1 
radius. Hence, the correct option is B. −2πkℓ(∆T)
Q=
∂ 2t ∂ 2t ∂ 2t r 
9. The heat transfer equation + + =0 ℓn  2 
∂x 2 ∂y 2 ∂z 2  r1 
is known as 12. The insulating ability of an insulator with the
(a) General heat transfer equation pressure of moisture would
(b) Poisson's equation (a) increase (b) decrease
(c) Fourier's equation (c) remain unaffected (d) none of the above
(d) Laplace's equation BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II Ans : (b) : The insulating ability of an insulator with
Ans. (d) : From Fourier-Biat equation, the pressure of moisture would decrease.
∂ 2 T ∂ 2 T ∂ 2 T q g 1  ∂T  13. The ratio of heat flow Q1/Q2 from two walls of
+ + + =   same thickness having their thermal
∂x 2 ∂y 2 ∂z 2 k α  ∂τ  conductivities as k1 = 2k2 will be
 1 ∂T  (a) 1 (b) 0.5
In case of steady state  = 0  and no heat (c) 2 (d) 0.25
 α ∂τ 
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
 qg  TNPSC AE 2013
generation  = 0  , this equation is called Laplace's
 k  SJVN ET 2013
equation. dT
Ans : (c) : Q = − kA
∂ 2T ∂ 2T ∂ 2T dx
ie. + + = 0 ⇒ Lalplace's equation
∂x 2 ∂y 2 ∂z 2 dT
Q1 = − k 1A
10. The Newmann boundary condition on heat dx
transfer surface means, dT
Q 2 = − k 2A
(a) q/A = –k ∂ T/ ∂ x at w = 0 dx
(b) k ∂ T/ ∂ x = 0 at w = 0 k1 = 2k2
222
 dT (c) convection (d) radiation
− 2k 2 A JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
Q1 dx = 2
= Ans. (b) : Conduction
Q2 dT
− k 2A 18. Thermal conductivity of copper with rise in
dx temperature
Q1 (a) Decrease (b) Increase
=2 (c) Remains constant (d) None of these
Q2
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
14. A steam pipe is to be insulated by two Ans. (a) : Copper has a fairly high conductivity at room
insulating materials put over each other. For temperature. This is because of the large number of
best results valence electrons which are free to move in the lattice.
(a) better insulation should be put over pipe and Thus the electrical conductivity will decreases with
better one over it increases in temperature.
(b) inferior insulation should be put over pipe and 19. What is the equivalent thermal conductivity of
better one over it a composite wall made up of two layers of
(c) both may be put in any order different materials of thermal conductivities k1
(d) Whether to put inferior one over pipe or the
better one would depend on steam temperature and k2 and having thicknesses of δ1 and δ2
respectively?
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
Ans : (a) : 2(k1 + k 2 ) (k1 + k 2 ) δ1δ 2
(a) (b) ×
δ1 + δ 2 k1 k 2 δ1 + δ 2
k1k 2 (δ1 + δ 2 ) k  k 
(c) (d)  1  +  2 
k1δ 2 + k 2δ1  δ1   δ 2 
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
Ans. (c) :

k1 < k2 [k1 better insulator]

dT
Q = kA
dx
This means that the material having better insulating ⇒ Req = R1 + R2
material should be inside to minimize the heat flow (δ1 + δ 2 ) δ δ
hence if better insulating material is placed inside it will ⇒ = 1 + 2
reduce the heat transfer. k eq A k1A k 2 A
15. A body cooling from 80°C to 70°C takes 10 δ +δ δ δ
minutes when left exposed to environmental ⇒ 1 2 = 1+ 2
K eq k1 k 2
conditions. If the body is to cool further from
70°C to 60°C under the same external δ +δ δ k + k1δ 2
⇒ 1 2 = 1 2
conditions, it will take k eq k1k 2
(a) more than 10 minutes
(b) same time of 10 minutes k1k 2 (δ1 + δ 2 )
k eq =
(c) less than 10 minutes k1δ 2 + k 2 δ1
(d) none of these 20. In steady state conduction with thermal
(KPSC AE 2015) conductivity given by k = k0 (1 + βT) where β, is
Ans : (a) According to Newton's law of cooling:- positive, a slab of given thickness and given
Rate of heat loss ∝ Temperature difference temperature drop will conduct
16. In a long cylindrical rod of radius R and a (a) more heat at lower temperature levels
surface heat flux of q0 . the uniform internal (b) more heat at higher temperature levels
heat generation rate is : (c) same heat as flow depends on the temperature
2q 0 drop
(a) (b) 2q0 (d) same heat as flow depends on the thickness
R only
q0 2q 0 RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
(c) (d)
R R2 Ans. (b) : k = k0 ( 1 + βt)
UJVNL AE 2016
Ans : (a) In a long cylindrical rod of radius R and a β
surface heat flux of qo the uniform internal heat β
2q 0
generation rate is
R β
17. Transmission of heat by molecular collision is
(a) scattering (b) conduction More heat at higher temperature levels.
223
21. The plastic sleeve of outer radius r0 = 1 mm  dT 
covers a wire (radius = 0.5 mm) carrying Heat transfer through wall A (QA) =k A . A. 
electric current. Thermal conductivity of the  dx  A
plastic is 0.15 W/mK. The heat transfer d
coefficient on the outer surface of the sleeve = 2k B . A.  = 2 kB . A
d
exposed to air is 25 W/m2K. Due to the addition
of the plastic cover, the heat transfer from the Heat transfer through wall B (Q ) =k . A.  dT 
wire to the ambient will.
B B  
 dx  B
(a) increase (b) remain the same
(c) decrease (d) be zero  2d 
= k B . A.   = kB . A
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016  2d 
Ans : (a) Q A 2k B .A
Outer radius of Plastic sleeve (r0) = 1 mm = =2
Electric current carrying wire radius QB k B .A
(r) = 0.5 mm 24. Thermal conductivity of air with rise in
Thermal conductivity of plastic temperature
(k) = 0.15 mm (a) Increases
Convective heat transfer coefficient (b) decreases
2
(h) = 25 W/m K (c) remains constant
According to question it is said that the wire is
(d) May increases or decrease depending on
insulated by a plastic sleeve which shown in figure
below. temperature
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
SJVN ET 2013
2
W/m K

Ans. (a) : As the temperature of air increases the

molecular diffusion also get increases and in case of air,
thermal conductivity is directly proportional to the
k 0.15 −3 lattice vibration and molecular diffusion and hence as
critical radius rC = = = 6 × 10 m
h 25 the temperature increases the thermal conductivity of air
rC = 6 mm increases
Here, we can see that the critical radius is 25. Heat flows one body to other when they have
greater than the radius of coating (rc > r0) therefore (a) Different heat contents
addition of plastic sleeve will increase The heat transfer. (b) Different specific heat
22. Scale is formed on heat transfer surfaces when- (c) Different atomic structure
(a) water is acidic (d) Different temperature
(b) water is alkaline Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
(c) water contains dissolved gases
Ans. (d) : Heat flows from one body to other when they
(d) water contains dissolved calcium and
magnesium salts have different temperature.
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016 26. What is the critical radius of insulation for a
Ans : (d) Water contains dissolved calcium and sphere equal to?
magnesium salts. k = thermal conductivity in W/m-K
23. Two walls of thickness 'd' and '2d' called A and h = heat transfer coefficient in W/m2K
B are made of materials such that their (a) 2kh (b) 2k/h
thermal conductivities are KA = 2KB. If the (c) k/h (d) √2kh
difference of temperature on two sides is CGPSC AE 2014 -II
proportional to thickness the ratio of heat UKPSC AE 2007, 2012 Paper -II
transfer through A to that through B is– TNPSC AE 2018
(a) 6 (b) 4 UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
(c) 2 (d) 1
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016 Ans. (b) : Critical Radius of insulation
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II 2k
For sphere (rc)s =
Ans : (c) Given, kA = 2kB, (dx)A = d, (dx)B = 2d, h
(dT)A = d, (dT)B = 2d k
For cylinder (rc)c =
h
27. Which of the following material has highest
thermal conductivity at room temperature
(a) Gold (b) Diamond
(c) Iron (d) Aluminium
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
224
Ans. (b) : Ans. (a) : (dT)1 = (T1 - T2)
Metal Thermal conductivity (dT)2 (T2 - T3)
Assumption
W 
 mK  Q ≠ f (Time)
  Q dT1 dT2
Gold 310 = =
Diamond 2300 A  L   L
 3k   2k 
Iron 80.2
Aluminium 200
Silver 410
Copper 385
28. Consider following fatcs about Thermal
diffusivity
1. Its unit is m2/s
2. It is the relation of k, p and Cp
3. depend upon temperature
Of these, which are correct
(a) 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 ( dT )1 2
=
(e) 1, 2 and 3 ( dT ) 2 3
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
SJVN ET 2019 31. The rate of heat flow through a hallow sphere
CGPSC AE 2014- II of inner radius 0.25 m and outer radius 0.35m,
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 whose thermal conductivity is 5 W/mK,
Ans. (e) : Thermal diffusivity– Thermal diffusivity is maintained at temperatures of 400°C and
the thermal conductivity divided by density and specific 300°C respectively equal to
heat capacity at constant pressure. (a) 2425 W (b) 5495 W
It measure the rate of transfer of heat of a (c) 2747.5 W (d) 4850 W
material from the hot end to the cold end. Unit of APPSC AEE 2016
thermal diffusivity is m2/s. Ans. (b) : Data given as,
1. Unit of thermal diffusivity is m2/s ri = 0.25m, r0 = 0.35m k = 5 w/mk,
2. It is the relation of K , ρ , and CP Ti = 400°C T0 = 300°C
K We know that
α= The rate of heat flow through hollow sphere,
ρC P 4πri r" k(Ti − T" )
3. It depend upon temperature. Q=
r" − ri
29. If r1 and r2 are respectively inner and outer
diameter of a pipe and k is the constant, R- 22
4 × × 0.25 × 0.35 × 5 × [400 − 300]
value for pipe insulation is determined from Q= 7
r r 0.35 − 0.25
(a) R − value = 1 ln 2 Q = 5500W ≈ 5495 W
k r1
r r 32.
The maximum temperature raised in the solid
(b) R − value = 1 ln 1 sphere with internal heat generation is given by
k r2
(a) Tw + QgR2/6K (b) Tw – QgR2/6K
r r (c) Tw + Qg/6K (d) Tw – Qg/6K
(c) R − value = 2 ln 1
k r2 APPSC AEE 2016
r2 r2 Ans. (a) : The maximum temperature raised in the solid
(d) R − value = ln sphere with internal heat generation is given by
k r1
Tw + QgR2/6K.
TNPSC 2019
33. It is desired to increase the heat dissipation rate
Ans. (d) : R-value for pipe insulation is given as from the surface of an electronic device of
r r  spherical shape of 5 mm radius exposed to
R − value = 2 ln  2  convection with h = 10 W/m2 K, by encasing it
k  r1 
in a spherical sheath of conductivity 0.04 W/m
30. A composite wall of a furnace has 2 layers of K. For maximum heat flow, the diameter of
equal thickness having thermal conductivities sheath should be
in the ratio of 3 : 2. What is the ratio of the (a) 18 mm (b) 12 mm
temperature drop across the two layers? (c) 8 mm (d) 16 mm
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 2 APPSC AEE 2016
(c) 1 : 2 (d) log e2 : log e3 MPPSC AE 2016
TNPSC 2019 RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
225
Ans. (d) : We know that, critical radius for spherical Ans. (a) : Refractory wall thickness, x = 150 mm =
shape, 0.15m
2k 2 × 0.04 Thermal conductivity, k = 0.05 W/mK
rc = = Temperature difference, ∆T = T1 - T2 = 150oC
h 10
rc = 0.008 m According to Fourier's law of heat conduction
for maximum heat flow, the diameter of spherical  T − T1 
= − kA  2 
sheath should be  x 
dc = 2×rc = 2×0.008×1000 mm Q ( T − T1 )
dc = 16 mm Heat loss per unit area, q = = −k 2
34. For a current wire of 20 mm diameter exposed A x
to air (h = 20 W/m2K), maximum heat 150 2
= 0.05 × = 50W / m
dissipation occurs when thickness of insulation 0.15
(k = 0.5 W/mK) is, 37. The temperature distribution at a certain
(a) 20 mm (b) 25 mm instant of time in a slab during a process sis
(c) 28 mm (d) 10 mm given by T = 2x2 + x + 5, where x is in cm and T
TNPSC AE 2017 is in K. If the thermal diffusivity is 0.0002
Ans. (d) : Data given, cm2/s, the rate of change of temperature with
D = 20 mm time is given by:
h = 20 W/m2K (a) 0.0008 K/s (b) 0.0004 K/s
k = 0.5 W/mK (c) -0.0004 K/s (d) -0.0008 K/s
0.5 CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
rc = × 1000 = 25mm Ans. (a) : T = 2x2 + x + 5
20 General equation without generation (q = 0)
and in x-direction only,
1 ∂T ∂ 2 T
=
α ∂t ∂x 2
∂T
= 4 × α = 4 × 0.0002 = 0.0008 K / s
∂t
38. A copper pipe carrying refrigerant at ToC is
covered by cylindrical insulation of thermal
conductivity k W/mK. The heat transfer co-
35. A pipe carrying hot gasses is insulated with a efficient over the insulation surface is h
material having a thermal conductivity of 0.15 W/m2K. The critical thickness of insulation
W/mK. The average local heat transfer would be.
coefficient by convection to the ambient air is 3 (a) k/h (b) 2 k/h
W/m2K. The critical diameter of the pipe under (c) 2h /k (d) h/k
these conditions is CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
(a) 100 mm (b) 130 mm UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
(c) 160 mm (d) 200 mm SJVN ET 2019
JWM 2017 TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (a) : Thermal conductivity k = 0.15 W/mK Ans. (a) : For sufficient thin wires, putting the
Heat transfer coefficient, h = 3W/m2K insulation around the wire may result in increase of heat
k 0.15 transfer rate from the wire as compare to the case where
Critical radius, re = = = 0.05 m there is no insulation.
h 3
rc = 50 mm For cylindrical wire, critical radius of insulation
is given as
Critical diameter, d = 2 × rc = 2 × 50 = 100 mm
Note : Critical radius is the radius for which the heat k
rc =
transfer rate is maximum. h
For spherical wire
36. In a furnace the thickness of the refractory wall
lining is 150 mm and the average thermal 2k
rc =
conductivity of the refractory material is 0.05 h
W/mK. If the temperature difference between 39. For steady 1-D conduction, with no heat
the inner and outer sides of the furnace is generation temperature distribution in the
150°C, the heat loss per unit area to the cylinder along the radius is : [T = temperature,
surroundings will be: r = radius, i = inside, o = outside]
(a) 50 W/m2 (b) 70 W/m2 T ( r ) − Ti ln r
(c) 90 W/m2 (d) 120 W/m2 (a) =
JWM 2017 To − Ti ln ri
226
 T ( r ) − Ti ln r (b) Rate of heat transfer is maximum at critical
(b) = radius of insulation.
To − Ti ln ro (c) Rate of heat transfer is zero at critical radius
T − Ti ln ( r / ro ) of insulation.
(c) = (d) Resistance to heat flow is maximum at critical
To − Ti ln ( r / ri ) radius of insulation.
T ( r ) − Ti ln ( r / ri ) 4 × thermal conductiviy
(d) = (d) ( rc ) cylindrical pipe =
To − Ti ln ( ro / ri ) of insulating material
heat transfer coefficient between
T ( r ) − Ti r insulation surface and air
(e) =
To − Ti ri CGPSC AE 2014- II
CGPSC AE 2014- II Ans. (b) : Rate of heat transfer is maximum at critical
Ans. (d) : For steady, 1-D conduction, with no heat radius of insulation.
generation temperature distribution in the cylinder along k 2k
rc = [ for cylinder ] rc = [ for sphere]
the radius is given as h h
T ( r ) − Ti ln ( r / ri ) 42. For a current wire of 25 mm diameter exposed
= to air (h = 15 W/m2 K), maximum heat
To − Ti ln ( ro / ri )
dissipation occurs when thickness of insulation
40. A glass window 3m high, 5 m wide, 0.3 m thick (k = 0.6 W/m K) is
of thermal conductivity k = 0.9 W/mK, having (a) 20 mm (b) 25 mm
inner and outer surface temperature at 160C (c) 30 mm (d) 40 mm
and 20C respectively. The rate of heat loss and (e) 50 mm
thermal resistance of the glass will be CGPSC AE 2014 -II
respectively given by: Ans. (d) : Maximum heat dissipation occurs upto
(a) 63W, 0.022 K/W (b) 630 W, 0.22 K/W critical Radius (Rc)
(c) 630 W, 0.022 K/W (d) 63 W, 0.22 K/W k 0.6
(e) 6.3 W, 2.2 K/W rc = = × 1000 [for cylinder]
CGPSC AE 2014- II h 15
Ans. (c) : Data given- rc = 40mm
t = 0.3 m 43. Heat flows through a composite wall, as shown
ℓ =3m in Figure. The depth of the slab is 1m. The
values of k are in SI unit. The overall thermal
w =5m
resistance
Ti = 16oC
in K/W is
To = 2oC

(a) 17.2 (b) 28.6

(c) 39.4 (d) 41.3
(e) 43.5
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
We know that, 0.5
Ans. (b) : Rth1 =
∆T 0.02 × 1
Q = k.A. ( A = 3× 5 m 2 ) Rth1 = 25 K/W
t
= 0.9 × 3 × 5 ×
[16 − 2] Rth2 =
0.25
= 5 K/W
0.3 0.10 × 0.5 × 1
0.25
Q = 630W Rth3 = = 12.5 K/W
0.04 × 0.5 × 1
Thermal resistance
t 0.3
Rth = = = 0.022 K / W
kA 0.9 × 3 × 5
41. Which of the following is correct radius of
insulation (Tc)?
(a) The rate of heat transfer is minimum at
critical radius of insulation.
227
Equivalent thermal resistance between R2 and R3 is Ans. (a) : We know that transfer through hollow
1 1 1 1 1 cylinder
= + = + = 0.28
R th R th 2 R th 3 12.5 5 2π kL(T1 − T2 )
Q=
Rth = 3.57142 r 
ln  2 
Then total thermal resistance will be
 r1 
RthTotal = Rth1 + Rth2 = 25 + 3.357142
 r2 
= 28.57142 K/W If   ↑→ Q ↓
44. Consider the following data:  r1 
Inside heat transfer coefficient = 25W/m2K
Outside heat transfer coefficient = 25W/m2K
Thermal conductivity of bricks (15cm thick) =
0.15 W/mK
The overall heat transfer coefficient (in
W/m2K) will be closer to
(a) Inverse of heat transfer coefficient
(b) heat transfer coefficient
(c) Thermal conductivity of bricks
(d) heat transfer coefficient based on the thermal
conductivity of the bricks alone 48. The temperature variation under steady heat
(e) square root of heat transfer coefficient conduction across a composite slab of two
CGPSC AE 2014 -II materials of conductivities k1 and k2 is shown in
Ans. (a) : the figure. Then which one of the following
45. Consider following units statements holds?
1. J/m2s
2. J/mKs 3. W/mK
4. W/m2K 5. Kcal/hr.m.0C
Of the above, which represent Thermal
Conductivity in S.I. unit
(a) 1 and 5 (b) 2 and 5
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
(e) 3 and 4
CGPSC AE 2014 -II (a) k1 > k2 (b) k1 = k2
Ans. (d) : We know that, (c) k1 = 0 (d) k1 < k2
unit of thermal conductivity in S.I. unit RPSC AE 2018
W J/s J Ans. (d) : We know that
= = = dT
m.K m.K m.K.s Q = − KA
46. A wall has two layers of materials A and B; dx
each made of a different material. Both the
layers have the same thickness. The thermal
conductivity of material A is twice that of B.
Under the equilibrium, the temperature
difference across the wall is 360C. The
temperature difference across the layer B is 1
(a) 60C (b) 120C K∝
0
 dT 
(c) 14 C (d) 180C  
0  dx 
(e) 24 C materials 1 has more temperature gradient than material 2.
CGPSC AE 2014 -II So,
Ans. (b) : 120C K2 > K1
47. The radial heat transfer rate through hollow 49. A composite wall has two layers of different
cylinder increases as the ratio of outer radius to materials having thermal conductivities of k1
inner radius- and k2. If each layer has the same thickness, the
(a) decreases (b) increases equivalent thermal conductivity of the wall is
(c) constant (d) decreases as well as increases ....................
RPSC AE 2018 (k1 + k2 )
(a) k1k2 (b)
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II k1 k2
228
 (2k1 k2 ) Ans. (a) : Thermal resistance for hollow cylinder is
(c) (d) k1k2 given as
k1 + k2
(r − r )
RPSC AE 2018 Rth = o i
UJVNL AE 2016 kAm
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016 52. Three dimensional steady state heat conduction
Ans. (c) : We assume that cross-sectional area is A then equation with internal heat generation and
constant thermal conductivity is known as
(a) Laplace equation (b) Poisson equation
(c) Fourier equation (d) Diffusion equation
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
Ans. (b) : General heat conduction equation in cartesian
coordinates—
∂ 2 t ∂ 2 t ∂ 2 t qgen ρ C ∂t 1 ∂t
+ + + = . =
∂x 2 ∂y 2 ∂z 2 k k ∂τ α ∂τ
...(1)
1. For the case when no internal source of heat is
Thermal resistance: present
(T1 − T2 ) (T1 − T2 ) qgen = 0
Rth = =
 L L  2 L
∂ 2 t ∂ 2 t ∂ 2 t 1 ∂t
k A + k A k × A + + = × ...(2)
 1 2  eq
∂x 2 ∂y 2 ∂z 2 α ∂τ
2 1 1 (k + k ) (called Fourier's equation)
= + = 1 2 2. In steady state
keq k1 k2 k1k2
∂t
2k k =0
keq = 1 2 ∂τ
k1 + k2
∂ 2 t ∂ 2 t ∂ 2 t qgen
50. The critical radius is a insulation radius at + + + =0
which the resistance to heat flow is .................... ∂x 2 ∂y 2 ∂z 2 k
(a) Minimum (b) Zero ...(3)
(c) Maximum (d) Double (called Poisson Equation)
RPSC AE 2018 3. If no internal heat source and in steady state then
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II ∂ 2 t ∂ 2t ∂ 2t
+ + =0 ...(4)
Ans. (a) : The critical radius is the insulation radius at ∂x 2 ∂y 2 ∂z 2
which the resistance to heat flow is minimum and heat (called Laplace equation)
flow is maximum. 53. A pipe of 25 mm outer diameter carries steam.
The heat transfer coefficient between the
cylinder and surroundings is 5 W/m2K. It is
proposed to reduce the heat loss from the pipe
by adding insulation having a thermal
conductivity of 0.05 W/mK. Which one of the
following statements is TRUE?
(a)The outer radius of the pipe is equal to the
critical radius
k (b)The outer radius of the pipe is less than the
rc = (For cylinder)
h critical radius
2k (c)Adding the insulation will reduce the heat loss
rc = (For spherical) (d)None of the above
h UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
Ans. (c) : given as,
51. Thermal resistance for hollow cylinder is given D = 25 mm ⇒ R = 12.5 mm
as (where Am = logarithmic mean area of h = 5 W/m2K
cylinder. ro, ri, L = Outer radius, inner radius k = 0.05 W/mK
and length of cylinder respectively and k = We know that
Thermal conductivity): Critical radius for cylinder,
ro − ri ro − ri k 0.05 × 1000
(a) (b) rc = =
kAm 4π k ( ro × ri ) h 5
rc = 10 mm
L ro − ri if
(c) (d)
kA k rc < R
UPRVUNL AE 2016 So adding the insulation will reduce the heat loss.
229
54. Among the following, the best insulator is k
(a) Air (b) Water Ans. (c) : Thermal diffusivity ( α ) =
(c) Ash (d) Aluminium ρc
JPSC AE PRE 2019 ( k ) solid > ( k ) liq > ( k ) gas
Ans. (a) : Air α solid > α liq > α gas
55. During steady state heat transport in a thin
plate with uniform temperature, the nature of Thermal diffusivity for solids are generally
temperature distribution is more than those for liquid and gases.
(a) Parabolic (b) Logarithmic 59. Various modes of heat transfer are:
(c) Linear (d) Exponential (a) Conduction (b) Radiation
JPSC AE PRE 2019 (c) Convection (d) All of these
Ans. (c) : Linear SJVN ET 2013
56. A long conduit of 4 cm outer diameter is Ans. (d) : Various modes of heat transfer are
carrying steam. Currently it is insulated with • Conduction
20 mm thick insulation. Additional insulation • Convection
required to reduce the heat loss by two-third is • Radiation
(a) 90 mm (b) 110 mm 60. Heat is lost steadily through a 0.5 cm thick 2m
(c) 120 mm (d) 140 mm × 3m window glass whose thermal conductivity
JPSC AE PRE 2019 is 0.7 W/moc. The inner and outer surface
Ans. (c) : temperature of the glass are measured to be
4 cm 4 cm
12oC to 9oC. The rate of heat loss by conduction
through the glass is :
(a) 420 W (b) 5040 W
(c) 1256 W (d) 2520 W
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
cm cm
cm Ans. (d) : Data given as,
4 cm t = 0.5 cm = 0.5 × 10–2 m
A = 2 × 3 m2
Given that, T1 = 12°C, T2 = 9°C
 
 
1 ∵ Q = 2 πk l ( ∆ T) 
Q2 = Q1
3   ro  
 ln   
  ri  
1 1 1
=
 r  3 ℓn(r2 / r1 )
ℓn  3 
 r1 
3
r3  r2 
=  Heat loss through the glass
r1  r1 
dT
4
3 Q = kA
⇒ r3 =   × 2 dt
2 0.7 × 2 × 3 × (12 − 9 )
r3 = 16 cm = = 2520 W
0.5 × 10−2
Extra insulation = r3 – r2
= 16 – 4 = 12 cm = 120 mm 61. Which of the following has the lowest thermal
conductivity
57. In heat transfer, conductance equals (a) Air (b) Water
conductivity (Kcal/hr/m2/oC/cm) divided by (c) Brick (d) Copper
(a) hr (Time) (b) m2 (Area) Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
o
(c) C (Temp) (d) cm (Thickness)
SJVN ET 2013 Ans. (a) : Air has the lowest thermal conductivity
among the all which given in the question.
Ans. (d) : cm (Thickness) Air – 0.024 (W/mK)
58. The thermal diffusivities for solids are (at 0ºC)
generally. Brick – 0.15 (W/mK)
(a) Less than those for gases Water – 0.6 (W/mK)
(b) Less than those for liquids (at 20ºC)
(c) More then those for liquid and gases Brass – 109 (W/mK)
(d) Same as for gases 62. Heat conduction takes place according to
SJVN ET 2013 (a) Fourier's law
230
 (b) Newton's law cooling 67. The ratio of thermal diffusivity to mass
(c) Fick's law diffusivity is known as
(d) All of the above (a) Schmidt number (b) Sherwood number
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 (c) Lewis number (d) Stanton number
Ans. (a) : Heat conduction take place according to the Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Fourier's law, heat transfer. Ans. (c) : The ratio of thermal diffusivity to mass
diffusivity is known as lewis number (Le). It is used to
 dT 
q x = − kA   k = Thermal conductivity characterize fluid flow's where there is simultaneous
 dx  heat and mass transfer. It is a dimension less number.
A = Area of cross section 68. The overall heat transfer coefficient for a heat
dT exchanger is the
=Temperature gradient
dx (a) Sum of all conductance
63. With increase in temperature, the thermal (b) Sum of all resistances
conductivity of gases (c) Sum of all convective coefficients
(a) decreases (d) Sum of thermal conductivities of all surfaces
(b) increases Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
(c) remains constant CGPSC AE 2014 -II
(d) first decreases then remain constant Ans. (b) : Overall heat transfer coefficient for a heat
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 exchanger is the Sum of all resistances.
Ans. (b) : With increase in temperature, the thermal 1 1 b
conductivity increases because, the free electrons and = + 1
U 0 h1 k1
lattice vibrations increase. Thus, the thermal conductivity
in Solid metal. ∂ 2T ∂ 2T ∂ 2 T
While, in gases, with increases in temperature, the 69. + + = 0 is an equation for :
molecular collisions increase, which result increase in ∂x 2 ∂y 2 ∂z 2
thermal conductivity. [where, T = temperature]
64. For a given volume and specified heat input (a) 3-D transient heat conduction equation with
which will have the smallest temperature rise no heat generation with constant thermal
(a) copper (b) mild steel conductivity in Cartesian
(c) water (d) None of these (b) 3-D steady state heat conduction equation
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 with heat generation and with constant
Ans. (b) : For a given volume and specified heat input, thermal conductivity in Cartesian
mild steel have the smallest temperature rise. (c) 3-D steady state, heat conduction equation
with no heat generation and with temperature
65. The ratio of heat flows from two walls of dependent thermal conductivity in Cartesian
thickness ratio 1:2 and thermal conductivity coordinates
ratio 3:1 for the same temperature difference (d) 3-D steady state heat conduction equation
on the two sides is with no heat generation and with constant
(a) 5:1 (b) 3:2
thermal conductivity in Cartesian coordinates
(c) 2:3 (d) 6:1
SJVN ET 2019
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (d) : 3-D steady state heat conduction equation
Ans. (d) : Two walls, of thickness δ1 = 1, δ2 = 2 with no heat generation and with constant thermal
thermal conductivity conductivity in Cartesian coordinates
k1 = 3, k2 = 1
Q1 = Q2 70. A wire of 8 mm diameter at a temperature of
60°C is to be insulated by a material having k =
-k1A∆T1 -k 2 A∆T2 0.174 W/mK. The heat transfer coefficient on
=
δ1 δ2 the outside ha = 8W/m2K and ambient
3.A.∆T1 1.A.∆T2 temperature Ta = 25°C. The maximum
= thickness of insulation for maximum heat loss
1 2
6:1 will be
(a) 15.25 mm (b) 16.50 mm
66. Thermal conductivity of a substance is (c) 17.75 mm (d) 18.25 mm
(a) Temperature dependent ESE 2019
(b) Independent of temperature
Ans. (c) : Given,
(c) A strong function of the pressure
d = 8 mm, r = 4 mm
(d) Independent of pressure
kins = 0.174 W/m⋅k
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
h0 = 8 W/m2k
Ans. (a) : Thermal conductivity of a substance is
k
temperature dependent, as the temperature increases, the Critical radius of insulation (rc) = ins
molecular vibrations increase. h0

231
 0.174 180kJ/hr/m2. The temperature difference
= = 0.02175 m across the lining will be
8
= 21.75 mm (a) 280ºC (b) 250ºC
Maximum thickness = rc − r (c) 240ºC (d) 220ºC
ESE 2018
= 21.75 − 4 = 17.75 mm
Ans. (b) : Given,
71. A cold storage has 23 cm brick wall on the
outside and 8 cm plastic foam on the inside.
The inside and outside temperatures are – 2°C
and 22°C, respectively. If the thermal
conductivities of brick and foam are 0.98 W/
m-K and 0.02 W/m-K, and the inside and
outside heat transfer coefficients are 29 W/ m2-
K and 12 W/m2-K, respectively, then the rate of ℓ = 0.2 m
heat removal for a (projected) wall area of 90 k = 0.04 W/mk
m2 will nearly be q = 180 kJ/hr/m2
(a) 503 W (b) 497 W 180 ×1000
(c) 490 W (d) 481 W = J/s/m2 = 50 W/m2
3600
ESE 2018 k ∆T
Ans. (b) : Heat flux (q) =
ℓ
0.04 × ∆T
50 =
0.2
∆T = 250°C
74. A wall surface of 200 mm thickness has an
outside temperature of 50°C and inside
temperature of 25°C with thermal conductivity
of 0.51 W/m-K. The heat transfer through this
wall will be
(a) 63.75 W/m2 (b) 65.75 W/m2
2
(c) 70.25 W/m (d) 73.25 W/m2
thermal circuit ESE 2018
Ans. (a) : ℓ = 200 mm k = 0.51 W/mK
T1 = 50°C
T2 = 25°C
∆T
Heat transfer rate =
ΣR th
22 − (−2)
=
1 0.08 0.23 1
+ + +
29 × 90 0.02 × 90 0.98 × 90 12 × 90
= 496.26 W ≃ 497 W
Heat transfer through this wall i.e. heat flux is given by
72. It is desired to increase the heat dissipation rate
from the surface of an electronic device of q = k  T1 − T2  = 0.51 50 − 25  = 63.75 W/m2
spherical shape of 5 mm radius exposed to  ℓ   0.2 
convection with h = 10 W/m2-K by encasing it 75. A wall of 0.6m thickness has normal area of
in a spherical sheath of conductivity 0.04 1.5m2 and is made up of material of thermal
W/m2-K. For maximum heat flow, the critical conductivity 0.4W/m K. If the temperatures on
diameter of the sheath shall be the two sides of the wall are 800°C and 1000°C,
(a) 20 mm (b) 18 mm the thermal resistance of the wall is
(c) 16 mm (d) 12 mm (a) 1.8 K/W (b) 1.8 W/K
ESE 2018 (c) 1 K/W (d) 1 W/K
2k ESE 2017
Ans. (c) : For sphere, critical radius rc = ins
h0 Ans. (d) : Given, Thickness (L) = 0.6 m
2 × 0.04 Area (A) = 1.5 m2
= = 8 mm Thermal conductivity (k) = 0.4 W/mK
10 Temperature difference (∆T) = 200°C
∴ Critical diameter dc = 16 mm
L
73. The refractory lining of a furnace has a Thermal resistance (Rth) =
thickness of 200 mm. The average thermal kA
conductivity of the refractory material is 0.04 0.6
= = 1 k/W
W/m-K. The heat loss is estimated to be 0.4 ×1.5
232
76. A furnace is provided with an insulating Ans : (c) Fourier law of heat conduction:-
refractory lining. The overall thermal dt
conductivity of the material is 0.03W/m K. The Q = −KA
dx
thickness of the lining is 100mm. The inner and
Q × dx
outer temperatures are 250°C and 50°C, k=
respectively. The heat loss the the surroundings A × dT.
will be Unit of thermal conductivity = W/mK
(a) 30 J/m2/s (b) 60 J/m2/s J N−m N
K. = = =
(c) 60 J/s (d) 30 J/s sec− mK sec− m.K sec.K
ESE 2017 Dimension of thermal conductivity = [MLT-3 θ-1]
Ans. (b) : Overall thermal conductivity 79. Two plane slabs of equal area but with thermal
(k) = 0.03W/mK conductivities in the ratio 1 : 2 are held
Thickness of the lining (L) = 100 mm = 0.1 m together with temperature between the two
T1 = 250°C outer surfaces being T1 and T2. If the juction
T2 = 50°C temperature between the two surfaces is
Q T + T2
Heat flux q = desired to be 1 , then their thicknesses
A 2
should be in the ratio of :
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 3 : 1
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans : (a)

k(T1 − T2 ) 0.03(250 − 50)

= = = 60 J/m2-s
L 0.1
77. What is the expression for the thermal for first slab.
conduction resistance to heat transfer through dt
Q = KA
a hollow sphere of inner radius r1, and outer dx
radius r2, and thermal resistance? KA   T1 + T2  
( r2 − r1 ) r1 r2 4πK ( r2 − r1 ) dx1 = T1 −  
(a) (b) Q   2 
4πK r1 r2 KA  T1 − T2 
r2 − r1 dx1 =   ……… (i)
(c) (d) None of these is correct Q  2 
4πK r1 r2 for second slab
MPPSC AE 2016 2K.A  T1 + T2 
Ans : (c) for hollow sphere dx 2 =  − T2 
Q  2 
4πr1r2 K ( T1 − T2 ) K.A  T1 − T2 
Q= =2   ………. (ii)
( r2 − r1 ) Q  2 
(T − T ) Eqn. (i) divided by eqn. (ii)
Q= 1 2 so
( r2 − r1 )
dx1 1
4πr1r2 K =
dx 2 2
We know that
(T − T ) 80. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is inversely
Q = KA 1 2 proportional to
dx (a) specific heat
Q = KA
( T1 − T2 ) (b) density of substance
dx (c) both (a) and (b)
thermal Resistance = 2 1
(r − r ) (d) none of the above
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
4πr1r2 K
Ans. (c) : Both (a) and (b)
78. The MLTθ system the dimension of thermal 81. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is:
conductivity is: (a) Inversely proportional to the thermal
(a) ML-1 T -1 θ-3 (b) MLT-1 θ-1 conductivity
(c) MLθ -1 T -3 (d) MLθ-1 T -2 (b) Directly proportional to the density of the
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II substance
233
 (c) Inversely proportional to the specific heat (c) 4 : 2 : 1 (d) 2 : 4 : 1
(d) Directly proportional to kinematic viscosity HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Ans : (c) Thermal diffusivity of a substance is Inversely UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
proportional to the specific heat. Ans : (c) Fourier's law of heat conduction :-
Thermal diffusivity:- dT
Thermal diffusivity (α) = Q = KA
dx
thermal conductivity K 2 Thermal conductivity of different material K, 2K and
= m / sec
heat capacity ρC p 4K.
(i) The larger thermal diffusivity, the faster the dT
propagation of heat into the medium. Q = K1A1
dx
82. When K is the thermal conductivity, τ is the Q × dx
density and Cp is the specific heat of a dT 1 =
substance, then thermal diffusivity is given by K1A1
K C 1
(a) (b)
p dT1 ∝
τ.C p τ.K K1
τ. C p K. τ 1 1 1
(c) (d) dT1 : dT2 :dT3 = : :
K Cp K1 K 2 K 3
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 dT1 : dT2 :dT3 = 1 : 1 : 1
K K 2K 4K
Ans : (a) Thermal diffusivity = dT1: dT2 : dT3 = 4 : 2 : 1
τ .C p
85. The thermal conductivity is expressed as :
K = Thermal Conductivity (a) W/mK (b) W/m2K
τ = density (c) W/hmK (d) W/h2m2K
Cp = Specific heat of substance. (KPSC AE. 2015)
83. If R1 and R2 are the inner and outer radii of a TSPSC AEE 2015
cylinder, the heat conduction through a UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
cylinder is proportional to UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(a) (R1 - R2) (b) (R1 × R2) Ans : (a) Fourier's law of heat Conduction
1 1 It is also an important low in heat Conduction,
(c) (d)
(R 1 − R 2  R1  which is represented by the equation
log e   . dT
R2  Q = KA
dx
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
.
Ans : (d) Radial heat transfer by Conduction Q = Amount of heat flow through the body in a unit
through a thick cylinder:-
time (in watt)
A = Surface area perpendicular to heat flow (in m2)
dT = Temperature difference on the two faces of the
body (in0K)
dx = Thickness of the body through which the heat
flows(in m )
k = Constant of Proportionality known as thermal
Conductivity
dT
T1 = Inside temperature of liquid Q = KA
T2 = Outside temperature of liquid dX
r1 = Inside radius of the pipe Q × dx
K=
r2= Outside radius of the pipe A × dT
(r2-r1) = Thickness of the pipe watt × meter
K=
2πKℓ ( T1 − T2 ) 2πKℓ ( T2 − T1 ) meter 2 × K
Q= or
r  ln ( r1 / r2 ) K = W/m−K
ln  2 
r
 1 86. Match list-I with list-II select the correct
84. A composite wall consists of three different Answer using the codes given below the list:
materials having thermal conductivity k, 2k List -I List -II
and 4k respectively. The temperature drop (a) Momentum transfer 1. Thermal diffusivity
across different materials will be in the ratio : (b) Mass transfer 2. Kinematic viscosity
(a) 1 : 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 4 (c) Heat transfer 3. Diffusion coefficient
234
 Code (b) Flow of heat through insulated pipe with
A B C constant surface temperature
(a)2 3 1 (c) Annealing of castings
(b)1 3 2 (d) Flow of heat through refrigerator walls
(c)3 2 1 UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
(d)1 2 3 Ans : (c) Unsteady state of heat flow occur in annealing
UJVNL AE 2016 of casting
Ans : (a) List -I List -II 91. A 30 mm OD pipe is to be insulated with
i) Momentum transfer Kinematic viscosity asbestos having a thermal conductivity of 0.1
ii) Mass transfer Diffusion coefficient W/mK. The convective heat transfer coefficient
ii) Heat transfer Thermal diffusivity is 5 W/m2/K. The critical radius of insulation
87. A high value of thermal diffusivity represents for this pipe would be :
(a) High storage, less conduction of heat (a) 10 mm (b) 20 mm
(b) Less storage, more conduction of heat (c) 40 mm (d) 60 mm
(c) There is always equal amount of conduction HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
and storage since it is a property Ans : (b) Thermal Conductivity (K)= 0.1W/mK
(d) It has no relevance heat transfer coefficient (h) = 5W/m2K.
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II Critical thickness of insulation for cylinder
Ans : (b) A high value of thermal diffusivity represent K
less storage, more conduction of heat. rc =
Thermal diffusivity:- Thermal diffusivity indicates the h
case at which energy get diffused in the volume of the 0.1
rc = m
substance. It is defined as the ratio of thermal 5
conductivity to the heat capacity of a substance rc = 20mm
K
α= Critical thickness of insulation for sphere
ρ.cρ
2K
Hence it is directly proportional to the thermal rc =
conductivity. h
88. Which substance has the minimum value of 92. A 0.5 m thick plane wall has its two surfaces
thermal conductivity? kept at 300 °C and 200 °C. Thermal
(a) Air (b) Water conductivity of the wall varies linearly with
(c) Plastic (d) Rubber temperature and its value at 300 °C and 200 °C
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II are 25 W/mK and 15 W/mK respectively. Then
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II steady heat flux through the wall is
Ans : (a) Air has the minimum value of thermal (a) 8 kW/m2 (b) 5 kW/m2
2
conductivity (c) 4 kW/m (d) 3 kW/m2
Material Thermal conductivity UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
W/mK Ans. (c) : 4 kW/m2
Wood 0.11 93. In a long cylindrical rod of radius R and for a
Air (20 0C) 0.025 surface heat flux of 90, the uniform internal
Water (100 C)0
0.6804 heat generation rate is
Steam (200 0C) 0.03349 (a) 290/R (b) 290
Natural Rubber 0.15 (c) 90/2 R (d) 90/R2
Plastic 0.33 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
89. Cork is a good thermal insulator because Ans. (c) : 90/2 R
(a) Its density is low (b) It is porous 94. The radial heat transfer rate through hollow
(c) It can be powdered (d) It is flexible cylinder increases as the ratio of outer radius to
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II inner radius :
Ans : (b) Cork is a good thermal insulator because it is (a) decreases (b) increases
porous. (c) constant (d) none of the above
Porous material :- Porous materials are material with UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
pores (cavities, channels or interstics). The Ans. (a) : decreases
characteristics of a porous material vary depending on 95. Metals are good thermal conductors since
the size, arrangement and shape of the pores, as well as (a) they have free electrons.
the porosity (The ratio of the total pore volume relative (b) their atoms are relatively closer.
to apparent volume of the material) and composition of (c) their surfaces reflect.
material it self. (d) their atoms are of larger size.
90. Unsteady state of heat flow occurs in UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
(a) Flow of heat through furnace walls Ans. (a) : they have free electrons.
235
96. Choose correct order of metals for increasing (c) The mixing motion of different parts of a
conductivity : fluid
(a) Cu, Al, Fe, Ag (b) Fe, Al, Cu, Ag (d) The electromagnetic waves
(c) Al, Fe, Cu, Ag (d) Cu, Ag, Al, Fe UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II Ans. (a) : Heat conduction in gases is due to the elastic
Ans. (b) : Fe, Al, Cu, Ag impacts of molecules.
97. Two walls of same thickness and cross sectional 103. A body cools from 90°C to 70°C in 5 minutes.
area have thermal conductivities in the ratio of The time required by body for further cooling
1 : 2 . If the same temperature difference is to 50°C will be:-
maintained across the wall faces, the ratio of (a) 5 minutes
heat flow Q1/Q2 will be (b) Less than 5 minutes
(a) 1/2 (b) 1 (c) More than 5 minutes
(c) 2 (d) 4 (d) 10 minutes
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (a) : 1/2 Ans. (c) :
98. If V = volume, A = surface area, h = surface 104. Which of the following statements is not true
film conductance, p = density and C = specific for diamond?
heat, then the time constant of a thermocouple (a) It is hardest known material
is equal to (b) Diamond is non-metallic
VρC Vρ (c) It has high thermal conductivity
(a) (b) (d) It has a very high electrical conductivity
Ah CAh UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
Ah VC Ans. (d) : It has a very low electrical conductivity.
(c) (d)
VρC ρAh 105. Consider a cylinder of radius R with uniformly
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II distributed heat source of heat generation rate
VρC and constant thermal conductivity K. Assume
Ans. (a) : temperature as a function of radius (r) only.
Ah
The boundary conditions are; T = Tw at r = R
99. The rate of heat transfer through a hollow and heat generated equals heat lost at surface.
cylinder of inner and outer radii r1 and r2, The temperature distribution in the cylinder is
respectively, depends on given by:-
(a) difference of radii, (r2 – r1) i
(b) sum of radii, (r2 + r1) q  r2 
(c) product of radii, (r1 r2) (a) T = Tw + 1 − 2 

2K  R 
r 
(d) ratio of radii,  2  i
 r1  q  r2 
(b) T = Tw + 1 − 2 

UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II 4K  R 
r  i
Ans. (d) : ratio of radii,  2 
 r1  (c) T = Tw +
q
2K
(
R 2 − r2)
100. The rate of heat transfer from a solid surface to i
a fluid is obtained from
(a) Newton’s law of cooling (d) T = T w +
q
4K
(
R 2 − r2)
(b) Fourier’s law UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
(c) Kirchhoff’s law i
(d) Stefan’s law
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II Ans. (d) : T = Tw +
q
4K
( )
R 2 − r2
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
106. General conduction equation in its simple
Ans. (a) : Newton’s law of cooling
form, ∇2 T=0 (where T is temperature), is
101. According to Fourier’s law, the quantity of called:-
heat flow through a surface area ‘A’ and (a) Poisson’s equation (b) Fourier’s equation
thickness ‘x’ is given by the relation:- (c) Laplace equation (d) Kirchoff’s equation
(a) Q = – KA (dt/dx) (b) Q = – A/k (dt/dx) UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
(c) Q = – A (dx/dt) (d) Q = – KA (dx/dt) Ans. (c) : General conduction equation in its simple
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
form, ∇2 T=0 (where T is temperature), is called laplace
 
dt equation.
Ans. (a) : According to Fourier's law, Q = − KA  
 dx  107. For conduction through thick walled tube, the
102. Heat conduction in gases is due to:- value of mean radius, rm used in heat
(a) The elastic impacts of molecules conduction (with r1 inner radius and r2 outer
(b) The motion of electrons radius) is given by
236
 (r2 − r1 ) (r2 + r1 ) Ans. (a) : With rise in temperature, thermal
(a) (b)
2 2 conductivity of solid material decreases but insulators
(r2 − r1 ) (r2 + r1 ) case it is not true.
(c) (d)
r r 1
ln 2 ln 2 For solids : (i) k ∝ ⇒ For metals
r1 r1 T
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II (ii) k ∝ T ⇒ For non-metals and semi-conductors
Ans. (c) : For conduction through thick walled tube, where k = Thermal conductivity
the value of mean radius, T = Absolute Temperature
r −r 112. Which instrument is used to measure the
rm = 2 1
ln ( r2 / r1 ) temperature inside furnace?
* In this case, temperature profile is logarithmic (a) Gas thermometer
l (r / r ) (b) Optical pyrometer
* Thermal Resistance R th = n 2 l (c) Alcohol thermometer
2π KL (d) Mercury thermometer
108. Thermal conductivity of water UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(a) First increases with temperature then Ans. (b) : Optical pyrometer
decreases with temperature 113. A steam pipe is to be lined with two layers of
(b) Increases steadily with temperature insulating materials of different thermal
(c) Decreases with temperature conductivities. For less heat transfer
(d) Does not depend on temperature (a) the better insulating material must be put outside
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II (b) any of the two insulations may be placed
Ans. (a) : Thermal conductivity of most of the liquid inside or outside
decrease with increasing temperature, water is (c) the temperature of the steam must be taken
acception. In case of water, thermal conductivity first into account while deciding as to which
increase with temperature, then decreases with insulation is put where
temperature. (d) the better insulation must be put inside
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
109. Which of the following is expected to have
Ans. (d) : According to the question, for less heat
highest thermal conductivity?
transfer the better insulation must be put inside.
(a) Water (b) Melting ice
(c) Solid ice (d) Steam 114. In which of the following cases, transmission of
heat is smallest?
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(a) Solids (b) Alloys
Ans. (c) : In given option thermal conductivity of solid (c) Gases (d) Liquids
ice is higher than other. UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
kice > kmelting ice > kwater > ksteam Ans. (c) : In gases, transmission of heat is smallest
Note– Thermal conductivity of diamond is highest because its thermal conductivity is very low.
(2300 W/m-k). kgas < kliquid < ksoild
Where Freon-12 is lowest (0.0083 W/m-k) where, K = Thermal Conductivity
110. In the heat flow equation Q = kA (t1 – t2)/x, the Thermal conductivity (k) of different material –
term (t1 – t2)/x is known as 1. Diamond 2300 W/m-k (Highest)
(a) thermal conductivity 2. Silver 405 W/m-k
(b) thermal coefficient 3. Copper 385 W/m-k
(c) thermal resistance 4. Steels 15-55 W/m-k
5. Air 0.024W/m-k
(d) temperature gradient
6. Water 0.6 W/m-k
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II 7. Ice 2.25 W/m-k
Ans. (d) : In heat flow Fourier' Law equation 115. When the thickness of insulation on a pipe
Q = kA (t1 – t2)/x exceeds the critical value,
t1 − t 2 (a) The heat flow rate decreases
term is taken as temperature gradient.
x (b) The heat flow rate increases
x (c) The heat flow rate remains constant
⇒ Thermal resistance (d) None of the above
kA UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
k ⇒ Thermal conductivity Ans. (b) : The heat flow rate increases
111. With rise in temperature, thermal conductivity 116. The overall heat transfer coefficient due to
of solid material convection and radiation for a steam
(a) Decreases (b) Increases maintained at 200°C running in a large room
(c) Remains constant (d) Cannot be predicted at 30°C is 17.95 W/m2K. If the emissivity of the
–8
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II pipe surface is 0.8; the value of σ = 5.67 × 10
237
 W/ m2K4; the heat transfer coefficient due to 119. Physical signification of the thermal diffusivity
radiation will be nearly is :
(a) 17 W/m2K (b) 14 W/m2K (a) the ability of a substance to conduct relative
(c) 11 W/m2K (d) 8 W/m2K to its ability to store thermal energy
ESE 2020 (b) the ability of a substance to store thermal
Ans. (c) : Heat lost by pipe due to radiation to the room energy
air (c) the ratio of rate of diffusion of momentum
= σA pipe ∈pipe ( Tpipe
4
− Troom
4
) through a substance to the diffusion of heat in
that substance
= h radiation × A pipe × ( Tpipe − Troom ) (d) the ability of a substance to conduct heat
BHEL ET 2019
∴ Heat transfer coefficient due to radiation
Ans. (a) : Thermal diffusivity (α) – A thermo physical
σ×∈pipe ( Tpipe
4
− Troom
4
) property of material as the ratio between thermal
h radiation = ]
Tpipe − Troom conductivity of material and its thermal capacity i.e.,
k
5.67 × 10−8 × 0.8 ( 200 + 273) − ( 30 + 273) 
4 4
α=
  ρC p
=
( 200 − 30 ) unit α = m2 / sec.
= 11.1067 W / m 2 K • Thermal diffusivity (α) of a medium signifies
the ability of a material or medium to allow the heat
117. Consider steady-state heat conduction across energy to get diffused through the material more rapidly
the thickness in a plane wall of thickness 0.6 m. or quickly.
The wall has a normal area 1.5 m2 and is made
up of material of thermal conductivity 0.4 120. For a constant amount of heat transfer during
W/m0C. There is no generation of thermal steady state one-dimensional heat conduction
energy within the wall. The temperature on the through a solid plane wall with constant
o o
two sides are 800 C and 300 C. The thermal thermal conductivity and no internal heat
resistance of the wall is : generation, the higher the value of thermal
(a) 1.5 W/oC (b) 1 W/oC conductivity of the wall, the temperature
(c) 1.5 oC/W (d) 1 oC/W gradient within the wall will be:
BHEL ET 2019 (a) higher
Ans. (d) : (b) dependent upon the surrounding medium
(c) lower
(d) same
BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (c) : Heat transfer during 3-D heat conduction
through a solid plane wall.
d 2 T d 2 T d 2 T q ρC p dT
+ + + =
Given = Area A = 1.5 m 2 dx 2 dy 2 dz 2 k k dτ
Thickness of wall = t = 0.6 m Steady state one dimensional
Thermal conductivity (k) = 0.4 W/m0C d 2T
T1 = 8000C, T2 = 3000C =0
dx 2
t According to Fourier's law of equation -
Thermal resistance (Rth) =
kA dT
0.6 0.6 Heat transfer (Q) = - kA
= = dx
0.4 × 1.5 0.6 dT Q
=
R th = 10 C / W dx kA
If higher the value of thermal conductivity of the wall,
118. Conduction takes place due to temperature
gradients: the temperature gradient of the wall will be lower.
(a) in a medium which is not vacuum 121. A composite wall of surface area 1 m2 has three
(b) in a fluid medium only layers of thickness 0.3 m, 0.2 m and has
(c) in solid only thermal conductivities 0.6, 0.4 and 0.1 W/m. 0C,
(d) only in stationary medium respectively. There is no generation of thermal
BHEL ET 2019 energy within the wall. If the inner and outer
Ans. (a) : Conduction– Its the mode of heat transfer temperature of the composite wall are 18400 C
which generally occurs in solids, gas as liquid due to and 3400 C, respectively, the rate of heat
temperature difference associated with molecular transfer through this wall is :
lattices vibrational energy transfer and also by free (a) 0.75 kW (b) 0.150 kW
electron transfer conduction take place due to medium (c) 7.5 kW (d) 1.5 kW
but in vacuum not any medium presents.
BHEL ET 2019
238
Ans. (a) : Given - Area = 1 m2 123. Which one of the following is electrically most
Three layer of thickness conductive?
l1 = 0.3 m (a) Copper (b) Silver
l2 = 0.2 m (c) Aluminium (d) Gold
l3 = 0.1 m UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
thermal conductivities = k1 = 0.6 W/mK Ans. (d) : Gold is electrically most conductive.
k2 = 0.4 W/mK
k3 = 0.1 W/mK 2. Free and Forced Convection
T1 = 1840oC, T2 = 340oC
124. Which one of the following non-dimensional
numbers is used for transition from laminar to
turbulent flow in free convection?
(a) Reynolds number (b) Nusselt number
(c) Peclet number (d) Rayleigh number
RPSC AE 2018
Ans. (d) : Reynolds number—It is defined as the ratio
of the inertia force to the viscous force.
T1 − T2 ρUL
Rate of heat transfer Q = Re =
L1 L L µ
+ 2 + 3
k 1A k 2 A k 3 A • The higher the value of Re the greater will be the
Equivalent thermal resistance RTh relative contribution of inertia effect. The smaller
L1 L L the value of Re, the greater will be the relative
= + 2 + 3 magnitude of the viscous stresses.
k 1A k 2 A k 3 A Prandtl Number (Pr)—It is the ratio of kinematic
0.3 0.2 0.1 viscosity (ν) to thermal diffusivity (α)
= + +
0.6 × 1 0.4 × 1 0.1× 1 µC p ν
= 0.5 + 0.5 + 1 = 2 Pr = =
k α
1840 − 340 1500 Kinematic viscosity indicates the impulse transport
Heat transfer (Q) = =
2 2 through molecular friction whereas thermal diffusivity
= 750 W = 0.75 kW indicates the heat energy transport by conduction
process.
• Prandtl Number provides a measure of the relative
122. 'Fourier's law of heat conduction defines the
effectiveness of the momentum and energy
rate of heat transfer through a body as :
transport by diffusion.
(a) only dependent upon the material of the body
• Prandtl Number is a connecting link between the
(b) proportional to the area normal to the velocity field and temperature field and its value
direction of the heat flow and the temperature strongly influences relative growth of velocity and
gradient along the direction of the heat flow, thermal boundary layers.
and is dependent upon the material of the Nusselt Number (Nu)—It is the ratio of heat flow rate
body by convection process under a unit temperature gradient
(c) proportional only to the area normal to the to the heat flow rate by conduction process under a unit
direction of the heat flow temperature gradient through a stationary thickness of L
(d) proportional only to the temperature gradient meters. Thus
along the direction of the heat flow
Q h hL
BHEL ET 2019 Nu = conv. = =
Ans. (b) : According to Fourier's law of heat Q cond . k / L k
conduction- Rayleigh Number —The Rayleigh number (Ra) for a
Fourier's law is defined as head flow directly fluid is a dimensionless associated with buoyancy
proportional to the area normal to the direction of the driven flow, also known as free or natural convection.
heat flow and the temperature gradient along the Ra = Grashof number × Prandtl number
direction of the heat flow, and is dependent upon the Ra = Gr × Pr
material of the body. 125. Reynold's analogy may expressed as:
Q∝A (where, St = Stanton Number, Nu = Nusselt
dT number, Pr = Prandtl number, Re = Reynolds
Q∝A number)
dx N N P
dT (a) ( St ) = u (b) ( St ) = u r
Q = kA Re Pr Re
dx
Re Pr
A = Area (c) ( St ) = N u Re Pr (d) ( St ) =
dT Nu
= Temperature gradient UPRVUNL AE 2016
dx CGPSC AE 2014-II
239
Ans. (a) : Reynold's Analogy—Reynold's analogy is 130. In free convective heat transfer transition from
the inter-relationship between fluid friction and laminar to turbulent flow is governed by the
Newton's law of viscosity. critical value of the
Nu (a) Reynolds number and Grashoff's number
is called the stanton number (St). It represents the (b) Reynolds number
Re Pr (c) Grashoff's number
Nusselt number divided by the product of the Reynolds (d) Prandtl number and Grashoff's number
and Prandtl numbers. APPSC AEE 2016
126. In free convection heat transfer transition from Ans. (d) : In free convective heat transfer transition from
laminar to turbulent flow is governed by the laminar to turbulent flow is governed by the critical value
critical value of the: of the Prandtl number and Grashoff's number.
(a) Reynold's number 131. Nusselt number/(Reynolds number × Prandtl
(b) Grashof's number number) is equal to
(c) Reynold's number and Grashof's number (a) Weber Number (b) Stanton Number
(d) Prandtl number and Grashof's number (c) Biot Number (d) Mach Number
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II APPSC AEE 2016
Ans : (d) : Prandtl number and Grashof's number BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
127. For effective working of fins, the thickness of Nu
the fins should be: Ans. (b) : St.No. =
(a) Large Re× Pr
(b) Small 132. By which of the following modes of heat
(c) Unpredictable transfer, Heat is mainly transferred from an
(d) Thickness of fin doesn't affect fin insulated pipe to the surrounding still air.
effectiveness (a) conduction (b) Radiation
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II (c) forced convection (d) natural convection
Ans : (b) : Effectiveness '∈' APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (d) : By natural convection, heat is mainly
k.P. transferred from an insulated pipe to the surrounding
∈=
h.A c still air.
For, higher '∈', 'h' and 'Ac' should be low 'k', and 'P' 133. Free convection flow depends on all of the
should be high. For low 'Ac' and high 'P', the fins should following EXCEPT
be thin. (a) Density
128. The thickness of thermal and hydrodynamic (b) Coefficient of viscosity
boundary layers is equal, if (c) Gravitational force
(a) Pr = 1 (b) Pr > 1 (d) Velocity
(c) Pr < 1 (d) Pr = Nu TNPSC AE 2017
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper KPSC AE 2015
UKPSC AE-2013, 2007 Paper-II Ans. (d) : Flow regime of heat in forced convection is
Ans. (a) : governed by Reynolds number (Re) but in free
Hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness δ 1 convection it is governed by Grashof number (Gr).
= ( Pr ) 3 Buoyant force
Thermal boundary layer thickness, δ t Gr =
If, Viscous force
Pr = 1 ρ 2 D 3 g ∆T β
=
δ µ 2
=1
δt 134. Match List I with List II and select the correct
δ = δt answer using the codes given below.
List I List II
129. For effective working of fins, the thickness of (A) Momentum transfer 1. Thermal diffusivity
the fins should be (B) Mass transfer 2. Kinematic viscosity
(a) large (C) Heat transfer 3. Diffusion co-
(b) small efficient
(c) thickness of fin does not affect fin
A B C
effectiveness
(a) 2 3 1
(d) unpredictable
(b) 1 3 2
APPSC AEE 2016
(c) 3 2 1
Ans. (a) : Fins increase contact surface causing (d) 1 2 3
enhanced convective heat transfer. The fin spacing, fin TNPSC AE 2017
thickness and fin height also influence the heat transfer
rate; with the increase in fin spacing and thickness the Ans. (a) : Momentum transfer → Kinematic viscosity
heat transfer coefficient increase and it decrease with Mass transfer → Diffusion co-efficient
increase in fin height. Heat transfer → Thermal diffusivity
240
135. If free convection heat transfer transition from 140. The dimensionless number relevant to
laminar to turbulent flow is governed by the transient heat conduction is
critical value of the (a) Fourier number (b) Reynolds number
(a) Reynolds number (c) Prandtl number (d) Stanton number
(b) Grashoff's number JWM 2017
(c) Reynolds and Grashoff number Ans. (a) : All given number in the answer are
(d) Prandtl and Grashoff number dimensionless number but Fourier no. is relevant to
TNPSC AE 2018 transient heat conduction.
Ans. (d) : If free convection heat transfer transition Heat conduction
from laminar to turbulent flow is governed by the Note : Fourier No. =
critical value of the Prandtl and Grashoff number. Rate of heat storage
136. The dimensionless number in mass transfer Inertia force
Reynolds No. =
which plays an equivalent role of Prandtl Viscous force
Number in heat transfer is Molecular diffusivity of momentum
(a) Nusselt number (b) Lewis number Prandtl No. =
(c) Schmidt number (d) Grashof number Molecular diffusivity of heat
TNPSC AE 2018 Nusselt No.
Ans. (c) : Schmidt number- Schmidt number (Sc) is a Stanton No.=
Reynold No. × Prandtl No.
dimensionless number defined as the ratio of
momentum diffusivity (kinematic viscosity) and mass 141. Non dimensional temperature distribution for
diffusivity and is used to characterize fluid flows in lumped system analysis is given by
which there are simultaneous momentum and mass [where, Bi = Biot number, F0 = Fourier
diffusion convection processes. number, T0 = Initial temperature, T∞ =
137. The velocity and thermal boundary layers Environmental temperature]
coincide, and the non dimensional velocity and T − T∞ T − T∞ −( B 2 ×F )
= e ( i 0 ) (b)
− B /F
temperature profiles are identical for steady, (a) =e I 0
T0 − T∞ T0 − T∞
incompressible, laminar flow over a flat plate when
(a) Pr = 1 (b) Pr < 1 T − T∞ T − T∞ −( B 2 ×F )
= e ( I 0 ) (d)
− B ×F
(c) =e i 0
(c) Pr > 2 (d) Pr ≥ 2.5 T0 − T∞ T0 − T∞
TNPSC AE 2018 T − T∞
Ans. (a) : When, δ t = δ H (e) = ln ( B i2 × F0 )
T0 − T∞
Then, Pr = 1 CGPSC AE 2014- II
where Pr = Prandtl Number
T − T∞
= e ( i o)
138. For simple shapes such as plates, cylinders, − B ×F
Ans. (c) :
sphere and cubes, the lumped heat capacity To − T∞
approach can be used if hL c
(a) Bi < 0.1 (b) Bi = 0.1 where B i =
(c) Bi > 1.0 (d) Bi > 0.1 k
TNPSC AE 2018 volume of solid
Lc =
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II surface area of the solid
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II ατ
Ans. (a) : The lumped heat capacity approach can be Fo = 2
used when internal conductivity thermal resistance of Lc
material become zero (K = ∞) and Biot number should For Lumped system Bi < 0.1
be less than 0.1 142. When a hot fluid is flowing over a cold flat
139. In solving a lumped parameter problem, which plate, the temperature gradient is ....................
one of the following pair of non-dimensional (a) zero at the surface
numbers is used? (b) negative at the surface
(a) Grashoff number and Biot number (c) zero at the edge of the thermal boundary layer
(b) Prandtl number and Nusselt number (d) positive at the edge of the thermal boundary
(c) Biot number and Fourier number layer
(d) Fourier number and Reynolds number RPSC AE 2018
JWM 2017 Ans. (c) : When T∞ > TP
Ans. (c) : Biots number and Fourier number used while
solving a lumped parameter problem.
Conduction resistance h × L c
Biots number ( Bi ) = =
Conduction resistance k solid
Heat conduction α×t
Fourer Number ( Fo ) = = 2
Rate of Heat storage L
241
The boundary conditions of thermal boundary 147. What is the affect of thermal conductivity k on
layer— fin effectiveness?
At any distance x, measured from leading edge of plate. (a) Fin is effective for smaller value of thermal
At y = 0, T = Tp conductivity
At y = δt, T = T∞ (b) Fin is effective for larger value of thermal
conductivity
∂T
At y = δt, =0 (c) Thermal conductivity does not affect fin
∂y effectiveness
∂T
2 (d) Initially Increases and after attaining peak
At y = 0, =0 reduces
∂y 2
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
 ∂T ∂T Ans : (b) : The effectiveness '∈' of fins
  = f ( y ), is maximum at y = 0.
 ∂y ∂y k.P.
∈=
143. The purpose of providing fins on heat transfer h.A c
surface is to increase Where,
(a) Temperature gradient so as to enhance heat
k - Thermal conductivity
transfer by convection
(b) Effective surface area to promote rate of heat P – Perimeter of fin cross - section
transfer by convection h - Convective heat transfer coefficient
(c) Turbulence in flow for enhancing heat Ac - Cross-section of fin.
transfer by convection For higher effectiveness - '∈'
(d) Pressure drop of the fluid 'k' Should be high and 'h' should be small
ESE 2020 148. In the process of heat transfer through fins, the
Ans. (b) : Effective surface area to promote rate of heat entire surface area is at:
transfer by convection. (a) Same constant temperature
144. The free convection heat transfer is (b) Different temperatures
significantly affected by (c) Maximum base temperature
(a) Reynolds number (b) Grashof number (d) Minimum temperature
(c) Prandtl number (d) Stanton number OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V Ans : (b) : In the process of heat transfer through fins,
the entire surface area is at different temperatures.
Buoyance force
Ans : (b) : Grashof number = 149. The non-dimensional parameter known as
viscous force Stanton number (St) is used in
Buoyant force occurs due to free convection. (a) Forced convention heat transfer in flow over
145. If Nusselt number is 4000 with corresponding flat plate
Reynolds and Prandtl numbers as 40 and 20 (b) Condensation heat transfer with laminar film
respectively, the relevant Stanton number will be layer
(a) 40 (b) 20 (c) Natural convention heat transfer over flat
(c) 10 (d) 5 plate
JWM 2017 (d) Unsteady heat transfer from bodies in which
Ans. (d) : Stanton number internal temperature gradients cannot be
Nussett number neglected
( St No.) = Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Reylond No. × Prandtl No.
4000 Ans : (a) : We know Stanton number is defined as,
St No. = =5 Nu C
40 × 20 St = = f
146. The ratio of the thickness of thermal boundary R e .Pr 2
layer to the thickness of hydrodynamic The expression contains Reynolds number Re.
boundary layer is equal to (Prandtl number) n, So the convection should be forced. The presence of
where n is equal to: friction factor signifies that the total friction should be
(a) –1/3 (b) –2/3 due to skin friction not due to form friction. So forced
(c) 1 (d) –1 convection over flat plate uses Stanton number 'St'.
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II surface convection resistance
Ans : (c) : Since, 150. The ratio is
internal conduction resistance
δ
δt = known as
(Pr) 1/ 3 (a) Grashoff Number (b) Biot Number
For, (c) Stanton Number (d) Prandtl Number
Pr = 1, Gujarat PSC AE 2019
δt = δ Ans : (b) :
Where,
δt = Thickness of thermal boundary layer Surface convention resistance
Biot number =
δ = Thickness of hydrodynamic boundary layer Internal conduction resistance
242
151. Reynolds analogy states that Ans. (b) : The effectiveness of fin
C C kP
(a) St = fx (b) St = fx ε=
4 2 hA c
(c) St = C fx (d) St = 2Cfx Since ratio of cross section 'Ac' and volume
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V has dimension of length. So, characteristic dimension
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II can be define as.
Ans : (b) : Reynolds analogy states that V
ℓc =
C A
St = fx k 1
2 ∴ε = =
152. If x is the distance from the leading edge of a h.ℓ Bi
plate, then the thickness of laminar boundary where 'Bi' is Biot Number
layer varies as 1
4
∴ Bi = 2
1 ε
(a) (b) x 5 It Bi is high, the effectiveness will be low or vice versa.
x
1 156. Lumped system analysis of transient heat
(c) x 2 (d) x2 conduction situation is valid when the biot
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V number is–
Ans : (c) : We know that (a) very small (b) very large
5x (c) approximately one
δ= (Blasius equation) (d) cannot say unless the Fourier
Re x RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
then, δ ∝ x1/2 Ans : (a) For Lumped capacity method to be applicable,
Where x is the distance upto a point where thickness ofBi should be less than 0.1 i.e., Bi < 0.1.
laminar boundary layer measured from leading edge of 157. Thermal, velocity and concentration boundary
plate. layers become identical, when
153. Least value of Prandtl number can be expected (a) Prandtl number = Nusselt number = Schmidt
in case of number = 1
(a) water (b) liquid metals (b) Prandtl number = Sherwood number =
Schmidt number = 1
(c) salt solution (d) sugar solution
(c) Prandtl number = Nusselt number = Lewis
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper number = 1
Ans. (b) : Liquid Metals (d) Prandtl number = Schmidt number = Lewis
Liquid Metals- – 0.004 – 0.03 number = 1
Gases – 0.7-1.0 TNPSC 2019
Water – 1.7-13.7 Ans. (d) : Thermal, velocity and concentration
Glycerin – 2 × 103 – 105 boundary layers become identical, when Prandtl number
154. The non-dimensional parameter known as = Schmidt number = Lewis number = 1.
Stanton number (St) is used in 158. Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam
(a) Forced convection heat transfer in flow over pipe placed horizontally is ambient at 30ºC. If
flat plate the Nusselt number is 25 and thermal
(b) Condensation heat transfer with laminar film conductivity of air is 0.03 W/mK, then the heat
layer transfer coefficient will be
(c) Natural convection heat transfer over flat (a) 7.5 W/m2K (b) 16.2 W/m2K
plate (c) 25.2 W/m2K (d) 30 W/m2K
(d) Unsteady heat transfer from bodies in which TNPSC 2019
internal temperature gradient cannot be hD
neglected Ans. (a) : Nusselt number =
k
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 Nu = 25, D = 100 mm = 0.1 m k = 0.03 W/mk
Ans. (a) : The non-dimensional parameter known as h × 0.1
Stanton number (St) is used in Forced convection heat 25 =
transfer in flow over flat plate 0.03
155. Usually fins are provided to increase the rate of h = 7.50 W / m 2 K
heat transfer. But fins also act as insulation. 159. The differential governing equation for the fin
Which one of the following non-dimensional of uniform cross-sectional area (Ac) and
numbers decides this factor? constant thermal conductivity (k) is written as
(a) Eckert number (b) Biot number
(c) Fourier number (d) Peclet number d 2θ
− m 2 θ = 0. Which of the following is
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 dx 2
UPRVUNL AE 2016 correct for this equation? [Where, P =
243
 Perimeter of fin, h = convective heat transfer Ans. (a) : The heat transfer rate in free convection in
coefficient] the turbulent region depends on ∆T1.33
hP 164. Match list I with List II and select the correct
(a) θ = Temperature of fin; m = answer:
kAc
List I List II
hP A Fourier number 1 Surface tension
(b) θ = Excess temperature; m =
kAc B Weber number 2 Forced convection
C Grashoff number 3 Natural
hP
(c) θ = Excess temperature; m = convection
kAc D Schmidt number 4 Radiation
hP 5 Transient heat
(d) θ = Temperature of fin; m = conduction
kAc
6 Mass diffusion
3/ 2
 hP  (a) A-6, B-5, C-2, D-3 (b) A-5, B-1, C-3, D-6
(e) θ = Excess Temperature; m =   (c) A-2, B-4, C-5, D-3 (d) A-1, B-6, C-3, D-5
 kAc  (e) A-5, B-3, C-1, D-6
CGPSC AE 2014- II CGPSC AE 2014 -II
Ans. (c) : θ = Excess temperature Ans. (b) : Fourier number → Transient heat conduction
hP Weber number → Surface tension
m= Grashoff number → Natural Convection
kA c
Schmidt number → Mass diffusion
 Molecular diffusivity of momentum  165. The term 'lumped systems' in heat transfer
160. The ratio  , refers to system having
 Molecular diffusivity of heat 
is known as : (a) heat transfer varying with time and position
(a) Prandtl number (Pr) (b) heat transfer varying with time but not with
1 position
(b) (c) heat transfer varying with position but not
Prandtl number ( Pr ) with time
(c) Nesselt Number (Nu) (d) heat transfer varying with position only
1 (e) heat transfer varying with time only
(d) CGPSC AE 2014 -II
Nusselt number (Nu)
Ans. (b) : The term 'Lumped systems' in heat transfer
(e) Peclet number (Pc)
CGPSC AE 2014- II refers to system having heat transfer varying with time
but not with position.
Ans. (a) : Prandtl Number– It is defined as the ratio of
molecular diffusivity of momentum (ν) to molecular 166. Prandtl number is the ratio of
diffusivity of heat (α). (a) momentum diffusivity to mass diffusivity
(b) momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity
ν µC p (c) thermal diffusivity to mass diffusivity
Pr = =
α k (d) thermal diffusivity to momentum diffusivity
161. The ratio of conductive resistance to convective (e) mass diffusivity to momentum diffusivity
resistance is known as CGPSC AE 2014 -II
(a) Stanton number (b) Prandtl number RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
(c) Biot number (d) Grashoff number
(e) Nusselt number Ans. (b) : Prandtl number is the ratio of momentum
CGPSC AE 2014 -II diffusivity to thermal diffusivity.
Ans. (e) : The ratio of conductive resistance to ν µCp
Pr = =
convective resistance is known as Nusselt number. α k
162. The ratio of thermal conductivity to electrical 167. In Biot number, the characteristic length used
conductivity is equal to? is the ratio of
(a) Prandtl number (b) Schmidt number (a) surface area to volume
(c) Lorenz number (d) Lewis number (b) perimeter to surface area
(e) Weber Number
CGPSC AE 2014 -II (c) surface area to perimeter
Ans. (c) : The ratio of thermal conductivity to electrical (d) volume to surface area
conductivity is equal to Lorenz number. (e) perimeter to surface area
163. The heat transfer rate in free convection in the CGPSC AE 2014 -II
turbulent region depends on Ans. (d) : In Biot number , the Characteristic length
(a) ∆T1.33 (b) ∆T (Lc) used is the ratio of volume to surface area,
(c) ∆T0.33 (d) ∆T1.25 Volumeof object V
(e) ∆T0.25 Lc = =
Surfacearea of object A s
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
244
 Ans. (c) : The fin efficiency is defined as the ratio of
actual heat transfer from the fin to the heat transfer from
the same fin if the temperature along the entire length of
the fin is the same as the base temperature.
PhkA CS ( To − Ta )
For Square- η fin =
hPl ( To − Ta )
a×a×a
Lc = 1
2a + 2a 2 + 2a 2
2
η fin −
ml
a3 a
Lc = 2 = 172. Flow in a constant area duct with heat transfer
6a 6 is
168. Maximum heat transfer rate is attained in (a) Rayleigh flow (b) Isentropic flow
(a) laminar flow (b) turbulent flow (c) Fanno flow (d) Reversible flow
(c) transition region (d) creeping flow TNPSC AE 2013
(e) steady flow Ans. (a) : Flow in a constant area duct with heat
CGPSC AE 2014 -II transfer is known as Rayleigh flow.
Ans. (b) : Maximum heat transfer rate is attained in 173. Which of the following is correct statement for
turbulent flow due to zig-zag motion of fluid particles local heat transfer coefficient variation in
with high velocity. boundary layer along isothermal plate?
169. Non-dimensional form of natural convection (a) Local heat transfer coefficient increases in
heat transfer coefficient is- flow direction for laminar flow and increases
(a) Grashof number (b) Reynolds number in flow direction for fully developed turbulent
(c) Nusselt number (d) Prandtl number flow
RPSC AE 2018 (b) Local heat transfer coefficient increases in
Ans. (c) : Non-dimensional form of natural convection flow direction for laminar flow and decreases
heat transfer coefficient is Nusselt number. in flow direction for fully developed turbulent
hL flow
Nu = (c) Local heat transfer coefficient decreases in
k flow direction for laminar flow and decreases
170. Which one of the following is correct? The in flow direction for fully developed turbulent
effectiveness of a fin will be maximum in an flow
environment with- (d) Local heat transfer coefficient decreases in
(a) Free convection flow direction for laminar flow and increases
(b) Forced convection in flow direction for fully developed turbulent
(c) Radiation flow
(d) Convection and radiation UPRVUNL AE 2016
RPSC AE 2018 Ans. (c) : For local heat transfer coefficient variation in
Ans. (a) : Effectiveness of fin (εfin) boundary layer along isothermal plate, local heat
Effectiveness of fin is the ratio of the fin heat transfer transfer coefficient decreases in flow direction for
rate to the heat transfer rate that would exist without a laminar flow and decreases in flow direction for fully
fin. developed turbulent flow.
Qwith fin PK 174. Lumped heat capacity approach of transient
ε fin = = heat conduction analysis is used:
Qwithout fin hAcs
(a) For bodies of very high conductive resistance
Pl (b) When temperature variation throughout the
ε fin = η fin ×
Acs body is very high
(c) When temperature variation throughout the
surface area of the fin body is very low
η fin ×
cross-sectional area of the fin (d) For Biot number > 10
171. The fin efficiency is defined as the ratio of UPRVUNL AE 2016
actual heat transfer from the fin to Ans. (c) : Lumped heat capacity approach of transient
(a) The heat transfer from the same fin with an heat conduction analysis is used when heat conduction
adiabatic tip in solids having infinite thermal conductivity (negligible
(b) The heat transfer from an equivalent fin internal resistance) or when temperature variation
which is infinitely long throughout the body is very low.
(c) The heat transfer from the same fin if the 175. Combined natural and forced convection
temperature along the entire length of the fin analysis is done only when (Gr = Grashoff
is the same as the base temperature number and Re = Reynold number):
(d) The heat transfer through the base area of the
G G
same fin (a) 0.1 < r2 < 10 (b) 0.1 < r < 10
TNPSC AE 2014 Re Re
245
 Gr Gr Ans. (c) : Grashoff number may be defined as it is the
(c) 0.1 < < 10 (d) 0.1 < < 10 ratio of buoyancy force to viscous force.
Re3 Re4
UPRVUNL AE 2016 Inertia force × Buoyancy force
Gr =
Ans. (a) : Combined natural and forced convection (Viscous force) 2
analysis is done only when L3 × g × β × ∆t
Gr =
0.1 < 2 < 10 υ2
Re 179. Nusselt number is defined as
176. Convective heat transfer coefficient is a (a) Heat transfer by conduction/heat transfer by
function of: convection
(a) Configuration of body only (b) (Heat transfer by conduction/heat transfer by
2
(b) Nature of the fluid flow, properties of fluid convection)
and configuration of body (c) (Heat transfer by convection/heat transfer by
conduction)2
(c) Nature of the fluid flow only
(d) Heat transfer by convection/heat transfer by
(d) Properties of fluid only conduction
UPRVUNL AE 2016 RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
Ans. (b) : Convective heat transfer coefficient—The SJVN ET 2013
convective heat transfer coefficient, h can be defined as Ans. (d) : Nusselt number is defined as heat transfer by
the rate of heat transfer between a solid surface and a convection to heat transfer by conduction.
fluid per unit surface area per unit temperature hL
difference. The convective heat transfer coefficient is NU =
developed upon the physical properties of the fluid and K
the physical situation. 180. For materials, where Prandtl number (Pr) >> 1
(a) Heat diffuses at faster rate than momentum
T - T∞ diffusion through the medium
177. Temperature distribution = e -mx is valid
TO - T∞ (b) Heat and momentum diffuses at almost same
for : rate through the medium
(a) Fin of finite length with heat loss by (c) Thermal boundary layer is much thicker than
convection at end hydrodynamic boundary layer
(b) Fin of finite length with insulated end (d) Thermal boundary layer is much thinner than
(c) Very long fins hydrodynamic boundary layer
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
(d) Fin of finite length with specified temperature
at end Ans. (d) : We know that
UPRVUNL AE 2016 µ Cp ν
Pr = =
Ans. (c) : Temperature distribution— K α
T − T∞ 1 δ
= e − mx (For very long fin) Pr1/ 3 =
T0 − T∞ 1.026 δ th
T − T∞ cos h m( L − x) If thermal boundary layer (δth) is much thinner than
= hydrodynamics boundary layer (δ) where Prandtl
T0 − T∞ cos h m L
number Pr >> 1
(For fin of finite length with insulated end) 181. The convective heat transfer coefficient does
T − T∞ cos h m( Lc − x) not depend on
=
T0 − T∞ cos h m Lc (a) surface type
(b) surface orientation
(For fin of finite length with heat loss by convection at (c) surface material
end) (d) surface area
where Lc = Corrected length of fin JPSC AE PRE 2019
t Ans. (b) : Surface orientation
Lc = L + (for rectangular fin)
2 182. For an infinitely long fin, efficiency is given by
d 1 2
Lc = L + (for Pin fin) (a) (b)
4 mL mL
178. Grashoff number may be defined as 1 3
(c) (d)
(a) Viscous force/buoyancy force 2mL mL
(b) Inertia force/pressure force JPSC AE PRE 2019
(c) Buoyancy force/viscous force Ans. (a) : Fin efficiency for long fin (infinite)
(d) Inertia force/gravity force q 1
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 ηlong fin(infinite) = actual =
qmax mL
CGPSC AE 2014- II
246
The efficiency of a fin with insulated tip is 187. Air at 20oC blows over a hot plate of 50 × 60
q tan h(mL) cm2 made of carbon steel maintained at 220oC.
η fin = actual = The convective heat transfer co-efficient is 25
qmax mL
W/m2K. What will be the heat loss from the
183. In lumped capacity heat transfer model, the plate?
variation of temperature with time is (a) 1500 W (b) 2500 W
(a) Linear (b) Parabolic (c) 3000 W (d) 4000 W
(c) Exponential (d) Hyperbolic TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
JPSC AE PRE 2019 Ans. (a) : Q = h A (T – T )
s o ∞
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II = 25 × 50 × 60 × [220 – 20]
Ans. (c) : = 1500 W
hAτ
T − T∞ −
ρC V 188. The efficiency of a pin fin with insulated tip is:
=e p
Ti − T∞ tan hmL tan hmL
(a) (b)
Where, Ti = Temperature of body at the instant of time t hA / kP mL
= 0 second i.e. when the body is just exposed to ambient mL hA / kP
fluid (c) (d)
T = Temperature of body at any instant of time t (sec.) tan h mL tan hmL
T∞ = Ambient fluid temperature TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
Hence, temperature variation will be exponential. Ans. (b) : Efficiency of Fin–
184. A 3 cm long, 2 mm × 2mm rectangular cross- ηfin = Actual heat transfered by thefin ( Qfin )
section aluminium fin [k = 237 k/moc] is Maximum heat transfered by thefin if the
attached to a surface. If the fin efficiency is entiresurfaceof fin at base temperature
65%, the effectiveness of this single fin is : For a fin which insulated at the tip–
(a) 30% (b) 24% Phk A cs ( To − T∞ ) tan h mℓ
(c) 8% (d) 39% ηfin =
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 hPℓ ( To − T∞ )
Ans. (d) : Given as, tan h mℓ
ηfin =
ηfin = 65% mℓ
Ac = 2 × 2 mm2 189. The Prandtl number value for air is
L = 30 mm (a) 0.1 (b) 0.7
We know that (c) 0.3 (d) 1.7
PL 2 × [ 2 + 2] × 30 Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
ε = ηfin × = 0.65 ×
Ac 2× 2 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (b) : Prandtl number is a characteristic of fluid
ε = 39% only, for air at room temperature Pr is 0.71.
185. In turbulent flow, one can estimate the Nusselt Prandtl number of water at 17ºC is 7.56. Liquid in
number using the analogy between heat and general have high Prandtl number.
momentum transfer. (colburn analogy). This 190. The prominent mode of heat transfer from
analogy relates the Nusselt number to the co- electrical transmission lines is
efficient of friction, Cf as. (a) conduction (b) natural convection
1/3
(a) (Nu) = 0.5 Cf (Re) (Pr) (c) forced convection (d) radiation
(b) (Nu) = 0.5 Cf (Re) (Pr)2/3 Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
(c) (Nu) = Cf, Re. (Pr)1/3 Ans. (b) : Natural convection, the prominent modes of
1/2 1/3
(d) (Nu) = Cf (Re) (Pr) heat transfer from electrical transmission lines.
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
191. In laminar flow over a flat plate the convective
1
heat transfer coefficient is proportional to
Ans. (a) : Nu = 0.5Cf ( R e ) ( Pr ) 3
(a) x (b) x–0.5
186. The purpose of using fins in a particular heat (c) x0.5 (d) x–0.2
transfer system is Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
(a) to decrease rate of heat transfer Ans. (c) : For laminar flow over a flat plate, the local
(b) to increase rate of heat transfer heat transfer coefficient vary as x0.5, where x is the
(c) to maintain rate of heat transfer at a constant distance from the leading edge of the plate.
rate 192. The thermal boundary layer thickness is
(d) cannot say thicker than the momentum boundary layer
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 thickness when Prandtl number is
Ans. (b) : Fins are surfaces that extended from a object (a) 0 (b) 1
to increase the rate of heat transfer to on from the (c) Less than 1 (d) Greater than 1
environment by increasing convection. Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
247
Ans. (c) : When thermal boundary layer thickness is 198. The relative thickness of hydrodynamic and
thicker than the momentum boundary layer thickness thermal boundary layer depends upon :
when Prandlt number is less than 1. (a) Mach Number
Similarly, (b) Nusselt Number
If thermal boundary layer thickness is thinner than the (c) Reynolds Number
momentum boundary layer thickness, when Prandlt (d) Prandtl Number
number is greater than 1. SJVN ET 2019
193. When the fluid flows over the flat plate with a δh
sharp leading edge is examined, laminar flow is Ans. (d) : = (Pr)1/ 3
δ th
generally observed for Reynolds number less
than where,
(a) 2300 (b) 1500 δh = Hydrodynamic thermal boundary layer
(c) 5 × 105 (d) 1000 δth= Thermal boundary layer
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 199. The duct is said to be low velocity duct if the
Ans. (c) : 5 × 105 mean velocity of air in the duct?
194. The free convection heat transfer is influenced (a) 20 m/s < V < 25 m/s
by the (b) V < 10 m/s
(a) Buoyant and inertia forces only (c) 25 m/s < V < 30 m/s
(b) Viscous buoyant and inertia forces (d) 15 m/s < V < 20 m/s
(c) Inertia forces only SJVN ET 2019
(d) Viscous buoyant and inertia forces Ans. (b) : V < 10 m/s
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 200. Which of the following relation is correct for
Ans. (b) : Viscous buoyant and inertia forces fin effectiveness? [Where k = thermal
195.Temperature at the end tip of the fin having conductivity of fin material, p = perimeter of
uniform cross-sectional area is the fin, A = cross sectional area of fin, h =
(a) maximum convective heat transfer coefficient]
(b) similar to the heat generation temperature kA kph
(c) unpredictable (a) (b)
hp A
(d) minimum
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 kp kh
(c) (d)
Ans. (d) : Temperature at the end tip of the fin having hA pA
uniform cross-sectional area is minimum.
SJVN ET 2019
196. In the process of heat transfer through Ans. (c) :
extended surfaces or fins, the entire surface
area is at kp
Fin effectiveness =
(a) the same constant temperature hA
(b) different temperatures Where,
(c) maximum base temperature k = Thermal conductivity
(d) minimum temperature p = Perimeter
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 A = Cross section area of fin
Ans. (b) : In the process of heat transfer through h = Convective heat transfer coefficient
extended surfaces or fins, the entire surface area is at
different temperature.
201. Nusselt number is a function of
197. The relation between the rate of convection (a) reynold's number and dynamic viscosity
heat transfer and the rate of mixing in (b) dynamic viscosity and prandtl number
turbulent fluid flow is: (c) prandtl number and reynold's number
(a) the ratio of convection heat transfer decreases (d) reynold's number and thickness of boundary
with increase in the rate of mixing in layer
turbulent fluid flow RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
(b) the rate of convection heat transfer increases Ans : (c) Nusselt number is a function of prandtl
with increases in the rate of mixing in number and reynold's number
turbulent fluid flow
(c) the rate of convection heat transfer does not µCP
Pr =
affected by the change in the rate of mixing k
in turbulent fluid flow ρVD
(d) none of the above R e=
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 µ
Ans. (b) : The relation between the rate of convection 202. Which one of the following types of tracker
heat transfer increase with increases in the rate of uses liquid contained in canisters that can turn
mixing in turbulent fluid flow. easily into vapour?
248
 (a) Active tracker 205. In forced convection, the surface heat transfer
(b) Passive tracker coefficient from a heated flat plate is a function
(c) Single-axis tracker of
(d) Altitude-azimuth tracker (a) Re and Gr (b) Pr and Gr
ESE 2019 (c) Re and Pr (d) Re, Gr and Pr
Ans. (b) : (i) Active trackers require external power to where Re is Reynolds number, Pr is Prandtl
drive tracking mechanism whereas passive trackers do number and Gr is Grashof number.
not require external power. ESE 2018
(ii) Passive trackers use low boiling point liquid whichAns. (c) : In forces convection
vapourises after absorbing solar heat. The tracker can Nusselt number (Nu) = f(Re, Pr)
tilt to one or other side due to imbalance caused by hL
vapourisation of liquid. Nu = c
k
203. The solar heat pipe works on the principle of  k 
(a) heating and condensation cycle h = f  Re,Pr, 
 L c 
(b) evaporation and condensation cycle
(c) cooling and condensation cycle 206. Two rods, one of length ℓ and the other of
(d) heating and evaporation cycle
length 2ℓ, are made of the same material and
ESE 2019
have same diameter. Both ends of the longer
Ans. (b) : Heat pipes employ evaporative cooling to
rod are maintained at 100°C. One end of the
transfer thermal energy from one point to another by the
shorter rod is maintained at 100°C while the
evaporation and condensation of a working fluid or
other end is insulated. Both rods are exposed to
coolant. the same environment at 40°C. The
temperature at the insulated end is measured
to be 55°C. The temperature at the midpoint of
the longer rod would be.
(a) 45°C (b) 50°C
(c) 55°C (d) 60°C
ESE 2017
204. An insulated pipe of 50 mm outside diameter Ans. (c) : Shorter Rod–
with ε =0.8 is laid in a room at 30°C. If the
surface temperature is 250°C and the
convective heat transfer coefficient is 10W/
m2K, the total heat loss per unit length of the TL − T∞ 1
pipe will be =
T0 − T∞ cos h(mL)
(a) 896.6 W/m (b) 818.8 w/m
55 − 40 1
(c) 786.4W/m (d) 742.2 W/m =
ESE 2019 100 − 40 cos h(mL)
Ans. (b) : Given, cos h(mL) = 4
d = 50 mm = 0.05 m Longer Rod–
∈ = 0.8
T∞ = 30 + 273 = 303 K
Ts = 250 + 273 = 523 K
T0 − T∞
Tmin = T∞ +
cos h(mL)
100 − 40
= 40 +
4
Tmin = 55°C
Total heat loss per unit length 207. Air at 1 atmospheric pressure and 27°C blows
= Qconvection + Qradiation across a 12mm diameter sphere at a free
stream velocity of 4 m/s. A small heater inside
= hA (Ts − T∞) + ∈Aσ ( Ts − T∞ )
4 4
the sphere maintains the surface temperature
= h × πdℓ ( Ts − T∞ ) + ∈× πdℓ × σ ( Ts4 − T∞4 ) at 77°C. With k = 0. 0.026 W/m (Kelvin) and
with (Nu) = 31.4, the heat loss by the sphere
= 10 × π × 0.05 (250 − 30) + 0.8 × π × 0.05 × would be
−8 4 4
5.67 × 10 (523 − 303 ) (a) 1.93J/s (b) 1.76J/s
= 345.57 + 473.03 (c) 1.65J/s (d) 1.54J/s
= 818.6 W/m ESE 2017
249
Ans. (d) : Given, Ans : (a) Fins are provided on heat transferring surface
T∞ = 27°C D = 12 mm = 0.012 m to increase surface are to promote the rate of heat
k = 0.026 W/mK R = 0.006 m transfer.
Nu = 31.4 Heat transfer from extended surface (FINS):- Finned
V∞ = 4 m/s surfaces are manufactured by extruding, welding or
Tw = 77°C wrapping a thin metal sheet on a surface. fins enhance
heat trnsfer from a surface by exposing a larger surface
hL area to convection.
Nusselt number (Nu) = c
k 211. If the radius of any current carrying wire is
h × 0.012 less than the critical radius, then the addition
31.4 =
0.026 of electrical insulation will enable the wire to
h = 68.03 W/m2K carry a higher current because the :
Heat lost by sphere = hA ∆T (a) Thermal resistance of the insulator is reduced
2
= h(4πR ) (Tw − T∞) (b) Thermal resistance of the insulator is
2 increased
= 68.03 × 4 × π (0.006) (77 − 27) (c) Heat loss from the wire is reduced
= 1.538 Watt (d) Heat loss from the wire is increased
208. Heat is lost from a 100mm diameter steam pipe OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If Ans : (d) If the radius of any current carrying wire is
the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal less than the critical radius then the addition of
conductivity of the air is 0.03W/m K, then the electrical insulation will enable the wire to carry a
heat transfer coefficient will be. higher current because the heat loss from the wire is
(a) 7.5 W/m2K (b) 15 W/m2K increase.
(c) 25 W/m2K (d) 35 W/m2K 212. A thin flat plate is hanging freely in air at
ESE 2017 27°C. Solar radiation falls in one of its sides at
MPPSC AE 2016 the rate of 500 W/m2.For maintaining the
Ans. (a) : Given, temperature of the plate constant at 32°C, the
D = 100 mm = 0.1 m value of heat transfer coefficient is:
T∞ = 30°C (a) 25 W/m2K (b) 50 W/m2K
2
Nu = 25 (c) 100 W/m K (d) 200 W/m2K
k = 0.03 W/mK OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Nusselt number is given by Ans : (c) Accourding to Newton's law of cooling
hL hD .
Nu = c = (∵ Lc = D) Q = hA ∆t
k k .
h × 0.1 Q
25 = = h × ∆t
0.03 A
h = 7.5 W/m2k 500 = h × 5
209. In a cylinder under steady state conduction h = 100 W/m2 K.
with uniform heat generation, the temperature
gradient at half the radius location will be 213. In natural convection heat transfer, Nusselt
(a) One half of that at surface number is a function of=
(b) One fourth of that at surface (a) Reynolds number and Prandtl number
(c) Twice that at surface (b) Prandtl number and Rayleigh number
(d) Four times that at surface (c) Reynolds number and Grashof number
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II (d) Prandtl number and Grashof number
Ans : (a) In a cylinder under steady state conduction CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
with uniform heat generation the temperature gradient
at half the radius location will be one half of that at Ans. (d) : In case of natural convection heat tranfser,
hL
surface. Nusselt number ( Nu ) = = cR an
210. Fins are provided on heat transferring surface k
to: Where constant C and n depend on the
(a) Increase surface area to promote the rate of geometry of the surface and the flow. Ra is the Rayleigh
number.
heat transfer Ra = Gr.Pr
(b) increase temperature gradient so as to So Nusselt Number is function of Grashof
enhance heat transfer number and Prandtl number.
(c) Increase turbulence in flow for enhancing 214. Given that-
heat transfer Pr = Prandtl number Nu = Nusselt number
(d) Decrease the pressure drop of fluid Sh = Sherwood number Re= Reynold number
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II Sc = Schmidt number Gr=Grashoff number
250
 The functional relationship for free convective 218. Which one of the following configuration has
mass transfer is given as: the highest fin effectiveness?
(a) Nu = f (Gr, Pr) (b) Sh = f (Sc, Gr) (a) Thin, close spaced
(c) Nu = f (Re, Pr) (d) Sh = f (Re, Sc) (b) Thin, widely spaced
UJVNL AE 2016 (c) Thick, widely spaced
TNPSC AE 2018 (d) Thick, close spaced
Ans : (b) Sherwood number (Sh) = Schmidt number X UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
Grashoff number Ans : (a) Thin, close spaced configuration has the
Sh = f (SC; Gr) highest fin effectiveness.
215. If Nusselt number is 390, Reynolds number is 219. Fins are provided on heat transferring surface
39 and Prandtl number is 20, then Stanton will to:
be (a) Increase surface area to promote the rate of
(a) 780 (b) 200 heat transfer
(c) 2 (d) 0.5
(b) Increase temperature gradient so as to
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
enhance heat transfer
Ans : (d) Stanton number (c) Increase turbulence in flow for enhancing
Nusselt Number heat transfer
=
Reynolds number × Prandtl Number (d) Decrease the pressure drop of fluid
Nu UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
St = Ans : (a) Fins are provided on heat transferring surface
R e × Pr to increase surface are to promote the rate of heat
390 transfer.
St = Heat transfer from extended surface (FINS):- Finned
39 × 20
surfaces are manufactured by extruding, welding or
St = 0.5 wrapping a thin metal sheet on a surface. fins enhance
216. What happens when the thickness of insulation heat transfer from a surface by exposing a larger surface
on a pipe exceeds the critical value? area to convection.
(a) Heat transfer rate increases 220. If the radius of any current carrying wire is
(b) Heat transfer rate decreases less than the critical radius, then the addition
(c) Heat transfer rate remains constant of electrical insulation will enable the wire to
(d) None of these carry a higher current because the:
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II (a) Thermal resistance of the insulator is reduced
Ans : (b) Heat transfer rate decreases (b) Thermal resistance of the insulator is
217. For flow of fluid over a heated plate, the increased
following fluid properties are known: (c) Heat loss from the wire is reduced
Viscosity = 0.001 Pa-s, sp. heat at constant (d) Heat loss from the wire is increased
pressure = 1 kJ/kg-K, thermal conductivity = UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
1W/mK
The hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness at Ans : (d) If the radius of any current carrying wire is
a specified location on the plate if 1 mm, the less than the critical radius then the addition of
thermal boundary layer thickness at the same electrical insulation will enable the wire to carry a
location is higher current because the heat loss form the wire is
(a) 0.001 mm (b) 0.01 mm increase.
(c) 1 mm (d) 10 mm 221. Heat transfer in liquids and gases is essentially
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II due to
Ans : (c) Given data:- (a) Conduction
µ = 0.001Pa − sec (b) Convection
Cp = 1kJ / kg K = 1000J / kg − K (c) Radiation
(d) Conduction and Radiation
K f = 1W / mK UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Hydrodynamic boundary layer Ans. (b) : Convection
δ = 1mm
222. The time constant of the thermocouple is the
we know that
time required by a thermocouple to reach the
µc p 0.001× 1000 following value of initial temperature
Prandtal Number ( Pr ) = = =1
Kf 1 differences :
Thermal boundary layer (a) 63.2% (b) 65%
−
1 (c) 68% (d) 70.2%
δ t = δ.Pr 3 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
−
1 Ans. (a) : 63.2%
δ t = 1 × (1) 3 223. In forced convection, Nusselt number is a
δ t = 1mm function of
(a) Reynolds number and dynamic viscosity
251
 (b) dynamic viscosity and Prandtl number 229. For mixed (free and forced) convection in
(c) Prandtl number and Reynolds number horizontal tubes of diameter d and length L,
(d) Reynolds number and thickness of boundary Graetz number (Gz) is defined as:-
layer d d
(a) Re.Pr. (b) Gr.Pr.Re.
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II L L
Ans. (c) : Prandtl number and Reynolds number d d
(c) Gr.Re. (d) Gr.Pr.
224. Addition of fin to the surface increases the heat L L
hA UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
transfer if is Ans. (a) :
kP
230. Prandtl number is connecting link between:-
(a) equal to 1 (a) Velocity field and temperature field
(b) greater than 1 (b) Gravity field and temperature field
(c) less than 1 (c) Gravity field and velocity field
(d) greater than 1 but less than 2 (d) None of the above
(Notations used have usual meaning) UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II Ans. (a) : Prandtl number is connecting link between
UPRVUNL AE 2014 velocity field and temperature field.
Ans. (c) : less than 1 231. With the increase in the length of fin, fin
225. The ratio of thickness of thermal boundary efficiency:-
layer to thickness of hydrodynamic boundary (a) Decreases
layer is equal to (Pr)n where n is (b) Increases
(a) –1/3 (b) 2/3 (c) Remains unaffected
(c) 1 (d) –1 (d) First increases and then decreases
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (a) : With the increase in the length of fin, fin
Ans. (a) : –1/3 efficiency decreases.
226. The Nusselt number in natural convection is a 232. Which dimensionless number has the
function of Prandtl number and : significant role in forced convection:-
(a) Stanton number (b) Biot number (a) Mach number (b) Reynold number
(c) Reynolds number (d) Grashoff number (c) Prandtl number (d) Pecklet number
KPSC AE. 2015 UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II Ans. (b) : Reynold number has the significant role in
Ans : (d) The Nusselt number in natural Convection is a forced convection.
function of Prandtl number and grashoff number 233. The value of Stanton number for value of
(A) Forced Convection Nusselt number 400, Reynolds number 40 and
Nu = f (Re , Pr ) Prandtl number 20 will be:-
(B) Free Convection (a) 800 (b) 200
Nu = f (Gr , Pr ) (c) 2 (d) 0.5
Here Nu = Nusselt's Number UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Re = Reynold's Number Ans. (d) : We know that,
Pr = Prandtl. Number Nu 400
Stanton number = = = 0.5
Gr = Grashoff Number Pr × R e 40 × 20
227. If Q = actual rate of heat transfer and Qmax = 234. With the help of fins, the heat transfer can be
maximum possible rate of heat transfer then, increased by about:-
heat exchanger effectiveness is equal to (a) 4 times (b) 6 times
(a) Qmax – Q (b) Q/Qmax (c) 8 times (d) 10 times
Q +Q UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
(c) Qmax/Q (d) max Ans. (d) :
2
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II 235. Free convection heat transfer is significantly
Ans. (b) : Q/Qmax affected by:-
(a) Reynolds number (b) Grashof number
228. According to Newton’s law of cooling, the rate (c) Prandtl number (d) Stanton number
of heat transfer from a solid surface of area A, UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
at a temperature t1, to a fluid at temperature t2
Ans. (b) :
is given by:- 236. What does a high value of Prandtl number
(a) Q = hA (t1 + t2) (b) Q = hA (t1 – t2) indicate?
(c) Q = h / A (t1 – t2) (d) Q = A / h (t1 + t2) (a) rapid heat transfer by forced convection to
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II natural convection
Ans. (b) : According to Newton's law of cooling- (b) rapid diffusion of momentum by viscous
Q = hA (t1 – t2) action compared to diffusion energy
252
 (c) relative heat transfer by conduction to (c) between 60 to 100 (d) between 150 to 300
convection UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(d) all the above Ans. (a) : Prandtl number is a dimensionless number,
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II defined as the ratio of momentum diffusivity to thermal
Ans. (a) : Pandtl number is a dimensionless number its diffusivity.
high value indicates rapid heat transfer by forced v µC p
convection to natural convection. Pr = =
α k
237. Prandtl number for water varies from * Pr value for different matter –
(a) 0.5 - 1.0 (b) 1.0 - 5.0 1. For gases – near 1
(c) 5.0 - 10.0 (d) 10.0 - 102 2. Oxygen – 0.63
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II 3. Water – 7.56
Ans. (c) : Prandtl number (Pr) for water varies from Note – The Pr number of gases are about 1, which
5.0-10.0. It is approx, 7.56. indicates that both momentum and heat dissipate
* For engine oil, Pr is varies from 100 – 40000. through the fluid at about the same rate.
* For Hg Pr << 1 242. The dimensionless number relevant in
238. In the non-dimensional Biot number, the transient heat conduction is
characteristic length is the ratio of (a) Fourier number (b) Grashoff number
(a) Volume of solid to its surface area (c) Weber number (d) Archmedes number
(b) Surface area to volume of solid UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(c) Perimeter to surface area of solid Ans. (a) : Fourier number is a dimensionless number
(d) Surface area to perimeter of solid which relevant in transient heat conduction.
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II Diffusive transport rate
Ans. (a) : Fourier number (F0) =
storage rate
Conductive Resistance hL c
Biot No. (Bi) = = It is very widely used in the description and predict on
Convective Resistance k of the temperature responses of materials undergoing
where, transient conductive heating or cooling.
volume of body 243. Least value of Prandtl number can be expected
Characteristic Length (Lc) = in the following:
surface area of contact
(a) Water (b) Salt solution
R (c) Sugar solution (d) Liquid metals
* For sphere, Lc = (R = Radius)
3 UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
239. A body cools from 85ºC to 70ºC in 7 minutes. Ans. (b) : Salt solution
The time taken by the body for further cooling 244. Which number has significant role in forced
to 55ºC will be convection?
(a) 7 minutes (a) Mach number (b) Reynold's number
(b) more than 7 minutes (c) Prandtl number (d) Peclet number
(c) less than 7 minutes UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(d) 0.7 minutes Ans. (b) : Reynold's number
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II 245. The lowest value of Nusselt Number will be
Ans. (b) : According to the question, during cooling (a) Less than one
process, the time taken by the body from 700C to 550C (b) Always greater than one
is more than 7 minutes, because – (c) May be less than one or greater than one
Temperature difference between hot body of 850C and (d) One
surrounding is more than that of 700C hot body and UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
surroundings. Ans. (d) : One
hℓ 246. Dittus – Boelter equation for heating of a fluid
240. With usual notation the term is called
k in a tube is given as follows:-
(a) Reynold number (b) Prandtl number (a) Nu=0.023 Re0.8 Pr0.4
(c) Froude number (d) Nusselt number (b) Nu=0.023 Re0.8 Pr0.3
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II (c) Nu=C Ren (where C is a constant and n is a
Ans. (d) : Nusselt number (Nu) represents inhancement real number)
of heat transfer through a fluid layer as a result of (d) Nu=C loge Ren
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
convection relative to conduction across the same fluid
layer. Ans. (a) :
Q hl 247. Heat transfer rate
Nu = convection = (a) will be higher in turbulent flow
Q conduction k (b) will be lower in turbulent flow
Note : (i) For forced convection, Nu = f (Re, Pr) (c) will depend only on the fluid
(ii) For natural convection, Nu = f (Gr, Pr) (d) will depend only on viscosity
241. For gases Prandtl number is UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
(a) near unity (b) between 5 to 50 Ans. (a) : will be higher in turbulent flow
253
 Cp µ 252. Depending on the radiation properties, a body
248. With usual notation, the term is called will be opaque when,
K (a) τ = 1; ρ = α = 0 (b) α = 0; (τ + ρ) = 1
(a) Reynold number (b) Prandtl number
(c) Froude number (d) Nusselt number (c) τ = 0; (α + ρ) = 1 (d) ρ = 0; (τ + α) = 1
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II TNPSC AE 2013
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
kinematic viscosity Ans. (d) : Opaque body– When no irradiation is
Ans. (b) : Prandtl number =
thermal diffusivity transmitted through the body, it is called opaque body.
3 For opaque body
v µC p  δ  ρ=0
= = = 
α k  δt  so, α+ τ =1
Note : Heat diffuse very quickly is liquid metal Gray body– A gray body is defined as a body whose
(Pr <<1) and very slowly in oils (Pr >> 1) relative to absorptivity of a surface does not vary with variation in
momentum. temperature and wavelength of the incident radiation.
253. A gray body is one whose absorptivity
3. Heat Transfer by Radiation (a) varies with temperature
(b) varies with wavelength of incident ray
249. The ratio of the emissive power and absorptive (c) varies with temperature and wavelength of
power of all bodies is the same and is equal to incident ray
the emissive power of a perfectly blackbody. (d) does not very with either temperature or
This statement is known as wavelength of incident ray
(a) Kirchhoff's law (b) Stefan's law (e) is equal its emissivity
(c) Wien law (d) Planck's law CGPSC AE 2014 -II
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V SJVN ET 2013
KPSC AE. 2015 Ans. (d) : A gray body is one whose absorptivity does Vary
HPPSC LECT. 2016 with either temperature of wavelength of incident ray.
Ans : (a) : Kirchhoff's law- The ratio of the emissive 254. The total radiation leaving a surface per unit
power to absorptive power of all bodies is the same and time and per unit area is called
is equal to the emissive power of perfectly blackbody. (a) radiosity (b) shape factor
E (c) radiation intensity (d) black body radiation
= constant
α TNPSC 2019
E Ans. (a) : Radiosity (J)- The total thermal radiation
Eb = 1 energy leaving a surface per unit time per unt area is
α1
known as radiosity.
250. Which of the following is not the characteristics J = Emitted energy + Reflected part of incident.
of Planck's black body radiation distribution J = E + ρG
(a) As temperature increases, the peak of the
curve shift towards higher wavelength
(b) Spectral emissive power varies continuously
with the change in wavelength
(c) At a given wavelength, as temperature 255. What is the value of shape factor for two
increases, emissive power also increases infinite parallel surfaces separated by a
(d) Total emissive power is proportional to T4 distance X ?
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 (a) 0 (b) Infinite
Ans. (a) : According to the characteristics of Planck's (c) 1 (d) X
black body radiation distribution as temperature TNPSC 2019
increases, the peak of the curve shift towards higher JPSC AE PRE 2019
wavelength. RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
251. The total heat radiation from a black body per BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
second per unit area is proportional to (Where UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
T is an absolute temperature). Ans. (c) : The infinite parallel planes with the
(a) T4 (b) T3 assumption that leakage of radiation from space
2
(c) T (d) T between them is zero.
HPPSC AE 2018
Ans. (a) : Stefan Boltzmann Law–According to
Stefan-Boltzmann law, the amount of Radiation emitted
per unit time from an area of a black body at absolute
temperature T is directly proportional to the fourth
power of the temperature. ∴ F11 + F12 = 1
Q = σ AT 4 ∵ Plane are flat so,
Q ∝ T4 F11 = 0
where σ is Stefan's constant = 5.67 × 10–8W/m2K4 F12 = 1 = F21
254
256. A grey body is one whose absorptivity (c) inverse square law
(a) varies with temperature (d) solar constant
(b) varies with wavelength of incident ray ESE 2019
(c) varies with temperature and wavelength of Ans. (a) : The blackbody model with a temperature of 5900
incident ray k is a good approximation to measured solar radiation.
(d) does not vary with temperature and 261. In which type of collector is solar radiation
wavelength of incident ray focused into the absorber from the top, rather
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II than from the bottom ?
Ans. (d) : Gray body is hypothetical body like black (a) Fresnel lens (b) Paraboloidal
body which energy diagram at every temperature and (c) Concentrating (d) Compound parabolic
wave length just like with black body. ESE 2020
* Emissivity and absorptivity of gray body is Ans. (d) : Compound parabolic
necessarily bellow one, but is does not vary with 262. A flat plate collector is 150 cm wide and 180 cm
temperature and wavelength of incident ray. high and is oriented such that it is
257. Stefan Boltzmann law is expressed as perpendicular to the sun rays. Its active area is
(a) Eb = σT4 (b) Eb = σ(∆T)4 90% of the panel size. If it is in a location that
1.4
(c) Eb = σ(∆T) (d) Eb = σT1.4 receives solar insulation of 1000 W/m2 peak, the
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II peak power delivered to the area of the
Ans. (a) : According to Stefan Boltzman's emissive collector will be
power of black body is directly proportional to forth (a) 1.23 kW (b) 2.43 kW
power of absolute temperature of body (c) 4.46 kW (d) 6.26 kW
ESE 2020
Eb ∝ T4 or E b = σT 4
Ans. (b) : Area of the flat plate
where σ =Stefan Boltzman's constant = 150×180 = 27000 cm2 = 2.7 m2
w Solar insolation = 1000 W/m2 = 1000×2.7×0.90
and σ = 5.67 × 10−8 2
m − k4 = 2700×0.90 = 2.43 kW
258. With usual notations, for black body 263. A surface having high absorptance for
(a) α = 0, τ = 0, ρ = 1 (b) α = 1, τ = 0, ρ = 0 shortwave radiation (less than 2.5 µm) and a
(c) α = 1, τ = 1, ρ = 0 (d) None of the above low emittance of long-wave radiation (more
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II than 2.5 µm), is called
Ans. (b) : α = 1, τ = 0, ρ = 0 (a) Absorber (b) Emitter
Absorptivity (α) Fraction of incident radiation (c) Selective (d) Black
absorbed. ESE 2020
Reflectivity (ρ) Fraction of incident radiation Ans. (c) : Selective
reflected. 264. A room window (consisting of a vertical sheet
Transmittivity (τ) Fraction of incident radiation of plane glass) is exposed to direct sunshine at a
transmitted. strength of 1000 W/m2. The window is pointing
259. Two long parallel surfaces each of emissivity due south, While the sun is in the southwest,
0.7 are maintained at different temperatures 300 above the horizon. Estimate the amount of
and accordingly have radiation heat exchange solar energy in W/m2 reflected by the window:
between them. It is desired to reduce 75% of Assume glass to be gray with ρ (reflectivity) =
the radiant heat transfer by inserting thin 0.08.
parallel shields of emissivity 1 on both sides. (a) 49 (b) 490
The number of shields should be: (c) 612.3 (d) 61.2
(a) 2 (b) 1 BHEL ET 2019
(c) 3 (d) 4 Ans. (a) : 49
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II 265. A wave of radiation falls on a body. 35% of the
Ans : (c) : Since emissivity '∈' of both surfaces and radiation is reflected back. If transmissivity of
shield are same and equal to 0.7 Radiation shields the body is 0.25, then emissivity is :
reduces 75% of radiation so radiation exchange in (a) 0.35 (b) 0.45
presence of n shield, (c) 0.40 (d) 0.25
E − E 2 E1 − E 2 BHEL ET 2019
∴ 1 = Ans. (c) : Given– transmissivity τ = 0.25
4 n +1
∴n=3 reflectivity β = 0.35
Where E1 and E2 are emissive power of long parallel α+β+τ=1
surfaces. α + 0.35 + 0.25 = 1
260. A good approximation of the measured solar α = 1– 0.60 = 0.40 (according to Kirchoff's law of
spectrum is made by thermal radiation.)
(a) black-body energy distribution
α =∈= 0.40
(b) Planck’s energy distribution
255
266. An electric flat-plate square heater of sides 10 F12 = 0.375
cm provides 100 W power from each side. If According to the summation rule,
the heater is assumed black, its temperature is F11 + F12 = 1
approximately: F11 = 1 – F12 = 1–0.375
(a) 6480 C (b) 648 K F11 = 0.625
(c) 6480 K (d) 64800 C 269. Value of Solar constant is
BHEL ET 2019 (a) 1.357 kW/m2 (b) 2.561 kW/m2
Ans. (b) : Area = 10 cm × 10 cm (c) 5.61 kW/m2 (d) 9.089 kW/m2
= 100 cm2 = 100 × 10-4 m2
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Q = 100 W
Ans : (a) : Value of solar constant is 1.357 kW/m2
E =∈ σAT 4 270. In a radioactive heat transfer, a gray surface is
for block body ∈= 1 one
100 = 1 × 5.67 × 10-8 × 100 × 10-4 × T4 (a) Which appears gray to the eye
100 = 567 × 10-12 × T4 (b) Whose emissivity is independent of
100 wavelength
T4 = (c) Which has reflectivity equal to zero
567 × 10 −12 (d) Which appears equally bright from all
T4 = 0.17636 × 1012 directions
T = 4 0.17636 × 10 12 Gujarat PSC AE 2019
T = 648 K Ans : (b) : In a radioactive heat transfer a gray surface
is one whose emissivity is independent of wavelength.
267. The rate of energy emission from unit surface
271. Emissivity of perfectively black body is
area through unit solid angle, along a normal
to the surface, is known as: (a) 0 (b) 1
(a) Emissivity (b) Transmissivity (c) infinite (d) 0.5
(c) Reflectivity (d) Intensity of radiation Gujarat PSC AE 2019
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II Ans : (b) : The emissivity ' ∈ ' is unity for black body
Ans : (d) : The rate of energy emission from unit i.e., perfect emitter.
surface area through unit solid angle, along a normal to Absorptivity 'α' and emissivity ' ∈ ' are equal in value so
the surface, is known as intensity of radiation. absorptivity of black body is unity because emissivity of
268. At the centre of hollow sphere (Surface 1) of 2 black body is unity.
m diameter a solid cylinder of 1 m diameter 272. Two spheres A and B of same material have
and length each is placed (Surface 2), what will radii 1 m and 4 m and temperature 4000 K and
be the view factor F11? 2000 K respectively. Which one of the following
(a) 0.375 (b) 1 statements is correct?
(c) 0.625 (d) 0.75 The energy radiated by sphere A is
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II (a) greater than that of sphere B
Ans : (c) : Given : Diameter of sphere (D) = 1 m (b) less than that of sphere B
Diameter of cylinder (d) = 0.5 m (c) equal to that of sphere B
Length of cylinder (L) = 0.5 m (d) equal to double that of sphere B
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
TNPSC AE 2017
4
Ans : (c) : Eb1 = A1 σb T1
Eb2 = A2 σb T24
E b1 4π × 1 2 × σ b × 4000 4
=
E b 2 4π× 4 2 × σ b × 2000 4
=1
F21 = 1
∵ (Cylinder is completely enclosed with sphere) E b1 = E b2
From reciprocity theorem 273. The thermal radiations occur in the portion of
A1 F12 = A2 F21 electromagnetic spectrum between the
 π 2 wavelengths
A2  πdL + 2 d  (a) 10-2 micron to 10-4 micron
 4 
F12 = F21 = 2 (b) 10-1 micron to 10-2 micron
A1 D
4π   (c) 0.1 micron to 102 micron
2 (d) 102 micron onwards
0.5 × 0.5 BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
0.5 × 0.5 + UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
F12 = 2
1× 1 Ans : (c) : 0.1 micron to 102 micron.
256
274. The emissive power of a black body is P. If its (c) area (d) time
absolute temperature is doubled, the emissive BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
power becomes Ans : (d) : The total emissivity power is defined as the
(a) 2P (b) 4P total amount of radiation emitted by a blackbody per
(c) 8P (d) 16P unit time.
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V 277. The emissive power of a body depends upon its
Ans : (d) : As emissive power, E α T4 (a) temperature
E (2T) 4 (b) wavelength
So, 2 = (c) physical nature
E1 T4 (d) all of the above
= 16 BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
275. Two long parallel plates of same emissivity 0.5 Ans : (d) : The emissive power of a body depends upon
are maintained at different temperatures and its.
have radiation heat exchange between them. A • temperature
radiation shield of emissivity 0.25 placed in the • wavelength
middle will reduce radiation heat exchange to • physical nature
1 278. A perfect blackbody is one which
(a) 1 (b)
4 (a) is black in colour
3 3 (b) reflects all heat
(c) (d) (c) transmits all heat radiations
10 5
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V (d) is fully opaque
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 BPSC AE 2012 Paper - V
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 Ans : (d) : A blackbody refers to an opaque that emits
Ans : (c) : thermal radiation. A perfectly black body is one that
absorbs all incoming light and does not reflect any.
279. Two radiation surfaces A1 = 6 m2 and A2 = 4 m2
have the shape factor F1-2 = 0.1; the shape
factor F2-1 will be :
(a) 0.18 (b) 0.15
(c) 0.12 (d) 0.10
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
Ans. (b) :
By reciprocity theorem,
A1F1-2 = A2F2-1
Radiation heat exchange between parallel plates 6×0.1 = 4 × F2-1
σ (T1 − T2 )
4 4 F2-1 = 0.15
Q1 = 280. The wave length at which the black body
1 1 
 + − 1 emissive power reaches its maximum value at
 ∈1 ∈2  300 K is –
∈1 = 0.5 (a) 9.6 µm (b) 15.5µm
(c) 5.1µm (d) 38.0µm
σ (T1 − T2 )
4 4
Q1 = RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
3 Ans : (a)
Now a radiation shield of emissivity ∈ = 0.25 is Temperature of body = 300 K
inserted between the plates, so new radiation change. Let the wavelength of maximum amount of radiation
σ (T14 − T24 ) i.e., peak emissive power wavelength is λ max.
Q2 = From Wien's displacement law
 1 1   1 1 
 + − 1 +  + − 1 T. λ max= 2898 µmK
 0.5 0.25   0.25 0.5 
2898
σ (T1 − T2 )
4 4
λ max= = 9.66 µmK
Q2 = 300
10
281. Two plates spaced 150 mm apart are
Q1 10
∴ = maintained at 10000C & 700C. The heat
Q2 3 transfer will take mainly by–
Q2 3 (a) convection (b) free convection
= (c) forced convection (d) radiation
Q1 10
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
276. The total emissivity power is defined as the
Ans : (d) Q = σ(T 4 − T∞ 4 )
total amount of radiation emitted by a
blackbody per unit At high temperature, radiation transfer will be high due
(a) temperature (b) thickness to 4th power of temperature.
257
282. 40% of incident radiant energy on the surface Ans. (b) : The emissitivities for non-metallic surfaces
of thermally transparent body is reflected generally decrease with increase in temperature.
back, if the transmissivity of the body be 0.15 285. Statement (I) : The radiation emitted by earth is
then emissivity of the surface is– of longer wavelength than that emitted by the sun.
(a) 0.45 (b) 0.55 Statement (II) : Earth is at a lower temperature
(c) 0.40 (d) 0.75 than the sun.
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
SJVN ET 2013 individually true and Statement (II) is the
Ans : (a) Given, correct explanation of Statement (I)
ρ = 0.4, τ = 0.15 (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
We know that, individually true but Statement (II) is NOT
α+ρ+τ=1 the correct explanation of Statement (I)
α + 0.4 + 0.15 = 1 (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
α = 0.45 [α = ε] (d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
283. Two very large parallel plates with JWM 2017
emmisionfies 0.3 and 0.8 exchange heat. Find Ans. (a) : The radiation emitted by sun is of shorter
the percentage (%) reduction in heat transfer wave length then that emitted by earth. This is because
when a polished aluminium shield (ε = 0.04) is that sun has high temperature than earth.
placed between them) 286. The intensity of the radiation emitted by the
(a) 85% (b) 88% sun is maximum at a wavelength of 0.5 µm.
(c) 91% (d) 93% Assuming the sum to a black body, the surface
TNPSC 2019 temperature of the sun will approximately be:
Ans. (d) : Data given- (a) 5000 K (b) 5780 K
ε1 = 0.3, ε 2 = 0.8, ε sh = 0.04 (c) 6280 K (d) 6490 K

q
=
( 4
σ T1 − T2 ) 4 (e) 6600 K
CGPSC AE 2014- II
A 1 1 Ans. (b) : Wavelength (λ) = 0.5 µm
  net without shield + −1
ε1 ε 2 Surface temperature (T) = ?
We know that-

=
(
σ T14 − T24 ) T × λ = 2898 µm − K
1 1 2898
+ −1 T= = 5796 = 5780 K
0.3 0.8 0.5
287. For the opaque surface, which of the following
reaction is correct? [Where τ = Transmissivity,
α = Absorptivity, ρ = Reflectivity]
(a) α + τ = 1, α > 0, τ > 0, ρ > 0
(b) α = ρ = 1
(c) α + ρ = 1, τ = 0
(d) α = τ = 1
(e) τ = 1, ρ = 0, α = 0
CGPSC AE 2014- II

( )
q Ans. (c) : For opaque surface, transmissivity will be
 A  = 0.279 × σ T14 − T24 W / m 2 zero.
without shield We know that–
q
=
( σ T 1
4
)
− T 4
2
α+ρ+ τ =1
 A  1 2 1 For opaque surface τ = 0 then α + ρ =1
with shield + + −2 288. The value of Stefan Boltzmann constant is
0.3 0.04 0.8 (a) 6.67 ×10-8 W/m2K4 (b) 5.67 ×10-8 W/m2K4
= 0.019 × σ× ( T14 − T24 ) W / m 2 (c) 6.67 ×10-8 W/m4K2 (d) 5.67 ×10-8 W/m4K2
q − q with (e) 5.67 ×10-8 W/mK4
% Reduction = without × 100% CGPSC AE 2014 -II
q without
Ans. (b) : The value of Stefan Boltzmann constant (σ)
% Reduction = 93.18%
is given as σ = 5.67× 10-8 W/m2K4
284. The emissitivities for non-metallic surfaces
289. Consider an enclosure of three non-concave
generally
surfaces shown in Figure. The shape factor F23 is
(a) increase with increase in temperature
(b) decrease with increase in temperature
(c) increase exponentially with temperature
(d) remain constant at all temperatures
TNPSC 2019
258
 A1 + A 2 − A 3 A 2 + A 3 − A1 Ans. (c) : We know that,
(a) (b) F1-1 + F1-2 = 1
2A1 2A 2
and A1F1-2 = F2-1 A2 [Reciprocity theorem]
A3 + A1 − A 2 A + A 2 + A3
(c) (d) 1  π 
2A3 2A1 πDL + 2 × D 2 
A 2  4 2
A + A 2 + A3 F1-2 = = F2-1= 1 , F2-2 = 0
(e) 1 A1  4πR 2 
2A 2  1
CGPSC AE 2014 -II  π 2
Ans. (b) : The shape factor F23 is given as  π × 1.5 × 1.5 + 2 × 4 × (1.5 ) 
F1-2 = = 0.84375
A + A 3 − A1  4 × π× (1) 2 
F23 = 2  
2A 2
F1-1= 1 – 0.84375 = 0.15625

290. Sun's surface at 5800 K emits radiation at a

wavelength of 0.5µ. A furnace at 5800C will
emit through a small opening radiation at a 293. If the temperature of a solid surface increases
wavelength of nearly
form 27°C to 627° C, its emissive power
(a) 10µ (b) 0.1µ
increases in the ratio:
(c) 3.4µ (d) 0.01µ
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 9
(e) 5.6µ (c) 1 : 27 (d) 1 : 81
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans. (c) : According to wine's displacement law RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
λ. T = Constant SJVN ET 2013
λ1 × T1 = λ2 × T2 UJVNL AE 2016
0.5 µ × 5800 = λ2 × (580+273) Ans : (d) T1 = 27 + 273 = 300 K
λ 2 = 3.399µ T2 627 + 273 = 900 K
291. Soar radiation of 1200W/m 2
falls Emissive power (E) = σT4 W/m2
perpendicularly on a grey opaque surface of 4
E1  300 
emissivity 0.5. If the surface temperature is = 
500C and surface emissive power 600W/m2, the E 2  900 
radiosity of that surface will be E1 1
(a) 1200 W/m2 (b) 300 W/m2 =
E 2 81
(c) 400 W/m2 (d) 500 W/m2
(e) 600 W/m 2 E 1 : E2 = 1: 81
CGPSC AE 2014 -II 294. The temperature of a solid surface is changed
Ans. (a) : Radiosity [J] = Emitted energy per unit area for 1270C to 9270C. The emissive power shall
per unit time + reflected part of Incident energy per increase in the ratio of
unit area per unit time (a) 2 (b) 8
J = E + ρ.G (c) 3 (d) 9
G = 1200 W/m2 , α = ε = 0.5 , E = 600 W/m2 (e) 81
For opaque surface CGPSC AE 2014 -II
τ= 0 Ans. (e) : We know that,
∴ α + ρ + τ= 1 E ∝ T4
ρ = 0.5 T1 = 127+273 = 400K
then T2 = 927 +273 = 1200K
J = 600 + 0.5 × 1200 then,
J = 1200 W/m2 4 4
E 2  T2  1200 
= [3]
4
292. A solid cylinder (surface 2) is located at the =  =  
centre of a hollow sphere (surface 1). The E1  T1   400 
diameter of the sphere is 2 m, while the E 2 = 81E1
cylinder has a diameter and length of 1.5 m
295. The radiation heat transfer from an inner
each. The radiation configuration factor F11 is
(a) 0.225 (b) 0.8437 cylindrical surface of radius r1 and emissivity ε1
(c) 0.1562 (d) 0.4375 at temperature T1 to concentric cylinder of
(e) 0.2969 radius r2, emissivity ε2 and at temperature T2 is
CGPSC AE 2014 -II proportional to-
259
 T14 − T24 Ans. (b) : We know that interchanging factor for the
(a) radiation from surface 1 to surface 2
1  1  r1  
 +  − 1    ε 1ε 2
ε=
 ε1  ε 2  r2   ε 1 + ε 2 − ε 1ε 2
T14 − T24 0.2 × 0.5
(b) ε=
1  1  r1   0.2 + 0.5 − 0.5 × 0.2
 −  − 1  
ε ε
 1  2  2   r ε = 0.166
T1 − T2
4 4 299. At thermal equilibrium, the absorptivity of a
(c) body is equal to
1  1  r2   (a) Emissivity (b) Reflectivity
 +  − 1    (c) Transmissivity (d) Diffusivity
 ε 1  ε 2  r1  
TNPSC AE 2013
 r2  4 Ans. (a) : According to Kirchoff's Law of thermal
  T1 − T2
4

 r1  radiation the emissivity and the absorptivity of a surface

(d) at a given temperature and wavelength are equal.
1 1 
300. The value of wavelength for maximum emissive
+  − 1
ε1  ε 2  power is given by
RPSC AE 2018 (a) Wien's Displacement Law
(b) Fourier Law
T1 − T2
4 4
(c) Planck's Distribution Law
Ans. (a) : Q ∝
1  1  r1   (d) Kirchhoff's Law
 +  − 1   TNPSC AE 2013
 ε1  ε 2  r2   OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
296. The radiation heat transfer through large Ans. (a) : The value of wavelength for maximum
plates separated by N radiation shields emissive power is given by Wien's Displacement Law.
becomes, when the emissivities of all surfaces 1
are equal λ max ∝
T
1 λ max T = constant
(a) Q12, N shields = Q12 , no shield
N +1 λ max T = 2898 µmk
1 301. Thermal radiation includes:
(b) Q12, N shields = Q12
N +1 (a) Entire visible radiation and entire infrared
(c) Q12, N shields = ( N + 1) Q12 , no shield radiation
(b) Entire visible radiation, entire infrared
(d) Q12, N shields = N ( N + 1) Q12 , no shield radiation and entire UV radiation
TNPSC AE 2014 (c) Entire visible radiation, entire infrared
radiation and some portion of UV radiation
Ans. (a) : (d) Some portion of visible radiation and entire
1 infrared radiation
Q 1−2 with N shields = × Q 1−2 without shield
( N + 1) UPRVUNL AE 2016
297. Radiosity (J) for black surface is Ans. (c) : Thermal radiation includes entire visible
radiation, entire infrared radiation and some portion of
(a) Equivalent to emissive power Eb UV radiation.
(b) Greater than emissive power
302. If 5 radiation shields are placed between two
(c) Less than emissive power parallel plates, the rate of radiation heat
(d) None of the above transfer is reduced to: (ε = 1 for all surfaces)
TNPSC AE 2014 (a) 1/10 times (b) 1/5 times
Ans. (a) : We know that (c) 1/4 times (d) 1/6 times
J = Emitted energy + Reflected part of incident UPRVUNL AE 2016
energy. Ans. (d) :
J =E + ρ G 1 q
For black body (q/A)with 'n' shields =  
(n + 1)  A  with out any shield
ρ=0
so, J = Eb 1
= times
6
298. The equivalent emissivity of two parallel gray 303. Incident radiation of 1000 W/m2 fall on the
planes, whose emissivities are 0.2 and 0.5 is object. The energy absorbed by the object is
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.166 400 W/m2 and energy transmitted is 350 W/m2.
(c) 0.4 (d) 2.5 What will be the value of reflectivity?
TNPSC AE 2013 (a) 0.40 (b) 0.35
260
 (c) 0.75 (d) 0.25 (a) π (b) π/2
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 (c) 2/π (d) π/3
W JPSC AE PRE 2019
Ans. (d) : Incident radiation (G) = 1000 2 Ans. (a) : The ratio between emissive power and
m
intensity of normal radiation is π.
W
Energy absorbed by object = 400 2 Emissive Power
m =π
W Ib
Energy transmitted = 350 2
m 307. The amount of radiation mainly depends on:
W (a) Nature of body
So, energy reflected by body = 250 2 (b) Temperature of body
m (c) Type of surface of body
We know that (d) All of above
α + ρ +τ = 1 SJVN ET 2013
400 Ans. (d) : The amount of radiation mainly depends on
α= = 0.4 • Nature of body
1000
• Temperature of body
250 • Type of surface of body.
ρ= = 0.25
1000 308. In what form solar energy is radiated from the
350 Sun?
τ= = 0.35 (a) Ultraviolet radiation
1000
(b) Infrared radiation
304. Radiation thermal resistance may be written as
(c) Electro-magnetic waves
(where F, A, σ are shape factor, area and
(d) Transverse waves
Stefan-Boltzmann constant respectively)
JPSC AE PRE 2019
1 Ans. (c) : Electro-magnetic waves.
(a)
FAσ (T1 + T2 )(T12 + T22 ) 309. Two balls of same material and finish have
1 their diameters in the ratio of 2 : 1 and both
(b) are heated to same temperature and allowed to
FAσ (T1 + T2 )(T1 − T2 )
2 2
cool by radiation. Rate of cooling by big ball as
1 compared to smaller one will be
(c) (a) 1 : 4 (b) 2 : 1
FAσ (T1 − T2 )
4 4

(c) 1 : 2 (d) 4 : 1
1 Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
(d)
FAσ (T14 + T24 ) Ans. (d) : Use, Stefen Boltzman Law,
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 E ∝ T 4
Ans. (a) : We know that Q
= σT 4 Q∝A
Q = FAσ (T14 − T24 ) A
Q = FAσ (T12 + T22 )(T1 + T2 )(T1 − T2 ) Q = σT A4

2
(T1 − T2 ) Q1 A1 d12  2 
Q= = = = 
 1  Q 2 A 2 d 22  1 
  Q1 4
 FAσ (T1 + T2 )(T1 + T2 ) 
2 2
=
(T1 − T2 ) Q2 1
Q= Q1 : Q 2 = 4 :1
Rth
So, 310. When a black body absorbs all falling
1 radiations due to absorption, then
Rth = (a) A Black body shines
FAσ (T1 + T2 )(T1 + T2 )
2 2
(b) The temperature of black body rises
305. The degradation of plastics accelerated by (c) Black body radiates energy to other
(a) Ultraviolet radiation (d) Black body becomes good conductor of heat
(b) Dampness Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
(c) Corrosive atmosphere Ans. (a) : A surface that absorbs all radiation that
(d) None of these falling on it. The term arises because incident visible
SJVN ET 2013 light will be absorbed rather than reflected, therefore
Ans. (a) : The degradation of plastics is accelerated by this surface will appear black.
ultraviolet radiation. 311. All grey bodies obey the
306. The ratio between emissive power and intensity (a) Stefan-boltzmann's law
of normal radiation is (b) Planck's
261
 (c) Kirchhoff's law 317. A hemispherical furnace of radius 1.0 m has a
(d) Law of inertia roof temperature of T1 = 800 K and emissivity
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 ε1 = 0.8 . The flat floor of the furnace has a
Ans. (c) : A grey bodies obey the, Kirchhoff's Law :- temperature T2 = 600K and emissivity ε2 = 0.5 .
It states that, whenever a body is in thermal equilibrium The view factor F12 from surface 1 to 2 will be
with it's surrounding, its emissivity to its absorptivity. (a) 0.3 (b) 0.4
ε =∝ (c) 0.5 (d) 0.6
ESE 2019
312. If the ratio of emission of a body at a given Ans. (c) : From the geometry
temperature is a constant for all wavelengths,
the body is termed as
(a) Grey body (b) White body
(c) Qpaque body (d) Black body
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 F21 + F22 = 1
Ans. (a) : A gray body of which the monochromatic F21 + 0 = 1
emissivity (ε) is constant for the entire wavelength F21 = 1
spectrum. From reciprocity theorem
313. If G is irradiation and J is the radiosity, the net A1 F12 = A2 F21
radiation leaving the surface is A
(a) J (b) G F12 = 2 F21
(c) G-J (d) J-G A1
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 πR 2
Ans. (d) : J-G = ×1
2πR 2
314. An effective radiation shield should have the F12 = 0.5
highest possible value of 318. In transition boiling heat flux decreases due to
(a) Emissivity (b) reflectivity which of the following?
(c) absorptivity (d) transmissivity 1. Low value of film heat transfer coefficient at
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 the surface during 100°C to 120°C surface
Ans. (d) : An effective radiation shield should have the temperature
highest possible value of reflectivity. ex :- Mirror has 2. Major portion of heater surface is covered by
the highest value of reflectivity. vapour film which has smaller thermal
315. For the calculation of the shape factor conductivity as compared to liquid
(a) There should not be any intervening 3. Nucleate boiling occurs very fast
reflections between the surfaces Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) There should be at least one intervening below.
reflection between the surfaces (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Reflections do not affect the shape (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above ESE 2019
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 Ans. (b) : The heat flux decreases in the transition zone
Ans. (b) : There should be at least one intervening of boiling because a large fraction of the heater surface
reflection between the surfaces. is covered by a vapour film, which acts as an insulation
316. The intensity of solar radiation is maximum at due to the low thermal conductivity of the vapour
a wavelength of 0.49 µm. Assuming the Sun as relative to that of the liquid. 2
a black body, what is the approximate total 319. The temperature of a body of area 0.1 m is 900
emissive per of Sun? [Consider Wien's K. The wavelength for maximum
displacement constant = 2890 µm-K] monochromatic emissive power will be nearly
(a) 6.86 × 104 kW/m2 (a) 2.3µm (b) 3.2µm
(b) 6.86 × 107 kW/m2 (c) 4.1µm (d) 5.0µm
(c) 6.86 W/m2 ESE 2019
(d) 6.86 kW/m2 Ans. (b) : From Wien's displacement law
SJVN ET 2019 λmax ⋅ T = 2898 µmk
Ans. (a) : λmax ⋅ 900 = 2898
λT = 2890 µmK λmax = 3.22 µm
2890 320. In solar flat-plate collectors, the absorber plate
T= = 5897.95 K is painted with selective paints. The selectivity
0.49
is the ratio of
E = σAT 4 (a) Solar radiation-absorption to thermal infrared
–8 4
= 5.67 × 10 ×1 × (5897.95) radiation-emission
7 2
= 6.861 × 10 W/m (b) Solar radiation emission to thermal infrared
4 2
= 6.861 × 10 kW/m radiation-absorption
262
 (c) Solar radiation reflection to thermal infrared 1
radiation-absorption Ans : (c) q with shield = .q without shield
(d) Solar radiation absorption to thermal infrared n +1
radiation-reflection  q withshield  1
ESE 2018 1 −  = 1−
 q without shield  n +1
Ans. (a) : In solar thermal collectors, a selective surface  
or selective absorber is a means of increasing its  4 1
1 −  =
operation temperature.  5  n +1
The selectivity is defined as the ratio of solar radiation 1 1
absorption to thermal infrared radiation emission. =
5 n +1
321. The view factors F12 and F21, for the sphere of
diameter d and a cubical box of length ℓ = d as n=4
324. An ideal absorber of radiation is also an ideal
shown in the figure, respectively, are
emitter. It is known as :
(a) Kirchhoff's law (b) Wien's law
(c) Planck's law (d) Lambert's law
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans : (a) An ideal absorber of radiation is also an ideal
π π emitter. it is known as Kirchhoff's law.
(a) 1 and (b) and 1 Kirchhoff's law:- The emissivity of a body is equal to
3 3 its absorptivity when the body remains in thermal
π π equilibrium with its surrounding
(c) 1 and (d) and 1 ε = α (Kirchhoff's law).
6 6
ESE 2017 oppsc is given answer (c)
Ans. (c) : Summation rule for sphere 325. If ε is the emissivity of surfaces and shields and
F11 + F12 = 1 n is the number of shields, introduced between
the two surfaces, then overall emissivity is
F12 = 1 (∵ F11 = 0) given by
By reciprocity theorem 1 1
A1F12 = A2F21 (a) (b)
nε n (2 − ε )
A
F21 = 1 F12 1 ε
A2 (c) (d)
(n + 1)(2 − ε ) (n + 1)(2 − ε )
πd 2 BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
F21 = 2
6d ε
π Ans : (d) overall emissivity =
F21 = ( n + 1)( 2 − ε )
6 326. The temperature of a solid surface is raised from
322. For the radiation between two infinite parallel 227°C to 727°C, the emissive power of the body
planes of emissivity ε1 and ε2 respectively, will change from E1 to E2 such that E2/E1 is
which one of the following is the expression for (a) 400 (b) 16
emissivity factor? (c) 4000 (d) 1600
1 1 HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
(a) ε1 ε2 (b) + UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
ε1 ε 2
Ans : (b) T1 = 227°C + 273
1 1 T2 = 727°C + 273
(c) (d)
1 1 1 1 T1 = 500K
+ + −1
ε1 ε 2 ε1 ε 2 T2 = 1000K
MPPSC AE 2016 According 4
to Stefan - Boltzmann law:-
2
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II Eb = σT W/m
1 σ = Stefan - Boltzmann constant
Ans : (d) Emissivity factor = Eb = emissive power
1 1
+ −1 ( E )1 σT14
ε1 ε 2 =
323. It is desired to reduce the radiation energy ( E )2 σT24
exchange between two infinite parallel planes ( E )1  500 4
by inserting radiation shields of the same =
emissivity. The number of shields required for ( E )2  1000 
80% reduction will be: ( E )1 1
(a) 2 (b) 3 =
(c) 4 (d) 5 ( E )2 16
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II E2/E1 = 16
263
327. Heat is mainly transferred by conduction, Ans : (b)
convection and radiation in : Absorptivity ( α ), Reflectivity ( ρ ), Transmittivity ( τ )
(a) Insulated pipes carrying hot water
(b) Refrigerator freezer coil (i) For black body
(c) Boiler furnaces α = 1, ρ = 0, τ = 0
(d) Condensation of steam in a condenser (ii) For opaque body
UJVNL AE 2016 τ = 0, α + ρ = 1
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II (iii) For white body
Ans : (c) Heat is mainly, transferred by Conduction, ρ = 1, α = 0, τ = 0
Convection And radiation in boiler furnace.
331. Terrestrial radiation has a wavelength in the
range of
(a) 0.2µm to 4µm
(b) 0.2µm to 0.5µm
(c) 0.380µm to 0.760µm
328. Match list-I (law) with list-II (equation) select (d) 0.29µm to 2.3µm
the correct Ans.wer using the codes given UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
below the list:
List -I List -II Ans : (c) Terrestrial radiation has a wavelength in the
(a) stefan-Boltzmann law 1. q = hA(T1 − T2 ) range of 0.380 µ m to 0.760 µ m .
(b) Newton's law of 2. E = σE 0 332. A thermal transparent body is characterised by
cooling (a) absorptivity = 1
(b) reflectivity =1
KA ( T1 − T2 )
(c) Fourier's law 3. q = (c) absorptivity = reflectivity =0
L (d) none of the above
(d) Kirchoff's law ( )
4. q = σA T14 − T24 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
5. q = kA(T1 − T2 ) Ans. (c) : absorptivity = reflectivity =0
Code 333. Stefan-Boltzmann law is expressed as
A B C D (a) Q = σ AT4 (b) Q = σ A2T4
(a) 4 1 3 2 (c) Q = σ AT2 (d) Q = AT4
(b) 1 2 4 3 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
(c) 1 4 2 3 4
(d) 3 2 4 1 Ans. (a) : Q = σ AT
UJVNL AE 2016 334. The shape factor for radiation heat transfer of
Ans : (a) List -I List -I a long cylinder of radius r1 enclosed by another
i) stefan-Boltzmann law ( 4
q = σA T1 − T2 )4 concentric long cylinder of radius r2 is
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.50
ii) Newton's law of cooling q = hA(T1 − T2 ) (c) 0.75 (d) 1.0
KA UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
iii) Fourier's law q= ( T1 − T2 ) Ans. (d) : Shape factor for radiation heat transfer of a
L
iv) Kirchoff's law E = σE 0 long cylinder of radius r1 enclosed by another
concentric long cylinder of radius r2
329. Which non-metallic body is expected to have
highest value of emissivity? F12 = 1
(a) Iron oxide (b) Carbon
(c) Ice (d) Paper 335. _____ will radiate heat to a large extent.
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II (a) Black polished surface
Ans : (c) (b) White rough surface
Material Emissivity (c) White polished surface
Ice 0.97 (d) Black rough surface
Paper 0.86 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Aluminum foil 0.03 Ans. (c) : White polished surface
Brick 0.90 336. The radiant heat transfer per unit area (W/m2)
Glass 0.95 between two plane parallel gray surfaces
Silver 0.04
(emissivity = 0.9) maintained at 400 K and 300
330. For an opaque body sum of absorptive and
K is
reflectivity is
(a) 0 (b) 1.0 (a) 992 (b) 812
(c) less than 1.0 (d) greater than 1.0 (c) 464 (d) 567
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
264
Ans. (b) : Radiation heat transfer between parallel plate, 343. In which case the medium is not required for
the transfer of heat energy:-
=
(
σ T14 − T24 ) (a) Conduction (b) Convection
(c) Radiation (d) None of the above
1 1 
 + − 1 UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
 ∈1 ∈2  Ans. (c) :

=
(
5.67 × 10 −8 400 4 − 300 4 )
= 812 W/m 2
344. The process in which heat energy is
transmitted by means of electromagnetic waves
 1 1  is known as:-
 + − 1
 0.9 0.9  (a) Heat conduction (b) Heat convection
337. What is the equivalent emissivity for radiant (c) Heat radiation (d) None of the above
heat exchange between a small body (emissivity UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
= 0.4) in a very large enclosure (emissivity = Ans. (c) : The process in which heat energy is
0.5) ? transmitted by means of electromagnetic waves is
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.4 known as heat radiation.
(c) 0.2 (d) 0.1 345. Three radiation shields are placed between two
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II infinite parallel plates. The emissivities of
Ans. (b) : 0.4 plates and shields are same. As compared to
338. For an opaque plane surface, the irradiation, heat transfer without shields, the heat transfer
radiocity and emissive power are 20,12 and 10 with shield will become:-
W/m2 respectively. The emissivity of the 1 1
(a) (b)
surface is 3 9
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.4 1
(c) 0.8 (d) 1.0 (c) (d) None of the above
4
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (c) : 0.8 1
339. The Prandtl number will be the lowest for Ans. (c) : Qwith radiation shields = Qwithout radiation shields
(a) water (b) liquid metal ( n + 1)
(c) Aqueous solution (d) lube oil 1
= Qwithout radiation shields
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II ( 3 + 1)
Ans. (b) : liquid metal
Q with radiation shields 1
340. If one radiation shield is placed between two =
infinite parallel radiating plane surfaces, then Q without radiation shields 4
the amount of heat radiated becomes 346. Most of the terrestrial solar radiations
(a) one third (b) one fourth (received on the earth) lie within wavelength
(c) half (d) none of the above range:-
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (a) 0.10µm to 0.29µm (b) 0.29µm to 2.5µm
Ans. (c) : half (c) 3.8µm to 7.8µm (d) 102µm to 1010µm
341. The opaque body is that which:- UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
(a) Absorbs all radiations Ans. (b) :
(b) Reflects all radiations 347. Flat plate solar collectors are used for
(c) Transmits all radiations temperature applications above ambient of
(d) Partly reflects and partly absorbs the radiation about:-
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II (a) 20°C (b) 50°C
Ans. (d) : A body which partly reflects and partly (c) 100°C (d) 1000°C
absorbs the radiation is known as the opaque body. UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
342. According to Stefan Boltzman law the relation Ans. (c) :
between the total emission from a black body 348. The intensity of solar radiation on earth is of
per unit area and per unit time (Eb) and the the order of :-
absolute temperature (T) is given as:- (a) 1 kW/m2 (b) 2 kW/m2
2
(c) 3 kW/m (d) 4 kW/m2
(a) E b ∝ T 4 (b) E b ∝ T3
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
(c) E b ∝ T 2 (d) E b ∝ T Ans. (a) :
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II 349. Assuming the Sun to be a black body emitting
Ans. (a) : According to Stefan Boltzman law, radiation with maximum intensity at , the
Eb ∝ T4 surface temperature of the sun will be:-
Eb = σT4 (a) 491.4 K (b) 4914 K
(c) 49140 K (d) 491.4° C
W
Where, σ = 5.67 ×10−8 2 4 UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
m k Ans. (b) :
265
350. According to Wien’s law, the wavelength 356. A radiation shield is used around
corresponding to maximum energy is thermocouples in order to measure more
proportional to:- accurately the temperature of
(a) T–1 (b) T–2 (a) Solid (b) Gases
(c) T–3 (d) T–4 (c) Freezing liquid (d) Boiling liquid
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Ans. (a) : According to Wien's law Ans. (b) : A thermocouple is a sensor used to measure
T λmax = Constant temperature. Thermocouple consist of two wire legs
So, λmax ∝ T–1 made from different metals. The wire's leg are welded
together at one end, creating a junction. This junction is
351. If the ratio of emission of a body to that of a where the temperature is measured.
black body at a given temperature is constant A radiation shield is used around thermocouples in
for all wavelengths, the body is called:- order to measure more accurately the temperature of
(a) Black body (b) Gray body gases, because its volume is not fixed or its molecules
(c) White body (d) Opaque body are far away.
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
357. On which of the following factors does not
Ans. (b) : amount of radiation depend?
352. If a body is at thermal equilibrium, then:- (a) Temperature of body
(a) Emissivity < absorptivity (b) Type of surface of body
(b) Emissivity > absorptivity (c) Nature of body
(c) Emissivity = absorptivity (d) All of the above
(d) None of the above UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II Ans. (d) : 'Radiation' means energy released by
Ans. (c) : According to Kirchhoff's law, If a body is at radiating body is carried out packets of energy called
thermal equilibrium, "photons". There photons propagate trough space in
then Emissivity = absorptivity straight paths which speed is equal to that of light.
ε = α [at thermal equilibrium] Amount of radiation does not depend on temperature of
353. Which mode of heat transfer plays insignificant body, type of surface of body and nature of body.
role in a cooling tower? 358. Which of the following property is poor for gases?
(a) Radiation (b) Evaporative cooling (a) Transmissivity (b) Absorptivity
(c) Reflectivity (d) All of the above
(c) Convective cooling (d) All the above UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Ans. (c) : Reflectivity
Ans. (a) : A cooling tower is a heat rejection device
359. The temperature of sun can be measured by
that rejects waste heat to the atmosphere through the
using
cooling of a water stream to a lower temperature. (a) Radiation pyrometer
* In cooling tower, mode of heat transfer is radiation (b) Standard thermometer
which plays insignificant rate. (c) Mercury thermometer
354. At thermal equilibrium, the absorptivity and (d) None of above
emissivity are UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(a) unity (b) zero Ans. (a) : Radiation pyrometer
(c) different (d) equal 360. According to Wien's law the wavelength
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II corresponding to maximum energy is
Ans. (d) : According to Kirchhoff's Law, the proportional to
absorptivity and emissivity are equal when the body (a) T (b) T2
remains in thermal equilibrium with its surroundings. (c) T3 (d) T4
∈= α UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Ans. (a) : T
355. In case of black body
(a) Transmissivity is one 361. Planck's law holds good for
(a) Polished bodies (b) Black bodies
(b) Absorptivity is zero
(c) All coloured bodies (d) None of above
(c) Reflectivity is one UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b) : Black bodies
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
362. Which one of the following modes of heat
Ans. (d) : In case of black body absorptivity is one transfer would take place predominantly from
(i) For black body – α = 1, ρ = 0, τ = 0 boiler furnace to water wall?
(ii) For perfectly white body α = 0, ρ = 0 & τ = 0 (a) Convection (b) Conduction
(iii) For opaque body α + ρ = 1, τ = 0 (c) Radiation
(d) Conduction and convection
where, α = Absorptivity, ρ = Reflectivity UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
τ = Transmittivity Ans. (c) : Radiation
266
363. Radiation heat transfer occurs at a speed of (c) Is equal to the overall heat transfer coefficient
(a) Sound (b) Light (d) None of the above
(c) 60,000 km/hr (d) 350 m/s UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II Ans. (b) : Fouling factor is dirt factor, typically
Ans. (b) : Light denoted as (F). This is used for calculation o over all
364. Consider a surface at -5oC in an environment at heat transfer coefficient in heat exchangers.
25oC. The maximum rate of heat that can be The fouling factor decreases the overall heat transfer
emitted from this surface by radiation is coefficient. This is a measure of the thermal resistance
(a) 0 W/m2 (b) 155 W/m2 introduce by fouling.
(c) 293 W/m2 (d) 354 W/m2 368. The fouling factor in case of heat exchangers is
TNPSC AE 2014 given by ____
Ans. (b) : T1 = 25oC = 273 + 25 1 1 1 1
= 298 K (a) + (b) −
U dirty U clean U dirty U clean
T2 = – 5oC = 268 K
Q 1 1
then = σ ( T14 − T24 ) (c) (d) −1
A U dirty U dirty
= 5.67 × 10-8 [(298)4 – (268)4] TSPSC AEE 2015
Q W Ans. (b) : Fouling factor (F) in case of heat exchanger
= 154.64 2
A m is given by,
365. Which pair, out of the following alternatives, is 1 1
not correctly matched ? F= −
U dirty U clean
List – I List – II
(a) Fourier’s law – Conduction 369. When is arithmetic mean temperature
(b) Newton’s law of – Convection difference used instead of LMTD in heat
cooling exchange?
(c) Stephan-Boltz- – Radiation (a) When temperature profiles of two fluids of
man law heat exchanger are sloping downward with
(d) Kirchoff’s law – Radiation curve
+Convection (b) When the temperature profiles of two fluids
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II of heat exchanger are sloping upward with
Ans. (d) : Kirchoff’s law – Radiation curve
+Convection (c) When the temperature profiles of two fluids
of heat exchanger are straight
4. Heat Exchanger (d) When one of the temperature profile for the
fluid is straight
366. The mathematical expression of NTU in a heat APPSC AEE 2016
exchanger is, Ans. (c) : When the temperature profiles of two fluids
U = Overall heat transfer coefficient of heat exchanger are sloping upward with curve then
C = Heat capacity arithmetic mean temperature difference used instead of
E = Effectiveness LMTD in heat exchanger.
A = Area of heat exchanger 370. For evaporators and condensers, for the given
(a) UA/Cmin (b) UA/Cmax conditions, the Logarithmic Mean
UCmax Temperature Difference (LMTD) for parallel
(c) UA/E (d)
Cmin flow is
TNPSC 2019 (a) Equal to that for counter flow
TNPSC AE 2013 (b) Greater than that for counter flow
TSPSC AEE 2015 (c) Less than that for counter flow
(d) Very much smaller than that for counter flow
Ans. (a) : The mathematical expression of NTU in a
TNPSC AE 2017
UA Ans. (a) : Logarithmic mean temperature difference
heat exchanger is given as NTU =
C min (LMTD) → LMTD is defined as that temperature
Since, number of transfer units (NTU) is difference which is constant would give the same rate of
directly proportional to the area. It indicates the overall heat transfer as actually occure at under variable
size or bulkiness of H.E. usely NTU values are condition of temperature difference.
practically 1.115 θ −θ
LMTD θm = 1 2
θ
ln  1 
1.2, 1.5, 2, 2.5, 4
NTU >/ 18  θ2 
367. The fouling factor 371. For a specified NTU and capacity ratio 'c', the
(a) Increases the overall heat transfer coefficient effectiveness will be the highest for
(b) Decreases the overall heat transfer coefficient (a) parallel flow heat exchanger
267
 (b) counter flow heat exchanger (a) Indeterminate (b) 200C
0
(c) cross flow heat exchanger (c) 80 C (d) 1000C
(d) parallel flow and cross flow heat exchanger RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
TNPSC AE 2018 Ans. (d) :
Ans. (b) : Effectiveness for the parallel flow-
1 − exp  − (1 + C ) NTU 
ε=
1+ C
Effectiveness for the counter flow-
1 − exp  − (1 − C ) NTU 
ε= ∆θ1 = 1500 – 500 = 1000C
1 − C exp  − NTU (1 − C )  ∆θ2 = 1300 – 300 = 1000 C
372. The Log mean Temperature Difference ∵ ∆θ1 = ∆θ2
(LMTD) for the same inlet and outlet So LMTD is equal to AMTD
temperatures of hot and cold fluids, is ∆θ1 + ∆θ 2 100 + 100
∴ AMTD = =
(a) greater for parallel flow heat exchanger than 2 2
0
for counter flow heat exchanger LMTD = 100 C
(b) greater for counter flow heat exchanger than 376. The equation of effectiveness ∈ = 1 – e–NTU of a
for parallel flow heat exchanger heat exchanger is valid in the case of–
(c) same for both parallel and counter flow heat (a) boiler & condenser for parallel flow
exchangers (b) boiler & condenser counter flow
(d) dependent on the heat transfer coefficient of (c) boiler & condenser for both parallel flow and
the fluids counter flow
(e) dependent upon the thermal conductivity of (d) gas turbine for both parallel flow and counter
material of the heat exchangers flow
CGPSC AE 2014 -II RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
Ans. (c) : The Log Mean Temperature Difference Ans : (c) We know that heat capacity ratio,
(LMTD) for the same inlet and out let temperatures of C
hot and cold fluids, is same for both parallel and counter C = min
C max
flow heat exchanger.
In phase change (Boiling and condensation both) Cmax is
373. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, floating very high or infinite so capacity ratio is zero.
head is used for Effectiveness of heat exchanger in both parallel and
(a) less corrosion of tubes counter flow changes to
(b) large temperature differentials
(c) high heat transfer co-efficient ∈= 1 − e − NTU
(d) low pressure drop 377. Heat is transferred by all three modes of heat
(e) small temperature differentials transfer in–
CGPSC AE 2014 -II (a) refrigeration (b) condenser
Ans. (b) : In a Shell and tube heat exchanger, floating (c) electric bulb (d) boiler furnace
head is used for large temperature differentials. RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
374. Consider following facts about fouling factor. Ans : (d) There are three ways that heat is transferred.
1. is a dimensionless quantity Conduction, radiation and convection and all three
2. accounts for additional resistance to heat flow means occur in a boiler.
3. depend upon temperature • Heat is transfer from fire side to water side by
2
4. Its unit is m K/W conduction mode via tube.
Of these, which are correct • Heat is transfer by convection mode to form hot water
(a) 1 (b) 1 and 2 and steam and back to water to the boiler.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 • Heat is transfer by radiation mode from fire side light
(e) 1 and 4 waves are directly emitted on water tube.
CGPSC AE 2014 -II 378. Consider the following statements : in a shell
and tube heat exchange, baffles are provided
Ans. (d) :
on the shell side to (a) prevent the stagnation of
1. It is reciprocal of heat transfer coefficient (h)
shell side fluid (b) improve heat transfer (c)
1 provide support for tubes (d) prevent fouling of
F∝
h the above four statements the correct ones are-
2. Its unit is m2 K/W (a) (b), (c) and (d) (b) (a), (b) and (c)
3. Depend upon temperature (c) (a), (c) and (d) (d) (a), (b) and (d)
4. Accounts for additional resistance to heat flow. RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
375. In a counter flow heat exchanger, cold fluid Ans : (b)
enters at 300C and leaves at 500C, whereas hot a. Prevent the stagnation of shell side fluid
fluid enters at 1500C and leaves at 1300C. The b. Improve heat transfer
mean temperature difference for this case is : c. Provide support for tubes
268
379. Heat is transferred by all there modes of = ( mC ) c × (110 − 30 )
transfer, viz, conduction, convection and
radiation in It means, ( mC ) h > ( mC ) c
(a) Electric heater (b) Steam condenser
So, the capacity ratio of the heat exchanger
(c) Melting of ice (d) Boiler
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 ( mC ) min
C=
Ans. (d) : There are three modes of heat transfer in boiler ( mC ) max
conduction, convection and radiation. Heat is transfer from
fire side to water side by conduction mode via tube. ( mC ) c 20
= = 0.25
380. The effectiveness relation for all heat ( mC ) h 80
exchangers reduces to ε = εmax = 1 – exp (–
NTU) when the capacity ratio (C) 383. In a heat exchanger, hot gasses enter with a
(NTU refers to Number of Transfer Units) temperature of 250°C and leave at 50°C. On
(a) C = 1 (b) C < 1 the other side, air enters at a temperature of
(c) C > 1 (d) C = 0 50°C and leaves at 90°C. The effectiveness of
TNPSC 2019 the exchanger is to be quoted as:
Ans. (d) : Effectiveness for parallel H.E. (a) 0.15 (b) 0.20
1 − exp  − (1 + C ) NTU  (c) 0.25 (d) 0.30
εp = JWM 2017
(1 + C )
Ans. (*) : Effectiveness of heat exchanger
Effectiveness for counter flow H.E.
Actual heat transfer
1 − exp  − (1 − C ) NTU  =
εp = Max. possible heat transfer
1 − Cexp  − (1 − C ) NTU 
When one of the fluids in the H.E. is under ∈=
Q
=
( )
C h t h1 − t h 2
going change of phase like in steam condenser or
evaporator then C = 0
(
Q max C min t h − t c
1 ) 1

ε p = ε c = 1 − exp ( − NTU ) Where C min = Minimum of c h and Cc

Ch = and CC = heat capacity
381. A steel ball of mass 1 kg and specific heat 0.4 th1 = Temperature of hot fluid at inlet
kJ/kg is at a temperature of 60ºC. It is dropped th2 = Temperature of hot fluid at exit
into 1 kg of water at 20ºC. The final steady tc1 = Temperature of cold fluid at inlet
state temp of water is,
(a) 23.5ºC (b) 30ºC tc2 = Temperature of cold fluid at exit.
(c) 35ºC (d) 40ºC C ( 250 − 50 )
∈= h =1
TNPSC AE 2017 C min ( 250 − 50 )
Ans. (a) : Data given,
mb = 1 kg, Cb = 0.4 kJ/kg 384. The unit of fouling factor is:
Tb = 60ºC (a) W/m2 -K (b) m-K/W
mw = 1 kg (c) K/W (d) m2/K
2
Tw = 20ºC (e) m -K/W
We know that, CGPSC AE 2014- II
Heat loss by ball = Heat given by water Ans. (e) : We know that-
[mC∆T]ball = [mC∆T]water unit of fouling factor
Specific heat for water
Cw = 4.18 kJ/kg 1
=
1 × 0.4× [60 – Tf] = 1 × 4.18 × [Tf – 20] unit of heat transfer coefficient ( h )
Tf = 23.5ºC
1 m2 − K
382. In a heat exchanger, the hot liquid enters at a = =
temperature of 1800C and leaves at 160oC. The  W  W
 2 
cooling fluid enters at 30oC and leaves at 110oC. m − K
The capacity ratio of the heat exchanger is
385. The equation of effectiveness ε = 1 - e-NTU of
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.40 heat exchanger is valid (NTU) is number of
(c) 0.50 (d) 0.55 transfer units) in the case of-
TNPSC AE 2018 (a) boiler and condenser for parallel flow
Ans. (a) : We know that, Heat loss by hot liquid = heat (b) boiler and condenser for counter flow
gain by cold liquid (c) boiler and condenser for both parallel and
[ mC∆T ] h = [ mC∆T ] c counter flow
(d) gas turbine for both parallel and counter flow
[ mC] h × (180 − 160 ) RPSC AE 2018
269
Ans. (c) : The equation of effectiveness for parallel 389. Effectiveness of heat exchanger is function of:
flow heat exchanger (a) Heat capacity ratio only
1 − e − (1+C ) NTU (b) Surface area of heat exchanger only
ε parallel = (c) NTU and heat capacity ratio
1+ C (d) NTU only
and UPRVUNL AE 2016
1 − e − (1−C ) NTU Ans. (c) : The effectiveness (ε) of a heat exchanger is
ε counter =
1 − C × e− (1−C ) NTU defined as the ratio of the actual heat transfer to the
If one of the fluid in heat exchanger is undergoing maximum possible heat transfer.
change of phase like in steam condenser or evaporator q
and boiler then C = 0. ε=
So, qmax
εparallel = εcounter For heat exchanger
= 1 - e-NTU  C 
386. In a parallel flow heat exchanger, the NTU is ε = f  NTU , min 
calculated to be 2.5. The lowest possible  Cmax 
effectiveness for this heat exchanger is where the number of transfer unit, NTU
(a) 10% (b) 27% UA
(c) 41% (d) 50% NTU =
TNPSC AE 2014 Cmin
Ans. (d) : In a parallel flow heat exchanger, NTU = 2.5. where,
Then the lowest possible effectiveness for this heat U - overall heat transfer coefficient and A is the
exchanger will be 50%. heat transfer area.
387. The correction factor of multipass counter flow 390. Effectiveness (ε) and NTU relation for
heat exchanger depends on condenser may be written as
(a) Fluid properties (a) NTU = ln(1 + ε) (b) NTU = ln(1 - ε)
(b) Geometry alone NTU
(c) Temperature of Inlet and outlet fluid stream (c) NTU = - ln(1 - ε) (d) ε =
only 1 + NTU
(d) Mass flow rates of hot and cold fluid streams RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
TNPSC AE 2014 Ans. (c) : In condenser and evaporator there will be
Ans. (c) : The correction factor of multipass counter phase change of fluid so heat capacity ratio will be zero.
flow heat exchanger depends on temperature of Inlet ε = 1 − e − NTU
and outlet fluid stream only. (same for parallel and counter flow heat exchanger)
388. Cold water (Cp = 4.18 kJ/kgoC) enters a heat NTU = − ln(1 − ε )
exchanger at 15oC at a rate of 0.5kg/s, where it
391. For a compression or heating process what is
is heated by hot air (Cp = 1.0 kJ/kgoC) that
enters the heat exchanger at 50oC at a rate of the expression for effectiveness ∈
1.8 kg/s. The maximum possible heat transfer
rate in this heat exchange is increase of availability of surroundings
(a) ∈=
(a) 51.1 kW (b) 63.0 kW loss of availability of the system
(c) 66.8 kW (d) 73.2 kW
increase of availability of the system
TNPSC AE 2014 (b) ∈=
Ans. (b) : For cold water loss of availability of the surroundings
CP = 4.18 kJ/kgoC loss of availability of the surroundings
Tiw = 150C (c) ∈=
increase of availability of the system
mcw = 0.5 kg/s
For hot air loss of availability of the system
(d) ∈=
Cp = 1.0 kJ/kgoC increase of availability of the surroundings
TiA = 50oC TNPSC AE 2018
mHA = 1.8 kg/s
We know that, maximum possible heat transfer rate increase of availability of the system
Ans. (b) : ∈=
• loss of availability of the surroundings
Q max = Cmin (TiA – TiW)
392. For shell and tube heat exchanger, the
C W =  m c p  = 0.5 × 4.18 corrosive liquid is normally passed through
W
CW = 2.09 kJ/oC (a) Shell side
CHA = (m cp) = 1.8 × 1 = 1.8 kJ/oC (b) Tube side
Cmin = 1.8 kJ/oC (c) Either of (1) and (2) above
• (d) None of the above
Q max = 1.8 × (50 – 15) Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
• Ans. (b) : In a shell and tube exchanger, the corrosive
Q max = 63kW liquid is normally passed through tube side.
270
393. The NTU of a heat exchanger is an index of its energy and uses that energy to heat water in the home
(a) Number of tubs (b) Number of passes for bathing, washing and heating etc.
(c) Mode of operation (d) Performance A solar flate plate collector typically consists of a large
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 heat absorbing plate, usually a large sheet of copper or
Ans. (d) : The NTU is a measure of heat transfer size of aluminium as they are both good conductors of heat,
the exchanger, the larger the value of NTU the closer which is painted or chemically etched black to absorb as
the heat exchanger approaches its thermodynamics much solar radiation as possible for maximum
limit. efficiency. This is used to heat the water upto the
394. The overall heat transfer coefficient in a fouled temperature of 70-90ºC.
heat exchanger is comparison to the clean heat 397. In a counterflow heat exchanger, hot gases
exchanger is enter the system at 200ºC and leave at 80ºC.
(a) Negligible (b) equal The temperature of the outside air entering the
(c) more (d) less unit is 35ºC. Its temperature at the exit is 90º C.
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 The heat exchanger has an effectiveness of
Ans. (d) : The overall heat transfer coefficient in a (a) 0.35 (b) 0.34
fouled heat exchanger in comparison to the clean heat (c) 0.33 (d) 0.32
exchanger is less, because it leaves trace/deposits on the ESE 2018
surface of the separating wall. Ans. (*) : Given,
395. In a double pipe counter flow heat exchanger, Th1 = 200°C
10,000 kg/hr of oil [CP = 2.09 kJ/kg-K] is cooled Th 2 = 80°C
from 80oC to 50oC by water [CP = 4.18 kJ/kg-
K] of flow rate 8000 kg/hr entering at 25oC. Tc1 = 35°C
What will be outlet temperature of water? Tc2 = 90°C
(a) 63.75oC (b) 52.55oC
(c) 48.15oC (d) 43.75oC
SJVN ET 2019
Ans. (d) : Given,
Thi = 80ºC
Tho = 50ºC
Cph = 2.09 kJ/kg-K
mph = 10000 kg/hr
Tci = 25ºC
Tco = ? From energy balance
Cpc = 4.18 kJ/kgk Ch ( Th1 − Th 2 ) = Cc ( Tc2 − Tc1 )
mc = 8000 kg/hr Ch (200 − 80) = Cc (90 − 35)
120 Ch = 55 Cc
Ch 55
=
Cc 120
Ch = Cmin
Cc = Cmax
C h ( Th1 − Th 2 )
effectiveness (∈) =
Cmin ( Th1 − Tc1 )
200 − 80
= = 0.727
Applying heat balance equation, 200 − 35
mh Cph (Thi – Tho) = mc Cpc (Tco–Tci) 398. Consider the following statements:
10000 8000 1. The efficiency of heat transfer in a condenser
× 2.09 × (80 – 50) = × 4.18 × (Tco – 25) will improve by increase of the overall heat
3600 3600
Tco – 25 = 18.75 transfer coefficient.
Tco = 43.75ºC 2. The efficiency of heat transfer in a condenser
396. Flat plate collectors are used to heat the water will improve by increase of the velocity of flow
upto the temperature of of water in the tube.
(a) 70-90ºC (b) 100-200ºC 3. The difference between the temperature of
(c) 200-300ºC (d) 300-400ºC steam entering the condenser and the inlet water
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 temperature should be maximum for maximum
Ans. (a) : Flat plate collectors—A Flat plate collector efficiency.
is a heat exchanger that converts the radiant solar Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
energy from the sun into heat energy using the well
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
known green house effect. It collects or capture, solar
ESE 2017
271
Ans. (a) : Q = UA ∆Tm LMTD for Parallel flow heat exhanger
As velocity of flow of water increases the convective ∆T2 − ∆T1
heat transfer co-efficient on water side increases. As a LMTD =
log e ( ∆T2 / ∆T1 )
result U value increases.
T − Twi 401. A counter flow heat exchanger, the hot fluid is
Condenses efficiency = wo cooled from 110°C to 80°C by a cold fluid
Ts − Twi which gets heated from 30°C to 60°C. LMTD
If (Ts − Twi) is maximum denominator increases hence for heat exchanger is :
condenser efficiency decreases. (a) 80°C (b) 50°C
Where (c) 30°C (d) 20°C
Twi = temperature of cooling water at inlet
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
Two = temperature of cooling water at outlet
Ts = temperature of steam corresponding to the Ans : (b)
actual absolute pressure in the condenser.
399. In a counter flow heat exchanger, hot gases
enter at 250°C and leave at 100°C.
Atmospheric air enters at 50° C and leaves at
80°C. The effectiveness of the heat exchanger
will be
(a) 0.20 (b) 0.25
(c) 0.30 (d) 0.35 θ1 = 1100 C- 600C θ2 = 800C - 300C
ESE 2017 θ1= 50°C θ2 = 50°C
Ans. (*) : Given, Hence θ1 = θ2 = LMTD = 50o C
Th1 = 250°C Tc1 = 50°C
402. In a condenser of a power plant, the steam
Th 2 = 100°C Tc2 = 80°C condenses at a temperature of 60 oC. The
From energy balance equation cooling water enters at 30 oC and leaves at
mɺ h cph ( Th1 − Th 2 ) = mɺ c c pc ( Tc2 − Tc1 ) 45oC. Logarithmic Mean Temperature
Difference (LMTD) of the condenser
mɺ h cph ( 250 − 100 ) = mɺ cc pc (80 − 50 ) (a) 16.2 oC (b) 21.6 oC
o
mɺ h cph < mɺ c c pc (c) 30 C (d) 37.5 oC
Hence effectiveness of heat exchanger UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
Ans : (b)
Th − Th 2 250 − 100
∈= 1 =
Th1 − Tc1 250 − 50
= 0.75 (Not in options)
400. LMTD of a heat exchanger with ∆T1 , and ∆T2
being temperature differences between the hot
and cold fluids at entrance and exit,
respectively is: θ1 = 60o C − 30o C = 30o C
∆T2 − ∆T1 ∆T2 − ∆T1 θ2 = 60o C − 45o C = 15o C
(a) (b) Log mean temperature difference
 ∆T2   ∆T 
log   log  1  θ −θ
 ∆T1   ∆T2  θm = 1 2
θ 
∆T2 − ∆T1 [ ∆T2 − ∆T1 ] log e  1 
(c)
∆T2
(d) log  θ2 
 ∆T2 
  30 − 15
∆T1 θm =
 ∆T1   30 
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II log e  
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II  15 
Ans : (a) 15
θm =
0.693
θm = 21.6 °C
403. In a heat exchanger, the temperature of the hot
fluid decreases while temperature of the cold
fluid increases. The increase and decrease
following :
∆T1 = t h1 − t c1
(a) A quadratic law (b) A linear law
∆T2 = t h 2 − t h1 (c) A cubic law (d) An exponential law
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
272
 Ans : (d) The increase and decrease following an
exponential law.
404. If one of the two fluids flowing through a heat
exchanger of NTU = 2 remains at constant
temperature throughout the exchanger length,
the effectiveness of the heat exchanger will be
(a) 1 – e-4 (b) 1 – e-2
1 − e −2 1− e 2 θ1 = 50°C, θ2 = 50°C
(c) (d) It is the case as a balanced counter-flow heat exchanger
2 2 So, LMTD = 50°C
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
Ans : (b) It one of the two fluids flowing through a heat 409. Fouling factor in the design of heat exchanger
exchanger of NTU = 2 remains at Constant temperature is used considering the fact that:-
throughout the exchanger length, the effectiveness of (a) It is used when a liquid exchanges heat with
the heat exchanger will be 1-e-2 gas
405. In a certain heat exchanger, both the fluids (b) It is used in case of Newtonian fluids
have identical mass flow rate and specific heat (c) It is used as a dimensionless factor
product. The hot fluid enters at 76 °C and (d) It is a factor of safety in design
leaves at 47 °C and cold fluid enters at 26 °C UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
and leaves at 55 °C. The effectiveness of the Ans. (d) :
heat exchanger is 410. A correction of L.M.T.D. is necessary in case of
(a) 0.16 (b) 0.58 (a) cross flow heat exchanger
(c) 0.72 (d) 1.0 (b) parallel flow heat exchanger
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (c) counter flow heat exchanger
Ans. (b) : 0.58 (d) all of the above
406. During the process of boiling and condensation UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
only a phase change takes place, and one fluid Ans. (a) : Cross flow heat exchanger is a recuperater
remains at constant temperature throughout type heat exchanger in which hot fluids and cold fluid
the heat exchanger. In terms of number of flow line intersect to each other.
transfer units (NTU), the effectiveness of such * In this heat changer a correction of LMTD is
heat exchanger would be necessary.
NTU * LMTD for cross flow and multiplies heat exchanger
(a)
1 + NTU = Correction factor × LMTDcounter flow
(b) 1 – exp (–NTU) 411. L.M.T.D. in case of counter flow heat
1 − exp ( −2NTU ) exchanger as compared to parallel flow heat
(c)
2 exchanger is
(d) cannot be worked out as heat capacities are (a) higher (b) lower
unknown (c) same (d) cannot be predicted
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Ans. (b) : 1 – exp (–NTU) UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
407. For a double pipe, counter flow heat exchanger TNPSC AE 2013
with C = 1 (C = Cmin / Cmax) the effectiveness is Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
equal to:- Ans. (a) : LMTD in case of case of counter flow heat
NTU exchanger as compared to parallel flow heat exchanger
(a) (b) 1+1 / NTU is higher so counter flow heat exchanger is more
NTU − 1
NTU NTU + 1 effective and more useful.
(c) (d) Counter flow heat exchanger -
NTU + 1 NTU − 1
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (c) :
408. In a counterflow heat exchanger, the hot fluid
is cooled from 110°C to 80°C by a cold fluid
which is heated from 30°C to 60°C. LMTD for
the heat exchanger will be:-
(a) 80°C (b) 50°C 412. In case of heat exchanger, the value of
(c) 30°C (d) 20°C logarithmic mean temperature difference
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II should be
 θ1 − θ2  (a) as small as possible (b) as large as possible
Ans. (b) : We know that, LMTD =   (c) constant (d) none of the above
 ln θ1 / θ2  UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
273
 Ans. (b) : LMTD – Logarithmic mean temperature 416. In a heat exchanger, the oil is cooled from
difference. It is a performance approach of heat 135ºC to 15ºC with the water, if water inlet
exchangers. temperature is 5ºC and oil and water has the
* It is defined as the temperature different which, if same mass flow rate (Cp)oil = 1.04 Joule/gram
constant would give the same rate of heat transfer as and (Cp)water = 4.16 Joule/gram, the water outlet
actually occurs under variable conditions of temperature temperature is:
difference. (a) 150 (b) 135
* LMTD ↑ ⇒ Performance of Heat exchanger ↑ (c) 30 (d) 35
So, in case of heat exchanger, the value of logarithmic Gujarat PSC AE 2019
mean temperature difference ( LMTD) should be as Ans : (d) : Applying heat balancing equation,
large as possible.
413. For evaporation and condensation in a heat
( )
m h c P Th 1 − Th 2 = m c C Pc ( Tc2 − Tc1 )
h
exchanger, the required surface area will be Here, Th1 = 135oC
minimum for which type of flow? Th2 = 15oC
(a) Cross (b) Counter
Tc1 = 5oC
(c) Parallel (d) Same for all the cases
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II Tc2 = ?
Ans : (d) : Same for all the cases CPh = 1.04 Joule/gram
414. Fouling factor is used: CPc = 4.16 Joule/gram
(a) In heat exchanger design as a safety factor ɺ h =m ɺc
m
(b) In case of Newtonian fluids
(c) When a liquid exchanges heat with a gas 1.04 (135 – 15) = 4.16 (Tc2 – 5)
(d) None of these
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II Tc 2 = 35 o C
Ans : (a) : Fouling factor is used in heat exchanger 417. An adiabatic heat exchanger is used to heat
design as a safety factor. cold water at 15ºC entering at a rate of 5 kg/s
415. A designer chooses the values of fluid flow rates by hot air at 90ºC entering also at a rate of 5
and specific heats in such a manner that the kg/s. If the exit temperature of hot air is 20ºC,
heat capacities of the two fluids are equal. A the exit temperature of cold water is
hot fluid enters the counter flow heat (a) 27ºC (b) 32ºC
exchanger at 100ºC and leaves at 60ºC. A cold (c) 52ºC (d) 85ºC
fluid enters the heat exchanger at 40ºC. The Gujarat PSC AE 2019
mean temperature difference between the two Ans : (b) : Applying heat balancing equation,
fluids is:
(a) 30ºC (b) 20ºC ( ) (
m h C Ph Th1 − Th 2 = m c C Pc Tc 2 − Tc1 )
(c) 40ºC (d) 60ºC Here, Th1 = 90oC
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II Th2 = 20oC
Ans : (b) : Given,
Th1 = 100 ºC Tc1 = 15oC
Th2 = 60 ºC Tc2 = ?
Tc1 = 40 ºC mh = 5 kg/s
Tc2 = ? mc = 5 kg/s
Applying heat balance equation, C Ph = 1.008 kJ / kgK
( Th1 − Th 2 ) = ( Tc 2 − Tc1 ) C Pc = 4.18 kJ / kgK
(100 − 60 ) = Tc 2 − 40 So, 5 × 1.0085 (90 – 20) = 5 × 418 (Tc2 – 15)
Tc 2 = 80º C 70.56 = 418.(Tc2 - 15)
Tc2 = 31.88oC

Tc 2 = 32 o C
418. For evaporators and condensers, for the given
conditions, the logarithmic mean temperature
difference (LMTD) for parallel flow is:
(a) Equal to that for counter flow
(b) Greater than that for counter flow
(c) Smaller than that for counter flow
∵ θ1 = θ2 (d) Very much smaller than that for counter flow
∴ Log mean temperature difference (LMTD) Gujarat PSC AE 2019
LMTD = θ1 = θ2 Ans : (a) : The heat exchange through evaporators and
LMTD = 20ºC condensers does not depend on direction of flow.
274
419. A cross flow type air heater has an area of 422. Consider the following phenomena
50 m2. The overall heat transfer co-efficient is 1. Boiling
100 W/m2K and heat capacity of both hot and 2. Free convection in air
cold stream is 1000 W/K. The value of NTU is 3. Forced convection
(a) 1000 (b) 500 4. Conduction in air
(c) 5 (d) 0.2
Their correct sequence in the increasing order of
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II heat transfer is
(a) 4, 2,3,1 (b) 4,1,3,2
Ans : (c) :
(c) 4,3,2,1 (d) 3,4,1,2
UA
NTU = (e) 4,2,1,3
C min
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
A = 50 m2
Ans. (a) : Current sequence in the increasing order of
U = 100 W/m2K
Cmin = 1000 W/K heat transfer is
100 × 50 Conduction in air < Free convection <
NTU = forced convection < Boiling
1000
423. Which of the following is true?
NTU = 5
(a) Heat transfer coefficient in dropwise
condensation is very low in comparison to
5. Boiling and Condensation filmwise condensation
420. Nucleate boiling is promoted (b) Filmwise condensation is preferred over
(a) on polished surface dropwise condensation on heat transfer
(b) on rough surfaces surface
(c) in the absence of agitation (c) Dropwise condensation required very high
(d) none of these area of heat exchanger relative to filmwise
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 condensation
Ans. (b) : Nucleate boiling is a type of boiling that (d) Dropwise condensation cannot be easily
takes place when the surface temperature is hotter than sustained for prolonged period of time
the saturated fluid temperature by a certain amount. The
UPRVUNL AE 2016
heat transfer from surface to liquid is greater than that in
film boiling. Ans. (d) : Dropwise condensation cannot be easily
421. Which of the following is not the regimes of sustained for prolonged period of time.
pool boiling? 424. Nukiyama's Boiling curve is plotted between
(a) Natural convection boiling (a) Boiling temperature vs excess temperature
(b) Nucleate boiling (b) Boiling heat flux vs boiling temperature
(c) Film boiling (c) Boiling temperature vs boiling pressure
(d) Flow boiling
(e) Transition boiling (d) Boiling heat flux vs excess temperature
CGPSC AE 2014- II RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
UPRVUNL AE 2016 Ans. (d) : Nukiyama's Boiling curve is plotted between
Ans. (d) : Flow boiling is not the regimes of pool boiling heat flux vs excess temperature.
boiling.
425. Nucleate boiling regime is formed
approximately between (∆T excess = excess
temperature)
(a) 5º C ≤ ∆Texcess ≤ 10º C
(b) 50º C ≤ ∆Texcess ≤ 80º C
(c) 80º C ≤ ∆Texcess ≤ 100º C
(d) 5º C ≤ ∆Texcess ≤ 50º C
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (d) : When ∆T excess equal or greater than 5ºC
and equal or less than 50ºC then Nucleate boiling
regime is formed
5º C ≤ ∆Texcess ≤ 50º C

275
426. Consider the following statements:
For the laminar condensation on a vertical
plate, the Nusselt theory says that
1. Inertia force in the film is negligible
compared to viscosity and weight
2. Heat flow is mainly by conduction through
the liquid film, convection in liquid film as
well as in vapour is neglected
3. Velocity of vapour is very high
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
ESE 2019
Ans. (b) : Nusselt theory for the vertical plate
(i) The acceleration of condensate layer is negligible.
(ii) Heat transfer across the liquid film is by pure
conduction (no convection current and in the
liquid film and vapour)
(iii) The velocity of vapour is low so that it exerts no
drag on the condensate (no viscous shear on the
liquid vapour interface)
427. Which one of the following regimes of boiling
curve can be considered as reverse of
condensation?
(a) Free convection boiling regime
(b) Nucleate boiling regime
(c) Transition boiling regime
(d) Film boiling regime
ESE 2018
Ans. (d) :
! Boiling take heat and condensation release heat.
Boiling and condensation is opposite phenomenon. The
nucleate boiling exist up to ∆T ≃ 40°C while film
boiling temperature is greater than nucleate boiling.
So for film regime, condensation and boiling can be
considered as reverse phenomenon.
428. Dropwise condensation occurs on the following
surface:
(a) Oily (b) Smooth
(c) Glazed (d) Coated
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Ans. (a) : Dropwise condensation is a surface
condensation in which 90% of surface is covered by
drops. It occurs on the oily surface.
* Droplet formation is superior to film formation in
terms of maintaining high condensation and heat
transfer rates.
429. Which of the following is not the regimes of
pool boiling?
(a) Film boiling regime
(b) Nucleate boiling regime
(c) Slug flow regime
(d) Natural convection boiling regime
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (c) : Slug flow regime is not the regimes of pool
boiling.

430. Large heat transfer coefficients for vapour

condensation can be achieved by promoting
(a) Film condensation
(b) Dropwise condensation
(c) Cloud condensation
(i) Natural Convection Boiling (to point A on the (d) Dew condensation
boiling curve)–We do not see any bubbles ESE 2020
forming on the heating surface. Ans. (b) : Dropwise condensation.
(ii) Nucleate Boiling (Between Point A and C)–The
first bubbles start forming at point A of the 6. Mass Transfer
boiling curve. The nucleate boiling regime can be
431. The driving potential in mass transfer process
separated into two distinct regions i.e. AB and
is
BC. (a) concentration gradient
(iii) Transition Boiling (Between Point C and D)– (b) temperature gradient
As the ∆T is increases past point C, the heat flux (c) pressure gradient
decreases. (d) velocity gradient
(iv) Film Boiling (Beyond Point D)–In this region TNPSC AE 2018
the heater surface is completely covered by a Ans. (a) : Due to concentration gradient, mass transfer
continuous stable vapour film. take place.
276
 06. FLUID MECHANICS
(d) None of the above
1. Properties of Fluid Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (a) : Viscosity is defined as the property of fluid
1. Fluid is a substance which offers no resistance evolved due to internal resistance offered by one layer
to change of of the fluid to the adjacent layer.
(a) Pressure (b) Flow
(c) Volume (d) Shape 6. Newton's Law of viscosity states that
TNPSC 2019 (a) Shear stress is directly proportional to
Ans. (d) : Fluid is a substance which offers no velocity
resistance to change of shape. (b) Shear stress is directly proportional to
2. Which of the following has no unit? velocity gradient
(a) Surface tension (b) Kinematic viscosity (c) Shear stress is directly proportional to shear
(c) Strain (d) Bulk modulus strain
(KPSC AE 2015) (d) Shear stress is directly proportional to
viscosity
force ( tensile ) TNPSC AE 2014
Ans : (c) (i) Surface tension (σ) =
length UPRVUNL AE 2014
Unit = N/m Ans. (b) : Newton's Law of viscosity states that shear
Dynamic vis cos ity stress is directly proportional to rate of shear strain of
(ii) Kinematic viscosity (v) = velocity gradient.
Density
Unit = m /s 2 du
τ∝
changein length dy
(iii) strain (e) = du dφ
Original lenght τ=µ =µ
Unit :- No unit dy dt
Normalstress 7. Rate of deformation of fluid element is equal to
(iv) Bulk modulus(K) = (a) Shear stress
Volumetric strain
Unit = N/m 2 (b) Coefficient of dynamic viscosity
(c) Coefficient of kinematic viscosity
3. Which one of the following sets of condition
(d) Velocity gradient
clearly apply to an ideal fluid?
(a) Viscous and compressible RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
(b) Non Viscous and incompressible Ans. (d) : Rate of angular deformation
(c) Non Viscous and compressible or
(d) Viscous and incompressible Rate of shear deformation
RPSC AE 2018 or
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II Rate of shear strain
Ans. (b) : Condition for an ideal fluid dφ  du 
• Fluid must be non-viscous. γɺ = = 
dt  dy 
µ = 0, τ = 0
• Fluid must be incompressible. So, rate of angular deformation will be equal to velocity
• ∆ρ = 0, ρ = constant gradient in transverse direction.
• Fluid should be irrotational. As per Newton's law of viscosity
ω=0 dφ dφ
τ∝ ⇒τ = µ
4. The specific gravity of mercury is dt dt
(a) 1360 (b) 13600 This equation valid for 1-D, 2-D and 3-D flow
(c) 1.36 (d) 13.6 du
APPSC-AE-2019 τ =µ valid only for 1-D flow.
dt
ρ 13600 8. The viscosity of liquids decreases with increase
Ans. (d) : Sm = m = = 13.6
ρ w 1000 in temperature due to:
5. Viscosity is the property of fluid evolved due to (a) Decreased cohesive forces
(a) Resistance offered by the layers of fluid (b) Increased cohesive forces
(b) Resistance offered by sidewalls of the (c) Decreased molecular momentum transfer
channel (d) Increased molecular momentum transfer
(c) Spontaneous reactions in the fluid CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
277
Ans. (a) : In liquids main cause of viscosity is cohesion 12. The inside pressure of a hollow bubble of
between the molecules. With increase in temperature diameter 'd' subjected to surface tension 'σ' is
the cohesive force decreases as the energy of particles given by
become more, hence movement of particles become 4σ 8σ
easy. Hence viscosity of water decreases with increase (a) p = (b) p =
in temperature. d d
In gases the important cause of viscosity is σ 2σ
(c) p = (d) p =
randomness/molecular collision due to Crms(root mean 4d d
square) velocity. Due to rise in temperature, kinetic TNPSC AE 2013
energy of molecules increases which makes Crms Ans. (b) : The inside pressure of a hollow bubble of
increase, hence randomness and collision of molecules
increased. This makes the flow difficult and hence diameter 'd' subjected to surface tension 'σ' is given by
viscosity in gases increases with temperature. 8σ
For soap bubble p =
9. Falling drops of rain acquire spherical shape d
on account of 4σ
(a) viscosity (b) surface tension For Drop p=
(c) vapour pressure (d) compressibility d
TSPSC AEE 2015 2σ
For jet p=
Ans. (b) : Falling drops of rain acquire spherical shape d
on account of surface tension. 4σ
10. If σ refers to the surface, tension of the water, ρ For air bubble p=
refers to mass density g refers to gravitational d
accelerations d refers to the diameter of the 13. The viscosity of water with respect to air is
glass tube, then the capillary rise of water in about
the glass tube h is given by (a) 50 times (b) 55 times
2σ 3σ (c) 60 times (d) 65 times
(a) h = (b) h = UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
ρ gd ρ gd Ans. (b) : Viscosity is the propriety of the fluid by
4σ 6σ virtue of which the fluid offers resistance against shear
(c) h = (d) h = force.
ρ gd ρ gd
TNPSC 2019 ⇒ The viscosity of water is almost 55 times more than
Ans. (c) : The capillary rise of water in the glass tube h the viscosity of air.
is given as i.e. µwater > µair
4σ cos θ N −s
h= ⇒ Its unit is
ρg.d m2
N −s
4σ = 10 poise
So, h = m2
ρgd 14. Pick the correct statement about viscosity.
θ = 0o [ For water in glass tube ] (a) In general, it decreases with temperature for
liquids because the internal force of attraction
11. What happens to the liquid level, when a small between two fluid layers gets decreased.
diameter tube is inserted into a liquid whose (b) In general, it decreases with temperature for
contact angle is 125°? gases because the internal force of attraction
(a) Liquid level in the tube will fall first and then rise. between two fluid layers gets decreased.
(b) Liquid level in the tube falls.
(c) In general, it increases with temperature for
(c) Liquid level in the tube remains constant.
(d) Liquid level in the tube rises. liquids because the internal force of attraction
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift between two fluid layers gets increased.
(d) In general, it increases with temperature for
Ans. (b) : Case – 1 contact angle is acute gases because the internal force of attraction
between two fluid layers gets increased.
BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (a) : In general, it decreases with temperature for
liquid because the internal force of attraction between
In case of wetting fluid, level in capillary tube will rise. two fluid layers gets decreased.
Case – 2 Contact angle is obtuse In case of gases as the temperature increases the
molecular momentum transfer increases so viscosity of
gases increases.
15. The bulk modulus of elasticity with rise in
pressure:
In case of non – wetting fluid, level in capillary tube (a) Decreases
will fall. (b) Increases
278
 (c) Decreases first and after certain limit 20. If σ is the surface tension and R is the cylinder
increases radius, the pressure increase (∆P) in the
(d) Remains constant interior of a liquid cylinder is given by
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II σ 2σ
Ans : (b) : The bulk modulus, (a) (b)
R R
dP dP
K = −V =ρ 3σ 4σ
dV dρ (c) (d)
When fluid is compressed, its molecules come closure R R
APPSC-AE-2019
and make the fluid compact and heavier. So density
increases and bulk modulus also increases. Ans. (a) : The pressure rise across cylindrical liquid jet
is given by
16. Calculate the specific weight of one litre of
petrol of specific gravity 0.7 2σ σ
∆P = =
(a) 700 N/m3 (b) 6867 N/m3 D R
3
(c) 9810 N/m (d) 6.8 N/m3 21. In Newtonian fluids, the shear stress is
TNPSC 2019 (a) directly proportional to the viscosity
Ans. (b) : sp. gravity of petrol (b) inversely proportional to the viscosity

=
( )
Density of petrol ρ p (c) directly proportional to the deformation rate
(d) directly proportional to the shear strain
Density of water ( ρ w ) APPSC-AE-2019
ρ p = ρ w × sp. gravity of petrol Ans. (c) : As per Newton's law of viscosity, shear stress
is directly proportional to rate of shear strain or
kg deformation rate.
ρ p = 1000 × 0.7 = 700 3
m 22. For pseudoplastic non-Newtonian fluids, the
Specific weight of petrol = ρ p × g apparent viscosity
(a) increases with increasing deformation rate
= 700 × 9.81 (b) decreases with increasing deformation rate
3
= 6867 N/m (c) is independent of the deformation rate
17. Choose the correct relationship (d) decreases with time
(a) Specific gravity = gravity × density APPSC-AE-2019
(b) Dynamic viscosity = kinematic viscosity × Ans. (b) :
density
(c) Gravity = specific gravity × density
(d) Kinematic viscosity = dynamic gravity ×
density
TNPSC 2019
Ans. (b) : We know that relation between dynamic
viscosity and kinematic viscosity is given as
µ
ν=
ρ
µ = ν×ρ
unit of (µ) Pa -s Pseudo plastic fluid : (represented by line OE).
• τy = 0 and n < 1
m2 • The apparent viscosity decreases with the rate
unit of ( ν ) →
s of deformation or rate of shear strain. Hence, Pseudo
18. The relation between surface tension 'σ' and plastic fluids are also called shear thinning fluids.
difference of pressure 'p' between the inside e.g. Blood, milk, Paper Pulp, Polymeric
and outside of a liquid drops is given as ____ solutions such as rubber, suspension paints.
σ σ 23. One kgf/cm2 when converted to SI units is
(a) p = (b) p = (a) 0.0981 MPa (b) 0.98 MPa
8d 6d (c) 104 Pa (d) 1 Pa
σ 4σ TNPSC AE 2017
(c) p = (d) p =
2d d 9.81 N
TSPSC AEE 2015 Ans. (a) : kgf / cm 2 = = 9.81× 104 Pa
−4 2
Ans. (d) : 10 m
19. In an incompressible fluid flow, the density of = 0.0981 × 106 Pa = 0.0981 Mpa
the medium is 24. The excess pressure in a droplet of 0.002m
(a) Zero (b) Infinity diameter a fluid with surface tension of 0.01
(c) Constant (d) Unity N/m is
APPSC-AE-2019 (a) 10 (b) 20
Ans. (c) : For incompressible flow (c) 4 π (d) 0.0004 π
density (ρ) = constant TNPSC AE 2017
279
Ans. (b) : Ans. (b) : Viscosity of gas increase with increase in
4σ temperature because viscosity of gas depends on
Pgauge = molecular velocity or molecular momentum transfer
d
Temperature Liquid (µ) Gas (µ)
4 × 0.01
= T ↑ ↓ ↑
0.002 29. A fluid in which resistance to deformation is
= 20 Pa independent of the shear stress is known as
25. Property of a fluid by which molecules of (a) Pseudo plastic fluid
different kinds of fluids are attracted to each (b) Bingham plastic fluid
other is called (c) Dilatant fluid
(a) adhesion (b) cohesion (d) Newtonian Fluid
(c) viscosity (d) surface tension TNPSC AE 2014
TNPSC AE 2018 Ans. (d) : A fluid in which resistance to deformation is
Ans. (a) : Adhesion, is the property of fluid by which independent of the shear stress is known as Newtonian fluid.
molecules of different kinds of fluids are attracted to 30. Which of the following fluid is heaviest?
each other. (a) Air (b) Castor oil
26. Compressibility is the reciprocal of (c) Glycerine (d) Carbon tetra chloride
(a) bulk modulus of elasticity TNPSC AE 2014
(b) shear modulus of elasticity Ans. (d) : Carbon tetra chloride
(c) young's modulus of elasticity 31. The tank of size 2m × 2m × 2m hold, how much
(d) viscosity litre of water?
TNPSC AE 2018 (a) 8000 litres (b) 6000 litres
Ans. (a) : Compressibility is the reciprocal of bulk (c) 4000 litres (d) 2000 litres
modulus of elasticity. TNPSC AE 2013
 ∆V  Ans. (a) : Given, V = 2 × 2 × 2 m3
1  V  V = 8 m3
β= = we know that
K ∆P 1 litter = 10-3 m3
27. Statement (I): Non viscous flow between two V = 8 × 103 litters
plates is an example for irrotational flow. V = 8000 litters.
Statement (II): Forced vortex is irrotational in 32. Which of the following is not the unit of
nature. dynamic viscosity?
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are (a) N-s/m2 (b) Poise
individually true and Statement (II) is the (c) Pa.s (d) Nm2/s2
correct explanation of Statement (I) UPRVUNL AE 2016
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are Ans. (d) : Unit of dynamic viscosity is given as
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT We know that
the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false  du 
τ = µ 
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true  dy 
UPSC JWM 2017
N m N
Ans. (c) : Non-viscous flow is a flow has zero viscosity = (µ ) × µ = 2 × sec
µ=0 m 2
sec× m m
du F N
τ = µ ; τ = 0; =0 1Pa = 1 2 µ = Pa − sec
dy A m
Shear force, F = 0  dyne − sec 
In non-viscous flow– fluid particle do not In CGS unit of dynamic viscosity is Poise  cm 2 
revolve it own centre of mass as absence of shear force
33. A cube of 1 m side has weight 1000 N in water.
which makes it irrotational flow. What will be its weight in air (g = 10 m/s2)?
Forced vertex flow– When a fluid is rotated (a) 9,000 N (b) 1,000 N
about a vertical axis with constant speed and every (c) 11,000 N (d) 10,000 N
particle of this fluid has some angular velocity. UPRVUNL AE 2016
Forced vortex is rotational in nature.
Ans. (c) : In equilibrium
28. Viscosity of the gas weight in air = Weight in water +
(a) decreases with increases in temperature weight of displaced water
(b) increases with increase in temperature = W + ρW × VW × g
(c) remains same with increase in temperature = 1000 + 1000 × 1 × 1 × 1 × 10
(d) may increase or decrease with increase in = 1000 + 10000 = 11000 N
temperature depending upon the atomic 34. The nature of stress-strain plot for the
structure of the gas Newtonian fluid is
CGPSC AE 2014 -II (a) Hyperbolic (b) Parabolic
280
 (c) Linear (d) Non-linear 37. Determine the bulk modulus of elasticity of
HPPSC AE 2018 liquid, if the pressure of liquid is increased
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 from 60N/cm2 to 120N/cm2. The volume of
Ans. (c) : The nature of stress-strain plot for the liquid was found to decrease by 0.20%.
Newtonian fluid is linear. (a) 1×104 N/cm2 (b) 2×104N/cm2
4 2
du (c) 3×10 N/cm (d) 4×104 N/cm2
τ∝ (e) 5×10 4
N/cm 2
dy
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
du
τ= µ Ans. (c) : Data given,
dy P1 = 60 N/cm2, P2 = 120 N/cm2
µ → Dynamic viscosity V1 = V, V2 = 0.998V
35. For liquids, the values of dynamic viscosity (µ) ∆P (120 − 60 ) = − 60 = − 60 ×103
and kinematic viscosity (υ) are K= =
 V2 − V1  V 0.002 2
(a) Highly dependent of variation of pressure
  ( 0.998 − 1)
(b) Practically independent of variation of  V1  V
pressure
(c) Practically independent of variation of K = −3 × 10 4 N / cm 2
temperature 38. A clean glass tube of 2 mm diameter contains
(d) Increases with increase in temperature water at 400C. The capillary rise is
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 approximately
Ans. (b) : For liquids— (a) 5mm (b) 10mm
(a) Dynamic viscosity (µ) (c) 15mm (d) 20mm
• Temperature ↑ , molecular cohesive force ↓ , µ ↓ (e) 25mm
• Pressure ↑ , µ = constant CGPSC AE 2014 -II
Ans. (c) : Given,
µ↓ Dia of glass tube (d) = 2 mm
(b) Kinematic viscosity— υ =
ρ↓ for water θ = 00
Temperature ↑ , µ ↓ ρ ↓ σ = 0.073 N/m
So So,
Temperature ↑ , ν ↓ 4σ cos θ 4 × 0.073 × cos 00
h= =
• Effect of pressure. ρgd 1000 × 9.81× 2 × 10−3
µ h = 14.88 mm ≈ 15 mm
ν=
ρ 39. The SI unit of kinematic viscosity is
P ↑ µ = constant, P ↑ ρ = constant (a) m/s2 (b) Kg/m-s
2
So variation of pressure does not effect µ and ν for (c) m /s (d) m3s2
2
liquids. (e) dyne/s
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
36. Select the correct equation from following:
(a) Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Ans. (c) : The SI unit of kinematic viscosity is m2/s
2 2
Atmospheric pressure m cm
1 = 104
(b) Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure – s s
Atmospheric pressure 1 cm2/s (1-Stoke) = 10-4 m2/s
(c) Atmospheric pressure = Gauge pressure + 40. Match List I with List II and elect the correct
Absolute pressure answer:
(d) Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure + List I List II
Atmospheric pressure A Ideal fluid 1 Shear stress does not
(e) Atmospheric pressure = 2(Gauge pressure + very linearly with the
Absolute pressure) rate of strain
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) B Newtonian fluid 2 Tensile stress varies
Ans. (a) : From this fig. linearly with the rate
of strain
C Non-Newtonian 3 Shear stress i zero
fluid
D Bingham plastic 4 Viscosity decreases
with increase in
temperature
5 Shear stress varies
linearly with the rate
Pabs = Patm + Pgauge of strain
281
 6 Fluid behave like a Ans. (c) : The density of water is 1000 kg/m3 at 4oC and
solid until a minimum 277oK.
yield stress beyond 45. A plate 0.02 mm distance from a fixed plate
which it exhibits a moves at 20 cm/s requires a shear stress of 4
linear relationship N/m2 to maintain this speed. Viscosity of fluid
between shear stress available inside these plates is :
and the rate of strain (a) 4 × 10-4 Poise (b) 4 × 10-6 Poise
(a) A-3, B-5, C-6, D-1 (b) A-3, B-5, C-1, D-6 Ns Ns
(c) A-5, B-3, C-4, D-2 (d) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2 (c) 4 × 10−5 2 (d) 4 × 10 −4 2
(e) A-2, B-6, C-5, D-3 m m
CGPSC AE 2014 -II TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
Ans. (b) : Ideal fluid - Shear stress is zero Ans. (d) : Data given,
Newtonian fluid - Shear stress varies linearly with the y = 0.02 × 10–3 m, u = 0.2 m/s, τ = 4 N , µ = ?
 du  m2
rate of strain  τ ∝  We know that,
 dy 
τ 4 Ns
Non- Newtonian fluid - Shear stress does not vary µ= = = 4 × 10 −4 2
linearly with the rate of strain.
Bingham plastic - Fluid behaves like a solid until a
u/y (
0.2 / 0.02 × 10)−3
m

minimum yield stress beyond which it exhibits a linear 46. If one litre of a fluid has a mass of 7.5 kg then
relationship between shear stress and the rate of shear its specific gravity is:
strain. (a) 0.75 (b) 7.5
(c) 75 (d) 750
41. Newtonian fluids are the one which TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
(a) Obeys Newton's law of viscosity
(b) Obeys Hook's law Ans. (b) : Data given,
(c) Obeys Williamson's law m kg
m = 7.5 kg, V = 1 litre = 10–3m3, ρ = = 7.5 × 103 3
(d) Obeys Power law V m
JPSC AE PRE 2019 Then, Specific gravity of fluid
Ans. (a) : Newtonian fluids are the one which obeys ρ 7.5 × 10 +3
Newton's law of viscosity. Newton's law of viscosity is = fluid = = 7.5
given by ρwater 1000
47. When the fluid is at rest, the shear stress is
du
τ =µ (a) maximum (b) zero
dy (c) unpredictable (d) none of the above
42. Which fluid does not experience stress during Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
flow? Ans. (b) : Fluid at rest cannot resist a shear stress is
(a) Dilatant (b) Bingham zero.
(c) Viscoplastic (d) Inviscid 48. For the conversion of one poise into MKS unit
JPSC AE PRE 2019 of dynamic viscosity dividing factor will be
du (a) 9.81 (b) 0.981
Ans. (d) : τ = µ (c) 98.1 (d) 981
dy Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
for Inviscid, µ = 0, Then τ = 0 Ans. (c) : The dividing factor of converting one poise
into MKS unit of dynamic viscosity is 98.1.
43. A liquid compressed in a cylinder has a volume 1 Ns 1 kgf − s
of 0.04 m at 50 kg/cm and volume 0.039 m at 1 poise =
3 2 3
2
= ( ∵ 1kgf = 9.81N )
10 m 98.1 m 2
150 kg/cm2. The bulk modulus of elasticity of
liquid is: 49. Dimension of surface tension is:
(a) 400 kg/cm2 (b) 4000 kg/cm2 (a) ML2T-2 (b) MT-2
-1 -2
(c) 40 × 105 kg/cm2 (d) 40 × 106 kg/cm2 (c) ML T (d) MT-1
SJVN ET 2019
SJVN ET 2013
Ans. (b) :
Ans. (b) :
Direct stress Force MLT −2
Bulk modulus (K) = Surface tension σ = = = MT −2
Volumetric strian Length L
50. A plate weighing 150 N and measuring 0.8 ×0.8
150 − 50 m2 just slides down an inclined plane over an
= = 4000 kg/cm2
0.04 − 0.039 oil film of 1.2 mm thickness for an inclination
0.04 of 30° and velocity of 0.2 m/s. Then the
44. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3 at viscosity of the oil used is
(a) 0oC (b) 0oK (a) 0.3 Ns/m2 (b) 0.4 Ns/m2
o o
(c) 4 C (d) 20 C (c) 0.5 Ns/m 2
(d) 0.7 Ns/m2
SJVN ET 2013 ESE 2019
282
Ans. (d) : Given, W = 150 N 53. The normal stresses within an isotropic
A = 0.8 × 0.8 m2 Newtonian fluid are related to
dy = 1.2 mm 1. Pressure
θ = 30° 2. Viscosity of fluid
du = 0.2 m/s 3. Velocity gradient
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE 2018
Ans. (d) : The normal stresses of an isotropic
Newtonian fluid are related to pressure, viscocity and
velocity gradient. The relationships for the normal
stresses is
For Newtonian fluid ∂u
du σx = − p + 2µ
τ =µ ∂x
dy 54. A Spherical water drop of 1 mm in diameter
F 150sin 30 splits up in air in to 64 smaller drops of equal
where τ = shear stress = = size. The surface tension coefficient of water in
A 0.8 × 0.8
15000 N air is 0.073 N/m. The work required in splitting
τ= up the drop is
128 m 2 (a) 0.96×10−6 J (b) 0.69×10−6 J
15000 du 0.2 (c) 0.32×10 J −6
(d) 0.23×10−6 J
=µ =µ
128 dy 1.2 × 10−3 ESE 2017
N −s Ans. (b) : Given–
µ = 0.70 D = 1 mm
m2 R = 0.5 mm
51. A force of 400 N is required to open a process n = 64
control valve. What is the area of diaphragm σ = 0.073 N/m
needed for a diaphragm actuator to open the Volume before splitting = Volume after splitting
valve with a control gauge pressure of 70 kPa?
4 3 4
(a) 0.0095 m2 (b) 0.0086 m2 πR = n ⋅ πr 3
(c) 0.0057 m 2
(d) 0.0048 m2 3 3 3
ESE 2018 R = nr3
Ans. (c) : Given, R 0.5 1
r = 1/ 3 = =
F = 400 N n (64)1/ 3 8
N r = 0.125 mm
P = 70 kPa = 70 × 103 2 Surface energy before splitting E1 = σ.4πR2
m
F Surface energy after splitting E2 = n.(σ4πr2)
Area of diaphragm A = So, work require in splitting = E2 − E1
P = 4πσ [nr2 − R2]
400 = 4 × 3.14 × 0.073 [64 (0.125)2 − (0.5)2] × (10−3)2
=
70 × 103 E2 – E1 = 0.687 × 10−6 J
= 0.0057 m2 55. If the bulk modulus of elasticity of the water is
52. A force of 10kN is required to move a work 2.2 × 106 kN/m2, the speed of pressure wave is
piece. What is the needed working pressure, if given by
the piston diameter is 100 mm? (a) 22000 m/s (b) 1483.2 m/s
(a) 1.55 MPa (b) 1.46 MPa (c) 3561.2 m/s (d) 500.3 m/s
(c) 1.27 MPa (d) 1.12 MPa APPSC-AE-2019
ESE 2018Ans. (b) : The speed of pressure wave (or sonic speed)
Ans. (c) : Given, is given by
F = 10 kN = 10 × 103 N K 2.2 × 109
d = 100 mm = 0.1 m v= = = 1483.2 m / s
ρ 1000
πd 2
Area (A) = = 7.85 × 10−3 m2 56. The viscosity of a liquid is
4 (a) Decreases with increase in temperature
Let the needed working pressure is P (b) Remains practically constant with
F temperature rise of fall
So P=
A (c) Fairly large as compared to viscosity for
10 × 103 N gases
P= −3
= 1.27 × 106 2 (d) Consider body influenced by molecular
7.85 × 10 m momentum transfer
P = 1.27 MPa TNPSC 2019, 2018
283
Ans. (a) : The viscosity of a liquid is decreases with (c) Bulk modulus K=0, perfectly incompressible
increase in temperature because of molecular cohesive force and change in volume is ∞.
of liquid decrease with increase in temperature of liquid. (d) Bulk modulus K= ∞, perfectly compressible
For liquid T ↑ µ ↓ and change in volume is zero.
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
For gas T ↑ µ ↑ [Molecular momentum transfer rate ↑ ] Ans : (a) Block volume = V mm3
57. Match list-I with list-II select the correct hydrostatics pressure = P MPa
Answer Modulus of Elasticity (E) = E GPa
List -I List -II Poisson's ratio (ν ) = 0.5
(a) Dynamic viscosity 1. Pa normal stress
(b) Kinematic viscosity 2. m2/Sec Bulk modules (K) =
Volumetric strain
(c) Torsional stiffness 3. Ns/m2 If Volumetric strain Should be zero then Bulk Modulus
(d) Modulus of rigidity 4. N/m is ∞.
5. Nm we know that for incompressible
Code
∆V
A B C D =0
(a) 3 2 4 1 V
(b) 5 2 4 3 σ
K= n
(c) 3 4 2 3 0
(d) 5 4 2 1 K=∞
UJVNL AE 2016 61. Kinematic viscosity is equal to
Ans : (a) List -I List-II (a) Density/dynamic viscosity
i) Dynamic viscosity Ns/m2 (b) Dynamic viscosity/density
ii) Kinematic viscosity m2/Sec (c) Dynamic viscosity x density
iii) Torsional stiffness N/m (d) None of these
iv) Modulus of rigidity Pa (KPSC AE 2015)
58. Mercury does not wet the glass due to (HPPSC LECT. 2016)
(a) Its cohesion is zero Dynamic Vis cos ity
(b) Its surface tension is zero Ans : (b) Kinematic viscosity =
Density
(c) Its adhesion is zero
(d) It is a solid metal at room temperature. ν = µ/ ρ
UJVNL AE 2016 Unit of kinematic viscosity = m2/sec. (SI unit)
Ans : (c) Mercury does not wet the glass due to its Unit of kinematic viscosity = cm2/sec or stoke (CGS unit)
1m2 /sec= 104 cm2/sec = 104 stoke
adhesion is zero. Adhesioin is the tendency of dissimilar
particles or surfaces to cling to one another (cohesion 62. SI unit of viscosity is:
refers to the tendency of similar or identical (a) 1 poise (b) 10 poise
(c) Centipoise (d) None of the above
particles/surfaces to cling to one another).
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
59. Newton's law of viscosity depends upon the: Ans : (b) Unit of viscosity:-
(a) Stress and strain in a fluid
(b) Shear stress, pressure and velocity Kgf − sec
(i) MKS unit of viscosity =
(c) Shear stress and rate of strain m2
(d) Viscosity and shear stress dyne − sec
UJVNL AE 2016 (ii) CGS unit of viscosity =
cm 2
Ans : (c) Newton's law of viscosity depends upon the N − sec
shear stress and rate of shear strain. (iii) SI unit of viscosity =
Newton's law of viscosity:- m2
µ.du 1kgf − sec 9.81N − sec
τ= = = 9.81 poise
dy m2 m2
τ = shear stress N − sec
10poise = 1
du m2
= Rateof shear strain
dy 63. Cavitation is caused by :
(a) Low surface tension (b) High pressure
µ = Cofficient of dynamics vis cosity
(c) Low pressure (d) Low velocity
60. A block of volume V mm3 is subjected to OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
hydrostatic pressure P MPa modules of Gujarat PSC AE 2019
elasticity is E GPa and Poisson's ratio ν = 0.5. Ans : (c) Cavitation is caused by low pressure .
Which statement is true about the block? Cavitation :-Cavitation is defined as the phenomenon
(a) Bulk modulus K=∞, perfectly incompressible of formation of vapour bubbles of a flowing liquid in a
and change in volume is zero. region where the pressure of the liquid falls below its
(b) Bulk modulus K=1, perfectly incompressible vapour pressure and the sudden collapsing of these
and change in volume is zero. vapour bubbles in a region of higher pressure.
284
64. In the CGS unit, dynamic viscosity is expressed 68. The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube
as of 1 mm bore containing water is
(a) poise (b) Pa-s approximately :
(c) stokes (d) None of the above (a) 5 mm (b) 10 mm
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 (c) 20 mm (d) 30 mm
du HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
Ans : (a) τ = µ . ( Newton's viscosity law ) Ans : (d) Given, t = 20°c
dy
glass tube dia = 1 mm
τ = shear stress (N/m2) σ = 0.0736 N/m
µ = Dynamic Viscosity 4σ cos θ
h=
du ρdg
= RateChange of shear strain.
dy cos θ = 1 (θ = 00)
τ 4σ
µ= h=
( du dy ) ρgd
4 × 0.0736
N × sec × m h= m
µ= 9810 × 1× 10−3
m ×m
2
h = 30 mm
N 69. Surface tension is due to
µ = 2 − sec ( In SI unit ) (a) Cohesion
m
µ = poise (In C.G.S. unit) (b) Viscous force
65. Compressibility of a liquid is expressed by its: (c) Adhesion
(a) Density (d) The difference between adhesive and
(b) Pressure cohesive force
(c) Volume MPPSC AE 2016
(d) Bulk modulus of elasticity Ans : (a) Surface tension is due to cohesion
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) force.
1 Surface tension:- Surface tension occur at the interface
Ans : (d) Compressibility = of liquid and gas or at the interface of two liquid.
Bulk modulus * It is a surface phenomenon
Increase of pressure * It is force per unit length (N/m)
Bulk modulus =
Volumetric strain * For water-air interface at 20°C its value is 0.0736 N/m
Compressibility is the reciprocal of the bulk modulus of * It is due to cohesion only.
elasticity. 70. The density of a fluid is sensitive to changes it
66. Surface tension is expressed as: pressure. The fluid will be known as :
(a) Force per unit area (a) Newtonian fluid (b) Perfect fluid
(b) Force per unit volume (c) Compressible fluid (d) Real fluid
(c) Force per unit length MPPSC AE 2016
(d) Force only Ans : (c) The density of a fluid is sensitive to change it
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) pressure. The fluid will be known as Compressible fluid.
Ans : (c) Surface tension:- Surface tension is defined 71. Units for surface tension is expressed in
as the tensile force acting on the surface of a liquid in (a) N/m (b) N/m2
contact with a gas or on the surface between two (c) m/N (d) n2/m
immiscible liquid such that the contact surface behaves TSPSC AEE 2015
like a member an under tension. Ans : (a) Surface tension:- Surface tension occur at the
Tensile force Surface energy interface of liquid and gas or at the interface of two
σ= oR liquid.
unit lenght Unit area. * It is a surface phenomenon
67. One poise is equal to: * It is force per unit length (N/m)
(a) 1 Ns/m2 (b) 10 Ns/ m2 * For water-air interface at 20°C its value is 0.0736 N/m
(c) 0.1 Ns/ m2 (d) 0.01 Ns/m2 * It is due to cohesion only.
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) 72. Newton's law of viscosity is given by the
du relation
Ans : (c) τ = µ (Newton's law of viscosity)
dy du du
(a) τ = µ 2 (b) τ = µ
µ = Dynamic viscosity dy dy
N du du
(i) Dynamic viscosity unit is Pa- sec or sec (c) τ = µ (d) τ = µ3
m2 dy dy
(ii) 1 Poise = Dyne - sec/cm2 TNPSC AE 2018
(iii) 1 Poise = 0.1 N - Sec / m2 TPSC AE. 2015
285
Ans : (c) 77. Which of the following expression correctly
defines the relationship between internal
pressure intensity (p) and the radius of
spherical droplet (r)?
1
(a) p ∝ (b) p ∝ r
r
1
(c) p ∝ 2 (d) p ∝ r 2
r
du UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
τ∝ (According to Newton's law of viscosity) Ans. (a) :
dy
78. The height of water column corresponding to a
du pressure equivalent of 60 cm of mercury
τ = µ.
dy column will be:-
τ = shear stress (a) 816 cm (b) 8160 cm
(c) 81.6 cm (d) 7996.0 cm
du UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
= Rate of shear strain.
dy Ans. (a) : [ρgh]water = [ρgh]mercury
73. The equation of state for a perfect gas is 1000 × g × hw = 13600 × g × 0.6
P P V hw = 816 cm
(a) = RT (b) = 79. An oil with specific gravity 0.85 and viscosity
V T R
3.8 poise flows in a 5cm diameter horizontal
P
(c) PV = RT (d) =T pipe at 2.0 m/s. The Reynolds number will be
ρ approximately:-
APPSC AEE 2012 (a) 224 (b) 2240
Ans : (c) The equation of state for a perfect gas is (c) 22.4 (d) 22400
PV = mRT. UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
R = gas constant Ans. (a) : Given as,
J Specific gravity = 0.85
Unit of R = µ = 3.8 poise
kg − K d = 5 cm
Value of R = 0.287 kJ/kg – K (for air) V = 2.0 m/s
74. Surface tension is a phenomenon due to 0.85 ×1000 × 2 × 0.05
(a) Cohesion only Re =
(b) Viscous forces only 3.8 ×10−1
Re = 223.68 ≃ 224
(c) Adhesion between liquid and solid molecules
(d) Difference in magnitude between the forces 80. An oil having kinematic viscosity 0.25 stokes
due to adhesion and cohesion flows through a pipe of 10cm diameter. The
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II flow will be critical at a velocity of about:-
(a) 0.5 m/s (b) 1.5 m/s
Ans. (d) : Difference in magnitude between the forces (c) 1.8 m/s (d) 4.6 m/s
due to adhesion and cohesion UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
75. An oil of kinematic viscosity 0.5 stokes flows Ans. (a) : Critical reynold number, [Re]cr = 2000
through a pipe of 5 cm diameter. The flow is V×D
critical at a velocity of about Re =
(a) 0.2 m/s (b) 2 m/s v
(c) 2.5 m/s (d) 4 m/s 2000 × 0.25 ×10−4
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II V=
0.1
Ans. (b) : 2 m/s V = 0.5 m/s
76. What will be the depth of a point below water 81. Unit of kinematic viscosity is:-
surface in sea, where pressure intensity is 1.006 (a) m2/s (b) N.s/m2
MN/m2? (Specific gravity of sea water = 1.025) (c) kg/s.m 2
(d) m/kg.s
(a) 10 m (b) 100 m UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
(c) 1000 m (d) 1 m Ans. (a) :
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
82. One stoke is equal to
Ans. (b) : Given as, (a) 1 cm2/s (b) 1 m2/s
P = 1.006 × 106 Pa (c) 1 ft2/s (d) 1 m.m2/s
kg UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
ρsea water = 1025 3
m Ans. (a) : 'Stake' is a unit if kinematic viscosity.
P 1.006 × 106 1 stoke = 10-4 m/s2 = 1 cm2/s
Then, h = = 1 C.S. = 10–2 stokes
ρsea water × g 1025 × 9.81 * At 200C Kinematic viscosity of water is 1 C.S.
h = 102.54 ≃ 102 m * It's dimension ⇒ M0L2T-1.
286
83. Viscosity has the following dimensions: 87. In the surface tension of a soap bubble is 0.035
(a) MLT–2 (b) ML–1T–2 N/m, then work done in blowing the soap
(c) ML–2T–2 (d) ML–1T–1 bubble of radius 5 cm in air is :
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II (a) 220 mJ (b) 2.2 mJ
TNPSC AE 2014 (c) 22 mJ (d) 0.22 mJ
N −s BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (d) : Unit of viscosity ⇒ Ans. (b) : Given -
m2
N −s surface tension of sope bubbles
1 2 = 10poise σ = 0.035 N/m
0
m radius of soap bubble = R = 5 cm
At 20 C viscosity of water is 1 C.P. (Centi Poise).
work done = σ [ change of surface area ]
-1 -1
* Dimension of viscosity ⇒ ML T .
2
84. A flat plate 0.1 m area is pulled at 30 cm/s = σ  2 × 4πR 2 
relative to another plate located at a distance
of 0.01 cm from it, the fluid separating them = 0.035 × (2 × 4 × π × 0.052)
being water with viscosity of 0.001 Ns/m . The 2 = 0.002199
power required to maintain velocity will be = 2.199 × 10–3J
(a) 0.05 W (b) 0.07 W = 2.2 mJ
(c) 0.09 W (d) 0.11 W 88. Pick the correct statement about mechanical
ESE 2020 pressure of fluid element.
Ans. (c) : (a) It is a first order tensor and depends upon the
du u orientation of the surface upon which it acts.
∵Shear stress, τ = µ =µ (b) It is a zero order tensor and does not depend
dy y
upon the orientation of the surface upon
Power, P = ( τ× A ) × u which it acts.
 v  u 2 (c) It is zero order tensor and depends upon the
=  µ × A  × u = µA orientation of the surface upon which it acts.
 y  y (d) It is a first order and does not depend upon
Given : µ = 0.001 N-s/m2 the orientation of the surface upon which it
y = 0.01 cm acts.
u = 30 cm/s BHEL ET 2019
A = 0.1 m2 Ans. (b) :
So, the putting the respective values, • When fluid is contained in a vessel, it extents force
( 30 ) × 10−2
2
at all points on the sides and bottom and top of the
P = 0.001× 0.1× container.
0.01
• Pressure is a scalar quantity and it have only
P = 0.09 W magnitude not direction.
85. When the pressure of liquid is increased from • Pressure is a zero order tensor.
3 MN/m2 to 6 MN/m2, its volume is decreased 89. 'A fluid is at rest' means that :
by 0.1%. The bulk modulus of elasticity of the (a) it has zero normal stress and non-zero shear
liquid will be stress.
(a) 3 × 1012 N/m2 (b) 3 × 109 N/m2 (b) it has non-zero normal stress and zero shear
(c) 3 × 108 N/m2 (d) 3 × 104 N/m2 stress.
ESE 2020 (c) it has non-zero normal stress and shear stress.
Ans. (b) : ∵ Bulk modulus of elasticity, (d) it has zero-normal stress and zero shear stress.

=−
( 6 − 3) × 10 K = − dp
6 BHEL ET 2019
= 3 × 109 N / m 2 Ans. (b) : A fluid is at rest means, it has non-zero
 0.1   dv  normal stress and zero shear stress.
   
 100   v  90. Newton's law of viscosity is about
86. Pick the correct statement about the bulk (a) Ideal fluid
modulus of elasticity : (b) Velocity gradient and rate of shear strain
(a) it is a dimensionless number relation
(b) is independent of pressure and viscosity (c) Shear deformation and shear stress relation
(c) it is larger if fluid is more compressible (d) Pressure and volumetric strain
(d) it is higher if the fluid is less compressible Gujarat PSC AE 2019
BHEL ET 2019
Ans : (c) : Shear deformation and shear stress relation.
Ans. (d) : Bulk modulus of elasticity (K) is defined as
the ratio of compressive stress to voloumetric strain. 91. Select the quantity in the following that is not a
dimensionless parameter
dp Vdp (a) Froude number (b) Weber number
Bulk modulus = K ↑= =−
dV dV ↓ (c) Kinematic viscosity (d) Pressure coefficient
−
V Gujarat PSC AE 2019
287
Ans : (c) : Kinematic viscosity 'ν' Fx = W sin 300
Dynamic viscosity 1
ν= = 1 × 103 ×
Density 2
Kinematic viscosity has the dimensions L2 T-1 and the 1
Fx = 1000 × = 500N
units m2 s-1. 2
92. Viscosity of water in comparison to mercury is Area =a×a
(a) Lesser (b) Higher = 0.1 × 0.1
(c) Equal (d) Unpredictable = 0.1 m2
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 According to Newtonian fluid
Ans : (a) : Viscosity of water in comparison to mercury du
is lesser. τ=µ
dy
93. The velocity gradient in the transverse
v
direction for a fluid flow equals τ=µ
(a) the pressure gradient in the flow y
(b) the rate of shear strain Fx v
(c) the stress at that point =µ
A y
(d) the strain at that point
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper Fy
v=
Ans. (b) : Newton's law of viscosity, τ ∝ γ Aµ
Where, τ = Shear stress 500 × 0.2 ×10 −3 500 × 0.02
dφ du = =
Rate of shear strain γɺ = = = 0.01×10 3 0.002 × 10 3
dt dy 10
dφ du = = 5 m / sec
τ=µ =µ 2
dt dy
It is velocity gradient but physically it is rate of shear 2. Pressure and its Measurement
strain of fluid.
94. Select the correct statement- 96. A water lake has a maximum depth of 100 m. If
(a) viscosity of a gas increases with temperature the atmospheric pressure is 101 kPa, the
(b) density of a gas increases with temperature absolute pressure at this depth is
(c) surface tension of a liquid increases with (a) 1082 kPa (b) 881 kPa
temperature (c) 900 kPa (d) 678 kPa
(d) bulk modulus of elasticity in independent of APPSC-AE-2019
temperature Ans. (a) : P = Patm + ρgh
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016 = 101 × 103 + 1000 × 9.81 × 100
Ans : (a) Viscosity of gas increases with temperature = 1082 kPa
due to molecular momentum transfer of momentum 97. The intensity of pressure at any in a liquid at
diffusion of molecules. rest is same in all direction. The above
95. A cubical wooden block of edge 100 mm and statement is known as
weight 1 kN sliding down on an inclined plane (a) Kirchoff's law (b) Pascal's law
of inclination 30o with the horizontal. A (c) Newton's law (d) Darcy-Weisbach law
Newtonian fluid with a viscocity of 0.2 Ns/m2 is TNPSC AE 2018
layered on the incline plane. If the thickness of Ans. (b) : According to Pascal's law, the intensity of
the fluid layer is 0.02 mm, then terminal pressure at any point in a liquid at rest is same in all
velocity of the bock in m/s is : direction.
(a) 0.25 (b) 2.5
(c) 5 (d) 0.5 98. An oil of specific gravity 0.9 is contained in a
BHEL ET 2019 vessel. At a point the height of oil is 40m. Find
the corresponding height of water at the point.
Ans. (c) : Given - (a) 900 m (b) 36 m
Cubic block a = 100 mm (c) 10.33 m (d) 18 m
a = 0.1 m TNPSC AE 2018
weight (W) = 1 kN
θ = 300 kg
Ans. (b) : ρ oil = 900 3
µ = 0.2 N-s/m2 m

h = 40 m
Then pressure at bottom
288
 Pgauge = ρgh 5. lbf pound 0.453 kgf
1 = =
= 900 × 9.81 × 40 Pa ( inch ) 2
( inch ) 2
( 2.54 ) 2 cm 2
for height of water at that point, pressure will 0.453
be same. = × 9.81× 10 4 Pa
ρ w × g × h w = ρ oil × g × h oil ( 2.54 ) 2

900 × 9.81× 40 PSI → Pound per square inch

hw = 1 atm = 14.7 PSI
1000 × 9.81
hw = 36m 102. Which of the following is a Mechanical Gauge ?
99. If a pipe contains an oil of sp. gr 0.9 and a (a) Diaphragm gauge
differential manometer connected at the two (b) Dead weight pressure gauge
points A and B shows a difference in mercury (c) Bourdon tube pressure gauge
level as 15 cm, the difference of pressure at the (d) All the above
two points will be UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
(a) 1.32435 N/m2 (b) 1905 N/m2 Ans. (d) : All the above
(c) 18688 N/m 2
(d) 124587 N/m2 103. In a differential manometer, a head of 1.8m of
TNPSC AE 2018 fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of
0.9 m of fluid B in limb 2. The ratio of specific
Ans. (c) : ( PA − PB ) = ( ρ m − ρ oil ) × g × h gravities of A to B is
= (13600 − 900 ) × 9.81× 0.15 (a) 2 (b) 0.5
(c) 3 (d) 0.18
= 18688.05 N/m2 (e) 0.33
100. Statement (I): For measurement of pressure at CGPSC AE 2014 -II
a section of a pipe running full, several Ans. (b) : According to question
openings round the periphery of pipe are often Head of 1.8m of fluid A in limb - 1 = Head of 0.9 m of
connected to a manometer through a common fluid B in limb - 2
annulus. 1.8 ×SA = SB × 0.9
Statement (II): Manometer connections to a
SA 0.9 1
pipe should be perpendicular to the axis of = =
flow, edges smooth and free from burrs. SB 1.8 2
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are SA
individually true and Statement (II) is the = 0.5
correct explanation of Statement (I) SB
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT
the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
UPSC JWM 2017
Ans. (d) : Monometer connected to a pipe should be
perpendicular to the axis of flow, edges smooth and free
from burs. 104. A gauge indicates 15kPa as the fluid pressure
while, the ambient pressure is 160 kPa.
101. Which of the following is correct for the unit of (a) 1.68 (b) 1.78
pressure? (c) 1.73 (d) 1.83
(a) 1 bar = 105 N/m2 = 105 Pa (e) 1.64
(b) 1 bar = 105 N/mm2 = 105 Pa CGPSC AE 2014 -II
(c) 1 MPa = 100 bar = 1000 kN/m2 Ans. (b) : Given, Pg = 15 kPa , Patm = 160 kPa
(d) 1 MPa = 10 bar = 100 kN/m2 Pabs. = Patm + Pg = 160 + 15 = 175 kPa
(e) 1 bar = 105 kN/m2 = 105 Pa 175 × 103 kgf
CGPSC AE 2014- II Pabs = = 1.78 kgf / cm 2
9.81 × 104 cm 2
Ans. (a) : Unit of pressure-
105. The pressure gradient along any free surface is
N (a) Always
1. 1 pa − 1 2
m (b) Always positive
N (c) May be positive or negative depending upon
2. 1 bar − 10 5 2 acceleration
m
3. 1 atm. – 101325 Pa (d) zero
(e) free from acceleration
kgf 9.81 N
4. 1 2 − −4 2 = 9.81×10 4 Pa CGPSC AE 2014 -II
cm 10 m Ans. (d) The pressure gradient along any free surface zero
289
106. High vacuum pressure is most commonly Ans. (d) : Pabs = Patm – ρgh
expressed in: 1.2 × 9.81 × 3000
(a) Pascal (b) cm of water = 10.144-
(c) Torr (d) micron 10000
= 10.144–3.5316
SJVN ET 2013 = 6.612 N/cm2
Ans. (c) : High vacuum pressure is most commonly
112. Statement I: A differential inverted U-tube
expressed in Torr.
manometer determines the difference in
1 Torr = 133.32 Pa pressures between two points in a flow section
107. A barometer measures: to which it is connected.
(a) Atmospheric pressure(b) Gauge pressure Statement II: The sensitivity of ·an inclined
(c) Absolute pressure (d) Vacuum gauge depends on the angle of inclination.
SJVN ET 2013 ESE 2018
Ans. (a) : A barometer measures atmospheric pressure. Ans. (b) : (i) The differential inverted U tube
108. Piezometer is used for measuring: manometer measure the pressure difference between the
(a) Pressure (b) Temperature two points where the manometer is connected. The
(c) Electrical Resistance (d) None of these pressure difference between the two points is given by
SJVN ET 2013  ρ 
∆P = ρgx 1 − m 
Ans. (a) : Piezometer is used for measuring pressure.  ρ 
109. It is required to find pressure difference (ii) The sensitivity of the inclined manometer is given
between two horizontal pipes through which by
water is flowing using inverted manometer. 1
Two manometric fluids with specific gravities Sensitivity =
13.6 and 0.8 and are available. sin θ
Hence both the statements are individually true and
Which manometric fluid is to be used now?
(a) Fluid with specific gravity 13.6 second is not the correct explanation or first.
(b) Fluid with specific gravity 0.8 113. In order to increase sensitivity of U-tube
(c) Both fluids can be used manometer, one leg is usually inclined by angle
(d) None can be used θ. Sensitivity of inclined tube to sensitivity of U-
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 tube is equal to:
Ans. (b) : Fluid with specific gravity 0.8 is used as a (a) sin θ (b) cos θ
manometric fluid in inverted manometer because this (c) tan θ (d) 1/sin θ
fluid have low specific density than flowing fluid OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
[ specific gravity of water S = 1] in pipes. Ans : (d) In order to increase sensitivity of U - tube
110. Inside a soap bubble, the pressure is manometer. one leg is usually inclined by angle θ.
4σ 2σ Sensitivity of inclined tube to sensitivity of U-tube is
(a) (b)
d d equal to 1/Sinθ.
8σ 6σ
(c) (d)
d d
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (c) :
• Pressure inside drop
(solid like sphere)
4σ (sensitivity ) U-tube ∝ x
P=
d x
• Pressure inside soap bubble (sensitivity inclined) tube ∝
sin θ
8σ 114. McLeod gauges are used for measuring:
P=
d (a) RPM of shaft (b) Surface roughness
• Pressure inside jet (c) Vacuum (d) Velocity
2σ (HPPSC LECT. 2016)
P=
d Ans : (c) McLeod gauges used for measuring vacuum.
111. If the atmospheric pressure at sea level is A McLeod gauge is a scientific instrument used to
10.144 N/cm2, what will be the absolute measure very low pressures. It was invented in 1874 by
pressure at the height of 3 km from sea level? Herbert McLeod (1841-1923). These gauges have
[Pressure variation may be assumed to follow largely been replaced by electronic vacuum gauges. The
hydrostatic law, density of air is assumed design of a McLeod gauge is somewhat similar to a that
constant as 1.2 kg/m3] of a mercury-column manometer. Typically it is filled
(a) 7.612 N/m2 (b) 13.675 N/cm2 with mercury. If used incorrectly, this mercury can
(c) 8.612 N/cm2 (d) 6.612 N/cm2 escape and contaminate the vacuum system attached to
SJVN ET 2019 the gauge.
290
115. The depth of a fluid is measured in vertical Z- density of mercury to be 13600 kg/m3, for the
direction; X and Y are the other two directions given values of heights, the gauge pressure in
and are mutually perpendicular. The static kN/m2 will be :
pressure variation in the fluid is given by
(symbols have the usual meaning).
dp dp
(a) =g (b) =0
dz dz
dp dp
(c) = ρg (d) = −ρg
dz dz
MPPSC AE 2016
 ∂p 
Ans : (d)  p + .dz  (a) 90 (b) 1900
 ∂z 
(c) 19 (d) 190
BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (d) : Applying hydrostatic law at O-O
Pg + 1000 × 9.81 × 0.4 – 13600 × 9.81 × 0.5 +
1000 × 9.81 × 0.3 – 13600 × 9.81 × 0.7 + 1000 × 9.81
× 0.07 + 1000 × 9.81 × 0.1 – 13600 × 9.81 × 0.6 = 0
Pg + 3924 – 66708 + 1962 + 40024.8 – 93391.2
+ 6867 – 981 – 80049.6 = 0
Pg + 52777.8 – 241730.2 = 0
Pg = 188.952 kN/m2
Pg ≈ 190 kN / m 2

∂p 119. If a mercury-oil differential manometer shows

Hydrostatics law = −ρg a 20 cm difference of mercury level, the
∂z difference in the pressure head is (consider the
116. The atmospheric pressure at sea level is specific gravity of oil = 0.8)
(a) 101.3 kN/m2 (b) 10.3m of water (a) 2.0 m of oil (b) 2.5 m of oil
(c) 760 mm of Hg (d) All of these (c) 3.2 m of oil (d) 4.2 m of oil
TSPSC AEE 2015 APPSC-AE-2019
Ans : (d) Atmospheric pressure:- The atmospheric air Ans. (c) : By using formula
exerts a normal pressure upon all surface with which it
is in contact and it is known as atmospheric pressure. it ρ   13600 
h = x  m − 1 = 0.2  − 1
is also known as barometric pressure. ρ
 o   800 
Standard atmospheric pressure = 101.3 KN/m2 = 3.2 m of oil.
= 10.3 m of water
120. Pirani gauge is used for the measurement of:
= 760 mm of Hg (a) Very high pressure
117. Which property of mercury is the main reason (b) High vacuum
for use in barometers? (c) Liquid level under pressure
(a) High density (d) Liquid level at atmospheric pressure
(b) Negligible capillary effect OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(c) Very low vapour pressure Ans : (b) : The pirani gauge is a robust thermal
(d) Low compressibility conductivity gauge used for the measurement of the
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II pressure in vacuum systems.
Ans : (c) Very low vapour pressure of mercury is the 121. The reading of the pressure gauge fitted on a
main reason for use in barometers. vessel is 25 bar. The atmospheric pressure is
Vapour Pressure : Molecules of liquid have tendency 1.03 bar and the value of g is 9.81 m/s2. The
to escape from the free surface and get deposited on the absolute pressure in the vessel is :
top of the container if it is closed. These molecules (a) 23.97 bar (b) 25.00 bar
exert partial pressure, which is known as vapour (c) 26.03 bar (d) 34.84 bar
pressure. RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
The saturation vapour of Hg. at 200C is 1.2×10–6 m of Ans. (c) : Pabs = Patm + Pgauge
Hg. = 1.03 + 25
118. The below figure shows multi-tube manometer Pabsolute = 26.03 bar
using water and mercury that is used to 122. Select the correct statement
measure the pressure of air in a vessel. It is (a) Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure -
given that h1 = 0.4 m, h2 = 0.5 m, h3 = 0.3 n, h4 = Atmospheric pressure
0.7 m, h5 = 0.1 m and h6 = 0.5 m. Assuming the (b) Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure -
density of water to be 1000 kg/m3 & the Atmospheric pressure
291
 (c) Absolute pressure = Atmospheric pressure + Ans : (b) In an inclined planes submerged in water, the
Vacuum pressure centre of pressure is located below the centroid.
(d) Gauge pressure = Atmospheric pressure +
I sin 2 θ + Ax 2 IG sin 2 θ
Vacuum pressure h= G = +x
TSPSC AEE 2015 Ax Ax
Ans. (b) : Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure - In equation x is the distance of C.G. of the
Atmospheric pressure. area of the vertical surface from free surface of the
liquid. Hence from equation it is clear that
3. Hydrostatic Forces on Surfaces (i) Centre of pressure (h) lies below the centre of
gravity of the vertical surface.
123. A container carrying water is moved in a (ii) The distance of centre of pressure from free surface
horizontal direction with an acceleration of of liquid is independent of the density of the liquid.
2.45 m/s2. The angle of inclination of free water
128. Which explanation is true for the mechanical
surface to the horizontal is
pressure (pm) and thermodynamic pressure
(a) 14.03° (b) 67.8°
(c) 45° (d) 0° (P th)?
(a) A pressure sensor records pth. However for
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
most of the practical engineering cases, the
a 2.45 system at the intermediate states of a process
Ans. (a) : tanθ = =
g 9.81 gets enough opportunity to attain equilibrium.
θ = 14.03° Thus both Pth are equivalent in these cases.
124. A box of rectangular base 2m × 3m contains (b) Pth is the average mechanical pressure exerted
gasoline (Sp. Gravity 0.7) upto a height of 5m. at a point in the fluid but Pm is defined as the
The force on the base and two vertical surfaces, force exerted on container walls as fluid
2m × 5m and 3m × 5m respectively. molecules coincide with it during their
(a) 206 kN, 258 kN and 172 kN random movement.
(b) 21 kN, 17.5 kN and 26.3 kN (c) P m is a variable quantity and it depends upon

(c) 258 kN, 172 kN and 206 kN the coordinate system used.
(d) 206 kN, 172 kN and 258 kN (d) A pressure sensor records Pth. However for
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II most of the practical engineering cases, the
system at the intermediate states of a process
Ans. (d) : 206 kN, 172 kN and 258 kN does not get enough opportunity to attain
125. The resultant force on a floating body will act equilibrium. Thus both Pth and Pm are
(a) vertically upwards through centre of equivalent in these cases.
buoyancy BHEL ET 2019
(b) vertically downwards through centre of
Ans. (a) :
buoyancy
(c) vertically upwards through meta centre 129. A square plate (2m × 2m) lies in water such
(d) vertically downwards through meta centre that its plane makes an angle of 30o with free
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II surface of water and one edge of the plate
coincide with the free surface. The total
Ans. (a) : vertically upwards through centre of
pressure force and centre of pressure is:
buoyancy (a) 9.81 kN; 0.666 m (b) 19.62 kN; 0.166 m
126. Magnitude of hydrostatic resultant force (F) (c) 9.81 kN; 0.166 m (d) 19.62 kN; 0.566 m
acting on completely submerged plane surface is: (e) 19.62 kN; 0.666 m
(a) (Equal to the pressure at centroid of surface) CGPSC AE 2014- II
× (Area of surface) Ans. (e) :
(b) (Lower than the pressure at centroid of
surface) × (Area of surface)
(c) (Higher than the pressure at centroid of
surface) × (Area of surface)
(d) (Atmospheric pressure) × (Area of surface)
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (a) : Magnitude of hydrostatic resultant force (F)
acting on completely submerged plane surface is equal
to the pressure at centroid of surface × Area of surface.
127. In an inclined plane submerged in water, the
centre of pressure is located h = 1× sin 30 0
(a) at the centroid
(b) below the centroid h = 0.5m
(c) above the cetnroid Then total pressure force
(d) anywhere in the plane F = ρ×g× h × A
APPSC AEE 2012
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II = 1000 × 9.81 × 0.5 × 2 × 2 = 19.62 kN
292
 We know that center of pressure 131. Match list I with List II and select the correct
2 answer:
* I CG. sin θ
h= +h List I List II
Ah A Centroid 1 always positive
24 B Centre of pressure 2 area moment zero
× ( sin 30º )
2
* C Free surface 3 Constant area
h = 12 + 0.5 D Second moment of 4 constant pressure
2 × 2 × 0.5 area
24 1 5 resultant force
× (a) A-2, B-4, C-5, D-3 (b) A-4, B-2, C-4, D-1
= 12 4 + 0.5 (c) A-2, B-5, C-4, D-1 (d) A-5, B-3, C-2, D-4
2
*
(e) A-3, B-4, C-5, D-2
h = 0.166 + 0.5 CGPSC AE 2014 -II
* Ans. (c) : A - 2, B - 5, C - 4, D - 1
h = 0.666 m 132. A 1.4 m high, 4.2 m long enclosed tank is filled
130. A square plate (side =a) lies in the vertical with water and accelerated horizontally at
6m/s2. If the top of the tank has a small slit
position in the water with it supper horizontal across the front, the maximum pressure in the
edge coincides with water surface. Total tank is nearly
pressure force (F) and position of centre of (a) 38.9 kPa (b) 45.8 kPa
pressure (h*) on the plane surface will be (c) 59.7 kPa (d) 66.7 kPa
respectively given by : (e) 71.4 kPa
[Where, ρ is the density of water] CGPSC AE 2014 -II
ρga 3 * 2 ρga 3 * 2 Ans. (a) :
(a) F = , h = a (b) F = ,h = a 133. A vertical rectangular plane surface is
3 3 4 5
submerged in water such that its top and
ρga 3 * 2 ρga 3 * 2 bottom surfaces are 1.5 m and 6.0 m
(c) F = ,h = a (d) F = ,h = a respectively below the free surface. The
2 5 2 3
3 position of centre of pressure below the free
ρga 2 surface. The position of centre of pressure
(e) F = ,h* = a
5 7 below the free surface will be at a distance of
CGPSC AE 2014- II (a) 3.8 (b) 4.0m
Ans. (d) : Total pressure force– (c) 4.2m (d) 4.5m
(e) 4.8m
F = ρ× h × A
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
a Ans. (c) :
= ρ×g× ×a 2
2  6 − 1.5 
h = 1.5 +  = 3.75 m
1
F = ρga 3  2 
2 Then position of center of pressure.
* I × sin 2 θ
h = CG +h
A× h
width of plate W = 1 m
1× 4.53 4
IC.G. = m , θ = 900
12
A = 4.5 ×1 m2
1× 4.53 
 12  [sin 90º ]
2

*
h=  
*
Position of centre of pressure (h) + 3.75 = 0.45 + 3.75
4.5 × 1× 3.75
* I C .G. × sin 2 θ
h= +h *
h×A h = 4.2m
a4
×1
* a
(h) = 12 +
a
×a2 2
2
* a a 2  a4 
(h) = + = a  θ = 90º, I= 
6 2 3  12 

293
134. For an inclined plane for which position, 138. Statement (I): Depth of centre of pressure of
maximum total pressure acts on it? any immersed surface is independent of the
(a) Horizontal (b) Vertical density of the liquid.
(c) Skewed (d) Inclined Statement (II): Centre of area of the immersed
JPSC AE PRE 2019 body lies below the centre of pressure.
Ans. (b) : Vertical ESE 2017
135. A beaker contains water upto h height. The Ans. (c) : (i) The depth of centre of pressure of
location of centre of pressure is immersed surface in liquid
(a) h/3 from top (b) h/2 from top I sin 2 θ
(c) 2h/3 from top (d) 3h/4 from top = depth of centre of area + CG
Ah
JPSC AE PRE 2019
Ans. (c) : 2h/3 from top I sin 2
θ
h =h+ CG
Ah
So, centre of pressure is independent of density of
liquid.
(ii) Centre of area lies above the centre of pressure.
139. A section of a dam made of concrete, ρ = 2.6,
total height = 35m, with top walk way width of
6m, is shown The upstream Heel of the
dam The sloped part on downstream side is 3
vertical on 2 horizontal Water stands up 2 m
Assuming width of Lamina is 'b'. short of the top of the dam section The net
∴ Centre of pressure for vertical plane surface (θ = 90º) resultant force acting on the base level of the
1 3 dam is nearly.
I NA h 12 bh h 1 2
y=h+ = + = + h= h
hA 2 h 2 6 3
bh
2
136. The point at which the total pressure on the
surface is applied is called
(a) Centroid of the surface
(b) Centre of pressure
(c) Centre of surface
(d) Centroid of pressure
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (b) : The point at which the total pressure on the (a) 1370 k kgf (b) 1385 k kgf
surface is applied is called centre of pressure. (c) 1400 k kgf (d) 1433 k kgf
137. A rectangular plane surface of width 2m and ESE 2017
height 3 m is placed velocity in water. What Ans. (d) : Given-
will be the location of centre of pressure of the Relative density (RD) = 2.6
surface when its upper edge is horizontal and Total height (h) = 35 m
lies 2.5 m below the free surface of water? Width (t) = 6m
(a) 4.0755 m (b) 4.0125 m
(c) 4.2525 m (d) 4.1875 m
SJVN ET 2019
Ans. (d) Given A = 2 ×3
2 × 33
IG =
12
3
h = 2.5 + = 4
2

2.5 Water on upstream = 35 − 2 = 33 m

30
2 Base width of dam = 6 +
.G 3 tan θ
30
=6+ = 26 m
2 × 33 (3/ 2)
I
h* = h + G = 4 + 12 1 
Submerged volume (∀) = (6 × 35 × 1) +  × 20 × 30  × 1
Ah 6× 4 2 
h* = 4.1875 = 510 m3
294
Horizontal force act on vertical surface Pressure at a point Y
FH = ρgh A Py = ρgh 2
 33  Py = 8ρg …………. (ii)
= 1000 × 9.81×   × (33 × 1)
 2 Ratio of pressure between x and y.
= 5341545 N Px
= 544500 kgf = 1:16
Py
= 544.5 k kgf
Weight of dam (Fg) = mg 142. The hydrostatic pressure on a plane surface is
= (RD) ∀g (a) wAh (b) wAh Sin2θ
= 2.6 × 1000 × 510 × 9.81 (c) wAh/2 (d) wAh Sin θ
= 1.3008 × 107 N Where A = area of plane surface and h depth of centroid
= 1326000 kgf of the area below the liquid-free surface
= 1326 k kgf Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Net resultant force (FR) = Fg + FH , Fg = Fv
2 2
Ans. (a) : Hydrostatic pressure on a plane surface is,
F = wAh
= (1326) 2 + (544.5)2
= 1433 k kgf A = area of plan surface
h = depth of centroid of the plane area below the liquid-
140. The position of centre of pressure of a plane
surface immersed in a static fluid is: free surface.
(a) at the centroid of the immersed surface w = specific weight
(b) always above centroid 143. The hydrostatic pressure in kgf exerted on one
(c) always below centroid side of an annular area enclosed by concentric
(d) none of the above circles of radii 2 m and 1 m, and having its
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) centroid 4 m below water surface is
Ans : (c) The position of centre of pressure of a plane (a) 10000π (b) 11000π
surface immersed in a static fluid is always below (c) 12000π (d) 24000π
centroid. APPSC AEE 2012
Ans : (c) Area = (π 2
4
)
4 − 22
12π 2
Area = m
4
x = 4m
hydrostatics pressure (P) = ρgA x
12π
= 1000× ×4
4
Ig Hydrostatic pressure = 12000 π N
Incline position centre of pressure (h) = x + sin 2 θ
Ax
141. The ratio of pressures between two points X 4. Buoyancy and Floatation
and Y located respectively at depths of 0.5 m
and 8 m below water level in a tank is 144. A metal piece having density exactly equal to
the density of a fluid is placed in the liquid. The
(a) 1: 2 (b) 1: 2
metal piece will
(c) 1: 8 (d) 1:16
(a) sink to the bottom
APPSC AEE 2012
(b) float on the surface
Ans : (d)
(c) will be partly immersed
(d) will be wholly immersed
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (d) : will be wholly immersed
145. When a body floating in a liquid is given a
small angular displacement, it stands
oscillating about a point known as
Pressure at a point X (a) centre of pressure
Px = ρgh1 (b) centre of gravity
Px = ρg × 0.5 (c) centre of buoyancy
(d) metacentre
Px = 0.5ρg …………. (i)
APPSC AEE 2012
295
Ans : (d) When a body floating in a liquid is given a 149. The Centre of buoyancy is:
small angular displacement, it stands oscillating about a (a) Centroid of displaced volume of fluid
point known as metacentre. (b) A point slightly above meta-centre
(c) Centre of gravity of the body
(d) All of the above
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans : (a) The centre of bouncy is centroid of displaced
volume of fluid.
Centre of buoyancy:- It is defined as the point, through
which the force of buoyancy is supposed to act. As the
Meta - Centric height (GM) = BM – B.G
force of buoyancy is a vertical force and is equal to the
* Metacentric height for, rolling, condition will be less
weight of the fluid displaced by the body. The Centre of
than metacentric height for pitching condition.
buoyancy will be the centre of gravity of the fluid
146. A body floating in a liquid is said to be in displaced.
neutral equilibrium, if its metacentre
150. A ship will sink if it does not displace water
(a) coincides with its centre of gravity
(b) lies above its centre of gravity equal to its own
(a) volume (b) density
(c) lies below its centre of gravity
(c) surface area (d) weight
(d) lies below the centre of buoyancy and centre
TNPSC AE 2018
of gravity
APPSC AEE 2012 Ans. (d) : A ship will sink if it does not displace water
Ans : (a) equal to its own weight.
For floating of bodies any body displace water
Stable Equilibrium M is above G to equal its to own weight.
Unstable Equilibrium M is below G 151. Consider the following statements pertaining to
Neutral Equilibrium M and G Coincide stability of floating bodies:
147. When a body is immersed in a fluid, the buoyant 1. A floating body will be stable when the centre
force experienced by it, is proportional to of gravity is above the centre of buoyancy.
(a) Volume of the body 2. The positions of metacentre corresponding to
(b) Volume of the fluid displaced different axes of rotation are generally different
(c) Weight of the body for the same floating object.
(d) Velocity of immersion 3. For cargo ships, the metacentric height varies
UJVNL AE 2016 with loading.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Ans : (b) Buoyant force OR Buoyancy:- When a fluid
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
is immersed in a fluid, an upward force is exerted by the
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
fluid on the body. This upward force is equal to the
ESE 2017
Weight of fluid displaced by the body is called the
force of buoyancy or simply buoyancy Ans. (d) :
FB = ρlVbg
ρl = density of liquid
Vb = Volume of fluid displaced.
148. A floating body will remain in stable
equilibrium so long as :
(a) the metacentre M lies below the centre of
gravity
(b) the metacentre M lies above the centre of Statement I is incorrect because stability of floating
gravity body is measured by metacenter with respect to center
(c) the metacentre and centre of gravity remain at of gravity.
the same position 152. A stone weighs 400 N in air and when
(d) None of these immersed in water it weighs 225 N. If the
(KPSC AE. 2015) specific weight of water is 9810 N/m3, the
Ans : (b) A floating body will remain in stable relative density of the stone will be nearly
equilibrium the metacentre M lies above the Centre of (a) 5.9 (b) 4.7
gravity . (c) 3.5 (d) 2.3
ESE 2020
Ans. (d) : Given Wreal = 400 N = mg = ρbody × g × Vbody
G Wapparent = 225 N
G Wapparent = Wreal – Buoyant force

So,
M = Meta Centre Buoyant force = 400 – 225
G = Centre of gravity = ρfluid × g × Vfd ––(ii)
296
By (i) and (ii) 157. A body of volume 3.0 m3 weighs 2 kN in water.
ρ × g × Vbody ρ body 400 The body's weight in air is
R.D. = body = = = 2.38 ≈ 2.3 (a) 6.0 kN (b) 20.4 kN
ρfluid × g × Vfluid ρfluid 175 (c) 5.0 kN (d) 31.4 kN
153. A body weight is 392.4 N in air and 196.2 N in APPSC-AE-2019
water, the volume of body in m3 is: Ans. (d) : We know that,
(a) 0.05 (b) 0.10 Wwater = Wair - FB
(c) 0.02 (d) 0.01 Wair = Wwater + FB
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II = 2 ×103 + 1000 × 9.81 × 3 (∵ FB = ρ gV )
Ans : (c) = 31.4 kN
Difference in weight = 392.4 – 196.2 158. Resultant pressure of the liquid in case of an
= 196.2 N immersed body acts through the
Now, (a) Metacentre (b) Centre of gravity
Buoyant force = Difference in weight (c) Centre of pressure (d) Centre of buoyancy
= volume of body × density of APPSC-AE-2019
water ×g Ans. (d) : The point through which buoyancy force
∴ 196.2 = Vb×103×9.8 passes is called centre of buoyancy. The buoyancy force
Vb = 0.020 m 3 is result of pressure distribution on the surface of object.
154. For the stability of a floating body, under the The centre of pressure is point through which resultant
pressure force passes. The term centre of pressure is
influence of gravity alone, which of the
used for thin surfaces. When thin surface is completely
following is true?
immersed in liquid the resultant force is zero. Hence
(a) Metacentre should be below the centre of
centre of buoyancy is more appropriate answer.
gravity
(b) Metacentre should be above the centre of 159. If a body is in stable equilibrium the
gravity metacentric height should be
(a) zero (b) positive
(c) Metacentre and centre of gravity must lie on (c) negative (d) depends on the fluid
the same horizontal line TNPSC AE 2017
(d) Metacentre and centre of gravity must lie on
Ans. (b) :
the same vertical line
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans : (b) : For the stability of a floating body
metacentre should be above the centre of gravity.
! Stable equilibrium of a floating body metacentre If,
should be above centre of gravity. GM > 0 (M is above G) → Stable equilibrium
! Unstable equilibrium of a floating body. GM = 0 (M coinciding with G) →Neutral equilibrium
Metacentre should be below centre of gravity. GM < 0 (M is below G) → Unstable equilibrium
! Neutral equilibrium of a floating body. 160. A horizontal cylinder half filled with fuel is
Metacentre and centre of gravity must coincides. having an acceleration of 10 m/s2. The
155. The buoyant force acting on a floating body gravitational forces are negligible. The free
passes through surface of the liquid will be
(a) metacentre of the body (a) horizontal
(b) CG of the body (b) slopes in the direction of acceleration
(c) centroid of the volume of the body (c) vertical
(d) centroid of the displayed volume (d) slopes in the direction opposite of
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper acceleration
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (d) : centroid of the displayed volume
Ans. (c) : A horizontal cylinder half filled with fuel is
156. A buoyant force is : having an acceleration of 10 m/s2. The gravitational
(a) Equal to volume of liquid displaced forces are negligible. The free surface of the liquid will
(b) Force necessary to maintain equilibrium of a be vertical.
submerged body
161. A stone weights 392.4 N in air and 196.2 N in
(c) The resultant force acting on floating body water. Find the weight of water displaced.
(d) The resultant force on a body due to the fluid (a) 392.4 N (b) 196.2 N
surrounding it (c) 3.924 N (d) 1.962 N
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (d) : The resultant force on a body due to the fluid Ans. (b) : Weight of displaced water
surrounding it. = weight of stone in air – weight of stone in water
Buoyant force (FB) = ρf .g × Vfd = 392.4 – 196. 2 = 196.2 N
297
162. The centre of buoyancy in case of a heavy (d) All of above
object when immersed in a liquid completely, SJVN ET 2013
will be at Ans. (d) : For a floating body to be in equilibrium
(a) The centre of gravity of the object. • Meta centre should be above C.G.
(b) The centre of gravity of the volume of the • Centre of bouncy and C.G. must lie on same vertical
liquid displaced. plane.
(c) Above the centre of gravity of the object. • A righting couple should be formed.
(d) Below the centre of gravity of the object. 166. The buoyancy depends upon
CGPSC AE 2014 -II (a) Mass of liquid displaced
Ans. (b) : The centre of buoyancy in case of a heavy (b) Viscosity of liquid
object when immersed in a liquid completely, will be at (c) Pressure of liquid displaced
the centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid (d) Depth of immersion
displaced. SJVN ET 2013
163. Match list I with List II and select the correct OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
answer: Ans. (a) : The buoyancy depend upon mass of liquid
List I List II displaced.
A Metacentric height 1 weight of 167. A piece of wood having weight of 5 kg floats in
displaced water with 60% of its volume under the liquid.
volume The specific gravity of wood is
(a) 0.83 (b) 0.6
B G below B 2 CG of (c) 0.4 (d) 0.3
displaced SJVN ET 2013
volume
Ans. (b) :
C Centre of buoyancy 3 Stability
Bouyant force FB = Vin . ρ . g
D M and G coincides 4 Unstable
ρ = density of liquid
5 Always stable Vin = Volume of the body inside the liquid
6 Always Gravitational force (FB) = Vin. ρb. g
Neutral ρb = density of body
(a) A-3, B-2, C-6, D-5 FG = FB
(b) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-6
V × ρb × g = Vin × ρ× g
(c) A-4, B-3, C-5, D-2
(d) A-1, B-4, C-6, D-5 ρb Vin 0.6V
= = = 0.6
(e) A-6, B-2, C-4, D-5 ρ V V
CGPSC AE 2014 -II 168. A piece of ore wighing 1.5 N in air and 1.1 N in
Ans. (b) : Metcentric height– Metcentric height tell us water. Its volume is :
about stability of submerged body. (a) 40.8 m3 (b) 40.8 cm3
• When G below B, then body always get stable (c) 40.8 mm 3
(d) 4.08 mm3
condition TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
• Center of buoyancy always CG of displaced volume Ans. (b) : Given,
of fluid. Weight of a piece in air Wa = 1.5 N
• M and G coincides then body always natural Weight of piece in water Ww = 1.1 N
condition. Then,
164. The floating body will be in unstable Weight of water displaced = 1.5 – 1.1 = 0.4 N
equilibrium ρw × g × V = 0.4
(a) when its metacentric height is zero 0.4
(b) when the metacentre is above centre of V=
1000 × 9.81
gravity
(c) when the metacentre is below centre of V = 40.8 cm3
gravity 169. An odd shaped container weight 2N when
(d) when the metacentre is at centre of gravity empty. If it is full of water it weights 4907 N.
TNPSC AE 2013 Container's volume is _______. [take density of
Ans. (c) : The floating body will be in unstable water as 1000 kg/m3 and gravitational
equilibrium when the metacentre is below centre of acceleration at 9.81 m/s2] :
gravity. (a) 250 litres (b) 500 litres
If M > G → Stable equilibrium (c) 750 litres (d) 1000 litres
M = G → Neutral equilibrium TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
M < G → Unstable equilibrium Ans. (b) : Weight of empty container w = 2N
[Weight of water + Weight of container] = 4907
165. For a floating body to in equilibrium. w + ρwater × g × V = 4907
(a) Meta centre should be above CG. 1000 × 9.81 × V = 4907 – 2
(b) Centre of Bouncy and CG must lie on same V = 0.5 m3
vertical plane
V = 500litres
(c) A righting couple should be formed
298
170. The metacentric height may be defined as the
distance between metacentre and
(a) Centre of gravity of a floating body
(b) Centre of pressure of floating body
(c) Centre of buoyancy
(d) Water surface
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (a) : Metacentric height may be defined as the
distance between metacentre and centre of gravity of a
floating body.
171. A floating body is in unstable condition under
the influence of only gravity, when
(a) Metacentre below the centre of gravity
(b) Metacentre and the center of gravity should
be on the same point
(c) Metacentre above the centre of gravity
(d) All of the above
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
APPSC-AE-2019
Ans. (a) : A floating body is unstable condition, under
the influence of gravity, when metacentre lie below
centre of gravity.
172. A body weights 20 N and 10 N when
submerged in the liquids of specific gravity 0.8
and 1.2 respectively. The volume of the body
will be given by
(a) 2.548 × 10-3 m3 (b) 2.935 × 10-3m3
(c) 3.215 × 10-3m3 (d) 2.875 × 10-3m3
SJVN ET 2019
Ans. (a) : Let Vbody = Volume of body at equilibrium
Wt. of submerged body = Wt. of body – Buoyancy force
(Wt. of body)1 = Wt. in submerged + Buoyancy force....(i)
(Wt. of body)2 = Wt. in submerged + Buoyancy force...(ii)
Wt. of body = Wt. in submerged + density of fluid × Vbody × g
(Wt. of body)1 = (Wt. of body)2
20 + 800 Vbody × g = 10 + 1200 × Vbody × g = Wt. of body
Vbody = 2.548 × 10–3 m3
173. A spherical balloon of 1.5 m diameter is
completely immersed in water and chained to
the bottom. If the chain has a tension of 10 kN,
the weight of the balloon will be nearly
(a) 9.11 kN (b) 8.22 kN
(c) 6.44 kN (d) 7.33 kN
ESE 2019
Ans. (d) :
174. Statement I: If a boat, built with sheet metal on
wooden frame, has an average density which is
greater than that of water, then the boat can
float in water with its hollow face upward but
will sink once it overturns.
Statement II: Buoyant force always acts in the
upward direction.
ESE 2018
Ans. (b) : When boat is floating in upright position it
displaces more water as compared to overturned
position. The buoyancy force is directly proportional to
the displaced volume. Hence upright position has more
buoyancy force and the boat is able to float.
Thus both statements are individually true.
175. The necessary and sufficient condition for
bodies in flotation to be in stable equilibrium is
that the centre of gravity is located below the
(a) metacentre (b) centre of buoyancy
(c) epicenter (d) centroid
ESE 2018
Ans. (a) : For stable equilibrium of floating bodies,
metacentre is above centre of gravity.
Note : The distance between the centre of gravity G and
metacentre M of a floating body (ie GM) is known as
metacentric height.
Higher the metacentric height, higher will be the
stability.
176. Local acceleration in fluid is due to
(a) unsteady nature of flow
(b) non uniformity of flow
(c) turbulence in flow
(d) irrotational nature of flow
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (a) : unsteady nature of flow
177. The type of flow in which the velocity at any
given time does not change with respect to
space is called
(a) Steady flow (b) Compressible flow
(c) Uniform flow (d) Rotational flow
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (c) : Uniform flow

5. Fluid Kinematics
178. Impingement of a jet on a flat plate may be
expressed by:-
(a) ψ = xy (b) ψ = x2 – y2
3 3
(c) ψ = x – y (d) ψ = x / y
FB = mg + T UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Weight (mg) = FB − T Ans. (a) : Impingement of a jet on a flat plate may be
= ρgV − T expressed by ψ = xy.
4  179. A flow whose stream line is represented by a
= 1000 × 9.81 ×  π(0.75)3  − 10 × 103
3  curve is called
= 7.33 kN (a) one dimensional flow
299
 (b) two dimensional flow 184. An equipotential line
(c) three dimensional flow (a) has no velocity component normal to it
(d) four dimensional flow (b) has no velocity component tangential to it
APPSC AEE 2012 (c) is a line of constant velocity
Ans : (b) A flow whose strearm line is represented by a (d) is a line of zero normal acceleration
curve is called two dimensional flow. UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(i) For a steady one dimensional flow, the fluid parameter Ans. (b) : Has no velocity component tangential to it
are function of single space co-ordinate x only. 185. Along a stream line
u = f (x), v = 0 and w = 0 (a) Velocity is constant (b) φ is zero
(ii) for a steady two dimensional flow, the fluid (c) ψ is zero (d) ψ is constant
parameter are function of two space co-ordinates (x and UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
y only). Ans. (d) : Along a stream line, flow of fluid the velocity
u=f1(x,y), v = f2(x,y) and w =0 of all fluid particles at a given instant is constant. Along
(iii) For a steady three dimensional flow, the fluid streamline potential function (φ) is constant.
parameter are function of three space co-ordinates (x, y 186. A two dimensional flow field is described by the
and z only) velocity components u = 2x and v = –2y. The
u = f1 (x, y, z), v = f 2 ( x, y, z ) and w = f3 (x, y, z) corresponding velocity potential function will
$ be
180. A flow field satisfying ∆ ⋅ V = 0 as the (a) φ = y2 – x2 (b) φ = 2(x + y)
continuity equation represents always (c) φ = x2 – y2 (d) φ = x2 + y2
(a) A steady compressible flow UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(b) An incompressible flow Ans. (c) : φ = f(x, y ) for steady flow
(c) an unsteady and incompressible flow
(d) an unsteady and compressible flow ∂φ ∂φ  ∂φ ∂φ 
dφ = dx + dy  = − u, = −v
ESE 2019 ∂x ∂y  ∂ x ∂y 
Ans. (b) : The general form of the continuity equation is see, dφ = -u dx + (-v) dy
∂ρ $ $
+ ∇ ( pv ) = 0 ∫ dφ = ∫ udx + ∫ vdy
∂t φ = x2+ (– y2)
For incompressible flow ρ = constant and the above
equation reduces to ∴ φ = x 2 − y2
$ $
∇⋅v = 0 ∂u′ −∂v′
Hence, the above equation always represents an 187. Q= = for a turbulent flow signifies
incompressible flow. ∂x ∂y
(a) Conservation of bulk momentum transport
181. In a "free-vortex", velocity potential line (φ) is
(b) Increase in u' in x-direction followed by
a function of increase in v' in negative y-direction
(a) angle (b) radius
(c) Turbulence is anisotropic
(c) angle and radius (d) velocity
(d) Turbulence is isotropic
APPSC-AE-2019
ESE 2019
Ans. (a) : The velocity potential for free vortex is given
by ∂u′ ∂vu
Ans. (b) : Q = =− for turbulent flow signifies
Γ ∂x ∂y
φ= θ that increase in u' in x-direction is followed by increase
2π
in v' in negative y-direction.
182. For irrotational and incompressible flow, the
188. Which of the following characteristics
velocity potential and stream function are given
regarding fluid kinematics is/are correct?
by φ and ψ respectively. Which one of the 1. Streamline represents an imaginary curve in
following sets is correct ? the flow field so that the tangent to the curve at
(a) ∇2 φ = 0 , ∇2 ψ = 0 any point represents the direction of
(b) ∇2 φ ≠ 0 , ∇2 ψ = 0 instantaneous velocity at that point.
(c) ∇2 φ = 0 , ∇2 ψ ≠ 0 2. Path lines, streamlines and streak lines are
(d) ∇2 φ ≠ 0 , ∇2 ψ ≠ 0 identical in steady flow.
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Ans. (a) : ∇2 φ = 0 , ∇2 ψ = 0 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
183. The concept of stream function which is based ESE 2020
on the principle of continuity is applicable to Ans. (c) : Both 1 and 2
(a) Three dimensional flow 189. A curve that is everywhere tangent to the
(b) Two dimensional flow instantaneous local velocity vector, is
(c) Uniform flow cases only (a) Streak line (b) Path line
(d) Irrotational flow only (c) Normal line (d) Streamline
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II ESE 2020
Ans. (b) : Two dimensional flow Ans. (d) : Streamline
300
190. A 2-D flow field has velocity components along 193. What will be the approximate resultant velocity
x-axis and y-axis given by u = x2t and v = -2 xyt at point (1, 2), if the stream function for a two
respectively, here, t is time. The equation of dimension flow is given by Ψ = x3 + y2 ?
streamline for the given velocity field is :
(a) xy = constant (b) x2y = constant (a) 3.0 (b) 5.0
2
(c) xy = constant (d) x2 + y2 = constant (c) 7.0 (d) None of these
BHEL ET 2019 OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans. (b) : 2-D flow field has velocity component Ans : (b) : Given, ψ = x3 + y2
u = x 2 t, v = −2xyt ∂ψ
According to stream line equation - u= = 2y
∂y
dx dy −∂ψ
= v= = −3x 2
u v ∂x
dx dy At point (1,2) u = 4, v = –3,
=
x t −2xyt
2
V= u 2 + v 2 = (4) 2 + (−3) 2 = 16 + 9 = 25
dx dy V=5
=
x −2y 194. The radial component of velocity everywhere in
Irrigating both side a free vortex Motion is
1 (a) None-zero and finite
ln x = − ln y + c (b) Zero
2 (c) Maximum
2ln x = − ln y + 2c (d) Minimum
2 ln x = − ln y + constant OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
ln x 2 = − ln y + constant Ans : (b) : The radial component of velocity everywhere
in a free vortex motion is zero.
ln x 2 + ln y = constant 195. The stream line is a line :
x 2 y = constant (a) On which tangent draw at any given point
gives the direction of velocity
191. If the total acceleration of fluid flow is always (b) Which is always parallel to the main direction
zero, then it is: of flow
(a) unsteady and uniform flow (c) Across which there is no flow
(b) steady and uniform flow (d) Which is along the path of a particle
(c) steady but non-uniform flow OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(d) unsteady and non-uniform flow TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
BHEL ET 2019 Ans : (a) : The stream line is a line on which tangent
Ans. (b) : draw at any given point gives the direction of velocity.
Convective Local Total 196. At given instant the flow parameters remains
Acceleration Acceleration Acceleration same at every point for:
or temporal (a) Laminar flow (b) Uniform flow
Steady 0 0 0 (c) Steady state flow (d) Quasi state flow
and OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
uniform Ans : (b) : At given instant the flow parameters remain
Unsteady 0 exist exist same at every point for uniform flow.
and
uniform 197. A Streamline is defined as:
(a) Line parallel to outer surface of pipe
steady exist 0 exist
and non- (b) Line parallel to central axis of flow
uniform (c) Line along which pressure drop is uniform
(d) Line of equal velocity in a flow
unsteady exist exist exist
and non- OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
uniform Ans : (d) : Streamline– streamline, in fluid mechanics,
192. In a fluid flow it is found that the stream line, the path of imaginary particles suspended in the fluid
path line and streak line are identical. This and carried along with it. In steady flow, the fluid is in
means that : motion but the streamlines are fixed.
(a) the fluid flow is non-uniform. 198. In which type of flow the stream function
(b) the fluid flow is steady. satisfies the Laplace equation?
(c) the fluid flow is uniform (a) Rotational Flow Crest (b) Irrotational Flow
(d) the fluid flow is unsteady. (c) Circular Flow (d) Never Possible
BHEL ET 2019 OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans. (b) : In a steady flow, streak lines and path lines Ans : (b) : Irrorational flow satisfies the stream
are identical. function and Laplace equation.
301
199. If is the stream function in a two-dimensional ∂u
flow field, then the magnitude of velocity vector = 4x + 0 = 4x
at point (1,1) would be ∂x
(a) zero (b) 2 2 ∂v
= 2 × 3y = 6y
(c) 4 (d) 8 ∂y
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V ∂u ∂v
Ans : (b) : Given, + = 4x + 6y, Not satisfied
∂x ∂y
ψ = x 2 − y2 4. u = x + 2y, v = 2x + y
−dψ ∂u
u= = 2y = 2 at (1,1) = 1 + 0 =1
dy ∂x
dψ ∂v
v= = 2x = 2 at (1,1) = 0 +1 = 1
dx ∂y
| v | = u 2 + v2 ∂u ∂v
+ = 1 + 1 = 2, Not satisfied
= 2 2 ∂x ∂y
200. In uniform flow, the velocities of fluid particles 203. The velocity potential for a two dimensional
are : flow is φ = x(2y − 1) determine the velocity at a
(a) Equal at all sections point P(4,5).
(b) Dependent on time (a) 10.25 unit (b) 12.04 unit
(c) Random at all sections (c) 15.35 unit (d) 18.74 unit
(d) None of these RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 Ans : (b) Velocity potential of flow
Ans. (a) : The flow in which velocity at a given time φ = x(2y − 1)
does not change with respect to space.
= 2xy − x
201. In a steady flow along a stream line at a
location in the flow, the velocity head is 6 m, −∂φ
u= = 2y − 1
the pressure head is 3 m, and the potential head ∂x
is 4 m. The height of hydraulic gradient line at At point P (4, 5)
this location will be u = 2 × 5 – 1= – 9
(a) 13 m (b) 9 m ∂φ
(c) 10 m (d) 7 m v = − = −2x = −2 × 4 = −8
∂y
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
Resultant velocity at point 'P'
Ans. (d) : The height of hydraulic gradient line at this
location will be, v = u 2 + v2 = (−9) 2 + (−8) 2
= Pressure head + Potential head v = 12.04 unit
=3+4=7m
202. The continuity equation is satisfied by 204. In a two-dimensional velocity field with
(a) u = A sin xy, v = –A sin xy velocities u and v along the x and y directions
(b) u = x + y, v = x – y respectively, the convective acceleration along
(c) u = 2x2 + cy, v = 3y2 the x-direction is given by-
(d) u = x + 2y, v = 2x + y ∂u ∂u ∂u ∂v
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 (a) u + v (b) u +u
∂x ∂y ∂x ∂y
Ans. (b) : For incompressible possible flow, continuity
equation must be satisfied. ∂v ∂u ∂u ∂u
(c) u +u (d) u +u
∂u ∂v ∂x ∂y ∂x ∂y
+ =0 RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
∂x ∂y
Ans : (a) Convective acceleration is defined as the rate
1. u = A sin xy, v = –A sin xy of change of velocity due to change of position of fluid
∂u ∂v particle in a fluid flow.
+ = yA cos xy – xA cos xy, Not
∂x ∂y Convective acceleration along the x- direction is given by
satisfied (for 3D)
2. u = x + y, y = x – y du ∂u ∂u ∂u ∂u
ax = =u +v +w +
∂u ∂v dt ∂x ∂y ∂z ∂t
= 1, = –1 "###$### % !
∂x ∂y local
convective acceleration acceleration
∂u ∂v (for 2D convective acceleration along the x-direction)
+ = 1–1 = 0, Satisfied
∂x ∂y du du
ax = u +v
3. u = 2x + cy, v = 3y2
2
dx dy
302
205. A streamline and an equipotential line in a flow 209. The necessary condition for the flow of a liquid
field- to be uniform is that
(a) are parallel to each other (a) The velocity is constant at a point with
(b) are perpendicular to each other respect to time
(c) intersect at an acute angle (b) The velocity is constant at a point in the flow
(d) are identical field with respect to space
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016 (c) The velocity changes at point with respect to time
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 (d) The velocity changes at point with respect to
JPSC AE PRE 2019 space
TNPSC 2019
Ans : (b)
Ans. (b) : The necessary condition for the flow of a
slope of velocity potential
liquid to be uniform is that the velocity is constant at a
dφ dφ
u=− ,v=− point in the flow field with respect to space.
dx dy
 ∂V 
 dy  u   =0
  =−  ∂S  t
 φ=c
dx v
210. A practical example of steady non-uniform
slope of stream function flow is given as the
dψ dψ (a) Motion of the river around the bridge piers
= −v , =u (b) Steadily increasing flow through the pipe
dx dy
(c) Steadily increasing flow through a reducing
 dy  v section
  =
 dx ψ=c u (d) Constant discharge through a long, straight
Hence, tapering pipe
TSPSC AEE 2015
 dy   dy   u   −v  Ans. (d) : Constant discharge through a long, straight
  ×   =   ×  = −1
 dx φ=c  dx ψ=c  v   u  tapering pipe is the example of steady non-uniform flow.
These are perpendicular to each other. 211. Steady flow occurs when ______ .
206. Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is (a) condition do not change with time at point
being opened is (b) conditions are the same at adjacent points at
(a) Steady (b) Unsteady any instant
(c) Laminar (d) Vortex ∂v
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 (c) when is constant
∂s
TNPSC 2019 (d) Conditions change steadily with the time
Ans. (b) : Since valve of pipe is being opened and TSPSC AEE 2015
closed gradually so the discharge is not constant. Hence Ans. (a) : Steady flow occurs when condition do not
it is a non-steady flow. change with time at point.
φ = f (t), 212. If stream function Ψ = 2xy, then the velocity at
dφ a point (1, 2) is equal to _____
∴ =0 (a) 2 (b) 4
dt
207. In a Steady flow process, the ratio of (c) 20 (d) 16
(a) Heat transfer is constant TSPSC AEE 2015
(b) Work transfer is constant ∂ψ ∂ψ
(c) Mass flow at inlet and outlet same Ans. (c) : We know that u = ,v=−
∂y ∂x
(d) All of these
Given, ψ = 2xy
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Ans. (d) : In a steady flow Process, the ratio of ∂ψ
= u = 2x
! Heat transfer is constant ∂y
! Work transfer is constant
! Mass flow at inlet and outlet is same. ∂ψ
=2
208. The flow in which conditions do not change ∂y (1,2 )
with time at any point, is known as
(a) Uniform flow (b) Stream line flow ∂ψ
= − v = −2y
(c) Steady flow (d) Constant flow ∂x
TNPSC 2019 ∂ψ
= −2 × 2 = −4
Ans. (c) : The flow in which conditions do not change ∂x (1,2 )
with time at any point, is known as uniform flow.
v = u 2 + v 2 = ( 2 ) + ( −4 )
2 2
 ∂x 
  =0
 ∂t  x o ,yo ,zo
x ⇒ Fluid properties and conditions. v = 20
303
 ∂u ∂v Both the definitions are correct as velocity components
213. The equation, + = 0 represents defined in above manner satisfy two dimensional
∂x ∂y
continuity equation for incompressible flow.
(a) two-dimensional, compressible, continuity
equation ∂u ∂v ∂  −∂ψ  ∂  ∂ψ 
For example + =  +  =0
(b) two-dimensional, incompressible, continuity ∂x ∂y ∂x  ∂y  ∂y  ∂x 
equation 217. If the flow field is steady, the fluid particle will
(c) two-dimensional, compressible, momentum undergo only a
equation (a) Convective acceleration
(d) two-dimensional, incompressible, momentum (b) Local acceleration
equation (c) Total acceleration
APPSC-AE-2019 (d) All of the above
∂u ∂v APPSC-AE-2019
Ans. (b) : + = 0 represents 2D continuity
∂x ∂y Ans. (a) : Total acceleration is sum of local and
equation for incompressible flow. convective acceleration. If flow is steady then local
acceleration is zero. Hence only convective acceleration
214. If dr is a directed fluid element, the equation,
can be present.
dr × V = 0 refers to a
(a) Pathline (b) Timeline 218. In a steady flow of incompressible fluid, as the
(c) Streakline (d) Streamline diameter is doubled, the velocity will
APPSC-AE-2019 (a) be halved (b) be doubled
Ans. (d) : As per definition of streamline velocity is (c) increase four fold (d) decrease four fold
& & TNPSC AE 2017
tangential to it. Hence V and dr are parallel to each Ans. (d) : We know that,
other. If two vectors are parallel then their cross product Q = A1V1 = A2V2 = constant (For
is zero. incompressible fluid)
π 2 π
d1 × V1 = d 22 × V2
4 4
2 2
 V2   d1   d 
 =  = 
 V1   d 2   2d 
V1
215. If a dye is constantly injected into the flow field V2 =
at a single point, the curve formed by the dye in 4
the flow field is a 219. Which one of the following is a valid potential
(a) Streamline (b) Timeline function?
(c) Pathline (d) Streakline (a) φ = clu x (b) φ = c cos x
APPSC-AE-2019 (c) φ = 3 xy (d) φ = c(x2+y2)
Ans. (d) : Dye injected in flow represents streakline. As TNPSC AE 2017
per definition of streakline, it is line obtained by joining Ans. (c) : For possible velocity field φ satisfied Laplace
positions of all particles which have passed sequentially equation
through a fixed point in the flow.
∂φ ∂ 2φ
216. Velocity field can be related to stream function + =0
as ∂x 2 ∂y 2
∂ψ ∂ψ then, φ = 3xy
(a) u = ;v = − satisfied Laplace equation.
∂y ∂x
220. A streamline body is defined as a body about
∂ψ ∂ψ which
(b) u = − ;v = −
∂y ∂x (a) the drag is zero
∂ψ ∂ψ (b) the flow is laminar
(c) u = − ;v = (c) the flow is along the streamlines
∂y ∂x (d) the flow separation is suppressed
∂ψ ∂ψ TNPSC AE 2018
(d) u = ;v = Ans. (d) : A streamlined body is a shape that lowers the
∂y ∂x
friction drag between a fluid, like air and water, and an
APPSC-AE-2019 object moving through that fluid. Drag is a force that slows
Ans. (a & c) : Stream function is defined as down motion; friction drag is a special kind of drag..
−∂ψ ∂ψ 221. The velocity component in x and y direction in
u= ,v=
∂y ∂x terms of stream function ( ψ ) are
∂ψ −∂ψ ∂ψ ∂ψ ∂ψ ∂ψ
Note: Some authors define it as u = ,v= (a) u = ,v = (b) u = − ,v =
∂y ∂x ∂x ∂y ∂x ∂y
304
 ∂ψ ∂ψ ∂ψ ∂ψ ∂u ∂v
(c) u = ,v = (d) u = − ,v = (c) (d) −
∂y ∂x ∂y ∂x ∂y ∂y
TNPSC AE 2018 CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
∂ψ ∂φ Ans. (d) : According to continuity equation
Ans. (d) : u = − =− ∂u ∂v ∂u −∂v
∂y ∂x + =0⇒ =
∂ψ ∂φ ∂ x ∂y ∂x ∂y
ν= =− 225. Three dimensional flow field is described by
∂x ∂y
222. Consider the following statements: ( ) ( ) ( )
V = y 2 + z 2 ˆi + x 2 + z 2 ˆj + x 2 + y 2 k.ˆ
The
1. Stream lines and path lines are instantaneous
lines component of rotation at (1, 2, 3) is given as:
2. Path lines and streak line are generated by (a) ω x = −1, ω y = 2, ω z = −1
passage of time (b) ω x = −1, ω y = −2, ω z = 1
3. Path line can be found by time exposure of a
marked particle (c) ω x = −1, ω y = −2, ω z = −1
4. Stream lines, path lines and streak lines are (d) ω x = 1, ω y = 2, ω z = −1
identical in steady flow
Which of the above statements are correct? (e) ω x = 1, ω y = −2, ω z = −1
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only CGPSC AE 2014- II
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (a) : Given
UPSC JWM 2017
Ans. (b) : Stream line is one that drawn tangential to the ( ) ( )
u = y2 + z2 ,v = x2 + z2 ,w = x2 + y2
velocity vector at every point in the flow at a given 1  ∂w ∂v  1
instant. ωx =  −  = [ 2y − 2z ] (1,2,3)
2  ∂y ∂z  2
• Path line is the line traced by a given particle.
• Streak line concentrated on fluid particles that have 1
ω x = × [ 2 × 2 − 2 × 3] = −1
gone through a fixed point. 2
• Path lines and streak line are generated by passage ω x = −1
of time.
• Path lines can be found by time exposure of a 1  ∂u ∂w  1
ωy =  − = [ 2z − 2x ] (1,2,3)
marked particle. 2  ∂z ∂x  2
• Stream lines, path lines and streak line are identical 1
in steady flow. ω y = × [ 2 × 3 − 2 ×1]
223. A steady, incompressible flow is given by u = x2 2
+ y2 and v = 2xy. What is the convective 1
= ×4 = 2
acceleration along x direction at the point (1, 2
1)? ωy = 2
(a) 12 unit (b) 6 unit
(c) 8 unit (d) 24 unit 1  ∂v ∂u  1
ω z =  −  = [ 2x − 2y ] (1,2,3)
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift 2  ∂x ∂y  2
Ans. (c) : Convective acceleration along x direction 1 1
∂u ∂u ω z = [ 2 ×1 − 2 × 2] = × ( −2 )
ax = u +v 2 2
∂x ∂y ω z = −1
du
2 2 ⇒ = 2x
u=x +y dx ω x = −1, ω y = 2, ω z = −1
dv
v = 2xy ⇒ dy = 2y 226. If ψ= 3x2y – y3, the values of u and v are
(a) 6xy, 3x2-3y2 (b) 3x2- 3y2, 6xy
ax = (x2+y2)2x + 2xy ×2y (c) 3x2-3y2, -6xy (d) 3y2-3x2, 6xy
2 2
= 2x3 + 2xy2 + 4xy2 (e) 6xy, 3y -3x
(ax)1,1 = 2 + 2 + 4 = 8 unit. CGPSC AE 2014 -II
2 3
224. If u and v represent velocity components in x Ans. (c) : Given, Ψ = 3x y - y
and y directions of a two-dimensional potential We know that
∂u ∂ψ −∂ψ
flow, then is equal to: u= , v=
∂x ∂y ∂x
∂v ∂v So
(a) (b) u = 3x2 – 3y2 , v = – 6x
∂x ∂y
305
227. If the velocity vector in a two dimensional flow dU ∂u ∂u ∂u ∂u
& = u + v. + w +
field is given by v = 2xyiˆ + (2y 2 - x 2 )jˆ ; then the dx ∂x ∂y ∂z ∂ t
&
vorticity vector curl v will be- dU ∂  ∂
2 = (Vo xt ) ×  (Vo xt )  + (Vo xt )
(a) 2y ĵ (b) 6y k̂ dx  ∂x  ∂t
(c) Zero (d) -4x k̂ = (Vo xt ) × Vo t + Vo x
RPSC AE 2018 dU
& ˆ 2 2 ˆ = Vo x + V02 xt 2
Ans. (d) : Given, v = 2xyi + (2y - x )j dx
u = 2 xy 231. Velocity potential (φ):
v = 2y2 - x2 (a) exists for irrotational flow
then (b) derived from conservation of momentum
Vorticity vector '& principle
Vorticity (ξ ) = 2ω (c) exists for rotational as well as irrotational
1 & flow
ξ = 2 × curl V (d) is derived from conservation of mass
2& principle
= curl V UPRVUNL AE 2016
 ∧ ∧ ∧
 Ans. (a) : Velocity potential function (φ)—A scalar
 i j k function of space and time such that its negative
 ∂ ∂ ∂ derivative, w.r.t. any direction gives the fluid velocity in
=  that direction φ = φ ( x, y, z, t )
 ∂x ∂y ∂z 
 2 xy [2 y 2 − x 2 ] 0  ∂φ
  u=−
∧ ∧ ∂x
= i [0 − 0] − j[0 − 0] + k[−2 x − 2 x] ∂φ
∧ v=−
ξ = −4 x k ∂y
228. For an irrotational flow the equation ∂φ
w=−
∂ 2φ ∂ 2φ ∂z
+ = 0 is known as Velocity potential function φ exists for irrotational flow.
∂ x2 ∂ y2
(a) Cauchy Riemann's equation For possible velocity field φ satisfied Laplace equation.
(b) Euler's equation ∂ 2φ ∂ 2φ ∂ 2φ
(c) Laplace equation + + = 0 or ∇ 2φ = 0
∂x 2 ∂y 2 ∂z 2
(d) Poisson's equation
TNPSC AE 2014 If velocity potential satisfies the laplace equation, its
Ans. (c) : Laplace equation is possibility to steady incompressible irrotation below.
232. Linear momentum equation for steady flow
∂ 2φ ∂ 2φ
+ =0 with fixed control volume is given by [Where,
∂x 2 ∂y 2 ∧
229. Type of flow in which the fluid particles while V : Velocity vector, n : outward normal unit
flowing along stream lines, do not rotate about vector of area dA. F = forces on control
their own axis volume]
(a) Rotational flow (b) Irrotational flow ∧
(c) Non-uniform flow (d) Turbulent flow (a) ∑F = ∫ cs
ρ (V × V ). n dA
TNPSC AE 2013 ∧
Ans. (b) : An irrotational flow the fluid particles while
flowing along stream lines, do not rotate about their
(b) ∑F = ∫ cs
ρV (V . n ) dA
own axis. ∧
230. Fluid velocity along a streamline is given by (c) ∑F = ∫ cs
ρ (V . n ) dA
∧
V = (V0 xt) i . Its acceleration will be given by: ∧

(a) V0 x + V xt2 2 2 2
(b) V t
(d) ∑F = ∫ cs
ρV (V × n ) dA
0 0

(c) V0 x (d) V0 x + V0 xt 2 UPRVUNL AE 2016

UPRVUNL AE II 07.10.2016
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (b) : Linear momentum equation for steady flow
∧ ∧ ∧
Ans. (a) : V = (Vo xt ) i + o. j + o k with fixed control volume is given by
∧
u = Vo xt , v = 0, w = 0 ∑F = ∫ cs
ρV (V . n ) dA
then acceleration in x-direction
306
233. Which one of the following is not a case of ideal ĵ
fluid flow? 237. In a flow, velocity is given by V = – y2 î – 6x .
(a) Inviscid (b) Incompressible The equation of streamline passing through the
(c) Forced vortex flow (d) Super critical flow point (1, 1) will be:
JPSC AE PRE 2019 (a) 9x3 - y3 = 8 (b) 9x - y = 8
Ans. (c) : Ideal fluid—A fluid is said to be ideal if it is (c) 9x2 - y3 = 8 (d) 9x2 - y2 = 8
assumed to be both incompressible and non viscous. SJVN ET 2019
• Its bulk modulus is infinite. Ans. (c) : Given, v = – y2 i – 6xj
• Ideal fluid has no surface tension. u = – y2,
• Ideal fluid are imaginary and do not exist in nature. v = – 6x,
234. Vorticity is given by ∂ψ ∂ψ
= v = −6 x and = − y2
(a) Two times of the rotation ∂x ∂y
(b) Half of the rotation
6 x2
(c) There exist non relation between ψ =− + k (Constant) which independent of x by
(d) Three times of the rotation 2
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 may depend on y.
Ans. (a) : Vorticity is given by two times of the ∂ψ ∂k ∂ψ
= 0 + and = y2
rotation. ∂y ∂y ∂y
Vorticity ξ = 2 ω = Curl V ∂k y3
235. Which of the following function is valid = y2 or k =
potential function (φ)? ∂x 3
(a) x2 – 3x2y (b) y4 – 6x2 y2 6x 2 y3
3 2 ψ=− +
(c) y – 3x y (d) x3 – y3 2 3
SJVN ET 2019 6 1 −18 + 2 16
Ans. (c) : For potential function validation Value of ψ at (1, 1) − + = =−
2 3 6 6
∂ 2φ ∂ 2φ 16 6x 2
3y 3
+ =0 − − + or 8 = 9x 2 − 3y3
∂x 2 ∂y 2 6 2 2
Given,
φ = y 3 − 3x 2 y 238. The stream function for a flow field is ψ = 3x2 y
∂φ + (2 +t)y2. The velocity at a point P for position
= 0 − 6xy vector r = i + 2j time t = 2 will be
∂x (a) 19i – 12j (b) 21 i – 12 j
∂ 2φ (c) 19i + 22j (d) 21 i + 22j
= −6 y ––––––––(i)
∂x 2 ESE 2019
∂φ Ans. (a) : Given,
= 3 y 2 − 3x3 ψ = 3x2y + (2 + t)y2
∂y
r = i + 2j − 3k
∂ 2φ t=2
= 6y − 0
∂y 2 On comparing position vector
∂ 2φ r = xi + yj + zk
= 6y –––––––(ii) x=1 y=2 z = −3
∂y 2 ∂ψ
From (i) + (ii) u= = 3x2 + 2(2 + t)y
∂y
∂φ ∂φ
2 2
at x = 1 and t = 2
+ = −6 y + 6 y
∂x 2 ∂y 2 u = 3(1)2 + 2(2 + 2)2 = 19
∂ψ
∂ 2φ ∂ 2φ v=− = −6xy
+ = 0 ∂x
∂x 2
∂y 2
at x = 1, y = 2
236. Which of the following sets of equations v = −6 (1) (2) = −12
represents the possible 2-D, incompressible flow? Velocity vector v& = uiˆ + vjˆ
(a) u = 4x + y, v = x – y2
(b) u = x + 2y, v = x2 – y2 = 19iˆ − 12ˆj
(c) u = x + y, v = x – y 239. Statement I: When flow is unsteady, both
(d) u = xt + 2y, v = x2 – yt2 normal and tangential components of
SJVN ET 2019 acceleration will occur.
Ans. (c) : Possible case of 2-D fluid flow satisfy Statement II: During unsteady flow, in addition
continuity Eq.
to the change of velocity along the path, the
∂u ∂v velocity will also change with time.
+ =0
∂x ∂y ESE 2018
307
Ans. (d) : Unsteady flow does not necessarily mean that Total Acceleration of fluid:-
normal acceleration is non-zero.
For example if streamlines are parallel then even in
unsteady flow the normal acceleration is zero.
Normal component will only occur in case of a curved
streamline.
240. A two dimensional flow field is defined as
'& & & dv dv dv dv
V = ix − jy . The equation of the stream line ay = u. + v. + w. +
dx dy dz dt.
passing through the point (1, 2) is
(a) xy + 2 = 0 2
(b) x y + 2 = 0 243. The change in moment of momentum of fluid
(c) xy – 2 = 0 2
(d) x y – 2 = 0 due to flow along a curved path results in
(a) a dynamic force which passes through the
ESE 2017
centre of curvature
Ans. (c) : Given, V = xiˆ − yjˆ point = (1, 2) (b) a torque
u=x (c) a change in energy
(d) a change in pressure
v = −y
APPSC AEE 2012
dx dy
Streamline equation = Ans : (b) The change in moment of momentum of fluid
u v due to flow along a curved path results in a torque.
dx dy d
=
x −y ( mv.r ) = T
dt
dx dy
Integrate on both the sides ∫ x
=− ∫ y
244. A potential function exists for
(a) Steady flow only
ℓnx = −ℓny + ℓnc (b) Two dimensional irrotational flow only
(c) Irrotational flow of fluid whether
ℓnx + ℓny = ℓnc compressible or incompressible
xy = c .....(1) (d) Irrotational flow of incompressible fluids only
at point (1, 2) from equation (1) UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
(1) (2) = c Ans : (d) A potential function exists for irrotational
flow of incompressible fluids only.
c=2
Velocity potential function ( φ ) : -
xy = 2
xy − 2 = 0 −∂φ −∂φ −∂φ
u= ,v = ,w = .
241. Separation flow occurs when pressure ∂x ∂y ∂z
gradient: * Flow always occurs in the direction of
(a) Becomes less than zero decreasing potential function.
(b) Becomes zero * Velocity potential function exists only for
irrotational flow.
(c) Does not flow continuity equation
* Laplace equationis given by ;
(d) Changes slowly
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II ∂ 2
φ ∂ 2
φ
+ 2 =0
Ans : (a) Separation flow occurs when pressure ∂x 2
∂y
gradient becomes less than zero. If velocity potential function satisfies laplace equation
242. In a two-dimensional velocity field with then it also satisfies continuity equation and hence the
velocities u and v along the x and y direction flow is possible.
respectively, the convective acceleration along 245. A stream function
(a) Is a mathematical function which has no
the x-direction is given by:
physical equivalence
∂v ∂u ∂v ∂u (b) Is defined only for steady and incompressible
(a) u + (b) u +v
∂x ∂y ∂x ∂y flow
(c) Satisfies Laplace equation for rotational
∂v ∂u ∂u ∂u motion
(c) u +u (d) u +v
∂x ∂y ∂x ∂y (d) May not remain constant for a streamline
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
Ans : (d) In a two-dimensional velocity field with Ans : (b) A stream function is defined only for steady
velocities u and v along the x and y direction and incompressible flow.
respectively, the convective acceleration along the x- stream function ( ψ ) :-
du du ∂ψ ∂ψ
direction is given by u. + v. V= ,u = −
dx dy ∂x ∂y
308
* If ψ exists, then it satisfies continuity equation and 249. Fluid is flowing in a curved path without any
flow may be rotational or irrotational. external impressed contact force. This flow is
* If stream function satisfies Laplace equation then it is known as
case of irrotational flow (a) Free vortex flow (b) Forced vortex flow
246. A body is called streamline body when (c) Radial flow (d) Spiral flow
(a) It is symmetrical about the axis along the free UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
stream Ans : (a) Fluid is flowing in a curved path without any
(b) Surface of the body coincides with the external impressed contact force. This flow is known as
streamlines free vortex flow.
(c) Flow is laminar around it Forced vortex flow : In this type of flow, the vessel
(d) It produces no drag for flow around it containing the liquid is forced to rotate about the fixed
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II vertical axis with the help of some external torque.
Ans : (b) A body is called streamline body when Free vortex flow : In this type of flow, the liquid
Surface of the body coincides with the streamlines. particles describe circular paths about a fixed vertical
247. If the stream function is given by ψ = 3xy, then axis, without any external torque acting on the particles.
the velocity at a point (2,3) will be: The flow of water through the hole in the bottom of a
(a) 7. 21 unit (b) 10.82 unit wash basin in an example of free vortex flow.
(c) 18 unit (d) 54 unit
UJVNL AE 2016
MPPSC AE 2016 6. Fluid Dynamics
Ans : (b) Stream function (ψ) = 3xy
∂ψ ∂ψ 250. The total energy represented by the Bernoulli's
= 3 y, = 3x
∂x ∂y  v2 p 
Velocity at a po int ( 2, 3 ) equation  + + z  has the units
 2g γ 
∂ψ (a) N-m/m (b) N-m/N
= v = 3 × 3 = 9 unit 2
∂x (c) N-m /s (d) N-m/s
∂ψ APPSC AEE 2012
= −u = −(3 × 2) = −6 unit.
∂y Ans : (b) The total energy represented by the
Velocity (V ) = u 2 + v 2 , V = 81 + 36  P V2  N−m
Bernoulli's equation  + + z  has the unit
 ρg 2g  N
V = 10.82unit  
248. A velocity field in a plane flow is given by P Pr essure energy N − m
V=2yti+Xj m/s. The magnitude of the ρg
= pressure head = =
Weight N
acceleration at the point (4, 2 m) t =3 s is
(a) 52.5m/s 2
(b) 48.5m/s 2 251. For laminar flow in pipes the momentum
(c) 30.5m/s 2
(d) 24.5m/s 2 correction factor is _____ .
(e) 36.5m/s2 (a) less than 1 (b) 1.03
CGPSC AE 2014 -II (c) 1.33 (d) 2
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (c) : Data given,
V = 2yti + xj Compare to V = ui + vj Ans. (c) : For laminar flow in pipes the momentum
then u = 2yt , V= x correction factor is 1.33.
Then total acceleration in x- direction 252. The energy correction factor for laminar flow
∂u ∂u ∂u through a circular pipe is _____ .
ax = u + v + = 2yt × 0 + x × 2t + 2y (a) 1 (b) 2
∂x ∂y ∂t (c) 3 (d) 4
ax = x×2t+2y TSPSC AEE 2015
Putting x = 4, y = 2, t = 3
2 Ans. (b) : For laminar flow through circular pipe-
ax = 28 m/s
Energy correction factor = 2
Total acceleration in y - direction
∂v ∂v ∂v 4
ay = u + v + Momentum correction factor =
∂x ∂y ∂t 3
ay = 2yt ×1 + 0 + 0 = 12 m/s 2 253. A venturimeter is preferred to an orifice plate
ax = 28m/s2 because:
ay = 12 m/s2 (a) it is cheaper (b) it is easy to install
∧ ∧ (c) energy loss is less (d) it has very high life
a = ax i + a y j , SJVN ET 2013
Ans. (c) : A venturimeter is preferred to an orifice plate
a = a 2x + a 2y because energy loss is less.
a = ( 28 ) + (12 )
2 2 254. An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy
2
(a) Pascal Law
a = 30.46m/s (b) Newton Law of viscosity
309
 (c) Boundary Layer Theory 259. Bernoulli's equation is applicable to
(d) Continuity Equation (a) Compressible fluids
SJVN ET 2013 (b) Incompressible fluids
Ans. (d) : An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy (c) Newtonian fluids
(d) Non-Newtonian fluids
continuity equation.
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Continuity equation, Q = A 1V1 2
P v
Continuity equation is based on conservation of mass. Ans. (b) : + + z = constant
ρ g 2g
255. The two stagnation points for ideal flow over a This is Bernoulli's equation and also known as
circular cylinder coincide when Mechanical energy balance equation.
(a) the free stream is uniform This equation is valid under the conditions –
(b) the circulation about the cylinder is very (i) Steady flow
small (ii) Fluid in non-viscous
(c) the circulation about the cylinder exceeds a (iii) Fluid is incompressible
critical value (iv) Flow takes place along stream line
(d) the circulation about the cylinder is a critical
value 260. Euler's equation of motion is a statement of :
(a) linear momentum conservation for the flow of
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
an inviscid fluid
Ans. (d) : The circulation about the cylinder is a (b) mass conservation
critical value (c) energy conservation
256. An ideal fluid is one which (d) linear momentum conservation for a real fluid
(a) is incompressible BHEL ET 2019
(b) has negligible surface tension Ans. (a) : Assumption of Euler's equation of motion
(c) is compressible (1) Flow is non-viscous fluid
(d) is non viscous and incompressible • Drive the Euler's equation by linear momentum
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II conservation.
Ans. (d) : An ideal fluid is one which is non viscous ∂v
and incompressible and also has negligible surface • Flow is steady  
= 0  and incompressible (ρ =
tension.  ∂ t 
257. In the Navier Stokes equation the forces C)
considered are 261. The angle of the diffuser portion of a
(a) Pressure, viscous and turbulence venturimeter is less than the angle of the
(b) Gravity, pressure and viscous converging portion to :
(c) Gravity, pressure and turbulence (a) increase to velocity of flow in the direction of
(d) Pressure, gravity, turbulence and viscous flow at the diverging part
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II (b) avoid the situation where flow may become
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II compressible
Ans. (b) : In Navir stokes equation, gravity, pressure (c) minimize the loss of energy due to flow
and viscous forces are considered. separation
(d) decrease the pressure in the direction of flow
ie. F = Fy + Fp + Fv ⇒ Navier - stokes equation
at diverging part
It is used for the study of real fluid.
BHEL ET 2019
⇒ F = Fg + Fp + Fv + Fx ⇒ is called reynold equation.
It is used for the study of turbulent flow. Ans. (c) : The angle of the diffuser portion (6o to 7o) of
a venturimeter is less than the angle of the convergent
⇒ F = Fg + Fp ⇒ Euler's Equation
portion (20o to 22o) to minimize the loss of energy due
(used for study of ideal fluid)
to flow separation.
258. Velocity head is given by
v v2
(a) (b) 262. The Euler equation for turbo machine is
g 2g derived on the basis of
v 3
v 2 (a) Rate of change of mass
(c) (d) 2 (b) Rate of change of angular momentum
2g 2g (c) Rate of change of linear momentum
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II (d) Rate of change of velocity
Ans. (b) : Velocity head or kinetic head is in the form APPSC AEE 2016
at kinetic energy per unit weight. Ans. (b) : The Euler equation for turbo machine is
ν2 derived on the basis of rate of change of mass.
* Velocity head (in meter) 263. The flow through a Venturimeter is
2g
proportional to:
P (a) H1/5 (b) H
* Pressure head = (in meter)
r (c) H3/2 (d) H1/2
* Potential head = z (in meter) OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
310
Ans : (d) : We know that discharge through 268. Water flowing through variable cross section
venturimeter, pipe has velocity of 2 m/s at a cross sectional
c .A A area 0.4 m2. The velocity of water at a cross
Q = d 1 2 2gH sectional area of 0.1 m2 is :
A12 − A 22 (a) 4 m/s (b) 2 m/s
Q ∝ H1/ 2 (c) 1 m/s (d) 8 m/s
264. For a viscous flow, the relation between the OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
coefficient of friction 'f' and Reynold's number Ans. (d) :
'Re' is: Given as,
(a) f = 64/Re (b) f = 16/Re v1 = 2 m/s
(c) f = 8 /Re (d) f = 4 /Re A1 = 0.4 m2
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II A2 = 0.1 m2
Ans : (b) : Friction factor for laminar flow By using continuity equation,
64 A1v1 = A2v2
f= 0.4 × 2 = 0.1 × v2
Re
v2 = 8 m/s
Coefficient of friction or fanning friction factor f '
269. Which of the following is not an application of
f Bernoulli's equation ?
f' =
4 (a) Venturimeter (b) Orifice
16 (c) Aneamometer (d) Pitot tube
f' = OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
Re
265. A nozzle has 100 m velocity head at outlet. Ans. (c) :
What height will be reached by fluid stream if (a) Venturimeter – It is a converging diverging tube to
the nozzle is kept vertical? measure low velocity or discharge.
(a) 100 m (b) 10 m (b) Orificemeter – It is a holed plate in pipe carrying
(c) 141 m (d) Data insufficient fluid. The small cross section of area is less than
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II hole area plate and found a little downstream of
Ans : (a) : Given as, plate.
(c) Aneamometer – It measures the fluctuation of
u2 velocity in turbulent flow using the concept of
= 100m
2g convection.
u 2 = 2 × 10 × 100 (d) Pitot tube – It measure the flow velocity in open
u = 44.72 m/s channels generally.
then, 270. Venturimeter is used to measure flow of fluids
v 2 = u 2 − 2g × h (v = 0) in pipes when pipe is
u2 = 2 × 10 × h (a) Horizontal
h = (44.72)2 × 2 × 10 (b) Vertical, flow downwards
h = 100 m (c) Vertical, flow upwards
(d) In any position
266. In a flowing fluid, a particle may possess
(a) Inertial energy (b) Pressure energy Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
(c) Kinetic energy (d) All of the above Ans. (d) : Venturimeter- It is a converging-diverging
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 tube to measure low velocity or discharge.
Ans : (d) : In a flowing fluid, a particle may possess- 271. The energy loss in flow through nozzle as
• Inertial energy compared to venturimeter is
• Pressure energy (a) same (b) more
• Kinetic energy (c) Laminar (d) Vortex
• Elevation or gravitational potential energy. Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
267. Navier- Stokes equations are useful in the Ans. (b) : The energy loss in flow through nozzle as
analysis of : compared to venturimeter is more.
(a) Turbulent Flows (b) Viscous Flows 272. When venturimeter is Inclined, then for a given
(c) Vortex Flows (d) Rotational Flows flow it will show
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 (a) Less reading (b) More reading
Ans. (b) : The Navier-stokes equations of motion of (c) Same reading (d) inaccurate reading
fluid considers only gravity, Pressure and viscous forces Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
only. Hence these equations are applicable in flows Ans. (c) : When venturimeter is inclined, then for given
either laminar by viscous flows. There is no term in flow it will show same reading.
these equations to count compressibility turbulence and 273. If A1 and A2 refers to areas, g refers to
surface tension forces. But the viscous or linear flow gravitational force and h refers to length, Q
has very low Reynold Number. Hence the Navier-stokes refers to discharge then through a
equations are solved analytically for Re <<1. venturimeter is given as
311
 A12 A22 When loss of energy take place during flow of
(a) Q = × 2 gh liqudi from (1) to (2)
A −A
2 2
1 2 P1 V12 P V2
A1 A2 + + z1 = 2 + 2 + z 2 + h
(b) Q = × 2 gh ρg 2g ρg 2g
2 A12 − A22 Where h → head loss
276. In fluid mechanics, the continuity equation is a
A1 A2 mathematical statement embodying the
(c) Q = × 2 gh
A12 − A22 principle of
(a) Conservation of momentum
A1 A2 (b) Conservation of weight
(d) Q = × 2 gh
A22 − A12 (c) Conservation of energy
(d) Conservation of mass
TNPSC 2019 TNPSC 2019
Ans. (c) : Discharge through venturimeter is given as- OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
A 1A 2 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Q= × 2gh
Ans. (d) : In fluid mechanics, the continuity equation is
A 12 − A 22 a mathematical statement embodying the principle of
274. Bernoulli's theorem deals with the principle of conservation of mass.
conservation of ρ1 A1 V1 = ρ 2 A2V2 [For compressible fluid]
(a) energy (b) momentum A1 V1 = A2V2 [For incompressible fluid]
(c) mass (d) force 277. For an ideal and steady flow, "the total energy
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 of a fluid at a point is constant" is the
SJVN ET 2013 statement of
TNPSC 2019 (a) Euler's equation
Ans : (a) Bernoulli's theorem deals with the principal of (b) Pascal's law
conservation of energy. (c) Navier-Stokes equation
Bernoulli's equation is obtained by integrating the (d) Bernoulli's theorem
Euler's equation of motion. APPSC-AE-2019
Ans. (d) : As per Bernoulli's equation sum of pressure
dp
∫ ρ + ∫ g.dz + ∫ v.dv = constant energy, kinetic energy and potential energy is constant
along streamline for steady incompressible flow.
P V2 278. Consider a tank attached with an orifice of
+ + Z = constant diameter d. If H is the head of the liquid above
ρ g 2g the centre of the orifice, the theoretical velocity
P of the discharged flow through the orifice is
= pressure head . given by
ρg
(a) gH (b) 2 gH
V2 = kinetic head .
2g (c) gD (d)2 gd
Z = Potential head . APPSC-AE-2019
275. If P1 and P2 refers to the pressure V1, V2 refers Ans. (b) : As per Torricelli's law, velocity through
to the velocities ρ1 and ρ2 refers to specific orifice at bottom of the tank is given by
gravity and Z1 and Z2 refers to elevation of two V = 2 gH
points 1 and 2 in a pipe, then the Bernoulli's where,
equation can take the form H = Head above orifice
P V2 P V2 279. In the category of flow meters, head loss is at
(a) 1 + 1 + Z1 = 2 + 2 + Z 2
ρ1 2 g ρ2 2 g the least for
2 2
(a) orifice meter (b) nozzle flow meter
P1 V1 P2 V2 (c) venturi meter (d) manometer
(b) + + Z1 = + + Z2
ρ1 g 2 ρ2 g 2 APPSC-AE-2019
2 2 Ans. (c) : Venturi meter does not have flow separation
P1 V1 P V due to gradual expansion hence head loss is minimum.
(c) + + gZ1 = 2 + 2 + Z 2
ρ1 g 2 g ρ2 g 2g 280. Navier-Stokes equation in fluid mechanics is
P1 V12 P V2 derived from the
(d) + + Z1 = 2 + 2 + Z 2 (a) Newton's first law of motion
ρ1 g 2 g ρ2 g 2 g (b) Newton's second law of motion
TNPSC 2019 (c) Newton's third law of motion
Ans. (d) : Bernoulli's theorem [When no loss] (d) Newton's law of viscosity
APPSC-AE-2019
P1 V12 P V2 Ans. (b) : Navier - stokes equation is application of
+ + z1 = 2 + 2 + z2
ρ g 2g ρ g 2g Newton's second law to the motion of fluid element.
312
281. Euler equation of water turbine is derived on p v2
the basis of 285. In Bernoulli's equation + + z, each term
(a) conservation of mass ρg 2g
(b) rate of change of linear momentum represents :
(c) rate of change of angular momentum (a) Total energy per unit mass
(d) rate of change of velocity (b) Total energy per unit volume
APPSC-AE-2019 (c) Total energy per unit weight
(d) Total energy per unit weight
Ans. (c) : Euler's equation for turbine is derived from CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Newton's second law related to angular momentum. Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
d & &
i.e. T = (r × mv ) ρv 2
dt Ans. (c) : If the expression is P + ρgz + , then it has
2
or T = ρ Q [Vw1r1 ± Vw 2 r2 ] units of total energy per unit volume. The expression
282. Which of the following device is used to p v2
measure the airflow velocity in wind tunnel + + z, has units of energy per unit weight.
ρg 2g
testing?
(a) Anemometer (b) Altimeter 286. Which of the following is correct for
(c) Barometer (d) Steam generator venturimeter?
TNPSC AE 2017 (a) It is used to measure the velocity of the flow
Ans. (a) : Anemometer is a device used to measure the (b) The difference of pressure head at section 1
airflow velocity in wind tunnel testing. s 
and 2 is given by, x  m − 1 Where, x
283. Statement (I) : When a liquid is poured in  s 
different shaped vessels with base area same =difference in level of manometric head
and equal height, the apparent contradiction of between two limbs of U-tube manometer, Sm
equal force at base, but different weights of = specific gravity of manometric fluid, and S
liquids is hydrostatic paradox. = specific gravity of flowing fluid (Sm > S)
Statement (II) : Bernoulli's equation is valid for (c) Its convergent cone has included angle less
inviscid liquids. than that of divergent cone
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are (d) The length of convergent cone is larger than
individually true and Statement (II) is the that of divergent cone
correct explanation of Statement (I). (e) Actual discharge through venturimeter is,
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are c a a 2gh
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT Qa = d 1 2
the correct explanation of Statement (I). a 12 − a 22
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is CGPSC AE 2014- II
false. Ans. (b) : Venturimeter– A venturimeter is a device
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is used to measure the fluid flow through pipes. This flow
true. measurement device is based on the principle of
UPSC JWM 2017 Bernoulli's theorem.
Ans. (b) : The Bernoulli's equation is an approximate 287. If coefficient of discharge for an orifice is 0.6,
equation that is valid only in inviscid regions of flow coefficient of velocity is 0.95, then the
where net viscous forces are negligibly small compared coefficient of contraction will be :
to inertial, gravitational, or pressure forces. (a) 0.57 (b) 0.631
284. A fluid jet discharging from 20 mm diameter (c) 1.58 (d) 1
orifice has a diameter 17.5 mm at its Vena- (e) 0.921
Contracta. The coefficient of contraction will CGPSC AE 2014- II
be nearly: Ans. (b) : We know that -
(a) 0.98 (b) 0.88 Coefficient of discharge (Cd) = coefficient of
(c) 0.77 (d) 0.67 velocity (CV) × coefficient of contraction (CC)
UPSC JWM 2017 Cd = Cc × Cv
Ans. (c) : Coefficient of contraction 0.6 = 0.95 × Cc
Area of steam at vena-contrata 0.6
= Cc = ⇒ C c = 0.6315
Area of orifice 0.95
π d2  2 288. What will be the density of fluid having
AC 4 c dc dynamic viscosity of 0.05 poise and kinematic
= = = 
A O π d o2  d o  viscosity of 0.04 stokes?
4 (a) 125 kg/m3 (b) 12.5 kg/m3
2 3
 17.5  (c) 1250 kg/m (d) 1.25 kg/m3
=  = 0.765 (e) 12500 kg/m 3
 2.0 
CGPSC AE 2014- II
313
Ans. (c) : We know that
Dynamic viscosity ( µ )
kinematic vicsocity ( ν ) =
Density ( ρ )
−1
0.5 × 10
ρ= = 1250 kg / m 3
0.04 × 10 −4
N −S (a) 1.118 bar (b) 1.218 bar
1 Poise = 10 −1
m2 (c) 1.318 bar (d) 1.418 bar
(e) 1.518 bar
m2 CGPSC AE 2014 -II
1 Stokes = 10 −4
s Ans. (b) : Given as,
289. A liquid flows downward through at tapered V1 = 4.5 m/s, V2 = 1.5 m/s
vertical portion of a pipe. At the entrance and P1
= 10 m of water
exit of the pipe, the static pressures are equal. ρg
If for a vertical height 'h' the velocity becomes h = 1.5
four times, then the ratio of 'h' to the velocity P2 = ?
head at entrance will be Applying Bernoulli's Equation

(a) 3 (b) 8
(c) 15 (d) 24
(e) 27
P1 V12 P V2
CGPSC AE 2014 -II + + z1 = 2 + 2 + z 2
Ans. (c) : Given as ρg 2g ρg 2g
( 4.5) (1.5 ) + 0
2 2
P1 = P2 , V1 = V , V2 = 4V P2
10 + + 1.5 = +
2 × 9.81 ρ× g 2 × 9.81
P2
= 12.4174 m
ρ× g
P2 = 12.4174 × 1000 × 9.81
P2 = 1.218bar
291. A pitot static tube is used to measure
then (a) Stagnation pressure
Appling Bernoulli's equation (b) Static pressure
P1 V12 P V2 (c) Dynamic pressure
+ + z1 = 2 + 2 + z 2 (d) Difference between the static pressure and
ρg 2g ρg 2g dynamic pressure
( ) + 0 = 16 V (e) Absolute pressure
2
V 2
4V 2
+h = CGPSC AE 2014 -II
2g 2g 2g
Ans. (c) : Pitot tube - Pitot tube is a device used to
V2 measure the fluid flow measurement. It is used to
15 =h measure static dynamic pressure (head) and total
2g
pressure head [simple Pitot tube.]
then For Pitot tube (h) = stagnation pressure head - static
h pressure head
= 15
( v2 / 2g ) 292. The range of coefficient of discharge for orifice
meter is
290. A conical tube is fixed vertically with its (a) 0.6 to 0.7 (b) 0.7 to 0.85
smaller and upwards and it forms a part of (c) 0.85 to 0.92 (d) 0.92 to 0.98
pipeline. The velocity at the smaller and is 4.5 (e) 0.5 to 0.6
m/s and at the large and 1.5 m/s. Length of CGPSC AE 2014 -II
conical tube is 1.5 m. The pressure at the upper Ans. (a) :
end is equivalent to a head of 10 m of water. • The range of Cd for orifice meter (Cd) 0.6 to 0.7
Neglecting friction, determine the pressure at • The range of Cd for venturimeter
the lower and of the tube. Cd - 0.95 to 0.99
314
293. Match list I with List II and select the correct Ans. (b) : Bernoulli's equation can be applied to an
answer: internal coordinate system, in an inviscid flow, between
List I List II two points along a streamline and incompressible fluid
A Bernoulli 1 Potential because inviscid flow, the viscosity is zero and hence no
function viscous force acts on the body also incompressible flow
B Continuity 2 Stream line means the density remain constant whereas this
equation equation can not be applied to unsteady flow, rotational
flow and inside the boundary layer of fluid.
C Eulers 3 Total head
296. The Bernoulli's equation can take the form
D Laplace equation 4 Conservation
of P V2 P 2 V22
(a) 1 + 1 + Z1 = + + Z2
moment ρ1 2 g ρ2 2 g
um
P1 V12 P 2 V22
5 Conservation (b) + + Z1 = + + Z2
of mass. ρ1 g 2 ρ 2 g g
(a) A-3, B-2, C-5, D-1 (b) A-5, B-3, C-2, D-4 P1 V12 P1 V22
(c) A-3, B-2, C-5, D-4 (d) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1 (c) + + Z1 g = + + Z2 g
ρ1 g 2 g ρ2 g 2 g
(e) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-5
CGPSC AE 2014 -II P V2 P V2
(d) 1 + 1 + Z1 = 2 + 2 + Z 2
Ans. (d) : ρg 2 g ρg 2 g
1. Bernoulli equation → Total head of energy TNPSC AE 2014
 P V2  P1 V12
 + + Z = C Ans. (d) : + + Z1
 ρg 2g  ρg 2g
2. Continuity equation → Conservation mass P V2
ρ1V1A1 = ρ1V2A2 [For compressible fluid] = 2 + 2 + Z2
ρg 2g
V1A1 = V2A2 [For Incompressible fluid]
3. Euler equation → Stream line 297. A venturimeter is generally used to measure
4. Laplace equation → Potential function the rate of flow of
(a) Air (b) Steam
 ∂ 2φ ∂ 2φ ∂ 2φ  (c) Water (d) Hydrogen
 2 + + = 0 
 ∂x ∂y 2 ∂z 2  TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (c) : A venturimeter is generally used to measure
294. Consider the following flow. the rate of flow of water.
1. Developed flow in a pipe
2. Flow of water over a long weir 298. Euler's equation in the differential from can be
3. Flow in a long, straight canal expressed as (Where dp is the pressure, ρ is the
density of the fluid, v is the velocity, dz is the
4. The flow of exhaust gases differential head, g is the gravitational
5. Flow of blood in a artery acceleration.)
6. Flow of air around a bullet
7. Flow of air in a tornado P v2 dP
(a) + + gz = 0 (b) + vdv + gdz = 0
Of the above, which could be modeled as in viscid ρ 2 ρ
flows? dp dρ
(a) 4,5 (b) 4,7 (c) + vdv + gdz = 0 (d) + vdv + gdz = 0
ρ P
(c) 2,5 (d) 2,4 HPPSC AE 2018
CGPSC AE 2014 -II OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans. (d) : Flow of water over a long weir and flow of
Ans. (b) : Euler's equation of motion:- This is
air in tornado could be modeled as inviscid flows equation of motion in which the forces due to gravity
whereas developed flow in a pipe, flow in long straight and pressure are taken into consideration. This is
canal, the flow of exhaust gases exiting a rocked, the derived by considering the motion of a fluid element
flow of blood in an artery and flow of air around a along a stream - line as.
bullet could be modeled as viscid flows. dP
295. Select the false statement for Bernoulli's + g.dz + v.dv = o
ρ
equation
Bernoulli's equation is obtained by integrating the
(a) It can be applied to an inertial coordinate Euler's equation of motion and assume fluid is
system. incompressible.
(b) It can be applied to an unsteady flow.
dp
(c) It can be applied in a in viscid flow.
(d) It can be applied between two points along a
∫ ρ ∫ ∫
+ g.dz + v.dv = constant

streamline. 299. Pitot tube is used to measure the

(e) It can be applied to a incompressible fluid (a) Flow rate of fluid
CGPSC AE 2014 -II (b) Velocity of the fluid
315
 (c) Density of fluid Ans. (e) : 1. In a given duct system, the total pressure
(d) Pressure inside the pipe drop varies in a parabolic manner with flow rate.
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 2. For a given flow rate, the total pressure drop of a duct
SJVN ET 2019 is less when the air filter are new.
TPSC AE. 2015
OPSC AE 2015 302. In a forced vortex
KPSC AE. 2015 (a) the fluid velocity is inversely proportional to
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II the radius
Ans. (b) : Pitot tube—Pitot tube can be used to (b) the fluid rotates with relative velocity
measure fluid flow velocity and dynamic pressure (c) the rice depends on the specific weight
difference. (d) the rise is proportional to the cube of angular
A pitot tube is measuring velocity of flow. velocity
* Pitot tube is based on principle of conservation of (e) the fluid rotates any relative velocity
kinetic head into pressure head. The point at which CGPSC AE 2014 -II
velocity reduces zero is called stagnation point Ans. (e) : In a forced vortex
* Velocity head is indicated by the difference in liquid
level between the pitot tube and the piezometer. The Vr ∝ r
pitot tube measures the total head and therefore known and the fluid rotates without relative velocity.
as total head tube. 303. All the terms of energy in Bernoulli's equation
have dimension of:
(a) Force (b) Work
(c) Length (d) Energy
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans : (c) All the terms of energy in Bernoulli's equation
have dimension of length.
p v2
+ + z = constant
ρg 2g
p N−m 
= pressure energy per unit weight  OR m 
V2 = 0 - stagnation point ρg  N 
So,
v 2 / 2g =Kinetic energy per unit weight  N − m OR m 
V1 = 2 gh  N 
 
300. Bernoulli's equation is not applicable for N−m 
(a) Steady flow Z = Potential energy per unit weight  OR m 
(b) Incompressible flow  N 
(c) Flow with work transfer 304. Which of the following devices is having
(d) Frictionless flow working principle based on Bernoulli equation:
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 (a) Venturi meter (b) Pitot tube
Ans. (c) : Bernoulli's equation assumption:- (c) Orifice meter (d) All of the above
• Steady flow TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
• Incompressible Ans. (d) : Venturi meter, pitot tube and orifice meter all
• Inviscid flow of these devices is having working principle based on
• Irrotational flow Bernoulli equation.
• Frictionless flow
So, Bernoulli's equation is not applicable for flow with 305. Coefficient of contraction of nozzle is ____
work transfer. (a) Cc = Cv/Cd (b) Cc = Cd/Cv
301. Consider the following statements (c) C c = C d ×C v (d) None of these
1. In a given duct system, the total pressure drop Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
varies linearly with flow rate Ans. (b) : Coefficient of contraction of nozzle is (Cc)
2. In a given duct system, the total pressure drop Coefficient of discharge
varies in a parabolic manner with flow rate =
Coefficient of Velocity
3. For a given flow rate. the total pressure drop
of a duct increases as the dampers are opened C
more Cc = d
Cv
4. For a given flow rate, the total pressure drop
of a duct is less when the air filters are new 306. Bernoulli's equation is applicable between any
Of the above, which is correct? two points
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (a) In any rotational flow of an incompressible
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 fluid
(e) 2 and 4 (b) In any type of irrotational flow of a fluid
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
316
 (c) In steady rotational flow of an incompressible p2 = 150 kN/m2
fluid ∵ Q = A1V1 = A2V2
(d) In steady irrotational flow of an Q 4Q
incompressible fluid V1 = = = 2.83 m/s
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 A1 πd12
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II Q 4Q
V2 = = = 11.32 m/s
Ans. (d) : Bernoulli's equation used to find the A 2 πd 22
difference in fluid pressure between two points. Applying Bernoulli's equation between (1) and (2)
Bernoulli's equation assumes that, working with the
steady flow of an incompressible, irrotational, non p1 V12 p V2
+ + Z1 = 2 + 2 + Z2
viscos fluid. ρg 2g ρg 2g
307. Bernoulli's theorem has been derived under the p1 (2.83) 2
assumption that no external force acts on the + + 1.5
liquid except ρg 2 × 9.81
(a) Atmospheric pressure 150 ×103 (11.32)2
(b) Force due to gravity = + +0
1000 × 9.81 2 × 9.81
(c) Wind pressure p1
(d) None of the above + 0.408 + 1.5
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 ρg
Ans. (b) : Bernoulli's theorem has been derived under = 15.29 + 6.531
the assumption that no external force acts on the liquid p1
= 19.913
except force due to gravity. ρg
p1 = 195346 N/m2
308. The Specific energy of a flowing liquid per unit p1 = 195.34 kN/m2
weight is 310. Statement I: There exists a positive pressure
v v 2 difference between the inlet and throat of a
(a) E = y 2 + (b) E = y + venturi meter.
2g 2g Statement II: The coefficient of discharge of a
v2 v venturi meter accounts for the non-uniformity
(c) E = (d) E = y + of flow at both inlet and throat.
2g 2g
ESE 2018
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (b) : From inlet to throat area decreases, velocity
Ans. (b) : The specific energy of a flowing liquid per
increase and pressure decreases. Hence statement-I is
v2 correct.
unit weight is; E = y + The co-efficient of discharge considers all losses
2g
occurring due to non ideal behaviour of fluid. It
309. A vertical water pipe 1.5 m long, taper from 75 includes surfaces friction as well as internal friction
mm diameter at the bottom to 150 mm occurring due to non uniform velocity at each section.
diameter at the top and the rate of flow is 50 Hence both the statements are correct but statement-II is
L/s upwards. If the pressure at the bottom end not related to statement-I.
is 150 kN/m2, the pressure at the top will be 311. Statement I: Non-viscous flow between two
nearly plates held parallel with a very small spacing
(a) 195.2 kN/m2 (b) 191.4 kN/m2 between them is an example of irrigational
2 2
(c) 187.6 kN/m (d) 183.8 kN/m flow.
ESE 2019 Statement II: Forced vortex implies
Ans. (a) : irrotational flow.
ESE 2018
Ans. (c) : Non viscous flow between two parallel plates
has uniform velocity at each section. In uniform flow all
velocity gradients are zero hence it is irrotational.
Forced vortex is not irrotational flow. It is always
rotational flow.
Hence statement-II is wrong.
312. The total energy of each particle at various
places in the case of a perfect incompressible
Given,
Z1 = 1.5 m fluid flowing in a continuous stream
Z2 = 0 (a) keeps on increasing
3 (b) keeps on decreasing
Q = 50 ℓ/s = 0.05 m /s (c) remains constant
d2 = 75 mm = 0.075 m (d) may increase or decrease
d1 = 150 mm = 0.15 m ESE 2018
317
Ans. (c) : For a perfect incompressible liquid, flowing Which of the above statements are correct?
in a continuous stream, the total energy of a particle (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
remains the same, while the particle moves from one (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
point to another. This statement is called Bernoulli's ESE 2017
equation. Ans. (a) : In third statement Bernoulli equation is
313. Water is coming out from a tap and falls wrong. Since the Bernoulli's equation is derived from a
vertically downwards. At the tap opening, the force balance on fluid particle moving along a stream
stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform line. Hence it is not applicable in flow sections
velocity of 2 m/s. Assuming steady inviscid involving pump, turbine etc. If flow section involves
flow, constant pressure atmosphere such devices, the steady flow energy equation is used as
everywhere, and neglecting curvature and P1 1 2
surface tension effects, the diameter of the + V1 + gZ1 + pump work
ρ 2
stream 0.5m below the tap opening is nearly.
(a) 11.7 mm (b) 14.6 mm P 1
= 2 + V22 + gZ2 + turbine work
(c) 17.5 mm (d) 20.4 mm ρ 2
ESE 2017 315. For a liquid coming out of a nozzle, maximum
Ans. (b) : height attained is:
u 2 sin 2 θ u 2 sin 2 2θ
(a) (b)
g g
u 2 cos 2 θ u 2 sin 2 θ
(c) (d)
2g 2g
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans : (d)
Given, D1 = 20 mm V1 = 2 m/s
Z1 − Z2 = 0.5 m P1 = P2 = Patm
Apply Bernoulli's equation between (1) & (2)
P1 V12 P V2
+ + Z1 = 2 + 2 + Z2
ρg 2g ρg 2g
V12 V2
+ Z1 = 2 + Z2
2g 2g
2 2
V2 V1
= + ( Z1 − Z2 )
2g 2g
V22 (2)2 free liquid jet is defined as the jet of water coming out
= + 0.5 from the nozzle in atmosphere. The travelled path by
2 × 10 2 × 10
V2 = 3.741 m/s the free jet is parabolic.
Apply continuity equation between (1) & (2) (i) Maximum height attained by the jet:-
A1V1 = A2V2 u 2 sin 2 θ
h=
D12 V1 = D22 V2 2g
(ii) Time of flight :-
V1 2
D2 = D1 = 20 2u sin θ
V2 3.741 T=
D2 = 14.62 mm g
314. Consider the following statements regarding 316. The equation of continuity is applicable when
Bernoulli’s equation: the flow:
1. It is assumed that no energy has been (a) Velocity is uniform at all cross sections
supplied. (b) Is steady
2. The velocity of a steady stream of fluid flow will (c) Is one dimensional
depend on the cross-sectional area of the stream. (d) All of the above
3. Consider two sections 1 and 2 along a flow OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
stream. In this reach, if q is work done by a Ans : (d)
pump, w is work absorbed by turbine, ρ is The equation of continuity is applicable when:-
density of water and g is acceleration of (i) Flow is steady
gravity, with p, v and z carrying standard (ii) Flow is one dimensional.
meanings, Bernoulli’s equation will read Continuity equation :-
p1 v12 p v2 ρ1A1V1 = ρ2A2V2 (for compressible fluid)
+ + z1 = 2 + 2 + z 2 + w + g A 1 V 1 = A2 V 2 (for incompressible liquid)
ρ 2g ρ 2g
318
The equation based on the principle of conservation of (d) to maximize frictional losses
mass is called continuity equation. Thus for a fluid TSPSC AEE 2015
flowing through the pipe at all the cross- section, the Ans : (c)
quantity of fluid per second is constant.
317. The magnitude of velocity at stagnation point is
an immersed body is:
(a) Zero (b) Large
(c) Small (d) Half of the initial
value
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans : (a) The magnitude of velocity at stagnation point
is an immersed body is zero.
318. The most appropriate governing equation of
1 1
ideal fluid flow are: d 2 =  to  d1
(a) Euler's equation 3 2
(b) Navier Stokes' equation Angle of convergence (θ1) = 18° - 22°
(c) Reynolds' equation 1°
(d) Hage Poisullie equation Angle of divergence (θ2) = 5° - 7
2
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) The divergent portion of venturimeter is made longer
Ans : (a) The most appropriate governing equation of than convergent portion in order to
ideal fluid flow are Euler's equation. (i) Avoid the tendency of breaking away the stream of
Euler's equation:- This is equation of motion in which liquid
the force due to gravity and pressure are taken into (ii) To minimize frictional losses.
consideration. This is derived by considering the motion 321. The mean velocities of water at smaller end and
of a fluid element along a stream line larger end of a pipe are 20m/s and 5 m/s
respectively. If the area of the smaller end is
2500 mm2, then the area of larger end is
(a) 10.000 mm2 (b) 1,000 mm2
2
(c) 1,00,000 mm (d) 100 mm2
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (a)

319. If flow conditions satisfy 'Laplace equation',

then : Equation of
(a) flow is rotational A 1 V 1 = A2 V 2
(b) flow does not satisfy continuity equation 2500 × 20 = A2×5
(c) flow is irrotational and satisfy continuity A2 = 10000mm2
equation
(d) flow is irrotational and does not satisfy 322. The line joining the sum of pressure heads and
continuity equation datum heads is called as
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) (a) Datum head line (b) Total energy line
(c) Piezometric line (d) pressure head line
Ans : (c) If flow conditions satisfy Laplace equation TSPSC AEE 2015
then flow is irrotational and statics.
continuity equation. Ans : (c)
Laplace equation is given by Piezometric head = Datum head + pressure head
P
∂ 2 φ ∂ 2φ Piezometric head = Z +
+ =0 ρg
∂x 2 ∂y 2 The line joining the sum of pressure heads and datum
if velocity potential function satisfies laplace equation head is called piezometric line.
then it also satisfies continuity equation and hence the 323. The discharge in (m 3 / s) for laminar flow
flow is possible.
through a pipe of diameter 0.04 m bearing a
320. The divergent portion of a venturimeter is centreline velocity of 1.5 m/s is
made longer than convergent portion in order
3π 3π
to (a) (b)
(a) avoid the tendency of breaking away the 59 2500
stream of liquid 3π 3π
(c) (d)
(b) to minimise frictional losses 5000 10000
(c) both (1) & (2) APPSC AEE 2012
319
Ans : (d) Given, Pipe diameter (d) = 0.04m 327. The coefficient of discharge 'Cd' of a venturi
Maximum velocity = 1.5m/sec. meter lies within the limits
Average velocity = 0.75m/sec. (a) 0.7–0.9 (b) 0.6–0.8
π (c) 0.75–0.95 (d) 0.95–0.99
Discharge (Q) = AxV = ( 0.04 ) × 0.75
2
APPSC AEE 2012
4
3π Ans : (d) Coefficient of discharge = Actualdischarge
Q= m3 / sec theoriticaldischarge
10000
324. The Bernoulli's constants for points lying on Q
Cd = act
the same stream line and those which lie on Q th
other stream lines will have the same value, if The coefficient of discharge of a venturimeter lies
the flow is within the limits 0.95 – 0.99.
(a) incompressible (b) steady
328. When the venturimeter is inclined, then for a
(c) irrotational (d) uniform given flow it will give the reading as
APPSC AEE 2012 (a) same (b) more
Ans : (c) The Bernoulli's constant for points lying on the (c) less (d) no relation
same stream line and those which lie on other stream lines APPSC AEE 2012
will have the same value, if the flow is irrotational. Ans : (a) When the venturimeter is inclined, then for a
Rotational flow is that type of flow in which the fluid given flow it will give the reading is same.
particles which flowing along stream lines, also rotate
about their own axis and if the fluid particles while C .a a 2gh
Q th = d 1 2
flowing along stream lines do not rotate their own axis
a12 − a 22
then the type of flow is called irrotatinal flow.
325. The Bernoulli's equation written in conventional ρ 
h = x  m − 1
form represents total energy per unit of a certain  ρ 
quantity. Identify this quantity. 329. The velocity of liquid flowing through the
(a) energy per unit volume divergent portion of a venturimeter
(b) energy per unit mass (a) remains constant (b) decreases
(c) energy per unit weight (c) increases (d) no relationship
(d) energy per unit specific weight APPSC AEE 2012
APPSC AEE 2012 Ans : (b)
Ans : (c) Bernoulli's equation
P V2
+ + Z = Constant
ρg 2g
Bernoulli's equation in which
P
=Pressure energy per unit weight of fluid or
ρg
pressure head
V2
= Kinetic energy per unit weight or kinetic head
2g The velocity of liquid flowing through the divergent
Z= Potential energy per unit weight or potential head. portion of a venturimeter decreases.
326. The velocity head representing the kinetic 330. The head loss is more in a
energy per unit weight of fluid is denoted by (a) nozzle meter (b) venturimeter
2 (c) inclined venturimeter (d) orifice meter
v APPSC AEE 2012
(a) v2 (b)
2 Ans : (d) The head loss is more in a orificemeter.
v2 orifice meter :-
(c) 2gh (d)
2g
APPSC AEE 2012
P v2
Ans : (d) Z + + =c
ρg 2g
Z = Datum head
P/ρg = Pressure head
v 2 / 2g = velocity head
Kinetic energy It is a device used for measuring the rate of flow of a
Velocity head =
weight fluid through a pipe.
320
 Cd a 0 a1 2gh Ans : (c)
Disch arg e(Q) = The size of a venturimeter is specified by pipe diameter
a12 − a 02 and throat diameter.
Cd = Co-efficient of discharge for orifice meter = 0.62
The co-efficient of discharge for orifice meter is much
smaller than that for a venturimeter.
331. If successive measurements with a Prandtl-
pitot tube indicate that the tip piezo meter
reading varies only across the flow, and the size
piezometer reading varies only in the direction
of flow, the flow is evidently
(a) uniform, irrotational
(b) non-uniform, rotational
1 1
(c) uniform, rotational d 2 =  to  d1
(d) non-uniform, irrotational 3 2
Angle of convergence = 200–220
APPSC AEE 2012
Ans : (b) If successive measurements with a prandtl- Angle of divergence = 60–70 and it should be not greater
than 70 to avoid flow separation.
pitot tube indicate that the tip piezo meter reading varies
only across the flow, and the size piezometer reading 336. In a flow field at the stagnation point
varies only in the direction of flow the flow is evidently (a) Pressure is zero
non-uniform and rotational. (b) Total energy is zero
332. Momentum equation is completely independent (c) Pressure head is equal to velocity head
of (d) All the velocity head is converted into
(a) compressibility effects(b) frictional effects pressure head
(c) viscous effects (d) momentum flux UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
Ans : (d) In a flow field at the stagnation point all the
APPSC AEE 2012
Ans : (c) Momentum equation is completely dependent velocity head is converted into pressure head.
of Pitot-tube is based on principle of conversion
(i) Compressibility effects of kinetic head into pressure head. The point at which
(ii) Frictional effects velocity reduces to zero is called stagnation point
(iii) Momentum flux 337. For the flow to occur between two points in a
333. For flow in a nozzle discharging from a top pipeline, the differential pressure between
"choking" condition occurs, when the flow the these points should be more than
nozzle exit is (a) Surface friction (b) Viscosity force
(a) subsonic (b) supersonic (c) Frictional force (d) All of the above
(c) critical (d) transonic UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
Ans : (d) For the flow to occur between two points in a
APPSC AEE 2012
Ans : (c) For flow in a nozzle discharging from a top pipeline, the differential pressure between these points
choking condition occurs, when the flow the nozzle should be more than– (i) Surface friction, (ii) Viscosity
force, (iii) Frictional force
exist is critical.
338. A stagnation point is a point where
334. At the point of separation
(a) pressure is zero
(a) Velocity is maximum
(b) total energy is zero
(b) Shear stress is zero
(c) total energy is maximum
(c) Shear stress is maximum
(d) velocity of flow reduces to zero
(d) Pressure gradient is zero
APPSC AEE 2012
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
Ans : (d) A stagnation point is a point where velocity of
Ans : (b) At the point of separation shear stress is zero.
flow reduces to zero.
 ∂u  Pitot tube is based on principal of conservation of
At the average of separation   is zero
 ∂y  y = 0 kinetic head into pressure head. The point at which
velocity reduces zero is called stagnation point.
 ∂u  339. A rotameter is used to measure
Shear stress τ = µ.   is also zero
 ∂y  y =0 (a) rpm of engine
(b) rotation of shafts
335. The size of a venturimeter is specified by
(c) twist due to torque applied on shafts
(a) Fluid pressure (d) flow of liquids and gases
(b) Discharge Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
(c) Piper diameter and throat diameter RPSC AE. 2016
(d) Length of venturimeter SJVN ET 2013
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
321
Ans : (d) A rotameter is used to measure flow of liquids (c) three dimensional flow only
and gases. (d) uniform flow only
Device Measurement UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Venturimeter Rate of flow Ans. (b) : two dimensional flow only
Flow nozzle Rate of flow 346. Flow over an elliptical body may be idealized
Orifice meter Rate of flow by superimposing a free stream and:-
Bend meter Rate of flow (a) A source (b) A doublet
Rotameter Rate of flow (c) A source and sink (d) A free vortex
Pitot tube Velocity UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Hot wire Anemometer air and gas velocity Ans. (c) : Flow over an elliptical body may be idealized
340. Hot wire anemometer is used to by superimposing a free stream and a source and sink.
(a) measure pressure of liquid 347. Navier – Stoke’s equation is concerned with:-
(b) measure velocity of air stream (a) Turbulence (b) Viscosity
(c) measure temperature of moving fluid (c) Buoyancy (d) Compressibility
(d) measure thermal conductivity of solid UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
RPSC AE 2016 Ans. (b) :
Ans : (b) Hot wire Anemometer is used to measured 348. Pick the correct statement about the
velocity of air stream. piezometric head in a static liquid.
341. A mechanical device, which has rotation (a) It remains constant only in a horizontal plane.
elements, the speed of rotation of which is a (b) It remains constant at all points in the liquid.
function of velocity of flow, and which is used (c) It decreases linearly with depth below a free
measure the velocity of liquid in open channels, surface.
is (d) It increases linearly with depth below a free
(a) Anemometer (b) Orifice meter surface.
(c) Current meter (d) Rotameter BHEL ET 2019
APPSC AEE 2012 Ans. (b) :
Ans : (c) A mechanical device, which has rotation 349. The kinetic energy correction factor α is a
elements, the speed of rotation of which is a function of measure of effect of non-uniform distribution
velocity of flow, and which is used measure the velocity of velocity which is caused on account of
of liquid in open channels is current meter. viscous and other resistance. It is expressed by
342. A mouthpiece and an orifice, both of the same 2
1 v 1 v
diameter 'd', are discharging under the same
head 'H'. The discharge through the
(a) ∫
A  V 
A
dA (b) ∫ A  V 
A
dA
mouthpiece will be 3 3
(a) the same as that of the orifice 1 v 1 V
(b) less than that of the orifice (c) ∫ 
A V  dA (d) ∫ 
A v  dA
(c) more than that of the orifice A A
(d) no relationship APPSC AEE 2012
APPSC AEE 2012 Ans : (c) Kinetic energy correction factor (α ) :-
Ans : (c) A mouth piece and an orifice, both of the K.E / sec based on actual velocity
same diameter 'd' are discharging under the same head α=
'H' the discharge through the mouth piece will be more K.E / sec based on average velocity
than that of the orifice. 3
1 v
343. The coefficient of discharge for orifice meter as
compared to coefficient of discharge for
α = ∫
A A  V 
.dA

Venturimeter is: Kinetic energy correction factor for laminar flow

(a) Equal (b) Very High through a circular pipe is 2.
(c) Very Small (d) High
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II 7. Flow Through Orifices and
Ans : (c) : For Venturimeter Cdv = 0.94 – 0.98 Mouthpieces
For orificemeter Cdv = 0.64 – 0.76
344. Which is the flow measuring device through 350. The discharge through an orifice fitted in a
which fluid does not flow ? tank can be increase by
(a) Orifice plate (b) Venturimeter (a) Fitting a short length of pipe to the outside
(c) Pitot tube (d) Elbow meter (b) Sharpening the edges of orifice
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (c) Fitting a long length of pipe to the outside
Ans. (c) : Pitot tube (d) Fitting a long length of pipe to the inside
345. The concept of stream function which is based Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
on the principle of continuity is applicable to Ans. (a) : Fitting a short length of pipe to the outside.
(a) irrotational flow only the discharge through an orifice fitted in a tank can be
(b) two dimensional flow only increased by fitting a short length of pipe to the outside.
322
351. A jet of water issues from a sharp-edged 353. According to chezy's formula, the mean
vertical orifice under a constant head of 0.51m. velocity of flow through the pipe is given by
At a certain point of the issuing jet, the (a) V = m Ci (b) V = i mC
horizontal and vertical coordinates measured
from vena contracta are 0.406 m and 0.085m, (c) V = C mi (d) C = V mi
respectively. What is the value of the coefficient TSPSC AEE 2015
of velocity? TNPSC AE 2013
(a) 0.975 (b) 0.925 4f ′ ℓ V 2
(c) 0.875 (d) 0.825 Ans : (c) H f =
ESE 2017 2gd
Ans. (a) : H d 2g
V2 = f .
ℓ 4 f
2g
V= . mi
f
V = C mi
2g
C= = Chezy's constant
f
m → Hydraulic mean depth for pipe
Theoretical velocity (Vth) = 2gH i → Friction head loss per unit length
= 2 × 9.81 × 0.51 354. The total energy line is always higher than the
hydraulic gradient line, and the vertical
= 3.16 m/s
distance between the two represents
Let Vact is the actual velocity of water at orifice (a) the datum head (b) the pressure head
By using projectile motion (c) the velocity head (d) the piezometric head
1 2y APPSC AEE 2012
y = gt 2 , t=
2 g Ans : (c) The total energy line is always higher than
then hydraulic gradient line, and the vertical distance
x x between the two represent the velocity head.
Actual velocity (Vact) = =
t 2y
g
0.406
= = 3.084 m/s
2 × 0.085
9.81
V
Coefficient of velocity CV = act
Vth 355. The time taken for a tank, filled to a height 'h'
above its flat base, to empty through an orifice
3.084 in the base varies as the following power of 'h'.
= = 0.9749 = 0.975
3.16 1
352. The supply head of a pipe is 21 kPa. for (a) 1 (b)
2
maximum power transmission the loss of head 1 1
due to friction is equal to (if w = 10 kN/m )3
(c) − (d)
(a) 2 m (b) 1m 2 3
(c) 9.81 m (d) 0.7 m APPSC AEE 2012
TSPSC AEE 2015 Ans : (b) Time of emptying a tank through an orifice at
its bottom :-
Ans : (d) Supply head of a pipe = 21 kPa.
P = ρgh
P
h=
ρg
21× 103
h=
1000 × 10 2A  H1 − H 2 
h = 2.1 m T=  
for maximum power transmission Cd .a. 2g
Total head for emptying the tank Completely H 2 = 0
head loss =
3 2A H1
hf = h/3 T=
hf = 0.7m Cd .a. 2g

323
356. In order to replace a pipe of diameter D by n 360. Loss of energy due to hydraulic jump (hα)
parallel pipes of diameter d, the relation used is d1 = depth of flow at section 1 - 1
D D d2 = depth of flow at section 2 - 2
(a) d = 2/5 (b) d= 2
n n d 3 − d 13 d 3 − d 13
(a) h α = 2 (b) h α = 2
D D 4d 1d 2 8d 1d 2
(c) d = 3/ 2 (d) d=
n n (d 2 − d1 ) (d 2 − d1 )
3 3

BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 (c) h α = (d) h α =

Ans : (a) In order to replace a pipe of diameter D by n 4d 1d 2 8d 1d 2
parallel pipes of diameter d, the relation b/w D and d. TNPSC AE 2013
(d − d1 )
3
D
d = 2/5 Ans. (c) : h α = 2
n 4d 1d 2
361. Discharge through rectangle channel is
8. Flow over Notches and Weirs maximum when the ratio of hydraulic mean
depth and depth of flow is:
357. The critical depth meter is used to measure (a) 0.5 (b) 1.0
(a) Velocity of flow in an open channel (c) 1.5 (d) 2.0
(b) Depth of flow in an open channel OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(c) Depth of channel
(d) Hydraulic jump Ans : (a) : Discharge through rectangle channel is
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 maximum when the ratio of hydraulic mean depth and
depth of flow is 0.5.
Ans. (d) : The critical depth meter is used to measure
hydraulic jump. 362. As compared to a rectangular weir, a
358. The safeguarding structure provided in the triangular weir measures low discharges more
dam to relieve the reservoir of excess water accurately, the discharge through the latter
when the water level in the reservoir rises, is being
5
known as: 2
(a) Spillways (b) Draft tube (a) Cd 2g tan θ.H 2
3
(c) Catchment area (d) Surge tank 5
SJVN ET Mechanical 2019 paper 8 θ
(b) Cd 2g tan .H 2
Ans. (a) : 15 2
Spillways- It is also known as over flow channels. It is 3
a structure used to provide controlled rules of flows 8 θ
(c) Cd 2g tan .H 2
from dam in to downstream area to prevent damage or 15 2
destroy of dam. 3
Draft tube- Use in tail stock of reaction turbine to 2
(d) Cd 2g tan θ.H 2
convert kinetic energy in pressure energy. 3
Catchment area- The area from which rain flows in to APPSC AEE 2012
a particular river or lake. Ans : (b)
Surge tank- It is a water storage device used as pressure
neutralizer in hydropower water conveyance system to
resist excess pressure rise and pressure drop conditions.
359. A cippoletti weir is a
(a) rectangular weir with sharp edges
(b) high triangular notch
(c) trapezoidal notch with 450 slopes 8 θ
(d) trapezoidal notch with sides inclined at 1H : 4V Q = Cd × tan 2g × H 5/ 2 .
APPSC AEE 2012 15 2
H = Head of water above the v-noteh
Ans : (d) A Cippoletti weir is a trapezoidal notch with
θ= angle of notch.
sides inclined at 1H : 4V.
For a right - angle v-notch if Cd = 0.6
θ AB 1
tan = = θ
2 BC 4 θ = 900 , tan = 1
2
8
Q = × 0.6 × 2 × 9.81 × H5/ 2
15
Q = 1.417 H 5 / 2
363. Hydraulic radius is equal to:-
(a) Area divided by the square of wetted
θ 1
= tan −   = 140 2' perimeter
2 4 (b) Area divided by the wetted perimeter
324
 (c) Wetted perimeter divided by area 367. A reservoir having a surface area of 500 m2 is
(d) Square root of area emptied by a 0.5 m wide rectangular weir. How
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II long should it take to empty the reservoir from
Ans. (b) : a height of 3.2 m to 0.1 m above the sill?
364. Cipolleti weir is a trapezoidal weir having side [Take : Cd = 0.65]
slope of : (a) 16 minutes and 5 seconds
(a) 1 horizontal 4 vertical (b) 8 minutes and 5 seconds
(b) 4 horizontal 1 vertical (c) 32 minutes and 5 seconds
(c) 1 horizontal 2 vertical (d) 10 seconds
(d) 2 horizontal 1 vertical JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II Ans. (a) : A = 500 m2
Ans : (a) : When a trapezoidal weir having side slope of b = 0.5 m
4V : 1 H then it became a cipoletti weir. h1 = 3.2 m
4V : 1H (side slope) h2 = 0.1 m
b b Cd = 0.65
l=1m

T=
2A ( h1 − h2 )
Cd .b 2 g

=
2 × 500 ( 3.2 − 0.1 ) =16 minutes and 5 seconds
L
0.65 × 0.5 × 1 2 × 10
368. Time required to empty a tank form height h1
to h2 for rectangular notch is : [A = cross
sectional area of reservoir, Cd = coefficient of
discharge, L = length of crest of notch]
B
365. The most economic section of channel has: A  1 1
(a) Minimum Wetted Perimeter (a)  − 
C d L 2g  h 2 h 1 
(b) Minimum Discharge
(c) Both Wetted Perimeter and Discharge 3A  1 1 
Minimum (b)  3/ 2 − 3/ 2 
(d) Both Wetted Perimeter and Discharge C d L 2g  h 2 h 1 
Maximum 5A  1 1 
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II (c)  − 
Ans : (a) : Best hydraulic channel cross-section means C d L 2g  h 2 h 1 
economical section of channel. This is the cross-section 3A  1 1 
which provide maximum discharge with constant (d)  − 
resistance and bed slope. This is achieved, when the C d L 2g  h 2 h 1 
hydraulic radius is maximum or wetted perimeter is
A  1 1 
minimum. (e)  − 
366. A rectangular channel of 4 m width conveys C d L 2g  h 2 h 1 
water at 8 m3/sec under critical condition. The CGPSC AE 2014- II
specific energy for this flow is Ans. (d) : The time required to empty a tank from
(a) 1.1123 m (b) 1.4830 m height h1 to h2 for rectangular notch is given as
(c) 0.3703 m (d) 0.7416 m
JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper 3A  1 1 
t= × − 
Ans. (a) : Given, b = 4, Q = 8 m3/s C d L 2g  h 2 h 1 
Q 8
q = = = 2m 2 / s 369. Hydraulic jump is used for
b 4 (a) Increasing the flow rate
1
q 2
1
3 (b) Reducing the flow rate
 4 3
hc =   =   = ( 0.4 )
0.33
(c) Reducing the velocity of flow
 g   10  (d) Reducing the energy of flow
hc = 0.73906 TNPSC AE 2014
3 Ans. (d) : Hydraulic Jump →
Emin = hc A Hydraulic jump is a phenomenon in the
2
3 science of hydraulics which is frequently observed in
= × 0.7396 open channel flow such as rivers and spilways. When
2 liquid at high velocity discharges into a zone of lower
= 1.1123 m velocity, a rather abrupt rise occurs in the liquid surface.
325
370. Function of 'Spillways' is to: 9. Flow Through Pipes
(a) Provide structural stability to dam during
reservoir flooding
(b) Provide safety during earthquakes 376. Head loss in sudden expansion is given by
(c) Provide extra water during droughts
(d) All of these (a)
v12 − v 22
(b)
( v1 − v2 )3
SJVN ET 2013 2g 2g
Ans. (a) : Spillways are provided for storage and
( )
2
detention dams to release surplus or flood water which ( v1 − v2 )2 2 v12 − v 2
(c) (d)
cannot be contained in the allotted storage space, and 2g g
diversion dams to by pass flows exceeding those which (Notations used have usual meanings)
are turned into the diversion system. UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
371. A submerged weir is one in which the water
level on the downstream of the weir is
Ans. (c) :
( v1 − v2 )2
(a) Just at the crest level 2g
(b) Below the crest level
(c) Is above the crest level 377. In order to have a continuous flow through a
(d) At the same elevation as the upstream water siphon, no portion of the pipe be higher than
surface _____ measured above the hydraulic grade
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 line:
(a) 10m (b) 10.33m
Ans. (c) : A submerged weir is one in which the water
(c) 5.5m (d) 7.75m
level on the downstream side of weir is above the top
surface of weir it is known as submerged or drowned weir. UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Total discharge, over such a weir is found out by Ans. (d) : 7.75m
splitting up the height of water, above the sill of the 378. The maximum thickness of boundary layer in
weir, in two portions. case of a pipe of radius R is:
372. The type of jump that forms when the initial (a) R (b) 1/3R
Froude number lies between 2.5 and 4.5 is (c) 0.1 R (d) 2/3 R
known as OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
(a) A oscillating jump (b) Weak jump Ans : (a) The maximum thickness of boundary layer in
(c) Steady jump (d) Undular jump case of a pipe of radius is R.
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 379. Which of the following head loss is significant
Ans. (a) : An oscillating jump that take place when the in a pipe flow ?
Froude's number is in between 2.5 to 4.5. During this (a) Loss of head due to gradual contraction
jump, the Jet water at the entrance of the jump fluctuates. (b) Loss of head due to friction
373. The most economical section of a trapezoidal (c) Loss of head due to sudden enlargement
channel is one which has hydraulic mean depth (d) Loss of head due to sudden contraction
equal to UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
(a) 0.5 depth (b) 0.5 sloping side Ans. (b) : Loss of head due to friction
(c) 0.5 width (d) 0.5 (width + depth) 380. A fully developed pipe flow implies that the
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 (a) flow should be laminar
Ans. (a) : The most economical section of a trapezoidal (b) flow should be turbulent
channel is one which has hydraulic mean depth equal to (c) velocity profile should be uniform
half the depth of flow. (d) velocity profile should not change in the
374. In a horizontal rectangular channel a hydraulic direction of flow.
jump with a sequent depth ratio of 5.0 is UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
formed. This jump can be classified as Ans. (d) : velocity profile should not change in the
(a) Steady jump (b) Strong jump
(c) Weak jump (d) Normal jump direction of flow.
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 381. Loss of head due to friction to maintain 0.05
Ans. (a) : In a horizontal channel a hydraulic jump with m3/s of discharge of petrol (sp. gravity 0.7)
a sequent depth ratio of 5.0 is formed. This jump can be through a steel pipe 0.2 m diameter and 1000 m
classified as steady jump. long, taking coefficient of friction 0.0025 will be
375. The whole area behind the dam draining into (a) 0.644 m (b) 6.44 m
stream or river across which the dam is (c) 64.4 m (d) 644 m
constructed is known as: UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
(a) Surge tank (b) Catchments area Ans. (b) : Given as,
(c) Spillways (d) Reservoir Q = 0.05 m3/s
SJVN ET 2019 ρp = 700 kg/m3
Ans. (b) : Catchment area- The whole area behind the D = 0.2 m
dam draining into a stream or river across which the L = 1000 m
dam is constructed is known as catchment area. f = 0.0025 m
326
 f′ = Fanning friction factor (or) friction co-efficient.
4f ⋅ LV 2
hL = Friction factor depend upon :-
2gD (i) Diameter
Q 0.05 (ii) velocity
V= = (iii) Kinematic viscosity
A π × (0.2)2
(iv) Relative height.
4
386. When the pipes are connected in series, the
V = 1.5915m / s total rate of flow
(a) is equal to the sum of the rate of flow in each
4 × 0.0025 ×1000 × (1.591) 2
hL = pipe
2 × 9.81× 0.2 (b) is equal to the reciprocal of the sum of the
h L = 6.45m rate of flow in each pipe
(c) is remaining same as flowing through
382. When a fluid flows through a pipeline under (d) none of the above
viscous flow conditions, the ratio of velocity at the Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
axis of the pipe to the mean velocity of flow is:-
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 Ans. (c) : When the pipes are connected in series, the
(c) 1.67 (d) 2.0 total rate of flow is remaining same as flowing through
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II each pipe.
Ans. (d) : 387. Which is the most commonly used following
equation for velocity of distribution for laminar
383. The loss of head due to friction in a pipe of
flow through pipes?
uniform diameter in which a viscous flow is
taking place is given in terms of Reynolds  r
(a) U = U max 1 − 
number, Re as:-  R
(a) 1/Re (b) 4/Re
  r 2 
(c) 16/Re (d) 64/Re (b) U = U max 1 −   
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
  R  
Ans. (c) :
384. In case of fluid flow through pipes, cavitation is  r 3

(c) U = U max 1 −   
caused by   R  
(a) High pressure
(b) High velocity   r 2 
(c) Low pressure below a limit (d) U = U 2 max 1 −   
(d) Weak material of pipe   R  
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II where Umax = centre line velocity
R = Radius of pipe
Ans : (c) In case of fluid flow through pipes, cavitation
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
is caused by low pressure below a limit.
Cavitation : If the pressure at any point in this flowing Ans. (b) : For laminar flow through pipes, velocity
liquid becomes equal to or less than vapour pressure, distribution equation,
the vaporization of the liquid starts. The bubbles of   r 2 
these vapours are carried by the flowing liquid into the U = U max 1 −    ⇒ Parabolic distribution
region of high pressure where they collapse, giving rise   R  
to high impact pressure. The pressure developed by the 1  −∂P  2
collapsing bubbles is so high that the material from the & Umax =  R
4µ  ∂x 
adjoining boundaries gets eroded and cavities formed of
* Shear stress equation,
them. This phenomenon is known as cavitation.
385. The Darcy - Weisbach friction factor 'f' which  −∂P  r
τ=  × (linear distribution )
is a direct measure of resistance to flow in pipes  ∂x  2
is dependant on 388. To maintain 0.08 m3/s flow of petrol with a
(a) roughness height, diameter and velocity specific gravity of 0.7, through a steel pipe of
(b) relative roughness, diameter and viscosity 0.3 m diameter and 800 m length, with
(c) relative roughness, velocity and viscosity coefficient of friction of 0.0025 in the Darcy
(d) roughness height, diameter, velocity and relation, the power required will be nearly
kinematic viscosity (a) 0.6 kW (b) 1.0 kW
APPSC AEE 2012 (c) 2.6 kW (d) 2.6 kW
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II ESE 2020
64 f Ans. (B) :
Ans : (d) friction factor (f) = , f′ = Given:
Re 4
Coefficient of friction, f = 0.0025
for laminar flow.
Discharge, Q = 0.08 m3/s
16
f′ = Length, ℓ = 800 m
Re Diameter, d = 0.3 m
327
Density, ρ = 0.7 × 1000 = 700 kg/m3 Head loss = ?

Head loss to friction in pipe, hf =

( 4f ) ℓV 2 Major head loss is frictional head loss =
fLV 2
2dg 2gd
We know that friction factor is four times to that of 32µVL
coefficient of friction. hf =
ρgd 2
4Q  πd 2  32 × 2.1 × 3 × 12
∵ V = 2  for pipe, A =  =
πd  4  1790 × 9.81× ( 0.06 )
2

So, power required, P = ρgQh f 32 × 12 × 21× 3 × 1000

=
ρgQ × ( 4f ) ℓ × 16Q 2 1790 × 9.81 × 36
=
2 × g × π2 × d 5 32 × 21× 10
=
ρ ( 4f ) ℓ × 8 × Q3 180
= 224
π2 × d 5 =
6
700 × ( 4 × 0.0025 ) × 800 × 8 × ( 0.08 )
3

P= ≈ 38
π 2 × ( 0.3) × 1000
5
391. Power transmitted through pipes will be
P = 0.956 kW maximum when–
1
≈ 1 kW (a) head lost due to friction = × (total head at
2
389. Two pipes of lengths 2500 m each and inlet of the pipe)
diameters 80 cm and 60 cm respectively, are 1
connected in parallel. The coefficient of friction (b) head lost due to friction = × (total head at
for each pipe is 0.006 and the total flow is 250 4
litres/s. The rates of flow in the pipes are nearly inlet of the pipe)
(a) 0.17 m3/s and 0.1 m3/s (c) head lost due to friction = total head at inlet
(b) 0.23 m3/s and 0.1 m3/s of the pipe
(c) 0.17 m3/s and 0.4 m3/s 1
(d) head lost due to friction = × (total head at
(d) 0.23 m3/s and 0.4 m3/s 3
ESE 2020 inlet of the pipe)
Ans. (a) : Given, RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
f1 = f2 = 0.006 Ans : (d) For maximum power transmission,
Q = 250 ℓ/s = 0.25 m3/s H L = Total head supplied
Pipes are in parallel so head loss is equal h = Head loss due to friction
h f1 = h f2
HL
h=
f1L1Q12 f 2 L 2 Q 22 3
=
12d15 12d 52 392. Check valve allows the fluid flow
5/ 2 2.5 (a) Only in one direction
Q1  d1   0.8 
 = (1.33) ...(i)
2.5
⇒ =  = (b) In both the directions
Q2  d2   0.6  (c) To change the direction
Q1 + Q2 = 0.25 ...(ii) (d) To stop
From equation (i) and (ii) APPSC-AE-2019
Q1 = 0.17m 3 / sec Ans. (a) : A check valve used in hydraulic circuits. It
allows hydraulic liquid flow in one direction and
and Q1 = 0.08m / sec
3
prevents reversible (i.e. back flow) when the liquid in
≈ 0.1m 3 / sec the line reverse direction. It is non-return (or) one-way
3 valve pressurized liquid passing through a line opens
390. A fluid of mass density 1790 kg/m and the valve while, reversal of flow will close the valve
2
viscosity 2.1 Ns/m flows at a velocity of 3 m/s represented as follows
in a 6 cm diameter pipe. The head loss over a
length of 12 m pipe will be nearly
(a) 62.0 m (b) 54.0 m
(c) 46.5 m (d) 38.5
ESE 2020
Ans. (d) : Given, 393. Hydraulic Diameter Dh of circular tubes
3 (a) Equal to diameter of the tube
ρ = 1790 kg/m
2 (b) Half of the diameter of the tube
µ = 2.1 Ns/m (c) Twice the diameter of the tube
V = 3 m/s (d) Four times the diameter of the tube
d = 0.06 m TNPSC AE 2014
328
Ans. (a) : Hydraulic diameter ∆PD 4∆PL
(c) τ W = (d) τ W =
4A C 2L D
Dh =
P BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
For circular tube of diameter d Ans : (a) :
π
4 × .d 2
Dn = 4
πd
Dh = d
394. The power transmission through nozzle is
maximum if the ratio of total head supplied Considering equilibrium of a section of length L.
and head loss due to friction is:
(a) 1 (b) 1.5 πD 2
τ w × πDL = ∆P
(c) 2 (d) 3 4
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II ∆PD
⇒ τw =
Ans : (d) : Total head = H 4L
H 398. The head loss in a sudden expansion from 6 cm
Head loss due to friction hL = [for maximum power]
3 diameter pipe to 12 cm diameter pipe, in terms
Then Ratio will be, of velocity V1 in the smaller diameter pipe is
H 3 V12 5 V12
= =3 (a) (b)
H 16 2 g 16 2 g
 
3
7 V12 9 V12
395. The unit of Chezy's constant 'C' in the Chezy's (c) (d)
formula is 16 2 g 16 2 g
(a) m/s (b) m/s2 BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
2 2
(c) m /s (d) m1/2/s Ans : (d) : Head loss in a sudden expansion
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II 2
(V − V2 ) 2 V12  V2 
Ans : (d) : V = C mi hL = 1 = 1 − 
C = Chezy's constant 2g 2g  V1 
The unit of C is m1/2/s 2
V1  d12 
396. For flow through pipes, the maximum = 1 − 
transmission efficiency that can achieve is: 2g  d 22 
(a) 97% (b) 57% 2 2
(c) 47% (d) 67% V12   6  
= 1 −   
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II 2g   12  
ESE 2019
Ans : (d) : Efficiency of power transmission through 9 V12
=
pipe is given by equation 16 2g
H − hf 399. For laminar flow in a round pipe, the energy
η=
H correction factor is
For maximum power transmission through pipe is given (a) 0.50 (b) 1.00
by equation, (c) 1.33 (d) 2.0
H JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
hf =
3 Ans. (d) : In Laminar flow,
Substituting the value of hf in efficiency, we get Energy correction factor = 2
maximum η, Momentum correction factor = 1.33
H − H/3 1 In Turbulent flow
η max = =1−
H 3 Energy correction factor = 1.33
= 66.7% Momentum correction factor = 1.2
≈ 67% 400. The velocity along the radius of a pipe of 0.1 m
397. For steady, fully developed flow inside a radius varies as u = 10 × [1 – (r/0.1)2] m/s. The
straight pipe of diameter D, neglecting gravity viscosity of the fluid is 0.02 Ns/m2. The
effects, the pressure drop ∆P over a length L maximum value shear stress in N/m2 is
and the wall shear stress τW are related by (a) –4 (b) –4.5
∆PD ∆PD 2 (c) –6 (d) –8
(a) τ W = (b) τ W = RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
4L 4 L2
329
Ans. (a) : Given, 404. For non-circular ducts, the hydraulic diameter
r = 0.1 m is defined as (A - sectional area of the duct; P -
µ = 0.02 Ns/m2 Wetted permimeter of the duct)
4A 2A
  r 2  (a) D h = (b) D h =
u = 10 × 1 −    m/s P P
  0.1   3A A
(c) D h = (d) D h =
10 × r 2 2P 4P
= 10 − TNPSC AE 2018
0.1× 0.1 APPSC-AE-2019
= 10 – 1000r2 Ans. (a) : Hydraulic diameter
du
= 0 − 2000r 4A
dr Dh =
P
 du  For pipe of diameter D
  = −200
 dr  r = 0.1 π
4× D2
By using Newton's Law of viscosity, Dh = 4
πD
du
τ=µ Dh = D
dy
= 0.02 × (–200) 405. The velocity distribution across a section of a
2 circular pipe having viscous flow is given by
τ = –4 N/m
  r 2 
401. They hydraulic gradient line is _____ . (a) u = U max 1 −   
(a) Always above the energy gradient line   R  
(b) The velocity head below the energy gradient
line (b) u = U max  R 2 − r 2 
 
(c) Always above the closed conduit 2
(d) Always sloping down in the direction of flow  r 
(c) u = U max 1 − 
TSPSC AEE 2015  R 
2
Ans. (b) : They hydraulic gradient line is the velocity  r
head below the energy gradient line. (d) u = U max 1 + 
 R
402. Major losses in the pipe are due to the TNPSC AE 2018
(a) Entrance effects (b) Frictional effects
(c) Valve and fittings (d) Pipe bends  r   2
Ans. (a) : u = U max 1 −   
APPSC-AE-2019
  R  
Ans. (b) : Loss due to friction is called major loss where,
because its magnitude is generally high as compared to
R 2  ∂P 
other losses. U max = . − 
403. Pressure-reducing valve is actuated by the fluid 4µ  ∂x 
pressure at For pipe
(a) Upstream (b) Downstream U max
=2
(c) Within the valve (d) Drain line U
APPSC-AE-2019 406. In pipe flow, loss of head due to sudden
Ans. (b) : Pressure reducing valve is actuated by the contraction is given as
fluid pressure at downstream. It is normally an open 2 2
V2  1  V22  1 
type 2-way valve that allows the liquid pressurised (a)  − 1 (b)  − 1
system to flow through it until a required/desired set g  cc  2g  c c 
pressure is reached downstream. 2 2 2
V  1  V  1 
(c) 22  − 1 (d) 2  − 1
g  cc  2g  c c 
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) : Loss of head due to sudden contraction
2
V22  1 
hL =  − 1
2g  C c 
If Cc is not given then
It controls pressure pipe line at its outlet i.e.
downstream pressure only. It is a pressure regulating at V2
h L = 0.5 × 2
downstream of line. 2g
330
407. If the pipe diameter is suddenly enlarged such 410. The ratio of average velocity to maximum
that the velocity of flow is decreased from 8 m/s velocity for steady laminar flow in circular
to 2 m/s. The head loss due to this enlargement pipes is
will be : [g = 10 m/s2] (a) 1/2 (b) 2/3
(a) 1.8 m of water (b) 0.18 m of water (c) 3/2 (d) 2
(c) 18 m of water (d) 0.018 m of water (e) 3
(e) 9 m of water CGPSC AE 2014 -II
CGPSC AE 2014- II RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
Ans. (a) : Head loss due to sudden enlargement
Ans. (a) : Average velocity (Uavg.) for laminar steady
flow in circular pipe is given as
U
Uavg. = max
2
Average velocity (Uavg) for laminar steady flow
between two stationary plate is given as
3
Uavg.= U max.
2
( V − V2 ) = ( 8 − 2 ) = 36
2 2 411. Water flows in a 2×4 cm rectangular duct at 16
h S.E. = 1 m/s. The duct undergoes a transition to a 6 cm
2g 2 × 10 2 × 10 diameter pipe. Calculate the velocity in the pipe
h S.E. = 0.18 m (a) 2.76 m/s (b) 3.14 m/s
(c) 3.95 m/s (d) 4.53 m/s
408. Pressure drop (∆P) in a viscous flow through (e) 4.85 m/s
circular pipe of radius (R), length (L) with fluid
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
of density (ρ), viscosity (µ) and flowing with
average velocity (V) is given by: Ans. (d) : We know that continuity equation,
Q 1 = Q2
32µVL 8µVL
(a) (b) ρ1 A1 V1 = ρ2 A2 V2 [ρ1 = ρ2 For Liquid]
ρgR 2
R2 So,
32µVL 8µVL A 1 V1 = A2 V 2
(c) 2
(d) 2 π
ρgR 2×4×10-4 × 16 = × ( 6 ) × 10 −4 × V2
2
R
16µVL 4
(e) V = 4.529m / s
ρgR 2 2

CGPSC AE 2014- II 412. A pipe contains an oil of specific gravity 0.8. A

Ans. (b) : Pressure loss (∆P) in circular pipe in a differential manometer connected at two points
viscous flow A and B shows a difference in mercury level of
32µVL 20cm. The difference in pressure at the two
∆P = , D = 2R points is nearly
D2 (a) 230kPa (b) 240kPa
8µVL (c) 250kPa (d) 260kPa
∆P =
R2 (e) 270kPa
∆P 8µVL CGPSC AE 2014 -II
hf = = 2
ρg ρg R S  13.6 
Where hf head loss due to friction in pipe. Ans. (*) : h = x  Hg − 1 = 0.20  − 1
 S0   0.8 
409. The slope of the total energy line is referred to as
(a) Potential Line (b) Gradient Line P − P 
h =  1 2  = 0.20 ×16
(c) Energy Gradient (d) Stream Line  f0g 
(e) Flow Line
CGPSC AE 2014 -II (P 1 P2) = 0.20 × 16×0.8×1000×9.81
-
(P1-P2 ) = 25.11kPa
Ans. (c) : The slope of the total energy line is referred
to as energy gradient line where as the slope of the Note - Option (c) is given by CGPSC
piezometric head is referred to as hydraulic gradient line 413. In Hagen – Poisuelle's flow of viscous fluid, one
of the following pairs of forces are balanced
P V2 (a) Inertia and viscous force
EGL = + +z
ρg 2g (b) Pressure and viscous force
P (c) Gravity and viscous force
HGL = +z (d) Inertia and gravity force
ρg
2
TNPSC AE 2014
V Ans. (a) : In Hagen - Poisuelle's flow of viscous fluid
EGL - HGL =
2g inertia and viscous forces and balanced.
331
414. Loss of head in the pipe due to various pipe Ans. (c) : Maximum velocity in fully developed laminar
fittings such as valves, coupling is expressed as pipe flow is twice of average velocity.
KV 2 V2 R 2  ∂P 
(a) (b) U max = − 
2g 2g 4 µ  ∂x 
V2 V2  r2 
(c) 0.5 (d) u = U max 1 − 2 
2g 2kg  R 
V - velocity of flow Average velocity
K = coefficient of pipe fitting
TNPSC AE 2013 R 2  ∂P 
u= − 
Ans. (a) : Loss of head in the pipe due to various pipe 8µ  ∂x 
fittings such as valves, coupling is expressed as So,
KV 2 U max
h2 = =2
2g u
415. Energy grade line (EGL) represents the U max = 2u
(a) Elevation head 418. Consider fully developed flow in a circular pipe
(b) Pressure head + Elevation head with negligible entrance length effects. Assuming
(c) Pressure head+Velocity head+Elevation head the mass flow rate, density and friction factor to
(d) Pressure head + Velocity head be constant, if the length of the pipe is doubled
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 and the diameter is halved, the head loss due to
Ans. (c) : Energy grade line (EGL) friction will increase by a factor of :
Pressure head + Velocity head + Elevation head (a) 2 (b) 16
P V2 (c) 32 (d) 64
EGL = + +Z UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
ρ g 2g Ans. (d) : Given :
Hydraulic gradient line HGL Diameter of first pipe (d1) =dm
P Length of first pipe ( ℓ1 ) = ℓm
HGL = Pressure head + elevation head = +Z
ρg d
Diameter of second pipe (d2) = m
V2 2
EGL − HGL = Length of second pipe ( ℓ ) = 2 ℓm
2g 2

416. Hydraulic diameter of square duct is given by Mass flow rate is given by,
(a) Side of the square π
m = ρav = ρ d 2 v
(b) 2 × Side of the square 4
(c) 1.5 × Side of the square 4m
(d) 0.5 × Side of the square v=
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 ρπd 2
Ans. (a) : We know that Hydraulic diameter Head loss due to friction is given by,
4A fℓv 2 fℓ 8m 2
Dh = c hf = = × 2 2 4
P 2gd gd ρ π d
Ac = a2 ℓ
hf ∝ 5
d
ℓ ℓ
So, h f1 = 15 = 5 ...(i)
d1 d
P = 2(a + a) = 4a ℓ 2ℓ
4 × a2 Similarly, h f 2 = 52 = ...(ii)
Dh = d 2  d 5
4a 2
Dh = a = side of the square  
Hence taking the ratio of two different pipes
417. Maximum velocity in fully developed laminar Now from equation (i) and (ii),
pipe flow is 5
(a) Half of average velocity h f1 ℓ1 d52 ℓ d 1 1
= × 5 = ×  × 5 =
(b) Two-third of average velocity h f 2 ℓ 2 d1 2ℓ  2  d 64
(c) Twice of average velocity
(d) Equal of average velocity h f 2 = 64h f1
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 419. Which of the following is not a minor energy
ESE 2020 loss?
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (a) Loss due to sudden enlargement
332
 (b) Loss due to friction 1
(c) Loss due to entrance of pipe (c) of pipe radius R
2
(d) Loss due to bend in pipe
1
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 (d) of pipe radius R
Ans. (b) : Loss due to friction is a major energy loss in 3
pipe flow ESE 2019
2 Ans. (b) : The parameter for instability since, the
4f ′ LV velocity distribute in pipe
hL =
2gD  r2 
2 u = Vmax 1 − 2 
fLV  R 
hL = [f = 4f ']
2gD du du
f = friction factor =−
dr dy
f ' = coefficient of friction (fanning factor)
du 2Vmax r 2Vmax ⋅ r
420. Engine oil flows in a 15 cm diameter horizontal = =
tube with a velocity of 1.3 m/s, experiencing a dy R2 R2
pressure drop of 12 kPa. The pumping power 2V (R − y)
requirement to overcome this pressure drop is, = max 2
R
(a) 190 W (b) 276 W
ρV r
(c) 407 W (d) 655 W x = 2y 2 max = (R − y)
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 R2
Ans. (b) : Given as, Differentiating and equal to zero
dx 2ρVmax r d
d = 15 cm = 0.15 m
V = 1.3 m/s
= ( Ry3 − y3 )
dy R 2 dy
∆P = 12 kPa 0 = 2Ry − 3y2
We know that power (P) 0 = y(2R − 3y)
P = Force × Velocity
y=0
π
P = 12 × 103 × × (0.15) 2 × 1.3
4 2R
or y=
P = 275.535 W 3
421. A pipe having a length 200 m and 200 mm 423. Water is discharged from a tank maintained at
diameter with friction factor 0.015, is to be a constant head of 5 m above the exit of a
replaced by a 400 mm diameter pipe of friction straight pipe 100m long and 15 cm in diameter.
factor 0.012 to convey the same quantity of If the friction coefficient for the pipe is 0.01 the
flow. The equivalent length of the new pipe for rate of flow will be nearly
the same head loss will (a) 0.04 m3/s (b) 0.05 m3/s
3
(a) 8300 m (b) 8240 m (c) 0.06 m /s (d) 0.07 m3/s
(c) 8110 m (d) 8000 m ESE 2019
ESE 2019 Ans. (d) : Applying energy equation between points 1
Ans. (d) : Given, and 2.
L1 = 200 m f1 = 0.015
d1 = 200 mm f2 = 0.012
d2 = 400 mm
8fLQ 2
Head loss (hf) = 2
π dg
For same discharge and heat loss
P1 V12 P V2
f1L1 f 2 L 2 + + Z1 = 2 + 2 + Z2 + h f .....(1)
= 5 ρg 2g ρg 2g
d15 d2
Here P1 = P2 = Patm = 0
0.015 × 200 0.012 × L2 V1 = 0, Z1 = 5m and Z2 = 0
=
(200)5 (400)5 From equation (1)
L2 = 8000 m V22
422. In a laminar flow through pipe, the point of 0 + 0 + 5 = 0 + + 0 + hf
2g
maximum instability exists at a distance of y
fro the wall which is V 2 fLV22
5= 2 +
3 2g 2gd
(a) of pipe radius R
2 V 2  fL 
3 5 = 2 1 + 
(b) of pipe radius R 2g  d 
2 V2 = 3.576 m/s
333
Discharge (Q) = AV2 Re < 2000 laminar flow
π Head loss due to fluid friction in pipe
= d 2 ⋅ V2 32µVL
4 hf = 2
π D ⋅ρ⋅g
= (0.15) 2 × 3.576 = 0.063 m3/s
4 32 × 0.0814 × 1× 45
= = 0.61 m
424. The shear stress τ0 for steady, fully developed (0.15)2 × 869 × 9.81
flow inside a uniform horizontal pipe with 428. Statement I: In a pipeline, the nature of the
coefficient of friction f, density ρ and velocity v, fluid flow depends entirely on the velocity.
is given by Statement II: Reynolds number of the flow
fρv2 fρ2 v depends on the velocity, the diameter of the
(a) (b) pipe and the kinematic viscosity of the fluid.
2 2
ESE 2018
ρ2 v ρv 2 Ans. (d) : In pipeline the nature of flow depends on
(c) (d)
2f 2f  ρVD 
ESE 2018 Reynolds number   not entirely on velocity.
Ans. (a) : The shear stress at wall is given by  µ 
f Hence statement-I is wrong.
τ0 = ρv 2 The Reynolds number of flow is given by
2 ρVD VD
425. The centre – line velocity in a pipe flow is 2m/s. Re = =
What is the average flow velocity in the pipe if µ v
the Reynolds number of the flow is 800? where Re = Reynold Number
(a) 2 m/s (b) 1.5 m/s V = Velocity
(c) 1 m/s (d) 0.5 m/s D = Diameter of pipe
ESE 2017 v = Kinematic viscosity
Statement I : wrong
Ans. (c) : Given, Centre line velocity = 2 m/s Statement I : correct
i.e. Vmax = 2 m/s
Re = 800 < 2000 (Laminar flow) 429. Head loss at entrance to pipe is:
The centre line velocity is maximum so average 3v 2 v2
(a) (b) 0.5
velocity in the pipe 2g 2g
V 2
Vavg = max = 2v3 v2
2 2 (c) (d)
Vavg = 1 m/s g 2g
426. In a steady laminar flow of a given discharge OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
through a circular pipe of diameter D, the head Ans : (b) Head loss at entrance to pipe is 0.5v2/2g.
loss is proportional to Condition Head loss
(a) D–1 (b) D–2 Losses due to
–3 sudden expansion ( v1 − v 2 )2
(c) D (d) D–4
ESE 2017 2g
Ans. (d) : Head loss in steady laminar flow for a given Losses due to 2
sudden contraction v22  1  0.5v22
discharge  − 1  OR
2g  Cc  2g
128µQL
hf = Losses at exit of v2/2g
πD 4 pipe
hf ∝ D−4 Losses at entrance to
427. An oil flows through a pipe at a velocity of 1.0 0.5v 2
pipe
m/s. The pipe is 45m long and has 150mm 2g
diameter. What is the head loss due to friction, Losses due to bends K.v 2
if ρ = 869kg / m3 and µ = 0.0814kg / m s? , K = f(R, θ, r)
(a) 0.61 m (b) 0.51 m 2g
(c) 0.41 m (d) 0.31 m R → Radius of curvature of
ESE 2017 pipe, r → Radius of pipe
Ans. (a) : Given, V = 1 m/s from horizontal, θ →
L = 45 m Inclination of pipe.
D = 150 mm = 0.15 m 430. The hydraulic mean depth of a circular pipe of
ρ = 869 kg/m3 diameter d running full is equal to:
(a) d/2 (b) d/4
µ = 0.0814 kg/ms
(c) 0.29d (d) d
VρD 1× 869 × 0.15
Reynolds number (Re) = = = 1601 OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
µ 0.0814 Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
334
Ans : (b) Hydraulic mean depth (m) = A (i) The pressure force p × πr 2 on face AB
P
 ∂p 
A → Area perpendicular to flow direction (ii) The pressure force  p + .dx  πr 2 on force CD
 ∂x 
P → Perimeter
(iii) The shear force. τ× 2πr.dx on the surface of fluid
π 2 elements.
d
m= 4  ∂p 
πd p × πr 2 −  p + .dx  πr 2 − τ × 2πr.dx = 0
 ∂x 
m = d/4
−∂p  r 
431. The power transmitted through a pipe is τ=
maximum when the loss of head due to friction ∂x  2 
is given by (H = head supplied)  ∂p  r
τ = − 
H H  ∂x  2
(a) (b)
4 3
H 2H 10. Laminar Flow
(c) (d)
2 3 433. The transition Reynolds number for flow over
(BPSC POLY. TEACH 2016, UJVNL AE 2016) a flat plate is 5 × 105. What is the distance from
Ans : (b) the leading edge at which transition will occur
for flow of water with uniform velocity of 1 m/s
? (For water ν = 0.858 × 10–6 m2/s)
(a) 1 m (b) 0.43 m
(c) 43 m (d) 103 m
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (b) : Given that,
Re = 5 × 105
power transmitted at outer of the pipe V = 1 m/sec
P = W (H-Hf) ν = 0.858 × 10–6 m2/sec
2 Vx
πd V
P = ρg × (H − H f ) Re =
v
4
Condition for maximum transmission of power. Re ×v
x=
dP V
=0
dV 5 × 105 × 0.858 × 10−6
=
f′ = Fanning friction factor (or) coefficient of friction 1
dp 4 f ′.lV 2 x = 0.429 m ≃ 0.43 m
= H − 3× =0 434. Boundary layer on a flat plate is called laminar
dV 2gd
boundary layer if Reynold’s number is less
H = 3H f than
(a) 2000 (b) 4000
H (c) 5 × 105 (d) None of the above
Hf =
3 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
5
432. The shear stress distribution in pipe flow is Ans. (c) : 5 × 10
expressed by 435. Using Blasius Equation, the friction factor for
1  dp   dp  r turbulent flow through pipes varies as
(a) τ =   (b) τ = −   (a) 1/Re (b) 1/Re0.5
r  dx   dx  2 (c) 1/Re 0.33
(d) 1/Re0.25
 dp 
2
r  dp  UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
(c) τ = −2r   (d) τ =   Ans. (d) : 1/Re 0.25
 dx  L  dx 
436. For the viscous flow the coefficient of friction is
APPSC AEE 2012
given by
Ans : (b) (a) f = 8/Re (b) f = 16/Re
(c) f = 32/Re (d) f = 60/Re
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Ans. (b) : f = 16/Re
437. The significance of Reynold analogy is that it:-
(a) Tells whether flow is laminar or turbulent
(b) Relates heat transfer to momentum transfer
The force acting on the fluid elements are (c) Relates heat transfer and mass transfer
335
 (d) Relates heat transfer and frictional loss 1 16
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II (a) f = (b) f =
Re Re
Ans. (d) : The significance of Reynold analogy is that it
relates heat transfer and frictional loss. 0.314 64
(c) f = 1/ 4 (d) f =
438. The flow in the capillary tube is laminar Re Re
because:- UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(a) The capillary tube is made of glass 64
(b) The surface tension and capilarity promotes Ans. (d) : f =
laminarisation Re
(c) Only inviscid liquid can flow through 443. At what distance r from the centre of a pipe of
capillary tube radius R will the average velocity occur?
(d) The diameter of capillary tube is very small (a) r = 0.707 R (b) r = 0.45 R
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II (c) r = 0.59 R (d) r = 0.36 R
Ans. (d) : The flow in the capillary tube is laminar UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
because the diameter of capillary tube is very small. Ans. (a) : In pipe, for laminar flow, average velocity,
439. At what distance (r) from the centre of a pipe U
of radius (R) does the average velocity occur in Vavg = max
laminar flow:- 2
(a) r = 0.33 R (b) r = 0.707 R R2
It occurs, where, r 2 =
(c) r = 0.50 R (d) r = 0.59 R 2
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II r = 0.707 R
Ans. (b) : We know that, 444. The velocity distribution at any section of pipe
2  2 for steady laminar flow is
R  −∂P   r (a) Laminar (b) Exponential
Velocity for laminar flow, u =   1 −   
4µ  ∂x    R   (c) Parabolic (d) Hyperbolic
2 UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
R  −∂P  UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Average velocity for laminar flow, u =
8µ  ∂x  Ans. (c) : At any section of pipe for steady laminar
At a distance r, u = u 1 −∂P 2  r2 
flow, velocity u = R 1 − 2
R 2  −∂P  R 2  −∂P    r  
2
4µ ∂x  R 
= ⋅ 1 −   
8µ  ∂x  4µ  ∂x    R   From this equation, velocity profile or velocity
distribution is parabolic.
r Note : In turbulent fluid flow, velocity profile is
= 0.707
R logarithmic.
r = 0.707 R 445. In a laminar flow Reynold number is
(a) less than 2000
440. The velocity at which the flow changes from (b) more than 2000
laminar to turbulent for a given fluid at a given (c) more than 2000 but less than 4000
temperature is known as:- (d) none of the above
(a) Maximum velocity UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(b) Minimum velocity Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
(c) Average velocity Ans. (a) : In a laminar flow in pipe Reynold number
(d) Critical velocity (Re) is less than 2000.
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
(1) In pipe flow
Ans. (d) : The velocity at which the flow changes from (i) Re < 2000 ⇒ Laminar flow
laminar to turbulent for a given fluid at a given
(ii) Re > 4000 ⇒ Turbulent flow
temperature is known as critical velocity.
(iii) 2000 < Re < 4000 ⇒ Transient flow
441. In a laminar flow, the velocity at any point is:- (2) Fluid flow on plate
(a) Constant in magnitude but varying in (i) Re < 3 × 105 ⇒ Laminar flow
direction (ii) 3 × 105 < Re < 5 × 105 ⇒ Transit flow
(b) Constant in magnitude as well as in direction (iii) Re > 5 × 105⇒ Turbulent flow
(c) Constant in direction but varying in
magnitude 446. Which of the following applications regarding
(d) Variable in magnitude as well as in direction Navier-Stokes equations are correct?
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II 1. Laminar unidirectional flow between
Ans. (b) : In a laminar flow, the velocity at any point is stationary parallel plates.
constant in magnitude as well as in direction. 2. Laminar unidirectional flow between
442. In laminar flow through a circular tube, the parallel plates having no relative motion.
Darcy-Weisbach friction factor depends only 3. Laminar flow in circular pipes.
on the Reynold's number and the two are 4. Laminar flow between concentric rotating
related by cylinders.
336
 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only 451. For the laminar flow through a pipe, the shear
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only stress over the cross-section
ESE 2020 (a) Varies inversely as the distance from the
Ans. (a) : centre of the pipe
1. Laminar unidirectional flow between stationary (b) Varies inversely as the distance from the
parallel plates. surface of the pipe
2. Laminar unidirectional flow between parallel plates (c) Varies directly as the distance from the centre
having no relative motion.
3. Laminar flow in circular pipes. of the pipe
(d) Remains constant over the cross-section
447. What is the approximate value of coefficient of
velocity for sharp edge orifice, if a jet from TNPSC 2019
under constant head of 25 cm have horizontal Ans. (c) :
and vertical coordinate of vena contract at 18
cm and 4 cm respectively?
(a) 0.95 (b) 1.00
(c) 0.90 (d) Insufficient data
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans : (c) :
x 18
Cv = = = 0.90
4hy 4 × 25 × 4
448. The flow in open channel remains laminar if
Reynold's number is less than:
(a) 5000 (b) 4000
(c) 2000 (d) 500  ∂P  r
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II τ = −  .
 ∂x  2
Ans : (d) : For open channel flow- τ∝r
Laminar , transitional and turbulent flow characterized
by Reynolds number, So, For the laminar flow through a pipe, the
shear stress over the cross-section varies directly as the
UL
Re = distance from the centre of the pipe.
ν
Re < 500 (laminar flow) 452. The laminar flow is characterised by
500 < Re < 1000 (Transitional flow) (a) Existence of eddies
1000 < Re (Turbulent flow) (b) Irregular motion of fluid particles
449. For the laminar flow through pipe (Re < 2000), (c) Fluid particles moving in layers parallel to the
the friction f is equal to : boundary surface
(a) 32/ Re (b) 16 / Re (d) Its space coordinates
(c) 64 / Re (d) 128 / Re TNPSC 2019
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 Ans. (c) : The laminar flow is characterised by fluid
Ans. (c) : particles moving in layers parallel to the boundary
64 surface
f= 453. If x is the distance measured from the leading
Re
edge of a flat plate, then laminar boundary
450. For a laminar flow through a pipe, the
discharge varies– layer thickness varies as-
4
(a) as the square of the diameter 1
(a) (b) x 5
(b) as the inverse of viscosity x
(c) inversely as the pressure gradient 1
(d) as the square of viscosity (c) x 2 (d) x 2
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016 RPSC AE 2018
Ans : (b) Discharge through pipe having Laminar flow UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
Q = u.A Ans. (d) : Laminar boundary layer thickness δ (HBL)
R 4  ∂P  5.0 x
=  −  .π δ= (Blasiu's equation)
8µ  ∂x  Re x
1
Q∝ 5.0 x 5.0 x1/ 2
µ δ= =
ρVx ρV
Hence discharge varies as inverse proportional of
viscosity. Discharge increases as viscosity reduces or µ µ
vice-versa. δ∝x 1/ 2

337
454. The Reynolds number for flow of a certain Ans. (b) : The loss of pressure head for the laminar
fluid in a circular tube is specified as 2500. flow through pipes varies, directly as the velocity.
What will be the Reynolds number when the 458. An oil of viscosity 8 poise flows between two
tube diameter is increased by 20% and the parallel fixed plates, which are kept at a
fluid velocity is decreased by 40% keeping fluid distance of 30 mm apart. If the drop of
the same? pressure for a length of 1m is 0.3 × 104 N/m2
(a) 1200 (b) 1800 and width of the plates is 500 mm, the rate of
(c) 3600 (d) 200 oil flow between the plates will be
RPSC AE 2018 (a) 4.2 × 10–3 m3/s (b) 5.4 × 10–3 m3/s
–3 3
Ans. (b) : We know that Reynold's number (c) 6.6 × 10 m /s (d) 7.8 × 10–3 m3/s
ESE 2019
ρVD
Re = (For pipe flow) Ans. (a) :
µ
ρ
Re' = × 1.2 D × 0.6 × V
µ
ρ DV ×1.2 × 0.6
Re' =
µ
Re' = 2500 × 1.2 × 0.6
For laminar flow through parallel plates separated by
Re' = 1800 distance h, ∆p is given as
455. Laminar flow changes to Turbulent flow when 12µVL
∆p =
(a) Diameter of pipe is decreased h2
(b) Velocity is increased ∆p 12µV
= 2
(c) Viscosity of fluid is increased L h
(d) Velocity is decreased 12 × (8 × 0.1) × V
TNPSC AE 2013 0.3 × 104 =
(0.03) 2
Ans. (b) : Laminar flow changes to Turbulent flow V = 0.281 m/s
when velocity is increased. So, discharge will be
For pipe flow, if Reynolds number (Re), Q=V⋅A
Re ≤ 2000 [Flow will be laminar flow] = V ⋅ width × h
If = 0.281 × 0.5 × 0.03
2000 ≤ Re ≤ 4000 [Flow will be transition] = 4.22 × 10−3 m3/s
If Re > 4000 459. Reynolds number which quantifies the role of
then flow will be turbulent viscous effect expressed as
ρ.D.V. V Vd
Re = (a) (b) ρ
µ gd µ
Then V ↑→ R e ↑→ Flow will be tends to
V2 L ρ
turbulent flow. (c) ρ (d) V
σ E
456. If the fluid particles move in layers with one APPSC AEE 2012
layer of fluid sliding smoothly over the Ans : (b) Reynolds Number (R )
e
adjacent layer, then the flow is said to be
Inertia force
(a) Laminar flow (b) Uniform flow Re =
(c) Steady flow (d) Turbulent flow Viscous force
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 ρvd
Re =
Ans. (a) : Laminar flow : The fluid particle following µ
the smooth paths in layers, with each layer moving Here ρ = Density
smoothly past the adjacent layers with little or no d = characteristics length
mixing. v = average velocity
457. The loss of pressure head for the laminar flow 460. The lower limit of the critical Reynolds number
through pipes varies below which all disturbances in pipe flow are
(a) As the square of the velocity damped out by viscous action has a value
(b) Directly as the velocity approximately equal to
(c) As the inverse of the velocity (a) 1 (b) 500
(d) None of the above (c) 1000 (d) 2000
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 APPSC AEE 2012
338
 Ans : (d) The limiting values of Reynolds's Number 463. In laminar flow through a circular tube, the
corresponding to which flow is laminar is Darcy - Weisbach friction is related to the
given by Reynolds number by
Flow condition Pipe flow Open channel 1  16 
(a) f =   (b) f =  
flow R R
Laminar flow Re ≤ 2000 Re ≤ 500  64   0.316 
(c) f =   (d) f =  1/ 4 
Transitional flow 2000 < Re < 500 < Re < R  R 
Turbulent flow 400 100 APPSC AEE 2012
0 0 Ans : (c) According to Darcy – Weisbach equation
Re > 4000 Re > 1000 p1 − p 2 4f ′ℓV 2 32µVL
461. The Hagen–Poiseuille equation which governs = hf = =
ρg 2gd ρgd 2
the velocity distribution in laminar flow f′ = Fanning friction factor
through pipes may be expressed as
16 ρdV
πd 4 ∆p πd 2 ∆p f′ = = Re
(a) Q = (b) Q =  ρdV  µ
128µL 128µL  µ 
 
128µL 128µL
(c) Q = 2 (d) Q = 4 16
πd ∆p πd ∆p f′ =
Re
APPSC AEE 2012
But we know that f = 4f′
Ans : (a)
64
So, f= where f = friction factor
Re
464. Steel and cast iron pipes carrying fluid under
pressure are regarded as hydraulically smooth
when
(a) the boundary surface is relatively smooth
(b) the roughness projections are of low height
(c) the roughness elements are completely
covered by the laminar sub-layer
(d) the laminar layer is thin as compared to the a
Drop pressure for a given lenth (L) of a pipe :- average height of roughness elements
p 1 − p 2 32µuL 128µQL  Q APPSC AEE 2012
h= = =  u= 
ρg ρgd 2
ρgπd 4
 A Ans : (c) Steel and cast iron pipes carrying fluid under
pressure are regarded as hydraulically smooth when the
128µQL roughness elements are completely covered by the
p1 − p 2 =
πd 4 laminar sub layer.
4 465. The momentum correction factor β is used to
∆p.πd account for
Q=
128µL (a) change in pressure
(b) change in mass rate of flow
462. The pressure drop per unit length of pipe in (c) change in total energy
laminar flow is equal to (d) non-uniform distribution of velocities at inlet
d2 32µVL and outlet sections
(a) (b) APPSC AEE 2012
32µV γd 2

Ans : (d) Momentum correction factor ( β ) :-

32µV 8µV
(c) (d) It is defined as the ratio of momentum/sec
d2 d2
based on actual velocity to the momentum/sec based on
APPSC AEE 2012 average velocity.
p −p 32µuL 1
Ans : (c) 1 2 =
ρg ρgd 2
β= ∫
AV 2
u 2 .dA

32µuL v = Average velocity

p1 − p 2 = 2
u = local velocity at distance r
d For laminar flow (β) = 1.33 = 4/3
for per unit length pressore drop.
For turbulent flow (β) = 1.2
32µuL 32µV
p1 − p 2 = OR (L = 1) 466. Laminar flow through a circular tube studied
d2 d2
experimentally by
u = V = velocity (a) Newton (b) Pascal
339
 (c) Hagen and Poiseuille (d) Prandtl (d) Pressure and inertial
APPSC AEE 2012 UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
Ans : (c) Laminar flow through a circular tube studies Ans : (b)Viscous forces and pressure forces are most
experimentally by Hagen and poiseuille. important in laminar flow between parallel plates.
Hagen poiseuille formula :- Laminar flow between two fixed parallel plate:-
p1 − p 2 32µuL
= Hf =
ρg ρgD 2 .

1 ∂P
(i) Velocity ( µ ) = −
8µ ∂x
( By − y2 )
12µul
(ii) pressure drop in given length p1 − p 2 =
B2
467. When the relationship between Reynolds 471. If H is the total head at inlet and h is the head
number and the friction factor is represented lost due to friction, the efficiency of power
by a straight line, the flow is said to be transmission trough a straight pipe is given by:
(a) Isentropic (b) Laminar H−h H
(c) Turbulent (d) Vortex (a) (b)
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II H H+h
Ans : (b) When the relationship between Reynolds H−h H
(c) (d)
number and the friction factor is represented by a H+h H−h
straight line, the flow is said to be Laminar. UJVNL AE 2016
For laminar flow:- Ans : (a)
64
f=
Re
(i) Friction factor is directly proportional to diameter of
pipe
(ii)Head loss (Hf) is inversely proportional to fourth
power of the diameter.
468. In fluid flow through pipes, transition from
laminar to turbulent flow, does not depend on L = length of the pipe
(a) Length of pipe (b) Density of fluid d = diameter of the pipe
(c) Diameter of pipe (d) Velocity of flow
H = Total head available at the inlet of pipe
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
V = Velocity of flow in pipe.
Ans : (a) Nature of flow depend upon Reynolds
Number. h = Loss of head due to friction.
Head available at the outlet of the pipe = (Total head at
Inertia force ρvd
Reynolds Number (Re) = = inlet- Head loss) = H-h
viscous force µ H −h
ρ = Density Efficiency of power transmission (η) =
H
d = characteristic length
v = average velocity. 11. Turbulent Flow
469. In case of laminar flow through pipe, the ratio
of total kinetic energy of fluid passing per 472. The parameters which determine the friction
second to the energy value obtained on the
factor for turbulent flow in a rough pipe are
basis of average velocity is
(a) 1.2 (b) 1.54 (a) Froude number and relative roughness
(c) 2.0 (d) 2.37 (b) Froude number and Mach number
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II (c) Reynolds number and relative roughness
Ans : (c) In case of laminar flow through pipe, the ratio of (d) Mach number and relative roughness
total kinetic energy of fluid passing per second to the energy UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
value obtained on the basis of average velocity is 2.0. Ans. (c) : Reynolds number and relative roughness
470. Which two forces are most important in 473. The head loss due to turbulent flow as
laminar flow between parallel plates? compared to laminar flow is:-
(a) Inertial and viscous (a) More (b) Less
(b) Viscous and pressure (c) Equal (d) Unpredictable
(c) Gravity and pressure UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
340
Ans. (a) : The head loss due to turbulent flow as (a) Dependent on Reynolds numbers only
compared to laminar flow is more. (b) Dependent on relative roughness of pipe only
474. The frictional resistance in case of turbulent (c) Dependent on density of fluid only
flow is independent of :- (d) Independent of both Reynolds numbers and
(a) Pressure of flow relative roughness of pipe
(b) Density of fluid UPRVUNL AE 2016
(c) Temperature of fluid Ans. (b) : For fully developed turbulent flow through
(d) Area of surface in contact rough pipe at very large Reynolds numbers, friction
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II factor dependent on relative roughness (k) of pipe only
Ans. (a) : The frictional resistance in case of turbulent f = F (k only)
flow is independent of pressure of flow. 480. The head loss due to friction in turbulent flow
475. In case of flow over a flat plate, the Reynold through a pipe is:
number at which flow becomes turbulent is:- (a) Directly proportional to velocity
(a) 2300 (b) 3.2 ×105 (b) Inversely proportional to square of velocity
(c) 7.5 × 105 (d) 2000 (c) Inversely proportional to velocity
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II (d) Directly proportional to square of velocity
Ans. (b) : CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
476. The head loss due to friction in turbulent flow flV 2
through a pipe is: Ans. (d) : Head loss in turbulent flow h f =
2 gD
(a) Directly proportional to velocity
So head loss is directly proportional to square
(b) Inversely proportional to square of velocity
of velocity.
(c) Inversely proportional to velocity
(d) Directly proportional to square of velocity 481. The parameters which determine the friction
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift factor for turbulent flow in a rough pipe are
2
(a) Froude number and relative roughness
flV (b) Froude number and Mach number
Ans. (d) : Head loss in turbulent flow h f =
2 gD (c) Reynolds number and relative roughness
So head loss is directly proportional to square (d) Mach number and relative roughness
of velocity. APPSC AEE 2012
477. In a turbulent flow through a pipe, the shear Ans : (c) Friction factor :-
stress is:- Friction factor is dimensional terms it is depends two
(a) Maximum at the centre and decreases linearly terms.
towards the wall (i) Reynolds's number
(b) Maximum at the centre and decreases (ii) Relative Roughness of pipe surface
logarithmically towards the wall f = φ(R e , k / d)
(c) Maximum mid–way between the centre line 482. Prandtl's universal equation is given as
and the wall  y
(d) Maximum at the wall and decreases linearly (a) U = U max + 2.5U f log e  
to zero at the centre R
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II  y
Ans. (d) : In a turbulent flow through a pipe, the shear (b) U = U max + 3.5U f log e  
R
stress is maximum at the wall and decreases linearly to
zero at the centre.  y
(c) U = U max + 4.5U f log e  
478. The Reynolds's number for turbulent flow is R
(a) less than 2000  y
(b) greater than 4000 (d) U = U max + 5.5U f log e  
(c) between 2000 and 4000 R
(d) equal to 4000 where U max = centre line velocity
TSPSC AEE 2015 y = distance of pipe from wall
Ans : (b) R = radius of pipe
Flow Pipe flow open channel τ
Uf = shear friction velocity = 0
condition flow ρ
Laminar Re < 2000 Re < 500 UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
flow Ans. (a) : Prandtl's universal equation is given as
Transitional 2000< Re<4000 500 <Re < 1000
flow  y
U = U max + 2.5U f log e  
Turbulent Re > 4000 Re > 1000 R
flow * This equation is a velocity distribution for turbulent
479. For fully developed turbulent flow through flow in pipes.
rough pipe at very large Reynolds numbers, * This equation is valid for both smooth and rough pipe
friction factor is boundaries.
341
483. The most essential feature of turbulent flow is 488. The intensity of turbulence refers to
(a) Large discharge (a) The turbulent, eddy or Reynolds stresses
(b) High velocity (b) The magnitude of turbulent viscosity
(c) Velocity and pressure at a point exhibit (c) Root mean square of turbulent velocity
irregular fluctuations of high frequency fluctuations
(d) Velocity at a point remains constant with time (d) A correlation between the fluctuating velocity
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II components
Ans. (c) : When fluid particles move in highly TNPSC 2019
disorganized manner, leading to rapid mixing of fluid Ans. (c) : The intensity of turbulence refers to root
particles, then that flow is known as turbulent flows. mean square of turbulent velocity fluctuation.
* The most essential feature of turbulent flow is 489. In fully developed turbulent flow, if the
velocity and pressure at a point exhibit irregular diameter is halved without changing the flow
fluctuations of high frequency. rate, the frictional drop will change by the
* This flow is also known as "Inertial flow". factor
484. The turbulent flow has _____ . (a) 32 times (b) 16 times
(a) Streak line motion (c) 8 times (d) 4 times
(b) Random orientation of particles TNPSC AE 2017
(c) streamline motion Ans. (a) : We know that,
(d) Parabolic velocity distribution 8 f ℓQ 2
TSPSC AEE 2015 hL =
π .g .D 5
Ans. (b) : The turbulent flow has random orientation of
particles 1
hL ∝ 5
485. The thickness of turbulent boundary layer at D
distance x from the leading edge over a flat then,
plate varies as: hL2 D15
(a) x4/5 (b) x1/5 = = 32
hL1  D1  5
(c) x3/2 (d) x1/2
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II  2 
Ans : (a) : We know that boundary thickness for hL2 = 32hL1
turbulent flow 490. The most essential feature of a turbulent flow is
0.38 x (a) large discharge
δ=
[Re x ]1/ 5 (b) High velocity
(c) velocity and pressure at a point exhibit
δ ∝ x 4/5
irregular fluctuations of high frequency
486. Which of the following is not a turbulent (d) velocity at a point remains constant with time
model? APPSC AEE 2012
(a) Prandtl mixing length model Ans : (c) The most essential feature of a turbulent flow
(b) k-ε model is velocity and pressure at a point exhibit irregular
(c) Large eddy simulation fluctuation of high frequency.
(d) Steady flow model Turbulent flow is that type of flow in which the fluid
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
particles move in zig-zag way. Due to the movement of
Ans. (d) : steady flow model is not a turbulent model.
fluid particles in zig-zag way, the eddies formation take
K- epsilon model (K–ε) turbulence model is the most place which are responsible for high energy loss.
common model used in computational fluid dynamics to 491. The velocity distribution in the turbulent
simulate mean flow characteristics for turbulent flow boundary layer follows
conditions. It is a two equation model which gives a (a) Straight line law (b) Parabolic law
general description of turbulence by means of two (c) Hyperbolic law (d) Logarithmic law
transport equations. Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
487. The flow in a pipe is turbulent when Reynold UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
number is– APPSC AEE 2012
(a) Less than 2000 Ans. (d) : In turbulent boundary layer velocity
(b) Between 2000 and 2800 distribution is logarithmic.
(c) More than 2800 0.376 x 0.376 x
δ= =
(d) None of these (Re x ) 1/ 5
 ρUx 
1/ 5

Vizag Steel (MT) 2017  µ 

Ans. (c) :  
x
! Turbulent flow Re More than 2800 ∴δ ∝ 1/ 5
! Transition flow Re Between 2000 and 2800 ( x)
! Laminar flow Re Less than 2000 δ ∝ ( x )4 / 5
342
492. In case of turbulent flow of a fluid through a 495. The velocity profile is approximated by a cubic
circular tube, as compared to the case of 2
u 3 y  1 y 
3

laminar flow, at the same flow, rate, the parabola =   −   , where the
U 2 δ  2 δ 
maximum velocity is _______, shear stress at
displacement thickness for the profile is
the wall is ______, and the pressure drop
3 5
across a given length is ______. (a) δ (b) δ
(a) higher, higher, higher 8 8
(b) higher, lower, lower 11
(c) δ (d) None of the above
(c) lower, higher, higher 8
(d) lower, higher, lower UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
APPSC AEE 2012 Ans. (b) : We know that displacement thickness of
boundary layer is given as,
Ans : (c) In case of turbulent flow of a fluid through
δ u 
a circular tube, as compared to the case of laminar δ* = ∫ 1 − .....(1)
dy
flow, at the same flow rate the maximum velocity is 0
 U∞ 
lower, shear stress at the wall is higher and the Given,
pressure drop across a given length in higher. 2 3
u 3 y 1 y
Laminar flow Turbulent flow =   −  
U∞ 2  δ  2  δ 
(i) Flow is smooth (i) Flow is Randomly
Putting this value in equation (1)
(ii) Energy loss ∝ (ii) Energy loss ∝
δ  3  y  2 1  y 3  
velocity (velocity)2 δ* = ∫ 1 −    −    dy
2 δ 2  δ   
   
(iii) velocity is small (iii) velocity high 0

(iv) Re < 2000 (iv) Re > 4000 δ
δ 3 y3 1 y4 1 
(v) High viscosity (v) Low viscosity = [ y ]0 −  × 2
− ⋅ ⋅ 
493. The frictional head loss in a turbulent flow  2 3⋅δ 2 4 δ3  0
through a pipe varies:   3 δ3
(a) Directly as the average velocity 1 δ4 
= δ −  ⋅ 2
− ⋅ 3 
(b) Directly as the square of the average velocity   2 3 ⋅ δ 8 δ 
(c) Inversely as the square of the average velocity  1 1 
(d) Inversely as the square of the internal = δ − δ + δ 
 2 8 
diameter of the pipe
UJVNL AE 2016  8δ − 4δ + δ 
= 
Ans : (b) The frictional head loss in a turbulent flow  8
through a pipe varies Directly as the square of the 5δ
=
average velocity. 8
i Laminar flow Turbulent flow 496. The thickness of boundary layer is
proportional to:-
(a) Its distance from the leading edge
(b) Square of its distance from the leading edge
(c) Four times its distance from the leading edge
(d) Square root of its distance from the leading
edge
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (d) : The thickness of boundary layer is
ii viscosity High ii Viscosity low proportional to square root of its distance from the
iii Velocity low iii Velocity high leading edge.
iv Energy loss ∝ velocity iv Energy loss ∝ (Velocity)2 497. The flow within the boundary layer is:-
(a) Only turbulent
12. Boundary Layer Theory (b) Only laminar
(c) Either (a) or (b)
494. The separation of boundary layer takes place (d) None of the above
in case of UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
(a) negative pressure gradient Ans. (c) :
(b) positive pressure gradient 498. In the region of boundary layer on a flat plate
(c) zero pressure gradient surface where velocity is not zero, the viscous
(d) none of the above force is
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (a) Less than inertial force
(b) More than inertial force
Ans. (d) : none of the above (c) Equal in magnitude
343
 (d) Not predictable (c) Velocity is negative
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II (d) Density variation is maximum
Ans : (b In the region of boundary layer on a flat plate UJVNL AE 2016
surface where velocity is not zero, the viscous force is Ans : (b) At the point of boundary layer separation
more than inertial force. shear stress is zero.
At nearest to the wall viscous forces are more
than inerita forces.
499. Flow separation is caused by:-
(a) Reduction of pressure in the direction of flow
(b) Reduction of the boundary layer thickness
(c) Presence of adverse pressure gradient
(d) Presence of favourable pressure gradient
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Ans. (c) : Flow separation is caused by presence of
adverse pressure gradient.
500. The nominal thickness of boundary layer
represents the distance from the surface to a
point where:- 505. For a linear distribution of velocity in the
(a) Flow ceases to be laminar boundary layer on a flat plate, the ratio of
(b) The shear stress becomes maximum displacement thickness to nominal thickness is
(c) Velocity is 99% of its asymptotic limit 1 1
(d) None of the above (a) (b)
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II 4 3
Ans. (c) : The nominal thickness of boundary layer 1 2
(c) (d)
represents the distance from the surface to a point where 2 3
velocity is 99% of its asymptotic limit. UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
∂u ∂u ∂ 2u Ans : (c) For a linear distribution of velocity in the
501. If A = u ,B = v and C = υ 2 then boundary layer on a flat plate, the ratio of displacement
∂x ∂y ∂y thickness to nominal thickness is 1/2
momentum equation of the boundary layer can δ y
be given as follows:- δ ' = ∫ 1 −  dy = δ / 2
(a) A + B + C = 0 (b) A + B – C = 0 o
 δ 
(c) A + B – C2 = 0 (d) A.B = C δ' 1
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II =
δ 2
Ans. (b) : We know that momentum equation of the
boundary layer is given as, δ' = Displacement thickness
∂u ∂u ∂2u δ = Nominal thickness
u +v =υ 2 506. The displacement thickness for a boundary
∂x ∂y ∂y
layer
502. 6The region between the boundary surface of (a) may be greater than the boundary layer
the solid body and the separation streamline is: thickness
(a) Crest (b) Wake (b) must be less than momentum thickness
(c) Boundary Layer (d) Nappe (c) represents momentum deficit in a flow
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II (d) represents mass deficit in a flow
Ans : (b) : The region between the boundary surface of UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
the solid body and the separation streamline is called Ans. (d) : Represents mass deficit in a flow
wake.
507. Momentum thickness is given by which of
503. The nominal thickness of boundary layer following equations?
represents the distance from the surface to a δ δ
 u u u
point where : (a) ∫  1 −  dy (b) ∫ 1 −  dy
(a) the flow ceases to a laminar 0
U 0
U U
δ
(b) velocity is 99 percent of its asymptotic limit u u 
2

(c) the shear stress becomes maximum (c) ∫ 1 − 2  dy (d) none of above
0
U  U 
(d) the flow behaves as if it were rotational
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(KPSC AE. 2015)
Ans. (b) :
Ans : (b) The nominal thickness of boundary layer δ
represents the distance from the surface to a point where Momentum Thickness (Q) = u 1 − u  dy
velocity is 99 percent of its asymptotic limit . ∫0 U  U 
504. At the point of boundary layer separation: δ u  u2 
(a) Shear stress is maximum * Energy Thickness (δe) = ∫  1 − 2  .dy
0 U
(b) Shear stress is zero  U 
344
* Boundary layer thickness (δ), y = δ 510. Separation of boundary layers takes place
when, u = 0.99 U when:
δ u (a) Pressure and velocity gradient both positive
* Displacement Thickness (δ) = ∫ 1 − .dy (b) Pressure and velocity gradient both negative
0
 U (c) Positive pressure gradient and negative
These equations associated with Boundary layer theory. velocity gradient.
508. A fluid near a solid wall has approximated (d) Negative pressure gradient and positive
velocity profile given by u (y) = velocity gradient.
 πy  OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
U ∞ sin   , 0 ≤ y ≤ δ.
 2δ  Ans : (c) : Positive pressure gradient and negative
The walls shear stress is given by : velocity gradient.
πµU ∞ 3πµU ∞ 511. Which statement is correct for outside regime
(a) τ w = (b) τ w = of the boundary layer of fluid flow?
2δ δ (a) Velocity is zero
2πµU ∞ ππU ∞ (b) Shear stress is zero
(c) τ w = (d) τ w = (c) Velocity is not constant
δ δ
BHEL ET 2019 (d) Shear stress is proportional to velocity
gradient
Ans. (a) : Given - velocity profile
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
 πy 
u ( y ) = U ∞ sin   , 0 ≤ y ≤ δ Ans : (b) : At the outer regime of the boundary layer of
 2δ  fluid shear stress will be zero, because at outer regime
du π  πy  du
= U ∞ × × cos   = 0, (τ = 0)
dy 2δ  2δ  dy y = δ
from 0 ≤ y ≤ δ yer
so, at y = 0 n da ry la
Bou
du π  π× 0  a n s ition
= U ∞ × cos   Tr
dy 2δ  2δ  9U
0.9
dy π u =
= U∞ ×1
du 2δ
and at y = δ u
du π  π× δ 
= U ∞ × cos  
dy 2δ  2δ 
Leading Plate
π  π
= U ∞ × × cos   edge
2δ 2 10. At the point of boundary layer
du separation
=0
dy (a) shear stress is maximum
(b) shear stress is zero
du U π (c) velocity is negative
Wall shear stress τ W = µ = µ× ∞
dy 2δ (d) density variation is maximum
πµU ∞ Gujarat PSC AE 2019
τW = Ans : (b) : At the point of boundary layer separation.
2δ Pressure gradient is adverse i.e., positive
509. A boundary of a body is considered as ∂P
hydrodynamically smooth if the ratio of average >0
∂x
height of irregularities from the boundary to the Fluid is unable to flow i.e., zero shear stress.
thickness of laminar sub layer is:
∂u
(a) Equal to 0.3 (b) Equal to 8 =0
(c) Greater than 0.3 (d) Less than 0.25 ∂y
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II ∂u
∴ Shear stress = µ =0
Ans : (d) : If, ∂y
k 512. Laminar sub layer may develop for a two
≤ 0.25 [Hydrodynamic smooth pipe]
δ' dimensional flow over a flat plate. It exists in :
k (a) Turbulent Zone
≥ 6.0 [Hydrodynamic rough pipe] (b) Transition Zone
δ'
(c) Laminar Zone
k (d) Laminar and Transition Zone
0.25 ≤ ' ≤ 6.0 [Transition pipe]
δ OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
345
Ans. (a) : Laminar sub layer may develop for a two 515. For a fluid flow over a flat pipe with zero
dimensional flow over a flat plate it exists in Turbulent pressure gradient, the boundary layer
zone. δ
! The laminar sublayer, also called the viscous thickness   is proportional to
 x
sublayer, is the region of a mainly turbulent flow that is
1
near a no-slip boundary and in which the flow is (a) Re x (b)
laminar. Re x
1
(c) Rex (d)
Re x
APPSC-AE-2019
Ans. (b) :
5x
δ ( x) = for laminar boundary layer
Re x
δ ( x) 1
i.e. α
x Re x
516. Flow separation in flow past a solid object is
513. The boundary layer thickness in laminar flow caused by
is proportional to (a) a reduction of pressure to vapour pressure
(a) Re0.2 (b) Re0.5 (b) a negative pressure gradient
(c) Re –0.5
(d) Re–0.2 (c) a positive pressure gradient
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 (d) the boundary layer thickness reducing to zero
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (c) : The boundary layer thickness in laminar flow,
Ans. (c) : Separation of Boundary layer- It has been
5x observed that the flow is reversed at the vicinity of the
δ=
Re wall under certain condition. This phenomenon is
termed as separation of boundary layer. Separation
1 takes place due excessive momentum loss near the wall
δ ∝
Re in a boundary layer trying to move downstream against
But in turbulent flow, ∂P
increasing pressure, i.e., > 0, which is called
0.377x ∂x
δ= adverse pressure gradient.
R e 0.2
Condition for flow separation-
1 ∂P ∂u
δ ∝ 1. >0 2. <0
R e 0.2 ∂x ∂y
514. For a boundary layer flow over a flat plate with 517. The boundary layer separation occurs when-
zero pressure gradient, if U is the free stream
velocity, y is the coordinate perpendicular to
the flow direction, and δ is the boundary layer dp  ∂u 
(a) <0 (b)   =0
thickness, at y = δ, dx  ∂y  y = 0
du  ∂u  dp
(a) =0 (b) u = U (c) >0 >0
(d)
dy  
 ∂y  y = 0 dx
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
APPSC-AE-2019 TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (c) : Ans. (d) : Condition for separation of boundary
layer-
dP
>0
dx
du
=0
dy y = 0
518. The boundary layer is called turbulent
As per definition of boundary layer thickness boundary layer if.
at y = δ, u = 0.99 U ≈ U (a) Reynolds number is more than 2000
As there is no variation in velocity beyond 'δ' (b) Reynolds number is more than 4000
du (c) Reynolds number is more than 5 × 105
at y = δ, =0 (d) Reynolds number is more than 6 × 105
dy TNPSC AE 2018
346
Ans. (c) : For flow past a flat plate, the transition from Ans. (d) : Laminar boundary layer thickness (δ).
laminar to turbulent begins when the critical Reynolds 5x
number reaches 5 × 105. The boundary layers changes δ=
Re
from laminar to turbulent at this point.
519. Which of the following the condition for 5.x
δ= [Blasius formula]
detached flow? ρux
 ∂u   ∂u  µ
(a)   =0 (b)   >0
 ∂y  y =0  ∂y  y = 0 1
So, δ ∝ x 2
 ∂u   ∂u  522. Momentum thickness is defined as:
(c)   <0 (d)   =∞
∂y
  y =0  ∂y  y = 0 δ u δ u  u
(a) ∫ 1 −  dy (b) ∫ 1 −  dy
TNPSC AE 2018 0 U 0 U  U 
Ans. (c) : Flow separation occurs when the boundary δ u  u2  δ u 
2
u2 
layer travels for enough against an adverse pressure (c) ∫  1 − 2  dy (d) ∫ 1 − 2  dy
0 U 0 U2 
 ∂P   U   U 
gradient  > 0  that the speed of the boundary layer
 ∂x  δ u2 
relative to the object falls almost to zero. The fluid flow (e) ∫0
 1 −  dy
2 
becomes detached from the surface of the object, and  U 
instead takes the forms of eddies and vortices. CGPSC AE 2014- II
Thus, condition for detached flow - RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
∂P * δ u
>0 Ans. (b) : Displacement thickness (δ) = ∫ 1 −  dy
∂x 0  U 
∂u δ u  u
<0 Momentum thickness ( θ ) = ∫ 1 −  dy
∂y y = 0 0 U  U
δ u  u 
2
520. A laminar boundary layer has a velocity **
Energy thickness ( δ ) = ∫ 1 −    dy
u y 0 U
distribution given by = . The displacement   U  
U δ
523. The disturbed region downstream of boundary
thickness for this boundary layer will be
layer separation is known as
δ (a) wake
(a) δ (b)
2 (b) rake
δ πδ (c) critical thickness area
(c) (d)
3 4 (d) constant pressure area
UPSC JWM 2017 (e) constant acceleration area
Ans. (b) : The displacement thickness for boundary CGPSC AE 2014 -II
δ Ans. (a) : The disturbed region downstream of
 u
layer. δ * = ∫  1 −  dy boundary layer separation is known as wake.
o
U 524. The non dimensional number associated with
δ hydrodynamic boundary layer is
 y
δ * = ∫ 1 −  dy (a) Reynolds number (b) Prandtl number
o
δ (c) Boit number (d) Nussel number
δ TNPSC AE 2014
 y2 
= y −  Ans. (a) : Reynolds number associated with
 2δ  hydrodynamic boundary layer.
0
525. The distance from the surface at which the
* δ
δ = local velocity reaches 99 percent of the external
2 velocity is
521. If x is the distance measured from the leading (a) Momentum thickness
edge of a flat plat, the laminar boundary layer (b) Free stream velocity
thickness varies as (c) Boundary layer thickness
1 (d) Momentum diffusivity
(a) (b) x4/5 TNPSC AE 2013
x
(c) x2 (d) x1/2 Ans. (c) : The distance from the surface at which the
TNPSC AE 2017 local velocity reaches 99 percent of the external velocity
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift is known as boundary layer thickness.
347
526. Thickness of laminar boundary layer on flat [Kinetic energy correction factor = 1.2, g = 10
plate: m/s2]
(a) Decreases with increase in distance from (a) 12.80 m (b) 14.24 m
leading edge (c) 11.80 m (d) 13.20 m
(b) Increases with increase in distance from SJVN ET 2019
leading edge Ans. (b) :
(c) Increases with increase in Reynold number at
v2 p
given location Total head = Energy correction factor × + z +
(d) Constant with increase in distance from 2g ρg
leading edge 2 2
40 × 10 3

UPRVUNL AE 2016 = 1.2 × + 10 +

2 × 10 1000 × 10
Ans. (b) : Thickness of laminar boundary layer on flat = 14.24 m
plate increases with increase in distance from leading
edge. 530. What will be the momentum thickness for the
We know that boundary layer thickness velocity distribution in boundary layer of :
5.x u y
δ= [Blasius = ,
U δ where u = velocity at a distance y from
Rex
solution] the plate and u = U at y = δ (Boundary layer
thickness)
5.x δ δ
δ= (a) (b)
ρ ×u× x 5 3
µ δ δ
δ ∝ x1/ 2 (c) (d)
6 2
where x is distance from leading edge of plate. SJVN ET 2019
527. A boundary is known as hydro dynamically u y
smooth if : Ans. (c) : = , momentum thickness
K K U δ
(a) = 0.3 (b) > 0.3 δ u  u
S' S' θ=∫ 1 −  dy
0 U
K K  U 
(c) < 0.25 (d) = 0.5 δ y y δ
S' S' θ = ∫ 1 −  dy =
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 0 δ
 δ 6
Ans. (c) : From Nikuradse's Experiment – 531. In liquid metals, thermal boundary layer
K develops much faster than velocity boundary
1. If < 0.25 then the boundary is called smooth
S′ layer due to
boundary. (a) Lower value of Nusselt number
K (b) Higher value of Prandtl number
2. If > 6.0 the boundary is rough
S′ (c) Lower value of Prandtl number
K (d) Higher value of Nusselt number
3. If 0.25 < < 6.0 , the boundary is in transition. ESE 2019
S′
Where, Ans. (c) : Prandtl number is given by
K → Average height of irregularities of the surface δ
= (pr)1/3
S′ → Thickness of laminar sublayer. δ th
528. Separation occurs when where δ = Hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness
(a) Velocity of sound is reached δth = Thermal boundary layer thickness
(b) Boundary layer comes to rest For liquid metal, Prandtl number is very low since they
(c) Cross-section of a channel reduced
have high thermal conductivity
(d) Pressure reaches a minimum
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2 when pr < 1 ; δth > δ
Ans. (b) : Separation occurs when, boundary Layer
Comes to rest. 13. Dimensional and Model
Explanation:- Flow, separation occurs, when boundary Analysis
layer travels for enough against an adverse pressure
gradient, that the speed of the boundary layer relative of
the objects falls almost to zero. 532. Kinematic similarity between model and
prototype means the similarity of
529. Water is flowing through a pipe of diameter 15 (a) forces (b) shape
cm. At a section, the gauge pressure is 40 kPa (c) motions (d) discharge
and mean velocity is found to be 2 m/s. If the UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
centerline of the pipe is 10 m above the datum,
the total head in the flow will be given by Ans. (c) : motions
348
533. Reynold’s number is defined as the ratio of Inertia force
inertia force to Ans : (a) (i) Reynold's Number =
viscous force
(a) gravity force (b) pressure force
(c) elastic force (d) viscous force Inertia force
(ii) Froude's Number =
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II Gravity force
Ans. (d) : viscous force
Inertia force
534. Match the following and choose the correct (iii) Weber's Number =
alternatives : Surface tenion force
List – I List – II Inertia force
A. Froude number 1. p/ρU2 (iv) Euler's Number =
Pr essure force
B. Mach number 2. U/(gd)
C. Webber number 3. U / gd Inertia force
(v) Mach's Number =
D. Euler number 4. ρLU2/σ Elastic force
5. p 539. Euler number is given as the ratio of:-
2 2 (a) Inertia force / Gravity force
ρ U (b) Pressure force / inertia force
6. U/c (c) Inertia force / Surface tension
(c = velocity of (d) Gravity force / Inertia force
sound) UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
(Notations used have usual meaning) Ans. (b) : Euler number is given as the ratio of pressure
Codes : force to inertia force.
A B C D 540. Lewis number is given by the following relation:
(a) 3 6 3 5 (fg = heat transfer coefficient, Kw is mass transfer
(b) 3 6 4 1 coefficient and Cp is specific heat):-
(c) 2 4 5 2 Cp Kw
(a) (b)
(d) 2 6 1 5 fg ⋅ K w f g ⋅ Cp
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
fg fg
Ans. (b) : A-3, B-6, C-4, D-1 (c) (d)
Cp − K w K w ⋅ Cp
535. Froude number is defined as the ratio of
(a) inertia force to viscous force UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
(b) inertia force to gravity force Ans. (d) :
(c) inertia force to elastic force 541. For dimensional analysis the Buckinghm's π-
(d) inertia force to pressure force theorem finds the resulting equation in form of.
(a) (n-m) dimensionless para-meters
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (b) n dimensionless parameters
Ans. (b) : inertia force to gravity force (c) Geometric and kinetic variables
536. Rayleigh’s method of dimensional analysis is (d) Mass, length and time
used for determining the expression for a OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
variable which depends on maximum following Ans : (a) For dimensional analysis the Buckingham's π-
number of variables. theorem finds the resulting equation in form of (n-m)
(a) 4 (b) 8 dimensionless parameters.
(c) 2 (d) 6 Buckingham's π theorem:-
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II The Rayleigh's method of dimensional analysis
becomes more laborious if the variable are more than
Ans. (a) : 4 the number of fundamental dimensions (M,L,T). This
537. The similarity of shape between the model and difficulty is overcome by the using Buckingham's π-
prototype is known as:- theoram, which states "If there are n variables in a
(a) Dynamic similarity physical phenomenon and if variables contain m
(b) Kinematic similarity fundamental dimensional (M,L,T) then the variable are
(c) Geometric similarity arranged into (n-m) dimensionless terms. Each terms is
(d) None of the above called π-term".
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II 542. Euler's dimensionless number relates the
Ans. (c) : The similarity of shape between the model following :
(a) Inertial force and gravity force
and prototype is known as geometric similarity. (b) pressure force and inertial force
538. Ratio of inertia force to surface tension is (c) viscous force and gravity force
known as : (d) pressure force and viscous force
(a) Weber's number (b) Mach number TNPSC AE 2018
(c) Froude number (d) Euler number Ans. (b) : Euler's dimensionless number relates
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II pressure force and inertial force.
349
543. Dynamic similarity means the ratio of: 547. Problems of fluid flow form an orifice or nozzle
(a) Linear dimension between model and can be solved by:
prototype is equal (a) Froude Model (b) Mach Model
(b) Velocity between model and prototype at (c) Euler Model (d) Weber Model
certain point is equal OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(c) Forces between model and prototype is equal Ans : (c) : Problems of fluid flow form an orifice or
(d) All of these nozzle can be solved by Euler model.
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II 548. Weber number deals with:
Ans : (c) : Dynamic similarity means the similarity of (a) Inertial Force and Pressure Force
forces between model and prototype. Thus dynamic (b) Inertial Force and Surface Tension Force
similarity is said to exist between the model and the (c) Inertial Force and Elastic Force
prototype if the ratios of the forces acting at the (d) Inertial Force and Gravitational Force
corresponding points in the model and prototype are the OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
same in magnitude the direction also should be parallel. Ans : (b) :
544. Which of the following is not a dimensionless
number? Inertia force
! Weber Number =
(a) the coefficient of lift Surface Tension force
(b) the pipe friction factor
Inertia force
(c) the Manning's coefficient ! Euler Number =
(d) the coefficient of discharge Pressure force
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II Inertia force
Ans. (c) : The Manning's coefficient is dimensional ! Mach Number =
number. It represents the roughness or friction applied Elastic force
to the flow by the channel. According to Mannings 549. Which is the correct option for Froude
formula, discharge through an open channel, number?
Q = A Mm2/3 i1/2 (a) Viscous Force
where, M = Manning's coefficient (b) Elastic Force
meter1/3 (c) Gravity Force
It's unit ⇒ (d) Surface tension force
second OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
545. Eulers dimensionless number relates Ans : (c) : Froude Number- It is the ratio of inertia
(a) Inertia and Gravity force force to the gravity force.
(b) Viscous and Inertia force
(c) Pressure and Inertia force V
F =
(d) Buoyant and viscous force gL
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Where,
Ans. (c) : Euler's number relates pressure and inertia V is the velocity
force. g is the acceleration due to gravity
Fx V L is the characteristic length
(i) Euler no. (Eu) = =
Fρ ρ/p 550. Which dimensionless number has significant
role in defining laminar and turbulent flow
Fx V pattern ?
(ii) Froud no. (Fr) = = (a) Prandtl number (b) Reynolds number
Fy gL (c) Nusselt number (d) Froude's number
FI ρ VL OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
(iii) Re = Re = =
Fv µ Ans. (b) : Reynolds play important role in laminar and
Turbulent flow.
FI V 551. Statement (I) : When variables are a few, then
(iv) We = =
Fs σ / ( PL ) Rayleigh method is used in dimensional
analysis.
ρvl Statement (II) : When variables are more, then
546. With usual notation, the term is called
µ Buckigham o-method is used since the Rayleigh
method becomes cumbersome in dimensional
(a) Reynold's number (b) Prandtl number
analysis.
(c) Froude number (d) Nusselt number (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II individually true and Statement (II) is the
Ans. (a) : correct explanation of Statement (I).
Inertia force ρ vl (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
Reynold's number (Re) = =
Viscous force µ individually true but Statement (II) is NOT
the correct explanation of Statement (I).
* Reynold's number decides nature of flow (Laminar or (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is
turbulent or-transient) in forced convection. false.
350
 (d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is Inertia force
true. Ans. (a) : Reylonds number =
Viscous force
UPSC JWM 2017
Inertia force
Ans. (a) : Buckingham's π-theorem- "If there are n Froude number =
variable (dependent and independent) in a gravity force
dimensionally homogeneous equation and it these Inertia force
variable contain m fundamental dimensions, then the Euler number =
pressure force
variables are arranged into (n - m), dimensionless
terms." Inertia force
Weber number =
Rayleigh's Method- This method gives a surface tension force
special form of relationship among the dimensional Inertia force
group. In this method a functional relationship of some Mach number =
Elastic force
variables is expressed in the form of an exponential 555. If stream lines are similar between model and
equation which must be dimensionally homogeneous. prototype, it is called.
552. Consider the following statements: (a) Rotadynamic similarity
1. In model testing, the same fluid must be used (b) Kinematic similarity
in prototype and also the model (c) Geometrical similarity
2. Models should be smaller than prototype for (d) Dynamic similarity
geometric similarity (e) Structural similarity
3. Geometrically similar boundaries do not CGPSC AE 2014 -II
necessarily imply kinematically homogeneous Ans. (b) : If stream lines are similar between model and
prototype is called kinematic similarity.
flows
556. A proposed pier design is studied in a water
4. Existence of geometric similarity does not
channel to simulate forces due to hurricanes.
imply dynamic similarity Using a 1:10 scale model, what velocity should
Which of the above statements are correct? be selected in the model study to simulate a
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only water speed of 12 m/s?
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only (a) 3.79 m/s (b) 4.28 m/s
UPSC JWM 2017 (c) 5.91 m/s (d) 6.70 m/s
Ans. (c) : Geometrically similar boundaries do not (e) 6.90 m/s
necessarily imply kinematically homogenous flow. CGPSC AE 2014 -II
• Existence of geometric similarity does not Ans. (a) :
In this case gravity force is only predominant force.
imply dynamic similarity.
Which controls the flow in addition to the force of
553. The pressure difference in a turbulent flow inertia.
through the pipe of diameter (D) and length (L) According to Froude model law.
depends on velocity, viscosity, density and (Fr)m = (Fr)s
roughness. The number of π-terms formed will Vm Vs
be: =
Lm g
Ls g
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5 Lm
Vm = × Vs Model Scale = 1 : 10
(e) 6 Ls
CGPSC AE 2014- II
1 Lm 1
Ans. (d) : Total no. of variable (n) = 7 Vm = × 12 =
Total no. of fundamental units (m) = 3 10 L m 10
Then total no. of π term = (n – m) Vm = 3.794 m / s
=7–3 557. If there are 'm' physical quantities and 'n'
=4 fundamental dimensions in a particular
1 process, the number of non-dimensional
 Inertia force  2
554. The dimensionless number   parameters is-
 Gravity force  (a) m + n (b) m × n
is known as : (c) m - n (d) m/n
(a) Froude number RPSC AE 2018
(b) Euler number Ans. (c) : If there are 'm' physical quantities and 'n'
(c) Weber number fundamental dimensions in a particular process, then
(d) Mach number number of non-dimensional parameters (π-term) = m–n.
(e) Reynolds number 558. Reynolds number is the ratio of Inertia force to
CGPSC AE 2014- II (a) Pressure force (b) Elastic force
351
 (c) Gravity force (d) Viscous force
TNPSC AE 2013 Ans. (b) : Mach number = Inertia force
Ans. (d) : Reynolds number is the ratio of Inertia force Elastic force
to viscous force. F V
Fi ρDV M= i =
Re = = Fe C
Fv µ
564. Principle of similitude forms the basis of
559. Froude number is important for: (a) Comparing two identical equipments
(a) Unsteady flow (b) Viscous flow (b) Designing models so that the result can be
(c) Free surface flow (d) Compressible flow converted to prototypes
UPRVUNL AE 2016 (c) Comparing similarity between design
Ans. (c) : Froude number is important for free surface (d) Hydraulics designs
flow. Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Inertia force Ans. (b) : Principle of similitude forms this basis of
Froude number = designing models so that the result can be converted to
Gravity force prototypes.
560. Square root of ratio of inertia force of a flowing 565. The advantages of dimensional analysis are
fluid to the pressure force is known as (a) It is used to change the theoretical equation
(a) Weber number (b) Mach number into dimensionless form
(c) Euler number (d) Froude number (b) In model testing, it reduces the number of
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 variables into three numbers
Ans. (c) : Square root of ratio of inertia force of a (c) It helps to convert the units of quantities from
flowing fluid to the pressure force is known as Euler system to another
number. (d) All of these
Fi Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Euler number = Ans. (d) : The advantage of dimensional analysis are;
FP
i) It is used to change the theoretical equation into
Reynold's number dimensionless form.
F ii) In model testing, it reduces the number of
Re = i variables into three numbers.
FV
iii) It helps to converts the units of quantities from
Fi one system to another system.
Froude number =
Fg
566. A phenomenon is modeled using n dimensional
Fi variables with k primary dimensions. The
Weber number =
FS .T . number of non-dimensional variables is
(a) k (b) k-n
Fi (c) n/k (d) n-k
Mech number =
Felastic Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
Ans. (d) : n–k
561. The ratio of inertia force to surface tension is
known as: 567. For froude model law, scale ratio of force and
(a) Mach number scale ratio of length are related as : [Assuming
(b) Froude Number the experiment is conducted on same place and
(c) Reynolds Number in same fluid]
(d) Weber's Number (a) Scale ratio of force = Scale ratio of length
SJVN ET 2013 (b) Scale ratio of force = (Scale ratio of length)4
Ans. (d) : The ratio of inertia force to surface tension is (c) Scale ratio of force = (Scale ratio lf length)2
known as Weber's number. (d) Scale ratio of force = (Scale ratio of length)3
562. Nature of flow is determined by: SJVN ET 2019
(a) Mach number (b) Froude number Ans. (d) : Scale ratio of force = (Scale ratio of length)3
(c) Reynolds number (d) Weber's number 568. The head over a 900 V-notch increases from
SJVN ET 2013 0.15 to 0.3m. The ratio of the new discharge to
Ans. (c) : Nature of flow is determined by Reynolds the original discharge is :
number (a) 1.414 (b) 2.25
563. Ratio between inertia force to elastic force is (c) 4.00 (d) 5.657
know as :
(a) Reynold number (KPSC AE. 2015)
(b) Mach number Ans : (d) Discharge over . V –notch
(c) Euler number Q = 1.417 H5/2
(d) Forude number case 1st
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 H1 = 0.15 m
352
 Q1 = 1.417 ( 0.15 ) Ans : (b) (i) Subsonic flow - M<1
5/ 2
m3 / sec
(ii) Sonic flow - M=1
Q1 = 0.0123m3 / sec (iii) Supersonic flow - M>1
case 2 nd (iv) Hypersonic flow - M>5
H2 = 0.3 m M = Mach number
574. Compressibility effect can be treated as
Q 2 = 1.417 ( 0.3 )
5/ 2
negligible when Mach number is
Q 2 = 0.0698 m3 / sec (a) Upto 0.2 (b) Upto 0.5
(c) Less than 1 (d) 1
Q 2 0.0698 UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
=
Q1 0.0123 UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
Ratio of New discharge to the original discharge Ans : (a) Compressibility effect can be treated as
= 5.657 negligible when Mach number is upto 0.2.
569. Euler number is defined as the ratio of inertia Mach Number = Inertia force = Inerita foce
force to: Elastic force Compressible force
(a) Viscous force (b) Elastic force (i) Incompressible flow
(c) Pressure force (d) Gravity force M < 0.3
MPPSC AE 2016 (ii) Subsonic flow
0.3 < M < 1.0
Inerita force (iii) Sonic flow
Ans : (c) Euler Number =
Pr essure force M=1
570. The velocity of elastic pressure wave in a (iv) Supersonic flow
1.0 < M < 6.0
fluid medium is equal to
(v) Hypersonic flow
(a) sonic velocity M > 6.0
(b) half of sonic velocity
575. Mach number is the ratio of
(c) square root of sonic velocity (a) Elastic force to gravity force
(d) Bulk Modulus (b) Viscous force to elastic force
APPSC AEE 2012 (c) Inertial force to surface tension
Ans : (a) (d) Inertial force to elastic force
velocity of fluid or body moving in fluid UPPSC AE. 2016
Mach number =
Velocity of sound in thefluid TNPSC AE 2013
The velocity of elastic pressure wave in a fluid Ans : (d) Mach number is the ratio of Inertia force to
medium is equal to sonic velocity. elastic force.
571. Mach number is given by Inertia force
(i) Mach Number =
Acousticspeed Elastic force
(a)
Streamspeed Inertia force
(ii) Reynolds No =
Streamspeed Viscous force
(b)
Acousticspeed Inertia force
(c) product of gas constant and temperature (iii) Euler's No. =
Pr essure force
(d) half of Bulk Modulus
APPSC AEE 2012 Inertia force
(iv) Weber No. =
streamspeed Surface tension
Ans : (b) Mach number =
AcousticSpeed Inertia force
(v) Froude No. =
Subsonic flow :- M < 1 Gravity force
Sonic flow :- M = 1
Supersonic flow : - M > 1 14. Fluid Flow Around Submerged
572. Mach cone is possible in
(a) Stationary fluids (b) Subsonic flow Bodies
(c) Transonic flow (d) Supersonic flow 576. A streamlined body is defined as a body about
APPSC AEE 2012 which
Ans : (d) Mach cone is possible in Supersonic flow. (a) Drag is zero
573. The range of Mach number for a subsonic flow (b) Flow is laminar
is (c) Flow is along streamlines
(a) 0 < M < 1 (b) 0.3 < M < 1 (d) Flow separation is suppressed
(c) 0.8 < M < 1.2 (d) M > 1 UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
APPSC AEE 2012 Ans. (d) : Flow separation is suppressed.
353
577. The mathematical expression for lift force is (b) The drag becomes zero
given by (c) The drag begins to rise
(a) FL = CL ⋅ ρAU (d) The lift begins to drop
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
ρU 2
(b) FL = CL ⋅ ⋅A Ans. (d) : The critical angle of attack of an aerofoil is
2 that where the lift begins to drop.
2
(c) FL = CL ⋅ ρU ⋅A 585. Drag force on a body is result of:
(d) None of the above (a) Fluid dynamic force acting on the object
(Notations used have usual meaning.) (b) A component of resultant fluid dynamic force
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II in the flow direction
2 (c) Pressure variation over the surface of object
ρU
Ans. (b) : FL = CL ⋅ ⋅A due to horizontal force
2
(d) None of the above
578. Mach number is defined as the square root of OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
the ratio of the
(a) inertia force to the pressure force Ans : (b) Drag force on a body is result of a component
(b) inertia force to the surface tension force of resultant fluid dynamic force in the flow direction.
(c) inertia force to the elastic force 586. The body is called bluff body if the surface of
(d) none of the above the body.
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (a) Very rough
Ans. (c) : inertia force to the elastic force (b) Very smooth
(c) Coincides with streamlines
579. A streamlined body is defined as a body about (d) Does not coincides with streamlines
which OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(a) the drag is zero
(b) the flow is laminar Ans : (d) : The bluff body can be defined as the body
(c) the flow is along streamlines whose surface does not coincide with the streamline
(d) the flow separation is suppressed when places in a flow. As the pressure on downstream
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II falls substantially and produces the pressure difference
on the upstream and downstream side of body, a very
Ans. (d) : the flow separation is suppressed wide wake is developed.
580. The total drag on a plate held normal to the 587. The skin friction drag on a sphere for R < 0.2
e
flow is equal to:- is equal to:
(a) Pressure drag (a) Equal to total drag
(b) Viscous drag (b) Two-third of total drag
(c) Pressure drag × viscous drag (c) One-third of total drag
Viscous drag (d) Double of total drag
(d)
Pressure drag OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II Ans : (b) : The skin friction drag on a sphere for Re <
Ans. (a) : The total drag on a plate held normal to the 0.2 is equal to two-third of total drag.
flow is equal to pressure drag. 588. What will be the drag force on an object, if
581. The coefficient of drag and lift are functions object speed doubled in fluid?
of:- (a) Doubled (b) Four times
(a) Frouds number (b) Reynolds number (c) Remains same (d) Becomes zero
(c) Weber number (d) Euler number OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II Ans : (b) :
Ans. (b) : The coefficient of drag and lift are functions We know that
of reynolds number. C
582. The aspect ratio of a wing is expressed as:- Drag force FD = D .ρ.A.V 2
2
(a) l/A (b) l/A2 = FD ∝ V 2
2 2 2
(c) l /A (d) l /A If the speed is doubled then the drag force on the object
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II will be four times.
Ans. (b) : 589. The critical angle of attack of an aerofoil is
583. Beyond the stall point, the drag coefficient:- that, where
(a) Decreases rapidly (a) the lift becomes zero
(b) Increases rapidly (b) the drag becomes zero
(c) Remains same (c) the drag begins to rise
(d) None of the above (d) the lift begins to drop
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II JPSC AE 2013 Ist Paper
Ans. (b) : Ans. (d) : The angle of attack of an aerofoil at which
584. The critical angle of attack of an aerofoil is that the flow of air about the airfoil changes abruptly so that
where:- lift is sharply reduced and drag is sharply increased.
(a) The lift becomes zero Also known as stalling angle of attack.
354
590. A Rankine oval body has stagnation point (s) at 595. Effect of compressibility of a fluid can
(a) θ = 0 only (b) θ = π only neglected if Mach number is
π (a) equal to 1
(c) θ = 0 and θ = (d) θ = 0 and θ = π (b) greater than 1
2 (c) less than 1 but greater than 0.4
APPSC-AE-2019 (d) less than 0.4
Ans. (d) : For Rankine oval there are two stagnation APPSC AEE 2012
points one on front and other at back side as shown in Ans : (d) Effect of compressibility of a fluid can
the figure below. neglected if Mach number is less than 0.4
Compressibility effect can be treated as negligible when
Mach number is upto 0.33
Inertia force Inerita force
Mach Number = =
Elastic force Compressible force
(i) Incompressible flow M < 0.3
(ii) Subsonic flow 0.3 < M < 1.0
591. Which object generates less drag when (iii) Sonic flow M=1
subjected to a flow field? (iv) Supersonic flow 1.0 < M < 6.0
(a) Cylinder (b) Sphere (v) Hypersonic flow M > 6.0
(c) Airfoil (d) Square
596. A Mach number (M) for supersonic fluid flow
APPSC-AE-2019 is:
Ans. (c) : Aerofoil does not have pressure drag as flow (a) M > 1 (b) M < 1
doesn't separate on aerofoil. (c) M ≥ 1 (d) M ≤ 1
Pressure drag is the dominant drag at moderate (e) M ≈ 1
Reynolds number. Hence, aerofoil has least drag as (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
compared to other blunt objects.
Object Speed
592. The major drag force experienced by the body Ans. (a) : Mach Number (M) =
at very small velocity is due to Speed of Sound
(a) pressure drag (b) skin friction drag M < 1.0 → Subsonic
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) wakes M = 1.0 → Transonic flow or sonic flow
APPSC-AE-2019 M > 1.0 → Supersonic flow
Ans. (b) : When velocity is very small the flow falls M > 5.0 → Hypersonic flow
into stokes regime i.e. creeping flow (Re < 1) 597. Air at 300 °C and 7 bar is expanded
In creeping flow, there is no flow separation and isentropically until the velocity is 300 m/s.
pressure drag is less as compared to frictional drag. Calculate the static temperature of the air at high
593. What will be the drag force exerted on a plate velocity condition if Cp of air is 1.00 kJ/kg-°C:-
(a) 255 °C (b) 295 °C
of size 2 m × 2 m, when the plate is moving at (c) 300 °C (d) None of the above
speed of 4 m/s normal to its plane in water? UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
[Consider, Coefficient of drag = 1.2] Ans. (a) :
(a) 38.4 kN (b) 32.2 kN 598. A normal shock can occur only when:-
(c) 45.7 kN (d) 40.2 kN (a) Flow changes from supersonic to subsonic
SJVN ET 2019 (b) Flow changes from sonic to subsonic
1 (c) Flow changes from subsonic to sonic
Ans. (a) : FD = C DρAV 2 (d) The flow is Trans-sonic
2
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
1 Ans. (a) : A normal shock can occur only when flow
= × 1.2 ×1000 × 2 × 2 × 4 2 = 1.2×1000×2×16
2 changes from supersonic to subsonic.
= 38400 = 38.4 kN 599. Sonic velocity C for adiabatic is mentioned as:
(a) C = γRT (b) C = γRT
15. Flow of Compressible Fluids (c) C = γRT 2 (d) C = [ γRT ]
1/ 3

594. Sonic velocity will have a low value in the OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
medium having Ans : (a) velocity of sound wave is given by
(a) Low value of coefficient of compressibility
dp k
(b) High value of coefficient of compressibility C= = ........... in term of bulk modulus
(c) High bulk modulus of elasticity dρ p
(d) Homogeneous composition p
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II C = ρ = RT........... for isothermal process
Ans : (b) Sonic velocity will have a low value in the
medium having high value of coefficient of C = γp = γRT........... for adiabatic process.
compressibility. ρ
355
600. Bernoulli's equation for compressible flows 602. The compressor performance at high altitude
undergoing adiabatic process is given by: as compared to sea level will be
[where γ = Ratio of specific heat, P = Pressure, (a) same
v = velocity, Z = datum head, g = acceleration (b) higher
due to gravity]
(c) lower
p v2 (d) may be higher or lower depending on other
(a) ln P + + z = constant
ρg 2g factors
2
 γ  P v UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(b)   + + z = constant
 γ − 1  ρg 2g Ans. (c) : Lower
P v2 603. A convergent duct produces
(c) + + z = constant
( γ − 1) ρg 2g (a) deceleration in supersonic and acceleration is
subsonic flow
dv dA dP
(d) + + =0 (b) acceleration in both supersonic and subsonic
v A ρ
flow
SJVN ET 2019
(c) deceleration in both supersonic and subsonic
Ans. (b) : Bernoulli's equation for compressible flows
flow
undergoing adiabatic process is given by :
(d) acceleration in supersonic and deceleration in
 γ  P v2
  + + z = Constant subsonic flow
 γ − 1  ρg 2g UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
601. The differential form of continuity equation for Ans. (a) : Deceleration in supersonic and acceleration
one dimensional steady flow compressible
is subsonic flow
fluids with usual terms is
dρ dA 604. A shock wave which occurs in a supersonic
(a) + =0 flow represents a region in which
ρ A
(a) a zone of silence exists
dA dρ dV
(b) = + (b) there is no change in pressure, temperature
A ρ V
and density
dA dV dρ
(c) = + (c) there is sudden change in pressure,
ρ V ρ
temperature and density
dA −dρ dV
(d) = − (d) velocity is zero
A ρ V
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
APPSC AEE 2012
Ans. (c) : There is sudden change in pressure,
Ans : (d) Continuity equation :- This is based on law of
temperature and density
conservation of mass which states that matter cannot be
created nor destroyed. for one-dimensional steady flow. 605. The flow is said to be subsonic when Mach
the mass per second = ρAV. number is
(a) Equal to unity
ρ = mass density. A = Area of cross - section, V =
(b) Less than unity
velocity
(c) Greater than unity
ρAV = C
(d) None of above
d ( ρAV ) = 0
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
ρd ( AV ) + AVdρ = 0 Ans. (b) :
ρ [ A.dV + V.dA ] + AVdρ = 0 Mach number (M) =
velocity object in a medium
velocity of sound in a medium
ρAdV + ρVdA + AVdρ = 0
If M < 1 ⇒ Subsonic flow
dividing by ρAV M= 1 ⇒ Sonic flow
dV dA dρ M > 1 ⇒ Super sonic flow
+ + =0
V A ρ M > 6 ⇒ Hyper sonic flow

356
606. A shock wave is produced when (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
(a) a sonic flow changes to supersonic flow individually true but Statement (II) is NOT
(b) a subsonic flow changes to sonic flow the correct explanation of Statement (I).
(c) a supersonic flow changes to subsonic flow (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is
(d) none of the above false.
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II (d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is
true.
Ans. (c) : Shock wave is produced when a supersonic
flow changes to subsonic flow. A shock wave is a type UPSC JWM 2017
of propagating disturbance that moves faster than the Ans. (b) : Normal shock wave is normal to the flow
local speed of sound in the medium. direction where as oblique shock wave is inclined at
607. The sonic velocity in a fluid medium is directly some angle.
proportional to In normal shock, flow direction does not
(a) Mach number change (flow deflection angle = 0)
(b) Density In oblique shock, flow direction changes (flow
deflection angle ≠ 0)
(c) Pressure
(d) Square root of temperature 610. For an incompressible fluid, the density
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II (a) Varies with temperature only
(b) Varies with pressure only
Ans. (d) : For sonic velocity, Ma = 1
(c) Varies with both pressure and temperature
In a fluid medium is directly proportional to square root
of temperature. (d) Remain constant
JPSC AE PRE 2019
608. Across a normal shock
(a) the pressure and temperature rise Ans. (d) : Incompressible flow—A flow in which the
volume of a fluid and its density does not change during
(b) the velocity and pressure increase
the flow is called an incompressible flow. All the
(c) the velocity and pressure decrease
liquids are considered to have incompressible flow.
(d) the velocity and density decrease
611. A frictionless and incompressible fluid is
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(a) A read fluid
Ans. (a) : Normal shock are a fundamental type of
(b) An ideal fluid
shock wave. The waves, which are perpendicular to the
(c) A Newtonian fluid
flow are called "Normal shocks".
(d) A gas
* Across a normal shock pressure and temperature
rise. Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 Paper-2
* Normal shocks only happen when the flow is Ans. (b) : Ideal fluid is an incompressible fluid &
supersonic. frictionless, which has a zero viscosity (µ = 0). In ideal
flow, there is no existence of shear force because of
609. Statement (I) : Both oblique shock and normal
vanishing viscosity.
shock can be viewed as two different regions of
a flow over a plate with a deflection section. 612. Mach number greater than unity implies that
Statement (II) : Variation of the deflection the flow is
angle from a zero to a positive value results in (a) Sonic (b) Subsonic
oblique shock. Further changing the deflection (c) Supersonic (d) Hypersonic
angle to a negative value results in expansion Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
waves. Ans. (c) : ! Mach number greater than unity implies
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are that the flow is supersonic.! Mach number less than
individually true and Statement (II) is the unity implies that the flow is subsonic flow.! Mach
correct explanation of Statement (I). number is equal to unity implies that the flow is sonic.
357
 07. FLUID MACHINES
3. A 6-cm diameter horizontal stationary water
1. Impact of Jets jet having a velocity of 40 m/s strikes a vertical
plate. The force needed to hold the plate if it
1. If w = Specific weight of water in N/m3, a = moves away from the jet at 20 m/s is nearly
Cross sectional area of jet in m2 and V = (a) 1365 N (b) 1270 N
velocity of jet in m/s, the force exerted (in N) by (c) 1130 N (d) 1080 N
a jet of water impinging normally on a fixed (e) 1150 N
plate is ...................... CGPSC AE 2014 -II
(a) waV/2g (b) waV/g Ans. (c) : Jet of water strikes on a moving plate
(c) waV2/2g (d) waV2/g So
RPSC AE 2018 Jet of water strike with moving plate with relative
Ans. (d) : Normal force acting on the fixed plate is Fn. velocity = (VJ - u)
So
Force acting in x - direction will be
•
Fx-x = m [VJ - u] = ρ×a×(VJ - u)2
π
Fx-x = 1000 × × 36 × 10−4 × [ 40 − 20]
2

4
Fx-x=1130.4 N ≈ 1130 N
i
Fx = Fn = m [Vjet - Vplate]

Vjet = V, Vplate = 0 (in x-direction)

Fn = ρ × a × V [V − 0]
= ρ × a ×V 2
V2
Fn = ρ × g × a ×
g
w × a ×V 2
Fn =
g
2. If mass density is ρ, area is a and velocity of jet 4. A 75 mm diameter water jet having a velocity
of 12m/s impinges on a plane, smooth plate at
is V, then the force exerted by a jet of water on
an angle to 60º to the normal to the plate. The
a stationary vertical plate in the direction of jet impact on the plate (when plate is stationary)
is given by is.
2
(a) ρaV (b) ρaV (a) 552.66N (b) 550.66N
(c) ρa2V (d) ρaV3 (c) 317.93N (d) 319.93N
TNPSC 2019 (e) 319.93N
Ans. (b) : Force exerted CGPSC AE 2014 -II
Ans. (c) :

We know that normal force acting on a inclined plate

in x-direction on the fixed plate- Fn= ρ a V2 sin θ
Fx-x = Rate change of momentum in x-direction where, θ = angle make by jet with inclined plate
=mɺ [ Vi − Vf ] ∵ Vf = 0 π
= ρ a V×V Vi = V 4
2
( )
Fn = ( 0.075 ) × (12 ) × sin 300
2

2 mɺ = ρ aV Fn = 317.925N
Fx-x = ρ aV

358
5. A nozzle at the end of an 80 mm hosepipe 2. Hydraulics Turbines
produces a jet 40 mm in diameter. When it is
discharging the water 1200 Lpm, the force on
8. The purpose of surge tank in a pipeline is to
the joint at the base of the nozzle will be (a) remove friction
(a) 180 N (b) 200 N
(b) prevent turbulence in the flow
(c) 220 N (d) 240 N
(c) prevent flow loss
ESE 2019 (d) relieve pressure due to water hammer
Ans. (d) : Gujarat PSC AE 2019
TNPSC 2019
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (d) : Surge tank is a reservoir fitted on the
penstock near the turbine to receive the rejected water
Given, when the pipe line is suddenly closed by the governing
d1 = 80 mm mechanism. It helps to reduce water hammer effect in
d2 = 40 mm the penstock pipe line.
1200 × 10 −3 9. The valve closure is said to be gradual if the
Q = 1200 Lpm = = 0.02 m3/s time required to close the valve is
60 (a) t = 2L/C (b) t ≤ 2L/C
Q 0.02 (c) t ≥ 2L/C (d) t > 2L/C
V1 = = = 3.978 m/s
A1 π × (0.08)2 Where, L = length of pipe, C = velocity of the
4 pressure wave
Q 0.02 Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
V2 = = = 15.915 m/s Ans. (d) : The valve closure is said to be, sudden or
A2 π
× (0.04)2 gradual, the time required to close the Valve is "t > 2L/C"
4
Force at joint (F) = ρQ (V2 − V1) 10. The magnitude of water hammer in the flow of
= 1000 × 0.02 (15.915 − 3.978) a liquid through a pipe does not depend upon
= 238.74 (a) Length of pipe
≃ 240 N (b) Elastic properties of pipe material
(c) Temperature of liquid
6. Force exerted by a jet of water impinging on a (d) Time of valve closure
moving flat plate is UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
W W
a(v − u)
2
(a) (b) a(v − u) Ans : (c) The pressure rise due to water hammer
g g depends upon
W W (i) The velocity of flow of water in pipe
a (v − u) a (v − u)
2
(c) (d) (ii) The length of pipe
2g 2g
(iii) Time taken to close the valve
TSPSC AEE 2015 (iv) Elastic properties of the material of the pipe
Ans : (a) The following cases of water hammer in pipe will be
considered
(i) Gradual closure of valve
(ii) Sudden closure of valve and considering pipe rigid
(iii)Sudden closure of valve and considering pipe elastic
11. Water hammer is developed in
(a) penstock (b) draft tube
(c) turbine (d) surge tank
Let u = plate velocity, v = jet velocity RPSC AE 2016
Force exerted by jet on moving flat plate normal to jet TNPSC AE 2014
2
Fn = ρa (v-u) UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
W Ans : (a) Water hammer is developed in penstock.
a (v − u)
2
Fn =
g The pressure rise due to water hammer depends upon
work done per second (W) = Fn × u = ρa (v-u)2 u (i) The velocity of flow of water in pipe
(ii) The length of pipe
7. A series of normal flat vanes are mounted on
(iii) Time taken to close the valve
the periphery of a wheel, the vane speed being
(iv) elastic properties of the material of the pipe.
V. For maximum efficiency the speed of the
The following factor of water hammer in pipes will be
liquid jet striking the vanes should be
considered.
V V
(a) (b) 12. The most probable value of speed ratio of
3 2 Kaplan turbine is
(c) V (d) 2V (a) 0.45 (b) 0.75
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II (c) 1.15 (d) 2.0
Ans. (d) : 2V UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
359
 Ans. (d) : Kaplan turbine is a axial flow, low head and Ans. (c)
high speed ratio reaction turbine. Turbine Head (m)
* The most probable value of speed ratio of Kaplan Kaplan 10 - 30 (High discharge)
Turbine is, ku = 2.0 Propeller 10 - 30 (High discharge)
u Francis 30 - 250
where k u = Pelton wheel Above 300 m with low
2gh
discharge
13. Run away speed of a Pelton wheel means 19. Main characteristic curves of a turbine means
(a) Full load speed (a) Curves at constant speed
(b) No load speed (b) Curves at constant efficiency
(c) No load speed with no governor (c) Curves at constant head
(d) Full load speed with governor mechanism (d) Curves at constant pressure
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II Ans. (c) : Main characteristic curve of a turbine is
Ans. (c) : The maximum unsafe speed of the runner associated with a curve at constant head and varying
(without governor control) due to sudden decrease in speed.
load on turbine is called runaway speed of the runner of 20. Impulse turbines work on the principle of
pelton wheel. (a) Newton's first law
(b) Newton's second law
14. The speed ratio of a Pelton wheel varies from (c) Newton's third law
(a) 0.6 to 0.7 (b) 0.8 to 0.9 (d) Conservation of mass
(c) 0.45 to 0.5 (d) It cannot be defined RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper Ans. (b) : Impulse turbines work on the principle of
Ans. (c) : The Speed ratio of Pelton wheel Varies from Newton's second law.
0.45 to 0.5. 21. Which of the following turbines is suitable for
u = φ 2gh , φ = speed ratio specific speed ranging from 300 to 1000 and
15. A Draft tube is used with: heads below 30 m?
(a) Impulse Turbine (a) Francis (b) Kaplan
(b) Reaction Turbine (c) Propeller (d) Pelton
(c) Reciprocating Pump UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(d) Centrifugal pump Ans. (b) : Kaplan turbine is suitable for specific speed
OPSC AE-II 2019 ranging from 300 to 1000 and heads below 30m.
TNPSC AE 2014 Turbines Head Specific speed
Ans : (b) : Draft Tube- The draft tube is a pipe of (M.K.S. Unit)
gradually increasing area used for discharging water 1. Pelton above 250 m 10-35
from the exit of a reaction turbine. It is an integral part 2. Francis 30-250 m 60-300 m
of mixed and axial flow turbines. Because of the draft 3. Kaplan below 30 300 - 1000
tube, it is possible to have the pressure at runner outlet Note : At part load, high efficiency can be obtained in
much below the atmospheric pressure. Kaplan turbine.
16. Which one of the following needs maximum 22. If the number of jets in a pelton wheel
head? installation are n, its specific speed is
(a) Kaplan turbine (b) Pelton turbine proportional to
(c) Francis turbine (d) Reaction turbine (a) n (b) n1/2
3/4
Jharkhand JPSC AE Pre 2019 (c) n (d) n5/4
Ans. (b) : Pelton turbine is used for high head and low UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
speed and discharge. Ans. (b) : n1/2
17. Statement (I): The speed of a governed water 23. When blade speed ratio is zero, no work is done
turbine will remain constant irrespective of because the distance travelled by the blade is
load. zero even if the torque on the blade
Statement (II): In governing, the water supply (a) is minimum (b) is zero
is regulated to maintain the speed constant. (c) is maximum (d) remains the same
ESE 2017 ESE 2020
Ans. (a) : The primary objective in turbine operation is Ans. (c) : is maximum
to maintain a constant speed of rotation irrespective of
the varying load. This is achieved by means as 24. In an axial flow turbine, the utilization factor
governing in a turbine. has an absolute maximum value of unity, for
18. If the head on the turbine is more than 300m, any degree of reaction if the value of nozzle
the type of turbine used should be angle α is
(a) Kaplan (b) Francis (a) 270° (b) 180°
(c) Pelton wheel (d) Propeller (c) 90° (d) 0°
TNPSC AE 2018 ESE 2020
360
Ans. (d) : Utilization factor 29. If the outlet angle of the bucket for pelton
2 wheel is 600, the maximum efficiency in the
2 cos α 2 ×1
= = = 1 [∵ α = 0] case of Pelton wheel neglecting friction in the
1 + cos α 1 + 1
2
bucket is :
25. An inward flow reaction turbine has an (a) 75% (b) 80%
external diameter of 1 m and its breadth at (c) 50% (d) 90%
inlet is 250 mm. If the velocity of flow at inlet is BHEL ET 2019
2 m/s and 10% of the area of flow is blocked by Ans. (a) : Given -
blade thickness, the weight of water passing Outlet angle of bucket pelton wheel φ = 60o
through the turbine will be nearly maximum hydraulic efficiency
(a) 10 kN/s (b) 14 kN/s  l + cos φ  1 + cos 60
o

(c) 18 kN/s (d) 22 kN/s ηH =   =

 2  2
ESE 2020
1 + 0.5
Ans. (b) : Given, d1 = 1 m = × 100 = 75%
b1 = 0.25 m 2
Vf1 = 2 m/s 30. Kaplan Turbine is a:
k = 0.9 = coefficient of blade thickness (a) Impulse turbine
Q = kπd1b1Vf1 (b) Inward flow reaction
Q = 0.9 × π × 1 × 0.25 × 2 = 1.413 m3/sec (c) Axial flow reaction
Weight of water passing through turbine = ρgQ (d) Axial flow reaction with fixed vanes
= 1000 × 9.81 × 1.413 OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
= 14 kN/s Ans : (c) : ! Kaplan turbine is an axial flow reaction
turbine.
26. While designing a Pelton wheel, the velocity of ! Pelton turbine is a tangential flow impulse turbine.
wheel ‘u’ is
31. Kaplan turbine is used for
(a) K u gH (b) 2K u gH (a) low heads (b) medium heads
(c) K u 2gH (d) 2K u 2gH (c) high heads (d) very high heads
APPSC-AE-2019
where, Ku = speed ratio; H = net head on TSPSC AEE 2015
turbine; g = gravity Ans. (a) : Kaplan turbine is suitable for low head, high
ESE 2020 discharge and it has high specific speed.
u 32. Kaplan turbine is an example of :
Ans. (c) : Speed ratio, K u =
2gH (a) low head and tangential flow turbine
(b) low head and axial flow turbine
27. Cavitations happens in turbo machines (c) high head and mixed flow turbine
primarily because : (d) high head and axial flow turbine
(a) the temperature increases above a critical (e) high head and tangential flow turbine
value CGPSC AE 2014- II
(b) the velocity attains very high value CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
(c) the pressure falls below the vapour pressure UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II
(d) the thomas cavitation parameter exceeds a Ans. (b) : Kaplan Turbine– Kaplan turbine is a low
certain limit head and axial flow turbine. This is use for low head [10
BHEL ET 2019 – 30 m] and high discharge of water.
Ans. (c) : Cavitation happens in turbomachines It has maximum specific speed → 600 – 1000
primarily because the pressure falls below the vapour 33. The surge tanks are normally integral part of
pressure. power plant as they prevent immediate damage to:
28. A Pelton wheel operates under a head of 900 m. (a) Tail race (b) Turbine
The speed ratio of the wheel is 0.45. The (c) Penstocks (d) Draft tube
peripheral speed of the turbine wheel is : (e) Water hammer
(a) 60 m/s (b) 45 m/s CGPSC AE 2014 -II
(c) 75 m/s (d) 90 m/s Ans. (c) : Surge tank - A Simple surge tank is like
BHEL ET 2019 vertical pipe which is connected to the panstock.
Ans. (a) : Given -
Head (H) = 900 m
speed ratio (φ) = 0.45
velocity of Pelton wheel u = φ 2gH
= 0.45 2 × 9.81× 900
= 59.797
u ≈ 60 m / sec.

361
Function of surge tank– π
(d) Q =  Db2 − D02  × V f
1. Upon the rapid closure of the turbine, water masses 4
moving in the pressure tunnel and in the penstock TNPSC 2019
are suddenly decelerated .
Ans. (b) : Turbine Discharge
2. The surge provides protection to the penstock
against damage of water hammer. π 2
Pelton wheel turbine d × 2gh
3. The third purpose of the surge tank is to provide 4
water supply to the turbines in case of starting up. Francis Turbine πDBVf
34. Francis and Kaplan turbines fall under the π 2
category of Kaplan turbine D 0 − D b2  × Vf
(a) Impulse turbines 4 
(b) Reaction turbines 38. The pressure inside a Pelton turbine casing
(c) Axial flow turbines during working _______.
(d) Mixed flow turbines (a) Increases
TNPSC AE 2014 (b) Remains constant
Ans. (b) : Francis and Kaplan turbine are reaction (c) Decreases
turbines whereas Pelton wheel turbine is impulse (d) First decreases and then increases
turbine. CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
35. Which of the turbines is axial flow turbine? Ans. (b) : Pelton wheel is a kind of impulse turbine. As
(a) Francis turbine (b) All reaction turbines in case of impulse turbine pressure throughout turbine is
(c) Pelton wheel (d) Kaplan turbine constant and equal to atmospheric pressure, so only
UPRVUNL AE 2016 energy available for turbine is kinetic energy of fluid.
There is no change in pressure energy as it takes place
Ans. (d) : in reaction turbine.
Turbine Type of flow
Francis Radial flow 39. Which relation is incorrect?
Modern Francis Mixed flow (a) Francis Turbine - Impulse Turbine
Pelton wheel Tangential flow (b) Pelton Turbine - Impulse Turbine
Propeller Turbine Axial flow (c) Kaplan Turbine - Reaction Turbine
Kaplan Turbine Axial flow (d) Francis Turbine - Reaction Turbine
SJVN ET 2013
36. Which of the following statements is correct for
Pelton wheel (where, VW = whirl velocity at Ans. (a) : Pelton Turbine - Impulse Turbine
inlet tip of bucket, V = absolute velocity of jet Francis Turbine - Reaction Turbine
before striking of bucket, u = absolute velocity Kaplan Turbine - Reaction Turbine
of bucket)? 40. In hydro turbines, cavitation results in:
(a) VW = V (b) VW = V + u (a) Pitting on metallic surfaces of runner blades
(c) VW = u (d) VW = V - u (b) Long life for blades
UPRVUNL AE 2016 (c) More power generation efficiency
Ans. (a) : For pelton wheel turbine (d) All of these
Whirl velocity at input tip Vw= absolute SJVN ET 2013
velocity of jet before striking of bucket V. Ans. (a) : Cavitation in hydraulic machine occurs when
static pressure at any location is close to or lower than
vapour pressure and we know that sum of velocity head
and pressure head is constant at constant elevation. So
the location where velocity is maximum, pressure will
be minimum or close to vapour pressure. Hence
maximum velocity location in machines are probable
points of cavitation. In pump it is occurs at the entry to
impeller and in turbine it is exit from runner or entry to
draft tube.
37. If D, D0 and Db refer to pelton wheel diameter, 41. The cavitation in reaction type hydraulic
d refers to jet diameter, B refers to breadth the turbine is avoided by
wheel Vf refers to the velocity of the jet and H (a) Using high polished blades
refers to net head, discharge through Pelton (b) Using stainless steel runner
turbine is given by one of the following (c) Running turbine at designed speed
equation (d) All of above
(a) Q = π DBV f SJVN ET 2013
Ans. (d) : The cavitation in reaction type hydraulic
π 2
(b) Q = d × 2 gH turbine is avoided by
4 • Using high polished blades.
π • Using stainless steel runner.
(c) Q =  D02 − Db2  × V f
4 • Running turbine at designed speed.
362
42. A turbine develops 10 MW when running at Ans. (a) : Given,
100 rpm under the head of 30 m. If the head is H1 = 30 m
reduced to 20 m, the speed and power H2 = 18 m
developed will be respectively given as [given N1 = 100 rpm
1.5 = 1.22] N2 = ?
(a) 97.62 rpm, 5.46 MW We know that
(b) 81.96 rpm, 4.82 MW H ∝ N2
(c) 97.62 rpm, 4.82 MW Then
(d) 81.96 rpm, 5.46 MW N2 H2
SJVN ET 2019 =
Ans. (d) : Given, N1 H1
P1 = 10 MW = 10×106 W 18
N1 = 100 rpm N2 = 100 ×
N2 = ? 30
H1 = 30 m N2 = 77.45 ≃ 77 rpm.
H2 = 20 m 47. An inward flow reaction turbine has following
N1 N2 data:
1/ 2
= 1/ 2 Head available = 25 m
(H1 ) (H 2 )
Velocity of flow = 2.5 m/s (constant)
100 N2
= Guide blade angle = 10o
(30)1/ 2 (20)1/ 2 Runner vanes are radial air inlet and discharge
N2 = 81.65 rpm at outlet is radial. What will be the
≈ 81.96 rpm approximate hydraulic efficiency of turbine?
P1 P2 [give tan 10o = 0.175 , g = 10 m/s2]
3/ 2
= 3/ 2
(H1 ) (H 2 ) (a) 95.34% (b) 70.23%
10 × 106 × (20)3/ 2 (c) 61.32% (d) 81.63%
P2 = SJVN ET 2019
(30)3/ 2 Ans. (d) : Given
P2 = 5.46 × 106 W = 5.46 MW tanα = tan10
43. Which of the following is the best suitable = 0.175
range of working head of Kaplan turbine?
(a) 5 - 70 m (b) 500 - 2000 m RP = ρ(Q )
Vw 1 u1 + Vw 2 u 2
(c) 300 - 1500 m (d) 100 - 300 m Vw 2 = 0
SJVN ET 2019
Ans. (a) : High head 500 to 2000 m - Pelton wheel - u1 = u 2 = u
Impulse turbine tangential flow RP = ρQVw .u
Medium head 60 m to 250 m - Francis turbine - mixed SP = ρQgH
flow
Low head - head less than 60 m - Kaplan & propeller - From - Inlet velocity triangle
axial flow
44. Which of the following is not open conduit?
(a) Tunnel (b) Flume
(c) Penstock (d) Pipeline
SJVN ET 2019
Ans. (b : Flume is a open channel or conduit. Tunnel
penstock and pipe lines are not open channel.
45. Pelton turbine is an example of:
(a) Tangential flow turbine
(b) Axial flow turbine
(c) High specific speed turbine
(d) Low head turbine
SJVN ET 2019
V
Ans. (a) : In Pelton turbine water flow from jet in tan α = f1
tangential direction to the wheel of turbine. Vw1
46. A turbine develops 9000 kW when running at 2.5
100 rpm. Head on turbine is 30 m. If the head Vw1 = = 14.28
on the turbine is reduced to 18 m, speed of 0.175
RP Vw1 u (14.28 )
2
turbine under 18 m is:
(a) 77 rpm (b) 18 rpm η H = = = = 81.5
WP gH 10 × 25
(c) 180 rpm (d) 30 rpm
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 ≈ 81.63%
363
48. High head hydo-power plant uses Ans. (b) : Hydraulic efficiency
(a) Kaplan turbine Runner power
(b) Francis turbine ηH =
Water power at inlet of turbine
(c) Pelton turbine
(d) The type of turbine used does not depend on Mechanical energy supplied by the rotor
=
head of hydro-power plant Hydrodynamic energy available from fluid
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 52. In a lawn sprinkler, water leaves the jet with an
Ans. (c) : absolute velocity of 2m/s and the sprinkler
Head Turbine arms are 0.1 m in length. The sprinkler rotates
(1) High and low discharge Pelton turbine at a speed of 120 r.p.m. The utilization factor of
(2) Medium head Francis turbine this sprinkler will be nearly
medium discharge (a) 0.72 (b) 0.64
(3) Low head and Kaplan turbine (c) 0.56 (d) 0.49
maximum discharge ESE 2019
49. Consider the following turbines Ans. (c) : Given, Velocity of water (v) = 2 m/s
(1) Fransis turbine Length of sprinkler arm = 0.1 m
(2) Pelton wheel with 2 or more jets N = 120 rpm
(3) Pelton wheel with single jet π DN π× 0.2 × 120
(4) Kaplan u= = = 1.25 m/s
60 60
The correct sequence of these turbines in Ideal work output
increasing order of their specific speed is Utilization factor (∈) =
(a) 2, 3, 1, 4 (b) 3, 2, 1, 4 Work output + k ∈
(c) 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 3, 2, 4, 1 vu
TSPSC AEE 2015 g vu
Ans. (b) = =
vu v 2
v2
Turbine Specific speed + vu +
Pelton wheel with single jet 10 - 30 g 2g 2
Pelton wheel with 2 or more jets 30 - 60 2 × 1.25
= = 0.56
Fransis turbine 60 - 300 22
Propeller turbine 300 - 600 2 × 1.25 +
2
Kaplan turbine 600 - 1000 53. According to aerofoil theory, the guide angle of
Turbo turbine 20 - 80 Kaplan turbine blades is defined as the angle
50. Consider the following statements regarding between
reaction turbine: (a) lift and resultant force
1. Blade shape is aerofoil type and its (b) drag and resultant force
manufacturing is difficult. (c) lift and tangential force
2. It is suitable for small power. (d) lift and drag
3. Leakages losses are less compared to friction ESE 2018
losses. Ans. (a) : Guide angle as per the aerofoil of Kaplan
Which of the above statements is/are correct? turbine blade design is defined as the angle between lift
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only and resultant force.
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 54. The critical speed of a turbine is
ESE 2019 (a) same as the runaway speed
Ans. (a) : Reaction turbine blades are asymmetrical and (b) the speed that will lead to mechanical failure
the design of these blades are aerofoil type hence it of the shaft
manufacturing is difficult. (c) the speed which equals the natural frequency
51. The hydraulic efficiency of a turbine is the of the rotor
ratio of (d) the speed equal to the synchronous speed of
(a) mechanical energy in the output shaft at the generator
coupling and hydrodynamic energy available ESE 2018
from the fluid Ans. (c) : Critical speed of a turbine is the speed of the
(b) mechanical energy supplied by the rotor and runner at which natural frequency of the rotor unit equal
hydrodynamic energy available from the fluid to the operating speed.
(c) useful hydrodynamic energy in the fluid at 55. The specific speed of a hydraulic turbine
final discharge and mechanical energy depends on
supplied to the rotor (a) speed and power developed
(d) useful hydrodynamic energy in the fluid at (b) speed and water head
final discharge and mechanical energy (c) discharge and power developed
supplied to the shaft and coupling (d) speed, head and power developed
ESE 2019 ESE 2018
364
 never delivered, it expands as the piston moves back
N P and limit the volume of fresh air which can be induced
Ans. (d) : N s = 5/ 4
H to a value less than the swept volume.
If P = 1 kW, H = 1 m 59. Which of the following statements are correct?
Then Ns = N 1. The specific speed of a turbine is the speed at
i.e. Specific speed is a speed of geometrically which a homologous turbine develops 1 kW
similar turbine which develops unit power when under unit head at its maximum efficiency.
working under unit head. 2. The specific speed is a dimensionless parameter
56. Consider the following statements: used for the selection of turbines.
1. The distinguishing features of a radial flow 3. The function of guide vanes in reaction turbines
reaction turbine are – (i) only a part of the is to minimize shock at entry of the fluid onto
total head of water is converted into velocity the runner blades.
head before it reaches the runner and (ii) the Select the correct answer using the code given
flow through water completely fills all the below.
passages in the runner. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Kaplan turbine is essentially a propeller (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only
working in reverse, and its blades are so ESE 2017
mounted that all the blade angles can be Ans. (a) : All the statements are correct. The specific
adjusted simultaneously by means of suitable speed may be dimensional or non-dimensional and is an
gearing even as the machine is in operation. important parameter in turbine selection. Specific speed
3. A draft tube is pipe of gradually increasing is defined as the speed of a similar turbine working
cross-sectional area which must be airtight, under a head of 1 m to produce a power output of 1 kW.
and under all conditions of operation, its N P
lower end must be submerged below the level Specific speed NS = 5/ 4
of the discharged water in the tailrace. H
Which of the above statements are correct? N = Speed in rpm
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only P = Power
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 H = Head available
ESE 2018 60. The condition for maximum efficiency of the
Ans. (d) : (i) In reaction turbine, head is partially Pelton wheel is that
converted into velocity. (a) blade speed is one fourth of jet speed.
(ii) In kaplan turbine, the orientation of moving angle (b) blade speed is one-third of jet speed.
can also be adjusted. (c) blade speed is one half of jet speed.
(iii) The draft tube is always immersed in tail race. (d) blade speed is equal to jet speed.
57. The total power developed by a three-stage TSPSC AEE 2015
velocity compounded impulse steam turbine is Ans : (c) Hydraulic efficiency
900 kW. The power magnitudes developed in Runner power
the first and the second stages are, respectively. ηhyd =
(a) 500 kW and 300 kW Kinetic Energy perSecond
(b) 100 kW and 300 kW 2 ( V − u )(1 + k cos φ ) u
(c) 500 kW and 100 kW ηhyd =
(d) 100 kW and 100 kW V2
ESE 2017  1 + K cos φ 
ηhyd =  
Ans. (a) : For three stage velocity compounded impulse  2 
turbine work done is in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 1. Hydraulic efficiency is maximum when blade speed is
So, work output in first stage one half of jet speed.
5 V
= 900 × = 500 kW u=
5 + 3 +1 2
Work output in second stage u = Blade speed
3 V = Jet speed.
= 900 × = 300 kW
5 + 3 +1 61. If the discharge of water is radial at the outlet,
58. Statement (I): The volume of air taken into the the hydraulic efficiency of the Francis turbine
cylinder of a reciprocating air compressor is less is given by
than the stroke volume of the cylinder.
Statement (II): Air that has been compressed to Vw 2 u 2
clearance volume expands to larger volumes gH
(a) ηH = (b) ηH =
during the suction stroke. gH Vw 2 u 2
ESE 2017
gH Vw1 u1
Ans. (a) : In reciprocating compressor there is a (c) ηH = (d) ηH =
clearance space between the piston crown and the top of Vw1 u1 gH
the cylinder. Air trapped in this clearance volume is TSPSC AEE 2015
365
Ans : (d) The work done by water on the runner per shaft power
(iii) Mechanical effciency =
second = = ρQ  Vw 1 u1  Runner power
And work done per second per unit weight of water (iv) Overall efficiency = ηh × ηmech.
1 u
striking/s =  Vw 1 u1  (v) Speed ratio (Ku) =
g 2gH
Hydraulic efficiency of the Francis turbine 65. In reaction turbine:
v w u1 (a) The vanes are partly filled
ηH = 1 (For Francis turbine Vw 2 = 0 ) (b) Total energy of fluid is converted to kinetic
gH
energy in the runner
62. The specific speed of a turbine is speed of an (c) It is exposed to atmosphere
imaginary turbine, identical with the given (d) It is not exposed to atmosphere
turbine, which OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
(a) delivers unit discharge under unit load
(b) delivers unit discharge under unit speed Ans : (d) Reaction turbine:- Reaction turbine means
(c) develops unit H.P. under unit head that the water at the inlet of the turbine possesses
(d) develops unit H.P. under unit speed Kinetic energy as well as pressure energy. As the water
APPSC AEE 2012 flows through the runner, a part of pressure energy goes
on changing into kinetic energy. The water through the
ESE 2018
runner in under pressure. The runner is completely
Ans : (c) The specific speed of a turbine is speed of anenclosed in an air- tight casing and the runner is always
imaginary turbine, identical with the given turbine full of water.
which develop per unit H.P. under unit head.
66. In reaction turbine, draft tube is used:
N P (a) To transport water downstream without
Ns = 5 / 4
H eddies
Significance of specific speed :- Specific speed plays (b) To convert the kinetic energy to flow energy
an important role for selecting the type of turbine. Also by a gradual expansion of the flow cross-
the performance of a turbine can be predicted by section
knowing the specific speed of the turbine. (c) For safety to turbine
63. The specific speed of turbine is indicated as: (d) To increase the flow rate
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
N Q N P RPSC AE 2016
(a) 3/ 4
(b)
H H5 / 4 Ans : (b) Draft tube:- The draft- tube is a pipe of
N Q N P gradually increasing area which connects the outlet of
(c) 2/3
(d) the runner to the tail race. It is used for discharging
H H 3/ 2 water from the exit of the turbine to the tail race. This
OPSC AE 2015pipe is gradually increasing area is called a draft tube.
TNPSC AE 2018 one end of the draft- tube is connected to the outlet of
UKPSC AE 2007, 2012 Paper -II the runner while the other end is sub-merged below the
Ans : (b) Specific speed of turbine:- It is defined as level of water in the tail race.
the speed of a turbine which is identical in shape, 67. A plot between power generated in MW and
geometrical dimensions, blade angles, gate opening etc, time is known as:
with the actual turbine but of such a size that it will (a) Load curve (b) Load factor
develop unit power when working unit head. (c) Demand curve (d) Load duration curve
N P OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ns = 5/ 4 Ans : (a) A plot between power generated in MVV and
H time is known as Load curve.
64. If α is the angle of blade tip at outlet, then Load Curve:- A curve showing the load demand
maximum hydraulic efficiency of an impulse (variation) of consumer with respect to time is known as
turbine is : load curve. This curve may be for daily, weekly,
1 + cos α 1 − cos α monthly and on yearly basis. this a graph between load
(a) (b) and duration.
2 2
The energy consumption of consumer is given by an
1 + sin α 1 − sin α
(c) (d) t2
2 2 kWh = ∫ (kW).dt
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II t1
APPSC-AE-2019
Ans : (a) Analysis of pelton turbine:- 68. The ratio of maximum load to rated plant
(
(i) Work done per second = ρQ Vw1 + Vw 2 u ) capacity is known as:
(a) Load factor (b) Utilization factor
1 + K cos φ (c) Maximum load factor (d) Capacity factor
(ii) Hydraulics efficiency =
2 OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
366
Ans : (b) The ratio of maximum load to rated plant Hm H
capacity is known as utilization factor. 2 2
= 2P2
The utilization factor or use factor is the ratio of the N m Dm N P DP
2
time that a piece of equipment is in use to the total time H m  DP   N m 
2
that it could be in use. It is often averaged over time in   =
the definition such that the ratio becomes the amount of H P  D m   N P 
energy used divided by the maximum possible to be 15 2 N 2m
used. These definitions are equivalent. (5) =
69. Capacity of a hydroelectric plant in service in
60 (1500 )2
excess of the peak load is known as: N m = 3750 rpm
(a) Operating reserve (b) Spinning reserve Power coefficient
(c) Peak reserve (d) Cold reserve P
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II CP =
Ans : (d) Capacity of a hydroelectric plant in service in ρN 3 D5
excess of the peak load is known cold reserve. ( CP )m = ( CP )ρ
70. In a Pelton wheel, the bucket peripheral speed
 P   P 
is 10 m/s. the water jet velocity is 25 m/s and  3 5  = 3 5 
3
volumetric flow rate of the jet is 0.1 m /s. If the  ρN D  m  ρN D ρ
jet deflected angle is 120° and the flow is ideal, Pρ
the power developed is: Pm
3 5
= 3 3 , ρ = constant
(a) 15.0 kW (b) 22.5 kW N m Dm N P DP
(c) 7.5kW (d) 37.5 kW 3 5
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II  N m   Dm 
Pm = PP    
Ans : (b) Given data  N P   DP 
u = 10m/sec 3 5
Vi = 25 m/sec  3750   1 
3 Pm = 500    
Q= 0.1 m /sec  1500   5 
Jet deflection angle = 1200
0 0 0 Pm = 2.5 KW
β = 180 – 120 = 60
Power developed by Pelton wheel, 72. Turbine is a machine which converts:
P = ρQ ( Vi − u )(1 + cos β ) u (a) mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
(b) Hydraulic energy to mechanical energy
( )
P = 1000 × 0.1× ( 25 − 10 ) 1 + cos 600 × 10 (c) Electrical energy to mechanical energy
(d) Mechanical energy to electrical energy
P = 22500W or 22.5 kW
(HPPSC LECT. 2016)
71. A hydraulic turbine generated 500 KW at 1500 Ans : (b) Turbines:- Turbines are defined as the
rpm under a head of 60 m. During testing hydraulic machines which convert hydraulic energy into
conditions, a scale model of 5 works under the mechanical energy. This mechanical energy is used in
head of 15m. the power generated by the model running on electric generator which is directly coupled
will be. to the shaft of the turbine.
(a) 2 kW (b) 1.6 kW
73. The power obtained from an impulse turbine is
(c) 3 kW (d) 2.5 kW
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II proportional to the number of nozzles used. A
Ans : (d) Given data for prototype power generated pelton turbine with six nozzles has a specific
PP = 500 KW speed of 8.1 . The specific speed per nozzle is :
NP = 1500 rpm (a) 1.35 (b) 2
HP = 60 m (c) 3.3 (d) 8.1
for model (KPSC AE. 2015)
Power generated Ans : (c)
Pm = ? 74. Consider the following statements is respect to
Hm = 15 m Kaplan Turbine:
DP (1) It is a reaction turbine
Scale ratio : =5
Dm (2) It is an impulse turbine
We know that the head coefficient (3) It has adjustable blades
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
gH (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only
CH = 2 2
N D MPPSC AE 2016
( CH ) m = ( CH )P Ans : (d) Kaplan Turbine
i. Reaction Turbine ii. Adjustable Blade
 gH   gH  iii. Low head iv. High discharge
 2 2  = 2 2 
 N D m  N D P v. Axial flow turbine
367
75. The degree of reaction of a turbine defined as a 80. The hydraulic efficiency of an impulse turbine
ratio of : is maximum, when the velocity of wheel is
(a) Static pressure drop to total energy
(b) Total energy transfer to static pressure drop ________ that of the jet velocity.
(c) Change of velocity energy across the trubine (a) one-fourth (b) one-half
to the total energy transfer (c) three-fourth (d) double
(d) Velocity energy to pressure energy APPSC AEE 2012
MPPSC AE 2016 Ans : (b) Hydraulic efficiency
Ans : (a) Degree of reaction of a turbine is defined as a Runner power
ratio of static pressure drop to total energy ηhyd =
Kinetic Energy per second
Vr22 − Vr12 u12 − u 22
+ η
2g 2g  1+ k cos φ 
max hyd =
R=  2 

H
76. Francis turbine is usually used for Jet velocity
when wheel velocity =
(a) law head installation up to 30 m 2
(b) medium head installation from 30 m to 180 81. In a reaction turbine, the draft tube is used
m
(c) high head installation above 180 (a) to run the turbine full
(d) for all heads (b) to prevent air to enter the turbine
RPSC AE 2016 (c) to increase the effective head of water
Ans : (b) (d) to transport water to downstream
Turbine Head APPSC AEE 2012
Pelton turbine High head installation above 180 m Ans : (c) In a reaction turbine, the draft tube is used to
Francis turbine medium head installation from 30m to increase the effective head of water.
180 m.
Kaplan turbine low head installation up to 30 m. Hence by using draft tube, the net head on the turbine
increases The turbine develops more power and also the
77. Operating charges for same power output are
minimum for efficiency of the turbine increases.
(a) gas turbine plant (b) hydroelectric plant
(c) thermal plant (d) nuclear plant
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (b) Operating charges for same power output are
minimum for hydro electric plant.
78. Load centre in a power station is
(a) centre of coal fields
(b) centre of maximum load of equipments
(c) centre of gravity of electrical load
(d) centre of power station
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (c) Load centre in a power station is centre of
gravity of electrical load. θ = 5° – 7° (This is limit of angle to avoid separation of flow)
79. A Pelton wheel is ideally suited for : Efficiency of draft tube (ηd )
(a) High head and low discharge Actval conversion of kinetic head in to pressure head
(b) High head and high discharge =
kinetic head at theinlet of draft tube
(c) Low head and low discharge
(d) Medium head and medium discharge  v12 v 22 
 −  − Hf
Gujarat PSC AE 2019  2g 2g 
RPSC AE 2018 ηd =
UJVNL AE. 2016 v12 / 2g
KPSC AE 2015 Where Hf = Head loss in draft tube
TNPSC AE 2013 82. In an inward flow reaction turbine
UKPSC AE 2007, 2013 Paper -II
Ans : (a) A pelton wheel is ideally suited for high head (a) the water flows parallel to the axis of the wheel
and low discharge (b) the water enters at the centre of the wheel and
Pelton wheel :- from there flows towards the outer periphery
i) High dead of the wheel
ii) Low discharge (c) the water enters the wheel at outer periphery,
iii) Low specific speed and then flows towards the centre of the wheel
iv) Horizontal shaft turbine (d) the flow of water is partly radial and partly axial
v) Tangential flow APPSC AEE 2012
368
Ans : (c In an inward flow reaction turbine the water 87. For a given design of bucket, if U is the velocity
enter the wheel at outer periphery, and then flow of the bucket the V1 is the velocity of the jet,
towards the centre of the wheel. then the ratio U/V1 for the efficiency of a Pelton
wheel is theoretically maximum :
(a) 0.75
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.50
(d) 1
BHEL ET 2019
83. In a Kaplan turbine runner, the number of Ans. (c) : Given -
blades are generally U = velocity of bucket
V1 = velocity of jet
(a) 2 to 4 (b) 4 to 8
(c) 8 to 6 (d) 16 to 24 velocity of the bucket U
= = 0.5
APPSC AEE 2012 velocity of jet V1
Ans : (b) 88. The head loss due to friction for the flow of
(i) In a Kaplan turbine runner the number of blades are water through penstocks can be minimized by:
generally between 4 to 8 (a) Decreasing the diameter of penstock
(ii) In a Francis turbine runner, the number of blades are (b) Increasing the diameter of penstock
generally between 16 to 24. (c) Increasing the length of penstock
84. The power developed by a turbine is (d) Increasing the velocity of low
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(a) Directly proportional to H1/ 2 Ans : (b) : The head loss due to friction for the flow of
(b) Inversely proportional to H1/ 2 water through penstocks can be minimized by
(c) Directly proportional to H 3 / 2 increasing the diameter of penstock.
(d) Inversely proportional to H 3 / 2 89. The ratio of the pitch diameter of Pelton wheel
APPSC AEE 2012 to the diameter of the jet is called :
N1 N2 (a) Jet ratio (b) Speed ratio
Ans : (c) N u = = (c) Wheel ratio (d) None of these
H1 H2 OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
N ∝ H2 Ans : (a) : The ratio of the pitch diameter of Pelton
wheel to the diameter of the jet is called jet ratio.
speed ∝ H2 ……………..(i) 90. Specific speed of a turbine with N, P and H as
Q Q rpm, power and head respectively is :
Qu = 1 = 2
H1 H2 N P N P
(a) (b)
Q α H2
5 3
H4
H4
Discharge ∝ H2 ………….. (ii)
N2 P N2 P
P1 P2 (c) (d)
Pu = 3/ 2 = 3/ 2 3 5

H1 H2 H4 H4
3/2 MPPSC AE. 2016
Power ∝ H ………….. (iii)
APPSC AE 2012
85. The turbine to be used for 450 m head of water is OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
(a) Pelton wheel (b) Francis turbine Ans : (a) Specific speed of a turbine
(c) Kaplan turbine (d) None of these
APPSC AEE 2012 N P
Ns = 5/ 4
Ans : (a) H
Turbine Head if P = 1kW and H = 1m then turbine speed is equal to
Pelton turbine High head specific speed.
Kaplan turbine Low head Ns = N
Francis turbine Medium head In MKS units, unit power is taken as one horse power
The turbine to be used for 450 m head of water is and unit head as one meter, but in SI unit, unit power is
taken as one kilowatt and unit head as one meter.
pelton wheel.
86. The turbines of the same shape will have the 91. A jet of water (density = ρ) with cross-sectional
area a, moving with a velocity V strikes a
same hinged square plate of weight W at the centre
(a) Thomas number (b) Reynolds number of the plate. The plate is of uniform thickness.
(c) Specific speed (d) Rotational speed The angle through which the plate will swing
ESE 2020 is:
Ans. (c) : The specific speed remains same for all the ρaV 2 ρaV 2
similar turbine. (a) cos θ = (b) sin θ =
W W
369
 ρaV 2 ρaV 2 96. In order to have maximum power from a
(c) cos θ = (d) sin θ = Pelton turbine, the bucket speed must be–
2W 2W
(a) Equal to the jet speed
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
(b) Equal to half the jet speed
Ans. (b) : The angle through which the plate will swing (c) Equal to twice the jet speed
is : (d) Independent of the jet speed
ρaV 2 Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
sin θ =
W UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
92. Which is not a part of a Pelton turbine ? BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - V
(a) Nozzle (b) Spear Ans. (b) : Maximum power from a Pelton turbine, the
(c) Draft tube (d) Breaking jet bucket speed must be equal to half the jet speed.
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 V
Ans. (c) : Draft tube is used only in Reaction Turbine. u=
2
93. Which turbine gives constant efficiency with 97. Specific speed of a turbine is defined as the
high load condition ? speed of the turbine which
(a) Propeller turbine (b) Francis turbine (a) Produces unit power at unit head
(c) Pelton wheel (d) Kaplan turbine (b) Produces unit horse power at unit discharge
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 (c) Delivers unit discharge at unit head
Ans. (d) : The only turbine that can be regulated for (d) Delivers unit discharge at unit power
best efficiency condition is Kaplan. Because its blades TNPSC 2019
can be adjusted for optimum operation. This optimum Ans. (a) : Specific speed of a turbine is defined as the
adjustment mechanism is housed in the hub of turbine. speed of the turbine which produces unit power at unit
so the inlet and outlet blade angles are adjusted as head head.
or poor (load) varies. Specific speed of turbine
94. Cavitation cannot occur in N P
(a) Francis Turbine (b) Centrifugal pump Ns =
(c) Piston pump (d) Pelton wheel H5/ 4
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 Specific speed of pump
Ans. (d) : The formation, growth and collapse of N Q
Ns =
vapour filled cavities or bubbles in a flowing liquid due H3/ 4
to load fall in fluid pressure is called cavitation. 98. If D and d are the diameters of the runner and
Cavitation in turbines :- jet of the Pelton wheel respectively, the number
In turbines, only reaction turbines are subjected to of buckets on the runner is given by
cavitation the cavitation may occur at the runner exit or D D
the draft tube inlet where the pressure is considerably (a) 30 + (b) 30 +
d 2d
reduced.
Cavitation in centrifugal pumps:- D D
(c) 15 + (d) 15 +
In centrifugal pumps, the cavitation may occur at the d 2d
inlet of the impeller of the pump, or at the suction side APPSC-AE-2019
of the pump, where the pressure is considerably less HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
than the atmospheric pressure. APPSC AEE 2012
95. An impulse turbine produces 50 kW of power Ans : (d) Number of Buckets on wheel are given as per
when the blade mean speed is 400 m/s. what is Taygun's empirical relation.
the rate of change of momentum tangential to D
z = 15 + D = Dia of runner
the rotor? 2d
(a) 200 N (b) 175 N z = 15 + 0.5m d = dia of jet
(c) 150 N (d) 125 N D
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016 m= Jet ratio (12 for most case)
d
Ans : (d) P = F × v 99. The hydraulic efficiency of the Pelton wheel is
50 × 1000 = F × 400 maximum when the velocity of the wheel is
(F = rate of change of momentum) (a) twice the velocity of jet
50000 (b) thrice the velocity of jet
F= (c) half the velocity of jet
400
(d) two-third's the velocity of jet
F = 125 N APPSC-AE-2019
370
Ans. (c) : The condition for maximum hydraulic 105. What should be the ratio of blade speed to jet
efficiency is speed for the maximum efficiency of a Pelton
u wheel?
= 0.5 (a) 0.25 (b) 0.50
V (c) 0.75 (d) 1.00
100. A single jet impulse turbine of 10 MW capacity APPSC AEE 2016
works with a head of 500 m. If the specific Ans. (b) : For maximum efficiency of pelton wheel, the
speed of the turbine is 10, the actual speed of ratio of blade speed to jet speed will be 0.50.
the turbine is
(a) 106.9 rpm (b) 236.4 rpm u
= 0.5
(c) 392.5 rpm (d) 50 rpm V
APPSC-AE-2019 u = 0.5V
N P 106. Which of the following components of reaction
Ans. (b) : N s = turbine increases the head on the turbine by an
H 5/4 amount equal to the height of runner outlet
N 10 × 103 above the tail race?
10 = (a) Draft tube (b) Guide vanes
5005 / 4
⇒ N = 236.4 (c) Scroll casing (d) Moving blades
Note: Power is consider in kW to calculate specific APPSC AEE 2016
speed. Ans. (a) : Draft tube is the components of reaction
101. Basic method to measure the flow rates in turbine increases the head on the turbine by an amount
hydro power plants is equal to the height of runner outlet above the tail race.
(a) velocity integration method 107. A turbine is to operate under a head of 30 m
(b) Pitot-tube method while running at 120 rpm using 12 m3/s
(c) Pressure-time method discharge at 90% efficiency. Which one of the
(d) Notch method following turbine types would suit the
APPSC-AE-2019 conditions?
Ans. (c) : One of the common method used in flow rate (a) Pelton (b) Kaplan
measurement in hydro power plant is pressure time (c) Francis (d) Turgo
method also called Gibson method. This method is JWM 2017
based on water hammer principle.
102. If a turbine generates 10000 kW under the Ans. (c) : Specific speed, N = N P
S
head of 10m at the speed 100 rpm, the specific H5/4
speed of the turbine is Power, P = ηρQhg
(a) 177.8 rpm (b) 562.3 rpm P = 0.9 × 1000 × 9.81 × 12 × 30
(c) 1052 rpm (d) 2056 rpm
= 3178.44 kW
APPSC-AE-2019
120 3178.44
N P 100 10000 NS = = 96.35
Ans. (b) : N s = 5 / 4 = 5/ 4
= 562.3 ( 30 ) 5/ 4
H 10
103. If Vw and u are the whirl and tangential For Francis turbine specific speed should lies
velocity at the impeller, work done by the b/w 50 – 250
impeller on the water per second per unit 108. The speed of a reaction turbine is 250 rpm
weight of water striking per second is when working under a head of 120 m. The
(a) Vwu/g (b) Vwu speed of the turbine when the head is changed
(c) ρQ Vwu (d) ρQVwVr to 90 m will be
APPSC-AE-2019 (a) 167 rpm (b) 197 rpm
Ans. (a) : Work done by impeller per unit weight per (c) 217 rpm (d) 237 rpm
unit time is represent by Euler's head which is given as JWM 2017
Vw1u1 Ans. (c) : Given, speed of Reaction turbine, N1 = 250
He = {Assuming Vw2 = 0}
g rpm
104. Cavitation in a hydraulic turbine is most likely Working head, H1 = 120 m
to occur at the turbine Working head for N2 speed is 90 m
(a) Entry (b) Exit N1 N2
=
(c) Stator exit (d) Rotor exit H1 H2
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (d) : Cavitation in a hydraulic turbine is most H2 90
N 2 = N1 = 250
likely to occur at the turbine rotor exit whereas in H1 120
centrifugal pump, cavitation is most likely to occur at
N 2 ≃ 217rpm
the inlet of the pump.
371
109. 'Shockless entry' of water in hydraulic turbines 2. Runner blades of Francis turbine are
is of much significance from the standpoint of adjustable.
(a) Hydraulic efficiency 3. Draft tube is used invariably in all reaction
(b) Mechanical efficiency turbine installation.
(c) Both hydraulic efficiency and mechanical 4. Pelton wheel is a tangential flow impulse
efficiency turbine
(d) Neither hydraulic efficiency nor mechanical 5. The peripheral velocity at inlet and outlet are
efficiency same in Kaplan turbine of these statements:
JWM 2017 (a) 1,2 and 5 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct
Ans. (a) : (c) 3,4 and 5 are correct (d) 3 and 4 are correct
Hydraulic efficiency (e) 1,2 and 3 are correct
Power developed by the runner CGPSC AE 2014 -II
ηH = Ans. (c) :
Net power supplied at the turbine entrance
1. Draft tube is used invariably in all reaction turbine
Mechanical efficiency, installations.
Power available at the turbine shaft 2. Pelton wheel is a tangential flow impulse turbine.
η mech =
Power developed by the runner 3. The peripheral velocity at inlet and outlet are same in
The hydraulic efficiency of hydraulic turbine is very Kaplan turbine
much effected by shock less entry, shock less entry in 113. In the case of reaction radial flow turbine,
turbine ensure that the power loss in the turbine is less. V
velocity ration is defined as where H is
110. The maximum hydraulic efficiency of Pelton 2 gh
turbine and ratio of the velocity of jet to the the available head and V is the
velocity of bucket at this efficiency will be (a) Absolute velocity at the draft tube inlet
respectively: [Neglecting the bucket friction] (b) Mean velocity of flow in the turbine
 1 + cos φ  (c) Absolute velocity at the guide vane inlet
(a) (1 + cos φ ) ; 2 (b)   ;0.5 (d) Tangential velocity of wheel at inlet
 2 
(e) Tangential velocity of wheel at outlet
(c) (1 − cos φ ) ; 0.5 (d) (1 − cos φ ) ; 0.2 CGPSC AE 2014 -II
 1 + cos φ  Ans. (e) : In the case of reaction radial flow turbine,
(e)  ; 2 velocity ratio is defined as tangential velocity of wheel
 2 
CGPSC AE 2014- II at out let to velocity of jet at inlet of turbine blade
Ans. (e) : Maximum hydraulic efficiency of Pelton 114. The draft tube in a reaction turbine is used
turbine (a) To minimize the whirl losses at the turbine
outlet
1 + cos φ (b) To change a large part of pressure energy at
η max =
2 turbine outlet into kinetic energy
and ratio of the velocity of jet (v) to the (c) To enable vertical operation of the haft
velocity of bucket (u) at maximum efficiency (d) To minimize the loss of kinetic energy at the
v turbine outlet
r= =2 (e) To increase the potential energy of the fluid at
u
turbine outlet
111. Cavitation may occur at : CGPSC AE 2014 -II
(a) the exit of reaction turbine
Ans. (d) : Draft tube - A draft tube is a kind of tube
(b) the inlet of reaction turbine
which connects between the water turbine exit and tail
(c) discharge side of centrifugal pump race.
(d) the inlet of penstock of hydroelectric power Due to high K.E. at exit of reaction turbine, there would
plant be a loss of overall reduction in K.E. So to prevent this
(e) at the bucket of Pelton turbine loss, the draft tube is provided which produces net
CGPSC AE 2014- II efficiency.
Ans. (a) : Cavitation– Cavitation is a phenomenon in Functions of Draft tube -
which rapid changes of pressure in a liquid lead to the • It is to increase the pressure from inlet to outlet of the
formation of small vapor-filled cavities, in place where draft tube as it flows through it and hence increase it
the pressure is relatively low. When subjected to higher mare than atmospheric pressure.
pressure, these cavities called "bubbles" or "voids". • To safely discharge the water that has worked on the
Collapse and can generate an intense shock wave. turbine to the tail race.
In Turbine cavitation may occur at exit of 115. The range of speed factor for Francis turbine is
reaction turbine and at inlet of centrifugal pump. (a) 0.20-0.30 (b) 0.30-0.45
112. Consider the following statements: (c) 0.45-0.70 (d) 0.70-0.85
1. A reverse jet protects Pelton turbine form (e) 0.85-0.95
over-speeding CGPSC AE 2014 -II
372
Ans. (d) : The range of speed factor for Francis turbine (c) equal to running cost of steam power plant
is 0.70 - 0.85 (d) equal to running cost of nuclear power plant
116. Flow ratio is TNPSC AE 2013
(a) Flow velocity/blade velocity Ans. (b) : Running cost of the hydroelectric power plant
(b) Flow velocity/Relative velocity is less than the running cost of steam power plant.
(c) Flow velocity/√2gH 121. The velocity ratio of a fluid whose velocity is
(d) Flow velocity/ whirl velocity 330 m/s and blade velocity is 150 m/s
(e) Flow velocity/ absolute velocity (a) 1 (b) 2.2
CGPSC AE 2014 -II (c) 0.45 (d) 1.5
Ans. (c) : TNPSC AE 2013
Flow Velocity Ans. (c) : Velocity ratio of a fluid is given as
Flow Ratio = Fluid velocity
2gH V.R. =
117. If V1 is inlet jet velocity, u is blade velocity and velocity of blade
φ = outlet blade angle (bucket angle), the 150
hydraulic efficiency of a Pelton wheel is = = 0.45
330
expressed as .............. 122. Which of the following is lowest specific speed
(2u )(V1 − u )(1 + cos φ ) turbine?
(a) ηh =
V12 (a) Pelton wheel with double jet
(b) Francis turbine
(2u )(V1 + u )(1 + cos φ )
(b) ηh = (c) Pelton wheel with single jet
V12 (d) Kaplan turbine
(2u )(V1 + u )(1 − cos φ ) UPRVUNL AE 2016
(c) ηh = Ans. (c) : Turbine specific speed
V12
Pelton wheel
(2u )(V1 − u )(1 − cos φ ) (with single jet) 0 - 30
(d) ηh =
V12 Pelton wheel
RPSC AE 2018 (with double jet) 30 - 60
Francis turbine 60 - 300
(2u )(V1 − u )(1 + cos φ ) Propeller turbine 300 - 600
Ans. (a) : ηh =
V12 Kaplan turbine 600 - 1000
118. If the specific speed of a turbine is the range of 123. For the medium head of the water (24-180m),
300 – 1000 then the turbine is which hydraulic turbine is best suited
(a) Pelton (b) Francis (a) Pelton turbine (b) Francis turbine
(c) Kaplan (d) Mixed (c) Kaplan turbine (d) Any one
TNPSC AE 2014 HPPSC AE 2018
Ans. (c) : If the specific speed of a turbine is the range Ans. (b) :
of 300 – 1000 then the turbine is Kaplan. Head Turbine
Low head Turbine 2m–15m Kaplan/
Turbine Specific speed (Ns)
Propeller
Impulse turbine 10 - 60 Medium head Turbine 16m–70m Kaplan/
Francis turbine 60 - 300 Francis
Propeller turbine 300 - 600 High head Turbine 71m–500m Francis/
Kaplan turbine 600 - 1000 Pelton
119. For a given head the discharge through a Very high head Turbine > 500 m Pelton
pelton turbine with increase in speed turbine
(a) Decreases 124. Which of the following hydraulic turbine has
(b) Increases lowest specific speed
(c) Does not change
(a) Kaplan turbine (b) Propeller turbine
(d) First increases then decreases
(c) Impulse turbine (d) Francis turbine
TNPSC AE 2014
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
Ans. (b) : We know that for a given head for turbine,
speed of turbine N is directly proportional to discharge Ans. (c) :
(Q). Turbine Specific Speed
Q∝N 1. Single jet impulse 10 - 30
120. Running cost of the hydroelectric power plant turbine
is 2. Double jet impulse 30 - 60
(a) more than the running cost of steam power turbine
plant 3. Francis turbine 60 - 300
(b) less than the running cost of steam power 4. Propeller turbine 300 - 600
plant 5. Kaplan turbine 600 - 1000
373
125. The ratio of power available at the shaft of the 127. Which of the condition leads to Cavitaion
turbine to power delivered by water to the process?
runner is known as (a) Too low local temperature
(a) Hydraulic efficiency (b) Very high local pressure
(b) Mechanical efficiency (c) Local pressure falls below vapour pressure
(c) Volumetric efficiency (d) Thoma cavitation factor is higher than safe
(d) Overall efficiency limit
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
Ans. (b) : Hydraulic efficiency—Hydraulic efficiency Ans : (c) : When local pressure of flowing liquid falls
is defined as the ratio between power given by water to below the vapor pressure then cavitation will take place.
runner of turbine and to the power supplied by water at 128. Draft tube is used for discharging water from
inlet of the turbine. the exit of
Power given by water to (a) Impulse turbine (b) Francis turbine
runner of turbine (c) Kaplan turbine (d) Pelton wheel
ηH = TNPSC 2019
Power supplied by water Ans. (b, c) : Draft tube is used for discharging water
at inlet
from the exit of Kaplan turbine and also Francis
Mechanical efficiency—The ratio of power available at Turbine.
the shaft of the turbine to power delivered by water to Note - Option (c) is given by commission.
the runner is known as mechanical efficiency.
129. The discharge through Kaplan turbine is given
Runner Power by
ηM =
Power delivered by water to (a) Q = πDBVf
the runner inlet π 2
Volumetric efficiency—Volumetric efficiency is the (b) Q = d × 2gH
ratio between volume of water actually striking the 4
runner of turbine and volume of water supplied to the π
(c) Q =  D 02 − D 2b  × Vf
turbine. 4 
Overall efficiency—It is defined as the ratio of runner (d) Q = 0.9πDBVf
power to power of water at inlet of turbine TNPSC AE 2018
Runner Power Ans. (c) : The discharge through Kaplan turbine is
ηO =
Water Power given as
ηO = η H × η M π
Q =  D 02 − D 2b  × Vf
4 
126. Which of the following statements is not where Vf → flow velocity
correct for draft tube
(a) It allows the negative head at the outlet of 130. Hydraulic efficiency of a turbine is
runner
(b) It is of gradually increasing area of cross- (a) power available at the inlet of turbine to
section power given by water to the turbine
(c) It increases the efficiency of turbine (b) power of the shaft of the turbine to power
(d) It converts the pressure energy of the outlet of given by water to the turbine
turbine into useful kinetic energy (c) power at the shaft of the turbine to the power
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 of inlet of the turbine
(d) power at the shaft of the turbine to power
Ans. (d) : Functions of draft tube—
delivered by water
1. It allows the negative head at the outlet of runner
TNPSC AE 2018
2. It converts the kinetic energy at the outlet of the
turbine into use full pressure energy. Ans. (a) :
3. Draft tube increase total net head and efficiency of η = Power available at the inlet of turbine
turbine. H
Hydraulic energy of water at inlet of turbine
Draft tube—The draft is a gradually increasing area of
131. When water glides over the runner blades of a
cross-section which connects between the water turbine
hydraulic reaction turbine:
exit and tail race. (a) Pressure remains constant
(b) Pressure decreases
(c) Pressure first increases and then decreases
(d) Pressure increases
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (b) : Reaction turbine means that water at the inlet
of the turbine possesses kinetic energy as well as
pressure energy. As the water flows through the runner,
a part of pressure energy is converted into kinetic
energy. So pressure decreases.
374
132. Inlet velocity triangle of Pelton wheel is : 2 3/ 2
 DP  PP  H m 
(a) Straight line   = × 
(b) Triangle D
 m P m  HP 
(c) Inverted triangle 2 3/ 2
4 300  10 
(d) None of the above   = × 
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017  
1 Pm  40 
Ans. (a) : Inlet velocity triangle of Pelton wheel is 300 1
straight line. = ×
Pm 8
133. Hydraulic efficiency of Francis turbine whose
vanes are radial at inlet is (α - guide blade 16 300
=
angle) 1 Pm × 8
2 + tan 2 α tan 2 α 300
(a) (b) Pm =
2 2 16 × 8
2 2 Pm = 2.34kW
(c) 2
(d)
2 + tan α tan 2 α 136. Hammer blow in pipes occurs due to
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 (a) sudden sharp bends
Ans. (c) : Hydraulic efficiency of Francis turbine whose (b) sudden contraction
vanes are radial at inlet is (α - guide blade angle) (c) sudden stoppage of flow
2 (d) sudden release of fluid from pipe
ηH = UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
2 + tan 2 α
134. A pump lifts 50 m3 of water to a tank at a Ans. (c) : sudden stoppage of flow
height of 50 m. What is the work done to lift 137. For a reaction turbine, specific flow is given by
the water? following expression :
(a) 24.525 MJ (b) 20.525 MJ Q Q
(c) 32.525 MJ (d) 18.525 MJ (a) 2
H (b) H
D1 D 1
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (a) : Work done to the lift the water by pump is Q 3/ 2 Q
(c) 2
H (d) H
given by D1 D12
W = ρ×g× V× H UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
= 1000 × 9.81× 50 × 50 Q
= 24.525 MJ Ans. (d) : 2 H
135. A large power generation unit uses a hydraulic D1
turbine to generate 300 kW at 1000 rpm under 138. Mean diameter of runner of a pelton turbine is
a head of 40 m. For initial testing, a 1 : 4 scale 200mm and least diameter of jet is 1 cm.
model of the turbine operates under a heat of Calculate the jet ratio and number of buckets.
10 m. The power generated by the model (in (a) 20, 25 (b) 200, 115
kW) will be: (c) 20, 40 (d) 20, 45
(a) 234 (b) 2.34 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
(c) 23.4 (d) 0.234 Ans. (a) : Mean diameter (D) = 200 mm
BHEL ET 2019 Jet diameter (d) = 1 cm = 10 mm
Ans. (b) : Power (P2) = 300 kW
D 200
N = 1000 rpm Jet ratio = = = 20
Head (H)= 40 m d 10
Initial scale model scale = 1 : 4 D 200
No. of buckets (n) = 15 + = 15 + = 15 + 10
Head (H) = 10 m 2d 2 × 10
power (P2) = ? (n) = 25
Dp  4  139. A water turbine is usually designed for the
Scale ratio (Lr) =   given values of
Dm  1 
(a) N, T and Q (b) P, T and Q
P (c) P, H and Q (d) P, H and N
For similar turbines equal.
H 3/ 2D 2 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
 P   P  Ans. (d) : P, H and N
 3/ 2 2  =  3/ 2 2  140. Run away speed for Francis turbine ranges:-
 H D P  H D m
3/ 2
(a) 1.8 to 1.9 times normal speed
 DP  PP H  (b) 2.5 to 3 times normal speed
  = (L r ) = × m 
 Hp  (c) 3 to 3.5 times normal speed
 Dm  Pm   (d) 2 to 2.2 times normal speed
Squaring both side UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
375
Ans. (d) : Run away speed for Francis turbine ranges of (b) Its minimum speed
order 2 to 2.2 times normal speed. (c) Its speed at maximum output
141. A Pelton turbine works under a head of 405 m (d) The speed of a geometrically similar turbine
and runs at 400 rpm. What will be diameter of that would develop one metric horse power
its runner? (kn = 0.45):- under a head of one meter
(a) 1.93m (b) 3.80m UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
(c) 2.10m (d) None of the above Ans. (d) : The specific speed of a turbine is the speed of
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II a geometrically similar turbine that would develop one
Ans. (a) : Given as, metric horse power under a head of one meter.
h = 405 m 146. The type of turbine recommended for a head of
N = 400 rpm 10 meter is:-
kn = 0.45 (a) Francis turbine (b) Kaplan turbine
We know that, (c) Pelton turbine (d) None of the above
u UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
Speed ratio, (kn) = Ans. (b) : Kaplan turbine.
V
u = 2gh ⋅ k n
3. Reciprocating Pumps
πDN
= 2gh ⋅ k n
60 147. Theoretical power required to drive a
2 × g × 405 × 0.45 × 60 reciprocating pump is
D= APPSC AEE 2012
π× 400
WQH s WQHs
D = 1.9162 m j (a) (b)
60 75
142. A Kaplan turbine develops 3000 kW power WQH 270
d
under a head of 5m and a discharge of 75 m3/s. (c) (d)
Determine the overall efficiency:- 60 π
(a) 0.79 (b) 0.82 Ans : (b) Theoretical power required to drive a
(c) 0.90 (d) None of the above ρgQHs
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II reciprocal pump is 75
Ans. (b) : Given as, ρgQHs
P = 3000 kW P=
h=5m 75
Q = 75 m3/s WQHs
P=
η0 = ? 75
Overall efficiency of Kaplan turbine, ρ = Density of liquid
Shaft Power Q = Discharge
η0 = Hs= static head = suction head + delivery head
Water Power ( ρ w Qgh )
148. The component fitted in the suction and
3000 × 1000 delivery pipe to maintain the uniform velocity
=
1000 × 75 × 9.81× 5 of flow of liquid n single acting reciprocating
η0 = 0.8154 ≃ 0.82 pump is :
(a) Air vessel
143. If the jet ratio in a Pelton turbine wheel is 18, (b) Hydraulic coupling
the number of buckets will be about:- (c) Hydraulic press
(a) 24 (b) 21 (d) Hydraulic intensifier
(c) 26 (d) 18 (e) Supercharge
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II CGPSC AE 2014- II
Ans. (a) : Number of buckes Ans. (a) : Air vessel fitted in the suction and delivery
Jet Ratio 18 pipe to maintain the uniform velocity of flow of liquid
N = 15 + = 15 + in single acting reciprocating pump. This pump use for
2 2
N = 24 high pressure water with low discharged liquid.
144. The function of a hydraulic turbine is to 149. Consider the following statements regarding
convert water energy into:- reciprocating pump:
1. Frictional losses are maximum at the middle
(a) Heat energy (b) Electrical energy of the stroke
(c) Atomic Energy (d) Mechanical energy 2. Maximum inertia effect occurs in place with
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II zero frictional losses
Ans. (d) : The function of a hydraulic turbine is to 3. Negative slip may occur when the delivery
convert water energy into mechanical energy. head is high.
145. The specific speed of a turbine is:- Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Its maximum speed (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
376
 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only 154. A single acting two-stage air compressor deals
JWM 2017 with 4 m3/min of air at 1.013 bar and 15°C with
Ans. (d) : Reciprocating pump is a positive a speed of 250 rpm. The delivery pressure is 80
displacement pump where certain volume of liquid is bar. If the inter cooling is complete, the
collected in enclosed volume and is discharge using intermittent pressure after first stage will be.
pressure to the required application. This pump is more (a) 9 bar (b) 8 bar
suitable for low volumes of flow at high pressure. In (c) 7 bar (d) 6 bar
reciprocating pump frictional losses are maximum at the ESE 2020
middle of the stroke and maximum inertia effect occur Ans. (a) : For two stage air compressor
in place with zero frictional losses. Pi = P1P2 = 1.013 × 80 = 9 bar
150. What is the need of air vessel used in a
reciprocating pump? 155. Two identical pumps having the same
(a) To obtain a continuous supply of water at discharge (Q) and working against the same
uniform rate head (H). If they are connected in parallel,
(b) To reduce suction head which of the following is correct?
(c) To increased the delivery head (a) Combined discharge = 2Q
(d) To reduce Cavitation Combined head = h
APPSC AEE 2016 (b) Combined discharge = Q
Combined heat = 2H
Ans. (a) : The air vessel, in a reciprocating pump, is a
(c) Combined discharge = 4Q
cast iron closed chamber having an opening at its base.
Combined head = H/2
These are fitted to the suction pipe and delivery pipe
(d) Combined discharge = 2Q
close to the cylinder of the pump. The vessels are used
Combined head = 2H
to get continuous supply of liquid at a uniform rate and
SJVN ET 2019
to save the power required to drive the pump.
Ans. (a) :
151. Which one of the following pumps is NOT a
positive displacement pump? • If they are connected in parallel,
(a) Reciprocating Pump (b) Centrifugal Pump Q = Q1 + Q2
(c) Labe Pump (d) Vane Pump H = H1 = H2
APPSC AEE 2016 • If they are connected in series,
Q = Q1 = Q2
Ans. (b) : Reciprocating pump, lobe pump and vane
H = H1 + H2
pump are the example of positive displacement pump
whereas centrifugal pump is the example of dynamic 156. The service pump in a water supply system has
pump. to maintain a net static head lift of 5 m at the
tank to which it delivers freely through a 4 km
152. The specific speed of a hydraulic pump is the
long pipe, wherein all minor losses can be
speed of geometrically similar pump working neglected. The diameter of the pipe is 0.2m and
against a unit head and
its friction factor f = 0.01. The pumped water is
(a) delivering unit quantity of water
discharged at 2 m/s. The absolute pressure
(b) consuming unit power
differential developed by the pump is nearly
(c) having unit velocity of flow
(taking atmospheric pressure as 10.3 m of
(d) having unit radial velocity
water)
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II (a) 4.5 bar (b) 5.5 bar
Ans. (a) : Delivering unit quantity of water (c) 45 bar (d) 55 bar
153. Which of the following statements regarding ESE 2018
hydraulic pumps are correct? Ans. (b) : Given,
1. The gear pump consists of two close- Static head (Hst) = 5 m
meshing gear wheels which rotate in Length of pipe (ℓ) = 4 km = 4000 m
opposite directions.
Dia of pipe (d) = 0.2 m
2. In vane pump, as the rotor rotates, the
Friction factor (f) = 0.01
vanes follow the contours of the casing. Discharge velocity (v) = 2 m/s
3. This leakage is more in vane pump hatm = 10.3 m of water
compared to gear pump.
fℓv 2
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only Loss of head due to friction (hf) = = 40.77 m
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only 2gd
ESE 2020 We know that the pressure difference developed by
Ans. (b) : pump depends on manometric head produced by the
1. The gear pump consists of two close- meshing gear pump and is given by
wheels which rotate in opposite directions. v2
2. In vane pump, as the rotor rotates, the vanes follow Hm = Hst + hfs + hfd +
the contours of the casing. 2g
3. The leakage is less in vane pump than with the gear (minor losses can be neglected)
pump. Where Hm = Manometric head
377
 Hst = Static head 160. A single acting reciprocating pump of piston
hfs, hfd = loss of head due to friction in suction and area of cross-section 0.5 m2 and strokes of 0.4
delivery pipes. m is running at 60 rpm and delivers 19 liter/s of
By the given condition (according to question) water. The percentage slip of pump will be:
(a) 3% (b) 4%
v2 (c) 5% (d) 6%
Hm = H st + h f + + h atm
2g (e) 7%
22 CGPSC AE 2014- II
= 5 + 40.77 + + 10.3 = 56.27 m Ans. (c) : We know that, slip in reciprocating pump is
2 × 9.81 difference of theoretically discharge and actual
Pressure rise is given by
discharge of liquid.
∆P = ρg Hm = 1000 × 9.81 × 56.27 So, Slip = Qth – Qact.
= 552008.7 N/m2 = 5.520 bar
157. A centrifugal pump lifts 0.0125 m3/s of water A × L × N 0.05 × 0.4 × 60 m3
Q th. = = = 0.020 s
from a well with a static lift of 30m. If the brake 60 60
power of the driving electric motor is 5 kW, what Q act = 19 × 10 −3 m 3 / s
is the overall efficiency of the pump-set? Slip = 0.020 – 0.019 = 0.001 m3/s
(a) 57.6% (b) 63.9%
(c) 65.3% (d) 73.6% Q − Q act 0.001
Then Slip% = th = × 100 = 5%
ESE 2017 Q th 0.020
Ans. (d) : Given, 161. Cavitation depends upon
Q = 0.0125 m3/s (a) vapour pressure which is function of
H = 30 m temperature
P = 5 kW (b) absolute pressure or barometric pressure
ρgQH (c) suction pressure (Hs) which is height of
Overall efficiency (η0) = runner outlet above tail race level.
P (d) all the above
1000 × 9.81× 0.0125 × 30 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II
=
5 ×1000 Ans. (d) : all the above
= 0.736 = 73.6% 162. Air vessel in a reciprocating pump is used
158. A grinding wheel of 150 mm diameter is (a) To reduce suction head
rotating at 3000 rpm. The grinding speed is (b) Increasing the pressure intensity of the fluid
(a) 7.5 π m/s (b) 15π m/s (c) To increase delivery head
(c) 45 π m/s (d) 450 π m/s (d) To obtain continuous supply of the water at
TNPSC AE 2017 uniform rate
Ans. (a) : Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
Data given Ans. (d) : Air vessel fitted to reciprocating pump
D = 150 mm increases Suction head, increase in discharge (i.e.
N = 3000 rpm Supply of fluid) and Continues Supply of fluid with
we know that increase rate without charge in delivery head.
πDN
V= 4. Centrifugal Pumps
60 × 1000
π×150 × 3000 163. Two identical pumps having the same
V=
1000 × 60 discharge (Q) and working against the same
V = 7.5π m / s head (H). If they are connected in parallel,
which of the following is correct?
159. A pump handling a liquid raises its pressure (a) Combined discharge = 2Q
from 1 bar to 330 bar. Take the density of the Combined head = h
liquid as 990 kg/m3. The isentropic specific (b) Combined discharge = Q
work done by the pump in kJ/kg is Combined heat = 2H
(a) 0.10 (b) 0.30 (c) Combined discharge = 4Q
(c) 2.50 (d) 2.93 Combined head = H/2
TNPSC AE 2017 (d) Combined discharge = 2Q
Ans. (d) : Data given, P1 = 1 bar, P2 = 30 bar Combined head = 2H
ρ = 990 kg/M3 Then, isentropic specific work done by SJVN ET Mechanical 2019 paper
pump (W) Ans. (a) :
• If they are connected in parallel,
W=
( P2 − P1 ) = ( 30 − 1) ×105 Q = Q1 + Q2
ρ 990 H = H1 = H2
• If they are connected in series,
kJ Q = Q1 = Q2
W = 2.929 ≃ 2.93
kg H = H1 + H2
378
164. If a circular chamber is introduced between 168. A centrifugal pump is required to lift 0.0125
the casing and the impeller, then is known as: m3/s of water from a well with depth 30 m. If
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) rating of the pump motor is 5 kW, and the
(a) guide blades casing (b) vortex casing density of water is 1000 kg/m3, the efficiency of
(c) volute casing (d) none of these the pump will be nearly
Ans : (b) If a circular chamber is introduced between (a) 82% (b) 74%
the casing and the impeller, then casing is known as (c) 66% (d) 58%
vortex casing. ESE 2020
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
Ans. (b) : Given,
Q = 0.0125 m3/s
H = 30 m
Actual power,
Pa = ρQgH
= 1000×0.0125×9.81×30
= 3.678 kW
Pump motor power,
Pm = 5 kW
165. When a centrifugal pump is started, there will Efficiency of pump,
be no flow of water until the pressure rise in
the impeller is large enough to overcome the: P 3.678
η = a × 100% = × 100% = 73.57%
(a) Manometric head (b) Total head Pm 5
(c) Static head (d) Friction head 169. Correct option for the specific speed of pump
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II is:
Ans : (a) Manometric head:- The manometric head is (a) (N√Q)/H5/4 (b) (N√Q)/H3/4
defined as the head against which a centrifugal pump 3/4
has to work. It is denoted by Hm. (c) (N√Q)/H (d) (N√P)/H5/4
Hm = Head imparted by the impeller to the water- Loss OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
of head in the pump. Ans : (b) : The specific speed of pump is
Vw 2 u 2 N Q
Hm = - Loss of head in impeller and casing N s = 3/ 4
g H
v d2 170. Impeller of two geometrical similar centrifugal
Hm = hs + hd + hfs + hfd + pump operates at same speed, how power,
2g discharge and hand will vary with diameter
hs = Suction head ratio, d, respectively as:
hd = Delivery head (a) d5, d3, d2 (b) d, d3, d2
hfs = frictional head loss in suction pipe 5 3
(c) d , d , d (d) d3, d2, d
hfd = frictional head loss in delivery pipe OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
vd = velocity of water in delivery pipe.
Ans : (a) : We know that,
166. The pump suitable for high head low
discharge: H
= Constant
(a) Radial flow (b) Axial flow D2 N 2
(c) Mixed flow (d) Multi stage then, H ∝ D2
OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II Q
Ans : (d) : The pump suitable for high head low D3 N = constant
discharge is multistage. Q ∝ D3
167. In centrifugal pumps cavitation is reduced by P
(a) Increasing the flow velocity = constant
D5 N3
(b) Reducing discharge
P ∝ D5
(c) Throttling the discharge
(d) Reducing suction head 171. The head against which a centrifugal pump has
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II to work is known as:
Ans. (d) : The following factors contribute towards (a) Static head
onset of cavitations. (b) Total load
(i) High runner speed (c) Net positive suction head
(ii) High temperature (d) Manometric head
(iii) High suction head OPSC AEE 2019 PAPER - II
(iv) Less available NPSH Ans : (d) : Manometric head- The manometric head is
* According to the given option, in centrifugal pumps defined as the head against which a centrifugal pump
cavitation is reduced by reducing suction head. has to work.
379
172. For high discharge and low head such as Ans. (a) : We know that,
irrigation, the type of pump preferred is P ∝ D 2 H 3 / 2 & ND ∝ H
(a) centrifugal pump (b) reciprocating pump ∴ P ∝ D 2 ( ND)3
(c) propeller pump (d) gear pump
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 ∝ D5 N 3
5 3
Ans : (c) : For high discharge and low head such as P2  D2   N 2 
irrigation, the propeller type of pump is preferred. ∴ =  × 
P1  D1   N1 
Axial flow type is also used for very high discharge at 3
low pressure such as flood control and irrigation P2  2900 
= 15 ×  
applications. 3  1450 
173. Axial thrust is zero in P2 = 23 × 3 = 24kW
(a) Screw pump (b) Axial flow pump
(c) Vane pump (d) Lobe pump 177. A minimum Net Positive Suction Head (NPSH)
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 is required for a hydraulic pump to
(a) increase the delivery head
Ans : (a) : Axial thrust is zero in screw pump. (b) increase the suction head
174. A centrifugal pump has an impellor of outer (c) prevent the cavitation
diameter of 30 cm. Water enters the impellor (d) increase the efficiency
radially. Vane tips are radial at outlet. The APPSC-AE-2019
rotative speed is 1500 rpm and manometry Ans. (c) : NPSH is used to study possibility cavitation
efficiency is 80%. What is the net head in centrifugal pump.
developed (in meter)? [Assuming acceleration To avoid cavitation NPSH > (NPSH)min
due to gravity = g = π]
(a) 45 (b) 60 178. The unit power of the reaction turbine
(c) 70 (d) 100 (a) Increases with the unit speed
(b) Decreases with the unit speed
SJVN ET 2019
(c) Decreases and increases with the unit speed
Ans. (a) : Manometric efficiency of centrifugal pump (d) Increases and decreases with the unit speed
gH APPSC-AE-2019
ηman =
Vw u Ans. (d) : From characteristic curve of reaction turbine
For radial tip, whirl velocity at outlet is equal to (both Francis and Kaplan) unit power first increases and
peripheral speed at outlet, then decreases with respect to unit speed.
πDN 179. A diffuser blade in the centrifugal pump is used
u = vw = to
60
(a) convert mechanical energy to kinetic energy
π× 0.3 ×1500
= (b) convert kinetic energy to pressure energy
60 (c) convert pressure energy to kinetic energy
= 23.56 m / sec (d) convert potential energy to kinetic energy
ηmax Vw u 0.8 × 23.56 × 23.56 APPSC-AE-2019
H= = Ans. (b) : In diffuser, flow area increases, velocity
g 9.81
decreases and as per Bernoulli's equation pressure increases.
= 45.26 m
180. Pumps are connected in parallel to increase the
≈ 45m (a) velocity head (b) pressure head
175. A pump works on the principle of centrifugal (c) total head (d) discharge
theory, running at 900 rpm is working against APPSC-AE-2019
a head of 16 m. The external diameter of the Ans. (d) : When pumps are connected in parallel, head
impeller is 360 mm and the outlet width is 40 across the pumps is same but discharge is sum of
mm. If the vane angle at outlet is 30o and the discharges of two pumps.
manometric efficiency is 80%, the discharge of i.e. Hp = H1 = H2
the pump will be : & QP = Q1 + Q2
(a) 0.22 m2/s (b) 0.24 m2/s 181. If H is the unit head, the unit power of the
2
(c) 0.18 m /s (d) 0.14 m2/s turbine is proportional to
BHEL ET 2019 (a) H (b) H-2
-(1/2)
Ans. (c) : (c) H (d) H-(3/2)
176. A centrifugal pump driven by a directly APPSC-AE-2019
coupled 3 kW motor of 1450 rpm speed is Ans. (d) : Unit Power—It is defined as the power
proposed to be connected to another motor of developed by a turbine, working under a unit head (i.e.
2900 rpm. The power of the motor should be under a head or 1m). It is denoted by the symbol 'Pu'.
(a) 24 kW (b) 18 W The expression for unit power is obtained as
(c) 12 kW (d) 6 kW P
Pu = 3/ 2
APPSC-AE-2019 H
380
182. Net positive suction head is Where P = Power; g = Acceleration due to gravity
(a) pressure head + kinetic head ρ = Density; H = Head (m)
(b) pressure head + vapour pressure + kinetic N= Rotation per minute
head 186. Which of the following is correct for
(c) pressure head - vapour pressure + kinetic centrifugal pumps?
head
(a) Constant efficiency curve is obtained by
(d) pressure head - vapour pressure - kinetic head
using manometric head versus discharge
APPSC-AE-2019
curve for different speed and overall
Ans. (c) : The net positive suction head is defined as
efficiency versus discharge curve for different
( Pstag )inlet ( or ) suction − Pv speed
NPSH =
ρg (b) Constant efficiency curve is obtained by
using input power versus discharge curve for
 P V2  Pv different speed and overall efficiency versus
= +  −
 ρ g 2 g inlet ρ g discharge curve for different speed
183. The specific speed of a hydraulic pumps is the (c) Constant efficiency curve is obtained by
speed of geometrically similar pump working combining input power versus discharge
against a unit head and curve for different speed and head versus
(a) Delivering unit quantity of water discharge curve for different speed
(b) Consuming unit power (d) For pumps connected in series, the total
(c) Having unit velocity of flow discharge capacity will be the sum of
(d) Having unit radial velocity individual discharge capacity
APPSC AEE 2016 (e) For pumps connected in parallel, the total
Ans. (a) : The specific speed of a hydraulic pumps is head developed will be the sum of individual
the speed of geometrically similar pump working head developed by each pump
against a unit head and delivering unit quantity of water. CGPSC AE 2014- II
N Q Ans. (a) : In centrifugal pump, constant efficiency
N s = 3/ 4 [For pump] curve is obtained by using manometric head versus
H
discharge curve for different speed and overall
N P efficiency versus discharge curve for different speed.
Ns = 5/ 4 [for turbine]
H 187. Two centrifugal pumps 'A' operate at their
184. Slip in the case of a centrifugal pump maximum efficiencies at 2000 rpm and 1000
(a) Increases the flow rate rpm respectively. Against the same delivery
(b) Reduces the energy transfer head, pump 'A' discharge 2 m3/s and pump B
(c) Reduces the speed discharge 8m3/s respectively. What is the ratio
(d) Increase cavitation of specific speeds (Ns)A : (Ns)B?
TNPSC AE 2017 (a) 1:1 (b) 1:2
Ans. (b) : Slip is internal back flow of fluid in a pump (c) 1:4 (d) 4:1
returning from the discharge side to the suction side. In (e) 2:1
a centrifugal pump, slip is the loss of efficiency from a CGPSC AE 2014 -II
theoretical ideal arising from design constraints and
turbulence at the impeller vanes. Ans. (a) : Data given as:
NA= 2000 rpm NB = 1000 rpm
185. Consider the following statements: 3 3
1. The specific speed of a two stage centrifugal Q A = 2m /s Q B = 8 m /s

pump is twice that of a single stage pump HA = HB

2. The specific speed of a double end suction We know that,
pump is half that of a single end suction pump NS ∝ N Q
3. The specific speed is not a dimensionless
number ( Ns )A 2000 × 2
= = 1:1
Which of the above statements are correct? ( Ns )B 1000 × 8
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only 188. Slip in the case of a centrifugal pump.
JWM 2017 (a) Reduces the flow rate
(b) Reduce the tangential
Ans. (d) : The specific speed is a dimensional number
as well as dimensionless number (c) Reduces the speed
(d) Increases cavitation
N P (e) Decreases cavitation
N S = 5 / 4 → Dimensioned specific speed
H CGPSC AE 2014 -II
Ans. (b) : Slip in the case of a centrifugal pump reduces
N P the tangential component of fluid velocity at impeller
NS → Dimensionless specific speed
ρ ( gH )
5/ 4
outlet.
381
189. When the speed of a centrifugal pump is 192. Two geometrically similar pumps are running
tripled, the power required to drive the pump at the same peed of 1000 RPM. One pump has
will: an impeller diameter of 300 mm and lifts water
(a) Triple (b) Increase 9 times at the rate of 0.02m3/s against a head of 15 m.
(c) Increase 27 times (d) Remain the same The head of the other pump to deliver half the
(e) not depend upon peed discharge.
CGPSC AE 2014 -II (a) 9.15m (b) 9.25m
Ans. (c) : We know that, (c) 9.35m (d) 9.45m
P α N3 (e) 9.55m
that CGPSC AE 2014 -II
3 Ans. (d) : We know that
P2  N 2  h1 h
=  = 22 2 ..........(1) [N1= N2 given]
P1  N1  2 2
D1 N1 D 2 N 2
3
 3N  Q1 Q
P2 =   × P1 = 3 2 2 ..........(2)
 N  3
D1 N1 2
D2 N 2
P2 = 27 × P1 Q 
then D32 =  2  × D13
190. Which one of the following pumps is not a
 Q1 
positive displacement pump?
(a) Vane pump (b) Lobe pump Q
Q1 = 0.02 m3 , Q2 = 1 , D1 = 0.3m, h1 = 15m
(c) Reciprocating pump (d) diaphragm pump 2
(e) Screw Pump 1
CGPSC AE 2014 -II  Q1 / 2  3
3
D2 =    × ( 0.3 ) 
Ans. (*) : Positive Displacement pump- A Positive
displacement pump increase the pressure of the fluid by  Q1  
trapping a fixed amount of it into a cavity then reducing D2 = 0.2381m
the volume of the cavity be mechanical means. As the From Equation (1)
volume of the fluid inside the cavity is reduced, its
pressure is increased, allowing it to be forced against 15 h2
=
( 0.3) ( 0.2381)
2 2
the higher pressure in the pipe.
2
 0.2381 
h2 =   × 15
 0.300 
h 2 = 9.449m
193. A centrifugal pump lift water through a height
h and delivers it at a velocity vd. The loss of
head through piping is hf. The gross lift is-
v2
(a) h + hf (b) h f + d
2g
vd2 vd2
(c) h + h f + (d) h +
2g 2g
RPSC AE 2018
Ans. (c) : The gross lift by centrifugal pump = total
height of lifts water + discharge velocity head + loss of
head through piping
V2
Note → Option (c) given by CGPSC. = h + d + hf
2g
191. At the eye tip of a centrifugal impeller, blade
velocity is 250 m/s while the uniform axial 194. If Net positive suction head requirements are
velocity at the inlet is 200 m/. If the sonic not satisfied then
velocity is 300 m/s, then the inlet Mach number (a) Pump will develop only less head
of the flow will be: (b) Pump will not develop any haed
(a) 0.81 (b) 1.06 (c) Pump will develop cavitation
(c) 1.91 (d) 0.16 (d) Pump will consume excess power
(e) 0.98 TNPSC AE 2014
CGPSC AE 2014 -II Ans. (c) : If Net positive suction head requirements are
Ans. (b) : not satisfied then pump will develop cavitation.
382
195. Multistage centrifugal pumps are used for
(a) High discharge requirements
(b) Obtaining high head
(c) Obtaining low discharge
(d) Obtaining low head
TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (b) : Multistage centrifugal pumps are used for
obtaining high speed.
196. Power need to drive the centrifugal pump is
proportional to
(a) N (b) N2
(c) N3 (d) N5-2
HPPSC AE 2018
Ans. (c) : We know that
P P
5 3
= 5 3 = constant
DN m DN P
So From this relation–
P ∝ N3
197. How to avoid the cavitation in centrifugal
pump
(a) By lowering the suction pressure
(b) By lowering the delivery pressure
(c) By increasing the suction pressure
(d) By increasing the delivery pressure
HPPSC AE 2018
Ans. (c) : By increasing the suction pressure.
198. Net head provided by the liquid pump is given
by [where, EGL = Energy grade line, HGL =
hydraulic grade line, out = outlet of pump, in =
inlet of pump]
(a) (EGL)out + (EGL)in (b) (HGL)out + (HGL)in
(c) (EGL)out - (EGL)in (d) (HGL)out - (HGL)in
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
Ans. (c) : Net head provided by the liquid pump
= (EGL)out - (EGL)in
199. Maximum flow rate through pump occurs
when
(a) Net head is maximum
(b) Net head is zero
(c) Pump operates at best efficiency point
(d) Net head is greater than zero but less than
maximum
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
Ans. (b) : Maximum volume flow rate through pump
occurs when net head is zero.
200. Cavitation in the pump occurs when
(a) Vapour pressure of liquid is greater than local
pressure of liquid inside the pump
(b) Vapour pressure of liquid is lower than local
pressure of liquid inside the pump
(c) Vapour pressure of liquid is lower than that of
atmospheric pressure
(d) local pressure of liquid inside the pump is viscous fluids with lubricating properties. They are
greater than atmospheric pressure
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 oil burners, boosting fuel, lubrication, feed so on.
383
Ans. (a) : Cavitation—Cavitation in a centrifugal
pump has a significant effect on pump performance.
Cavitation degrade the performance of a pumps,
resulting in a fluctuating flow rate and discharge
pressure. Cavitation can also be destructive to pumps
internal components. When a pump cavitates, vapour
bubbles form in the low pressure region the rotating
impeller vanes. Where they collapse and create a
physical shock to leading edge of the impeller vane.
201. Slip of reciprocating pump becomes negative
when
(a) Theoretical discharge is more than actual
discharge
(b) Actual discharge is more than theoretical
discharge
(c) Theoretical discharge is equal to actual
discharge
(d) Pump is running at low speed
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
Ans. (b) : Slip—Slip of a reciprocating pump is defined
as the difference between theoretical and actual
discharge.
Slip = Qth - Qact (Positive
Slip)
 Q 
= Qth 1 − act 
 Qth 
= Qth [1 - Cd]
Percentage Slip—
Q − Qact
= th ×100 = [1 - Cd) × 100
Qth
Negative Slip—It has been found in some cases that
Qact > Qth, due to operating conditions. In this case the
slip is called negative slip. When the delivery pipe is
short or delivery head is small and the accelerating head
in the suction side is high, the delivery valve is found to
open before the end of suction stroke and the water
passes directly into the delivery pipe. Such a situation
leads to negative slip.
202. Specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed
of unit of such a size that it
(a) requires unit power to develop unit head
(b) delivers unit discharge at unit power
(c) delivers unit discharge at unit head
(d) produces unit power with unit head available
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (c) : Specific speed of pump,
N Q
NS = 3/ 4
H
203. Which of the following pump is used for
pumping viscous fluids?
(a) Reciprocating pump (b) Centrifugal pump
(c) Screw pump (d) Jet Pump
TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (c) : Screw pumps are used for transport of
suited for a variety of application such as fuel injection,
204. Impellers for high heads usually have 1. Steady discharge which increases with
(a) High specific speed decrease in head
(b) Low specific speed 2. Suitable for handling fluids with suspended
(c) Constant specific speed solid particles
(d) Speed independent of head 3. Less bulky than positive displacement pumps
TNPSC AE 2014 4. Can be started with open delivery with least
Ans. (b) : Impellers for high heads usually have low load
specific speed. Which of the above advantages are correct?
205. The unit speed of pump (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
H ESE 2018
(a) N/H (b)
N Ans. (c) : Rotary pumps can handle all types of liquids
N Q that do not have any solid content and are poor is
(c) (d) transporting thick and viscous while reciprocating pump
H H is suitable for fluid having solid particles. Rotary pump
TNPSC AE 2013 gives steady discharge and discharge increase with
Ans. (c) : Unit speed of pump decrease in head.
H1 H2 Note : The answer given by UPSC is option (a).
= 209. Cavitation in fluid flow occurs when
N1 N2
(a) the total energy suddenly increases
Unit discharge of pump (b) total energy decreases suddenly
H1 H2 (c) velocity head reduces to zero
= (d) pressure of flow decreases to a value close to
Q1 Q2
its vapour pressure
Unit power of pump APPSC AEE 2012
H 13 H 32 Ans : (d) Cavitation in fluid flow occurs when pressure
= of flow decreases to value close to its vapour pressure.
P1 P2
Cavitation is defined as the phenomenon of formation
206. In axial flow pumps and compressors, the of vapour bubbles of a flowing liquid in a region where
combined velocity diagram with common base the pressure of the liquid falls below its vapour pressure
is used to determine change in and the sudden collapsing of these vapour bubbles in a
(a) absolute velocity (V2 – V1) region of higher pressure when the vapour bubbles
(b) relative velocity ( Vr2 − Vr1 ) collapse, a very high pressure is created.
(c) tangential velocity (U2 – U1) 210. Cavitation in centrifugal pumps can be
(d) whirl velocity ( Vu 2 − Vu1 ) reduced by
(a) Throttling the discharge
ESE 2019 (b) Increasing the flow velocity
Ans. (d) : The whirl velocity is the tangential (c) Reducing the discharge
component of absolute velocity at the blade inlet and (d) Reducing the suction head
outlet. (KPSC AE 2015)
This component of velocity is responsible for the Ans : (d) Cavitation in centrifugal pumps reduced by
whirling or rotating of the turbine rotor. reducing the suction head.
207. The mechanical efficiency of a centrifugal Cavitation in centrifugal Pumps:- In centrifugal
pump is the ratio of pumps the cavitation may occur at the inlet of the
(a) manometric head to the energy supplied by impeller of the pump, or at the suction side of the
the impeller per kN of water pumps, where the pressure is considerably reduced.
(b) energy supplied to the pump to the energy Hence if the pressure at the suction side of the pump
available at the impeller drops below the vapour pressure of the liquid then the
(c) actual work done by the pump to the energy cavitation may occurs.
supplied to the pump by the prime mover Cavitation factor for centrifugal pumps.
(d) energy available at the impeller to the energy Thoma's cavitation factor
supplied to the pump by the prime mover NPSH H atm − h s − h v − h F
ESE 2018 σ= =
H H
Ans. (d) : The mechanical efficiency of a centrifugal Note : H = H [Monometric head]
m
pump is defined as the ratio of power transmitted by For centrifugal pump
rotor (impeller) and shaft power (power supplied by
H = HN [Net head for turbine]
prime mover).
Impeller power 211. Centrifugal pump is started with its delivery
i.e. ηm = valve
Shaft power (a) Dept fully closed (b) Dept fully open
208. Consider the following advantages of rotary (c) Kept 50% open (d) None of these
pumps compared to reciprocating pumps: (KPSC AE 2015)
384
Ans : (a) Centrifugal pump is started with its delivery
valve kept fully closed.
The centrifugal pump acts as a reverse of an inward
radial flow reaction turbine. this means that the flow in
centrifugal pumps is in the radial outward directions.
The centrifugal pump works on the principle of forced
vortex flow.
212. In a centrifugal pump casing, the flow of water
leaving the impeller, in:
(a) Rectilinear flow (b) Radial flow
(c) Free vortex flow (d) forced vortex
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans : (b) In a centrifugal pump casing, the flow of
water leaving the impeller is radial flow.
The centrifugal pump acts as a reverse of an inward
radial flow reaction turbine. This means that the flow in
centrifugal pump is in the radial outward direction. The
pump works on the principle of forced vortex flow.
213. If D is the diameter of impeller at inlet, w is the
width of the impeller at inlet and Vf is the
velocity of flow at inlet then discharge through
a centrifugal pump is equal to:
(a) πDVf (b) DVf w
(c) πDVf w (d) πDw
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans : (c) Discharge through a centrifugal pump
= πDVf w
D = diameter of impeller at inletz
w = width of the impeller at inlet
Vf = velocity of flow at inlet
214. Which of the following is not a rotary pump?
(a) Gear
(c) Axial
(b) Vane
(d) Screw
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans : (c) Axial pomp is a not a rotatry pump.
215. Air vessels used in reciprocating pumps are
initially filled with:
(a) Water (b) Vacuum
(c) Compressed air (d) None of the above
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans : (c) Air Vessels:-The air vessel, in a reciprocating
pump, is a cast iron closed chamber having an opening
at its base. These are fitted to the suction pipe and
delivery pipe close to the cylinder of the pump. The
vessels are used for the following purposes:
(i) To get continuous supply of liquid at a uniform rate
(ii) To save the power required to drive the pump. This
is due to the fact that by using air vessels, the
acceleration and friction heads are reduced. Thus
the work is also reduced.
216. If NPSH (Net Positive Suction Head) for a
pump is not obeyed, then:
(a) The pump gets cavitated
(b) proper head is not developed
(c) Pump has low efficiency
(d) More power is consumed
OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
Ans : (a) If NPSH (Net Positive Suction Head) for a
pump is not obeyed, then the pump gets cavitated.
Net positive Suction Head (NPSH):- the net positive
suction head (NPSH) is defined as the difference
385
between the net inlet head and the head corresponding
to the vapour pressure of the liquid. It may be noted that
when the pressure at the suction falls below the vapour
pressure of the liquid, then cavitation will be formed.
 P  P 
NPSH =  1  −  V 
 ρg   ρg 
P1
Where , pressure head at inlet of centrifugal pump,
ρg
P
where us V is vapour pressure head.
ρg
So, NPSH ↑ → chance of cavitation in centrifugal
pump will decrease.
217. In...........type of centrifugal pump the impeller
is surrounded by the spiral casing.
(a) involute (b) bevel
(c) volute (d) spur
(HPPSC LECT. 2016)
Ans : (c) In volute type of centrifugal pump the
impeller is surrounded by the spiral casing.
( )
218. The specific speed Ns = N Q / H3/ 4 for a
double suction pump is to be evaluated. The
discharge would be taken
(a) half the actual discharge
(b) actual discharge
(c) double the actual discharge
(d) square of the actual discharge
(KPSC AE. 2015)
( )
Ans : (b) The specific speed Ns = N Q / H 3/ 4 for a
double suction pump is to be evaluated. The discharge
would be taken actual discharge.
KPPSC given answer half the actual discharge.
219. Is it possible to pump water available at
around 100°C under atmospheric condition
using centrifugal pump placed near the tank:
(a) No
(b) Yes
(c) Yes, if pump is selected properly
(d) None of these are correct?
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (a) Centrifugal Pumps:-A centrifugal pump is a
machine which converts the kinetic energy of the water
into pressure energy before the water leaves its casing.
The flow of water leaving the impeller is free vortex.
The impeller of a centrifugal pump may have volute
casing, vortex casing and volute casing with guide
blades.
220. The vanes of a centrifugal pump are generally:
(a) Radial (b) Curved backward
(c) Curve forward (d) Twisted
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (b) The vanes of a centrifugal pump are generally
curved backward.
221. The function of the foot valve in a centrifugal
pump is
(a) not to permit the liquid to move downward
back to the sump when the pump is not
working.
(b) to permit the liquid to move downwards back
to sump when the pump is not working.
(c) not to permit the liquid to move upwards
from the sump when the pump is working.
(d) to permit the liquid to move downwards back
to the sump when the pump is working
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (a) The function of the foot valve in a centrifugal
pump is not to permit the liquid to move down wards
back to the sump when the pump is not working.
222. Discharge (Q) of a centrifugal pump is given by
(a) Q = π DVf (b) Q = πbVf
(c) Q = πDbVf (d) Q = DbVf
(Where D = diameter of impeller at inlet
b = Width of the impeller at inlet
Vf = Velocity of flow at inlet )
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (c) Discharge (Q) of a centrifugal pump
Q = πDbVf
D = Diameter of impeller at inlet
b = width of the impeller at inlet
vf = Velocity of flow at inlet.
223. In reciprocating pump, the percentage of slip is
equal to
(a) 1 - coefficient of discharge
(b) 1 + coefficient of discharge
1 APPSC AEE 2012
(c)
cofficient of discharge
cofficient of discharge
(d)
theoretical discharge
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (a) Slip in percentage is given by
% slip =
( Q th − Qact ) ×100
Q th
 Qact 
= 1 −  × 100
 Q th 
% Slip = (1 − Cd ) ×100
Where Cd = Coefficient of discharge
Slip is negative when delivery pipe is small and suction
pipe is long and pump is running at very high speed.
224. Which of the following hydraulic machines are
subjected to cavitation?
(a) Impulse turbines only
(b) Reciprocating pumps only
(c) Reaction turbines and centrifugal pumps
(d) Impulse turbines and reciprocating pumps
TSPSC AEE 2015
386
Ans : (c) Reaction turbines and centrifugal pumps are
subjected to cavitation.
Caviation:- The formation, growth and collapse of
vapour bubbles in a flowing liquide due to local fall in
fluid pressure is called cavitation.
(a) It causes noise and vibration of various parts
(b) It makes surface rough
(c) It reduces the discharge of a turbine
(d) It causes sudden drop in power output and efficiency
225. A centrifugal pump is started with its delivery
valve kept:
(a) Fully open (b) Fully closed
(c) Partially open (d) 50% open
UJVNL AE 2016
Ans : (b) A Centrifugal pump is started with its delivery
valve kept fully closed.
226. For centrifugal pump impeller, the maximum
value of the vane exit angle is
(a) 100 to 150 (b) 150 to 200
(c) 200 to 250 (d) 250 to 300
APPSC AEE 2012
Ans : (c) For centrifugal pump impeller, the maximum
value of the vane exit angle is 200 to 250.
227. Which of the following pumps is preferred for
flood control and irrigation applications ?
(a) Centrifugal pump (b) Mixed flow pump
(c) Axial flow pump (d) Reciprocating pump
APPSC AEE 2012
Ans : (c) Axial flow pump is preferred for flood control
and irrigation application.
228. In order to avoid cavitation in centrifugal
pumps
(a) the suction pressure should be high
(b) the delivery pressure should be high
(c) the suction pressure should be low
(d) the delivery pressure should be low
Ans : (a) We know that cavitation in centrifugal pump
depends on its NPSH.
If NPSH is high then chance of cavitation in centrifugal
pump will reduce.
Cavitation in centrifugal pumps:-In centrifugal
pumps the cavitation may occur at the inlet of the
impeller of the pump, or at the suction side of the
pumps, where the pressure is considerably reduced.
Hence if the pressure at the suction side of the pump
drops below the vapour pressure of the liquid then the
cavitation may occur. The cavitation in a pump can be
noted by a sudden drop in efficiency and head.
229. The cavitation in a hydraulic machine
(a) causes noise and vibration of various parts
(b) makes the surface rough
(c) reduces the discharge of a turbine
(d) causes sudden drop in power output and
efficiency
APPSC AEE 2012
Ans : (a) Effects of Cavitation :-
(i) The metallic surface are damaged and cavities are
formed on the surface.
(ii) Due to sudden collapse of vapour bubble,
considerable noise and vibration are produced.
(iii) The efficiency of a turbine decrease due to 233. If two pumps identical in all respects and each
cavitations. capable of delivering a discharge Q against a
H − H v − Hs head H are connected in series, the resulting
σ= a discharge is :
H (a) 2Q against a head 2H
σ = cavitation factor
(b) 2Q against a head H
H a = Atmospheric pressure head in m of water (c) Q against a head 2H
H v = Vapour pressure head in m of water (d) Q against a head H.
Hs = Suction pressure head in m of water (KPSC AE. 2015)
H = Net head on the turbine in m. Ans : (c) If two pumps identical in all respects and each
capable of delivering a discharge Q against a head H are
230. In a centrifugal pump the liquid enters the connected in series, the resulting discharge is Q against
pump a head 2H.
(a) at the centre (b) at the top Series combination
(c) at the bottom (d) from sides (i) Discharge.
APPSC AEE 2012 Q = Q1 = Q2
Ans : (a) In a centrifugal pump the liquid enters the (ii) Head
pump at the centre. H = H1 + H2
the centrifugal pump acts as a reverse of an inward H = 2H
radial flow reaction turbine. This means that the flow in 234. A centrifugal pump runs at a speed of 1450
centrifugal pumps in the radial outward direction. The rpm and discharges 0.118 m3/s of water. The
centrifugal pump work on the principle of forced vortex pump works against a head of 25m. The
flow which means that when a certain mass of liquid is impeller radius is 12.5 cm. its width at the
rotated by an external torque, the rise in pressure head outlet is 5 cm and manometric efficiency is
of the rotating liquid takes place. 75%. The value angle in degrees at the outlet
231. Multistage centrifugal pumps are used to periphery of the impeller is :
(a) give high discharge (b) pump viscous fluids (a) 79.77 (b) 39.77
(c) produce high heads (d) None of these (c) 49.77 (d) 59.77
APPSC AEE 2012 BHEL ET 2019
Ans : (c) Multistage centrifugal pumps are used to Ans. (d) : Given -
produced high head. Speed N = 1450 rpm
Multistage Centrifugal pumps : - If a centrifugal Q = 0118 m3/sec.
pump consists of two or more impeller, the pump is Head (H) = 25 m
called a multistage centrifugal pump. The impellers may Impeller radius (r) = 12.5 cm = D = 0.25 m
be mounted on the same shaft or on different shaft. A width at outlet (w) = 5 cm = 0.05 m
multistage pump is having the following two important manometric efficiency (ηm) = 75%
functions vane angle at outer periphery of impeller.
(i) To produced a high head
(ii) To discharge a large quantity of liquid
If a high head is to be developed, the impellers are
connected in series, while for discharging large quantity
of liquid, the impeller are connected in parallel.
232. The specific speed of a centrifugal pump is
given by
N Q N Q
(a) (b)
H2 / 3 H
N Q N Q
(c) (d)
H 3/ 4 H5 / 4
APPSC AEE 2012 vane angle at outlet (φ)
Ans : (c) Specific speed of a centrifugal pump Tongential velocity of impeller at outlet,
πD 2 N
N Q u2 =
Ns = 60
H3/ 4 π× 0.25 ×1450
3
if Q = 1m / sec and H = 1m then pump speed is =
60
equal to specific speed. = 18.98 m/s
The specific speed of a centrifugal pump is Discharge Q = πD2 B2 × vf 2
defined as the speed of a geometrically similar pump,
Q 0.118
which would deliver one cubic meter of liquid per vf2 = =
second against a head one meter. πD 2 B 2 π × 0.25 × 0.05
387
 vf2 = 3.0 m/s 238. A centrifugal pump lifts 0.013 m3/s water from
gH mano a depth of 32 m. If the pump motor consumes 6
manometric efficiency = η mano = kW, what is the overall efficiency of pump.
v W2u 2
Given density of water = 1000 kg/m3:-
9.81× 25
0.75 = (a) 88% (b) 75%
v w 2 ×18.98
(c) 69% (d) None of the above
9.81× 25 UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
or v W2 =
0.75 × 18.98 Ans. (c) : Given as,
vW2 = 17.23 m/s Q = 0.013 m3/s
from velocity triangle at outlet, h = 32 m
vf 2 P = 6 kW
tan φ =
u 2 − v W2 η0 = ?
3 ρw = 1000 kg/m3
= = 1.7143
18.98 − 17.23 Overall efficiency of centrifugal pump is given as,
tan φ− = 1.7143 Water Power [ρ w Qgh ]
η0 =
Shaft Power
φ = tan −1 (1.7143)
1000 × 0.013 × 9.81× 32
φ = 59.74 0 =
6000
235. The torque transmitting capacity of fluid η0 = 0.68 ≃ 0.69
coupling [T] for a given slip varies with
η0 = 69%
impeller internal diameter 'D' and its speed 'N'
as 239. In order to avoid cavitation in centrifugal
3 2 3 3
(a) T ∝ D N (b) T ∝ D N pumps:-
(c) T ∝ D5 N5 (d) T ∝ D5 N2 (a) The suction pressure should be high
TNPSC AE 2017 (b) The delivery pressure should be high
Ans. (d) : The torque transmitting capacity of fluid (c) The suction pressure should be low
coupling [T] for a given slip varies with impeller (d) The delivery pressure should be low
internal diameter 'D' and its speed 'N' as T ∝ D5 N2. UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II

236. A centrifugal pump lifts water through a height Ans. (a) : In order to avoid cavitation in centrifugal
h and delivers it at a velocity Vd. The loss of pumps the suction pressure should be high.
heat through piping is hf. The gross lift is 240. The vanes of a centrifugal pump move due to:-
V2 (a) Pressure energy of water
(a) h + hf (b) h f + d (b) Kinetic energy of water
2g
(c) Both pressure and kinetic energy of water
Vd2 Vd2 (d) Power supplied by prime mover
(c) h + h f + (d) h +
2g 2g UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-II
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II Ans. (d) : The vanes of a centrifugal pump move due to
Vd2 power supplied by prime mover.
Ans. (c) : h + h f +
2g 5. Miscellaneous Hydraulic
237. Open type impeller centrifugal pump is used to
handle
Machines
(a) water 241. How does pressure intensity varies when liquid
(b) mixture of water, sand, pebbles and clay rotates at an angular velocity of a vertical axis?
(c) sewage (a) Directly with radial distance
(b) Directly with square of the radial distance
(d) liquids lighter than water
(c) Inversely with square of the radial distance
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–II (d) None of the above
Ans. (b) : mixture of water, sand, pebbles and clay OPSC AEE 2015 PAPER - II
388
Ans : (b) Pressure intensity varies directly with square
Ans. (c) : Given,
of the radial distance when liquid rotates at an angular
dR = 3.5 cm
velocity of a vertical axis. dP = 3.25 cm
242. If a work piece is moved by 50 mm in 10 s by a m ×g = 500 × 9.81
piston of diameter 100 mm, the hydraulic = 4905 N
liquid flow rate is nearly According to Pascal law -
(a) 3.00 × 10−5 m3/s
(b) 3.93 × 10−5 m3/s
(c) 4.74 × 10−5 m3/s
(d) 5.00 × 10−5 m3/s
ESE 2018 F W
=
Ans. (b) : Given, AP AR
50 × 10−3 π 2
Velocity (v) =
10
m / s = 5 × 10−3 m/s  4 ( 3.25 ) 
F = 500 × 9.81 ×  
π
 ( 32.5 ) 
2
π
Area (A) = (0.1) 2 = 0.0078 m2 4 
4
We know that F = 49.5 N
discharge (Q) = A ⋅ v 245. Capacity of a hydraulic accumulator is
= 0.0078 × 5 × 10−3 generally specified as
= 0.0392 × 10−3 (a) Quantity of liquid accumulated
= 3.92 × 10−5 m3/s (b) Maximum pressure developed
(c) Maximum energy stored
243. What will be the velocity of piston movement
for a single-acting hydraulic actuator, when the (d) Maximum Quantity of discharge allowed
fluid pressure is 100 bar, the diameter of the TNPSC AE 2014
piston is 50 mm and the flow rate is 0.3 Ans. (c) : Capacity of a hydraulic accumulator is
m3/min? generally specified as maximum energy stored.
(a) 2.41 m/s (b) 2.55 m/s 246. Which of the following is a positive
(c) 2.67 m/s (d) 2.84 m/s displacement device?
ESE 2017 (a) Ultrasonic flow meter
(b) Turbine flow meter
Ans. (b) : D = 0.05 m
(c) Laser Doppler Anemometer
Q = 0.3 m3/min
(d) Hot wire Anemometer
∵ Q=A⋅v TNPSC AE 2014
π 2 Ans. (b) : Turbine flow meter is a positive displacement
Q= D ⋅v
4 device.
4 × 0.3 247. Rotameter is a
v=
π× (0.05) 2 (a) drag force flow meter
= 2.55 m/s (b) variable area flow meter
244. If a hydraulic press has a ram of 32.5 cm (c) variable head flow meter
diameter and plunger of 3.25 cm diameter, (d) rotating propeller type flow meter
what force would be required on the plunger to TNPSC AE 2018
raise a mass of of 500kg on the ram? Ans. (b) : A rotameter is a device that measure the
(a) 98.1N (b) 9.81N volumetric flow rate of fluid in a closed tube. It belongs
to a class of meters called variable area meters, which
(c) 49.05N (d) 4.905N
measure flow rate by allowing the cross-sectional area the
(e) 19.62N
fluid travels through to vary, causing a measurable effect.
CGPSC AE 2014 -II
389
248. Consider the following statements: Ans. (c) : The operation of removing trapped air from
1. The head produced in the primary of a fluid the hydraulic braking system is known as bleeding.
coupling is more than the corresponding 252. In hydraulic Brakes "Bleeding" refers to
centrifugal head (a) The process of removing air out from the
2. When the two speeds are equal, the torque braking system
transmitted is zero (b) The process of filling the brake fluid in the
Which of the above statements is/are correct? brake cylinders
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) The leakage of brake fluid in the brake
system
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) The process of emptying the brake fluid from
JWM 2017 the brake system
Ans. (a) : The flow in the primary is radially outwards TNPSC AE 2017
and radially inwords in the secondary flow occur in this Ans. (a) : In hydraulic Brakes "Bleeding" refers to The
direction because the speed of primary exceeds that of process of removing air out from the braking system.
the secondary. The heat produced in the primary is this 253. Which of the followings is not the element of
greater than the centrifugal head resisting flow through hydroelectric power plant?
the secondary. (a) Catchment area (b) Dam
If the two speeds same, head balance and no (c) Draft tube (d) Condenser
flow will occur and no torque will be transmitted. RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
249. A Rotameter can be used Ans. (d) : Hydroelectric power plant—Hydropower
plant uses hydraulic energy of water to produce
(a) Only in vertical orientation (direction)
electricity. The power obtained from this plant is termed
(b) Only in horizontal orientation (direction)
as hydro-electric power. Nearly 16% of total power
(c) In any orientation (direction) used by the world.
(d) For zero orientation (direction) Components of hydropower plant—
TNPSC AE 2014 1. Forebay
Ans. (a) : A Rotameter is a device that measures the 2. Catchment area
volumetric flow rate of fluid in a closed tube. A 3. Dam
Rotameter can be used only in vertical orientation. 4. Intake structure
5. Penstock
250. A hot wire anemometer is used to measure
6. Surge chamber
(a) Mean flow velocity
7. Hydraulic turbine
(b) Fluctuating component of velocities 8. Draft tube
(c) Both mean and fluctuating component of 9. Tail race
velocities 254. Hydraulic accumulator is a device used for
(d) Constant velocity (a) Lifting heavy weights
TNPSC AE 2014 (b) Storing the energy of a fluid in the form of
Ans. (c) : Hot wire Anemometer– The hot wire pressure energy
anemometer is a device used for measuring the both (c) Increasing the pressure intensity of the fluid
mean and fluctuating component of velocities and (d) Transferring kinetic energy of the fluid to the
shaft
direction of the fluid.
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2017 2nd Paper
251. The operation of removing trapped air from
Ans. (b) : Hydraulic accumulators are energy storage
the hydraulic braking system is known as
device. Analogous to rechargeable batteries in electrical
(a) Trapping (b) Tapping System, they store and discharge energy in the form
(c) Bleeding (d) Cleaning pressurized fluid and are after used to improve
TNPSC AE 2017 hydraulic-system efficiency.
390
 08. ENGINEERING MECHANICS
Ans. (d) : We know that-
1. Forces and Force Systems Bsin α
tan θ = Given, θ = 90
1. Two forces P and Q are acting at an angle α. A + Bcos α
The resultant force R acts at an angle of θ with
force P, then the value of θ will be
Q cos α Qsin α
(a) tan −1 (b) tan −1
P + Q cos α P + Q cos α
Q cos α Qsin α
(c) tan −1 (d) tan −1
P + Qsin α P + Qsin α
HPPSC AE 2018 Bsin α
Ans. (b) : Parallelogram Law of Forces–"If two tan 90 o =
A + Bcos α
forces, acting at a point be represented in magnitude and
direction by the two adjacent sides of parallelogram, 1 Bsin α
=
then their resultant is represented in magnitude and 0 A + Bcos α
direction by the diagonal of the parallelogram passing A + Bcos α = 0
through that point". A = − B cos α
 A
α = cos −1  − 
 B
4. Pick the odd statement out with regard to
Lami's theorem from following:
(a) The theorem is applicable only if the body is
in equilibrium.
(b) The theorem is applicable for parallel forces.
If the angle between the forces is α, then (c) The theorem is not applicable for more than
R = P 2 + Q 2 + 2PQ cos α three forces.
The direction of resultant will be (d) The theorem is not applicable for less than
three forces.
 Qsin α  (e) The theorem is applicable for coplanar forces.
θ= tan −1   (from Force P)
 P + Qcos α  (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
2. A rigid body will be in equilibrium under the Ans. (b) : Lami's Theorem–"If a body is in
action of two forces only when: equilibrium under the action of three forces, then each
(a) Forces have same magnitude, same line of force is proportional to the sine of the angle between the
action and same sense other two forces".
(b) Forces have same magnitude and same line of
action
(c) Forces have same magnitude, same line of
action and opposite sense
(d) Forces have same magnitude
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (c) : A rigid body will be in equilibrium under the
action of two forces only when forces have same
magnitude, same line of action and opposite sense.
3. The resultant of two force A and B is
perpendicular to A, the angle between the force P Q R
A and B will be: = =
sin α sin γ sin β
A  B
(a) θ = cos −1   (b) θ = cos −1   5. The Lami's theorem is applicable only for :
 B A (a) Coplanar forces
 B  A (b) Concurrent forces
(c) θ = cos −1  −  (d) θ = cos −1  −  (c) Coplanar and Concurrent forces
 A  B (d) Any types of the forces
−1  B  TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
(e) θ = tan  
A Ans. (c) : The Lami's theorem is applicable only for
CGPSC AE 2014- I coplanar and concurrent forces.
391
6. Concurrent forces 2, 3 , 5, 3 and 2 kN act Ans. (a) : We know that,
at one of the angular points of a regular Resultant force (R) = P + Q + 2PQ cos θ
2 2

hexagon towards the remaining five angular

points. Determine the magnitude and direction
of the resultant force.
(a) R = 10 kN; α = 0º
(b) R = 12 kN; α = 180º
R 2 = P 2 + P 2 + 2 P 2 cos α (P =Q)
(c) R = 10 kN; α = 60º
(d) R = 20 kN; α = 0º = 2 P 2
+ 2 P 2
cos α
(e) R = 10 kN; α = 90º = 2 P 2 (1 + cos α )
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift = 4 P 2 cos 2 (α / 2 )
Ans. (c) : Resolving all forces horizontally
R = 2 P cos (α / 2 )
∑ H = 2 cos 0º + 3 cos 30º + 5cos 60º
9. The maximum force which acts on the
+ 3 cos 90º +2 cos120º connecting rod is
 3 1 (a) Force due to gas pressure
= 2+ 3×
  + 5 
2   2 
 (
+ 3 ×) 0 + 2 ×
 1
 −
 2
 (b) Force due to inertia of piston
 (c) Force due to friction of connecting rod
= 5 kN (d) Force due to crank pin
Resolving all forces vertically TNPSC AE 2013
∑ V = 2sin 0º + 3 sin 30º + 5sin 60º Ans. (a) : Force due to gas pressure is the maximum
force acts on the connecting rod.
+ 3 sin 90º +2sin120º
10. Calculate the resisting torque for static
3 5 3  3 equilibrium in the following figure:
= 0+ + + 3 +  2 × 
2 2  2 
= 8.66 kN
The magnitude of the resultant forces
R = (∑ H ) 2 + (∑ V ) 2
= (5) 2 + (8.66) 2 (a) 100 N-cm (b) 150 N-cm
= 9.99 (c) 200 N-cm (d) 300 N-cm
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
≃ 10kN
Direction of the resultant force Ans : (d) :
∑ V 9.99
tan θ = = = 1.732
∑ H 8.66
θ = 59.99 ≃ 60º
7. A particle in equilibrium cannot have
(a) Linear motion with constant speed
(b) Constant velocity
(c) Zero acceleration
(d) Zero velocity
(e) Curvilinear motion with constant speed T = F sin 30o × 30
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift = 20 × sin 30o × 30
Ans. (e) : A particle is said to be in equilibrium if the = 300 N-cm
net force acting on the particle is zero. By Newton's 11. Three forces P, Q and R are acting
second law, the acceleration of such objects will be concurrently. The included angles are α, β and
zero. γ. According to Lami's theorem
As a result, either the body is at rest (i.e. zero velocity) P Q R
or it is moving with a constant velocity (i.e. with (a) = =
sin α sin β sin γ
constant speed in a straight line).
8. If two of the three concurrent forces in P Q R
(b) = =
equilibrium have equal magnitude P and angle cos α cos β cos γ
α between them, the magnitude of third force is P Q R
(a) 2P cos (α /2) (b) 2P cos α (c) = =
tan α tan β tan γ
(c) 2P sin α (d) P cos α
(e) 2P sin (α /2) sin α sin β sin γ
(d) = =
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift P Q R
TNPSC AE 2018 HPPSC AE 2018
392
Ans. (a) : Lami's Theorem–"If a body is in 15. The angle between two forces P and Q is The
equilibrium under the action of three forces, then each resultant of these forces is
force is proportional to the sine of the angle between the (a) P 2 + Q2 + 2PQsin α
other two forces"
(b) P 2 + Q 2 + 2PQ cos α
(c) P2 + Q2
(d) P 2 + Q2 − 2PQ cos α
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Ans : (b)
Parallelogram law of forces:- It states that if two forces,
acting simultaneously on a particle, be represented in
P R Q magnitude and direction by the two adjacent side of a
= = parallelogram, then their resultant may be represented
sin α sin β sin γ
in magnitude and direction by the diagonal of a
12. The force applied on a body of mass 100 kg to parallelogram which passes through their points of
produce an acceleration of 5 m/s2 is intersection.
(a) 20 N (b) 100 N
(c) 500 N (d) None of these
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Ans. (c) : F = ma
= 100 × 5
= 500 N
13. Two Identical trusses supported a load of 100
N as shown in figure the length of each truss is R = P 2 + Q 2 + 2PQcos θ
0.1, cross sectional area is 200 mm2 Young's Qsin θ
modulus E = 200 GPa. The force in the truss tan α =
P + Qcos θ
AC (in N) is .
α → Angle make by Resultant force R from P.
16. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?
(a) Mass (b)Volume
(c) Time (d)Acceleration
(KPSC AE 2015)
Ans : (d) Scalar quantity:- Mass, volume, density.
Vector quantity:-Displacement, Valocity, acceleration.
100 N 17. If a suspended body is struck at the centre of
(a) 200 (b)300 percussion, then the pressure on the axis
(c) 50 (d)100 passing through the point of suspension will be:
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016 (a) Maximum (b) Minimum
Ans : (d) By Lami's Theorem– (c) Zero (d) Infinity
100 PAC HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
⇒ =
sin120 0
Sin(90 + 30 )
0 0 Ans : (c) If a suspended body is struck at the centre of
percussion, then the pressure on the axis passing
⇒ PAC = 100 N through the point of suspension will be zero.
14. Two parallel forces 100 kN and 75 kN act on a
body and have resultant of 25 kN. Then, the
two forces are
(a) Like parallel forces
(b) Unlike parallel forces
(c) Concurrent forces
(d) None of the above
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (b) : We know that, The centre of oscillation is termed as centre of
R2 = P2 + Q2 + 2PQ cos θ percussion. It is defined as that point at which a blow
Given, P = 100 kN, Q = – 75 kN may be struck on a suspended body so that the reaction
R2 = (100)2 + (–75)2 + 2 × 100 × (–75) × cos 0o at the support is zero.
R2 = 625 18. The effect of a force on a body depends on its :
R= 625 (a) Direction (b) Magnitude
R = 25 kN (c) Position (d) All of these
Hence, the two forces are unlike parallel forces. (OPSC AE. 2016)
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
393
Ans : (d) The effect of a force on a body depends on its: Ans : (c)
(i) Direction, (ii) Magnitude, (iii) Position (iv) Line of
action.
19. The horizontal and vertical components of a
force of 200 N acting on a body at an angle of
30° with the horizonatal is
(a) 100 3 and 100 N (b) 200 3 N and 200
N
400 Free body diagram.
(c) N and 400 N (d) 300 3 N and 300
3
N
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (a)

W F R
0
= =
sin150 sin120 sin 900
horizontal components = 200 cos 30° W sin120
F=
FH = 100 3N sin150
Vertical component = 200 sin30° F = 3W
Fv = 100 N 22. A 40 mm diameter water jet strikes a hinged
20. What is the thrust at the point 'A' in the post vertical plate of 800 N weight normally at its
shown in the figure? surface at its centre of gravity as shown in the
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I figure below:

The angle of deflection is nearly

(a) sin–1 0.353 (b) sin–1 0.321
–1
(c) tan 0.353 (d) tan–1 0.321
(a) 0.866 kN (b) 0.5 kN ESE 2018
(c) 1.388 kN (d) 1 kN Ans. (a) :
Ans : (a) Thrust at the point A= Vertical component of
force 1kN
Thrust force = 1 sin 60o
Thrust force = 0.866kN
21. A roller of weight W is to be rolled over a
wooden block as shown in the figure. The pull
F required to just cause the said motion.
taking moment about O at equilibrium position
F cosθ ⋅ x = W⋅y
L/2 L
F cosθ ⋅ = W sin θ
cos θ 2
F = W sinθ
ρAV2 = W sinθ
W π
(a) (b) W 103 × (0.04) 2 × 152 = 800 × sinθ
2 4
(c) 3W (d) 2 W sinθ = 0.353
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I θ = sin−1 (0.353)
394
23. A ball of weight 100N is tied to a smooth wall 25. If the sum of all the forces acting on a moving
by a cord making an angle of 30° to the wall. object is zero, the object will
The tension in the cord is (a) continue moving with constant velocity
200 (b) accelerate uniformly
(a) 200N (b) N (c) change the direction of motion
3 (d) slow down and stop
(c) 100N (d) 50 3N UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
ESE 2017 Ans. (a) : continue moving with constant velocity
Ans. (b) : 26. Two equal and mutually perpendicular forces
of magnitude ‘P’, are acting at a point. Their
resultant force will be
(a) P 2, at an angle of 30° with the line of
action of any one force.
(b) P 2, at an angle of 45° with the line of
action of each force.
By Lami's theorem (c) P 2, at an angle of 45° with the line of
T W R action of each force.
= = (d) Zero
sin 90° sin120° sin150°
T W 100 200 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
= = = Ans. (b) : P 2, at an angle of 45° with the line of
sin 90° sin120° 3/2 3
action of each force.
200 27. A body subjected to coplanar non-concurrent
T= N
3 forces will remain in a state of equilibrium if
24. In a given figure, when angles β = α, then the (a) ∑Fx = 0 (b) ∑Fy = 0
components (f1 and f2) of force F on either side (c) ∑M = 0 (d) All of the above three
are given by an expression: UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (d) : All of the above three
28. A rigid body is subjected to non-coplanar
concurrent force system. If the body is to
remain in a state of equilibrium, then
(a) ∑Fx = ∑Fy = ∑Fz = 0 (b) ∑Mx = ∑My = 0
(c) ∑My = ∑Mz = 0 (d) None of the above
F cos α Fsin α UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(a) f1 = f 2 = (b) f1 = f 2 = Ans. (a) : ∑ F = ∑ F = ∑ F = 0
sin(α + β) sin(α + β) x y z
29. One end of an uniform ladder, of length L and
F cos α Fsin α weight W, rests against a rough vertical wall
(c) f1 = f 2 = (d) f1 = f 2 =
cos(α + β) sin(α ) and the other end rests on rough horizontal
Fsin α ground. The coefficient of friction f is same at
(e) f1 = f 2 = each end. The inclination of ladder when it is
sin(β) on the point of slipping is
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) 1− f 2  1+ f 2 
Ans. (b) : Using Lami's theorem (a) tan −1  
 (b) tan −1  
 2f   2f 
 2f   2f 
(c) tan −1  2
(d) tan −1  
1+ f  1− f 2 
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
−1  1 − f 
2
f1 f2 F Ans. (a) : tan 
= =  2f 
sin α sin β sin 360° − ( α + β )  
Fsin α 30. In the following figure, the tension in the rope
So, f1 = − AC is
sin ( α + β )
Fsin β
f2 = − (α = β )
sin ( α + β )
Fsin α
Then, f1 = f2 =
sin ( α + β )
[–ve not considered in answer]
395
 (a) 17.32 N (b) 56.60 N 35. Polygon of forces is useful for computing the
(c) 169.90 N (d) 113.20 N resultant of
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I (a) concurrent spatial forces
Ans. (c) : (b) coplanar parallel forces
(c) coplanar concurrent forces
(d) coplanar collinear forces
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Ans. (c) : Coplanar concurrent forces
36. If the algebraic sum of all the forces acting on a
body is zero, then the body may be in
equilibrium provided the forces are
(a) parallel (b) like parallel
From Lamie's theorem (c) unlike parallel (d) concurrent
AC AD AB UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
= = Ans. (d) : Concurrent
sin120 sin 90 sin150
AD AB AD 10 37. The quantity whose dimensions are M2L2T–3
= ⇒ = could be the product of
sin 90 sin150 1 0.5 (a) force and velocity (b) mass and power
AD = 20 kg
(c) force and pressure (d) force and distance
AC AD UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
=
sin120 sin 90 Ans. (b) : Msass and power
AC = 20 × sin 120 = 20 × 0.860 kg 38. In case of concurrent coplanar forces, the
= 20 × 0.866 × 9.81 N condition of equilibrium is
AC = 169.91 N
(a) ∑ H = 0, ∑ V = 0, ∑ M = 0
31. When a body is in a state of equilibrium under
the action of any force system, the normal (b) ∑ H = 0, ∑ V = 0
stress at a point within the body depends upon (c) ∑ H = 0, ∑ M = 0
(a) elementary area ∆A surrounding the point (d) ∑ V = 0, ∑ M = 0
(b) elemental force ∆F acting normal to ∆A UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(c) the plane orientation containing the pointAns. (b) : ∑ H = 0, ∑ V = 0
(d) all the above three
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I39. If a body is in equilibrium then the following is
Ans. (d) : All the above three true:
(a) There is no force acting on the body
32. Two forces each equal to P/2 act at right angles.
Their effect may be neutralized by a third force (b) Resultant of all forces is zero but the
acting along their bisector in the opposite moments of forces about any point is not zero
direction with a magnitude of (c) The moments of the forces about any point is
(a) P (b) P/2 zero, but the resultant of all forces is not zero
(d) both (b) and (c)
P
(c) 2P (d) UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
2 Ans. (d) : Both (b) and (c)
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I40. Four forces P, 2P, 3 P & 4P act along the sides of
P a square, taken in order. The resultant force is
Ans. (d) :
2 (a) zero (b) 5P
33. A rigid body is subjected to non-coplanar (c) 2 2P (d) 2P
concurrent force system. If the body is to UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
remain in a state of equilibrium, then
(a) ∑ Fx = ∑ Fy = ∑ Fz = 0 Ans. (c) : 2 2P
(b) ∑ M x = ∑ M y = 0 41. According to the Newton’s law of gravitation,
the force of attraction, between the bodies of
(c) ∑ M y = ∑ M z = 0 masses m1 and m2 situated at a distance ‘d’
(d) none of the above apart, is given by
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
m m2 m12 m 2
Ans. (a) : ∑ Fx = ∑ Fy = ∑ Fz = 0 (a) F = G 1 2 2 (b) F = G
"# # # d d2
34. The resultant of forces P = -2 i - 3j and 2 2
"# # # m1 m2 m1m 2
Q = 3i - 4j will lie in (quadrants to be reckoned (c) F = G (d) F = G
d2 d2
anticlockwise) quadrant UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(a) first (b) second (c) third (d) fourth
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I Ans. (d) : F = G m1m 2
Ans. (d) : Fourth d2
396
 2. Moments and Couples 45. The moment of the force about a point is equal
to the algebric sum of the component forces
42. Two non-collinear parallel equal forces acting about the same point is known as
in opposite direction (a) Tresca theory
(a) balance each other (b) Law of Parallelogram
(b) constitute a moment (c) Law of tringle
(c) constitute a couple (d) Varignon's theorem
(d) constitute a moment of couple HPPSC AE 2018
TNPSC 2019 TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (c) : Two non-collinear parallel equal force acting Ans. (d) : The moment of the force about a point is
in opposite direction constitute a couple. equal to the algebric sum of the component forces about
the same point is known as Varignon's theorem.
46. When trying to turn a key into a lock, the
following is applied :
(a) Coplanar force (b) Lever
(c) Moment (d) Couple
C = P × d (clock-wise) HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
43. Varignon's theorem of moments states that if a UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
number of coplanar forces acting on a particle Ans : (d) When trying to turn a key into a lock, the
are in equilibrium, then couple is applied.
(a) Their algebraic then Couple:- The two equal and opposite forces, whose line
(b) Their lines of action are at equal distances of action are different, form a couple.
(c) The algebraic sum of their moments about
any point is their plane is zero
(d) The algebraic sum of their moments about
any point is equal to the moments of their
resultant forces about the same point
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 Moment of a couple = P × x.
Ans. (d) : Varignon's Theorem– The moment of 47. A 12 kN force produces a moment of 96 kN-m
resultant of concurrent forces about any point is equal to then, the moment arm is
the algebraic sum of the moments of its components (a) 2 m (b) 4 m
about the same point. (c) 6 m (d) 8 m
44. If a force (F) is acting on a rigid body at any TSPSC AEE 2015
point P, then this force (F) can be replaced by: Ans : (d) Given, F = 12 KN
T = 96 KN -m
We know that, T = F× d
d = 8m
48. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) the algebraic sum of the forces constituting
(a) An equal, opposite and parallel force (F) the couple is zero
applied at point Q together with a couple (b) the algebraic sum of the force, constituting
(b) An equal, parallel and same sense force (F) at the couple, about any point is same
point Q together with a couple (c) a couple cannot be balanced by a single force
(c) A moment at point Q only but can be balanced only by a couple of
(d) An equal, opposite and parallel force (F) only opposite sense
at point Q (d) all statements
UPRVUNL AE 2016 TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (b) : If a force (F) is acting on a rigid body at any Ans. (d) : All statements are correct.
point P, then this force (F) can be replaced by an equal, 49. Varignon’s theorem is related to
parallel and same sense force (F) at point Q together (a) Principle of moments
with a couple. (b) Principle of momentum
(c) Principle of force
(d) Principle of inertia
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (a) : Principle of moments
50. A rigid body is acted upon by a couple. It
undergoes
(a) translation (b) plane motion
(c) translatory rotation (d) rotation
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Ans. (d) : Rotation
397
51. The dimensions of angular velocity are given 3. The magnitude of limiting friction bears a constant
by ratio to the normal reaction between the mating
(a) M0L1T–1 (b) M0L2T–1 surface.
0 0 –2
(c) M L T (d) M0L0T–1 4. Limiting friction is independent of the area and
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I shape of contact surface.
Ans. (d) : M0L0T–1 5. Limiting friction depends upon the nature
52. Opening a Limca bottle is due to (roughness or smoothness) of the surface in contact.
(a) moment (b) couple 6. At low velocities between sliding surface, the
(c) torque (d) parallel forces friction force is practically independent of the
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I velocity. However, slight reduction in friction
Ans. (a) : Moment occurs when the speed are high.
53. Which of the following statement is correct? 56. If F is the limiting friction and RN is the normal
(a) The algebraic sum of forces constituting the reaction of the surfaces of contact of two
couple is zero
bodies, then the coefficient of friction µ is
(b) The algebraic sum of the moments of forces
constituting the couple about any point is expressed as:
same (a) µ = RN/F (b) µ = F/RN
(c) A couple cannot be balanced by a single force (c) µ = 2F/RN (d) µ = 0.5F/RN
(d) All of the above (e) µ = 0.5RN/F
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
Ans. (d) : All of the above Ans. (b) :
54. Cycle pedalling is an example of
(a) couple
(b) moment
(c) two equal and opposite forces
(d) two unequal parallel forces
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Ans. (a) : Couple

3. Friction Where,
S = Total reaction with the normal reaction.
55. The maximum value of _____, which comes The ratio of friction force to normal reaction is called
into play, when a body just begins to slide over
coefficient of friction (µ).
the surface of other body, is known as _____.
(a) Kinetic friction, Limiting friction F
So, µ=
(b) Dynamic friction, Limiting friction RN
(c) Solid friction, Limiting friction F
(d) Boundary friction, Limiting friction tanφ = µ = , φ → Friction angle
RN
(e) Static friction, Limiting friction
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) 57. The coefficient of rolling resistance is defined
Ans. (e) : The maximum value of static friction, which as the ratio between
comes into play, when a body just begins to slide over (a) Rolling resistance to lateral load
the surface of the other body, is known as limiting (b) Lateral load to rolling resistance
friction. (c) Rolling resistance to normal load
Static Friction–The static friction is the frictional force (d) Normal load to rolling resistance
that develops between mating surface when subjected to TNPSC AE 2017
external force but there is no relative motion between Ans. (c) : The coefficient of rolling resistance is defined
them. as the ratio between Rolling resistance to normal load.
Dynamic Friction–The dynamic friction is the F
frictional force that develops between mating surface Rolling resistance coefficient (Crr) = R
when subjected to external forces and there is relative N
motion between them. The dynamic friction is also 58. On a ladder resting on a smooth ground and
known as kinematic friction. leaning against rough vertical wall, the force of
Laws of Solid Friction [Static or Dynamic] friction acts
1. Friction acts tangential to the surface in contact and (a) upward at its upper end
is in a direction opposite to that in which motion is (b) towards the wall at the upper end
to impend i.e. take place. (c) towards the wall at lower end
2. Friction force is maximum at the instant of (d) downward at its upper end
impending motion. Its variation from zero to BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
maximum value [Limiting friction] depends upon TNPSC AE 2018
the resultant force tending to cause motion. UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
398
Ans : (a) Ans. (c) : Given,
W = 1000 N
µ = 0.5
P = 100 N

for smooth ground

µ1 = 0
on a ladder resting on a smooth ground and leaning Frictional force (F) = µN
against rough vertical wall, the force of friction acts = 0.5 × 1000 (∵ N = W)
towards the wall at the upper end. = 500 N
59. The coefficient of friction is the ratio of Since applied force (100N) is less than limiting friction,
(a) the normal reaction to the limiting force of body will be at rest. As long as the body, is at rest
friction F = P = 100 N
(b) The weight of the body to limiting force of 62. A 13 m long ladder is placed against a smooth
friction vertical wall with its lower end 5 m from the
(c) the limiting force of friction to the normal wall. What should be the coefficient of friction
reaction between the ladder and the floor so that the
(d) the weight of the body to the normal reaction ladder remains in equilibrium?
TSPSC AEE 2015 (a) 0.29 (b) 0.25
Ans : (c) The coefficient of friction is the ratio of the (c) 0.21 (d) 0.11
limiting force of friction to the normal reaction ESE 2018
Ans. (c) : Using equilibrium equation

F = µR.
F N2 = µN1
µ=
R N1 = W (∵ µ2N2 = 0) Because wall is smooth
µ = Coefficient of friction. Taking moment about A
F = Limiting force of friction W × 2.5 + µ1N1 × 12 = N1 × 5
R = Normal reaction.
µ1 = 0.208
60. Which statement is wrong in wedge friction? µ1 ⇒ 0.21
(a) To lift heavy block through small distances
(b) To lift heavy block through large force 63. A body of weight 50 N is kept on a plane
(c) To slightly slide one end of the beam relative inclined at an angle of 30º to the horizontal. It
to another end is in limiting equilibrium. The coefficient of
(d) Weight of wedge is neglected compared to friction is equal to-
weight to be lifted 1
(a) (b) 3
TNPSC AE 2013 3
Ans. (b) : Wedge–
• Simple machines used to raise heavy loads. 1 3
(c) (d)
• Force required to life block is significantly less than 50 3 5
block weight. RPSC AE 2018
• Friction prevents wedge from sliding out. Ans. (a) : Given:
• Minimum force D required to raise block. mg = 50 N
61. A box weight 1000 N is placed on the ground. θ = 30º
The coefficient of friction between the box and
For limiting equilibrium
the ground is 0.5. When the box is pulled by a
100 N horizontal force, the frictional force mg sin 30º = µ × R
developed between the box and the ground at mg sin 30º = µ × mg cos 30º
impending motion is µ = tan 30º
(a) 50 N (b) 75 N 1
(c) 100 N (d) 500 µ=
ESE 2018 3
399
64. A block of mass (m) slides down an inclined α is angle of contact between rope and cylinder
plant (coefficient of friction = µ) from the rest α = π radian
as in figure. What will be the velocity of block 3m
when it reaches the lowest point of plane? = e µπ
m
3 = eµπ
1.098 = µπ
µ = 0.349
≈ 0.35
66. The angle of inclination of the plane at which
(a) 2gh (1 – µ cot θ) (b) 2gh (1 − µ cot θ ) the body begins to move down the plane, is
called–
(c) 2ghµ (1 − cot θ ) (d) 2gh (1 − µ sin θ ) (a) Angle of friction (b) Angle of repose
(c) Angle of projection (d) None of these
(e) 2gh ( µ − tan θ ) Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
CGPSC AE 2014- I Ans. (b) : Angle of repose– Minimum angle of inclined
Ans. (b) : Kinetic energy at lowest point on inclined plane which causes on object to slide down the plane.
plane of the block is 67. Coefficient of friction depends upon
1 2 (a) Area of contact only
∴ mV = mgh–energy loss due to friction (b) Nature of surface only
2
(c) Both (a) and (b)
h
= mgh − µR × (d) None of these
sin θ Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Ans. (b) :Coefficient of friction depends upon nature of
surface only.
68. A block weighing 981 N is resting on a
horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction
between the block and the horizontal surface is
0.2. A vertical cable attached to the block
h provides partial support as shown. A man can
= mgh − µ × mg cos θ×
sin θ pull horizontally with a force of 100N. What
will be the tension 'T' in the cable if the man is
V = 2gh [1 − µ cot θ] just able to move the block to the right?
h
is distance covered by block during motion on
sin θ
inclined plane.
65. What is the minimum coefficient (µ) of friction (a) 176.2N (b) 196.0 N
between the rope and the fixed shaft which will (c) 481.0N (d) 981.0N
prevent the unbalanced cylinder from moving? OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
Ans. (c) : Free body diagram

(a) µ = 0.333 (b) µ = 0.350

(c) µ = 0.253 (d) µ = 0.372
APPSC-AE-2019 Since,
Ans. (b) : N+T=W
N + T = 981....................(i)
µN = 100 ...................(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii),
100 1000
N= = = 500
0.2 2
T = 981 – 500
T = 481N
T1 69. Limiting friction depends upon
= eαθ (a) Materials of the body in contact
T2 (b) Weight of the body to be moved
400
 (c) Roughness of surface of contact of the two (a) 0.067 (b) 0.087
bodies (c) 0.098 (d) 0.092
(d) All of the above UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 Ans. (b) :
Ans : (d) : Limiting Friction- The maximum value of
frictional force, which comes into play when a body just
begins to slide over the surface of the other body, is
known as limiting friction. Limiting friction depends
upon
• Materials of the body in contact.
• Weight of the body to be moved.
• Roughness of surface of contact of the two bodies.
70. A block resting on an inclined plane begins to
slide down the plane when the angle of R – 35 g = 0
inclination is gradually increased to 30°. The R = 35 g
coefficient of friction between the block and the F = µR
plane is:- F 30
(a) 0.50 (b) 0.578 µ= = = 0.087
R 35 × 9.8
(c) 0.72 (d) 0.866 75. Two bodies of mass m and M are hung at the
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I ends of a rope passing over a frictional pulley.
Ans. (b) : From this figure. The acceleration in which the heavier mass M
o
R = W cos 30 comes down is given by the following:
µR = W sin 30o g ( M + m) g ( M + m)
o o
µ × W cos 30 = W sin 30 (a) (b)
M +m M −m
gM g×M
(c) (d)
M +m M −m
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
g ( M + m)
Ans. (a) :
M +m
3 1 76. The maximum frictional force, which comes
µ× =
2 2 into play when a body first begins to slide over
µ = 0.5773 the surface of another body, is known as
(a) sliding friction (b) limiting friction
71. When the applied force is less than the limiting (c) kinetic friction (d) rolling friction
frictional force, the body will:- UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(a) Start moving UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(b) Remain at rest Ans. (b) : Limiting friction
(c) Slide backward 77. Tangent of angle of friction is equal to
(d) Skid (a) kinetic friction
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I (b) limiting friction
Ans. (d) : When the applied force is less than the (c) friction force
limiting frictional force, the body will remain at rest. (d) coefficient of friction
72. A 44 N block is thrust up a 30° inclined plane UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
with an initial speed of 5 m/sec. It travels a Ans. (d) : Coefficient of friction
distance of 1.5 m before it comes to rest. The 78. A body weight of 200 N is resting on a rough
frictional force acting upon it would be horizontal plane, and can be just moved by a
(a) 18.3 N (b) 15.3 N force of 80 N applied horizontally. What will
(c) 12.3 N (d) 9.3 N the value of the coefficient of friction?
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.5
Ans. (b) : 15.3 N (c) 0.3 (d) none of the above
73. Dynamic friction as compared to static friction UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
is
(a) less (b) same Ans. (a) : F = µR
(c) more (d) None of the above 80
µ= = 0.4
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I 200
Ans. (a) : less 79. The coefficient of friction depends upon
74. If a force of 30 N is required to move a mass of (a) speed of the body
35 kg on a flat surface horizontally at a (b) geometrical shape of the body
constant velocity, what will be the coefficient of (c) size of the body and nature of contacting
friction? surfaces
401
 (d) nature of contacting surfaces
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Ans. (d) : Nature of contacting surfaces
80. A steel wheel of 600 mm diameter rolls on a
horizontal steel rail. It carries a load of 500N.
The coefficient of rolling resistance is 0.3 mm.
The force necessary to roll the wheel along the
rail is– ∫
I xx = y2 .dA and I yy = x 2 dA∫
(a) 0.5 N (b) 5 N Where x and y the Co - ordinate of the differintial
(c) 15 N (d) 150 N elements of area dA. Since this area dA is multiplied by
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 the square of the distance, the moment of inertia is also
Ans. (d) : Given, called the second moment at area.
Diameter of wheel (d) = 600 mm 83. For principal axes, the moment of inertia will
Radius of wheel (r) = 300 mm be :
Load (W) = 500 N (HPPSC LECT. 2016)
Coefficient of rolling resistance (Crr)= 0.3 (a) Ixy = 0 (b) Ixy = 1
Let, Rolling friction force be FR (c) Ixy = ∞ (d) none of these
Ans : (b) For principal axes, the moment of Inertia
Ixy = 0
84. The moment of inertia of a rectangular section
of base (b), height (h) about its base will be :
hb 3 bh 3
(a) (b)
12 3
We know that, bh 3
hb 3
Rolling friciton force Fr (c) (d)
Crr = = 12 3
Normal force ( Load ) W 3
bh
∴ Fr = Crr × W = 0.3 × 500 (e)
36
Fr = 150 N CGPSC AE 2014- I
Ans. (b) : Moment of inertia of a rectangular section
4. Moment of Inertia about its base (x - x).

81. Moment of Inertia of an area dA at a distance x

from a reference axis is:
(a) ∫xdA (b) ∫x2dA
3
(c) ∫x dA (d) ∫x4dA
(HPPSC LECT. 2016)
Ans : (b) Moment of Inertia of an area dA at a distance
x from a reference axis is ∫x2dA I x − x = I CG + Ax 2
bh 3 h
I C.G. = , A = b × h, x =
12 2
2
bh 3 h bh 3 bh 3 bh 3
I x −x = + b×h ×  = + =
12 2 12 4 3

The axial moment of inertia of a plane area is the bh 3

I x−x =
geometrical characteristic of the area defined by the 3
integrals 85. Moment of inertia of a quarter circle (diameter
Ixx = ∫y2.dA and Iyy = ∫x2.dA = d) about its straight edge is given by :
82. Moment of inertia of a body does not depend πd 4 πd 4
on (a) (b)
(a) Axis of rotation of the body 64 128
(b) Mass of the body πd 4 πd 4
(c) (d)
(c) Angular velocity of the body 256 512
(d) distribution of mass in the body
(KPSC AE 2015) πd 4
(e)
Ans : (c) Moment of Inertia of a body does not depend 32
on angular velocity of the body CGPSC AE 2014- I
402
Ans. (c) : Moment of inertia of an elliptical area about the major
axis
π
I xx = xy 3
4
Moment of inertia of an elliptical area about minor axis
π
I yy = yx 3
4
90. Statement (I): Two circular discs of equal masses
1  πd 4  and thickness made of different materials will
I OX = × 
4  64  have same moment of inertia about their central
axes of rotation.
πd 4 Statement (II): Moment of inertia depends upon
I OX = the distribution of mass within the body.
256
86. The radius of gyration 'k' for a solid cylinder of ESE 2017
radius 'R' is equal to Ans. (d) : Mass moment of inertia for a uniform disc
about its axis of rotation
(a) 2R (b) R / 2
(c) 0.6324 R (d) 0.5 R MR 2
I=
TNPSC AE 2017 2
Ans. (b) : The radius of gyration 'k' for a solid cylinder ρAtR 2
I=
of radius 'R' is equal to R / 2 . 2
87. The radius of gyration of a disc type fly wheel ∵ Mass & thickness is same,
of diameter D is
ρ1A1t = ρ2A2t
(a) D (b) D/2
3 ρ A tR 2 π
(c) D/4 (d) D I1 = 1 1 1 = ρ1R14 t
2 8
2
TNPSC AE 2018 ρ2 A 2 tR 22 π
I2 = = ρ2 R 42 t
Ans. (c) : I = AK2 2 8
If ρ1 > ρ2, R1 < R2, I1 > I2
π 4 Hence statement-I is wrong.
D
I 64
K= = 91. A polar moment of Inertia (I) for hollow shaft
A π 2 with external diameter (D) and internal
D
4 diameter (d) is given by:

K=
D
(a)
32D 4
(b)
(
π D4 − d 4 )
4 πd 4 64
88. What is the unit of moment of inertia of an
area. (c)
(
π D4 − d 4 ) (d)
(
32 D4 − d 4 )
(a) kg m2 (b) kg m 32 π
(c) m3 (d) m4 CIL (MT) 2017 IInd Shift
(e) kg m3 (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift Ans. (c) :
Ans. (d) : Units of the mass moment of inertia are kg-
m2, gram-cm2. Polar moment of inertia of hollow haft =
(
π D4 − d 4 )
Units of the area moment of inertia are m4, mm4. 32
89. Moment of inertia of an elliptical area about 92. Moment of inertia of an area always least with
the major axis is respect to
(a) πxy3/4 (b) πxy3/3 (a) Bottom-most axis (b) Radius of gyration
2 3
(c) πx y /4 (d) πx2y3 (c) Central axis (d) Centroidal axis
2 3 Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
(e) πx y /3
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift Ans. (d) : The moment of inertia about any axis passing
Ans. (a) : through centroid is zero so Moment of inertial of an
area always least with respect to centroidal axis.
93. Polar moment of inertia (Ip), in cm4, of a
rectangular section having width, b = 2 cm and
depth, d = 6 cm is :
(a) 40 (b) 20
(c) 8 (d) 80
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
403
Ans : (a) :
Polar moment of inertia (J) = Ix + Iy
bd 3 db3
= +
12 12
2 × 63 2 3 × 6
= +
12 12
4
= 40 cm Given-
94. Radius of gyration of a circular section with IL-L = IT-A
diameter D is mR 2 mR 2 1
D D = + mL2
(a) (b) 2 4 12
2 4 2
L
(c)
D
(d)
D R  = 3
3  
3
APPSC-AE-2019 [L / R ] = 3
π π 2 98. The moment of inertia of a square side (a)
Ans. (b) : For circular section I = d4, A = d
64 4 about an axis through its center of gravity is
π (a) a4/4 (b) a4/8
d4 4
(c) a /12 (d) a4/36
I 64 d
Radius of gyration = k = = = Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
A π 2 4
d Ans. (c) :
4
95. Moment of Inertia about the centroidal axis of
elliptical quadrant of base 'a' and height 'b' is
π ab 2 2 π ab 3 3
(a) (a + b ) (b) (a + b )
24 24
π ab 2 2 π ab 3 3
(c) (a + b ) (d) (a + b )
16 24
TNPSC AE 2013
π ab 2 a4
Ans. (c) : I =
16
( a + b2 ) IXX = IYY =
12
96. When a body of mass moment of Inertia I is 99. Ratio of moment of Inertia of a circular body
rotated about that axis with an angular velocity about its x axis to that about y axis is
ω, then the kinetic energy of rotation is (a) 0.5 (b) 1.0
(a) 0.5 I.ω. (b) I.ω. (c) 1.5 (d) 2.0
(c) 0.5 I.ω2 (d) I.ω2 TNPSC AE 2014
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (c) : Kinetic energy of rotation is given as Ans. (b) : I = πd , I = πd
4 4

x −x y− y
1 64 64
KE = Iω 2
2
l
97. Length to radius ratio of a solid cylinder is
r
such that the moments of inertia about the
longitudinal and transverse axes are equal is
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 2
TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (b) : MOI of a uniform solid cylinder about
longitudinal axis
mR 2 πd 4
I L−L = I z −z = I xx + I yy =
2 32
MOI of a uniform solid cylinder about transfer πd 4

axis I x −x
then = 64 = 1
1 1 I y−y πd 4
I T − A = mR + mL
2 2

4 12 64
404
 5. Centroid and Center of Gravity 103. Centre of gravity of a thin hollow cone lies on
the axis at a height of :
(a) one-fourth of the total height above base
100. The C.G. of a solid hemisphere lies on the
(b) one-third of the total height above base
central radius
(c) one-half of the total height above base
(a) at distance 3r/2 from the plane base
(d) three-eighth of the total height above the base
(b) at distance 3r/4 from the plane base
(c) at distance 3r/5 from the plane base HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
(d) at distance 3r/8 from the plane base Ans : (b)
TNPSC 2019
3r
Ans. (d) : C.G. of hemisphere is at a distance of
8
from its base measured along the vertical radius.

Centre of gravity of a thin hollow cone lies on the axis

at a height of one-third of the total height above base.
104. The centre of gravity of a hemisphere of
diameter 80 mm form its base diameter is
101. The coordinates of centroid of given geometry (a) 15 mm (b) 40 mm
ABCDEFA [DE = 20 mm, EF = 80 mm, FA = (c) 20 mm (d) 10 mm
100 mm, AB = 20mm] will be given as : (a is TSPSC AEE 2015
origin) Ans : (a)

The centre of gravity of a hemisphere is at a distance of

3r/8 from base
(a) (60, 20) (b) (25, 60) C.G = 3r/8 (2r = d= 80mm)
(c) (25, 65) (d) (65, 25) C.G = 15 mm.
(e) (25, 40) 105. The base of triangle is 60 mm and height is 50
CGPSC AE 2014- I mm. The moment of inertia about its base 'BC' is
Ans. (c) : The coordinates of centroid is ( x, y ) (a) 2,08, 333.33mm4 (b) 6.25,000 mm4
(c) 9,00,000 mm4 (d) 3,00, 000mm4
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (b)

a 1x 1 + a 2 x 2 bh 3
x= IGG =
a1 + a 2 36
80 × 20 × 10 + 80 × 20 × 40 bh 3
= I BC =
80 × 20 + 80 × 20 12
x = 25mm
60 × ( 50 )
3
a y + a 2 y 2 80 × 20 × 40 + 80 × 20 × 90 I BC =
y= 1 1 = = 65mm 12
a1 + a 2 80 × 20 + 80 × 20
IBC = 625000 mm4.
So coordinates of centroid (25, 65) 106. The centre of gravity of a plane lamina is not at
102. Shear centre of a semicircular arc is at : its geometrical centre, if it is a
(a) 4r/π (b) 3r/π (a) circle (b) square
(c) 2r/π (d) r/π (c) rectangle (d) right angled triangle
(HPPSC AE 2014) UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Ans : (a) Shear centre of a semicircular arc is at 4r/π. Ans. (d) : Right angled triangle
405
107. The eccentricity for the ellipse is ______ 1 and (b) Members of the truss are rigid
for hyperbola is ______ 1. (c) Members of the truss are subjected to bending
(a) equal to, equal to moments
(b) less than, greater than (d) Members are of uniform cross-section
(c) greater than, greater than
(d) less than, less than TNPSC AE 2013
(e) Less than, equal to Ans. (c) : Members of the truss are not subjected to
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) bending moments.
Ans. (b) : The eccentricity for the ellipse is less than 1 111. In a simple truss, if n is the total number of
and for hyperbola is greater than 1. joints, the total number of members is equal to
108. Which of the following represents the state of (a) 2n + 3 (b) 2n - 3
neutral equilibrium? (c) n + 3 (d) n - 3
(a) Cube resting on one edge
(b) A smooth cylinder lying on a curved surface Gujarat PSC AE 2019
(c) A smooth cylinder lying on a convex surface Ans : (b) :
(d) None of the above m = 2n − 3
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Ans. (d) : None of the above Where, m = member of joints
109. The coordinate of centroid (x, y) of quarter n = Total number of joints
circular lamina of radius (R), whose straight 112. A rectangular strut is 150 mm wide and 120
edges coincide with the coordinate axis in the mm thick. It carries a load of 180 kN at an
first quadrant, are given as: eccentricity of 10 mm in a plane bisecting the
(a) ( 0, 4R / 3π ) (b) ( 4R / 3π, 0 ) thickness as shown in the figure
(c) ( 4R / 3π, 8R / 3π ) (d) ( 4R / 3π, 4R / 3π )
(e) ( 8R / 3π, 8R / 3π )
CGPSC AE 2014- I
Ans. (d) : For circle
2r sin α
x=
3α

The maximum intensity of stress in the section

will be
(a) 14 MPa (b) 12 MPa
(c) 10 MPa (d) 8 MPa
ESE 2019
In case quadrant of a circle- Ans. (a) : Given,
π P = 180 kN
2α = 90 o = radians b = 150 mm
2
d = 120 mm
2r sin ( π / 4 ) 4r
x= = 2× e = 10 mm
π 3π Resultant normal stress is maximum at the right side
3×
4 fiber of the cross section, because the line of action of
The position of centroid with respect to the
eccentric axial compressive load is nearer to this fiber.
radii OA and OB will be
Maximum intensity of stress
4r 4r
oa ' = 2 × × cos 45 o = = σc + σb
3π 3π P M
4r 4r σmax = +
ob ' = 2 × cos 45 o = A Z
3π 3π P P×e P 6P × e
= + = +
6. Trusses and Beams A  db 2  bd db 2
 
 6 
110. Which one of the following is the wrong P  6 × e  180 × 103  6 × 10 
assumption: = 1+ = 1+
bd  b  120 × 150  150 
(a) Members of the truss are pin-connected to
each other = 14 MPa
406
113. Choose the correct combination of the stability Joint-C
and indeterminacy of the truss given.

From Lami's theorem

(a) Statically indeterminate and stable F FAC FBC
(b) Statically determinate and stable = =
(c) Unstable sin 90 sin120 sin150
(d) Statically determinate FAC = 50 × sin120 ⇒ FAC = 43.3 N
APPSC-AE-2019 (compressive)
Ans. (c&d) : No. of member m = 8 Joint-A
No. of joints, j = 6
m < 2j - 3
∴ The truss is internally unstable but determinate
∴ Both the options (c) and (d) are correct
114. Regarding the ability of a truss, the condition
m + r > 2j is
(a) Necessary
(b) Sufficient
(c) Necessary and Sufficient then,
(d) Sufficient but not necessary FAB = FAC cos 60
APPSC-AE-2019 = 43.3 × cos 60
Ans. (d) : Given condition FAB = 21.65 N (Tensile)
m + r > 2j RA = 37.498 N
m > 2j - r 116. In the joint method of plane truss analysis,
∴ The member is structurally stable but not value of forces in the member of truss can be
found on when joint has:
necessarily have m > 2j - r. It is just sufficient to have
m = 2j - r (a) Only four unknown force members
(b) Only three unknown force members
115. Determine the nature of force in member AB (c) Not more than two unknown force members
and AC respectively of the truss shown in (d) Any number of unknown force members
figure. A is hinge support and B is roller UPRVUNL AE 2016
support. The direction of reaction at supports
Ans. (c) : In the joint method of plane truss analysis,
(RA and RB) is also shown. Load 50N is acting
value of forces in the member of truss can be found out
at joint C. when joint has not more than two unknown force
members.
117. Which method is not there to analysing the
trusses?
(a) Graphical Method (b) Analytical Method
(c) Method of Joints (d) Method of Sections
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (b) : Analytical method is not to analysing the
trusses where as graphical method, joints method and
(a) Tensile, Compression method of sections are used to analysing the trusses.
(b) Compression, Compression 118. What will be the axial force in the member EC,
(c) Tensile, Tensile ED and DC of the plane truss (ABCDE) as
(d) Compression, Tensile shown in figure with end 'A' and 'B' is hinged
UPRVUNL AE 2016 to foundation?
Ans. (a) :

90º

407
 (a) FEC = FED = FDC = 0 3 1
(b) FEC = FED = 0; FDC = 1 kN (C) sin θ = =
(c) FEC = FED = 0; FDC = 1 kN (T) 3 5 5
(d) FEC = FED = FDC = 1 kN(T) ∑ M D = 0 ( + ve, - ve)
(e) FEC = FED = FDC = 1 kN (C) -FBG cos θ × 3 - FBG sin θ × 6 - 2 × 6 - 8 × 6 = 0
CGPSC AE 2014- I 6 6
Ans. (c) : Point E- − FBG × × FBG × − 60 = 0
5 5
 6 
−2  FBG ×  = 60
 5
FBG = −5 5 kN (compressive)
FBG = 11.18 kN (compressive)
120. A member in a truss can take
Point D-
(a) axial force and bending moment
(b) only axial force
(c) only bending moment
(d) bending moment and shear force
APPSC-AE-2019
Ans. (b) : Truss members take only axial forces
(tension or compression). They cannot take shear force,
F cos 45º = 1
FDC = F sin 45º bending moment and torsion.
= F cos 45º 121. The condition for a truss to be perfect is where
= 1 kN (T) m = number of members and J = number of
119. Determine the force in the member BG in the joints
given truss (a) m = 2j - 3 (b) m > 2j - 3
(c) m < 2j - 3 (d) m ≥ 2j - 3
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (a) : Statically determinate (Perfect truss)
m = 2j - 3
Truss unstable (deficient truss)
m < 2j - 3
statically indeterminate (redundant truss)
(a) 11.18 kN Tension m > 2j - 3
(b) 14.4 kN tension 122. The relation between the number of joints (J)
(c) 11.18 kN Compression and number of members (m) in a truss is
(d) 14.40 kN compression related by :
APPSC-AE-2019 (a) m = 2J + 3 (b) J = 3m + 3
Ans. (c) : Take section 1 - 1 as shown in figure. (c) m = 2J – 3 (d) J = 3(m–1)
To find the force in BG, consider the right part of OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
section (1) - (1) and take moment about 'D'.
Ans. (c) : The relation between the number of joints (J)
and number of members (m) in a truss is related by–
m = 2J − 3
123. For a perfect frame having 13 members, the
number of joints must be :
(a) 6 (b) 8
(c) 10 (d) 13
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
Ans. (b) : Given, m = 13
m = 2J – 3
13 = 2J – 3 ⇒ J =8
124. In method of section, the section must pass
through not more than members.
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 2
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
6 2 Ans. (a) : In method of section, the section must pass
cos θ = =
3 5 5 through not more than 3 members.
408
125. If n < (2j - 3), where n is number of members 131. For truss as shown below, the forces in the
and used in a frame structure and j is the member AB and AC are
number of joints used in the structure, then the
frame is called
(a) Perfect frame (b) Deficient frame
(c) Redundant frame (d) None of the above
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (b) : n < (2j – 3) (Deficient frame)
Where, n = number of members (a) Tensile in each
j = number of joints (b) Compressive in each
126. Which of the following equilibrium equation (c) Compressive and Tensile respectively
should be satisfied by the joints in truss:- (d) Tensile and Compressive respectively
(a) UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(b) ∑ H = 0, ∑ V = 0 Ans. (c) : Compressive and Tensile respectively
(c) ∑ V = 0, ∑ M = 0 132. The possible loading in various members
framed structure are
(d) ∑ H = 0, ∑ V = 0 and ∑ M = 0 (a) Buckling or shear
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I (b) Compression or tension
Ans. (b) : No bending moment acting on the joints in (c) Shear or tension
truss so equilibrium equation should be satisfied by the (d) Bending
joints in truss will be, UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
ΣH = 0, ΣV = 0
127. When the number of members ‘n’ in a truss is Ans : (b) The possible loading in various members
framed structure are compression or tension.
more than 2j-3, where ‘j’ is the number of
joints, the frame is said to be:- 133. A truss hinged at one end, supported on rollers
(a) Perfect truss (b) Imperfect truss at the other, is subjected to horizontal load
(c) Deficient truss (d) Redundant truss only. Its reaction at the hinged end will be:
(a) Horizontal (b) Vertical
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
(c) Resultant of horizontal and vertical
Ans. (d) : If (n > 2j – 3), then it become redundant (d) Difference between horizontal and vertical
truss. TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
128. Choose the correct relationship between the Ans. (c) : Its reaction at the hinged end will be resultant
given statements of Assertion (A) and Reason of horizontal and vertical.
(R).
R = ( ∆H ) + ( ∆V )
2 2
Assertion (A) : Only axial forces act in members
of roof trusses. 134. The force which is not considered in the
Reason (R) : Truss members are welded together. analysis of the truss is
Code : (a) External applied loads
(a) Both (A) & (R) are correct. (R) is the correct (b) Horizontal forces on joints
explanation of (A). (c) Vertical forces joints
(b) Both (A) & (R) are correct. (R) is not the (d) Support reactions
correct explanation of (A). (e) Weight of the members
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. Ans. (e) : Assumption for a perfect truss
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I (i) All the members of truss are straight and connected
Ans. (c) : (A) is true, but (R) is false. to each other at their ends by frictionless pins.
129. The relationship, between number of joints (J), (ii) All external forces are acting only at pins.
and the number of members (m), in a perfect (iii) All the members are assumed to be weightless.
(iv) All the members of truss and external forces acting
truss, is given by
at pins lies in same plane.
(a) m = 3j – 2 (b) m = 2j – 3 (v) Static equilibrium condition is applicable for
(c) m = j – 2 (d) m = 2j – 1 analysis of perfect truss.
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (b) : m = 2j – 3 7. Kinematics and Kinetics of
130. In the analysis of truss, the force system acting
at each pin Particle
(a) is concurrent but not coplanar. 135. The motion of a body moving on a curved path
(b) is coplanar and concurrent. is given by a equation x = 4 sin 3t and y = 4
(c) is coplanar and non-concurrent. cos3t. The resultant velocity of the car is
(d) does not satisfy rotational equilibrium. (a) 30 m/sec (b) 24 m/sec
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I (c) 12 m/sec (d) 40 m/sec
Ans. (b) : is coplanar and concurrent. TNPSC AE 2014
409
Ans. (c) : x = 4 sin 3t dx 1
v= =
y = 4 cos 3t dt ( 4x + 5 )
velocity component in x & y direction respectively then
dx dv ( 4x + 5 ) × 0 − 1( 4 )
ux = = 4cos3t × 3 a= =
( 4x + 5 )
2
dt dt
=12 cos 3t −4
dy a= ....(1)
( + 5)
2
vy = = −4sin 3t × 3 4x
dt
vy = – 12 sin 3t ∴ t = 12
Resultant velocity - t = 2x2 + 5x
2x2 + 5x = 12
v = u 2x + v 2y 2x2 + 5x + 2 = 0
(x + 4) (2x – 3) = 0
(12 cos 3t ) + ( −12 sin 3t )
2 2
= x = – 4, 2x – 3 = 0
3
= (144 ) sin 2 3t + cos 2 3t  x=
2
= 144 ×1 x = 4 value is substitute in equation (1)
v = 12 m / s  −4 −4 
a = = 
( ) ( )
2 2
136. The linear velocity of a body rotating at ω rad/s  
 4 × − 4 + 5 
 11 
 
along a circular path of radius r is
−4
(a) ω .r (b) ω/r = unit
2
(c) ω . r 2
(d) ω / r 121
APPSC AEE 2016 139. Time variation of the position of the3 particle in
rectilinear motion is given by x = 3t + 2t2 + 4t.
Ans. (a) : We know that, linear velocity,
If v is the velocity and a is the acceleration of
V = ω .r the particle in consistent units, the motion
137. The midpoint of a rigid link of a mechanism started with
moves as a translation along a straight line, (a) v = 0, a = 0 (b) v = 0, a = 4
from rest, with a constant acceleration of 5 m/ (c) v = 4, a = 4 (d) v = 2, a = 4
2
s . The distance covered by the said midpoint in (e) v = 4, a = 2
5s of motion is CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
(a) 124.2 m (b) 112.5 m Ans. (c) : Given,
(c) 96.2 m (d) 62.5 m x = 3t3 + 2t2 + 4t
ESE 2018
dx
Ans. (d) : Given, velocity (v) = = 9t 2 + 4t + 4 ...(1)
a = 5 m/s 2 dt
u = 0 (rest) dv
t = 5 sec Acceleration (a) = = 18t + 4 ...(2)
dt
1 ∵ Initially t = 0 so from equation (1) and (2)
Distance covered (s) = ut + at 2
2 v = 9t2 + 4t + 4
1 at t = 0, v = 4
= 0 + × 5 × 52 = 62.5 m a = 18t + 4
2
138. The functional reaction between time t and at t =0, a = 4
distance x, in m, is t = 2x2 + 5x.. The 140. When a particle moves with a uniform velocity
acceleration in m/s2 at t = 12 s is : along a circular path, then the particle has
(a) tangential acceleration only
−1 −4
(a) units (b) units (b) normal component of acceleration only
121 1331 (c) centripetal acceleration only
−4 4 (d) both tangential and centripetal acceleration
(c) units (d) units TNPSC AE 2013
121 1331
BHEL ET 2019 Ans. (c) : When a particle moves with a uniform
Ans. (c) : Given- velocity along a circular path, then the particle has
2
t = 2x + 5x centripetal acceleration only.
Acceleration a (m/s2) at t = 12 sec. 141. A motorist travelling at a speed of 18 km/hr,
t = 2x2 + 5x suddenly applies the brakes and comes to rest
dt after skidding 75 m. The time required for the
= 4x + 5 car to stop is
dx (a) t = 30.25 sec (b) t = 29.94 sec
dx 1 (c) t = 28.84 sec (d) t = 26.22 sec
or =
dt 4x + 5 TNPSC AE 2014
410
Ans. (b) : u = 18 km/hr (c) the reaction on the front wheels increases and
= 5 m/s on the rear wheels decreases
d = 75 m (d) the reaction on the rear wheels increases and
v=0 on the front wheels decreases
We know that after applies the brake- RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
v2 = u2 – 2ad Ans. (b) : The reaction on the outer wheels increases
(5)2 = 2 × a × 75 and on the inner wheels decreases.
1 146. The mathematical technique for finding the
a= m /s2 best use of limited resources in an optimum
6 manner is called:-
then v=u–at (a) Linear programming (b) Network analysis
u=a×t (c) Queueing theory (d) None of the above
1 UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
5= ×t
6 Ans. (a) : The mathematical technique for finding the
best use of limited resources in an optimum manner is
t = 30 sec called linear programming.
142. The angular motion of a disc is defined by the 147. An object falls from the top of a tower. If
relation (θ = 3t + t3), where θ is in radians and t comes down half the height in 2 seconds. Time
is in seconds. What will be the angular position taken by the object to reach the ground is:-
after 2 seconds? (a) 2.8 s (b) 3.2 s
(a) 14 rad (b) 12 rad (c) 4.0 s (d) 4.5 s
(c) 18 rad (d) 16 rad UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift Ans. (a) : We assume that the height of tower is h,
Ans. (a) : Given angular motion equation θ = 3t + t3 h 1
Motion covered in 2 seconds = 3 * 2 + 23 = 14 rad. So = ut + gt 2
2 2
the angular position after 2 seconds will be 14 rad. u = 0, t = 2s
143. The position of a particle in rectilinear motion h = 4g ...(i)
is given by the equation (x = t3 - 2t2 + 10t - 4),
where x is in meters and t is in seconds. What then,
will the velocity of the particle at 3s? v2 = u2 + 2gh
(a) 20 m/s (b) 25 m/s v = 2gh = 2g × 4g
(c) 15 m/s (d) 30 m/s
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift v=g 8 ...(ii)
3 2
Ans. (b) : Position (x) = t - 2t + 10t - 4 then,
v = u + gt
dx
Velocity ( v ) = = 3t 2 − 4t + 10 v=g×t
dt
At t = 3s v g 8
2
t= =
V = 3 × 3 - 4 × 3 + 10 = 25 m/s g g
144. A particle move along a straight line such that t = 2.83 s
distance (x) traversal in t seconds is given by x
= t2 (t - 4), the acceleration of the particle will 148. Two cars ‘A’ and ‘B’ move at 15m/s in the
be given by the equation same direction. Car ‘B’ is 300m ahead of car
(a) 3t3 - 2t (b) 3t2 + 2t ‘A’. If car ‘A’ accelerate at 6m/s2 while car ‘B’
(c) 6t - 8 (d) 6t - 4 continues to move with the same velocity, car
TNPSC AE 2018 ‘A’ will overtake car ‘B’ after:-
Ans. (c) : x = t2 (t - 4) (a) 7.5 s (b) 10 s
dx " (c) 12 s (d) 15 s
= V = 3t 2 − 8t UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
dt
Ans. (b) : Two can A & B move initial at 15 m/s
d 2 x dV " So initial velocity of car A with respect to car B
2
= = a = 6t − 8
dt dt is zero.
145. A motor car moving at a certain speed takes a So, car A will over take distance 300 m when
left turn in a curved path. If the engine rotates accelerate at 6 m/s2
in the same direction as that of wheels, then 1
S = ut + at 2
due to the centrifugal forces 2
(a) the reaction on the inner wheels increases and 1
on the outer wheels decreases 300 = 0 × t + × 6 × t 2
2
(b) the reaction on the outer wheels increases and
on the inner wheels decreases t = 10 s
411
149. Two balls are dropped from a common point 8. Kinematics and Kinetics of
after an interval of 1 second. If acceleration
2
due to gravity is 10m/s , separation distance 3 Rigid Body
second after the release of the first ball will be:- 152. The tension in the cable supporting a lift is
(a) 5 m (b) 15 m more when the lift is
(c) 25 m (d) 30 m (a) Moving downwards with uniform velocity.
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I (b) Moving upwards with uniform velocity.
Ans. (c) : The first ball has traveled for 3 seconds under (c) Moving upwards with acceleration.
gravity wit acceleration g and initial velocity u = 0 (d) moving downwards with acceleration.
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
1
S1 = 0 × 3 + × 10 × ( 3)
2
Ans : (c) The tension in the cable supporting a lift is
2 more when the lift is moving upwards with
S1=45 m acceleration.
Then second ball has traveled for 2 seconds 153. An object having 10 Kg mass and weights as
Then, 9.81 Kg on a spring balance. The value of "g"
1 at that place is
S2 = 0 × 2 + × 10 × ( 2 )
2
(a) 9.81 m/s2 (b) 10.m/s2
2 2
(c) 0.981m/s (d) 98.1 m/s2
S2 = 20 m
UJVNL AE 2016
Then, distance between them will be
Ans : (c) Given, Object mass = 10 kg
S1 − S2 = 45 − 20 = 25 m Spring weight = 9.81 N
150. .......... represents the area under acceleration - W = mg
time graph. 9.81 = 10 × g
(a) Acceleration (b) Displacement g = 0.981 m/sec2
(c) Motion (d) Change in velocity 154. A rigid body can be replaced by two masses
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) placed at fixed distance apart. The two masses
form an equivalent dynamic system, if (select
Ans : (d) Change in velocity represent the area under the most appropriate answer).
acceleration - time graph. UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
(a) The sum of the two masses is equal to the
total mass of the body.
(b) The centre of gravity of two masses coincide
with that of the body
(c) The sum of the mass moment of inertia of the
masses about their centre of gravity is equal
to the mass moment inertia of the body.
(d) All of the above.
dv
a= Ans : (d) (i) The centre of gravity of two masses
dt coincide with that of the body
dv = a dt (ii) The sum of the two masses is equal to the total mass
of the body
∫ dv = ∫ a dt (iii) The sum of the mass moment of inertia of the
v 2 − v1 = ∫ a dt masses about their centre of gravity is equal to the mass
moment inertia of the body
151. The speed of a particle moving in circular path 155. If the body falls freely under gravity, then the
is 600 rpm. Then, the angular velocity of the gravitational acceleration is taken as
particle is TSPSC AEE 2015
(a) 20π rad/ sec (b) 10 π rad/sec (a) + 8.91 m/s2 (b) – 8.91m/s2
(c) 20 /π rad/sec (d) 10/πrad / sec (c) + 9.81 m/s2 (d) – 9.81 m/s2
TSPSC AEE 2015 Ans : (c) If the body falls freely under gravity, then the
gravitational acceleration is taken as + 9.81 m/sec2
Ans : (a) Speed. fo a particle = 600 rpm.
156. A car moving with a uniform acceleration
2πN covers 450 m in 5 sec interval, and covers 700
Angular velocity = rad / sec.
60 m in next 5 seconds interval. The acceleration
2π× 600 of the car is:
= rad / sec. (a) 7.5 m/sec2 (b) 10 m/sec2
60
(c) 12.5 m/sec2 (d) 20 m/sec2
Angular velocity = 20π rad/sec. HPPSC LECT. 2016
412
 1 2 dv = 60t × dt + 40dt
Ans : (b) S1 = ut + at Integrating it
2
1
450 = 5u + a ×52 ∫ dv = ∫ 60 × dt + ∫ 40 dt
2 t2
450 = 5u + 12.5a ……. (i) v = 60 + 40t + c1 .....(3)
2
1 at t = 0, v = 0, ∴ c1 = 0
S2 = ut1 + a × t 22
2 60t 2
1 Then V = + 40t
a (10 )
2
700 + 450 = 10u + 2
2 ds 60t 2
1150 = 10u + 50a …….(ii) = + 40t
for equation (i) and (ii) dt 2
a = 10m/sec2 Again integrating
157. How much force will be exerted by the floor of 60t 2
the lift on a passenger of 80 kg mass when lift is ∫ ds = ∫ 2 ∫
dt + 40t dt
accelerating downward at 0.81 m/s2? 60t 3 40t 2
(a) 740 N (b) 700 N s= + + c2 .....(4)
(c) 720 N (d) 680 N 6 2
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift at t = 0, s = 0, ∴ c2 = 0
Ans. (c) : Fnet = mg-ma = m(g-a) 60t 3 40t 2
then s= +
= 80 (9.81-0.81) = 80×9 = 720 N 6 2
158. If velocity of a body change from 50 m/s to 200 at t=5s
m/s in 20 seconds, then the acceleration of the 60 × 53 40 × 52
body is: s= + , s = 1750 m
6 2
(a) 5.0 m/s2 (b) 6.5 m/s2
(c) 6.0 m/s 2
(d) 7.0 m/s2 160. A car travels from one city to another with the
(e) 7.5 m/s 2 uniform speed of 40 km/hr for half distance and
with the uniform speed of 60 km/hr for remaining
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) half distance. The average speed of car is:
Ans. (e) : v1 = 50 m/s, v2 = 200 m/s, t = 20 s (a) 40 km/hr (b) 45 km/hr
Then acceleration (a) is given as (c) 48 km/hr (d) 50 km/hr
a = rate change in velocity (e) 42 km/hr
dv 200 − 50 150 CGPSC AE 2014- I
a= = =
dt 20 20 Total distance
Ans. (c) : Average speed =
a = 7.5 m / sec 2 Total time
159. A particle of mass 1 kg moves in a straight line d d
+
under the influence of a force which increases 2 2 2 × 40 × 60
linearly with time at the rate of 60N/ s, it being = = = 48 km / hr.
 d / 2 d / 2  60 + 40
40 N initially. The position of the particle after  40 +
a lapse of 5s, if it started from rest at the origin, 60 
will be 161. An elevator has a downward acceleration of 0.1
(a) 1250 m (b) 1500 m g m/s2. What force will be transmitted to the
(c) 1750 m (d) 2000 m floor of elevator by a man of weight 'W'
ESE 2019 travelling in the elevator?
(a) W (b) W/10
Ans. (c) : Given, (c) 11W/10 (d) 9W/10
dF UPRVUNL AE 2016
m = 1 kg, = 60 N/s
dt Ans. (d) : Newton's Second Law of motion
dF = 60 dt Fnet = W - T = ma
∫ dF = ∫ 60 dt W-T=
W
g
× 0.1× g = 0.1× W
F = 60 t + c .....(1)
at t=0 F = 40
c = 40 [from (1)]
∴ F = 60t + 40 .....(2)
Using Newton's second law –
F = ma = 1 × a = a
From equation (2)
T = W - 01 W = 0.9 W
a = 60t + 40
dv 9
= 60t + 40 T= W
dt 10
413
162. Which of the following statements of Following equation obtained from Newton's second law
D’Alembert’s principle are correct? Fnet = R - mg
1. The net external force F actually acting on R - mg = ma
the body and the inertia force Ft together R = mg + ma = m(g + a)
keep the body in a state of fictitious R = 70 (9.81 + 2) = 826.7 N
equilibrium 165. Two blocks of 50 N and 100 N are connected by
2. The equation of motion may be written as a light cord passing over a smooth frictionless
F + (– ma) = 0 and the fictitious force (– pulley. The acceleration in blocks and tension
ma) is called an inertia force in rope are respectively given by: [g =
3. It tends to give solution of a static problem acceleration due to gravity]
an appearance akin to that of a dynamic (a) g/2, 40 N (b) g/3, 66.67 N
problem. (c) g, 200 N (d) g/5, 40 N
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (e) g/4, 50 N
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
CGPSC AE 2014- I
ESE 2020
Ans. (b) : Using Newton's second law of motion
Ans. (d) : 1, 2 and 3
163. A 2000 kg of automobile is driven down a 5
degree inclined plane at a 100 km/h, when the
brakes are applied causing a constant total
braking force (applied by the road on the tires)
of 7 kN. Determine the distance traveled by the
automobile as it comes to a stop.
(a) 146 m (b) 152 m
(c) 135.86 m (d) 122.44 m
(e) 149.5 m
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Ans. (a) : Given,
mass (m) = 2000 kg In equilibrium
inclination (θ) = 5º Fnet = T-50 = m1a ...........(i)
5 100-T = m2a ..........(ii)
velocity (v1) = 100 km/hr = 100 × = 27.78 m/s from equation (i)
18
braking force (fb) = 7 kN = 7000 N 50
T-50= ×a
g
50
T= × a + 50 .............(iii)
g
from equation (ii)
100
100 - T = a
g
100
T = 100 - a .............(iv)
Apply work-energy principle g
W1-2 = ( K.E ) 2 − ( K.E )1 equating equation (iii) & (iv)
100 100
1 a + 50 = 100 − a
(2000 g sin 5º)x - 7000 x = 0 − mv12 g g
2
- 5290 x = - 771728.4 150
a = 50
x = 145.88 ≃ 146 m g
164. Determine the apparent weight of a 70 kg man
in a elevator when the acceleration of elevator g
a=
is 2 m/s2 upwards. 3
(a) 700 N (b) 686.7 N summation of equation (iii) & (iv)
(c) 826.7 N (d) 560 N
(e) 4.67 N 50a 50
2T = 150 − = 150 −
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift g 3
Ans. (c) : As the elevator is moving upwards i.e. in the T = 66.67
direction of reaction force, therefore, the net force 166. A car of mass 150 kg is traveling on a
would be R-mg upwards. horizontal track at 36 Km/hr. The time needed
to stop the car is ______ (Take µ = 0.45).
(a) t = 2.26 sec (b) t = 3.20 sec
(c) e = 3.8 sec (d) e = 4.2 sec
TNPSC AE 2014
414
Ans. (a) : Given, 168. A car starting from rest attains a maximum
m = 150 kg, V = 36 km/hr = 10 m/s, µ = 0.45 speed of 100 kmph in 20 seconds. What will be
We know that, its acceleration assuming it is uniform?
Friction force = µ × mg (a) 1.0 m/s2 (b) 1.4 m/s2
2
F = 0.45 × 150 × 9.81 (c) 1.8 m/s (d) 2.0 m/s2
F = 662.175 N CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Let's suppose that the car stops after traveling a Ans. (b) : Initial velocity (u) = 0
distance d. During this time the entire kinetic energy Final velocity (v) = 100 kmph
will be exhausted into the work done by the friction 5 500
1 = 100 × = m/s
force F × d = mv 2 18 18
2 Time (t) = 20 sec.
1 2 v = u + at
662.175 × d = × 150 × (10) 500
2
v − u 500
d = 11.326 m ⇒a= = 18 = = 1.38 m / s
Then 2 2
v =u –2ad t 20 18 × 20
v=0 169. A body exerts a force of 1 kN on the floor of the
u2 = 2 a d lift which moves upward with a retardation of
(10)2 = 2 a × 11.362 1.5 m/s2. What is the mass of the body, in kg,
carried in the lift?
a = 4.414 m / s 2 (a) 120.33 (b) 101.94
Then v = u – at (c) 88.42 (d) 77.32
10 = 4.414 × t APPSC-AE-2019
t = 2.2652 sec. Ans. (a) : FBD of mass in the lift

167. The tension in the cable supporting a lift

moving upwards is twice the tension when the
lift moves downwards. The acceleration of the
lift is equal to
(a) g (b) g/2
(c) g/3 (d) g/4
TNPSC AE 2014
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 N = normal reaction between lift and mass
Ans. (c) : Case - I ∑ Fnet = 0
(N - mg) = m(-a) (-a = retardation)
1× 10 = m( g − a)
3

1× 103 = m(9.81 − 1.5)

1×103
m= = 120.33 kg
(9.81 − 1.5)
Then, T1 – mg = ma ...(1) 170. During elastic impact, the relative velocity of
Case - II the two bodies after impact is _____ the relative
velocity of the two bodies before impact
(a) equal to (b) equal and opposite to
(c) less than (d) greater than
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (b) : During elastic impact, the relative velocity of
the two bodies after impact is equal and opposite to the
mg – T2 = ma ...(2) relative velocity of the two bodies before impact.
Given that 171. A spring scale indicates a tension 'T' in the
T1 = 2 T2 right hand cable of the pulley system shown in
From equation (1) and (2)
mg – T2 = 2T2 – mg the figure. Neglecting the mass of the pulleys
3 T2 = 2 mg and ignoring friction between the cable and
pulley the mass 'm' is :
2
T2 = mg
3
Putting the value of T2 in equation (2)
2 g
mg − mg = ma a=
3 3
415
 2T T(1 + e 4 π ) 174. A circular disc rolls down without slipping on
(a) (b) an inclined plane. The ratio of its rotational
g g
kinetic energy to the total kinetic energy is.
4T 1 1
(c) (d) None of the above (a) (b)
g 4 2
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 1 2
UPRVUNL AE 2014 (c) (d)
3 3
Ans. (c) : UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
1 1
Ans : (c) Total kinetic Energy = Iω2 + mv 2
2 2
1 2
Rotational kinetic Energy = Iω
2
1
Moment of Inertia of Circular disc = mR 2
2
By resolving vertical forces, Σ Fv=0
R
⇒ T + 2T + T = mg Radius of gyration of circular disc =
⇒ 4T = mg 2
1 1 1
4T Total kinetic Energy = × mR 2 × ω2 + m ( R.ω)
2
⇒ m =
g 2 2 2
1 1
172. A car moving with uniform acceleration covers Total kinetic Energy = mR ω + mR ω
2 2 2 2

450 meter in first 5 second interval and covers 4 2

700 meters in next 5 second interval. The 3
Total kinetic Energy = mR 2 ω2
acceleration of the car is– 4
(a) 7 m/sec2 (b) 50 m/sec2 1  mR 2  2
(c) 25 m/sec 2
(d) 10 m/sec2 Rotational kinetic Energy =  ω
2 2 
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
Ans. (d) : Let, the car travels with the initial velocity u Rotational kinetic Energy = 1 m 2 R 2 ω2
and acceleration a. 4
considering case-1 Ratio of rotational kinetic Energy of the Total Kinetic
When displacement (s) = 450 m and time taken 1 2 2 2
t = 5 seconds mR ω
4 1
The displacement Energy = =
1 1 3
1 2 mR ω + mR ω
2 2 2 2

s = ut + at 4 2
2 175. The wheels of a moving car posses
1 2 (a) potential energy only
450 = u × 5 + at .............(i)
2 (b) kinetic energy of translation only
considering case-2 (c) kinetic energy of rotation only
When displacement (S) = 450+700 = 1150m (d) kinetic energy of translation and rotation both
and time taken (t) = 10 seconds TNPSC 2019
1150 = u×10+1/2a×102....(ii) Ans. (d) : The wheels of a moving car posses kinetic
By solving equation (i) and (ii) we get, energy of translation and rotation both.
a = 10 m / sec 2 176. A boy walks up a stalled escalator in 90
seconds. When the same escalator moves, he is
carried up in 60 seconds. How much time
9. Work, Power and Energy would it take him to walk up the moving
escalator?
173. The units of energy in SI units (a) 48 seconds (b) 36 seconds
(a) Joule (b) Watt
(c) Joule/sec. (d) Watt/sec. (c) 30 seconds (d) 24 seconds
UJVNL AE 2016 ESE 2017
Ans : (a) The units of energy in SI unit Joule Ans. (b) : Let 'ℓ' be length of escalator,
Energy:- ℓ
It may be defined as the capacity to do work. The Velocity of boy vb =
energy exists in many forms e.g. mechanical, electrical, 90
chemical, heat, light, etc. But we are mainly concerned ℓ
Velocity of escalator ve =
with mechanical energy. 60
416
If both start moving, 182. A block of 500N is to be moved upward for a
ℓ distance of 1.6 m on an inclined plane of 45º
Time = = 36 sec. with horizontal. Work done will be (µ = 0.25):
 ℓ   ℓ 
 +  (a) 1000 Nm (b) 100 Nm
 90   60 
(c) 500 2 Nm (d) 500 Nm
177. If a particle is in static equilibrium, then the UPRVUNL AE 2016
work done by the system of force acting on that Ans. (c) : Total force acting in upward direction
particle is:
(a) Negative (b) Infinity F = 500 sin 45 + µR
(c) Zero (d) Positive
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (c) : Static equilibrium is a state in which the net
force and net torque acted upon the system is zero. In
other words, both linear momentum and angular
momentum of the system are conserved.
178. Which conversion is incorrect?
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
(a) 1 kWh = 3.6×106 Nm 1 1
F = 500 × + 0.25 × 500 ×
(b) 1 Nm = 0.238×10-3 kcal 2 2
(c) 1 HP hr = 0.746 kWh 1
(d) 1kcal = 4.1868 Nm F = 500 × ×1.25
Ans : (d) (i) 1 kWh = 3.6×106 Nm 2
(ii) 1 Nm = 0.238×10-3 kcal Then to be moved upward for a distance 1.6 m on an
(iii) 1 HP hr = 0.746 kWh inclined plane.
(iv) 1cal = 4.1868 Nm 1
W = F × d = 500 × × 1.25 × 1.6
179. A body of mass 20 kg is lifted up through a 2
height of 4 m. How much work is done? (take g
= 9.81 m/s2) W = 500 2 N − m
(a) 648 J (b) 684 J 183. If m is the mass of the body and g is the
(c) 748 J (d) 784 J acceleration due to gravity then the
(e) 848 J gravitational force is given by:
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) (a) m × g3 (b) m × g2
Ans. (d) : Work done to left a mass of 20 kg upto 4 m (c) m/g (d) m × g
W = Force × distance CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
=m×g×4 Ans. (d) : Gravitational force = mass × Acceleration
= 20 × 9.81 × 4 due to gravity = m × g
= 784.80 N-m 184. The energy possessed by a body, for doing
= 784 J work by virtue of its position, is called-
180. A man weighing 900 N climbs a staircase of 15 (a) Potential energy (b) kinetic energy
m height in 30 seconds. How much power is (c) electrical energy (d) chemical energy
consumed? TNPSC AE 2018
(a) 150 watt (b) 250 watt Ans. (a) : The energy possessed by a body, for doing
(c) 350 watt (d) 450 watt work by virtue of its position, is called Potential energy.
(e) 2500 watt P. E. = mgh
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) 1
Ans. (d) : W = 900 N, h = 15 m, t = 30 sec. K. E. = mv 2
Power (P) = ? 2
E. E. = i2Rt
We know that,
185. A block A is dropped down along a smooth
Work done
P= inclined plane, while another block B is
time released for free fall from the same height
900 ×15 (a) Both will hit the ground simultaneously
P=
30 (b) Block A will have higher velocity than block
P = 450 Watt B while hitting the ground
181. Torque acting on a body of moment of Inertia (c) Block A will hit the ground earlier
(d) Block B will hit the ground earlier
(I) and angular acceleration (α) is: Gujarat PSC AE 2019
(a) 2 Iα (b) 22 Iα Ans : (a) : Initially both block have same potential
energy and at the lowest point both block have same
(c) 23 Iα (d) Iα kinetic energy in absence of friction.
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 So both block have same velocity and both will hit the
Ans. (d) : T = Iα ground simultaneously.
417
186. Wheel has mass 100 kg and radius of gyration Ans. (b) : By using conservation of mechanical energy,
of 0.2 m. The additional amount of energy 1 1
stored in flywheel, if its speed increases from 30 mv 2 = − kx 2 ...........(i) (–Ve → compression of
2 2
rad/s to 35 rad/s, will be: spring)
(a) 65 J (b) 650 kJ
(c) 650 J (d) 65 kJ 150 × 1000 × 4 10 ×1000 × x 2
=
(e) 65 MJ 9.81 1.25 ×10−2
CGPSC AE 2014- I x = 27.65 cm
Ans. (c) : Data given : 191. A body is pulled through a distance of 15 m
m = 100kg k = 0.2 along a level track. The force applied is 400 N,
ω1 = 30 rad/s ω 2 = 35 rad/s acting at an angle of 60° to the direction of
Then additional amount of energy & forced in flywheel, motion. Then the work done is
∆E = E 2 − E1 TSPSC AEE 2015
(a) 13.33 N-m (b) 3000 N-m
1 1
∆E = Iω 22 − Iω12 (c) 5196.15 N-m (d) 26.66 N-m
2 2 Ans : (b) Given,
1 Distance = 15 m
= mK 2  ω 22 − ω12 
2   Applied force = 400 N.
1 Acting angle = 60°
= × 100 × ( 0.2 ) [35 − 30][35 + 30]
2
work done = Fd cos 60
2
W = 400 × 15 cos 60
∆E = 650 J
W = 3000 N .m
187. A ball is thrown up. The sum of kinetic and 192. A body is moving with a velocity 1 m/s and a
potential energies will be maximum at force F is needed to stop it within a certain
(a) the ground (b) the highest point distance. If the speed of the body becomes three
(c) the centre (d) all the points times, the force needed to stop it within the
TNPSC AE 2017 same distance would be
Ans. (d) : A ball is thrown up. The sum of kinetic and (a) 1.5 F (b) 3.0 F
potential energies will be maximum at all the points. (c) 6.0 F (d) 9.0 F
1 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
mv2 + mgh = constant.
2 Ans. (d) : 9.0 F
Then we can say that summation of energy will remain 193. When a body is thrown up at an angle of 45°
constant at each point. with a velocity of 100 m/sec, it describes a
188. The potential energy an elevator losses in parabola. Its velocity on point of return down
coming down from the top of a building to stop will be
at the ground floor is (a) zero (b) 50 m/sec
(a) lost to the driving motors 100
(b) converted into heat (c) (d) 100 2m / sec
2m / s
(c) lost in friction of the moving surfaces UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(d) used up in lifting the counter poise weight
Ans. (c) : The velocity on point of return will be the
TNPSC AE 2017
velocity at the maximum height but at the highest point
Ans. (d) : The potential energy an elevator losses in
coming down from the top of a building to stop at the only the constant horizontal 0
velocity (4 cosθ)
ground floor is used up in lifting the counter poise = 100 cos 45
weight. 100
=
189. For a conservative force, the work done is 2m / s
independent of 194. The unit of energy in S.I unit is
(a) path (b) time (a) Dyne (b) Watt
(c) distance (d) All of the above (c) Newton (d) Joule
APPSC-AE-2019 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (d) : Conservative force are electrical force, Ans. (d) : Joule
gravitational force and elastic force etc. 195. A thin circular ring of mass 100 kg and radius
190. A truck weighing 150 kN and travelling at 2 2 m resting on a smooth surface is subjected to
m/sec impacts with a buffer spring which a sudden application of a tangential force of
compresses 1.25 cm per 10 kN. The maximum 300 N at a point on its periphery. The angular
compression of the spring will be : acceleration of the ring will be
(a) 26.6 cm (b) 27.6 cm (a) 1.0 rad/sec2 (b) 1.5 rad/sec2
(c) 28.6 cm (d) 30.6 cm (c) 2.0 rad/sec 2
(d) 2.5 rad/sec2
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
418
Ans. (b) : 450 – 30x + 450 – 30x = 4.5 (15+x) (15–x)
900 = 4.5 (152 – x2)
200 = 225 – x2
x2 = 25
x = 5 km/hr
200. Identify the pair which has same dimensions :
(a) Force and power
(b) Energy and work
Given F = 300 N, m = 100 kg, r = 2 m (c) Momentum and energy
Angular Acceleration (a) = rα (d) Impulse and momentum
By the Newton's second law UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
F = ma
Ans. (b) : Energy and work
F = mrα
201. 0.01 kilowatt is equal to
300 = 100 × 2 × α
(a) 10.01 J/s (b) 1.0 J/s
α = 1.5rad / sec 2 (c) 0.10 J/s (d) 0.01 J/s
196. A train crosses a tunnel in 30 seconds time. The UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
speed of the train at entry and at exit from the Ans. (a) : 10.01 J/s
tunnel are 36 and 54 km/hour respectively. If 202. The wheels of a moving car possesses
acceleration remains constant, the length of the (a) kinetic energy of translation only
tunnel is (b) kinetic energy of rotation only
(a) 350 m (b) 360 m (c) kinetic energy of translation and rotation both
(c) 375 m (d) 400 m (d) strain energy
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Ans. (c) : 375 m Ans. (c) : Kinetic energy of translation and rotation
197. If T1 and T2 are the initial and final tensions of both
an elastic string and x1 and x2 are the 203. The total energy possessed by moving bodies
corresponding extensions, then the work done (a) remain constant at every instant
is (b) varies from time to time
(a) (T2 + T1) (x2 – x1) (b) (T2 – T1) (x2 + x1) (c) is maximum at the start

(c)
( 2 1 )( 2 1 ) (d) ( 2 1 )( 2 1 )
T − T x + x T + T x − x (d) is minimum before stopping
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
2 2 Ans. (a) : Remain constant at every instant
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
204. The escape velocity on the surface of the earth is
Ans. (d) :
( T2 + T1 )( x 2 − x1 ) (a) 1.0 km/s (b) 3.6 km/s
2 (c) 8.8 km/s (d) 11.2 km/s
198. The escape velocity on the surface of the earth UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
is Ans. (d) : 11.2 km/s
(a) 11.2 km/s (b) 8.2 km/s 205. Inertia force of a body is expressed as
(c) 3.2 km/s (d) 1.2 km/s (a) product of mass of the body and the
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I acceleration of its centre of gravity in the
Ans. (a) : 11.2 km/s direction of acceleration
199. A motor boat whose speed in still water is 15 (b) product of mass of the body and the
km/hr goes 30 km downstream and comes back acceleration of its centre of gravity acting in
in a total time of four and half hours. The an opposite direction of acceleration
stream has a speed of (c) product of linear acceleration of the body and
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr its mass moment of inertia in the direction of
(c) 5 km/hr (d) 6 km/hr acceleration of its centre of gravity
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I (d) none of the above
Ans. (c) : Data given UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Speed of boat = 15 km/hr Ans. (b) : Product of mass of the body and the
Total time taken will 4.5 hr acceleration of its centre of gravity acting in an opposite
direction of acceleration
Let x be the speed (T) of steam
(T) = t1+ t2 206. Which one of the following is a scalar quantity?
(a) Force (b) Displacement
T=
30 30
SD SU
+ { Where }
SD = speed of down stream
SU = Speed of upstream
(c) Speed (d) Velocity
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
30 30 Ans. (c) : Speed
T= + 207. A bullet of mass 0.03kg moving with a speed of
SB + SS SB − SS
400 m/s penetrates 12 cm into a fixed block of
30 30 wood. The average force exerted by the wood
4.5 = +
15 + x 15 − x on the bullet will be
419
 (a) 30 kN (b) 20 kN 213. When a body of moment of inertial (I) is
(c) 15 kN (d) 10 kN rotated about that axis with an angular
ESE 2017 velocity, then the K.E. of rotation is
Ans. (b) : m = 0.03 kg (a) 0.5 Iω (b) Iω
v = 400 m/s (c) 0.5 Iω2 (d) Iω2
K.E. of bullet = Work done
TNPSC AE 2018
1
mv2 = Force × distance Ans. (c) : K.E. of rotation is given as
2
1
1
× 0.03 × (400)2 = Force × 0.12 ( K.E.) Rotation = Iω 2
2
2
F = 20 kN
208. A cricket ball of mass 175 gm is moving with a 10. Principle of Virtual Work and
velocity of 36 km/hr. What average force will Simple Machines
be required to stop the ball in 0.2 second?
(a) –5.75 N (b) –6.75 N 214. In actual machines mechanical advantage is
(c) –7.75 N (d) –8.75 N (a) unity
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I (b) less than unity
Ans. (d) : –8.75 N (c) less than velocity ratio
209. Which technique is utilized to find percent idle (d) greater than velocity ratio
time for man or machine? UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(a) Work sampling (b) Time study Ans. (c) : Less than velocity ratio
(c) Method study (d) ABC analysis
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
215. Which one of the following is not an example of
plane motion ?
Ans. (a) : Work sampling technique is utilized to find
(a) Motion of a duster on a black board.
percent idle time for man or machine.
(b) Motion of ball point of pen on the paper.
210. Dimensional formula ML2T-3 represents:- (c) Motion of a cursor on the computer screen.
(a) Work (b) Force (d) Motion of a nut on a threaded bolt.
(c) Momentum (d) Power
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
2 -3
Ans. (d) : Dimensional formula ML T represents Ans. (d) : Motion of a nut on a threaded bolt.
power. 216. The velocity ratio of a lifting machine is '8',
211. A bullet of 0.03 kg mass moving with a speed of which lifts a load 900 N by an effort of 150 N.
400 m/s penetrates 12cm into a block of wood. Then, the efficiency of the machine is
Force exerted by the wood block on the bullet (a) 75% (b) 70%
is:- (c) 65% (d) 60%
(a) 10 kN (b) 20 kN TSPSC AEE 2015
(c) 25 kN (d) 30 kN Ans : (a) Velocity ratio (V.R) = 8
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I lifted load (w) = 900N
Ans. (b) : Change in kinetic energy of bullet = work Effort (p) = 150 N.
done by bullet to penetrates into a block of wood mechanical advantage
1 2
Efficiency (η) =
mv = Force × distancea velocity ratio.
2
w 900
1 12 M. A = = =6
× 0.03 × ( 400 ) = Force ×
2
P 15
2 100
6
Force = 20 kN η=
8
212. A body moving with a velocity of 1 m/s has η = 0.75 OR 75%
kinetic energy of 1.5 Joules. Mass of the body
217. The velocity ratio of a lifting machine is 20 and
is:- an effort of 200 N is necessary to lift a load of
(a) 0.75 kg (b) 1.5 kg 3000 N. The frictional load is
(c) 3.0 kg (d) 30 kg (a) 7000N (b) 1000N
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I (c) 50 N (d) 350N
Ans. (c) : We know that TSPSC AEE 2015
1 2 Ans : (b) Velocity ratio (V.R) = 20
K.E. = mV
2 Effort (P) = 200 N.
1 Lift a load (w) = 3000 N.
1.5 = × m × (1)
2
2 Frictional load = (P × VR - lifted load)
frictional load = (20× 200 - 3000)
m = 3.0 kg Frictional load = 1000 N.
420
218. In virtual work principle, the work done by the W 10000
frictional force acting on wheel when it rolls Mechanical Advantage (MA) = = = 20
without slip is : P 500
(a) Zero (b) Positive D 20
Velocity Ratio (VR) = = = 25
(c) Negative (d) None of these d 0.8
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 MA 20
Ans : (a) In virtual work principle, the work done by Efficiency = = = 0.8 = 80%
the frictional force acting on wheel when it rolls without VR 25
slip is zero. 224. In a lifting machine, an effort of 200 N is
219. In an ideal machine, the output as compared to applied to raise a load of 800 N. what will be
input is the velocity ratio, if efficiency is 50% .
(a) Less (a) 8 (b)6
(b) More (c) 7 (d)9
(c) Equal RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016
(d) May be less more depending of efficiency Ans : (a) Given Effort,
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 P = 200 N
Ans. (c) :In an ideal machine, the output as compared to W = 800 N
input is equal. Mechanical Advantage = η × VR
Ideal machine efficiency is 100%.
220. If the algebraic sum of the virtual work for W 800
= = 0.5 × VR
every displacement is ......... the system is in P 200
equilibrium. V.R. = 8
(a) zero (b) one
(c) infinity (d) none of these 225. Virtual work means
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) 1. work done by real forces due to virtual
Ans : (a) Principle of virtual work:- If a particle is in displacement
equilibrium, the total virtual work of forces acting on 2. work done by virtual forces during real
the particle is zero for any virtual displacement since displacement
work done by internal forces [equal, opposite and (a) Both 1 and 2 are correct
collinear) cancels each other. (b) Both 1 and 2 are wrong
221. Virtual work refers to : (c) 1 is correct and 2 is wrong
(a) Virtual work done by Virtual forces (d) 2 is correct and 1 is wrong
(b) Virtual work done by Actual forces APPSC-AE-2019
(c) Actual work done by Actual forces Ans. (a) : Virtual work = virtual force × real
(d) Actual work done by Virtual forces displacement (or)
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 virtual displacement × real force
Ans. (b) : Virtual work refers to virtual work done by
actual forces. 226. In virtual work equation some forces are
neglected. Select the most appropriate answer
222. In the third order pulley system of the pulleys,
the velocity ratio is given by from the following:
(a) (n2 - 1) (b) (2n - 1) (a) Reaction of a rough surface on a body
(c) n n
(d) 2n which rolls on it without slipping.
(e) 2n (b) Reaction of any smooth surface with which
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift the body is in contact.
Ans. (b) : (c) Reaction at a point or on an axis, fixed in
Velocity ratio of first order pulley system = 2n space, around which a body is constrained
Velocity ratio of second order pulley system = n to turn
Velocity ratio of third order pulley system = 2n - 1 (d) All of the above.
223. In a lifting machine, an effort of 500 N is to be UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
moved by a distance of 20 m to raise a load of Ans : (d) All of the above
10,000 N by a distance of 0.8m. Determine the 227. In virtual work principle the work done by self
efficiency of the machine. weight of body is taken into consideration when
(a) 70% (b) 75% (a) centre of gravity moves vertically
(c) 80% (d) 85% (b) centre of gravity moves horizontally
(e) 90%
(c) shear centre moves horizontally
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
(d) shear centre moves vertically
Ans. (c) : Given,
load (W) = 10,000 N TSPSC AEE 2015
effort (P) = 500 N Ans. (b) : In virtual work principle the work done by
Distance moved by the effort (D) = 20 m self weight of body is taken into consideration when
Distance moved by the load (d) = 0.8 m centre of gravity moves horizontally.
421
 11. Impulse, Momentum and Ans. (d) : Given m = 20 kg, g = 10 m/sec2
Then velocity after 3 seconds
Collision
228. Which of the following statement is correct:
(a) The kinetic energy of a body during impact
remains constant
(b) The kinetic energy of a body before impact is
equal to the kinetic energy of a body after
impact v = u + gt
(c) The kinetic energy of a body before impact is v = 0 + 10 × 3
less than the kinetic energy of a body after v = 30 m / sec
impact Then momentum after 3 seconds
(d) The kinetic energy of a body before impact is M = Final momentum – initial momentum
more than the kinetic energy of a body after = mv – mu
impact = 20 × 300 – 20 × 0
TNPSC AE 2013 M = 600 N − sec.
Ans. (d) : The kinetic energy of a body before impact is 232. A stone of mass is tied to an inextensible
more than the kinetic energy of a body after impact is massless string of the length l and rotated in
correct statement. vertical circle. The minimum speed required at
229. Coefficient of restitution of perfectly elastic the top is
body is (a) (0.5lg ) (b) (lg )
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) (2lg ) (d) (3lg )
(c) 0.5 (d) infinite
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 (e) (4lg )
Ans : (b) : CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
! Coefficient of restitution of perfectly elastic body is 1 Ans. (b) : A particle of mass m is attached to a light and
(one). inextensible string. The other end of the string is fixed
at O and the particle moves in a vertical circle of radius
! Coefficient of restitution of perfectly inelastic body is
r equal to the length of the string as shown in the figure.
0 (zero).
230. If (F) refers to force, (m) refers to mass, (v)
refers to velocity and (t) refers to time, then
which of the following equation is known as
momentum principle?
d (m 2 v) dv
(a) F = (b) F =
dt dt
d (mv) d (mv)
(c) F = (d) F =
dt dt 2
TNPSC 2019
Ans. (c) : Momentum principle- Momentum is the Consider the particle when it is at the point P and the
quantity of motion of a moving body. string makes an angle θ with vertical forces acting on
the particle are
From Newton's second law
" " T = tension in the string along its length
F=ma mg = weight of the particle vertically
dv downwards
= m× m = constant Hence, net radial force on the particle
dt FR = T - mg cosθ
" d ( mv )
F= , mv 2
dt = T - mgcosθ
l
This above equation is known as momentum
principle equation. mv 2
T= + mgcosθ
231. A body of mass 20 kg falls freely under gravity. l
What will be its momentum after 3 seconds? Since speed of the particle decrease with height, hence
(take g = 10 m/s2) tension is maximum at bottom (i.e. θ = 0) and tension is
(a) 300 N sec (b) 400 N sec minimum at top (i.e. θ = 180)
(c) 500 N sec (d) 600 N sec mv 2L
Tmax = + mg
(e) 700 N sec l
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) (cos 0º = 1)
422
 mvT2 Ans. (b) : v 2 = u 2 + 2 × g × h
Tmin = - mg
l v 2 = 2 × 9.81 × 6
(cos 180º = 1)
For vT to be minimum, T ≃ 0 v ↓= 10.8498 m / s
mvT2
- mg = 0
l
vT2 = lg
vT = l g
233. A cube strikes a stationary ball exerting an
average force of 50 N over at time of 10ms. The
ball has mass of 0.20 kg. Its speed after the
( v f ) = u i2 − 2gh
2
impact will be
(a) 3.5 m/s (b) 2.5 m/s
(c) 1.5 m/s (d) 0.5 m/s u i2 = 2 × 9.81× 4
ESE 2018 u i ↑= 8.8588 m / s
Ans. (b) : Given data
F = 50 N then, v final = u i ↑ and v initial = V ↓
µ=0 Then impulse
m = 0.2 kg I = ∆P
t = 10 ms = 10 × 10−3 sec I = m [Vfinal – Vinitial]
∆p mv − mu 0.1
Favg = = = 8.858 − ( −10.8498) 
∆t ∆t 9.81 
mv 0.2 × v I = 0.2009 = 0.201 N − s
50 = =
∆t 10 ×10−3 237. Momentum equations are derived from
v = 2.5 m/s (a) First Law of Thermodynamics
234. A ball is dropped on a smooth horizontal (b) Newton's First Law
surface from height 'h'. What will be the height (c) Newton's Second Law of Motion
of rebounce after second impact. If coefficient (d) Second Law of Thermodynamics
of restitution between ball and surface is 'e'? TNPSC AE 2013
2
(a) e h (b) eh Ans. (c) : Momentum equations are derived from
(c) e3h (d) e4h Newton's Second Law of Motion.
UPRVUNL AE 2016 " d ( mv ) dv
Ans. (d) : e = co-efficient of restitution Fnet = ma = =m
dt dt
V2 2 gh2 h2 h3 mv − mv P − P dP
e= = = = = 1 2
= 1 2 =
V1 2 gh1 h1 h2 v2 dt dt
h2 = e2h1 Equation (1) is known as momentum equation.
h3 = e2h2 = e2 × e2 h1 238. If v1 and v2 are the initial velocities of two
4
h3 = e h1 bodies making direct collision and if u1 and u2
235. Principle of conservation of momentum is are their respective velocities after collision
(a) the initial momentum is greater than final then the coefficient of restitution is given by:
momentum ( u1 − u 2 ) ( u1 − u 2 )
(b) the initial momentum is equal to final (a) (b)
momentum ( 2 1)
v − v ( v1 − v 2 )
(c) the initial momentum is smaller than final
momentum (c)
( u1 + u 2 ) (d)
( u1 − v 2 )
(d) the initial momentum is equal to zero ( 1 2)
v − v ( u1 − u 2 )
TNPSC AE 2013 CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (b) : The principle of conservation of momentum TNPSC AE 2014
states that when you have an isolated system with no Ans. (a) : The energy dissipation during impact is
external forces, the initial total momentum of objects called by the term, coefficient of restitution, a scalar
before collision equals the final total momentum of the
quantity
objects after the collision.
236. A steel ball of weight 0.1 N falls a height 6 m velocity of separation
e=
and rebounds to a height of 4 m. The impulse is velocity of approach
(a) 0.0201 N - s (b) 0.201 N - s u1 − u 2
(c) 1.205 N - s (d) 12.05 N - s e=
v 2 − v1
TNPSC AE 2013
423
239. An elevator weighing 10 kN attains an upward 242. A particle is dropped from a height of 3m on a
velocity of 4 m/s in 2 sec with uniform acceleration. horizontal floor, which has a coefficient of
The tension in the wire rope is nearly restitution with the ball of 1/2. The height to
(a) 6 kN (b) 8 kN which the ball will rebound after striking the
(c) 10 kN (d) 12 kN floor is
JWM 2017 (a) 0.5 m (b) 0.75 m
Ans. (d) : Given, Elevator weight W = 10 kN = mg (c) 1.0 m (d) 1.5 m
TSPSC AEE 2015
h2 1
Ans. (b) : e = =
h1 2
h2 1
=
3 4
h 2 = 0.75 m
upward velocity v = 4 m/s
time, t = 2 sec. 243. A bullet of mass 1 kg if fired with a velocity of
For uniform acceleration- u m/s from a gun of mass 10 kg. The ratio of
v - u = at kinetic energies of bullet and gun is
4 = 2a (a) 10 (b) 11
Acceleration, a = 2 m/s2 (c) 1.1 (d) 1.0
Fnet = ma = T – W = T - mg TSPSC AEE 2015
T = ma + mg Ans. (a) : Total initial momentum of gun and bullet
= 2 + 10 = m1u1+ m2u2 = 0
∵ mg = 10kN  Total momentum of gun and bullet after firing-
 = m1 v1 + m2 v2 = 1 × u + 10 × v2
 m = 1kg  Law of conservation of linear momentum
Tension in wire rope, T = 12 kN Total momentum after firing = Total momentum before
240. If a constant force 'F' acts on a body of mass firing
'm' for time 't' and changes its velocity from u u
to v under an acceleration of 'a' all in the same Then, v 2 = −
direction, then for equilibrium of the body 10
mu mv u
(a) F = (b) F = It is recoil velocity of gun = − m / s.
t t 10
1 1
 v−u   v+u  Then, ( K.E.)B = m1v12 = × 1× u 2
(c) F = m   (d) F = m   2 2
 t   t  2
( K.E.)B
( K.E.)G = m 2 v 22 = ×10 ×   =
TNPSC AE 2017 1 1 u
Ans. (c) : We know that 2 2  10  10
Newton's second law of motion-
dv
( K.E.)B
Fnet = ma = m = 10
dt ( K.E.)G
F × t = m × [change in velocity]
F × t = m [Vf – Vi] ...(1) 244. Two balls of equal mass and of perfectly elastic
Then, we can say that product of force and time material are lying on the floor. One of the ball
with velocity 'v' is made to struck the second
equal to change in linear momentum in the direction of
ball. Both the balls after impact will move with
force. acting
a velocity.
(v − u) (a) v (b) v/2
F=m (c) v/4 (d) v/8
t
TSPSC AEE 2015
241. The coefficient of restitution for inelastic bodies Ans. (b) : Given as,
is m1 = m2 = m
(a) Zero
u1 = v, u2 = 0
(b) between zero and one
(c) one e=1
(d) more than one According to momentum conservation principle-
APPSC AEE 2016 m1 u1 + m2 u2 = m1 v1 + m2 v2
Ans. (a) : The coefficient of restitution, denoted by (e), mv + m.o = mv' + mv'
is the ratio of the final to initial relative velocity v' × 2m = mv
between two objects after they collide. A perfectly v
inelastic collision has a coefficient of zero, but a zero v' =
value does not have to be perfectly inelastic. 2
424
245. The co-efficient of restitution of a perfectly 1
plastic impact is (a) The velocity of ball A is 2gh
2
(a) 0 (b) 1 (b) The velocity of ball A is zero
(c) 2 (d) 3
TSPSC AEE 2015 1
(c) The velocity of both the balls is 2gh
Ans. (a) : The coefficient of restitution of a perfectly 2
plastic impact is zero (∈= 0) whereas for perfectly (d) None of the above
elastic impact is one(∈= 1). OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
246. A lead ball with a certain velocity is made to Ans. (b) : The velocity of ball A is zero
strike a wall, it falls down, but rubber ball of Velocity of ball A before collision
same mass and with same velocity strikes the u A = 2gh
same wall. It rebounds. Select the correct
reason from the following- Velocity of ball B before collision
(a) both the balls undergo an equal change in uB = 0
momentum For perfectly elastic impact
(b) the change in momentum suffered by rubber Velocity of Approach = velocity of separation
ball is more than the lead ball uA–uB = vB –vA
(c) the change in momentum suffered by rubber v B − v A = 2gh................(i)
is less than the lead ball
(d) none of the above Using momentum conservation
TSPSC AEE 2015 muA+ muB = mvA+ mvB
Ans. (b) : A rubber ball which have same mass with m 2gh + 0 = m(v A + v B )
same velocity strikes the same wall as lead ball, rubber
v A + vB = 2gh...............(ii)
ball rebounds because of the change in momentum
suffered by rubber ball is more than the lead ball. From (i) and (ii)
247. If u1 and u2 are the velocity of two moving v A = 0 v B = 2gh
bodies in the same direction before impact and
v1 and v2 are their velocities after impact, then 250. Rate of change of momentum takes place in the
co-efficient of restitution is given by direction
v − v2 v − v1 (a) of applied force
(a) 1 (b) 2 (b) of motion
u1 − u 2 u1 − u 2
(c) opposite to the direction of applied force
u − u2 u − u1 (d) perpendicular to the direction of motion
(c) 1 (d) 2
v1 − v 2 v 2 − v1 (KPSC AE 2015)
TSPSC AEE 2015 Ans : (a) Rate of change of momentum takes place in
TNPSC AE 2014 the direction of applied force.
Ans. (b) : Co-efficient of restitution d dv
v −v velocity of separation Rate change of momentum = ( mv ) = m
e= 2 1 = dt dt
u1 − u 2 velocity of approach dv
248. During inelastic collision of two particles, Rate change of momentum = m
dt
which one of the following is conserved? " " "
(a) total kinetic energy only dv
Fnet = ma = m
(b) total linear momentum only dt
(c) both linear momentum and kinetic energy
251. Two masses 2 kg, 8 kg are moving with equal
(d) neither linear momentum nor kinetic
energy kinetic energy. The ratio of magnitude of their
RPSC INSP. OF FACTORIES AND BOILER 2016 momentum is.
Ans : (b) During collision of two Particles (a) 0.25 (b) 0.50
1. The momentum is conserved in both elastic and (c) 0.625 (d) 1.00
in inelastic collision as there is no force applied UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
externally. 1
2. The energy is conserved in elastic collisions only. Ans : (b) Kinetic Energy = mv 2
In case of energy is dissipated at each collision in 2
2
form of heat and vibration, causing a heating and p
deformation of bodies. ( KE )1 = 1 .............(i)
2m1
249. A ball 'A' of mass 'm' falls under gravity from
a height 'h' and strikes another ball 'B' of mass p 22
'm' which is supported at rest on a spring of
( KE )2 = .............(ii)
2m 2
stiffness 'k'. The impact between the balls is
perfectly elastic. Immediately after the impact: Given, m1 = 2kg, m 2 = 8kg

425
 p12 p2 258. When the coefficient of restitution is zero, the
kinetic energy equal = 2 bodies are :
2m1 2m 2 (a) Inelastic (b) Elastic
p1 m1 (c) Near elastic (d) None of the above
= OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
p2 m2 Ans. (a) : When the coefficient of restitution is zero the
p1 bodies are inelastic.
= 0.50 When the coefficient of restitution is one (1)
p2
the bodies are perfect elastic.
252. When two bodies collide without the presence 259. Impulse is:-
of any other force or force fields? (a) Minimum momentum
(a) Their total kinetic energy must be conserved. (b) Maximum momentum
(b) Their total momentum must be conserved. (c) Average momentum
(c) Their collision must be direct. (d) Final momentum - Initial momentum
(d) Both (a) and (b) UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I Ans. (d) :
Ans : (d) When two bodies collide without the presence Impulse = Final momentum – Initial momentum
of any other force or force fields. 260. A ball of 2kg drops vertically onto the floor
(i) Their total kinetic energy must be conserved. with a velocity of 20m/s. It rebounds with an
(ii) Their total momentum must be conserved. initial velocity of 10m/s, impulse acting on the
253. If the momentum of a body is doubled, its ball during contact will be:-
kinetic energy will be (a) 20 (b) 40
(a) doubled (b) quadrupled (c) 60 (d) 30
(c) same (d) halved UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I Ans. (c) : We know that, impulse is equal to change in
Ans. (b) : Quadrupled momentum
254. The bodies which rebound after impact are So, initial momentum
called = 2 × 20
(a) elastic (b) inelastic = 40 kg - m/s
(c) plastic (d) none of the above Final momentum
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I = – 2 × 10
= – 20 kg-m/s
Ans. (a) : Elastic Then impulse
255. The total momentum of a system of moving = [– 20 – 40]
bodies in any one direction remains constant, = – 60 kg-m/s
unless acted upon by an external force in that = 60 kg-m/s
direction. This statement is called So, the impulse is 60 Ns acting upwards.
(a) Principle of conservation of energy
261. The loss of kinetic energy, during inelastic
(b) Newton's second law of motion
impact of two bodies having masses m1 and m2,
(c) Newton's first law of motion
which are moving with velocity v1 and v2
(d) Principle of conservation of momentum respectively, is given by
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
m1m 2
Ans. (d) : Principle of conservation of momentum (a) ( v1 − v2 )2
2 ( m1 + m 2 )
256. The velocity of a body on reaching the ground
from a height 'h', is given by 2 ( m1 + m 2 )
(a) v = 2gh (b) v = 2gh2 (b) ( v1 − v2 )2
m1m 2
h2
(c) v = 2 gh (d) v =
2g (c)
m1m 2
2 ( m1 + m 2 )
( )
v12 − v22
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
2 ( m1 + m 2 ) 2 2
Ans. (c) : v = 2 gh (d)
m1m 2
( )
v1 − v2
257. Which of the following equations is known as
momentum principle? UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
2
d (m v) dv m m
(a) F = (b) F = Ans. (a) : 1 2
( v1 − v2 )2
dt dt 2 ( m1 + m 2 )
d (mv) d (mv) 262. The force applied on a body of mass 100 kg to
(c) F = (d) F =
dt dt 2 produce an acceleration of 5 m/s2 is
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -II TSPSC AEE 2015
d (mv) (a) 500 N (b)100 N
Ans. (c) : F =
dt (c) 20 N (d)10 N
426
Ans : (a) Second law of Newton's :- 265. The period (T) for the pendulum with length (l)
dv and placed at the gravitational acceleration (g)
F = m. is given by:
dt
ℓ
F = ma (a) T = 2π (b) T = 2π ℓ g
F = 500 N. g
263.A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 2 m. if ℓ
(c) T = 3π (d) T = 3π ℓ g
there is no loss of velocity after rebounding the g
ball will rise to a height of CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
(a) 1 m (b) 2 m
(c) 3 m (d) 4 m ℓ
Ans. (a) : Time period of pendulum T = 2π
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 g
Ans. (b) : For rebounding height attain = e2x 266. In case of S.H.M. the period of oscillation is
then h1 = e2x given by
for x = 2 m 2ω 2π
(a) T = 2 (b) T =
No loss in kinetic energy so for elastic body e = 1 π ω
h1 = 1 × 2 ω π
for second rebounding (c) T = (d) T =
2π 2ω
h2 = e4x
TNPSC 2019
x =4m
Ans. (b) : In case of S.H.M. the period of oscillation is
h2 = 1×4
2π
h2 = 4 m given by T =
h 2 ω
then 1 = 267. In case of S.H.M. the period of oscillation is
h2 4
given by
h1 1 2ω 2π
= (a) T = 2 (b) T =
h2 2 π ω
h 2 = 2h1 ω π
(c) T = (d) T =
2π 2ω
12. Simple Harmonic Motion and TNPSC 2019
Ans. (b) : In case of S.H.M. the period of oscillation is
Projectile Motion 2π
given by T =
264. In simple harmonic motion, acceleration is ω
proportional to 268. The radius of arc is measured by allowing a 20
(a) ω (frequency) mm diameter roller to oscillate to and fro on it
(b) velocity and the time for 25 oscillations is noted at 56.25
(c) rate of change of velocity s. The radius of arc will be
(d) displacement (a) 865 mm (b) 850 mm
(c) 835 mm (d) 820 mm
(e) ω ESE 2019
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift Ans. (b) : Given,
RPSC AE 2016 Radius of roller
(HPPSC LECT. 2016)
Ans. (d) : An object is undergoing simple harmonic
motion (SHM) if the acceleration of the object is
directly proportional to its displacement from its
equilibrium position.
In SHM, the displacement of particle at an instant is
given by
y = r sin ωt 20
dy r= = 10 mm
Velocity (v) = = rωcosωt 2
dt Time period of
dv 2 56.25
Acceleration (a) = = -ω r sinωt Oscillation T = = 2.25 sec
dt 25
a = -ω2 y 2g
ωn =
a∝y 3(R − r)

427
 3(R − r) Ans. (a) : At the highest point of the trajectory the shell
T = 2π will have the only horizontal velocity that is –v cos θ.
2g
For its one part to retrace its parth.
3(R − 0.01)
2.25 = 2π
2 × 9.81
0.8395 = R − 0.01
R = 0.849 m
R = 850 mm
269. A car is travelling on a curved road of radius
300 m at speed of 15 m/s. The normal and
tangential components of acceleration
respectively are given by:
(a) 0.75 m/s2, zero
After explosion the piece that retraces its path is having
(b) 0.75 m/s2, 0.75 m/s2
velocity,
(c) zero, zero
(d) zero, 0.75 m/s2 v1 = –v cos θ
UPRVUNL AE 2016 Since, there is no force acting on the shell in horizontal
direction, so its linear momentum remains constant,
Ans. (a) : Radial/normal components of acceleration
m m
due to change in direction continually (ar) mv cos θ = v1 + v 2
2 2
v 2 (15) 2
= = v 2 = 2v cos θ − v1
r 300
v 2 = 2v cos θ + ( − v cos θ )
ar = 0.75 m/s2
v 2 = 3v cos θ
272. The particle is projected a point 'Q' with initial
velocity 'u' inclined at 'α' to x-axis, x-
component of initial velocity at point 'O' is
(a) u x = u sin α
(b) u x = u cos α .sin α
In this case no tangential acceleration because of no (c) u x = u cos α
change in angular velocity due to unifrom circular
motion. (d) u x = u tan α
270. A particle is projected with an initial velocity of TNPSC AE 2013
60 m/sec at an angle of 75o with horizontal. The Ans. (c) : u x = u cos α
maximum height attained by the particle is Time of flight (T)
(a) 171.19 m (b) 185.22 m 2.u sin α
(c) 221.11 m (d) 198.20 m T = 2 × t peak =
g
TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (a) : Given, u = 60 m/s, θ = 750
The maximum height its,
u 2 sin 2 θ
h max =
2g
( 60 ) × ( sin 75º )
2 2

h max =
2 × 9.81 u 2 sin 2α u 2 sin 2 α
R= , H max =
h max = 171.194 m g 2g
271. A shell fired from cannon with a speed 'v' at an 273. The maximum acceleration of a particle
angle 'θ' with the horizontal direction. At the moving with SHM is
highest point in its path it explodes into pieces (a) ω2 (b)ωr
of equal mass. One of the pieces retraces its (c) ω2/r (d)ω2 r
path to the cannon. The speed of other piece TSPSC AEE 2015
immediately after explosion is: Ans : (d) Velocity and acceleration of a particle moving
(a) 3 v cos θ (b) 2 v cos θ with simple harmonic motion:-
(c) 3/2 v cos θ (d) 3 / 2 v cos θ (i) Maximum velocity (vmax) = ωr
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 (ii) Maximum acceleration ( α max ) = ω2r
428
274. If the velocity of projection is u m/sec and the 276. A body is having a simple harmonic motion.
angle of projection is αa, the maximum height Product of its frequency and time period is
of the projectile on a horizontal plane is : equal to:-
u 2 cos 2 α u 2 sin 2 α (a) Zero (b) One
(a) (b) (c) Infinity (d) 0.5
2g 2g
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
u 2 tan 2 α u 2 sin 2 α Ans. (b) : We know that, in the simple harmonic
(c) (d)
2g g motion.
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 1
Time period (T) =
Ans : (b) Frequency ( f )
Then, T × f = 1
277. A projectile on a level ground will have
maximum range if the angle of projection is
(a) 30° (b) 45°
(c) 60° (d) 75°
U = velocity of projection
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
α = angle of projection
(i) Flight - time of Projectile:- Ans. (b) : 45°
2u sin α 278. If the period of oscillation is to become double,
T= then
g
(a) the length of simple pendulum should be
(ii) Height of projectile:-
doubled.
u 2 sin 2 α (b) the length of simple pendulum should be
h=
2g quadrupled.
(iii) Range of projectile:- (c) the mass of the pendulum should be doubled.
u 2 sin 2α (d) the length and mass should be doubled.
R= UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
g
Ans. (b) : the length of simple pendulum should be
275. A particle is projected at such an angle with the
quadrupled.
horizontal that the maximum height attained
by the particle is one-fourth of the horizontal 279. For the maximum range of a projectile, the
range. The angle of projection should be:- angle of projection should be
(a) 30º (b) 45º (a) 30º (b) 45º
(c) 60º (d) 75º (c) 60º (d) 90º
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Ans. (b) : In projection motion Ans. (b) : 45º
u 2 sin 2 θ 280. If the period of oscillation is doubled
h= (a) the length of simple pendulum should be
2g
doubled
and
(b) the length of simple pendulum should be
u 2 sin 2θ quadrupled
Range ( R ) =
g (c) the mass of the pendulum should be doubled
According to question (d) the length and mass should be doubled
R UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
= h at θmax . Ans. (b) : The length of simple pendulum should be
4
quadrupled
u 2 sin 2θ u 2 sin 2 θ
= 281. The maximum displacement of a body moving
4× g 2g
with simple harmonic motion from its mean
sin θ cos θ = sin 2 θ position is called
tan θ = 1 (a) oscillation (b) amplitude
θ = tan −1 (1) (c) beat (d) none of the above
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
θ = 45o Ans. (b) : Amplitude
429
 09. STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
5. The loads acting on a 3 mm diameter bar at
1. Simple Stress and Strain different points are as shown in the figure:
1. Hooke's law holds good up to:
(a) Yield point (b) Elastic limit
(c) Plastic limit (d) None of these
SJVN ET 2013
Ans. (b) : Hook's law holds good up to proportional
If E = 205 GPa, the total elongation of the bar
limit. will be nearly.
E (a) 29.7 mm (b) 25.6 mm
(c) 21.5 mm (d) 17.4 mm
ESE 2019
BC D F Ans. (a) :
A
C'
σ
Total elongation is equal to sum of elongation of each
bar
∆ = ∆AB + ∆BC + ∆CA
pℓ pℓ pℓ
∈ = 1 1 + 2 2 + 3 3
Linear range A1E1 A 2 E 2 A 3 E 3
A → Proportional limit A1E1 = A2E2 = A3E3 = AE
B → Elastic limit 10 × 103 × 2000 8 × 103 × 1000 5 × 103 × 3000
C → Yield point (upper yield point) = + +
AE AE AE
C' → Lower yield point
E → Ultimate strength 43 × 10 6
43 × 10 6
= = = 29.68 mm
F → Rupture strength AE π 2
× 3 × 205 × 103
Note:- The answer given by the commission is option 4
(b) 6. Rails are laid such that there will be no stress
2. Strain rosettes are generally used for in them at 24°C. If the rails are 32 m long with
(a) measurement of load an expansion allowance of 8 mm per rail,
(b) measurement of shear strain coefficient of linear expansion α =11×10–6/°C
(c) measurement of longitudinal strain and E = 205 GPa, the stress in the rails at 80°c
(d) measurement of resilience will be nearly.
TNPSC AE 2017 (a) 68 MPa (b) 75 MPa
(c) 83 MPa (d) 90 MPa
Ans. (c) : Strain rosettes are generally used for ESE 2019
measurement of longitudinal strain.
Ans. (b) :
3. If the radius of wire stretched by a load is
doubled then its Young's modulus
(a) will be doubled (b) will be halved
(c) becomes four times (d) remains unaffected Given,
TNPSC AE 2017
ℓ = 32 m ∆ = 8 mm
Ans. (d) : Young's modulus (E) remains the same. −6
Young's modulus is the property, it won't change if the α = 11 × 10 /°C
E = 205 GPa = 205 × 103 N/mm2
radius of wire stretched by a load.
∆T = 80 − 24 = 56°C
4. Stress-strain analysis is conducted to know σℓ
which of the following properties of material? ℓ α ∆T − ∆ =
(a) Physical properties E
(b) Optical properties σ× 32 × 103
32 × 103 × 11 × 10−6 × 56 − 8 =
(c) Mechanical properties 205 ×103
(d) Magnetic properties 11.712 = 0.156 σ
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI σ = 75.03 N/mm2
Ans : (c) : Mechanical properties. σ = 75.03 MPa
430
7. When a load of 20 kN is gradually applied at a 9. A copper piece originally 305 mm long is pulled
particular point in a beam, it produces a in tension with a stress of 276 MPa. If the
maximum bending stress of 20 MPa and a deformation is entirely elastic and the modulus
deflection of 10 mm. What will be the height of elasticity is 110 GPa, the resultant elongation
from which a load of 5 kN should fall onto the will be nearly
beam at the same point if the maximum (a) 0.43 mm (b) 0.54 mm
bending stress is 40 MPa? (c) 0.65 mm (d) 0.77 mm
(a) 80 mm (b) 70 mm ESE 2019
(c) 60 mm (d) 50 mm Ans. (d) : Given,
ESE 2019 L = 305 mm
Ans. (c) : For 20 kN static load (P1 = 20 kN) σ = 276 MPa
δ1 = 10 mm E = 110 GPa = 110 × 103 MPa
(σ1)static = 20 MPa PL σL 276 × 305
For 5 kN impact load (P2 = 5 kN) Resultant elongation ∆ = = =
AE E 110 ×103
σmax = 40 MPa = 0.7652 = 0.77 mm
(σ2)static = ? δ2 = ? 10. A rigid beam of negligible weight is supported
From equation in a horizontal position by two rods of steel and
P aluminium, 2 m and 1 m long, having values of
σ=
A cross sectional areas 100 mm2 and 200 mm2,
σ∝P and young’s modulus of 200 GPa and 100 GPa,
( σ2 )static P2 respectively. A load P is applied as shown in the
= figure below:
( σ1 )static P1
P 5
(σ2)static = ( σ1 )static × 2 = 20 × = 5 MPa
P1 20
deflection (δ) ∝ P
δ2 P2
=
δ1 P1
P 5 If the rigid beam is to remain horizontal then
δ2 = δ1 2 = 10 × = 2.5 mm (a) the force P must be applied at the centre of
P1 20 the beam
As we know for impact load (b) the force on the steel rod should be twice the
 2h  force on the aluminium rod
σmax = σstatic 1 + 1 +  (c) the force on the aluminium rod should be
 δstatic 
twice the force on the steel rod
 2h  (d) the forces on both the rods should be equal
40 = 5 1 + 1 +  ESE 2018
 2.5 
Ans. (c) :
h = 60 mm
8. A cylindrical specimen of steel having an
original diameter of 12.8 mm is tensile tested to
fracture and found to have engineering
fracture strength σf of 460 MPa. If its cross
sectional diameter at fracture is 10.7 mm, the
true stress at fracture will be
(a) 660 MPa (b) 645 MPa Let P1 = Force in steel
(c) 630 MPa (d) 615 MPa P2 = Force in aluminium
From the given condition that the rigid beam to remain
ESE 2019
horizontal.
Ans. (a) : Given,
δ1 = δ2
Initial diameter (di) = 12.8 mm
Final diameter (df) = 10.7 mm  PL   PL 
  = 
Engineering fracture strength (σf) = 460 MPa  AE 1  AE  2
True stress at fracture P1L1 P2 L2
A =
(σt) = σf i A1E1 A 2 E 2
Af
P1 × ( 2L 2 ) P × L2
 d2 
2 = 2
 12.8   A2  A2 × E2
= 460  i2  = 460  
 10.7    × ( 2E 2 )
 df   2 
= 658.27 MPa 2P1 = P2
431
11. A 10 mm diameter bar of mild steel of elastic E E
modulus 200×109 Pa is subjected to a tensile (a) (b)
load of 50000N, taking it just beyond its yield 2 3
point. The elastic recovery of strain that would E
(c) E (d)
occur upon removal of tensile load will be 4
(a) 1.38×10–3 (b) 2.68×10–3 APPSC-AE-2019
–3
(c) 3.18×10 (d) 4.62×10–3 Ans. (b) : E = 2G (given)
ESE 2017 We have E = 2G (1 + µ)
Ans. (c) : Given, 2G = 2G (1 + µ)
d = 10 mm µ=0
E = 200 × 109 Pa = 200 × 103 MPa and E = 3K (1 - 2µ)
P = 50000 N E = 3K [1 - 2(0)]
P P 4P E = 3K
stress (σ) = = = 2
π
d 2 πd
A E
⇒ K=
4 3
4 × 50000 15. If a material has identical properties in all the
=
π× 102 directions, it is said to be
= 636.94 N/mm2 (a) elastic (b) homogeneous
= 636.94 MPa (c) isotropic (d) orthotropic
σ = E∈ APPSC-AE-2019
636.94 Ans. (c) : In isotropic material, properties of material
∈= will remain same in each direction for a point.
200 × 103
= 3.18 × 10−3
12. A bar produces a lateral strain of magnitude
60×10−5 m/m when subjected to a tensile stress
of magnitude 300 MPa along the axial
direction. What is the elastic modulus of the
material if the Poisson’s ratio is 0.3?
(a) 200 GPa (b) 150 GPa
(c) 125 GPa (d) 100 GPa Isotropic material
ESE 2017 16. Consider the state of stress at any point as σxx =
Ans. (b) : Given, 250 MPa, σzz = 250 MPa. The Young's modulus
Lateral strain = 60 × 10−5 and Poisson's ratio of the material is
σ = 300 MPa considered as 2 GPa and 0.18 respectively.
µ = 0.3 Determine the εzz at the point.
We know that (a) -0.125 (b) 0.103
(c) -0.103 (d) 0.125
Lateral strain = µ × longitudinal strain = µ × ∈ℓ APPSC-AE-2019
60 × 10−5 Ans. (b) : σxx = 250 MPa
∈ℓ = = 200 × 10−5
0.3 σyy = 0
σ = ∈E σzz = 250 MPa
300 E = 2 × 109 Pa
E= = 150 GPa µ = 0.18
200 × 10−5
13. The modulus of rigidity of an elastic material is σ zz σ yy σ xx
ε zz = −µ −µ
found to be 38.5% of the value of its Young’s E E E
modulus. The Poisson’s ratio µ of the material σ zz σ xx
is nearly = −µ
E E
(a) 0.28 (b) 0.30
(c) 0.33 (d) 0.35 σ xx
= (1 − µ )
ESE 2017 E
Ans. (b) : Given, G = 0.385 E (∵ σ xx = σ zz )
We know that E = 2G (1 + µ) 250 × 106
E 1 = (1 − 0.18)
1+µ= = 2 × 109
2G 2 × 0.385 = 0.1025 = 0.103
1 + µ = 1.297 17. Find out the Lame constants (λ and µ) for an
µ = 0.297 isotropic material having modulus of elasticity
14. If for a given material, E = 2G (E is modulus of (E) and Poisson's ratio (ν) as 200 GPa and 0.2,
elasticity, G is the shear modulus), then the respectively.
bulk modulus K will be (a) 80 GPa, 80 GPa
432
 (b) 35.71 GPa, 166.6 GPa Ans : (c)
(c) 55.55 GPa, 83.33 GPa changein volome
(d) 73.33 GPa, 66.66 GPa Volumetric strain =
original volume
APPSC-AE-2019
Ans. (c) : E = 200 GPa ∆V
ev =
Poisson's ratio ν = 0.2 V
Eν
Lame constant (λ ) = 22. The ratio between tensile stress and tensile
(1 + ν )(1 − 2ν ) strain or compressive stress and compressive
200 × 0.2 strain is termed as
λ= = 55.55 GPa (a) modulus of rigidity
(1 + 0.2)(1 − 2(0.2)) (b) modulus of elasticity
2E ν 2 × 200 × 0.2 (c) bulk modulus
µ= = =83.33 GPa
(1 +ν )(1 −ν ) (1 + 0.2)(1 − 0.2) (d) modulus of subgrade reaction
18. If a steel member is subjected to temperature APPSC AEE 2012
rise and likely to expand freely, it will develop: Ans : (b) According to Hook's law
(a) No stress (b) Thermal stress stress ∝ strain (up to proportionality limit)
(c) Tensile stress (d) Compressive stress σ∝e
(e) Shear stress σ
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) =E
e
Ans. (a) : If a steel member is subjected to temperature E = Modulus of Elasticity.
rise and likely to expand freely, it will develop zero where stress and strain both are tensile or compressive
stress. nature.
If the steel member is not free to expand completely or 23. A rigid bar ACO as shown is hinged at O and is
partially then stress will be develop. held in a horizontal position by two identical
19. The relation between modulus of elasticity (E), vertical steel wires AB and CD. A point load of
modulus of rigidity (G) and Poisson's ratio (µ) 20 kN is hung at the position shown. The
is given by: tensions in wires AB and CD are
(a) G = 2E(1 + µ) (b) G = 2E(1 – µ)
(c) E = 2G(1 + µ) (d) E = 2G(1 – µ)
(e) E = 3G(1 ± µ)
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
Ans. (c) : Relation between E, G, K and µ
E = 2G(1 + µ)
E = 3K(1 – 2µ)
9KG
E=
3K + G
(a) 15.2 kN and 7.1 kN (b) 11.8 kN and 7.1 kN
20. The true strain ∈t and engineering strain ∈ (c) 15.2 kN and 5.0 kN (d) 11.8 kN and 5.0 kN
relationship is ESE 2017
(a) ∈t = ln(1− ∈) (b) ∈t = ln(1+ ∈) Ans. (b) :
1
(c) ∈t = ln(1 − 2 ∈) (d) ∈t = ln
(1+ ∈)
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Ans : (b) True strain:-
Lf δℓ L 
∈T = ∫ = [l n ]Lof = l n  f 
L
Lo ℓ
 Lo 
 L + ∆L  From similar triangle
∈T = l n  o 
 Lo  δA 1
=
∈T = l n (1+ ∈) δC 0.6
21. The ratio between the change in volume and  FA ⋅ L 
 
original volume of the body is called  AE  = 1
(a) tensile strain  FC ⋅ L  0.6
(b) compressive strain  
 AE 
(c) volumetric strain FA 1
(d) shear strain =
FC 0.6
APPSC AEE 2012
433
 FC = 0.6 FA .....(1) (b) low strain hardening rate
Now ∑M0 = 0 (c) higher yield strength
(FA × 1) + (FC × 0.6) = 20 × 0.8 (d) higher tensile strength
FA + 0.6 FC = 16 .....(2) BHEL ET 2019
On solving equation (1) & (2) Ans. (a) :
FA = 11.76 kN 29. After which point of the Stress-Strain Diagram
FC = 7.05 kN does metal cutting start?
24. A metal sphere of diameter D is subjected to a (a) Proportional point (b) Ultimate point
uniform increase in temperature ∆T. E, ν and (c) Fracture point (d) Yield point
α are the Young's modulus, Poisson's ratio and BHEL ET 2019
Coefficient of thermal expansion respectively. Ans. (c) : After fracture point of stress-strain diagram,
If the ball is free to expand, the hydrostatic metal cutting start.
stress developed within the ball due to 30. A block is dimensions of upper surface 100 mm
temperature change is × 100 mm. The height of the block is 10 mm. A
α∆TE tangential force of 10 kN is applied at the
(a) 0 (b) centre of the upper surface. The block is
1 − 2ν
displaced by 1 mm with respect to lower face.
α∆TE α∆TE Direct shear stress in the element is :
(c) − (d)
1 − 2ν 3(1 − 2ν ) (a) 10 MPa (b) 1 MPa
APPSC-AE-2019 (c) 0.1 MPa (d) 100 MPa
Ans. (a) : The hydrostatic stress developed within the BHEL ET 2019
ball due to temperature change is zero as the ball is free Ans. (2) : Given - Dimension = 100 × 100 × 10
to expand.
25. A rod of length 2 m and diameter 50 mm is
elongated by 5 mm when an axial force of 400
kN is applied. The modulus of elasticity of the
material of the rod will be nearly
(a) 66 GPa (b) 72 GPa
(c) 82 GPa (d) 96 GPa
ESE 2020
Pℓ
Ans. (c) : δ = A = 100 × 100 mm2
AE P = 10 × 103 N
400 × 10 × 2000
3
Direct shear stress
5=
π P 10 × 10 3
× 50 2 E τ= = = 1N / mm 2
4 A 100 × 100
E = 81487.3 MPa = 1 MPa
= 81.5 GPa ≈ 82 GPa 31. A copper rod with initial length lo is pulled by a
26. The linear relationship between stress and force. The instantaneous length of the rod is
strain for a bar in simple tension or given by l = lo ( 1 + 2e4t), where t represents
compression is expressed with standard time. True strain rate at t = 0 is :
notations by the equation 1 8
(a) σ = Eε (b) σ = Eν (a) (b)
3 3
(c) σ = Gν (d) σ = Gε
ESE 2020 4 2
(c) (d)
Ans. (a) : σ = Eε 3 3
27. A rod of copper originally 305 mm long is BHEL ET 2019
pulled in tension with a stress of 276 MPa. If Ans. (b) : Given - Initial length = lo
the modulus of elasticity is 110 GPa and the Instantaneous length = t = lo (1 + 2e4t)
deformation is entirely elastic, the resultant at, t = 0
elongation will be nearly l = lo (1 + 2eo)
(a) 1.0 mm (b) 0.8 mm l = lo (1 + 2) = 3 lo
(c) 0.6 mm (d) 0.4 mm dl
True strain ∈T = ∫
ESE 2020 l
Ans. (b) change length
Pℓ σℓ 276 × 305 ∈T =
: δℓ = = = = 0.765mm ≃ 0.8 mm Instantaneous length
AE E 110 ×10 3
dl
28. Which mechanical property gets affected in an Change in length = l o (8e 4t )
dt
alloy, when it is over-aged condition : at, t = 0
(a) lower hardness
434
 dl 37. A solid cube faces similar equal normal force
= lo ×8 on all faces. Ratio of volumetric strain to linear
dt
strain on any of three axes will be:
8l 8 (a) 1 (b) 2
True strain ∈T = o ∈T =
3 lo 3 (c) 3 (d) 3
32. True stress experienced by a material is ______ SJVN ET 2013
then the engineering stress at a given load. Ans. (c) :
(a) lower (b) higher δV 3σ
(c) equal (d) higher or lower ∈v = = (1 − 2µ )
BHEL ET 2019 V E
Ans. (b) : True stress experienced by a material is  σ
∈v = 3∈ (1 – 2µ)  ∵ ∈= E 
higher than engineering stress at a given load.
33. A steel rod, 2 m long and 20 mm × 20 mm in • It is 3 times because cube is subjected to 3 mutually
cross section, is subjected to a tensile force of perpendicular stress.
40 kN. What will be elongation of the rod when 38. The ratio of linear stress to linear strain is
the modulus of elasticity is 200 × 103 N/mm2? called:
(a) 0.5 mm (b) 1.0 mm (a) Modulus of Rigidity
(c) 1.5 mm (d) 2.0 mm (b) Modulus of Elasticity
(e) 2.5 mm (c) Bulk Modulus
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) (d) Poisson's ratio
Ans. (b) : Data given; SJVN ET 2013
L = 2 m = 2 × 103 mm Ans. (b) : The ratio of linear stress to linear strain is
A = 20 × 20 mm2 called modulus of elasticity.
F = 40 kN 39. Property to absorb large amount of energy
E = 200 × 103 N/mm2 before fracture is known as:
δℓ = ? (a) Ductility (b) Toughness
(c) Hardness (d) Shockproofness
We know that,
SJVN ET 2013
F× L 40 ×103 × 2 × 103 Ans. (b) : Toughness- Property to absorb large amount
δℓ = =
A × E 20 × 20 × 200 × 103 of energy before fracture is known as toughness.
δℓ = 1 mm 40. When a bar is subjected to a push of P, its
34. Which of the following statement is correct? (a) length, width and thickness increase
(a) The stress is the pressure per unit area (b) length, width and thickness decrease
(b) The strain is expressed in mm (c) length increases, width and thickness decrease
(c) Hook's law holds good up to the breaking (d) length decreases, width and thickness increase
point SJVN ET 2013
(d) Stress is directly proportional to strain within Ans. (d) : When a bar is subjected to a push of P, its
elastic limit length decreases width and thickness increases.
UP Jal Nigam AE 2016 41. If a body is stressed within its elastic limit, the
Ans. (d) : Stress is directly proportional to strain within lateral strain bears a constant ratio to the
elastic limit. linear strain. This constant known as:
35. The volumetric strain is the ratio of the : (a) Poisson's Ratio (b) Volume Ratio
(a) Original thickness to the change in thickness (c) Stress Ratio (d) Strain Ratio
(b) Change in thickness to the original thickness TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
(c) Original volume to the change in volume Ans. (a) : If a body is stressed within its elastic limit,
(d) Change in volume to the original volume the lateral strain bears a constant ratio to the linear
UP Jal Nigam AE 2016 strain. This constant known as Poisson's ratio.
Ans. (d) : Change in volume to the original volume. 42. For a given material. Young's Modulus is
36. Temperature stress are set up in a material when 200 GN/m2 and Modulus of Rigidity is
(a) It is free to expand or contract
80 GN/m2. Its Poisson Ratio will be:
(b) It is first heated then cooled
(c) It is first cooled and then heated (a) 0.15 (b) 0.20
(d) its expansion and contraction is restrained (c) 0.25 (d) 0.35
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper SJVN ET 2013
Ans. (d) : Whenever there is some increase or decrease UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
in the temperature of a body, it causes the body to Ans. (c) : E = 200 GN/m2
expand or contract, there is no stresses are induced in G = 80 GN/m2
the body. But, if the deformation of the body is E = 2G (1 + µ)
prevented, some stresses are induced in the body, such 200 = 2 × 80 (1 + µ)
stresses are known as thermal stresses or temperature µ = 0.25
stresses.
435
43. For copper, the yield stress σy and the brittle Ans. (b) : Under uniaxial strain, the ratio of maximum
fracture stress σf are related as: shearing strain to uniaxial strain is 0.5
(a) σf > σy (b) σy > σf 48. Elongation of a bar of uniform cross-sectional
(c) σy = σf (d) σf << σy area of A and length L due to self-weight is
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 given as:
Ans. (a) : For copper [Consider density of bar material = ρ, Modulus of
σf > σy elasticity = E, acceleration due to gravity = g]
ρgL2 ρgL
(a) (b)
4E 2E
ρgL 2
ρgL2
(c) (d)
6E 2E
SJVN ET 2019
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
44. Proof stress– ρgL2
Ans. (d) :
(a) Is the safe stress 2E
(b) Cause a specified permanent deformation in a 49. The ratio of modulus of elasticity (E) to
material usually 0.1% or less modulus of rigidity (G) in terms of Poisson's
(c) Is used in connection with acceptance tests ratio (µ) (in case of the elastic materials) is-
for materials (a) 2(1 - µ) (b) 2(1 + µ)
(d) Does not exist (c) 3(1 -2 µ) (d) 0.5(1 + µ)
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper (d) 0.5(1 - µ)
Ans. (b) : When material such as aluminium does not CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
have an obvious yield point and yet undergoes large
strain after the proportional limit is exceeded, an Ans. (b) : We know that relationship between modulus
arbitrary yield stress may be determined by the offset of of elasticity (E), modulus of rigidity (G) and Poisson's
0.1 or 0.2% of strain. ratio (µ) is given as,
0.2 Proof stress E = 2G (1 + µ)
E
= 2(1 + µ )
G
50. A specimen of steel, 20 mm diameter with a
gauge length of 200 mm is tested to destruction.
0.2
It has an extension of 0.25 mm under a load of
80 kN and the load at elastic limit is 102 kN.
45. The stress strain curve for glass rod during The modulus of elasticity is
tensile test would exhibit– (a) 203718 N/mm2 (b) 259740 N/mm2
(a) A straight line (b) A parabola (c) 209740 N/mm 2
(d) 253718 N/mm2
(c) A sudden break (d) None of the above (e) 222718 N/mm 2
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Ans. (c) : Stress-strain curve for a glass rod during
Ans. (a) : diameter (d) = 20 mm
tensile test would exhibit, a sudden break. point Occur
length (l) = 200 mm
(due to a glass becomes a Brittle material).
extension (δ) = 0.25 mm
46. Temperature stress are set up in a material load (P) = 80 kN = 80,000 N
when– load at elastic limit = 102 kN
(a) It is free to expand or contract We know that
(b) It is first heated then cooled
Pl
(c) It is first cooled and than heated δ=
(d) Its expansion and contraction is restrained AE
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper Pl Pl
E= =
Ans. (d) : σ th = Eα∆T Aδ π d 2 × δ
Thermal Strain ( ε th ) = α∆T 4
80000 × 200
– For free expansion thermal stress ( σ th ) = 0 =
π
– Without restriction there is no any kind of thermal × (20) 2 × 0.25
stress exist. 4
E = 203718.32 N/mm2
47. Under uniaxial strain, the ratio of maximum 51. A circular road of 25 mm diameter and 500
shearing strain to uniaxial strain is– mm long is subjected to a tensile force of 60
(a) 2.0 (b) 0.5 kN. Determine modulus of rigidity and bulk
(c) 1.0 (d) 1.5 modulus if Poisson's ratio = 0.3 and Young's
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper modulus E = 2 × 105 N/mm2
436
 (a) 0.7692 × 105 N/mm2 and 1.667 × 105 N/mm2 Ans. (d) : Given,
(b) 0.667 × 105 N/mm2 and 1.857 × 105 N/mm2 Volume (V) = 200 × 100 × 50 = 106 mm3
(c) 0.1852× 105 N/mm2 and 1.6567 × 105 N/mm2 Hydrostratic pressure (σ) = 15 MPa = 15 N/mm2
(d) 0.4692× 105 N/mm2 and 1.545 × 105 N/mm2 Young's modulus (E) = 200 GPa = 200 × 103 N/mm2
(e) 1.7562× 105 N/mm2 and 1.117 × 105 N/mm2 Poisson's ratio (µ) = 0.3
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift 3σ
Ans. (a) : Data given as Volumetric strain (ev) = (1 − 2µ )
E
d = 25 mm, l = 500 mm
∆V 3σ
F = 60 kN, E = 2 × 105 N/mm2 = (1 − 2µ )
We know that V E
E = 2 G (l + µ) 3σ V
∆V = (1 − 2µ )
2 × 105 E
G= = 0.7692 × 105 N / mm 2
2 × (1 + 0.3 ) 3 × 15 × 106 (1 − 2 × 0.3)
=
E = 3 K (1–2µ) 200 × 103
3
= 90 mm
2 × 105 54. A 1m long rod is fixed at one end. There is a
K=
3 × (1 − 2 × 0.3) rigid wall at a distance 1 mm from the free end
of the rod as depicted in the figure. What is the
K = 1.667 ×105 N / mm 2 thermal stress generated in the rod if its
52. The steel bar AB varies linearly in diameter temperature is increased by 100ºC?
from 25 mm to 50 mm in a length 500 mm. It is Take E = 200 GPa and α = 12 × 10-6/ºC
held between two unyielding supports at room
temperature. What is the stress induced in the
bar, if temperature rises by 25ºC? Take E = 2 ×
105 N/mm2 and α = 1.667× 10-6/ºC
(a) 110 N/mm2 (b) 140 N/mm2
2
(c) 120 N/mm (d) 150 N/mm2
2
(e) 170 N/mm
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift (a) 40 MPa (b) 80 MPa
(c) 120 MPa (d) 240 MPa
Ans. (c) : Thermal stresses in bars of tapering section APPSC-AE-2019
Ans. (a) : Free expansion = l α ∆T
= (1000) (12 × 10-6) (100) = 1.2 mm
Expansion prevented = 1.2 - 1 = 0.2 mm
Pl
0.2 =
AE
Given  P
length of bar (l) = 500 mm ∵ σ = 
 A
dia of smaller end of bar (d1) = 25 mm
2 (σ )(1000)
dia of bigger end of bar (d2) = 50 mm =
change in temperate (∆t) = 25ºC 10 200 × 103
Co-efficient of thermal expansion (α) = 12 × 10-6/ºC σ = 40 MPa
Young's modulus (E) = 2 × 105 N/mm2 55. If a material is heated up, its Elastic modulus
d (a) decreases (b) increases
σ = Eα∆t 2 (c) remains constant (d) None of the above
d1 APPSC-AE-2019
50 Ans. (a) : As the material is heated up, it becomes soft.
= 2 × 105 × 12 × 10−6 × 25 × It undergoes more strain for a given stress
25
= 120 N/mm2  σ
∵ E =  The modulus of elasticity
53. A 200 × 100 × 50 mm steel block is subjected to  ∈
a hydrostatic pressure of 15 MPa. The Young's decreases.
modulus and Poisson's ratio of the material are 6. Modulus of rigidity is the ratio of
200 GPa and 0.3 respectively. The change in (a) longitudinal stress and lateral strain
the volume of the block is (b) shear stress and shear strain
(a) 100 mm3 (b) 110 mm3 (c) longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
3
(c) 85 mm (d) 90 mm3 (d) shear strain and shear stress
3
(e) 80 mm APPSC-AE-2019
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift SJVN ET 2019
437
 Shear Stress 62. ______ is the capacity of material to absorb
Ans. (b) : Modulus of rigidity G = energy when it is elastically deformed and then
Shear Strain upon unloading, to have this energy recovered.
57. Lateral strain (∈) can be expressed as (a) Toughness (b) Tensile strength
(c) Plasticity (d) Resilience
δl l CIL (MT) 2017 IInd Shift
(a) (b)
l δl Ans. (d) : Resilience- It is energy absorbed by a
(c) γ ∈ (d) −γ ∈ member in elastic region. It denotes the capacity of
NSPSC AE 2018 material to absorb energy when it is elastically
deformed and then upon unloading, to release this
Ans. (d) : Lateral strain (∈ ')
energy.
= −γ × longitudinal strain Toughness- It is energy absorbed by member
= −γ × ε just before its fracture.
where γ → poisson ratio 63. Which of the following is correct relation
among elastic constants E (modulus of
58. σα ∈ . This rule is known as elasticity), G (modulus of rigidity), ν (Poisson's
(a) Castinglo's theorem (b) Hooke's law ratio) and K (bulk modulus)?
(c) Young's theorem (d) Reynold law (a) E = 3K (1 − ν ) = 2G (1 + ν )
NSPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) : Hooke's law- A law stating that the strain in (b) E = 2G (1 − ν ) = 3K (1 + ν )
a solid is proportional to the applied stress within the (c) E = 3K (1 − 2ν ) = 2G (1 + ν )
proportionality limit of that material.
(d) E = 2K (1 − 2ν ) = 3G (1 + ν )
σ ∝∈
σ = E. ∈ (e) E = 3K (1 + 2ν ) = 2G (1 − ν )
σ CGPSC AE 2014- I
E=
∈ Ans. (c) : We know that
where E → young's modulus E = 3K [1 – 2ν)
59. The elastic stress-strain behavior of rubber is E = 2G [1 + ν)
(a) linear (b) non-linear 64. The area of under the stress-strain diagram up
(c) plastic (d) normal curve to the rupture point is known as
NSPSC AE 2018 (a) Proof resilience
(b) Modulus of toughness
Ans. (b) : The elastic stress-strain behavior of rubber is
(c) Modulus of elasticity
non-linear. (d) Modulus of resilience
60. Allotropic metal, HPPSC AE 2018
(a) exists in more than one type of lattice Ans. (b) :
structure depending upon temperature
(b) has equal stresses in all directions
(c) has only one lattice structure of all
temperature
(d) gives equal strain in all direction
NSPSC AE 2018
Ans. (a) : Allotropic metal, exists in more than one type
of lattice structure depending upon the temperature.
61. A bar of mild steel 200 mm long and 50 mm ×
50 mm in cross section is subjected to an axial
load of 200 kN. If E is 200 GPa, the elongation Point A – Proporsnalty limit
of the bar will be Point B – Elastic limit
(a) 0.16 mm (b) 0.08 mm Point C – Upper yield Point
(c) 0.04 mm (d) 0.02 mm Point D – Lower yield Point
JWM 2017 DE – Yielding Region
Ans. (b) : Length of bar, L = 200 mm EF – Strain hardening region
Area of bar, A = 50 × 50 mm F – Ultimate point
Axial load, P = 200 × 103 N FG – Necking region
E = 200 × 103 N/mm2 G – Breaking [Rupture point]
Elongation of bar, Modulus of Toughness [M.O.T.]–Modulus of
PL 3
200 × 10 × 200 Toughness is defined as energy observed by a
δ= = 3
component per unit volume just before its rupture.
AE 50 × 50 × 200 × 10 M.O.T.–Total area of stress vs strain curve per unit
δ = 0.08mm volume.
438
65. Poisson ratio is expressed as Ans. (d) :
(a) Lateral stress/lateral strain 9 KG
(b) Longitudinal stress/longitudinal strain E=
3K + G
(c) Lateral strain/longitudinal strain
(d) Lateral stress by longitudinal stress 1
E=
HPPSC AE 2018  3K   G 
CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017  9 KG  +  9 KG 
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
1
TNPSC AE 2013 E=
RPSC 2016    1 
1
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018  3G  +  9 K 
Ans. (c) : Poisson ratio (µ)-The ratio of the transverse 1 1 1
= +
contraction of a material to the longitudinal extension E 3G 9 K
strain in the direction of the stretching force is the 9 3 1
Poisson's Ratio for a material. = +
This Poisson's Ratio for most of the materials is in the E G K
range of 0 to 0.5. 69. Modulus of Rigidity is related to-
When the Poisson's Ratio is 0 there is no reduction in (a) Length (b) Shape
(c) Size (d) Volume
the diameter or one can even say there is no laterally
RPSC AE 2018
contraction happening when you are elongating the
Ans. (b) : Modulus of Rigidity—The modulus of
material but the density would reduce. The value 0.5
rigidity is the elastic coefficient when a shear force is
indicates the volume of the material or object will applied resulting in lateral deformation. It gives us a
remain the same or constant during the elongation measure of how rigid a body is
process or when the diameter decrease of material when
the material is elastomeric.
Rubber (µ) = 0.49, Cork (µ) = 0.
66. The value of Poisson ratio for steel ranges from
(a) 0.25 to 0.33 (b) 0.33 to 0.5
(c) 0.5 to 0.8 (d) o.8 to 1.2
HPPSC AE 2018
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
F
Ans. (a) : The value of Poisson's ratio for steel ranges
τ xy  A 
1 1 G= =
from 0.25 to 0.33  to  γ xy  ∆x 
 4 3  
 l 
Rubber (µ) = 0.49
F ×l
Cork (µ) = 0 =
Aluminium (µ) = 0.32 A ∆x
Concrete (µ) = 0.20 where
67. Area under the stress-strain curve when load is F
• τ xy = is shear stress.
gradually applied in tension represents the A
(a) Strain energy • F is the force acting on the object.
(b) Strain energy density ∆x
(c) Strain energy per unit weight
• γ xy = is the shear strain.
l
(d) Strain energy per unit area • ∆x is the transverse displacement.
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 70. The stress-strain curve of an ideal elastic
Ans. (b) : Area under the stress-strain curve when load material with strain hardening will be as-
is gradually applied in tension represents the strain (a)
energy density.
68. Which of the relationship between bulk
modulus (K), modulus of elasticity (E) and
modulus of rigidity (G) is correct.
9KE 9KE (b)
(a) G = (b) G =
K + 3E E + 3K
3KE 9 3 1
(c) G = (d) = +
E + 9K E G K
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
439
 (c) Ans. (d) : The ratio of transverse contraction strain to
longitudinal extension strain in the direction of
stretching force within elastic limits and for a
homogeneous material is known as Poisson Ratio
denoted by 'µ'.
transverse strain
µ =−
(d) longitudinal strain
72. Detrimental property of a material for shock
load application is-
(a) High density (b) Low toughness
(c) High strength (d) Low hardness
RPSC AE 2018
RPSC AE 2018 Ans. (b) : Detrimental property of a material for shock
Ans. (d) : 1. The stress-strain curve for an ideal elastic load application is low toughness.
material. 73. The ability of the material to absorb energy
before fracture is known as:
(a) Toughness (b) Ductility
(c) Cold shortness (d) Hardness
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (a) : The ability of the material to absorb energy
2. The stress-strain curve for rigid - Perfectly plastic before fracture is known as toughness.
material

3. Stress-strain curve for elastic - Perfectly plastic 74. For ductile materials, the largest value of
material. tensile stress that can be sustained by material
before breaking is known as:
(a) Modulus of elasticity
(b) Ultimate tensile strength
(c) Yield strength
(d) Toughness
4. Stress-strain curve for an ideal elastic material with UPRVUNL AE 2016
strain hardening material. Ans. (b) : For ductile materials, the largest value of
tensile stress that can be sustained by material before
breaking is known as Ultimate tensile strength.
1
75. The equation for relationship between ,C&
m
K is,
5. stress-strain curve for rigid - Linear hardening 1 3K − 2C 1 2C − 3K
(a) = (b) =
material m 6 K + 2C m 2C + 6 K
1 2 K − 3C 1 3K + 2C
(c) = (d) =
m 2C + 6 K m 6 K − 2C
TNPSC AE 2013
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
Ans. (a) : We know that relation between poisson ratio
71. The ratio of transverse contraction strain to  1
longitudinal extension strain in the direction of µ or m  , modulus of rigidity (C) and bulk module (K)
stretching force within elastic limits and for a  
is given as
homogeneous material is ....................
(a) Modulus of Elasticity 2C (1 + µ ) = 3K (1 − 2µ )
(b) Modulus of Rigidity 2C + 2Cµ = 3K − 6Kµ
(c) Bulk Modulus 1 3K − 2C
(d) Poisson Ratio µ= =
m 6K + 2C
RPSC AE 2018
440
76. A circular rod of length 'L' and area of cross 80. Stress concentration occurs when-
section 'A' has a modulus of elasticity 'E' and (a) a body is subjected to excessive stress
co-efficient of thermal expansion ' α'. One end (b) a body is subjected to unidirectional stress
of the rod is fixed and the other end is free. If (c) a body is subjected to fluctuating stress
the temperature of the rod is increased by ?T, (d) a body is subjected to non-uniform stress
then distribution
(a) stress developed in the rod is E α T and strain RPSC 2016
developed in the rod is α T Ans : (d) Stress concentration occurs when these is
(b) Both stress and strain developed in the rod are sudden change in the geometry of the body due to
zero cracks sharp corners, holes and decrease in the cross
(c) stress developed in the rod is zero and strain
section area.
developed in the rod is α T
(d) stress developed in the rod is E α T and strain 81. When the temperature of a solid metal
developed in the rod is zero. increases-
TSPSC AEE 2015 (a) strength of the metal decreases but ductility
Ans. (c) : Thermal Stress will be zero in the rod because increases
rod is free to expand during temperature rise whereas (b) both strength and ductility decrease
(c) both strength and ductility increase
thermal strain will be αT.
(d) strength of the metal increases but ductility
77. For an isotropic, homogeneous and linearly decreases
elastic material, which obeys Hook's law, the RPSC 2016
number of independent elastic constant is
(a) 1 (b) 2 Ans : (a) Strength of the metal decreases but ductility
(c) 3 (d) 6 increases. When the temperature of a solid metal
TSPSC AEE 2015 increases, then its intermolecular bonds breaks and
Ans. (b) : 2 strength of solid metal decreases. Due to decreases its
78. For a circular cross section beam is subjected strength, the elongation of the metal increases, when we
to a shearing force F, the maximum shear apply the load i.e. ductility increases.
stress induced will be (where d = diameter) 82. The ratio of modulus of rigidity to modulus of
(a) F/πd2 (b) 4F/πd2 elasticity for a poisson's ratio of 0.25 would be-
2
(c) 2F/πd (d) F/4d2 (a) 0.5 (b) 0.4
TSPSC AEE 2015 (c) 0.3 (d) 1.0
shear force RPSC 2016
Ans. (b) : τmax =
shear area Ans : (b) E = 2G(1 + µ)
F µ = 0.25
=
π 2 G 1 1
4d = =
  E 2(1 + µ) 2(1.25)
4F G
τmax = 2 = 0.4
πd E
79. A bar of 30 mm diameter is subjected to a pull
83. A steel rod of diameter 1 cm and 1m long is
of 60 kN. The measured extension on gauge
heated from 200C its α = 12×10–6/K and E = 200
length of 200 mm is 0.09 mm and change in
GN/m2. If the rod is free to expand, the thermal
diameter is 0.0039 mm. Find its Poisson's ratio.
stress developed in it is–
(a) 0.309 (b) 0.299
(c) 0.289 (d) 0.279 (a) 12×104 N/m2 (b) 240 KN/m2
TNPSC 2019 (c) Zero (d) Infinity
Ans. (c) : Data given- RPSC 2016
d = 30 mm, ∆d = 0.0039 mm Ans : (c) If a material expands or contract freely due to
l = 200 mm, ∆l = 0.09 mm heating or cooling. Then no stress will develop in
P = 60 kN material but if this expansion and contraction is
we know that prevented than internal resisting forces are developed in
Poisson's ratio the material and because of these internal in the
 ∆d   0.0039  material.
 d   30  84. A rod is subjected to a uniaxial load with in
µ=   =  linear elastic limit. When the change in the
 ∆l   0.09  stress is 200 Mpa, the change in strain is 0.001.
 l   200 
If the Poisson's ratio of the rod is 0.3, the
µ = 0.2888 modulus of rigidity (in Gpa) is–
(a) 75.31 (b) 76.92
441
 (c) 77.23 (d) 76.11 (a) – P (b) 0
RPSC 2016 (c) P/3 (d) 2P/3
Ans : (b) OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
Ans. (b) :
stress 200 × 106
E= = = 2 × 1011 Pa
strain 0.001
µ = 0.3 ⇒
E = 2G(1 + µ)
2 × 1011 = 2G (1 + 0.3)
G = 7.69 × 1010 Pa
G = 76.62GPa
85. A steel rod 10 mm in diameter and 1 m long is
heated from 20°C to 120°C, E = 200 GPa and
FBD
α = 12 × 10–6 per °C. If the rod is not free to
expand, the thermal stress developed is :
(a) 120 MPa (tensile)
(b) 240 MPa (tensile)
(c) 120 MPa (compressive)
(d) 240 MPa (compressive)
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
Ans. (d) : Given,
E = 200 GPa
= 200 ×109 Pa
= 200 × 103 MPa
α = 12 × 10–6 Per º C
∆t = (120º – 20)
= 100º C
σThermal = E α ∆ t
= 200 × 103 × 12 × 10–6 × (120 – 20)
= 240 MPa (Compressive)
Considering rotational moment about support
86. A steel bar of 40 mm × 40 mm square cross-
T=I×α
section is subjected to an axial compressive
load of 200 kN. If the length of the bar is 2 m 2L mL2
P× = ×α
and E = 200 GPa, the elongation of the bar will 3 3
be : a
(a) 1.25 mm (b) 2.70 mm α=
(c) 4.05 mm (d) 5.40 mm r
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018  mL2 L mL2 
 Iendpoint = + mK 2 , K = , I = 
Ans. (a) :  12 2 3 
Pℓ 200 ×1000 × 2000 L 2a
δℓ = = and r = therefore, α =
AE 40 × 40 × 200 × 1000 2 L
= 1.25 mm 2L mL2 2a
87. A uniform rigid rod of mass 'm' and length 'L' P× = ×
3 3 L
is hinged at one end as shown in the figure. A
P
2L a=
force 'P' is applied at a distance of from m
3 considering horizontal equilibrium
the hinge so that the rod swings to the right. ⇒ P – RH = m × a
The reaction at the hinge is :
P
⇒ −R H + P = m ×
m
RH = 0
88. In a tensile test, when a material is stressed
beyond elastic limit, the tensile strain ___ as
compared to the stress.
(a) decreases slowly
(b) increases slowly
(c) decreases more quickly
442
 (d) increases more quickly Ans : (c) : Thermal stress- If the material is restrained
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II from expanding or contracting while the temperature
Ans : (d) : In a tensile test, when a material is stressed change, then stress builds within the part.
beyond elastic limit the tensile strain increases more 95. Engineering stress-strain curve and true stress-
quickly as compared to the stress. strain curve are equal up to :
89. The Young's modulus of a material is 125 GPa (a) Proportional limit
and Poisson's ratio is 0.25. The modulus of (b) Elastic limit
rigidity of the material is (c) Yield point
(a) 50 GPa (b) 30 GPa (d) Tensile strength point
(c) 5 GPa (d) 500 GPa OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II Ans : (c) : Engineering stress-strain curve and true
Ans : (a) : E = 125 GPa stress stain curve equal up to yield point.
µ = 0.25 96. Two tapering bars of the material are
E = 2G (1 + µ) subjected to a tensile load P. The length of both
125 = 2G (1+ 0.25) the bars are the same. The larger diameter of
125 each of the bars is D. The diameter of the bar A
G= =50 at its smaller end is D/2 and that of the bar B is
2×1.25
D/3. What is the ratio of elongation of the bar
G = 50 GPa A to that of the bar B?
90. A prismatic bar has (a) 3 : 2
(a) maximum ultimate strength (b) 2 : 3
(b) maximum yield strength (c) 4 : 9
(c) varying cross-section (d) 1 : 3
(d) uniform cross-section OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI Ans : (b) :
Ans : (d) : A prismatic bar or beam is a straight
structural piece that has the same cross section through
its length.
91. The failure criterion for ductile materials is
based on
(a) yield strength (b) ultimate strength Elongation of bar A
4 PL
(c) shear strength (d) limit of proportionality (δ A ) =
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI π Ed1d 2
Ans : (a) : The failure criterion for ductile materials is
4 PL 8PL
based on yield strength. = =
92. The stress-strain plot for ductile materials π E ( D )( D / 2 ) π ED 2
exhibits peak at ultimate strength
(a) because necking begins to occur whereby
engineering stress becomes less than the true
stress
(b) because the material starts becoming weaker
at microstructural level Elongation of bar B
(c) due to strain softening of the material 4 PL 4 PL 12 PL
(δ B ) = = =
(d) None of the above π Ed1d 2 π E ( D )( D / 3) π ED 2
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
δA 8 2
Ans : (a) : Because necking begins to occur, where by = =
engineering stress becomes less than the true stress. δ B 12 3
93. Hooke's law holds good up to : 97. If the value of Poisson’s ratio is zero, then it
(a) Yield point means that :
(b) Limit of proportionality (a) The material is rigid
(c) Breaking point (b) The material is perfectly plastic
(d) Elastic limit (c) There is no longitudinal strain in the material
(d) The longitudinal strain in the material is
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I infinite
Ans : (b) : Hooke’s law holds good up to limit of OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
proportionality. Ans : (d) : Poisson’s ratio is defined as,
94. In a body, thermal stress in induced because of Lateral strain
the existence of : µ=−
Longitudinal ( axial ) strain
(a) Latent heat (b) Total heat
(c) Temperature gradient (d) Specific heat ! If µ=0 then, either lateral strain is zero or longitudinal
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I strain is infinite.
443
98. In a homogenous, isotropic elastic material, the
modulus of elasticity E in terms of G and K is
equal to : (c) (d)
G + 2K 3G + K
(a) (b)
9KG 9KG
9KG 9KG OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
(c) (d) Ans : (b)
G + 3K K + 3G
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
RPSC AE 2018
TNPSC AE 2013
UJVNL AE 2016
APPSC AE 2012
UKPSC AE 2012, 2013 Paper-I
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
Ans : (c) :
E = 3 K (1–2µ)
E
= 1 − 2µ
3K 101. Failure of a material is called fatigue when it
E falls
2µ = 1 − –––––––––– (i)
3K (a) at the elastic limit
E = 2G (1+µ) (b) below the elastic limit
E (c) at the yield point
µ= −1 (d) below the yield point
2G
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
E
2µ = − 2 ––––––––––– (ii) Ans : (d) : Fatigue- When a material is subjected to
G repeated stress, it fails at stress below the yield point
From equation (i) and (ii) stress. Such type of failure of a material is known as
E E fatigue.
1− = −2 102. Poisson's ratio of perfectly linear elastic
3K G
material is
1 1  (a) 0 (b) 1
3 = E + 
 G 3 K (c) 0.3 (d) 0.5
 3K + G  Gujarat PSC AE 2019
3 = E  Ans : (d) : Volumetric strain for liner elastic material is
 3KG  given by
 9 KG  ∆v
E =  ∈v =
 3K + G  v
99. Strain is defined as the ratio of :
=
( )
(1 − 2µ ) σ x + σ y + σ z
(a) Change in volume to original volume
E
(b) Change in length to original length ∆v = 0,
(c) Changes in cross-sectional area to original 1 − 2µ = 0;
cross-sectional area
(d) Any one of these µ = 0.5
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I 103. A 10 mm diameter aluminium alloy test bar is
Ans : (d) : Strain is defined as the ratio of- subjected to a load of 500 N. If the diameter of
! Change in length to original length. the bar at this load is 8 mm, the true strain is
! Change in cross-sectional area to original cross (a) 0.2 (b) 0.25
sectional area. (c) 0.22 (d) 0.1
100. The stress-strain curve of an rigid-plastic Gujarat PSC AE 2019
material will be as : Ans : (*) : True strain is given as
A 
∈t = ln  0 
 Af 
(a) (b)
d 
= 2 ln  o 
 df 
444
Since, d0 = 10 mm (c) In both elastic and plastic range, strain is
df = 8 mm proportional to stress
Therefore, we get, (d) None of the above
 10  (HPPSC LECT. 2016)
∈t = 2ln   Ans : (b) Hooke's law is applicable up to elastic range,
8 strain is proportional to stress.
= 0.446 Hooke's law:- The slope of this line is the ratio of stress
104. True strain for a steel bar which is doubled its to strain and in constant for a material. In this range, the
length by tension is : material also remains elastic. When a material behaves
(a) 0.307 (b) 0.5 elastically and also exhibits a linear relationship
(c) 0.693 (d) 1.0 between stress and strain, it is called linearly elastic.
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I The slope of stress- strain curve is called the modulus of
Ans : (c) : Elasticity
Initial length of bar = ℓi 109. The ratio of modulus of rigidity to bulk
modulus for a Poisson's ratio of 0.25 would be:
Final length of bar = 2ℓi (a) 2/3 (b) 2/5
(c) 3/5 (d) 1.0
∆L 2ℓ i − ℓ i HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
Engineering strain ∈= = =1
ℓ ℓi Ans : (c) E = 3K (1-2µ) .......…….. (i)
True strain (∈true ) = ln (1+ ∈) = ln (1 + 1) E = 2G (1+µ) …………..(ii)
3K (1-2µ) = 2G (1+µ)
∈true = ln ( 2 )
G 3 (1 − 2µ )
= 0.693 =
K 2 (1 + µ )
105. For a ductile material, toughness is a measure
of G = Modulus of rigidity
(a) Resistance to scratching K = Bulk modulus
(b) Ability to absorb energy upto fracture E = Modulus of Elasticity
(c) Ability to absorb energy till elastic limit µ = Poission's ratio
(d) Resistance to indentation G 3 (1 − 2 × 0.25 )
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 =
K 2 (1 + 0.25 )
Ans : (b) : Ability to absorb energy upto fracture
G K=3 5
106. The use of compound tubes subjected to
internal pressure are made to : 110. Two identical circular rods made of cast iron
(a) even out the stresses and mild steel are subjected to same magnitude
(b) increases the thickness of axial force. The stress developed is within
(c) increases the diameter of the tube proportional limit. Which of the following
(d) increase the strength observation is correct ?
(HPPSC AE 2014) (a) Both roads elongate by same amount
(b) MS rod elongates more
Ans : (a) The use of compound tubes subjected to
(c) Cl rod elongates more
internal pressure are made to even out the stresses. (d) Both stress and strain are equal in both roads
107. When a body is subjected to stress in all the OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
directions, the body is said to be under......... Ans : (c) Two identical circular rods made of cast iron
strain. and mild steel are subjected to same magnitude of axial
(a) compressive (b) tensile force. The stress developed is within proportional limit.
(c) shear (d) volumetric CI rod elongates more, because in broportional limit
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) cast iron elasticity is more mild steel elasticity.
Ans : (d) 111. For a linearly elastic, isometric and
homogeneous material , the number of elastic
constants required to relate stress and strain
are :
(a) Four (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Six
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
Ans : (b) For a linearly elastic, isometric and
homogeneous material, the number of elastic constant
required to relate stress and strain are two.
When a body is subjected to stress in all the direction,
the body is said to be under volumetric strain. 112. Resilience of material should be considered
when it is subjected to
108. Hooke's law is applicable: (a) shock load (b) electroplating
(a) Plastic range, strain is proportional to stress (c) chemical coating (d) polishing
(b) Elastic range, strain is proportional to stress RPSC AE 2016
445
Ans : (a) Resilience of material should be considered ex + e y + ez = ev
when it is subjected to shock loading.
3σ
Resilience:- It is the property of a materials to absorb
energy and to resist shock and impact loads. It is
ev = ( 1 − 2µ )
E
measured by the amount of energy absorbed per unit δv 3σ
volume within elastic limit this property is essential for = ( 1 − 2µ )
spring materials. v E
This limits 2µ to maximum of 1 or the poisson's ratio lie
113. The change in length due to tensile or
compressive force acting on a body is given by to 0.5. No material is known to have a higher Value for
(with usual notations) poisson's ratio although µ for materials like rubber
(a) δl = AE/ Pl (b) δl = Pl/AE approaches this value.
(c) δl = PE/Al (d) δl= P/AlE Poisson's ratio
TSPSC AEE 2015 0 < µ < 1/2
Ans : (b) 115. A steel rod of 100 cm long and 1 sq cm cross
sectional area has a young's modulus of
elasticity 2 × 106 kgf/cm2. It is subjected to an
Hook's low:- axial pull of 2000 kgf. The elongation of the rod
Stress ∝ strain
will be.
σ = Ee
(a) 0.05 cm (b) 0.1cm
p
e= (c) 0.15cm (d) 0.20cm
AE UJVNL AE 2016
δℓ p
= Ans : (b)
ℓ AE
pℓ
δl =
AE
114. Which of the following is true (µ = Poisson's
ratio): l = 100 cm =1m, A = 1 × 10-4m2
1
(a) 0 < µ < /2 (b) 1 < µ < -1 P = 2 × 104 N.
(c) 1 < µ < 0 (d) ∞ < µ < -∞ E = 2 × 106kgf/cm2 = 2×1011N/m2
UJVNL AE 2016 Pl
Ans : (a) δl =
AE
2 × 10 4 × 1
δl =
1× 10-4 × 2 × 1011
δl = 0.1cm.
116. The elongation of a conical bar due to its self
weight is
γℓ 2 γℓ 2
(a) (b)
6E 2E
γℓ 2 γℓ 2
(c) (d)
2E E
Total strain in x-x direction
Where γ = unit weight of the material.
σx σy σ APPSC AEE 2012
ex = − µ. −µ z
E E E Ans : (a) Elongation of conical bar due to self weight.
σ  σ y σz  γℓ 2 1
ex = x − µ  +  ∆= = × Deflection of prismatic bar
E  E E  6E 3
Where σ x = σ y = σ z = σ γ = Specific weight
l = length of bar
σ σ σ
ex = − µ +  E = Modulus of Elasticity.
E E E 117. The strain due to a temperature change in a
σ σ
ex = − 2µ   simple bar is
E E (a) αt (b) α / t
σ (c) t / α (d) α + 1
ex = ( 1 − 2 µ )
E APPSC AEE 2012
446
Ans : (a) (c) δℓ (d) 2δℓ
Thermal stress and strain :- APPSC AEE 2012
σ thstress = E α ∆T Ans : (b) Case 1st :-
∆ = L α ∆T Elongation of beam
Lα∆T Pℓ
strain = = α∆T δℓ1 =
L AE
∆ T = Temperature Change Case 2nd :-
α = coefficient of thermal expansion. Modulus of elasticity is halved
σ = thermal stress 2Pℓ
Sℓ 2 =
118. The ratio of total elongation of a bar of AE
uniform cross-section produced under its own δℓ 2 = 2 × δℓ1
weight to the elongation produced by an
external load equal to the weight of the bar is 121. A 16mm diameter central hole is bored out of a
(a) 1 (b) 2 steel rod of 40mm diameter and length 1.6m.
The tensile strength because of this operation
1 1 (a) increases (b) remains constant
(c) (d)
2 4 (c) decreases (d) None of these
APPSC AEE 2012 APPSC AEE 2012
Ans : (c) Ans : (c) A 16mm diameter central hole is bored out of
Axial elongation (∆1 ) of bar due to external load a steel rod of 40mm diameter and length 1.6m. The
PL tensile strength because of this operation decreases.
(∆1 ) = 122. The relationship between Young's modulus
AE
Axial elongation (∆ 2 ) of bar due to self weight 1
and shear modulus when = 0, is
PL m
∆2 =
2AE (a) E = 2G (b) E = 3G
∆2 1 (c) E = 2G+1 (d) C = 2E
= APPSC AEE 2012
∆1 2
Ans : (a)
119. Two bars A and B are of equal length but B
 1
has an area half that of A and bar A has E = 2G 1 + 
young's modulus double that of B. When a load  m 
'P' is applied to the two bars, the ratio of  2
deformation between A and B is E = 3K 1 − 
 m
1
(a) (b) 1 1
2 If = 0 then
m
1 E = 2G
(c) 2 (d)
4 E = 3K
APPSC AEE 2012 123. If a rigidly connected bar of steel and copper is
Ans : (d) heated, the copper bar will be subjected to
Bar 'A ' Bar 'B' (a) compression (b) shear
(c) tension (d) None of these
ℓ1 = ℓ ℓ2 = ℓ APPSC AEE 2012
A1 = A A2 = A/2 Ans : (a) If a rigidly connected bar of steel and copper
E1 = 2E E2 = E is heated, the copper bar will be subjected to
P1 = P P2 = P compression.
P1ℓ1 P2 ℓ 2 124. The following diagram is a stress-strain
δℓ1 = δℓ 2 =
A1E1 A 2 E2 diagram of any material. Which kind of
material is it?
Pℓ
δℓ1 =
2AE
δℓ1 1 2Pℓ
= δℓ 2 =
δℓ 2 4 AE
120. The elongation of beam of length 'l' and cross-
sectional area 'A' subjected to a load 'P' is δl.
If the modulus of elasticity is halved, the new
elongation will be
δℓ
(a) (b) 2(δℓ)
2
447
 (a) Plastic (b) Linear Elastic 127. A cylindrical rod with length L, cross-sectional
(c) Non-linear Elastic (d) Visco-elastic area A and Young's modulus E is rigidly fixed
APPSC-AE-2019 at its upper end and hangs vertically. The
Ans. (d) : Purely elastic material elongation of the rod due to its self weight W is
WL WL
(a) (b)
3 AE 2 AE
2WL WL
(c) (d)
3 AE AE
APPSC-AE-2019
Ans. (b) : Self weight = W = weight density × volume
W
Loading and unloading to energy loss. = γ × A× L ⇒ γ =
Viscoelastic material AL
γ L2
and self weight elongation δ lsw =
2E
W 2
.L WL
= AL =
2E 2 AE
128. Strain in direction at right angle to the
Loading and unloading the area inside the curve, direction of applied force is known as:-
hysteresis loop is energy loss. (a) Lateral strain
(b) Shear strain
125. A uniform taper rod of diameter 30 mm to 15
(c) Volumetric strain
mm, length of 314 mm is subjected to 4500 N.
5 (d) None of the above
The Young's modulus of the material is 2 × 10 UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
N/mm2. Extension of the bar is APPSC AEE 2012
(a) 0.05 mm (b) 0.5 mm
(c) 0.25 mm (d) 0.005 mm Ans. (a) : Strain in direction at right angle to the
TNPSC AE 2013 direction of applied force is known as lateral strain.
Ans. (*) : Data given- 129. A material has elastic modulus of 120 GPa and
D = 30 mm d = 15 mm shear modulus of 50 GPa. Poisson’s ratio for
L = 314 mm P = 4500 N the material is:-
5
E = 2 × 10 N/mm 2 (a) 0.1 (b) 0.2
We know that extension of the taper bar. (c) 0.3 (d) 0.33
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
4 P.L Ans. (b) : Given as,
δ=
π Dd.E E = 120 GPa
4 × 4500 × 314 G = 50 GPa
δ= Then,
3014 × 30 × 15 × 2 × 10 5
E = 2G (1 + µ)
δ = 0.02mm 120 = 2 × 50 (1 + µ)
126. A test used to determine the behavior of µ = 0.2
materials when subjected to high rates of
loading is known as : 130. Elongation of bar under its own weight as
(a) Hardness test (b) Impact test compared to that when the bar is subjected to a
(c) Fatigue test (d) Torsion test direct axial load equal to its own weight will
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 be:-
(a) The same (b) One fourth
Ans : (b) A test used to determine the behavior of (c) A half (d) Double
materials when subjected to high rate of loading for UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
small time is known as impact test. Ans. (c) :
Impact loading:- 131. Stress and Strain are tensor of
(a) zero-order (b) first order
(c) second order (d) None of the above
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (c) : second order
132. The unit of modulus of elasticity is same as
those of
(a) stress, strain and pressure
(b) stress, pressure and modulus of rigidity
(c) stress, force and modulus of rigidity
448
 (d) stress, force and pressure  2  2
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I (a) E = k 1 −  (b) E = 2k 1 − 
 m   m
Ans. (b) : stress, pressure and modulus of rigidity
133. Which of the following has no unit ?  2  2
(c) E = 3k 1 −  (d) E = 4k 1 − 
(a) Kinematic viscosity  m   m
(b) Strain UPRVUNL AE 2016
(c) Surface Tension UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(d) Bulk Modulus  2
Ans. (c) : E = 3k 1 − 
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I  m
Ans. (b) : Strain 140. The elongation produced in a bar due to its
134. What does the elasticity of material enables it self-weight is given by
to do ? 9.81ρl 2 9.81ρl 2
(a) Regain the original shape after the removal of (a) (b)
E 2E
applied force.
(b) Draw into wires by the application of force. 9.81 ρ l 9.81ρ2l
(c) (d)
(c) Resist fracture due to high impact. E 2E
(d) Retain deformation produced under load UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
permanently. 9.81ρl 2
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I Ans. (b) :
2E
Ans. (a) : Regain the original shape after the removal of
applied force. 141. Hooke's law holds good upto
(a) proportional limit (b) yield point
135. In a static tension tests of a low carbon steel (c) elastic limit (d) plastic limit
sample, the gauge length affects UPRVUNL AE 2014
(a) yield stress UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(b) ultimate tensile stress
(c) percentage elongation Ans. (a) : Proportional limit
(d) percentage reduction in cross-sectional area 142. Which of the following is not the characteristic
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I of stress-strain curve for mild steel?
Ans. (c) : percentage elongation (a) The stress is proportional to the strain up to
136. One end of a metallic rod is fixed rigidly and its the proportional limit
temperature is raised. It will experience (b) Percentage reduction in area may be as high
(a) zero stress as 60-70%.
(b) tensile stress (c) A neck is formed due to high stress level
(c) compressive stress (d) During plastic stage no strain hardening takes
(d) None of the above place
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Ans. (a) : zero stress Ans. (d) : During plastic stage no strain hardening takes
137. A metallic cube is subjected to equal pressure place.
(P) on its all the six faces. If ∈v is volumetric
strain produced, the ratio
P
is called
2. Principle Stress and Strain
∈v 143. What is the number of non-zero strain
(a) Elastic modulus components for a plane stress problem?
(b) Shear modulus (a) 6 (b) 4
(c) Bulk modulus (c) 3 (d) 2
(d) Strain-Energy per unit volume APPSC-AE-2019
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I Ans. (c) : In a plane stress (2D) problem the number of
Ans. (c) : Bulk modulus non-zero strain components are ∈x , ∈y and φxy
138. Select the proper sequence for the following : Total three number.
1. Proportional limit
∈x φxy 
2. Elastic limit The 2D tensor is  
3. Yield point φxy ∈y 
4. Fracture/failure point 144. At a material point the principal stresses are σ1
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-1-3-4 = 100 MPa and σ2 = 20 MPa. If the elastic limit
(c) 1-2-4-3 (d) 2-1-4-3 is 200 MPa, what is the factor of safety based
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I on maximum shear stress theory?
Ans. (a) : 1-2-3-4 (a) 1.5 (b) 2
139. The relation between E (modulus of elasticity) (c) 2.5 (d) 3
and k (bulk modulus of elasticity) is APPSC-AE-2019
449
Ans. (b) : σ1 = 100 MPa 147. Which of the following represents the Mohr's
σ2 = 20 MPa circle for the state of stress shown below?
σ3 = 0 (Minimum principal stress)
σy = 200 MPa
According to Maximum Shear Stress theory
σy
τ max =
2 FOS (a)
σ1 − σ 3 σy
⇒ =
2 2 FOS
σ
⇒ σ1 − σ 3 = y (b)
FOS
200
⇒ 100 − 0 =
FOS
200
FOS = =2 (c)
100
145. The state stress at a point is shown below. θ
represents the principal plane corresponding to
principal stress σ1 and σ2 (σ1 > σ2). Values of
θ, σ1, and σ2 are (d)

APPSC-AE-2019
Ans. (d) : Under pure shear condition, centre of Mohr's
circle coincides with origin.
(a) 0º, 90º, τ and -τ 148. The normal stresses at a point are σx = 10 MPa,
(b) 30º, 120º, τ and -τ
σy = 2 MPa, and the shear stress at the at this
(c) 45º, 135º, τ and -τ
point is 3 MPa. The maximum principal stress
τ τ at this point would be
(d) 45º, 135º, and −
2 2 (a) 15 MPa (b) 13 MPa
APPSC-AE-2019 (c) 11 MPa (d) 09 MPa
Ans. (c) : JWM 2017
Ans. (c) : Maximum principle stress,
2
σx + σy  σx − σy  2
σ1 = ±   + τ xy
2  2 
σ x = 10 MPa
σ y = 2 MPa
Due to pure shear diagonal tension (σ1 = +τ) and
diagonal compression (σ2 = -τ) develops. τ xy = 3 MPa
The angle between principal planes is 90º. 2
∴ θ1 = 45º, θ2 = 135º, σ1 = τ, σ2 = -τ 10 + 2  10 − 2  2
σ1 = +   +3
146. According to the maximum principal stress 2  2 
theory, the yield locus is a/an = 6 + 16 + 9 = 6 + 5 = 11 MPa
(a) square (b) circle
(c) hexagon (d) ellipse σ1 = 11 MPa
APPSC-AE-2019
Ans. (a) : As per Maximum principal stress theory 149. At a point in a bi-axially loaded member, the
principal stresses are found to be 60 MPa and
80 MPa. If the critical stress of the material is
240 MPa, what could be the factor of safety
according to the maximum shear stress theory?
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 5
yielding locus is a square. JWM 2017
450
Ans. (b) : Principle stress, σ1 = 80 MPa 153. If principle stress σp1 = 100 N/mm2 (tensile) σp2
= 40 N/mm2 (compressive), then maximum
σ 2 = 60 MPa shear stress will be:
σ 3 = 0 MPa (a) 70 N/mm2 (b) 50 N/mm2
2
Critical stress, σ y = 240 MPa (c) 30 N/mm (d) 10 N/mm2
(e) 5 N/mm2
According to maximum shear stress theory- CGPSC AE 2014- I
 σ1 − σ 2 σ − σ3 σ − σ1  σy Ans. (a) : Data given-
 or 2 or 3  = σp1 = 100 N/mm2, σp2 = – 40 N/mm2
 2 2 2  max 2 × N Then max, shear stress is given as
80 240 σ p1 − σ p2
=
2 2× N τ max = Radius of Mohr's circle =
2
Factor of safety N = 3
100 − [ −40]
150. An element is subjected to pure shear stress τ max = = 70N / mm 2
(+τxy). What will be the principle stress induced 2
in the element? 154. The radius of a Mohr's circle represents
(a) Maximum normal stress
(a) ( σ1,2 = ±2τ xy ) (b) ( σ1,2 = O ) (b) Minimum normal stress
 τ xy  (c) Maximum shear stress
(c)  σ1,2 =
2 
 (d) ( σ1,2 = ±τ xy ) (d) Minimum shear stress
 HPPSC AE 2018
CIL (MT) 2017 IInd Shift Ans. (c) : The radius of Mohr's circle represents
Ans. (d) : In case of pure shear stress, the principle maximum shear stress.
stress is equal to the shear stress.
151. In Mohr’s circle σ1 and σ2 are the principle
stress acting at point on the component. The
maximum shear stress τmax is given by:
 σ *σ 
(a) τmax =  1 2 
 2 
 σ *σ 
(b) τmax =  1 2 
 4 
Where
 σ − σ2  σ1 = Major principal stress
(c) τ max =  1 
 2  σ2 = Minor principal stress
 σ + σ2  τmax = Maximum shear stress
(d) τ max =  1  σ − σ2
 4  τmax = 1 = R MC
CIL (MT) 2017 IInd Shift 2
Ans. (c) : In case of Mohr's circle with σ1 and σ2 are the 155. Radius of Mohr's circle for stain is given by: [if
principle acting at point. The maximum shear stress ε = direct strain and γ = shear strain]
 σ − σ2   ε − ε  2 γ 
τ max =  1  xx yy xy 
 (a)   + 
 2   2  2 

152. Radius of Mohr's circle is represented as :
2 2
[where σp1 > 0 and σp2 > 0 are the major and  ε xx − ε yy   γ xy 
minor value of principle stresses] (b)   +  
 2   2 
σ p1 − σ p2
(a) σ p1 − σ p2 (b) 2
2  ε xx − ε yy 
( )
2
σ p1 + σ p2 (c)   + γ xy
(c) σ p1 + σ p2 (d)  2 
2 2 2
σ p1 × σ p2  ε xx + ε yy   γ xy 
(e) (d)   + 
2  2   2 
CGPSC AE 2014- I
2
Ans. (b) : Radius of Mohr's circle is represented by  ε xx + ε yy 
( )
2
σ p1 − σ p2
(e)   + γ xy
 2 
R=
2 CGPSC AE 2014- I
451
Ans. (b) : Radius of Mohr's circle for strain is given as 159. The radius of Mohr's circle is represented by
2 2 (σxx, σyy = Direct stress and τxy = shear stress):
 ε x − x − ε y− y   γ x−y  (σ xx − σ yy )
R=   +  (a)
 2   2  2
156. The minimum number of strain gauges in a (σ xx + σ yy )
(b)
strain rosette is 2
(a) One (b) Two 2
(c) Three (d) Four  σ xx + σ yy 
 + τ xy
2
(c) 
HPPSC AE 2018  2 
Ans. (c) : The minimum number of strain gauge in a 2
strain rosette is Three.  σ xx − σ yy 
 + τ xy
2
(d) 
Strain Gauge Rosette–A strain gauge rosette is a term  2 
for an arrangement of two or more strain gauge that are UPRVUNL AE 2016
positioned closely to measure strains along different Ans. (d) : We know that radius of Mohr's circle is given
directions of the component under evaluation. as
157. If principal stresses in a plane stress problem σ −σ2
are σ1 = 100 MPa and σ2 = 40 MPa, then τ max = 1 =R
2
magnitude of the maximum shear stress (in 2
MPa) will be,  σ xx − σ yy 
R=±   + τ xy
2
(a) 176.2 (b) 196  2 
(c) 30 (d) 981.0
TNPSC AE 2014 160.For an element in pure shear (+τ xy ) , the
principal stresses will be given as :
σ − σ2 
Ans. (c) : τ max =  1  (a) σ1,2 = ±τ xy
 2 
(b) σ1,2 = ±τ xy / 2
100 − 40
= = 30 MPa
2 (c) σ1,2 = ±τ xy 2
158. In a 3-D state of stress, the independent stress (d) σ1,2 = 0 + τ xy
components required to define state-of-stress at UPRVUNL AE 2016
a point are -
Ans. (a) : We know that
(a) 3 (b) 6
For an element in pure shear (±τxy), then principal
(c) 12 (d) 9 stresses.
RPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) :
σ xx τ xy τ xz 
 
τ yx σ yy τ yz 
 τ zx τ zy σ zz 
 
then,
σ x − x ,σ y − y ,σ z − z
σx = σy = 0 (Pure shear)
τ xy = τ yx Then principal stresses
τ xz = τ zx σ +σ y 1
σ 1,2 = x ± (σ x − σ y ) 2 + 4τ xy2
τ yz = τ zy 2 2
σ 1,2 = ± τ xy
161. The radius of Mohr's circle is equal to
(a) sum of two principal stresses
(b) difference of two principle stresses
(c) half the sum of two principle stresses
(d) half the difference of two principle stresses
TSPSC AEE 2015
σ1 − σ 2
Ans. (d) : R = τmax =
In a 3-D state of stress, the independent stress 2
components required to define state of stress at a point 162. Where does principal stress occur in a
is six (three normal stress and three shear stress). component?
(a) Along the plane
452
 (b) Perpendicular to the plane 166. A rectangular plate in plane stress is subjected
(c) On mutually perpendicular planes to normal stresses σx = 35 MPa, σy = 26 MPa,
(d) Along the direction of load and shear stress τxy = 14 MPa. The ratio of the
TNPSC 2019 magnitudes of the principal stresses (σ1/σ2) is
Ans. (c) : On mutually perpendicular planes principal approximately :
stress does occur in a component. (a) 0.8 (b) 1.5
163. In case of pure shear at a point, the sum of (c) 2.1 (d) 2.9
normal stresses on two orthogonal plane is RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
equal to Ans. (d) : Given,
(a) Maximum shear stress σ x = 35MPa
(b) Twice the maximum shear stress
σ y = 26MPa
(c) Half the maximum shear stress
(d) Zero τxy = 14 MPa
TNPSC 2019 2
σ + σy  σx − σy 
Ans. (d) : In case of pure shear at a point, the sum of σ = x ±   + τ xy
2

normal stresses on two orthogonal plane is equal to zero. 2  2 

164. If the principle stresses in a plane stress 2
problem are σ1= 100 MPa, σ2= 40 MPa the σ = σ x + σ y +  σ x − σ y  + τ 2
magnitude of the maximum shear stress (in 1   xy
2  2 
MPa) will be 2
(a) 60 (b) 50 35 + 26  35 − 26 
(c) 30 (d) 20 = +   + 14
2

2  2 
RPSC 2016
2
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 61 9
= +   + (14) 2
Ans : (c) Given, 2 2
σ1 = 100 MPa = 45.205 MPa
σ2 = 40 MPa σx + σy
2
 σx − σy 
σ2 = −   + τ xy
2

2  2 
2
61 9
σ2 = −   + (14) 2
2 2
= 15.79 MPa
The ratio of the magnitude of principal stress,
σ1 45.205
= = 2.86
σ 2 15.790
Maximum shear stress
≈ 2.9
σ − σ 2 100 − 40
τ max = 1 = 167. A wooden beam AB supporting two
2 2 concentrated loads P has a rectangular cross-
τmax = 30MPa section of width = 100 mm and height = 150
mm. The distance from each end of the beam to
165. The principal strains at a point in a body under the nearest load is 0.5 m. If the allowable stress
biaxial state of stress are 1000 x 10–6 and –600 x in bending is 11 MPa and the beam weight is
10–6. What is the maximum shear strain at that negligible, the maximum permissible load will
point? be nearly
(a) 200 x 10–6 (b) 800 x 10–6 (a) 5.8 kN (b) 6.6 kN
–6
(c) 1000 x 10 (d) 1600 x 10–6 (c) 7.4 kN (d) 8.2 kN
RPSC 2016 ESE 2020
Ans : (d) Given, Ans. (d) : Mmax = P × 0.5 = P × 500 Nmm
∈1=1600 × 10–6 6M max
σmax =
∈2= – 600 × 10–6 bd 2
Maximum Shear strain is given by
γ max ∈1 − ∈2
=
2 2
∴ γ max =∈1 − ∈2
6 × P × 500
= 1000 × 10–6 – (–600×10–6) 11 =
100 ×1502
= 1600 × 10–6 P = 8250 N = 8.25 kN
453
168. In Mohr's circle, the centre of the circle is (c) 250 MPa (d) 300 MPa
located at JPSC AE PRE 2019
(σ x + σ y ) Ans. (c) : Given,
(a) from y-axis σx = 300 MPa
2
σy = 0
(σ x − σ y )
(b) from y-axis τxy = 200 MPa
2 2
(σ x − σ y ) σ x +σ y  σ x −σ y 
(c) σ x + from y-axis σ 1 = +   + τ xy
2

2 2  2 
(σ x − σ y ) 2
(d) σ y + from y-axis σx +σ y σ x −σ y 
2 σ 2 = −   + τ xy
2

Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper 2  2 

Ans. (b) : In Mohr's circle, the centre of the circle is 300 + 0
2
 300 − 0 
(σ x − σ y ) σ1 = +   + (200)
2

located at, from y-axis. 2  2 

2
= 150 + (150 ) + (200) 2
2

= 150 + 250
= 400 MPa
2
300 + 0  300 − 0 
σ2 = −   + (200)
2

2  2 
= 150 − (150 ) + (200) 2
2

= 150 – 250
⇒ Here BA, bisect at C, now with case centre & radius = –100 MPa
equal CB or CA to draw a circle. σ1 − σ 2
φ = Angle of obliquity. τ max =
2
169. Shown below is an element of an elastic body 400 − (−100)
which is subjected to pure shearing stress τ xy . =
2
The absolute value of the magnitude of the = 250 MPa
principle stresses is 172. The principle stresses σ1, σ2 and σ3 at a point
respectively are 80 MPa, 30 MPa and – 40
MPa. The maximum shear stress is:
(a) 60 MPa (b) 55 MPa
(c) 35 MPa (d) 25 MPa
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
Ans. (a) : Given as,
σ1 = 80 MPa
σ2 = 30 MPa
τ xy σ3 = –40 MPa
(a) zero (b) We know that maximum shear stress will be,
2
τmax. = Maximum of
(c) 2 τ xy (d) τ xy
 σ1 − σ2   σ2 − σ3   σ3 − σ1 
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper  , , 
 2   2   2 
Ans. (a) : Pure shear means there is no normal stress
induced or applied i.e. all stresses are zero except shear.  80 − 30   30 − (−40)   −40 − 80 
= Max. of  , ,
170. In Mohr's circle the distance of the centre of  2   2   2 
circle from y-axis is τmax. = 60 MPa (Compressive)
(a) (px–py) (b) (px+py) 173. At a point in a stressed body there are normal
(c) (px+py)/2 (d) (px–py)/2 stresses of 1N/mm2 (tensile) on a vertical plane
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper and 0.5 N/mm2 (tensile) on a horizontal plane.
Ans. (c) : In, Mohr's circle, the distance of the centre of The shearing stresses on these planes are zero.
circle from y-axis is (px+py)/2. What will be the normal stress on a plane
171. A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress of making an angle 50o with vertical plane?
300 MPa in one plane accompanied by a simple [Given, (cos 50o)2 = 0.413]
shear stress of 200 MPa. The maximum shear (a) 0.6015 N/mm2 (b) 0.4139 N/mm2
2
stress will be (c) 0.5312 N/mm (d) 0.7065 N/mm2
(a) 150 MPa (b) 200 MPa SJVN ET 2019
454
Ans. (d) : Given as, former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of
σ x = 1Pa, σ y = 0.5Pa, τ xy = 0 400 MPa on the same planes. The maximum
normal stress will be
θ = 50º (a) 400 MPa (b) 500 MPa
We know that (c) 900 MPa (d) 1400 MPa
1 + 0.5   1 − 0.5 
[ σn ]θ=50º =  +  cos ( 2 × 50º )
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
 2   2  Ans : (D) : Given, σ x = 1200 MPa
= 0.7065 Pa
σ y = 600 MPa τ xy = 400 MPa
174. A two dimensional fluid element rotates like a
rigid body. At a point within the element, the σx +σ y
2
 σ x −σ y 
(σ n )max  + (τ xy )
2
pressure is 1 unit. Radius of the Mohr's circle, = + 
characterizing the state of stress at that point, 2  2 
is
(a) 0.5 unit (b) 1 unit 1200 + 600  1200 − 600 
2

(σ n )max =  + ( 400 )
2
(c) 2 unit (d) 0 unit + 
(e) 0.75 unit 2  2 
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
( 300 ) + ( 400 )
2 2
= 900 +
Ans. (d) : Since the pressure in fluid is hydrodynamic
type P1 = P2 = P3 = 1 = 900 + 500
Normal stress in all direction is same and shear stress on = 1400 MPa
any plane is zero. Hence radius of Mohr's circle is zero.
178. Consider a plane stress case, where σx = 3 Pa,
σy = 1 Pa and τxy = 1 Pa. One of the principal
directions w.r.t. x-axis would be
(a) 0º (b) 15º
(c) 22.5º (d) 45º
175. A body is subjected to a pure tensile stress of BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
200 units. What is the maximum shear
Ans : (c) : Given,
produced in the body at some oblique plane
due to the above? σx = 3 Pa
(a) 0 units (b) 50 units σy = 1 Pa
(c) 100 units (d) 150 units τxy = 1 Pa
(e) 200 units 2τ xy 2 ×1
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift tan2θ = =
Ans. (c) : Maximum shear stress σx − σy 3 −1
2 =1
σ x −σ y 
τ max =   + τ xy
2 tan2θ = tan45°
 2  θ = 22.5º
here σy = 0, τxy = 0, σx = 200 units 179. Which one of the following figures represents
σ 200 the maximum principal stress theory?
τ max = x = = 100 units
2 2
176. Assertion (A): A plane state of stress always
results in a plane state of strain. (a) (b)
Reason (R) : A uniaxial state of stress results in
a three-dimensional state of strain.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true and R is
not the correct explanation of A. (c) (d)
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans : (d) :
! In a plane stress condition, the stress in the Ans : (a)
perpendicular direction to the plane is zero. But strain in
that direction need not to be zero. Thus assertion is
wrong.
177. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200
MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of
600 MPa on a plane at right angles to the (i) Maximum shear stress theory
455
 τ xy = 0 MPa
Center of Mohr's circle
 σ + σ y   20 + 20  
= x ,0  =   ,0  = ( 20,0 )
 2   2  
(ii) Maximum shear strain energy theory and we know that
20 − 20
τmax = =0
2
182. If the centre of Mohr's stress circle coincides
with the origin on the σ - τ coordinates, then
(a) σx + σy = 0 (b) σx - σy = 0
(c) σx + σy = 1/2 (d) σx - σy = 1/2
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
(iii) Maximum strain energy theory BPSC Main 2017 Paper-VI
Ans : (a) :
σx + σy
By centre of Mohr's circle lie at
2
If is coincide with origin
σx + σy
(iv) Maximum principal theory i.e., = 0 or σ x + σ y = 0
2
σx + σy = 0
Principle stress are σx and –σy. Hence they are equal in
magnitude but unlike in direction.
183. When a thick plate is subjected to external
180. The state of stress at a point under plane stress loads:
condition is σxx = 40 MPa, σyy = 100 MPa and 1. State of plane stress occurs at the surface
2. State of plane strain occurs at the surface
τxy = 40 MPa. This radius the Mohr’s circle
3. State of plane stress occurs in the interior
representing the given state of stress in MPa is: part of the plate
(a) 40 (b) 50 4. State of plane strain occurs at the surface
(c) 60 (d) 100 Which of these statements are correct?
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
Ans : (b) : (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
σxx= 40 MPa Gujarat PSC AE 2019
σyy= 100 MPa Ans : (c) : For a plain strain case for a given load the
τxy = 40 MPa strain in the thickness direction is negligible because
Radius of the mohr’s circle more material is available in thickness direction which
2 will resist any deformation in that direction (due to
 σ xx − σ yy  Poisson's effect) so strain in thickness direction in thick
=   + τ xy
2

 2  plate is assumed to be zero.

2
If you thick a cracked body (part through crack) loaded
 40 − 100  in tension, the crack front in the interior will have plane
 + ( 40 )
2
=  = 50
 2  strain (as the mid section is surrounded by sufficient
volume of material thus making it analogous to thick
181. Mohr’s circle for the state of stress defined by section) whereas crack front at the surface will have
 20 0  plane stress.
 0 20  is a circle with : 184. Mohr's circle construction is valid for both
 
(a) Centre at (0, 0) and radius 20 MPa stresses as well as the area moment of inertia,
(b) Centre at (0, 0) and radius 40 MPa because
(c) Centre at (20, 0) and radius 20 MPa (a) both are tensors of first-order
(d) Centre at (20, 0) and radius zero radius (b) both are tensors of second- order
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I (c) both are axial vectors
(d) both occur under plane stress condition
Ans : (d) :
Data given as- BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
σ x = 20 MPa Ans : (b) Mohr's circle construction is valid for both
stresses as well as the area moment of inertia because
σ y = 20 MPa both are tensors of second order.
456
185. The co-ordinate of any point on Mohr's circle Ans : (a) on principal plane the shear stress is zero.
represent : Principal Stresses and Strains:-
(a) State of stress at a point with reference to any It has been observed that at any point in a strained
arbitrary set of orthogonal axes passing material, there are three planes, mutually perpendicular
through that point to each other, which carry direct stresses only, and no
(b) Principal stresses at a point shear stress. A little consideration will show that out of
(c) One of the two direct stresses and shearing these three direct stresses; one will be maximum, the
stress at a point other minimum and the third an intermediate between
(d) Two direct stresses at a point the two. These particular planes, which have no shear
(HPPSC AE 2014) stress, are known as principal planes. The magnitude of
Ans : (c) The coordinate of any point on Mohr's circle direct stress, across a principal plane, is known as
principal stress.
represent one of the two direct stresses and shearing
stress at a point. 189. For a general two dimensional stress system,
Let what are the co-ordinates of the centre of
Mohr's circl e?
σ1 = 250 MPa
σ2 = –150 MPa σx − σ y σx + σ y
(a) ,0 (b) 0,
2 2
σx + σ y σx − σ y
(c) ,0 (d) 0,
2 2
UJVNL AE 2016
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
APPSC AEE 2012
Ans : (c)
In ∆ABC  σx + σ y 
AC = radius of Mohr's circle Centre of Mohr ' s circle =  ,0 
 2 
σ − σ2
r= 1 = 200 2
2  σx − σ y 
( )
2
BC = 150 Radius =   + τ xy
 2 
2 2
AB = τ = 200 − 150 190. Mohr's circle can be used to determine
τ = 50 7MPa following stress on inclined surface
(a) Normal stress (b) Principal stress
186. Ellipse of stress can be drawn only when a
(c) Tangential stress (d) All of the above
body is acted upon by :
UJVNL AE 2016
(a) one normal stress
(b) two normal stresses Ans : (d) Mohr's circle can be used to determine
Normal stress, principal stress, and tangential stress.
(c) one shear stress
Mohr's Circle of Stresses:-
(d) two normal stresses and one shear stress
the Mohr's circle is a graphical method of finding the
(HPPSC AE 2014) normal, tangential and resultant stresses on an inclined
Ans : (b) Ellipse of stress is used to find resultant stress plane. It is drawn for the following two cases:-
and the angle of obliquity on any plane within a stressed (i) When the two mutually perpendicular principal
body. In 2-D, if is called Ellipse of stress. In 3-D it is stresses are unequal and like.
called Ellipsoid of stress. (ii) When the two mutually perpendicular principal
The axis of ellipse are the two principle stresses. stresses are unequal and unlike.
187. Principal plane and plane containing 191. Normal stress on a plane, the normal........
maximum shear stress are separated by: Which is inclined at an angle θ with the line of
(a) 0° (b) 30° action of applied un axial stress σ x is given by
(c) 45° (d) 60°
(a) σ x / sin 2 θ (b) σ x / cos 2 θ
(HPPSC LECT. 2016)
Ans : (c) Principal plane and plane containing (c) σ x cos 2 θ (d) σ x sin 2 θ
maximum shear stress are separated by 45° UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
188. On principal plane the shear stress is.......... Ans : (c)
(a) zero
(b) unity
(c) double the value of principal stress
(d) half the value of principal stress
(HPPSC LECT. 2016)
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
APPSC AEE 2012
457
 BC –A plane which is inclined at an angle (90–θ) with 194. If the principal stresses at a point in a strained
the line of action of applied un-axial stress σx body are σx and σ y (σ x > σ y ), resultant stress
Px = σ x × AB [ t = 1 assume] on a plane carrying the maximum shear stress
is equal to
Pn = Px × cos θ = σ x × AB × cos θ
(a) σ2x + σ 2y (b) σ2x − σ 2y
The normal stress at inclined plan BC
P σ × AB × cos θ  AB AB  σ 2x + σ2y σ2x − σ 2y
σn = n = x  cos θ = , BC =  (c) (d)
BC  AB   BC cos θ  2 2
 cos θ  APPSC AEE 2012
Ans : (c) If the principal stresses at a point in strained
σ n = σ x cos 2 θ
body are σx and σ y then the resultant stress on a plane.
Center of Mohr's Circle
192. In which of the following two dimensional state
of stress, Mohr's stress circle takes the shape of
a point.

UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I

Ans : (c) Draw Mohr's circle like equal normal stress  σx + σy 
 ,0 
without shear stress :-  2 
Resultant stress on a plane
R = σ 2n + τ2max
2 2
 σ + σ y   σx + σ y 
R=  x  + 
 2   2 
 σ2 + σ 2y + 2σ x σ y + σ 2y + σ2y − 2σ x σ y 
R=  x 
 4 
2 σ2x + σ2y  σ2x + σ 2y
R= =
4 2
195. Principal planes will be free of
(a) normal stress
(b) shear stress
In both condition Mohr's stress circle takes the shape of (c) both normal and shear stresses
a point. (d) None of these
193. If a body carries two unlike principal stresses, APPSC AEE 2012
the maximum shear stress is given by Ans : (b) Principal planes will be free of shear stress.
(a) sum of the principal stresses 196. Angle between the principal planes is
(b) difference of the principal stresses (a) 2700 (b) 1800
0
(c) half the difference of the principal stresses (c) 90 (d) 450
APPSC AEE 2012
(d) half the sum of the principal stresses
Ans : (c) Angle between the principal plane is 900.
APPSC AEE 2012
197. A state of plane stress consists of a uni-axial
Ans. (c & d) If a body carries two unlike principal
tensile stress of magnitude 8 kPa, exerted on
stresses, the maximum shear stress is given by half the
vertical surface and of unknown shearing
difference of the principal stresses.
stresses. If the largest stress is 10 kPa, then the
Or
magnitude of the unknown shear stress will be
If a body carries two unlike principal stresses the
(a) 6.47 kPa (b) 5.47 kPa
maximum shear stress is given by half the sum of the
(c) 4.47 kPa (d) 3.47 kPa
principal stresses. ESE 2018
458
Ans. (c) : Given, (d) All of the above
σx = 8 kPa, σ1 = 10 kPa UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
σy = 0 Ans. (d) : Normal stress, principle stress and tangential
Maximum principal stress is given by stress (shear stress) are determine on an inclined plane
2
by using Mohr's circle.
σx + σy  σx − σ y  202. A solid circular shaft is subjected to a
σ1 = +   + τxy
2

2  2  maximum shear stress of 140MPa. Magnitude

2
of maximum normal stress developed in the
8+0 8−0 shaft is:-
10 = +   + τxy
2

2  2  (a) 60 MPa (b) 90 MPa

(c) 110 MPa (d) 140 MPa
10 = 4 + 42 + τ2xy UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
τxy = 4.47 kPa Ans. (d) : Maximum normal stress,
σx + σy 1
198. Principal stress at a point in a plane stressed
( )
2
σ1,2 = ± σ x − σ y + 4τ2xy
element are: σx = σy = 500 N/m2 Normal stress 2 2
on the plane inclined at 45° to x-axis will be:- σ x = 0, σ y = 0, τxy = 140 MPa
2
(a) 0 (b) 500 N/m
(c) 707 N/m2 (d) 1000 N/m2 1
4 × (140 )
2
σ1,2 = 0 ±
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I 2
Ans. (b) : Given as σ1,2 = ±140 MPa
σ x = σ y = 500 N / m 2 θ = 45o Then, Maximum normal stress is 140 MPa.
σx + σy σx − σ y 203. σx + σy = σx' + σy' = σ1 + σ2
σn = + cos 2θ + τ xy sin 2θ The above relation is called
2 2 (a) independency of normal stresses
τxy = 0 (b) constancy of normal stresses
Then, (c) first invariant of stress
500 + 500 500 − 500 (d) all the above three
σn = + cos 2 × 45o UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
2 2 Ans. (c) : first invariant of stress
σn = 500 Pa
204. When a body is subjected to direct tensile
Note : Option (a) given by UKPSC stresses (σx and σy) in two mutually
199. Maximum shear stress in a Mohr’s circle is:- perpendicular directions, accompanied by a
(a) Equal to the radius of Mohr’s circle simple shear stress τxy, then in Mohr’s circle
(b) Greater than the radius of Mohr’s circle method, the circle radius is taken as
(c) 2 times the radius of Mohr’s circle σx − σ y
(d) Could be any of the above (a) + τxy
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I 2
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 σx + σy
(b) + τxy
Ans. (a) : Maximum shear stress in a Mohr’s circle is 2
equal to the radius of Mohr’s circle. 1
( )
2
200. When a wire is stretched to double its original (c) σ x − σ y + 4τ2xy
2
length, the longitudinal strain produced in it
1
( )
2
is:- (d) σ x + σ y + 4τ2xy
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 2
(c) 1.5 (d) 2.0 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I 1
( )
2
Ans. (b) : Given as; Ans. (c) : R = σ x − σ y + 4τ2xy
2
l1 = l, l2 = 2l
205. Choose the correct relationship in the given
Then, longitudinal strain
statements of Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
l −l Assertion (A) : A plane state of stress does not
e= 2 1
l1 necessarily result into a plane state of strain.
2l − l Reason (R) : Normal stresses acting along X and
= Y directions will also result into strain along the
l Z-direction.
e =1 Code :
201. Mohr’s circle may be used to determine (a) Both (A) & (R) are correct. (R) is the correct
following stress on an inclined plane:- explanation of (A).
(a) Normal stress (b) Both (A) & (R) are correct. (R) is not the
(b) Principal stress correct explanation of (A).
(c) Tangential stress (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
459
 (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 210. The state of stress at a point in a 2-D loading is
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I such that the Mohr's circle is a point located at
Ans. (a) : Both (A) & (R) are correct. (R) is the correct 175 MPa on the positive normal stress axis. The
explanation of (A). maximum and minimum principle stress,
206. A body is subjected to two unequal like direct respectively, from Mohr's circle are :
stresses σ1 and σ2 in two mutually perpendicular (a) 0; 0 MPa
planes along with simple shear stress q (b) + 175 MPa; + 175 MPa
(c) + 175 MPa; – 175 MPa
(d) + 175 MPa; 0 MPa
BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (b) : σ x = 175 MPa ( Tensile )
σ y = 175 MPa ( Tensile )
2
σx + σy  σx −σy 
 + ( τ xy )
2
σ= ± 
Which among the following is then a wrong 2  2 
statement ? 175 + 175  175 − 175 
(a) The principal stresses at a point are = ±  +0
2  2 
σ1 + σ2  σ − σ  2 2
 σ maximum = 175 MPa
P1 ,P2 = ±  1 2
 +q 
2 σ minimum = 175 MPa
 2  
(b) The position of principal planes with the
plane of stress σ1, are 3. Shear Force and Bending
1 2q Moment Diagram
θ1 = tan −1 ; θ2 = θ1 + 45°
2 σ1 − σ2 211. A propped cantilever is indeterminate
(c) Maximum shear stress is (σt)max = externally to
 σ − σ  2  (a) The second degree (b) The third degree
2
±  1 2
 + q  (c) The fourth degree (d) The fifth degree
 2   TNPSC AE 2017
(d) Planes of maximum shear are inclined at 45° Ans. (a) : A propped cantilever is indeterminate
to the principal planes.
externally to the second degree.
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (b) : The position of principal planes with the
plane of stress σ1, are
1 2q
θ1 = tan −1 ; θ2 = θ1 + 45°
2 σ1 − σ2
207. A tension member with a cross-sectional area
of 30 mm2 resists a load of 60 kN. What is the
normal stress induced on the plane of For general loading, the total reaction components (R)
maximum shear stress ? are equal to (3 + 2) = 5, while the total number of
(a) 2 kN/mm2 (b) 1 kN/mm2 conditions (r) are equal to 3. The beam is statically
(c) 4 kN/mm2 (d) 3 kN/mm2 indeterminate externally to second degree.
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I Note- For vertical loading, the beam is statically
Ans. (b) : 1 kN/mm2 determinate to single degree (In figure).
208. If the Mohr’s circle for a state of stress 212. Calculate the shear force and bending moment
becomes a point, the state of stress is
(a) Pure shear state of stress at the mid point of the beam
(b) Uniaxial state of stress
(c) Identical principal stresses
(d) None of the above
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (c) : Identical principal stresses
209. In a stressed field, the change in angle between
two initially perpendicular lines is called
(a) Normal strain (b) Shear strain
(c) Principal strain (d) Poisson’s ratio (a) 0 kN, 0 kN-m (b) -20 kN, -20 kN-m
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I (c) 20 kN, -20 kN-m (d) 20 kN, 0 kN-m
Ans. (b) : Shear strain APPSC-AE-2019
460
Ans. (a) : Ans. (c) :

Due to symmetry, RB (or) RC

Total load 10 × 8 SFD
= = = 40 kN
2 2 215. Find out the Static indeterminacy of the beam
At mid span in the figure below
SFE = 10 × 4 - 40 = 0
BME = 40 (2) - 10 × 4 × 2 = 0
SF and BM both will be zero at mid point.
(a) 0 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 6
213. Consider the following: APPSC-AE-2019
1. Bending moment is a moment about the Ans. (b) : If not given in a problem consider general
longitudinal axis of a beam. loading on a beam.
2. A structural component cannot have axial force The beam is indeterminate by = 2 degree
and shear force together. 216. At the point of contraflexure
(a) Only 1 is correct (a) bending moment changes sign
(b) Only 2 is correct (b) bending moment is maximum
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct (c) shear force is maximum
(d) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect (d) None of the above
APPSC-AE-2019 APPSC-AE-2019
Ans. (d) : • Bending moment is the moment about Ans. (a) : The point at which bending moment changes
neutral axis, but not about longitudinal axis. its sign (from +ve or -ve and vice-versa) is known as
• Structural components can have axial forces, point of contra flexure.
shear forces together when inclined loads are acting, on 217. Consider the following:
a beam. 1. In addition to equilibrium equations,
214. Out of the options given below, which one is the compatibility equations are also required
correct shear force diagram? B is an internal for solving indeterminate structure.
hinge 2. A fixed beam (two ends are fixed) is a
kinematically determinate structure.
(a) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Both 1 and 2 are wrong
(c) Only 1 is correct
(d) Only 2 is correct
APPSC-AE-2019
Ans. (a) : For analysing statically indeterminate
(a) structures both equilibrium and compatibility equations
are required.
Fixed beam has no degree of freedom.
∴ It is kinematically determinate beam.
(b) 218. For the beam shown below, the vertical
reactions at A and B are respectively

(c)

(d) None of the above

APPSC-AE-2019
461
 (a) 2 kN, 3 kN (b) 3 kN, 2 kN Ans. (a) : RA + RB = 100
(c) -1 kN, 1 kN (d) 1 kN, 1 kN 100 × 1.5 = RB × 1
APPSC-AE-2019
Ans. (a) :
5 kN
5 kN-m

R B = 150N ( ↑ )
A B
C D
RA RB RA = – 50N
2m 1m 2m
R A = 50N ( ↓ )
∑ Fy = 0
RA + RB = 5 kN 222. A cantilever beam of length L is subjected to a
∑MA = 0 uniformly distributed load W per unit length.
The maximum bending moment will be equal to
RB (5) = 5 × 2 + 5 = 15/5
∴ RB = 3 kN and RA = 2 kN WL WL2
(a) (b)
219. The reaction at the support of a beam with 2 2
fixed end is referred as WL2 WL2
(a) fixed end moment (c) (d)
4 8
(b) fixed end couple HPPSC AE 2018
(c) floating end moment Ans. (b) :
(d) floating end couple
NSPSC AE 2018
Ans. (a) : The reaction at the support of a beam with
fixed end is referred as fixed end moment.
220. The difference between member of a truss and
of a beam is:
(a) The members of a truss take their loads along x
Mx–x = − Wx ×
their length whereas a beam takes loads at 2
right angles to its length Wx 2
(b) The member of the truss takes load lateral to Mx–x = −
2
its length whereas the beam along the length Bending moment at point B (x = 0)
(c) The member of the truss can be made of C.I MB = 0
where as the beam is of structural steel only Bending moment at point A (x = L)
(d) The member of the truss can have a circular 2
cross-section whereas the beam can have any WL
MA = −
cross-section 2
JWM 2017 WL2
Ans. (a) : Beams support their loads in shear and MA = − [ Hogging ]
2
bending where as truss support loads in tension and
223. Which of the following statements is true for
compression.
shear force (SF) and bending moment (BM)
The members of a truss take their loads along their length
diagram (where, w = weight per unit length)
where as a beam takes loads at right angle to its length. (a) Change in BM over a small length (dM) =
221. The bean ABC is supported at A (hinge Area of SF diagram under that length (Vdx)
support) and B (roller support). If a force of (b) Change in BM over a small length (dM) =
100 N is applied at C as given in figure, then Rate of change of SF under that length
the reaction at the supports will be given by : (dV/dx)
(c) Rate of change of Change in BM over a small
length (dM/dx) = Rate of change of SF under
that length (dV/dx)
(d) Change in SF over a small length (dV) is
greater than area of loading diagram over that
(a) R A = 50N ( ↓ ) ; R B = 150N ( ↑ ) length (wdx)
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
(b) R A = 50N ( ↑ ) ; R B = 100N ( ↓ ) Ans. (a) : We know that
dM
(c) R A = 150N ( ↑ ) ; R B = 50N ( ↓ ) = shear force (SF)
dx
(d) R A = 150N ( ↓ ) ; R B = 50N ( ↑ ) dM = (SF) × dx
So,
(e) R A = 50N ( ↓ ) ; R B = 150N ( ↓ ) change in BM over a small length (dM) = Area of SF
CGPSC AE 2014- I diagram under that length
462
224. A beam is subjected to a force system shown in taking moment at point A
figure. This force system can be reduced to: L
RB × L = wL ×
2
wL
RB = RA =
2
taking moment at point C
(a) A single force of 50 N (downward) at 2.5 m L L L
M c = RA × − w × ×
from A 4 4 8
(b) A single force of 50 N (downward) at 2.5 m wL L L L 3
from D Mc = × − w × = wL2
(c) A single force of 50 N (upward) at 2.5 m 2 4 4 8 32
from D 226. A simply supported beam of span 4 m with
(d) A single force of 50 N (upward) at 2.5 m hinged support at both the ends. It is carrying
from A the point loads of 10, 20 & 30 kN at 1, 2 and 3
UPRVUNL AE 2016 m from left support. The RA & RB are
(a) 27.5 kN, 32.5 kN (b) 15 kN, 45 kN
Ans. (a) :
(c) 25 kN, 35 kN (d) 32.5 kN, 27.5 kN
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (c) :

For equilibrium beam

For x-distance from B moment will be zero. RA + RB = 60 ....(1)
Taking moment about point A
RB × 4 = 30 × 3 + 20 × 2 + 10 × 1
RB = 35 kN
RA = 25 kN
For equilibrium 227. Two beams of equal cross sectional area are
subjected to equal bending moment. If one
∑ M CW = ∑ M ACW
beam bas square cross section and the other
50 + 25 = 50x has circular cross-section, then
x = 1.5 or (a) both beams will be equally strong
From A at a distance of 2.5 (b) circular section beam will be stronger
(c) square section beam will be stronger
(d) the strength of the beam will depend on the
nature of loading
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (b) :
Then this force system can be reduced to single force of 228. Shear force at any point of the beam is the
50 N (downward) at 2.5 m from A. algebraic sum of
225. Bending moment at distance L/4 from one end (a) All vertical forces
of a simply supported beam of length (L) with (b) All horizontal forces
uniformly distributed load of strength w per (c) Forces on either side of the point
unit length is given by (d) Moment of forces on either side of the point
7 5 Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
(a) wL2 (b) wL2
32 32 Ans. (c) :
3 1 ! Shear force at any point of the beam is the algebraic
(c) wL2 (d) wL2 sum of forces on either side of the point.
32 32 ! Bending moment at any point of the beam is the
UPRVUNL AE 2016 algebraic sum of moment of forces on either side of
Ans. (c) : RA + RB = wL the point.
229. A cantilever OP is connected to another beam
PQ with a pin joint as shown in figure. A load
of 10 kN is applied at the mid-point of PQ. The
magnitude of bending moment in (kNm) at
fixed end O is–
463
 231. A uniformly distributed load w (in kN/m) is
acting over the entire length of a 3 m long
cantilever beam. If the shear force at the
midpoint of cantilever is 6 kN. What is the
value of w?
(a) 2 (b) 3
(a) 2.5 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 5
(c) 10 (d) 25 OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
RPSC 2016 Ans : (c) :
Ans : (c) By similarity,
RP = RQ = 5kN

Shear force at the mid point

wL
= 6 kN
2
From FBD w× 3
=6
Moment at point O 2
Mo = RP × 2 = 5 × 2 = 10 kN w = 4 kN
230. A cantilever carries a concentrated load (W) at
232. The moment diagram for a cantilever beam
its free end. Its shear force diagram will be: whose free end is subjected to a bending
moment
(a) Triangle (b) Rectangle
(c) Parabola (d) Cubic parabola
(a) Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Ans. (b) :

(b)

(c) The shear force will be zero all along the span.
The bending moment will be constant all along the span
and equal to M.
233. If load at the free end of the cantilever beam is
(d) gradually increased, failure will occur at:-
CIL (MT) 2017 IInd Shift (a) In the middle of beam
Ans. (d) : RA = w (b) At the fixed end
(c) Anywhere on the span
(d) None of the above
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Ans. (b) : If load at the free end of the cantilever beam
is gradually increased, failure will occur at the fixed end
because of maximum bending moment will take place at
the fixed end.
d3 y
234. The expression El at a section of a beam
dx 3
represents
Vx = RA = w (a) Shear force (b) Rate of loading
VA= w, VB = w (c) Bending moment (d) Slope
Hence, S.F.D. is as shown in figure below UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Ans : (a) We know that
d2y
EI 2 = − M
dx

464
 d 3 y dM 238. A simply supported beam of length 3.5 m
EI = carries a triangular load as shown in the figure
dx 3 dx below. Maximum load intensity is 7.2 N/m. The
dM
∵ = shear force ( S) location of zero shear stress from point A is :
dx
d 3 y dM
so EI 3 = =S
dx dx
235. The bending moment diagram for a cantilever
beam subjected to bending moment at the end
of the beam would be (a) 3 m (b) 1.5 m
(a) Rectangle (b) Triangle (c) 2 m (d) 2.5 m
(c) Parabola (d) None of the above BHEL ET 2019
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Ans. (b) : The bending moment diagram for a cantilever Ans. (c) :
beam subjected to bending moment at the end of the
beam would be triangle & shear force diagram will be
rectangle.

From section 'A C'-

RA + RB = 10.8 + 1.8 = 12.6

ΣM B = 0
236. Which of the following is the correct relation of 2
RA × 3.5 – 10.8 × 1.5 – 1.8 × × 0.5 = 0
shearing force (F) and bending moment (M) at 3
a section? RA × 3.5 – 16.2 – 0.6 = 6
d2M d2F 16.8
(a) F = (b) M = RA =
dx 2 dx 2 3.5
dM dF RA = 4.8 kW
(c) F = (d) M = RB = 12.6 – 4.85
dx dx
SJVN ET 2019 = 7.8 kW
Ans. (c) : from section (A C) –
dM
F= ,
dx
Where,
F = Shear force
M = Bending moment at a section
237. A beam is subjected to a variable loading as
shown in the figure below. Reaction at point B We know that
in kN is :
L→W
W
1→
L
W
x→ x
L
Load at section (x - x)
1 W
(a) 6.84 (b) 7.56 W = ×x× x
(c) 5.76 (d) 8.64 2 L
BHEL ET 2019 W 2
= x
Ans. (c) : 5.76 2L
465
 (SF)A = 4.8 Ans. (b) : It have constant shear force of 4 kN.
Wx 2
(SF)C = 4.8 –
2L
zero shear force mean 'maximum bending moment'
7.2x 2
4.8 – =0
2×3
x = 2m
239. The BM diagram of the beam shown in the
figure will be:
241. In a beam where shear force is maximum the
bending moment will be–
(a) maximum
(b) zero
(c) minimum
(a) A rectangle (b) A triangle (d) there no such relation between the two
(c) A trapezium (d) A parabolic Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
(e) A hyperbolic Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
Ans. (d) : There no such relation between the two
W
Ans. (b) : RA = RB = 242. The bending moment diagram for a simple
2 supported beam subjected to central point load
Shear force S, At point A
would be–
(a) Rectangle (b) Triangle
(c) Parabola (d) None of the above
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (b) : Bending moment diagram for a simple
supported beam subjected to central point load is
triangle.
243. Find the maximum bending moment and the
position from the support A.

(a) 240 Nm and 4.9 m

W (b) 240.1 Nm and 4.9 m
SA = +
2 (c) 240 Nm and 5 m
W (d) 185 Nm and 7.5 m
SC = + (e) 260 Nm and 4.9 m
2
W W CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
SC = + − W = − Ans. (b) :
2 2
W
SB = −
2
W W
SB = − + =0
2 2
Bending Moment diagram
MA = MB = 0 RA + RB = (20 × 5) + 20 + 40 + 20
L W×L RA + RB = 180 ...(1)
MC = R A × =
2 4 taking moving about point A
240. A cantilever beam of span 2 m with a point RB × 10 = (20 × 8.5) + (40 × 7.5) + (20 × 5) +
load of 4 kN at its free end will have a constant  5
shear force of _____ throughout the span.  20 × 5 × 
 2
(a) 2 kN (b) 4 kN
(c) 6 kN (d) 8 kN 10R B = 820

(e) 10 kN R B = 82 kN
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) RA = 98 kN
466
 Ans. (c) : On balancing vertical force

R A + RB = 0 .....(i)
By taking moment about point A,
RB × L = M
M
RB = .....(ii)
L
Bending moment is maximum or minimum where shear From equation (i) and (ii)
force changes sign M
98 2 RA = −
= L
x 5− x Bending moment
x = 4.9 m MA = MB = 0
4.9 1 M
BM x = 4.9 = 98 × 4.9 − 20 × 4.9 × (Me)Right = R B × = (Sagging)
2 2 2
= 480.2 - 240.1 1 M
= 240.1 N-m (Mc)Left = R B × − M = − (Hogging)
2 2
244. Which of the following statements is/are From the above computed values, bending moment
correct? diagram is drawn in the figure below.
1. In uniformly distributed load, the nature of
shear force is linear and bending moment is
parabolic.
2. In uniformly varying load, the nature of shear
force is linear and bending moment is
parabolic.
3. Under no loading condition, the nature of
shear force is linear and bending moment is
constant.
Select the correct answer using the code given 246. The point of contraflexure occurs in
below. (a) Cantilever beam only
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (b) Simply supported beam only
(c) 2 only (d) 1 only (c) Overhanging beam only
ESE 2019 (d) Continuous only
Ans. (d) : (i) In UDL, shear force is linear and bending RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
moment is parabolic. Hence statement first is correct. OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
(ii) In UVL, shear force is parabolic and bending APPSC AEE 2012
moment is cubic. Hence statement second is incorrect. UPPSC AE 2016
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
(iii) In no loading, shear force is constant and bending
Ans. (c) : Point of contraflexure occurs in overhanging
moment is linear. Hence statement third is also
beam only.
incorrect. The point of contraflexure is the point where bending
245. Which one of the following is the correct moment changes the sign.
bending moment diagram for a beam which is 247. The bending moment at a section tends to bend
hinged at the ends and is subjected to a or deflect the beam and the internal stresses
clockwise couple acting at the mid-span? resist bending. The resistance offered by the
internal stresses to the bending is called
(a) (a) compressive stress (b) shear stress
(c) bending stress (d) elastic stress
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
(b) Ans : (c) : The bending moment at a section tends to
bend or deflect the beam and the internal stresses resist
bending. The resistance offered by the internal stresses
(c) to the bending is called bending stress.
248. The flexural rigidity is the product of
(a) modulus of elasticity and mass moment of
(d) inertia
(b) modulus of rigidity and area moment of
ESE 2018 inertial
467
 (c) modulus of rigidity and mass moment of 252. In fixed beam of length (l) with a concentrated
inertia central load two points of contraflexure will
(d) modulus of elasticity and area moment of occur, each from supports at a distance of :
inertia (a) 1/3 (b) 1/ 3
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI (c) 1/6 (d) ¼
Ans : (d) : The flexural rigidity is the product of (HPPSC AE 2014)
modulus of elasticity and area moment of inertia. Ans : (d)
249. Calculate the bending moment at the mid-point
of a 6 m long simply supported beam carrying
a 20 N point load at the mid-point.
(a) 20 Nm (b) 30 Nm
(c) 45 Nm (d) 60 Nm
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
Ans : (b) : By symmetry,
R1 = R2 = 10 N

(BM)C = R1 × 3 = 10 × 3
(BM)C = 30 Nm
250. A 3 m long beam, simply supported at both
ends, carries two equal loads of 10 N each at a
distance of 1 m and 2 m from one end. The
shear force at the mid-point would be
(a) 0 N (b) 5 N fig (d) shows the B.M diagram obtained by super-
(c) 10 N (d) 20 N imposing and µ'diagram. At any point distance x from
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI A
Ans : (a) : Wx WL
M x = µ x + µ x1 = −
2 8
L W L WL WL
At x = , M c = . − =
2 2 2 8 8
Thus, the central B.M. is half of the B.M. for a freely
By symmetry, supported beam. For point of Contraflexure
R1 = R2 = 10 N
Wx WL
Mx = o = −
2 8
L
This gives x =
4
253. Variation of bending moment in a cantilever
Hence shear force at midpoint is zero. carrying a load, the intensity of which varies
251. In a cantilever beam the bending moment with uniformly from zero at the free end to w per
respect to fixed end is maximum at: unit run at the fixed end, is by :
(a) the center (b) the free end (a) cubic law (b) parabolic law
(c) the fixed end (d) any point on the beam (c) linear law (d) none of these
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) (HPPSC AE 2014)
Ans : (c) Ans : (a) Variation of bending moment in a cantilever
carrying a load, the intensity of which varies uniformly
from zero at the free end to w per unit run at the fixed
end is by cubic law.
Section x–x talking from

In a cantilever beam the bending moment with respect

to fixed end is maximum at the fixed end.
468
Taking moment at Ans : (b)
x–x
1 wx 2 x
M x −x = ×
2 l 3
wx 3
M x−x =
6l
Bending moment at B
x = 0, MB = 0

wℓ
Maximum bending moment =
Bending Moment at A 4
x=l 500 ×10
( BM )max =
wl 2 4
MA = (BM)max = 1250N.m.
6
257. A mass less beam has a loading pattern as
254. The three-moment for continuous beams was shown in Fig. The beam is of rectangular cross-
forwarded by : section with a width of 30 mm and height of
(a) Bernoulli (b) Clapeyron 100 mm
(c) Castigliano (d) Maxwell
(HPPSC AE 2014)
Ans : (b) The three moment theorem for continuous
beam was forwarded by clapeyron.
255. A simply supported beam of span (l) carries a
point load (W) at the centre of the beam. The the maximum bending moment occurs at
shear force diagram will be : (a) Location B
(a) a rectangle (b) 2500 mm to the right of A
(b) a triangle (c) 2675 mm to the right of A
(c) two equal and opposite rectangles (d) 3225 mm to the right of A
(d) two equal and opposite triangles MPPSC AE 2016
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 Ans : (b)
Ans : (c) A simply supported beam of span (l) carries a
point load (W) at the centre of the beam. The shear
force diagram will be two equal and opposite
rectangles.
RA + RC = 6000N
Taking moment about A
6000 × 3 – RC × 4 = 0
RC = 4500 N
RA = 1500 N
Taking any section from A
Shear force = 1500 – 3000 (x – 2)
and maximum bending moment occur where shear
force = 0
1500 – 3000 (x – 2) = 0
256. A simply supported beam of span 10m
x = 2.5 m
carrying a load of 500N at the mid span will or 2500 mm from A
have a maximum bending moment of :
258. The shear force of a cantilever beam of length
(a) 500 Nm (b) 1250 Nm 'L' with a point load 'W' at its free end is in the
(c) 2500 Nm (d) 5000 Nm shape of the following:
(KPSC AE. 2015) TSPSC AEE 2015
469
 (a)

(b)

(c)
Ans : (a)

(d)
UJVNL AE 2016
Ans : (d)

259. The maximum bending moment of a simply

supported beam of span 2m and carrying a 262. If the shear force diagram for a beam is
point load 80 kN at the centre of the beam is triangle with length of the beam as its base, the
(a) 160 kN-m (b) 80 kN-m beam is
(c) 320 kN-m (d) 40 kN-m (a) A cantilever with a point load at its free end.
TSPSC AEE 2015 (b) A cantilever with uniformly distributed load
Ans : (d) over its whole span.
(c) A simply supported beam with a point load at
its mid-point.
(d) A simply supported beam with uniformly
distributed load over its whole span.
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
wl
Maximum Bending moment = Ans : (b) If the shear force diagram for a beam is
4 triangle with length of the beam as its base, the beam is
80 × 2 a cantilever with uniformly distributed load over its
(BM)max =
4 whole span.
(BM)max = 40 KN-m
260. A continuous beam is one which is
(a) fixed at one end and free at the other end
(b) fixed at one end and free at the other end
(c) supported on more than two supports
(d) extending beyond the supports
TSPSC AEE 2015
OPSC AE Mechanical Paper-1 15 Dec 2019
Ans : (c) A continuous beam is one which is supported
on more than two supports.
263. The shear force diagram of a loaded beam is
shown in the following figure. The maximum
bending moment in the beam is

261. A beam is simply supported at its ends and is

loaded by a couple at its mid-span as shown in
figure, Shear force diagram is given by which
of the following figures?
(a) 16-kN-m (b) 11-kN-m
(c) 18-kN-m (d) 18-kN-m
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
470
Ans : (a) Ans : (b) In a fixed beam is subjected to a point load at
mid span total number of points of contra-flexure are
two.
W
RA = RB =
2
P
M x = ( 4x − L )
8
 1
 x < 2 
PL
M x =0 = M B = M A = −
8
L P 1  PL
Mx = = MC = 4 × − L =
Maximum Bending Moment:- 2 8 2  8
In this bending moment diagram bending moment
( BM )max = 16kN − m change it's sign at two points.
We know that 266. In a double overhanging beam carrying udl
dm throughout its length, the number of points of
= shear force ( S)
dx contra flexure are
dM = Sdx (a) 1 (b) 2
C (c) zero (d) 3
∫
A
dM = Area under Shear force diagram APPSC AEE 2012
1 Ans : (b) In a double overhanging beam carrying UDL
(MC – MA) = 2 × 2 + × 2 ×12 throughout its length, the number of points of
2
contraflexure are two.
= 4 + 12 = 16 kN-m Points of contraflexure:– Where the bending moment
MA = 0 [At Reaction] will change sign from negative to positive or vice versa.
So M C = 16kN − m Such a point, where the bending moment change sign, is
known as a point of contraflexure.
and also
1 
MB – MC = −13 × 1 +  × 1 × ( −6 ) 
2 
= – 13 – 3 = – 16 kN-m
MB = 0 [At reaction]
M C = 16 kN − m
So maximum bending moment will be 16 kN-m at
point C.
264. In a propped cantilever beam, the number of
points of contra-flexure is
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
APPSC AEE 2012
Ans : (a)

In a propped cantilever beam, the number of point of

contra-flexure is one.
265. If a fixed beam is subject to a point load at mid
267. Rate of change of shear force is equal to
span, total number of points of contra-flexure
(a) Bending moment
are
(b) Intensity of loading
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) Maximum deflection
(c) 3 (d) zero (d) Slope
APPSC AEE 2012 APPSC AEE 2012
471
Ans : (b) (i) Rate of change of Shear force is equal to 270. If SFD between two sections varies linearly,
intensity of loading BM between these sections varies
ds (a) linearly (b) parabolically
= − w ( downward load ) (c) constant (d) None of these
dx
w = load per unit length. APPSC AEE 2012
(ii) Rate of change of bending moment along the length Ans : (b) If SFD between two section varies linearly,
of beam is equal to shear force. BM between these section varies parabolically
dM
= Sx
dx
268. A cantilever is subjected to udl throughout the
length. If the maximum shear force is 200kN
and maximum bending moment is 400kN, the
span "L" of the beam in meters is
(a) 3 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 8
APPSC AEE 2012
Ans : (c)

271. At section of a beam sudden change in BM

indicates the action of
(a) point load (b) couple
(c) point load or couple (d) udl
APPSC AEE 2012
Ans : (b) At section of a beam sudden change in BM
indicates the action of couple.
272. A cantilever of length 'l' carries a udl of w per
unit m, over the whole length. If the free end be
supported over a rigid prop, the reaction of the
prop will be
Maximum shear force = 2000kN 2wℓ 5wℓ
(a) (b)
wL = 2000kN ……..(i) 8 8
Maximum Bending moment 3wℓ 7wℓ
(c) (d)
wL2 8 8
=4000kN ….....(ii) APPSC AEE 2012
2
for equation (i) and (ii) Ans : (c) A cantilever of length l carries a udl of w per
wL 2 unit m, over the whole length. If the free end be
supported over a rigid prop, the reaction of the prop will
2 = 2 L = 4m 3wℓ
wL be .
269. A cantilever beam AB of length 1 is subjected 8
to an anticlockwise couple of 'M' at a section C, 273. For a maximum bending moment, shear force
distance 'a' from support. Then the maximum at that section should be
shear force is equal to (a) zero (b) maximum
(c) minimum (d) None of the above
M APPSC AEE 2012
(a) M (b)
2 dM
(c) Zero (d) Ma Ans : (a) = shear force
APPSC AEE 2012 dx
For maximum bending moment shear force will be
Ans : (c)
equal to zero.
274. For uniform shear force throughout the span
of a simply supported beam, it should carry
(a) a concentrated load at the mid-span
A cantilever beam AB of length l is subjected to an (b) a couple anywhere in the sections
anticlockwise couple of M at a section C, distance 'a' (c) udl over its entire span
from support, then the maximum shear force is equal to (d) two concentrated loads equally spaced
zero. Because No transfer load acting on the beam. APPSC AEE 2012
472
Ans : (b) For uniform shear force throughout the span Ans. (d) :
of a simply supported beam, it should carry a couple
anywhere in the section.
275. Maximum bending moment in a cantilever
carrying a concentrated load at the free end
occurs
(a) at the fixed end (b) at the free end (2a + b)w
(c) at the mid span (d) None of these s RA = RB =
APPSC AEE 2012 B.M. at middle of2AB
Ans : (a)
w b  b  b 1
BM middle = −(2a + b) × + w  a +   a +  ×
2 2  2  2 2
For zero B.M. at middle
2
w b w b
0 = −(2a + b) × + a + 
2 2 2 2
2ab − b 2
b 2
2ab
= − + a2 + +
2 4 2
b2 b2
= − ab − + a + + ab
2

2 4
b
=2
a
Maximum bending moment in a cantilever beam
carrying a concentrated load at the free end occurs at the 278. A simply supported beam of length l carries a
fixed end. uniformly distributed load of w per unit length.
It will have maximum bending moment at
276. The given figure shows the shear force diagram
midpoint of beam and the value will be:
for the beam ABCD. Bending moment in the
portion BC of the beam wl 2 wl 2
(a) (b)
2 4
wl 2 wl 2
(c) (d)
6 8
wl 2
(a) is zero (e)
(b) varies linearly from B to C 16
(c) parabolic variation between B and C (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
(d) is a non–zero constant CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
APPSC AEE 2012 UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
Ans : (d) Ans. (d) : We know that
wL
R A = RB =
2

Taking a section x-x from a point A at a distance x.

Then taking moment at x-x
x
Mx-x = R A x − wx ⋅
2
wL x2
Mx-x = x−w
Bending moment in the portion BC of the beam is a 2 2
non-zero constant. For max. bending moment
277. A beam carrying a uniformly distributed load dM x −x
=0
rests on two supports 'b' apart with equal dx
overhang 'a' at each end. The ratio b/a for zero wL x
bending moment at the mid span is − 2w = 0
2 2
(a) 1/2 (b) 1
wL
(c) 3/2 (d) 2 = wx
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 2
473
 L Ans. (d) : In question they asked max shear stress that
x= should be max shear force.
2
L
At x = [at mid] bending moment will be max. so
2
wL L w × L2
M L= × −
x=
2
2 2 4× 2
wL2 wL2
ML = −
2
4 8
–Wl
wL2
ML / 2 =
8
279. A simply supported beam of length L carrying
a concentrated load W at a section which is at a
distance of 'x' from one end. What will be the –Wl
value of bending moment at this section?
(a) W (x - x2) (b) W (x2 - xL) Max shear force at fixed = W × l
1 
 x2  Max value of bending moment =  W × l  × l
(c) W  x −  (d) Wx  2 
 L 
 Wl 2
SJVN ET 2019 =
2
Ans. (c) : 281. A simply supported beam of span carries over
its full span a load varying linearly from zero
W at each end to W N/m at mid span. The
maximum bending moment is
A C B Wℓ 2 Wℓ 2
(a) (b)
12 8
x Wℓ 2 Wℓ 2
(c) (d)
4 2
RA RB JWM 2017
RA + RB = W .............(i) Ans. (a) : Consider equilibrium of beam AB total load
Taking moment about A, 1 ℓ 
on beam is 2 ×  × × W 
RB×L = Wx 2 2 
Wx WL
RB = Total load =
L 2
R A = W – RB As the beam symmetric, the total load equally
Wx distributed on both the support.
=W−
L
Taking moment about C,
MC = RA× x
 x2 
= W x − 
 L
280. A cantilever beam of length L carry a UDL of WL
RA = RB =
W per length across the whole span. What will 4
be the value of maximum shear stress and Bending moment (Mx)
maximum bending moment on the beam L
In the region 0 < x <
respectively? 2
WL WL  1 2Wx   x 
(a) , WL2 (b) WL, WL 2
Mx = .x −  × x × × 
2 4  2 L  3
WL WL2 WL2 WL Wx 3
(c) , (d) WL, = x−
2 2 2 4 3L
SJVN ET 2019 For maximum bending moment
474
 d(M x ) M
=0 (b) A downward concentrated load at C.
dx 2
(c) An anticlockwise moment ‘M’ at C
WL Wx 2 (d) A clockwise moment ‘M’ at C.
− =0
4 L UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
L Ans. (c) : An anticlockwise moment ‘M’ at C
∴x =
2 286. Two cantilever steel beams of identical length
L WL2 and of rectangular section are subjected to
At. x = M max = same point load at their free end. In one beam,
2 12 the longer side of section is vertical, while in the
282. In a beam when shear force changes sign, the other, it is horizontal. Beams defect at free end:
bending moment will be:- (a) equally irrespective of their disposition.
(a) Zero (b) Maximum (b) more in case of longer side vertical.
(c) Minimum (d) Infinity (c) less in case of longer side horizontal.
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I (d) less in case of longer side vertical.
Ans. (b) : In a beam when shear force changes sign, the UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
bending moment will be maximum. Ans. (d) : less in case of longer side vertical.
283. Which one of the following will result into a dm
constant strength beam ? 287. In a loaded beam, the term represents
(a) The bending moment at every section of the dx
beam is constant. (a) Deflection at a section
(b) Shear force at every section is same. (b) Slope at a section
(c) The beam is of uniform section over its whole (c) Intensity of loading at a section
length. (d) Shear force at a section
(d) The ratio of bending moment to the section UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
modulus for every section along the length is Ans. (d) : Shear force at a section
same.
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (d) : The ratio of bending moment to the section
4. Bending Stresses and Shear
modulus for every section along the length is same. Stresses in Beams
284. Two simply supported beams of equal lengths,
cross sectional areas, and section moduli, are 288. Which one of the following statements in
subjected to the same concentrated load at its correct? A beam is said to be uniform strength,
mid-length. One beam is made of steel and if :
other is made of Aluminium. The maximum (a) The bending moment is the same throughout
bending stress induced will be in the beam
(a) Steel beam (b) The shear stress is the same throughout the
(b) Aluminium beam beam
(c) Both beams of equal magnitude (c) The deflection is the same throughout the
(d) The beams according to their Elastic Moduli beam
magnitude. (d) The bending stress is the same at every
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I section along its longitudinal axis
Ans. (c) : Both beams of equal magnitude OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
285. The bending moment diagram for a simply TNPSC AE 2014
supported beam AB of length ‘L’ is shown OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
below : Ans : (d) : A beam is said to be uniform strength if, the
bending stress is the same at every section along its
longitudinal axis.
289. The variation of bending stress in a curved
beam is ............ in nature.
(a) Linear (b) Cubic
(c) Parabolic (d) Hyperbolic
HPPSC AE 2018
M Ans. (d) : The variation of bending stress in curved
CD1 = CD2 =
2 beam is given as
Sagging moment : positive My
Hugging moment : negative σ=
A.e.[ r − y ]
What is the load acting on beam AB ?
M This equation shows that the stress distribution is
(a) An upward concentrated load at C. Hyperbolic in nature.
2
475
290. When a beam is subjected to a transverse 296. A beam strongest in flexural is one which has
shearing force, the shear stress in the upper (a) maximum bending stress
fibers will be– (b) maximum area of cross section
(a) Maximum (b) Minimum (c) maximum section modulus
(c) Zero (d) Depends on other data (d) maximum moment of inertia
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (c) : Shear stress in a beam is not uniformly Ans. (c) : A beam strongest in flexural is one which has
maximum section modulus.
distributed over the cross-section, but varies from zero
of outer fiber to a maximum at the neutral surface. I
Z = N −A
291. A beam of uniform strength has constant : y max.
(a) Shear force (b) Bending moment 297. A beam of span 3 m and width 90 mm is loaded
(c) Cross-sectional area (d) Deflection as shown in the figure. If the allowable bending
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 stress is 12 MPa, the minimum depth required
Ans. (b) : Bending moment will remain constant in for the beam will be
uniform strength beam.
292. An inverted T-section is subjected to a shear force
F. The maximum shear stress will occur at:
(a) Top of the section
(b) Junction of web and flange (a) 218 mm (b) 246 mm
(c) Neutral axis of the section (c) 318 mm (d) 346 mm
(d) Bottom of the section ESE 2020
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 6 M max
Ans. (c) : The maximum shear stress will occur at Ans. (b) : Bending stress σ b =
neutral axis of the section in inverted T-section when bd 2
Mmax = 14.5 × 1.5 – 12 × 0.9
subjected to a shear force. = 10.95 kNm
293. The nature of distribution of horizontal shear = 10.95 × 106 N mm
stress in a rectangular beam is :
6 × 10.95 ×106
(a) Linear (b) Parabolic 12 =
(c) Hyperbolic (d) Elliptic 90 × d 2
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I d = 246.64 mm
298. A vertical hollow aluminium tube 2.5 m high
Ans : (b) : The nature of distribution of horizontal shear
stress in a rectangular beam is parabolic. fixed at the lower end, must support a lateral
load of 12 kN at its upper end. If the wall
294. The ratio of average shear stress to the
maximum shear stress in a beam with a square 1
thickness is th of the outer diameter and the
cross-section is : 8
(a) 1 (b) 2/3 allowable bending stress is 50 MPa, the inner
(c) 3/2 (d) 2 diameter will be nearly
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I (a) 186 mm (b) 176 mm
(c) 166 mm (d) 156 mm
Ans : (b) : The ratio of average shear to the maximum
ESE 2020
shear stress in a beam with a square cross section is 2/3.
Ans. (d) :
295. Uniformly distributed load ‘w’ act over per
1
unit length of a cantilever beam of 3m length. If t= d 0
the shear force at the midpoint of beam is 6kN, 8
what is the value of ‘w’:- di = d0 – 2t
(a) 2 kN/m (b) 3 kN/m 1 3
= d0 − 2 × d0 = d0
(c) 4 kN/m (d) 5 kN/m 8 4
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I di 3
=
Ans. (c) : From shear force diagram d0 4
3w 6 32M
= σb = 3 max 4
3 1.5 πd 0 (1 − K )
w = 4 kN/m
32 × 12 × 103 × 2500
50 =
  3 4 
πd 30 1 −   
  4  
d0 = 207.54
3
di = × 207.54 = 155.66 mm
4
476
299. An I-section of a beam is shown in the figure MS
below. If the shear stress at point P which is (σ b )s =
very close to bottom of the flange is 12 MPa, D3
the shear stress at the point Q close to the 6
flange is : For circular cross section–
M
( σ b ) C = b3
πD
32
Note- Bending stress of both beam will be same
(σ b ) s = (σ b ) c
6M S 32M C
=
D3 πD 3
(a) 40 MPa (b) 12 MPa
(c) Indeterminate (d) 60 MPa M S 16
=
BHEL ET 2019 M C 3π
Ans. (d) : Given -
shear stress of flange 301. A steel wire of 10 mm diameter is bent into a
circular shape of 5 m radius. What will be the
( τ flange ) = 12MPa maximum stress induced in the wire, when E =
shear stress of web (τweb) =? 200 GPa?
width of flange (bt) = 100 mm (a) 50 MPa (b) 100 MPa
width of web (bw) = 20 mm (c) 150 MPa (d) 200 MPa
(e) 250 MPa
from -
(τ flange) = (b )
web (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
( τ web ) (b ) flange
Ans. (d) : Data given,
d = 10 mm
12 20 1 R = 5 m = 5 × 103 mm
= =
( τ web ) 100 5 E = 200 GPa = 200 × 103 N/mm2
σ=?
( τ web ) = 60MPa We know that pure bending equation
300. The ratio of moment carrying capacity of a M σ E
= =
square cross section beam of dimension D to I Y R
the moment carrying capacity of a circular E d 10
cross section of diameter D is : So σ = × y max. ymax. = = = 5 mm
R 2 2
16 16 200 × 103
(a) (b) σ= ×5
3π π 5 ×103
16 8 σ = 200 N/mm2
(c) (d)
5π 3π σ = 200 MPa
BHEL ET 2019 302. Section of the modulus (Z) for a rectangular
Ans. (a) : section with width (b) and depth (d) is given
by:
bd3 bd 2
(a) Z = (b) Z =
12 12
bd3 bd 2
D3 (c) Z = (d) Z =
Section modulus of square cross - section Z s = 6 6
6 bd 2
(e) Z =
πD 3 8
Section modulus of circular cross - section Z c =
32 (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (d) : We know that

M
σb =
Z NA I N−A
Z=
For square cross section– Ymax.

477
 d 305. For beam of uniform strength if its depth is
Ymax = maintained constant, then its width will vary in
2
proportion to
bd 3 (a) Bending moment, BM (b) (BM)2
IN-A =
12 (c) (BM)3 (d) None of the above
bd3 × 2 Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Z= Ans. (a) : A beam of uniform strength, in which
12 × d
bending stress is control & is equal to the allowable
bd 2 stress. It is achieved by keeping the depth constant &
Z=
6 width will vary in proportional to bending moment (M).
303. A wooden rectangular beam, subject to M σ
=
uniformly distributed load, has an average I y
shear stress (τav) across the section. The M M
maximum shear stress (τmax) at natural axis is: σ= =
I/ y Z
(a) τmax = 0.5 τav (b) τmax = 1.0 τav
306. The section modulus is expressed as–
(c) τmax = 1.5 τav (d) τmax = 2.0 τav
(a) I/Y (b) E/I
(e) τmax = 2.5 τav (c) M/1 (d) EI
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (c) : Shear stress distribution across the
rectangular section. Ans. (a) : Section modulus is the ratio of moment of
3 Inertia about N.A. upon the for test point of section
τmax. = τav = 1.5 τav from Neutral Axis (N.A.).
2
I
Z=
Y
307. A circular log of timber has diameter D. Find
the dimension of the strongest rectangular
section which can be cut from it.
(a) D/ 3 wide and ( 2 / 3) D deep
(b) D2/ 3 wide and ( 2 / 3) D deep
304. A rectgangular beam 100 mm wide is subjected (c) D/ 2 wide and ( 2 / 3) D deep
to a maximum shear force of 50 kN. If the (d) D/ 3 wide and ( 1/ 3) D deep
maximum shear stress is 3 MPa, the depth of
the beam will be ______. (e) πD/ 3 wide and ( 2 / 3) D deep
(a) 100 mm (b) 150 mm CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
(c) 200 mm (d) 250 mm Ans. (a) : For strongest beam
(e) 275 mm D
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) width of beam =
Ans. (d) : We know that 3
3 2
τmax. = τavg. [For rectangular beam] depth of beam =   D
2 3
Shear Force 50 ×103 308. A rectangular beam 300 mm deep, is simply
τavg = =
Cross - Sectional Area 100 × d supported over a span of 4 m. Determine the
3 50 × 10 3 uniformly load per meter, which the beam can
3= × carry, if the bending stress does not exceed 120
2 100 × d N/mm2. Take moment of inertia of the beam =
3 × 50 ×10 3
8 × 106 mm4.
d= (a) 3.2 N/mm (b) 1.2 N/mm
2 × 3 ×100
(c) 4.2 N/mm (d) 4.5 N/mm
d = 250 mm (e) 2.2 N/mm
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Ans. (a) : Maximum bending stress—Maximum
bending stress will occur at mid-span of beam on either
top or bottom fiber of beam

478
 wl 2 Ans. (c) : Data given
M max = b = 5 mm t = 1 mm
8
L = 1.5 m
M σb = 150 N/mm2
σ max = max y
I M=?
2
wl d We know that
σ max = × 12M
8I 2 σb = 2
bt
w × (4 × 103 ) 2  300 
120 = ×   12 × M
8 × 8 × 106  2  150 =
× (1)
2
w = 3.2 N/mm 5
309. Bending stress in a beam cross section at a M = 62.5 N − mm
distance of 15 cm from neutral axis is 50 MPa. 312. In a beam of I cross-section, subjected to a
Determine the magnitude of bending of a transverse load, the maximum shear stress is
distance of 10 cm from neutral axis. developed
(a) 50 MPa (b) 30.43 MPa (a) at the centre of the web
(c) 33.33 MPa (d) 75 MPa (b) at the top edge of the top flange
(e) 45.53 MPa (c) at the bottom edge of the top flange
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift (d) at one third distance along the web
TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (c) :
Ans. (a) : In a beam of I cross-section, subjected to a
transverse load, the maximum shear stress is developed
at the centre of the web.

M
Bending stress (σ ) = y 313. Beams with four unknown reaction is
I
σ∝y (a) In-Determinate Beams
(b) Determinate Beams
σ 2 y2 (c) Propped Beams
=
σ 1 y1 (d) In- Propped Beams
TNPSC AE 2013
σ 2 10 Ans. (a) : A structure is statically indeterminate when
=
50 15 the static equilibrium equation [Force and moment
σ2 = 33.33 MPa equilibrium equation condition] are insufficient for
310. The ratio of moment of inertia of a cross determining the internal forces and reaction on that
structure.
section to the distance of extreme fibers from
For in-determinate beam No. of equilibrium equation
the neutral axis is known as < No. of Reactions.
(a) Elastic modulus (b) Bulk modulus For determinate beam No. of equilibrium equation =
(c) Shear modulus (d) Section modulus No. of reactions.
(e) Young's modulus 314. The cross-section of the beam is as shown in the
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift figure.
I
Ans. (d) : Section modulus ( Z ) =
y
where I = Moment of inertia of a cross-section
y = distance of extreme fiber from neutral axis.
311. A flat spiral mode of strip of breadth 5 mm,
thickness 1 mm and length 1.5 m has been
subjected to a winding couple which induces a
maximum stress of 150 N/mm2. The magnitude
of winding couple is nearest to
(a) 20.8 Nmm (b) 41.6 Nmm If the permissible stress is 150 N/mm2, the
(c) 62.5 Nmm (d) 83.3 Nmm bending moment M will be nearly
TNPSC AE 2014 (a) 1.21 × 108 N mm (b) 1.42 × 108 N mm
479
 (c) 1.64 × 108 N mm (d) 1.88 × 108 N mm Ans. (b) :
ESE 2019
Ans. (b) : Moment of inertia of I-section
 200 × 4003 96 × 3803 
I= −2 
 12 12 
8 4
= 1.887 × 10 mm
I Shear stress is max at the neutral axis of I-section i.e. in
Section modulus (Z) = the web portion.
y max
317. A pull of 100 kN acts on a bar as shown in the
1.887 ×108 figure in such a way that it is parallel to the bar
= axis and is 10 mm away from xx:
200
= 943573.33 mm3
Permissible stress
M
σmax =
Z
Bending moment M = σmax × Z
= 150 × 943573.33
= 1.415 × 108 N-mm
315. A hollow circular bar used as a beam has its
outer diameter thrice the inside diameter. It is The maximum bending stress produced in the
subjected to a maximum bending moment of 60 bar at xx is nearly.
MN m. If the permissible bending stress is (a) 20.5 N/mm2 (b) 18.8 N/mm2
2
limited to 120 MPa, the inside diameter of the (c) 16.3 N/mm (d) 14.5 N/mm2
beam will be. ESE 2019
(a) 49.2 mm (b) 53.4 mm Ans. (b) :
(c) 57.6 mm (d) 61.8 mm
ESE 2019
Ans. (c) : do = 3 di, M = 60 MN-mm = 60 × 106 N-mm
d
ymax = o
2
σmax ≤ σ
M
× y max ≤ σ P = 100 kN (Tensile)
I
Bending moment (M) = 100 × 103 × 10
60 × 106 do 6
= 10 N-mm
⋅ ≤ 120
π 4
( d o − di )
4 2
ymax =
80
= 40 mm
64 2
60 × 106 × 64 do bd 3 50 × 803
× = 120 I = =
  d 4  2 12 12
πd o4 1 −  i   Maximum bending stress
  d o  
M 106
384 × 10 7 σ max = ⋅ y max = × 40
= d3o I  50 × 803 
 1  4
 
2 × 120 × π 1 −     12 
2
 3  = 18.8 N/mm
do = 172.79 mm 318. The maximum shearing stress induced in the
do = 172.79 mm beam section at any layer at any position along
di = 57.6 mm the beam length (shown in the figure) is equal
Note : Bending moment value should be in MN-mm but to
in question it is given in MN-m.
316. In a beam of I-section, which of the following
parts will take the maximum shear stress when
subjected to traverse loading?
1. Flange 2. Web
Select the correct answer using code given
below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 30 kgf/cm2 (b) 40 kgf/cm2
2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 or 2 (c) 50 kgf/cm (d) 60 kgf/cm2
ESE 2019 ESE 2017
480
Ans. (a) : h h
(a) (b)
3 2
h h
(c) (d)
2 3
APPSC-AE-2019
Ans. (c) :

For rectangular cross section

3
τmax = τavg
2
3 2000
= × kgf / mm 2 Ac = At
2 50 × 200
= 30 kgf/cm2 1 1 1 
319. A beam of rectangular section (12 cm wide × 20 × b × b1 =  × 2h × h 
2 2 2 
cm deep) is simply supported over a span of 12 2
m. It is acted upon by a concentrated load of h
b1 =
80kN at the mid span. The maximum bending b
stress induced is. from similar triangles
(a) 400 MPa (b) 300 MPa b → b1
(c) 200 MPa (d) 100 MPa
ESE 2017 h → 2h
b × 2h = b1h
Ans. (b) : Given,
b = 12 cm = 120 mm b
b= 1
d = 20 cm = 200 mm 2
h2
b=
b×2
h2
b2 =
L = 12 m = 12000 mm 2
W = 80 kN = 80 × 10 N 3 h
b=
WL 80 × 103 × 12000 2
Mmax = = 321. Calculate the shear force and bending moment
4 4
= 240 × 106 N−mm at point B for the beam AB subjected to
linearly varying load as shown in the figure.
bd 3 120 × 2003 The value of the linearly varying load at the
I= =
12 12 point is 6 kN/m and 4 kN/m, respectively. Point
= 80 × 106 mm4 B is an internal hinge.
d 200
y= = = 100 mm
2 2
MY
Maximum bending stress (σ) =
I
240 × 106 × 100 (a) 2.67 kN and 0 kN-m (b) 4 kN and 0 kN-m
=
80 × 10 6 (c) 4 kN and 1.33 kN-m (d) 1.33 kN and 0 kN-m
= 300 MPa APPSC-AE-2019
320. The beam of triangular cross-section as shown Ans. (d) :
in the figure below, is subjected to pure
bending. If a plastic hinge develops at a section,
determine the location of neutral axis (distance
b from top) at that section. The beam material
is elastic-perfectly plastic (i.e., yield stress is
constant)

Consider BC part
(4)(2)
SFB = RB = = 1.33 kN
6
BMB = 0 (at hinge moment is zero)
481
322. A beam of rectangular section 200mm × 325. In case of pure bending, the beam will bend
300mm carries certain loads such that bending into an arc of a/an
moment at a section A is M and at another (a) parabola (b) hyperbola
(c) circle (d) ellipse
section B it is (M + ∆M). The distance between
APPSC-AE-2019
section A and B is 1 m and there are no Ans. (c) : If a beam is subjected to pure bending the
external loads acting between A and B. If ∆M is elastic curve is a circular arc with constant radius.
20 kNm, maximum shear stress in the beam 326. A square section of side 'a' is oriented as shown
section is in the figure. Determine the section modulus of
(a) 0.5 MPa (b) 1.0 MPa the following section?
(c) 1.5 MPa (d) 2.0 MPa
APPSC-AE-2019
dM
Ans. (a) : =F
dx
20kN − m
=F
1m
F = 20 kN
a4 a3
For rectangular cross-section (a) (b)
3 12 2 12 2
τ max = τ avg  a4 a3
2 (c) (d)
3  F  3  20 × 103  6 2 6 2
τ max =   =   = 0.5 MPa APPSC-AE-2019
2  bd  2  200 × 300  Ans. (d) :
323. A mild steel flat of width 100 mm and thickness
12 mm is bent into an arc of a circle of radius
10 m by applying a pure moment M. If Young's
modulus E = 200 GPa, then the magnitude of
M is
(a) 72 Nm (b) 144 Nm
(c) 216 Nm (d) 288 Nm
The section modulus is
APPSC-AE-2019
Ans. (d) : Radius of curvature (R) = 10,000 mm  a.a 3 
 12 
Modulus of elasticity (E) = 200 × 103 MPa I = a
3
Z= =
Thickness (t) = 12 mm ymax  a  6 2
From bending equation  
 2
M E 327. In theory of simple bending an assumption is
=
I R made that plane sections before bending
M 200 × 103 remain plane even after bending. This
= assumption implies that
100 × 12 
3
10, 000 (a) Strain is uniform across the section
 12  (b) Stress is uniform across the section
 
(c) Stress in any layer is proportional to its
M = 288000 N-mm distance from the neutral axis
= 288 N-m (d) Strain in any layer is directly proportional to
324. A rectangular beam section with depth 400 mm its distance from the neutral axis
and width 300 mm is subjected to a bending JWM 2017
moment of 60 kN/m. The maximum bending Ans. (d) : The assumption made in theory of simple
stress in the section is bending that plane sections before bending remain plane
(a) 7.50 MPa (b) 2.50 MPa even after bending means the strain in any layer is
directly proportional to its distance from the neutral
(c) 1.56 MPa (d) 0.42 MPa
axis.
APPSC-AE-2019
328. Moment of Inertia of the rectangle of base 80
Ans. (a) : Maximum bending stress in the beam mm and height 10 mm about its centroidal
M M 60 × 106 (Ixx) axis
f max = = = = 7.5 MPa (a) 6666.66 mm4 = Ixx (b) 5827.21 mm4 = Ixx
Z  bd 2   300 × 4002 
 6    (c) 7777.22 mm4 = Ixx (d) 6826.11 mm4 = Ixx
   6  TNPSC AE 2014
482
Ans. (a) : We know that For a beam of uniform strength bending stress
80 × [10]
3
80 ×1000 σ will be also constant
[ I x − x ] CG = = 332. Section modulus of hollow circle with average
12 12 diameter 'd' and with thickness 't' is equal to
4 4
(a) td 2 (b) t 2 d 2
5 5
4 5
(c) t 2 d (d) td 2
5 4
TNPSC 2019
 πd 3 
Ans. (c) : I x − x = I y − y =  ×t
 8 
[ I x − x ] CG = 6666.66 mm 4  
329. The section modulus of hollow circular section
is
π π
(a) (D4 − d 4 ) (b) (D4 − d 4 )
16 D 32 D
π π
(c) (D3 − d 3 ) (d) ( D3 − d 3 )
32 D 16 D
TNPSC AE 2013
π  D − d 
4 4
I
Ans. (b) : Z = =
R 64  D 
 2  d d
Ro = +t ≃
π( D − d )
4 4 2 2
Z=  πd 2 
32D Z x − x = Z y− y  × t
330. The rectangular beam 'A' has length l, width b  4 
and depth d. Another beam 'B' has the same 4 2
length and width but depth is double of that of ≈ td
'A'. The elastic strength of beam B will be 5
_____ as compared to beam A. 333. The rectangular beam A has a length ℓ and
(a) same (b) double width b but depth d is double that of A. The
(c) four times (d) six times elastic strength of beam B will be ____ as
TSPSC AEE 2015 compared to beam A.
Ans. (c) : We know that, (a) same (b) double
σ ∝ ( depth ) (c) one-fourth (d) four times
2
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
2
σA  d  1 Ans : (d) : We know that section modulus for beam A,
so, =  =
σB  2d  4 I bd 3 /12
ZA = A =
Then, yA d /2
σ B = 4σA bd 2
=
331. If the depth is kept constant for a beam of 6
uniform strength, then its width will vary in And section modulus for beam B
proportional to (where M = Bending moment)
b ( 2d ) /12
3
I
(a) M (b) M ZB = B =
(c) M2 (d) M3 yB 2d / 2
TSPSC AEE 2015 2bd 2
Ans. (a) : We know that =
3
M σ (Depth is double that of A)
=
I y Since elastic strength of beam is directly proportional to
their respective section modulus, therefore,
bd 3
I= ZB 2bd 2 6
12 = × 2 or Z B =4Z A
So M ∝ b ZA 3 bd
If depth is constant then M is directly ZB = 4ZA
proportional to its width [b].
483
334. Pure bending means : 338. If E= elasticity modulus, I = moment of inertia
(a) The bending beam shall be accompanied by about the neutral axis and M = bending
twisting moment in pure bending under the symmetric
(b) Shear force is zero loading of a beam, the radius of curvature of
(c) There is no twisting the beam :
(d) None of these (i) Increases with E
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I (ii) Increases with M
Ans : (b) : Pure bending- Pure bending is a condition (iii) Decreases with I
of stress where a bending moment is applied to a beam (iv) Decreases with M
without the simultaneous application of axial shear or Which of these are correct?
torsional forces. Beam that is subjected to pure bending (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
means the shear force in the particular beam is zero and (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
no torsional or axial loads are presented. Pure bending OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
is also the flexure (bending) of a beam that under a Ans : (d) : In pure bending
constant bending moment therefore pure bending only σ M E
occurs therefore pure bending only occurs when the = =
y I R
shear force in equal to zero.
335. Which is the correct relation in a beam? E.I
R=
M I R M y E M
(a) = = (b) = = R increase with E
σ y E I σ R R decrease with M
M σ E M E σ Statement (i) and (iv) are correct.
(c) = = (d) = =
I y R y R I 339. In circular plates with edges clamped and with
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I a uniformly distributed load, the maximum
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I radial stress occurs at :
Ans : (c) : (HPPSC AE 2014)
Where M = Bending moment (a) clamp edge (b) the centre
I = Second moment of inertia of cross section (c) the mean radius (d) none of these
about neutral axis. Ans : (b) In circular plates with edges clamped and with
σ = Bending stress on any layer a uniformly distributed load, the maximum radial stress
γ = Distance of any layer from neutral layer. occurs at the centre.
E = Young’s Modulus 340. Equivalent moment of inertia of the cross-
R = Radius of curvature of the neutral section in terms of timber of a flitched beam
336. The point within the cross-sectional plane of made up of steel and timber is (m = Es/Et) :
beam through which the resultant of the (a) (It + m/Is) (b) (It + Is/m)
external loading on the beam has to pass (c) (It + mIs) (d) (It + 2mIt)
through to ensure pure bending without (HPPSC AE 2014)
twisting of the cross-section of the beam is Ans : (c) Equivalent moment of inertia of the cross-
called : section in terms of timber of a flitched beam made up-of
(a) Moment centre (b) Centroid steel and timber
(c) Shear center (d) Elastic center is It + mIs
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I m = Es/Et
Ans : (c) : Shear center is the point within the cross Es = Modulus of elasticity of steel.
sectional plane of a beam through which the resultant of Et = Modulus of elasticity of timber.
the external loading on the beam has to pass through to 341. Section modulus (Z) of a beam depends on:
ensure pure bending without twisting of cross section of (a) the geometry of the cross-section
the beam. (b) weight of the beam
337. Section modulus of a beam is defined as : (c) only on length of the beam
Y (d) none of the above
(a) Iy (b) (HPPSC LECT. 2016)
I Ans : (a) section modulus (z) of a beam depends on the
I geometry of the cross - sections.
(c) (d) Y2I
Ymax I
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I section modulus (Z) =
Ymax
APPSC AEE 2012
Ans : (c) : Section Modulus- The ratio I/y where y is M σ E
= =
the farthest or the most distant point of the section from I y R
the neutral axis is called section modulus, It is denoted M = σ max × Z
by Z.
342. Section modulus of a square section of side 'b'
Moment of inertia about neutralaxis
Z= is equal to
Distanceof farthest point from neutralaxis (a) b3/6 (b) b2/6
484
 (c) b/6 (d) b3/3 (d) bending stress at every section
TSPSC AEE 2015 APPSC AEE 2012
b 4 Ans : (d) A beam of uniform strength is one which has
Ans : (a) Square section moment of inertia (I) = same bending stress at every section.
12 346. Neutral axis of a beam is the axis at which
Section modulus = I/y
(a) the shear force is zero
b4 × 2 (b) the section modulus is zero
Zsq = (c) the bending stress is maximum
12 × b
3 (d) the bending stress is zero
b APPSC AEE 2012
Zsq =
6 Ans : (d) Neutral axis of a beam is the axis at which the
343. The maximum bending moment of a square bending stress is zero.
200 3
beam of section modulus mm3 is 20 × 106
6
N-mm. The maximum shear stress induced in
the beam is
(a) 30 N/mm2 (b) 7.5 N/mm2
2
(c) 45 N/mm (d) 15 N/mm2
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (d) bending moment (M) = 20×106N-mm
2003
section modulus (Z) = mm3
6
M σ max E
= = ( bending equation )
I y R
M I 347. A beam cross-section is used in two different
= orientations as shown in figure :
σmax y
M
σ max =
Z
20 × 10 6
σ max =
200 3 / 6
σ max = 15N / mm2
344. In an I-section of a beam subjected to Bending moments applied in both causes are
transverse shear force, the maximum shear same. The maximum bending stresses induced
stress is developed at in cases (A) and (B) are related as
(a) The bottom edges of the top flange. (a) σA = σB (b) σA = 2σ B
(b) The top edges of the top flange.
(c) The centre of the web σ σ
(c) σA = B (d) σA = B
(d) The upper edges of the bottom flange. 2 4
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I APPSC AEE 2012
Ans : (c) In an I-section of a beam subjected to Ans : (b)
transverse shear force, the maximum shear stress is
developed at the centre of the web.
Shear stress distribution for I-section

(A) (B)
For first case:–
3
1 b b4
IA = × b  =
12  2  96
345. A beam of uniform strength is one, which has M σA M × 12 × 8 σA
= ⇒ =
same IA y b4 b/4
(a) bending moment throughout the section
(b) shearing force throughout the section 24M
σA = ……….. (i)
(c) deflection throughout the bean b3
485
 For second case 349. The ratio of maximum shear stress to the
b 1 average shear stress in case of a rectangular
IB =   × ( b ) ×
3
2 12 beam is equal to
 
(a) 1.5 (b) 2.0
b4 (c) 2.5 (d) 3
IB = APPSC AEE 2012
24
M σB Ans : (a) Shear stress developed is given by
=
IB y F  d2 2 F  d2 2
τ=  − y  =  − y 
M σ 2I  4  bd 3  4 
= B 2×
b 4 b 12
12 × 2 2 6F d 2 3F
τmax = 3× =
12M bd 4 2bd
σB = 3 ……… (ii) 3
b τmax = τavg
2
For equation first and second σ A = 2σB
350. The nature of distribution of horizontal shear
348. The ratio of flexural strength of a square stress in a rectangular beam is
section with its two sides horizontal to its (a) linear (b) parabolic
(c) hyperbolic (d) elliptic
diagonal horizontal is
APPSC AEE 2012
(a) 2 (b) 2 Ans : (b)
2 Shape of shear stress distribution across
(c) 2 2 (d) rectangular cross section will be parabolic .
5
APPSC AEE 2012
Ans : (a)
351. Section modulus of a circular section about an
axis through its centre of gravity is
π 3 π 3
(a) d (b) d
32 16
π 3 π 3
(c) d (d) d
8 64
APPSC AEE 2012
Ans : (a) Section modulus (z) = I/y
a4 πd 4
ISH = I = Moment of Inertia =
12 64
a d
y= y=
2 2
3
a
ZSH = πd3
6 z =
32
a3 352. A steel plate 50mm wide and 100mm thick is to
ZSH =
6 be bent into a circular arc of radius 10m. If
E = 2 × 105 N / mm 2 , then the maximum
a4
ISD = bending stress induced will be
12 (a) 200 N/mm2 (b) 100 N/mm2
2
a (c) 10,000 N/mm (d) 1000 N/mm2
y= APPSC AEE 2012
2
Ans : (d) b=50mm, d= 100mm, R = 10m
a4 × 2 a3 E= 2×10 5
N/mm 2
ZSD = =
12 × a 6 2 Bending equation :-
we know that M σ E
= =
M∝Z I y R
3 y = 50mm
M SH ZSH a 6 2
= = × 3 = 2 σ E
MSD ZSD 6 a =
y R
486
 E (c) Beam is initially straight.
σ= ×y (d) Beam material should not be brittle.
R
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
2 ×105
σ= × 50 Ans. (d) : Beam material should not be brittle.
10 × 103
359. A beam is of rectangular section. The
σ = 1000N / mm 2 distribution of shearing stress across a section
353. Radius of curvature of the beam is equal to is
ME M (a) Parabolic (b) Rectangular
(a) (b) (c) Triangular (d) None of the above
I EI
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
EI MI
(c) (d) Ans. (a) : Parabolic
M E
APPSC AEE 2012 360. The well known bending formula is
Ans : (c) Bending equation M E M E
(a) = (b) =
M σ E I R R I
= = M y M y
I y R. (c) = (d) =
M E I σ R σ
= UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
I R.
M E
EI Ans. (a) : =
Radius of curvature of the (R) = I R
M
354. If a material expands freely due to heating, it 361. Consider the three supports of a beam (1)
will develop:- Roller, (2) Hinged and (3) Fixed. The
(a) Thermal stresses support(s) that permit(s) rotation is (are):
(b) Tensile stresses (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Compressive stresses (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 only
(d) No stresses UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
UPRVUNL AE 2014 Ans. (c) : 1 and 2 only
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
362. Circular beams of uniform strength can be
Ans. (d) : If a material expands freely due to heating, it
will develop no stresses. made by varying diameter in such a way that
M σ
355. A cable with uniformly distributed load per (a) is constant (b) is constant
horizontal meter run will take the following Z y
shape:- E M
(a) Straight line (b) Parabola (c) is constant (d) is constant
R R
(c) Ellipse (d) Hyperbola
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Ans. (b) : A cable with uniformly distributed load per M
Ans. (a) : is constant
horizontal meter run will take parabola shape. Z
356. A beam of Z-section is called a
(a) doubly symmetric section beam 5. Torsion of Shafts
(b) singly symmetric section beam
(c) a-symmetric section beam 363. Which of the following assumption in the
(d) none of the above theory of pure torsion is false
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I (a) All radii get twisted due to torsion
(b) the twist is uniform along the length
Ans. (c) : a-symmetric section beam (c) the shaft is uniform circular section through
357. A uniform metal bar of weight ‘W’, length ‘l’, out
cross-sectional area ‘A’ is hung vertically with (d) cross section plane before torsion remain
its top end rigidly fixed. Which section of the plane after torsion
bar will experience maximum shear stress ? APPSC AEE 2016
(a) Top-section (b) Mid-section
Ans. (a) : Assumption in the theory of Torsion–
(c) Bottom-section (d) l/3 from top
1. The material of shaft is uniform throughout the
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
length.
Ans. (a) : Top-section
2. The twist along the shaft is uniform.
358. In theory of simple bending of beams, which 3. The shaft is of uniform circular section throughout
one of the following assumptions is incorrect ? the length.
(a) Elastic modulus in tension and compression 4. Cross-section of the shaft, which are plane before
are same for the beam materials. twist remain plane after twist.
(b) Plane sections remain plane before and after 5. All radii which are straight before twist remain
bending. straight after twist.
487
364. When a shaft is subjected to a twisting 369. The outside diameter of a hollow shaft is twice
moment, every cross-section of the shaft will be its inside diameter. The ratio of its torque
under– carrying capacity to that of a solid shaft of the
(a) Tensile stress (b) Compressive stress same material and the same outside diameter is
(c) Shear stress (d) Bending stress (a) 15/16 (b) 3/4
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 (c) 1/2 (d) 1/16
Ans. (c) : When a shaft is subjected to a twisting UPRVUNL AE 2016
moment every cross section of the shaft will be under UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
shear stress. Ans. (a) : The ratio of torque of hollow to solid shaft
365. In case of a torsional problem the assumption- T
"Plane sections perpendicular to longitudinal for the same material H = 1 − K 4
TS
axis before deformation remain plane and
perpendicular to the longitudinal axis after di
Where K =
deformation" holds true for a shaft having d0
(a) circular cross-section di 1
(b) elliptical cross-section Given that =
d0 2
(c) circular and elliptical cross-section 4
(d) any cross-section T 1
∴ H =1−  
APPSC-AE-2019 TS 2
Ans. (a) : In case of a torsional problem the TH 1
assumption- = 1−
"Plane sections perpendicular to longitudinal axis TS 16
before deformation remain plane and perpendicular to TH 15
the longitudinal axis after deformation" holds true for a =
TS 16
shaft having circular cross-section only. It is not valid
for other shape of cross-section. 370. Torsional rigidity of a solid cylindrical shaft of
366. For the two shafts connected in parallel, which diameter ‘d’ is proportional to
of the following in each shaft is same? (a) d (b) d2
(a) Torque (b) Shear stress 1
(c) Angle of twist (d) Torsional stiffness (c) d4 (d) 2
d
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (c) : When the two shafts connected in parallel Ans. (c) : d4
then both shafts are subjected to same angle of twist.
371. Polar moment of inertia of an equilateral
367. A hollow shaft has external and internal triangle of side ‘x’ is given by
diameters of 10cm and 5cm respectively.
Torsional section modulus of shaft is:- x4 x4
(a) (b)
(a) 375 cm3 (b) 275 cm3 16 16 3
3
(c) 184 cm (d) 84 cm3
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I x4 x4
(c) (d)
Ans. (c) : We know that tosional section modulus for 32 64
hollow shaft UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
π x4
Zp = D3 1 − K 4  Ans. (b) :
16  
16 3
d 372. A solid shaft of uniform diameter 'D' is
where K =
D subjected to equal amount of bending and
putting d = 5 cm, D = 10 cm twisting moment 'M'. What is the maximum
shear stress developed in the shaft?
3  5 
4
π
Zp = × (10 ) × 1 −    16 2M 16M
16   10   (a) (b)
πD3 2πD3
Zp = 184 cm3 32 2 M 16M
(c) (d)
368. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft πD 3
πD3
under torsion is:- UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(a) Maximum (b) Minimum 16M
(c) Zero (d) Unpredictable Ans. (a) :
πD3
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
373. The diameter of kernel of a hollow circular x-
Ans. (c) : The shear stress at the centre of a circular section is
shaft under torsion is zero
τ∝r D+d D2 + d 2
(a) (b)
Note- option (d) is given by UKPSC D D
488
 D2 + d 2 D2 + d 2 16T
(c) (d) Shear stress (τ ) = ...........( ii )
2D 4D πd3
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I for equation (i) and (ii)
D +d
2 2 σ 32M π d 3
Ans. (d) : = ×
4D τ π d 3 16T
374. Angle of twist allowed in case of camshaft is : σ 2M
=
(a) Dependent on its length τ T
(b) Restricted to ½ degree irrespective of length 377. A shaft of diameter d) is subjected to torque
of the shaft (T) and bending moment (M). The value of
(c) Depending on the torque acting on it maximum principle stress and maximum shear
(d) Dependent on the nature of the engine (i.e. 4 stress is given respectively by:
stroke or 2 stroke) 16  16
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I (a) 3 
M + M2 + T2 ; 3  M2 + T2 
πd  
 πd  
Ans : (c) Angle of twist allowed in case of camshaft is
16  16
Depending on the torque acting on it. (b) 4 
M + M2 + T2 ; 4  M2 + T2 
πd  
 πd  
375. A shaft turns at 200 rpm under a torque of
16  16
1800 Nm. The power transmitted is (c) 3 
M 2 + T 2  ; 3 M + M 2 + T 2 
(a) 6π kW (b) 12π kW πd  
 πd  
(c) 24π kW (d) 36π kW 16  16
(d) M 2 + T 2  ; 4 M + M 2 + T 2 
APPSC-AE-2019 πd 
4  
 πd  
2π NT 32  32
Ans. (b) : P = (e) M 2 + T 2  ; 4 M + M 2 + T 2 
60 πd 
4  
 πd  
2π (200)(1800) CGPSC AE 2014- I
= Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
60
Ans. (a) : Maximum principle stress σ max .
= 12000 (π)
16
= (12 π) kW σ max = 3  M + M 2 + T 2 
376. A circular shaft is subjected to a twisting πd  
moment T and a bending moment M. The ratio maximum shear stress
16
τ max = 3  M 2 + T 2 
of maximum bending stress to maximum shear
stress is given by πd  
(a) 2M/T (b) M/T 378. When a circular shaft is subjected to torque,
(c) 2T/M (d) M/2T the torsional shear stress is
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I (a) maximum at the axis of rotation and zero at
Ans : (a) the outer surface
(b) uniform from axis of rotation to the outer
M σ E
= = surface
I Y R (c) zero at the axis of rotation and maximum at
My the outer surface
Bending stress (σ ) = (d) zero at the axis of rotation and zero at the
I
outer surface and maximum at the mean
M ×d / 2
Bending stress (σ ) = radius
πd4 RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
64 Ans. (c) :
32M τ T
Bending stress (σ ) = ............( i ) =
πd3 r J
Torsion Equation Tr
τ=
T Gθ τ J
= = At, r = 0, τ → 0
J ℓ r
At, r = R, τ → Maximum
T .r
τ= 379. A solid bar of circular cross-section having a
J diameter of 40 mm and length of 1.3 m is
T ×d / 2 subjected to torque of 340 Nm. If the shear
Shear stress (τ ) = modulus of elasticity is 80 GPa, the angle of
π d4
twist between the ends will be
32 (a) 1.26° (b) 1.32°
489
 (c) 1.38° (d) 1.44° Ans. (d) : Given
ESE 2020 ( τ max ) = 160MPa
Ans. (a) : Angle of twist d1 = d
Tℓ d2 = 2d
θ=
GJ same torque T1 = T2 = T
340 ×103 × 1300 16T 16T
= ( τ max ) 1 = ⇒ 160 = 3 ...(1)
π πd 3
πd
80 × 103 × × 404
32 when diameter is doubled.
= 0.02198 rad 16T 16T
θ = 1.26º ( τ max )1 = = 160 = ...(2)
π ( 2d ) 8πd 3
3
380. A solid circular shaft of length 4 m is to
transmit 3.5 MW at 200 rpm. If permissible shear from equation (1) / equation (2)
stress is 50 MPa, the radius of the shaft is: 160 16T 8π d 3
= ×
(a) 1.286 mm (b) 12.86 mm τ max πd 3 16T
(c) 0.1286 mm (d) 128.6 mm
BHEL ET 2019 τ max = 20MPa
Ans. (d) : Given - 382. A 50 mm diameter solid shaft is subjected to
Length = L = 4m both, a bending moment and torque of 300 kN-
Transmitted P = 3.5 MW mm & 200 kN-mm respectively. The maximum
N = 200 rpm shear stress induced in the shaft is :
τ = 50 MPa, radius = r = ? (a) 10.22 MPa (b) 14.69 MPa
(c) 146.9 MPa (d) 102.2 MPa
τ = 50 × 103 kPa
BHEL ET 2019
Power P = Tω
Ans. (b) : Given diameter of shaft d = 50 mm
2πN Bending moment M = 300 kN-m
3.5 × 106 = T ×
60 Torque T = 200 kN-m
2π × 200 Te = M 2 + T 2 be the equivalent torque, which acts
= T×
60 alone producing the same maximum shearing stress
3.5 × 106 = 20.943 T
T 16
T = 167.120 kN-m τ max = e 3 = 3 Te
Torsion equation- πd πd
T T 16
=
J r 16 × 10 3
( 300 ) + ( 200 )
2 2
τ max =
π× ( 50 )
3
τJ
r=
T 16 × 360.555 × 10 3
πd 4 =
50 × π× 125000
r= 32 5768880
167.120 =
392699.081
d 50 × πd 4 = 14.69 MPa
=
2 5347.84 383. A circular shaft of 60 mm diameter is running
5347.84 at 150 r.p.m. What will be the torque
= d3 transmitted by the shaft if (τ = 80 MPa)?
50 × 2 × π (a) 1.1 π kN-m (b) 1.6π kN-m
d = 0.25724 (c) 2.1π kN-m (d) 2.6π kN-m
2r = 0.25724 (e) 3.1π kN-m
r = 0.12862 m (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
r = 128.6 mm Ans. (a) : d = 60 mm
N = 150 rpm
381. The maximum shear stress developed on the
τ = 80 MPa = 80 N/mm2
surface of a solid circular shaft under pure We know that
torsion is 160 MPa. If the shaft diameter is
doubled, then the maximum shear stress πd 3 π × 60 × 60 × 60
T= ×τ= × 80 N − mm
developed corresponding to the same torque 16 16
will be: T = 1.08π kN-m ≃ 1.1π kN-m
(a) 10 MPa (b) 30 MPa 384. Two shaft, one solid and other hollow made to
(c) 40 MPa (d) 20 MPa the same material will have same strength, if
BHEL ET 2019 they are of same
490
 (a) length and weight 388. In case of circular shaft subjected to torque the
(b) length and polar moment of inertia value of shear stress–
(c) weight and polar moment of inertia (a) Is uniform through out
(d) length, weight and polar moment of inertia (b) Has maximum value at axis
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper (c) Has maximum value at the surface
Ans. (b) : Two shafts, one solid and other hollow made (d) Is zero at the axis and linearly increases to a
to the same material will have same strength, if they are maximum value at the surface of the shaft
of same length and polar moment of inertia. Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
T τ Gθ Ans. (d) : In case of a circular shaft subject to torque
= = the value of shear stress is zero at the axis & linearly
J R ℓ
increase with ratius to a maximum value at the surface.
T GJ
kt = = 389. Which of the following is correct for flexible
θ ℓ shaft?
T
τ max = × R (a) it has very low rigidity both in bending and
J torsion
385. In a rectangular shaft is subjected to torsion, (b) it has very high rigidity in bending and low
the maximum shear shear stress will occur rigidity in torsion
(a) Along the diagonal (c) it has low rigidity in bending and high rigidity
(b) At the comers in torsion
(c) At the centre (d) It has very high rigidity both in bending and
(d) At the middle of the longer side
torsion
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
SJVN ET 2019
Ans. (d) : For a rectangular shaft is subjected to torsion
the maximum shear stress will occur at the midpoint of Ans. (c) : flexible shaft has low rigidity in bending and
the longer side and zero at the corners. high rigidity in torsion.
386. An axial load P is applied on circular section of 390. Angle of twist of a solid shaft of torsional
diameter D. If the same load is applied on a rigidity GJ, length L and applied torque T will
hollow circular shaft with inner diameter as be given by:
D/2, the ratio of stress in two cases would be T L
(a) 4/3 (b) 9/8 (a) (b)
GJL GJ T
(c) 1 (d) 8/3
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper TL GJ
(c) (d)
Ans. (a) : Axial load (P) on circular section & diameter GJ TL
(D) if the same load is applied on a hollow circular shaft SJVN ET 2019
with inner diameter as (D/2), then ratio of stress will be, UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
d = D/2
TL
P P Ans. (c) :
δ1 = δ1 = GJ
A1 π 2
D 391. Maximum value of shear stress for a hollow
4 shaft of outer and inner diameter D and d will
P P be: [where T = Applied torque]
δ2 = δ2 =
A2 π 2 16TD 16TD
(D − d 2 )
(a) (b)
( ) ( )
4 3 3
π π D −d π D4 − d 4
P/ (D 2 )
δ1 4 4 16T 16T
= = (c) (d)
δ2
P/
π (4D 2 − D 2 )
4 4
3
( 4
π D −d 4
) (
π D3 − d3 )
387. In case of a circular shaft subjected to torque SJVN ET 2019
the value of shear stress 16TD
Ans. (b) :
(a) Is uniform through out
(b) Has maximum value at axis (
π D4 − d 4 )
(c) Has maximum value at the surface 392. For a circular shaft of diameter D subjected to
(d) Is zero at the axis and linearly increases to a torque T, the maximum value of the shear
maximum value at the surface of the shaft stress is
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper (a) (64T/πD3) (b) (32T/πD3)
Ans. (d) : In case of a circular shaft subjected to torsion (c) (16T/πD ) 3
(d) (128T/πD3)
the value of shear stress is zero at the centre and (e) (8T/πD )3

linearly increase to a maximum value at the surface of CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
the shaft. RPSC 2016
491
Ans. (c) : From torsion equation we have Ans. (a) : We know that
T τ 1
= N∝
J r D
where T = torque D N 300
J = polar moment of inertia then, A = B =
D B N A 250
τ = shear stress then, DA > DB
r = radius
The maximum value of shear stress is given by 396. A steel spindle transmits 4 kW at 800 r.p.m.
The angular deflection should not exceed
T τ 0.25°/m length of the spindle. If the modulus of
=
πd4   d  rigidity for the material of the spindle is 84
  2 GPa, the diameter of the spindle will be
 32    (a) 46 mm (b) 42 mm
16T (c) 38 mm (d) 34 mm
τ= 3
πd ESE 2019
393. A solid circular shaft of 60 mm diameter and Ans. (d) : Given,
10 m length, transmits a torque of 2000 N-m. P = 4 kW
The value of maximum angular deflection, if N = 800 rpm
the modulus of rigidity is 100 GPa is G = 84 GPa
(a) 18 degree (b) 13 degree π 1
θ = 0.25 × ×
(c) 15 degree (d) 9 degree 180 1000
(e) 5 degree θ = 4.363 × 10−6 rad/mm
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift 60P
Ans. (d) : Given T=
2πN
d = 60 mm
60 × 4 × 103
l = 10 m = 10000 mm = = 47.77 N-m
G = 100 GPa = 100 × 103 N/mm2 2π× 800
3
T = 2000 N-m = 2000 × 103 N-mm = 47.77 × 10 N-mm
From torsion equation θ T
=
T Gθ L GJ
=
J l 4.363 ×10−6 47.77 ×103
=
T .l 2000 × 103 ×104 1 84 × 103 × J
θ= = J = 130343.90 mm4
GJ π
100 × 10 × × (60)
3 3
π 4
32 d = 130343.90
θ = 9.43º 32
d = 33.949 mm
394. In case of shaft design, one of the following d = 34 mm
equation is known as stiffness equation:
397. In a propeller shaft, sometimes apart from
T τ M σ bending and twisting, end thrust will also
(a) = (b) =
J R J R develop stresses which would be
M τ T Gθ (a) Tensile in nature and uniform over the cross-
(c) = (d) = section
I R J L (b) Compressive in nature and uniform over the
M Gθ cross-section
(e) =
I L (c) Tensile in nature and non-uniform over the
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift cross-section
(d) Compressive in nature and non-uniform over
 T Gθ  the cross-section
Ans. (d) : Equation  =  is known as stiffness
J L  ESE 2019
equation. Ans. (b) : Due to end thrust, stresses would be
395. 100 kW is to be transmitted by each of two compressive in nature and uniform over cross section.
separate shafts 'A' and 'B'. 'A' is rotating at 398. When two shafts, one of which is hollow, are of
250 rpm and 'B' at 300 rpm. Which shaft must the same length and transmit equal torques
have greater diameter. with equal maximum stress, then they should
(a) A have equal
(b) B (a) polar moments of inertia
(c) Both will have same diameter (b) polar moduli
(d) Unpredictable (c) diameters
(e) Diameter does not affect (d) angles of twist
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift ESE 2018
492
Ans. (b) : We know that 401. Torsion bars are in parallel
T (a) if same torque acts on each
τ = ×r (b) if they have equal angles of twist and applied
J torque apportioned between them
T T (c) are not possible
= =
(J / r) Zp (d) if their ends are connected together
TNPSC AE 2018
J
Zp = Polar modulus = Ans. (b) : Torsion bars are in parallel if they have equal
r angles of twist and applied torque apportioned between
if τ and T are same, Zp must also be same. them.
399. Two shafts, one solid and the other hollow, 402. When a shaft with diameter (d) is subjected to
made of the same material, will have the same pure bending moment (Mb), the bending stress
strength and stiffness, if both are of the same (σb) induced in the shaft is given by:
(a) length as well as weight  32M b   64M b 
(b) length as well as polar modulus (a) σb =  3 
(b) σb =  3 
(c) weight as well as polar modulus  π d   πd 
(d) length, weight as well as polar modulus  64M b   32M b 
(c) σb =  2 
(d) σb =  2 
ESE 2017  π d   πd 
Ans. (b) : Solid shaft and hollow shaft are same CIL (MT) 2017 IInd Shift
material, so G is same. Ans. (a) : In case of pure bending, the bending stress
T τ Gθ  32M b 
= = induced in the shaft σb =  .
J r ℓ 3 
 πd 
T GJ
kt = = 403. Shearing stress produced on the surface of a
θ ℓ solid shaft of diameter (d0) is τ. The shear stress
T produced on the surface of hollow shaft of same
τmax = × rmax
J material, subjected to same torque, and having
∴ For strength and stiffness to be same, both must have the outer diameter d0 and internal diameter dx0
same polar moment of inertia (J) and same length (ℓ). is given as: [Where x < 1]

400. The value of J in equation

T S s Gθ
= = for a
(a)
τ
1− x 4 (
(b) 1 − x 4 τ)
J y l
circular shaft of diameter d is (
(c) 1 − x 2 τ ) (d)
1 −
τ
x2
πd 4 πd 4 τ
(a) (b)
32 64 (e)
4 3
1 − 2x 4
πd πd CGPSC AE 2014- I
(c) (d)
16 32 Ans. (a) : Shear stress in solid shaft
NSPSC AE 2018 d
T× 0
RPSC AE 2018 2 =τ
τs =
T S s Gθ π
Ans. (a) : = = × d 04
J y l 32
This is a general torsion equation, Shear stress in hollow shaft is
T - Torque of twisting T × ( d o / 2)
J - Polar moment of inertia (or) polar second
τΗ =
π 4
[ d i = xd o ]
d 0 1− x 4 
moment of area about shaft axis. 32  
SS - shear stress at outer fiber
T × (d 0 / 2) 1
y - radius of shaft τΗ = ×
G - modulus of rigidity
θ - angle of twist 32
π
( ) (
d 04 1− x 4)
l - Length of the shaft τ
For circular solid shaft τH =
1− x 4
π
J S = .d 4 404. Three shafts (spring constant k1, k2, k3) are
32 connected in series such that they carries the
For circular Hollow shaft same torque (T), then spring constant (k) for
π  4 4 composite shaft will be
JH = Do − Di
32   (a) k = k1 + k2 + k3
493
 (b) k = (k1k2 + k2 k3 + k3 k1 )1/ 2 407. A solid shaft of diameter 'd' and length 'L' is
fixed at both ends. A torque, T0 is applied at a
1 1 1 1 L
(c) = + + distance from the left end as shown in the
k k 1 k2 k3 4
1/ 2 figure below :
 k1 k2 k3 
(d) k =  
 k1 + k2 + k3 
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
Ans. (c) : In series, same torque acting on each three
shafts The Maximum shear stress in the shaft is :
T1 = T2 = T3 = T 16T0 12T0
θ = θ1 + θ2 + θ3 ...(1) (a) (b)
πd 3 πd 3
GJ 8T0 4T0
θ= (c) (d)
TL πd 3 πd 3
Equation No. (1) divided by T OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
θ θ1 θ 2 θ3 12T0
= + + Ans. (b) :
T T T T πd 3
1 1
1 1 Let, TA → Reaction at the end A
= + + TB → Reaction at the end B
T   T   T   T 
       
 θ   θ1   θ 2   θ 3 
T GJ
=K=
θ L
1 1 1 1
= + +
k k1 k2 k3
 3L 
405. A torque of 50 N-m applied on the wheel  
operating a valve. If the wheel is rotated TA =   T0
4
through two revolutions, work done in Newton- L
metres is given by 3T
TA = 0
(a) 100 (b) 25 4
(c) 314 (d) 628 L
TNPSC AE 2014 T0
⇒ T = 4
Ans. (d) : T = 50 N-m B
L
θ = 4π (720o) Τ0
Then work done will be - ⇒ TB =
W = Tθ = 50 × 4π 4
Since, TA > TB therefore maximum shear stress will be
W = 628 N − m 3T d 0
406. A solid circular shaft is subjected to pure T ×d
τmax = A = 4 2
torsion. The ratio of maximum shear to J×2 π 4
maximum normal stress at any point would be- d
32
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 2 : 3 12T0
τ max =
RPSC AE 2018 πd 3
Ans. (a) : A solid circular shaft is subjected to pure 408. When a shaft of diameter D is subjected to a
torsion, then twisting moment T and bending moment M,
1 then equivalent bending moment Me is given by
τ max = (σ x − σ y ) + 4τ xy
2 2

2 (a) M 2 + T 2 (b) M 2 − T 2
σx = σy = 0
τ max = τ xy ((c)
1
2
)
M + M 2 +T2 (
(d)
1
2
M − M 2 +T2 )
σ x +σ y 1 JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
σ max = + (σ x − σ y )2 + 4τ xy2 Ans : (c) : Equivalent bending moment, (Me)
2 2

then,
σ max = τ xy
( 1
Me = M + M 2 +T 2
2
)
τ max Equivalent Twisting moment, (Te),
= 1:1
σ max Te = T 2 + M 2
494
409. For a round shaft subjected to pure torsion, the Ans : (a) : Given-
shear stress at the centre (axis) will be P = 120 πkW
(a) maximum N = 120 rpm
(b) minimum T2πN
(c) zero P = Tω =
(d) The information provided is insufficient 60
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI T2 π× 120
120π =
Ans : (c) : 60
T = 30 kNm
T τ Gθ
= = 414. A hollow shaft of the same cross-section area
J R ℓ and material as that of a solid shaft, transmits:
T×R UJVNL AE 2016
τ=
J (a) Same torque (b) Lesser torque
T×0 (c) More torque (d) None
τ0 = =0 Ans : (c) A hollow shaft of the same cross- sectional
J
Hence, shear stress at centre will be zero for round shaft area and materials transmits more torque than solid
subjected to pure torsion. shaft.
given As = Ah
410. The diameter of a shaft is increased from
30 mm to 60 mm, all other conditions π 2 π 2
d = d o − d i2 
remaining unchanged. How many times is its 4 4
torque carrying capacity increased? d 2 = d o2 − d i2 .............. (i)
(a) 2 times (b) 4 times from equation (i) we can say that
(c) 8 times (d) 16 times do > d
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
πd 3o × τ 1 − k 4 
Ans : (c) :
d1 = 30 mm, d1 = d Th 16
=
d2 = 60 mm, d2 = 2d Ts  πd3 
16T  ×τ
τ= 3  16 
πd
Th d o 1 − k 
3 4
π 3 =
T ' = τd1 , d1 = d Ts d3
16
π 3 If we assume that [hit and trail method]
τd di = 3 unit
T ' 16
= , d2 = 2d do = 5 unit
T" π τ 8d 3 d = 4 unit
16   3 4 
T = 8T ' 125 1 −   
Th   5  
411. A shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft = = 1.7
under torsion is : Ts 64
(a) Zero (b) Minimum Th = 1.7 Ts
(c) Maximum (d) Infinity So we can say that Th > Ts.
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I 415. The torque transmitted by a solid shaft of
Ans : (a) : Shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft diameter d and maximum allowable shear
under torsion is zero. stress τ is
412. Angle of twist of a shaft of diameter ‘d’ is π 3 π 3
(a) τd (b) τd
inversely proportional to : 4 16
2
(a) d (b) d
π 3 π 3
(c) d3 (d) d4 (c) τd (d) τd
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I 32 64
Ans : (d) : By using torsion formula, UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Tℓ Tℓ 1 Ans : (b)Torsion equation
θ= = ⇒θ ∝ 4 T Gθ τ
GJ G × π × d 4 d = =
32 J ℓ r
413. A solid shaft is used to transmit a power of 120 τ = Maximum shear stress
r = Radius of the shaft
π kW at 120 rpm. The torque transmitted by
T= Twisting moment
the shaft is J = Polar moment of Inertia
(a) 30 kNm (b) 60 kNm G = Modulus of rigidity
(c) 90 kNm (d) 120 kNm
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 ℓ = Length of the shaft
495
 T τ for hollow shaft:-
=
J r
Th =
(
πd 30 1 − C 4 τ )
πd 4
J= mm 4
16
32 di
r = d / 2 mm C = = 0.5
d0
32T 2τ
= πd 3o 15
πd4 d Th = ×
16Th 16
16T
τ= . Th 15
πd3 =
Ts 16
π d 3 .τ 15
T= Th = Ts
16 16
15
416. A circular shaft can transmit a torque of 5 Reduce twisting moment = T − T
kNm. If the torque is reduced to 4 kNm, then 16
the maximum value of bending moment that Reduce twisting moment = T
can be applied to the shaft is 16
(a) 1 kNm (b) 2 kNm 418. The torque transmitted by a solid shaft of
(c) 3 kNm (d) 4 kNm diameter 40 mm if the shear stress is not to
exceed 400 N/cm2, would be :
(KPSC AE 2015) (a) 1.6 × π N-m (b) 16π N-m
Ans : (c) Equivalent twisting moment (c) 0.8 × π N-m (d) 0.4 × π N-m
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
( Te ) = M + T
2 2
Ans : (b) Shaft diameter = 40mm
Given data Shear stress (τmax) = 400N/cm2
Te = 5 kN − m T Gθ τ
= =
T = 4 kN − m J ℓ r
τ.J
T=
Te = M 2 + T 2 r
2 2 πd 3 τ
5= M +4 T=
16
M = 3kN − m T = 16π N-m
417. A solid shaft steel of 100 mm diameter and 1.0 419. A solid shaft transmits a torque of T. The
m long is subjected to a twisting moment T. allowable shear stress is τ . What is the
This shaft is to be replaced by a hollow shaft diameter of the shaft ?
having outer and inner diameters as 100 mm 16T 32T
(a) 3 (b) 3
and 50 mm respectively. If the maximum shear πτ πτ
stress induced in both the shafts is same, the 16T T
twisting moment T transmitted by hollow shaft (c) 3 (d) 3
must be reduced by πτ π
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
(a) T / 4 (b) T / 8
Ans : (a) Torsion equation
(c) T / 16 (d) T /12
T Gθ τ
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 = =
J ℓ r
Ans : (c) Solid Shaft hollow shaft 32T 2τ 16T
d = 100mm do = 100 mm = = =τ
πd 4 d πd 3
ℓ = 1.0 m di = 50 mm.
ℓ = 1.0 m. 16T
d=3
Ts = Twisting moment for solid shaft Th = twisting πτ
moment transmitted by hollow shaft 420. The strength of a hollow shaft for the same
same material then τ = τs = τh length, material and weight is .......... a solid
for solid shaft:- shaft:
3 (a) Less than (b) More than
πd τ (c) Equal to (d) None of these
Ts =
16 OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
496
Ans : (b) The strength of a hollow shaft for the same G J is known as torsional rigidity of the shaft. It is
length, material and weight is more than a solid shaft. important to note that the relative stiffness of two shafts
When the shaft is subjected to pure torsional moment is measured by the inverse ratio of the angles of twist is
(T). the torsional shear stress is given by equal length of shafts when subjected to equal torques.
16T 423. Shear stress for a circular shaft due to torque
for solid shaft : τ = 3 varies
πd (a) from surface to centre parabolically
16T (b) from surface to centre linearly
For hollow shaft : τ =
(
πd 30 1 − C4 ) (c) from centre to surface parabolically
(d) from centre to surface linearly
421. A shaft of 20 mm diameter and length 1 m is APPSC AEE 2012
subjected to a twisting moment, due to which Ans : (d) Shear stress for a circular shaft due to torque
shear strain on the surface of the shaft is 0.001. varies from centre to surface linearly.
The angular twist in the shaft is
(a) 0.1 radian (b) 0.01 radian
(c) 0.05 radian (d) 0.5 radian
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Ans : (a)

T Gθ τ
= =
J l r
ℓ = Shaft length = 1000 mm The above relation states that the intensity of shear
θ = twist angle stress at any point in the cross-section of a shaft
φ = shear strain = 0.001 subjected to pure torsion is proportional to its distance
r = shaft radius from the centre.
AA' 424. If two shafts of the same length, one of which is
φ= .............( i ) hollow, transmit equal torques and have equal
ℓ
AA' maximum stress, then they should have equal
θ= .............( ii ) (a) angle of twist
r (b) polar modulus of section
for equation (i) and (ii)
φℓ = θ r (c) polar moment of inertia
(d) diameter
φℓ APPSC AEE 2012
θ=
r Ans : (b) If two shafts of the same strength, one of
0.001 × 1000 which is hollow, transmit equal torque and have equal
θ= maximum stress, then they should have equal Polar
20
modulus of section.
2
T τ
θ = 0.1 radian =
J r
422. Torsional rigidity of a shaft is given by τ
T T T = J 
(a) (b) r
ℓ J
J
T T T =   .τ
(c) (d) r
θ r
If torque and Shear stress is maximum then Polar
APPSC AEE 2012
modulus section 'equal.
Ans : (c) Torsion Equation
T Gθ τ 425. A circular shaft subjected to torsion undergoes
= = a twist of 10 in a length of 1.2 m. If the
J ℓ r maximum shear stress induced is 100 MPa and
T = Torque in N-mm
l = length of the shaft in mm the rigidity modulus is 0.8 ×105 MPa, the
R = Radius of the circular shaft in mm radius of the shaft in mm should be
G = Modulus of rigidity shaft material in N/mm2 270 π
(a) (b)
T Gθ τ π 270
= =
J ℓ r 180 π
Tℓ (c) (d)
GJ = π 180
θ APPSC AEE 2012
497
 3
Ans : (a) Twists angle (θ) = 10 PA  d 
= k 
length of shaft = 1.2 m PB  2d 
Maximum shear stress = 100 MPa
PA 1
Modulus of rigidity (G) = 0.8 ×105 MPa. =
PB 8
T Gθ τ
Torsion equation = = 428. A shaft of 10 mm diameter, whose maximum
J l r
shear stress is 48 N/mm2 can produce a
100 × 106 0.8 × 105 × π× 106 maximum torque equal to
=
r 180 × 1.2 (a) 2000 π N - mm (b) 4000 π N - mm
270 (c) 1000 π N - mm (d) 3000 π N-mm
r= mm TSPSC AEE 2015
π
Ans : (d) Shaft dia (d) = 10 mm
426. Two shafts are of same length and same Max shear stress (τmax) = 48 N/mm2
material. The diameter and maximum shear 16T
stress of the second shaft is twice that of the τmax = 3
first shaft. Then the ratio of power developed πd
between the first and second shaft is τ× πd 3
T=
16 16
(a) 16 (b)
3 3 48 × π× 103
T=
1 3 16
(c) (d)
16 16 T = 3000π N-mm.
APPSC AEE 2012 429. The equivalent twisting moment to design a
Ans : (c) Power develop (P) = Tω shaft subjected to the fluctuating loads will be
Case 1st:- given by

T=
πd 3τ (a) ( K t M )2 + ( K m T )2
16
(b) ( K m M )2 + ( K t T )2
πd 3τ
P1 = ×ω
KmM + ( Km M ) + ( K t T )
2 2
16 (c)
Case 2nd :-
1
π(2d)3 × 2τ (d) KmM + ( K m M )2 + ( K t T )2 
P2 = ×ω 2  
16 TSPSC AEE 2015
assume, both case angular speed same then
Ans : (b) (i) Equivalent Bending moment
P  1 1 2
Ratio of power developed  1  = Me = K m M + ( K m M ) + ( K t T ) 
2
 P2  16 2 
P1 1 (ii) Equivalent twisting moment
=
Te = ( K m M ) + ( K t T )
2 2
P2 16
427. Two shafts A and B are made same material. Km = Shock and fatigue factor for bending
The diameters of shaft B is twice that of shaft kt = shock and fatigue factor for twisting
A. The ratio of power which can be transmitted 430. A shaft subjected to fluctuating loads for which
by shaft A to that of shaft B is : the normal torque (T) and bending moment
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 (M) are 1000 N-m and 500 N-m respectively. If
(c) 1/8 (d) 116 the combined shock and fatigue factor for
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I bending is 1.2 and combined shock and fatigue
Ans : (c) Power (P) = T × ω factor for torsion is 2 then the equivalent
πd 3 .τ twisting moment for the shaft is______
and T= (a) 2088 N-m (b) 2050 N-m
16 (c) 2136 N-m (d) 2188 N-m
πd 3 × τ × ω (HPPSC AE 2014)
P=
16 Ans. : (a) Equivalent twisting moment (Te)
P ∝ d3
( Km ×M) + (Kt ×T)
2 2
3
Te =
PA d 
= k A  M = Bending moment = 500 N-m
PB  dB  T = Twisting moment = 1000 N-m
498
Km = fatigue factor for bending = 1.2 434. The initial hoop stress in a thick cylinder when
Kt = fatigue factor for torsion = 2 it is wound with a wire under tension will be :
(a) zero (b) tensile
Te = (1.2 × 500 ) + ( 2 ×1000 ) (c) compressive (d) bending
2 2

(HPPSC AE 2014)
Te = 2088 N-m Ans : (c) The initial hoop stress in a thick cylinder
431. The diameter of shaft is increased from 50 mm when it is wound with a wire under tension will be
to 100 mm all other conditions remaining compressive.
unchanged. How many times the torque Analysis of Thick Cylinders/Lame's Theorem:-
carrying capacity increases? * Lame's assumption
(a) 2 times (b) 4 times (i) Material of shell is homogeneous
(c) 8 times (d) 6 times (ii) Plane section of cylinder, perpendicular to
(KPSC AE. 2015) longitudinal axis remains plane under pressure.
Ans : (c) P =Tω * Subjected to internal pressure
P = power in watt P  R 20 + R i2 
T = Torque (N-m) (i) x = R i , σ h =  2
ω = Angular velocity (Rad/sec) R 0 − R i2
P∝T 2PR 2
3 (ii) x = R 0 , σ h = 2 i 2
πd τ R0 − Ri
T=
16 435. A thin cylindrical pressure vessel and a thin
T ∝ d3 spherical pressure vessel have the same mean
radius, same wall thickness and are subjected
P ∝ d3 to same internal pressure. The hoop stresses set
Torque corrying capacity increase in 8 times. up in these vessels (cylinder in relation to
432. Power transmitted by a circular shaft is given sphere) will be in the ratio.
by: (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1
(a) πDN/60 Joules (b) 2πNT/ 60 watts (c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1
(c) πDNT/ 60 watts (d) 2πNT/1000 watts ESE 2017
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) Pd
Ans : (b) Power transmitted by a circular shaft (p) = Ans. (c) : For cylinder (σh)c = 2t
2πNT Pd
watt For sphere (σh)s =
60 4t
2.πNT
P= kW ( σ h )c
60 × 1000 =2
P = T. ω kW
( σ h )s
2πN 436. A spherical steel pressure vessel 400 mm in
ω= rad / sec diameter with a wall thickness of 20 mm, is
60 coated with brittle layer that cracks when
strain exceeds 100 × 10-7. What internal
6. Thick and Thin Cylinders and pressure will cause the layer to develop cracks?
Spheres ( E = 200GPa, µ = 0.3)
433. A thin cylinder with both ends closed is (a) 0.057 MPa (b) 5.7 MPa
subjected to internal pressure p. The (c) 0.57 MPa (d) 57 MPa
longitudinal stress at the surface has been BHEL ET 2019
calculated as σ0 . Maximum shear stress at the Ans. (c) : Diameter (d) = 400 mm
Thickness (t) = 20 mm
surface will be equal to : Strain ( ∈ ) = 100 × 10-7
(a) 2σ0 (b) 1.5σ0 ∈ = 200 GPa, µ = 0.3
(c) σ0 (d) 0.5σ0
Pd
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I ∈= (1 − µ )
4tE
Pd
Ans : (d) Longitudinal stress ( σ2 ) = = σ0 P × 400
4t 100 × 10 −7 = [1 − 0.3]
Pd 4 × 20 × 200 ×10 3
Hoop stress ( σ1 ) = = 2σ 0 10 −5 × 16 × 10 6 = p × 400 × 0.7
2t
Principal stresses = 2σ0 , σ0 160
= P ..
2σ 0 − σ 0 σ 0 400 × 0.7
Shear stress = = = 0.5σ0 P = 0.57 MPa
2 2
499
437. Which of the following statements regarding P × 450
thin and thick cylinders, subjected to internal 40 =
8× 7
pressure only, is/are correct? P = 4.978 MPa
1. A cylinder is considered thin when the P ≈ 5 MPa
ratio of its inner diameter to the wall
thickness is less than 15. 440. A welded steel cylindrical drum made of a 10
2. In thick cylinders, tangential stress has mm thick plate has an internal diameter of 1.20
highest magnitude at the inner surface of m. Find the change in diameter that would be
the cylinder and gradually decreases caused by an internal pressure of 1.5 MPa.
towards the outer surface Assume that Poisson's ratio is 0.30 and E = 200
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only GPa (longitudinal stress, σy = PD/4t
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor circumferential stress , σx = PD/2t).
ESE 2020 (a) 4.590 mm (b) 0.459 mm
Ans. (b) : 2 only (c) 45.90 mm (d) 0.0459 mm
BHEL ET 2019
438. A cylindrical storage tank has an inner
diameter of 600 mm and a wall thickness of 18 Ans. (b) : 0.459 mm
mm. The transverse and longitudinal strains 441. A thin cylinder pressure vessel of 1m diameter
induced are 255 × 10-6 mm/mm and 60 × 10-6 generates steam at a pressure of 1.4 N/mm2.
mm/mm, and if G is 77 GPa, the gauge What will be the wall thickness when
pressure inside the tank will be longitudinal stress does not exceed 28 MPa?
(a) 2.4 MPa (b) 2.8 MPa (a) 10.5 mm (b) 12.5 mm
(c) 3.2 MPa (d) 3.6 MPa (c) 14.5 mm (d) 16.5 mm
ESE 2020 (e) 18.5 mm
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
Ans. (d) : Given,
d = 60 mm Ans. (b) : Pressure vessel diameter = 1 m = 1000 mm
t = 18 mm Steam pressure = 1.4 N/mm2
∈ ℓ = 60×10-6 Longitudinal stress (σℓ) = 28 MPa = 28 N/mm2
∈ hoop = ∈ transverse
Thickness (t) = ?
= 255×10-6 We know that
Pd
Pd σℓ =
∈ℓ = (1 − 2µ ) _______ ( i ) 4t
4tE P × d 1.4 × 1000
Pd t= =
∈hoop = ( 2 − µ ) _______ ( ii ) 4 × σℓ 4 × 28
4tE
Dividing equation (i) by equation (ii), t = 12.5 mm
∈ℓ
=
(1 − 2µ ) = 60 442. In case of thin walled cylinders the ratio of
hoop strain to longitudinal strain is
∈hoop 2−µ 255
2m − 1 2m − 1
µ = 0.3 (a) (b)
E = 2G(1+µ) m−2 m −1
= 2×77×(1+0.3) m−2 m−2
(c) (d)
= 200.2 GPa 2m − 1 2(m − 1)
Putting the respective values in equation (i) Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
P × 600 Ans. (a) : In case of thin walled cylinders shall, the
60×10-6 = × (1 − 2 × 0.3) ratio of hoop strain to longitudinal strain is,
4 ×18 × 200.2
P = 3.603 MPa P.d  1  ____ (i)
≈ 3.6 MPa
εc = 1 − 
2tE  2m 
439. A compressed air spherical tank having an P.d  1 1  ____ (ii)
inner diameter of 450 mm and a wall thickness εℓ =  − 
of 7 mm is formed by welding. If the allowable 2tE  2 m 
n
shear stress is 40 MPa, the maximum from eq (i) & (ii)
permissible air pressure in the tank will be ε c 2m − 1
=
nearly εℓ m − 2
(a) 3 MPa (b) 5 MPa
(c) 7 MPa (d) 9 MPa 443. A thin cylinder contains fluid at a pressure of
30kg/cm2, inside diameter of the shell is 60cm
ESE 2020
and the tensile stress in the material is to be
Pd limited to 900kg/cm2. The shell must have
Ans. (b) : σ1 = σ2 =
4t minimum wall thickness of
(a) 1 mm (b) 2.7 mm
Pd
∴ τmax = (c) 9 mm (d) 10 mm
8t Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
500
Ans. (d) : P = 30kg/cm2 , d = 60 cm, δ1= 900 kg/cm2 Ans. (d) : Given
P.d D = 1 m = 1000 mm
δc = t = 12 mm
2t P = 4 N/mm2
30 × 60 1800 In a thin cylinder pressure vessel, hoop
t= = = 1cm × 10 = 10mm
2 × 900 1800 (circumferential) stress
444. A boiler shell of 200 cm diameter and plate Pd
thickness 1.5 cm is subjected to internal σ=
pressure of 1.5 MN/m2 then hoop stress is: 2t
(a) 30 MN/m2 (b) 50 MN/m2 4 ×1000
=
(c) 100 MN/m2 (d) 200 MN/m2 2 × 12
SJVN ET 2013 = 166.67 N/mm2
Ans. (c) : Given, 447. Volumetric strain of fluid filled inside the thin
d = 200 cm = 200 × 10-2 m cylinder (diameter = (d) under the pressure (P)
t = 1.5 cm = 1.5 × 10-2 m is given by (where ν, t, E are Poisson ratio,
P = 1.5 MN/m2 thickness and modulus of elasticity
Pd respectively)
σ= Pd(1 − 4ν) Pd(5 − ν)
2t (a) (b)
1.5 × 200 × 10 −2 4tE 4tE
σ= −2
= 100 MN / m 2 Pd(5 − 4ν ) Pd(1 − ν)
2 × 1.5 × 10 (c) (d)
4tE 4tE
σ = 100 MN / m 2 RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
Ans. (c) : Volumetric strain in thin cylinder (ev) is given
445. The cross section area of a hollow cylinder has as
an internal diameter of 50 mm and a thickness
of 5 mm. Moment of inertia of the cross-section ev = el + 2.eh ...(1)
about its centroidal axis is Pd Pd
(a) 2.848 × 105 mm4 (b) 3.294 × 105 mm4 el = − .ν
4tE 2tE
(c) 1.424 × 105 mm4 (d) 1.647 × 105 mm4
(e) 3.294 × 105 mm4 Pd
= [1 − 2ν ] ...(2)
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift 4tE
Ans. (e) : Pd Pd
eh = − .ν
2tE 4tE
Pd
= [2 −ν ] ...(3)
4tE
Pd Pd
ev = [1 − 2ν ] + 2 × [2 −ν ]
4tE 4tE
Pd
= [1 − 2ν + 4 − 2ν ]]
4tE
Pd
ev = [5 − 4ν ]
4tE
Given di = 50 mm 448. Volumetric strain in the pressurized thin
do = 60 mm cylinder with hoop strain (εh) and linear strain
(εl) is given by:
π 4   di  
4
(a) εh + εl (b) εh + 2 εl
Moment of inertia (I) = d0 1 −   
64   d o   (c) 2 εh + εl (d) εh - εl
  UPRVUNL AE 2016
π   50 
4
 Ans. (c) : Volumetric strain in the pressurized thin
= 604 1 −    cylinder is given as
64   60   δV
= 329209.37 = 3.29 × 105 mm4 eV = = ε l + 2ε h
V
446. A thin cylinder of internal diameter D = 1 m
Pd Pd
and thickness t = 12 mm is subjected to internal eV = (1 − 2µ ) + 2 × (2 − µ )
2
pressure of 4 N/mm . Determine hoop stresses 4tE 4tE
developed. Pd
(a) 83.33 N/mm2 (b) 83.33 × 10-3 N/mm2 = [1 − 2µ + 4 − 2µ ]
-3 2 2 4 tE
(c) 166.67 × 10 N/mm (d) 166.67 N/mm Pd
(e) 166.67 N/m2 eV = [5 − 4µ ]
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift 4tE
501
449. A pipe of diameter 800 mm contains fluid factor of safety of 5. The thickness of the
under a pressure of 2 N/mm2. If the tensile cylinder wall will be.
strength is 100 N/mm2, the thickness of the pipe (a) 60 mm (b) 50 mm
is (c) 40 mm (d) 30 mm
(a) 16 mm (b) 4 mm ESE 2019
(c) 8 mm (d) 10 mm Ans. (d) : Maximum stress = Hoop stress is cylinder
TNPSC AE 2013 σmax = σh
Ans. (c) : Data given - σu pd
d = 800 mm, P = 2 N/mm2 =
σH = 100 N/mm 2 FOS 2t
we know that 340 15 × 250
=
Pd 5 2 ×t
σH = t = 27.57 mm ≃ 30 mm
2t 455. A spherical shell of 1.2 m internal diameter and
2 × 800 6 mm thickness is filled with water under
t=
2 × 100 pressure until volume is increased by 400 × 103
t = 8 mm mm3. If E = 204 GPa, Poisson’s ratio v = 0.3,
neglecting radial stresses, the hoop stress
450. Lame's equation is used to find stresses in developed in the shell will be nearly
(a) Thin cylinder (b) Thick cylinder (a) 43 MPa (b) 38 Mpa
(c) Gears (d) Clutches (c) 33 Mpa (d) 28 Mpa
UPRVUNL AE 2014 ESE 2019
TSPSC AEE 2015 Ans. (a) : Given,
Ans. (b) : Lame's equation is used to find stresses in d = 1.2 m = 1200 mm
thick cylinder. r = 600 mm
451. Pressure vessel is said to be thin cylindrical t = 6 mm
shell, if the ratio of the wall thickness of the ∆v = 400 × 103 mm3
shell to its diameter is E = 204 GPa = 204 × 103 MPa
(a) equal to 1/10 (b) less than 1/10 µ = 0.3
(c) more than 1/10 (d) none of these ∆v 400 × 103 400 × 103
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 ∈v = = =
v 4 3 4
Ans : (b) : A thin cylindrical shell it the ratio of the πr π(600)3
wall thickness of the shell to its diameter is less than 3 3
1/10. ∈v = 4.42 × 10−4
452. The thickness of thin cylinder is determined on Volumetric strain −4 (∈v) = 3 × hoop strain
the basis of 4.42 × 10 = 3 × ∈h
(a) Radial stress ∈h = 1.47 × 10−4
(b) Longitudinal stress σ
(c) Circumferential stress ∈h = n (1 − µ)
E
(d) Principal shear stress
σh
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 1.47 × 10−4 = (1 − 0.3)
Ans : (c) : The thickness of thin cylinder is determined 204 ×103
on the basis of circumferential stress. σh = 42.94 ≃ 43 MPa
453. If 'P' is the pressure, 'D' is the internal 456. Consider the following statements:
diameter and 't' is the thickness of the walled 1. In case of a thin spherical shell of diameter d
longitudinal stress induced in a thin walled and thickness t, subjected to internal pressure
cylindrical vessel is p, the principal stresses at any point equal
(a) PD/2t (b) PD/4t pd
(c) PD/t (d) PD/3t 4t
TNPSC 2019 2. In case of thin cylinders the hoop stress is
PD determined assuming it to be uniform across
Ans. (b) : σ L = [ longitudinal stress] the thickness of the cylinder
4t
PD 3. In thick cylinders, the hoop stress is not
σH = [ Hoop stress] uniform across the thickness but it varies
2t
from a maximum value at the inner
σ H = 2σ L
circumference to a minimum value at the
454. The inner diameter of a cylindrical tank for outer circumference.
liquefied gas is 250 mm. The gas pressure is Which of the above statements are correct?
limited to 15 MPa. The tank is made of plain (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
carbon steel with ultimate tensile strength of (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
340 N/mm2, Poisson’s ratio of 0.27 and the ESE 2018
502
Ans. (d) : (i) In case of a thin spherical shell of 460. A thin cylindrical shell of internal diameter D
diameter d and thickness t, subjected to internal and thickness t is subjected to internal pressure
pressure p, the principal stresses at any point is given by p, E and v are respectively the Elastic modulus
pd and Poisson's ratio. The change in diameter is
σ=
4t pD 2 pD 2
(a) (1 − 2ν ) (b) (2 −ν )
(ii) In case of thin cylinders, the hoop stress is 4tE 4tE
determined assuming it to be uniformly distributed over
the thickness of the wall, provided that the thickness is pt 2 pt 2
(c) (2 −ν ) (d) (1 − 2ν )
small compared to radius. 4 DE 4 DE
(iii) For a thick cylinder hoop stress is given by APPSC-AE-2019
pR 2  r 2 + x 2  Ans. (b) : Circumferential strain in thin cylinder
σh = 2   (here r ≤ x ≤ R) σ  µ
r − R2  x2  ∈h = h  1 − 
where r and R are inner and outer radius, respectively. E 2
σh is maximum when x is minimum.  PD 
σh is maximum at x = r  where σ h = 
 2t 
i.e. at inner surface.
Hence all the statement are correct. δ D PD  2 − µ 
∴ =  
457. In case of a thin cylindrical shell, subjected to D 2tE  2 
an internal fluid pressure, the volumetric strain PD 2
is equal to ∴ δD = (2 − µ )
(a) circumferential strain plus longitudinal strain 4tE
(b) circumferential strain plus twice the 461. A thin cylindrical pressure vessel of 500 mm
longitudinal strain internal diameter is subjected to an internal
(c) twice the circumferential strain plus pressure of 2 N/mm2. What will be the hoop
longitudinal strain stress if the thickness of the vessel is 20 mm?
(d) twice the circumferential strain plus twice the (a) 25 N/mm2 (b) 23 N/mm2
2
longitudinal strain (c) 27 N/mm (d) 29 N/mm2
ESE 2018 CIL (MT) 2017 IInd Shift
Ans. (c) : Volumetric strain (∈v) = longitudinal strain Ans. (a) : Hoop stress in the cylindrical pressure vessel
(∈ℓ) + 2 × circumferential strain (∈c) pd 2 × 500
= = = 25 N / mm 2 .
458. Consider the following statements regarding 2t 2 × 20
the ends of the pressure vessels flanged by pre- 462. A thin walled cylinder (diameter = D, length =
tensioned bolts: L, thickness of cylinder material = t, modulus
1. Pre-tensioning helps to seal the pressure vessel. of elasticity = E, Poission's ratio ν) is subjected
2. Pre-tensioning reduces the maximum tensile to fluid pressure (P) inside it. The total volume
stress in the bolts. of fluid that an be stored in the cylinder will be:
3. Pre-tensioning countermands the fatigue life of π 2  PD
the bolts. (a) D L 1 + ( 5 − 4ν ) 
4. Pre-tensioning helps to reduce the deleterious 4  4tE 
effect of pressure pulsations in the pressure π 2  PD
vessel. (b) D L 1 + ( 5 + 4ν ) 
4  4tE 
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only π 2
(c) D L
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 4
ESE 2017 π 2  PD
Ans. (b) : Statement-2 is wrong because pre-tensioning (d) D L ( 5 − 4ν )
does not reduce the maximum tensile stress in the bolts.
4  4tE 
π 2  PD
459. In a thin cylindrical shell subjected to an (e) D L 1 + (1 − ν ) 
internal pressure p, the ratio of longitudinal 4  4tE 
stress to the hoop stress is CGPSC AE 2014- I
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.75 Ans. (a) : We know that volumetric strain in thin walled
(c) 1 (d) 1.5 cylinder is given as:
APPSC AEE 2016 dV Pd
Ans. (a) : We know that = [5 − 4ν ]
V 4tE
σ Pd
σℓ = H = Pd
2 4t dV = [5 − 4ν ] × V
4tE
σℓ Then total volume of thin walled cylinder
then = 0.5
σH VTotal = V + dV
503
 π 2 Pd π Ans : (b) Given,
= D ×L+ [5 − 4ν ] × D 2 × L Hydrostatic Pressure (P) = 15 MPa
4 4tE 4
π  Young's modulus (E) = 200 GPa
( 5 − 4ν ) 
Pd
VTotal = D 2 × L 1 +
4  4tE  Poisson's ratio (µ) = 0.3
463. In thick cylinder, if hoop stress is plotted w.r.t. Volume of block (V) = 200×100×50 mm3
 1 δV
∈v =
 2  , then the curve will be V
r 
(a) Parabolic (b) Hyperbolic 1
∈v = [σ x + σ y + σ z − 2µ(σ x + σ y + σ z )]
(c) Linear (d) Elliptical E
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
Ans. (c) : In thick cylinder, if hoop stress is plotted
 1 
w.r.t.  2  , then the curve will be linear.
r  x

464. For thin cylinders z

(a) Longitudinal stress is double of the
circumferential stress
(b) Longitudinal stress is half of the δV 1
circumferential stress = {−3P − 2µ(−3P)}
V E
(c) Longitudinal stress is equal to the δV −3P
circumferential stress = {1 − 2µ)
(d) Longitudinal stress is four times of the V E
circumferential stress −3PV
δV = (1 − 2µ)
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 E
Ans. (b) : For thin cylinders circumferential stress or −3 ×15 × 200 × 100 × 50
δV = (1 − 2 × 0.3)
Pd 200 × 10 3
hoop stress (σ h ) =
2t δV = −90 mm3
Pd
Longitudinal stress (σ l ) = δV = 90 mm3 (contraction)
4t
So, we can say that 467. The Hoop stresses are acting across the
σh (a) Circumferential section
σl = (b) Longitudinal section
2
So, Longitudinal stress is half of the circumferential (c) Radial section
stress. (d) None of the above
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
465. A thin spherical shell of 1.5 m diameter is 8
mm thick is filled with a liquid at the pressure Ans. (a) :
of 3.2 N/mm2. The stress induced in the shell is ! The Hoop stress are acting across the
(a) 75 N/mm2 (b) 150 N/mm2 circumferential section.
(c) 200 N/mm 2
(d) 180 N/mm 2 ! The Longitudinal stress acting when two cross
TNPSC AE 2013 sectional areas of the cylinder are subjected to equal
and opposite forces the stress experienced by the
Ans. (b) : Data given-
cylinder.
d = 1.5 m = 1500 mm
t = 8 mm 468. For a thick-walled shell, the diameter-thickness
P = 3.2 N/mm 2 ratio is
(a) less than 20 (b) greater than 20
Pd 3.2 × 1500 (c) equal to 20 (d) equal to 20
σl = σH = =
4t 4×8 BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
σ H = 150 N / mm 2 Ans : (a) : For a thick walled shell the diameter-
466. A 200×100×50 mm steel block is subjected to a thickness ratio is greater than 20
3

hydrostatic pressure of 15 MPa. The Young's 469. In a thick cylinder, radial stress at inner
modulus and poisson's ratio of the material are surface is
200 GPa and 0.3 respectively. The change in (a) independent of fluid pressure
volume of block in mm3 is: (b) more than fluid pressure
(a) 85 (b) 90 (c) less than fluid pressure
(c) 100 (d) 110 (d) equal to fluid pressure
RPSC 2016 BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
504
Ans : (d) : The radial stress for a thick walled cylinder Ans : (c) d = 200 cm. (Diameter)
is equal and opposite to the gauge pressure on the inside t = 1.5 cm (Plate thickness)
surface and zero on the outside. p = 1.5 MN/m2 (Internal pressure)
470. Where does the maximum hoop stress in a
thick cylinder under external pressure occur?
(a) At the outer surface
(b) At the inner surface
(c) At the mid-thickness
(d) At the 2/3rd outer radius
OPSC AEE 2019, 2015 Paper-I pd
σc =
Ans : (b) : 2t
A σc = Circumferential stress or hoop stress
Hoop stress, σ h = 2 + B
r 1.5 × 200 × 10−2
Hence hoop stress will be maximum at inner radius and σc =
minimum at outer radius. 2 × 1.5 × 10 −2
471. A thin gas cylinder with an internal radius of σc = 100MN / m 2
100 mm is subject to an internal pressure of 474. Hoop stress in a thin cylinder of a diameter 'd'
10 MPa. The maximum permissible working and thickness 't' subjected to pressure 'p' will
stress is restricted to 100 MPa. The minimum be
cylinder wall thickness (in mm) for safe design Pd Pd
must be : (a) (b)
(a) 5 (b) 10 4t 2t
(c) 20 (d) 2 2Pd Pd
(c) (d)
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I t t
Ans : (b) : Given as, MPPSC AE 2016
r = 100 mm SJVN ET 2013
d = 200 mm Ans : (b)
σ = 100 N/mm2
P = 10 N/mm2
Pd
σ=
2t
10 × 200
100 =
2×t
t = 10 mm
472. Thin cylindrical pressure vessel of 500 mm
diameter is subjected to an internal pressure of
2 N/mm2. If the thickness of the vessel is 20
mm, the hoop stress is
(a) 10 (b) 12.5
(c) 25 (d) 50
At at just failure condition
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (c) : Brusting force=Resisting force
Pd p × d× l = σc × d× 2t
Hoop stress ( σ h ) = Pd
2t σc =
P = 2 N/mm2 2t
d = 500 mm σc is known as circumferential stress or hoop stress.
t = 20 mm 475. Thick cylinders are designed by
2 × 500 1000 (a) Lame's equation
σh = = (b) calculating radial stress which is uniform
2 × 20 40
(c) thick cylinder theory
σ h = 25 N / mm 2 (d) thin cylinder theory
RPSC AE 2016
473. A boiler shell 200 cm diameter and plate Ans : (a) Thick cylinder are designed by lame's
thickness 1.5 cm is subjected to internal equation.
pressure of "1.5 MN/m^2". Then the hoop Lame's equation:- when the material of the cylinder is
stress will be brittle, such as cast iron or cast steel, Lame's equation is used
(a) 50MN/m2 (b) 30MN/m2 to determine the wall thickness. It is based on the maximum
(c) 100MN/m2 (d) 200MN/m2 principal stress theory of failure, where maximum stress is
(KPSC AE 2015) equated to permissible stress for the material.
505
476. A thick cylinder, having ro and ri as outer and Ans. (c) : In thick cylinder, the radial stresses in the
inner radii, is subjected to an internal pressure wall thickness varies from inner face [maximum] to
P. The maximum tangential stress at the inner outer face [zero].
surface of the cylinder is 480. The ratio of hoop stress to longitudinal stress in
P ( ro2 + ri2 ) P ( ro2 − ri2 ) thin walled cylinders is
(a) (b) (a) 1 (b) 1/2
ro2 − ri2 ro2 + ri2 (c) 2 (d) 1/4
2Pri2 P ( ro2 − ri2 ) UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(c) (d) Ans. (c) : 2
(r 2
o − ri2 ) ri2 481. A long column of length (l) with both ends
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I hinged, is to be subjected to axial load. For the
Ans : (a) For a thick cylinder, the hoop stress is calculation of Euler’s buckling load, its
maximum at the inner surface and is given by. equivalent length is

σ=
( d + d ) .p
2
o
2
i
(a) l/2
(c) l
(b) l / 2
(d) 2l
(d − d )
2
o
2
i UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I

σ = P.
(r + r )
2
o i
2 Ans. (c) : l
482. A cylindrical shell of diameter 200 mm and
(r − r )
2
o i
2
wall thickness 5 mm is subjected to internal
477. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter d and fluid pressure of 10 N/mm2. Maximum
thickness t is subjected to an internal pressure shearing stress induced in the shell in N/mm2, is
(a) 50 (b) 75
P. The Poisson's ratio is v . The ratio of
(c) 100 (d) 200
longitudinal strain to volumetric strain is
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
1− v 2−v Ans. (d) : Data Given
(a) (b)
2−v 1− v Diameter of shell (d) = 200 mm
1 − 2v 1 − 2v thickness (t) = 5 mm
(c) (d) pressure (P) = 10 N/mm2
3 − 4v 5 − 4v
then, maximum shear stress
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Pd
Ans : (d) For thin cylindrical shell τ=
Longitudinal strain 2t
pd 10 × 200
el = ( 1 − 2v ) ............( i ) =
4tE 2×5
Volumetrical strain τ = 200 N/mm2
pd 483. In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to internal
eV = ( 5 − 4v ) ............( ii ) fluid pressure, the state of stress at the outer
4tE surface is
Ratio of longitudinal strain to volumetric strain. (a) three-dimensional (b) two-dimensional
el pd( 1 − 2v ) 4tE (c) isotropic (d) none of the above
= × UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
eV 4tE pd( 5 − 4v )
Ans. (b) : Two-dimensional
el ( 1 − 2v ) 484. Compound tubes are used in internal pressure
=
eV ( 5 − 4v ) cases, for following reasons
(a) For increasing the thickness.
478. Shrinking a thick cylinder over another helps: (b) For increasing the outer diameter o the tube.
(a) reduce the magnitude of tensile hoop stress
(c) The strength is more.
(b) reduce the difference between the higher and
lower magnitude of tensile hoop stress (d) It evens out stresses.
(c) remove the longitudinal stress UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
(d) reduce the cost
(HPPSC AE 2014) Ans : (d) Compound tubes are used in internal pressure
Ans : (b) Shrinking a thick cylinder over another helps cases, for it evens out stresses
reduce the difference between the higher and lower
magnitude of tensile hoop stress. 7. Theory of Columns
479. In thick cylinder, the radial stresses in the wall 485. The ratio of a Eular critical buckling load of
thickness:- two columns having the same parameters with
(a) is zero (i) both ends hinged and (ii) both ends fixed
(b) negligible small will be :
(c) varies from the inner face to outer face
(d) None of the above 1 1
(a) (b)
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I 4 16
506
 1 1 (c) 4 l (d) l
(c) (d) UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
8 2
Ans. (b) :
BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (a) : Given - Two column having same parameters 488. If the diameter of a long column is reduced by
Bucking load for (I) Both ends hinged (II) both ends 20 percent, the reduction in Euler buckling
fixed. load in percentage is nearly:-
Eular's formula (Pe) (a) 4 (b) 36
(c) 49 (d) 59
π El min
2

( Pe ) = UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I

Le 2 Ans. (d) : We know tha
When, EI = EII = E
(Imin)I = (Imin)II = Imin Pe ∝ d 4
(Le2)I = (Le)III = (Le)2 Pe1 = kd 4
Le = αL
Pe2 = k ( 0.8 ) .d 4
Le = effective length of the column 4
L = Actual length of column
α = length fixity coefficient Pe2 = 0.4096 Pe1
for both hinged Then percentage reduction in Euler buckling
α =1 load
` so, Le = L Pe − Pe2
1 = 1 × 100
for both end fixed α = Pe1
2
1 L
= kd 4
[1 − 0.4096] × 100
Le = × L =
2 2 kd 4
= 59%
 π 2 E I min 
  489. Euler’s formula holds good for:-
( Pe ) 1 both end hinged  L2  hinged (a) Short columns only
= =
( Pe ) 2 both end fixed   (b) Long columns only
 π 2E I  (c) Both long and short columns
 2
min
 (d) Weak columns
 L 
  UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
 4  fixed Ans. (b) : Euler’s formula holds good for long columns
π E I min
2
L 2
only.
= × 2
L 2
4π E I min 490. The theory applicable for the analysis of thick
cylinders, is
( Pe ) 1  1  (a) Lame’s theory
= 
( P2 )  4  (b) Rankine’s theory
486. The ratio of the compressive critical load for a (c) Poisson’s theory
long column fixed at both the ends and a (d) Caurbon’s theory
column with one end fixed and the other end UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
being free is:- Ans. (a) : Lame’s theory
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 4 : 1 491. Slenderness ratio has dimension of
(c) 8 : 1 (d) 16 : 1 (a) cm (b) cm–1
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I 2
(c) cm (d) None
Ans. (d) : Case I- When both ends of column are fixed UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
4π2 EI Ans. (d) : None
[ Pe ]1 = 2 492. A cast iron sample when tested in compression
l
Case II- When one end fixed and other end is fails at a compressive stress of 520 N/mm2.
free What is its shear strength?
2 (a) 520 N/mm2 (b) 260 N/mm2
π EI
[ Pe ]2 = 2
2
(c) 210 N/mm (d) 130 N/mm2
4l UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Then Ans. (b) : 260 N/mm2
[ Pe ]1 16 493. The slenderness ratio of a 4 m column with
= = 16 :1
[ Pe ]2 1 fixed ends having a square cross-sectional area
of side 40 mm is :
487. A column of length ‘l’ is fixed at both the ends. (a) 173 (b) 17.3
The equivalent length of the column is:- (c) 1.73 (d) 100
(a) 2 l (b) 0.5 l BHEL ET 2019
507
Ans. (a) : Given A = 40 mm × 40 mm, a = 40 mm I min 1666.67
K min = =
A 10 × 20
= 2.88 mm
Slenderness ratio (λ) is given by :
Effective length of column (ℓ e )
=
Least radius of gyration ( K min )
1000
λ= = 346.409
2.88
l=4m 495. For a long slender column of uniform cross
Le section, the ratio of critical buckling load for
slenderness ratio =
k the case with both ends clamped to the case
effective length of column = Le = αL with both ends hinged is :
where α = length fixity coefficient (a) 1 (b) 2
value 'α' far fixed end column- (c) 4 (d) 16
1 UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
α= Gujarat PSC AE 2019
2
1 TSPSC AEE 2015
so, Le = × 4 = 2m Ans. (c) :
2 Raito of critical buckling
Le
Slenderness ratio (s) = Critical load with both ends clamed
k =
Critical load with both ends hinged
I min a4
k= =  π2 EI 
A 12  2 
a2 Pcr  ℓ e clamped column
1 =
2
a Pcr  π2 EI 
= 2  2 
12
 ℓ e hinged column
40 × 40 ×10 −6
=  
12  2 
1600  π EI 
=  ℓ 2
12 × 10 6    
k = 0.01154 w/mK Pcr   2   clamped column
1 = 
Le 2
(s ) = = = 173.310 Pcr  π2 EI 
k 0.01154 2  2 
494. A column has a rectangular cross-section of 10  ℓ  hinged column
mm × 20 mm and a length of 1 m. The
4
slenderness ratio of the column is close to : = =4
(a) 200 (b) 346 1
(c) 625 (d) 1000 496. A column is known as short column if
UP Jal Nigam AE 2016 (a) The length is more than 30 times the diameter
Ans. (b) : Cross sectional area (A) = 10 × 20 = 200 (b) Slenderness ratio is more than 120
mm2 (c) The length is less than 8 times the diameter
(d) The slenderness ratio is more than 32
Nagaland CTSE 2016, 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (d) :
For short column
ℓ
< 8, S.R. < 32
d
Medium column
10 × 203 ℓ
I xx = = 6666.67 mm 4 8 ≥ ≤ 32, 32 < S.R. < 120
12 d
Long column
20 × 103
I yy = = 1666.67 mm 4 ℓ
12 > 32, S.R. > 120
Least radius of gyration, d
508
497. In case of eccentrically loaded struts 502. According to Euler's column theory, the
(a) Hollow section is preferred crippling load of a column of length (l), with
(b) Solid section is preferred one end is fixed and the other end is hinged is
(c) Composite section is preferred (a) π 2 El/l 2 (b) π 2 El/4l 2
(d) Any of the above section may be used (c) 2π 2 El/l 2 (d) 4π 2 El/l 2
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (c) : A structural member subjected to an axial Ans. (c) :
compressive stress is called strut. It case of eccentrically End Condition Euler's crippling load
loaded struts, a composite section is preferred. Strut Both ends hinged
may be horizontal, vertical or inclined. π2 EI
( le = l )
498. The equivalent length of a column supported ℓ2
firmly at one-end and free at other end is– Both ends fixed
(a) 2L (b) 0.7 L 4π2 EI  l
(c) L (d) 0.5L  le = 
ℓ2  2
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper one end hinged and other
Ans. (a) : Equivalent length of a column supported 2π2 EI  l 
end fixed  le = 
firmly at one-end so other end is free, ℓ2  2
L=2l one end fixed and other π2 EI
499. A pin ended column of length L, modulus of end free ( le = 2l )
4ℓ 2
elasticity E and second moment of the cross
sectional area I is loaded centrically by a 503. Which of the following statements is correct?
compressive load P. The critical buckling (Pcr) (a) Euller buckling load increases with increase
is given by in effective length.
(a) (EI/π2L2) (b) (πEI/3L2) (b) Buckling load of a column does not depend
(c) (πEI/L )2
(d) (π2EI/L2) on its cross-section
(c) If free end of a cantilever column is propped
(e) (2EI/π2L2) then the buckling load increases
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift (d) Two geometrically identical columns made of
Ans. (d) : different material have same buckling load.
End condition Effective π 2 EI APPSC-AE-2019
length Pcr = 2
L Ans. (c) : If the free end is supported by a prop, the
1. When both are Leff = L effective length of column decreases. The load carrying
π 2 EI capacity increase.
hinged Pcr = 2
L 504. Rankine-Gordon formula is applicable for
2. When both ends L 4π 2 EI (a) Short columns (b) Long columns
are fixed L eff = Pcr = (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
2 L2
3. When one end is APPSC-AE-2019
L 2π 2 EI Ans. (c) : Rankine - Gordon Formula accounts both
hinged and L eff = Pcr =
other is fixed 2 L2 direct load effect and buckling effect.
∴ Applicable for both short and long columns.
4. When one end is Leff = 2L π EI
2 505. The equivalent length of a column supported
free and other Pcr = firmly at both end is
end is fixed 4 L2 (a) 2l (b) 0.7 l
(c) l (d) 0.5 l
500. Rankine's formula is valid upto the slenderness NSPSC AE 2018
ratio of Ans. (d) : The equivalent length of a column supported
(a) 180 (b) 240 firmly [Fixed ends] at both end is
(c) 300 (d) 60 l
(e) 120 l e = = 0.5 l
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift 2
Ans. (e) : The Rankine's formula is applicable for both 506. Consider the following assumptions made in
long and short column. developing Euler's column theory:
For short column slenderness ratio is less than 80 and 1. The column material obeys Hooke's law
for long column it is more than 120. 2. The failure of the column occurs due to
501. The factor of safety considered for Euler's buckling
formula for crippling load is 3. The column is 'long' compared to its cross-
(a) 1 (b) 3 sectional dimensions
(c) 5 (d) 6 Which of the above statements are correct?
APPSC AEE 2016 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (a) : The factor of safety considered for Euler's (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
formula for crippling load is 1. JWM 2017
509
Ans. (d) : Euler's column theory assumption- Ans. (b) : We know that
(i) The column is perfectly straight and of uniform
π2 E.I I = AK 2
cross-section. Pcr =
(ii) The material is homogenous end isotropic ℓ 2e I ∝ d4
(iii) The material behaves elasticaly.
(iv) The load is perfectly axial and passes through the Then Pcr ∝ d 4
centroid of column section. 20 percentage of reduction diameter of
(v) The weight of the column is neglected. coloumn in Euler buckling load is given as
507. In Euler’s formula, the ratio of the effective
d 4 − ( 0.8d )
4
length of column to least radius of gyration of = × 100 = 59
the cross section is known as: d4
(a) Expansion ratio (b) Slenderness ratio 511. The columns whose slenderness ratio is less
(c) Thickness ratio (d) Compression ratio than 80, are known as
CIL (MT) 2017 IInd Shift
(a) Short columns (b) Long columns
Ans. (b)
(c) Weak columns (d) Medium columns
Slenderness ratio is the ratio between the length and
less radius of gyration. It is used to classify the Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
columns. Ans. (a) :
Type of Column Slenderness Ratio 512. The slenderness ratio is the ratio of
Short Less than 32 (a) Area of column to least radius of gyration
Medium 32-120 (b) Length of column to least radius of gyration
Long Greater than 120 (c) Least radius of gyration to area of column
508. What is the mode of failure of a short mild steel (d) Least radius of gyration to length of column
column (having slenderness ratio less than 10) Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
under axial compressive load? Ans. (b) : Effective length of column to least radius of
(a) Fracture (b) Buckling
(c) Yielding (d) Both (b) and (c) gyration
RPSC AE 2018 ! Slenderness ratio (λ) ≥ 120 → Long column
Ans. (c) : Yielding is the made of failure of short mild 80 ≤ λ < 120 → medium column
steel column under axial compressive load because λ < 80 → short column
short (SR < 30) column always fail is crushing. 513. As the slenderness ration of column increase,
its compressive strength
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains unchanged
(d) May increase or decrease depending on
length
In this question, given material of short column is mild Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
steel so fracture or bucking failure not occur because
Ans. (b) :
fracture failure related to brittle material and buckling
failure occurs in long columns (SR > 120) Effective Length
Slenderness ratio =
509. Which of the following is true for ideal column Least Radius of gyration
compressed by an axial load (P)? So, the slenderness ratio of column increase its
(a) Column will be in stable equilibrium if P > compressive strength decrease.
Pcritical 514. The ratio of crippling load, for a column of
(b) Column will be in stable equilibrium if P <
Pcritical length (l) with both ends fixed to the crippling
(c) Column will be in unstable equilibrium if P < load of the same column with both ends hinged
Pcritical is equal to–
(d) Column will buckle if P < Pcritical (a) 2.0 (b) 4.0
UPRVUNL AE 2016 (c) 0.25 (d) 0.50
Ans. (b) : If axial load P = Pcritical (Neutral) RPSC 2016
If axial load P < Pcritical (Stable equilibrium) Ans : (b)
If axial load P > Pcritical (Unstable equilibrium) π 2 EI
510. If the diameter of a long column is reduced by Euler Crippling Load = 2
le
20%, the percentage of reduction in Euler
buckluing load is :  l
If both ends fixed  le = 
(a) 4 (b) 36  2
(c) 49 (d) 59
TSPSC AEE 2015 4π2 EI
(Pe )1 = 2
HPPSC W.S. POLY. 2016 l
510
 If both ends hinged (le = l) Pcr = 250 kN = 250 × 103 N
Imin = ?
π2 EI
(Pe ) 2 = π 2 ×13 ×10 9 × I min
l2 250 ×10 3 =
4π2 EI ( 2) 2
(Pe )1 2 Imin = 7.79 × 10 m4
-6
= l2 = 7.8 × 10-6 m4
(Pe ) 2 π EI
519. Secant formula is applicable for :
l2
(a) short columns under axial loading
(Pe )1 (b) long columns under axial loading
=4
(Pe ) 2 (c) short columns under eccentric loading
(d) long columns under eccentric loading
515. A Column of rectangular section (Ixx > Iyy) is (HPPSC AE 2014)
subject to an axial load. What is the axis about Ans : (d) Secant formula is applicable for long column
which the column will have a tending to under eccentric loading.
buckle? Secant formula for ν max and σmax
(a) X–X
In the Euler's buckling formula we assume that the load
(b) Y–Y
P acts through the centroid of the cross - section.
(c) The diagonal of the section However in reality this might not always be the case :
(d) X–X or Y–Y axis without any preference the load P might the applied at an offset or the slender
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 member might not be completely straight.
Ans. (b) : Column will buckle around the axis with the To account for this, we assume that the load P is applied
lowest moment of Inertia. at a certain distance e away from the centroid. This
516. A column is said to be a short column, when them would obviously change the way we calculate our
(a) its length is very small buckling load, which is what the Secant formula is for.
(b) its cross-sectional area is small 520. The bucking load for a column one end fixed
(c) the ratio of its length to the least radius of and other end free is 10kN. If both ends of this
column is fixed, then what would be the
gyration is less than 80
buckling load capacity of this column ?
(d) the ratio of its length to the least radius of (a) 10 kN (b) 20 kN
gyration is more than 80 (c) 80 kN (d) 160 kN
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (c) : A column is said to be short column, when Ans : (d) Euler's formula for a column one end fixed
the ratio of its length to the least radius of gyration is and other end free
less than 80.
π2 EI π2 EI
517. Euler's formula is valid for Pe1 = = ( le = 2l )
( 2ℓ ) 4ℓ 2
2
(a) short column
(b) medium column Euler 's formula for a column both end fixed
(c) long column
(d) short and long columns both 4π2 EI  l
Pe1 = 2  le = 
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI l  2
Ans : (c) : Euler's formula is valid for long column. π 2
EI
Rankin's formula is valid for both short and long 10 × 10 = 2 ___________ ( i )
3

l
column.
518. A 2 m long pin ended column having Young's Pe2 = 4 π 2
EI
modulus (E) equal to 13 GPa can sustain 250 l
kN Euler's critical load for buckling. The put the valueequation ( i )
permissible cross sectional size (I) of the
column will be
( Pe )2 = 160 ×103
(a) 7.8 × 10–06 m4 (b) 3.9 × 10–06 m4 ( Pe )2 = 160kN
–06 4 –06 4
(c) 1.95 × 10 m (d) 0.975 × 10 m 521. Slenderness ratio for any column is :
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 (a) Total length of the column/Average area of
Ans : (a) : Using Euler's formula critical buckling load cross-section of the column
is given by, (b) Height/weight of he column
π 2 EI min (c) Effective length of the column/modulus of
Pcr = 2 elasticity
ℓe (d) Effective length of the column/least radius of
Given, ℓ = 2m gyration
E = 13 GPa = 13 × 109 Pa OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
511
Ans : (d) Slenderness ratio (S): Slenderness ratio of a 525. The crippling load of a column with one end
compression member is defined as the ratio of its fixed and other end hinged is
effective length to radius of gyration. (a) 2 times that of a both ends hinged colum
Le (b) Two times that of a both ends hinged column
S=
K min (c) Four times that of a both ends hinged column
Le= Effective length (d) Eight times that of a both ends hinged
Kmin = Least radius of gyration column
APPSC AEE 2012
I Ans : (b)
K = min
A End Conditions Effective length
522. The hoop stress in a thin cylinder is Both end hinged L
(a) half of the longitudinal stress One fixed other free 2L
(b) equal to longitudinal stress Both end fixed L/2
(c) twice the longitudinal stress One end fixed and other L/ 2
(d) four times the longitudinal stress hinged
TSPSC AEE 2015 (i) Crippling load of a column with one end fixed
Ans : (c) Hoop stress oR circumferential stress and other end hinged.
pd π2 EI 2π2 EI
( σc ) = P1 = = …………. (i)
2t (L / 2 ) 2
L2
pd
longitudinal stress ( σl ) = (ii) Crippling load of a column both end hinged
4t π2 EI
Hoop stress = 2 × longitudinal stress P2 = 2 …………..(ii)
523. The equivalent length of a column supported L
P1 = 2 × P2
firmly at both ends is (ℓ = length of the column)
526. The formula given by I.S. code in calculating
(a) 0.5ℓ (b) 0.707ℓ allowable stress for the design of eccentrically
(c) ℓ (d) 2ℓ loaded columns is based on
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I (a) Johnson's parabolic formula
Ans : (a) (b) Straight line formula
End Condition (c) Perry's formula
Effective Length (ℓe) (d) Secant formula
Both end hinged L APPSC AEE 2012
One end fixed other 2L Ans : (c) The formula given by I.S. code in calculating
free allowable stress for the design of eccentrically loaded
Both end fixed L/2 columns is based on Perry's formula.
One end fixed and other L/ 2 527. The Rankine constant (a) in Rankine's formula
hinged is equal to
524. Slenderness ratio of a column may be defined π2 E σC
as the ratio of its effective length to the (a) (b)
σC π2 E
(a) radius of column
(b) minimum radius of gyration π2 EσC
(c) (d)
(c) maximum radius of gyration σC E π2
(d) area of the cross-section APPSC AEE 2012
APPSC AEE 2012
Ans : (b) Rankine's formula :-
Ans : (b) Slenderness Ratio (λ ) : - Slenderness ratio of 1 1 1
a compression member is defined as the ratio of its = +
PR Pc Pe
effective length to radius of gyration
PR = Rankine load
l
λ= e Pc = σc × A = crushing load
K
le = Effective length σc × A
PR = 2
K = Least radius of gyration σ L 
1 + 2c  e 
I π E K 
K = m in
A A = Area of column
I min = Minimum moment of Inertia about centroidal σ
a = 2c = Rankin's Constant.
axis. π E
512
528. When both ends of the column are pinned, then Ans : (b) tube length = 4mm
the formula for crippling load (P) is equal to flexural rigidity (E×I) = 1.2 × 1010 N – mm2
π EI
2
4π EI
2 End condition = Both ends hinged
(a) P = 2 (b) P = 2 Effective length = l
ℓ ℓ
2π2 EI π2 EI π2 EI
(c) P = (d) P = 2 Crippling load =
ℓ2 2l ℓ2
APPSC AEE 2012 π × 1.2 × 1010
2
Pe =
Ans : (a) Crippling load of a column both end hinged 42
π2 EI Pe = 7.40 kN
Pe = 2
L 532. In Rankine's formula, the material constant for
E = Modulus of Elasticity mild steel is
I = Moment of Inertia about centroidal axis. 1 1
l = Effective length. (a) (b)
9000 5000
529. If the flexural rigidity of the column is doubled,
1 1
then the strength of the column is increased by (c) (d)
(a) 16 (b) 8 1600 7500
(c) 2 (d) 4 APPSC AEE 2012
APPSC AEE 2012 Ans : (d)
st
Material Value of 'a'
Ans : (c) Case 1 :- wrought iron 1/9000
π2 EI cast iron 1/1600
Strength of column (P1) = 2
L Mild Steel 1/7500
(Flexural rigidity of column = E ×I) Timber 1/750
Case 2st :- 533. If one end of a hinged column is made fixed
Flexural rigidity of column is doubled. and other end free. how much is the critical
load to the original value?
π2 × 2EI (a) Four times (b) One-fourth
strength of column (P2) =
L2 (c) Half (d) Twice
P2 = 2 × P1 UPRVUNL AE 2016
BPSC POLY. TEACH 2016
In the flexural rigidity of the column is doubled, then
the strength of the column is increased by two times. π2 EI
Ans : (b) Euler load =
530. The least radius of gyration for solid circular le2
column is Case– I
d Initially condition [Both ends hinged]
(a) d (b)
2 π2 EI
(P1)=
d d le2
(c) (d)
4 3 Case - II
APPSC AEE 2012 One end fixed and other and free
Ans : (c) The least radius of gyration for solid circular π 2 EI π 2 EI P1
column is d/4. P2 = = =
( 2l )
2
4l 2 4
Radius of gyration-Radius of gyration is defined as the
square root of moment of inertia divided by the area of P
P2 = 1
itself. 4
I xx I yy
rx = ; ry = 8. Strain Energy
A A
531. In a mild steel tube 4 m long, the flexural 534. The property of a material to absorb energy
within elastic limits is known as
rigidity of the tube is 1.2 × 1010 N − mm 2 . The (a) Elaticity (b) Toughness
tube is used as a strut with both ends hinged. (c) Tensile strength (d) Stiffness
The crippling load kN is given by (e) Resilience
(a) 14.80 (b) 7.40 CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
(c) 29.60 (d) 1.85 SJVN ET 2019
APPSC AEE 2012 RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
513
Ans. (e) : amount of strain energy under axial force.
What will be the ratio of stress in circular
cross-section to that of square cross-section?
(a) 0.972 (b) 0.886
(c) 1.013 (d) 1.128
SJVN ET 2019
Ans. (d) : Uc = Us
Resilience—The capacity of material to absorb and σc × A × L = σs × A × L
2 2

c s
release strain energy within elastic limit. 2E 2E
Toughness—Strain energy store upto fracture point. σc2 A s 802
Modulus of toughness—Capacity of material to absorb = =
σs A c π × 802
2
maximum strain energy upto fracture per unit volume
called MOT. 4
535. The total energy absorbed by the material σ 2
4
c
=
during its elastic deformation is known as: σs2 π
(a) Proof stress (b) Stiffness σc 2 2
(c) Toughness (d) Resilience = =
σs π 3.14
(e) Modulus of resilience
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) σc = 1.128
Ans. (d) : Resilience–Resilience is the ability of a σs
material to absorb energy when it is deformed 540. The total strain energy stored in a body is
elastically, and release that energy upon unloading, termed as :
maximum. energy absorb upto elastic limit is called (a) Resilience (b) Proof resilience
proof resilience. Proof resilience per unit volume is (c) Impact energy (d) None of the above
called modulus of resilience. UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
536. Modulus of resilience under simple tension is Ans. (a) : Resilience is defined as the energy absorption
capacity for a given component with in elastic limit.
(a) 2σ2e / E (b) σe2 / E
Modulus of resilience is energy absorbed by a
(c) σe2 / 2 E (d) σe2 / 4 E component per unit volume upto elastic limit.
where σe is the elastic limit stress of the 541. Within elastic limits the greatest amount of
material strain energy per unit volume that a material
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I can absorb is known as
(a) Shock proof energy (b) Impact energy limit
Ans. (c) : σe / 2 E
2
(c) Proof resilience (d) Strain hardening
537. The ability of a material to absorb energy when Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
deformed elastically and to return it when Ans. (c) : The maximum strain energy which can be
unloaded is called- stored in a body upto the elastic limit in called proof
(a) hardness (b) resilience resilience.
(c) fatigue strength (d) creep while, Proof resilience per unit volume of a material is
RPSC 2016 known as modulus of resilience.
Ans : (b) The ability of material to absorb energy when 542. The strain energy of the spring when it is
subjected to the greatest load which the spring
elastically deformed and to return it when unloaded is
can carry without suffering permanent
called resilience. distortion is known as
538. Within elastic limits the greatest amount of (a) Limiting stress (b) Proof stress
strain energy per unit volume that a material (c) Proof load stress (d) Proof Resilience
can absorb is known as– Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
(a) Shock proof energy Ans. (d) : The strain energy stored in a spring subjected
(b) Impact energy limit to maximum load without suffering permanent
(c) Proof resilience distortion is known as proof resilience.
(d) Strain hardening 543. The energy stored in a body when strained
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper within elastic limit is known as
Ans. (c) : Within elastic limits the max. amount of (a) Strain energy (b) Impact energy
strain energy per unit volume, that a material can absorb (c) Resilience (d) Elastic energy
JPSC AE PRE 2019
is known as proof resilience.
Ans. (a) : Strain energy—When an elastic body is
539. Two elastic bars of equal length and same loaded within elastic limits, it deforms and some work
material, one is of circular cross-section of 80 is done in which is stored within the body in the form of
mm diameter and the other of square cross- internal energy. This stored energy in the deformed
section of 80 mm side. Both absorbs same body is known as strain energy.
514
Resilience—The strain energy stored in a body due to 1  T .l 
external loading within the elastic limit is known as = .T .  
resilience. 2  GJ 
544. The strain energy of the spring when it is  T Gθ 
subjected to the greatest load which the spring  = 
J l 
can carry without suffering permanent
distortion is known as– 1  T 2l 
=  
(a) Limiting stress (b) Proof stress 2  GJ 
(c) Proof Resilience (d) Proof load stress 1
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper U∝
Ans. (c) : The strain energy of spring subjected to max. GJ
load, which spring can carry without 547. The resilience of steel can be found by
suffering permanent distortion is known as integrating stress-strain curve up to the
proof Resilience. (a) ultimate fracture point
545. Strain energy stored in beam with flexural (b) upper yield point
rigidity EI and loaded as shown figure is (c) lower yield point
(d) elastic point
ESE 2018
Ans. (d) : Resilience is the ability of a material to
absorb energy per unit volume without permanent
deformation and is equal to the area under the stress-
(a) (P2L3/3EI) (b) (2P2L3/3EI) strain curve upto the elastic limit.
(c) (4P2L3/3EI) (d) (6P2L3/3EI)
548. Which one of the following statements is
(e) (8P2L3/3EI) correct?
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift (a) The strain produced per unit volume is called
Ans. (c) : resilience.
(b) The maximum strain produced per unit
volume is called proof resilience.
(c) The least strain energy stored in a unit
volume is called proof resilience.
(d) The greatest strain energy stored in a unit
volume of a material without permanent
deformation is called proof resilience.
ESE 2017
Ans. (d) : The greatest strain energy stored in a unit
RA = RB = P volume of a material with permanent deformation is
Total strain energy, called proof resilience.
L ( Px ) dx ( PL ) ( 2L ) 549. Strain energy stored in a beam due to bending
2 2

U = 2∫ + is given by (Where M is bending moment, E is

0 2EI 2EI
modulus of elasticity, I is moment of inertia, G
P 2 L3 P 2 L3 is modulus of rigidity, L is the length of the
U= +
3EI EI beam, and σ is the tensile strength.)
4P L 2 3 M 2 dx σ2 dx
U= (a) ∫ (b) ∫
3 EI 2EI 2EI
2 2
M dx M dx
546. Strain energy stored in a solid circular shaft is (c) ∫ (d) ∫
proportional to 2GI 2EL
(a) GJ (torsional rigidity) (b) 1/(GJ)2 HPPSC AE 2018
(c) GJ2 (d) 1/(GJ) Ans. (a) : Strain energy stored in a beam
1. when beam is subjected to bending moment (M)
(e) 1/ GJ
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift M 2 .dx
U B.M = ∫
Ans. (d) : For solid shaft—Let us suppose that a solid 2EI
shaft is subjected to a torque which increase gradually 2. when beam is subjected to Twisting moment (T)
2
from zero to a value T. Let θ represent the resultant T .dx
U T.M = ∫
angle of twist. Then, the energy stores in the shaft is 2GI P
equal to work done in twisting i.e. 3. When beam is subjected to axial load P
1 P 2 .dx
U = .T .θ U A.L = ∫
2 2AE
515
550. What will be the strain energy stored in the Self weight at section -
metallic bar of cross sectional area of 2 cm2 and
gauge length of 10 cm if it stretches 0.002 cm W .l
Pl =
under the load of 12 kN? L
(a) 10 N-cm (b) 12 N-cm We know that strain energy for prismatic bar suspended
(c) 14 N-cm (d) 16 N-cm from one end due to its self weight
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 2
L ( P ) dl
Ans. (b) : Data given, U =∫ l
o 2( AE )
A = 2 cm2, l = 10 cm l

δl = 0.002 cm AE = constant
P = 12 × 103 N  Wl 
2

Strain energy   dl
L L 
σ2 =∫
U= × volume O 2 AE
2E L
P W 2 l3 
σ= =  
A 2 AE × L2  3  O
δl σ ( xAL) 2 L3
= =e = ×
l E 2 AEL2 3
then we get
1 x 2 AL3
U = × P ×δ U =
2 6E
3
1 PL
= × 12 ×103 × 2 × 10−3 553. is the deflection under the load P of a
2 3El
= 12 N-cm cantilever beam {Length L., modulus of
551. The strain energy stored in a body of volume V elasticity E, moment of inertia I}. The strain
and subjected to a gradually applied load energy due to bending is :
which induces a stress σ is given by
P 2 L3 P 2 L3
σE σE 2 (a) (b)
(a) (b) 3EI 6EI
V V 2 3 2 3
P L P L
σ2 1 σ2 (c) (d)
(c) V (d) V 4EI 48EI
E 2 E OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
TNPSC AE 2014
TSPSC AEE 2015 Ans. (b) :
1 σ2
Ans. (d) : U = ×V
2 E
552. Strain energy stored in a prismatic bar
suspended from one end due to its own weight Mx = Px
(elastic behaviour) [x = specific weight of 2
material, A = cross-sectional area, L = length of U = M x dx
bar]:
∫ 2EI
3 2 2 2 L 2 2
x AL x A L P x dx
(a) U = (b) U = =∫
6E 6E 0
2EI
2 3 2 3
x AL x AL P 2 L3
(c) U = (d) U = U=
3E 6E 6EI
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (d) : 554. A cantilever beam of length L and flexural
modulus EI is subjected to point load P at the
free end. The elastic strain energy stored in the
beam due to bending (Neglecting transverse
shear)
P 2 L3 P 2 L3
(a) (b)
6 EI 3EI
3
PL PL3
(c) (d)
3EI 6 EI
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
516
Ans : (a) : σ2
Strain Energy ( U1 ) = × volume
2E
2
 P  1.6 P
U1 =   × × 100 σ= 
 
16 2E  16 
2
3.125P
U1 =
Bending moment at section x – x E
M ( x − x ) = P.x case − II : −
L P 2 L3
M 2xx dx U2 =
Strain energy = ∫ 6EI
2EI
∂ P 2 1003 × 12 
U2 =  
L
( Px ) 2 dx E  6 × 44 
=∫
∂
2EI 7812.5P 2
U2 =
P 2  L3  E
=   Ratio of strain energies
2EI  3 
U 2 7812.5P 2 × E
P 2 L3 =
= U1 E × 3.125P 2
6EI
U2
555. Strain energy stored in a body due to a = 2500
suddenly applied load compared to when U1
applied slowly is: 557. Resilience of a bolt may be increased by
(a) twice (b) four times (a) increasing its length
(c) eight times (d) half (b) increasing its shank diameter
(HPPSC AE 2014) (c) increasing diameter of threaded portion
Ans : (b) Strain energy stored in a body due to (d) increasing head size
suddenly applied load compared to when applied slowly RPSC AE 2016
is twice. Ans : (a) Resilience of a bolt may be increased by
Stress in a body due to increasing its length.
gradually applied load gradually = σ 558. The strain energy in a beam subjected to
stress in a body due to suddenly applied load = 2σ bending moment M is
strain energy due to gradually applied load
M2 M2
σ2 (a) ∫ dx (b) ∫ dx
U GAL = × Volume ...........(i) 2EI 4EI
2E
strain energy due to suddenly applied load M2 2M 2
(c) ∫ dx (d) ∫ dx
( 2σ )
2 EI EI
U SAL = × Volume UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
2E Ans : (a) Strain energy in a beam due to bending:-
 σ2  1 ℓ 2
U SAL = 4 ×  × volume 
2EI ∫o x
U= M .dx
 2E 
U SAL = 4 × U GAL 1
2EI ∫
U= M 2 .dx
556. A square bar of side 4 cm and length 100 cm is
subjected to axial load P. The same bar is then 559. The deflection of a cantilever beam of length L,
used as a cantilever beam and subjected to an modulus of elasticity E, moment of inertia I
end load P. The ratio of the stratin energies, subjected to a point load P is PL3/3 El. The
stored in the bar in the second case to that strain energy due to bending is:
stored in first case, is
(a) 16 (b) 400 (a) 5PL3/48EI (b) P2L/3EI
(c) 1000 (d) 2500 (c) P2 L3/6EI (d) P2L3/48EI
MPPSC AE 2016 (HPPSC LECT. 2016)
Ans : (d) Square bar Area = 16cm2 Ans : (c)
length = 100cm.
moment of Inertia of square bar
bh 3 4 4
= = = 21.33cm 4
12 12
case1st : −

517
 PL3 1
given δ= Ans. (a) : Deflection ∝
3EI I
Then, Strain energy store in cantilever beam will be  bd 3 
equal to [use Castigliano's theorem  
dU δ 2 I1  12  1
= δ [ deflection ] ∴ = = = = 0.0625
dP δ1 I 2 (2b)(2d )3 16
dU = δ dP 12
562. In a fixed beam, at the fixed ends
B PL3 P 2 L3
∫A dU =
3EI
dP =
6EI
(a) slope is zero and deflection is maximum
(b) slope is maximum and deflection is is zero
P 2 L3 (c) both slope and deflection are maximum
( UB − UA ) = (d) slope and deflection are zero
6EI
APPSC AEE 2012
9. Deflection of Beams Ans : (d) In a fixed beam, at the fixed ends slope and
deflection are zero.
560. A cantilever beam of length carries a load (W = 563. The resultant deflection of a beam under
wl) uniformly distributed over its entire length. unsymmetrical bending is:-
If the same total load is placed at the free end (a) Parallel to the neutral axis
of the same cantilever, then the ratio of (b) Perpendicular to the neutral axis
maximum deflection in the beam in the first (c) Parallel to the axis of symmetry
case to that in the second case will be: (d) Perpendicular to the axis of symmetry
3 3 UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
(a) (b) Ans. (b) : The resultant deflection of a beam under
12 8 unsymmetrical bending is perpendicular to the neutral
3 3 axis.
(c) (d)
4 2 564. A cantilever beam of length 'L' carries a
JWM 2017 concentrated load 'P' at its midpoint. What is
Ans. (b) : (1) Cantilever beam with uniform distributed the deflection of the free end of the beam?
load over entire length-
PL3 PL3
Maximum deflection, (a) (b)
24 EI 48 EI
wℓ 4 Wℓ 3
( y A1 ) max = =
(c)
PL3
(d)
5 PL3
8EI 8EI
16 EI 48 EI
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
5PL3
Ans. (d) :
48EI
(2) Cantilever beam with concentrated load on 565. A 1.25 cm diameter steel bar is subjected to a
free end- load of 2500 kg. The stress induced in the bar
will be
WL3
Maximum deflection, ( y A2 ) max = (a) 200 MPa (b) 210 MPa
3EI (c) 220 MPa (d) 230 MPa
ESE 2020
P 2500 × 9.81
Ans. (a) : σ = = = 200 MPa
A π
( )
2
12.5
y  Wℓ 3 3EI 4
Now,  A1  = × 566. A cantilever beam rectangular in cross section
 y A2  max 8EI Wℓ 3
is subjected to a load W at its free end, causing
3 deflection δ1. If the load is increased to 2W,
=
8 δ
causing deflection δ2, the value of 1 would be
561. A cantilever beam with rectangular cross- δ2
section is subjected to uniformly distributed
(a) 1 (b) 2
load. The deflection at the tip is δ1. If the width
(c) 4 (d) 1/2
and depth of the beam are doubled then
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
δ2
deflection at tip is δ2. Then is Ans. (d) : A cantilever beam rectangular in cross-
δ1 section subjected, load (W), then deflection (δ1).
(a) 0.0625 (b) 16
WL3 ____ ( )
(c) 0.5 (d) 2 δ1 = i
APPSC-AE-2019 3EI
518
when, Load is increased to (2W), then deflection (δ2) 3

will be, δ1 W1  h 2 
= × 
2WL3 ____ ( ) δ 2 W2  h1 
δ2 = ii
3EI given. W2 = W1/2 and h 2 = 2h1
from (i) 2 (ii) 3
δ1 W1  2h 
δ1 WL3 1 = ×  1  = 16
= = δ 2 (W1 / 2)  h1 
δ2 3EI 2
2WL3 ∴δ1 = 16 δ2
3EI δ2 = δ1 /16
567. In a simply supported shaft carrying a
uniformly distributed mass, the maximum 570. A simply supported beam of length L loaded by
deflection at the midspan is : UDL of W per length all along the whole span.
The value of slope at the support will be [E =
5mgl 2 modulus of elasticity, I = moment of inertia of
(a) ∆ =
384EI section beam]
5mgl 4 WL3 WL4
(b) ∆ = (a) (b)
384EI 24EI 48EI
mgl 4 WL 3
WL4
(c) ∆ = (c) (d)
384EI 48EI 24EI
3mgl 2 SJVN ET 2019
(d) ∆ = Ans. (a) : Slope at any end for simple support UDL
384EI
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 Wℓ3
beam =
Ans. (b) : 24EI
571. A simply supported beam of span L and
carrying a concentrated load of W at mid span.
The value of deflection at mid span will be [E =
modulus of elasticity, I = moment of inertia of
This system treated as the simple supported shaft with section of beam]
carrying UDL WL2 WL3
Deflection at the mid-span (a) (b)
48EI 48EI
5mg ℓ 4 4
∆= WL WL3
384EI (c) (d)
48EI 30EI
568. We can find the deflection of beam carrying: SJVN ET 2019
(a) Uniformly distributed load UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
(b) Central point load
(c) Gradually variable load WL3
Ans. (b) :
(d) All of these loads 48EI
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 572. Slope of tangent to shear force diagram gives
Ans. (d) : A subjected to UDL, central point load and (a) Bending moment
also gradually variable load, deflection can find out. (b) Couple moment
(c) Support reactions
569. A rectangular in cross section cantilever beam (d) Rate of loading
is subjected to a load W at its frees end. If the (e) Rate of bending moment
depth of the beam is double and the load is CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
halved, the deflection of the free end as dF
compared to original deflection will be– Ans. (d) : According to relation = −W (constant)
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 dx
So, slope of tangent to shear force diagram gives rate of
(c) 1/16 (d) Double
loading.
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
573. What is the maximum deflection (σmax) in case
Ans. (c) : We know that, of simple supported beam with uniformly
deflection of a rectangular cross section beam distributed load?
Wl3 bh 3 wl 4 wl 4
δ= where I = (a) (b)
3EI 12 8 EI 48 EI
1 1
δ∝ ⇒δ∝ 3 wl 3 wl 3
I h (c) (d)
8 EI 48 EI
therefor
519
 5wl 4 576. Basic equation of deflection (y) of the beam is
(e) d2 y
384 EI represented by El 2 = M, where El flexural
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift dx
Ans. (e) : rigidity and M Bending moment, then
Beam Max. Max. bending 3
d y
Deflection moment El 3 = M
dx
WL3 WL (a) Shear force at the section
3EI (b) Rate of loading
4 2 (c) Zero always
wL wL (d) Bending moment at section
8EI 2 UPRVUNL AE 2016
WL 3
WL Ans. (a) :
48EI 4 d2y
EI 2 = M
5wL4 wL2 dx
We know that
384 EI 8
dM
574. Maximum slope in case of a cantilever of length = shear force
l carrying a load P at its end is dx
(a) Pl2/2EI (b) Pl2/EI then
2 2
(c) Pl /4EI (d) Pl /6EI d 3 y dM
2 EI 3 = = shear force at section
(e) Pl /8EI dx dx
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift 577. The simple supported beam 'A' of length 'l'
Ans. (a) : carries a central point load 'W'. Another beam
Type of load Slope at end Maximum 'E' is loaded with a uniformly distributed load
deflection such that the total load on the beam is 'W'. The
2 3 ratio of maximum deflections between beams A
Pl Pl
θ= δ= and B is
2 EI 3EI (a) 5/8 (b) 8/5
3 4
(c) 5/4 (d) 4/5
wl wl TSPSC AEE 2015
θ= δ=
6 EI 8EI 3
WL
Ans. (b) : δA = (simply supported beam)
575. A uniform bar, simply supported at the ends, 48EI
carries a concentrated load P at mid-span. If
5wL4 (simply supported with
the same load be, alternatively, uniformly δB =
384 EI uniform distributed load)
distributed over the full length of the bar the
maximum deflection of the bar will decrease by.
(a) 25.5% (b) 31.5% ∵ wL = W [given]
3
(c) 37.5% (d) 50.0% 5 WL
Then δB =
ESE 2017 384 EI
Ans. (c) : δA 8
=
δB 5
578. The ratio of maximum deflections of a beam
simply supported at its ends with an isolated
central load and that of with a uniformly
distributed load over its entire length is
PL3 5 PL3
δ1 = δ2 = (a) 1 (b) 3/2
48EI 384 EI (c) 2/3 (d) 1/3
δ1 − δ 2 TSPSC AEE 2015
% decrease in max deflection = × 100
δ1 Ans. (c) : 2/3
1 5 579. If the depth of a rectangular beam is halved,
− the deflection for a beam carrying a mid point
= 48 384
1 load shall be–
(a) halved (b) doubled
48
(c) four times (d) eight times
= 37.5%
RPSC 2016
520
Ans : (d) (c) 41% (d) 50%
RPSC 2016
3 3
δ = WL = WL Ans : (d)
48EI 3
48E bd Wl 3 Wl 3
12 δ= =
3EI 3E 1 a 4
δ∝ 1 12
d3
3  12Wl 3  1
 d1  δ =  4
δ  2  1
1=  3E  a
=
δ d13 8 1
2 δ∝
a4
δ = 8δ
2 1 δ1 a 2 4
a 2 = a + 0.19a ⇒ =
580. A cantilever of length (l) carries a uniformly δ 2 a14
distributed load w per unit length over the 4
whole length. The downward deflection at the  1.19a 
free end will be (where W= wl = total load) = 
 a 
Wl 3 Wl 3 δ2
(a) (b) δ1 = 2.0053δ2 ⇒ Decrease = 1 −
8El 3El δ1
5Wl 3 Wl 3
(c) (d) 2.0053δ 2 − δ 2
384El 48El Decrease =
RPSC 2016 2.0053δ 2
Ans : (a) = 50.03%
≈ 50%
583. A cantilever beam of length L is subjected to an
on concentrated load P at a distance of L/3
from free end, what is the deflection at free end
of the beam?
Wl 3 2PL3 3PL3
δ= (a) (b)
8EI 81EI 81EI
3
581. In a cantilever, maximum deflection occurs 14PL 15PL3
where– (c) (d)
81EI 81EI
(a) bending moment is zero RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
(b) bending moment is maximum
Ans. (c) :
(c) shear force is zero
(d) slope is zero
RPSC 2016
Ans : (a)

Deflection at free end A is

3 2
 2ℓ   2ℓ 
P  P 
 3 ℓ
+   ×
3
δA =
3EI 2EI 3
8Pℓ3 4Pℓ3
= +
81EI 54EI
In the cantilever beam loaded as shown, the max 14Pℓ 3
bending moment is at (x = 0) but the max deflection δA =
81EI
occur at (x = l)
584. The slope and deflection at the centre of a
Wl 3 simple beam carrying a central point load are
Maximum deflection at x = l is given by =
3EI (a) zero and zero
(b) zero and maximum
582. A cantilever beam having square cross section
(c) maximum and zero
of side is subjected to an end load. If a
(d) minimum and maximum
increased by 19% the tip deflection decreases
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
approximately
(a) 19% (b) 29% Ans : (b) : zero and maximum
521
585. Assertion (A) : In a simply supported beam Ans : (b) When beam is cantilever and load acting
subjected to a concentrated load P at mid-span, PL3
the elastic curve slope becomes zero under the beam on free end then deflection
load. 3EI
Reason (R) : The deflection of the beam is
maximum at mid-span.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) M x = Px
is NOT the correct explanation of (A) 1 ℓ 2
( strain energy )
2EI ∫0
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false U= M x dx
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I 1 ℓ
∫ ( Px ) dx.
2
U=
Ans : (a) : Elastic curve slope becomes zero at the point 2EI o

of maximum deflection in this case. Hence, of both 1  ℓ 2 2 

2EI  ∫0
assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct U= P x dx

explanation of assertion.
3 ℓ
P x 
2
U=  
2EI  3  0
2 3
P L
U=
6 EI
586. In a cantilever beam, If the length is doubled 588. The maximum deflection of a cantilever beam
while keeping the cross-section and the with point load at its free end is given by
concentrated load acting at the free end the wℓ 2 wℓ3
same, the deflection at the free and will (a) y max = (b) y max =
2EI 3EI
increase by: 3
(a) 2.66 times (b) 3 times w ℓ wℓ2
(c) y max = (d) y max =
(c) 6 times (d) 8 times 2EI 3EI
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I TSPSC AEE 2015
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I Ans : (b)
Ans : (d) :

wℓ 2
(i) Slope =
2EI
wℓ3
Cantilever beam when length = l (ii) Deflection =
3EI
wℓ 3
Deflection ( δ1 ) = (iii) Strain energy
3EI 1 l 2
Cantilever beam when length = 2l U=
2EI d ∫M x dx
w ( 2ℓ )
3

Deflection ( δ 2 ) = 1 l
∫( w.x ) dx
2
U=
3EI 2EI 0
δ2 wℓ 3
δ1 = U=
8 6EI
PL3 589. The given figure shows a cantilever of span 'L'
587. is the deflection under the load 'P' of a
3EI subjected to a concentrated load 'P' and a
cantilever beam (Length 'L', Modulus of moment 'M' at the free end. Deflection at the
elasticity 'E' and Moment of inertia 'I'). The free end is given by:
strain energy due to bending is
P 2 L3 P 2 L3
(a) (b)
3EI 6EI
P 2 L3 P 2 L3
(c) (d) PL2 ML2 ML2 PL3
4EI 48EI (a) + (b) +
MPPSC AE 2016 2EI 3EI 2EI 3EI
522
 ML2 PL3 ML2 PL2 Wℓ 4
(c) + (d) + Deflection ( δc ) =
3EI 2EI 3EI 48EI 384EI
UJVNL AE 2016 (ii)
Ans : (b)

Deflection at the free end:-

Wℓ3
Deflection ( δc ) =
192EI
592. The differential equation which gives the
2 relation between BM, slope and deflection of a
ML beam is
δ1=
2EI d2 y M d2 y
PL3 (a) EI 2 − (b) =M
δ2 = dx I dx 2
3EI d2 y dy M
δ = δ1 + δ2 (c) EI 2 = M (d) EI =
dx dx F
ML2 PL3 APPSC AEE 2012
δ= + Ans : (c) The basic differential equation can also be
2EI 3EI written as follows
590. Maximum deflection in a cantilever due to
pure bending moment M at its end is d 2 y d  dy  dθ − M
=  = =
Ml 2 Ml 2 dx 2 dx  dx  dx EI
(a) (b) 2
2El 3El d y
EI = M.
Ml 2 Ml 2 dx 2
(c) (d)
4El 8El d2y
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I EI 2 = M.
dx
Ans : (a) Maximum deflection in a cantilever due to This equation can be integrated in each particular can to
Mℓ 2 find the angle of rotation θ or the deflection y, provided
pure bending moment M at its end is the moment M is Known.
2EI
593. A simply supported became span 3m, is
subjected to a central point load of 5kN, then
the slope at the mid span is equal to
Mℓ 25 256
Slope ( θ ) = (a) (b)
EI 24EI EI
Mℓ 2 40
Deflection ( δ ) = (c) (d) Zero
2EI 48EI
591. A beam of length, l, fixed at both ends carries a APPSC AEE 2012
uniformly distributed load of w per unit length. Ans : (d)
If EI is the flexural rigidity, then the maximum
deflection in the beam is
wl 4 wl 4
(a) (b)
192EI 24EI
4
wl wl 4 wℓ 2 wℓ 3
(c) (d) Slope = , Deflection =
384EI 12EI 16EI 48EI
APPSC AEE 2012 W = 5 KN (Central point load.)
Ans : (c) (i) l = 3 m (beam span)
Slope at the mid span = 0
Deflection at the mid span = Maximum.
594. A cantilever beam of length L, moment of
inertia of inertia I and Young modulus E
carries a concentrated load W at the middle of
its length. The slope of cantilever at the free
end is:
523
 (a) (Wℓ^2)/2EI (b) (Wℓ^2)/4EI (c) Plastic material
(d) Semi plastic material
(c) (Wℓ^2)/8EI (d) (Wℓ ^2)/16EI
(e) Semi elastic material
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
Ans : (c) Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans. (b) : Rankine Theory–Rankine's theory assumes
that failure will occur when the maximum principal
Wℓ 2 stress at any point reaches a value equal to the tensile
When load acts free end then slope = stress in a simple tension specimen at failure.
2EI
This theory is appropriate for Brittle material.
W (ℓ / 2)
2
When load acts mid span the slope = 600. Guest's theory of failure is applicable for
2EI following type of materials
wℓ 2 (a) brittle (b) ductile
Slop = (c) elastic (d) plastic
8EI
(e) tough
10. Theory of Failure CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Ans. (b) : Maximum shear stress theory or Guest or
595. Property of absorbing large amount of energy Tresca's theory is well justified for ductile material.
before fracture is known as:- 601. Which of the following theories of failure is not
(a) Ductility (b) Toughness suitable for ductile material
(c) Elasticity (d) Hardness (a) Maximum shear stress theory
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
(b) Maximum principal strain theory
Ans. (b) : Property of absorbing large amount of energy
before fracture is known as Toughness. (c) Maximum total strain energy theory
596. According to the distortion-energy theory, the (d) Maximum principal stress theory
yield strength in shear is RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
(a) 0.277 times the yield stress Ans. (d) : Maximum principal stress theory (Rankine's
(b) 0.377 times the maximum shear stress theory) is suitable for brittle material not for ductile
(c) 0.477 times the yield strength in tension material whereas Maximum shear stress theory (Gast
(d) 0.577 times the yield strength in tension and Tresca theory), maximum principal strain theory
ESE 2020 (Sent-Venant theory) and maximum total strain energy
Ans. (d) : According to distortion energy theory, theory (Haigh's theory) are used for ductile material.
Syt
Ssy = = 0.577Syt
3 602. Region of safety for maximum principal stress
597. Maximum principal stress theory is applicable theory under bi-axial stress is shown by:
for (a) Ellipse (b) Square
(a) ductile materials (b) brittle materials (c) Pentagon (d) Hexagon
(c) elastic materials (d) all of the above UPRVUNL AE 2016
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 Ans. (b) : Maximum principal stress theory—
Ans : (b) : Maximum principle stress theory or Maximum principal stress theory or normal stress
Rankine's theory is applicable for brittle materials. theory says that, yielding occurs at a point in a body,
598. Consider the following when principle stress (maximum normal stress) in a
1. hard materials 2. brittle materials biaxial system reaches limiting yield value of that
3. malleable materials 4. ductile materials material under simple tension test. This theory used for
5. elastic materials brittle material. This theory also known as Rankine
Of the above, Shear stress theory is applicable theory. Region of safety for maximum principal stress
for which material theory under bi-axial stress is square
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 (d) 4
(e) 4 and 5
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Ans. (d) : Shear stress theory is applicable for ductile
material.
599. Maximum principal or normal stress theory of
failure is appropriate for ____.
(a) Ductile material
(b) Brittle material
524
603. Failure of the component occurs when the
maximum shear stress in the complex system
reaches the value of maximum shear stress in
simple tension at the elastic limit. This is
known as:
(a) Rankine theory
(b) Guest and Tresca theory
(c) Haigh theory
(d) St. Venant theory
(e) Carnot theory
CGPSC AE 2014- I
Ans. (b) : Maximum shear stress theory [Guest and
Tresca theory]– Failure of the component occurs when
the maximum shear stress in the complex system
reaches the value of maximum shear stress in simple
tension at the elastic limit. This theory is used for
ductile material.
604. As per maximum shear stress theory of failure.
The relation between yield strength in shear
(τy) and yield strength in tension (σt) is:
(a) τt = 1.2 σt (b) τt = 0.7 σt
(c) τt = 0.3 σt (d) τt = 0.5 σt
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (d) : Maximum shear stress theory (or) Guest &
Tresca's Theory-According to this theory, failure of
specimen subjected to any combination of load when
the maximum shearing stress at any point reaches the
failure value equal to that developed at the yielding in
an axial tensile or compressive test of the same material.
σ (b) max[(σ 1 − σ 2 ), (σ 2 − σ 3 ), (σ 3 − σ 1 )] < σ y
τy ≤ t
2
Where σt is the yield strength in tension and τy
is the yield strength in shear.
605. Design of power transmission shafting is based
on
(a) Maximum shear stress theory of failure
(b) St. Venant theory
(c) Rankine's theory
(d) Height's theory
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (a) : Design of power transmission shafting is
based on maximum shear stress theory of failure.
606. For brittle materials the following theory s
used
(a) maximum normal stress theory
(b) maximum shear stress theory
(c) distortion energy theory
(d) all of the above
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (a) : Maximum normal stress theory is used to
brittle materials.
607. The theory of failure used in designing the
ductile materials in a most accurate way is by
(1) maximum principal stress theory
(2) distortion energy theory
(3) maximum strain theory
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
ESE 2019, 2020
525
Ans. (c) : Since ductile materials, under static
conditions, mostly fail due to shear or distortion,
distortion energy theory or Von-mises theory produces
most accurate results.
608. For ductile material, the suitable failure theory
is
(a) Maximum shear strain energy theory
(b) Maximum shear stress theory
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
APPSC-AE-2019
Ans. (c) : Failure Criterion Theory
(1) For brittle material
(i) Maximum principal stress OR Rankine's
theory
(ii) Maximum principal strain OR St. Venant's
theory
(iii) Maximum strain energy density
(2) Ductile material
(i) Maximum shear stress OR Guest and
Tresca's theory
(ii) Maximum distortion energy density OR
Vonmises and Hencky's theory
609. Let σ1, σ2 and σ3 are the principal stresses at a
material point. If the yield stress of the
material is σy, then according to Von Mises
theory yielding will not occur if
(a) (σ 1 − σ 2 ) 2 + (σ 2 − σ 3 ) 2 + (σ 3 − σ 1 )2 < 2(σ y ) 2
(c) (σ 1 ) 2 + (σ 2 ) 2 + (σ 3 ) 2 < (σ y ) 2
(d) (σ1 )2 + (σ 2 )2 + (σ 3 )2 − 2ν (σ1σ 2 + σ 2σ 3 + σ 3σ1 ) < (σ y )2
APPSC-AE-2019
Ans. (a) : VonMises Yielding Failure theory
(σ 1 − σ 2 ) 2 + (σ 2 − σ 3 ) 2 + (σ 3 − σ 1 ) 2
σy ≥
2
(σ 1 − σ 2 ) + (σ 2 − σ 3 ) + (σ 3 − σ 1 ) 2 ≤ 2σ y2
2 2
610. For ductile materials, the most appropriate
failure theory is
(a) maximum shear stress theory
(b) maximum principal stress theory
(c) maximum principal strain theory
(d) shear strain energy theory
TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (a) : For ductile materials the most appropriate
failure theory is maximum shear stress theory where as
for brittle material maximum principle stress theory is
used.
611. Consider the following statements :
Assertion (A) : An isotropic material is always
homogeneous.
Reason (R) : An isotropic material is one in
which all the properties are
same in all the directions at
every point.
of these statements,
(a) both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
 (b) both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a Ans : (a) : According to Von-mises (theory of failure)
correct explanation of (A) (σ1 – σ2)2 + (σ2 – σ3)2 + (σ3 – σ1)2 = 2σ2yield ..........(i)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false The octahedral shear stress can be given by the
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true expression,
TNPSC AE 2014 1
τ ys = (σ1 − σ2 )2 + (σ2 − σ3 ) 2 + (σ3 − σ1 ) 2 ...........(ii)
Ans. (a) : An isotropic material is always homogeneous 3
and in which all the properties are same in all the from equation (i) and (ii)
direction at every point. 1
τ ys = 2σ2yield
612. From a uniaxial tension test, the yield strength 3
of steel was found to be 200 N/mm2. A steel 2
τ ys = σ yield
shaft is subjected to a torque 'T', and a bending 3
moment 'M'. The theory of failure which gives 616. The shearing yield strength (Ssy) is related to
safest dimensions for the shaft and the tensile yield strength (Sy) as
relationship for design is (a) Ssy = Sy (b) Ssy = 0.414 Sy
(a) Maximum Principal Strain Theory σ1 = σ y (c) Ssy = 0.577 Sy (d) Ssy = 0.707 Sy
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
(b) Maximum Principal Strain Theory Ans : (c) : The shearing yield strength (Ssy) is related to
σ1 µσ2 σ y tensile strength (Sy) as
− = Ssy = 0.577 Sy
E E E
σ1 −σ2 σ y 617. Which of the following is applied to brittle
(c) Maximum Shear Stress Theory = materials?
2 2 (a) Maximum principal stress theory
σ 2
σ 2 2
σy (b) Maximum principal strain theory
(d) Total Strain Energy Theory 1 + 2 = (c) Maximum strain energy theory
2E 2E 2E (d) Maximum shear stress theory
TNPSC AE 2014 OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans. (c) : Maximum shear stress theory [Guest and RPSC AE 2016
Tresca] of failure gives safest dimensions for the shaft Ans : (a) :
and the relationship for design. (i) Maximum principal stress theory (Rankine’s
613. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as Theory)- Brittle Material
compared in tension is nearly (ii) Maximum Principal strain theory (St. Venant’s
theory)- Brittle material
(a) same (b) half
(iii) Maximum shear stress theory (Guest’s and
(c) one-third (d) two-third Tresca’s theory)- Ductile Material
TNPSC 2019 (iv) Maximum strain energy theory (Haigh’s theory)-
Ans. (b) : For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as Ductile Material
compared in tension is nearly half. (v) Maximum shear strain energy theory (Mises’ and
1 Henkey’s theory)- Ductile Material
τ ut = S yt [According to maximum shear 618. The State of stress at a point is given as σx= 100
2
stress theory] N / mm2, σy= 40 N / mm2 strength τxy = 40 N /
mm2. If the yield strength Sy of the material is
614. For Steel, the ultimate strength in shear as 300 MPa, the factor of safety using maximum
compared to in tension is nearly shear stress theory will be
(a) Same (b) Half (a) 3 (b) 2.5
(c) One-third (d) Two-third (c) 7.5 (d) 1.25
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
Ans. (d) : Ans : (a)
 Ultimate strength in tension 
ultimate strength in shear = 2  
 3
615. For a ductile material, the limiting value of
octahedral shear stress (τo) is related to the
yield stress (Sy) as
2
(a) τ o = S y (b) τ o = S y 3 2
3
3
(c) τ o = S y (d) None of the above
2 σx = 100 N/mm2, σy = 40 N/mm2, τxy = 40N/mm2
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
526
 2 (d) Composite materials
 σx − σ y 
( ) OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
2
τmax =   + τ xy
 2  UJVNL AE 2016
Ans : (b)
τmax = 900 + 1600 Maximum principal stress theory: Brittle material
2 Maximum principal strain theory: Brittle material
τmax = 50N / mm Maximum shear stress theory: Ductile material
According to maximum shear stress theory Maximum strain energy theory: Ductile material
τy= FOS × τmax Maximum shear strain energy theory: Ductile material
Sy= 300 MPa 622. A cold rolled steel shaft is designed on the basis
Sy of maximum shear stress theory. The principal
then τy= 150 MPa τy= = 0.5 Sy
2 stresses induced at its critical section are 60
150 = FOS × 50 MPa and – 60 MPa respectively. If the yield
FOS = 3 stress for the shaft material is 360 MPa, the
factor of safety of the design is :
619. The equivalent bending moment under (a) 2 (b) 3
combined action of bending moment M and (c) 4 (d) 5
torque T is
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
(a) M2 + T2 OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
1 Ans : (b)
(b) M +T
2 2

2
(c) M + M2 + T2
(d)
1
2
(
M + M2 + T2 )
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (d)
According to maximum normal stress theory
σ − σmin 
1 1 τmax =  max 
( σb )max = ( σb )
2
σb + + 4τ 2  2 
2 2
2 3
for maximum shear stress theory
1 32M 1  32M   16T  τ
= +  3 
+ 4 3  τmax = ut
2 πd 3
2  πd   πd  FOS
32  1
(
= 3  M + M2 + T2 
πd  2


) Maximum shear stress =
 σx − σ y


2

( )
 + τxy
2

 2 
32M e
∴ ( σb )max = 2
πd 3  60 + 60 
τmax =  
1  2 
Me = M + M2 + T2 
2  τmax = 60MPa
Me is known as equivalent bending moment.
620. Which theory of failure is applicable for τut = 180MPa
copper components under steady load? τut 180
(a) Principal stress theory FOS = = =3
τmax 60
(b) Strain energy theory
(c) Maximum shear stress theory FOS = 3
(d) Principal strain theory
623. A transmission shaft subjected to bending
MPPSC AE 2016
loads must be designed on the basis of
Ans : (c) Maximum shear stress theory of (a) Maximum shear stress theory
failure is applicable for copper components under
(b) Fatigue strength
steady load. Maximum shear stress theory or Guest and
Treca's theory is well justified for ductile materials. (c) Maximum normal stress and maximum shear
stress theories
621. The maximum distortion energy theory of
(d) Maximum normal stress theory
failure is suitable to predict the failure of one
of the materials is : MPPSC AE 2016
(a) Brittle material Ans : (d) A transmission shaft subjected to bending
(b) Ductile material load must be designed on the basis of maximum normal
(c) Plastics stress theory.
527
624. Shear stress theory is applicanle to Code :
(a) ductile materials (b) brittle materials A B C D
(c) elastic materials (d) plastic materials (a) 1 2 3 4
RPSC AE 2016 (b) 3 4 2 1
Ans : (a) Shear stress theory is applicanle to ductile (c) 4 1 2 3
material. (d) 2 3 1 4
(i) Maximum principal stress theory - Brittle material UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(ii) Maximum principal strain theory – Brittle material Ans. (b) : A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(iii) Maximum shear stress theory – Ductile material 628. A spring scale reads 20 N as it pulls a 5.0 kg
(iv) maximum total strain energy theory – Ductile mass across a table. what is the magnitude of
material. the force exerted by the mass on the spring
scale ?
11. Springs (a) 4.0 N (b) 5.0 N
(c) 20.0 N (d) 49.0 N
625. In a spring mass system if one spring of same UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
stiffness is added in series, new frequency of Ans. (c) : 20.0 N
vibration will be:- 629. In an open coiled helical spring an axial load on
ωn the spring produces which of the following
(a) (b)
2 stresses in the spring wire?
(a) normal (b) torsional shear
2 (c) direct shear (d) all of the above
(c) (d)
ωn UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I Ans. (d) : All of the above
Ans. (a) : Case I - 630. When a helical coiled spring is compressed
K axially, it possesses
ωn = (a) potential energy (b) kinetic energy
m (c) mechanical energy (d) none of the above
Case II - when spring is added in series. UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
K K Ans. (a) : Potential energy
[ ωn ]II = K eq =
631. The energy stored per unit volume in coil
2.m 2
ω spring as compared to leaf spring is
[ ωn ]II = n (a) Equal amount (b) Double the amount
2 (c) Four times higher (d) Six times higher
626. A spring mass system shown in Figure is TNPSC AE 2017
actuated by a load P = 0.75 sin2t. If mass of the Ans. (d) : The energy stored per unit volume in coil
block is 0.25 kg and stiffness of the spring is 4 spring as compared to leaf spring is Six times higher.
N/m, displacement of the block will be:- 632. A spring is made of a wire of 2 mm diameter
having a shear modulus of 80 GPa. The mean
coil diameter is 20 mm and the number of
active coils is 10. If the mean coil diameter is
reduced to 10 mm, the stiffness of the spring is:
(a) increased by 16 times
(b) decreased by 8 times
(c) increased by 8 times
(d) decreased by 16 times
BHEL ET 2019
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.5 Ans. (c) : D 1 = 20 mm
(c) 1.0 (d) 2.25 D2 = 10 mm
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I Stiffness of spring
Ans. (a) : 0.25 Gd 4
k=
627. Match List – I with List – II and select the 8D 3 n
correct answer using the code given below the 1
lists. k∝ 3
D
List – I List – II 3
(Characteristic) (Member) k1  D 2 
= 
A. Kernel of section 1. Helical spring k 2  D1 
B. Tie and Strut 2. Bending of beams 3
C. Section modulus 3. Eccentric loading of k1  20 
= 
short column k 2  10 
D. Stiffness 4. Roof truss k2 = 8k1

528
633. A coil is cut into two halves, the stiffness of cut Spring force F = - kx
coil will be: F = kx (compressive force)
(a) Double (b) Half Case (i)—When 2 kg pan is placed on spring
(c) Same (d) None of above Force (F) = mg = 2g N
SJVN ET 2013 x = (l - 200) mm
Gd 4 Case (ii)—When 20 kg mass is placed on the pan
Ans. (a) : k =
64R 3 n Force (F) = mg = 22g N
1 x = (l - 100) mm
kα
n From case (i) and case (ii) spring force
k1 n 2 F = kx
=
k 2 n1 2g = k (l - 200) ...(1)
Where, k1 and k2 are stiffness and n1 and n2 are number 22g = k (l - 100) ...(2)
of coils in the spring. Divide equation (2) by (1)
When a spring is cut into two equal halves. 22 l − 100
n1 =
⇒ n2 = 2 l − 200
2 11l - 2200 = l - 100
k1 n 2 n2 10 l = 2100
⇒ = =
k 2 n1 2n 2 l = 210 mm
k2 = 2k1 From equation (1)
634. For a helical spring of mean diameter D. wire 2g = k (l - 200)
diameter d. number of coils n. modules of 2g = k (210 - 200)
transverse electricity C, when subjected to an
axial load W the defection would be 2 g 2 × 9.81
k= =
Wn D3 2Wnd 3 10 10
(a) 4
(b) 4 k = 1.962 N/mm
Cd CD
k = 1962 N/m
8Wn 8WnD3
(c) (d) 636. A closed coil, helical spring is subjected to a
CD 4 d 3 Cd 4
Nagaland CTSE 2016-17 Ist Paper torque about its axis. The spring wire would
Ans. (d) : In helical spring, when it is subjected to an experience a
axial load (W) the deflection (δ) would be, (a) Direct shear stress
3 (b) Torsional shear stress
8WD n
δ= (c) Bending stress
Cd 4 (d) Direct tensile stress
Where,
D = mean diameter of spring (e) Bending stress and shear stress both
d = wire diameter CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
C = modules of transverse electricity Ans. (b) : Torsional shear stress
W = axial load 637. If a impression coil spring is cut in two equal
n = no, of turn or coils
parts and the parts are then used in parallel,
635. A 2 kg pan is placed on a spring. In this the ratio of the spring rate of its initial value
condition, the length of the spring is 200 mm.
When a mass of the 20 kg is placed on the pan, will be
the length of the spring becomes 100 mm. For (a) 4 (b) 8
the spring, the un-deformed length L and the (c) 2 (d) 1
spring constant k (stiffness) are (e) Indeterminable due to insufficient data
(a) L = 220 mm, k = 1862 N/m CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
(b) L = 210 mm, k = 1862 N/m Ans. (a) : When a spring is cut into two equal parts then
(c) L = 210 mm, k = 1960 N/m
(d) L = 200 mm, k = 1960 N/m number of coils gets halved.
(e) L = 200 mm, k = 2156 N/m ∴ Stiffness of each half gets doubled when these
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift are connected in parallel stiffness = 2k + 2k = 4k
Ans. (c) : 638. When three springs are in series having
stiffness 30 N/m, 20 N/m and 12 N/m, the
equivalent stiffness will be
(a) 14 (b) 8
(c) 12 (d) 6
(e) 10
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
529
Ans. (d) : Let stiffness of the composite spring be kc 641. If the stiffness of spring of centrifugal clutch is
Given increased, it causes:
k1 = 30 N/m (a) increase the friction torque at maximum
k2 = 20 N/m speed
k3 = 12 N/m (b) no change in engagement speed
(c) increase of engagement speed
(d) decrease of engagement speed
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (c) : If the stiffness of spring of centrifugal clutch
is increased, it causes increase of engagement speed.
642. Two close coiled helical springs with stiffness
K1 and K2 respectively are connected in series.
The stiffness in equivalent spring is given by
Κ1 K 2 Κ1 − K 2
Equivalent stiffness (a) (b)
Κ1 + K 2 Κ1 + K 2
1 1 1 1
= + + Κ1 + K 2 Κ1 − K 2
kc k1 k2 k3 (c) (d)
Κ1 K 2 Κ1 K 2
1 1 1 1 TNPSC AE 2013
= + +
kc 30 20 12 APPSC-AE-2019
1 2+3+5 Ans. (a) : We assume that two close helical spring are
= connected in series and an axial load acting on the
kc 60 system. Then, total deflection in spring system due to
kc = 6 N/m axial load
639. A helical spring is made from a wire of 6 mm
diameter and has outside diameter of 75 mm. If
the permissible shear stress is 350 N/mm2 and
modulus of rigidity is 84 kN/mm2, the axial
load which the spring can carry without
considering the effect of curvature.
(a) 422.5 N (b) 382.5 N
(c) 392.5 N (d) 412.5 N
(e) 402.5 N
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Ans. (d) : Given,
d = 6 mm, D0 = 75 mm, τ = 350 MPa, G = 84 kN/mm2
We know that
D = D0–d = 75 – 6 = 69 mm
D 69
∴ spring index, C = = = 11.5
d 6 δ = δ1 + δ 2 ...(1)
Neglecting the effect of curvature– Equation (1) divided by W then we get
We know that shear stress factor 1 1 1
1 1 = +
Ks = 1 + =1+ = 1.043 and maximum shear W W W
2C 2 × 11.5  δ   δ   δ 
stress induced in the wire (τ)  1  2
8WD 8W × 69 We know that
350 = K s × = 1.043 × W
πd 3 π × 63 = stiffness of equivalent spring
350 δ
W= = 412.7 N 1 1 1
0.848 = +
640. Which is not a type of ends for helical K e K1 K 2
compression spring 1 K1 + K 2
(a) Plain ends =
ke K 1K 2
(b) square ends
(c) half hook ends K 1K 2
(d) plain and ground ends Ke =
K1 + K 2
(e) square and ground ends
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift 643. While calculating the stress induced in a closed
helical spring. Wahl's factor is considered to
Ans. (c) : half hook ends
account for
530
 (a) the curvature and stress concentrated effect 649. The spring constant of Helical Compression
(b) shock loading Spring does not depend on
(c) fatigue loading (a) Coil diameter
(d) poor service conditions
TNPSC AE 2014 (b) Material strength
Ans. (a) : While calculating the stress induced in a (c) Number of active turns
closed helical spring. Wahl's factor is considered to (d) Wire diameter
account for the curvature and stress concentrated effect. Gujarat PSC AE 2019
4C − 1 0.615 Ans : (b) : The spring constant of helical compression
K= +
4C − 4 C spring does not depend on material strength.
D
where C = [Spring index ] 650. A spring of stiffness 50 N/mm is mounted on
d top of second spring of stiffness 100 N/mm,
644. Due to addition of extra full length leaves the what will be the deflection under the action of
deflection of a semi-elliptic spring 500 N?
(a) increases (b) decreases
(a) 15 mm (b) 3.33 mm
(c) does not change (d) is doubled
TNPSC AE 2017 (c) 5 mm (d) 10 mm
Ans. (b) : Due to addition of extra full length leaves the UPRVUNL AE 2016
deflection of a semi-elliptic spring decreases. Ans. (a) : Spring arrangement in series then,
645. The ratio of total load on the spring to the 1 1 1 3
maximum deflection is called is = + =
(a) Spring Tension (b) Spring life keq 100 50 100
(c) Spring efficiency (d) Spring rate 100
TNPSC AE 2017 keq = N/mm
Ans. (d) : The ratio of total load on the spring to the 3
maximum deflection is called is Spring rate is denoted by k. Then deflection (δ)
W W 500
K= δ= = ×3
δmax . keq 100
646. In design of helical springs the spring index is δ = 15 mm
usually taken as
(a) 3 (b) 5 651. For a spring mass system, the frequency of
(c) 8 (d) 12 vibration is 'N' what will be the frequency
TSPSC AEE 2015 when one more similar spring is added is series
Ans. (b) : In design of helical springs the spring index (a) N/2 (b) N / 2
is usually taken as 5.
647. Which is true statement about Belleville (c) 2/N (d) 2N
springs? TNPSC AE 2017
(a) These are used for dynamic loads Ans. (b) : We know that,
(b) These are composed of coned discs which
may be stacked upto obtain variety of load- 1 s
N=
deflection characteristics 2π m
(c) These are commonly used in clocks and
watches N∝ s
(d) These take up torsional load When two similar spring is added in series then
TNPSC 2019 s
Ans. (b) : These are composed of coned discs which sequivalent =
2
may be stacked upto obtain variety of load-deflection
characteristics is true statement about Belleville springs. then,
648. In spring, the Wahl's stress factor (K) is given N2 s/2
= (N1 = N)
by C = Spring index, N1 s
4C − 1 0.615 4C − 4 0.815
(a) + (b) + N
4C − 4 C 4C + 1 C N2 =
4C + 1 0.815 4C + 1 0.815 2
(c) + (d) +
4C + 1 C 4C − 1 C 652. When two springs are in series (having stiffness
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 k), the equivalent stiffness will be
Ans : (a) : Wahl's stress factor (K) is given by, (a) k (b) k/2
4C − 1 0.615 (c) 2k (d) k2
= +
4C − 4 C Gujarat PSC AE 2019
531
Ans : (b) : δ δ
(a) (b)
2 8
δ
(c) (d) 2δ
4
APPSC-AE-2019
8WD 3 n
Ans. (b) : Deflection in spring (δ ) = ⇒ δ α D3
Gd 4
3
δ 2  D2 
When two spring having stiffness k and are connected ∴ = 
δ1  D1 
in series, then the combined stiffness of the spring (keq.)
3
is given by D
1 1 1 δ2  2 
= + = 
k eq k k δ1  D 
 
1 1+1  
= δ
k eq k ⇒ δ2 =
8
k
k eq = 656. The spring rate or stiffness (k) of the spring is
2 given by:
653. When a closely coiled helical spring of mean (Where w load and δ deflection of spring)
diameter {D} is subjected to an axial load (W), (a) k = 2wδ (b) k = δ/w
the stiffness of the spring is given by (c) k = wδ (d) k = w/δ
(a) Cd4/D3n (b) Cd4/2D3n CIL (MT) 2017 IInd Shift
4 3
(c) Cd /4D n (d) Cd4/8D3n Ans. (d) : Spring force w = kδ
APPSC AEE 2016
So stiffness (k) = w/δ
Ans. (d) : We know that deflection due to axial load
(W) in a closely coiled helical spring is given as, 657. A helical compression spring has a stiffness 'K'.
If the spring is cut into two equal length
64WR 3 n springs, the stiffness of each spring is
δ=
Cd 4 (a) K (b) 2K
8WD3 n (c) K/2 (d) K/4
δ= TNPSC AE 2014
Cd 4 Ans. (b) : Stiffness of each spring
We know that, spring stiffness of spring.
W x x
K=  2 + 2  K
δ K eq =
x
Cd 4  2 
K=
8D3n
K eq = 2K
654. A composite shaft consisting of two stepped
portions having spring constant k1 and k2 is Note : If a helical compression spring has a stiffness 'K'
held between two rigid supports at the ends. Its and cut into two parts of length m and n respectively then
equivalent spring constant is
(a) (k1 + k2)/2 (b) (k1 + k2)/k1k2
(c) k1k2/(k1+k2) (d) (k1 + k2)
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (d) :

m + n 
Km =   .K
 m 
k equivalent = k1 + k 2 m + n 
Kn =   .K
 n 
655. A helical spring is subjected to an axial load W
and corresponding deflection in the spring is δ. 658. A closed coiled helical spring is subjected to
Now if the mean diameter of the spring is made axial load (W) and absorbs 100 Nm energy at
half of its initial diameter keeping the material, 4cm compression. The value of axial load will
number of turns and wire cross-section same, be:
the deflection will be (a) 12.5 kN (b) 5.0 kN
532
 (c) 10.0 kN (d) 2.5 kN When a spring is cut is two equal halves.
UPRVUNL AE 2016 n
Ans. (b) : Energy absorbs in spring = 100 N-m ⇒ n2 = 1
2
(W + 0) W k1 n 2 n
Average load on spring = = ⇒ = = 2
2 2 k 2 n1 2n 2
Deflection is spring = 4 cm = 0.04 m
k2 = 2k1
Then
662. If both the mean coil diameter and wire
W diameter of a helical compression or tension
× 0.04 = 100
2 spring be doubled, then the deflection of the
200 spring close coiled under same applies load will
W= = 5000 N :
0.04
W = 5kN (a) Be doubled
(b) Be halved
659. A leaf spring is to be made with seven steel (c) Increase four times
plates 65 mm wide 6.5 mm thick. Calculate the (d) Get reduced to one-fourth
length of spring to carry a central load of 2.75 OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
kN and the bending stress is limited to 160
Ans : (b) : Mean coil diameter = D
MPa
(a) 644.2 mm (b) 64.42 mm Wire diameter = d
(c) 74.42 mm (d) 744.2 mm 8WD 3 n
Deflection of sprig =
TNPSC 2019 Gd 4
Ans. (d) : Data given- If mean coil diameter and wire diameter doubled then,
σ b = 160 MPa b = 65 mm 8W ( 2 D ) n
3
1  8WD3 n 
δ2 = =
2  Gd 4 
t = 6.5 mm P = 2.75 kN
G ( 2d )
4
L=? n=7
We know that 1
3PL
δ2 = (δ1 )
2
σb =
2nbt 2 663. In a leaf spring, the deflection at its centre is
(a) δ = Wl3 /8 Enbt3 (b) δ = Wl3/4 Enbt3
2nbt 2 σ b 2 × 7 × 65 × 6.5 2 ×160 (c) δ = 3Wl3/ 8Enbt3 (d) δ = Wl3/2Enbt3
L= =
3PL 3 × 2.75 × 10 3 TSPSC AEE 2015
L = 745.64mm ≃ 744.2mm (Where W = Max. load on the pring
l - length of the spring
660. In a close-coiled helical spring n = No. of plates
(a) plane of the coil and axis of the spring are b - Width of the plates
closely attached t = thickness of the plates)
(b) angle of helix is large Ans : (c)
(c) plane of the coil is normal to the axis of the
spring
(d) deflection is small
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
Ans : (c) : plane of the coil is normal to the axis of the
spring.
661. If a uniform pitch helical compression spring
having k is cut in half, the spring constant of
either of the resulting two smaller springs will
be
(a) 2k (b) k
(c) k/2 (d) k/4 M = Maximum bending moment
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI I = Moment of Inerita.
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 t
Y = = half thickness of spring.
Gd 4 2
Ans : (a) : k = n = Number of leaf spring.
64R 3 n
1 Wℓ
kα Max bending moment =
n 4n
k1 n 2 3 Wℓ
= Maximum bending stress =
k 2 n1 2 nbt 2
Where, k1 and k2 are stiffness and n1 and n2 are number 3 wℓ3
maximum deflection =
of coils in the spring. 8 nEbt 3
533
664. A helical coil spring with wire diameter d and 667. If a compression coil spring of stiffness 10N/m
mean coil diameter D is subjected to axial load. is cut into two equal parts and the used in
A constant ratio of D and d has to be parallel the equivalent spring stiffness will be:
maintained, such that the extension of the
(a) 10 N/m (b) 20N/m
spring is independent of D and d. What is the
ratio? (c) 40N/m (d) 80N/m
(a) D3 / d4 (b) d3 / D4 (KPSC AE. 2015)
4/3 3
(c) D / d (d) d4/3 / D3 Ans : (c) given
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
N
Ans : (a) D3 / d4 Stiffness = 10
m
665. Load pc and p0 respectively acting axially upon
close coiled and open coiled helical springs of
same wire dia, coil, dia, no of coils and material
to cause same deflection
(a) pc/p0 is 1, < 1 or > 1 depending upon α
(b) pc/p0 = 1
(c) pc/p0 > 1
(d) pc/p0 < 1
(HPPSC AE 2014) when a compression coil spring of stiffness 10 N/m is
Ans : (d) Load Pc and Po respectively acting axially cut into two equal parts then.
upon close coiled and open coiled helical spring of Stiffness of spring after cut into two equal parts.
same wire dia, coil dia, no of coils and material to case N
same deflection K1 = K2 = 20
m
Pc/Po < 1
666. A laminated spring 1 m long carries a central and K1 & K2 use in parallel then equivalent spring
point load of 2000 N. The spring is made of stiffness will be
plates each 5 cm wide and 1 cm thick. The Keqv. = K1 + K2 = 20 + 20
bending stress in the plates is limited to 100 Keqv. = 40 N/m
N/mm2. The number of plates required will be:
(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 8
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
Ans : (c)

Note : – When a spring (K) cut into parts l1 and l2 then

3 Wℓ l +l 
Maximum bending stress (σmax) = K1 =  1 2  × K
2 Nbt 2  l1 
l = spring length = 1m
W = central point load = 2000N l +l 
K2 =  1 2  × K
b = Width = 5 cm = 5 × 10-2m  l2 
t = thickness = 1cm = 1 × 10-2m
where K is stiffness of a spring before cutting.
σmax = maximum bending stress = 100N/mm2
3 Wℓ 668. In a laminated spring the strips are provided in
σ= different lengths for
2 Nbt 2
3 Wℓ (a) Equal distribution of stress
N=
2 σbt 2 (b) Equal distribution of strain energy
3 2000 × 1 (c) Reduction in weight
N= ×
2 100 × 10 × 5 × 10−2 × 1× 10−4
6 (d) All are correct
N=6 MPPSC AE 2016
534
Ans : (a) In a laminated spring the strips are provided in Ans : (a) In the calculation of induced shear stress in
distribution of bending stress. the helical springs, the wahl's correction factor is used
Different length for equal distribution of bending stress to take of combined effect of transverse shear stress and
therefore spring behave just like a uniform strength curvature of wire.
beam. 4C − 1 0.615
K= +
669. Wire diameter, mean coil diameter and 4C − 4 C
number of turns of a closely-coiled steel spring K = Wahl's stress factor
are d, D and N respectively and stiffness of the C = Spring index = D/d
spring is K. A second spring is made of same n = Number of active coils, and
steel but with wire diameter, mean coil G = Modulus of rigidity
diameter and number of turns 2d, 2D and 2N
671. When a helical compression spring is cut into
respectively. The stiffness of the new spring is
two equal halves, the stiffness of each of the
MPPSC AE 2016
resulting springs will be :
(a) K (b) 2K
(a) Unaltered
(c) 4K (d) 8K
(b) One half
Ans : (a)
(c) Doubled
Gd 4 (d) One fourth
spring stiffness (K) =
8D3 N OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
Where Ans : (c) When a helical compression spring is cut into
G = modulus of rigidity two equal halves, the stiffness of each of the resulting
d = wire diameter spring will be doubled.
D = Mean coil diameter
N = Number of turns
Case 1st
Gd 4
K=
8D3 N
Case IIst
d = 2d Note : – When a spring (K) cut into parts l1 and l2 then
D = 2D l +l 
N = 2N K1 =  1 2  × K
 l1 
G × ( 2d )
4

K1 = =K l +l 
8 × ( 2D ) × 2N
3
K2 =  1 2  × K
 l2 
∴ K = K1
where K is stiffness of a spring before cutting.
670. In the calculation of induced shear stress in the 672. An open coiled helical spring of mean diameter
helical springs, the wahl's correction factor is d is subjected to an axial force P. The wire of
used to take of
the spring is subjected to :
(a) combined effect of transverse shear stress (a) Direct shear stress only
and bending stress in wire
(b) Combined shear and bending only
(b) combined effect of bending stress and
(c) Combined shear, bending and twisting
curvature of wire of wire
(d) Combined shear and twisting only
(c) combined effect of transverse shear stress
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
and curvature of wire
(d) combined effect of torsional shear stress & Ans : (d) An open coiled helical spring of mean diameter
transverse shear stress of wire d is subjected to an axial force P. The wire of the spring is
subjected to combined shear and twisting only.
MPPSC AE 2016
535
 10. MACHINE DESIGN
5. S-N curve represents the:
1. Design for Static and Dynamic (a) Fracture toughness (on y-axis) and numbers
Loading of fully reversed stress cycle (on x-axis)
(b) Resilience (on y-axis) and numbers of fully
1. As per the Indian Standard Designation of reversed stress cycle (on x-axis)
general steels, which of the following is mild (c) Fatigue strength (on y-axis) and numbers of
steel? fully reversed stress cycle (on x-axis)
(a) C20 (b) C35 (d) Hardness (on y-axis) and numbers of fully
(c) C45 (d) C75 reversed stress cycle (on x-axis)
(e) C100 UPRVUNL AE 2016
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) Ans. (c) : S-N curve represents the fatigue strength (on
Ans. (a) : As per the Indian standard designation of y-axis) and numbers of fully reversed stress cycle (on x-
general steels C20 is mild steel. axis).
C-20 is an unalloyed low carbon mild steel grade
supplied as a hot rolled or bright drawn finish bar. As a
low carbon steel grade it provides low strength with
good machinability and is suitable for welding.
2. Stress concentration in static loading is more
serious in
(a) ductile materials
(b) brittle materials
(c) equally serious in both cases
(d) none of the above
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 S-N curve—S-N curve, a graphical representation of a
Ans : (b) : Stress concentration in static loading is more cyclic loading, is a plot of fatigue strength versus the
serious in brittle materials. In static loading the stress number of cycles the material gas through before it fails.
concentration in ductile materials is not so serious as in 6. A 120 mm wide uniform plate is to be subjected
brittle materials because in ductile material, local
to a tensile load that has a maximum value of
deformation or yielding takes place which reduces the
concentration. 250 kN and a minimum value of 100 kN. The
properties of the plate material are: endurance
3. Factor of safety in design is the ratio of
limit stress is 225 MPa, yield point stress is
(a) yield stress/working stress
(b) tensile stress/working stress 300 MPa. If the factor of safety based on yield
(c) compressive stress/working stress point is 1.5, the thickness of the plate will be
(d) bearing stress/working stress nearly
RPSC AE 2016 (a) 12 mm (b) 14 mm
APPSC AE 2012 (c) 16 mm (d) 18 mm
Ultimate stress ESE 2020
Ans : (a) Factor of safety =
Working stress 250 ×103 100 ×103
Ans. (a) : σmax = , σ min =
yield stress 120 × t 120 × t
=
Working stress 175 ×103 75 ×103
σmean = , σa =
4. The factor of safety for machine parts 120 × t 120 × t
subjected to reversed stresses is σ m σa 1
(a) ratio of yield strength to maximum stress + =
Syt Se N
(b) ratio of endurance limit to amplitude stress
(c) ratio of ultimate tensile strength to maximum 175 ×103 75 1
+ =
stress 120 × t × 300 120 × t × 225 1.5
(d) ratio of endurance limit to mean stress 4.861 2.77 1
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 + =
t t 1.5
Ans. (b) : The factor of safety for machine parts
subjected to reversed stresses is ratio of endurance limit t = 11.45
to amplitude stress. ≈ 12 mm

536
7. Notch sensitivity varies between: 11. Stress concentration is caused due to
(a) 0 – 10 (b) 0.1 – 100 (a) variation in load acting on a member
(c) 1 – 100 (d) 0 – 1 (b) variation in material properties
(e) 0 – 0.1 (c) abrupt change of cross-section
CGPSC AE 2014- I (d) none of the above
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Ans. (d) : Notch sensitivity Factor (q)– It is defined as
the ratio of increase of actual stress over nominal stress Ans. (c) : Abrupt change of cross-section
in fatigue to the increase stress over nominal stress in 12. The resistance to fatigue of a material is
static loading. measured by
(a) elastic limit
K −1
q= f 0 ≤ q ≤1 (b) Young's modulus
K t −1 (c) ultimate tensile strength
where, Kf = actual (or) fatigue stress concentration (d) endurance limit
factor UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Kt = Theoretical (or) static stress concentration Ans. (d) : Endurance limit
factor. 13. The fatigue life of a part can be improved by
8. A plate with a circular hole in the centre is (a) Electroplating (b) Polishing
subjected to a pull of P. The maximum stress (c) Coating (d) Shot peening
induced at the edge of the hole is (if the normal TNPSC 2019
stress is 'f') RPSC AE 2016
(a) 3 f (b) 2 f Ans. (d) : Shot peening is a cold working process used
(c) f/2 (d) f/3 to produce a compressive residual stress layer and
APPSC AEE 2016 modify the mechanical properties of metals and
Ans. (a) : Stress concentration factor, Kt, is the ratio of composites. It entails striking a surface with shot [round
maximum stress at a hole, fillet or notch to the remote metallic, glass or ceramic particles] with force sufficient
stress. to create plastic deformation.
14. For which one of the following loading
conditions is the standard endurance strength
multiplied by a load factor, Ke = 0.9?
(a) Reversed beam bending loads
(b) Reversed axial loads with no bending
f max . (c) Reversed axial loads with intermediate
Then, K t = bending
f (d) Reversed torsion loads
2d ESE 2020
Kt = 1+ =3
d Ans. (c) : Reversed axial loads with intermediate
bending.
f max = 3f
15. A steel connecting rod having Sut = 1000 MN/
9. Select the correct answer out of the following m2, Syt = 900 MN/m2 is subjected to a
alternatives about ‘Cyclic Stresses’. completely reversed axial load of 50 kN. By
(a) That a material can tolerate are much greater neglecting any column action, if the values of ke
than stresses produced under static loading. = 0.85, kb = 0.9, ka = 0.82, kt = 1.5, q = 0.6 and N
(b) Can lead to fatigue if the stress level is above = 2, the diameter of the rod will be nearly
the endurance limit. (a) 20 mm (b) 23 mm
(c) Can lead to fatigue if the stress level is below (c) 26 mm (d) 29 mm
the endurance limit. ESE 2020
(d) Are not introduced in the axle of a running k −1
Ans. (b) : f =q
train. kt −1
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
kf −1
Ans. (b) : Can lead to fatigue if the stress level is above = 0.6
the endurance limit. 1.5 − 1
kf = 1.3
10. Endurance strength of a component does not
depend upon which one of the following 1
kd = = 0.769
factors? kf
(a) Surface finish (b) Size Sut
(c) Applied load (d) Cost σ*e = = 500
2
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I σe = ka × kb × kc × kd × ke...... σe*
Ans. (d) : Cost σe = 0.82 × 0.9 × 0.85 × 0.769 × 500
537
 = 241.19 MPa 18. The failure of a material under varying load,
Strength criterion, Soderberg equation, after a number of cycles of such load, is known
σmax ≤ σ per as
(a) Ductile failure (b) Brittle failure
σ σ* k k k k  (c) Impact failure (d) Fatigue failure
σ max ≤  e = e a b c d 
 N N  Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
50000 241.19 Ans. (d) : The failure of a material under varying load,
≤ after a number of cycles of such load, is known as
π 2 2
d fatigue failure, material to be fracture by means brittle
4 cracking under repeated cyclic stresses.
d ≥ 22.97
d = 23 mm 19. Fatigue life of a part can be improved by:
(a) Electroplating (b) Polishing
16. A cast iron bed plate for a pump has a crack
(c) Coating (d) Shot Peening
length of 100 µm. If the Young’s modulus of
cast iron is 210 GN/m2 and the specific surface SJVN ET 2013
energy is 10 J/m2, the fracture strength Ans. (d) :
required will be nearly • Shot peening is a cold working process used to
(a) 1.0 × 108 N/m2 (b) 1.2 × 108 N/m2 finish machine components to improve fatigue and
8 2
(c) 1.4 × 10 N/m (d) 1.6 × 108 N/m2 stress corrosion.
ESE 2020 • Small spherical shafts bombards the surface.
Ans. (d) : Given, • Dimpling the surface and develops compressive
Crack length (c) = 100 µm =100×10-6 m stress.
Young's modulus(E)= 210×109 N/m2 • Shot peening can be done without changing part
Specific surface energy( γ )= 10 J/m2 design.
Fracture strength for brittle material is given by 20. The ratio of endurance limit in shear to
endurance limit in flexure is
2Eγ 2 × 210 × 109 × 10
σ= = = 1.15×108 N/m2 (a) 0.33 (b) 0.4
πc π × 100 × 10−6 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.55
≈ 1.2×108 N/m2 SJVN ET 2013
17. According to the Gerber method, the variable Ans. (d) : The ratio of endurance limit in shear to
stress is given by: endurance limit in flexure is 0.55.
(where σm - mean stress, σu - ultimate stress
21. The fatique strength of mild steel is:
and σe - endurance limit for reversible loading
and FS - factor of safety) (a) Lower than the yield strength
(b) More than the yield strength
 1  σ 3  (c) More than its tensile strength
(a) σ v = σe  −  m  FS
 FS  σu   (d) Lower than its tensile strength
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
 1  σ 3 
(b) σ v = σe  +  m  FS Ans. (a) : The fatique strength of mild steel is lower
 FS  σu   than the yield strength.
 1  σ 2  22. The failure of a material under varying load,
(c) σ v = σe  −  m  FS after a number of cycles of such load, is known
 FS  σu   as–
 1  σ 2  (a) Ductile failure (b) Brittle failure
(d) σ v = σe  +  m  FS (c) Impact failure (d) Fatigue failure
 FS  σu   Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
 1  σ 2  Ans. (d) : The failure of a material under varying load,
(e) σ v = σe  −  m   after a number, of cycles of such load is known as
 FS  σu  
fatigue failure.
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
23. The S N curve for steel becomes asymptotic
Ans. (c) : According to the Gerber method, the variable nearly at
stress is given by
(a) 109 cycles (b) 105 cycles
 1  σ 2  3
(c) 10 cycles (d) 1011 cycles
σv = σe  −  m  × FS 6
(e) 10 cycles
 FS  σu  
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
SJVN ET 2013
538
Ans. (e) : Ans. (a) : Stress concentration factor (K) is defined as
the ratio of the maximum stress in a member (at a notch
or a fillet) to the nominal or average stress at the same
section based upon net area. The value of Kt depends
upon the material and geometry of the part.
27. A Wahl's stress factor (Ks) is:
(Where C spring index)
 4C − 1 0.615 
(a)  +
 4C − 4 2C 
S-N diagram for steel  4C − 4 0.615 
(b)  +
6
SN curve for steel is asymptotic at 10 cycles  4C − 4 C 
24. In terms of theoretical stress concentration  4C − 1 0.615 
(c)  +
factor (Kt) and a fatigue stress concentration
 4C − 4 2 
factor (Kf), the notch sensitivity 'q' is expressed
as:  4C − 1 0.615 
(d)  +
(a) (Kf - 1)/(Kt - 1) (b) (Kf - 1)/(Kt + 1)  4C − 1 C 
(c) (Kt - 1)/(Kf - 1) (d) (Kf + 1)/(Kt + 1) CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
(e) (Kt + 1)/(Kf + 1) 4C − 1 0.615
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift Ans. (c) : Wahl's stress factor K = 4C − 4 + C
Ans. (a) : We know that Where C is the spring index
Kf = 1 + q(Kt - 1) D mean coil diameter
where = =
d diameter of wire
K f −1
q= 28. The factor of safety provided for the cotter is
Kt − 1 less than that for the spigot and socket end
25. A 50 mm long and 5 mm thick filet weld carries because
1. There is stress concentration in the cotter
a steady load of 20 kN along the weld. The
2. There is no stress concentration in the cotter
shear strength of the weld material is equal to 3. The cotter is not as weaker as the spigot and
220 MPa. The factor of safety is socket end
(a) 2.95 (b) 3.4 3. The cotter has been made from materials
(c) 2.75 (d) 4.2 different from that of the spigot and socket
(e) 3.8 end
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift Which of the above statements are correct?
Ans. (e) : Given, l = 50mm, t = 5 mm (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
P = 20 kN = 20,000 N (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only
τs = 220 MPa JWM 2017
Shear strength Load Ans. (c) : Spigot is the male part of the joint, it has a
= rectangular slot for passing the cotter through it. Spigot
FOS Resisting shear has a collar which rests against the socket end.
220 20, 000 Socket is the female part of the joint, it also has
= a rectangular slot for passing the cotter through it.
FOS 0.707 × 50 × 5
Cotter is a wedge shaped piece of metal which
FOS = 1.94 actually connects two part which re non rotating.
For double fillet = 1.94 × 2 = 3.88 The factor of safety for cotter is less than the
26. The stress-concentration factor (K) is: spigot and socket because, there is no stress
(a) Ratio of maximum stress occurring near concentration in the cotter and resulting high strength
discontinuity to average stress at critical than spigot and socket end.
section. 29. In Concurrent Engineering, design and
(b) Ratio of minimum stress occurring near manufacturing are
discontinuity to average stress at critical (a) Sequentially considered
section. (b) Separately considered
(c) Ratio of average stress at critical section to (c) Simultaneously considered
minimum stress occurring near discontinuity. (d) Independently considered
(d) Ratio of average stress at critical section to APPSC AEE 2016
maximum stress occurring near discontinuity. Ans. (c) : In Concurrent Engineering, design and
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift manufacturing are simultaneously considered.
539
30. The design calculations for members subject to 33. Which of the following characteristics is
fluctuating loads with the same factor of safety generally exhibited by brittle materials?
yield the most conservative estimates when (a) High impact strength
using (b) Ultimate compressive strength higher than
(a) Gerber relation (b) Soderberg relation ultimate tensile strength
(c) Goodman relation (d) None of the above (c) Good fracture toughness
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 (d) All of the above
MPPSC AE 2016 BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
Ans. (b) : Ans : (b) : Ultimate compressive strength higher than
According to soderberg equation, ultimate tensile strength.
σa σm 1 34. The areas of fatigue failure in a part may be in
+ = the
Se Syt Factor of safety (1) region having slow growth of crack with a
fine fibrous appearance.
(2) region having faster growth of crack with a
fine fibrous appearance.
(3) region of sudden fracture with a coarse
granular appearance.
(4) region of gradual fracture with a coarse
granular appearance.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
In figure the inner most line is soderberg line and gives (a) 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
most conservative estimate for same factor of safety. (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
31. If the size of a standard specification for fatigue ESE 2019
testing machine is increased, then endurance Ans. (d) : Fatigue failure is recognised through
limit for the material will (i) Crack having fine fibrous appearance associated with
(a) Have same value as that of standard slow growth rate.
specification (ii) Crack having coarse granular appearance associated
(b) Increase with faster growth rate.
(c) Decrease 35. A machine component is subjected to a flexural
(d) None of these stress, which fluctuates between 300 MN/m2
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 and -150 MN/m2. Taking the yield strength =
Ans. (c) : The endurance strength of non-standard 0.55 of the ultimate strength, endurance
sample or any other loaded component strength = 0.50 of the ultimate strength and
factor of safety to be 2, the value of the
Se = ka.kb.kc. kd. S1e minimum ultimate strength according to
where S1e – endurance strength of standard size modified Goodman relation will be
(a) 1100 MN/m2 (b) 1075 MN/m2
specimen 2
(c) 1050 MN/m (d) 1025 MN/m2
ka = size factor
ESE 2017
kb = surface finish factor
kc = Reliability factor Ans. (c) : Given,
kd = Loading factor σmax = 300 MPa
Assuming all factors i.e. kb and kd as same as standard σmin = − 150 MPa
specimen i.e, unity. Endurance strength of a component. σ + σmin 300 − 150
Mean stress (σm) = max = = 75 MPa
∴ Se = k a × 1× 1.S1e = k a .S1e 2 2
We know that as size increases ka reduces be σ − σmin
Alternating stress (σa) = max
32. The effective stress in wire ropes during 2
normal working is equal to the stress due to σa = σv = Alternative (or) Variable stress
(a) axial load plus stress due to bending 300 − (−150)
= = 225 MPa
(b) acceleration/retardation of masses plus stress 2
due to bending Equation for goodmann line
(c) axial load plus stress due to acceleration σa σ m 1
/retardation + =
σe σ ut FS
(d) bending plus stress due to a acceleration
/retardation 225 75 1
+ =
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II 0.5 σut σ ut 2
Ans : (a) : axial load plus stress due to bending σut = 1050 MPa

540
36. Consider the following statements:
For a component Made of ductile material, the
failure criterion will be
1. endurance limit, if the external force is
fluctuating.
2. fatigue, if the external force is fluctuating.
3. yield stress, if the external force is static.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE 2017
Ans. (d) : (1) Endurance limit is the maximum stress
amplitude of a component can withstand. It is the
strength of material.
(2) Failure of ductile material under fluctuating load is
called fatigue.
(3) Failure of ductile material under static load occurs at
yield stress.
37. In the design of beams for a given strength,
consider that the conditions of economy of used
of the material would avail as follows:
1. Rectangular cross-section is more economical
than square section of the same cross-sectional
area of the beam.
2. Circular section is more economical than square
section.
3. I-section is more economical than a rectangular
section of the same depth.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
ESE 2017
Ans. (d) : For same material and same volume
ZI > Zrect > Zsq > Zcir
Square section is more economical than circular section
therefore statement second is wrong.
38. Select the wrong statement. Fatigue crack
initiates on surface because :
(a) in most cases stress is highest on surface
(b) surface is machined
(c) surface is inherently weaker than the inside
(d) there may exist some stress concentration on
surface
(HPPSC AE 2014)
Ans : (b) Fatigue crank initiates on surface because
(i) In most cases stress is highest on surface
(ii) Surface is inherently weaker than the inside
(iii) There may exist some stress concentration on
surface.
39. Goodman straight line relation suggests that
variable stress component in the presence of a
positive mean stress :
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains unaffected
541
(d) increases or decreases depending upon σu
(HPPSC AE 2014)
Ans : (a) Goodman straight line relation suggests that
variable stress component in the presence of a positive
mean stress decreases.
40. Stress concentration in a machine component
of ductile materials is not so harmful as it is in
brittle materials because
(a) In ductile materials local yielding may
distribute stress concentration
(b) Ductile materials have large Young's
modulus
(c) Poisson's ratio is larger in ductile materials
(d) Modulus of rigidity is larger in ductile
materials
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (a) The stress concentration effect in
ductile material for static loading has no serious effect
because there material undergoes local yielding and
distribution the stress where maximum value is reached.
41. Resistance to fatigue of a material is measured
by
(a) Young's modulus
(b) modulus of rigidity
(c) elastic limit
(d) endurance limit
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (d) Resistance to fatigue of material is measured
by endurance limit.
Fatigue and Endurance limit:-
In has been found experimentally that when a material
is subjected to repeated stress, it fails at stress below the
yield point stress. such type of failure of a material is
known as fatigue failure. The failure is caused by means
of a progressive crack formation which are usually fine
and of microscopic size.
42. The factor to be considered while designing a
machine element is
(a) Selection of the materials
(b) Effect of environment
(c) Mechanism
(d) All the above
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (d) The following steps are involved in the
process of machine design
(i) Products Specification
(ii) Selection of mechanism
(iii) Effect of environment
(iv) Layout of Configuration
(v) Design of individual component
(vi) Preparation of drawing
(vii) Selection of materials.
 2. Design of Shafts, Keys and N 2 = N1 ×
d1
Couplings d2

43. A square key is used to transmit the torque (T) 55

N 2 = 150 ×
from the shaft to the hub. The relationship 33
between induced compressive stress (σc) and N2 = 250 rpm
shear stress (τ) is given by: 45. The shearing area of a key of length ‘l’,
(a) σ = τ (b) σ = 2τ breadth ‘b’ and depth ‘d’ is equal to:-
(c) σ = τ /2 (d) σ = τ/4 (a) b × d (b) l × d
(e) σ = τ/6 d
(c) l × b (d) l ×
CGPSC AE 2014- I 2
Ans. (b) : Let us assume that torque transmitted by UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
shaft is T. Ans. (c) : Shearing area of key
= Length (l) × Breadth (b)
=l×b
46. The piston rod and the cross head in a steam
engine are usually connected by means. of:
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
UJVNL AE. 2016
KPSC AE. 2015
TNPSC AE 2013
This torque transfer to hub with the help of RPSC 2016
square key [l, a, a] JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
Then tangential force acting on the key (a) Cotter joint (b) Knuckle joint
2T (c) Ball joint (d) Universal joint
F= Ans : (a) The piston rod and the cross head in a steam
d
shear stress in square key engines are usually connected by means. of cotter joint.
Cotter Joint:-
2T A cotter joint is used to connect two rod either subjected
shear force 2T
τ= = d = to tensile force or compressive axial force with no
shear area of the key [ a × ℓ ] d × a × ℓ relative motion between them.
Compressive stress in square key Application of Cotter Joint:-
* Joint between the piston rod and the cross head of a
 2T  steam engine.
compressive force  d 
σ comp. = =   *Joint between the slide spindle and the fork of the
compression area of the key  a  valve mechanism.
 2 × ℓ  *Joint between the piston rod and the tail or pump rod.
* Foundation bolt.
 2T 
σ comp =  × 2 = 2τ 47. When a nut is tightness by placing washer it,
 d × a × ℓ  the bolt will be subjected to following type of
σ comp = 2τ loads
RPSC AE 2016
44. An engine running at 150 r.p.m. drives a shaft (a) compression (b) tension
with belt arrangement. If diameter of engine (c) shear (d) combined load
pulley is 55 cm and shaft pulley 33 cm, find the Ans : (b) When a nut is tightened by placing washer
speed of shaft:- below it, the bolt will be subjected to tensile stress.
(a) 100 rpm (b) 150 rpm
(c) 200 rpm (d) 250 rpm
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
Ans. (d) : Given as
N1 = 150 rpm
d1 = 55 cm
d2 = 33 cm
We know that (i) From statical equilibrium, the tensile load in the bolt
will be equal to the compressive load in the tube.
N1 d 2
= (ii) PbAb = Pc Ac
N 2 d1 (iii) ∆b +∆c = movement of the nut

542
48. A cotter joint is used to connect two rods which 51. Hollow shafts are stronger than solid shafts
are in : having same weight because
(a) Compression only (a) the stiffness of hollow shaft is less than that
(b) Tension and Compression only of solid shaft
(c) Tension only (b) the strength of hollow shaft is more than that
(d) Shear only of solid shaft
(KPSC AE. 2015) (c) the natural frequency of hollow shaft is less
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift than that of solid shaft
Ans : (b) Connect to Co-axial rods, which are subjected (d) in hollow shafts, material is not spread at
to either axial tensile force or axial compressive force. large radius
Application of cotter Joint:- ESE 2019
(i) Foundation bolt Ans. (b) : Strength of hollow shaft is more than that of
(ii) Joint between the piston rod and the tail or pump solid shaft because polar section modulus of hollow
rod. shaft is greater than that of solid shaft.
(iii) Joint between the slide spindle and the fork of the 52. A propeller shaft is required to transmit 45 kW
valve mechanism power at 500 r.p.m. It is a hollow shaft having
(iv) Joint between the piston and the cross head of a inside diameter 0.6 times the outside diameter.
steam Engine. It is made of plain carbon steel and the
49.A hollow circular shaft of outside and inside permissible shear stress is 84 N/mm2. The inner
diameter 100 mm and 90 mm is subjected to a and outer diameters of the shaft are nearly.
torque T = 3π kNm. Polar moment of inertia of (a) 21.7 mm and 39.1 mm
(b) 23.5 mm and 39.1 mm
circular section is π × 10-6 m4. Maximum shear
(c) 21.7 mm and 32.2 mm
stress on the shaft is given by:
(d) 23.5 mm and 32.2 mm
(a) 175 MPa (b) 100 MPa
(c) 150 MPa (d) 125 MPa ESE 2019
UPRVUNL AE 2016 Ans. (b) : Given,
P = 45 kW
Ans. (c) : Data given,
N = 500 rpm
do = 100 mm
di = 0.6 do
di = 90 mm
d
T = 3π k N-m k = i = 0.6
J = π × 10-6 m4 do
T τ Gθ τmax = 84 N/mm2
= = 2πNT
J  do  l P=
2 60
 
2π × 500 × T
3π × 103 × 0.05 45 × 103 =
τ= 60
π ×10−6 T = 859.87 N-m = 859.43 × 103 N-mm
τ = 150 MPa For hollow shaft
50. Maximum shear stress developed in a solid 16T
circular shaft subjected to pure shear is 240 τmax =
  d 4 
MPa. If the diameter of the shaft is doubled, πd 3o 1 −  i  
then the maximum shear stress developed due   d o  
to the same torque is 16 × 859.43 × 103
(a) 120 MPa (b) 60 MPa 84 =
πd 3o [1 − 0.64 ]
(c) 30 MPa (d) 15 MPa
TNPSC AE 2014 d3o = 59896.95
Ans. (c) : We know that, For solid shaft do = 39.12 mm
1 di = 23.47 mm
τ∝ 3
d 53. The torque (T) transmitted by sleeve coupling
3 3 with D and d as outer and inner diameters,
τ 2  d1  d respectively, is given by:
Then =  = 
τ1  d 2   2d  π  D4 − d4 
(a) T = × τ  
1 8  D 
τ 2 = 240 ×
8 π  D4 − d 4 
(b) T = × τ 
τ 2 = 30 MPa 12  D 

543
 π  D4 − d 4  58. During crushing failure of key, The area under
(c) T = × τ  crushing is–
16  D  (a) width
π  D4 − d 4  (b) Length
(d) T = × τ  (c) both (1) and (2)
32  D 
(d) length and half of thickness
π  D4 − d 4  Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
(e) T = × τ 
64  D  Ans. (d) : When the key failure due to crushing, its
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) failure area under crushing is length and half of
Ans. (c) : Torque transmitted by sleeve coupling thickness (Due to given compressive force)
π  D4 − d 4  59. In clamp coupling, power is transmitted by
T=  ×τ means of–
16  D  (a) Friction force (b) Shear resistance
(c) Crushing resistance (d) Tear resistance
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : In, clamp coupling, power is transmitted by
means of frictional force and a key.
60. Maximum shear stress in the shaft if subjected
to combine twisting moment (Mt) and bending
moment (Mb)–
54. During shear failure of key. The area under 16
(a) (M b ) 2 + (M t ) 2
shear is πd 3
(a) width (b) Length 16
(c) both (1) and (2) (d) length and thickness (b) (M b ) 2 − (M t ) 2
πd 3
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper 32
Ans. (c) : A key failure, under shearing, the tangential (c) (M b ) 2 + (M t ) 2
shearing force acting at the circumference of the shaft. πd 3
F = Area resisting shearing × shear stress 32
(d) (M b ) 2 − (M t ) 2
ℓ = Length of key πd 3
w = width of key Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
F= ℓ×w×τ Ans. (a) : Maximum, shear stress in the shaft.
d 16
Torque, T = F. τmax = (M b ) 2 + (M t ) 2
2 πd 3
d 61. A square key is to be used to fix a gear to a 35
T = ℓ ×w.τ.
2 mm diameter shaft. The hub length of the gear
⇒ During shearing, key fail under area of both length & is 60 mm. Both the shaft and key are to be
width, as we see above. made of the same material, having the
55. A transmission shaft includes: allowable shear stress of 55 N/mm2. If the
(a) Counter Shaft (b) Line Shaft torque to be transmitted is 395 N.m, the
(c) Over Head Shaft (d) All of these minimum dimensions of key cross section in
SJVN ET 2013 mm is
Ans. (d) : A transmission shaft includes (a) 4.85 × 4.85 (b) 5.2 × 5.2
• Counter shaft (c) 7.35 × 7.35 (d) 8.43 × 8.43
• Line shaft (e) 6.84 × 6.84
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
• Overhead shaft
Ans. (e) : Given as,
56. The taper on cotter is usually–
(a) 1 in 24 (b) 1 in 8 l = 60 mm, d = 35 mm
(c) 1 in 100 (d) 1 in 48 τ = 55 N/mm2
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper T= 395 N-m
depth of key (t) = width of key (w)
Ans. (a) : The taper on cotter is usually varies (1 in 48
then,
to 1 in 24). Both (a) and (d) are correct.
d
57. Which of the following key transmits power in T = shear stress × shear area ×
a taper shaft? 2
(a) Barth key (b) Woodruff key 35
395 × 1000 = 55 × w × 60 ×
(c) Kennedy key (d) Tangent key 2
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper w = 6.8398 mm
Ans. (b) : Woodruff keys are used for tapered shaft. then cross - section of key = 6.839 × 6.839

544
62. A pulley is connected to a power transmission 65. The product of the tangential force acting on the
shaft of diameter 'd' by means of a rectangular shaft and its distance from the axis of the shaft
sunk key of width length 'l'. The width of the (i.e. radius of shaft) is known as :
key is taken as d/4. For full power (a) Bending moment (b) Twisting moment
transmission, the shearing strength of the key is (c) Torsional rigidity (d) None of the above
equal to the torsional shearing strength of the UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
shaft. The ratio of the length of the key to the Ans. (b) : The product of the tangential force acting on
diameter of the shaft (l/d)is the shaft and its distance from the axis of the shaft (i.e.,
π π radius) is known as twisting moment.
(a) (b) 66. Which one of the following key types is pressed
4 2 against the shaft for power transmission by
3π π friction between the key and the shaft?
(c) (d)
4 2 (a) Feather key (b) Square key
(e) π (c) Flat key (d) Saddle key
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift JWM 2017
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Ans. (b) : Shearing strength of key Ans. (d) : Saddle key is key which fits in the keyway
d  of the hub only and no keyway the shaft. It is likely to
F = τ  .l 
4  slip round the shaft under load.
Feather key is a parallel key which is faster to one part
d
Torque (T) = F . (Hub/shaft) with help of the screws.
2 Square key is key having square cross-section.
d  d Flat key is a taper key and having provision in the hub
= τ  .l  . only and will be floated on the shaft and shaft is hold by
4  2
mean of friction.
Torsional shearing
67. The holes in the flange coupling for coupling
T τ the two changes together by bolts are reamed
=
J r because it permits
T τ (a) equal sharing of load by bolts
= (b) avoidance of stress concentration
πd   d 
4
(c) avoidance of any injury during dismantling
   
 32   2  (d) less mere, tear and vibration
τ TNPSC AE 2018
T = π d3 × Ans. (a) : The holes in the flange coupling for coupling
16 the two changes together by bolts are reamed because it
For same strength permits equal sharing of load by bolts.
d  d τ 68. The type of joint used in cycle chain is
τ  .l  . = π d 3 ×
4  2 16 (a) Cotter joint (b) Knuckle joint
(c) Gib and cotter joint (d) Rivetted joint
l π TNPSC AE 2018
=
d 2 Ans. (b) : Knuckle joint - Knuckle joint is a type of
63. The distance between two parallel shafts is 18 mechanical joint used in structures, to connect to
mm and they are connected by an oldhams intersecting cylinderical, whose axes lie on the same plane.
coupling, the driving shaft revolves at 160 rpm. It permits some angular movement between the cylindrical
The maximum speed of sliding of the tongue is: rods. It is specially designed to withstand tensile loads.
(a) 0.302 m/s (b) 0.6 m/s 69. The type of coupling used for high torque and
(c) 3.2 m/s (d) 6 m/s low speed is
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 (a) Muff coupling
Ans. (a) : Vsliding = r.ω (b) Bushed pin flexible coupling
(c) Disc coupling
2 × π × 160
= 0.018 × = 0.3014 m/s (d) Oldham's coupling
60 TNPSC AE 2018
64. Which one of the following is a positive drive? Ans. (d) : Oldham's Coupling- An Oldham coupling
(a) Crossed flat belt drive (b) Rope drive has three discs, one coupled to the input, one coupled to
(c) V-belt drive (d) Chain drive the output and a middle disc that is joined to the first
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper two by tongue and groove. The tongue and groove on
Ans. (d) : Positive drive means movement without slip one side is perpendicular to the tongue and groove on
the other. The middle disc rotates around its centre at
such as the case in the linking between the crankshaft an
the same speed as the input and output shafts. Its centre
the camshaft in the reciprocating engine, some positive traces a circular orbit, twice per rotation, around the
drive are chain drive, gear both come under positive midpoint between input and output shafts. Often spring
drive. are used to reduce backlash of the mechanism.
545
70. _______permits the motion to be transmitted 75. The shear at a point in a shaft subjected to a
from the gear box output shaft to the pinion torque is
shaft of the differential, irrespective of the (a) directly proportional to the polar moment of
inclination of the drive shaft. inertia and to the distance of the point from
(a) Riveted joints (b) Welded joints the axis
(c) Slip joints (d) Universal joints (b) directly proportional to the applied torque and
TNPSC AE 2017 inversely proportional to the polar moment of
Ans. (d) : Universal joints permits the motion to be inertia
transmitted from the gear box output shaft to the pinion (c) directly proportional to the applied torque and
shaft of the differential, irrespective of the inclination
polar moment of inertia
of the drive shaft.
(d) inversely proportional to the applied torque
71. Square key of side "d/4" each and length l is
and polar moment of inertia
used to transmit torque "T" from the shaft of
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
diameter "d' to the hub of a pulley. Assuming
the length of the key to be equal to the Ans : (b) :
thickness of the pulley, the average shear stress Torsion's equation
developed in the key is given by T Gθ τ T.R
(a) 4T/ld (b) 16T/ld2 = = ⇒ τ=
2 J l R J
(c) 8T/ld (d) 16T/ πd 3
APPSC AEE 2016 Where,
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I T = Torque
J = Polar moment of inertia
d
Ans. (c) : Shear area of the key = × l 76. Which of the following is a wrong statement?
4
(a) Key is generally used for transmitting
d
Torque transmit by key = T = Ft × rotational motion
2 (b) Cotter is generally employed for transmitting
axial motion
(c) The keys are loaded in shear
(d) The cotter have to withstand tensile or
compressive loads
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
d d Ans : (d) : The cotter have to withstand double shear
T = τ× ×ℓ×
4 2 and bending failure.
8T 77. In the assembly of pulley, key and shaft :
τ= 2
dℓ (a) Pulley is made weakest
72. In a butt or half-lap coupling, the sleeve is (b) Key is made weakest
normally fitted to the shafts by means of (c) Shaft is made weakest
______. (d) All the three are designed for equal strength
(a) Saddle key (b) Feather key OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
(c) Woodruff key (d) Sunk key
RPSC AE 2018
APPSC AEE 2016
UJVNL AE. 2016
Ans. (a) : In a butt or half-lap coupling, the sleeve is
RPSC AE 2016
normally fitted to the shafts by means of Saddle key.
Ans : (b) :
73. The following coupling is used to connect two
paralled shafts having distance between the Key is the weakest member in the assembly of shaft,
axis pulley and key, key acts as a safety device, wherever
(a) Muff coupling (b) Flange coupling there is excess load appears on the pulley key fails first
(c) Oldham's coupling (d) Hooke's joint and it keeps safer to shaft and pulley.
TSPSC AEE 2015 78. Match List –1 (Type of keys) with List–II
Ans. (c) : Coupling is used to connect two paralled (Characteristics) and select the correct answer
shafts having distance between the axis is called using the codes given below the lists :
Oldham's coupling. List–I List–II
74. Taper on the cotter and slot is provided– (A) Woodruff Key (i) Loose fitting, Light
(a) On both the sides (b) On one side only Duty
(c) On none of the sides (d) None of the above (B) Kennedy Key (ii) Heavy duty
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 (C) Feather Key (iii) Self-aligning
Ans. (b) : Taper on the cotter and slot is provided on (D) Flat Key (iv) Normal industrial
one side only. use

546
 (A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) Only (i) and (ii)
(a) (ii) (iii) (i)(iv) (c) Only (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (i) and (iii)
(b) (iii) (ii) (i)(iv) OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
(c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) Ans : (a) :
(d) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (i) The flanges of flexible couplings are made by gray
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I cast iron (FG 200) because of shock/vibration absorbing
Ans : (b) : capacity.
(A) Woodruff Key- It is semicircular key having (ii) The power is transmitted from driving flange to
circular portion in the shaft which can self align driven flange by shear resistance of pins connecting
according to taper in the hub and shaft. these flanges. Bending of pins is also checked.
(B) Kennedy Key- There are two keys set aligned 90º. (iii) Since rubber can absorb some misalignment of
This key strong in shear and crushing and used in heavy shafts, so it is used between surfaces of pin and flange
duty applications. hole.
(C) Feather Key- This is similar to square key and 81. Splines are used when :
fixed in one member of joint (shaft or hub) in such (a) Power to be transmitted is low
away that other member can move axially. (b) High rotational speeds are involved
(D) Flat Key- Most of industrial keys are industrial. (c) High torque is to be transmitted
79. Which of the following stresses are associated (d) There is need for axial relative motion
with the design of pins in bushed pin-type between the shaft and hub
flexible coupling? OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
(i) Bearing stress Ans : (d) : Splines- Splines are used to provide toqrue
(ii) Bending stress and speed from the shaft to the hub or vice-versa.
(iii) Axial tensile stress 82. Crankshaft and gears are made from
(iv) Transverse shear stress (a) Grey cast iron (b) White cast iron
Select the correct answer using the codes given (c) Nodular cast iron (d) None of these
below : Gujarat PSC AE 2019
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) Ans : (c): Crankshafts are made from forged steel or
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv) cast iron. Crankshafts for high volume, low load
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I production vehicles are generally constructed from
Ans : (d) : The free body diagram of pin in flexible Nodular cast iron.
coupling. 83. The coupling used to connect tow shafts with
large angular misalignment is :
(a) A Flange coupling
(b) An Oldham's coupling
(c) A Flexible bush coupling
(d) A Hooke's joint
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Portion ‘A’ is in driving flange and ‘B’ in driven
flanges so the pin is subjected to following stresses. Ans : (d) : Hooke’s joint is used to connect two
(i) Bearing stress on cylindrical surfaces A and B. intersecting shaft and used in automobile to connect
propeller shaft.
(ii) Bending stress because the forces from driving and
driven flanges are not collinear. A Hooke’s joint is used to connect two shafts, which are
intersecting at a small angle.
(iii) The transverse shear at common plane of surface A
and B. 84. A circular shaft is subjected to a torque T and
(iv) No axial stress at all. a Bending moment M. The ratio of maximum
shear stress to maximum bending stress is
80. Consider the following statements in respect of (a) 2 M/T (b) T/2M
flexible couplings :
(c) 2T/M (d) M/2T
(i) The flanges of flexible coupling are usually
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
made of grey cast iron FG200
(ii) In the analysis of flexible coupling, it is Ans : (b) : Maximum bending stress, σ = 32M
b
assumed that the power is transmitted by the πd 3
shear resistance of the pins 16T
(iii) Rubber bushes with brass lining are provided maximum shear stress, τ = 3
to absorb misalignment between the two πd
shafts τ T
Which of the statements given above are =
σ b 2M
correct?

547
85. A solid shaft is subjected to bending moment of 88. Two parallel shafts, the distance between
3.46kN-m and a torsional moment of 11.5kN- whose axes is small and variable may be
m. For this case, the equivalent bending connected by
moment and twisting moment are (a) gear drive (b) universal joint
(a) 7.73kN-m and 12.0kN-m (c) knuckle joint (d) Oldham's coupling
(b) 14.96kN-m and 12.0kN-m RPSC AE 2016
(c) 7.73kN-m and 8.04kN-m Ans : (d) Two parallel shaft, the distance between
(d) 14.96kN-m and 8.04kN-m whose axis is small and variable may be connected by
ESE 2018 Oldham's coupling
Ans. (a) : Given, Oldham's Coupling:- An Oldham's coupling is used
M = 3.46 kN-m for connecting two parallel shafts whose axes are at a
T = 11.5 kN-m small distance apart. The shafts are coupled in such a
Equivalent bending moment is given by way that if one shaft rotates, the other shaft also rotates
1
Me =  M + M 2 + T 2  at the same speed.
2 89. Oldham's coupling is used to connect two
1
= 3.46 + ( 3.46 ) + (11.5 )  shafts which
2 2

2 (a) have lateral misalignment

= 7.734 kN-m (b) have two axes intersecting
Equivalent twisting moment is given by (c) have lateral movements during power
Te = M 2 + T 2 transmission
(d) changes axes during power transmission
= ( 3.46 ) + (11.5 ) = 12 kN-m
2 2
RPSC AE 2016
86. A solid shaft is to transmit 20 kW at 200 r.p.m. Ans : (a) Shaft coupling are divided into two main
The ultimate shear stress for the shaft material group as follows
is 360 MPa and the factor of safety is 8. The 1. Rigid coupling:- It is used to connect two shafts
diameter of the solid shaft shall be which are perfectly aligned
(a) 42 mm (b) 45 mm (a) sleeve or muff coupling
(c) 48 mm (d) 51 mm (b) split - muff coupling
ESE 2017 (c) Flange coupling
Ans. (c) : Given, 2. Flexible Coupling:- It is used to connect two shafts
P = 20 kW = 20 × 103 W having both lateral and angular misalignments
N = 2000 rpm (a) Bushed pin type coupling
τu = 360 MPa (b) Universal coupling
60P 60 × 20 3 (c) Oldham coupling.
T= = = kN − m
2πN 2π × 200 π 90. Crowning of flat pulleys is generally done
3 (a) to reduce belt friction
16 × (b) to prevent belt joint from damaging the belt
16T τu π = 360
τ= 3 = = surface
πd FS π× d 3 8
d = 47.6 mm (c) to prevent belt from running off the pulley
87. When the shafts are slightly misaligned then (d) in case of cross belt drives only
most suitable coupling to connect them is: RPSC AE 2016
(a) Rigid coupling (b) Flexible coupling Ans : (c) Crowning of flat pulleys is generally done to
(c) Oldham coupling (d) None of these prevent belt from running off the pulley.
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) 91. A shaft can safely transmit 90 kW while
Ans : (b) rotating at a given speed. If the diameter of the
(i) When the shafts are slightly misaligned then most shaft is doubled and speed is halved the
suitable coupling to connect them is flexible previous shaft, the power that can be
coupling. transmitted by new shaft is
(ii) When the shafts are not slightly misaligned the most (a) 360 kW (b) 90 kW
suitable coupling to connect them is rigid coupling. (c) 720 kW (d) 180 kW
Classification of coupling BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
↓ Ans : (a) We know that
↓ ↓ 2πNT 2πN πd3 τ
Rigid coupling Flexible Coupling P= = ×
(i) Muff coupling (i) Bushed pin coupling 60 60 16
(ii) Split muff coupling (ii) Oldhum's Coupling P ∝ N,d 3

(iii) Flang rigid coupling (iii) Universal coupling P = kNd3

548
If diameter of the shaft is double and halved the speed. Ans : (b) Woodruff key is used for low torque at high
N speed.
d2 = 2d1, N2 = 1
2 The advantages of woodruff key are as follows:
P  N  d 
3 3 (i) The woodruff key can be used on tapered shaft
1
∴ 1 =  1  1  = 2   = 4 because it can align by slight rotations in the seat.
P2  N 2  d 2  2 (ii) The extra depth of key in the shaft prevents its
P2 = 4P1 = 4 × 90 = 360 kW tendency to slip over the shaft.
92. ............ is a cylindrical rod threaded at both the 95. Which sunk key is made from a segment of a
ends and left plain in the middle. circular disc of uniform thickness. known as
(a) Shaft (b) Spindle (a) Feather key (b) Kennedy key
(c) stud (d) Bolt (c) Woodruff key (d) Saddle key
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (c) Stud is a cylindrical rod threaded at both the Ans : (c)
ends left plain in the middle.
Studs:- A stud is a round bar threaded at both ends. One
end of the stud is screwed into a tapped hole of the parts
to be fastened, while the other end receives a nut on it.
Studs are chiefly used instead of tap bolts for securing
various of covers e.g. covers of engine and pump Sunk key is made from a segment to a circular disc of
cylinders. uniform thickness, known as wood ruff key.
93. The shearing area of a Key of length 'L' 96. When large quantities of bolts are to be
breadth 'b' depth 'h' is equal to purchased the quantity is usually specified in
(a) b X h (b) L X h terms of
(a) number (b) volume
h
(c) L X b (d) L X (c) weight (d) packets
2 RPSC AE 2016
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (c) When large quantities of bolt are to be
Ans : (c) purchased the quantity is usually specified in terms of
weight.
97. Which of the following steel key is usually
strong in failure by shear and crushing?
(a) rectangular (b) square
(c) circular (d) flat
Ans : (b) Square key is usually strong in failure by
shear and crushing.
T= Torque transmitted by the shaft
b = Width of key
L = length of key
h = depth of key
Torque transmitted by the shaft
d
T = F×
2
"The industrial practice is to use a square key with sides
d
T = L×b× equal to one-quarter of the shaft diameter and length at
2 least 1.5 times the shaft diameter
According to this above figure shear plan area = L × b b = h = d/4 and l = 1.5 d
h b = width of key (mm)
Crushing or Bearing area = L × h = height of key (mm)
2
l = length of key (mm)
94. Woodruff key is used for :
d = diameter of shaft . (mm)
(a) Heavy torque at high speeds
98. Sleeve of muff coupling is designed as a
(b) Low torque at high speeds
(a) thin vessel (b) thick vessel
(c) Heavy torque at low speeds (c) solid shaft (d) hollow shaft
(d) Low torque at low speeds RPSC AE 2016
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
549
Ans : (d) Sleeve of muff coupling is designed as a 102. Which key is preferred for the condition where
hollow shaft. Muff Coupling is also called sleeve a large amount of impact torque is to be
coupling or box coupling. It is a type of rigid coupling. transmitted in both direction of rotation?
(a) Woodruff key (b) Feather key
(c) Gib head key (d) Tangent key
UJVNL AE 2016
Ans : (d) The tangent keys are fitted in pair at right
angles. Each key is to withstand torsion in both
direction. These are used in large heavy duty shafts.
103. The thickness of cotter is generally taken equal
to (where. d is the diameter of two rods which
99. Diameter of washer is generally taken are connected by cotter joint)
(a) equal to nut size (a) 0.15 d (b) 0.3 d
(b) less than nut size (c) 0.4 d (d) 0.5 d
(c) bigger than nut size Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
(d) any size irrespective of nut size Ans. (b) : Cotter is a flat wedge shaped piece of
RPSC AE 2016 rectangular cross-section and its width tapered. The
Ans : (c) Diameter of washer is generally taken bigger taper varies from 1 in 48 to 1 in 24. A cotter joint is a
than nut size temporary fastening & is used to connect rigidly two
100. The initial tension of M30 bolt used for a fluid Co-axial rods or bars which are subjected to axial
tight joint is tensile or compressive forces. The thickness of the
(a) 852 N (b) 852000 N cotter is generally taken equal to 0.31d.
(c) 8520 N (d) 85200 N 104. Consider the following
TSPSC AEE 2015 1. Bearing pressure 2. Bending moment
Ans : (d) The initial tension of M30 bolt used for a fluid 3. Torsional moment 4. Axial tensile force
tight joint is 85200 N. 5. Axial compressive force
101. To design the bolts of a flange coupling, the Of the above, which is used for design of
crushing stress induced in the bolts is equal to fulcrum pin of lever
2T 2T (a) 1 (b) 2
(a) (b)
d1 t f nDp d1 t f Dp (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4
2T 4T (e) 2, 3 and 5
(c) (d) CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
d1nD p d1 t f nD p
Ans. (a) : Bearing pressure is used for design of
(Where d1 = Nominal diameter of bolt; fulcrum pin of lever.
Dp = Pitch circle diameter ;
n = no. of bolts; 3. Design of Threaded Joints and
tf = thickness of flange
TSPSC AEE 2015 Power Screws
Ans : (a)
105. The eye bolts are used for
(a) transmission of power
(b) lifting and transporting heavy machines
(c) absorbing shocks and vibrations
(d) locking devices
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (b) : The eye bolts are used for lifting and
Let, n = number of bolts transporting heavy machines.
Total force
F = n F1 106. The most important dimension is the design of
nut is
F
F1 = (a) inside diameter (b) height
n (c) pitch diameter (d) thread size
2T 2T RPSC AE 2016
F= ⇒ F1 =
DP n.DP Ans : (b) The most important dimension in the design
F1 2T of nut is height.
Crushing stress σ c = = 107. Bolts are designed on the basis of
d1 × t F d1 × t F × n × DP
(a) direct tensile stress
F1 = Force acting on the bolt (b) direct shear stress
tF = Thickness of Flange
(c) direct compressive stress
550
 (d) direct bearing stress (c) Shear only
RPSC AE 2016 (d) Compression and shear both
Ans : (a) Bolts are designed on the basis of direct UJVNL AE 2016
tensile stress. Ans : (b) When a nut is tightened by placing a washer
108. The function of a washer is to below it the bolt will be subjected to tension only.
(a) Provide cushioning effect 112. Which of the following is true for self-locking
(b) Provide bearing area screw?
(c) Absorb shocks and area (a) The coefficient of friction is equal to or
(d) Provide smooth surface in place of rough greater than the tangent of the helix angle.
surface (b) The coefficient of friction is half of the
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 tangent of the helix angle.
RPSC AE 2016 (c) The coefficient of friction is twice of the
Ans. (b) : The most important function of washer is to tangent of the helix angle
provide bearing area and washers are normally specified (d) The coefficient of friction is less than the
by their hole diameters. tangent of the helix angle.
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
109. The torque required to tighten the bolt
comprises of the Ans. (a) : If friction angle (φ) is greater than helix
(a) torque required in overcoming thread friction angle(α), the torque required to lower the load will
only positive, indicating that an effort is applied to lower the
(b) torque required in inducing the pre-load only load. Such a screw is known as self-locking screw.
(c) torque required in overcoming l
φ>α µ>
circumferential hoop stress πd m
(d) torque required in overcoming thread friction
and inducing the pre-load and also the torque 113. The frictional torque for trapezoidal thread at
required to overcome collar friction between mean radius while raising load is given by (W =
the nut and the washer load, dm = mean diameter, φ = angle of friction,
ESE 2019 α = Helix angle)
Ans. (d) : The torque required to tighten a bolt Wd m (µ secθ + tanα )
(a) •
comprises of 2 (1 − µ secθ.tanα)
! The part required to overcome thread friction. Wd m (µ + tanα )
! The part required to induce preload or pretension in (b) •
2 (1 − tanα)
the bolt.
! The part required to overcome collar friction between Wd m (µ secθ − tanα )
(c) •
the nut and the washer. 2 (1 + µ secθ.tanα)
110. The shock-absorbing capacity (resilience) of Wd m (µ − tanα )
(d) •
bolts can be increased by 2 (1 + tanα)
(a) increasing the shank diameter above the core Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
diameter of threads Ans. (a) : Expression, to find the frictional torque for
(b) reducing the shank diameter to the core trapezoidal thread at mean radius, while raising the load
diameter of threads is given by,
(c) decreasing the length of shank portion of the W = Load
bolt dm = mean diameter
(d) pre-heating of the shank portion of the bolt φ = angle of friction
ESE 2019 α = Helix angle
TPSC AE. 2015
Wd (µ secθ + tanα )
MPPSC AE. 2016 T= m•
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I 2 (1 − µ secθ.tanα)
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II 114. A bolt of M 24 × 2 means that–
Ans. (b) : The shock absorbing capacity of bolts can be (a) the pitch of the thread is 24 mm and depth is
increased by reducing the shank diameter of the bolt to 2 mm
the core diameter of threads. (b) the cross-sectional area of the threads is 24
This can be done either by reducing diameter of mm 2
unthread part or making hole in thread part along axis. (c) the nominal diameter of bolt is 24 mm and
This concept is used in bolt of uniform strength. the pitch is 2 mm.
111. When a nut is tightened by placing a washer (d) the effective diameter of the bolt is 24 mm
below it, the bolt will be subjected to: and there are two threads per cm
(a) Compression only (b) Tension only Nagaland CTSE 2017, 2016 Ist Paper

551
Ans. (c) : A, bolt M 24×2 means, where 'M' stand for
metric and number 24 is for nominal diameter or major
diameter of bolt in (mm) & '2' is the pitch of the threads
in (mm).
115. The frictional torque for square thread at
mean radius while raising load is given by (W =
load, dm=mean diameter, φ = angle of friction,
α = Helix angle)–
Wd m
(a) tan(φ + α)
2 Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Wd m (µ + tan α)
(b)
2 (1 + tan α )
Wd m (µ sec θ − tan α)
(c)
2 (1 + µ sec θ.tan α)
Wd m (µ − tan α )
(d)
2 (1 + tan α)
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : For raising a load at a given force, the given
torque of square thread will be,
M t = WR m tan(φ + α)
dm
Mt = W tan(φ + α )
2 shear stress.
116. Multiple threads are used for–
(a) high efficiency
(b) high mechanical advantage
(c) low efficiency for self-locking
(d) high load carrying capacity
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : Multiple threads are used for high efficiency.
117. power screws for transmission of power should
have-
(a) high efficiency
(b) low efficiency
(c) self-locking characteristic
(d) over hauling characteristic
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : power screws for transmission of power
should have high efficiency.
118. A cup is provided in screw Jack–
(a) to reduce the friction
(b) to prevent rotation of load
(c) to increases load capacity
(d) to increase efficiency
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (b) : A cup is provided in screw Jack to prevent
rotation of load.
119. The coupler of turnbuckle has-
(a) right hand threads on both ends
(b) left hand threads on both ends
(c) left hand threads on one end and right hand
threads on other end
(d) no threads
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
552
Ans. (c) : The coupler of turnbuckle has left hand
threads on one end and right hand threads on other end.
it is subjected to tensile loading.
120. Eyebolts are used–
(a) to prevent relative motion between two parts
(b) to absorb shocks and vibrations
(c) to lift and transport machines and heavy
objects on shop floor
(d) to prevent loosening of threads in bolted
assembly
Ans. (c) : Eyebolts are used to lift and transport
machines and heavy objects on shop floor.
121. While designing screw threads, adequate length
of engaged threads between the screw and nut
is provided so as to prevent failure of threads
due to–
(a) direct shear stress
(b) torsional shear stress
(c) tensile stress
(d) compressive stress
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : While designing screw threads, adequate
length of engaged threads between the screw and nut is
provided so as to prevent failure of threads due to direct
122. When a nut is tightened by placing a washer
below it, the threads of bolt are subjected to–
(a) direct shear stress
(b) tensional shear stress
(c) tensile stress
(d) compressive stress
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (c) : When a nut is tightened by placing a washer
below it, the threads of bolt are subjected to tensile
stress.
123. Allen key is used to tighten-
(a) cap screw with hexagonal head
(b) cap screw with fillister head
(c) cap screw with hexagonal socket head
(d) cap screw with flat head
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (c) : Allen key or hex key is used to tighten cap
screw with hexagonal socket head.
124. The include angle in Acme threads is
(a) 30 degree (b) 29 degree
(c) 31 degree (d) 26 degree
(e) 22 degree
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Ans. (b) : There are three main classes of Acme thread
form : General purpose, centralizing and stud acme. The
general purpose and centralized thread form have a
nominal depth of thread of 0.50 × pitch and have a 29º
included thread angle.
125. A stud
(a) has head at one end and other end fits into a
tapped hole
(b) has a head at the one end and a nut fitted to
the other end
 (c) has pointed threads 131. The normal lead, in a worm having multiple
(d) requires locking nuts start threads, is given by
(e) has both the ends threaded (a) lN = l/cos λ (b) lN = l.cos λ
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift (c) lN = l (d) lN = l tan λ
Ans. (e) : A metal rod or shaft with threads on both the TNPSC AE 2013
end is called a stud. Ans. (b) : The term normal pitch is used for a warm
126. A bench vice is provided with: having single start threads. In case of a warm having
(a) Vee threads (b) BSW threads multiple starts threads, the term normal lead is used.
(c) Buttress threads (d) Acme threads l n = l cos λ
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper λ → lead angle
Ans. (d) : Acme threads
127. Setscrews are : 132. Taper parallel method and Rollers method are
(a) Small screws conveniently used to measure
(b) Headless screws (a) Major diameter of External Thread
(c) Used to prevent relative motion between (b) Minor diameter of External Thread
parts (c) Major diameter of Internal Thread
(d) Self-threading (d) Minor diameter of Internal Thread
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (c) Setscrews is used to prevent relative motion Ans. (d) : Taper parallel method and Rollers method are
between two parts. (eg. between hub and the conveniently used to measure minor diameter of
shaft in small power transmission)- it is internal thread.
headless and subjected to only compressive 133. The maximum efficiency of a screw jack is ........
force only.
1 − sin φ 1 + sin φ
128. Screws used for power transmission should (a) (b)
have 1 + sin φ 1 − sin φ
(a) fine threads (b) strong teeth 1 − tan φ 1 + tan φ
(c) (d)
(c) low efficiency (d) high efficiency 1 + tan φ 1 − tan φ
JPSC AE PRE 2019 RPSC AE 2018
Ans. (d) : Screws used for power transmission should TNPSC AE 2013
have high efficiency. Ans. (a) : Efficiency of screw jack
The power screws (also known as translation screws)
tan α
are used to convert rotary motion into translatory η=
motion. tan(α + φ )
• A screw is said to be overhauling screw, if the friction (sin α / cos α )
angle (φ) is less than helix angle (α). The efficiency of η=
 (tan α + tan φ ) 
overhauling screws is more than 50%.  1 − tan α .tan φ 
• A screw is said to be self locking screw if the friction  
angle is more than helix angle. The efficiency of self sin α
locking screws is less than 50%.
[1 − tan α .tan φ ]
= cos α
129. The condition for self-locking for power screws [ tan α + tan φ ]
having square threads is
sin α  sin α sin φ 
(a) µ ≥ tan(λ ) (b) µ ≤ tan(λ ) 1− ×
cos α  cos α cos φ 
(c) µ ≥ {tan(λ )}−1 (d) µ ≤ {tan(λ )}−1 =
 sin α sin φ 
Gujarat PSC AE 2019  cos α + cos φ 
 
Ans : (a) : The condition for self-locating for power
sin α
screws having square thread is [ cos α .cos φ − sin α .sin φ ]
µ ≥ tan ( λ ) = cos α
[sin α .cos φ + sin φ .cos α ]
130. The resilience of a bolt may be increased by sin α cos α .cos φ − sin α .sin φ 
(a) increasing its shank diameter =  sin α .cos φ + sin φ .cos α 
(b) increasing its length cos α 
(c) decreasing its shank diameter 2sin α × cos(α + φ )
=
(d) decreasing its lengths 2 cos α × sin(α + φ )
TNPSC AE 2013 sin(2α + φ ) − sin φ
Ans. (b) : The resilience of a bolt may be increased by = ...(1)
sin(2α + φ ) − sin φ
increasing its length.

553
For max. efficiency Ans. (a) : The effort required at the mean radius to raise
sin(2α + φ ) = 1 the load (w) is square threaded screw is given by
π P = W tan (α + φ)
2α + φ = sin −1 (1) =
2 136. An eye bolt is to be used lifting a load of 70 kN
π and the tensile stress is not to exceed 100 MPa.
2α = −φ The core diameter of the bolt will be given by:
2 1 1
π φ  2100  2  2800  2
α= − (a)   (b)  
4 2  π   π 
Putting this value in equation (1) and we get- 1 1

1 − sin φ  210  2  280  2

ηmax = (c)   (d)  
1 + sin φ  π   π 
134. For self locking of the screw, which of the CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
following is correct? Ans. (b) : Given load P = 70 kN = 70 × 103 N
(a) Coefficient of friction > tangent of helix angle Tensile stress σt = 100 MPa
(b) Coefficient of friction < tangent of helix angle Load on the bolt
(c) These is no relation between coefficient of π
P = × ( dc ) × σt
2
friction and tangent of helix angle for the
4
screw to be self locking
Where dc is the core diameter
(d) Efficiency of self locking square thread
power screw is always greater than 50% π
70 × 103 = × d c2 ×100
(e) Tangent of helix angle is always zero in self 4
locking screw 2800
CGPSC AE 2014- I ⇒ dc =
π
Ans. (a) : Self locking screw- The torque required to
lower the load can be obtained by 137. The mean die of screw jack having pitch 10
Wd m mm is 50 mm. A load of 20 kN is lifted to the
T= tan ( φ − α ) dist. of 170 mm. Find the work done in lifting
2 the load when the load rotates with the
φ → friction angle screwing. The external and internal dia. of the
α → Load angle bearing surface of the loose head are 60 mm
If φ < α, the torque required to lower the load and 10 mm. resp. Take µ = 0.08.
(a) 72.25 N-m (b) 31.85 N-m
is negative. It indicates a condition that no force is
(c) 7718 N-m (d) 10025 N-m
required to lower the load. The load it self will being to
TNPSC AE 2018
turn the screw and descend down, unless a restraining
torque is applied. This condition is also called Ans. (c) :
overhauling of the screw. 138. The efficiency of a power screw is maximum
If φ ≥ α, then a positive torque is required to when the lead angle is ...............(where ϕ is
lower the load under this condition, the load will not friction angle)
turn the screw and will not descend on its own unless (a) π/2 − ϕ / 2 (b) π/2 − ϕ
an effort p is applied. In this case, the screw is said to be (c) π/4 − ϕ / 4 (d) π/4 − ϕ / 2
'self-locking'.
"A screw will be self-locking if the coefficient APPSC AEE 2016
of friction is equal to or greater than the tangent of the π φ
helix angle". Ans. (d) : At α =  − 
 4 2
135. The effort required at the mean radius to raise Efficiency of a power screw is maximum.
the load (W) in square threaded screw is given
1 − sin φ
as: [rm = mean radius, α= helix angle, φ = ηmax =
friction angle] 1 + sin φ
(a) W tan ( α + φ ) (b) W rm tan ( α + φ ) 139. The angle of an ACME thread is
__________degrees.
W
(c) W rm tan ( α − φ ) (d) (a) 19 (b) 29
πrm tan ( α + φ ) (c) 49 (d) 69
W rm tan ( α + φ ) APPSC AEE 2016
(e) Ans. (b) : ACME Thread – 29 o
tan α
CGPSC AE 2014- I Trapezoidal Thread – 30o

554
140. When a nut is tightened by placing a washer 145. A screw is specified by its
below it, the bolt will be subjected to the (a) major diameter (b) minor diameter
following type of loads (c) pitch (d) pitch diameter
(a) compression (b) tension JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
(c) shear (d) combined loads Ans : (a) : A screw is specified by its major diameter.
TSPSC AEE 2015 146. Which of the following screw threads does not
Ans. (b) : When a nut is tightened by placing a washer have a symmetric section?
below it, the bolt will be subjected to tension loads. (a) Buttress (b) Square
141. The effort required to lift a load W on a screw (c) Whitworth (d) Acme
jack with helix angle α and angle of friction φ is BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
equal to. Ans : (a) : Buttress threads does not have symmetric
(a) w(tan α + φ ) (b) w(tan α − φ ) section.
(c) w cos(α + φ ) (d) w sin(α + φ ) 147. What is the efficiency of a self-locking power
screw?
TNPSC 2019 (a) 70% (b) 60%
TNPSC AE 2013 (c) 55% (d) <50%
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans. (a) : The effort required to lift a load W on a screw Ans : (d) :
jack with helix angle α and angle of friction φ is equal The efficiency of screw jack
to w(tan α + φ ) . tan α
η=
tan (φ + α )
142. For self locking of screws the efficiency cannot For self locking
be more than φ≥α
(a) 40% (b) 50% tan φ
(c) 100% (d) 20% η≤
tan 2 φ
TSPSC AEE 2015
tan α 1 − tan 2 φ
Ans. (b) : For self locking of screws the efficiency ≤ ≤
cannot be more than 50%.  2 tan φ  2
1 − tan 2φ 
143. The efficiency of screw jack is  
tan(α + φ ) tan α 1 1 2
(a) (b) ≤ − tan φ
tan α tan(α + φ ) 2 2
in ideal case i.e. zero friction
tan(α − φ ) tan α φ=0
(c) (d)
tan α tan(α − φ ) 1
η ≤ −0
TNPSC 2019 2
TNPSC AE 2013 η = 0.5 = 50%
max
APPSC AEE 2016
148. Which one of the following is the value of helix
Ans. (b) : The efficiency of screw jack is given as angle for maximum efficiency of a square
tan α Ideal effort threaded screw?
η S.J. = =
tan ( α + φ ) Actual effort [φ = tan –1µ]
A screw will be self locking if the friction angle (a) 45º + φ (b) 45º – φ
is greater than helix angle or coefficient of friction is (c) 45º + φ/2 (d) 45º – φ/2
greater than of helix tangent of helix angle. OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
µ ( or ) tan φ> tan α Ans : (d) :
The schematic of a helix along with various parameters,
144. The square threads are usually found in– The expression for efficiency
(a) spindle of bench vices sin ( 2α + φ ) − sin φ
(b) railway carriage coupline η=
(c) feed mechanism of machine tools sin ( 2α + φ ) + sin φ
(d) screw cutting lathes Where α- is helix angle and φ is friction angle which is
RPSC 2016 constant.
Ans : (c) Square thread– They have normally very high ∴For maximum value of efficiency ‘η’ sin (2α + φ)
efficiency and hence they are widely used for must be maximum
transmission of power in either direction. Such type of π
threads are usually found on the feed mechanism of So, 2α + φ =
machine tools. 2

555
∴ Helix angle- 153. If the angle of repose is 30°, the maximum
1π  efficiency of inclined plane for motion up the
α =  −φ  plane is :
2 2  (a) 50% (b) 33.3%
π φ (c) 75% (d) Not possible to
α= − find
4 2
Maximum efficiency HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
1 − sin φ Ans : (b) Angle of repose = 30°
ηmax = Maximum efficiency of inclined plane for motion.
1 + sin φ
1 − sin θ
149. A metric thread of pitch 2 mm and thread ηmax =
1 + sin θ
angle 60° is inspected for its pitch diameter
using the 3-wire method. The indicated 1 − sin 30
ηmax =
diameter of the wire will be nearly 1 + sin 30
(a) 0.85 mm (b) 1.05 mm ηmax = 33.3%
(c) 1.15 mm (d) 2.05 mm 154. The maximum efficiency of a screw jack
ESE 2017 provided with square threads and angle of
P friction 30° will be
Ans. (c) : Wire diameter (d) = (a) 25% (b) 33%
θ
2cos   (c) 40% (d) 50%
2 RPSC AE 2016
2
= = 1.15 mm 1 − sin θ
 60  Ans : (b) ηmax =
2cos   1 + sin θ
 2 
θ = angle of friction.
150. Recirculating ball screws are used because
1 − sin 30
(a) they are easy to manufacture ηmax =
(b) power required for driving them is small due 1 + sin 30
to small friction ηmax = 0.33 OR 33%
(c) frictional resistance is more compared to 155. Which one of the following threads is having
ACME threads smallest included angle?
(d) variable friction present due to the (a) Acme thread (b) BSW thread
recirculating balls (c) Buttress thread (d) Unified thread
TNPSC AE 2014 HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
Ans. (b) : Recirculating ball screws are used because Ans : (a) Thread Angle
power required for driving them is small due to small Acme thread 29°
friction. BSW thread 55°
151. While designing a screw in a screw jack against Butters thread 45°
buckling failure, the end conditions for a screw Square thread 0°
are taken as 1
(a) both ends fixed BA thread 47 °
(b) both ends hinged 2
(c) one end fixed and other end hinged 156. The angle between the flanks of British
(d) one end fixed and other end free Standard Whitworth (BSW) thread is
TNPSC AE 2014 (a) 1250° (b) 47.5°
Ans. (d) : While designing a screw in a screw jack (c) 55° (d) 69°
against buckling failure, the end conditions for a screw (KPSC AE 2015)
are taken as one end fixed and other end free. Ans : (c) The angle between the flanks of British
152. On a double thread screw– Standard whitworth thread is 55°
(a) Lead = Pitch (b) Lead = 2 Pitch Thread Angle
(c) Lead = 1/3 Pitch (d) Lead = 9 Pitch Acme thread 29°
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper Butters thread 45°
Ans. (b) : On double thread screw, the lead (L) is equal Square thread 0°
to twice the pitch is called a two start thread. Trapezoidal thread 30°
L = nP 1
British Association 47 °
Lead = L 2
Pitch = P 157. In a metric thread designated by M12×1.5
specify that the thread has :
No.of start = n (a) cross sectional area 12 mm2 and depth 1.5
556
 (b) nominal diameter 12mm and pitch 1.5 Ans : (c) A lead screw with half nut mechanism in a
(c) nominal diameter 12 mm and number of lathe free to rotate in both direction, has Acme thread.
threads per mm is 1.5 Thread
(d) Pitch 1.5 and depth 12 mm
(KPSC AE. 2015)
v-thread Square thread
Ans : (b) In a metric thread designated by M12×1.5
i) BSW → 55° Square thread - 0°
specify that the thread has
ii) BA → 471/2° Knuckle thread - No angle
(i) Nominal diameter =12mm
iii) Metric thread → 60° Acme thread - 29°
(ii) Pitch = 1.5
iv) pipe thread → 55° Butters thread - 45°
158. On a triple start, thread screw
162. Ball bearing type screws are found in following
(a) Lead = pitch (b) Lead = 3× pitch application
(c) Lead = (1/2) × pitch (d) Lead = 9× pitch (a) Screw jack (b) Aero plane engines
MPPSC AE 2016 (c) Crane (d) Steering mechanism
UJVNL AE 2016 Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Ans : (b) Lead = n × pitch Ans. (d) : Ball bearing type screws used in aircraft and
where n = number of start missiles to move control surfaces, especially for electric
on a triple start, thread Screw fly by wire, and in automobile power steering to
Lead = 3×pitch translate rotary motion from an electric motor to axial
on a double start, thread Screw motion of the steering rack.
Lead = 2×pitch 163. Which of the following screw thread is used for
159. ......... Thread has an inclined angle of 29o : transmitting power in either direction?
(a) Acme (b) Buttress (a) square threads (b) trapezoidal threads
(c) British Association (d) Square (c) Buttress threads (d) Both (1) and (2)
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans : (a) Acme thread has an inclined angle of 290. Ans. (d) : Both square threads and trapezoidal threads
Thread Angle used for transmitting power in either direction.
Square thread 00 164. The maximum efficiency of a screw jack having
Buttress thread 450 square threads and friction angle of 30° will be
British Association 47.50 (a) 11 % (b) 20 %
Acme thread 290 (c) 30 % (d) 33 %
Trapezoidal thread 300 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
160. One of the following power screws transmit Ans. (d) : Given (friction angle φ = 300)
power in one direction only : The maximum efficiency of the screw jack
TNPSC AE 2018 1 − sin φ
ηmax =
(a) Buttress thread (b) Acme tread 1 + sin φ
(c) Square thread (d) Trapezoidal thread 1 − sin 300
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I =
1 − sin 300
Ans : (a) Buttress thread power screws transmit power
1
in one direction only. 1−
Buttress thread:– It is used in vices. It combines the = 2
1
advantage of square and trapezoidal threads. 1+
It is used where a heavy axial force acts along the screw 2
axis in one direction only. 1/ 2 1 2
= = + = 0.33 = 33 %
Advantage:– 3/ 2 2 3
(i) It has higher efficiency compared with trapezoidal 165. The motion of a nut on a threaded bolt is
thread. (a) Helical (b) Plane
(ii) Thread milling machine is used to manufacture it. (c) Spherical (d) None of the above
(iii) Stronger than square and trapezoidal thread tooth. UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
161. A lead screw with half nut mechanism in a Ans. (a) : Helical
lathe, free to rotate in both directions, has 166. Knuckle joint is used to transmit which one of
(a) V-threads the following type of load?
(b) Whitworth threads (a) Compressive (b) Bending
(c) Acme threads (c) Shear (d) Tensile
(d) British standard threads UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
UJVNL AE 2016 Ans. (d) : Tensile

557
 167. If the lead angle of a worm is 22½º, then the 173. In a butt welded joint, the size of weld is the
helix angle will be throat of the weld
(a) 22½º (b) 30º (a) 0.5 time (b) equal to
(c) 45º (d) 67½º (c) 2 times (d) double
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
Ans. (d) : 67½º Ans : (b) : In case of butt joint, the length of leg or size
168. The motion of a nut on a threaded bolt is of weld is equal to throat thickness which is equal to
(a) plane (b) helical thickness of plates.
(c) spherical (d) none of the above 174. During crushing or bearing failure of riveted
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I joints
Ans. (b) : Helical (a) The holes in the plates become oval shaped
169. A Lewis bolt is a/an: and joints become loose
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) (b) There is tearing of the plate at an edge
(a) foundation bolt (b) stud bolt (c) The plates will crack in radial directions and
(c) eye bolt (d) tap bolt joints fail
Ans : (a) A Lewis bolt is an foundation bolt (d) The rivet heads will shear out by applied
170. The equivalent coefficient of friction for V stress
threads is ESE 2020
(a) equal to actual coefficient of friction Ans. (a) : Crushing strength of plate/rivet crushing
(b) less than actual coefficient of friction failure of the plate/rivet. This type of failure occurs
(c) greater than actual coefficient of friction when the compressive stress between the shank of the
rivet and the plate exceeds the yield stress in
(d) not related to the actual coefficient of friction
compression. The failure results in elongating the rivet
TNPSC AE 2014 hole in the plate and loosening of the joint.
Ans. (c) : The equivalent coefficient of friction for V
175. The double riveted joint with two cover plates
threads is greater than actual coefficient of friction.
for boiler shell is 1.5 m in diameter subjected to
171. Which of the following screw thread is used for steam pressure of 1 MPa. If the joint efficiency
jacks, vices and clamps? is 75%, allowable tensile stress in the plate is 83
2
(a) square threads MN/m , compressive stress is 138 MN/m2 and
(b) trapezoidal threads shear stress in the rivet is 55 MN/m2, the
(c) buttress threads diameter of rivet hole will be nearly
(d) acme threads (a) 8 mm (b) 22 mm
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper (c) 36 mm (d) 52 mm
Ans. (a) : Square thread is used for Jacks, vices and ESE 2020
clamps are square threads. PD 1×1.5
Ans. (b) : t = + CA = + CA
2σper η 2σper
4. Design of Riveted and Welded
Joints t=
1×1.5
+ 2 = 14mm ≥ 8mm
2 × 83 × 0.75
172. Transverse fillet welded joint are designed for Hence by Unwin’s formula
(a) tensile strength
(b) compressive strength d = 6 × t = 21 mm
(c) bending strength d h = 22 mm
(d) torsional strength 176. A steel specimen is subjected to the following
TNPSC 2019 principal stresses: 120 MPa tensile, 60 MPa
TNPSC AE 2013 tensile and 30 MPa compressive. If the
Ans. (a) : proportionality limit for the steel specimen is
250 MPa; the factor of safety as per maximum
shear stress theory will be nearly
(a) 1.3 (b) 1.7
(c) 2.3 (d) 2.7
ESE 2020
Ans. (b) : σ1 = 120 MPa
σ2 = 60 MPa
Transverse fillet welded joint are designed for σ3 = −30 MPa
tensile strength. Syt = 250 MPa

558
For maximum shear stress theory (c) Sleeve Weld (d) Socket Weld
Syt SJVN ET 2013
= σ1 − σ3 Ans. (a) : A backing ring is used inside the pipe joint
FOS
when making a butt weld.
Syt
FOS = 181. Rivets are made of the following types of the
σ1 − σ3 materials
250 (a) Hard (b) Tough
FOS = (c) Resilience (d) Malleable
120 + 30
FOS = 1.7 (e) Ductile
177. A 13 mm diameter tensile specimen has 50 mm CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
gauge length. If the load corresponding to the Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
0.2% offset of 6800 kg, the yield stress will be Ans. (e) : The material of the rivets must be tough and
nearly ductile. They are usually made of steel (low carbon steel
(a) 31 kg/mm2 (b) 43 kg/mm2 or nickel steel), brass, aluminium or copper.
2
(c) 51 kg/mm (d) 63 kg/mm2 182. A single riveted lap joint is used to join the two
ESE 2020 6 mm plates. If the tensile load acting on the
6800 plates in 50 kN, determine the diameter of the
Ans. (c) : Yield stress, σ = = 51.23kg / mm 2 rivet
π
× (13)
2
(a) 14 mm (b) 17 mm
4
(c) 22 mm (d) 19 mm
178. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is (e) 20 mm
75%, then the ratio of diameter of rivet to the CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
pitch is equal to:
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.25 Ans. (b) : We know that,
(c) 0.50 (d) 0.6 Unwin formula is given as
SJVN ET 2013 d= 6 t
Ans. (b) : Ratio of rivet diameter and pitch of rivet d = 6 × 6 = 14.696 mm
d From option 14.696 mm is greater than 14 mm and less
  = 0.25 than 17 mm. So answer should be 17 mm.
p
183. Diameter of rivet in terms of plate thickness 't'
is
(a) 2 t (b) 3 t
(c) 4 t (d) 6 t
(e) 8 t
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Ans. (d) : According to Unwin's formula, the relation
between the diameter of rivet hole (d) and the thickness
Tearing efficiency of riveted joints is the ratio of of plate (t) is given by d = 6 t .
minimum strength of the joint against failure by tension
shear to that of member without a joint. 184. A plate 100 mm wide and 10 mm thick is to be
welded to another plate by means of double
η tearing =
( p − d ) tσ t = p − d = 1 − d parallel fillets. The plates are subjected to a
ptσ t p p static load of 77 kN. Find the length of weld if
d the permissible shear in the weld does not
1 − = 0.75 exceed 55 MPa.
p
(a) 100 mm (b) 150 mm
d
= 1 − 0.75 = 0.25 (c) 200 mm (d) 250 mm
p TNPSC AE 2013
179. A rivet is specified by: Ans. (a) : Data given as-
(a) Shank Diameter (b) Length of Rivet b = 100 mm, h = 10 mm
(c) Type of Head (d) All of these P = 77 kN τ = 55 MPa
SJVN ET 2013 We know that, when there are two welds of
TNPSC AE 2017 equal length on two sides then,
Ans. (a) : A rivet is specified by shank diameter.
P = 2 ( 0.707 hℓτ )
180. A backing ring is used inside the pipe joint
when making a: 77 ×1000
ℓ=
(a) Butt Weld (b) Fillet Weld 2 × 0.707 × 10 × 55
559
 ℓ = 99 ≈ 100 mm Ans. (d) : Caulking and fullering- Caulking and
fullering are used to make tight contact between metal-
parts. Both are operations in riveting to ensure complete
tightness of parts. Caulking is done with the help of
caulking tool which is a blunt chisel and the fullering
flat chisel is used.

185. Single riveted lap joint for 8 mm thick plates

with 8.5 mm diameter rivets at a pitch of 50
mm. The stress in the plate is 110 N/mm2. The
tearing strength per pitch is
(a) 36.52 × 103 N (b) 7.48 × 103 N
3
(c) 37.84 × 10 N (d) 35.2 × 103 N
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (a) : Data given as-
t =8 mm, dr = 8.5 mm 188. Tensile strength of the plates for Butt joint is :
p = 50 mm, σt = 110 N/mm2 [σ = Permissible tensile stress, t = Thickness of
Tearing strength bar pitch plate, l = Length of weld, η = Efficiency of
Pt = ( p − d ) × t × σ t joint]
= (50 – 8.5) × 8× 110 σtl
(a) (b) σtlη
= 36.52 × 10 N 3 η
186. The distance between the edge of the plate to σtlη σtl
(c) (d)
the center line of the rivets in the nearest row is 2 2η
known as:
σt 2 l
(a) Pitch of riveted joint (e)
(b) Margin of riveted joint 2η
(c) Transverse pitch CGPSC AE 2014- I
(d) Diagonal pitch Ans. (b) : Tensile strength of the but joint
(e) Circular pitch
CGPSC AE 2014- I
Ans. (b) : The distance between the edge of the plate to
the centre line of the rivets in the nearest row is known
as margin of reveled joint. A joint may fail due to
tearing of the plate at an edge. This can be avoided by Ptheoritical = σ × t × L
keeping the margin (m = 1.5d), where d is the diameter
of the rivet hole. Pactual
η=
Ptheoretical
Pactual = Ptheoretical × η = σ × t × L × η
189. Which of the following welded joints is
designed for shear strength?
(a) transverse fillet welded joint
(b) parallel fillet welded joint
(c) butt welded joint
(d) transverse butt weld joint
187. Caulking and fullering processes as used:
APPSC AEE 2016
(a) to lubricate the bearing
SJVN ET 2013
(b) to reduce the friction between matting parts of
gears Ans. (b) : Parallel fillet welded joints are designed for
(c) to obtain self locking of screw shear strength.
(d) to obtain leak proof riveted joint 190. Tearing efficiency of rivet is given by (P = pitch
(e) to cool the bearing of rivets, d = diameter of river hold)
CGPSC AE 2014- I (a) (2p - d)/P (b) (p - d)/4P
TNPSC AE 2013 (c) (p - 2d)/P (d) (p - d)/P
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 TSPSC AEE 2015
TNPSC 2019 Ans. (d) :
560
191. In welded joint the throat of weld as compared Ans. (d) : A riveted joint may fail in the following ways.
to size of weld is (i) Tearing of the plate at an edge.
(a) about same size (b) about 0.7 times (ii) Tearing of the plate across a row of rivets.
(c) about 0.5 times (d) about 0.25 times (iii) Shearing of the rivets.
(iv) Crushing of the rivets.
TNPSC 2019
194. In combined parallel and transverse fillet
t welded joint
Ans. (b) : h = (a) the parallel portion will fail due to tension,
sin θ + cos θ
whereas the transverse portion will fail due to
shear
(b) the transverse portion will fail due to tension,
whereas the parallel portion will failure to
shear
(c) both parallel and transverse portions will fail
due to tension
(d) both parallel and transverse portions will fail
due to shear
ESE 2018
Ans. (d) : Transverse fillet weld is subjected to both
normal as well as shear stress and parallel fillet weld is
subjected to shear stress only but both transverse and
parallel fillet belt fails due to shear only because
transverse fillet weld are weak in shear.
Strength of transverse fillet weld is 1.17 times the
strength of parallel filled weld in shear.
shear load 195. The efficiency of a screw jack is maximum,
τ=
shear area when
P φ φ
= t → size of weld (a) α = 45o + (b) α = 45o −
l×h 2 2
(c) α = 90o + φ (d) α = 90o − φ
Where α = Helix angle and φ = Angle of friction.
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
P, l & t are constant, τ = f ( θ ) OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
dτ SJVN ET 2019
For τ max , =0 Ans : (b) Efficiency of screw jack
dθ
tan α
cos θ − sin θ = 0 ⇒ θ = 45 o ( η) =
tan ( α + φ )
t t sin α.cos(α + φ)
h= o o
= η=
sin 45 + cos 45 2 cos α.sin(α + φ)
h = 0.707 t sin α.cos(α + φ)
1− η = 1−
192. In fillet welded joint, the throat of weld as cos α.sin(α + φ)
compared to the size of weld is sin φ
(a) about 0.5 times (b) about 0.707 times 1− η =
cos α.sin(α + φ)
(c) about same size (d) about 2 times Multiplying and dividing by 2
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 2sin φ
1− η =
Ans. (b) : In fillet welded joint, the throat of weld as 2 cos α.sin(α + φ)
compared to the size of weld is about 0.707 times.
2sin φ
193. A riveted joint may fail by =
sin(2α + φ) + sin φ
1. tearing of the plate at an edge
Now for efficiency to be greatest, 1- η should be least
2. tearing of the plate across a row of rivets
i.e sin(2α + φ) should be maximum
3. shearing of rivets
Which of the above are correct? ∴ sin(2α + φ) = 1
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only 2α + φ = 90o
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 α = 45 − φ / 2
ESE 2018
561
196. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is Ans : (b)
60% then the ratio of pitch of diameter of rivet
is
(a) 0.20 (b) 0.33
(c) 0.40 (d) 0.50
(KPSC AE 2015) Leg

HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016

RPSC AE 2016

Ans : (c) Tearing efficiency ( ηt ) =

( p − d ) .t.σ t Leg

p.t.σ t S
Throat thickness ( t ) =
p−d 2
Tearing efficiency =
p S = leg length
d In a fillet welded joint, the weakest area of the weld is
0.60 = 1 − throat.
p
200. A boiler plate thickness is 20 mm. The rivet
d diameter will be
= 0.40
p (a) 10 mm (b) 20 mm
d = diameter of screw. (mm) (c) 30 mm (d) 40 mm
p = pitch of rivet (mm) RPSC AE 2016
197. A bench vice has the following type of thread Ans : (c) Plate thickness (t) = 20 mm.
(a) metric thread (b) acme thread dia of rivet = 6 t = 6 20 = 26.8mm ≈ 30mm 2
(c) buttress thread (d) square thread 201. Which of the following is a permanent
(KPSC AE 2015) fastening?
Ans : (c) A bench vice has butters thread. (a) bolts (b) keys
Buttress thread:- (c) screws (d) rivets
(i) It is used in vice. It combines the advantage of RPSC AE 2016
square and trapezoidal thread. Ans : (d) Rivets is a permanent fastening.
(ii) It is used where a heavy axial force acts along the Permanent fastenings:- The permanent fastenings are
those fastenings which can not be disassembled without
screw axis in one direction only.
destroying the connecting components. The examples of
Buttress thread Advantage:- permanent fastenings in order of strength are soldered,
(i) It has higher efficiency compared with trapezoidal brazed, welded and riveted joints.
thread 202. The rivet of a riveted joint is subjected to
(ii) Stronger than square and trapezoidal thread both. (a) Tensile stress (b) Compressive stress
198. The permissible stress in fillet weld is 100 (c) Shear stress (d) Complementary
N/mm2. The fillet weld has equal leg lengths of TSPSC AEE 2015
15 mm each. The allowable shearing load on Ans : (c) The rivet of a riveted joint is subjected to
per cm length of the weld is shear stress.
(a) 22.5 kN (b) 15.0 kN Riveted Joint:- A rivet consist of a cylindrical shank
(c) 10.6 kN (d) 7.5 kN with a head at one end. This head is formed on shank by
MPPSC AE 2016 an upsetting process. in rivet terminology, the closing
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 head is called point. The cylindrical portion of the rivet
is called shank or body and lower portion of shank is
Ans : (c) Given, leg size =15mm
known as tail. The rivets are used for permanent
15 fastening. The riveted joints are widely used for joining
length of throat = =10.606
2 light metals.
Allowable shearing load ( p ) = τ × A 203. Two strips of equal lengths and widths are
joined together by two rivets, one at each end.
=100 × 10 × 10.606
One strip is of copper and the other of steel.
P = 10.606KN. Now, the temperature of this assembly is
199. In a fillet welded joint, the weakest area of the lowered, the rivets will undergo.
weld is : (a) Bending (b) Single shear
(a) toe (b) throat (c) Double shear (d) Both (a) & (b) above
(c) root (d) face UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
MPPSC AE 2016 Ans. (b) : Single shear

562
204. Which of the following joins is of permanent 208. A ball bearing operation at a load F has life of
type? 8000 hours. Now the load is double to 2F, the
(a) Bolted joint (b) Rivetted joint life of bearing in hours is :
(c) Knuckle joint (d) Universal joint (a) 1000 (b) 6000
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I (c) 8000 (d) 4000
Ans. (b) : Rivetted joint BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (a) : Rating life of ball as roller bearing.
5. Design of Bearings, Brakes and C
n

L =   × 10 6 hours
Clutches P
n = 3 for ball bearing
205. The torque transmitting capacity of friction 3
C
clutches can be increased by: L =   × 10 6
(a) Use of friction material with a lower P
coefficient of friction where L = Rating life
(b) Decreasing the mean radius of the friction C = Basic dynamic loading
disk P = equivalent dynamic load
(c) Increasing the mean radius of the friction disk 1
(d) Decreasing the plate pressure L∝ 3
P
ESE 2020
Ans. (c) : Increasing the mean radius of the friction L 1P1 3 = L 2 P2 3
disk. Given - P1 = F, L1 = 8000 hours
2  r3 − r3  P2 = 2F, L2 = ?
T = µw  12 22  = µwR m 8000 × F3 = L2 × (2F)3
3  r1 − r2  8000 × F3 = L2 × 8F3
T ∝ Rm L 2 = 1000 hour
206. Failure of a bearing depends on
(a) Number of revolution 209. A radial load of 6.5 kN is applied on a
(b) Radial load applied cylindrical roller bearing. The desired life of
(c) Axial load the bearing with 90% reliability is 18000 hours.
(d) All of the above With the application factor 1.7, if the shaft
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 rotates at 1600 rpm, then the required basic
Ans : (d) : Failure of bearing depends on dynamic load rating for he bearing is given by :
• Number of revolution (a) 103.4 MN (b) 103.4 kN
• Radial load applied (c) 1.042 kN (d) 10.34 kN
• Axial load BHEL ET 2019
207. A bearing supports a radial load (Fr) of 7000 N Ans. (b) :
and a thrust load (Fa) of 2100 N. The desired 210. A ball bearing designated by the number 408 is
life of the ball bearing is 160 × 106 revolution at a:
300 rpm. If the load is uniform and steady, (a) Extra light bearing (b) Light bearing
service factor is 1, radial factor (X) is 0.65, (c) Medium bearing (d) Heavy bearing
thrust factor (Y) is 3.5, k = 3 and rotational (e) Extra heavy bearing
factor is 1, the basic dynamic load rating of a (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
bearing will be nearly. Ans. (d) : The most common ball bearing are available
(a) 65 kN (b) 75 kN in four series as follows–
(c) 85 kN (d) 95 kN 1. Extra light (100)
ESE 2020 2. Light (200)
Ans. (a) : Equivalent Radial Load Pe= XVFr +yFa 3. Medium (300)
Pe = 0.65×1×7000+3.5×2100 n 4. Heavy (400)
= 11900 N If a ball bearing designated by the number 408, it means
C
k
that bearing is of heavy series whose bore is 08 × 5 i.e.
lq0 =   40 mm.
 Pe  211. In the case of a shoe brake, equivalent
Dynamic Capacity Load coefficient of friction is considered when the
C = Pe×(Lq)1/k angle of contact is greater than _____.
C = 11900×(160)1/3 (a) 30° (b) 45°
C = 64603.14 N (c) 60° (d) 90°
C = 64.6 kN (e) 120°
C ≈ 65 kN (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)

563
Ans. (c) : In the case of a shoe brake, equivalent 215. The ratio of torque transmitting capacity of
coefficient of friction is considered when the angle of single cone clutch to the single plate clutch is
contact is greater 60° equal to
Long shoe– when 2θ > 60° (a) 1 (b) 2.5
4µ sin θ (c) 3.62 (d) 4.62
µeq. =
2θ + sin 2θ Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
212. A journal bearing of diameter 30 mm supported Ans. (a) : Ratio of torque transmitting capacity of single
in sliding bearing has a maximum load of 1.8 kN, cone clutch to the single plate clutch is equal to; 1
the allowable bearing pressure is 6 N/mm2. What 1) For, Single cone clutch, T = µWR
will be the length of sliding bearing?
(a) 50 mm (b) 40 mm (Torque)
(c) 30 mm (d) 20 mm R = mean radius of clutch
(e) 10 mm 2) For, Single plate clutch, T = nµWR
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) n=2
Ans. (e) : Bearing diameter (d) = 30 mm 216. In hydrodynamic bearings usual clearance
Max. load (F) = 1.8 × 103 N provided per mm of diameter of shaft is:
Bearing pressure (P) = 6 N/mm2 (a) 0.01 micron (b) 0.1 micron
Length of bearing = ℓ = ? (c) 1 micron (d) 10 micron
We know that SJVN ET 2013
Max. Load Ans. (c) : In hydro dynamic bearings usual clearance
Bearing pressure (P) =
Projected area of sliding bearing provided per mm of diameter of shaft is 1 micron.
F 1.8 × 103 217. In block brakes, the ratio of shoe width and
6= = wheel diameter is kept between
ℓ×d ℓ × 30
(a) 0.1 and 0.25 (b) 0.25 and 0.50
1.8 × 103 (c) 0.50 and 0.75 (d) 0.75 and 1.0
ℓ=
6 × 30 SJVN ET 2013
ℓ = 10 mm Ans. (b) : In block brakes, the ratio of shoe width and
213. In case of a multiple disc clutch, if n1 are the wheel diameter is kept between 0.25 and 0.50.
number of discs on the driving shaft and n2 are 218. Considering safe design, friction clutch should
the number of the discs on the drive shaft, then be designed :
the number of pairs of contact surfaces will be
(a) Assuming uniform pressure
(a) n1 + n2 (b) n1 + n2 – 1
(c) n1 + n2 + 1 (d) n1 + n2 + 2 (b) Assuming uniform wear
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I (c) Either uniform pressure (or) uniform wear
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper (d) Uniform pressure for high torque and uniform
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I wear for low torque
Ans. (b) : In, multiple disc clutch if n1 are the number TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
of disc on the driving shaft & n2 are the number of disc Ans. (c) : Either uniform pressure or uniform wear
on the driven shaft then the number of pair of contact theory can be used to designed friction clutch.
surfaces = n1 + n2 – 1
219. Which is not a type of rolling contact bearing :
214. According to uniform wear theory the torque
developed by a disc clutch is given by (a) Deep groove ball bearing
(a) T = 0.25 µ .W.R (b) T = 0.5 µ .W.R (b) Cylindrical roller bearing
(c) Journal bearings
(c) T = 0.75 µ .W.R (d) T = µ .W.R
(d) Spherical roller bearing
Where W = Axial force with which the friction
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
surfaces are held together;
µ = Coefficient of friction; and Ans. (c) : Journal bearings are sliding contact type
R = Mean radius of friction surfaces bearings whereas deep groove ball bearing, cylindrical
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper roller bearing and spherical roller bearing are type of
Ans. (d) : Torque for uniform wear rate, where rolling contact bearings.
W = Axial force with which friction surfaces are held 220. In applications like power presses, and rolling
together mills, where synchronous operation is required,
µ = Coefficient of friction the most preferred type of clutch is:
R = Mean radius of friction surfaces (a) Electromagnetic clutch
r +r (b) Positive contact clutch
R= 1 2 (c) Friction clutch
2
(d) Fluid clutch
T = µ.W.R.
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
564
Ans. (b) : The positive clutches are used when positive (d) for all above functions
(no slip) drives are required. These clutches transmit Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
power from the drive shaft to the driven shaft by the Ans. (b) : In case of multi-disk clutches, oil is used, to
interlocking of jaws or teeth. They are rarely used as carry away the heat.
compared to friction clutch.
227. Total torque transmitted by a single plate
221. The clutch used in trucks is– clutch (both sides are effective) with axial
(a) centrifugal clutch spring load of 1 kN, inner radii 10 cm and
(b) cone clutch outer radii 15 cm will be [Consider coefficient
(c) multi-plate clutch of friction as 0.5, assuming uniform wear]?
(d) single plate clutch (a) 75 N-m (b) 150 N-m
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper (c) 100 N-m (d) 125 N-m
Ans. (d) : The clutch used in trucks is single plate SJVN ET 2019
clutch. Ans. (d) : By using uniform wear theory
222. The clutch used in scooters is– 1
(a) multi-plate clutch (b) single plate clutch Torque = µW ( R 1 + R 2 ) n
2
(c) centrifugal clutch (d) cone clutch
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper 1
= × 0.50 ×1000
(10 + 15 ) × 2
Ans. (a) : The clutch used in scooters is multi-plate 2 100
clutch. = 125 Nm
223. The cone clutches have become obsolete 228. A journal bearing has a shaft diameter of 40
because– mm and a length of 40 mm. The shaft is
(a) strict requirement of coaxiality of two shafts rotating at 20 rad/s and the viscosity of the
(b) difficult to disengage lubricant is 20 mPa.S. The clearance is 0.020
(c) difficult construction mm. The loss of torque due to the viscosity of
(d) none of the above the lubricant is approximately
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper (a) 0.400 Nm (b) 0.252 Nm
Ans. (a) : The cone clutches have become obsolete (c) 0.040 Nm (d) 0.652 Nm
because strict requirement of coaxiality of two shafts. (e) 0.425 Nm
224. In the beginning of engagement of a centrifugal CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
clutch, Ans. (c) : Given,
(a) the centrifugal force on shoe is equal to d = 40 mm = 0.04 m
spring force l = 40 mm = 0.04 m
(b) the centrifugal force on shoe is less than ω = 20 rad/s
spring force µ = 20 m Pa-s = 20 × 10-3 Pa.s
(c) the centrifugal force on shoe is slightly more C = 0.020 mm = 0.02 × 10-3 m
than spring force
V = r ω = 0.02 × 20 = 0.4
(d) none of the above We know that,
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
µV 20 × 10−3 × 0.4
Ans. (a) : In the beginning of engagement of a τ= =
centrifugal clutch, the centrifugal force on shoe is equal C 0.02 × 10−3
to spring force. τ = 400 N/m2
225. In the running condition, the net force acting Force (F) = τA = τ. π dl
on the drum of centrifugal clutch is equal to– = 400 × 3.14 × 0.04 × 0.04
(a) the centrifugal force on shoe = 2.0096 N
(b) the centrifugal force on shoe minus spring Torque = F × r
force = 2.0096 × 0.02
(c) the centrifugal force on shoe plus spring force = 0.0401
(d) the spring force 229. A clutch has outer and inner diameter of 100
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper mm and 40 mm respectively. Assuming a
Ans. (b) : In the running condition, the net force acting uniform pressure of 2 MPa and coefficient of
on the drum of centrifugal clutch is equal to the friction of linear material 0.4; the torque
centrifugal force on shoe minus spring force. carrying capacity of the clutch is
226. In case of multi-disk clutches, oil is used, (a) 196 Nm (b) 372 Nm
(a) to reduce the heat (c) 148 Nm (d) 275 Nm
(b) to carry away the heat (e) 490 Nm
(c) to lubricate the contacting surfaces CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
565
Ans. (a) : Using uniform pressure theory torque 233. Braking torque on the drum of shoe brake is
carrying capacity of clutch is given by given by
(a) (Normal reaction on the block) × (radius of
2  R −r 
3 3
T = µW  2 2  drum)
3  R −r  (b) (Frictional force on the block) × (radius of
2  W  drum)
= πµ ( R 3 − r 3 )   (c) (Force applied at the level end) × (radius of
π (R − r ) 
2 2
3 drum)
2 (d) 2 × (Force applied at the level end) × (radius
= πµ P ( R 3 − r 3 )
3 of drum)
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
2  100 3  40 3 
= × 3.14 × 0.4 × 2   −   Ans. (b) :
3  2   2  
= 195936 Nmm
= 195.93 N-m
≃ 196 N-m
230. Rated life of a ball bearing in relation to load
(P) varies as
(a) 1/P (b) P2
2
(c) 1/P (d) P3
3
(e) 1/P
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (e) : The equation for the basic rating life for
dynamically loaded ball bearing is as follows
3
 Cr 
L10 =   × 106
 P 
L10 = Basic Rating life
Cr = Basic Dynamic Load Rating
P = Equivalent load
1
L10 ∝
P3 So, braking torque on the drum of shoe brake is given as
231. Which of the following clutches is of positive T = Frictional force on the block × radius of
type drum
(a) Hydraulic (b) Cone T = Fr × R
(c) Disc (d) Centrifugal 234. For a new clutch, the friction radius is equal to
(e) Jaw (Where D and d is the external and internal
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift diameter respectively.)
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper 1 D3 − d 3 2 D3 − d 3
Ans. (e) : The positive clutches are used when positive (a) (b)
3 d2 − d2 3 d2 − d2
drive is required. The simplest type of a positive clutch
D+d D+d
is a jaw or claw clutch. The jaw clutch permits one shaft (c) (d)
to drive another through a direct contact of interlocking 2 4
jaws. HPPSC AE 2018
232. The load carrying capacity of a Ans. (a) : For a new clutch, the friction radius is equal
hydrodynamically lubricated journal bearing to
depends on 1 D3 − d 3
(a) Speed only Rf =
3 D2 − d 2
(b) Viscosity only where D and d is the external and internal diameter
(c) Radial clearance only respectively.
(d) Speed, Radial clearance and Viscosity 235. For a block brake, the equivalent coefficient of
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 friction is (Where 2θ is the angle of contact and
Ans : (d) : The load carrying capacity of a µ is coefficient of friction.)
hydrodynamically lubricated journal bearing depends 2sin 2θ 4sin θ
on speed, radial clearance and viscosity. (a) µ (b) µ
2θ + sin 2θ 2θ + sin 2θ
566
 4sin 2θ 2sin θ (d) move towards downward of the bearing
(c) µ (d) µ making metal to metal contact
2θ + sin 2θ 2θ + sin 2θ
HPPSC AE 2018 TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (b) : When break shoe is long (2θ > 45o) pressure Ans. (c) : When a shaft rotates in anticlockwise
is non-uniformly distributed and wear will be more direction at slow speed in a bearing, then it will move
towards left of the bearing making metal to metal
where pressure is more hence to avoid this shoe is
contact.
pivoted on Liver.
240. The frictional torque transmitted by a disc or
plate clutch is same as that of
(a) flat pivot bearing
(b) flat collar bearing
(c) conical pivot bearing
(d) trapezoidal pivot bearing
TNPSC AE 2013
TNPSC 2019
For less wear OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
4µ sin θ Ans. (b) : The frictional torque transmitted by a disc or
µeqv. =
2θ + sin 2θ plate clutch is same as that of flat collar bearing.
236. The total normal force (F) acting on the area of 2  R 3 − R 30 
contact of disc clutch (Assuming uniform Tf = µW  02  [ UPT ]
3  R 0 − R 12 
distribution of interface pressure) is:
(where P is the Intensity of pressure, ro and ri 1
outer and inner diameters of disc respectively)
Tf = µW ( R 0 + R i ) ( UWT )
2
(a) F = 2π Pro (ro − ri ) (b) F = 2π Pri (ro − ri ) 241. If Z is absolute viscosity of the lubricant, N is
(c) F = π P(r0 − ri )
2 2
(d) F = π P(ro − ri )
4 4 1/ 2 the speed of journal and P is bearing pressure,
then the bearing characteristic number is
UPRVUNL AE 2016
ZN ZP
Ans. (c) : The total normal force (F) acting on the area (a) (b)
of contact of disc clutch is P N
F = π P (ro − ri )
2 2 Z P
(c) (d)
237. Journal bearing works satisfactory with L/D PN ZN
ratio in the range of: (where L = length of TNPSC AE 2013
bearing, D = diameter of journal) ZN
Ans. (a) : Bearing characteristic number =
(a) 10-20 (b) 0.01-0.1 P
(c) 1-2 (d) 0.1-0.2 242. The total frictional torque for a thrust bearing
UPRVUNL AE 2016 is given by _______ .
Ans. (c) : Journal bearing works satisfactory with L/D Where µ is coefficient of friction, W – load
ratio in the range of 1-2. transmitted, R – outer radius of collar and r –
238. The frictional torque transmitted by a cone inner radius of coller.
clutch is same as that of 1 R3 − r4  R3 −r2 
(a) flat pivot bearing (a) µW  2 2 
(b) µW  2 2
(b) flat collar bearing 3 R − r  R − r 
(c) conical pivot bearing R3 − r3  2 R3 −r3 
(d) trapezoidal pivot bearing (c) 2µW  2 2 
(d) µW  2 2 
TNPSC AE 2013 R − r  3 R − r 
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (d) : The frictional torque transmitted by a cone 2 R 3 − r3 
Ans. (d) : Tf = µW  2 2  .... (UPT)
clutch is same as that of trapezoidal pivot bearing. 3 R − r 
239. When a shaft rotates in anticlockwise direction
R + r 
at slow speed in a bearing, then it will Tf = µW  .... (UWT)
(a) move towards upward of the bearing making  2 
metal to metal contact 243. A journal bearing with hydrodynamic
(b) move towards right of the bearing making lubrication is running steadily with a certain
metal to metal contact amount of minimum film thickness. When the
(c) move towards left of the bearing making load and speed are doubled, how does the
metal to metal contact minimum film thickness vary?

567
 (a) remains unchanged (b) Hydrostatic lubricated bearings require the
(b) gets doubled motion of surface to generate the lubricating
(c) gets reduced to one fourth of original value film
(d) gets reduced to half of original value (c) Hydrostatic lubricated bearing can operate at
TNPSC AE 2014 very high speed only
Ans. (a) : remains unchanged (d) In hydrodynamic lubricated bearings,
externally pressurized lubricant is fed into the
244. The frictional torque, transmitted in case of flat bearing
pivot bearing for uniform pressure is equal to if (e) Hydrodynamic lubricated bearing can operate
W = Total axial load, µ = coefficient of friction, at very low speed only
R = Radius of bearing surface
CGPSC AE 2014- I
2 Ans. (a) : Hydrostatic Bearing– Hydrostatic bearing
(a) µ W R (b) µWR
3 are externally pressurized fluid bearings, where the fluid
1 1 is usually oil, and the pressurization is done by a pump.
(c) µ W R (d) µ W R Hydrodynamic bearings rely on the high speed of the
3 2
journal to pressurize the fluid in a wedge between faces.
TNPSC AE 2014
249. For the cone clutches, face width of friction
2 linings is [where, α = semi cone angle, D =
Ans. (b) : Tf = µWR (UPT)
3 outer diameter of cone, d = inner diameter of
1 cone]
Tf = µWR (UWT) D D−d
2 (a) (b)
245. A 15 cm shaft turns 900 rpm in a journal sin α sin α
bearing of length 20 cm. If the load on the D−d D−d
bearing is 3 × 104 N, the bearing pressure will (c) sin α (d)
2 2sin α
be approximately
(a) 75 N/cm2 (b) 100 N/cm2 D
(e) sin α
(c) 170 N/cm 2
(d) 32 N/cm2 2
TNPSC AE 2014 CGPSC AE 2014- I
Ans. (b) : Data Given- Ans. (d) : For the cone clutches, fact width of friction
d = 15 cm, N = 900 rpm linings is given by
L = 20 cm, W = 3 × 104 N D−d
=
We know that bearing pressure is given as 2sin α
W 3 × 10000 250. "Bearing characteristic number" for sliding
P= =
D×L 15 × 20 contact bearing is given by : [where, µ =
viscosity of lubricant, N = speed of journal and
P = 100 N / cm 2 P = bearing pressure]
246. Which of the following does not belong to the µΝ
(a) µNP (b)
category of sliding contact bearing? P
(a) pivot bearing (b) ball bearing µ P
(c) bush bearing (d) foot step bearing (c) (d)
NP µN
TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (b) : Pivot bearing, bush bearing and foot-step µP
(e)
bearing are belong to the category of sliding contact N
bearing where as ball bearing and roller bearing are CGPSC AE 2014- I
belong to the category of rolling type bearing. Ans. (b) :
247. A journal bearing running at 900 rev/min has a
bearing pressure of 100 N/cm2. If the lubricant
used has absolute viscosity of 15 centipoise, the
bearing characteristic number will be equal to
(a) 29.8 (b) 13.5
(c) 9.94 (d) 2.85
TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (b) :
248. Which of the following is true for bearings?
(a) In hydrostatic lubricated bearings, externally
pressurized lubricant is fed into the bearing

568
 (1) Thin film lubrication
(2) Semi (or) mixed lubrication. ( )
(c) µmr ω 22 − ω12 ; µmRr ω 22 − ω12( )
Bearing characteristics Number–
µN
is (d) µmr ( ω 2
2 − ω12 ) ; µmr ( ω − ω )
2 2
2
2
1
p
termed as bearing characteristics number, the part of (e) µmr ( ω 2
2 − ω12 ) ; µmR ( ω − ω )
2 2
2
2
1
curve ab represents the region of thick film lubrication CGPSC AE 2014- I
between a & b, viscosity or the speed are so low or the Ans. (c) : The frictional force and frictional torque
pressure "P" is so great. So air combination will reduced acting on the drum of centrifugal clutch by each shoe is
the film thickness so that the partial metal to metal
contact take place. ( ) ( )
given by µmr ω 22 − ω12 , µmRr ω 22 − ω12 respectively.
In d-c region there are thin film, it is unstable
253. The angle through which the brake drum
region due to increase in load, temperature increase and
rotates during the braking period is 20 radians
over all value of µN/P is decrease as a result increase in and the energy absorbed by the brakes is 100
coefficient of friction. kJ. The braking torque capacity is :
At a point 'a' minimum amount of friction (a) 2 × 106 Nm (b) 5 × 103 N/m
occurs. At this point the value of µN/P is known as 3
(c) 5 × 10 Nm (d) 2 × 106 N/m
bearing modulus. (e) 50 kN.m
251. The relationship between the dynamic load CGPSC AE 2014- I
carrying capacity (C), equivalent dynamic load Ans. (c) : T = braking torque capacity
(P) and bearing life (L) is given by : [where p = θ = 20 radian
constant and depends upon the type of bearing] Energy absorbed by the brakes = Torque
1/ p
C capacity × angle rotates during the braking period
(a) L =   in million revolution =T×θ
P
1/ p T × θ = 100 kJ
P 100
(b) L =   in million revolution T= = 5 × 10 3 N − m
C 20
P
C 254. For a single row angular contact ball bearing,
(c) L =   in million revolution the basic dynamic capacity is 55 kN and the
P
P
dynamic equivalent load is 3950 N. The rated
P life of the bearing is:
(d) L =   in million revolution
C (a) 2700 Million revolutions
2p (b) 2200 Million revolutions
C (c) 1700 Million revolutions
(e) L =   in million revolution
P (d) 1200 Million revolutions
CGPSC AE 2014- I JWM 2017
Ans. (c) : The relationship between the dynamic load Ans. (a) : Basic dynamic capacity = 55 kN
carrying capacity (c) equivalent dynamic load (P) and Dynamic equivalent load = 3950 N
bearing life (L) is given as: For ball bearing, n = 3
p n
C  Dynamic capacity 
L =   in million revolution where Life =  
P  Dynamic equivalent load 
p = 3 for ball bearing 3
 55 ×10 3 
10 =
P= (3.33 for roller bearing)  3950 
3  
252. The frictional force and frictional torque acting Life = 2699.58 ≃ 2700 Million revolution
on the drum of centrifugal clutch by each shoe 255. Which one of the following is not a desirable
is given as: [ω1 = engagement speed (rad/s), ω2 characteristics of friction clutches.
= running speed (rad/s), m = mass of each shoe, (a) The moving parts should be weight enough
R = Radius of drum, r = Radius of centre of (b) should have good heat conductivity
gravity of shoe] (c) should have high coeff. of friction
(d) should have high wear resistance
( ) (
(a) µmR ω 22 − ω12 ; µmRr ω 22 − ω12 ) TNPSC AE 2018
2 Ans. (a) : The moving parts should not be weight
(b) µm
R
r
( ) (
ω 22 − ω12 ; µmR 2 ω 22 − ω12) enough also a desirable characteristics of friction
clutches.

569
256. Single plate clutch is used in 262. The sliding dog clutch in the constant mesh
(a) four wheelers gear box is to transmit the power from the
(b) two wheelers (a) Primary shaft to lay shaft
(c) mopeds (b) Lay shaft to output shaft
(d) applications where initial torque is high (c) Primary shaft to output shaft
TNPSC AE 2017 (d) None of the above
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (a) : Application of single plate clutch—Single
plate clutches are used in trucks, buses and cars etc. Ans. (c) : The sliding dog clutch in the constant mesh
• Single plate clutches used where large radial space gear box is to transmit the power from the Primary shaft
to output shaft.
is available.
• As sufficient surface area is available for the heat 263. In a fully automated centrifugal clutch the
reaction plate is installed in between
dissipation in single plates clutches, no cooling oil
(a) The pressure plate and cover pressing
is required. Therefore, single plate clutches are dry
(b) The pressure plate and fly wheel
type. (c) The pressure plate and the driven plate
257. Short shoe brakes have a angle of contact less (d) Cover processing and bob weight
than TNPSC AE 2017
(a) 10º (b) 20º Ans. (a) : In a fully automated centrifugal clutch the
(c) 60º (d) 45º reaction plate is installed in between The pressure plate
TNPSC AE 2017 and cover pressing.
Ans. (d) : The angle of contact between the shoe and 264. The machine members which are used to
the brake down is usually kept less than 45 degree. gradually transmit motion of a driving member
258. Anti friction bearing are to another member at rest, without shock, are
(a) sleeve bearings termed as
(b) gas lubricated bearing (a) bearings (b) couplings
(c) ball and roller bearings (c) clutches (d) cotters
(d) special bearings requiring no lubricant APPSC AEE 2016
TNPSC AE 2018 Ans. (c) : Clutches are used to gradually transmit
Ans. (c) : Ball and roller bearings is also called anti- motion of a driving member to another member at rest,
friction bearing. without shock.
259. The co-efficient of friction for the clutch facing 265. If the load on the ball bearing is reduced to
is approximately half, the left of the ball bearing will
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.4 (a) increase 8 times
(c) 0.8 (d) 1.2 (b) increase 4 times
TNPSC AE 2017 (c) increase 2 times
Ans. (b) : The co-efficient of friction for the clutch (d) no change
facing is approximately 0.4. TSPSC AEE 2015
260. __________are welded to the rear wheel house Ans. (a) : We know that
panel, the floor panel and the rear of the rocker n
 1 
panel in a car. L∝ 
(a) Rear doors (b) Rear windows  Load 
(c) Rear quarter panels (d) Trunk lid n = 3 for ball bearing
TNPSC AE 2017 10
n= for roller bearing
Ans. (c) : Rear quarter panels are welded to the rear 3
wheel house panel, the floor panel and the rear of the 1 8
rocker panel in a car. L2 = =
261. There are three types of Disc Brake
 Load 
3
( Load )3
 2 
(a) Fixed Caliper, Tab-Action and Two-Piston  
(b) Fixed Caliper, Sliding Caliper and Floating L2 = 8 L1
Caliper
(c) Floating Caliper, Swinging Caliper and 266. In hydrostatic bearing, pressure to lubricant is
Proportioning Caliper supplied by
(d) Fixed caliper, floating caliper and Swinging (a) External sources
caliper (b) Partially external and partially from rotation
TNPSC AE 2017 of journal
(c) Not Supplied by external sources
Ans. (b) : There are three types of Disc Brake fixed
(d) Shaft driven pump
caliper, sliding caliper and floating caliper.
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
570
Ans. (a): Hydrostatic bearings are externally Ans. (c) : Life of antifriction bearing is related to load as :
pressurized fluid bearings, where the fluid is usually oil, n
C
water. The pressurization is done by a pump. L10 =  
267. Two identical ball bearing P and Q are  Pe 
operating at loads 30 kN and 45 kN C – Basic dynamic capacity
respectively. The ratio of the life of bearing P Pe – Equivalent load
to the life of bearing Q is– For ball Bearing
(a) 81/76 (b) 27/8 n=3
n
(c) 9/4 (d) 3/2 P 
L 2 = L1  1 
RPSC 2016  P2 
Ans : (b) Life of ball bearing 3
 10 
3 L2 = 8000  
 C  20 
L= 
 Pe  L2 = 1000 hours
Where, L = Life of ball bearing 271. Which of the following bearings are most
Pe = Equivalent load suitable for supporting high axial thrust?
C = Basic dynamic capacity (a) Radial ball bearings
3 (b) Needle bearings
LP  (Pe )Q  (c) Cylindrical roller bearings
= 
LQ  (Pe ) P  (d) Tapered roller bearings
3 3 BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
 45   3 27
=  =  = Ans : (d) : Tapered roller bearings.
 30   2 8 272. What tapers in a tapered roller bearing?
L P 27 (a) Inner race (b) Outer race
= (c) Roller (d) Cage
LQ 8
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
268. Petroff's equation is used to determine the Ans : (c) : The tapered rollers are guided in tapered
coefficient of friction in hydrodynamic bearing. raceways. The roller set is retained by the cage, to the
(a) load carrying capacity of the bearing inner rings (cone) between guide flange and locating
flange. The outer ring (cup) is loose. Tapered roller
(b) frictional losses in the bearing
bearings equally support radial and axial loads.
(c) unit bearing pressure on the bearing
273. Spherical roller bearings are normally used :
(d) pressure distribution around the periphery of (a) For increased radial load
the journal (b) When there is less radial space
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 (c) For increased thrust load
Ans. (b) : (d) To compensate for angular misalignment
269. Deep groove ball bearings are used for OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
(a) heavy thrust load Ans : (d) : Since spherical roller bearing can take high
radial and axial loads, but the angular misalignment can
(b) small angular displacement of shafts
be adjusted by this bearing only (not ball bearing). So
(c) radial load at high speed angular misalignment is deciding criterion.
(d) combined thrust and radial load at high speed 274. Consider the following statements :
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 Radius of friction circle for a journal bearing
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 depends upon:
Ans. (d) : These bearing can take very good radial as (i) Coefficient of friction
well as axial road. The radial load is continuous and (ii) Radius of the journal
steady, but axial load can very due to impact etc. steady (iii) Angular speed of rotation of the shaft
axial load of very high magnitude is there, these Which of the statements given above are
bearings are not suitable. correct?
270. The life of a ball bearing at a load of 10 kN is (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) Only (i) and (ii)
8,000 hours. Its life in hours, if the load is (c) Only (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (i) and (iii)
increased to 20 kN, keeping all other conditions OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
the same is : Ans : (b) :
(a) 4,000 hours (b) 2,000 hours Radius of friction circle = µ × r
(c) 1,000 hours (d) 500 hours Where, r = radius of journal
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 µ= Coefficient of friction

571
275. In the ball bearing indentified as (b) Wedge shaped oil film
SKF 2015, 3115 and 4215 : (c) Oil compressibility
(a) Bore is common but width is increasing (d) Oil viscosity
(b) Outer diameter is common but bore is OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
increasing Ans : (b) : Due to converging and diverging portions of
(c) Width is common but outer diameter is journal bearing, the thick film lubrication will be
decreasing generated.
(d) Bore is common but outer diameter is 279. Antifriction bearings are
decreasing (a) Journal bearing (b) Pedestal bearing
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I (c) Collar bearing (d) Needle bearing
Ans : (a) : According to SKF, bearing is designed by Gujarat PSC AE 2019
three numbers. Last two digits multiplied by 5 gives
Ans : (d) : Antifriction bearing are needle bearing.
shaft diameter.
100- Extra light load 280. Ball bearings are usually made from
200- Light load (a) low carbon steel
300- Medium load (b) high carbon steel
400- Heavy load (c) medium carbon steel
(d) high speed steel
276. A ball-bearing is characterized by basic static
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
capacity = 11,000 N and dynamic capacity =
18,000 N. This bearing is subjected to Ans : (c) : Ball bearings are usually made from medium
equivalent static load = 5500 N. The bearing carbon steel.
loading ratio and life in million revolutions 281. The parking brakes employed in vehicles are
respectively are : operated
(a) 3.27 and 52.0 (b) 3.27 and 35.0 (a) Mechanically (b) Hydraulically
(c) 2.00 and 10.1 (d) 1.60 and 4.1 (c) Pneumatically (d) Electronically
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I TNPSC AE 2017
UPRVUNL AE 2016 Ans. (a) : The parking brakes employed in vehicles are
UPRVUNL AE 2014 operated mechanically.
Ans : (b) : 282. Cushioning springs in clutch plate are meant to
C = 18000 N, reduce
n = 3 for ball bearings (a) Torsional vibrations (b) Vehicle speed
P = 5500 N (c) Jerky starts (d) None of the above
n
C TNPSC AE 2017
L10 =  
P Ans. (c) : Cushioning springs in clutch plate are meant
L10 = rated bearing life in million revolutions to reduce Jerky starts.
3 283. Two controlling devices in the automatic
 18000  transmission operated by hydraulic pressure
∴ L10 =  
 5500  are the bonds and
= (3.27)3 = 35 million revolutions (a) pistons (b) gears
C 18000 (c) planetary gear sets (d) clutches
Loading ratio = = = 3.27
P 5500 TNPSC AE 2017
277. Which bearing is preferred for oscillating Ans. (d) : Two controlling devices in the automatic
conditions? transmission operated by hydraulic pressure are the
(a) Double row roller bearing bonds and clutches.
(b) Angular contact single row ball bearing 284. In automobiles, Hook's joint is used between
(c) Taper roller bearing which of the following?
(d) Needle roller bearing (a) Clutch and gear box
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I (b) Gear box and differential
Ans : (d) : Needle roller bearings are ideally suited for (c) Differential and wheels
application involving oscillatory motion such as piston (d) Flywheel and clutch
pin bearings, rocker arms and universal joint. They are OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
also suitable for continuous rotation where the load is Ans : (b) : Hook’s joint is used between gear box and
variable or intermittent. differential. It is provided on propeller shaft.
278. A hydrodynamic slider bearing develops load Hook’s joint is used to connect two nonparallel
bearing capacity mainly because of : intersecting shafts.
(a) Slider velocity It is also used for shaft with angular misalignment.

572
285. To avoid self-engagement in cone clutch, its 287. A taper roller bearing has a dynamic load
semi-cone angle is always kept capacity of 26 kN. The desired life for 90% of
(a) smaller than the angle of static friction the bearings is 8000 hr and the speed is 300
(b) equal to the angle of static friction r.p.m. The equivalent radial load that the
(c) greater than the angle of static friction bearing can carry will be nearly
(d) half of the angle of static friction (a) 5854 N (b) 5645 N
ESE 2019 (c) 5436 N (d) 5227 N
Ans. (c) : To avoid self engagement in cone clutch, the ESE 2019
semi cone angle should always be kept greater than the Ans. (a) : Given,
angle of static friction. L90 = 8000 × 60 × 300
286. A bicycle and rider travelling at 12 km/hr on a = 144 × 106 revolutions
level road have a mass of 105 kg. A brake is = 144 MR (Million Revolution)
applied to a rear wheel having 800 mm diameter. Equivalent radial load
The pressure on the brake is 80 N and the 10/ 3
C
coefficient of friction is 0.06. The number of turns L90 =   k = 10/3 for taper roller bearing
of the wheel before coming to rest will be P
(a) 48.3 revolutions (b) 42.6 revolutions C 26000
P= =
( 90 )
0.3 0.3
(c) 38.3 revolutions (d) 32.6 revolutions L (144)
ESE 2019 = 5854.16 N
Ans. (a) : Given,
288. In a journal bearing, the diameter of the
5 journal is 0.15 m, its speed is 900 rpm and the
V = 12 km/hr = 12 × = 3.33 m/s
18 load on the bearing is 40 k N. Considering µ =
m = 105 kg 0.0072, the heat generated will be nearly
d = 800 mm = 0.8 m (a) 1 kW (b) 2 kW
r = 400 mm = 0.4 m (c) 3 kW (d) 4 kW
F = 80 N ESE 2018
µ = 0.06 Ans. (b) : Given,
Assuming the bicycle and rider as a ring, the moment of Diameter of bearing (d) = 0.15 m
inertia Radius of bearing (r) = 0.075 m
I = mr2 = 105 × 0.42 = 16.8 kg-m2 Speed (N) = 900 rpm
Initial angular velocity of disc Load (W) = 40 kN
V 3.33 µ = 0.0072
ωi = = = 8.325 r/s
r 0.4 Heat generated = µW rω
Friction force on whirl (f) = µF = 0.06 × 80 2πN
= 4.8 N = µWr
60
Torque due to brake
2π× 900
τ = r⋅ f = 0.0072 × 40 × 0.075 ×
= 0.4 × 4.8 60
= 2.036 kW
= 1.92 N-m
τ 289. In case of pivot bearing, the wear is :
Angular acceleration α = (a) maximum at the centre
I (b) zero at the centre
= 0.114 rad/s (c) uniform throughout the contact are
−α because retardation take place due to break apply (d) minimum at maximum radius
From equation of motion (HPPSC AE 2014)
ωf2 = ωi2 − 2 ∝ θ Ans : (b) In case of pivot bearing, the wear is zero at
the centre.
0 = ωi2 − 2 ∝ θ When a vertical shaft rotates in a flat pivot bearing
Angular displacement (known as foot step bearing), the sliding friction will be
ω2 (8.325) 2 along the surface of contact between the shaft and the
θ= i = bearing.
2α 2 × 0.114 Let
= 303.97 radius W = Load transmitted over the bearing surface
Numbers of revolutions during braking R = Radius of bearing surface
θ 303.97 p = Intensity of pressure per unit area of bearing surface
n= =
2π 2 × 3.14 between rubbing surfaces
n = 48.4 revolutions µ = Coefficient of friction

573
290. Which of the following is not a correct A Journal bearing forms a turning Pair. The fixed outer
statement? element of a turning pair is called a bearing and the
(a) The balls in a ball bearing remain in position portion of the inner element which fits in the bearing is
due to centrifugal force a called a journal. The journal is slightly less in
(b) cage is made hardest of all parts in ball diameter than the bearing, in order to permit the free
bearings movement of the journal in a bearing.
(c) Spherical roller bearings have the capacity 294. In a ball bearing, a ball is subjected to
for self-alignment (a) compressive stress
(d) Roller bearing have higher load capacity than (b) tensile stress
that of ball bearings for a given overall size (c) shear stress
(KPSC AE 2015) (d) cyclic stress or fatigue
Ans : (a) Following correct statement are:- RPSC AE 2016
(i) Cage is made hardest have the capacity for self- Ans : (d) In a ball bearing, a ball is subjected to cycle
alignment stress or fatigue loading.
(ii) Spherical roller bearing have the capacity for self - The rolling contact bearings are of the following two
alignment types:
(iii) Roller bearing have higher load capacity than that (a) Ball bearing (b) roller bearing
of ball bearing for a given overall size. The ball and roller bearings consist of an inner race
which is mounted on the shaft or journal and an outer
291. Bearing characteristics number in a race which is carried by the housing or casing. In
hydrodynamic bearing depends upon between the inner and outer race, there are balls or
(a) viscosity, speed and bearing pressure. rollers. A number of balls or rollers are used and these
(b) viscosity, speed and load are held at proper distance by which are assembled after
(c) load, speed and length the balls have been properly spaced. The ball bearings
(d) length, width and speed are used for light loads and the roller bearings are used
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 for heavier loads.
ZN 295. For a safe design, a friction clutch is designed
Ans : (a) Bearing. Characteristics Number = assuming
P
Z = Viscosity (a) uniform wear (b) uniform pressure
N = speed (c) any one of the above (d) None of the above
P = Bearing pressure. UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
292. To increase the capacity of ball bearing ....... is Ans. (a) : uniform wear
provided to increase the number of balls in the 296. Which of the following brakes is commonly
bearing : used in motor cars ?
(a) Grease (b) Collar (a) Band Brake
(c) Filling notch (d) Less gap (b) Shoe Brake
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I (c) Internal expanding Shoe Brake
Ans : (c) To increase the capacity of ball bearing filling (d) All the above
notch is provided to increase the number of balls in the UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
bearing.
Ans. (c) : Internal expanding Shoe Brake
293. For supporting the pressure perpendicular to
297. Chain drive is used for
the axis of the shaft, the bearing preferred is:
(a) short distance
(a) Journal bearing (b) Pivot beating
(c) Thrust beating (d) Footstep bearing (b) large distance
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) (c) medium diameter of sprockets
(d) diameter is not considered
Ans : (a) For supporting the Pressure perpendicular to
the axis of the shaft the bearing preferred is Journal UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
bearing. Ans. (b) : Large distance

574
 11. THEORY OF MACHINES
Ans. (b) : Kutzbach Criteria–Kutzbach criteria is for
1. Mechanisms and Machines determining degree of freedom of body in planar
mechanism (2D)
1. The motion of a square bar in a square hole is DOF = 3[ℓ – 1] – 2j – h .....(1)
example of ______. Here, ℓ = Number of links
(a) Completely constrained motion
j = Number of lower pair
(b) Incompletely constrained motion h = Number of higher pair
(c) Successfully constrained motion If h = 0, DOF = 1 putting in equation (1)
(d) Machine Then we get
(e) Structure 1 = 3(ℓ – 1) – 2j
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
1 = 3ℓ – 3 – 2j
Ans. (a) : Completely Constrained Motion –
Completely constrained motion is a type of constrained 3ℓ − 2 j = 4
motion in which relative motion between the links of a This equation is known as Grubler's criteria.
kinematic pair occurs in a definite direction by itself, 4. What is the mobility of given mechanism
irrespective of external forces applied. shown is fig:
Example– Square bar in a square hole undergoes
completely constrained motion.

(a) 0 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 1
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Incompletely Constrained Motion– Incompletely Ans. (d) : Mobility means (Degree of freedom) which is
constrained motion, the relative motion between the define as the minimum number of independent variable
links depend on the direction of external forces acting required to define the position & motion of System is
on them. A good example of incompletely constrained known as degree of freedom or (Mobility)
motion is the motion of a shaft inside a circular hole.
Partially or Successfully Constrained Motion–A
kinematic pair is said to be partially or successfully
constrained if the relative motion between the links
occurs in a definite direction, not by itself, but by some
other means. A good example of successfully ℓ = 4 Link
constrained motion is piston reciprocating inside a j = 4 Binary joint
cylinder in an internal combustion engine. h = 0 Higher Pair
2. Which of the following is an inversion of single F = 3( ℓ – 1 ) – 2j – h
slider - crank chain? F = 3(4 – 1) – 2 × 4 – 0
(a) Elliptical Trammel (b) Hand Pump F=9–8
F=1
(c) Scotch Yoke (d) Oldham's Coupling
RPSC AE 2018 5. Which of the following is an approx. straight
line motion mechanism?
Ans. (b) : Hand Pump is an inversion of single slider -
(a) Watt's mechanism
crank chain whereas elliptical trammel, scotch yoke and
(b) Grasshopper mechanism
oldham's coupling are inversion of double slider crank
(c) Robert's mechanism
chain.
(d) All of these
3. Grubler's criterion is applicable for SJVN ET 2013
mechanisms with: Ans. (d) : Approximate straight line motion
(a) Zero degree of freedom mechanism-
(b) Single degree of freedom (i) Watt's mechanism.
(c) Two degree of freedom (ii) Modified Scott-Russel mechanism
(d) Three degree of freedom (iii) Grosshopper mechanism
(e) More than three degree of freedom (iv) Tchebicheff's mechanism
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) (v) Robert's mechanism
575
6. In elliptical trammels Archimedes) is a simple mechanism which can trace an
(a) All four pairs are sliding exact elliptical path.
(b) All four pairs are turning Whitworth mechanism–The Whitworth quick return
(c) Two pairs are turning and other two sliding mechanism converts rotary motion into reciprocating
(d) One pair turning and three sliding motion, but unlike the crank and slider, the forward
(e) One pair sliding and three turning reciprocating motion is at a different rate than backward
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift stroke.
Ans. (c) : • Elliptical Trammel is an inversion of 10. A planer mechanism has 6 links with 6 lower
double crank chain mechanism. pairs and 2 higher pairs. Then the degree of
• A double slider crank chain consist of four freedom of mechanism as per Gruebler's
links forming two sliding pairs and turning pairs. Criterion is
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 0
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (a) : Data given as,
l = 6, h = 2, j = 6
Then,
N = 3 (l -1) - 2j - h
N = 3 (6 - 1) - 2 × 6 - 2
N =1
11. The kinematic chain shown is a :
7. The joint in valve mechanism of reciprocating
engine is
(a) knuckle joint (b) universal joint
(c) cotter joint (d) key joint (a) Structure
(e) pin joint (b) Mechanism with one degree of freedom
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift (c) Mechanism with two degree of freedom
Ans. (a) : (d) Mechanism with more than two degree of
(i) Joints between the tie bars in a root trusses. freedom
(ii) Between the links of suspension bridge. OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
(iii) In valve mechanism of a reciprocating engine. Ans. (b) : Mechanism with one degree of freedom.
(iv) Fulcrum for the levers.
8. Ackerman steering gear consist of
(a) Lower pair (b) Turning pair
(c) Rolling pair (d) Cylindrical pair
(e) Sliding pair
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift No. of links, n = 10
Ans. (b) : The Ackerman steering mechanism is a No. of lower pairs, j = 13
geometric arrangement of linkages in a steering of a F = 3 (n–1) – 2j
vehicle to turn the inner and outer wheels at the F =3 (10–1) – 2 × 13
appropriate angles. The Ackerman steering gear F=1
consists of turning pairs rather than sliding pair. 12. Which one of the following is an exact straight-
9. Which of the following mechanism generates line mechanism using lower pairs?
(a) Watt's mechanism
intermittent rotary motion from continuous (b) Grasshopper mechanism
rotary motion? (c) Robert's mechanism
(a) Scotch yoke mechanism (d) Peaucellier's mechanism
(b) Geneva mechanism RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
(c) Elliptical mechanism Ans. (d) :
(d) Whitworth mechanism ! Exact straight-Line motion Mechanism
RPSC AE 2018 (i) Peacellier's Mechanism
Ans. (b) : Geneva mechanism—A Geneva mechanism (ii) Hart's mechanism
is a commonly used mechanism for producing an (iii) Scott Rusell's Mechanism
intermittent rotary motion from a uniform input speed. ! Approximate straight line motion Mechanism
Scotch yoke mechanism—It is one of reciprocating (i) Watt's Mechanism
motion mechanism, it should be convert an rotary (ii) Modified Scott-Russell Mechanism
motion into sliding of linear motion and vice-versa. (iii) Grasshopper mechanism
Elliptical trammel—The Elliptical trammel (also (iv) Techebicheff's Mechanism
known as the Elliptical trammel or the trammel as (v) Roberts Mechanism
576
13. A simple quick return mechanism is shown in 15. Universal joint is an example of:-
the figure. The forward to return ratio of quick (a) Lower pair (b) Higher pair
return mechanism is 2 :1. If the radius of the (c) Rolling pair (d) Sliding pair
crank O2A is 125 mm, then the distance UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
between the crank centre to lever centre point Ans. (a) : Universal joint is an example of lower pair.
(O2O4) should be : 16. In a slotted lever and crank quick return
mechanism used in shapers, the beginning and
end of cutting stroke occurs when
(a) cranked lever are in line with each other
(b) crank is perpendicular to lever
(c) crank is horizontal
(d) lever is horizontal
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (b) : crank is perpendicular to lever
17. In a mechanism having six links, the number of
(a) 144.3 mm (b) 216.5 mm instantaneous centres of rotation present are
(c) 240.0 mm (d) 250.0 mm (a) 15 (b) 12
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 (c) 9 (d) 6
Ans. (d) : UKPSC AE 2007, 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (a) : 15
18. Identify the wrong statement :
(a) A mechanism is an assemblage of four or
more links.
(b) A slider crank chain consists of two sliding
pairs and two turning pairs.
(c) A kinematic chain requires at least four links
and four turning pairs.
Time of cutting stroke (d) Open pairs are those whose elements are not
Quick return ratio =
Time of Re turn stroke held together mechanically.
β 2 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
= Ans. (b) : A slider crank chain consists of two sliding
α 1
β = 2α pairs and two turning pairs.
19. The instantaneous centre of rotation of a
∴α + β = 3600
0 circular disc rolling on a straight path is at
α = 120 (a) the centre of the disc
In triangle ∆O1 O2 P (b) their point of contact
O1P 125 (c) the centre of gravity of the disc
d= = = 250 mm
 α  cos 600 (d) infinity
cos   UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
2
Ans. (b) : their point of contact
d = 250 mm
20. Which one of the following is not an example of
14. A planar mechanism has 8 links and 10 rotary higher pair ?
joints. The number of degrees of freedom of the (a) Disc Cam and roller follower
mechanism, using Grubler's criterion, is : (b) Spur Gear meshing teeth
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) Ball Bearing
(c) 2 (d) 3 (d) Bush Bearing
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift Ans. (d) : Bush Bearing
Ans : (b) : Degree of freedom (DOF) of a planer 21. A football is rolling on ground, the motion of
mechanism by Grubler’s criterion, any point on its surface is
DOF = 3 ( ℓ − 1) – 2 j – h (a) elliptical plane motion (b) helical
(c) spherical (d) plane rotation
Where, UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
ℓ = 8 (Number of links) Ans. (c) : Spherical
j = 10 (Number of binary joints)
22. Which of the following is not an inversion of
h = 0 (Number of higher pairs)
single slider crank mechanism?
DoF = 3 (8–1) –2 × 10 – 0 (a) Quick return mechanism
DOF = 1 (b) Oscillating cylinder engine mechanism
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 (c) Pendulum pump mechanism 30. Length of crank of a slotted lever quick return
(d) Oldham's coupling mechanism is 150 mm while the distance
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I between centre of crank rotation and slotted
Ans. (d) : Oldham's coupling lever is 300 mm. What is the ratio of time of
cutting to time of return of this mechanism?
23. A spheric pair such as ball and socket joint has (a) 4 (b) 3
n degrees of freedom, where n is equal to (c) 2 (d) 1
(a) 0 (b) 1 UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(c) 2 (d) 3 Ans. (c) : 2
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I 31. Which one of the following is a higher pair ?
Ans. (d) : 3 (a) Belt and Pulley (b) Turning Pair
24. In a slotted lever quick return mechanism the (c) Screw Pair (d) Sliding Pair
number of instantaneous centres of rotation is OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
(a) 6 (b) 10 Ans. (a) :
(c) 12 (d) 15 ! Belt and pulley is higher pair.
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I ! One link is wrapped over another link.
! A pair of two links having a rolling motion relative to
Ans. (a) : 6 each other is called rolling pair.
25. A simple mechanism has the following number 32. The figure shown below has the following
of links: details:
(a) 4 (b) 3 l1 = 3 cm, l2 = 1.5 cm, l3 = 3.5 cm, l4 = 4 cm, The
(c) 2 (d) 1 value for θ4 (in degrees) when the input link (l2)
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I becomes perpendicular to the fixed link for the
Ans. (a) : 4 given assembly mode will be:
26. In a slotted lever quick return mechanism, the
crank length is 20 cm while the distance
between centres of crank and slotted lever
rotation is 40 cm. What is the ratio of cutting
stroke time to return stroke time?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (a) 45 (b) 97.44
(c) 4 (d) 5 (c) 65.34 (d) 79.44
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (a) : 3 Ans. (b) :
27. In a four bar mechanism the following 33. A mechanism is shown below. The number of
instantaneous centre of rotation is not present: ternary links and the DOF, respectively, are :
(a) Fixed
(b) Permanent
(c) Neither fixed nor permanent
(d) Perpendicular to the line joining centre of
rotations of crank and lever at infinity
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(a) 2 ; 3 (b) 2 ; 2
Ans. (d) : Perpendicular to the line joining centre of (c) 3 ; 2 (d) 3 ; 3
rotations of crank and lever at infinity BHEL ET 2019
28. In a slider crank mechanism, piston velocity Ans. (d) : Number of ternary links = 3
becomes maximum for the following Number of links = 10
configuration when crank is Number of joint = 12
(a) at inner dead centre
(b) at outer dead centre
(c) perpendicular to line of stroke
(d) perpendicular to connecting rod
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Ans. (d) : Perpendicular to connecting rod
29. How many instantaneous centres of rotation
are present in a slider crank mechanism? DOF = 3 (l – 1) – 2J – h
(a) 3 (b) 4 l = 10 , J = 12, h = 0
(c) 6 (d) 8 DOF = 3 (10 – 1) – 2 × 12
= 3 × 9 – 24 = 27 – 24
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Ans. (c) : 6 DOF = 3
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34. DOF of an over constrained structure has Ans. (c) : In a four bar Mechanism, if the shortest link
______ value. is fixed, the Mechanism obtained is known as double
(a) zero (b) positive or negative crank mechanism.
(c) negative (d) positive
BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (c) : If degree of freedom is negative
i.e., F < 0, its called in determinant structure or
super structure because no relative motion in between
links.
35. The input parameters of inverse kinematics are
(a) Links length, wrist position
(b) Links length, joint angles S – fixed
(c) Writ position, joint angles double crank mechanism
(d) Only links length 41. The link EF in a slider crank mechanism has a
TNPSC 2019 length of 0.4 m. The velocity of end E with
Ans. (a) : The input parameters of inverse kinematics respect to F is 4.9 m/s. The angular velocity of
are links length, wrist position. the link is :
36. A wheel rotating around its axle forms a _____ (a) 0.01225 rad/s (b) 1.225 rad/s
pair. (c) 12.25 rad/s (d) 1225.5 rad/s
(a) sliding (b) turning TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
(c) rolling (d) screw Ans. (c) : Given,
(e) spherical
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) ℓ = 0.4 m
Ans. (b) : A wheel rotating around its axle forms a VEF = 4.9 m/s
turning pair. V 4.9
Angular velocity (ω) = EF =
37. Which of the following disciplines provides ℓ 0.4
study of relative motion between the parts of a ω = 12.25 rad/s
machine 42. In a 4– bar linkage, if the lengths of shortest,
(a) applied mechanics (b) mechanisms longest and the other two links are denoted by
(c) kinematics (d) kinetics s, l, p and q, then it would result in Grashof's
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper linkage provided that :
Ans. (c) : The study of inertia forces arising from the (a) ℓ + p < s + q (b) ℓ + s < p + q
combined effect of the mass and motion of the parts is (c) ℓ + p = s + q (d) None of these
called kinetics while. The study of relative motion Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
between the parts of a machine is called kinematics. Ans. (b) : According to, Grashof's law, for continuous
38. In a kinematic chain, a quaternary joint is relative motion in four bar mechanism, it require to
equivalent to: satisfy the equation.
(a) one binary joint (b) two binary joints ℓ+ s < p + q
(c) three binary joints (d) four binary joints 43. Which of the following is the inversion of single
SJVN ET 2013 slider-crank chain?
Ans. (c) : three binary joints (a) Elliptical trammel
39. A completely constrained motion can be (b) Scotch yoke
transmitted with: (c) Oldham's coupling
(a) 1 link with pin joints (d) With worth quick-return mechanism
(b) 2 link with pin joints SJVN ET 2019
(c) 3 link with pin joints Ans. (d) : Inversion of single slider-crank chain-
(d) 4 link with pin joints (i) Reciprocating engine/compressor
SJVN ET 2013 (ii) Whitworth/Quick return mechanism
Ans. (d) : A completely constrained motion can be (iii) Crank and slotted lever mechanism, oscillating
transmitted with 4 link with pin joints. cylinder mechanism
40. In a four bar Mechanism, if the shortest link is (iv) Hand pump, Bull engine.
fixed, the Mechanism obtained is known as: 44. Pulley in belt drive acts as
(a) Double rocker mechanism (a) Surface pair (b) Turning pair
(b) Six bar mechanism (c) Rolling pair (d) Cylindrical pair
(c) Double crank mechanism (e) Sliding pair
(d) Crank and rocker mechanism CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 Ans. (c) : Pulley in belt drive acts as Rolling pair

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45. Consider the following geometrical figures Ans. (b) : In planner slotter and super quick return
1. Cycloid 2. Ellipse mechanism is required whereas this is not required in
3. Circle 4. Parabola broaching.
Which of these accurately describe the path 51. In an offset slider-crank mechanism with
traced by a point on a link connecting double length of connecting rod l, crank radius r and
slider crank chain offset e, the crank will revolve only when
(a) 1 (b) 1 and 2 (a) l ≥ (r + e) (b) l ≤ (r - e)
(c) 2 (d) 1 and 3
(e) 4 (c) l > (r - e) (d) l < (r + e)
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (c) : Double slider crank chain Ans. (a) : In an offset slider-crank mechanism with
The elliptical trammel, which is used for drawing length of connecting rod l, crank radius r and offset e,
ellipses, is an example of this inversion. the crank will revolve only when length of connecting
46. If L = No. of links and J = No. of joints, then rod l should be equal or greater than the sum of crank
for a kinematic chain: radius and offset e.
(a) L = 3/2(J + 2) (b) L = 1/3(J + 2) ℓ ≥ (r + e)
(c) L = 2/3(J + 2) (d) L = 2/3(J + 2) 52. Which of the following systems has 8 links?
SJVN ET 2013 (a) Hart mechanism
Ans. (c) : (b) Peaucelliar mechanism
Condition for (c) Whitworth Quick return mechanism
Kinematic chain (d) Scotch yoke mechanism
3 TNPSC AE 2014
J = L−2
2 Ans. (b) : Mechanism Number of links
Hart mechanism 6
L = 2/3(J + 2)
Peaucelliar mechanism 8
47. A circular shaft is revolving inside the bearing Whithworth quick return
is an example of Mechanism 4
(a) Sliding pair (b) Turning pair Scotch yoke mechanics 4
(c) Rolling pair (d) Spherical pair
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 53. A planar linkage having 8 links and 9 joints of
single degree of freedom will have ................
Ans. (b) : A circular shaft is revolving inside the degree of freedom.
bearing is an example of turning pair. (a) 1 (b) 2
48. If '4' number of links are connected at a joint. (c) 3 (d) 4
Then it will be equivalent to: RPSC AE 2018
(a) 3 binary joints (b) 2 binary joints Ans. (c) : Data given:
(c) 1 binary joint (d) 2 quaternary joints No. of links (l) = 8
UPRVUNL AE 2016 No. of joints (j) = 9
Ans. (a) : 1 - quaternary joints = 3 binary joints Then DOF = ?
1 - Ternary joint = 2 binary joints. DOF = 3(l -1) - 2j - h
49. The motion of a piston in the cylinder of a DOF = 3 (8 - 1) - 2 × 9 - 0
steam engine is an example of = 3 × 7 - 18
(a) Forced constrained motion DOF = 3
(b) Successfully constrained motion 54. If four links are connected at joint, it may be
(c) Incompletely constrained motion treated as:
(d) Completely constrained motion (a) 1 binary joint (b) 2 binary joint
TNPSC AE 2013 (c) 3 binary joint (d) 4 binary joint
Ans. (b) : Successfully constrained motion– When the (e) 5 binary joint
motion between two elements of a pair possible in more CGPSC AE 2014- I
than one direction but is made to have motion only in Ans. (c) : If four links are connected to a joint, it may
one direction by using some external means. treated as 3 binary joints. 1- Turnery joint – 2 binary
Example– Foot step bearing, A piston in a cylinder of joint.
an IC engine is made to have only reciprocating motion 55. Which of the following does not represents the
and no rotary motion due to constraints of the piston higher pair?
pin. (a) Wheel rolling on a surface
Note– option (d) given by TNPCS. (b) Sphere rolling on a surface
50. Quick return mechanism is not required in (c) Ball bearing
(a) Planner (b) Broaching (d) Turning out on screw
(c) Slotter (d) Shaper (e) Cylinder rolling on a surface
TNPSC AE 2013 CGPSC AE 2014- I
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Ans. (d) : Wheel rolling on a surface, sphere rolling on 61. The relation between number of links and
a surface, ball bearing and cylinder rolling on a surface number of lower pairs is given as n = 2p – 4. If
are example of higher pair where as turning nut on L.H.S is less than R.H.S of this equation then
screw is the example of lower pair [Screw and nut pair]. the chain is
56. A ball and socket joint is example of _______ (a) constrained (b) locked
pair. (c) structure (d) unconstrained
(a) Screw (b) Spherical APPSC AEE 2016
(c) Turning (d) Rolling Ans. (c) : n = 2p − 4
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift If, L.H.S < R.H.S
SJVN ET 2019 Then, it become an strecture
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 If,
Ans. (b) : When the two elements of a pair are  h 3 
connected in such a way that one element (with  p +  =  n − 2 (kinematic chain)
 2 2 
spherical shape) turns or swivels about the other fixed If,
element, the pair formed is called a spherical pair. The
 h 3 
ball and socket joint, attachment of a car mirror, pen  p +  >  n − 2 (frame or structure)
stand etc., are the examples of a spherical pair.  2   2 
57. Mechanism is said to be converted to structure If (L.H.S – R.H.S) = 0.5 (frame or structure)
if the degree of freedom of mechanism reduced If (L.H.S. – R.H.S.) > 0.5 (Super structure)
to :  h 3 
If  p +  <  n − 2  (unconstrained chain)
(a) 3 (b) 1  2 2 
(c) 0 (d) 2 62. In 3-dimension, how many degrees of freedom
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift does a fixed support have?
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper (a) 0 (b) 2
Ans. (c) : When the degree of freedom of a kinematic (c) 3 (d) 6
chain is zero then it is called structure. A structure with APPSC-AE-2019
negative degree of freedom is known as super structure. Ans. (a) : For a fixed support DOF = 0
58. Which of the following mechanism is made up 63. Which one of the following is not a inversion of
of turning pairs? double slider crank mechanism
(a) Scott-Russel mechanism (a) Elliptical trammel
(b) Peaucellier mechanism (b) Oldham's coupling
(c) Watt mechanism (c) Scotch yoke mechanism
(d) Pantograph (d) Beam engine Mechanism
TNPSC AE 2018 TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (b) : Peaucellier mechanism- The first planar Ans. (d) : Elliptical trammel, oldham's coupling and
linkage capable of transforming rotary motion into scotch yoke mechanism are the example of double
perfect straight - line motion and vice versa. slider crank mechanism where as beam engine
mechanism is the example of single slider crank
Number of links is 8.
mechanism.
59. _________permits one shaft to drive two other
64. For a Kinematic chain to be considered as
shafts with equal efforts at three different mechanism
shafts speeds. (a) Two links should be fixed
(a) Universal joint (b) Stub axles (b) One link should be fixed
(c) Differential (d) Axle housing (c) None of the links should be fixed
TNPSC AE 2017 (d) There is no such criterion
Ans. (c) : Differential permits one shaft to drive two Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
other shafts with equal efforts at three different shafts Ans. (b) : for a kinematic chain to be considered as
speeds. mechanism one link should be fixed.
60. Consider the following degrees of freedom 65. In gramophones for adjusting the speed of the
(i) Pitch turntable, the following type of governor is
(ii) Roll commonly employed–
(iii) Xaw (a) Hartung governor
DOF which is not included in half car model is (b) Wilson Hartnell governor
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) Pickering governor
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) (d) Inertia governor
TNPSC AE 2017 Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Ans. (c) : Roll and Xaw, DOF is not included in half car Ans. (c) : Pickering governor is used to drive a
model. gramophone.
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66. Automobile Steering gear is an example of 72. In a four-bar chain or quadratic cycle chain
(a) Higher pair (b) Sliding pair (a) each of the four pairs is a turning pair
(c) Turning pair (d) Lower pair (b) one is a turning pair and three are sliding
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 pairs
Ans. (d) : Automobile steering gear is an example of (c) two are turning pairs and two are sliding pairs
lower pair. (d) three are turning pairs and one is a sliding
67. Which of the following is a statically pair
indeterminate structure? Maharashtra PSC AE Pre 2019
(a) Load supported on composite member JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
(b) Load supported on two members Ans : (a) : A four bar chain have all the links binary
(c) Load supported on three members and all connection a turning pair or revolute pair as
(d) Thermal load supported on two members shown in figure below.
TNPSC 2019
Ans. (c) : Load supported on three members is a
statically indeterminate structure.
68. The number of degrees of freedom in a planar
mechanism having n links and j simple hinge
joints is–
(a) 3 (n–3) – 2j (b) 3 (n–1) – 2j Link 1, 2, 3 and 4 are connected by turning pair.
(c) 3n – 2j (d) 2j – 3n + 4 73. A link, which is free in space, has degree of
RPSC 2016 freedom equal to
Ans : (b) The no. of Degree of freedom in a planer (a) 3 (b) 6
(c) 5 (d) 4
mechanism having n links and J simple hinge joints is–
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
F = 3(n-1)-2j UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
69. The Grubler's criterion for obtaining the Ans : (b) : Degree of freedom of a pair is defined as the
degree of freedom (F) of a planar mechanism number of independent relative motions both
with 'n' number of links and 'j' number of translational and rotational, a pair can have Degree of
binary joints, is given by : freedom = 6
(a) F = 3(n–1) – j (b) F = 3(n–1) – 2j 74. Assertion (A) : The Ackermann steering gear is
(c) F = 2(n–1) – j (d) F = 2(n–1) – 2j commonly used in all automobiles.
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 Reason (R) : It has correct inner turning angle
Ans. (b) : The Grubler's criterion for obtaining the for all positions.
degree of freedom (F) of a planar mechanism with 'n' (a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R)
number of links and 'j' number of binary joints, is given is not the correct explanation of (A)
by : (b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of (A)
F = 3 ( n − 1) − 2 j (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
70. Oldham's coupling and elliptic trammels are (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
the inversion of : OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
(a) Crossed Slider Crank Chain Ans : (c) : An Ackerman steering gear has only turning
(b) Four Bar Chain pairs and thus is preferred, Its drawback is that it fulfills
(c) Single Slider Crank Chain the fundamental equation of correct gearing at the
(d) Double Slider Crank Chain middle and the two gearing at the middle and the two
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 extreme positions and not in all positions.
Ans. (d) : Oldham's coupling scotch yoke and elliptical 75. When a cylinder is located in a Vee-block, then
trammels are the inversion of double slider crank chain number of degrees of freedom which are
mechanism. arrested is :
71. A negative degree of freedom for a mechanism (a) 2 (b) 4
means : (c) 7 (d) 8
(a) Constrained motion mechanism OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
(b) Unconstrained motion mechanism Ans : (b) : Since the degree of freedom of a cylinder in
(c) Any motion vee-block are two and degree of freedom of cylinder in
(d) Statically indeterminate structure space are six, then degree of freedom arrested when
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 cylinder is put in vee-block.
Ans. (d) : Statically indeterminate structure we know DOF = 6 – 2 = 4
that mobility or degree of freedom of a statically 76. In a single slider four-bar linkage, when the
indeterminate structure (means super structure) is slider is fixed, it forms a mechanism of :
always negative. (a) Hand pump
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 (b) Reciprocating engine 82. Which of the following is a lower pair?
(c) Quick return (a) Ball and socket (b) Piston and cylinder
(d) Oscillating cylinder (c) Cam and follower (d) (a) and (b) above
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (a) : The slider 4 is fixed and link-1 moves/slides Ans : (d) : Lower pair- When two elements of a pair
through slider 4. The resulting mechanism is handpump. have a surface contact when relative motion takes place
77. The mechanism used in a shaping machine is : and the surface of one element slides over the surface of
(a) A closed 4-bar chain having 4 revolute pairs the other, the pair formed is known as lower pair. It will
(b) A closed 6-bar chain having 6 revolute pairs be seen that sliding pairs, turning pairs and screw pair
(c) A closed 4-bar chain having 2 revolute and 2 from lower pairs ball and socket. Piston and cylinder is
sliding pairs a lower pair.
(d) An inversion of the single slider-crank chain 83. Which of the following statements are correct
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I with respect to inversion of mechanisms?
Ans : (d) : Mechanism used in shaping machining is 1. It is a method of obtaining different
inversion of single slider crank mechanism. mechanisms by fixing different links of the
78. In a four-bar linkage, S denotes the shortest same kinematic chain.
link length, L is the longest link length, P and Q 2. It is method of obtaining different
are the lengths of other two links. At least one mechanisms by fixing the same links of
of the three moving links will rotate by 360º if : different kinematic chains.
(a) S + L ≤ P + Q (b) S + L > P + Q 3. In the process of inversion, the relative
(c) S + L ≥ L + Q (d) S + L > L + Q motions of the links of the mechanisms
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I produced remain unchanged.
4. In the process of inversion, the relative
Ans : (a) : The smallest link can rotated by 360º i.e.
motions of the links of the mechanisms
crank, This situation occurs only when Grashof’s law is
produced will change accordingly.
satisfied.
Select the correct answer using the code given
79. Match the following : below.
Column-I Column-II (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(P) Higher Kinematic pair (i) Grubler's equation (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
(Q) Lower Kinematic pair (ii) Line contact
(R) Quick return mechanism (iii) Euler's equation ESE 2019
(S) Mobility of a linkage (iv) Planer Ans. (a) : Inversion is the process of alternately fixing
(v) Shaper each link of a kinematic chain to get different type of
(vi) Surfaces contact mechanism where the relative motion between links
(a) P–II, Q–VI, R–IV, S–III remain unchanged but the absolute motion between then
(b) P–VI, Q–II, R–IV, S–I gets inverted i.e. the sense of their motion changes from
(c) P–VI, Q–II, R–V, S–III clockwise to counter clock wise rotation or from
(d) P–II, Q–VI, R–V, S–I rightward movement to leftward.
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I 84. A planer mechanism has 10 links and 12 rotary
RPSC 2016 joints. Using Grubler’s criterion, the number of
Ans : (d) : degrees of freedom of the mechanism is
! Higher Kinematic Pair → Line contact (a) 1 (b) 3
! Lower Kinematic Pair → Surface contact (c) 2 (d) 4
! Quick return mechanism → Shaper ESE 2017
! Mobility of a linkage → Grubler’s equation Ans. (b) : Given,
80. Scotch yoke mechanism is used to generate : n = 10
(a) Sine functions (b) Square roots j1 = 12
(c) Logarithms (d) Inversions j2 = 0
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I Degree of freedom (DOF) = 3(n − 1) − 2j1 − j2
Ans : (a) : Scotch yoke mechanism is an inversion of = 3(10 − 1) − 2 × 12 − 0
double slider crank mechanism. It is used to convert =3
rotary motion into sliding motion. It generates (sin and 85. Which of the following mechanisms are
cos) functions. examples of forced closed kinematic pairs?
1. Cam and roller mechanism
81. Any point on a link connecting double slider
2. Door – closing mechanism
crank chain will trace a
3. Slider – crank mechanism
(a) Straight line (b) Circle
Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) Ellipse (d) Parabola below.
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Ans : (c) : At the centre the link will trace circle and it (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
will trace ellipse on other points. ESE 2017
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Ans. (a) : Force closed kinematic pair– Contact link is known as coriolis component of acceleration and
between the links forming the pair is maintained by an is always perpendicular to the links
external force/torque but not due to the geometry of
surface in contact.
In general, can and follower will be in contact either
due to force of gravity or force of the spring on the
follower. Door closing mechanism, has a torsion spring
loaded follower in contact with door.
Note- The answer given by UPSC is option (c).
86. The coefficient of fluctuation of speed in Carioles component of the acceleration of B with
flywheel for punching press is in the range of respect of C
(a) 0.003 – 0.06 (b) 0.03 – 0.05 a CBC = a BC
t
= 2ωv
(c) 0.06 – 0.2 (d) Above 0.2
TNPSC 2019 ω = Angular velocity of the link OA.
V = Velocity of slider respect to coincident point C.
Ans. (c) : The coefficient of fluctuation of speed in
90. In a lower pair of links there is ........... contact.
flywheel for punching press is in the range of 0.06 – 0.2.
(a) point (b) line
87. Typewriter constitutes
(c) surface (d) no
(a) Structure (b) Machine
(HPPSC LECT. 2016)
(c) Inversion (d) mechanism
(KPSC AE 2015)Ans : (c) In a lower pair of links there is surface
contact.
Ans : (d) Typewriter constitutes mechanism.
Lower pair:- When the two elements of a pair have a
88. The degree of freedom of the mechanism surface contact when relative motion takes place and the
shown in the figure is surface of one elements slides over the surface of the
other, the pair formed is known as lower pair. It will be
seen that sliding pair, turning pair, and screw pairs form
lower pairs.
91. The no. of inversions for a slider crank
mechanism is...........
(a) two (b) zero (a) 4 (b) 8
(c) one (d) negative one (c) 6 (d) 0
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 (HPPSC LECT. 2016)
Ans : (c) Ans : (a)

A single slider crank chain is a modification of the basis

link = 4 (1, 2, 3, 4) four bar chain. It consist of one slider pair and three
J = 3 (A, B, C) turning pair.
h = 1 (D) This method of obtaining different mechanism by fixing
fr = 1 (link 2 and link 3) (Redundant Motion) different links in kinematic chain, is known as inversion
DOF = 3 (L - 1) - 2J - h - fr of the mechanism
DOF = 3 (4-1) - 2 × 3 - 1-1 (i) If number of links are N then no. of inversion is N
DOF = 1 (ii) The no. of inversion for a slider crank mechanism is 4.
92. The velocity of any point 'P' on a body rotating
89. In which of the following mechanism, the with angular velocity 'ω' and with
Coriolis acceleration exists ? instantaneous centre of rotation 'I' is equal to:
(a) withworth quick return mechanism (a) IP/ω (b) IPω
(b) tangent cam mechanism (c) IP/ω2 (d) IPω2
(c) both (A) and (B) (HPPSC LECT. 2016)
(d) one of these Ans : (b) Instantaneous centre = IPω
(HPPSC AE 2014) I = Instantaneous centre of rotation
Ans : (c) The coriolis acceleration exists. ω = angular velocity.
(i) Withworth quick return mechanism 93. Watt mechanism is a ......... bar mechanism.
(ii) Tangent cam mechanism. (a) 3 (b) 4
Coriolis component is on component of acceleration of (c) 5 (d) 8
the slider B with respect to the coincident point C on the (HPPSC LECT. 2016)
584
Ans : (b) Watt mechanism is a four bar mechanism. 98. Which one of the following is a lower pair ?
Watt mechanism:- It is a crossed four bar chain (a) cam and follower
mechanism and was used by Watt for his early steam (b) toothed gearing
engine to guide the piston rod a cylinder to have an (c) shaft in a bearing
approximate straight line motion. (d) ball and race in bearing
94. Mechanism having zero d.o.f. is known as: (KPSC AE 2015)
(a) Machine (b) structure Ans : (c) Shaft in a bearing is a lower pair
(c) Kinematic chain (d) Link Lower pair: when the two elements of a pair have a
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) surface contract when relative motion takes place and
Ans : (b) Mechanism having zero degree of freedom is the surface of one elements slides over the surface of
known as structure. the other, the pair is known as lower pair . It will be
structure:- If one of the link of redundant chain is seen that sliding pairs, turning pair and screw pairs
fixed. It is known as structure or a locked system. forms lower pair.
(i) No relative motion 99. Coriolis component of acceleration is present
(ii) Capable of transmitting force only exists whenever a point moves along a path
(iii) Power energy cannot be transmitted that has :
(iv) Degree of freedom of structure is zero (a) tangential acceleration
(v) Degree of freedom of super structure is less than zero. (b) centripetal acceleration
95. A truss having 5 joints and 7 members is (c) linear motion
termed as ............. truss. (d) rotational motion
(a) perfect (b) imperfect or deficient (KPSC AE 2015)
(c) redundant (d) none of these
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) Ans : (d) Coriolis Component of acceleration is present
exists whenever a point moves along a path that has
Ans : (a) Perfect frame or truss:-
rotational motion.
M = 2J - 3
M = No of member Corilois Component :
J = No of Joints.
Given data
M=7
J=5
M = 2J - 3
7=2×5-3
LHS = RHS
A truss having 5 Joints and 7 member is termed as This tangential Component of acceleration of the Slider
perfect frame. B with respect to the coincident point C on the link is
96. A kinematic chain having N links will have: known as coriolis Component of acceleration and is
(a) (N – 1) inversion (b) N inversion always perpendicular to the link
(c) (N – 2) inversion (d) (N – 3) inversion ∴ Coriolis Component of the acceleration of B with
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 reference of C .
Ans : (b) A kinematic chain having N links will have N a CBC = a BC
t
= 2ω V
inversion. ω = Angular velocity of the link oA .
A Kinematic chain having N links will have N V = Velocity of Slider B with respect of
inversion. This method of obtaining different Concident Pont C .
mechanism by fixing different links in a kinematic
chain, is known as inversion of mechanism. 100. Instantaneous center of a body rolling with
sliding on a stationary curved surface lies
97. Where is the Hooke's joint used in an
(a) At point of contact
automobile?
(a) between gearbox and propeller shaft (b) On the common tangent at the point of contact
(b) between flywheel and clutch (c) On the common normal at the point of contact
(c) between differential gear and wheel (d) None of these are correct
(d) between clutch and gear box MPPSC AE 2016
(KPSC AE 2015) Ans : (c) Instantaneous centre of a body rolling with
Ans : (a) Hooke's joint:- A Hooke's joint is used to sliding on a stationary curved surface lies on the
connect two shaft. Which are Intersecting at a small common normal at the point of contact.
angle. The end to each Shaft is forked to U-type and 101. Locked chain satisfy Equation (i) n = 2 p – 4,
each fork provides two bearing for the arms of a cross. 3
The arms of the cross are perpendicular to each other. Equation (ii) j = n – 2 :
2
The motion is transmitted from the driving shaft to (a) Only Equation (i)
driven shaft through a cross. (b) Only Equation (ii)
585
 (c) Satisfy both the Equations 104. Which of the following is an inversion of single
(d) Doesn't satisfy both the Equations slider crank chain?
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I (a) Hand pump (b) Oldham's coupling
Ans : (d) (c) Scotch yoke (d) Elliptical trammel
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
Ans : (a) Hand pump is an inversion of single slider
crank chain.
Inversion of single slider crank chain :
(i) Pendulum pump or Bull engine
(ii) Oscillating cylinder engine
Number of link (ℓ) = 3 (iii) Rotator internal Combustion engine or Gnom
Number of pair (p) = 3 Engine
Number of Joints (J) = 3 (iv) Crank and slotted lever quick motion mechanism
Equation (i) (v) With worth quick return motion mechanism
n = 2p– 4
105. Knee joint of a human being has ____degree(s)
3 = 2×3 – 4
LHS > RHS of freedom.
Equation (ii) (a) One (b) Two
3 (c) Three (d) Zero
= 3 = ×2−2 OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
2
LHS > RHS Ans : (a) Knee joint of a human being has one degree of
Since the arrangement of three link, does not satisfy the freedom.
equation (i) and (ii) and the left hand side is greater than 106. The mechanism used in internal combustion
the right hand side therefore it is not a kinematic chain engine is:
and hence no relative motion is possible. Such type of (a) crank mechanism
chain is called locked chain and forms a rigid frame or
(b) slider mechanism
structure which is used in bridges and trusses :
(c) slider crank mechanism
102. Roller bearing is a :
(a) Spherical pair (b) Higher pair (d) circular mechanism
(c) Lower pair (d) Cylindrical pair RPSC AE 2016
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I Ans : (c) Slider crank mechanism used in internal
Ans : (b) Roller bearing is a Higher pair. combustion engine
Higher pair : When the two elements of a pair have a
line or point contact when relative motion takes place
and the motion between the two elements is partly
turning and partly sliding, then the pair is known as
higher pair. A pair of friction discs, toothed gearing belt
and rope drives, ball and roller bearing and cam and
follower are the examples of higher pair.
103. One of the following mechanism is not exact 107. The rectilinear motion of a piston is converted
straight line mechanism: into rotary motion by
(a) Grasshopper Mechanism (a) piston (b) piston rod
(b) Hart Mechanism (c) crank (d) connecting rod
(c) Scott Russel Mechanism RPSC AE 2016
(d) Peaucellier Mechanism Ans : (d) The rectilinear motion of a piston is converted
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
into rotary motion by connecting rod.
Ans : (a) Grasshopper Mechanism is not exact straight connecting rod :- It converts reciprocating motion of
line mechanism.
the piston into circular motion of the crankshaft, in the
Approximate straight line motion mechanism :
(1) Watt's mechanism working stroke. The upper end of the connecting rod is
(2) Modified Scott-Russel mechanism fitted to the piston and the lower end to the crank.
(3) Grasshopper mechanism The special alloy steel or aluminum alloys are used for
(4) Tchebicheff's mechanism the manufacture of connecting rod.
(5) Roberts mechanism 108. In a kinematic chain the minimum number of
Exact straight line motion mechanism : kinematic pairs required is
(i) Peaucellier mechanism (a) one (b) two
(ii) Hart's mechanism (c) three (d) four
(iii) Scott Russell's mechanism RPSC AE 2016
586
Ans : (d) In a kinematic chain the four number of kinematic Ans : (a) List -I List -II
pair required when the kinematic pair are coupled in such a i) Cam and follower i. Pressure angle
way that the last link is joined to the first link to transmit ii) Screw pair ii. Single degree of
definite motion (Completely or successfully constrained freedom
motion) it is called a kinematic chain. iii)4-bar mechanism iii. Grashof's linkage
for kinematic chain iv) Degree of freedom iv. Grubler's rule
ℓ= 2p –4 of Planar mechanism
3 112. A rod AB length 1 m is sliding as shown in the
J = ℓ−2 figure. At an instant when the rod makes 60o
2 angle with the horizontal plane, the downwards
A chain having more then four links is called compound velocity of point A is 1 m/s. What is the angular
kinematic chain.
velocity of the rod at that instant?
109. If there are L number of links in a mechanism, (a) 2.0 rad/s (b) 1.5 rad/s
then the number of possible inversions would be (c) 0.5 rad/s (d) 0.75 rad/s
(a) L (b) L/2 UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
(c) L+1 (d) L+2
Ans : (a)
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (a) If L Number of links in a mechanism, then the
number of possible inversion would be L.
Inversion of Mechanism:- When one of links is fixed
in a kinematic chain, it is called a mechanism. So we
can obtain as many mechanism as the number of links
in a kinematic chain by fixing in turn, different links in
a kinematic chain. This method of obtaining different
mechanism by fixing different links in a kinematic
chain, is known as inversion of the mechanism.
110. The two-link system, shown in the given figure, Given VA = 1 m/sec
is constrained to move with planar motion. It I - Center of point A and point B is I
possesses: So, VA = AI . WAB
 AI 
VA 1  cos 60º = 1 
ω AB = =  
AI  1   AI = cos 60º = 1 
 
2  2 
ωAB = 2 rad/sec
(a) 2- degrees of freedom 113. Identify lower pairs. Select the most
(b) 3 - degrees of freedom appropriate answer.
(c) 4 - degrees of freedom (a) Ball and socket (b) Cam and follower
(d) 6 - degrees of freedom (c) Piston and cylinder (d) Both (a) and (c)
UJVNL AE 2016 UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Ans : (c) Ans : (d)
ℓ = No of links = 2 Lower pair:- When the two elements of a pair have a
j = No of Joints = 1 surface contact when relative motion take place and the
DOF for open chain in 2D surface of one elements slide over the surface of the
DOF = 3l - 2j other, the pair formed is known as lower pair. It will be
DOF = 3 × 2 - 2 × 1 = 4 seen that sliding pairs, turning pairs and screw pairs
111. Match list-I with list-II select the correct form lower pair.
Answer using the codes given below the list: 114. Differential gear is used in an automobile to
List -I List -II (a) Transmit power from the engine to driving
(a) Cam and follower 1. Grubler's rule wheels.
(b) Screw pair 2. Grashof's linkage (b) Multiply the available engine torque.
(c) 4-bar mechanism 3. Pressure angle (c) Enable the vehicle negotiate curves properly.
(d) Degree of freedom 4. Single degree of (d) Serves all the three functions as mentioned in
of Planar mechanism freedom (a), (b) and (c) above.
Code UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1 Ans : (d)
(b) 1 2 4 3 Differential gear is used in an automobile to:-
(c) 1 4 2 3 (i) Transmit power from the engine to driving wheels.
(d) 3 2 4 1 (ii) Multiply the available engine torque.
UJVNL AE 2016 (iii) Enable the vehicle negotiate curves properly.
587
115. ABCD is a mechanism with link lengths AB = (c) A square of an angular velocity of the link
200 mm; BC = 300 mm; CD = 400 mm and DA and the distance between the two points under
= 350 mm. Which one of the links should be consideration
fixed for the resulting mechanism to be a (d) An angular velocity of the link and the
double crank mechanism? distance between the two points under
(a) AB (b) BC consideration
(c) CD (d) DA ESE 2020
TNPSC AE 2014 Ans. (d) : An angular velocity of the link and the
Ans. (a) : AB = 200 mm, BC = 300 mm distance between the two points under consideration.
CD = 400 mm, DA = 350 mm 119. In a mechanism, the number of Instantaneous
If shortest link of the mechanism is fixed then the
centres (I-centres) N is
resulting mechanism become double crank mechanism
so link AB is fixed because of AB is shortest link n ( n − 1) n ( 2n − 1)
(a) (b)
among them. 2 2
2n ( n − 1) n ( 2n − 1)
(c) (d)
3 3
ESE 2020
CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
TNPSC AE 2014
2. Velocity and Acceleration Ans. (a) : Total number of instantaneous center (I-
center) of mechanism having 'n' links.
Analysis n(n -1)
N=
116. A mechanism has 7 links with all binary pairs 2
except one which is ternary pair. The number 120. If ω1 and ω2 are the angular velocities of the
of instantaneous centres of this mechanism are: two links which are connected by a pin joint
(a) 14 (b) 21 where radius of the pin is r, the rubbing
(c) 28 (d) 42 velocity at the pin joint when the links are
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 moving in same direction is given by:
Ans. (c) : (a) (ω1 – ω2)r (b) (ω1 + ω2)r
n ( n − 1) (c) 2(ω – ω )r (d) 2(ω1 + ω2)r
Instantaneous centers of the Mechanism = 1 2
2 (e) 3(ω1 – ω2)r
8 (8 − 1) (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
= = 28
Ans. (a) Rubbing Velocity–It is defined as the
2
117. The number of instantaneous centre of rotation algebraic sum between the angular velocities of the two
in a quick return motion mechanism are. links which are connected by pin joints, multiplied by
(a) Six (b) Eight the radius of pin.
(c) Twelve (d) Fifteen
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Ans : (a)
No. of link in quick return motion mechanism (ℓ) = 4
ℓ(ℓ − 1)
Number of Instantaneous centre (I) =
2
4(4 − 1) Rubbing velocity, when two links have same direction
(I) =
2 = (ω1 – ω2) × r
I=6 Rubbing velocity, when two links have opposite
118. The magnitude of the velocity of any point on direction of rotation.
the kinematic link relative to the other point on = (ω1 + ω2) × r
the same kinematic link is the product of 121. A wheel accelerates uniformly from rest to
(a) A square root of an angular velocity of the 1200 rpm in 20 seconds. Its angular
link and the distance between the two points acceleration will be _____ rad/s2.
under consideration (a) 1π (b) 2π
(b) An angular velocity of the link and the (c) 3π (d) 4π
square of distance between the two points (e) 5π
under consideration (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
588
Ans. (b) : N1 = 0 N2 = 1200 rpm 126. For a four bar linkage in toggle position, the
2πN 2 2 × π ×1200 value of the mechanical advantage is
ω1 = 0 ω2 = = (a) 0 (b) 0.5
60 60
t = 20 sec. ω2 = 40π rad/sec. (c) 0.75 (d) 1
Then angular acceleration (α) (e) infinity
ω − ω1 40π − 0 CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
α= 2 = Ans. (e) :
t 20
α = 2π rad / sec 2
122. Accelerating of piston for a slider crank
mechanism is given by:
(a) a ρ = ω 2 r[cosθ + (cos2θ)/n]
(b) a ρ = ω 2 r[cosθ + (cos2θ)/n 2 ]
(c) a ρ = ω 2 r[cosθ + (cos3θ)/n] ω4 of the output link DC becomes zero at the extreme
(d) a ρ = ω 2 r[cos2θ + (cosθ)/n] position. The extreme position of the linkage are known
as Toggle position.
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : Acceleration of a piston for a slider crank
ωinput
Mechanical advantage =
mechanism is given by; ωoutput
a ρ = ω 2 r[cosθ + (cos2θ)/n] ∵ ωoutput = 0
123. As per Kennedy's theorem, if three bodies have ∴ MA = ∞
plane motion, their instantaneous centre lies on: 127. Klein's diagram is used to find
(a) a triangle (b) a point (a) Angular velocity of various parts
(c) two lines (d) a straight line (b) Velocity of various parts
SJVN ET 2013 (c) Acceleration of various parts
Ans. (d) : Kennedy's theorem- If three bodies have (d) Displacements of the various parts
plane motion relative to one another, then there are (e) Velocity and acceleration of various parts
three instantaneous centers (I - centers) and these three
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
I- centre must lie on same line or these I - centres must
be collinear. Ans. (e) : Klein's diagram is used to find velocity and
124. A link is rotating about O Velocity of point P acceleration of various parts of single slider crank
on link w.r.t. point Q on link will be mechanism.
perpendicular to 128. The instantaneous center of rotation is a point
(a) OP of zero
(b) OQ (a) Angular velocity (b) Linear velocity
(c) PQ (c) Displacement (d) Acceleration
(d) Line in between OP and OQ (e) Acceleration and Displacement
SJVN ET 2013 CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Ans. (c) : A link is rotating about O velocity of point P Ans. (b) : Instantaneous center of velocity—
on link with respect to point Q on link will be Any point on a rigid body or on its extension that has
perpendicular to PQ.
zero velocity is called the instantaneous center of
125. In a slider crank mechanism if the crank velocity of the body.
rotates at uniform speed of 200 rpm and has a
length of 0.2 m, its linear velocity is: 129. If the direction of velocity at two different
(a) 4.19 m/s (b) 20.9 m/s points (A and B) on a rigid body are parallel
(c) 5.2 m/s (d) 41.9 m/s and equal in magnitude (VA = VB) as shown in
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 figure. Then its instantaneous center will be:
Ans. (a) : Data given as,
N = 200 rpm
ℓ = 0.2 m
V=?
We know that
 2πN 
V = rω = r ⋅ 
 60  (a) Outside the body but not at infinity
0.2 × 2 × 3.14 × 200 (b) At infinity
V= (c) On the surface of the body
60
(d) At centroid of the body
V = 4.186 m / s ≃ 4.19 m / s
UPRVUNL AE 2016
589
Ans. (b) : If the direction of velocity at two different
points (A and B) on a rigid body are parallel and equal
in magnitude (VA = VB) then its instantaneous center
will be at infinity.
Ans. (c) : Where-
at → Tangential component of acceleration
[due to change in angular acceleration]
ar → Radial component of acceleration due to
change in direction of the velocity of the link.

130. A link (OA) of length 'r' with centre 'O',

rotates in a circular path in clockwise direction
with constant angular velocity ( ω). The
a = at + ar
tangential and radial acceleration of point (A)
relative to center is respectively given by: = AB × α + AB ω 2
2
(a) ω r, 0 2 2
(b) ω r, ω r = AB [α + ω2]
2
(c) 0, 0 (d) 0, ω r 133. When a particle moves along a straight path,
UPRVUNL AE 2016 then the particle has
Ans. (d) : For link OA which rotates in a circular path (a) normal component of acceleration only
in clockwise direction (b) tangential acceleration only
(c) centripetal acceleration only
(d) both tangential and centripetal acceleration
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (b) When a particle moves along a straight path,
then the particle has Radial/centripetal or normal
component of ar = 0
[because there is no change in the direction of
the velocity (straight path)]
with constant angular velocity (ω = constant) so
tangential acceleration will be zero, whereas radial or therefore the partial has only tangential acceleration
normal acceleration will be equal to rω2 at ≠ 0
ar = rω2 Note : When a partial moves along a straight line or
131. The linear velocity of the reciprocating roller path with uniform velocity, there will be no radial as
follower when it has contact with the straight well as tangential acceleration.
flank of the tangent cam, is given by 134. The acceleration of the piston in a
(a) ω (r1 − r2 )sin θ reciprocating steam engine, neglecting the
(b) ω (r1 − r2 ) cos θ weight of the connecting rod is given by -
(c) ω (r1 + r2 ) sin θ sec θ
2 ω = Angular velocity of the crank
r = Radius of the crank
(d) ω (r1 + r2 ) cos θ cosec2θ
θ = Angle turned by the crank from inner dead
TNPSC AE 2013 centre
Ans. (c) : V = ω ( r1 + r2 ) sin θ.sec 2 θ n = Ratio of length of connecting rod to crank
132. A point B on a rigid link AB moves with radius
respect to A with angular velocity ω rad/s. The  cos 2θ 
(a) ωr  cos θ + 
total acceleration of B with respect to A will be  n 
equal to  cos 2θ 
(a) vector sum of radial component and cariolis (b) ω 2 r  cos θ + 
component  n 
(b) vector sum of tangential component and  sin 2θ 
(c) ωr  sin θ + 
cariolis component  n 
(c) vector sum of radial component and
tangential component  sin 2θ 
(d) ω 2 r  sin θ + 
(d) vector difference of radial component and  n 
tangential component TNPSC AE 2013
TNPSC AE 2013 CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
590
  sin 2θ  138. A slider moving at 150 mm/s on a link rotating
Ans. (b) : VP = rω sin θ + at 60 rpm will have .................. Coriolis
 2n  acceleration.
 cos 2θ  (a) 600 π mm/s2 (b) 400 π mm/s2
a p = rω 2  cos θ +
n 
2
 (c) 700 π mm/s (d) 300 π mm/s2
Angular velocity and angular acceleration of RPSC AE 2018
connecting rod. Ans. (a) : Data given-
ω cos θ N = 60 rpm
ω pc = V = 150 mm/s
n
We know that,
ω 2 sin θ
α pc = − Coriolis acceleration
n ac = 2 V × ω
135. Kliens construction can be used when
2 × 150 × 2π × N
(a) crank has uniform angular velocity =
(b) crank has non-uniform velocity 60
(c) crank has uniform angular acceleration 2 × 150 × 2π × 60
(d) crank has a uniform angular velocity and =
angular acceleration 60
TNPSC AE 2014 ac = 600π mm/s2
Ans. (d) : Kliens construction can be used when crank 139. A slider moving in a curve surface will have its
has a uniform angular velocity and angular acceleration. instantaneous center-
ωcrank = constant (a) at their point of contact
αcrank = constant (b) at infinity
136. For a slider crank mechanism, the velocity and (c) at the center of curvature
acceleration of the piston at inner dead centre (d) anywhere on the curve surface
will be RPSC AE 2018
(a) 0 and 0 (b) 0 and ω 2 r Ans. (c) : A slider moving in a curve surface will have
(c) 0 and < ω r 2
(d) 0 and > ω 2 r its instantaneous center at the center of curvature.
TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (d) : At inner dead centre θ = 00
 sin 2θ 
then Vp = rω sin θ +
 2n 
at, θ = 0 o

Vp = 0
140. A four link mechanism shown in the figure has
 cos 2 θ  link lengths as AB = 50 mm, BC = 66 mm, CD
a p = rω 2 cos θ +  = 56 mm and AD = 100 mm. If at an instant
 n  when ∠DAB = 60º and the link AB has an
at, θ = 00 angular velocity of 10.5 rad/s in the counter -
 cos 0º  clockwise direction, the velocity of B relative to
a p = rω 2 cos 0º +
 n  A (vector vba) (in m/s) of the point C is
....................
 1
a p = rω 2 1 + 
 n
so we can say that
ap > r ω2
137. A crank of radius 12 cm is rotating at 60 rpm
with an angular acceleration of 50 rad/sec2. The (a) 0.131 (b) 0.262
tangential acceleration of the crank is (c) 0.393 (d) 0.525
(a) 4.75 m/s2 (b) 5.2 m/s2 RPSC AE 2018
2 2
(c) 6 m/s (d) 7.4 m/s
Ans. (d) : Data given : ω = 10.5 rad/s (CCW)
TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (c) : r = 12 cm
N = 60 rpm
α = 50 rad/sec2
at = ?
We know that the tangential acceleration of the crank is
given as Then the velocity of B relative to A.
at = r α = 0.12 × 50 Vba = ω × AB = 10.5 × 0.05
at = 6 m/s2 Vba = 0.525 m/s
591
141. The Coriolis component of acceleration is 144. Coriorlis component of acceleration exists
applicable for which of the following whenever a point moves along a path that has
mechanisms? (a) local acceleration
(a) Pantograph (b) gravitational acceleration
(b) Crank-slider mechanism (c) tangential acceleration
(c) Quick return motion mechanism (Slotted (d) centripetal acceleration
Lever) APPSC AEE 2016
(d) Four bar chain Ans. (b) :
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
145. In a slider crank mechanism for l/r ratio of 4,
UJVNL AE 2016
the percentage of stroke converted by pistion
RPSC AE 2016
TNPSC AE 2013 corresponding to 90° movement of crank from
TSPSC AEE 2015 top dead centre will be
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I (a) 0 % (b) less than 50%
Ans. (c) : Coriolis component of acceleration exists (c) greater than 50% (d) 100%
when there is sliding motion of a slider which is sliding APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (b) : Less than 50%
on a link which itself is rotating. In quick return motion
mechanism and crank and slotted liver mechanism 146. The frequency of secondary force as compared
coriolis component of acceleration will exist. to primary force for ratio of connecting rod
Coriolis component of acceleration (ac) = 2Vω. length to crack radius of 4 is
142. Number of instantaneous centre for the (a) Half (b) Twice
mechanism will be (c) Four times (d) Sixteen times
TNPSC 2019
Ans. (b) : The secondary acceleration force is defined
as
cos 2θ
(a) 6 (b) 12 FS = mrω 2
n
(c) 14 (d) 15 Its frequency is twice that of primary force and
TNPSC AE 2018 1
Ans. (d) : Number of links in this mechanism (n) = 6 the magnitude times the magnitude of the primary
Number of I-centre n
force
n ( n − 1) 6 × ( 6 − 1)
= = = 15 1
2 2 FS = FP
4
143. The two links OA and OB are connected by a
pin joint at O. If the link OA turns with FP = 4FS
angular velocity ω1 rad/s in the clockwise 147. For a four-linkage in toggle position, the value
direction and the link OB turns with angular of mechanical advantage is-
velocity ω2 rad/s in the anti clockwise direction, (a) 0.0 (b) 0.5
then the rubbing velocity at the pin O is (c) 1.0 (d) ∞
(a) ω1.ω2 .r (b) (ω1 - ω2 ).r RPSC 2016
(c) (ω1 + ω2 ).r (d) (ω1 -ω2 ).2r Ans : (d)
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (c) : The rubbing Velocity is defined as the
algebraic sum between the angular velocity of the two
links which are connected by pin joints, multiplied by
the radius of the pin.

The extreme positions of a linkage are known as "toggle

position"
ω2 ωinput
When, Mechanical Advantage = =
ω4 ωoutput
At extreme position the angular velocity of link (4)
When links turns in opposite direction:– becomes 0 (i.e. ω4= 0) and hence mechanical
Rubbing velocity = (ω1 + ω 2 ).r advantage becomes infinity.
When links turns in same direction:– ω ω
Mechanical Advantage (M.A.) = 2 = 2 = ∞
Rubbing velocity = (ω1 - ω2 ).r ω4 0

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148. In a certain slider crank mechanism, lengths of
crank and connecting rod are equal. If the
crank rotates with a uniform angular speed of
14 rad/s and the crank length is 300 mm,
maximum acceleration of the slider (in m/s2) is–
(a) 11.76 m/s2 (b) 117.6 m/s2
(c) 1176.2 m/s2 (d) 1.1762 m/s2
RPSC 2016
Ans : (b)
2θ
Acceleration of slider ⇒ a = rω2 (cos θ + cos ) rotation ω.
n
l So the figure 1 and 3 are correct.
Given, r = l n =
r
n =1
Condition of Maximum Acceleration
∂a
⇒ sinθ + 2 sin (2θ) = 0 ⇒ = 0, which gives ( θ = 0 )
∂θ
amax = 0.3×14 [cos 0 + cos (2.0)] = 117.6 m/s2
2
149. A slider crank mechanism has the maximum
acceleration of slider when the crank is –
(a) at the inner dead centre position
(b) at the outer dead centre position
(c) exactly midway position between two dead
centers
(d) none of these
RPSC 2016
Ans : (a) A slider crank mechanism has the maximum
acceleration of slider when the crank is at the inner dead
centre position.
150. The direction of linear velocity of any point on
a link with respect to another point on the same
link is
(a) parallel to the link joining the points
(b) at 450 to the link joining the points
(c) perpendicular to the link joining the points
(d) none of these
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
Ans. (c) : The direction of linear velocity of any point
on a link with respect to another point on the same link
is perpendicular to the line joining the points.
151. The direction of Coriolis component of
acceleration, 2ωv, of the slider A with respect
to the coincident point B is shown in the figure
below :
Ans. (b) : rPQ = 30 cm
155. When a slider moves with a velocity 'V' on a
593
(a) 2 and 4 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct (d) 2 and 3 are correct
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
Ans. (c) : As for as direction of Coriolis acceleration is
concerned,
! If velocity of Slider is away from center of rotations
of link, the coriolis acceleration will be in direction
of ω.
! If direction of slider velocity in toward the centre of
rotation, the coriolis acceleration will be opposite to
152. When two links are connected by a pin joint,
their instantaneous centre lies
(a) on their point of contact
(b) at the centre of curvature
(c) at the centre of circle
(d) at the pin joint
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
Ans : (d) : At the pin joint.
153. In Klein's construction for reciprocating engine
mechanism, the scale of acceleration diagram
will be
(a) linear scale of configuration diagram
(b) Linear scale of configuration diagram
multiplied by square of angular velocity of
crank
(c) square of the linear scale of configuration
diagram
(d) square of the linear scale of configuration
diagram multiplied by square of angular
velocity of crank
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
Ans : (b) : Linear scale of configuration diagram
multiplied by square of angular velocity of crank.
154. In the 4-bar mechanism as shown, the link PQ
measures 30 cm and rotates uniformly at 100
rev/min. The velocity of point Q on link PQ is
nearly
(a) 2.54 m/s (b) 3.14 m/s
(c) 4.60 m/s (d) 5.80 m/s
ESE 2017
N = 100 rpm
VPQ = rPQ × ω
 2π×100 
= 0.3 ×  
 60 
= 3.14 m/s
link rotating at an angular velocity ' ω' then the
magnitude of Corioli's component of
acceleration is given by
 (a) 2 Vω (b) Vω Length of rod = 1m
Vω velocity of point A,
(c) (d) 2 Vω (vA) = 1m/s
2 Let the angular velocity of rod AB about I at
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I that instant be ω
MPPSC AE 2016 vA = IA × ω
TSPSC AEE 20015
vA = (AB cos 600) × ω
Ans. (d) : 2 Vω = (AB cos 600) × ω
156. The Coriolis component of acceleration acts:- 1
(a) Along the sliding surface = 1× ω
2
(b) Perpendicular to the sliding surface
ω
(c) At 45° to the sliding surface ⇒ vA =
(d) None of the above 2
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I ω = 1× 2 = 2 rad / s
Ans. (b) : The Coriolis component of acceleration acts ω = 2rad / sec
perpendicular to the sliding surface.
157. Coriolis component of acceleration exists 3. Cams and Follower
whenever a point moves along a path that has:-
(a) Tangential acceleration 160. Which of the following is not related to the cam
(b) Centripetal acceleration profile?
(c) Linear motion (a) Prime circle (b) Trace point
(d) Rotational motion
(c) Addendum (d) Base circle
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
SJVN ET 2019
Ans. (d) : Coriolis component of acceleration exists
whenever a point moves along a path that has rotational Ans. (c): Addendum - Addendum is Radial distance
motion. between pitch circle and addendum circle and it is equal
158. The maximum angular acceleration of the to 1 module.
connecting rod with crank to connecting rod Addendum = 1 module
ratio 1.5 and crank running at 3000 rpm is 161. In cycloidal motion of cam follower, the
around maximum acceleration of follower motion f max
(a) 1.8 × 104 rad/s2 (b) 9 × 104 rad/s2 ϕ
(c) 0.9 × 104 rad/s2 (d) 3 × 104 rad/s2 at θ = is
4
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
4
Ans. (a) : 1.8 × 10 rad/s 2 h πω 2
3hπω2
(a) (b)
159. A rod of length 1 meter is sliding in a corner as 2ϕ 2 2ϕ 2
shown in the figure. At an instant the velocity 2hπω2 3hπω2
of point 'A' on the rod is 1m/sec when the rod (c) (d)
ϕ 2
ϕ2
makes an angle of 600 with the horizontal
plane. The angular velocity of rod at that where:
instant is: h = Maximum follower displacement
ω = Angular velocity of cam
ϕ = Angle for the maximum follower
displacement for cam rotation
ESE 2020
2hπω2
Ans. (c) :
ϕ2
162. For a Roller Follower the trace point is at
(a) 2 rad/sec (b) 1.5 rad/sec
_________
(c) 0.5 rad/sec (d) 0.75 rad/sec
(a) At the centre point of cam
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
(b) At the cam axis
Ans. (a) :
(c) At the roller diameter
(d) At the centre point of roller
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Ans. (d) : For a roller follower the trace point is at the
roller centre.
Ex. Used in Aircraft engine & Gas engines.
163. A radial follower is one which-
(a) reciprocates in the guides
594
 (b) oscillates 168. Which of the following is not the shape of Cam?
(c) translates along an axis passing through the (a) Spiral (b) Knife-edge
cam centre of rotation (c) Globoidal (d) Conjugate
(d) None of these (e) Spherical
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper CGPSC AE 2014- I
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I Ans. (b) : Spiral, globoidal, conjugate and spherical are
Ans. (c) : In radial follower, the line of motion of shape of cam whereas knife-edge is the shape of
follower is passing through cam centre of rotation. follower in cam-follower mechanism.
164. A circle drawn with centre as the cam centre and 169. A cam-and-follower system with the follower
radius equal to the distance between the cam having a constant velocity is not suitable in
centre and the point on the pitch curve at which practice because
the pressure angle is maximum, is called– 1. The cam rotates with a uniform angular
(a) Base circle (b) Pitch circle velocity
(c) Prime circle (d) None of these 2. The follower moves with constant velocity
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper 3. Inertial forces are large at the beginning as
Ans. (b) : It is pitch circle, at which the pressure angle well as at the end of follower motion
will be maximum (when this point pass through the Which of the above statements is/are correct?
pitch curve). (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Base circle- It is the smallest circle tangent to the cam (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
profile drawn from the centre of rotation of a radial cam.
UPSC JWM 2017
Pressure angle- The pressure angle representing the
steepness of the cam profile, is the angle between Ans. (c) : The follower with a constant velocity is not
normal to the pitch curve at a point and the direction of suitable for practical use because the inertial forces are large
the follower motion. at the beginning as well as at the end of follower motion.
Prime circle- Smallest circle drawn tangent to the pitch 170. The cam and follower without a spring forms a
curve is known as prime circle. (a) Lower pair (b) Higher pair
Pitch circle- It is a point on pitch curve at which the (c) self closed pair (d) forced closed pair
pressure angle is maximum. APPSC AEE 2016
165. Consider the following statements Ans. (c) : The cam and follower with a spring forms a
1. Base circle 2. Pitch circle forced closed pair whereas without spring forms a self
3. Prime circle 4. Outer circle closed pair.
5. Angle of ascent 171. The cam follower extensively used in air-craft
Out of the above, the cam size depends upon engine is
(a) 2 (b) 1, 3 and 5 (a) knife edge follower (b) flat faced follower
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 (c) spherical face follower(d) roller follower
(e) 1 and 3 APPSC AEE 2016
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
TNPSC 2019 Ans. (d) : Roller follower–
RPSC AE. 2016 • When the contacting end of the follower is a roller,
Ans. (d) : Cam size depends upon base circle. The it is called a roller follower.
pressure angle of a cam depends upon offset between • Since the rolling motion take place between the
centre lines of cam and flower, lift of follower and contacting surface therefore the rate of wear is
angle of ascent. greatly reduced.
166. A cam in which the follower reciprocates or • In roller followers also the side thurst exists
oscillates in a plane parallel to the axis of the between the follower and the guide.
cam is known as • The roller followers are extensively used where
(a) Cylindrical Cam (b) Circular cam more space is available such as in stationary gas and
(c) Reciprocating cam (d) Tangent cam oil engines and air craft engines.
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Ans. (a) : Cylindrical cam– A cam in which the
follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane parallel to
the axis of the cam is known as cylindrical cam.
167. The circle passing through the pitch point and
concentric with the base circle of Cam profile is
known as:
(a) Pitch circle (b) Prime circle
(c) Trace circle (d) Base circle
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (a) : The circle passing through the pitch point and 172. For high speed engines, the cam follower
concentric with the base circle of Cam profile is known should move with
as pitch circle. (a) Uniform velocity
595
 (b) Simple harmonic motion (c) ω 2 × OQ cosθ (d) ω 2 × OQ tan θ
(c) Uniform acceleration and retardation
(d) Cycloidal motion Where OQ = Distance between the centre of
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I circular flank and centre of nose.
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper Ans : (a) : The retardation of a flat faced follower when
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 it has contact at the apex of the nose of a circular cam is
TSPSC AEE 2015 given by ω 2 × OQ .
JPSC AE PRE 2019
Ans : (d) For high speed engines, the cam follower 176. Throw of a cam is the maximum distance of the
should move with cycloidal motion. follower from
Cycloidal motion:- There are no instantaneous changes (a) Base circle (b) Pitch circle
in acceleration at any point during motion. This would (c) Root circle (d) Prime circle
in turn mean that there would be no jerks and the cam Gujarat PSC AE 2019
follower system would show smooth operation. this Ans : (a) : Base circle- It is the smallest circle tangent
makes the cam suitable for high speed application
to the cam profile (contour) drawn from the centre of
173. For low and moderate speed engines, the cam rotation of a radial cam.
follower should move with
(a) simple harmonic motion 177. Statement (I): Cams used in high-speed
(b) uniform velocity application should have displacement, velocity
(c) uniform acceleration and retardation and acceleration curves of the follower in
(d) cycloidal motion continuity.
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II Statement (II): Abrupt changes in these curves
Ans : (a) : For low and moderate speed engines, the cam will cause high contact stresses at the bearings and
follower should move with simple harmonic motion. make the operation noisy.
174. For a given lift of the follower in a given ESE 2017
angular motion of the cam, the acceleration Ans. (a) : Acceleration curve with abrupt changes (such
/retardation of the follower will be least when
as parabolic/simple harmonic motion of follower) will
the profile of the cam during the rise portion is:
(a) Such that the follower motion is simple exert abruptly changing contact stresses at the bearings
harmonic and an the cam surface and lead to noise, surface wear
(b) Such that the follower motion has a constant and eventual failure.
velocity from start to end 178. The displacement and velocity diagrams of a
(c) A straight line, the being a tangent cam cam and follower mechanism are shown:
(d) Such that the follower velocity increases
linearly for half the rise portion and then
decreases linearly for the remaining half of
the rise portion
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans : (d) : Acceleration of follower in various
situations
2
 πω  h
(i) SHM, a =  
 φ  2
(ii) Constant velocity Acceleration very high at start
end the rise but zero during whole motion, so
overall very high Which of the following statements is / are
(iii) In tangent cam also, the maximum acceleration is correct?
very high. 1. The acceleration of the follower at the
(iv) Velocity increases linearly i.e. parabolic motion, beginning and at the end of each stroke will be
the acceleration.
zero.
4ω 2
2. The follower remains at rest in the dwell period.
= 2 .h
φ 3. During period DE, the motion of the follower is
So out of given all, the least acceleration will be in retarding.
which Velocity varies linearly. Select the correct answer using the code given
175. The retardation of a flat faced follower when it below.
has contact at the apex of the nose of a circular (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
arm cam, is given by : (c) 2 only (d) 3 only
(a) ω 2 × OQ (b) ω 2 × OQ sin θ ESE 2017
596
Ans. (c) :
Given- Profile is corresponding to uniform velocity
motion of follower during rise and fall.
AB − Rise
BC − Dwell
CD − Fall
DE − Dwell
At start and end of rise and fall, velocity suddenly
changes, which makes acceleration at these locations
tend to ∞.
During dwell period followers does not move.
179. The pressure angle and the base circle in a cam
should be
(a) both as big as possible
(b) both as small as possible
(c) as big as possible and as low as possible
respectively
(d) as small as possible and as big as possible dog while it is being moved forwards/backwards. A
respectively
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016control the amount of forwards/ backwards movement
Ans : (d) The pressure angle and the base circle in a
cam should be as small as possible and as big as
possible respectively.
Base circle :- It is the smallest circle that can be drawn
to the cam profile
pressure angle:- It is the angle between the direction of
the follower motion and a normal to the pitch curve.
This angle is very important in designing a cam profile.
If the pressure angle is too large, a reciprocating
follower will jam in its bearings.
180. The choice of displacement diagram during the
rise or return of a follower of a cam-follower
mechanism is based on dynamic considerations
For high speed cam, follower will have which
one of the following
(a) Cycloidal motion
(b) Simple harmonic motion
(c) Parabolic or uniform acceleration motion
(d) Uniform motion or constant velocity motion
MPPSC AE 2016 follower remains at rest.
Ans : (a)
i. For high speed engines, the cam follower should
move with cycloidal motion
ii. For low and moderate speed engine, the cam
follower should move with simple harmonic
motion.
iii. cycloidal motion displacement diagrams should be
chosen for better dynamic performance of a cam-
follower mechanism.
181. In cams, the point on pitch curve which
indicates the maximum angle is called
(a) Trace point (b) Pitch point
(c) Ball point (d) Pin point
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (b) In cams, the point on pitch curve which
indicates the maximum angle is called pitch point.
Pitch point:- It is a point on the pitch curve having the
maximum pressure angle.
182. When cam moves, the period during which the
follower of cam remains at rest is known as
(a) constant period (b) fixed period
(c) dwell period (d) idle period
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (c) When cam moves, the period during which the
follower of cam remains at rest is known as dwell
period.
Application of dwell period:-
Cam-follower dwell mechanisms are used in pairs in
sewing machines to operate the four motion feed dogs,
with one cam moving the dog up and down, and the
other cam moving the dog forwards and backwards. The
cams in this application are usually phased 90 degrees
apart allowing a pause in the up/down movement of the
separate adjustable sliding block or link is used to
of the dog.
183. The pressure angle in a cam depends on
(a) The angle of ascent
(b) The lift of the follower
(c) offset between centre lines of cam and
follower
(d) All of the above
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Ans : (d) The pressure angle in a cam depends on
(i) The angle of ascent
(ii) The lift of the follower
(iii) Offset between centre lines of cam and follower.
184. During the dwell period of the cam, the
follower:-
(a) Remains at rest
(b) Moves in a straight line
(c) Moves with uniform speed
(d) Does simple harmonic motion
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
Ans. (a) : During the dwell period of the cam, the
597
185. Kinematic pair constituted by cam and Product of the no. of teeth on drivens
follower mechanism is:- (b)
Product of no. of teeth on drives
(a) Higher and open type
Addition of the no. of teeth on drivens
(b) Lower and open type (c)
(c) Lower and closed type Addition of no. of teeth on drivers
(d) Higher and closed type Addition of the no. of teeth on drivens
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I (d)
Product of no. of teeth on drivers
Ans. (a) : Kinematic pair constituted by cam and Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
follower mechanism is higher and open type.
Ans. (b) : For, a reverted gear trains, the speed ratio is
186. The point on the Cam with maximum pressure
given by,
angle is known as the
(a) Cam centre (b) Pitch point ω T
S.R = DVR = DVN
(c) Trace point (d) Prime point ωDVN TDVR
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Product of the no. of teeth on drivens
Ans. (b) : Pitch point S.R=
Product of no. of teeth on driven
187. For a roller follower, pitch curve and cam
surface are 192. In which one of the following tooth profiles,
(a) identical does the pressure angle remain constant
(b) separated by the radius of the roller throughout the engagement of teeth?
(c) separated by the diameter of the roller (a) Cycloidal (b) Involute
(d) separated by one and half times the radius of (c) Conjugate (d) Epicycloid
the roller ESE 2020
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I Ans. (b) : In involute profile tooth, because of the
Ans. (b) : Separated by the radius of the roller involute property to be satisfied, pressure angle does not
188. The pressure angle of a flat footed follower in change with point of contact position.
contact with a circular arc cam is
(a) 5º (b) 3º 193. A spur gear with 22 number of teeth and a 28
(c) 0º (d) –1º mm pitch circle diameter will have a circular
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I pitch as:
Ans. (c) : 0º (a) 2 mm (b) 4 mm
(c) 6 mm (d) 8 mm
4. Gears and Gear Trains (e) 10 mm
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
189. Velocity factor is used to take care of Ans. (b) : Number of teeth (T) = 22
(a) effect of high velocity Pitch circle diameter (D) = 28 mm
(b) possibility of fatigue failure Then circular pitch (P) = ?
(c) possibility of high wear We know that
(d) pitting
πD 22 28
TNPSC AE 2017 P= = ×
Ans. (b) : Velocity factor is used to take care of T 7 22
possibility of fatigue failure. The ratio of the static load P = 4 mm
at failure to the dynamic load at failure was taken as the 194. In case of helical gear, the relation between the
velocity factor (Kv). This means that an identical gear normal pitch (PN), axial pitch (PC) and helix
pair running at this speed would have a dynamic load
angle (α), is given by:
equal to Kv times the static tangential load.
P P
190. Spring driven watches and clocks utilise (a) PC = N (b) PC = N
(a) involute gears (b) cycloid gears cos α sin α
(c) epicycloid gears (d) straight rack gears P P
(c) PN = C (d) PN = C
RPSC AE 2016 cos α sin α
Ans : (b) Spring driven watches and clock utilize PN
cycloid gears teeth. (e) PN =
cos 2α
A cycloid is the curve traced by a point on the
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
circumference of a circle which rolles without slipping
an a fixed straight line. Ans. (a) : In case of helical gear, the relation between
191. For a reverted gear trains the speed ratio is the normal pitch (P N), axial pitch PC and helix angle (α)

given by is given by
Product of the no. of teeth on drives P
(a) PC = N
Product of no. of teeth on drivens cos α
598
195. The train value for T1 number of teeth on 200. Velocity factor for ordinary cut gears
driver and T2 number of teeth on driven gear is operating at velocity 6 m/s is equal to-
given by: (a) 0.5 (b) 0.75
T1 T2 (c) 0.33 (d) 1
(a) (b) Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
T2 T1
Ans. (c) : Velocity factor for ordinary gears operating at
1 T  1T  (velocity upto 12.5 m/sec) is equal to,
(c)  1  (d)  2 
2  T2  2  T1  3
(e) (T1 – T2) CV =
3+ V
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
Here V = 6m/sec
Ans. (a) : Speed Ratio–It is defined as the ratio of
speed of driver gear to speed of driven gear 3
CV = = 0.33
ωDVR 3+ 6
Speed ratio = For carefully cut gear (for velocity upto 12.5 m/sec)
ωDVN
4.5
1 ωDVN CV =
Then train value = = 4.5 + V
Speed Ratio ωDVR For very accurately cut and ground metallic gears (for
ω T velocity upto 20 m/sec)
Train value = DVN = 1 6
ωDVR T2 CV =
196. Velocity factor for ordinary cut gears operating 6 + V
For precision gear cut coin high accuracy (for velocity
at velocity 9m/s is equal to
upto 20 m/sec)
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.75
(c) 0.25 (d) 1 0.75
CV =
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper 0.75 + V
Ans. (c) : Velocity factor from ordinary cut gears 201. The maximum efficiency for spiral gears is
operating at velocity 9 m/se. then cos(θ + Φ) +1 cos(θ − Φ) +1
3 3 3 (a) (b)
Cv = = = = 0.25 cos(θ − Φ) + 1 cos(θ + Φ) + 1
3 + v 3 + 9 12 sin(θ + Φ) + 1 cos(θ − Φ) + 1
197. The type of gear used for speed reduction of (c) (d)
50 : 1 will be cos(θ + Φ) + 1 sin(θ + Φ) + 1
(a) Herringbone (b) Spur Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
(c) Bevel (d) Worm Wheel Ans. (a) : The maximum efficiency of spiral gears is
SJVN ET 2013 cos(θ + Φ) +1
given by, ηmax =
Ans. (d) : Worm wheel type of gear used for speed cos(θ − Φ) +1
reduction of 50 : 1.
202. For 20º pressure angle, minimum number of
198. Compare to spur gears, helical gears: teeth will be:
(a) Run more smoothly (a) 6 (b) 12
(b) Run with more vibrations and noise (c) 17 (d) 20
(c) Consume more power SJVN ET 2013
(d) Run exactly alike
SJVN ET 2013 Ans. (c) : t ≥ 2a r (a = 1 for standard addendum)
r
Ans. (a) : Helical gear- Teeth are inclined to the axis of sin 2 φ
rotation, the angle provides more gradual engagement 2
of the teeth during meshing, transmits motion between ∴ t min = = 17.1 or 18
parallel shafts. sin 20 o
2

• The angled teeth engage more gradually than spur gear 203. Which of the following is the correct relation
teeth, causing them to run more smoothly and quietly. for gear?
199. Stub teeth are provided for- (a) Circular pitch = π × Module
(a) High velocity ratios (b) Circular pitch = 2 × Module
(b) High power transmitting capacity (c) Circular pitch = 2π × Module
(c) Low noise (d) Circular pitch = Module
(d) Reducing number of the teeth for compact SJVN ET 2019
construction πD
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper Ans. (a) : Circular pitch = T
Ans. (d) : Stub teeth are provided for reducing number, D
of teeth for compact construction, reduced interference Module =
in involutes gears, to improve capability to with stand T
shock and vibrations. Circular pitch = π × Module
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204. Face of a tooth in spur gear is : 209. The minimum number of teeth which can be
(a) The surface between pitch circle and top land cut for standard tooth, for given pressure angle
(b) The surface between top land and bottom land ϕ is equal to
(c) The surface between pitch circle and bottom land sin 2ϕ
(d) The surface of the top of the tooth (a) (b) 2sin 2 ϕ
SJVN ET 2019 2
Ans. (a) : The surface between pitch circle and top land 2 2
(c) (d)
is known as face of a tooth in spur gear. sin 2ϕ sin 2 ϕ
205. Involute profile is widely used for gear tooth 1
because– (e)
(a) pressure angle remains constant sin 2 ϕ
(b) face and flank form a continuous curve CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
(c) involute rack has straight sided teeth Ans. (d) : Undercutting occurs if you cut deeper than
(d) all the above factors the interfering point. Undercutting is a phenomenon that
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper occurs when some part of tooth dedendum is
Ans. (d) : Involute profile is widely used for gear tooth unexpectedly cut by the edge of the generating tool. The
because all the above factors. condition for no undercutting in a standard spur gear is
206. In a involute gear, the normal to the involute is given by the expression.
tangent to the Maximum addendum
(a) Pitch circle (b) Base circle mZ
(c) Addendum circle (d) Dedendum circle m≤ sin 2 α
(e) Average of the addendum and dedendum circles 2
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift and minimum number of teeth (Z) is
Ans. (b) : The curve most commonly used for gear 2
Z=
tooth profiles is the involute of a circle. This involute sin 2 α
curve is the path traced by a point on a line as the line 210. An epicyclic gear train has 3 shafts A, B and C.
rolls without slipping on the circumference of a circle. It
A is the input shaft running at 100 r.p.m.
may also be defined as a path traced by the end of a
string which is originally wrapped on a circle when the clockwise. B is the output shaft running at 250
string is unwrapped from the circle. The circle from r.p.m. clockwise. The torque on A is 50 kNm
which the involute is derived is called the base circle. (clockwise), C is a fixed shaft. The torque
207. The surface of the gear tooth below the pitch needed to fix C is
surface is called (a) 20 kN m (anti-clockwise)
(a) Face (b) Bottom tooth (b) 20 kN m (clockwise)
(c) Flank (d) Dedendum (c) 30 kN m (anti-clockwise)
(e) Tooth depth (d) 30 kN m (clockwise)
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift ESE 2017
Ans. (c) : Face of tooth is the surface of the gear tooth Ans. (c) : Given,
above the pitch surface. NA = 100 rpm (CW)
Flank of tooth is the surface of the gear tooth below the NB = 250 rpm (CW)
pitch surface. τA = 50 kNm (CW)
208. Consider the following statements NC = 0
1. Cheaper low quality gear in small numbers ∑τN = 0
2. The tooling costs are reasonable τANA + τBNB + τCNC = 0
3. Poor surface finish and dimensional accuracy (50 × 100) + (τB × 250) + 0 = 0
4. Due to low precision and high backlash, they
τB = −20 kNm
are noisy
5. They are suited for non-critical applications τB = 20 kNm (anti clockwise)
Out of the above which are the characteristics Now ∑τ = 0
of sand cast gears? τA + τB + τC = 0
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 τC = −(τA + τB)
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 = −(50 − 20) = − 30 kNm
(e) 1, 4 and 5 = 30 kNm (anti clockwise)
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift 211. The interference is cycloidal teeth
Ans. (d) : The characteristics of sand cast gears are (a) is absent completely
(i) Cheaper low quality gear in small numbers. (b) depends on number of teeth
(ii) The tooling costs are reasonable (c) depends on condition of meshing
(iii) Poor surface finish and dimensional accuracy. (d) depends on pressure angle
(iv) Due to low precision and high backlash, they are (e) is maximum
noisy. CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
(v) They are suited for non-critical application. Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
600
Ans. (a) : In cycloidal gears, no interference exists Ans. (b) :
provided the centre distance is properly maintained, Velocity ratio Number of starts
unlike in involute gears. 20 and above Single start
212. Stub tooth are cut on gears 12 - 36 Double start
(a) Subjects to shock and vibration 8 - 12 Triple start
(b) To reduce centre distance between shafts 6 - 12 Quadruple start
(c) To reduce friction torque 4 - 10 Sextuple start
(d) To improve transmission efficiency 217. The maximum efficiency of worm and worm
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper wheel is : [Coefficient of friction = µ]
Ans. (a) :
213. An automobile gearbox has- (a)
1
(b)
(
1 − sin tan −1 µ)
(a) simple gear train (
1 + sin tan −1 µ ) 1 + sin ( tan µ )
−1

(b) compound gear train

(c) epicyclic gear train 1 1
(c) (d)
(d) none of the above
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
( µ)
1 + tan sin −1 1+ µ

Ans. (b) : An automobile gearbox has compound gear (e) 1 − sin ( tan −1 µ )
train.
CGPSC AE 2014- I
214. The velocity ratio in the case of compound
Ans. (b) : Maximum efficiency of worm and worm
train of wheels is equal to-
wheel is given as
Number of teeth on first driver
(a)
Number of teeth on last follower
[ η max ] WW =
( −1
1 − sin φ 1 − sin tan µ
=
)
(b)
Number of teeth on last follower (
1 + sin φ 1 + sin tan − µ )
Number of teeth on first driver θ = tan −1 µ
Product of teeth on the driver
(c) 218. What is the preferred order of sequence for the
Product of teeth on the followers following drives from high speed to low speed?
Product of teeth on the followers (a) Rack and pinion, spur gears, worm and worm
(d)
Product of teeth on the driver wheel
RPSC AE 2018 (b) Worm and worm wheel, spur gears, rack and
Ans. (d) : Velocity Ratio—It is the ratio of velocity of pinion
driver to velocity of driver gear. (c) Worm and worm wheel, rack and pinion, spur
gears
(d) Spur gears, worm and worm wheel, rack and
pinion
UPSC JWM 2017
Ans. (c) : The preferred order of sequence for the high
speed to low speed drives as following-
worm and worm wheel
rack and pinion
spur gears
N1 T2 × T4
= 219. Design load factor for (i) a helical gear is
N 4 T1 × T3 smaller than that for (ii) a straight tooth spur
215. When the pitch angle in Bevel gears is less than gear because
90o it is referred to as an (a) Load concentration factor may be same in
(a) external Bevel gear both but dynamic load factor is smaller in (i)
(b) internal Bevel gear (b) Both load concentration factor and dynamic
(c) crown gear load factor are smaller in (i)
(d) meter gear (c) Load concentration factor is smaller even
TNPSC AE 2014 though dynamic load factor may be higher
Ans. (a) : When the pitch angle in Bevel gears is less in (i)
than 90o it is referred to as an external Bevel gear. (d) Load concentration factor is smaller in (i)
216. Reduction ratio of a worm gear drive with a 60 even as the dynamic load factor is the same
teeth wheel and a double start worm with 12 for both
threads is UPSC JWM 2017
(a) 60 (b) 30 Ans. (d) : Design load factor for a helical gear is
(c) 12 (d) 5 smaller than that for a straight tooth spur gear. Load
TNPSC AE 2014 concentration factor is smaller for helical gear.
601
220. The formative number of teeth of Helical gear Ans. (d) : Worm gear– To transmit power from one
will be rotating shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel
(a) T/cos α (b) T/cos2 α nor intersecting known as worm gear.
(c) T/cos3 α (d) T/cos4 α Spur gear– spur gears are cylindrical and have straight
TNPSC AE 2018 teeth and are mounted on parallel shafts.
Ans. (c) : The formative number of teeth of Helical gear Bevel gear– Teeth are formed on a conical surface,
will be T/cos3 α. used to transfer motion between non-parallel and
221. Two mating spur gears have 40 and 120 teeth intersecting shafts.
respectively. The pinion rotates at 1200 rpm Spiral gear– Spiral gears are also known as crossed
and transmits a torque of 20 Nm. The torque helical gears.
transmitted by the gear is They have high helix angle and transmit power between
(a) 10 N – m (b) 20 N – m two non-intersecting non parallel shafts.
(c) 40 N – m (d) 60 N – m 225. In spiral bevel gears, the axes
APPSC AEE 2016 (a) are non-parallel and non-intersecting and the
Ans. (d) : Data given, teeth are curved
ZP = 40 ZG = 120 (b) are non-parallel and non-intersecting and the
NP = 1200 rpm TP = 20 N–m teeth are straight
We assume that (c) intersect and the teeth are curved and oblique
Power transmitted by pinion = Power transmited by gear (d) intersect and the teeth are curved and can be
PP = PG ground
2π N P × TP 2π N G TG TNPSC 2019
= Ans. (c) : In spiral bevel gears, the axes intersect and
60 60
the teeth are curved and oblique.
N  N P ZG 
TG = TP × P  =  226. If the number of teeth on the wheel rotating at
NG  N G ZP  300 r.p.m. is 90, then the number of teeth on
120 the mating pinion rotating at 1500 r.p.m. is
TG = 20 × (a) 15 (b) 18
40
TG = 60 N–m (c) 20 (d) 60
222. Backlash is RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
(a) Sum of the clearances of pinion and gear Ans. (b) :
teeth TA N B
(b) The amount by which the width of a tooth =
TB N A
space exceeds the thickness of meshing tooth
on pitch circle 90 1500
=
(c) Difference between dedendum and addendum TB 300
of gear tooth TB = 18
(d) Difference between the pitch circles of 227. The standard value of addendum is
meshing gears (a) 2 module (b) 1.157 module
APPSC AEE 2016 (c) 1 module (d) 3 module
Ans. (b) : Backlash– Backlash is defined as the amount BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
by which a tooth space exceeds the thickness of an
Ans : (c) : The standard value of addendum is 1
engaging tooth. The general purpose of backlash is to
present gears from jamming together and making module.
contact on both sides of their teeth simultaneously. Lack 228. In gears, the contact ratio is the ratio of
of backlash may cause noise. (a) length of path of contact to the circular pitch
223. Surface endurance limit of gear material is (b) length of arc of contact to the circular pitch
dependent upon its (c) length of arc of approach to the circular pitch
(a) Brinnel Hardness number (d) length of arc of recess to the circular pitch
(b) Elastic Strength JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
(c) Toughness Ans : (b) :
(d) Yield Strength length of arc of contact
APPSC AEE 2016 Contact ratio = circular pitch
Ans. (a) : Surface endurance limit of gear material is
dependent upon its Brinnel Hardness Number. 229. The minimum recommended top land for
hardened gears in terms of module m is
224. To transmit power from one rotating shaft to
(a) 0 m (b) 0.4 m
another whose axes are neither parallel nor
(c) 1 m (d) 1.2 m
intersecting, use
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
(a) Spur gear (b) Spiral gear
(c) Bevel gear (d) Worm gear Ans : (c) : The minimum recommended top land for
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 hardened gears in terms of module m is 1 m.
602
230. Pressure angles more than 25° are not used in Ans. (a) :
involute profiles because
1. The gears are difficult to manufacture
2. Minimum number of teeth for under cutting
increases enormously
3. Bearing radial load from normal reaction
between gears will be very high
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
UPSC JWM 2017 We know that,
Ans. (c) : Pressure angles more than 25o are not used in P=T×ω
involute profiles because bearing radial load from d 2π n
P = Ft × ×
normal reaction between gears will be very high. 2 60
231. "Addendum" is defined as π dn
P= × Ft
(a) The radius of addendum circle 60
235. Number of pairs of teeth in contact is given by
(b) The radial height of the tooth below the pitch
circle (where, φ = pressure angle):
(c) The radial height of the tooth above the pitch (a) (Arc of contact)/(Circular pitch)
circle (b) (Arc of contact × cos φ)/(Circular pitch)
(d) It is the full depth of the tooth (c) (Arc of contact)/(cos φ × Circular pitch)
(d) (Path of contact)/(Circular pitch)
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (c) : Addendum—It is defined as the radial Ans. (a) : Contact ratio—The contact ratio is defined
distance from pitch circle to addendum circle. as the ratio of the length of arc of contact to the circular
232. If a spur gear has module of 4 mm, its circularpitch or contact ratio is the average number of teeth in
pitch will be given by mesh during a contact cycle, its value always equal to or
(a) 2 mm (b) 3 mm greater than one.
(c) 6.28 mm (d) 12.56 mm Length of arc of contact
C.R. =
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 Circular pitch
Ans. (d) : m = 4 236. To design 12 speed gear box, the minimum
Circular pitch (P) = ? number of intermediate shaft is
(a) 3 (b) 2
πD (c) 1 (d) 4
P=
T TNPSC AE 2013
D Ans. (b) :
m=
T 237. The helix angle for single helical gears ranges
P = πm = 3.14 × 4 from
(a) 5º to 10º (b) 10º to 15º
P = 12.56 mm
(c) 20º to 35º (d) 50º to 60º
233. The circle passing through the top of the teeth TNPSC AE 2013
of a gear is known as Ans. (c) : The helix angle for single helical gears ranges
(a) Pitch circle (b) Addendum circle
from 20º to 35º.
(c) Dedendum circle (d) Base circle 238. A pair of helical gear number of teeth is pinion
HPPSC AE 2018 is 80 and number of teeth in gear is 320. The
Ans. (b) : The circle passing through the top of the teeth ratio factor is
of a gear is known as Addendum circle. (a) 2 (b) 1.6
(c) 1 (d) 2.6
234. Power transmitted (Watts) by spur gear may TNPSC AE 2013
be given as [Ft = tangential component of force (N),
Ans. (b) : Ratio factor of gear
Fr = radial component of force (N), n = rotational
2 × 320 2 × 320
speed (rpm), and d = pitch diameter (m)] = = = 1.6
2 320 + 80 400
π dnFt  π dn  239. The maximum length of arc of contact for two
(a) (b)   Ft
60  60  mating gears, in order to avoid interference is
2 where
 π dn  π dnFr
(c)   Fr (d) r = pitch circle radius of pinion
 60  60 R = pitch circle radius of driver and
UPRVUNL AE 2016 φ = pressure angle
603
 (a) (r + R)sin φ (b) (r + R)sec φ (a) WA = WT . tan φ (b) WA = WT / tan φ
(c) (r + R ) cos φ (d) (r + R) tan φ (c) WA = WT . tan λ (d) WA = WT / tan λ
TNPSC AE 2014
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (d) : The maximum length of arc of contact for WT
Ans. (d) : WA =
two mating gears, in order to avoid interference is tan λ
maximum Arc length = (r + R) tan φ 244. Herringbone gears are used to
240. What is the term used in gear arrangement to (a) avoid interference
define the amount by which tooth space (b) avoid the effect of dynamic load
exceeds the thickness on an engaging tooth? (c) eliminate axial thrust
(a) Lead (b) Backlash (d) reduce wear of teeth
(c) Run out (d) Pitch Error TNPSC AE 2014
TNPSC AE 2013 Ans. (c) : Herringbone gears are used to eliminate axial
Ans. (b) : Backlash – Backlash is the amount by thrust.
which a tooth space exceeds the thickness of a gear 245. Two mating spur gears have 30 and 90 teeth
tooth engaged in mesh. respectively. The pinion rotates at 1200 rpm
241. A motor running at 1200 rpm drives a and transmits a torque of 20 Nm. The torque
compressor at 800 rpm through level gear transmitted by the gear is
arrangement. The pinion has 30 teeth and the (a) 6.6 Nm (b) 20 Nm
number of teeth in the gear is (c) 40 Nm (d) 60 Nm
(a) 18 teeth (b) 45 teeth TNPSC AE 2014
(c) 48 teeth (d) 24 teeth Ans. (d) : We assume that there is a no loss in power
TNPSC AE 2013 transmission
Ans. (b) : Given, NP = 1200 rpm, NG = 800 rpm so, PP = PG
ZP = 30 ZG = ?
We know that
[ Tω] P = [Tω] G
N TP NP = TG. NG
speed ratio = Driver 90  N P ZG 
N Driver TG = 20 ×  = 
N P ZG 30  NG ZP 
=
NG ZP TG = 60 N − m
1200 246. In two spur gears in mesh having involute
ZG = × 30 profiles, the line of action is tangential to-
800
(a) pitch circle (b) base circle
Z G = 45 (c) addendum circle (d) dedendum circle
242. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion, RPSC AE 2018
1 Ans. (b) : In two spur gears in mesh having involute
in order to avoid interference for 14 full profile, the line of action is tangential to base circle.
2
depth system is 247. In a gear train in which the axes of the shafts
(a) 12 (b) 14 over which the gears are mounted, move
(c) 18 (d) 32 relative to a fixed axis, is called .................
TNPSC AE 2013 (a) Compound gear train (b) Simple gear train
Ans. (d) : In the design of gears, it is required to decide (c) Epicyclic gear train (d) Reverted gear train
the number of teeth on the pinion and gear. There is a RPSC AE 2018
limiting value of the minimum number of teeth on the Ans. (c) : Epicyclic gear train —An epicyclic gear
pinion. train consists of two gears mounted so that the center of
So, the minimum number of teeth to avoid one gear revolves around the center of the other. A
interference is given by, carrier connects the centers of the two gears and rotates
to carry one gear called the planet gear or planet pinion,
2
Z min = around the other called the sun gear or sun wheel.
sin α
2
248. Module of the gear is expressed as :
1 (a) Pitch diameter in millimeter
So, for α = 14 (full depth system)
2 Pitch diameter in millimeter
Zmin = 32 (b)
Number of teeth
243. The axial thrust on worm (WA) is given by. π× ( Pitch diameter in millimeter )
where WT = Tangential force acting on the (c)
worm Number of teeth
φ = Pressure angle π× ( Number of teeth )
λ = Lead angle. (d)
Pitch diameter in millimeter
604
 2 × ( Pitch diameter in millimeter ) 2. They are insensitive to centre-distance
(e) variation
Number of teeth
3. Involute rack cutter is straight-sided
CGPSC AE 2014- I
4. They occupy lesser space
Ans. (b) : Module of the gear (m) is expressed as: Which of the above statements are correct?
Pitch diamter in millimeter (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
m=
Number of teeth (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
249. Which of the following gears are used between UPSC JWM 2017
parallel shafts? Ans. (b) : Gear with involute profile have become
(a) Straight Bevel gears (b) Spiral Bevel gears popular because of
(c) Worm & worm gears (d) Herringbone gears • They are insensitive to centre-distance
(e) Hypoid gears variation.
CGPSC AE 2014- I • Involutes rack cutter is straight sided.
Ans. (d) : Herringbone Gear– Herringbone gears, also 253. In case of two meshing gears both with involute
called double helical gears, are gear sets designed to tooth profiles, contact is made when the tip of
transmit power through parallel shafts. the:
Herringbone gear are mostly used on heavy (a) Driven wheel touches the flank of a tooth of
machinery. These gears overcome the problem of axial the driving wheel
thrust presented by single helical gear, by having two (b) Driven wheel touches the face of a tooth of
sets of teeth that are set in 'V' shape. So axial thrust in the driving wheel
case of these gear is zero. Double helical gear most (c) Driving wheel touches the face of a tooth of
difficult to manufacture. the driven wheel
250. A compound gear train is shown in figure. The (d) Driving wheel touches the flank of a tooth of
power is transmitted from the shaft of gear 1 to the driven wheel
the shaft of gear 4 with intermediate shaft UPSC JWM 2017
having gear 2 and gear 3. The speed ratio will Ans. (d) : The contact is made for two meshing gear
be: [Number of teeth on gears 1, 2, 3, 4 are 10, with involute tooth profiles when the tip of the driving
80, 30, 60 respectively]. heel touches the flank of a tooth of the driven wheel.
254. The direction of motion of the driven gear of a
simple gear train having an odd number of
idler gears will be
(a) Same as that of the driving gear
(b) Opposite to that of the driving gear
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) Dependent upon the number of teeth on the
(c) 12 (d) 16 driving gear
(e) 20 (d) Dependent upon the number of teeth on the
CGPSC AE 2014- I driven gear
Ans. (d) : Speed ratio of compound train UPSC JWM 2017
N 1 Τ 2 × T4 80 × 60 Ans. (a) : The direction of motion of the driven gear of
= = = 16
N 4 T1 × T3 10 × 30 a simple gear train having an odd number of idler gears
will be same as that of the driving gear.
251. Circular pitch is equal to [D = pitch diameter,
Note : Even number of gears, driver and follower turn
T = number of teeth]
in opposite direction.
(a) Addendum + dedendum
(b) Addendum – dedendum 255. A spur gear with 32 teeth and module 4 mm is
(c) Tooth thickness × width of space rotating at 400 rpm. The circular pitch is:
(d) Tooth thickness – width of space (a) 7π mm (b) 6π mm
(e) None of these (c) 5π mm (d) 4π mm
CGPSC AE 2014- I UPSC JWM 2017
Ans. (e) : Circular pitch of gear- The distance between Ans. (d) : Circular pitch for spur gear,
corresponding points of consecutive gear teeth D
measured alone the pitch circle. Pc = πm = π
T
It is denoted by P. Module, m = 4 mm
πD Pc = 4π
P=
T 256. A fixed gear having 200 teeth in mesh with
252. Gears with involute profile have become another gear having 50 teeth. The two gears
popular in comparison to those with cycloidal are connected by an arm. The number of turns
profiles because: made by the smaller gear for one revolution of
1. They are interchangeable arm about the centre of the bigger gear is
605
 (a) 2 (b) 3 Ans. (c) : Law of gearing is satisfied, if common
(c) 4 (d) 5 tangent at the point of contact passes through the pitch
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I point.
ESE 2017 259. Ref. the figure gear B rotates at 150 rpm about
UPSC JWM 2017 its own axis. The arm C will rotate by TA = 20;
UJVNL AE 2016 TB = 40.
Ans : (d)

(a) 150 rpm (b) 200 rpm

Condition of Revolutions of elements (c) 100 rpm (d) 250 rpm
Motion TNPSC AE 2018
Work Arm R Gear Gear B Ans. (c) :
A
Arm R is 0 1 200
fixed −1 ×
50
Multiply by x 0 x 200
−x ×
50 Motion Arm A B
Add y y x+y 200 Arm fixed let A 0 +x
−x × +y 20
50 rotated + x rpm −x ×
40
∵x + y = 0 (A is fixed) [Clock wise]
Arm free y y+x x
y = 1 (Given Data) y−
2
x = −1
Re volution of Gear B Then
Gear A is fixed
200 y+x=0
= −x × +y
50 y=–x ...(1)
Re volution of gear B = 5 Gear B rotates at 150 rpm
x
257. The train value of a gear train is y − = 150
(a) equal to velocity ratio 2
(b) reciprocal of velocity ratio y
y + = 150
(c) always greater than unity 2
(d) always equal to unity 3y
= 150
TNPSC AE 2018, 2013 2
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper y = 100 rpm
Ans. (b) : The train value of a gear train is reciprocal of
velocity ratio 260. The motion transmitted between the teeth of
ω two spur gears in mesh is generally
N T
velocity ratio = driver = 1 = 2 (a) Sliding
ω driven N 2 T1 (b) Rolling
ω N T (c) Rotary
Train value = driven = 2 = 1 (d) Partly sliding and partly rolling
ω driver N1 T2
TNPSC AE 2017
1 Ans. (b) : The motion transmitted between the teeth of
Train value =
velocity ratio two spur gears in mesh is generally rolling.
258. Law of gearing is satisfied, if 261. In a simple epicyclic gear train for
(a) two surface slides correctly transmission of torque. The following
(b) common normal at the point of contact passes component must be held stationary
through the pitch point (a) Sun gear (b) Annular gear
(c) common tangent at the point of contact passes (c) The carrier unit (d) Any one of the above
through the pitch point. TNPSC AE 2017
(d) Addendum > dedendum Ans. (d) : In a simple epicyclic gear train for
TNPSC AE 2018 transmission of torque any one, sun gear or annular gear
APPSC AEE 2016 or the carries unit [arm] may be fixed.
606
262. The locus of a point on the circumference of a 267. The product of the circular pitch and
circle which rolls without slipping on a fixed diametral pitch is equal to–
straight line is known as (a) 2π (b) π
(a) Cycloid (b) involute (c) π/2 (d) 1.0
(c) Hypocycloid (d) Epicycloid RPSC 2016
APPSC AEE 2016 HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
Ans. (a) : Cycloid– A cycloid is the curve traced by a πD
point on the rim of a circle wheel as the wheel rolls Ans : (b) Circular Pitch =
along a straight line with out slipping. T
Involute profile– It is defined as the locus of the point on 1 T
Diametral Pitch = =
the line which roll without slipping on the fixed circle. Module D
263. Herringbone gear is a type of πD T
= × =π
(a) spiral bevel gear T D
(b) crossed helical gear 268. A pair of spur gears with module 5 mm and a
(c) hypoid gear centre distance of 450 mm is used for a speed
(d) double-helical gear with no groove in reduction of 5 : 1 the number of tech on pinion
between the left and right inclinations is-
APPSC AEE 2016 (a) 60 (b) 90
Ans. (d) : Herringbone gear is a type of double-helical (c) 30 (d) 50
gear with no groove in between the left and right RPSC 2016
inclinations. Ans : (c) m = 5 mm
264. For two wheels of equal size with 20o Pressure c = 450 mm
angle and addendum equal to one module, the speed reduction = 5 : 1
minimum number of teeth of each wheel must be Speed reduction is inverse of number of teeth ratio
(a) 10 (b) 13 N T
(c) 15 (d) 17 Speed reduction P = G = 5 _______(1)
TSPSC AEE 2015 N G TP
Ans. (b) : Data given as, Center distance (c) = R + r
G = 1, m = 1, φ = 20o m
= (TG + TP )
then 2
2A p 5
t min = 450 = (TG + TP )
( )
1 + G ( G + 2 ) sin 2 φ − 1 2
180 = TG + TP
2 180 = 5TP + TP = 6TP (from 1)
t min =
(1 + 3sin φ) − 1
2 TP = 30
269. Match the item in Column I and II
2 Column-I Column-II
=
( ) p. Addendum 1. Cam
2
o
1 + 3 sin 20 −1
q. Instantaneous 2. Beam
= 12.32 ≃ 13 center of velocity
265. Minimum number of teeth of standard r. Section modulus 3. Linkage
proportion with involute profile and 20o s. Prime Circle 4. Gear
o
pressure angle helical gear of helix angle 10 is Select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) 12 (b) 18 below-
(c) 32 (d) 22 (a) p-4, q-3, r-2, s-1 (b) p-4, q-2, r-3, s-1
TSPSC AEE 2015 (c) p-3, q-2, r-1, s-4 (d) p-3, q-4, r-1, s-2
Ans. (a) : RPSC 2016
266. Which of the following characteristics are Ans : (a) p-4, q-3, r-2, s-1
applicable to stub 200 involute system- 270. An epicyclic gear train is shown schematically
(a) small interference in the given figure :
(b) strong tooth
(c) high production cost
(d) gear with small number teeth
RPSC 2016
Ans : (c) 200 Stub involute system require high
production cost.
And minimum number of teeth on the pinion for
200stub involute is 14.
607
 The sun gear 2 on the input shaft is a 20 teeth 273. In meshing gears with involute gears teeth, the
external gear. The planet gear 3 is a 40 teeth contact begins at the intersection of the :
external gear. The ring gear 5 is a 100 teeth (a) Line of action and the addendum circle of the
internal gear. The ring gear 5 is fixed and gear driven gear
2 is rotating at 60 rpm ccw. The arm 4 attached (b) Line of action and the pitch circle of the
to the output shaft will rotate at : driven gear
(a) 10 rpm ccw (b) 10 rpm cw (c) Dedendum circle of the driver gear and the
(c) 12 rpm ccw (d) 12 rpm cw addendum circle of the driven gear
(ccw = counter clockwise and cw = clock wise) (d) Addendum circle of the driver gear and the
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 pitch circle of the driven gear
Ans. (a) : Given, OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans : (a) : In meshing gear with involute gear teeth, the
contact begins at the intersection of the line of action
and the addendum circle of the driven gear. The contact
point moves along the line of action throughout the
engagement.
274. Match the following :
clockwise direction taken as positive Type of gears Arrangement of Shafts
Condition Arm Gear-2 Gear-3 Gear-5 (P) Bevel gears (i) Non-parallel offset shafts
of motion T2= 20 T3= 40 T5 = 100 (Q) Worm gears (ii) Non-parallel intersecting
(1) Arm is 0 x 20x 20x shafts
fixed − − (R) Herringbone (iii) None-parallel non-
40 100
gears intersecting shafts
(2) Arm is y x+y x x
y − y − (S) Hypoid gear (iv) offset of the shaft
free 2 5 (a) P–IV,Q–II, R-I, S–II
x (b) P–II,Q–III, R-IV, S–I
∴ y − = N5 = 0 (c) P–III,Q–II, R-I, S–IV
5
x = 5y (d) P–I,Q–III, R-IV, S–II
x + y = –60 OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
∴ 6y = – 60 Ans : (b) :
y = – 10 rpm (P) Bevel gears – Non-parallel intersecting shafts
(Q) Worm gears- Non-parallel non-intersecting
N arm = 10 rpm ( ccw )
(R) Herringbone- Herringbone gear are used to
271. The backlash for spur gear depends upon transmit power between two parallel shafts.
(a) module (b) pitch line velocity (S) Hypoid gear- Advantage of hypoid gear is that the
(c) tooth profile (d) Both (a) and (b) offset of the shaft is so great that the shafts may
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II continue past each other. Therefore, multiple power
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper take-offs from a single shaft with several pinion is
possible.
Ans : (d) : The backlash for spur gear depends upon
module and pitch line velocity. 275. The spur gears, the circle on which the involute
is generated is called the :
272. The problem of interference in an involute
pinion, which has to come in external mesh (a) Pitch circle (b) Clearance circle
with a gear, can be avoided by (c) Base circle (d) Addendum circle
(a) increasing the pressure angle OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
(b) positive profile correction on pinion and Ans : (c) : Base circle- When two spur gear having
corresponding negative profile correction on involute profiles on their tooth engage the line of action
gear is tangential to base circle.
(c) machining the pinion teeth through hobbing 276. In involute gears the pressure angle is :
so that the interfering portion gets undercut (a) Dependent on the size of teeth
(d) All of the above (b) Dependent on the size of gears
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI (c) Always constant
Ans : (d) : The problem of interference in an involutes (d) Always variable
pinion, which has to come in external mesh with a gear, OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
can be avoided by, Ans : (c) : In invlute tooth profiles, the line of action is
• Increasing the pressure angle. fixed or from fundamental law of gearing, the line of
• Positive profile correction on pinion and action passes through a fixed point i.e. pitch point and
corresponding negative profile correction on gear. inclined with perpendicular to the line joining centre of
• Machining the pinion teeth through hobbing so that gears at a fixed angle. Hence pressure angle is constant
the interfering portion gets undercut. through out the teeth engagement.
608
277. Match the type of gears with their most
appropriate description :
Type of gear Description
(P) Helical (i) Axes non-parallel
and intersecting
(Q) Spiral (ii) Axes parallel and
teeth are inclined to
the axis
(R) Hypoid (iii) Axes parallel and
teeth are parallel to
the axis
(S) Rack and pinion (iv) Axes are Now, from Grubler's equation, Degree of freedom is
perpendicular and given by
intersecting and F = 3 (l – 1) – 2j – h
teeth are inclined to = 3 (4 – 1) – 2 × 3 – 1
the axis =2
(v) Axes are 280. In the gear train shown, gear 3 is carried on
perpendicular and arm 5, Gear 3 meshes with gear 2 and gear 4.
used for large speed The number of teeth on gear 2, 3 and 4 are 60,
reduction 20 and 100 respectively. If gear 2 is fixed and
(vi) Axes parallel and gear 4 rotates with an angular velocity of 100
one of the gears has rpm in the counterclockwise direction, the
infinite radius angular speed of arm 5 (in rpm) is
(a) P– ii, Q–iv, R-i, S–vi
(b) P– ii, Q–vi, R-iv, S–ii
(c) P– i, Q–iv, R-v, S–vi
(d) P– vi, Q–iii, R-i, S–v
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans : (a) : Helical- Axes parallel and teeth are inclined
to the axis.
Spiral- Axes are perpendicular and intersecting and
teeth are inclined to the axis. (a) 100 rpm (b) 62.5 rpm
Hypoid- Axes non parallel and non-intersecting. (c) 125.5 rpm (d) 500 rpm
Rack and pinion- Axes parallel and one of the gears Gujarat PSC AE 2019
has infinite radius. Ans : (b) : The table for calculation
278. Automatic transmission in automobile is based on Action Arm 5 Gear 2 Gear 3 Gear 4
(a) Epicyclic gear train 1. Fix 0 x T2 T3
(b) Compound gear train Arm to = N2 = N3
(c) Simple gear train T3 T4
Gear 2
(d) Inverted gear train 60 20
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 =− x = x − 3x
20 100
Ans : (a) : Automatic transmission in automobile is = – 3x
based on epicyclic gear train. = – 0.6 x
279. The number of degrees of freedom of the 2. Add y+0 y+x y – 3x y – 0.6x
planetary gear train shown in the figure is 'y' to
each
Conditions-
1. Gear - 2 is fixed
∴x+y=0
x=–y
2. Gear - 4 rotates with 100 rpm (ccw)
∴ y – 0.6 x = 100
y + 0.6 y = 100
(a) -1 (b) 0 100
y= = 62.5 = 62.5 rpm (ccw)
(c) 1 (d) 2 1.6
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 281. Law of Gearing is about
Ans : (d) : Number of links (l) = 4 (a) Constant torque between meshed gears
Number of binary joints (j) =3 (b) Constant force between meshed gears
Number of higher pair (h) =1 (c) Constant moment between meshed gears
609
 (d) Constant velocity between meshed gears 286. The centre distance C between two gears, in
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 terms of base circle radii R1, R2 and the
Ans : (d) : Law of gearing- According to the law of pressure angle φ, is
gearing, the common normal at the point of contact cos φ R + R2
between a pair of teeth must always pass through the (a) (b) 1
pitch point. R1 + R 2 cos φ
282. Automobile gears are generally manufactured by R  R 
(c)  1  ⋅ cos φ (d)  2  ⋅ cos φ j
(a) Hobbing (b) Stamping  R2   R1 
(c) Punching (d) Rolling
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 ESE 2019
Ans : (a) : Gear hobbing- It is a machining process in Ans. (b) : The centre distance between two gears
which gear teeth are progressively generated by a series C = sum of pitch circle radii
of cuts with a helical cutting tool. Gear hobbing is = r1 + r2
generative type of process in gear manufacturing. R R R + R2
= 1 + 2 = 1
283. Internal gears are manufactured by cos φ cos φ cos φ
(a) Hobbing where r1 and r2 are pitch circle radius.
(b) Shaping with pinion cutters 287. Which one of the following is not the correct
(c) Shaping with rack cutter
statement with respect to the involute profile
(d) Milling
toothed gears in mesh?
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
(a) Pressure angle remains constant from the start
Ans : (b) : Internal gear cutting operation can be
till the end of the engagement.
performed by shaping with pinion cutter in the case of
rotating pinion type cutter indexing is not required, (b) The base circle diameter and the pitch circle
therefore, this type is more productive and so common. diameter of the two mating involutes are
proportional.
284. The product of diametral pitch and module is
equal to (c) When two involutes are in mesh, the angular
(a) zero (b) infinity velocity ratio is proportional to the size of the
(c) unity (d) two base circles.
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 (d) The shape of the involute profile depends
only on the dimensions of the base circle.
D
Ans : (c) : Module (m) = ESE 2019
T
Ans. (c) : Important points for involute profile toothed
1
Diametral pitch (D) = Gears in mesh.
Module ( m ) (i) The pressure angle, from the start of the
Product of diametral pitch and module is engagement of the teeth to the end of the
D T engagement, remains constant in involute gears.
= × =1
T D (ii) The base circle diameters and pitch diameters of
285. For the two gears meshing in velocity ratio two mating involutes are directly proportional.
equal to 1/3, module = 4 mm; centre distance = (iii) When two involute are in mesh, the angular
200 mm. The number of teeth on the gear velocity ratio is inversely proportional to the size
wheel are of the base circles.
(a) 150 (b) 125 (iv) The shape of the involute profile depends only on
(c) 100 (d) 75 the dimensions of the base circle.
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 288. For the follower with stroke S, following the
1 T cycloidal motion, the radius of the rolling circle
Ans : (d) : Velocity ratio = = 1
3 T2 will be
T2 = 3T1 S
(a) S × 2π (b)
Module (m) = 4 mm 2π
 T + T2  2π
Centre distance ( C ) = m  1  = 200
(c)
S
(d) S + 2π
 2 
T2 = 3T1 ESE 2019
Ans. (b) : For cycloidal motion the circumference of the
 T + 3T1 
4 1  = 200 rolling circle is equal to stroke i.e. follower
 2  displacement.
4 T1 = 100 Hence 2πr = s
T1 = 25 Radius of rolling circle
T2 = 3 × 25
s
T2 = 75 r=
2π
610
289. The interference between a given pinion tooth
and a gear tooth can be avoided by using
1. smaller pressure angle
2. larger pressure angle
3. less number of teeth on the gear for a pinion
with predefined number of teeth
4. more number of teeth on the gear for a pinion
with predefined number of teeth
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
ESE 2018
Ans. (c) : (i) To avoid interference pressure angle
should be large as it results in large centre distance.
(ii) During meshing interference takes place when
addendum of gear digs into portion between base and
root circle of pinion. To avoid it we define the
minimum number of teeth on pinion. Number of teeth
on gear should be more as it results in reduction of size
of gear teeth.
290. A gear train is as shown in the figure below, in
which gears A and B have 20 and 40 teeth,
respectively. If arm C is fixed and gear A
rotates at 100 rpm, the speed of gear B will be
(a) 90 rpm (b) 75 rpm
(c) 50 rpm (d) 20 rpm
ESE 2018
N B TA
Ans. (c) : =
N A TB
N B 20
= 294. Gears produced by die casting are generally
100 40
NB = 50 rpm
291. Consider the following statements:
1. In spur gears, the contact occurs abruptly on a
line parallel to the axis, and the
disengagement too is abrupt.
2. In helical gears, both loading and unloading
are gradual, and therefore, these happen more
smoothly and less noisily.
3. When two gears mesh, any arbitrary shape of
the tooth can be chosen for the profile of the
teeth of any one of the two gears, and the
profile for the other shall be obtained by
applying the law of gearing.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE 2018
611
Ans. (d) :
(i) In spur gears, the contact takes place on a line
parallel to the axis abruptly and disengagement is
also abrupt.
(ii) In helical gears, the loading and unloading is
gradual and therefore, the action is more smooth
and less noisy.
(iii) It has been proved that any arbitrary shape of the
tooth can be chosen for profile of teeth of one of
the two gears in mesh and the profile for the other
may be determined to satisfy the law of gearing.
292. Statement (I): All worm drives (worm and worm
wheel) are reversible.
Statement (II): The worm and worm wheel are
made of different materials.
ESE 2017
Ans. (d) : All worm drives are not reversible. Only low
speed ratio worm drives are reversible while high speed
ratio drives are non reversible.
So statement-I s wrong.
The worm wheel in general made from phosphor-
bronze alloy, which is costly. The worm is usually made
of hardened alloy steel.
293. Consider the following statements:
In the case of gears of involute profiles,
increase in the centre to centre distances
between the mounting shafts
1. increases the pressure angle
2. will not affect the law of gearing
3. shortens the path of contact
4. increases the contact ratio
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
ESE 2017
Ans. (b) : If the distance between centre is increased
then pressure angle also increases and path of contact
decreases and law of gearing will be unaffected.
used for
(a) high torque transmission
(b) light duty
(c) low temperature application
(d) high axial thrust transmission
(KPSC AE 2015)
Ans : (b) Gear produced by die casting are generally
used for light duty.
Methods of manufacturing gears:-
(i) Casting (ii) Hot rolling
(iii) Extruding (iv) Stamping
(v) Coining (vi) Powder- metallurgy
295. If t and T are the number of teeth on pinion
and gear, G is gear ratio, Ap is the fraction by
which the standard addendum of one module is
multiplied and φ is the pressure angle, the
expression minimum number of teeth on pinion
to avoid interference when pinion and gear
have equal number of teeth is given as
 (a) t = 2 Ap / (1-3 sin2 φ + 1) 1/2 Ans : (d) When two spur gear having involute profiles
(b) t = 2 Ap / (1+3 sin2 φ + 1) 1/2 on their tooth engage the line of action is tangential to
(c) t = 2 Ap / (1-3 sin2 φ - 1) 1/2 base circle.
(d) t = 2 Ap / [(1+3 sin2 φ)1/2 - 1] 299. In spur gears, the circle on which the involute
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 is generated is called
Ans : (d) (a) Pitch circle (b) Clearance circle
Minimum number of teeth on the pinion in order to (c) Base circle (d) Addendum circle
avoid interference. MPPSC AE 2016
2 Ap Ans : (c) In spur gears, the circle on which the involute
t= is generated is called Base circle.
 T T  2 
1 + t  t + 2  sin φ  − 1
300. In a simple gear train, if the number of idler
    gear is odd, then the direction of motion of
t = Number of teeth on the pinion driven gear will
T = Number of teeth on the wheel (a) be same as that of the driving gear
m = Module of the teeth (b) be opposite to the driving gear
mt (c) depend upon the number of teeth on both
r = pitch circle radius of pinion = gears
2
T (d) depend upon the size of the gears
G = Gear ratio = = R r MPPSC AE 2016
t Ans : (a) It may be noted that when the number
φ = pressure angle. of intermediate gear odd the motion of (driver gear) be
if the pinion and wheel have equal teeth, then G=1
same.
therefore the above equation reduces to
But if the number of intermediate gear are even. the
2 Ap motion of the driven or follower will be in the opposite
t=
(1 + 3sin 2 φ ) − 1 direction of the driver.
301. The size of gears is usually specified by:
296. Profiles used for spur gears are: (a) Circular pitch
(a) Epicycloids profiles (b) Outside diameter
(b) Hypocycloid profiles (c) Pitch circle diameter
(c) Thread profiles (d) Inside diameter
(d) Involutes profiles OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) Ans : (c) The size of gears is usually specified by pitch
Ans : (d) circle diameter.
Profiles used for spur gear are Involute profiles. Pitch circle diameter: It is the diameter of the pitch
An involute of a circle is a plane curve generated by a circle. The size of gear is generally specified by the
point on a tangent, which rolls on the circle without pitch circle diameters. It is also known as pitch
slipping or by a point on a string which in unwrapped diameter.
from a reel as shown is fig In connection with toothed 302. The normal circular pitch in helical gears is
wheels, the circle is known as base circle. given by :
297. The path of the point of contact between the (a) p sin ψ (b) p/sin ψ
involute teeth profile gears is :
(a) Circle (b) Straight line (c) p cos ψ (d) p/cos ψ
(c) Complex curve (d) Parabola OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 Ans : (c) The normal circular pitch in helical gears is
Ans : (b) The path of the point of contact between the given by p cos ψ
involute teeth profile gear is straight line. 303. The gear train used in an automobile
In actual practice following are the two types of teeth
differential is
commonly used
(a) simple gear train (b) compound gear train
1. Cycloidal teeth
2. Involute teeth (c) reverted gear train (d) epicyclic gear train
An involute of a circle is a plane curve generated by a TSPSC AEE 2015
point on a tangent, which rolls on the circle without OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
slipping or by a point on a taut string which in (KPSC AE 2015)
unwrapped from a reel as. Ans : (d) The gear train used in an automobile
298. When two spur gears having involute profiles differential is epicyclic gear train.
on their tooth engage the line of action is Differential gear of an automobile: The differential
tangential to : gear used in the rear drive of an automobile, its
(a) pitch circle (b) dedendum circle functions is.
(c) addendum circle (d) base circle (i) To transmit motion from the engine shaft to the rear
(KPSC AE 2015) driving wheels.
612
(ii) To rotate the rear wheels at different speed while 307. Gears used for non-intersecting perpendicular
the automobile is taking a turn. shafts are
Epicyclic gear train:- (a) spur gears (b) helical gears
when there exists a relative motion of axes in a gear (c) double helical gears (d) hypoid gears
train, it is called an epicyclic gear train. Thus in an RPSC AE 2016
epicyclic train, the axis of at least one of the gears also Ans : (d) Gear used for non-intersecting perpendicular
move relative to the frame. shaft are hypoid gear.
308. An automobile gear box has
(a) simple gear train
(b) compound gear train
(c) epicyclic gear train
(d) compound epicyclic gear train
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (b)
304. Which one of the following pairs is not An automobile gear box has compound gear train.
correctly matched?
(a) Positive drive-belt drive
(b) High velocity ratio-worm gearing
(c) Non-parallel and non-intersecting-spiral gear
(d) Diminished noise and smooth operation-
helical gear
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
Ans : (a) (i) Negative drive: Belt drive
(ii) High Velocity ratio: worm gearing
(iii) Non-Parallel and non-intersecting: spiral gear
(iv) Diminished noise and smooth operation: When there are more then one gear on a shaft it is called
Helical gear a compound train of gear.
305. The ratio of number of teeth and pitch circle 309. When both pinion and gear are made of the
diameter in a gear is called same material, then from the design point of
(a) pitch (b) circular pitch view
(c) diametral pitch (d) module (a) pinion is the determining factor
RPSC AE 2016 (b) gear is the determining factor
Ans : (c) The ratio of number of teeth and pitch circle (c) any one of the two may be taken as
diameter in a gear is called diametral pitch. determining factor
T (d) criteria is strength of any one of the teeth
Pd = RPSC AE 2016
D
T = Number of teeth Ans : (a) When both pinion and gear are made of the
D = Pitch circle diameter. same material, then from the design point of view
pinion is the determining factor.
306. Gear train is which the first and last gear are
on the same axis is known as 310. Lewis equation in gears is used to evaluate
(a) simple gear train (b) compound gear train (a) tensile stress in bending
(c) epicyclic gear train (d) reverted gear train (b) compressive stress in bending
ESE 2020 (c) creep stress
RPSC AE 2016 (d) shear stress on flank
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I RPSC AE 2016
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II Ans : (b) Lewis equation in gear is used to evaluate
TNPSC 2019 compressive Stress in bending.
Ans : (d) When the axes of the first gear and last gear WT = σ W. b.PC .y = σ W .b.πm.y
are co-axial then the gear train is known as reverted
gear train. The quantity y is know as Lewis form factor or tooth
form factor and WT is called the beam strength of the
tooth.
0.684
y = 0.124 -
T
1
[for14 °composite and full depth involut]
2
0.912
y = 0.154 - [for20° full depth involute system]
T
613
311. Gear box is used 4.5
(a) to produce torque (ii) Cv =
4.5 + V
(b) for speed reduction
(iii) for carefully cut gears operating at velocity upto
(c) to obtain variable speeds
12.5 m/sec
(d) to increase efficiency of system
RPSC AE 2016 6
(iv) (iii) Cv =
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 6+V
Ans : (c) Gear box used to obtained variable speeds. (v) for very accurately cut and ground metallic gear
312. A rack is a gear of operation at velocity up to 10 m/sec.
(a) infinite pitch 316. In an automobile the power is transmitted
(b) infinite module from gear box to differential through
(c) infinite diameter (a) knuckle joint (b) universal joint
(d) infinite number of teeth (c) Hooke's joint (d) bevel gears
RPSC AE 2016 RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (c) A rack is a gear of infinite diameter. Ans : (b&c) In an automobile the power is transmitted
We know that its base circle diameter and the profiles of from gear box to differential through universal joint.
the involute teeth are straight lines. since these straight Universal or hook's joint:- A hook's joint is used to
profiles are tangential to the pinion profiles at the point. connect two shaft which are intersecting at a small
RPPSC given answer infinite number of teeth. angle, The end of each shaft is forked to U-type and
313. In a single speed reduction, a large velocity each fork provides to bearing for the arms of a cross. In
ratio is required. The best transmission is case of automobiles, we use to hook's joint one at each
through: end to the propeller shaft, connecting gear box on one
(a) Spur gear drive (b) Helical gear drive and the differential on the other end.
(c) Bevel gear drive (d) Worm gear drive 317. For a 20° full depth involute gear teeth system,
UJVNL AE 2016 minimum number of teeth on a pinion is:-
Ans : (d) In a single speed reduction, a large velocity (a) 12 (b) 14
ratio is required the best transmission is through worm (c) 16 (d) 18
gear drive. The worm gear is widely used for UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
transmitting power at high velocity ratio between non- Ans. (d) : For a 20° full depth involute gear teeth
intersecting shaft that are generally, but not necessarily, system, minimum number of teeth on a pinion is 18.
at right angles. It can give velocity ratio as high as
318. For a speed reduction of 50 : 1, which gear
300:1 or more in a single step in a minimum of space,
arrangement will be used?
but it has a lower efficiency. The worm gearing is
(a) Spur gears
mostly used as a speed reducer, which consists of worm
and a worm wheel or gear. (b) Bevel gears
(c) Worm and worm wheel
314. An imaginary circle which by pure rolling
(d) Herringbone gears
action gives the same motion as the actual gear
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
is called
(a) Addendum circle (b) Dedendum circle Ans. (c) : Worm and worm wheel gear arrangement will
(c) Pitch circle (d) Base circle be used for a speed for a speed reduction of 50 : 1.
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I 319. Which type of gears are used in connecting two
Ans : (c) An imaginary circle which by pure rolling co-planer and intersecting shafts?
action gives the same motion as the actual gear is called (a) Spur gear
pitch circle. (b) Bevel gear
(i) These pitch circle always touch each other for the (c) Helical gear
correct power transmission. (d) Worm and worm wheel
(ii) It is not fundamental characteristics of gear. UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
315. To accurately cut gears operating at velocities Ans. (b) : Bevel gear are used in connecting two co-
up to 20 m/s, the velocity factor is equal to : planer and intersecting shafts.
3 6 320. Which one of the following is the preferred
(a) (b) mode of transmission of power from one shaft
3+ v 6+v
to another when distance between the shafts is
9 0.75
(c) (d) + 0.25 relatively small:-
9+ v 1+ v (a) Gears (b) Belts
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 (c) Ropes (d) Chains
Ans : (b) Cv = Velocity factor UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
3 Ans. (a) : Gears are the preferred mode of transmission
(i) Cv = , for ordinary cut gears operation at
3+ V of power from one shaft to another when distance
velocity up to 12.5 m/sec between the shafts is relatively small.
614
321. Which pair of gears usually has higher 327. When teeth formed on the cones are straight,
frictional losses :- the gears are known as
(a) Spur gears (a) worm gear (b) helical gear
(b) Helical gears (c) straight bevel (d) spiral bevel
(c) Bevel gears UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(d) Worm and worm wheel Ans. (c) : straight bevel
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I 328. In a simple gear train, there is odd number of
Ans. (d) : Pair of gears usually has higher frictional idlers. The direction of rotation of the driver
losses in worm and worm wheel. and the driven gears will be
322. The outer circle of spur gear is called as:- (a) same
(a) Pitch circle (b) Addendum circle (b) opposite
(c) Dedendum circle (d) Base circle (c) depends upon the number of teeth of the gears
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I (d) depends upon the diameter of idlers used
Ans. (b) : The outer circle of spur gear is called as UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
addendum circle. Ans. (a) : same
323. Axes of a pair of spur gears are 200 mm apart. 329. The minimum number of teeth which can be
The gear ratio is 3:1 and number of teeth on cut for standard tooth for a given pressure
pinion is 20. The module of the gear is:- angle ‘φ’ the following
(a) 4 mm (b) 5 mm (a) sin2 φ/2 (b) 2/sin2 φ
(c) 8 mm (d) 10 mm 2
(c) 2 sin2 φ (d)
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I sin 2φ
Ans. (b) : Given as UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
G=3:1 Ans. (b) : 2/sin2 φ
x = 200 mm
330. When two gear teeth are in mesh, then pure
Zp = 20 rolling occurs at the
ZG (a) root of tooth (b) tip of tooth
=3
Zp (c) pitch point (d) flank
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
ZG = 3 × 20 = 60
We know tat Ans. (c) : pitch point
r p + rG = x 331. The product of circular pitch and diameteral
pitch of a gear is equal to
m (a) module (b) unity
 Zp + ZG  = 200
2 1
m [20 + 60] = 400 (c) π (d)
π
m = 5 mm UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
324. The gear train usually employed in clocks is a:- Ans. (c) : π
(a) Reverted gear train 332. Gear box in a car consists of
(b) Simple gear train (a) compound train (b) simple train
(c) Sun and planet gear (c) epicyclic train (d) none of the above
(d) differential gear UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I Ans. (a) : Compound train
Ans. (a) : The gear train usually employed in clocks is a 333. Efficiency in a normal spur gear pair will be
reverted gear train. (a) above 98% (b) 70 to 80%
325. A gear train, in which at least one of the gear axes (c) less than 50% (d) less than 30%
is in motion relative to the frame, is known as UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(a) reverted gear train Ans. (a) : Above 98%
(b) non-reverted gear train 334. The working surface above the pitch surface of
(c) epicyclic gear train a gear tooth is termed as
(d) none of the above (a) addendum (b) dedundum
(c) flank (d) face
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Ans. (c) : epicyclic gear train
Ans. (d) : face
326. Spur gears have/are 335. The minimum number of teeth in an involute
(a) straight teeth perpendicular to the axis. gear with one module addendum with pressure
(b) curved teeth perpendicular to the axis. angle of 14½º to avoid undercutting is
(c) not subjected to axial thrust due to tooth load. (a) 32 (b) 20
(d) subjected to axial thrust due to tooth load. (c) 12 (d) 40
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Ans. (c) : not subjected to axial thrust due to tooth load. Ans. (a) : 32
615
336. In an epicyclic gear train, the number of Assume slip (s) = 0
planets in any given row will be 150 600 + 5
(a) equal to 1 =
80 d2 + 5
(b) equal to or more than 1
(c) more than 1 80 × 605
d2 + 5 = d 2 + 5 = 322.66
(d) more than 2 150
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I d 2 = 322.66 − 5
Ans. (c) : More than 1 = 317.66 mm
337. In a single involute gear manufacturing the 342. In order to increase the angle of wrap it is
following two are predetermined: preferable to go in for
(a) Addendum circle and pitch circle diameter (a) Crossed belt drive
(b) Base circle and addendum circle diameter (b) Open belt drive
(c) Pitch circle and dedundum circle diameter (c) Horizontal open belt drive
(d) None of the above (d) Vertical open belt drive
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (b) : Base circle and addendum circle diameter Ans. (a) : A crossed belt drive is used to rotate driven
338. The minimum number of teeth of standard pulley in the opposite direction of driving pulley and in
proportion with involute profile and 20º order to increase value of warp angle enables more
pressure angle spur gear is power can be transmitted than open belt drive. The
(a) 12 (b) 18 angle of contact is more in crossed belt drive, so there
(c) 32 (d) 48 are less chances of slipping.
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I 343. A V-belt designated as B 4430 Lp represents
Ans. (b) : 18 (a) A vee belt of basic length 4430 mm
339. Normal efficiency in a single reduction worm (b) A vee belt of B cross-section and pitch length
gear pair with the velocity ratio 70 would be 4430 mm
(a) above 98% (b) 50 to 80% (c) A vee-belt of B cross-section and nominal
(c) less than 30% (d) less than 10% inside length 4430 mm
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I (d) A vee-belt of B cross-section and 4430 times
Ans. (b) : 50 to 80% multiple of piches
TNPSC AE 2014
5. Belts, Ropes and Chains Ans. (b) : A V-belt designated as B 4430 Lp represents
A vee belt of B cross-section and pitch length 4430 mm.
340. The objective of 'crowning' of the flat pulleys of 344. The ratio of tension on slack side to the tension
belt drive is to– on tight side after n blocks for band and block
(a) prevent the belt from running off the pulley brakes is given as: [when, µ = Coefficient of
(b) increases the power transmission capacity friction, 2θ = Angle subtended by each block at
(c) increase the belt velocity the centre, n = Number of blocks]
(d) prevent the belt joint from damaging the belt n n
surface  1 − µ tan θ   1 + µ tan θ 
(a)   (b)  
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper  1 + µ tan θ   1 − µ tan θ 
(KPSC AE 2015) n +1 n +1
(HPPSC AE 2014)  1 − µ tan θ   1 + µ tan θ 
(c)   (d)  
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016  1 + µ tan θ   1 − µ tan θ 
APPSC AEE 2016 n +1
Ans. (a) : The objective of 'crowning' of the flat pulleys  1 + µ cos θ 
(e)  
of belt drive is to prevent the belt from running off the  1 − µ cos θ 
pulley. CGPSC AE 2014- I
341. A shaft runs at 80 rpm and drives another Ans. (a) : The ratio of tension on slack side to the
shaft at 150 rpm through belt drive. The tension on tight side after n blocks for band and block
diameter of driven pulley is 600 mm. What will brakes is given as
be the diameter of driven pulley assuming belt  1 − µ tan θ 
n
thickness as 5 mm?  
(a) 320.00 mm (b) 300.12 mm  1 + µ tan θ 
(c) 317.67 mm (d) 304.85 mm 345. What will be the speed ratio of the pulley due
SJVN ET 2019 to creep, if stress-strain curve for belt is
Ans. (c) : Velocity ratio assumed to be parabolic? [where, N1 = speed of
driving pulley, N2 = speed of driven pulley, σ1
N 2  d1 + t   s 
=  1 −  & σ2 = stress on tight and slack side of belt
N1  d 2 + t   100  respectively, E = Modulus of elasticity of belt,
616
 D1 & D2 = diameter of driving and driven Ans. (c) : Power Transmitted in belt drive = (Tt - Ts) V
pulley respectively] watt
N 2 D1  E + σ 2  Where Tt the tension on tight side (N)
(a) = ×  T is the tension on slack side (N)
N 1 D 2  E + σ1  V is the velocity of the belt in m/s
N 2 D1  E + σ2  348. In flat belt drive the condition for maximum
(b) = ×  power transmission is given by: (where T
N 1 D 2  E + σ1 
maximum tension and Tc centrifugal tension in
N 2 D1  E − σ 2  belt)
(c) = ×  (a) T = 3Tc (b) T = 2Tc
N 1 D 2  E − σ1  (c) T = πTc (d) T = 3πTc
N 2 D1  E − σ 2  CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
(d) = ×  Ans. (a) : Centrifugal Tension: Since the belt
N 1 D 2  E − σ1 
continuously runs over the pulleys, therefore some
N 2 D1  E − σ 2  centrifugal force is caused, whose effect is to increase
(e) = ×  the tension on both the tight as well as the slack sides.
N 1 D 2  E − σ1  The tension caused by centrifugal force is called
CGPSC AE 2014- I centrifugal tension (Tc). For maximum power
Ans. (b) : speed of the pulley due to creep transmission T = 3Tc
N 2 D1  E. + σ  349. It is usually preferable in chain drive to use
2
= ×  (a) even number of teeth of sprocket
N 1 D 2  E + σ1  (b) odd number of teeth on sprocket
346. Which of the following is the condition of (c) either even or odd, but certain minimum
maximum power transmission for belt? [T = number
Maximum permissible tension in belt, TC = (d) maximum number of teeth permissible on
Centrifugal tension, Vmax = velocity at sprocket
maximum power transmission, m = TNPSC AE 2018
mass/length of belt] Ans. (b) : of course, a higher number of teeth 19 or 21
T gives better life expectancy to the chain with less noise
(a) T = 3Tc ; Vmax = during operation. It is preferable to use an odd number
3m of teeth for the driving sprocket in combination with an
T even number of chain links for uniform wear and tear
(b) T = 3Tc ; Vmax =
3m on the teeth and rollers.
350. Stretching in a belt can be controlled by
T
(c) Tc = 3T; Vmax = (a) decreasing belt length
3m (b) increasing centre distance
T (c) increasing pulley diameter
(d) Tc = 3T; Vmax = (d) reducing stress in the belt
3m
TNPSC AE 2018
T
(e) T = Tc ; Vmax = Ans. (d) : Reducing stress in the belt, stretching in a
m belt can be controlled.
CGPSC AE 2014- I
351. When the speed of belt increases
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
(a) the coefficient of friction between the belt and
Ans. (b) : condition of maximum power transmission pulley increases
for belt is given as (b) the coefficient of friction between the belt and
T pulley decreases
T = 3Tc; Vmax = (c) the power transmitted will decrease
3m
347. In belt drive power transmitted is given by: (d) the power transmitted will increase
(Where Tt, Ts and v are tight side tension, slack JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
side tension and linear velocity of belt Ans : (d) : P = (T1 –T2)V
respectively). So if speed increased, Power transmitted should also
increases.
(a) = t
( T − Ts ) 352. The cross-section of a V-belt is
2v (a) circular (b) trapezoidal

(b) =
( Tt + Ts ) (c) rectangular (d) elliptical
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
2v
(c) (Tt - Ts) v Ans : (b) : A V-belt is mostly used in factories and
(d) (Tt + Ts) v workshop, where a great amount of power is to be
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift transmitted from one pulley to another when the two

617
pulleys are very near to each other. The included angle 358. The diameter of the manila and cotton ropes
for the V-belt is usually from 30o - 40o. The cross- used for power transmission usually ranges
section of a V-belt is trapezoidal. from :
353. The groove angle of the rope is usually (a) 10-20 mm (b) 15-25 mm
(a) 45o (b) 30o (c) 20-25 mm (d) 38-35 mm
o
(c) 25 (d) 15o
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
Ans : (a) : The groove angle of the rope is usually 45o. Ans : (d) : The diameter of manila and cotton ropes
354. When a belt happens to start slipping usually ranges from 38 mm to 55 mm. The size of the
(a) it can no longer transmit any power as kinetic rope is usually, designed by its circumference or ‘girth’.
friction is less than static friction 359. Velocity ratio for pulley drive is given by
(b) it will still continue to transmit power with (where D1 = diameter of driving pulley, D2 =
some slipping diameter of driven pulley, t = thickness of belt,
(c) power transmission efficiency will increase S = total percentage slip)
(d) flat belts do not slip
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI  D + t   100 + S 
(a)  1  
Ans : (b) : It will still continue to transmit power with  D2 + t   S 
some slipping.
355. The tight and slack sides of a belt connecting  D + t   100 − S 
(b)  1  
two pulleys are having tensions of 25 N and 15  D2 + t   S 
N respectively, while the belt is running at 10
m/s. The power transmitted is  D + t   100 − S 
(c)  1  
(a) 250 W  D 2 + t   100 
(b) 150 W
(c) 100 W  D + t   100 + S 
(d)  1  
(d) Data provided is insufficient for calculating  D 2 + t   100 
power
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
Ans : (c) : Power = (T2 - T1) × V Ans. (c) : Velocity ratio for pulley drive is given by
= (25-15) × 10 = 100 W  D + t   100 − S 
356. Compared to a belt drive, a chain drive is V=  1  
generally characterised by  D 2 + t   100 
(a) constant velocity ratio 360. If the angle of wrap in belt drive is θ and the
(b) absence of slip coefficient of friction between belt and pulley is
(c) heavier construction µ. (Where T1 and T2 are the tensions in the
(d) all of the above
tight and slack side of the belt respectively.)
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
T
Ans : (d) : Chain drive is positive drive. It maintains (a) T1 : T2 = eµθ (b) 2 = eµθ
constant velocity ratio. It has pure rolling motion. In T1
case of positive drive there is no slipping means no T1
energy loss. (c) T1 – T2 = eµθ (d) = eµθ
T2
357. Sources of power loss in a chain drive are given
below : HPPSC AE 2018
(i) Friction between chain and sprocket teeth. Ans. (d) : "The angle subtended at the pulley by the
(ii) Overcoming the chain stiffness position of belt in contact with it is called the angle of
(iii) Overcoming the friction in shaft bearing contact or angle of lap."
(iv) Frictional resistance to the motion of the
chain in air or lubricant
The correct sequence of descending order of
power loss due to these sources is:
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans : (a) :
! Since the maximum wear surface is at teeth. So it is Angle of conatct = θ
chain and sprocket surface for maximum loss. T1
! The least friction losses are due to motion of chain = eµθ
in air or lubricant. T2

618
361. Which of the following statements is not (d) Semicone angle
correct for the ratio of friction tension in flat TNPSC AE 2013
T  Ans. (d) : Flat Belts– Usal materials for flat belts are
belt  1 = eµθ  leather, canvas, cotton and rubber. These belts are used
 T2  to connects shaft upto 8 - 10 m apart with speeds as
(a) T1 = tension on the tight side high as 22 m/s.
(b) T2 = tension on the tight side Parameter is required while selecting the flat belt–
(c) θ = angle of lap over the pulley (1) Power to be transmitted. (2) The input and output
(d) µ = coefficient of friction between belt and speeds. (3) The centre distance depending on the space.
pulley 365. For maximum power transmission in a belt
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 drive the condition is
Ans. (b) : Tmax = Maximum tension
 T1 T1 = Tight side tension
µθ 
 =e  T2 = Slack side tension
 T2  (a) Tmax = mV2 (b) Tmax = 3mV2
where T + T2
T1 = Tension on tight side (c) Tmax = 1 (d) Tmax = 3T1
T2 = Tension on slack side 2
TNPSC AE 2014
θ = angle of lap over the pulley
Ans. (b) : We know that centrifugal tension (TC) in belt
µ = Coefficient of friction between belt and pulley
drive is given as
362. The included angle in the V-belt drive ranges T = mV2
C
from and we know that relation between maximum tension
o o o o
(a) 15 to 30 (b) 30 to 45 (Tmax) and centrifugal tension (TC) is belt drive is
(c) 45o to 60o (d) 60o to 90o T
HPPSC AE 2018 TC = max
Ans. (b) : The included angle in the V-Belt drive ranges 3
o
from 30 to 45 . o then,
Tmax = 3TC = 3mV 2
 T1  ( µ cos ec α )θ
Ratio of tensions for V-belt   = e where m → mass of belt per unit length
 T2  366. In a horizontal belt drive, it is preferable to
θ = Angle of contact, α = semi-angle of groove. have
• They are efficient-performing with an average of 94- (a) tight side on the top
98% efficiency. (b) slack side on the top
• Higher velocity ratio (up to 10) can be obtained. (c) tight side tension twice slack side tension
363. Which statement is wrong, while providing the (d) equal tensions on both sides
crown in the pulley? TNPSC AE 2014
(a) The crown on pulley helps to hold the belt on Ans. (b) : The slack side of the belt is preferably placed
pulley in running condition an the top side because the slack side of the belt, due to
(b) The crown on pulley helps the belt from its self-weight, will sag. For this reason the angle of
running off the pulley contact between the belt and the pulleys will increase.
(c) The crown on pulley helps to maintain the 367. The cross-section most commonly used in flat
speed belt drive pulleys is
(d) The crown on pulley helps the belt to running (a) elliptical (b) rectangular
equilibrium position near the mid plane of the (c) I-section (d) circular
pulley TNPSC AE 2013, 14
TNPSC AE 2013 Ans. (a) : The cross-section most commonly used in flat
Ans. (c) : Function of crown in the pully- belt drive pulleys is elliptical.
1. The crown on pulley helps to hold the belt on 368. In a cone pulley, If the sum of the radii of the
pulley in running condition. pulleys on the driving and driven shafts is
2. The crown on pulley helps the belt from constant, then
running off the pulley. (a) open belt drive is recommended
3. The crown on pulley helps the belt to running
(b) both open and closed belt drive are
equilibrium position near the mid plane of the pulley.
4. The crown on the pulley does not helps to recommended
maintain the speed. (c) closed belt drive is recommended
(d) drive is recommended depending upon torque
364. Which parameter is not required while APPSC AEE 2016
selecting the flat belt?
(a) Power to be transmitted Ans. (c) : In a cone pulley, If the sum of the radii of the
(b) The input and output speeds pulleys on the driving and driven shafts is constant, then
(c) The centre distance depending on the space closed belt drive is recommended.
619
369. The ratio of tension on the tight side to that on ω1 N1 d 2
the slack side in a flat belt drive is: Velocity ratio = = =
ω2 N 2 d1
(a) Proportional to the product of coefficient of
friction and lap angle d1 = Diameter of the driver
(b) An exponential function of the product of d2 = Diameter of the follower
coefficient of friction and lap angle N1 = Speed of the driver in rpm
(c) Proportional to the lap angle N2 = Speed of the follower in rpm
(d) Proportional to the coefficient of friction 372. Creep in a belt drive is due to :
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I (a) improper crowning
Ans : (b) : The ratio of tension on the tight side to that (b) plasticity of belt material
on the slack side in a flat belt drive is (c) differential elongation of belt due to difference
in tension on two sides of the pulley
T1 (d) Change in the coefficient of friction due to
= e µθ
T2 over heating
KPSC AE 2015
Where,
TNPSC AE 2014
T1 = Tension in tight side
T2 = Tension in slack side Ans : (c)
Creep in a belt is due to differential elongation of belt
µ = Coefficient of friction
due to difference in tension on two sides of the pulley.
θ = Angle of lap (in radian)
370. The convexity provided on the rim of the pulley N 2 d1 E + σ 2
Creep of belt : = ×
is known as: N1 d 2 E + σ1
(a) Grooving (b) Caulking
(c) Forming (d) Crowning σ1 and σ2 = stress in the belt on the fight and slack side
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) respectively
Ans : (d) The convexity provided on the rim of the E = Young's modulus for the material of the belt
pulley is known as crowning. 373. The power transmitted by a belt is dependent
Crowing:- The cast iron pulleys are generally made on the centrifugal effect in the belt. The
with rounded rims. This slight convexity is known as maximum power can be transmitted when the
crowning. The crowing tends to keep the belt in centre centrifugal tensions is
on a pulley rim while in motion. The crowing may be 9 (a) 1/3 of the tension (T1) on the tight side
mm for 300 mm width of pulley face. (b) 1/3 of the total tension (T1) on the tight side
(c) 1/3 of the tension (T2) on the slack side
371. The angular velocities of two pulleys connected
(d) 1/3 of the tension (T1) and (T2)
by crossed belt or open belt are:
MPPSC AE 2016
(a) directly proportional to their diameters
(b) inversely proportional to their diameters Ans : (b)
condition for the transmission of maximum power:-
(c) directly proportional to square of their
P = (T1-T2)V
diameters T1 = Tension in tight side
(d) inversely proportional to square of their T2 = Tension in slack side
diameters V = Velocity of belt in m/sec
HPPSC W.S. POLY. 2016
T1 T1
TNPSC AE 2014 = eµθ or T2 =
T2 eµθ
Ans : (b) The angular velocities of two pulleys
connected by crossed belt or open belt are inversely  T   1 
P =  T1 − µθ1  V =  1 − µθ  V = T1C.V
proportional to their diameters.  e   e 
 1 
C =  1 − µθ 
 e 
T1 = T − Tc
T = Maximum tension to which the belt
Tc = Centrifugal tension
P = ( T − TC ) V.C
P = ( TV − mv3 ) C

πDN P = ( Tv − mv3 ) C
ω= dp d
60 = 0, ( TV − mv3 ) C = 0
ω = Angular velocity dv dv
T = 3TC
ω1 N1 d 2
= = It shows that when the power transmitted is maximum 1/3
ω2 N 2 d1 rd of the maximum tension absorbed as centrifugal tension.
620
374. Wire ropes used in lifts and hoists are : T0 = Initial tension in the belt
(a) Cross ply (b) Regular lay T1 = Tension in the tight side of the belt
(c) Long lay (d) Reverse laid ropes T2 = Tension in the slack side of the belt
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I TC = Centrifugal tension.
Ans : (c) Wire ropes used in lifts and hoists are long lay. 379. Power transmitted by belt is maximum when
Wire ropes:– When a large amount of power is to be maximum tension in the belt compared to
transmitted over long distance from one pulley to centrifugal tension is
another then wire rope are used . The wire ropes widely (a) 2 times (b) 3 times
used in elevators, mine hoists, cranes. (c) 4 times (d) 5 times
375. Idler pulley is used for RPSC AE 2016
(a) maintaining belt tension
Ans : (b) P = (Tv - mv3) C
(b) changing direction of rotation
(c) for stopping motion frequently For maximum power
(d) for running during idling periods only dp
=o
RPSC AE 2016 dv
Ans : (a) Idler pulley is used for maintaining belt
tension. (
d
dv
)
Tv − mv3 C = 0

T – 3mv2 = 0
T = 3Tc
T = Maximum tension
Tc = Centrifugal tension
T = 3 mv2
This type of drive is provided to obtained high velocity
ratio when the required belt tension cannot be obtained T
v=
by other means. 3m
376. Slip in belt drive is 380. The splines are designated as "straight side
(a) loss of power spline 18 × 11× 112 - IS : 2610". The meaning is
(b) difference between velocities of two pulleys the straight side spline of
(c) difference between angular velocities of two
(a) length 18 mm, thickness 11 mm and width
pulleys
112 mm
(d) difference between linear speed of the rim of
pulley and the belt on it (b) width 18 mm, length 11 mm and thickness
RPSC AE 2016 112 mm
Ans : (d) Slip in belt drive is difference between linear (c) width 18 mm, thickness 11 mm and length
speed of the rim of pulley and the belt on it 112 mm
377. The pulley in a belt drive acts as (d) thickness 18 mm, width 11 mm and length
(a) rolling pair (b) sliding pair 112 mm
(c) turning pair (d) cylindrical pair TSPSC AEE 2015
RPSC AE 2016 Ans : (c) Straight side spline 18 × 11 × 112 - IS:2610"
Ans : (a) The pulley in a belt drives acts as rolling pair. means
Rolling pair -When the two elements of a pair are width = 18mm
connected in such a way that one rolls over another thickness = 11 mm
fixed link, the pair is known as rolling pair . length = 112 mm
Example:-ball and roller bearings are example of
381. Jockey pulley is used to
rolling pair
(a) Change the direction
378. Sum of the tensions when the belt is running on (b) change the velocity
the pulley is
(c) reduce the belt tension
(a) less than initial tension
(d) increase the angle of contact
(b) more than initial tension
(c) more than twice initial tension TSPSC AEE 2015
(d) half of initial tension Ans : (d) Jockey pulley is used to increase the angle of
RPSC AE 2016 contact.
Ans : (c) Sum of the tensions when the belt is running 382. For maximum power transmission, the velocity
on the pulley is more than twice initial tension. of the belt which has the mass per meter length
T + T2 of the belt 1 kg and maximum tension of 1200
T0 = 1 ( Neglecting Centrifugal tension ) N is equal to
2
(a) 34.64 m/s (b) 24.49m/s
T + T + 2TC
T0 = 1 2 ( Considering Centrifugal Tension ) (c) 20m/s (d) 29.6 m/s
2 TSPSC AEE 2015
621
Ans : (c) For maximum power transmission Gear ratio:-
3mv 2 = Tmax T
G=
T = 3mv2 t
T Here
V= m / sec. T= Number of teeth of gear
3m t = Number of teeth of pinion (small gear)
T = 1200 N
386. In order to have smooth operation, the
m = 1 Kg
minimum number of teeth on the small
1200 sprocket for moderate speed should be :
V=
3 ×1 (a) 15 (b) 17
V = 20 m/sec. (c) 21 (d) 25
383. The average speed of chain on the sprocket is OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
given by Ans : (b) In order to have smooth operation, the
DN PTN minimum number of teeth on the small sprocket for
(a) v = m / min (b) v = m / min moderate speed should be 17.
1000 1000
2πN TN 387. Velocity of the belt for maximum power
(c) v = m / min (d) v = m / min transmission by the belt and pulley
1000 1000 arrangement is:-
(Where P = Pitch in mm
T- No of teeth Tmax Tmax
(a) (b)
N = Speed of sprocket 3m 4m
D = diameter of sprocket in mm)
Tmax Tmax
TSPSC AEE 2015 (c) (d)
Ans : (b) The average speed of chain on the sprocket 5m m
PTN UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
v= m / min Ans. (a) : Velocity of the belt for maximum power
1000
transmission by the belt and pulley arrangement.
PTN
v= m / sec Tmax .
60 × 1000 Vmax =
Relation between pitch and pitch circle diameter 3m
 180º  388. Average tensions on the tight side and slack
D = P cosec   side of a flat belt drive are 700 N and 400 N
 T 
P = pitch in mm respectively. If linear velocity of the belt is
T = No of teeth 5m/s, the power transmitted will be:-
N = Speed of sprocket (a) 1.5 kW (b) 2.5 kW
D = Diameter of the pitch circle. (c) 2.8 kW (d) 3.0 kW
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
384. The centrifugal tension in belt drive.
(a) Increases power transmitted. Ans. (a) : Given as,
(b) Decreases power transmitted T1 = 700 N
(c) Has no effect on the power transmitted T2 = 400 N
(d) Increases power transmitted up to a certain V = 5 m/s
speed and then decreases. Power (P) = (T1 – T2) V
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I P = (700 – 400) × 5
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper P = 1.5 kW
TNPSC AE 2018 389. In a flat belt drive, slip between the driver and
Ans : (b) The centrifugal tension in belt drive decreases belt is 1% and that between belt and follower is
power transmitted. 3%. If the pulley diameters are same, the
385. Constant velocity ratio between two shafts can velocity ratio of the drive is:-
be obtained, if they are connected by (a) 0.99 (b) 0.98
(a) V-belts and pulleys (c) 0.97 (d) 0.96
(b) Sprocket and chains UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
(c) Gears Ans. (d) : Velocity ratio
(d) Universal joint
N 2 d1  S 
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I = 1−
Ans : (c) Constant velocity ratio between two shafts N1 d 2  100 

can be obtained. If they are connected by gears. where
1 S = S1 + S2 − 0.01 S1S2
Velocity ratio:- Velocity ratio =
Gear ratio S = 1 + 3 – 0.01 × 1 × 3
622
 S = 3.97  90°   120° 
(a) P = Dsin   (b) P = Dsin  
N2  3.97   T   T 
= 1 × 1 − 
N1  100   360°   180° 
(c) P = Dsin   (d) P = Dsin  
N2  T   T 
= 0.9603
N1 Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
390. Creep in belts occurs due to which one of the Ans. (d) : The relations between the pitch of the chain
following : (ρ) and pitch circle diameter of the sprocket (D) is,
(a) Belt and pulley surfaces are smooth  180° 
(b) Belt is thick given by:- P = Dsin  
 T 
(c) Due to unequal tensions on the two sides of
where, T = No, teeth on the sprocket.
the pulley
(d) The pulley diameters are large 398. The wire ropes make contact at
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I (a) bottom of groove of the pulley
Ans. (c) : Due to unequal tensions on the two sides of (b) sides of groove of the pulley
the pulley (c) sides and bottom of groove of the pulley
391. When there is no slip, the power transmitted by (d) anywhere in the groove of the pulley
belts is proportional to Nagaland CTSE 2016, 2017 Ist Paper
(a) (T1 – T2) V (b) (T1 + T2) V Ans. (a) : The wire ropes makes contact at bottom of

(c) (T1 / T2) V (d)

( T1 − T2 ) the groove of the pulley so that a clearance must be
there in blew the rope or (Belt) and the V-groove of the
V
pulley in order to prevent touching at the bottom, to
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
minimize/narrower from wear.
Ans. (a) : (T1 – T2) V
399. Which one of the following is a positive driver?
392. The Vee angle in case of Vee belts is of the
(a) Crossed flat belt drive (b) Rope drive
order of
(a) 30º to 34º (b) 10º to 15º (c) V-belt drive (d) Chain drive
(c) 50º to 60º (d) 20º to 30º Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I Ans. (d) : Chain drive is a positive drive (positive drive
Ans. (a) : 30º to 34º means movement without slip.
393. In a belt drive, the pair between belt and pulley 400. The arms of the pulleys for flat belt drive have-
is (a) elliptical cross-section
(a) higher (b) lower (b) major axis in plane of rotation
(c) spherical (d) none of the above (c) major axis twice the minor axis
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I (d) all the three characteristics
Ans. (b) : Lower Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
394. The power transmitted by a belt is maximum Ans. (d) : The arms of the pulleys for flat belt drive
when the maximum tension in the belt have all the three characteristics.
compared to centrifugal tension is 401. The objective of idler pulley in belt drive is to–
(a) 2.0 times (b) 2.5 times (a) decrease the tendency transmission capacity
(c) 3.0 times (d) 4.0 times (b) increase the power transmission capacity
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I (c) increase the wrap angle and belt tension
Ans. (c) : 3.0 times (d) all the above objectives
395. The effective coefficient of friction for a vee Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
belt on a pulley is roughly x times that of a Ans. (d) : The objective of idler pulley in belt drive is
corresponding flat belt. x =
to all the above objectives.
(a) 3 (b) 2
(c) 0.333 (d) 0.111 402. The belt slip occurs due to-
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I (a) heavy load
Ans. (a) : 3 (b) loose belt
(c) driving pulley too small
396. The normal velocity ratio in belt drive is
around (d) any one of the above
(a) 30 (b) 20 Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
(c) 10 (d) 3 to 4 Ans. (d) : The belt slip occur due to, heavy load, loose
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I belt, driving pulley too small.
Ans. (d) : 3 to 4 403. For same pulley diameters, centre distance, belt
397. The relation between the pitch of the chain (P) speed and belt and pulley materials,
and pitch circle diameter of the sprocket (D) is (a) open belt drive transmits more power than
given by crossed belt drive
623
 (b) crossed belt drive transmits more power than Ans : (d) A dynamometer is a brake but in addition it
open belt drive has a device to measure the frictional resistance.
(c) open and crossed belt drives transmit same Knowing the frictional resistance, we may obtain the
power torque transmitted and hence the power of the engine
(d) power transmission does not depend upon Dynamometer
open and crossed types of constructions
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Absorption dynamometer Transmission
Ans. (b) : For same pulley diameters, centre distance,
dynamometer
belt speed and belt and pulley materials, crossed belt i) Rope brake i. Epicyclic train
drive transmit more power than open drive. ii) Prony brake ii. Belt transmission
iii. Torsion dynamometer
6. Brake and Dynamometer 408. The principal object of a brake is to
(a) balance the energy (b) give energy
404. The brakes commonly used in railways trains is (c) absorb energy (d) none of the above
(a) shoe brake UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(b) band brake Ans. (c) : Absorb energy
(c) band and block brake
(d) internal expanding brake
TNPSC AE 2018 7. Flywheel and Governors
Ans. (a) : The brake shoe carries the brake block. The 409. Sensitiveness of the governor is defined as
block was originally made of wood but is not usually (a) Range of speed/mean speed
cast iron. When the brake is applied, the shoe moves (b) Mean of speed/range speed
and presses the block against the tread of the wheel. As (c) Mean of speed × range speed
well as providing braking effort this also 'Scrubs' the (d) 2 × Mean of speed/range speed
wheel and keeps it clean. (e) Range of speed/(2 × mean speed)
405. Rope brake dynamometer uses CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
(a) oil as lubricant (b) water as lubricant UJVNL AE 2016
(c) grease as lubricant (d) no lubricant OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
RPSC AE 2016 TNPSC AE 2014
Ans : (d) Rope brake dynamometer uses no lubricants. HPPSC AE 2018
Rope Brake Dynamometer:- Ans. (a) : Sensitiveness of the governor is defined in
It is another form of absorption type dynamometer two cases.
which is most commonly used for measuring the brake (i) Governor as single entity i.e. Governor not fitted in
power of the engine. It consists of one, two or more prime mover.
ropes wound around the flywheel or rim of a pulley (N1 + N 2 ) / 2 Mean speed
fixed rigidly to the shaft of an engine. Sensitivness = =
(N1 - N 2 ) Range
(W − S)πDN
B.P. = watts (ii) Governor fitted in prime mover
60
(N1 - N 2 ) Range
W = Dead load in newtons Sensitivness = =
S = Spring balance reading in newtons (N 1 + N 2 ) / 2 Mean speed
D = Diameter of the wheel in metres In question, it is not defined whether governor is single
N = Speed of the engine shaft in r.p.m. entity or fitted in prime mover. Assuming single entity
406. The brake commonly used on train boggies is the correct option is 'a'.
(a) internal expanding 410. The height of Watt's governor is proportional
(b) band brake to
(c) band and block brake (a) N (speed) (b) N2
(d) shoe brake (c) 1/N (d) 1/N2
RPSC AE 2016 (e) 1/ N
Ans : (d) The brake commonly used on train boggies is CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
shoe brake. Ans. (d) : If N is the speed of arm and ball about the
407. Dynamometer is a device, which is used to spindle axis, then the height of the governor (h) is given
measure by
(a) Speed of machine
895
(b) RPM of a machine h= 2
(c) Weight of the machine N
(d) None of the above From this expression, we see that the height of a Watt's
UJVNL AE 2016 governor proportional to 1/N2.
624
411. If the size of the flywheel in a punching Ans. (a) :
machine is increased, then
(a) fluctuation of speed as well as fluctuation of
energy will decrease
(b) fluctuation of speed will decrease but the
fluctuation of energy will increase
(c) fluctuation of speed will increase and the
fluctuation of energy will decrease
(d) fluctuation of speed as well as fluctuation of
energy will increase
TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (b) : If the size of the flywheel in a punching
machine is increased, then fluctuation of speed will
decrease but the fluctuation of energy will increase
415. If ω1 is minimum angular speed, ω2 is
412. In a turning moment diagram, the variations of maximum angular speed and ωm is the mean
energy above and below the mean resisting angular speed, then the sensitiveness of a
torque line is called governor is given by,
(a) fluctuation of energy (a) ωm/(ω2 – ω1) (b) (ω2 – ω1)/ωm
(b) maximum fluctuation of energy (c) (ω2 – ω1)/2ωm (d) 2(ω2 – ω1)/ωm
(c) coefficient of fluctuation of energy TNPSC 2019
(d) none of the above Ans. (b) : The sensitiveness of governor is given as
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018  ω − ω1   N 2 − N 1 
= 2 = 
Ans. (a) :  ωm   N m 
! Fluctuation of energy :- In a turning moment
416. A solid cast iron disk, 1 m in diameter and 0.2
diagram, the variations of energy above and below
m thick, is used as a flywheel. It is rotating at
the mean resisting torque line is called fluctuation
350 rpm. It is brought to rest in 1.5 s by means
of energy.
of a brake. If the mass density of cast iron is
! Maximum fluctuation of energy :- The difference 7200 kg/m3, the torque exerted by the brake
between the maximum and minimum energies is will be nearly.
known as maximum fluctuation of energy. (a) 3.5 kN m (b) 4.5 kN m
! Coefficient of fluctuation of speed :- The ratio of (c) 5.3 kN m (d) 6.3 kN m
the maximum fluctuation of speed to the mean ESE 2020
speed is called coefficient of fluctuation of speed. Ans. (a) : Mass of flywheel
! Coefficient of fluctuation of energy :- Is defined π
as the ratio of the maximum fluctuation of energy to m = ρv = ρ d 2 × t
4
the work done per cycle.
π
= 7200 × × (1) × 0.2
2
413. Which of the following governors is not spring
4
controlled?
= 1130.97 kg
(a) Hartnell governor Moment of Inertia
(b) Hartung governor
mR 2 1130.97 × ( 0.5 )
2

(c) Wilson-hartnell governor (I) = =

(d) Porter governor 2 2
= 141.37 kg-m2
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
ω = ω0 + αt
Ans. (d) : Hartnell governor, Hartung governor and
Wilson-hartnell governor are spring controlled 0 = 2π× 350 + α + 1.5
governors whereas Porter governor is dead weight type 60
governor. −2π× 350
α=
414. Which of the following is the dead weight 60 ×1.5
governor = -24.43 rad/s2
(a) Porter Governor Torque (T) = I α
(b) Watt Governor = 141.37×24.43
(c) Hartung Governor = 3453.67 Nm
(d) Hartnell Governor = 3.45 kNm
HPPSC AE 2018 T ≈ 3.5 kNm
625
417. If the speed of the flywheel is to be maintained (b) Increases
within ±1% of the mean speed, then the (c) Remain constant
coefficient of the fluctuation of speed is: (d) First increases, then decreases
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.02 JPSC AE PRE 2019
(c) 0.03 (d) 0.04 Ans. (b) : When the governor speed increases
(e) 0.05 centrifugal force increases, resulting in upward
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) movement of the sleeve of a porter governor.
Ans. (b) : We know that, 422. A flywheel absorbs 24 kJ of energy while
Coefficient of fluctuation of speed increasing its speed from 210 rps to 214 rps.
 ω − ωmin.  What will be its kinetic energy at 220 rps?
Cs =  max.  (a) 825.1 kJ (b) 790.4 kJ
 ω (c) 936.4 kJ (d) 684.9 kJ
1.01ω − 0.99ω  SJVN ET 2019
Cs =  
 ω Ans. (d) :
1
Cs = 0.02 E = I ( ω22 − ω12 )
2
418. A mass m is attached to a shaft at a radius r 1
rotating at ω rad/s. The centrifugal force 2400 = I ( 2142 − 2102 )
exerted by the mass is given by: 2
I = 28.30 kgm2
(a) (m ⋅ r) (b) (m ⋅ ω ⋅ r)
K.E. at 220 rps
(c) (2 ⋅ m ⋅ ω ⋅ r) (d) (m ⋅ ω2 ⋅ r)
1
E = ( 28.30 )( 220 ) = 684905.66 J = 684.905 kJ
2 2
(e) (n ⋅ ω ⋅ r )
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) 2
Ans. (d) : A mass m is attached to a shaft at a radius r 423. A device which is used to reduce the cyclic
rotating at ω rad/s. The centrifugal force exerted by the functuations of speed an engine is known as:
(a) Inlet and exhaust valve (b) Piston ring
mass is given by
(c) Clutch (d) Flywheel
FC = mrω2 SJVN ET 2019
419. A flywheel of a steam engine has a mass 2000 Ans. (d) : Flywheel
kg and a radius of gyration of 2 m. Its mass
424. If Cf is the coefficient of speed fluctuation of a
moment of inertia will be _____ kg. m2.
(a) 6000 (b) 8000 flywheel then the ratio of ωmax/ ωmin will be
(c) 16000 (d) 24000 1 − 2C f 2 −Cf
(a) (b)
(e) 32000 1 + 2C f 2 + Cf
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
1 + 2C f 2 + Cf
Ans. (b) : Given, Mass of flywheel (m) = 2000 kg (c) (d)
Radius of gyration (k) = 2 m 1 − 2 C f 2 −Cf
Then moment of inertia for disc type flywheel 1+ Cf
mk 2 2000 × (2) 2 (e)
IDisc = = = 4000 kg-m 2 1− Cf
2 2 CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
For Rim type flywheel RPSC 2016
2 2 2
IRim = mk = 2000 × (2) = 8000 kg-m
2 Ans. (d) : Coefficient of speed fluctuation
In option 8000 kg-m is given so answer will be 8000
kg-m2. (ω − ωmin ) × 2
C f = max
420. A flywheel of 1500 mm diameter is fit to the (ωmax + ωmin )
crankshaft of an engine, which rotates at 300  ωmax 
rpm. What will be its angular velocity?  − 1
ω  × 2 = k −1 × 2
(a) 31.02 rad/sec (b) 31.42 rad/sec =  min
(c) 32.02 rad/sec (d) 32.42 rad/sec  ωmax  k +1
(e) 33.02 rad/sec  + 1
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)  ωmin 
C f k −1
Ans. (b) : D = 1500 mm, N = 300 rpm, ω = ? =
We know that, 2 k +1
2πN 2 × 3.142 × 300  ωmax 
ω= = k = 
60 60 ωmin 

ω = 31.42 rad / sec. C (k + 1) = 2 (k - 1)
f
421. When the sleeve of a porter governor moves 2 + Cf
upward, the governor speed k=
2 −Cf
(a) Decreases
626
425. The minimum speed (rpm) of engine at full (d) one and a half times the first one
load condition and maximum speed (rpm) of TNPSC AE 2014
engine at no load condition is given by 245 and Ans. (c) : We know that-
255 respectively. The sensitiveness of governor 1
will be: E = Iω 2
(a) 1% (b) 2% 2
(c) 4% (d) 3% ω1 = ω 2 = constant
UPRVUNL AE 2016 so, E ∝ I flywheel
Ans. (c) : Nmax = 255 I1 = mR2
Nmin = 245 2
R  mR 2
Then, sensitiveness of governor will be the ratio of I2 = m   =
range of speed to average of speed. 2 4
( N max − N min )  mR 2 
=  
 N max + N min  E2  4 
  =
 2  E1 mR 2

2 × (255 − 245) 2 ×10 E

= = ×100 = 4% E2 = 1
255 + 245 500 4
426. Sensitiveness of a water turbine governor is
defined as 429. The height of watt governor is: [g =
acceleration due to gravity, ω = angular
Mean Speed
(a) velocity in rad/s]
Maximum Speed - Minimum Speed g g
(a) (b)
Maximum Speed - Minimum Speed ω 2
2ω 2
(b)
Mean Speed g g
Maximum Speed - Minimum (c) 2
(d)
(c) 4ω 8ω 2
Speed × Mean Speed g
(e)
Maximum Speed 10ω 2
(d)
Mean Speed CGPSC AE 2014- I
TNPSC AE 2013 Ans. (a) : h → height of watt governor
Ans. (a) : Sensitiveness of a water turbine governor is
given as
Mean Speed
=
Maximum Speed - Minimum Speed
427. Proell Governor as compared to porter
governor
(a) is more sensitive
(b) is less sensitive
(c) requires weights of smaller size
(d) is more sensitive and requires weights of
smaller size Then
TNPSC AE 2014 T sin θ = mg ...(1)
Ans. (d): Proell Governor as compared to porter T cos θ = mrω2 ...(2)
governor is more sensitive and requires weights of (1) ÷ (2)
smaller size. Proell governor use to reduce mass of ball g h
tan θ = 2 tan θ =
than Porter governor for same sensitivity. rω r
a 895  Mg ± f 
N2 = . 1+ (1 + k ) (a < e) h g g
= 2 ⇒ h= 2 h= 2
895
e h  2mg  r rω ω N
428. If the rotating mass of a rim type flywheel is 430. For a Hartnell governor, the loads on the
distributed on another rim type flywheel whose spring at the lowest and highest equilibrium
mean radius is half the mean radius of the speeds are 1150 N and 85 N, respectively. If the
former, then energy stored in the latter at the lift of the governor is 1.5 cm, then spring
same speed will be stiffness would be
(a) four times the first one (a) 700 N/cm (b) 710 N/cm
(b) same as the first one (c) 725 N/cm (d) 690 N/cm
(c) one fourth of the first one UPSC JWM 2017
627
Ans. (b) : Load on the spring at the lowest speed = 433. The effort of a governor is the force exerted by
1150N the governor on the
Load on the spring at the highest speed = 85N (a) balls (b) sleeve
Lift of Governor, x = 1.5 cm (c) upper links (d) lower links
1150 − 85 TSPSC AEE 2015
Spring stiffness, k = = 710N / cm Ans. (b) : On the sleeve, the effort of a governor is the
1.5cm
force exerted by the governor.
431. The coefficient of fluctuation of speed for a
flywheel is defined as 434. Which of the following governor is used to
(a) The ratio of the maximum fluctuation of drive gramphone
speed to the mean speed (a) Hartnell governor (b) Watt governor
(b) The ratio of the mean speed to the maximum (c) Porter governor (d) Pickering governor
fluctuation with speed TSPSC AEE 2015
(c) Difference between the maximum and Ans. (d) : Pickering governor is used to drive
minimum speeds during a complete cycle gramphone.
(d) The square root of product of the maximum 435. For a governor running at constant speed, the
and minimum speeds during a complete cycle force acting on the sleeve is
UPSC JWM 2017 (a) Constant (b) Minimum
Ans. (a) : Coefficient of fluctuation of speed of fly (c) Maximum (d) Zero
wheel Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Max. Fluctuation of speed
CS = Ans. (d) : At constant speed, no sleeve movement
Mean speed therefore zero force.
N1 − N 2 436. A circular solid disc of uniform thickness 20
CS = mm radius 200 mm and mass 20 kg is used as
 N1 + N 2  flywheel. It is rotates at 600 rpm the kinetic
 2 
  energy of the flywheel in Joule is
Where N1 and N2 are maximum and minimum (a) 395 (b) 790
speed in rpm during the cycle respectively. (c) 1580 (d) 3160
432. A shaft of diameter 50 mm, length 900 mm and RPSC 2016
torsional stiffness 87 Nm/rad, carries two 1 2
flywheels of mass moments of inertia 10 kgm2 Ans : (b) Kinetic Energy of flywheel E = Iω
and 30 kgm2 respectively. The distance of the 2
node from smaller flywheel end is: mr 2 2πN
(a) 300 mm (b) 425 mm (for disc) I = ,ω =
2 60
(c) 550 mm (d) 675 mm 2
UPSC JWM 2017 1 20 × (0.2)  2π × 600 
2
E= × × = 789.56
Ans. (d) : Distance of node is inversely proportional to 2 2  60 
the mass moment at inertia E ≈ 790J
1
ℓ∝ 437. The speed of an engine varies from 210 rad/s to
I 190 rad/s. During cycle the change in kinetic
ℓ 1I 1 = ℓ 2 I 2 = ℓ 3 I 3 energy is found to be 400 Nm. The inertia (I) of
Shaft length = ℓ 1 + ℓ 2 = 900mm the flywheel in kgm2 is–
2 (a) 0.10 (b) 0.20 (c) 0.30 (d) 0.40
First flywheel mass moments of inertia, I1 = 10 kgm
Second flywheel mass moment of inertia, I2 = 30 kgm2 RPSC 2016
ℓ 1I 1 = ℓ 2 I 2 Ans : (a) Maxium speed (ω1) = 210 rad/s
ℓ 1 (10 ) = ℓ 2 ( 30 ) Minimum speed (ω2) =190 rad/s
Maximum fluctuation of energy is given by relation,
ℓ 1 = 3ℓ 2 ∆E = Iω2 Cs
ℓ ω − ω2
ℓ2 = 1 Where, Cs = 1 = 0.1
3
ω1 + ω2
ℓ1
ℓ1 + = 900 2
3 ω1 + ω2
4ℓ 1 and, ω = = 200rad / s
= 900 2
3 400 = I × (200) 2 × 0.1
2700 400
ℓ1 = = 675 mm I= = 0.10 kgm2
4 (200) 2 × 0.1
Distance of the node from smaller flywheel end
ℓ 1 = 675 mm I = 0.10kgm 2

628
438. Coefficient of steadiness for wheel in terms of Now the mass 'm' is distributed to another flywheel
speed is given as– whose radius is half of former.
N1 − N 2 N ∴ Now moment of inertia,
(a) (b) 2 2
N N1 − N 2  r  mr I
I2 = m   = = 1
N N1 + N 2  2  4 4
(c) (d) Now energy storage
N1 + N 2 N
1 1 I
RPSC 2016 E2 = I 2ω = × 1 × ω
2 2

2 2 4
Ans : (b) The reciprocal of coefficient of fluctuation
E
speed is know n as coefficient of steadiness and it is = 1
denoted by 'm' 4
442. In a turning moment diagram, the variations
1 N + N2 of energy above and below of mean resisting
m= = 1
CS 2(N1 − N) torque is called
439. The flywheel of a steam engine has a radius of (a) fluctuation of energy
gyration of 1 m and mass 2500 kg. The starting (b) maximum fluctuation of energy
torque of the steam engine is 1500 N-m. (c) coefficient of fluctuation of energy
Determine Angular acceleration of the (d) dissipation of energy
flywheel. JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
(a) 0.8 rad/s2 (b) 0.6 rad/s2 Ans : (a) : fluctuation of energy
(c) 0.9 rad/s2 (d) 1.6 rad/s2 443. A porter governor is a/an
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 (a) pendulum-type governor
Ans. (b) : (b) dead weight governor
T = Iα (c) spring-loaded governor
⇒ 1500 = mr2 × α (I = mr2) (d) inertia governor
1500 JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
⇒α= Ans : (b) : Type of governors-
2500 ×1
(i) Centrifugal governors
α = 0.6 rad/s2
(ii) Inertia governors
440. In Hartnell governor, if the stiffness of spring is Type of Centrifugal governor
increased, the governor will : ! Pendulum type- watt governor (simplest)
(a) Become more sensitive
! Loaded type
(b) Become less sensitive
(c) Remain unaffected
(d) Start hunting
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
Ans. (b) : Stiffness of Hartnell governor
 a  (F − F )
2 2
a
K = 2   1 2 = 2   ( mrω2 − mr ' ω ' )
2

 b  r1 − r2 b

K ↑, r − r ' ↓ 444. The effort of a governor is defined as the force

r–r' Proportional to sleeve movement so that also
decreases making governor less sensitive.
441. If the rotating mass of a rim-type flywheel is
distributed on another rim-type flywheel whose
mean radius is half of the mean radius of the
former, then the energy stored in the latter at
the same speed will be
(a) four times the first one
(b) same as the first one
(c) one-fourth of the first one
(d) one and half times the first one
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
Ans : (c) : Energy stored in flywheel initially,
1
E1 = I1 ω2
2 (c) A flywheel controls the quantity or quality of
Where, I1 = mr2
629
to be applied on its sleeve for
(a) 5 percent change in speed
(b) 3 percent change in speed
(c) 1 percent change in speed
(d) no change in speed
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
Ans : (c) : The effort of governor is the mean force
exerted at the sleeve for a given percentage change of
speed or lift of the sleeve.
445. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(a) A flywheel regulates speed during one cycle
while the governor regulates speed from cycle
to cycle
(b) The flywheel is an essential element of every
prime mover
the working agent
 (d) A governor regulates speed by storing kinetic Ans : (a) : The given turning moment diagram,
energy
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
Ans : (a) : A flywheel regulates speed during one cycle
while the governor regulates speed from cycle to cycle.
446. If a flywheel having mass of 100 kg and radius
of gyration 10 cm is rotating at 10 rad/s, its
rotational kinetic energy will be
(a) 10 J (b) 25 J ∴ Ratio of flywheel speed at ‘a’ and ‘b’
(c) 50 J (d) 100 J Speed at 'a'
=
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI Speed at 'b'
Ans : (c) : Given, Since the loop is positive i.e. above average torque and
m = 10 kg flywheel gains energy, so speed should be more at ‘b’
k = 10 cm = 0.1m than ‘a’.
ω = 10 rad/s ∴ Speed ratio < 1
1 449. When the speed of the engine fluctuates
KE = Iω2
2 continuously above and below the mean speed
1 then the governor is said to be :
= mk 2 ω2 (a) Stable (b) Unstable
2 (c) Isochronous (d) Hunt
1 OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
KE = × 100 × 0.12 ×102
2 Ans : (d) : Hunting- A governor is said to be hunting if
= 50 J the speed of the engine fluctuates continuously above and
below the mean speed. This is due to high sensitivity of the
447. Which of the following statement is correct? governor which changes the fuel supply by a large amount
(a) Flywheel reduce speed fluctuations during a when a small change in the speed of rotation takes place.
cycle for a constant load, but flywheel does 450. In watt governor, the weight of the ball is 50 N
not control the mean speed of the engine if and the friction at the sleeve is 10 N. The
the load changes coefficient of detention would be
(b) Flywheel does not reduce speed fluctuations (a) 5.0 (b) 0.5
during a cycle for a constant load, but (c) 0.2 (d) 0.1
flywheel does control the mean speed of the Gujarat PSC AE 2019
engine if the load changes Ans : (c) : Given, W = 50 N = mg = 50 N
(c) Governor control a speed fluctuations during f = 10 N
a cycle for a constant load, but governor does For watt governor, M = 0
not control the mean speed of the engine if N max − N min f
=
the load change N mean ( M + m) g
(d) Governor controls speed fluctuations during a
cycle for a constant load, and governor also So, coefficient of detention
controls the mean speed of the engine if the f 10
= = = 0.2
load changes mg 50
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I 451. The change in governor height for a Watt
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 governor when speed varies from 100 r.p.m. to
Ans : (a) : The flywheel used in machines serves as a 101 r.p.m. will be nearly
reservoir which stores energy during the period when (a) 1.8 mm (b) 2.6 mm
the supply of energy is more than the requirement and (c) 3.4 mm (d) 4.2 mm
releases it during the period when the requirement of ESE 2019
energy is more the supply. Ans. (a) : Given,
The flywheel controls the speed variations caused by N1 = 100 rpm
the fluctuations of the engine turning moment during N2 = 101 rpm
each cycle of operation for constant load. Height of watt governor is given by
448. The turning moment diagram for a single 895000
cylinder double acting steam engine consists of h= mm
N2
+ve and –ve loops above and below the average
 1 1 
torque line. For the +ve loop, the ratio of the ∆h = h1 − h2 = 895000  2 − 2 
speeds of the flywheel at the beginning and the  N1 N 2 
end is which one of the following?  1 1 
(a) Less than unity (b) Equal to unity = 895000  −
1002 1012 
(c) Greater than unity (d) Zero
= 1.763 mm = 1.8 mm
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
630
452. The rim of a flywheel is subjected to 455. Consider the following statements:
(a) direct tensile stress and bending stress 1. In stationary constant speed engines, the spring-
(b) torsional shear stress and bending stress loaded governor mechanism is fitted on the
(c) direct shear stress and bending stress cam-shaft of the engine.
(d) compressive stress and bending stress 2. Hunting occurs when the governor is not
ESE 2017 sensitive.
Ans. (a) : Due to rotation, rim is subjected to radially 3. Isochronous governors have the same speed
outwards centrifugal force. over a wide range of governor action.
Due to centrifugal force, tensile stress develops. 4. A governor is said to be unstable if the radius of
Considering an element subtending angle dθ at centre, rotation falls as the speed increases.
internal resistance in hoop/circumferential direction Which of the above statements are correct?
produces direct tensile stress and due to distance (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
between distributed centrifugal force and supports there (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only
will be bending stresses. Portion of beam between two ESE 2017
arms will act as fixed beam and uniformly loaded and Ans. (c) : Statement second is wrong because hunting
hence, bending stress develops. occurs when a governor is too sensitive.
453. A flywheel fitted to a steam engine has a mass 456. A flywheel on a motor speeds up from rest to
of 500 kg and radius of gyration 300mm. The 1000 r.p.m. in 6 seconds. The number of
starting torque is 900 N m. What is the kinetic revolutions made thereby is nearly.
energy after 10 s? (a) 200 (b) 100
(a) 225 kJ (b) 450 kJ (c) 50 (d) 20
(c) 900 kJ (d) 1800 kJ ESE 2017
ESE 2017 Ans. (c) : Given,
Ans. (c) : Given, Flywheel on a motor speeds up from rest ω0 = 0 rad/sec
m = 500 kg Time taken = 6 sec
k = 300 mm = 0.3 m 2πN
T = 900 N-m Final angular speed (ω) =
60
t = 10 sec 2π×1000
We know that =
I = mk2 60
= 500 × (0.3)2 = 104.71 r/s
= 45 kg-m2 ω = ω0 + αt
T = Iα 104.71 = αt
T 900 104.71
α= = = 20 r/s2 α= = 17.4 r/s2
I 45 6
ω = ω0 + αt ω2 = ω02 + 2αθ
= 20 × 10 (104.71)2 = 2 × 17.4 × θ
= 200 r/s2 θ = 315.06 rad
1 1 θ
K.E. = Iω2 = × 45 × (200)2 = 900 kJ No. of revolutions = ≃ 50 approx
2 2 2π
454. In a Hartnell governor, the mass of each bell is 457. The speed variation of the engine caused by the
4 kg. The maximum and minimum centrifugal fluctuations of engine turning moment is
forces on the balls are 1800 N and 100 N at controlled by
radii 25 cm and 20 cm, respectively. The (a) Flywheel (b) Throttle valve
lengths of vertical and horizontal arms of the (c) Governor (d) D-slide valve
bell-crank levers are the same. What is the (KPSC AE 2015)
spring stiffness? Ans : (a) A flywheel used in machines serve as
(a) 780 N/cm (b) 740 N/cm reservoir, which stores energy during the period when
(c) 720 N/cm (d) 680 N/cm supply of energy is more than the requirement and
ESE 2017 release it during the period when the requirement of
Ans. (d) : Given, m = 4 kg a=b energy is more than the supply.
at r1 = 20 cm, F1 = 100 N 458. If a flywheel has mass moment of inertia I,
r2 = 25 cm, F2 = 1800 N rotating at a mean speed ω, kinetic energy is E
 F − F 
a and coefficient of fluctuation of speed is K,
Spring stiffness (k) = 2    2 1 
 b   r2 − r1  then maximum fluctuation of energy in a
flywheel will be equal to
1800 − 100  (a) lω2 K (b) 2KE
= 2 ×1 
 25 − 20  (c) lω (ω1- ω2) (d) All of the above
= 680 N/cm BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
631
Ans : (d) Let m = Mass of the flywheel in kg 460. One of the following is not pure rotation:
K = Radius of gyration of the flywheel in meter (a) Windmill
I = Mass moment of inertia in kg-m2 (b) The minutes hand of a clock
N1 and N2 = Maximum and minimum speed in rpm (c) Bicycle wheel
ω1 and ω2 = maximum and minimum angular speed in (d) Flywheel
rad/sec OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
N + N2 Ans : (c) Bicycle wheel is not pure rotation. Bicycle
N= 1 (Mean speed) in rpm wheel partially rotational and translatory motion.
2
461. In case of flywheel, the maximum fluctuation of
ω1 + ω2
ω= (Mean angular speed) in rad/sec energy is the :
2 (a) Sum of maximum and minimum energies
K = coefficient of fluctuation of speed (b) Difference between the maximum and
N − N 2 ω1 − ω2 minimum energies
= 1 or
N ω (c) Ratio of maximum and minimum energies
Kinetic Energy in flywheel (d) Ratio of minimum and maximum energies
1 1 OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
E= Iω2 = mk 2 ω2 Ans : (b) Maximum fluctuation of energy:
2 2
Maximum fluctuation of energy (∆E) = max K.E - Min Maximum fluctuation of energy = Maximum Energy –
K. E. Minimum Energy
1 1 ∆ E = E max − E min
∆E = Iω12 − Iω22
1
2 2 1
(
∆ E = I ω2max − ω2min
2
)
∆E = I ( ω1 + ω2 )( ω1 − ω2 )
2 ∆ E = Iω2mean .Cs
∆E = Iω ( ω1 − ω2 ) I = Mass moment of Inertia of the flywheel about its
axis at rotation
 ω − ω2 
∆E = Iω2  1  [ multiplying and dividing ω] ωmax = Maximum angular speed during cycle.
 ω 
 ω − ω2  ωmin = Minimum angular speed during cycle
∆E = Iω2  1 
 ω  ( ω + ωmin )
ωmean = max
∆E = Iω 2 CS ∆E = 2ECS 2
462. The radius of gyration for the solid disc
459. The maximum fluctuation of energy of flywheel is equal to
flywheel: D D
(a) is directly proportional to coefficient of (a) (b)
fluctuation of speed 2 2 2
(b) is directly proportional to square of angular D 2 2
velocity of flywheel (c) (d)
(c) is directly proportional to moment of inertia 2 D
of flywheel TSPSC AEE 2015
(d) all of the above Ans : (a) Radius of gyration disc type flywheel:-
2
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 MR
I = MK 2 =
Ans : (d) Maximum fluctuation of energy of flywheel. 2
Ef = Emax - Emin R D
1 2 1 2 KD = =
Ef = Iω1 − Iω2 2 2 2
2 2 KD = Radius of gyration disc type flywheel
1
Ef = I ( ω1 − ω2 )( ω1 + ω2 ) 463. The ratio of maximum fluctuation of energy to
2 the work done per cycle is called as
Ef = I (ω1 – ω2 ) ω …………..(i) (a) fluctuation of energy
I ( ω1 − ω2 ) 2 (b) coefficient of fluctuation of speed
Ef = .ω multiplying and dividing by ω (c) coefficient of fluctuation of energy
ω
2
Ef = Iω .Cs ………… (ii) (d) fluctuation of speed
TSPSC AEE 2015
 ω − ω2 
Cs =  1  Ans : (c) Coefficient of fluctuation of energy is the ratio
 ω  of maximum fluctuation of energy to the work done per
Iω2 Cs cycle.
Ef = 2 × E max − E min
2 Cf =
Ef = 2 ECs ………….. (iii) work done per cycle
632
464. Flywheel maintains consistency of power
transmission due to
(a) Its light weight
(b) Its high moment of inertia.
(c) its speed of rotation
(d) Its capability to be rotated by wind power.
UJVNL AE 2016
Ans : (b) Flywheel maintains consistency of power (a) GI2 (b) G2I2
(c) I2/G (d) I2/G2
transmission due to its high moment of Inertia.
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
E flc = Iω2Cs.
Ans : (b)
I = moment of Inertia.
ω = mean angular speed
Cs = coefficient of fluctuation
465. A flywheel is fitted to the crank shaft of an
engine having W amount of indicated work per
revolution. Permissible limits of coefficient of
fluctuation of energy and speed are CE and CS ω 
2

respectively. The kinetic energy of the flywheel I 'B = I B (on B) ×  B 

is given by  ωA 
W .CE W .CE I 'B = G 2 .I 2
(a) 2 (b)
CS 2CS 467. The collapse speed of a rotating solid disc is
W .CE W .Cs given by :
(c) (d)
CS 2CE 1 3σ y 1 σy
(a) ω = (b) ω =
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I R ρ R 3ρ
Ans : (b) 1 2σ y 1 σy
Coefficient of fluctuation of energy (c) ω = (d) ω =
R ρ R 2ρ
fluctuation of energy
( CE ) = Where σ y is yield stress, ρ is the density and
work done / cycle
R is the radius of the disc.
1 2 1 (HPPSC AE 2014)
Iω1 − Iω2 2
CE = 2 2 Ans : (a) The collapse speed of rotating solid disc is
W
1 3σ y
1 given by ω =
I(ω1 − ω2 )(ω1 + ω2 ) R ρ
CE = 2 σ = yield stress.
W y
ρ = density
I(ω1 − ω2 ) × ωmean
CE = R = Radius of the disc.
W
468. Which of the following governor cannot be
CE × W isochronous ?
ωmean =
I(ω1 − ω2 ) (a) Watt (b) Hartnell
(c) Proel (d) Porter
1
Kinetic energy of flywheel (KE) = Iω2 mean (HPPSC AE 2014)
2 Ans : (d) Porter governor cannot be isochronous.
1 C ×W A governor is said to be isochronous when the
KE = I × E ωmean
2 I(ω1 − ω2 ) equilibrium speed is constant (i.e. range speed is zero)
for all radii of rotation of the balls within the working
W.C E range, neglecting friction. The isochronism is the stage
KE =
2.CS of infinite sensitivity.
Let us consider the case of a Porter governor running at
466. A torsional system with discs of moment of
speeds N and N2 r.p.m. We assume that friction force is
inertia I1 and I2 are shown in figure, which are zero (f = 10)
gear driven. The ratio of speed of shaft B to
M
shaft A is G. The equivalent moment of inertia m + (1 + q)
2 895
( N1 ) =
2
of disc on shaft B at the speed of shaft 'A' is ×
equal to m h1
633
 M Ans : (a) When the sleeve of a porter governor moves
m+ (1 + q) upwards, the governor speed increase. If the sleeve of a
2 895
and ( N 2 ) =
2
× watt governor is loaded with a heavy mass, it becomes a
m h2
porter governor
For isochronism, range of speed should be zero i.e. N2- 473. Isochronism in a governor is desirable when
N1=0 or N2=N1. Therefore from equations (i) and (ii), (a) The engine operates at low speeds.
h1=h2, which is impossible in case of a Porter governor. (b) The engine operates at high speeds.
Hence a Porter governor cannot be isochronous (c) Only one speed is desired to be kept at all
469. The speed of an engine is seen to fluctuate loads.
Continuously above and below mean speed . (d) The engine operates at variable speeds.
The governor is said to be : UPPSC AE. 2016
(a) isochronous (b) hunting HPPSC W.S. POLY. 2016
(c) over sensitive (d) unstable OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
(KPSC AE 2015) Ans : (c) Isochronous Governor:- A governor is said
Ans : (b) The Speed of an engine is seen to fluctuate to be isochronous when the equilibrium speed is
continuously above and below mean speed. The constant for all radii of rotation of the balls within the
governor is said to be hunting. working range, neglecting friction. The isochronism is
Hunting:- A governor is said to be hunt if the speed of the stage of infinite sensitivity.
Let us consider the case of a porter governor running at
the engine fluctuates Continuously above and below the
speeds N1 and N2 rpm. Assume f = 0
mean speed. This is caused by a too sensitive governor
m
which changes the fuel supply by a large amount when m + (1 + K )
a small change in the speed of rotation takes place. 2 895
N1 =
2
× .......................(i)
470. Function of a governor is to m h1
(a) control the engine speed m
m + (1 + K )
(b) maintain the speed of engine constant 2 895
N2 =
2
× .......................(ii)
(c) store energy and give up whenever required m h2
(d) adjust variation of speed by varying the input For isochronism range of speed should be zero e.g. N2-
to the engine N1= 0 or N2 = N1. Therefore from equation (i) and (ii)
RPSC AE 2016 h1 = h2 which is impossible in case of a porter governor.
Ans : (d) Function of a governor is to adjust variation Hence a porter governor cannot be isochronous.
of speed by varying the input to the engine. 474. If, m = mass of the ball of the governor, ω =
The function of a governor is to regulate the mean speed angular velocity of the governor, g =
of an engine, when there are variation in the load. acceleration due to gravity, then the height of
471. The sensitiveness of the governor is equal to Watt's governor is given by:
ω1 − ω2 ω g g
(a) (b) (a) 2
(b)
ω ω1 − ω2 2ω ω2
ω ω2 − ω1 2g 2g
(c) (d) (c) 2 (d)
ω2 − ω1 ω ω ω2
(Where ω1 = maximum speed UJVNL AE 2016
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
ω2 = minimum speed
Ans : (b) Watt governor:-
ω = mean speed)
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (a) Sensitiveness of the governor
Rangespeed ω1 − ω2
= =
mean speed. ω
ω1 = max speed
ω2 = min speed.
ω + ω2 g 2πN
ω= 1 (Mean speed) h= 2 ω=
2 ω 60
472. When the sleeve of a porter governor moves 895
upwards, the governor speed h= 2
(a) increases N
(b) decreases m = mass of each ball
(c) remains unaffected h = Height of each ball
(d) first increases and then decreases ω = Angular velocity of the ball
TSPSC AEE 2015 T = Tension in the arm.
634
475. Which one of the following does not require a 482. If the speed of the engine varies between 390
flywheel? and 410 rpm in a cycle of operation, the
(a) Steam engine coefficient of fluctuation of speed will be
(b) Engine driven press (a) 0.01 (b) 0.03
(c) CI engine (c) 0.05 (d) 0.07
(d) Gas turbine UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
Ans. (c) : Given Nmax = 410
Ans. (d) : Gas turbine does not require a flywheel. Nmin = 330
476. Porter governor is a:- Then coefficient of fluctuation of speed (CS)
(a) Pendulum type governor
N − N min
(b) Dead weight type governor (CS) = = max
(c) Spring loaded governor N mean
(d) Inertia type governor N max − N min
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I =
N max + N min
Ans. (b) : Porter governor is a dead weight type
2
governor.
410 − 390
477. Sensitivity of an isochronous governor is:- =
(a) Zero (b) One 410 + 390
(c) Two (d) Infinity 2
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I 20
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I CS = = 0.05
400
Ans. (d) : Sensitivity of an isochronous governor is 483. In a governor, if the equilibrium speed is
infinity. constant for all radii of rotation of balls, the
478. A spring controlled governor is found unstable. governor is said to be
It may be made stable by:- (a) stable governor
(a) Increasing spring stiffness (b) unstable governor
(b) Decreasing spring stiffness
(c) inertia governor
(c) Increasing ball weight
(d) isochronous governor
(d) Decreasing ball weight
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (b) : A spring controlled governor is found Ans. (d) : isochronous governor
unstable. It may be made stable by decreasing spring 484. In a Hartnell governor, if the stiffness of spring
stiffness. is increased, then the governor will be
479. If Hartnell governor uses a spring of greater (a) more sensitive (b) less sensitive
stiffness, it will become:- (c) hunting (d) insensitive
(a) Less sensitive (b) More sensitive UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(c) Remain unaffected (d) Isochronous Ans. (a) : More sensitive
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I 485. The radius of gyration of a disc type of flywheel
Ans. (a) : If Hartnell governor uses a spring of greater of diameter D is
stiffness, it will become less sensitive. (a) D (b) D/2
480. In case of a flywheel, maximum fluctuation in
(c) D / 2 (d) D / 3
energy is:-
(a) Sum of maximum and minimum energies UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(b) Difference of maximum and minimum Ans. (c) : D/2
energies 486. What would be the vertical height of a watt
(c) Ratio of maximum and minimum energies governor when it rotates at 60 r.p.m?
(d) Ratio of minimum and maximum energies (a) 1.5m (b) 0.91m
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I (c) 0.24m (d) 2m
Ans. (b) : In case of a flywheel, maximum fluctuation Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
in energy is difference of maximum and minimum Ans. (c) : Watt Governor
energies. N = 60 r.p.m
481. A flywheel in an I.C. engine : h=?
(a) controls the supply of fuel to the engine h → vertical height of watt Governor.
(b) controls the cyclic fluctuation of speed 895
(c) controls the speed variation due to load N2 =
(d) All the above h
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I 895
h= = 0.24m
Ans. (b) : controls the cyclic fluctuation of speed (60) 2
635
487. The cross sectional area of the flywheel is given 492. Dynamics of machines deals with
by (a) relative motion between parts neglecting the
m2 m consideration of forces
(a) (b) (b) forces acting on the parts of machine
π Dρ π Dρ (c) apparatus for applying mechanical power
m m (d) number of interrelated parts each having a
(c) (d)
πD ρ2
π Dρ 2 definite motion
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper RPSC AE 2016
Ans. (b) : Gross sectional area of the flywheel is given Ans : (b) Dynamics of machine deals with force acting
by. on the parts of machine. Dynamics of machine which
m deals with the force and their effects, while acting upon
A= the machine parts in motion.
π Dρ
493. In a crank and slider mechanism if ω is angular
488. When the sleeve of a Porter governor moves velocity of the crank, r is radius of the crank, θ
upwards, the governor speed. is the angle turned by the crank from inner
(a) Increases b) Decreases
dead centre and n is the ratio of the connecting
(c) Remains unaffected(d) None of these
rod to crank radius, then the velocity of the
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
piston Vp is:
Ans. (a) : When the sleeves of a porter governor
moves upwards, the governor speed increases.  sin 2θ 
(a) Vp = ωr  sin θ − 
489. In a turning moment diagram, the variations of  2n 
energy above and below the mean resisting  sin 2θ 
torque line is called– (b) Vp = ωr  sin θ + 
 2n 
(a) Fluctuation of energy
(b) Maximum fluctuation of energy  sin θ 
(c) Vp = ωr  sin 2θ − 
(c) Coefficient of fluctuation of energy  2n 
(d) None of these  sin θ 
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper (d) Vp = ωr  sin 2θ + 
 2n 
Ans. (a) : In turning moment diagram, the variations
of energy above & below the mean resisting torque  sin 2θ 
(e) Vp = ω2 r  sin θ − 
line is called fluctuation of energy.  2n 
490. A flywheel 200 cm in diameter is rotating at (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
100 rpm. A point on the rim of flywheel will Ans. (b) : Displacement of Piston From IDC to ODC
not have:
(a) Angular velocity.
(b) Centripetal acceleration
 { }
x = r (1 − cos θ ) + n − ( n 2 − sin 2 θ ) 

(c) Tangential acceleration. ℓ
where n =
(d) All of the above. r
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (c) : The point rotating on the rim of flywheel,
there its velocity is changing, the point must have
radial acceleration. The point must rotate with
constant angular speed (ω). Therefore, its linear speed
is constant, by this reason, the point does not have a Velocity of piston Vp
tangential acceleration.
 sin 2θ  2 2
Vp = rω sin θ +  n >>> sin θ
8. Static and Dynamic Forces  2 n − sin θ 
2 2

Analysis  sin 2θ 
Vp = rω sin θ +
 2n 
491. Hammer blow in reciprocating engine varies Acceleration of piston (ap)
with:  cos 2θ 
(a) (Rotational speed)3 (b) (Rotational speed)2 ap = rω2  cos θ +
1/2
(c) (Rotational speed) (d) Rotational speed  n 
UPRVUNL AE 2016 ω cos θ
ωC.R. = If sinθ → 0
Ans. (b) : Hammer blow in reciprocating engine varies n 2 − sin 2 θ
with square of Rotational speed. ω cos θ
Hammer blow —Hammer blow is the maximum ωC.R. =
n
vertical unbalanced force caused by the mass provided
to balance the reciprocating masses. Its value is mrω2. ω2 sin θ
αC.R. = −
Thus, it varies as a square of the speed. n
636
494. In a reciprocating engine, the force along the ℓ = length of Connecting rod
connecting rod FQ is r = ratios of Crank
FP FP As 'n' is usually, much greater than unity, the secondary
(a) (b) force is small compared with primary force and can be
n − sin θ
2 2
2 n − sin 2 θ
2
safely neglected for slow speed engines.
nFP nFP 497. When a shaft is rotating at a speed which is less
(c) (d)
2 n − sin θ
2 2
n − sin 2 θ
2
than critical speed, the phase difference
where between displacement and centrifugal force is
FP = Force on piston (a) 180o (b) 90o
o
L (c) 45 (d) 0o
n=
r TNPSC AE 2014
ESE 2020 Ans. (d) : The phase difference between displacement
FP nFP and centrifugal force, when a shaft is rotating at a speed
Ans. (d) : FQ = =
cos φ n 2 − sin 2 θ which is less than critical speed will be 0o.
495. Which of the following is the correct expression 498. The frequency of the secondary forces
for the secondary unbalanced forces of compared to primary force is
reciprocating masses (a) one half (b) double
(a) Fs = mω 2 r × (cos 2θ ) / n 2 ] (c) one fourth (d) one third
TNPSC AE 2014
(b) Fs =mω2 r×(cosθ)/n 2 ]
cos 2θ
(c) Fs = mω 2 r × (cos 2θ ) / n] Ans. (b) : Secondary force = mrω 2
n
(d) Fs = mω 2 r × (cosθ) / n] Its frequency is twice that of the primary force and the
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper 1
Ans. (c) : Expression for the secondary unbalanced magnitude times the magnitude of primary force.
forces of reciprocating masses is; n
499. Transmissibility is defined as
mω 2 r × (cos 2θ )
Fs = (a) Ratio of force applied to the force transmitted
n to the foundation
ℓ
Where, n = (b) Ratio of force transmitted to the foundation to
r the input force
ℓ = length of Connecting rod (c) Sum of the forces applied and the force
r = radius of Crank
m = mass, of reciprocating parts transmitted to the foundation
ω = Angular Velocity of crank (d) Difference of force applied vis-a-vis the force
transmitted to the foundation
496. In a locomotive, the ratio of the connecting rod
length to the crank radius is kept very large in UPSC JWM 2017
order to Ans. (b) :
(a) Start locomotive quickly Force tramsmitted to the foundation
(b) Minimise the effect of primary forces Transmissibity =
Force impressed upon the system
(c) Minimise the effect of secondary forces
(d) Have perfect balancing 500. Which of the following is correctly matched?
TNPSC AE 2013, 2018 (a) Coulomb - Energy principle
KPSC AE 2015 (b) Rayleigh - Dynamic equilibrium
Nagaland CTSE 2017, 2016 Ist Paper (c) D'Alembert - Damping force
Ans. (c) : Force required to accelerate, the reciprocating (d) Fourier - Frequency domain analysis
mass of a slider crank mechanism is given by. TNPSC AE 2018
2 cos2θ  Ans. (d) : Coulomb method - Retaining wall
F= mrω  cosθ + 
 n  Rayleigh method - Energy principle
cos2θ D'Alembert method - Dynamic equilibrium
= mrω2 cosθ + mrω2
n Fourier - Frequency domain analysis.
mrω 2 is called primary accelerating force and 501. If the ratio of the length of connecting rod to
cos2θ the crank radius increases
mrω2 is called secondary acceleration force. The (a) primary unbalanced forces increase
n
2 (b) primary unbalance forces decrease
mrω
maximum value of secondary force , where, (c) secondary unbalanced forces increase
n (d) secondary unbalanced forces decrease
n = ℓ / r (kept large)
TNPSC AE 2017
637
Ans. (d) : We know that 504. In dynamic analysis of planar mechanisms, the
Primary accelerating force = mrω2 cos equivalent offset inertia force may be kept at a
Max. value of primary force = mrω2 distance (h) of
cos 2θ k 3α kα
Secondary accelerating force = mrω2 (a) h = (b) h =
n fg fg
mrω2
max. value of secondary force =
n k 2α2
So, If the value of n (l /r) increase then (c) h = h 2 α (d) h =
fg
secondary unbalanced force decreases.
502. In a locomotive, The maximum magnitude of TSPSC AEE 2015
the unbalanced force acting along the Ans. (a) : Equivalent offset inertia force is given as,
perpendicular to the line of stroke is
(a) tractive force (b) swaying force k 3α
h=
(c) hammer blow (d) None of the given answers fg
APPSC AEE 2016
RPSC AE. 2016 505. The resultant unbalanced force is minimum in
TNPSC AE 2013 reciprocating engines, when
Ans. (c) : Tractive force– The resultant unbalanced 1
(a) of reciprocating masses are balanced
force due to the cylinders, along the line of stroke, is 3
known as tractive force. 1
Swaying force– The couple has swaying effect about a (b) of reciprocating masses are balanced
vertical axis, and tends to sway the engine alternate in 2
clockwise and anticlockwise direction. Hence this 3
couple is known as swaying couple. (c) of reciprocating masses are balanced
4
Hammer blow– The maximum magnitude of the (d) they are completely balanced
unbalanced force along the perpendicular to the line of TNPSC 2019
stroke is known as hammer blow.
Ans. (b) : The resultant unbalanced force is minimum
503. The swaying couple is maximum or minimum
when the angle of inclination of the crank to in reciprocating engines, when half of reciprocating
the link of stroke is ? = masses are balanced.
(a) 90o and 225o (b) 135o and 180o 506. A four cylinder symmetrical in-line engine is
o o
(c) 180 and 225 (d) 135o and 315o shown in figure. Reciprocating weights per
TSPSC AEE 2015 cylinder are R1 and R2 and the corresponding
Ans. (d) : Swaying couple- The unbalanced forces angular disposition of the crank are α and β.
along the line of stroke for the two cylinders constitute a Which one of the following equations should be
couple about the centre line y-y between the cylinders. satisfied for its primary force balance ?

This couple has swaying effect about a vertical (a) a1 tan α = a2 tan β
axis, and tends to sway the engine alternately in (b) cos α = 0.5 sec β
clockwise and anticlockwise direction. Hence the (c) R1 a1 sin 2α = R2 a2 sin 2β
couple is known as swaying couple. (d) a1 cos α = R2 cos β
mω2 rℓ OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
Swaying couple = (1 − c ) ( cos θ + sin θ )
2 Ans. (d) : a1 cos α = R2 cos β
For maximum magnitude of couple ⇒ m1rw2 (cosθ1 + cosθ2 + cosθ3 + cosθ4) = 0
∂  θ1 = α1 ,
(1 − c ) mω2 r ( cos θ + sin θ ) = 0
ℓ

∂θ  2 θ2 = 180º + β

θ3 = 180º – β
θ = 45o or 225o θ4 = (360 – α)
Then maximum swaying couple For primary force balance
1 R2
=± (1 − c ) mω2 rℓ R1 2
rw cos α + 2 rw 2 cos (180º +β )
2 g g
638
R2 2 R Ans. (b) : Energy produced in one cycle per cylinder
rw cos (180º −β ) + 1 rw 2 cos ( 360º −α ) = 0 = Area of turning moment diagram
g g
∴ R 1 cos α − R 2 cos β − R 2 cos β + R 1 cos α = 0 1
= × π × 60
2R1 cos α − 2R 2 cos β = 0 2
= 30 π Joule
R1 cos α = R 2 cos β Total energy produced by 3 cylinder = 90 π
507. Hammer blow in locomotives results in : Total energy produced per cycle
Mean torque =
(a) Pulsating torque Angle rotated by crank per cycle
(b) Tendency to lift the wheels from rail 90π
(c) Uneven speed Tmean = = 45 Nm
2π
(d) Variable horizontal force
Nmean = 400 rpm
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
Power produced = Tmean × ωmean
Ans. (b) :
2π × 400
! Hammer blow amount has to be limited in order to = 45 ×
avoid lifting of wheels from rails of a locomotive. 60
! In locomotive where primary forces are partially = 1885 W
balanced, the maximum magnitude of the 511. Primary unbalanced force due to inertia of
unbalanced force along the perpendicular to the line reciprocating parts in a reciprocating engine is
of stroke is known as hammer blow. given by:-
508. The secondary force in a crank-piston (a) m r ω2 sin (b) m r ω2 cos
mechanism  sin 2θ   cos 2θ 
(a) arises due to obliquity of connecting rod (c) mω2 r   (d) mω2 r  
 n   n 
(b) acts at double the frequency as that of the UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
primary force Ans. (b) : Primary unbalanced force due to inertia
(c) is smaller in magnitude than the primary force
FP = mrω2cosθ
(d) All of the above
Secondary unbalanced force due to inertial
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
 cos 2θ 
Ans : (d) : The secondary force in a crank piston FS = mrω2  
mechanism is-  n 
• Arise due to obliquity of connecting rod.
• Acts at double the frequency as that of the primary 9. Balancing
force.
• Is smaller in magnitude than the primary force. 512. Balancing of industrial rotors in a balancing
509. A piston having mass m = 3 kg executes pure machine is usually done at speeds between 400
simple harmonic motion, whose displacement rpm and 700 rpm, because:
in meters is given by x = 0.05 sin (10t). Its 1. Industrial rotors have lateral critical speeds
inertia force at time t = 0 will be more than 5000 rpm
(a) 0 N (b) –0.15 N 2. The rotor has critical speed generally less
(c) –1.5 N (d) –15 N than 100 rpm
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI 3. Speeds lower than 400 rpm do not create
Ans : (a) : m = 3 kg centrifugal forces of magnitudes measurable
x = 0.05sin(10t) meter. in this set up
4. Balanced rotors have no critical speed
xɺ = 0.05×10cos(10t)
ɺxɺ = –0.05×10×10sin(10t) Which of the above statements are correct?
Inertia force, (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only
F = m ɺxɺ (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only
= –3×0.05×100sin(10t) UPSC JWM 2017
At time, t = 0 second Ans. (a) : Balancing of industrial rotors in a balancing
F=0N machine is usually done at speed between 400 rpm and
510. A three-cylinder single-acting engine has its 700 rpm because industrial rotors have lateral critical
cranks at 120°. The turning moment diagram for speeds more than 500 rpm and a rotor balanced for 400
each cycle is a triangle for the power stroke with rpm to 700 rpm will still balanced for more than 5000
a maximum torque of 60 Nm at 60° after the dead rpm.
centre of the corresponding crank. There is no Balancing rotors have no critical speed.
torque on the return stroke. The engine runs at 513. For a single cylinder reciprocating engine
400 r.p.m. the power developed will be speed is 500 rpm, stroke is 150 mm, mass of
(a) 1745 W (b) 1885 W reciprocating parts is 21 kg; mass of revolving
(c) 1935 W (d) 1995 W parts is 15 kg at crank radius. If two-thirds of
ESE 2019 reciprocating masses and all the revolving
639
 masses are balanced, the mass at a radius of balance rotor. What is the radial position of the
150 mm will be balancing mass.
(a) 7.5 kg (b) 10.5 kg (a) 280 mm (b) 50 mm
(c) 12.5 kg (d) 14.5 kg (c) 150 mm (d) 120 mm
ESE 2020 (e) 80 mm
Ans. (d) : Given, N = 500 rpm CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
2π× 500 Ans. (c) :
ω= = 52.3598 rad / s
60
150
r= mm = 75 mm = 0.075 m
2
mreci = 21 kg
mrot = 15 kg
b = 150 mm = 0.150 m
B=?
2
Mass to be balanced = Rotating + Reciprocating
3
 2 
=  15 + × 21 = 15 + 14 = 29 kg
 3 
Let x and y is position of balancing mass along x and y
Total mass to be balanced
directions. Resolving forces along x-axis.
m = 29 kg
mrω2 = B·b·ω2 0.5(-60× cos30º +50× cosθ)ω2
29 × 0.075 = B × 0.150 = 0.1× x × w 2
29 × 0.075 x = 9.8 mm
B= kg
0.150 0.5× (60×10-3 × sin30º )ω2 + 0.5(50×10-3 × sin0º )ω 2
B = 14.5 kg = 0.1 ω2y
514. In order to balance the reciprocating masses y = 150 mm
(a) Only primary forces and couples must be Position of balancing mass
balanced r = x 2 + y 2 = (−9.8) 2 + (150) 2
(b) Only secondary forces and couples must be
balanced r = 150.3 mm
(c) Both (a) and (b) 517. Partial balancing in locomotives results in
(d) None of (a), (b) and (c) (a) hammer blow, variation of tractive effort,
JPSC AE PRE 2019 swaying couple
Ans. (c) : In order to balance the reciprocating masses (b) least wear
• Only primary forces and couples must be balanced. (c) most smooth operation
• Only secondary forces and couples must be (d) better performance of engine
balanced. TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (a) : Hammer blow, variation of tractive effort,
515. A disturbing mass m1, attached to a rotating swaying couple due to partial balancing in locomotives.
shaft may be balanced by a single mass m2, 518. The balancing of rotating the reciprocating
attached in the same plane of rotation as that parts of an engine is necessary when it turns at
of m1 such that– (a) slow speed (b) medium speed
(a) m1r2 = m2r1 (b) m1r1 = m2r2 (c) high speed (d) constant speed
(c) m1r2 = r2r2 (d) None of these
TNPSC 2019
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (c) : The balancing of rotating the reciprocating
Ans. (b) : A disturbing or unbalance the mass (m1) is
balanced by a single mass (m2) is attached on the parts of an engine is necessary when it turns at high
same plane of rotation. The centrifugal forces are speed.
proportional to the product of the mass & radius of 519. The resultant unbalanced force is minimum in
rotation of respective masses, because ω (rotational reciprocating engines when the part of the
speed) is same for each mass. reciprocating mass balanced by rotating
m1r1 = m 2 r2 masses is :
1 1
516. A rotating disc of 1 m diameter has two (a) (b)
3 2
eccentric masses of 0.5 kg each at radii of 50
mm and 60 mm at the angular positions of 0 2 3
(c) (d)
degree and 150 degree respectively. A 3 4
balancing mass of 0.1 kg is to be used to OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
640
Ans. (c) : The resultant unbalanced force is minimum in Ans. (c) :
reciprocating engines when the part of the reciprocating
2
mass balanced by rotating masses is .
3
520. The unbalanced force due to reciprocating
masses
(a) varies in magnitude but constant in direction
(b) varies in direction but constant in magnitude
(c) varies in both magnitude and direction
(d) constant in both direction and magnitude 60
Lower piston crank radius (r1) = = 30 cm
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II 2
Ans : (a) : The unbalanced force due to reciprocating Upper piston crank radius = r2
masses varies in magnitude but constant in direction. m1 = 2000 kg
521. The balancing weight are introduced in planes m2 = 2750 kg
parallel to the plane of rotation of the ℓ
n1 = 1 = 4
disturbing mass. To obtain complete dynamic r1
balance, the minimum number of balancing ℓ2
weights to the introduced in different planes is : n2 = = 8
r2
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4 N = 135 rpm
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I 2π ×135
ω1 = ω2 = = 14.137 r/s
Ans : (b) : 60
m1r1 = m2r2
mr
r2 = 1 1
m2
2000 × 30
=
2750
= 21.81 m
In order to achieve complete balancing of the system at m r ω2 m r ω2
Unbalanced force = 1 1 1 + 1 2 2
least two balancing masses are required to be placed in n1 n2
two planes parallel to the plane of disturbing mass.
 2000 × 0.3 × (14.137) 2 
522. Which of the following effects is more = 
dangerous for a ship  4 
(a) rolling (b) waving  2750 × 0.2181× (14.137) 2 
(c) pitching (d) steering + 
 8 
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 = 29978.2 + 14983.48
RPSC AE. 2016 = 44,961.70 N
SJVN ET 2013 524. The reciprocating mass is balanced when
Ans : (c) Pitching is more dangerous for a ship primary force is
Pitching:-The pitching is the moment of a complete 1. balanced by the mass = cmrω2 cosθ
ship up and down in a vertical plane about transverse axis. 2. unbalanced by the mass = cmrω2 cosθ
Rolling:-In case of rolling of a ship, the axis of precession 3. balanced by the mass = (1−c)cmrω2 cosθ
is always parallel to the axis of spin for all positions 4. unbalanced by the mass (1−c)cmrω2 cosθ
523. A vertical single-cylinder opposed piston type Select he correct answer using the code given
engine has reciprocating parts of mass 2000 kg below.
for the lower piston and 2750 kg for the upper (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
piston. The lower piston has a stroke of 60 cm (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
and the engine is in primary balance. If the ESE 2019
ratio of the length of connecting rod to crank is Ans. (c) : Balancing of reciprocating mass
4 for the lower piston and 8 for the upper
piston, and when the crankshaft speed is of 135
r.p.m., the maximum secondary unbalanced
force will be
(a) 48935.5 N (b) 46946.5 N
(c) 44968.5 N (d) 42989.5 N
ESE 2019
641
Force required to accelerate mass is Ans. (a) : All statements are correct.
cos θ 528. A body of mass 10 kg with its CG 200 mm from
F= mr
%&ω'&
cos(θ
2
+ mrω 2

h( the axis of rotation is to be completely balanced

Primary accelerating force %&'&
Secondary accelerating force by another mass B of 5 kg placed in the same
Primary balancing of reciprocating mass plane. The radius at which the CG of mass B
! If C is the fraction of the reciprocating mass, primary should be is
force balanced by the mass (a) 500 mm (b) 400 mm
= cmrω2 cosθ (c) 300 mm (d) 200 mm
! Primary force unbalance by the mass ESE 2017
= (1 − C) mrω2 cosθ Ans. (b) : Given,
525. A single-cylinder reciprocating engine works m1 = 10 kg r1 = 200 mm
m2 = 5 kg r2 = ?
with a stroke of 320 mm, mass of reciprocating
m1r1 = m2r2
parts as 45 kg and mass of revolving parts as 35
10 × 200 = 5 × r2
kg at crank radius. If 60% of the reciprocating r2 = 400 mm
parts and all the revolving parts are to be
529. Two steel balls of 2 kg and 4 kg mass,
balanced, then the balancing mass required at respectively, are pressed on the two ends of a
a 300 mm radius is nearly spring, all pre – placed on a smooth surface.
(a) 33.1 kg (b) 36.3 kg When released, the smaller ball moves with an
(c) 39.5 kg (d) 42.7 kg acceleration of 2 m/s2. The simultaneous
ESE 2018 acceleration of the bigger ball will be
Ans. (a) : Length of stroke = 320 mm (a) 0.5 m/s2 (b) 1 m/s2
2
Mass of reciprocating parts = 45 kg (c) 2 m/s (d) 4 m/s2
Mass of revolving parts = 35 kg ESE 2017
Mass of reciprocating parts to be balanced Ans. (b) :
= 0.6 × 45 = 27 kg
Therefore mass to be balanced = 27 + 35 = 62 kg
Given, m1 = 2 kg m2 = 4 kg
320 a1 = 2 m/s2 a2 = ?
Crank radius = = 160 mm
2 Spring force on each mass F = ma
mcrc = mr m1a1 = m2a2
mc × 300 = 62 × 160 2 × 2 = 4 × a2
mc = 33.06 kg a2 = 1 m/s2
526. Statement (I): There is no balancing 530. In order to facilitate the starting of locomotive
methodology in the case of reciprocating engines. in any position, the crank of a locomotive with
Statement (II): Balancing of dynamic forces is two cylinders are placed :
achieved mostly by resorting to multi-cylinder (a) 450 (b) 900
0
engine concept. (c) 120 (d) 1800
(KPSC AE 2015)
ESE 2017
Ans : (b) In order to facilitate the starting of locomotive
Ans. (c) : Single cylinder reciprocating engine can not in any position the crank of a locomotive with two
be balanced completely by any method. But in multi cylinder are placed 900
cylinder engine case (six cylinder), it is possible to 531. The ratio of maximum displacement of the
balance the engine in particular configuration. forced vibration to the deflection due to static
Note : Answer given by UPSC is option (A). force is known as :
527. Consider the following statements: (a) damping factor
1. Balancing of several masses rotating in the (b) damping coefficient
same plane can be effected by a single mass. (c) logarithmic decrement
2. Balancing of several masses in different planes (d) magnification factor
can be done by 2 masses in 2 planes on either (KPSC AE 2015)
side of the reference plane or on the same side. Ans : (d) Magnification factor
3. Reciprocating masses cannot be completely Max displacement of the forced vibration
=
balanced by rotating masses. Deflection due tostaticforce
4. Secondary unbalanced forces will be negligible 532. Which one of the following can completely
compared to primary imbalance forces. balance several masses revolving in different
Which of the above statements are correct? planes on a shaft?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) A single mass in any one plane
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) A single mass in one of the planes of the
ESE 2017 revolving masses
642
 (c) Two masses in any two planes 537. A system in dynamic balance implies that
(d) Two equal masses in any planes (a) The system is critically damped.
MPPSC AE 2016 (b) The system is at its critical speed.
Ans : (c) Two masses in any two planes Completely (c) The system is also statically balanced.
balance several masses revolving in different planes on (d) There will be no wear of bearings.
a shaft. UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
533. The primary distributing force due to inertia of Ans : (c)
reciprocating parts of mass 'm' at radius 'r' Static Balancing:-A system of rotating masses is said
rotating with an angular velocity 'ω' is given to be in static balance if the combined mass centre of
by the system lies on the axis of rotation.
2 2 Dynamic Balancing:- A system of rotating masses is
(a) m ω r sin θ (b) m ω r cos θ
in dynamic balancing when these does not exist any
 2θ   2θ  resultant centrifugal force as well as resultant couple.
(c) m ω2 r sin   (d) m ω2 r cos  
 n   n  538. If there are several unbalanced masses in a
MPPSC AE 2016 rotor in different planes, the minimum number
Ans : (b) of balancing masses required is
cos 2θ  (a) 1 (b) 2

Funbalanced force = mrω2  cos θ + (c) 3 (d) 4
 n  UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
( i ) Pr imary unbalanced force = mrω2 cos θ Ans : (b) If there are several unbalanced masses in a
rotor in different planes, the minimum number of
cos 2θ
( ii ) Secoundry unbalanced force = mrω2 balancing masses required is 2.
n
534. The tractive resistance during the propulsion
of a wheeled vehicle depends on :
(a) Road resistance
(b) Aerodynamic resistance
(c) Gradient resistance
(d) All of these 539. The tractive force is maximum or minimum
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I when the angle of inclination of the crank to
Ans : (d) The tractive resistance during the propulsion the line of stroke is equal to
of a wheeled vehicle depends on: (a) 90o and 225o (b) 135o and 180o
(i) Road resistance (c) 180o and 225o (d) 135o and 315o
(ii) Aerodynamic resistance
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
(iii)Gradient resistance
Ans : (d) The tractive force is maximum or minimum
535. Usually following fraction of reciprocating when the angle of inclination of the crank to the line of
masses is balanced in case of reciprocating
engines stroke is equal to 135o and 315o
(a) full (b) half Variation of Tractive force:- A variation in the
(c) one-quarter (d) two-thirds tractive force (effort) of an engine is caused by the
RPSC AE 2016 unbalanced portion of the primary force which acts
along the line of stroke of a locomotive engine.
Ans : (d) Two third of reciprocating masses is balanced * Total unbalanced primary force or the variation in the
in case of reciprocating engines.
tractive force = (1 − C)mrω2 (cos θ − sin θ) .This is
536. if the ratio of length of connecting rod to crank
radius increases, then. maximum when θ = 135o or315o
(a) Primary unbalanced force increases. * Maximum variation in tractive force = ± 2(1 − C)mrω2
(b) Primary unbalanced force decreases. 540. Any distributed mass can be replaced by two
(c) Secondary unbalanced force increases. point masses to have the same dynamical
(d) Secondary unbalanced force decreases. properties, if
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I (a) The sum of the two masses is equal to the
Ans : (d) If the ratio of length of connecting rod to total mass.
crank radius increases, then secondary unbalanced (b) The combined centre of mass coincides with
force decreases. that of the rod.
Fp= Primary unbalanced force = mrω2 cos θ (c) The moment of inertia of two point masses
about perpendicular axis through their combined
mrω2 centre of mass is equal to that of the rod.
Fs= Secondary unbalanced force = cos 2θ
n (d) All the above.
ℓ UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
n=
r Ans. (d) : All the above.
643
541. Static balancing involves balancing of
(a) forces (b) couples
10. Gyroscope
(c) masses (d) All the above
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I 546. The engine of an aeroplane rotates in clockwise
Ans. (a) : forces direction when seen from the tail end and the
aeroplane takes turn to left. The effect of
542. Choose the correct relationship between the given gyroscopic couple on the aeroplane will be .
statements of Assertion (A) and Reason (R). (a) to raise the nose and dip the tail
Assertion (A) : A dynamically system of multiple (b) to dip the nose and raise the tail
rotors on a shaft can rotate smoothly at the critical (c) to raise the nose and tail
speeds of the system. (d) to dip the nose and tail
Reason (R) : Dynamic balancing eliminates all (KPSC AE 2015)
the unbalanced forces and couples from the
system. Ans : (a) The engine of an aeroplane in clockwise
direction when seen from the tail end and the aeroplane
Code :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is the correct takes turn to left. The effect of gyroscopic couple on the
explanation of (A). aeroplane will be to raise the nose and dip the tail.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (b) : Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
543. In locomotives, the ratio of length of connecting 547. The axis of spin, the axis of precession and the
rod to crank radius is kept very large in order axis of gyroscopic torque are in:
to (a) Two parallel planes
(a) facilitate quick starting (b) Two perpendicular planes
(b) minimise primary forces (c) Three perpendicular planes
(c) minimise the effect of secondary forces (d) Three parallel planes
(d) achieve perfect balancing OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I Ans : (c) The axis of spin, the axis of precession and the
Ans. (c) : Minimise the effect of secondary forces axis at gyroscopic torque are in three perpendicular
544. In case of partial balancing of single cylinder planer.
reciprocating engine, what is the primary 548. The gyroscopic acceleration depends upon :
disturbing force along the line of stroke ? (a) Instantaneous value of axis ω
(a) cmrω2 cosθ (b) (1–c2) mrω2 cosθ (b) The rate at which the axis of spin changes its
2
(c) (1–c) mrω cosθ (d) (1–c2) mrω2 cos2θ speed
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I (c) Both (a) and (b)
Ans : (c) : Partial balancing of reciprocating engine (d) None of these
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
Ans : (c) The gyroscopic acceleration depends upon
(i) Instantaneous value of ω .
(ii) The rate at which the axis of spin changes its speed.
549. The effect of gyroscopic couple on rolling of
ships is
(a) Very high (b) Very low
∴ Primary disturbing force along the line of stroke, (c) No effect (d) Moderate
= mrω2 cosθ – cmrω2 cosθ MPPSC AE 2016
= (1–c) mrω2 cosθ Ans : (c) No effect of gyroscopic couple on rolling of
545. A mass m1 attached to a shaft at radius r1 ships.
rotating with angular velocity ω rad/s, can be Gyroscopic Effect on Rolling:- As the axes of the
balanced by another single mass m2 which is rolling of the ship and of the rotor are parallel, there is
attached to the opposite side of the shaft at no precession of the axis of spin and thus there is no
radius r2 in the same plane, if gyroscopic effect. In the same way, the effects on
(a) m1r2 = m2r1 (b) m1r1 = m2r2 steering,, pitching or rolling can be observed when the
(c) m1r1ω1 = m2r2 ω2 (d) m1r2ω2 = m2r1ω2 plane of the spin of the rotating masses is horizontal but
ESE 2020 along the longitudinal axis of the vessel; or when the
Ans. (b) : m1r1 = m2r2 axis is vertical.
644
550. A disc with mass moment of inertia (I) and an 554. The propeller of an aeroplane is rotating in the
angular velocity ω rad/s is spinning about the clockwise direction when viewed from the rear
axis of spin. The angular velocity of precession end. If the plane takes left turn, then the
of the axis of spin is (ωp), the causing precession gyroscopic effect cause the:
will be given by : (a) nose of the plane to depress and tail of the
(
(a) Iω ωp
2
) (
(b) Iωωp ) plane to raise
(b) nose of the plane to raise and tail of the plane
1  1  to depress
(c)  Iω2 ωP  (d)  ωωp  (c) no effect on the nose and tail of the plane
2  2 
(d) plane to take right turn
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
(e) speed of the plane will be doubled
Ans. (b) : Mass moment of inertial = I
CGPSC AE 2014- I
Angular velocity = ω rad/s
Ans. (b) : The propeller of an aeroplene is rotating in the
Angular velocity of precession = ωp
clockwise direction when viewed from the rear end. If the
Angular acceleration (α) = ωωp
plane takes left turn, then the gyroscopic effect causes the
Precession Torque = IωωP nose of the plane to raise and tail of the plane to depress.
551. If the axes of the rolling of the ship and of the
555. An aeroplane moving with a velocity of 300
stabilizing rotor are parallel, it will result in
(a) A higher bow and lower stern Kmph negotiates a turn along a circular path
(b) A lower bow and higher stern of radius 600 m. If the angular velocity of the
(c) Turning towards left rotating parts of the plane is 120 rad/s and the
(d) No gyroscopic effect moment of inertia of the rotating parts is 60
ESE 2020 kg.m2, the gyroscopic couple is
Ans. (d) : No gyroscopic effect. (a) 500 Nm (b) 1000 Nm
(c) 3000 Nm (d) 5000 Nm
552. The rotor of a ship with moment of inertia 200 UPSC JWM 2017
2
kgm and rotational speed of 200 rad/s. What
will be the gyroscopic couple when ship turns Ans. (b) : Aeroplene velocity V = 300 Kmph =
to left at radius of 100 m with speed 5 m/s? 5
300 × m / s
(a) 20 Nm (b) 2000 Nm 18
(c) 200 Nm (d) 2 Nm Radius of turn taken, R = 600 rpm
UPRVUNL AE 2016 Angular velocity, ω = 120 rad/s
Ans. (b) : Data given, Moment of inertia, I = 60 kg-m2
moment of Inertia (I) = 200 kgm2 Gyroscopic couple, G = I ω ω p
Rotational speed ω = 200 rad/s V
V 5 = Iω
ωp = = R
R 100 300 5
We know that Gyroscopic couple = 60 × 120 × ×
600 18
C = I ω ωp G = 1000 Nm
5 556. The engine of aeroplane rotates in clockwise
C = 200 × 200 ×
100 direction when seen from the tail end and the
C = 2000 N-m aeroplane takes a turn to the left. The effect of
553. When the pitching motion causes the bow to the gyroscopic couple on the aeroplane will be
(a) to arise the nose and dip the tail
rise, the rotor rotating in clockwise sense as
(b) to dip the nose and raise the tail
seen from stern) the gyroscopic effect tends to (c) to raise the nose and tail
(a) turn the ship towards port side
(d) to dip the nose and tail
(b) turn the ship towards star-board side
(c) depress the stern TNPSC AE 2019, 2018, 2013
(d) raise the stern Ans. (a) : The engine of an aeroplane rotates in
TNPSC AE 2014 clockwise direction when seen from the tail end and the
Ans. (b) : When the pitching motion causes the bow to aeroplane takes a turn to the left. The effect of
rise, the rotor rotating in clockwise sense as seen from gyroscopic couple on the aeroplane will be to raise the
stern) the gyroscopic effect tends to turn the ship nose and dip the tail.
towards star-board side.

645
 559. The active gyroscopic torque in gyroscope
about a horizontal axis represents
(a) the torque required to cause the axis of spin to
process in the vertical plane
(b) the torque required to cause the axis of spin to
process in the horizontal plane
(c) the force required to cause the axis of spin to
process in the horizontal plane
(d) the force required to cause the axis of spin to
process in the vertical plane
ESE 2019
Ans. (b) :

O - X → axis of rotation
Oµ → axis of precession
O - Z → axis of gyroscope couple. y − axis (axis of precession)
Then, we can say that effect of reactive x − axis (axis of spin)
gyroscope couple [R.G.C.] on aeroplane will be, to raise CG − active gyroscopic couple (horizontal)
the nose and dip the tail. xZ plane−Plane of precession (horizontal plane)
557. The rotor of ship rotates in clockwise direction 560. Consider the following statements:
when viewed from the stern and the ship takes 1. Gyroscopic effects generate forces and
a left turn. The effect of the gyroscopic couple couples which act on the vehicles, and these
acting on it will be effects must be taken into account while
(a) to raise the bow and stern designing their bearings.
(b) to lower the bow and sten 2. Rolling motion of a ship usually occurs
(c) to raise the bow and lower the stern because of the difference in buoyancy on the
(d) to raise the stern and lower the bow two sides of the ship due to a wave.
TSPSC AEE 2015 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
TNPSC AE 2013 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c) :
ESE 2018
Ans. (c) Gyroscopic effect arises when there is precession
of rotating rotor. Gyroscopic couple is generated which
changes the bearing reactions. Hence gyroscopic effects to
be considered while designing bearing.
561. An aircraft cruising at 360 kmph takes a right
turn on an arc of 100 m radius. The turbines
and propellers have a total mass of 500 kg with
radius of gyration of 25 cm. The engine rotates
at 2000 r.p.m. The magnitude of the gyroscopic
couple generated is
(a) 6.55 kN m (b) 7.65 kN m
(c) 9.81 kN m (d) 13.1 kN m
ESE 2017
Ans. (a) : Given,
v = 360 kmph = 100 m/s
r = 100 m
558. If the air screw of an aeroplane rotates m = 500 kg
clockwise when viewed from the rear and the k = 25 cm = 0.25 m
aeroplane takes a right turn, the gyroscopic N = 2000 rpm
effect will We know that I = mk2 = 500 × (0.25)2 = 31.25 kg m2
(a) Tend to raise the tail and depress the nose 2πN 2π × 2000
ω= = = 209.44 r/s
(b) Tend to raise the nose and depress the tail 60 60
(c) Tilt the aero lane about spin axis v 100
(d) None of above ωp = = = 1 rad/s
r 100
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 Gyroscopic couple (c) = Iωωp = 31.25 × 209.44 × 1
Ans. (a) : Tend to raise the tail and depress the nose. = 6545 N-m = 6.54 kNm
646
 11. Vibrations =
30000
= 24.49 rad/sec
50
562. Longitudinal vibrations are said to occur when
the particles of a body moves– ωd
= 1 − ξ2
(a) perpendicular to its axis ωn
(b) Parallel to its axis
ωd = 1 − ( 0.20 ) × 24.49
2
(c) In a circle about its axis
(d) None of these = 24.48 rad/sec
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
≈ 24 rad / sec
Ans. (b) : When the particles of the shaft or disc
moves parallel to the axis of the shaft, these vibration 566. A refrigerator unit having a mass of 35 kg is to
are known as longitudinal vibration and if it moves be supported on three springs, each having
perpendicular to the axis of shaft, then the vibration spring stiffness s. The unit operates at 480 rpm.
can be known as transverse vibrations. If only 10% of the shaking force is allowed to
563. Which of the following parameters has higher transmit to the supporting structure, the value
value during whirling of a shaft? of stiffness will be nearly
(a) Speed (b) Acceleration (a) 2.7 N/mm (b) 3.2 N/mm
(c) Frequency (d) Amplitude (c) 3.7 N/mm (d) 4.2 N/mm
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI ESE 2020
Ans : (d) : The speed at which the shafts runs so that Ans. (a) : m= 35 kg, N= 480 rpm
the additional deflection of the shaft from the axis of Stiffness = k
rotation becomes infinite is known as critical or
whirling speed. It is equal to the natural frequency of 2πN
ω=
transverse vibrations but it's unit will be revolutions per 60
second (r.p.s.) 2π × 480
564. A shaft of span 1 m and diameter 25 mm is = = 50.27 rad / s
60
simply supported at the ends. It carriers a 1.5
kN concentrated load at mid-span. If E is 200 Transmissibility, ∈T = 0.10
GPa, its fundamental frequency will be nearly 1
=
± (1 − r 2 )
(a) 3.5 Hz (b) 4.2 Hz
(c) 4.8 Hz (d) 5.5 Hz
ESE 2020 {When ξ = 0 }
ω Consider negative sign
Ans. (d) : Frequency (f)= n 10 =-1+r2
2π
r2 =11
1 g
δ= r = 11
2π δ
ω
1 g  wℓ3  = 3.317
= , δ = for SSB ωn
2π wℓ3  48EI 
50.27
48EI ωn =
3.317
1 9810 × 48 × 200 × 103 × π× 254
= k eq
2π 1.5 × 103 × 10003 × 64 = 15.16
f = 5.5 Hz m
565. A vibrating system consists of mass of 50 kg, a keq=15.162×35 = 8043.89 N/m
spring with a stiffness of 30 kN/m and a k eq
k= = 2.68 × 103 N / m
damper. If damping is 20% of the critical 3
value, the natural frequency of damped k = 2.7 N/mm
vibrations will be 567. For a vibrating system the successive
(a) 16 rad/s (b) 20 rad/s
amplitudes of vibration obtained under free
(c) 24 rad/s (d) 28 rad/s
effects are 0.70, 0.28, 0.25, 0.23 and 0.067
ESE 2020
respectively. The value of damping ratio of the
Ans. (c) : Given, m = 50 kg system is given by :
K = 30 kN/m = 30000 N/m (a) 9.28 (b) 0.0928
ξ = 0.20 (c) 0.00928 (d) 0.928
K BHEL ET 2019
ωn =
m Ans. (b) :
647
568. What is the natural frequency of a cylinder 571. A rotor is said to be rigid if
having mass 7 kg and radius 22 cm that is (a) it rotates at rotational speed below 4% of
connected to a spring of stiffness 6 kN/m at the critical speed
centre of the cylinder and rolls on a rough (b) It rotates at rotational speed below 70% of
surface? critical speed
(a) 2.4 Hz (b) 4.8 Hz (c) It rotates at rotational speed below 60% of
(c) 6.4 Hz (d) 3.8 Hz critical speed
BHEL ET 2019 (d) It rotates at rotational speed below 20% of
Ans. (c) : Given - M = 7kg critical speed
R = 22 cm Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
k = 6 kN/m Ans. (b) : As, a general rule, rotors that operates below
70% of their critical speed are considered rigid and,
when balanced at on speed will be balanced at any other
normal operating speed below 70% of its critical speed.
572. In forced vibrations the magnitude of damping
force at resonance equals
Iɺɺ
θ + k R 2θ = 0 (a) Inertia force (b) Impressed force
1 
2 ɺɺ (c) Zero (d) Spring force
 MR + MR  θ + kR θ = 0
2 2
SJVN ET 2013
2 
Ans. (b) : In force vibrations the magnitude of damping
3
MR 2 ɺɺ
θ + kR 2 θ = 0 force at resonance equals impressed force.
2 573. Critical damping is a function of:
ɺɺ k (a) Mass and stiffness
θ+ θ=0
3M (b) Mass and Damping Coefficient
2 (c) Stiffness and Natural Frequency
2k (d) Natural Frequency and Damping Coefficient
ωn = = 23.9045 SJVN ET 2013
3M
In 'Hz' value Ans. (a) : Critical damping C c = 2 km
ω n 23.9045 Where, k = Stiffness
fn = = m = mass
2π 2π
= 3.8045 Hz 574. In a damped vibration system, the damping
569. Which of the following is the correct expression force is proportional to
for natural frequency of free longitudinal (a) Displacement (b) Velocity
vibration (c) Acceleration (d) Vibrations
1 m 1 s SJVN ET 2013
(a) f m = (b) f m = Ans. (b) : In a damped vibration system, the damping
2π s 2π m
force is proportional to velocity. In the viscous damping
1 m 1 s the damping force is always proportional to velocity
(c) f m = (d) f m =
π s π m only on acts against motion.
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper dx
Ans. (b) : The natural frequency of free longitudinal ∴ viscous force = c
dt
and transverse vibrations is given by; 575. In an underdamped vibration system,
1 s 1 g logarithmic decrement is given by:
fm = = Hz.
2π m 2π δ 2πξ 2πξ2
m = mass of the body (a) δ = (b) δ =
s = Sfiffnes of the body 1 − ξ2 1− ξ
δ = Static deflection of the body 2πξ 2πξ2
570. In shafts critical speed is the speed in which (c) δ = (d) δ =
(a) Shafts tends to vibrate violently in 1 + ξ2 1+ ξ
longitudinal direction TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
(b) Shafts tends to vibrate violently in transverse Ans. (a) : In an underdamped vibration system,
direction
logarithmic decrement is
(c) Shafts tends to have to and fro motion
(d) Shafts rotates on its own axis  x 
δ = ℓn  i 
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper  x i+1 
Ans. (b) : The speed at which the shaft start to vibrate 2πξ
violently in the direction perpendicular to the axis of the δ = ξωn .Td =
shafts is known as critical speed. 1 − ξ2
648
576. The ratio of the amplitude of the steady - state 580. In forced vibration, the magnitude of the
response to the static deflection under the damping force at resonance equals to
action of a force is known as: (a) Inertia force (b) Impressed force
(a) Damping factor (c) Infinity (d) Spring force
(b) Magnification factor (e) Zero
(c) Frequency ratio CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
(d) Damping co-efficient Ans. (c) :
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
581. The natural frequency of the spring mass
A system on earth is ωn. The natural frequency of
Ans. (b) : M.F. =
( Fo / s ) the system on the moon (gmoon = gearth/6) is
1 (a) ωn (b) 0.408 ωn
=
2
(c) 0.204 ωn (d) 0.167 ωn
  ω 2   ω 
2
(e) ωn2
1 −    +  2ξ 
  ωn    ωn  CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Where A is the amplitude of the steady – state Ans. (a) : Natural frequency of a spring mass system
F  k
response and  o  is the static deflection. ωn =
 s  m
577. Rotating shaft's tend to vibrate violently in This equation does not depend on the g, so natural
____ at critical speeds. frequency of a spring mass system is unchanged on the
(a) Longitudinal direction moon.
(b) Transverse direction 582. Damping force per unit velocity is known as
(c) Torsional direction (a) Damping factor
(d) None of the above (b) Damping coefficient
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 (c) Logarithmic decrement
Ans. (b) : Rotating shaft's tend to vibrate violently in (d) Stiffness of the spring
transverse direction. RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
578. Damping is beneficial only when : Ans. (b) : Damping force (FD)
ω ω = Damping coefficient (C) × Velocity ( xɺ )
(a) =1 (b) <1
ωn ωn = C × xɺ
ω ω FD = C × xɺ
(c) < 2 (d) > 2b
ωn ωn F
C= D
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 xɺ
Ans. (c) : Damping is beneficial upto a ratio of 583. The system in which the amplitude of vibration
ω decreases with time and ratio of amplitude of
< 2 , (∈ will ↑, ∈ > 1) successive oscillate being constant is known as:
ωn
(a) Critically damped system
whereas no need of damping less damping. If ratio of (b) Underdamped system
ω (c) Undamped system
> 2 , (∈ will ↓, ∈ < 1)
ωn (d) Overdamped system
Note : No damping is best (∈ = 0) UPRVUNL AE 2016
579. In underdamped vibration system, the amplitude Ans. (b) : The system in which the amplitude of
of the vibration with reference to time is vibration decreases with time and ratio of amplitude of
(a) Remains constant successive oscillate being constant is known as
(b) Increase exponentially Underdamped system.
(c) Decrease exponentially In Underdamped system with each overshoot, some
(d) Increase linearly energy in the system is dissipated, and the oscillations
(e) Decrease linearly die towards zero.
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift 584. The ratio of two consecutive amplitudes of an
Ans. (c) : underdamped vibrating system is given by:
(where δ = logarithmic decrement):
(a) e4δ (b) e3δ
δ
(c) e (d) e2δ
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (c) : The ratio of two consecutive amplitude of an
underdamped vibrating system.
The amplitude decreases exponentially with time, as xi
= eδ
shown in figure. xi +1
649
  x  x0 
n
x0 
ln  i  = δ
  = 
 xi +1   x1  xn 
 x  2πξ 1
ln  i  = δ = x0   x0  n
 xi +1  1− ξ 2  = 
where  x1   x n 
δ = logarithmic decrement 589. Though vibration cannot be eliminated
585. A shaft two rotors at it's ends will have completely, it can be suppressed to a greater
(a) three nodes (b) two nodes extent using :
(c) one node (d) zero node (a) Damper (b) Accumulator
TNPSC AE 2014 (c) Receiver (d) Reducer
Ans. (c) : Number of Node (N) CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
= (n – 1) Ans. (a) : The process of diminishing the vibration is
where n → number of rotor. called damping. The equipment used for this purpose is
If n = 2 called damper.
then N = (2 – 1) = 1
590. Natural frequency (ωn) of a passenger car
N = 1 (Node)
whose weight is w Newton and whose
586. Natural frequency of a system is due to suspension has a combined stiffness of k N/mm
(a) free vibration (b) forced vibrations is given by:
(c) resonance (d) damping
TNPSC AE 2014 1
(a) ωn = (b) ωn = km
Ans. (a) : Natural frequency of a system is due to free km
vibration. k km
(c) ωn = (d) ωn =
587. When a four wheeler moving forward at a m 2
speed above critical takes a turn to the right CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
the wheel(s) that tends to leave the ground is
(a) outer front wheel k
Ans. (c) : Natural frequency ωn =
(b) outer rear wheel m
(c) both the inner wheels Where k is the combined stiffness and m is the mass.
(d) both the outer wheels 591. A shaft with torsional stiffness (q) has a disc of
TNPSC AE 2014 mass moment of inertia (I) attached at the end,
Ans. (c) : When a four wheeler moving forward at a then the natural frequency (fn) of free torsional
speed above critical takes a turn to the right the wheel(s) vibration of the shaft is given by:
that tends to leave the ground is both the inner wheels. 1
588. If Xn = Amplitude at the end of nth oscillation; (a) f n = 2π qI (b) f n = qI
2π
X0 = Amplitude at the start of oscillation. Then
for underdamped system, which of the 1 q q
(c) f n = (d) f n = 2π
following relation is correct? [n = Number of 2π I I
oscillations] CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
n Ans. (c) : Mass moment at Inertia = I
X0  X0  X0 X0
(a) =  (b) = Torsional stiffness = q
X1  X n  X1 X n
1 q
1 1 Frequency of torsional vibration f n =
X0  X0  n X0  X0  n 2π I
(c) =  (d) = 
X1  X n  X1  X n  592. A shaft of length 0.75 m, supported freely at its
n −1
ends, is carrying a mass 90 kg at 0.25 m. from
X0  X0  one end. Find the fundamental frequency of
(e) = 
X1  X n  transverse vibration. Take E = 200 GPa shaft
dia 0.05 m
CGPSC AE 2014- I
(a) 84.95 Hz (b) 84.85 Hz
Ans. (c) : We know that, for underdamked system,
(c) 48.95 Hz (d) 49.85 Hz
x 0 x1 x 2 x 3 x
= = = = ........ = n −1 TNPSC AE 2018
x1 x 2 x 3 x 4 xn Ans. (d) : Data given-
n m = 90 kg E = 200 GPa
x 0 x1 x 2 x 3 x n −1  x 0 
then × × × × .............. =  d = 0.05 m L = 0.75 m
x1 x 2 x 3 x 4 xn  x1  F = mg
650
 Ans. (a) : In viscous damping, the damping force (F) is
proportional to the velocity ( xɺ ) of vibrating body
F ∝ xɺ
F = Cxɺ
( m × g ) .a 2 b 2 Where C is called the viscous damping
δ=
3.E.I.L coefficient.
90 × 9.81 × ( 0.25) × ( 0.5)
2 2 596. The ratio of damping constant to the critical
δ= damping constant is called is
9  π 
3 × 200 × 10 ×   × ( 0.05 ) × 0.75
4 (a) Logarithmic decrement
 64  (b) Damping ratio
δ = 9.9974 × 10 −5 m (c) Magnification factor
Then, (d) Transmissibility ratio
TNPSC AE 2017
1 g
f= Ans. (b) : The ratio of damping constant to the critical
2π δ damping constant is called is Damping ratio.
1 9.81 We know that
f=
2π 9.9974 × 10 −5 C
2ξωn = ...(1)
f = 49.88 Hz m
For critical damping
593. Whirling speed of a shaft coincides with the ξ =1
natural frequency of its Then we get
(a) Longitudinal vibration
C
(b) Transverse vibration 2 × 1× ωn = c ...(2)
(c) Torsional vibration m
(d) Coupled bending torsional vibration (1) ÷ (2)
TNPSC AE 2017 C
ξ=
Ans. (b) : Whirling speed of a shaft coincides with the Cc
natural frequency of its transverse vibration.
e 597. A 0.5 kg weight attached to a light spring
A= 2 elongates by 0.981 mm. The natural frequency
 ωn  of the system should be
  − 1
ω  (a) 6 Hz (b) 16 Hz
594. A mass M is attached to a spring whose upper (c) 26 Hz (d) 32 Hz
end is fixed. The mass and stiffness of the APPSC AEE 2016
spring are m and K resp. The natural Ans. (b) : Data given,
frequency of the system would be m = 0.5 kg, δ = 0.981 mm
We know that-
1 K 1 2K 1 k 1 g
(a) (b) fn = =
2π M + m 2π M + m 2π m 2π δ
1 3K 1 2K 1 9.81
(c) (d) fn =
2π m + 3M 2π m + 2M 2π 0.981 × 10−3
TNPSC AE 2018 f n = 15.92 ≃ 16 Hz
1 K 598. A vibrating system with unity as damping
Ans. (c) : f n =
2π  m factor will be
M +  (a) critically damped
 3
(b) damped to safe limits
1  3K  (c) partly damped
fn =  
2π  3M + m  (d) free from vibrations
595. In viscous damping, the damping force APPSC AEE 2016
is_________is velocity of vibrating body. Ans. (a) : A vibrating system with unity (ξ=1) as
(a) Proportional to damping factor will be critically damped.
(b) Inversely proportional to 599. In under damped vibrating system, if x1 and x2
(c) Square of are the successive values of the amplitude on
(d) Cube of the same side of the mean position, then the
TNPSC AE 2017 logarithmic decrement is equal to
651
 x1 x  604. Seismic vibrations are measured with
(a) (b) log  1  (a) Richter scale (b) Vibrometers
x2  x2  (c) Accelerometers (d) Gyroscope
x  TSPSC AEE 2015
(c) log e  2  (d) log(x1 .x 2 ) Ans.(a) Seismic vibrations are measured with Richter scale.
 x1  605. In the spring mass system, if the mass of the
APPSC AEE 2016 system is double with spring stiffness halved,
Ans. (b) : The logarithmic decrement the natural frequency of vibration is
xi x1 (a) remains unchanged (b) doubled
δ = log = log
x i +1 x2 (c) halved (d) quadrupled
TSPSC AEE 2015
x  2πξ Ans. (c) : We know that,
δ =ln  1  = ξωn Td =
 x2  1−ξ 2 1 k
600. A shaft carrying two rotors as its ends will have ( f n )1 =
2π m
(a) no node (b) one node if mass is double and sprint stiffness halved then
(c) two node (d) three node
TSPSC AEE 2015 k
1  2  1 k
Ans. (b) : [ fn ]2 = 2π 2m =
2 π 4m
601. In vibration isolation system, if ω/ ωo is less than
1
2, then for all values of the damping factor, ( f n )2 = ( fn )1
the transmissibility will be where ω-circular 2
frequency of excitation in rad/s and ωn = 606. For a forced damped vibrating system, the
Natural circular frequency, rad/s vibration isolation is possible only when the
(a) less than unity (b) equal to unity ratio of circular frequency ' ω' and natural
(c) greater than unity (d) zero frequency ωn is
TSPSC AEE 2015 ω ω
Ans. (c) : greater than unity. (a) =1 (b) <1
ωn ωn
ω
< 2, ∈> 1 ω ω
ωn (c) < 2 (d) > 2
ωωn ωn
602. When ω/ ωn = 1, transmissibility is TNPSC 2019
where ω = frequency of excitation, rad/s TSPSC AEE 2015
ωn = Natural frequency rad/s Ans. (d) : For a forced damped vibrating system, the
(a) ∝ (b) 0 vibration isolation is possible only when the ratio of
(c) 1 (d) 2 circular frequency ' ω ' and natural frequency ωn is
TSPSC AEE 2015 ω
Ans. (a) : > 2.
ω n

607. In underdamped vibrating system the

amplitude of vibration with reference to time
(a) increases linearly
(b) increases exponentially
(c) decreases linearly
(d) decreases exponentially
TNPSC 2019
Ans. (d) : In underdamped vibrating system the
amplitude of vibration with reference to time decreases
exponentially.
Amplitude ( x ) = X.e −ξ.ω d .t

603. The amplitude ratio of two successive

oscillations of a damped vibratory system is
(a) more than one (b) less than one
(c) equal to one (d) variable
608. A critical speed
TSPSC AEE 2015
(a) the shaft runs smoothly
Ans. (a) : The amplitude ratio of two successive (b) the shaft runs with noise due to vibration
oscillations of a damped vibratory system is more than (c) the shaft becomes dynamically unstable with
one. negligible lateral amplitudes
652
 (d) the shaft becomes dynamically unstable with 0.04987 4.987
large lateral amplitudes (c) Hz (d) Hz
δ δ
RPSC 2016
RPSC 2016
Ans : (c) The shaft becomes dynamically unstable with
Ans : (d) Natural frequency of transverse vibration of
negligible lateral amplitudes.
shaft carrying a load at the centre of span is,
The critical speed essentially depends on critical or
4.987
whirling or speed is the speed at which the shaft tends ωn =
to vibrate violently in transverse direction. δ
! The eccentricity of the C.G. of the rotating masses 612. In a spring mass system, the mass is m and the
from the axis of rotation of the shaft. spring constant is k. The critical damping
! Diameter of the disc. coefficient of system is 0.1 kg/sec, in another
! Span (length) of the shaft. spring mass system, the mass is 2m and the
spring constant is 8k. the critical damping
! Type of supports connections at its ends.
coefficient (in kg/sec) of this system is–
e (a) 4 x 0.1 (b) 4.5 x 0.1
y=
ω
 n
2
(c) 3.8 x 0.1 (d) 5.2 x 0.1
 ω  −1 RPSC 2016
 
Ans : (a)
At critical speed, Case – 1
k g Mass of the system (m) = m
ω = ωn = = spring constant = k
m δ
critical damping coefficient CC1 = 0.1 kg/s
ω = Angular velocity of shaft
k = Stiffness of shaft Case – 2
e = initial eccentricity of centre of mass of rotor Mass of the system (m) = 2m
m = mass of rotor spring constant = 8 k
y = additional of rotor due to centrifugal force. Critical damping coefficient CC2 = 2 km
609. The torsional vibrational frequency of a shaft The ratio of critical damping coefficient
with n oscillating masses will be– of two system is,
(a) n (b) n–1 CC2 2 8k × 2m
(c) n+1 (d) 2n =
RPSC 2016 CC1 2 km
Ans : (b) Torsional vibrational frequency of a shaft C C2 2 8k × 2m
with n oscillating masses will be (n – 1). = = 0.4 kg / s
CC1 2 km
610. A mass of 1 kg attached to a light spring
extends it by 0.981 mm. the natural frequency CC2 = 0.4 kg / s
of vibration will be approximately–
613. A single degree freedom of spring mass is
(a) 26 Hz (b) 21 Hz
subjected to a sinusoidal force of 10 N
(c) 16 Hz (d) 11 Hz
RPSC 2016 amplitude and frequency ω along the axis of
the spring. The stiffness of the spring is 150
Ans : (c)
N/m, damping factor is 0.2 and undamped
g natural frequency is low. At steady state, the
ωn = ⇒ ωn = 2πf
δ amplitude of vibration (in m) is
1 g approximately–
f = , (a) 0.05 (b) 0.07
2π δ
(c) 0.70 (d) 0.90
1 9.81 −4 RPSC 2016
f = ( δ = 0.981mm = 9.81× 10 m )
2π 9.81 × 10 −4 Ans : (c)
= 15.91Hz Sinusoidal force (F) = 10 N
Stiffness of Spring (k) = 150 N/m
f ≈ 16 Hz
Damping factor (ξ) = 0.2
611. Natural frequency of transverse vibration of Let us consider,
shaft carrying a load at the centre of span is– Undamped Natural frequency (ωn) = 10ω
0.4987 49.87 ω ω
(a) Hz (b) Hz ⇒ = = 0.1
δ δ ωn 10ωn
653
 F 1 73.824 × 60
  N= × ωc × 60 =
k 2π 2π
Amplitude, A = N = 704.967 rpm
2
  ω 2   ω
2
N = 705rpm
1 −    +  2ξ 
ω ωn 
  n    618. A vehicle suspension system consists of a spring
and a damper. The stiffness of the springs is 3.6
10
kN
A= 150 and the damping constant of the damper is
m
[1 − (0.1) ] + [2 × 0.2 × 0.1]
2 2 2
Ns
A = 0.0673m 400 . If the mass is 50 kg, then the damping
m
≈ 0.07 m factor and damped natural frequency
614. Under logarithmic decrement, the amplitude of respectively are :
successive vibrations are (a) 0.471 and 1.19 Hz (b) 0.471 and 7.48 Hz
(a) constant (c) 0.666 and 1.35 Hz (d) 0.666 and 8.50 Hz
(b) in arithmetic progression OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
(c) in geometric progression UPRVUNL AE 2014
(d) in logarithmic progression Ans. (a) :
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 C = 400 Ns/m
Ans. (c) : Under logarithmic decrement, the amplitude m = 50 kg
of successive vibrations are in geometric progression Damping factor (ξ),
 x  C C 400
Logarithmic decrement, δ = ln  n  ξ= = =
2m ω 2 km 2 3.6 × 103 × 50
 x n +1  n

ξ = 0.471
δ  xn 
e =  Damped frequency,
 x n +1 
615. The critical speed of a shaft is affected by the
(a) Diameter and the eccentricity of the shaft
( )
ωd = 1 − ξ 2 ωn = 1 − ( 0.471) ×
2

m
k

(b) Span and the eccentricity of the shaft = 7.485 rad/s

(c) Diameter and the span of the shaft ω 7.485
fd = d =
(d) Span of the shaft 2π 2π
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 f = 1.19 Hz
d
Ans. (c) : The critical speed of a shaft is affected by the
Diameter and the span of the shaft 619. In steady-state forced vibrations, the amplitude
depends on diameter and span of shaft of vibrations at resonance is _____ damping
616. In under-damped vibration system, the coefficient.
amplitude of vibration (a) equal to
(a) decreases linearly with time (b) directly proportional to
(b) increases linearly with time (c) inversely proportional
(c) decreases exponentially with time (d) independent of
(d) increases exponentially with time JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 Ans : (c) :
Ans. (c) : Decreases exponentially with time. Fo
617. The rotor shaft of a large electric motor k
Amplitude ( A) =
supported between short bearings at both the  2 2
2

ends shows a deflection of 1.8 mm in the middle 1 −  ω   +  2ξ ω  
of the rotor. Assuming the rotor to be perfectly   ωn    ωn  
balanced and supported at knife edges at both   
the ends, the likely critical speed of the shaft is: At resonance ω = ω n
(a) 350 rpm (b) 705 rpm c
Where ξ =
(c) 2810 rpm (d) 4430 rpm cc
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 Damping coefficient (C)
Ans. (b) : Given, =
Critically damping coeficient (Cc )
Deflection in shaft δ = 1.8 mm = 1.8 × 10–3 m
Critical speed of shaft, 620. When a system is subjected to force vibrations,
then under steady-state conditions
g 9.81 (a) it vibrates at its natural frequency
ωc = ωn = = = 73.824 rad/s
δ 1.8 × 10−3 (b) it vibrates at the imposed frequency
654
 (c) it vibrates at the mean of natural and imposed 625. A system has viscous damped output. There is
frequencies no steady-state lag if input is :
(d) None of the above (a) Unit step displacement
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI (b) Step velocity
Ans : (b) : It vibrates at the imposed frequency. (c) Harmonic
621. Which of the following is not a spring- (d) Step velocity with error-rate damping
controlled governor? OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
(a) Hartnell governor (b) Hartung governor Ans : (d) : Step velocity input with error rate damping
(c) Pickering governor (d) Porter governor (derivate control) steady state error
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI cwi
θi = θ0 =
Ans : (d) : Porter governor is a dead weight governor. q
622. Calculate the critical speed of a light weight, There is no change in the steady state error by using a
vertically mounted shaft carrying a rotor of derivative control because it is same as found to be
mass 200 g at its mid-point. The stiffness of without using the derivative control.
shaft at the location of rotor is 72000 N/m. 626. At resonance, the amplitude of vibration is
(a) 360 rad/s (b) 19 rad/s (a) Very large (b) Small
(c) 360000 rad/s (d) 600 rad/s (c) Zero (d) Depend on frequency
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (d) : Given, Ans : (a) : At resonance, the amplitude of vibration is
m = 200 × 10–3kg very large.
k = 72000 N/m
627. Which one of the following relations with usual
k notations will hold good in a dynamic vibration
ωn =
m absorber system under tuned conditions?
72000 (a) k1k2 = m1m2 (b) k1m2 = m1k2
= (c) k1m1 = k2m2 (d) k1 + k2 = m1 + m2
200 × 10 −3 ESE 2019
= 360 × 103 Ans. (b) : For turning of dynamic vibration absorber,
= 600 rad/sec. k1 k2
623. The equation of free vibrations of a system is =
m1 m2
x + 36π 2 x = 0
ɺɺ
i.e. k1m2 = k2m1
(a) 6 Hz (b) 3 π Hz
628. The frequency of oscillation is the number of
(c) 3 Hz (d) 6 π Hz
cycles per unit time described by the particle,
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
given by the relation
Ans : (c) : The equation of free vibrations,
ω 1 ω
x + 36π 2 x = 0
ɺɺ (a) f = (b) =
2π f 2π
Note – The vibrations has no damping because velocity
2πr 2πNT
term in equation is missing. (c) f ′ = (d) f ′ =
∴ Natural angular speed T Tω
ESE 2019
ωn = 36π
2 2

Ans. (a) : f = linear frequency

ωn = 6π r ad / sec T = Time period of oscillation
∴ Natural frequency in Hz ω = angular frequency
ω 6π 2π
f = n = ω= = 2πf
2π 2π T
f = 3 Hz ω
f=
2π
624. What is the number of nodes in a shaft
carrying three rotors? 629. A vertical shaft of 100 mm diameter and 1 m
(a) Zero (b) 2 length has its upper end fixed at the top. The
(c) 3 (d) 4 other end carries a disc of 5000 N and the
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I modulus of elasticity of the shaft material is 2 ×
5 2
TNPSC AE 2018 10 N/mm . Neglecting of the longitudinal
vibrations will be nearly
Ans : (b) : Given as, n = no. of Rotor in shaft
(a) 279.5 Hz (b) 266.5 Hz
∴ For 3- rotor system (c) 253.5 Hz (d) 241.5 Hz
Nodes = 3–1 = 2 nodes ESE 2019
655
Ans. (a) : Given, (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
d = 100 mm = 0.1 m ESE 2018
L=1m Ans. (d) : The basic building block elements for a
mg = 5000 mechanical system where forces and straight line
5000 displacements are involved, are
m= = 509.68 kg (i) Spring (k) [F = kx]
9.81
E = 2 × 105 N/mm2  dx 
(ii) Dashpot (B)  F = B 
 dt 
 d2x 
(iii) Mass (m)  F = m 
 dt 2 
A translating mechanical system can be modelled as a
single degree of freedom by using simple spring-mass-
damper system. Mass moment of inertia does not affect
a translating (straight line displacement) system.
AE
Spring stiffness k = 633. Statement (I): Resonance is a special case of
L forced vibration in which the natural frequency of
∴ Natural frequency of longitudinal vibration the body is the same as the impressed frequency
1 k of the external periodic force whereby the
f= amplitude of the forced vibration peaks sharply.
2π m
Statement (II): The amplitude of forced vibration
1 AE of a body increases with increase in the frequency
=
2π mL of the externally impressed periodic force.
π 2 π ESE 2017
d ×E × 0.12 × 2 × 105 Ans. (c) : Resonance is a special case of forced
1 4 1 4
= = vibrations. When the frequency of an externally applied
2π mL 2π 509.68 × 1 periodic force on a body is equal to its natural
= 279.4 Hz frequency, the body starts vibrating with an increased
630. The accurate method of finding the natural amplitude.
frequency of transverse vibration of a system of The amplitude of forced vibrations increases when the
several loads attached to some shaft is frequency of the impressed force approaches the natural
(a) Dunkerley method frequency of the driven body.
(b) energy method 634. Two heavy rotors are mounted on a single
(c) Stodola method shaft. Considering each of the rotors
(d) Dunkerley and energy method separately, the transverse natural frequencies
ESE 2019 are 100 cycles/s and 200 cycles/s, respectively.
Ans. (b) : Dunkerley method and stodola methods are The lower critical speed will be
numerical methods but approximate energy method (a) 12000 r.p.m. (b) 9360 r.p.m
gives accurate frequency. (c) 8465 r.p.m (d) 5367 r.p.m.
631. The speed at which the shaft runs, so that the ESE 2017
deflection of the shaft from the axis of rotation Ans. (d) : Given,
becomes infinite, is known as f1 = 100 Hz
(a) whipping speed (b) damping speed f2 = 200 Hz
(c) resonant speed (d) gravitational speed Lower critical speed can be obtained by using
ESE 2019 Dunkerley's method
Ans. (a) : The speed at which the shaft runs so that the 1 1 1
additional deflection of the shaft from the axis of = +
f 2 f12 f 22
rotation becomes infinite, is known as critical or
Whirling or Whipping speed. 1 1
= +
632. Which of the following are the basic building 1002 200 2
block elements for a mechanical system where f = 89.44
forces and straight line displacements are Lower critical speed in rpm = 60 f
involved without any rotation? = 60 × 89.44
1. Spring = 5366.6 rpm
2. Dashpot 635. Consider the following statements:
3. Mass Artefacts to prevent harmful effects resulting from
4. Moment of inertia vibrations of an unbalanced machine fixed on its
Select the correct answer using the code given foundation include.
below. 1. mounting the machine on springs thereby
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 minimizing the transmission of forces
656
 2. using vibration isolating materials to prevent or Ans. (d) : Total mass (m) = 1450 + 150
reduce the transmission of forces = 1600 kg
3. moving the foundation so as to have only one Total force constant (k) = 4 × 40000
degree of freedom towards reducing the = 160000 N/m
transmission of forces.
Which of the above statements are correct? m
T = 2π
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only k
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1600
ESE 2017 = 2π
160000
Ans. (d) : = 0.628 sec
Time for two complete oscillation = 2T
= 2 × 0.628
= 1.26 sec
638. The ratio of actual damping coefficient to the
critical damping coefficient is called as
(a) Magnification factor
(b) Damping factor
(c) Critical damping ratio
(d) Logarithmic decrement
Spring and damper are used between machine and (KPSC AE 2015)
ground/foundation. Appropriate choice of spring and Ans : (b) Damping factor (Df) =
damper characteristics will enable the displacement Actualdamping coefficient ( c )
transmissibility/amplification factor to be below one.
2
Critical damping coefficient ( Cc )
 mr  q
A =  if ξ = 0
 M  (1 − q 2 ) ( c / 2m )2 c
Df = =
w s/m 2 s m.
q=
wn cc = 2 s m
As k ↑→ wn ↑, q↓, A↓ Df = 1 critical damping
636. A simple spring-mass vibrating system has a Df > 1 over damping
natural frequency of N. If the spring stiffness is Df < 1 Under damping
halved and the mass doubled, then the natural 639.
frequency will be
(a) 0.5N (b) N
(c) 2N (d) 4N
ESE 2017
Ans. (a) : Given,
k Which one of the following is the correct value
k1 = k k2 =
2 of the natural frequency (ωn) of the system
m1 = m m2 = 2m given above ?
k 1
Natural frequency (wn) =  1 2
m (a) 
  
k1 k  1 + 1 m 
(wn)1 = = =N   k1 + k 2 k 3  
m1 m 1
 3k  2
k2 k/2 1 k (b)  
(wn)2 = = = = 0.5 N m
m 2 2m 2 m 1

637. A car of mass 1450 Kg is constructed on a  k 2

(c)  
chassis supported by four springs. Each spring  2m 
has a force constant of 40000 Nm. The 1
combined mass of the two people occupying the   1  2
(d)  k + 
car is 150 kg. What is the period of execution of 3 1 1 
two complete vibrations?   + 
 k k 
(a) 0.63 s (b) 1.59 s  3 2
 
(c) 4.96 s (d) 1.26 s  m 
ESE 2017 MPPSC AE 2016
657
Ans : (a) (c) More than (d) Dependent upon
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
Ans : (a) The critical speed of a rotating shaft with a
mass at the centre is an equal the natural frequency of
transverse vibration of the system.
642. A torsional vibratory system having two rotors
1 1 1 connected by a shaft has:
= +
K eq K1 + K 2 K 3 (a) One node (b) Two nodes
k eq (c) Three nodes (d) No node
1
ω= = OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
m  1 1 
 +  m. Ans : (a) Torsional vibrations of a two rotor system :
K
 1 + K 2 K 3 

640. A shaft carries a weight 'w' at the centre. The

CG of the weight is displacement by an amount
'e' from the axis of the rotation. If 'y' is the
additional displacement of the CG from the
axis of rotation due to the centrifugal force,
then ratio of 'y' to e (where 'ωc' is the critical
speed of shaft and ω is the angular speed of
shaft) is given by
MPPSC AE 2016
1 1
(a) (b)
 ωc 
2
 ωc 
2 (Note:- Number of Node = (n - 1)
 ω  +1  ω  −1 where n = No. of rotor)
   
2 2 A torsional vibratory system having two rotors
ω   ωc  connected b a shaft has one node.
(c)  c  + 1 (d)  ω  −1
ω   643. Critical speed of shaft depends on
Ans : (b) O = Point on axis which the shaft rotates (a) mass
CG = Centre of gravity (b) stiffness
(c) mass and stiffness
(d) mass, stiffness and eccentricity
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (c) Critical speed of shaft depends on mass and
stiffness.
Critical or whirling speed of a shaft:-
out ward centrifugal force = Resisting force The speed at which the shaft runs so that the additional
m ( y + e ) ω2 = Ky deflection of the shaft from the axis of rotation become
infinite is known as critical or whirling speed.
y 1
= 2 s g
e  K  critical speed ( ω c) = = Hz
 − 1  m δ
 mω2 
y 1 Critical speed of shaft depends on mass and stiffness.
=
e  ωn  2 644. If damping factor in a vibrating system is
 ω  −1 unity, then the system will be
 
(a) not damped (b) highly damped
ωn = Natural frequency (c) under damped (d) critically damped
641. The critical speed of a rotating shaft with a RPSC AE 2016
mass at the centre is.........the natural frequency
of transverse vibration of the system : Ans : (d) If damping factor in a vibrating system is
(a) Equal (b) Less than unity, then the system will be critically damped.

658
645. A vibrating beam has following degrees of 651. In a forced vibration system, for which value of
freedom ω 
(a) 0 (b) 1 frequency ratio  f  , the transmissibility is
 ωn 
(c) 2 (d) 3
same for all the values of damping factors.
RPSC AE 2016 (a) 1 (b) 2
Ans : (c) A vibrating beam has two degree of freedom. 1
(c) 2 (d)
646. In a damped vibration system, the damping 2
force is proportional to UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
(a) displacement (b) velocity Ans : (c) Transmissibility:- It is defined as the ratio of
(c) acceleration (d) applied force the force transmitted to the force applied. It is a
RPSC AE 2016 measure of the effectiveness of the vibration isolating
Ans : (b) In a damped vibration system, the damping materials.
force is proportional to velocity
647. For steady state forced vibrations, phase lag at
resonance condition is
(a) 0 degree (b) 45 degree
(c) 90 degree (d) 180 degree
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (c) For steady state forced vibration, phase lag at
resonance condition is 900
648. The rate of decay of oscillations is known as
(a) logarithmic decrement ω
(i) f < 2 Need of insulation is more (cement,
(b) critical damping ωn
(c) damping coefficient
concrete etc. used)
(d) transmissibility
RPSC AE 2016 (ii) ωf = 2 No need of insulation
Ans : (a) The rate of decay of oscillation is known as ωn
logarithmic decrement, ωf
649. In forced vibrations, magnitude of damping (iii) ω > 2 Need of insulation is less (like spring)
n
force at resonance equals
(a) inertia force (b) impressed force 652. A mass of 1 Kg is attached to the end of a
(c) infinity (d) spring force spring with a stiffness 0.7N/mm. The critical
RPSC AE 2016 damping coefficient of this system is:
Ans : (b) In forced vibration magnitude of damping (a) 1.40 Ns/m (b) 18.52 Ns/m
force at resonance equals impressed force. (c) 52..92 Ns/m (d) 529.2 Ns/m
650. In a spring dash pot, mass system if m= mass, k UJVNL AE 2016
= spring stiffness and ωn = natural frequency Ans : (c) We know that Critical damping Coefficient
of vibration, then critical damping is equal to s
Cc = 2mωn = 2m
(a) 2 km m.
(b) 2m.ωn s
ωn =
(c) Both (a) and (b) m.
(d) neither (a) nor (b) m = 1kg . S = 700N / m.
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Ans : (c) The critical damping coefficient (Cc) may be 700
Cc = 2 × 1
obtained by substituting Cc for C in the condition for 1
critical damping e.g. N −S
2 Cc = 52.92
 c 
C s k m.
  = or Cc = 2m
 2m  m m 653. The critical speed of a shaft is affected by its:-
Cc = 2m.ωn 1. Eccentricity
The critical damping coefficient (Cc) is the amount of 2. Span
damping required for a system to be critically damped. 3. Diameter
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 Which of the above are correct? Ans. (d) : According to law of transmissibility of
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 forces, effect of force acting on the body is same at
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 every point in its line of action.
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I 658. Critical speed of a shaft depends on:-
Ans. (d) : (a) Diameter of disc (b) Length of shaft
654. Whirling speed of a shaft coincides with the (c) Eccentricity (d) All of the above
natural frequency of its:- UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
(a) Longitudinal vibration Ans. (d) : Critical speed of a shaft depends on diameter
(b) Transverse vibration of disc, length of shaft and eccentricity.
(c) Torsional vibration 659. For a vibrating system with viscous damping,
(d) Coupled bending torsional vibration the characteristics equation is given as:-
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I i
Mxɺɺ + c x + kx = 0
Ans. (a) : Whirling speed of a shaft coincides with the If the roots of the characteristics equation are
natural frequency of its longitudinal vibration. real and equal, the system is:-
655. If there is a gradual reduction in amplitude of (a) Over damped (b) Critically damped
vibration with time, the body is said to be in:- (c) Underdamped (d) Cannot be predicted
(a) Free vibration UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
(b) Forced vibration Ans. (b) : The characteristics equation given as -
(c) Damped vibration Mɺɺ x + cxɺ + kx = 0
(d) Undamped vibration Then the roots of this equation will be
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I 2
c c
Ans. (c) : If there is a gradual reduction in amplitude of − ±   + 4ω2n
vibration with time, the body is said to be in damped m m
α1 , α 2 =
vibration. 2
656. If ratio of excitation and natural frequency of c  c 
2
2
vibration ω/ ωn = 2 ; the transmissibility of α1 , α 2 = − ±   + ωn
2m  2m 
vibration will be :- If the roots of the characteristics equation are
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 real and equal, the system will be critically damped.
(c) 1.5 (d) 2.0
660. If the damping factor for a vibrating system is
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
unity, then the system is
Ans. (b) : (a) critically damped (b) under damped
(c) over damped (d) zero damped
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (a) : critically damped
661. For steady state forced vibrations, the phase
lag at resonance condition is
(a) 0° (b) 45°
(c) 80° (d) 90°
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (d) : 90°
662. In free vibrations, the acceleration vector leads
ω the displacement vector by
If = 2
ωn (a) π/3 (b) π/2
Then, the transmissibility (ε) of vibration will be 1. (c) 2π/3 (d) π
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
657. According to law of transmissibility of forces,
effect of force acting on the body is:- Ans. (d) : π
(a) Different at different points of the body 663. At a certain speed, revolving shafts tend to
(b) Minimum when it acts at centre of gravity of vibrate violently in transverse directions, this
the body speed is known as
(c) Maximum when it acts at centre of gravity of (a) whirling speed (b) critical speed
the body (c) whipping speed (d) All the above
(d) Same at every point in its line of action UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I Ans. (d) : All the above
660
 12. MATERIAL SCIENCE
6. Coaxing is a process of
1. Material properties (a) improving the fatigue properties, attained by
under-stressing and then raising the stress in
1. Which one of the following materials is most small increments
elastic? (b) Decreasing the hardness by full annealing
(a) Rubber (b) Steel (c) Increasing the uniaxial tensile strength by
(c) Aluminium (d) Glass heating above recrystallization temperature
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I and quenching in oil media
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 (d) Maintaining the ductility of the material by
Ans. (b) : Steel is most elastic material. chemical treatment
2. The property of material, which enables it to ESE 2020
withstand bending without fracture, is known Ans. (a) : Improving the fatigue properties, attained by
as under-stressing and then raising the stress in small
(a) Mechanical strength (b) Stiffness increments.
(c) Flexural rigidity (d) Ductility 7. For a ductile material, toughness is a measure
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I of:
Ans. (c) : Flexural rigidity (a)Resistance to scratching
3. Which of the following is an amorphous (b)Ability to absorb energy upto fracture
material? (c)Ability to absorb energy till elastic limit
(a) Lead (b) Rubber (d)Resistance to indentation
(c) Mica (d) Glass UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
(KPSC AE 2015) Ans. (b) : Toughness of a material is defined by energy
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I absorbed to fracture. It is equal to area under load
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I deformation graph. Area under stress strain diagram up
Ans : (d) Glass is an amorphous material. to fracture represents energy absorbed per unit volume,
Amorphous material:- The material in which the which is known as modulus of toughness. It is measure
atoms are arranged chaotically is called amorphous of toughness of material.
material. 8. The ratio of the largest load in a test to the
4. In the tensile test, the phenomenon of slow original cross-sectional area of the test piece is
extension of the material, i.e., stress increasing called:
with the time at a constant load is called (a) Elastic limit (b) Yield stress
(a) creeping (b) yielding (c) Ultimate stress (d) None of the above
(c) breaking (d) plasticity UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
TNPSC AE 2018 Ans. (c) : The ratio of the largest load in a test to the
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I original cross-sectional area of the test piece is called
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) ultimate stress.
TSPSC AEE 2015
9. The stress strain curve for a glass rod during
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper -I
tensile test would exhibit
Ans. (a) : Creeping, stress increasing with time at a (a) A straight line (b) A parabola
constant load is the phenomenon of slow extension of
(c) A sudden break (d) None of the above
the material in the tensile test.
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
5. Statement (I): Directionally solidified materials
Ans. (c) : The stress-strain curve for a glass rod during
have good creep resistance. test would exhibit, a sudden break curve.
Statement (II): Directionally solidified materials
may be so loaded that there is no shearing stress
along, or tensile stress across, the grain
boundaries.
ESE 2017
Ans. (a) : The sharp temperature gradient used in
directional solidification forces the grains to grow
continuously from one end of the casting to the other.
The final casting has a columnar grain structure with 10. Which of the following material has maximum
few or no transverse grain boundaries, thus providing ductility–
high creep resistance. (a) grey cast iron (b) mild Steel
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 (c) alloy steel (d) high carbon steel Hardness—Material hardness is the property of the
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper material which enables into resist plastic deformation,
Ans. (b) : Mild steel usually by penetration or by indentation.
11. A property often used to characterize strength 15. The resistance of a material of elastic
and hardness at elevated temperature is deformation is called:
(a) creep (b) fatigue (a) Ductility (b) Toughness
(c) hot hardness (d) residual hardness (c) Hardness (d) Stiffness
(e) Ultimate Red Strength (e) Hot hardness
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift CGPSC AE 2014- II
Ans. (c) : Ans. (d) : The resistance of a material to elastic
12. The unique property of cast iron is its high deformation is called stiffness.
(a) malleability 16. Which of the following metals can be easily
(b) ductility drawn into wire?
(c) toughness (a) tin (b) copper
(d) damping characteristics (c) lead (d) zinc
ESE 2018 TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (d) : In gray cast iron, the graphite exist in the Ans. (b) : Copper can be easily drawn into wire.
form of flakes. The flakes act as stress raises, thus 17. Conductivities of semi conductors range from
reducing ductility. (a) 10-9 to 104 ohm-1cm-1
The graphite flakes gives the material the capacity to (b) 10-8 to 103 ohm-1cm-1
damper vibration by the internal friction caused by these
(c) 10-7 to 104 ohm-1cm-1
flakes.
Hence gray cast iron is mostly used material where (d) 10-9 to 103 ohm-1cm-1
vibration damping is important. TNPSC AE 2017
13. Which of the following properties will be the Ans. (a) : Conductivities of semi conductors range from
-9 4 -1 -1
meaningful indicator / indicators of uniform 10 to 10 ohm cm .
rate of elongation of a test piece of a structural 18. The property of a material which enables it to
material before necking happens in the test resist fracture due to high impact loads is
piece? known as
1. Ductility (a) Brittleness (b) Ductility
2. Toughness (c) Toughness (d) Hardness
3. Hardness Maharashtra PSC AE Pre 2019
Select the correct answer using the code given APPSC AEE 2016
below. Ans. (c) : Toughness – Toughness is the ability of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only material of absorb energy and plastically deform
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 without fracture.
ESE 2017
19. A bearing material should not possess the
Ans. (a) : Ductility is the meaningful indicator of
characteristic of high ____________.
uniform rate of elongation in any material along with
(a) coefficient of friction (b) hardness
ductility there is strain rate sensitivity index, that tells us
about the rate of elongation since strain rate is not (c) melting point (d) thermal
given, ductility will be the answer. conductivity
APPSC AEE 2016
14. Permanent deformation of solid material under
the influence of long - term exposure of high Ans. (a) : A bearing material should be possess the
level of mechanical stresses that are still below characteristics of high hardness, high melting point and
the yield strength along with subjected to heat high thermal conductivity but low coefficient of
is ................... friction.
(a) Elasticity (b) Isotropy 20. An allotropic material has
(c) Hardness (d) Creep (a) Atoms distributed in random patterns
RPSC AE 2018 (b) Atoms distributed in fixed pattern
Ans. (d) : Creep—Permanent deformation of solid (c) Different crystal structure at different
material under the influence of long - term exposure of temperatures
high level of mechanical stresses that are still below the (d) fixed structure at all temperatures
yield strength along with subjected to heat is known as APPSC AEE 2016
creep. Ans. (c) : An allotropic material has different crystal
Elasticity—If the material is elastic, the object will
structure at different temperatures.
return to its initial shape and size when these force are
removed. 21. In a tensile test, neck appears in the material
Isotropy—Any material are considered to be isotropic (a) At the centre of specimen
if the properties are not dependent on the direction. (b) In the gauge length only
662
 (c) Anywhere in parallel length Ans. (c) : Ability of a material to exhibit considerable
(d) Anywhere between fixed points elastic recovery on release of load, is known as
TSPSC AEE 2015 resilience.
Ans. (c) : In a tensile test, neck appears in the material 25. Toughness of a material means its :
anywhere in parallel length. (a) Strength (b) Fatigue Resistance
22. Materials exhibiting time bound behaviour are (c) Machinability (d) Softening
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
known as
Ans. (a) : Toughness is the ability of the material to
(a) Visco elastic (b) Anelastic
absorb energy during plastic deformation up to fracture.
(c) Isentropic (d) Resilient
! Toughness is a good combination of strength and
TNPSC 2019 ductility.
Ans. (a) : Viscoelasticity is the property of material that ! Toughness is by calculating the area under the stress
exhibit both viscous and elastic characteristic when strain curve from a tensile test.
undergoing deformation. Viscous materials, like water, 26. The property of a material necessary for
resist shear flow and strain linearly with time when a forgings, in stamping image on coins and in
stress is applied. ornamental work is
23. The materials which exhibit the same elastic (a) elasticity (b) plasticity
properties in all directions are called– (c) ductility (d) malleability
(a) Homogeneous (b) Inelastic JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
(c) Isotropic (d) Isentropic Ans : (b) : Plasticity- It is property of a material which
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 retains the deformation produced under load
Nagaland PSC CTSE 2016, 2017 Paper-I permanently. This property of material is necessary for
forgings in stamping images on coins, and in
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
ornamental works.
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
27. Ductility of a material can be defined as :
Ans. (c) : (a) Ability to undergo large permanent
Isotropic material -The materials which exhibit the deformations in compression
same elastic properties in all directions at a given point (b) Ability to recover its original
are called isotropic materials. (c) Ability to undergo large permanent
deformations in tension
(d) All of these
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
TNPSC AE 2018
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
TNPSC AE 2018
Homogeneous materials– Those materials which have Ans. (c) : Ductility– It is the property of a material by
same elastic properties at all the points in any particular virtue of which it can be drawn into wires under the
direction. action of tensile force. A ductile material must have a
high degree of plasticity and strength so that large
deformation can take place without failure or rupture of
the material.
28. A material is known as allotropic or
polymorphic if it :
(a) Has a fixed structure under all conditions
(b) Exists in several crystal forms at different
Anisotropic materials– Those materials which exhibit temperature
different elastic properties in different direction at a (c) Responds to heat treatment
given point called Anisotropic materials. (d) Has its atoms distributed in random pattern
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans : (b) : A material is known as allotropic or
polymorphic if it exists in several crystal forms at
different temperatures.
29. Malleability is
(a) maximum energy that can be stored in a body
due to external loading
24. Ability of a material to exhibit considerable (b) flattened into thin sheets
elastic recovery on release of load, is known as : (c) energy stored in a body when strained
(a) Toughness (b) Stiffness (d) ability to deform
(c) Resilience (d) Hardness Gujarat PSC AE 2019
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 UJVNL AE 2016
663
Ans : (b) : Malleability- It is a special case of ductility Ans : (a) The toughness of material decreases, when it
which permits materials to be rolled or hammered into is heated.
thin sheets. A malleable material should be so strong. Toughness :-
The malleable materials commonly used in engineering * It is desirable in material which is subject to cyclic or
practice (in order of diminishing malleability) are lead shock loading.
soft steel wrought iron, copper and aluminium. * It is represented by area under stress-strain curve for
30. The impact strength of a material is an material upto fracture.
indication of * Bend test used for common comparative test for
(a) toughness of the material toughness.
(b) tensile strength 35. Failure due to repeated or reversal stresses is
(c) capability of being hot worked called
(d) resilience (a) hardness (b) Creep
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 (c) brittleness (d) Fatigue
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (a) : Toughness of a material is defined by energy
Ans : (d) Failure due to repeated or reversal stresses is
absorbed upto fracture. It is equal to area under load
called fatigue.
deformation diagram. Area under stress strain diagram
Fatigue:- When a material is subjected to repeated
upto fracture represents energy absorbed per unit
stresses, it fails at stresses below the yield point
volume which is known as modulus of toughness, it is
stresses. Such type of failure of material is known as
measure of toughness of material. fatigue. This property is considered in designing shafts,
31. Which of the following has maximum connecting rods, spring, gears etc.
malleability? 36. Elasticity is the ability regarding its
(a) Lead (b) Brass deformation to
(c) Wrought iron (d) Aluminum (a) retain (b) regain
(KPSC AE 2015) (c) resist (d) uniform
Ans : (a) Lead has maximum malleability in given TSPSC AEE 2015
option. Ans : (b) Elasticity :- It is the property of a materials to
Malleability:- It is a special case of ductility which regain its original shape after deformation when the
permit material to be rolled or hammered into thin external forces are removed. This property is desirable
sheets. A malleable material should be plastic but it is for materials used in tools and machines. It may be that
not essential to be so strong. steel is more elastic than rubber.
32. The ability of a material to withstand bending 37. The Erichsen cupping number of a metal sheet
without fracture is known as : indicates its
(a) Mechanical strength (b) Stiffness (a) Ductility (b) Hardenability
(c) Toughness (d) Ductility (c) Toughness (d) Drawing ability
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 Ans : (d) The Erichsen cupping number of a metal
Ans : (c) The ability of a material to with stand bending sheet indicates its drawing ability. So this test can be
without fracture is known as toughness. classified as stretch forming.
Toughness:- It is the property of a material to resist 38. S-N curves are connected with
fracture due to high impact loads like hammer blows. (a) Toughness (b) Hardness
The toughness of the material decreases when it is (c) Creep (d) Fatigue
heated. It is measured by the amount of energy that the UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
amount of energy that a unit volume of the material has Ans : (d)
absorbed after being stress up to the point of fracture.
33. The ability of a metal to withstand elongation
or bending is known as:
(a) Ductility (b) Malleability
(c) Stiffness (d) Brittleness
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
Ans : (c) The ability of a metal to withstand elongation
or bending is known as stiffness. S-N curve reveals a substantial difference in fatigue
Stiffness : –It is the ability of a materials to resist characteristics between ferrous metals (like iron, steel
deformation under stress. The modulus of elasticity is and titanium) and non-ferrous metals (like aluminum,
the measure of stiffness. magnesium and copper). Ferrous metals exhibit a "fatigue
34. The toughness of a material, when it is heated limit" stress below which they can endure an infinite
(a) decreases (b) increases number of repetitive stress cycles without failing. Non-
(c) remains same (d) stabilise ferrous metals have no fatigue limit, and will always fail
TSPSC AEE 2015 eventually if subjected to enough stress cycles.
664
39. Creep plays an important role in the design of (b) it strain hardens
which of the following? (c) if it is made of plastic
(a) Boiler tubing (d) none of the above
(b) I.C. Engine cylinders UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(c) Gas turbine blades Ans. (a) : It does not strain harden
(d) Steam turbine blades 45. A material in which the atoms are arranged
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I chaotically is called
Ans : (c) Gas turbine blades (a) amorphous (b) mesomorphous
40. Assertion (A) : Little energy is required to break (c) crystalline (d) none of the above
materials such as glass, polystyrene and some cast UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
irons. Conversely, rubber and many steels absorb Ans. (a) : Amorphous
considerable energy in the fracture process. 46. Which of the following material has non-linear
Reason (R) : The service limit in many elastic behaviour?
engineering products is not the yield or ultimate (a) Mild Steel (b) Aluminium
strength, rather may be the energy associated with (c) Cast iron (d) Rubber
fracture propagation. UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Code : Ans. (d) : Rubber
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains
(A) correctly. 47. When mechanical properties of a material
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not remain same in all directions at each point,
explain (A) correctly. such a material is called
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (a) Isotropic (b) Homogenious
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (c) Orthotropic (d) Anisotropic
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (a) : Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains Ans. (a) : Isotropic
(A) correctly.
41. Assertion (A) : In general, materials deform more 2. Atomic Structures and Phase
readily at elevated temperature. Diagrams
Reason (R) : Plastic deformation commonly
arises from dislocation movements that involve a
continual displacement of atoms to new 48. The Curie point for most ferrous magnetic
neighbours at elevated temperature. materials is about
Code : (a) 390 °C (b) 540 °C
(a) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (c) 760 °C (d) 880 °C
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true. ESE 2019
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains Ans. (c) : If a ferromagnetic substance is heated and its
(A) correctly. temperature exceeds a specified temperature TC, this
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not substance becomes paramagnetic. During cooling, the
explain (A) correctly. substance becomes ferromagnetic again when reaching
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I this temperature. The temperature TC is called the curie
Ans. (c) : Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains temperature and is different for each ferromagnetic
(A) correctly. substance. Most of ferromagnetic substance have a
relatively high curie temperature for nickel curie
42. Which of the following properties of mild steel
temperature is about 360°C and iron 770°C.
cannot be determined by a static tensile test of
49. Which of the following is a point imperfection?
the sample?
(a) Vacancy
(a) Ultimate tensile strength
(b) Interstitial imperfection
(b) Ultimate shear strength
(c) Frenkel imperfection
(c) Ductility (d) All of these
(d) Poisson's ratio SJVN ET 2013
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
Ans. (b) : Ultimate shear strength Ans. (d) : Point imperfections or zero imperfections
43. The notch angle of Izod impact test specimen is • Vacancy
(a) 10º (b) 20º • Interstitial imperfection.
(c) 30º (d) 45º • Frenkel imperfection.
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I 50. How many atoms are there in an HCP crystal
Ans. (d) : 45º structure?
44. A material shall be called ideal plastic material (a) 8 (b) 4
if (c) 6 (d) None of these
(a) it does not strain harden Gujarat PSC AE 2019
665
Ans : (c) : The hexagonal closed packed (HCP) has a 57. The imperfection in the crystal structure of
coordination number of 12 and contains 6 atoms per metal is called
unit cell. (a) dislocation (b) slip
51. The crystal structure of alpha iron is:- (c) cleavage (d) fracture
(a) Body centered cubic UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(b) Face centered cubic Ans. (a) : Dislocation
(c) Hexagonal closed pack 58. Zn and Mg have the following crystal
(d) Simple cubic structure:
UKPSC AE 2013, 2012 Paper-I (a) B.C.C. (b) F.C.C.
Ans. (a) : The crystal structure of alpha iron is body (c) diamond cubic (d) H.C.P.
centered cubic. UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
52. Cementite contains C to the tune of:
Ans. (d) : H.C.P.
(a) 0.6% (b) 5%
(c) 3.6% (d) 6.6% 59. Closed packed planes are formed in
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I (a) simple cubic crystals
Ans : (d) Cementite : it contains 6.67% carbon by (b) body centered cubic crystals
weight and also called iron carbide (F3C). It is a typical (c) diamond cubic crystals
hard and brittle interstial compound low strength of (d) face centered cubic crystals
approx 35 MPa but high compressive strength cementile UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
is the hardest structure that appears on the Fe-C Ans. (c) : Diamond cubic crystals
equilibrium diagram Its crystal structure is 60. How many atoms are present in a unit cell of a
orthorhombic. body centered cubic space lattice?
53. The Time-Temperature-Transformation (TTT) (a) Six (b) Nine
curves are also called as: (c) Fourteen (d) Twenty four
(a) T-curves (b) M-curves UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(c) N-curves (d) S-curves Ans. (b) : Nine
(e) Q-curves
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) 61. The solidification of liquid at constant
temperature into two phase mixture is called
Ans. (d) : TTT-Curve– Time - Temperature -
Transformation curve also known as isothermal (a) Peritectic reaction
transformation diagram. This curve also termed as S- (b) Eutectoid reaction
curve or Ben curve. This curve measure the rate of (c) Hypo Eutectoid reaction
transformation at a constant temperature i.e it shows (d) Eutectic reaction
time relationships for the phases during isothermal TSPSC AEE 2015
transformation. Information regarding the time to start Ans : (d) The solidification of liquid at constant
the transformation and the time required to complete the temperature into two phase mixture is called Eutectic
transformation can be obtained from set of TTT reaction.
diagrams. 62. A given steel test specimen is studied under
54. Relative amounts of phases in a region can be metallurgical microscope (magnification used
deduced using: is 100X). In that different phases are observed
(a) Phase rule (b) Lever rule one of them is Fe3C. The observed phase Fe3C
(c) Either (A) or (B) (d) None of these is also known as:
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I (a) Ferrite (b) Austenite
Ans : (c) : Relative amounts of phase in a region can be (c) Cementite (d) Martensite
deduced using either phase rule or Lever rule. UJVNL AE 2016
55. The [110] direction in a cubic unit cell is Ans : (c) phase Fe3C is known as cementite.
parallel to the following :
(i) It is also called iron carbide
(a) Face diagonal of unit cell
(ii) It contains 6.67% carbon by weight
(b) Edge of the cube
(c) Body diagonal of the cube (iii) 35 MPa high compressive strength
(d) None of the above 63. Eutectic reaction for Iron-carbon system
UKPSC AE 2012, 2007 Paper-I occurs at:
Ans. (b) : Edge of the cube (a) 600°C (b) 723°C
56. Vectorial sum of the Burgers vector of (c) 1130°C (d) 1493°C
dislocations meeting at a nodal point is UJVNL AE 2016
(a) zero (b) 1 Ans : (c) An eutectic reaction (EFC) takes place at
(c) –1 (d) none of the above eutectic temperature 1150°C corresponding to eutectic
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I composition of 4.3 % carbon
Ans. (a) : Zero L ⇌ γ + Fe3 c
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64. Martensite is a supersaturated solution of Ans : (a) Process of austempering results in the
carbon in : formation of 100% Bainite structure.
(a) Alpha iron (b) Beta iron Austempering:-
(c) Gamma iron (d) Delta iron * It is performed in a similar manner as martempering
(KPSC AE. 2015) but with a longer holding time at the hot bath
Ans : (a) Martensite :- It is a metastable phase of steel temperature. This is done to ensure a sufficiently
formed by transformation of austenite below a complete austenite decomposition into Bainite. Molten
temperature 2400C. It is an interstitial supersaturated salts or molten alkalies are used as quenching media.
solid solution of carbon in α − iron Which is super There temperature is maintained between 150-450 0C
saturated with Carbon. It forms as a result of shear type and the holding time depends upon the stability of
transformation with virtually no diffusion martensite austenite at temperature above Martempering.
normally is a product of quenching. 69. The eutectic of austenite and cementite is know
65. If steel is cooled still air, the structure obtained as
is (a) Ferrite (b) Pearlite
(a) pearlite (b) sorbite (c) Ledeburite (d) Austenite
(c) troosite (d) acicular BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 Ans : (c) : The eutectic of austenite and cementite is
Ans : (b) If steel is cooled in still air, the structure known as ledeburite.
obtained is sorbite. 70. Pure graphite contains
Sorbite:- (a) 0% of carbon (b) 2% of carbon
It is a microstructure consisting of ferrite and finally (c) 6.67% of carbon (d) 100% of carbon
decide cementite produced on tempering martensite BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
above 450 0C . The constituents also known as sorbite Ans : (d) : Pure graphite contains 100% of carbon
pearlite is produced by the decomposition of outside 71. The weight percentage of carbon, in cementite
when cooled at a rate faster then that which will is
produce pearlite and slower then that which will (a) 13.00% (b) 6.67%
produce pearlite and slower then that which will (c) 4.00% (d) 0.40%
produce troostite. BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
66. The weld bead between a heavy steel section Ans : (b) : Weight percent of carbon in cementite
and a thin section occurs mainly due to the 12 × 100
formation of: =
(a) bainite (b) spheroidite 3 × 56 + 12
(c) martensite (d) none of these = 6.67%
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) 72. Which of the following does not aid in
Ans : (a) The weld bead between a heavy steel section graphitization of cementite?
and a thin section occurs mainly due to the formation of (a) Presence of Si (b) Presence of Al
bainite. (c) Presence of Ni (d) Low temperature
Bainite :- It is formed by isothermal decomposition of BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
austenite in alloy steels. when the decomposition takes Ans : (d) : Low temperature does not aid in
place at a temperature above that at which martensite is graphitization of cementite.
formed the resulting bainite is known as upper bainite 73. Which of the following phases exhibits highest
and when it occurs below that temperature which solid solubility of carbon?
pearlite is formed the bainite formed is called lower (a) Delta iron
bainite. It has a rapidly teaching needle like structure (b) Gamma iron (austenite)
which is less marked at high formation temperature. (c) Alpha iron
67. Which stainless steel is used in cryogenic (d) Ferrite
vessels? BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
(a) Ferritic (b) Austenitic Ans : (b) : Gamma iron (austenite) phases exhibits
(c) Martensitic (d) None of these highest solid solubility of carbon.
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 74. The number of phases present in equilibrium
Ans : (b) : Austenitic stainless steel is used in cryogenic at eutectic point
vessels. (a) 0 (b) 1
68. Process of austempering results in the (c) 2 (d) 3
formation of TSPSC AEE 2015
(a) Bainite structure Ans. (d) : The number of phases present in equilibrium
(b) Martensitic structure at eutectic point 3.
(c) Carburized structure 75. Retained austenite will be produced during
(d) None of these quenching of materials
KPSC AE 2015 (a) Hypoeutectic steels
TSPSC AEE 2015 (b) Eutectoid steels
667
 (c) Hypereutectoid steels 80. The hardness of steel increases if it contains
(d) Cast irons (a) pearlite (b) ferrite
TSPSC AEE 2015 (c) cementite (d) martensite
Ans. (c) : Retained austenite will be produced during JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
quenching of materials Hypereutectoid steels. Ans : (c) : Cementite or iron carbide, is very hard,
76. Eutectic reaction results in the formation of, brittle intermettalic compound of iron and carbon, as
(a) mixture of two or more solid phases Fe3C, contains 6.67% carbon.
(b) a mixture of two or more liquid phases ! It is the hardest structure.
(c) mixture of solid and liquid phases ! It crystal structure is orthorhombic.
(d) liquid phase only ! It has low tensile strength.
TNPSC 2019 ! It has high compressive strength.
Ans. (a) : 1. Eutectic Reaction- It takes place at 81. In the steel at room temperature is magnetic, the
1147oC at 4.350C. presence of which constituent can be ruled out
L ⇌ ( γ + Fe 3C ) → Ledeburite (a) Austenite (b) Ferrite
(c) Cementite (d) Pearlite
L ⇌ S2 + S3 APPSC AEE 2016
2. Preitectic Reaction- It take place at 1492oC Ans. (a) : Austenite
at 0.18% C 82. Iron-carbon alloy containing 1.7 to 4.3%
δ+L ⇌ γ carbon is called
Eutectoid Reaction- at 727oC, 0.8% C (a) Eutectoid cast Iron
γ ⇌ ( α + Fe 3C ) → Pearlite (b) Hyper eutectic cast Iron
(c) Hypo-eutectic cast Iron
S 2 ⇌ S 4 + S3
(d) Eutectoid steel
77. On heating, one solid phase results in another TNPSC AE 2017
solid phase and a liquid phase during Ans. (c) : Iron-carbon alloy containing 1.7 to 4.3%
________reaction. carbon is called Hypo-eutectic cast Iron.
(a) Eutectoid (b) Peritectic 83. What causes transformation of deformed
(c) Eutectic (d) Peritectoid martensite into austenite phase?
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 (a) Heating
Ans. (b) : (b) Cooling
! Eutectic reaction :- (c) both cooling and heating
Liquid → solid 1 + solid 2 (d) partial cooling
! Eutectoid reaction :- APPSC AEE 2016
Solid → Solid 2 + Solid 3 Ans. (a) : Heating causes transformation of deformed
! Peritectic reaction :- martensite into austenite phase.
Liquid + Solid 1 → Solid 2 84. If plain carbon steel in the austenitic condition
! Peritectoid reaction :- is quenched in water to room temperature, its
Solid 1 + Solid 2 → Solid 3 structure changes from 'austenite' to
78. When a low carbon steel is heated up to upper (a) Pearlite (b) Martensite
critical temperature : (c) Cementite (d) Ferrite
(a) There is no change in grain size JWM 2017
(b) The average grain size is a minimum Ans. (b) : When plain carbon steel in the austenitic
(c) The grain size increases very rapidly condition is quenched in water to room temperature, its
(d) The grain size first increases and then structure change to Martensite.
decreases very rapidly
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 85. Consider the following statements:
1. Ferrite is the softest constituent's phase of
Ans. (b) : When a low carbon steel is healed upto upper
steel
critical temperature the average grain size is a
minimum. 2. Pearlite is the mixture of Bainite and Ledeburite
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
79. Which one of the following sets of constituents (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
is expected in equilibrium cooling of hyper (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
eutectoid steel from austenitic state ? JWM 2017
(a) Ferrite and Pearlite Ans. (d) : Pearlite is a two phased, Lamellar structure
(b) Cementite and Pearlite composed by alternating layer of ferrite and cementite.
(c) Ferrite and Bainite 86. Austempering of steels results in greater,
(d) Cementite and Martensite (a) hardness (b) toughness
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 (c) brightness (d) ductility
Ans. (b) : In equilibrium cooling of hypereutectoid steel TNPSC AE 2018
from austenitic state is Cementite and Pearlite. Gujarat PSC AE 2019
668
Ans. (b) : The austempered steel has higher strength 91. Which of the following is/are the characteristic
and ductility compared to cast steel with increasing features of eutectic alloys?
austempering temperature, to hardness and strength 1. The possess the lowest melting temperature
decreased but the percentage of elongation increased. 2. They undergo phase transformation at the same
87. Delta iron occurs at the temperature, temperature while heating as well as cooling
(a) above recrystallisation temperature (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) above melting point (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) between 1400oC and 1539oC JWM 2017
(d) between 910oC and 1400oC Ans. (c) : The characteristics features of eutectic alloys-
(a) They undergo phase transformation at the same
TNPSC AE 2018
temperature while heating as well as cooling.
Ans. (c) : Delta iron occurs at the temperature between (b) They possess the lowest melting temperature.
1400oC and 1539oC. 92. Which of the following is not true for Ferrite?
88. Which one of the following was not used for (a) It has BCC structure
understanding the mechanics of the heat (b) It is soft and ductile
treatment? (c) Solubility of carbon in ferrity is very high
(a) TTT diagrams (b) CCT diagrams (d) It is alpha-iron and highly magnetic
(c) Hardenability curves (d) Phase diagrams (e) It is alpha-iron and non-magnetic
TNPSC AE 2017 CGPSC AE 2014- II
Ans. (d) : Phase diagrams are graphical representations of Ans. (c) : Solubility of carbon in ferrite is very high is
the phase present in particular alloy being held at a particular not true for ferrite.
temperature. Phase diagrams can be used to predict the 93. Formation of Ferrite and Cementite from
phase changes that have occurred in an alloy that has been Austenite takes place at:
exposed to a particular heat treatment process. (a) Temperature = 723ºC, carbon composition =
2%
89. Eutectic reaction for iron - carbon system
(b) Temperature = 1130ºC, carbon composition =
occurs at- 4.3%
(a) 600ºC (b) 723ºC (c) Temperature = 723ºC, carbon composition =
(c) 1147ºC (d) 1490ºC 0.8%
RPSC AE 2018 (d) Temperature = 1130ºC, carbon composition =
Ans. (c) : Preitectic Reaction—It take place at 1442ºC 0.8%
at % 0.18 C UPRVUNL AE 2016
δ + L ↽""
""⇀ γ Ans. (c) : Formation of Ferrite and Cementite from
Eutectic Reaction—It take place at 1147ºC at 4.3% C. Austenite takes place at temperature = 723ºC, carbon
composition = 0.8%.
""⇀(γ + Fe3C )
L ↽""
94. Which of the following is not true for Ferrite?
""⇀ S 2 + S3
L ↽"" (a) It is ductile
γ + Fe3C → Ledeburite → It is eutectic mixture of (b) It has BCC structure
(c) Solubility of carbon in Ferrite is very high at
austenite and cementite. room temperature
Eutectoid reaction—It take place at 727ºC at 0.8% C. (d) It is soft
γ ↽""
""⇀ α + Fe3C UPRVUNL AE 2016
""⇀ S 4 + S3
S2 ↽"" Ans. (c) : Solubility of carbon in Ferrite is very high at
room temperature is wrong.
α + Fe3C → A mixture of pearlite 95. Consider the following statements about
90. Which is the isothermal reversible reaction in Pearlite
which a solid phase is converted into two or 1. It is a Eutectoid alloy of ferrite and
more intimately mixed solids on cooling? cementite
(a) Peritectoid (b) Peritectic 2. It is a Eutectoid alloy of ferrite and carbide
(c) Eutectic (d) Eutectoid 3. The ratio of ferrite to cementite is 87:13
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift 4. The ratio of ferrite to carbide is 86:14
Ans. (d) : 5. The temperature at which the alloy is
Peritectic reaction : Liquid + solid 1 → solid 2 formed is 726ºC
Peritectoid reaction : solid 1 + solid 2 → solid 3 Out of these statements which are true
Eutectic reaction : Liquid 1 → solid 2 + solid 3 (a) 1, 3 and 5 (b) 2, 4 and 5
(c) 1 and 5 (d) 1 and 3
Eutectoid reaction : solid 1 → solid 2 + solid 3
(e) 2 and 4
Monotectic reaction : Liquid 1 → liquid 2 + solid CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
669
Ans. (d) : Pearlite is a two phased, layered structure Ans. (c) :
composed of alternating layers of ferrite (87.5 wt%) and
cementite (12.5 wt%) that occurs in some steels and cast
iron. During slow cooling of an iron-carbon alloy,
pearlite forms by a eutectoid reaction as austenite cools
below 727ºC.
96. _______ is NOT a type of malleable cast iron.
(a) Ferritic malleable cast iron
(b) Pearlitic malleable cast iron
(c) Pearlitic-ferritic malleable cast iron Miller Indices –
(d) Black heat malleable cast iron Axis - x y z
(e) Grey malleable cast iron 1 1
Intercepts ∞
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) 2 2
Ans. (e) : Grey malleable cast iron is not a type of Miller Index/Reciprocal 2 2 0
malleable cast iron. 101. In the figure shown below, Miller indices [021]
97. In the iron-iron carbide equilibrium diagram, have the direction of :
which of the following phases is NOT present?
(a) Ferrite (b) Austenite
(c) δ-ferrite (d) Cementite
(e) Eutectite
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
Ans. (e) : Eutectite phase is not present in the iron-iron
carbide equilibrium diagram.
98. Which of the following is NOT a
transformation product of Austenite?
(a) Pearlite (b) Bainite (a) B (b) A
(c) Lath martensite (d) Plate martensite (c) D (d) C
(e) Graphite BHEL ET 2019
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) Ans. (c) : Miller indices
Ans. (e) : Graphite is not a transformation product of [021]
austenite.
99. The percentage of pearlite in a slowly cooled
melt of 0.5% of carbon steel is
(a) 48.5% (b) 52.5%
(c) 58.5% (d) 62.5%
ESE 2020
Ans. (d) : Lever Rule (at Room temperature)
C − Cα 0.5 − 0.008
m pearlite = o = = 0.6212
C p − C α 0.8 − 0.008
for planet 'TUVW'
Percentage of pearlite at 0.5% C is 62.12%
Axis X
Y Z
100. The Miller indices for the plane in the figure intercepts ∞ 1
1
below are :
2
Reciprocals 1 1 1
∞ 1 1
2
Rationalization 0 2 1
Miller Indices 0 2 1
102. Which of the following is not a structural steel
shape?
(a) I (b) T
(a) [120] (b) [210] (c) H (d) V
(c) [220] (d) [002] Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
BHEL ET 2019 Ans. (d) : V
670
103. The average numbers of atoms per unit cell in (c) Hexagonal closed backed
simple cubic structures of solid are ______. (d) Body centered tetragonal
(a) 1 (b) 2 UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
(c) 4 (d) 6 RPSC AE 2018
(e) 8 TSPSC AEE 2015
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (a) : Ans. (b) : Austenite also known as gamma-phase iron
BCC FCC HCP SC (γ - Fe) is a metallic non-magnetic allotrope of iron or a
Average No. of solid solution of iron, with on alloying elements.
2 4 4 1 From 912oC to 1394oC, α-iron undergoes a phase
Atoms (N avg )
transition from body centered cubic (BCC) to the (FCC)
104. The fractional amount of volume or space Face centered cubic configuration of γ-iron also called
occupied by atoms in a unit cell is termed as: austenite metals possessing FCC structure are Cu, Al,
(a) Atomic packing density Pb Ni, Co etc.
(b) Volume density 108. Crystal structure of Copper is
(c) Inter-atomic space (a) Face Centred Cubic Structure
(d) Linear atomic density (b) Body Centred Cubic Structure
(e) Average volume of an atom (c) Hexagonal Closed Packed Structure
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) (d) Simple Cubic Crystal Structure
JWM 2017 Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
OPSC AE Mechanical Paper–I 15 Dec 2019 Ans. (a) : FCC elements generally strong and ductile in
HPPSC LECT. 2016 nature.
Ans. (a) : Atomic Packing Density–The ratio of Example- Al, Cu, Ni, Au, Ag, Pt.
volume occupied by average no. of atom to the volume 109. Which of the following is not a point defect
of unit cell. (a) Vacancy (b) Schottky Defect
Volume of occupied by N avg (c) Franket Defect (d) Edge Dislocation
Atomic packing factor = Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Volume of unit cell
4 Ans. (d) : Edge dislocation is not a point defect. It is a line
N avg × πr 3 defect in which there is a missing row of atoms. An extra
(APF) = 3 plane of atoms can be generated in a crystal structure.
Volume of unit cell
110. Binary phase diagrams are maps that represent
105. Which of the following is not a type of crystal the relationships between ________of phases at
imperfections? equilibrium
(a) Lattice vibrations (b) Point defects (a) Temperature and the compositions
(c) Line defects (d) Planar defects (b) Compositions and quantities
(e) Slip (c) Temperature and quantities
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) (d) Temperature and the compositions and
Ans. (e) : Slip is not a type of crystal imperfections. quantities
106. A process in which the atoms in a part of the Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
crystal subjected to stress rearrange Ans. (d) : Binary phase diagrams are maps that
themselves, such that the orientation of the part represent the relationship between temperature and the
changes in such a way that the distorted part compositions and quantities of phases at equilibrium,
becomes a mirror image of the other part, is which influence the microstructure of an alloy, this may
involve the transition from one phase to another or
called:
appearance or disappearance of a phase.
(a) Slip
(b) Twinning 111. Which of the following is a line defect?
(a) Edge dislocation (b) Impurity
(c) Geometrical softening
(c) Twinning (d) Vacancy
(d) Geometrical hardening
SJVN ET 2019
(e) Realignment
Ans. (a) :
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
Line Defect-
Ans. (b) : A process in which the atoms in a part of a (i) Edge dislocation defect
crystal subjected to stress rearrange themselves, such (ii) Screw dislocation defect
that the orientation of the part changes in such a way 112. In metallurgical and materials engineering
that the distorted part becomes a mirror image of the system, the Gibbs Phase Rule is given by :
other part, is called twinning. [pressure is maintained at one atmosphere]
107. The crystal structure of austenite is : [where F = Number of degrees of freedom, c =
(a) Body centered cubic Number of components, P = Number of phase
(b) Face centered cubic which can coexist at equilibrium]
671
 (a) F = C + 1 – P (b) F = C + 1 + P Pb − Sn System–
(c) F = C – 1 + P (d) F = C – 1 – P Cα = 19% Sn
SJVN ET 2019 Cβ = 2.5% Pb = 97.5% Sn
Ans. (a) : Gibbs Phase rule describes the possible mα = 3 mβ
number of degree of freedom in a closed system at  Cβ − C o   Co − Cα 
equilibrium in term of number of separate phases and C − C  = 3 
number of chemical constituents in the system.  β α   Cβ − C α 
F = Number of degree of freedom  97.5 − Co   Co − 19 
C= Number of chemical component  97.5 − 19  = 3  97.5 − 19 
P = Number of Phase
F=C–P+1 97.5 − Co = 3Co − 57
113. The temperature at which new stress-free Co = 38.6%, Pb = 100 − 38.6 = 61.4%
grains are formed in the metal is called, 117. The structure of sodium chloride is considered as
(a) upper critical temperature (a) A body-centered crystal
(b) melting point (b) A simple cubic crystal
(c) recrystallization temperature (c) Two interpenetrating FCC sub lattices of Cl–
(d) eutectic temperature ions and Na+ ions
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper (d) A cubic crystal with Na+ and Cl– alternatively
at the cubic corners
Ans. (c) : The temperature at which new stress-free ESE 2019
grains are formed in the metal is called, recrystallization
Ans. (c) : The structure of sodium chloride is face
temperature.
centered cubic (FCC) lattice.
114. The Crystal structure of Chromium (Cr) at
118. A metal has lattice parameter of 2.9 Å, density
room temperature is
of of 7.87 g/cc, atomic weight of 55.85, and
(a) Body-Centered Cubic (BCC)
Avogadro’s number is 6.0238 × 1023. The
(b) Face-Centered Cubic (FCC) number of atoms per unit cell will be nearly.
(c) Hexagonal Close-Packed (HCP) (a) 1 (b) 2
(d) Octagonal Close-Packed (OCG) (c) 8 (d) 16
(e) Simple Cubic (SC) ESE 2019
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Ans. (b) : Given,
Ans. (a) : At room temperature chromium has a BCC a = 2.9 Å = 2.9 × 10−10 m = 2.9 × 10−8 cm
crystal structure with a basis of one Cr atom. ρ = 7.87 gm/cc
115. The crystal structure of brass is A = 55.85
(a) BCC (b) FCC NA = 6.023 × 1023
(c) HCP (d) Orthorhombic nA
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 Density ρ =
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper N A × (Volume of unit cell)
Ans : (b) : Fact centre cubic (F.C.C.)- In a unit cell of n×A
ρ=
face centered cubic space lattice, there are fourteen NA × a3
atoms. The eight atoms are located at the corner of the n × 55.85
cube and six atoms at the centers of six faces. This type 7.87 =
of lattice is found in gamm iron, aluminium, copper, 6.023 × 10 23 × (2.9 × 10 −8 )3
lead silver, nickel, gold, platinum, calcium etc. n = 2.069
116. In the Pb-Sn system, the fraction of total α 119. An atomic packing factor (APF) for the BCC
phase is 3 times the fraction of β phase at unit cell of hard spheres atoms will be
eutectic temperature of 182°C, Pb with 19% Sn (a) 0.63 (b) 0.68
dissolved in it, Sn with 2.5% Pb dissolved in it, (c) 0.73 (d) 0.78
and liquid is in equilibrium. The alloy ESE 2019
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
composition of tin (Sn) and lead (Pb) are nearly
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
(a) 28.6% and 71.4% (b) 38.6% and 61.4%
APPSE AEE 2016
(c) 48.6% and 51.4% (d) 58.6% and 41.4%
ESE 2019 Ans. (b) : ! Effective number of atom in the unit cell of
BCC structure
Ans. (b) :
1
= 8 × + 1 = 2 atom
8

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! Relation between lattice constant and radius of atom 122. Atoms are arranged in face centred cubic
4r = a 3 (FCC) structure as
(a) All eight corners of the cube
a 3 (b) All eight corners of the cube and one of the
r=
4 body center
4 (c) All eight corners of the cube and at the center
n × πr 3 of each face
Atomic packing factor (APF) = 3
Volume of unit cell (d) All eight corners of the cube and one at the
body center with one at the center of each
4 face
n × πr 3
= 3 HPPSC AE 2018
3
 4r  Ans. (c) : Atoms are arrange in face centred cubic
  structure as all eight corners of the cube and at the
 3
centre of each face.
4
2 × πr 3 123. The smallest portion of a crystal which when
= 3 repeated in different directions generates the
3
 4r  entire crystal is ....................
  (a) crystal lattice (b) unit cell
 3
= 0.68 (c) lattice point (d) gage length
120. Statement I: The phase of a substance is RPSC AE 2018
characterized by its distinct molecular Ans. (b) : The smallest portion of a crystal which when
arrangement which is homogeneous throughout repeated in different directions generates the entire
and is separated from the others by easily crystal is known as unit cell.
identifiable boundary surfaces.
Statement II: Phase change is not characterized
on molecular structure and/or behavior of the
different phases.
ESE 2018
Ans. (b) : ! A Phase is identified as having a distinct
molecular arrangement that is homogeneous throughout
and separated from the other by easily identifiable
boundary surface.
Crystal lattice—A regular three dimensional
! Phase change is not concerned with the molecular arrangement of points in space is called a crystal lattice.
structure and behaviour of different materials. Unit cell—The unit cell is the smallest portion of a
121. Which of the following statements are correct? crystal lattice which, when repeated in different
1. Steel and cast iron are multi phase alloys. directions, generates the entire lattice.
2. Ferrite is a single phase interstitial solid 124. The edge length of an FCC unit cell of atomic
solution of carbon in iron. radius R is given by:
3. Wrought iron is a highly refined iron with a (a) 2 2R (b) 2R
small amount of slag which gives resistance
to progressive corrosion (c) 2R (d) 3R
4. Satellite contains large amounts of metals like (e) 3 2R
cobalt and tungsten resulting in high CGPSC AE 2014- II
hardness. Ans. (a) : Edge length of various crystal structure-
Select the correct answer using the code given BCC FCC HCP SC
below. 4R 4R 2R 2R
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only a= = 2 2R
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only 3 2
ESE 2018 125. What is the coordination number for simple
Ans. (a) : (i) Steel and cast iron are multiphase alloys of cubic structure?
(a) 4 (b) 8
α-Ferrite and cementite.
(c) 12 (d) 6
(ii) Ferrite is a single phase interstitial solid solution of
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
carbon in iron.
(iii) Wrought iron is a pure form of Fe with small Ans. (d) :
amount of slag (CaSiO3) that gives resistance to Crystal structure Coordination No.
progressive corrosion. Simple cubic 6
(iv) Satellite is a good cutting tool material that have BCC 8
large quantity of cobalt and tungsten. FCC, HCP 12
673
126. Which of the following are zero dimensional 129. In which of the process line defects were not
defects? formed
1. Vacancy (a) Solidification of metals
2. Interstitial defect (b) Recrystalisation of metals
3. Substitutional defect (c) Deformation of metals
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (d) Melting of metals
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (d) : In melting of metals process line defects were
JWM 2017
not formed.
Ans. (d) : Defects in metal-
130. Which type of materials are used as bridges
(1) Point defect or zero dimensional defect
between human tissues and metals?
(a) Vacancy defect (a) Polymeric biomaterials
(b) Interstitial defect (b) Ceramic biomaterials
(c) Substitutional defect (c) Metallic biomaterials
(d) Frankle defect (d) Polymarised plastic materials
(e) Schottky defect APPSC AEE 2016
(2) Surface defect Ans. (c) : Metallic biomaterials are used as bridges
(a) Grain boundary defect between human tissues and metals.
(b) Twin boundary defect 131. The number of electrons found in the outer
(c) Tilt boundary defect most orbit of semi-conductor materials is,
(d) Staking faults (a) 2 (b) 4
(3) Line defect (c) 6 (d) 8
(a) Edge dislocation defect TNPSC 2019
(b) Screw dislocation defect Ans. (b) : The number of electrons found in the outer
127. Plastic deformation by twinning mechanism most orbit of semi-conductor materials is 4.
occurs in metals due to the movement of atoms 132. Crystal structure of metals is studied by
where: (a) metallographic techniques
1. Atoms move through distances proportional (b) X-Ray techniques
to their (original) distance from the twinning (c) ultrasound method
plane (d) electron microscopy
2. Atoms move in integral steps of full atomic TNPSC 2019
distances from their adjacent planes Ans. (b) : Crystal structure of metals is studied by X-
3. Atoms jumps from one plane to another ray techniques.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 133. The supersaturated interstitial solid solution of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only carbon in alpha iron is known as
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) martensite (b) pearlite
(c) bainite (d) ferrite
JWM 2017
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
Ans. (b) : At the point, where atoms move in integralAns : (a) : Martensite is a supersaturated solution of
steps of full atomic distance from their adjacent planes.
carbon and body centered tetragonal (BCT) ferrite
α 3 (alpha iron). BCT is a modified BCC crystal stricture
128. is the atomic radius of where height of crystal is increased.
4
(a) BCC lattice (b) FCC lattice 134. Which of the following constituents of steels is
(c) HCP lattice (d) Simple cube softest and least strong?
(a) Austenite (b) Pearlite
TNPSC AE 2018
(c) Cementite (d) Ferrite
Ans. (a) OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Crystal structure α to r relation Ans : (d) : Ferrite phase is a soft phase therefore any Formatted: Font: Not Bold
SC α increase of ferrite phase in steel would increase the
r=
2 ductility of steel. Formatted: Font: Not Bold
BCC α 3 135. What is the packing factor of FCC crystal
r= structure?
4 (a) 0.64 (b) 0.68
FCC α 2 (c) 0.74 (d) 0.78
r= OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
4
UPPSC AE 2016
HCP r = α/2
RPSC AE 2018
where, α = lattic parameters SJVN ET 2019
r = atomic radius UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
674
Ans : (c) : Ans : (b) : The crystal structure of gamma iron is face
Type of cell Packing factor centered cubic.
Simple cubic (SC) – 0.52 142. What is coordination number BCC crystal
Hexagonal Close packed (HCP) – 0.74 structure?
Body centered cubic (BCC) – 0.68 (a) 4 (b) 8
Face-centered cubic (FCC) – 0.74 (c) 12 (d) 1
136. A solid + a liquid result in a liquid upon OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
heating during ______ reaction. Ans : (b) :
(a) Eutectic (b) Peritectic Crystal structure Coordination number
(c) Monotectic (d) Syntectic SC – 6
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I BCC – 8
Ans : (c) : Invariant reactions- FCC – 12
! Monotectic reaction : Liquid1→ Liquid2 +Solid HCP – 12 Formatted: Subscript
! Eutectic reaction : Liquid→ Solid1 +Solid2 143. Dislocation in materials is a --------defect.
! Eutectoid reaction : Solid1→ Solid2 +Solid3 (a) Point (b) Line
! Peritectic reaction : Liquid +Solid1→ Solid2 (c) Plane (d) Volumetric
! Peritectoid reaction : Solid1 + Solid2→ Solid3 BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 Formatted: Subscript
137. Which is false statement about annealing? (KPSC AE. 2015)
(a) Annealing is done to relieve stresses Ans : (b) Dislocation is materials is a line defects.
(b) Annealing is done to harden steel slightly Screw dislocation:- when a parts of Crystal displaces
(c) Annealing is done to improve machine angularly over the remaining about some edge, the
characteristics dislocation is called Screw dislocation.
(d) Annealing is done to soften material • Burger's Vector is parallel to the screw dislocation
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I line whose direction is perpendicular.
Ans : (b) : Annealing reduces the hardness of the steel 144. Atomic packing factor is:
completely and improve toughness, it is complete (a) volume fraction of atoms in cell
softening process and increase ductility. (b) distance between two adjacent atoms
138. Pearlite is a combination of : (c) projected area fraction of atoms on a plane
(a) Ferrite and cementite (d) None of the above
(b) Cementite and gamma iron (HPPSC LECT. 2016)
(c) Ferrite and austenite Ans : (a) Atomic Packing Factor (APF) :-The atomic
(d) Ferrite and iron graphite
packing fraction is defined as the ratio of total volume
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
of atoms per unit cell to the total volume of unit cell
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (a) : Pearlite consists of 87% ferrite (layer are Volume of atoms per unit cell
APF =
thick) and 13% cmentite (thin layer) arranged Total Volume of unit cell.
alternatively in a lamelle formation. 145. The Burger's vector lies parallel to the
139. The abbrviation T.T.T. Diagrams stand for : dislocation line along the axis of a line of atoms
(a) Tensile Temperature Time Diagrams in the same plane in :
(b) Time Temperature Transformations diagrams (a) Screw dislocation (b) Edge dislocation
(c) Temperature Time Testing Diagrams (c) Cracks (d) Vacancies
(d) Time Transformation Testing Diagrams HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans : (a) Screw dislocation:- When a part of Crystal
Ans : (b) : Time, Temperature, Transformations (TTT)
displaced angularly over the remaining about some
diagrams indicates transformation of austenite phase.
edge, the dislocation is called screw dislocation.
140. Eutectoid product in Fe-C system is called :
(i) Burger's vector is parallel to the screw dislocation
(a) Pearlite (b) Bainite
(c) Ledeburite (d) Spheroidite line, whose direction is perpendicular.
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I (ii) Screw dislocation creates shear stress and strain in
the crystal.
Ans: (a) Pearlite phase in a Fe-Fe3C diagram is a
eutectoidal mixture of ferrite and cementite. 146. The locations of atoms and their particular
Eutectoid reaction in Fe-Fe3C diagram takes place arrangement in a given crystal are described
at 0.77%C and 727ºC. by means of :
141. The crystal structure of gamma iron is : (a) Potential energy (b) Space lattice
(a) Body centred cubic (c) Intermolecular bond (d) Diffusion
(b) Face centred cubic HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
(c) Hexagonal close packed Ans : (b) The locations of atoms and their particular
(d) Cubic structure arrangement in a given crystal are described by means
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I of Space lattice.
675
Space lattice:- A space lattice is defined as an infinite array Ans : (d) Gibb's phase rule:-
of points in three dimensional space in which each points is F = C - P +2
identically spaced and located with respect to the other. F = Degree of freedom of the system
147. Which one of the following parameter is C = No. of components of the system
significant to ascertain chemical equilibrium of P = No. of phase in equilibrium in the system
a system ? ∗ The degree of freedom decreases as the no. of phase
(a) Clapeyron of equation increases
(b) Maxwell relation ∗ A two component system can not have more than 4
(c) Gibb's function phase in equilibrium.
(d) Helmholtz function 151. The set of miller indices of the plane shown in
(KPSC AE. 2015) the given figure is:
Ans : (c) Gibb's function is signification to ascertain
Chemical equilibrium of a system
Gibb's Phase rule : -
F= C - P + 2
F = Degree of freedom of the system
C = No of Components of the system
P = No of phase in equilibrium in the system.
• The degree of freedom decreases as the no of phases (a) (100) (b) (100)
increases (c) (101) (d) (110)
• A two Component System Can't not have more than
UJVNL AE 2016
4 phase in equilibrium.
Ans : (a) Intercept on Y and Z axis is ∞. So taking
148. (111) plane of a cube is:
(a) Vertical reciprocal it will be (0,0) on both x and y -axis .
(b) Horizontal Intercept on x axis is on the negative side of X-axis
(c) Inclined to HP ( 100)
(d) Inclined to both HP and VP
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I 152. How many space lattices does the Bravis
Ans : (d) Crystallographic (111) plane of a cube is lattices consist of?
inclined to both HP and HP. (a) 3 (b) 7
(c) 9 (d) 14
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Ans : (d) In geometry and crystallography, a Bravais
lattice. studied by Auguste Bravais (1850), is an infinite
array of discrete points in three dimensional space
generated by a set of discrete translation operation
described by:
R = n1 a 1 + n 2 a 2 + n 3 a 3
149. The atomic bond found in diamond is: were ni are any integers and ai are known as the
(a) Ionic (b) Covalent primitive vectors which lie in different directions and
(c) Metallic bond (d) None of these span the lattice. This discrete set of vectors must be
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I closed under vector addition and subtraction. For any
Ans : (b) The atomic bond found is diamond is covalent choice of position vector R, the lattice looks exactly the
bond. same.
Covalent Bond : It is also called homopolar bond. This When the discrete points are atoms, ions, or polymer
bond result by mutual sharing of valence electrons of strings of solid matter, the Bravais lattice concept is
identical atoms. The electronic structure of an atom is used to formally define a crystalline arrangement and
relatively stable it has eight electrons in its outer its (finite) frontiers. A crystal is made up of a periodic
valence shell, which sometimes an atom acquires by arrangement of one or more atoms (the basis) repeated
shearing electrons with an adjacent similar atom. at each lattice point. Consequently, the crystal looks the
Diamond, methane chlorine are typical examples. same when viewed from any equivalent lattice point,
150. Gibb's phase rule is given by :- P = number of namely those separated by the translation of one unit
phases, F = number of degree of freedom; C = cell (the motif).
number of components.
153. Schottky imperfection is a
(a) F = C + P (b) F = C + P - 2
(a) Point imperfection
(c) F = C - P - 2 (d) F = C - P + 2
(b) Line imperfection
UJVNL AE 2016
TNPSC AE 2018 (c) Surface imperfection
HPPSC LECT. 2016 (d) Volume imperfection
CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
676
 Ans : (a) schottky defect:-A schottky defect is a type 158. Pure iron is the structure of
of point defect in a crystal lattice named after Walter H. (a) Ferrite (b) Pearlite
Schottky. In non-ionic crystals it means a lattice (c) Austenite (d) Cementite
vacancy defect. In ionic crystals, the defect forms when UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
oppositely charged ions leave their lattice sites, creating Ans. (a) : Ferrite
vacancies. These vacancies are formed in 159. The eutectic percentage of carbon in iron is
stoichiometric units, to maintain an overall neutral (a) 0.025% (b) 0.15%
charge in the ionic solid. The vacancies are then free to (c) 2.03% (d) 4.33%
move about as their own entities. Normally these BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
defects will lead to a decrease in the density of the Ans : (d) : At eutectic point,
crystal. the followings are the chemical equations in
Kroger-Vink notation for the formation of Schottky 
Liquid ←
On colling
→ γ - iron + Fe3C
1150°C, 4.33°C Ledeburite
defects in TiO2 and BaTiO3
160. Crystal lattice structure for mild steel is:-
154. Match the List- I with the List- II and select the (a) Single cubic (b) BCC
correct answer using the codes given below: (c) FCC (d) HCP
List–I List–II UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
(Crystal Structure) (Packing Efficiency) Ans. (b) : Crystal lattice structure for mild steel is BCC.
A. Simple cubic 1. 0.34
161. Carbon content is highest in :-
B. Diamond cubic 2. 0.74
(a) Mild steel
C. Body centred cubic 3. 0.52 (b) Eutectoid steels
D. Face centred cubic 4. 0.68 (c) Hypoeutectoid steels
A B C D (d) Hypereutectoid steels
(a) 4 3 1 2 UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
(b) 3 1 4 2 Ans. (d) : Carbon content is highest in hypereutectoid
(c) 1 2 4 3 steels.
(d) 3 2 1 4 162. Coordination number for FCC crystal
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I structure is:-
Ans : (b) (a) 4 (b) 6
Crystal Structure Packing Efficiency (c) 8 (d) 12
Simple cubic 0.52 UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
Body centred cubic 0.68 Ans. (d) : Coordination number for FCC crystal
structure is 12.
Face centred cubic 0.74
163. Relationship between atomic radius ‘R’ and
Diamond cubic 0.34
unit cell length ‘a’ for BCC crystal structure
155. Which of the following statements is not true is:-
for austenitic stainless steels? 4R
(a) They are hardened and strengthened by cold (a) a = (b) a = 2 R 2
working 3
(b) They are most corrosion resistant amongst 2R
(c) a = (d) a = 3R 2
stainless steels 3
(c) Austenitic phase is extended to room UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
temperature Ans. (a) : Relationship between atomic radius ‘R’ and
(d) They are magnetic in nature 4R
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I unit cell length ‘a’ for BCC crystal structure is a = .
3
Ans. (d) : They are not magnetic in nature.
164. Which statement is not true in case of
156. Austenite decomposes into ferrite and martensite?
cementite at a temperature of:- (a) Crystal structure is BCC
(a) 727ºC (b) 1148ºC (b) Transformation does not involve diffusion
(c) 1495ºC (d) 1539ºC (c) Grains are plate like or needle like in
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I appearance
Ans. (a) : Austenite decomposes into ferrite and (d) It is a non-equilibrium phase
cementite at a temperature of 727ºC. UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
157. Eutectoid steel consists of:- Ans. (a) : Crystal structure is BCC is not true in case of
(a) Fully pearlite martensite.
(b) Fully Austenite 165. Dislocation in material is called
(c) Ferrite + Pearlite (a) Point defect (b) Line defect
(d) Cementite + Pearlite (c) Plane defect (d) Volumetric defect
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (a) : Eutectoid steel consists of fully pearlite. Ans. (b) : Line defect
677
166. Iron is ‘Face Centered Cubic (FCC) at which (a) Dye penetrante testing
one of the following temperatures ? (b) Ultrasonic testing
(a) Room temperature (c) X-ray testing
(b) 1400 °C (d) Visual testing
(c) 910 °C TNPSC AE 2018
(d) None of the above Ans. (a) : Dye penetrante test- Dye penetrante test also
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I called liquid penetrante inspection or penetrante testing
Ans. (c) : 910 °C testing is widely applied and low-cost inspection
method used to check surface braking defects in all non-
porous materials.
3. Mechanical Testing
171. Compressive test performed on cast iron will
have fracture occurring:-
167. Which of the following scale is not used to
(a) Along an oblique plane
measure the hardness of very hard materials?
(b) Along the axis of load
(a) Rockwell 'C' scale
(c) Perpendicular to the axis of load
(b) Brinell hardness scale
(d) None of the above
(c) Rockwell 'A' scale UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
(d) Rockwell 'B' scale
Ans. (a) : Compressive test performed on cast iron will
UPRVUNL AE 2016
have fracture occurring along an oblique plane.
Ans. (d) : Rockwell 'B' scale is not used to measure the
hardness of very hard materials. 172. In tensile test of mild steel, necking will start:-
(a) At lower yield stress
168. Brittle fracture takes place without any
(b) At upper yield stress
appreciable deformation and by rapid crack
(c) At ultimate tensile stress
propagation. The direction of crack
propagation is very nearly: (d) Just before fracture
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
1. Perpendicular to the direction of the applied
tensile stress Ans. (c) : In tensile test of mild steel, necking will start
2. Parallel to the direction of the applied tensile at ultimate tensile stress.
stress 173. In a compression test, the fracture in cast iron
3. At an angle 45° to the direction of the applied specimen would occur along
tensile stress (a) The axis of the load
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (b) An oblique
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) At right angle to the axis of specimen
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above
JWM 2017 UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Ans. (a) : In Brittle fracture, the direction of crank Ans : (b) In a compression test the fracture in cast iron
propagation is perpendicular to the direction of applied specimen would occur along an oblique plane.
tensile stress. 174. Which of the following tests can be used to
Brittle failure is due the principle stress. detect surface cracks in the welding of non-
169. Which of the following is non-destructive test magnetic alloys?
(a) tensile test (b) charpy test (a) Gamma ray test (b) X-ray test
(c) cupping test (d) radiography test (c) Flourescent test (d) Magnaflux test
TNPSC AE 2018 APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (d) Ans. (c) : Flourescent test can be used to defect surface
Non destructive test Destructive test crack in the welding of non-magnetic alloys.
Used for find out defect Used for find out the 175. The Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI)
of materials properties of the technique employed during inspection for
materials castings of tubes and pipes to check the overall
Load is not applied on Load is applied on the strength of a casting in resistance to bursting
the material material under hydraulic pressure is
No load application, so Due to load application, (a) Radiographic inspection
no chance for material material gets damaged. (b) Magnetic particle inspection
damage (c) Fluorescent penetrant
No expensive Expensive (d) Pressure testing
Example- Dye penetrant Example- Tensile, ESE 2020
test, ultrasonic, compression, hardness, Ans. (d) : Pressure testing
radiography x-ray test, charpy test, cupping test 176. Brinell tester use hardness steel ball of size.
visual test etc. etc. (a) 1 mm (b) 5 mm
170. The most inexpensive non-destructive method (c) 10 mm (d) 15 mm
of material testing is Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
678
Ans. (c) : Brinell tester use a hardness steel ball of size 181. A solid rod of circular cross-section made of
10 mm. brittle material, when subjected to torsion, fails
177. In compression test the fracture in cast iron along a plane at 45° to the axis of the rod.
specimen would along– Consider the following statements as pertaining
(a) An oblique plane there to:
(b) Along the axis of load 1. Distortion energy is maximum on this 45° plane
(c) At right angles to the axis of specimen 2. Shear stress is maximum on this 45° plane
(d) Fracture would not occur in cast iron 3. Normal stress is maximum on this 45° plane
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper Which of the above is/are correct?
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Ans. (a) : In Compression test the fracture in cast iron (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Specimen would occur along the oblique plane. ESE 2018
Ans. (c) : Brittle material shaft under pure torsion fail
along a plane at 45° to the axis of the shaft because they
are weak in tension and maximum tensile stress plane
will be at angle of 45° to the cross-section of shaft or
long axis of shaft.
182. Which one of the following pairs of tests has
been developed to evaluate the fracture
resistance of engineering materials, subjected
to dynamic loads or impacts?
(a) Tension impacts and bending impacts
(b) Tensile test and Brinell hardness test
178. The relationship between the guage length (L) (c) Vickers hardness test and Tensile test
and the cross sectional area (A) of the test (d) Scleroscope test and file test
specimen in a tensile testing is given by ESE 2018
Ans. (a) : To evaluate toughness or fracture resistance
(a) L = 5.65 A (b) A = 5.65 L
of a material which are subjected to a rapidly applied
(c) L = 8.65 A (d) A = 8.65 L load or impact, basically two types of tests are applied.
HPPSC AE 2018 (i) Bending impact
Ans. (a) : The relationship between the guage length (ii) Tension impact
(L) and the cross sectional area (A) of the test specimen 183. Indenter used in Brinell Hardness test is
in a tensile testing is given by L = 5.65 A (a) Square base pyramid diamond
179. Hardenability of steel is assessed by (b) Rectangular based pyramid diamond
(a) Charpy impact test (c) Sphere made of steel or tungsten carbide
(b) Rockwell hardnes test (d) Spero conical diamond
(c) Jominy end-quench test HPPSC AE 2018
(d) Open hole test Ans. (c) : Indenter used in Brinell hardness test is
ESE 2019 sphere made of steel or tungsten carbide.
Ans. (c) : Hardenability of steel is measured by Jominy
end-quench test.
180. The indentation on a steel sample has been
taken using 10 mm tungsten carbide ball at 500
kgf load. If the average diameter of the
indentation is 2.5 mm, the BHN will be nearly
(a) 90 (b) 100
(c) 110 (d) 120
ESE 2019
Ans. (b) : Given,
D = 10 mm D – Ball diameter
d = 2.5 mm d – Impression diameter
P = 500 kgf P – Load
Brinell hardness number HB – Brinell result
2P 2P
BHN = HB =

πD  D − D − d 
2 2 π D 

D − ( D − d ) 
2 × 500 184. Vicker's Pyramid Number (VPN) is equal to :
=
π× 10 10 − 10 2 − 2.52  2Psin θ Psin θ
(a) (b)
= 100.24 d2 d2
679
 P P
sin θ Psin θ (d) BHN =
(c) 2 2 (d)  πD   2 2
d 2d 2   D − D − d 
 2  
where P = Load in kg, θ = angle between opposite
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
faces of diamond pyramid, d = diameter of the TNPSC AE 2018
impression.
Ans : (d)
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
P
Ans. (c) : Vicker's pyramid Number (VPN) is equal to Brinell hardness Number =
 πD   2 2
P   D− D −d 
sin θ  2   
= 2
d 2 Brinell hardness number hardned steel boll is used as
! Angle between opposite faces is 1360. indenter.
185. The method of testing hardness by Brinell test
is based on the principle of
(a) Indentation (b) Fracture
(c) Scratching (d) Rebound
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (a) : Brinell hardness number hardened steel ball
is used as indentor.
Brinell hardness number
2P
=
πD  D − D 2 − d 2  189. Which of the following tests is also called Micro
  hardness Test?
186. The percentage reduction in area of a cast iron (a) Brinell test (b) Rockwell test
specimen during tensile test would be of the (c) Knoop test (d) Vickers test
order of UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
(a) more than 70% (b) 30 - 50% Ans : (c) Knoop test
(c) 10 - 25% (d) negligible
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 4. Ferrous, Non- Ferrous
Ans : (d) : The percentage reduction in area of a cast
iron specimen during test would be of the order of
Material and its Alloys
negligible because cast iron is a brittle materials.
190. Toughness of steel is increased by adding:-
187. In a tensile test on mild steel specimen, the (a) Nickel (b) Sulphur
breaking stress as compared to ultimate tensile (c) Chromium (d) Tungsten
stress is ESE 2020
(a) more UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
(b) less Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
(c) same Ans. (a) : Toughness of steel is increased by adding
(d) more/less depending on composition nickel.
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 191. Gun metal is a type of _____.
Ans : (b) : In a tensile test on mild steel specimen the (a) Aluminum bronze
breaking stress as compared to ultimate tensile stress is (b) Tin bronze
less. (c) Beryllium bronze
188. For applied load P kg, diameter of ball D mm (d) Silicon bronze
and diameter of indentation d mm, the Brinell (e) Copper and nickel alloy
hardness number is given by (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
P Ans. (b) : Gun Metal– Gun metal, also known as red
(a) B HN = brass, is a type of bronze – an alloy of copper, tin and
π 2 2
(D − D − d ) zinc. Proportions vary but 88% copper, 8-10% tin, and
2 2-4% zinc is an approximation originally used chiefly
D for making guns.
(b) B HN =
π Use–
(D − D − d )
2 2

2 ! Intricate, pressure-tight castings like pipe fitting,

P.D valves and pumps are made from gun metal.
(c) B HN = ! Bearing, where speeds and loads are moderate are
1
(D − D 2 − d 2 ) manufactured from gun metal and used in machinery.
2
680
192. Corrosion resistance of stainless steel is due to: (c) nickel-copper alloy
(a) Chromium (b) Carbon (d) copper-tin alloy
(c) Vanadium (d) Copper BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I Ans : (c) : Monel metal- It is an important alloy of
UJVNL AE 2016 nickel and copper. It contains 68% nickel, 29% copper
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 and 3% other constituents. It resembles nickel in
Ans : (a) Stainless steel: Stainless steel are also called appearance and is strong, ductile tough. It is superior to
corrosion resistance steel. Their major alloying element brass and bronze in corrosion resisting properties.
is high amount of chromium. Chromium reacts with 198. Addition of vanadium to steel results in the
oxygen to from a stronger layer of chromium of oxide improvement of
on the surface of the metals which acts as a barrier to (a) heat treatability by quenching
retard further oxidation, rust or corrosion and staining. (b) hardenability
On the basis of their structure, the stainless steel are (c) fatigue strength
classified as follows: (d) resistance to oxidation at elevated
(i) Austenitic stainless steel temperature
(ii) Ferritic stainless steel BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
(iii) Martensitic stainless steel Ans : (b) : Addition of vanadium to steel results in
193. Galvanizing is done with a thin layer of: improvement of hardenability.
(a) Zinc (b) Copper
(c) Lead (d) Silver
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I 199. The limitations of plain carbon steels include
Ans : (a) Hot dipping :– Thin protective coating of (a) poor hardenability
zinc, tin, aluminium or lead are applied on steel by this (b) major loss of hardness on tempering
method. Thoroughly cleaned steel is fluxed and passed (c) low corrosion resistance
through a bath of molten zinc, tin etc. The deposited (d) All of the above
thin layer is wiped clean to regulate its thickness and BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
uniformity.
Ans : (d) : The limitations of plain carbon steels
Zinc coating is given for galvanizing iron–sheets, boiler
includes-
cons, tanks, pipe set. Tin prevents electro–chemical
corrosion also. • poor hardenability
• major loss of hardness on tempering.
194. Titanium in the steel improves the
(a) hardness • Low corrosion resistance.
(b) strength 200. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by
(c) resistance to corrosion of steel addition of :
(d) strength and resistance to corrosion of steel (a) Sulphur, phosphorus, lead
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 (b) Chromium and nickel
Ans : (d) : Titanium in the steel improves the strength (c) Vanadium, aluminum
and resistance to corrosion of steel. (d) Tungsten, molybdenum, vanadium,
chromium
195. Points of arrest for iron correspond to :
(a) Stages at which allotropic forms changes OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
(b) Stages at which further heating does not Ans : (b) : Nickel improve tensile strength, raises
increase tamp for some time elastic limit, imparts hardness, toughness and increases
(c) Stages at which properties do not change with corrosion resistance.
increase in temperature Chromium increases strength, hardness and corrosion
(d) There is nothing like points of arrest resistance.
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I 201. Connecting rod is usually made of :
Ans : (a) : Points of arrest for iron correspond to stages (a) Aluminium
at which allotropic forms change. (b) Low carbon steel
196. Steel containing 0.8 to 1.5 percent carbon, is (c) Medium carbon steel
known as (d) High carbon steel
(a) mild steel OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
(b) dead-mild steel Ans : (c) : Connecting rod is usually made of medium
(c) medium-carbon steel carbon steel.
(d) high-carbon steel 202. Railway rails are normally made of
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II (a) mild steel (b) nickel alloy steel
Ans : (d) : Steel containing 0.8 to 1.5 percent carbon is (c) high carbon steel (d) tungsten steel
known as high carbon steel. TNPSC 2019
197. Monel metal is a OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
(a) nickel-zinc alloy Ans. (c) : Railway rails are normally made of high
(b) copper-zinc alloy carbon steel.

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203. Which of the following thermocouples has the 210. Brass is an alloy of:
lowest measuring range? (a) Copper and zinc
(a) Iron - Constantan (b) Copper and tin
(b) Chromel -Alumel (c) Copper, tin and zinc
(c) Copper - Constantan (d) None of the above
(d) Chromel - Constantan UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
TNPSC AE 2014 RPSC AE 2018
Ans. (c) : Copper - Constantan thermocouple has the SJVN ET 2019
lowest measuring range. Ans. (a) : Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc.
204. Bumper and other collision absorbing 211. Neat oils can be preferred while machining of :
materials is made up of (a) Gray cast iron
(a) Light alloys of Brass (b) Copper alloys
(b) Light alloys of Copper (c) Aluminium alloys
(c) Light alloys of Aluminium (d) Alloy steels
(d) Wood blocks TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
TNPSC AE 2017 Ans. (d) : Neat oils can be preferred while machining of
Ans. (c) : Bumper and other collision absorbing alloy steels.
materials is made up of Light alloys of Aluminium. 212. Stainless steel contains–
205. Wear resistance of steel is increased by adding, (a) Chromium, Iron and nickel
(a) nickel (b) chromium (b) Chromium and nickel
(c) sulphur (d) none of the above (c) Iron and carbon
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper (d) Chromium, iron, carbon and nickel
Ans. (b) : Wear resistance of steel is increased by Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
adding chromium. Ans. (d) : Stainless steel composition are- Chromium,
206. Hardness of steel is increased by adding, Iron and nickel carbon.
(a) nickel (b) chromium 213. Mild steel contains–
(c) sulphur (d) none of the above (a) less than 0.3% carbon
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper (b) 0.3 to 0.5% carbon
Ans. (b) : Hardness of steel is increased by adding, (c) 0.5 to 1.4% carbon
molybdenum.(some other also responsible for inc. (d) 3 to 4% carbon
Hardness like- chromium, tungsten Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
207. In free cutting steels, important alloying Ans. (a) : % C in mild or low carbon steel varies from
element is– 0.05% to 0.30%.
(a) nickel (b) chromium 214. Steels used for welded assemblies are–
(c) sulphur (d) tungsten (a) medium carbon steel (b) mild steel
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper (c) high carbon steel (d) alloy steel
Ans. (c) : In free cutting steels, important alloying Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
element is sulphur. Ans. (b) : Steels used for welded assemblies are mild
208. Medium carbon steels have carbon content in steel.
the range of ______ %. 215. Steels used for automobile bodies and hoods
(a) 0.30-0.60 (b) 0.08-0.30 are-
(c) 0.60-1.80 (d) 0.30-1.80 (a) medium carbon steel (b) high carbon steel
(e) 0.60-2.00 (c) alloy steel (d) mild steel
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper Ans. (d) : Steels used for automobiles bodies and hoods
Ans. (a) : Medium carbon steels have carbon content in are mild steel.
the range of 0.30 to 0.60%. 216. Steels used for helical springs are–
209. Theoretically, steels are the alloys of iron and (a) medium carbon steel (b) mild steel
carbon, in which carbon contents vary (c) high carbon steel (d) alloy steel
between: Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
(a) 0.008 – 2.1% (b) 0.008 – 2.05% Ans. (c) : Steels used for helical spring are high carbon
(c) 0.0008 – 2.1% (d) 0.0008 – 2.05% steel.
(e) 0.0008 – 1.8% 217. Material used for machine tool beds is–
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) (a) cast iron (b) mild steel
Ans. (a) : Steel Carbon Percent (C%) (c) high carbon steel (d) alloy steel
Mild steel (Low Carbon) 0.008 to 0.25% (Approx.) Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Medium-carbon steel Approximately 0.3 to 0.6% Ans. (a) : Material used for machine tool bed is cast
High-carbon steel Approximately 0.6 to 1.5% iron because it has high damping capacity and absorbs
Ultra-high carbon steel Approximately 1.5 to 2.1% vibrations
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218. Material used for Bearing bushes is– 225. An alloy produced by adding 1% of tin to
(a) Phosphor bronze (b) gunmetal Muntz metal is called as
(c) Babbitt (d) any one of the above (a) a brass (b) Admiralty brass
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper (c) Naval brass (d) Naval brass
Ans. (d) : Material used for bearing bushes is, phosphor ESE 2019
bronze, gun metal, Babbitt. APPSC AEE 2016
219. Material used for self-lubricated bearing is– Ans. (c) : Alpha (α)−beta (β) brass (Muntz metal), also
(a) Acetal called duplex brass, is 35 − 45% zinc and is suited for
(b) Polyurethane hot working.
(c) Polytetrafluroethylene (Teflon) ! An alloy produced by adding 1% of tin to Muntz
(d) any one of the above metal is called as Naval brass.
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper It contains 60% Cu, 39% Zn and 1% Sn
Ans. (d) : Any one of the above ! α-brass containing 75% Cu and 25% Zn. Prince's
220. Which of the following materials has maximum metal or prince Rupert's metal is a type of α-brass.
strength– ! Leaded brass is an alpha–beta brass with an addition
(a) grey cast iron (b) plain carbon steel of lead. It has excellent machinability.
(c) alloy steel (d) aluminium alloy ! Brass contain 29% Zn, 70% Cu and 1% Sn which
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper inhibits dezincification in the environment.
Ans. (c) : Alloy steel 226. Fe-C alloy containing less than 0.83% carbon is
221. Plain carbon steels are designated by, called
(a) carbon content (b) tensile strength (a) high-speed steel (b) hypo-eutectoid steel
(c) composition of alloying element (c) hyper-eutectoid steel (d) cast iron
(d) none of the above ESE 2018
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (b) :
Ans. (a) : Plain carbon steels are designated by carbon
content. ! Steels having less than 0.83% carbon are called
222. Plain carbon steel designated by 40C8 means, hypo-eutectoid steels.
(a) plain carbon steel with ultimate tensile ! Steels having more than eutectoid amount of carbon
strength of 400 N/mm2 and 0.8% carbon is known as hyper-eutectoid steels.
(b) plain carbon steel with 0.35 to 0.45% carbon 227. Addition of magnesium to cast iron increases
and 0.7 to 0.9% manganese its
(c) plain carbon steel with 0.8% carbon and 4% (a) hardness
manganese (b) corrosion resistance
(d) plain carbon steel with 40% carbon and 8% (c) creep strength
manganese (d) ductility and strength in tension.
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper ESE 2018
Ans. (b) : Plain carbon steel designated by 40C8 means, Ans. (d) : By addition of magnesium in cast iron, the
plain carbon steel with 0.35 to 0.45% carbon and 0.7 to shape of graphite flakes can be modified into nodules
0.9% manganese. (spheres), which increases its ductility, strength and
223. Consider the percentages of the following fluidity.
metals 228. Consider the following statements regarding
1. Co (40 to 50%) 2. Cr (34% to 39%) solid solution of metals:
3. W (14 to 19%) 4. C (2%) 1. The solubility of metallic solids is primarily
Identify the metals that make up the cast alloy limited by size factor.
Satellite. 2. A metal with high valence can dissolve large
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 amount of metal of lower valence.
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 3. A metal with same lattice crystal structure can
(e) 1 and 4 form a series of solid solutions
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift 4. The limit of solid solubility is indicated by a
Ans. (c) : 1, 2, 3 and 4 phase boundary called Liquidus.
224. The distinct characteristic of Invar is Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) It is magnetic (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(b) it has low coefficient of thermal expansion (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and
(c) It has high tensile strength ESE 2018
(d) It is non corrosive
Ans. (c) :
ESE 2019 (i) The solubility of metallic solid is limited by
Ans. (b) : Invar is a nickel-iron alloy notable for its relative size factor i.e. difference between the
uniquely low coefficient of thermal expansion. atomic radius of atoms must not be greater
It contains 64% iron and 36% nickel. than 15%.
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(ii) A metal with lower valence can dissolve large (b) doped silicon, nickel, pure silica, sodium
amount of metal having higher valence. silicate
(iii) When crystal structure of solute and solvent is (c) nickel, pure silica, sodium silicate, doped
same then it can form a series of solid solution or silicon.
if results into extensive solubility. (d) sodium silicate, nickel, pure silica, doped
(iv) The limit of solid solubility is indicated by a silicon.
phase boundary called solves. ESE 2017
229. Consider the following statements: Ans. (a) : Increasing order of resistivity of metal
1. HSS tools wear very rapidly, whereas in Nickel (10−7) < Doped silicon (10−4) < Sodium (2) <
cemented carbide tools, even though hardness Pure silicate silica (104)
is retained, crater wear can occur due to solid- 233. The maximum percentage of the carbon
state diffusion. content in steels is
2. Cutting tools made of Super-HSS, also known (a) 1.2% (b) 2%
as cobalt-based HSS, are made by adding 2% (c) 4% (d) 6.67%
to 15% of cobalt which increases the cutting HPPSC AE 2018
efficiency at heavier cuts by increasing the Ans. (b) : Mild [low carbon] steel – Approximately
hot hardness and wear resistance. 0.05% to 0.25% carbon
3. Tools failure due to excessive stress can be Medium carbon steel – Approximately 0.30% to 0.60%
minimized by providing small or negative carbon content
rake angles on brittle tool materials, High carbon steel – Approximately 0.60% to 0.95%
protecting tool tip by providing large side- carbon content
cutting edge angles, and honing a narrow Very high carbon steel – Approximately 0.95% to 2.1%
chamfer along the cutting edge. carbon content
Which of the above statements are correct? Cast Iron – Approximately 2.1% to 4% carbon
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
234. If a steel is designated as C8O, which of the
ESE 2018
following is correct for it?
Ans. (d) : (i) When HSS tool is used at higher cutting C ≡ tool steel
temperature, then due to plastic deformation and crater (a)
wear, it wears very rapidly. Crater wear occurs at some 80 ≡ 80% Iron
distance away from tool tip on tool face. It is mainly (b) C ≡ plain carbon steel
due to high temperature where solid state diffusion can 80 ≡ 0.8% carbon
cause rapid wear. (c) C ≡ tool steel
(ii) Super HSS is a molybdenum series high-speed steel 80 ≡ 0.8% carbon
alloy with an additional 8% or 10% cobalt. (d) C ≡ plain carbon steel
(iii) By reducing rake angle the strength of tool 80 ≡ 80% Iron
increases hence by providing small or negative rake UPRVUNL AE 2016
angles the tool failure can be avoided.
Ans. (b) : If a steel is designated as C8O means
230. Statement (I): The ideal material for shafts C ≡ plain carbon steel
transmitting power is CI.
80 ≡ 0.8% carbon
Statement (II): CI resists compression well.
ESE 2017 235. An addition of manganese to aluminium results
Ans. (d) : Cast iron (CI) is brittle in nature, so its in the improvement of :
torsional strength is less hence can not used as shaft. (a) Strength characteristics
So, statement-I is false. (b) Corrosion resistance
(c) Hardernability
Cast iron (CI) is strong in compression but weak under
tension. (d) Toughness system
JWM 2017
231. Which one of the following alloying elements
Ans. (a) : Strength characteristics of aluminium is
increases the corrosion resistance of steel?
(a) Vanadium (b) Chromium improved by adding manganese in it.
(c) Nickel (d) Copper 236. Which of the following ceramic materials are
ESE 2017 applications?
Ans. (b) : Chromium is the main constituent (a) Alumina and zirconium oxides
responsible for increasing the corrosion resistant of steel (b) Boron titanate and silicon carbide
and because of it stainless steel in industry frequently (c) Barium titanate and lead-zirconate-titanate
termed as high chrome low chrome steel. (d) Porcelain and fused silica glass
232. The correct order of increasing resistivity JWM 2017
among the following materials is Ans. (c) : • Barium titanate is mostly used in thermistor
(a) nickel, doped silicon, sodium silicate, pure • Lead zirconate titanate is used to make ultrasound
silica transducers and sensors.
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237. 18/8 stainless steel consists of : 242. While machining cast iron generally cutting
(a) 18% Nickel and 8% Chromium fluid is not required because
(b) 18% Chromium and 8% Nickel (a) Cast iron jobs revolves at low speeds
(c) 18% Nickel and 18% Chromium (b) Cast iron surface is generally rough
(d) 8% Nickel and 8% Chromium (c) Cast iron contains graphite which does not
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 allow temperatures to rise
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I (d) Cast iron contains carbon which cools the job
Ans. (b) : Stainless steel contains 18% chromium and Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
8% Nickel. It is austenitic stainless steel. Ans. (c) : In machining of cast iron, no cutting fluid is
238. Alloy containing 70% nickel and 30% copper is required because, soluble oils are used for machining
known as metals of high machinability. Cast iron contains
(a) Hastalloy (b) Monel metal graphite which work as a lubricant which does not
(c) N-C alloy (d) Permalloy allow the temperatures to rise.
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
243. A cast iron designated by BM350 is,
Ans : (b) : Alloy containing 70% nickel and 30% (a) blackheart malleable cast iron with carbon
copper is known as monel metal. content of 3.5%
239. Among the following materials, the most (b) blackheart malleable cast iron with ultimate
suitable material for which standing shock and tensile strength of 350N/mm2
vibration without danger of cracking is (c) blackheart malleable cast iron with ultimate
(a) chilled cast iron (b) gray cast iron compressive strength of 350 N/mm2
(c) malleable cast iron (d) white cast iron
(d) Blackheart malleable cast iron with tensile
TNPSC AE 2018
yield strength of 350 N/mm2
Ans. (c) : Malleable cast iron have the most suitable Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
material for with standing shock and vibration without
danger of cracking. Ans. (b) : A cast iron designated by BM350 is
blackheart malleable cast iron with ultimate tensile
240. The principal mechanism by which non-ferrous strength of 350 N/mm2.
alloys are heat treated is called:
244. The pouring temperature for grey cast iron is
(a) Flame hardening
(a) 1000 oC (b) 1250 oC
(b) Induction hardening o
(c) Age hardening (c) 1400 C (d) 1550 oC
(d) Precipitation hardening SJVN ET 2013
(e) Case hardening Ans. (c) : The pouring temperature of gray cast iron is
o
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) 1400 C
Ans. (d) : Precipitation Hardening or Age 245. In cast iron components, shrinkage cavities are
Hardening–Precipitation hardening is commonly used formed due to–
to process aluminum alloys and other non-ferrous (a) cored holes at the junction of walls
metals for commercial use. The example are (b) very small fillet radius
Aluminum–Copper, Copper–Beryllium, Copper–Tin, (c) concentration of metal at the junction of walls
Magnesium–Aluminum and some ferrous alloys. (d) very thin wall thickness
The Process is called precipitation hardening because the Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
small particles of the new phase are termed "Precipitates" Ans. (c) : In cast iron components, shrinkage cavities
Mechanism of Hardening– are formed due to concentration of metal at the junction
During plastic deformation: of walls.
! Zones or Precipitates act as obstacles to dislocation 246. Piston compression rings are made of
motion. (a) Cast iron (b) Bronze
! Stress must be increased to 'Push' the dislocation
(c) Aluminium (d) White metal
through the distribution of precipitates.
! Consequently the alloy becomes harder and RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
stronger. Ans. (a) : Piston compression rings are made of cost
iron.
241. Cast irons contain a higher carbon content,
normally between 3.0 and 4.5 wt% c, and other 247. An important property of malleable cast iron
alloying elements, notably _________ in comparison to grey cast iron is having high
(a) Silicon (b) Phosphorous (a) Compressive strength (b) Yield strength
(c) Magnesium (d) Aluminium (c) Hardness (d) Surface finish
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper TNPSC 2019
Ans. (a) : Cast-iron is obtained by remelting pig iron Ans. (b) : An important property of malleable cast iron
with coke and lime stone in a furnace (cupola). It is in comparison to grey cast iron is having high Yield
primarily alloying of iron & carbon. The carbon content in strength.
cost iron varies from 1.7 to 4.5%. The cost iron contain 248. Which of the following alloys possess highest
some small amount of impurities, such as silicon (4%), specific strength of all structural materials?
Sulphur magnesium and phosphorous (1%). (a) Magnesium alloys (b) Titanium alloys
685
 (c) Chromium alloys (d) Magnetic steel alloys 254. The machinability of steel is improved by
TNPSC 2019 adding
Ans. (b) : Titanium alloys are metals that contain a (a) Nickel
mixture of titanium and other chemical elements. Such (b) Chromium
alloys have very high tensile strength and toughness (c) Nickel and Chromium
(even at extreme temperature). They are light in weight, (d) Sulphur, lead and phosphorus
have extraordinary corrosion resistance and the ability Gujarat PSC AE 2019
to withstand extreme temperature. Ans : (d) : The machinabiltiy of steel is improved by
249. Duralumin alloy contains aluiminum and adding sulphur, lead and phosphorous.
copper in the ratio of 255. Which of the following material is used for
% Al % Cu
manufacturing of extrusion nozzles?
(a) 94% 4%
(a) Grey cast iron (b) Malleable cast iron
(b) 90% 8%
(c) 88% 10% (c) White cast iron (d) Nodular cast iron
(d) 86% 12% UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
TNPSC 2019 Ans : (c) White cast iron material is used for
Ans. (a) : Duralumin is an alloy made up of 94% manufacturing of extrusion nozzle because it is very
aluminium, 4% copper, 1% magnesium and 0.5% to 1% hard and brittle.
manganese. It is a very hard alloy. White cast iron:- It is a particular variety of cast iron
Duralumin, strong, hard, lightweight alloy of aluminium having 1.75 to 2.3% carbon. The white colour is due to
widely used in aircraft construction. the fact that the carbon is in the form of carbide, which
250. A cast iron designated by FG300 is, is the hardest constituent of iron. The white cast iron
(a) grey cast iron with carbon content of 3% has a high tensile strength and a low compressive
(b) grey cast iron with ultimate tensile strength of strength.
300 N/mm2 256. The melting point of mild steel is about
(c) grey cast iron with ultimate compressive (a) 1250°C (b) 1500°C
strength of 300 N/mm2 (c) 850°C (d) 1750°C
(d) grey cast iron with tensile yield strength of (KPSC AE 2015)
300 N/mm2
Ans : (b) The melting point of mild steel is about
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper 1500°C
Metal Melting point
Ans. (b) : Grey cast iron with ultimate tensile strength
of 300 N/mm2. Aluminum 659°C
251. The presence of hydrogen in steel causes : Copper 1081°C
(a) Reduced neutron absorption cross-section Gold 1064°C
(b) Improved weld ability Silver 960°C
(c) Embrittlement Tin 232°C
(d) Corrosion resistance Zinc 419°C
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I 257. Major constituents of satellite are
Ans : (c) : The presence of hydrogen in steel causes (a) Nickel, copper and zinc
embrittlement. (b) Zinc, lead and tin
252. Wt.% of carbon in mild steels : (c) Cobalt, vanadium and nickel
(a) < 0.008 (b) 0.008-0.3 (d) Cobalt, chromium and tungsten
(c) 03-0.8 (d) 0.8-2.11 (KPSC AE 2015)
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I Ans : (d) Major constituents of satellite are cobalt,
Ans : (b) : Mild steel is a low carbon steel. chromium and tungsten.
(i) Dead mild steel : Upto 0.15% carbon 258. Which the percentage increase of carbon in steel
(ii) Low carbon steel or mild steel : 0.15% to 0.45%
(a) brittleness of steel decreases
carbon
(b) Strength of steel decreases
(iii) Medium carbon steel : 0.45% to 0.8% carbon
(c) Ductility of steel decreases
(iv) High carbon steel : 0.8% to 1.5% carbon
(d) Hardness of steel decreases
253. High carbon steel contains carbon
(KPSC AE 2015)
(a) Between 0.05 and 0.6%
(b) Between 0.6 and 1.3% Ans : (c)
(c) Between 1.3 and 1.7% Alloying elements Effect on steel
(d) More than 1.7% Carbon Ductility of steel decrease
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 Vanadium Increase endurance strength
Ans : (b) : High carbon steel contains carbon 0.6 and Molybdenum Improves creep properties
1.3%. Chromium Increase hardness.
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259. In low carbon steels, the presence of small Pig iron:- It is the crude form of iron and is used as a
quantities of sulphur improves raw materials for the production of various other ferrous
(a) Formability (b) Machinability metals, such as cost iron, wrought iron and steel. The
(c) Weldability (d) Hardenability pig iron is obtained by smelting iron ores in a blast
Maharashtra PSC AE Pre 2019 furnace. The hematite is widely used for the production
KPSC AE 2015 of pig iron since pyrite contains only 30 to 40% iron,
Ans : (b) In low carbon steels, the presence of small therefore it is not used for manufacturing pig iron.
quantities of sulpher improves machinability. 263. When carbon in the cast iron is mostly in free
Low carbon steel Properties on low state, the cast iron is known as :
Alloy metal carbon steel (a) Molted cast iron (b) White cast iron
Sulpher Machinability (c) Grey cast iron (d) Black cast iron
Manganese Yield point and resistance HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
increase Ans : (c) When carbon in the cast iron is mostly in free
Silicon Prevent them fro becoming state, the cost iron is known as grey cast iron.
porous OR make the steel Grey cast iron:- It contains 3 to 3.5 percent carbon.
tougher and harder The gray colour is due to the fact that carbon is present in
260. Which of the following is used for bearing the form of free graphite. It is widely used for machine tool
liner? bodies, flywheels. Pipes and pipe fittings etc.
(a) Bronze (b) Babbit metal 264. The percentage of carbon in cast iron usually
(c) Gun metal (d) brass varies between :
(KPSC AE 2015) (a) 0.1 to 0.2% (b) 0.5 to 1.0%
(c) 1.5 to 2.5 % (d) 2.5 to 3.5 %
Ans : (b) Babbit metal is used for bearing liner.
(KPSC AE. 2015)
Babbit metal:- The tin base and lead base babbits are
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
widely used as a bearing materials because they satisfy
most requirements for general application. The babbits Ans : (d) The Cast iron is obtained by re-melting pig
are recommended where the maximum bearing pressure iron with coke and lime stone in a furnace known as
is not over 7 to 14 N/mm2. Cupola. It is primarily an alloy of iron and carbon. The
Carbon Contents in Cast iron varies from 1.7% to 4.5%.
Babbit metal
It is also Contains small amount of silicon. Manganese,
Phosphorous and sulpher.
Tin base babbit metal Lead base babbit metal 265. Bronze used for church bells contain:
Tin = 90% Lead - 84% (a) No copper (b) 4 to 8% of tin
Copper = 4.5% Tin - 6% (c) 1 to 4% of tin (d) 15 to 25% of tin
Antimony = 5% Antimony = 9.5% OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
Lead = 0.5 % Copper =- 0.5% Ans : (d) Bell metal : Bell metal is a hard alloy used
for making bells and related instruments, such as
261. ............... is used as an alloying element to
cymbals. It is a form of Bronze, usually in
enhance the endurance strength of steel
approximately a 4:1 ratio to tin (e.g 78% copper, 22%
materials.
tin by mass)
(a) Tungsten. (b) Molybdenum
(c) Nickel (d) Vanadium 266. Among the following characteristics, one is
NOT the characteristic of austenitic stainless
(HPPSC LECT. 2016)
steel :
Ans : (d) Vanadium is used as an alloying element
(a) Toughness (b) Corrosion resistance
to enhance the endurance strength of steel materials. (c) Brittleness (d) Resilience
Alloy element Effect OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
Nickel Hardenability
Ans : (c) Brittleness is not the characteristic of
Chromium hardness and corrosion resistance austenitic stainless steel.
Vanadium Increase yield strength Austenitic stainless steel: 15-20% Cr, 7-10% Ni
Tungsten Hot Hardness * High ductility (18/8 stainless steel) are non magnetic
262. The first product in the process of converting * Titanium and niobium added to stabilise the carbon.
iron ore into useful metal from a blast furnace 267. Addition of Magnesium to cast iron increases
is known as : its:
(a) Cast iron (b) Wrought iron (a) Hardness (b) Ductility
(c) Pig iron (d) Steel (c) Corrosion resistance (d) Creep strength
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
Ans : (c) The First product in the processes of Ans : (b) Addition of Magnesium to cast iron increases
converging iron are into useful metal from a blast its Ductility Tensile Strength. The cast iron also
furnace is known as pig iron. contains small amounts of impurities such as silicon,
687
sulphur, manganese and phosphorus. The effect of these 271. Muntz metal contains
impurities on cost iron are as follows. (a) 70% Copper, 30% Zinc
Silicon : It may be present in cast iron upto 4%. It (b) 60% Copper, 40% Zinc
provides the formation of free graphite makes the iron (c) 59% Copper, 40% Zinc, 1% Tin
soft and easily machinable. (d) 60% Copper, 35% Zinc, 5% Nickel
Sulpher : It makes the cast iron hard and brittle. It must TSPSC AEE 2015
be kept well below 0.1% for most foundry purpose. Ans : (b)
Manganese : It makes the cost iron white and hard. It is 60% copper + 40% zinc.
often kept below 0.75%. Muntz Metal or Yellow metal:-
Phosphorus : It adis fusibility and fluidity in cast iron It is the best known α − β (60 : 40) hot working brass.
but induced brittleness. It rarely allowed to exceed 1%.
In the cast state the microstructure is of a widmanstatten
268. Which of the following has least percentage of
type, with α at the grain bounderies and along the
carbon?
(a) Malleable cast iron (b) Pig iron crystal planes of the β constituent. Hot- working
(c) Stainless steel (d) Wrought iron refines the structure giveing a more uniform
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I distrubution of α in a matrix of β
Ans : (d) Wrought iron : It is the purest iron which Composition:-
contains 99.5% iron but may contain upto 99.9%. The Copper = 60%
carbon content is about 0.02% It is a tough, malleable Zinc = 40%
and ductile material. It cannot stand sudden and 2 to 3.5% lead is added where machinability is required
excessive shocks. It can be easily forged or welded. to be improved. Lead causes the machining chips to
269. White metal is an alloy of : break up into small pieces.
(a) Lead + Tin (b) Lead + Bismuth 272. An alloy of copper, tin and zinc is known as
(c) Lead + Zinc (d) Lead + Aluminum (a) brass (b) bronze
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I (c) muntz metal (d) Gun metal
Ans : (a) The white metals are any of several light– TSPSC AEE 2015
coloured alloys used as a base for plated silverware, Ans : (d) Zinc is used as a deoxidiser. It cleans the
ornaments or novelties, as well as any of several lead– metal and increase the fluidity of the casting. A small
based or tin–based alloys used for things like bearings, amount of lead many be added to improve castability
jewellery, miniature figures, fusible plugs, some medals and machinability
and metal type.
A white metal alloy may include antimony, tin, lead,
cadmium, bismuth, and zinc (some of which are quite
toxic). Not all of these metals are found in all white
metal alloys. Metals are mixed to achieve a desired goal
or need. As an example,. base metal for jewellery needs
to be castable, polishable, have good flow 273. Mild steel is a
characteristics, have the ability to cast fine detail (a) low carbon steel (b) medium carbon steel
without an excessive amount of porosity and cast at (c) high carbon steel (d) high speed steel
between 2300C and 3000C (4500F and 5750F). TSPSC AEE 2015
270. Which of the following generally made of High Ans : (a)
carbon steel? (i) Dead mild steel:- up to 0.15% carbon
(a) Hammers (b) Angle iron (ii) Low carbon steel or mild steel:- 0.15% to 0.45%
(c) Solid drawn tubes (d) Boiler plates carbon
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I (iii) Medium carbon steel:- 0.45% to 0.8% carbon
Ans : (a) High Carbon Steel : High carbon steels has a (iv) High carbon steel:- 0.8% to 1.5% carbon.
carbon content of 0.7% to 1.5%. it has a maximum
274. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by
strength of 1400 N/mm2 when carbon is 0.8%
thereafter its hardness increases but ductility decreases adding
with increase of carbon. It is hard, less ductile and is (a) Carbon (b) Manganese
almost always fully heat–treated before being used. Its (c) Magnesium (d) Chromium
properties vary with the carbon content and method of TSPSC AE 2015
heat treatment, but in general the lower the carbon TNPSC AE 2018
content the tougher the steel is, and the higher the Ans : (d) Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by
carbon content the harder and less shock–resistance the adding chromium. Effect of elements on steel
steel. High carbon steel with carbon content of 1% to Element Effect
1.5% is called tool steel. Chromium Corrosion resistance
Used : It is used for hand tools, press tools, machine Boron Increase hardenability
parts, files reamers, metal cutting saws, hammer, twist Nickel Toughness
drills, Mandrels etc. Carbon Increas strength.
688
275. Y- alloy is an alloy of 280. White machining cast iron which of its
(a) Nickel (b) Aluminum elements turns hands black
(c) Copper (d) Tin (a) Iron (b) Sulphur
TSPSC AEE 2015 (c) Graphite (d) Nickel
Ans : (b) Some widely used aluminum alloys are UJVNL AE 2016
(i) Duralumin (ii) Y – alloy Ans : (b) Cast Iron:- The cast iron is obtained by re-
(iii) Maghalium (iv) Hindalium. melting pig iron with coke and limestone in a furnace
Y - alloy composition:- known as cupola. It is primarily an alloy of iron and
Copper = 4 % carbon. the carbon contents in cast iron varies from 1.7
Nickel = 2% per cent to 4.5 percent. It also contains small amounts of
Magnesium = 1.5% silicon, manganese, phosphorous and sulphur. the
Silicon = 0.5 % carbon in a cast iron is present in either of the following
Iron = 0.5 % two forms:-
Aluminum = Remainder (92.5%) 1. Free carbon or graphite
276. The raw material required for making pig iron 2. Combined carbon or cementite
ore 281. Which of the following characteristics is
(a) coal, limestone, ore possessed by Nickel?
(b) ore, coke, wrought iron (a) Paramagnetic (b) Ferromagnetic
(c) coke, limestone, ore (c) Non- magnetic (d) Die electric
(d) coal, coke ore UJVNL AE 2016
TSPSC AEE 2015 Ans : (b) Ferromagnetic characteristics are possessed
Ans : (c) The raw material required for making pig iron some metal—Fe, Ni and CO.
are coke, limestone, ore. Ferromagnetism:- Iron, nickel, cobalt and some of the
277. Yellow brass also known as rare earths (gadolinium, dysprosium) exhibit a unique
(a) Cartridge brass (b) Gun metal magnetic behavior which is called ferromagnetism
(c) Naval brass (d) Muntz metal because iron (ferrum in Latin) is the most common and
TSPSC AEE 2015 most dramatic example. Sararium and neodymium in
Ans : (d) Muntz-metal OR yellow metal:- It is best alloy with cobalt have been used to fabricate very
known α + β (60:40) alloys hot working brass. In the strong rare-earth magnets.
cast state the microstructure is of a widmanstatten type, 282. Babbit metal is an alloy of
with α at the grain boundaries and along the crystal (a) Sn and Cu (b) Sn, Cu, Sb and Pb
planes of the β. constituent. Hot working refines the (c) Sn, Cu and Pb (d) Sn, Cu and Sb
structure giving a more uniform distribution of α in a UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
matrix of β. Ans : (b) Babbit metal is an alloy of Sn, Cu, Sb and Pb.
Composition:- Babbit metal:- The term white metal covers both tin-
Copper = 60% base and lead-base bearing alloys. These are usually
Zinc = 40% referred to as babbits. Being alloys of several metals,
they have a non- homogeneous microstructure. This
278. The bourdon tubes are generally made of imparts to it antifrictional properties.
(a) Mild steel
(b) Bronze or Nickel steel 283. Which of the following elements determine
(c) Tin maximum attainable hardness in the steel?
(d) Copper (1) Chromium (2) Manganese
TSPSC AEE 2015 (3) Carbon (4) Molybdenum
Select the correct answer using codes given
Ans : (b) The Bourden tubes are generally made of below.
Bronze or nickel steel. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
279. Iron carbon alloy with less than 2% carbon is (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 4
called UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
(a) cast iron (b) pig iron Ans : (c) Carbon elements determine maximum
(c) steel (d) wrought iron attainable hardness in the steel. Effects of alloying
TSPSC AEE 2015 carbon elements in steel:-
Ans : (c) Iron carbon alloy with less then 2% carbon is (i) Increase hardness
called steel. (ii) Increase Tensile strength
Type of Steel:- (iii) Lower melting point
Steel Type % of carbon (iv) Reduces ductility
Dead mild steel upto-0.15% 284. Which one of the following is closest to the
Low carbon or mild steel 0.15-0.30% purest form of iron?
Medium Carbon Steel 0.3-0.6% (a) Cast iron (b) Wrought iron
High Carbon Steel 0.6-1.5% (c) Grey cast iron (d) Mild steel
Tool Steel 0.9-1.5% UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
689
Ans. (b) : Wrought iron is closest to the purest form of 291. Babbit metal is an alloy of which one of the
iron. following ?
285. Addition of magnesium to cast iron increases (a) Lead and Tin
its:- (b) Lead and Magnesium
(a) Hardness (b) Corrosion resistance (c) Tin and Bismuth
(c) Creep resistance (d) Ductility (d) None of the above
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I UKPSC AE 2012, 2007 Paper-I
Ans. (d) : Addition of magnesium to cast iron increases Ans. (a) : Lead and Tin
its ductility. 292. Griffith theory of failure is suitable for
286. Important property requirements for tool (a) Mild Steel
materials employed for high speed machining (b) Low Carbon Steel
are:- (c) Alloy Steel
(a) Impact strength, melting point and hardness (d) Glass
(b) Hot hardness, wear resistance and toughness UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(c) Melting point, toughness and shear strength Ans. (d) : Glass
(d) Shear strength, wear resistance and impact 293. Mild Steel is an example of
strength (a) Substitution solid solution
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I (b) Interstitial solid solution
Ans. (b) : Important property requirements for tool (c) Inter metallic compound
materials employed for high speed machining are hot (d) None of the above
hardness, wear resistance and toughness UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
287. Which one of the following is the ferrous Ans. (b) : Interstitial solid solution
material ?
294. Bronze contains
(a) Zinc (b) Iron
(a) 70% Cu and 30% Zn
(c) Silicon Carbide (d) Copper
(b) 90% Cu and 10% Zn
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I (c) 75% Cu and 25% Zn
Ans. (b) : Iron (d) None of the above
288. Babbit materials are used for UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(a) Gears (b) Bearings JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
(c) Bolts (d) Clutch liners Ans. (b) : 90% Cu and 10% Zn
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
295. The processes, used to make the steel
Ans. (b) : Bearings magnetically softer, are
289. The ultimate tensile strength of low Carbon (a) Annealing and Decarburization
Steel by working at high strain rate will (b) Decarburization and Quenching
(a) increase (c) Annealing, Grain growth and Decarburization
(b) decrease (d) Grain growth and Quenching
(c) remain constant UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(d) first increase, then decrease
Ans. (c) : Annealing, Grain growth and Decarburization
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
296. German silver is an alloy of
Ans. (a) : increase
(a) Silver and Tin
290. Match the items in List – 1 to that of the List – (b) Silver and Gold
2 and choose the correct alternative. (c) Nickel and Copper
List – 1 List – 2 (d) Nickel, Copper and Zinc
A. Alnico V 1. Metallic Magnet UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
B. Ferrexodur 2. Ceramic Magnet
Ans. (d) : Nickel, Copper and Zinc
C. Nickel Oxide 3. Anti ferromagnetic
D. Ferrites 4. Compounds 297. The percentage of carbon in low carbon steel is
containing trivalent (a) 0.15 (b) 0.30
iron (c) 0.50 (d) 0.70
5. Ferrimagnetic UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
6. Soft magnetic Ans. (a) : 0.15
Alternatives : 298. Very high strength in Aluminium alloys is
A B C D obtained by
(a) 1 2 3 4 (a) precipitation hardening
(b) 6 2 3 4 (b) solid solution hardening
(c) 4 6 1 2 (c) cold working
(d) 2 1 6 1 (d) annealing
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Ans. (a) : A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 Ans. (a) : Precipitation hardening
690
299. Which of the following metals has the lowest Ans. (c) : The percentage of carbon in gray cast iron is
specific gravity? the range of 3 to 4%.
(a) Monal metal (b) Copper 306. In case of ferromagnetic materials, the spin
(c) Magnesium (d) Bronze
moments associated with two sets of atoms are
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
aligned
Ans. (c) : Magnesium (a) parallel to each other
300. Nickel is mostly found in (b) anti-parallel to each other
(a) Russia (b) Canada (c) anti-parallel but unequal magnitude
(c) Russia and Canada (d) Russia and India
(d) randomly
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (c) : Russia and Canada
Ans. (a) : In case of ferromagnetic materials, the spin
301. Increase in ferrite phase in steel leads to
moments associated with two sets of atoms are aligned
increase in:-
parallel to each other.
(a) Strength (b) Hardness
(c) Ductility (d) Brittleness 307. Beryllium is used chiefly as an alloy addition to
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I copper for producing
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I (a) precipitation - hardenable alloy
Ans. (c) : Increase in ferrite phase in steel leads to (b) corrosion resistance alloy
increase in ductility. (c) high - strength alloy
302. Slow plastic deformation in metals under a (d) non - magnetic and non-sparking alloy
static load over a period of time is:- TNPSC AE 2018
(a) Fatigue (b) Endurance Ans. (d) : Beryllium is used chiefly as an alloy addition
(c) Creep (d) Dislocation to copper for producing non - magnetic and non-
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I sparking alloy.
Ans. (c) : Slow plastic deformation in metals under a 308. Perm alloy is
static load over a period of time is creep. (a) a non-ferrrous alloy used in aircraft industry
(b) a polymer
5. Heat Treatment Processes (c) a nickel and iron alloy having high
permeability
303. Low carbon steel: (d) a kind of stainless steel
(a) has lowest tensile strength relative to high TNPSC AE 2018
carbon steel Ans. (c) : Perm alloy is a nickel and iron alloy having
(b) has carbon percentage upto 1.5% high permeability.
(c) is ideal steel for heat treatment
309. Balls for ball bearings are made of
(d) is harder than high carbon steel
(a) High carbon
UPRVUNL AE 2016
(b) Mild steel
Ans. (a) : Low carbon steel—Low carbon steel
(c) Stainless steel
contains approximately 0.05 to 0.30% carbon making it
malleable and ductile. Mild steel has a relatively low (d) Carbon-chrome steel
tensile strength relative to high carbon steel, but it is TNPSC AE 2017
cheap and easy to form, surface hardness can be Ans. (d) : Balls for ball bearings are made of Carbon-
increased through carburizing. chrome steel.
304. Material used for machine tool beds is - 310. Which of the following is a copper free alloy?
(a) cast iron (b) mild steel (a) Brass (b) Phosphor bronze
(c) high carbon steel (d) alloy steel (c) Invar (d) Muntz metal
RPSC AE 2018 TNPSC AE 2017
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–I Ans. (c) :
Ans. (a) : Cast iron—Material used for machine tool Invar - Invar is a nickel steel alloy notable for its
beds is cast iron. uniquely low coefficient of thermal expansion.
Cast iron is commonly used for machinery housings or 311. Which one of the following materials,
bases due to the stable structure of the material.
deformation of crystals was not by twinning?
This material offers good damping, it is easy to machine
(a) Zinc (b) Tin
and can be made in various size.
(c) Iron (d) Aluminium
305. The percentage of carbon in gray cast iron is
TNPSC AE 2017
the range of-
(a) 0.25 to 0.75% (b) 1.25 to 1.75% Ans. (d) : Aluminium
(c) 3 to 4% (d) 8 to 10% 312. Match the List I alloys with List II applications
RPSC AE 2018 and select the correct answer using the codes
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper given below.
691
 List I List II Ans : (c) During yielding more stress is required for the
(A) Chromel 1. Journal bearing same strain to be produced in ductile materials. The
(B) Babbit alloy 2. Milling cutter phenomenon is known as strain hardening. Each strain
(C) Nimonic alloy 3. Thermo couple wire strengthen the material for future strains.
(D) High speed steels 4. Gas turbine blade
(A) (B) (C) (D) 317. The heat treatment process used for softening
(a) 3 1 4 2 hardened steel is
(b) 3 4 1 2 (a) Carburising (b) Normalising
(c) 2 4 1 3 (c) Annealing (d) Tempering
(d) 2 1 4 3 TSPSC AEE 2015
TNPSC AE 2017 OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
Ans. (a) : Ans : (c) Annealing:-
List I List II (i) quenching Medium:- Furnace
(A) Chromel 1. Thermo couple wire (ii) Full annealing :- ductility and toughness increases
(B) Babbit alloy 2. Journal bearing (iii) Process annealing:- Stress relieving
(C) Nimonic alloy 3. Gas turbine blade Spherodise annealing:- Machinability
(D) High speed steels 4. Milling cutter (v) Diffusion annealing:- To homogenize the
313. According to Indian standard specifications, chemistry of material.
SG 400/15 means 318. Annealing heat treatment process is
(a) Spheroidal graphite cast iron with B.H.N 400 (a) refines grain structure
and minimum tensile strength 15 MPa
(b) improve the hardness
(b) Spheroidal graphite cast iron with minimum
(c) improves ductility
tensile strength 400 MPa and 15% elongation
(c) Spheroidal graphite cast iron with minimum (d) increases surface hardness
compressive strength 400 MPa and 15% TSPSC AEE 2015
reduction in area Ans : (c) Annealing heat treatment process is improve
(d) Spherioidal graphite caston with maximum ductility.
tensile strength 400 MPa with 15% Annealing
elongation. * Quenching medium : Furnace
APPSC AEE 2016 * Full annealing : Ductility increase and
Ans. (b) : According to Indian standard specifications, toughness increase
SG 400/15 means Spheroidal graphite cast iron with * Process annealing : Stress relieving.
minimum tensile strength 400 MPa and 15% elongation. * Spherodise annealing : Machinability increases
314. The process of introducing carbon and * Diffusion annealing : To homogenize the
nitrogen into a solid ferrous alloy is known as: chemistry of material.
(a) Carbonitriding (b) Nitriding 319. In the induction hardening process, it is high
(c) Carburizing (d) Cyaniding (a) current (b) voltage
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 (c) frequency (d) temperature
Ans : (a) The process of Introducing carbon and TSPSC AEE 2015
nitrogen into a solid ferrous alloy is known as Ans : (c) In the induction hardening process it is high
carbonitriding. frequency (2000 cycles/sec).
315. Tempering of hardened steel is done to Induction Hardening:- The work is placed in heating
increase its : coils called inductor the coil consist of several turns of
(a) grain size (b) surface condition water cooled Cu tubing. Alternate current is passed
(c) ductility (d) carbon content through the inductor and thus alternate magnetic field
(KPSC AE. 2015) sets up. The field induces eddy currents on the surface
Ans : (c) Tempering of hardened steel is done to layers and heat is generated the current density is not
increase its ductility uniform throughout the cross-section of the workpiece.
Tempering:- The tempering is done-for the following It is more along the surface, layer of the workpiece
reasons Approximate the 90% of the heat is generated in the
(i) To reduce brittleness of the hardened steel and thus work layer of thickness x represented by
to increases ductility
ρ
(ii) To remove internal stresses caused by rapid cooling x = 5000
of steel. µf
(iii) To make steel tough to resist shock and fatigue. 320. The temperature at which component losses or
316. Work hardening of a steel component reduces: gains magnetic properties is
(a) Malleability (b) Hardness (a) Curie temperature (b) Upper critical point
(c) Ductility (d) Toughness (c) Lower critical point (d) Eutectic temperature
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I TSPSC AEE 2015
692
Ans : (a) The temperature at which component losses or
gains magnetic properties is curie temperature.
Material Curie temperature
Cobalt 1121°C
Iron 770°C
Nickel 358°C
321. Annealing heat treatment is a
(a) Slow cooling process
(b) very slow cooling process
(c) very rapid cooling process
(d) non-cooling process
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (b) Annealing heat treatment is a very slow
cooling process.
Annealing:- Annealing is a general term applied to
several softening processes. Annealing may be defined
as a softening process in which the metal is heated to
austenite phase, hold at that temperature for sometime
to allow for internal changes and then cooled very
slowly through the transformation range when the
internal structure of the metal gets stablized.
322. A Zinc diffusion process is called
(a) Galvanizing (b) Parkerizing
(c) Shearadizing (d) Anodizing
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (c) : Galvanizing- Galvanization is the process in
which steel requires a zinc coating to be applied to the
steel in a molten hot bath. If also requires the steel to go
through a series of other baths to ensure that the zinc
will completely adhere to iron in the steel without any
other foreign bodies getting in the way.
Shearadizing- Sharadizing is also called
vapour galvanizing or dry galvanizing. The process of
sheradizing involves heating the steel upto a very high
temperature it is then put into a rotating drum which
also contains zinc dust and possibly some other filler
such as sand. The steel is then rolled in the drum full of
zinc at a high temperature where the zinc will then
evaporate and diffuse, bonding to the steel and filling in
very small crevices.
323. Which of the following is not a heat treatment
process?
(a) Tempering (b) Nitriding
(c) Honing (d) Quenching
UJVNL AE 2016
Ans : (c) Honing is not a heat treatment process where
Honing is surface finishing process. In honing
operation tool is called hone. Honing presure 3-5
kg/cm .2
324. Elastic deformation in polymers is due to
(a) Slippage of molecular chains
(b) Straightening of molecular chains
(c) Slight adjust of molecular chains
(d) Covalent bonds
(e) Stretching of molecular chains
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Ans. (c) : Elastic deformation—Bending and
stretching of covalent bonds and slight adjustments of
secondary Van der Waals forces.
693
325. Steel can be hardened quickly by the process of
(a) nitriding (b) cyaniding
(c) carburising (d) induction hardening
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (d) : Steel can be hardened quickly by the process
of induction hardening.
326. Induction hardening is the process of
(a) hardening surface of work piece to obtain
hard and wear resistance surface
(b) heating and cooling rapidly
(c) increasing hardness throughout
(d) inducing hardness by continuous process
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (a) : Induction hardening is the process of
hardening surface of work piece to obtain hard and wear
resistance surface.
327. The diffusion coefficient of carbon through
iron during a hardening process
(a) decreases with temperature
(b) remains constant as temperature increases
(c) remains constant as pressure increases
(d) increases with temperature
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (d) : The diffusion coefficient of carbon through
iron during a hardening process increases with
temperature.
328. Flame and induction hardening process is used
for
(a) A big job
(b) Small portion of a job
(c) Deeper hardness of a job
(d) Inner hardness of a job
HPPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) :
Induction hardening– Induction hardening is a process
used for the surface hardening of steel and other alloys
components. The parts to be heat treated are placed
inside a water cooled copper coil and then heated above
their transformation temperature by applying an
alternating current to the coil. The alternating current in
the coil induce an alternating current in the coil induce
an alternating magnetic field within the work piece,
which if made from steel, caused the outer surface of
the part to heat to a temperature above the
transformation range. Parts are held at that temperature
until the appropriate depth of hardening has been
achieved, and then quenched in oil, or another media,
depending upon the steel type and hardness desired.
Flame Hardening–Flame hardening is similar to
induction hardening, in that it is a surface hardening
process.
Heat is applied to the part being hardened, using an
oxy-acetylene flame on the surface of the steel being
hardened and heating the surface above the upper
critical temperature before quenching the steel in a
spray of water.
329. Precipitation hardening is a strengthening
method for steels and alloys, which is also
called as:
(a) Age hardening
 (b) Strain hardening
(c) Solid solution hardening
(d) Quenching
(e) Dispersion hardening
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
Ans. (a) : Precipitation Hardening or Age
Hardening–Precipitation hardening is commonly used
to process aluminum alloys and other non-ferrous
metals for commercial use. The example are aluminum–
Copper, Copper–beryllium, copper–tin, magnesium–
aluminum and some ferrous alloys.
The Process is called precipitation hardening because
the small particles of the new phase are termed
"Precipitates"
330. Pick the odd statement out with regard to
objectives of heat treatments of steels.
(a) To enhance hardness, wear resistance and
cutting ability of steel.
(b) To re-soften the steel after cold working.
(c) To reduce or eliminate internal residual
stresses.
(d) To decease or increase the grain size of steels.
(e) To destablise the steel so that it changes in
dimension with time.
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
Ans. (e) : Objectives of Heat Treatment–
! Increase hardness, wear and abrasion resistance and
cutting ability of steels.
! Re-softening the hardened steel.
! To adjust mechanical, physical or chemical
properties like, hardness, tensile strength, ductility,
electrical and magnetic properties, microstructure or
corrosion resistance.
! Eliminate internal residual stress.
! Refine grain size.
! Eliminate gases like hydrogen which embrittle steel.
331. Box annealing is also called as:
(a) Black annealing
(b) Isothermal annealing
(c) Bright annealing
(d) Spheroidise annealing
(e) Sub critical annealing
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
Ans. (a) : Box-Annealing–A process of annealing a
ferrous alloy in a suitable closed metal container, with
or without backing material, in order to minimize
oxidation. The charger is usually heated slowly to a
temperature below the transformation range but
sometimes above or within it, and is then cooled slowly.
This process is also called "close annealing" or "Pot
annealing" see black annealing.
332. The hardness of various structures in
decreasing order during heat treatment of steel
is:
(a) fine pearlite, coarse pearlite, martensite,
spherodite
(b) martensite, fine pearlite, coarse pearlite,
spherodite
(c) fine pearlite, martensite, spherodite, coarse
pearlite
694
(d) coarse pearlite, fine pearlite, martensite,
spherodite
HPPSC LECT, 2016
Ans : (b)
Martensite>fine pearlite>Coarse pearlite>spherodite.
Martensite : - It is a metastable phase of steel formed
by transformation of austenite below a temperature
240°C (MS). It is an interstitial supersaturated solid
state of carbon in α iron which is super saturated with
carbon. It forms as a result of shear type transformation
with virtually no diffusion. Martensite normally is
product of quenching. It posses an accicular or needle
like structure.
333. The liquid carbonitriding process of case
hardening is also called as:
(a) Case carburising
(b) Cyaniding
(c) Nitriding
(d) Flame hardening
(e) Induction hardening
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
Ans. (b) : Cyaniding–Cyaniding is a process of
hardening the surface of steel components through the
addition of nitrogen and carbon. It is done by immersing
the work piece in a bath of molten sodium Cyanide and
sodium carbonate. This process is conducted at a
temperature of 950°C.
334. Nitrided steel is used for gears where
(a) High hardness is desired on teeth
(b) Low speed operation is desired
(c) Variable speed operation is desired
(d) Variable load operation is desired
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : Nitriding has been known for its effectiveness
in resisting shear stresses due to friction and prevention of
the tooth flank sub-surface fatigue failure, that can occur in
highly loaded core-hardened gears teeth is desired.
335. Consider the following statements:
1. The quenching of steel results in an increase
in wear resistance, strength and hardness.
2. By the process of case hardening, hard
wearing resistant surface is produced on mild
steel. This is an effective method for low
carbon steels because they cannot be
hardened by the process of quenching.
3. When a metal is mixed with small atoms of
non metallic element in such a manner that
invading atoms occupy interstitial positions in
the metal lattice, and interstitial alloy results.
What of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE 2018
Ans. (d) : (i) Quenching of steel causes increase in (b) Low carbon steel
hardness, wear resistance and strength. (c) High carbon steel
(ii) Case hardening process is applicable for low carbon (d) Low and high carbon steel
steels because they are not heat treated by hardening UPRVUNL AE 2016
process and depth of hardenability is very low. Ans. (c) : High carbon steel is best candidate for heat
(iii) When a metal is mixed with small size atom of treatment.
non-metallic elements they occupy interstitial positions 340. What causes transformation of deformed
of metal and form interstitial alloy. martensite into austenite phase?
Hence all the statements are correct. (a) Heating (b) Cooling
336. Recrystallization temperature is one at which (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Quenching
(a) crystals first start forming from molten metal RPSC AE 2018
when cooled Ans. (a) : Heating causes transformation of deformed
(b) new spherical crystals first begin to form martensite into austenite phase.
from the old deformed ones when that 341. Which of the following is not the feature of
strained metal is heated carburizing flame?
(c) the allotropic form changes (a) Carburizing flame is obtained when an excess
(d) crystals grow bigger in size amount of acetylene is supplied than what is
ESE 2018 theoretically required
Ans. (b) : If a deformed polycrystalline metal is (b) Carburizing flame has "Intermediate flame
subsequently heated to a high enough temperature, new feather"
crystal nucleate and grow to consume and replace the (c) Carburizing flame makes the iron & steel
original structure. hard and brittle
The temperature at which this occurs is known as (d) Carburizing flame has only inner white cone
recrystallization temperature. and outer envelop
337. A steel specimen is heated to 780 °C and is then (e) Carburizing flame has inner cone,
cooled at the slowest possible rate in the intermediate flame feather and outer envelop
furnace. The property imparted to the CGPSC AE 2014- II
specimen by this process is Ans. (d) : Feature of carburizing flame-
(a) toughness (b) hardness 1. Carburizing flame has "intermediate flame feather".
(c) softness (d) tempering 2. Carburizing flame has inner core intermediate flame
ESE 2018 feather and outer envelope.
Ans. (c) : Toughness depends on grain size and 3. Carburizing flame is obtained when a excess
impurity concentration. As grain size decreases its amount of acetylene is supplied than what is
strength increases. This is one of the few instances in theoretically required.
which strength and toughness can be increased at the 4. Carburizing flame has only inner white cone and
same time. But when material is cooled very slowly its outer envelope.
grain size increases thus its toughness decreases and 342. Which one of the following heat treatment
ductility increases hence softness also increases. process improves machinability?
338. On completion of heat treatment, the austenite (a) Annealing (b) Process annealing
structure would be retained if (c) Normalizing (d) Spheroidizing
(a) The rate of cooling is greater than the critical JWM 2017
cooling rate. TNPSC AE 2018
(b) The rate of cooling is less than the critical Ans. (d) : Process annealing is a stress relieving
cooling rate process. If is used in wire industry.
(c) The initiating temperature of martensite • Spherodise annealing is a heat treatment process
formation is above the room temperature which increases the machinability.
(d) The finishing temperature of martensite • Normalizing process used to produced head surface
formation is below the room temperature. and tough core.
ESE 2017 343. Heat treatment process to soften hardened steel
Ans. (d) : When the finishing temperature of martensite was
is below the room temperature then we get the retained (a) Normalizing (b) Annealing
austenite. (c) Tempering (d) Spheroidizing
The martensite start and martensite finish temperature TNPSC AE 2017
are related and these temperatures are controlled by Ans. (c) : Tempering—Tempering in metallurgy,
various alloying element including carbon and process of improving the characteristics of metal,
chromium. especially steel, by heating it to a high temperature,
Note- The answer given by UPSC is option (c). though below the melting point, then cooling it usually
339. Which of the steel is best candidate for heat in air.
treatment? The process has the effect of toughening by lessening
(a) Low and medium carbon steel brittleness and reducing internal stresses.
695
344. Hardening by carburizing is limited to Ans : (a) : Surface hardening is mainly employed for
(a) 0.05 mm (b) 0.1 mm the application where high surface hardness, here
(c) 2 mm (d) 5 mm resistance are of main concern and impact strength is
TNPSC AE 2017 nota much important parameter. It is mainly employed
Ans. (c) : Hardening by carburizing is limited to 2 mm. in the low and medium duty applications.
345. The slowest cooling rate is achieved when steel 351. The resultant microstructure after normalizing
is quenched in should be
(a) Fused salt (b) Air (a) martensitic (b) pearlitic
(c) Brine (d) Mixture of water (c) bainitic (d) ferritic
TNPSC AE 2017 BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
Ans. (b) : The slowest cooling rate is achieved when Ans : (b) : The resultant microstructure after
steel is quenched in air. normalizing should be pearlitic.
346. In which of the following methods, surface of a 352. Which of the following is the quench media
steel component becomes hard due to phase with highest heat transfer equivalent?
transformation austenite to Martensite? (a) Brine (b) Air
(a) Carbonitriding (b) Flame hardening (c) Oil (d) Water
(c) Nitriding (d) lonisation BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
APPSC AEE 2016 Ans : (a) : Brine is the quench media with the highest
Ans. (b) : In flame hardening method, surface of a steel heat transfer.
component becomes hard due to phase transformation
353. Cyaniding is the process of :
austenite to martensite.
(a) Dipping steel in cyanide bath
347. The following hardening process is generally (b) Reacting steel surface with cyanide salts
free from scale formation.
(c) Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat treatment
(a) flame hardening (b) cyaniding
of steel to increase its surface hardness
(c) nitriding (d) induction hardening (d) Making corrosion resistance steel
APPSC AEE 2016
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans. (d) : Induction hardening process is generally free
Ans : (c) : Cyaniding is a case hardening method which
from scale formation.
increases the hardness and wear-resistance of the outer
348. The hardening of machine tool guide ways is surface of the steel.
usually carried out by ! Steel is heated in molten cyanide at about 850ºC
(a) flame hardening
followed by quenching.
(b) induction hardening
! Carbon and nitrogen are absorbed by steel.
(c) vacuum hardening
(d) furnace hardening 354. Which is false statement about normalizing?
TSPSC AEE 2015 (a) Normalizing is done to refine grain structure
Ans. (a) : The hardening of machine tool guide ways is (b) Normalizing is done to reduce segregation in
usually carried out by flame hardening. casting
(c) Normalizing is done to improve mechanical
349. A steel is heated at about 875 ºC where the
structure consists of entirely austenite. It is properties
then cooled suddenly at a temperature of about (d) Normalizing is done to induce stresses
250 ºC-520 ºC. This process of heat treatment is OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
known as Ans : (d) : The normalizing is done for the following
(a) normalising (b) annealing purpose-
(c) austempering (d) martempering (i) To refine the grain structure of the steel to
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II improve machinability tensile strength and
Ans : (c) : Austempering- The austempering is structure of weld.
misnomer because it is not a tempering process, It is (ii) To remove strains caused by cold working
also known as isothermal quenching. In this process, the processes.
steel is heated above the upper critical temperature, at (iii) To remove dislocations caused in the internal
about 875 ºC where the structure consists entirely of structure of the steel due to hot working.
austenite. It is then suddenly cooled by quenching it in a (iv) To improve certain mechanical and electrical
salt bath or lead bath maintained at a temperature of properties.
about 250 ºC to 525 ºC. The process of normalizing consists of heating the steel
350. Surface hardening is principally employed for 30ºC–50ºC above its upper critical temperature for
(a) low-carbon steel hypo-eutectoid steels or ACM line for hyper-eutectoid
(b) medium-carbon steel steels. It is held at this temperature for about 15 minutes
(c) high-carbon steel and then allowed to cool down in still air. The process
(d) cast iron of normalizing is frequently applied to casting and
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI forging etc.
696
355. By what process, maximum hardness is Choose the correct from the following :
obtained for a steel part? A B C D
(a) Carburizing (b) Nitriding (a) 3 1 4 2
(c) Cyaniding (d) Annealing (b) 3 1 2 4
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 (c) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (b) : Nitriding is a heat treatment process that (d) 1 3 2 4
diffuses nitrogen into the surface of a metal to create a UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
case hardened surface. These processes are most Ans. (c) : A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
commonly used on low carbon alloy steels. 361. The ductile-brittle transition temperature
356. Age hardening is generally applicable to (a) depends on size and shape of material, rate of
(a) cast iron loading, presence of notches, impurities and
(b) medium carbon steel operating temperature
(c) high alloy steel (b) depends on size but does not depend on shape
(d) alloys of aluminum, magnesium, nickel, etc. of material
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 (c) does not depend on size of material
Ans : (d) It was first observed by A Wilmin 1906 that (d) does not depend on rate of loading but
where Commercial Aluminum alloy with Cu was depends on presence of impurities
quenched from a relatively high temperature, it UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
increased in hardness on standing subsequently at room
temperature. This process is called precipitation Ans. (a) : depends on size and shape of material, rate of
hardening or age hardening. A similar phenomenon loading, presence of notches, impurities and operating
occurs in various ferrous and non ferrous alloys. temperature.
357. Annealing is used to make the steel components 362. Heat treatment is done to
(a) hard (b) soft (a) change grain size and soften the metal
(c) brittle (d) none of these (b) improve electrical and magnetic properties
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) (c) relieve internal stresses
Ans : (b) Annealing:- (d) all of the above
Quenching medium : Furnace UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Full annealing → Ductility increase Ans. (d) : All of the above
Process annealing → stress relieving
Spherodise annealing →Machinability increases 6. Non–Metals & Composite
Diffusion annealing → To homogenize the chemistry of
material Materials
358. If there are bad effects on strain hardening on
a cold formed parts, the part must be:- 363. Inter electrode gap in electro-chemical
(a) Annealed (b) Tampered grinding is controlled by controlling the:-
(c) Hardened (d) Normalised (a) Pressure of electrolyte flow
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I (b) Applied static load
Ans. (a) : If there are bad effects on strain hardening on (c) Size of abrasives in the wheel
a cold formed parts, the part must be annealed. (d) Texture of the workpiece
359. Which medium is used for fastest cooling UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
during quenching of steel? Ans. (c) : Inter electrode gap in electro-chemical
(a) Air (b) Oil grinding is controlled by controlling the size of
(c) Water (d) Brine (salt water) abrasives in the wheel.
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I 364. Which one of the following has the highest
Ans. (d) : Brine medium is used for fortes cooling value of specific stiffness?
during quenching of steel. (a) Steel (b) Aluminium
360. Match the items in List – 1 to the (c) Fibre glass (d) Carbon fibre composite
corresponding items in the List – 2. UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
List – 1 List – 2 Ans. (d) : Carbon fibre composite has the highest value
(Heat Treatment) (Effect on
of specific stiffness.
Properties)
A. Annealing 1. Refine grain 365. Which statement is wrong about diamagnetic
structures materials ?
B. Nitriding 2. Improves the (a) Their susceptibility is positive.
hardness of the (b) Their permeability is less than one.
whole mass (c) Super-conductors are diamagnetic.
C. Martempering 3. Improves surface (d) They repel the external magnetic flux.
hardness UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
D. Normalising 4. Improves ductility Ans. (a) : Their susceptibility is positive.
697
366. Super conductivity is that state of a material at (b) Ceremic compounds are more ductile.
which it electrical resistance (c) Ceramic compounds are more stable with
(a) becomes zero. respect to thermal and chemical environments
(b) becomes infinite. than their components.
(c) starts showing a change. (d) Ceramic compounds have less resistance to
(d) stops being affected by temperature change. slip.
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (a) : becomes zero. Ans. (c) : Ceramic compounds are more stable with
367. The difference between Graphite and Diamond respect to thermal and chemical environments than their
is that components.
(a) Diamond is transparent while Graphite is 372. Which of the following is made of Ceramic
opaque. materials?
(b) Diamond is insulator while Graphite is (a) Heating element (b) Spark plug
conductor. (c) Pyrometer (d) Furnace linings
(c) Diamond has all primary bonds while Graphite UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
has three primary and one secondary bonds. Ans. (d) : Furnace linings
(d) All the above 373. A material in superconducting state is
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I (a) paramagnetic (b) diamagnetic
Ans. (d) : All the above (c) ferromagnetic (d) anti ferromagnetic
368. Assertion (A) : Soft magnets are the obvious UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
choice for ac or high frequency applications. Ans. (b) : Diamagnetic
Reason (R) : They must be magnetised and 374. The constituents which most ceramic material
demagnetized many times per second. contain is
Code : (a) Calcium (b) Nitrate
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not (c) Silicate (d) None of the above
explain (A) correctly. UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains Ans. (c) : Silicate
(A) correctly.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. 375. Energy of a photon is
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (a) hv (b) h.λ
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I 1
(c) (d) v. λ
Ans. (b) : Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains hv
(A) correctly. UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
369. Dielectric strength can be reduced by Ans. (a) : hv
(a) removing cracks 376. The electrical conductivity of semi-conductor is
(b) absence of imperfections of the order of
(c) absence of flaws (a) 10–3 mho cm–1 (b) 10–6 mho cm–1
(d) impurities, cracks and pores (c) 10–8 mho cm–1 (d) 103 mho cm–1
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Ans. (d) : impurities, cracks and pores Ans. (a) : 10–3 mho cm–1
370. Assertion (A) : Metallic Magnets cannot be used 377. In a dielectric, the power loss is proportional to
in high frequency circuits. (a) w (b) w2
Reason (R) : The low resistivity of metallic 1 1
magnets permits heating from induced currents. (c) (d)
w w2
Code : UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(a) (A) is true, but (R) is false. Ans. (a) : w
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
378. Dielectric materials are used primarily for
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not (a) insulation (b) charge storage
explain (A) correctly. (c) reducing electric loss (d) none of these
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(A) correctly. Ans. (b) : Charge storage
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
379. By doping, electrical conductivity of a semi-
Ans. (d) : Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains conductor
(A) correctly. (a) decreases (b) increases
371. Choose the correct statement from the (c) remains unaffected (d) none of the above
following : UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(a) Ceremic compounds involve simple Ans. (b) : Increases
coordination than their corresponding 380. Ferrites are sub-group of
components. (a) ferromagnetic material
698
 (b) ferrigmagnetic material 385. Statement (I) : The greater the chemical
(c) diamagnetic material affinity of two metals, the more restricted is
(d) paramagnetic material their solid solubility and greater is the tendency
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I of formation of compound.
Ans. (b) : Ferrigmagnetic material Statement (II) : Wider the separation of
381. Many composite materials are composed of elements in the periodic table, greater is their
chemical affinity.
just two phase know as–
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
(a) Matrix and dispersed
individually true and Statement (II) is the
(b) Solid and liquid
correct explanation of Statement (I).
(c) Liquid and gas
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
(d) Solvent ad solute
individually true, but Statement (II) is not the
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper correct explanation of Statement (I).
Ans. (a) : Composite material is a material composed of (c) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is
two or more distinct phases (matrix phase and dispersed false.
phase). (d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is
382. Plywood is an example of which type of true.
composite structure– ESE 2020
(a) Laminar (b) Sandwich Ans. (a) : Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
(c) Honeycomb (d) Snow skis individually true and Statement (II) is the correct
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper explanation of Statement (I).
Ans. (b) : Plywood composite structure comes in 386. Which of the following statements is true?
sandwich form structure. (a) Ceramic materials have low melting point
383. Thermoplastic polymers are (b) Porcelain is used as insulating material is
(1) Formed by addition polymerization spark plugs
(2) Formed by condensation polymerization. (c) Graphite is viscoelastic in nature
(3) Softened on heating and hardened on cooling (d) Compacting iron oxide powder ceramic tools
for any number of times. are prepared
(4) Moulded by heating and coolling Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Of these statement, select the correct answer Ans : (b) : Porcelain is used as insulating material is
from the options given below spark plugs.
(a) (ii) and (iii) are true (b) (ii) and (iv) are true 387. When magnetic field is removed, which type of
(c) (i) and (iv) are true (d) (i) and (iii) are true materials maintain magnetic properties?
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I (a) Ferromagnetic materials
Ans : (d) Thermoplastic polymers are (b) Diamagnetic materials
(i) Formed by addition polymerization (c) Paramagnetic materials
(ii) Soft on heating and hardened on cooling for any (d) Piezo magnetic materials
number of times. TNPSC 2019
Ans. (a) : Ferromagnetic materials- Ferromagnetic
384. Carbon-carbon composites are extensively used
materials have a large positive susceptibility to an
at :
magnetic filed. They exhibit a strong attraction to
(a) A very low temperature applications
magnetic fields and are able to retain their magnetic
(b) Room temperatures
properties after the external field has been removed.
(c) Temperatures around 30000C
Example- Iron, Cobalt, Nickel etc.
(d) Around 3000C Paramagnetic material- Paramagnetic substance are
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I those substance which are attracted by a magnet.
Ans : (c) Example- Aluminium, Chromium etc.
Composite Materials : Diamagnetic materials- Diamagnetic substance are
* These are combination of two or more materials that those substance which are feebly replaced by a magnet.
has properties different than its constituents. Example- Antimony, Bismuth, Gold, Copper, Silver,
* It has almost an unlimited potential for higher Quartz, Water . Air, Hydrogen etc,
strength, stiffness and high temperature capabilities 388. Phenol and formaldehyde and polymerized to
over conventional materials. produce
* Base material which is present in large amount is (a) Bakelite (b) Polyester
called matrix the other material is referred as (c) PVC (d) Polyethylene
reinforcing material. TNPSC AE 2018
699
Ans. (a) To produce Bakelite phenol and formaldehyde Ans : (b) : Usually stronger constituent of a composite
and polymerized is used. is reininforcement.
389. Following is unique to polymeric materials 394. Most commercial glasses consist of :
(a) Elasticity (b) Viscoelasticity (a) Lime (b) Soda
(c) Plasticity (d) None (c) Silica (d) All of these
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans : (d) : Most commercial glasses consists of Lime,
Ans : (b) : A polymer is a large molecule, or macro-
soda and silica.
molecule composed of million of repeated linked units,
each a relatively light and simple molecule. 395. Longitudinal strength of fibre reinforced
composite in mainly influenced by :
The most basic property of a polymer's the identity of
(a) Fibre strength
its constituent monomers. A second set of properties,
(b) Fibre orientation
known as microstructure, essentially describes the
(c) Fibre volume fraction
arrangement of these monomers within the polymer at
(d) Fibre length
the scale of a single chain.
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
390. Which among the following rubbers are used Gujarat PSC AE 2019
for automobile tyres?
Ans : (a) : Longitudinal strength of fibre reinforced
(a) Only Polyurethane rubbers composite is mainly influenced by fiber strength.
(b) Only Butadiene rubbers
396. Quartz is a
(c) Both Polyurethane and Butadiene are used (a) ferro electric material
(d) None of these (b) Ferro magnetic material
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 (c) piezoelectric material
Ans : (c) : Both Polyurethane and butadiene are used (d) dimagnetic material
for automobile types. TNPSC 2019
391. Mechanical properties of fiber-reinforced Ans. (c) : Piezoelectric effect- Piezoelectric effect is
composites depend on the ability certain materials to generate an electric
(a) Properties of constituents change in response to applied mechanical stress.
(b) Interface strength Piezoelectric materials-
(c) Fiber length, orientation and volume fraction • Quartz, • Rochelle salt, • Berilinite, • Lead titanale etc.
(d) All of the above 397. A unidirectional fibre-epoxy composite
contains 65% by volume fibre and 35% epoxy
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
resin. If the relative density of the fibre is 1.48
Ans : (d) : Mechanical properties of fiber - reinforced and of the resin is 1.2, the percentage weight of
composites depend on- fibre will be nearly
• Properties of constituents. (a) 70% (b) 75%
• Interface strength. (c) 80% (d) 85%
• Fiber length, orientation and volume fractionn. ESE 2020
392. A fatigue crack in a sound and smooth mass
Ans. (a) : Density =
specimens takes : volume
(a) longer time in initiation than propagation Volume fraction of fibre (Vf) = 0.65
(b) longer time in propagation than initiation Volume fraction of epoxy (Ve) = 0.35
(c) equal time in initiation and propagation mf mf
(d) no time in propagation Vf ρf 0.65 1.48
= ⇒ =
(HPPSC AE 2014) Ve m e 0.35 me
Ans : (a) A fatigue crack in a sound and smooth ρe 1.2
specimen takes longer time in initiation than mf
propagation. = 2.29
me
393. Usually stronger constituent of a composite is :
mf + me = 100
(a) Matrix
m
(b) Reinforcement mf + f = 100
2.29
(c) Both are of equal strength
m f = 69.6
(d) Can't define
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I ≈ 70

700
398. Which of the following are the advantages of
Nano-composite materials?
1. Decreased thermal expansion coefficients
2. Higher residual stress
3. Reduced gas permeability
4. Increased solvent resistance
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
ESE 2020
Ans. (b) : 1, 3 and 4 only.
399. Filler is used in plastics to
(a) completely fill up the voids created during
manufacturing
(b) improve plasticity, strength and toughness
(c) provide colour, strength, impact resistance
and reduce cost
(d) to accelerate the condensation and
polymerisation
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (c) : Filler is used in plastics to provide colour,
strength, impact resistance and reduce cost.
400. Which of the following is not an example of
plastic
(a) polyethylene, polystyrene,
(b) poly (ethylene terephthalate),
(c) and poly (vinyl chloride)
(d) Kovar
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Ans. (d) : Kovar is not plastic material, Kovar is
actually an iron nickel - Cobalt alloy.
401. Which of the following is not a ceramic
(a) Alumina (b) Magnesia
(c) Spinel (d) Super Invar
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Ans. (d) : Here, super invar is not a ceramic material. It
is an alloy that is made up of about 32% Ni, 5% Cobalt,
Fe & other minerals like. Copper, aluminium and
manganese.
402. Many composite materials are composed of just
two phases known as
(a) matrix and dispersed (b) Solid and liquid
(c) Liquid and gas (d) Solvent and solute
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : Composite material is a material composed of
two or more distinct phases (matrix phase and dispersed
phase) and having bulk of properties. The primary
phase, having a continuous character, is called matrix.
403. Plywood is an example of which type of
composite structure
(a) Laminar (b) Sandwich
(c) Honeycomb (d) Snow skis
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
701
Ans. (b) : Plywood is a form of sandwich construction
of natural wood fibres with plastics. Plywood belongs to
a class or wood resins boards.
404. Which of the following is not a ceramic–
(a) Alumina (b) Magnesia
(c) Spinal (d) Super Invar
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (d) : Super invar is not a ceramic, it is low
expansion metal alloy.
405. Thermosetting plastic is one,
(a) which softens when heated and hardens upon
cooling
(b) which can be molded and remolded repeated
(c) which once having cured by chemical
reaction, does not soften or melt upon
subsequent heating
(d) which has linear polymer chain
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (c) : Thermosetting plastic is one, which once
having cured by chemical reaction, does not soften or
melt upon subsequent heating.
406. Thermoplastic is one,
(a) which softens when heated and hardens upon
cooling
(b) which can be moulded and remoulded
(c) which has linear polymer chain
(d) which has all three characteristics
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (d) : Thermoplastic is one, which has all three
characteristics.
407. Fibers used for fiber-reinforced-plastics are
made of–
(a) steel wires (b) hemp
(c) glass and carbon (d) asbestos
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (c) : Fibers used for fiber-reinforced-plastics are
made of glass and carbon.
408. Synthetic rubber is used for–
(a) V belt (b) gasket
(c) seals (d) all of the above
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (d) : Synthetic rubber is used for have V-belt,
gasket, seals.
409. Which of the following statement is incorrect
about thermoplastic polymer?
(a) Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is an example of
thermoplastic polymer
(b) They cannot be repeatedly soften under
heating and harden on cooling
(c) They can be reshaped and recycled
(d) These are linear or branched linear polymers
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (b) : Thermoplastic polymer they cannot be 414. Which of the following are weldable plastic?
repeatedly soften under heating and harden on cooling (a) Thermosets alone
is incorrect statement. (b) Thermoplastics alone
410. Which among the following is the (c) Both thermosets and thermoplastics
characteristics of polymers? (d) Neither thermosets and thermoplastics
(a) High tensile strength BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
(b) High coefficient of friction Ans : (b) : The thermoplastic materials so not become
(c) Low density hard with the application of heat and pressure and no
(d) Higher viscosity chemical change occurs. They remain soft at elevated
APPSC AEE 2016 temperatures until they are hardened by cooling. These
Ans. (c) : Low density is the characteristics of can be remelted repeatedly by successive application of
polymers. heat. Some of the common thermoplastics are cellulose
411. Thermosetting plastics are those materials nitrate, polyethylene, polyvinyl acetate, polyvinyl
which chloride (P.V.C.).
(a) are formed to shape under heat and pressure 415. The process of growing large molecules from
and results in a permanently hard product small molecules is known as :
(b) do not become hard with application of heat (a) Polymerization (b) Polymorphism
and pressure (c) Hysteresis (d) Allotropy
(c) are flexible and can withstand considerable HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
wear under suitable conditions
Ans : (a) The process of growing large molecules from
(d) are used as a friction lining for clutches and small molecules is known as polymerization.
brakes
415. These polymers cannot be recycled:
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
(a) Elastomers (b) Thermoplasts
Ans : (a) : Thermosetting Plastics are those which are
(c) Thermosets (d) All polymers
formed into shape under heat and pressure and results in
permanently hard product. The heat first softens the (HPPSC LECT. 2016)
material, but as additional heat and pressure is applied, Ans : (c) Thermosets Polymers Cannot be recycled.
it becomes hard by a chemical change known as phenol Thermosetting Plastics:- They are formed from the
formaldehyde (Bakelite), Phenol-furfural (Durite), urea- intermediate products which under the influence of heat
formaldehyde etc. pressure etc. undergo chemical changes of condensation
412. The chemical name of bakelite is and Polymerisation to form a rigid final shape which is
(a) polytetrafluoroethylene unaffected by heat or solvents.
(b) phenol formaldehyde 416. The property of a metal existing in more than
(c) phenol acetaldehyde one crystalline form is
(d) urea formaldehyde (a) Crystallisation (b) Solidification
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI (c) Polymorphism (d) Resilescence
Ans : (b) : The chemical name of bakelite is phenol TSPSC AEE 2015
formaldehyde. Ans : (c) The property of a metal existing in more than
413. Which of the following is a thermoplastic? one crystalline form is polymorphism.
(a) Bakelite (b) Epoxy resins (araldite) 417. Which one of the following is a basic refractory
(c) Polypropylene (d) Polyurethanes material?
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI (a) Dolomite (b) Quartz
Ans : (c) : Some of the common thermoplastics are- (c) Sand (d) Silicon carbide
• Cellulose nitrate (celluloid) UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
• Polythene Ans : (a)
• Polyvinyl acetate Acidic refectories :- Ziricon, fire clay and silica
• Polyvinyl chloride (P.V.C.) Basic refectories :- Dolomite and magnetic
• Polypropylene Neutral refectories :- Alumina and chromites.

702
 13. PRODUCTION TECHNOLOGY
Ans. (a) : Collapsibility which is the property of
1. Metal Casting Processes moulding sand which does not provide any resistance of
contraction of the solidified casting.
1. The main purpose of chaplets used in foundry Adhesiveness—Adhesiveness is the property of sand
practice are : due to which the sand particles sticks to the sides of the
(a) to provide efficient venting
moulding box.
(b) to ensure directional solidification
Adhesiveness of sand enables the proper lifting of cope
(c) to support the core
along with the sand.
(d) to align the mould boxes
Refractoriness—Refractoriness is the property of sand
KPSC AE. 2015
to withstand high temperature of molten metal without
TNPSC AE 2018
fusion or soften.
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I 5. Chills are:
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI (a) Mixed in sand to enhance its collapsibility
Ans : (c) The main purpose of chaplets used in foundry (b) Metallic objects to provide very high heat
practice are to support the core . extraction capability of sand mould
Chaplet:- A Core chaplet is a metal location piece (c) Metallic objects to provide strength of sand
inserted in a mould either to prevent a core shifting its mould
position or to give extra support to a core. The molten (d) Metallic objects to provide very low heat
metal melts the chaplet, which then forms part of the extraction capability of sand mould
Cast material. UPRVUNL AE 2016
2. Core prints are used to : Ans. (b) : Chills are metallic objects to provide very
(a) strengthen core high heat extraction capability of sand mould. Normally
(b) form seat to support and hold the core in the metal, in the mould cools at a certain rate relative to
place thickness of the casting.
(c) fabricate core 6. The atmosphere required in the furnace for
(d) all of the above nitriding the steel component is of
HPPSC AE 2014 (a) Liquid nitrogen (b) Nascent nitrogen
UJVNL AE 2016 (c) Ammonia (d) Graphite
TNPSC AE 2018 HPPSC AE 2018
Ans : (b) Core prints are used to form seat to support Ans. (c) : The atmosphere required in the furnace for
and hold the core in place. nitriding the steel component is of ammonia.
Core prints:- Generally core prints are provided in Nitriding is a heat treatment process that diffuse
cores. These core prints are a sort of projection at the nitrogen into the surface of a metal to create a case-
end of core and these support the core in position in a hardened surface. These process are most commonly
mould. Design should provide space for core prints used in low-carbon, low alloy steels. They are also used
sufficiently large to locate the core accurately, prevent on medium and high-carbon steels.
sagging, and resist the hydrostatic molten-metal pressure. 7. Shrinkage allowance on the pattern is provided
3. Due to the shake allowance: to take care of
(a) The fillets are provided on pattern (a) Liquid shrinkage
(b) The pattern is made slightly bigger than (b) Solid shrinkage
required size (c) Liquid and solid shrinkage
(c) The tapper is provided on vertical faces of (d) Any one, liquid or solid shrinkage
pattern HPPSC AE 2018
(d) The pattern is made slightly smaller than Ans. (c) : Shrinkage allowance on the pattern is
required size provided to take care of both liquid and solid shrinkage.
UPRVUNL AE 2016
8. Decreasing the clay content in the moulding
Ans. (d) : Due to the shake allowance the pattern is
sand increases the
made slightly smaller than required size.
(a) Permeability (b) Refractoriness
4. The property of moulding sand which does not (c) Green strength (d) Flowability
provide any resistance to contraction of the
HPPSC AE 2018
solidified casting is called?
(a) Collapsibility (b) Refractoriness Ans. (a) : Decreasing the clay content in the moulding
(c) Adhesiveness (d) Permeability sand increase the permeability. The addition of clay in
UPRVUNL AE 2016 sand increase the optimum moisture content.
703
The addition of clay reduces the hydraulic conductivity Ans. (b) : Permeability—The properties of moulding
of sand. The effect is very prominent upto 10% clay sand that allows the gases to be escaped from the mould
content and beyond that reduction in permeability is is called Permeability.
gradually decrease. Refractoriness—It is the property of mould sand to
9. Refractoriness of the moulding sand can be withstand high temperature of molten metal.
increased by 14. Which of the following processes is suitable for
(a) Increasing the grain size making hollow parts with thin sections?
(b) Decreasing the grain size (a) Thermoforming
(c) Increasing the water content (b) Blow molding
(d) Increasing the clay content (c) Injection molding
HPPSC AE 2018 (d) Reaction injection molding
Ans. (a) : Refractoriness –Refractoriness is the ability (e) Extrusion
of the moulding material to withstand the high (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
temperatures of the molten metal to be poured so that it HPPSC AE 2018
does not get fused with the metal. The refractoriness of Ans. (b) : Blow Molding–Blow molding is a specific
the silica sand is highest. Refractoriness is measured by manufacturing process by which hollow plastic parts are
the sinter point of the sand. formed and can be joined together. It is also used for
Refractoriness of the moulding sand can be increased by forming glass bottles or other hollow shapes.
increasing the grain size. The blow molding process begins with melting down
10. Chills are used in the casting to the plastic and forming it into a parison or, in the case
(a) Provide the support to the core of injection and injection stretch blow molding,
(b) Improve the directional solidification perform. The parison is a tube-like piece of plastic with
(c) To cool the mould rapidly after casting a hole in one end through which compressed air can
(d) To connect the poring basin and runner pass.
HPPSC AE 2018 The parison is then clamped into a mold and air is
Ans. (b) : Chills–This is a metalic object of high blown into it.
thermal conductivity and high melting point 15. A taper provided on the pattern for its easy
temperature used to provide uniform cooling [max. heat and clean withdrawal from the mould is known
transfer] at a min. cross section in a mould cavity to as
maximize the heat transfer rate and provide directional (a) Shrinkage allowance
solidification. (b) Distortion allowance
11. Which of the following generally has square (c) Machining allowance
cross section (d) Draft allowance
(a) Ingot (b) Bloom JPSC AE PRE 2019
(c) Slab (d) Billet Ans. (d) : Draft allowance–It is a taper which is given
HPPSC AE 2018 to all the vertical walls of the pattern for easy and clean
Ans. (d) : Billet has square cross-section. withdrawal of the pattern from the sand without
Ingot–Ingot is a brick of cast iron poured off a foundery damaging the mould cavity. It may be expressed in
or drained out of a bloomery. Size is dependent on the millimeters per meter on a side or in degrees. The
size of the foundry and the intended used for the ingot. amount of taper varies with the type of patterns. The
Bloom–A bloom is an intermediate product, rectangular wooden patterns require more taper than metal patterns
is shape with a cross sectional area typically large than because of the greater frictional resistance of the
36 sq.in. wooden surfaces.
Slab–A slab is an intermediate shape between an Ingot 16. Draft angle is provided for forged parts–
and a plate with a width at least twice its thickness. (a) to arrange fiber lines in a favorable way
Billet–A billet can be round or square with cross- (b) to avoid unbalanced forced
sectional area. (c) to reduce stress concentration
12. "Bell" shapes are generally made by (d) for easy removal from die cavities
(a) Single piece pattern Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
(b) Gated pattern Ans. (d) : Draft angle is provided for forged parts for
(c) Cope and drag pattern easy removal from die cavities.
(d) Sweep pattern 17. The main advantages of using CO2 moulding is
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 that
Ans. (d) : Sweep pattern is used to "Bell" shapes or 3-D (a) much hardened mould is obtained
symmetrical object casting. (b) gases can be made to escape more easily
13. The properties of moulding sand that allows (c) gases formed react with CO2 to form a
the gases to be escaped from the mould is called colloidal solution
(a) Hot strength (b) Permeability (d) carbon % in the molten metal can be
(c) Refractoriness (d) Plasticity increased
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016 TNPSC 2019
704
Ans. (a) : The main advantages of using CO2 moulding V 300 − I
is that much hardened mould is obtained. =
80 300
18. The ratio of surface energy term to volume V 300 − I
energy term in the nucleation energy equation =
at critical condition during the solidification 4 15
15V = 1200 – 4I
process is :
(a) -1/2 (b) -3/2 1200 − 4I
V=
(c) -1 (d) -2/3 15
BHEL ET 2019 Power P = VI
Ans. (b) : -3/2  1200 − 4I 
= I
19. In a casting process, a mould of dimension 60  15 
cm × 30 cm × 14 cm is to be filled by liquid the
top pouring. The liquid metal height above the 1200 I − 4I 2
=
top surface of the mould is 14 cm and the area 15
of the gate is 6 cm2. The time taken to fill the 1200 4I 2
mould will be : = I−
15 15
(a) 32 s (b) 12 s 2
(c) 25.34 s (d) 28.28 s 4I
P = 80I −
BHEL ET 2019 15
Ans. (c) : Given - Volume of mould = 60 × 30 × 14 cm 3 For maximum Arc power –
Liquid metal height ht = 14 cm dP 4
= 80 − ( 2I )
Ag = 6 cm2 dI 15
A h 4× 2
time filling (tf) = m m 80 − I=0
A g Vg 15
Vm 8
= I − 80
A g × 2gh t 15
80 ×15
60 × 30 × 14 I−
= 8
6 × 2 × 9.81× 14
I = 150A
= 253.419 sec.
20. Which condition is non favourable for 22. In a gating system desing, a down sprue of 180
continuous chips?: mm length has a diameter of 20 mm at its top
(a) Low feed and depth of cut end. The liquid metal n pouring cup is
(b) Brittle work piece maintained up to 60 mm height. The diameter,
in mm. of the down sprue at its lower end to
(c) High speed
avoid aspiration will be :
(d) High back rake angle (a) 11.11 (b) 14.14
BHEL ET 2019 (c) 25 (d) 17.32
Ans. (b) : Brittle work piece is non favourable BHEL ET 2019
condition for continuous chips. Ans. (b) : Given-
21. A DC welding power source has a linear
voltage-current (V-I) characteristic with an
open circuit voltage of 80 V and a short circuit
current of 300 A. For maximum are power, the
current (in Amperes) should be set at _______.
(a) 1200 A (b) 150 A
(c) 1500 A (d) 120 A V
BHEL ET 2019 hs = 180 mm
Ans. (b) : Given - VOC = 80 V D2 = 20 mm
ISC = 300 A hc = 60 mm
Linear voltage (V.I)- Applying continuity equation (2) to (3)
V I section -
+ =1 Q = A2 V2 = A3 V3
VOC I SC
A 2 V3 2gh t
V I = =
+ =1 A V 2gh c
80 300 3 2

V I  A2  ht
= 1−  =
80 300 A
 3 h c

705
 π 25. In a green sand molding process, uniform
×(D2 )
2

4 240 ramming leads to

= =2 (a) less chance of porosity
π 60
(D 3 )
2

4 (b) uniform flow of molten metal into mold

2 cavity
 D2  (c) greater dimensional stability of the casting
  =2
 D3  (d) less sand expansion type of casting defect
( 20 )
2 TNPSC AE 2018
=2 Ans. (c) : In a green sand molding process, uniform
(D 3 )
2
ramming leads to greater dimensional stability of the
400 casting.
= (D3 )
2

2 26. Surfaces to be left unfinished are to be painted

D 3 = 200 (a) red (b) blue
(c) black (d) yellow
D 3 = 14.14 mm
TNPSC AE 2018
23. While cooling, a cubical casting of side 40 mm Ans. (c) : Those surfaces which are to be left
undergoes 3%, 4% and 5% volume shrinkage unfinished, painted by black colour.
during the liquid state, phase transition and
solid state respectively. The volume of metal 27. Consider the following statements with regard
compensated from the riser is : to the feeding system for a casting:
(a) 9% (b) 5% 1. The feeder should be thermally adequate
(c) 7% (d) 12% 2. The feeder should be volumetrically adequate
BHEL ET 2019 3. The feeder should have adequate feeding
Ans. (c) : Liquid and Solidification shrinkage can be range.
compensated by providing Riser. Which of the above statements are correct?
Given - Liquid shrinkage = 3% (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Solidification shrinkage = 4% (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Volume of metal compensated from JWM 2017
The riser = 3 + 4 = 7% Ans. (d) : In feeding system for casting, the feeder
24. The diameter of an optimum cylindrical riser should be thermally adequate, volumetrically adequate
(height = diameter) attached to the side of a and have adequate feeding range.
steel plate casting having dimensions of 25 cm
× 12.5 cm × 5 cm, by assuming that volumetric 28. In any casting process, shrinkage allowance on
shrinkage of solidification is 3% for steel and the pattern is provided in order to compensate
that the volume of the riser is 3 times that by for shrinkage when
the shrinkage consideration alone, will be : (a) The temperature of the liquid metal drops
(a) 8.32 cm (b) 7.26 cm from the pouring to its freezing temperature
(c) 3.24 cm (d) 5.64 cm (b) The metal changes from the liquid to the solid
BHEL ET 2019 state at its freezing temperature
Ans. (d) : Cylindrical riser (c) The temperature of solid phase drops from it
height = diameter freezing temperature to room temperature
(d) The temperature of metal drops from its
h=d pouring temperature to room temperature
Volume of casting = 25 cm × 12.5 cm × 5cm JWM 2017
= 1562.5 cm3 Ans. (c) : Solid shrinkage are compensated by giving
π shrinkage allowance is oversize pattern.
Volumetric shrinkage = v = d 2 h
4 Solid Shrinkage- When the temperature of solid phase
h=d drops from its freezing temperature to room temperature.
Assuming volumetric shrinkage = 3 × 1562.5 × 0.03 29. Investment casting is used for
= 140.625 cm3 (a) Mass production
Volume of riser when shrinkage consideration alone (b) Shapes that are made with difficulty using
π complex patterns in sand casting
v = d 3 = 140.625
4 (c) Stainless steel parts
= d = 5.636 cm (d) Shapes which are complex, intricate and
or h = d = 5.64 cm cannot be cast by any other method
JWM 2017
706
Ans. (d) : Investment casting is used for-
• Complex shapes which are difficult to produce by
any other method are possible since the pattern is
withdrawn by melting it.
• Very fine details and thin section can be produced
by this process.
• Very close tolerance and better surface finish can be
produced.
30. According to Chvorinov, following is the
correct formula for solidification time (Ts),
where k = Mould casting constant, V = volume
of casting, SA = surface area.
2 2
 SA   SA 
(a) Ts = V   (b) T s = k  V 
 k   
2 2
 V   k 
(c) Ts = k   (d) Ts = V  
 SA   SA 
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (c) : According to Chvorinov rule
2 CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
 V 
Solidification time = k   Ans. (b) : A carburizing flame is one in which the
 SA 
Where V = volume of casting
S.A. = surface area of casting
31. Cold chamber die casting is suitable for which
of the material listed below?
(a) Brass (b) Tin
(c) Zinc (d) Lead
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (a) : Cold chamber die casting : In this the
furnace is separated from casting unit. It is used to
produce high melting point material casting. Force
required to move the liquid metal into the die will be
high when compare to hot chamber die casting. Brass,
Copper Aluminium and Magnesium is commonly cold
die casting metals.
32. Sand and oxide layers adhering to the casting
are removed by which of the following
processes?
(a) Heating (b) Shot blasting
(c) Gas cutting (d) Air cooling
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (b) : Shot blasting is a post-production finishing
service that is processed through the rapid impacting of
a part’s surface with a defined amount of abrasive
material. It helps in removing sand and oxide layer.
33. Which of the following are provided in mould
so as to increase the heat extraction capacity of
the sand mould?
(a) Chaplets (b) Core
(c) Chills (d) Cope
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (c) : Chaplet: Chaplets are used to support cores
inside the mould cavity.
Chill: Chills are metallic objects, which are placed in
the mould to increase the heat extraction capacity of
castings.
Core: Used for making hollow cavities in castings.
Cope: Upper part of mould is cope and lower part is
drag. Sometime moulding box contains three parts at
that time middle part is known as cheek.
707
34. Which of the following is the best suited for
production of hollow pipes?
(a) Centrifugal casting
(b) Investment casting
(c) Continuous casting
(d) Hot chamber die casting
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (a) : Centrifugal casting is used for making bigger
size hollow symmetrical pipes. For producing a hollow
part, the axis of rotation is placed at the center of the
desired casting. The speed of rotation is maintained as
high as to produce a centripetal acceleration of the order
of 60g to 70g. It should be noted casting of hollow parts
need no core in this process.
35. If the proportional of oxygen is less than the
proportion of acetylene in oxy acetylene gas
welding, the flame produced is ______ .
(a) Plasma arc (b) Carburizing flame
(c) Oxidizing flame (d) Neutral flame
supply of acetylene is in excess as compared to the
oxygen. If the supply of acetylene is less than the
supply of oxygen than the flame is known as oxidizing
flame. If both acetylene and oxygen are in the ratio of
1 : 1 then flame is called neutral flame.
36. The gating ratio refers to the cross sectional
areas of:
(a) Sprue : In-gate : Runner
(b) Spure : Runner : In-gate
(c) In-gate : Runner : Sprue
(d) Runner : Spure : In-gate
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (b) : Gating ratio = Sprue area : Runner area : In-
gate area.
37. Which force is acting on the core when the
metal is poured into mould cavity?
(a) Gravity (b) Inertia
(c) Buoyancy (d) Drag
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (c) : As the density of core (made of sand) is less
than the density of metal being poured in the cavity. So
there will be an upward buoyancy force on the core. To
overcome this force the core print are used.
38. "A reservoir of molten metal provided in the
casting so that hot metal can flow back into the
mould cavity due to the reduction in volume of
metal due to solidification" is known as:
(a) Spure (b) Runner
(c) Riser (d) Core
(e) Chills
CGPSC AE 2014- I
Ans. (c) : Riser- A reservoir of molten metal provided
in the casting so that hot metal can flow back into the
mould cavity due to the reduction in volume of metal
due to solidification.
Riser compensate two type contraction—
1. Liquids
2. Solidification.
39. The ability of casting material to fill the mould carefully formed and pulled through a heated die to
cavity is described by ................... form a part. Pultrusion results in straight constant cross-
(a) cohesiveness (b) reactiveness section parts of virtually any shippable length.
(c) fluidity (d) permeability Calendaring process—A calendar is a series of hard
RPSC AE 2018 pressure rollers used to finish or smooth a sheet of
Ans. (c) : The ability of casting material to fill the material such as paper, textiles or plastics. Calendar
mould cavity is described by fluidity. rolls are also used to form some type of plastic films.
Fluidity—Fluidity an ability of metals and alloys to Injection molding processing technique does not
flow through the getting system filling the cavity of the produce continuous product.
casting mould and conforming its shape. 44. If a cube of 100 mm dimension is to be made of
Factor determining fluidity Aluminium (shrinkage allowance = 10 mm/m).
Solidification interval—The wider solidification What will be the dimension of wooden pattern?
interval of an alloy, the lower fluidity of the alloy. Assume only shrinkage allowance.
Viscosity—Viscosity of the alloy, the lower viscosity of (a) 101mm × 101mm × 101mm
an alloy, the better its fluidity. (b) 100mm × 99mm × 98mm
40. Shrinkage allowance may be expressed in: (c) 99mm × 99mm × 99mm
(a) mm/kg.f (b) mm/meter (d) 102mm × 101mm × 100mm
(c) mm/kg (d) radian/sec UPRVUNL AE 2016
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (a) : Shrinkage allowance = 10 mm/m
Ans. (b) : Shrinkage allowance may be expressed in
= 1 mm/100 mm
mm/meter.
41. For Gating system of casting, choke are (A)
may be written as (where, m = mass of casting,
ρ = density of molten metal, H = effective metal
height, C = efficiency factor, t = pouring time):
m ρm
(a) A = (b) A =
ρ tC 2 gH tC 2 gHThen dimension of wooden pattern
= (100 + 1) × (100 + 1) × (100 × 1)
m 2 gH tm
(c) A = (d) A = = 101 × 101 × 101 mm3
ρ tC ρ C 2 gH 45. A casting of size 100 × 100 × 100 mm3 solidifies
UPRVUNL AE 2016 in 20 minutes. Find out the solidification time
Ans. (a) : Choke area, for casting of size 100 × 100 × 50 mm3 under
m same condition.
A=
ρ tC 2 gH (a) 16.3 minutes (b) 14.3 minutes
(c) 12.3 minutes (d) 11.3 minutes
42. Which of the following is not the casting
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
defect?
(a) Hot tears (b) Stop-off Ans. (d) : Casting size = 100 × 100 × 100 mm3
(c) Run out (d) Blow holes Solidifies time = 20 minutes
UPRVUNL AE 2016 Solidification time = t2
Ans. (b) : Stop-off is not the casting defect. For size = 100 × 100 × 50 mm3
2
Hot-tears—Hot tears, also known as hot cracking, are V 
failures in the casting that occur as the casting cools. Solidification time t s = K  A
 
Run-out—A run-out is caused when the molten metal
leaks out of the mould caused by faulty mould making where
or faulty flask. K - Solidification area
Blow holes—When gases entrapped on the surface of A - surface area
the casting due to solidifying metal, a rounded or oval For same condition
2
cavity is formed called as blow holes. 100 ×100 ×100 
ts1 = K  
43. Which of the following processing techniques  6 × 100
2

does not produce continuous product? 2
(a) Extrusion (b) Pultrusion 100 
ts1 = K ×   ...(1)
(c) Calendaring (d) Injection molding  6 
UPRVUNL AE 2016 20
Ans. (d) : Pultrusion process—Pultrusion is a K= 2
= 0.072 mint/mm
continuous molding process whereby reinforcing fibers  100 
 
are saturated with a liquid polymer resin and then  6 

708
 Ans. (a) : Bottom gate is not the slag trap method used
 100 × 100 × 50 
2 in sand molding.
ts 2 = K   50. Cylinder blocks of internal combustion engine
 2 × 100 × 100 + 2 × 100 × 50 + 2 × 100 × 50  are made by
2
 500000  (a) Forging (b) Extrusion
t s 2 = 0.072   (c) Casting (d) Drilling
 40000 
(e) Broaching
ts 2 = 0.072 × 156.25 CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
t s 2 = 11.25 ≃ 11.3minutes Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (c) : Manufacturing of engine blocks are mainly
46. In sand-casting, when it is not possible to get
done using sand casting, although die casting also used
very fine details on the surface then some
it is more cost effective as the die wear out easily due to
modifications are done in a pattern termed as:
the high temperature of the molten metal. The casted
(a) Pattern allowance
engine block is then machined to get the surface finish
(b) Shrinkage allowance
(c) Machine allowance and coolant passages.
(d) Core prints 51. In shell moulding, the dimensional accuracy
(e) Elimination of details that can be expected is
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) (a) 0.001 to 0.002 mm/mm
Ans. (e) : In sand-casting, when it is not possible to get (b) 0.003 to 0.005 mm/mm
(c) 0.1 mm to 0.3 mm/mm
very fine details on the surface then some modification
(d) 0.3 mm to 0.5 mm/mm
are done is known as Elimination of details.
Pattern allowance, shrinkage allowance and machine Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
allowance are provided on the pattern if the casting is to Ans. (b) : Shell moulding is a process that uses a risk
be machined whereas core print is an open space covered sand to form the mold. It has better dimensional
provided in the mould for locating, positioning and accuracy of the order of 0.002 to 0.003 mm. Shell mold
supporting core. requires less floor space for casting.
47. The ability of the molding material to 52. The disadvantage of die casting process is
withstand the high temperatures of molten (a) High production rates are not possible
metal so that it does not cause fusion is known (b) Surface finish is poor
as: (c) Heavy sections can be easily cast
(a) Refractoriness (b) Green strength (d) Cost is less
(c) Dry strength (d) Hot strength Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
(e) Permeability Ans. (c) : Disadvantage of die-casting process are :-
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) 1) All metal & alloy cannot be cast.
Ans. (a) : Refractoriness is the ability of the molding 2) Cost of machines, dies and other equipment is high
material to withstand the high temperature of molten 3) Heavy casting cannot be cast.
metal so that it does not cause fusion. Molding sands 53. In centrifugal castings, the cores are generally
with poor refractoriness may burn when the molten made of
metal is poured into the mould cavity. Usually sand (a) Green sand and molasses
moulds should be able to withstand upto 1650°C. (b) Wax
48. Generally, ______ is used as a binder in core (c) Plastic
sand. (d) Plaster of Paris
(a) Fire clay (b) Kaolinite Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
(c) Bentonite (d) Linseed oil Ans. (a) : Special type of sand cores is mainly used for
(e) Starch the making of hollow part in the centrifugal casting. In
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) centrifugal casting, actually there is no requirement of
Ans. (d) : Linseed oil, generally is used as a binder in any core for the making of the concentric hole. As, the
core sand. metal pushed outward because of centrifugal force.
Core sand is usually a mixture of sand grains and 54. The firing of a cupola is started
organic binders which develop great strength after (a) 2½ to 3 hours before the first metal is tapped
baking at 250–650F, with the help of core sand, it is (b) 6 to 8 hours before the first metal is tapped
possible to create intricate casting by casting metal (c) 8 to 12 hours before the first metal is topped
around thin sand projections without having them break. (d) 12 to 18 hours before the first metal is topped
49. ______ is not the slag trap method used in sand Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
molding. Ans. (a) : The firing of a cupola is stared 2½ to 3 hours
(a) Bottom gate (b) Pouring basin before the first metal is tapped for pouring.
(c) Strainer core (d) Runner extension 55. True centrifugal casting is used to
(e) Whirl gate (a) Cast objects symmetrical about an axis
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) (b) Get accurate castings
709
 (c) Get dynamically balanced castings Ans. (b) : Riser is designed in such a way that the
(d) Get statistically balanced castings solidification in the riser take place after the
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper solidification of the casting.
Ans. (a) : True centrifugal casting is generally used for 62. Tuyeres are provided in cupola furnace for
the making of hollow pipes and tubes, which are axi- (a) air blasting
symmetric with a concentric hole. (b) collecting slag
56. A sprue is (c) collecting liquid metal
(a) A sprue is the passage through which liquid (d) filling in the charge
material is introduced into a mold A process Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
of cleaning castings Ans. (d) : The tuyeres are the components in cupola
(b) A chemical added to molten materials to get furnace are responsible for the supply of air for
sound castings combustion in cupola with the help of blower.
(c) A special type of non-ferrous core used in 63. Which of the following is not a part of gating
centrifugal castings only system?
(d) A process of cleaning casting (a) Pounng basin (b) Sprue
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper (c) Gates and riser (d) Vents
Ans. (a) : A sprue is the passage through which liquid Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
material is introduced into a mold, a process of cleaning Ans. (d) : Vents is not a part of gating system.
castings. Main purpose of sprue is feed molten metal 64. Ornaments are cast by
from the pouring basin to the gate. (a) Die casting (b) Continuous casting
57. The fuel used in pit furnace is generally (c) Pressed casting (d) Centrifugal casting
(a) Wood (b) Charcoal SJVN ET 2013
(c) Oil (d) Coal Ans. (c) : Slush casting is a traditional method of
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper permanent mold casting process, where the molten
Ans. (d) : The fuel used in pit furnace is generally coal. metal is not allowed to completely solidity in the mold.
58. Riser is generally located When the desired thickness is obtained the remaining
(a) near the deepest section of the mould molten metal is poured out.
(b) near the parting line 65. The sand is packed on pit moulds with
(c) on the upper most section of the casting (a) Manually (b) Squeezers
(d) Opposite to the pouring end (c) Jolt Machine (d) Sand Slingers
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper SJVN ET 2013
Ans. (c) : Riser is generally located on the upper most Ans. (d) : The sand is packed on pit moulds with sand
section of the casting. slingers.
59. Pouring basing is provided in sand moulds 66. Die cast parts are used when–
(a) to reduce the turbulence in the liquid metal (a) material of the parts has low melting point
(b) to maintain high temperature of liquid metal (b) parts have small size
(c) to increase fluidity (c) all three objectives are desired
(d) to improve properties of sand (d) parts are made on large scale
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper Ans. (d) : Die cast parts are used when
Ans. (a) : Pouring basing is provided in sand moulds to 1. material of the parts has low melting point.
reduce the turbulence in the liquid metal. 2. Parts have small size
60. In die casting the moulds are made of 3. Parts are made on large scale
(a) metal (b) ceramic 67. Which of the following is not a part of gating
(c) sand (d) glass system?
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper (a) Pouring basin (b) Sprue
Ans. (a) : In die casting, the mould is made by metallic (c) Gates and riser (d) Vents
material. Metallic mould is used in die-casting which Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
result for the extraction of heat from the molten metal Ans. (d) : Vents is not a part of gating system.
will not be easy. So, water cooling channels is used near 68. In die casting process
the castings. This made the proper solidification of the (a) Any metal can be cast
castings. (b) Any size of casting can be prepared
61. The riser is designed in such way that (c) The cost of dies is generally insignificant
(a) it solidifies before the casting (d) Very high production rates are possible
(b) it solidifies after the casting Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
(c) both riser and casting solidifies at the same time Ans. (d) : In die casting process a high production rates
(d) there is no relation between solidification of are possible.
casting and riser 69. The main advantage of investment casting is–
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper (a) Raw materials required are cheap
710
 (b) No special tooling is required Ans. (c) : Wood for pattern is considered dry when
(c) There is no sophisticated technology moisture content is less than 15%
involved 76. Accuracy of shell moulding is of the order of
(d) It can be conveniently adopted for heavy (a) 0.001 mm/mm
castings (b) 0.003 to 0.005 mm/mm
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper (c) 0.01 mm/mm
Ans. (d) : Investment casting is suitable for both small (d) 0.1 mm
cost part & heavy or large casting. SJVN ET 2013
70. The molten metal is not introduced directly Ans. (b) : Accuracy of shell molding is of the order of
into the mould Cavity as it will cause: 0.003 to 0.005 mm/mm
(a) Erosion of the mould cavity
(b) Corrosion of the mould cavity 77. Consider the following statements
(c) Crack in the bottom surface 1. Permanent Molding produces a sound dense
(d) Breakage of the mould casting with superior mechanical properties.
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 2. The castings produced are quite uniform in
Ans. (a) : The molten metal is not introduced directly shape have a higher degree of dimensional
into the mould Cavity as it will cause erosion of the accuracy than castings produced in sand
mould cavity. 3. The permanent mold process is also capable
71. Which one does not form a part of the gating of producing a consistent quality of finish on
system for a casting: castings
(a) Pouring basin (b) Spure 4. The cost of tooling is usually higher than for
(c) Choke (d) Pattern sand castings
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 5. The process is generally limited to the
Ans. (d) : Pouring basin, spure, and choke are the parts production of small castings of simple
of gating system for a casting whereas pattern is not a exterior design, although complex castings
part of gating system. such as aluminium engine blocks and heads
are now common place.
72. Shrinkage allowance is added to pattern
dimensions to take care of : Out of the above which are the characteristics
(a) Liquid shrinkage of permanent mold casting?
(b) Liquid and solid shrinkage (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) Solid shrinkage (c) 1, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) None of these (e) 2, 3, 4 and 5
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Ans. (c) : Shrinkage allowance is added to pattern Ans. (d) : Characteristics of permanent mould casting
dimensions to take care of solid shrinkage. (i) Castings produced by this method have very
73. Find grains size during the solidification of a close grain texture and hence porosity is decreased by
metal is achieved by: half to that of sand casting.
(a) Lower nucleation rate (ii) Castings produced by this method are superior
(b) Higher nucleation rate with lower growth rate in hardness and mechanical properties.
(c) Higher nucleation rate with higher growth rate (iii) The castings are free from sand with good
(d) Larger growth rate surface finish.
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 (iv) The cost of tooling is usually higher than for
Ans. (b) : Find grains size during the solidification of a sand casting.
metal is achieved by higher nucleation rate with lower (v) The process is capable of producing more
growth rate. complex shapes and design that sand casting.
74. Which is not a casting defect? 78. A casting process in which molten metal is
(a) Misruns (b) Cope and Drag poured in a mould and allowed to solidify while
(c) Lifts and shifts (d) sponginess the mould is revolving is known as:
SJVN ET 2013 (a) Die casting (b) Investment casting
Ans. (b) : Casting defects- (c) Centrifugal casting (d) Continuous casting
• Blow holes SJVN ET 2019
• Air inclusions APPSC AEE 2016
• Pinhole porosity Ans. (c) : Centrifugal casting a casting process in which
• Cuts and washes molten metal is poured in a mould and allowed to
• Fusion solidify while the mould is revolving is called
• Drop centrifugal process. The casting produced under this
75. Wood for pattern is considered dry when centrifugal force is called centrifugal casting. This
moisture content is process is especially employed for casting articles of
(a) 0% (b) 5% symmetrical shape. The ferrous and nonferrous metal
(c) Less than 15% (d) Less then 25% can be casted by this process have dense and fine
SJVN ET 2013 grained structure.
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79. A zone of cupola furnace which starts from 82. Shift is a casting defect which
above the melting zone and extends upto (a) Results in a mismatching of the top and
bottom of charging door is known as: bottom parts of a casting
(a) Stack zone (b) Well (b) Results in general enlargement of a casting
(c) Preheating zone (d) Combustion zone (c) Occurs near the ingrates as rough lumps on
SJVN ET 2019 the surface of a casting
(d) Occurs as sand patches on the upper surface
Ans. (c) : A zone of cupola furnace which starts from of a casting
above the melting zone and extends upto bottom of APPSC AEE 2016
charging door is known as preheating zone. Ans. (a) : Shift is a casting defect which results in a
80. Consider the following statements mismatching of the top and bottom parts of a casting.
1. To minimize turbulence to avoid trapping 83. The property of sand due to which the sand
gasses into the mold grains stick together is called :
2. To get enough metal into the mold cavity (a) Collapsibility (b) Permeability
before the metal starts to solidify (c) Cohesiveness (d) Adhesiveness
3. To avoid shrinkage OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
4. Establish the best possible temperature Ans. (c) : The property of sand due to which the sand
gradient in the solidifying casting so that the grains stick together is called cohesiveness.
shrinkage if occurs must be in the gating 84. The purpose of gate is used to :
system not in the required cast part. (a) Deliver molten metal into the mould cavity
5. Does not Incorporate a system for trapping (b) Act as a reservoir for the molten metal
the non-metallic inclusions (c) Feed the molten metal to the casting in order
From the above options choose the statements to compensate for the shrinkage
that best describe the goals for a gating system (d) Deliver molten metal from the pouring basin
(a) 2, 4, 5 (b) 1, 3, 4 to gate
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 1, 3, 4, 5 OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
(e) 2, 3, 4 Ans. (a) :
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift ! Gate is provided to feed mould cavity to feed casting
Ans. (c) : The assembly of channels which facilitates at desired flow rate.
! Airvents may be provided for escape of gases.
the molten metal to enter into the mould cavity is called
! Riser and shrinkage allowance is provided to
the gating system. compensate the shrinkage.
The goals for the gating are:
85. Statement (I): Thicker sections of casting take
(i) To minimise turbulence to avoid trapping gases longer to solidify than thinner sections.
into the mould. Statement (II): Thicker sections of casting carry
(ii) To get enough metal into the mould cavity before residual stresses.
the metal starts to solidify. ESE 2017
(iii) To avoid shrinkage. Ans. (b) : Thicker sections take longer time for
(iv) Establish the best possible temperature gradient in solidification because they have higher (V/A). Thicker
the solidifying casting so that the shrinkage if sections have more residual stresses due to higher
occurs must be in the gating system not in the differential cooling rate. Thicker sections of casting will
required cast part. take longer duration because, amount of molten metal in
(v) Incorporates a system for trapping the non- cavity is high, heat to be removed from the molten
metallic inclusion. metal is high and hence time taken is longer.
81. Gray cast iron blocks 200 × 100 × 10 mm are to As the solidified metal is shrinking, it induces residual
stresses in the thicker sections. Hence both the
be cast in sand moulds. Shrinkage allowance
statements are correct but II is not the correct
for pattern making is 1%. The ratio of the explanation of I.
volume of pattern to that of the casing will be
86. Statement (I): Sand with grains of uniform round
(a) 0.97 (b) 0.99
shape is preferred for preparing moulds.
(c) 1.01 (d) 1.03
Statement (II): If grains are large and regular in
(e) 0.96
shape, the air-venting property of the mould
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
prepared with them would be better.
Ans. (d) : Vcasting = 200 ×100 ×10 ESE 2017
Vpattern =  200 + 200 × 1  ×  100 + 100 × 1  ×  10 + 10 × 1  Ans. (d) : Uniform round shape grains do not provide
 100   100   100  good strength. Generally good sand is one in which
= 202 ×101×10.1 most of the sand is refined in three consecutive sieves.
then Round grains have more void space. So air venting
Vpattern 202 × 101 × 10.1 capability is more. As grain size is large, the inter space
= = 1.03 will be high hence porosity property is high.
Vcasting 200 × 100 × 10 Hence statement-I is false and statement-II is correct.
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87. Hot tear is a 90. Dye penetration inspection is generally used to
(a) hot working process (b) welding defect locate
(c) casting defect (d) forging defect (a) Temporary defects
TNPSC AE 2018 (b) Surface breaking defects
Ans. (c) : Hot tears, also known as hot cracking, are (c) Artificial defects
failures in the casting that occur as the casting cools. (d) Core defects
This happens because the metal is weak when it is hot APPSC AEE 2016
and the residual stresses in the material can cause the Ans. (b) : Dye penetration inspection is generally used
casting to fail as it cools. Proper mold design prevents to locate Surface breaking defects.
this type of defects. 91. Sweep patterns are used for moulding parts
88. A cylindrical blind riser with diameter 'd' and having the shape of
height 'h' is placed on the top of mold cavity of (a) rectangular (b) complex shape
a closed type sand mold. If the riser is of (c) square (d) symmetrical
constant volume, then the rate of solidification TSPSC AEE 2015
in the riser is the least when the ratio h/d is Ans. (d) : Sweep patterns are used for moulding parts
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 having the shape of symmetrical.
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1 92. Identify the odd one out in casting process
TNPSC AE 2018 (a) chills (b) padding
Ans. (a) : Optimum condition for top blind riser- (c) inoculation (d) loam sand
solidification time (ts) ↑ and surface are A ↓ TSPSC AEE 2015
π Ans. (d) :
A = d 2 + πdh
4 93. Chills are not used in the following application
π 2 (a) directional solidifications
V = d ×h (b) smaller casting for eutectic alloy
4 (c) change in crossections
π 2 4V (d) complex geometry
A = d + πd. 2
4 πd TSPSC AEE 2015
dA Ans. (b) : Chills are used in the application of
=0 directional solidifications, change in cross section and
d (d)
complex geometry not for smaller casting for eutectic
π 4V alloy.
2 d + ( −1) 2 = 0
4 d 94. Zinc alloys are preferentially cast by
2π 4V (a) investment casting
d= 2 (b) die casting
4 d (c) centrifugal casting
π 3 π 2 (d) shell-mould casting
V = d = d ×h
8 4 BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
Ans : (b) : Die casting- The die casting (also known as
h 1
= pressure die casting) may be defined as that casting
d 2 which uses the permanent mould (called die) and the
89. An aluminium cube of 12 cm side has to be cast molten metal is introduced into it by means of pressure.
along a cylindrical riser of height equal to its Even though lead zinc and its alloys also can be casted
diameter. The riser is not insulated on any but they are not used commonly in engineering hence
surface. If the volume shrinkage of aluminium aluminum and its alloys are the most commonly used
materials in the die casting.
during solidification is 6 percent, calculate
shrinkage volume on solidification 95. Consumable patterns are made of
(a) 72 cm3 (b) 103.68 cm3 (a) Polystyrene (b) Wax
3 (c) Plaster of Paris (d) Any of the above
(c) 1728 cm (d) 1624.32 cm3
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans : (a) : Consumable patterns are made of
Ans. (b) : Data given as, polystyrene.
a = 12 cm
96. Shell patterns are often used for
Volume shrinkage of aluminium during
(a) Pipe work (b) Bends
solidification = 6% × V
(c) Drainage fittings (d) All of the above
V = a3 = (12)3 = 1728 cm2
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Then, shrinkage volume on solidification
Ans : (d) : Shell patterns are often used for
6 ! Pipe work
= 1728 ×
100 ! Bends
= 103.68 cm3 ! Drainage fittings
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97. Cohesiveness of sand depends on 102. A casting defect which occurs due to improper
(a) Grain size and shape of the sand particles venting of sand is known as
(b) Bonding materials (a) cold shuts (b) blow holes
(c) Moisture content (c) shift (d) swell
(d) All of the above TSPSC AEE 2015
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 Ans : (b) A casting defect which occurs due to
Ans : (d) : Cohesiveness- It is the property of sand due improper venting of sand is known as blow holes.
to which the sand grain slick to together during Blow holes:- It is an excessively smooth depression on
ramming. It is defined as the strength of the moulding the outer surface of a casting.
sand. Cohesiveness of sand depend on- A casting defect which occurs due to improper venting
! Grain size and shape of the sand particles.
of sand is known as blow holes.
! Bonding materials
! Moisture content 103. Loam sand comprises of
98. A casting defect which results in general (a) 40% of clay and 10% moisture
enlargement of a casting is known as (b) 50% of clay and 10% moisture
(a) Shift (b) Sand wash (c) 80% of clay and 20% moisture
(c) Swell (d) Scab (d) 50% of clay and 18% moisture
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 (KPSC AE 2015)
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 Ans : (d) Loam sand contains upto 50% clay and dries
Ans : (c) : Swell- A casting defect which results in hard. It also contains fire clay. It must be sufficiently
general enlargement of a casting is known as swell. adhesive to hold on to the vertical surface of the rough
99. Which one of the following materials will structure of the mould. Chopped stray and manure are
require the largest size of riser for the same commonly used to assist in binding. The moisture
size of casting? content is from 18 to 20%
(a) Aluminium (b) Cast iron
104. When V is the volume and A is the surface area
(c) Steel (d) Copper
RPSC AE 2018 of the casting, then according to Chvorinov's
Ans. (a) : Aluminium will require the largest size of equation, solidification time of a casting is
riser for the same size of casting. proportional to
2
• Liquid shrinkage maximum for aluminium → 65%. V V
• Liquid and solidification shrinkage is max for (a) (b)  
A A
aluminium which required more volume of riser.
3 4
• Solid shrinkage is maximum for brass which V V
required large size of pattern. (c)   (d)
 
A A
• Total shrinkage maximum for steel.
Note:-Option (c) given by RPSC as a answer. BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
100. Directional solidification in casting can be Ans : (b) Chvorinov's Rule:- It states that the freezing
improved by using: time of a casting
(a) Chills and chaplets V 
2

(b) Chills and padding ts = K  

(c) Chaplets and padding  A
(d) Chills, chaplets and padding K = Solidification constant
UJVNL AE 2016 V
= ratio of volume of the casting to its surface area.
Ans : (b) Directional Solidification:- Directional A
Solidification can be ensured by designing and 2
positioning the system and riser properly. V 
Best riser is one whose   is 10 to 15% larger than
101. Green sand is a mixture of  A
(a) 30% sand, 70% clay that of the casting
(b) 50% sand, 50 % clay 105. Refractoriness in the moulding sand is due to
(c) 70% sand, 30% clay the presence of
(d) 90% sand, 10% clay (a) clay (b) silica
TSPSC AEE 2015 (c) additives and binders (d) dust
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
Ans : (c) Green sand is a mixture of 70% sand, 30% clay.
Ans : (b) Refractoriness in the moulding sand is due to
Green sand:- When sand is in its natural state, it is
referred to an green sand. It is a mixture of silica sand, the presence of silica.
with 18 to 30% clay and 6 to 8% water. The clay and It is the ability of the silica sand to withstand high heat
water gives bonding strenght to green sand is generally without breaking down or fusing. Sand with poor
used for casting small or medium sized moulds. refractoriness may burn at high temperature.
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106. In...............casting expendable pattern is used. 109. The colour marked on the surface of a pattern
(a) die (b) squeeze to be machined is :
(c) investment (d) continuous (a) black (b) green
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) (c) red (d) blue
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
(KPSC AE. 2015) Ans : (c) The colour marked on the surface of a pattern
UJVNL AE 2016 to be machined is red.
Ans : (c) In investment casting expendable pattern is 110. Hot tears results in castings due to:
used. (a) Too much shrinkage of molten metal
Investment Casting :- In this mould is prepared an (b) High content of sulfur in molten metal
(c) Less moisture in mould
expendable pattern wax. It is used for making Jewellary
(d) Both (a) and (b)
surgical equipments, blade for gas turbine.
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
It is also known as lost wax process or precision
Ans : (a) Hot tears results in castings due to, too much
casting. The casting produced by this method are within shrinkage of molten metal.
very close tolerance (± 0.05 mm) and do not require Hot tear : It is an internal or external ragged
subsequent machining. discontinuity in the metal costing resulting from
107. In sand casting lower part of the moulding hindered contraction occurring Just after the metal has
flask is called: solidified.
(a) cope (b) riser 111. Which of the following materials requires the
(c) drag (d) none of these largest shrinkage allowance, while making a
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) pattern for casting?
Ans : (c) (a) Cast iron (b) Brass
(c) Aluminum (d) Plain carbon steel
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(KPSC AE 2015)
Ans : (d)
Pattern Materials Shrinkage allowance
(mm/meter)
Cast iron 7-10.5
White cast iron 21
Malleable CI 15
Steel 20
Brass 14
Aluminium 18
Aluminium alloy 13–16
Bronze 10.5–20
In sand casting lower part of the moulding flask is 112. Coal dust, is added to moulding sounds for
called drag improving of the casing:
108. The process of making hollow castings of (a) Surface finish (b) Collapsibility
desired thickness by permanent mould without (c) Hot strength (d) Dry strength
the use of cores is known as : OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
(a) die casting (b) slush casting Ans : (a) Coal dust, is added to moulding sands for
(c) pressed casting (d) centrifugal casting improving surface finishing of the casting.
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 Composition of green synthetic sand for steel casting is
TSPSC AEE 2015 an under. New Silica sand–25%, old sand–70%,
Ans : (b) The process of making hollow costing of Bentonite–1.5%, Dextrine–0.25% and moisture–3 to 3.5%.
desired thickness by permanent mould without the use 113. Match the following manufacturing processes
of cores is known as slush casting. with the manufactured products:
Slush Casting:-This method is a special application of (a) Investment casting (1) Turbine rotors
permanent mould casting in which hollow casting are (b) Die casting (2) Turbine blades
produced without the use of cores. Molten metal is (c) Centrifuged casting (3) Connecting rods
poured into the metallic mould and allowed to solidify (d) Drop forging (4) Gl pipes
upto the required thickness. The mould is then turned (e) Extrusion (5) Cl Pipes
over so that the remaining liquid metal falls out and (f) Shell moulding (6) Carburetor body
casting of desired thickness can be obtained. Normally (a) 1, 6, 5, 3, 2, 4 (b) 1, 6, 5, 3, 4, 2
small thickness casting of lead zinc and law melting (c) 6, 1, 5, 3, 2, 4 (d) 1, 6, 3, 5, 4, 2
alloy are obtained by slush casting method. OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
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 Ans : (b) 118. In centrifugal casting, the impurities are
Manufactured Process Manufactured Products (a) Uniformly distributed
(i) Investment casting (i) Turbine rotors (b) Forced towards the outer surface
(ii) Die casting (ii) Carburetor body (c) Trapped near the mean radius of the casting
(iii) Centrifuged casting (iii) CI pipes (d) Collected at the centre of the casting
(iv) Drop forging (iv) Connecting rods. UJVNL AE 2016
(v) Extrusion (v) GI pipes.
(vi) Shell moulding (vi) Turbine blades. Ans : (d) In centrifugal casting, the impurities are
114. Swab is collected at the centre of the casting.
(a) a welding defect (b) a gear cutter Centrifugal casting:- In centrifugal casting no core is
(c) a tool used in foundry (d) a forging die needed to form the hole in the middle. Centrifugal
RPSC AE 2016 casting finds its best use in mass production, The use in
Ans : (c) Swab is a tool used in foundry. machinery and equipment for centrifugal casting can be
swab:- It is made of flax or hemp and is used for justified only when a large quantity of identical casting
applying water to the mould around the edge of the are required.
pattern. This prevents the sand edges from crumbling,
when the pattern is removed from the mould. 119. Moulding sand should posses which property
(a) Collapsibility (b) Flow ability
115. Match list-I (Process) with -II (Products or raw
material) and Select the correct Ans.wer using (c) Cohesion (d) All of the above
the codes given below the list: UJVNL AE 2016
List-I List-II Ans : (d) Property of moulding sands.:-
(a) Die casting 1. Phenol formaldehyde i) Permeability v. Refractoriness
(b) Shell moulding 2. C.I. pipes ii) Cohesivness vi. Chemical resistivity
(c) CO2 moulding 3. Non-ferrous alloys iii) Adhesivness vii. Binding Property
(d) Centrifugal casting 4. Sodium silicate iv) Plasticity viii. Flowability
Codes:
A B C D 120. A pattern is made slightly larger in dimension
(a) 3 1 4 2 to give:
(b) 1 3 4 2 (a) Rapping allowance (b) Shrinkage allowance
(c) 1 3 2 4 (c) Draft allowance (d) None of the above
(d) 3 1 2 4 UJVNL AE 2016
UJVNL AE 2016 Ans : (b) A pattern is made slillghtly lorger in
Ans : (a) List-I (Products) List-II (Process) dimension to give shrinkage allowance
None - ferrous alloys Die casting shrinkage allowance:-
Phenol formaldehyde Shell moulding
Sodium silicate Co2 Moulding
C.I. pipes. Centrifugal castting
116. Which one of the following moulding processes
does not require use of core?
(a) Sand moulding (b) Shell moulding
(c) Centrifugal casting (d) Plaster moulding
UJVNL AE 2016
UPPSC AE 2016
HPPSC AE 2014
JPSC AE 2013
Ans : (c) Centrifugal Casting moulding processes does 1-2 :- Liquid shrinkage
not require use of core. 2-3 :- Solidification shrinkage
Centrifugal Casting:- In this process the molten metal 3-4 :- Solid shrinkage
is poured in a mould and allowed to solidify while the
mould is revolving. the metal Solidifies under the pressure liquid shrinkage > Solid shrinkage > Phase transfer
of centrifugal force. The Centrifugal forces cause the metal motion shrinkage.
to take up the impression of the mould cavity. 121. Which of the following is a casting defect?
117. Plastic parts are generally made by (a) Blow hole
(a) Investment casting (b) Injection moulding (b) Slag inclusion
(c) Shell moulding (d) Continuous casting (c) Pour short
UJVNL AE 2016 (d) All above are casting defects
Ans : (b) Plastics parts are generally made by injection UJVNL AE 2016
moulding. Ans : (d) Casting defects:-
Injection moulding:- i) Blow hole and open blow ii) Pin hole porosity
It makes use of heat softening characteristics of iii) Cuts and washes iv) Metal penetration
thermoplastics materials. These materials soften when
heated and reharden when cooled. No chemical change v) Fusion vi) Runout
takes place when the material is heated or cooled, the vii) Misruns and Cold shuts viii) Slag inclusion
change being entirely physical. ix) Hot tear x) Hot spot
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122. According to Chvorinov's rule, the (c) electron beam
solidification time of casting is proportional to (d) solution
(Volume/surface area)n. The value of the BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
exponent 'n for metal is equal to : Ans : (b) During MIG welding, the metal is transferred
(a) 2 (b) 3 in the form of a fine spray of metal.
(c) 2.5 (d) 1.5 127. The material used for coating the electrode is
BHEL ET 2019 called :
Ans. (a) : Given - (a) protective layer (b) slag
n
V (c) deoxidizer (d) flux
Solidification Time =   ...(1) (HPPSC AE 2014)
A
According to chvorinov's rule - Ans : (d) The material used for coating the electrode is
2 called flux.
V Fluxes:- In welding of certain metals, the fusion of the
solidification time t =   ...(2)
A weld does not take place very readily. Particularly when
comparing equation (1) and (2) the oxides of the base metal have a higher melting point
2 n than the metal it self. Thus these oxides remain on the
V V
  =   surface and become entrapped in the solidifying metal
A A instead of flowing from the welding zone. This oxide
so, n = 2 can be removed from the weld location by use of certain
123. Gate in a mould connects fluxes which react chemically with the oxides of most
(a) Sprue base with mould cavity metals and form fusible slag at welding temperature.
(b) Riser with mould cavity 128. The 'flyer plate' is used .......... welding.
(c) Pouring basin with mould cavity (a) Ultrasonic (b) Explosive
(d) Pouring basin with runner (c) Electron beam (d) Laser beam
UJVNL AE 2016 (HPPSC LECT. 2016)
Ans : (a) Gate in a mould Connects sprue base with Ans : (b) The flyer plate is used Explosive welding.
mould cavity. The actual entry point through which
molten metal enters the mould cavity.

2. Metal Joining Processes

124. Principal materials used in soldering are
(a) Tin and lead (b) Copper and tin
(c) Zinc and copper (d) Copper and lead
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
RPSC AE 2016
Nagaland CTSE 2016, 2017 Ist Paper α = initial stand-off angle.
RPSC AE 2016 Explosive welding:- In this process, the metals to be
joined are placed at an angle to each other. The energy
Ans : (a) : Soldering is a method of joining similar or
derived from an Explosion forces the plates together at
dissimilar metals by means of a filler metal whose high velocity causing surface ripples in the metal. As
liquids temperature is below 450oC. Solder is an alloy the force is dissipated the ripples lock or weld the two
of tin and lead used to create electrical joints. metals.
125. The brazing process is carried out temperature
129. Inadequate penetration in case of welding
range
operation will lead to
(a) 600-150°C (b) 350 - 500 °C
(a) Crack formation (b) Corrosion
(c) 180- 250°C (d) 600 - 75°C
(c) Diffusion (d) Undercutting
(KPSC AE 2015)
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
Ans : (b) Brazing process:-
Ans : (a) Inadequate penetration in case of welding
(i) The melting point temperature of filler material is
operation will lead to crack formation.
more than 430°C but less than the melting point
temperature of base material 130. Weld spatter refers to :
(ii) Filler material is an alloy of copper zinc and silver (a) Welding electrode (b) Flux
(iii) The flux used in borax and boric acids. (c) Filler material (d) Welding defect
(iv) Used in pipe fitting where leak proof joints are HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
required for intricate light weight components. Ans : (d) Welding defects:-
126. During MIG welding, the metal is transferred (i) Weld Porosity (ii) Slug inclusion
in the form of (iii) Weld Spatter (iv) Cold Cracking
(a) continuous flow of molten metal (v) Hot cracking
(b) a fine spray of metal (vi) Under cutting
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131. In submerged arc welding, an arc is produced Ans : (d) For arc welding:-
between: (i) A.C with high frequency is used
(a) Carbon electrode and the work-piece (ii) A.C with low frequency is used
(b) Metal electrode and the work-piece (iii) Direct current is used.
(c) Bare metal electrode and the work-piece 136. The acetylene cylinder is usually painted with
(d) Two tungsten electrodes and the work (a) black colour (b) white colour
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I (c) marron colour (d) yellow colour
Ans : (c) Submerged arc welding, is a common arc TSPSC AEE 2015
welding process that involves the formation of an arc Ans : (c) (i) The Acetylene cylinder is usually painted
between a continuously fed electrode and the workpiece with maroon colour
gas shield and a slag which protects the weld zone. (ii) The oxygen cylinder is usually painted with black colour
132. The oxy-acetylene gas used in gas welding (iii) Acetylene gas is stored in cylinder in liquid form.
produces a flame temperature of: 137. In thermit welding, the thermit is the mixture of
(a) 18000C (b) 21000C (a) Aluminum and Iron oxide
0
(c) 2400 C (d) 32000C (b) Oxygen and Acetylene
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I (c) Aluminum oxide and Cobalt powder
Ans : (d) The oxy-acetylene gas used in gas welding (d) Aluminum and Bauxite
produces a flame temperature of 32000C. TSPSC AEE 2015
Gas welding : It is a type of fusion welding, in which Ans : (a) Thermit welding:- In thermit welding,
the heat for welding is detained by the combustion of a mixture of iron oxide and aluminum known as thermit
fuel gas. The most widely used gas combination for
is used. The mixture is ignited only at a temperature of
producing a hot flame for welding metals is oxygen and
about 1500°C.
acetylene. The approximate flame temperature produced
by oxy–acetylene flame is 32000C. The thermit welding is often used in joining iron and
steel parts that are too large to be manufactured such as
133. The current in resistance welding can be rails, truck frams, locomotive frames, other large
regulated by section used on steam and rail roads, for stren frames,
(a) varying input supply etc.
(b) changing primary turns of transformer
(c) changing secondary turns of transformer 138. The metal powder used in a thermite welding
(d) None of the above of steel
TSPSC AEE 2015 (a) Aℓ (b) Cu
Ans : (b) The current in resistance welding can be (c) Pb (d) W
regulated by changing primary turns of transformer. UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Electric Resistance Welding:- Ans : (a) Aluminum powder used in a thermite welding
It is a type of pressure welding. It is used for joining of steel.
pieces of sheet metal or wire. the welding heat is 139. In case of arc welding with reverse polarity
obtained at the location of the desired weld by the (a) Electrode is kept as positive pole
electrical resistance through the metal pieces to a (b) Electrode is kept as negative pole
relatively short duration, low voltage ( from 6 to 10
(c) Electrode is kept as neutral pole
volts only) high ampere (varying from 60 to 4000
amperes) electric current. (d) Electrode is kept as alternating changing pole
UJVNL AE 2016
134. In arc welding, the temperature of heat
produced by the electric arc is the order of Ans : (a) Arc welding reverse polarity
(a) 3000°C to 4000°C (b) 4000°C to 4000°C
(c) 5000 °C to 6000°C (d) 6000 °C to 7000°C positive pole negative pole
TSPSC AEE 2015 Electrode work pice.
Ans : (d) In arc welding the temperature of heat
140. In straight polarity welding-
produced by the electric arc, is the order of 6000°C-
(a) electrode holder is connected to the negative
7000°C.
and the work to positive lead
Welding process Temperature
(b) electrode holder is connected to the positive
arc welding 6000-7000°C
and the work to negative lead
Metal arc welding 2400°C-2700°C
(c) electrode holder is to be earthed and the work
oxy-acetylene flame 3200°C
to positive lead
oxy-hydrogen flame 2400°C
(d) electrode holder is connected to the negative
135. For Arc welding lead and the work is to be earthed
(a) Alternating current with high frequency is used.
(b) Alternating current with low frequency is used TNPSC AE 2018
(c) Direct current is used. Ans. (a) : In straight polarity welding electrode holder
(d) All the above is connected to the negative and the work to positive
TSPSC AEE 2015 lead.
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141. In resistance welding the voltage supplied is:
(a) 100 V (b) 1 V
(c) 500 V (d) 1000 V
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (b) : In resistance welding very high-current (up to
100,000 A) and very low-voltage (0.5 to 10 V) is used.
142. Which of the following welding method is not a
solid state welding process?
(a) Friction welding
(b) Forge welding
(c) Resistance spot welding
(d) Ultra-sonic welding
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (c) : Solid state welding is a group of welding
processes which produces coalescence at temperature
essentially below the melting point of the base materials
being joined, without the addition of brazing filler
metal. Pressure may or may not be used. Some
examples of solid state welding are (friction welding,
ultrasonic welding, forge welding etc). Resistance spot
welding is not a solid state welding.
143. The proportion of acetylene and oxygen used in
gas welding is-
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 1
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 3 : 4
RPSC AE 2018
(HPPSC AE 2014)
Ans. (b) : Gas Welding—Gas welding also called oxy-
fuel or oxy-acetylene welding uses a mixture of oxygen
and acetylene to produce a flame hot enough to weld
steel other gases like propane and hydrogen are
sometimes used with oxygen to weld metals with lower
melting point, but acetylene is the most common fuel
gas.
By varying the mixture of the acetylene and oxygen,
flames with different temperature ranges and different
chemical characteristics can be produced.
The three distinct types of oxy-acetylene welding
frames are natural, reducing or carburizing and
oxidizing flames.
Natural flames—The Natural flames is used for most
gas welding application.
The ratio of oxygen to acetylene for natural flame like
between 1.0 and 1.1. The natural flame has a
temperature between 3100ºC to 3250ºC. The natural
flame takes its name from the fact that it produce very
little or no chemical reaction in the molten metal.
Carburizing flame—The reducing or carburizing
flame is produced by reducing the amount of oxygen in
the mixture, producing an acetylen-rech gas. The
carburizing flame has a temperature between 2950ºC to
3100ºC. It contains three distinct level of color : a very
light blue cone at the nozzle, surrounded by an envelope
or feather of darker blue; both of those are surrounded
by an outer envelope by even darker blue.
It is used for welding high carbon steel and other metals
that do not readily absorb carbon.
Oxidizing flame—The oxidizing flame is produced by
increasing the oxygen in the mixture, producing an
oxygen-rich gas. It has a temperature between 3350ºC
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to 3500ºC. The flame is shorter and bluer than both the
natural and carburizing flames and the inner cone is
more pointed. The excess oxygen from this flame will
combine with the metal and form oxides, which are
brittle and weaken the weld steel and metal. Because of
its oxidizing properties it is seldom used to weld steel,
but is sometimes used for copper based and zinc based
metals, as well as cast iron and maganese.
144. The primary cause for deflection of arc during
arc welding is .....................
(a) hydrostatic field (b) magnetic field
(c) explosive field (d) wind velocity field
RPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) : The primary cause for deflection of arc
during arc welding is magnetic field called arc blow.
Arc blow is basically the deflection of electric arc from
its axis of electrodes. Arc blow is mainly encounted
during DC arc welding due to interaction between
different electromagnetic fields in and around the
welding arc.
145. TIG welding:
(a) Uses no inert gas for shielding
(b) Is a resistance welding process
(c) Uses electrode of high current carrying
capacity
(d) Uses consumable electrode
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (c) : TIG welding—Tungsten inert gas welding,
also known as gas tungsten arc welding (GTAW), is an
arc welding process that uses a non-consumable
tungsten electrode to produce the weld.
TIG welding utilizing power supply to generate an
electric arc between the tungsten and the workpiece,
using the resultant heat create weld.
The weld area is generally protected from atmospheric
contamination by use of an inert shielding or cover gas
(argon or helium).
146. In resistance welding:
(a) High voltage with very low current is passed
for very short time
(b) Low voltage with very low current is passed
for very short time
(c) Low voltage with very low current is passed
for long time
(d) Low voltage with very high current is passed
for very short time
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (d) : In resistance welding low voltage with very
high current is passed for very short time.
147. Which of the following is not true for brazing?
(a) It causes the metallurgical damage by phase
transformation
(b) Gap between the parent material is filled by
filler material
(c) Gap between the parent material is filled by
capillary action
(d) Filler material must have low melting point
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (a) : It causes the metallurgical damage by phase
transformation is not true for brazing.
148. Porosity in welding: 152. Polarity change is required in
(a) is created due to presence of H2 in the weld (a) AC welding
pool (b) DC welding
(b) is created due to lamellar tearing (c) Both AC and DC welding
(c) is created due to cold cracking (d) Neither AC nor DC welding
(d) causes increase in strength of joint HPPSC AE 2018
UPRVUNL AE 2016 Ans. (b) : Arc welding power sources can supply either
Ans. (a) : Porosity—Porosity is the presence of cavities AC or DC or both forms of current. In case of DC
in the weld metal caused by the freezing in of gas Polarity, Current flows only in one direction, whereas,
released from the weld pool as it solidifies. in case of AC, Current flow direction reverses in every
Cause—Porosity is caused by the absorption of
cycle so polarity change is required in DC welding.
nitrogen, oxygen and hydrogen in the molten weld pool
which is then released on solidification to become 153. Consumable electrode is used in
trapped in the weld metal. (a) Gas metal arc welding
Prevention— (b) Carbon arc welding
Air entrainment— (c) Resistance welding
• Seal any air leak (d) Hydrogen gas welding
• avoid weld pool turbulence HPPSC AE 2018
• reduce excessively high gas flow JPSC AE 2013
Hydrogen— RPSC LECTURERE 16.01.2016
• dry the electrode and flux Ans. (a) : An electrode that's consumed during the
• clean and decrease the workpiece surface. welding process called consumable electrodes. examle-
Surface coatings— In gas metal arc welding an electrode that's no
• Clean the joint edges immediately before welding consumed during the welding process called non-
• Check that the weldable primer is below the consumable electrodes.
recommended maximum thickness. Example-In carbon arc welding, Hydrogen gas welding,
149. The flame which contains excess oxygen that TIG welding.
theoretical required: 154. Arc blow problem occurs in
(a) is acetylene flame (b) is neutral flame
(a) Oxy-acetylene welding
(c) is oxidizing flame (d) is carburizing flame
(b) AC welding
UPRVUNL AE 2016
(c) DC welding
Ans. (c) : Oxidizing flame contains access oxygen than
(d) Electron beam welding
theoretical required.
HPPSC AE 2018
150. The ratio of aluminium and iron oxide used in
Ans. (c) : Arc blow–Arc blow is the, usually unwanted,
thermit welding is
deflection of the arc during arc welding.
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 3 : 1
Magnetic arc blow or "arc wander" is the deflection of
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
welding filler material within an electric arc deposit by
HPPSC AE 2018, 2014
a buildup of magnetic force surrounding the weld pool.
TSPSC AEE 2015
Arc blow tends to occur if the material being welded
Ans. (a) : The ratio of aluminium and iron oxide used in
has residual magnetism at a certain level, particularly
thermit welding is 1 : 3.
when the weld root is being made, and the welding
Thermite welding–Thermite welding is welding
process that employs molten metal to permanently join current is direct current (DC).
the conductors. Magnetic arc blow is more common in DC welding than
The process employs an exothermic reaction of a in AC welding.
thermite composition to heat the metal, and require no 155. In gas welding, which of the following flames is
external source of heat or current. The chemical reaction produced when the supply of oxygen is less
that produce the heat is an aluminothermic reaction than that theoretically required for complete
between aluminium powder and metal oxide [1:3] combustion is called
Fe 2 O3 + 2Al  → 2Fe + Al2 O3 (a) Carburizing flame (b) Neutral flame
Application–Cast iron] stainless steel, brass, bronze. It (c) Oxidizing flame (d) Transparent flame
is especially useful for joining dissimilar metals. RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
751. In a oxy-acetylene welding, the ratio of oxygen Ans. (a) : In gas welding, which of the following flames
to acetylene in reducing flame is is produced when the supply of oxygen is less than that
(a) 0.5 : 1 (b) 0. 9 : 1 theoretically required for complete combustion is called
(c) 1 : 1.2 (d) 1 : 1.5 Carburizing flame.
HPPSC AE 2018 Q2
≃ 0.85 − 0.95
Ans. (b) : In a oxy-acetylene welding, the ratio of C2 H 2
oxygen to acetylene in reducing flame is 0.9 : 1. (Carburizing flame)
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 O2 159. Consider the following statements
= 1 (Neutral flame) 1. The process is extremely versatile over a wide
C2 H 2
range of thickness and all welding positions for
O2 both ferrous and non-ferrous metals
≃ 1.15 − 1.25 (Oxidizing flame)
C2 H 2 2. Low quality welds are produced with the
156. _____ does not require a filler metal. problem of slag removal.
(a) Gas metal arc welding 3. Process is costly and less portable than manual
(b) Submerged arc welding metal arc welding.
(c) Oxy-acetylene welding 4. High deposition rate
(d) Oxy-hydrogen welding What are the characteristics of gas metal arc
(e) Resistance seam welding welding?
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (e) : Gas metal arc welding, submerged arc (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
welding, oxy-acetylene welding and oxy-hydrogen (e) 3 and 4
welding require a filler metal where as resistance seam CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
welding does not require a filler metal. Ans. (c) : Characteristic of gas metal arc welding:
Seam Welding–Seam welding uses a wheel – shaped (i) The ability to join a wide range of material
electrode to make either a series of overlapping spot types and thickness.
welds to form a continuously welded and leak tight (ii) Welding can be done in all positions
seam or a number of spot welds spaced apart roll-spot (iii) No slag removal required.
welding.
(iv) High weld quality
(v) Process is costly and less portable than manual
metal arc welding.
(vi) Less distortion of work piece and high
deposition rate.
160. Consider the following defects
1. cracks 2. porosity
3. solid inclusion 4. Cold shuts
Which of these defects are found during
welding?
157. The heat generated in the resistance welding (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
can be expressed as: (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
(where H-total heat generated, I-current, R- (e) 1, 2 and 3
resistance of the joint, t-time and k-constant to CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
account heat loss) Ans. (d) : External welding defects are
(a) H = kI2Rt (b) H = kI3Rt (i) Crater
2
(c) H = kIR t (d) H = kIR3t (ii) Cracks
2 3
(e) H = kI R t (iii) Spatter and surface porosity
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) (iv) Incomplete filled groove
Ans. (a) : We know the electrical power (P) (v) Distortion
P = VI V → Voltage Internal welding defects are
V (i) Blowholes and internal porosity
= RI2 R = (ii) Cracks
I
But total heat generated for time t (iii) Inclusion
H = RI2t (iv) Lack of fusion
Some heat also loss and we take constant k to account (v) Incomplete fusion.
heat loss 161. For ultrasonic welding the thickness of metal is
H = kRI2t usually restricted to
158. Which of the following does not from a part of (a) 3 mm (b) 6 mm
metal working process: (c) 10 mm (d) 15 mm
(a) Shearing (b) Extrusion Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
(c) Stretch forming (d) Welding Ans. (a) : Ultrasonic welding is restricted to the lap
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 joint welding of thin sheets foil and wires and the
Ans. (d) : Shearing, extrusion and strength forming are attaching of thin sheet to heavier structural members.
form a part of metal working process whereas welding The maximum thickness of weld is about 2.5 mm for
is the fabrication method to join job. aluminium and 1 mm for harder materials.
721
162. In the below figure shown for a fillet weld, the 166. Two 3 mm thick MS sheets are to be welded.
given numbers represent : Electrodes of 16, 12, 10 Nos. are available
which one would you choose.
(a) 16 (b) 12
(c) 1 (d) Any of the above
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Ans. (c) : Two 3 mm thick mild steel sheet are to be
welded. The electrodes 10 Nos. is required for welding
(a) 11 mm leg length on arrow side; 6 mm leg the sheet.
length on other side
167. Weld spatter defect in welding is generally the
(b) 6 mm leg length on arrow side; 12 mm leg
result of
length on other side
(a) Using tool high welding current
(c) 6 mm leg length on arrow side; 12 mm leg
(b) Using tool low welding current
length arrow on side
(c) Low voltage
(d) 6 mm leg length on other side; 12 mm leg
(d) High voltage
length on arrow side
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (a) : Weld spatter and porosity welding defect (a
Ans. (c) :
molten metal) droplet that are thrown out of the fusion
zone at tool high welding current at work-piece and low
welding speed leading porosity.
168. The range of voltage (open circuit) arc welding
is generally
• '6 mm' represents leg length on arrow side, 12 (a) 20–40 volts (b) 40–90 volts
mm represents leg length arrow on side. (c) 100–150 volts (d) 150–230 volts
163. In a welding process the welding parameters Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
used are : welding current = 250 A; welding Ans. (b) : The range of voltage (in open circuit) from
voltage = 25V and welding traverse speed = 6 50 to 90 volts. To initiate an arc the electrode is touched
mm/s. Find the welding power. to the work and is then withdrawn a short distance.
(a) 6.55 kW (b) 65.5 kW 169. Which one among the following welding
(c) 62.5 kW (d) 6.25 kW processes uses non-consumable electrode?
BHEL ET 2019 (a) Gas metal are welding
Ans. (d) : Given - Welding current = 250 A (b) Submerged arc welding
Welding voltage = 25V (c) Gas tungsten arc welding
Welding power (P) = VI (d) None of the above
= 25 × 250 UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
= 6250 W
= 6.250 kW Ans. (c) : Gas tungsten arc welding
164. In a gas welding using oxygen and acetylene 170. In a linear arc welding process, the heat input
cylinders the pressure of gas is more in per unit length is inversely proportional to :
(a) Oxygen cylinder (a) Welding current
(b) Acetylene cylinders (b) Welding voltage
(c) Equal in both cylinders (c) Welding speed
(d) Gas welding does not use oxygen cylinders (d) None of the above
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
Ans. (a) : In gas welding, there are two gauges on the Ans. (c) : In a arc welding process, the heat input is
body of the regulator, one showing the pressure in the given as
cylinder, while the other, supplied pressure at the torch, H = I2 RT ...(i)
the pressure in Oxygen at the welding torch is between VI
H= ...(ii)
70 and 280 kN/m2 and for acetylene it is between 7 and S
103 kN/m2. Where,
165. Plains and butt welds may be used on materials I = welding current
upto approximately V = Voltage
(a) 25 mm thick (b) 40 mm thick R = Resistance
(c) 50 mm thick (d) 75 mm thick T = time of welding cutting
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper S = welding speed
Ans. (a) : Plain and butt welds may be used on From above equation we see that heat input is directly
materials upto approximately 25 mm thickness. proportional to welding current and voltage.
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Duty cycle is the time out of 10 minutes, while which 176. Which of the carbon steel has maximum
power source is working. Thus duty cycle is related to weldability:
time of welding. (a) 0.15% Carbon steel
Also, from equation (ii) it is clear that as welding speed (b) 0.30% Carbon steel
(s) increases, heat input (H) decreases. (c) 0.50% Carbon steel
171. Which of the following is the fusion welding (d) 0.75% Carbon steel
process? SJVN ET 2013
(a) Forge welding Ans. (a) : 0.15% carbon steel has maximum
(b) Gas welding weldability.
(c) Resistance welding 177. The amount of current necessary in resistance
(d) Thermit welding with pressure welding is of the order of:
SJVN ET 2019 (a) 1 - 2 KVA/cm2
Ans. (b) : Gas welding the fusion welding process. (b) 2.5 - 4.0 KVA/cm2
172. In an arc welding process, the voltage and (c) 4.5 - 6.2 KVA/cm2
current are 25 Volts and 300 amperes (d) 6.5 - 7.9 KVA/cm2
respectively. The arc heat transfer efficiency is SJVN ET 2013
0.85 and welding speed is 8 mm/s the net heat Ans. (c) : The amount of current necessary in resistance
input (in J/mm) will be: welding is of the order of 4.5 – 6.2 KVA/cm2.
(a) 796.8 (b) 684.2 178. Thermit welding is a form of :
(c) 620.7 (d) 721.6 (a) Resistance Welding (b) Gas Welding
SJVN ET 2019 (c) Fusion Welding (d) Forge Welding
SJVN ET 2013
Ans. (a) : Voltage (V) = 25 volt
Ans. (c) : Thermite welding is a form of fusion welding.
current (I) = 300 amperes
Heat transfer efficiency (ηh) = 0.85 179. Under cuts in weldments are caused due to :
(a) Low welding current
Welding speed (v) = 8 mm/s
(b) Excessive welding current
Heat supplied, (c) Wrong selection of weld rods
VI 25 × 300 (d) Wrong flux
H= =
v 8 SJVN ET 2013
= 937.5 J/mm Ans. (b) : Under cuts in weldments are caused due to
Actual heat input, excessive welding current.
Ha = ηh × Hs 180. In shielded metal are welding the shielding gas
Ha = 0.85×937.5 is provided by
= 796.875 J/mm (a) cylinder connected to the electrode
173. The symbol refers to : (b) electrode coating material
(a) single fillet weld (b) square but weld (c) electrode core material
(c) seam weld (d) single v-butt weld (d) work piece material
SJVN ET 2019 Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : The symbol used in welding Ans. (b) : In shielded metal arc welding, shielding is
Single fillet weld – provided by decomposition of the electrode covering
Square butt weld – (coating). The main function of the shielding is to
Seam weld– protect the arc and the hot metal from the chemical
Spot weld – reaction with constituents of the atmosphere.
174. In gas welding, the maximum flame 181. The colour of oxygen cylinder in oxyacetylene
temperature occurs at– welding is
(a) The tip of the flame (a) black (b) maroon
(b) The inner cone (c) blue (d) green
(c) The outer cone Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
(d) Next to the inner cone Ans. (a) : Oxygen cylinder is black and acetylene is
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper maroon, color in oxyacetylene welding.
Ans. (b) : The maximum flame temp occurs at the inner 182. Carburizing flame is formed in oxyacetylene
cone about 32000 C gas welding when
(a) quantity of oxygen is increased
175. In gas welding, which gases are not used:
(b) quantity of acetylene is increased
(a) O2 + C2H2 (b) N2 + H2
(c) both are at same level
(c) O2 +_ H2 (d) CO + H2
(d) it does not depend on the quantities of oxygen
SJVN ET 2013
or acetylene
Ans. (b) : In gas welding (N2+H2) gases are not used. Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
723
Ans. (a) : Carburizing or reducing flame are used to
weld or braze easily oxidized alloys such as aluminium.
As oxygen is increased the fuel is turned down and
carburizing feather pulls off and disappears.
183. In gas welding, the maximum flame
temperature occurs at
(a) The tip of the flame
(b) The inner cone
(c) The outer cone
(d) Next to the inner cone
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Ans. (b) : Gas welding is a types of fusion welding. The
most widely used gas combinations for producing a hot
flame for welding metal is Oxygen and acetylene
(C2H2). The maximum temperature produced by Oxy-
acetylene flame is 3200° C at the inner cone.
184. The range of temperature of soldering process is
(a) 10°C to 50°C (b) 50°C to 100°C
(c) 180°C to 250°C (d) 250°C to 400°C
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Ans. (c) : Alloy of lead & tin (Pb–Sn) mixture is used
for soldering in electric work. The temperature in
soldering at which metal melts at 188°C (370°F) to
250°C (482°F).
185. For soldering of brass and copper, the flux
used is
(a) Zinc chloride
(b) Hydrochloride acid
(c) Cupric acid
(d) Ammonium chloride
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (a) : For soldering of brass and copper, the flux
used is zinc chloride.
186. A carburizing flame is obtained by supplying :
(a) Equal volumes of oxygen and acetylene
(b) More volume of oxygen than acetylene
(c) More volume of acetylene than oxygen
(d) None of these
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans : (c) : Carburizing flame- The carburizing flame
is obtained when there is an excess of acetylene, It is used
for welding of molten metal a certain alloys steels, many of
non-ferrous hard surfacing materials such as satellite.
187. In brazing the usual melting temperature of the
filler rod is :
(a) Above 1500 ºC
(b) Above 450 ºC
(c) Below 450 ºC
(d) Above melting temp. of parent metal
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans : (b) : Brazing- Brazing is the coalescence of a
joint with the help of a filler metal whose liquids
temperature is above 427ºC and below the solids
temperature of the base metal. Filler metal in drawn into
the joint by capillary action. Flux usually used is borax.
Due to the many advantages over welding, brazing is
very widely used in industries. Brazing can joint almost
all metals. Dissimilar metals can be brazed. For
example cast iron to stainless steel.
724
188. In laser welding the laser material used is :
(a) Molybdenum (b) Ruby crystal
(c) Titanium (d) Lithium
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans : (b) : Laser welding is a welding process which
produces coalescence of materials with the heat
obtained from the application of a concentrate coherent
light beam impinging upon the surfaces to be joined. The
focused laser beam has the highest energy concentration or
heat flux of any known source of energy.
189. After fusion welding, the nature of residual
stress in weldment area is :
(a) Compressive (b) Tensile
(c) Shear (d) No stress
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans : (a) : After fusion welding, the nature of residual
stress is weldment area is compressive.
190. In TIG welding, the electrode is made of :
(a) Graphite
(b) Tungsten
(c) Same composition that the weld material
(d) Copper
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans : (b) :
Tungsten inert gas (TIG)-
This process is also known as gas tungsten arc welding
(GTAW). This is similar to MIG welding. But non-
consumable electrode of tungsten is used. For shielding,
inert gas such as argon is used.
In the tungsten electrode 1 to 2% thorium and
zirconium are added improve electron emission, arc
stability, arc striking and current carrying capacity etc.
191. What happens to metal deposition if welding
operation is performed with reverse polarity?
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remain same
(d) First decreases then increases
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans : (a) : If welding operation is performed with
reverse polarity metal deposition increases.
192. The welding torch angle in forehand gas
welding technique is:
(a) 60º (b) 50º
(c) 60º-70º (d) 90º
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans : (c) :
Leftward or forehand gas welding- In this method,
the welding torch is held torch is held in the operator’s
right hand, the tip pointing towards the left and the weld
is made from right to left. The torch makes an angle
60º-70º with the plate and the welding rod makes on
angle of 30º-40º. The plates above 6 mm thickness are
not economical to weld with this method.
Rightward or backhand gas welding- In this method,
the welding torch is held in the right hand the filler rod
in the left-hand. The welding begins at the left hand end
of the joint and proceeds towards the right. The torch
makes an angle 40º-50º with the plate and the welding
rod makes an angle of 30º-40º. This method is better
and economical for plates over 6 mm thickness.
193. In electric resistance welding, voltage required 198. For spot welding of 1 mm thick sheet with a
for heating is : current flow time of 0.2 s, the heat generated is
(a) 1 to 5 volts (b) 6 to 10 volts 1000J. If the effective resistance is 200µ, the
(c) 11 to 20 volts (d) 50 to 100 volts current required is
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 (a) 4000 A (b) 5000 A
(c) 6000 A (d) 7000 A
Ans. (b) : In electric resistance welding voltage
ESE 2018
required for heating is 6 to 10 volt.
Ans. (b) : H = I2 Rt
194. For resistance welding, the
(a) voltage is low and current is high H 1000
I= =
(b) voltage is high and current is low Rt 200 × 10−6 × 0.2
(c) both voltage and current are low I = 5000 A
(d) both voltage and current are high 199. For resistance spot welding of 1.5 mm thick steel
APPSC AEE 2016 sheets, the current required is in the order of
Ans. (a) : For resistance welding, the voltage is low and (a) 10 A (b) 100 A
current is high. (c) 1000 A (d) 10000 A
195. A non consumable electrode is used in TNPSC AE 2018
(a) Gas welding (b) DC Arc welding Ans. (d) : For spot welding current
(c) AC Arc welding (d) Argon arc welding Range = 3937 [t1 + t2] Amp
APPSC AEE 2016 = 3937 [1.5 + 1.5]
Ans. (d) : A non consumable electrode is used in Argon = 11811 A ≃ 10000 A
arc welding. 200. In oxy-acetylene gas welding, for complete
196. The welding process by Metal Inert-Gas (MIG) combustion, the volume of oxygen required for
unit of acetylene is
welding is
(a) 1 (b) 1.5
(a) slower than the welding process by Tungsten
(c) 2 (d) 2.5
inert-Gas (TIG) welding
TNPSC AE 2017
(b) faster than the welding process by Tungsten
Inter-Gas (TIG) welding Ans. (d) : In oxy-acetylene gas welding, for complete
combustion, the volume of oxygen required for unit of
(c) at same speed as the welding process by
acetylene is 2.5.
Tungsten Inter-Gas (TIG) welding
(d) at unpredictable speed 201. The molten metal is poured from the pouring
APPSC AEE 2016 basin to the gate with the help of a
(a) Riser (b) Sprue
Ans. (b) : The welding process by Metal Inert-Gas (c) Runner (d) Core
(MIG) welding is faster than the welding process by TNPSC AE 2017
Tungsten Inter-Gas (TIG) welding. Ans. (b) : The molten metal is poured from the pouring
197. In case of arc welding of steel with a potential basin to the gate with the help of a sprue.
of 20 V and current of 200 A, the travel speed is 202. Aluminium is very difficult to weld because
5 mm/s and the cross-sectional area of the joint (a) very high material
is 20 mm2. The heat required for melting steel (b) it's melting point is low
may be taken as 10 J/mm3 and heat transfer (c) do not form bond so easily
efficiency as 0.85. The melting efficiency will be (d) forms a layer of Al2O3 on its surface
nearly TSPSC AEE 2015
(a) 18% (b) 29% Ans. (d) : Aluminium is very difficult to weld because
(c) 36% (d) 42% it forms a layer of Al2O3 on its surface.
ESE 2019 203. Which statement is correct in coated electrode
Ans. (b) : Given, arc welding process
Voltage (V) = 20 Volt (a) Both rod and flux melts simultaneously
Current (I) = 200 A (b) Coating melts first then rod material
Welding speed (v) = 5 mm/s (c) Rod melts first then coating material
Area (A) = 20 mm2 (d) Rod only melts and material coating does not
Heat required (Hm) = 10 J/mm3 melt
Heat transfer efficiency (η) = 0.85 TSPSC AEE 2015
H Hm Ans. (c) : In coated electrode arc welding process, rod
Melting efficiency (ηm) = m = melts first then coating material.
H VI
×η 204. The temperature of oxidized flame in gas
Av welding is
10 (a) 2900oC (b) 3200oC
=
20 × 200 (c) 3480 Co
(d) 3840oC
× 0.85
20 × 5 TSPSC AEE 2015
= 0.29 = 29% Ans. (c) : 34800C
725
205. The metal powder used in thermit welding of Ans. (d) : Plasma arc welding– Plasma is a partially
steel is ionized gas and is produced by the passage of gas
(a) Tungston (b) Copper through an electric field which separates into electrons
(c) Lead (d) Aluminium and positive ions plasma arc welding a direct current
TNPSC 2019 (DC) power source having open circuit voltage of about
Ans. (d) : Thermit welding- Thermit welding is 70 Volt is used. Currents may vary from 50 to 350
welding process utilizing heat generated by exothermic Amperes.
chemical reaction between the components of the 212. Following equipment is used for arc welding a
thermit (a mixture of a metal oxide and aluminium material by carbon electrode
powder). The molten metal, produced by the reaction, (a) A.C. welding set
acts as a filler material joining the work pieces after (b) Rectifier
solidification. (c) Motor generator
206. Following gases are used in tungsten inert gas (d) D.C. welding set with straight polarity
welding. Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
(a) CO2 and H2 (b) Argon and neon Ans. (d) : D.C. welding set with straight polarity is used
(c) Argon and Helium (d) Helium and neon for arc welding a material by carbon electrode.
TNPSC 2019 213. The welding of stainless is generally difficult
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 because of the following reason
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I (a) Rust formation takes place
Ans. (c) : Helium and Argon gases used in tungsten (b) High melting temperature of stainless steel
inert gas welding. (c) Formation of oxide film
207. In which type of welding a pool of molten metal (d) Fear of cracking
is used Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
(a) Electro slag (b) Submerged are HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
(c) MIG (d) TIG Ans. (c) : The welding of stainless steel is generally
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 difficult because formation of oxide film.
Ans. (a) : In Electro slag welding a pool of molten 214. In MIG welding, helium or argon is used in
metal is used. order to
208. Grey cast iron is usually welded by (a) Provide cooling effect
(a) Gas welding (b) Resistance welding (b) Act as flux
(c) Arc welding (d) TIG welding (c) Act as shielding medium
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 (d) Facilitate welding process
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Ans. (a) : Grey cast iron is usually welded by gas Ans. (c) : In MIG welding helium or argon is used in
welding having neutral flame. order to Act as shielding medium.
209. In arc welding operational the current value is 215. For welding metals less than 5 mm thick,
decided by following method of gas welding would give
(a) Thickness of plate best results
(b) Length of welded portion (a) Forehand (b) Backhand
(c) Voltage across the arc (c) Straight hand (d) Inclined hand
(d) Size of the electrode Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 Ans. (a) : For welding metals less than 5mm thick, fore
Ans. (d) : In arc welding operational the current value hand method of gas welding would give best results.
is decided by size of the electrode. 216. Which of the following is a solid state joining
210. Stud and projection welding belong to the process?
following category of welding (a) gas tungsten arc welding
(a) Gas welding (b) Arc welding (b) resistance spot welding
(c) Resistance welding (d) Pressure welding (c) friction welding
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 (d) submerged are welding
UPRVNL AE 07.10.2016 RPSC 2016
Ans. (c) : Type of Resistance welding (HPPSC LECT. 2016)
i. Seam welding, ii. Spot welding, iii. Projection Ans : (c) Cold welding, friction welding, diffusion
welding, iv. Upset welding, v. Flash welding. welding, forge welding are examples of solid state
211. Two stainless steel foils of 0.1 mm thickness are welding. Cold welding includes pressure welding, ultra
to be joined. Which of the following processes sonic welding and explosive welding.
would be best suited 217. Which of the following resistance weldings is
(a) Gas welding (b) TIG welding used for making leakproof joint?
(c) MIG welding (d) Plasma arc welding (a) Spot welding
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 (b) Projection welding
726
 (c) Seam welding Ans : (d) : The arc in arc welding is created by contact
(d) Percussion welding resistance.
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI 223. Hard-zone cracking in low alloy steel due to
Ans : (c) : Seam welding- When the spot welds on two welding is the result of an absorption of
over lapping piece of metal are spaced the process is (a) N2 (b) O2
known as roll spot welding. It the spot welds are (c) H2 (d) C
sufficiently made close, then the process is called seam TNPSC AE 2017
welding. This process is best adopted for metal Ans. (c) : Hard-zone cracking in low alloy steel due to
thickness ranging from 0.025 mm to 3 mm welding is the result of an absorption of H2 .
218. Which of the following processes cannot be
applied for machining of internal gears? 3. Metal Cutting Processes
(a) Hobbing (b) Shaping
(c) Milling (d) Broaching 224. The number of element on tool signature of
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI ASA system are:
Ans : (a) : Internal gears cannot be made by hobbing or (a) 5 (b) 6
rack cutter shaper and gang milling. They can be made (c) 7 (d) 8
by pinion cutter shapes. This is because the hob and a UPRVUNL AE 2016
rack do not have enough space to move on internal CGPSC AE 2014- I
surfaces for cutting. CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
219. The purpose of applying flux coating on AC arc Ans. (c) : The number of element on tool signature of
welding electrode includes ASA system are 7.
(a) maintaining continuity of arc Example-
(b) protection against corrosion 10º, 12º, 8º, 6º, 15º, 20º, 3
(c) removal of impurities 1. Back rake angle (αb) - 10º
(d) All of the above 2. Side rake angle (α) - 12º
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI 3. End relief angle (γe) - 8º
Ans : (d) : The purpose of applying flux coating on AC 4. Side relief angle (γs) - 6º
arc welding electrode is for maintaining continuity of 5. End edge angle (Ce) - 15º
arc, a protection against corrosion and removal of 6. Side cutting edge angle (Cs) - 20º
impurities. 7. Nose radius (R) - 3 inch
220. In a fusion welding process, 225. Which of the following is incorrect for
(a) only heat is used 'continuous chips' formation?
(b) only pressure is used (a) It generates very high frictional heat
(c) combination of heat and pressure is used (b) It requires low rake angle of cutting tool
(d) none of these (c) It requires ductile material of work piece
(d) It is difficult to handle
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans : (a) : Fusion welding- It is defined as melting
Ans. (b) : Continuous chips—Continuous chips are
together and joining metals by means of heat. It uses formed by the continuous plastic deformation of metal
heat to melt the base metals and may add a filler metal. without fracture in front of the cutting edge of the tool
The thermal energy required for these operations is and is formed by the smooth flow the chip up the tool
usually supplied by chemical or electrical means. Filler face. Mild steel and copper are considered to be most
metals may or may not be used. desirable material for obtaining continuous chips.
221. Plastic can be welded by the following process: • It generates very high frictional heat.
(a) TIG welding • It requires ductile material of work piece.
(b) MIG welding • It is difficult to handle.
(c) Electron beam welding 226. If in a machining operation, cutting speed is
(d) Ultrasonic welding reduced to 50% then increase in tool life will
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 be: (In Taylor equation, n = 0.5)
Ans : (d) : Ultrasonic welding is a technique suitable (a) 56% (b) 66%
for joining both similar and dissimilar metal workpiece (c) 46% (d) 70%
or welding a piece of metal to a metalized substrate UPRVUNL AE 2016
such as ceramics or glass. The weld formation is caused Ans. (a) : Ist
by the application of external pressure and ultrasonic Cutting speed V1 = V
vibrations. Tool life T1 = T
222. The arc in the arc welding is created by IInd
(a) Current (b) Voltage Cutting speed = 0.8V
(c) Frequency (d) Contact resistance T2 = ?
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 n = 0.5
727
We know that Taylor equation 229. When 50 mm rod is turning at a spindle speed
V1T1n = V2T2n = constant of 200 rpm the cutting sped would be
1 1 (a) 10-12 m/min (b) 12-15 m/min
V × ( T1 ) 2 = (0.8) × (V ) × (T2 ) 2 (c) 15-20 m/min (d) 30-35 m/min
1 1
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
1 Ans. (d) : D = 50 mm, N = 200 rpm, V = ? m/min
(T2 ) 2 = × T12
0.8 πDN π × 50 × 200
2 V= = = 31.4 m/min
T2  5  25 1000 1000
=  =
T1  4  16 230. In a typical metal cutting operation, using a
T2 = 25x, T1 = 16x cutting tool of positive rake γ = 20º, it was
Then increase in tool life will be observed that the shear angle was 30º. The
friction angle is
T −T
= 2 1 × 100 (a) 45º (b) 35º
T1 (c) 25º (d) 40º
25 x − 16 x (e) 50º
= ×100 CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
16 x
Ans. (e) : Relation between rake, shear and friction
9 angle
= ×100 = 56.25%
16 π
≃ 56% 2φ + β − α =
2
227. In a single point cutting tool signature (αb – αs (2 × 30) + β − 20 = 90
– ϕe – ϕs – Ce – Cs – r), the last term r stands β = 60º
for nose radius in:
231. The lip angle used in a drill for drilling the
(a) Micrometre (b) Millimetre
hard materials
(c) Centimetre (d) Decametre (a) 128o (b) 136o
(e) Metre (c) 90 o
(d) 60o
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (b) : αb – αs – ϕe – ϕs – Ce – Cs – r Ans. (b) : Lip angle (α) used in a drilling
Tool signature in American standards Association α for wood → 600 – 900,
(ASA) α for soft and ductile material → 1180
αb – Back rake angle α for cast iron → 1160
αs – Side rake angle α for high strength material - carbide → 1350 – 1500.
ϕe – End clearance angle 232. The strength of a single point cutting tool
ϕs – Side clearance angle depends upon:
Ce – End cutting edge angle 1. The clearance angle
Cs – Side cutting or approach angle 2. The rake angle
r – Nose radius [in inch] 3. The lip angle
In ASA system, nose radius is measured in inch unit, (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
whereas, in orthogonal Rake system (ORS) it is (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
measured in mm. JWM 2017
228. In metal cutting operation shear angle is Ans. (d) : Strength of single point cutting tool depend
defined as the angle upon-
(a) Made by the plane of shear with the direction (a) The clearance angle
of tool travel (b) The rake angle
(b) Made by the shear plane with the tool axis (c) The lip angle
(c) Made by the shear plane with the central 233. In an experiment for the evaluation of a cutting
plane of work piece tool life using the Taylor's tool life equation,
(d) None of the above VTn = C, The value of n = 0.5. The tool life has
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper a life of 180 minutes at a cutting speed of 18
Ans. (a) : In metal cutting operations shear angle is m/min. If the tool life is reduced to 45 minutes,
then the cutting speed in m/min will be:
defined as the angle made by the plane of shear with the
(a) 36 (b) 32
direction of tool travel. The shear angle may be
(c) 40 (d) 16
r cos α BHEL ET 2019
determined by the following relation: tan φ =
1 − r sin α Ans. (a) : n = 0.5
φ = shear angle T1 = 180 min
r = cutting ratio or chip thickness ratio V1 = 18 m/min
α = Rake angle. T2 = 45 min
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 V2 = ? Ans. (b, d) : Negative Rake Angle–A tool has a
Applying Taylor's tool life equation negative rake angle when the face of the cutting tool
VT n = C slopes away from the cutting edge at outer side.
V1 T1n = V2 T2n
18 × (180)0.5 = V2 × (45)0.5
241.4953 = V2 × 6.7082
V2 = 36.000 m / min
234. According to the Ernst and Merchant theory,
the relation between the shear angle (ϕ),
friction angle (β) and rake angle (α) in single 238. The Merchant circle is used to
point cutting tool in turning is as follows: (a) Improve the quality of a product
(a) 2ϕ + β + α = 90° (b) 2ϕ + β - α = 90° (b) Find the principal stress and principal strain
(c) ϕ + 2β - α = 45° (d) 2ϕ + β - α = 45° (c) Fix the price of a product in the market
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift (d) Establish the shear angle relationship in
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 machining
BPSC AE 2012 HPPSC AE 2018
UKPSC AE 2007, 2012 Paper -I Ans. (d) : The Merchant circle is used to establish the
Ans. (b) : From the Merchant's analysis shear angle relationship in machining.
π π α β
2φ + β − α = = 90o φ= + −
2 4 2 2
Where, φ = shear angle α β
φ= 45o + −
β = friction angle 2 2
α = cutting rake angle Merchant's theory gives higher shear plane angle means
235. In turning, chip thickness ratio will be _______. lower shear force due to smaller shear plane.
(a) Equal to zero (b) Greater than two 239. Excessive heat generated during metal cutting
(c) Greater than one (d) Less than one is due to
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift (a) Built up edge formed on the cutting tool
Ans. (d) : Chip thickness ratio (r) (b) Correctly grounded tool
uncut chip thickness (c) Low friction between tool and workpiece
= (d) Cutting tool of good surface finish
chip thickness RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
For turning operation, r is less than 1 Ans. (a) : Excessive heat generated during metal cutting
236. Which of the following relation is correct for is due to built up edge formed on the cutting tool.
orthogonal cutting? [where, r = chip thickness 240. The percentage of increase in tool life if the
ratio, α = rake angle, φ = shear angle] cutting speed is reduced by 50% is:
cos α r sin α (Use Taylors equation for tool life as VT0.5 = c)
(a) tan φ = (b) tan φ =
1 − r cos α 1 − r cos α (a) 100% (b) 150%
r cos α r sin α (c) 200% (d) 250%
(c) tan φ = (d) tan φ = (e) 300%
1 − r sin α 1 − r sin α (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
r Ans. (e) : Given,
(e) tan φ =
1 − r sin α VT0.5 = C
CGPSC AE 2014- I V1T10.5 = V2 T20.5
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
V2 = 0.5 V1
Ans. (c) : Orthogonal cutting- Orthogonal cutting is a
type of metal cutting in which the cutting edge of wedge V1T10.5 = 0.5 V1T20.5
shape cutting tool is perpendicular to the direction of 0.5
 T2 
tool motion. In this cutting the cutting edge is wider T  =2
than width of cut.  1
r cos α T2
tan φ = =4
1 − r sin α T1
237. Negative rake angle is used in T2 = 4T1
(a) High carbon steel tool Then percentage increase in tool life
(b) Ceramic tool T −T 4T − T
(c) Super steel = 2 1 × 100 = 1 1 × 100
T1 T1
(d) Cubic boron nitride tool
HPPSC AE 2018 = 300%
729
241. Cutting speed for some materials are given (d) One fourth the original time
below. Which one of the below could be cutting Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
speed for brass Ans. (c) : D1 = 250 mm, V1 = 20 m/min, F = 0.5
(a) 20 m/min (b) 30 m/min mm/rev., N1 = 25 rpm, Now if diameter is double, D2 =
(c) 40 m/min (d) 80 m/min 500 mm, & speed is double (V2) = 40 m/min, then, N2 =
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper ?
Ans. (d) : Cutting speed of brass, Aluminium and πD2 N 2 1000 × 40
V2 = ⇒ =N
bronze is around 60-90 m/min. 1000 3.14 × 500
242. Spindle speed in a lathe for turning a 40 cm N = 25.47 rpm. No change in turning time.
diameter rod at a cutting speed of 30 m/min 247. A work piece of 100 mm diameter is to be
would be machined at a cutting speed of 100 meters per
(a) 100 rpm (b) 206 rpm minute. The rpm of the work piece should be
(c) 238 rpm (d) 468 rpm (a) 100 (b) 159
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper (c) 200 (d) 318
Ans. (c) : D = 40 mm, Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
V = 30 m/min = 30×1000 mm/min Ans. (d) : D = 100 mm, V = 100 m/min, N = ?
N=? πDN
V= (m/min)
πDN 1000
V= ,
1000 100 ×1000
N=
30 × 1000 π ×100
N= = 238.85 rpm N = 318.47 rpm
(3.14 × 40)
243. For cutting mild steel the cutting angle a chisel 248. Tool signature comprises of how many
elements?
should be
(a) 5 (b) 7
(a) 55 degree (b) 60 degree
(c) 9 (d) 11
(c) 70 degree (d) 75 degree
Nagaland CTSE 2016, 2017 Ist Paper
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Ans. (a) : For cutting of different material, cutting angle Ans. (b) : Tool signatures comprises 7 elements :-
of a chisel should be, (1) α b (Back rake angle)
for, Mild steel – 55°
Cast iron – 60° (2) αs (Side rake angle)
Aluminium – 35° (3) γ e (End relief angle)
244. The cemented carbide tools are generally poor (4) γ s (Side relief angle)
in
(5) Ce (End cutting edge angle)
(a) Compression (b) Tension
(c) Shear (d) Torsion (6) Cs (Side cutting edge angle)
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper (7) R (Nose radius)
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper 249. The angle between the face and flank of the
Ans. (c) : cemented carbide tools are generally poor in single point cutting tool is known as :
shear. It is a hard brittle material used extensively as (a) Rake angle (b) Clearance angle
cutting tools material. (c) Lip angle (d) Point angle
245. In orthogonal cutting of metals the cutting edge SJVN ET 2013
is Ans. (c) : Lip angle- The angle between the face and
(a) Perpendicular to the work piece flank of the single point cutting tool is known as Lip angle.
(b) Perpendicular to the shear plane 250. The heat generated in metal cutting is
(c) Perpendicular to the axis of cutting tool dissipated in difference proportions into
(d) Perpendicular to the direction of tool travel environment, tool, chip, workpiece. The correct
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper order of this proportion in decreasing
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper magnitude is:
Ans. (d) : In, Orthogonal cutting, the cutting edge of the (a) took, work, chip, environment
tool is perpendicular to the direction of tool travel. (b) work, tool, environment, chip
(c) work, tool, chip, environment
246. A 250 mm diameter is turned at a cutting speed (d) chip, tool, work, environment
of 20 m/min feed 0.5 mm per revolution of
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
spindle at a spindle speed of 25 R.P.M. Now if
the diameter of work piece is double, and Ans. (d) : The heat generated in metal cutting is
spindle speed is also double, the time taken to dissipated maximum with chip and minimum to
turn the job will be environment.
(a) Four times the original time The correct order of this proportion in decreasing
(b) Double the original time magnitude is
(c) No change in turning time Chip, tool, work, environment
730
251. In machine tools, chatter is due to– α = Rake angle = 20º
(a) free vibrations sin φ
(b) Random vibrations 0.4 =
cos φ.cos 20 + sin φ.sin 20
(c) Forced vibrations
(d) Self-excited vibrations 0.4 × 0.94 cosφ + 0.4 × sinφ × 0.34 = sinφ
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper 1 − 0.4 × 0.34
cot φ = = 2.29
Ans. (d) : In machine tools, chatter is due to self- 0.4 × 0.94
excited vibrations. tanφ = 0.435
252. In metal cutting operation shear angle is φ = tan-1 (0.435)
defined as the angle– 256. A cutting fluid address two main problems
(a) Made by the plane of shear with the direction 1. heat generation at the shear zone and friction
of tool travel zone
(b) Made by the shear plane with the tool axis 2. friction at the tool-chip and tool-work
(c) Made by the shear plane with the central interfaces
plane of work piece 3. reduce the cutting work
(d) None of the above 4. ease of cutting
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper Out of above which are correct?
Ans. (a) : In metal cutting operation shear angle made (a) 1 (b) 1 and 2
by the plane of shear with direction of tool travel. (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
253. Which of the following is not the characteristics (e) 1 and 3
of cutting tool material? CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
(a) it should have high toughness Ans. (b) : A cutting fluid is any liquid or gas that is
(b) it should have high resistance to softening at applied directly to the machining operation to improve
higher temperature cutting performance. Cutting fluids address two main
(c) Is should have higher hardness than that of problems
the work material (i) Heat generation at the shear zone and friction
(d) Coefficient of friction between chip and tool zone.
should be very high (ii) Friction at the tool-chip and tool work
SJVN ET 2019 interfaces.
Ans. (d) : For cutting tool material, co-efficient of 257. Tool life in turning will decrease by maximum
friction between chip and tool should be very low. extent if the following is doubled
Option (d) is not characteristic. (a) depth of cut (b) feed
254. Which of the following is correct for Earnest- (c) cutting velocity (d) tool rake angle
Merchant Theory? [where φ = Shear angle, α = (e) 1 and 3
Rake angle, β = Friction angle] CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Ans. (c) : By Taylor's tool life equation
π 1 π 1
(a) φ = − ( α − β ) (b) φ = + ( α − β ) VTn = constant
2 2 4 2 V1T1n = V2T2n
π 1 π 1 at V2 = 2 V1 and n = 1
(c) φ = + ( α − β ) (d) φ = − ( α − β ) V1T1 = 2V1T2
2 2 4 2
SJVN ET 2019 T
T2 = 1
Ans. (b) : Earnest merchant theory of metal cutting 2
state that shear occurs along a thin plane which have Hence tool life decrease to half as doubled the cutting
minimum energy. The gave relation among shear angle velocity.
(φ), rake angle (α) and friction angle (β) 258. In turning, the ratio of the optimum cutting
π 1 π 1 speed for minimum cost and optimum cutting
φ = − ( β − α ) or φ = + ( α − β ) speed for maximum rate of production is
4 2 4 2
255. Data of an orthogonal cutting is: always
(a) Equal to 1
Chip thickness ratio = 0.4
(b) In the range of 0.6 to 1
Rake angle = 20o,
(c) In the range of 0.1 to 0.6
What will be the shear plane angle?
(d) Greater than 1
[given, cos 20o = 0.94, sin 20o = 0.34]
(e) Equal to 0.4
(a) cos-1 (0.711) (b) tan-1 (0.435)
-1 CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
(c) tan (0.711) (d) tan-1 (0.211)
SJVN ET 2019 Ans. (b) : In the range of 0.6 to 1.
sin φ 259. Tools signature is
Ans. (b) : Chip thickness ratio (r) = (a) a numerical method of identification of the
cos ( φ − α ) tools
φ = Shear angle (b) the plan of the tool
731
 (c) the complete specification of the tool (c) remains constant (d) is unpredictable
(d) associated with the tool manufacturer APPSC AEE 2016
ESE 2018 Ans. (b) :
Ans. (a) : Tool signature is the numerical method of
identification of geometric properties of a tool.
260. While turning a 60 mm diameter bar, it was
observed that the tangential cutting force was α + β + γ = 90o
3000 N and the feed force was 1200 N. If the If γ = constant
tool rake angle is 32°, then the coefficient of
friction is nearly (may take sin32° = 0.53, α ↑→ β ↓
cos32° = 0.85 and tan32° = 0.62) Then strength of tool decreases.
(a) 1.37 (b) 1.46 264. In metal cutting operation, maximum heat (i.e.
(c) 1.57 (d) 1.68 80-85%) is generated in
ESE 2018 (a) the shear zone
Ans. (a) : Given, (b) the chip-tool interface zone
Fc = 3000N, FT = 1200 N (c) the tool-work interface zone
α = 32° (d) On the tool surface
We know that APPSC AEE 2016
F F sin α + FT cos α Ans. (a) : In metal cutting operation, maximum heat
µ =tanβ = = c (i.e. 80-85%) is generated in the shear zone.
N Fc cos α − FT sin α
265. In metal cutting use of low feed and high
( 3000 × sin 32° ) + (1200 × cos32°)
= cutting speed is desired when the objective is
(3000 × cos32°) − (1200 × sin 32°) (a) High metal removal rate
µ = 1.363 (b) Dry Machining
261. In an orthogonal cutting operation, the length (c) Use of soft cutting tool
of the cut is 76 mm, length of the chip (d) Surface finish
measured is 61 mm and depth of cut is 0.2 mm. APPSC AEE 2016
What is the thickness of the chip? Ans. (d) : For high surface finish in metal cutting use of
(a) 0.01 mm (b) 0.8 mm low and high cutting speed.
(c) 0.2 mm (d) 0.25 mm 266. In oblique cutting of metals, the cutting edge of
TNPSC AE 2018 the tool is :
Ans. (d) : Data given as - (a) Perpendicular to the workpiece
f = t = 0.2 mm (b) Perpendicular to the direction of tool travel
ℓ = 76 mm (c) Parallel to the direction of tool travel
ℓ c = 61 mm (d) Inclined at an angle less than 900 to the
We know that chip thickness ratio direction of tool travel
t ℓ OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
r= = c HPSC W.S. POLY. 2016
tc ℓ
Ans. (d) : Inclined at an angle less than 900 to the
76 × 0.2 direction of tool travel.
tc =
61 267. Which of the following statements is correct for
tc = 0.24918 ≃ 0.25 mm orthogonal cutting system?
262. Cutting power consumption in turning can be (a) The cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular
significantly reduced by to the direction of tool travel.
(a) increasing rake angle of the tool (b) The cutting edge clears the width of the work
(b) increasing the cutting angle of the tool piece on either ends.
(c) widening the nose radius of the tool (c) The chip flows over the tool face and the
(d) increasing the clearance angle direction of the chip flow velocity is normal
TNPSC AE 2017 to the cutting edge
Ans. (a) : Cutting power consumption in turning can be (d) All of the above
significantly reduced by increasing rake angle of the JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
tool Ans : (d) : Orthogonal cutting system
We know that ! The cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular to the
π α β direction of tool travel.
φ= + −
4 2 2 ! The cutting edge clears the width of the work piece
If α↑→φ↑→ Area of shear plane (A) ↓ →FC ↓ → PC↓ on either ends.
263. On increasing the value of rake angle, the ! The chip flows over the tool face and the direction
strength of tool.................. of the chip flow velocity is normal to the cutting
(a) increases (b) decreases edge.
732
268. The cutting fluid mostly used for machining Ans : (d) In tool signature, nose radius is indicated at
steel is : the end.
(a) Water (b) Soluble Oil ASA Tool Signature–Back rake angle- Side rake
(c) Dry (d) Heavy Oils angle- End relief angle- Side relief angle- End cutting
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 edge angle - Side cutting edge angle - Nose radius.
Ans. (b) : The cutting fluid mostly used for machining Orthogonal Rake System (ORS)–Angle of inclination-
steel is soluble oil. normal rake angle- side relief angle - end relief angle -
269. The tool life is affected by : end cutting edge angle - approach angle.
(a) Depth of cut (b) Cutting speed 274. According to Lee and Shaffer theory, the shear
(c) Feed (d) All of these angle φ is given by the relation (α = rake
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
UKPSC AE 2012, 2007 Paper-I angle, β = friction angle)
Ans. (d) : The tool life is affected by, π β α π
(a) φ = + + (b) φ = − β + α
(a) Depth of cut 2 2 2 4
(b) Cutting speed π β α φ π
(c) Feed (c) φ = − + (d) = +α+β
4 2 2 2 2
270. Continuous chips with built-up edge are BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
formed during the machining of Ans : (b) According to Lee and shaffer theory:-
(a) brittle materials (b) ductile metals π
(c) hard metals (d) soft metals φ= −β + α
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II 4
According to Ernest Merchant theory:-
Ans : (b) : Continuous chips with built-up edge are
formed during the machining of ductile materials. π β α
φ= − +
271. In an orthogonal cutting, depth of cut is halved 4 2 2
and feed rate is doubled. If the chip thickness α = Rake angle
ratio is unaffected with the changed cutting φ = Shear angle
conditions, the actual chip thickness will be: β = friction angle.
(a) Doubled (b) Halved 275. The relation for cutting tool life is given as VTn
(c) Unchanged (d) Quadrupled = C, where V is cutting speed, T is
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I corresponding life, n and c are constants
Ans : (a) : We know that chip thickness ratio depending on cutting conditions. The
Depth of cut numerical value of n for roughing cut as
= compared to that for light cuts in mild steel
Chip thickness
would be
Since the chip thickness ratio remains unaffected and (a) More
depth of cut is halved, therefore, chip thickness will be (b) Less
doubled. (c) Same
272. A built - up - edge is formed while machining - (d) Does not depend on type of cut
(a) Ductile materials at high speed BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
(b) Ductile materials at low speed Ans : (a) The numerical value of n for roughing cut
(c) Brittle materials at high speed compared to that for light cuts in mild steel would be
(d) Brittle materials at low speed more.
RPSC AE 2018 VTn = C
Ans. (b) : A built-up-edge is formed while machining n= the index or exponent which depends upon machine
of ductile material at low speed. tool and workpice characteristics.
Built-up-edge (BUE) is the accumulation of work piece
1 1 
material onto the rake face of the tool. This material Generally the Value of n Varies from  to  for all
welds under pressure, and is separate from the chip.  5 10 
Positive effects of BUE— tool materials.
1. Less tool wear 276. Cutting and forming operations can be done in
2. Lower power requirement a single operation on :
3. Less contact of the workpiece with the tool (a) Simple die (b) Compound die
Negative effects of BUE— (c) Combination die (d) None of these
1. Poor tool life (HPPSC AE 2014)
2. Poor and variable surface finish
3. Loss of statistical capability on dimensional control Ans : (c) Cutting and forming operation can be done in
a single operation on combination die.
273. In tool signature, nose radius is indicated
Compound die:-In a compound die two or more cutting
(a) in the middle (b) in the beginning
(c) not indicated (d) at the end operation are performed at one station of the press in
(KPSC AE 2015) every stroke of the ram.
733
Combination die:-In a combination die, two or more 281. The relationship between tool life (T) and
operation are performed simultaneously at one station in cutting speed (V) is expressed as :
the single stroke of the ram. It differs from compound V
die in that the cutting operation is combined with a (a) V n T = C (b) =C
T
bending or forming operation in combination die.
progressive die:-In a progressive die, two or more T
(c) VT n = C (d) =C
operation are performed simultaneously, but at different V
stations. HPPSC W.S. POLY. 2016
277. The value of side rake angle of the turning tool TNPSC AE 2018
having tool signature : KPSC AE 2015
0°, 10°, 8°, 6°, 20°, 60°, 0(mm) will be: UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(a) 60° (b) 20° UPRVUNL AE 2014
(c) 10° (d) 8° Ans : (c) The relation between the tool life (T) in
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) minutes and cutting speed (v) in m/min is given by
VTn = C
Ans : (c) Tool signature:-
C = A constant
(i) Back rake angle - 0°
n = exponent depend on the tool material
(ii) Side rake angle - 10° n = 0.08 - 0.02 (for HSS tools)
(iii) End relif angle - 8° n = 0.1 - 0.15 (cast alloys)
(iv) Side relif angle - 6° n = 0.2 - 0.4 (for carbide tools)
(v) End cutting edge angle - 20° n = 0.5 - 0.7 (for ceramic tools).
(vi) Side cutting edge angle - 60° 282. The following electrolyte is used in electro-
(vii) Nose radius 0 mm chemical machining process:
278. In cutting tools, crater wear develops at: (a) Brine solution (b) Kerosene
(a) the principal flank (b) the tool nose (c) Transformer oil (d) Water
(c) the auxiliary flank (d) the rake surface HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) Ans : (a) Brine solution is used in electro - chemical
Ans : (d) In Cutting tools, crater wear develops at the machining process.
rake surface. Alloy Electrolyte
(i) Iron based Chloride Solution in water
( mostly 20% NaCl)
(ii) Ni based Mixture of brine and H2SO4
(iii) Co-Cr- W based NaCl
(iv) WC Based Strong alkaline Solution.
Crater wear occurs on the rake face of the tool. It 283. When the surface of the grinding wheel
Changes the chip-tool interface geometry and thus develops a smooth and shining surface it is said
affects the cutting process. It is influenced by to be
temperature at interface and the chemical affinity (a) loading (b) glazing
between the tool and workpiece materials. (c) truing (d) none of these
279. Oblique cutting system is also known as: HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
(a) One-dimensional cutting system Ans : (b) When the surface of grinding wheel developed a
(b) Two-dimensional cutting system smooth and shining surface it is said to be glazing.
(c) Three-dimensional cutting system Causes of wheel's glazing:-
(d) None of the above (i) To hard wheel.
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) (ii) To fine grain.
Ans : (c) Oblique Cutting system is also known as (iii) To fast speed of wheel.
three-dimensional cutting system . (iv) To slow speed of work.
Three dimensional cutting:-The simplest three (v) Wheel loaded with chip.
dimensional cutting tool is a straight cutting edge that is 284. Quick returning mechanism is used in :
inclined to the velocity vector. The inclination 'i' of the (a) milling machine (b) broaching machine
tool represent the point of departure from the orthogonal (c) slotting machine (d) lathe machine
cutting case and it significantly alters the chip flow and (KPSC AE. 2015)
hence the performance of a tool. Ans : (c) Quick returning mechanism is used in Slotting
280. The only angle on which the strength of the machine.
tool depends, is : Quick return mechanism of ram:- A Slotter does the
(a) Clearance angle (b) Rake angle cutting operation only in the forward stroke, and
(c) Cutting angle (d) Lip angle backward stroke is idle and therefore wastage. In order
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 to minimize this wastage, the return stroke should be
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 completed as quickly as possible. This is achieved by
Ans : (b) The strength of the tool depends rake angle. employing a crank -Slotter mechanism.
734
285. The rake angle of a cutting tool is 10°, shear 289. In a tool life test, doubling the cutting speed
angle 35° and cutting velocity 25 m/min. What reduces the tool life to (1/8)th of the original.
is the chip velocity along tool face? The Taylor's tool life index is
(a) 1.9 m/min (b) 3.9 m/min (a) 1/3 (b) 1/2
(c) 7.9 m/min (d) 15.8 m/min (c) 1/4 (d) 1/8
MPPSC AE 2016 MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (d) α = 10o UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
φ = 35o Ans : (a) V1T1n = V2 T2n
Vo = 25m / min  T1 
n
V
  = 2
V sin φ
Vc =  T2  V1
cos ( φ − α ) n
 8T1 
25sin 35o   =2
Vc =  T1 
cos ( 35 − 10 )
o o
23 = 21/ n
Vc = 15.8m / min. 1
n=
286. A 50 mm diameter disc is to be punched out 3
from a carbon steel sheet 1.0 mm thick. The Tool exponent (n) = 0.33
diameter of the punch should be 290. Discontinuous chips occur in case of:
(a) 42.925 mm (a) Ductile materials (b) Plastics
(b) 50.00 mm
(c) Composites (d) Brittle materials
(c) 50.075 mm
(d) None of these are correct OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
MPPSC AE 2016 Ans : (d)
Ans : (d) Clearance of low carbon steel = 3% of Continuous Dis- continuous Chips with
thickness. chip chip buit-up edge
C = 0.03 × 1 Ductile Brittle Ductile
C = 0.03 mm. workpiece workpiece workpiece
for punching operation High Speed Low Speed Low Speed
Punch size = blank size -2C = 50 - 2× 0.03 Low feed High Feed High feed
punch size = 50 - 0.06 Low depth of High depth of High depth of
punch size = 49.94 mm cut cut cut
287. The crater wear of a cutting tool is due to High back rake Low back rake Low back
(a) Chemical action of the coolant angle angle rake angle
(b) Excessive heat generated during cutting 291. For proper cutting, cutting materials does not
(c) Rubbing of tool against workplace require .............
(d) Abrasive action of the chip (a) Higher hardness (b) Hot hardness
MPPSC AE 2016 (c) High wear resistance (d) High friction
Ans : (d) i. The crater wear of a cutting tool is due to OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
Abrasive action of the chip Ans : (d) For proper cutting materials does not requires
ii. Flank wear occurs mainly on the nose part, front relif high friction.
and side relief face of the cutting tool. The cutting speed depends upon the work piece and
288. The primary tool force is used in calcuating took materials.
the total power consumption in machining is 292. Which of the following is a single point cutting
(a) radial force (b) tangential force tool?
(c) axial force (d) frictional force (a) milling cutter (b) parting off tool
MPPSC AE 2016 (c) hacksaw blade (d) grinding wheel
KPSC AE 2015 RPSC AE 2016
UJVNL AE 2016
Ans : (b) Parting off tool:- As the name implies, these
Ans : (b) are used for parting off bar work. Little fornt rake is
necessary owing dig into the work. front clearance must
be fairly large (about 10°). About 3° side clearance
angle is also required to allow the tool to cut correctly.
293. In ASA system, if the tool nomenclature is 8-6-
* Tangential force is a cutting operation largest force.
5-5-10-15-2, then the side rake angle will be:
* If radial force increase then chattering start. (a) 5° (b) 6°
* Tangential force is used in calculating the total power (c) 8° (d) 10°
consumption in machining. UJVNL AE 2016
735
Ans : (b) ASA (American standards Association) tool From this figure we get,
nomenclature V V V
(i) Back rake angle - 8° = c = s
cos(φ − α ) sin φ cos α
(ii) Side rake angle - 6°
(iii) End relif angle - 5° we know that chip thickness ratio (r) is given as
(iv) Side relif angle - 5° t l V sin φ
r= = c = c =
(v) End Cutting edge -10° tc l V cos(φ − α )
(vi) Side cutting edge - 15°
(vii) Nose radius – 2 mm sin φ
r=
Then the side rake angle will be 6° cos(φ − α )
294. During machining on a Lathe excess metal is 297. Which of the following statements is incorrect
removed in the form of chips as in the case of about the continuous chip?
turning. Which of the following conditions are (a) It is formed while machining ductile
required for continuous ribbon like chip to be materials at high cutting speeds.
formed in turning? (b) It is formed when feed and depth of cut are
(i) At a higher cutting speed low.
(ii) At a lower cutting speed (c) It results in good surface finish.
(iii) A brittle material
(d) None of the above
(iv) A ductile material
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Select the correct Answer amongst the
following: Ans : (c)
(a) i and iii (b) i and iv Continuous Dis- continuous Chips with
(c) ii and iii (d) ii and iv chip chip buit-up edge
UJVNL AE 2016 Ductile work Brittle work Ductile work
Ans : (b) During machining on a lathe, excess metal is High Speed Low Speed Low Speed
removed in the form of chips as in the case of turning. Low feed High Feed High feed
following conditions are required for continious ribbon Low depth of High depth of High depth of
like chip to be formed in turning cut cut cut
(i) At a high Cutting speed High back rake Low back rake Low back
(ii) A ductile material. angle angle rake angle
295. Negative rake angle tool is recommended to 298. In a machining operation chip thickness ratio
machine is 0.3 and tool back rake angle is 10o. The value
(a) Ductlie material at high speed of shear strain is
(b) Brittle material at high speed (a) 0.86 (b) 2.24
(c) Ductile material at low speed (c) 3.10 (d) 3.34
(d) Very hard and ductile material at high speed UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
UJVNL AE 2016 Ans : (d) shear strain = γ = cot φ + tan( φ − α )
Ans : (b) Negative rake angle tool is recommended to r cos α
machine Brittle material at high speed. tan φ =
1 − r sin α
Ductile material rake angle kept:- 10°-15°
Brittle material rake angle kept:- Negative or minimum 0.3 cos 10 o
tan φ =
HSS tool for Aluminum rake angle:- 35° 1 − 0.3 sin10 o
C.C tool for Aluminum rake angle:- 15°
γ = cot φ + tan( φ − α )
296. The chip thickness ratio 'r' is given by where
φ = shear plane angle, and α = rake angle γ = 3.208 + 0.1282
γ = 3.34
cos φ sin (φ − α)
(a) (b) ShearStrain (γ ) = 3.34
sin (φ − α) cos φ
cos (φ − α) sin φ 299. Grinding of hard materials requires
(c) (d) (a) Fine grit size and hard grades
sin α cos (φ − α)
(b) Fine grit size and soft grades.
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
(c) Coarse grit size and hard grades.
Ans : (d) (d) Coarse grit size and soft grades.
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Ans : (b)Fine grit size and soft grades.
300. The lathe bed is made of
(a) Mild steel (b) Alloy steel
(c) Pig iron (d) Chilled cast Iron
TSPSC AEE 2015
736
Ans : (d) The lathe bed is made of chilled cast iron. (b) Annealed, hardened
Chilled cast iron:- It is a white cast iron produced by (c) Annealed
quick cooling of molten iron. The quick cooling is (d) Hardened and tempered
generally called chilling and the cost iron so produced is Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
called chilled cost iron. Ans. (a) : Chisels used for metal cutting are hardened,
301. The rake angle required for machining brass all over.
by high speed steel tool is 306. In a drilling operation–
(a) 0o (b) 10o (a) Torque is equal to the axial force.
(b) Torque is more than the axial force
(c) −5 o
(d) −10o (c) Torque is less than the axial force
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I (d) Torque is half the axial force
Ans : (a) Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
(i) The rake angle required for machining brass by Ans. (d) : In a drilling operation, torque is half of the
high speed steel tool is 0o . axial force.
(ii) The rake angle required for machining Aluminum 307. Crater wear of single point cutting tool appears
by high speed steel tool is 350. due to
(iii) The rake angle required for machining Aluminum (a) Fatigue (b) Corrosion
by Diamond tool is 0o . (c) Impact (d) Diffusion
(iv) The rake angle required for machining Aluminum TSPSC AEE 2015
by Carbides tool is 150. Ans. (d) : Crater wear of single point cutting tool
302. Which is the main reason for poor surface appears due to diffusion.
finish 308. Continuous chips during machining forms
(a) Heavy depth of cut (b) High cutting speed when
(c) High feed (d) Low side rake angle (a) speed is high, feed is low
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I (b) speed is high, feed is high
Ans : (c) High feed is the main reason for poor (c) speed is low, feed is low
surface finish. Effect of various machining variables (d) speed is low, feed is high
on surface finish. TSPSC AEE 2015
Increasing of following Leads to improved Ans. (a) : Continuous chips during machining forms
machining variables /deteriorated surface when speed is high, feed is low.
finishing 309. A good machinability rating would indicate
Cutting speed Improves (a) long tool life, high power requirement and
less machining time.
Feed rate Deteriorates
(b) long tool life, low power requirement and a
Depth of cut Deteriorates good surface finish.
True rake angle Improves (c) short tool life and a good surface finish.
303. Which one of the following materials will have (d) long tool life, high power requirement and a
highest cutting speed? good surface finish.
(a) Cast iron (b) Tool steel UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(c) Brass (d) Aluminium Ans. (b) : long tool life, low power requirement and a
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper good surface finish.
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper 310. In a single point turning operation Taylor’s
Ans. (d) : Ductile material will have the highest cutting exponent is 0.25. If the cutting speed is halved
speed (Aluminium). then the tool life will become:-
304. Crater wear occurs mainly on the (a) Half (b) Two times
(a) nose part, front relief face and side relief face (c) Eight times (d) Sixteen times
of the cutting tool UKPSC AE 2013 Paper-I
(b) cutting edge only UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(c) front face only Ans. (d) : Given as
(d) face of the cutting tool at a short distance n = 0.25
from the cutting edge only We know that
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 Taylor's tool life equation
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I V1T1n = V2 T2n = C
Ans. (d) : V
V × [ T1 ] [ T2 ]0.25
0.25
Crater Wear - occur mainly on the Face of the cutting =
2
tool at a short distance from the cutting edge only.
 T2 
  = [ 2]
Flank Wear – Occurs mainly on the nose part, front 4
relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool. T
 1
305. Chisels used for metal cutting are– T2 = 16T1
(a) Hardened
737
311. In an orthogonal cutting operation, the chip 316. Which of the following should be more to
thickness and the uncut thickness are equal reduce wear of a tool ?
0.45mm each. If the tool rake angle is 0°, the (a) Weight (b) Density
shear plane angle is :- (c) Hardness (d) (b) & (c) both
(a) 18º (b) 30º UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(c) 45º (d) 60º Ans. (c) : Hardness
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I 317. An orthogonal cutting operation is being
Ans. (c) : Given as, carried out under the following conditions :
t = 0.45 mm Cutting Speed = 2 m/sec, Depth of cut = 0.5
tc = 0.45 mm mm, Chip thickness = 0.6 mm.
α = 0o What is the chip velocity ?
then (a) 2 m/sec (b) 2.4 m/sec
t 0.45 (c) 1 m/sec (d) 1.66 m/sec
r= = =1 UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
t c 0.45 Ans. (d) : Given data
We know that Cuting speed = 2 /sec.
r cos α Depth of cut = 0.5 mm
tan φ = Chip of thickness = 0.6 mm
1 − r sin α
o Uncut chip thickness t c 0.5
1× cos 0 r= = =
tan φ = o Chip thickness t 0.6
1 − 1× sin 0
∴ velocity of chip (Vc) = V × r
tan φ = 1
0.5
φ = tan −1 (1) = 2× = 1.66 m/sec.
0.6
318. The rake angle of a cutting tool is 15°, the shear
φ = 45o
angle is 45° and the cutting velocity is 35 mpm.
312. The quality of machined surface depends on:- What is the velocity of chip along the tool face ?
(a) The material of the workpiece (a) 28.5 mpm (b) 27.3 mpm
(b) Rigidity of machine work-tool system (c) 25.3 mpm (d) 23.5 mpm
(c) Cutting conditions UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(d) All of the above Ans. (a) : 28.5 mpm
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I 319. The following is not true for the tool life
Ans. (d) : All of the above. equation:
313. The tool life of a cutting tool mainly depends (a) The smaller the value of 'n' steeper the slope
on:- of log V-log T line.
(a) Cutting speed (b) For ideal tool material n = 1
(b) Tool geometry (c) The larger the value of C smaller is the tool
(c) Ambient temperature life
(d) None of the above (d) The range of variation of n for HSS is 0.08 –
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I 0.20
Ans. (a) : The tool life of a cutting tool mainly depends UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
on cutting speed. Ans. (c) : The larger the value of C smaller is the tool
314. Continuous chips will be formed when life
machining speed is 320. In metal cutting, Merchant's circle gives the
(a) low relationship among various components of
(b) medium (a) stresses (b) strains
(c) high (c) forces (d) velocities
(d) independent of speed UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I Ans. (c) : Forces
Ans. (c) : high 321. Chip velocity in machining of metals is equal to
315. A cutting tool is turning a work piece of 40 mm (a) rV (b) rVs
diameter, revolving at 300 rpm. If tool life is V V
120 min, find the value of constant C as per the (c) (d) s
r r
Taylor’s tool life equation, Assuming n = 1/7. where V = cutting of velocity
(a) 85 (b) 80 Vs = velocity along the shear plane
(c) 70 (d) 75 r = chip thickness ratio
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Ans. (d) : 75 Ans. (a) : rV
738
322. The shear angle derived on the basis of (c) Chemical stability
minimisation of rate of energy consumption is (d) Adhesion resistance
expressed by JWM 2017
π 1 π 1 Ans. (b) : Hot hardness is the properly of a tool that
(a) φ = − (β − α) (b) φ = − (β − α)
4 2 2 2 prevents plastic deformation at its cutting edge during
π 1 π 1 machining process.
(c) φ = − (α − β) (d) φ = − (α − β)
4 2 2 2 329. The difference between (i) a horizontal borer
where φ = shear angle and (ii) a lathe is
α = rake angle (a) In (i) the spindle is horizontal; in (ii) it is
β = friction angle vertical
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I (b) In (i) the tool rotates; in (ii) the object rotates
π 1 (c) In (i) the object rotates; in (ii) tool rotates
Ans. (a) : φ = − (β − α) (d) (i) produces a plain surface; (ii) produces a
4 2
323. Flank wear occurs mainly on the cylindrical surface
(a) nose part of the cutting tool JWM 2017
Ans. (b) : In a horizontal borer, the tool rotates where
(b) front relief face and side relief face of the
cutting tool as in a lathe, the object rotates.
(c) face of cutting tool at a short distance from
330. The chip thickness during slab milling process
the cutting edge is directly proportional to
(d) both (a) and (b) above (a) Cutter's rotational speed
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I (b) Angle of contact of the tooth
Ans. (d) : Both (a) and (b) above (c) Number of teeth of the cutter
324. Discontinuous chips are formed during (d) Feed rate of work piece
machining of which of the following materials? JWM 2017
(a) brittle metals (b) ductile metals
Ans. (d) : The chip thickness during slab milling
(c) soft metals (d) hard metals
process is directly proportion to feed rate of work piece.
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
Ans. (a) : Brittle metals 331. Consider the following statements with regard
to lapping process:
325. If the cutting speed is increased, what will
happen to the built-up edge? 1. Any type of flat material can be lapped to any
(a) It becomes longer shape
(b) It becomes smaller and may vanish later 2. As the parts are not clamped during lapping
(c) It does not form no heat is generated so there is no warping
(d) Has no relation to speed 3. No burrs are produced
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I Which of the above statements are correct?
Ans. (b) : It becomes smaller and may vanish later. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
326. The angle made by the tool face with a plane (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
parallel to cutting tool base is known as JWM 2017
(a) rake angle (b) cutting angle Ans. (b) : Lapping process-
(c) clearance angle (d) lip angle • Use of loose abrasive between lap and the work piece.
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I• Any type of flat material can be lapped to any shape.
Ans. (a) : Rake angle • No burrs are produced.
327. Crater water occurs due to which one of the 332. HSS tool is used to machine a 20 mm diameter
following phenomenon? steel shaft, at a spindle speed of 1000
(a) Adhesion (b) Diffusion revolutions per minute. What is the cutting
(c) Oxidation (d) All of the above speed?
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I (a) π m/min (b) 20 π m/min
Ans. (c) : Oxidation (c) π mm/min (d) 20 π mm/min
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
4. Machining & Machine Tool Ans. (b) : Cutting speed = πDN = π × 20 × 1000 =
Operations 20000 π mm/min = 20 π m/min
333. In turning operation, the typical ratio of heat
328. Which is the property of a tool that prevents generated in chip, tool and work piece is in the
plastic deformation at its cutting edge during order of:
machining process? (a) 70 : 20 : 10 (b) 10 : 70 : 20
(a) High value of fracture toughness (c) 10 : 20 : 70 (d) 70 : 10 : 20
(b) High value of hardness under heating CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
739
Ans. (d) : (1 given by CIL)
b
It is clear from the figure that at high speed,
maximum heat is carried away by the chip, then work
piece and least is carried by tool.
So the ratio 70: 10: 20 will be correct.
334. In which of the following operations performed
on lathe machine, chips does not occur?
(a) Knurling (b) Boring
(c) Reaming (d) Threading cutting
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (a) : Knurling: Knurling is a manufacturing
process whereby a visually-attractive diamond-shaped
(crisscross) pattern is cut or rolled into metal. This
pattern allows human hands or fingers to get a better
grip on the knurled object than would be provided by
the originally-smooth metal surface.
Boring: Boring always involves the enlarging
of an existing hole, which may have been made by a
drill or may be the result of a core in a casting.
Reaming: Reaming removes a small amount of
material from the surface of holes. It is done for two
purposes: to bring holes to a more exact size and to
improve the finish of an existing hole.
Threading: It is the process of making internal
or external threads on the workpiece.
Out of above four processes except knurling all
other involves the chips. So Knurling is right option.
335. The cutting speed of the tool in turning
operation is:
(a) Directly proportion to diameter of the
workpiece
(b) Inversely proportional to the workpiece
(c) Inversely proportional to the square of the
workpiece
(d) Directly proportional to the square of the
diameter of the workpiece
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (a) : Cutting speed (also called surface speed) may
be defined as the rate (or speed) at the workpiece
surface, irrespective of the machining operation used.
Cutting speed = r × ω = πDN mm/min
Where D is in mm and N is in RPM.
So cutting speed is directly proportion to
diameter of the workpiece.
336. In a turning tool, crater wear occur on _____.
(a) Base (b) Flank face
(c) Rake face (d) Shank
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (c) : Crater wear occur on the rake face. For crater
wear temperature is the main culprit and tool diffuse
into the chip material and tool temperature is maximum
740
at some distance from the tool tip. So crater wear starts
at some distance from tool tip.
337. Tool dynamometers are used to:
(a) determine the tool angle
(b) determine the tool hardness
(c) determine the tool nose radius
(d) determine the cutting forces
(e) determine the tool material composition
CGPSC AE 2014- I
Ans. (d) : Tool dynamometers are used to determine
cutting forces.
338. Which of the following is not the characteristics
of cutting tool material?
(a) High hot hardness
(b) High wear resistance
(c) High toughness
(d) High coefficient of friction at tool chip
interface
(e) High thermal conductivity
CGPSC AE 2014- I
Ans. (d) : Characteristics of cutting tool material-
1. High hot hardness
2. High wear resistance
3. High toughness
4. High thermal conductivity
5. Low coefficient of friction at tool chip
interface.
339. Cutting fluid used in machining operation
should:
(a) have high heat absorbing capacity
(b) have low flash point
(c) have good lubricating property
(d) wash-off the chips
(e) be non-toxic
CGPSC AE 2014- I
Ans. (b) : Common properties of cutting fluid-
1. High heat absorbing capacity
2. High flash point
3. Non corrosive to tool and work mateiral.
4. It should be harmless to operate and bearing
5. It has good lubrication properties to reduce
frictional force and to reduce the power
consumption.
6. Wash-off the chips easily.
7. Also be non-toxic.
340. The relationship of tool life and cutting speed is Ans. (a) : Climb milling is generally the best way to
expressed as VTn = C. Which of the following is machine parts today since it reduces the load from the
not true for this relation? cutting edge, leaves a better surface finish and improves
(a) V = cutting speed (m/min), T = temperature tool life. During conventional milling, the cutter tends
(oC) to dig into the work piece and may cause the part to be
(b) V = cutting speed (m/min), T = tool life (min) cut out of tolerance.
(c) Tool life decreases at high cutting speeds 344. The process of removing metal by feeding the
(d) 'C' is numerically equal to the cutting speed work past a rotating multipoint cutter is known
that gives tool life of 1 min as
(e) It is known as Taylor tool life equation (a) broaching (b) sawing
CGPSC AE 2014- I (c) milling (d) grinding
Ans. (a) : Taylor tool life equaiton– TNPSC AE 2014
VTn = C Ans. (c) : The process of removing metal by feeding the
where, work past a rotating multipoint cutter is known as
V – cutting speed (m/min) milling.
T – Tool life (min)
C – Numerically equal to the cutting speed that 345. The thickness of the chip is minimum at the
gives tool life of 1 min. beginning of the cut and maximum at the end
n – Exponent depend on tool material of the cut is case of
n = 0.08 - 0.2 for HSS (a) climb milling (b) up milling
n = 0.1 - 0.15 for Cast Alloys (c) down milling (d) face milling
n = 0.2 - 0.41 for carbide tool TNPSC AE 2014
n = 0.5 - 0.7 for ceramic tool Ans. (b) : The thickness of the chip is minimum at the
341. Why does crater wear start at some distance beginning of the cut and maximum at the end of the cut
from the tool tip? is case of up milling. Up milling also know as
(a) Tool strength is minimum at that region conventional milling.
(b) Cutting fluid cannot penetrate that region 346. The best machine tool to cut an internal spline
(c) Tool temperature is maximum in that region in steel is
(d) Stress on rake face is maximum at that region (a) milling machine (b) slotting machine
RPSC AE 2018 (c) lathe (d) grinding machine
Ans. (c) : Crater wear start at some distance from the TNPSC AE 2014
tool tip because of tool temperature is maximum in that Ans. (b) : The slotting machine can be used to cut slots,
region. splines keyways for both internal and external job such
Crater wear— as machining internal and external gears.
• Crater wear occur on the rake face. 347. The cutting speed for reaming aluminium and
• At very high speed crater wear predominates its alloys is
• For crater wear, temperature is main culprit and (a) 47-70 m/min (b) 15-20 m/min
tool defuse into chip material and tool temperature is (c) 10-12 m/min (d) 5-20 m/min
maximum at some distance from the tool tip.
TNPSC AE 2014
342. The process of removing the burrs or flash
Ans. (a) : The cutting speed for reaming aluminium and
from a forged component in drop forging is
called - its alloys is 47-70 m/min
(a) Swaging (b) Perforating 348. Depth of cut for roughing operation normally
(c) Trimming (d) Fettling varies from
RPSC AE 2018 (a) 5 mm to 10 mm (b) 1 mm to 5 mm
Ans. (c) : Trimming—Trimming is the process of (c) 0.2 mm to 1 mm (d) 0.01 mm to 0.2 mm
removing the burrs or flash from a forged component in TNPSC AE 2014
drop forging. Ans. (b) : Depth of cut for roughing operation normally
Swaging—Swaging is a forging process in which the varies from 1 mm to 5 mm.
dimension of an item are altered using dies into which 349. One of the disadvantages of a hydraulic shaper
the item is forced. compared to the mechanical shaper is
Perforating—A perforation is a small hole in thin (a) stopping point of the cutting stroke can vary
material. There is usually more than one perforation in
depending upon the resistance offered to
organized fashion, where all of the holes collectively
cutting
are called a perforation. The process of creating
perforations is called perforting. (b) less strokes per minute
(c) power available varies during the cutting
343. In which of the following milling operation the
surface finish is better stroke
(a) climb (b) up (d) cutting speed remains constant throughout the
(c) drop (d) face cutting stroke
TNPSC AE 2014 TNPSC AE 2014
741
Ans. (a) : One of the disadvantages of a hydraulic Ans. (b) : The purpose of truing is to bring every point
shaper compared to the mechanical shaper is stopping of the grinding surface concentric with the machine
point of the cutting stroke can vary depending upon the spindle and to introduce a form into a wheel.
resistance offered to cutting. 356. The gear is manufactured on generating
350. A steel workpiece is to be milled. Metal principle in
removal rate is 40 cm3/min. Depth of cut is 10 (a) milling (b) hobbing
mm and width of cut is 200 mm. Find the Table (c) forming (d) broaching
food? TNPSC AE 2013
(a) 20 mm/min (b) 30 mm/min (KPSC AE. 2015)
(c) 40 mm/min (d) 50 mm/min Ans. (b) : The gear is manufactured on generating
TNPSC AE 2013 principle in hobbing.
Ans. (a) : mrr = d × f × b 357. Gear shaving in the operation pertaining to
40 × 103 = 10 × f × 200 (a) Gear cutting
f = 20 mm/min. (b) Gear tooth cutting
351. Among the following for which operation, the (c) Gear finishing
slowest speed is selected in lathe? (d) Gear tooth correction
(a) Facing (b) Taper turning TNPSC AE 2013
(c) Thread cutting (d) Straight Turning Ans. (c) : Gear shaving in the operation pertaining to
TNPSC AE 2013 gear finishng.
RPSC AE 2016 358. The name Carborundum refers to
Ans. (c) : For thread cutting among the following (a) Silicon Carbide (b) Silicon Oxide
operation, the slowest speed is selected in lathe. (c) Silicon Nitrate (d) Silicon Acid
352. In which method the gear cutting can be done TNPSC AE 2013
faster? Ans. (a) : The name Carborundum refers to Silicon
(a) Milling (b) Shaping Carbide.
(c) Hobbing (d) Turning 359. Which of the following is not a natural
TNPSC AE 2013 abrasive?
Ans. (c) : Hobbing machines provide gear (a) Garnet (b) Emery
manufacturers a fast and accurate method for cutting (c) Carborundum (d) Diamond
parts. This is because of the generating nature of this TNPSC AE 2013
particular cutting process. Gear hobbing is not a form Ans. (c) : Carborundum is not a natural abrasive where
cutting process, such as gashing or milling where the as Gamet, Emery and Diamond are a natural abrasive.
cutter is a conjugate form of the gear tooth. The hob 360. Buffing is the operation of
generates a gear tooth profile by cutting several facets (a) Cleaning the casting
of each gear tooth prolife through a synchronized (b) Producing smooth surface
rotation and feed of the work piece and cutter. (c) Depositing metal by spraying
353. 119 divisions can be indexed by using (d) Broaching in reverse direction
(a) differential indexing (b) simple indexing TNPSC AE 2013
(c) double indexing (d) direct indexing Ans. (b) : Polishing and buffing are finishing processes
TNPSC AE 2013 for smoothing a workpiece's surface using an abrasive
and a work wheel or a leather strop. Technically
Ans. (a) : 119 divisions can be indexed by using
polishing refers to processes that use an abrasive that is
differential indexing. glued to the work the work wheel, while buffing uses a
354. In radial drilling machine, large and odd loose abrasive applied to the work wheel.
shaped workpieces are hold by using 361. The progression ratio of the gear box is
(a) V-block
N min N min
(b) Machine (a) = φn (b) = φ n −1
(c) Strap clamps and T-bolts N max N max
(d) Three jaw chuck N max N max
TNPSC AE 2013 (c) = φ n −1 (d) =φ
N min N min
Ans. (c) : In radial drilling machine, large and odd TNPSC AE 2013
shaped workpieces are hold by using strap clamps and Ans. (c) : The progression ratio of the gear box is given
T-bolts.
N
355. When the grinding wheels loose their geometry, as max = φ n −1
the original shape is restored by N min
(a) burnising (b) truing where -
(c) buffing (d) honing n = number of division
TNPSC AE 2013 φ = Ratio between two consecutive spindle speed.
742
 Vmax × 1000 364. The size of shaper is specified by
N max = (a) Length of stroke
π× D min
(b) Height of table
V × 1000 (c) Maximum size of tool
N min = max
π× D max (d) Ratio of forward to return stroke
N 2 = φ× N 1 TNPSC AE 2013
N 3 = φ× N 2 ...... so an, Ans. (a) : Specification of shaper machine–
1. The maximum length of stroke ram.
362. A taper job of length 90 mm, has a taper length 2. Types of the drive.
of 42 mm. The larger diameter of taper is 73 3. Power input of the machine.
mm and the smaller diameter is 63 mm. 4. Floor space required to establish the machine.
Determine the tail-stock setting over. 5. Weight of the machine in ton.
(a) 10.51 mm (b) 10.61 mm 6. Feed.
(c) 10.71 mm (d) 10.81 mm 7. Cutting to return stroke ratio.
TNPSC AE 2013 8. Angular moment of the table.
Ans. (c) : Given, L = 90 mm, D = 73 mm 365. Which of the following is true for grinding
lr = 42 mm, d = 63 mm wheel?
(a) Hard grinding wheel is used to grind hard
steel
(b) 'A' denotes the hardest abrasive wheel
(c) Grade of grinding wheel is related to its
hardness
(d) Soft grinding wheel is used to grind the soft
steel
UPRVUNL AE 2016
α x
tan = Ans. (c) : Hard grinding wheel is used to grind soft
2 lt steel.
D−d Grade of grinding wheel is related to its hardness.
x= Soft grinding wheel is used to grind the hard steel.
2
From A (soft) to Z (hard), determines how tightly the
73 − 63 bond holds the abrasive. A to H for softer structure, I to
=
2 P for moderately hard structure and Q to Z for hard
structure.
366. A slot is to be milled by a side and face milling
cutter with 12 teeth and 100 mm diameter.
Feed rate is 0.2 mm/tooth and cutting speed is
100 rpm. Table feed will be:
(a) 240 mm/min (b) 600 mm/min
x = 5 mm (c) 260 mm/min (d) 300 mm/min
α 5 UPRVUNL AE 2016
tan =
2 42 Ans. (a) : We know that, table feed of milling machine
f m = ft × z × N
α = 13.578 o
ft = 0.2 mm/tooth
Where α is tapper angle then, tail stock setting z = 12, D = 100 mm
(y) is given as N = 100 rpm
α fm = 0.2 × 12 × 100
y = L × sin
2 fm = 240 mm/min
y = 90 × 0.1182 367. Which of the following is not a part of carriage
y = 10.639 mm in lathe mechanism?
(a) Tail stock (b) Saddle
363. In lathe, which work holding device is used if (c) Cross slide (d) Tool post
the job is complex and irregular shape, which UPRVUNL AE 2016
is inconvenient (or) even impossible to Ans. (a) : Tool post, saddle, cross slide these are parts
clamp/hold in chucks. of carriage in lathe mechanism whereas tail stock is
(a) Collets (b) Mandrels another important part of lathe machine.
(c) Lathe dogs (d) Face plate 368. What will be step ratio of headstock spindle for
TNPSC AE 2013 a lathe machine of following data?
Ans. (d) : Face plate is used as a work holding device in Maximum speed = 2100 rev/min
lathe when the job is complex and irregular shape. Minimum speed = 70 rev/min
743
 No. of speeds = 21 372. Knurling operation is performed on
(a) (30)1/22 (b) (30)1/19 (a) Shaper machine (b) Milling machine
(c) (30)1/21 (d) (30)1/20 (c) Grinding machine (d) Lathe machine
UPRVUNL AE 2016 HPPSC AE 2018
Ans. (d) : Maximum speed = 2100 rev/min Ans. (d) : Knurling–Knurling is a process of
Minimum speed = 70 rev/min impressing a diamond shaped or straight line pattern
No. of speeds = 21 into the surface of workpiece by using specially hardend
then step ratio (r) = ? metal wheels to improve its appearance and provide a
We know that better gripping surface. Knurling operation is performed
N max on lathe machine.
= (r ) n −1
N min 373. To produce involute profile of the gear on
milling machine, which one is required
 2100 
(r ) 21−1 =   = 30 (a) Differential indexing head
 70  (b) Angle milling cutter
1
(c) Slab milling cutter
(r ) = (30) 20 (d) Profile milling cutter
369. Universal rolling mill contains: HPPSC AE 2018
(a) No rolls Ans. (d) : To produce involute profile of the gear on
(b) Vertical rolls milling machine profile milling cutter are used.
(c) Horizontal rolls
374. The surface finish of a cylindrical hole is
(d) Both Horizontal and vertical rolls
UPRVUNL AE 2016 maintained by
(a) Honing
Ans. (d) : Universal rolling mill—The universal
rolling mill consists of two vertical rolls and two (b) Lapping
horizontal rolls. The vertical rolls are ideal and are (c) Internal cylindrical grinding
arranged between the bearing chocks of the horizontal (d) Boring
rolls in the vertical plane. HPPSC AE 2018
Universal rolling mills are used for producing blooms from Ans. (a) : Honing process–Honing is a finishing
ingots and for rolling wide - flange H-section beams. process, in which a tool called hone carries out a
370. Finishing of existing hole is known as: combined rotary and reciprocating motion while the
(a) Boring (b) Counter boring work piece does not perform any working motion. The
(c) Counter sinking (d) Reaming Honning process is carried out by mechanically rubbing
UPRVUNL AE 2016 the honing stone (cutting tool) against the workpiece
surface (normally internal) along the controlled path.
Ans. (d) : Reaming process—Reaming is a cutting
The surface finish of cylindrical hole is maintained by
operation with a multi-edge cutting tool which is
honing.
constantly in action. Reaming is applied to finish drilled
holes accurately to size and with a good surface finish. 375. In shaping process
Boring—Boring, also called internal turning, is used to (a) Tool reciprocates and feed is given to job
increase the inside diameter of hole. The original hole is (b) Job reciprocates and feed is given to job
made with drill, or it may be a cored hole in a casting. (c) Both tool and job reciprocate relative to each
Counter boring—Counter boring is the operation of other
enlarging one end of an existing hole concentric with (d) Both tool and job remain static
the original hole with square bottom. It is done to HPPSC AE 2018
accommodate the heads of bolts, studs and pins. Ans. (a) : In shaping process, The shaper holds the
Counter sinking—A countersink is a core-shaped hole single point cutting tool in ram and workpiece is fixed
that is cut into PCB to allow the flat head of a socket in the table and feed is given to job.
cap screw to fit flush with the surface of the board.
During the forward stroke, the ram is holding the tool is
371. An exact centering can be done on a lathe by reciprocating over the workpiece to cut into the required
(a) Four jaw chuck (b) Three jaw chuck shape. During the return stroke, no metal is cutting in the
(c) Dog clutch (d) Face plate shaper machine, the rotary motion of the drive is converted
HPPSC AE 2018 into reciprocating motion of ram holding the tool.
Ans. (a) : An exact centering can be done on a lathe by 376. For taper turning, a work piece having r- as
four jaw chuck. radius at the small end, and R- as the radius at
Type of Chuck in Lathe machine are as follows: the big end with L- as the length of the taper
• Four jaws independent chuck. will have a taper angle α given by:
• Three jaws universal chuck. R−r R−r
• Combination chuck. (a) tan α =   (b) tan 2α =  
 L   L 
• Magnetic chuck.
• Collet chuck. R−r R−r
(c) tan α =   (d) tan 2α =  
• Air or hydraulic operated chuck.  2L   2L 
744
  R −r  379. Suggest a suitable machine from the following
(e) tan α = 2   options for cutting T- slots on a very long and
 L 
heavy apparatus table:
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
(a) Slotting machine
Ans. (*) : ∆BAC (b) Planer machine
 α  BC (c) Shaper machine
tan   =
 2  BA (d) Vertical lathe
(e) Horizontal milling machine
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
Ans. (b) : Planer Machine–A planer is a type of metal
working machine tool that uses linear relative motion
between the workpiece and a single-point cutting tool to
cut the workpiece. A planer is similar to a shaper, but
α ( R −r ) larger, and with workpiece moving, whereas in a shaper
tan = the cutting tool moves. The workpiece is securely fixed
2 L on a table called platen, and it reciprocates horizontally
−1  R − r  against a single edged cutting tool. The surface
α = 2 tan 
 L  machined may be horizontal, vertical or at an angle.
Note– Option (a) is given by CGPSC as answer. Operations of Planer Machine–
377. Which of the following lathes is suitable for a ! Planning flat horizontal, vertical and curved surface.
small engineering workshop involved in repair ! Planning at an angle and machining dovetails.
work? ! Planning slots, T-slots and grooves.
(a) Centre lathe 380. In simple indexing method, the rotation of the
(b) Tool-room lathe 2
(c) Special purpose lathe index crank = 6 turns cannot be obtained by:
(d) Hollow spindle lathe 3
(a) Rotating indexing crank by 6 full rotation +10
(e) Capstan lathe
holes in a 15- hole circle
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
(b) Rotating indexing crank by 6 full rotation +12
Ans. (a) : Centre-Lathe Machine–A centre lathe is a holes in an 18- hole circle
machine tool that carries out many machine shop tasks. (c) Rotating indexing crank by 6 full rotation +14
It can cut and smooth the face of a work piece. It can holes in a 21- hole circle
make holes to an exact size and position. It can also (d) Rotating indexing crank by 6 full rotation +18
make external or internal threaded parts on a work holes in a 27- hole circle
piece. This ability to do different tasks makes it an (e) Rotating indexing crank by 6 full rotation +21
important tool. In most tasks a lathe use is only limited holes in a 31- hole circle
by the size of the work piece.
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
The five most common tasks on a centre lathe that you
will be perform are: Ans. (e) : In simple indexing method, the rotation of the
! Facing 2
index crank = 6 turns cannot be obtained by 31 hole
! Turning 3
! Drilling circle plate because 31 can not be divided by 3
! Boring completely
! Threading Fully Rotation Holes Hole Circle
! Knurling of Crank
! Chamfering 2 5 10
6 × =6 6 10 15
378. In a shaper, let N be the rotational speed of the 3 5 15
bull gear and L be the length of the stroke, then 2 6 12
the time T for completing one stroke is given 6 × = 6 6 12 18
by: 3 6 18
2 7 14
2L L 6 × =6 6 14 21
(a) T = (b) T = 3 7 21
N 2N
2 9 18
L L 6 × =6 6 18 27
(c) T = (d) T = 2   3 9 27
N N 381. A 16 mm hole is to be drilled through a mild
1 L  steel plate of 25 mm thickness. The over-travel
(e) T =  
2 N  of the drill is 5 mm. What will be the drilling
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) time if the feed rate is 150 mm/min?
Ans. (c) : Time for completing one stroke (a) 0.2 min (b) 0.02 min
(c) 2.0 min (d) 2.2 min
L (e) 2.22 min
T=
N (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
745
Ans. (a) : Data given Ans. (c) : Form tool is used for producing turning
t = 25 mm internal tapers while compound rest at the required
Over-travel (x) = 5 mm angle or by offsetting the tail stock or by taper turning
f × N = 150 mm/min attachment this method is used for turning external
D = 16 mm tapers.
Then drilling time T = ? 386. Gang milling is
L ( t + x ) ( 25 + 5) (a) Process of cutting gears
T= e = = (b) Milling process for gearing hexagonal
f ×N f ×N 150
surfaces
T = 0.2 min (c) Process in which two or more cutters are used
382. The ______ operation is usually used to simultaneously
obtained smooth and close toleranced holes. (d) High speed milling
(a) Drilling (b) Tapping Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
(c) Boring (d) Countersinking Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
(e) Reaming Ans. (c) : It is an operation of producing many surfaces
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) of a work-pieces simultaneously by feeding the table
HPPSC AE 2018 against a number of required cutters. (Gang Milling).
Ans. (e) : Reaming–Reaming has been defined as a 387. If is number of strokes per minute, L is stroke
machining process that uses a multi-edged fluted cutting length is mm, C is cutting ratio (cutting
tool to smooth, enlarge or accurately size an existing time/total time) the cutting speed of shaper in
hole. Reaming is performed using the same types of meters/min is given by
machines as drilling. (a) NL/1000C (b) NLC/1000
Tapping–Tapping is the process of cutting a thread (c) 1000/NC (d) 1000 LC/N
inside a hole so that a cap screw or bolt can be threaded Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
into the hole. Also, it is used to make thread on nuts. NLC
Ans. (b) : Shaper, cutting speed (m/min) (V) =
Tapping can be done on the lathe by power feed or by 1000
hand. C = cutting ratio.
Countersinking–Countersinking is a process that 388. In centre less grinding the work piece advances
creates a V-shaped edge near the surface of the hole. It by
is often used to deburr a drilled or tapped hole, or to (a) Push given by operator
allow the head of a counter sunk-head screw to sit flush (b) Hydraulic force
or below a surface. (c) Force exerted by grinding wheel
383. ______ is not an abrasive used in grinding (d) Remains stationary
wheels. Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
(a) Aluminum oxide (b) Silicon carbide Ans. (c) : In centre less grinding the work piece
(c) Cubic boron nitride (d) Sodium silicate advances by the force exerted by grinding wheel.
(e) Diamond Grinding wheel are statationary wheel, which rotate on
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) a fixed axis, at high speed.
Ans. (d) : Aluminum oxide, silicon carbide, CBN and 389. In most high speed milling cutters positive
Diamond are used to an abrasive in grinding wheel radial rake angle is
whereas sodium silicate is not used as abrasive in (a) 10-15 degree (b) 15-25 degree
grinding wheel. (c) 25-35 degree (d) less than 50 degree
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
384. The binding material used in cemented carbide
Ans. (a) : For most of high speed cutters, positive radial
tools is rake angles of 10° to 15° are used. These angles are
(a) Nickel (b) Cobalt satisfactory for most materials and represent a
(c) Chromium (d) Carbon compromise between good shearing or cutting ability
Nagaland CTSE 2016, 2017 Ist Paper and strength.
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper -I 390. Size of a shaper is generally specified by
Ans. (b) : The binding material used in cemented (a) The area of machined surface per hour
carbide is cobalt. Cobalt acts as a binder & also reduces (b) Maximum travel of cutting tool
the brittleness of the carbides tool. In cemented carbide (c) Length, breadth and height of machine
composition are 82% tungsten carbide, 10% titanium (d) Quick return ratio
carbide and 8% cobalt. Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
385. Which one of the following methods be used for Ans. (b) : The size of a shaper is generally specified by
turning internal tapers only? the maximum travel of cutting tool.
(a) Compound rest (b) Tailstock offset 391. In order to lower the cutting forces and also to
(c) Form tool (d) Taper attachment decrease the cutting wear, alloying element
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper generally added to steel for free machining is
746
 (a) Manganese (b) Lead 398. Quick return mechanism is associated with
(c) Chromium (d) Aluminium (a) Lathe (b) Milling
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper (c) Shaping (d) None
Ans. (b) : In, order to lower the cutting forces and also to Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
decrease the cutting wear, alloying element (Lead) added Ans. (c) : Shaping
to steel for free machining and act as a solid lubricants. 399. When the dia of work piece changes from one
392. In a machine operation on free cutting mild end to the other, it is called
steel the cutting speed is mentioned as 70 (a) Straight turning (b) Taper turning
m/min. What should be material of cutting tool (c) Knurling (d) facing
(a) Carbon steel (b) High speed steel Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
(c) Carbide (d) Diamond Ans. (b) : When the diameter of work-piece changes
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper from one-end to the other, it is called taper turning.
Ans. (b) : For, cutting mild steel, in machining 400. Boring operation is used to
operation, the cutting tool of high speed steel material is (a) drill a hole
used for cutting, at speed 70 m/min (b) correct the hole
393. The maximum peripheral speed a grinding (c) enlarge the existing hole
wheel is limited by (d) finish a drilled hole
(a) The work material Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
(b) The diameter of the wheel Ans. (c) : Boring operation is used after the drilling take
(c) The drive limitations place it help to enlarge the existing hole by means of a
(d) The kind of bond used in the wheel single point cutting tool.
Nagaland CTSE 2016, 2017 Ist Paper 401. Reaming operation is used to
Ans. (d) : The maximum peripheral speed of a grinding (a) make a hole
wheel is limited by the kind of bond used in the wheel. (b) enhance the finish of a hole
394. On a triple thread screw (c) enlarge the hole
(a) Lead = Pitch (b) Lead = 3 Pitch (d) obtain correct diameter
(c) Lead = 1/3 Pitch (d) Lead = 9 Pitch Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper Ans. (c) : A reamer is a type of rotary cutting tool used
Ans. (b) : On a triple thread screw, lead is three times in metal working. Precision reamers are designed to
the pitch. enlarge the size of a previously formed hole by a small
Lead = 3 × pitch amount but with a high degree of accuracy, to leave
395. In centre less grinding the regulating wheel is smooth sides.
inclined at an angle 402. Standard taper generally used on milling
(a) 1–8° (b) 9–15° machine spindles is
(c) 15–18° (d) 12–24° (a) Morse (b) Brown and Sharpe
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper (c) Chapman (d) Seller's
Ans. (a) : In center less grinding, the regulating wheel SJVN ET 2013
is inclined at (1°–8°), creating a feed angle relative to Ans. (b) : Standard taper generally used on milling
the grinding wheel, this allow to perform the dual machine spindles is Brown and Sharpe.
purpose of rotating the work piece & driving the work 403. The usual ratio of forward and return stroke in
piece, across the face of the grinding wheel. shaper is–
396. Which machine can be used in for grinding the (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
ball bearing outer races (c) 2 : 3 (d) 3 : 2
(a) Cylindrical grinding machine Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
(b) Centre less grinding machine Ans. (d) : The usual ratio of forward & return stroke in
(c) Magnetic grinding machine shaper is 3:2
(d) Surface grinding machine 404. While machining a brass casting on a lathe, the
Nagaland CTSE 2016, 2017 Ist Paper type of chuck used is–
Ans. (b) : Center less grinding machines is used for (a) Collect chuck (b) Magnetic chuck
grinding the ball bearing outer races. Center less (c) Three jaw chuck (d) Four jaw chuck
grinding may be external or internal. Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
397. Which of the following is gear finishing Ans. (d) : Four jaw chuck used in machining a brass
process? casting on a lathe.
(a) Gear lapping (b) Gear shaving 405. Two 3 mm thick MS sheets are to be welded.
(c) Gear grinding (d) All of the above Electrodes of 16, 12, 10 Nos. are available
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper which one would you choose.
Ans. (d) : For gear finishing process :- gear lapping, (a) 16 (b) 12
gear shaving, gear grinding all are used for fine (c) 1 (d) Any of the above
finishing process. Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
747
Ans. (d) : Two 3 mm thick (MS) sheets are to be 411. Characteristic features of a universal
welded. cylindrical grinder not possessed by plain
Electrode of different size dia. as per different size cylindrical grinder are:
metal thickness. 1. Swiveling wheel head
Metal thickness (mm) Electrode (dia) 2. Swiveling wheel head slide
1.5-3 – 14 3. Swiveling head stock
3-6 – 12 4. Rotation of grinding wheel
6-10 – 10 (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
10-20 – 6 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
20-35 – 4 (e) 2 and 3
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
406. In machined components,
Ans. (b) : Characteristic features of a universal
(a) fiber lines are arranged in a predetermined
cylindrical grinder not possessed by plain cylindrical
way
grinder are
(b) fiber lines of rolled stock are broken
(i) Swiveling wheel head
(c) there are no fiber lines (ii) Swiveling wheel head slide
(d) fiber lines are scattered (iii) Swiveling wheel stock.
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
412. Standard taper generally used on milling
Ans. (b) : In machined component fiber lines of rolled machine spindles is
stock are broken. (a) Morse taper
407. Abrasive grain size of 10 on grinding wheel (b) Chapman taper
refers to : (c) Brown and sharp taper
(a) Fine grain wheel (d) Jamo and Reed taper
(b) Coarse grain wheel Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
(c) Medium grain wheel Ans. (c) : Standard milling machine taper is used on
(d) Very fine grain wheel most machines of recent manufacture & the taper which
SJVN ET 2019 used is brown and shaper taper.
Ans. (b) : Abrasive grain size of 10 on grinding wheel
refers to coarse grain wheel. 413. Tool-life criterion normally used is:
408. Which of the following is an artificial abrasive (a) Flank wear
used in grinding wheel? (b) Crater wear
(a) Sandstone (b) Corundum (c) Crater wear and flank wear
(c) Silicon carbide (d) Emery (d) Flank wear and nose radius
SJVN ET 2019 TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
Ans. (c) : Silicon carbide is an artificial abrasive used in Ans. (b) : Crater wear is used normally for tool life
grinding wheel. criterion.
409. Consider the units in following operations 414. The operation of cutting a work piece after it
1. turning-mm/rev 2. shaping-mm/stroke has been machined to the desired shape and
3. drilling-mm/rev 4. milling-mm/min size
(a) tapping (b) undercutting
Out of the above which are correct
(c) parting-off (d) counter boring
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
TNPSC AE 2018
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(e) 1 and 3 Ans. (c) : After parting-off, a work piece has been
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift machined to the desired shape and size.
Ans. (d) : 1, 2, 3 and 4. 415. Lapping is-
(a) the operation of sizing and finishing a small
410. Consider the following machines diameter hole by removing a very small
1. Shaping machine 2. Planing machine amount of material
3. Slotting machine (b) the operation of making a cone-shaped
Internal keyway in gears can be cut by which enlargement of the end of a hole
of the above (c) the operation of smoothing and squaring the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 surface around a hole
(c) 3 (d) 1 (d) the operation of enlarging the end of a hold
(e) 2 cylindrically
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (c) : Internal keyways usually require a slotted Ans. (a) : Lapping is the operation of sizing and
busing or horn to fit the hole, with the keyway broach finishing a small diameter hole by removing a very
pulled through the horn, guided by the slot. small amount of material.
748
416. Cutting tool is much harder than the work
piece. Yet the tool wears out during the tool-
work interaction, because
(a) extra hardness is imparted to the work piece
due to coolant used
(b) oxide layers formed on the work piece surface
impart extra hardness to it
(c) extra hardness is imparted to the work piece
due to severe rate of strain
(d) vibration is induced in the machine tool
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (d) : Due to extra hardness is imparted to the work
piece due to severe rate of strain, cutting tool which is
much harder than the work piece wears out during the
tool - work interaction.
417. The lead screw of a lathe with nut forms a
(a) sliding pair (b) rolling pair
(c) screw pair (d) turning pair
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (c) : The lead screw of a lathe with nut forms a
screw pair.
418. The pistons are usually given coating such as
tin plating in order to
(a) Reduce weight
(b) Reduce friction
(c) Reduce possibility of scoring
(d) Increase lubrication effect
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (c) : To reduce possibility of scoring, coating of
tin plating is done on piston.
419. Blade in the back saw cuts during the
(a) Forward stroke (b) Backstroke
(c) Both stroke (d) Pressure applied
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (a) : A backsaw is any hand saw which has a
stiffening rib on the edge opposite the cutting edge,
enabling better control and more precise cutting than
with other types of saws.
420. The productivity of honing operation is
(a) less than the productivity of lapping operation
(b) more than the productivity of lapping
operation
(c) equal to the productivity of lapping operation
for the same work piece
(d) unpredictable
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (b) : The productivity of honing operation is more
than the productivity of lapping operation.
421. Tungsten carbide tipped drill bits are used for
(a) slow drilling
(b) smooth surface
(c) drilling without coolant
(d) drilling on glass
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (d) : Tungsten carbide tipped drill bits are used for
drilling on glass.
422. Friction at the tool chip interface can be
reduced by
(a) Decreasing the rake angle
749
(b) Increasing the depth of cut
(c) Decreasing the cutting speed
(d) Increasing the cutting speed
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (d) : Friction at the tool chip interface can be
reduced by increasing the cutting speed.
423. The factor responsible for the formation of
discontinous chips is
(a) Low cutting speed and small rake
(b) High cutting speed and small rake angle
(c) High cutting speed and large rake angle
(d) Low cutting speed and large rake angle
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (a) : Discontinuous types of chips are formed
when hard and brittle metals like brass, bronze and cast
iron is machined.
Condition which one responsible for the
formation of discontinuous chips are :
1. Low feed rate.
2. Small rake angle of the tool.
3. High friction force at the chip tool interface.
4. Too much depth of cut.
424. Which of the following abrasive will be used for
grinding tool steel and high speed steel
(a) Diamond (b) SiC
(c) Al2O3 (d) Boron Carbide
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (c) : Al2O3 abrasive will be used for grinding tool
steel and high speed steel.
425. When the space between two consecutive
abrasive is less in griding upon machining
ductile materials, how chips weld these
abrasives and after some time wheel is rubbing
over work without cutting. This phenomenon is
called
(a) Glazing (b) Loading
(c) Dressing (d) Trueing
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (b) : In grinding process this phenomenon is called
"wheel loading" which can be defined as the state of a
grinding wheel when particles of a work-piece material
either adhere to the grits or become embedded in the
spaces between abrasive grains on grinding wheels.
426. Spinning operation is carried out on a
(a) Lathe machine (b) Milling machine
(c) Hydraulic press (d) Mechanical press
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (a) : Spinning operation is carried out on a lathe
machine.
427. In 4 high roll mill, the bigger rolls are called
(a) Back up rolls (b) Guide rolls
(c) Support rolls (d) Main rolls
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (a) : In 4 high roll mill, the bigger rolls are called
Back up rolls.
428. Point angle in drills are kept low for machining
ductile materials to take advantage of
(a) Thinner chips
(b) Thicker chips
 (c) Low head developed (c) the process of disposing the grinding wheel as
(d) Lesser cutting forces it no longer useful
TSPSC AEE 2015 (d) the process of adding excess abrasive grains
Ans. (a) : For thinner chips, point angle in drills are on the grinding wheel
kept low for machining of ductile materials. TNPSC 2019
429. Very accurate screw threads can be Ans. (b) : Dressing is the process of removing the metal
manufactured by loading and breaking away the glazed surface of the
(a) milling (b) grinding grinding wheel.
(c) rolling (d) chasing 435. Hobbing process is not suitable for cutting
TSPSC AEE 2015 following type of gear
Ans. (b) : With the help of grinding, very accurate (a) Spur (b) Helical
screw threads can be manufactured. (c) worm (d) Bevel
430. When machining parameters are kept constant, Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
tool life will be less in Ans. (d) :
(a) down milling (b) up milling Hobbing process– Hobbing process is carried out on
(c) face milling (d) end milling gear hobbing machine using hob as tool.
TSPSC AEE 2015 –Hob is a cylinder on the surface of which a continuous
Ans. (b) : In up-milling tool life will be less. thread has been cut having the cross section of involute
431. What is the purpose of inscribing the gear teeth.
concentric circles on the face of the chuck in So, hobbing process is not suitable for cutting bevel
lathe type of gear.
(a) To improve the appearance 436. Gear hobbing process is faster than milling
(b) To facilitate lubrication in the chuck because
(c) To minimize the weight of the chuck (a) Indexing time is less
(d) To facilitate quick centering of work pieces (b) Hob rotates faster
TNPSC 2019 (c) Work rotates faster
Ans. (d) : To facilitate quick centering of work pieces (d) Several teeth cut a time
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
432. A steel shaft of 25 mm diameter is turned at a
cutting speed of 50 m/min. Find the RPM of the Ans. (d) : Gear hobbing process is faster than milling
shaft. because several teeth cut a time.
(a) 637 (b) 159 437. Gear shaper can be used to cut following types
(c) 6280 (d) 1570 of gear
TNPSC 2019 (a) Internal (b) External
Ans. (a) : Data given- (c) Accurate (d) All of the above
D = 25 mm, V = 50 m/min Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
We know that Ans. (d) : Gear shaping- is similar to the rack type
cutting process, excepting that, the linear type rack
πDN
V= cutter is replaced by a circular cutter.
1000 –This process is suitable for cutting various type of gear
3.14 × 25 × N like spur, herringbone, sprockets, internal gears and
50 = cluster gears etc.
1000
N = 636.94 ≃ 637 ( RPM ) 438. A block of length 200 mm is machined by a slab
milling cutter 34 mm in diameter. The depth of
433. Process of shaping thin metal sheets by cut and table feed are set at 2 mm and
processing them against a form tool is called 18 mm/minute, respectively. Considering the
(a) Upsetting (b) Spinning approach and the over travel of the cutter to be
(c) Reaming (d) Deep drawing same, the minimum estimated machining time
TNPSC 2019
(minutes) per pass is
Ans. (b) : Metal spinning, also known as spin forming (a) 12 (b) 10
or spinning or metal turning most commonly, is a metal (c) 11 (d) 15
working process by which a disc or tube of metal is RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
rotated at high speed and formed into an axially
Ans. (c) : Compulsory approch in slab milling-
symmetric part. Spinning can be performed by hand or
by a CNC Lathe. x = (D − d)d
434. Dressing is = (34 − 2) × 2 = 8
(a) the process of changing the shape of the
grinding wheel L+ x (200 + 8)
tm = = = 11.55
(b) the process of removing the metal loading and fN 18 ×1
breaking away the glazed surface of the t m = 11 minutes
grinding wheel
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439. The abrasive slurry used in ultra-sonic
machining contains fine particles of :
(a) Aluminum Oxide (b) Boron Carbide
(c) Silicon Carbide (d) All of these
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
Ans. (d) : The abrasive slurry used in ultra-sonic
machining contains fine particles of Aluminum Oxide,
Boron Carbide, Silicon Carbide.
! Aluminum oxide
! Boron carbide
! Silicon carbide
440. Any number of equal divisions on the
periphery of a circle can be obtained on a
milling machine by
(a) direct indexing
(b) simple indexing
(c) compound indexing
(d) differential indexing
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
Ans : (b) : simple indexing
441. In centreless grinding work piece, centre will
be
(a) above the line joining the two-wheel centres
(b) below the line joining the two-wheel centres
(c) on the line joining the two-wheel centres
(d) at the intersection of the line joining the
wheel centres with the plane of the workpiece
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
Ans : (a) : Centreless grinding- The centreless
grinding is the process of grinding the diameter of a
workpiece not mounted on centres or otherwise held.
The centreless grinding may be external or internal. In
centreless grinding workpiece, centre will be above the
line joining the two-wheel centres.
442. Internal gears can be made by
(a) hobbing
(b) shaping with pinion cutter
(c) shaping with rack cutter
(d) milling
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans : (b : Internal gears can be made by shaping with
pinion cutter.
443. It is desired to perform the operations like
drilling, reaming, counterboring etc. on a
work-piece. Which of the following machines
will be used?
(a) Sensitive drilling machine
(b) Radial drilling machine
(c) Gang drilling machine
(d) Multiple spindle drilling machine
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (c) : When a number of single spindle drilling
machine columns are placed side by side on a common
base and have common worktable, the machine is
known as the gang drilling machine.
It is desired to perform the operations like drilling,
reaming, counter boring, etc. on a work-piece.
751
444. The correct sequence of tool materials in
increasing order of their ability to retain their
hot hardness is
(a) carbide, ceramic, cermet, borazon
(b) ceramic, carbide, borazon, cermet
(c) cermet, carbide, ceramic, borazon
(d) borazon, ceramic, carbide, cermet
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
Ans : (c) : The correct sequence of tool materials in
increasing order is-
cermet, carbide, ceramic, borazon
445. The cutting speed of a tool is
(a) directly proportional to the diameter being out
(b) inversely proportional to the diameter being
cut
(c) directly proportional to the square of the
diameter being cut
(d) independent of the diameter being cut
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
πDN
Ans : (a) : cutting speed ( v c ) =
1000
Cutting speed of a tool is directly proportional to the
diameter being
446. The most common type of drill is
(a) Step drill (b) Twist drill
(c) Spot drill (d) Spade drill
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
Ans : (b) : It is an end cutting tool with two, three or
four cutting lips. It has a cylindrical body on which the
groove are cuts. These grooves are called flutes while
drilling, the drill is held by a shank.
447. Which of the following processes results in the
best accuracy of the hole made?
(a) Reaming (b) Tapping
(c) Broaching (d) Boring
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
Ans : (a) : Reaming- It is an operation of slightly
enlarging a machined hole to proper size with a smooth
finish.
448. Which of the following grinding processes is
used for high production run?
(a) Surface grinding (b) Cylindrical grinding
(c) Centreless grinding (d) Internal grinding
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
Ans : (a) : Surface grinding is used to produce that
surface in a horizontal position.
449. Which of the following operations is also
known as internal turning?
(a) Milling (b) Facing
(c) Tapping (d) Boring
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
Ans : (d) : Boring is also known as internal turning.
450. The correct sequence of operations for hole
making is
(a) centering, boring, drilling, reaming
(b) centering, drilling, boring, reaming
(c) reaming, drilling, boring, centering
(d) boring, drilling, reaming, centering
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
Ans : (b) : The correct sequence of operations for hole 456. Abrasive are not used in :
making is- (a) Buffering process
• Centering, drilling, boring, reaming. (b) Burnishing process
451. The correct sequence of operations for making (c) Polishing process
alloy steel gears is (d) Super finishing process
(a) turning, hobbing, heat treatment, shaving OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
(b) heat treatment, turning, hobbing, shaving Ans : (b) : In burnishing process, the jig-jag edges of
(c) shaving, turning, hobbing, heat treatment material gets converted into straight and smooth edges,
(d) turning, hobbing, shaving, heat treatment which is not required any of abrasive. So, abrasives are
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI not used in burnishing process.
Ans : (d) : The correct sequence of operations for 457. A milling cutter is having 8 teeth rotating at
making alloy steel gears is 100 rpm. Workpiece feed is set at 40 mm/min.
• Turning, hobbing, shaving, heat treatment. So feed per tooth is :
(a) 5 mm (b) 0.05 mm
452. The correct sequence in increasing hardness of (c) 0.4 mm (d) 0.2 mm
tool materials is OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
(a) HSS, tungsten carbide, cubic boron nitride,
diamond Ans : (b) :
(b) HSS, cubic boron nitride, tungsten carbide, Number of teeth (Z) = 8
diamond Speed (N) = 150 rpm
(c) cubic boron nitride, HSS, tungsten carbide, Workpiece feed f = 40 mm/min
diamond, Feed per tooth ft =?
(d) tungsten carbide, cubic boron nitride, HSS, Workpiece feed (f) = ftZN
diamond 40 = ft × 8 × 100
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI ft = 0.05 mm
Ans : (a) : HSS, tungsten carbide, cubic boron nitride, 458. In HSS, tungsten can be substitute by :
diamond (a) Chromium (b) Nickel
(c) Molybdenum (d) Cobalt
453. Which of the following is not the function of a OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
cutting fluid?
(a) Removal of heat Ans : (c): In HSS, tungsten can be subsite by
(b) Lubrication molybdenum.
(c) Protection against corrosion 459. Cutting speeds for Turning with HSS on cast
(d) Abrasion of workpiece iron is about
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI (a) 20 m/min (b) 30 m/min
(c) 35 m/min (d) 15 m/min
Ans : (d) : Function of cutting fluid:
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
• Cooling of the job and the tool.
Ans : (a) : Cutting speeds for turning with HSS on cast
• Lubrication at the chip-tool interface.
iron is about 20 m/min.
• Cleaning the machining zone by washing away the
chip particles and debris. 460. Which of the following is a chipless machining
process?
• Protection of the nascent finished surface.
(a) Metal spinning (b) Knurling
454. A built up edge is formed white machining : (c) Hobbing (d) Lapping
(a) Ductile material at high speed Gujarat PSC AE 2019
(b) Ductile material at low speed Ans : (a) : Metal spinning also known as spin forming
(c) Brittle material at high speed or spinning or metal turning most commonly, is a metal
(d) Brittle material at low speed working process by which a disc or tube of metal is
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I rotated at high speed and formed into an axially
Ans : (b) : Chips with built-up edge- symmetric part. Spinning can be performed by hand or
! Ductile materials by a CNC lathe.
! Low speed 461. The recommended average cutting speed in
! High feed meters per minute for HSS tool for cutting mild
! High depth of cut steel is
455. Trepanning is performed for : (a) 15 (b) 30
(a) Finishing a hole (c) 60 (d) 90
(b) Producing large hole without drilling TNPSC AE 2014
(c) Enlarging hole Ans. (b) :
(d) Threading Material speed (m/min)
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I Diamond 200 - 2000
Ans : (b) : Trepanning is performed for producing large CBN 30 - 310
hole without drilling. They are used just for through Ceramic 150 - 650
holes, not for blind holes. Mainly used in making gun Carbides 30 - 150
barrels. High speed steel 10 - 60
752
462. Cutting tool material 18 - 4 - 1 HSS has which Ans : (b) A lathe with four steps on the cone pulley and
one of the following compositions? with back gears will have four direct and four indirect
(a) 18% W, 4% Cr, 1% V speed.
(b) 18% Cr, 4% W, 1% V
(c) 18% W, 4% Ni, 1% V
(d) 18% Cr, 4% Ni, 1% V
RPSC AE 2018
UJVNL AE 2016
Ans. (a) : High speed steel is a subset of tool steels,
commonly used as cutting tool material.
18 - 4 - 1 (HSS)
18% - Tungsten (W)
4% - Chromium (Cr)
1% - Vanadium (V)
High speed steel properties and applications—The
well balanced composition produce both excellent
toughness and cutting power and makes this economical
molybdenum high speed steel a standard grade for all 465. A step cone pulley is provided on a lathe to
types or roughness and finishing tools, as well as for all (a) reverse the direction of spindle rotation
tools demanding a high degree of toughness. (b) change the spindle speed
463. Choose the correct order of tool materials (c) drive the lead screw
arranged, according to the decreasing order of (d) give desired direction of movement of lathe
their hot hardness. carriage
(a) Ceramics, Cermets, Tungsten Carbide, HSS (KPSC AE 2015)
(b) Cermets, Ceramics, Tungsten Carbide, HSS Ans : (b) A step cone pulley is provided on a lathe to
(c) Tungsten Carbide, Ceramics, Cermets, HSS change the spindle speed.
(d) Cermets, Tungsten Carbide, Ceramics, HSS
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (a) : The correct order of decreasing hot hardness
is Ceramics, Cermets, Tungsten Carbide and HSS.
Ceramics are essentially alumina based high
refractory materials introduced specifically for high
speed machining of difficult to machine materials and
cast iron. These can withstand very high temperatures,
are chemically more stable, and have higher wear
resistance than the other cutting tool materials.
Cermets are aluminium oxide based material
containing titanium carbide, titanium nitride and 466. In centre less grinding the work piece advances
titanium carbo nitride. Cermets have higher hot by–
hardness and higher oxidation resistance over cemented (a) Push given by operator
carbides. (b) Hydraulic force
Carbides, which are nonferrous alloys, are also (c) Force exerted by grinding wheel
called, sintered (or cemented ) carbides because they are (d) Remains stationary
manufactured by powder metallurgy techniques. These Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
tool materials are much harder, are chemically more Ans. (c) : In center grinding the work piece advanced
stable, have better hot hardness, high stiffness, and by force exerted by regulating wheel.
lower friction, and operate at higher cutting speeds than 467. Determine the time that will be required to
do HSS. drill a blind hole of diameter 25 mm and depth
464. A lathe with four steps on the cone pulley and 40 mm in a mild steel solid block by a HSS drill
with back gears will have of 118º cone angle. The value of Vc = 25 m/min
(a) four direct speeds and So = 0.16 mm/rev.
(b) four direct and four indirect speeds (a) 1.0 minutes (b) 2.0 minutes
(c) four indirect speeds (c) 1.5 minutes (d) 2.5 minutes
(d) eight indirect speeds (e) 3 minutes
TSPSC AEE 2015 CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
753
Ans. (a) : diameter (d) = 25 mm Ans. (a) : Feed rate in centre-less grinding is given by
depth (T) = 40 mm f = πDN sinα
cone angle (α) = 118º f∝D
velocity (vc) = 25 m/min = 25000 mm/min f∝N
feed (So) = 0.16 mm/rev Where D = diameter of regulating wheel
N = Speed of regulating wheel
472. The metal in machining operation is removed
by :
(a) Tearing chips
(b) Distortion of metal
(c) Shearing the metal across a zone
(d) Cutting the metal across a zone
vc = πdN
(HPPSC AE 2014)
25000 = 3.14 × 25 × N
N = 318.47 rpm Ans : (c) The metal in machining operation is removed
by shearing the metal across a zone.
d 25 To remove metal by machining the tool first penetrate
x= = = 7.51mm
θ  2 tan(59º ) the surface once the tool has penetrated the surface, the
2 tan  
2 chip formed should readily break. The ideal method of
breaking the chip is to provide a built in breaker. It is
T+x wrong to assume that because a metal is soft it is easy to
Time (Tm) = × (No. of holes)
so N machine. In steel a completely spheroidized structure is
40 + 7.51 considered to be easiest to machine.
= = 0.93min ≃ 1min 473. Feed rate in milling operation is equal to :
0.16×318.47 (a) RPM
468. Which of the following method cannot be used (b) RPM × No. of teeth
for manufacturing internal gears? (c) RPM × Feed per tooth × No. of teeth
(a) Casting (b) Die casting (d) None of the above
(c) Broaching (d) Hobbing (HPPSC AE 2014)
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper Ans : (c) Feed rate in milling operation is equal to RPM
Ans. (d) : Hobbing method here not used for Feed per tooth × no. of teeth
manufacturing internal gear cutter speed
469. HSS has the property to– (i) RPM of cutter =
πD
(a) withstand high temperature
(b) provide lubrication by itself (ii) Feed/min = feed/teeth × no. of teeth × RPM
(c) become hard during machining length
(iii) Time for milling =
(d) reduce impact of the tool feed / mt
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper (iv) feed rate = RPM × feed per tooth × No of teeth.
Ans. (d) : HSS has the property to reduce impact of the 474. Machinability depends on :
tool. (a) microstructure, physical and mechanical
470. A work piece of 100 mm diameter is to be properties and composition of workpiece
machined at a cutting speed of 1000 meters per material
minute. The rpm of the work piece should be– (b) cutting forces
(a) 1000 (b) 1590 (c) type of chip
(c) 2000 (d) 3183 (d) tool life
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper (HPPSC AE 2014)
Ans. (d) : Given,
Ans : (a) Factor affecting the machinability
D = 100 mm, V = 1000 m/min, N=?
(i) The type of work - piece
1000 × V 1000 × 1000 (ii) Type of tool material
N= = = 3183.00
π×D π × 100 (iii) Size and shape of tool
471. Consider just only the following parameters: (iv) Size, shape and velocity of cut
1. Grinding wheel diameter (v) Type and quality of machine used
2. Regulating wheel diameter (v) co efficient of friction between chip and tool
3. Speed of grinding wheel (vi) Shearing strength of work-piece material
4. Speed of regulating wheel 475. Time taken to drill a hole through a 25 mm
Which of the above parameters will influence thick plate at 300 r.p.m. at a feed rate of
the axial feed rate in centre-less grinding? 0.25mm/revolution will be :
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (a) 10 sec (b) 20 sec
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 (c) 40 sec (d) 50 sec
ESE 2017 (HPPSC AE 2014)
754
 Ans : (d) The bond holds the cutting points or abrasive
Ans : (b) Time take in Drilling = lenght of drilled hole
rpm × Feed / revolution in place defined by the grade.
Grade of a grinding wheel: The grade of a wheel
25 indicates the strength of the grains, and the holding
T=
300 power of the bond. It is usually referred to as hardness
× 0.25
60 of the wheel. The thickness of the bonding layer holding
25 × 60 abrasive Controls the grade of the grinding wheel. Hard
T= wheel is used for precision grinding.
300 × 0.25
Very Soft - A to G
T = 20 sec.
Soft - H to K
476. A mild steel rod having 50mm diameter and Medium - L to O
500 mm length is to be turned on a lathe. hard - P to S
Determine the machining line to reduce the rod Very hard - T to Z
to 45mm in one pass when cutting speed is
480. Which of the following is not part of Capstan
30m/min and a feed of 0.7 mm/rev is used :
lathe ?
(a) 1.74 min (b) 2.74 min
(a) chuck (b) tailstock
(c) 3.74 min (d) 4.74 min
(c) spindle (d) tool post
(KPSC AE. 2015)
(KPSC AE. 2015)
Ans : (c) Given data :
Ans : (b) Principal parts of Capstan lathe
Rod diameter = 50 mm
(i) Head stock
length = 500 mm
(ii) Cross Slide and tool post
Cutting speed = 30 m/min
(iii) Hexagonal turret
feed = 0.7 mm/rev.
(iv) Saddle for Cross slide
L (v) Saddle for auxiliary Slide
Time for machining (t) =
f ×N (vi) Lathe bed.
V × 1000 30 × 1000 481. When the tool moves parallel to the lathe axis,
N= = it is called:
π ×D 3.14 × 50 (a) Cross feed
N = 191 rpm (b) Sellar's taper
then, (c) Chapman's taper
500 (d) Brown and Sharpe taper
t= OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
0.7 ×191
t = 3.738 min Ans : (b) When the tool moves parallel to the lathe axis,
it is called Sellar's taper.
477. For producing more accurate holes, the
482. In order to grind soft material:
sequence of operations to be followed is : (a) Fine grained grinding wheel is used
(a) centering, drilling, boring , reaming (b) Medium grained grinding wheel is used
(b) centering, boring , drilling, reaming (c) Coarse grained grinding wheel is used
(c) drilling, centering, boring , reaming (d) None of these
(d) drilling, reaming, boring, centering, OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
(KPSC AE. 2015) Ans : (c) The hardness of a grinding wheel is specified
Ans : (a) For producing more accurate holes, the by a letter of alphabet. The alphabets A to H are soft
sequence of operations to be followed is centering, grades. I to P are medium grades and Q to Z are hard
drilling, boring , reaming grades. The soft grade grinding wheels are used for
478. The angle which is found between the face of grinding hard materials and hard grade grinding wheels
the cutting tool and the normal to the for softer materials. A soft grade grinding wheel is one
machined surface at the cutting edge is called: in which the abrasive grains can be easily dislodged and
(a) rake angle (b) relief angle in hard grade grinding wheel, the abrasive grains are
(c) clearance angle (d) cutting angle held more securely.
(KPSC AE. 2015) 483. A mandrel is used to hold:
Ans : (a) Angle between the face of the cutting tool and (a) An eccentric work (b) A heavy work
the normal to the machined surface at the cutting edge is (c) A thin work (d) None of these
called rake angle. OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
479. The hardness with which the bond holds the Ans : (a) A mandrel is used to hold an eccentric work.
cutting points or abrasives in place defined by Mandrel : It is a hardened piece of round bar with
the term : centers and flats at each end. It is used for holding and
(a) structure (b) grit size obtaining a hollow piece of work that has been
(c) grain size (d) grade previously drilled or bored. It is held between two
(KPSC AE. 2015) centers and should be true with accurate centre holes for
755
machining outer surface of the work piece. It is made of
high carbon steel to avoid distortion and wear. It is used
for holding the bored jobs (gear blank, Pulleys or tubes)
on a lathe for the purpose of turning outside surface of
the jobs.
484. The size of a lathe is expressed by
(a) diameter of chuck
(b) maximum speed of chuck
(c) swing of lathe
(d) height of centers from ground
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (c) Specification of a lathe:-
A lathe is generally designated by
(i) Swing, i.e the largest work diameter that can be
swiung over the lathe bed.
(ii) Distance between head stock and tail stock centre.
Some manufactures designate the lathes by the swing
and length of the bed.
Bar automatic lathes are specified by the maximum
diameter of the bar which can be accommodated.
485. A sprue hole is
(a) an eccentric hole
(b) a blind hole
(c) an opening is a mould into which molten
metal is poured
(d) a thorough hole drilling through two mating
parts
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (c) A sprue hole is an opening in a mould into
which molten metal is poured.
The sprue cross-section may be circular, square or
rectangular. The size of the sprue usually varies from 10
mm square for small casting to about 20mm square for
heavy casting. The size of the sprue should be so
enough that it is kept full during the entire pouring
operation, and the metal does not enter the mould cavity
with high velocity causing splattering and turbulence.
486. Power is transmitted by lead screw to carriage
through
(a) gear system
(b) pulley drive
(c) rack and pinion arrangement
(d) half nut
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (d) Power is transmitted by lead screw to carriage
through half nut. The apron is fitted to the front position
of the saddle facing the operator. It consists of a hand
wheel for saddle movement, pinion to engage with the
rack for saddle movement, a lever to engage the
automatic feed for the saddle automatic feed clutches,
split nut (half nut) and lead screw.
487. Which method is used for turning external
tapers only?
(a) compound rest (b) tailstock offset
(c) taper attachment (d) reamer
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (c) Taper attachment method is used for turning
external tapers only.
Taper Turning Attachment:-This attachment is
confined to give external tapers only. It is bolted on the
756
back of the lathe and has a guide bar which may be set
at the desired angle of taper. As the carriage moves
along the bed length, a slide over the bar causes the tool
to move in and out according to the setting of the bar,
i.e., the taper setting of the bar is duplicated on the
work. The main advantage of this system is that the
lathe centres are kept in alignment, and the same taper
may be turned on various pieces, even though they vary
in length.
488. A mandrel is
(a) a slightly tapered hardened steel shaft that
supports works which cannot be otherwise
(b) a tapered gauge used for inspection of
tapered holes
(c) auxiliary chuck used on lathe for holding
small loads
(d) is used in lathe work to castings
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (c) Mandrel:- Mandrel is used for holding and
obtaining a hollow piece of work that has been
previously drilled or bored It is made of high carbon
steel to avoid distortion and wear. It is tapered about 0.5
mm parameter.
489. Knurling is an operation
(a) of cutting smooth collars
(b) of under cutting
(c) of generally roughing the surface for hand
grip
(d) done prior to screw cutting
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (c) Knurling is an operation of generally roughing
the surface for hand grip
Knurling:- It is the process of embossing a diamond
shaped regular pattern on the surface of a work piece
using a special knurling tool. This tool consists of a set
of hardened steel rollers in a holder with the teeth cut on
their surface in a definite pattern.
490. The operation performed on a shaper is
(a) machining horizontal surface
(b) machining vertical surface
(c) machining angular surface
(d) All of these
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (d) The operation performed on a shaper is
(i) machining horizontal surface
(ii) machining vertical surface
(iii) machining angular surface.
491. The method of grinding used to produce a
straight of tapered surface on a work-piece is
(a) internal cylindrical grinding
(b) form grinding
(c) external cylindrical grinding
(d) surface grinding
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (c) The method of grinding used to produced a
straight or tapered surface on a work-piece is external
cylindrical grinding.
 Ans. (d) : Hobbing is a machining for gear cutting,
cutting splines, and cutting sprockets on a hobbing
machine, which is a special type of milling machine.
Hobbing method is not used for manufacturing internal
gears.
497. Which of the following is not a fine finishing
operation?
(a) Tumbling (b) Grinding
492. The process of removing metal by a cutter (c) Honing (d) Lapping
which is rotating in the same direction of travel Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
of work-piece is called Ans. (a) : Tumbling is not a fine finishing operation
(a) up milling (b) down milling
process it is only smoothen & polishing the small object
(c) face milling (d) end milling in large quantity.
TSPSC AEE 2015
498. Which of the following is not the assumption in
Ans : (b) The process of removing metal by a cutter
Merchant’s theory :-
which is rotating in the same direction of travel of
(a) Tool is perfectly sharp
work-piece is called down milling.
(b) Shear is occurring on a plane
(c) Uncut chip thickness is constant
(d) A continuous chip with built up edge (BUE)
is produced
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
Ans. (d) : A continuous chip with built up edge (BUE)
is produced, not a assumption in merchant's theory.
499. In machining processes, the percentage of heat
generated in shear action is carried away by
the chips to the extent of:-
(a) 10% (b) 25%
493. A broach has the following teeth:
(a) Rough teeth (b) Semi-finishing teeth (c) 50% (d) 90%
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
(c) Finishing teeth (d) All of the above
TSPSC AEE 2015 Ans. (d) : 90%
Ans : (d) A broach has:- 500. Which of the following are the reasons for
(i) Rough teeth reduction of tool life in a machining operation ?
(ii) Semi- finishing teeth 1. Temperature rise of cutting edge.
(iii) Finishing teeth. 2. Chipping of tool edge due to mechanical
Broaching is a method of removing metal by a tool that impact.
has successively higher cutting edges in a fixed path. 3. Gradual wear at tool point.
Each tooth removes a predetermined amount of 4. Increase in feed of cut at constant cutting
material. force
494. The broaching operation in which either the Select the answer from the following :
work or tool moves across the other is known (a) 1, 2 & 4 (b) 1, 2 & 3
as (c) 1, 3 & 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
(a) pull broaching (b) push broaching UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(c) surface broaching (d) continuous broaching Ans. (b) : 1, 2 & 3
TSPSC AEE 2015 501. With high speed steel tools, the maximum safe
Ans : (c) The broaching operation in which either the operating temperature is of the order of
work or tool moves across the other is known as surface (a) 200ºC (b) 540ºC
broaching (c) 760ºC (d) 870ºC
495. The surface roughness value for drilling UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
process is Ans. (b) : 540ºC
(a) 0.4 to 3.2 microns (b) 1.6 to 20 microns
(c) 0.063 to 5 microns (d) 0.8 to 6.3 microns 502. While machining a brass casting on a lathe, the
TSPSC AEE 2015 type of chuck used is
(a) Collect chuck (b) Magnetic chuck
Ans : (b) The surface roughness value for drilling
process is 1.6 to 20 microns. (c) Three jaw chuck (d) Four jaw chuck
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
496. Which of the following method cannot be used
for manufacturing internal gears? Ans. (d) : While machining a brass casting on a lathe
(a) Casting (b) Die casting four jaw chuck is used. Four jaw chuck is known as
(c) Broaching (d) Hobbing independent chuck. Chuck used in lathes for holding &
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper rotating the work-piece.
757
503. Consider the following statements about 6000
desirability of High velocity in grinding Ans : (b) V = mm / sec
60
because of
1. To reduce force per grit let length = 900 mm
2. To increase overall grinding force width = 600 mm
3. To offset effect of high negative rake angle ∵ feed = 2mm/stroke
4. To decrease overall grinding force width 600
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 ∴ total number of stroke = = = 300
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 feed 2
(e) 1, 2 and 3 required time for one stroke = cutting time + return time
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift  900 + 150  1  900 + 150 
= +  
Ans. (d) : Desirability of high velocity in grinding  100  4  100 
because, it is desired to offset the adverse effect of very (10.5 + 2.625) sec = 13.125 sec
high negative rake angle of the working grit, to reduce = 300× 13.125 sec
the force per grit as well as the overall grinding force. ∴ totel time required = number of stroke × time return
504. The different speeds on a lathe are provided in: stroke
(a) Arithmetic progression = 300 × 13.125 sec = 3937.5 sec or 65.625 minutes
(b) Binary numbers Ans is near about 60 mintues.
(c) geometric progression
508. In which milling operation, the cutting force
(d) None of these
tends to lift the work piece?
(HPPSC LECT. 2016)
(a) Climb (b) Down
Ans : (c) (i) The different speed on a lathe are provided
(c) Conventional (d) Face
in geometric progression.
(ii) A feed gear box for a screw cutting lathe is designed HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
on the basis of geometric progression. Ans : (c) Conventional milling (Up milling) and climb
505. High speed steel contains carbon milling (down milling) are two distinct ways to cut
(a) 0.15 to 0.3% (b) 0.6 to 1.0% material.
(c) 4 to 6% (d) 6 to 10% The difference between these two techniques is the
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I relationship of the rotation of the cutter to the direction
Ans : (b) High Speed Steel (HSS) of feed. In conventional milling, the cutter rotates
* Speed range 30–15 m/min against the direction of the feed so the cutting force
* Temperature–6500C tends to lift the workpiece.
* Toughness of HSS is highest among all cutting tool 509. Which of the following operation is required
materials. for making a chamfer on the edge of a hole?
* The rake angle required for machining aluminum by (a) Spot facing (b) Countersinking
carbides tool is 150 (c) Counter boring (d) Reaming
506. Milling cutter is mounted on the part of a HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
milling machine called Ans : (b) Countersinking operation is required for
(a) Dividing head (b) Spindle making a chamfer on the edge of a hole.
(c) Bracket (d) Arbor
UJVNL AE 2016
TNPSC AE 2013
(KPSC AE 2015)
Ans : (d) Milling cutter is mounted on the part of a
milling machine called arbor.
Arbor:- The arbor is an accurately machined shaft for
holding and driving the arbor type cutter. It is tapered at
one end to fit the spindle nose and has two slots to fit
the nose keys for locating and driving it.
507. A plate of 600 × 900 mm is to be machined on a
shaper. Cutting speed is 6 m/min, return time 510. Which one of the following methods is used for
to cutting time ratio is 1 : 4 and the feed is 2 turning internal tapers only?
mm/stroke. Clearance at each end is 75 mm. (a) Compound rest (b) Tailstock offset
The time required in minutes on shaper to (c) Form tool (d) Taper attachment
complete one cut would be :
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
(a) 45 (b) 60
(c) 80 (d) 90 Ans. (b) : Tailstock offset method is used for turning
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 internal tapes only.
758
511. The time taken to face a work piece of 80 mm 515. The primary share zone during metal
diameter for the spindle speed of 90 rpm and machining lies between the :
cross feed of 0.3 mm/rev will be (a) cutting tool & metal dust
(a) 4.12 min (b) 3.24 min (b) cutting tool & metal work piece
(c) 2.36 min (d) 1.48 min (c) metal chip & cutting tool
ESE 2020 (d) metal work piece & metal chip
Ans. (d) : Given, BHEL ET 2019
d = 80 mm Ans. (d) :
N = 90 rpm
• Primary shear zone during metal cutting machining
f = 0.3 mm /rev
L = d/2 lies between metal workpiece and metal cutting
chip.
L
Tm = • Secondary shear zone during metal cutting lies
fN between cutting tool and chip. Secondary shear
80 zone exerted due to friction between cutting tool
L= = 40 mm
2 and cutting chip.
40 516. Which material removed process is also known
Tm =
90 × 0.3 as advanced material removal process?
Tm= 1.48 min (a) Bulk-machining process
512. A feed f for the lathe operation is (b) Primitive casting process
N L (c) Traditional
(a) mm / rev (b) mm / rev (d) Non-traditional
L × Tm N × Tm BHEL ET 2019
Tm T ×L Ans. (d) : Non-traditional.
(c) mm / rev (d) m mm / rev
N×L N 517. The manufacture has marking on a grinding
Where : Tm = Machining time t in min. wheel as 'A 36 L 5 V'. The code 'V' represents
N = Speed in rpm the :
L = Length of cut in mm (a) grade (b) structure
ESE 2020 (c) abrasive particle size (d) bond
L BHEL ET 2019
Ans. (b) : Machining time, Tm =
fN Ans. (d) : Grinding wheel designation
Where, L = length of cut A 36 L 5 V
f = feed A - Abrasine (Alphabet)
N = rpm 36 - grain size (Numerical)
L L - Grade / Hardness (Alphabet)
f= 5 - Structure (Numerical)
N × Tm
V - Bond (Alphabet)
513. The main advantage of the radial drilling 518. A copper bar of diameter 200 mm is turned
machine is that with a feed rate of 0.25 mm/rev with depth of
(a) It is very compatible and handy for machining cut of 4 mm. Spindle speed is 160 rpm. The
(b) It is accurate, economical, portable and least
material removal rate (MRR) in mm3/s is:
time consuming while machining
(c) Heavy workpieces can be machined in any (a) 150 (b) 167.55
position without moving them (c) 1500 (d) 1675.5
(d) Small workpieces can be machined and it can BHEL ET 2019
be used for mass production as well Ans. (d) : diameter d = 200 mm
ESE 2020 feed rate = 0.25 mm/rev
Ans. (c) : Heavy workpieces can be machined in any depth of cut = 4 mm
position without moving them. spindle speed = 160 rpm
514. Lathe machine cannot carry out: v = πDN mm/min
(a) facing (b) planning v = π × 200 × 160
(c) turning (d) drilling = 100530.9649 mm/min
BHEL ET 2019 Material removal rate (MRR) = fdv mm/min
Ans. (b) : Lathe machine operation– 0.25 × 4 × 100530.9649
• Facing =
• Planning 60
• Contour turning = 1675.516 mm/sec.
• Chamfering 519. In a shaping process, the cutting velocity is
• From turning provided to
• Threading (a) neither work piece nor cutting tool
• Drilling (b) work piece and cutting tool
• Planning (c) cutting tool
759
 (d) work piece Ans. (b) : Data given-
BHEL ET 2019 d = 10 mm, t = 3 mm
Ans. (c) : Shaping process - Shaping is defined as a τ = 420 MPa
process for removing metal surfaces in horizontal, We know that
vertical and angular planes by the use of a single point Punching force F
cutting tool held on the ram and reciprocates the tool. = πdt × τs
Operations of shaper– The shaper is a machine tool = 3.14 × 10 × 3 × 420
used primarily for making slots, grooves and keyways. = 39.564 kN
524. Rotary swaging is the operation
5. Metal forming Processes (a) employed to expand a turbular or cylindrical
(b) part to reduce the cross-section area of rods
and tubes
520. Connecting rod is generally manufactured by:
(c) in which the edges of sheet are turned over to
(a) Casting (b) Drop forging
provide stiffness and smooth edge
(c) Machining (d) Upset forging
(d) causes a steadily applied pressure on work
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I piece instead of impact force
Ans : (b) Connecting rod is generally manufactured by TNPSC AE 2018
Drop forging. Ans. (b) : For reduce the cross-sectional area and increase
Drop forging : Repeated hammering and closed dies length of the part, rotary swaging operation is used.
are used in drop forging to obtain required shape. The
525. In the metal forming processes, the stresses
forging consists of two halves, lower half of die is fixed
encountered are, less than the:
to the anvil of machine and upper half is in the ram the
1. Yield strength of the material
stock is placed in lower part and hammering is done to 2. Fracture strength of the material and greater
fill the cavity in die. To ensure complete filling extra than yield strength.
material is provided and hence extra metal comes cut Which of the above statements is/are correct?
circumferentially to form flash which is trimmed. Two (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
type of hammer is used (i) gravity drop hammer (ii) (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
direct powered drop hammer. JWM 2017
521. A punch is used for making holes in steel plates Ans. (b) : In metal forming processes, the stresses
with thickness 8 mm. If the punch diameter is produced are less than the fracture strength of the
20 mm and force required for creating a hole is material and greater than yield strength.
110 kN, the average shear stress in the plate 526. In blanking operation, clearance is provided to:
will be nearly (a) Stripper (b) Die
(a) 139 MPa (b) 219 MPa (c) Punch (d) Die and Punch
(c) 336 MPa (d) 416 MPa CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
ESE 2020 SJVN ET 2013
Ans. (b) : Given, Thickness (t) = 8 mm UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Diameter (d) = 20 mm UJVNL AE 2016
Force (F) = 110 kN Ans. (c) : In Punching or piercing
F = τπdt Punch = size of hole
F 110 × 103 Die = punch size + 2 clearance
τ= = In Blanking
π dt π × 20 × 8
Die = size of product
= 218.83 MPa Punch = Die size - 2 clearance
522. Plug rolling is used to 527. A hole of diameter (d) is to be punched through
(a) produce seamless tube a sheet metal of thickness (t). How much force
(b) reduce wall thickness and increase diameter is required to punch the hole if the ultimate
of tubes shear stress of the sheet metal is (τ)?
(c) produce collapsible tubes π 2
(d) increase wall thickness of tubes (a) dtτ (b) d tτ
4
(KPSC AE 2015)
π 2
Ans : (b) Plug rolling is used to reduce wall thickness (c) πdtτ (d) d τ
and increase diameter of tubes. 4
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
523. It is required to punch a hole of diameter 10
mm on a sheet of thickness 3. The shear Ans. (c) : Punching force F = Ltτ
Where L is length of periphery
strength of the work material is 420 MPa. The
t = thickness
required punch force is
τ = ultimate shear strength
(a) 19.87 kN (b) 39.56 kN
For circular section L = π d
(c) 98.9 kN (d) 359.6 kN
∴ F = π dtτ
TNPSC AE 2018
760
528. In rolling process, roll separation force can be
reduced by:
(a) Increasing the roll diameter
(b) Increasing the friction between the rolls and
workpiece
(c) Providing backup roll
(d) Reducing the roll diameter
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (d) : Roll separating force (F) = Stress × Projected
area
= σo × LP × b
Where Lp = Projected length = R∆h D = d 2 + 4dh − 0.5r
So by reducing the size of driving roller, roll = (50) 2 + 4 × 50 × 60 − 0.5 × 2.5
separating force can be reduced. = 2500 + 12000 − 1.25
On the other hard backing rollers are used to
= 14500 − 1.25 = 119.16 ≈ 120 mm
support the driving roller.
529. A 2 mm thick metal sheet is to be bent at an 532. Seamless tube can be made by
(a) Rolling (b) Die forging
angle of 1.6 radian with the radius of 150 mm.
(c) Piercing (d) Extrusion
Distance of neutral axis from inside surface is HPPSC AE 2018
0.5 × sheet thickness. Find out bend allowance. TNPSC AE 2018
(a) 321.6 mm (b) 241.6 mm Ans. (c) : Rotary tube piercing, also called piercing, or
(c) 301.6 mm (d) 281.6 mm the Mannesmann process, is a hot forming process that
UPRVUNL AE 2016 can manufacture long lengths of seamless tube and pipe.
Ans. (b) : Bend allowance Compressive forces applied to a cylinder will create
Lb = α (R + kt) internal stresses at the center.
where seamless tube can made by piercing.
k = constant or stretch factor 533. Molten glass is used as lubricant, in
Lb = 1.6 (150 + 0.5 × 2) (a) Rolling
(b) Wire Drawing
= 1.6 × 151 (c) Deep drawing
Lb = 241.6 mm (d) Forward hot extrusion
530. Which of the following is correct for cold HPPSC AE 2018
working? Ans. (d) : Molten glass is used as lubricant in forward
(a) Poor dimensional accuracy hot extrusion.
(b) Material loss is very high 534. In the sheet metal operations shear stress is
(c) Poor surface finish is obtained induced in
(d) It increases strength and hardness better than (a) Blanking (b) Punching
hot working (c) Trimming (d) All of the above
UPRVUNL AE 2016 HPPSC AE 2018
Ans. (d) : In the sheet metal operations shear stress is
Ans. (d) : In cold working, it increase strength and
induced in Blanking, Punching and Trimming.
hardness better than hot working.
535. The force required to punch a circular hole of
531. A cylindrical cup of circular cross section of 50 30 mm diameter in a plate of thickness 2mm,
mm diameter and 60 mm height with corner when ultimate shear stress for the plate
radius 2.5 mm is to be made of 0.5 mm thick material is 300 N/mm2.
sheet of steel. Its blank diameter (a) π(18 × 102)N (b) π(18 × 103)N
4
(approximately) will be: (c) π(18 × 10 )N (d) π(18 × 105)N
(a) 180 mm (b) 120 mm 6
(e) π(18 × 10 )N
(c) 140 mm (d) 160 mm (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
UPRVUNL AE 2016 Ans. (b) : Data given,
Ans. (b) : Data given, Hole diameter (d) = 30 mm
d = 50 mm Plate thickness (t) = 2 mm
h = 60 mm Ultimate shear stress = 300 N/mm2
r = 2.5 mm Force required to punch a hole is given as
t = 0.5 mm F = πdt × τ = π × 30 × 2 × 300
D=? F = 18π × 103 N

761
536. Which of the following processes is used when a 541. The shear strength of a sheet metal is 300 MPa.
small batch of gears are needed to be produced The blanking force required to produce a blank
without much accuracy? of 100 mm diameter from a 1.5 mm thick sheet is
(a) Broaching (b) Gear forming close to :
(c) Gear shaping (d) Gear hobbing (a) 45 kN (b) 70 kN
(e) Gear planning (c) 141 kN (d) 3200 kN
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
Ans. (b) : Gear forming process is used when a small Ans. (c) : Given,
batch of gears are needed to be produced without much Shear strength (τ) = 300 MPa
accuracy. Diameter of blank (d) = 100 mm
537. Which of the following processes is used to Thickneess of sheet (t) = 1.5 mm
produce only axisymmetric cup shaped articles Blanking force required,
from sheet metal? F = πdtτ
(a) Shallow drawing (b) Nibbling = π × 100 × 1.5 × 300
(c) Spinning (d) Deep drawing F = 141.372 kN
(e) Bending F ≈ 141 kN
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017) 542. In following operations are to performed on a
Ans. (c) : Spinning– Spinning is a sheet metal forming job, which would be performed first
process in which a metal blank is pressed over a rotating (a) Drilling (b) Boring
chuck or form mandral with the help pressing tool to (c) Counter sinking (d) Tapping
obtain axisymmetric hollow shell. Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Nibbling–The nibbling process cuts a contour by Ans. (a) : In following, operations, are to performed on
producing a series of overlapping slits or notches. This a job,
allows for complex shapes to be formed in sheet metal (1) Drilling – make a specific diameter of hole.
upto 6 mm thick using simple tool. (2) Boring – to enlarge of this existing hole.
Shallow Drawing–Shallow drawing is used to describe (3) Tapping – used to five finishing of the internal
the process where the depth of draw is less than the surface of a hole.
smallest dimension of the opening; otherwise, it is (4) facing – Smoothing and squaring of the surface
considered deep drawing. around a hole.
538. Spring back during the sheet metal operation is 543. The angular clearance provided on dies is
caused because of the : usually
(a) release of stored energy during elastic and (a) ½° to 1° (b) 3° to 5°
plastic deformation (c) 5° to 7° (d) 7° to 9°
(b) release of stored energy during plastic Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
deformation Ans. (a) : The angular clearance on dies varies from
(c) release of stored energy during elastic ½° to 1° normal value of angular clearance is 1.5° per
deformation sides.
(d) excess energy that was utilized during the 544. In broaching operation the accuracy that can
forming process be obtained is of the order of
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 (a) 0.1 micron (b) 1 micron
Ans. (c) : Spring back during the sheet metal operation (c) 10 micron (d) 100 micron
is caused because of the release of stored energy during Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
elastic deformation. Ans. (b) : Broaching is a machining process it is used
539. Sheet metal drawing operation is used to make: when precision machining is required especially for odd
(a) Wire (b) Cup shaped parts shapes. The accuracy that can be obtained is of the
(c) Tubes (d) Rods order of 0.5 µm –1 µm .
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 545. Extrusion is the process of
Ans. (b) : Sheet metal drawing operation is used to (a) Producing holes by arc
make cup shaped parts. (b) Marking cup shaped articles using the force
540. Hot working of metals is carried out of explosion
(a) above the recrystallization temperature (c) Pushing the heated billet of metal through the
(b) below the recrystallization temperature orifice
(c) at the recrystallization temperature (d) Metal sharping presses
(d) at higher temperature Nagaland CTSE 2016, 2017 Ist Paper
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper Ans. (c) : Extrusion is the process of pushing the heated
Ans. (a) : Hot working of metals is carried out above billet of metal through the orifice, which is shaped to
the recrystallization temperature. provide the desired form of the finished part.
762
546. Better surface will be obtained in one of the Ans. (d) : Same metal such as lead and tin, have a low
following process recrystallization temperature and can be hot worked
(a) Direct extrusion (b) Indirect extrusion even at room temperature, but most commercial metals
(c) Hydraulic extrusion (d) Impact extrusion require some heating.
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper 553. A drill considered as a cutting tool having zero
Ans. (c) : Hydraulic extrusion a high pressure liquid rake, is known as a:
medium is used for the transmission of the force to the (a) Flat drill
billet/blank. The pressurized fluid act as a lubricant and (b) Straight fluted drill
because of this the extruded product has a good surface (c) Parallel shank twist drill
finish & dimensional accuracy. (d) Tapered shank twist drill
SJVN ET 2013
547. With increase in thickness of plate in rolling
bite angle Ans. (b) : A drill considered as a cutting tool having
(a) increases zero rake is known as straight fluted drill.
(b) decreases 554. In hammer forging, the hammer does not
(c) remains constant consist of:
(d) no relation between bite angle and plate (a) Falling weight
thickness (b) Anvil
(c) Die
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
(d) Lifting mechanism for the ram
Ans. (b) : With increase in thickness of plate in rolling TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
bite angle or contact angle decreases, which result the Ans. (b) : The hammer does not consist of anvil in
reduction of the plate is also affected. hammer forging.
548. Which type of gears can be manufactured by
extrusion process?
(a) Bevel gears (b) Herrigbone
(c) Worm gears (d) Spur gears
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Ans. (b) : Herrigbone gears (which also called double
helical gear) can be manufactured by extrusion process.
In helical gear, teeth are straight, but inclined to the axis
of rotation.
549. The process used to improve fatigue resistance
of metal by setting up compressive stresses in
its surface is
(a) Hot piercing (b) Extrusion
(c) Cold peening (d) Cold heading
SJVN ET 2013
Ans. (c) : Cold peening- The process to improve
fatigue resistance of metal by setting up compressive
stress in its surface is known as cold peening.
550. Thread rolling is restricted to
(a) Ferrous Materials (b) Ductile Materials
(c) Hard Materials (d) None of these
SJVN ET 2013
Ans. (b) : Thread rolling is restricted to ductile
materials.
Thread rolling is a cold forging process that can be 555. Valve bodies of internal combustion engine are
performed on any ductile material. made by–
551. Coining is the operation of (a) Forging
(a) Cold Forging (b) Hot Forging (b) Rolling
(c) Cold Extrusion (d) Piercing (c) Casting
SJVN ET 2013 (d) Turning from bar stock
Ans. (a) : Coining is the operation of cold forging. Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
552. Metals like lead and tin are hot worked at Ans. (b) : Valve bodies of internal combustion engine
temperature around are made by Rolling process.
(a) 500 - 600 oC (b) 200 - 30 oC 556. In forged components,
(c) 100 oC (d) Room Temperature (a) fiber lines are arranged in a pre-determined
SJVN ET 2013 way
763
 (b) fiber lines of rolled stock are broken
(c) there are no fiber lines
(d) fiber lines are scattered
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : In forged components, fiber lines are
arranged in a predetermined way.
557. Cold working-
(a) increases toughness and ductility
(b) reduces residual stresses
(c) increases hardness and strength
(d) produces favorable pattern of fiber lines
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (c) : Cold working increases hardness and
strength.
558. Hot working–
(a) increases toughness and ductility
(b) increases surface finish
(c) increases hardness and strength
(d) produces accurate dimensions for the parts
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : Hot working increases toughness and
ductility.
559. A prismatic bar with rectangular cross-section
of 20 mm × 40 mm and length of 2.8 m is
subjected to an axial tensile force of 70 kN. The
elongation of bar is 1.2 mm. What is the tensile
stress and strain of the bar respectively?
(a) 8.75 MPa, 0.000428 (b) 87.5 MPa, 0.000428
(c) 8.75 MPa, 0.00428 (d) 87.5 MPa, 0.00428
SJVN ET 2019
Ans. (b) :
Force
Tensile stress =
Area
70 × 103
=
20 × 40 × 10−6
= 87.5 ×106 N
= 87.5 MPa
δl 1.2
Tensile strain ∈= =
l 2 .8 ×1000
= 0.000428
560. "A process through which the cross-section of a
metal piece is increased with a corresponding
reduction its length" is known as :
(a) Punching (b) Bending
(c) Upsetting (d) Drawing out
SJVN ET 2019
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (c) : Upsetting- "A process through which the
cross-sectional of a metal piece is increased with a
corresponding reduction in its length" is known as
upsetting.
561. Consider the following operations
1. Coining and sizing 2. Forging
3. Impregnation 4. Sintering
Out of the above which are the secondary and
finishing operations in powder metallurgy?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
764
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
(e) 1, 2 and 3
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Ans. (e) : A number of secondary and finishing
operations can be applied after sintering, some of them
are:
(i) Sizing : Cold pressing to improve dimensional
accuracy
(ii) Coining : Cold pressing to press details into
surface.
(iii) Impregnation : Oils fills the pores of the part.
(iv) Infiltration : Pores are filled with a molten metal.
(v) Heat treating, planting, painting.
562. Machining allowance in case of die casting is
(a) Large
(b) Same as in other methods of casting
(c) Small
(d) Generally not provided
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Ans. (d) : In die casting, machining allowances is not
provided. Die casting is a moulding process in which
the molten is injected under high pressure and velocity
into a split mould die.
563. Statement (I) : In ordinary drop-forging with
flash, die cavity is properly filled with metal.
Statement (II) : Forging load increases by
increasing flash thickness.
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I).
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT
the correct explanation of Statement (I).
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is
false.
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is
true.
JWM 2017
Ans. (c) : In drop forging, forging load is greatly
influenced by the flash thickness and width. The load
can be decreased by increasing the flash thickness.
564. The bonding of a rubber sheet with a metal is
done by
(a) Welding
(b) High frequency die electric heating
(c) Induction welding
(d) Adhesive bonding
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (d) : The bonding of a rubber sheet with a metal is
done by Adhesive bonding.
565. What is the force required for 90° bending of
St50 steel of 2 mm thickness in a V-die, if the
die opening is taken as 8 times the thickness
and the length of the bent part is 1 m, ultimate
tensile strength is 500 MPa and K = 1.33?
(a) 166.25 kN (b) 155.45 kN
(c) 154.65 kN (d) 143.85 kN
ESE 2019
Ans. (a) : Given, 570. The maximum reduction that can be given to
t = 2 mm any material in wire drawing (in most idealistic
w = 8t condition is)
L = 1 m = 1000 mm (a) 53% (b) 63%
σu = 500 MPa (c) 73% (d) 83%
k = 1.33 TSPSC AEE 2015
kLt 2 σu Ans. (b) : Ideal deformation of a perfectly plastic
Force required for bending = material.
w
A 
1.33 ×1000 × 22 × 500 σd = yl n  o 
= = 166.25 kN
8× 2  Af 
566. The maximum possible draft in rolling, which at yield limit
is the difference between initial and final σd = y
thicknesses of the sheet metal, depends on then,
(a) rolling force A 
(b) roll radius 1 = ln  o 
(c) roll width  Af 
(d) yield shear stress of the material Ao
ESE 2018 =e
Af
Ans. (b) : Maximum possible reduction in rolling
Maximum reduction per pass-
(∆H)max = µ2R
(∆H)max ∝ R Ao − Af 1
= 1−
567. Metal Forming process used for making Ao e
shallow and also for straightening parts is 1
(a) Peen forming = 1−
2.718
(b) Magnetic Pulse forming
= 0.632
(c) Stamping
= 63.2%
(d) Stretch forming
APPSC AEE 2016 571. A solid cylinder of diameter 100 mm and height
Ans. (a) : Peen forming– It is also called as shot 50 mm is forged between two frictionless flat
peening. Peen forming is a die less process performed at dies to a height of 25 mm. The percentage
room temperature. During the process, the surface of the change in diameter is
(a) 0 (b) 2.07
workpiece is impacted by pressure from small, found
(c) 20.7 (d) 41.4
steel shot. The impact pressure of the peening shot
TNPSC 2019
causes local plastic deformation that manifested itself as
a residual compressive stress. Ans. (d) : [Volume of cylinder]initial = [Volume of
cylinder]final
568. Which of the following process belongs to
forging operation π 2 π
D H = d 2h
(a) Fulluring (b) Welding 4 4
(c) Drawing (d) Piercing
TSPSC AEE 2015
(100 ) 2 × 50 = d 2 × 25
Ans. (a) Fulluring process belongs to forging operation. d = 141.4
569. Deep drawing process can be performed on d−D
% change in diameter = ×100
(a) single action press (b) double action press D
(c) triple action press (d) screw press 141.4 − 100
TSPSC AEE 2015 = ×100
100
Ans. (c) : Deep drawing process can be performed on = 41.4%
triple action press. 572. Match the following metal forming processes
with their associated stresses in the work place.

Metal forming Types of stress

process
i. Coining p. Tensile
ii. Wire Drawing q. Shear
iii. Blanking r. Tensile &
Compressive
iv. Deep Drawing s. Compressive
(a) (i)-s, (ii)-p, (iii)-q, (iv)-r
For high rolling mill (b) (i)-p, (ii)-q, (iii)-s, (iv)-r
765
 (c) (i)-s, (ii)-p, (iii)-r, (iv)-q Ans : (b) : Moving mandrel is used in seamless tubes
(d) (i)-p, (ii)-r, (iii)-q, (iv)-s drawing operation.
RPSC 2016 579. Hot rolling of mild steel is carried out at :
Ans : (a) (i)-s, (ii)-p, (iii)-q, (iv)-r (a) Below recrystallization temp
573. In drop forging, forging is done by dropping- (b) Between 100º to 150º C
(a) the work piece at high velocity (c) Above recrystallization temp
(b) the hammer at high velocity (d) At 100º C
(c) the die with hammer at high velocity OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
(d) a weight on hammer to produce the requisite UJVNL AE 2016
impact Ans : (c) : Hot rolling/Hot working of metal is done
RPSC 2016 when the metal is worked above the recrystallisation
Ans : (c) In closed die forging die with hammer is temperature of metal. Hot rolling refines grain structure.
dropped on to the component with high velocity, where Hot rolling is often used to convert ingots into smaller
as in open die forging only hammer is dropped on the sections known as billets. Hot rolling is used for
work. producing plate, sheet and strip, but can also be used to
574. Cold shut is a forging defect caused by which of produce rods, bars and various structural shapes by
the following reason? making successive passes through rollers which are
(a) Improper cleaning of the stock grooved to produce the desired shape.
(b) Improper design of die
(c) Misalignment of the two die halves 580. In cold working of metals, the temperature of
(d) Improper cooling of the large forging material is at :
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 (a) Room temperature
(b) Higher then the room temperature
Ans. (b) : Cold shut is a forging defect caused by
improper design of die. (c) Lower than the room temperature
(d) Below recrystallisation temperature
575. Structural sections such as rails, angles, l-
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
beams are made by :
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
(a) Hot rolling (b) Hot drawing
(c) Hot piercing (d) Hot extrusion Ans : (d) : Cold working- Working temperature for
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 cold working process will be less than 0.6 times melting
Ans. (a) : Structural sections such as rails, angles I- temperature. (Tw < 0.6 Tm)
beams are made by Hot rolling. ! Stress required for deformation is high.
! It produces better surface finish.
576. Coining resembles
! Porosity is not eliminated.
(a) upset forging (b) flashless forging
! It produces better dimensional accuracy.
(c) open-die forging (d) swaging
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI 581. If coefficient of friction µ in a rolling process is
Ans : (b) : Flashless forging- It is true closed die 0.5 and radius of roller is 1,000 mm, what is the
forging in which metal deformed in a die cavity permits maximum reduction or draft possible?
virtually no excess metal to escape. During this process (a) 500 mm (b) 250 mm
the perform is totally enclosed in the die cavity so that (c) 750 mm (d) 1,000 mm
no flash is formed. In actual practice, a thin fin for ring OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
of flash may form in the clearance between the upper Ans : (b) : Maximum reduction or draft possible
punch and die. h = µ2R
577. Collapsible tubes are made by : h = 0.52 × 1000 = 250 mm
(a) Drawing (b) Spinning 582. Forging hammers are called :
(c) Impact Extrusion (d) Tube rolling (a) Stroke restricted machines
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I (b) Energy restricted machines
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 (c) Load restricted machines
TNPSC 2019 (d) Stress restricted machines
RPSC AE 2018 OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (b) : Forging hammers are called energy
KPSC AE 2015
restricted machines.
Ans : (c) : Hollow backward extrusion (Impact
Extrusion) is used with low strength metals such as 583. In punching operation clearance is provided in:
lead, tin, zinc and aluminium to toothpaste, medications (a) Punch (b) Die
and other creams. (c) Blank holder (d) Blank
578. A moving mandrel used in : OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
(a) Wire drawing (b) Tube drawing Ans : (b) :
(c) Metal cutting (d) Forging Punch size = blank size
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I Die size = blank size + 2 clearance
766
584. Wrinkling is a common defect found in
(a) Bend components
(b) Deep drawn components
(c) Embossed components
(d) Blanked components
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (b) : Wrinkling is a common defect found in deep
drawn components.
585. Statement (I) : A cold bend part has no spring
back because deformation is plastic.
Statement (II) : In cold bending, parts are
normally over-bent slightly.
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I).
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT
the correct explanation of Statement (I).
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is
false.
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is
true.
JWM 2017
Ans. (d) : In cold bending, parts are normally over-bent
slightly.
586. In hot working of metals, the working
temperature is
(a) Below the recrystallisation temperature
(b) Above the recrystallisation temperature
(c) Equal to the melting point of the metal
(d) 150ºC
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (b) : In hot working of metals, the working
temperature is above the recrystallisation temperature.
587. In rolling operation, wavy edges appears due to
the property of work material
(a) Anisotropy (b) Ductility
(c) Toughness (d) Malleability
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (a) : Formation of wavy edge on top of the cup,
called earing, happens due to anisotropy of the material.
588. Identify the wrong statement related to yield
criteria in metal forming
(a) stresses along hydrostatic component do not
cause any plastic deformation
(b) Deviation component causes deformation
(c) Plastic deformation appears only when
resultant stresses reach non-miser cylinder
(d) Tresca is plane strain case
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (d) : Tresca is plane strain case is wrong
statement.
589. In the wall region of drawn cup in a deep
drawing operation, the type of stresses are
(a) Uniaxial stretching
(b) tension-compression
(c) pure compression
(d) tension, compression & shear
TSPSC AEE 2015
767
Ans. (a) : In the wall region of drawn cup in a deep
drawing operation, the type of stresses are uniaxial
stretching.
590. Thickness in the drawn cup by deep drawing
process keeps on increasing in the wall region
because of
(a) compressive normal stress
(b) compressive hoop stress
(c) shear stress in flange region
(d) biaxial pure compression
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (b) : Thickness in the drawn cup by deep drawing
process keeps on increasing in the wall region because
of compressive hoop stress.
591. Maximum strength of the product can be
achieved when it is produced by
(a) open die cold working
(b) close die worm working
(c) impression die hot working
(d) open die hot working
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (a) : An open die cold working maximum
strength of the product can be achieve.
592. To prolong the life of shaper toots, after they
are ground they should be undergone through
the following operation
(a) Sand blasting (b) Shot peening
(c) Lapping (d) Hardening
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Ans : (d) Hardening
593. Steel balls are manufactured by
(a) Machining (b) Cold heading
(c) Costing (d) Upsetting
UJVNL AE 2016
(KPSC AE 2015)
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (b) Steel balls are manufactured by cold heading.
Cold Heading:- It is another form of swaging operation
and is used for the manufacture of bolts, rivets,
hexagonal socket screws, screws and similar heated
items. The importance of cold heading operation lies
principally in the saving of material; very little or no
scrap being produced.
594. Which of the following operation does not
based on metal deformation?
(a) Coining (b) Bending
(c) Rolling (d) None of the above
UJVNL AE 2016
Ans : (d) Coining operation does not based on metal
deformation coining is a press operation. Coining is
essentially a cold-forging operation except for the fact
that the flow of the metal occurs only at the top layers
and not the entire volume. The type of impression
obtained on both sides would be different unlike the
embossing. Coining is used for making coins, medals
and similar articles, and for impressions on decorative
items.
595. A 30 ton press means
(a) gross weight of the press is 30 tons
(b) weight of die is 30 tons
(c) pressure exerted by slide is 30 tons
(d) flywheel of the press weighs 30 tons
RPSC AE 2016
Ans : (c) A 30 ton press means pressure exerted by
slide is 30 tons.
Power presses:- Power presses are used for producing
large quantities of articles quickly, accurately and
economically from the cold working of mild steel and
other ductile materials.
596. Trimming is the process associated with
(a) Forging (b) Press work
(c) Polishing of metals (d) Electroplating
(KPSC AE 2015)
Ans : (b)
Trimming is the process associated with press work.
Trimming:- In operations such as drop forging and die
casting, a small amount of extra metal gets spread out near
the parting plane, which is termed flash. The flash is to be
trimmed before the casting or forging is to be used.
597. Which of the following is not the part of a
shaper?
(a) Ram (b) Table
(c) Cross slide (d) Clapper box
(KPSC AE 2015)
Ans : (c) Cross slide is not the part of a shaper.
Main part of shaper machine:-
(i) Shaper head
(ii) Column
(iii) Base
(iv) Cross - rail
(v) Saddle and table.
(vi) RAM
(vii) Table
598. Bending operation should be performed
(a) At 30° to the grain direction
(b) Parallel to the grain direction
(c) There is no such criteria
(d) At right angle to the grain direction
(KPSC AE 2015)
Ans : (d) Bending operation should be performed at
right angle to the grain direction
Bending operation:- Bending is the cold working
process involving plastic deformation in which the total
surface area remains constant. Bending of pipe, tube,
rolled or extruded shapes involves practices and
theories of the simple supports beam, the cantilever
beam and many of the problem of forming and deep
drawing
599. Which of the following operating is known as
'sweating' ?
(a) Tinning two surfaces to be joined, applying
flux and heating
(b) Heating two surfaces to be joined, to the high
temperature in presence of flux
(c) Heating two surfaces at low temperature
(d) Joining of two surfaces without use of flux
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
768
Ans : (a) Tinning two surfaces to be joined applying
flux and heating is known as sweating.
600. Thread rolling is somewhat like :
(a) cold extrusion (b) cold machining
(c) cold rolling (d) cold forging
(HPPSC AE 2014)
Ans : (c) Cold rolling:- It is generally employed for
bars of all shapes, rods, sheets and strips, in order to
provide a smooth and bright surface finish. It is also
used to finish the hot rolled components to close
tolerance and improve their toughness and hardness.
601. Spanners are manufactured by :
(a) dry casting (b) forging
(c) sheet rolling (d) cup blanking
(HPPSC LECT. 2016)
Ans : (b) Spanners are manufactured by forging.
Forging:- Forging can be defined as the controlled
plastic deformation of metals at elevated temperature
into a predetermined size or shape using compressive
force exerted through some type of die by a hammer, a
press or an upsetting machine.
602. Honing operation is used for high finish:
(a) For a plane surface
(b) Inside a cylindrical surface
(c) Outside cylindrical surface
(d) Not a surface finish operation
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
Ans : (b) Honing operation is used for high finish
Inside a cylindrical surface.
Honing : Honing is an abrasive process for removing
stock from metallic and non–metallic surfaces. It is used
to correct local irregularities such as ovality, waviness
at axis or non–parallelism of cylindrical features and to
develop a particular texture. Honing is the application
of bonded abrasive stones to a surface for the purpose of
limited stock removal and attainment of a surface finish.
The stock removal and attainment of a surface finish.
The stock removal is very low (0.5 mm for prime
honing and 0.01 mm for secondary or mirror honing).
603. The fullers are used for
(a) finishing flat surfaces
(b) punching a hole
(c) necking down operation
(d) finishing a punched hole
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (c) The fullers are used for necking down
operation.
Fullering:- It is the term applied to the first operation is
an impression- die forging process. It is actually same
as setting down and consists of reducing cross-section
of the workpiece or lengthening a preparation of the
stock in preparation for subsequent operation.
604. In the forging operation, fullering is done to:-
(a) Draw out the material
(b) Bend the material
(c) Upset the material
(d) Extrude the material
UJVNL AE 2016
Ans : (a) In the forging operation. fullering is done to 607. The force F required to cut a sheet metal is
draw out the material. given by
(a) F = τs p / t (b) F = τs p / t 2
(c) F = τs pt (d) F = τs / pt
Where τ = shear strength of sheet metal
p = perimeter of the cut
t = thickness of the sheet metal
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Ans : (c) F = τs pt
Force required to cut a sheet metal where
Fullering is an operation metal is displaced form the τs = Shear strength of sheet metal.
centre and produces dumbell shape. p = Perimeter of the cut.
605. Which of the following is not a surface
t = Thickness of the sheet metal.
finishing operation:
Punching force: - It is the force required to be exerted
(a) Lapping (b) Annealing
by the punch in order to shear out the blank from the
(c) Polishing (d) Grinding
stock.
UJVNL AE 2016
F = τs .p.t
Ans : (b) Annealing is not a surface finishing operation,
Annealing is a heat treatment process. Sometime the tensile strength may replace the shear
Annealing:- It is one of the most important process of strength in the above expression because shear is not
heat treatment of steel. Following are four types of the only active force the press has to overcome.
annealing
(i) Full Annealing 608. Which types of gears can be manufactured by
(ii)Process Annealing extrusion process?
(iii) Spheroidise Annealing (a) Bevel gears (b) Herringbone gears
(iv) Diffusion Annealing (c) Worm gears (d) Spur gears
606. The relationship between blank diameter D Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
and cup diameter d during deep drawing Ans. (b) : Herringbone gears (which also called double
process is given as helical gear) can be manufactured by extrusion process.
609. In rolling process, the state of stress of the
(a) D = d + 4dh
2
(b) D = d + 2dh
2
material undergoing deformation is:-
dh (a) Pure compression
(c) D = d 2 + (d) D = d + dh
2

2 (b) Pure shear

UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I (c) Compression and shear
Ans : (a) (d) Tension and shear
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
Ans. (c) : In rolling process, the state of stress of the
material undergoing deformation is compression and
shear.
610. The temperature at which new stress free
grains are formed in the metal is called:-
(a) Critical temperature
(b) Eutectic temperature
(c) Recrystallization temperature
d (d) Yield temperature
D = d 2 + 4hd when ≥ 20
r UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
d Ans. (c) : The temperature at which new stress free
D = d 2 + 4hd − 0.5r when 15 ≤ < 20 grains are formed in the metal is called recrystallization
r
temperature
d
D = d + 4hd − r when 10 ≤ < 15
2
611. In High velocity forming, the forming speed is
r greater than:-
( d − 2r ) (a) 3 m/s (b) 5 m/s
2
D= + 4d(h − r) + 2πr(d − 0.7r)
(c) 8 m/s (d) 15 m/s
d UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
when < 10
r Ans. (b) : High velocity forming (HVF)- HVF or high
d = outer diameter to shell mm velocity forming refers to a set of techniques which are
D = Blank diameter, mm used for metal forming. These techniques could include
h = height of the shell, mm methods such as explosive forming, electromagnetic
r = corner radius of punch, mm forming etc. All these techniques involve imparting a
769
high kinetic energy to the work piece accelerating it to a Ans. (a) : The rake angle in a drill varies from
highly velocity, before it is made to hit the appropriate minimum near the dead center and maximum at the
die or made to undergo the process of plastic the outermost periphery. At the outermost periphery the
formation. rake angle (α) become equal to helix angle (Ψ)
In conventional forming conditions, inertia is neglected, ∴ α max = ψ , α ≤ ψ
as the velocity of forming is typically less than 5 m/s,
while typical high velocity forming operations are 619. The force required to punch a 10mm diameter
carried out at work-piece velocities of about 100 m/s. hole in a mild steel plate 10mm thick, if the
612. The following is not the characteristics of shear strength of mild steel is 360MPa is
explosive forming : (a) 9πkN (b) 36πkN
(a) Low capital cost of the set up. (c) 18πkN (d) 2.25kN
(b) Very large components can be formed. (APPSC AE 2012)
(c) Only a simple die is required. Ans : (b) hole dia = 10mm = 10 × 10–3m
(d) The tooling material is very expensive. thickness of plate = 10mm = 10 × 10-3 m
UKPSC AE 2012, 2007 Paper-I Shear strength of mild steel = 360 MPa.
Ans. (d) : The tooling material is very expensive. Force required to punch = πdt × τ
613. Explosive forming is not used for the following: F = π×10 ×10−3 ×10 ×10−3 × 360 ×106 N
(a) Making very small complex parts.
F = 36π kN.
(b) For large parts typical of aerospace industry.
(c) Both (a) & (b) above are correct. 620. A hole of 20 mm diameter is punched in a plate
(d) None of the above is correct. of 10 mm thick. The shear stress induced in the
UKPSC AE 2012, 2007 Paper-I plate in 0.4 kN/mm2 Then, the force exerted by
Ans. (a) : Making very small complex parts. the punch is
614. Process in which cross-sectional area of bars, (a) 500 π kN (b) 80π kN
rods or tubes in the desired area is reduced by (c) 800 πkN (d) 8000 πkN
repeated blows is known as TSPSC AEE 2015
(a) swaging (b) piercing Ans : (b) hole diameter (d) = 20 mm
(c) cold peening (d) extrusion plate thickness (t) = 10 mm
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I shear stress (τ) = 0.4 KN/mm2
Ans. (a) : Swaging Force exerted by the punch. (F) = πdt × τ
615. The hot forging of steel specimen is carried out F = π × 20 × 10 ×0.4× 103
at a temperature of F = 80 π KN
(a) 400ºC (b) 600ºC 621. A metal rod has diameter 8 mm and true
(c) 500ºC (d) 950ºC stress-strain relationship is given by σ = 900ε 0.6
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I MPa is under action of tensile loading. The
Ans. (d) : 950ºC minimum diameter in mm that can be achieved
616. In deep drawing the drawing force (neglecting is :
(a) 8.54 (b) 4.76
the friction between the job and the die wall) is
(c) 5.92 (d) 3.87
approximately equal to BHEL ET 2019
(a) 2 πrpt (b) 3 πrpt Ans. (c) : Given diameter = 8 mm
(c) 4 πrpt (d) 6 πrpt From stress-strain relationship
where rp = radius of the punch σ = 900 ∈0.6 MPa
t = sheet thickness
at UTS ε T = n = 0.6
σz = stress in the direction of drawing
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I A 
ε T = 0.6 = In  o 
Ans. (a) : 2 πrpt  Af 
617. The deformation rates as high as following are π 2
used in high velocity forming of metals:  d0 
(a) 2 m/s (b) 25 m/s = ln  4  = 0.6
(c) 250 m/s (d) 500 m/s  π d f2 
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I 4 
Ans. (c) : 250 m/s  82 
In  2  = 0.6
618. The rake angle in a drill  df 
(a) increases from centre to periphery
(b) decreases from centre to periphery 82
= e 0.6 = 1.822
(c) remains constant d f2
(d) is irrelevant to the drilling operation
d f = 5.92 mm
TNPSC AE 2017
770
 6. Unconventional manufacturing
methods
622. Ultrasonic machining is best suited for
(a) Non-ferrous metal (b) Amorphous solids
(c) Brittle materials (d) Dielectrics
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
TNPSC AE 2018
(HPPSC AE 2014)
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper–I
Ans : (c) Ultrasonic machining- Ultrasonic machining
(USM) are suitable methods for making through holes
in a glass plate.
In ultrasonic machining, a vibrating formed tool is
employed which vibrates at frequencies 20 to 30 kHz
with amplitude between 0.01 and 0.06 mm and is
pressed lightly on to the work surface while an abrasive
slurry (such as boron carbide mixed with water) is made
to flow under pressure through the gap between the tool
face and the work surface to be machined. The tool has
the same shape as that of the cavity to machined
ultrasonic machining used for brittle and non-
conducting materials glass is non-conductive and has
brittle nature. So, USM can be used.
623. Which of the following processes has the
highest metal removal rate?
(a) Ultrasonic machining
(b) Abrasive machining
(c) Chemical machining
(d) Electron beam machining
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (c) : Material removal rate (MRR) is highest in
case of electrochemical machining (ECM) and
minimum in laser beam machining (LBM). The correct
sequence in increasing order is as follows-
ECM > EDM > USM > EBM > LBM
624. The vibration frequency used for the tool in the
Ultrasonic machining is of the order of-
(a) 10,000 oscillations per second
(b) 20,000 oscillations per second
(c) 35,000 oscillations per second
(d) 45,000 oscillations per second
RPSC AE 2018
UKPSC AE 2012, 2007 Paper-I
Ans. (b) : The vibration frequency used for the tool in
the Ultrasonic machining is of the order of 20,000
oscillations per second.
625. In abrasive jet machining metal removal takes
place due to
(a) evaporation (b) erosion
(c) corrosion (d) melting
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (b) : In abrasive jet machining metal removal
takes place due to erosion.
626. The machining process which needs vaccum for
its operation is
(a) Electron beam machining
(b) Electrical discharge machining
771
(c) Electro chemical machining
(d) Plasma machining
TNPSC AE 2013
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (a) : Vacuums must be used to reduce
contamination and minimize electron collisions with air
molecules. Because work must be done in a vacuum,
EBM is best suitable for small parts. The interaction of
the electron beam with the work piece produces
hazardous x-rays, and only highly trained personnel
should use EBM equipment.
627. In EDM, the material of the tool is
(a) Diamond (b) High Speed Steel
(c) Copper (d) Tungsten Carbide
TNPSC AE 2013
SJVN ET 2013
TSPSC AEE 2015
HPPSC AE 2018
UKPSC AE 2007, 2012 Paper -I
Ans. (c) : The following are the different electrode
materials which are used commonly in the industry.
• Graphite
• Electrolytic oxygen free copper
• Brass
• Tellurium copper - 99% Cu + 0.5% tellurium.
628. In electro chemical machining, the metal is
removed by
(a) dissolution (b) evaporation
(c) sputtering (d) shearing
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (a) : ECM– ECM is a non-traditional machining
process belonging to electrochemical category. ECM is
opposite of electrochemical or galvanic coating or
deposition process. In EMC, material removal takes
place due to atomic dissolution of work material.
629. The function of servo mechanism in EDM
process is to:
(a) Clean the dielectric fluid
(b) Provide dielectric fluid of required flow rate
(c) Provide power to generate the spark
(d) Maintain a small gap between tool and work
piece
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (d) : The function of servo mechanism in EDM
process is to maintain a small gap between tool and
work piece.
630. Which of the following is incorrect for plasma
are machining?
(a) Temperature generated approximately upto
1000ºC
(b) Power supply with approximate range of
current 100 - 600 amp
(c) Power supply with approximate range of
voltage 50 - 200 V
(d) All electrically conducting materials can be
machined
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (a) : In plasma arc machining temperature
generated approximately upto 11000ºC to 28000ºC.
631. Which of the following is incorrect for
Ultrasonic machining?
(a) Tool is made of ductile material
(b) Very low material removal rate
(c) Abrasive are not used
(d) Tool vibrates with very high frequency
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (c) : Ultrasonic machining—Ultrasonic
machining is a non-traditional process, in which
abrasive contained in a slurry are driven against the
work by a tool oscillating at a low amplitude (25-100
microns) and high frequency (15-30 kHz). In ultrasonic
machining tool is made of ductile material and tool
vibrates with very high frequency to remove very low
material. (low material removal rate)
632. In ECM (Electro Chemical Machining):
(a) As the cutting forces are very high, thin
section of work piece cannot be machined
(b) Tool material is conductor of electricity
(c) Surface finish is bad
(d) Tool wear is high
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (b) : Electro Chemical Machining (ECM)—In
ECM process in which electrochemical process is used
to remove materials from the workpiece. In the process,
workpiece is taken as anode and tool is taken as
cathode. The two electrodes workpiece and tool is
immersed in an electrolyte (such as NaCl). When the
voltage is applied across the two electrodes the material
removal from the workpiece starts. The workpiece and
tool is placed very close to each other without touching.
In ECM the material removal takes place at atomic level
so it produces a mirror finish surface.
633. In electrochemical machining, which of
following material tools is NOT used?
(a) Aluminum (b) Copper
(c) Brass (d) Stainless steel
(e) Diamond
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
Ans. (e) : Electrochemical Machining (ECM)–ECM
is a machining process in which electrochemical
process is used to remove materials from the workpiece.
In this process, workpiece is taken as anode and tool is
taken as cathode. The two electrodes workpiece and
tool is immersed in an electrolyte. When the voltage is
applied across the two electrodes, the material removal
from the workpiece starts. The tool & workpiece is
placed very close to each other without touching.
In ECM, most common tool materials are brass, copper
and bronze, but stainless steel, titanium, sintered
copper/tungsten, aluminium and graphite are also used.
Tool life is longer as compared with EDM and USM,
since there is no appreciable tool wear.
634. The following four unconventional machining
processes are available in a shop floor. The most
appropriate one to drill a hole of square cross
section of 6 mm × 6 mm and 25 mm deep:
(a) Is Electro discharge Machining
(b) Is Plasma Arc Machining
(c) Is Laser Beam Machining
772
(d) None of the above
UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
Ans. (a) : Since the depth of hole is mentioned i.e., hole
is blind so electric discharge machining is the best for
any type of die sinking, cavity sinking, blind complex
cavities etc.
635. In abrasive jet machining, as the distance
between the nozzle tip and the work surface
increases, the material removal rate:
(a) Increases continuously
(b) Decreases continuously
(c) Increases, becomes stable and then increases
(d) None of the above
UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
TNPSC AE 2014
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans. (c) : The figure shows the abrasive jet machining
for the distance between the workpiece surface and the
nozzle tip and flow rate of abrasive.
We can see that the material removal rate is increase
due to increase in distance of jet then becomes stable
and suddenly starts decreasing due to decrease in the
velocity of jet.
636. In Electric discharge machining, temperature
produced by the spark between tool and work
piece while machining will be in the order of
_____.
(a) 10oC (b) 10000oC
(c) 100 Co
(d) 1000oC
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (b) : Electro Discharge Machining (EDM) is an
electro-thermal non-traditional machining process,
where electrical energy is used to generate electrical
spark and material removal mainly occurs due to
thermal energy of the spark. The kinetic energy of the
electrons and ions on impact with the surface of the job
and tool respectively would be converted into thermal
energy or heat flux. Such intense localized heat flux
leads to extreme instantaneous confined rise in
temperature which would be in excess of 10,000oC.
Such localized extreme rise in temperature leads to
material removal.
637. Which of the following is used as a dielectric
medium in EDM?
(a) Salt solution
(b) Silicon carbide solution
(c) AI2O3 solution
(d) Kerosene
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (d) : In EDM a fluid is used to act as a dielectric Ans. (b) : In electro-chemical process, the MRR is
and to help carry away debris. Quite often kerosene IAt
based oil is used as dielectric in EDM. The dielectric given by MRR =
F. ρ. A. V.
fluid is circulated through the tool at a pressure of 0.35
644. In ECG process, a continuous steam of non-
N/m2 or less to free it from eroded metal particles, it is
circulated through a filter. corrosive salt solution is passed through work
and tool. This solution acts as
638. Which of the following is not the (a) an electrolyte
unconventional machining process? (b) a coolant
(a) EDM (b) ECM (c) an electrolyte and coolant
(c) USM (d) LBM (d) dielectric medium
(e) Turning TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (c) : In ECG process, a continuous steam of non-
CGPSC AE 2014- I
corrosive salt solution is passed through work and tool.
Ans. (e) : EDM, ECM, USM, LBM, AJM, WJM, EBM This solution acts as an electrolyte and coolant.
etc. are unconventional machining process whereas 645. The cutting rate in mm/min for LBM process is
turning, milling, facing etc are conventional machinery equal to
processes. C×P× t P×t
(a) (b)
639. Tool vibrates with very high frequency in: E×A C×E×A
(a) EDM (b) ECM E× A× t C×P
(c) USM (d) LBM (c) (d)
C×P E× A× t
(e) AJM TNPSC AE 2014
CGPSC AE 2014- I
Ans. (d) : Cutting rate in mm/min for LBM process is
Ans. (c) : Tool vibrates with very high frequency in C× P
given as =
ultrasonic machining. E×A×t
640. Which one of the following processes is the 646. High rate of oscillation of tools in ultrasonic
reverse of electroplating process? machining is produced by
(a) EDM (b) ECM (a) D.C. motor (b) A.C. motor
(c) Pneumatic generator (d) Oscillator
(c) PAM (d) LBM
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
TNPSC AE 2014, 2018
Ans. (d) : An electric oscillator in the control unit
Ans. (b) : Electrochemical machining (ECM) process is
produces a high rate (frequency) oscillation, usually
the reverse of electroplating process. between 18 to 40 kHz. The transducer converts the
641. The wear ratio for tungsten carbide work in oscillation current to a mechanical Vibration.
EDM is 647. Which of the following is not a drawing process
(a) Tube drawing (b) Lancing
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0
(c) Spinning (d) Embossing
(c) 2.0 (d) 3.0
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (b) : Lancing is not a drawing operation here,
Ans. (a) : The wear ratio for tungsten carbide work in
lancing is a piercing operation in which the work-piece
EDM is 0.5. is sheared and bent with one strike of the die. A key part
642. EDM stands for of this process is that there is not reduction of material,
(a) Energy Discharge Method only a modification in its geometry. Lancing operations
(b) Electro-Discharge Machining used to make tabs, vents and louvers.
(c) Energy Direct Machining 648. For the same capacity which of the following
process has the lowest capital cost?
(d) Efficient Direct Method (a) Electro chemical machining
TNPSC AE 2014 (b) Abrasive jet machining
Ans. (b) : EDM → Electro-discharge machining (c) Electron jet machining
643. In ECM process, the MRR is given by (d) Chemical machining
Nagaland CTSE 2016, 2017 Ist Paper
F.I I.At Ans. (b) : Abrasive jet machining in which material
(a) (b)
ρ.A.V F.ρ.A.V removal through the used of Abrasive (which are
F.ρ.A.V F.I.At cheaper) which can cut the sensitive materials without
(c) (d) damage, and the initial cost is low, with same capacity
I.At ρ.A.V obtained as compare to other machining process like,
TNPSC AE 2014 electro-chemical machining.
773
649. For the same capacity which of the following Ans. (a) : Irrespective of its hardness strength any
process has the highest capital cost? material which is an electrical conductor, can be
(a) Electro chemical machining machined.
(b) Plasma arc machining – Fine holes can be easily drilled.
(c) Electro discharge machining – Quicker process even harder materials can be
(d) Laser beam machining machines a much faster rate than conventional
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper machining.
Ans. (a) : For the same capacity achieved, but the 655. Which of the following is correct of MRR
highest capital cost requires in electro-chemical variation in EDM process using RC relaxation
machining process, in which material removal take- circuit?
place through chemical reaction of ion dissolution. (a) MRR decreases with increase in capacitance
650. In abrasive jet machining the achievable of circuit
tolerances are nearly (b) MRR decreases with increase in resistance of
(a) 0.1 µm (b) 1 µm circuit
(c) 50 µm (d) 250 µm (c) MRR decreases with increase in mean current
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper in circuit
Ans. (c) : In abrasive jet machining the achievable (d) MRR remain constant with increase in
tolerance are nearly 50 µm . resistance of circuit
SJVN ET 2019
651. Reproduction of sharp corners in the limitation
Ans. (b) : MRR variation in EDM process using RC
of :
relaxation circuit decreases with increase in resistance
(a) ECM (b) EDM
(c) Laser (d) Plasma of circuit.
SJVN ET 2013 656. In an ECM with a pure iron work piece, MRR
Ans. (b) : Limitation of EDM process- of 5 cm2/min is required. What will be the
• Because of low material removal rates the process is required current? [gram atomic weight of iron
economical only for very hard and difficult = 56 g, valency = 2, density of iron = 7.8 g/cm2
materials to machine. and F = 96500 coulomb]
• The EDM process is not suitable for non- (a) 224 amp (b) 2.24 amp
conductors. (c) 2240 amp (d) 22.4 amp
• Rapid electrode wear makes the process more SJVN ET 2019
costly. Ans. (c) : Given,
• The surface produced by EDM generally have a 5
matt type appearance, requiring further polishing to MRR = 5 cm3/min = cm3/sec
60
attain a glossy finish. A = 56 g
652. The mechanism of material removal in EDM Z=2
process is: P = 7.8 g/cm3
(a) Melting and evaporation F = 96500 coulamb
(b) melting and corrosion AI
(c) erosion and cavitation MRR =
ρFZ
(d) cavitation and evaporation
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 5 56 × I
=
Ans. (a) : Melting and evaporation is the mechanism of 60 7.8 × 96500 × 2
material removal in EDM process. I = 2240.17 amp
653. One of the advantages given below of the 657. In laser beam machining process, the usable
forged parts is not correct, find it : range of wavelength of laser beam is:
(a) High production rate (a) 400 - 600 µm (b) 0.4 - 0.6 µm
(b) Higher forging head (c) 0.001 - 0.01 µm (d) 600 - 1000 µm
(c) Less die water SJVN ET 2019
(d) Lower forging temperature Ans. (b) : Laser beam machining (LBM)-
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 • The rays of laser are perfectly parallel and they can
Ans. (c) : High die wear occure in the forged parts. be focused to a very small diameter.
654. EDM process is suited for the machining of– • It is a costly method and is used only when it is not
(a) conducting materials feasible to machine with other process.
(b) non-conducting materials • It is used to drill micro holes cutting very narrow
(c) both (1) and (2) slot in very hard material like diamond.
(d) non-conducting but magnetic • Used for making wire drawing dies. Heat affected
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper zone in this process is very less.
774
658. Maximum MRR of EDM process is 662. Ablation mechanism is used in which of the
approximately given by: following machining process?
(a) 5000 mm3/min (b) 5 × 105 mm3/min (a) Chemical machining
(c) 50 mm3/min (d) 0.5 mm3/min (b) Ultrasonic machining
SJVN ET 2019 (c) Laser beam machining
Ans. (a) : 5000 mm3/min (d) Electron beam machining
659. Consider following about Beam Machining Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
1. Low initial cost Ans. (a) : Ablation mechanism is used in chemical
machining process in which metal can be machined
2. Not very efficient process
with high qualities & good surface qualities.
3. Presence of Heat affected zone
663. Which of the following laser source can give the
4. Micro-holes cannot be drilled in difficult to
highest power density?
machine materials
(a) Plasma Arc (b) Electron beam
5. Not suitable for heat sensitive materials
(c) Laser continuous (d) laser pulsed
Of above, which are properties of LBM
APPSC AEE 2016
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 3, 4 and 5
Ans. (d) : Laser pulsed can give the highest power
(c) 2, 3 and 5 (d) 1, 3 and 4
density.
(e) 1, 2 and 5
664. In ultrasonic waves, the frequencies for
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
nondestructive testing of materials are in the
Ans. (c) : Laser Beam Machining Limitations range of
(i) High initial capital cost. (a) 0.5 MHz to 10 MHz
(ii) High maintenance cost (b) 10 MHz to 20 MHz
(iii) Not very efficient process (c) 20 MHz to 30 MHz
(iv) Presence of heat affected zone specially in gas (d) 30 MHz to 40 MHz
assist CO2 laser cutting. ESE 2019
(v) Thermal process not suitable for heat sensitive Ans. (a) : Generally sound waves range is from 0.5
materials like aluminium glass fiber laminate. MHz to 15 MHz but in answer option (a) is close to
(vi) Micro-holes can be drilled in difficult to machine above.
materials. 665. An iron container 10cm × 10cm at its base is
660. Consider the following statement concerning filled to a height of 20 cm with a corrosive
mechanism of material removal in Electron liquid. A current is produced as a result of an
Beam Machining electrolytic cell, and after four weeks, the
1. Mechanical erosion due to impact of high of container has decreased in weight by 70 g. If n
energy electrons = 2, F = 96500 C and M = 55.84 g/mole, the
2. Chemical etching by the high energy electron current will be
3. Sputtering due to high energy electrons (a) 0.05 A (b) 0.10 A
4. Melting and vaporisation due to thermal effect (c) 0.20 A (d) 0.40 A
of impingement of high energy electron ESE 2019
Of the above, which are correct Ans. (b) : Given,
(a) 1 (b) 1 and 3 Material removal = 70 g
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 4 Time = 4 × 7 × 24 × 3600 = 2419200 sec
(e) 3 and 4 70
MRR (g/s) = g/s
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift 2419200
Ans. (d) : Melting and vaporisation due to thermal n=Z=2
effect of impingement of high energy electron. F = 96500 C
661. The type of energy used in electrical discharge M = A = 55.84 g/mole
wire cutting is : AI
MRR =
(a) Mechanical energy ZF
(b) Chemical energy MRR × ZF
I=
(c) Electrical energy A
(d) Thermal energy  70 
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017   × 2 × 96500
=  2419200  = 0.10 A
Ans. (c, d) : Electrical energy and Thermal energy 55.84
775
666. The material removal rate will be higher in Ans. (c) : Effect of various parameter on MRR in
ultrasonic machining process for materials ultrasonic machining–
with 1. Effect of amplitude on MRR- Increase in
(a) higher ductility amplitude of vibration increase MRR.
(b) higher fracture strain 2. Effect of frequency on MRR- Frequency used
(c) higher toughness for maching process must be resonant frequency to
(d) lower toughness obtain the greatest amplitude at the tool tip and thus
ESE 2018 achieve the maximum utilization of the acoustic system.
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (d) : Ultrasonic machining process uses
vibrational energy of vibrating tool which hammers on
workpiece and due to mechanical impact of abrasive,
workpiece factures. Thus material removal rate will be
higher for those material which are brittle in nature or
lower in toughness.
667. In Electro-Discharge machining, the work
piece is connected to
(a) Cathode (b) Anode
(c) Earth (d) Electrolyte
TNPSC AE 2017
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper–I 3. Effect of abrasive grain size- An increase in
Ans. (b) : In Electro-Discharge machining, the work abrasive grain size results in higher MRR but is
piece is connected to Anode whereas EDM tool is achieved when abrasive grain size is comparable with
connected to cathode. amplitude of vibration of the tool. Hardness of the
abrasives and method of introducing the slurry has also
668. In which process the material is removed due
effect on MRR.
to the action of abrasive grains?
(a) Electro-Chemical Grinding (ECG)
(b) Ultrasonic Machining (USM)
(c) Laser Beam Machining (LBM)
(d) Electrical Discharge machining (EDM)
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (b) : In ultrasonic machining process the material
is removed due to the action of abrasive grains.
669. While machining copper alloys by Electro
chemical Machining the electrolyte used is
(a) Common salt (b) Sodium sulphate
(c) Sodium Chlorate (d) Sodium Nitrate 672. The machining process in which the metal of a
APPSC AEE 2016 workpiece dissolved, is
Ans. (b) : Sodium sulphate (a) Electrodischarge machining (EDM)
670. For unconventional machining process, (b) Electro chemical machining (ECM)
following is the correct sequence of decreasing (c) Ultrasonic machining (USM)
order of Material Removal Rate (MRR)
(d) Abrasive jet machining (AJM)
(a) ECM > EDM > USM
TNPSC 2019
(b) ECM > USM > EDM
(c) USM > EDM > ECM Ans. (b) : In electrochemical machining (ECM) process
(d) USM > ECM > EDM the metal of workpiece disolved.
TSPSC AEE 2015 673. Keeping all other parameters unchanged, the
Ans. (a) : ECM > EDM > USM tool wear in electrical discharge machining
671. In ultrasonic machining, Material Removal would be less if the tool material has
Rate with respect for grain size increase in (a) High thermal conductivity and high specific
(a) increases heat
(b) decreases (b) High thermal conductivity and low specific
(c) increases and decreases heat
(d) decreases and increases (c) Low thermal conductivity and low specific
TSPSC AEE 2015 heat
776
 (d) Low thermal conductivity and high specific 680. In EDM, the tool and work piece are separated
heat by
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 (a) Positive ions (b) Negative ions
Ans. (a) : High thermal conductivity and high specific (c) Metal conductor (d) Dielectric fluid
heat. Gujarat PSC AE 2019
UKPSC AE 2013 Paper–I
674. In electro discharge machining dielectric is Ans : (d) : Electric discharge machining (EDM) is an
used to : advanced machining process which are primarily used
(a) Help in the movement of the sparks for metals difficult to machine with the conventional
(b) Control the spark discharges machining process. Only electrically conducting
(c) Act as coolant materials are machined by this process. The EDM
(d) All of these process is best suited for making intricates cavities and
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 contours which would be difficult to produce with
Ans. (d) : In electro discharge machining dielectric is conventional machining cutting.
used to, The material removed takes place in EDM through a
! Help in the movements of the sparks. rapid series of electric discharges. The fine pieces of
! Control the spark discharges material removed for the workpiece gets flushed away
! Act as coolant. by the continuous flowing dielectric fluid.
675. In electro-chemical machining, the gap between 681. The selection of non-traditional machining
the tool and work is kept as : process for a particular application depends on
(a) 0.1 mm (b) 0.25 mm (a) Physical parameters of the process
(c) 0.4 mm (d) 0.75 mm (b) Shapes to be machined
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 (c) Process capability
Ans. (d) : In electro chemical machining the gap (d) All of the above
between the tool and work is kept as 0.75 mm. Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (d) : The selection of non-traditional machining
676. Which of the following machining processes
process for a particular application depends on-
involves cutting of a hard workpiece by a soft
• Physical parameters of the process.
material?
• Shape to be machined.
(a) Turning
• Process capability.
(b) Grinding
(c) Electro-discharge machining 682. In Electro Discharge machining better surface
finish is obtained at
(d) Honing
(a) Low frequency and low discharge current
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
(b) Low frequency and high discharge current
Ans : (c) : Electro-discharge machining (c) High frequency and low discharge current
677. Ductile materials can be machined in (d) High frequency and high discharge current.
Ultrasonic machining process. UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
(a) True (b) False Ans : (c) It Electro Discharge Machining better surface
(c) Partly true (d) Partly false finish is obtained at high frequency and low discharge
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I current.
Ans : (b) : An ultrasonic machining is primarily used The Surface produced by this process consist of
for machining hard and brittle material such as glass, microscopic craters and the quantity of the machined
carbide, ceramic and harden steel most of time these surface mainly depends on the energy per pulse. In the
materials are not conductive except hard steel. The energy content per pulse in high then the depth of
material of the tool is wear slowly during machining crater will increase causing a poor surface finish and
because of softness. vice-versa. The surface roughness is inversely
678. Non-conductive material can be machined by : proportional to the frequency of cutting which is equal
(a) LBM (b) EDM 1
to-
(c) ECM (d) All of these (Sparking time + Charging time)
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I Sparking time being very small compared to charging it
Ans : (a) :Non- conductive material can be machined could be said that frequency of cutting =
by LBM. 1
679. Electrolyte is used in which of the following Sparking time
process?
(a) EDM (b) WJM
(c) WEDM (d) ECM
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans : (d) : In ECM same tool be used for producing
infinite number of components because of no tool wear.

777
683. Which of the following non-conventional
machining methods does not cause tool wear?
(a) Anode mechanical machining
(b) Ultrasonic machining
(c) Electro-discharge machining
(d) Electro-Chemical Machining
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Ans : (d) Electro-chemical machining methods does
not cause tool wear.
Electrochemical Machining (ECM):- This process is
an extension of already known process of electroplating
with modification in a reverse direction. A shaped tool
or electrode is used in the process which forms cathode
and workpiece forms anode. A small gap is maintained
between the tool and workpiece and an electrolyte is
pumped through it. Low voltage direct current is used
which in the presence of electrolyte enables a control
removal of metal form workpiece by anodic
dissolution. The tool is provided with a constant feed
motion towards workpiece. the electrolyte is pumped at
a high pressure through the small gap between tool and
work piece.
684. In Electochemical machining, the gap
maintained between tool and work-piece is the
order of
(a) 0.05 mm (b) 0.1 mm
(c) 0.5 mm (d) 1 mm
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (c) In electochemical machining the gap
maintained between tool and work-piece is the order of
0.5 mm.
Electrochemical Machining:-This process is an
extension of already known process of electroplating
with modification in a reverse direction. A shaped tool
or electrode is used in the process which forms cathode
and workpiece forms anode.
685. Ultrasonic machining is best suited for
(a) tool steel (b) brass
(c) diamond (d) stainless steel
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (c) Ultrasonic machining is best suited for
diamond. It is mainly used for (i) Drilling (ii) Grinding
(iii) Profiling (iv) coining (v) threading (vi) welding
operations on all materials which can be treated suitable
by abrasives hard materials like stainless steel, glass,
ceramic, carbide, diamond, quartz and semi conductors
are machined by this process.
686. When the metal is removed by erosion caused
by rapidly recurring spark discharges between
the tool and work, the process is known as
(a) Electrochemical machining
(b) Electro discharge machining
(c) Ultrasonic machining
(d) Abrasive jet machining
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (b) Electro discharge machining:- when the
materials is removed by erosion caused by rapidly
recurring spark discharge between the tool and work
piece, the process is known as electro discharge
machining.
778
687. In electro-discharge machining process, in
order to remove maximum metal and have
minimum wear on the tool :
(a) the tool is made cathode and work piece as
anode
(b) the tool is made anode and the work piece as
cathode
(c) the tool and work piece should be of different
metals
(d) none of the above
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
Ans : (a) In electro - discharge machining process, in
order to remove maximum metal and have minimum
wear on the tool, the tool is made cathode and work
piece as Anode.
The Spark frequency is normally in the range 200-
50000 Hz, the spark gap being of the order of 0.025-
0.05mm. An metal removal rate up to 300mm3/min can
be obtained with this process. The efficiency and the
accuracy of performance have been found to improve
when a forced circulation of the dielectric fluid is
provided. The most commonly used dielectric fluid is
kerosene. The tool is generally made of brass or copper
only.
688. During ultrasonic machining the metal
removal is achieved by :
(a) high frequency eddy currents
(b) high frequency sound waves
(c) hammering action of abrasive particles
(d) rubbing action between tool and work piece
(KPSC AE. 2015)
Ans : (c) During ultrasonic machining the metal
removal is achieved by hammering action of abrasive
particles.
Ultrasonic machining:-Ultrasonic waves are sound
waves which propagate at frequency of 18 to 30 lc/sec
and are thus beyond the human ear to respond, no heat
is generate in case of ultrasonic machining and it
provides better working performance. This process is
best suited for machining circular and non-circular
holes in hard to machine and brittle metals whether
Conducting or non-Conducting Ultrasonic waves can be
generated by piezoelectric or magnetostrictive effects.
689. As tool and work are not in contact in EDM
process
(a) no relative motion occurs between them
(b) no wear of tool occurs
(c) no power is consumed during metal cutting
(d) no force between tool and work occurs
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (d) As tool and work are not in contact in EDM
because no force between tool and work occurs.
690. Which one of the following processes does not Ans. (a) : Metal in electro-chemical machining process
cause tool wear is removed by migration of ions towards the tool.
(a) Ultrasonic machining 694. In Electro-chemical machining material
(b) Electro discharge machining removal is due to:-
(a) Corrosion (b) Erosion
(c) Laser beam machining
(c) Fusion (d) Ion displacement
(d) Anode mechanical machining UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
MPPSC AE 2016 Ans. (d) : In Electro-chemical machining material
Ans : (c) Laser beam machining does not tool wear. removal is due to Ion displacement
Laser beam Welding:- 695. Which of the following is not a limitation for
* In laser welding a concentrated coherent light beam ECM process:-
impinges at the desired spot to melt and weld the (a) Very expensive
metal. (b) Sharp corners are difficult to produce
* The most useful laser for welding is the laser in which (c) Surface finish is not good
the lasing medium is mixture of CO2, nitrogen, and (d) Use of corrosive media as electrolyte makes it
helium in the ratio of 1:1"10 at a pressure of 20 to 50 difficult to handle
mm of mercury. UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
691. Which of the following process has very high Ans. (c) : Surface finish is not good
material removal rate efficiency? 696. The rate of work material removal in USM
(a) Electro beam machining operation is proportional to the:-
(b) Electro chemical machining (a) Volume of work material removed per impact
(c) Electric discharge machining (b) Number of particles making impact per cycle
(d) Plasma arc machining (c) Frequency of vibration
UJVNL AE 2016 (d) All of the above
Ans : (c) Electric discharge machining process has very UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
high material removal rate efficiency. Ans. (d) : All of the above.
The spork frequency is normally in the range 200- 697. The most suitable manufacturing process for
500000Hz. the spark gap being of the order of 0.25- machining a turbine blade made of nimonic
0.05mm. An metal removal rate upto 300m3/min can be alloy is:-
obtained with this process. (a) Milling and lapping
692. Consider the following work piece materials: (b) Electric discharge machining
(i) Carbides (ii) Glass (c) Ultrasonic machining
(iii) Copper and (iv) Ceramics (d) Electro-chemical machining
Which of the above materials are best suited UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
for ultrasonic Machining. Ans. (d) : The most suitable manufacturing process for
(a) (ii) Only (b) (ii) and (iii) machining a turbine blade made of nimonic alloy is
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) electro-chemical machining.
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I 698. The electrolyte used in ECM process is:-
Ans : (c) (a) Transformer oil
Ultrasonic Machining (USM):- Ultrasonic means (b) White spirit
those vibrational waves having a frequency above the (c) Aqueous solution of common salt
normal hearing range (e.g. 20K-30K Hz). In this (d) None of the above
method slurry of the abrasive grains are hammered on UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
to the work surface by a vibrating tool normal to work Ans. (c) : The electrolyte used in ECM process is
surface removing the workpiece material in the form of aqueous solution of common salt.
extremely small chips. Tools is feed gradually is used 699. Which one of the following is most important
to increase the amplitude to the level needed for parameter for EDM ?
machining. (a) Thermal capacity (b) Hardness
Application :- (c) Strength (d) Geometry
(i) Normally used for making dies UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(ii) Machining hard carbides, glasses and precious Ans. (a) : Thermal capacity
stones 700. A hole of 1 mm is to be drilled in glass. It could
(iii) Also used for dental application.
be best done by
693. Metal in electro-chemical machining process is (a) Laser drilling
removed by:- (b) Plasma drilling
(a) Migration of ions towards the tool
(c) Ultrasonic drilling
(b) Ionization and shearing
(d) Electron beam drilling
(c) Chemical action and abrasion
(d) Chemical etching UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I Ans. (c) : Ultrasonic drilling
779
701. The following is not true for ECM : (d) chemical action
(a) It can machine highly complicated shapes in a UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
single pass. Ans. (a) : Melting and vapourization
(b) Tool life is very high. 708. Which one of the following is most important
(c) Machinability of the work material is for EDM?
independent of its physical and mechanical (a) thermal capacity (b) hardness
properties. (c) strength (d) geometry
(d) Kerosene is use as electrolyte. UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I Ans. (a) : Thermal capacity
Ans. (d) : Kerosene is use as electrolyte. 709. The tool material used in USM is
702. Which is the false statement about electro (a) Mild Steel (b) High Speed Steel
discharge machining ? (c) Carbides (d) Ceramics
(a) It can machine very hard material. UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(b) Very good surface finish is obtained. Ans. (a) : Mild Steel
(c) Section to be machined should be thick.
(d) Metal removal rate is very slow. 710. The current used during EDM is
(a) AC (b) pulsed AC
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(c) DC (d) pulsed DC
Ans. (c) : Section to be machined should be thick. UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
703. The process in which the material removal rate Ans. (d) : Pulsed DC
is governed by Faraday’s law is ?
(a) ECM (b) EDM 711. For efficient cutting of material with Laser
(c) AJM (d) LBM Beam Machining, the material must be
(a) good conductor of electricity
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(b) bad conductor of heat
Ans. (a) : ECM (c) good conductor of heat
704. In EDM, metal removal rate is proportional to (d) good conductor of heat and electricity
(a) Frequency of charging UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(b) Energy delivered in each spark Ans. (b) : Bad conductor of heat
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above 712. Following electrolyte is used in electro-
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I chemical machining process:
(a) kerosene (b) transformer oil
Ans. (c) : Both (a) and (b) (c) brine solution (d) water
705. Choose the alternative, which explains the UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
correct relationship between the given Ans. (c) : Brine solution
statements, (A) & (R) from the code given
below : 713. The correct sequence of operations for
Assertion (A) : In ECM, the shape of the cavity is machining a precise rectangular window in a
the mirror image of the tool, but unlike EDM, the through hardening die steel workpiece is
tool wear in ECM is a cathode. (a) heat treatment, surface grinding, drilling, wire
Reason (R) : The tool in ECM is a Cathode. EDM
(b) drilling, wire EDM, heat treatment, surface
Code :
(a) Both (A) & (R) are true. (R) is the correct grinding
explanation of (A). (c) drilling, heat treatment, surface grinding, wire
(b) Both (A) & (R) are true. (R) is not the correct EDM
explanation of (A). (d) surface grinding, heat treatment, wire EDM,
(c) (A) is false, but (R) is true. drilling
(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false. BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I Ans : (c) : The correct sequence of operations for
Ans. (c) : (A) is false, but (R) is true. machining a through hardening die steel work piece is
Drilling, heat treatment, surface grinding.
706. In USM process the material removal rate is
higher for materials with 714. Which of the following process has least power
(a) higher toughness (b) higher ductility consumption in kW/cm2/min?
(c) higher fracture strain (d) lower toughness (a) Plasma arc machining
(b) Laser beam machining
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(c) Ultrasonic machining
Ans. (c) : Higher fracture strain (d) Electro discharge machining
707. The mechanism of metal removal in Electron Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Beam Machining is Ans. (a) : Plasma arc machining process has least
(a) melting and vapourization power consumption in kW/cm2/min. In this machining
(b) shear the arc is formed between an electrode and the work-
(c) ion-displacement piece.
780
 7. NC & CNC Systems
715. Consider the following statements in the
context of a CNC lathe machine:
1. The X axis controls the cross motion of the
cutting tool
2. The Z axis controls the travel of the carriage
towards or away from the headstock
3. The Y axis controls the motion of the job
4. The X-Y-Z axes are used for rotational
movement of the table
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
JWM 2017
Ans. (b) : For lathes, the x-axis is the cross-slide motion
at a right angle to the spindle axis.
Simple CNC lathes are two-axis machines and
have no y-axis.
The axis of motion that is parallel to the spindle
axis is always the z-axis.
716. Which of the step of "operator controlled
machine tool" and "NC machine tool" is
similar?
(a) Component drawing
(b) Control unit
(c) Recording on the tape
(d) Programming
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (a) : Component drawing step of "operator
controlled machine tool" and "NC machine tool" is
similar.
717. Which of the following is incorrect for NC
machine tool?
(a) Instruction undergoes electronic processing
and outcome is the pulsed command
(b) Instruction for manufacturing the components
are given verbally to the instructive and he
executes the given instruction
(c) Control unit sends signals to drive unit of
machine tool and to magnetic box
(d) Instruction for manufacturing the components
are written in coded language and read by
tape recorder
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (b) : Instruction for manufacturing the components
are given verbally to the instructive and he executes the
given instruction is incorrect for NC machine tool.
718. Which of the following is not the actuation
system of NC machine tool?
(a) Contour system
(b) Pneumatic system
(c) Electromechanical system
(d) Hydraulic system
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (a) : Contour system is not the actuation system of
NC machine tool.
781
719. Which of the following is not a true statement
for CNC system?
(a) Operation of CNC machine is very easy
relative to NC machine
(b) Programme to manufacture a component can
be easily called in CNC relative to NC
machine
(c) Reprogramming in CNC is more difficult
than NC system
(d) CNC machine has self-diagnostic features
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (c) : Reprogramming in CNC is more difficult
than NC system is not true statement for CNC system.
720. Adaptive control feature is used:
(a) For automation
(b) Only to give better surface finish to the
components
(c) Only to reduce power consumed by machine
(d) For inventory control
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (a) : Adaptive control feature is used for
automation.
Adaptive control—Improvement in CNC machine
tools depend on the refinement of adaptive control,
which is the automatic monitoring and adjustment of
machining conditions in response to variation in
operation performance with a manually controlled
machine tool, the operator watches for changes in
machining performance and makes the necessary
mechanical adjustment. An essential element of NC and
CNC machining, adaptive control is needed to protect
the tool, the workpiece, and the machine from damage
caused by malfunctions or by unexpected changes in
machine behaviour. Adaptive control is also a
significant factor in developing unmanned machining
techniques.
721. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) CNC machine can diagnose program
(b) CNC machine has higher flexibility in
comparison to NC machine
(c) Data reading error in CNC machine is low in
comparison to NC machine
(d) Conversion of units in CNC machine is not
possible
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (d) : Conversion of units in CNC machine is not
possible is incorrect.
722. General description of CAD does not consist of :
(a) Implementation (b) Synthesis
(c) Presentation (d) Optimization
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (a) General description of CAD does not consist
of Implementation
723. Volume of work produced in FMS
environment is determined from :
(a) Number of machine used in the FMS
 (b) Kind of material handing equipment used in
FMS
(c) Kind of layout used in FMS
(d) All are correct
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (d) Volume of work produced in FMS
environment is determined from
i. Number of machine used in the FMS
ii. Kind of material handling equipment used in FMS.
iii. Kind of layout used in FMS.
724. Machining time in NC and CNC machine tools
is_____ in comparison to conversional machine
tool:
(a) More (b) Less
(c) Unpredictable (d) Equal
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (b) Machining time in NC and CNC machine
tools is less Comparison to conversional machine tool.
725. APT is used
(a) in teaching of the beginners
(b) in CAM for NC machine tools
(c) in inventory management
(d) None of the above
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
Ans : (b) APT is used in CAM for NC machine tools.
726. CAE and CAM are linked through
(a) a common database and communication
system
(b) NC-type programming and automated desing
(c) assembly automation and tool production
(d) parts production and testing
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
Ans : (b) CAE and CAM are linked through NC type
programming and Automated design.
727. The core product model required for any
CAD/CAM system :
(a) Data model (b) Solid model
(c) Prototype (d) Geometric model
(KPSC AE. 2015)
Ans : (d) The Core product model required for any
CAD/CAM system Geometric Model .
728. In a CNC machine tool, encoder is used to
sense and control:
(a) Table position (b) Table velocity
(c) Spindle speed (d) Coolant flow
UJVNL AE 2016
Ans : (a) In a CNC Machine tool, encoder is used to
sense and control table position.
729. What is the purpose of satellite computers in
Distributed Numerical Control machines?
(a) To act as stand by systems
(b) To share the processing of large size NC
(c) To serve a group of NC machines
(d) To network with another DNC setup
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (b) To share the processing of large size NC.
730. In which machining system, the highest level of
automation is found?
(a) CNC machine tools
782
(b) Automatic transfer machines
(c) Machine tools with electro hydraulic
positioning and control
(d) DNC machining system
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (c) The highest level of automation is Machine
tools with electro hydraulic positioning and Control.
731. Which one of the following has automatic tool
changing unit and a component indexing
device :
(a) Machining center (b) NC system
(c) CNC system (d) DNC system
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (a) Machining centre has automatic tool changing
unit and a component indexing device.
732. In a CIM industry ........... is also used as
transportation means for work parts and tools.
(a) AGV (b) NC machine tool
(c) RCC device (d) None of these
(HPPSC LECT. 2016)
Ans : (a) In a CIM industry AGV is also used as
transportation means for work parts and tools.
733. Transfer machines can be defined as :
(a) Material Processing machines
(b) Material handling machines
(c) Material Processing and Material handling
machines
(d) Components feeders for automatic assembly
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (c) Transfer machines can be define as materials
processing and materials handling machines.
734. Punched tape is used in ?
(a) NC machine (b) CNC machine
(c) NC and CNC both (d) DNC machine
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (a) Punch tape is used in NC machine.
735. In a CNC machine tool, encoder is used to
sense and control :
(a) Spindle speed (b) Spindle position
(c) Table position (d) All of these
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
Ans : (c) In a CNC machine tool, encoder is used to
sense and control Table position.
736. Statement (I) : The stepper motor is a device
that produces rotation through equal angles,
the so-called steps, for each digital pulse
supplied to its input.
Statement (II) : Stepper motors can be used to
give controlled rotational steps but cannot give
continuous rotation, as a result their
applications are limited to step angles only.
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I).
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true, but Statement (II) is not the
correct explanation of Statement (I).
(c) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is
false.
 (d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is 742. Consider the situation where a microprocessor
true. gives an output of an 8-bit word. This is fed
ESE 2020 through an 8-bit digital-to-analogue converter
Ans. (c) : Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is to a control valve. The control valve requires
false. 6.0 V being fully open. If the fully open state is
indicated by 11111111, the output to the valve
737. An example of the delimiter in a FORTRAN
for a change of 1-bit will be
program is
(a) Semi colon (b) Double colon (a) 0.061 V (b) 0.042 V
(c) Single colon (d) Comma (c) 0.023 V (d) 0.014 V
JPSC AE PRE 2019 ESE 2020
Ans. (d) : Comma 6.0
Ans. (c) : 8 = 0.023V
738. Which one is a valid variable declaration in 2
FORTRAN? 743. Hard automation is also called
(a) Real : : Celcius (b) Real Celcius (a) Selective automation
(c) Celcius Real (d) Real : : Celcius (b) Total automation
JPSC AE PRE 2019 (c) Group technology
Ans. (a) : Real : : Celcius (d) Fixed position automation
739. A flow chart that outlines the main segments of ESE 2020
any program: Ans. (d) : Fixed position automation
(a) Micro (b) Queue 744. The method of CNC programming which
(c) Macro (d) Union enables the programmer to describe part
JPSC AE PRE 2019 geometry using variables is
Ans. (c) : A flow chart that outlines the main segments (a) Computer assisted part programming
of any program is macro. (b) Computer aided drafting programming
740. Statement (I) : The size of a memory unit is (c) Conversational programming
specified in terms of the number of storage (d) Parametric programming
locations available; 1 K is 210 = 1024 locations ESE 2020
and thus a 4 K memory has 4096 locations. Ans. (d) : Parametric programming
Statement (II) : Erasable and programmable
ROM (EPROM) is a form of memory unit used 745. Flexible manufacturing allows for
for ROMs that can be programmed and their (a) automated design
contents altered. (b) factory management
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are (c) tool design and tool production
individually true and Statement (II) is the (d) quick and inexpensive product changes
correct explanation of Statement (I). BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are Ans : (d) Flexible manufacturing allows for quick and
individually true, but Statement (II) is not the inexpensive product changes.
correct explanation of Statement (I). 746. In FMS the tools are identified by means of :
(c) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is (a) colour code (b) bar code
false. (c) PLC (d) digital code
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is (KPSC AE. 2015)
true.
Ans : (b) In FMS the tools are Identified by means of
ESE 2020
bar Code.
Ans. (b) : Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
747. Goal Programming can involve:
individually true, but Statement (II) is not the correct
(a) One objective; one constraint
explanation of Statement (I).
(b) One objectives; multi constraints
741. Which of the following features is/are relevant
(c) Multi objectives; multi constraints
to variable reluctance stepper motors?
(d) Multi objectives; one constraint
1. Smaller rotor mass; more responsive
2. Step size is small SJVN ET 2013
3. More sluggish Ans. (c) : Goal programming can involve multi
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only objectives ; multi constraints.
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 748. In measures of capacity, the system efficiency is
ESE 2020 expressed as ratio of–
Ans. (a) : Smaller rotor mass; more responsive. (a) Actual output to the system capacity
783
 (b) Actual output to Design capacity (c) Enlarge of reduce the object proportionally
(c) System capacity to Design capacity (d) To rotate the object or a part of it around a
(d) Design capacity to system capacity point
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper SJVN ET 2019
Ans. (a) : In measure capacity, the system efficiency Ans. (c) : "Scale" command in Auto CAD is used to
ratio is expressed as the ratio of actual output to the enlarge or reduce the object proportionally.
system capacity. 755. The command in AutoCAD which is used to
749. SIMD represents an organization that....... bevel the edge of object is known as:
(a) Refers to a computer system capable of (a) offset (b) chamfer
processing several programs at the same time. (c) fillet (d) stretch
(b) Represents organization of single computer SJVN ET 2019
containing a control unit, processor unit and a Ans. (b) : chamfer
memory unit. 756. The command M02 is used in CNC
(c) Includes many processing units under the programming for–
supervision of a common control unit (a) Program Stop (b) End of Program
(d) None of the above (c) Spindle ON (d) Optional Stop
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (b) : SIMD represent an organization that Ans. (b) : The command M02 is used to end the
computer of single computer represents organization of program in CNC machine.
single computer containing a control unit, processor unit 757. Consider the following components :
and a memory unit. (1) A dedicated computer
750. Oval shaped symbol is used in flow charts to (2) Bulk memory
show the– (3) Telecommunication lines
(a) decision box (b) statement box Which of these components are required for a
(c) error box (d) start and end DNC system?
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper (a) (1), (2) and (3) (b) (2) and (3)
Ans. (d) : Oval shaped symbol is used in flow chart to (c) (1) and (2) (d) (1) and (3)
represent the start and end. TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
751. Which of following register of the processor is Ans. (a) : A dedicated computer, bulk memory and also
connected to memory Bus? telecommunication lines are required for DNC system.
(a) PC (b) MAR 758. Machining centre is a
(c) RAM (d) IR (a) NC machine tool
JPSC AE PRE 2019 (b) Transfer machine tool
Ans. (b) : The Memory Address Register (MAR) is the (c) Group of automatic machine tools
CPU register that either stores the memory address from (d) Next logical step beyond NC machine
which data will be fetched to the CPU or the address to SJVN ET 2013
which data will be sent and stored. In other words, Ans. (c) :
MAR holds the memory location of data that need to be • Machining centre is a group of automatic machine
accessed. tools.
752. In C programs, a compiler is used to convert • It includes an automatic tool changer and a table
the given program into– that clamps the workpiece in place against the tool.
(a) Assembly language (b) Machine language 759. The limitations of a pneumatically operated
(c) Decimal language (d) None of these automatic control system is
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper (a) Complexity of components
Ans. (b) : In C-language the complier is used to convert (b) Costly maintenance
a given program in machine language. (c) Suffers from the transmission lags and slow
753. Language used to solve complex mathematical response
computations is– (d) None of the above
(a) FORTAN (b) COBOL Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
(c) Pascal (d) Ada Ans. (a) : The limitation of a pneumatically operated
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper automatic control system is more difficult or complexity
Ans. (a) : Fortan language is used for complex because of the compressed air is used in system, to
calculation of Mathematical computations. transmit and control energy.
754. "SCALE" command in AutoCAD is used to: 760. The function of interpolator in a CNC machine
(a) To create multiple copies of the object controller is to:
(b) Measure the dimension of the object (a) Control spindle speed
784
 (b) Coordinate feed rates of axes
(c) Perform miscellaneous functions (tool
change, coolant control etc)
(d) None of the above
UP Jal Nigam AE 2016
Ans. (b) : An Interpolator provides two functions-
(i) It computes individual axis velocities to drive the
tool along the programmed path at the given feed rate.
(ii) It generates intermediate coordinate position along
the programmed path.
761. CAE and CAM are linked through
(a) A common database and communication
system
(b) NC type programming and automated design
(c) Assembly automation and tool production
(d) Parts production and testing
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (a) : CAE and CAM are linked through A
common database and communication system.
762. Flexible manufacturing allows for
(a) Automated design
(b) Factory management
(c) Tool design and tool production
(d) Quick and inexpensive product changes
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (d) : Flexible manufacturing allows for quick and
inexpensive product changes.
763. Calligraphic is
(a) coloured image (b) coloured drawing
(c) line drawing (d) dot matrix
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (c) : Calligraphic is line drawing.
764. A technique for displaying applications where
complex 3-D geometric are required for the
exterior shell of a product is called
(a) 2-D modeling
(b) Solid modeling
(c) 3-D modeling
(d) Surface modeling
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (d) : A technique for displaying applications
where complex 3-D geometric are required for the
exterior shell of a product is called Surface modeling.
765. Feed drives in CNC milling machines are
provided by
(a) synchronous motors (b) induction motors
(c) stepper motors (d) servo-motors
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (d) : Feed drives in CNC milling machines are
provided by servo-motors.
766. The difference between CAD and CAM is that
CAD software is directed at product design
while (CAM software is)
(a) concerned with production and control of tool
design
(b) Concerned with management programs
(c) Specifically for PC board design
(d) designed for communications
TNPSC AE 2017
785
Ans. (a) : CAM software is concerned with production
and control of tool design.
767. Which one of the following is not the division of
Flexible Manufacturing System (FMS) Class?
(a) Flexible Manufacturing Module (FMM)
(b) Flexible Fabrication - Machining - Assembly
System (FFMAS)
(c) Flexible Manufacturing Group (FMG)
(d) Flexible Manufacturing Technology (FMT)
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (d) : Flexible manufacturing technology (FMT) is
not the division of FMS class.
768. CAD/CAM technology was initiated in the
(a) Die industry
(b) Nuclear industry
(c) Aerospace industry
(d) Medical industry
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (c) : CAD/CAM technology was initiated in the
Aerospace industry.
769. In NC part programming F-code indicates
(a) the type of motion or action is to be carried
out
(b) the spindle speed at which the spindle rotates
(c) the type of tool
(d) the rate at which the spindle moves along a
programming axis
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (d) : In NC part programming F-code indicates the
rate at which the spindle moves along a programming
axis.
770. The roles of rover operator in CIM system are
(a) the supervision of other Human Resources in
the system
(b) making the tools ready for production
(c) setting up the fixtures, pallets and tools for
the system
(d) reacting to unscheduled machine shops,
identifying broken tools and tool adjustments
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (d) : The roles of rover operator in CIM system
are reacting to unscheduled machine shops, identifying
broken tools and tool adjustments.
771. The APT (Automatically Programmed Tools)
language is used in
(a) Drafting system
(b) NC machines
(c) Programmable controllers
(d) Large automation system
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) : The APT (Automatically Programmed Tools)
language is used in NC machines.
772. The translation distances dx, dy is called as
(a) translation vector
(b) shift vector
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither translation or shift but δ
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (c) : The translation distance dx, dy is called Ans. (b) : For lathes, the x-axis is the cross-slide motion
translation vector and shift vector. at a right angle to the spindle axis.
773. MACRO subroutine is defined by the format Simple CNC lathes are two-axis machines and
(a) MACRO = Parameter have no y-axis.
(b) Symbol = MACRO / Parameter The axis of motion that is parallel to the spindle
axis is always the z-axis.
(c) MACRO / Parameter
(d) MACRO 778. The term ATC in CNC machine tool means
(a) Automatic tool control
TNPSC AE 2018
(b) Automatic tool changer
Ans. (b) : MACRO subroutine is defined by the format (c) Automatic table contour
Symbol = MACRO / Parameter. (d) automatic tool coding
774. Choose the wrong statement: TSPSC AEE 2015
(a) CNC computers control only one machine Ans. (b) : The term ATC in CNC machine tool means
while DNC computer control many machines automatic tool changer.
using local networking 779. M06 represents the following instruction in
(b) CNC computers is an integrated part of the CNC programming.
machine whereas DNC computer is located at (a) Program stop (b) tool change
a distance from the machine (c) coolant on (d) spindle on
(c) DNC computers are having higher processing TSPSC AEE 2015
power than CNC computers Ans. (b) : M06 represents the tool change instruction in
(d) DNC software done not take core of CNC programming.
management of information flow to a group 780.
of machines
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (d) : DNC software done not take core of
management of information flow to a group of
machines is a wrong statement.
775. In Retrieval CAPP system.
(a) No standard manufacturing plans are stored
(b) A standard process plan is stored in computer
files for each part code number
(c) Engineering drawing specifications are As shown figure 'L1' is expressed in APT as
translated into compute interpretable data (a) L1 = LINE / TANTO C1
(d) Manufacturing plans are prepared (b) L1 = LINE / INTOF C1
TNPSC AE 2018 (c) L1 = LINE / P1, LFT TANTO C1
Ans. (b) : In Retrieval CAPP system A standard process (d) L1 = LINE / P1, RGT TANTO C1
plan is stored in computer files for each part code TSPSC AEE 2015
number. Ans. (c) : L1 = LINE / P1, LFT TANTO C1
776. Most FEM software use 781. In a 2-D CAD package, clockwise circular arc
(a) displacement method (b) force method of radius, 5, specified from P1 (15, 10) to P2
(c) skyline method (d) stress method (10, 15) will have its center at
(a) (10,10) (b) (15,10)
TNPSC AE 2018
(c) (15,15) (d) (10,15)
Ans. (a) : Most FEM software use displacement Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
method.
Ans. (c) : According to problem
777. Consider the following statements in the
context of a CNC lathe machine:
1. The X axis controls the cross motion of the
cutting tool
2. The Z axis controls the travel of the carriage
towards or away from the headstock
3. The Y axis controls the motion of the job
4. The X-Y-Z axes are used for rotational
movement of the table
Which of the above statements are correct? The figure indicates that the centre of arc is at O
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (15, 15)
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 Note:-The answer given by the commission is
JWM 2017 option (a)
786
782. The widely employed computer architecture
for CAD/CAM application
(a) Mainframe-based system
(b) Minicomputer-based system
(c) Microcomputer-based system
(d) Workstation-based system
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Ans. (d) : The widely employed computer architecture
for CAD/CAM application is workstation based system.
783. NC contouring is an example of
(a) incremental positioning
(b) absolute positioning
(c) point - to - point positioning
(d) continuous path positioning
TNPSC 2019
APPSC AEE 2016
Ans. (d) : NC contouring is an example of continuous
path positioning.
784. During the executing of a CNC part program
block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type of
tools motion will be
(a) circular Interpolation-clockwise
(b) circular Interpolation- counter clockwise
(c) linear Interpolation
(d) rapid feel
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
Ans. (a) : Code GO2 represents the circular
interpolation in clockwise direction. To cut on are we
use the codes GO2 and GO3 in which GO2 cuts in
clockwise direction and GO3 cuts in counter clockwise
direction.
785. A line with tapering width can be easily created
by using the.......tool.
(a) Line (b) Polyline
(c) Eclipse (d) Circle
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Ans. (b) : A line with tapering width can be easily
created by using the polyline tool.
786. When setting up a mechanical drawing in
AutoCAD the drafter should set units to........
(a) Metric (b) Decimal
(c) Fractional (d) Architectural
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Ans. (b) : Decimal
787. In computer aided drafting practice, an arc is
defined by
(a) Two end points only
(b) Center and radius
(c) Radius and one center point
(d) Two end points and center
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Ans. (d) : In computer aided drafting practice, an arc is
defined by two points and center.
– one end point and angle of arc and center.
– two end points angle of arc and radius.
788. Out of the following which type of coding
system is used in NC programming?
(a) Indian coding system
(b) Binary coding system
787
(c) Discrete coding system
(d) None of the above
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (b) : NC machining is the form of programmable
automation in which the process is controlled by the
number letters and symbols, here automation of medium
and small volume production (batch type) is done by
some controls under the instructions of a program. It
requires more time for the execution of the job in
comparison with special purpose machine tool.
789. In the G code of NC part programming, G21
refers to
(a) Input values specified in millimeters
(b) Return to reference point
(c) Thread cutting in turning
(d) Dwell for a specified time
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (a) : G21- Input values specified in milimeters.
790. In NC part programming, M code specifies
(a) End of block function
(b) Miscellaneous or auxiliary functions
(c) Tool selection function
(d) Preparatory function
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (b) : M codes for coolant and other activities.
791. In automatically programmed tool (APT),
motion commands are used to specify the
(a) Tool path (b) Dimensions
(c) Tolerance value (d) None of the above
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (a) : In automatically programmed tool (APT),
motion command are used to specify the tool path.
792. CNC machines are best suited, when
(a) production volumes are very high and there is
no product variety
(b) holes are to be bored at precise locations
(c) very small production volumes and product
varieties are involved, while accuracy
requirements are not very stringent
(d) a moderate production volume is combined
with a moderate product variety and
contoured shapes are to be cut
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
Ans : (d) : CNC machines are best suited when a
moderate production volume is combined with a
moderate product variety and contoured shapes are to be
cut.
793. In CAD, a solid model is generated by using 10
numbers of primitives. The total number of
Boolean operations required to generate the
solid model would be
(a) 7 (b) 9
(c) 3 (d) 4
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (b) : In CAD, a solid mode is generated by using
10 numbers of primitives. The total number of Boolean
operations required to generate the solid model would
be 9.
794. The completeness and unambiguity of a solid (b) Direct: 22 and Indirect: 14
model are attributed to fact that: (c) Direct: 12 and Indirect: 24
Database stores both .............. and ................ (d) None of the above
information. Gujarat PSC AE 2019
(a) Geometry and mathematical Ans : (a) : Direct : 42 and indirect : 14
(b) Geometry and topology 801. If the z-axis and x-axis of CNC lathe are
(c) Pictorial and size provided with straight line controls, it is
(d) Design and data possible to carry out
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 (a) Turning and facing only
Ans : (b) : The completeness and unambiguity of a (b) Turning, facing and taper turning
solid model are attributed to fact that detabases stores (c) Turning, facing and thread cutting
both geometry and topology inforamtion. (d) Turning, facing and drilling
795. Design of tools is a part of CAD or CAM? Gujarat PSC AE 2019
(a) CAD (b) CAM Ans : (b) : If the z-axis and x-axis of CNC lathe are
(c) Both (d) None provided with straight line controls, it is possible to
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 carry out turning, facing and taper turning.
Ans : (b) : Design of tools is a part of (CAM) 802. Machining of complex shapes on CNC
computer-aided manufacturing. machines requires
796. Mass property calculations depend upon (a) Simultaneous control of x, y and z axes
(a) Geometry only (b) Simultaneous control of x and y axes
(b) Topology only (c) Independent control of x, y and z axes
(c) Geometry and topology (d) Independent control of x, y and z axes
(d) None APPSC AEE 2016
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 Ans. (a) : Machining of complex shapes on CNC
Ans : (c) : Mass property calculation depends upon machines requires simultaneous control of x, y and z axes.
geometry and topology. 803. The interpolator in a CNC machine controls
797. What type of format the IGES system uses? (a) Spindle speed (b) Coolant flow
(a) Binary (b) Non-binary (c) Feed rate (d) Tool change
(c) Program format (d) None of these APPSC AEE 2016
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 Ans. (c) : The interpolator in a CNC machine controls
Ans : (a) : Binary. feed rate.
798. Scaling factors are always positive. Negative 804. Flexible manufacturing allows for
scale factors produce ................ (a) Tool design and tool production
(a) Reflection (b) Crap (b) Quick and inexpensive product changes
(c) Zoom (d) Protrusion (c) Automated design
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 (d) Factory management
Ans : (a) : Scaling factors are always positive. Negative APPSC AEE 2016
scale factors produce reflection. Ans. (b) : Flexible manufacturing allows for quick and
inexpensive product changes.
799. In NC motion control system, the system which
is capable of continuous and simultaneous 805. A simulation model uses the mathematical
control of two or more axis refers to expressions and logical relationships of the
(a) Continuous path system (a) Estimated inferences
(b) Point to point path system (b) Performance measures
(c) Discrete system (c) Computer model
(d) None of the above (d) Real system
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 APPSC AEE 2016
Ans : (a) : Continuous path system- In continuous Ans. (d) : A simulation model uses the mathematical
path system, cutting tool usually remains in contact with expressions and logical relationships of the real system.
workpiece as it travels from one programmed point to 806. Which of the following is not a CAPP approach
next continuous path controlled cause the tool to (a) Variant approach
maintain continuous contact with the part as the tool (b) Generative approach
cuts a contour shape. (c) Hybrid approach
800. How many translators are required for 7 (d) Expert system approach
CAD/CAM systems using (a) direct and (b) APPSC AEE 2016
indirect translation? Ans. (d) : Expert system approach in not a CAPP
(a) Direct: 42 and Indirect: 14 approach.
788
807. Which one of the following systems is 811. Which of the following are the principal
consisting of processing stations, material functions of a CNC machine?
handling and storage, computer control system 1. Machine tool control
and human labour? 2. In process compensation
(a) Portable manufacturing system 3. Improved programming and operating
(b) Focused integrated system features
(c) Flexible manufacturing system (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Automated integrated system (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
JWM 2017
ESE 2019
Ans. (d) : Function of CNC machine-
Ans. (c) : Flexible manufacturing system (FMS) consist
• Machine tool control precisely
of a group of NC machines connected together by an • Speed up production
automated material handling system and operating • Consistent machine each and every time
under computer control. • Improved programming and operating features.
The basic components of FMS are machine tools and
the related equipment, material handling equipment,
computer control system and human labour. 8. Jigs & Fixtures
808. Consider the following statements with
812. Use of jigs and fixtures leads to:-
reference to NC machines: (a) High operational cost
1. Both closed-loop and open-loop systems are
(b) High maintenance cost
used.
(c) High Initial cost
2. Papers, tapes, floppy tapes and cassettes are
(d) High manufacturing cost
used for data storage. UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
3. Digitizers may be used as interactive input
Ans. (c) : Use of jigs and fixtures leads to high Initial
devices.
cost.
4. Post-processor is an item of hardware.
Which of the above statements are correct? 813. Which of the following operations does not use
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 a jig?
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Turning (b) Drilling
ESE 2017 (c) Reaming (d) Tapping
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
Ans. (d) : Post processor is used in CNC machines only
Ans. (a) : Jig used for hold the workpiece and guide the
but no post processor is used in NC machines.
tool in drilling, reaming and tapping opeations.
So, statement-4 is wrong.
A post processor is a unique "driver" specific to a CNC 814. Which of the following operation does not use a
machine, robot or mechanism. jig ?
(a) Tapping (b) Reaming
809. Consider the following benefits of CIM:
(c) Drilling (d) Turning
1. Less direct labour
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
2. Less scrap and rework
3. Higher machine use Ans. (d) : Turning
Which of the above are correct? 815. Which of the following is not true in case of jigs
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only and fixtures ?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only (a) Consistency in dimension
ESE 2017 (b) Fast production speed is not possible
Ans. (a) : (i) With computer integrated manufacturing (c) Auto-location control
(CIM), it is possible to make the manless manufacturing (d) None of the above
therefore less direct labour. UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(ii) Due to correct machining and consistency in Ans. (b) : Fast production speed is not possible
manufacturing no rework is required and scrap is 816. The following is not true for Jigs:
minimised. (a) These are used on drilling operation
(iii) Maximum utilisation machines is possible. Hence (b) These guide the tools
all the statement are correct. (c) These hold the components
810. Extended Binary - coded decimal interchange (d) Increased machining accuracy
code uses UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(a) 8 - bit code (b) 16 - bit code Ans. (c) : These hold the components
(c) 32 - bit code (d) 7 - bit code 817. The value of surface roughness 'h' obtained
TNPSC AE 2017 during the turning operation at a feed 'f' with a
Ans. (a) : Extended Binary - coded decimal interchange round nose tool having radius 'r' is given by
code uses 8 - bit code. (a) f2/4r (b) f2/8r
789
 (c) f2/12r (d) f2/16r 824. ______ is NOT a clamping device used in jigs
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I and fixtures.
Ans. (b) : f2/8r (a) Diamond pin (b) Slotted strap
(c) Swing latch (d) Quick acting nut
818. Diamond pin location is used in fixture because
(e) C-clamp
(a) It does not wear out
(CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
(b) It takes care of any variation in centre
Ans. (a) : Diamond pin is not a clamping device used in
distance between two holes jigs and fixtures.
(c) It is easy to clamp the part of the diamond Jig and Fixture–Fixtures, being used in machine shop,
tips are strong and rigid mechanical device which enable
(d) It is easy to manufacture easy, quick and consistently accurate locating,
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I supporting and clamping, blanks against cutting tools
Ans. (b) : It takes care of any variation in centre and result faster and accurate machining with consistent
distance between two holes. quality, functional ability and interchangeability. Jig is a
819. The following is not true for Jigs and Fixtures: fixture with an additional feature of tool guidance.
(a) Rapid production 825. The selection of non-traditional machining
(b) Automatic location process for a particular application depends on
(c) Lesser manufacturing cost (a) Physical parameters of the process
(b) Shapes to be machined
(d) Higher speeds cannot be used
(c) Process capability
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I (d) All of the above
Ans. (d) : Higher speeds cannot be used Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
820. In order to locate a rectangular block in a jig Ans. (d) : The selection of non-traditional machining
or fixture accurately the following number of process for a particular application depends on Various
movements must be restricted: factors.
(a) 3 (b) 6 (1) Physical parameter of the process (Surface quality
(c) 9 (d) 12 high).
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I (2) Shape to be machined (Complexity shape)
Ans. (d) : 12 (3) Process capability.
826. The purpose of jigs and fixture is to:
821. In power metallurgy, the metal powder particle (a) Increase machining accuracy
size is reduced during automization by: (b) Facilitate interchangeability
(a) Decreasing gas velocity (c) Decrease cost on quality control
(b) Increasing gas velocity (d) All of these
(c) Decreasing gas pressure SJVN ET 2013
(d) Decreasing metal volume Ans. (d) : The purpose of jigs and fixture is to-
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 • Increase machine accuracy.
Ans. (b) : By increasing gas velocity, the metal powder • Facilitate interchangeability.
particle size is reduced during automization. • Decrease cost on quality control.
822. The principle most commonly followed for 827. The simplest and low-cost clamp used in Jigs
locating work pieces in a fixture is: and Fixtures is:
(a) 2 – 3 – 1 (b) 1 – 2 – 3 (a) Strap clamp (b) Can clamp
(c) 3 – 2 – 1 (d) 1 – 3 – 2 (c) Toggle clamp (d) Equiliser
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (a) : The simplest and low-cost clamp used in Jigs
Ans. (c) : 3-2-1 is the principle to locate the work piece and Fixtures is strap clamp.
firmly so that the required operations like drilling,
828. A diamond-locating pin is used in jigs and
reaming etc. can be done. According to the principle 3
fixture, because
pins are used in primary datum, 2 pins used on
(a) diamond is very hard and wear-resistant
secondary datum which is perpendicular to 1st and 1 in (b) it occupies very little space
tertiary datum which arrest 9 degrees of freedom. (c) it helps in assembly with tolerance on central
823. Which of the following locating device is used distance
to locate cylindrical jobs? (d) it has a long life
(a) Drill jigs (b) V-blocks BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
(c) Angle plates (d) Metal pins JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift Ans : (c) : Diamond pins are relieved on two sides to
Ans. (b) : V(vee) Locators are used mainly for round allow for variations in the centre to centre distance of the
work. So for locating cylindrical jobs, V – block holes. They locate at right angles to the axis between pin
locators are used centres and should be placed in the largest hole.
790
829. A jig is defined as a device which
(a) holds and locates a work-piece and guides
and controls one or more cutting tools
(b) holds and locates a work piece during an
inspection or for a manufacturing operation
(c) is used to check the accuracy of a work piece
(d) All of the above
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
Ans : (a) : A jig is defined as a device which holds and
locates a work piece and guides and controls one or
more cutting tools. The jigs are used for holding and
guiding the tool in drilling, reaming or tapping
operations.
830. A device which holds and locates a work piece
during an inspection or for a manufacturing
operation, is known as :
(a) Fixture (b) Jig
(c) Lathe (d) Templates
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
Ans : (a) A device which holds and locates a work
picce during an inspection or for a manufacturing
operation is know as fixture.
Fixture:- This may be described as a structure for
locating, holding and supporting a component or
workpiece securely in a definite position for a specific
operation but it does not guide the cutting tool. The
cutting tools are set in position by machine adjustment
or by trial and error method.
831. 3-2-1 method of location of jig or fixture would
collectively restrict the work piece in 'n' degree
of freedom, where the value of 'n' is
(a) 9 (b) 6
(c) 8 (d) 1
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (a) 3-2-1 method of location of jig or fixture
would collectively restrict the work piece in 'n' degree
of freedom, where the value of 'n' is 9.
3-2-1 Principle:-3-2-1 principle of location states that
to locate a piece fully, it has to be placed and held
against three points in a base plane, two points in a
vertical plane, and one point in a plane square with the
first two. It is important that the above planes by square
with each other and the points should be spaced as far a
part as possible.
832. The axis movement of a robot may include:
(a) Elbow rotation
(b) Wrist rotation
(c) X-Y coordinate motion
(d) Elbow, wrist and X-Y coordinate motion
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (d) The axis movement of a robot may include
Elbow, wrist and X-Y Co-ordinate motion.
833. Which is one of the following not the output
device?
(a) Printer (b) Stylus
(c) Display device (d) Plotter
MPPSC AE 2016
Ans : (b) Printer, display device and plotter is the
output device
791
834. Jigs are not used in one of the followings:
(a) Location
(b) Clamping of the component
(c) Safety
(d) None of these
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
Ans : (c) Jig : A jig is defined as a device which hold and
locates a work–piece and guides and controls one more
cutting tools. The Jigs are used for holding and guiding the
tool in drilling, reaming or tapping operations.
835. In the 3-2-1 princple of fixture 3 refers to
number of:
(a) Setups possible
(b) Clamps required
(c) Locating positions
(d) repositions on primary face
UJVNL AE 2016
Ans : (c) In the 3-2-1 principle of fixture 3 refers to
number of locating position.
3-2-1 principle of location:-3-2-1 principle of location
states that to locate a piece fully, it has to be placed and
held against three points in a base plane, two points in a
vertical plane, and one point in a plane Square with the
first two. It is important that the above planes be square
with each other and the points should be spaced as for
apart as possible.
836. Which of the following is not a work holding
device?
(a) V-block (b) Chuck
(c) Steady rest (d) None of the above
UJVNL AE 2016
Ans : (d) None of the above
Chuck:- It is the most important device for holding the
workpieces, particularly of short length and large
diameter or a irregular shape which can't be
conveniently mounted between centres.
Steady rest:- The steady rest is used when a long piece
is machined or drilled at its end by holding the job in a
chuck. It avoids the undue deflection of the job at the
other end.
837. 3-2-1 Principle is related with
(a) Design of locating devices.
(b) Tool design
(c) Plant layout design
(d) Work sampling
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Ans : (a) 3-2-1 principle is related with design of
locating device.
838. The floating position of the holding fixture in a
rotary transfer device is used to
(a) improve the accuracy of location
(b) reduce the tendency to over index
(c) reduce the cycle time
(d) improve upon the acceleration and
deceleration characteristics
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
Ans : (a) : The floating position of the holding fixture
in a rotary transfer device is used to improve the
accuracy of location. The rotary transfer device moves
the work piece in a circular path, which usually has a
maximum diameter of about 3 meters.
 9. Powder Metallurgy 843. In powder metallurgy, the weight of the
powder used for compaction is _____ the
839. What is the correct sequence of operations in weight of the green powder compact.
powder metallurgy? (a) equal to
(a) Compacting, Sintering, Blending, Production (b) greater than
of metal powder (c) less than
(b) Production of metal powder, Compacting, (d) greater than or equal
Sintering, Blending (e) less than or equal
(c) Production of metal powder, Blending, (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
Compacting, Sintering Ans. (a) : In powder metallurgy, the weight of the
(d) Production of metal powder, Blending, powder used for compaction is equal to the weight of
Sintering, Compacting
the green power compact.
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (c) : Powder metallurgy is the name given to the 844. To improve the self lubricating capacity of a
process by which fine powdered materials are blended, powder metallurgy part the following finishing
pressed into a desired shape (compacted), and then operation is used:
heated (sintered) in a controlled atmosphere to bond the (a) Repressing (b) Sizing
contacting surfaces of the particles and establish the (c) Infilliation (d) Impregnation
desired properties. TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
840. Consider the following objectives of sintering in Ans. (d) : To improve the self lubricating capacity of a
powder metallurgy: powder metallurgy part the following finishing
1. To achieve good bonding of powder particles operation is used impregnation.
2. To produce a dense and compact structure 845. Powder metallurgy techniques are used in the
3. To achieve high strength production of
3. To produce parts free of any oxide. (a) High carbon steel tool
Which of the above objectives are correct?
(b) HSS tools
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) Tungsten carbide tools
JWM 2017 (d) Twist drills
Ans. (d) : Objectives of sintering in powder metallurgy- SJVN ET 2013
• To achieve good bonding of powder particles Ans. (c) : Powder metallurgy techniques are used in the
• To produce a dense and compact structure production of tungsten carbide tools.
• To achieve high strength 846. Which of the following is not the secondary
• To produce parts free of any oxide. processes of powder metallurgy?
• To reduce brittleness and porosity. (a) Heat treatment (b) Impregnation
841. "Sintering" is referred to as: (c) Infiltration (d) Sintering
(a) mixing of different powders to obtain SJVN ET 2019
requisite properties Ans. (d) : Primary process in powder metallurgy,
(b) compression of loose powder blending, compaction, sintering.
(c) heating of the green compact
Secondary process in powder metallurgy - coining,
(d) cleaning of powder by sieving
(e) cleaning of powder by water forging, heat treating impregnation infiltration, plating.
CGPSC AE 2014- I 847. Which among the following tool bits are made
Ans. (c) : Heating of the green compact called by powder metallurgy process
"Sintering" process. (a) Carbon steel tool bits
842. 'Compacting process' used in powder (b) Tungsten carbide tool bits
metallurgy is done: (c) Stellite tool bits
(a) To achieve atomization of molten metal (d) HSS tool bits
(b) After secondary finishing of sintered object APPSC AEE 2016
(c) After blending of metal powder and additives Ans. (b) : Tungsten carbide tool bits are made by power
(d) After sintering of blended metal powder and metallurgy process.
additives 848. During sintering densification is not due to :
UPRVUNL AE 2016 (a) Atomic diffusion (b) Surface diffusion
Ans. (c) : Powder compaction—Powder compaction is (c) Bulk diffusion (d) Grain growth
the process of compacting metal powder in a die
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
through the application of high pressure. Typically the
tools are held in the vertical orientation with the punch Ans : (d) : Sintering is a heat treatment applied to a
tool forming the bottom of the cavity. The powder is powder compact in order to impart strength and
than compacted into a shape and the ejected from the integrity. The temperature used for sintering is below
die cavity. This process used in power metallurgy is the melting point of the major constituent of the powder
done after blending of metal powder and additives. metallurgy material.
792
849. Sintering is done:
(a) To achieve the atomization of molten metal
(b) Just after blending of metal powder and
additives
(c) To cool the compact in water
(d) To increase the strength of compact
UPRVUNL AE 2016
Ans. (d) : Sintering—Sintering is a heat treatment
applied to a power compact in order to impact strength
and integrity. The temperature used for sintering is
below the melting point of the major constituent of
power metallurgy material.
After compaction, neighbouring powder particles are
held together by cold welds, which gives the compact
sufficient "green strength" to be handled. At sintering
temperature, diffusion process cause necks to form and
grow at these contact points.
850. During sintering of a powder metal compact,
the following process takes place:
(a) some of the pores grow
(b) powder Particles do not melt but a bond is
formed between them
(c) all the pores reduce in size and bond occurs
due to melting
(d) Powder particles fuse and join together
(HPPSC LECT. 2016)
Ans : (b) During sintering of powder metal compact,
powder particles do not melt but a bond is formed
between them.
Sintering:- Heating of powder compact in a furnace to
below the melting point of at least one of the major
constituents under a controlled atmosphere is called
sintering. In the sintering furnaces, the components are
gradually heated and soaked at the required temperature
which depends on the type of material. The sintering
temperature and time vary with the compressive load
used, the type of powder and strength requirement of
the finished parts.
851. The process of infiltration in sintered product
is to improve
(a) porosity (b) dimensional
(c) surface finish (d) coherent property
Ans : (a) The process of infiltration in sintered product
is to improve porosity.
Sintering:- Heating of powder compact in a furnace to
below the melting point of at least one of the major
constituents under a controlled atmosphere is called
sintering.
852. The factors influencing shrinkage during
sintering include (i) particle size, (ii) pressure
used, (iii) sintering temperature, (iv) pressing
time
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii), (iv)
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (d) Factor influencing shrinkage during sintering
(i) Particle size
(ii) Pressure used
(iii) Sintering temperature
(iv) Pressing time.
793
10. Metrology & Measurement
853. The temperature inside a furnace is generally
measured by
(a) Mercury thermometer
(b) Alcohol thermometer
(c) Gas thermometer
(d) Optical pyrometer
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-II
Ans : (d) Optical Pyrometer-In an optical pyrometer,
a brightness comparison is made to measure the
temperature. As a measure of the reference temperature,
a colour change with the growth in temperature is
taken. The device compares the brightness produced by
the radiation of the object whose temperature is taken.
The device compares the brightness produced by the
radiation of the object whose temperature is to be
measured, with that of a reference temperature. The
reference temperature is produced by a lamp whose
brightness can be adjusted till its intensity becomes
equal to the brightness of the source object. For an
object, its light intensity always depends on the
temperature of the object, whatever may be its
wavelength. After adjusting the temperature, the current
passing through it is measured using a multimeter, as its
value will be proportional to the temperature of the
source when calibrated.
854. Taylor's principle is concerned with
(a) Pneumatic comparators
(b) Interferometric measurements
(c) Gauging measurements
(d) Angular measurement
SJVN ET 2013
Ans. (c) : Taylor's principle is concerned with gauging
measurements.
855. Standardization deals with the characteristics
of product that include:-
(a) Its dimensions
(b) Method of testing the product
(c) Composition and properties of its material
(d) All of the above
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
Ans. (d) : All of the above
856. Pneumatic comparators work on following
theory:-
(a) Newton’s theory (b) Bernouli’s theory
(c) Pascal’s theory (d) Legendre’s theory
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
Ans. (b) Pneumatic comparators wok on Bernouli's
theory.
857. A comparator for its working depends on
(a) comparison with standard such as slip gauges
(b) accurately caliberated scale
(c) optical device
(d) limit gauge
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (a) : comparison with standard such as slip gauges
858. Profile of a gear tooth can be checked by 864. Limit Gauge
(a) Optical projector (b) Optical pyrometer (a) checks whether the part is made within the
(c) Bench micrometer (d) Sine bar specified tolerance
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I (b) measures the value of the upper specification
RPSC AE 2016 limit
UPRVUNL AE 2014 (c) measures the value of the lower specification
limit
Ans. (a) : Optical projector
(d) measures both upper and lower specification
859. The Plug gauge is used to limit
(a) Check the size and shape of holes
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(b) Measure the diameter of holes
Ans. (a) : Checks whether the part is made within the
(c) Measure the diameter of shafts specified tolerance.
(d) Measure the diameters of shafts & holes
865. The Indian Standard Marking system for a
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I grinding wheel is read as WA46K5V17. The
Ans. (a) : Check the size and shape of holes alphabet 'K' denotes
860. Which of the following instruments is used to (a) bond type (b) grain size
measure smoothness of a metallic surface ? (c) abrasive (d) grade
(a) Talysurf TNPSC AE 2018
(b) Coordinate Measuring Machine Ans. (d) : WA → Abrasive material
(c) Profile Projector 46 → Grit size
(d) None of the above
K → Grade
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
5 → Structure
Ans. (a) : Talysurf
V → Bond and (vitrified)
861. The following is true for "GO" and "NO GO"
866. The following limits are specified in a limit
gauges:
system, to give a clearance fit between a hole
(a) Plug gauge can measure the dimension of a and a shaft:
hole
Hole = 250+0.02 −0.004
−.01 mm and shaft = 25 −0.02 mm
(b) Wear allowance is provided on "NO GO" end
(c) "GO" end is smaller than "NO GO" end Determine tolerance on shaft.
(d) Gauge tolerance is 10% of manufacturing (a) 0.012 mm (b) 0.016 mm
tolerance (c) 0.018 mm (d) 0.014 mm
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (d) : Gauge tolerance is 10% of manufacturing Ans. (b) : Upper limit of shaft = 25 - 0.004 = 24.996
tolerance. Lower limit of shaft = 25 - 0.02 = 24.98
862. Micro-geometrical deviations of surface Tolerance = Upper limit of shaft – Lower limit
roughness are a series of repeated deviations of of shaft = 24.996 – 24.98 = 0.016
a wave with a ratio of pitch to height 867. Tolerance for a hold and shaft assembly having
approximately equal to a nominal size of 40 mm are as follows:
(a) 50 (b) 100
Hole = 40++0.06 −0.06
0.02 mm and shaft = 40 −0.08 mm
(c) 500 (d) 1000
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I Determine MML of hole
(a) 39.94 mm (b) 40.06 mm
Ans. (a) : 50
(c) 40.02 mm (d) 39.92 mm
863. The following is not a characteristic of optical
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
comparator:
(a) High magnification Ans. (c) : Maximum material Limit (MML) in case of
hold is the condition when hold is at lower limit.
(b) Very few moving linkages
So MML for hole
(c) Cheap
(d) Optical lever is weightless 450 ++0.06
0.02 = 40 + 0.02 = 40.02mm

UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I 868. Millimeter scale in a micrometer is marked on

Ans. (c) : Cheap (a) anvil (b) barrel
794
 (c) thimble (d) spindle Ans. (c) : Tolerance an the assembled length
TNPSC AE 2013 = [ 25.32 + 18.91 + 62.17 + 46.25]+[0.02+0.03+0.05+0.04]
−[0.01+ 0.03+ 0.07 + 0.04]
Ans. (b) : Total reading = MSR + (HSR × LC) +0.14
MSR – Main scale reading = [152.65]−0.15
HSR – Head scale reading 874. Why the Bezier curve is smoother than the
cubic spline curve ?
LC – Least count (a) Because of higher order derivatives
L.C. = 0.01 mm (b) Because of control points
869. Eden-Rolt comparator is a popular instrument (c) Because the curve passes through all the data
for calibration of points
(a) slip gauges (b) vernier (d) All of the above
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
(c) micrometer (d) sine bar
Ans. (a) : Bezier curve is smoother than the cubic
TNPSC AE 2013
spline curve because of higher order derivatives.
Ans. (a) : Eden-Rolt comparator is a popular instrument 875. Tachometers are used to measure:
for calibration of slip gauges. (a) Acceleration
870. In unilateral system for tolerances, (b) Angular velocity
(a) tolerances are given on both positive and (c) Time
negative sides of basic size (d) Force
(b) one tolerance is zero and other tolerance is SJVN ET 2013
given on any one side of basic size Ans. (b) : Tachometers are used to measure angular
(c) one tolerance is zero and other tolerance is velocity.
given only on higher side of basic size
876. A dead weight tester is used for:
(d) one tolerance is zero and other tolerance is
(a) Calibrating pressure measuring instruments
given only on lower side of basic size
(b) Producing high pressure
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
(c) Measuring weight
Ans. (b) : In unilateral system for tolerances, one (d) Measuring resistive force
tolerance is zero and other tolerance is given only on SJVN ET 2013
higher side of basic size.
Ans. (a) : A dead weight tester is used for calibrating
871. Gear tooth vernier is used to measure pressure measuring instruments.
(a) Gear tooth profile
877. Expressing a dimension as 32.5/32.3 is case of
(b) Gear tooth thickness
(a) Unilateral tolerance
(c) Pitch line thickness of gear tooth
(b) Bilateral tolerance
(d) Module
(c) Limiting dimensions
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
(d) All of above
Ans. (b) : Gear tooth vernier is used to measure 0.001
SJVN ET 2013
or 0.02 mm the thickness of gear teeth at the pitch line.
Ans. (c) : Expressing a dimension as 32.5/32.3 is the
872. The size by which it is referred to as a matter case of limiting dimensions.
of convenience:
(a) Actual size (b) Basic size 878. The flow error in case of normal nozzles is of
(c) True size (d) Nominal size the order of :
(a) 0.1% (b) 0.2%
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
(c) 0.5% (d) 1%
Ans. (d) : Nominal size is referred to as a matter of
SJVN ET 2013
convenience.
Ans. (d) : The flow error in case of normal nozzles is of
873. Four pats with the following dimensions are to the order of 1%.
be assembled in random. What should be
879. Consider the following Instruments
tolerance on the assembled length?
+0.02
1. Profilometer
Part 1 = 25.32−0.01 mm 2. The Tomlinson surface meter
Part 2 = 18.91 ± 0.03 m 3. The Taylor Hobson Talysurf
+0.05
Part 3 = 62.17 −0.07 mm 4. Profilograph
Out of the above opinion which instruments
Part 4 = 46.25 ± 0.04 mm
are used to measure surface finish
(a) 152.65+−0.15
0.14 (b) 152.65 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4
+0.14 +0.02 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 152.65−0.15 (d) 145.52−0.07
(e) 1, 2 and 4
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
795
Ans. (d) : Method of measuring surface roughness
(i) Profilometer
(ii) Tomlinson surface tester
(iii) The Taylor-Hobson Talysurf
(iv) Profilograph
(v) Light cross-section method
880. Ring and gap gauges are used to check the
(a) hole (b) key
(c) shaft (d) spline
(e) angle
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Ans. (c) : Ring gauge, is a cylindrical ring of a
thermally stable material, often steel, whose inside
diameter is finished to gauge tolerance and is used for
checking the external diameter of a cylindrical object.
881. Consider the following statements
1. Very high production rate
2. Lower dimensional and form accuracy and
surface finish of the product
3. Roughing and finishing in single stroke of
the same cutter
4. Needs only two motion for cutting, so
design, construction, operation and control
are simpler
Which of these are correct about Broaching
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
(e) 1, 2, 3 and 4
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Ans. (d) : Advantages and limitations of broaching
Major advantages
(i) Very high production rate (much higher than
milling, planning, boring etc.)
(ii) High dimensional and form accuracy and surface
finish of the product.
(iii) Roughing and finishing in single stroke of the same
cutter.
(iv) Needs only one motion (cutting), so design,
construction, operation and control are simpler.
(v) Extremely suitable and economic for mass
production.
882. Bourdon tube is used to measure :
(a) Volume flow rate (b) Temperature of gas
(c) Velocity of flow (d) Pressure
SJVN ET 2019
Ans. (d) : Bourdon tube is used to measure pressure.
883. The tolerance of grade 6 is obtained by–
(a) die casting
(b) turning on capstan and turret lathes
(c) grinding
(d) sand casting
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (c) : The tolerance of grade 6 is obtained by
grinding.
884. In bilateral system for tolerances,
(a) tolerances are given on both, positive and
negative sides of basic size
796
(b) one tolerance is zero and other tolerance is
given on any one side of basic size
(c) one tolerance is zero and other tolerance is
given only on higher side of basic size
(d) one tolerance is zero and other tolerance is
given only on lower side of basic size
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : In bilateral system for tolerances, tolerances
are given on both, positive and negative sides of basic
size.
885. In clearance fit,
(a) tolerance zones of hole and shaft overlap
(b) tolerance zone of hole is completely below
that of shaft
(c) tolerance zone of hole is entirely above that
of shaft
(d) none of the above
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (c) : In clearance fit, tolerance zone of hole is
entirely above that of shaft.
886. In interference fit,
(a) tolerance zones of hole and shaft overlap
(b) tolerance zone of hole is completely below
that of shaft
(c) tolerance zone of hole is entirely above that
of shaft
(d) none of the above
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (b) : In interference fit, tolerance zone of hole is
completely below that of shaft.
887. In transition fit,
(a) tolerance zones of hole and shaft overlap
(b) tolerance zone of hole is completely below
that of shaft
(c) tolerance zone of hole is entirely above that
of shaft
(d) none of the above
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : In transition fit, tolerance zones of hole and
shaft overlap.
888. In hole-basis system, the basis hole is one–
(a) whose upper deviation is zero
(b) whose upper and lower deviations are zero
(c) whose lower deviation is zero
(d) none of the above
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (c) : In hole-basis system, the basis hole is one
whose lower deviation is zero.
889. The tolerance of grade 8 is obtained by–
(a) die casting
(b) turning on capstan and turret lathes
(c) grinding
(d) sand casting
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (b) : The tolerance of grade 8 is obtained by
turning on capstan and turret lathes.
890. The tolerance of grade 16 is obtained by-
(a) die casting
(b) turning on capstan and turret lathes
(c) grinding
(d) sand casting
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : The tolerance of grade 16 is obtained by die
casting.
891. Speedometer is a–
(a) display giving quantitative measurements
(b) display giving state of affair
(c) display indicating predetermined settings
(d) none of above
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : Display giving quantitative measurements
892. Moving scale or moving dial is used for-
(a) display giving quantitative measurements
(b) display giving state of affair
(c) display indicating predetermined settings
(d) none of above
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (a) : Display giving quantitative measurements
893. When large force is required to operate, the
type of control used is–
(a) knobs and switches
(b) levers and wheels
(c) push buttons
(d) none of the above
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (b) : Levers and wheels
894. Gear tooth vernier is used to measure–
(a) Gear tooth profile
(b) Gear tooth thickness
(c) Pitch line thickness of gear tooth
(d) Module
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (c) : Gear tooth vernier is used to measure Pitch
line thickness of gear tooth
895. Least count of vernier caliper is
(a) Ratio of main scale to vernier scale
(b) Ratio of vernier scale to main scale
(c) Difference between one division of main
scale and one division of vernier scale
(d) Sum of main scale to the vernier scale
HPPSC AE 2018
Ans. (c) : Least count of a vernier caliper is difference
between one division of main scale and one division of
vernier scale.
896. Sine bars inherently become increasingly
impractical and inaccurate as the angle exceeds
(a) 15º (b) 30º
(c) 60º (d) 45º
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (d) : Sine bars are more accurate for angles
between 15o to 45o, below and above to this limit,
angles measured are not much more accurate.
797
If a sine bar is to be accurate then the following
properties must exist:
1. The distance between centres (L) must be precisely
known.
2. The axes of rollers must be parallel to each other.
3. The upper surface of the sine bar must be flat and
parallel.
4. The rollers must be of identical diameters and round
to within a close tolerance.
897. The maximum amount by which the result
differs from the true value is called
(a) accuracy (b) correction
(c) precision (d) discrepancy
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (a) : The maximum amount by which the result
differs from the true value is called accuracy.
898. Which one of the following is not a direct
surface roughness measuring instrument?
(a) Tomlinson Surface meter
(b) Taylor-Hobson Talysurf
(c) Wallace Surface Dynamometer
(d) Profilometer
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (c) : Wallace Surface Dynamometer is not a direct
surface roughness measuring instrument.
899. The amount by which diameter of hole is larger
than the diameter of shaft is known as:
(a) Interference (b) Clearance
(c) Tolerance (d) Limit
(e) Margin
CGPSC AE 2014- I
Ans. (b) : The amount by which diameter of hole is
larger than the diameter of shaft is known as clearance.
900. Which of the following is not a basic form of
slip gauges?
(a) Rectangular
(b) Square with centre hole
(c) Circular with centre hole
(d) Square without centre hole
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (c) : Circular with centre hole is not a basic form
of slip gauges.
901. Which micrometer is used for measuring the
span between the teeth of a gear?
(a) Blade micrometer
(b) Screw thread micrometer
(c) Disc micrometer
(d) Dial micrometer
CIL MT 2017 2017 IInd shift
Ans. (c) : Disc micrometer is used for measuring the
span between the teeth of a gear.
902. Which one of these instruments is a
comparator?
(a) Took makers Microscope
(b) GO-No GO Gauge
(c) Optical Interferometer
(d) Dial Gauge
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (d) : On all the instruments named above, only Ans. (a) : In sugarcane crusher an interference fit exist
dial gauge is a comparator type instrument. between shaft and mounted roll.
903. A graph is drawn to a vertical magnification of 907. Tolerance of gauges can be checked by
10000 and horizontal magnification of 100, and (a) optical flat (b) sine bar
the areas above and below the datum line are (c) auto collimator (d) spirit level
as follows: TSPSC AEE 2015
Above 150mm2 80mm2 170mm2 40mm2 Ans. (a) : Tolerance of gauges can be checked by
Below 80mm2 60mm2 150mm2 120mm2 optical flat.
The average roughness Ra for sampling length 908. According to Indian Standard, 50 H8-g7 means
of 0.8 mm will be (a) upper limit is (50+8) mm and lower limit
(a) 1.14 µm (b) 1.10 µm (50–7) mm
(c) 1.06 µm (d) 1.02 µm (b) designation of tolerance with basic size 50
ESE 2019 mm
Ans. (c) : Given, (c) designation of fit of two parts with basic size
L = 0.8 mm 50 mm
Horizontal magnification (HM) = 100 (d) None of above
Vertical magnification (VM) = 10,000 RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
∑A = 150 + 80 + 170 + 40 + 80 + 60 + 150 + 120 Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
= 850 mm2 Ans. (c) : 50 H8-g7
Average Roughness (Ra) ! Tolerance grade for hole is 8.
ΣA 1000 1 ! Tolerance grade for shaft is 7.
= × × ! Designation of fit of two parts with size 50 mm.
L VM HM
850 1000 1 909. Which of the following methods is not
= × × concerned with the surface finish
0.8 10,000 100
measurement?
= 1.06 µm (a) Spectrophotometry method
904. For a strain gauge (gauge factor = 2.1 and (b) Ultrasonic method
resistance = 50 Ω), subjected to a maximum (c) Field emission method
strain of 0.001, the maximum change in (d) Critical angle of attack method
resistance is TNPSC AE 2017
(a) 0.084 Ω (b) 0.105 Ω Ans. (a) : Spectrophotometry method is not concerned
(c) 0.135 Ω (d) 0.156 Ω with the surface finish measurement.
ESE 2018 910. A ring gauge is used to measure
Ans. (b) : Given, (a) Outside diameter only
Gauge factor (G) = 2.1 (b) Roundness only
Resistance (R) = 50Ω (c) Both outside diameter and roundness
Strain (∈) = 0.001 (d) Only external threads
∆R / R TNPSC AE 2017
Gauge factor (G) = Ans. (a) : A ring gauge is used to measure outside
∈
diameter only.
∆R = G ∈ × R = 2.1 × 0.001 × 50 = 0.105 Ω
911. A least accurate measuring device was
905. Statement (I): Pyrometer is used to measure
(a) Air gauge
diffuse solar radiation by blocking the direct
(b) Micrometer screw gauge
radiation with a shadow band.
(c) Steel rule
Statement (II): Pyrheliometer is used to measure
(d) Optical projector
diffuse radiation.
TNPSC AE 2017
ESE 2017
Ans. (c) : A least accurate measuring device was steel
Ans. (c) : The pyrometer is a broadband instrument that
rule.
measures the direct component of solar radiation at
normal incidence. It does not measure diffuse radiation. 912. Gratings are used in connection with
The diffuse radiation is measured by pyrometer. (a) Flatness measurement
(b) Roundness measurement
906. Statement (I): In sugarcane crushing rollers, the
(c) Surface texture
fit between the cast roll and the forged steel shaft
(d) Linear displacement
is of interference type.
TNPSC AE 2017
Statement (II): This helps in removing the roll
from the shaft whenever not needed. Ans. (d) : Gratings are used in connection with linear
ESE 2017 displacement.
798
913. The resolution of electrostatic plotter is Ans. (b) : The alternator produces electricity in its
expressed in terms of stator windings.
(a) number of lines per unit area 919. The electronic spar control used on some turbo
(b) number of dots per inch charged engines
(c) ratio of darkened area to gross area (a) refer as the spark if detonation begins
(d) number of lines per inch (b) takes the place of mechanical advance
TNPSC AE 2017 mechanisms
Ans. (b) : The resolution of electrostatic plotter is (c) advances the spark to suit operating
expressed in terms of number of dots per inch. conditions
914. Match the List I with List II and select the (d) reduce spark voltage if detonation begins
correct answer given below: TNPSC AE 2017
List I List II Ans. (a) : The electronic spar control used on some
(a) Talysurf 1. T-slots turbo charged engines refer as the spark if detonation
(b) Telescopic gauge 2. Flatness beings.
(c) Transfer calipers 3. Internal dia 920. Yaw velocity can be measured using
(d) Autocollimeter 4. Roughness (a) Proximity sensor (b) Speed sensor
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) Gyro sensor (d) Torque sensor
(A) 1 2 3 4 TNPSC AE 2017
(B) 4 3 1 2
Ans. (c) : Yaw velocity can be measured by measuring
(C) 4 3 2 1
the ground velocity at two geometrically separated
(D) 3 4 1 2
points on the body, or by a gyroscope, or it can be
TNPSC AE 2017
synthesized from accelerometers and the lie. It is the
Ans. (b) : primary measure of how drivers sense a car's turning
List I List II
visually.
(a) Talysurf 1. Roughness
(b) Telescopic gauge 2. Internal dia 921. A regulator problem is where the close loop
(c) Transfer calipers 3. T-slots system must
(d) Autocollimeter 4. Flatness (a) try to follow a series of set point changes
(b) remove any disturbance acting on the system
915. Which of the following errors are not (c) respond very quickly
controllable?
(d) respond very slowly
(a) Calibration errors
TNPSC AE 2017
(b) Environmental errors
(c) Avoidable errors Ans. (b) : A regulator problem is where the close loop
(d) Random errors system must remove any disturbance acting on the
TNPSC AE 2017 system.
Ans. (d) : Random errors are not controllable. 922. The general way of describing cylindrictiy of a
916. For general use the measuring tip of a component is by the
comparator should be (a) minimum - zone method
(a) Flat (b) Spherical (b) maximum - zone method
(c) Conical (d) Grooved (c) limited zone method
TNPSC AE 2017 (d) cylinder zone method
TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) : For general use the measuring tip of a Ans. (a) : The general way of describing cylindrictiy of
comparator should be Spherical. a component is by the minimum - zone method.
917. The gauges which are only used for checking 923. The digitized frame of the image in a machine
the size and condition of other gauge are called vision system is referred as
(a) Plug gauge (b) Master gauge (a) ADC (b) Frame buffer
(c) Limit gauge (d) Inspection gauge (c) Vision buffer (d) DAC
TNPSC AE 2017 TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (b) : These gauge are used in laboratories and test Ans. (b) : The digitized frame of the image in a
houses to calibrate industrial gauges. machine vision system is referred as Frame buffer.
918. The alternator produces electricity in its 924. In hole basis system, basic size is equal to
(a) rotor field coil (a) maximum hole size
(b) stator windings (b) Lower deviation is zero
(c) regulator (c) upper deviation is zero
(d) armature commutator (d) minimum hole size
TNPSC AE 2017 APPSC AEE 2016
799
Ans. (d) : In hold basis system [Lower deviation of hole Ans. (b) : Progressive gauge has gauging sections
is zero], basic size is equal to minimum hole size. combined on one end.
In shaft basis system [Upper deviation of shaft is zero] 930. Which one of the following is the most accurate
basic size is equal to maximum size of shaft. measuring device/instrument?
925. A fit on a hole shaft system in specified as H7- (a) steel rule (b) digital micrometer
s6. The type of fit is (c) vernier caliper (d) laser micrometer
(a) Clearance fit (b) Running fit TNPSC AE 2018
(c) Transition fit (d) Interference fit Ans. (d) : Laser micrometer is the most accurate
APPSC AEE 2016 measuring device.
Ans. (d) : H7 – S6 – It is a hold based and interference 931. The following surface roughness parameter is
fit. expressed in percentage
926. Approximately what area is covered under the (a) Ra (b) Rp
normal distribution curve between ± 3 (c) Rq (d) tp
standard deviation TNPSC AE 2014
(a) 80% (b) 88.00% Ans. (d) : Ra – Arithmetical mean deviation
(c) 99.73% (d) 68.00% Rp – Highest peak
TNPSC AE 2018 Rq – Root mean square roughness
Ans. (c) : Approximately 99.73% area is covered under tp – the difference in the profile bearing ratio
the normal distribution curve between ±3 standard [Expressed as a percentage] between the upper and
deviation. lower tp % value.
932. The allowance factor in a time study is to
(a) adjusts normal time for errors and rework
(b) adjusts standard time for lunch breaks
(c) adjusts normal time for personal needs,
unavoidable delays and fatigue
(d) allows workers to rest every 20 minutes
TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (c) : The allowance factor in a time study is to
adjusts normal time for personal needs, unavoidable
delays and fatigue.
933. The two slip gauges in precision measurement
are joined by
927. An example of an attribute gauge is a (a) assembling (b) sliding
(a) plug gauge (b) micrometer (c) adhesion (d) wringing
(c) slip gauge (d) an angle gauge TNPSC AE 2018
TNPSC AE 2018 Ans. (d) : The two slip gauges in precision
Ans. (a) : Attribute gauging- Attribute gages include measurement are joined by wrining.
Go/ No Go, functional and bench gauging system. 934. According to Taylor's principle, No Go gauge
These gauges measure part characteristics and either checks
accept or reject the part based on accuracy. (a) only one feature at a time
928. If "P" is the pitch of thread and "θ" is semi- (b) only important dimensions at a time
angle of thread, then the best size wire for (c) all the dimensions at a time
measuring the effective diameter of threads is (d) only the related dimensions at a time
of diameter, TNPSC AE 2018
Ans. (a) : According to Taylor's principle, No Go gauge
P P
(a) sec θ (b) cos θ checks only one feature at a time.
2 2 935. Precision is
P (a) the repeatability of a measuring process
(c) sec θ (d) P sec θ
4 (b) arrangement of a measurement with true
TNPSC AE 2018 value
P (c) the ability of measuring device to detect small
Ans. (a) : Best size wire d = sec θ differences
2
(d) the ability of an instrument to reproduce same
929. The type of gauge which has gauging sections
reading under identical conditions
combined on one end is
(a) combination gauge (b) progressive gauge TNPSC AE 2018
(c) limit gauge (d) fixed gauge Ans. (a) : Precision is the repeatability of a measuring
TNPSC AE 2018 process.

800
936. Variable Head flow meters can be used for 941. Clinometer is an instrument concerned with
measurement of flow of (a) Temperature measurement
(a) liquids only (b) Roundness measurement
(b) liquids and gases (c) Angular measurement
(c) slurries only (d) Linear measurement
(d) liquids, gases and slurries TNPSC AE 2013
TNPSC AE 2018 Ans. (c) : A Clinometer is a tool that is used t measure
Ans. (d) : Variable Head flow meters can be used for the angle of elevation or angle from the ground in a
measurement of flow of liquids, gases and slurries right - angled triangle. You can use a clinometer to
937. In control system terminology PID control measure the height of tall things that you can't possibly
stands for reach to the top of, flag, poles, building, trees.
(a) Proportional Integrated Decimal 942. The fundamental tolerance unit i in terms of
(b) Proportional Intelligent Definite mean diameter D is
(c) Proportional Integral Derivative (a) i = 0.45 D + 0.1D
(d) Principal Intelligent Derivative (b) i = 0.45 D + 0.01D
TNPSC AE 2014
(c) i = 0.45 D + 0.001D
Ans. (c) : Proportional Integral Derivative– A PID
controller is an instrument used in industrial control (d) i = 0.45 3 D + 0.001D
applications to regulate temperature, flow pressure, TNPSC AE 2014
speed and other process variable . PID controllers use a TNPSC 2019
control loop feedback mechanism to control process Ans. (d) : i = 0.45 3 D + 0.001D
variables and are the most accurate and stable
controller. 943. H7g7 is
(a) clearance fit (b) interference fit
938. In an electromagnetic flow meter the induced
(c) shrinkage fit (d) transition fit
voltage is proportional to
TNPSC AE 2014
(a) Flow rate
(b) Square root of flow rate Ans. (a) : H7g7 is a clearance fit
(c) Square of flow rate 944. Hole dimension is 50.00 ± 0.02 mm and Shaft
(d) Logarithm of flow rate dimension is 50.00 −−0.01
0.03 mm. The fit is
TNPSC AE 2014 (a) clearance (b) interference
Ans. (a) : In an electromagnetic flow meter the induced (c) transition (d) shrinkage
voltage is proportional to flow rate. TNPSC AE 2014
939. The error committed by a person in the Ans. (c) : Transition Fit → Transition fit, which may
measurement are provide either a clearance or on interference depending
(a) Gross Errors upon the actual value of individual tolerance of the
(b) Random Errors mating parts. In this case, the tolerance zones of the
(c) Instrumental Errors hole and the shaft overlap.
(d) Environmental Errors
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (a) : The error committed by a person in the
measurement are gross errors.
940. The behavior between the time that the input
value changes and the time that the value given
by the transducer settles down to the steady
state value is known as 945. θ, Taper angle of dead centre measured in a
(a) Static Characteristics sine bar is
(b) Design Characteristics where h – height of slip gauges
(c) Steady State Characteristics L – length of sine bar
(d) Dynamic Characteristics (a) θ = sin-1 h / L (b) θ = sin-2 h / L
TNPSC AE 2013 (c) θ = sin L / h
-1
(d) θ = sin-1 h / 2L
Ans. (d) : The behavior between the time that the input TNPSC AE 2014
value changes and the time that the value given by the
transducer settles down to the steady state value is h
Ans. (A) : θ = sin −1  
known as dynamic characteristics. L

801
946. The cross-sectional area of slip gauges of above 951. Pertho condenser method is used as a
10 mm is m mm2 (a) direct method to measure surface roughness
(a) 30 × 5 (b) 30 × 9 (b) indirect method to measure surface roughness
(c) 35 × 9 (d) 40 × 10 (c) direct method to measure surface texture
TNPSC AE 2014 (d) indirect method to measure surface texture
Ans. (c) : 35 × 9 TNPSC 2019
947. Composite error of gear is measured by Ans. (a) : Pertho condenser method is used as a direct
(a) base tangent comparator method to measure surface roughness.
(b) Double Vernier 952. Sine bars are specified by
(c) Gear tooth caliper (a) Its total length
(d) Parkinson rolling gear tester (b) Centre distance between rolls
TNPSC AE 2014 (c) size of rollers
Ans. (d) : Composite error of gear is measured by (d) Distance between rollers and upper distance
Parkinson rolling gear tester. TSPSC AEE 2015
948. The following is the standard press fit for easy Ans. (b) : Sine bars are specified by centre distance
dismantling of ferrous and non-ferrous parts between rolls.
assembly 953. Auto collimators are used to check
(a) H7g7 (b) H7h6 (a) only straightness
(c) H7n6 (d) H7p5 (b) only flatness
TNPSC AE 2014 (c) both flatness and straightness
Ans. (d) : H7p5 (d) roundness
949. The dead zone in a pyrometer is 0.125% of the TSPSC AEE 2015
span, the instrument is calibrated from 1000ºC Ans. (b) : Autocollimators are used to check only
to 1800ºC. What temperature change must flatness.
occur before it can be detected?
954.
(a) 2.5ºC (b) 1.25ºC
(c) 3ºC (d) 4ºC
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (b) : Span = 1800 – 800
= 1000oC
0.125
Dead zone = × 1000
100
= 1.25oC
+0.00
950. Expressing a dimension as 18.3-0.02 mm in the
case of
the tolerance of 'x' in the given figure.
(a) unilateral tolerance (b) Bilateral tolerance
(a) 30 ± 0.2 (b) 30 ± 0.5
(c) limiting tolerance (d) Trilateral tolerance
(c) 30 ± 0.3 (d) 30 ± 0.8
TNPSC 2019
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (a) : Bilateral tolerance- Variation is permitted in
Ans. (d) : For equal bilateral tolerances, the tolerance of
both positive and negative directions from the nominal
the gap.
dimension.
t x = ∑ t = 0.3 + 0.5 = 0.8
all
x = 30 ± 0.8 mm
955. The term allowance in limits and fits is usually
referred by
+a (a) Minimum clearance between shaft and hole
Example- X −b
Unilateral tolerance- Variation from the (b) Maximum clearance between shaft and hole
specific dimension is permitted in only one direction (c) Difference of tolerance at shaft and hole
either positive or negative, but not both. (d) Difference between maximum and minimum
size of hole
Example- X +−0b , χ −+0a TSPSC AEE 2015
802
Ans. (a) : The term allowance in limits and fits is
usually referred by minimum clearance between shaft
and hole.
956. The angles of angle gauges in the degree series
are
(a) 1º, 3º, 9º, 25º, 42º (b) 1º, 3º, 9º, 27º, 81º
(c) 1º, 3º, 9º, 27º, 41º (d) 1º, 5º, 10º, 25º, 45º
TNPSC 2019
Ans. (c) : The angles of angle gauges in the degrees
series are
1o, 3o, 9o, 27o, 41o
957. Dummy strain gauges used for
(a) Comparison of temperature changes
(b) Increasing the sensitivity of bridge in which
they are included
(c) Compensating for differential expansion
(d) Calibration of strain gauges
TNPSC 2019
Ans. (a) : Dummy strain gauges used for comparison of
temperature changes.
958. Wear allowance is provided on
(a) Go gauge
(b) No go gauge
(c) Both Go and No Go gauge
(d) When both are combined in one gauge
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Ans. (a) : 10% wear allowance is provided only for the
go gauge is working tolerance is greater than 0.09 mm.
959. The methods for reducing the errors of
approximation infinite element solution are
(a) p - version and h - version
(b) a - version and d - version
(c) y - version and k - version
(d) m - version and n - version
TNPSC 2019
Ans. (a) : The methods for reducing the errors of
approximation infinite element solution are p - version
and h - version.
960. A pitch is the rotation about
(a) Vertical axis (b) Horizontal axis
(c) Own axis (d) Z-axis
TNPSC 2019
Ans. (b) : A pitch is the rotation about horizontal axis.
961. Pick out the wrong statement about Taylor's
principle of gauging
(a) Go gauges should be full form gauges
(b) Go gauges should check all the related
dimensions simultaneously
(c) It is sufficient to use Go gauges on the width
and length of the component
(d) Not go gauges should check only one
dimension at a time
TNPSC 2019
803
Ans. (c) : Taylor's Principle- It states that GO gauge
should check all related dimensions. Simultaneously
NOGO gauge should check only one dimension at a
time. It state that GO gauge should check all related
dimension.
962. In order to have interference fit, it is essential
that the lower limit of the shaft should be:
(a) Greater than the upper limit of the hole
(b) Lesser than the upper limit of the hole
(c) Greater than the lower limit of the hole
(d) Lesser than the lower limit of the hole
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans : (a) :
In order to have interface fit, minimum interface must
be negative.
∴ min (I) = UL of hole – LL of shaft
0 > UL of hole – LL of shaft
LL of shaft > UL of hole
963. Tolerances are specified
(a) To obtain desired fits
(b) Because it is not possible to manufacture a
size exactly
(c) To obtain high accuracy
(d) To have proper allowance
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
RPSC 2016
RPSC AE 2016
Ans. (b) : Because it is not possible to manufacture a
size exactly.
964. Which of the following can be used to scribe
lines parallel to the edges of a part
(a) Vernier calipers (b) Screw gauge
(c) Divider (d) Hermaphrodite
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Ans. (d) : Hermaphrodite calliper– It is also known as
odd leg calliper consisting of one divider and one
calliper leg.
–It is used for layout work like scribing lines parallel to
the edge of the work and for finding the centre of a
cylindrical work.
965. A comparator for its working depends on
(a) Accurately calibrated scale
(b) Comparison with standard such as slip gauges
(c) Accurate micrometer gauge
(d) Optical devices
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Ans. (b) : Comparison with standard such as slip Ans : (d) : An optical gauge works on the principle of
gauges. interference of light rays.
Comparator– is an instrument used for comparing the 971. Optical flats are made of
dimensions of a component with a standard of length. (a) Quartz (b) Glass
Purpose of a comparator is to detect and display the (c) Steel (d) Plastic
small differences between the unknown linear Gujarat PSC AE 2019
dimensions and standard length.
Ans : (a) : Optical flats are made of Quartz.
966. The term ''Allowance'' in limits and fits is
usually referred to 972. External taper can be accurately measured
with the help of
(a) Minimum clearance between shaft and hole
(a) Dividing head
(b) Maximum clearance between shaft and hole
(b) Sine bar and slip gauge
(c) Difference of tolerance of hole and shaft
(d) Difference between maximum size & (c) Clinometers
minimum size of the hole (d) Combination set
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans. (a) : Allowance is the amount of designed Ans : (b) : External taper can be accurately measured
(intentional) deviation between two mating dimensions with the help of sine bar and slip gauge.
in a fit. 973. Sensitivity and range of measuring instrument
967. In limits and fits system, basic shaft system is have
one whose (a) Direct relation (b) Linear relation
(a) Lower deviation is zero (c) Inverse relationship (d) No relationship
(b) Upper deviation is zero Gujarat PSC AE 2019
(c) Minimum clearance is zero Ans : (c) : Sensitivity and range of measuring
(d) Maximum clearance is zero instruments have inverse relationship.
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 974. For grade IT 7, value of tolerance is equal to
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper (a) 7i (b) 10i
Ans. (b) : In limits and fits system, basic shaft system is (c) 16i (d) 40i
one whose upper deviation is zero. Gujarat PSC AE 2019
968. In interferomatric method, the path differences Ans : (c) : Grade IT7, value of tolerance is equal to =
between one bright band and the next is varied 16i
by Grade IT8, value of tolerance is equal to = 25i
(a) Half wave length 975. Minimum limit of the hole is taken as the
(b) Two half wave length ............ in a hole basis system:
(c) One quarter wave length (a) Maximum size (b) Actual size
(d) Two wavelengths (c) Basic size (d) Nominal size
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans. (b) : Two half wave length Ans : (c) : Minimum limit of the hole is taken as the
969. The method of fractional coincidences in basic size in a hole basic system.
interferometric techniques is used for 976. Out of the stated, which type of gauge is used to
(a) Measurement of end gauges check the clearance between two surfaces?
(b) Flatness of surface (a) Feeler Gauge (b) Radius Gauge
(c) Linear displacement measurement (c) Snap Gauge (d) Plug Gauge
(d) Convexity/concavity of surfaces Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 Ans : (a) : Feeler gauge is used to check the clearance
Ans. (a) : The method of fractional coincidences in between two surfaces.
interferometric techniques is used for measurement of 977. Which type of caliper is used for scribing lines
end gauges. parallel to edges of the work and for finding
970. An optical gauge works on the principle of centre of cylindrical work?
(a) Reflection (a) Transfer caliper
(b) Refraction (b) Hermaphorodite caliper
(c) Dispersion (c) Divider
(d) Interference of light rays (d) Standard caliper
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 Gujarat PSC AE 2019
804
Ans : (b) : Hermaphorodite caliper is used for
scribing lines parallel to edges of the work and for
finding centre of cylindrical work.
978. In a unilateral system of tolerance, the
tolerance is allowed on
(a) one side of the actual size
(b) one side of the nominal size
(c) both sides of the actual size
(d) both sides of the nominal size
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (b) : In a unilateral system of tolerance, the
tolerance is allowed on one side of the nominal size.
979. Which of the following is an interference fit?
(a) Push fit (b) Running fit
(c) Sliding fit (d) Shrink fit
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Nagaland CTSE 2017, 2016 Ist Paper
Ans : (d) : Shrink fit is an interference fit, running and
sliding fits are clearance fit while push fit is a transition fit.
980. Piezoelectric material functions on the
principle of
(a) Newton's Second law of motion
(b) Conservation of energy
(c) Thomson's Effect
(d) None of the above
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (a) : Piezoelectric material function on the
principle of Newton's second law of motion.
981. In India, the work for standardization, of
production has been mainly done by
(a) IPC (b) SI
(c) ISI (d) UPSC
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
Ans : (c) In India, the work for Standardization of
production has been mainly done by ISI.
982. Consider the following statements:
(i) Mechanical comparators are used for higher
accuracy.
(ii) Optical comparators use both optical and
mechanical means to get magnification.
(iii) Pneumatic comparators are used for very
high magnification.
(iv) Dial indicator is the most widely used
mechanical comparator.
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true
(b) (iii) are true
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
(d) (i) and (ii) are true
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Ans : (a)
(i) Optical comparator used both optical and
mechanical means to get magnification.
(ii) Pneumatic comparators are used for very high
magnification
(iii) Dial indicator is the most widely used
mechanical comparator.
805
983. Change of resistance with intensity of light
takes place in
(a) Photo-voltaic cell (b) Photo-emissive cell
(c) Photo-conductive cell (d) None of these
(KPSC AE 2015)
Ans : (c) Change of resistance with intensity of light
takes place in photo conductive cell.
984. The diameter of a round bar with close
tolerance is quickly measured by
(a) External micro meter (b) Vernier caliper
(c) Slip gauge (d) snap gauge
(KPSC AE 2015)
Ans : (d) The diameter of a round bar with close to
clearance is quickly measured by snap gauge.
(ii) Snap gauge is used to check the external dimension.
985. Which of the following thermocouples can
measure temperature in a comparatively
higher range?
(a) Chromel -alumel (b) Iron-constantan
(c) Iridum-rhodium (d) Platinum-rhodium
(KPSC AE 2015)
Ans : (c) Iridium- rhodium thermocouples measure
temperature in a comparatively higher range.
986. The difference between the maximum material
limits of mating parts is known as
(a) Deviation (b) Clearance
(c) Allowance (d) Tolerance
(KPSC AE 2015)
Ans : (c) The difference between the maximum material
limit of mating parts is known as allowance.
Allowance:- It is the difference between the basic
dimensions of the mating parts. The allowance may be
positive or negative when the shaft size is less then hole
size, then the allowance is positive and when the shaft
size is greater than hole size, then the allowance is
negative.
987. A dead weight tester is used for
(a) accurate measurement of load
(b) producing high pressure
(c) testing the magnitude of given weight
(d) calibration pressure measuring instruments
(KPSC AE 2015)
Ans : (d) A dead weight tester is used for calibrating
pressure measuring instruments
988. All the thread characteristics can be measured
precisely with
(a) Thread gauge
(b) Screw pitch gauge
(c) Micrometer with anvil
(d) Tool room microscope
(KPSC AE 2015)
Ans : (d) All the thread characteristic measured
precisely with tool room microscope.
989. Mechanical strain gauges can measure Ans : (a) Vernier caliper gauge improves the measuring
(a) static and dynamic strains sensitivity.
(b) dynamic strains only Vernier caliper is used to measure external as well as
(c) static strains only internal diameter, diameters of shaft thickness of parts,
depth of slots and holes, to an accuracy of 0.02 mm.
(d) static and quasi-static strains
993. The ratchet mechanism in a micrometer screw
(KPSC AE 2015)
gauge serves to :
Ans : (d) Mechanical strain gauge measure static and (a) Check wear out
quasi-static strains. (b) ensure a uniform measuring force
Strain measurement:- (c) eliminate play
There is a wide variety of strain measuring techniques (d) use it as a snap gauge
such as photo- elasticity, interferometry, holography HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
and strain gauges. Ans : (b) The ratchet mechanism in a micrometer screw
Operation of resistance strain gauges is based on the gauge serves to ensure a uniform measuring force.
principle that electrical resistance of a conductor 994. All the working surfaces and the cylindrical
changes when the resistance element is strained by an surfaces of the rollers of sine bar have a
external force. the resistance change is measured and surface finish of the order of :
correlated to strain or the physical effect causing strain. (a) 0.2 micron (b) 0.5 micron
for a material strained within elastic limits. (c) 1 micron (d) 5 micron
990. LVDT is used for measuring: HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
(a) displacement (b) roughness Ans : (a) All the working surfaces and the cylindrical
(c) pressure (d) speed surfaces of the rollers of sine bars have a surface finish
of the order of 0.2 micron
(HPPSC LECT. 2016)
Sine bar:- It is used either to measure angles more
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 precisely than a bevel protractor or for locating any
(UJVNL-AE-2016) work to given angle within very close limits. It is
Ans : (a) LVDT is used for measuring displacement generally used with slip gauge.
LVDT:- Linear Variable Displacement Transducer. A 995. The difference between the upper limit and
very basic transducer which is always useful in the field lower limit of a dimension is known as :
of instrumentation. (a) Basic size (b) Nominal size
Principle of LVDT:-LVDT works under the principle (c) Tolerance (d) Actual size
of mutual induction, and the displacement which is a HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
non-electrical energy is converted into an electrical Ans : (c) Tolerance:- It is the difference between the
energy. And the way how the energy is getting upper limit and lower limit of a dimension. The
converted is described in working of LVDT in a tolerance may be unilateral or bilateral
detailed manner. Unilateral System of tolerance:- 20 +−0.004
0.000
991. GO-NO GO gauges are used for inspection of: Bilateral System of tolerance:- 20+−0.002
0.002
(a) variables 996. According to Indian standard specifications the
(b) attributes total number of designated grades of
(c) both variables and attributes fundamental are :
(d) none of these (a) 18 (b) 21
(HPPSC LECT. 2016) (c) 24 (d) 28
Ans : (b) Go - No Go gauges are used for inspection of (KPSC AE. 2015)
attributes. Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
* Go gauges are designed at maximum material limit Ans : (a) According to Indian standard specifications
condition and NO GO gauges are design at minimum the total number of designated grades of fundamental
are 18
material limit condition.
997. A feeler gauge is used to check :
* Go gauges are designed to check shape as well size.
(a) pitch of gears
And has to be in the full form.
(b) shape of screw threads
992. Vernier caliper gauge improves the : (c) bore of discs and pulleys
(a) measuring sensitivity (b) accuracy (d) thickness of a clearance
(c) repeatability (d) resolution (KPSC AE. 2015)
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 (RPSC AE 2016)
806
Ans : (d) A feeler gauge is used to check thickness of a (d) due to elongation length increases and
Clearance. diameter reduces thereby resistance changes
Feeler gauge:- It is used to check the Clearances RPSC AE 2016
between two mating surface Ans : (d) Resistance wire strain gauge works on the
998. Auto collimeter is used to check principle due to elongation length increases and
(a) Roughness (b) Flatness diameter reduce by resistance changes.
(c) Angle (d) Automobile balance 1003. Which of the following is the most important
MPPSC AE 2016 characteristic of a measuring instrument?
Ans : (c) An autocollimator is an optical instrument for (a) precision (b) accuracy
non-contact measurement of angles. They are typically (c) repeatability (d) sensitivity
used to align components and measure deflections in RPSC AE 2016
optical or mechanical systems. TNPSC 2019
999. Repeatability of a measurement process Ans : (c) Repeatability is the most important
(a) repeatability of a measurement process characteristic of a measuring instrument.
(b) ability of a measuring device to detect small 1004. Which of the following gives an idea about the
differences in a quantity being measured
ability of the equipment to detect small
(c) ability of a measuring device to detect small variation is the input signal (quantity being
differences in a quantity being measured measured)?
(d) error of judgment in reading an observation (a) readability (b) accuracy
RPSC AE 2016 (c) sensitivity (d) precision
Ans : (a) Precision is repeatability of a measurement RPSC AE 2016
process.
TNPSC AE 2018
Precision:-Precision or reproducibility refers to the
closeness or agreement between several measurements Ans : (c) Sensitivity:- Is the ratio of the magnitude of
of the same quantity under certain inference conditions. response (output signal) to the magnitude of quantity
being measured ( input signal.)
1000. Accuracy is
Sensitivity is represented by the slope of calibration
(a) repeatability of a measuring process
curve, and it has wide range of units and these depend
(b) error of judgment in recording an observation
upon the instrument being investigated.
(c) ability of an instrument to reproduce same
reading under identical situations 1005. Thickness of light gauge sheet steel can be best
checked with a
(d) agreement of the result of a measurement
(a) finely divided steel scale
with the true value of the measured quantity
(b) depth gauge
RPSC AE 2016 (c) micrometer
Ans : (d) Accuracy is agreement of the result of a (d) thickness measuring machine fitted with dial
measurement with the true valve to be most measured gauge
quantity RPSC AE 2016
Accuracy:- is the extent to which the measured value Ans : (c) Thickness of light gauge sheet steel can be
(Vm) deviates from the true value (Vt) of the measured. best checked with a micrometer
1001. Which one of the following measuring 1006. Acute angle attachment is available in
instruments is supposed to be most accurate
(a) Taper plug gauge (b) Sine bar
(a) micrometer (b) vernier caliper
(c) Angle gauges (d) Bevel protractor
(c) vernier dial gauge (d) optical projector
TSPSC AEE 2015
RPSC AE 2016
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper Ans : (d) Acute angle attachment is available in bevel
protractor.
Ans : (d) Optical projector most accurate measuring
Bevel protractor:- It is also called vernier bevel
instrument.
protractor. It is used for measuring and testing angles,
1002. Resistance wire strain gauge works on the within the limit of 5 minuts (1/12 of a degree)
principle
(a) that resistance changes in proportion to strain 1007. Auto collimator uses
(a) white light (b) monochromatic light
on material
(c) mercury light (d) sodium vapour light
(b) the resistance of wire changes with load
TSPSC AEE 2015
(c) that conductivity is directly proportional to
load on member Ans : (a) Auto collimator uses white light.
807
1008. Roughness grade symbol "two triangles" Ans : (c) Flatness of a surface can be measured by co-
corresponds to the roughness grade number ordinate measuring machine. Co-ordinate measuring
(a) three (b) four machine is device which measured the all dimension,
(c) five (d) eight roughness, flatness, groove angle etc.
TSPSC AEE 2015 1012. one micron is equale to
Ans : (d) Roughness grade symbol "two triangle" (a) 0.001 mm (b) 0.001 mm
corresponds to the roughness grade number eight. is less (c) 0.001 A° (d) None of the above
surface finishing. UJVNL AE 2016
Roughness symbol Finish Ans : (b) 1 micron = 0.001 mm
∼ Very rough 1013. Interchangeability possible due to
∇ Coarse (a) Standardization
∇∇ Smooth (b) Proper fastening methods
∇∇∇ fine (c) Temporary joints
(d) None of the above
∇∇∇∇ super fine.
UJVNL AE 2016
1009. State the meaning of following machining
symbol. Ans : (a) Interchangeability possible due to
standardization.
1014. The ratio of standard deviation and square
root of number of observation is called
(a) RMS value
(b) Variance
(a) the surface is machined (c) Optimum value
(b) removal of material by machining is required (d) Standard error
(c) removal of material is not permitted UJVNL AE 2016
(d) obtained by any production method Ans : (d) Standard error is the ratio of standard
TSPSC AEE 2015 deviation and square root of number of observation.
Ans : (c) Removal of material is not permitted. 1015. Which instrument is used to measure the
1010. Which of the following is used as GO & NO inclination of a plane surface precisely?
GO gauge in measurement? (a) Snap gauge (b) Sine bar
(a) Slip gauge (b) Snap gauge (c) Angle plate (d) 1 and 2 both
(c) Angle gauge (d) Sprit level UJVNL AE 2016
UJVNL AE 2016 Ans : (b) Sine bar is used to measure the inclination of
Ans : (b) Snap gauge used as Go and No Go gauge in a plane surface precisely.
measurement. sine bar used either to measure angles more precisely
Go - No Go gauges are used for inspection of attributes. than a bevel protractor or for location any work to give
* Go gauges are designed at maximum material limit angle within very close limits.
condition and NO GO gauges are design at minimum 1016. According to Indian Standard specification 50
material limit condition. H7/g6 means that the
* Go gauges are designed to check shape as well size. (a) actual size is 50 mm.
And has to be in the full form. (b) basic size is 50 mm.
1011. Flatness of a surface can be measured by (c) difference between actual size and basic size
(a) Profile projector is 50 mm.
(b) Slip gauges (d) max. size is 50 mm.
(c) Coordinate measuring machine TSPSC AEE 2015
(d) Talysurf Ans : (b) According to Indian standard specification 50
UJVNL AE 2016 H7/g6 means that the basic size in 50 mm.
808
 14. Mechatronics and Robotics
1. Statement (I) : Microprocessors which have (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
memory and various input/output (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
arrangements, all on the same chip, are called ESE 2020
microcontrollers. Ans. (d) : Following factors are to be considered while
Statement (II) : The microcontroller is the selecting a micro controller-
integration of a microprocessor with RAM, (i) Memory requirements
ROM, EPROM, EEPROM and I/O interfaces, (ii) Processing speed required
and other peripherals such as timers, on a (iii) Number of input/output pins
single chip. (iv) Interfaces required
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are (v) The number of interrupts required
individually true and Statement (II) is the 5. Which of the following statements regarding
correct explanation of Statement (I). interface circuit are correct?
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are 1. Electrical buffering is needed when the
individually true, but Statement (II) is not the peripheral operates at a different voltage
correct explanation of Statement (I). or current to that on the
(c) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is microprocessor bus system or there are
false. different ground references.
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is 2. Timing control is needed when the data
true. transfer rates of the peripheral and the
ESE 2020 microprocessor are different.
Ans. (a) : Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are 3. Changing the number of lines is needed
individually true and Statement (II) is the correct when the codes used by the peripherals
explanation of Statement (I). differ from those used by the
2. Statement (I) : Capacitive proximity sensor can microprocessor.
only be used for the detection of metal objects (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
and is best with ferrous metals. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Statement (II) : One form of capacitive ESE 2020
proximity sensor consists of a single capacitor Ans. (a) :
plate probe with the other plate being formed 1- Electrical buffering is needed when the peripheral
by the object, which has to be metallic and operates at a different voltage or current to that on the
earthed. microprocessor bus system or there are different
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are ground references.
individually true and Statement (II) is the 2- Timing control is needed when the data transfer rates
correct explanation of Statement (I). of the peripheral and the microprocessor are different.
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are 6. Alternative paths provided by vertical paths
individually true, but Statement (II) is not the from the main rung of a ladder diagram, that
correct explanation of Statement (I). is, paths in parallel, represent
(c) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is (a) Logical AND operations
false. (b) Logical OR operations
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is (c) Logical NOT operations
true. (d) Logical NOR operations
ESE 2020 ESE 2020
Ans. (d) : Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is Ans. (b) : Logical OR operations
true 7. The resolution of an encoder with 10 tracks will
3. Revolving joint of the robot is referred to as be nearly
(a) L joint (b) O joint (a) 0.15° (b) 0.25°
(c) T joint (d) V joint (c) 0.35° (d) 0.45°
ESE 2020 ESE 2020
Ans. (d) : V joint Ans. (c) :
4. Which of the following factors are to be 360
considered while selecting a microcontroller? Resolution = n
1. Memory requirements 2
2. Processing speed required 360
= 10 = 0.35º
3. Number of input/output pins 2
809
8. The selection of the right controller for the 11. A compliant motion control of robots can be
application depends on understood by the problem of controlling of
1. The degree of control required by the (a) Position and velocity of joints
application. (b) Position and acceleration of the end-effector
2. The individual characteristics of the plants. (c) Manipulator motion and its force interactions
3. The desirable performance level including with the environment
required response, steady-state deviation and (d) Joint velocities of given end-effector velocity
stability. ESE 2020
Which of the above statements are correct? Ans. (c) : Manipulator motion and its force interactions
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only with the environment.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 12. For the vector v = 25 i + 10 j + 20 k, perform a
ESE 2020 translation by a distance of 8 in the x-direction,
Ans. (d) : 1) The degree of control required by the 5 in the y-direction and 0 in the z-direction.
application. The translated vector Hv will be
2) The individual characteristics of the plant.
1  33 
3) The desirable performance level including response,  20  15 
steady-state deviation and stability. (a)   (b)  
9. Consider a system described by 33   20 
x = Ax Bu    
y = Cx Du 15  1 
The system is completely output controllable if 15  1 
and only if 33  15 
(a) The matrix (c)   (d)  
1   20 
[CB ⋮ CBA ⋮ CB2A ⋮⋯⋮ CBn–1A ⋮ D]    
is of rank n  20  33 
(b) The matrix ESE 2020
[CB ⋮ CAB ⋮ CA2B ⋮⋯⋮ CAn–1B ⋮ D] Ans. (b) : Given vector, v = 25iˆ + 10jˆ + 20kˆ
is of rank m
(c) The matrix Translation in x direction = 8
Translation in y-direction = 5
[BC ⋮ BAC ⋮ BA2C ⋮⋯⋮ BAn–1C ⋮ D]
Translation in z-direction = 0
is of rank m
(d) The matrix 1 0 0 8   25 
[BC ⋮ ABC ⋮ CA2B ⋮⋯⋮ CBn–1A ⋮ D] 0 1 0 5  10 
is of rank n Translation vector =   
0 0 1 0   20 
where:   
x = State vector (n-vector) 0 0 0 1  1 
u = Control vector (r-vector) 33 
y = Output vector (m-vector) 15 
A = n × n matrix = 
B = n × r matrix  20 
C = m × n matrix  
1 
D = m × r matrix
ESE 2020 13. Statement (I) : SCARA configuration provides
substantial rigidity for the robot in the vertical
Ans. (b) : The matrix
direction, but compliance in the horizontal
[CB ⋮ CAB ⋮ CA2B ⋮⋯⋮ CAn–1B ⋮ D] plane.
is of rank m Statement (II) : A special version of the
10. Which one of the following symbols is used as cartesian coordinate robot is the SCARA,
the notation for designating arm and body of a which has a very high lift capacity as it is
robot with jointed arm configuration? designed for high rigidity.
(a) TRL (b) TLL, LTL, LVL (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
(c) LLL (d) TRR, VVR individually true and Statement (II) is the
ESE 2020 correct explanation of Statement (I).
Ans. (d) : (b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
Robot configuration Symbol individually true, but Statement (II) is not the
(Arm & Body) correct explanation of Statement (I).
Jointed arm configuration → TRR, VVR (c) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is
false.
Polar configuration → TRL
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is
Cylindrical configuration → TLL, LTL, LVL true.
Cartesian configuration → LLL ESE 2020
810
Ans. (c) : Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is 18. An actuator having a stem movement at full
false. travel of 30 mm is mounted with a control
14. Which of the following is one of the basic units valve having an equal percentage plug and with
of memory controller in micro-controller? minimum flow rate of 2 m3/s and maximum
(a) Microcode engine flow rate of 24 m3/s. When the stem movement
(b) Master program counter is 10 mm, the flow rate will be
(c) Program status word (a) 3.4 m3/s (b) 3.8 m3/s
(d) Slave program counter (c) 4.2 m3/s (d) 4.6 m3/s
ESE 2019 ESE 2019
Ans. (d) : Given,
Ans. (d) : The register Arithmetic-logic unit (RALU)
Maximum flow rate (Qm) = 24 m3/s
communicates with all memory, except the register file
and peripheral SFRs, through the memory controller. Maximum flow
Valve range ability (R) =
The memory controller contains the prefetch queue, the Minimum flow
slave program counter (slave PC), address and data 24
= = 12
registers, and the bus controller. 2
15. In ladder logic programming, an alternative in Maximum valve travel (T) = 30 mm
place of using same internal relay contact for x = 10 mm
x 
every rung is to use  −1
(a) battery-backed relay Q = Qn R  T 

(b) dummy relay  10 

 −1
(c) one-shot operation = 24(12) 30 
(d) master control relay = 4.57
ESE 2019 ≈ 4.6 m3/s
Ans. (d) : Master control relay is used in ladder logic 19. In a rack and pinion system, rack is an element
for whole block of outputs which can be simultaneously moving in translational direction and pinion is
turned on/off. a rotary gear. Which one of the following
16. Consider the following statements: statements is correct?
(1) The term ‘attenuation’ is used to describe the (a) Translational acceleration is directly
process of removing a certain band of proportional to the moment of inertia of
frequencies from a signal and permitting pinion.
others to be transmitted. (b) Translational acceleration is inversely
(2) The Wheatstone bridge can be used to proportional to the moment of inertia of
convert a voltage change to an electrical pinion.
resistance change. (c) Angular acceleration is inversely proportional
Which of the above statements is/are correct? to the torque on pinion shaft.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) Translational velocity is directly proportional
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 and 2 to the moment of inertia of pinion.
ESE 2019 ESE 2019
Ans. (d) : Attenuation– Attenuation is a general term Ans. (b) : Translational acceleration at = σα
that refers to any reduction in the strength of a signal of where r = radius of pinion
particular frequencies but not of removing signal of α = angular acceleration of pinion
some frequencies. So statement-1 is wrong. Torque T
α= =
Wheatstone Bridge–It can be used to convert a I pinion I pinion
resistance change to a voltage change. So statement-2 is Tr
also wrong. at =
I pinion
17. At time t, the excitation voltage to a re-solver is
24 V. The shaft angle is 90°. The output signals 1
at ∝
from the re-solver VS1 and VS2 will be I pinion
(a) 12 V and 0 V (b) 24 V and 0 V
20. For the control signal to change at a rate
(c) 12 V and 12 V (d) 24 V and 12 V
proportional to the error signal, the robotic
ESE 2019
controller must employ
Ans. (b) : Given, (a) integral control
V1 = 24 V, α = 90° (b) proportional-plus-integral control
Output signals of re-solver are (c) proportional-plus-derivative control
Vs1 = V1sinα = 24 sin90 = 24 V (d) proportional-plus-integral-plus-derivative
Vs2 = V1cosα = 24 cos90 = 0 V control
ESE 2019
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Ans. (a) : Given that the control signal to change at a Ans. (d) : Rotational transformation is given by
rate proportional to the error signal it means 1 0 0 0
d  0 cos θ − sin θ 0 
[ ∆I(t)] ∝ E(t) Rot (x, 90) =  
dt
∆I(t) = k∫E(t)dt  0 sin θ cos θ 0 
∆I(t) = change of control signal (controller  0 0 0 1 
output) 1 0 0 0
E(t) = Error signal  0 cos90 − sin 90 0 
As the change of control signal is proportional to the = 
 0 sin 90 cos90 0 
integral of error, it represents "integral controller".
 0 0 0 1 
21. What is the minimum number of degrees of
freedom that a robot needs to have in order to 1 0 0 0
locate its end effectors at an arbitrary point  0 0 −1 0 
= 
with an arbitrary orientation in space? 0 1 0 0
(a) 3 (b) 4  0 0 0 1 
(c) 5 (d) 6 V = 5i + 3j + 8k
ESE 2019 Rotated vector = Rot (x, θ) of V
Ans. (d) : 6
 1 0 0 0  5 
22. Using a robot with 1 degree of freedom and  0 0 −1 0   3 
having 1 sliding joint with a full range of 1 m, if =  
the robot’s control memory has a 12-bit storage  0 1 0 0  8 
capacity, the control resolution for the axis of  0 0 0 1  1 
motion will be 5
(a) 0.236 mm (b) 0.244 mm  −8
(c) 0.252 mm (d) 0.260 mm = 
ESE 2019 3
Ans. (b) : Given,  1 
Total range of sliding joint = 1m = 1000 mm 25. Statement (I): The function of arithmetic logic
Control memory = 12 bit, n = 12 unit (ALU) in microprocessor is to perform data
Number of increments = 212 = 4096 manipulation.
Stroke length Statement (II): The status register is where data
Control resolution = for an input to the arithmetic and logic unit is
Number of increment
Stroke length temporarily stored.
= ESE 2019
2n
Ans. (c) : The ALU is one of the most important
1000
= = 0.244 mm components in microprocessor and is typically the part
4096 of the processor that is designed first. Once the ALU is
23. Assume that the joint mechanisms at serial link designed the rest of the microprocessor is implemented
manipulators are frictionless. The joint torque to feed operands and control codes to the ALU.
τ required to bear an arbitrary end point force Status register (flag register) consist of flag bits
F is indicates status of ALU after data manipulation.
(a) J–1F (b) JF So statement-1 is true while statement-2 is false.
(c) JTF (d) J–1FT 26. Statement (I): To use a sensor, we generally need
ESE 2019 to add signal conditioning circuitry, such as
Ans. (c) : Joint torque τ = JTF circuits which amplify and convert from analog to
JT = Transpose of Jacobian matrix digital, to get the sensor signal in the right form,
F = End-point force vector take account of any nonlinearities, and calibrate it.
24. Rotate the vector v = 5i + 3j + 8k by an angle of Statement (II): A smart sensor is integrated with
90° about the x-axis. The rotated vector (Hv) the required buffering and conditioning circuitry
would be in a single element and provides functions beyond
that of just a sensor.
1   −8 
ESE 2019
(a) 3  (b) 5  Ans. (b) : To use a sensor, we generally need to add
 −8 1 
5  3  signal conditioning circuitry, such as circuits which
amplify and convert from analog to digital, to get the
3  5  sensor signal in the right form, take account of any
(c)  −8 (d)  −8 nonlinearities and calibrate it. Additionally, we need to
5 3
1  1  take account of drift i.e., a gradual change in the
properties of a sensor over time. Some sensors have all
ESE 2019
812
these elements taken care of in single package; they are
called smart sensors.
Hence both the statements are true and second is the
correct explanation of first.
27. Statement (I): The count-up overflow (OV) bit is
1 when the up-counter increments above the
maximum positive value.
Statement (II): The count-down underflow (UN)
bit is 1 when the counter decrements below the
minimum negative value.
ESE 2019
Ans. (c) : The count-down underflow (UN) bit is 1
when the counter decrements below the maximum
negative value.
28. Statement (I): The multiplexer is essentially an
electronic switching device which enables each of
the inputs to be sampled in turn.
Statement (II): A multiplexer is a circuit that is
able to have inputs of data from a number of
sources and then, by selecting an input channel,
gives an output from just one of them.
ESE 2019
Ans. (a) : The multiplexer is a combinational logic
circuit designed to switch one of several input lines to a
single common output line.
29. Statement (I): The term ‘encoder’ is used for a
device that provides an analog output as a result of
angular or linear displacement.
Statement (II): An increment encoder detects
changes in angular or linear displacement from
some datum position where as an absolute encoder
gives the actual angular or linear position.
ESE 2019
Ans. (d) : An encoder is used for providing a digital
output as a result of angular or linear displacement.
! An increment encoder detects changes in angular or
linear displacement from some datum position.
! An absolute encoder gives the actual angular or
linear position.
30. Statement (I): Process control valves are used to
control the rate of fluid flow and are used where,
perhaps, the rate of flow of a liquid into a tank has
to be controlled.
Statement (II): A common form of pneumatic
actuator used with process control valves is the
diaphragm actuator.
ESE 2019
Ans. (b) : Process control valves are used to control the
rate of fluid flow and are used where, perhaps, the rate
of flow of a liquid into a tank has to be controlled. The
basis of such valves is an actuator being used to move a
plug into the flow pipe and so alter the cross-section of
the pipe through which the fluid can flow.
A common form of pneumatic actuator used with
process control valve is the diaphragm actuator.
Essentially it consists of a diaphragm with the input
pressure signal from the controller on one side and
atmospheric pressure on the other, this difference in
pressure being termed the gauge pressure.
813
31. The degrees of freedom of a SCARA robot are
(a) six (b) five
(c) four (d) three
ESE 2018
Ans. (c) : SCARA robot has 4 DOF. Its full form is
"Selective Compliance Assembly Robot Arm" It is
similar in construction to the jointer-arm robot, except
the shoulder and elbow rotational axes are vertical.
32. Which one of the following devices produces
incremental motion through equal pulses?
(a) AC servomotor (b) DC servomotor
(c) Stepper motor (d) Series motor
ESE 2018
Ans. (c) : In a stepper motor, there are salient poles or
rotor as well as stator.
The motion of the rotor can be controlled by energizing
the stator windings in a sequence, by using equal pulses.
33. Consider the following statements regarding
electromechanical devices
1. A potentiometer has an input of rotation and an
output of a potential difference.
2. An electric motor has an input of a potential
difference and an output of rotation of a shaft.
3. A generator has an input of rotation of a shaft
and an output of a potential difference.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE 2018
Ans. (d) : (i) A potentiometer has an input of
displacement (either linear or angular) and an output of
potential difference.
(ii) For electric motor, the input is potential difference
and output is rotation of shaft.
(iii) For electric generator, the input is rotation of shaft
and output is potential difference.
34. The indirect operation of solenoid valve in
pneumatic circuit is designed to reduce
1. valve size towards lowering the cost
2. coil size and electrical power consumption
3. response time
Which of the above is/are relevant to the
context?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ESE 2018
Ans. (b) : A solenoid valve is an electromechanical
actuated valve to control the flow of liquids and gases.
The indirect operation of solenoid valve in pneumatic
circuit is designed to reduce coil size and electrical
power consumption.
35. Consider the following statements:
1. Robots take permissible actions only.
2. All actions that are obligatory for robots are
actually performed by them subject to ties and
conflicts among available actions.
3. All permissible actions can be proved by the
robot to be permissible and it can be explained
in ordinary English.
 Which of the above statements are correct? Ans. (b) : RISC stands for reduced instruction set
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only computer.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 39. An OR logic control in pneumatic systems is
ESE 2018 possible with the help of
Ans. (b) : (a) sequence valve (b) shuttle value
(i) Robots only take permissible actions. (c) dual pressure valve (d) delay valve
(ii) Robots perform all obligatory actions relevant to ESE 2018
them, subject to ties and conflicts among Ans. (b) : Shuttle valve allows fluid flow from one of
available actions.
two sources, like of logic.
(iii) All robot actions cannot be explained by ordinary
The basic structure of a shuttle valve is like a tube with
English for e.g. in lead through programming
three opening.
mode, robot joints are moved with a teach
pendant. 40. Which one of the following is not an
36. Consider the following statements relating to Addressing Mode in 8085?
the term ‘Robot Repeatability’: (a) Immediate (b) Indirect
1. It is a statistical term associated with accuracy (c) Register (d) Segment
in the action. ESE 2018
2. It is a measure of the ability of the robot to Ans. (d) : The way of specifying data to be operated by
position the tool tip in the same place an instruction is called addressing mode.
repeatedly. In 8085 microprocessor there are 5 types of addressing
3. It does not describe the error with respect to modes
absolute coordinates. (i) Immediate addressing
Which of the above statements are correct? (ii) Register addressing
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (iii) Direct addressing mode
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (iv) Register indirect addressing mode
ESE 2018 (v) Implied/Implicit addressing mode
Ans. (c) : Accuracy is how closely a robot can reach a 41. Consider the following statements regarding
commanded position. When the absolute position of the Programming Logic Controller (PLC):
robot is measured and compared to the commanded 1. It was dev eloped to replace the
position the error is a measure of accuracy. microprocessor.
Repeatability is how well the robot will return to a 2. Wiring between device and relay contracts
programmed position. This is not the same as accuracy. are done in its program.
Accuracy and repeatability are different measures. 3. Its I/O interface section connects it to external
Note : The answer given by UPSC is option (d) field devices.
37. Consider the following statements regarding 4. It requires extensive wiring in the application.
homogeneous coordinate transformation (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
matrix : (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
1. A homogeneous transformation matrix can be ESE 2018
considered to consist of four sub-matrices. Ans. (c) : Option 1 and 4 are wrong because
2. The upper left 3 × 3 sub-matrix represents the Option 1 : PLC not replace microprocessor as it is a
position vector. part of PLC.
3. The upper right 3 × 1 sub-matrix represents the Option 4 : Not require extensive wiring by PLC.
rotation matrix.
42. If B is the magnetic flux density at right angles
4. The lower left 1 × 3 sub-matrix represents
to a plate, I is the current flow through the
perspective transformation.
plate, t is the plate thickness and KH is Hall
Which of the above statements are correct?
coefficient, the resultant transverse potential
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
difference V for Hall sensor is given by
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
ESE 2018 Bt t
(a) K H (b) K H
Ans. (b) : Statement 2 : Upper left 3 × 3 sub-matrix I BI
represent rotation matrix. BI I
(c) K H (d) K H
Statement 3 : Upper right 3 × 1 sub-matrix represent t Bt
position. ESE 2018
So statement 2 and statement 3 both are wrong. Ans. (c) : A hall effect sensor is a device that is used to
38. With reference to a microprocessor, RISC measure the magnitude of a magnetic field. Its output
stands for voltage is directly proportional to the magnetic field
(a) Redefined Instruction Set Computer strength through it.
(b) Reduced Instruction Set Computer Hall effect voltage is given by
(c) Restructured Instruction Set Computer BI
(d) Regional Instruction Set Computer VH = K H
ESE 2018 t
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43. Which one of the following statements is Linear Resolution
correct? Ans. (d) : Step angle = × 360°
Pitch
(a) Microprocessor is more suitable for general
purpose and micro controller is more suitable 0.5
= × 360°
for special purpose and custom built 30
application = 6°
(b) Microprocessor and micro-controller are 47. Consider the following statements regarding a
suitable for general purpose application stepper motor:
(c) Microprocessor and micro-controller and 1. The rotation angle of the motor is proportional
suitable for special purpose application to the input pulse.
(d) Microprocessor and microcontroller are 2. The motor has full torque at standstill.
suitable for special purpose and custom-built 3. Speed and electric control signal of the motor
application vary mutually linearly.
ESE 2018 Which of the above statements are correct?
Ans. (a) : Microprocessors has off-chip peripherals, (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
suitable for general purpose applications and (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
microcontrollers has on-chip peripherals with fixed ESE 2017
quantity to suit special purpose. Ans. (d) : Advantages of stepper motor are
44. Which one of the following is correct with ! The rotation angle of the motor is proportional to
respect to microcontrollers? the input pulse.
(a) Integration of a microprocessor with I/O ! The motor has full torque at standstill.
interfaces and memory and other peripherals ! Its rotational speed varies directly proportional to
in a single IC chip the frequency of the pulse.
(b) A single very large scale integrated (VLSI) ! Excellent response to starting, stopping and
chip that contains programmable electronic reversing.
components that perform control functions.
(c) Digital circuits for data handling and 48. Consider the following statements with
computation. reference to SCARA Robot:
(d) The primary computation and system control 1. It has four degrees of freedom.
operations. 2. It has only one forward kinematic solution.
ESE 2017 3. It has two inverse kinematic solutions.
Ans. (a) Microcontroller is integration of all Which of the above statements are correct?
microprocessor, input and memory other peripheral in a (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
single chip. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
45. Which one of the following statements is ESE 2017
correct? Ans. (d) : 1. SCARA Robol has 4 degree of freedom
Seismic transducer working in the 2. Forward solution is only one
displacement mode should have 3. Inverse kinematic solution are two (+ or −)
(a) weak springs and heavy mass 49. The number of degrees of freedom in a 3D
(b) stiff springs and light mass Robot of TRL : R type configuration is
(c) weak springs and light mass (a) 4 (b) 3
(d) stiff springs and heavy mass (c) 2 (d) 1
ESE 2017 ESE 2017
ω Ans. (a) :
Ans. (a) : In displacement mode ratio r = >2
ωn Robot DOF
ω > ωn Planar 3
k PUMA Industrial 6
Natural frequency is low =
m T3 6
So, k is low SCARA 4
⇒ weak spring and m is high hence heavy mass. TRL : R type 4
46. A stepper motor is to be used to drive the linear 50. Which of the following are the basic differences
axis of a certain Mechatronics system. The between vibration signature and noise
motor output shaft is connected to a screw signature?
thread with a 30 mm pitch. Linear resolution of 1. Vibration signature is essentially in the
0.5 mm is stipulated. What is the needed step frequency range zero to 100 cps whereas noise
angle?
signature is in the range 20 cps to 3000 cps.
(a) 9° (b) 8°
(c) 7° (d) 6° 2. Vibration signature has well-defined peaks
ESE 2017 whereas the noise signal is smeared.
815
 3. The intensities of noise signatures are much less (c) Touch and tactile
than that of vibration signatures. (d) None of these
4. Detection of vibration signature calls for a (HPPSC LECT. 2016)
microphone whereas that of noise can do with a Ans : (b) Ultrasonic sensor is an example for proximity
pickup. sensor used in Robots.
Select the correct answer using the code given
55. Which Robot configuration represent a human
below.
arm?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(a) Mechanical configuration
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4
(b) Polar configuration
ESE 2017
(c) Cylindrical configuration
Ans. (b) : Vibration signature range might go beyond
(d) Jointed arm configuration
100 cps and may be even more than 20,000 cps
TNPSC AE 2018
Vibration signature → Acceleration (pick-up)
Ans. (d) : Jointed arm configuration represent a human
Noise → Microphone
arm in robot configuration.
51. Consider the following features relating to
Robot kinematics with reference to SCARA 56. Which of the following is not a robot
Robot: programming method?
1. Shoulder and elbow rotational axes are vertical. (a) Manual programming method
2. The Robot could perform insertion tasks along (b) Walk through programming method
the vertical direction. (c) Teach pendant method
3. Its general configuration is analogous to that of (d) Numerical programming method
a human arm. TNPSC AE 2018
Which of the above features are correct? Ans. (d) : Numerical programming method is not a
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only robot programming method.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 57. Consider the following statements with respect
ESE 2017 to Laws of Robotics:
Ans. (d) : Its full form is 'selective compliance 1. A robot may not injure a human being or,
Assembly Robot Arm'. through inaction, allow a human being to
It is similar in construction to the jointer-arm robot, come to harm
except the shoulder and elbow rotational axes are 2. A robot must obey orders to it by human
vertical. It means that the arm is very rigid in the beings, except where such orders would
vertical direction, but compliant in the horizontal conflict with the above first law
direction. Its general configuration is analogous to that 3. A robot may or may not obey any order given
of a human arm. to it by human beings
52. In robotics, precision of movement is a complex Which of the above statements are correct?
issue and it is described as three attributes (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
namely spatial resolution, repeatability and
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(a) soundness (b) accuracy
JWM 2017
(c) speed (d) sensation
ESE 2017
TNPSC AE 2017
Ans. (c) : Law of Robotics-
Ans. (b) : In robotics, precision of movement is a
complex issue and it is described as three attributes 1. A robot may not injured a human being or through
namely spatial resolution, repeatability and accuracy. inaction, allow a human being to come to harm.
53. A Robot is basically a 2. A robot must obey the orders give it by human
beings except where such orders would conflict
(a) machining device
with the first law.
(b) inspection device
3. A robot must protect its own existence as long as
(c) material handler
such protection does not conflict with the first or
(d) machine tool
second laws.
TNPSC AE 2017
58. The most accurate robot is
Ans. (c) : A Robot is basically a material handler.
(a) Cartesian robot (b) Polar robot
54. ........sensor is an example for proximity sensor
(c) Spherical robot (d) Articulated
used in Robots.
(a) Micro switch TSPSC AEE 2015
(b) Ultrasonic Ans. (a) : The most accurate robot is Cartesian robot.
816
 15. RENEWABLE SOURCES OF ENERGY
1. With respect to the wind turbine blades, TSR 3. The available wind power in wind turbines
means increases with
(a) Tip Swift Ratio (a) Decrease in rotor diameter
(b) Tip Sharp Ratio
(b) Increase in rotor diameter
(c) Tip Speed Ratio
(c) Decrease in wind velocity
(d) Tip Swing Ratio
(d) Decrease in air velocity
ESE 2020
Ans. (c) : TSR = Tip Speed ratio RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
blade tip speed Ans. (b) : The available wind power in wind turbines
=
wind speed increases with increase in rotor diameter.
2. For a wind turbine 10 m long running at 20 4. Which of the following is not a renewable
rpm in 12.9 kmph wind, the TSR will be nearly source of energy
(a) 3.6 (b) 5.8 (a) Solar energy
(c) 7.6 (d) 9.8
(b) Wind energy
ESE 2020
(c) Natural gas
Tip speed ( R ω )
Ans. (b) : TSR = (d) Tidal energy
Wind velocity ( V )
R= 10 m HPPSC AE 2018

2 × π × 20 Ans. (c) : Renewable energy is energy that is collected

ω= rad/sec
60 from renewable resources, which are naturally
5 replenished on a human timescale, such as sunlight,
V = 12.9 × m/sec
18 wind, rain, tides, waves and geothermal heat,
10 × 2 × π × 20 agricultural residue, firewood and animal dung. The
TSR =
5
12.9 × non-renewable sources are the fossil fuels such as coal,
18
TSR = 5.84 crude oil and natural gas.

817
 16. INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING
5. A company has the data of a product as:
1. Break–Even Analysis Fixed cost/month = ` 60,000
Variable cost/unit = ` 210
1. At breakeven point:- Selling price/unit = ` 320
(a) Sales revenue > total cost
(b) Sales revenue = total cost Production capacity = 1600 unit/month.
(c) Sales revenue < total cost If the production is carried out at 80% of the
(d) None of the above rated capacity. What will be the monthly
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I profit?
TSPSC AEE 2015 (a) ` 80,800 (b) ` 90,900
Ans. (b) : Breakeven point- The breakeven point is the (c) ` 85,850 (d) ` 75,750
level of production at which the costs of production SJVN ET 2019
equal the revenues for a product.
At breakeven point, profit is will be zero. Ans. (a) : Fixed cost/month = ` 60,000
2. BEP indicates the recovery of Variable cost/unit = ` 210
(a) variable costs only Selling price/unit = ` 320
(b) both fixed and variable costs Production capacity = 1600 unit/month
(c) fixed cost only Rated capacity of production (r) = 80%
(d) both fixed and variable costs along with Actual production,
margin of profit
= 0.8 × 1600
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
=1280 units
Ans. (b) : both fixed and variable costs
Total cost = FC + Variable cost
3. A graphical device used to determine the break
even point and profit potential under varying = 60000 + 210 ×1280
conditions of output and costs is known as: = 328800
(a) Gantt chart (b) Flow chart Total Selling price (sales)
(c) Break-even chart (d) PERT chart = 320 ×1280
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 = 409600
Ans. (c) : A graphical device used to determine the Profit = Sales – Total cost
break even point and profit potential under varying = 409600 – 328800
conditions of output and costs is known as break-even
= 80800
chart.
4. Break-even analysis shows profit when– 6. Process X has a fixed cost of Rs. 30,000 per
(a) sales revenue is greater than total cost month and a variable cost of Rs. 8 per unit.
(b) sales revenue equal to total cost Process Y has a fixed cost of Rs. 12,000 per
(c) sales revenue is less than total cost month and a variable cost of Rs. 17 per unit. At
(d) sales revenue is less that fixed cost which value, total cost of processes X and Y
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper will be equal?
Ans. (a) : Break-even analysis shows profit when sales (a) 800 (b) 1200
revenues equal to total cost. (c) 1600 (d) 2000
(e) 2100
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Ans. (d) : At value of x, the total cost of X and Y will
be equal then.
30000 + 8 × x = 12000 + 17 x
9x = 18000
x = 2000 units.
Total Cost (F') = F + vx
Total Sales (S) = sx 7. In any crash program for a project
Break even point is the volume of production where the (a) both direct and indirect costs increase
total cost of manufacturing equal to the total sales also (b) indirect costs increase and direct costs
known as no profit no loss point.) decrease
818
 (c) direct costs increase and indirect costs 9. The fixed cost per month is ` 5,000, variable
decrease cost is ` 2 per unit, selling price is ` 7 per unit.
(d) cost are no criterion To achieve a profit of ` 1,000, the quantity
ESE 2018 produced per month will be:
Ans. (c) : Direct Cost–Direct cost increases with the (a) 800 (b) 1000
crashing of the project duration. (c) 1200 (d) 1400
(e) 1600
CGPSC AE 2014- I
Ans. (c) : Data given,
F.C. = `5000
v = ` 2 per unit
s = ` 7 per unit
P = ` 1000
x=?
Indirect Cost–Indirect costs increase with the duration Let us assume total quantity of product
of project. produced in one month is x
We know that
Total sell = F.C. + V.C. + Profit
x × s = F. C. + x × v + p
x [s – v] = F.C. + P
F.C. + P 5000 + 1000 6000
x= = =
(s − v) (7 − 2) 5

So during crashing process : x = 1200 units

! Direct cost increases. 10. The fixed cost of the firm is Rs. 60,000/- per
! Indirect cost decreases. month. The variable cost is Rs. 10/- per unit
8. In the production of a product, the fixed costs and selling price is Rs. 50 per unit. The break
are Rs. 6,000 and the variable cost is Rs. 10 per even quantity will be
product. If the sale price of the product is Rs. (a) 1300 (b) 1400
12 the break even volume of the product to be (c) 1500 (d) 1600
made will be RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
(a) 2000 (b) 3000 Ans. (c) : F.C. = 60000/month
(c) 4000 (d) 6000 Variable cost (v) = 10/unit
TNPSC AE 2017 Selling price (s) = 50/unit
Ans. (b) : Data given, We know that,
F = Rs. 60,000 Total sale = Total cost + Profit
v = Rs. 10/product x × s = F.C. + x × v + Profit
s = Rs. 12/product For break even quantity, profit = zero
We know that, x beq × s = FC + x beq × v
Total sale = Fixed costs + Total variable costs +
Profit FC
x beq =
x×s=F+v×x+P s−v
For B.E.V. of products. 60000
x beq =
P=0 50 − 10
then, xbeq = 1500 unit
xbev × s = F + v × xbev 11. The failure rate of a temperature measurement
F 6000 system used in a factory A, B, C and D ae 0.1,
x bev = = 0.2, 0.3, 0.4 per year respectively. Which one of
( s − v) 12 − 10
the above function has reliable measurement
xbev = 3000 units
system?
819
 (a) D (b) C Ans : (d) :
(c) A (d) B F
xBEP =
TNPSC AE 2013  V
P 1 − 
Ans. (c) : A  P
12. Break-even analysis can be used for 15. Break even point is the point where :
(a) Short run analysis (a) fixed and variable cost line will intersect
(b) Long run analysis (b) variable and total cost lines intersect
(c) Average of above two run analysis (c) total cost and fixed cost lines intersect
(d) There is no such criterion
(d) total cost and sales revenue lines intersect
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
(KPSC AE. 2015)
Ans. (a) : Short run analysis
Ans : (d) Break even point is the point where total Cost
and sales revenue line intersect

Break even analysis– it is the technique to study the

total cost, total revenue and output relationship.
–It determines the level of operation/production where 16. Break even point (BEP) indicates
the firm neither earn profit nor suffers loss. (a) Recovery of fixed cost
–At break even point total revenue equals to total cost. (b) Recovery of variable cost
13. In break even analysis, total cost consists of : (c) Recovery of both of above costs
(a) Fixed Cost + Sales Revenue (d) Recovery of fixed, variable costs and margin
(b) Variable Cost + Sales Revenue of profit.
(c) Fixed Cost + Variable Cost UJVNL AE 2016
(d) Fixed Cost + Variable Cost + Profit Ans : (c) Breakeven point (BEP) indicates recovery of
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011 fixed cost and variable cost.
Ans. (c) : In break even analysis, total cost consists of Break-Even analysis establishes the relationship among
Fixed Cost + Variable Cost. the factors affecting profit. It is a simple method of
Total selling cost (S) = Fixed Cost (F) + Variable Cost (V) presenting to management the effect of changes in
+ Profit (P) volume on profit
At BEP At the breakeven point
Profit = 0 Total cost = sales revenue
then,
Break even quantity
Fixed cost
[ Totalselling cost ]BEP = Fixed cost + Variablecost =
Sales price per unit − variable cost per unit
14. If F is the fixed cost, V is the variable cost per
unit (or total variable costs) and P is the selling
price of each unit (or total sales value), then
2. Inventory Control
break-even point is equal to 17. In ABC analysis of inventories, ‘A’ items
F ×V F ×V usually constitute:-
(a) (b)
P V (a) 10% (b) 20%
F F (c) 30% (d) 70%
(c) (d)
V  V UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
1+ P 1 − 
P  P  Ans. (a) : In ABC analysis of inventories, ‘A’ items
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II usually constitute 10%.
820
18. When ordering cost is increased to 16 times, 21. The annual demand for an item is 3200 parts.
the EOQ will be increased to:- Unit cost is Rs. 6 and the inventory carrying
(a) 2 times (b) 4 times charges are estimated as 25% per annum. If
(c) 8 times (d) None of the above the cost of one procurement is Rs. 150, what
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I will be the number of orders per year?
(a) 4 (b) 6
2DCo
Ans. (b) : [ EOQ ]1 = (c) 8 (d) 10
Ch UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
If Co increased to 16 Co Ans. (a) : Given as,
2D (16Co ) D = 3200 parts
Then, [ EOQ ]2 = c = Rs. 6/unit
Ch
25
2DCo Ch = × 6 / year
= 4× 100
Ch Co = Rs. 150/year
[ EOQ ]2 = 4 [ EOQ]1 Then,
2DCo
19. Increase in economic order quantity results in:- [ EOQ] =
(a) Increase in inventory carrying cost Ch
(b) Decrease in ordering cost 2 × 3200 × 150
=
(c) Decrease in total cost  25 
(d) Total cost first decreases and then increases 100  × 6
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
= 800 unit
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Number of order per year
Ans. (d) : Increase in economic order quantity results in
D 3200
total cost first decreases and then increases. N= =
If we change the EOQ (Q*), it can affect the [ EOQ ] 800
different type of inventory costs in different ways. N=4
Large order size results in lower order costs because
22. An industry produces 300 spark plugs in one
fewer orders need to be placed to cover the annual
shift of 8 hours. If standard time per piece is
demand. This however results in higher holding costs
1.5 minute, the productivity would be:-
because of the increase in inventory level.
(a) 3/4 (b) 5/8
(c) 7/16 (d) 15/16
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
Ans. (d) : We know that,
Total output
Productivity =
Total input
1.5 
300 ×  
=  60 
8
Note- Option (c) is given by UKPSC. 15
=
20. In ABC analysis items are classified in three 16
categories namely A, B, and C in accordance 23. If the demand for an item is doubled and the
with their:- ordering cost is halved, the economic order
(a) Values (b) Number quantity for the item will be :-
(c) Characteristics (d) Priorities (a) A half of the earlier quantity
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I (b) Double of the earlier quantity
Ans. (a) : In ABC analysis items are classified in three (c) Increased by a factor of
categories namely A, B, and C in accordance with their (d) Will remain unchanged
values. UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
821
 2DCo ( EQO )1 1
Ans. (d) : [ EOQ ]1 = =
Ch ( EOQ )2 2
If ( EOQ )2 = 1.0414 × ( EOQ )1 increased
C 
2 × [ 2D ] ×  o  28. Group A items constitute the following
 2 
[ EOQ ]2 = percentage of items in ABC analysis:
Ch (a) 10 to 20% (b) 30 to 40%
Then, [ EOQ ]1 = [ EOQ]2 (c) 40 to 50% (d) 50 to 60%
So it will remain unchanged. UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
24. Annual demand for a product, costing ` 100 per UPRVUNL AE 2016
piece, is 900. Ordering cost per order is ` 100 Ans. (a) : 10 to 20%
and the holding cost is ` 2 per unit per year.
29. The following is not the guideline for
The economic order quantity is
(a) 200 (b) 300 controlling A class item:
(c) 400 (d) 500 (a) Very strict control
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I (b) Frequent ordering
2RCo (c) Maximum efforts to reduce lead time
Ans. (b) : EOQ =
Ch (d) Higher safety stock
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
2 × 900 × 100
= = 300 Ans. (d) : Higher safety stock
2
25. In ABC analysis, ‘A’ items are responsible to 30. Group ‘C’ items constitute the following
share approximately the following percentage percentage of items in ABC analysis :
of cost : (a) 10 (b) 20
(a) 80 (b) 60 (c) 50 (d) 70
(c) 40 (d) 20
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (a) : 80 Ans. (d) : 70
26. The following is the general policy for A class 31. Which one of the following ways will be
items in ABC analysis : adopted to store the program counter contents?
1. Very strict control (a) Last-in-First-out (LIFO)
2. Frequent review of their consumption
(b) First-in-First-out (FIFO)
3. Safety stock kept
Which of these statement/s is/are correct ? (c) Last-in-Last-out (LILO)
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (d) First-in-Last-out (FILO)
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 ESE 2019
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (a) : Last in first out (LIFO) is a method used to
Ans. (b) : 1 and 2 only
account for inventory, where the most recently
27. In the EOQ model, if the unit ordering cost gets
produced items are recorded as sold first. It is necessary
doubled, then the EOQ will be
(a) reduced to half to store the program counter contents in last in first out
(b) doubled (LIFO).
(c) increased 1.414 times 32. An oil engine manufacturer purchases
(d) decreased 1.414 times lubricant cans at the rate of Rs 42 per piece
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I from a vendor. The requirement of these
2DCo lubricant cans is 1800 per year. If the cost per
Ans. (c) : (EOQ) 1 = ...........(i)
Ch placement of an order is Rs. 16 and inventory
carrying charges per rupee per year is 20 paise,
2D × 2Co
( EOQ )2 = ........... (iii) the order quantity per order will be
Ch
(a) 91 cans (b) 83 cans
( EOQ )1 2DCo Ch (c) 75 cans (d) 67 cans
= ×
( EOQ )2 Ch 2 × D × 2Co ESE 2020
822
Ans. (b) : Given, Ans. (c) : In a fixed order quantity constant lead time
D = 1800 cans inventory system, the safety stock is dependent on
Co = Rs. 16/order service level and demand variation during lead time.
Carrying cost (Cc)= Rs. 0.2/ rupee/year 37. A queuing system, using Kendall's notation, is
EOQ = ? expressed in the symbolic from as (M/M/3);
2DCo 2 ×1800 ×16 (FCFS/6). How many number of servers in the
EOQ = =
Cc 0.2 × 42 system?
≃ 83cans (a) 6 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1
33. Depreciation can be calculated by:
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
(a) Diminishing balance method
(b) Time series analysis Ans. (b) : In (M/M/3); (FCFS/6)
(c) ABC analysis In this symbol number of servers is 3.
(d) All of these 38. Demand for a product is 12,500,000 per
SJVN ET 2013 annum, Company purchase this product in lots
and sells them. The cost of purchase order is `
Ans. (a) : Depreciation can be calculated by
diminishing balance method. 1500 and cost of storage is ` 150 per piece per
annum. EOQ will be:
34. In inventory control, EOQ depends on:
(a) 6000 (b) 7000
(a) Holding cost (b) Ordering cost
(c) 8000 (d) 5000
(c) Consumption rate (d) All of these
SJVN ET 2019
SJVN ET 2013
Ans. (d : Given,
Ans. (d) : In inventory control, EOQ depends on-
• Holding cost D = 12,50,000
• Ordering cost Co= ` 1500
• Consumption rate Ch= ` 150
2Co D
2C o D EOQ =
EOQ = Ch
Ch
D = Demand 2 × 1250000 × 1500
=
Ch = Holding cost 150
C o = Ordering cost = 5000

35. The rent for the stores where materials are 39. Consider the following statements
kept falls under : 1. Interests of Materials manager
(a) Set-up cost 2. Interests of the top management
(b) Shortage cost 3. Pareto's 80-20 rule
(c) Holding cost Of the above, the basis for ABC analysis is
(d) Ordering cost (a) 2 (b) 2 and 3
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 (c) 1 (d) 3
Ans. (c) : The rent for the stores where materials are (e) 1 and 2
kept is called holding cost. CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
36. In a fixed order quantity constant lead time Ans. (d) : ABC analysis may be seen to share similar
inventory system, the safety stock is dependent ideas as the Pareto principle, which states that 80% of
on : overall consumption value comes from only 20% of
(a) Service level items. Plainly, it means that 20% of your products will
(b) Demand variation during lead time bring in 80% of your revenues.
(c) Service level and demand variation during 40. The total cost curve is
lead time (a) L-shaped (b) O-shaped
(d) Order quantity (c) U-shaped (d) S-shaped
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
823
Ans : (c) : The total cost curve is U-shaped. 44. A project initially costs Rs 5,000 and generates
year-end cash inflows of Rs 1,800, Rs 1,600, Rs
1,400, Rs 1,200 and Rs 1,000 respectively in five
years of its life. If the rate of return is 10%, the
net present value (NPV) will be
(a) Rs 500 (b) Rs 450
(c) Rs 400 (d) Rs 350
ESE 2019
Ans. (b) :
41. The annual demand for an item is 4000 parts.
The unit cost is Rs. 8/- and inventory carrying
charges are estimated as 25 per cent per
annum. If the cost of one procurement is Rs.
150, the Economic order quantity is Rate of return (i) = 10% = 0.1
(a) 675 units (b) 775 units Net present value
(c) 875 units (d) 2400 units 1800 1600 1400
= −5000 + + +
(e) 2200 units (1 + 0.1) (1 + 0.1) (1 + 0.1)3
1 2

CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift 1200 1000

+ +
Ans. (b) : given, (1 + 0.1) (1 + 0.1)5
4

D = 4000 units = −5000 + 1636.36 + 1322.31 + 1051.84

C = Rs 8 / unit + 819.61 + 620.92
25 = 451.04 ≃ ` 450
Ch = 8 × = 2 / year
100 45. A particular item has a demand of 9000
Co = 150 units/year. The cost of one procurement is Rs.
then, 108 and the holding cost per unit is Rs.
2.40/year. The replacement is instantaneous
2DCo 2 × 4000 × 150
EOQ = = and no shortages are allowed. What is the
Ch 2 optimum number of orders/year?
EOQ = 774.59 ≃ 775 units (a) 7 orders/year (b) 8 orders/year
42. Which of the following does not pertain to (c) 9 orders/year (d) 10 orders/year
inventory management? ESE 2017
(a) Production schedule Ans. (d) : Annual demand (D) = 9000 units/year
(b) State of merchandise Cost of procurement or ordering cost (Co) = Rs. 108
(c) Control of stock Holding cost (Ch) = Rs. 2.4 / unit/ year
(d) Effective running of stores 2DCo
EOQ =
(KPSC AE 2015) Ch
Ans : (a) production schedule does not pertain to
2 × 9000 × 108
inventory management. =
2.4
43. ABC analysis deals with
= 900 units
(a) analysis of process charts
Optimum No. of orders per year
(b) flow of material
D 9000
(c) ordering schedule of jobs = = = 10 order/year
EOQ 900
(d) controlling inventory costs
TSPSC AEE 2015 46. An organization’s sales during a financial year
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper is Rs. 6,00,000 with 90% of it on credit. At the
end of the year, the receivables turnover was
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
found to be 5. Considering 365 days to a year,
(KPSC AE. 2015) the average collection period and receivables
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I are, respectively.
Ans. (d) : ABC analysis deals with controlling (a) 81 days and Rs. 1, 08,000
inventory costs. (b) 73 days and Rs. 1, 08,000
824
 (c) 81 days and Rs. 1, 20,000 (c) 989 units/order and Rs. 18,574.50/week
(d) 73 days and Rs. 1, 20,000 (d) 912 units/order and Rs. 18,574.50/week
ESE 2017 ESE 2017
Ans. (b) : Sales = Rs. 6,00,000 Ans. (b) : Given,
Credit = 0.9 Weekly demand (d) = 400 units
Turnover = 5 Annual demand (D) = 400 × 52
Sales = 20800 units
Turnover =
Inventory cost Unit cost (Cu) = Rs. 50
6,00,000 Ordering cost (Co) = 75/orders
Inventory cost = Carrying cost (Ch) = 7.5% of Cu = 7.5% of 50
5
= Rs. 1,20,000 = 3.75 / unit / year
Received inventory cost = 1,20,000 × 0.9 2DCo
EOQ =
= 1,08,000 Ch
1
Days inventory = × 365 = 73 days 2 × 20800 × 75
5 = = 912 units
3.75
47. A firm’s inventory turnover of Rs. 8,00,000 is 5
times the cost of goods sold. If the inventory Total optimal cost/year = 2DCo C h + DC u
turnover is improved to 8 with the cost of goods = 2 × 20800 × 75 × 3.75 + 20800 × 50
sold remaining the same, a substantial amount
= 1043420.52
of fund is either released from, or gets
Total optimal cost/week = Rs. 20065
additionally invested in, inventory. Which one
of the following statements is correct? 49. Buffer stock + Reserve stock + Safety stock
(a) Rs. 1, 60,000 is released. equals
(b) Rs. 1, 60,000 is additionally invested. (a) Order quantity
(c) Rs. 60,000 is released. (b) EOQ
(d) Rs. 60,000 is additionally invested. (c) Reorder point
ESE 2017 (d) Maximum inventory level
TNPSC AE 2017
Cost of goods sold
Ans. (c) : Inventory turnover = Ans. (c) : Buffer stock + Reserve stock + Safety stock
Average inventory cost
equals Reorder point.
800000
Old avg. inventory cost = = 160000 50. In perpetual inventory control, the material is
5
checked as it reaches its ________value
800000 (a) maximum (b) average
New avg. inventory cost = = 100000
8 (c) alarming (d) minimum
∴ Old inventory − New inventory APPSC AEE 2016
= 1600000 − 100000 Ans. (d) : An perpetual inventory control, the material
= Rs. 60,000 is checked as it reaches its minimum value.
So Rs. 60,000 fund will be released. 51. In ABC analysis :
48. A stockiest has to supply 400 units of a product (a) item 'A' is large in number
every Monday to his customers. He gets the (b) item 'B' is very expensive item
product at Rs. 50 per unit from the
(c) item 'C' is very few in number
manufacturer. The cost of ordering and
(d) item 'C' is lo valued items
transportation from the manufacturer to the
(e) item 'A' is low valued items
stockist’s premises is Rs. 75 per order. The cost
of carrying inventory is 7.5% per year of the CGPSC AE 2014- I
cost of the product. What are the economic lot Ans. (d) : ABC Analysis- ABC analysis is a type of
size and the total optimal cost (including inventory categorization method in which inventory is
capital cost) for the stockist? divided into three categories, A, B & C, in descending
(a) 989 units/order and Rs. 20,065.80/week value. A has highest value items, B is lower value than
(b) 912 units/order and Rs. 20,065.80/week A, and C has the lowest value.
825
52. A manufacturer has to supply 9,000 unit of 55. A stocking finds that monthly demand for a
product/per. The cost of one procurement is ` particular ball pen is 2000. The price of each
10 and holding cost per unit is `2 per year. The pen is 0.8 rupees and cost of placing an order is
replacement is instantaneous and no shortages Rs. 20. The cost of stocking the pens per month
are allowed. Number of orders per year will be: is 10% of price of pen. What is EOQ?
(a) 10 (b) 20 (a) 1000 (b) 2000
(c) 30 (d) 40 (c) 500 (d) 750
(e) 50 RPSC AE 2018
CGPSC AE 2014- I
Ans. (a) : Data given,
Ans. (c) : D = 9,000 unit
D = 2000/month
Co = ` 10/order
CO = Rs. 20/order
Ch = ` 2/year
Then 10
Ch = 0.8 ×
100
2× D× Co 2 × 9000 × 10
EOQ = = We know that
Ch 2
2 DCo
EOQ = 300 unit EOQ =
Ch
Then Number of order per year
D 9000 2 × 2000 × 20 × 100
N= = = 30 =
EOQ 300 0.8 × 10
53. Cycle counting in inventory EOQ = 1000 unit
(a) provides a measure of inventory turnover 56. What will be economic order quantity for an
(b) assumes that all inventory records must be item with annual usage of 50 units,
verified with the same frequency procurement cost is Rs. 10 per order. Cost of
(c) is a process by which inventory records are one piece is Rs. 100 and cost of carry inventory
periodically verified per year is 10%?
(d) provides annual demand (a) 9 (b) 10
TNPSC AE 2014 (c) 8 (d) 11
Ans. (c) : Cycle counting in inventory is a process by UPRVUNL AE 2016
which inventory records are periodically verified.
Ans. (b) : Data given,
54. In 'ABC' analysis of inventory control, 'A'
D = 50 units
stands for:
Co = 10 per order
(a) Medium valued and medium number of items
C = Rs. 100/piece
(b) Low valued and small number of items
(c) High valued and maximum number of items 10
Ch = 100 × = 10 Rs.
(d) High valued and small number of items 100
UPRVUNL AE 2016 We know that,
Ans. (d) : Meaning of ABC analysis—For selective 2 D × Co
inventory control, three classes of materials and not EOQ =
Ch
more than that have been found to be convenient. This
is known in general as the ABC classification. The 2 × 50 × 10
EOQ =
alphabets A, B and C stands for three different classes 10
and it is popularly known as Always Better Controls.
EOQ = 10 units
• A items are good where annual consumption value
is the highest. 57. Economic order quantity is the quantity at
• B items are interclass items. Their consumption which the cost of carrying is
values are lower than A items but higher than C (a) minimum
items. (b) cost of overstocking
• C items have the lowest consumption value. This (c) less than the cost of ordering
class has a relatively high proportion of the total (d) equal to the cost of ordering
number of lines but with low consumption value. TNPSC AE 2013
826
Ans. (d) : Economic order quantity is the quantity at Number of units ordered per order = 100 units
which the cost of carrying is equal to the cost of (a) Rs. 5,000 (b) Rs. 10,000
ordering. (c) Rs. 6,000 (d) Rs. 4,000
58. Service level in inventory is defined as TNPSC 2019
(a) % age of time consumed during order Ans. (a) : D = 5000 units/year
(b) % age of time where there is stock out Q = 100 units/order
(c) % of time during which inventory is available Co = ` 100/order
(d) % age of time during which there is Then ordering cost per year
production D
O.C. = × C o
TSPSC AEE 2015 Q
Ans. (c) : Service level in inventory is defined as % of 5000
time during which inventory is available. = ×100
100
59. Inventory control in production, planning and O.C. = ` 5,000/year
control aims at
62. The reasons which are basically responsible for
(a) Improving forecasting accuracy
(a) The average service rate is less than the
(b) Cushioning production against market average arrival rate
fluctuations (b) Output rate is linearly proportional to input
(c) Acceptable customer service at low capital (c) Output rate is constant and the input varies in
investment in inventory a random manner
(d) Increasing the volume of transactions (d) All of the above
TNPSC 2019 Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Ans. (c) : Inventory control in production, planning and Ans. (d) : All of the above
control aims at acceptable customer service at low
63. In perpetual inventory control, the material is
capital investment in inventory.
checked as it reaches its
60. In inventory control, the economic order (a) Minimum value (b) Maximum value
quantity is the
(c) Average value (d) Middle value
(a) highest level of inventory
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
(b) lot corresponding to break-even-point
Ans. (a) : In perpetual inventory control, the material is
(c) capacity of a plant to produce
checked as it reaches its minimum value.
(d) optimum lot size that will minimize the total
64. In the EOQ model, if the unit ordering cost is
inventory cost
doublet, the EOQ
TNPSC 2019
(a) is halved
Ans. (d) : Economic order quantity (EOQ) is the
(b) is doubled
number of units that a company should add to inventory
(c) increases 1.414 times
with each order to minimize the total costs of inventory
(d) decreases 1.414 times
such of holding costs, order costs, and shortage costs.
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
Ans. (c) :
2DCo
EOQ =
Ch
When Co is doubled i.e. 2Co, the EOQ is
 2DCo 
EOQnew = 2  
61. Calculate the total ordering cost incurred per  Ch 
year for the following inventory details
= 2 × (EOQ)old
connected to purchase of an item.
Annual consumption : 5000 units (EOQ)new = 1.414 (EOQ)old
Ordering cost per order : Rs. 100 Thus, EOQ increases by 1.414 times.

827
65. The most suitable system for a retail shop is (i) Demand is known, deterministic and constant
(a) FSN Analysis (b) ABC Analysis (ii) Lead time is zero
(c) VED Analysis (d) GOLF Analysis (iii) Usage rate is constant
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 (iv) Price of material is fixed
Ans. (a) : FSN stands for fast moving slow moving and (v) Holding cost per unit item per unit time is fixed.
non moving items. It looks at quantity consumption rate 2AP
and how often the item is issued and used. EOQ =
C
66. In an ideal inventory control system, the A = Item consumed per year
economic lot size for a part is 1,000. If the P = Procurement Cost
annual demand for the part is doubled, then
C = Annual inventory carrying cost.
new economic lot size required will be :
68. Annual demand for a product costing Rs. 100
(a) 500 (b) 2,000
is 400. Ordering cost per order is Rs. 100 and
(c) 1,000/√2 (d) 1000√2 carrying cost is Rs. 2 per unit per year. The
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I economic lot size is then :
Ans : (d) : Economic lot size = 1000 (a) 200 (b) 300
Economic order quantity (c) 400 (d) 500
2Co D (KPSC AE. 2015)
EOQ =
Ch 2DCo
Ans : (a) EOQ =
Where, Ch
D = Annual demand Annual demand (D) = 400
Co = Ordering cost per order Ordering cost (Co) = 100 `
Ch = Unit holding cost per year Carrying cost (Ch) = 2`/unit
2Co D1 2 × 400 × 100
⇒ 1000 = ______(i) EOQ =
Ch 2
∵ D2 = 2 D1 ( given ) EOQ = 200 units
Again 69. An inventory control theory, the economic
2 × 2Co D1 order quantity (EOQ) is:
( EOQ )2 = _____(ii) (a) Average level of inventory
Ch
(b) Optimum lot size
Dividing equation (ii) by (i), we get (c) Lot size corresponding to break-even analysis
2 × 2Co D1 (d) Capacity of a warehouse
( EOQ )2 Ch MPPSC AE 2016
=
1000 2 × Co D1 Ans : (b) An inventory control theory, the economic
Ch order quantity (EOQ) is optimum lot size.
70. Just in time manufacturing philosophy
( EOQ )2 = 1000 2 emphasizes on :
67. The most economic order quantity in terms of (a) man power (b) manufacturing
total item consumed per year (A), procurement (c) profit (d) inventory
cost, (P) per order and the annual inventory (KPSC AE. 2015)
carrying cost (C) per item is given by : Ans : (d) Just in time manufacturing philosophy
AP 2AP emphasizes on inventory.
(a) (b)
2C C Reasons to keep Inventories :
(i) To Stabilize production
2AP
(c) APC (d) (ii) To take advantage of price discount
C
(iii) To meet demand during replenishment
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
(iv) To prevent loss of order.
Ans : (d) Economic order quantity (EOQ)
71. In inventory control the optimum (EOQ) lot
Assumption:-
size is given by

828
 2 × Carrying cost × Annualdemand
(a)
Ordering cost
2 × Annualdemand × Ordering cost
(b)
Carrying cost
4 × Demand × Ordering cost
(c)
Carrying cost
2 × Carrying cost × Ordering cost
(d)
Annualdemand
TSPSC AEE 2015
2 × Annualdemand × Ordering cost
Ans : (b)
Carrying cost
72. In case of 'VED' analysis of inventory control
'E' stands for
(a) Easily available items
(b) Essential items
(c) Extra-ordinary items
(d) Extra items
UJVNL AE 2016
Ans : (b) In case of 'VED' analysis of inventory control
'E' stands for Essential items. The degree of critically
can be stated as whether the material is vital to the
process of production, or essential to the process of
production or desirable for the process of production.
The classification is known as VED Analysis, V-stands
for vital, E stands for essential and D stands for
desirable items.
73. ABC analysis, as an input, requires
(a) Annual usage and cost of the items.
(b) Cost and criticality of the items.
(c) Criticality and availability of the items.
(d) Availability and annual usage of items.
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Ans : (a) ABC analysis, as an input, requires annual
usage and cost of the items.
ABC (Always Better Control):-ABC analysis is a
basic technique of materials management and is used
in inventory control. The technique is based on annual 77. Experts of same rank assemble for product
consumption of an item rather on its unit cost.
74. The finite production rate inventory model
relaxes which of the following EOQ assumptions?
(a) Instantaneous replenishment
(b) Constant lead time
(c) Fixed deterministic demand
(d) No variation in unit time
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I development in morphological analysis.
Ans : (a) Instantaneous replenishment
Assumption of the basic EOQ model:-
(i) Demand is known, deterministic and constant
(ii) Lead time is zero
(iii) Usage rate is constant
(iv) Price of material is fixed
(v) Holding cost per unit item per unit time is fixed
75. Which of the following is not an underlying
assumption of the basic EOQ model?
(a) Stochastic demand
(b) Instant replenishment
(c) Fixed lead time
(d) No shortages
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I
Ans : (a) Stochastic demand is not an underlying
assumption of the basic EOQ model.
Assumption of the basic EOQ model:-
(i) Demand is known, deterministic and constant
(ii) Lead time is zero
(iii) Usage rate is constant
(iv) Price of material is fixed
(v) Holding cost per unit item per unit time is fixed
76. Optimum reorder quantity is
2 ( annualunit usage) × ( cost per set − upor order )
(a)
( cost perunit ) × ( percent annual carrying cost )
2 ( cost of item)
(b)
( annual usage) × ( percent annual carying cost )
2 ( cost per unit ) × ( percent annual carrying cost )
(c)
( annual unit storage) × ( cost per set − uporder )
2( cost perunit ) ×( annualcarryingcost )
(d)
( cost per setuporder ) ×( percent annualcarryingcost )
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
Ans : (a) Optimum reorder quantity
2 ( annual unit usage ) × ( cost per set − up or order )
( cost per unit ) × ( percent annual carrying cost )
3. Forecasting
development in:-
(a) Delphi technique
(b) Brain storming
(c) Direct expert comparison
(d) Morphological analysis
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
Ans. (d) : Experts of same rank assemble for product
78. Which one of the following is not a causal
forecasting method?
829
 (a) Trend adjusted exponential smoothing List-I List-II
(b) Econometrics models A. Decision making 1. Delphi approach
(c) Linear regression under complete
(d) Multiple regression certainty
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 B. Decision making 2. Maximax criterion
Ans. (a) : Trend adjusted exponential smoothing is not under risk
a causal forecasting method.
C. Decision making 3. Transportation model
79. In forecasting by exponential smoothing, if α is under complete
a smoothing constant, then : uncertainty
(a) New forecast = α (least sales figure) + (1 – α)
D. Decision making 4. Decision tree
(old forecast)
based on expert
(b) New forecast = α (least sales figure) - (1 + α)
opinion
(old forecast)
(c) New forecast = α (least sales figure) + (1 - α) A B C D
(old forecast) (a) 1 2 4 3
(d) New forecast = α (least sales figure) - (1 + α) (b) 3 2 1 4
(old forecast) (c) 3 4 2 1
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 (d) 1 3 4 2
Ans. (a) : New forecast = α (least sales figure) + (1 - α) (e) 3 4 1 2
(old forecast) CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
F = α × Dn + (1 – α)Fn–1 Ans. (c) :
80. For a simple moving average forecasting 84. Delphi technique is used in
method, as the length of averaging period (a) Forecasting
increases, the forecast sensitivity– (b) Inventory management
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Quality planning
(c) Remains constant (d) Cannot be predicted (d) Material handling HPPSC AE 2018
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper Ans. (a) : Delphi technique–The Delphi technique
Ans. (b) : Simple moving average forecasting method, refers to the systematic forecasting method used
as the length averaging period increases, the forecast together opinions of the panel of experts on the problem
sensitivity decreased. experts on the problem being encountered, through
mail. In other words, a set of opinions pertaining to a
81. Which of the following forecasting methods
specific problem, obtained in writing usually through
takes a fraction of forecast error into account
questionnaires. From several experts in the specific field
for the next period forecast?
is called as a Delphi technique.
(a) Simple average method
85. For sales forecasting pooling of expert opinions
(b) Moving average method
is made use of in
(c) Weighted moving average method (a) Statistical correlation (b) Delphi technique
(d) Exponential smoothening method (c) Moving average method
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper (d) Exponential smoothing
Ans. (d) : In forecasting methods takes a fraction of RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
forecast error into account for the next period forecast is Ans. (b) : For sales forecasting, pooling of expert
exponential smoothing method. opinions is made use of in Delphi technique.
82. Which one of the following forecasting models 86. The most commonly used criteria for
best predicts the turning point? measuring forecast error is:
(a) Simple exponential smoothing model (a) mean absolute deviation
(b) Brown’s quadratic smoothing model (b) mean absolute deviation percentage error
(c) Double exponential smoothing model (c) mean standard deviation error
(d) Moving average model (using 5 data points) (d) mean square error (HPPSC LECT. 2016)
ESE 2018 Ans : (d) The most commonly used criteria for
Ans. (d) : Moving average model (using 5 data points) measuring forecast error is mean square error.
83. Match List I with List II and select the correct
answer.
830
87. Currently period forecast becomes equal to last 91. Which of the following is the measure of
period forecast for the value of smoothing forecast error
constant equal to (a) Mean absolute deviation
(a) 1 (b) Trend value
(b) 2 (c) Moving average
(c) 0 (d) Price fluctuation
(d) 0.5 MPPSC AE 2016
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI Ans : (a) Mean absolute deviation is the measure of
Ans : (c) : Current period forecast becomes equal to last fore cost error.
period forecast for the value of smoothing constant 92. Direct Expenses include:
equal to zero.
(a) Factory Expenses
88. When using a simple moving average to
(b) Selling Expenses
forecast demand, one would :
(a) Given equal weight to all the demand data (c) Administrative Expenses
(b) Assign more weight to the recent demand (d) None of these
data OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
(c) Include new demand data in the average after Ans : (a) Direct Expenses : Expenses connected with
discarding some of the earlier demand data purchases of goods are known as direct expenses. For
(d) All of these
example, fleight, insurance of goods in transit, carriage,
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
wages, custom duty, import duty, etc. Without incurring
Ans : (a) and (c) : these expenses, it is not possible to bring the goods
(A) Given equal weight to all the demand data
from the purchase point to the go down of the business.
(C) Include new demand data in the average discarding
such expenses are collectively known as direct expenses.
some of the earlier demand data.
Indirect Expenses : All expenses other than direct
In simple moving average method to forecast demand,
equal weight is given to all demand data and it include expenses are assumed as indirect expenses. Such
new demand data in the average after discarding some expense have no relationship with purchase of goods.
of the earlier demand data. Examples of indirect expenses include rent of building,
89. Which of the following is a technique for salaries to employees, legal charges, insurance of
forecasting? building, depreciation, printing charges etc. So.
(a) Exponential smoothing
(b) PERT
(c) CPM
(d) Control charts
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans : (a) : Exponential smoothing is a technique for
forcasting.
93. Which one of the following forecasting
90. Which of the following method can be used for techniques is most suitable for making long
forecasting the sales potential of a new product : range forecast?
(a) Direct survey method (a) Time Series analysis
(b) Time series analysis (b) Regression analysis
(c) Jury executive opinion method (c) Exponential smoothing
(d) Sales force composite method (d) Market Surveys
MPPSC AE 2016 UJVNL AE 2016
Ans : (a) Direct survey method can be used for Ans : (d) Market surveys forecasting techniques is most
forecasting the sales potential of a new product. suitable for making long range forecast.

831
 4. Queueing Theory 98. Repairing of a machine consists of 5 steps that
must be performed sequentially. Time taken to
94. In the model M/M/I : ∞/FCFS with utilization perform each of the 5 steps is found to have an
factor ρ, the expected line length is equal to exponential distribution with a mean of 5
1 minutes and is independent of other steps. If
(a) 1 – ρ (b) these machines break down in Poisson fashion
1− ρ
at an average rate of 2/hour and if there is only
ρ ρ2 one repairman, the average idle time for each
(c) (d)
1− ρ 1− ρ machine that has broken down will be
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I (a) 120 minutes (b) 110 minutes
ρ (c) 100 minutes (d) 90 minutes
Ans. (c) : ESE 2020
1− ρ
Ans. (c) : No. of phases service = k = 5
95. In a queuing problem, if the arrivals are
completely random then the probability Machine break down rate (λ) = 2/hr
distribution of number of arrivals in a given Service time = 25 min (5 × 5 = 25 min)
time follows:- 1
Mean service rate ( µ ) = × 60
(a) Normal distribution 25
(b) Poisson distribution = 2.4/hr
(c) Binomial distribution Average idle time of break down machine (Ws) = ?
(d) Exponential distribution Waiting time in the system = Idle time of the machine
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I W = k + 1 × λ × 1 + 1
s
MPPSC AE 2016 2k µ µ − λ µ
Ans. (b) : In a queuing problem, if the arrivals are 5 +1 2 1 1 5
= × × + = hour
completely random then the probability distribution of 2 × 5 2.4 ( 2.4 − 2 ) 2.4 3
number of arrivals in a given time follows Poisson
≈100minutes
distribution.
96. In queuing theory, the ratio of mean arrival 99. What type of example is a three-step repair
service with one server at each step:
rate and the mean service rate is termed as:-
(a) Single-phase, single-server
(a) Work factor (b) Utilization factor
(b) Multiple-phase, single-server
(c) Slack constant (d) Production rate
(c) Single-phase, multiple-server
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
(d) Multiple-phase, multiple-server
Ans. (b) : In queuing theory, assumes customer arrivals
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
are poisson distributed with rate λ. Service time are
Ans. (b) : Three-step repair service with one server at
exponentially distributed with rate µ. The ratio λ/µ is
each step: example of multiple-phase, single-server.
called utilization factor (ρ). If this the ratio is greater
than 1. that says customers are arriving faster than they 100. Queing theory is associated with
can be served, and so the line will grow without bound. (a) Production time (b) Waiting time
97. In the model M/M/I:∞/FCFS the expected (c) Planning time (d) Sales time
queue length is equal to OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
KPSC AE 2015
ρ ρ2
(a) (b) Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
1− ρ 1− ρ JPSC AE PRE 2019
1 Ans. (b) : Queing theory—It is the quantitative
(c) (d) 1 – ρ
1− ρ technique which consists of constructing mathematical
where ρ = utilisation factor models for various types of queing systems.
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I Mathematical models are constructed so that queue
length and waiting times can be predicated which help
ρ2 in balancing the cost of service and the cost associated
Ans. (b) :
1− ρ with customers waiting for services.
832
101. In the queuing theory, the relationship between 104. When a doctor attends to an emergency case
expected number of customers in the system leaving his regular service is called:
(or queue) and expected waiting time in the (a) Reneging
system (or queue) is known as : (b) Balking
(a) Kendall's formula (b) Little's formula (c) Pre-emptive queue discipline
(c) Bellman's formula (d) Erlang formula (d) Non-Pre-Emptive queue discipline
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
Ans. (b) : In the queuing theory, the relationship Ans. (c) : Pre-emptive queue discipline
between expected number of customers in the system
105. SIRO discipline is generally found in
(or queue) and expected waiting time in the system (or
(a) Loading and unloading
queue) is known as little's formula.
(b) Office filing
102. Arrivals at a bank counter are considered to be
(c) Lottery draw
Poisson distribution, with an average time of 12
min between two successive arrivals. The time (d) Train arrivals at platform
required to serve is distributed exponentially RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
with a mean of 3 min. The probability that an Ans. (c) : SIRO = Selection for service in random
arrival does not have to wait is before service: order.
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.75
106. In queuing theory with multiple servers, the
(c) 0.9 (d) 0.5
nature of the waiting situation can be studied
SJVN ET 2019
and analyzed mathematically, if
Ans. (b) : Probability that customer will have to wait
(a) the complete details of the items in the
λ waiting lines are known
ρ=
µ (b) the arrival and waiting times are known and
60 can be grouped to form an appropriate
λ= = 5/ hr
12 waiting line model
60 (c) all the variables and constants are known and
µ= = 20 / hr
3 they may form a linear equation
5 1 (d) the laws governing arrivals, service times and
ρ= =
20 2 the order in which the arriving units are taken
= 0.25 into service are all known ESE 2018
The probability that on arrival does not have to wait is Ans. (d) : Arrival pattern, service pattern and Queue
before service : discipline must be known in Queuing theory.
=1–ρ 107. In production planning and control, the
= 1 – 0.25 document which authorises the start of an
= 0.75 operation on the shop floor is
103. Babies are born in a light populated state at the (a) despatch order (b) route plan
rate of one birth every 12 minutes. The times (c) loading chart (d) schedule
between births follows an exponential
TNPSC AE 2013
distribution. Find the probability that no births
will occur in any one day Ans. (a) : In production planning and control, the
(a) 1 (b) 0 document which authorises the start of an operation on
(c) 3 (d) 5 the shop floor is despatch order.
(e) 4 108. Queuing theory deals with problem of
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift (a) Material handling
Ans. (b) : The birth rate per day is computed as (b) Reducing the waiting time
24 × 60 (c) Better utilization of man service
λ= = 120 birth/day
12 (d) Effective use of machines TSPSC AEE 2015
The probability of no birth in any one day is computed Ans. (c) : Queuing theory deals with problem of better
from the Poisson distribution as utilization of man service.
(120 × 1)0 × e −120×1 109. In queue designation a/b/c : (d/e/f), what does c
Po (1) = =0
0 represent ?

833
 (a) Arrival Pattern Ans : (a) λ = 10 (Arrival rate)
(b) Service Pattern µ = 15 (Service rate)
(c) Number of service channels
10 2
(d) Capacity of the system ρ= =
15 3
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
Length of queue
Ans. (c) : 2
2
a/b/c : d/e/f where,  
ρ 2
= 
3
a – is probability law for arrival Lq = (L q = 1.33) 5.
1− ρ 1− 2
b – is probability law for service
3
c – is number of service channels
d – queue discipline 5. Line balancing, scheduling
e – Size of system product development MRP
f – calling source population
Process
110. The distribution of arrivals in a queuing system
114. Purpose of Scheduling is to:
can be considered as a
(a) Prescribe the sequence of operations to be
(a) Death process (b) Pure birth process
followed
(c) Pure live process (d) Sick process (b) Determine the programme for the operations
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 (c) Regulate the progress of job through various
Ans. (b) : The distribution of arrivals in a queuing processes
system can be considered as pure birth process. (d) All of these OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
111. The term 'jockeying' in queing theory refers to Ans : (d) Purpose of Scheduling
(a) not entering the long queue 1. Prescribe the sequence of operations to be followed
2. Determine the programme for the operations
(b) leaving the queue
3. Regulate the progress of job through various processes
(c) shifting from one queue to another parallel
115. A production line is said to be balanced, if at
queue
each station:-
(d) None of the above (a) There is equal number of machine
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI (b) There is equal number of operators
Ans : (c) : When a customer keep on changing queue in (c) Waiting time for service is same
hope to get service faster is known as jockeying in (d) Operation time is same
queuing theory. UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
Ans. (d) : A production line is said to be balanced, if at
112. The cost of providing service in a queueing
each station operation time is same.
system increases with
116. If work station times are not same, the overall
(a) Increased mean time in the square
production rate of an assembly line is
(b) Increased arrival rate determined by the:-
(c) Decreased mean time in the queue (a) Fastest station time
(d) Decreased in arrival rate (b) Slowest station time
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 (c) Average of all station times
(d) Average of slowest and fastest station times
Ans : (c) : Cost of providing service in a queueing
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
system increases if the mean time in the queue
Ans. (b) : If work station times are not same, the overall
decreases.
production rate of an assembly line is determined by the
113. For a M/M/I/∞/∞/FCFS queue model, the mean slowest station time.
arrival rate is equal to 10 per hour and the 117. Effect of stockout of a commodity is:-
mean service rate is 15 per hour. The expected (a) Loss of profit
queue length is (b) Loss of customers
(a) 1.33 (b) 1.53 (c) Loss of goodwill
(c) 2.75 (d) 3.20 (d) All of the above
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I

834
Ans. (d) : Effect of stockout- If an item is not available Arcing time
Duty cycle =
for manufacturing then it may be possible to change the Total welding cycle time
production schedule, although there is a significant cost
5
in this due to the changes in machine, teardown costs, × 100
10
resource changes, loss of profit, loss of customers and
also loss of goodwill. Duty cycle = 50%
118. Following are said to be the benefits of 121. If the current at 100% duty cycle is 250 A, then
assembly line balancing: what should be required current be, for 50%
1. It minimizes the in-process inventory duty cycle?
2. It reduces the work content (a) 353.55 A (b) 335.55 A
(c) 315.55 A (d) 325.55 A
3. It smoothens the production flow
BHEL ET 2019
4. It maintains the required rate of output.
Ans. (c) : Given - Duty cycle T1 = 100%
Select the correct answer(s) using the code
I1 = 250 A
given below:
Duty cycle T2 = 50%
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
I2 = ?
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 1/ 2
UKPSC AE 2007, 2012 Paper -I I 2  T1 
= 
Ans. (c) : 1, 3 and 4 I 1  T2 
1/ 2
119. A production line is to be designed to make I 2  100 
2400 items/week for at least the next 3 months.  
250  50 
The line operates 40 hours/week. The standard T2 1

time required to assemble each item is 244 = ( 2 ) 2 ⇒ T2 = 353.553

250
second. What is the smallest number of work
122. Which of the following is not a symbol
station required?
representing LAY i.e. the direction of tool
(a) 5 (b) 6 marks or scratches or grains of surface?
(c) 7 (d) 8 (a) X (b) C
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I (c) M (d) R
Ans : (a) Minimum number of work station needs (e) T
Assembly time content 244 (CGPCS Polytechnic Lecturer 2017)
= = = 4.06
Time for one product 60 Ans. (e) : T is not a symbol representing LAY i.e. the
direction of tool marks or scratches or grains of surface.
Minimum number of work station needed= 5
123. Which one of the following scheduling
OR
measures is not related to due date or delivery
Let smallest no. of work stations required =x time?
40×60×60×x =2400×244 (a) Flow time (b) Tardiness
2400 × 244 (c) Lateness (d) Number of tardy jobs
x= = 4.06
40 × 60 × 60 TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
So min. no. of work station required = 5 Ans. (a) : Flow time is not related to due date or
120. If the total cycle time is 10 min dwell time is 4 delivery time.
min and arcing time is 5 min, then the duty 124. The rule used for numbering events involved in
cycle of the welding machine as per the a project scheduling network is:
American standard is : (a) Johnson's rule
(a) 55% (b) 50% (b) Fulkerson's rule
(c) 45% (d) 40% (c) Hungarian rule
BHEL ET 2019 (d) Simplex rule
Ans. (b) : Given total welding cycle time = 10 min TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
Dwell time = 4 min
Ans. (b) : The rule used for numbering events involved
Arcing time = 5 min
in a project scheduling network is Fulkerson's rule.

835
125. The time required for two operations cutting = Max time of individual work station
and binding for 5 jobs are as follows: = Max (80, 60, 70, 70, 70)
Job No. 1 2 3 4 5 = 80 Second
Cutting (min) 8 6 2 5 7 N = No. of station = 5
Binding (min) 8 7 7 6 4 Balance delay (DL) =
( n × CL − TP ) × 100
What is the optimal make span sequence? n × CL
(a) 2 - 4 - 1 - 3 - 5 (b) 3 - 4 - 2 - 1 - 5 5 × 80 − 350
= × 100
(c) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 - 5 (d) 3 - 5 - 2 - 4 – 1 5 × 80
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 50
= = 12.5%.
Ans. (b) : 400
Job No. Operation Sequence 128. Statement (I): Bar chart plots in the time
dimension the planned performance of various
Cutting Binding
activities of a project.
(A) (B)
Statement (II): One advantage of a bar chart is
1 8 8 4 that the inter sequence and linkage of all activities
2 6 7 3 is indicated there in.
3 2 7 1 ESE 2017
4 5 6 2 Ans. (c) : The bar chart is used to deal with complex
5 7 4 5 activities. The bar chart consists of two co-ordinate, the
horizontal represents the time elapsed and the vertical
Job – 3 → A < B → (First) represents the job or activities performed.
Job – 5 → A > B → Last In any project, there are large numbers of activities
Job – 4 → A > B → Second which can be started with a certain degree of
Job – 2 → A < B → Third concurrency; the bar chart can not indicate clearly the
Job – 1 → A = B → Fourth independencies among the various activities. This is a
Then sequence will be major limitation.
3–4–2–1–5 129. Productivity of a production system is
analogous to the
126. Standardization deals with the characteristics
(a) output of a machine
of product that include–
(b) input to a machine
(a) dimensions of machine elements
(c) efficiency of a machine
(b) method of testing the product
(d) efficiency of labour
(c) composition and properties of engineering
APPSC AEE 2016
materials
(d) all the these Ans. (c) : Productivity of a production system is
analogous to the efficiency of a machine.
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
130. Production of large turbo generators is an
Ans. (d) : Standardization deal with the characteristics
example for
of product that include, dimensions of machine element
(a) job order production
method of testing the product, composition and
(b) batch order production
properties of engineering materials.
(c) continuous production
127. In an assembly line, five workers are assigned a
(d) selective production
work which take 80, 60, 70, 70, 70 seconds
respectively. The balance delay for line is: APPSC AEE 2016
(a) 14% (b) 12.5% Ans. (a) : Production of large turbo generators is an
(c) 16% (d) 10% example for job order production.
SJVN ET 2019 131. In an assembly line balancing, 4 tasks time 15,
Ans. (b) : TP = Processing time of all activity 18, 13, 21 min are to be assigned on the
= 80 + 60 + 70 + 70 + 70 = 350 second. different workstations for the cycle time 25
CL = Cycle time of assembly line min. The theoretical and actual number of
workstations required are
836
 (a) 2 and 4 respectively (b) 4 and 5 respectively Then the sequence in order to minimize the total
(c) 3 and 5 respectively (d) 2 and 3 respectively processing time will be → B E D A C
HPPSC AE 2018 134. Five jobs are waiting in a machining centre
Ans. (a) : 2 and 4 respectively which are to be assigned to process. The
processing times and due dates are given in the
132. Just-in Time concept was developed by
following table. Determine the sequence of
(a) Taiichi Ohno (b) Kiichito Toyoda
processing according to Earliest Due Date
(c) Ejji Toyoda (d) Demin (EDD)
HPPSC AE 2018
Job Job Processing one day Job due date
Ans. (a) : Just in Time (JIT)–Just in Time (JIT)
A 6 8
manufacturing, also known as just-in-time production or
B 2 6
Toyota production system, is a methodology aimed
primarily at reducing times within production system as C 8 18
well as response times from suppliers and to customers. D 3 15
its origin and development was in Japan by Taiichi E 9 23
Ohno, largely in the 1960s and 1970s and particularly at (a) A B C D E (b) B D A C E
Toyota. (c) B A D C E (d) E C A D B
133. Five jobs are to be processed through two work TNPSC AE 2014
centres. The time for processing each job is Ans. (c) :
given below. Select the sequence in order to
Job Job Processing one day Job due date
minimize the total processing time
A 2 6
Job Work centre I Work centre II
B 6 8
A 5 2
C 3 15
B 3 6
D 8 18
C 8 1
E 9 23
D 10 7
So, sequence of processing according to Earliest Due
E 7 12 Date (EDD) will be BADCE and
(a) A D B C E (b) B E D C A sequence of processing according to processing times
(c) B A D C E (d) B D E C A will be BDACE.
TNPSC AE 2014 135. Shop loading
Ans. (b) : (a) means the assignment of dates to specific jobs
or operation steps
Job Work centre I Work centre II
(b) is typically managed using an assembly chart
(A') (B')
(c) means the assignment of jobs to work or
A 5 2 processing centers
B 3 6 (d) is oriented toward the management of work in
process inventories TNPSC AE 2014
C 8 1
Ans. (c) : Shop loading means the assignment of jobs to
D 10 7 work or processing centers.
E 7 12 136. Consider the following statements:
If A'min < B' → placed first in sequence Dispatching authorizes the start of production
operation by
If B'min < A '→ placed last in sequence
1. releasing of material and components from
Then, stores to the first process
For Job C → B'min < A' → Job C → 5th 2. releasing of material from process to process
For Job A → B'min < A' → Job A → 4th 3. issuing of drawing and instruction sheets
For Job B → A'min < B' → Job B → 1st Which of the above statements are correct?
For Job D → B'min < A' → Job D → 3rd (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
nd (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
For Job E → A'min < B' → Job E → 2
ESE 2018

837
Ans. (d) : Functions of dispatching–
(i) To check the availability of input material and ensue
the movement material from store to first process.
(ii) Releasing of material from process to process.
(iii) To ensure the availability of all production and
inspection aids.
(iv) To obtain the requisite drawings, specifications and
material list.
137. As production systems move from projects to
batch production to mass production to
continuous production-
(a) demand value increases
(b) products become more customized
(c) production systems become less automated
(d) production systems become more flexible
RPSC AE 2018
Ans. (a) : As production systems move from projects to
batch production to mass production to continuous
production when demand value increases.
138. The JIT production is essentially
(a) a pull production system
(b) a push production system
(c) a pull and push production system
(d) intermittent production system
TNPSC 2019
Ans. (a) : Pull production system- A method of
production control in which downstream activities. Pull
production strives to eliminate over production and is
one of the three major components of a complete just-
in-time production system.
In pull production a downstream operation,
whether within the same facility or in a separate facility,
provides information to the upstream operation, often
via kanban card, about what part of material is needed,
the quantity needed, and when and where it is needed.
Nothing a produced by the upstream supplier process
until the downstream customer process signals a need.
This is the opposite of push production.
139. Kanban in Japanese language indicates
(a) a method of line balancing
(b) information for production and withdrawal of
items
(c) priority dispatching
(d) line time employment TNPSC 2019
Ans. (b) : Kanban in Japanese language indicates
information for production and withdrawal of items.
140. The goal of Just in Time (JIT) philosophy is
(a) The elimination of wastes
(b) The elimination of process layout
(c) The elimination of costly machine tools
(d) The elimination of sub assemblies in the
inventory
TNPSC 2019
838
Ans. (a) : Just in time [JIT] manufacturing, also known
as just - in - production or the Toyota production system
(TPS), is a methodology aimed primarily at reducing
times with in the production system as well as response
time from suppliers and to customers.
Is origin and development was in Japan, largely
in the 1960s and 1970s and particularly at Toyota.
141. The ideal batch size in JIT production consists
of
(a) one part (b) two parts
(c) ten parts (d) five parts
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
Ans : (a) : The ideal batch size in JIT production
consists of one part.
142. Lean production is related to
(a) mass production
(b) batch production
(c) customized production
(d) stock-driven production
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
Ans : (c) : Lean production- Lean production is an
approach to management that focus on cutting out waste
whilst ensuring quality. This approach can be applied to
all aspects of a business - form design, through
production to distribution. Lean production aims to cut
costs by making the business more efficient and
responsive to market needs.
143. Group technology is related to
(a) product layout (b) functional layout
(c) fixed-position layout
(d) cellular layout
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
Ans : (d) : Cellular or Group layout- Cellular layout
is based on the group technology in which large variety
of products are needed in small volumes (or batches).
The cellular layout or group technology is thus a
combination of process and product layout. Therefore, it
possess the features of both.
144. The word KANBAN is most appropriately
associated with :
(a) EOQ (b) JIT
(c) Capacity planning (d) Product design
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
RPSC-2018
Ans : (b) : Kanban is scheduling system for just-in-time
(JIT) production and to control the logistical chain from
a production point of view, and is not an inventory,
control system (i.e. zero inventory). It is one method
through which (JIT) is achieved.
145. In an assembly line for assembling toys, five If the Earliest Due Date (EDD) rule is used to
workers are assigned tasks which takes time of sequence the jobs, the number of jobs delayed
10, 8, 6, 9 and 10 minutes respectively. The is
balance delay for line is : (a) 1 (b) 2
(a) 43.3% (b) 14.8% (c) 3 (d) 4
(c) 14.0% (d) 16.3% Gujarat PSC AE 2019
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I Ans : (c) : Using earliest due date (EDD) rule,
Ans. : (c) : Job PT Earliest due Job flow Tardiness
Number of work stations (n) = 5 date (EDD) time
Cycle time (T) = 10 (Large station time) 1 4 6 0+4 = 4 –
Sum of all station time 2 7 9 4+7 = 11 2
∑ ti = 10 + 8 + 6 + 9 + 10 = 43 minutes 3 8 17 11+8 = 19 2
∑ ti 4 2 19 19+2 = 21 2
Line efficiency = = × 100
nt
N = no. of work stations = 5
43
Line efficiency = × 100
5 × 10 Number of jobs delayed = 3 (job 2, job 3, job 4)
= 86% 149. The type of production suitable for making
Balance delay = 100 – (Line efficiency) bolts, nuts and washers is
Balance delay = 100 – 86 (a) Batch production (b) Job production
= 14% (c) Flow production (d) Mass production
146. Johnson's rule is applicable for planning a job TSPSC AEE 2015
shop for : Ans : (d) Mass production suitable for making bolts,
(a) 1 machine n jobs nuts and washers.
(b) n machine and 2 jobs 150. A bad observation which must be ignored can
(c) n machine and n jobs be identified by :
(d) 2 machine and n jobs (a) observing the data
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I (b) using observation to calculate and sec if
Ans. : (d) : Johan’s rule is applicable for planning a job result deviates too much
shop for machines and n jobs.
(c) finding arithmetic mean and seeing which
147. Dispatching function of production observation deviates most
(a) Authorizing a production work order to be
(d) plotting the result and seeing which
performed
observation deviates most from the line
(b) A dispatch of finished goods on order
(c) Dispatch of bills and invoices to the customer (HPPSC AE 2014)
(d) Movement of in-process material from shop Ans : (d) A bad observation which must be ignored can
to shop OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I be identified by plotting the result and seeing which
Ans. : (b) : Dispatching function is authorizing a observation deviates most from line.
production work order to be launched.
148. Four jobs are to be processed on a machine as 6. PERT and CPM
per data listed in the table:
Job Processing Due date 151. For activities on the critical path-
time (in days) (a) earliest start time (ES) = latest start time (LS)
(b) earliest start time (ES) > latest start time (LS)
1 4 6
(c) earliest start time (ES) < latest start time (LS)
2 7 9
(d) earliest start time (ES)=latest finish time (LF)
3 2 19 RPSC AE 2018
4 8 17 Ans. (a) : Critical path activities—Critical path
activities are the projects tasks that must start and finish
839
on time to ensure that the project ends on schedule. A 154. Find the expected time of an activity with
delay in any critical path activity will delay completion pessimistic time (tp) = 14 days. Most time (tm) =
of the projects unless the projects plan can be adjusted 8 days. Optimistic time (to) = 2 days.
so that successor tasks finish more quickly than (a) 6 (b) 7
planned. (c) 8 (d) 9
Earliest start time—The earliest time that an activity UPRVUNL AE 2016
can begin.
Ans. (c) : Data given,
Earliest finish time—Earliest finish time that an
activity can be completed. tp = 14 days
Latest start time—The Latest start time that an activity tm = 8 days
can begin without lengthening the minimum project t0 = 2 days
duration. then expected time of an activity te is given as
152. A PERT activity has an optimistic time of three t p + 4tm + to
te =
days, pessimistic time of 15 days and the 6
expected time is 7 days. The most likely time of
14 + 4 × 8 + 2
the activity is- te =
6
(a) 5 days (b) 6 days
(c) 7 days (d) 9 days 14 + 32 + 2
te =
RPSC AE 2018 6
Ans. (b) : to = 3 days 48
te =
tb = 3 days 6
tm = ? te = 8 days
te = 7 days 155. The primary objective of crashing in CPM is
We know that, (a) To decreases cost
to + 4tm + tb (b) To increases cost
te =
6 (c) To decreases project duration
3 + 4tm + 15 (d) To optimise the path TSPSC AEE 2015
7=
6 Ans. (c) : The primary objective of crashing in CPM is
42 = 3 + 4tm + 15 to decreases project duration.
4tm = 24
156. Earlier finish time can be regarded as
tm = 6 days
(a) Earliest start time - activity time
153. Variance of an activity may be written as :
(b) Earliest start time + activity time
(where, tp = pessimistic time, to = optimistic
(c) Latest finish time + activity time
time)
(d) Latest finish time - devation of activity
2 2
 t p − to   t p − to  TSPSC AEE 2015
(a)   (b)  
 12   6  Ans. (b) : Earlier finish time can be regarded as
12 12 Earliest start time + activity time.
t −t  t −t 
(c)  p o  (d)  p o  157. Positive slack in PERT indicates
 12   6 
(a) Ahead of schedule (b) Beyond of schedule
UPRVUNL AE 2016
(c) As per schedule (d) Critical path
Ans. (b) : The average or expected time to complete an TSPSC AEE 2015
activity is given by
Ans. (a) : Positive slack in PERT indicates ahead of
to + 4tm + t p schedule.
µ (or) te =
6 158. The performance of a specific task in CPM is
2
 t p − to  known as
Variance = (σ ) 2 =   (a) Dummy (b) Event
 6 
(c) Activity (d) Contract
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017

840
Ans. (b) : The performance of a specific task in CPM is Ans : (c) : CPM are activity orientated and PERT are
known as Activity. event orientated.
159. Critical path on PERT/CPM chart is obtained 164. The activities in a network diagram are
by joining the events having represented by a :
(a) Maximum slack (b) Minimum slack (a) Circle
(c) Average slack (d) No slack (b) Square
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017 (c) Rectangle
Ans. (b) : Critical path on PERT/CPM chart is obtained (d) Simple arrow drawn from left to right
by joining the events having minimum slack.
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016
160. PERT requires
(a) single time estimate Ans : (d) The activities in a network diagram are
(b) double time estimate represented by a simple arrow drawn from left to right.
(c) triple time estimate 165. The time which results in the least possible
(d) none of these direct cost of an activity is known as
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 (a) Normal time (b) Slow time
TNPSC 2019 (c) Crash time (d) Standard time
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI
TNPSC AE 2017
OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
Ans. (c) : Ans. (b) : The time which results in the least possible
! PERT is triple time estimate direct cost of an activity is known as slow time.
! PERT is event orientated. 166. A portion of the total float within which an
! PERT uses a probabilistic model. activity can be delayed for start without
! In PERT slack is calculated. affecting the floats of preceding activities is
161. In CPM network, critical path denotes the called
(a) Path where maximum resources are used (a) Safety float (b) Free float
(b) Path where minimum resources are used (c) Independent float (d) Interfering float
(c) Path where delay of one activity prolongs the
ESE 2020
duration of completion of project
(d) Path that gets monitored automatically Ans. (c) : Independent float: It is that portion of the
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018 total float within which an activity can be delayed for
Ans. (c) : Path where delay of one activity prolongs the start without affecting the floats of the preceding
duration of completion of project. activities.
162. Slack represents the difference between the 167. Which of the following is pessimistic time
(a) earliest completion time and latest allowable estimate as per PERT?
time (a) The most probable time considering all
(b) latest allowable time and earliest completion conditions.
time (b) The shortest possible time in which an
(c) earliest completion time and normal expected activity can be completed.
time (c) The maximum time that would be required to
(d) latest allowable time and normal allowable complete an activity.
time
(d) The minimum time that would be required to
JPSC AE - 2013 Paper-II
complete an activity. CIL MT 2017
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans : (a) : earliest completion time and latest allowable Ans. (c) : Optimistic time (to): If everything in the
time project goes well. It is the minimum time required to
163. Which of the following is a wrong statement? complete an activity.
(a) PERT is suitable for projects having Most Likely Time (tm): It is the time for
probabilistic time estimates completing an activity which is most likely.
(b) CPM is suitable for projects having Pessimistic Time (tp): If everything in the
deterministic activities project goes wrong. This is the maximum time required
(c) Both PERT and CPM are event oriented to complete an activity.
(d) PERT is event oriented, while CPM is 168. In PERT analysis, a critical activity has:
activity oriented (a) Maximum float (b) Zero float
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI (c) Maximum cost (d) Minimum cost
SJVN ET 2013

841
Ans. (d) : In PERT analysis a critical activity has zero CPM PERT
float. (1) It is activity oriented (1) It is event oriented
169. The additional cost incurred in reducing the (2) It used when the activity (2) It uses a probabilistic
activity time in project scheduling is called: times are deterministic time activity
(a) Normal cost (3) One time estimate (3) Three time estimate
(b) Crashing cost
(4) It is a planning device (4) It is control device
(c) Break-even cost
(d) Activity cost 173. The expected time of a PERT activity is given
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 by : [where t1 = Optimistic time, t2 = Most
Ans. (b) : The additional cost incurred in reducing the likely time, t3 = Pessimistic time]
activity time in project scheduling is called crashing t1 + 4t 2 + t 3 4t1 + t 2 + t 3
(a) (b)
cost. 6 6
170. Consider a project consisting of nine jobs (A to t1 + 4t 2 + t 3 t1 + 4t 3 + t 2
I). The standard deviation for the jobs are as (c) (d)
4 6
given below :
SJVN ET 2019
Job A B C D E F G H I
Ans. (a) : Expected time of a PERT activity is given by,
Standard 1 4 0 1 0 1 2 1 1
deviation t1 + 4t 2 + t 3
te =
The critical jobs are : A, D, H and I. What is 6
the standard deviation of the project duration? Where,
(a) 2 (b) 1 t1 = optimistic time
(c) 4 (d) 11 t2 = most likely time
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 t3 = pessimistic time
Ans. (a) : Standard deviation of the project duration, 174. Six Sigma means
2 2 2 2
σ = σA + σD + σH + σA 2 (a) 3.1 defects per million
(b) 3.4 defects per million
= 12 + 12 + 12 + 12
(c) 4.5 defects per million
σ2 = 4
(d) 5.3 defects per million
σ=2 (e) 6.5 defects per million
171. Which of the following is not true about CPM. CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
(a) CPM is activity oriented Ans. (b) : To be clear, 6 sigma as a discipline has a
(b) CPM is used when activity times are focus around variation. More specifically, ultimately
deterministic reduction and control over variation in a process.
(c) CPM is a planning device. The term, 6 sigma is used as it describes a target of 3.4
(d) CPM uses a probabilistic times defects per million opportunities which is considered to
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper be world class.

Ans. (d) : CPM not uses probabilistic times, actually it 175. A critical activity has :
is uses in PERT.
172. Which of the following is not true about
PERT?
(a) A control device
(b) Event oriented
(c) Uses a probabilistic times
(d) Directly introduces cost concept analysis
Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
Ans. (d) : PERT not involve directly introduces cost
concept analysis, pert basically directly involve in time
analysis.
(a) Maximum slack (b) Zero slack
(c) Minimum slack (d) Average slack
OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
Ans : (b) A critical activity has zero slack.
Critical activity : In a critical activity the Earlist start
time (EST) pluse the time consumed in performing the
activity equal the latest finishing time.
The critical activity an indentified either by thick arrow
or by two parallel line drawn across the activity line.
176. For the network shown in the given figure, the
earliest expected completion time of the project
is

842
 The critical path, the project duration and the
free float for activity A are, respectively.
(a) A-C-E-F; 42 weeks and 0 week
(b) B-E-F; 42 weeks and 1 week
(c) B-C-D-F; 50 weeks and 2 weeks
(d) A-C-E-F; 50 weeks and 0 week ESE 2017
(a) 26 days (b) 27 days Ans. (a) :
(c) 30 days (d) 28 days
(e) 29 days
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Ans. (c) : Earliest expected completion time of the
project is 30 days and critical path will be A–B–C–D–
F–E–H.
177. In PERT, if the pessimistic time was 14 weeks,
the optimistic time was 8 weeks, and the most
likely time was 11 weeks.
(a) the expected time would be 6 weeks ∵ Critical path is longest path of network & its length
(b) the variance would be 11 weeks
(c) the variance would be 1 week is equal to project duration.
(d) the expected time would be 5½ weeks So, A − C − E − F is critical path with duration 16 + 8 +
(e) the expected time would be 7 weeks 6 + 12 = 42 weeks.
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
∵ Float for critical activity is zero.
Ans. (c) :
2 So, free float of activity A is zero.
 Pessimistic time - optimistic time 
variance =   180. Positive slack on a PERT indicates that project
 6 
2 is
 14 − 8  (a) ahead of schedule (b) beyond schedule
=   = 1 week
 6  (c) on critical patch (d) as per schedule
178. A project consists of three parallel paths with TNPSC AE 2017
mean durations and variances of (14, 4), (14, 4)
and (12, 9) respectively. According to the Ans. (a) : Positive slack on a PERT indicates that
standard PERT assumptions, the distribution project is ahead of schedule.
of the project duration is 181. Fulkerson's rule deals with
(a) normal with mean 14 and standard deviation 3 (a) Numbering of events in PERT/CPM model
(b) beta with mean 12 and standard deviation 2
(b) The simulation model
(c) beta with mean 14 and standard deviation 2
(d) normal with mean 12 and standard deviation (c) Queuing theory model
3 (d) Transportation model
(e) exponential with mean 12 and standard TNPSC AE 2017
deviation 3 CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift Ans. (a) : Fulkerson's rule deals with numbering of
Ans. (c) : beta with mean 14 and standard deviation 2 events in PERT/CPM model.
179. The following table lists the tasks in a project
182. A project is expected to take 12 days along the
and the time duration for each task:
critical path, having the standard deviation of 4
Task Preceding Normal
days.
Task duration
(in weeks) Probability factor (z) Probability (%)
A -- 16 – 0.5 30.85
B -- 20 1 84.13
C A 8 –1 15.87
D A 10 0 50
E B, C 6 3 99.87
F D, E 12

843
 The probability of completion of project in 16 Ans : (d) :
days will be: [use the table of probability factor t p + 4t m + t o
and probability] Expected time (te) =
6
(a) 30.85% (b) 84.13%
3 + 4 × 10 + 8
(c) 15.87% (d) 50% =
(e) 99.87% CGPSC AE 2014- I 6
Ans. (b) : 84.13% 51
= = 8.5 days.
183. The difference between latest finish time and 6
earliest finish time of activity is called 188. Which one of the following statements is not
(a) Total float (b) Free float correct?
(c) Independent float (d) None of the above (a) PERT is activity-oriented and CPM is event-
UJVNL AE 2016 oriented
(b) In PERT, three-time estimates are made,
Ans : (a) The difference between latest finish time and
earliest finish time of activity is called total float. whereas in CPM only one-time estimate is
made
184. PERT was first formally applied to the
(c) In PERT slack is calculated whereas in CPM
planning and controlling in
floats are calculated
(a) Titan's way
(d) Both PERT and CPM are used for project
(b) Polaris Weapon System
situations
(c) JP Morgan
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
(d) Dow Jones TNPSC AE 2014
Ans : (a) : PERT is even oriented and CPM is activity
Ans. (b) : PERT was first formally applied to the
oriented techniques.
planning and controlling in Polaris Weapon System.
189. Time estimates of an activity in a PERT
185. In PERT analysis a critical activity
network are :
(a) Maximum float (b) Maximum cost
Optimistic time to = 9 days,
(c) Zero float (d) Minimum cost
pessimistic time (tp) = 21 dsay and most likely
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
time tm = 15 days The approximate probability
Ans. : (c) of completion of this activity in 13 days
There are following characteristic of PERT.
(a) 34% (b) 50%
♦Event oriented
(c) 16% (d) 84%
♦Three time estimates are made.
MPPSC AE 2016
♦Probabilistic in nature.
t o + 4t m + t p
♦Slack is calculated. Ans : (c) t exp ected =
♦Zero float. 6
186. Dummy activities are used in a network to 9 + ( 4 ×15) + 21
= = 15
(a) Facilitate computation of slacks 6
(b) Satisfy precedence requirements
S.D. =
( t p − t o ) = 21 − 9 = 2
(c) Determine project completion time
6 6
(d) Avoid use of resources
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 x − x 13 − 15
Z= = = −1
Ans : (b) : A dummy activity is used to satisfy σ 2
precedence requirement in a project network. They do P ( −1) = 0.1586
not consume resources and time.
P ( −1) = 0.16 OR 16%
187. A PERT activity has an optimistic time
estimate of 3 days, a pessimistic time estimate 190. CPM is a technique based on
of 8 days and a most likely time estimate of 10 (a) event
days. What is the expected time of this activity? (b) event and activity
(a) 5.0 days (b) 7.5 days (c) neither event nor activity
(c) 8.0 days (d) 8.5 days (d) activity
Gujarat PSC AE 2019 BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016
844
Ans : (d) CPM is a technique based on activity 194. Which of the following statements is correct?
Critical Path Method (CPM) (a) When slack of an activity is zero, it falls only
The critical path method (CPM) was first used by on critical path
Morgan R. Walker in 1957. It helps in ascertaining time (b) CPM technique is useful to minimize the
schedules, makes better and detailed planning possible, direct and indirect expenses
encourages discipline and provides a standard method (c) Critical path of a network represents the
minimum time required for completion of
for communicating project plans schedules and to time
project
and cost performance.
(d) All of these OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
191. The use of CPM lies in Ans : (a) Critical Path Method :-In this activity times
(a) taking corrective measures are known with certainty. For each activity earliest start
(b) scheduling and controlling the project time (EST) and latest start times (LST) are computed.
(c) planning and controlling the most logical The length of critical path determines the minimum
sequence of operations time in which the entire project can be completed. The
activities on the critical path are called 'Critical
(d) None of the above
activities".
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 195. In CPM, the crash cost slope is determined by:
Ans : (c) The use of CPM lies in planning and Crash cos t
Controlling the most logical sequence of operation. (a)
Normal cos t
Critical Path Method (CPM)
Crash cos t − Normal cos t
The critical path method (CPM) was first used by (b)
Normal time − Crash time
Morgan R. Walker in 1957. It helps in ascertaining time
schedules, makes better and detailed planning possible, Normal cos t
(c)
encourages discipline and provides a standard method Crash cos t
for communicating project plans schedules and to time Normal cos t − Crash cos t
(d)
and cost performance. Normal time − Crash time
192. Critical path is obtained in PERT analysis by UJVNL AE 2016,UPRVUNL AE 2016
joining events having : Ans : (b) In CPM. the crash cost slope is determined by
(a) Maximum slack (b) Minimum slack Crash cos t − Normal cos t
Crash cost slope =
(c) Negative slack (d) Zero slack Normal time − Crash time
HPPSC W.S. Poly. 2016 196. PERT is
BPSC AE 2012 Paper - VI (a) Program evaluation and review technique
(b) Event oriented.
Ans : (d) Critical path is obtained in PERT analysis by (c) Able to consider uncertainty in execution
Joining events having zero slack. timings.
PERT (Program Evaluation and Review technique) is (d) Concerned with all of the above
used when the activity times are not known with UJVNL AE 2016
certainty for e.g. In research and development. Ans : (d) following point of PERT
i) Program evaluation and review technique
193. CPM and PERT techniques are used for : ii) Event oriented
(a) layout planning iii) Able to consider uncertainty in execution timing.
(b) financial management
(c) executing a new project 7. Linear Programming
(d) increasing productivity
197. The simplex method is the basic method for–
(KPSC AE. 2015)
(a) Value analysis (b) Operation research
Ans : (c) CPM and PERT techniques are used for
(c) Linear programming (d) Method analysis
executing a new project. PERT and CPM are used for
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
planning and Scheduling large projects in the fields of Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
Construction, maintenance, fabrication and any other SJVN ET 2013
area. PERT and CPM is used to minimize the OPSC Civil Services Pre. 2011
bottlenecks, delays and interruptions by determining the OPSC AEE 2015 Paper-I
Critical factors and Co-coordinating various activates. UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I

845
Ans. (c) : The simplex method is the basic method for 202. Hungarian algorithm is used to solve :
linear programming. (a) Transportation problem
198. Linear Programming is (b) Assignment problem
(a) an abstract model, generally using (c) Unconstraint non-linear programming
mathematical symbols. problem
(b) is a technique, which optimizes linear (d) Constrained non-linear programming problem
objective function under limited constraints. TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
(c) is a technique, which ensures only integral
Ans. (b) : Hungarian algorithm is used to solve
values of variables in the problem.
assignment problem.
(d) is a technique, which is used to analyze
multistage decision process. 203. The North West Corner rule:
Nagaland CTSE 2016, 2017 Ist Paper (a) is used to find an initial feasible solution
Ans. (b) : Linear programming is technique, which (b) is used to find an optimal solution
optimizes linear objectives function under limited (c) is based on the concept of minimizing
constraints. opportunity cost
199. In transportation problem a single good is to be (d) none of the above
shipped from several origins to several (HPPSC LECT. 2016)
destinations at Ans : (a) The north west corner rule is used to find an
(a) Minimum overall cost intial feasible solution.
(b) Optimum overall cost 204. When there exists a not basic variable whose
(c) Minimum price ( )
relative profit i.e., Cj is zero in the optimal
(d) Optimum price
table, then the nature of solution is?
Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
(a) Unbounded
Ans. (a) : Transportation problem is a classic operations (b) Infeasible
research problem, where the objective is to determine (c) Unique optimal
the schedule for transporting good from source to (d) Alternate optimal
destination in a way that minimizes the overall shipping
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
cost, while satisfying supply and demand constraints.
Ans. (d) : When there exists a not basic variable whose
200. In an linear programming problem, the
( )
restrictions or limitations under which the relative profit i.e., Cj is zero in the optimal table, then
objective function is to be optimised are called: the nature of solution is alternate optimal.
(a) Constraints (b) Objective function 205. If the ith constraint of a primal (maximisation)
(c) Decision variables (d) None of the above is an equation, then the duel (minimisation)
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 variable 'yi' is :
Ans. (a) : In an linear programming problem, the (a) ≥ O
restrictions or limitations under which the objective (b) ≤O
function is to be optimised are called (c) Unrestricted in sign
201. The variable that is included in the ' ≤ ' type (d) None of these
inequality constraint for the purpose of TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
converting general from of LPP to standard Ans. (c) : If the ith constraint of a primal (maximisation)
from LPP is called : is an equation, then the duel (minimisation) variable 'yi'
(a) surplus variable (b) slack variable is unrestricted in sign.
(c) artificial variable (d) basic variable 206. The Linear Programming with.......variables
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017 can be solved graphically–
Ans. (b) : The variable that is included in the ' ≤ ' type (a) two (b) three
inequality constraint for the purpose of converting (c) four (d) five
general from of LPP to standard from LPP is called Nagaland CTSE 2016 Ist Paper
slack variable. Nagaland CTSE 2017 Ist Paper
846
Ans. (a) : The linear programming with two variable (ii) Least cost method
can be solved graphically. (iii) Vogel's approximation method.
207. An objective function is p (x, y) = 3x + 9y and 209. Consider the following conditions for applying
constraints are : linear programming
x + y ≤ 8, 1. There must be a well defined objective function
x + 2y ≤ 4, 2. The value assigned to each parameter of a
x ≥ 0, linear programming model is assumed to be a
y≥0 known constant
The maximum value of objective function is : 3. Decision variables in a linear programming
(a) 18 (b) 24 model are allowed to have any values,
(c) 30 (d) 12 excluding non-integar values, that satisfy the
functional and non negativity constraints.
SJVN ET 2019
Of the above, which is correct
Ans. (a) : Max (z) = 3x + 9y
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Subject to,
(c) 2 only (d) 2 and 3
x+y ≤ 8 ........(i) (e) 1 and 2
x+2y ≤ 4 ........(ii) CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Solution by graphical method. Ans. (a) : Let us look at the steps of defining a Linear
Programming problem generically
(i) Identify the decision variables.
(ii) Write the objective function.
(iii) Mention the constraints
(iv) Explicitly state the non-negativity restriction.
For a problem to be a linear programming problem, the
decision variables, objective function and constraints all
have to be linear function.
210. Consider the following statements:
The points lying on the boundary of the feasible region 1. A linear programming problem with three
(i.e. point A and B) are considered only because at one variables and two constraints can be solved by
of these points the value of objective function (z = 3x + graphical method.
9y) is maximum. 2. For solutions of a linear programming problem
Since, with mixed constraints. Big-M-method can be
At point A (4, 0) employed.
3. In the solution process of a linear
z = 3 × 4 + 9 × 0 = 12
programming problem using Big-M-method,
At point B (0, 2)
when an artificial variable leaves the basis, the
Z = 18 column of the artificial variable can be
Hence, maximum value of objective function, removed from all subsequent tables.
Max (z) = 18 Of above, which are correct?
208. Which one of the following is not the solution (a) 1 (b) 1, 2
method of transportation problems? (c) 1, 2, 3 (d) 1, 3
(a) Hungarian method (e) 2, 3
(b) Northwest corner method CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
(c) Least cost method Ans. (e) : For solutions of a linear programming
(d) Vogel's approximation method problem with mixed constraints. Big-M-method can be
(e) Big M method CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift employed In the solution process of a linear
Ans. (a) : There are three methods of transportation programming problem using Big-M-method, when an
problems as given below artificial variable leaves the basis, the column of the
artificial variable can be removed from all subsequent
(i) Northwest corner method
tables.
847
211. In Graphical solution of maximisation 215. The maximum value of Z = 3x + 4y subjected to
problem, the line which we move from origin to the constraints
the extreme point of the polygon is: 2 x + y ≤ 4, x + 24 ≥ 12, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
(a) Any one side of the polygon (a) 10 (b) 20
(b) Iso profit line (c) 30 (d) No feasible solution
(c) Iso cost line
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
(d) An imaginary line
Ans. (d) : z = 3x + 4y (maximum value)
(e) Break Even line
Constraints
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
2x + y ≤ 4
Ans. (b) : If the LPP is a maximisation problem, the
objective line (iso-profit line) is then moved parallel to x + 2 y ≥ 12
the initial objective line, towards the origin until only x≥0
one point of the feasible region lies on the objective y≥0
line. This would be the corner point of the feasible
x y
region where the objective function has the minimum + ≤1
2 4
value.
x y
212. When there are 'm' rows and 'n' columns in a + ≥1
transportation problem, degeneracy is said to 12 6
occur when the number of allocations is: x≥0
(a) Less than (m + n - 1) y≥0
(b) Greater than (m + n - 1)
(c) Equal to (m - n - 1)
(d) Less than (m - n - 1)
(e) Equal to (m + n - 1)
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
Ans. (a) : When there are 'm' rows and 'n' columns in a
transportation problem, degeneracy is said to occur
when the number of allocations is Less than (m + n - 1).
213. In a transportation problem, the materials are
transported from 3 plants to 5 warehouses, the
basis feasible solution must contain exactly,
which one of the following allocated cells? It is a case of no feasible solution.
(a) 3 (b) 5
216. Consider the Linear Programming problem :
(c) 7 (d) 8 Maximize 7X1 + 6X2 + 4X3 subjected to X1 + X2
TNPSC AE 2017 + X3 ≤ 5, 2X1 + X2 + 3X3 ≤ 10, X1, X2, X3 ≥ 0
Ans. (c) : Total number of allocated cells will be (Solve by algebraic method). The number of
(m + n – 1). Then (3 + 5 – 1) = 7 basic solution is :
214. Modified distribution method is used for (a) 10 (b) 7
(a) Queuing problem (c) 9 (d) 8
(b) Assignment problem BHEL ET 2019
(c) Both Queuing problem and Assignment Ans. (a) : 10
problem 217. In a transportation problem with 4 supply
(d) Transportation problem points and 5 demand points, how many number
of constraints are required in its formulation?
RPSC LECTURER 16.01.2016
(a) 20 (b) 1
Ans. (d) : Modified distribution method is used for
(c) 0 (d) 9
transportation problem.
BHEL ET 2019

848
Ans. (d) : Total supply from warehouse = 4
Demand point outcome = 5
Number of functional constraints = 4 + 5
Over constrained structure = 9
218. The purpose of the stepping store is to
(a) develop the initial solution to a transport
problem
(b) identify the relevant costs in a transportation
problem
(c) determine whether a given solution is a
feasible or not
(d) assist one in moving from an initial feasible
solution to the optimal solution
TNPSC AE 2014 Ans. (b) : change in right hand side of feasible region
Ans. (d) : The purpose of the stepping store is to assist
one in moving from an initial feasible solution to the
optimal solution.
219. A feasible solution to a linear programming
problem
(a) must satisfy all of the problem's constraints
simultaneously
(b) need not satisfy all of the constraints, only of
them
(c) must not be a corner point of the feasible
region
(d) must give the maximum possible profit
TNPSC AE 2014
Ans. (a) : A feasible solution to a linear programming
problem must satisfy all of the problem's constraints
simultaneously.
220. In order for a transportation matrix which has
six rows and four columns not to degenerate,
what is the number occupied cells in the
matrix?
(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9
TNPSC AE 2013
Ans. (d) : 9
221. Simplex problem is considered as infeasible
when
(a) All the variables in entering column are
negative
(b) Variables in the basis are negative
(c) Artificial variable is present in basis
(d) Pivotal value is negative
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (c) : Simplex problem is considered as infeasible
when artificial variable is present in basis.
222. Based on final table of simplex LPP said to
have alternative solution if in (Ej - Cj) row
849
(a)
One or more basic variable has zero value
(b)
Entering variable has negative coefficient
(c)
below a non basic variable there is zero
(d)
optimum function value is zero
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (c) : below a non basic variable there is zero
223. In linear programming problem when does
feasibility change?
(a) change in objective functions coefficient
(b) change in right hand side of feasible region
(c) addiction of new variable
(d) Feasibility does not change
TSPSC AEE 2015
224. In the simplex method, the variables which
have not been assigned the value zero, during
an iteration, are called
(a) artificial variables (b) basic variables
(c) coded variables (d) actual variables
TNPSC 2019
Ans. (b) : In the simplex method, the variables which
have not been assigned the value zero, during an
iteration, are called basic variables.
225. In order that linear programming techniques
provide valid results
(a) Relations between factors must be linear
(Positive)
(b) Relations between factors must be linear
(Negative)
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) None of the above
Vizag Steel (MT) 2017
Ans. (c) : In order that linear programming techniques
provide valid results-
i. Relations between factors must be linear (Positive)
ii. Relations between factors must be linear (Negative)
226. In a 6 × 6 transportation problem, degeneracy
would arise, if the number of filled slots were :
(a) Equal to thirty six (b) More than twelve
(c) Equal to twelve (d) Less than eleven
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
TSPSC AEE 2015
Ans. (d) :
No. of allocations = m + n –1
=6+6–1
= 11
! In a transportation problem if the number of non-
negative in dependent allocations is less than m + n –1,
there exists degeneracy.
227. If the primal has an unbounded solution, then
the dual has
 (a) Optimal solution (b) No solution
(c) Bound solution (d) None of the above
RPSC Vice Principal ITI 2018
Ans. (b) : If the primal (dual) is unbounded, then the
dual (primal) has no feasible solution because such a
feasible solution would give a bound on the former
problem, which contradictions its unboundedness. It is
possible for the primal and dual to be simultaneously
infeasible.
228. While solving a linear programming model, if a
redundant constraint is added, then what will
be its effect on existing solution?
(a) There will be no effect
(b) The solution space will get further
constrained
(c) The solution space becomes concave
(d) The problem no longer remains solvable
BPSC AE Mains 2017 Paper - VI
Ans : (a) : Constraint which does not become part of
the boundary making a feasible region is termed as
redundant constraint. Inclusion or exclusion of such
constraint does not have any effect on the optimum
solution of the problem.
229. If there are m sources and n destinations in a
transportation matrix, the total number of
basic variables in a basic feasible solution is :
(a) m + n (b) m + n + 1
(c) m + n – 1 (d) m
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
TRB Polytechnic Lecturer 2017
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans : (c) : The total number of basic variables in a basic
feasible solution is m + n – 1.
230. In PERT chart, the activity time distribution is
(a) Normal (b) Binomial
(c) Poisson (d) Beta
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (d) : In PERT chart, the activity time distribution
is beta.
231. Two models A and B, of a product earn profits
of Rs. 100 and Rs. 80 per piece, respectively.
Production times of A and B are 5 hours and 3
hours respectively, while total production time
available is 180 hours. For a total batch size of
50, to maximize profit, the number of units A
to be produced is
(a) 10 (b) 15
(c) 20 (d) 25
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (b) :
Maximize → 100 A + 80 B = Z objective function
850
Constraints time → 5A + 3B ≤ 180
Constraints item → A + B ≤ 50
Maximum value of objective function 'Z' will be at all
vertices (corner points) at it will lie max at 'S' when
item A = 15
item B = 35
232. Simplex method of solving linear programming
problem uses
(a) all the points in the feasible region
(b) only the corner points of the feasible region
(c) intermediate points within the infeasible
region
(d) only the interior points in the feasible region
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (b) : Simplex method of solving linear
programming problems use only the corner points of the
feasible region because every corner point represent one
solution on simplex method.
233. The total number of decision variable in the
objective function of an assignment problem
size n×n (n job and a machine) is
(a) n2 (b) 2n
(c) 2n - 1 (d) n
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
OPSC AEE 2019 Paper-I
Ans : (a) : A, n × n assignment problem, m it is solved
as a LPP it will have n2 variables.
[ x 11 , x 12 , x 21 , x 22 ,...........x nn ]
234. A linear programming problem is shown
below:
Maximize 3x + 7y
Subject to 3x + 7y ≤ 10
4x + 6y ≤ 8
x,y ≥ 0
It has
(a) an unbounded objective function
(b) exactly one optimal solution
(c) exactly two optimal solutions
(d) infinitely many optimal solutions
Gujarat PSC AE 2019
Ans : (b) : Given- (a) Names of the variables
Max (z) = 3x + 7y (b) Coefficient of the objective function
subjected to, (c) Slack variables
3x + 7y ≤ 10 ...(1) (d) None of the above
4x + 6y ≤ 8 ...(2) UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I

x, y ≥ 0 Ans. (c) : In simplex method of linear programming the

objective row of the matrix consists of slack variables.
238. Following is not a method of solving a
transportation problem:-
(a) Northwest corner method
(b) Least cost method
(c) Vogel’s approximation method
(d) Dynamic method
Solution by graph method, UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I

Feasible region (O - A - B - O) Ans. (d) : Northwest corner method, least cost method
and Vogel's approximation method are used to solving a
Since, At point A (2, 0)
transportation problem.
z=3×2+7×0=6
239. In the graphical method of linear programming
At point B (0, 4/3)
problem the optimum solution would lie in the
4 feasible polygon at:-
z = 3× 0 + 7 ×
3 (a) Its one corner
28 (b) Its center
=
3 (c) The middle of any side
= 9.33 (d) None of the above
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
Hence, exactly one optimal solution.
Ans. (a) : In the graphical method of linear
235. A basic feasible solution in a linear
programming problem the optimum solution would lie
programming problem with m constraints and
in the feasible polygon at its one corner.
n variables will have
240. If in graphical solution of linear programming
(a) At the most m variable with non zero values.
problem, the objective function line is parallel
(b) At least m variables with non zero to the line representing constraint equation,
(c) At the most n variables with non zero values. then the solution of problem is:-
(d) At least n variables with non zero values. (a) Infeasible solution
UPPSC AE 12.04.2016 Paper-I (b) Unbound solution
Ans : (a) At the most m variable with non zero values. (c) Multiple optimum solution
(d) None of the above
236. For which of the following situations linear
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
programming can be applied?
Ans. (c) : In linear programming problem, the objective
(a) Material selection problems
function line is parallel to the line representing
(b) Product design problems
constraint equation, then the solution of problem will be
(c) Scheduling of production to meet sales multiple optimum solution.
forecast
241. If ‘m’ is the number of constraints in a linear
(d) Quenching problems programming problem with two variables ‘x’
BPSC Poly. Lect. 2016 and ‘y’ and non-negativity constraints x & y ≥
Ans : (c) Linear programming applied in scheduling of 0. The feasible region in the graphical solution
production to meet sales forecast. will be surrounded by:-
237. In simplex method of linear programming the (a) m lines (b) m + 1 lines
objective row of the matrix consists of:- (c) m + 2 lines (d) m + 4 lines
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
851
Ans. (c) : Number of constraints = m (c) The collection of feasible solution does not
Number of non-negative constraints x & y ≥ 0 constitute a convex set.
is 2, then total number of lines of the feasible region in (d) It improves the first trial solution by a set of
the graphical solution will be m + 2. rules.
242. In linear programming problem, the shadow UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
price is Ans. (c) : The collection of feasible solution does not
(a) the value assigned to one unit capacity constitute a convex set.
(b) the maximum cost per unit item 247. The following is not true for linear
(c) the lowest sale price programming problems :
(d) None of the above (a) Objective function is expressed as a linear
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I function of variables.
Ans. (a) : the value assigned to one unit capacity (b) Resources are not limited.
(c) Some alternative course of actions are also
243. Which of the following is true about the initial
available.
basic feasible solution in simplex method ?
(a) It is an optimal solution. (d) Decision variables are inter related.
(b) All basic variables are zero. UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
(c) Solution is not possible. Ans. (b) : Resources are not limited.
(d) Any one basic variable in zero 248. A transportation problem will have feasible
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I solutions if and only if
m n m n
Ans. (b) : All basic variables are zero. (a) ∑S = ∑di j (b) ∑S < ∑di j
244. The leaving basic variable in simplex method is i =1 j =1 i =1 j =1

the basic variable that m n

(a) has the lowest value.

(c) ∑S > ∑d
i =1
i
j =1
j (d) none of the above
(b) has the largest coefficient in the key row. where Si denotes number of units being
(c) goes to zero first, as the entering basic supplied by source and dj number of units
variable is increased. being received by destination
(d) has the smallest coefficient in the key row. UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I m n

Ans. (d) : has the smallest coefficient in the key row.

Ans. (a) : ∑S = ∑d
i =1
i
j =1
j

245. Assertion (A) : Vogel’s approximation method 249. In simplex method, If basic variables satisfy the
yields the best initial basic feasible solution of a non-negativity constraints, the basic solution
transportation problem. (a) is not optimal
Reason (R) : Vogel’s method give allocations to (b) is basic feasible solution
the lowest cost elements of the whole matrix. (c) is basic infeasible solution
Code : (d) does not exist UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the Ans. (b) : Is basic feasible solution
correct explanation of (A).
250. The following is not true for the assignment
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A). model:
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is false. (a) xij = 1
n
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
(b) ∑ xij = 1
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I j =1

Ans. (c) : (A) is correct, but (R) is false. n

(c) ∑ xij = 1
246. Which one of the followings statements is not i =1
correct regarding simplex method of linear
(d) it can be stated in the form of n × n cost
programming ?
matrix [Cij] of real numbers
(a) It is an iterative procedure.
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(b) It has a trial basic feasible solution to
constraints. Ans. (a) : xij = 1
852
251. An initial feasible solution of an optimization Ans. (a) : C-chart is based on number of defects per
problem is unit of a product.
(a) All basic variables are equal to zero 256. TQM is related to:-
(b) At least one basic variable should have (a) Quality control (b) Control chart
optimum value. (c) Sampling (d) Work study
(c) All basic variables should have real values UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
(d) None of the above Ans. (a) : Total quality management (TQM) is related
UJVNL AE 2016 to quality control.
Ans : (a) An initial feasible solution of an optimuzation 257. Which one of the following shows the
problem is all basic variables are equal to zero. percentage of the area in normal distribution
curve for ± 2 σ limits?
8. Quality Control and Analysis (a) 99.73% (b) 95.45%
(c) 68.26% (d) None of the above
252. Who among the following is associated with UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
contributions to quality control in operations
Ans. (b) : 95.45%
management?
(a) Charles Babbage 258. In sampling, AQL stands for:-
(a) Average quality level
(b) Henry Ford
(b) Acceptable quality level
(c) Frank Gilbreth
(c) Asymmetric quality level
(d) W. Edwards Deming
(d) Available quality level
(e) Henri Fayol
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
CGPSC 26th April 1st Shift
Ans. (b) : In sampling, AQL stands for acceptable
Ans. (d) : W. Edwards Deming is associated with
quality level.
contributions to quality control in operations
management. 259. Manufacturer’s risk is the probability of:-
(a) Rejecting a good lot which otherwise would
253. The following chart shows the consistency of
have been accepted
the process:
(b) Defective batch being accepted which
(a) X (b) R
otherwise would have been rejected
(c) C (d) P
(c) Bad components in a lot
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b) : R UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
254. Producer's risk in acceptance sampling is Ans. (a) : Manufacturer’s risk is the probability of
(a) chance of producing defective components rejecting a good lot which otherwise would have been
(b) chance of accepting the defective components accepted.
by the customer 260. In operating characteristics curve, abscissa (x-
(c) chance of incurring high cost axis) represents:-
(d) chance of rejecting the parts by the customer (a) Number of defectives
of the specified quality (b) Percentage defectives
TNPSC AE 2014 (c) Sample number
Ans. (d) : Producer's risk in acceptance sampling is (d) Probability of acceptance
chance of rejecting the parts by the customer of the UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I
specified quality. Ans. (b) : Operation characteristics (OC) curve- The
255. C-chart is based on one of the following:- operating characteristic (OC) curve depicts the
(a) Number of defects per unit of a product discriminatory power of an acceptance sampling plan.
(b) Fraction defectives in the sample The OC curve plots the probabilities of accepting a lot
(c) Number of defectives in the sample [on - y - axis] versus the fraction defective [on - x -
(d) None of the above axis]
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I 261. Which one of the following is not the control
chart for attributes:-

853
 (a) p chart (b) c chart process, when plotted, will form a normal
(c) R chart (d) x chart distribution curve.
UKPSC AE-2013, Paper-I Code :
Ans. (c) : P chart, U chart, C chart and x chart are (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the
attributes control charts. correct explanation of (A).
262. Which of the following charts indicates (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is not the
variability of variability within the collected correct explanation of (A).
samples ? (c) (A) is correct, but (R) is in correct.
(a) X chart (b) σ chart (d) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
(c) c chart (d) u chart UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Ans. (b) : Both (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is not the
Ans. (b) : σ chart correct explanation of (A).
263. The probability law used for calculating the 267. Choose the false statement from the following :
control limits of ‘P’ chart is
(a) Control chart indicate whether the process is
(a) Binomial (b) Poisson
in control or not.
(c) Normal (d) Exponential
(b) X and R charts are used to evaluate
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
dispersion of measurements.
Ans. (c) : Normal
(c) P-chart is a control chart for percentage
264. If P = % activity and A = limit of accuracy in
defective.
work sampling. The number of observations at
(d) C-charts are prepared for large and complex
a confidence level of 95% is given by
components.
(a)
(1− P)
(b)
2 (1 − P )
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
A2P A2P
Ans. (b) : X and R charts are used to evaluate
3 (1 − P ) 4 (1 − P )
(c) (d) dispersion of measurements.
A2P A2P
268. Which of the following are the quality control
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
limits for p-charts ?
4 (1 − P )
Ans. (d) : (a) p ± 3 p (1 − p ) (b) p ± p (1 − p )
A2P
265. Which of the following is not the characteristics p (1 − p )
(c) p ± 3 (d) p ± 3 np (1 − p )
of work sampling ? n
(a) Any interruption during study will not affect UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
the results.
(b) The study causes less fatigue. p (1 − p )
Ans. (c) : p ± 3
(c) Uneconomical for short cycle jobs. n
(d) A stop watch is needed. 269. The upper and lower control limits in case of
UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I R-chart are given by
Ans. (d) : A stop watch is needed. (a) A 2 R & A3R (b) D3 R & D4 R
266. Choose the Correct relationship between the (c) R ± D3R (d) R ± A 2 R
given statements of Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). UKPSC AE 2012 Paper-I
Assertion (A) : In case of control charts for Ans. (b) : D3 R & D4 R
variables, if some points fall outside the control
270. The upper control limit of the 'C' chart is
limits, it is concluded that process is not under
control. (a) C + 3 C (b) C + 2 C
Reason (R) : It was experimentally proved by (c) C + 2C (d) C + 3C
Shewart that averages of four or more consecutive
UKPSC AE 2007 Paper -I
readings from a universe (population) or from a
854
Ans. (a) : C + 3 C Ans. (a) : AQL - Acceptable quality level.
276. Fundamental purpose of quality control is to
271. Gantt chart are used for
maintain the quality standard of the
(a) Forecasting sales
manufactured items/products at–
(b) Production schedule
(a) almost no cost (b) optimum cost
(c) Scheduling and routing
(d) Linear Programming